General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTCurrent Affairs
Arrange the following events of 2023 in chronological order:
- a. G20 Summit in India - b. ICC World Cup Final 2023 - c. Launch of Chandrayaan 3 - d. COP28 climate summit in Dubai
💡Correct Answer: Option A (c, a, b, d)
The chronological order is: Launch of Chandrayaan 3 (July 14, 2023), G20 Summit in New Delhi (September 9-10, 2023), ICC World Cup Final (November 19, 2023), and COP28 Summit in Dubai (November 30, 2023). This matches sequence: c, a, b, d.
Q2
Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
Fixed cost is a cost:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Which does not change in total during a given period despite changes in output)
Fixed costs are those expenses that remain constant in total amount over a specific range of activity/output during a given period, regardless of volume changes.
Q3
Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
Calculate the Prime Cost from the following information:
- Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000 - Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000 - Direct labour: Rs. 60,000 - Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000 - Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rs. 1,70,000)
Prime Cost is the sum of direct costs: Prime Cost = Direct Materials Consumed + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses = Rs. 90,000 + Rs. 60,000 + Rs. 20,000 = Rs. 1,70,000. (Note: Purchased material is not used directly, only consumed material is counted).
Q4
Accountancy & Book KeepingLedger
Suppliers' personal accounts are seen in the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Purchases Ledger)
The Purchases Ledger (or Creditors Ledger) contains the personal accounts of all suppliers from whom goods have been purchased on credit.
Q5
Accountancy & Book KeepingBasic Accounting
Bookkeeping is regarded as the _____ step of accounting.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (First)
Bookkeeping is the recording phase of accounting and constitutes the first step in the accounting process, which is followed by classifying, summarizing, and interpreting.
Q6
Accountancy & Book KeepingAccounting Equation
Which of the following is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (asset = liability + equity)
The fundamental accounting equation is Assets = Liabilities + Capital (Owner's Equity). This represents the balance sheet structure.
Q7
Accountancy & Book KeepingAccounting Concepts
Which concept suggests the exclusion of human resources in the balance sheet?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Money Measurement Concept)
The Money Measurement Concept states that only transactions and events that can be expressed in terms of money should be recorded. Since human resource value cannot be reliably quantified in money, it is excluded from the balance sheet.
Q8
Accountancy & Book KeepingVouchers
Which of the following procedures should an accountant follow while preparing a voucher?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
An accountant preparing a voucher must verify details on supporting bills, check authorization signatures, and determine the correct voucher type (receipt, payment, journal). Thus, all procedures are correct.
Q9
Accountancy & Book KeepingSource Documents
Which of the following business documents is proof of payment for a business transaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Receipt)
A Receipt is a written acknowledgment that a specified sum of money has been received, serving as proof of payment.
Q10
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
In a bank statement, cash deposited by the customer is shown as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (credit)
For the bank, customer deposits are liabilities. Hence, when cash is deposited, the bank credits the customer's account (indicating the bank owes this money back to the customer).
Q11
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
What is "Deposit in transit" in bank reconciliation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Added to Bank Balance)
Deposits in transit are funds received and recorded by the company in its cash book but not yet processed and recorded by the bank. In bank reconciliation, these are added to the bank statement balance.
Q12
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
What type of cheque is that which is issued by a firm but not yet presented to the bank?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Outstanding cheques)
An outstanding cheque (also known as an unpresented cheque) is a cheque that has been written and issued by the firm but has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.
Q13
Accountancy & Book KeepingPFMS
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was earlier known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS))
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was initially launched as a pilot program called the Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS) in 2009 to track funds released under plan schemes.
Q14
Accountancy & Book KeepingSingle Entry System
A statement of financial position produced from incomplete accounting records is commonly known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Statement of affairs)
Under the single entry system (incomplete records), a Statement of Affairs is prepared to estimate the financial position of a business and calculate opening and closing capital.
Q15
Accountancy & Book KeepingPartnership Accounts
What happens when interest on drawings is charged to a partner?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Debited to partner's capital a/c)
Interest on drawings is charged to partners as it is an expense for them. It is debited to the partner's Capital or Current Account, reducing their overall equity balance.
Q16
Accountancy & Book KeepingPartnership Accounts
M and N are two partners sharing profits and losses in a 3:2 ratio. They admit P as a new partner with a 1/5th share. What will be the new profit-sharing ratio?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12:8:5)
Let total profit = 1. P's share = 1/5. Remaining share = 1 - 1/5 = 4/5. M's new share = 3/5 4/5 = 12/25. N's new share = 2/5 4/5 = 8/25. P's share = 1/5 = 5/25. The new profit-sharing ratio is 12:8:5.
Q17
Accountancy & Book KeepingLedger
The method of transferring items from a journal into their respective ledger accounts is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Posting)
Posting is the process of transferring debits and credits from the journal or other books of original entry to the respective ledger accounts.
Q18
Accountancy & Book KeepingAuditing
When an audit is undertaken to check the financial controls and irregularities in the organization, it is which type of audit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Internal audit)
An internal audit is conducted within an organization to evaluate risk management, internal controls, and check for any financial irregularities/frauds.
Q19
Accountancy & Book KeepingRatio Analysis
Current Ratio is calculated as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Current assets / Current liabilities)
Current Ratio is a liquidity ratio that measures a company's ability to cover its short-term obligations. It is calculated as Current Assets divided by Current Liabilities.
Q20
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
A bank passbook is a copy of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The customer account in the bank's ledger)
A bank passbook (or bank statement) is a copy of the customer's ledger account maintained in the books of the bank.
Q21
Accountancy & Book KeepingTrial Balance
A trial balance helps to check the accuracy of the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ledger)
A trial balance is prepared to verify the arithmetical accuracy of postings in the ledger accounts. If the trial balance agrees, it indicates that the ledger accounts are arithmetically correct.
Q22
Accountancy & Book KeepingSingle Entry System
Which of the following entities generally prepare their books of accounts under the single entry system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sole traders)
Sole traders and small partnership businesses usually keep their accounts under the single entry system because of its simplicity and lower costs. Companies are legally required to maintain double-entry records.
Q23
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
GST is a consumption of goods and service tax based on:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Destination)
GST is a destination-based tax on consumption of goods and services, meaning the tax revenue goes to the consuming state rather than the producing state.
Q24
Accountancy & Book KeepingLeverage
What does financial leverage measure?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The sensibility of EPS w.r.t % change in the EBIT level)
Financial leverage measures the sensitivity of Earnings Per Share (EPS) in response to a percentage change in Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT).
Q25
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
A Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act when it is passed by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both House of Parliament and signed by President.)
A Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act after it is passed by both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and receives the formal assent (signature) of the President of India.
Q26
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
Income which accrues or arises outside India & is also received outside India is taxable in the case of:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Resident and Ordinary Resident)
Under Indian income tax law, global income (income accruing/arising and received outside India) is taxable only for individuals who are Resident and Ordinarily Resident (ROR).
Q27
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation (GST)
Which of the following is/are included in the definition of "Goods" as defined under section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Actionable claim)
Section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017 defines 'goods' to exclude money and securities but specifically includes actionable claims, growing crops, grass, etc.
Q28
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
The amount payable at the time of closure or opting out of the National Pension Scheme referred to in section 80CCD shall be exempt to the extent of _____ of the total amount payable.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (40%)
Under the Income Tax Act, at the time of closure or exit from the NPS, the exemption was initially set to 40% of the total amount payable under Section 10(12A). Although it was later raised to 60%, the question features the legacy 40% value in the options which was marked as the key by JKSSB.
Q29
Accountancy & Book KeepingPartnership Accounts
Goodwill of a firm of X and Y is valued at Rs. 30,000. It is appearing in the books at Rs. 12,000. Z is admitted for a 1/4th share. What amount is Z supposed to bring for goodwill?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (7,500)
The new partner Z must bring goodwill equivalent to their share in the current valued goodwill. Valued Goodwill = Rs. 30,000. Z's share = 1/4 of Rs. 30,000 = Rs. 7,500.
Q30
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
Assertion (A): If the interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source. Reason (R): If tax has not been deducted at source, the amount paid as interest will not be allowed as a deduction in computing business income.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).)
Both are correct. Section 40(a)(i) mandates that if interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source (TDS). If tax is not deducted, the interest expense is disallowed as a deduction, making R the correct explanation of A.
Q31
Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
From the following information, find out the number of units that must be sold by the firm to earn a profit of Rs. 1,80,000 per year:
- Sales price: Rs. 25 per unit - Variable manufacturing costs: Rs. 12 per unit - Variable selling costs: Rs. 3 per unit - Fixed factory overheads: Rs. 5,00,000 - Fixed selling costs: Rs. 3,00,000
💡Correct Answer: Option C (98,000 units)
Contribution per unit = Selling Price - Total Variable Cost = 25 - (12 + 3) = Rs. 10. Total Fixed Cost = 5,00,000 + 3,00,000 = Rs. 8,00,000. Required Sales Units = (Fixed Costs + Target Profit) / Contribution per unit = (8,00,000 + 1,80,000) / 10 = 9,80,000 / 10 = 98,000 units.
Q32
Statistics & MathematicsRelations and Functions
Consider the following relations/functions and their properties:
- a. F={(x,y)∈R×R:x2+y=2} - b. F={(x,y)∈R×R:x2+y2=25} - c. F={(x,y)∈R×R:y=2x+1} - d. F={(x,y)∈R×R:y=x2}
Matches: - 1. F∘F={(x,z)∈R×R:z=4x+3} - 2. F is increasing on (0,∞) but not on $\mathbb{R} - 3$. F is one-one but not onto - 4. Range of F=[−2,∞) (assuming y=x2−2 in the paper's original intended equation) - 5. F is not a function
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2)
F in (b) is a circle equation, which is not a function (b-5). F in (c) has F(F(x))=2(2x+1)+1=4x+3 (c-1). F in (d) is y=x2, which is increasing on positive real numbers but not on the whole real line (d-2). This makes D (a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2) the correct match.
Q33
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFirearms
Which of the following marks are usually present on a cartridge fired from a good quality firearm?
i. Firing pin mark. ii. Breech face. iii. Chamber marks.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
When a cartridge is fired, the firing pin indent, breech face marks (transferred under high pressure), and chamber scraping marks are typically left on the primer and cartridge case.
Q34
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFirearms
The internal diameter of a barrel is known as:
i. Bore ii. Calibre iii. Gauge
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i & ii)
Bore and Calibre refer to the internal diameter of the barrel. Gauge is a system of measurement indicating the diameter of smoothbore barrels (shotguns) in terms of lead balls per pound, but is not the diameter name itself.
Q35
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationShotguns
Which of the following statement is true for Barrel choke?
i. It is the reducing of bore of a shotgun at the breech end ii. Choke increases the effective range of a shotgun. iii. Reduction of diameter by one millimeter is called as full choke.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Statements ii and iii are true. A choke is a constriction at the muzzle end (not the breech end) of a shotgun barrel, which tightens the shot pattern to increase the effective range. A 1mm reduction in diameter corresponds to a full choke.
Q36
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFirearms
A firearm can have the following type of barrels:
i. Smooth bore ii. Rifled bore iii. Smoothbore with partial rifling
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Barrels can be smoothbore (shotguns), rifled (rifles/pistols), or partially rifled (like Paradox barrels, which are smoothbore with rifling only at the muzzle end).
Q37
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationShotguns
Which of the following statements are true for shotguns?
i. A shotgun is a short-range firearm. ii. Shotgun gives accurate aim when a single projectile is fired iii. Spreading of pellets increases with increase in range of fire.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i & iii)
Statements i and iii are true. A shotgun is typically a short-range weapon, and pellet dispersion increases with range. Statement ii is incorrect because smoothbore shotguns are generally inaccurate when firing a single projectile (slug) compared to rifled barrels.
Q38
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationArms Act
Which of the following means ammunition, as per Indian Arms Act, 1959?
i. Rocket. ii. Noxious liquid iii. Charges for firearm.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Section 2(b) of the Indian Arms Act, 1959 defines 'ammunition' to include rockets, noxious liquid/gas-producing articles, and propellant charges/cartridges for firearms.
Q39
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
The active constituents of smokeless powder are?
i. Nitroglycerine. ii. Nitrocellulose. iii. Sulphur.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i & ii)
Smokeless powder consists of Nitrocellulose (single-base) or Nitrocellulose and Nitroglycerine (double-base). Sulphur is a constituent of black powder, not smokeless powder.
Q40
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
In firearms, the powders with increasing rate of burning are called as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Progressive powder)
Progressive burning powder is designed to burn at an increasing rate as it travels, which helps maintain high pressure behind the bullet inside the barrel.
Q41
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Which of the following are the constituents of gunpowder?
i. Sodium Nitrate ii. Sulphur iii. Charcoal.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Traditional gunpowder (black powder) consists of an oxidizer (potassium nitrate or alternatively sodium nitrate in industrial blasting powders) combined with sulphur and charcoal.
Q42
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Which of the following statements are true for gun powder?
i. Suitable for high velocity ammunition ii. It gives irregular ballistics iii. Leaves considerable amount of solid residue
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Statements ii and iii are true. Gunpowder (black powder) is unsuitable for modern high-velocity ammunition because it burns too rapidly, has irregular ballistics, and leaves behind about 55% solid fouling residue.
Q43
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFiring Process
Arrange the following process of firing in increasing order of chronology.
i. Triggering ii. Striking percussion cap iii. Hammer release iv. Ignition of propellent
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, iii, ii, iv)
The correct sequence of events when firing a gun is: first the trigger is pulled/triggering (i), which releases the hammer (iii), causing the firing pin to strike the percussion cap (ii), leading to the ignition of the propellant (iv).
Q44
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationGSR Analysis
Match the following:
List-I (Detectable Metal) i. Antimony ii. Copper iii. Iron iv. Nitrates
List-II (Source) a. Primers b. Barrel c. Propellants d. Bullet jacket
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c)
List-I (Test) i. Dermal Nitrate Test ii. Harrison and Gilroy's Test iii. Price's Spot Test iv. Walker's Test
List-II (Reagent) a. Diphenylamine b. 2 naphthylamine c. Triphenylmethyl arsonium iodide d. Sodium rhodizonate
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b)
The correct matches are: Dermal Nitrate Test uses Diphenylamine (i-a); Harrison and Gilroy's Test uses Sodium Rhodizonate (ii-d); Price's Spot Test uses Triphenylmethyl arsonium iodide (iii-c); Walker's Test uses 2-naphthylamine (iv-b).
Q46
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationWound Ballistics
Match the following:
List-I (Bullet Velocity Zone) i. Under 400 m/s ii. 400 to 600 m/s iii. 600 to 1100 m/s iv. Beyond 1100 m/s
List-II (Wounding phenomena) a. Instantaneous death b. Explosive wound c. No abnormal wounding phenomena d. Expanding bullets starts mushrooming
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a)
The correct matches are: Under 400 m/s - No abnormal wounding phenomena (i-c); 400 to 600 m/s - Expanding bullets starts mushrooming (ii-d); 600 to 1100 m/s - Explosive wound (iii-b); Beyond 1100 m/s - Instantaneous death (iv-a).
Q47
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationTrajectory
The vertical range is maximum at angle of projection equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (90°)
The maximum vertical height (range) is obtained when a projectile is fired straight up, which corresponds to an angle of 90°.
Drag becomes equal to the projectile's weight after which the projectile falls with a constant velocity known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Terminal velocity)
When the downward force of gravity (weight) equals the upward air resistance (drag), the net force becomes zero, and the projectile falls at a constant terminal velocity.
Q49
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationWound Ballistics
The range which commences beyond the limit of flame zone and extends up to the distance to which the gunpowder residues could be projected in the area surrounding the wound of entrance is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Near range)
The 'Near range' (or close range) is the zone beyond the burning flame where unburnt/semi-burnt gunpowder particles are projected, creating powder tattooing (stippling) on the skin.
Q50
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Following is not the part of ammunition
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Barrel)
The barrel is a mechanical part of the firearm itself, while the cartridge case, bullet, and primer are components of the ammunition.
Q51
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationHistory of Firearms
Arrange the following firearms with chronological order of their invention.
i. Match Lock ii. Wheel Lock iii. Hand Canon iv. 0.303 SLR
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii, i, ii, iv)
The correct chronological sequence of inventions is: Hand Cannon (14th century, iii) -> Matchlock (15th century, i) -> Wheellock (16th century, ii) -> 0.303 SLR (20th century, iv). This corresponds to order: iii, i, ii, iv.
Q52
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationTrajectory
The horizontal range of a projectile when projected with same velocity at angle of projections 30° and 60° is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Same)
The horizontal range equation is R = (v² sin(2θ)) / g. Since sin(230°) = sin(60°) and sin(260°) = sin(120°) = sin(60°), complementary angles of projection yield the exact same horizontal range.
Q53
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationRifling
The process of cutting the lands and groove inside the barrel of a firearm is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rifling)
Rifling is the process of cutting helical grooves (creating lands and grooves) inside the bore of a firearm barrel to impart spin and stabilize the bullet.
Q54
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Ammunition of rifles firearm DOES NOT contain
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wads)
Wads are cylindrical cardboard, plastic, or felt barriers used in shotgun shells to separate the powder and pellets. Rifle cartridges do not contain wads.
Q55
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationHistory of Firearms
Snaphaunce and Miquelet are the types of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Flint lock)
Snaphaunce and Miquelet are early historic variations and developments of the Flintlock ignition mechanism.
Which of the following is not the factor affecting on the internal ballistics?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wind deflection.)
Internal ballistics covers everything that happens inside the gun barrel before the bullet exits. Wind deflection occurs in flight, which is part of external ballistics.
Q57
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeAmmunition
Dum-Dum bullets were first manufactured at
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Calcutta)
Dum-Dum (expanding) bullets were first designed and manufactured in the late 19th century at the British Indian Army Arsenal located in Dum Dum near Calcutta (Kolkata).
Q58
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeAmmunition
The function of primer is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To ignite the main charge)
The primer contains a small amount of sensitive primary explosive that detonates upon impact, sending a flame to ignite the main propellant powder charge.
Q59
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeShotguns
Wad in the cartridge serves the purpose of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To prevent from jerk)
The wad serves as a cushion and barrier in shotgun shells. The compressible section of the wad helps absorb the initial peak shock wave (the 'jerk') upon ignition, protecting the barrel and stabilizing pressure.
Q60
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeWound Ballistics
Scorching is also known as
i. Singeing ii. Burning iii. Charring
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Scorching (the thermal damage caused by muzzle flash gases) is also referred to as singeing (specifically for hair) or burning/charring (for fibers and tissue).
Q61
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeWound Ballistics
Tattooing is also known as
i. Blackening ii. Peppering iii. Stippling
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Tattooing is the embedding of unburnt powder grains in the skin, which is also known as stippling or peppering. Blackening is the deposit of soot/smoke, which can be wiped off, unlike tattooing.
Q62
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeShotguns
The mathematical relation between diameter of dispersed pellets (D) and range (R) of fire of a half choke standard firearms is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (D=3R)
In standard ballistics, the pattern diameter (D in cm) for a half-choke shotgun is roughly 3 times the range of fire (R in meters): D = 3R. (Contrast: Cylinder is 4R, Full choke is 2R/2.5R).
Q63
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeWound Ballistics
Which of the following are characteristics wounds caused by firearms?
i. Rat holes ii. Key holes iii. Explosive wound
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
All three are characteristic gunshot wounds: Rat holes (close-range shotgun wound), Key holes (tumbling bullet entries), and Explosive wounds (high-velocity or contact head wounds).
Q64
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyHypothesis Testing
In hypothesis testing, what is a type II error?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (If the investigator fails to reject a null hypothesis that is false in the population.)
A Type II error (beta error) occurs when the null hypothesis is false but the investigator fails to reject it.
Q65
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistics
What is the value with the most instances or occurrences in the list called?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mode)
In statistics, the mode is the value that appears most frequently in a data set.
Q66
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySampling
What is random sampling?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (When each item has an equal chance of selection it is called random sampling)
Simple random sampling is a selection method where every individual member of the population has an equal probability of being chosen.
Q67
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyChi Square Test
What is the formula for Chi square test?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($x^{2}=$\Sigma$$\frac{(Observed~value-Expected~value)^{2}$}{Expected~value}$)
The Chi-square formula is: χ² = Σ [(O - E)² / E], where O is the observed frequency and E is the expected frequency.
Q68
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability
There are two events "I" and "J". The events occurring are mutually exclusive for example "I" or "J", its probability is given by which of the laws of probability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Addition rule)
For mutually exclusive events, the probability of I or J occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities (Addition Rule): P(I ∪ J) = P(I) + P(J).
Q69
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyF Test
Which of the following tests is used to check the equality of variances between two populations?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (F-test)
The F-test is a statistical test used to compare the variances of two independent populations.
Q70
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyHypothesis Testing
If the F statistic is larger than the critical F value.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Accept the alternate hypothesis, H,)
If the calculated F-statistic exceeds the critical value, we reject the null hypothesis (H₀) and accept the alternate hypothesis (H₁).
Q71
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySemen Analysis
Which of the following is the major protein present in seminal fluid at concentrations of 0.5-2.0 mg/mL?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prostate Specific Antigen)
Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA or p30) is present in seminal fluid at concentrations of 0.5–2.0 mg/mL, serving as a key marker for semen detection. Semenogelins are present in much higher concentrations (10-20 mg/mL).
Q72
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySemen Analysis
What compound acts as the substrate in the Fast Blue B test for semen detection?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-naphthyl phosphate)
In the Brentamine (Fast Blue B) test, alpha-naphthyl phosphate acts as the substrate for acid phosphatase, releasing alpha-naphthol which reacts with the dye to form a purple color.
Q73
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyUrine Detection
DMAC assay is a presumptive assay for body fluid detection. What does it detect?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Urea in urine)
The DMAC (p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde) assay reacts with urea, which is present in high concentrations in urine, to produce a pink/red color.
Q74
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyEpithelial Cells
Epithelial cell detection is often indicative of the presence of various body fluids. What stain can be used to distinguish between skin, oral and vaginal epithelial cells?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dane's)
Dane's staining method is used to differentiate skin (keratinized), oral, and vaginal epithelial cells based on color differences related to keratinization.
Match the column of the part of spermatozoa to the colour stained in Christmas tree staining.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-q, ii-r, iii-s, iv-p)
In the Christmas Tree Stain (nuclear fast red/picroindigocarmine), the acrosomal cap is pink (i-q), the nucleus is red (ii-r), the tail is green (iii-s), and the midpiece is blue (iv-p).
Q76
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySaliva Analysis
Which gland produces majority of saliva in humans?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Submandibular glands)
The submandibular glands produce approximately 65-70% of the total unstimulated saliva in humans, followed by the parotids.
Q77
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyVaginal Secretions
What are the predominant bacteria in the vagina of women of reproductive age?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lactobacilli spp)
Lactobacillus species are the dominant members of the vaginal microbiota in healthy women of reproductive age, keeping the pH acidic to protect against infections.
Q78
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyImmunology
Which among the following terms would be aptly defined as a foreign substance that is capable of eliciting antibody formation in a host cell and combining with the antibody?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Antigen)
An antigen is traditionally defined as a foreign substance that can trigger an immune response (eliciting antibodies) and bind specifically with those antibodies.
Q79
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyLewis Blood Group
Which of the following statements pertaining to the Lewis antigen system is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lewis Ags expression is influenced by LEW1 and LEW2 genes)
The Lewis antigen expression is governed by the FUT3 (Lewis) and FUT2 (Secretor) genes on chromosome 19. There are no genes named LEW1 and LEW2.
Q80
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyRh System
Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn occurs when -
💡Correct Answer: Option D (An Rh negative mother becomes pregnant with an Rh positive fetus for the second time)
Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN) occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. In subsequent pregnancies, maternal antibodies cross the placenta and attack fetal RBCs.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International Union for Conservation of Nature)
IUCN stands for the International Union for Conservation of Nature, an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
Q82
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Botany
Which of the following statements pertaining to use of palynomorphs in forensics is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Recovery of diatoms from stomach alone indicates death by drowning)
Finding diatoms in the stomach alone does not prove drowning, as diatoms can be swallowed with drinking water. Diatoms must be recovered from closed organs like bone marrow, brain, or liver to indicate drowning.
Q83
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyImmunoassays
In an immunochromatography assay, what would the control zone comprise of?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Immobilised unlabelled antiglobulin)
The control line contains immobilized antiglobulin antibodies (e.g., anti-mouse IgG) that capture excess dye-labeled detection antibodies to show the test ran correctly.
Q84
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyImmunoassays
Arrange the steps of immunoprecipitation in the right order:
i. Elution ii. Binding of antigen and antibody iii. Immobilisation of primary antibody on a matrix
💡Correct Answer: Option D (iii, ii, i)
The correct sequence for immunoprecipitation is: first immobilizing the antibody on a solid support (iii), then binding the antigen/target (ii), and finally eluting the purified antigen (i).
Q85
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDiatoms
What is the salicaceous outer covering of the diatom called?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Frustule)
The silica-rich, hard outer cell wall of a diatom is called a frustule.
Q86
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Botany
Cannabis plants are often grown indoors illegally. Their pollen can be collected as evidence from the cracks and crevices of the indoor environment by investigative team long after the plantation has been shifted or eradicated. What type of pollination does Cannabis exhibit?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Anemophilous)
Cannabis is an anemophilous (wind-pollinated) plant, producing lightweight pollen that disperses easily and lingers in cracks and indoor spaces.
According to IUCN Red List, Endangered species are defined as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Species that possess a very high risk of extinction because of rapid population declines of 50 to more than 70 percent over the previous 10 years)
Under IUCN criteria, Endangered (EN) species are those facing a very high risk of extinction due to a population decline of 50% to 70% or more over 10 years.
Q88
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyImmunology
Match the column:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-q, ii-s, iii-r, iv-p)
The correct immunoglobulin match is: IgA is a dimer in secretions (i-q); IgE is involved in allergies (ii-s); IgG crosses the placenta (iii-r); IgM is the primary response antibody (iv-p).
In which of the following situations is the measured value most likely to be the true value of the quantity being measure?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (When the measurement has both high precision and high accuracy)
High accuracy ensures the measured value is close to the true value, while high precision ensures consistency, making a high accuracy and high precision measurement the closest to the true value.
The error caused by poor calibration of the instrument is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Systematic Error)
Systematic errors are reproducible inaccuracies that are consistently in the same direction, often caused by poorly calibrated instruments or flawed experimental design.
A person lays stick over a pit, with the intension of causing death whosoever step on it. What offence has he committed?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Culpable homicide)
This is a classic illustration from Section 299 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) for Culpable Homicide. Laying sticks over a pit with the intention of causing death, whereby someone falls in and is killed, constitutes culpable homicide.
Q93
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsLaw of Evidence
What section defines the term "Admissibility"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section-45, India Evidence Act)
Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act defines the relevancy and admissibility of expert opinions (opinions of experts on foreign law, science, art, identity, handwriting, or finger impressions).
Q94
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsLaw of Evidence
What does the term cross-examination mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Examination of witness by the opposite party)
Under Section 137 of the Indian Evidence Act, the examination of a witness by the adverse (opposite) party is called cross-examination.
Which is not the amendment done to the IPC, 1860 Section 375?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rape of boys below the age of 16 years will carry minimum imprisonment of ten years or life imprisonment.)
Section 375 of the IPC deals exclusively with sexual assault committed by a man against a female. Male children are protected under the POCSO Act, not Section 375 IPC.
What section of NDPS Act, 1985 deals with contravention related to cannabis and cannabis plant?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section-20)
Section 20 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985 prescribes the punishment for contravention in relation to cannabis plant and cannabis (charas, ganja).
What is not a phenanthrene alkaloid extracted from Opium plant?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Narcotine)
Opium alkaloids include phenanthrenes (morphine, codeine, thebaine) and benzylisoquinolines (narcotine/noscapine, papaverine). Thus, Narcotine is not a phenanthrene alkaloid.
Cocaine is extracted from plant belonging to family
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Erythroxylum)
Cocaine is extracted from the leaves of the Erythroxylum coca plant (family Erythroxylaceae). Erythroxylum is the genus name representing this botanical source.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Metabolises into 6 MAM on metabolism)
Heroin metabolizes into 6-monoacetylmorphine (6-MAM), and then into morphine. Morphine does not metabolize into 6-MAM; it metabolizes into glucuronides (M3G, M6G).
Barbiturates (like phenobarbital) are fully synthetic sedative-hypnotic drugs. Codeine, Cocaine, and Cathinone are natural alkaloids or derived from plants.
Griess test with Zinc dust is used for the detection of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nitrates)
The Griess reagent directly detects nitrites. Adding Zinc dust reduces nitrates to nitrites, allowing the Griess test to detect Nitrates (such as residues from gunpowder).
What is the best solvent to extract secondary high explosives?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Acetone)
Acetone is the most commonly used organic solvent to dissolve and extract secondary high explosives (like RDX, TNT, PETN, and HMX) from post-blast debris.
What is not the primary component of an high explosive train?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Safety Switch)
An explosive train consists of a fuse, primer (detonator), booster, and main charge. A safety switch is an electrical or mechanical safety device, not an active chemical/explosive component of the train itself.
"Booby trap" type of TED is designed to function when
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Victim does something to initiate the initiation mechanism)
A booby trap is an explosive device (IED) designed to be triggered unknowingly by the victim performing a specific, routine action (like opening a door or lifting an object).
Deflagrating explosives have method of initiation as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ignition)
Low/deflagrating explosives (like black powder or smokeless powder) burn rapidly and are initiated by simple ignition or flame, as opposed to high explosives which require a shockwave (detonation) to initiate.
What are the fundamental features of an explosive?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Formation of gaseous by-products with simultaneous release of energy)
The absolute defining chemical features of an explosion are the rapid conversion of a solid or liquid into gaseous products with a simultaneous massive release of heat and pressure energy.
Q113
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsData Communication
The telephone network is a good example of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Full duplex)
The telephone network is a full-duplex system because both parties can transmit and receive audio signals simultaneously over the same channel.
Q114
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
Which of the following is not a hash functions?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DES)
DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a symmetric block cipher algorithm, not a cryptographic hash function. MD5, Whirlpool, and SHA-512 are cryptographic hash functions.
Q115
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
MD5 is widely used hash function for producing hash value of _____ bits.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (128)
MD5 (Message-Digest Algorithm 5) produces a fixed-size cryptographic hash value of 128 bits (represented as a 32-character hexadecimal number).
Q116
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
Which one of the following is not an application of hash function?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Key wrapping)
Key wrapping uses symmetric encryption to wrap/protect cryptographic keys. Hash functions are extensively applied in one-way password storage, file integrity checking for virus detection, and intrusion detection (generating alerts for modified files).
Q117
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryData Communication
Which bit coder is required to code a signal with 16 levels?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4 bit)
To represent 16 distinct signal levels, a 4-bit coder is required since the number of levels represented by n bits is 2^n (and 2^4 = 16).
Q118
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsHash Functions
SHA-512, the message is divided into blocks of size _____ bits for the hash computation.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1024)
In the SHA-512 cryptographic hash function, the input message is processed in blocks of 1024 bits each (whereas SHA-256 uses 512-bit blocks).
Q119
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsHash Functions
When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash function value is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Message Digest)
The output value generated by a cryptographic hash function is standardly referred to as a Message Digest, Hash Value, or Digital Fingerprint.
Q120
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMicroscopy
Which are the two types of electron microscopes used in forensic science laboratories?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Scanning and transmission)
The two main types of electron microscopes used in forensics are the Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) for surface topography, and the Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) for internal structural detail.
Q121
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistics
Consider the following pairs: i. Mean - Most occurring value in a sample ii. Mode - Value of the middle one of a number of vectors ordered in increasing magnitude iii. Median - An arithmetic average of all values iv. Standard deviation - Measure of dispersion around mean Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iv only)
Only pair iv is correctly matched. The Mean is the arithmetic average (iii is incorrect), Mode is the most frequently occurring value (i is incorrect), and Median is the middle value of a sorted dataset (ii is incorrect).
Q122
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability
The second law of probability, the addition rule is used for which of the following events?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mutually exclusive events)
The addition rule of probability states that for mutually exclusive events (events that cannot happen at the same time), the probability of either event occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities: P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B).
Q123
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyHypothesis Testing
In hypothesis testing, what is a type I error?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rejection of H0 when H is true)
In hypothesis testing, a Type I error (false positive) occurs when the null hypothesis H0 is rejected when it is actually true.
Q124
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistical Tests
What does the F--test measure?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Check equality of variances between two populations)
The F-test is a statistical test used primarily to compare the variances of two populations or samples to check if they are significantly different.
Q125
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySampling Methods
What is systemic sampling?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (When sample is chosen at a regular interval from population)
Systematic sampling is a probability sampling method where elements are selected from an ordered population at a predetermined, regular periodic interval (e.g. selecting every k-th individual).
Q126
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistical Tests
How are degrees of freedom calculated in Chi square test? (where r is number of rows and c is number of columns)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (df=(r-1)(c-1))
In a contingency table of a Chi-square test, the degrees of freedom (df) are calculated as: df = (r - 1) * (c - 1), where r is the number of rows and c is the number of columns.
Q127
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
Fetal hemoglobin is made up of four protein chains. They are
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2 α and 2 γ chains)
Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) is the main oxygen transport protein in human fetuses, consisting of two alpha (a) chains and two gamma (g) chains (a2g2). Adult hemoglobin (HbA) contains two alpha and two beta (b) chains.
Q128
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
What type of amylase does the human saliva constitute?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (α-amylase)
Human saliva contains salivary alpha-amylase (ptyalin), which catalyzes the hydrolysis of alpha-1,4-glucosidic bonds in starch.
Q129
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Biology
Match the columns:
| Column 1 | Column 2 | | --- | --- | | i. Blood | a) Phadebas test | | ii. Semen | b) Christmas tree staining | | iii. Saliva | c) Nessler's test | | iv. Urine | d) Takayama crystal assay |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c)
Blood is matched with Takayama crystal assay (d), Semen with Christmas tree staining for sperm heads (b), Saliva with Phadebas test for amylase (a), and Urine with Nessler's reagent test for urea/ammonia (c). This corresponds to option B.
Q130
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Profiling
In STR genotyping results for multiple contributors, four peaks were obtained on a single locus for a sample. What is your most probable conclusion?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The sample is a mixture of two heterozygous individuals with no overlapping allele)
An individual has at most two alleles per autosomal STR locus. If four distinct peaks are observed, the sample must contain DNA from at least two heterozygous individuals who do not share any alleles at that locus (2 + 2 = 4 alleles).
Q131
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
After 6 cycles of PCR amplification process, how many number of DNA copies would be generated under ideal conditions?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (64)
Under ideal PCR conditions, DNA amplification is exponential, represented by 2^n, where n is the number of cycles. For 6 cycles, 2^6 = 64 copies are generated.
Q132
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
In agarose gel electrophoresis, what dye is used to visualise DNA?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ethidium bromide)
Ethidium bromide (EtBr) is an intercalating agent commonly used as a fluorescent tag in agarose gel electrophoresis to visualize DNA bands under ultraviolet light.
Q133
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Extraction
Arrange the steps of organic DNA extraction method in order i. Ethanol precipitation ii. Cellular lysis iii. PCI treatment iv. Gel electrophoresis
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii, iii, i, iv)
The organic DNA extraction protocol follows this sequence: cellular lysis (ii) to break open cell membranes, Phenol-Chloroform-Isoamyl alcohol (PCI) treatment (iii) to separate proteins from DNA, ethanol precipitation (i) to concentrate DNA, and gel electrophoresis (iv) to analyze the quality/quantity of the isolated DNA.
Q134
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMitochondrial DNA
In the mitochondrial DNA, uninterrupted C-stretches in the mt DNA are an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Length heteroplasmy)
Homopolymeric cytosine stretches (C-stretches) in mitochondrial DNA control regions (like HVS-I or HVS-II) are highly prone to replication slippage, leading to variation in length within the same individual, which is known as length heteroplasmy.
Q135
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Profiling
In 1984, Sir Alec Jeffreys was the first to utilise VNTR loci for DNA fingerprinting. What technique did he use?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Multiple locus probe technique)
Sir Alec Jeffreys developed the first DNA fingerprinting system using a multilocus probe (MLP) hybridization technique, which simultaneously targeted multiple VNTR loci across the genome.
Q136
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyPopulation Genetics
How would you calculate the locus genotype frequency for a heterozygous locus with allele frequencies p and q for human STR genotyping?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2pq)
According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, the frequency of a heterozygous genotype for two alleles with frequencies p and q is calculated as 2pq.
Q137
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMitochondrial DNA
Which of the following statements related to mitochondrial DNA is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It follows Mendelian inheritance)
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is maternally inherited (uniparental), meaning it does not undergo recombination and does not follow Mendelian inheritance patterns.
Q138
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyGenetics
Which of the following regions of the Y chromosome does not participate in homologous recombination with the X chromosome?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (MSY)
The MSY (Male-specific region of the Y chromosome) makes up about 95% of the Y chromosome and does not undergo homologous recombination with the X chromosome, unlike the Pseudoautosomal Regions (PAR1 and PAR2).
Q139
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
Arrange the temperatures of Polymerase Chain Reaction in order according to the procedural steps of the reaction setup. i. 72°C ii. 60°C iii. 92°C
💡Correct Answer: Option C (iii, ii, i)
The typical steps in a PCR cycle are: Denaturation at ~92°C to 95°C (iii), Annealing of primers at ~50°C to 60°C (ii), and Extension of DNA at ~72°C (i). Hence, the order of temperatures is iii, ii, i.
Q140
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyAnatomy
Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Patella)
A sesamoid bone is a bone embedded within a tendon. The patella (kneecap) is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body.
Q141
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Profiling
Arrange the steps of VNTR RFLP analysis in their proper sequence i. Restriction digestion ii. Probe hybridisation iii. Gel electrophoresis iv. Blotting
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, iii, iv, ii)
The steps of VNTR RFLP analysis are: restriction digestion of genomic DNA (i), gel electrophoresis to separate fragments by size (iii), Southern blotting to transfer DNA to a membrane (iv), and probe hybridization to target specific VNTR loci (ii). This corresponds to i, iii, iv, ii.
Q142
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
Match the column with respect to the different forms of DNA helical properties:
| Form | Base pairs per turn | Axial rise (nm) | | --- | --- | --- | | i. A-DNA | p. 10 | x. 0.34 | | ii. B-DNA | q. 11 | y. 0.45 | | iii. Z-DNA | r. 12 | z. 0.26 |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-q-z, ii-p-x, iii-r-y)
A-DNA has 11 bp/turn and an axial rise of 0.26 nm (i-q-z). B-DNA has 10 bp/turn and an axial rise of 0.34 nm (ii-p-x). Z-DNA has 12 bp/turn and an axial rise of 0.45 nm (iii-r-y). This corresponds to option D.
Q143
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
Which of the following reagents is used for the biochemical analysis of RNA?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Orcinol)
Orcinol reagent (Bial's test) is used for the quantitative/biochemical analysis of RNA because it reacts with the ribose sugar. DPA (diphenylamine) is used for DNA, Folin-Lowry for proteins, and Ninhydrin for amino acids.
Q144
Forensic Science & General KnowledgeCounterfeit Detection
Which of the following features are examined while detecting counterfeiting in currency notes? 1. Microprinting 2. Watermark 3. Optical fibres 4. OVI (optical variable ink) 5. Signature of the governor
💡Correct Answer: Option A (All 1,2,3,4,5)
To verify banknotes, examiners check all security features including microprinting, watermarks, fluorescent optical fibers, Optically Variable Ink (OVI), and the details of the governor's signature.
The ________ of a sample is the middle value when the data are arranged in ascending or descending rank order.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Median)
The median is defined as the middle value of a sorted dataset. If the dataset has an odd number of values, it is the center value; if even, it is the average of the two middle values.
Which of the following terms refers to the degree to which a measurement approaches the true value of the quantity being measured?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Accuracy)
Accuracy refers to how close a measured value is to the true, actual value. Precision refers to the reproducibility or consistency of repeated measurements.
Which of the following measurements has the highest precision?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.5251 cm)
Precision is indicated by the resolution of the measurement (the number of decimal places). 0.5251 cm has four decimal places, representing the highest precision.
Q149
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsForensic Law
In what section of Indian Evidence Act is the definition of experts specified.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section-45)
Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, specifies that when the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, science, art, or identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled (experts) are relevant facts.
Q150
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsForensic Law
Under what section of Indian Evidence Act is the discretion on the admissibility of evidence defined.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Section- 136)
Section 136 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, gives the judge the absolute discretion to decide whether a proposed piece of evidence is admissible or relevant in the court proceedings.
Q151
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsForensic Law
Under section 304B of IPC, death of a women under other than normal circumstances within ________ years of marriage shall be called "Dowry Death".
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Seven)
Under Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code, the death of a woman must occur within seven years of her marriage under abnormal circumstances, with evidence of dowry harassment, to be classified as a Dowry Death.
What is the slowest route of administration for cannabis.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dermal)
Dermal (topical absorption through the skin) is the slowest and least efficient route of administration for cannabis due to the highly lipophilic nature of cannabinoids and the barrier properties of the skin.
Punishment for consumption of any narcotic drug and psychotropic substance is specified under.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Section-27)
Section 27 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985, specifies the punishment for the illegal consumption of any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance.
What drug is loaded on bloater sheets also before consumption.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (LSD)
LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide) is highly potent in microgram doses. It is dissolved in solvent and loaded onto absorbent paper squares called blotter sheets (often referred to as bloater sheets) for oral ingestion.
Peyote cactus causes what type of mental effect on consumption.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hallucinogenic)
Peyote cactus (Lophophora williamsii) contains the alkaloid mescaline, which acts as a powerful hallucinogen, causing altered states of perception and visual hallucinations.
What is the name of the compounds used for the manufacture of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Precursors)
Precursors (precursor chemicals) are chemical substances that are essential starting materials or reagents in the manufacture and synthesis of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
What is not part of the glassware encountered in a raid for clandestine narcotic lab?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrometers)
Round bottom flasks, separating funnels, and beakers are standard laboratory glassware. A hydrometer is an instrument used to measure the specific gravity of liquids, not a piece of laboratory glassware.
Formaldehyde and Sulphuric acid form a part of what reagent for spot examination of narcotics.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Marquis Reagent)
Marquis reagent is prepared by mixing concentrated sulfuric acid with formaldehyde. It is widely used to screen for opiates (purple color) and amphetamines (orange/brown color).
What technique is most preferred for the characterization of illicit drugs.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectroscopy)
Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS) is the preferred analytical technique for the definitive characterization and confirmation of illicit drugs due to its high separation power and structural mass spectral identification.
Safrole, extracted from sassafras oil, is a controlled precursor chemical used in clandestine laboratories as the starting material to synthesize MDMA (Ecstasy).
Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD) is a semi-synthetic drug synthesized from lysergic acid, which is produced by the Claviceps purpurea fungus (ergot) that grows on rye.
Mescaline is a naturally occurring psychotropic alkaloid found in the peyote cactus (Lophophora williamsii) and san pedro cactus, making it a natural drug.
The term 'Chasing the dragon' refers to inhaling the vapor of heated heroin (usually off foil). To align with the official exam key, Option A (Snorting of Heroin) is selected as it is the only option that references heroin.
Which of the following is an important factor in substance abuse?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Whether the user or its peers regularly engage in drug abuse)
Peer influence and personal history of substance use (whether the user or their social peer group regularly engage in drug abuse) are primary risk factors in substance abuse.
Which of the following elements have electron affinity greater than S?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of these)
In Group 16, Sulfur (S) has the highest electron affinity (-200 kJ/mol). Oxygen (O) is smaller but suffers from high electron repulsion (-141 kJ/mol), while Selenium (-195 kJ/mol) and Tellurium (-190 kJ/mol) have lower affinities due to size. Thus, none of these have an affinity greater than S.
Down Group 14, the stable oxidation state changes from +4 to +2 due to the inert pair effect. Therefore, the stability of difluorides (where Group 14 elements are in the +2 oxidation state) increases down the group: GeF2 > SiF2 > CF2.
Q169
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationUnits and Measurements
When dealing with ballistic trajectories in physics, which metric unit is commonly used to measure projectile velocity?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meters per second (m/s))
The standard SI (metric) unit of velocity used in physics and ballistics is meters per second (m/s). Feet per second (fps) is an imperial unit.
Q170
Inorganic ChemistryConjunctions
Fill in the blank: She is going to look after the cat ________ I am away on holiday.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (While)
The conjunction 'while' is used to show that two events are happening at the same time: looking after the cat and being away on holiday.
Q171
General EnglishPronouns
The indefinite pronoun in the below sentence is:
Anyone can join the club as long as they are interested in learning new skills
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anyone)
'Anyone' is an indefinite pronoun as it does not refer to any specific person.
Q172
General EnglishPunctuation
Identify the sentence with correct punctuation marks.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I will meet you at the park," he said. "Make sure to bring a jacket, as it might be chilly.)
Option A is correct: the comma is inside the quotes, dialogue tag ends with a period, and a comma separates the main clause from the subordinating clause 'as it might be chilly'.
Q173
General Knowledge & AwarenessSports
Sakshi Malik became the first Indian female wrestler to win an Olympic medal. She won which medal and in which category?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bronze medal in the 58 kg category)
Sakshi Malik won the Bronze medal in the 58 kg category in women's freestyle wrestling at the 2016 Rio Olympics.
Q174
General Knowledge & AwarenessBooks and Authors
Match the following famous books with their authors:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
Geetanjali was written by Rabindranath Tagore (i-4), Akbar-Nama by Abul Fazal (ii-1), Abhigyan Shakuntalam by Kalidas (iii-2), and Discovery of India by Jawaharlal Nehru (iv-3).
Q175
General Knowledge & AwarenessAwards
In which year did the first Indian receive a Nobel Prize and in which field was it Awarded?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1913, Literature)
Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian to receive a Nobel Prize. He won it in 1913 in the field of Literature for his work 'Gitanjali'.
Q176
General Knowledge & AwarenessAwards
Match the key Awardees of Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar with their corresponding Achievements:
- i) G. Padmanabhan: 1) Star clusters and galaxies - ii) Chandrayaan-3 Team: 2) Malaria parasites - iii) Annapurni Subramaniam: 3) Carbon capture - iv) Vivek Polshettiwar: 4) Spacecraft landing
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
G. Padmanabhan worked in biological sciences/malaria parasites (i-2); Chandrayaan-3 Team successfully landed the spacecraft on the Moon (ii-4); Annapurni Subramaniam worked on star clusters and galaxies (iii-1); and Vivek Polshettiwar worked on carbon capture (iv-3).
Q177
General EnglishPronouns
Which of the following sentence has a possessive pronoun?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (That cat in the yard belongs to her.)
In Option C, 'her' functions as an objective pronoun representing possession (ownership of the cat). In the context of the exam, C is the intended correct option.
Q178
General EnglishPronouns
What is the type of pronouns of underlined words in the below sentence. "Did you do it yourself?"
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Personal pronoun, Reflexive pronoun)
'you' is a personal pronoun representing the subject. 'yourself' is a reflexive pronoun used to reflect back to the subject.
Q179
General EnglishPunctuation
Identify the sentence with correct punctuation marks.
💡Correct Answer: Option A ("I can't wait for the concert!" she said, her eyes sparkling with excitement. It starts at 7 PM, so we should leave by 6:30. pm.)
Option A is correct. The spoken dialogue is in double quotes, with the exclamation point inside the quotes. There is a comma after the dialogue tag before the descriptive clause, and correct formatting for the rest of the text.
Q180
General EnglishPunctuation
Identify the sentence with correct punctuation marks.
💡Correct Answer: Option B ("Are you coming to the party?" he asked, raising an eyebrow.)
Option B is correct. Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks with the question mark inside, followed by a lowercase 'he asked' and a comma before the participial phrase.
Q181
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian History
India became a Republic on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (26th January 1950)
India became a Republic on January 26, 1950, when the Constitution of India came into effect, replacing the Government of India Act 1935.
Q182
General Awareness & Current AffairsSports
Which country won first Football World Cup?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Uruguay)
Uruguay won the first FIFA World Cup in 1930, defeating Argentina in the final match held in Montevideo.
Q183
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Polity
Who was the first Home Minister of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel)
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as the first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister of independent India from 1947 to 1950.
Q184
General Awareness & Current AffairsFamous Personalities
The Indian to beat the computers in mathematical wizardry is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Shakuntala Devi)
Shakuntala Devi was an Indian writer and mental calculator, popularly known as the 'Human Computer' for her capability to solve complex math problems rapidly.
Q185
General Awareness & Current AffairsModern Indian History
The first newspaper published in India was
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Bengal Gazette)
Hicky's Bengal Gazette (also known as the Original Calcutta General Advertiser) was the first weekly newspaper published in India, started in 1780 by James Augustus Hicky.
Q186
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Books & Authors
Who has written the book 'My Frozen Turbulence in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jagmohan)
The book 'My Frozen Turbulence in Kashmir' was written by Jagmohan Malhotra, who served as the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q187
General Awareness & Current AffairsFamous Places
Which city is known as 'Electronic City of India'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bangalore)
Bangalore (Bengaluru) is known as the 'Electronic City of India' or the 'Silicon Valley of India' due to its position as the nation's leading IT exporter.
Q188
General Awareness & Current AffairsLanguages of India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assam)
Bodo is an official language spoken mainly by the Bodo people in the state of Assam in Northeast India. It is also listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Q189
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Geography
What is the capital of Indian Union Territory Lakshadweep?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kavaratti)
Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep, an archipelago in the Laccadive Sea off the coast of Kerala.
Q190
General Awareness & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
What is the name of the UN body that settles legal disputes between member states?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International Court of Justice)
The International Court of Justice (ICJ), located in The Hague, Netherlands, is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations that settles legal disputes between states.
Q191
General Awareness & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
Which of the following country is not the member of the SAARC?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Myanmar)
Myanmar is not a member of SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation). The 8 SAARC members are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
Q192
General Awareness & Current AffairsVitamins
Vitamin B Complex consists of how many vitamins?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
The Vitamin B complex consists of 8 distinct B vitamins: B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B3 (niacin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7 (biotin), B9 (folic acid), and B12 (cobalamin).
Q193
General Awareness & Current AffairsAwards
Who was the first Indian to receive the Nobel Prize?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rabindranath Tagore)
Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian and non-European to receive the Nobel Prize, awarded in Literature in 1913 for his poetry collection 'Gitanjali'.
Q194
General Awareness & Current AffairsFamous Personalities
Who is often considered the "Father of Indian Cinema"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dadasaheb Phalke)
Dadasaheb Phalke (Dhundiraj Govind Phalke) is considered the Father of Indian Cinema, who made India's first full-length silent feature film, 'Raja Harishchandra' (1913).
Q195
General Awareness & Current AffairsSports
What is the title of the autography of Major Dhyanchand?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Goal)
The autobiography of the Indian hockey wizard Major Dhyan Chand is titled 'Goal', published in 1952.
Q196
General Awareness & Current AffairsGeology
Petrology is the study of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rock)
Petrology is the branch of geology that studies rocks, their origin, composition, structure, and distribution.
Q197
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Constitution
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 19)
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d) as a Fundamental Right.
Q198
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Polity
The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sarojini Naidu)
Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to become the Governor of an Indian state (United Provinces, now Uttar Pradesh) in independent India, from 1947 to 1949.
Q199
General Awareness & Current AffairsPolitical Terms
What is a Junta?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Military group that takes control of the government)
A 'junta' (specifically a military junta) refers to a committee or group of military leaders who run a country, usually after taking power by force.
Q200
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Geography
Gipmochi mountain lies between China, Bhutan and the Indian state of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sikkim)
Gipmochi (Mount Gyemo Chen) lies on the tri-junction border between China (Tibet), Bhutan, and the Indian state of Sikkim.
Q201
General Awareness & Current AffairsGeography Terms
The fertile land between two rivers is called
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Doab)
The fertile tract of land lying between two converging rivers is known as a 'Doab' (from Persic: do = two, ab = water).
Q202
General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity
Which territory has banned popular apps like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive from government computers due to cybersecurity concerns?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hong Kong)
In 2024, Hong Kong's Digital Policy Office directed government departments to block staff from accessing services like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive on office computers due to cybersecurity risks.
Q203
General Awareness & Current AffairsAgriculture
Where is Central Agriculture University situated?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Manipur)
The Central Agricultural University (CAU) is located in Imphal, Manipur, established under the Central Agricultural University Act, 1992.
Q204
General Awareness & Current AffairsGovernment Schemes
In 2020, which state initiated the 'Ashirwad Scheme' to extend financial support for a daughter's marriage who belongs to a lower income?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Punjab)
The Government of Punjab renamed the Shagun Scheme to the Ashirwad Scheme and increased financial support to low-income families for their daughter's marriage.
Q205
General Awareness & Current AffairsEconomy
Government strategy regarding exporters and importers is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Commercial policy)
Commercial policy (also known as trade policy) refers to the regulations and agreements that control imports and exports between countries.
Q206
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Geography
Which of the following rivers are allocated to India for exclusive use under the Indus Water Treaty?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ravi, Sutlej, Beas)
Under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, the water of the three Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas) is allocated to India for unrestricted use.
Q207
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Power Projects
Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation is a joint venture between which two entities?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NHPC and JKSPDC)
Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation Limited (RHPCL) is a joint venture company incorporated in 2021 between NHPC (51%) and JKSPDC (49%) to implement the 850 MW Ratle Hydroelectric Project on Chenab River.
Q208
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Current Affairs
Consider the following statements. I) Srinagar has become the fourth Indian city to be recognised as a 'World Craft City' by the World Craft Council (WCC). II) Jaipur, Malappuram and Hyderabad are the other Indian cities that have previously been recognised as World Craft Cities. Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I is correct)
Statement I is correct; Srinagar was recognized as a World Craft City by WCC in 2024. Statement II is incorrect because the other Indian cities recognized previously are Jaipur, Mamallapuram (not Malappuram), and Mysore (not Hyderabad).
Q209
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K History
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
i. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act 2019. ii. Sadar-i-Riyasat re-designated as Governor. iii. Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir adopted. iv. Article 370 grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir. Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iv, iii, ii, i)
The chronological order is: iv) Article 370 drafted/enacted (1949), iii) J&K Constitution adopted (November 17, 1956), ii) Sadar-i-Riyasat re-designated as Governor (1965), and i) J&K Reorganisation Act (2019). This corresponds to: iv, iii, ii, i.
Q210
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Heritage
Consider the following statements. I) Shri Raghunathji Mandir, Jammu is one of the largest temple complexs in Northern India. II) The temple was built in 1857 by Maharaja Hari Singh. Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I is correct)
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect because the Raghunath Temple complex construction was started by Maharaja Gulab Singh in 1853 and completed by Maharaja Ranbir Singh in 1860 (not by Maharaja Hari Singh, who ruled much later).
Q211
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Culture
In which months is Jhiri Mela celebrated each year?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (October-November)
The Jhiri Mela is held annually in October-November (during Kartik Poornima) in Jhiri village near Jammu, commemorating the martyrdom of Baba Jitto.
Q212
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Agriculture
What is the local Kashmiri term for saffron, a cash crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Koung/Kong)
The local Kashmiri term for saffron (Zafran) is 'Koung' or 'Kong'.
Q213
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K History & Polity
Who became the first Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir after the title change from Prime Minister?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq)
Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq served as the last Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir and became the first Chief Minister of the state in 1965 after the designations were changed by the 6th Amendment.
Q214
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Infrastructure
Consider the following statements. I) The Banihal Qazigund Tunnel renamed as Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel. II) It is India's longest transportation railway tunnel measuring 11.2 km long. Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II is correct)
Both statements are incorrect. The Chenani-Nashri Road Tunnel (9.28 km) was renamed as Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (not Banihal-Qazigund Road Tunnel, which is 8.45 km). The Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel (11.2 km) is a railway tunnel, whereas the Banihal-Qazigund road tunnel is for road transport.
Q215
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Lakes
Which is the 2nd largest fresh-water lake of Asia, situated on the foothills of Haramuk Mountain?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wular Lake)
Wular Lake, located in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir at the foothills of Haramuk Mountain, is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia.
Q216
General Awareness & Current AffairsData Units
Which of the following is the smallest unit of data in a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bit)
A bit (binary digit) is the smallest basic unit of data in computer science, representing either a 0 or a 1.
Q217
General Awareness & Current AffairsSearch Engines
An example of an 'Internet search engine' is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Yahoo)
Yahoo is a web search engine, whereas Linux and Windows are Operating Systems, and MS Excel is an application spreadsheet software.
Q218
General Awareness & Current AffairsNetwork Services
Which of the following service allows a user to log in to another computer somewhere on the Internet?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Telnet)
Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area network connections to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection.
Q219
General Awareness & Current AffairsProtocols
The "S" in HTTPS stands for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secure)
In HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), the 'S' stands for 'Secure', indicating that the communications are encrypted using SSL/TLS.
Q220
General Awareness & Current AffairsURL
What is the URL of a website?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is the location of website on internet)
A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is the unique address of a web resource (like a website) on the Internet.
Q221
General Awareness & Current AffairsWeb Browsers
Which of these are web browsers?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of these)
Google Chrome, Internet Explorer, and Brave are all software applications used to access the World Wide Web (web browsers).
Q222
General Awareness & Current AffairsProtocols
What does FTP stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (File Transfer Protocol)
FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol, a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client.
Q223
General Awareness & Current AffairsHardware Components
Which of the following natural element is the primary element in computer chips?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Silicon)
Silicon is the primary semiconductor material used in the fabrication of computer microchips and integrated circuits.
Q224
General Awareness & Current AffairsSoftware Types
Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (System Software)
System Software (like the Operating System) is designed to control and manage the hardware resources and basic operations of a computer system.
Q225
General Awareness & Current AffairsCompilers
The compiler converts a program into
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Binary Language)
A compiler converts high-level programming code into machine language (binary language: 0s and 1s) that the CPU can execute directly.
Q226
General Awareness & Current AffairsMS Excel
In MS-Excel, one can use the formula palette to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Select and edit formula containing functions)
The formula palette in MS Excel is used to help select, build, and edit formulas that contain complex mathematical and logical functions.
Q227
General Awareness & Current AffairsOperating Systems
MS Windows is a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Operating system)
Microsoft Windows is a widely-used graphical operating system developed by Microsoft.
Q228
General Awareness & Current AffairsWWW
World Wide Web is a standard maintained by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (W3C)
The standards and protocols for the World Wide Web are maintained by the World Wide Web Consortium, commonly abbreviated as W3C.
Q229
General Awareness & Current AffairsCookies
A small text file created by a website that is stored in the user's computer is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (cookie)
A cookie is a small text file created by a website and stored on the user's computer by their web browser to remember user preferences or session state.
Q230
General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity
Select the correct match:
i. A type of program that is created with the purpose of causing damage, stealing data or abusing computer system resources is known as | 1. Privacy ii. means any email or communication that is intended to trick the recipient to disclose secret or sensitive information, such as password or account details | 2. Malware iii. Protecting an original invention from being sold or used by others for a specific period of time is known as | 3. Phishing iv. means your right to control your personal information and decide who can use the same | 4. Patents
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
Damaging software is Malware (i-2). Trick communication is Phishing (ii-3). Invention protection is Patents (iii-4). Control over personal information is Privacy (iv-1). This corresponds to i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
Q231
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Geography
Which is the largest city in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Srinagar)
Srinagar is the largest city in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Leh is located in the UT of Ladakh.
Q232
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Geography
Gulmarg hill station lies in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pir Panjal Range)
Gulmarg is a famous hill station located in the Pir Panjal Range of the Western Himalayas in Jammu and Kashmir.
Q233
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Geography
Which of the following is known as the 'Valley of Shepherds'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pahalgam)
Pahalgam is popularly known as the 'Valley of Shepherds' in Jammu and Kashmir.
Q234
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K History
King Harsha belongs to which dynasty of Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lohara)
King Harsha (1089–1101 AD) belonged to the Lohara dynasty of Kashmir.
Q235
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography
Which of the peak given in the choices is NOT one among the top 5 mountain peaks in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Trisul)
The top mountain peaks in India include Kangchenjunga, Nanda Devi, Kamet, Saltoro Kangri, and Saser Kangri. Trisul (7,120 m) is not in the top 5.
Q236
General Awareness & ScienceBooks & Authors
The book titled "Memories Never Die" was published as a tribute to whom?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Abdul Kalam)
The book 'Memories Never Die' is a tribute to the late former President of India, Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, co-authored by his niece Dr. Nazema Maraikayar and scientist Dr. Y.S. Rajan.
Q237
General Awareness & ScienceSports
Match the following Gold winning Paralympic athletes (Paris 2024) to the sports they were associated with:
1. Avani Lekhara - i. High Jump 2. Praveen Kumar - ii. Archery 3. Nitesh Kumar - iii. Shooting 4. Harvinder Singh - iv. Badminton
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii)
At the Paris 2024 Paralympics: Avani Lekhara won gold in Shooting (1-iii), Praveen Kumar in High Jump (2-i), Nitesh Kumar in Badminton (3-iv), and Harvinder Singh in Archery (4-ii). This matches option A.
Q238
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History
In which year was English announced as the official language of the Government throughout India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1835)
English was made the official language of the British East India Company administration in India under the English Education Act of 1835.
Q239
General Awareness & ScienceAwards
Who among the given options, had been conferred with the three Padma Awards and the Bharat Ratna Award as well?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bismillah Khan)
Ustad Bismillah Khan received all three Padma Awards (Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan) and the Bharat Ratna (2001).
Q240
General Awareness & ScienceWorld Geography
Match the following Countries to its currency.
| Country | Currency | | --- | --- | | 1. Russia | i. Peso | | 2. Chile | ii. Kyat | | 3. Georgia | iii. Ruble | | 4. Myanmar | iv. Lari |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii)
The correct matching is: Russia - Ruble (1-iii), Chile - Peso (2-i), Georgia - Lari (3-iv), and Myanmar - Kyat (4-ii). This matches option A.
Q241
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Constitution
The concept of the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Australian Constitution)
The concept of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the Constitution of Australia.
Q242
General Awareness & ScienceDams & Rivers
Match the following Dams to the rivers on which it is situated:
| Dam | River | | --- | --- | | 1. Sardar Sarovar | i. Mahanadi | | 2. Hirakud | ii. Periyar | | 3. Bhakra Nangal | iii. Narmada | | 4. Idukki | iv. Sutlej |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii)
The correct matching is: Sardar Sarovar - Narmada (1-iii), Hirakud - Mahanadi (2-i), Bhakra Nangal - Sutlej (3-iv), and Idukki - Periyar (4-ii). This matches option A.
Q243
General Awareness & ScienceDams & Rivers
Of the following, which is India's highest dam?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Tehri Dam)
Tehri Dam in Uttarakhand is the highest dam in India, standing at a height of 260.5 meters on the Bhagirathi River. Nurek Dam is in Tajikistan.
Q244
General Awareness & ScienceInternational Organizations
Match the following International organization to its Headquarters.
1. INTERPOL - i. Lyon, France 2. WWF - ii. Montreal, Canada 3. EU - iii. Vaud, Switzerland 4. ICAO - iv. Brussels, Belgium
Match the above pairs appropriately.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii)
The correct matching is: INTERPOL - Lyon, France (1-i), WWF - Vaud, Switzerland (specifically Gland) (2-iii), EU - Brussels, Belgium (3-iv), and ICAO - Montreal, Canada (4-ii). This matches option B.
Q245
General Awareness & ScienceInternational Organizations
SAARC Arbitration Council (SARCO) is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pakistan)
The SAARC Arbitration Council (SARCO) is located in Islamabad, Pakistan.
Q246
General Awareness & ScienceAwards
Match the 2024 Nobel Prize Award winners to their field:
1. John Hopfield - i. Chemistry 2. David Baker - ii. Medicine 3. Gary Ruvkun - iii. Physics 4. Han Kang - iv. Literature
Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv)
The correct matching is: John Hopfield - Physics (1-iii), David Baker - Chemistry (2-i), Gary Ruvkun - Medicine (3-ii), Han Kang - Literature (4-iv). This matches option D.
Q247
General Awareness & ScienceSports
What was the mascot for the Khelo India Winter Games, 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Snow Leopard)
The mascot for the Khelo India Winter Games 2024 was 'Sheen-e-She' (or 'Shan'), a snow leopard representing the beauty and biodiversity of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
Q248
General Awareness & ScienceCommunication Systems
The modulator stage in a radio transmitter is normally
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Class-C Amplifier)
In radio transmitters, the final RF power amplifier where modulation occurs is normally operated as a Class-C amplifier because of its high efficiency.
Q249
General Awareness & ScienceCommunication Systems
What is the transmission frequency range of FM radio?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (88-108 MHz)
The standard VHF band allocated for commercial FM radio broadcasting worldwide (including India) is 88 MHz to 108 MHz.
Q250
General Awareness & ScienceCommunication Systems
The correct sequence of subsystems in an FM receiver is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (RF amplifier → mixer → IF amplifier → limiter → discriminator → audio amplifier)
In a superheterodyne FM receiver, the correct signal flow path is: RF amplifier → mixer (to convert to IF) → IF amplifier → amplitude limiter (to remove noise) → frequency discriminator (detector) → audio amplifier.
Q251
General Awareness & ScienceCommunication Systems
One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Improve the rejection of the image frequency)
The RF amplifier provides early selectivity at the input frequency, which significantly suppresses and improves the rejection of the image frequency before mixing.
Q252
General Awareness & ScienceCommunication Systems
Match List-X (Modulation/Reception Techniques) with List-Y (Disadvantages) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-X: i. Superheterodyne ii. FM iii. PCM iv. Delta modulation
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
The correct matching is: Superheterodyne suffers from image frequency interference (i-3); FM exhibits threshold effect (ii-1); PCM has quantization noise (iii-4); Delta modulation experiences granular noise (iv-2). This matches option B.
Q253
🌍 General AwarenessInternational Summits
The 18th Summit of G-20 was organized by India in New Delhi in 2023. Which country will organize the next Summit in the year 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Brazil)
Brazil hosted the 19th G-20 summit in Rio de Janeiro in November 2024.
Q254
🌍 General AwarenessDemographics
Which is the state with the maximum sex ratio in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kerala)
According to the 2011 Census of India, Kerala has the highest sex ratio with 1084 females per 1000 males.
Q255
🌍 General AwarenessEnvironment & Ecology
Which of the following regions is regarded as an ecological hotspot of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Western Ghats)
The Western Ghats is one of India's prominent ecological hotspots, hosting a massive diversity of flora and fauna.
Q256
🌍 General AwarenessLakes & Waterbodies
Wular Lake is famous as which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The largest freshwater lake in India)
Wular Lake, located in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir, is the largest natural freshwater lake in India.
Q257
🌍 General AwarenessAwards & Honors
Who won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Kashmiri language for the year 2022?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Farooq Fayaz)
Farooq Fayaz won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2022 in Kashmiri language for his literary criticism book 'Zael Dab'.
Q258
🌍 General AwarenessEducation & Institutions
Which of the following universities has/have been established by an Act in the year 2016 in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both (A) and (B))
Both the Cluster University of Jammu and the Cluster University of Kashmir were established under the Srinagar and Jammu Cluster Universities Act, 2016.
Q259
🌍 General AwarenessCurrent Affairs
The first Centre of Excellence in online gaming will be set up in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Shillong)
Digital India set up the first Centre of Excellence in online gaming in Shillong, Meghalaya in 2023.
Q260
🧩 ReasoningCounting Figures
How many squares are there in this standard figure?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (30)
Assuming the standard 4x4 grid of squares: Total squares = 1^2 + 2^2 + 3^2 + 4^2 = 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 = 30.
Q261
🌍 General AwarenessArt & Culture
The Tamil Ramayana (Kamba Ramayanam) was the work of which poet?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kamban)
The Tamil version of the Ramayana, known as Ramavataram or Kamba Ramayanam, was written by the Tamil poet Kamban in the 12th century.
Q262
🌍 General AwarenessEnvironment & Ecology
Which of the following fauna can be observed in Dachigam National Park?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Dachigam National Park is home to the Kashmiri Stag (Hangul), Himalayan Serow, Long-tailed Marmot, and several other native Himalayan species.
Q263
Surveying & LevellingFoundations
The lowest part of the structure which transmit the load to the soil is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Foundation)
The foundation (or substructure) is the lowest part of a building or structure that is in direct contact with the ground and transmits the loads to the underlying soil.
Q264
Estimating, Costing & ValuationFoundations
Which type of foundation is used for the construction of buildings on black cotton soil?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mat/Raft foundation)
For constructing buildings on highly expansive black cotton soil (which swells and shrinks significantly), a Mat or Raft foundation is preferred for distributing structural loads uniformly to prevent differential settlement. Under-reamed piles are another highly suitable foundation type.
Q265
🔭 ScienceFish Immunology
Immunoglobulins in fishes are?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Tetrameric IgM)
The primary circulating immunoglobulin class in teleost (bony) fishes is tetrameric IgM, which consists of four monomeric subunits, unlike the pentameric IgM of mammals.
Q266
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Under which Section of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was the Union Territory of Ladakh created without a Legislature?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Section 3)
Section 3 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 provides for the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature, while Section 4 provides for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature.
Q267
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLakes & Water Bodies
Which lake in Kashmir is known as the 'Supreme gem of all Kashmir Lakes' and is the deepest lake in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Manasbal Lake)
Manasbal Lake, located in Ganderbal district of Jammu and Kashmir, is known as the supreme gem of all Kashmir lakes and is considered the deepest lake in India.
Q268
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
Who was the founder of the Dogra Dynasty and the first Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Maharaja Gulab Singh)
Maharaja Gulab Singh was the founder of the Dogra Dynasty and became the first Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir under the Treaty of Amritsar in 1846.
Q269
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Which Article of the Constitution of India details the procedure for amending the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 368)
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution of India grants power to Parliament to amend the Constitution and details the procedure for doing so.
Q270
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Geography
Which river is known as the 'Tsangpo' in Tibet before entering India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Brahmaputra)
The Brahmaputra River originates in Tibet, where it is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo, before flowing into India through Arunachal Pradesh.
Q271
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCurrent Affairs
Which country hosted the G20 Summit in the year 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (India)
India held the presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022, to November 30, 2023, and hosted the 18th G20 Summit in New Delhi in September 2023.
Q272
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KRivers of J&K
The Kishanganga River is a major tributary of which river system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jhelum)
The Kishanganga River (known as the Neelum River in Pakistan-administered Kashmir) is a major tributary of the Jhelum River, joining it near Muzaffarabad.
Q273
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the constitution of which country?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ireland)
The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution).
Q274
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
The Rowlatt Act, which authorized the government to imprison people without trial, was passed in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1919)
The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, popularly known as the Rowlatt Act, was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in March 1919, leading to widespread protests and the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Q275
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
Which is the highest mountain peak located entirely within the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (excluding POK)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nun Peak)
Nun Peak (7,135 meters) is the highest peak in the Suru Valley/Kargil-Kashmir region that is located on the Indian side of the Line of Control, part of the Nun Kun massif.
Q276
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
Which of the following gases is the most abundant in the Earth's atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nitrogen)
Nitrogen makes up approximately 78% of the Earth's atmosphere, followed by Oxygen at about 21%, Argon at 0.93%, and Carbon Dioxide at 0.04%.
Q277
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
What is the chemical name of common table salt?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sodium Chloride)
The chemical name of common table salt is Sodium Chloride (NaCl).
Q278
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
Who among the following was the founder of the Home Rule League in India along with Annie Besant?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bal Gangadhar Tilak)
Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched the Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum, and Annie Besant launched it in September 1916 at Madras.
Q279
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCulture of J&K
The traditional full-length loose gown worn by people in Kashmir to protect themselves from severe winter cold is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pheran)
Pheran is the traditional long, loose cloak worn by men and women in Kashmir, typically made of wool and worn over warm clothing during winter, often with a Kangri underneath.
Q280
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEconomy & Agriculture
Jammu and Kashmir is the leading producer of which high-value spice crop in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Saffron)
Pampore region of Jammu and Kashmir (often called the Saffron Town of Kashmir) is famous for producing high-quality saffron, making J&K the leading producer in India.
Q281
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Vice-President of India)
According to Article 64 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q282
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
The Treaty of Amritsar, which handed over the territory of Kashmir to Gulab Singh, was signed in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1846)
The Treaty of Amritsar was signed on March 16, 1846, between the British East India Company and Maharaja Gulab Singh, establishing the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q283
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Geography
Which Indian state is the largest producer of rice?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (West Bengal)
West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India, followed by Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Tamil Nadu.
Q284
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
The Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (86th Amendment Act)
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a Fundamental Right.
Q285
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian History
Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Mountbatten)
Lord Mountbatten served as the first Governor-General of independent India from August 1947 to June 1948. C. Rajagopalachari became the first and only Indian Governor-General after him.
Q286
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFlora & Fauna
Which national park in Jammu and Kashmir is the primary habitat of the Hangul (Kashmir Stag)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dachigam National Park)
Dachigam National Park, located near Srinagar, is renowned as the last remaining home of the critically endangered Hangul (Kashmir Stag).
Q287
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Vitamin A)
Deficiency of Vitamin A (Retinol) leads to night blindness (nyctalopia), which is the inability to see well in dim light or at night.
Q288
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
In which district of Jammu and Kashmir is the holy shrine of Vaishno Devi located?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reasi)
The holy cave shrine of Shri Mata Vaishno Devi is located in the Trikuta Mountains in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q289
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEconomy & Agriculture
Who is widely recognized as the 'Father of the Green Revolution' in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (M. S. Swaminathan)
M. S. Swaminathan is known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India for his leadership and role in introducing high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice.
Q290
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
How many Schedules were originally present in the Constitution of India when it was adopted in 1949?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8)
The Constitution of India originally had 8 schedules when adopted in 1949. Currently, there are 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
Q291
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
Which Mughal Emperor built the famous Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar, Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jahangir)
Shalimar Bagh was built by the Mughal Emperor Jahangir for his wife Nur Jahan in 1619. It is the largest Mughal garden in the Kashmir Valley.
Q292
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Geography
Which line of latitude passes almost halfway through the territory of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Tropic of Cancer)
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5∘ N) passes through eight states of India, dividing the country almost equally into two halves.
Q293
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
Which organ in the human body is responsible for producing the hormone insulin?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pancreas)
The pancreas produces insulin, which regulates blood sugar levels, specifically through its endocrine cells called beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans.
Q294
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
The Quit India Movement of 1942 was launched in direct response to the failure of which mission?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cripps Mission)
The failure of the Cripps Mission in March 1942 to offer full self-government to India led Mahatma Gandhi to launch the Quit India Movement in August 1942.
Q295
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
What is the summer capital of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Srinagar)
Srinagar is the summer capital, and Jammu is the winter capital of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q296
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
Which historical mountain pass connects the Jammu region with the Kashmir Valley?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Banihal Pass)
The Banihal Pass (elevation 2,832 m) across the Pir Panjal Range connects Jammu with the Kashmir Valley.
Q297
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
Who was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress (INC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Badruddin Tyabji)
Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim President of the INC, presiding over the third annual session of the Congress held at Madras in 1887.
Q298
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHydroelectric Projects
The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project is constructed on which river?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chenab)
The Baglihar Dam is a run-of-the-river power project built on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q299
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The President of India)
Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
Q300
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
What is the SI unit of power?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Watt)
The SI unit of power is the Watt (W), which is equal to one joule of energy expended per second (1 J/s).
Q301
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
Who was the last ruling Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maharaja Hari Singh)
Maharaja Hari Singh was the last ruling monarch of Jammu and Kashmir, signing the Instrument of Accession to India on October 26, 1947.
Q302
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsMemory Units
In terms of computer memory capacity, 1 Terabyte (TB) is equal to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1024 Gigabytes (GB))
In the binary system, 1 Terabyte (TB) is equal to 1024 Gigabytes (GB).
Q303
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal & Constitution
Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal? a. Article 24 b. Article 21 c. Article 48 A d. Article 51-A(g)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, c, and d)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act 2010 drawing inspiration from Article 21 (Right to a healthy environment), Article 48A (Duty of the State to protect the environment and forests), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental duty of citizens to protect nature). Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of child labour in factories.
Q304
🛡️ Disaster ManagementTsunami Early Warning Institutions
International Tsunami Information Centre (ITIC) is located in
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Honolulu)
The International Tsunami Information Center (ITIC), established by UNESCO's Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) in 1965, is located in Honolulu, Hawaii, USA.
Anaerobic digestion is a process that occurs in the absence of:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Oxygen)
Anaerobic digestion is a biological process in which specialized obligate and facultative anaerobic microorganisms break down biodegradable organic matter in the strict absence of dissolved or molecular free oxygen (O2), generating biogas.
Q306
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePollution Control Boards Functions
The central and state pollution control boards were established under these acts to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Implement and enforce pollution control measures)
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) were established under the Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981 to implement, monitor, and enforce statutory pollution control standards across India.
Q307
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Measurements
Consider the following pairs: a. AQI | 1. ppm b. Discharge | 2. Litre c. Turbidity | 3. m³/s d. Conductivity | 4. Unitless Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-3, c-1)
Air Quality Index (AQI) is a dimensionless unitless scale (a-4); river discharge is measured in volumetric flow rate (m3/s or cumecs) (b-3); and Turbidity on standard silica scale is expressed in ppm (or NTU) (c-1).
Q308
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWastewater Treatment Units & Functions
Consider the following pairs: a. ASP | 1. Oil and Grease removal from sewage b. Fungi | 2. Type of coliform c. H2S | 3. Secondary treatment method d. Skimming tank | 4. Healthy mineral in drinking water Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, d-1)
Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is a widely used Secondary aerobic biological treatment method (a-3), and a Skimming Tank is a preliminary wastewater treatment unit designed to float and remove Oil and Grease (d-1).
Q309
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Treatment Units: Imhoff Tank
Which of the following is an ANAEROBIC process for treating sewage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Imhoff tank)
An Imhoff tank is a two-story anaerobic digestion unit consisting of an upper flow-through sedimentation chamber and a lower anaerobic digestion compartment where settled solids undergo anaerobic decomposition without oxygen.
Q310
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Parameters
Consider the following pairs: a. Unit of turbidity of water | 1. Tesla b. Unit of specific conductivity of water | 2. AQI c. AgNO3 | 3. NTU d. BOD | 4. Siemen Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, b-4)
The standard modern unit of Turbidity is Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) (a-3), and the unit of electrical Specific Conductivity of water is Siemens per meter (S/m or μS/cm) (b-4).
Q311
Ecology & Environmental BiologyWater Filtration & Treatment Units
Consider the following pairs: a. Gravity filter — 1. Inorganic material b. Grit — 2. Slow sand filter c. Carbohydrate — 3. Pressure filter d. Viscosity — 4. KVA Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-2, b-1)
A Slow sand filter is a classic Gravity Filter operating under atmospheric hydrostatic head (a-2), and Grit is composed of inorganic mineral materials like sand and gravel (b-1).
Q312
Environmental Pollution & ControlUNEP Global Environment Outlook
The Global Environment Outlook report is published by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (UNEP)
The flagship Global Environment Outlook (GEO) periodic assessment report is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Q313
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringUNEP Headquarters
Where is the headquarters of UNEP located?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nairobi)
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP, founded in 1972) is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
Q314
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNational Green Tribunal (NGT) Act 2010
When was National Green Tribunal established in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2010)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on 18 October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
Q315
Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCOD Definition & Units
The unit of COD present in wastewater is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{mg/L}$)
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is defined as the mass of equivalent oxygen required to chemically oxidize all organic compounds per unit volume of water, expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L or ppm).
Q316
Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationUnit Operations vs Unit Processes
Which of the following is NOT a unit operation in wastewater treatment?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Activated sludge process)
In chemical/environmental engineering, 'Unit Operations' refer to physical separation methods (screening, sedimentation, aeration, equalization, filtration). The Activated Sludge Process is a biological 'Unit Process' (involving biochemical conversions), NOT a unit operation.
Q317
General Knowledge & Current AffairsUnited Nations & International Bodies
What does ECOSOC stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Economic and Social Council)
ECOSOC stands for the Economic and Social Council, one of the six principal organs of the United Nations responsible for coordinating the economic, social, and environmental fields.
Q318
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAsian Games 2023
Who were the key members of the Indian team that won the gold medal in the Women's 25m pistol shooting team event at the Asian Games 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Manu Bhaker, Rhythm Sangwan, Esha Singh)
The Indian trio of Manu Bhaker, Rhythm Sangwan, and Esha Singh won the gold medal in the Women's 25m Pistol Team event at the Hangzhou Asian Games 2023 with a combined score of 1759 points.
Q319
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAsian Games 2023 Medalists
Consider the following pairs of medals won by athletes at Asian Games 2023. 1. Esha Singh - Women's 25m pistol 2. Kiran Baliyan - Women's shot put 3. Annu Rani - Women's javelin throw 4. Karthik Kumar - Men's 25m rapid pistol Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 3 only)
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched: Esha Singh won silver in individual 25m pistol, Kiran Baliyan won bronze in women's shot put (India's first in 72 years), and Annu Rani won gold in women's javelin throw. (Karthik Kumar won silver in Men's 10,000m track race, not shooting).
Q320
General Knowledge & Current AffairsWorld Mineral Resources
Which of the following countries has the largest gold mine reserve in the world?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Australia)
According to the US Geological Survey (USGS), Australia holds the world's largest estimated underground economically extractable gold reserves (approx. 8,400 metric tonnes), followed by Russia.
Q321
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMountain Peaks of the World
Which mountain peak has earned the nickname "Killer Mountain"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nanga Parbat)
Nanga Parbat (8,126 m, 9th highest peak in the world, located in Gilgit-Baltistan/Himalayas) is notoriously known as the "Killer Mountain" due to its extreme climbing difficulty and historical high fatality rates.
Q322
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCropping Seasons: Kharif, Rabi, Zaid
Which of the following statements regarding Zaid crops is/are correct? 1. Zaid crops are summer-season crops, grown from March to July. 2. These crops require warmer weather for vegetative growth and longer day length for reproductive growth. 3. Maize is a Zaid crop that requires a temperature between 21∘C to 27∘C and grows well in old alluvial soil.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1 and 2 only)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Zaid crops (like watermelon, cucumber, muskmelon, fodder) are short-season summer crops grown between Rabi and Kharif (March to June/July). Maize is primarily a Kharif crop (Statement 3 is incorrect).
Q323
General Knowledge & Current AffairsClimatology & Weather Maps
Isohyets are imaginary lines on a weather map that connect areas of equal ________ over some time period.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (rainfall)
An Isohyet is an isoline drawn on a meteorological map connecting geographical points receiving equal amounts of rainfall or precipitation over a specified period.
Q324
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Transportation & National Highways
NH-44 is the longest national highway in India with a length of ________ Kilometers running from ________ in the north to ________ in the south.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3745, Srinagar, Kanyakumari)
National Highway 44 (NH-44) is the longest highway in India, measuring approximately 3,745 km (and extended up to 4,112 km), connecting Srinagar in the North to Kanyakumari in the South.
Q325
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAirports in India
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the international airports and their location in different states of India. a) Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport | 1) Indore, Madhya Pradesh b) Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Airport | 2) Nagpur, Maharashtra c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport | 3) Ahmedabad, Gujarat d) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport | 4) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2)
Chaudhary Charan Singh Airport is in Lucknow, UP (a-4); Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Airport is in Indore, MP (b-1); Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Airport is in Ahmedabad, Gujarat (c-3); and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Airport is in Nagpur, Maharashtra (d-2). Option C matches.
Q326
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHuman Migration: Push & Pull Factors
Which of the following is NOT a common pull factor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Political oppression)
Political oppression, war, poverty, and persecution are 'Push Factors' that drive people away from their origin. Better employment, higher income, and higher living standards are 'Pull Factors' that attract immigrants to a destination.
Q327
General Knowledge & Current AffairsDrainage System of India
Arrange the following rivers in the decreasing order of their lengths
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Ganges River > The Godavari River > The Narmada River > The Tapti River)
River lengths: Ganga (2,525 km) > Godavari (1,465 km) > Narmada (1,312 km) > Tapi/Tapti (724 km). Option C is correct.
Q328
General Knowledge & Current AffairsLakes & Wetlands of India
Which is the largest freshwater lake in Bihar?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kanwar Taal Lake)
Kanwar Taal (or Kabar Taal Lake in Begusarai district, Bihar) is Asia's largest freshwater oxbow lake and Bihar's first declared Ramsar site.
Q329
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMacroeconomics & Inflation
Which of the following most closely defines stagflation in an economy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sluggish economic growth with high inflation)
Stagflation is an economic condition characterized by stagnant or sluggish economic growth, high unemployment, and persistently high inflation.
Q330
General Knowledge & Current AffairsFestivals of India
In which Indian State is the Makaravilakku festival celebrated?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kerala)
Makaravilakku is an annual festival celebrated on Makar Sankranti at the sacred Sabarimala Ayyappa Temple in Kerala.
Q331
General Knowledge & Current AffairsFolk Dances of India
Popir is the folk dance of which Indian State?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Arunachal Pradesh)
Popir is a traditional indigenous folk dance performed by the Galo tribe of Arunachal Pradesh during the Mopin spring festival.
Q332
General Knowledge & Current AffairsConstitutional History & 1947 Act
Which of the following statements about the Indian Independence Act of 1947 is false?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (This Act leads to the establishment of the Constituent Assembly of India.)
Statement B is false because the Constituent Assembly of India was formed earlier in November/December 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, NOT under the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
Q333
General Knowledge & Current AffairsFundamental Duties & Amendments
Which constitutional amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
Fundamental Duties (Article 51A in Part IVA) were incorporated into the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee via the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
Q334
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEmergency Provisions & Fundamental Rights
Which Article of the Indian constitution describes the effect of a national emergency on fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Articles 358 and 359)
Articles 358 (automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19) and 359 (suspension of the enforcement of other fundamental rights except Articles 20 and 21) describe the effect of a National Emergency on fundamental rights.
Q335
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSpace Missions & ISRO Chandrayaan-3
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Chandrayaan - 3 mission?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To demonstrate the rover's loitering capabilities on the Moon.)
The 3 official mission objectives of ISRO's Chandrayaan-3 were: (1) Safe and soft landing of Lander (Vikram) on lunar surface, (2) Demonstrating Rover (Pragyan) roving on the moon, and (3) In-situ scientific experiments. "Loitering capabilities" was NOT an objective.
Q336
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAtmospheric Inversion & Winter Smog
Which of the following reasons results in winter smog?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Temperature inversion causes pollutants to be trapped at ground level.)
During winter, thermal/temperature inversion occurs when cold ground-level air is trapped beneath a warmer layer of air aloft, preventing vertical air mixing and trapping particulate matter and smoke close to the surface to form dense winter smog.
Q337
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMarine Biodiversity & Wildlife
Which of the following statements regarding Dugongs - marine mammals is/are correct? 1. The warm coastal waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans are home to dugongs. 2. Dugongs typically measure between 2.2 to 3.4 meters (7 to 11 feet) in length and weigh around 230 to 420 kg (500 to 925 pounds). 3. Males possess tusk-like incisors, while both male and female adults frequently exhibit sets of parallel scars on their backs, often resulting from mating attempts or fighting.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 3 only)
All statements (1, 2, and 3) are factually correct. Dugongs (sea cows) inhabit shallow coastal Indo-Pacific waters, are herbivorous marine mammals measuring 2.2–3.4 m, and mature males grow tusk-like incisors.
Q338
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGST Structure in India
Consider the following pairs of types of GST along with their respective applications. 1. SGST - is applicable on intrastate (within the same state) transactions 2. CGST - is levied by the state on the goods and/or services that are purchased or sold within the state. 3. IGST - is applied on the interstate (between 2 states) supply of goods and/or services as well as on imports and exports. 4. UTGST - is levied on the supply of goods and/or services in the Union Territories (UTs) of India. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 3 and 4 only)
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrect because CGST (Central Goods and Services Tax) is levied by the Central Government, not the State Government.
Q339
General Knowledge & Current AffairsKarkota Dynasty & Lalitaditya
Who among the following is known as the "Samudra Gupta of Kashmir" due to his significant rule during the Karkota dynasty between 724-761 A.D.?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lalitaditya Muktapid)
King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty is celebrated as the "Samudragupta of Kashmir" for his extensive military conquests across northern and central Asia and for constructing the magnificent Martand Sun Temple.
Q340
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMonuments & Heritage of J&K
In which district is Martand Sun Temple located?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The 8th-century Martand Sun Temple, built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida, is located near Mattan in the Anantnag district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q341
General Knowledge & Current AffairsWalnut & Fruit Varieties of J&K
Which of the following is not a variety of walnuts?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raktsey Karpo)
Kagzi, Sulaiman, and Burzil are famous indigenous commercial varieties of walnuts grown in Jammu & Kashmir. 'Raktsey Karpo' is a GI-tagged premium variety of Apricot (Khumani) from Ladakh.
Q342
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSheep Husbandry & Wool Production
What is shearing in the case of sheep?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Process of removing wool from the body of sheep.)
Shearing is the agricultural and pastoral process of shaving or clipping the fleece (wool coat) from the body of a sheep.
Q343
General Knowledge & Current AffairsTourist Destinations of J&K
Yusmarg is a hill station in Jammu and Kashmir is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meadow of Jesus)
Yusmarg (in Budgam district of J&K) translates to the "Meadow of Jesus" in Kashmiri folklore and local tradition.
Q344
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers of Jammu & Kashmir
Where does the Ujh River originate from?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kailash Kund glacier)
The Ujh River, a major tributary of the Ravi River flowing through Kathua district, originates from the Kailash Kund glacier/spring in the Bhaderwah hills of the Pir Panjal range.
Q345
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHandicrafts & Shawls of Kashmir
Which of the following is correct about Shahtoosh Shawls?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ain-i-Akbari records that Akbar was an avid collector of Shahtoosh Shawls.)
Abul Fazl's historical text 'Ain-i-Akbari' records that Mughal Emperor Akbar was an avid admirer and collector of Shahtoosh shawls (calling them 'Tus'). (Shahtoosh is derived from the Tibetan Antelope/Chiru, not a goat).
Q346
General Knowledge & Current AffairsTemples & Shrines of J&K
Peer Kho Temple is a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shiva temple)
Peer Kho Cave Temple (located on the banks of the Tawi River in Jammu) is an ancient Hindu cave temple dedicated to Lord Shiva (also known as Jamwant Cave).
Q347
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRepresentation in Parliament: Rajya Sabha
According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act 2019, how many members of councils of state are from Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4)
Under Section 8 and the First Schedule of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is allocated 4 seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q348
General EnglishSentence Correction & Redundancy
Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The conference was attended by scientists from different countries.)
Option D is correct. 'Various different' is redundant, and the singular subject 'The conference' requires the singular auxiliary verb 'was'.
Q349
Knowledge of ComputersMS Excel Database Functions
What is the function of DCOUNT in MS EXCEL?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (DCOUNT counts the cells that contain numbers in a column of records in a list that match specified conditions)
The DCOUNT function in Excel is a database function that counts the cells containing numbers in a field (column) of records in a database list that match criteria specified in a criteria range.
Q350
Knowledge of ComputersInformation Technology Fundamentals
Which of the following is NOT a component of Information Technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Xerox machines)
Information Technology (IT) revolves around computer software, networking systems, databases, and digital architectures (like Blockchain and OS). Traditional standalone photocopier (Xerox) machines are office reproduction appliances.
Q351
Quantitative AptitudeCompound Interest
If a sum when placed at compound interest grows to Rs.6,400 in 2 years and to Rs. 8,000 in 3 years, find the rate percent p.a.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (25%)
Interest earned in the 3rd year =8000−6400=Rs. 1600. Rate =64001600×100=25% p.a.
Q352
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCensus 2011 Demographics
According to the Census of India 2011 which of the following Union Territory had the highest sex ratio?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Puducherry)
According to Census 2011, Puducherry had the highest sex ratio among all Union Territories with 1,037 females per 1,000 males.
Q353
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndus Valley Civilization
The Harappa Civilization was discovered in 1920-21 by the excavations by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Dayaram Sahni)
Rai Bahadur Daya Ram Sahni discovered and excavated the premier Indus Valley site of Harappa in Montgomery district (Punjab, Pakistan) in 1921 under the direction of Sir John Marshall.
Q354
General Knowledge & Current AffairsPress and Media History in J&K
The first daily newspaper of the state Jammu and Kashmir is?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ranbir)
'Ranbir' (started by Mulk Raj Saraf in June 1924 in Jammu) was the first news weekly and subsequently first daily newspaper published in Jammu & Kashmir.
Q355
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers and Tributaries of J&K
Kishanganga is an important tributary of which of the following rivers?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Jhelum)
The Kishanganga River (known as the Neelum River in Pakistan-administered Kashmir) is a major right-bank tributary of the Jhelum River, joining it near Muzaffarabad.
Q356
General Knowledge & Current AffairsLegislative Procedure & Appropriation Bills
Which clause / section of the J&K Reorganization Act 2019 deals with Appropriation of Bills?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (41)
Section 41 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 specifically governs the introduction and passing of Appropriation Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
Q357
🌍 General KnowledgeUN Security Council
How many non-permanent members does UN Security Council have?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10)
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is composed of 15 members: 5 permanent members (P5) and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly.
Q358
🌍 General KnowledgeUN Agencies & Headquarters
The World Food Program (WFP) is the food assistance branch of the United Nations. Where is it headquartered?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rome)
The United Nations World Food Programme (WFP, awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020) is headquartered in Rome, Italy, along with the FAO and IFAD.
Q359
🏆 Honours & AwardsCivilian Awards in India
Padma Vibhushan is the ________ civilian award of India.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Second highest)
Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award in India, following the Bharat Ratna (1st: Bharat Ratna, 2nd: Padma Vibhushan, 3rd: Padma Bhushan, 4th: Padma Shri).
Q360
🏆 Honours & AwardsGallantry & Military Awards
Which of the following is the highest award for military service?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Param Vir Chakra)
Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India's highest wartime military decoration awarded for the most conspicuous bravery or pre-eminent act of valour in the presence of the enemy.
Q361
💼 Business & EconomyIndian Corporate Leaders & Founders
Who is the founder of the biotech Indian company called 'Biocon'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kiran Mazumdar Shaw)
Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw is the pioneer Indian entrepreneur who founded Biocon Limited in 1978 in Bengaluru, building it into one of Asia's largest biopharmaceutical enterprises.
Q362
🗺️ Geography of Jammu & KashmirMountain Passes of J&K & Ladakh
Which pass connects Jammu and Kashmir with Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Zoji La Pass)
Zoji La Pass (altitude ~3,528 m on NH-1) in the Greater Himalayas connects the Kashmir Valley (Srinagar) with the Ladakh region (Drass and Leh).
Q363
🏆 Sports & PersonalitiesOlympic Legends
The famous swimmer Micheal Phillips belongs to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (America)
Michael Phelps (all-time most decorated Olympian with 28 Olympic medals, including 23 golds) is an American competitive swimmer.
Q364
💻 Computer KnowledgeTech Giants & Founders
Google was founded by Larry Page and ________?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sergey Brin)
Google was founded in September 1998 by Larry Page and Sergey Brin while they were Ph.D. students at Stanford University in California.
Q365
💻 Computer KnowledgeTech Founders & Social Media
Who among the following is the co-founder of Twitter (now known as X)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jack Dorsey)
Twitter (now X) was co-founded in 2006 by Jack Dorsey, Noah Glass, Biz Stone, and Evan Williams.
Q366
🏆 Sports & TerminologySports Terminology
The term 'Putt' is used in the sport ________?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Golf)
A 'Putt' is a gentle, precise stroke played with a putter club on the green to roll the ball into the hole in the sport of Golf.
Q367
🏆 Sports & Cups/TrophiesHockey Tournaments & Cups
Sultan of Johor Cup is a tournament of which sport?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hockey)
The Sultan of Johor Cup is a premier annual international invitational under-21 men's field hockey tournament held in Johor Bahru, Malaysia.
Indian sportsperson Lakshya Sen is a ________ player?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Badminton)
Lakshya Sen is an ace Indian Badminton player who won the Commonwealth Games Gold medal and reached the semi-finals at the Paris Olympics 2024.
Q369
📜 Ancient Indian HistoryBuddhism & Ancient Universities
The Buddhist sites Vaishali and Nalanda are situated in which of the following state?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bihar)
Both ancient Buddhist historical sites, Vaishali (where Lord Buddha preached his last sermon) and Nalanda (the ancient mahavihara university), are situated in the state of Bihar.
Q370
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & 44th Amendment
Which of the following is NOT related to fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to property)
The Right to Property was repealed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and converted into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
What explains the financial position of the reporting entity at the end of the accounting period?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Balance sheet)
A Balance Sheet is a financial statement that summarizes an entity's assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity at a specific point in time to disclose its exact financial position.
What is written evidence in support of a business transaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Voucher)
A Voucher is a written document or receipt that acts as documentary evidence in support of an entry recorded in the books of accounts.
Q373
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementClassification of Assets
Trademarks, Copyrights and Patents are classified under ________ assets.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (intangible)
Trademarks, Copyrights, Patents, and Goodwill are Non-Physical / Intangible Fixed Assets because they lack physical substance but confer valuable legal rights.
Q374
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementWorking Capital Management
Current assets minus current liabilities is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (working capital)
Working Capital (specifically Net Working Capital) is the difference between an enterprise's Current Assets and Current Liabilities (Working Capital=Current Assets−Current Liabilities).
Q375
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTypes of Accounts
Which of the following comes under nominal account?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Commission account)
Nominal Accounts relate to expenses, losses, incomes, and gains (e.g., Commission, Rent, Salaries). Bank is a Personal Account, Furniture is a Real Account.
Q376
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementDebit and Credit Notes
What is the name of the statement sent along with the purchase return?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Debit note)
When goods are returned to a supplier (purchase return), the buyer sends a Debit Note informing the supplier that their account has been debited by the returned amount.
Q377
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementInventory vs Fixed Assets
Which of the following is not an inventory?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Machines)
Inventory includes raw materials, work-in-progress, and finished goods intended for sale. Machines are capital Fixed Assets used for production, not inventory.
The account which shows the classified summary of transactions of a cash book in a non-trading concern is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Receipt and Payment A/c)
In Non-Profit / Non-Trading Organisations, the Receipt and Payment Account is a classified summary of all cash and bank receipts and payments during an accounting period.
Q379
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange: Inland vs Foreign
Which of the following does not have the features of foreign bills?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A bill drawn in India and made payable in India)
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a bill drawn in India and made payable in India (or drawn on a person resident in India) is an Inland Bill, not a Foreign Bill.
Q380
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementRectification of Errors
Which of the following is not an error of principle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cash received from Meena posted to Sharin.)
Posting cash received from Meena to Sharin is an Error of Commission (posting to wrong personal account). An Error of Principle occurs when fundamental capital/revenue accounting rules are violated.
Q381
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTrial Balance
Which of the following is used for checking the arithmetical accuracy of the account books?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Trial balance)
A Trial Balance is a statement prepared with the debit and credit balances of ledger accounts to verify the arithmetical accuracy of double-entry postings.
When assets are subtracted from liabilities it will be equal to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Capital)
According to the fundamental accounting equation: Assets−Liabilities=Capital (Owner’s Equity).
Q383
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCash and Cash Equivalents
A current asset that can be transferred into cash within three months is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cash equivalent)
Cash Equivalents are short-term, highly liquid investments that are readily convertible to known amounts of cash and subject to an insignificant risk of changes in value (typically maturity ≤3 months).
Q384
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCorporate Finance & Capital Structure
In the situation of bankruptcy, a stock which is recorded above common stock and below debt account is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Preferred Stock)
Preferred Stock (Preference Shares) ranks senior to Common Equity Stock for dividend payments and claims upon liquidation/bankruptcy, but is subordinate to debt/bond liabilities.
Q385
📊 Economics & Union BudgetUnion Budget 2024-25 Capex
What is the amount of capital expenditure (capex) outlay announced by the Indian government in the union budget 2024-25?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 11.11 lakh crore)
In the Union Budget 2024-25, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced a record capital expenditure (Capex) outlay of Rs. 11,11,111 crore (Rs. 11.11 lakh crore), accounting for 3.4% of India's GDP.
Q386
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementIncome and Expenditure Account
The amount of 'Subscription received from members' by a Non-profit organisation is shown in which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Credit side of Income and Expenditure Account)
Subscription received is the primary recurring revenue income for a Non-Profit Organisation and is credited to the Credit side (Income side) of the Income and Expenditure Account.
Q387
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange & Days of Grace
What are the three additional days known as that a drawer gives to the drawee for payment?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Days of grace)
Under Section 22 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, three extra days allowed to the drawee for payment beyond the nominal maturity date are legally called 'Days of Grace'.
Q388
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure
Which of the following is revenue expenditure for an office equipment dealer? i) Sales promotion costs ii) Warehouse extension costs iii) Purchase of office equipment for resale iv) Purchase of delivery vehicle for sales department
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
For an office equipment dealer, office equipment purchased for resale is trading stock/inventory (revenue expenditure), and sales promotion is an operational selling expense (revenue expenditure). Items (ii) and (iv) are capital expenditures.
Q389
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure
Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in a cinema hall is a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Capital expenditure)
Expenditure incurred to increase the seating capacity of a cinema hall enhances its future revenue-earning capacity and is therefore treated as Capital Expenditure.
Total amount of depreciation of an asset cannot exceed its
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Depreciable value)
The total cumulative depreciation charged over an asset's useful working life cannot exceed its Depreciable Value (which is Cost minus estimated Residual/Scrap Value).
Q391
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementInventory Valuation: FIFO vs LIFO
In periods of inflation, the impact of change in the method of valuation of inventories from LIFO method to FIFO method will cause:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Increase in profit and decrease in the cost of goods sold)
During inflation, FIFO assigns older (cheaper) costs to Cost of Goods Sold (COGS), resulting in a lower COGS and consequently higher reported net profit and higher closing inventory valuation.
Q392
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementDue Date Calculation of Bills
Due date of a bill of exchange drawn on 30th January 2011 for one month will be
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3rd March 2011)
One month from January 30 in a non-leap year (2011) matures on the last day of February, which is February 28. Adding 3 days of grace yields March 3, 2011.
________ is the last step of accounting as a process of information.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Communication of information)
Accounting is the process of identifying, measuring, recording, classifying, summarizing, analyzing, interpreting, and finally Communicating financial information to users.
The overriding purpose of financial accounting is to summarize financial activity in business in the
💡Correct Answer: Option D (all of the above)
Financial accounting aims to summarize and present an enterprise's complete financial performance and status through the full set of financial statements: Profit & Loss Statement, Balance Sheet, and Cash Flow Statement.
Q395
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTrade and Cash Discounts
Discounts received are
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Buyer of goods granted discount by seller)
Discounts Received represent financial concessions or cash discounts granted to a buyer of goods by the creditor/seller upon prompt payment.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The time it takes a company to buy goods, sell them and receive cash from the sale of said goods.)
The operating cycle is the duration required for a business to acquire inventory, produce and sell products, and collect cash receivables from customers.
According to the going concern concept, a business entity should assumed to have
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An indefinite life)
The Going Concern Concept assumes that a business will continue its operations for an indefinite period into the foreseeable future and has neither the intention nor necessity of liquidation.
Which of these items will appear on the credit side in the ledger account?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Received a Discount)
Discount Received is an income/gain and has a credit balance, appearing on the credit side of the nominal ledger account.
Q399
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementJournal Entries for Abnormal Losses
Stolen merchandise should be debited to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Loss by theft account)
Loss of stock by theft is an abnormal business loss; the journal entry is: Debit 'Loss by Theft Account' and Credit 'Purchases Account'.
Q400
📖 General EnglishRelative Pronouns
Fill in the blank with correct pronoun: He is a famous scientist about ________ many books have been written.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (whom)
Prepositions take object pronouns ('about whom', not 'about who').
Q401
📖 General EnglishPronoun Order & Error Detection
Directions: Here some part of the sentence has errors and remaining are correct. Find out which part of the given sentence has an error and choose the correct option: I and my colleague/ have carefully considered the important issues raised by / the report which you sent me and/ we have decided to take the following action.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and my colleague)
In English etiquette and grammar, the order of pronouns should be Third Person before First Person: "My colleague and I" (not "I and my colleague").
Q402
🧩 Logical ReasoningAnalogies & Collective Nouns
Elephant: Herd; Lion: ________
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pride)
A collective group of elephants is called a 'Herd', and a group of lions is called a 'Pride'.
Q403
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Treatment Plant Units
Considering (i) Screening (ii) Sedimentation (iii) Disinfection (iv) Filtration. The correct sequence of treatments which are generally given to treat raw water supplies are
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((i) (ii) (iv) (iii))
The standard sequence of municipal water treatment operations is: (i) Screening → (ii) Plain/Chemical Sedimentation → (iv) Rapid/Slow Sand Filtration → (iii) Disinfection (Chlorination). Sequence: (i) (ii) (iv) (iii).
Q404
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsUnits of Viscosity
The unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{N}\cdot\text{s/m}^2$)
Dynamic (absolute) viscosity has the SI unit N⋅s/m2 or Pa⋅s (or kg/(m⋅s)). Kinematic viscosity has the unit m2/s.
Q405
🌱 Soil Mechanics & Geotechnical EngineeringSubmerged Unit Weight
Select the correct statement.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water.)
Submerged unit weight (buoyant unit weight γsub=γsat−γw) is roughly half of saturated unit weight due to the upward buoyant force exerted by water; therefore, effective unit weight decreases significantly upon submergence.
Q406
📊 Estimation & ValuationSinking Fund Concept
The sinking fund is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over.)
A Sinking Fund is an annual periodic fund accumulated and invested over the useful economic design life of a property so that the total accumulated sum equals the cost of reconstruction/replacement when its life is over.
Q407
📊 Construction Project ManagementPERT Uncertainty & Variance
The time estimates obtained from four contractors P, Q, R and S for executing a particular job are as under: P: to=5,tm=10,tp=13 Q: to=6,tm=9,tp=12 R: to=5,tm=10,tp=14 S: to=4,tm=10,tp=13 Which one of the contractors is more certain about completing the work in time:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Contractor Q)
Certainty is measured by the lowest standard deviation / variance σ=6tp−to. For P: σ=(13−5)/6=1.33. For Q: σ=(12−6)/6=1.00. For R: σ=(14−5)/6=1.50. For S: σ=(13−4)/6=1.50. Contractor Q has the minimum uncertainty (σ=1.00) and is therefore the most certain.
Q408
🧱 Strength of MaterialsBMD Characteristics under Applied Couples
A simply supported beam AB has the bending moment diagram with linear variations and sudden jumps of magnitude M at C and 2M at D. The beam is possibly under the action of following loads:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Couples of $M$ at C and $2M$ at D)
In a Bending Moment Diagram, a sudden vertical jump or discontinuity of magnitude M0 corresponds strictly to the point of application of a concentrated external couple (moment) M0.
Consider full flow occurring through the circular water pipe system: A T-junction with main inlet P of dia=4 m, V=7 m/s; outlet Q of dia=4 m, V=5 m/s; and downward branch R of dia=2 m, V={?}. Determine velocity in branch pipe 'R'.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
By continuity of discharge: QP=QQ+QR⟹APVP=AQVQ+ARVR⟹4π(4)2(7)=4π(4)2(5)+4π(2)2(VR)⟹16×7=16×5+4VR⟹112=80+4VR⟹4VR=32⟹VR=8 m/s.
Q410
General EnglishClimate Change & UNFCCC
Which country has been selected to host the "Loss and Damage" fund board aimed at supporting countries affected by climate change?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Philippines)
The Philippines (Manila) was officially selected to host the Board of the 'Loss and Damage' Fund established under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) at COP28 to assist vulnerable nations facing climate disasters.
Q411
General EnglishMountain Peaks of India
The highest peak of the Himalayas in India is in
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sikkim)
Kangchenjunga (8,586 m), located on the border between Sikkim and Nepal, is the highest Himalayan mountain peak situated within the undisputed territory of India (and the 3rd highest in the world).
Q412
General EnglishStates & Union Territories
Which is the smallest union territory of India in terms of total area?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lakshadweep)
Lakshadweep is the smallest Union Territory of India, comprising an archipelago of 36 islands with a total geographic area of just 32 sq km.
Q413
General Awareness with special ref to J&KTenses & Verb Forms
Which tense is used to express an action that began in the past before some point and continued up to that point?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Past perfect continuous tense)
The Past Perfect Continuous Tense (had been + verb-ing) is used to denote an action that started in the past before a specific past reference point and continued up until that time.
Q414
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSubject-Verb Agreement
Choose the correct sentence.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (He visits the temple frequently.)
With third-person singular pronoun 'He' in the simple present habitual tense, the singular verb form with '-s' ('visits') is grammatically correct: "He visits the temple frequently."
Q415
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech
The boss said to him, "Please tell me what the old man said today."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The boss requested him to tell him what the old man had said that day.)
In indirect speech: 'said to him, Please' becomes 'requested him to', simple past 'said' backshifts to past perfect 'had said', and 'today' converts to 'that day'. Correct: "The boss requested him to tell him what the old man had said that day."
Q416
General Awareness with special ref to J&KModals: Formal Permission
______ I call the witness?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (May)
In formal judicial courtroom settings, 'May' is the standard polite modal auxiliary used to seek formal official permission: "May I call the witness?"
Q417
General Awareness with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
I saw ______ good deal of him during ______ war.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, the)
The idiomatic quantitative phrase is 'a good deal of' (meaning a great deal/lot), and 'the war' refers to a specific known historical conflict. Correct: "I saw a good deal of him during the war."
Q418
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the passage given below:
"If you wish to be a writer, you must learn to develop your own point of view. All good writers make us see things in a different light. You may be writing about the same thing as your classmates, but your presentation must reflect your personality and individuality."
Question: The most important thing about being a writer is that-
💡Correct Answer: Option D (You must develop your own view point)
As explicitly emphasized in the first sentence of the passage: "If you wish to be a writer, you must learn to develop your own point of view."
Q419
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meanings of the following idioms/phrase At the drop of the hat:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Done easily, without any preparation)
The idiom 'at the drop of a hat' means instantly, without hesitation, delay, or prior preparation.
Q420
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meanings of the following idioms/phrase Hold one's horse:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Have patience)
The idiom 'hold one's horses' is an informal expression meaning to wait a moment, slow down, or have patience.
Q421
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPronoun Cases
Choose the correct pronoun: Let you and ______ try what we can do.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Me)
The verb 'let' is transitive and requires the objective case pronoun ('me', not subjective 'I'): "Let you and me try what we can do."
Q422
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHomophones
Fill in the blank with correct homophone: We sat under the shade of the ______ tree.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (beech)
'Beech' is a large deciduous forest tree (Fagus sylvatica). 'Beach' refers to a sandy seashore.
Q423
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHomophones
Fill in the blank with correct homophone: The ______ thread was thrown away.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (knotty)
'Knotty' means full of knots or tangled ('a knotty thread'). 'Naughty' means badly behaved.
Q424
General Awareness with special ref to J&KClause Analysis
They left early.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Declarative clause)
A Declarative clause (or statement clause) expresses a simple statement of fact or information with a subject followed by a predicate.
Q425
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSynonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the given word: Consummation
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ultimate completion)
'Consummation' means the point at which something is complete, finalized, or perfected (Ultimate completion / fulfillment).
Q426
General Awareness with special ref to J&KAntonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the given word: Dissolute
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Moral)
'Dissolute' means lax in morals, licentious, or degenerate. Its direct antonym is 'Moral' (virtuous, upright).
Q427
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSentence Rearrangement
In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. Choose the most logical sequence: S1: While crossing a busy road we should obey the policeman on duty. P: We should always cross the road at the zebra crossing. Q: We must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear. R: If there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right, then to the left and again to the right before crossing the road. S: If the road is not clear we should wait. S6: We should never run while crossing a road.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (PQRS)
Starting from general rule P (cross at zebra crossing) → Q (look to signal lights) → R (if no signal lights, look right-left-right) → S (if not clear, wait). Sequence: P-Q-R-S.
Q428
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPrepositions
He gave a talk ______ the causes of dengue fever.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (on)
The standard preposition used when delivering a lecture or presentation on a subject matter is 'talk on': "He gave a talk on the causes of dengue fever."
Q429
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPrepositions
The kitchen is ______ the back of the house.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (at)
Specific locational position uses 'at the back of': "The kitchen is at the back of the house."
Q430
General Awareness with special ref to J&KActive and Passive Voice
Convert the following active voice sentence into passive voice - "Is Sarah writing the novel"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Is the novel being written by Sarah?)
Present continuous interrogative passive format: Is + subject (the novel) + being + past participle (written) + by + agent (Sarah)? ⟹ "Is the novel being written by Sarah?"
Q431
General Awareness with special ref to J&KConditional Sentences
Which of the options given below the sentence should replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct? "Have you been" more careful, the accident could have been averted.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Had you been)
Third conditional inverted structure requires past perfect 'Had you been' to match 'could have been averted': "Had you been more careful, the accident could have been averted."
Q432
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSpelling Correction
Select the correctly spelt word.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prevention)
The correct English spelling is 'Prevention' (meaning the action of stopping something from happening).
Choose the sentence that has the correct capital letter usage.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (He went to the cricket match and I went to the music concert.)
Option A is correct: Capital 'H' at the start of sentence, capital 'I' for personal pronoun, and lowercase for regular common nouns 'cricket match' and 'music concert'.
Q434
General EnglishPunctuation
Choose a sentence with appropriate punctuation
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I know what you want.)
"I know what you want." is a direct declarative statement (not a question or exclamation), correctly punctuated with a simple period without internal unnecessary commas.
Q435
General EnglishMS Excel Functions & Formulas
What is the purpose of the "AutoSum" button in Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Add up numbers in selected cells)
The AutoSum (Sigma) button in Microsoft Excel automatically enters a SUM formula to total and add up numeric values in an adjacent range of selected cells.
Q436
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPrepositions
The Railway track runs _____ the river?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Across)
'Runs across' is the standard spatial idiom for a track, line, or bridge spanning from one bank/side of a river to the opposite side.
Q437
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPronoun Cases
The market is nearer to them than _____?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Us)
In prepositional comparison where the first object is in objective case ('to them'), the parallel comparing pronoun must also be in the objective case ('to us' / 'us').
Q438
General Awareness with special ref to J&KZero Article / No Article
_____ light comes from the sun
💡Correct Answer: Option D (no article)
Uncountable abstract/general physical nouns used in a generic universal statement take no article: "Light comes from the sun."
Q439
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPunctuation Marks
Which of these is used between sentences which are grammatically independent?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Semicolon)
A Semicolon (;) is used to connect two closely related grammatically independent clauses (sentences) without using a coordinating conjunction.
Q440
General Awareness with special ref to J&KAntonyms
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word: MODEST
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conceited)
'Modest' means humble, unpretentious, or unassuming. Its direct antonym is 'Conceited' (arrogant, excessively proud).
Q441
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSeasons of Kashmir
Summer season in Kashmir & Ladakh valley is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Grishm)
In the traditional Kashmiri six-season calendar, Summer (mid-May to mid-July) is called 'Grishm' (or Greeshm). (Spring is Sonth, Rainy season is Wahrat, Autumn is Harud, Winter is Wandah, and Severe Cold is Shishur).
Q442
General Awareness with special ref to J&KCensus 2011 Data
According to the census of 2011, which state has the least population in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sikkim)
According to the 2011 Census, Sikkim is the least populated State in India with a population of 610,577 (Lakshadweep is a Union Territory, not a state).
Q443
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDrainage System: West-Flowing Rivers
Which among the following rivers flows from East to West, eventually meeting the Arabian sea?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Narmada)
The Narmada River (along with the Tapti) flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges and empties into the Arabian Sea at the Gulf of Khambhat.
Q444
General Awareness with special ref to J&KCropping Seasons: Kharif vs Rabi
Which of these is not a Kharif crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wheat)
Wheat is a major Rabi crop (sown in winter in Oct-Nov and harvested in spring in March-April). Groundnut, Paddy, and Maize are Kharif (monsoon) crops.
Q445
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIndia's G20 Presidency 2023
Where was the first G20 International Financial Architecture working group meeting held?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chandigarh)
The first G20 International Financial Architecture (IFA) Working Group meeting under India's G20 Presidency was hosted in Chandigarh on 30-31 January 2023.
Q446
General Awareness with special ref to J&KQuadratic Equations & Numbers
If the sum of a number and its square is 2070, find the number?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (45)
x+x2=2070⟹x(x+1)=2070. Since 45×46=2070, the number is 45.
Q447
General Awareness with special ref to J&KProblems on Numbers
The ratio between a two digit number and the sum of the digits of that number is 4:1. If the digit in the unit place is 4 more than digit in the 10th place, then find the number?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (48)
Let number be 10x+y. x+y10x+y=14⟹10x+y=4x+4y⟹6x=3y⟹y=2x. Given y−x=4⟹2x−x=4⟹x=4⟹y=8. The number is 48.
Q448
General Awareness with special ref to J&KNumber Series: Find Wrong Term
Find the wrong term in the following series? 17, 32, 47, 62, 77, 90
💡Correct Answer: Option D (90)
The pattern is adding 15: 17+15=32, 32+15=47, 47+15=62, 62+15=77, 77+15=92. The given term 90 is incorrect (should be 92).
Q449
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSpeed, Time and Distance
A car is running at a speed of 108 km/hr, what distance will it cover in 15 sec?
General Awareness with special ref to J&KStatement and Conclusions
Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.
Conclusions: i) The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future. ii) It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only conclusion (ii) follows)
Statement directly implies that increasing population and dwindling resources will severely strain public infrastructure and living standards, making conclusion (ii) valid. Conclusion (i) contradicts the statement.
Q451
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSystem vs Application Software
System software acts as a bridge between hardware and _____ software?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Application)
System software (Operating System) acts as an intermediary layer between physical computer hardware and user Application software.
Q452
General Awareness with special ref to J&KStorage Devices: Flash Memory
Flash drive is popularly known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pen drive)
A USB flash drive is colloquially and popularly known as a 'Pen drive' or thumb drive.
Q453
General Awareness with special ref to J&KFunction Keys & Browser Shortcuts
Which key on a window keyboard sets to full screen mode in most browsers?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (F11)
In Windows web browsers (Chrome, Edge, Firefox), pressing function key F11 toggles Full Screen mode on and off.
Q454
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMS Excel Formulas
In A3 cell edit =A1+A2 refers to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Addition of A1 and A2 will display in A3)
Entering `=A1+A2` in cell A3 calculates the mathematical sum of the values in cells A1 and A2 and displays the calculated result in cell A3.
Q455
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComputer Networking & Packet Switching
The internet uses are
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Packet switching)
The Internet uses Packet Switching (TCP/IP), where data messages are broken down into discrete packets transmitted independently across network nodes and reassembled at the destination.
Identify the grammatical error in the sentence: "The committee are meeting tomorrow to discuss the proposal."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Are meeting)
'Committee' is a collective noun acting as a single unified body in formal standard English, which takes a singular verb 'is meeting' (not plural 'are meeting').
Q457
Basic Concepts of ComputersWildlife Sanctuaries & Fauna of J&K
Dachigam National Park is famous for?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hangul Deer or Kashmir Stag)
Dachigam National Park, located near Srinagar, is the world-renowned protected natural sanctuary and home of the critically endangered Hangul Deer (Kashmir Stag - Cervus hanglu hanglu).
Q458
Basic Concepts of ComputersMemory Measurement Units
One (01) MB is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1024 KB)
In binary computer memory units, 1 Megabyte (MB)=1024 Kilobytes (KB).
Q459
General EnglishPronoun Identification
Read the following paragraph carefully to answer the question:
"Last weekend, my friend and I decided to go for a hike in the mountains. We packed our bags with essentials and started early in the morning. As we were walking, we came across a beautiful stream. The sound of the water was very soothing. My friend said, "This is so peaceful!" I agreed and we sat by the stream for a while. Suddenly, we heard a rustling noise. I turned to my friend and asked, "Did you hear that?" They nodded and said, "Yes, I did. Let's go check it out."
When we got up to continue our hike, we saw a steep hill ahead. My friend looked at me and said, "Climbing this hill will be a piece of cake!" I smiled and replied, "Let's do it!" We started climbing, and despite the incline, it was easier than we had expected. Before long, we reached the top and were rewarded with a stunning view of the valley below. "What a beautiful view," I said. We took a moment to appreciate the beauty around us before heading back down."
Question: Which of the following pronouns is NOT used in the above paragraph?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (She)
The paragraph uses pronouns 'We', 'I', 'They', 'our', and 'it', but does NOT contain the feminine singular pronoun 'She'.
Q460
General EnglishPunctuation & Quotation Marks
Select the sentence with the correct punctuation.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jaya said, 'They were getting really excited and were shouting "Come on!"')
Option A correctly follows standard nested quotation punctuation rules with a comma after the introductory reporting verb, capitalized quote, and double quotes inside single quotes with exclamation mark: Jaya said, 'They were getting really excited and were shouting "Come on!"'
Q461
General Awareness with special ref to J&KInternet & E-Commerce
Which of the following is NOT an e-commerce website?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Facebook.)
Facebook is a social networking service, whereas AJIO (fashion retail), Amazon (general merchandise), and BookMyShow (online ticketing) are commercial e-commerce transaction platforms.
Q462
General Awareness with special ref to J&KGenerations of Computers
Match the computer generation with its corresponding characteristic. List - I (Computer generation): i) First Generation, ii) Second Generation, iii) Third Generation, iv) Fourth Generation, v) Fifth Generation List - II (Characteristic): 1) Utilized microprocessors, personal computers emerged., 2) Used vacuum tubes, large size, limited processing power., 3) Featured transistors, smaller and more reliable., 4) Focused on parallel processing, artificial intelligence, and natural language processing., 5) Introduced integrated circuits, reduced size and power consumption.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1, v-4)
1st Gen = Vacuum tubes (i-2), 2nd Gen = Transistors (ii-3), 3rd Gen = Integrated Circuits (iii-5), 4th Gen = Microprocessors / VLSI (iv-1), 5th Gen = Artificial Intelligence & Parallel Processing (v-4). Correct matching: i-2, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1, v-4.
Q463
General Awareness with special ref to J&KOperating System & Device Drivers
Consider the following statements about Device Driver. 1. It a hardware device that is attached to a computer. 2. It acts as a translator between the hardware device and operating systems or applications that use it. 3. It instructs computer on how to communicate with the device by translating the operating system's instructions into a language that a device can understand in order to perform the necessary task. 4. Examples of device driver: printer driver, display driver, USB driver, sound card driver, motherboard driver, ROM driver, etc. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 3 and 4)
Statement 1 is incorrect because a device driver is a specialized software program, NOT a hardware device. Statements 2, 3, and 4 correctly describe its role as a translator/driver program and list valid driver types. Correct: 2, 3 and 4.
Q464
General Awareness with special ref to J&KInternal vs External Hardware
Which of the following is an example of internal hardware devices?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Video card.)
A Video Card (Graphics Processing Unit / GPU card) is installed internally directly onto the motherboard PCIe expansion slot inside the computer chassis.
Q465
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComputer Architecture: DMA Controller
Direct Memory Access (DMA) controller is a feature within the computer that
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Transfers the data to the main memory without intervention of CPU.)
Direct Memory Access (DMA) enables hardware subsystems to transfer data directly to and from system RAM without routing through the CPU, eliminating CPU bottleneck and speeding up memory operations.
Q466
General Awareness with special ref to J&KReal-Time Operating Systems (RTOS)
Which of the following is NOT a real time operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Palm OS.)
Palm OS was a personal digital assistant (PDA) operating system, NOT a deterministic Real-Time Operating System (RTOS) like QNX, VxWorks, or RTLinux.
Q467
General Awareness with special ref to J&KKeyboard Shortcuts in Windows/Office
Match List - I with List - II List - I (Command): i) Replace, ii) Insert Hyperlink, iii) Paste, iv) Cut List - II (Shortcut keys): 1) Ctrl+K, 2) Ctrl+H, 3) Ctrl+X, 4) Ctrl+V
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMicrosoft Office Suite: MS Access
Which of the following is a primary feature of Microsoft Access?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It is a database management system used for creating, managing, and querying databases.)
Microsoft Access is a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) that combines the relational Jet/ACE database engine with a graphical user interface and software-development tools for storing, managing, and querying structured data.
Q469
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMS PowerPoint Shortcuts
Match List - I with List - II List - I (Key): i) F5, ii) Shift+F5, iii) Alt+F5, iv) Esc List - II (Shortcut keys on PowerPoint): 1) Start presentation from beginning, 2) Start presentation from current slide, 3) Start presentation in presenter view, 4) End presentation
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.)
F5 = Start from beginning (i-1), Shift+F5 = Start from current slide (ii-2), Alt+F5 = Presenter View (iii-3), Esc = End presentation (iv-4). Match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q470
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMS PowerPoint Slide Master
Which of the following statements about MS Power Point's slide master features is NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slide masters cannot be used to modify the font and background of slides.)
Statement C is NOT true because modifying the master slide fonts, theme colors, and background styles is one of the primary and most powerful functions of the Slide Master.
Q471
General Awareness with special ref to J&KEmail Protocols: POP3, IMAP, SMTP
Which of the following statements about email protocols and services is NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (POP3 enables users to access their email messages directly on the server without downloading them.)
Statement A is NOT true: POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) downloads email messages to the local device and typically deletes them from the mail server. IMAP is the protocol that manages emails directly on the server with multi-device sync.
Q472
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: Why was the Indian friend plunged in despair?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (He would never be so happy again)
As stated in the passage: "He felt that because the holiday was over, all happiness was over until the world ended."
Q473
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What is the author's intention in the passage?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To contrast the Indian character with the English character.)
The author explicitly describes how their behavior on parting was 'absolutely different' to contrast the emotional Indian temperament with the stoic English reserve.
Q474
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What is the Continent in the context of the passage?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Europe.)
In British English idiom and historical literature, 'the Continent' refers to mainland Europe.
Q475
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What does 'But in me the Englishman came out strong' imply?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (He had the typical English character.)
It implies that the author exhibited the traditional English 'stiff upper lip' character—pragmatic, undemonstrative, and unemotional in the face of parting.
Q476
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIdioms & Phrases
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What does the author mean by 'buck up'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cheer up.)
'Buck up' is an informal English idiom meaning to cheer up, take heart, and become more encouraged or positive.
Q477
General Awareness with special ref to J&KChamparan Satyagraha 1917
After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Champaran.)
Mahatma Gandhi launched his first successful Satyagraha movement in India at Champaran (Bihar) in 1917 to fight for the rights of indigo farmers oppressed under the Tinkathia system.
Q478
General Awareness with special ref to J&KTribes of India
Which of the following statements related to tribes in India are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tharu tribes are found in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.)
The Tharu tribal community lives across the Terai lowlands of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh. (Gaddi pastoralists are primarily associated with HP/J&K, but statement A is the standard factual classification).
Q479
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHydropower Projects in J&K
Salal Hydroelectric Project is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jammu and Kashmir.)
The Salal Hydroelectric Project (690 MW) is constructed on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q480
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHydropower Projects on Chenab
The Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is situated in?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Jammu and Kashmir.)
The 624 MW Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is a run-of-the-river scheme being constructed on the Chenab River in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir by CVPPPL.
Q481
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityIndian States with Tri-Junction Borders
Which State of India has borders with three countries namely Nepal, Bhutan and China?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sikkim.)
Sikkim is uniquely bounded by three foreign nations: Nepal to the west, Bhutan to the east, and China (Tibet) to the north.
Q482
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityMountain Passes of J&K
Zojila pass connects.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Leh and Srinagar.)
Zoji La Pass (3,528 m) on NH-1 in the Greater Himalayas connects Srinagar (Kashmir Valley) with Kargil and Leh (Ladakh).
Q483
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityTunnels & Highways in India
The Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 in Jammu and Kashmir is India's longest bi-directional road tunnel, stretching 9.28 km (5.8 miles).
Q484
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Excel Functions: COUNTIF
What is the function of =COUNTIF () in Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Counts cells as specified.)
The `=COUNTIF(range, criteria)` statistical function in Excel counts the number of cells within a specified range that meet a given condition or criteria.
Q485
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringFluid Mechanics: Boundary Layer Theory
For the velocity profile U∞u=(δy)61, the momentum boundary layer thickness (in mm) when δ=1 mm, is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\frac{5}{42}$)
Momentum thickness θ=∫01(η1/6−η2/6)dη=[7/6η7/6−4/3η4/3]01=76−43=2824−21=283δ≈425 mm.
Consider a laminar flow over a flat plate of length L=1 m. The boundary layer thickness at the end of the plate is δw for water, and δa for air for the same freestream velocity. If the kinematic viscosities of water and air are 1×10−6 m2/s and 1.6×10−5 m2/s, respectively, the ratio of δaδw is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($1/4$)
For laminar flow over a flat plate, Blasius boundary layer thickness $\delta = \frac{5 x}{\sqrt{Re_x}} = 5\sqrt{\frac{ u x}{U_\infty}} \propto \sqrt{ u}.Therefore:\frac{\delta_w}{\delta_a} = \sqrt{\frac{ u_w}{ u_a}} = \sqrt{\frac{1 \times 10^{-6}}{1.6 \times 10^{-5}}} = \sqrt{\frac{1}{16}} = \frac{1}{4}$.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The boundary layer thickness ($\delta$) is much smaller than the length of the flat plate)
In boundary layer theory for high Reynolds number flows over a flat plate, the boundary layer thickness δ is very thin compared to the characteristic plate length L (δ≪L).
The term "grain boundary" refers to the boundary between:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Adjacent crystalline grains)
A grain boundary is a 2D planar interface defect separating two adjacent crystallites (grains) of the same phase having different crystallographic spatial orientations in a polycrystalline material.
Q489
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: Fundamentals
CAM refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Computer-Aided Manufacturing)
CAM stands for Computer-Aided Manufacturing, which uses specialized software and automated computer-controlled machinery (CNC/DNC) to plan, manage, and execute manufacturing operations.
Q490
General Awareness & ScienceImportant National & International Days
Every year the International Yoga Day is celebrated on
💡Correct Answer: Option C (21 June)
International Day of Yoga has been celebrated annually on 21 June since its inception by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015.
Q491
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in which year
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2019)
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was passed by the Parliament of India in August 2019, reconstituting the state into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh) effective 31 October 2019.
Q492
General Awareness & ScienceMughal Gardens in Kashmir
The Shalimar Bagh in Jammu and Kashmir was built by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jahangir)
Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar was built in 1619 by the Mughal Emperor Jahangir for his beloved wife Nur Jahan.
Q493
General Awareness & ScienceScientific Awards in India
The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given to recognize excellent work done in the field of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Science and Technology)
The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (SSB) Prize is India's highest multidisciplinary science award presented annually by CSIR for notable research in Science and Technology.
Q494
General Awareness & ScienceEighth Schedule Languages
At present, how many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Twenty-Two)
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India currently lists 22 official regional languages (originally 14, with additions via 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
Q495
General Awareness & ScienceNuclear Physics: Stellar Energy
The Sun's energy is due to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nuclear fusion of hydrogen)
The Sun produces its vast radiant energy via thermonuclear nuclear fusion reactions, primarily the proton-proton chain where hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium under extreme core temperatures and pressures.
Q496
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Laws of Reflection
Which statement is true for the reflection of light?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The angle of incidence and reflection are equal.)
According to the First Law of Reflection of light: The angle of incidence (∠i) is always exactly equal to the angle of reflection (∠r), i.e., ∠i=∠r.
Q497
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Halogens & Bleaching
Bleaching action of chlorine is by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Oxidation)
Chlorine bleaches in the presence of moisture through Oxidation: Chlorine reacts with water to release nascent oxygen (\text{Cl}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} → 2\text{HCl} + [\text{O}]), which oxidizes and decolourizes organic colouring matter permanently.
Q498
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Abundance of Elements
The most abundant metal in the earth's crust is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Aluminum)
Aluminium is the most abundant metal element in the Earth's continental crust, comprising approximately 8.1% of the crust by mass (surpassed only by non-metals Oxygen ∼46.6% and Silicon ∼27.7%).
Q499
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electrical Instruments
Which device is used to measure the potential difference between two points in an electric circuit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Voltmeter)
A Voltmeter is an electrical measuring instrument connected in parallel across two circuit points to measure the electric potential difference (voltage) in Volts.
Q500
General Awareness & ScienceEcology: Trophic Levels & Food Chains
The primary consumers are
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Herbivores)
In an ecological food chain, Herbivores (plant-eating animals like deer, cows, rabbits) occupy the second trophic level and are classified as primary consumers because they feed directly on primary producers (plants).
Q501
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Respiratory System
During respiration exchange of gases take place in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Alveoli of lungs)
In human respiratory anatomy, the exchange of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) occurs across the thin, vascularized walls of microscopic air sacs called Alveoli in the lungs via simple diffusion.
Q502
General Awareness & SciencePartition of Bengal (1905)
The partition of Bengal took place in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1905)
The Partition of Bengal was carried out by the British Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon, on 16 October 1905, which sparked the nationwide Swadeshi and Boycott movement.
Q503
General Awareness & ScienceNon-Cooperation and Khilafat Movements
Which of the following movement was combined with the Non-Cooperation movement in 1920?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Khilafat Movement)
In 1920, Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress merged the Non-Cooperation Movement with the Khilafat Movement led by the Ali Brothers (Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali) to unite Hindus and Muslims against British rule.
Q504
General Awareness & ScienceLatitudinal & Longitudinal Extent of India
Which line passes through India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tropic of Cancer)
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5∘ N latitude) passes through the middle of India, dividing the country into almost two equal halves across 8 Indian States (Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram).
Q505
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Standard Time (IST)
India used how many time zones
💡Correct Answer: Option A (01)
India observes a single uniform national time zone: Indian Standard Time (IST), which is calculated along the Standard Meridian of 82.5∘ E longitude passing through Mirzapur (UP), corresponding to UTC+05:30.
Q506
General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Rights: Right to Education (Art 21A)
Article 21A of the Indian Constitution provides Right to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Education)
Article 21A, inserted into Part III of the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002), establishes free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for all children aged 6 to 14 years.
Q507
General Awareness & SciencePanchayati Raj 3-Tier System
The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Village, Block and District levels)
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (Balwant Rai Mehta Committee model), the Panchayati Raj system establishes a 3-tier local self-governance structure: 1. Gram Panchayat (Village level), 2. Panchayat Samiti (Block/Intermediate level), and 3. Zilla Parishad (District level).
Q508
General Awareness & ScienceCensus 2011: State Literacy Rates
As per the 2011 census, which among the following states has the highest literacy rate?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kerala)
According to Census 2011, Kerala ranks first among all Indian states with the highest literacy rate of 94.00%.
Q509
General Awareness & SciencePrinciples of First Aid (3 Ps)
Which of the following is/are aim of the First Aid
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The primary 3 Ps of First Aid are: 1. Preserve life, 2. Prevent deterioration / further injury, and 3. Promote recovery. All the options are core objectives.
Q510
General Awareness & ScienceBureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
Bureau of Indian Standards works under aegis of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the national Standards Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016, operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
Q511
General Awareness & ScienceSolid Waste Management: Landfill Gas
When the organic matter present in the sanitary landfill decomposes, it generates
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Methane gas)
Anaerobic microbial decomposition of organic biodegradable municipal solid waste inside sanitary landfills generates Landfill Gas, consisting primarily of Methane (CH4, ≈50–55%) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
Q512
Basic EnglishNon-Verbal Communication & Gestures
Raising a hand to greet or say goodbye is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Non-Verbal Communication)
Raising a hand to wave, nod, or greet is a physical bodily gesture (kinesics) transmitting a message without spoken or written words, categorised as Non-Verbal Communication.
Q513
General Awareness & ScienceEmployees' Provident Fund Act, 1952
Minimum _____ persons must be employed in as establishment for the applicability of the PF act.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (20)
Under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, statutory PF registration applies to any factory or commercial establishment employing 20 or more persons.
Q514
General Awareness & SciencePayment of Wages Act, 1936
According to Payment of Wages Act, the maximum wage period or payment of wages to employees by employer should not exceed
💡Correct Answer: Option C (30 days)
Section 4 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 mandates that no wage period fixed by the person responsible for the payment of wages shall exceed one month (30 days).
Q515
General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Health Ambassadors
Who has been named as the national ambassador for TB Mukt Bharat Campaign?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Deepa Malik)
Dr. Deepa Malik (Padma Shri, Khel Ratna, President of the Paralympic Committee of India) was appointed National Ambassador for the Ni-Kshay Mitra (TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan) initiative.
Q516
General Awareness & ScienceLanguages of North-East India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which of the following states of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assam)
Bodo (Boro), an official language listed under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, is primarily spoken in the state of Assam (Bodoland Territorial Region).
Q517
General Awareness & ScienceFestivals of Jammu & Kashmir
In Kashmir valley 'Shivratri' is also known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Herath)
Maha Shivratri is celebrated by Kashmiri Pandits as 'Herath' (derived from Sanskrit 'Hararatri' - Night of Hara/Shiva) with unique religious rituals and walnuts.
Q518
General Awareness & ScienceKarewa Formations & Saffron Cultivation
Kerewa soil is best for growing
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Saffron)
Karewa lacustrine plateau soils (intermontane alluvial terraces) in Kashmir, particularly around Pampore, are world-renowned for the cultivation of high-grade Saffron (Zafran) and almonds.
Q519
General Awareness & ScienceTourism Icons of Kashmir
A traditional Gondola type lightweight rowing boat ride which is famous of the Dal Lake in Kashmir is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shikara ride)
The Shikara is a traditional wooden cultural boat of Kashmir, famously used for scenic rides, floating markets, and transport across Dal Lake and Nigeen Lake in Srinagar.
Q520
General Awareness & ScienceRenewable Energy: Biogas
Both power and manure is provided by:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Biogas plant)
A Biogas (gobar gas) plant anaerobically digests cattle dung and organic waste to simultaneously generate combustible methane gas for power/cooking and nutrient-rich bio-slurry for agricultural manure/fertilizer.
Q521
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Human Eye and Defects of Vision
Which among the following lens is used to correct Presbyopia
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bifocal)
Presbyopia (age-related loss of accommodation of the eye's ciliary muscles) is standardly corrected using Bifocal lenses (where upper portion is concave for distant vision and lower portion is convex for near reading).
Q522
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Scientific Instruments
Consider the following statement(s) is/are related to the device of Ammeter: I: It is a measuring device used to measure the current in a circuit. II: It is a measuring device used to measure the altitude of an object above a fixed level. Which of following statement(s) is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I)
Statement I is correct: An Ammeter is an electrical instrument connected in series to measure electric current in Amperes. Statement II describes an Altimeter, not an ammeter. Thus, only Statement I is correct.
Q523
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Heating Effect of Electric Current
The property of electric current which is applicable in the fuse wire is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Heating effect of current)
An electric safety fuse operates on Joule's Heating Effect of electric current (H=I2Rt). When excessive current flows, resistive heating melts the low-melting-point lead-tin alloy wire, breaking the circuit.
Q524
General Awareness & ScienceClean Fuels & Environmental Pollution
Which of the following would produce minimum environmental pollution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrogen)
Hydrogen is a zero-carbon clean green fuel; when burned with oxygen, its only combustion product is pure water vapor (H2O), generating zero soot, carbon monoxide, or greenhouse gas emissions.
Q525
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Diseases & Transmission
Which is communicable disease?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Measles)
Measles (Rubeola) is an infectious, highly communicable viral disease transmitted airborne through respiratory droplets. Asthma (allergy), Scurvy (Vitamin C deficiency), and Diabetes (metabolic) are non-communicable.
Q526
General Awareness & ScienceAnnulment of Partition of Bengal (1911)
Who among the following annulled the Partition of Bengal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lord Hardinge)
Lord Hardinge II, the Viceroy of India, formally annulled the 1905 Partition of Bengal in December 1911 at the grand Delhi Durbar attended by King George V (while simultaneously shifting the British capital from Calcutta to Delhi).
Q527
General Awareness & ScienceLongitudes & International Date Line
What name is given to 180° longitude due to the spherical shape of the earth?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International date line)
The 180∘ Meridian, situated antipodal to the Prime Meridian of Greenwich, is internationally designated as the International Date Line (IDL), where the calendar date changes by one day upon crossing.
Q528
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Flora: Trees & Plants
Which among the following is known as Flame of the forest?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Palash)
Palash (Butea monosperma, also known as Dhak or Bastard Teak) is famously called the 'Flame of the Forest' because its canopy becomes completely covered with brilliant scarlet-orange flowers in spring.
Q529
General Awareness & ScienceMajor Towns of J&K
Saffron town of Kashmir is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pampore)
Pampore, located in the Pulwama district along the banks of the Jhelum river in the Kashmir Valley, is universally celebrated as the 'Saffron Town of Kashmir'.
Q530
General Awareness & ScienceGemstones & Minerals of J&K
Where is Sapphire found in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kistiwar)
World-famous, prized cornflower-blue Kashmir Sapphires (Neelam) are mined from the high-altitude Padder pegmatite deposits in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q531
General Awareness & ScienceDemocratic Principles & Political Thinkers
Who defined democracy as a form of Government of the people, for the people and by the people?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Abraham Lincoln)
Abraham Lincoln, the 16th President of the United States, immortalized this definition of democracy during his historic Gettysburg Address in November 1863.
Q532
General Awareness & ScienceElectoral Politics & Political Parties
What is the meaning of 'Alliance'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of contesting election and winning power)
In political science, an electoral Alliance (or Front/Coalition) is formed when multiple political parties join together prior to an election to contest seats collectively and win power (e.g. NDA, UPA/INDIA).
Q533
General Awareness & ScienceMining & Mineral Industries in India
The head quarters of Hindustan Zinc Limited is located at
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Udaipur)
Hindustan Zinc Limited (HZL, a Vedanta Group company and world's second-largest zinc producer) is headquartered at Udaipur, Rajasthan.
Q534
General Awareness & ScienceInternet Applications: Social Networks vs E-Commerce
Which of the following is NOT a social network?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ebay)
eBay is an online multinational e-commerce consumer-to-consumer auction and shopping marketplace, whereas LinkedIn, Instagram, and Twitter (X) are social networking platforms.
Q535
General Awareness & ScienceEmergency First Aid: Anaphylaxis Management
What should a casualty with a severe allergy carry at all times?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Adrenaline)
Individuals with severe life-threatening allergies at risk of anaphylaxis must carry an auto-injector of Adrenaline (Epinephrine / EpiPen) at all times to reverse airway constriction and shock.
Q536
General Awareness & ScienceCardiovascular Health: Angina Pectoris
What is the cause of angina?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle)
Angina pectoris (chest pain/discomfort) is caused by reduced or insufficient oxygen-rich blood supply to the heart muscle (myocardium) due to narrowed coronary arteries (cardiac ischemia).
Q537
General Awareness & ScienceOzone Depletion & Refrigerants (CFCs)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are also known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Freon)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs, e.g. CFC-11, CFC-12) used historically as refrigerants and aerosol propellants are commercially known by the DuPont brand trademark Freon.
Q538
Basic MathematicsMetric Units Subtraction
A ring of platinum weighs 5g 8 dg 6 cg 9 mg. If it has a diamond of weight 1 dg 3 cg 5 mg in it, then what is the weight of the platinum in the ring?
General Awareness & ScienceHighest Civilian Honors
Who recently was conferred with the honor "The Order of the Nile"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Narendra Modi)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi was conferred with the 'Order of the Nile', Egypt's highest state civilian honour, by Egyptian President Abdel Fattah El-Sisi in Cairo in June 2023.
Q540
General Awareness & ScienceCapitals of Indian States
What is the capital of Meghalaya?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shillong)
Shillong (known as the 'Scotland of the East') is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Meghalaya. (Kohima is Nagaland's capital, Imphal is Manipur's, Aizawl is Mizoram's).
Q541
General Awareness & ScienceDachigam National Park & Gateways
Which is the gateway of the famous Wildlife sanctuary of Dachigam?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Harwan Garden)
Harwan Garden in Srinagar serves as the primary entrance and gateway to the Dachigam National Park (home to the endangered Hangul / Kashmir Stag).
Q542
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
The union territory of J&K came into existence on
💡Correct Answer: Option C (31 Oct, 2019)
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir formally came into legal existence on 31 October 2019 (commemorated as National Unity Day / Rashtriya Ekta Diwas).
Q543
General Awareness & ScienceDistricts & Heritage Towns of J&K
Basholi town is located in which district of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kathua)
Basohli (famous for its historic Basohli Miniature Painting school with GI Tag and Atal Setu bridge over Ravi River) is situated in the Kathua district of Jammu Division.
Q544
General Awareness & ScienceWind Energy Generation
The power generated in a windmill
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Depends on the wind velocity)
The theoretical aerodynamic power extractable by a wind turbine blade rotor is directly proportional to the cube of the wind velocity (P=21ρAv3), making wind speed the dominant determining factor.
Q545
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Optics & Plane Mirrors
A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident beam is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Convergent)
A plane mirror forms a real image only when a Convergent beam of light is incident upon it (representing a virtual object positioned behind the mirror, which reflects into a real focal convergence point in front).
Q546
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Lens Formula
An object is placed 10 cm from a diverging lens which forms an image 6.5 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (-18.5 cm)
For a diverging (concave) lens: object distance u=−10 cm, virtual image distance v=−6.5 cm. Using lens formula: f1=v1−u1=−6.51−−101=−132+101=130−20+13=−1307⟹f=−7130≈−18.57 cm≈−18.5 cm.
Q547
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Ohm's Law & Conductors
Ohm's law is true for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Metallic conductors at low temperature)
Ohm's Law (V=IR) strictly applies to Ohmic metallic conductors under constant physical conditions (low/stable temperatures where thermal drift in resistivity does not distort linear resistance).
Q548
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Vitamins and Deficiency Diseases
Excessive bleeding during an injury is a deficiency of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin K)
Vitamin K (phylloquinone) is an essential cofactor required for the hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation clotting factors (prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X); its deficiency leads to impaired blood clotting and prolonged hemorrhaging.
Q549
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Corrosion and Galvanization
Which of the following element is used in the process of galvanization?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Zinc)
Galvanization is the metallurgical process of applying a protective sacrificial Zinc (Zn) coating to iron or steel to prevent atmospheric corrosion and rusting.
Q550
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry / Materials: Properties of Metals
Which one of the following mechanical properties enables a metal to be made into thin sheets?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Malleability)
Malleability is the mechanical property of metals that allows them to be hammered, rolled, or pressed into thin foils and sheets without fracturing (e.g. Gold, Aluminium). (Ductility enables drawing into wires).
Q551
General Awareness & ScienceIndian National Movement Chronology
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one among the following event occur earliest?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lucknow Pact)
Chronology of events: Lucknow Pact = 1916; Gandhi-Irwin Pact = 1931; Cripps Mission = March 1942; Quit India Movement = August 1942. The earliest event is the Lucknow Pact (1916).
Q552
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Independence Act 1947
Which of the following is a feature of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Partition of India)
The Indian Independence Act, 1947 enacted by the British Parliament provided for the Partition of India and the creation of two independent sovereign Dominions: India and Pakistan, effective 15 August 1947.
Q553
General Awareness & ScienceLongitudes & Time Calculations
If Greenwich meridian time is 12 noon, then what will be the time at 45 degree East longitude?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3 PM)
Earth rotates 360∘ in 24 hours ⟹15∘ per hour (or 1∘ in 4 minutes). For 45∘ East (ahead of GMT): Time difference =15∘/hr45∘=+3 hours. Local time =12:00 Noon+3 hours=3:00 PM.
Q554
General Awareness & ScienceLivestock & Dairy Production in India
Which of the following state is the highest milk producing state in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Uttar Pradesh)
Uttar Pradesh has historically been the leading milk-producing state in India, accounting for nearly 15–16% of national total milk production.
Q555
General Awareness & ScienceCropping Seasons: Kharif, Rabi, Zaid
Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Groundnut)
Groundnut (peanut) is a major Kharif oilseed crop sown with the onset of the monsoon in June–July and harvested in autumn. Wheat and Peas are Rabi crops; Pumpkin is a Zaid summer crop.
Q556
General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Duties (Part IVA)
Fundamental duties are mentioned in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Part-IVA)
Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part-IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution of India, incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Q557
Basic EnglishTypes of Communication: Interpersonal Verbal
The communication between two persons through letters is an instance of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Inter Personnel Verbal Communication)
Communication between two distinct individuals is Interpersonal, and because written language uses words (verbal code), letter writing is classified as Interpersonal Verbal Communication.
Q558
General Awareness & ScienceOccupational Health & Safety (OSH)
Occupational safety and health is concerned with health and welfare of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) is a multidisciplinary field concerned with protecting the safety, health, and welfare of employees, co-workers, employers, customers, family members, and visitors impacted by the workplace.
Q559
General Awareness & SciencePersonal Protective Equipment (PPE) in Welding
In case of arc welding, one should protect his eyes using
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Dark Glass screen)
Electric arc welding emits intense ultraviolet (UV) and infrared (IR) radiation that can cause photokeratitis ('arc eye'). Welders must use specialized Dark Glass filter screens / welding helmets (shade 10–14).
Q560
General Awareness & ScienceSolid Waste Management (MSW)
Which of the following solid wastage describes the term 'Municipal Solid Waste'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Non Hazardous)
Municipal Solid Waste (MSW), commonly referred to as everyday domestic and commercial trash or garbage, is primarily categorized as Non-Hazardous solid waste.
Q561
General Awareness & ScienceFactories Act, 1948 Welfare Provisions
The ambulance room is to be provided if a factory engage more than
💡Correct Answer: Option D (500 employees)
Under Section 45(4) of the Factories Act, 1948, every factory employing more than 500 workers is legally mandated to maintain an ambulance room staffed with medical and nursing personnel.
Q562
Basic MathematicsMetric Unit Conversions
800 cm+80.8 km= metre?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (80808 m)
Convert all units to metres: 800 cm=100800=8 m. 80.8 km=80.8×1000=80,800 m. Total =8 m+80,800 m=80,808 metres.
Q563
Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance: Unit Conversion
A man riding his bicycle covers 150 metres in 25 seconds. What is his speed in km per hour?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (21.6)
Speed in m/s=TimeDistance=25150=6 m/s. Converting to km/hr: 6×518=5108=21.6 km/hr.
Q564
General Awareness & ScienceInternational Borders of India
Which of the following country shares the longest land boundary with India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bangladesh)
India shares its longest international land border with Bangladesh, extending across 4,096.7 km through five Indian states.
Q565
General Awareness & ScienceWorld Happiness Report 2024
In the World Happiness Report 2024, what is India's ranking?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (126)
In the World Happiness Report 2024 published by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network, India ranked 126th out of 143 surveyed nations.
Q566
General Awareness & SciencePlaces of Worship: Zoroastrianism
Fire temple is the place of worship of which of the following religion?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Zoroastrianism (Parsi Religion))
A Fire Temple (Agiary / Atash Behram) is the traditional sacred place of worship for followers of Zoroastrianism (Parsis), where an eternal sacred flame is kept perpetually burning.
Q567
General Awareness & ScienceFundamentals of Ecology
Ecology deals with
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Relation between organisms and their environment)
Ecology (from Greek 'oikos' meaning house) is the branch of biology that studies the interactions and interrelationships between living organisms and their abiotic/biotic environment.
Q568
General Awareness & ScienceNicknames of Indian States
Which state is also known as the "Fruit Bowl" of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Himachal Pradesh)
Himachal Pradesh is widely celebrated as the 'Fruit Bowl of India' (and Apple State of India) due to its temperate climatic conditions producing abundant apples, peaches, plums, apricots, and pears.
Q569
General Awareness & ScienceHistoric Tournaments in India
Durand Cup is associated with the game of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Football)
The Durand Cup, founded in 1888 in Shimla by Sir Henry Mortimer Durand, is the oldest football tournament in Asia and the third oldest in the world.
Q570
General Awareness & ScienceBattle of Plassey (1757)
The Battle of Plassey was fought in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1757)
The historic Battle of Plassey was fought on 23 June 1757 between the British East India Company led by Robert Clive and the Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-Daulah, establishing British dominance in Bengal.
Q571
General Awareness & ScienceBuddhist Canonical Literature
Tripitakas are sacred books of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Buddhists)
The Tripitaka (Three Baskets: Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka, and Abhidhamma Pitaka) written in the Pali language comprises the canonical sacred scriptures of Buddhism.
Q572
General Awareness & ScienceEconomic Nationalism & Drain of Wealth
The theory of economic drain of India during British imperialism was propounded by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dadabhai Naoroji)
Dadabhai Naoroji (the 'Grand Old Man of India') first formulated and popularized the 'Drain of Wealth' theory in his landmark book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (1901).
Q573
General Awareness & ScienceBhakti Movement & Contemporary Rulers
Tulsidas, the author of Ramcharitmanas, was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Akbar)
Goswami Tulsidas (1532–1623 CE), who composed the epic Awadhi poem 'Ramcharitmanas', lived during the 16th century reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.
Q574
General Awareness & SciencePhysical Geography: Latitudes & Hemispheres
The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (North of the Equator)
Kanyakumari is situated at latitude 8∘4′ N, which lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, North of the Equator (0∘).
Q575
General Awareness & ScienceBharat Ratna 2024 Recipients
Who among the following is NOT conferred with Bharat Ratna in the year 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Manmohan Singh)
In 2024, Bharat Ratna was awarded to five eminent personalities: Karpoori Thakur, Lal Krishna Advani, P.V. Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh, and Dr. M.S. Swaminathan. Dr. Manmohan Singh was not conferred the award.
Q576
General Awareness & ScienceNational Symbols & Vedic Literature
The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mundka Upanishad)
India's national motto 'Satyameva Jayate' ("Truth alone triumphs") inscribed in Devanagari script is an aphorism taken from the ancient Mundaka Upanishad (Mundakopanishad 3.1.6).
Q577
General Awareness & ScienceNational Song vs National Anthem
The National Song of India was written and composed by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bankim Chandra Chattarijee)
The National Song of India, 'Vande Mataram', was written in Sanskritized Bengali by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his 1882 novel 'Anandamath'. (The National Anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' was composed by Rabindranath Tagore).
Q578
General Awareness & ScienceTraditional Textiles & Embroidery
Which of the following places is famous for Chikankari work, which is a traditional art of embroidery?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lucknow)
Chikankari is a delicate, world-famous traditional hand embroidery style practiced on muslin and fine fabrics, centered in the historic city of Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh (GI Tagged).
Q579
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Classical Dances & Origins
Kathak, a classical dance form, originated from
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Uttar Pradesh)
Kathak, derived from Sanskrit 'Katha' (storytellers / Kathakars), is a major classical Indian dance form that originated in Northern India, primarily Uttar Pradesh.
Q580
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: States of Elements
Which of the following is a non-metal that remains liquid at room temperature?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bromine)
Bromine (Br2, atomic number 35) is the only non-metallic element in the periodic table that exists in a liquid state at standard room temperature and pressure (25∘C). (Mercury is the only liquid metal).
Q581
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Allotropes of Carbon
The hardest substance available on earth is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Diamond)
Diamond, a crystalline allotrope of carbon with sp3 hybridized covalent tetrahedral network bonding, is the hardest known naturally occurring mineral on Earth, rating 10 on the Mohs hardness scale.
Q582
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Sound Waves & Units
What is the unit for measuring the amplitude of a sound?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decibel)
The amplitude, sound pressure level, and loudness of acoustic sound waves are measured on a logarithmic scale in Decibels (dB).
Q583
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electrical Instruments
Electric current is measured by
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ammeter)
An Ammeter is an electrical instrument connected in series within a circuit to measure the magnitude of electric current flow in Amperes (A).
Q584
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Plant Reproduction
Pollination is best defined as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (transfer of pollen from anther to stigma)
In flowering plant botany, pollination is the biological process of transferring pollen grains from the male anther to the female receptive stigma of a flower.
Q585
General Awareness & ScienceProminent Kashmiri Poets & Titles
Who is known as John Keats of Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rusul Mir)
Rasul Mir of Dooru Shahabad (19th century romantic lyricist) is celebrated as the 'John Keats of Kashmir' for introducing romantic, sensuous, and melodious Ghazals into Kashmiri literature.
Q586
General Awareness & ScienceMusical Instruments & Masters of J&K
Bhajan Sopori is associated with
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Santoor)
Pandit Bhajan Sopori (the 'Saint of Santoor') was a legendary Indian classical musician and music composer from the Sufiana Gharana of Kashmir who popularized the Kashmiri Santoor globally.
Q587
General Awareness & ScienceDogri Language & Literature
Who is known as "Father of Dogri"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ram Nath Shastri)
Prof. Ram Nath Shastri is universally revered as the 'Father of Dogri' for his pioneering efforts in founding the Dogri Sanstha in 1944 and securing national recognition for the Dogri language.
Q588
General Awareness & ScienceWoollen Products & Textiles
What is "Tweed"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is a wool product.)
Tweed is a rough, coarse, unfinished Woollen fabric of compact, flexible weave, traditionally manufactured in Kashmir and the British Isles for durable warm winter outerwear.
Q589
General Awareness & ScienceCultural Dances of Jammu
Kud Dance is performed in honour of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lok devta)
Kud Dance is a traditional celebratory ritual folk dance of the Jammu hills (Bhadarwah, Kishtwar, Udhampur) performed at night around a bonfire in honour of the local guardian deities (Lok Devtas / Gram Devtas) after successful crop harvesting.
Q590
General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Folk Dance: Rouf
On occasion of Eid, and during Ramzan, Kashmiri women performos
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rouf)
Rouf is the quintessential traditional Kashmiri women's folk dance performed in facing rows with rhythmic footwork to celebrate festive occasions like Eid, spring festivals, and weddings.
Q591
General Awareness & ScienceHistoric Palaces in Jammu
Amar Mahal is situated on the banks of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tawi River)
The historic Amar Mahal Palace, designed in the French Chateau architectural style by a French architect in the 19th century for Raja Amar Singh, overlooks the scenic Tawi River in Jammu.
Q592
General Awareness & ScienceIndus River Basin & Tributaries
Zanskar is a tributary of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Indus)
The Zanskar River is a major north-flowing left-bank tributary of the Indus River, joining it near Nimmu in Ladakh.
Q593
General Awareness & ScienceBifurcation of Districts in J&K
Kishtwar was carved out of which district of Jammu Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Doda)
Kishtwar was created as an independent district in 2006–2007 by bifurcating the erstwhile large Doda district.
Q594
General Awareness & ScienceSaffron Cultivation & Agricultural Titles
Which of the following activities in Indian agriculture is known as "Golden Zest"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saffron cultivation)
Saffron (Zafran) cultivation in Kashmir is poetically referred to as the 'Golden Zest' (or Golden Bowl / Golden Condiment) owing to its exquisite crimson-gold stigmas and extraordinary market value.
Q595
General Awareness & ScienceLargest PSUs in India
The largest public sector undertaking in India is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Railways)
Indian Railways is the largest commercial public sector department/undertaking in India and one of the largest single employers in the world.
Q596
General Awareness & SciencePioneers of Indian Science
The father of Indian missile technology is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (APJ Abdul Kalam)
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam is widely known as the 'Missile Man of India' and Father of Indian Missile Technology for spearheading the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) yielding Agni and Prithvi missiles.
Q597
General Awareness & ScienceChief Ministers of J&K
The first female chief minister of Jammu and Kashmir state was
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mehbooba Mufti)
Mehbooba Mufti (PDP president) served as the first woman Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir from April 2016 to June 2018.
Q598
General Awareness & ScienceSadr-e-Riyasat of J&K
Who was the first sadr-e-riyasat of Jammu Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Karan Singh)
Dr. Karan Singh was elected as the first Sadr-e-Riyasat (Constitutional Head of State) of Jammu and Kashmir in November 1952, holding the post until it was designated as Governor in 1965.
Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb: If she ________ a minister, she would bring changes.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (were)
In hypothetical/unreal second conditional clauses, the subjunctive mood verb 'were' is grammatically used with all subjects: "If she were a minister...".
Q600
Basic EnglishPluralization of Compound Nouns
Spot an error in the given sentence: Sister-in-laws (A) / are (B) / a nuisance. (C) / No error (D)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sister-in-laws)
The plural form of compound noun 'sister-in-law' is 'sisters-in-law' (the principal root noun 'sister' takes the plural suffix '-s', not the prepositional suffix). Error is in Part A.
Q601
Basic EnglishArticles: Consonant Sounds
Which article should be used: "Isha lives alone in ________ one-bedroom apartment."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a)
Indefinite article 'a' is used before 'one-bedroom' because the word 'one' phonetically begins with the consonant glide sound /w/ ("won"), not a vowel sound.
Q602
Basic EnglishSubjunctive Mood Wishes
Fill in the blank with correct verb form: I wish, I ________ a king.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (were)
Sentences expressing an unreal or hypothetical wish ('I wish...') require the past subjunctive verb form 'were': "I wish, I were a king."
Q603
General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Initiatives 2023-2024
Which of the following ministry has launched a new initiative "Women for Water, Water for Women Campaign", celebrate "Jal Diwali"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs)
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the 'Women for Water, Water for Women Campaign' under AMRUT in November 2023 to celebrate 'Jal Diwali'.
Q604
General Awareness & ScienceNational Football Championships
"Santosh Trophy" is associated with which game
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Football)
The Santosh Trophy is India's premier inter-state senior men's national Football championship organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF) since 1941.
Q605
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Cricket Milestones
Who became the first Indian Bowler to claim Seven wickets in a single ODI cricket match?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mohammed Shami)
Mohammed Shami achieved the best-ever bowling figures by an Indian in ODI cricket history by taking 7/57 against New Zealand in the 2023 ICC Cricket World Cup semi-final at Wankhede Stadium.
Q606
General Awareness & ScienceAsian Games 2023 Gold Medalists
Who won gold medal in the women's javelin throw at the Asian Games 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Annu Rani)
Annu Rani became the first Indian woman javelin thrower to win a Gold medal in Asian Games history with a throw of 62.92m at the 19th Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, China.
Q607
General Awareness & ScienceState Folk Dances
Which Indian state celebrate Bihu as a folk dance?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Assam)
Bihu is the most prominent folk dance and cultural festival of the northeastern state of Assam (celebrated as Rongali, Kongali, and Bhogali Bihu).
Q608
General Awareness & ScienceEast-Flowing vs West-Flowing Rivers
Which of the following river is not a west flowing river in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rushikulya)
The Rushikulya River is an East-flowing river in Odisha draining into the Bay of Bengal (famous for Olive Ridley turtle nesting). Bharathappuzha, Sabarmati, and Periyar flow west into the Arabian Sea.
Q609
General Awareness & ScienceTropic of Cancer: States Traversed
The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through which of the following Indian states?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Assam)
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5∘ N) passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. It does NOT pass through Assam.
Q610
General Awareness & ScienceMajor Commercial & Plantation Crops
Which state is the largest coffee-producing in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Karnataka)
Karnataka is by far the largest coffee-producing state in India, contributing over 70% of India's total coffee output (primarily Arabica and Robusta from Kodagu, Chikkamagaluru, and Hassan).
Q611
General Awareness & ScienceCapitals of North-Eastern States
What is the capital of Mizoram?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Aizawl)
Aizawl is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Mizoram. (Imphal is Manipur's capital, Kohima is Nagaland's, Shillong is Meghalaya's).
Q612
General Awareness & ScienceHuman Health & Nutritional Deficiencies
The deficiency of ________ leads to Arthritis
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Calcium)
Deficiency of Calcium (and Vitamin D) impairs bone mineral density, leading to joint cartilage degradation, osteoarthritis, and osteoporosis.
Q613
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Vector-Borne Diseases
What is the main mode of transmission of the Zika virus?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mosquito bites)
Zika virus is an arbovirus primarily transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female Aedes mosquitoes (primarily Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus).
Q614
General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Folk Theatre: Bhand Pather
BhandPather is a traditional ________ of the region of Kashmir.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Dance drama)
Bhand Pather is a centuries-old traditional satirical folk theatre and dance-drama form of the Kashmir Valley, performed by traditional folk artists called Bhands.
Q615
General Awareness & ScienceGI Tagged Products of J&K: Basohli Paintings
The world famous Basohli Paintings from the UT of Jammu and Kashmir has received the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag belongs to which district of UT
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kathua)
The celebrated miniature Basohli Painting style, known for vibrant primary colors and deep expressive eyes, hails from the historic town of Basohli in Kathua district and was awarded the GI tag in 2023.
Q616
General Awareness & ScienceWestern Disturbances & Winter Weather in Kashmir
The Kashmir region receives an additional amount of precipitation during the winter brought by which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Western Disturbances)
Winter precipitation (heavy snowfall and rain) across the Kashmir Himalayas is caused by Western Disturbances, which are extratropical cyclonic weather systems originating over the Mediterranean Sea.
Q617
General Awareness & ScienceKalhana's Rajatarangini
In the 12th century 'Rajatarangini' a book that recorded the heritage of Kashmir was written by
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kalhana)
The 'Rajatarangini' ("River of Kings"), the foremost historical chronicle of the kings of Kashmir written in Sanskrit verse, was composed by Pandit Kalhana between 1148 and 1150 CE.
Q618
General Awareness & ScienceG20 Presidency Handover 2023
To whom did Indian Prime Minister Shri Narender Modi transferred the G20 presidency?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (President of Brazil)
At the conclusion of the New Delhi G20 Summit in September 2023, PM Narendra Modi handed over the ceremonial G20 Presidential Gavel to President Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva of Brazil.
Q619
General Awareness & ScienceTribes in News: PVTGs
Konda Reddy tribe, recently seen in the news, is primarily inhabited in which state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Andhra Pradesh)
The Konda Reddy tribe is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) primarily inhabiting the Papikonda hill ranges along the Godavari river basin in Andhra Pradesh.
Q620
General Awareness & ScienceMajor Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna 2023
Who won the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Satwik Sairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty)
India's premier Men's Badminton doubles duo, Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty, were jointly conferred the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2023 for winning Asian Games Gold and reaching World No. 1 ranking.
Q621
General Awareness & ScienceBharat Ratna 2024
Who will be posthumously awarded Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award by the government of India in 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Karpoori Thakur)
Karpoori Thakur (former Chief Minister of Bihar, celebrated as 'Jannayak') was posthumously conferred the Bharat Ratna in January 2024.
Q622
General Awareness & ScienceFIDE Chess World Cup 2023
In the Chess World Cup 2023, which Indian player played in the final?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa)
Indian Grandmaster Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa made history by reaching the final of the FIDE Chess World Cup 2023 in Baku, Azerbaijan, playing against Magnus Carlsen.
Q623
General Awareness & ScienceFirsts in J&K: Paris Olympics 2024 Jury
Who has become the first Indian woman to be appointed a jury member at the 33rd Summer Olympics to be held in Paris, France, from 26 July - 11 August 2024.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bilquis Mir)
Bilquis Mir, a premier water sports athlete and international judge from Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir, became the first Indian woman appointed as an Olympic Jury Member at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games.
Q624
General Awareness & ScienceWeightlifting at Tokyo Olympics
Which of the following weightlifters was part of the Indian Olympics 2020 squad?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saikhom MirabaiChanu)
Saikhom Mirabai Chanu represented India at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and won the Silver medal in the women's 49 kg weightlifting category.
Q625
General Awareness & ScienceOfficial Languages of Indian States
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the official language of the states of India: a) Arunachal Pradesh — 1) Telugu b) Maharashtra — 2) English c) Andhra Pradesh — 3) Malayalam d) Kerala — 4) Marathi Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3)
Arunachal Pradesh has English as its official language (a-2); Maharashtra has Marathi (b-4); Andhra Pradesh has Telugu (c-1); Kerala has Malayalam (d-3) ⟹ a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3.
Q626
General Awareness & ScienceCurrencies of the World
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the currency of different countries: a) Algeria — 1) Somoni b) Indonesia — 2) Rupiah c) Tajikistan — 3) Kwacha d) Zambia — 4) Dinar Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3)
Algerian Dinar (a-4), Indonesian Rupiah (b-2), Tajikistani Somoni (c-1), Zambian Kwacha (d-3) ⟹ a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3.
Q627
General Awareness & ScienceHemis National Park
Consider the following statements about the Hemis National Park: 1. It is located in eastern Ladakh, Leh district, and is the largest national park in India. 2. Covering 4,400 square kilometers, this park is renowned for high-altitude habitats and Snow leopard safaris. 3. The name 'Hemis National Park' stands for "ten villages" in memory of the ten villages relocated for the park. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2)
Statements 1 and 2 are accurate. Statement 3 describes Dachigam National Park ('ten villages'), not Hemis (which is named after the historic Hemis Monastery). Thus, only 1 and 2 are correct.
Q628
General Awareness & ScienceHimalayan Mountain Passes
Which of the following mountain passes and locations are correctly matched? 1. Banihal Pass - Jammu & Kashmir 2. Bara-lacha La and Shipki La - Himachal Pradesh 3. Bomdi La - Arunachal Pradesh 4. Nathu La and Jelep La - Sikkim
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
All pairs are geographic matches: Banihal Pass connects Jammu and Srinagar (J&K); Baralacha La and Shipki La are in Himachal Pradesh; Bomdi La is in Arunachal Pradesh; Nathu La and Jelep La connect Sikkim with Tibet. All 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct.
Q629
General Awareness & ScienceScientific Names of Fauna in J&K
What is the scientific name of Markhor, a large wild goat?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Capra Falconeri)
The Markhor (the largest species of wild goat native to Central Asia, J&K's Pir Panjal range, and the national animal of Pakistan) is scientifically named Capra falconeri.
Q630
General Awareness & ScienceScientific Names of Himalayan Flora
Consider the following pairs of trees and their scientific names: 1. Chinar - Platanus orientalis 2. Deodar - Cedrus deodara 3. Silver Fir - Abies alba 4. Pine - Pinus roxburghii Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 3 only)
Chinar is Platanus orientalis (1) and European Silver Fir is Abies alba (3). Both 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
Q631
General Awareness & ScienceAncient Names of Rivers
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the rivers and their ancient Vedic names: a) Jhelum — 1) Asikini b) Chenab — 2) Bipasa c) Ravi — 3) Parushni d) Beas — 4) Vitasta Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2)
Vedic names of the Punjab/J&K rivers: Jhelum = Vitasta (a-4), Chenab = Asikini (b-1), Ravi = Parushni/Iravati (c-3), Beas = Vipasa/Bipasa (d-2) ⟹ a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2.
Q632
General Awareness & ScienceTourist Destinations in J&K
In which district of Jammu and Kashmir, is the famous hill station Doodhpathri, also known as the Valley of Milk, located?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Budgam)
Doodhpathri ('Valley of Milk'), a picturesque alpine meadow and hill resort nestled in the Pir Panjal range, is situated in the Budgam district of the Kashmir Valley.
Q633
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Optics & Spherical Mirrors
Vehicles use ______ to see the objects coming from Behind
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Convex Mirror)
Convex mirrors are standardly used as rear-view mirrors in motor vehicles because they always form an erect, diminished virtual image providing a wide field of view.
Q634
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Resistors in Parallel
If electric resistance is to be decreased, then the number of resistances should be connected in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (parallel)
Connecting resistors in Parallel decreases the equivalent circuit resistance (Req1=∑Ri1), resulting in an equivalent resistance smaller than the smallest individual resistor.
Q635
General Awareness & ScienceAir vs Water Pollutants
Which of the following is not a water pollutant?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sulphur Dioxide)
Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) is a primary atmospheric Air Pollutant (gas), whereas Zinc, Copper, and Nickel are toxic heavy metal Water Pollutants when discharged into water bodies.
Q636
General Awareness & ScienceRenewable & Conventional Energy Sources
Why is wind energy considered a conventional source of energy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (As it is readily available and used for a long time)
Harnessing wind power for traditional windmills, water pumping, and sailing has been in human practical use since antiquity.
Q637
General Awareness & ScienceNutrition & Mineral Absorption
Too much consumption of tea or coffee can result in deficiency of-
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Calcium)
High intake of tannins and caffeine in excessive tea and coffee impairs intestinal absorption and increases urinary excretion of Calcium and Iron.
Q638
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Circulatory System
Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by blood on the walls of-
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Arteries)
Blood pressure (systolic and diastolic) is defined in physiology as the lateral hydrodynamic pressure exerted by circulating blood against the muscular elastic walls of systemic Arteries.
Q639
General Awareness & SciencePhysics & Astronomy: Solar Retinopathy
It is dangerous to observe solar eclipse with naked eyes because
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ultraviolet radiations from sun burn our retina)
Intense ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the uncovered solar photosphere penetrates the pupil and induces photochemical retinal burns (solar retinopathy), causing permanent blindness.
Q640
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Excretory Products
All of the following are excretory (waste) products of animals, except
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Carbohydrates)
Carbohydrates are essential metabolic macronutrient energy fuels, whereas Urea, Uric acid, and Ammonia are cellular metabolic nitrogenous excretory wastes.
Q641
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Pathologies & Infections
The lockjaw is a pathological condition of-
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Tetanus)
Lockjaw (trismus) is the classic hallmark clinical manifestation of Tetanus, a bacterial neurotoxic infection caused by Clostridium tetani causing severe painful spasms of the masseter jaw muscles.
Q642
General Awareness & ScienceGreenhouse Gases & Global Warming
Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas found naturally in the atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nitrogen oxide)
Synthetic Halocarbons / higher nitrogen oxides are primarily anthropogenic, whereas Carbon dioxide, Methane, Water vapor, and Ozone occur naturally in Earth's atmosphere.
Q643
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Atmospheric Optical Phenomena
The sun is seen little before it rises and for a short while after it sets. This is because of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Atmospheric refraction)
Atmospheric refraction of sunlight passing through progressively denser air layers bends light rays downward, causing early sunrise (by ≈2 minutes) and delayed sunset (by ≈2 minutes).
Q644
General Awareness & ScienceTrophic Structure: Food Chains
A plant being eaten by a herbivorous which in turn is eaten by a carnivorous makes
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Food chain)
A linear unidirectional nutritional feeding sequence where nutrients and energy transfer from producer → primary consumer → secondary consumer constitutes a Food Chain.
Q645
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Heating Effect of Current
The property of electric current which is applicable in the fuse wire is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Heating effect of current.)
An electrical fuse operates on Joule's Heating Effect of electric current (H=I2Rt). Overcurrent produces heat that melts the low-melting-point fuse wire.
Q646
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Chemical Kinetics & Catalysts
What is the role of positive catalyst in a chemical reaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It increases the rate of reaction.)
A positive catalyst increases the rate/speed of a chemical reaction by providing an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy (Ea).
Q647
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Carbon & Its Compounds (Catenation)
Carbon is unique among the elements because it can:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Form long chains and branched structures)
Carbon possesses the exceptional property of Catenation—the self-linking ability of carbon atoms via strong covalent bonds to form long linear chains, branched networks, and rings.
Q648
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Plane Mirrors & Image Formation
An image formed by a plane mirror, that cannot be obtained on a screen is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Virtual image)
A Virtual image is formed where light rays only appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror and cannot be projected or captured on a physical screen.
Q649
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Chemical Formulas of Minerals
Which one of the following is the chemical formula of gypsum?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($\text{CaSO}_4\cdot 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$)
Gypsum is hydrated calcium sulphate dihydrate with the chemical formula CaSO4⋅2H2O. (Plaster of Paris is the hemihydrate CaSO4⋅21H2O).
Q650
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Redox Reactions
When a substance loses oxygen during a reaction, it is called ...
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reduction)
In classical redox chemistry, the loss of oxygen (or gain of hydrogen / gain of electrons) by a substance during a chemical reaction is termed Reduction.
Q651
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Agricultural Fertilizers
Which one of the following is not used as fertiliser?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ammonium sulphide)
Ammonium sulphide ((NH4)2S) is an unstable, foul-smelling chemical used in photographic developers, not as a crop fertilizer. Ammonium sulphate, nitrate, and phosphate are major nitrogenous fertilizers.
Q652
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electric Safety & Short Circuits
When the short circuit condition occurs, the current in the circuit:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Increases substantially.)
During a short circuit fault, live and neutral wires come in direct zero-resistance contact, causing the circuit electric current to increase abruptly and substantially according to Ohm's Law (I = V/R → \infty).
Q653
General Awareness & ScienceLatitudes and Longitudes
The distance between the longitude
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decreases towards Poles)
Lines of longitude (meridians) are furthest apart at the Equator (≈111.3 km) and gradually converge, with the distance between them decreasing to zero at both the North and South Poles.
Q654
General Awareness & ScienceParallels of Latitude
The tropic of cancer and tropic of Capricorn are of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Equal Length)
Because the Earth is approximately spherical, parallels of equal latitude in opposite hemispheres (23.5∘ N Tropic of Cancer and 23.5∘ S Tropic of Capricorn) have Equal circumferential length.
Q655
General Awareness & ScienceForest Ecology & Monoculture
Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (South India)
Extensive colonial commercial Teak monoculture plantations replaced complex multi-species moist deciduous forests in South India (Western Ghats), reducing native biodiversity.
Q656
General Awareness & ScienceEarth's Revolution & Seasons
The tilting of the earth is responsible for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Change of the season)
The permanent 23.5∘ axial tilt of Earth relative to its orbital plane during its annual revolution around the Sun is the primary cause for the Cycle of Seasons.
Q657
General Awareness & ScienceRabi Cropping Season
Consider the following statements: 1. The Rabi crops are sown around mid-November, after the monsoon rains are over, and 2. Harvesting begins in April/May. Which of the above statement is/are NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None)
Both statements accurately describe the Indian Rabi agricultural cropping cycle (sown in winter Oct–Nov and harvested in spring April–May). Therefore, None of the statements is untrue.
Q658
General Awareness & ScienceMajor Agricultural Producers
Consider the following pairs: 1. Largest litchi producing state in India — a. West Bengal 2. Cocoa producing state in India — b. Madhya Pradesh 3. Largest wheat-producing states in India — c. Kerala 4. Largest rice producing state in India — d. Bihar Which of the following pair is correct?
General Awareness & SciencePartition of Bengal (1905)
When was the partition of Bengal announced?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1905)
Lord Curzon officially announced the Partition of Bengal in July 1905, which took effect on 16 October 1905.
Q660
General Awareness & ScienceIndian National Movements Chronology
Arrange the following freedom struggle movements in chronological order: 1. Non-Cooperation Movement 2. Quit India Movement 3. Swadeshi Movement 4. Civil Disobedience Movement
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3-1-4-2)
Chronology: Swadeshi Movement (1905, 3) → Non-Cooperation Movement (1920, 1) → Civil Disobedience Movement (1930, 4) → Quit India Movement (1942, 2) ⟹ 3-1-4-2.
Q661
General Awareness & ScienceQuit India Movement 1942
Which session of the Indian National Congress passed the resolution for the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bombay Session (1942))
The historic 'Quit India' Resolution was moved and passed at the All India Congress Committee (AICC) Bombay Session at Gowalia Tank Maidan on 8 August 1942 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
Q662
General Awareness & ScienceSectors of Indian Economy
Consider the following pairs: 1. Primary — a. Banking 2. Secondary — b. Car manufacturing 3. Tertiary — c. Fishing Which of the following pair is correct?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a democratic government?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Centralized decision-making)
Democracy is founded on decentralization, pluralism, separation of powers, and civic participation. Autocratic Centralized decision-making is antithetical to democracy.
Q664
General Awareness & ScienceDemocratic Values: Political Equality
What is the significance of political equality in a democracy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It ensures that every citizen has an equal say in decision-making.)
Political equality ensures the foundational democratic principle of "one person, one vote, one value", granting every adult citizen an equal voice in governance and public elections.
Q665
General Awareness & ScienceElectoral Systems: FPTP
In the First Past the Post System, that candidate is declared winner who:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Has more votes than any other candidate in the constituency.)
Under the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP / Simple Plurality) electoral system used in Lok Sabha elections, the candidate securing more votes than any other individual rival in that single constituency is declared elected.
Q666
General Awareness & ScienceRecognition of State Political Parties
Consider the following statements: 1. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and 2. Wins at least 5 seats is recognised as a state party. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only 1)
Under Election Commission of India rules, a party is recognized as a State Party if it secures ≥6% of valid votes and wins at least 2 Assembly seats (not 5 seats). Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.
Q667
General Awareness & ScienceParty Systems in World Democracies
Which of the following is an example of a multi-party system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
India, New Zealand, and Canada all operate democratic Multi-Party Systems where numerous political parties compete and form coalitions.
Q668
General Awareness & ScienceFederalism in India
Consider the following statements: 1. Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. 2. In federalism, there is usually more than one level of government for the entire country. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements accurately define the constitutional system of Federalism: division of powers between National and State governments across multiple operational tiers.
Q669
General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Rights during Emergency (Arts 20 & 21)
Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)
By virtue of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
Q670
General Awareness & ScienceSoil Types of India
Which of the following soil is having maximum water retention capacity?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Black soil)
Black soil (Regur / Black Cotton soil), rich in clayey montmorillonite minerals, expands when wet and possesses exceptionally high moisture-retention capacity.
Q671
General Awareness & ScienceSwaran Singh Committee & Fundamental Duties
Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, resulting in the enactment of Part IVA (Article 51A) by the 42nd Amendment.
Q672
General Awareness & ScienceFormation of All-India Muslim League (1906)
When was the All-India Muslim League established?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1906)
The All-India Muslim League was founded on 30 December 1906 in Dhaka (now Bangladesh) under the leadership of Nawab Salimullah, Aga Khan III, and Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk.
Q673
Basic EnglishCommunication Cycle: Decoding
The process of interpreting and understanding message by receiver is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Decoding)
In communication theory, Decoding is the cognitive process by which the receiver interprets, translates, and derives meaning from the sender's encoded symbols/message.
Q674
Basic EnglishBarriers to Effective Communication
Consider the following statements: 1. Text messages are more effective than face to face communication. 2. Slang, professional jargon and regional colloquialisms can make communication difficult. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (B but not A)
Statement 1 is false (face-to-face communication allows rich non-verbal cues and immediate feedback). Statement 2 is true (jargon creates semantic noise). Thus, B but not A is correct.
Q675
General Awareness & SciencePersonal Protective Equipment (PPE)
What does the term "PPE" stand for in the context of safety at workplace?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Personal Protective Equipment)
PPE stands for Personal Protective Equipment (helmets, gloves, eye goggles, respirators, safety boots) designed to protect workers from occupational hazards.
Q676
General Awareness & ScienceInternational Safety Bodies: OSHA
What does the acronym "OSHA" stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
OSHA stands for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
Q677
General Awareness & ScienceWorkplace Hazards: Biological Hazards
Which of the following is an example of a biological hazard in the workplace?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bloodborne pathogens)
Bloodborne pathogens (e.g. Hepatitis B, HIV) are pathogenic microorganisms present in human blood, classifying as infectious Biological Hazards.
Q678
General Awareness & ScienceWaste Segregation Color Codes
Consider the following pairs: 1. Green — a. General Waste 2. Blue — b. Paper and Cardboard 3. Yellow — c. Organic Waste 4. Red — d. Hazardous Waste Which of the following pair is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1c, 2a, 3d, 4b)
Standard municipal solid waste color coding: Green = Organic wet waste (1c), Blue = Dry recyclable waste (2a), Yellow = Bio-medical / Hazardous (3d), Red = Plastic/Infectious (4b) ⟹ 1c, 2a, 3d, 4b.
Q679
General Awareness & ScienceUnits of Measurement
Consider the following pairs: 1. Meter — a. Length 2. Litre — b. Mass 3. Gram — c. Temperature 4. Celsius — d. Volume Which of the following pair is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1a, 2d, 3b, 4c)
Meter = Length (1a), Litre = Volume (2d), Gram = Mass (3b), Celsius = Temperature (4c) ⟹ 1a, 2d, 3b, 4c.
Q680
Basic MathematicsUnit Conversions: Metric to Imperial
How many inches are in 45.6 cm?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (17.952 inches)
Since 1 inch=2.54 cm, Inches=2.5445.6≈17.9527 inches≈17.952 inches.
Q681
General Awareness & ScienceSI Base Units: Length
What is the standard unit of length in the International System of Units?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meter)
The Metre (m) is the base SI unit of length defined by the distance light travels in vacuum in 1/299,792,458 seconds.
Q682
General Awareness & ScienceMedical Emergencies: Heart Attack Symptoms
How do you recognize the signs of a heart attack?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chest pain or discomfort, shortness of breath, nausea)
Classic warning signs of acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) include crushing retrosternal chest pain/pressure radiating to the arm/jaw, dyspnea (shortness of breath), diaphoresis, and nausea.
Q683
General Awareness & ScienceISO Standards: ISO 9000
What is ISO 9000?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A quality management system standard)
ISO 9000 is an internationally recognized family of standards for Quality Management Systems (QMS) published by the International Organization for Standardization.
Q684
General Awareness & ScienceBureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
What does BIS stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bureau of Indian Standards)
BIS stands for the Bureau of Indian Standards, the National Standards Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016.
Q685
General Awareness & ScienceSolid Waste Management: Incineration
The process of burning municipal solid wastes under suitable temperature and conditions in a specific furnace is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Incineration)
Incineration is a controlled thermal waste treatment process that involves the high-temperature combustion of organic substances contained in solid waste materials.
Q686
General Awareness & ScienceStress Management & Personality
What plays a major role in reaction to stress
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Personality)
In psychological stress models, an individual's Personality traits (such as resilience, locus of control, and coping mechanisms) play the primary role in appraisal and physiological reaction to stressors.
Q687
General Awareness & ScienceSoftware Types: Word Processors vs Suites
Which of the following is NOT an example of word processing software?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (MS Office)
MS Office is a complete multi-program Office Productivity Suite (containing Word, Excel, PowerPoint, Access), whereas Microsoft Word, LibreOffice Writer, and Google Docs are individual word processing applications.
Q688
General Awareness & ScienceFactories Act, 1948
Which of the following acts in India primarily deals with the health, safety, and welfare of workers in factories?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Factories Act)
The Factories Act, 1948 is the principal legislation regulating health, safety, working hours, sanitation, and welfare amenities of industrial factory laborers in India.
Q689
General Awareness & ScienceLabour Legislation Enactment Years
Consider the following pairs: 1. Payment of Gratuity Act — a. 1923 2. Employee Deposit linked Insurance Scheme — b. 1976 3. Workmen's Compensation Act — c. 1961 4. Apprenticeship Act — d. 1972 Which of the following pair is correct?
General Awareness & ScienceAir Pollutants and Emission Sources
Consider the following pairs: 1. Carbon monoxide — a. Coal burn 2. Carbon-dioxide — b. Fossil fuels 3. Sulphur dioxide — c. Automobiles Which of the following pair is correct?
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KAsian Games 2023: Indian Medalists
Kiran Baliyan won which medal in which game, at the Asian Games 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bronze, Shot put)
Kiran Baliyan won the Bronze medal in Women's Shot Put with a throw of 17.36m at the 19th Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, securing India's first medal in women's shot put in 72 years.
Q692
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMiddle East Geopolitics in News
Who is the military commander of Hamas's military wing during the Israel-Hamas 2023 conflict?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mohammed Deif)
Mohammed Deif was the supreme military commander of the Izz ad-Din al-Qassam Brigades, the military wing of Hamas.
Q693
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIndigenous Defense Robotics in India
Arrobot, which has developed Unmanned Guided Vehicle (UGV) for the Indian armed forces, is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A joint-venture startup based in Hyderabad)
Arrobot is an advanced robotics and artificial intelligence defense startup based in Hyderabad (a joint venture of Raghu Vamsi Machine Tools and PARI).
Q694
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMountain Passes of J&K
Which of the following passes is located in Jammu and Kashmir Union Territory?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Banihal Pass)
Banihal Pass (connecting Jammu with the Kashmir Valley across the Pir Panjal Range) is located in J&K UT. Chang La, Fotu La, and Khardung La are located in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Q695
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIndian States & International Borders
Which of the following states does not share boundaries with other countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jharkhand)
Jharkhand is a completely landlocked inland state sharing no international borders. UP borders Nepal; Nagaland and Assam border Myanmar and Bangladesh/Bhutan.
Q696
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KArea of Indian States
Which of the following state is smallest in terms of area among the options?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Uttar Pradesh)
In terms of geographical area among the given four large states: Rajasthan (1st, 342,239 km2) > Madhya Pradesh (2nd, 308,245 km2) > Maharashtra (3rd, 307,713 km2) > Uttar Pradesh (4th, 240,928 km2). Hence, Uttar Pradesh is the smallest.
Q697
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLivestock & Milk Production in India
Which of the following is highest milk producing states in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rajasthan)
According to the Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics released by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Rajasthan ranked as the top milk-producing state contributing 15.05% of total milk production.
Q698
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus Methodology & Data Collection
Which of the following information is NOT collected during the census in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Salary per month)
The Indian Population Census collects socio-demographic data including age, marital status, education, occupation, and religion, but does NOT ask for or record individual monthly salary/income.
Q699
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus of India 2011
Last census of India was conducted in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Feb 2011)
The 15th National Census of India was conducted in February 2011 (with reference date 1 March 2011).
Q700
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KRulers & Dynasties of J&K
Which of the following was NOT ruler of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Queen Victoria)
Jammu and Kashmir was an autonomous Princely State ruled by the Dogra Dynasty under Maharaja Gulab Singh and his successors (and earlier by Sikhs and Mughals). British monarch Queen Victoria never directly ruled J&K as a sovereign territorial monarch.
Q701
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMountain Ranges & Peaks of J&K
Which one of the following is highest mountain range in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nun Kun Range)
The Nun Kun mountain massif in the Greater Himalayan range (Nun peak at 7,135 m and Kun peak at 7,077 m) represents the highest mountain peaks in the territory.
Q702
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMajor Lakes of J&K
Which of the following is largest lake in Jammu and Kashmir with respect to area?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wular Lake)
Wular Lake, located in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir, is the largest freshwater lake in India and the largest in J&K by surface area (30–189 km2 depending on season).
Q703
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCoarse Cereals: Maize Production
Which of the following is the highest Maize producing state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Karnataka)
Karnataka is the leading maize (corn) producing state in India, accounting for nearly 15–16% of the nation's total annual maize output.
Q704
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KDistricts of Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the following is a district in Jammu and Kashmir Union Territory?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reasi)
Reasi is one of the 20 administrative revenue districts in J&K UT (home to the Mata Vaishno Devi shrine and Chenab Rail Bridge). Kargil is in Ladakh UT; Gulmarg and Pahalgam are tehsils/tourist towns.
Q705
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCrop Sowing Seasons across Agro-Climatic Zones
Which of the following statement is true regarding sowing of wheat in Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wheat is sown in Oct-Nov in Kashmir and in May in Ladakh)
In the Kashmir Valley, wheat is a winter Rabi crop sown in October–November before snowfall; in the high-altitude cold desert of Ladakh, wheat is a spring crop sown in May after winter snow melts.
Q706
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KRight to Education Act, 2009 Exemptions
Which among the following don't come under the purview of Right to Education?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Madrasas)
Madrasas, Vedic Pathshalas, and religious minority educational institutions are specifically exempted from the operational ambit of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 under the 2012 RTE Amendment and Supreme Court rulings.
Q707
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&K73rd Constitutional Amendment Act: Women's Reservation
Which of the following constitution amendment gave one third reservations to women at panchayat level?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (73rd)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Article 243D(3), mandating that not less than one-third (33%) of all seats and chairperson positions in Panchayati Raj institutions be reserved for women.
Q708
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KGoods & Services Tax Scope and Inclusions
Which of the following goods is covered under the GST bill?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Diamonds)
Diamonds and precious gemstones are taxed under the GST regime (at special concessional rates like 0.25% on rough and 3% on polished diamonds). Alcoholic liquor for human consumption and petroleum crude/petrol are excluded from standard GST.
Q709
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIncome Tax Act: Types of Assessees
A private university named "Kaushal University" is assessable under the income tax act as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An artificial juridical person)
Under Section 2(31) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, universities, bar councils, and statutory corporations that do not fall under individuals, HUFs, companies, or firms are assessed as an 'Artificial Juridical Person'.
Q710
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KRoles and Duties of Panchayat Secretary
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of a panchayat secretary?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Responsible for conducting election and vote counting)
Panchayat elections and vote counting are the constitutional mandate of the State Election Commission (SEC), NOT the administrative Panchayat Secretary.
Q711
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Meeting Frequency
What is the minimum requirement on the number of meetings to be conducted by gram panchayat in Jammu and Kashmir.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (At least once a month)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, a Halqa Panchayat / Gram Panchayat is legally mandated to meet at least once a month for administrative business.
Q712
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus 2011: Literacy in J&K
According to 2011 census, what is average literacy rate in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
💡Correct Answer: Option B (More than 65% but less than 70%)
According to Census 2011, the average literacy rate of Jammu and Kashmir was 67.16% (which lies in the bracket: More than 65% but less than 70%).
Q713
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KComposition of Halqa Panchayat
In Jammu and Kashmir, maximum number of members in a gram panchayat can be
💡Correct Answer: Option B (11)
Under the J&K Panchayati Raj rules, a Halqa Panchayat consists of a Sarpanch and such number of Panchs (between 7 to 11 members) determined by population.
Q714
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSultan Rinchan & First Mosque in Kashmir
Who among the following made "Bud Musjid" in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rinchan)
Sultan Sadruddin (Lhachan Gualbu Rinchan), the first Muslim ruler of Kashmir who embraced Islam under Sufi saint Sayyid Sharaf-ud-din Abdul Rahman (Bulbul Shah), built the famous 'Bud Masjid' in Srinagar.
Q715
General English & ComprehensionSentence Completion & Conjunctions
Managers set targets and decide ______ their organization can achieve them.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (How)
The conjunction/adverb 'how' logically denotes the method and strategy to accomplish goals: "Managers set targets and decide how their organization can achieve them."
Q716
General English & ComprehensionReflexive Pronouns
We ______ at the party
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Enjoyed ourselves)
The transitive verb 'enjoy' requires a reflexive pronoun when no direct object is present, and the plural reflexive for 'we' is 'ourselves': "We enjoyed ourselves at the party."
Q717
General English & ComprehensionCorrelative Conjunctions & Prepositions
The sergeant asked him to come to the Police station - Which one is the correct answer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Between 4 PM and 5 PM.)
The correlative conjunction pairing for 'between' is strictly 'and' (Between X and Y): "Between 4 PM and 5 PM." ('From' pairs with 'to').
Q718
General English & ComprehensionRelative Pronouns & Syntax
Which one is the correct sentence ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Everybody loves him who speaks the truth.)
"Everybody loves him who speaks the truth" is grammatically balanced, placing the antecedent 'him' adjacent to the relative clause 'who speaks the truth' without pronoun redundancy.
Q719
General English & ComprehensionSubjunctive Conjunctions: Lest...should
Fill in the blank in the sentence "He studied hard lest he ______ fail" with an appropriate word:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (should)
The conjunction 'lest' (meaning 'for fear that') is grammatically followed by the auxiliary verb 'should': "...lest he should fail."
Q720
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KBiological Classifications: Feeding Habits
Omnivorous animals are those who -
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Eat all kinds of food.)
Omnivores are animals whose diet naturally comprises both plant materials and animal matter (eating all kinds of food).
Q721
General English & ComprehensionNoun Clauses as Subject
That he would treat me with this kind of misbehaviour was known to me. This sentence is -
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Fully correct)
The sentence is grammatically and syntactically Fully Correct (the noun clause 'That he would treat me with this kind of misbehaviour' serves cleanly as the subject of the passive verb 'was known').
Q722
General Intelligence & ReasoningAnalogy: Country & Currency
Rupee : India :: Yen : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Japan)
Rupee is the national currency of India. Similarly, Yen is the national currency of Japan.
Q723
General Intelligence & ReasoningAnalogy: Profession & Function
Physician : Treatment :: Judge : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Judgement)
A Physician delivers Treatment to patients; a Judge delivers a Judgement (verdict/justice) in legal proceedings.
A has to pay Rs. 220 to B after 1 year. B asks A to pay Rs. 110 in cash and defer the payment of Rs. 110 for 2 years. A agrees to it. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, in this mode of payment:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A gains Rs. 7.34)
Present worth of original debt (Rs. 220 in 1 yr) =1+0.10220=Rs. 200. Present worth of deferred scheme =110+1+(0.10×2)110=110+1.20110=110+91.66=Rs. 201.66 (or under compound discounting A gains Rs. 7.34).
Q725
Knowledge of ComputersHardware Fundamentals: CPU Architecture
What is the primary function of a Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Execution of instructions)
The Central Processing Unit (CPU), the 'brain' of the computer, is primarily responsible for fetching, decoding, and executing program instructions and performing arithmetic/logical calculations.
Q726
Knowledge of ComputersMS PowerPoint Fundamentals
What is the term used for a single slide in a PowerPoint presentation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slide)
In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation software, an individual presentation page displayed on the screen is called a Slide.
Q727
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLinguistic Evolution: Prakrit and Apabhramsha
The term 'apabhramsa' was used in medieval sanskrit texts to denote
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Early forms of some of the modern Indian language)
In historical Indian linguistics and medieval Sanskrit texts, 'Apabhramsha' (literally 'corrupt' or 'non-grammatical language') denoted the transitional dialects between Middle Indo-Aryan Prakrits and early modern Indo-Aryan regional languages (Hindi, Bengali, Gujarati, Punjabi, etc.).
Q728
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KTemple Performing Arts of Kerala
Consider the following statements: 1. Chakiarkoothu dance's theater form is known as Koothambalam. 2. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Chakyar Koothu is a traditional performing temple art form of Kerala staged inside specialized temple theatres called Koothambalams (Statement 1 is correct), accompanied rhythmically by the large copper drum called Mizhavu (Statement 2 is correct). Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Q729
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KVijayanagara Temple Architecture
Kalyana Mandapas was a notable feature in the temple construction of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vijayanagara Kingdom)
The construction of elaborate, highly sculpted 'Kalyana Mandapas' (divine marriage halls supported by monolithic carved pillars) was a distinctive architectural innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire (e.g., Virupaksha and Vittala Temples at Hampi).
Q730
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSatellite Launch Trajectories & Orbital Mechanics
Assertion (A): Artificial Satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastwards direction. Reason (R): The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the escape velocity. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is correct, but R is incorrect.)
Assertion (A) is correct: Satellites are launched eastward to harness Earth's eastward rotational linear speed boost (maximum near the equator). Reason (R) is incorrect because Earth's rotational boost helps attain orbital insertion velocity (~7.8 km/s), NOT escape velocity (11.2 km/s).
Q731
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNaturally Occurring Organic Chemical Compounds
Consider the following pairs: 1. Chocolate — Phenylethylamine 2. Oysters — Aspartic acid 3. Spanish Fly — Formic acid 4. Nutmeg — Myristicin Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 4)
Chocolate contains Phenylethylamine (1); Oysters are rich in D-Aspartic acid (2); Nutmeg contains the psychoactive compound Myristicin (4). Spanish Fly contains Cantharidin (not formic acid, which is found in ants/bees). Thus, 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Q732
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KParasitology: Malaria & WHO Vaccines
Consider the following statements: 1. Malaria is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease caused by Protozoa. 2. Malaria spreads through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites. 3. The R21/Matrix-M vaccine became the second malaria vaccine to achieve WHO prequalification. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three statements are correct: Malaria is caused by protozoan Plasmodium parasites (1), transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes (2), and the Oxford-developed R21/Matrix-M vaccine received WHO prequalification in 2023 (3).
Q733
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KBiometric Identity & Worldcoin
The term 'Worldcoin' which was recently seen in news, is a/an?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Initiative to create a digital network in which everyone can claim some kind of stake, and join the digital economy.)
Worldcoin (co-founded by OpenAI's Sam Altman) is an iris biometric cryptocurrency project designed to establish a global digital identity ("World ID" Proof of Personhood) giving every human a share in the digital economy.
Q734
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNPCI vs RBI Regulatory Roles
Which of the following is NOT an objective of NPCI?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To regulate the payment and settlement systems in India.)
Regulating payment and settlement systems in India is the statutory constitutional function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI under the PSS Act 2007). National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an operational utility company (running UPI, IMPS, RuPay), not a statutory regulator.
Q735
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Environmental Agreements
Arrange the following in chronological order: 1. Kyoto Protocol 2. Montreal Protocol 3. Vienna Convention 4. Basel Convention Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3, 2, 4, 1)
Chronology of international environmental treaties: 1. Vienna Convention for Protection of Ozone Layer (1985, 3) → 2. Montreal Protocol on Ozone Depleting Substances (1987, 2) → 3. Basel Convention on Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes (1989, 4) → 4. Kyoto Protocol on Greenhouse Gases (1997, 1) ⟹3,2,4,1.
Q736
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KProtected Areas & Biosphere Reserves
Where is the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve located in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Himachal Pradesh)
India's designated 'Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve' (encompassing Pin Valley National Park, Chandratal, Sarchu, and Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary in the western Himalayas) is located in Himachal Pradesh.
Q737
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHazardous Air Pollutants (HAPs)
Which of the following are toxic air pollutants? 1. Arsenic 2. Asbestos 3. Benzene 4. Potassium Chloride Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2 and 3)
Arsenic (toxic heavy metal), Asbestos (carcinogenic mineral fiber), and Benzene (volatile organic aromatic carcinogen) are recognized Hazardous Air Pollutants (HAPs). Potassium Chloride (KCl) is a common non-toxic fertilizer salt. Hence, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q738
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KMilankovitch Astronomical Climate Cycles
Which of the following was NOT considered by Milankovitch in his mathematical model of climate change?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Changes in the rate of rotation of earth on its axis)
Milankovitch orbital cycles account for three astronomical variations: 1. Eccentricity of orbit (~100,000 yr cycle), 2. Obliquity/Axial tilt (~41,000 yr cycle), and 3. Axial/Orbital Precession (~26,000 yr cycle). Changes in diurnal rotational speed were NOT part of his model.
Q739
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEthnic Demographics of North-East India
Consider the following statements: 1. Thadou is a group of people inhabiting Assam. 2. Boro (Bodo) is a group of people inhabiting Manipur. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither 1 nor 2)
Both statements have locations reversed: Thadou people are indigenous to Manipur (and parts of Mizoram/Assam hills), whereas the Boro (Bodo) people are indigenous to the Brahmaputra Valley of Assam. Hence, Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
Q740
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KState Areas & Rankings
Arrange the following states in descending order on the basis of area: 1. Rajasthan 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Karnataka 4. Maharashtra Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, 4, 3)
Ranking by geographical area in descending order: 1. Rajasthan (342,239 sq km, 1) > 2. Madhya Pradesh (308,245 sq km, 2) > 3. Maharashtra (307,713 sq km, 4) > 4. Karnataka (191,791 sq km, 3) ⟹1,2,4,3.
Q741
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KDams and Reservoirs of Indus Basin
With reference to the Dams and Rivers, consider the following pairs: 1. Gobind Sagar Reservoir — Satluj 2. Maharana Pratap Sagar Reservoir — Beas 3. Chamera Dam — Ravi Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three Himalayan hydroelectric reservoirs are correctly paired: Gobind Sagar (Bhakra Dam) is on the Satluj River (1); Maharana Pratap Sagar (Pong Dam) is on the Beas River (2); Chamera Dam is on the Ravi River in Chamba, HP (3). All 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q742
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHoly Rivers of Jammu: Devika River
Consider the following statements: 1. Devika river originates in Himachal Pradesh. 2. It holds religious significance as it is revered as the sister of river Ganga. 3. It flows towards western Punjab where it merges with the Ravi River. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 and 3 only)
Statement 1 is false: The holy Devika River originates at Sudh Mahadev in the Udhampur district of Jammu and Kashmir (not HP). Statements 2 and 3 are historically and geographically correct (revered in Nilamata Purana as the elder sister of Ganga and merges into the Ravi system). Thus, 2 and 3 only are correct.
Q743
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNational Highways: East-West Corridor
Which of the following statements about National Highway 27 (NH 27) in India is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (NH 27 connects Porbandar in Gujarat to Silchar in Assam.)
NH 27 is the 3,507 km East-West Trans-India highway corridor connecting Porbandar in Gujarat on the west coast to Silchar in Assam in the northeast across 7 states.
Q744
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNatural Gas Infrastructure: HBJ Pipeline
HBJ/HVJ pipeline transports
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Natural Gas)
The HBJ (Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur) pipeline, operated by GAIL, is India's first cross-state cross-country Natural Gas pipeline commissioned in 1987.
Q745
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KRailway Zones and Headquarters
In which one of the following places is the headquarters of the North-Eastern Railway located?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Gorakhpur)
The headquarters of the North Eastern Railway (NER) zone of Indian Railways is situated at Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh. (Guwahati is the headquarters of the Northeast Frontier Railway / NFR).
Q746
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNationalist Newspapers in India
Arrange the following Indian newspapers in chronological order based on their founding years: 1. Kesari 2. Amrita Bazar Patrika 3. Hindustan 4. Mathrubhumi Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2, 1, 4, 3)
Founding years of newspapers: 1. Amrita Bazar Patrika (1868, Sisir & Motilal Ghosh, 2) → 2. Kesari (1881, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, 1) → 3. Mathrubhumi (1923, K.P. Kesava Menon, 4) → 4. Hindustan (1936, Madan Mohan Malaviya, 3) ⟹2,1,4,3.
Q747
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNobel Prizes 2023
Consider the following pairs: i. Physics — 1. Drew Weissman ii. Chemistry — 2. Alexey Ekimov iii. Literature — 3. Jon Fosse iv. Physiology or medicine — 4. Ferenc Krausz Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1)
Nobel Prize 2023 Laureates: Physics = Ferenc Krausz (with Agostini & L'Huillier, i-4); Chemistry = Alexey Ekimov (with Bawendi & Brus for quantum dots, ii-2); Literature = Jon Fosse (iii-3); Physiology/Medicine = Drew Weissman & Katalin Karikó (iv-1) ⟹ i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1.
Q748
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KMaritime Zones of India (UNCLOS)
India sovereignty in sea extends up to _____ nautical miles.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (12)
Under the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and other Maritime Zones Act, 1976 and UNCLOS, India's sovereign Territorial Waters extend up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline.
Q749
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KStandard Time vs Local Meridian Time
In which of the following towns does the LMT (Local Meridian Time) show the greatest deviation from the IST (Indian Standard Time)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kohima)
IST is based on 82.5∘ E longitude. The local longitudes are: Cochin ~76.2° E (diff 6.3°), Mumbai ~72.8° E (diff 9.7°), Kolkata ~88.3° E (diff 5.8°), Kohima ~94.1° E (diff 11.6°). Kohima has the greatest longitudinal deviation (11.6∘×4 min≈46.4 minutes).
Q750
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPhysiographic Divisions & Geological Ages
Which of the following physical divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Peninsular Plateau)
The Peninsular Plateau of India (composed of ancient igneous and metamorphic crystalline rocks of the Gondwana shield) is geologically the oldest and most stable landmass of India.
Q751
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHimalayan Landforms: Duns
What are duns in the context of geography?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Deep valleys)
In geomorphology, 'Duns' are longitudinal structural valleys formed between the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal) and the outer Sub-Himalayan Shiwalik range (e.g. Dehradun, Kotlidun, Patlidun).
Q752
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSocio-Religious Reform Laws in British India
Arrange the following Social Legislations of British rule in chronological order: 1. Abolition of infanticide by British Regulation 2. Abolition of Sati by Lord William Bentinck 3. Abolition of infanticide by Lord Wellesley 4. Abolition of slavery under Regulation X by the Bengal Government Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 1, 4, 2)
Chronological enactment: 1. Female Infanticide Prevention Act by Lord Wellesley (1802/1804, 3) → 2. Infanticide Regulation XXI (1795/1804, 1) → 3. Bengal Slavery Regulation X (1811, 4) → 4. Sati Regulation XVII by Lord William Bentinck (1829, 2) ⟹3,1,4,2.
Q753
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPeasant and Tribal Uprisings
Consider the following pairs: 1. Moplah Revolt — iv. Kerala 2. Eka Movement — ii. Awadh 3. Birsa Munda Revolt — i. Bihar/Jharkhand 4. Pabna Revolt — iii. Bengal Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii)
Matching peasant/tribal movements to regions: Moplah Rebellion = Malabar, Kerala (1-iv); Eka Movement = Awadh, UP (2-ii); Birsa Munda Ulgulan = Chhota Nagpur, erstwhile Bihar (3-i); Pabna Agrarian League = Bengal (4-iii) ⟹ 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii.
Q754
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSundarbans Mangrove Ecosystem
Consider the following statements: 1. The Sundarbans are mangrove forest, on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Sundarban National Park is listed under the World Heritage Marine Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements are correct: The Sundarbans form the world's largest contiguous coastal mangrove forest across the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta (1), and Sundarban National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site recognized under the Marine World Heritage Programme (2).
Q755
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KExercise Sea Dragon
Consider the following statements: 1. Sea Dragon 22 exercise is designed to practice and discuss Anti-submarine warfare tactics. 2. It is a bilateral annual exercise between India and the US. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)
Statement 1 is correct: Exercise Sea Dragon is a premier multinational Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) exercise held at Andersen Air Force Base, Guam. Statement 2 is false: It is a multilateral exercise involving six Indo-Pacific nations (US, India, Australia, Canada, Japan, South Korea), not a bilateral exercise. Thus, 1 only is correct.
Q756
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KG20 Summits Chronology
Arrange the following G20 hosts in chronological order: 1. Japan 2. Italy 3. China 4. Germany 5. India Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 4, 1, 2, 5)
Chronology of G20 Leaders' Summits: 1. Hangzhou, China (2016, 3) → 2. Hamburg, Germany (2017, 4) → 3. Osaka, Japan (2019, 1) → 4. Rome, Italy (2021, 2) → 5. New Delhi, India (2023, 5) ⟹3,4,1,2,5.
Q757
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCoastline Lengths of Indian States
Arrange the following states in ascending order as per their coastline length: 1. Odisha 2. Kerala 3. Gujarat 4. Andhra Pradesh 5. Tamil Nadu Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, 5, 4, 3)
Length of mainland coastlines: Odisha (480 km, 1) < Kerala (590 km, 2) < Tamil Nadu (906 km, 5) < Andhra Pradesh (974 km, 4) < Gujarat (1214 km, 3) ⟹1,2,5,4,3.
Q758
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIslands & Volcanism in India
Two volcanic islands in Indian territory are
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Narcondam and Barren)
Barren Island (India's only active volcano) and Narcondam Island (a dormant volcanic island) are both located in the Andaman Sea within Indian sovereign territory.
Q759
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KChief Justices of India (CJI) Chronology
Arrange the following Chief Justices of India in chronological order of holding their office: 1. U.U. Lalit 2. D.Y. Chandrachud 3. Y. V. Chandrachud 4. Ranjan Gogoi Choose the correct option:
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KP20 Parliamentary Forum
Consider the following statements: 1. P20 is a congregation of Presidents of G20 nations. 2. The P20 group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 only)
Statement 1 is false: P20 is the Parliamentary Speakers' Summit (congregation of Speakers/Presiding Officers of Parliaments, not heads of state). Statement 2 is true: The P20 was inaugurated in 2010 under Canada's G20 presidency. Thus, 2 only is correct.
Q761
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNASA Interplanetary Missions: New Horizons
'New Horizons' spacecraft was launched by NASA to study which of the following planet?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pluto)
NASA's New Horizons interplanetary space probe was launched in 2006 specifically to perform the first-ever close-up flyby reconnaissance of dwarf planet Pluto and its moons (achieved in July 2015).
Q762
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KConstitutional Provisions for UT of J&K (Art 239A)
After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into Union Territories, which constitutional provision became applicable specifically for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 239A)
Under Section 13 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the constitutional provisions of Article 239A (which originally created a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for the UT of Puducherry) were made applicable to the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q763
General EnglishGeographical Coordinates & Mountain Ranges
Consider the following statements: 1. Jammu and Kashmir covers an area of 101387 Sq. Kms and lies between Latitude 28°17' and 35°05' North. 2. The higher regions are covered by Pir Panjal, Karakoram, and inner Himalayan ranges of mountains. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 only)
Statement 1 is incorrect (J&K lies between 32°17' N and 37°05' N latitude, not 28°17'). Statement 2 is correct (the northern and western mountainous terrain is flanked by the Pir Panjal, Great Himalayas, and Karakoram). Thus, 2 only is correct.
Q764
General EnglishUSBRL Project Milestones: Banihal-Qazigund
When was the Banihal-Qazigund section of the railway project inaugurated?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (June 2013)
The historic 18-km Banihal-Qazigund railway section (featuring the 11.2 km Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel T-80) was officially inaugurated and opened for public train traffic on 26 June 2013.
Q765
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsArticles: Dual Appositive Nouns
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: Mr. Agnihotri, who is _____ producer and _____ financier of _____ Nike company was present there.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (the, no article, the)
When two job titles ('producer' and 'financier') refer to the same single individual, the definite article 'the' is used before the first title and omitted before the second, followed by 'the Nike company': "...the producer and financier of the Nike company..."
Q766
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsPronoun Antecedent Reference
What does the pronoun "their" refer to in the phrase "Their harmonious symphony echoed through the meadow"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Birds)
In paragraph 3, the antecedent of the possessive pronoun 'their' is the 'feathered creatures' (Birds) singing in the treetops.
As per Central Motor Vehicles Act 1988, section 185, "drunk and driving" punishment is applicable when
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Alcohol in blood is more than $30\text{ mg/100}\text{ ml}$)
Under Section 185 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, a person is legally deemed to be driving under the influence if alcohol in their blood exceeds 30 mg per 100 ml (0.03% BAC).
Q771
Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceRear-View Mirror Function
What is the purpose of the rear-view mirror of a motor vehicle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Watching traffic that is approaching from behind)
The primary safety function of the rear-view mirror is to continuously monitor vehicular traffic approaching or following from behind.
Q772
Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceABS Function & Anti-Skid Mechanism
"ABS" system prevents a motor vehicle from
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Skidding / Wheel lockup)
ABS rapidly pulses brake calipers to prevent the wheels from locking up under emergency panic braking, preventing uncontrollable vehicle Skidding and maintaining steering control.
Q773
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 185 Penalties for Drunk Driving
As per Central Motor Vehicles Act 1988, driving while drunk can lead to imprisonment for a term of up to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Six months)
Under Section 185 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (as amended), a first offence of drunk driving is punishable with imprisonment for a term up to 6 months and/or fine up to ₹10,000.
Q774
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KKarewa Formations and Saffron
The lacustrine deposits of Kashmir called 'Karewas' are known for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saffron Cultivation)
The Pleistocene lacustrine plateau deposits known as Karewas (Vudr in Kashmiri) in Pampore and surrounding plateaus are world-renowned for the cultivation of Zafran (Kashmir Saffron).
Q775
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana
Who among the following presided over the Buddhist Council held during the reign of Kanishka at Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vasumitra)
The Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana (Kashmir) in 72 AD during Kushan Emperor Kanishka's reign was presided over by Acharya Vasumitra (with Asvaghosha as vice-president).
Q776
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHimalayan Ranges North to South Ordering
Arrange the following mountain ranges from north to south order: 1. Pir Panjal 2. Zanskar 3. Dhauladhar 4. Ladakh
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4, 2, 1, 3)
Trans-Himalayan and Himalayan ranges in North-to-South latitudinal order: Ladakh Range (4) → Zanskar Range (2) → Pir Panjal Range (1) → Dhauladhar Range (3) ⟹4,2,1,3.
Q777
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KZojila Tunnel Project
Zojila tunnel connects Jammu and Kashmir with which state/UT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ladakh)
The 14.15 km all-weather Zojila Tunnel beneath the Zoji La Pass connects Baltal/Sonamarg in J&K UT with Dras and Kargil in Ladakh UT along NH-1.
Q778
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Halqa Majlis
What does the term 'Halqa Majlis' in the J&K Panchayat Raj Act 1989 refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Voters of Halqa Panchayat)
Under the J&K Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, 'Halqa Majlis' (Gram Sabha) is the general body consisting of all registered adult Voters/electors residing within the Halqa Panchayat area.
Q779
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act Chapters
Chapter V of Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act 1989 deals with the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Conduct of Business)
Chapter V of the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989 is titled and specifically governs the 'Conduct of Business' of the Halqa Panchayat.
Q780
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KThree-Tier Panchayati Raj System
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ tier system of Panchayati Raj in each state.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three (03))
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 mandates a uniform Three-Tier system of Panchayati Raj: Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level, and Zilla Parishad at district level.
Q781
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KDuration of Panchayats (Article 243E)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ term of office to the Panchayat at every level.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Five years)
Article 243E of the Indian Constitution mandates a fixed 5-year tenure for Panchayats at all levels from the date appointed for their first meeting.
Q782
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KTemples of Jammu: Ranbireshwar Temple
Who built Ranbireshwar Temple in the Jammu region?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maharaja Ranbir Singh)
The famous historic Ranbireshwar Shiva Temple (celebrated for its massive monolithic crystal lingams) was built by Maharaja Ranbir Singh in 1883 AD.
Q783
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLocal Names of J&K Rivers
Which of the following river is also known as Vyeth in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jhelum)
The Jhelum River is called 'Vyeth' in Kashmiri and 'Vitasta' in ancient Sanskrit literature.
Q784
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFounding of Jammu City
Who is believed to have founded the city of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raja Jamboolochan)
Raja Jambu Lochan (9th century AD) founded the city of Jammu after witnessing a tiger and goat drinking water peacefully together at the banks of the Tawi River.
Q785
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KChashma Shahi Garden
Which of the following garden is located in the Zabarwan Range of Srinagar district?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Chashma Shahi Garden)
Chashma Shahi Garden (built in 1632 AD by Mughal Governor Ali Mardan Khan for Dara Shikoh) is situated along the slopes of the Zabarwan Mountain Range overlooking Dal Lake.
Q786
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHari Parbat Fort (Koh-e-Maran)
________ is also known as Koh-e-Maran lies on the west of Dal Lake in Srinagar.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hari Parbat Fort)
Hari Parbat Fort (the historic citadel hill fortified by Mughal Emperor Akbar and Afghan Governor Atta Mohammad Khan) is also known as Koh-e-Maran.
Q787
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KTawi River Basin & Origin
The source of which of the following river is the Kailash Kund spring at Soej hills in Bhaderwah in Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tawi)
The sacred Tawi River (Surya Putri) originates from the glacial Kailash Kund spring at the high-altitude Soej hills in Bhaderwah (Doda district).
Q788
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJammu and Kashmir Rifles Regiment
Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Infantry regiment of the Indian Army)
The Jammu and Kashmir Rifles (JAK RIF) is a distinguished combat Infantry Regiment of the Indian Army, tracing its lineage back to General Zorawar Singh and Maharaja Gulab Singh's Dogra State Forces.
Q789
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Boundary Lines: Radcliffe Line
Which of the following countries are divided by the Radcliffe Line?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (India and Pakistan)
The Radcliffe Line, drawn by Sir Cyril Radcliffe during the 1947 partition, demarcates the international border between India and Pakistan.
Q790
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPopular Tourist Destinations: Gulmarg
What is Gulmarg famously known as?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Meadow of Flowers)
Gulmarg (originally named Gauri Marg and renamed Gulmarg by Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak) is famously known as the 'Meadow of Flowers'.
Q791
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLegislative Assembly Strength
As per the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir to be filled by persons chosen by direct election was originally set at
💡Correct Answer: Option C (107)
Under Section 14(4) of the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019 as originally enacted, the total number of seats was 107 (83 directly elected seats + 24 reserved for PoJK).
Q792
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPilgrimage Centers: Baba Dhansar
The holy place of Baba Dhansar is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reasi)
Baba Dhansar (a sacred temple and emerald natural spring dedicated to Lord Shiva and Baba Dhansar) is located near Karua village in the Reasi district.
Q793
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KBifurcation of J&K and Ladakh
According to the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the union territory created without a legislature is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ladakh)
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh was created without a Legislative Assembly (governed directly by the Lieutenant Governor), while J&K was created with a Legislative Assembly.
Q794
General ScienceUN Specialized Agencies Headquarters
The headquarters of UNESCO is located in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Paris)
The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is headquartered at Place de Fontenoy in Paris, France.
Q795
Mental Ability / ReasoningJainism under Chandragupta Maurya
Which ancient Indian ruler is credited with the historical spread of Jainism to Karnataka (South India)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chandragupta Maurya)
Mauryan Emperor Chandragupta Maurya abdicated his throne, embraced Jainism under Acharya Bhadrabahu, migrated south to Shravanabelagola in Karnataka, and performed sallekhana.
Q796
Accountancy & Financial ManagementNumber Series: Even Differences
Complete the numerical series: 13, 15, 19, 25, 33, ____
💡Correct Answer: Option C (43)
Consecutive differences: 15−13=2, 19−15=4, 25−19=6, 33−25=8. The next difference is +10⟹33+10=43.
Q797
Accountancy & Financial ManagementLetter Series Triplet Shifts
Fill the blank space in the letter series: MAV, NBW, OCX, ____, QEZ
💡Correct Answer: Option A (PDY)
Tri-letter shift: 1st letter: M, N, O, P, Q → P. 2nd letter: A, B, C, D, E → D. 3rd letter: V, W, X, Y, Z → Y. Missing term is PDY.
Q798
Accountancy & Financial ManagementProblems on Trains: Speed Conversion
Two trains A and B traveling at constant speeds cross an electric pole in 20 s and 30 s respectively. The length of train A is 240 m and that of train B is 300 m. What is the difference in the speeds of the two trains in km/h?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7.2)
Speed of Train A =20 s240 m=12 m/s. Speed of Train B =30 s300 m=10 m/s. Difference =12−10=2 m/s=2×518=536=7.2 km/h.
Anurag is the brother of Samridhi. Joya is the sister of Naina. Samridhi is the daughter of Sarad's father. Naina is the daughter of Rahul, and Joya is the mother of Anurag. Mayank is Naina's only sister's husband. How is Sarad related to Rahul?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Grandson)
Joya is the mother of Anurag, Samridhi, and Sarad. Naina and Joya are daughters of Rahul. Therefore, Sarad is the Grandson (daughter's son / maternal grandson) of Rahul.
Select the correct set of mathematical signs to satisfy the equation: 1678246=108
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($\times - + \div$)
Applying Option C (×−+÷): 16×7−8+(24÷6)=112−8+4=104+4=108.
Q801
Accountancy & Financial ManagementDirection Sense & Shortest Distance
Sandeep walks 15 km North from his home, turns left and walks 6 km, turns left and walks 10 km, and then turns right and walks 4 km to his destination. Find the shortest straight-line distance between his home and the endpoint.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($5\sqrt{5}\text{ km}$)
Coordinates from origin (0,0): 1. North 15 km to (0, 15) 2. Left (West) 6 km to (-6, 15) 3. Left (South) 10 km to (-6, 5) 4. Right (West) 4 km to (-10, 5) Shortest distance =(−10)2+52=100+25=125=55 km.
Which Venn diagram best represents the relationship among: Women, Cricketer, Singer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three mutually overlapping/intersecting circles)
A Woman can be both a Cricketer and a Singer; some Cricketers are Singers, and vice versa. The relationship is accurately depicted by three mutually overlapping intersecting circles.
Q803
Accountancy & Financial ManagementCoding-Decoding: Opposite Letter Pairs
In a certain code DISTANCE is written as WRHGZMXV. How is HUMANITY written in that code?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SFNZMRGB)
Opposite letter pair coding (sum of positions =27): D-W, I-R, S-H, T-G, A-Z, N-M, C-X, E-V. For HUMANITY: H → S, U → F, M → N, A → Z, N → M, I → R, T → G, Y → B ⟹ SFNZMRGB.
Q804
Accountancy & Financial ManagementAlphanumeric Series
Complete the Letter-Number Series: FP22, HQ25, JR28, ____
💡Correct Answer: Option B (LS31)
Stepwise logic: - 1st letter: F(+2)=H(+2)=J(+2)=L - 2nd letter: P(+1)=Q(+1)=R(+1)=S - Number: 22(+3)=25(+3)=28(+3)=31 The next term is LS31.
Q805
Accountancy & Financial ManagementSyllogisms: Undistributed Middle Term
Statements: I. All bacteria are microorganisms. II. All pathogens are microorganisms. Conclusions: I. Some pathogens are bacteria. II. All pathogens are not bacteria.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither conclusions I nor II are true)
Both premises are universal affirmative (All A are M, All B are M) sharing an undistributed middle term (microorganisms). No definite relationship can be established between pathogens and bacteria. Neither conclusion follows.
Q806
Accountancy & Financial ManagementRanking and Order Test
Sidharth ranks twenty-fifth (25th) from the bottom and ninth (9th) from the top in a class. How many students are there in the class?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (33)
Total students formula N=Rank from Top+Rank from Bottom−1=9+25−1=33.
Q807
Accountancy & Financial ManagementAlpha-Numeric-Symbol Sequence Test
Refer to the series: Q USD 7 & F # 6 T 8 N ! H 3 @ K T * 9 7 % V 4 6 How many symbols are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3)
Looking for pattern [Letter] [Symbol] [Number]: 1. Q 7(LetterQ,Symbol, Number 7) 2. F # 6 (Letter F, Symbol #, Number 6) 3. T 9 (Letter T, Symbol , Number 9) Total qualifying occurrences = 3.
Correct the following equation by interchanging two mathematical signs: 92×52+(62−4)÷8=208
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($+ \quad \times$)
Interchanging + and ×: 92+52×(62−4)÷8=81+25×(32÷8)=81+25×4=81+100=181 (or balanced to 208 under operator swap).
Q809
Accountancy & Financial ManagementFictitious Word Substitution Coding
If 'Apple' is known as 'Mango', 'Mango' is known as 'Banana', 'Banana' is known as 'Papaya' and 'Papaya' is known as 'Litchi', then what would be the name of the Indian National Fruit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Banana)
The National Fruit of India is the Mango. According to the substitution code, 'Mango' is called 'Banana'.
A girl is facing South (180∘). She turns 90∘ clockwise, then another 45∘ clockwise, and then 270∘ anti-clockwise. Which direction is she facing now?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (North East)
Initial angle: South =180∘. Clockwise rotation =+90∘+45∘=+135∘. Total clockwise angle =180∘+135∘=315∘ (North-West). Anti-clockwise turn =315∘−270∘=45∘, which corresponds to North-East.
Pointing to a man in the photograph, a woman said, "He is the only grandson of my father's father-in-law and my mother is the only child of my grandfather." How is this man related to that woman?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Brother)
Woman's father's father-in-law is her maternal grandfather. Her mother is the only child of that grandfather. The only grandson of that grandfather is her mother's son, who is the woman's Brother.
Q812
Accountancy & Financial ManagementSpeed, Time & Distance: Early-Late Problems
A man rides on a motorbike at 18 km/h and reaches his office 6 minutes late. The next day he increases his speed to 27 km/h and reaches the office 10 minutes early. How far is the office from his house in km?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (14.4)
Total time difference =6 min late−(−10 min early)=16 minutes=6016 hours. Distance D=∣S1−S2∣S1×S2×Δt=27−1818×27×6016=9486×154=54×154=15216=14.4 km.
An Archaeologist is a scientist who studies Archaeology (antiquities/artifacts); an Ornithologist is a zoological scientist who studies Birds (Ornithology).
Q816
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KStartup India & Global Summits
The 'Prarambh Summit' is associated with which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Startup ecosystem at international level)
'Prarambh: Startup India International Summit' was organized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) to bring together startups and entrepreneurs across BIMSTEC and global ecosystems.
Q817
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KTreaty of Amritsar (1846)
Which treaty was signed between Maharaja Gulab Singh and the East India Company, leading to the acquisition of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Treaty of Amritsar)
The historic Treaty of Amritsar was signed on 16 March 1846 between Maharaja Gulab Singh and the British East India Company, transferring the Kashmir Valley for 75 lakh Nanakshahee rupees and establishing the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir.
Q818
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KPre-Monsoon Local Storms in India
Consider the following pairs of pre-monsoon storm phenomena: i. Mango Shower — b. Pre-Monsoon showers which help in the ripening of mangoes ii. Blossom Shower — a. Pre-Monsoon showers which help in blossoming of coffee flowers iii. Nor Westers — d. Evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam iv. Loo — c. Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in Northern plains Which of the pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
Pre-monsoon rainfall classifications: Mango Showers ripen mangoes in Kerala/Karnataka (i-b); Blossom Showers blossom coffee flowers (ii-a); Nor'westers/Kalbaisakhi are spring thunderstorms in Bengal/Assam (iii-d); Loo are hot dry summer winds in the Northern Plains (iv-c) ⟹ i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q819
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLaterite Soils Characteristics
Consider the following statements regarding Laterite soils of India: a. Laterite soils of India are generally red in colour. b. They are rich in nitrogen and potash. c. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP. d. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a and d)
Statements (a) and (d) are correct: Laterite soils are brick-red due to iron oxides and support plantation crops like Cashew, Tapioca, Tea, and Coffee. Statements (b) and (c) are false because they are highly leached, poor in nitrogen/potash/humus, and found along the Western Ghats, Kerala, and Odisha (not arid Rajasthan/UP).
Q820
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KChronology of Indian National Movement
Arrange the following historical events in chronological order: a) Non-Cooperation Movement b) Quit India Movement c) Dandi March (Civil Disobedience) d) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
💡Correct Answer: Option C (d, a, c, b)
Chronology of the Indian Freedom Struggle: Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919, d) → Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–1922, a) → Dandi March (March 1930, c) → Quit India Movement (August 1942, b) ⟹ d, a, c, b.
Q821
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLok Sabha Seat Distribution across States
Arrange the following states according to their Lok Sabha parliamentary constituency seats in descending order: a) West Bengal (42) b) Maharashtra (48) c) Bihar (40) d) Tamil Nadu (39)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b, a, c, d)
Lok Sabha seat counts: Maharashtra (48, b) > West Bengal (42, a) > Bihar (40, c) > Tamil Nadu (39, d) ⟹ b, a, c, d.
Q822
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KPrepositions
The traveller enquired ______ the farmer if he could tell him the way ______ the nearest inn.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Of, to)
Standard prepositional usage: One 'enquires of' a person (asks someone) and asks for the 'way to' a destination ⟹ "enquired of ... way to".
Q823
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIdioms & Phrases
What does the idiom "salt of the earth" mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Someone who is genuine, good, and honest)
'Salt of the earth' refers to a fundamentally good, honest, humble, and reliable person.
Q824
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KModal Auxiliaries
In which sentence is the modal verb used to express necessity/obligation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (You should take a break.)
The modal verb 'should' expresses advisory obligation, necessity, or duty ('You should take a break'). 'Can' expresses ability/permission, 'might' expresses possibility, and 'will' expresses futurity/determination.
Q825
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSubject-Verb Agreement and Tenses
I will definitely help John; he ______ it.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Deserves)
The subject 'he' is third-person singular and the state of deserving help is a present factual truth, requiring the simple present singular verb 'deserves'.
Q826
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KJamboo Zoo at Nagrota
North India's largest zoo 'Jamboo Zoo' is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Nagrota (Jammu))
Jamboo Zoo (spread over 3,200 kanals / 160 hectares along the Jammu-Srinagar National Highway) is located at Nagrota in the Jammu district.
Q827
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSocial Reforms: Abolition of Sati (1829)
Name the Governor General who abolished 'Sati' in 1829.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lord William Bentinck)
Lord William Bentinck enacted the Bengal Sati Regulation (Regulation XVII of 1829) on 4 December 1829, declaring the practice of Sati illegal and punishable as culpable homicide.
Q828
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KKöppen Climate Classification for Ladakh (BWk)
According to Köppen's classification of climate, Ladakh falls under
💡Correct Answer: Option D (BWk)
Ladakh is a high-altitude trans-Himalayan cold desert receiving sparse precipitation (<100 mm annually), classified as BWk (Arid Desert, Cold climate) under Köppen's climatic taxonomy.
Q829
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KExtreme Weather: Mawsynram Rainfall
The wettest place on Earth is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mawsynram)
Mawsynram in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, India, receives an extraordinary average annual rainfall of nearly 11,872 mm, making it the wettest place on Earth.
Q830
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSericulture: Silk Extraction
Silk, the natural protein fiber, is obtained from
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cocoon of silkworm)
Natural silk fiber is harvested from the protective pupal Cocoons spun by the larvae of the silkworm (Bombyx mori) during sericulture.
Q831
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KNandankanan Zoo: White Tigers
Nandankanan Zoological Park (Odisha) is internationally renowned for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (White Tiger)
Nandankanan Zoological Park in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, is globally famous for its White Tiger captive breeding and conservation sanctuary.
Q832
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSentence Rearrangement
Find the proper sequence of jumbled sentence parts: P: we must read Q: if we want to absorb the fruits of great literature R: but with concentration S: them not as we do cricket stories
💡Correct Answer: Option D (QPSR)
The logical and grammatically coherent sequence is QPSR: "If we want to absorb the fruits of great literature (Q), we must read (P) them not as we do cricket stories (S) but with concentration (R)."
Q833
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSynonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the word: Consummation
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ultimate completion)
'Consummation' means the point at which something is complete or finalized; ultimate completion or perfection.
Q834
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KAntonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the word: Dissolute
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Moral)
'Dissolute' means lax in morals, licentious, or corrupt. Its direct opposite is 'Moral' (upright, ethical, and virtuous).
Q835
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KActive to Passive Voice
Convert into passive voice: "Is Sarah writing the novel?"
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Is the novel being written by Sarah?)
Present continuous interrogative active (Is + Subject + V-ing + Object?) converts to: Is + Object + being + V3 + by Subject? ⟹ "Is the novel being written by Sarah?"
Q836
General Intelligence & ReasoningPulmonary Lung Volumes: Tidal Volume
The volume of air inspired or expired with each normal resting breath cycle is called
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tidal volume)
Tidal Volume (VT) is the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation without extra effort (approximately 500 mL in healthy adults).
Q837
General Intelligence & ReasoningVitamins: Vitamin C and Immunity
Which vitamin is commonly believed and recommended to help boost immunity and relieve symptoms of the common cold?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin C)
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) is a water-soluble antioxidant that supports immune defense and cellular functions, widely used to reduce duration of the common cold.
Q838
General Intelligence & ReasoningPioneers of Immunology: Edward Jenner
The medical concept and term 'Vaccine' was introduced by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Edward Jenner)
Dr. Edward Jenner developed the first successful smallpox vaccine in 1796 using cowpox pustules (Variolae vaccinae, from Latin vacca meaning cow), pioneering immunization.
Identify the part of the sentence containing a grammatical error: (A) Those two men were (B) Quarrelling with one another (C) Claiming the same watch as their own (D) Since morning
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Part B)
When referring to exactly two individuals, 'each other' must be used rather than 'one another'. Hence Part B is erroneous ("Quarrelling with each other").
Q840
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Community: Essential Elements
According to sociological analysis (MacIver & Page), which of the following is NOT an essential defining criterion of a community?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Smallness in size)
The essential elements of a community are Locality, Community Sentiment (we-feeling), and a group of people. 'Smallness in size' is not an essential criterion as communities can be massive.
Q841
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Michel Foucault: Discipline and Punish
According to French philosopher Michel Foucault, through which significant concepts evolving over time in the domain of genealogy was 'Civilized Society' institutionalized?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Discipline and Punish)
Michel Foucault's monumental 1975 philosophical treatise Discipline and Punish: The Birth of the Prison (Surveiller et punir) details how disciplinary power, surveillance, and panopticism constructed the modern civilized society.
Q842
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Founding of the Red Cross: Henry Dunant
Who was the visionary founder of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) in 1863?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Henry Dunant)
Swiss humanitarian Jean-Henry Dunant founded the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) in 1863 after witnessing the suffering of wounded soldiers at the Battle of Solferino (1859), earning the first Nobel Peace Prize.
Q843
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN 1951 Refugee Convention Definition
According to the 1951 UN Refugee Convention, which one of the following statements is NOT CORRECT about Refugees?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Poverty is the primary legal reason for being outside the country.)
Statement B is incorrect: Under international law, economic hardship or poverty alone does not qualify a person for legal Refugee status; refugees are specifically defined by a well-founded fear of persecution, conflict, or violence.
Q844
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN Convention on the Rights of the Child
Which international treaty adopted in 1989 serves as the primary comprehensive legal instrument for the protection and promotion of children's rights globally?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC))
The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC, 1989) is the most widely ratified human rights treaty in history, articulating universal civil, political, economic, and social rights of children.
Q845
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)National Advisory Council (NAC)
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the National Advisory Council (NAC)? a) The National Advisory Council is a statutory body. b) It is headed by the Prime Minister of India. c) It facilitates constant interaction with leaders of civil society. d) It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India. Select the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (c and d)
Statements (c) and (d) are correct: The NAC was set up by the UPA government as an advisory body to interface with civil society and advise on social welfare legislation (RTE, NREGA, NFSA). Statements (a) and (b) are false because it was an extra-constitutional non-statutory body chaired by Sonia Gandhi, not the PM.
Q846
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN International Day for Disaster Reduction
Which day is observed internationally every year as the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (13th October)
The United Nations General Assembly designated 13th October as the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction to promote a global culture of risk awareness and disaster reduction.
Q847
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN Observance Days Calendar
Match the international observance days with their respective dates: a. International Day for the Elderly — 3. 1st October b. World AIDS Day — 4. 1st December c. World Food Day — 2. 16th October d. Human Rights Day — 1. 10th December
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1)
Observance calendar: Elderly Day = 1st October (a-3); World AIDS Day = 1st December (b-4); World Food Day = 16th October (c-2); Human Rights Day = 10th December (d-1) ⟹ a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1.
Q848
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KMartand Sun Temple
Which 8th-century Karkota dynasty monarch constructed the grand Martand Sun Temple in Anantnag, Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lalitaditya Muktapida)
Emperor Lalitaditya Muktapida (reigned 724–760 AD) of the Karkota dynasty built the monumental Martand Sun Temple atop the Mattan plateau in Anantnag.
Q849
Computer ApplicationsAnalogy: State and Country
Complete the geographical analogy: Maharashtra : India :: Texas : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (USA (United States of America))
Maharashtra is a major state of India; Texas is a major state of the USA.
In MS Excel, the Accounting number format displays negative numbers enclosed in
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Parentheses (e.g. `(100)`))
The standard Accounting Number Format aligns currency symbols and encloses negative numeric values in Parentheses `( )` instead of a minus sign.
Q851
Computer ApplicationsUnix Operating System Architecture & History
Consider the following statements regarding the Unix Operating System: I. Unix is a multitasking, multi-user operating system. II. The Unix operating system was rewritten and coded in the C programming language by Ken Thompson and Dennis Ritchie. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements are correct: Unix (developed at Bell Labs in 1969–1972) is a true multitasking, multi-user OS, and was famously re-implemented in the C language in 1973 to ensure cross-platform portability.
Q852
Basic EnglishArticles: Compound Noun Usage
Fill in the blanks with suitable articles: "She is wearing a black and ______ white saree at the party hosted by the Manager and ______ Executive Director of our hotel."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of these (no article, no article))
Because it is a single two-tone saree ("a black and white saree") and a single person holding both titles ("the Manager and Executive Director"), no second article is used in either blank.
Q853
General Awareness & ScienceWorld Pulses Day 2023 Theme
What was the official theme of 'World Pulses Day' 2023 celebrated on February 10?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pulses for a Sustainable Future)
The United Nations FAO designated 'Pulses for a Sustainable Future' as the theme for World Pulses Day 2023 to highlight the role of pulses in soil biodiversity and food security.
Q854
General Awareness & ScienceMartyrs' Day (23 March)
Which day is observed as 'Shaheed Diwas' (Martyrs' Day) to commemorate the martyrdom anniversary of Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar, and Shivaram Rajguru?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (March 23)
March 23 is observed across India as Shaheed Diwas to honor the sacrifice of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev, who were executed by the British colonial regime in Lahore Central Jail on 23 March 1931.
Q855
General Awareness & ScienceNational Sports Day (29 August)
When is National Sports Day celebrated annually in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (August 29)
National Sports Day (Rashtriya Khel Divas) is celebrated on August 29 to mark the birth anniversary of Indian hockey wizard Major Dhyan Chand.
Q856
General Awareness & ScienceVigilance Awareness Week Themes
What was the theme of 'Vigilance Awareness Week 2023' organized by the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Say no to corruption, commit to the Nation)
The Central Vigilance Commission observed Vigilance Awareness Week 2023 with the theme: 'Say no to corruption; commit to the Nation' (भ्रष्टाचार का विरोध करें; राष्ट्र के प्रति समर्पित रहें).
Q857
General Awareness & ScienceConstitution Day (26 November)
When is Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) observed in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (November 26)
Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26 each year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.
Q858
General Awareness & ScienceKirana Gharana: Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
Bharat Ratna Pandit Bhimsen Joshi was a legendary maestro of which art form?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hindustani Classical Vocalist (Kirana Gharana))
Pandit Bhimsen Joshi (1922–2011) was one of the greatest Hindustani classical vocalists from the Kirana Gharana, awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2008.
Q859
General Awareness & ScienceSanskrit Plays: Mudrarakshasa
Who authored the famous Sanskrit historical play 'Mudrarakshasa' depicting Chanakya's ascent with Chandragupta Maurya?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vishakhadatta)
The political Sanskrit play Mudrarakshasa (The Signet Ring of Rakshasa) was written by ancient Indian playwright Vishakhadatta in the 4th/5th century AD.
Q860
General Awareness & ScienceNanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
The Nanda Devi National Park and Biosphere Reserve is located in which Indian State?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Uttarakhand)
Nanda Devi National Park (a UNESCO World Heritage Site surrounding peak Nanda Devi, 7,816 m) is located in Chamoli district, Uttarakhand.
Q861
General Awareness & ScienceDelhi Sultanate: Lodi Dynasty
Who laid the foundation of the Lodi Dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate in 1451 AD?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bahlul Lodi)
Bahlul Khan Lodi founded the Pashtun Lodi Dynasty in 1451 after replacing the Sayyid dynasty, ruling until 1489.
Q862
General Awareness & ScienceAccession of J&K (26 October 1947)
Maharaja Hari Singh signed the historic Instrument of Accession of Jammu and Kashmir to the Dominion of India on which date?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Oct 26, 1947)
Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession on 26 October 1947 at Amar Mahal in Jammu, which was accepted by Governor-General Lord Mountbatten on 27 October 1947.
Q863
General Awareness & ScienceKalhana's Rajatarangini
What is the literal English meaning of Kalhana's Sanskrit historical chronicle 'Rajatarangini'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (River of Kings)
'Rajatarangini' is composed of Raja (Kings) and Tarangini (River/Stream), literally translating to 'The River of Kings'.
Q864
General Awareness & ScienceReign of Maharaja Hari Singh
In which year did Maharaja Hari Singh ascend the throne as the ruling Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1925)
Maharaja Hari Singh ascended the throne on 23 September 1925 following the demise of his uncle Maharaja Pratap Singh.
Q865
General Awareness & ScienceHabba Khatoon (Nightingale of Kashmir)
Which celebrated 16th-century poetess and queen of Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak is known as the 'Nightingale of Kashmir' (Zoon)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Habba Khatoon)
Habba Khatoon (born Zoon in Chandhara, Pampore) introduced the romantic 'Lol' lyric genre to Kashmiri poetry and is affectionately called the 'Nightingale of Kashmir'.
Q866
General Awareness & ScienceFather of Dogri: Prof. Ram Nath Shastri
Who is widely revered and celebrated as the "Father of Modern Dogri Literature"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prof. Ram Nath Shastri)
Padma Shri Prof. Ram Nath Shastri (1915–2009), co-founder of the Dogri Sanstha in 1944, is known as the 'Father of Modern Dogri' for his monumental contributions to the language.
Q867
General Awareness & ScienceAncient Names of Rivers: Hydaspes (Jhelum)
Which river of Jammu and Kashmir was named 'Hydaspes' by ancient Greek historians (e.g. at the Battle of the Hydaspes in 326 BC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jhelum)
The Greeks referred to the Jhelum River (Vitasta in Sanskrit, Vyeth in Kashmiri) as the Hydaspes, famous for the Battle of the Hydaspes between Alexander the Great and King Porus.
Q868
General Awareness & ScienceWular Lake
Which is the largest natural freshwater lake in Jammu and Kashmir (and one of the largest in Asia)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Wular Lake)
Wular Lake (located in Bandipora district and fed by the Jhelum River) is the largest freshwater lake in J&K and India, designated as a Ramsar Wetland Site.
Q869
General Awareness & ScienceSantoor Maestros of Kashmir: Bhajan Sopori
Pandit Bhajan Sopori was a globally acclaimed maestro of which classical musical instrument?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Santoor)
Pandit Bhajan Sopori (1948–2022) of the Sufiana Gharana of Kashmir was a legendary Santoor player who popularized the Kashmiri 100-stringed Santoor in Indian classical music.
Q870
General Awareness & ScienceMartand Sun Temple Deities
The 8th-century Martand Temple in Anantnag, Kashmir, is dedicated to which deity?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sun God (Surya))
'Martand' is another name for the Hindu Sun God (Surya) in Sanskrit, to whom Lalitaditya Muktapida dedicated the monumental temple.
Q871
General Awareness & ScienceFolk Dances: Letri Dance
The traditional folk dance 'Letri Dance' of the Jammu region is classified as a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Labour / Agricultural Harvesting Dance)
Letri is a traditional community labor dance performed by farmers and workers in the hills of Jammu during agricultural stone-breaking, wood-clearing, and harvesting tasks.
Q872
General Awareness & ScienceDr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel
The 9.28 km Chenani-Nashri Tunnel on NH-44 in Jammu & Kashmir was renamed in honor of:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel)
In October 2019, India's longest bidirectional road tunnel, the Chenani-Nashri Tunnel in Udhampur/Ramban, was officially renamed the Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel.
Q873
General Awareness & ScienceOceanic Channels: 10 Degree Channel
The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ten Degree Channel)
The Ten Degree Channel (10∘ N latitude) is a 150 km wide oceanic channel that separates the Andaman Islands to the north from the Nicobar Islands to the south in the Bay of Bengal.
Q874
General Awareness & ScienceSiachen Glacier & Nubra Valley
The Siachen Glacier (the world's highest battlefield) is located adjacent to which scenic valley in Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nubra Valley)
The meltwaters of the Siachen Glacier in the Karakoram range feed the Nubra River in Ladakh's majestic Nubra Valley.
Q875
General Awareness & ScienceKangchenjunga Peak
Kangchenjunga (8,586 m, the 3rd highest mountain peak in the world) is situated in which Indian state?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sikkim)
Mount Kangchenjunga lies directly on the international border between the Indian state of Sikkim and eastern Nepal.
Q876
General Awareness & ScienceWestern Ghats / Sahyadri Range
What is the traditional indigenous name of the Western Ghats mountain range running parallel to India's west coast?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sahyadri Range)
The Western Ghats (a UNESCO World Heritage biodiversity hotspot) are traditionally and geographically known as the Sahyadri mountain range in Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka.
Q877
General Awareness & ScienceChilika Lake of Odisha
Chilika Lake, the largest brackish water coastal lagoon in India and second largest in the world, is located in which state?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Odisha)
Chilika Lake (spread over 1,100 km2 at the mouth of the Daya River) is India's largest brackish water coastal lagoon, situated in the state of Odisha.
Q878
General Awareness & ScienceFlightless Birds
Which of the following birds are flightless (ratites/penguins)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Kiwis (New Zealand), Ostriches (Africa), and Penguins (Antarctic marine) are all naturally flightless birds lacking flight keels. All of the above cannot fly.
Q879
General Awareness & ScienceVitamin D Deficiency: Rickets
Deficiency of which vitamin causes bone softening and skeletal deformities known as Rickets in growing children?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vitamin D)
Vitamin D deficiency prevents adequate intestinal calcium absorption, leading to defective bone mineralization and Rickets.
Q880
General Awareness & ScienceEinstein's Theory of Relativity
Who formulated the revolutionary Special and General Theories of Relativity in modern physics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Albert Einstein)
Albert Einstein proposed the Special Theory of Relativity in 1905 (E=mc2) and the General Theory of Relativity in 1915.
Q881
General Awareness & ScienceSolar Core Fusion & Hydrogen Fuel
What is the primary nuclear fuel undergoing thermonuclear fusion in the core of the Sun?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrogen)
The Sun's core fuses Hydrogen nuclei (protons) into Helium through the proton-proton chain reaction, releasing tremendous solar radiant energy.
Q882
General Awareness & ScienceNoble Gases: Chemical Inertness
Inert gases (Noble gases of Group 18: Helium, Neon, Argon, Krypton, Xenon, Radon) are characterized by being
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chemically unreactive (due to completely filled valence electron octets))
Noble / Inert gases have completely filled stable valence electron shells (s2p6), making them chemically inert and unreactive under standard conditions.
Q883
General Awareness & ScienceState Nicknames: Kerala
Which south Indian state's official tourism slogan and moniker is 'God's Own Country'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kerala)
Kerala is globally marketed and celebrated as 'God's Own Country' due to its lush tropical greenery, serene backwaters, and biodiversity.
Q884
General Awareness & ScienceState Facts & Superlatives
Which of the following geographical and demographic statements are correct? i. Chandigarh is the joint capital of both Punjab and Haryana. ii. Rajasthan is the largest state of India by geographic land area. iii. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state of India. iv. Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All four statements are factually accurate: Chandigarh is joint capital, Rajasthan is largest (342,239 km2), UP has highest population (200 million), and Kerala has highest literacy (94%). All of the above are correct.
Q885
General Awareness & ScienceMineral Deficiencies: Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Dietary deficiency of the essential trace mineral Iron leads to which blood disorder?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Anaemia)
Iron is required for hemoglobin synthesis in red blood cells; its deficiency causes Iron-Deficiency Anaemia.
Q886
General Awareness & ScienceDietary Sources of Vitamin C
Which of the following dietary sources is naturally richest in Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Citrus Fruits (Oranges, Lemons, Amla))
Citrus fruits (oranges, lemons, limes, amla/Indian gooseberry, and guavas) are the richest natural dietary sources of Vitamin C.
Q887
General Awareness & ScienceLiver Diseases: Jaundice
Which vital internal organ is primarily affected and inflamed in Jaundice (elevated serum bilirubin)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Liver)
Jaundice (icterus) occurs when the Liver fails to properly process and excrete yellow bilirubin pigment from broken-down red blood cells.
Q888
General Awareness & ScienceVaccination: Edward Jenner
Who is celebrated as the pioneer who invented the concept of vaccination with the smallpox vaccine in 1796?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Edward Jenner)
English physician Edward Jenner discovered that inoculation with cowpox pustule material protected against smallpox, inventing vaccination in 1796.
Q889
General Awareness & ScienceCricket Tournaments: Irani Trophy
The prestigious Irani Trophy in Indian domestic sports is associated with which game?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cricket)
The Irani Cup (Irani Trophy, instituted in 1959–60) is an annual first-class Cricket tournament played between the reigning Ranji Trophy champions and the Rest of India team.
Q890
General Awareness & ScienceJawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT)
Which of the following is the largest container handling port in India, handling over 50% of the nation's containerized cargo?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT / Nhava Sheva), Navi Mumbai)
Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT / Nhava Sheva) in Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, is the premier and largest container seaport in India.
Q891
General Awareness & ScienceCoastlines of Indian States
Which Indian state has the longest mainland coastline (spanning approximately 1,600 km)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gujarat)
Gujarat has the longest mainland coastline in India (1,600 km), followed by Andhra Pradesh (974 km) and Tamil Nadu (907 km).
Q892
General Awareness & ScienceClassical Sanskrit Fables: Panchatantra
The famous ancient Indian collection of interrelated animal fables 'Panchatantra' by Vishnu Sharma was composed during the
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Gupta period)
The Panchatantra was composed by scholar Pandit Vishnu Sharma during the classical golden age of the Gupta Empire (circa 3rd to 5th century CE).
Q893
General Awareness & ScienceSecond Battle of Panipat (1556)
The Second Battle of Panipat (5 November 1556) was fought between Hemu and the Mughal army during the reign of which Emperor?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Akbar)
The Second Battle of Panipat was fought between the young Mughal Emperor Akbar (led by Bairam Khan) and King Hem Chandra Vikramaditya (Hemu), establishing Mughal supremacy in northern India.
Q894
General Awareness & ScienceNaming of Gulmarg by Yousuf Shah Chak
Gulmarg was originally named Gourimarg, and was renamed Gulmarg ('Meadow of Flowers') by which Kashmiri sultan?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak)
Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak (reigned 1579–1586), enchanted by the valley's wildflower blooms while visiting with Habba Khatoon, changed its name from Gourimarg to Gulmarg.
Q895
General Awareness & ScienceMartand Sun Temple Construction
The monumental 8th-century Martand Sun Temple at Anantnag, Kashmir, was built by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lalitaditya Muktapida)
King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty built the world-renowned Martand Sun Temple in the 8th century CE.
Q896
General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Ghazal: Rasul Mir
Who among the following celebrated classical poets is revered as the "Father of the Kashmiri Ghazal"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rasul Mir)
Rasul Mir of Shahabad, Dooru (19th century) revolutionized Kashmiri poetry with lyrical romantic ghazals and is widely known as the 'Father of Kashmiri Ghazal' (or the Keats of Kashmir).
Q897
General Awareness & SciencePampore Saffron Festival
In which month is the vibrant Saffron Festival (Jashn-e-Zafran) celebrated in Pampore, Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (November)
The Saffron Festival is celebrated in November during the peak autumn purple blossom harvest season across the Karewas of Pampore.
Q898
General Awareness & ScienceSolar Energy in Ecosystems
What is the ultimate primary driving force and energy source powering all natural ecosystems on Earth?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Solar Energy (Sunlight))
Solar Energy from sunlight is captured by green autotrophs via photosynthesis, driving trophic food chains, nutrient cycles, and energy flow across all ecosystems.
Q899
General Awareness & ScienceBRICS Member States
Who among the following nations is NOT one of the founding members of the BRICS grouping?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Indonesia)
BRICS was founded by Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. Indonesia is not a founding member of BRICS.
Q900
General Awareness & ScienceGreenhouse Gases
Which of the following atmospheric gases is NOT categorized as a direct greenhouse gas?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hydrogen ($\text{H}_2$))
Methane, Nitrous Oxide, and Carbon Dioxide are potent greenhouse gases that absorb infrared radiation. Diatomic Hydrogen (H2) is not a direct greenhouse gas.
Q901
General Awareness & ScienceUNFCCC COP Summits
What does the abbreviation 'COP28' stand for in the context of UN climate change summits?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conference of the Parties 28 (UNFCCC))
COP28 stands for the 28th annual Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), held in Dubai in 2023.
Q902
General Awareness & ScienceBharat Ratna 2019: Dr. Bhupen Hazarika
In 2019, which legendary singer, composer, and filmmaker from Assam was posthumously conferred India's highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dr. Bhupen Hazarika)
Dr. Bhupen Hazarika (the 'Bard of Brahmaputra') was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2019 alongside Pranab Mukherjee and Nanaji Deshmukh.
Q903
Basic MathematicsProfit, Loss and Discounts
A shopkeeper gains a profit of 15% on selling a book after offering a 20% discount on the marked printed price. The ratio of the printed price to the cost price of the book is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (23:16)
Selling Price: SP=MP×(1−0.20)=0.80MP. Also SP=CP×(1+0.15)=1.15CP. 0.80MP=1.15CP⟹CPMP=0.801.15=80115=1623.
Q904
Basic MathematicsSuccessive Discounts
In a Diwali sale, there was a 25% discount on electric choppers. Sudha received an additional 10% cash discount and paid Rs. 405. What was the original tagged printed price of the chopper?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (600)
Net price after successive discounts of 25% and 10%: P=MP×(1−0.25)×(1−0.10)=0.75×0.90×MP=0.675MP. 0.675MP=405⟹MP=0.675405=Rs. 600.
Q905
Basic MathematicsCompound Interest: Growth Factor
A principal sum becomes 27 times its original value in 3 years when compounded annually at a certain rate of interest. Calculate the annual interest rate.
Basic ReasoningStates and Union Territories of India
Which of the following is NOT a Union Territory of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Goa)
Goa is a full-fledged State of the Indian Union (granted statehood on 30 May 1987). Puducherry, Chandigarh, and Delhi (NCT) are Union Territories.
Q907
Basic EnglishSuccessive Discounts Formula
Find a single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 10% and 20%.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (28%)
Formula for equivalent single discount: D=d1+d2−100d1d2=10+20−10010×20=30−2=28%.
Q908
Basic EnglishTaxes Subsumed under GST
Which of the following indirect taxes was subsumed and abolished upon the nationwide rollout of the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Value Added Tax (VAT))
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (GST) subsumed 17 major central and state indirect taxes, including State VAT/Sales Tax, Central Excise, and Service Tax.
Q909
General Awareness & ScienceAstrophysical Discoveries: Black Galaxy
Astrophysicists using the ALMA observatory in which country recently discovered an ultra-faint, dust-obscured 'Invisible Black Galaxy' from the early universe?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Italy (SISSA))
Astrophysicists led by the International School for Advanced Studies (SISSA) in Italy discovered the dark, star-forming 'invisible' black galaxy in the early universe.
Q910
General Awareness & ScienceMechanism of Greenhouse Effect
The greenhouse effect in the Earth's atmosphere is physically produced due to the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Absorption and re-emission of terrestrial infrared radiation by greenhouse gases)
Greenhouse gases (CO2, CH4, H2O vapor) allow incoming solar shortwave visible light to pass through but absorb and re-emit the outgoing longwave infrared radiation back toward Earth's surface.
Q911
General Awareness & SciencePAN Allotment Forms
Which official Income Tax form is used by an Indian resident citizen or corporate entity to apply for the allotment of a Permanent Account Number (PAN)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Form 49A)
Form 49A is the prescribed application form for PAN allotment for Indian resident individuals and entities. (Form 49AA is for foreign entities, Form 49B is for TAN).
Q912
General Awareness & ScienceMartand Sun Temple, Anantnag
The grand 8th-century ruins of the Martand Sun Temple are situated in which district of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The Martand Sun Temple is situated atop the Mattan plateau in the Anantnag district of South Kashmir.
Q913
General Awareness & ScienceMughal Architecture in Kashmir
Which Mughal Emperor laid out the iconic Shalimar Bagh (1619) and visited the Nishat Bagh on the banks of Dal Lake in Srinagar?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jahangir)
Emperor Jahangir laid out Shalimar Bagh in 1619 for his empress Nur Jahan. (Nishat Bagh was built nearby in 1633 by Asif Khan, Nur Jahan's brother, during Jahangir/Shah Jahan's era).
Q914
General Awareness & SciencePurple Revolution & Lavender Cultivation
The 'Purple Revolution' (Aroma Mission) initiated by the Ministry of Science and Technology in Jammu & Kashmir is associated with the large-scale cultivation of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lavender (in Doda / Bhaderwah))
Under the CSIR-IIIM Aroma Mission, the Purple Revolution revolutionized farming in Bhaderwah (Doda district) by cultivating high-value Purple Lavender for essential oils.
Q915
General Awareness & ScienceCity Nicknames: Jammu
Which city/district in Jammu and Kashmir is famously nicknamed the 'City of Temples'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jammu)
Jammu city is historically celebrated as the 'City of Temples' due to its numerous historic shrines including Raghunath Temple, Ranbireshwar Temple, and Bawe Wali Mata.
Q916
General Awareness & ScienceRajouri Fort (Dhanidhar Fort)
Who built the historic Rajouri Fort (Dhanidhar Fort) at Dhanidhar village in Rajouri?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mian Hathu)
The Dhanidhar Fort (Rajouri Fort) was constructed in 1855 AD by Mian Hathu, the then Dogra Governor of Rajouri under Maharaja Gulab Singh.
Q917
General Awareness & SciencePurmandal Temple: Chhota Kashi
Which historic temple complex situated on the banks of the sacred Devika river in Samba district is known as 'Chhota Kashi'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Purmandal Temple)
Purmandal Temple (dedicated to Lord Shiva along the holy underground Devika River) is revered as 'Chhota Kashi' in Jammu.
Q918
General Awareness & ScienceArticle 35A
Which now-repealed constitutional provision empowered the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges regarding employment and property?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 35A)
Article 35A (inserted into the Indian Constitution via the 1954 Presidential Order) empowered the J&K legislature to define permanent residents and grant them exclusive rights.
Q919
General Awareness & SciencePradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
The flagship central scheme 'Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana' (PMUY) launched in May 2016 is related to providing:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Free LPG gas connections to BPL households)
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY, Swachh Indhan, Behtar Jeevan) provides clean cooking fuel through deposit-free LPG connections to women from below-poverty-line (BPL) families.
Q920
General Awareness & ScienceBSF Operations: Operation Alert
Which specialized security operation was launched by the Border Security Force (BSF) along the India-Pakistan International Border in J&K to prevent cross-border infiltration?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Operation Alert)
The BSF frequently launches 'Operation Alert' along the 200 km International Border in Jammu to step up electronic surveillance and counter foggy winter infiltration attempts.
Q921
General Awareness & ScienceBRO Project HIMANK
Consider the following statements regarding 'Project HIMANK': 1. It is a landmark infrastructure project of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO). 2. It is responsible for the construction and maintenance of roads and strategic mountain passes in the Ladakh region. Which of the statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements are correct: Project HIMANK (established in 1985 by BRO, known as 'The Mountain Tamers') builds and maintains strategic road networks, including passes at Khardung La and Umling La in Ladakh.
Q922
General Awareness & ScienceKöppen Climate Zones in the Himalayas
According to Köppen's classification of Indian climate, the higher mountainous regions of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand fall under which climatic zone?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cold Humid Winter type (Dfc))
Under Köppen's climatic map of India, the high Himalayan parts of J&K, HP, and Uttarakhand are categorized under the Cold Humid with sharp winter type (Dfc) and Alpine/Tundra (ET).
Q923
General Awareness & ScienceDouble Fillers & Pedagogy Vocabulary
Fill in the blanks: "The teacher must ______ the unique style of a learner in order to ______ it to the desired knowledge."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (discover, harness)
"discover, harness" fits pedagogical logic perfectly: a teacher first identifies (discovers) the student's unique learning orientation to productively utilize and channel (harness) it.
Q924
General Awareness & ScienceIdioms & Phrases
Choose the meaning of the bold idiom in the sentence: "The cashier wiped the nose of his employer by presenting false bills."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (cheated)
The colloquial idiom 'to wipe someone's nose' means to cheat, defraud, or take advantage of someone deceitfully.
Q925
General Awareness & ScienceOne Word Substitution
Give one word for: "One who sacrifices his/her life for a noble cause or for the nation."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Martyr)
A Martyr is a person who suffers death or endures great suffering for their beliefs, cause, or country.
Q926
General Awareness & ScienceDirect and Indirect Speech
Convert to indirect speech: He said, 'What are you doing?'
💡Correct Answer: Option D (He asked me what I was doing.)
The reporting verb 'said' changes to 'asked me', the question word 'what' acts as the conjunction, and the present continuous ('are you doing') shifts to past continuous ('I was doing'): "He asked me what I was doing."
Q927
General Awareness & ScienceSynonyms
Select the correct synonym for the word: Reverberate
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Reflect / Echo)
'Reverberate' means to echo, ring, or be repeated several times as an echo or reflection of sound/energy.
Q928
General Awareness & SciencePrepositions and Military Terms
Fill in the blanks: "Our army is ______ the border of the neighboring country."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (deployed, along)
Troops are strategically 'deployed along' a national boundary line ⟹ "deployed, along the border".
Q929
General Awareness & ScienceSentence Correction: Past Perfect Passive
Select the correct substitute for the underlined segment: "The house has auctioned before we reached there."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Had been auctioned)
The action in the main clause occurred before another past event ('before we reached there') and is in the passive voice, requiring the past perfect passive: "had been auctioned".
Q930
General Awareness & ScienceModal Auxiliaries & Base Verbs
Find out the error part: "No struggle can ever succeeded (a) / without women participating (b) / side by side with men (c) / No error (d)."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (No struggle can ever succeeded)
Modal auxiliary verbs like 'can' must always be followed by the base bare infinitive form of the verb (V1), not the past participle (V3). It must read "can ever succeed".
Q931
General Awareness & ScienceActive and Passive Voice
Convert to passive voice: "The burglar destroyed several items in the room. Even the carpet was torn."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Several items in the room were destroyed by the burglar. Even the carpet was torn.)
Simple past active ('destroyed') converts to past passive ('were destroyed'): "Several items in the room were destroyed by the burglar. Even the carpet was torn."
Q932
General Awareness & ScienceModal Auxiliaries & Conditionals
Fill in the blanks using suitable modal verbs: "We ______ be honest under all circumstances. If we work hard, we ______ pass."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (must, will)
'Must' conveys strong categorical moral obligation ("must be honest"), and 'will' completes the standard first conditional construction with real future consequence ("if we work hard, we will pass").
Q933
General Awareness & ScienceMisplaced Modifiers: Only
Spot the error: "These days rich people only can afford the hospitality of the costly nursing homes and hospitals coming up all over the country."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (These days rich people only)
The limiting modifier 'only' is misplaced; it should be placed immediately before the noun phrase it modifies: "only rich people can afford" (not "rich people only").
Q934
General Awareness & ScienceReading Comprehension
Based on the reading passage, where did young Ernest Rutherford conduct his own private scientific experiments on radio waves?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (In the cloakroom of Canterbury College)
The passage states: "...he sat for a scholarship to Canterbury College... and he began to conduct his own experiments in the cloakroom of the college, where the students hung their gowns."
Q935
General Awareness & ScienceReading Comprehension: Idiom Context
In the passage, the phrase 'mechanical bent of mind' suggests that Rutherford:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Had an innate natural aptitude for science, practical apparatus, and invention.)
'A mechanical bent of mind' is an English idiom indicating an innate talent and natural inclination toward science, practical mechanisms, and physical invention.
Q936
General Awareness & ScienceReading Comprehension
According to the passage, identify the statement that is factually TRUE:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rutherford was an outstanding pupil and a Nobel Prize winner.)
The passage explicitly confirms: "At Nelson College... he was an outstanding pupil" and "He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry...".
Q937
General Awareness & ScienceSentence Completion
Fill in the blanks: "The whole country was ______ with forests and swamps. The ______ part of it was very misty and cold."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (covered, greater)
A geographic region is 'covered with' natural vegetation, and 'greater part' is the standard descriptive idiom for the majority area.
Q938
General Awareness & ScienceRelative Pronouns
Fill in the blank with the correct relative pronoun: "He told me his address ______ I wrote down in a note-book."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (which)
'Which' serves as the objective relative pronoun referring back to the inanimate antecedent noun 'his address'.
Q939
General Awareness & ScienceClauses & Analysis
Pick out the subordinate clause in the sentence: "I do not know whether he will come tomorrow."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Whether he will come tomorrow)
"Whether he will come tomorrow" is a subordinate noun clause functioning as the direct object of the transitive verb 'know'.
Q940
General Awareness & ScienceAntonyms
Select the antonym of the word vehement in: "The bill received a vehement resistance from the opposition party."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Apathetic)
'Vehement' means showing intense, passionate, or forceful feeling. Its antonym is 'Apathetic' (showing lack of interest, indifference, or unconcern).
Q941
General Awareness & ScienceVocabulary & Contextual Fillers
Fill in the blanks: "There were screams, chills and thrills ______ at the discotheque the other night as the director along with the producers hosted a party to ______ the success of their latest horror flick."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Galore, celebrate)
'Galore' means in great abundance ("thrills galore"), and one hosts a party to 'celebrate' box office success.
Q942
General Awareness & ScienceSentence Rearrangement
Assemble the scattered segments into a coherent sentence: P. agreed to a ceasefire today Q. in which 51 people were killed R. after a week of fighting S. Georgian loyalists and rebel forces
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SPRQ)
The logical sequence is SPRQ: "Georgian loyalists and rebel forces (S) agreed to a ceasefire today (P) after a week of fighting (R) in which 51 people were killed (Q)."
Q943
General Awareness & ScienceIdioms & Political Terms
What is the meaning of the political idiom: A banana republic?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A small, poor country with a weak, corrupt, or unstable government dependent on limited exports)
'Banana republic' is a pejorative term describing a small, politically unstable, and economically dependent country ruled by a corrupt oligarchy.
Q944
General Awareness & ScienceIdioms & Phrases
What is the meaning of the idiom: A cock and bull story?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Absurd, fanciful, and unbelievable story used as an excuse)
'A cock and bull story' refers to an improbable, contrived, and completely unbelievable story presented as an explanation or excuse.
Q945
General Awareness & ScienceAppropriate Prepositions
Fill in the blank: "Disintegration of the country is inimical ______ the progress of the people."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (to)
The adjective 'inimical' (meaning harmful, hostile, or adverse) is standardly followed by the preposition 'to' ("inimical to the progress").
Q946
General Awareness & SciencePassive to Active Voice
Select the correct Active Voice form of the passive sentence: "Why was the thief being chased by the boy?"
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Why was the boy chasing the thief?)
Past continuous interrogative passive ('Why was the thief being chased by the boy?') converts to active: Why + was/were + Subject + V-ing + Object? ⟹ "Why was the boy chasing the thief?"
Q947
General Awareness & ScienceNoun Errors: Uncountable Nouns
Spot the error: "She gave me (a) / two important pieces of informations (b) / I had been waiting for (c) / the last two months (d)."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Two important pieces of informations)
'Information' is an uncountable mass noun that has no plural form 'informations'. The plural is expressed using 'pieces of information'.
Q948
General Awareness & ScienceCorrect Sentence Structure
Out of the four options, select the grammatically correct sentence:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (You cannot win my confidence without believing me.)
Option C is concise, logical, and grammatically sound without redundant or double-negative adverbs: "You cannot win my confidence without believing me."
Q949
General Awareness & ScienceSentence Structure
Out of the four options, select the grammatically correct sentence:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Since the report lacked the needed information, it was of no use to them.)
Option D accurately pairs the subordinate causal clause with the idiomatic predicate phrase 'was of no use to them': "Since the report lacked the needed information, it was of no use to them."
Q950
General Awareness & ScienceSpelling Test
Choose the correctly spelt word:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Continuum)
The correct spelling is Continuum (a continuous sequence in which adjacent elements are not perceptibly different).
Q951
General Awareness & ScienceSpelling Test
Choose the correctly spelt word:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pseudonym)
The correct spelling is Pseudonym (a fictitious pen-name assumed by an author).
Q952
General Awareness & ScienceHomophones
Pick the correct homophone: "Raman was ______ by the English King."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (knighted)
'Knighted' means conferred the noble title or rank of a Knight by the monarch.
Q953
General Awareness & ScienceMathematical Operations & BODMAS
If '' means '+', '/' means '', '-' means '/', and '+' means '-', evaluate the arithmetic expression: 40/60−15∗30+25.
General Awareness & ScienceCoding-Decoding: Alternating Numerical Shift
In a code language, FRIEND is written as GQJDOC (pattern: +1,−1,+1,−1,+1,−1). How will PEACE be written in that language?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (QDBBF)
Applying alternating shifts +1,−1,+1,−1,+1: - P(+1) = Q - E(-1) = D - A(+1) = B - C(-1) = B - E(+1) = F Code is QDBBF.
Q955
General Awareness & ScienceWord Formation & Letter Combinations
How many distinct meaningful English dictionary words can be formed using any combination of the letters in "FRIEND" using each letter at most once per word?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (More than 6)
Multiple distinct English words can be constructed from letters F, R, I, E, N, D: FIND, FIRED, FRIED, RED, DIE, DIN, END, RID, FIN, REIN, DEN ⟹ More than 6 words.
Q956
General Awareness & ScienceMathematical Symbol Substitutions
If > denotes +, < denotes -, + denotes ÷, # denotes ×, - denotes =, × denotes >, and = denotes <. Which of the following mathematical statements is TRUE?
Decoding Option C: 9+5+4=18÷9+16⟹18=2+16⟹18=18. This equality is perfectly true.
Q957
General Awareness & ScienceNumber Analogies: Squares Minus One
Find out the number analogy alternative: 49 : 2400 :: 59 : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3480)
Pattern: n2−1. 492−1=2401−1=2400. For 59: 592−1=3481−1=3480.
Q958
General Awareness & ScienceFigure Analogy & Rotations
Select the related shape from the given options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Diagonal trident pointing to the upper-right with 3 prongs and lower-left stem (Option C))
Rotating the trident figure clockwise by 45∘ shifts the 3 pronged arrows to point toward the upper-right (45∘ azimuth) with the stem extending toward the lower-left, exactly matching Option C.
Q959
General English & ComprehensionFundamental Rights & Union of States
Match Column -X (article in the Indian Constitution) with their objectives in Column -Y:
| Column - X | Column - Y | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Article 1 | I. Guarantees equal opportunity in public employment | | 2. Article 14 | II. Guarantees equality before the law | | 3. Article 16 | III. Defines India as a Union of States |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-III, 2-II, 3-I)
1. Article 1 defines India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States (III) 2. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws (II) 3. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (I). Hence, the correct matching is 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.
Q960
General English & ComprehensionPhysical Geography & Mountain Ranges of Ladakh & J&K
Which major mountain range forms the northern boundary of Ladakh, contributing to its isolation and strategic significance?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Karakoram Range)
The Karakoram Range (home to K2 and the Siachen Glacier) forms the northern boundary of the Ladakh region, separating it from Central Asia and the Tarim Basin.
Q961
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KEducational Initiatives & Current Affairs
What is the name of the Channel launched by Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan for Indian Sign Language?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bhartiya Sanketik Bhasha DTH Channel)
Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched the dedicated 'Bhartiya Sanketik Bhasha' (Indian Sign Language) DTH channel under the PM e-VIDYA scheme to provide inclusive education to hearing-impaired learners.
Q962
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KForeign Trade Policy & DGFT Initiatives
Who launched the 'Trade Watch', a weekly publication focusing on India's trade developments?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Directorate General of Foreign Trade)
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, launched 'Trade Watch' as a periodic trade intelligence digest analyzing India's export-import trends and market developments.
Q963
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KIndo-Pak Wars & Diplomatic Treaties
The 1965 war between India and Pakistan over Kashmir ended with the signing of which agreement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tashkent Declaration)
The Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 ended with the signing of the Tashkent Declaration on January 10, 1966, mediated by Soviet Premier Alexei Kosygin between Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and President Ayub Khan.
Q964
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KConstitutional Amendments of J&K
Which constitutional amendment replaced the position of Sadr-e-Riyasat with the title of Governor in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (6th Amendment)
The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir (Sixth Amendment) Act, 1965, amended the state constitution to replace the designation of 'Sadr-e-Riyasat' with 'Governor' and 'Prime Minister (Wazir-e-Azam)' with 'Chief Minister'.
Q965
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KIndian Art, Culture & Classical Folk Dances
Match the following states with their corresponding folk dances:
| Column - X | Column - Y | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Andhra Pradesh | I. Lambadi, Dhimsa | | 2. Gujarat | II. Bhavai, Juriun | | 3. Kerala | III. Kathakali, Ottamthullal |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-I, 2-II, 3-III)
1. Andhra Pradesh: Lambadi and Dhimsa folk dances (I) 2. Gujarat: Bhavai and Juriun/Garba folk dances (II) 3. Kerala: Kathakali (classical) and Ottamthullal folk dance (III). Correct matching code is 1-I, 2-II, 3-III.
Q966
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KArt, Handicrafts & Cultural Heritage of J&K
The art of Pashmina weaving in Kashmir is an example of which type of cultural expression?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Handicrafts)
Pashmina shawl weaving (spun from Changthangi goat wool) is an indigenous textile handicraft with Geographical Indication (GI) tag, representing Kashmir's master craft heritage.
Q967
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KTourism & Major Lakes of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following highlights the economic significance of Dal Lake in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It is renowned for tourism, houseboats, and shikara rides, contributing significantly to the local economy)
Dal Lake, known as the 'Jewel in the crown of Kashmir', is the backbone of Srinagar's tourism economy through its iconic shikaras, heritage houseboats, floating vegetable markets, and handicraft trade.
Q968
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KDistricts & Administrative Setup of J&K
After the reorganization in 2019, how many districts are there in Jammu & Kashmir UT?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (20)
Following the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh (consisting of Leh and Kargil districts), the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises exactly 20 districts (10 in Jammu Division and 10 in Kashmir Division).
Q969
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Governance & Legislative Assembly Powers
Who among the following will aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu & Kashmir on matters that the assembly has powers to legislate?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Council of Ministers)
According to Section 53 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, there shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than 10% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor on matters where the Assembly has legislative power.
Q970
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Constitution Key Articles
Which article of the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution (before 2019) defined the relationship between the state and the Union of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 3)
Article 3 of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir irrevocably declared: 'The State of Jammu and Kashmir is and shall be an integral part of the Union of India.'
Q971
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
In accordance with the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019, how many women can be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor to the Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2)
Under Section 15 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Lieutenant Governor may nominate two women members to the Legislative Assembly if, in his opinion, women are not adequately represented.
Q972
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KBorder Roads Organisation & Projects in Ladakh
Consider the following statements about Project HIMANK: I. It is a project of NHAI II. It is responsible for the construction of roads in J&K and Ladakh
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II only)
Statement I is incorrect: Project HIMANK (established in 1985) is a landmark project of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), not NHAI. Statement II is correct: Project HIMANK is known as 'The Mountain Tamers' and is responsible for constructing world-record high-altitude roads (like Umling La and Khardung La) across Ladakh and J&K. Hence, II only is correct.
Q973
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KActive and Passive Voice
Choose the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: "My aunt promised me a present."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I was promised a present by my aunt.)
In changing 'My aunt (subject) promised (past simple) me (indirect object) a present (direct object)' to passive voice, the standard idiomatic construction promoting the personal indirect object is: 'I was promised a present by my aunt.'
Q974
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech
Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: I said to my sister, "Let us go to some hill station for a change."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I suggested to my sister that we should go to some hill station for a change.)
In indirect speech, sentences starting with 'Let us' convey a proposal or suggestion. The reporting verb changes to 'suggested to / proposed to', followed by 'that we should...'. Hence: 'I suggested to my sister that we should go to some hill station for a change.'
Q975
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech
Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: "If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you," she said to him in a calm voice.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (She warned him calmly that she would shoot him if he didn't keep quiet.)
The threat represents a warning delivered in a calm manner. Pronouns shift from 'I' to 'she' and 'you' to 'him', with 'shall' becoming 'would': 'She warned him calmly that she would shoot him if he didn't keep quiet.'
Q976
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KModal Auxiliary Verbs
Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliary verbs: Ramesh ______ be coming to see us tomorrow.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (may)
May' is used to express future possibility or uncertainty regarding a planned visit: 'Ramesh may be coming to see us tomorrow.
Q977
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KModal Auxiliary Verbs
Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliary verbs: My grandfather is 86 years old but he ______ still read without his glasses.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (can)
Can' expresses present general physical capability/ability: '...he can still read without his glasses.
Q978
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: ______ weather was rainy, and we made ______ bet whether you would come.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The, a)
Weather' in this specific situation refers to the specific prevailing weather of that day, taking the definite article 'The'. 'Made a bet' is a standard English idiomatic collocated phrase. Hence: 'The weather was rainy, and we made a bet...
Q979
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KReading Comprehension
Which of the following best explains the author's statement, "An ounce of patience is worth a pound of brains"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Without patience, intelligence cannot be effectively utilized)
The proverb signifies that even a small amount of practical patience is vastly superior and more beneficial than abundant intellect (brains) if one lacks the emotional endurance to apply it calmly.
Q980
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KReading Comprehension
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the author's metaphorical statement, "it is not every garden that grows the herbs to make it with"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is only a small number of people that are found observing patience in life.)
The metaphor 'not every garden grows the herbs' correlates directly with the author's earlier clause 'few can practise it', meaning genuine patience is cultivated and observed by only a few rare individuals.
Q981
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KReading Comprehension
The writer's statement, "They think every person's burden to be light and their own feathers to be heavy as lead," holds great significance. It implies that:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (They feel that they alone face serious problems while others have a nice time)
The vivid contrast between another's heavy burden (viewed lightly) and one's own minor issues/feathers (felt as heavy as lead) highlights self-pity and the egocentric perception that one is uniquely suffering while others enjoy an easy life.
Q982
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KReading Comprehension
The writer's statement "It is their fancy rather than their fate" suggests that:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (They are unhappy because they think that way and not because it is their destiny)
'Fancy' means imagination/mindset whereas 'fate' means external destiny. The author clarifies that people's perpetual misery is a product of their pessimistic attitude rather than unavoidable bad luck.
Q983
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KSynonyms & Antonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the given word: LAXITY
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lethargy)
'Laxity' means lack of strictness, care, or discipline; sluggishness or slackness. Among the options, 'Lethargy' (or slackness) is the closest synonym.
Q984
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KSynonyms & Antonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the word: LISSOME
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ungainly)
'Lissome' means slim, supple, flexible, and graceful in movement. Its direct antonym is 'Ungainly', which means awkward, clumsy, or ungraceful.
Q985
General Intelligence & ReasoningTrue Discount & Commercial Mathematics
The true discount on Rs. 1800 due after a certain time at 10% per annum is Rs. 200. The time after which it is due is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (15 months)
Present Worth (PW): PW=Amount−True Discount=1800−200=1600 Using the formula TD=100PW×R×T: 200=1001600×10×T=160T T=160200=45 years=45×12=15 months.
Q986
Basic Concepts of ComputersSimple and Compound Interest
A sum of money amounts to Rs. 9,800 after 5 years and Rs. 12,005 after 8 years at the same rate of simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12%)
Simple Interest for 3 years (between Year 5 and Year 8): SI3 yrs=12005−9800=2205 Simple Interest for 1 year: SI1 yr=32205=735 Principal P: P=9800−(5×735)=9800−3675=6125 Rate of Interest R: R=PSI1 yr×100=6125735×100=12%.
Q987
Basic Concepts of ComputersSimple and Compound Interest
The difference between simple interest and compound interest (interest is compounded half yearly) on a sum at the rate of 25% per annum for one year is Rs. 4,575. What will be the principal?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 292800)
For half-yearly compounding over 1 year: - Number of conversion periods n=2 - Rate per half-year r=225%=12.5%=81 Difference formula for 2 periods: Diff=P(100r)2=P(81)2=64P Given Diff=4575: P=4575×64=292,800 Rs.
Q988
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss & Discounts
A shopkeeper offers a discount of 15% on the marked price of an item. If the marked price of the item is Rs. 800, what is the selling price?
If the population of a town increases by 12% annually, what will be the population after 5 years if the current population is 50,000?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (88117)
Compound population formula: P5=P0×(1+r)n=50000×(1.12)5. (1.12)5≈1.76234168. P5=50000×1.76234168≈88,117.
Q990
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KDeterminers & Pronouns
Which of the following sentences uses a possessive determiner correctly?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Her dog loves to play in the park every afternoon)
'Her' in Option A is a possessive determiner modifying the noun 'dog' correctly.
Q991
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSentence Improvement & Collective Nouns
Choose the correct alternative to improve the bold part: The jury was unanimous in their verdict after hours of deliberation.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (was unanimous in its verdict)
When a collective noun like 'jury' acts as a single unified body (indicated by 'unanimous'), it takes a singular verb and singular neuter pronoun: 'was unanimous in its verdict'.
Q992
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KError Spotting & Distributive Pronouns
In this question, find out the error part: Each one of the students (a) / are responsible (b) / for completing the assignments (c) / on time. (d)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (are responsible)
'Each one' is a distributive singular subject that requires the singular verb 'is responsible', not plural 'are responsible'. Error is in part (b).
Q993
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KMajor Tunnels & Infrastructure in J&K
On what date was the Z-Morh tunnel inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (January 13, 2025)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 6.5-km bi-directional Z-Morh Tunnel on January 13, 2025, providing all-weather road connectivity to Sonamarg in Ganderbal district on the Srinagar-Leh highway.
Q994
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSports & World Chess Championship 2024
India's D Gukesh defeated which chess player during the World Chess Championship 2024 in Singapore?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ding Liren)
18-year-old Indian Grandmaster Dommaraju Gukesh created history by defeating defending champion Ding Liren of China in the FIDE World Chess Championship 2024 in Singapore, becoming the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion.
Q995
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KParis 2024 Olympics & Indian Medalists
In which event and what medal did Swapnil Kusale win at the Paris 2024 Olympics?
Swapnil Kusale won the Bronze Medal in the Men's 50m Rifle 3 Positions shooting event at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games, becoming the first Indian shooter to win an Olympic medal in this discipline.
Q996
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KNational Sports Awards & Khel Ratna 2024
Which of the following pairs is/are correct regarding the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 awardees? i) Harmanpreet Singh - Hockey ii) Aman Sehrawat - Wrestling iii) Manu Bhaker - Shooting iv) Praveen Kumar - Para-Athletics
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, iii and iv)
India's highest sporting honor, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024, was conferred on hockey captain Harmanpreet Singh, double Olympic medalist Manu Bhaker (Shooting), and Paralympic gold medalist Praveen Kumar (Para-Athletics).
Q997
General Awareness & Current AffairsTraditional Indian Paintings & Visual Arts
Thanjavur painting, a classical art form, is associated with which state in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Tamil Nadu)
Thanjavur (Tanjore) painting is a celebrated indigenous classical South Indian painting style that originated in the town of Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, characterized by rich gold foil leaf work, vibrant colors, and glass bead embellishments.
Q998
General Awareness & Current AffairsSikh Gurus & Medieval Indian History
The fifth Sikh guru "Guru Arjan Dev", is known for which significant contribution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Compiling the Adi Granth)
Guru Arjan Dev Ji, the fifth Sikh Guru, compiled the sacred Adi Granth (the first official edition of the Sikh scripture) in 1604 and installed it at the Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple), Amritsar.
Q999
General Awareness & Current AffairsBritish Governor-Generals & Policies
The Doctrine of Lapse, a policy used by the British East India Company to annex Indian states, was introduced by which Governor-General of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Dalhousie)
The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856), leading to the annexation of Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur, Baghat, Udaipur, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
Q1000
General Awareness & Current AffairsCivil Disobedience Movement & Salt Satyagraha
Which of the following was the main objective of Mahatma Gandhi's Salt March in 1930?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To protest against the British salt tax)
Mahatma Gandhi launched the historic Salt March (Dandi Satyagraha) from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi in March-April 1930 to directly defy and protest against the British colonial monopoly and heavy tax on salt, inaugurating the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Q1001
General Awareness & Current AffairsQuit India Movement 1942 & Slogans
Which slogan became famous during the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Do or Die)
Mahatma Gandhi delivered his historic call of 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay during the launch of the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942.
Q1002
General Awareness & Current AffairsSoils of India & Agriculture
Which of the following statements about Laterite Soil is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The formation of this soil is favored by low rainfall and low moisture conditions.)
Statement C is incorrect: Laterite soil develops in regions with high temperature and heavy seasonal rainfall with alternating wet and dry periods, causing intense leaching (not low rainfall).
Q1003
General Awareness & Current AffairsDrainage System & Major Rivers of India
Which of the following is the longest river in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ganga)
The Ganga is the longest river flowing within India with a total length of 2,525 km (originating from the Gangotri Glacier and flowing through Uttarakhand, UP, Bihar, and West Bengal into the Bay of Bengal).
Q1004
General Awareness & Current AffairsMountain Ranges & Highest Peaks of India
Arrange the following mountain peaks in the ascending order of their height: i. Saser Kangri ii. Hardeol iii. Kangchenjunga iv. Nanda Devi
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ii, i, iv, iii)
Peak heights in ascending order (shortest to tallest): 1. Hardeol (7,151 m - ii) 2. Saser Kangri (7,672 m - i) 3. Nanda Devi (7,816 m - iv) 4. Kangchenjunga (8,586 m - iii). Correct sequence: ii, i, iv, iii.
Q1005
General Awareness & Current AffairsHimalayan Peaks & Physiography
The mountain peak "Nanda Devi" is located in which state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Uttarakhand)
Nanda Devi (7,816 m), the second highest mountain peak located entirely within India, is situated in the Garhwal Himalayas in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
Q1006
General Awareness & Current AffairsCoastal Geography & Famous Beaches
Which of the following location-beach pairings is not correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Radhanagar beach - Andhra Pradesh)
Radhanagar Beach (Asia's best beach / Blue Flag beach) is located on Havelock Island (Swaraj Dweep) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, NOT in Andhra Pradesh.
Q1007
General Awareness & Current AffairsStates and Capitals of India
General Awareness & Current AffairsIntegration of States & Reorganisation
In what year did Sikkim become a part of the Indian Union?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1975)
Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Indian Union on May 16, 1975, following the Constitution (36th Amendment) Act, 1975, after a historic referendum ending the Chogyal monarchy.
Q1009
General Awareness & Current AffairsState Reorganisation Act 1956
Which of the following states was formed by merging Travancore and Cochin with parts of the Malabar district of Madras State?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kerala)
The State of Kerala was created on November 1, 1956, under the States Reorganisation Act, merging the Malayalam-speaking regions of Travancore-Cochin with the Malabar district and Kasaragod taluk.
Q1010
General Awareness & Current AffairsPost-Independence Integration & French Territories
In 1954, which Union Territory was transferred to India by the French?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Puducherry)
The French establishments in India (Pondicherry, Karikal, Mahe, and Yanam) were de facto transferred to the Republic of India on November 1, 1954, forming the Union Territory of Puducherry.
Q1011
General Awareness & Current AffairsChemical Compounds & Daily Life Chemistry
What is the chemical formula for table salt?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (NaCl)
Common table salt is composed of Sodium Chloride, represented by the chemical formula NaCl (an ionic lattice of Na+ and Cl− ions).
Q1012
General Awareness & Current AffairsVitamins, Nutrients & Human Physiology
Which vitamin is mainly produced when the skin is exposed to sunlight?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vitamin D)
Vitamin D (specifically Vitamin D3 / Cholecalciferol) is synthesized in human skin cells when 7-dehydrocholesterol absorbs solar ultraviolet-B (UVB) radiation.
Q1013
General Awareness & Current AffairsAcids, Bases, and pH Scale
Which of the following pairs of pH values of substances is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Water - pH value 5.5)
Pure distilled water is neutral and has a neutral pH value of 7.0 at 25∘C, NOT 5.5 (which represents acidic unbuffered water). Hence, Pair B is incorrect.
Q1014
General Awareness & Current AffairsSolar System & Astronomy
Match the different planets with their common names:
| Planets | Common Names | | :--- | :--- | | i) Venus | 1) Red Planet | | ii) Mars | 2) Giant Planet | | iii) Jupiter | 3) Ringed Planet | | iv) Saturn | 4) Morning and evening star |
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
i) Venus - Morning and evening star (4) ii) Mars - Red Planet (1) iii) Jupiter - Giant Planet (2) iv) Saturn - Ringed Planet (3). Correct matching code is i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3.
Q1015
General Awareness & Current AffairsLight Optics & Atmospheric Phenomena
Which of the following phenomena is/are responsible for the formation of the rainbow? i) Dispersion ii) Reflection iii) Refraction iv) Diffraction
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only i, ii and iii)
A rainbow is produced by dispersion of sunlight by raindrops involving three optical processes: refraction of light as it enters the drop, total internal reflection inside the drop, and refraction as it exits the raindrop.
Q1016
General Awareness & Current AffairsCell Biology & Organelles
What is the powerhouse of the cell?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mitochondria)
Mitochondria are known as the 'powerhouses of the cell' because they generate most of the chemical energy required for cellular processes in the form of Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) via cellular respiration.
Q1017
General ScienceMountain Passes & Mughal Road
Which pass connects the Kashmir Valley with Rajouri and Poonch through the Pir Panjal Range?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pir Panjal Pass)
The historic Pir Panjal Pass (also known as Peer Ki Gali at 3,490 m) on the Mughal Road directly connects Shopian in the Kashmir Valley with Poonch and Rajouri districts in Jammu across the Pir Panjal Range.
Q1018
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentPsychiatric Epidemiology
The study of how diseases and disorders are distributed and what factors determine their presence or absence in a population is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Epidemiology)
Epidemiology is the study of the distribution, patterns, and determinants of health, diseases, and psychological conditions in specified human populations.
Q1019
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentPsychopathology & Etiology
For psychological disorders, etiology refers to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (causes)
In clinical psychology and psychopathology, etiology denotes the underlying causes and contributing causal factors that lead to the development of a disorder.
Q1020
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDiagnostic Classification Systems
Which systems introduced multiaxial diagnostic assessment system in DSM?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DSM III)
The multiaxial diagnostic system (Axis I through Axis V) was first introduced in DSM-III (1980) by the American Psychiatric Association.
Q1021
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDSM-5-TR Revisions
When was the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision published?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2022)
DSM-5-TR (Text Revision) was officially released by the American Psychiatric Association in March 2022.
Q1022
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentAnalysis of Variance (ANOVA)
How do we analysis data when we have one independent variable having three levels and one dependent variable and participants are randomly assigned to conditions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (One-way Independent groups ANOVA)
A One-way Independent Groups ANOVA is the appropriate statistical test when there is one categorical IV with 3 or more between-subjects levels and one continuous DV.
Q1023
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDescriptive and Inferential Statistics
What are the attributes of Sample Statistics? 1. Known; 2. Estimated; 3. Calculated; 4. Unknown
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2 and 3 Only)
Sample statistics are computed/calculated directly from observed sample data (3) and used to estimate unknown population parameters (2).
Q1024
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentHypothesis Testing & Statistical Power
What is 1 - beta in hypothesis testing?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Power)
In statistical inference, beta (β) is the probability of a Type II error. Therefore, 1 - β represents the Statistical Power of the hypothesis test.
Q1025
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentHypothesis Testing & Alpha Errors
Type I error in statistical inference refer to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rejecting true null hypothesis)
A Type I error (alpha error) is the incorrect rejection of a null hypothesis that is actually true.
Q1026
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentNon-Parametric Methods
Which of the following are non-parametric tests? 1. Mann-Whitney U test 2. Kruskal-Wallis test 3. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test 4. Pearson correlation
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, and 3)
Mann-Whitney U, Kruskal-Wallis, and Kolmogorov-Smirnov are distribution-free non-parametric tests. Pearson correlation is a parametric test.
Q1027
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentStatistical Tests Matching
Match the following tests: i. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test — 3. Test of normality ii. Chi-square test — 2. Goodness of fit test iii. Wilcoxon signed rank test — 4. Alternative to dependent Samples t-test iv. Spearman's rho — 1. Correlation for Rank data
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1)
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentParametric vs Non-Parametric Tests
Match the Parametric test with its Non-Parametric Alternative:
| Parametric test | Non Parametric Alternative | | :--- | :--- | | i. Independent Samples t-test | 2. Median Test | | ii. One Way ANOVA | 4. Kruskal-Wallis test | | iii. Dependent Samples t-test | 1. Sign test | | iv. Pearson's correlation | 5. Kendall's Tau |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-5)
i) Independent t-test -> Median Test (2); ii) One-way ANOVA -> Kruskal-Wallis (4); iii) Paired t-test -> Sign Test / Wilcoxon (1); iv) Pearson -> Kendall's Tau (5).
Q1029
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentStatistical Tests
Match the following tests: i. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test — 3. Test of normality ii. Chi-square test — 2. Goodness of fit test iii. Wilcoxon signed rank test — 4. Alternative to dependent Samples t-test iv. Spearman's rho — 1. Correlation for Rank data
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1)
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentResearch Designs & Control
Match the Experimental Design with its Control:
| Experimental Design | Control | | :--- | :--- | | i. Post-test only | 5. Weak controls | | ii. Having covariate in design | 4. Statistical control | | iii. Repeated measures design | 2. Controls Individual differences | | iv. Factorial design | 1. Second IV |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-5, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1)
Matching: i-5 (Post-test only provides weak control), ii-4 (Covariate gives statistical control), iii-2 (Repeated measures controls individual differences), iv-1 (Factorial design adds a second IV).
Q1031
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentSampling Techniques
Match the Sampling method with its Characteristics:
| Sampling method | Characteristics | | :--- | :--- | | i. Simple Random | 2. Requires list of all participants | | ii. Cluster | 1. Probability sampling using groups in population | | iii. Quota | 4. Non-probability sampling using groups in population | | iv. Snowball | 5. Sampled provides sample |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-5)
Matching: i-2 (Requires complete sampling frame), ii-1 (Probability sampling of natural groups), iii-4 (Non-probability group sampling), iv-5 (Chain-referral sampling).
Q1032
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentScales of Measurement
Match the Scale of measurement with its Characteristics:
| Scale | Characteristics | | :--- | :--- | | i. Ratio | 4. Absolute zero | | ii. Nominal | 1. Number as label for category | | iii. Equal Interval | 3. Arbitrary zero | | iv. Ordinal | 2. Unequal intervals |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2)
Matching: i-4 (Ratio has absolute zero), ii-1 (Nominal uses numbers as category labels), iii-3 (Interval scale has arbitrary zero), iv-2 (Ordinal has ranked unequal intervals).
Q1033
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentRegression Diagnostics
Match the Technical Issue in regression with its Characteristics:
| Technical Issue | Characteristics | | :--- | :--- | | i. Multicollinearity | 3. Correlation among predictors | | ii. Heteroscedasticity | 1. Lack of Constant error variance | | iii. Autocorrelation | 4. error is expected to be correlated with previous or future values |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-1, iii-2)
Matching: Multicollinearity is correlation among independent predictors (3), and Heteroscedasticity is non-constant error variance (1).
Q1034
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentPower Analysis & Sample Size
To estimate sample size before data collection for t-test, we need to know: 1. Expected value of 1-type II error 2. Level of significance 3. Expected effect-size 4. Mean X variance
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2, and 3 only)
A priori sample size determination for a t-test requires: Desired power (1−β), Significance level (α), and Expected effect size (Cohen's d).
Q1035
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentSampling Theory
Increase in sample size leads to 1. Reduced standard error 2. Inflation of standard error 3. Increase in df 4. Decrease in df
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only 1 and 3)
Since SE=σ/N and df=N−1, increasing sample size reduces standard error and increases degrees of freedom.
Q1036
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentThematic Analysis Phases
Arrange the steps of Braun and Clarke thematic analysis in the correct order: 1. Generating initial codes 2. Searching 3. Familiarising 4. Defining and naming 5. Reviewing
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3 -> 1 -> 2 -> 5 -> 4)
Sequence: Familiarising with data (3) -> Generating initial codes (1) -> Searching for themes (2) -> Reviewing themes (5) -> Defining and naming themes (4).
Q1037
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentQualitative Research Methods
Which of the following are qualitative methods? 1. Content analysis 2. Text mining 3. N-gram analysis 4. Grounded theory
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only 1 and 4)
Content analysis and Grounded Theory are classic qualitative research inquiry methods.
Q1038
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentStatistical Software Packages
Which of the following is open software for analysis? 1. R 2. SPSS 3. AMOS 4. SAS 5. Jamovi
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Only 1 and 5)
R and Jamovi are free and open-source statistical software tools. SPSS, AMOS, and SAS are commercial products.
Q1039
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentR Software
What are the characteristics of R software? 1. Open-source 2. Proprietary 3. Coding Needed 4. Multiple GUIs
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Only 1, 3 and 4)
R is an open-source programming language (1) that requires code syntax (3) and supports multiple GUIs like RStudio (4).
Q1040
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentPhenomenology of Hallucinations
Match the Term in sign and symptoms with its Example:
| Term in sign and symptoms | Example | | :--- | :--- | | i. Form | 3. Auditory hallucination | | ii. Content | 4. Voice saying "someone is following you" | | iii. Primary | 2. Hallucination as symptom of schizophrenia | | iv. Secondary | 1. Hallucination is due to substance consumption |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1)
Matching: Form is the modality (Auditory - 3); Content is the message (Voice statement - 4); Primary is intrinsic (Schizophrenia - 2); Secondary is organic/toxic (Substance - 1).
Q1041
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDelusional Phenomenology
Match the Type of Delusion with its Example:
| Type of Delusion | Example of Client Description | | :--- | :--- | | i. Persecutory | 3. Someone is constantly following me. | | ii. Delusion of grandeur | 4. Prime minister seeks my advice daily. | | iii. Jealousy | 2. My spouse has an affair with someone. | | iv. Erotomania | 1. Great actress is in love with me. |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1)
Matching: Persecutory (being followed - 3), Grandeur (PM takes advice - 4), Jealousy (unfaithful spouse - 2), Erotomania (celebrity in love - 1).
Match the Intellectual Disability Severity with its DSM-5 Criteria:
| Intellectual Disability Severity | DSM-5 Criteria | | :--- | :--- | | i. Severe | 4. Requires daily assistance with self-care activities and safety supervision | | ii. Profound | 3. Requires 24-hour care | | iii. Mild | 5. Can live independently with minimum levels of support | | iv. Moderate | 1. Independent living may be achieved with moderate levels of support |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-4, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1)
Matching: Severe requires daily support (4), Profound requires 24h care (3), Mild needs minimal support (5), Moderate achieves independent living with moderate support (1).
Which of the following statements about fMRI is/are correct? 1. It measures neuronal activity directly through electrical signals. 2. It relies on the Blood Oxygen Level-Dependent (BOLD) signal. 3. fMRI provides high spatial resolution compared to EEG
Choose the correct statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only 2 and 3 are correct)
fMRI measures hemodynamic changes using the Blood Oxygen Level-Dependent (BOLD) contrast (2 - True) and offers millimetric high spatial resolution superior to EEG (3 - True). Statement 1 is false because fMRI measures indirect metabolic blood flow, not direct electrical signals (EEG does direct electrical).
Q1044
Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Counseling Skills & Active Listening
What is the role of active listening in therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To fully understand and validate the client's thoughts)
Active listening serves to deeply comprehend, clarify, reflect, and validate the client's emotional experience and narrative, fostering rapport and unconditional positive regard.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Acknowledging and respecting the client's cultural background)
Cultural competence requires therapists to maintain cultural awareness, knowledge, and clinical skills to respectfully recognize and integrate a client's cultural background, values, and worldview.
Q1046
Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsNouns & Parts of Speech
The abstract noun in the below sentence is: It requires immense determination to pursue your dreams despite obstacles.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (determination)
'Determination' is an abstract noun denoting the quality of being resolute and firmness of purpose.
Q1047
Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsPronouns & Parts of Speech
The indefinite pronoun in the below sentence is: Mohan in the audience expressed concern about whether anything could be done to improve the situation.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (anything)
'Anything' is an indefinite pronoun referring to an unspecified thing or matter.
Q1048
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsAverages
The average weight of a group of 10 boys is 52 kg. When a boy weighing 60 kg leaves the group and is replaced by another boy, the average weight of the group decreases by 0.5 kg. Determine the weight of the boy who replaced him.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (55 kg)
Initial total weight =10×52=520 kg. New total weight =10×(52−0.5)=10×51.5=515 kg. Weight of new boy =60+(515−520)=60−5=55 kg.
Q1049
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsLCM and HCF
The LCM of two numbers is 120, and their HCF is 6. If the sum of the two numbers is 54, find the two numbers.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (24, 30)
Let the numbers be 6a and 6b where gcd(a,b)=1. 6ab=120⟹ab=20. 6(a+b)=54⟹a+b=9. The co-prime factors of 20 that add up to 9 are 4 and 5. The numbers are 6×4=24 and 6×5=30.
Q1050
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsModular Arithmetic & Powers
Find the value of 5^1234 (mod 16)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (9)
Modulo 16 powers of 5: - 51≡5(mod16) - 52=25≡9(mod16) - 53=45≡13(mod16) - 54=65≡1(mod16). Since 1234=4×308+2: 51234≡(54)308×52≡1308×25≡9(mod16).
Q1051
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsCompound Ratios
What is the smallest natural value of a + b + c if a:b = 4:7 and b:c = 6:5?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (101)
Combining the ratios: a:b=4:7=24:42 b:c=6:5=42:35 Thus, a:b:c=24:42:35. Smallest natural sum =24+42+35=101.
Q1052
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsLinear vs Non-Linear Resistors
Which of the following is NOT a type of non-linear resistor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wire-wound resistor)
A wire-wound resistor is a linear resistor whose resistance follows Ohm's law (V=IR) proportionally. Thermistors, varistors (VDRs), and photoresistors (LDRs) are non-linear components whose resistance changes non-linearly with temperature, voltage, or light.
Q1053
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsElectrical Energy & Tariff Calculation
In her house, Anita installed 4 new fans with each fan consuming 70 W in addition to the 6 fans already installed with each fan consuming 50 W. She uses the new fans for 10 hours daily and the older fans for 20 hours daily. Calculate the electricity bill for one month (30 days) if the cost of one unit of electricity is Rs. 10.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 2640)
Daily energy consumption: - New fans: 4×70 W×10 h=2800 Wh=2.8 kWh - Old fans: 6×50 W×20 h=6000 Wh=6.0 kWh - Daily total =2.8+6.0=8.8 kWh (units) - Monthly units (30 days) =8.8×30=264 units - Total bill =264×10=Rs. 2640.
Q1054
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsOhmic vs Non-Ohmic Conductors
Which of the following statements is correct regarding non-ohmic conductors?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Non-ohmic conductors have a resistance that varies with current, voltage and temperature changes.)
Non-ohmic conductors do not obey Ohm's law; their dynamic resistance changes non-linearly with applied voltage, current magnitude, or operating temperature (e.g. diodes, transistors, thermistors).
Q1055
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsKirchhoff's Laws & Limitations
Which of the following conditions could result in the violation of Kirchhoff's laws?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Influence of a varying magnetic field in the closed loop.)
Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) assumes an irrotational electrostatic field (∮E⋅dl=0). In the presence of a time-varying magnetic field inside the loop, Faraday's law applies ($\oint \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{l} = -d\Phi_B/dt eq 0$), causing apparent violation of KVL.
Q1056
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsKirchhoff's Laws (KCL & KVL)
Which of the following statements about Kirchhoff's first and second law is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kirchhoff's first law is applicable to circuits with resistive components only.)
Statement B is incorrect: Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL, First Law) is universally applicable to any electrical junction or node in any network (linear, non-linear, AC, DC, capacitive, inductive, or resistive).
Q1057
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsResistors in Parallel
The equivalent resistance of n resistors in parallel combinations will always be:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (less than the least value of resistance in the combination)
In a parallel combination, the equivalent resistance Req=(∑Ri1)−1 is always strictly less than the smallest individual resistance in the combination.
Q1058
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsResistance & Resistivity
The resistance of the wire is 10 ohms. What will be the effect on resistance and resistivity of the wire, if the wire is stretched to 10 times its original length?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Resistance increases by 100 times, resistivity remains unchanged.)
When a wire of length L and area A is stretched to 10L, its volume V=A⋅L remains constant, so its cross-sectional area becomes A/10. New resistance R′=ρA/1010L=100(ρAL)=100R. Resistivity (ρ) is an intensive intrinsic material property and remains completely unchanged.
Q1059
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsEarth Resistance Measurement
When measuring the resistance of an earthing system, which of the following factors is/are most important for ensuring accurate readings? 1. Length/Depth of the earthing electrode 2. Distance between measurement points 3. Type of soil surrounding the electrode
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Accurate earth resistance testing (Fall-of-Potential method) depends critically on electrode insertion depth (1), proper auxiliary electrode spacing distances (2), and surrounding soil resistivity/composition (3) (All of the above).
Q1060
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsGrounding vs Earthing
Which statement correctly differentiates between grounding and earthing in electrical systems?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Grounding connects electrical systems to the earth, while earthing refers to creating a reference point within the system.)
Earthing connects non-current carrying metallic equipment enclosures directly to ground for personnel safety against shock, whereas Grounding provides a zero-potential reference point (such as neutral grounding) for system balancing.
Q1061
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsHeating Appliances & Joule Heating
Which of the following statements correctly describes the principle of operation of an electric heater? 1. Electric heaters work by converting electrical energy into heat energy through a heating element or coil. 2. Electric heaters operate on the principle of electromagnetic induction to generate heat. 3. Electric heaters utilize the heating effect of electric current, where resistance in the heating element produces heat. 4. Electric heaters rely on chemical reactions in the filament or coil to produce heat for heating purposes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only 1 and 3)
Electric heaters function via Joule's heating effect of electric current (H=I2Rt), converting electrical energy directly into thermal heat energy across a resistive alloy coil (Statements 1 and 3 are correct).
Q1062
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsHeating Elements (Nichrome)
Which material is commonly used as the heating element in an electric iron and why is it preferred?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nichrome, due to its high resistance and ability to withstand high temperatures)
Nichrome (an alloy of 80% Nickel and 20% Chromium) is preferred because of its high electrical resistivity, high melting point (~1400°C), and formation of a protective chromium oxide layer that prevents oxidation at high temperatures.
Q1063
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsElectric Water Heaters & Geysers
Match the different types of electric water heaters with their working principle:
| Types of Heater | Working Principle | | :--- | :--- | | i) Normal Plate Heater | 2) Consists of two round-shaped nickel plates separated by a gap of 2 mm with an insulator | | ii) Immersion Water Heater | 3) Tube is shaped like a U or a coil and filled with magnesium oxide that acts as an insulator | | iii) Geyser Water Heater | 1) Consists of an electric heating element made of Nichrome |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-1)
Matching: i) Normal plate heater uses spaced nickel plates (2); ii) Immersion heater features a copper/sheathed U-tube packed with magnesium oxide (MgO) insulation (3); iii) Storage geysers feature heavy-duty enclosed nichrome heating elements (1). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-1.
Q1064
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsFuzzy Logic in Modern Appliances
What is the primary function of the Fuzzy Inference Unit (FIU) in a fuzzy controller used in a washing machine?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To apply fuzzy logic rules for decision-making based on input conditions)
The Fuzzy Inference Unit (FIU) processes fuzzified input sensor variables (such as load weight, fabric type, dirt level) by evaluating IF-THEN linguistic fuzzy rules to determine optimal wash duration, water level, and spin speed.
Q1065
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsWashing Machines Working Principle
What is the primary working principle of a washing machine?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Agitation - The process where clothes are moved vigorously in water to enhance cleaning.)
The primary mechanical principle of a washing machine is agitation (or pulsator/tumbling motion) where vigorous mechanical turbulence forces water and detergent through fabric weave to dislodge dirt particles.
Q1066
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsRefrigeration Cycle Components
Match the components in the refrigerator system with the corresponding functions:
| Components | Function | | :--- | :--- | | i) Evaporator | 2) Features tubes with high thermal conductivity that absorbs heat rejected in the system. | | ii) Compressor | 3) Condenses the low-pressure, low-temperature vapor into a high-temperature, high-pressure vapor. | | iii) Condenser | 4) Comprises a set of tubes with external fins placed back of refrigerator to convert gaseous refrigerant into liquid form. | | iv) Expansion Valve | 1) Helps to sense temperature change and regulates the flow of refrigerant |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
Matching: i) Evaporator absorbs heat from inside compartment (2); ii) Compressor compresses low-pressure vapor into high-pressure vapor (3); iii) Condenser cools and condenses gas to liquid via rear fins (4); iv) Expansion valve drops pressure and regulates refrigerant flow (1). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
Q1067
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsLaws of Illumination (Lambert's Law)
A surface is inclined at an angle of 45° to the rays and is kept 5 m away from a 150 candle power lamp. Calculate the average intensity of illumination on the surface. (Value of square root of 2 = 1.414)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4.2 Lux)
According to Lambert's Cosine Law of Illumination: E=d2Icosθ=52150×cos45∘=25150×1.4141=1.4146≈4.24 Lux≈4.2 Lux.
Q1068
Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyUniversal Motor & Series Motor on AC
Which type of DC motor can operate on a single-phase AC supply and why?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DC series motor because the torque is always positive)
A DC Series Motor (Universal Motor) can operate on AC because when current alternates, the armature current Ia and field flux Φ reverse simultaneously, keeping the developed electromagnetic torque (T∝ΦIa) unidirectional in the same direction.
Q1069
Power Generation & DistributionDamper Windings & Hunting
What is the function of the damper winding in an alternator?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To eliminate hunting and suppress the negative sequence field)
Damper (amortisseur) windings in synchronous machines suppress rotor oscillations (hunting) during load surges and damp out unbalanced negative-sequence armature reaction magnetic fields.
Q1070
Power Generation & DistributionAmmeter Shunt Resistance
What is the purpose of using a shunt resistor in an ammeter?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To bypass excess current)
A low-resistance shunt (Rsh) is placed in parallel with the delicate galvanometer movement to bypass the vast majority of the circuit current, allowing only a safe fractional current to pass through the meter coil.
Q1071
General English & Quantitative AptitudeResistive AC Circuits & Unity Power Factor
When the current is in phase with the circuit voltage, the power factor of the circuit is unity. This condition occurs in which type of circuit?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Purely resistive circuit)
In a purely resistive AC circuit (and an RLC circuit at series resonance), current and voltage are exactly in phase (ϕ=0∘), so the power factor is cos0∘=1.0 (Unity).
Q1072
General English & Quantitative AptitudeOperating System Kernel & Functions
In an operating system, what is the primary role of a kernel?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Act as a bridge between hardware and applications.)
The kernel is the foundational core of an Operating System that manages system hardware resources (CPU, RAM, I/O devices) and provides a secure abstraction bridge for user application programs.
Q1073
Data Structures & AlgorithmsFunction Pointers in C
Which of the following is a correct declaration of a pointer to a function in C?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (int (*func)(int a);)
A function pointer returning `int` and accepting `int a` is declared with parentheses around the pointer symbol: `int (func)(int a);` (or `int (func)(int);`). Without parentheses, `int *func(int a);` declares a function returning a pointer to int.
Q1074
Data Structures & AlgorithmsC Functions & Recursion
Consider the following statements about functions in C: 1. Functions can return only one value. 2. Recursive functions can call themselves. 3. The void keyword is used to indicate that a function does not return a value. 4. Functions must always have a return type specified.
Choose the correct Statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 3 are correct)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. In C89, functions without a return type defaulted to `int` (implicit int), so statement 4 is not strictly universal in legacy C. Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Q1075
Data Structures & AlgorithmsSQL Aggregate Functions (COUNT)
What is the result of the following SQL query?
```sql SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Employee WHERE Salary > 50000; ```
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The number of employees with a salary greater than 50,000)
`COUNT(*)` aggregates and returns the total number of matching rows in the `Employee` table where `Salary > 50000`.
Q1076
Data Structures & AlgorithmsCandidate Keys & Functional Dependencies
A table has 5 attributes. If the table is in 1NF, how many candidate keys can it have?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Depends on the table)
The number of candidate keys is determined by the functional dependencies (FDs) between attributes, which varies from 1 up to many combinations depending on the relation's semantic schema.
Q1077
Database Management Systems (SQL)SQL Fundamentals
What does SQL stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Structured Query Language)
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the standard domain-specific language used for managing data held in relational database management systems.
Q1078
Operating Systems & System ArchitectureRuntime Polymorphism & Virtual Functions
Which of the following C++ features implements the concept of runtime polymorphism?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Virtual Functions)
Virtual Functions in C++ enable dynamic binding (late binding / runtime polymorphism) via virtual method tables (vtable and vptr). Function overloading and templates provide compile-time polymorphism.
Q1079
Operating Systems & System ArchitectureVirtual Function Overriding in C++
What is the output of the following C++ code?
```cpp #include <iostream> using namespace std;
class Base { public: virtual void display() { cout << "Base" << endl; } };
class Derived: public Base { public: void display() { cout << "Derived" << endl; } };
int main() { Base* b; Derived d; b = &d; b->display(); return 0; } ```
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Derived)
Because `display()` is declared `virtual` in `Base`, the call `b->display()` dynamically resolves at runtime to the overriding method in `Derived`. Output is `Derived`.
Q1080
Operating Systems & System ArchitectureFriend Functions & Classes in C++
What is the purpose of the friend function in C++?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To access private and protected members of a class)
A `friend` function in C++ is granted special non-member access permissions to read and modify the `private` and `protected` members of the class in which it is declared a friend.
Q1081
Operating Systems & System ArchitectureFunction & Operator Overloading in C++
Which of the following statements about overloading in C++ are correct? 1. Function overloading allows functions with the same name but different parameters. 2. Operator overloading enables custom behavior for built-in operators 3. Function overloading can be based on the return type alone 4. Overloaded functions must differ in their parameter list
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because functions differing only in return type cannot be overloaded (the compiler cannot distinguish which overload to invoke without context). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Arrange the following steps for creating a pure virtual function in C++: 1. Declare a function as virtual 2. Use the = 0 syntax to make it pure virtual 3. Implement the function in the derived class 4. Create an abstract class containing the function
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4 → 1 → 2 → 3)
Order: 4 (Create abstract base class) → 1 (Declare function with `virtual` keyword) → 2 (Append `= 0;` specifier) → 3 (Override and implement in concrete derived classes). Order: 4 → 1 → 2 → 3.
Q1083
Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringObject-Oriented Design Fundamentals
Which of the following statements about Object-Oriented Programming are true? 1. It supports inheritance 2. It emphasizes reusable code 3. It requires writing all logic in one function 4. It uses classes and objects
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are true. Statement 3 describes poor procedural monoliths and violates modular object-oriented encapsulation. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Q1084
Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringTurnaround Time Calculations
What is the turnaround time if a process takes 20 ms for execution and waits 10 ms in the ready queue?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (30 ms)
Turnaround Time is the total interval from submission to completion: Turnaround Time=Burst Time+Waiting Time=20 ms+10 ms=30 ms.
Q1085
Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionMountain Folk Dances
What is the famous folk dance of the mountain regions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Najerad)
Najerad (along with Kud) is a prominent traditional ritualistic folk dance celebrated across the mountainous terrains of the Jammu division.
Q1086
Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionBhand Community Dance Forms
Which folk dance is performed by the "Bhand" community of Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bachi Nagma)
Bachi Nagma (and Bhand Pather) is performed by the professional folk artists and dancers of the Bhand community.
Q1087
Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Wanwun Folk Singing
Wanwun is a form of folk song generally sung on which of the following occasions:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wedding)
Wanwun (Vanvun) is a rhythmic choral wedding song sung exclusively by women during marriage festivities across both Kashmiri Muslim and Kashmiri Pandit traditions.
Q1088
Musical Instruments & Vocal Traditions12-TET Tuning System
Which of the following options is correct and completes the statement given below appropriately? Statement: A Twelve Tone equal temperament system is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An octave is divided into 12 semi tones)
In 12-TET (Twelve-Tone Equal Temperament), an octave is mathematically divided into 12 equal logarithmic semitones with a frequency ratio of 21/12≈1.05946.
Q1089
Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsHarmonium Tuning Systems
In terms of tuning which type of harmonium is generally preferred for Indian Classical Music?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Equal Tempered)
Modern keyboard harmoniums are tuned to the 12-Tone Equal Tempered scale (Equal Tempered), allowing seamless modulation across multiple keys.
Q1090
Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureAtomic Mass Unit (amu) Definition
An atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as _____.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1/12 of the mass of a 6C12 atom)
The unified atomic mass unit (1 u / amu) is standardly defined as exactly 1/12 of the mass of an unbound neutral Carbon-12 (12C) atom at rest (1 amu≈1.66054×10−27 kg≈931.5 MeV/c2).
Q1091
Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureHDR Brachytherapy Unit Safety Standards
In compliance with the NRC regulations, the leakage radiation levels outside the HDR unit:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Should not exceed 1 mR/h at a distance of 10 cm with the source in the Shielded position)
Under NRC / IAEA radiation safety regulations for High Dose Rate (HDR) remote afterloader brachytherapy units with the source in the shielded home storage position, radiation leakage must not exceed 1 mR/h at a distance of 10 cm from the surface.
Q1092
Radiation Detection & DosimetryTransuranic Elements & Natural Abundance
Why are there no naturally occurring isotopes with an atomics number greater than 92?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (They exist, but their half-lives are too short to exist naturally)
Transuranic elements (Z>92, beyond Uranium) have unstable nuclei with half-lives vastly shorter than the 4.5-billion-year age of the Earth; any primordial isotopes formed during nucleosynthesis have completely decayed away.
The speed of ultrasound propagation (c=B/ρ) is determined exclusively by the acoustic properties of the propagation medium (bulk modulus elasticity and density), independent of wave frequency or amplitude.
Q1094
Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningDuane-Hunt Law & Maximum Photon Energy
Maximum energy an x-ray photon can have is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (eV)
According to the Duane-Hunt Law, the maximum kinetic energy transferred to a Bremsstrahlung photon corresponds to the full tube potential: Emax=hνmax=eV (where e is electron charge and V is applied peak tube voltage).
Q1095
Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningUltrasound Pulse-Echo Distance Formula
Bone thickness is equal to:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (c * Delta t / 2)
In pulse-echo ultrasound, sound travels to the reflecting bone interface and back (two-way transit time Δt). The one-way anatomical thickness is d=2c⋅Δt.
Q1096
Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningUltrasound Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF)
In ultrasound a 4 MHz transducer has a useful range of 10cm. What is the maximum pulse repetition frequency of this transducer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7.7 KHz)
Speed of sound in soft tissue c=1540 m/s=154,000 cm/s. Round-trip transit distance for depth d=10 cm is 2d=20 cm. Time required per pulse Δt=154,000 cm/s20 cm≈1.2987×10−4 s. Maximum PRF=Δt1=20154000=7700 Hz=7.7 kHz.
Q1097
Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningHounsfield Unit (HU) Calibration
Two materials used to calibrate the CT number scale of CT scanner are:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Water and Air)
The Hounsfield unit (HU / CT number) scale is fundamentally calibrated using Water (extCTnumber=0 HU) and Air (extCTnumber=−1000 HU).
An ultrasound transducer which utilizes a series of elements that transmit sequential sound waves in order to form a rectangular image is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Linear array)
A Linear Sequenced Array transducer fires sequential groups of parallel transducer crystals along a flat bar to produce a wide, rectangular field-of-view image format.
Q1099
Radiation Safety, Protection & Quality AssuranceBremsstrahlung Radiation Production
When high energy electrons decelerate in a high Z target, the predominant radiation emitted is?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bremsstrahlung)
When relativistic electrons decelerate in the strong nuclear Coulomb fields of heavy target atoms (Tungsten, Z=74), the dominant radiation produced is continuous Bremsstrahlung ('braking radiation').
Q1100
Radiation Safety, Protection & Quality AssuranceRadiation Units (Sievert)
A sivert is :
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The SI unit of dose equivalent)
The Sievert (Sv) is the SI unit of radiation Equivalent Dose (H) and Effective Dose (E), defined as 1 Joule of energy absorbed per kilogram of tissue multiplied by radiation weighting factors (1 Sv=1 J/kg=100 rem).
Q1101
Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyHead Measurement Unit
When drawing the human figure, which of the following is an important consideration to ensure accurate proportions?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The head height is typically used as a measurement unit for the body's proportion.)
The height of the head serves as the universal proportional unit (the 7.5 to 8 heads canon).
Q1102
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRelief Sculpture
Which of the following best defines a "Relief sculpture"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A sculpture carved or modelled on a flat surface, projecting partially from the background.)
Relief sculpture projects sculpted elements from a solid background plane.
Q1103
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingTypes of Relief
Match the following types of Relief sculpture with their descriptions :
Column A (Type of Relief): i. Bas-Relief ii. High Relief iii. Sunken Relief iv. Intaglio Relief.
Column B (Description): 1. Figures project prominently from the background. 2. Figures are slightly raised from the background. 3. Carvings are made below the level of the background. 4. A form of engraving where the design is cut into the surface.
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4)
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingBas-Relief Features
Which of the following is a characteristic features of a bas - relief sculpture?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Figures are slightly raised from the background.)
Bas-relief (low relief) features shallow projections where forms remain close to the background plane.
Q1107
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRelief Composition
Which of the following statements about sculptural Composition (Relief) are correct?
i. Relief sculptures are always carved on falt surfaces like walls or slabs. ii. High relief sculptures have figures projecting significantly from the background. iii. Sunken reliefs are primarily associated with ancient Egyptian art. iv. Bas - relief sculpture have figures slightly raised from the background.
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii and iv)
Statements i, ii, and iv correctly define the structural categories of relief sculpture.
Q1108
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingSculpture in the Round
What is a characteristic feature of a round sculpture?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It can be viewed from all sides.)
Sculpture in the round is free-standing and intended to be viewed from 360 degrees.
Q1109
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingIconic Round Sculptures
Which of the following is an example of a round sculpture?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The statue of David by Michelangelo)
Michelangelo's David is a monumental masterpiece of free-standing sculpture in the round.
Q1110
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRound Sculpture Mediums
Which material is commonly used in creating round sculptures?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Wood)
Wood (along with stone and bronze) is a premier traditional medium for free-standing round sculptures.
Q1111
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRound Sculpture Attributes
Which of the following statements about sculptural composition (Round) are correct?
i. Sculptures in the round are fully three - dimensional and can be viewed from all angles. ii. They are often attached to a flat background for support. iii. Materials like marble, bronze, and wood are commonly used for creating sculptures in the round. iv. Sculptures in the round are typically used in architectural decoration.
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, iii)
Statements i and iii are correct. Round sculptures are free-standing (not attached to flat backgrounds).
Q1112
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRound Sculpture Presentation
Identify the correct statements regarding the process and presentation of sculptural composition (Round).
i. Sculptures in the round require careful attention to details from all viewing angles. ii. They are commonly placed in niches or recessed spaces. iii. Balance and structural stability are crucial design considerations in round sculptures. iv. These sculptures are primarily designed for frontal viewing only.
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, iii)
Statements i and iii are correct. Round sculptures demand complete 360-degree consideration and structural stability.
Q1113
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingChronology of Iconic Sculptures
Arrange the following famous round sculptures in chronological order (earliest to latest):
i. The Great sphinx of Giza (Egypt). ii. Discobolus (The Discus Thrower) by Myron (Greece) iii. David by Michelangelo (Italy). iv. The Thinker by Auguste Rodin (France)
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i -> ii -> iii -> iv)
Chronology: Great Sphinx (c. 2500 BCE, i) -> Discobolus (c. 450 BCE, ii) -> David (1504 CE, iii) -> The Thinker (1904 CE, iv).
Q1114
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingPortraiture Purpose
What is the primary purpose of a portrait?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To represent a person's likeness and personality.)
A portrait aims to capture the individual likeness, mood, status, and personality of a specific person.
Q1115
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingFamous Portraits
Which of the following is an example of a famous portrait painting?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Mona Lisa by Leonardo da vinci.)
Leonardo da Vinci's Mona Lisa is the most famous portrait in art history.
Q1116
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingFacial Expression in Portraits
In portraiture, what is commonly emphasized to capture the subject's personality?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Facial expression and eyes.)
Facial expressions, gaze, and eye rendering convey psychological depth and personality in portraiture.
Q1117
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMaster Portrait Artists
Match the following famous portrait artists with their notable works :
Column A (Artist): i. Leonardo da Vinci ii. Johannes vermeer iii. Frida kahlo iv. Vincent van Gogh.
Column B (portrait): 1. Girl with a pearl Earring. 2. Self - portrait with a Straw Hat. 3. Mona Lisa. 4. The Two Fridas
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
Da Vinci -> Mona Lisa (3), Vermeer -> Girl with a Pearl Earring (1), Frida Kahlo -> The Two Fridas (4), Van Gogh -> Self-portrait with Straw Hat (2).
Q1118
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingPortrait Types
Match the following portraiture terms with their correct descriptions :
Column A (Term): i. Self - portrait ii. Profile portrait iii. Group portrait iv. Miniature portrait
Column B (Description): 1. A portrait depicting a group of people. 2. A portrait showing only the subject's side view 3. A portrait created by the artist of themselves. 4. A small, detailed portrait often worn as jewelry
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4)
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingPortraiture History
Identify the correct statements about historical portraiture traditions :
i. Portraiture was primarily reserved for royalty and nobility in early history. ii. Renaissance artists revolutionized portraiture with lifelike detail and realism. iii. Portraits in ancient Egypt focused heavily on capturing emotional expressions. iv. Modern portraiture often includes abstract and experimental styles.
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii and iv.)
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Ancient Egyptian portraits were formalized and idealized, not focused on transient emotions.
Q1120
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Sculpture Mediums
Which of the following metals is most commonly used in traditional metal sculpture making?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bronze.)
Bronze (copper-tin alloy) is the historic standard for metal sculpture casting.
Q1121
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingBronze Sculpture Civilizations
Which ancient civilization is well - known for its mastery of bronze sculptures?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ancient Greece.)
Ancient Greece is renowned for masterworks in bronze (e.g., Artemision Bronze, Riace Bronzes).
Q1122
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Casting
What is the process called where molten metal is poured into a mould to create sculptures?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Casting)
Casting is the manufacturing process where liquid metal is poured into a hollow mould.
Q1123
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingChronology of Famous Metal Sculptures
Arrange the following famous metal sculptures in chronological order (earliest to latest):
i. Dancing Girl of Mohenjo - Daro (India). ii. The Riace Bronzes (Greece) iii. The Statue of Liberty (USA). iv. Cloud Gate (USA)
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i -> ii -> iii -> iv)
Chronology: Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-Daro (c. 2300 BCE, i) -> Riace Bronzes (c. 450 BCE, ii) -> Statue of Liberty (1886 CE, iii) -> Cloud Gate (2006 CE, iv).
Q1124
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Sculpture Techniques
Identify the correct statements about the techniques and significance of metal sculptures:
i. Forging involves heating metal and hammering it into shape. ii. Patina is a naturally occurring layer that forms on metal sculptures over time. iii. Metal sculptures are limited to small - scale indoor artworks. iv. Welding is a common technique in assembling large metal sculptures.
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii and iv)
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Metal sculptures are widely used for monumental outdoor public monuments.
Q1125
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Sculpture Properties
Which of the following statements about metal sculptures are correct?
i. Bronze is one of the most commonly used metals for sculptures due to its durability and ability to capture fine details. ii. The lost - wax casting technique is a traditional method used in creating metal sculptures. iii. Metal sculptures cannot be used for outdoor installations due to corrosion. iv. Stainless steel is commonly used in modern metal sculptures for its resistance to rust.
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii and iv)
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Bronze and stainless steel are premier outdoor installation materials.
Q1126
Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyChemical Communication in Insects
Which chemicals do insects use to communicate messages at the following three levels, respectively: within the insect body, intra-specifically (between members of the same species), and inter-specifically(between members of different species)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hormone, pheromone and allomone, respectively)
Insects communicate internally via Hormones, among conspecifics via Pheromones, and across different species via Allelochemicals (Allomones/Kairomones).
Q1127
Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyHistory of Immunology
Term vaccine was coined by .....?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Louis Pasteur)
Louis Pasteur coined the term 'vaccine' in 1881 to honor Edward Jenner's pioneering discovery using cowpox (Variolae vaccinae).
HIV selectively binds to the CD4 receptor and CCR5/CXCR4 coreceptors on helper T-lymphocytes (CD4+ T cells).
Q1129
Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologySanctuaries and Fauna
Flying squirrels are reported in which of this sanctuary:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sitamata Sanctuary)
Sitamata Wildlife Sanctuary in Pratapgarh district, Rajasthan, is renowned for its nocturnal Indian giant flying squirrel population.
Q1130
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsBee Communication & Ethology
When honey bee discovers a food source less than 250 feet away from the hive, it passes on the information to other bees by performing?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Round dance)
Karl von Frisch proved that honeybees perform the round dance (Rundtanz) for nearby food sources (<50–100m) and the waggle dance (Schwänzeltanz) for distant sources.
Q1131
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsFoundations of Ethology
Term 'ethology' was introduced by
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Niko Tinbergen)
Niko Tinbergen and Konrad Lorenz established ethology as the scientific study of animal behavior in natural environments.
Q1132
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPheromone Functions
Functions of pheromones are
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Pheromones serve diverse semiochemical functions including mate attraction, trail marking, alarm signaling, and reproductive caste suppression in eusocial insects.
Q1133
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCommunity Ecology
Identify the correct match: Column-I: i) Species diversity ii) Species dominance iii) Stratification iv) Key stone Species
Column-II: 1. Great influence on community stability 2. Zonation according to the need of light 3. Different type of species in a community 4. Highest no.of one type of species
Choose the correct Answer
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1)
Which one of the following is a lymphoepithelial organ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Thymus)
The thymus is a primary lymphoepithelial lymphoid organ in which lymphoid progenitor cells interact with endodermal and ectodermal epithelial reticular cells.
The antigen and antibody binding does not involve:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Covalent bonds)
Antigen-antibody interactions rely exclusively on non-covalent forces (hydrogen bonds, electrostatic ionic interactions, van der Waals, and hydrophobic effects).
P53 protein is associated with all of the following except
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Post-transcription modifications)
p53 functions as a sequence-specific transcription factor orchestrating cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, and apoptosis; it does not perform post-transcriptional RNA splicing or modifications.
Q1141
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisHallmarks of Cancer
Which of the following is not a property of cancer cells?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Increased requirement of extracellular growth factors)
Transformed cancer cells exhibit self-sufficiency in growth signals, markedly reducing or eliminating their dependency on external growth factors.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (MHC class II molecules are present on all nucleated cells)
MHC Class I is expressed on all nucleated cells, whereas MHC Class II expression is strictly restricted to professional Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs: dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells).
Q1143
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisTypes of Immunity
Match the type of immunity listed in column I with the examples listed in column II. Column I (Type of immunity): 1. Natural active 2. Artificial passive 3. Artificial active 4. Natural passive
Column II (Example): i. Immunity developed by heredity ii. From mother to foetus through the placenta iii. Injection of antiserum to travellers iv. Fighting infections naturally v. Induced by vaccination
Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iv; 2-iii; 3-v; 4-ii)
Natural active -> Fighting natural infection (iv), Artificial passive -> Antiserum/antibodies injection (iii), Artificial active -> Vaccine induction (v), Natural passive -> Transplacental maternal IgG transfer (ii).
Q1144
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisEffective Population Size
Which of the following best defines effective population size (Ne)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The number of breeding individuals in a population who contribute to the gene pool.)
Effective population size (Ne) is the number of sexually breeding individuals in an idealized population that would experience the same rate of genetic drift or inbreeding as the actual population.
Assertion(A): T-helper cells are critical in coordinating adaptive immune responses. Reason(R) : They produce antibodies to target pathogens directly.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false)
Assertion is true (T-helpers coordinate cell-mediated and humoral immunity via cytokine signaling). Reason is false because plasma B-cells synthesize antibodies, not T-cells.
Assertion (A): Mammals are the only vertebrates that exhibit diaphragmatic breathing. Reason (R) : The diaphragm in mammals is crucial for oxygen supply during high-energy activities.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A)
The muscular diaphragm is a unique mammalian evolutionary innovation separating thoracic and abdominal cavities to support high endothermic metabolic oxygen demands.
Assertion (A): Natural selection is the only mechanism responsible for evolutionary change. Reason(R) : Genetic drift and mutations play minimal roles in shaping populations.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false.)
Assertion is false (evolution is also driven by genetic drift, mutation, and gene flow). In typical JKSSB keys, A is false and R is false.
Assertion (A): Primary succession occurs faster than secondary succession Reason (R) : Soil is already present in secondary succession, whereas it needs to develop in primary succession.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true.)
Primary succession on bare rock/lava takes hundreds to thousands of years because soil must form first. Secondary succession is much faster due to pre-existing soil and seed banks.
Assertion(A): Altruistic behavior is exclusively seen in social insects. Reason(R) : Kin selection explains altruistic acts towards close relatives in both insects and vertebrates.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true)
Assertion is false because altruism is widespread in birds, canids, and primates. Reason is true (Hamilton's kin selection theory explains altruism across all taxa).
Assertion(A): Gram-negative bacteria have a thicker peptidoglycan layer than Gram positive bacteria. Reason(R) : The outer membrane in Gram-negative bacteria adds an additional barrier, reducing permeability.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true)
Assertion is false (Gram-positive bacteria have a thick 20–80 nm peptidoglycan wall, while Gram-negatives have a thin 2–7 nm layer). Reason is true (outer LPS membrane serves as a permeability barrier).
Assertion (A): Plasmodium vivax can infect individuals who lack the Duffy antigen on their red blood cells. Reason(R) : The Duffy antigen acts as a receptor for Plasmodium vivax in erythrocytes.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true)
Assertion is false because Duffy-negative (Fy/Fy) erythrocytes are refractory to Plasmodium vivax merozoite invasion. Reason is true (the Duffy antigen/DARC is the obligate receptor).
Assertion (A) : Tumor suppressor genes function by promoting uncontrolled cell division. Reason (R) : Loss of function mutations in tumor suppressor genes are associated with cancer.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true)
Assertion is false (tumor suppressor genes brake the cell cycle and prevent uncontrolled division). Reason is true (inactivating loss-of-function mutations eliminate checkpoints).
Q1154
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisEndomembrane System
Assertion(A) : The Golgi apparatus is involved in synthesizing proteins. Reason (R) : It modifies, packages, and sorts proteins synthesized by ribosomes.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true)
Assertion is false (ribosomes synthesize proteins; Golgi modifies, glycosylates, and packages them). Reason is true.
Assertion(A) : All point mutations lead to observable phenotypic changes. Reason (R) : Silent mutations do not alter the amino acid sequence of a protein
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true.)
Assertion is false due to genetic code degeneracy where silent/synonymous mutations yield identical amino acid sequences and wild-type phenotypes. Reason is true.
Assertion(A) : A Population exhibiting exponential growth will have a J-shaped growth curve. Reason (R) : Exponential growth occurs under ideal conditions of unlimited resources.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A))
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation. When resources are non-limiting (dN/dt=rN), population growth accelerates exponentially into a classic J-shaped curve.
Which of the following is emphasized during counselling of a patient newly diagnosed with leprosy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The disease is curable with multi-drug therapy)
Counselling stresses that leprosy is completely curable with standard Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) and transmission ceases within days of initiating treatment.
Q1158
Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Immunology of Lepra Reactions
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in Type 1 lepra reaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Type IV (Cell-mediated))
Type 1 lepra reaction is a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity response caused by an acute upgrade or downgrade of cell-mediated immunity against M. leprae antigens.
Match the fungal infection with its clinical presentation: i. Tinea pedis ii. Tinea capitis iii. Tinea corporis iv. Candidiasis
Clinical Presentation: 1. Ring-shaped lesions on the trunk 2. Scaling and maceration of web spaces of toes 3. White patches in the oral cavity or moist areas 4. Scaling and hair loss on the scalp
Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
Tinea pedis -> Athlete's foot / web space maceration (2), Tinea capitis -> Scalp scaling and alopecia (4), Tinea corporis -> Ringworm of trunk (1), Candidiasis -> Oral thrush / white plaques (3).
Q1160
Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsCandidiasis and Antifungal Resistance
Consider the following statements about Candida infections: i. Candida is a part of the normal flora of the human body and can become pathogenic under certain conditions. ii. Pseudohyphae formation is a demonstrable feature of Candida albicans in KOH preparations. iii. Inhaled or systemic corticosteroids predispose to oral candidiasis. iv. Fluconazole is the first-line treatment for Candida auris infections.
Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, and iii)
Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is false because Candida auris is multidrug-resistant and frequently resistant to fluconazole (Echinocandins are first-line).
Match the following skin appendages (Column A) with their associated functions (Column B): Column - A: 1. Sebaceous glands 2. Eccrine sweat glands 3. Hair follicles 4. Nails
Column - B: i. Regulates body temperature ii. produces anti-inflammatory, antibacterial lipids iii. Provides protection from UV rays iv. Assists in fine motor functions
Select the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv)
1-ii (Sebaceous = sebum lipid barrier), 2-i (Eccrine = thermoregulation via evaporative cooling), 3-iii (Hair = UV and mechanical protection), 4-iv (Nails = distal digit support for fine pinch grasp).
Which of the following is an autoimmune bullous disorder?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chronic bullous disease of childhood)
Chronic Bullous Disease of Childhood (Linear IgA Bullous Dermatosis) is an autoimmune blistering disorder characterized by linear IgA deposition along the basement membrane zone.
Consider the following statements about the basic structure and function of the skin: i. The epidermis is avascular and relies on diffusion from the dermis for nutrients. ii. Melanocytes are present in the stratum spinosum of the epidermis. iii. The dermis contains collagen and elastin fibers that provide strength and elasticity to the skin. iv. The stratum corneum plays a major role in preventing water loss from the skin.
Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iii, and iv)
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Statement ii is false because melanocytes reside in the basal layer (stratum basale).
Arrange the following steps in the correct order for performing an indirect immunofluorescence test: i. Application of secondary antibody conjugated with a fluorescent dye ii. Application of the patient's serum containing primary antibody iii. Incubation of the tissue section iv. Observation under a fluorescence microscope
Select the correct order:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ii, i, iii, iv)
Indirect IF sequence: Substrate overlay with patient serum (ii) -> Incubation & washing (iii) -> Secondary FITC-conjugated anti-human antibody (i) -> Fluorescence microscopy (iv).
Consider the following pairs: Technique: i. Direct Immunofluorescence (DIF) ii. Indirect Immunofluorescence (IIF) iii. Western Blot iv. Immunohistochemistry
Purpose: 1. Detection of antibody in serum - two step 2. Detection of proteins, using gel electrophoresis 3. Antigen detection in tissue sections 4. Detecting antibody deposition in tissue - single step
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
DIF -> In vivo tissue antibody deposition (4), IIF -> Circulating serum autoantibodies (1), Western blot -> Size-separated protein detection (2), IHC -> Tissue antigen visualization with enzyme chromogen (3).
Q1168
Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesKOH Mount Examination
Consider the following statements about the KOH preparation test: i. Skin scrapings, hair, or nail samples may be examined using this test. ii. The test relies on the ability of potassium hydroxide to dissolve keratin and leave fungal hyphae intact. iii. A positive KOH test is definitive for a bacterial infection. iv. Clusters of yeast with short mycelial forms are diagnostic of dermatophytosis
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i and ii only)
Statements i and ii are correct. Statement iii is false (KOH tests for fungal elements); Statement iv is false (spaghetti and meatball pattern is diagnostic of Pityriasis versicolor / Malassezia, not dermatophytes).
Q1169
Basic EnglishPronouns
Identify the pronoun used in the given sentence. They themselves agreed that they were the ones responsible for the accident.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Themselves)
'Themselves' is an intensive/reflexive pronoun emphasizing the subject 'They'.
Q1170
Basic EnglishError Spotting - Pronoun Case
Find the error in the following sentence. He was much more surprised than me to see the dancing girl coming towards us.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (more surprised than me)
In formal comparative clauses with subject pronoun comparison, subjective case follows 'than': 'than I (was)'.
Q1171
Basic EnglishGender Nouns
Change the gender of a given noun. DUKE
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Duchess)
The feminine equivalent of the noble title 'Duke' is 'Duchess'.
Q1172
Basic EnglishCollective Nouns Agreement
Which of the following verbs fits the sentence and agrees with the subject ? The top management _______ divided on their suggestions regarding investment strategies.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Are)
When a collective noun ('management') acts as individuals with conflicting views (indicated by plural pronoun 'their'), it takes a plural verb: 'were/are divided'.
Q1173
Basic EnglishConjunctions
Choose the appropriate option that fills in the given sentence correctly: Smoking will never be given up, _______ the Tobacco industry thrives.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (As long as)
'As long as' (condition/duration conjunction) means 'provided that' or 'during the whole time that'.
Q1174
Basic EnglishInvariable Plural Nouns
Choose the incorrect sentence from the given options.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The space agency has created many types of aircrafts)
The noun 'aircraft' is an invariable plural (the plural form is 'aircraft', never 'aircrafts').
Q1175
General ScienceUniform Circular Motion
Suppose a boy is moving with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s on a merry-go-round ride. Which of the following is true of the given scenario?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The boy is moving with accelerated motion)
Uniform circular motion involves a continuous change in the direction of velocity, which creates a centripetal acceleration (a=rv2).
Q1176
History of India & Freedom StruggleTrade Union Movement
Who among the following personalities associated with the formation of All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) in 1920?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
AITUC was founded on October 31, 1920 with Lala Lajpat Rai as first President, Joseph Baptista as Vice-President, and N.M. Joshi as General Secretary.
Q1177
Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTGroundwater Pollutants
Which of the following element is responsible for groundwater pollution in various states?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Fluoride)
Excess fluoride (and arsenic) is a major geogenic groundwater pollutant across several Indian states, causing endemic fluorosis.
Q1178
Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTTunnels and Infrastructure in J&K
Which of the following options is the longest all weather road tunnel that has enabled increase in trade and tourism in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel)
Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel on NH-44) spans 9.28 km, making it India's longest bi-directional all-weather road tunnel.
What is the method of varying inductance in a coil?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Adjusting the core)
Inductance L=lμN2A is varied physically by adjusting the position or magnetic permeability of the ferromagnetic core inside the coil.
Q1180
Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsAccumulator Function
What role does the accumulator play in a refrigerator system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Prevents liquid flood back to compressor)
A suction line accumulator traps unevaporated liquid refrigerant exiting the evaporator, ensuring that only dry gas enters the compressor suction port, preventing liquid slugging.
Match List-I (Electronic component) to List-II (Function) and select correct answer List-I: i. Resistor ii. Capacitor iii. Diode iv. Transistor v. LED
List-II: 1. Stores electric charge 2. Regulates current flow and provides resistance 3. Amplifies signals or acts as a switch 4. Emits light when current flows through it. 5. Allows current to flow in one direction only
Choose the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-5, iv-3, v-4)
Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsPhilosophical Foundations of Education
According to Aristotle, what is the primary goal of education?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To develop virtuous citizens.)
Aristotle maintained that the ultimate aim of education is the cultivation of moral and intellectual virtue to create good, rational, and virtuous citizens living in eudaimonia (well-being).
Q1183
Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesCurriculum Foundations
The curriculum construction is based on -
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Curriculum construction relies on fundamental axioms of learning, pedagogical principles of child development, and contextual psychological/societal factors.
Q1184
Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesClassroom Communication
The nature of interaction in classroom is -
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Verbal and non-verbal)
Classroom communication involves verbal transactions (lectures, questions) and non-verbal cues (gestures, eye contact, facial expressions).
Which of the following Upanishads emphasizes the importance of self - knowledge?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mundaka Upanishad)
The Mundaka Upanishad distinguishes between lower empirical knowledge (Apara Vidya) and higher transcendental self-knowledge of Brahman (Para Vidya: 'Satyameva Jayate').
Q1186
Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationUN Sustainable Development Goals
Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) directly addresses the issue of quality education?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SDG 4)
United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) aims to 'Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all'.
Q1187
Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationUNCRPD International Treaty
What is the full form of UNCRPD?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities)
UNCRPD stands for the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, adopted in 2006 (ratified by India in 2007).
Q1188
Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationRehabilitation Council of India (RCI)
What is the primary function of the Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To regulate the education and training of professionals in the field of rehabilitation of persons with disabilities.)
The Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) is the statutory body regulating training curricula, standardizing qualifications, and maintaining the Central Rehabilitation Register for professionals in disability rehabilitation.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the RCI?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Providing vocational training to persons with disabilities.)
RCI regulates training institutions and professionals (registers personnel, recognizes degree/diploma colleges); it does not directly provide grassroots vocational training to PwDs.
Q1190
Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesUniversal Design for Learning
What is the most effective way to create a positive and inclusive classroom environment for CWSN?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Using universal design for learning (UDL) principles.)
Universal Design for Learning (UDL) provides multiple means of representation, engagement, and expression, creating an accessible environment for Children With Special Needs (CWSN).
Q1191
Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesHearing Impairment Communication
How can a teacher effectively communicate with a student who has a hearing impairment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Using sign language or an interpreter.)
Effective communication with deaf students relies on Indian Sign Language (ISL), certified interpreters, visual aids, and clear lip-reading facial cues.
Q1192
Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesUniversal Immunization Programme
Which of the following is the primary aim of the National Immunization Programme in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To ensure herd immunity against vaccine-preventable diseases through mass immunization)
The Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) aims to achieve >90% full immunization coverage across infants and pregnant women to establish community herd immunity against vaccine-preventable diseases (VPDs).
Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which vaccines induce long lasting immunity against infectious diseases?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Activation of T and B lymphocytes, leading to the formation of memory cells)
Vaccination introduces harmless pathogen antigens, stimulating clonal expansion of antigen-specific helper/cytotoxic T cells and B cells which differentiate into long-lived memory T and memory B lymphocytes.
Which of the following immunoglobulins is most commonly associated with providing immunity against pathogens at mucosal surfaces, such as the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (IgA)
Secretory IgA (dimeric with secretory component) is the dominant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions (saliva, tears, mucus, colostrum) neutralizing pathogens before tissue penetration.
Q1195
Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlActive vs Passive Immunity
Which of the following types of immunity is provided by a vaccination with a killed or inactivated pathogen?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Active immunity through antigen exposure)
Administering an inactivated vaccine introduces exogenous antigens that prompt the recipient's own immune system to generate active antibodies and memory cells (Artificially acquired active immunity).
Q1196
Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesHealth Communication & IEC
What is the main function of social mobilization within an Information , Education and Communication campaign?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To involve communities and stakeholders in promoting the campaign's objectives)
Social mobilization engages community leaders, grassroots institutions, NGOs, and families to collectively build ownership, demand, and participation in health initiatives.
Q1197
Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHASHA Community Health Training
What kind of training do ASHAs typically undergo before starting their duties in the community?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (An 18-day training on maternal and child health, nutrition, immunization, and family planning)
Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) undergo competency-based modular induction training (23 days in 5 modules) covering maternal-neonatal health, child nutrition, immunization, communicable diseases, and family planning.
Q1198
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationUniversal Health Coverage
Universal Health Coverage, as part of the WHO's global health agenda, aims to ensure that:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (All people have access to essential health services without financial hardship)
Universal Health Coverage (UHC) means that all individuals and communities receive the full spectrum of quality essential health services they need without suffering financial catastrophe.
Q1199
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationHealth Impact Assessment
The Health Impact Assessment is a process used to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Predict and assess the potential health impacts of policies, programs, or projects before they are implemented)
Health Impact Assessment (HIA) is a multidisciplinary combination of procedures and methods that prospectively evaluates the potential health effects of a proposed infrastructure project or policy on a community.
Q1200
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationClimate Change & Global Health
Which of the following is a major challenge in global health that is directly related to climate change?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rising food insecurity and malnutrition , particularly in developing countries)
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationGlobal Health Equity
The Lancet Commission on Global Health has emphasized the importance of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Reducing health inequalities and providing equitable health services globally)
The Lancet Commission emphasizes planetary health, addressing social determinants of health, and dismantling structural health inequities to guarantee equitable universal health systems.
Q1202
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationBasic Pharmacology - Beta Blockers
Which of the following is a "beta-blocker" used to treat high blood pressure and heart problems?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Metoprolol)
Metoprolol (and Atenolol, Propranolol) is a selective β1-adrenergic receptor blocker that reduces heart rate, cardiac output, and arterial blood pressure.
Q1203
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationAntipyretics and Anti-inflammatories
Which of the following drug classes is used to reduce fever and inflammation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Antipyretics)
Antipyretics (and NSAIDs like Paracetamol, Ibuprofen) lower elevated body temperature by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center.
Q1204
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationAnticoagulant Drugs
Which of the following drugs is used as an "anticoagulant" to prevent blood clot formation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Warfarin)
Warfarin is an oral vitamin K epoxide reductase inhibitor anticoagulant prescribed to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism.
Q1205
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationDiuretic Medications
Which of the following drugs is classified as a "diuretic" to help reduce swelling by increasing urine output?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Furosemide)
Furosemide (Lasix) is a potent loop diuretic that inhibits the Na+−K+−2Cl− cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of Henle's loop, increasing renal water and sodium excretion to relieve edema.
Q1206
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationGastrointestinal Pharmacology
Ranitidine is used to treat:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stomach acid problems, such as heartburn or ulcers)
Ranitidine is a histamine H2-receptor antagonist that decreases gastric parietal cell hydrochloric acid secretion, treating gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers.
Q1207
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Seizures
What is the best position for someone experiencing a seizure to prevent injury?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Place the person on their side and support their head with a soft object)
During a generalized seizure, gently roll the individual into the recovery lateral side position to maintain a patent airway and prevent aspiration of saliva or vomit; cushion their head and never force objects into their mouth.
Q1208
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Burns
If a person has a burn from hot water, what is the first step in first aid treatment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Submerge the burned area in cold water for at least 10 minutes)
Immediate first aid for thermal burns is cooling the injured area under gentle, cool running tap water (10∘C−20∘C) for 10–20 minutes to dissipate heat and arrest tissue destruction (never apply ice or butter).
Q1209
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Fractures
In case of a fracture, what should you do to immobilize the injury before seeking medical help?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Use a splint to stabilize the injured limb)
Fractured limbs must be immobilized using a rigid splint spanning the joints above and below the suspected fracture site in the position found, preventing further neurovascular and soft tissue trauma.
Q1210
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Animal Bites
In case of a dog bite, which of the following should be done first?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Clean the wound with water and soap to reduce the risk of infection)
Immediate post-exposure prophylaxis for potential rabies dog bites requires vigorously washing all bite wounds and scratches under running tap water with soap for at least 15 minutes to wash out viral inoculum.
Q1211
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Snakebites
A person has been bitten by a venomous snake. What is the most important first aid step before getting medical help?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Keep the affected limb immobilized and at or below heart level)
Standard snakebite first aid (Right Care protocol): Keep the patient calm, immobilize the bitten limb using a broad splint, maintain the limb at or slightly below heart level, and transport immediately to a hospital (never cut, suck, or apply arterial tourniquets).
Q1212
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationInventory Valuation Methods
Which of the following stock valuation methods calculates the cost of inventory based on the most recent purchase price?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (LIFO (Last-In-First-Out))
Under LIFO (Last-In, First-Out), the cost of goods issued is charged at the most recently acquired replacement purchase prices.
Q1213
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationPerpetual Inventory System
Which of the following is an example of perpetual inventory system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Continuous tracking of stock levels with each transaction)
A perpetual inventory system maintains continuous real-time ledger/software records of inventory quantities and costs, updating automatically with every receipt and issue transaction.
Q1214
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFIFO Method Disadvantages
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the FIFO (First-In-First-Out) inventory method?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It results in higher taxes during periods of inflation)
During inflationary periods, FIFO matches older lower costs against current high revenues, resulting in inflated reported gross profits and correspondingly higher corporate income tax liabilities.
Q1215
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationEconomic Order Quantity (EOQ)
The Economic Order Quantity model in inventory management is primarily used to:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Minimize the number of orders and reduce the storage costs)
The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ=H2DS) determines the optimal purchase order quantity that minimizes the total annual sum of ordering costs and holding/carrying storage costs.
Q1216
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationSafety Stock & Inventory Control
Which of the following terms refers to the minimum quantity of stock below which inventory should not be allowed to fall?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Safety stock)
Safety stock (buffer stock) is the minimum reserve level maintained in inventory to mitigate against stockout risks caused by demand spikes or supplier delivery lead-time delays.
Q1217
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationMunicipal Corporation Administration
Which of the following is the highest executive authority in a Municipal Corporation in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Municipal Commissioner)
In Indian municipal administration, the Municipal Commissioner (usually a senior IAS officer appointed by the State Government) is the chief executive authority wielding statutory administrative powers.
Q1218
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal Administration74th Constitutional Amendment Act
The Ward Committee in a Municipal Corporation is formed under which of the following laws?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act)
Article 243S of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 mandates the constitution of Wards Committees in all municipal areas having a population of 300,000 or more.
Q1219
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationDissolution of Municipal Corporations
In the case of financial mismanagement or misconduct, who can dissolve the Municipal Corporation?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The State Government)
Under state municipal corporation statutes, the State Government possesses the statutory authority to supersede or dissolve a Municipal Corporation on grounds of persistent incompetence or financial mismanagement.
Q1220
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationMayor Term of Office
The Mayor of a Municipal Corporation is elected for a term of how many years?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5 years)
Under the standard provisions of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (and most state municipal corporation acts), the term of the Municipal Corporation and its elected council is 5 years.
Q1221
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationMunicipal Vacancy Procedures
In case of a vacancy in the position of Mayor, who is responsible for appointing an interim Mayor in a Municipal Corporation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The General Body of the Municipal Corporation)
When a casual vacancy occurs in the office of Mayor, the General Body of elected municipal corporators/councillors convenes in a special meeting to elect a successor or interim Mayor from among its members.
Q1222
Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementMuseum Communication Strategy
What is the primary purpose of the communication policy of a museum?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To promote the museum's collection and exhibitions to the public)
A museum's communication policy is structured to convey educational knowledge, promote exhibits, engage diverse communities, and project the institution's public mission.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a reaction mechanism?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It involves a sequence of elementary steps that show how the reaction occurs.)
A reaction mechanism is the stepwise sequence of elementary microscopic steps detailing bond-breaking, bond-forming, intermediate formation, and electron movement leading from reactants to products.
Q1224
Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesSN1 vs SN2 Fundamentals
Which of the following statements correctly describes the key features of the SN1 and SN2 nucleophilic substitution mechanisms? i. SN1 reactions involve a two-step mechanism with a carbocation intermediate, resulting in racemization of chiral centers. ii. SN2 reactions occur via a single-step mechanism, where the nucleophile attacks the substrate in a backside attack, leading to inversion of configuration. iii. The rate of SN1 reactions depends only on the concentration of the nucleophile. iv. SN2 reactions are favoured by polar protic solvents. Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and ii are correct)
Statements i and ii are correct: SN1 produces planar carbocations with racemization; SN2 proceeds via a concerted backside attack with Walden inversion.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Aromatic Nucleophilic Substitution reactions? i. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution is more common in activated aromatic systems, where electron-withdrawing groups stabilize the intermediate anion. ii. In the SNAr mechanism, nucleophilic substitution proceeds via a carbanion intermediate formed at the meta position relative to the leaving group. iii. The SNAr mechanism requires the aromatic ring to be electron-donating, as it stabilizes the negative charge on the intermediate anion. iv. The SNAr mechanism involves a direct displacement of the leaving group by the nucleophile without the formation of an intermediate. Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and ii are correct)
Statements i and ii describe SNAr (Addition-Elimination via Meisenheimer σ-complex) where ortho/para EWGs strongly stabilize the negative charge in the carbanionic intermediate.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the free radical substitution mechanism? i. The initiation step involves the homolytic cleavage of a bond to generate two free radicals. ii. Propagation involves the formation of new bonds between the radicals and substrates, regenerating reactive radicals. iii. The termination step involves the combination of two free radicals to form a stable product. iv. Free radical substitution mechanisms are most common in polar solvents, such as water. Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, ii, and iii are correct)
Statements i, ii, and iii correctly describe homolytic initiation, radical propagation chain cycles, and termination quenching (statement iv is false because radicals are non-polar and typically run in gas phase or non-polar solvents like CCl4).
Q1227
Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationFungal Growth Prevention
Which of the following is crucial to prevent fungal growth in a museum collection?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Maintaining a stable and controlled environment with low humidity (below 60% RH))
Mold and fungal spores germinate actively when relative humidity (RH) exceeds 65%; maintaining stable ambient RH between 45% and 55% strictly inhibits fungal growth.
Q1228
Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesUNESCO World Heritage Convention
World Heritage Convention is another name for :
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Convention concerning the protection of the world cultural and natural heritage)
The UNESCO World Heritage Convention, adopted in Paris on 16 November 1972, is formally titled the 'Convention Concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage'.
Q1229
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychological Defense Mechanisms
Individuals with disability may reduce their distress related to their condition, by avoiding their medical treatment, by considering it not necessary, they are engaging in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Denial)
Denial is a primary psychological defense mechanism wherein individuals refuse to acknowledge the painful reality or severity of an acquired impairment, often avoiding essential medical intervention.
Q1230
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentDepression in Disability
Depression in persons with disabilities is characterized by the following: i. A state of panic ii. Helplessness and hopelessness iii. Excessive arguing iv. Dejection and discouragement Which of this is True?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii and iv)
Clinical depression following disabling trauma is centrally characterized by feelings of helplessness, hopelessness (ii), persistent dysphoria, dejection, and discouragement (iv).
Q1231
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychosocial Factors in Disability
Match the following pairs related to psychosocial factors of disability : i. Stigma ii. Body image iii. Self - concept iv. Anger
Psychosocial description: 1. Depreciation and devaluation emancipating from prejudice 2. Blaming themselves for their condition 3. Culturally influenced personal conceptions of attractiveness 4. Perceptions of their own strengths and weaknesses 5. Evaluative component of self
Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2)
i -> 1 (Stigma = societal prejudice devaluation), ii -> 3 (Body image = cultural conception of physical appearance), iii -> 4 (Self-concept = perception of personal strengths/weaknesses), iv -> 2 (Anger = internal self-blame and external hostility).
Q1232
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentFamily Systems in Rehabilitation
Direct familial influence on treatment goals and rehabilitation outcomes of persons acquiring a disability are observed due to the following: i. The level of resources of the family ii. Family members adjustment to new roles iii. Family members level of involvement with healthcare / rehabilitation professionals iv. The emotional strain among family members Which of these are applicable?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iii)
Family systems therapy emphasizes that family role adaptability (ii) and proactive, collaborative engagement with the multidisciplinary rehabilitation team (iii) directly dictate therapeutic compliance and community reintegration outcomes.
Q1233
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentSocial Isolation Determinants
Which of these is an external factor which influences social isolation in persons with disabilities?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environmental barriers / difficulty entering community facilities)
Architectural inaccessibility, lack of ramps, inaccessible public transport, and physical community infrastructure barriers constitute external environmental determinants of social isolation.
Q1234
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychosocial Adjustment Models
Arrange the following in order of progression in terms of adjustment to acquired disability, as suggested by social psychologist Dana Dunn: 1. Mourning 2. Shock 3. Adaptation 4. Depression 5. Denial Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 5, 1, 4, 3)
Dana Dunn's psychosocial adaptation model progresses sequentially through: (2) Initial Shock -> (5) Defensive Denial -> (1) Acknowledgment / Mourning -> (4) Reactive Depression -> (3) Final Adaptation / Integration.
Q1235
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentSexuality and Disability
Physical limitations, lack of energy and pain affect which aspect of sexuality of persons with disability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sexual expression)
Chronic neuropathic pain, spasticity, fatigue, and limited joint mobility directly restrict the physical ability to engage in intimate sexual behaviors and physical sexual expression.
Q1236
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentInsider-Outsider Paradigm
Based on the social psychological insider-outsider distinction for persons with disabilities, if the insider refers to persons with disabilities, who is perceived as the outsider?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Able-bodied people)
In disability social psychology (Beatrice Wright's insider-outsider paradigm), the 'insiders' share the lived experience of impairment, while non-disabled ('able-bodied') individuals are perceived as outsiders.
Q1237
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentEthics in Rehabilitation
Providing a rationale for psychological intervention to a client with disability in the context of the rehabilitation teams treatment is an aspect of which ethical principle?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Informed consent)
Informed consent ethically mandates that clients receive a clear, comprehensible explanation of the nature, purpose, rationale, anticipated benefits, and potential risks of psychological interventions.
Q1238
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentEthical Dilemmas in Rehabilitation
Which of this is a specific ethical dilemma a rehabilitation professional is likely to face?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Balancing patients' right to autonomy with their safety)
Rehabilitation psychologists constantly navigate the classic ethical tension between respecting client self-determination/autonomy versus paternalistic duty to ensure safety (beneficence/non-maleficence).
Q1239
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentMaladaptive Coping Hierarchies
Arrange the following starting from most severe form of maladaptive coping mechanism to psychological loss as a result of disability? i. Self-harm ii. Compulsive eating iii. Social withdrawal iv. Substance abuse Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iv, ii, iii)
Severity hierarchy of destructive maladaptive coping: (i) Non-suicidal/suicidal self-harm -> (iv) Chemical substance abuse/dependence -> (ii) Compulsive eating disorders -> (iii) Passive social isolation/withdrawal.
Q1240
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentICF WHO Model
The international classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), by World Health Organization (2001) is based on the perspective of which of these models of disability?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Biopsychosocial Model)
WHO's ICF framework (2001) integrates the biological medical model with the social environmental model into a unified Biopsychosocial Model of functioning, disability, and health.
Q1241
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentRehabilitation Psychologist Scope
Which of this is NOT a role of a Rehabilitation Psychologist?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Occupational therapy)
Occupational therapy is a distinct licensed allied healthcare profession focused on restoring motor coordination, biomechanics, and ergonomic task performance.
Q1242
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentResilience Models
'A person with disability having a stable family support, is more likely to be resilient', can be explained by which model of resilience?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Protective factor model)
The Protective Factor (Moderating) Model posited by resilience theory posits that external social assets (like cohesive family support) buffer and mitigate the detrimental impact of stress.
Q1243
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentMastery and Self-Efficacy
Helping a person with disability achieve a strong sense of mastery can have direct effects on the following: i. Self-efficacy ii. Perceived optimism iii. Greater life satisfaction iv. Internal locus of control Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii and iv)
Achieving behavioral mastery and autonomy directly strengthens Bandura's self-efficacy beliefs (i), instills optimism (ii), and reinforces an internal locus of control (iv).
Q1244
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychoanalytic Model of Disability
According to the psychoanalytical model of disability, loss of a limb can have an effect on the ego similar to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sense of 'castration')
In classical Freudian psychoanalytic theory, traumatic amputation or bodily loss symbolizes a severe narcissistic blow to body integrity, unconscious bodily mutilation, and reactivation of castration anxiety.
Q1245
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentRisk Domains in Disability
'Stressful living conditions' can be classified into which domain of risk factors which affect adjustment to disability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Environmental)
Inaccessible living spaces, poverty, overcrowded housing, and hazardous living environments belong to the Environmental risk domain affecting disability adaptation.
Q1246
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentAPA Division 22
The division of rehabilitation psychology in the American Psychological Association (APA) is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Division 22)
APA Division 22 is the dedicated Division of Rehabilitation Psychology, established in 1958 to advance psychological practice, research, and policy for individuals with disabilities.
Q1247
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentSelf-Determination Theory
Nurturing self-determination in a person with disability, is related to which psychological mechanism?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Motivation)
Self-Determination Theory (Deci & Ryan) posits that fulfilling the core psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness fosters intrinsic Motivation and self-directed agency.
Q1248
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentLandmark Literature in Rehab Psychology
One of the pioneering books on psychosocial aspects of disability "Physical Disability: A Psychological Approach" was authored by which social psychologist?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Beatrice Wright)
Dr. Beatrice A. Wright authored the landmark, foundational text 'Physical Disability: A Psychological Approach' in 1960 (revised in 1983 as 'Physical Disability: A Psychosocial Approach').
Q1249
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentNeurological Classifications of Paralysis
A condition in paralysis patients, where only both the lower limbs are affected is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Paraplegia)
Paraplegia is the impairment or loss of motor and sensory function in the thoracic, lumbar, or sacral neurological segments affecting both lower extremities.
Q1250
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentCerebral Palsy Types
In cerebral palsy abnormality of muscle tone resulting in muscle stiffness and exaggerated muscle contraction is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Spasticity)
Spastic cerebral palsy (affecting ≈80% of cases) is characterized by velocity-dependent upper motor neuron hypertonia, muscular stiffness, hyperreflexia, and resistance to passive stretch.
Q1251
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentAcquired Brain Injuries
What is the abbreviation which is commonly used to refer to a condition which is caused by outside force that impacts the head hard enough to cause damage to the brain?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (TBI)
TBI stands for Traumatic Brain Injury, an acquired intracranial insult resulting from external biomechanical forces (blunt impact, penetration, or blast trauma).
Q1252
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentNeuropsychology of Language
Broca's aphasia is consequence of brain damage which affects which area of functioning?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Communication)
Damage to Broca's area in the posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere causes non-fluent, expressive expressive language impairment, halting speech output, and communication deficits.
Q1253
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsLocomotor Functional Deficits
Which of the following areas of functional limitations is less likely to manifest in locomotor disabilities?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Communication limitation)
Pure locomotor (orthopedic/musculoskeletal) disabilities directly impair ambulation, joint motion, and weight-bearing, but typically do not intrinsically affect expressive or receptive communication.
Q1254
Experimental Designs, Psychological Assessment & PsychometricsFunctional Assessment of ADL
Which of these types of assessment can help up gain a good understanding of a person with disabilities engagement with activities of daily living? (ADL)? i. Cognitive assessment ii. Behavioural assessment iii. Functional assessment iv. Vocational assessment Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii and iii)
Functional assessment evaluates independent self-care ADL/IADL task execution (Barthel index/FIM), and Behavioral assessment analyzes specific observational environmental adaptations.
Q1255
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsREBT ABCDE Model
In the ABCDE model of REBT, C stands for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Consequences)
In Albert Ellis's Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT) framework: A = Activating event, B = Belief system, C = Emotional/behavioral Consequences, D = Disputation, E = Effective new philosophy.
In which core condition of person-centered counselling, Carl Rogers speaks about the "As if" condition?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Empathy)
Carl Rogers defined accurate Empathy as perceiving the internal frame of reference of another with accuracy and emotional components 'as if' one were the other person, without losing the 'as if' boundary.
Which factor of counselling is influenced by rapport and trust?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Therapeutic relationship)
A strong therapeutic relationship (therapeutic alliance) is the cornerstone of counseling outcome, built directly upon mutual rapport, safety, and deep unconditional trust.
Q1258
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsOrigins of Cognitive Therapy
Aaron Beck's earliest work on cognitive therapy was conceptualized on which mental health condition?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Depression)
Aaron T. Beck initially developed Cognitive Therapy in the early 1960s based on his clinical research identifying automatic negative cognitive triads (self, world, future) in patients with Depression.
Q1259
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsCouples and Family Therapy Modalities
In couples therapy, sessions where both partners are invited to appear together is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Conjoint session)
A conjoint session in marital/couples counseling is a clinical meeting where both partners are seen and treated together in the same therapeutic space by the therapist.
Q1260
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsBowen Family Systems (Triangulation)
In family systems therapy when two family members are experiencing conflict or uncontrolled anxiety and they bring in another family member to dilute the tension, this process is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Triangulation)
In Murray Bowen's Family Systems Theory, Triangulation is the defensive interpersonal process where a two-person system under acute tension pulls in a third person to stabilize anxiety.
Q1261
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsSystemic Family Interventions
Which of this is an interviewing technique specifically used in systemic therapies such as family therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Circular questioning)
Circular questioning (developed by the Milan Systemic Family Therapy team) asks family members about interpersonal relationships and differences among other family members to uncover relational patterns.
Q1262
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsLimits of Confidentiality (Duty to Warn)
In which of these conditions do the ethically bounded rights of autonomy and confidentiality given to the client in psychotherapy are limited?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Suicide threat)
Confidentiality and autonomy must be legally and ethically breached (duty to protect/warn) when there is clear, imminent danger of self-harm, suicide, or violence toward others.
Q1263
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsEthics: Professional Competence
According to which ethical principle of counselling, does the counsellor need to keep upgrading their skills, train themselves to meet professional standards and for the welfare of the client?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Competence)
The ethical principle of Competence dictates that practitioners operate only within their professional scope and continuously engage in continuing professional education to maintain clinical excellence.
What is one of the primary techniques used in REBT to work with irrational beliefs?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Disputation)
Disputation (D in REBT) is the active philosophical and cognitive challenging of rigid irrational beliefs (iBs) through logical, empirical, and functional arguments.
Which of these is an emotive technique used in REBT?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Shame attacking exercises)
Shame-attacking exercises are a hallmark emotive/behavioral technique invented by Albert Ellis where clients deliberately engage in minor socially awkward actions to overcome irrational shame.
The phrase "Once an alcoholic, always an alcoholic" in alcohol addicts points towards a focus on what aspect of rehabilitation counselling?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Relapse prevention)
The disease model and traditional 12-step recovery recognize substance dependence as a chronic recurring vulnerability, focusing counseling intensely on lifelong Relapse Prevention strategies.
How does the concept of 'group think' affect group therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conformity and consensus are preferred over critical thinking and personal expression)
Groupthink (Janis) occurs when the desire for group conformity and harmony stifles individual dissenting viewpoints, genuine emotional expression, and critical self-reflection.
Which of the following are potential disadvantages of group therapy: i. Risk to confidentiality ii. High degree of client involvement required iii. Limited individual attention iv. Managing conflicts in group Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
Core inherent limitations of the group therapy format include the risk of breaches of peer confidentiality (i) and reduced individualized therapeutic attention (iii).
Q1271
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsIndian Family Sociocultural Contexts
From a family systems therapy point of view in the Indian society, which is the biggest challenge to building resilience as a system of care to a child with disability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Familial schema about raising a child with disability)
In traditional sociocultural contexts, entrenched fatalistic or stigmatizing familial schemas, parental guilt (karma beliefs), and distorted expectations present the primary barrier to family systemic resilience.
Q1272
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsSystemic Advocacy in Rehabilitation
While working with persons with disabilities in a rehabilitation set up, which of these issues requires moving beyond traditional roles, processes and techniques in counselling, to help solve the problem?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (There is a lack of jobs available for the client)
Structural environmental deficits like systemic unemployment and job scarcity require rehabilitation psychologists to expand beyond intrapsychic counseling into community advocacy, job engineering, and systemic policy liaison.
While working with a clients with a physical disability experiencing loneliness and depression, what would a culturally sensitive counsellor prioritize?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Social integration strategies, focusing on accessible community resources, extended family and peers)
In collectivist cultures, culturally sensitive interventions leverage extended family support networks, peer cohorts, and accessible community spaces to overcome social isolation.
Q1274
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsSocial vs Instrumental Skills
As a part of skills training, you have train persons with disabilities with social skills and instrumental skills. Which of these are instrumental skills: i. Creating a resume ii. Initiating a conversation iii. Refusing a request iv. Managing a conflict Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only i)
Instrumental skills involve concrete task-oriented actions for vocational and independent living (e.g., creating a resume, budgeting, cooking), whereas conversation initiation, refusal, and conflict management are social/interpersonal skills.
Q1275
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsIn-Vitro vs In-Vivo Skills Training
In skills training, which of these is considered an in vitro technique?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Visualization)
'In vitro' skills practice refers to internal cognitive simulation or mental visualization occurring entirely within the imagination, in contrast to 'in vivo' (real-world) or behavioral role-play execution.
Q1276
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsTheoretical Foundations of Behaviorism
Behavioural principles are based on which of this theoretical position?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Environmental determinism)
Classical and operant behaviorism fundamentally rests on Environmental Determinism—the premise that overt behavior is acquired, maintained, and modified through environmental stimuli, conditioning, and reinforcement contingencies.
Encouraging clients to employ relaxation techniques when gradually exposing them to anxiety provoking stimuli in systematic desensitization is based on the concept of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reciprocal inhibition)
Joseph Wolpe's principle of Reciprocal Inhibition states that an anxiety response cannot occur simultaneously with an incompatible physiological state (e.g. deep somatic relaxation).
Which behavioural principle refers to withdrawing the previously present reinforcement which maintained an undesirable behavior in hopes of reducing or eliminating it?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Extinction)
Extinction is the operant process of withholding or terminating the reinforcing consequences that previously maintained a target behavior, leading to its gradual reduction and cessation.
A rehabilitation counselor working with physiotherapist uses shaping to help a client with polio learn to walk and balance using a caliper. Here shaping involves
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reinforcing successive approximations of the desired behavior)
Shaping (method of successive approximations / B.F. Skinner) involves systematically reinforcing small, progressive approximations toward a complex terminal target behavior.
Q1281
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsBehavioral Interventions in Rehabilitation
In a rehabilitation set up, behavioural interventions can be used for the following: i. Assistive technology training ii. Interview skills training iii. Training to used coping self-statements iv. Functional training Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii and iv)
Behavioral techniques (prompting, chaining, shaping, role-playing, reinforcement) are directly applied to Assistive technology operation (i), Job interview mastery (ii), and Functional ADL mobility training (iv).
Q1282
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsAssertiveness Training
A rehabilitation counselor uses assertiveness training to help a client with cerebral palsy, who has difficulty communicating. Here the main purpose of assertiveness training is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Teaching the client to express their needs directly and respectfully, despite their communication difficulty.)
Assertiveness training empowers individuals to communicate their personal rights, opinions, and care needs directly, honestly, and respectfully without becoming passive or aggressive.
Q1283
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Token Economy Systems
Token economies are being used in a psychiatric rehabilitation facility to effectively maintain or change a broad range of behaviors. What is the underlying concept of behaviourism which is operating here?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Contingency management)
A token economy is a formal Contingency Management system based on operant conditioning, where tokens earned as secondary reinforcers for target behaviors are exchanged for backup reinforcers.
Which skills learning intervention will not be suitable for an older child with dyslexia?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bibliotherapy)
Bibliotherapy relies on reading and reflecting on literary books/texts; for a child with severe dyslexia and phonological decoding deficits, text-heavy reading interventions are counterproductive and frustrating.
Which of these therapies stem from behaviour therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Acceptance and Commitment therapy)
Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT, developed by Steven Hayes) is a major third-wave behavior therapy grounded in Relational Frame Theory and functional contextualism.
One of the strongest merits of behaviour therapy over other traditional therapies is that
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It is based on observable and measurable behaviors)
The primary scientific strength of behavior therapy is its rigorous operationalization and empirical measurement of overt, observable, and quantifiable target behaviors.
Which of these exposure-based interventions is the most contemporary?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Virtual reality therapy)
Virtual Reality Exposure Therapy (VRET) is the most contemporary, technologically advanced exposure paradigm, immersing clients in controlled, interactive computer-generated virtual environments.
Q1289
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Single-Subject Research in ABA
Which of these is a primary research method employed for testing the effectiveness for Applied Behavioural Analysis (ABA) intervention?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Single subject design)
Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA) predominantly utilizes Single-Subject Experimental Designs (SSED, such as ABAB reversal or multiple-baseline designs) where the participant serves as their own baseline control.
Which of this is a method devised to understand the underlying reasons or functions behind challenging or problematic behaviors exhibited by individuals?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Functional behaviour assessment)
Functional Behavior Assessment (FBA) systematically identifies the underlying communicative functions, antecedents, and maintaining consequences of challenging behaviors.
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) is most widely used as an intervention with which group of children?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Autism spectrum disorders)
ABA (specifically Discrete Trial Training and Natural Environment Teaching) is the most extensively researched, evidence-based gold-standard intervention for children with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD).
What is the difference between positive and negative reinforcement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Positive reinforcement provides something desirable, while negative reinforcement takes away something undesirable.)
In operant conditioning, both forms of reinforcement strengthen target behavior: Positive reinforcement presents a rewarding stimulus (+S), while Negative reinforcement removes or avoids an aversive stimulus (−S−).
Q1293
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Generalization in ABA
When do we say 'generalization' occurs in Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The child can perform the learnt behavior in different settings and with different people.)
Stimulus and response generalization occurs when a newly acquired target behavior is spontaneously demonstrated across untrained physical environments, untrained stimuli, and with different individuals.
Community-based rehabilitation programmes are based on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A participatory approach by including persons with disability, their families and community resources)
Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR) is fundamentally built upon a grassroots participatory strategy empowering persons with disabilities, their families, local organizations, and indigenous resources.
In principle what is community-based rehabilitation opposed to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Institutionalised and segregated rehabilitation care)
CBR originated as a direct philosophical and structural reaction against centralized, institutionalized, medicalized, and segregated rehabilitation facilities.
Q1296
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)CBR Community Assessment
When we speak on Community Based Rehabilitation Assessment, what are we referring to?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Surveying the community to understand specific needs, opportunities and resources.)
A CBR assessment is a participatory community appraisal surveying local disability prevalence, unmet needs, existing environmental barriers, economic opportunities, and available local community assets.
Which international organization was the first to conceptualized and promote the idea of community-based rehabilitation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (World Health Organization (WHO))
The World Health Organization (WHO) pioneered and launched the Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR) strategy following the 1978 Alma-Ata Declaration to provide accessible primary rehabilitation in developing nations.
Arrange the steps in which community-based rehabilitation should be implemented: i. Select coordinators ii. Determine objectives and indicators iii. Write a proposal iv. Choose a method v. Test the Method Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii, ii, i, iv, v)
Logical implementation cycle for a CBR initiative: (iii) Draft initial project concept proposal -> (ii) Establish clear objectives and measurable indicators -> (i) Form steering committee and select coordinators -> (iv) Select intervention methodologies -> (v) Pilot-test the methods in the field.
What is one of the benefits of the sustainability goal of Community-based rehabilitation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Can help address the problem of unemployment through identified income-generating activities)
Economic sustainability in the WHO CBR matrix fosters long-term financial self-reliance by linking disabled individuals and self-help groups (SHGs) to microfinance, vocational skills, and sustainable livelihoods.
Match the Factors of implementing Community Based Rehabilitation with their specific aspects: i. Policies ii. Strategies iii. Activities iv. Challenges
Specific aspects: 1. Providing technical aids and services 2. Helping rural persons with disabilities migrate to city rehabilitation centers 3. Determining mainstreaming and participation 4. Planning programme coverage 5. Inadequate access
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-5)
i -> 3 (Policies = establishing inclusive mandates for mainstreaming and participation), ii -> 4 (Strategies = planning multi-sectoral programme coverage), iii -> 1 (Activities = delivering technical aids and local services), iv -> 5 (Challenges = structural inadequate access and geographical barriers).
Q1301
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Social Work in CBR
What is one role of social workers in community-based rehabilitation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Resource Mobilization)
Social workers in CBR primarily mobilize community assets, build multisectoral inter-agency partnerships, form community disability committees, and secure financial/material resources.
Q1302
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Self-Advocacy in Disability Rights
What is one of the role of people with disabilities within community-based rehabilitation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Self-advocacy)
In alignment with 'Nothing About Us Without Us', persons with disabilities are empowered as key leaders and agents of change through Self-Advocacy, peer counseling, and rights defense.
Which is one of the methods used to understand the effectiveness of community-based rehabilitation programmes?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Baseline studies)
Baseline studies (pre-intervention demographic, economic, and functional surveys) provide the benchmark data against which longitudinal community progress, empowerment, and outcomes are measured.
Which of this is NOT a parameter of impact assessment evaluation in Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Financial resources generated for CBR)
Financial resources generated reflect project input/funding, whereas true impact assessment evaluates qualitative and quantitative outcome changes in beneficiaries' quality of life, community participation, and service coverage.
Q1305
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Disability Rights and Empowerment
Community Based Rehabilitation (CBR) can be a source of empowerment for persons with disabilities only if
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The rights and dignity of persons with disabilities are recognized)
CBR fosters authentic empowerment when it shifts from charity to a human-rights framework that unconditionally respects and upholds the equal rights, dignity, and autonomy of persons with disabilities.
What is one aspect of Justice that is realized in Community Based Rehabilitation?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Equalization of opportunities and social inclusion)
Social justice within the UN Convention and CBR guidelines is achieved through the Equalization of Opportunities—ensuring equitable access to education, healthcare, employment, and full social inclusion.
What do we mean by the concept of "appropriate technology" within the context of CBR?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Adapting existing technology and providing assistive technology to meet specific needs of persons with disabilities)
Appropriate Technology in CBR denotes designing and producing low-cost, durable, locally fabricated assistive devices utilizing indigenous materials that can be easily repaired and maintained in the community.
Q1308
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Rehabilitation Council of India Act 1992
In India under which act can a Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR) professional be trained and receive appropriate qualification to be certified as a CBR professional?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rehabilitation council of India act (1992))
The Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) Act 1992 is the statutory legislation that regulates, standardizes training curricula, and registers/licenses all rehabilitation professionals and personnel in India.
Q1309
General English & ComprehensionSubjunctive Mood
She insisted that he _______ (attend) the meeting despite his busy schedule.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (attend)
Verbs of demand or insistence ('insisted that...') require the present subjunctive mood, using the base form of the verb ('attend').
Q1310
Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISHospital Admitting Office Functions
What is the primary function of the Central Admitting Office in a healthcare facility?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Coordinating patient admissions and maintaining their records)
The Central Admitting Office (CAO) coordinates inpatient bed allocation, registers patient demographics and insurance data, generates unique admission numbers, and initiates the medical record file.
Q1311
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationMRD Statistical Functions
Which department is typically responsible for generating hospital statistics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Medical Records Department)
The Medical Records Department (MRD) compiles, analyzes, and publishes daily, monthly, and annual inpatient census, morbidity, mortality, and hospital statistical returns.
Q1312
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMedical Records Indexing Functions
What is the role of indexing in medical records?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To systematically arrange and retrieve records based on specific criteria)
Medical indexing creates structured lookup files (Disease Index, Operation Index, Physician Index) that allow rapid systematic retrieval of patient charts based on diagnosis, surgical procedure, or clinician.
Q1313
History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Fundamental Layas
How many Layas are there in Indian Classical Music?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Three)
Indian classical music recognizes three fundamental speeds/layas of rhythm: Vilambit (slow), Madhya (medium), and Drut (fast).
Q1314
History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Lucknow Gharana Founders
Which among the following are the founders of Lucknow Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Modu Khan and Bakshu Khan)
Ustad Modu Khan and Ustad Bakshu Khan (grandsons of Ustad Siddhar Khan who moved from Delhi to Awadh) founded the Lucknow Tabla Gharana (Khula Baaj / Thap Baaj).
Q1315
Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsFarrukhabad Founder
Who was the originator of Farrukhabad Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Vilayat Ali)
Ustad Vilayat Ali Khan (famously known as Haji Vilayat Ali Khan, son-in-law of Ustad Bakshu Khan) founded the Farrukhabad Tabla Gharana.
Q1316
Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsPunjab Gharana History
Which Tabla Gharana is known for Lala Bhawani Das?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Punjab Gharana)
Lala Bhawani Das, a great Pakhawaj and Tabla master of Punjab, heavily influenced the creation and repertoire of the Punjab Tabla Gharana.
Q1317
Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsTigun Layakari
How many matras are required for Tigun of Sool Taal?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Three and one third of a Matra)
Sooltaal has 10 matras. In Tigun (3 times speed), the entire 10-matra cycle requires 310=331 (Three and one third of a Matra).
Q1318
Classical Talas, Aesthetics (Rasa-Bhava) & StylisticsPunjab Gharana Features
Energetic, bold, and intricate rhythmic patterns in Tabla playing is the key feature of which one of the following gharanas?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Punjab Gharana)
The Punjab Gharana (steeped in the martial Pakhawaj tradition of Lala Bhawani Das and Mian Qadir Baksh) is celebrated for its powerful, bold, open-handed, and complex mathematical layakaris.
Q1319
Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosTabla Tuning Mechanics
Which portion of table can be struck for minute tuning?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Gajra)
Tuning the Tabla to precise pitch is accomplished by tapping the woven leather rim collar braid known as the Gajra with a brass tuning hammer (Hathori).
Q1320
Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosPunjab Gharana Maestros
Which among the following arists belongs to the Punjab Tabla Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ustad Zakir Hussain)
Ustad Zakir Hussain is the foremost contemporary torchbearer of the Punjab Tabla Gharana.
Q1321
Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosPadma Vibhushan Tabla Artists
Which Table Artist is honoured by Padma Vibushan?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ustad Zakir Hussain)
Ustad Zakir Hussain was conferred India's second-highest civilian honor, the Padma Vibhushan, in 2023 (and Padma Bhushan in 2002).
Q1322
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsUstad Alla Rakha Birthdate
What is the birthdate of Ustad Alla Rakha?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (29th April, 1919)
Ustad Alla Rakha was born on 29 April 1919 in Ghagwal, Jammu district (now Samba district), Jammu & Kashmir.
Q1323
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPunjabi Taal Repertoire
Which singing style is performed in Punjabi Taal?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Thumari)
Punjabi Taal (16 matras) is predominantly used to accompany light classical Thumri, Dadra, and Ghazal singing.
Q1324
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsDhrupad Accompaniment
Which Taal is used in Dhrupad Singing?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sool Taal)
Sooltaal (10 matras), alongside Chautaal and Dhamar, is a standard classical Pakhawaj rhythm for fast Dhrupad and Sadra compositions.
Q1325
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPadma Shri Awards
In which Ustad Alla Rakha got Padma Shree Award?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1977)
Ustad Alla Rakha was honoured with the prestigious Padma Shri national award in 1977.
Q1326
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsUstad Alla Rakha Lifespan
What was the age of Ustad Alla Rakha at the time of his death?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (80 Years)
Ustad Alla Rakha passed away on February 3, 2000 in Mumbai at the age of 80 years (1919–2000).
Q1327
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Kishan Maharaj Honors
In which year , Pt. Kishan Maharaj was honoured with Padma Vibushan Award?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2002)
Pandit Kishan Maharaj of Banaras Gharana received the Padma Vibhushan in the year 2002.
Q1328
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsBanaras Musical Families
Which singer got married to Pt. Kishan Maharaj?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Girija Devi)
Pt. Kishan Maharaj had deep artistic ties with Girija Devi in Banaras music circle.
Q1329
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Kishan Maharaj Guru
Who was the Guru of Pt. Kishan Maharaj?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pt. Kanthe Maharaj)
Pandit Kishan Maharaj received his extensive, rigorous training under his uncle, the legendary Banaras maestro Pandit Kanthe Maharaj.
Q1330
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Kishan Maharaj Birthdate
What is the birthdate of Pt. Kishan Maharaj?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3rd September , 1923)
Pandit Kishan Maharaj was born on 3 September 1923 on the auspicious festival of Krishna Janmashtami in Kabir Chaura, Varanasi.
Q1331
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsTabla in Indian Cinema
In which film, Pt. Kishan Maharaj played Tabla?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Neecha Nagar)
Pt. Kishan Maharaj played the Tabla soundtrack for Chetan Anand's pioneering award-winning realistic Hindi film 'Neecha Nagar' (1946).
Q1332
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Kishan Maharaj Awards
Which award was received by Pt. Kishan Maharaj in 1973?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Padma Shree)
Pandit Kishan Maharaj was conferred the Padma Shri award by the Government of India in 1973.
Q1333
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsGudai Maharaj Disciples
Which music director was the disciple of Pt. Samta Prasad?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (R.D. Burman)
Legendary Bollywood music director R.D. Burman (Pancham Da) was an ardent disciple who trained in Tabla under Pt. Samta Prasad (Gudai Maharaj).
Q1334
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsIconic Film Accompaniments
Who was the Table Accompaniment in the song "Jhanak Jhanak Tori Baje Payaliya"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pt. Samta Prasad)
Pandit Samta Prasad (Gudai Maharaj) provided the electrifying classical Tabla accompaniment for the iconic song in the film 'Meri Surat Teri Aankhen' (1963).
Q1335
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsGudai Maharaj Lineage
Who was the father of Gudai Maharaj?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pt. Bhagwan Prasad)
Pandit Samta Prasad (Gudai Maharaj) was born to Pandit Bhagwan Prasad Mishra (Bacha Maharaj), a respected maestro of Banaras.
Q1336
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsSNA Awards
In which year was Pt. Samta Prasad honoured with Sangeet Natak Academy Award?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1979)
Pandit Samta Prasad was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for Hindustani Instrumental Music (Tabla) in 1979.
Q1337
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPadma Bhushan 1991
Who was honoured with Padma Bhushan Award in 1991?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pt. Samta Prasad)
Pandit Samta Prasad (Gudai Maharaj) received the prestigious Padma Bhushan award in 1991.
Q1338
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Samta Prasad Guru
Who was the Guru of Pt. Samta Prasad?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bikku Maharaj)
Following the early demise of his father, Pt. Samta Prasad was trained extensively under his uncle Pandit Bikku Maharaj of Banaras.
Q1339
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Samta Prasad Birthplace
Which among the following is the birthplace of Pt. Samta Prasad?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Banaras)
Pandit Samta Prasad was born on 20 July 1921 in the historic Kabir Chaura neighborhood of Banaras (Varanasi), Uttar Pradesh.
Q1340
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsGharana Distinctions
Which among the following Tabla Artists is NOT from Punjab Tabla Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ustad Inam Ali)
Ustad Inam Ali Khan is a legendary doyen of the Delhi Gharana (Ustad Alla Rakha, Mian Qadir Baksh, and Ustad Zakir Hussain are Punjab Gharana).
Q1341
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsFarrukhabad Maestros
Ustad Karamatullah Khan belongs to which among the following Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Farrukhabad Gharana)
Ustad Karamatullah Khan (son of Ustad Masit Khan) was one of the greatest Khalifa maestos of the Farrukhabad Gharana.
Q1342
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsLucknow Maestros
Which Tabla Artist belongs to Lucknow Tabla Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Munne Khan)
Ustad Munne Khan (disciple of Abid Hussain Khan) was a renowned master of the Lucknow Tabla Gharana.
Q1343
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsCross-Gharana Maestros
Which Tabla Artist belongs to both Ajrada and Delhi Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ustad Habibuddin)
Ustad Habibuddin Khan of Ajrada received extensive training in both Delhi and Ajrada traditions under his father Shammu Khan and Delhi masters.
Q1344
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsAddha Trital Matras
How many matras are there in Addha Trital?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Twelve Matras)
Addha Taal (Sitarkhani / Addha Trital) is played in 16 matras (or 8/12 matras in specific regional forms).
Q1345
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsBasant Taal Structure
How many parts and matras are there in Basant Taal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nine Parts and Nine Matras)
Basant Taal is a 9-matra rhythm divided into 9 single-beat parts (1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1).
Q1346
Basic English & GrammarRelative Pronouns
The boy _______ came to see me this morning had come from Mumbai.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Who)
The subjective relative pronoun 'Who' is required as the subject of the subordinate clause verb 'came'.
Q1347
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
Which of the following Country is not a member of BRICS?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Indonesia)
BRICS was originally founded by Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (Indonesia is not a founding member).
Q1348
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsSports & Olympic Games
Olympics Games 2024 were held in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Paris, France)
The Games of the XXXIII Olympiad (Paris 2024 Summer Olympics) were celebrated in Paris, France from 26 July to 11 August 2024.
Q1349
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Physical Geography
The mysterious Bermuda Triangle is located in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (North Atlantic Ocean)
The Bermuda Triangle (Devil's Triangle) is loosely defined region in the western part of the North Atlantic Ocean between Florida, Bermuda, and Puerto Rico.
Q1350
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Currencies
_______ is the national currency of New Zealand.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Dollar)
The official legal tender currency of New Zealand is the New Zealand Dollar (NZD / NZ\).
Q1351
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Currencies
_______ is the national currency of Bhutan.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ngultrum)
The official legal currency of the Kingdom of Bhutan is the Bhutanese Ngultrum (BTN / Nu.), pegged at par with the Indian Rupee.
Q1352
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Capitals
Nestled amidst the Himalayas, which city serves as the capital of Nepal?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kathmandu)
Kathmandu is the historic capital and largest metropolis of Nepal.
Q1353
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Capitals
Home to the Kremlin and Red Square, what city serves as the capital of Russia?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Moscow)
Moscow is the capital and largest city of the Russian Federation, housing the Kremlin and Red Square.
Q1354
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsNobel Prizes 2024
In 2024, Nobel Prize in Literature has been awarded to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Han Kang)
South Korean author Han Kang was awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature 'for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life'.
Q1355
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsSports Trophies
Laver Cup is related to which sport?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lawn Tennis)
The Laver Cup is an international men's indoor hard-court tennis tournament played between Team Europe and Team World.
Q1356
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsCurrent Sports News
Recently, which of the following tennis player has announced his retirement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rafael Nadal)
22-time Grand Slam champion Rafael Nadal officially announced his retirement from professional tennis in October 2024 following the Davis Cup finals.
Q1357
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsJ&K Administrative Divisions
How many districts are there in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (20)
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises exactly 20 administrative districts (10 in Jammu Division and 10 in Kashmir Division).
Q1358
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsJ&K Geography
Which of the following is not a district in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kargil)
Kargil is an administrative district located in the Union Territory of Ladakh (not in J&K UT).
Q1359
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsReligious Heritage of J&K
Utterbehni of J&K, a religious place situated on the bank of legendary Devika is located in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Samba)
Utterbehni (known as Uttarvahini where the sacred Devika river flows northwards) is a historic pilgrimage destination situated in Samba district, Jammu division.
Q1360
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsHistorical Forts of J&K
Ramnagar Fort, believed to have been built by Raja Suchet Singh is located in which district of J&K?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Udhampur)
Ramnagar Fort (Sheesh Mahal complex), constructed by Raja Suchet Singh in the 19th century, is located in Udhampur district, Jammu division.
Q1361
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsParis Olympics 2024 Tally
Which country collectively won the most medals in 2024 Olympics?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (USA)
The United States topped the total medal tally at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games with 126 medals (40 Gold, 44 Silver, 42 Bronze).
Q1362
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilitySpeed and Units Conversion
A car is running at a speed of 90 km/h. What distance will it cover in 15 second?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (375 m)
Speed in m/s=90×185=25 m/s. Distance =25 m/s×15 s=375 m.
Q1363
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Optics Fundamentals
The law of reflection states that
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection)
The Law of Reflection states that the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection (∠i=∠r).
Q1364
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)SI Units of Electricity
Which of the following is the correct SI unit for resistance?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ohm)
The SI unit of electrical resistance is the Ohm (symbol: Ω).
Q1365
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Electric Current Units
The unit of current is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ampere)
The SI base unit of electric current is the Ampere (symbol: A).
Q1366
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Non-Communicable Diseases
Which of the following is an example of a non-communicable disease?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Diabetes)
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic non-communicable lifestyle disease that cannot be transmitted between persons.
Q1367
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Communicable Diseases
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of communicable diseases?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (They are non-infectious)
Communicable diseases are intrinsically infectious and transmissible; stating they are 'non-infectious' is incorrect.
Q1368
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyCommunication Skills
Active listening involves
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Giving full attention and understanding the message)
Active listening requires concentrating fully, understanding, responding constructively, and retaining what is being communicated.
Q1369
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyMetric System Units
In the metric system, what is the base unit of volume?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cubic meter)
The SI coherent derived base unit of volume is the Cubic meter (m3) (with the liter defined as 1 dm3).
Q1370
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyUnit Conversion Factors
What is the conversion factor between kilometers and miles?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($1\text{ mile} = 1.609\text{ kilometers}$)
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFirst in India Awards
Who was the first Indian to win the 'Miss World' title?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rita Faria)
Reita Faria Powell won the Miss World pageant in 1966, becoming the first Indian and first Asian woman to win the title.
Q1372
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyParalinguistic Communication
What does paralinguistic refer to in non-verbal communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The tone, pitch, and speed of speech)
Paralanguage (paralinguistics) encompasses the vocal but non-verbal dimensions of speech: vocal tone, pitch, volume, pacing, and inflection.
Q1373
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyNon-Verbal vs Verbal Communication
Which of the following is NOT an example of non-verbal communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Written texts)
Written text uses lexical verbal language (words and syntax), classifying as verbal communication; body language, gestures, and facial expressions are non-verbal.
a:b=6×5:7×5=30:35. b:c=5×7:9×7=35:63. Combined ratio a:b:c=30:35:63.
Q1375
General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles (Vowel Sounds)
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. _______ honest man lodged _______ FIR when he saw someone committing fraud in the marketplace
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An, an)
'Honest' begins with a vowel sound (/ɒ/), requiring 'An'. 'FIR' begins with a vowel sound (/ɛf/), requiring 'an': 'An honest man lodged an FIR...'.
Q1376
General English & Reading ComprehensionCollective Nouns Agreement
Choose the correct alternative among the options to improve the bold part in the below sentence. The committee was divided in their opinion about the new policy.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (were divided in their opinion)
When a collective noun ('committee') has divided members, it takes a plural verb and plural pronoun: 'were divided in their opinion'.
Q1377
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyCurrent Appointments
Who was the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in January 2025?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sanjay Malhotra)
Sanjay Malhotra assumed office as the 26th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in December 2024, succeeding Shaktikanta Das.
Q1378
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyLaw Enforcement & International Networks
Which Indian agency has recently joined the Steering Committee of the Asset Recovery Interagency Network-Asia Pacific (ARIN-AP)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI))
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was elected to the Steering Committee of the Asset Recovery Interagency Network-Asia Pacific (ARIN-AP).
Q1379
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyNational Honors & Awards
Which award did Zakir Hussain receive in 2023 for his contribution to Indian classical music?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Padma Vibhushan)
Ustad Zakir Hussain was conferred the Padma Vibhushan (India's second-highest civilian award) in 2023.
Q1380
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOlympic Games Highlights
In which event did Manu Bhaker win her first Olympic medal?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (10m Air Pistol)
Manu Bhaker won the Bronze medal in the Women's 10m Air Pistol individual event at the Paris 2024 Olympics, opening India's medal tally.
Q1381
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyKhel Ratna Awards 2024
Match the following pairs of Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 awardees with their corresponding sport. i. Shri Gukesh D ii. Shri Harmanpreet Singh iii. Shri Praveen Kumar iv. Ms. Manu Bhaker
Sports: 1) Para-Athletics 2) Hockey 3) Shooting 4) Chess
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3)
i -> 4 (Gukesh D - Chess), ii -> 2 (Harmanpreet Singh - Hockey), iii -> 1 (Praveen Kumar - Para-Athletics), iv -> 3 (Manu Bhaker - Shooting).
Q1382
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyDronacharya Awards 2024
Which of the following pairs is/are correct regarding the Dronacharya Award for Outstanding Coaches (regular category) in Sports and Games 2024? 1. Shri Subhash Rana - Para-Shooting 2. Ms. Deepali Deshpande - Badminton 3. Shri Sandeep Sangwan - Hockey
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 3)
Subhash Rana was honored for Para-Shooting and Sandeep Sangwan for Hockey (Deepali Deshpande is renowned in Shooting, not Badminton).
Q1383
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyAncient Indian Art & Architecture
Consider the following statements about Sittanavasal Cave: 1. The Sittanavasal Caves in Tamil Nadu are ancient Jain rock-cut temples dating back to the 7th century CE. 2. The caves are renowned for their fresco-secco mural paintings, which depict scenes of lotus ponds, animals, and Jain monks. 3. These caves are a significant example of Jain art and architecture in South India. Which of the above statements are true?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three statements are historically accurate: Sittanavasal (Pudukkottai, Tamil Nadu) features 7th-century Jain rock-cut caves, renowned fresco-secco lotus pond murals, and seminal Jain architectural art.
Q1384
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyClassical Dances of India
Which of the following is the classical dance of Assam?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sattriya)
Sattriya is the classical dance tradition of Assam, founded in the 15th century by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Sankardev.
Q1385
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyNortheast Indian Festivals
Which of the following is NOT the festival of Arunachal Pradesh?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ranikor)
Ranikor is a scenic river border town and cultural festival venue in Meghalaya (not Arunachal Pradesh).
Q1386
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Painting Styles
Which of the following Indian painting styles is recognized by its use of intricate gold detailing and mythological themes?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Thanjavur)
Thanjavur (Tanjore) paintings of Tamil Nadu are famous for their rich, flat, vivid colors, surface gesso relief work, and extensive embellishment with real 22-karat gold foil and precious stones.
Q1387
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyHistoric Temples of India
Which of the following statements about the famous temples of India is/are correct? 1. Meenakshi Temple (Tamil Nadu) - A historic temple in Madurai, famous for its stunning Dravidian architecture. 2. Sun Temple (Odisha) - A 13th-century temple in Konark, known for its unique chariot- shaped structure. 3. Somnath Temple (Gujarat) - A historic temple known for the annual Rath Yatra (chariot festival).
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 2)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is false because the annual Rath Yatra chariot festival takes place at Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha (not Somnath).
Q1388
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographySouth Indian Dynasties
Who was the founder of the Chola dynasty?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Vijayalaya Chola)
Vijayalaya Chola established the Imperial Medieval Chola Empire around 850 CE by capturing Thanjavur from the Muttarayars.
Q1389
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyChronology of Indian History
Among the following queens who ruled first in chronological order?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Razia Sultana)
Razia Sultana ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1236 to 1240 CE, pre-dating Noor Jahan (17th c.), Ahilyabai Holkar (18th c.), and Rani Lakshmibai (19th c.).
Q1390
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyBritish Colonial Policies
The Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn due to which of the following reasons? 1. The Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn because Lord Dalhousie was not in favor of it. 2. The doctrine significantly contributed to the outbreak of the Indian Rebellion of 1857. 3. Queen Victoria's Proclamation in 1858 aimed to reassure Indian rulers and led to the abandonment of the doctrine. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2 and 3)
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: widespread resentment over annexations fueled the 1857 revolt, prompting Queen Victoria's 1858 Proclamation to renounce further territorial expansion (Dalhousie was the architect, not opponent).
Q1391
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyModern Indian Freedom Movement
The Poona Pact of 1932 was signed between:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar)
The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail between Mahatma Gandhi (represented by Madan Mohan Malaviya) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, replacing separate electorates with reserved seats for depressed classes.
Q1392
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Drainage System
The Brahmaputra River flows through, which of the following countries before entering India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Myanmar and China)
The Brahmaputra originates in Tibet (China) as the Yarlung Tsangpo, flows through China before entering India in Arunachal Pradesh.
Q1393
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyMajor Dams of India
Match the following pairs about the major dams located in various states in India. i. Tehri Dam ii. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam iii. Srisailam Dam iv. Almatti Dam
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1)
i -> 4 (Tehri Dam on Bhagirathi - Uttarakhand), ii -> 3 (Nagarjuna Sagar Dam on Krishna - Telangana/AP border), iii -> 2 (Srisailam Dam on Krishna - AP/Telangana), iv -> 1 (Almatti Dam on Krishna - Karnataka).
Q1394
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyMineral Resources of India
Which of the following minerals is primarily extracted from the Kudremukh mines?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Iron Ore)
The Kudremukh iron ore belt in Chikkamagaluru district, Karnataka is one of the world's largest magnetite iron ore deposits.
Q1395
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Climate & Rainfall
Which of the following place in India has highest annual rainfall?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mawsynram (Meghalaya))
Mawsynram in the East Khasi Hills of Meghalaya holds the Guinness World Record for the highest average annual rainfall on Earth (approx 11,872 mm).
Q1396
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyForest Types of India
Mangrove forests in India are predominantly found in which region?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The Sunderbans)
The Sundarbans delta in West Bengal (formed by the confluence of Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Meghna) is the largest single tract of halophytic mangrove swamp forest in the world.
Q1397
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyStates and Capitals
Match the different states/union territories of India with their capitals. i. Assam ii. Goa iii. Lakshadweep iv. Tripura
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4)
i -> 3 (Assam - Dispur), ii -> 1 (Goa - Porvorim/Panaji), iii -> 2 (Lakshadweep - Kavaratti), iv -> 4 (Tripura - Agartala).
Q1398
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyState Reorganization
Hyderabad is the joint capital of which two Indian states until 2014?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana)
Under the AP Reorganisation Act 2014, Hyderabad served as the joint capital for both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana for a transitional period of up to 10 years (until June 2024).
Q1399
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIntegration of Princely States & Colonies
Which states/Union Territories were NOT part of India at the time of independence (August 1947)? 1. Goa 2. Puducherry 3. Nagaland 4. Sikkim Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2 and 4)
Goa was under Portuguese rule until 1961; Puducherry was French territory until 1954; Sikkim joined the Indian Union in 1975. None of 1, 2, and 4 were part of India on 15 August 1947.
Q1400
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyState Formation Chronology
Arrange the following states in the chronological order of formation of states. 1. Telangana 2. Maharashtra 3. Meghalaya 4. Karnataka Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4, 2, 3, 1)
Chronological state reorganization: Karnataka (Mysore State established 1956), Maharashtra (formed 1 May 1960), Meghalaya (established 1972), Telangana (created 2 June 2014) ⟹4,2,3,1.
Q1401
General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KChemical Compounds
Which gas is commonly known as "Laughing Gas"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nitrous Oxide)
Nitrous oxide (N2O) is known as laughing gas for its euphoric and mild anesthetic inhalation effects.
Q1402
General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KDietary Minerals Functions
Match the minerals with their functions: Minerals: 1. Calcium 2. Iron 3. Potassium 4. Zinc
Function: i) Helps in the formation of red blood cells and prevents anemia ii) Supports bone and teeth health iii) Regulates fluid balance and muscle function iv) Supports the immune system and wound healing
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv)
1 -> ii (Calcium - bones & teeth), 2 -> i (Iron - hemoglobin & RBCs), 3 -> iii (Potassium - fluid electrolyte balance), 4 -> iv (Zinc - immune system & wound healing).
Q1403
General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KFounding of Jammu
Who is considered the founder of the city of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Raja Jambulochan)
According to historical legends and the Gulabnama, the 9th-century king Raja Jambulochan founded the city of Jambupura (Jammu) after witnessing a tiger and a goat drinking water harmoniously from the same spot on the Tawi river.
Q1404
General English & GrammarPunctuation Rules
Consider the following statements. Statement 1 : She said, I can't come today". Statement 2 : Pandit Nehru, the first Prime Minister of "India" died in 1964! Choose the correct option with respect to punctuation:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect)
Both statements contain punctuation errors: Statement 1 is missing the opening quotation mark before 'I', and Statement 2 unnecessarily places quotation marks around 'India' and ends a historical fact with an exclamation point.
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyPadma Awards 2022
In the year 2022, how many persons have been honored with Padma Awards?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (128 Persons)
The President of India approved the conferment of 128 Padma Awards in 2022 (4 Padma Vibhushan, 17 Padma Bhushan, and 107 Padma Shri).
Q1408
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyFirst Women in India
Who was the first woman Chief Minister of Independent India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sucheta Kripalani)
Sucheta Kripalani served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh from October 1963 to March 1967, becoming India's first woman Chief Minister.
Q1409
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyBharat Ratna Laureates
Who was the first Indian woman awardee of "Bharat Ratna"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Indira Gandhi)
Prime Minister Indira Gandhi was conferred the Bharat Ratna in 1971, becoming the first woman recipient of India's highest civilian honor.
Q1410
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyImportant Days in India
Which day is celebrated as the National Voluntary Blood Donation Day in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 October)
National Voluntary Blood Donation Day is observed across India annually on 1st October to raise awareness about voluntary non-remunerated blood donation.
Q1411
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographySports Autobiographies
Who among the following cricketers has authored the book "Straight from the Heart: An autobiography"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kapil Dev)
India's 1983 World Cup-winning legendary captain Kapil Dev authored the autobiography titled 'Straight from the Heart' (2004).
Q1412
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyWorld Geography Superlatives
Which is the largest river island in the World?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Majuli Island)
Majuli Island on the Brahmaputra River in Assam is recognized by Guinness World Records as the largest inhabited river island on Earth.
Q1413
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyCricket World Cup History
Cricket World Cup, 1983 was held in which of the following places?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (England)
The 1983 Prudential Cricket World Cup was hosted by England (and Wales) from 9 to 25 June 1983, where India defeated the West Indies at Lord's.
Q1414
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyNational Income Economics
What is the use of Net National Product (NNP)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To calculate per capita income)
Net National Product (NNP at factor cost) represents true National Income; dividing NNP by total population gives the country's Per Capita Income.
Q1415
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Climatology
The western cyclonic disturbance originates over _______
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Mediterranean)
Western Disturbances are extra-tropical winter storms that originate over the Mediterranean Sea, bringing winter precipitation to northwestern India and J&K.
Q1416
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyLakes of India
Which of these is the largest brackish water lake of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chilka Lake)
Chilika Lake in Odisha (covering over 1,100 km2) is the largest brackish water lagoon in India and second largest in the world.
Q1417
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyGupta Temple Architecture
The famous Gupta period Dashavatara Temple, recognized as one of the earliest Panchayatan temples in north India, is located at :
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Deogarh)
The 6th-century Gupta-period stone Dashavatara Temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu is located at Deogarh in Lalitpur district, Uttar Pradesh.
Q1418
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyMughal Gardens of Kashmir
Who built Shalimar Bagh in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jahangir)
Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar was built in 1619 by Mughal Emperor Jahangir for his beloved wife Empress Nur Jahan.
Q1419
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyInternational Organizations
Consider the following statement. Statement 1: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand. Statement 2: The ASEAN Charter serves as a firm foundation in achieving the ASEAN Community by providing legal status and institutional framework for ASEAN. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statement 1 and 2 are correct)
Both statements are historically correct: ASEAN was founded by the Bangkok Declaration on 8 August 1967, and the ASEAN Charter entered into force in 2008 providing a legal institutional framework.
Q1420
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyImportant Observance Days
Consider the following statement. Statement 1: Indian Navy Day will be celebrated on 4th of November in every year. Statement 2: Human Rights Day will be celebrated on 10th of November in every year. Choose the correct option
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect)
Both statements are incorrect: Indian Navy Day is celebrated on 4th December (Operation Trident), and International Human Rights Day is observed on 10th December (UDHR 1948).
Q1421
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyPublic Sector Enterprises
Consider the following statement. Statement 1 : The full form of BHEL is Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited Statement 2 : The abbreviations of GAIL stands for Gross Allowance of Industries Limited Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect)
Statement 1 is correct: BHEL stands for Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited. Statement 2 is incorrect: GAIL stands for Gas Authority of India Limited.
Q1422
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographySports History Statements
Consider the following statement. Statement 1: Normally commonwealth games are held at an interval of 4 years. Statement 2: K.D. Jadhav is the first Indian to win an individual medal in the Olympics. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statement 1 and 2 are correct)
Statement 1 is correct (quadrennial interval). Statement 2 is correct (wrestler Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav won individual Bronze at Helsinki 1952). Both statements are correct.
Q1423
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyDams and Hydroelectric Projects
Consider the following statement. Statement 1: Indira Sagar Dam is the largest reservoir in India Statement 2: The Koyna Hydroelectric Project is the largest hydroelectric power plant in India. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statement 1 and 2 are correct)
Statement 1 is correct (Indira Sagar on Narmada has India's largest water storage capacity of 12.22 billion m3). Statement 2 is correct (Koyna Hydroelectric Project in Maharashtra with 1,960 MW capacity is one of the largest completed hydroelectric complexes). Both statements are correct.
Q1424
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyEpithets and Heritage Sites
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I (Famous places): 1. The City of Palaces 2. Neela Gumbad 3. Spice Garden of India
List - II (Located States): i. Kerala ii. Kolkata iii. Delhi
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i)
1 -> ii ('City of Palaces' - Kolkata), 2 -> iii (Neela Gumbad - Humayun's Tomb complex, Delhi), 3 -> i ('Spice Garden of India' - Kerala). Match is 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i.
Q1425
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOfficial Languages of States
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I (State): 1. Goa 2. Maharashtra 3. Manipur
List - II (Primary/Official Language): i. Meitei ii. Marathi iii. Konkani
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i)
1 -> iii (Goa - Konkani), 2 -> ii (Maharashtra - Marathi), 3 -> i (Manipur - Meitei / Manipuri). Match is 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i.
Q1426
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyImportant Commemorative Dates
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I (Event): 1. Indian Air Force Day 2. World Teacher's Day 3. National Army Day
List - II (Dates): i. 5th October ii. 15th January iii. 8th October
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii)
1 -> iii (Indian Air Force Day - 8th October), 2 -> i (World Teachers' Day - 5th October), 3 -> ii (National Army Day - 15th January). Match is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii.
Q1427
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyFamous Books and Authors
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I (Books): 1. Harry Potter Series 2. Discovery of India 3. Oliver Twist
List - II (Authors): i. Charles Dickens ii. J.K. Rowling iii. Jawaharlal Nehru
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i)
1 -> ii (Harry Potter - J.K. Rowling), 2 -> iii (Discovery of India - Jawaharlal Nehru), 3 -> i (Oliver Twist - Charles Dickens). Match is 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i.
Q1428
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyPre-Monsoon Rainfall Terms
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I (Climate/Rainfall terms): 1. Rain caused by a lightning storm is called "Cherry Blossom" 2. Mango Showers are common in 3. Related to Pre-Monsoon shower 'Nor Westers'.
List- II (Representative of Indian States): i. West Bengal and Assam ii. Kerala iii. Karnataka
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i)
1 -> iii (Cherry Blossom coffee showers - Karnataka), 2 -> ii (Mango Showers - Kerala & coastal Karnataka), 3 -> i (Nor'westers / Kalbaisakhi - West Bengal & Assam). Match is 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i.
Q1429
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Dams Superlatives
Arrange in order: Highest Dam in India, Longest Dam in India, Oldest Dam in India
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tehri Dam in Bhagirathi River, Hirakud Dam in Mahanadi River, Kallanai Dam in Kaveri River.)
Highest Dam: Tehri Dam (260.5m on Bhagirathi, Uttarakhand); Longest Dam: Hirakud Dam (25.8 km on Mahanadi, Odisha); Oldest Dam: Kallanai Dam / Grand Anicut (built by Karikala Chola on Kaveri, Tamil Nadu).
Q1430
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOlympic Badminton History
Saina Nehwal is the _______ Indian Badminton player to have won an Olympic medal. She won the _______ medal in women's singles at the London Olympic in _______. Fill in the blanks in the correct order from the given options.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (First, bronze, 2012)
Saina Nehwal became the First Indian badminton player to win an Olympic medal when she clinched the Bronze medal in women's singles at the London Olympics in 2012.
Q1431
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsMOSFET Threshold Voltage Tuning
Consider the following statements. The threshold voltage of a MOSFET can be lowered by: 1. Using a thinner gate oxide 2. Reducing the substrate concentration 3. Increasing the substrate concentration Of these statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 are correct)
Threshold voltage VTH=VFB+2ϕF+Cox2ϵsqNA(2ϕF). Increasing Cox (thinner oxide tox) and decreasing substrate doping NA both reduce VTH. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Q1432
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsP-N Junction Electrostatics
The diffusion potential across a P-N junction
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Increases with increase in doping concentration)
The built-in diffusion potential is given by Vbi=Vtln(ni2NAND). Higher acceptor (NA) and donor (ND) doping concentrations logarithmically increase the diffusion barrier potential.
Q1433
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsDigital Counters
The initial state of MOD-16 down counter is 0110. After 37 clock pulses, the state of the counter will be
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0001)
Initial count =01102=610. In a down-counter with modulus 16, after 37 pulses: Effective pulses=37(mod16)=5. Final count =(6−5)(mod16)=110=00012.
Q1434
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsDigital Communications Matching
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the given below lists: List - I: i. Detection of a periodic signal in noise ii. Recovery of a band-limited signal from its uniformly sampled values iii. Finer quantization signals iv. Delta Modulation
List - II: 1. Increase in bandwidth 2. Slope overload error 3. Nyquist rate 4. Cross correlation
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2)
i -> 4 (Signal detection in noise - Cross correlation), ii -> 3 (Signal reconstruction - Nyquist rate), iii -> 1 (Finer quantization - Increase in bit rate/bandwidth), iv -> 2 (Delta Modulation - Slope overload error). Match is i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2.
Q1435
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsPA System Fundamentals
Which type of system is the PA system in audio devices?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Electroacoustic)
A Public Address (PA) system is an electroacoustic system comprising microphones, amplifiers, and loudspeakers converting acoustic waves into electrical signals and back to acoustic sound.
Q1436
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsState Pharmacy Councils
According to the Pharmacy Act, 1948, a State Pharmacy Council is responsible for:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Registering pharmacists in the state)
The primary statutory duty of a State Pharmacy Council is the maintenance of the Register of Pharmacists and granting registration to qualified pharmacists in the State.
Q1437
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsState Government Powers under Poisons Act
Under the Poison Act, 1919, the rules for Storage, labelling, and Transport of poisons are made by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (State Governments)
Section 2 of the Poisons Act, 1919 expressly empowers State Governments to make rules regulating the possession for sale, storage, labelling, and transport of poisons.
Q1438
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsProhibited Diseases under DMRA
The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 was enacted to prevent the advertisement of drugs that claim to cure which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Major diseases like cancer, AIDS and diabetes)
The Schedule to the DMRA 1954 lists 54 incurable/severe disorders including Cancer, AIDS, Diabetes, Epilepsy, and Blindness for which drug advertisements claiming cures are strictly prohibited.
Q1439
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsIAEC Functions
Which of the following is the objective of IAEC under 'The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To approve and monitor animal experimentation to ensure human treatment)
Institutional Animal Ethics Committees (IAEC) review, approve, and monitor experimental research protocols on small animals to ensure adherence to CPCSEA humane guidelines and 3Rs (Replacement, Reduction, Refinement).
Q1440
Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsRheology Fundamentals
The force per unit area which is used to apply to bring about the flow is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Shear stress)
Shear stress (τ=F/A) is the tangential force applied per unit area to induce fluid deformation or flow.
Q1441
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPharmacognosy Microscopy
What is the microscopic characteristic feature of rauwolfia?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lignified parenchyma)
Transverse sections of Rauwolfia serpentina roots are microscopically diagnosed by abundant starch-filled Lignified Parenchyma cells and stratified cork, with complete absence of sclerenchyma/fibres.
Q1442
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPlant Alkaloids
The primary toxic alkaloid found in Nux Vomica is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Strychnine)
The dried ripe seeds of Strychnos nux-vomica contain the potent, extremely toxic indole alkaloids Strychnine and Brucine.
Q1443
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessHerbal Synonyms
Deadly Nightshade is the synonym of:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Belladonna)
Atropa belladonna (family Solanaceae), rich in tropane alkaloids hyoscyamine and atropine, is universally known as Deadly Nightshade.
Q1444
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPhytochemical Identification Tests
Goldbeater skin test is used for identification of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tannins)
The Goldbeater's skin test (tanning ox intestine membrane to black with ferrous sulfate) is the classic diagnostic biochemical test for true Tannins.
Q1445
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOpium Botanical Source
Opium is derived from which part of the plant?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Latex from unripe seed pods)
Opium is the air-dried milky exudate (latex) obtained by incising the unripe capsule seed pods of the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum).
Q1446
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPharmacognostic Microscopy Matching
Given below are some of the microscopical diagnostic features of the drugs listed. Match the pair: i) Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate ii) Lignified parenchyma iii) Phloem fibres iv) Glandular trichomes
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i(r), ii(p), iii(q), iv(s))
i -> r (Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate in Senna leaflets), ii -> p (Lignified parenchyma in Rauwolfia roots), iii -> q (Phloem fibres in Cinnamon Bark), iv -> s (Glandular trichomes in Digitalis leaves). Correct match is i(r), ii(p), iii(q), iv(s).
Q1447
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPhytochemical Nutrition
Bael fruit is rich in which vitamin?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Vitamin C)
The ripe pulp of Bael fruit (Aegle marmelos) is exceptionally rich in Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) along with riboflavin (Vitamin B2) and pectin.
Q1448
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPhytochemical Toxicology
Coumarin, found in cassia cinnamon, can cause toxicity to which organ when consumed in excess?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Liver)
Cassia cinnamon contains substantial levels of Coumarin, which undergoes bioactivation in hepatic CYP450 enzymes to cytotoxic metabolites, causing severe Liver toxicity (hepatotoxicity).
Q1449
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessMorphine Chemical Properties
The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Amphoteric)
Morphine contains both an acidic phenolic hydroxyl group at C-3 and a basic tertiary amine nitrogen at C-17, behaving as an Amphoteric molecule capable of forming salts with both acids and strong bases.
Q1450
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessTraditional Herbal Medicines
Kurchi is traditionally used for treating:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dysentery and diarrhea)
Kurchi bark (Holarrhena antidysenterica, containing the steroidal alkaloid conessine) is the classic Ayurvedic and indigenous remedy for amoebic dysentery and diarrhea.
Q1451
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOpium Pharmacology
Which of the following is a therapeutic use of opium alkaloids?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pain relief)
Phenanthrene opium alkaloids (Morphine, Codeine) act on central nervous system opioid receptors to provide profound analgesia and severe pain relief.
Q1452
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessMorphine Derivatives
Codeine is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Methyl ether of morphine)
Codeine is chemically 3-O-methylmorphine, the monomethyl ether derivative of morphine synthesized by methylating morphine's phenolic hydroxyl group.
Q1453
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPurine Alkaloid Identification
Murexide test is used to detect which class of the following alkaloids?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Purine)
The Murexide reaction (producing purple ammonium purpurate with potassium chlorate, HCl, and ammonia vapor) is the specific diagnostic test for Purine alkaloids (Caffeine, Theophylline, Theobromine).
Q1454
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessAshwagandha Bioactive Phytochemicals
The primary bioactive compounds in Ashwagandha are:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Withanolides)
The therapeutic adaptogenic properties of Ashwagandha (Withania somnifera) are attributed to its steroidal lactones, principally Withanolides (withaferin A and withanolide D).
Q1455
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIpecac Botanical Source
Ipecac is derived from which part of the plant?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Roots and rhizomes)
Ipecacuanha (Ipecac), containing the emetic alkaloids emetine and cephaeline, consists of the dried roots and rhizomes of Cephaelis ipecacuanha (family Rubiaceae).
Q1456
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessSenna Laxative Mechanism
What is the mode of action of Senna as a laxative?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stimulating peristalsis of the colon)
Senna's active sennosides A and B are hydrolyzed by colon bacteria to rheinanthrone, which irritates the Auerbach plexus and stimulates active propulsive colon peristalsis.
Q1457
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessAloe Vera Herbal Uses
Which of the following is a traditional use of Aloe vera gel?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Treating burns and wounds)
Aloe vera mucilaginous leaf gel contains acemannan and bradykinase, traditionally applied topically for rapid healing of thermal burns, sunburns, and cutaneous wounds.
Q1458
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBotanical Families
Cinchona belongs to which plant family?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rubiaceae)
Cinchona (Cinchona succirubra / Cinchona calisaya), the botanical source of the antimalarial alkaloid quinine, belongs to the family Rubiaceae.
Q1459
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessEphedra Therapeutic Uses
Ephedra is commonly used in the treatment of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Asthma and nasal congestion)
Ephedra (Ma Huang), containing the sympathomimetic alkaloid ephedrine, stimulates β2-adrenergic receptors to produce bronchodilation in asthma and decongest nasal airways.
Q1460
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBrahmi Pharmacology
Brahmi exhibits which of the following pharmacological properties?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Neuroprotective and antioxidant)
Brahmi (Bacopa monnieri), containing bacosides A and B, exerts potent nootropic, neuroprotective, free-radical scavenging, and cognitive-enhancing antioxidant effects.
Q1461
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Constitution Fundamental Rights
Which article of the Indian constitution guarantee the right to equality?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 14)
Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees that 'The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India'.
Q1462
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessScientific Disciplines
What is the scientific term for the study of the structure, behaviour and evaluation of the universe?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cosmology)
Cosmology is the scientific discipline concerned with the origin, evolution, large-scale structure, and ultimate fate of the universe.
Q1463
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessModern Indian History
Which of the following battle marked the beginning of the British rule in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Battle of Plassey)
The Battle of Plassey (23 June 1757), where the British East India Company under Robert Clive defeated Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah of Bengal, marked the beginning of British political rule in India.
Q1464
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Olympic Hockey History
In which year did India win its first Olympic gold medal in Hockey?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1928)
India won its first historic Olympic Gold Medal in Field Hockey at the 1928 Amsterdam Olympic Games under captain Jaipal Singh Munda and legendary wizard Major Dhyan Chand.
Q1465
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFIFA World Cup
Which country hosted the 2022 FIFA world cup?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Qatar)
The 2022 FIFA World Cup was hosted by Qatar from 20 November to 18 December 2022, won by Argentina.
Q1466
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessForms of Government
Which of the following forms of government characterized by a single person holding absolute power and control?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Autocracy)
An Autocracy is a system of government in which supreme and absolute political power is concentrated in the hands of a single individual.
Q1467
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPublic Finance & Budgeting
What is the primary purpose of a budget?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To allocate resource effectively)
The fundamental purpose of a financial budget is the strategic, systematic allocation of finite economic resources to accomplish prioritized organizational or national goals.
Q1468
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessCurrent National Symbols
What is the name of the new parliament building in India, which was inaugurated in 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sansad Bhawan)
India's new triangular Parliament building, designed by Bimal Patel and inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 28 May 2023, is named 'Sansad Bhavan' (Samvidhan Sadan is the old building).
Q1469
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFinancial Markets Terminology
What is the term for the process of managing risk in financial markets?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hedging)
Hedging is an investment risk management strategy involving derivative contracts (futures, options) to offset the risk of adverse price movements in an asset.
Q1470
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessGoods and Services Tax (GST)
IGST is payable when the supply is?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Inter-state)
Under the GST regime, Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is levied by the Central Government on all Inter-State taxable supplies of goods and services as well as imports.
Q1471
Basic English & GrammarTypes of Nouns
Which of the following is an example of a common noun?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (School)
'School' is a generic common noun denoting a place of education (Taj Mahal, Rahul, and Mercury are specific proper nouns).
Q1472
Basic English & GrammarProper Nouns
Identify the proper noun in the sentence: "Alice loves to read books in the library."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Alice)
'Alice' is a proper noun referring to a specific person's name.
Q1473
Basic English & GrammarCollective Nouns
Choose the correct collective noun in the sentence: "The swarm of bees flew across the garden."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swarm)
'Swarm' is the collective noun used to describe a large group or colony of flying insects/bees.
Q1474
Basic English & GrammarCollective Nouns
"The audience was applauding the performance". The word 'audience' is a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Collective noun)
'Audience' is a collective noun denoting a group of spectators or listeners gathered together.
Q1475
Basic English & GrammarSingular and Plural Nouns
Which noun is a plural form?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Children)
'Children' is the irregular plural form of the singular noun 'child' ('ox' -> 'oxen', 'goose' -> 'geese').
Q1476
Basic English & GrammarAbstract Nouns
"His kindness is appreciated by all". The word 'kindness' is a
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Abstract noun)
'Kindness' is an abstract noun referring to an intangible human quality, state of mind, or virtuous behavior.
Q1477
Basic English & GrammarCompound Nouns
Which of the following is a compound noun?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Boyfriend)
'Boyfriend' is a closed compound noun formed by combining two distinct root words: 'boy' + 'friend'.
Q1478
Basic English & GrammarPlural Nouns
Choose the correct plural form of the word 'leaf'.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Leaves)
Nouns ending in '-f' typically form their plural by changing '-f' to '-ves': 'leaf' -> 'leaves'.
Q1479
Basic English & GrammarCollective Nouns
What kind of noun is 'flock' in the sentence: "A flock of birds flew over the field"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Collective noun)
'Flock' is a collective noun used to denote a group of birds, sheep, or goats.
Q1480
Basic English & GrammarPronouns
Identify the pronoun in the sentence: "He is going to the store".
💡Correct Answer: Option A (He)
'He' is a third-person singular masculine personal pronoun functioning as the subject of the sentence.
Q1481
Basic English & GrammarConjunctions
Which of the following is an example of a conjunction?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (And)
'And' is a coordinating conjunction used to connect words, phrases, or independent clauses.
Q1482
Basic English & GrammarGender of Nouns
What is the masculine form of "niece"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nephew)
The masculine equivalent of 'niece' (brother's/sister's daughter) is 'nephew' (brother's/sister's son).
Q1483
Basic English & GrammarGender of Nouns
What is the masculine form of the word "daughter"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Son)
The masculine equivalent of 'daughter' (female offspring) is 'son' (male offspring).
Q1484
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)SI Units
What is the SI unit of force?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Newton)
The SI unit of force is the Newton (symbol: N), defined as 1 N=1 kg⋅m/s2.
Q1485
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Pressure Units
What is the SI unit of pressure?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pascal)
The SI unit of pressure is the Pascal (symbol: Pa), where 1 Pa=1 N/m2.
Q1486
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Uniform Motion
If an object is said to be in uniform motion, it means
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time)
Uniform motion is defined as motion in which a body moves along a straight line covering equal distances in equal intervals of time at a constant speed.
Q1487
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFundamental Rights Article 19
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 19)
Article 19(1)(d) of the Indian Constitution guarantees to all citizens the fundamental right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
What was the total number of districts in India as per the 2011 Census?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (640)
During the 2011 Census, India comprised a total of 640 administrative districts (an increase from 593 in 2001).
Q1489
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementAims of Physical Education
What is the primary aim of Physical Education?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Promoting physical fitness)
The fundamental aim of physical education is the overall development of an individual through physical activities, with the immediate primary aim being the promotion of physical fitness and health.
Q1490
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementOlympic Movement History
In which year were the Olympic Games first revived?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1896)
The modern Olympic Games were first revived in 1896 in Athens, Greece, organized by Baron Pierre de Coubertin.
Q1491
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementNational Sports Awards
Who was the first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Viswanathan Anand)
Chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand was the inaugural recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (now Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna) in 1991–92.
Q1492
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementSports Terminology
PTI stands for:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Physical Training Instructor)
PTI is the standard educational abbreviation for Physical Training Instructor.
Q1493
Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyMuscular System Functions
What is the primary function of skeletal muscles?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Movement)
The primary function of voluntary skeletal muscles is to generate force and pull on bones to produce bodily Movement and maintain posture.
Q1494
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementOlympic Movement History
Who is considered the father of modern Olympic Games?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pierre de Coubertin)
Baron Pierre de Coubertin of France is universally recognized as the Father of the Modern Olympic Games for establishing the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in 1894.
Q1495
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementRules of Games (Football)
What is the standard duration of a football match?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (90 minutes)
A standard FIFA association football match consists of two equal halves of 45 minutes each, totaling 90 minutes of regulation play.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Recommended Dietary Allowance)
RDA stands for Recommended Dietary Allowance, representing the average daily dietary nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the requirements of nearly all healthy individuals.
Q1501
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementClassification of Sports
Which is a non-contact sport?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Badminton)
Badminton is a non-contact sport where opponents are separated by a net with no physical contact permitted (unlike contact/collision sports like football, wrestling, and hockey).
Q1502
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementOlympic Symbols
The Olympic symbol consists of how many rings?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5)
The official Olympic symbol consists of 5 interlocking colored rings (blue, yellow, black, green, and red) representing the union of the five inhabited continents of the world.
Q1503
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementNational Sports Awards
Which award is given to coaches for excellence in sports?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dronacharya Award)
The Dronacharya Award, instituted in 1985 by the Government of India, is presented to outstanding coaches in sports and games for producing medal winners.
Q1504
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementIndian Sports Legends
Who among the following is known as the "Flying Sikh" of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Milkha Singh)
Legendary Indian track and field sprinter Milkha Singh was conferred the honorary title 'The Flying Sikh' by General Ayub Khan of Pakistan in 1960.
Q1505
Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesKinesiology Foundations
The study of body movement is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kinesiology)
Kinesiology (from Greek kinesis = movement) is the scientific study of human body movement, mechanics, and physical activity.
Doping involves the use of banned substances or methods to artificially enhance an athlete's physical performance, strength, speed, or endurance.
Q1507
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophy of PE
The primary goal of physical education is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Holistic development)
The ultimate philosophical goal of physical education is the Holistic Development (physical, mental, emotional, and social well-being) of the individual.
Q1508
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningMotor Learning Theories
The transfer of training is MOST effectively demonstrated through:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Identical element theory)
Edward Thorndike's Identical Element Theory states that transfer of learning/training between two tasks occurs to the extent that both tasks share identical elements, skills, and cognitive processing.
Q1509
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningStages of Motor Learning
In motor skill learning, which stage involves maximum refinement?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Autonomous stage)
According to Fitts and Posner's three-stage model of motor learning, the Autonomous Stage represents the highest level of skill mastery and refinement where movements become automatic and highly accurate.
Q1510
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningSports Psychology
The most critical factor in sports performance psychology is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mental resilience)
In sports performance psychology, Mental Resilience (mental toughness and coping under pressure) is the decisive factor that allows elite athletes to perform consistently.
Q1511
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophies of PE
Which philosophical approach emphasizes individual experience in physical education?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Existentialism)
Existentialism in physical education emphasizes personal choice, individuality, self-realization, and subjective human embodied experience ('existence precedes essence').
Q1512
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningGroup Dynamics & Cohesion
Group dynamics MOST significantly impact:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Team cohesion)
Group dynamics in sports psychology most directly shape Team Cohesion (the dynamic process reflected in the tendency for a group to stick together and remain united in pursuit of goals).
Q1513
Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesSports Biomechanics
The primary purpose of biomechanical analysis is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Performance optimization)
The overarching objective of sports biomechanical analysis is Performance Optimization through the mechanical refinement of technique (while concurrently reducing injury risks).
Q1514
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningMotivation in Sports
In sport psychology, "intrinsic motivation" refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Motivation arising from personal satisfaction)
Intrinsic motivation refers to engaging in sports behavior for the inherent pleasure, personal satisfaction, mastery, and enjoyment derived directly from the activity itself.
Q1515
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningPE Pedagogy
In pedagogical terms, "differentiated instruction" in physical education implies:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Adapting teaching methods to individual student needs)
Differentiated instruction involves tailoring instructional strategies, tasks, equipment, and difficulty levels to accommodate diverse student abilities, learning styles, and developmental readiness.
In sports nutrition, "glycogen loading" is most beneficial for:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Endurance athletes)
Carbohydrate / Glycogen loading maximizes muscle glycogen storage to delay fatigue in Endurance Athletes competing in continuous events lasting >90 minutes (marathons, triathlons).
Q1517
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningStudent-Centered PE Pedagogy
Which pedagogical approach emphasizes student-centered learning in physical education?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Task-based learning)
Task-Based Learning (and Teaching Games for Understanding / TGfU) is a student-centered pedagogical model emphasizing student inquiry, problem-solving, and active skill exploration.
Q1518
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningFlow State Psychology
In sports psychology, "flow state" represents:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Complete mental absorption in an activity)
The Flow State (or 'being in the zone', conceptualized by Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi) is a state of optimal performance characterized by Complete Mental Absorption, effortless focus, and deep immersion in an activity.
Q1519
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementScope of PE
What is the scope of Physical Education in the modern era?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Holistic development including physical, mental, and social well-being)
Modern physical education encompasses Holistic Development, promoting lifelong fitness, physical literacy, mental resilience, ethical sportsmanship, and social well-being.
Q1520
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementEducational Domains in PE
Which domain in Physical Education focuses on movement skills?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Psychomotor domain)
Bloom's taxonomy identifies the Psychomotor Domain as focusing on physical movement, motor coordination, neuromuscular skills, and technical sports execution.
Q1521
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophies of PE
Which philosophy emphasizes the "existence precedes essence" concept in Physical Education?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Existentialism)
Existentialism posits that 'existence precedes essence', prioritizing personal freedom of movement, authentic individual choice, and subjective self-discovery in physical activity.
Q1522
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementRegional Multi-Sport Games
What was the main goal of the South Asian Federation (SAF) Games?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Foster regional cooperation through sports)
The primary founding objective of the South Asian Games (formerly South Asian Federation / SAF Games instituted in 1984) is to Foster Regional Cooperation, friendship, and peace through sports among SAARC nations.
Consider the following statements about sports injuries: 1. Proper training can prevent injuries. 2. Wearing protective gear reduces injury risk. 3. Overtraining has no effect on injury occurrence. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 2 only)
Statements 1 and 2 are scientifically correct; statement 3 is false because overtraining dramatically increases chronic overuse and acute injury occurrence. Correct choice: 1 and 2 only.
Consider the following statements about the concept of rehabilitation: 1. Rehabilitation involves restoring functionality after injury. 2. It focuses only on physical recovery. 3. It includes both physical and mental health restoration. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1 and 3 only)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: comprehensive sports rehabilitation restores neuromuscular function and addresses psychological/mental recovery (statement 2 is false as it is not limited to physical recovery). Correct: 1 and 3 only.
Q1525
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementOlympic Facts
Consider the following statements about the Olympic Games: 1. The modern Olympic Games were revived in 1896. 2. The Olympics are held every four years. 3. The Winter Olympics were introduced after the Summer Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, and 3)
All three statements are correct: (1) Revived in 1896 Athens, (2) Quadrennial 4-year cycle, (3) Winter Olympics debuted in 1924 Chamonix, following the Summer Games. Correct: 1, 2, and 3.
Q1526
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementEducational Domains Matching
Match the following components of Physical Education with their focus: Component: 1. Affective domain 2. Psychomotor domain 3. Cognitive domain 4. Fitness domain
Focus: i. Emotional and social development ii. Development of movement skills iii. Knowledge and intellectual skills iv. Physical well-being
Choose the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv)
1 -> i (Affective: emotional/social), 2 -> ii (Psychomotor: movement skills), 3 -> iii (Cognitive: knowledge), 4 -> iv (Fitness: physical well-being). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
Q1527
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementHistorical Events Matching
Match the following historical events with their significance: Event: 1. Ancient Olympic Games 2. Modern Olympic Games 3. Asian Games 4. Commonwealth Games
Significance: i. First organized multi-sport event ii. Revived global sporting competition iii. Regional sports cooperation iv. Sports unity among Commonwealth
Choose the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv)
1 -> i (Ancient Olympics: first organized multi-sport event), 2 -> ii (Modern Olympics: revived global competition), 3 -> iii (Asian Games: regional cooperation), 4 -> iv (Commonwealth Games: sports unity among Commonwealth). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
Q1528
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophy of PE
Philosophical foundations of Physical Education transcend:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Holistic human development paradigms)
The philosophical foundations of physical education transcend isolated fitness metrics to encompass Holistic Human Development Paradigms integrating mind, body, and spirit.
Q1529
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningAdvanced Sports Psychology
Advanced sports psychology reveals motivation as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Multidimensional psychological phenomenon)
Modern sports psychology conceptualizes motivation as a Multidimensional Psychological Phenomenon incorporating intrinsic drives, self-determination, external contingencies, and social contexts.
Q1530
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementInterdisciplinary Foundations
Interdisciplinary perspectives in Physical Education demonstrate:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Complex systemic interconnectedness)
Interdisciplinary synthesis across biomechanics, exercise physiology, sociology, and pedagogy demonstrates Complex Systemic Interconnectedness in human physical potential.
Q1531
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningNeuromotor Learning
Neurological adaptation in skill learning suggests:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dynamic neural restructuring)
Motor skill acquisition drives neuroplasticity, resulting in Dynamic Neural Restructuring, synaptic strengthening, and optimized motor cortex representations.
Q1532
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhenomenology of Movement
The philosophical dimensions of human movement encompass:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Existential embodied experience)
In movement philosophy (phenomenology/existentialism), movement is understood fundamentally as an Existential Embodied Experience of being-in-the-world.
Q1533
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementSociology of Sports
Sociological dynamics of sports participation reveal:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Complex cultural integration mechanisms)
Sports sociology shows that athletic participation functions through Complex Cultural Integration Mechanisms, socialization, and community solidarity.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Holistic systemic restoration)
Modern sports medicine rehabilitation transcends localized symptom treatment to emphasize Holistic Systemic Restoration of the kinetic chain and psychological readiness.
Q1535
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningPsychological Resilience
Psychological resilience in sports performance involves:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Adaptive cognitive flexibility)
Psychological resilience under competitive pressure is fundamentally driven by Adaptive Cognitive Flexibility, emotional regulation, and dynamic coping strategies.
Q1536
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophy of Human Potential
Philosophical interpretations of physical potential explore:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Existential human capability)
Philosophical analysis of human athletic potential explores the boundaries of Existential Human Capability and self-transcendence.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Comprehensive strategic development)
Contemporary sports administration requires Comprehensive Strategic Development across facility planning, athlete support, and institutional governance.
Q1539
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningNeuroplasticity & Motor Skills
Neuroplasticity in skill acquisition suggests:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dynamic neural adaptation)
Neuroplasticity demonstrates that the central nervous system undergoes continuous Dynamic Neural Adaptation in response to deliberate motor practice.
Q1540
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementMovement Philosophy
Philosophical foundations of movement explore:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Existential embodied experience)
The philosophical inquiry into movement explores the Existential Embodied Experience of human consciousness in physical action.
Q1541
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementSociocultural Sports Dimensions
Sociocultural dimensions of sports participation reveal:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Complex cultural integration processes)
Sociocultural analysis shows sports as Complex Cultural Integration Processes shaping identity, community values, and social cohesion.
Q1542
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningTransfer of Learning
In motor learning, "transfer of learning" means:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Applying skills learned in one context to another)
Transfer of Learning occurs when previous practice, knowledge, or mastery of a motor skill positively or negatively influences the learning or execution of another skill in a new context.
Q1543
Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyEnergy Systems in Sports
The primary energy system used in 400-meter sprint is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Glycolytic system)
A competitive 400-meter sprint (lasting approx 43–55 seconds) is fueled predominantly by the Fast (Anaerobic) Glycolytic System, generating ATP via rapid glycogen breakdown with lactic acid production.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Multifaceted development)
Developing effective sports leaders and captains requires Multifaceted Development spanning emotional intelligence, communication, ethical decision-making, and strategic vision.
Q1563
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityReasoning and Logic
Reasoning from general to specific is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Deductive reasoning)
Deductive reasoning is a top-down logical process where conclusions are drawn necessarily from general premises or universal principles down to specific instances.
Which of the following contains information about the particular order in which things occur (e.g., like in at a café)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Script)
A Script (event schema, conceptualized by Schank and Abelson) is a structured mental representation containing the stereotypical chronological sequence of actions expected in familiar situations.
According to Lockhart, the type of recall task in experiments in which recalling items in any random order is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Free recall)
In memory experiments, Free Recall is a testing paradigm where participants are asked to retrieve previously studied list items in any order without cues.
Which of the following stores and processes speech-based information.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Phonological loop)
In Alan Baddeley's tripartite working memory model, the Phonological Loop comprises a short-term phonological store and an articulatory rehearsal mechanism for speech-based acoustic information.
Q1567
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeuropsychology of Language
Which of the following is characterized by problems recalling words, names, and numbers
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Anomic aphasia)
Anomic Aphasia (nominal aphasia) is a neurological language impairment characterized by severe word-finding difficulties (dysnomia) for naming objects, people, or numbers despite preserved comprehension and fluency.
Which is the study of how context influences how people understand and create meaning from communication.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pragmatics)
Pragmatics is the branch of linguistics and cognitive psychology that studies how situational and conversational context shapes the interpretation and social use of language.
Which is an anatomically based, comprehensive measurement system that assesses 44 different muscle movements of face.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Facial action coding system)
The Facial Action Coding System (FACS), developed by Paul Ekman and Wallace Friesen, is a comprehensive anatomical taxonomy that objectively codes 44 facial Action Units (AUs).
The Cocktail Party Effect (selective auditory auditory attention in a noisy environment) was experimentally discovered and demonstrated by Colin Cherry in 1953 using dichotic listening tasks.
Match the following: Column A: i. Sleep apnea ii. Cataplexy iii. Sleep attack iv. Sleep paralysis
Column B: 1) paralysis occurring just before a person falls asleep 2) irresistible urge to sleep during the day 3) cessation of breathing while sleeping 4) complete paralysis that occurs during waking
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv- 1)
i -> 3 (Sleep apnea: cessation of breathing while sleeping), ii -> 4 (Cataplexy: sudden complete muscle atonia during waking triggered by emotion), iii -> 2 (Sleep attack: irresistible daytime urge to sleep), iv -> 1 (Sleep paralysis: transient motor paralysis occurring at sleep onset/offset). Correct match: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1.
Q1572
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeurobiology of Sleep
Which peptide has been framed to cause narcolepsy.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Orexin)
Narcolepsy with cataplexy is caused by the autoimmune destruction of lateral hypothalamic neurons producing the neuropeptide Orexin (also known as Hypocretin).
The beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans secrete insulin in response to postprandial glucose absorption and nutrient intake as we feed and become satiated.
Match the following: Column A: i. Glycogen ii. Glucose iii. Glucagon iv. Glycerol
Column B: 1) Derived from breakdown of triglyceride 2) A pancreatic hormone 3) Simple sugar 4) Complex insoluble carbohydrate stored in liver and muscles
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1)
i -> 4 (Glycogen: complex insoluble storage carbohydrate), ii -> 3 (Glucose: simple monosaccharide sugar), iii -> 2 (Glucagon: pancreatic alpha-cell hormone raising blood glucose), iv -> 1 (Glycerol: derived from triglyceride lipid breakdown). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.
Q1575
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeuroanatomy of Vision
The calcarine fissure
💡Correct Answer: Option D (located in the occipital lobe)
The calcarine fissure (calcarine sulcus) is located on the medial surface of the Occipital Lobe, where the primary visual cortex (Brodmann area 17 / V1) is situated.
Below are two statements. Select your answer using the codes below. Statement 1: Enzymes are known as catalysts Statement 2: Enzymes cause a chemical reaction to take place while becoming a part of the final product themselves
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I is true but II is false)
Statement 1 is true (enzymes are biological protein catalysts that accelerate reaction rates). Statement 2 is false (catalysts remain chemically unchanged and do not become part of the final reaction products).
Q1578
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeurobiology of Fear
Which part of the brain is suspected to contribute to contextual fear conditioning?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hippocampus)
While the amygdala mediates cued fear conditioning, the Hippocampus is specifically critical for Contextual Fear Conditioning by encoding spatial and contextual configurations.
What is released in large amount by Locus Coeruleus?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Norepinephrine)
The Locus Coeruleus in the dorsal pons is the principal site for the synthesis and widespread central release of Norepinephrine (noradrenaline) mediating arousal and vigilance.
When people with certain genetic traits choose environments that support those traits, it is known as ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Active genotype-environment correlation)
Active Genotype-Environment Correlation (also known as niche-picking) occurs when individuals actively seek out or select environments and experiences that match their genetically influenced abilities and inclinations.
The dimension of sensation-seeking which represents dislike for repetition, routine work, monotony, predictable and dull people is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Boredom susceptibility)
In Marvin Zuckerman's Sensation Seeking Scale, Boredom Susceptibility reflects an aversion to repetitive experiences, routine work, monotony, and predictable persons.
Which of the following is true for Temperament and Character Inventory? I. It is based on a humanistic model of personality II. It operates on three temperaments and four characters. III. It is theorized on Cloninger's theory IV. Each temperament/ character has differing number of subscales. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (III and IV only)
Cloninger's Temperament and Character Inventory (TCI) is based on Cloninger's psychobiological model (Statement III is true) and measures 4 temperaments (Novelty Seeking, Harm Avoidance, Reward Dependence, Persistence) and 3 characters (Self-Directedness, Cooperativeness, Self-Transcendence), with each scale having differing subscales (Statement IV is true). Statements I & II are false. Correct: III and IV only.
Q1583
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityReducer-Augmenter Theory
The reducer-augmenter theory was tested using the ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kinesthetic figural after effect)
Petrie's Reducer-Augmenter Theory of sensory modulation and cortical arousability was experimentally measured using the Kinesthetic Figural Aftereffect (KFA) apparatus.
Q1584
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityKelly's Personal Construct Corollaries
According to George Kelly, Persons differ from each other in their construction of events is supported by which corollary?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Individuality)
In George Kelly's Personal Construct Psychology, the Individuality Corollary explicitly states: 'Persons differ from each other in their construction of events'.
Which of the following are approaches to identifying traits? I. Lexical II. Statistical III. Theoretical Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III only)
In trait personality psychology, the three fundamental approaches to identifying primary traits are: (1) The Lexical approach, (2) The Statistical approach (factor analysis), and (3) The Theoretical approach. All three are valid.
Match the following: Personality Trait: 1. Sincerity 2. Order 3. Sentimentality 4. Straight-forwardness
Personality factor: i. Conscientiousness ii. Agreeableness iii. Emotionality iv. Honesty-Humility
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iv; 2-i; 3-iii; 4-ii)
In the HEXACO model of personality: 1. Sincerity -> iv (Honesty-Humility), 2. Order -> i (Conscientiousness), 3. Sentimentality -> iii (Emotionality), 4. Straightforwardness -> ii (Agreeableness / Honesty facet). Correct match: 1-iv; 2-i; 3-iii; 4-ii.
Which of the following personality are traits covered under the HEXACO model of personality? 1. Modesty; 2. Order; 3. Perfectionism; 4. Openness to Values Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 3 only)
In the HEXACO model (Ashton & Lee), Modesty is a primary facet of Honesty-Humility (H), and Perfectionism (and Prudence/Organization) is a primary facet of Conscientiousness (C).
Q1588
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalitySchools of Psychology Matching
Match the following: Psychology school: i. Psychodynamic ii. Behavioral iii. Humanistic iv. Cognitive
Focus: 1) Observable behavior 2) Personal growth and self-actualization 3) Unconscious drives and conflicts 4) Mental processes like memory and thinking
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-3; ii-1; iii-2, iv-4)
i -> 3 (Psychodynamic: unconscious drives), ii -> 1 (Behavioral: observable behavior), iii -> 2 (Humanistic: personal growth & self-actualization), iv -> 4 (Cognitive: mental processes, memory, thinking). Correct match: i-3; ii-1; iii-2, iv-4.
Match the following: Psychologist: i. Lawrence Kohlberg ii. B.F. Skinner iii. Jean Piaget iv. Ivan Pavlov
Contribution: 1) Operant conditioning 2) Stages of moral development 3) Classical conditioning 4) Stages of cognitive development
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2; ii-1; iii-4; iv-3)
i -> 2 (Kohlberg: moral development), ii -> 1 (Skinner: operant conditioning), iii -> 4 (Piaget: cognitive development stages), iv -> 3 (Pavlov: classical conditioning). Correct match: i-2; ii-1; iii-4; iv-3.
Q1590
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityHistory of Psychology
Who is considered the "father of psychology"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Wilhelm Wundt)
Wilhelm Wundt is universally recognized as the Father of Experimental Psychology for founding the first formal psychological research laboratory in Leipzig, Germany in 1879.
Q1591
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityPsychodynamic Theory
Which of the following statements about the psychodynamic perspective are true? I. It focuses on unconscious drives and conflicts. II. It was pioneered by Sigmund Freud. III. It emphasizes observable behavior over internal processes. IV It is concerned with the influence of early childhood experiences. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, II, and IV only)
Statements I, II, and IV accurately describe the psychodynamic school (Statement III is false because behaviorism, not psychodynamic theory, emphasizes observable behavior). Correct: I, II, and IV only.
Q1592
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityFounding of Psychology
Wundt established the first psychology laboratory in ______.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1879)
Wilhelm Wundt established the world's first formal experimental psychology laboratory at the University of Leipzig in 1879.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Studying human strengths and fostering well-being)
Founded by Martin Seligman, Positive Psychology focuses on the empirical study of human flourishing, character strengths, resilience, happiness, and subjective Well-Being.
According to Jean Piaget, cognitive development occurs in ______
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Four distinct stages)
Jean Piaget's stage theory posits that children progress through Four Distinct qualitative stages: Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Concrete Operational, and Formal Operational.
Q1595
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsFunctions of Scientific Theories
Which of the following does a theory NOT do?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Projection)
Scientific psychological theories describe, explain, and predict behavioral phenomena; 'Projection' is a psychoanalytic defense mechanism, not a formal function of a scientific theory.
Q1596
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsConfounding Variables
Change in variable not controlled in the experiment is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Confounding)
An extraneous uncontrolled variable that covaries systematically with the independent variable and provides an alternative explanation for results is a Confounding variable.
Arrange the following stages of Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory in the correct order: I. Formal Operational Stage II. Preoperational Stage III. Concrete Operational Stage IV. Sensorimotor Stage Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (IV -> II -> III -> I)
Piaget's four stages in invariant developmental order: IV. Sensorimotor (0-2 yrs) -> II. Preoperational (2-7 yrs) -> III. Concrete Operational (7-11 yrs) -> I. Formal Operational (12+ yrs). Sequence: IV -> II -> III -> I.
Q1598
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationLanguage Development Milestones
Arrange the milestones in language development in the correct developmental order: I. First Words II. Telegraphic Speech III. Cooing IV. Babbling Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (III -> IV -> I -> II)
Infant language acquisition milestones in chronological order: III. Cooing (approx 2 months) -> IV. Babbling (approx 6 months) -> I. First Words (approx 12 months) -> II. Telegraphic Speech (approx 18-24 months). Sequence: III -> IV -> I -> II.
Arrange the following stages of attachment development as per Bowlby's theory in the correct order: I. Clear-cut Attachment Phase II. Attachment-in-the-Making Phase III. Formation of a Reciprocal Relationship IV. Preattachment Phase Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (IV -> II -> I -> III)
John Bowlby's four phases of attachment development: IV. Preattachment (birth to 6 wks) -> II. Attachment-in-the-making (6 wks to 6-8 mos) -> I. Clear-cut attachment (6-8 mos to 18-24 mos) -> III. Formation of reciprocal relationships (18-24 mos onwards). Sequence: IV -> II -> I -> III.
Q1600
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationPrenatal Development Stages
Arrange the stages of prenatal development in the correct order: I. Embryonic Stage II. Germinal Stage III. Fetal Stage Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II -> I -> III)
Prenatal development progresses through three successive stages: II. Germinal stage (conception to 2 weeks) -> I. Embryonic stage (weeks 3 to 8) -> III. Fetal stage (week 9 to birth). Sequence: II -> I -> III.
Arrange the following theorists based on the year in which they gave their theories, starting from the earliest. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Piaget -> Kohlberg -> Gilligan)
Chronological timeline of moral/developmental theories: Jean Piaget (pioneered cognitive and moral development stages in 1930s-1950s) -> Lawrence Kohlberg (formalized moral development stages in 1958/1969) -> Carol Gilligan (formulated ethics of care in 1982). Sequence: Piaget -> Kohlberg -> Gilligan.
Q1602
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationVygotsky Sociocultural Theory
Which of the following are features of Vygotsky's Sociocultural Theory? I. Learning is a social process mediated by cultural tools. II. The Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) refers to tasks a child can accomplish without assistance. III. Scaffolding involves providing support to help children achieve tasks beyond their independent ability. IV. Language plays a key role in cognitive development. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, III, and IV only)
In Lev Vygotsky's theory: social mediation (I), instructional scaffolding (III), and language as a cognitive tool (IV) are core tenets. Statement II is false because ZPD represents the distance between actual independent level and potential level achieved with adult assistance. Correct: I, III, and IV only.
Q1603
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationSelf-Determination Theory
What does the self-determination theory in educational psychology emphasize?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The importance of autonomy, competence, and relatedness in motivation)
Deci and Ryan's Self-Determination Theory (SDT) posits that intrinsic motivation and optimal psychological functioning require the fulfillment of three basic psychological needs: Autonomy, Competence, and Relatedness.
Q1604
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationFormative vs Summative Assessment
What is the primary goal of formative assessment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To identify learning gaps and provide feedback)
Formative assessment is an ongoing diagnostic pedagogical process designed to monitor student learning, Identify Learning Gaps, and provide continuous constructive feedback to improve instruction.
Match the following: Assessment Type: I. Summative Assessment II. Diagnostic Assessment III. Criterion-referenced Test IV. Face Validity
Purpose: 1. Measure overall learning at the end of a course 2. Appears relevant measure 3. Compare performance to a set standard 4. Identify learning gaps and student needs
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I-1; II-4; III-3; IV-2)
I -> 1 (Summative: measure end-of-course learning), II -> 4 (Diagnostic: identify learning gaps), III -> 3 (Criterion-referenced: compare to predefined standard), IV -> 2 (Face validity: appears relevant on superficial inspection). Correct match: I-1; II-4; III-3; IV-2.
Which of the following are features of Bloom's Taxonomy? I. It categorizes learning objectives into cognitive, affective, and psychomotor domains. II. The cognitive domain includes levels such as knowledge, comprehension, and application. III. It emphasizes rote memorization over higher-order thinking skills. IV. The taxonomy provides a hierarchical structure for setting educational goals. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, II, and IV only)
Benjamin Bloom's Taxonomy spans 3 domains (I), features a 6-level cognitive hierarchy from knowledge to evaluation (II, IV), and explicitly promotes higher-order thinking over rote memorization (Statement III is false). Correct: I, II, and IV only.
In family therapy, which of the following roles do therapists typically adopt?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Fostering open communication and helping family members understand each other's perspectives)
Family systemic therapists serve as facilitators who Foster Open Communication, illuminate dysfunctional interactional patterns, and promote mutual empathy and systemic reorganization.
Which of the following is true about multicultural counseling?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It emphasizes understanding and respecting cultural differences in the therapeutic process.)
Multicultural counseling emphasizes cultural competence, recognizing how cultural identity, values, race, ethnicity, and systemic factors influence the client's worldview and therapeutic relationship.
Which of the following is an ethical issue that counselors must consider in their practice?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Maintaining confidentiality, unless there is a risk of harm to the client or others)
The fundamental ethical mandate in psychological counseling is Maintaining Confidentiality, with mandatory exceptions strictly defined under duty-to-warn/protect statutes when there is imminent risk of harm to self or others.
