Which section of IT Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for cheating by imprisonment by using computer resource?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Section 66 D)
Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, provides punishment for cheating by personation by using a computer resource, with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees.
Q2
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWeb Security
Which of the following explains the nature of Cookies?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Transient)
In standard computer network contexts, cookies are described as transient (temporary) because session cookies expire when the browser is closed, and even persistent cookies have a set expiration time.
Q3
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWeb Security
Which of the following is a Boolean cookie attribute?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secure)
'Secure' is a Boolean attribute (flag) for cookies. When set, it restricts the transmission of the cookie to secure (HTTPS) connections only.
Q4
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsNetworking
Abbreviation of DNS is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Domain Name System)
DNS stands for Domain Name System, which translates human-readable domain names (like example.com) into machine-readable IP addresses.
Q5
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsSubnetting
The subnet mask for a particular network is 255.255.31.0. Which of the following pairs of IP addresses could belong to this network?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (128.8.129.43 & 128.8.161.55)
With subnet mask 255.255.31.0, bitwise ANDing of 129 (10000001) and 31 (00011111) gives 1, and 161 (10100001) and 31 gives 1. Thus, both 128.8.129.43 and 128.8.161.55 share the same subnet prefix (128.8.1.0).
Q6
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsSubnetting
A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (62)
The subnet mask 255.255.255.192 leaves 6 bits for the host ID (32 - 26 = 6 bits). The maximum number of assignable hosts is 2^6 - 2 = 62 (excluding network and broadcast addresses).
Which of the following is NOT true with respect to a transparent bridge and a router?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A bridge uses IP addresses while a router uses MAC addresses)
The statement in Option B is reversed: a bridge works at Layer 2 and uses MAC addresses, whereas a router works at Layer 3 and uses IP addresses. Therefore, Option B is NOT true.
Which media access control protocol is used by IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (CSMA/CA)
IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to manage medium access and avoid collisions on the wireless medium.
Q9
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsData Communication
The telephone network is a good example of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Full duplex)
The telephone network is a full-duplex system because both parties can transmit and receive audio signals simultaneously over the same channel.
SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol) is an older encapsulation protocol for serial ports, not a Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocol. PPTP, L2F, and IPSec are VPN tunneling protocols.
Typically, _____ can receive application data from any application layer protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both A & B)
Both SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS (Transport Layer Security) reside at the transport/session layer and can secure any application-layer protocol, although HTTP is the most common use case (resulting in HTTPS).
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is an email encryption protocol that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication. SSL/TLS are general transport protocols, and IPSec operates at the network layer.
Q14
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptography
In an RSA system, if the user chooses both prime number as p=59, q=61, then what is the value of n?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3599)
In the RSA cryptosystem, the modulus n is the product of the two prime numbers: n = p q = 59 61 = 3599.
Q15
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptography
In RSA, phi(n) = _____ in terms of p and q.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((p-1)*(q-1))
In RSA, Euler's totient function phi(n) represents the number of positive integers up to n that are relatively prime to n, and is computed as phi(n) = (p - 1) * (q - 1).
Q16
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptography
What is data encryption standard (DES)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Block cipher)
DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a symmetric block cipher that processes plaintext data in fixed-size blocks of 64 bits.
Q17
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptography
In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Receiver)
In asymmetric (public key) cryptography, the public key is shared widely, while the corresponding private key must be kept secret exclusively by the receiver to decrypt messages.
Q18
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsNetworking
PDU stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Protocol data unit)
PDU stands for Protocol Data Unit, which represents a single unit of information transmitted among peer entities of a computer network (e.g. segments in TCP, packets in IP, frames in Ethernet).
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) provides confidentiality (via symmetric encryption), integrity (via Message Authentication Codes/HMAC), and also supports data compression.
Q20
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsStatistics
If 35 is removed from the data, 30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40 then the median increased by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.5)
For 8 sorted numbers, Median = (36 + 37)/2 = 36.5. If 35 is removed, remaining 7 numbers have 4th value = 37. Median increase = 37 - 36.5 = 0.5.
Q21
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability
In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 10 or 11?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5/36)
Total outcomes = 36. Favorable outcomes for 10 are (4,6), (5,5), (6,4) [3 outcomes]. Favorable outcomes for 11 are (5,6), (6,5) [2 outcomes]. Total favorable outcomes = 5. Probability = 5/36.
Q22
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability
Two unbiased coins are tossed. What's the probability of having access to at most one head?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3/4)
Outcomes are HH, HT, TH, TT (4 outcomes). 'At most one head' means 0 or 1 head. Favorable outcomes are HT, TH, TT (3 outcomes). Probability = 3/4.
Q23
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability
IP P(A U B)=7/12 P(A)=1/3, are for two independent events A and B, then P(B) is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3/8)
P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A)P(B) since A and B are independent. 7/12 = 1/3 + P(B) - P(B)/3 => 3/12 = 2/3 P(B) => P(B) = (3/12) * (3/2) = 9/24 = 3/8.
Q24
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsStatistics
The relation between mean, median and mode in a moderately skewed distribution is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3 Median = 2 Mean + Mode)
The empirical relationship for moderately skewed distributions is: Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean, which can be rearranged as 3 Median = 2 Mean + Mode.
Q25
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityVirtualization
VMWare Workstation is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Virtualization Application)
VMWare Workstation is a Type-2 hypervisor, which runs as a virtualization software application on top of a host operating system.
Q26
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityVirtualization
Which of the following is another name for a system virtual machine?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hardware Virtual Machine)
A system virtual machine simulates a complete hardware platform to execute an entire guest operating system. Hence, it is also called a Hardware Virtual Machine.
Q27
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityInformation Security
Message _____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Integrity)
Message integrity ensures that the transmitted data remains unaltered, accurate, and complete during transit from the sender to the receiver.
Q28
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
Which of the following is not a hash functions?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DES)
DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a symmetric block cipher algorithm, not a cryptographic hash function. MD5, Whirlpool, and SHA-512 are cryptographic hash functions.
Q29
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
MD5 is widely used hash function for producing hash value of _____ bits.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (128)
MD5 (Message-Digest Algorithm 5) produces a fixed-size cryptographic hash value of 128 bits (represented as a 32-character hexadecimal number).
Q30
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityIP Addressing
Convert the given binary notation IP address to dotted-decimal notation: 10000000 00001011 00000011 00011111
💡Correct Answer: Option B (128.11.3.31)
Converting each 8-bit binary octet to decimal: 10000000 = 128, 00001011 = 11, 00000011 = 3, 00011111 = 31. Thus, the address is 128.11.3.31.
Q31
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
Which one of the following is not an application of hash function?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Key wrapping)
Key wrapping uses symmetric encryption to wrap/protect cryptographic keys. Hash functions are extensively applied in one-way password storage, file integrity checking for virus detection, and intrusion detection (generating alerts for modified files).
Q32
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityCryptography
Blowfish encrypts blocks of plaintext which have size
💡Correct Answer: Option C (64 bits)
Blowfish is a symmetric block cipher designed by Bruce Schneier that encrypts data in fixed-size blocks of 64 bits.
Q33
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetworking
Identify the service which is used to translate a domain name to IP address.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DNS)
DNS (Domain Name System) is the hierarchical and decentralized naming system used to resolve human-readable hostnames into numeric IP addresses.
Q34
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Commands
Identify the command which is used to create Linux File systems.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (mkfs)
The `mkfs` (make filesystem) command in Linux is used to build a specific filesystem (like ext4) on a partition or storage device.
Q35
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Operating System
LILO stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Linux loader)
LILO stands for Linux Loader, which was the standard, simple boot loader used for Linux systems before GRUB became popular.
Q36
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Commands
Which of the following commands is used to display and create files?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (cat)
The `cat` command (short for concatenate) in Unix-like systems is commonly used to display file content, merge files, or create new files using redirection operators (e.g. `cat > file.txt`).
Q37
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Commands
Which Linux command is used to see all the hidden files?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ls-a)
In Linux, running `ls -a` (list all) displays all files and directories in the directory, including hidden files (those starting with a dot).
Q38
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityCryptography
ECC stands for _____ in public key cryptography
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Elliptic curve cryptography)
ECC stands for Elliptic Curve Cryptography, an approach to public-key cryptography based on the algebraic structure of elliptic curves over finite fields, offering smaller keys with equivalent security to RSA.
Q39
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityWeb Servers
Identify among the following which is mainly used to host web site.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Web server)
A web server is a software and hardware system designed to store, process, and deliver website pages to clients over the HTTP/HTTPS protocols.
Q40
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityWeb Protocols
HTTPS is stand for
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, which is HTTP layered over TLS or SSL to provide encrypted, authenticated network communication.
Q41
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetwork History
Identify the first network which was based on TCP/IP protocol.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ARPANET)
ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects Agency Network) adopted the TCP/IP protocol suite on January 1, 1983, becoming the first network to operate on TCP/IP.
Q42
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityIP Addressing
What is the length of the IPv4 address?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (32 bits)
An IPv4 address is composed of 32 bits, typically represented in dotted-decimal format (four 8-bit octets separated by decimals).
Q43
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetwork Topologies
The arrangement where all data pass through a central computer is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Star topology)
In a Star topology, all network nodes are connected to a central hub, switch, or computer, through which all data transmissions must pass.
Q44
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetwork Protocols
Choose among the following which is a bit-oriented protocol.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (HDLC)
HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is a bit-oriented synchronous data link layer protocol. SSL, HTTP, and HTTPS are character/byte-oriented application/transport protocols.
Q45
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityFirewalls
What is a proxy server also known as?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Application-level gateway)
An application-level gateway (or application proxy) acts as a proxy server to filter incoming/outgoing traffic at the application layer of the OSI model.
Q46
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityRouting Protocols
What is routing algorithm used by OSPF routing protocol?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Link state)
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a Link-State routing protocol that uses the link-state routing algorithm (Dijkstra's SPF algorithm) to find the shortest path.
Q47
Computer Networks & Internet SecuritySubnetting
What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (200.10.5.64)
A /28 prefix corresponds to subnet mask 255.255.255.240. Binary bitwise AND of host octet 68 (01000100) and mask 240 (11110000) gives 64 (01000000). Thus, the subnet address is 200.10.5.64.
Q48
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityIP Addressing
To test the IP stack on your local host, which IP address would you ping?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (127.0.0.1)
The IP address 127.0.0.1 is the standard loopback address reserved to test the TCP/IP protocol stack on the local host.
Q49
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetworking Organizations
IANA stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority)
IANA stands for Internet Assigned Numbers Authority, a standard standards body responsible for global coordination of IP addressing, DNS root zone management, and protocol symbols.
Q50
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls
Which firewall remembers the information about the previously passed packets?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Stateful firewalls)
Stateful firewalls monitor and keep track of the state of active network connections (using a state table) to filter incoming and outgoing packets based on connection history.
Q51
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls
Network layer firewall works as a
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Packet filter)
A network layer firewall filters traffic based on network packet headers (IP addresses, protocol type, ports), functioning primarily as a packet filter.
Q52
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls
The security device which installed between two networks (internal network to outside network) for controlling the flow of traffic into and out of network is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Firewall)
A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization's previously established security policies.
Q53
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryWireless Networks
The IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as a building block of wireless
💡Correct Answer: Option A (LAN)
The Basic Service Set (BSS) is the fundamental building block of an IEEE 802.11 wireless Local Area Network (LAN).
Q54
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryIP Addressing
Which one is the natural mask for a class C Network?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (255.255.255.0)
The natural (default) subnet mask for Class C network ranges is 255.255.255.0 (/24 prefix length).
Q55
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetworking Devices
If the systems use different protocols, which one of the following devices is used to link two systems?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Gateway)
A Gateway is a network device used to connect two systems that use different protocols, performing translation/conversion between them at all layers of the OSI model.
Q56
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryData Communication
Which bit coder is required to code a signal with 16 levels?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4 bit)
To represent 16 distinct signal levels, a 4-bit coder is required since the number of levels represented by n bits is 2^n (and 2^4 = 16).
Q57
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryClient Server Architecture
_____ is the machine that places the request to access the data.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Client machine)
In the client-server architecture, the client machine is the computer that sends a request to the server machine to retrieve data or access services.
Q58
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Protocols
What is the standard form of SNMP?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Simple Network Management Protocol)
SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol, a standard Internet protocol used to collect, organize, and manage information from managed devices on IP networks.
Q59
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
Which of the following is non-volatile storage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secondary)
Secondary storage (such as hard disks, solid-state drives, magnetic tape) is non-volatile, meaning it retains stored data even when the device is powered off.
Q60
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
Which of the following is used in main memory?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DRAM)
DRAM (Dynamic Random-Access Memory) is widely used for the computer's main memory due to its lower cost and higher density, while SRAM (Static RAM) is used for cache memory.
Q61
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
Components that provide internal storage to the CPU are
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Registers)
Registers are high-speed internal storage locations directly built inside the CPU to store data, instructions, and intermediate results during processing.
Q62
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryDigital Forensics Principles
Provenance in digital forensics is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The origin of the evidence)
Provenance in digital forensics refers to the origin, source, history, or custody chain of digital evidence to verify its authenticity and trace its history.
Q63
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Topologies
Number of cables required connect 'n' device using Mesh Topology is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (n(n-1)/2)
In a fully connected mesh topology containing n devices, each device connects to n-1 other devices. The total number of simplex/physical links is n * (n - 1) / 2.
Q64
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryIP Addressing
Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Base header)
The base header is a mandatory, fixed-size 40-byte header that must be present in every IPv6 datagram, whereas extension headers are optional.
Q65
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Services
FTP uses port number _____ for control connection.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (21)
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses TCP port 21 to establish and manage control connections (sending commands), while port 20 is used for data transfer.
Q66
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryOperating Systems
Which of the following is not an operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Oracle)
Oracle is a multinational technology corporation known primarily for its Database Management System (DBMS), not an operating system. Linux, DOS, and Windows are OS.
Q67
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetworking
How many digits of the Data Network Identification Code (DNIC) identify the country?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (First three digits)
A DNIC is a 4-digit number. The first three digits represent the Country Code (Data Country Code - DCC), and the fourth digit specifies the data network within that country.
Q68
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
BIOS is used by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Operating system)
The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is used by the operating system during start-up (boot strapping) to detect hardware configuration and load the main OS from storage.
Q69
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
The number of cycles of operations performed by a processor per second is called its
💡Correct Answer: Option C (clock speed)
The clock speed (or clock rate) measures the number of cycles a CPU executes per second, typically measured in Megahertz (MHz) or Gigahertz (GHz).
Q70
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryCyber Attacks
Which of the below is a popular victim of cyber attackers looking to gain the IP address of a target or victim user?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Websites)
Websites are common tools used by attackers to log visitor connections. By redirecting victims to a specific web server, attackers can easily capture and inspect the victim's source IP address in server access logs.
Q71
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Services
What is a single entrance for multiple connectivity's called?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Directory service)
A directory service (like Active Directory) is a single, centralized database system that acts as a single point of entry to manage and connect multiple network services and users.
Q72
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryCyber Attacks
_____ are piece of programs or scripts that allow hackers to take control over any system.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Exploits)
Exploits are code, scripts, or programs written by hackers that take advantage of specific software or hardware vulnerabilities to compromise and gain unauthorized control over a target system.
Q73
Cryptography & Network SecurityOperating Systems
The operating system keeps a small table containing information about all open files called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Open-file table)
The OS maintains an open-file table to keep track of all files currently opened by active system processes, caching information like file offset, permissions, and file descriptors.
Q74
Cryptography & Network SecurityOperating Systems
Which of the following are the two parts of the file name?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Extension and name)
In standard computer operating systems, a file name consists of two parts: the base name and the extension, which indicates the file format (separated by a dot).
Q75
Cryptography & Network SecurityLaw of Evidence
Photographs, videos, sound recordings, X-rays, maps drawing, graphs charts is a type of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Illustrative evidence)
Illustrative evidence (or demonstrative evidence) includes items like charts, diagrams, drawings, videos, and photographs used by experts to illustrate and explain their verbal testimonies.
Q76
Cryptography & Network SecurityDigital Evidence
A logon record tells us that, at a specific time:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The account was used to log into the system)
A digital logon record strictly verifies only that the specific user account credentials were used to authenticate/login. It cannot physically prove who was typing behind the keyboard.
Q77
Cryptography & Network SecurityDigital Evidence
A network sniffer program is an example of.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Information as an instrumentality)
In legal and digital forensics contexts, a software utility (such as a packet sniffer) used to execute a crime (intercepting password data) is classified as 'Information as an instrumentality' of the crime.
Q78
Cryptography & Network SecurityCyber Attacks
In _____ attack, the attacker doesn't actively take ever another user to perform the attack.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Spoofing)
In a spoofing attack, the attacker simply mimics the identity (e.g. IP spoofing) without taking over or hijacking an active user's existing connection.
Which of the following is a session hijacking tool?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (T-Sight)
T-Sight is a commercial security and network sniffing utility used for session hijacking and active monitoring. Wireshark is a packet analyzer, Maltego is OSINT, and Nessus is a vulnerability scanner.
Q80
Cryptography & Network SecurityIntrusion Detection Systems
What are characteristics of stack-based IDS?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (They are integrated closely with the TCP/IP stack and watch packets)
Stack-based IDSs are integrated directly into the host TCP/IP stack, allowing them to watch packets as they are processed through the network layer stack.
Q81
Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Computing
Which of the following is not a type of cloud server?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Merged Cloud Servers)
Cloud servers include dedicated, public, and private cloud deployment architectures. 'Merged' cloud server is not a recognized type.
Q82
Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Computing
Which of the following is the most refined and restrictive cloud service model?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SaaS)
SaaS (Software as a Service) is the most refined and restrictive model for users because the provider manages all infrastructure, platforms, and software configuration, leaving users with only software application access.
Q83
Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Security
Which of the following is the standard for interoperable cloud-based key management?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (KMIP)
KMIP (Key Management Interoperability Protocol) is a standard developed by OASIS to ensure interoperability between key management servers and clients.
Q84
Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Computing
Which of the following is an essential concept related to Cloud?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Abstraction)
Abstraction and Virtualization are the two core concepts of cloud computing. Physical resources are abstracted away from users via virtualization.
Q85
Cryptography & Network SecuritySQL Injection
Which of the stored procedure is used to test the SQL injection attack?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (xp_regwrite)
`xp_regwrite` is an extended stored procedure in MS SQL Server that writes values to the registry. Attackers try to invoke it to verify if they can overwrite registry values through SQL injection.
Q86
Cryptography & Network SecuritySQL Injection
_____ is time-based SQL injection attack.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Blind SQL Injection)
Time-based SQL injection is a subtype of Blind SQL Injection. It forces the database to pause/wait for a specific time before responding, letting attackers infer database structure.
Q87
Cryptography & Network SecuritySQL Injection
Which will be useful to detect SQL Injection attacks?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Intrusion Detection System)
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) inspects incoming network payloads against known attack signatures to detect malicious activities, including SQL Injection attacks.
Q88
Cryptography & Network SecuritySQL Injection
Which of the following statement is TRUE about SQL Injection?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SQL Injection is a Code Penetration Technique)
SQL Injection is a code injection technique used to penetrate applications by executing arbitrary SQL commands through user inputs.
Q89
Cryptography & Network SecurityNetwork Forensics
The process of collection of network device logs is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Active acquisition)
In network forensics, collecting data and logs directly from running network devices (routers, switches, firewalls) is known as Active Acquisition.
Q90
Cryptography & Network SecurityNetworking
ATM uses
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Asynchronous time division multiplexing)
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) uses Asynchronous Time Division Multiplexing (ATDM) to multiplex cell streams over physical links.
Q91
Cryptography & Network SecurityNetworking
An ATM switch at the boundary of the network usually uses _____ for routing.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (VPIs & VCIs)
At the UNI boundary of an ATM network, switches translate and route cells using both Virtual Path Identifiers (VPIs) and Virtual Channel Identifiers (VCIs) to map connections.
Q92
Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
Which modulations scheme is used by Bluetooth technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (GFSK)
Bluetooth Basic Rate (BR) technology uses GFSK (Gaussian Frequency Shift Keying) modulation to transmit data over its 79 RF channels.
Q93
Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
Which one of the following enables us to use the entire bandwidth simultaneously?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (CDMA)
CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) enables multiple users to utilize the entire allocated frequency bandwidth simultaneously by separating user signals with unique codes.
Q94
Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
Which of the following is not true about TDMA?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Single carrier frequency for single user)
In TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access), a single carrier frequency is shared among multiple users using distinct time slots, rather than being dedicated to a single user.
Q95
Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
_____ synchronization overhead is required in TDMA due to _____ transmission.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (High, burst)
TDMA requires high synchronization overhead (guard times and sync bits) because transmission occurs in short, discontinuous bursts which must align perfectly in time slots.
A TDMA system uses 25 MHz for the forward link, which is broken into radio channels of 200, kHz. If 8 speech channels are supported on a single radio channel, how many simultaneous users can be accommodated?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1000)
Number of radio channels = 25 MHz / 200 kHz = 25,000 / 200 = 125. Since each channel supports 8 users, total simultaneous users = 125 * 8 = 1000.
Q97
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsMobile Forensics
Which of the following is NOT a category of mobile forensic tools?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Data encryption tools)
Mobile forensic tools encompass extraction, recovery, and analysis categories. Encryption tools are security mechanisms to protect data, not forensic tools.
Q98
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsSQLite Databases
Which of the following is not a valid data type in SQLite?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (DECIMAL)
SQLite does not have a native DECIMAL storage class. It assigns it NUMERIC affinity. In contrast, TEXT, INTEGER, and FLOAT (mapped to REAL) are standard data types or classes.
Q99
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsSQLite Databases
Which of the following statements is true about SQLite encryption?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (SQLite supports encryption using the SQLite Encryption Extension (SEE))
Standard SQLite does not include encryption by default. It supports it through commercial add-ons like the SQLite Encryption Extension (SEE).
Q100
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsSQLite Databases
Which of the following SQL statements is used to drop a trigger from SQLite?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (DROP TRIGGER)
The standard SQL syntax to delete a trigger in SQLite is: `DROP TRIGGER trigger_name;`.
Q101
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsMobile Security
What is the general length of the IMEI number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (15 digits)
An IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) number is a unique 15-digit number used to identify 3GPP and iDEN mobile phones.
Q102
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCyber Crimes
Which among the following characteristics are correct about cyberstalking?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Use of internet or electronics to stalk or harass individual or any group)
Cyberstalking is specifically defined as the use of the Internet, email, or other electronic communication devices to stalk or harass another person.
Q103
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCyber Crimes
What are the means used for stalking by a cyber stalker?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Emails, messages, phone calls air drop etc.)
A cyberstalker uses electronic communication channels like emails, direct messages, social media, phone calls, and filesharing/airdrop to harass victims.
Q104
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsHash Functions
SHA-512, the message is divided into blocks of size _____ bits for the hash computation.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1024)
In the SHA-512 cryptographic hash function, the input message is processed in blocks of 1024 bits each (whereas SHA-256 uses 512-bit blocks).
Q105
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsHash Functions
When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash function value is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Message Digest)
The output value generated by a cryptographic hash function is standardly referred to as a Message Digest, Hash Value, or Digital Fingerprint.
Q106
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsDigital Signatures
Digital Signatures authenticates the sender by appending the original message with the _____ digest.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Encrypted message)
A digital signature authenticates the sender by signing (encrypting with private key) the message digest, and appending this encrypted digest to the original message.
Q107
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsPrivacy Tools
_____ is a popular tool to block social-media websites to track your browsing activities.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Blur)
Blur (Abine Blur) is a well-known privacy tool and browser extension designed to block social media trackers, block ads, and mask user details.
Q108
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsSocial Engineering
Part of the social media sites are the various games & third-party applications which helps _____ to get access to your data.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cyber-criminals)
Malicious games and third-party apps on social networks are frequently deployed by cyber-criminals to harvest user profile data and spread malware.
Q109
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsInformation Security
Many social media sites and services provide _____ for legitimate account verification.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2-step verification)
Two-step (or two-factor) verification is standardly provided by social media services to authenticate the identity of the legitimate account holder during logins.
Q110
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCryptography
In public key cryptosystem which is kept as public?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Encryption keys)
In a standard public key encryption system (for confidentiality), the encryption key (public key) is published, while the decryption key (private key) is kept secret.
Q111
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCryptography
AES can decrypt the data in blocks of _____ bits each?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (128)
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) has a fixed block size of 128 bits for both encryption and decryption, regardless of the key size (which can be 128, 192, or 256 bits).
Q112
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCryptography
On which of the following term does AES performs computation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bytes)
AES is a byte-oriented cipher; it represents blocks internally as a 4x4 matrix of bytes (called the State) and performs mathematical computations on bytes.
Q113
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
Which of the following correctly describes F distributions?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Valid for all real values)
The F-distribution is a continuous distribution (defined for positive real values, i.e. x >= 0). Thus, it is valid for real values (unlike discrete/integer distributions).
Q114
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
A population has a mean of 80 and a standard deviation of 7. A sample of 49 observations will be taken. The probability that the sample mean will be larger than 82 is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.0228)
Standard error = 7 / sqrt(49) = 1. The Z-score for sample mean 82 = (82 - 80) / 1 = 2. P(X > 82) = P(Z > 2) = 1 - 0.9772 = 0.0228.
Q115
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
The mean of 11 number is 7 if one of the numbers, 7 is deleted, what will be the mean of remaining 10 number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (7.0)
Sum of 11 numbers = 11 * 7 = 77. If 7 is deleted, new sum = 77 - 7 = 70. New mean of 10 numbers = 70 / 10 = 7.0.
Q116
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
What is the variance of a constant 'x'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0)
The variance measures dispersion. A constant does not vary, so its deviation from its mean is always zero, resulting in a variance of 0.
Q117
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsIT Act
Which is the Act which provides legal framework for e-Governance in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (IT Act 2000)
The Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act 2000) provides the legal framework for e-governance in India by validating digital signatures and electronic records.
Q118
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsIT Act
Under which section of information technology act of 2000, updated in 2008, stealing any digital asset or information is considered as cybercrime?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (65)
Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000, deals with 'Tampering with computer source documents', making it an offense to conceal, destroy, alter, or steal computer source codes.
Q119
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsLegal Amendments
Which section of Reserve Bank of India has been amended after the commencement of information technology act 2000 to include electronic fund transfer services like NEFT, RTGS etc?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section 58 (2))
Section 58(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, was amended by the IT Act, 2000, to authorize regulations for electronic fund transfers.
Q120
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
Find the median of 4, 5, 6, 3, 2, 6, 4.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4)
Sort the data: 2, 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 6. The middle (4th) value in this 7-item sorted list is 4. Thus, the median is 4.
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About JKSSB Assistant Scientific Officer (Cyber Forensics) 2024 Previous Year Paper
This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB Assistant Scientific Officer (Cyber Forensics) examination conducted in 2024 by the Home Department (Forensic Science Laboratory). Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include Computer Hardware & Operating Systems, Computer Networks & Internet Security, Digital Evidence & Data Recovery, Cryptography & Network Security, Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital Forensics. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.
