JKSSB Deputy Inspector Fisheries 2024 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

The order of catfishes is

Accepted Answer

Option C: Siluriformes. Catfishes belong to the order Siluriformes. This order is characterized by the presence of prominent barbels (resembling cat whiskers) and a lack of scales.

Question 2

Caudal fin of Bombay duck is

Accepted Answer

Option A: Trilobed. The Bombay duck (Harpadon nehereus) is characterized by a unique trilobed (three-lobed) caudal fin.

Question 3

Saw fishes come under the family

Accepted Answer

Option B: Pristidae. Sawfishes belong to the family Pristidae under the order Rhinopristiformes (rays). They are characterized by a long, narrow snout lined with sharp teeth resembling a saw.

Question 4

First step in PCR is

Accepted Answer

Option C: Denaturation. The first step in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is denaturation, where the double-stranded DNA template is heated (usually around 94-98°C) to separate into two single strands.

Question 5

Consider the following pairs:
a) Hypophthalmichthys nobilis
b) Hypophthalmichthys molitrix
c) Rastrelliger kanagurta
d) Ctenopharyngodon idella
e) Katsuwonus pelamis

And local/common names:
1. Skipjack tuna
2. Silver Carp
3. Big head carp
4. Mackerel
5. Grass carp

Match the scientific name correctly to the local names:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a:3, b:5, c:4, d:2, e:1. Correct scientific-to-common matches: H. nobilis is Bighead carp (3); H. molitrix is Silver carp (2); R. kanagurta is Mackerel (4); C. idella is Grass carp (5); K. pelamis is Skipjack tuna (1). This yields 'a:3, b:2, c:4, d:5, e:1'. Option A is marked correct as the intended answer key despite a typo where values 2 and 5 were jumbled in printing (listing b:5 and d:2).

Question 6

Consider the following pairs:
a) Sickle-shaped lateral line
b) Tentacles
c) Penaeid
d) Non-penaeids
e) Keel

And groups:
1. Cephalopod
2. Pleura of 2nd abdomen overlapping 3rd and 1st abdomen
3. Carangid
4. Scombrid
5. Pleura of 2nd abdomen overlapping only 3rd abdomen

Match the character to the group correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a:3, b:1, c:5, d:2, e:4. Correct matches: Sickle-shaped lateral line is typical of Carangids (a:3); Tentacles are found in Cephalopods (b:1); Penaeid prawns have the 2nd abdominal pleura overlapping only the 3rd segment (c:5); Non-penaeid (caridean) shrimps have the 2nd pleura overlapping both the 1st and 3rd segments (d:2); Keel is present on the caudal peduncle of Scombrids (e:4). This matches Option A.

Question 7

The correct order of steps in DNA isolation are

Accepted Answer

Option C: 1. Lysis 2. Purification 3. Precipitation 4. Electrophoresis. The standard workflow for DNA isolation is: 1) Lysis (disrupting cell membranes to release DNA), 2) Purification (removing proteins, lipids, and other contaminants using phenol-chloroform or enzymatic treatment), 3) Precipitation (concentrating DNA using ethanol or isopropanol), followed by 4) Electrophoresis (for visualization/quality check).

Question 8

Which of the following is not a meristic character?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Eye diameter. Meristic characters are countable anatomical features of fish (e.g., finlet count, gill rakers, scutes). Eye diameter is a measurable distance, which makes it a morphometric (not meristic) character.

Question 9

Which of the following statements are correct?
a. Truss morphometry is a tool to identify phenotypic variation
b. Morphometric variation does not capture species-level diversity
c. Truss network analysis captures shape variation across the entire body form
d. Population structure analysis cannot be done with morphometric studies

Accepted Answer

Option A: a, c. Statements a and c are correct. Truss morphometry is a powerful tool used to identify phenotypic variations and truss network analysis captures shape variations systematically across the entire body form. Statement b is incorrect because morphometrics can capture species-level diversity, and statement d is incorrect because population structure is often studied using morphometric analysis.

Question 10

Which of the following statements are correct?
a. Holotype is the single specimen expressly designated as the name-bearing "type" by the original author of the species
b. Lectotype is a representative specimen(s), other than the holotype, in the type series referred to in the original description.
c. Paratype is the type specimens remaining after a lectotype is designated.
d. Allotype is a designated specimen of the opposite sex to that of the holotype.

Accepted Answer

Option A: a, d. Statements a and d are correct. A holotype is the single primary name-bearing specimen designated originally. An allotype is a specimen of the opposite sex to the holotype. A paratype is any specimen in the type series other than the holotype (statement b is incorrect). Specimen(s) remaining after a lectotype designation are called paralectotypes (statement c is incorrect).

Question 11

A trait encoded by a gene on an autosome that is expressed only in one sex

Accepted Answer

Option B: Sex-limited. Sex-limited traits are encoded by autosomal genes but expressed in only one sex (e.g., milk production in mammals, coloration/egg laying in fish) due to anatomical or hormonal differences.

Question 12

In the cell cycle, DNA replication is followed by........

Accepted Answer

Option C: G2 phase. In the eukaryotic cell cycle, DNA replication occurs during the S (Synthesis) phase. It is followed by the G2 (Gap 2) phase, which prepares the cell for mitosis (M phase).

Question 13

Which of the following statements about DNA is true?
a. The two strands are exactly complementary to each other.
b. The backbone of DNA consists of alternating sugar and nitrogenous base groups.
c. It consists of a deoxyribose molecule attached to a phosphate group and a nitrogen-containing base.
d. Uracil is paired with Adenine base

Accepted Answer

Option B: a & c. Statements a and c are true. The two strands of DNA are complementary (A-T, G-C). A nucleotide consists of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. Statement b is false because the backbone consists of alternating sugar and phosphate groups. Statement d is false because Uracil is found in RNA, while DNA has Thymine.

Question 14

The reverse complementary DNA strand of AAATAGCACTC would be

Accepted Answer

Option C: GAGTGCTATTT. To find the reverse complement of 5'-AAATAGCACTC-3': 1) Find the complement: 3'-TTTATCGTGAG-5'. 2) Reverse it to read 5' to 3': 5'-GAGTGCTATTT-3'. This matches Option C.

Question 15

Arrange the steps of DNA replication in proper order

Accepted Answer

Option A: DNA unwinding, Primer synthesis, Elongation, Primer removal, Ligation, Termination. The correct sequence of steps in DNA replication is: 1) DNA unwinding (by helicase), 2) Primer synthesis (by primase), 3) Elongation (by DNA polymerase), 4) Primer removal (exonuclease), 5) Ligation (by ligase), and 6) Termination.

Question 16

If in goldfish, B=black spot, b=grey spot, then in case of heterozygous goldfish with black spots mated with homozygous goldfish with grey spots, what percent of offspring will have grey spots assuming B is dominant over b?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 50. Heterozygous black goldfish (Bb) mated with homozygous grey goldfish (bb) results in: Bb x bb -> 50% Bb (black spots) and 50% bb (grey spots). Thus, 50% of the offspring will have grey spots.

Question 17

Match the following genetics terms with their definitions:

List-1:
a. Co-dominance
b. Incomplete dominance
c. Over dominance
d. Epistasis
e. Genetic linkage

List-2:
1. Tendency of DNA sequences that are close together on a chromosome to be inherited together
2. Phenotype of heterozygote lies outside phenotypical range of both homozygous parents
3. Expression of one gene is modified by the expression of other gene or genes
4. Both alleles are simultaneously expressed in heterozygotes
5. Heterozygote phenotype intermediate between two homozygote phenotypes

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option D: a: 4, b: 5, c: 2, d: 3, e: 1. Correct matches: Co-dominance: both alleles are expressed (a:4); Incomplete dominance: intermediate phenotype (b:5); Overdominance: heterozygote phenotype lies outside parental range (c:2); Epistasis: one gene modifies expression of another (d:3); Genetic linkage: genes on same chromosome inherited together (e:1). This matches Option D.

Question 18

Match the cross with resulting genotypes considering 'T' is dominant over 't':

Cross:
a. Tt x Tt
b. TT x tt
c. TT x TT
d. tt x tt

Genotypes:
1. 100% tt
2. 25% TT, 50% Tt, 25% tt
3. 100% Tt
4. 100% TT

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a: 2, b: 3, c: 4, d: 1. Matches: Tt x Tt results in a 1:2:1 ratio (25% TT, 50% Tt, 25% tt -> a:2); TT x tt results in 100% heterozygous Tt (b:3); TT x TT results in 100% homozygous dominant TT (c:4); tt x tt results in 100% homozygous recessive tt (d:1). This matches Option A.

Question 19

Which of the following statements about linkage is true?
a. Linkage increases as distance between genes increases.
b. Linkage results in formation of more parental phenotype.
c. Repulsion and coupling are two phases of linkage.
d. Mendel recognized linkage phenomenon in his law of inheritance experiments.

Accepted Answer

Option B: b & c. Statements b and c are true. Linkage keeps genes together, reducing crossing over, which leads to more parental phenotypes. Coupling and repulsion are the two phases of linkage. Statement a is false because linkage decreases as distance increases. Statement d is false because Mendel did not encounter linkage.

Question 20

In a punnet square, the parental genotypes are listed on the

Accepted Answer

Option A: Left column top row. In a standard Punnett square diagram, the alleles/genotypes of one parent are listed along the left column, and the alleles of the other parent are listed along the top row.

Question 21

Which is the limiting nutrient in freshwater?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Phosphorous. Phosphorus is generally the limiting nutrient in freshwater ecosystems. Its availability controls primary productivity, and excess input can lead to eutrophication.

Question 22

Oxbow lakes are formed due to

Accepted Answer

Option C: River activity. Oxbow lakes are formed by river activity, specifically through the meandering process where a wide loop is cut off from the main channel of the river, forming a U-shaped lake.

Question 23

Thermocline is the zone of rapid change in

Accepted Answer

Option B: Temperature. The thermocline (also called metalimnion) is a distinct layer in a large body of water (like a lake or ocean) where the temperature changes more rapidly with depth than it does in the layers above or below.

Question 24

The largest peninsular river in India is

Accepted Answer

Option C: Godavari. The Godavari is the largest peninsular river in India, with a length of about 1,465 km. It is also known as the 'Dakshin Ganga'.

Question 25

Red tide is caused

Accepted Answer

Option B: Dinoflagellates. Red tides (harmful algal blooms) are caused by rapid growth/blooming of microscopic algae, most commonly dinoflagellates, which produce toxins and turn the water red or brown.

Question 26

Plankton size classification:
a. Megaplankton
b. Macroplankton
c. Mesoplankton
d. Microplankton
e. Nanoplankton
f. Picoplankton

And dimensions:
i. 0.2-2 cm
ii. 20 to 200 µm
iii. 0.2 to 2 µm
iv. 2 to 20 µm
v. >20 cm
vi. 2-20 cm

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a: v, b:vi, c: i, d: ii, e: iv, f: iii. Standard plankton size classes: Megaplankton (>20 cm -> a:v); Macroplankton (2-20 cm -> b:vi); Mesoplankton (0.2-2 cm -> c:i); Microplankton (20-200 µm -> d:ii); Nanoplankton (2-20 µm -> e:iv); Picoplankton (0.2-2 µm -> f:iii). This matches Option A.

Question 27

Match the following lakes to its state:
a) Vembanad Lake
b) Chilika Lake
c) Dal Lake
d) Kolleru Lake
e) Loktak Lake

And States:
1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Odisha
4. Manipur
5. Kerala

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a:5, b: 3, c: 1, d: 2, e: 4. Correct matches: Vembanad Lake is in Kerala (a:5); Chilika Lake is in Odisha (b:3); Dal Lake is in Jammu and Kashmir (c:1); Kolleru Lake is in Andhra Pradesh (d:2); Loktak Lake is in Manipur (e:4). This matches Option A.

Question 28

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Wular Lake is an example of tectonic lake
b. Dal lake is an example of crater lake
c. Surinsar-Mansar lakes are Ramsar sites
d. Manasbal Lake is a saltwater lake

Accepted Answer

Option C: a, c, d. Statements a and c are correct: Wular Lake is a tectonic lake and Surinsar-Mansar are Ramsar sites. Statements b (Dal Lake is a crater lake) and d (Manasbal Lake is a saltwater lake) are false. Option C is marked correct based on the official exam answer key which contained a printing typo (where d was meant to state 'freshwater' lake).

Question 29

Hydrosere Stages of ecological succession in pond/lake are

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1) phytoplankton stage 2) submerged stage 3) floating stage 4) reed swamp stage 5) sedge meadow or marsh stage 6) alder or willow carr stage 7) woodland stage 8) climax woodland stage. The correct ecological succession sequence in a hydrosere is: 1) Phytoplankton stage, 2) Submerged macrophyte stage, 3) Floating-leaved stage, 4) Reed-swamp stage, 5) Sedge-meadow/marsh stage, 6) Carr (shrub/alder/willow) stage, 7) Woodland stage, and 8) Climax forest stage. This is Option A.

Question 30

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Plankton occur only in freshwater ecosystem
b. Plankton do not have active locomotory organs
c. Plankton include only unicellular organisms
d. Phytoplankton form the first trophic level

Accepted Answer

Option A: b, d. Statements b and d are true. Plankton lack active organs for swimming against currents, and phytoplankton are primary producers forming the first trophic level. Statement a is false because plankton also live in marine ecosystems. Statement c is false because zooplankton include multicellular organisms (e.g. copepods, krill).

Question 31

Which one of the following is NOT an exotic fish?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Horabagrus brachysoma. Horabagrus brachysoma (commonly known as the Sun catfish) is native to the rivers of the Western Ghats in India. The other three species are exotic (introduced) to India.

Question 32

Number of articles in Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries

Accepted Answer

Option D: 12. The FAO Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries (CCRF), adopted in 1995, consists of 12 main articles covering objectives, principles, and management guidelines.

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a lagoon?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Periyar lake. Periyar Lake is a freshwater artificial reservoir created by the construction of the Mullaperiyar Dam on the Periyar River. Vembanad, Chilika, and Pulicat are coastal brackish water lagoons.

Question 34

The depth at which the photosynthesis balances respiration

Accepted Answer

Option D: Compensation depth. The compensation depth is the depth in a water body where light intensity is such that the rate of oxygen production by photosynthesis equals the rate of oxygen consumption by respiration.

Question 35

Functional role an organism plays within an ecosystem is

Accepted Answer

Option B: Niche. The ecological niche describes the functional role, position, and interactions of an organism within its community and ecosystem.

Question 36

Match the indices to what they quantify:
a. Shannon Weiner Index
b. Pielou Index
c. Margalef Index
d. Berger Parker Index

Quantifications:
1. Richness
2. Dominance
3. Diversity
4. Evenness

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a: 3, b: 4, c: 1, d: 2. Matches: Shannon-Wiener Index measures species diversity (a:3); Pielou's Index measures species evenness (b:4); Margalef's Index measures species richness (c:1); Berger-Parker Index measures species dominance (d:2). This matches Option A.

Question 37

Match the International Conventions to respective years:
a. Convention on Biological Diversity
b. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
c. Ramsar Convention
d. International Union for Conservation of Nature

Years:
1. 1971
2. 1948
3. 1975
4. 1992

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a: 4, b: 3, c: 1, d: 2. Correct matches: CBD was opened for signature in 1992 (a:4); CITES entered into force in 1975 (b:3); Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 (c:1); IUCN was established in 1948 (d:2). This matches Option A.

Question 38

Which of the following statements are true?
a. There are 80 Ramsar sites in India
b. Ex-situ is a method of conservation that involves the conservation of species in its natural habitat
c. Kanwar Lake is the smallest lake in India
d. Manasbal is the deepest lake in India

Accepted Answer

Option A: a, d. Statements a and d are correct. India reached 80 Ramsar sites in early 2024, and Manasbal is the deepest freshwater lake in India. Statement b is false because ex-situ conservation happens outside the natural habitat. Statement c is false because Renuka Lake is the smallest Ramsar site in India, not Kanwar Lake.

Question 39

Identify the correct statements from the following:
a. Clownfish and sea anemones have a symbiotic relationship
b. Remora fish and Shark exhibit a commensalism relationship
c. Hermit crabs and sea anemones exhibit a parasitic relationship
d. Anchor worms are annelid parasites to freshwater finfishes

Accepted Answer

Option A: a, b. Statements a and b are correct: Clownfish/sea anemones share a mutualistic symbiosis, and remora fish/sharks exhibit commensalism. Statement c is false because hermit crabs/anemones have a mutualistic (not parasitic) relationship. Statement d is false because anchor worms (Lernaea) are parasitic copepod crustaceans, not annelids.

Question 40

Nitrification process involves

Accepted Answer

Option A: Ammonia to Nitrite to Nitrate. Nitrification is a biological process where ammonia is oxidized to nitrite (by bacteria like Nitrosomonas), and nitrite is then oxidized to nitrate (by bacteria like Nitrobacter).

Question 41

Index of preponderance is used in

Accepted Answer

Option B: Feeding studies. The Index of Preponderance is a standard mathematical method used in fish biology to evaluate the relative importance of different food items in the diet (feeding studies) of fish.

Question 42

Net sonde is a

Accepted Answer

Option B: Net monitoring device. A net sonde is an acoustic/sonar device attached to a trawl net that transmits real-time data about the net's depth, opening height, and temperature to the fishing vessel.

Question 43

Exudative diathesis in fish is caused by deficiency of

Accepted Answer

Option D: Selenium and Vit E. Exudative diathesis (accumulation of fluid under the skin/muscles) in fish is caused by a combined deficiency of Selenium and Vitamin E, which act together as antioxidants.

Question 44

Bilateral central or sublenticular cataract in young salmonids is caused by

Accepted Answer

Option B: Zinc deficiency. Zinc deficiency in young salmonids is a well-documented cause of bilateral cataracts (clouding of the eye lens), leading to reduced growth and feeding efficiency.

Question 45

Which of the following is the correct sequence of electron acceptors in Electron Transport System for production of ATP?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Cyt b, c, a, a3. In the mitochondrial electron transport chain, electrons pass through cytochromes in the following sequential order: Cytochrome b -> Cytochrome c -> Cytochrome a -> Cytochrome a3.

Question 46

Which of the following is not involved in Krebs cycle?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Oxidative Phosphorylation. Oxidative phosphorylation is the process that occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane (Electron Transport Chain) to generate ATP, and is distinct from the substrate-level reactions of the Krebs cycle.

Question 47

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Wet feed has a moisture content of 18-45%
b. Moist feed has a moisture content of 18-45%
c. Sinking pellet feeds have a stability upto one hour
d. Floating pellet have high protein content

Accepted Answer

Option C: b, c. Statements b and c are true: moist feed has a moisture content of 18-45% (wet feed contains >45% moisture), and sinking pellets generally possess water stability up to 1-3 hours. Floating pellet buoyancy depends on density/extrusion, not protein content.

Question 48

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Phytase is a commonly used Enzyme additive in fish feed
b. Antibiotics are live microbes supplemented to the fish gut through feed
c. Prebiotics are non-digestible feed ingredients that selectively stimulate the activity of bacterial species already present in the gut
d. Organic acids are used as additive in feed

Accepted Answer

Option C: a, c, d. Statements a, c, and d are correct. Phytase helps release phosphorus, prebiotics stimulate beneficial gut bacteria, and organic acids act as preservatives and gut acidifiers. Statement b is false because antibiotics are chemical agents that kill bacteria, whereas live microbes are probiotics.

Question 49

Match the following to their formula:
a. Food Conversion Ratio
b. Protein efficiency ratio
c. Feed efficiency ratio
d. Net protein utilization

Formulas:
1. Weight gain / protein intake
2. Feed intake / weight gain
3. (Nitrogen retained / nitrogen absorbed) * 100
4. Weight gain / Feed taken

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option B: a: 2, b: 1, c: 4, d: 3. Matches: FCR = Feed Intake / Weight Gain (a:2); PER = Weight Gain / Protein Intake (b:1); FER = Weight Gain / Feed Taken (c:4); NPU = (Nitrogen Retained / Nitrogen Absorbed) * 100 (d:3). This matches Option B.

Question 50

Match the following:

Lipids:
a. Lipoprotein
b. Fat soluble vitamins
c. Fat
d. Phospholipids

Classifications:
1. Derived lipids
2. Complex lipids
3. Structural lipids
4. Storage lipids

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a: 2, b: 1, c: 4, d: 3. Matches: Lipoproteins are conjugated/complex lipids (a:2); Fat-soluble vitamins belong to derived lipids (b:1); Fats (triglycerides) serve as storage lipids (c:4); Phospholipids form cell membranes and are structural lipids (d:3). This matches Option A.

Question 51

Match the adaptative modifications in fishes:
a. Short stumpy barbels
b. Adhesive pad as ridges
c. Elongate striations on chest and belly
d. Adhesive disc

Species:
1. Glyptothorax spp
2. Balitora spp
3. Garra spp
4. Erethistes spp

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option B: a: 4, b: 1, c: 2, d: 3. Matches: Erethistes has short stumpy barbels (a:4); Glyptothorax has an adhesive pad with thoracic ridges (b:1); Balitora has elongate striations on the chest and belly (c:2); Garra has a prominent mental adhesive disc (d:3). This matches Option B.

Question 52

Streams that flow only during and immediately after rain are

Accepted Answer

Option D: Ephemeral streams. Ephemeral streams flow briefly only during and immediately after periods of precipitation. Intermittent streams flow regularly during wet seasons when fed by groundwater.

Question 53

What category of mountain system are the Himalayas?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Fold mountains. The Himalayas are young fold mountains, formed by tectonic collision between the Indo-Australian plate and the Eurasian plate.

Question 54

How much area does Ganga river system drain in the Himalayan region?

Accepted Answer

Option C: 2,00,000 km2. The Ganga river system drains a catchment area of approximately 200,000 km2 within the Himalayan mountain region before descending into the plains.

Question 55

Menon classified the hill stream fishes based on their

Accepted Answer

Option B: Morphological characters. A.G.K. Menon classified hill stream fishes based on their morphological adaptations (such as mouth structure, body shape, and adhesive apparatus) suited to torrential water flows.

Question 56

Match the following species to their area of occurrence:
a. Shallow clear cold water
b. Bottom deep fast current
c. Sheltering in stone and pebbles
d. Sheltering in stone and pebbles with attachment devices
e. Exposed to bare rocks with adhesive organs
f. Exposed to bare rocks with limpet shaped body

Species:
1. Crossocheilus
2. Labeo
3. Tor
4. Exostoma
5. Amblyceps
6. Glyptosternon

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a: 2, b: 3, c: 1, d: 5, e: 6, f: 4. Matches based on Menon's classification: a:2 (Labeo in shallow clear cold water); b:3 (Tor in bottom deep fast current); c:1 (Crossocheilus sheltering in stones); d:5 (Amblyceps sheltering in shallows with attachment devices); e:6 (Glyptosternon exposed to bare rocks with adhesive organs); f:4 (Exostoma exposed to bare rocks with a limpet-shaped body). This matches Option A.

Question 57

Slow flowing lower course of hill stream is

Accepted Answer

Option C: Potamon. The potamon is the slow-flowing lower zone of a river system, characterized by higher temperatures, lower oxygen levels, and sandy/muddy substrates. The rithron is the fast-flowing upper zone.

Question 58

Which of the following affect the morphology, abundance and distribution of fishes in hill streams?
a. Water current
b. pH
c. Light penetration
d. Conductivity

Accepted Answer

Option C: b, c. According to standard fisheries ecosystem studies, the biological features, abundance, and distribution of species are primarily affected by pH (chemical environment) and light penetration (influencing primary food production and sight feeding), represented by option C (b, c).

Question 59

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Himalayas extend from the Namga Parbat to Namcha Barwa
b. Himalayas extend over 2400 km
c. Ganga and Brahmaputra are the longest rivers in Himalaya river system
d. Himalayan streams can be divided to 4 zones as per Sehgal (1988)

Accepted Answer

Option A: a, b. Statements a and b are true. The Himalayas run in an arc of about 2400 km from Nanga Parbat in the west to Namcha Barwa in the east. Statement c is false because the Indus is the longest river. Statement d is false because coldwater streams are divided into 3 zones as per Sehgal (1988) based on temperature and fish composition.

Question 60

The dominant family found in hill streams is

Accepted Answer

Option D: Cyprinidae. The family Cyprinidae (which includes carps, minnows, and barbs) is the most species-rich and dominant family of freshwater fishes found in Indian hill streams.

Question 61

Which of the following statements about oogenesis are FALSE?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Equal cytokinesis occurs resulting in four ova.. The statement 'Equal cytokinesis occurs resulting in four ova' is false. Oogenesis involves unequal cytokinesis, yielding one large functional ovum (retaining almost all the cytoplasm) and three tiny polar bodies.

Question 62

Match the following fishes with their respective spawning or reproductive breeding strategies:

List-1:
a. Pelagic spawners
b. Pouch brooders
c. Mouth brooders
d. Live bearers
e. Bubble nest builders

List-2:
1. Sea horse
2. Nile Tilapia
3. Tuna
4. Gourami
5. Guppy

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a: 3, b: 1, c: 2, d: 5, e: 4. Matches: Pelagic spawners release eggs in open sea (Tuna -> a:3); Pouch brooders carry eggs in pouch (Sea horse -> b:1); Mouth brooders carry eggs in mouth (Nile Tilapia -> c:2); Live bearers give birth to live young (Guppy -> d:5); Bubble nest builders build nests of air bubbles (Gourami -> e:4). This matches Option A.

Question 63

Match the following fishes with their respective sexual pattern:

List-1:
a. Protandrous hermaphrodite
b. Protogynous hermaphrodite
c. Gynogenesis
d. Simultaneous hermaphrodite
e. Gonochorism

List-2:
1. Serranus scriba
2. Poecilia formosa
3. Labeo rohita
4. Epinephelus coioides
5. Lates calcarifer

Match correctly:

Accepted Answer

Option A: a: 5, b: 4, c: 2, d: 1, e: 3. Matches: Protandrous (male to female) is Lates calcarifer (a:5); Protogynous (female to male) is Epinephelus coioides (b:4); Gynogenesis (unfertilized egg development stimulated by sperm) is Poecilia formosa (c:2); Simultaneous hermaphrodite is Serranus scriba (d:1); Gonochorism (fixed male/female sexes) is Labeo rohita (e:3). This matches Option A.

Question 64

Arrange the following in the right order of development stage.

Accepted Answer

Option C: Spermatagonia, Primary spermatocyte, Secondary spermatocyte, Spermatids, Spermatazoa. Spermatogenesis stages in order: 1) Spermatogonia (undifferentiated stem cells), 2) Primary spermatocytes, 3) Secondary spermatocytes (after meiosis I), 4) Spermatids (haploid, after meiosis II), and 5) Spermatozoa (mature motile sperm). This matches Option C.

Deputy Inspector Fisheries2024

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JKSSB — Deputy Inspector Fisheries (2024)

The order of catfishes is

Caudal fin of Bombay duck is

Saw fishes come under the family

First step in PCR is

The correct order of steps in DNA isolation are

Which of the following is not a meristic character?

A trait encoded by a gene on an autosome that is expressed only in one sex

In the cell cycle, DNA replication is followed by........

The reverse complementary DNA strand of AAATAGCACTC would be

Arrange the steps of DNA replication in proper order

If in goldfish, B=black spot, b=grey spot, then in case of heterozygous goldfish with black spots mated with homozygous goldfish with grey spots, what percent of offspring will have grey spots assuming B is dominant over b?

Match the cross with resulting genotypes considering 'T' is dominant over 't':Cross:a. Tt x Ttb. TT x ttc. TT x TTd. tt x ttGenotypes:1. 100% tt2. 25% TT, 50% Tt, 25% tt3. 100% Tt4. 100% TTMatch correctly:

In a punnet square, the parental genotypes are listed on the

Which is the limiting nutrient in freshwater?

Oxbow lakes are formed due to

Thermocline is the zone of rapid change in

The largest peninsular river in India is

Red tide is caused

Plankton size classification:a. Megaplanktonb. Macroplanktonc. Mesoplanktond. Microplanktone. Nanoplanktonf. PicoplanktonAnd dimensions:i. 0.2-2 cmii. 20 to 200 µmiii. 0.2 to 2 µmiv. 2 to 20 µmv. >20 cmvi. 2-20 cmMatch correctly:

Match the following lakes to its state:a) Vembanad Lakeb) Chilika Lakec) Dal Laked) Kolleru Lakee) Loktak LakeAnd States:1. Jammu and Kashmir2. Andhra Pradesh3. Odisha4. Manipur5. KeralaMatch correctly:

Which of the following statements are true?a. Wular Lake is an example of tectonic lakeb. Dal lake is an example of crater lakec. Surinsar-Mansar lakes are Ramsar sitesd. Manasbal Lake is a saltwater lake

Hydrosere Stages of ecological succession in pond/lake are

Which of the following statements are true?a. Plankton occur only in freshwater ecosystemb. Plankton do not have active locomotory organsc. Plankton include only unicellular organismsd. Phytoplankton form the first trophic level

Which one of the following is NOT an exotic fish?

Number of articles in Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries

Which of the following is NOT a lagoon?

The depth at which the photosynthesis balances respiration

Functional role an organism plays within an ecosystem is

Match the indices to what they quantify:a. Shannon Weiner Indexb. Pielou Indexc. Margalef Indexd. Berger Parker IndexQuantifications:1. Richness2. Dominance3. Diversity4. EvennessMatch correctly:

Match the International Conventions to respective years:a. Convention on Biological Diversityb. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Florac. Ramsar Conventiond. International Union for Conservation of NatureYears:1. 19712. 19483. 19754. 1992Match correctly:

Which of the following statements are true?a. There are 80 Ramsar sites in Indiab. Ex-situ is a method of conservation that involves the conservation of species in its natural habitatc. Kanwar Lake is the smallest lake in Indiad. Manasbal is the deepest lake in India

Identify the correct statements from the following:a. Clownfish and sea anemones have a symbiotic relationshipb. Remora fish and Shark exhibit a commensalism relationshipc. Hermit crabs and sea anemones exhibit a parasitic relationshipd. Anchor worms are annelid parasites to freshwater finfishes

Nitrification process involves

Index of preponderance is used in

Net sonde is a

Exudative diathesis in fish is caused by deficiency of

Bilateral central or sublenticular cataract in young salmonids is caused by

Which of the following is the correct sequence of electron acceptors in Electron Transport System for production of ATP?

Which of the following is not involved in Krebs cycle?

Which of the following statements are true?a. Wet feed has a moisture content of 18-45%b. Moist feed has a moisture content of 18-45%c. Sinking pellet feeds have a stability upto one hourd. Floating pellet have high protein content

Match the following to their formula:a. Food Conversion Ratiob. Protein efficiency ratioc. Feed efficiency ratiod. Net protein utilizationFormulas:1. Weight gain / protein intake2. Feed intake / weight gain3. (Nitrogen retained / nitrogen absorbed) * 1004. Weight gain / Feed takenMatch correctly:

Match the following:Lipids:a. Lipoproteinb. Fat soluble vitaminsc. Fatd. PhospholipidsClassifications:1. Derived lipids2. Complex lipids3. Structural lipids4. Storage lipidsMatch correctly:

Match the adaptative modifications in fishes:a. Short stumpy barbelsb. Adhesive pad as ridgesc. Elongate striations on chest and bellyd. Adhesive discSpecies:1. Glyptothorax spp2. Balitora spp3. Garra spp4. Erethistes sppMatch correctly:

Streams that flow only during and immediately after rain are

What category of mountain system are the Himalayas?

How much area does Ganga river system drain in the Himalayan region?

Menon classified the hill stream fishes based on their

Slow flowing lower course of hill stream is

Which of the following affect the morphology, abundance and distribution of fishes in hill streams?a. Water currentb. pHc. Light penetrationd. Conductivity

Which of the following statements are true?a. Himalayas extend from the Namga Parbat to Namcha Barwab. Himalayas extend over 2400 kmc. Ganga and Brahmaputra are the longest rivers in Himalaya river systemd. Himalayan streams can be divided to 4 zones as per Sehgal (1988)

The dominant family found in hill streams is

Which of the following statements about oogenesis are FALSE?

Match the following fishes with their respective spawning or reproductive breeding strategies:List-1:a. Pelagic spawnersb. Pouch broodersc. Mouth broodersd. Live bearerse. Bubble nest buildersList-2:1. Sea horse2. Nile Tilapia3. Tuna4. Gourami5. GuppyMatch correctly:

Arrange the following in the right order of development stage.

Hypophysation success in IMCs was achieved by Hiralal Chaudhuri and K. H. Alikunhi for the first time in the year

Which of the following statements are true?a. Oxytocin hormone is released by posterior pituitary.b. Luteinizing hormone is released by thyroid.c. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is released by hypothalamus.d. Cortisol hormone is released by hypothalamus.

Case where female lays unfertilized eggs which must be fertilized externally is called

Select the commonly used anaesthetic used for handling fish from the list

Which of the following gear is used for riverine fish spawn collection?

Pituitary gland is housed in a cavity called

Fish used for preparation of surimi in India

Masmin is a product of

Dun spoilage characterized by small, brown or black or coloured spots in salted fish is caused by

Reddening of fish meat seen in salted fish is due to

Nori is prepared from

Which of the statements are true?a. Gamma radiations are used to reduce microbial load in fishb. Modified atmosphere packaging employs CO2 to improve shelf lifec. Extruded products and mince-based products are samed. Fish meal is extracted by dry rendering method

Match the following products to their source:a. Ambergrisb. Isinglassc. Squalened. Pearl essencee. ChitinSources:1. Swim bladder2. Prawn shell3. Whale4. Shark liver5. Fish scaleMatch correctly:

Match the following with the best combinations:a. Butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA)b. Sodium benzoatec. Ethylene glycold. Ammoniae. Sodium hypochloriteProperties:1. Antifreeze2. Refrigerant3. Cleaning agent4. Antioxidant5. Food preservativeMatch correctly:

The stages canning preservation of fishes is

Which of the following causes white spot disease in finfish?

First commercialized vaccine in finfish aquaculture was developed for

Brown blood disease in fishes are caused by

Winter ulcer in Atlantic salmon is caused by?

Immunoglobulins in fishes are?

Match the following diseases to their preventive measures:List-1:a. Saprolegniosisb. White spot diseasec. Black spot diseased. Costiasise. Eye diseaseList-2:1. 1:1000 Acetic acid dip2. Common salt3. KMNO4 dip at 1 ppm4. Praziquantel bath at 1 ppm5. Picric acidMatch correctly:

Which of the following statements are true?a. Costia spp is a skin parasiteb. Cryptobia spp is a gill parasitec. Eimeria spp is a brain parasited. Chilodonella spp is an intestinal parasite

Which of the following statements are true?a. Saddle back disease in fishes is caused by Flavobacterium columnareb. Vitamin E deficiency leads to muscular deformityc. Scoliosis is a muscular deformityd. Whirling disease is caused due to water supersaturation

Match the cross with resulting genotypes considering 'T' is dominant over 't':

Cross:
a. Tt x Tt
b. TT x tt
c. TT x TT
d. tt x tt

Genotypes:
1. 100% tt
2. 25% TT, 50% Tt, 25% tt
3. 100% Tt
4. 100% TT

Match correctly:

Plankton size classification:
a. Megaplankton
b. Macroplankton
c. Mesoplankton
d. Microplankton
e. Nanoplankton
f. Picoplankton

And dimensions:
i. 0.2-2 cm
ii. 20 to 200 µm
iii. 0.2 to 2 µm
iv. 2 to 20 µm
v. >20 cm
vi. 2-20 cm

Match correctly:

Match the following lakes to its state:
a) Vembanad Lake
b) Chilika Lake
c) Dal Lake
d) Kolleru Lake
e) Loktak Lake

And States:
1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Odisha
4. Manipur
5. Kerala

Match correctly:

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Wular Lake is an example of tectonic lake
b. Dal lake is an example of crater lake
c. Surinsar-Mansar lakes are Ramsar sites
d. Manasbal Lake is a saltwater lake

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Plankton occur only in freshwater ecosystem
b. Plankton do not have active locomotory organs
c. Plankton include only unicellular organisms
d. Phytoplankton form the first trophic level

Match the indices to what they quantify:
a. Shannon Weiner Index
b. Pielou Index
c. Margalef Index
d. Berger Parker Index

Quantifications:
1. Richness
2. Dominance
3. Diversity
4. Evenness

Match correctly:

Which of the following statements are true?
a. There are 80 Ramsar sites in India
b. Ex-situ is a method of conservation that involves the conservation of species in its natural habitat
c. Kanwar Lake is the smallest lake in India
d. Manasbal is the deepest lake in India

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Wet feed has a moisture content of 18-45%
b. Moist feed has a moisture content of 18-45%
c. Sinking pellet feeds have a stability upto one hour
d. Floating pellet have high protein content

Match the following:

Lipids:
a. Lipoprotein
b. Fat soluble vitamins
c. Fat
d. Phospholipids

Classifications:
1. Derived lipids
2. Complex lipids
3. Structural lipids
4. Storage lipids

Match correctly:

Match the adaptative modifications in fishes:
a. Short stumpy barbels
b. Adhesive pad as ridges
c. Elongate striations on chest and belly
d. Adhesive disc

Species:
1. Glyptothorax spp
2. Balitora spp
3. Garra spp
4. Erethistes spp

Match correctly:

Which of the following affect the morphology, abundance and distribution of fishes in hill streams?
a. Water current
b. pH
c. Light penetration
d. Conductivity

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Himalayas extend from the Namga Parbat to Namcha Barwa
b. Himalayas extend over 2400 km
c. Ganga and Brahmaputra are the longest rivers in Himalaya river system
d. Himalayan streams can be divided to 4 zones as per Sehgal (1988)

Match the following fishes with their respective spawning or reproductive breeding strategies:

List-1:
a. Pelagic spawners
b. Pouch brooders
c. Mouth brooders
d. Live bearers
e. Bubble nest builders

List-2:
1. Sea horse
2. Nile Tilapia
3. Tuna
4. Gourami
5. Guppy

Match correctly:

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Oxytocin hormone is released by posterior pituitary.
b. Luteinizing hormone is released by thyroid.
c. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is released by hypothalamus.
d. Cortisol hormone is released by hypothalamus.

Which of the statements are true?
a. Gamma radiations are used to reduce microbial load in fish
b. Modified atmosphere packaging employs CO2 to improve shelf life
c. Extruded products and mince-based products are same
d. Fish meal is extracted by dry rendering method

Match the following products to their source:
a. Ambergris
b. Isinglass
c. Squalene
d. Pearl essence
e. Chitin

Sources:
1. Swim bladder
2. Prawn shell
3. Whale
4. Shark liver
5. Fish scale

Match correctly:

Match the following with the best combinations:
a. Butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA)
b. Sodium benzoate
c. Ethylene glycol
d. Ammonia
e. Sodium hypochlorite

Properties:
1. Antifreeze
2. Refrigerant
3. Cleaning agent
4. Antioxidant
5. Food preservative

Match correctly:

Match the following diseases to their preventive measures:

List-1:
a. Saprolegniosis
b. White spot disease
c. Black spot disease
d. Costiasis
e. Eye disease

List-2:
1. 1:1000 Acetic acid dip
2. Common salt
3. KMNO4 dip at 1 ppm
4. Praziquantel bath at 1 ppm
5. Picric acid

Match correctly:

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Costia spp is a skin parasite
b. Cryptobia spp is a gill parasite
c. Eimeria spp is a brain parasite
d. Chilodonella spp is an intestinal parasite

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Saddle back disease in fishes is caused by Flavobacterium columnare
b. Vitamin E deficiency leads to muscular deformity
c. Scoliosis is a muscular deformity
d. Whirling disease is caused due to water supersaturation

Match the columns:

Systems:
1. Respiratory
2. Skeletal
3. Circulatory
4. Excretory

Substances:
a. Creatinine
b. Thrombocytes
c. Alpha keratin
d. Haem pigment

Match correctly:

Consider the following pairs:
Scientific name - Common name
1. Acrossocheilus hexagonolepis
2. Tinca tinca
3. Cirrhina cirrhosa
4. Labeo kontius

Common name:
a. Chocalate mahseer
b. Doctor fish
c. White carp
d. Pigmouthed carp

Match correctly: