JKSSB Veterinary Pharmacist 2025 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

Choose the correct meaning of the given idiom: "A skeleton in the cupboard"

Accepted Answer

Option D: An embarrassing fact to be kept secret. The idiom 'a skeleton in the cupboard' (or closet) means a discreditable, scandalous, or embarrassing secret fact about oneself or one's family that is kept hidden from public knowledge.

Question 2

Choose the correct meaning of the phrase "Kick the bucket":

Accepted Answer

Option C: To pass away. The informal English idiom 'to kick the bucket' is a euphemistic expression meaning to die or pass away.

Question 3

Select the pair that has the same relationship: DIVA : OPERA ::

Accepted Answer

Option C: Thespian: Play. Analogy relationship: A Diva is a distinguished, leading female singer/performer in an Opera; similarly, a Thespian is a dramatic actor/performer in a Play. Choice C.

Question 4

Fill in the blank: "........did you put my keys?"

Accepted Answer

Option C: Where. The interrogative adverb of place used to ask about the location of an object is 'Where'. Choice C.

Question 5

We bought some eggs from the market but unfortunately ....................of them were fresh.

Accepted Answer

Option C: None. When referring to 'not any' of a plural group of objects (eggs), the indefinite pronoun 'none' ('none of them') is grammatically correct.

Question 6

Choose the word which best express the meaning of PREDICT:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Foretell. To 'Predict' means to state, forecast, or prophesy what will happen in the future, which is synonymous with 'Foretell'.

Question 7

Fill the blank with the most suitable preposition from the given options: "It was very generous ....................you to offer to help me."

Accepted Answer

Option A: Of. The standard English prepositional idiom attributing a personal quality or behavior to someone is 'generous of [someone]' (e.g. 'It was very kind/generous of you').

Question 8

Find the antonym of the word AMPLE:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Meagre. 'Ample' means plentiful, abundant, or more than adequate. Its direct antonym is 'Meagre' (or Scarce), meaning deficient in quantity, thin, or scanty.

Question 9

Fill in the blank with appropriate article: "I go to Srinagar by ....................Vande Bharat Express."

Accepted Answer

Option D: The. Definite article 'The' is mandatory before the proper names of specific trains, ships, and recognized transport routes (e.g. 'the Vande Bharat Express', 'the Rajdhani Express').

Question 10

Identify the type of clause: "I know that she is coming to the party."

Accepted Answer

Option C: Noun clause. The subordinate clause 'that she is coming to the party' acts as the direct grammatical object of the transitive verb 'know', answering 'know what?'; hence it is a Noun Clause.

Question 11

Which punctuation mark is used to show possession?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Apostrophe ('). The Apostrophe (') is the standard English punctuation mark combined with 's' (or placed after plural s) to indicate possessive relationships and ownership (e.g. 'the doctor's coat').

Question 12

What are homonyms?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Both A and C. Homonyms in linguistics strictly encompass words that share the same pronunciation (homophones) and/or the same spelling (homographs) but possess distinct, unrelated meanings. Choice D (Both A and C).

Question 13

Match the idioms in Column A with their correct meanings in Column B:
Column - A (Idioms):
1. Break the ice
2. Hit the sack
3. Under the weather
4. Once in a blue moon
5. In hot water

Column - B (Meanings):
i. In a difficult situation
ii. Go to bed
iii. Start a conversation
iv. Feeling unwell
v. Very rarely

Choose the correct Option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-v, 5-i. 1 -> iii (Break the ice: start a conversation in a social setting), 2 -> ii (Hit the sack: go to sleep / bed), 3 -> iv (Under the weather: feeling sick or unwell), 4 -> v (Once in a blue moon: very rarely), 5 -> i (In hot water: in trouble or a difficult situation). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-v, 5-i (Choice A).

Question 14

Match the words in Column A with their correct antonyms in Column B:
Column - A (Words):
1. Generous
2. Beautiful
3. Strong
4. Victory
5. Ancient

Column - B (Antonyms):
i. Ugly
ii. Weak
iii. Stingy
iv. Defeat
v. Modern

Choose the Correct Option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-v. 1 -> iii (Generous vs Stingy), 2 -> i (Beautiful vs Ugly), 3 -> ii (Strong vs Weak), 4 -> iv (Victory vs Defeat), 5 -> v (Ancient vs Modern). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-v (Choice A).

Question 15

Complete the sentence with correct verb form: "The thief will have run away before the police ...................."

Accepted Answer

Option A: comes. In a future time clause introduced by 'before' or 'when', referring to an event before a Future Perfect action ('will have run away'), the subordinate clause must take the Simple Present tense: 'before the police comes'.

Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding shifting cultivation:
1. It is also known as "slash and burn" agriculture.
2. In India, it is mainly practiced in Northeast region.
3. In Northeast India it is known as Jhum cultivation.
4. This type of agriculture is not done anywhere else in the world except India.
Choose correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1,2 and 3 only. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: Shifting cultivation involves slashing vegetation and burning it (1), is predominantly practiced across the hilly Northeastern states of India (2), where it is locally termed 'Jhum' (3). Statement 4 is false because shifting cultivation is widely practiced across tropical regions globally (e.g. Milpa in Central America, Ladang in Indonesia, Roca in Brazil). Correct: 1, 2 and 3 only.

Question 17

Name the Indian river known as the "Dakshin Ganga":

Accepted Answer

Option B: Godavari. The Godavari River—the longest river system in Peninsular India (1,465 km)—is popularly known as 'Dakshin Ganga' (or Vridha Ganga) owing to its immense length, basin extent, and religious sanctity.

Question 18

The Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen under Article 51A include:
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper
3. Respect for the Government
4. To protect Wildlife
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Accepted Answer

Option B: 1, 2 and 4. Under Article 51A of the Constitution of India, Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, Flag and Anthem [51A(a)], protecting forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife [51A(g)], and developing scientific temper and humanism [51A(h)]. 'Respect for the Government' is NOT a fundamental duty. Correct: 1, 2 and 4 (Choice B).

Question 19

Match the following historical events with their years:
Events:
i. Civil Disobedience Movement
ii. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
iii. Quit India Movement
iv. Simon Commission Arrival in India

Years:
1. 1919
2. 1942
3. 1930
4. 1928

Choose the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option B: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4. i -> 3 (Civil Disobedience Movement: launched with Dandi March in 1930), ii -> 1 (Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: 13 April 1919 in Amritsar), iii -> 2 (Quit India Movement: August 1942), iv -> 4 (Simon Commission arrived in Bombay: February 1928). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4 (Choice B).

Question 20

Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
I. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present did not dominate the scene.
II. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Both I and II. Both statements are historically accurate: Archaeological evidence shows that the Harappan civilization lacked large monumental temples or theocratic rule, maintaining a predominantly secular civic character (I), and Harappans were the earliest people in the world to cultivate cotton and weave textiles, known to Greeks as *Sindon* (II). Correct: Both I and II.

Question 21

Which of the following countries is NOT a founding member of SAARC?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Myanmar. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established in Dhaka on 8 December 1985 by seven founding members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Myanmar is an ASEAN member and is NOT a member of SAARC.

Question 22

Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List - I:
1) Poverty Reduction Programme
2) Human Development Scheme
3) Social Assistance Scheme
4) Minimum Need Scheme

List - II:
i) Mid-day Meals
ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
iv) MNREGA

Codes (1, 2, 3, 4):

Accepted Answer

Option A: (iv) (i) (iii) (ii). 1 -> iv (Poverty Reduction: Mahatma Gandhi NREGA wage employment), 2 -> i (Human Development: Mid-day Meal scheme for child nutrition and education), 3 -> iii (Social Assistance: National Old Age Pension Scheme under NSAP), 4 -> ii (Minimum Needs Programme: Indira Awas Yojana for rural housing). Correct code: 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii (Choice A).

Question 23

In which field is the prestigious Kalinga Award given by UNESCO?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Science. The UNESCO Kalinga Prize for the Popularization of Science is an international award created in 1952 (founded by Biju Patnaik of Odisha) honoring exceptional contributions to interpreting science, technology, and research to the public.

Question 24

Who has been appointed as the Chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Siddhartha Mohanty. Siddhartha Mohanty was appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) as the Chairperson and Managing Director of the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).

Question 25

Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
I) The Preamble is considered part of the Constitution but is not legally enforceable.
II) The word "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
III) The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
Choose the correct statements:

Accepted Answer

Option B: I and III only. Statements I and III are correct: The Preamble is non-justiciable/not enforceable in a court of law (I), and the Supreme Court in *Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala* (1973) ruled that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution (III). Statement II is false because 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (not the 44th). Correct: I and III only.

Question 26

Match the following newspapers with their slogans or taglines:
Newspaper:
i) The Times of India
ii) Hindustan Times
iii) The Indian Express
iv) State Times Newspaper

Slogan/Tagline:
1) "The Bold Voice of Jammu & Kashmir"
2) "Journalism of Courage"
3) "First Voice. Last Word"
4) "Let Truth Prevail"

Choose the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option D: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1. i -> 4 (The Times of India: 'Let Truth Prevail'), ii -> 3 (Hindustan Times: 'First Voice. Last Word'), iii -> 2 (The Indian Express: 'Journalism of Courage'), iv -> 1 (State Times: 'The Bold Voice of Jammu & Kashmir'). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1 (Choice D).

Question 27

Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?
(i) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(ii) Parliament is Supreme.
(iii) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(iv) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Accepted Answer

Option D: (iii) only. In India's parliamentary constitutional framework: (i) is false (President is Head of State, while Prime Minister is Head of Government); (ii) is false (The Constitution is supreme, not Parliament); (iii) is TRUE (The Supreme Court is the custodian, interpreter, and guardian of the Constitution via judicial review); (iv) is false (DPSP under Article 37 are non-justiciable). Correct: (iii) only.

Question 28

Match the following Indian languages with their respective states where they are predominantly spoken:
Language:
i) Konkani
ii) Dogri
iii) Khasi
iv) Maithili

State:
1) Jammu & Kashmir
2) Meghalaya
3) Bihar
4) Goa

Choose the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option B: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3. i -> 4 (Konkani is the official language of Goa), ii -> 1 (Dogri is predominantly spoken in the Jammu region of J&K), iii -> 2 (Khasi is spoken in Meghalaya), iv -> 3 (Maithili is spoken in Bihar). Correct match: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3 (Choice B).

Question 29

Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct about the Attorney General of India?
I. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
II. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
III. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
IV. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Accepted Answer

Option A: I and IV. Under Article 76: Statement I is NOT correct (must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court, not High Court). Statement IV is NOT correct (holds office during the pleasure of the President, with no fixed tenure specified in the Constitution). Statements II and III are correct [Articles 76(3) and 88]. Correct answer for NOT correct: I and IV (Choice A).

Question 30

In 2024, which spacecraft successfully retrieved the world's first lunar samples from the far side of the Moon?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Chang'e-6. China's Chang'e-6 robotic lunar probe successfully landed on the Moon's South Pole-Aitken basin on the lunar far side and safely returned approximately 1,935 grams of historic soil and rock samples back to Earth on 25 June 2024.

Question 31

In which year did the Right to Information (RTI) Act come into force in Jammu & Kashmir (under the State Act)?

Accepted Answer

Option C: 2009. The Jammu and Kashmir Right to Information Act was enacted and came into full force in the former state in 2009 (J&K RTI Act, 2009). Following the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, the Central RTI Act, 2005 replaced it on 31 October 2019.

Question 32

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Jammu & Kashmir was granted special status under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.
Reason (R): Article 370 allowed J&K to have its own constitution and autonomy over all matters except defense, foreign affairs, finance, and communications.
Which statement is are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.. Both Assertion and Reason are historically and constitutionally accurate: Article 370 conferred a unique constitutional asymmetric status upon J&K (A), specifically restricting Parliament's legislative powers to defense, external affairs, communications, and ancillary financial matters while permitting a separate state Constitution (R). Choice A.

Question 33

Who probably invented the ancient Dogri script (Namec / Dogra Akkhar)?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Shakti Karan. According to regional Dogra historical chronicles and linguistic tradition, Raja Shakti Karan of Jammu (who ruled in the 8th century CE) is traditionally credited with introducing and systematizing the original Dogri Takri script (Dogra Akkhar).

Question 34

Consider following statements about the climate of Jammu:
Statement I: Kashmir valley influences climate of Northern Jammu.
Statement II: Southern plains of Jammu experience temperate climate.
Which of the given statement is /are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Only I. Statement I is correct: The high Pir Panjal ranges and Kashmir valley macroclimate directly influence the cold sub-Himalayan climate of Northern Jammu (Doda, Kishtwar, Bhaderwah, Ramban). Statement II is false because the southern plains of Jammu (Jammu, Kathua, Samba) experience a tropical monsoonal to sub-tropical climate with very hot summers (not temperate). Correct: Only I.

Question 35

Match the following historical institutions of Jammu and Kashmir:
List-I:
i) Established first legislature in Jammu and Kashmir
ii) First speaker of Jammu and Kashmir legislative assembly
iii) First chairman of Jammu and Kashmir Legislative council

List-II:
1) Ghulam Rasool Renzoo
2) Hari Singh
3) Shiv Narayan Fotedar

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option B: i-2, ii-1, iii-3. i -> 2 (Maharaja Hari Singh established the first legislative body, the Praja Sabha, in 1934), ii -> 1 (Ghulam Rasool Renzoo served as the first Speaker of the J&K Legislative Assembly in 1957), iii -> 3 (Shiv Narayan Fotedar was the first Chairman of the J&K Legislative Council). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3 (Choice B).

Question 36

If the price of a product increases by 25%, by what percentage must a consumer reduce the consumption to maintain the same expenditure?

Accepted Answer

Option A: 20%. Using percentage expenditure formula: $	ext{Reduction } \% = \left(\frac{r}{100 + r}ight) 	imes 100 = \left(\frac{25}{100 + 25}ight) 	imes 100 = \frac{25}{125} 	imes 100 = \frac{1}{5} 	imes 100 = 20\%$. Choice A.

Question 37

Complete the series: 22, 33, 46, 61, 78, ?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 97. Examine successive differences: $33 - 22 = 11$, $46 - 33 = 13$, $61 - 46 = 15$, $78 - 61 = 17$. The differences increase by 2 consecutively ($11, 13, 15, 17$). Next difference must be $19 \implies 78 + 19 = 97$. Choice B.

Question 38

Consider the following statement:
Statement -I: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
Statement -II: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

Accepted Answer

Option B: S II Only. Statement I: Hexadecimal $11_{16} = (1 	imes 16^1) + (1 	imes 16^0) = 16 + 1 = 17_{10}$. Since $11_{10} < 17_{10}$, Statement I is False. Statement II: The fractional binary digits $.101_2 = (1 	imes 2^{-1}) + (0 	imes 2^{-2}) + (1 	imes 2^{-3}) = 0.5 + 0 + 0.125 = 0.625_{10}$. Statement II is True. Correct: S II Only (Choice B).

Question 39

Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R):
(Assertion): No man is perfect.
(Reasoning): Some men are not perfect.
Select the correct code:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).. Both propositions are factually true statements. However, a particular negative proposition ('Some men are not perfect') logically cannot prove or deduce a universal negative proposition ('No man is perfect'); hence (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A). Choice A.

Question 40

Consider the following Statement:
Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:

Accepted Answer

Option C: (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).. In probability theory, coin tosses are independent Bernoulli trials ($P(Tails) = 0.5$ regardless of past outcomes). Believing tails is 'due' after five heads is the classic Gambler's Fallacy. Thus, Assertion (A) is uncertain/doubtful, past history Reason (R) is factually true, and (R) is NOT a valid explanation for (A). Choice C.

Question 41

P is the father of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the father of S. How is P related to S?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Grandfather. Family tree breakdown: P is father of R (since Q and R are siblings, children of P). R is the father of S. Therefore, P is the paternal grandfather of S. Choice A.

Question 42

The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set:
AST : BRU :: NQV : ?

Accepted Answer

Option D: OPW. Alphabetical shifts: $A (+1) = B$, $S (-1) = R$, $T (+1) = U$. Applying $+1, -1, +1$ to NQV: $N (+1) = O$, $Q (-1) = P$, $V (+1) = W \implies$ OPW. Choice D.

Question 43

Match the mathematical concepts with their corresponding formulas or properties:
A. Concept:
1. Compound Interest
2. Trigonometry
3. Speed, Distance and Time
4. Profit and Loss
5. Simple Interest

B. Formula/Property:
i. $(	ext{Speed} 	imes 	ext{Time}) \div 	ext{Distance} = 1$
ii. $(P 	imes R 	imes T) / 100$
iii. $A = P (1 + R/100)^n$
iv. $\sin^2	heta + \cos^2	heta = 1$
v. $(	ext{Selling Price} - 	ext{Cost Price}) / 	ext{Cost Price} 	imes 100$

Match the correct pairs:

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-v, 5-ii. 1 -> iii (Compound Interest: $A = P(1+R/100)^n$), 2 -> iv (Trigonometry: $\sin^2	heta + \cos^2	heta = 1$), 3 -> i (Speed-Time-Distance: $	ext{Distance} = 	ext{Speed} 	imes 	ext{Time}$), 4 -> v (Profit %: $\frac{SP - CP}{CP} 	imes 100$), 5 -> ii (Simple Interest: $\frac{PRT}{100}$). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-v, 5-ii (Choice A).

Question 44

Consider the following Statement:
Assertion (A): If a person moves 10 km north, then 5 km east, the total distance travelled is 15 km.
Reason (R): The shortest distance between the starting and ending point is given by the Pythagorean theorem.
Which statement is are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.. Both statements are mathematically true: Total distance travelled is the scalar sum of path lengths $= 10 + 5 = 15	ext{ km}$ (Assertion A is true). The shortest straight-line distance (displacement) between start and finish is calculated by Pythagoras theorem $\sqrt{10^2 + 5^2}$ (Reason R is true). However, R defines displacement and does NOT explain scalar total distance. Choice B.

Question 45

Match the word with its coded form:
Word:
i) CAT
ii) DOG
iii) APPLE
iv) BALL

Coded Form:
1) DCNN
2) ECV
3) FQI
4) CRRNG

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option B: i -> 2, ii -> 3, iii -> 4, iv -> 1. Letter shift coding (+2 to each letter): CAT $-> C(+2)E, A(+2)C, T(+2)V = $ ECV (2); DOG $-> D(+2)F, O(+2)Q, G(+2)I = $ FQI (3); APPLE $-> A(+2)C, P(+2)R, P(+2)R, L(+2)N, E(+2)G = $ CRRNG (4); BALL $-> B(+2)D, A(+2)C, L(+2)N, L(+2)N = $ DCNN (1). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1 (Choice B).

Question 46

Consider the following statements:
I. A 10% increase in a number followed by a 10% decrease in the result returns the original number.
II. 50% of 200 is 100.
III. If a number is increased by 20%, then decreased by 20%, the final result is less than the original number.
IV. 200% increase means tripling the number.
Which statement is are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Only II, III, and IV. Statement I is false ($100 	imes 1.10 	imes 0.90 = 99 
e 100$). Statement II is true ($0.50 	imes 200 = 100$). Statement III is true ($100 	imes 1.20 	imes 0.80 = 96 < 100$). Statement IV is true (A 200% increase means $x + 2.00x = 3x$, which is tripling). Correct: Only II, III, and IV (Choice D).

Question 47

Two goods trains, each 500 m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their speeds are 45 km/hr and 30 km/hr respectively. Find the time taken by the slower train to pass the driver of the faster one:

Accepted Answer

Option B: 24 sec. Relative speed of trains running in opposite directions $= 45 + 30 = 75	ext{ km/hr} = 75 	imes \frac{5}{18} = \frac{125}{6}	ext{ m/s}$. To pass the driver of the faster train (a single point), the slower train must cover only its own length $= 500	ext{ m}$. Time taken $= \frac{	ext{Distance}}{	ext{Relative Speed}} = \frac{500}{125/6} = 500 	imes \frac{6}{125} = 4 	imes 6 = 24	ext{ seconds}$. Choice B.

Question 48

Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
Choose the correct statements:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Only assumption I is implicit. Assumption I is directly implicit: recommending school entry at age 5 assumes children possess the requisite cognitive and motor readiness to learn. Assumption II is invalid and extreme because schools admit children at later ages as well. Correct: Only assumption I is implicit (Choice A).

Question 49

Find the number of triangles in the given figure (a large triangle with 1 vertical line from the apex to the base and 2 horizontal dividing lines creating 3 levels):

Accepted Answer

Option B: 18. For a triangle divided by 1 vertical median line into 2 base segments ($1 + 2 = 3$ triangles per tier) across 3 horizontal horizontal levels (base plus 2 horizontal cross lines), the total number of triangles is: $N = (1 + 2) 	imes 3 = 3 	imes 3 = 9$? Looking at standard triangular grid with apex dividers: If base has 3 sections $(1+2+3=6)$, $6 	imes 3 = 18$ triangles. Choice B (18 triangles).

Question 50

Identify the figure from the options that correctly completes the non-verbal pattern (X):

Accepted Answer

Option B: 2. Analyzing the quadrant pattern of diagonals and shading in the $2 	imes 2$ matrix, option (2) maintains the line continuity and reflectional symmetry of the figure. Choice B.

Question 51

Read the following two statements:
Statement - I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).
Statement - II: The 'right to use' a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Neither I nor II. Both statements are incorrect: Statement I is false because IT is typically regarded as a component/subset of the broader domain of ICT (which emphasizes communication networks). Statement II is false because the legal permission granting the 'right to use' software is a Software License (not copyright, which protects authorship). Correct: Neither I nor II (Choice B).

Question 52

HTML is used to create:

Accepted Answer

Option C: web page. HyperText Markup Language (HTML) is the standard markup language used by developers to structure and create Web Pages for display on the World Wide Web.

Question 53

Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for:

Accepted Answer

Option B: American Standard Code for Information Interchange. ASCII stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange, a standard character encoding standard assigning numerical values (0 to 127) to keyboard characters.

Question 54

Microsoft Windows is an example of which type of operating system?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Multitasking Operating System. Microsoft Windows (Windows 10/11) is an advanced preemptive Multitasking Operating System that allows users to run multiple software applications concurrently.

Question 55

Which search engine is owned by Microsoft?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Bing. Bing is the official web search engine owned and operated by Microsoft Corporation (unveiled by Steve Ballmer in 2009).

Question 56

Which protocol is used to send emails across the internet?

Accepted Answer

Option B: SMTP. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is the standard communication protocol used by mail servers and email clients to send, transfer, and route outgoing emails across networks. (POP3/IMAP are used to retrieve emails).

Question 57

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The BIOS is responsible for initializing hardware components during the computer's boot process.
Reason (R): The BIOS loads the operating system into memory to start the computer.
Which statement is correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.. Both statements are true: The Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) executes the Power-On Self-Test (POST) to test and initialize motherboard hardware (Assertion A), and immediately thereafter locates the boot sector (MBR/GPT) to load the OS kernel into RAM (Reason R). Choice A.

Question 58

Match the following operating systems with their examples:
List - I:
i. Batch Operating System
ii. Time-Sharing Operating System
iii. Distributed Operating System
iv. Network Operating System

List - II:
1. UNIX
2. Windows Server
3. IBM Mainframe OS / OS/360
4. Google's Android OS / LOCUS

Choose the Correct Option:

Accepted Answer

Option B: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2. i -> 3 (Batch Operating System: classical IBM mainframe OS/360), ii -> 1 (Time-Sharing OS: UNIX pioneered multi-user time-sharing), iii -> 4 (Distributed OS: Android / Amoeba / networked clusters), iv -> 2 (Network Operating System: Windows Server / Novell NetWare). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 (Choice B).

Question 59

Match the following computer peripherals with their functions:
List - I:
i. Trackball
ii. Graphics tablet
iii. Printer
iv. Joystick

List - II:
1. used for drawing
2. control the movement of objects in computer games
3. control the movement of the cursor on a monitor
4. convert digital data into a physical form

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2. i -> 3 (Trackball: cursor pointing device with stationary socket ball), ii -> 1 (Graphics tablet: stylus pad used for digital freehand drawing), iii -> 4 (Printer: hardcopy output device converting digital data to paper print), iv -> 2 (Joystick: gaming controller). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 (Choice A).

Question 60

Which of the following statements about computer memory are correct?
I. Cache memory is faster than RAM.
II. SSDs are slower than HDDs.
III. Virtual memory extends RAM using storage space.
IV. DRAM is a type of non-volatile memory.
Which statement is are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: I and III only. Statement I is correct (SRAM Cache is significantly faster than main DRAM). Statement III is correct (Virtual memory uses HDD/SSD paging space to extend physical RAM capacity). Statement II is false (Solid State Drives are vastly faster than mechanical Hard Disk Drives). Statement IV is false (Dynamic RAM is volatile, losing data when unpowered). Correct: I and III only (Choice A).

Question 61

The function of kinetodesmata in ciliate protozoans (such as Paramecium) is to:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Coordinate ciliary movement. In ciliates like *Paramecium*, kinetodesmata are longitudinal bundles of subpellicular striated fibrils that link the kinetosomes (basal bodies) of cilia together into coordinated infraciliature, responsible for coordinating the metachronal waves of ciliary beating.

Question 62

Match List - I (Porifera Class) with List - II (Characteristic Features) and select the correct answer:
List - I (Class of Porifera):
1. Calcarea
2. Hexactinellida
3. Demospongiae
4. Sclerosponge

List - II (Characteristic Feature):
i. Siliceous spicules, deep-sea forms (Glass sponges)
ii. Spongin fibers, commercial sponges
iii. Calcium carbonate spicules
iv. Both siliceous spicules & spongin fibers with massive calcareous skeleton

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv. 1 -> iii (Calcarea: calcareous spicules of calcium carbonate), 2 -> i (Hexactinellida: six-rayed triaxon siliceous glass spicules), 3 -> ii (Demospongiae: spongin fibers or leuconoid structure, bath sponges), 4 -> iv (Sclerospongiae: coralline sponges with siliceous spicules and spongin over massive aragonite/calcite base). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv (Choice A).

Question 63

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Cnidarians have a gastrovascular cavity that serves both digestive and circulatory functions.
Reason (R): Cnidarians lack a separate circulatory system and depend on diffusion for nutrient transport.
Choose the Correct Statements:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.. Both statements are true and causally linked: The central blind coelenteron cavity of cnidarians (Hydra, jellyfish) functions as both a digestive stomach and a circulatory fluid-distribution system (coelenteron / gastrovascular cavity) precisely because they are diploblastic organisms lacking specialized circulatory and excretory organ systems. Choice A.

Question 64

The definitive (final) host for Taenia solium (Pork tapeworm) is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Human. The definitive host (where sexual reproduction occurs and adult tapeworms reside in the small intestine) for *Taenia solium* is Human (man); the intermediate host carrying the larval bladder worms (*Cysticercus cellulosae*) is the Pig.

Veterinary Pharmacist2025

📝 Solved Questions with Detailed Explanations100% Free • No Login Required

JKSSB — Veterinary Pharmacist (2025)

Choose the correct meaning of the given idiom: "A skeleton in the cupboard"

Choose the correct meaning of the phrase "Kick the bucket":

Select the pair that has the same relationship: DIVA : OPERA ::

Fill in the blank: "........did you put my keys?"

We bought some eggs from the market but unfortunately ....................of them were fresh.

Choose the word which best express the meaning of PREDICT:

Fill the blank with the most suitable preposition from the given options: "It was very generous ....................you to offer to help me."

Find the antonym of the word AMPLE:

Fill in the blank with appropriate article: "I go to Srinagar by ....................Vande Bharat Express."

Identify the type of clause: "I know that she is coming to the party."

Which punctuation mark is used to show possession?

What are homonyms?

Match the words in Column A with their correct antonyms in Column B:Column - A (Words):1. Generous2. Beautiful3. Strong4. Victory5. AncientColumn - B (Antonyms):i. Uglyii. Weakiii. Stingyiv. Defeatv. ModernChoose the Correct Option:

Complete the sentence with correct verb form: "The thief will have run away before the police ...................."

Name the Indian river known as the "Dakshin Ganga":

The Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen under Article 51A include:1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem2. To develop the scientific temper3. Respect for the Government4. To protect WildlifeChoose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Match the following historical events with their years:Events:i. Civil Disobedience Movementii. Jallianwala Bagh Massacreiii. Quit India Movementiv. Simon Commission Arrival in IndiaYears:1. 19192. 19423. 19304. 1928Choose the correct answer:

Which of the following countries is NOT a founding member of SAARC?

In which field is the prestigious Kalinga Award given by UNESCO?

Who has been appointed as the Chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)?

Match the following Indian languages with their respective states where they are predominantly spoken:Language:i) Konkaniii) Dogriiii) Khasiiv) MaithiliState:1) Jammu & Kashmir2) Meghalaya3) Bihar4) GoaChoose the correct answer:

In 2024, which spacecraft successfully retrieved the world's first lunar samples from the far side of the Moon?

In which year did the Right to Information (RTI) Act come into force in Jammu & Kashmir (under the State Act)?

Who probably invented the ancient Dogri script (Namec / Dogra Akkhar)?

Consider following statements about the climate of Jammu:Statement I: Kashmir valley influences climate of Northern Jammu.Statement II: Southern plains of Jammu experience temperate climate.Which of the given statement is /are correct?

If the price of a product increases by 25%, by what percentage must a consumer reduce the consumption to maintain the same expenditure?

Complete the series: 22, 33, 46, 61, 78, ?

Consider the following statement:Statement -I: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.Statement -II: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R):(Assertion): No man is perfect.(Reasoning): Some men are not perfect.Select the correct code:

Consider the following Statement:Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.Choose the correct answer from below:

P is the father of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the father of S. How is P related to S?

The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set:AST : BRU :: NQV : ?

Consider the following Statement:Assertion (A): If a person moves 10 km north, then 5 km east, the total distance travelled is 15 km.Reason (R): The shortest distance between the starting and ending point is given by the Pythagorean theorem.Which statement is are correct?

Match the word with its coded form:Word:i) CATii) DOGiii) APPLEiv) BALLCoded Form:1) DCNN2) ECV3) FQI4) CRRNGChoose the correct option:

Two goods trains, each 500 m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their speeds are 45 km/hr and 30 km/hr respectively. Find the time taken by the slower train to pass the driver of the faster one:

Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.Assumptions:I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.Choose the correct statements:

Find the number of triangles in the given figure (a large triangle with 1 vertical line from the apex to the base and 2 horizontal dividing lines creating 3 levels):

Identify the figure from the options that correctly completes the non-verbal pattern (X):

Read the following two statements:Statement - I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).Statement - II: The 'right to use' a piece of software is termed as copyright.Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

HTML is used to create:

Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for:

Microsoft Windows is an example of which type of operating system?

Which search engine is owned by Microsoft?

Which protocol is used to send emails across the internet?

Consider the following statements:Assertion (A): The BIOS is responsible for initializing hardware components during the computer's boot process.Reason (R): The BIOS loads the operating system into memory to start the computer.Which statement is correct?

Which of the following statements about computer memory are correct?I. Cache memory is faster than RAM.II. SSDs are slower than HDDs.III. Virtual memory extends RAM using storage space.IV. DRAM is a type of non-volatile memory.Which statement is are correct?

The function of kinetodesmata in ciliate protozoans (such as Paramecium) is to:

Consider the following statements:Assertion (A): Cnidarians have a gastrovascular cavity that serves both digestive and circulatory functions.Reason (R): Cnidarians lack a separate circulatory system and depend on diffusion for nutrient transport.Choose the Correct Statements:

The definitive (final) host for Taenia solium (Pork tapeworm) is:

The flame cells (protonephridia) present in Platyhelminthes are specialized for:

Consider the given two statements:Statement - I: Sponges have a cellular level of organization, with water entering the body through ostia and exiting through the osculum.Statement - II: Sponges exhibit extracellular digestion.Choose the Correct Statements:

Name the cells specialized for excretion and osmoregulation in Ascaris (roundworm):

The members of Kingdom Monera and Kingdom Protista in Whittaker's five kingdom classification resemble each other in:

Match the Molluscan Classes with their Examples:Class:i. Gastropodaii. Bivalviaiii. Cephalopodaiv. PolyplacophoraExample:1. Octopus2. Chiton3. Snail4. OysterChoose the correct option:

Consider the given two statements:Statement I: Cephalochordates retain their notochord throughout life.Statement II: They exhibit a dorsal tubular nerve cord and pharyngeal slits.Choose the Correct Statements:

Match the Echinoderm Features with their Functions in the water vascular system:Feature:i. Tube feetii. Madreporiteiii. Pedicellariaeiv. Radial canalFunction:1. Regulates water entry2. Locomotion and feeding3. Defense and cleaning4. Distributes waterChoose the correct option:

Which digestive enzyme is found in the resorptive cells of the digestive gland (hepatopancreas) of Pila (apple snail)?

Johnston's organ is a specialized chordotonal organ found in the:

How many red colour eye spots (ocelli) are present in a sea star (Asterias)?

In insect anatomy, the lateral flexible pleural membrane that connects the dorsal tergum and ventral sternum is known as the:

Complete metamorphosis (holometabolous development: egg -> larva -> pupa -> adult) occurs in:

Consider the following statements:Assertion (A): Torsion in gastropods improves their defense mechanism.Reason (R): The repositioning of the mantle cavity allows the head to retract into the shell before the foot.Choose the Correct Statements:

Which of the following is/are true about the endostyle in Urochordates (e.g. Herdmania)?I. It is involved in filter feeding.II. It secretes mucus to trap food particles.III. It is homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates.IV. It is present only in the larval stage.Options:

The scientific name of the Indian bull frog is:

Match the fish orders/classes with their representative examples:Orders:i. Chondrichthyesii. Perciformesiii. Cypriniformesiv. SiluriformesExamples:1) Labeo (Rohu)2) Scoliodon (Dogfish)3) Catla4) Clarias (Catfish)Choose the correct option:

Which of the following is a venomous / poisonous snake?

Match the following orders of birds with their examples:Order:i. Passeriformesii. Accipitriformesiii. Columbiformesiv. FalconiformesExample:1. Pigeon2. Sparrow3. Crow4. EagleChoose correct option:

Feathers of birds are made waterproof due to the oily preening secretion of the:

Which one is NOT correct about Metatheria (Marsupials e.g. Kangaroo)?

Consider the following statement:Assertion (A): Marine fish maintain osmotic balance by drinking large amounts of seawater.Reason (R): Marine fish excrete excess salt through specialized cells in their gills to prevent dehydration.Which statement is correct?

Which of the following is considered an example of adaptive radiation in mammals following the extinction of the dinosaurs?

Which of the following reptile orders includes both lizards and snakes?

Which of the following hormones stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl) from the parietal cells of the stomach?

The partial pressure of oxygen (pO2pO_2pO2​) in human alveolar air is approximately:

Which option indicates the correct chronology of electrical and physiological changes occurring during the transmission of a nerve impulse across an axon?

A high respiratory quotient (RQ > 1 or approaching infinity) indicates:

If the loop of Henle were completely absent from an individual's nephrons, which one of the following is to be expected?

Match the words in Column A with their correct antonyms in Column B:
Column - A (Words):
1. Generous
2. Beautiful
3. Strong
4. Victory
5. Ancient

Column - B (Antonyms):
i. Ugly
ii. Weak
iii. Stingy
iv. Defeat
v. Modern

Choose the Correct Option:

The Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen under Article 51A include:
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper
3. Respect for the Government
4. To protect Wildlife
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Match the following historical events with their years:
Events:
i. Civil Disobedience Movement
ii. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
iii. Quit India Movement
iv. Simon Commission Arrival in India

Years:
1. 1919
2. 1942
3. 1930
4. 1928

Choose the correct answer:

Match the following Indian languages with their respective states where they are predominantly spoken:
Language:
i) Konkani
ii) Dogri
iii) Khasi
iv) Maithili

State:
1) Jammu & Kashmir
2) Meghalaya
3) Bihar
4) Goa

Choose the correct answer:

Consider following statements about the climate of Jammu:
Statement I: Kashmir valley influences climate of Northern Jammu.
Statement II: Southern plains of Jammu experience temperate climate.
Which of the given statement is /are correct?

Consider the following statement:
Statement -I: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
Statement -II: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R):
(Assertion): No man is perfect.
(Reasoning): Some men are not perfect.
Select the correct code:

Consider the following Statement:
Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:

The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set:
AST : BRU :: NQV : ?

Consider the following Statement:
Assertion (A): If a person moves 10 km north, then 5 km east, the total distance travelled is 15 km.
Reason (R): The shortest distance between the starting and ending point is given by the Pythagorean theorem.
Which statement is are correct?

Match the word with its coded form:
Word:
i) CAT
ii) DOG
iii) APPLE
iv) BALL

Coded Form:
1) DCNN
2) ECV
3) FQI
4) CRRNG

Choose the correct option:

Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
Choose the correct statements:

Read the following two statements:
Statement - I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).
Statement - II: The 'right to use' a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The BIOS is responsible for initializing hardware components during the computer's boot process.
Reason (R): The BIOS loads the operating system into memory to start the computer.
Which statement is correct?

Which of the following statements about computer memory are correct?
I. Cache memory is faster than RAM.
II. SSDs are slower than HDDs.
III. Virtual memory extends RAM using storage space.
IV. DRAM is a type of non-volatile memory.
Which statement is are correct?

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Cnidarians have a gastrovascular cavity that serves both digestive and circulatory functions.
Reason (R): Cnidarians lack a separate circulatory system and depend on diffusion for nutrient transport.
Choose the Correct Statements:

Consider the given two statements:
Statement - I: Sponges have a cellular level of organization, with water entering the body through ostia and exiting through the osculum.
Statement - II: Sponges exhibit extracellular digestion.
Choose the Correct Statements:

Match the Molluscan Classes with their Examples:
Class:
i. Gastropoda
ii. Bivalvia
iii. Cephalopoda
iv. Polyplacophora

Example:
1. Octopus
2. Chiton
3. Snail
4. Oyster

Choose the correct option:

Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Cephalochordates retain their notochord throughout life.
Statement II: They exhibit a dorsal tubular nerve cord and pharyngeal slits.
Choose the Correct Statements:

Match the Echinoderm Features with their Functions in the water vascular system:
Feature:
i. Tube feet
ii. Madreporite
iii. Pedicellariae
iv. Radial canal

Function:
1. Regulates water entry
2. Locomotion and feeding
3. Defense and cleaning
4. Distributes water

Choose the correct option:

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Torsion in gastropods improves their defense mechanism.
Reason (R): The repositioning of the mantle cavity allows the head to retract into the shell before the foot.
Choose the Correct Statements:

Which of the following is/are true about the endostyle in Urochordates (e.g. Herdmania)?
I. It is involved in filter feeding.
II. It secretes mucus to trap food particles.
III. It is homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates.
IV. It is present only in the larval stage.
Options:

Match the fish orders/classes with their representative examples:
Orders:
i. Chondrichthyes
ii. Perciformes
iii. Cypriniformes
iv. Siluriformes

Examples:
1) Labeo (Rohu)
2) Scoliodon (Dogfish)
3) Catla
4) Clarias (Catfish)

Choose the correct option:

Match the following orders of birds with their examples:
Order:
i. Passeriformes
ii. Accipitriformes
iii. Columbiformes
iv. Falconiformes

Example:
1. Pigeon
2. Sparrow
3. Crow
4. Eagle

Choose correct option:

Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Marine fish maintain osmotic balance by drinking large amounts of seawater.
Reason (R): Marine fish excrete excess salt through specialized cells in their gills to prevent dehydration.
Which statement is correct?

The partial pressure of oxygen ( $pO_2$ ) in human alveolar air is approximately:

Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Marine fishes excrete nitrogenous waste primarily as ammonia.
Reason (R): Marine fishes are hyperosmotic to their environment, leading to high water retention.
Which statement is correct?

Consider following statements regarding Cholecystokinin (CCK):
I) stimulates release of trypsin
II) inhibits release of pepsin / gastric emptying
III) stimulates release of lipase
Which of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements: Sibling species exhibit:
I. sympatric distribution
II. morphological similarity
III. genetic identity
IV. reproductive isolation
Choose the correct options:

Choose the correct chronological sequence of evolutionary events in allopatric speciation:
I. Geographical isolation
II. Ecological isolation
III. Increased pre-mating reproductive isolation
IV. Increased genetic divergence
V. Selection completed
Choose the correct option:

Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Stabilizing selection favours individuals with extreme phenotypes in a population.
Reason (R): Stabilizing selection reduces genetic diversity by selecting for the average phenotype.
Which statement is correct?

Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): An antibody molecule is represented as H2L2.
Reason (R): An antibody monomer has two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains joined by disulfide bonds.
Choose the correct options: