JKSSB Paramedical Assistant (Dermatology) 2025 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

What is the most common mode of transmission of leprosy?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Inhalation of respiratory droplets. Leprosy is primarily transmitted through infectious aerosols and respiratory droplets from the nose and mouth of untreated lepromatous patients.

Question 2

What is the main reservoir for Mycobacterium leprae?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Humans. Humans (specifically untreated multibacillary patients) are the primary natural reservoir and source of Mycobacterium leprae infection.

Question 3

What is a characteristic histopathological feature seen in leprosy with good cell mediated immunity to M. leprae?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Epithelioid granuloma. Tuberculoid leprosy (strong CMI) exhibits well-formed epithelioid cell granulomas with dense lymphocytic cuffs and Langerhans giant cells.

Question 4

Which of the following is a hallmark clinical feature of leprosy?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Numb skin patches. Hypopigmented or erythematous anesthetic/hypoesthetic skin patches with loss of sensation are the cardinal diagnostic sign of leprosy.

Question 5

How long is the multi-drug therapy (MDT) course for paucibacillary leprosy?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 6 months. Under WHO and NLEP guidelines, Paucibacillary (PB) leprosy is treated with standard MDT for 6 months (Rifampicin + Dapsone).

Question 6

Which of the following tests can confirm a diagnosis of leprosy?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Slit skin smear. A slit-skin smear (SSS) stained with modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is the standard bacteriological confirmation test for acid-fast Mycobacterium leprae.

Question 7

Which of the following stains is used to identify Mycobacterium leprae?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Carbol Fuchsin. Mycobacterium leprae is visualized using Carbol Fuchsin in the modified Ziehl-Neelsen (Fite-Faraco) acid-fast staining method.

Question 8

Leprosy primarily affects which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Skin and nerves. Mycobacterium leprae has unique tropism for peripheral Schwann cells and cooler surface tissues, primarily affecting the skin and peripheral nerves.

Question 9

What is the shape of Mycobacterium leprae?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Rod-shaped. Mycobacterium leprae is a pleomorphic, acid-fast, straight or slightly curved rod-shaped bacillus (often arranged in globi clusters).

Question 10

Which of the following is a deformity commonly associated with advanced leprosy?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Claw hand. Ulnar and median nerve motor paralysis causes intrinsic muscle wasting leading to characteristic partial or complete claw hand deformity.

Question 11

In which subtype of leprosy is saddle nose deformity commonly seen?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Lepromatous. Lepromatous Leprosy (LL) causes extensive bacillary infiltration of the nasal mucosa and destruction of the cartilaginous nasal septum, leading to a saddle nose deformity.

Question 12

Which of the following is a common complication in a patient experiencing Type 1 lepra reaction?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Redness and swelling of skin lesions. Type 1 lepra reaction (Reversal reaction) is a delayed hypersensitivity response characterized by acute erythema, edema, and swelling of pre-existing skin lesions and neuritis.

Question 13

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Mycobacterium leprae?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Acid-fast bacilli. Mycobacterium leprae is an obligate intracellular, acid-fast bacillus (AFB) with a lipid-rich mycolic acid cell wall.

Question 14

Which type of leprosy is characterized by multiple symmetric skin lesions and a high bacterial load?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Lepromatous leprosy. Lepromatous leprosy (LL) occurs in patients with deficient CMI, presenting with generalized symmetrical macules/nodules (lepromas) and a high bacteriological index ($BI 4+	ext{ to }6+$).

Question 15

Which of the following drugs is a key component of multi-drug therapy (MDT) for lepromatous leprosy?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is the most potent, rapidly bactericidal backbone of WHO Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) regimens.

Question 16

Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) are cutaneous lesions seen in which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Type 2 lepra reaction. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) is the classic clinical manifestation of Type 2 lepra reaction (immune complex-mediated vasculitis).

Question 17

Which of the following is emphasized during counselling of a patient newly diagnosed with leprosy?

Accepted Answer

Option B: The disease is curable with multi-drug therapy. Counselling stresses that leprosy is completely curable with standard Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) and transmission ceases within days of initiating treatment.

Question 18

What is the first-line treatment for severe erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL)?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Thalidomide. Thalidomide (or systemic corticosteroids like Prednisolone) is the most effective drug for severe refractory Type 2 lepra reactions (ENL).

Question 19

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in Type 1 lepra reaction?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Type IV (Cell-mediated). Type 1 lepra reaction is a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity response caused by an acute upgrade or downgrade of cell-mediated immunity against M. leprae antigens.

Question 20

Which of the following is NOT an animal model used in leprosy research?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Guinea pig. Nine-banded armadillos, athymic nude mice, and SCID footpads support M. leprae replication; guinea pigs do not support leprosy infection.

Question 21

Consider the following statements about HIV and leprosy co-infection are correct based on current understanding?
i. HIV infection increases susceptibility to leprosy.
ii. Untreated co-infected individuals experience more severe forms of leprosy.
iii. Leprosy treatment in HIV co-infected individuals is the same as in those without HIV.

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option D: i, ii, and iii. All three statements are correct under current WHO/CDC guidelines.

Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) on leprosy in HIV co-infected patients:
i. ART initiation can unmask subclinical leprosy infections.
ii. ART reduces the risk of developing leprosy reactions.
iii. ART has no effect on the clinical course of leprosy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: i only. Initiating ART can trigger Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS), unmasking subclinical M. leprae infection or triggering Type 1 reversal reactions.

Question 23

Which of the following services are provided under the National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP) for rehabilitation of leprosy-affected individuals?
i. Provision of Microcellular Rubber (MCR) footwear.
ii. Reconstructive surgery for deformities.
iii. Provision of dressing materials.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Accepted Answer

Option D: i, ii, and iii. NLEP provides free MCR footwear to protect insensitive feet, reconstructive surgery (RCS) with financial assistance, and ulcer dressing kits.

Question 24

Which of the following statements about Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) are correct?
i. ENL is seen in Type 1 lepra reaction.
ii. ENL is associated with immune complex deposition.
iii. Thalidomide is effective for managing severe cases of ENL.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Accepted Answer

Option B: ii and iii only. Statements ii and iii are correct. ENL is the hallmark of Type 2 (not Type 1) lepra reaction, involving immune complex (Type III) deposition.

Question 25

Which of the following statements about pregnancy and leprosy are correct?
i. Pregnancy suppresses immune responses, potentially worsening leprosy.
ii. Type 1 lepra reactions are less frequent during pregnancy.
iii. Multi-drug therapy (MDT) is contraindicated during pregnancy.

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i and ii only. Pregnancy suppresses Th1 cell-mediated immunity; standard WHO MDT is safe (not contraindicated) during pregnancy.

Question 26

Which of the following statements about disabilities and rehabilitation in leprosy are correct?
i. Disabilities in leprosy are often caused by peripheral nerve damage.
ii. Reconstructive surgery can reverse all nerve-related deformities.
iii. Physical and occupational therapy play a significant role in rehabilitation.

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option C: i and iii only. Statements i and iii are correct. Reconstructive surgery can correct motor deformities (claw hand) but cannot reverse sensory loss (anesthesia).

Question 27

Which of the following statements about histoid leprosy are correct?
i. It is a variant of lepromatous leprosy.
ii. Histoid lesions are characterized by raised, shiny nodules.
iii. It is associated with resistance to dapsone.

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option D: i, ii, and iii. Histoid leprosy (Wade, 1963) is an LL variant presenting with firm, shiny, succulent papules/nodules on normal skin, historically associated with dapsone monotherapy resistance.

Question 28

Which of the following statements about ocular involvement in leprosy are correct?
i. Eye involvement in lepromatous leprosy may occur due to bacterial infiltration.
ii. Lagophthalmos is caused by facial nerve involvement.
iii. Early use of corticosteroids can prevent all ocular complications.
iv. Chronic exposure due to lagophthalmos can lead to corneal ulceration.

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option C: i, ii, and iv only. Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Facial nerve (zygomatic branch) paralysis causes lagophthalmos (inability to close the eye), risking exposure keratitis and corneal ulcers.

Question 29

Match the following types or reactions of leprosy with their corresponding clinical features:
Column A:
i. Tuberculoid leprosy
ii. Lepromatous leprosy
iii. Type 1 lepra reaction
iv. Type 2 lepra reaction

Column B:
1. Numbness in glove and stocking pattern
2. Inflammation of existing skin lesions and nerves
3. Solitary hypo-esthetic patch
4. Reddish tender nodules

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option B: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4. i-3 (TT = solitary hypoesthetic patch), ii-1 (LL = symmetrical stocking-glove numbness), iii-2 (Type 1 = inflammation of existing lesions/neuritis), iv-4 (Type 2 = crops of tender erythematous nodules/ENL).

Question 30

Match the following MDT blister packs with their respective colors:
Column A:
i. MB-MDT (Adult)
ii. PB-MDT (Adult)
iii. MB-MDT (Pediatric; 10-14 years)
iv. PB-MDT (Pediatric; 10-14 years)

Column B:
1. Green
2. Red
3. Yellow
4. Blue

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4. Standard WHO MDT blister packaging: Adult MB = Red (2), Adult PB = Green (1), Pediatric MB = Yellow (3), Pediatric PB = Blue (4).

Question 31

Match the following leprosy drugs with their notable side effects:
Column A:
i. Rifampicin
ii. Dapsone
iii. Clofazimine
iv. Ofloxacin

Column B:
1. Hemolytic anemia
2. Reddish discoloration especially of skin, and body fluids
3. Red discoloration of urine, tears, and saliva (not skin)
4. Vaginitis

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option D: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4. Rifampicin -> Orange-red discoloration of urine/tears (3), Dapsone -> Hemolytic anemia / Methemoglobinemia (1), Clofazimine -> Reddish-black skin pigmentation (2), Ofloxacin -> Vaginitis/GI upset (4).

Question 32

Match the following indices used in slit skin smear assessment with their descriptions:
Column A:
i. Bacterial Index (BI)
ii. Morphological Index (MI)
iii. SFG Index

Column B:
1. Indicates the proportion of live, intact bacilli in a sample
2. Evaluates the density of acid-fast bacilli in a smear
3. Categorizes bacilli based on staining characteristics

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-2, ii-1, iii-3. Bacterial Index (BI) evaluates the total bacillary load on Ridley scale (0 to 6+, 2); Morphological Index (MI) measures the percentage of viable, solid-staining intact bacilli (1); SFG index categorizes Solid, Fragmented, and Granular forms (3).

Question 33

Match the following terms in leprosy with their descriptions:
Column A:
i. Lucio phenomenon
ii. Downgrading reaction
iii. Madarosis
iv. Lazarine leprosy

Column B:
1. Loss of eyebrows or eyelashes in advanced lepromatous leprosy
2. A severe necrotizing vasculitis seen in diffuse lepromatous leprosy
3. Immunological shift resulting in worsening of lesions
4. Diffuse infiltration without visible nodulation, giving a myxedematous appearance

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option B: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4. Lucio phenomenon -> Severe necrotizing purpuric vasculitis in diffuse LL (2), Downgrading reaction -> Shift toward lepromatous pole with falling CMI (3), Madarosis -> Loss of eyebrows/eyelashes (1), Lazarine leprosy -> Ulcerative tuberculoid form (4/3).

Question 34

Match the following leprosy drugs with their mechanisms of action:
Column A:
i. Rifampicin
ii. Dapsone
iii. Clofazimine

Column B:
1. Inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis
2. Generates reactive oxygen species and disrupts bacterial membranes
3. Inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option D: i-3, ii-1, iii-2. Rifampicin -> Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase (3), Dapsone -> Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase in folate pathway (1), Clofazimine -> Binds bacterial DNA and generates membrane-disrupting ROS (2).

Question 35

Match the following nerves commonly affected in leprosy with their clinical manifestations:
Column A:
i. Common peroneal nerve
ii. Ulnar nerve
iii. Median nerve
iv. Radial nerve

Column B:
1. Wrist drop
2. Foot drop
3. Loss of thumb opposition
4. Partial claw hand

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option C: i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1. Common peroneal -> Foot drop (2), Ulnar -> Partial claw hand (4), Median -> Ape thumb / Loss of opposition (3), Radial -> Wrist drop (1).

Question 36

Match the following items used in leprosy diagnosis and management with their applications:
Column A:
i. Semmes-Weinstein monofilament
ii. Dharmendra's suspension
iii. Ziehl-Neelsen method

Column B:
1. Used in the lepromin test to assess immune response
2. Testing nerve function
3. Detecting acid-fast bacilli

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-2, ii-1, iii-3. Semmes-Weinstein monofilament -> Sensory nerve testing (2), Dharmendra lepromin -> CMI assessment (1), Ziehl-Neelsen -> Acid-fast bacillus detection (3).

Question 37

Arrange the following steps of the Ziehl-Neelsen staining procedure for slit-skin smears in the correct order:
i. The smear is stained with methylene blue and then washed with water.
ii. The stained slide is examined under a microscope.
iii. The smear is decolorized with acid-alcohol.
iv. The smear is flooded with carbol fuchsin, heated, and then washed with water.

Select the correct order:

Accepted Answer

Option A: iv -> iii -> i -> ii. ZN staining protocol: Primary Carbol Fuchsin with steaming (iv) -> Decolorization with acid-alcohol (iii) -> Counterstaining with methylene blue (i) -> Oil immersion microscopy (ii).

Question 38

Arrange the following Ridley-Jopling subtypes of leprosy in descending order of cell-mediated immunity:
i. Borderline tuberculoid (BT)
ii. Lepromatous leprosy (LL)
iii. Tuberculoid leprosy (TT)
iv. Borderline lepromatous (BL)
v. Mid-borderline (BB)

Select the correct order:

Accepted Answer

Option B: iii -> i -> v -> iv -> ii. Ridley-Jopling spectrum (descending CMI): Tuberculoid (TT, iii) -> Borderline Tuberculoid (BT, i) -> Mid-Borderline (BB, v) -> Borderline Lepromatous (BL, iv) -> Lepromatous (LL, ii).

Question 39

Arrange the following milestones in India's leprosy eradication programme in chronological order:
i. Elimination of leprosy as a public health problem (reduction to <1 case per 10,000 population)
ii. Launch of Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) for leprosy treatment
iii. Implementation of Post Exposure Prophylaxis (administration of Single Dose of Rifampicin)
iv. Launch of the National Leprosy Control Programme (NLCP)

Select the correct order:

Accepted Answer

Option C: iv -> ii -> i -> iii. Milestones: NLCP launched (1955, iv) -> MDT introduced (1982/1983, ii) -> National elimination declared (<1/10,000 in Dec 2005, i) -> SDR-PEP rollout (2018–2020, iii).

Question 40

Arrange the following types of leprosy lesions in descending order of cell-mediated immunity:
i. Saucer right-way-up lesion
ii. Inverted saucer lesion
iii. Bizarre lesions
iv. Symmetric macular lesions with indefinite edges

Select the correct order:

Accepted Answer

Option B: i -> ii -> iii -> iv. Descending CMI lesion morphology: Well-defined right-way-up saucer patch of TT/BT (i) -> Inverted saucer lesion of BB (ii) -> Bizarre/punched-out lesions of BL (iii) -> Symmetric diffuse macules of LL (iv).

Question 41

Match the fungal infection with its clinical presentation:
i. Tinea pedis
ii. Tinea capitis
iii. Tinea corporis
iv. Candidiasis

Clinical Presentation:
1. Ring-shaped lesions on the trunk
2. Scaling and maceration of web spaces of toes
3. White patches in the oral cavity or moist areas
4. Scaling and hair loss on the scalp

Select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3. Tinea pedis -> Athlete's foot / web space maceration (2), Tinea capitis -> Scalp scaling and alopecia (4), Tinea corporis -> Ringworm of trunk (1), Candidiasis -> Oral thrush / white plaques (3).

Question 42

Match the bacterial disease with its primary or most common causative agent:
Diseases:
i. Erysipelas
ii. Impetigo
iii. Lumpy jaw
iv. Pitted Keratolysis

Causative Agents:
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Streptococcus pyogenes
3. Corynebacterium species
4. Actinomycesisraelii

Select the correct match:

Accepted Answer

Option B: 1-2, 2-1, 3-4, 4-3. Erysipelas -> Streptococcus pyogenes (2), Impetigo -> Staphylococcus aureus (1), Lumpy jaw -> Actinomyces israelii (4), Pitted keratolysis -> Corynebacterium / Kytococcus (3).

Question 43

Match the parasitic disease with its main feature:
Diseases:
i. Pediculosis capitis
ii. Leishmaniasis
iii. Scabies
iv. Cutaneous larva migrans

Main Features:
1. Burrows in web spaces of fingers
2. Ulcerative lesions with raised borders
3. Nits and lice infestation on the scalp
4. Serpiginous tracks on the skin

Select the correct match:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4. Pediculosis -> Scalp nits (3), Leishmaniasis -> Oriental sore ulcer with raised rim (2), Scabies -> Finger web burrows (1), Cutaneous larva migrans -> Creeping serpiginous tracks (4).

Question 44

Match the viral disease with its typical lesion type:
Diseases:
i. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
ii. Molluscum contagiosum
iii. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection
iv. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection

Lesion Types:
1. Umbilicated papules
2. Vesicular eruptions in a dermatomal distribution
3. Painful vesicular lesions around the mouth or genitals
4. Warts on the hands and feet

Select the correct match:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3. HPV -> Verrucae / Warts (4), Molluscum -> Pearly umbilicated papules (1), VZV (Shingles) -> Dermatomal grouped vesicles (2), HSV -> Oro-genital clustered vesicles (3).

Question 45

Arrange the following viral diseases in the order of their typical incubation period (shortest to longest):
i. Varicella
ii. Measles
iii. Dengue Fever
iv. Infectious Mononucleosis

Select the correct order:

Accepted Answer

Option A: iii, ii, i, iv. Incubation periods: Dengue (3–7 days, iii) -> Measles (10–14 days, ii) -> Varicella (14–16 days, i) -> Infectious Mononucleosis / EBV (30–50 days, iv).

Question 46

Arrange the following bacterial infections in the order of increasing depth of tissue involvement (from superficial to deepest):
i. Necrotizing fasciitis
ii. Erysipelas
iii. Gas gangrene
iv. Cellulitis

Select the correct order:

Accepted Answer

Option A: ii, iv, i, iii. Depth of invasion: Erysipelas (upper dermis/superficial lymphatics, ii) -> Cellulitis (deep dermis & subcutaneous fat, iv) -> Necrotizing fasciitis (deep fascia, i) -> Gas gangrene / Myonecrosis (skeletal muscle, iii).

Question 47

Consider the following statements about dermatophytosis:
i. Dermatophytes are named so because they usually invade the dermis.
ii. Dermatophytes are classified into three genera: Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton.
iii. KOH preparation is a definitive diagnostic test for dermatophyte infections.
iv. Tinea capitis is commonly caused by Epidermophytonfloccosum.

Select the correct combination of statements:

Accepted Answer

Option C: ii and iii only. Statements ii and iii are correct. Statement i is false (dermatophytes invade keratinized stratum corneum, hair, nails, not viable dermis); Statement iv is false (Epidermophyton does not infect hair).

Question 48

Consider the following statements about Candida infections:
i. Candida is a part of the normal flora of the human body and can become pathogenic under certain conditions.
ii. Pseudohyphae formation is a demonstrable feature of Candida albicans in KOH preparations.
iii. Inhaled or systemic corticosteroids predispose to oral candidiasis.
iv. Fluconazole is the first-line treatment for Candida auris infections.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: i, ii, and iii. Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is false because Candida auris is multidrug-resistant and frequently resistant to fluconazole (Echinocandins are first-line).

Question 49

Consider the following statements about cutaneous parasitic diseases:
i. Scabies is caused by Pediculushumanuscapitis and leads to scalp itching and visible nits attached to hair shafts.
ii. Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by the larval stage of Ancylostomabraziliense, commonly acquired through skin penetration.
iii. Leishmaniasis is transmitted by sandflies and typically presents with ulcerative lesions with raised borders.
iv. Pediculosis can be treated effectively with permethrin or oral ivermectin in resistant cases.

Select the correct combination of statements:

Accepted Answer

Option B: ii, iii, and iv. Statements ii, iii, and iv are correct. Statement i is false because scabies is caused by Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis.

Question 50

Consider the following statements about cutaneous viral infections:
i. Molluscum contagiosum is caused by a DNA virus from the Poxviridae family and typically presents with umbilicated papules.
ii. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections can be triggered by factors such as fever, and ultraviolet light.
iii. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infections often manifest as painful vesicles in a dermatomal distribution.
iv. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) reactivation causes shingles, which typically presents as painful, unilateral vesicular eruptions in a dermatomal pattern.

Select the correct combination of statements:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i, ii, and iv. Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Statement iii is false because dermatomal vesicles characterize VZV/shingles, whereas HPV causes hyperkeratotic warts.

Question 51

Which bacterial species is the primary cause of scalded skin syndrome (SSS)?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS / Ritter disease) is caused by exfoliative epidermolytic exotoxins (ETA and ETB) produced by Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 52

Which of the following viral infections typically presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base and is known for reactivation during periods of immunosuppression or stress?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV-1 and HSV-2) establishes lifelong latency in sensory nerve ganglia and reactivates as clustered vesicles on an erythematous base.

Question 53

Which of the following is the most characteristic clinical feature of cutaneous larva migrans?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Intensely pruritic serpiginous tracks on the skin. Ancylostoma hookworm larvae migrating through the epidermis create advancing, intensely itchy, erythematous snake-like serpiginous tracks.

Question 54

Which of the following is a characteristic clinical feature of mycetoma, a chronic subcutaneous fungal or bacterial infection?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Swelling with multiple discharging sinuses containing granules. The diagnostic triad of mycetoma (Madura foot) comprises: painless subcutaneous mass, multiple discharging sinuses, and macroscopic sulfur/colored granules.

Question 55

Which of the following is a primary indication for the use of a saturated solution of potassium iodide (SSKI) in dermatology?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Management of sporotrichosis. Saturated Solution of Potassium Iodide (SSKI) is a classic, highly effective therapy for cutaneous and lymphocutaneous Sporotrichosis (Sporothrix schenckii).

Question 56

Which of the following infections is known to cause a sporotrichoid pattern of spread?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Nocardia. Sporotrichoid nodular lymphangitis is classically caused by Sporothrix schenckii, Nocardia brasiliensis, Mycobacterium marinum, and Leishmania braziliensis.

Question 57

Which of the following best describes scrofuloderma?

Accepted Answer

Option D: A cutaneous manifestation of lymphatic tuberculosis with caseation and discharging sinuses.. Scrofuloderma (tuberculosis colliquativa cutis) occurs by direct contiguous extension of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from underlying lymph nodes or bone to overlying skin, forming cold abscesses and discharging sinuses.

Question 58

Which of the following is a characteristic sequela of filariasis?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Chronic swelling of limbs or genitals. Lymphatic filariasis (Wuchereria bancrofti) causes lymphatic obstruction leading to chronic severe lymphedema and elephantiasis of lower limbs and scrotum.

Question 59

Which of the following best describes cutaneous myiasis?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Infestation of the skin by fly larvae, causing boils or ulcers. Cutaneous myiasis is the parasitic infestation of living human skin and tissues by the dipterous larvae (maggots) of flies (e.g. Dermatobia hominis, Cordylobia).

Question 60

A 3-year-old child presents with fever, irritability, and difficulty eating. On examination, there are multiple painful ulcers in the oral cavity, along with scattered vesicular lesions on the palms, soles, and buttocks. The lesions are non-pruritic and have a grayish base. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease (HFMD). The clinical presentation of oral aphthous-like enanthem and gray oval vesicles on palms, soles, and buttocks in a young child is pathognomonic for Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease (Coxsackievirus A16 / Enterovirus 71).

Question 61

Arrange the following layers of the epidermis in the palmo-plantar skin (thick skin) in the correct order from surface to deepest:
i. Stratum Spinosum
ii. Stratum Lucidum
iii. Stratum Corneum
iv. Stratum Basale
v. Stratum Granulosum

Select the correct order:

Accepted Answer

Option A: iii, ii, v, i, iv. Epidermal strata from superficial to deep: Corneum (iii) -> Lucidum (thick skin only, ii) -> Granulosum (v) -> Spinosum (i) -> Basale/Germinativum (iv).

Question 62

Match the following epidermal cell types (Column A) with their primary functions (Column B):
Column A:
i. Keratinocytes
ii. Langerhans Cells
iii. Melanocytes
iv. Merkel Cells

Column B:
1. Touch sensation
2. Immune surveillance
3. Pigment production
4. Formation of protective barrier

Select the correct match:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1. Keratinocytes -> Physical stratum corneum barrier (4), Langerhans cells -> Antigen presenting immune surveillance (2), Melanocytes -> Melanin UV photoprotection (3), Merkel cells -> Mechanoreceptor light touch (1).

Question 63

Under the National AIDS Control Programme (NACP), color-coded STI/RTI kits are used for the treatment of specific syndromes. Match the kit colors (Column A) with the syndromes they are used to treat (Column B):
Column - A (Kit Colors):
1. Grey
2. Green
3. White
4. Yellow

Column - B (Syndromes):
i. Vaginal discharge (for vaginitis)
ii. Lower Abdomen Pain
iii. Urethral discharge
iv. Genital ulcer (non-herpetic)

Select the correct match:

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv. NACP syndromic kits: Kit 1 (Grey) = Urethral discharge / Cervicitis (iii); Kit 2 (Green) = Vaginal discharge - Trichomoniasis/Bacterial vaginosis (ii/i); Kit 3 (White) = Non-herpetic genital ulcer (iv); Kit 6 (Yellow) = Lower abdominal pain/PID.

Question 64

Arrange the following stages of wound healing in the correct order:
i. Proliferative phase
ii. Remodeling phase
iii. Hemostasis
iv. Inflammatory phase

Select the correct order:

Accepted Answer

Option B: iii, iv, i, ii. Wound healing cascade: Hemostasis (minutes, iii) -> Inflammation (days 1–4, iv) -> Proliferation & granulation (days 4–21, i) -> Remodeling/Maturation (months, ii).

Paramedical Assistant (Dermatology)2025

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JKSSB — Paramedical Assistant (Dermatology) (2025)

What is the most common mode of transmission of leprosy?

What is the main reservoir for Mycobacterium leprae?

What is a characteristic histopathological feature seen in leprosy with good cell mediated immunity to M. leprae?

Which of the following is a hallmark clinical feature of leprosy?

How long is the multi-drug therapy (MDT) course for paucibacillary leprosy?

Which of the following tests can confirm a diagnosis of leprosy?

Which of the following stains is used to identify Mycobacterium leprae?

Leprosy primarily affects which of the following?

What is the shape of Mycobacterium leprae?

Which of the following is a deformity commonly associated with advanced leprosy?

In which subtype of leprosy is saddle nose deformity commonly seen?

Which of the following is a common complication in a patient experiencing Type 1 lepra reaction?

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Mycobacterium leprae?

Which type of leprosy is characterized by multiple symmetric skin lesions and a high bacterial load?

Which of the following drugs is a key component of multi-drug therapy (MDT) for lepromatous leprosy?

Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) are cutaneous lesions seen in which of the following?

Which of the following is emphasized during counselling of a patient newly diagnosed with leprosy?

What is the first-line treatment for severe erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL)?

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in Type 1 lepra reaction?

Which of the following is NOT an animal model used in leprosy research?

Which of the following statements about Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) are correct?i. ENL is seen in Type 1 lepra reaction.ii. ENL is associated with immune complex deposition.iii. Thalidomide is effective for managing severe cases of ENL.Select the correct answer using the code below:

Which of the following statements about histoid leprosy are correct?i. It is a variant of lepromatous leprosy.ii. Histoid lesions are characterized by raised, shiny nodules.iii. It is associated with resistance to dapsone.Select the correct answer:

Match the following MDT blister packs with their respective colors:Column A:i. MB-MDT (Adult)ii. PB-MDT (Adult)iii. MB-MDT (Pediatric; 10-14 years)iv. PB-MDT (Pediatric; 10-14 years)Column B:1. Green2. Red3. Yellow4. BlueSelect the correct answer:

Match the following leprosy drugs with their mechanisms of action:Column A:i. Rifampicinii. Dapsoneiii. ClofazimineColumn B:1. Inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis2. Generates reactive oxygen species and disrupts bacterial membranes3. Inhibits bacterial RNA polymeraseSelect the correct answer:

Match the following nerves commonly affected in leprosy with their clinical manifestations:Column A:i. Common peroneal nerveii. Ulnar nerveiii. Median nerveiv. Radial nerveColumn B:1. Wrist drop2. Foot drop3. Loss of thumb opposition4. Partial claw handSelect the correct answer:

Arrange the following Ridley-Jopling subtypes of leprosy in descending order of cell-mediated immunity:i. Borderline tuberculoid (BT)ii. Lepromatous leprosy (LL)iii. Tuberculoid leprosy (TT)iv. Borderline lepromatous (BL)v. Mid-borderline (BB)Select the correct order:

Arrange the following types of leprosy lesions in descending order of cell-mediated immunity:i. Saucer right-way-up lesionii. Inverted saucer lesioniii. Bizarre lesionsiv. Symmetric macular lesions with indefinite edgesSelect the correct order:

Match the bacterial disease with its primary or most common causative agent:Diseases:i. Erysipelasii. Impetigoiii. Lumpy jawiv. Pitted KeratolysisCausative Agents:1. Staphylococcus aureus2. Streptococcus pyogenes3. Corynebacterium species4. ActinomycesisraeliiSelect the correct match:

Arrange the following viral diseases in the order of their typical incubation period (shortest to longest):i. Varicellaii. Measlesiii. Dengue Feveriv. Infectious MononucleosisSelect the correct order:

Arrange the following bacterial infections in the order of increasing depth of tissue involvement (from superficial to deepest):i. Necrotizing fasciitisii. Erysipelasiii. Gas gangreneiv. CellulitisSelect the correct order:

Which bacterial species is the primary cause of scalded skin syndrome (SSS)?

Which of the following viral infections typically presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base and is known for reactivation during periods of immunosuppression or stress?

Which of the following is the most characteristic clinical feature of cutaneous larva migrans?

Which of the following is a characteristic clinical feature of mycetoma, a chronic subcutaneous fungal or bacterial infection?

Which of the following is a primary indication for the use of a saturated solution of potassium iodide (SSKI) in dermatology?

Which of the following infections is known to cause a sporotrichoid pattern of spread?

Which of the following best describes scrofuloderma?

Which of the following is a characteristic sequela of filariasis?

Which of the following best describes cutaneous myiasis?

Arrange the following layers of the epidermis in the palmo-plantar skin (thick skin) in the correct order from surface to deepest:i. Stratum Spinosumii. Stratum Lucidumiii. Stratum Corneumiv. Stratum Basalev. Stratum GranulosumSelect the correct order:

Match the following epidermal cell types (Column A) with their primary functions (Column B):Column A:i. Keratinocytesii. Langerhans Cellsiii. Melanocytesiv. Merkel CellsColumn B:1. Touch sensation2. Immune surveillance3. Pigment production4. Formation of protective barrierSelect the correct match:

Arrange the following stages of wound healing in the correct order:i. Proliferative phaseii. Remodeling phaseiii. Hemostasisiv. Inflammatory phaseSelect the correct order:

Arrange the following phases of the hair growth cycle in the correct order:i. Exogen phaseii. Telogen phaseiii. Anagen phaseiv. Catagen phaseSelect the correct order:

Which of the following is an autoimmune bullous disorder?

On dermoscopy, the "Jet with contrail" sign is considered pathognomonic of which of the following conditions?

On dermoscopy, arborizing vessels are a characteristic feature of which condition?

The 'ABCD checklist' is used to clinically identify which of the following conditions?

The appearance of new lesions of a skin disease at sites of injury is called:

The 'Auspitz sign' refers to:

Which of the following diseases has the highest mortality without treatment?

Which of the following is true about Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis?

Holocrine secretion involves the release of contents of glands by disintegration of entire cells. Which of the following skin appendages extrudes its content by holocrine secretion?

Which nerve supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the face?

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in the pathogenesis of allergic contact dermatitis?

A patient received the histopathological examination report for his biopsy. The pathologist observed 'parakeratosis' in the biopsy specimen. Parakeratosis refers to:

Which layer of the epidermis is the thickest in areas of thin skin?

Arrange the following steps of skin biopsy processing in the correct order:i. Embedding in paraffin waxii. Staining of the tissue with histological dyesiii. Sectioning of the tissueiv. Fixation of the tissueSelect the correct order:

Which device is commonly used to obtain thin sections of biopsy tissue for histopathological examination?

Arrange the following steps in the correct order for Gram staining:i. Addition of iodine as a mordantii. Decolorization with alcoholiii. Application of crystal violetiv. Staining with safraninSelect the correct order:

Consider the following pairs:Bedside Test:i. Tzanck smearii. KOH preparationiii. Grattage testiv. DiascopyUse:1. Fungal infections2. Blanchability of lesions3. Herpes virus infections4. Psoriasis diagnosisWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:Component:i. Peptoneii. Agariii. Saltiv. Indicator dyeRole in Culture Media:1. Solidifying agent2. pH indicator3. Maintaining osmotic balance4. Nutrient sourceWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:Stain/staining method:i. Gram stainii. Ziehl-Neelsen stainingiii. India ink stainiv. Giemsa stainMicroorganism Identified:1. Cryptococcus neoformans2. Streptococcus3. Malaria parasites4. Mycobacterium speciesWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:Culture Media:i. Sabouraud's agarii. MacConkey agariii. Löwenstein-Jensen mediumiv. Blood agarPrimary Use:1. Fungal infections2. Growth of most bacteria3. Enteric bacteria4. Mycobacterium tuberculosisWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

What is the primary fixative used in histopathology to preserve tissue morphology for microscopic examination?

Under UV light, coral red fluorescence is characteristic of an infection caused by which organism?

Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed using Wood's lamp examination?

Comedones are special primary lesions seen in which condition?

What is the preferred medium for culturing Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

What does ELISA stand for?

Which technique is commonly used to detect cell surface antigenic markers on blood cells?

Which device used in dermatological diagnosis emits ultraviolet rays to irradiate tissues, enabling diagnosis based on the presence and color of fluorescence?

What is the main purpose of tissue embedding in paraffin wax during histopathological processing?

Which fixative is commonly used for electron microscopy to preserve ultrastructural details?

Which diagnostic procedure involves taking a sample of the epidermis and dermis by tangential slicing using a razor blade?

Which of the following is a key clinical feature of cellulitis?

A patient presents with widespread skin detachment involving more than 30% of the body surface area, accompanied by mucosal involvement and a positive Nikolsky sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Which of the following pairs includes the most common bacteria causing skin and soft tissue infections?

Which of the following statements about Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) are correct?
i. ENL is seen in Type 1 lepra reaction.
ii. ENL is associated with immune complex deposition.
iii. Thalidomide is effective for managing severe cases of ENL.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Which of the following statements about histoid leprosy are correct?
i. It is a variant of lepromatous leprosy.
ii. Histoid lesions are characterized by raised, shiny nodules.
iii. It is associated with resistance to dapsone.

Select the correct answer:

Match the following MDT blister packs with their respective colors:
Column A:
i. MB-MDT (Adult)
ii. PB-MDT (Adult)
iii. MB-MDT (Pediatric; 10-14 years)
iv. PB-MDT (Pediatric; 10-14 years)

Column B:
1. Green
2. Red
3. Yellow
4. Blue

Select the correct answer:

Match the following nerves commonly affected in leprosy with their clinical manifestations:
Column A:
i. Common peroneal nerve
ii. Ulnar nerve
iii. Median nerve
iv. Radial nerve

Column B:
1. Wrist drop
2. Foot drop
3. Loss of thumb opposition
4. Partial claw hand

Select the correct answer:

Arrange the following Ridley-Jopling subtypes of leprosy in descending order of cell-mediated immunity:
i. Borderline tuberculoid (BT)
ii. Lepromatous leprosy (LL)
iii. Tuberculoid leprosy (TT)
iv. Borderline lepromatous (BL)
v. Mid-borderline (BB)

Select the correct order:

Arrange the following types of leprosy lesions in descending order of cell-mediated immunity:
i. Saucer right-way-up lesion
ii. Inverted saucer lesion
iii. Bizarre lesions
iv. Symmetric macular lesions with indefinite edges

Select the correct order:

Match the bacterial disease with its primary or most common causative agent:
Diseases:
i. Erysipelas
ii. Impetigo
iii. Lumpy jaw
iv. Pitted Keratolysis

Causative Agents:
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Streptococcus pyogenes
3. Corynebacterium species
4. Actinomycesisraelii

Select the correct match:

Arrange the following viral diseases in the order of their typical incubation period (shortest to longest):
i. Varicella
ii. Measles
iii. Dengue Fever
iv. Infectious Mononucleosis

Select the correct order:

Arrange the following bacterial infections in the order of increasing depth of tissue involvement (from superficial to deepest):
i. Necrotizing fasciitis
ii. Erysipelas
iii. Gas gangrene
iv. Cellulitis

Select the correct order:

Arrange the following layers of the epidermis in the palmo-plantar skin (thick skin) in the correct order from surface to deepest:
i. Stratum Spinosum
ii. Stratum Lucidum
iii. Stratum Corneum
iv. Stratum Basale
v. Stratum Granulosum

Select the correct order:

Arrange the following stages of wound healing in the correct order:
i. Proliferative phase
ii. Remodeling phase
iii. Hemostasis
iv. Inflammatory phase

Select the correct order:

Arrange the following phases of the hair growth cycle in the correct order:
i. Exogen phase
ii. Telogen phase
iii. Anagen phase
iv. Catagen phase

Select the correct order:

Arrange the following steps of skin biopsy processing in the correct order:
i. Embedding in paraffin wax
ii. Staining of the tissue with histological dyes
iii. Sectioning of the tissue
iv. Fixation of the tissue

Select the correct order:

Arrange the following steps in the correct order for Gram staining:
i. Addition of iodine as a mordant
ii. Decolorization with alcohol
iii. Application of crystal violet
iv. Staining with safranin

Select the correct order:

Consider the following pairs:
Bedside Test:
i. Tzanck smear
ii. KOH preparation
iii. Grattage test
iv. Diascopy

Use:
1. Fungal infections
2. Blanchability of lesions
3. Herpes virus infections
4. Psoriasis diagnosis

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:
Component:
i. Peptone
ii. Agar
iii. Salt
iv. Indicator dye

Role in Culture Media:
1. Solidifying agent
2. pH indicator
3. Maintaining osmotic balance
4. Nutrient source

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:
Culture Media:
i. Sabouraud's agar
ii. MacConkey agar
iii. Löwenstein-Jensen medium
iv. Blood agar

Primary Use:
1. Fungal infections
2. Growth of most bacteria
3. Enteric bacteria
4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?