Arrange the following non-renewable fossil fuel in the sequence of higher to lower heating values. 1. Coal 2. Hydrogen 3. Petroleum. 4. Natural Gas
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 3, 1, 4)
Heating (calorific) values: Hydrogen (~142 MJ/kg) > Natural Gas (~50-55 MJ/kg) > Petroleum (~42-45 MJ/kg) > Coal (~20-30 MJ/kg). Arranging in sequence from highest to lowest yields: Hydrogen (2), Petroleum/Gas (3), Coal (1), etc.
Q2
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Observance Days
Consider the following statements: a) Earth Day is celebrated on March-22. b) Ammonia is the form of carbonaceous impurity. c) Potable water is a mineral water. d) World Water Day is celebrated on March-22. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ONLY-d)
World Water Day is observed globally on March 22 every year (Statement d is correct). Note: Earth Day is celebrated on April 22, Ammonia (NH3) is a nitrogenous (not carbonaceous) impurity, and potable water is safe drinking water conforming to health standards.
Q3
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEutrophication & Water Nutrients
Consider the following statements: a) Eutrophication causes the water pollution and death of aquatic lives. b) Phosphorous and Nitrogen causes the eutrophication. c) Smog causes the eutrophication. d) Water Hyacinth is the source of water pollution. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a and b)
Statements (a) and (b) are correct: Eutrophication is the dense algal bloom caused by excessive runoff of nutrients (Phosphorus and Nitrogen) into water bodies, leading to dissolved oxygen depletion and massive fish kills.
Q4
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyBiotic vs Abiotic Components
Which among the following is abiotic?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Air)
Air is an abiotic (non-living physical/chemical) component of the environment. Bacteria, Fungi, and Plants are living biotic components.
Q5
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Quality Parameters & Chemical Formulas
Consider the following pairs: a. NGT — 1. Ferroin indicator b. Blue baby disease — 2. Nitric acid c. CO2 — 3. Excessive Nitrates d. HNO3 — 4. Peroxyacetyl nitrate Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b-3, d-2)
Blue baby syndrome (methemoglobinemia) is caused by Excessive Nitrates in drinking water (b-3), and HNO3 is the chemical formula for Nitric acid (d-2).
Q6
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringNitrogen Forms & Sewage Freshness
Which form of nitrogen in sewage indicates that the decomposition of nitrogenous organic matter impurity has just started in the wastewater?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ammonia)
In sanitary engineering, Free Ammonia (ammoniacal nitrogen) indicates recent pollution and the initial onset of organic decomposition. Albuminoidal nitrogen represents undecomposed organic nitrogen, Nitrites (NO2−) indicate ongoing active decomposition, and Nitrates (NO3−) indicate fully stabilized past pollution.
Q7
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringBOD Calculations
A sewage of 3% diluted sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 deg.C and D.O. depletion found to be 3 mg/lit. Estimate BOD of sewage after 5 days.
Which bacteria live on dead, decaying organic matters and dead tissues hence beneficial to mankind?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Saprophytic Bacteria)
Saprophytic bacteria are heterotrophic decomposers that feed on dead, decaying organic matter and waste tissues, breaking them down into simpler inorganic minerals and acting as nature's essential recyclers.
Q9
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAttached vs Suspended Growth Processes
Which among the following is attached growth process?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rotating Biological Contactors)
Rotating Biological Contactors (RBCs) and Trickling Filters are Attached Growth biological wastewater treatment processes where microbial biomass grows as a fixed biofilm on supporting media. Activated Sludge, Aerated Lagoons, and Oxidation Ponds are Suspended Growth processes.
Q10
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitypH Scale & Chlorination Chemistry
Consider the following statements: a) 7.0 pH value has most efficient disinfection by chlorination. b) 7.0 pH is low alkaline. c) 7.0 pH is high acidic. d) 14 pH is high alkaline. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a and d)
Statements (a) and (d) are correct: Around neutral pH (~7.0–7.5), chlorine exists predominantly as hypochlorous acid (HOCl), providing rapid and potent germicidal disinfection without causing excessive eye/skin irritation. On the standard pH scale (0 to 14), a pH of 14 represents maximum alkalinity.
Q11
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringActivated Sludge Process
Which of the following type of wastewater treatment process is used for treating wastewater or industrial wastewater using aeration and biological flocs?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Activated sludge process)
The Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is the primary suspended-growth aerobic biological treatment system where wastewater is mixed with a suspension of active microorganisms (biological flocs) in an aeration tank supplied with continuous oxygen.
Q12
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityDisinfection Chemistry: HOCl
Which among the following is responsible for disinfection of germs and bacteria?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (HOCl)
Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) is the active germicidal chemical form of free residual chlorine that rapidly penetrates microbial cell walls and destroys cellular enzymes.
Q13
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Quality Parameters: Turbidity
Which among the following causes turbidity in water?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Suspended Solids)
Turbidity (cloudiness or haziness in water) is caused by individual non-settling suspended solids, fine clay, silt, colloidal matter, and micro-particles that scatter and absorb light rays.
Q14
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityPhysical vs Chemical Water Parameters
Which among the following is NOT a physical characteristic?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (pH)
pH is a Chemical characteristic of water measuring hydrogen ion activity (−log10[H+]). Color, Odour, Temperature, and Turbidity are Physical characteristics.
Q15
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityThreshold Odour Number (TON) Standards
What is the acceptable range for threshold odour number?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-3 threshold odour number)
Under Indian Standard Drinking Water Specifications (IS 10500), the acceptable limit for Threshold Odour Number (TON) is 1, and the permissible limit in the absence of an alternate source is up to 3 TON.
Q16
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitypH and pOH Calculations
The concentration of [OH−] ion in a water sample is measured as 17 mg/L at 25 degrees Celsius. What is the pH of water sample?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (11)
Molecular weight of [OH−]=17 g/mol=17,000 mg/mol. Molarity of [OH−]=17,000 mg/mol17 mg/L=10−3 mol/L. Therefore, pOH=−log10[OH−]=−log10(10−3)=3. Since pH+pOH=14, pH=14−3=11.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Environmental Impact Assessment)
EIA stands for Environmental Impact Assessment, a formal planning and decision-making process used to predict and evaluate the environmental consequences of a proposed development project.
Q18
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Filtration & Treatment Units
Consider the following pairs: a. Gravity filter — 1. Inorganic material b. Grit — 2. Slow sand filter c. Carbohydrate — 3. Pressure filter d. Viscosity — 4. KVA Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-2, b-1)
A Slow sand filter is a classic Gravity Filter operating under atmospheric hydrostatic head (a-2), and Grit is composed of inorganic mineral materials like sand and gravel (b-1).
Q19
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceISO 14000 Environmental Management Standards
Which of the ISO 14000 series of standards focuses on evaluation of environmental performance?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (14031)
ISO 14031 provides international standard guidelines on Environmental Performance Evaluation (EPE) within an organization's Environmental Management System.
Q20
🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetyFactories Act 1948
When was the Factories act enacted in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1948)
The Factories Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in 1948 (Act No. 63 of 1948) to regulate health, safety, welfare, working hours, and occupational conditions of industrial workers.
Q21
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Regulatory Framework in India
Which of the following is NOT the key environmental regulatory authority in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Department of Environment (DOE))
The primary statutory environmental regulatory authorities in India are MoEFCC, CPCB, and SPCBs. The historical 'Department of Environment' was merged into the full-fledged Ministry (MoEFCC) in 1985.
Q22
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePublic Liability Insurance Act 1991
Which victim of an accident is liable for Public Liability Insurance act-1991?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Handling hazardous substances)
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 was enacted to provide immediate relief to persons affected by accidents occurring while handling hazardous substances on a no-fault liability basis.
Which of the following is NOT the key international conferences on environment to the development of international environmental law?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (World Environment Conference (WEC)1988)
The landmark historical UN environmental summits shaping international environmental law are: Stockholm 1972, Rio Earth Summit 1992, and Johannesburg WSSD 2002. There was no landmark international treaty summit named 'WEC 1988'.
Q24
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Environment Policy (NEP 2006)
Which is the most recent pronouncement of the government's commitment to improve environmental conditions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (National Environmental Policy)
The National Environment Policy (NEP 2006) represents the comprehensive overarching national policy framework approved by the Government of India for environmental conservation, pollution control, and sustainable development.
Q25
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Terms & Organizations
Consider the following pairs: a. Unit of (BOD/COD) — 1. National Green Tribunal b. NGT — 2. Unitless c. PAN — 3. m3/s d. Conductivity — 4. National Geographic Tracking Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-2, b-1)
NGT stands for National Green Tribunal (b-1), and in standardized matching options, BOD/COD is expressed in concentration units (mg/L) or ratios.
Q26
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceChronology of Indian Environmental Acts
Arrange the following environmental legislations in India, in chronological order with respect to their passing and enactment. 1. The air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act 2. Forest conservation Act 3. Wildlife protection Act 4. The water (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3, 4, 2, 1)
Chronological enactment order of Indian environmental acts: 3. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 → 4. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 → 2. Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 → 1. Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Correct sequence: 3, 4, 2, 1.
Q27
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Movements in India
Arrange the following environmental movements in chronological order. 1. Narmada Bachao Andolan 2. Silent Valley movement 3. Chipko movement 4. Appiko movement
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 2, 4, 1)
Chronological order of Indian environmental grassroots movements: 3. Chipko Movement (1973 in Uttarakhand) → 2. Silent Valley Movement (1978 in Kerala) → 4. Appiko Movement (1983 in Karnataka) → 1. Narmada Bachao Andolan (1985). Correct sequence: 3, 2, 4, 1.
Q28
🛡️ Disaster ManagementMajor Global Environmental Disasters
Arrange the following environmental disasters in chronological order. 1. Niger-Delta Oil Pollution 2. India - Bhopal Cyanide Gas Leak 3. Italy - Seveso Dioxin Cloud 4. Romania - Cyanide Spill
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 2, 4, 1)
Chronological sequence: 3. Seveso Dioxin Disaster, Italy (July 1976) → 2. Bhopal Gas Leak, India (December 1984) → 4. Baia Mare Cyanide Spill, Romania (January 2000) → 1. Niger Delta ongoing spills.
Q29
🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetySafety Signs & Shapes
What is the shape of warning sign?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Triangular)
Under international standard safety signage codes (IS 9457 / ISO 7010), Warning (Caution) signs have an equilateral Triangular shape with a yellow background, black border, and black hazard symbol.
Q30
🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetyActive vs Passive Fire Protection
What is Fire extinguisher?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Active Fire protection system)
A fire extinguisher is an Active Fire Protection system because it requires active manual operation or mechanical triggering to suppress and extinguish a fire. (Fire-rated walls and fire doors are passive systems).
Q31
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityHeavy Metal Standards: Lead
What is acceptable limit of Lead in drinking water?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($0.01\text{ mg/L}$)
According to Indian Standard Drinking Water Specification (IS 10500:2012) and WHO guidelines, the acceptable limit for Lead (Pb) in drinking water is 0.01 mg/L (10 ppb).
Q32
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Chemistry & Odors
Consider the following statements: a) The smell of hydrogen sulphide is like a rotten egg in wastewater. b) Presence of algae in water increases alkalinity of water. c) Alkali salts are used to balance pH of acidic water. d) Hydrogen sulphide is odourless gas. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a, b and c)
Statements (a), (b), and (c) are correct: Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) produces a characteristic rotten egg odor, algal photosynthesis removes dissolved CO2 which shifts bicarbonate equilibria and increases water pH/alkalinity, and alkaline salts (like lime or soda ash) neutralize acidic water.
Q33
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyAir Quality Index (AQI) Color Codes
Which colour of AQI indicates good air condition?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Green)
In the National Air Quality Index (AQI) color-coding system, Green corresponds to 'Good' air quality (AQI score 0–50) with minimal health impact.
Q34
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityDisinfection By-Products (DBPs)
When chlorine reacts with organic matters what does it form?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DBP)
When free chlorine reacts with natural organic matter (NOM) like humic and fulvic acids in raw water, it forms Disinfection By-Products (DBPs) such as trihalomethanes (THMs) and haloacetic acids (HAAs).
Q35
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityAcidity, Neutrality & pH Scale
Consider the following pairs: a. H+=OH− — 1. pH=04 b. Total solids experiment — 2. 05 Hrs c. Acidic nature — 3. 30min d. Potable water — 4. pH=07 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-4, c-1)
When [H+]=[OH−], the solution is neutral with pH=7 (a-4), and an Acidic nature corresponds to a low pH<7 such as pH=4 (c-1).
Q36
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityTotal Suspended Solids (TSS) Testing
Where Whatman's filter paper is used?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To determine total suspended solids)
Whatman glass microfiber filter paper (such as Grade 934-AH or Whatman 40/42) is used in laboratory gravimetric analysis to filter and determine Total Suspended Solids (TSS) in water samples.
Consider the following statements: a) Bacilli bacteria has a rod-shaped structure. b) Cocci bacteria has a rod-shaped structure. c) Spirilla bacteria has a rod-shaped structure. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ONLY-a)
Statement (a) is correct: Bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci are spherical/round bacteria, and Spirilla are spiral/helical bacteria.
Q38
🛡️ Disaster ManagementDisaster Management Cycle
Arrange the following phases of Disaster Management in the correct sequence. 1. Mitigation 2. Response 3. Recovery 4. Preparedness
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 4, 2, 3)
The standard circular phases of the disaster management continuum are: 1. Mitigation (risk reduction) → 4. Preparedness (readiness before disaster) → 2. Response (immediate emergency relief) → 3. Recovery (rehabilitation and reconstruction). Sequence: 1, 4, 2, 3.
What is the removal efficiency of high-rate trickling filter?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (85%)
A high-rate trickling filter utilizing effluent recirculation typically achieves a BOD removal efficiency of 80% to 85% (and up to 90% in two-stage systems).
Plankton refers to the diverse collection of microscopic drifting organisms inhabiting water bodies, categorized into phytoplankton (microscopic photosynthetic plants/algae) and zooplankton (microscopic animals).
Q41
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRamsar Convention International Partners
Which of the following are Partners of Ramsar Convention? 1. International Union for conservation of Nature 2. Birdlife International 3. International Water Management Institute 4. Wildfowl and Wetlands Trust Select the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands has six International Organization Partners (IOPs): IUCN, BirdLife International, International Water Management Institute (IWMI), Wetlands International, Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT), and WWF. All four listed are official partners.
Q42
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCPCB Constitution & Water Act
In constitution of central board for prevention and control of water pollution how many persons are nominated by government, which represents the companies or corporation owned, controlled or managed by central government.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
Under Section 3(2)(c) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Central Government nominates not more than three persons to represent corporations/companies owned, controlled, or managed by the Central Government.
EIA of mining activities involve impact assessment on 1. Geological Environment 2. Biological Environment 3. Aerial Environment Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Comprehensive EIA for mining projects evaluates all environmental spheres: Geological (topography, slope stability, erosion, aquifers), Biological (forest cover, flora, fauna, habitat loss), and Aerial (dust emissions, fugitive PM, blasting noise, air pollution).
Q44
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityEDTA Titration & Water Hardness
For determining the hardness in water sample, which among the following is used as a titrant:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (EDTA)
Disodium EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is the standard chelating titrant used with Eriochrome Black T (EBT) indicator at pH 10 to determine total hardness in water.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Neutrally Stable atmosphere)
A coning plume profile occurs under neutral atmospheric stability (Environmental Lapse Rate equal to Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate) with high cloud cover and moderate-to-strong horizontal winds (>32 km/h).
Q46
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceSolid Waste Management Rules 2016
As per Solid Waste Management rule 2016 which ministry decides tariff or charges for the power generated from the waste to energy plant based on solid waste.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Power)
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, the Ministry of Power (and State Electricity Regulatory Commissions) is responsible for determining the tariff, power purchase agreements, and mandatory power procurement from Waste-to-Energy (WtE) plants.
Q47
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNational Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
What is the principal aim of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)? 1. NCAP was launched in January, 2019 with an aim to improve air quality in 131 non-attainment cities. 2. To attain a 20-30% reduction solely in PM2.5 levels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)
Statement 1 is correct: NCAP was launched in January 2019 covering non-attainment cities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the target was a 20–30% reduction in both PM10 and PM2.5 concentrations (not solely PM2.5).
Q48
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyUNEP Global Environment Outlook
The Global Environment Outlook report is published by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (UNEP)
The flagship Global Environment Outlook (GEO) periodic assessment report is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Criteria for plantation at landfill sites should be: 1. Locally adopted non edible perineal plants that are resistant to drought and extreme temperature. 2. The selection of plants should be of such variety that their root does not penetrate more than 30 cms. This condition shall apply till landfill is stabilized. 3. Selected plants shall have ability to thrive on low nutrients soil with minimum nutrient addition. 4. Plantation to be made in sufficient density to minimize soil erosion.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
All four criteria (1, 2, 3, and 4) are standard technical guidelines under municipal solid waste landfill capping rules to prevent root puncture of the barrier membrane while stabilizing topsoil against erosion.
Q50
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityHeavy Metal Toxicity: Chromium Species
Which state of chromium is more toxic?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($\text{Cr}^{6+}$)
Hexavalent chromium (Cr6+) is highly mobile, strong oxidizing, highly toxic, mutagenic, and a known human carcinogen compared to trivalent chromium (Cr3+), which is an essential nutrient with low toxicity.
Q51
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityIdeal Disinfectant Characteristics
Consider the following statements: 1. A good disinfectant must be toxic to microorganisms at concentrations well below the toxic thresholds to humans. 2. It should have fast rate of killing. 3. Should be persistent enough to prevent regrowth of organisms in distribution system. 4. At low concentrations, chlorine kills the microorganisms by oxidizing the cell wall. Choose the correct:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4 only)
All statements (1, 2, 3, and 4) accurately describe the properties of ideal municipal water disinfectants and the physiological mechanism of chlorine disinfection.
Regarding the Ozone Layer, consider the following statements: 1. 90% of ozone occurs naturally in the Stratosphere. 2. Methyl bromide is an Ozone-Depleting Substance (ODS). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements are correct: Approximately 90% of atmospheric ozone resides in the stratosphere (the ozone layer), and Methyl bromide (CH3Br), widely used as an agricultural fumigant, is a potent ozone-depleting substance controlled under the Montreal Protocol.
Q53
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyGRIHA & Green Buildings
GRIHA is associated with which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Green buildings)
GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) is the National Rating System of India for green and energy-efficient sustainable buildings, developed jointly by TERI and MNRE.
Q54
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringIndustrial Effluent Standards: Sugar Industry
Permissible limit of Total Suspended Solids (mg/L) for disposal in surface waters from Sugar industry is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (100)
Under CPCB and MoEFCC Environment (Protection) Rules for effluent discharge into inland surface water, the permissible limit for Total Suspended Solids (TSS) from the Sugar industry is 100 mg/L.
Q55
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityAir Quality Monitoring Instruments
Which method is used for the analysis of NO2 in ambient air?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chemiluminescence)
Gas-phase Chemiluminescence (measuring light emitted when nitric oxide reacts with ozone: $NO + O_3 → NO_2^* + O_2 → NO_2 + h u)isthestandardreferencemethodformonitoringNO_2andNO_x$ in ambient air.
Which of the following is not included in National Air Quality Index (NAQI)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Carbon Dioxide)
The 8 pollutants monitored in India's National AQI are PM10,PM2.5,NO2,SO2,CO,O3,NH3, and Pb. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas, NOT one of the criteria NAQI pollutants.
Q57
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyMontreux Record & Ramsar Wetlands
With reference to the Montreux Protocol which of the statement is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is a register of wetland sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur as result of human intervention.)
The Montreux Record (under Ramsar Convention) is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where adverse ecological changes have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or human interference.
Q58
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyKigali Amendment on HFCs
With reference to the Kigali Agreement, consider the following statement: 1. It was introduced as an amendment to the Montreal Protocol 2. It aims for the phase-down of HFCs 3. It came into force in September 2019 Which of the following are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 only)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Kigali Amendment (2016) amended the Montreal Protocol to legally phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Statement 3 is incorrect because it came into force globally on 1 January 2019.
Why does the regeneration of a tropical rainforest take longer when compared to a tropical deciduous forest after removal?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients)
In tropical rainforests, torrential rains continuously leach minerals deep into the subsoil, leaving topsoil naturally nutrient-poor. Most nutrients are stored in the dense standing biomass itself; once cleared, soil fertility is rapidly lost, making regeneration very slow.
Q60
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWildlife Protection Act Protected Areas
Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife protection act, 1972? 1. National parks 2. Wildlife sanctuaries 3. Biosphere reserves Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 only)
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 specifically provides for the statutory declaration and management of Sanctuaries, National Parks, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves. Biosphere Reserves are established under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme.
Q61
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringImhoff Tank Treatment
Imhoff tank is used for:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Settling and sedimentation)
An Imhoff tank is a primary sewage treatment unit designed for gravitational settling/sedimentation of solids in an upper chamber and anaerobic digestion of the settled sludge in a lower chamber.
Q62
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyThermal Stratification in Lakes
The layers formed by thermal stratification in lakes are:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Epilimnion, Thermocline, Hypolimnion)
Thermal stratification in deep freshwater lakes during summer forms three distinct vertical layers: the warm upper layer (Epilimnion), the transition layer with rapid temperature decline (Thermocline or Metalimnion), and the cold, dense bottom layer (Hypolimnion).
Q63
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyCogeneration & Energy Efficiency
Co-generation or CHP refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Production and use of two forms of energy from one fuel)
Cogeneration or Combined Heat and Power (CHP) is the sequential production of two useful forms of energy (typically electricity and thermal heat/steam) from a single primary fuel source.
Q64
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNAAQS Air Quality Sampling Protocol
Annual average for air pollution means total of........ measurements in a year.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (104 (twice weekly))
In National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), an annual average calculation requires a minimum of 104 measurements taken over 24 hours twice a week at uniform intervals throughout the year.
What is the permissible limit of day time industrial noise as recommended by WHO?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (75 dB)
Under India's Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 and WHO industrial guidelines, the permissible ambient noise limit in Industrial areas during daytime (06:00 to 22:00) is 75 dB(A)Leq.
Q67
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyWHO Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs)
WHO guideline values for ambient air concentration of PM2.5 and PM10 in annual average scale, in μg/m3 are respectively:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (05, 15)
Under the updated WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines (2021), the recommended annual mean concentrations are 5μg/m3 for PM2.5 and 15μg/m3 for PM10.
Q68
📜 Environmental Law & Governance42nd Constitutional Amendment & Environment
Which amendment explicitly incorporated Article 48-A and 51-A (g) into the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
The landmark 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Article 48A (Directive Principle directing the State to protect and improve the environment) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty of citizens).
Q69
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal (NGT) Act 2010
When was National Green Tribunal established in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2010)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on 18 October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
Q70
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir (Amendment) Act 1987 & Noise
Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1987)
Noise was formally included in the definition of 'air pollutant' under Section 2(a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act through the Air (Amendment) Act of 1987.
Q71
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewage Sludge Disposal & Heavy Metals
Municipal sewage sludge can be used as a fertilizer but may be unsuitable because of the presence of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Heavy metals)
Municipal sewage sludge (biosolids) contains valuable plant nutrients but can be hazardous for agricultural application due to the presence of non-biodegradable Heavy Metals (Cd,Pb,Cr,Ni,As) and organic micropollutants that bioaccumulate in food crops.
Which of the following is not the component of photochemical smog?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chlorofluorocarbon)
Photochemical smog consists of secondary oxidants like Ozone (O3), Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN), Acrolein, and Formaldehyde formed from NOx and VOCs in sunlight. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are unreactive in the troposphere and are NOT components of smog.
Q73
🔬 Biology & MicrobiologyWaterborne vs Water-Contact Diseases
Which of the following is NOT a waterborne disease?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Schistosomiasis)
Schistosomiasis (bilharzia) is a water-based / water-contact parasitic disease transmitted via skin contact with water containing larval cercariae shedding from aquatic snails, whereas Cholera, Dysentery, and Hepatitis A are classic waterborne diseases transmitted through ingestion of contaminated water.
Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA) is a more advanced tool in environmental management. Reason (R): SEA is applicable at the level of policy, planning and programs. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A))
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) correctly explains (A). Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA) is considered an advanced tool because it evaluates environmental consequences upstream at the strategic Policy, Plan, and Programme (PPP) level before individual project-level EIAs are even initiated.
Q76
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceLandfill Siting Buffer Distances
According to Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, a landfill site should be how many meters away from a river?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (100 m)
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, a sanitary landfill site must be located at a minimum buffer distance of 100 meters away from any river or water body.
Q77
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCategory B2 EIA Exemptions
Which one of the categories of development does not require an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) report?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Category B2 projects)
Under the EIA Notification 2006, Category B2 projects are specifically exempted from preparing a comprehensive EIA report and public hearing, and are appraised directly based on their application form (Form 1/1A).
In nitrogen cycle, elemental nitrogen returned to the atmosphere by the following process:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Denitrification process)
Denitrification is the anaerobic biological process carried out by bacteria (such as Pseudomonas and Paracoccus) that converts nitrates (NO3−) and nitrites (NO2−) back into dinitrogen gas (N2), returning elemental nitrogen to the atmosphere.
Q79
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePlastic Waste EPR Categories
Match the following with respect to plastic packaging: List 1: 1. Category I, 2. Category II, 3. Category III, 4. Category IV List 2: i. Multilayered plastic packaging, ii. Carry bags of compostable plastic, iii. Rigid plastic packaging, iv. Flexible plastic packaging single or multilayer Select the correct option:
Under Plastic Waste Management (Extended Producer Responsibility) Rules: Category I = Rigid plastic packaging (iii), Category II = Flexible plastic packaging (iv), Category III = Multi-layered plastic packaging (i), Category IV = Plastic sheet/carry bags of compostable plastic (ii). Option B matches perfectly.
Q80
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityPhosphorus Analysis Methods
Which method is commonly employed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for estimating phosphorus levels in water samples?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Spectrophotometric analysis using the ascorbic acid method)
The standard US EPA and Standard Methods procedure for determining dissolved and total phosphorus is the automated or manual Ascorbic Acid Colorimetric Method, where orthophosphate reacts with ammonium molybdate and antimony potassium tartrate to form a phosphomolybdenum blue complex measured spectrophotometrically at 880 nm.
The word 'smog' was originally coined by Dr. H.A. Des Voeux as a portmanteau of Smoke and Fog, describing heavy atmospheric pollution formed by particulate smoke combining with damp fog.
Q82
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyCauses of Ozone Depletion
The "Ozone Hole" is primarily caused by the release of which type of chemicals into the atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs))
Stratospheric ozone depletion is primarily caused by synthetic Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and carbon tetrachloride, which release free chlorine and bromine radicals under intense UV radiation that catalytically break down ozone molecules (O3).
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Variety of living organisms in a specific region)
Biodiversity (biological diversity) refers to the totality of variety, richness, and variability among all living organisms from all ecological niches, including diversity within species (genetic), between species (species), and of ecosystems.
Acid rain is caused by the presence of which pollutants in the atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides)
Acid precipitation (pH<5.6) is primarily caused by the atmospheric emission of Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), which react with water vapor, oxygen, and oxidants to form sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3).
Q85
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyPollution & Human Health Hazards
An example of a health hazard associated with environmental pollution is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Respiratory diseases caused by air pollution)
Exposure to particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, ozone, and toxic fumes in ambient air triggers severe chronic respiratory illnesses such as asthma, bronchitis, COPD, and lung cancer.
Q86
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyHealth Effects of Ozone Depletion
Which of the following diseases is majorly caused due to ozone depletion?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Skin cancer)
Ozone layer thinning allows harmful ultraviolet-B (UV-B) radiation to penetrate to Earth's surface, causing cellular DNA damage that significantly increases the incidence of skin cancers (melanoma and carcinomas) and cataracts.
The estimated design period for sewage treatment facility typically ranges from
💡Correct Answer: Option C (20-30 years)
Under standard CPHEEO civil and environmental engineering guidelines, sewage treatment facilities and secondary treatment structures are designed for a 20 to 30 year operational design horizon based on projected population growth.
Q88
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityTypes of BOD: CBOD & NBOD
How many types of biological oxygen demand (BOD) is present in water?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2)
There are 2 primary types of BOD exerted during wastewater stabilization: (1) Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (CBOD) due to the oxidation of organic carbon compounds, and (2) Nitrogenous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (NBOD) due to the nitrification of ammonia.
Q89
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringFluid Hydraulics & Flowrate Formula
If the area of reactor is 0.25 m2 through which water is flowing at a velocity of 10 m/s, what is the flowrate?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($2.5\text{ m}^3/\text{s}$)
Discharge/Flowrate Q=Cross-sectional Area (A)×Flow Velocity (V)=0.25 m2×10 m/s=2.5 m3/s.
Which types of pumps are widely used in wastewater plant for flow and pressure?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Centrifugal pumps)
Centrifugal pumps (specifically non-clog open and semi-open impeller types) are the workhorse pumps most widely used in wastewater treatment plants due to their high volumetric flow capacities, smooth continuous discharge, and ability to handle suspended solids without jamming.
Q91
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityCOD Definition & Units
The unit of COD present in wastewater is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{mg/L}$)
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is defined as the mass of equivalent oxygen required to chemically oxidize all organic compounds per unit volume of water, expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L or ppm).
Q92
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityBiochemical Oxygen Demand Concept
The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of a wastewater is a measure of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Amount of oxygen required by bacteria to decompose the organic matter in the wastewater)
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the empirical measure of the quantity of dissolved oxygen utilized by aerobic microorganisms during the biochemical oxidation and decomposition of biodegradable organic matter in water.
The nitrification process is controlled by temperature and
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Solids Retention time (SRT))
Nitrifying autotrophic bacteria (Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter) have slow growth rates; therefore, maintaining an adequate Solids Retention Time (SRT or Sludge Age) alongside appropriate temperature is the critical design control to prevent nitrifiers from being washed out.
A town with a population of 60,000 has a daily sewage discharge of 1000 m3. What is the per capita sewage discharge for the town?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($0.016\text{ m}^3/\text{day}$)
Per capita daily sewage discharge =PopulationTotal Daily Discharge=60,0001000 m3/day=601≈0.0166 m3/person/day. Option A (0.016 m3/day) is correct.
Q95
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringCement Industry Effluent Characteristics
Which waste characteristic is common in the effluent from the cement industry?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Low pH)
Cement manufacturing process washwaters contain suspended cement particulate slurry with high pH / low acidity (alkaline nature, high dissolved calcium hydroxide), distinct from high organic BOD effluents.
A sequencing batch reactor (SBR) is operated in a fill-and-draw cycle. The cycle time is 8 hours. The aeration time is 4 hours. What is the fraction of the cycle time that the SBR is aerated?
The activated sludge process is a biological wastewater treatment method that primarily removes:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Suspended solids and organic matter)
The Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is fundamentally designed as a secondary biological treatment method to remove soluble and colloidal biodegradable organic matter (BOD) and settleable suspended solids.
Q99
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringComposition of Sewage
What percentage of solids does wastewater usually have?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.1%)
Typical municipal raw wastewater is composed of approximately 99.9% water and only about 0.1% (1000 mg/L) total solids (both dissolved and suspended combined).
Q100
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringUnit Operations vs Unit Processes
Which of the following is NOT a unit operation in wastewater treatment?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Activated sludge process)
In chemical/environmental engineering, 'Unit Operations' refer to physical separation methods (screening, sedimentation, aeration, equalization, filtration). The Activated Sludge Process is a biological 'Unit Process' (involving biochemical conversions), NOT a unit operation.
Q101
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSuspended Growth Biological Systems
Which wastewater treatment process relies on the growth of microorganisms in suspended sludge to treat organic matter?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anaerobic digestion)
Biological treatment systems such as suspended-growth anaerobic digestion and activated sludge rely on suspended microbial biomass flocs to biodegrade organic substrates.
Which industry typically generates wastewater with high levels of organic pollutants and requires specialized treatment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Tannery)
The Tannery industry generates extremely recalcitrant, complex wastewater containing exceptionally high chemical oxygen demand (COD), biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), toxic chromium salts, and sulfides requiring multi-stage chemical and biological treatment.
What type of microorganisms are predominantly active in a UASB (Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket) reactor?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Anaerobic microorganisms)
A UASB (Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket) reactor is a high-rate anaerobic wastewater treatment process that utilizes a dense blanket of granular anaerobic methanogenic and acidogenic bacteria operating in the complete absence of dissolved oxygen.
Q104
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Process Components
Which of the following is not a primary component in an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Preparing and Environmental Statement)
The core stages of the formal EIA process are Scoping, Impact Assessment, Mitigation Measures, Public Consultation, and Environmental Management Planning. Preparing an annual 'Environmental Statement' (Form V under EPA) is a post-construction statutory audit, not a primary pre-project EIA step.
Which impact methodology makes use of a remote sensing approach in an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Overlay technique)
The Map Overlay Technique (developed by Ian McHarg and modernized through GIS and Remote Sensing spatial data layers) overlays thematic transparent maps of environmental factors to evaluate aggregate spatial impacts.
Defining the Roles and Responsibilities comes under which stage of an Environmental Management Plan (EMP)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environmental Management Strategies)
Within the Environmental Management Plan (EMP), the organizational framework and institutional structure detailing administrative roles, responsibilities, and allocation of personnel is established under Environmental Management Strategies.
Q107
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceRio Declaration 1992 & EIA
Which international agreement, signed in 1992, emphasizes the importance of conducting EIAs for projects that may have transboundary environmental effects?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rio Declaration)
Principle 17 of the landmark 1992 Rio Declaration on Environment and Development explicitly mandated Environmental Impact Assessment as a national instrument for proposed activities likely to have significant adverse environmental impacts.
When a cultural site comes under the impact line of a proposed project, the matter is relevant to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Socio-cultural Index)
Impacts on archaeological monuments, religious shrines, historical landmarks, and indigenous cultural heritage are evaluated under the Socio-Cultural Index and Heritage Impact Assessment within the socio-economic dimension of EIA.
Which of the following pollutants is primarily assessed in Air Quality monitoring?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dust)
In routine criteria ambient air quality monitoring, Dust/Particulate Matter (specifically PM10 and PM2.5) is the most widespread and critical primary physical pollutant directly measured.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Strategic Environmental Assessment)
SEA stands for Strategic Environmental Assessment, the formalized, systematic, and comprehensive process of evaluating the environmental effects of a policy, plan, or programme.
Q111
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyGIS Site Suitability in EIA
How does GIS assist in identifying potential impacts during site selection in EIA for industries?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Integrating land use data to locate sensitive habitats and ecosystems.)
GIS assists environmental site selection by integrating multi-layered spatial data (topography, land-use zoning, hydrology, wildlife corridors, and proximity to protected forests and populated settlements) to identify ecologically sensitive constraints.
Q112
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Clearance Validity
According to the EIA Notification 2006, what is the maximum duration for which environmental clearance for a project under Category A is valid?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (10 years)
Under the EIA Notification 2006 (as amended by MoEFCC in 2022), the prior Environmental Clearance (EC) granted for Category A developmental projects is valid for a maximum duration of 10 years (and up to 30/50 years for mining).
Q113
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCoastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Distances
According to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification 2006, what is the minimum distance from the high tide line that should be maintained for building new structures in the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)-I?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (500 meters)
Under Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) regulations, the standard landward regulatory zone extends up to 500 meters from the High Tide Line (HTL), within which CRZ-I (ecologically sensitive inter-tidal areas) strictly prohibits new permanent civil construction.
Q114
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEPA 1986 Penalties & Imprisonment
What is the maximum penalty, in terms of imprisonment, specified in The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, for offenses related to environmental pollution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5 years)
Under Section 15 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the primary maximum imprisonment penalty for contravention of any provision is 5 years (which may extend to 7 years if non-compliance continues beyond one year after conviction).
Q115
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater (Amendment) Act 1988
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, was amended in 1988 to include a new chapter specifically dealing with
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conservation of coastal areas)
The 1988 Amendment to the Water Act strengthened enforcement powers, specifically introducing Section 33A granting the Board power to give binding directions for closure, prohibition, or regulation of industries.
Q116
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir Act: Emission Limits
Under The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, which term refers to the maximum amount of pollutants that a particular source is allowed to emit over a specific period?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Emission limit)
An 'Emission Limit' (or emission standard) specifies the legal maximum permissible rate, mass, or concentration of pollutants that a specific industrial stack or source is legally allowed to discharge.
What is the primary goal of a disaster management plan?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Minimizing the impact of disaster on human life and property)
The primary objective of all disaster management planning is to prevent hazards, build community resilience, and minimize the loss of human life, injury, property damage, and socio-economic disruption.
Q118
🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetyIndustrial Safety Audits
Safety audits in industrial units primarily focus on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ensuring compliance with safety regulations and protocols)
Industrial safety audits systematically verify whether workplace facilities, machinery, and procedures comply with statutory occupational health and safety regulations and internal hazard prevention protocols.
LCA is conducted to analyze systematic impact of product or service in environment. LCA stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Life cycle assessment)
LCA stands for Life Cycle Assessment (standardized under ISO 14040/14044), a cradle-to-grave methodology used to evaluate the environmental impacts of a product or service across all lifecycle stages.
Q120
🛡️ Disaster ManagementNatural vs Man-Made Disasters
Which of the following could be considered as a man-made disaster?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Fire)
Industrial, building, or urban fires (caused by arson, electrical short circuits, chemical explosions, or human negligence) are classified as anthropogenic (man-made or technological) disasters. Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions are natural disasters.
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About JKSSB Field Inspector 2023 Previous Year Paper
This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB Field Inspector examination conducted in 2023 by the Forest, Ecology and Environment Department. Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include Environmental Science & Ecology, Chemistry & Water Quality, Environmental Engineering, Biology & Microbiology, Environmental Law & Governance, Occupational Health & Safety, Disaster Management, Mechanical & Hydraulic Engineering. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.