JKSSB Laboratory Assistant 2025 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

The drug price control order was exercised by central government in:

Accepted Answer

Option C: 1995. The Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 1995 (DPCO 1995) was promulgated by the Central Government under Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.

Question 2

The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, is implemented and enforced by which authority?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO). The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO), headed by the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI), is the national regulatory body enforcing the D&C Act 1940.

Question 3

What does Collective Trademarks indicate?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Connection of a trademark with a proprietor association. Under the Trade Marks Act 1999, a collective mark distinguishes the goods or services of members of an association of persons (not being a partnership) from those of others.

Question 4

The Pharmacy Act, 1948, was enacted to regulate:

Accepted Answer

Option B: The practice of pharmacy. The preamble of the Pharmacy Act, 1948 states its primary objective as regulating the profession and practice of pharmacy in India.

Question 5

Pharmacy council of India is constituted by the central government on every

Accepted Answer

Option C: 5 years. Under Section 3 of the Pharmacy Act 1948, the Central Council (Pharmacy Council of India / PCI) is reconstituted by the Central Government every 5 years.

Question 6

According to the Pharmacy Act, 1948, a State Pharmacy Council is responsible for:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Registering pharmacists in the state. The primary statutory duty of a State Pharmacy Council is the maintenance of the Register of Pharmacists and granting registration to qualified pharmacists in the State.

Question 7

When did the Drug Price Control Order improvised the availability of basic medicines at affordable prices across the country?

Accepted Answer

Option D: May, 2013. The updated Drug Price Control Order (DPCO 2013), covering National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM), was notified on 15th May 2013.

Question 8

The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was enacted in which year?

Accepted Answer

Option C: 1971. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 1971 and came into force on 1 April 1972.

Question 9

Up to how many weeks of gestation is the opinion of one registered medical practitioner sufficient for Medical Termination of Pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Option A: 12 weeks. Under the original MTP Act (and Section 3), termination up to 12 weeks of gestation requires the opinion of one registered medical practitioner (extended to 20 weeks under 2021 rules).

Question 10

The 2021 amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act introduced provisions for:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Allowing unmarried women to seek MTP for contraceptive failure. The MTP Amendment Act 2021 replaced 'married woman or her husband' with 'any woman or her partner', legally allowing unmarried single women access to safe MTP for contraceptive failure.

Question 11

According to Poisons Act, the central govt. is authorised to

Accepted Answer

Option C: Both A & B. Under the Poisons Act 1919, the Central Government is empowered to regulate the importation of poison (Section 2) while general guidelines govern possession and sale.

Question 12

Under the Poison Act, 1919, the rules for Storage, labelling, and Transport of poisons are made by

Accepted Answer

Option B: State Governments. Section 2 of the Poisons Act, 1919 expressly empowers State Governments to make rules regulating the possession for sale, storage, labelling, and transport of poisons.

Question 13

The Drugs and Magic Remedies Act was passed on which date?

Accepted Answer

Option A: $1^{	ext{st}}$ April, 1955. The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 received Presidential assent and came into official force on 1st April, 1955.

Question 14

The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 was enacted to prevent the advertisement of drugs that claim to cure which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Major diseases like cancer, AIDS and diabetes. The Schedule to the DMRA 1954 lists 54 incurable/severe disorders including Cancer, AIDS, Diabetes, Epilepsy, and Blindness for which drug advertisements claiming cures are strictly prohibited.

Question 15

The excise duty under the Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act is levied on

Accepted Answer

Option B: Manufacture and sale of medicinal and toilet preparations. The M&TP (Excise Duties) Act, 1955 levies duties of excise on the manufacture and production of medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol, opium, Indian hemp, or other narcotics.

Question 16

According to Medicinal & Toilet Preparation (Excise Duties) Act penalty for non-compliance with conditions of license and failure to pay duty is

Accepted Answer

Option A: Imprisonment upto 6 months or fine upto Rs.200 or both. Under Section 7 of the M&TP Act 1955, non-compliance with license terms or evasion of duty is punishable with imprisonment extending to 6 months or with fine up to Rs. 2,000 (or Rs. 200 in specific statutory breaches) or both.

Question 17

In which of the following manufacturing of Medicinal and Toilet Preparation take place in presence of excise officer

Accepted Answer

Option C: Bonded laboratory. A Bonded Manufactory / Laboratory is licensed for manufacturing preparations without prior payment of excise duty; alcohol is stored under excise lock and manufacture occurs under the direct supervision of an Excise Officer.

Question 18

Which body was established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 to ensure the welfare of animals in India?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Animal Welfare Board of India. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.

Question 19

Biologicals are tested at which of the following centres?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Kasauli. The Central Drugs Laboratory (CDL) at the Central Research Institute (CRI) in Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh is the statutory national laboratory for testing vaccines, sera, and biological products.

Question 20

Which of the following is the objective of IAEC under 'The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960'?

Accepted Answer

Option B: To approve and monitor animal experimentation to ensure human treatment. Institutional Animal Ethics Committees (IAEC) review, approve, and monitor experimental research protocols on small animals to ensure adherence to CPCSEA humane guidelines and 3Rs (Replacement, Reduction, Refinement).

Question 21

The head office of Committee for the purpose of control and supervision of experiment on animals (CPCSEA)?

Accepted Answer

Option B: New Delhi. The Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experiments on Animals (CPCSEA / CCSEA) has its headquarters in New Delhi under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.

Question 22

Which of the following gives permission for the registration of breeders?

Accepted Answer

Option A: CPCSEA. CPCSEA is the statutory authority that registers and licenses breeders and establishments conducting animal experimentation in India.

Question 23

Which of the following authorities is responsible for registering trademarks in India under the Trademark Registration Act?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Intellectual Property Office of India. The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (Intellectual Property Office of India) administers trademark registration under the Trade Marks Act, 1999.

Question 24

Cure for cancer is an example of the following advertisements

Accepted Answer

Option B: Prohibited. Under Section 3 of the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act 1954, any advertisement claiming to prevent or cure cancer is classified as a Prohibited Advertisement.

Question 25

Which poisonous substances from the following are exempted from certain provisions of the Poison Act?

Accepted Answer

Option B: List B. Under the statutory schedules of the Poisons Rules, specific diluted preparations listed under List B (or designated exempted schedules) are exempted from retail registration provisions.

Question 26

Unequal distribution of color in tablet is known as:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Mottling. Mottling is a tablet defect characterized by an unequal, non-uniform distribution of color on the surface of a colored tablet due to dye migration.

Question 27

In dissolution test, flask is maintained at

Accepted Answer

Option A: $37^\circ	ext{C} \pm 0.5^\circ	ext{C}$. Pharmacopoeial dissolution testing requires the water bath and dissolution vessel medium to be maintained at human physiological body temperature of $37^\circ	ext{C} \pm 0.5^\circ	ext{C}$.

Question 28

The mathematical formula for calculating Hausner ratio is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: $\frac{	ext{Tapped density}}{	ext{Bulk density}}$. Hausner Ratio ($HR$) measures powder flowability and is calculated as: $	ext{Hausner Ratio} = \frac{	ext{Tapped Density} (ho_{	ext{tapped}})}{	ext{Bulk Density} (ho_{	ext{bulk}})}$.

Question 29

According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia, for the dissolution test, what is the typical volume of the dissolution medium used for capsules?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 500 mL. Typical IP dissolution test monographs specify dissolution media volumes of 500 mL or 900/1000 mL (with 500 mL/900 mL standard in vessel apparatus).

Question 30

Which capsule size has the smallest capacity?

Accepted Answer

Option D: 5. Hard gelatin capsule sizes range from 000 (largest, approx 1.37 mL) to 5 (smallest, approx 0.13 mL capacity).

Question 31

The Indian Pharmacopoeia specifies that the uniformity of weight test for capsules should be performed on how many capsules?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 20 capsules. According to Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) and USP, the weight variation / uniformity of weight test is performed on a sample of 20 intact capsules.

Question 32

A high Bloom strength in gelatin used for capsules typically indicates:

Accepted Answer

Option C: The gelatin is stronger and forms a firmer gel. Bloom strength measures the gel strength and rigidity of gelatin. A high Bloom number (e.g. 200–250 Bloom) indicates higher molecular weight, cross-linking, and mechanical gel firmness.

Question 33

Which of the following is correct about Gum Arabic?

Accepted Answer

Option A: It is an anionic polysaccharide. Gum Arabic (Acacia) is a complex branched arabinogalactan containing D-galacturonic and D-glucuronic acid residues, giving it an anionic (negatively charged) character in solution.

Question 34

The force per unit area which is used to apply to bring about the flow is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Shear stress. Shear stress ($	au = F/A$) is the tangential force applied per unit area to induce fluid deformation or flow.

Question 35

Which of the following is an example of water-soluble ointment bases?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Macrogols. Macrogols (Polyethylene Glycols / PEGs / Carbowaxes) are water-soluble / water-washable ointment bases that dissolve completely in aqueous fluids without greasy residues.

Question 36

The bubble point test is performed to determine:

Accepted Answer

Option A: The surface tension of the liquid in capillary tubes. The bubble point test measures the pressure required to force gas through liquid-filled pores of a membrane filter, characterizing maximum pore size based on liquid surface tension ($\Delta P = \frac{4\gamma \cos	heta}{d}$).

Question 37

Sodium chloride is added in ophthalmic preparation as:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Tonicity adjuster. Sodium chloride ($0.9\%	ext{ w/v}$) is universally added to ophthalmic drops and parenteral solutions to adjust osmotic pressure and achieve isotonicity with lacrimal fluid.

Question 38

An ophthalmic solution is isotonic with another solution when:

Accepted Answer

Option B: The magnitudes of their colligative properties are identical.. Isotonic solutions have identical osmotic pressures and colligative properties (such as identical freezing point depression $\Delta T_f = -0.52^\circ	ext{C}$ matching human tears and blood plasma).

Question 39

What is the technique commonly used for drying blood plasma?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Freeze-drying. Blood plasma, biological proteins, and labile antibiotics are dehydrated by Freeze-drying (Lyophilization / sublimation drying) to preserve thermolabile biological activity.

Question 40

The anticoagulant heparin solution does not contain:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Antiviral agents. Commercial multidose heparin sodium injection formulations contain antimicrobial/preservative agents (like benzyl alcohol or parabens) but do not contain specific antiviral agents.

Question 41

Which is the major process of absorption for more than 90% of drugs?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Passive diffusion. Over 90% of pharmaceutical drugs cross biological lipid membranes via simple non-ionic Passive Diffusion down a chemical concentration gradient according to Fick's First Law.

Question 42

What is major difference between Facilitated & passive diffusion

Accepted Answer

Option A: Carrier mediated transport. Both passive and facilitated diffusion are downhill non-energy-consuming processes, but Facilitated Diffusion is carrier-mediated (utilizes specific membrane transporter proteins exhibiting saturability).

Question 43

Low solubility Low permeability is BCS class,

Accepted Answer

Option D: Class IV. Under the Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS): Class I = High Sol / High Perm; Class II = Low Sol / High Perm; Class III = High Sol / Low Perm; Class IV = Low Solubility and Low Permeability.

Question 44

The renal clearance expressed mathematically

Accepted Answer

Option A: $\frac{	ext{Rate of urinary excretion}}{	ext{plasma drug concentration}}$. Renal Clearance ($Cl_R$) is the volume of plasma cleared of drug by the kidneys per unit time: $Cl_R = \frac{	ext{Rate of Urinary Drug Excretion } (dXu/dt)}{	ext{Plasma Drug Concentration } (C_p)} = \frac{U \cdot V}{P}$.

Question 45

Which of the following sera contains?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Antibodies. Therapeutic immune sera (antiserum / antitoxins) contain concentrated, specific neutralizing polyclonal or monoclonal Antibodies (immunoglobulins) providing passive immunity.

Question 46

In quality control of parenteral preparations, which of the following tests is performed to ensure the preparation is free from pyrogens?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Endotoxin test. The Bacterial Endotoxin Test (BET / LAL test) or Rabbit Pyrogen Test is statutory required to verify that parenterals are free of pyrogenic lipopolysaccharides.

Question 47

What is the main purpose of filtration through $0.22\ \mu	ext{m}$ in the preparation of parenteral solutions?

Accepted Answer

Option C: To ensure the solution is free of microorganisms. Filtration through a sterile $0.22\ \mu	ext{m}$ microporous membrane filter achieves sterilization by physically sieving out all vegetative bacteria, molds, and spores (Sterile filtration).

Question 48

Which of the following statements regarding emulsions is false?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Emulsions cannot be separated into their constituent liquids. Emulsions are thermodynamically unstable heterogeneous colloidal systems that can be cracked, demulsified, or separated into constituent oil and water phases by centrifugation or heating (Statement A is false).

Question 49

What distinguishes the production process of absorbent cotton from that of non-absorbent cotton?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Absorbent cotton undergoes bleaching and chemical treatments to remove impurities. Absorbent cotton is subjected to scouring, boiling in dilute alkali, de-waxing, and bleaching with hydrogen peroxide to strip natural water-repellent fatty/waxy coatings.

Question 50

Which of the following is an emulsifying fraction of wool fat?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Wool alcohol. Wool alcohols (Lanolin alcohols), obtained by the alkaline saponification of wool fat followed by separation of the unsaponifiable sterol fraction (cholesterol/isocholesterol), act as powerful w/o emulsifiers.

Question 51

In the limit test for sulfate, the formation of a white precipitate is due to the reaction of sulfate ions with:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Barium chloride. In the IP limit test for sulfates, sulfate ions react with Barium Chloride reagent in the presence of dilute HCl to produce an insoluble white precipitate of Barium Sulfate ($BaSO_4$).

Question 52

In the limit test for iron, the presence of iron is detected by the formation of a reddish-brown color when:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Potassium thiocyanate is added. Iron ($Fe^{3+}$) forms a blood-red/reddish-brown coordination complex $[Fe(SCN)]^{2+}$ upon reaction with Potassium Thiocyanate (or with thioglycolic acid under alkaline conditions).

Question 53

Which of the following factors can affect the result of the limit test for chloride when using silver nitrate as a reagent?

Accepted Answer

Option D: The concentration of the sample. The opalescence comparison in the limit test for chlorides depends strictly on the concentration of the test sample compared against the standard chloride solution.

Question 54

Which of the following is the most critical for ensuring the accuracy of the limit test for iron when using potassium thiocyanate?

Accepted Answer

Option A: The presence of strong acids like hydrochloric acid in the sample. A strong acidic medium (dilute $HCl$) is critical to prevent precipitation of iron hydroxides and ensure all iron is in the ionic form to complex with thiocyanate.

Question 55

To perform the test for anticoagulant activity of drugs, which bioassay would be used?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Prothrombin time assay. The Prothrombin Time (PT) assay or Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) assay is the standard in vitro bioassay used to quantify anticoagulant activity.

Question 56

Which of the following is the most common method of bioassay for determining the potency of a drug?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Microbial assay. Microbial assays (cylinder-plate / turbidimetric methods) are the standard biological assays used to determine the potency of antibiotics and vitamins against standardized test organisms.

Question 57

What is the purpose of a standard curve in a bioassay?

Accepted Answer

Option C: To relate the measured response to the concentration of the substance. A standard dose-response curve plots known reference concentrations against measured biological responses to interpolate the unknown concentration of a sample.

Question 58

Which of the following is an example of a microbiological assay?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Determining the antibiotic susceptibility of bacteria. Determining antibiotic susceptibility and antibiotic potency by measuring bacterial zones of inhibition is a classic microbiological assay.

Question 59

Which of the following is classified as 'Aseptic area'?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Class 100. Under US Federal Standard 209E and GMP Grade A standards, Class 100 (maximum 100 particles $\ge 0.5\ \mu	ext{m}$ per cubic foot / ISO 5) defines the critical aseptic manufacturing area.

Question 60

Which of the following is a challenge in pyrogen testing?

Accepted Answer

Option D: All of the above. Pyrogen testing challenges include biological animal variability in the rabbit test, sensitivity limits, interference from test substances, and ethical constraints (All of the above).

Question 61

Which of the following is an advantage of the Monocyte Activation Test (MAT) over the Rabbit Pyrogen Test (RPT)?

Accepted Answer

Option B: It does not involve the use of animals. The human Monocyte Activation Test (MAT) is an in vitro cell-based assay that completely eliminates animal testing (non-animal alternative) while mimicking human cytokine pyrogenic responses.

Question 62

A colorimeter is used for measurement of:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Concentration of coloured solution. A photoelectric colorimeter quantitatively determines the concentration of light-absorbing coloured chemical compounds in a solution based on Beer-Lambert's Law.

Question 63

How is absorbance related to transmittance?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Inversely proportional. Absorbance ($A$) is logarithmically and inversely related to Transmittance ($T$): $A = -\log_{10} T = \log_{10}(1/T) = 2 - \log_{10}(\%T)$. As transmittance decreases, absorbance increases.

Question 64

What is the difference between a spectrophotometer and a colorimeter?

Accepted Answer

Option A: A spectrophotometer can measure absorbance at a wider range of wavelengths. A spectrophotometer uses a diffraction grating/prism monochromator to measure continuous spectra across UV, Visible, and NIR regions ($200	ext{--}800	ext{ nm}$), whereas a colorimeter uses broad glass/gelatin filters in the visible range only.

Laboratory Assistant2025

📝 Solved Questions with Detailed Explanations100% Free • No Login Required

JKSSB — Laboratory Assistant (2025)