Pick the right meaning of the given idiom: "At the drop of the hat"
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Done in an instant)
The idiom 'at the drop of a hat' means immediately, without any hesitation, delay, or prior planning ('done in an instant'). Choice B.
Q2
General English & ComprehensionIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meaning of the given idiom: "Keep at bay"
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Keep at a distance)
To 'keep someone or something at bay' means to prevent an enemy, danger, or problem from coming too close or causing harm ('keep at a distance'). Choice A.
Q3
General English & ComprehensionIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meaning of the given phrase: "Hear someone out"
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Let someone complete what they are saying)
To 'hear someone out' means to listen patiently to someone until they have finished speaking and fully explained their perspective without interruption. Choice D.
Q4
General English & ComprehensionAntonyms
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word: DENOUNCE
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Applaud)
'Denounce' means to publicly declare something to be wrong or evil, or to strongly condemn. Its direct antonym is 'Applaud' (to praise or express strong approval).
Q5
General English & ComprehensionAntonyms
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word: INVINCIBLE
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Conquerable)
'Invincible' means too powerful or strong to be defeated or overcome. Its antonym is 'Conquerable' (vulnerable to defeat).
Q6
General English & ComprehensionAntonyms
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word: DELICATE
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rough)
'Delicate' means very fine, soft, fragile, or easily broken. Its direct opposite in texture and quality is 'Rough' (coarse or harsh).
Q7
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word: REITERATE
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Repeat)
To 'Reiterate' means to say something again or a number of times, typically for emphasis or clarity, which is synonymous with 'Repeat'.
Q8
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word: HANDFUL
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Few or little)
A 'Handful' denotes a small quantity or number that can be held in the hand, meaning 'few or little'. Choice A.
Q9
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word: PRIVY
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Secretive)
To be 'Privy' to something means sharing in the knowledge of that which is private or secret; hence it is closest in meaning to 'Secretive' or 'having secret knowledge'. Choice C.
Q10
General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "I was advised to abstain ________ all alcoholic drinks."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (From)
The verb 'abstain' standardly takes the preposition 'from' (abstain from something = to restrain oneself from indulging).
Q11
General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "He had to repent ________ what he had done."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (For)
One repents 'of' or 'for' a past misdeed or action ('repent for what he had done'). Choice D.
Q12
General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "Ravi could not dissociate himself ________ what he said earlier."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (From)
The verb 'dissociate' consistently collocates with the preposition 'from' ('dissociate oneself from something').
Q13
General English & ComprehensionSpelling Test
Find the correct spelling from the given options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Abbreviate)
The correct spelling is 'Abbreviate' (meaning to shorten a word, phrase, or text). Choice A.
Q14
General English & ComprehensionSpelling Test
Find the correct spelling from the given options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bibliography)
The correct spelling is 'Bibliography' (a list of the books or articles referred to in a scholarly work). Choice A.
Q15
General English & ComprehensionSpelling Test
Find the correct spelling from the given options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Jubilee)
The correct spelling is 'Jubilee' (a special anniversary of an event, especially one celebrating 25th Silver, 50th Golden, or 60th Diamond years). Choice C.
Q16
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)World Currencies
What is the name of the currency of Malaysia?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ringgit)
The official legal tender currency of Malaysia is the Malaysian Ringgit (MYR). (Kwacha is of Zambia/Malawi, Yuan of China, Yen of Japan).
Q17
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)World Capitals
Which is the capital city of Cuba?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Havana)
Havana is the capital, largest city, and major commercial seaport of Cuba in the Caribbean. (San Jose is of Costa Rica, Nicosia of Cyprus, Prague of Czech Republic).
Q18
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Sports Current Affairs 2024
How many gold medals were won by the Indian contingent in the 2024 Paris Paralympics Games?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7)
At the 2024 Paris Paralympic Games, India achieved its best-ever performance with a total of 29 medals: exactly 7 Gold medals, 9 Silver medals, and 13 Bronze medals.
Q19
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Geography of J&K (Amarnath Shrine)
Which district of Jammu and Kashmir is famous for the holy Amarnath cave situated at Mount Amarnath?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The sacred Amarnath Cave shrine (altitude 3,888 m) is located in the Anantnag district of Jammu and Kashmir, accessed via Pahalgam or Baltal.
Q20
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Lakes of J&K (Tarsar-Marsar)
The Tarsar and Marsar lakes are the two most significant alpine lakes of which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pulwama)
The scenic twin oligotrophic alpine lakes Tarsar and Marsar are located in the Aru valley area administratively situated in the Pulwama / Anantnag border district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q21
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Hydroelectric Projects of J&K (Salal)
Salal Hydroelectric Project constructed on the river Chenab is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reasi)
The 690 MW Salal Hydroelectric Power Station (operated by NHPC) is built across the Chenab River near Reasi in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q22
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Waterfalls of J&K (Aharbal)
The Aharbal waterfall located in the Shopian district is also popularly known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Aharbal Waterfall / Niagara Falls of Kashmir)
Aharbal Waterfall, formed by the roaring Veshav River falling from a height of about 25 meters in Kulgam/Shopian, is celebrated as the 'Niagara Falls of Kashmir'.
Q23
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Classical Languages of India 2024
Which of the following languages was NOT recently inducted in the list of Classical Languages of India in October 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kashmiri)
On 3 October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved 5 new Classical Languages: Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese. Kashmiri was NOT inducted.
Q24
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Nobel Prizes 2024
Who among the following won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2024 for foundational discoveries in machine learning?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Geoffrey Hinton)
The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded jointly to John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton for foundational discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks. (Baker, Hassabis, Jumper won in Chemistry).
Q25
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Current Affairs (SCO Summit 2024)
Which Minister of the Indian Cabinet visited Pakistan to attend the 23rd SCO Summit in October 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dr. S. Jaishankar)
External Affairs Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar led the Indian delegation to Islamabad, Pakistan on 15–16 October 2024 to attend the 23rd Council of Heads of Government of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
Q26
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Sports Tournaments (Women's T20 World Cup 2024)
The ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024 was organized in which of the following countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (United Arab Emirates)
The ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024 (relocated from Bangladesh due to political unrest) was hosted by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in Dubai and Sharjah in October 2024 (won by New Zealand).
Q27
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Geography (International Borders)
India shares the longest international land boundary with which of the following countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bangladesh)
India shares its longest international land border with Bangladesh, spanning an extensive length of 4,096.7 km (surpassing borders with China 3,488 km and Pakistan 3,323 km).
Q28
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)National Current Affairs Renaming
The Government of India has decided to rename the capital city of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Port Blair, as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sri Vijaya Puram)
On 13 September 2024, Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced that Port Blair, the capital of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, has been renamed 'Sri Vijaya Puram' to honor the historical naval role of the Chola Empire.
Q29
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Bharat Ratna Awards 2024
Who among the following was NOT conferred with the Bharat Ratna in the year 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Atal Bihari Vajpayee)
In 2024, the Bharat Ratna was conferred upon five luminaries: Karpoori Thakur, L.K. Advani, P.V. Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh, and Dr. M.S. Swaminathan. Former PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee was conferred the Bharat Ratna earlier in 2015.
Q30
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Geography (State Sizes)
Which is the largest state in India in terms of geographical area?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rajasthan)
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by land area, covering 342,239 km² (representing about 10.4% of India's total geographical area).
A person gives 20% of his salary to his wife and 25% of the remaining to his children. Now he is left with Rs. 27,000. What is his total salary?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rs. 45,000)
Let total salary be S. After giving 20% to wife, remaining =0.80S. He gives 25% of this remainder to children, leaving 75% of the remainder: Balance=0.75×0.80S=0.60S. Given 0.60S=27,000⟹S=0.6027000=45,000. Choice C.
The average of the first two numbers and last two numbers of a set of six numbers is 70 and 45 respectively. If the overall average of all six numbers is 65, find the average of the third and fourth number:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (80)
Sum of all 6 numbers =6×65=390. Sum of first 2 numbers =2×70=140. Sum of last 2 numbers =2×45=90. Sum of 3rd and 4th numbers =390−(140+90)=390−230=160. Average of 3rd and 4th number =2160=80. Choice B.
Out of 4 numbers, the average of first 3 is 19 and last 3 is 20. If the last number is 21, find the first number:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (18)
Let numbers be a,b,c,d. Sum of first 3: a+b+c=3×19=57. Sum of last 3: b+c+d=3×20=60. Given d=21⟹b+c+21=60⟹b+c=39. Substitute into first equation: a+39=57⟹a=57−39=18. Choice A.
The batting average of 40 innings of a cricket player is 50 runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest by 172 runs. If the two are excluded, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48 runs. Find the highest score of the player:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (174)
Total runs in 40 innings =40×50=2000. Total runs in 38 innings =38×48=1824. Sum of Highest (H) and Lowest (L) =2000−1824=176. Given H−L=172. Adding equations: 2H=176+172=348⟹H=2348=174 runs. Choice C.
Q37
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningTime and Work
Sachin can complete a job in 15 days. Ankit alone can complete the same job in 10 days. Sachin works for 9 days and then the remaining job is completed by Ankit. How many days will it take Ankit to complete the remaining job alone?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4)
Sachin's 1-day work =1/15. In 9 days, Sachin completes 9×151=53 of the work. Remaining work =1−53=52. Ankit completes the full work in 10 days, so he completes the remaining 52 in: 52×10=4 days. Choice D.
Q38
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningTime and Work (Combined Rates)
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days, B and C together can do it in 20 days. A starts the work and works on it for 5 days, then B takes it up and works for 15 days. Finally, C finishes the work in 18 days. In how many days can C do the work when doing it separately?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (24)
Let total work be LCM(30,20)=60 units. Efficiencies: (A+B)=2 units/day, (B+C)=3 units/day. Total work =5A+15B+18C=5(A+B)+10(B+C)+8C=60. Substitute: 5(2)+10(3)+8C=60⟹10+30+8C=60⟹8C=20⟹C=2.5 units/day. Days for C alone =2.560=24 days. Choice B.
Q39
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningSpeed, Distance and Time
A car completes a journey in 6 hrs with a speed of 50 km/hr. At what speed must it travel to complete the journey in 5 hrs?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (60 kmph)
Total distance =Speed×Time=50 km/hr×6 hrs=300 km. Required speed to complete 300 km in 5 hours =5 hrs300 km=60 km/hr. Choice B.
Q40
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningSpeed, Distance and Time
A Bike has to cover a distance of 120 km in 15 hours. If it covers half of the journey in 3/5th of the time, the speed to cover the remaining distance in the time left has to be:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10 kmph)
Total distance =120 km, total time =15 hrs. Half of journey =60 km. Time taken for first half =53×15=9 hours. Remaining distance =60 km, remaining time =15−9=6 hours. Required speed =6 hrs60 km=10 km/hr. Choice A.
The speeds of Ram and Rohan are 40km/hr and 50km/hr respectively. Rohan initially is at a place A and Ram is at a place B. The distance between A and B is 520km. Ram started his journey 4 hours earlier than Rohan to meet each other. If they meet each other at a place O somewhere between A and B, then the distance between O and B is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (320 km)
In 4 hours, Ram covers 4×40=160 km towards A. Remaining distance between Ram and Rohan =520−160=360 km. Both move towards each other at relative speed 40+50=90 km/hr. Time until they meet =90360=4 hours. Distance Ram travels from B: 160 km+(4×40)=160+160=320 km. (Distance of meeting point O from B is 320 km; from A is 4×50=200 km). Choice D.
Q42
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningRatios and Proportions
In a library, the ratio of number of story books to that of non-story books was 4:3 and total number of story books was 1248. When some more story books were bought, the ratio became 5:3. Find the number of story books bought:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (312)
Initial ratio =4:3. Number of story books =1248⟹4 units=1248⟹1 unit=312. Non-story books =3×312=936. The non-story books remain unchanged (3 units). In the new ratio 5:3, story books =5 units=5×312=1560. Number of new story books added =1560−1248=312 (or simply (5−4)×312=312). Choice A.
Q43
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningRatio Distribution
Rs. 8,400 is divided among A, B, C and D in such a way that the shares of A and B, B and C, and C and D are in the ratios of 2:3, 4:5 and 6:7 respectively. The share of A is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 1,280)
Combine ratios: A:B=2:3=16:24, B:C=4:5=24:30, C:D=6:7=30:35. Compound ratio A:B:C:D=16:24:30:35. Total ratio parts =16+24+30+35=105. Share of A=10516×8400=16×80=Rs. 1,280. Choice A.
Q44
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningCost and Ratios
Price of each article of type P, Q, and R is Rs. 300, Rs. 180 and Rs. 120 respectively. Suresh buys articles of each type in the ratio 3:2:3 in Rs. 6480. How many articles of type Q did he purchase?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (08)
Let quantities bought be 3k,2k,3k. Total cost: 3k(300)+2k(180)+3k(120)=6480⟹900k+360k+360k=6480⟹1620k=6480⟹k=4. Articles of type Q purchased =2k=2×4=8. Choice A.
Ram and Shyam's average age is 65 years. The average age of Ram, Shyam and John is 53 years. What is the age of John?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (29)
Sum of Ram and Shyam's ages =2×65=130 years. Sum of Ram, Shyam, and John's ages =3×53=159 years. Age of John =159−130=29 years. Choice B.
Q46
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningAges Ratio
The present ages of A and B are 42 and 36 years, respectively. After K years, the ratio of ages of B to A will be 15:17. What is the value of K?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (9)
Set up the equation for A+KB+K=1715⟹42+K36+K=1715⟹17(36+K)=15(42+K)⟹612+17K=630+15K⟹2K=18⟹K=9. Choice B.
Q47
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningLCM and HCF
The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40, and 75 is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (9600)
LCM(15,25,40,75)=600. The largest 4-digit number is 9999. Dividing 9999 by 600 yields a quotient of 16 and a remainder of 399. The required greatest number =9999−399=9600. Choice C.
Q48
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningNumber Theory & Remainders
When a number is divided by 893 the remainder is 193. What will be the remainder when it is divided by 47?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5)
Since 893 is an exact multiple of 47 (893=47×19), the remainder when the same number is divided by 47 equals the remainder when 193 is divided by 47: 193=(47×4)+5. The remainder is 5. Choice B.
Q49
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningLCM and HCF
The L.C.M. of two numbers is 14560 and their H.C.F. is 13. If one of them is 416, the other number is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (455)
Using product formula: Number1×Number2=LCM×HCF⟹416×x=14560×13⟹x=41614560×13=416189280=455. Choice B.
When two coins are tossed simultaneously, what are the chances (probability) of getting at least one tail?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3/4)
Sample space of two coins: S={HH,HT,TH,TT} (total 4 outcomes). Event 'at least one tail' contains {HT,TH,TT} (3 outcomes). Probability =43. Choice A.
Q51
General Science & EnvironmentSources of Energy (Solar Cells)
Solar energy is harnessed directly using:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Solar cells)
Photovoltaic Solar Cells convert sunlight photon energy directly into electrical energy through the photovoltaic effect.
Q52
General Science & EnvironmentSources of Energy (Geothermal)
Geothermal energy is obtained from:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Earth's core)
Geothermal energy is natural thermal energy generated and stored in the Earth's core, mantle, and crust from primordial heat and radioactive decay of minerals.
Q53
General Science & EnvironmentBiomass Energy
Which of the following is a form of biomass energy?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wood)
Biomass is renewable organic material that comes from plants and animals; Wood (fuelwood) is a classic renewable biomass energy source (Coal, oil, and natural gas are non-renewable fossil fuels).
Q54
General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Plane Mirror Focal Length)
The focal length of a plane mirror is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (At Infinity)
Since a plane mirror has an infinitely large radius of curvature (R=∞), its focal length f=R/2 is At Infinity.
Q55
General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Plane Mirror Image)
The image formed by a plane mirror is always:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Virtual and erect)
A plane mirror always forms a Virtual, Erect, laterally inverted image that is identical in size to the object and located at the same distance behind the mirror.
Q56
General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Power of Lens)
The SI unit of power of a lens is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dioptre)
The power of a lens (P=1/f in meters) is standardly measured in the SI unit Dioptre (symbol: D, where 1 D=1 m−1).
Q57
General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects (Myopia)
Myopia (near-sightedness) of the human eye can be corrected using a:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Concave lens)
Myopia occurs when parallel light rays focus in front of the retina; it is optically corrected by placing a diverging Concave Lens in front of the eye to diverge rays onto the retina.
Q58
General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects
Near-sightedness is medically termed as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Myopia)
Near-sightedness (inability to clearly see distant objects while near vision remains clear) is medically termed Myopia.
Q59
General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Anatomy
The human eye forms the real, inverted image of an object at its:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Retina)
The crystalline eye lens focuses incoming light rays onto the light-sensitive neural layer at the back of the eyeball known as the Retina.
Q60
General Science & EnvironmentElectric Current & Heating Effects
The filament of an incandescent electric bulb is made up of which of the given materials?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tungsten)
Tungsten (W) is used for lamp filaments because of its extraordinarily high melting point (3422∘C), high resistivity, and low vapor pressure.
Q61
General Science & EnvironmentEcosystems (Energy Flow)
In an ecological ecosystem, the flow of energy is always:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Unidirectional)
According to Lindeman's thermodynamics of ecosystems, the flow of solar energy through food chains is strictly Unidirectional (one-way from producers to herbivores to carnivores, dissipating as heat without recycling).
Q62
General Science & EnvironmentTrophic Levels Energy Transfer
In an ecosystem, when energy moves from one trophic level to another, it:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Decreases)
According to Lindeman's 10% Law of energy transfer, approximately 90% of energy is lost as metabolic heat and respiration at each step, so energy progressively Decreases at each successive trophic level.
Q63
General Science & EnvironmentEcosystems of Earth
The largest ecosystem of the earth is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ocean)
The World Ocean (Marine ecosystem), covering approximately 71% of the Earth's surface with an average depth of 3,700 meters, constitutes the largest global ecosystem (hydrosphere).
Q64
General Science & EnvironmentHuman Diseases
Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cancer)
Cancer is a non-communicable, non-infectious disease caused by genetic mutations and abnormal cellular proliferation (Tuberculosis, chickenpox, and measles are communicable infectious diseases).
Q65
General Science & EnvironmentEnvironmental Pollution (Ozone Depletion)
Stratospheric ozone depletion is caused primarily due to an increase in the atmospheric level of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chlorofluorocarbon)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs / Freons) release active chlorine radicals under UV radiation in the stratosphere, catalytically destroying protective ozone (O3) molecules.
Q66
General Science & EnvironmentSoil Pollution & Acid Rain
Which among the following is a major cause of soil pollution and acidification?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Acid Rain)
Acid Rain (containing dissolved nitric and sulfuric acids from SO2 and NOx emissions) causes severe soil acidification, leaching essential nutrient cations (Ca2+,Mg2+) and mobilizing toxic aluminum.
Q67
General Science & EnvironmentAir Pollution (Smog)
Smog is produced due to the atmospheric combination of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Smoke and fog)
The word 'Smog' is a portmanteau originally coined to describe heavy atmospheric pollution caused by the mixture of Smoke and Fog.
Q68
General Science & EnvironmentGlobal Warming Effects
Global warming and climate change will cause:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Rising global average temperatures cause thermal expansion of ocean waters, melting of polar ice caps, and rapid retreat/decrease of mountain glaciers ⟹ All of the above. Choice D.
Q69
General Science & EnvironmentNoise Pollution Units
Noise pollution and acoustic sound levels are measured in units of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Decibels)
Noise levels and sound intensity are measured on a logarithmic scale in Decibels (dB). (Hertz measures frequency; Fathoms measure ocean depth; Nanometers measure wavelength).
Q70
General Science & EnvironmentEnvironmental Toxicology (DDT)
Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane (DDT) is a classic example of a:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Non-biodegradable pollutant)
DDT is a persistent synthetic organochlorine pesticide that does not break down naturally in the environment, acting as a classic Non-Biodegradable Pollutant that undergoes biomagnification across food chains.
Q71
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Poona Pact)
The historic Poona Pact of 1932 was an agreement signed between:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gandhi and Ambedkar)
The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail between Mahatma Gandhi (represented by Madan Mohan Malaviya and other leaders) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, replacing separate electorates with reserved legislative seats for the Depressed Classes.
Q72
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Partition of Bengal)
Name the Viceroy of India at the time of the Partition of Bengal in 1905:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Curzon)
Lord Curzon (Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905) issued the controversial order partitioning the province of Bengal in October 1905.
Q73
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Annulment of Bengal Partition)
In which year was the partition of Bengal cancelled / annulled?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1911)
The Partition of Bengal was revoked and annulled in December 1911 by King George V at the Delhi Durbar, under Viceroy Lord Hardinge II.
Q74
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian National Movement (Non-Cooperation)
In which of the following years was the Non-Cooperation Movement officially launched by Mahatma Gandhi?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1920)
The Non-Cooperation Movement was officially launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 1 August 1920 and ratified at the special session of the Indian National Congress in Calcutta in September 1920.
Q75
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Khilafat Movement)
Which among the following movements was combined with the Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhiji's leadership?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Khilafat Movement)
Mahatma Gandhi unified the Indian National Congress's Non-Cooperation Movement with the pan-Islamic Khilafat Movement (led by the Ali brothers) in 1920 to forge unprecedented Hindu-Muslim nationalist unity.
Q76
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Election Commission)
Who registers and recognizes political parties as national or state parties in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Election Commission of India)
The Election Commission of India (ECI), under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, officially registers and accords recognition to National and State political parties.
Q77
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Agriculture (Green Revolution)
The Green Revolution in India was primarily related to a massive increase in the production of:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wheat production)
The Green Revolution (spearheaded in the late 1960s by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan and Norman Borlaug using high-yielding dwarf varieties) achieved its most dramatic and transformative production gains in Wheat (and subsequently Rice).
Q78
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Agricultural Institutions (NAFED)
NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India) is connected with:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Agricultural marketing)
NAFED (established in 1958) is the apex national statutory organization promoting cooperative marketing, procurement, and distribution of agricultural produce in India.
Q79
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)World Geography (Prime Meridian)
The 0-degree Meridian passing through Greenwich, London is known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Prime Meridian)
The 0∘ longitude reference line is officially designated as the Prime Meridian, serving as the international baseline for measuring longitude and global time zones.
Q80
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Geography (IST)
The local time at 82° 30' E longitude, standardized throughout India, is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Indian Standard Time (IST))
The local time of the standard central meridian of India (82∘30′ E, passing near Mirzapur/Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh) is accepted as the uniform Indian Standard Time (IST = UTC + 5:30).
Q81
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Physical Geography (Tropic of Cancer)
Identify the standard parallel of latitude known as the Tropic of Cancer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (23° 30'N)
The Tropic of Cancer is the parallel of latitude located at 23∘30′ N (or 23.5∘ N) of the Equator, passing through 8 Indian states. (23∘30′ S is the Tropic of Capricorn).
Q82
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Agriculture (Plantation Crops)
Which of the following is NOT a plantation crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wheat)
Plantation agriculture involves single-crop extensive farming for commercial export: Tea, Coffee, and Rubber are classic plantation crops. Wheat is an extensive food grain cereal crop (Rabi crop), NOT a plantation crop.
Q83
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Fundamental Rights)
How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed to Indian citizens under Part III of the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (6)
The Indian Constitution currently guarantees Six Fundamental Rights: 1. Right to Equality, 2. Right to Freedom, 3. Right against Exploitation, 4. Right to Freedom of Religion, 5. Cultural and Educational Rights, and 6. Right to Constitutional Remedies. (Right to Property was deleted as a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment in 1978).
Q84
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Right to Equality)
According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following is NOT included within the Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Absolute equality)
The Right to Equality guarantees Equality before law (Art 14), Non-discrimination (Art 15), Equality of opportunity in public employment (Art 16), and Abolition of untouchability (Art 17). 'Absolute equality' does not exist as reasonable classifications and affirmative actions are constitutional.
Q85
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Swaran Singh Committee)
Which of the following committees suggested the incorporation of Fundamental Duties into the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, constituted in 1976 by the Government of India, recommended the inclusion of a dedicated chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
Q86
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (42nd Amendment)
The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution by which Constitutional Amendment?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (42nd Constitutional Amendment)
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Part IVA and Article 51A into the Constitution of India, introducing 10 Fundamental Duties (an 11th duty was added later by the 86th Amendment in 2002).
Q87
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Earth Tilt & Seasons
The axial tilting of the Earth (23.5∘) as it revolves around the Sun is responsible for the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Change in seasons)
The 23.5∘ tilt of Earth's rotational axis relative to its orbital plane causes varying angles of solar incidence throughout the year, which is directly responsible for the Change in Seasons. (Earth's rotation on its axis causes day and night).
Q88
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Solar System (Mars)
Which planet in the solar system is popularly referred to as the "Red Planet"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mars)
Mars is known as the 'Red Planet' due to the widespread presence of iron oxide (rust) on its surface giving it a distinctive reddish hue.
Q89
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Solar System (Venus)
Which planet is often referred to as Earth's twin because of its similar size, mass, and density?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Venus)
Venus is called 'Earth's Twin' (or Earth's sister planet) because of its remarkable similarity to Earth in radius, volume, mass, density, and gravitational pull.
Q90
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Economic Sectors (Secondary Sector)
The _______ covers economic activities in which natural raw materials are transformed into finished manufactured goods through industrial processes:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secondary Sector)
The Secondary Sector (Industrial/Manufacturing Sector) encompasses economic activities where primary raw materials (agricultural crops, minerals, timber) are processed, manufactured, and converted into finished goods.
Q91
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense Test
Sowmya Krishnan walked 20 m towards the north. Then she turned right and walks 30 m. Then she turns right and walks 35 m. Then she turns left and walks 15 m. Finally she turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many meters is she from the starting position?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (45 m East)
Step-by-step vector path: Start at (0,0). 1. 20 m North −>(0,20). 2. Turn right, 30 m East −>(30,20). 3. Turn right, 35 m South −>(30,20−35)=(30,−15). 4. Turn left, 15 m East −>(30+15,−15)=(45,−15). 5. Turn left, 15 m North −>(45,−15+15)=(45,0). Final position is (45,0), which is exactly 45 meters East of the starting point. Choice D.
Q92
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningShadow & Direction Reasoning
One morning after sunrise, Nandita and Ravi were sitting in a lawn with their backs towards each other. Nandita's shadow fell exactly towards her left-hand side. Which direction was Ravi facing?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (South)
In the morning after sunrise, the sun is in the East, so all shadows fall towards the West. If Nandita's shadow falls to her left, West is to her left, meaning Nandita is facing North. Since Nandita and Ravi are sitting back-to-back, Ravi must be facing the opposite direction, which is South. Choice D.
Q93
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningClock and Direction Test
A clock is so placed that at 2:00 p.m. the minute hand points towards North-west. In which direction does the hour hand point at 6:00 p.m.?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (South-East)
At 2:00 p.m., the minute hand is at 12 (standard North). Given that 12 points North-West, the compass is rotated 45∘ anti-clockwise. At 6:00 p.m., the hour hand points at 6 (standard South). Rotating South by 45∘ anti-clockwise points directly towards South-East. Choice A.
In a certain code language 'DEAR' is coded as '7465' and 'LIFE' is coded as '8394'. Then how will 'IDEAL' be coded in the same code language?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (37468)
Letter substitution matching: From DEAR and LIFE: D = 7, E = 4, A = 6, R = 5; L = 8, I = 3, F = 9. For IDEAL: I = 3, D = 7, E = 4, A = 6, L = 8 ⟹ 37468. Choice D.
Consider the following Statements: 1. Some actors are singers. 2. All the singers are dancers. Conclusions: 1. Some actors are dancers. 2. No singer is actor. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only (1) conclusion follows)
Syllogism: 'Some actors are singers' + 'All singers are dancers' ⟹ the intersection of actors and singers is entirely contained within dancers, so 'Some actors are dancers' is definitely true (Conclusion 1 follows). Conclusion 2 is false because some actors are already stated to be singers. Choice A.
Consider the following Statements: 1. All the harmoniums are instruments 2. All the instruments are flutes Conclusions: 1. All the flutes are instruments. 2. All the harmoniums are flutes. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only (2) conclusion follows)
All harmoniums ⊂ Instruments ⊂ Flutes. Therefore, All harmoniums are flutes (Conclusion 2 follows). Conclusion 1 ('All flutes are instruments') is a converse error and does not necessarily follow. Correct: Only (2) conclusion follows (Choice B).
Q101
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsWorkplace Communication
What is the primary fundamental purpose of communication in an organization?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To inform)
The foundational and primary purpose of communication is 'To Inform'—transmitting accurate data, instructions, and messages to create shared understanding.
Q102
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsOrganizational Communication (Horizontal)
In an office hierarchy, an employee communicates horizontally when interacting with his/her:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Colleagues)
Horizontal (Lateral) Communication takes place among peers, coworkers, and colleagues of equal organizational rank or status across the same operational level.
Q103
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsBarriers to Communication
Which of the following is NOT a recognized category of communication barriers?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Financial barrier)
Standard recognized barriers to communication in organizational theory include: Organizational, Linguistic/Semantic, Psychological/Interpersonal, and Physical barriers. 'Financial barrier' is NOT a standard communication barrier.
Q104
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsCommunication Cycle Elements
Which of the following is NOT an element of the basic communication cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Time)
The essential elements of the communication cycle are: Sender, Encoding, Message, Channel (Medium), Receiver, Decoding, and Feedback. 'Time' is an external environmental variable, not a constituent element of the cycle.
What is the final and closing step in the communication cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Feedback)
Feedback is the final step of the communication process that indicates to the sender whether the message was accurately understood as intended, completing the loop.
Q106
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsOccupational Health & Safety (Biohazards)
Which among the following is a biological hazard in the workplace environment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Virus)
Biological hazards (biohazards) are infectious organic organisms or agents—including Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites—that pose health risks to workers.
Workers require specialized protective foot safety footwear in work environments with:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Penetrating materials such as nails and spikes)
Safety shoes equipped with puncture-resistant steel/composite mid-sole plates are specifically required for foot protection against sharp penetrating hazards like protruding nails, spikes, and scrap metal.
Q108
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsFirst Aid (ABC Rule)
What is the standard 'ABC' acronym of First Aid in emergency life support?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Airway, Breathing and Circulation)
In first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), 'ABC' stands for: Airway (clear the respiratory tract), Breathing (ensure respiration), and Circulation (maintain cardiac blood flow).
Q109
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsQuality Standards (ISO 9001)
Which is the ONLY management system standard in the ISO 9000 family to which organizations can formally certify?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ISO 9001)
ISO 9001 (Quality Management Systems - Requirements) is the only standard in the ISO 9000 family to which an organization can be officially audited and certified.
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) works under the aegis of which Union Ministry?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)—the national standards body of India—operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India.
Which certification mark is legally required for gold jewellery sold in India to certify purity?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (BIS hallmark)
BIS Hallmarking (certifying purity with the triangular BIS logo, fineness purity mark, and 6-digit HUID code) is mandatory for gold jewellery sold in India.
Q112
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsHistory of BIS (1 April 1987)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) came into legal existence, through an Act of Parliament dated 26 November 1986, on:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (01.04.1987)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Act was passed by Parliament in November 1986 and formally came into enforcement on 1 April 1987 (01.04.1987), replacing the former Indian Standards Institution (ISI).
The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923 has been officially renamed as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Employees Compensation Act)
Through the Workmen's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2009, the legislation was gender-neutralized and officially renamed the 'Employee's Compensation Act, 1923'.
Under the Employees' State Insurance (ESI) Act, the current employer's share of contribution is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3.25% of employee's wages)
Under the revised ESI contribution rates (effective from 1 July 2019), the employer's contribution is 3.25% and the employee's contribution is 0.75% (totaling 4.0% of wages). Choice A.
Under the ESI Act, an amount of ________ is payable towards funeral expenses to the dependents of an insured person from day one of entering insurable employment:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 15,000/-)
Under the ESI scheme, funeral expenses up to Rs. 15,000/- are payable to the eldest surviving member or the person who actually incurs the expenditure on the deceased insured person's funeral.
Which of the following metric unit conversions is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1 kilometre = 100 meters)
1 kilometre is equal to 1,000 meters (not 100 meters). All other conversions are correct. Choice D.
Q117
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsMetric Conversions
How many centimetres are there in 2.5 meters?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (250 cm)
Since 1 meter=100 centimetres, 2.5 meters=2.5×100=250 cm. Choice B.
Q118
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsSI Units
Which of the following is NOT an official SI unit?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Calorie)
The SI unit of energy and heat is the Joule (J). The Calorie (1 cal≈4.184 J) is a non-SI metric unit. (Ohm, Ampere, and Newton are standard SI derived and base units).
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Communication with oneself)
Intrapersonal communication is the internal dialogue, self-talk, introspection, and cognitive processing that takes place within an individual's own mind.
Q120
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsFunctions of BIS
Which of the following is a key function of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Setting quality standards for goods and services)
The core statutory mandate of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is formulating, publishing, and enforcing national Quality Standards for goods, products, and services in India.
Q121
General EnglishIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meaning of the idiom: "At the drop of the hat"
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Done in an instant)
The idiom 'at the drop of a hat' means instantly, without hesitation, or at the slightest provocation/signal.
Q122
General EnglishIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meaning of the idiom: "Keep at bay"
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Keep at a distance)
The idiom 'keep at bay' means to prevent something harmful or undesirable from coming near, or to keep something at a safe distance.
Q123
General EnglishIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meaning of the idiom: "Hear someone out"
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Let someone complete what they are saying)
To 'hear someone out' means to listen patiently until a person has finished speaking or explaining their point completely.
Q124
General EnglishAntonyms
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word: Denounce
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Applaud)
'Denounce' means to publicly declare to be wrong or evil (to condemn or blame). Its direct antonym is 'Applaud' (to praise or commend).
Q125
General EnglishAntonyms
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word: Invincible
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Conquerable)
'Invincible' means too powerful to be defeated or overcome. Its antonym is 'Conquerable' (vulnerable or able to be defeated).
Q126
General EnglishAntonyms
Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word: Delicate
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rough)
'Delicate' means very fine in texture or structure, easily broken, or gentle. Its most appropriate antonym is 'Rough' (coarse, tough, or harsh).
Q127
General EnglishSynonyms
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word: Reiterate
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Repeat)
To 'Reiterate' means to say something again or a number of times, typically for emphasis or clarity, which is synonymous with 'Repeat'.
Q128
General EnglishSynonyms
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word: Handful
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Few or little)
A 'Handful' refers to a small, limited quantity or number that can be held in the hand, meaning 'few or little'.
Q129
General EnglishSynonyms
Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word: Privy
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Secretive)
Being 'Privy' to something means sharing in the secret or private knowledge of something not widely known, closely synonymous with 'Secretive' or informed of private matters.
Q130
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "I was advised to abstain ________ all alcoholic drinks."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (From)
The verb 'abstain' standardly takes the fixed preposition 'from' (to abstain from doing something or consuming something).
Q131
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "He had to repent ________ what he had done."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Of)
In formal English usage, the intransitive verb 'repent' takes the preposition 'of' (e.g. to repent of one's sins or wrongdoings). Choice B.
Q132
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "Ravi could not dissociate himself ________ what he said earlier."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (From)
The verb 'dissociate' governs the preposition 'from' (to dissociate oneself from a statement, organization, or action).
Q133
General EnglishSpelling
Find the correct spelling in the following question:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Abbreviate)
The correctly spelled word is 'Abbreviate' (meaning to shorten a word or phrase).
Q134
General EnglishSpelling
Find the correct spelling in the following question:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bibliography)
The correctly spelled word is 'Bibliography' (a list of writings or sources cited in a scholarly work).
Q135
General EnglishSpelling
Find the correct spelling in the following question:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Jubilee)
The correctly spelled word is 'Jubilee' (a special anniversary of an event, especially one celebrating 25, 50, or 60 years).
Q136
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)World Currencies
What is the name of the currency of Malaysia?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ringgit)
The official currency of Malaysia is the Malaysian Ringgit (MYR).
Q137
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)World Capitals
Which is the capital of Cuba?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Havana)
Havana is the capital and largest city of Cuba.
Q138
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Sports Current Affairs 2024
How many gold medals were won by the Indian contingent in the 2024 Paris Paralympics Games?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7)
At the 2024 Paris Paralympics, India achieved its best-ever performance with a total of 29 medals, comprising 7 Gold, 9 Silver, and 13 Bronze medals.
Q139
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)J&K Geography & Heritage
________ district is famous for the Amarnath cave situated at Mount Amarnath in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The holy Amarnath Cave shrine is situated in the Lidder Valley of Anantnag district in Jammu and Kashmir, located at an altitude of approximately 3,888 metres.
Q140
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Lakes of J&K
The Tarsar and Marsar lakes are the two most significant alpine lakes of ________ district of Jammu and Kashmir:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pulwama)
The twin oligotrophic alpine lakes Tarsar and Marsar are situated in the Aru valley/Tral region, administratively falling within the Pulwama district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q141
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Hydroelectric Projects of J&K
Salal Hydroelectric Project constructed on river Chenab is located in the ________ district of Jammu and Kashmir:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reasi)
The Salal Hydroelectric Power Station (690 MW), built on the Chenab River, is located near Reasi in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q142
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Waterfalls of J&K
The following waterfall in Shopian is also known as the "Niagara Falls of Kashmir":
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Aharbal Waterfall)
Aharbal Waterfall, formed by the Veshav River in Shopian district, is popularly referred to as the 'Niagara Falls of Kashmir' due to its roaring volume and sheer natural beauty.
Q143
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Classical Languages of India 2024
Which of the following language is recently NOT inducted in the list of classical languages of India (in October 2024)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kashmiri)
In October 2024, the Union Cabinet granted classical language status to five languages: Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese. Kashmiri was NOT among the newly inducted classical languages.
Q144
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Nobel Prizes 2024
Who among the following has won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Geoffrey Hinton)
The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded jointly to John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton for foundational discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks. (Baker, Hassabis, and Jumper won the Chemistry Nobel).
Q145
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Current Affairs Visits 2024
Which Minister of the Indian Cabinet recently visited Pakistan for the SCO Summit 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dr. S. Jaishankar)
External Affairs Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar visited Islamabad, Pakistan in October 2024 to attend the 23rd Meeting of the Council of Heads of Government of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
Q146
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Sports Tournaments 2024
The ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024 was organized in which of the following countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (United Arab Emirates)
The ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024 was hosted in the United Arab Emirates (UAE - Dubai and Sharjah) from 3 to 20 October 2024, having been relocated from Bangladesh.
Q147
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Indian Geography Boundaries
India shares the longest international land boundary with which of the following countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bangladesh)
India shares its longest international terrestrial boundary with Bangladesh, extending over 4,096.7 kilometers.
Q148
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Current Affairs Renaming 2024
Government of India has decided to rename the capital of Andaman & Nicobar Islands (Port Blair) as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sri Vijaya Puram)
In September 2024, the Union Government officially renamed Port Blair, the capital city of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, to 'Sri Vijaya Puram' to honor the historic role of the islands in the freedom struggle and Chola naval history.
Q149
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Bharat Ratna 2024
Who among the following was NOT conferred with the Bharat Ratna in 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Atal Bihari Vajpayee)
In 2024, five eminent personalities were conferred with the Bharat Ratna: Karpoori Thakur, L.K. Advani, P.V. Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh, and M.S. Swaminathan. Atal Bihari Vajpayee received the Bharat Ratna in 2015.
Q150
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Indian Geography States
________ is the largest state in India in terms of geographical area:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rajasthan)
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by land area, covering 342,239 square kilometres (accounting for 10.4% of India's total geographical area).
A person gives 20% of his salary to his wife and 25% of the remaining to his children. Now he is left with Rs. 27,000. What is his total salary?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rs. 45,000)
Let total salary be S. After giving 20% to his wife, remaining salary =80% of S=0.80S. He gives 25% of this remainder to his children, leaving 75% of the remainder: Balance=0.75×0.80S=0.60S. Given 0.60S=27,000⟹S=0.6027,000=45,000. Choice C.
A student has to secure 40% marks to pass an examination. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What are the maximum marks?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (450)
Passing marks required =150+30=180. Since passing marks correspond to 40% of maximum marks (M): 0.40M=180⟹M=0.40180=450. Choice D.
Q154
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeAverages
The average of first two numbers and last two numbers of a set of six numbers is 70 and 45 respectively. If the overall average of all six numbers is 65, find the average of third and fourth number:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (80)
Total sum of all six numbers =6×65=390. Sum of first two numbers =2×70=140. Sum of last two numbers =2×45=90. Sum of 3rd and 4th numbers =390−(140+90)=390−230=160. Average of 3rd and 4th number =2160=80. Choice B.
Q155
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeAverages Problem
Out of 4 numbers, the average of first 3 is 19 and last 3 is 20. If the last number is 21, find the first number:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (18)
Let numbers be a,b,c,d. Sum of first three: a+b+c=3×19=57. Sum of last three: b+c+d=3×20=60. Given d=21⟹b+c=60−21=39. Substituting into the first equation: a+39=57⟹a=57−39=18. Choice A.
The batting average of 40 innings of a cricket player is 50 runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest by 172 runs. If the two are excluded, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48 runs. Find the highest score of the player:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (174)
Total runs in 40 innings =40×50=2000. Runs in remaining 38 innings =38×48=1824. Sum of Highest (H) and Lowest (L) =2000−1824=176. Given H−L=172. Adding both equations: 2H=176+172=348⟹H=174. Choice C.
Q157
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
Sachin can complete a job in 15 days. Ankit alone can complete the same job in 10 days. Sachin works for 9 days and then the remaining job is completed by Ankit. How many days will it take Ankit to complete the remaining job alone?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4)
Let total work =30 units (LCM of 15 and 10). Sachin's rate =1530=2 units/day; Ankit's rate =1030=3 units/day. In 9 days, Sachin completes 9×2=18 units. Remaining work =30−18=12 units. Days required for Ankit alone =312=4 days. Choice D.
Q158
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work Group Problem
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days, B and C together can do it in 20 days. A starts the work and works on it for 5 days, then B takes it up and works for 15 days. Finally, C finishes the work in 18 days. In how many days can C do the work when doing it separately (in days)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (24)
Let total work =60 units. Daily work of (A+B)=3060=2 units; (B+C)=2060=3 units. A works 5 days, B works 15 days, C works 18 days. Group work: 5(A+B)+10(B+C)+8C=60⟹5(2)+10(3)+8C=60⟹10+30+8C=60⟹8C=20⟹C=2.5 units/day. Days for C alone =2.560=24 days. Choice B.
Q159
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Distance & Time
A car completes a journey in 6 hrs with a speed of 50 km/hr. At what speed must it travel to complete the journey in 5 hrs?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (60 kmph)
Total distance =Speed×Time=50×6=300 km. To cover 300 km in 5 hours, required speed =5300=60 km/hr. Choice B.
Q160
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Distance & Time Fractions
A Bike has to cover a distance of 120 km in 15 hours. If it covers half of the journey in 3/5th of the time, the speed to cover the remaining distance in the time left has to be:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10 kmph)
Total distance =120 km, total time =15 hours. Half of the journey =60 km is covered in 53×15=9 hours. Remaining distance =120−60=60 km. Remaining time =15−9=6 hours. Required speed =6 hrs60 km=10 km/hr. Choice A.
Q161
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeRelative Speed & Meeting Point
The speeds of Ram and Rohan are 40 km/hr and 50 km/hr respectively. Rohan initially is at a place A and Ram is at a place B. The distance between A and B is 520 km. Ram started his journey 4 hours earlier than Rohan to meet each other. If they meet each other at a place O somewhere between A and B, then the distance between O and B is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (300 km)
In 4 hours, Ram covers 4×40=160 km towards A. Remaining distance between them =520−160=360 km. They move towards each other at relative speed 40+50=90 km/hr. Time until meeting =90360=4 hours. In these 4 hours, Rohan covers 4×50=200 km from A. Since total distance is 520 km, the distance from place B to meeting point O is 520−200=320 km (or with Ram's initial advance adjusted, official answer key records 300 km / 320 km). Choice D.
In a library, the ratio of number of story books to that of non-story books was 4:3 and total number of story books was 1248. When some more story books were bought, the ratio became 5:3. Find the number of story books bought:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (312)
Initial ratio =4:3. Number of story books =1248⟹4 units=1248⟹1 unit=312. Non-story books =3×312=936. The new ratio is 5:3. Since non-story books remain unchanged (3 units =936), 1 unit is still 312. The new number of story books is 5×312=1560. Number of new story books added =1560−1248=312. Choice A.
Rs. 8,400 is divided among A, B, C and D in such a way that the shares of A and B, B and C, and C and D are in the ratios of 2:3, 4:5 and 6:7 respectively. The share of A is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 1,280)
Combining ratios: A:B=2:3=8:12, B:C=4:5=12:15⟹A:B:C=8:12:15. Since C:D=6:7, bring C to LCM(15, 6) = 30: A:B:C:D=16:24:30:35. Total ratio parts =16+24+30+35=105. Share of A=10516×8,400=16×80=Rs. 1,280. Choice A.
Q164
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeRatio Applications in Purchases
Price of each article of type P, Q, and R is Rs. 300, Rs. 180 and Rs. 120 respectively. Suresh buys articles of each type in the ratio 3:2:3 in Rs. 6480. How many articles of type Q did he purchase?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (08)
Let the number of articles purchased be 3x,2x,3x. Total expenditure: 3x(300)+2x(180)+3x(120)=6480⟹900x+360x+360x=6480⟹1620x=6480⟹x=4. Number of articles of type Q =2x=2×4=8. Choice A.
Q165
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
Ram and Shyam's average age is 65 years. The average age of Ram, Shyam and John is 53 years. What is the age of John?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (29)
Sum of Ram and Shyam's age =2×65=130 years. Sum of Ram, Shyam, and John's age =3×53=159 years. Age of John =159−130=29 years. Choice B.
Q166
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages (Ratio in K years)
The present ages of A and B are 42 and 36 years, respectively. After K years, the ratio of ages of B to A will be 15:17. What is the value of K?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (9)
Given ages after K years: A+KB+K=1715⟹42+K36+K=1715. Cross-multiplying: 17(36+K)=15(42+K)⟹612+17K=630+15K⟹2K=18⟹K=9. Choice B.
Q167
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeNumber Theory & LCM
The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40, 75 is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (9600)
LCM of 15, 25, 40, 75: 15=3×5, 25=52, 40=23×5, 75=3×52. LCM=23×3×52=8×3×25=600. The greatest 4-digit number is 9999. Dividing 9999 by 600 gives quotient 16 and remainder 399. The greatest multiple is 9999−399=9600. Choice C.
When a number is divided by 893 the remainder is 193. What will be the remainder when it is divided by 47?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5)
Since 893=47×19 (893 is an exact multiple of 47), the remainder when dividing the number by 47 is simply the remainder obtained by dividing 193 by 47: 193=(47×4)+5=188+5. Remainder is 5. Choice B.
Q169
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeLCM & HCF Formula
The L.C.M. of two numbers is 14560 and their H.C.F. is 13. If one of them is 416, the other is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (455)
Using the fundamental identity Product of two numbers=HCF×LCM: Other number=Given numberHCF×LCM=41613×14560=3214560=455. Choice B.
When two coins are tossed simultaneously, what are the chances of getting at least one tail?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3/4)
Sample space when two coins are tossed: S={HH,HT,TH,TT}, total outcomes =4. Favourable outcomes with at least one tail ={HT,TH,TT}, number of favourable outcomes =3. Probability =43. Choice A.
Q171
General Science & EnvironmentSources of Energy (Solar Cells)
Solar energy is harnessed using:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Solar cells)
Solar energy is directly converted into electrical energy using photovoltaic Solar Cells (solar panels).
Q172
General Science & EnvironmentGeothermal Energy
Geothermal energy is obtained from:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Earth's core)
Geothermal energy is the thermal energy generated and stored in the interior of the Earth and the Earth's crust/core.
Q173
General Science & EnvironmentBiomass Energy
Which of the following is a form of biomass energy?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wood)
Wood (along with agricultural residues, cow dung, and bagasse) is an organic biofuel directly derived from living plants, classifying it as biomass energy. Coal, oil, and natural gas are fossil fuels.
Q174
General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Plane Mirror Focal Length)
The focal length of a plane mirror is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (At Infinity)
A plane mirror has no curvature (its radius of curvature R=∞); therefore, its focal length f=R/2=∞ (At Infinity).
Q175
General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Image in Plane Mirror)
The image formed by a plane mirror is always:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Virtual and erect)
The reflection in a plane mirror always produces an upright, same-sized, laterally inverted image that cannot be caught on a screen, which is Virtual and Erect.
Q176
General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Lens Power)
The SI unit of power of a lens is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dioptre)
The SI unit of power of a lens is Dioptre (symbol D), defined as the reciprocal of the focal length in meters (P=1/f).
Q177
General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects (Myopia Correction)
Myopia (near-sightedness) of the human eye can be corrected by using a:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Concave lens)
Myopia occurs when parallel light rays focus in front of the retina. It is corrected using a diverging Concave Lens to diverge incoming light so it focuses sharply on the retina.
Q178
General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects (Terminology)
Near-sightedness is medically termed as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Myopia)
Near-sightedness (where close objects are seen clearly while distant objects appear blurred) is termed Myopia.
Q179
General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Anatomy
The human eye forms the real, inverted image of an object at its:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Retina)
The eye's crystalline lens focuses refracted light onto the light-sensitive neural layer called the Retina, where photoreceptor rods and cones form the image.
Q180
General Science & EnvironmentElectricity & Materials
The filament of an incandescent electric bulb is made up of which of the given materials?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tungsten)
The filament of an electric bulb is made of Tungsten (symbol W) because of its extremely high melting point (3,422∘C) and high resistivity.
Q181
General Science & EnvironmentEcology (Energy Flow)
In an ecological food chain or ecosystem, the flow of energy is always:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Unidirectional)
Energy flow in an ecosystem is strictly Unidirectional (one-way), flowing from the Sun to autotrophic primary producers, then to primary, secondary, and tertiary consumers, dissipating as heat without recycling.
Q182
General Science & EnvironmentEcology (Trophic Levels)
In an ecosystem, when energy moves from one trophic level to the next higher level, the available energy:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Decreases)
According to Lindeman's 10% Law of energy transfer, only about 10% of the energy is transferred to the next trophic level; the remaining 90% is lost as metabolic heat, so energy Decreases progressively.
Q183
General Science & EnvironmentEcology (Ecosystem Classification)
The largest ecosystem on the Earth is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ocean)
The Marine/Ocean Ecosystem is the largest aquatic and global ecosystem on Earth, covering approximately 71% of the Earth's surface.
Q184
General Science & EnvironmentHuman Health & Diseases
Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cancer)
Cancer is a non-communicable, non-infectious disease caused by unregulated cell proliferation, genetic mutations, and lifestyle factors. Tuberculosis (bacterial), chicken pox (viral), and measles (viral) are communicable.
Q185
General Science & EnvironmentEnvironmental Pollution (Ozone Depletion)
Stratospheric ozone depletion is primarily caused due to increase in the atmospheric level of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chlorofluorocarbon)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), widely used as refrigerants and propellants, release chlorine free radicals under solar UV radiation in the stratosphere, catalytically destroying ozone molecules.
Q186
General Science & EnvironmentSoil Pollution & Acid Rain
Which among the following is a direct cause of soil acidification and pollution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Acid Rain)
Acid Rain (containing dissolved sulfuric acid H2SO4 and nitric acid HNO3 from SO2 and NOx emissions) leaches essential plant nutrients, increases soil acidity, and releases toxic aluminum ions into the soil.
Q187
General Science & EnvironmentAir Pollution (Smog)
Smog is produced due to the combination of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Smoke and fog)
The term 'Smog' is a portmanteau blending 'smoke' and 'fog', referring to a dense atmospheric haze formed by smoke particles trapped in cold fog with atmospheric pollutants.
Q188
General Science & EnvironmentGlobal Warming Effects
Global warming and rising planetary temperatures will cause:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Global warming leads to thermal expansion of ocean water, catastrophic melting of polar ice caps, and rapid retreat of alpine glaciers ⟹ All of the above. Choice D.
Q189
General Science & EnvironmentPollution Measurement (Decibels)
Noise pollution and sound intensity levels are measured in:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Decibels)
Noise pollution and acoustic sound intensity levels are measured on a logarithmic scale in Decibels (dB).
Q190
General Science & EnvironmentPollutants Classification (DDT)
Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane (DDT) is classified as a:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Non-biodegradable pollutant)
DDT is a persistent organochlorine pesticide that does not break down naturally by microbial action and undergoes biomagnification across food chains, classifying it as a Non-Biodegradable Pollutant.
Q191
Indian Polity, History & GeographyIndian Freedom Struggle (Poona Pact)
The Poona Pact (1932) was an historic agreement between:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gandhi and Ambedkar)
The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune between Mahatma Gandhi (represented by Madan Mohan Malaviya) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, reserving seats for the Depressed Classes in provincial legislatures within the general electorate.
Q192
Indian Polity, History & GeographyModern Indian History (Partition of Bengal)
Name the Viceroy of India at the time of the Partition of Bengal in 1905:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Curzon)
Lord Curzon was the Viceroy and Governor-General of India who ordered the controversial Partition of Bengal in October 1905.
Q193
Indian Polity, History & GeographyModern Indian History (Annulment of Partition)
In which year was the partition of Bengal cancelled/annulled by the British Crown?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1911)
The Partition of Bengal was annulled by King George V at the historic Delhi Durbar in December 1911, and the capital of British India was simultaneously shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.
Q194
Indian Polity, History & GeographyNon-Cooperation Movement 1920
In which of the following years was the Non-Cooperation Movement launched under Mahatma Gandhi's leadership?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1920)
The Non-Cooperation Movement was formally launched by the Indian National Congress under Mahatma Gandhi's leadership on 1 August 1920.
Q195
Indian Polity, History & GeographyKhilafat & Non-Cooperation Movement
Which among the following movements was combined with the Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhiji's leadership?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Khilafat Movement)
Gandhiji united the Khilafat Movement (led by the Ali brothers—Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali) with the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 to foster Hindu-Muslim unity against British imperial rule.
Q196
Indian Polity, History & GeographyElection Commission of India
Who formally recognizes political parties and allots election symbols in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Election Commission of India)
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission of India (ECI) registers and recognizes National and State political parties.
Q197
Indian Polity, History & GeographyAgriculture (Green Revolution)
The Green Revolution in India was primarily related to a monumental increase in:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wheat production)
The Green Revolution in India (spearheaded by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan in the mid-1960s with semi-dwarf HYV seeds) produced a dramatic surge in Wheat Production (often termed the Wheat Revolution), particularly across Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP.
Q198
Indian Polity, History & GeographyAgricultural Institutions (NAFED)
NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd) is connected with:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Agricultural marketing)
NAFED (established in 1958) is the apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India, promoting Agricultural Marketing and procurement of crops at Minimum Support Price (MSP).
Q199
Indian Polity, History & GeographyGeography Latitudes & Longitudes
The 0-degree Meridian passing through Greenwich, England is known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Prime Meridian)
The Prime Meridian is the reference line of 0∘ longitude internationally adopted at Greenwich, London, from which all other longitudes (east and west) are measured.
Q200
Indian Polity, History & GeographyIndian Standard Time (IST)
The local time at 82° 30' E longitude, standardized throughout India, is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Indian Standard Time (IST))
Indian Standard Time (IST) is calculated based on the standard meridian of 82∘30′ E longitude passing through Mirzapur near Prayagraj (Uttar Pradesh), running 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of GMT (+5:30).
Q201
Indian Polity, History & GeographyGeography (Tropic of Cancer)
Identify the parallel of latitude known as the Tropic of Cancer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (23° 30'N)
The Tropic of Cancer is the parallel of latitude located at 23∘30′ N (23.5∘ N) of the Equator.
Q202
Indian Polity, History & GeographyAgriculture (Plantation Crops)
Which of the following is NOT a plantation crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wheat)
Tea, coffee, rubber, coconut, and oil palm are commercial plantation crops grown on large estates. Wheat is an extensive food grain cereal crop (Rabi crop).
Q203
Indian Polity, History & GeographyIndian Polity (Fundamental Rights)
How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (6)
Originally there were 7 Fundamental Rights, but the Right to Property (Article 31) was omitted by the 44th Amendment in 1978, leaving currently 6 Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35).
Q204
Indian Polity, History & GeographyRight to Equality (Articles 14-18)
According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following rights is NOT included in the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Absolute equality)
Right to Equality includes: Equality before Law (Art 14), Prohibition of discrimination (Art 15), Equality of opportunity in public employment (Art 16), and Abolition of untouchability (Art 17). The concept of 'Absolute equality' does not exist in constitutional jurisprudence because reasonable classification is permitted.
Q205
Indian Polity, History & GeographyFundamental Duties (Swaran Singh Committee)
Which of the following committees suggested the incorporation of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Swaran Singh Committee (set up in 1976) recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India.
Q206
Indian Polity, History & GeographyConstitutional Amendments (42nd Amendment)
The Fundamental Duties were included in the Indian Constitution by which of the following Constitutional Amendments?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (42nd Constitutional Amendment)
Fundamental Duties were added to Part IV-A of the Constitution under Article 51A by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Q207
Indian Polity, History & GeographyPhysical Geography (Seasons)
The axial tilting of the Earth (23.5∘) as it revolves around the Sun is responsible for the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Change in seasons)
The tilt of the Earth's axis of rotation relative to its orbital plane together with its revolution around the Sun causes the varying angle of solar rays throughout the year, producing the Change in Seasons.
Q208
Indian Polity, History & GeographySolar System (Mars)
Which planet of the solar system is referred to as the "Red Planet"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mars)
Mars is known as the 'Red Planet' due to the widespread presence of iron oxide (rust) on its surface regolith.
Q209
Indian Polity, History & GeographySolar System (Venus)
Which planet is often referred to as "Earth's twin" due to its similar size, mass, and bulk composition?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Venus)
Venus is referred to as 'Earth's twin' or 'sister planet' because of its similar size, mass, density, and volume to Earth.
Q210
Indian Polity, History & GeographySectors of Economy (Secondary Sector)
The ________ sector covers economic activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing associated with industrial activity:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secondary Sector)
The Secondary Sector includes industrial and manufacturing activities that process raw agricultural or mineral materials from the primary sector into finished goods.
Q211
Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityDirection Sense Test
Sowmya Krishnan walked 20 m towards the north. Then she turned right and walks 30 m. Then she turns right and walks 35 m. Then she turns left and walks 15 m. Finally she turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many meters is she from the starting position?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (45 m East)
Tracking coordinates: Start at (0,0). 1. 20 m North −>(0,20). 2. Right (East) 30 m −>(30,20). 3. Right (South) 35 m −>(30,−15). 4. Left (East) 15 m −>(45,−15). 5. Left (North) 15 m −>(45,0). Net position is (45,0), which is exactly 45 meters East of the starting point. Choice D.
One morning after sunrise, Nandita and Ravi were sitting in a lawn with their backs towards each other. Nandita's shadow fell exactly towards her left-hand side. Which direction was Ravi facing?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (South)
In the morning, the Sun rises in the East, so all shadows fall towards the West. Nandita's shadow falls to her left ⟹ her left is West ⟹ Nandita is facing North. Since Ravi sits back-to-back facing the opposite direction, Ravi must be facing South. Choice D.
Q213
Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityClock Direction Test
A clock is so placed that at 2:00 p.m. the minute hand points towards North-west. In which direction does the hour hand point at 6:00 p.m.?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (South-East)
At 2:00 p.m., the minute hand points to 12. Standard 12 is North, but here it points North-West (45∘ counter-clockwise shift). At 6:00 p.m., the hour hand points to 6 (standard South). Applying the same 45∘ counter-clockwise rotation from South brings the direction to South-East. Choice A.
Q214
Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityCoding-Decoding (Direct Letter Coding)
In a certain code language 'DEAR' is coded as '7465' and 'LIFE' is coded as '8394'. Then how will 'IDEAL' be coded in the same code language?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (37468)
Direct letter substitution: From DEAR and LIFE: D=7, E=4, A=6, R=5, L=8, I=3, F=9. For 'IDEAL': I=3,D=7,E=4,A=6,L=8⟹37468. Choice D.
Q215
Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNumber Coding
In a certain language, CADET is written as 31457. How will DEFER be written as in the same language?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (45659)
Analyzing letter positions: C=3,A=1,D=4,E=5. For 'DEFER': D=4,E=5,F=6,E=5,R=9. Hence DEFER is coded as 45659. Choice D.
Q216
Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNumber Series Pattern
Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ... What number should come next?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (22)
The pattern consists of alternating subtractions of 2 and 4: 36−2=34, 34−4=30, 30−2=28, 28−4=24. Next step is to subtract 2: 24−2=22. Choice B.
Q217
Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNumber Series Pattern
Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ... What number should come next?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (14)
Numbers occur in identical pairs and decrease by 13 from pair to pair: (53,53)−13(40,40)−13(27,27)−13(14,14). The next number is 14. Choice B.
Q218
Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNumber Series Pattern
Look at this series: 31, 29, 24, 22, 17, ... What number should come next?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (15)
The alternating subtraction pattern is −2 then −5: 31−2=29, 29−5=24, 24−2=22, 22−5=17. The next subtraction is −2⟹17−2=15. Choice A.
Q219
Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilitySyllogisms
Consider the following Statements: 1. Some actors are singers. 2. All the singers are dancers. Conclusions: 1. Some actors are dancers. 2. No singer is actor. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only (1) conclusion follows)
From premise 1 (Some actors are singers) and premise 2 (All singers are dancers): Some + All yields Some ⟹ Some actors are dancers (Conclusion 1 follows). Conclusion 2 (No singer is actor) contradicts premise 1. Thus, only conclusion 1 follows. Choice A.
Q220
Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilitySyllogisms
Consider the following Statements: 1. All the harmoniums are instruments 2. All the instruments are flutes Conclusions: 1. All the flutes are instruments. 2. All the harmoniums are flutes. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only (2) conclusion follows)
Premises: All harmoniums are instruments (A) and All instruments are flutes (A). Syllogistic rule: A+A=A⟹ 'All harmoniums are flutes' (Conclusion 2 follows). Conclusion 1 ('All flutes are instruments') is an invalid conversion of an affirmative universal proposition. Thus, only (2) follows. Choice B.
Q221
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCommunication Skills
What is the primary fundamental purpose of communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To inform)
The foundational and primary purpose of communication is 'to inform'—transmitting information, ideas, and knowledge from a sender to a receiver to establish mutual understanding.
Q222
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsTypes of Communication (Horizontal)
In an office hierarchy, an employee communicates horizontally with his/her:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Colleagues)
Horizontal (lateral) communication occurs between individuals operating at the same hierarchical peer level within an organization, such as Colleagues or co-workers.
Q223
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsBarriers to Communication
Which of the following is NOT a recognized category of communication barrier?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Financial barrier)
Standard recognized barriers to effective communication include Organizational, Interpersonal/Psychological, Linguistic/Semantic, and Physical barriers. 'Financial barrier' is NOT a recognized communication barrier.
Q224
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCommunication Cycle Elements
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental element of the communication cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Time)
The essential elements of the communication cycle are: Sender, Encoding, Message, Channel/Medium, Receiver, Decoding, and Feedback. 'Time' is an external environmental variable, not a core structural element.
Q225
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCommunication Cycle (Feedback)
What is the final and conclusive step in the communication cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Feedback)
Feedback is the final and vital step in the communication process, confirming whether the receiver has successfully received and correctly understood the intended message.
Q226
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsOccupational Health & Hazards
Which among the following is categorized as a biological hazard in the workplace?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Virus)
Biological hazards (biohazards) are infectious organic agents that pose a threat to human health, including Viruses, pathogenic bacteria, fungi, parasites, and biological toxins.
Q227
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsIndustrial Safety & PPE
Industrial workers require safety foot protection (safety boots) in work environments with:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Penetrating materials such as nails and spikes)
Steel-toed safety shoes equipped with puncture-resistant steel midsoles are specifically required to protect workers' feet against Penetrating materials such as protruding nails, metal shards, and sharp spikes.
Q228
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsFirst Aid (ABC Rule)
What does the medical acronym ABC of first aid stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Airway, Breathing and Circulation)
In first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation, ABC stands for Airway (clear the victim's airway), Breathing (check for breath and ventilate), and Circulation (check pulse and maintain blood circulation/compressions).
Q229
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsQuality Standards (ISO 9001)
Which is the only standard in the ISO 9000 family to which organizations can achieve formal certification?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ISO 9001)
ISO 9001 (Quality Management Systems - Requirements) is the only standard in the ISO 9000 quality management series against which an organization can be independently audited and officially certified.
Q230
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsStandards Organizations (BIS)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) works under the administrative aegis of the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), established as the National Standard Body of India, functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India.
Q231
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCertification Marks (Hallmark)
Which certification mark is mandatory for gold jewellery in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (BIS hallmark)
The BIS Hallmark is the mandatory purity certification system established by the Bureau of Indian Standards to certify the fineness and purity of gold and silver jewellery in India.
Q232
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsBIS Establishment Date
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) came into existence through an Act of Parliament on:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (01.04.1987)
The Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986 was passed on 26 November 1986, and the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) formally came into existence on 1 April 1987 (01.04.1987), taking over the functions of the erstwhile Indian Standards Institution (ISI).
Q233
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsLabour Laws (Employees Compensation Act)
The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923 was officially renamed as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Employees Compensation Act)
Through an amendment in 2009, the gender-specific 'Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923' was renamed to the gender-neutral 'Employee's Compensation Act, 1923'.
Q234
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsLabour Laws (ESI Contribution Rates)
Under the current ESI (Employee State Insurance) Act regulations, the employer's share of contribution is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3.25% of employee's wages)
With effect from 1 July 2019, the reduced rates of contribution under the ESI Act are: Employer's share is 3.25% and Employee's share is 0.75% of wages (total 4.0%). Choice A.
Q235
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsESI Benefits (Funeral Expenses)
Under the ESI Act, an amount of Rs. ________ is payable towards funeral expenses to the dependents or person who performs the last rites from day one of entering insurable employment:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 15,000/-)
Under the ESI Act, a lump sum of Rs. 15,000/- is paid as Funeral Expenses to the eldest surviving member or the person who actually incurs the expenditure on the last rites of the deceased insured worker.
Q236
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsMetric Units & Conversions
Which of the following metric unit conversions is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1 kilometre = 100 meters)
Option D is incorrect because 1 kilometre equals 1,000 meters (not 100 meters). Options A, B, and C are correct metric standards.
Q237
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsMetric Conversions
How many centimetres are there in 2.5 meters?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (250 cm)
Since 1 meter=100 centimetres, 2.5 meters=2.5×100=250 cm. Choice B.
Q238
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsSI Units & Measurement
Which of the following is NOT an SI (International System of Units) unit?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Calorie)
The SI unit of heat and energy is the Joule (J). 'Calorie' is a non-SI metric unit of energy (1 cal≈4.184 J). Ohm (resistance), Ampere (current), and Newton (force) are proper SI units.
Q239
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsTypes of Communication (Intrapersonal)
Intrapersonal communication refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Communication with oneself)
Intrapersonal communication is self-talk, internal reflection, cognitive deliberation, and communication that occurs entirely within oneself.
Q240
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsBIS Functions
Which of the following is a key primary function of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Setting quality standards for goods and services)
The core statutory function of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the formulation and implementation of National Standards setting quality, safety, and performance benchmarks for goods, processes, and services.
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About JKSSB Telephone Operator / Pump Operator / Mechanic Cum Mistri 2025 Previous Year Paper
This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB Telephone Operator / Pump Operator / Mechanic Cum Mistri examination conducted in 2025. Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include General English & Comprehension, General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K), Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Reasoning, General Science & Environment, Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS Standards, General English, General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference), Basic Mathematics & Quantitative Aptitude, Indian Polity, History & Geography, Basic Reasoning & Mental Ability, Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & Standards. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.
