General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank using a suitable article: _____ unique artist often develops _____ signature style that distinguishes them and their work from their peers.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A, a)
'Unique' begins with a consonant 'y' sound (/juː/), taking indefinite article 'A'. 'Signature style' takes indefinite article 'a': 'A unique artist often develops a signature style...'.
Q2
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Select the Synonyms of the word: Jabber
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Prattle)
'Jabber' means to talk rapidly, indistinctly, or nonsensically. Its direct synonym is 'Prattle' (or chatter).
Q3
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Select the Antonym of the word: Byzantine
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Candid)
'Byzantine' describes something excessively complicated, devious, or convoluted. Its antonym is 'Candid' (or simple, straightforward, transparent).
Q4
General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
What is one of the primary reasons for the increasing vulnerability of networks in today's digital landscape?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The rapid increase of IoT devices)
According to the passage, 'The proliferation of Internet of Things (IoT) devices has expanded the attack surface by making networks more susceptible to unauthorized access.'
Q5
General English & ComprehensionCybersecurity & Vocabulary
In the context of cybersecurity, what does the term 'social engineering' refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Manipulating individuals into revealing confidential information)
Social engineering in cybersecurity refers to the psychological manipulation of human individuals to trick them into divulging sensitive passwords, credentials, or confidential information.
Q6
General English & ComprehensionSpellings & Vocabulary
Which of the following is the correct spelling of the word that means "the action of throwing someone out of a window"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Defenestration)
The correct spelling is 'Defenestration' (from Latin fenestra, meaning window).
Q7
General English & ComprehensionSpellings & Vocabulary
Which of the following is the correct spelling of the word that means "excessively talkative"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Garrulous)
The correct spelling is 'Garrulous' (meaning excessively talkative, especially on trivial matters).
Q8
General English & ComprehensionSentence Completion & Fill in Blanks
Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. The facilitator _____ the advantages of collaborative tasks to _____ learners teamwork skills.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (emphasized, enhance)
'The facilitator emphasized the advantages of collaborative tasks to enhance learners teamwork skills' is idiomatic and grammatically precise.
Q9
General English & ComprehensionNouns & Parts of Speech
The abstract noun in the below sentence is: It requires immense determination to pursue your dreams despite obstacles.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (determination)
'Determination' is an abstract noun denoting the quality of being resolute and firmness of purpose.
Q10
General English & ComprehensionPronouns & Parts of Speech
The indefinite pronoun in the below sentence is: Mohan in the audience expressed concern about whether anything could be done to improve the situation.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (anything)
'Anything' is an indefinite pronoun referring to an unspecified thing or matter.
Q11
General English & ComprehensionHomophones & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank using suitable homophones: Despite the _____ remarks made by the coach, the athlete continued to train hard and developed a _____ on her hand by gripping the weights.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (callous, callus)
'Callous' (adjective) means insensitive, unfeeling, or harsh. 'Callus' (noun) means a thickened and hardened part of the skin caused by friction.
Q12
General English & ComprehensionTenses
The form of tense used in the below sentence is: By the time the conference starts, the researchers will have been studying the effects of climate change on biodiversity for the next five years.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Future Perfect Continuous Tense)
The construction 'will have been studying' represents the Future Perfect Continuous Tense (will + have + been + present participle), describing an ongoing action extending up to a future point.
Let p(x) is a polynomial of degree 6 in the form of a1x^6 + a2x^5 + ... + a6*x + a7. It has only one root at x = -1, that is p(-1) = 0. Find the value of a2 and a3 respectively.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (15, 20)
A degree-6 monic polynomial with only root at x=−1 has the form (x+1)6=x6+6x5+15x4+20x3+15x2+6x+1. Its successive binomial coefficients are 15,20.
Q14
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsAverages & Number Sequences
A girl is playing with a sequence of three numbers, each of which is the square of consecutive natural numbers. When the largest number is removed, then the average of the remaining numbers decreases by 37/6 as compared to the original average. What is the value of the largest square in the old sequence?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (49)
Let the consecutive numbers be n,n+1,n+2. The original average of their squares: A1=3n2+(n+1)2+(n+2)2=33n2+6n+5 When (n+2)2 is removed, the average of n2 and (n+1)2 is: A2=2n2+(n+1)2=22n2+2n+1 A1−A2=62(3n2+6n+5)−3(2n2+2n+1)=66n+7 Given 66n+7=637⟹6n+7=37⟹6n=30⟹n=5. The numbers are 5, 6, 7. The largest square is 72=49.
Fresh food contains 40% water, whereas dried food contains only 24% water. Starting with 100 kg of fresh food, how much dried food can be produced?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (78.9)
100 kg of fresh food contains 100−40=60 kg of dry solid pulp. In dried food, solids constitute 100−24=76%. Weight of dried food×0.76=60⟹Weight=0.7660≈78.9 kg.
Q16
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsLCM and HCF & Prime Factorization
Three co-prime numbers a, b, c satisfy the following conditions: LCM(a,b) = 437 LCM(b,c) = 667 LCM(a,c) = 551 Find the value of a + b + c
💡Correct Answer: Option C (71)
Since a,b,c are pairwise co-prime prime factors: - ab=437=19×23 - bc=667=23×29 - ac=551=19×29 Thus a=19,b=23,c=29. a+b+c=19+23+29=71.
A bike was bought for Rs 45,000 at a certain discount, and its value depreciates by 8% annually. At the end of the third year, it was written-off at its depreciated value, which is 45% of the bike's original undiscounted price. What is the original undiscounted price of the bike?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (77869)
Depreciated value after 3 years: V3=45000×(1−0.08)3=45000×(0.92)3=45000×0.778688=35040.96 Rs Given V3=0.45×Poriginal: Poriginal=0.4535040.96≈77,868.8≈77,869 Rs.
Q18
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsNumber Theory & Remainders
Two children are playing a game in which one child thinks of a three-digit number N, and the other child guesses it by asking for remainders when N is divided by certain numbers. The clues are: 1. The remainder when N is divided by 3 is 2. 2. The remainder when N is divided by 5 is 4. 3. The remainder when N is divided by 7 is 6. 4. The sum of the digits of N is 11. Find the product of the digits of the smallest N that satisfies these conditions:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0)
From the remainder conditions: N≡−1(modLCM(3,5,7))⟹N≡−1(mod105)⟹N=105k−1. - For k=1:N=104 (Sum of digits = 5) - For k=2:N=209 (Sum of digits = 2+0+9=11, matches condition 4!). The smallest three-digit number is N=209. Product of digits =2×0×9=0.
Q19
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsSquares and Square Roots
A boy wanted to think of a large perfect square and guessed the number 98,765. However, it turned out that 98,765 is not a perfect square. Help him find the perfect square closest to 98,765.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (98596)
98765≈314.269. - 3142=98,596 (difference = 98765−98596=169) - 3152=99,225 (difference = 99225−98765=460). The closest perfect square is 3142=98596.
Q20
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages & Ratios
The ratio of the ages of three friends A, B, and C is 3:5:7. Eight years ago, the ratio of their ages was 1:3:5. Find their present ages.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (12, 20, 28)
Let present ages be 3x,5x,7x. 8 years ago: 5x−83x−8=31⟹9x−24=5x−8⟹4x=16⟹x=4 Present ages: 3(4)=12,5(4)=20,7(4)=28 years.
Q21
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsAverages
The average weight of a group of 10 boys is 52 kg. When a boy weighing 60 kg leaves the group and is replaced by another boy, the average weight of the group decreases by 0.5 kg. Determine the weight of the boy who replaced him.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (55 kg)
Initial total weight =10×52=520 kg. New total weight =10×(52−0.5)=10×51.5=515 kg. Weight of new boy =60+(515−520)=60−5=55 kg.
Q22
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsLCM and HCF
The LCM of two numbers is 120, and their HCF is 6. If the sum of the two numbers is 54, find the two numbers.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (24, 30)
Let the numbers be 6a and 6b where gcd(a,b)=1. 6ab=120⟹ab=20. 6(a+b)=54⟹a+b=9. The co-prime factors of 20 that add up to 9 are 4 and 5. The numbers are 6×4=24 and 6×5=30.
What is the smallest natural value of a + b + c if a:b = 4:7 and b:c = 6:5?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (101)
Combining the ratios: a:b=4:7=24:42 b:c=6:5=42:35 Thus, a:b:c=24:42:35. Smallest natural sum =24+42+35=101.
Q25
Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryLinear vs Non-Linear Resistors
Which of the following is NOT a type of non-linear resistor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wire-wound resistor)
A wire-wound resistor is a linear resistor whose resistance follows Ohm's law (V=IR) proportionally. Thermistors, varistors (VDRs), and photoresistors (LDRs) are non-linear components whose resistance changes non-linearly with temperature, voltage, or light.
Q26
Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryElectrical Energy & Tariff Calculation
In her house, Anita installed 4 new fans with each fan consuming 70 W in addition to the 6 fans already installed with each fan consuming 50 W. She uses the new fans for 10 hours daily and the older fans for 20 hours daily. Calculate the electricity bill for one month (30 days) if the cost of one unit of electricity is Rs. 10.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 2640)
Daily energy consumption: - New fans: 4×70 W×10 h=2800 Wh=2.8 kWh - Old fans: 6×50 W×20 h=6000 Wh=6.0 kWh - Daily total =2.8+6.0=8.8 kWh (units) - Monthly units (30 days) =8.8×30=264 units - Total bill =264×10=Rs. 2640.
Q27
Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryOhmic vs Non-Ohmic Conductors
Which of the following statements is correct regarding non-ohmic conductors?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Non-ohmic conductors have a resistance that varies with current, voltage and temperature changes.)
Non-ohmic conductors do not obey Ohm's law; their dynamic resistance changes non-linearly with applied voltage, current magnitude, or operating temperature (e.g. diodes, transistors, thermistors).
Which of the following conditions could result in the violation of Kirchhoff's laws?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Influence of a varying magnetic field in the closed loop.)
Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) assumes an irrotational electrostatic field (∮E⋅dl=0). In the presence of a time-varying magnetic field inside the loop, Faraday's law applies ($\oint \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{l} = -d\Phi_B/dt eq 0$), causing apparent violation of KVL.
Which of the following statements about Kirchhoff's first and second law is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kirchhoff's first law is applicable to circuits with resistive components only.)
Statement B is incorrect: Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL, First Law) is universally applicable to any electrical junction or node in any network (linear, non-linear, AC, DC, capacitive, inductive, or resistive).
Q30
Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryResistors in Parallel
The equivalent resistance of n resistors in parallel combinations will always be:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (less than the least value of resistance in the combination)
In a parallel combination, the equivalent resistance Req=(∑Ri1)−1 is always strictly less than the smallest individual resistance in the combination.
The resistance of the wire is 10 ohms. What will be the effect on resistance and resistivity of the wire, if the wire is stretched to 10 times its original length?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Resistance increases by 100 times, resistivity remains unchanged.)
When a wire of length L and area A is stretched to 10L, its volume V=A⋅L remains constant, so its cross-sectional area becomes A/10. New resistance R′=ρA/1010L=100(ρAL)=100R. Resistivity (ρ) is an intensive intrinsic material property and remains completely unchanged.
When measuring the resistance of an earthing system, which of the following factors is/are most important for ensuring accurate readings? 1. Length/Depth of the earthing electrode 2. Distance between measurement points 3. Type of soil surrounding the electrode
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Accurate earth resistance testing (Fall-of-Potential method) depends critically on electrode insertion depth (1), proper auxiliary electrode spacing distances (2), and surrounding soil resistivity/composition (3) (All of the above).
Q33
Electrical Safety, Earthing & InstallationGrounding vs Earthing
Which statement correctly differentiates between grounding and earthing in electrical systems?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Grounding connects electrical systems to the earth, while earthing refers to creating a reference point within the system.)
Earthing connects non-current carrying metallic equipment enclosures directly to ground for personnel safety against shock, whereas Grounding provides a zero-potential reference point (such as neutral grounding) for system balancing.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the principle of operation of an electric heater? 1. Electric heaters work by converting electrical energy into heat energy through a heating element or coil. 2. Electric heaters operate on the principle of electromagnetic induction to generate heat. 3. Electric heaters utilize the heating effect of electric current, where resistance in the heating element produces heat. 4. Electric heaters rely on chemical reactions in the filament or coil to produce heat for heating purposes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only 1 and 3)
Electric heaters function via Joule's heating effect of electric current (H=I2Rt), converting electrical energy directly into thermal heat energy across a resistive alloy coil (Statements 1 and 3 are correct).
Q35
Domestic & Industrial Electrical AppliancesHeating Elements (Nichrome)
Which material is commonly used as the heating element in an electric iron and why is it preferred?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nichrome, due to its high resistance and ability to withstand high temperatures)
Nichrome (an alloy of 80% Nickel and 20% Chromium) is preferred because of its high electrical resistivity, high melting point (~1400°C), and formation of a protective chromium oxide layer that prevents oxidation at high temperatures.
Q36
Domestic & Industrial Electrical AppliancesElectric Water Heaters & Geysers
Match the different types of electric water heaters with their working principle:
| Types of Heater | Working Principle | | :--- | :--- | | i) Normal Plate Heater | 2) Consists of two round-shaped nickel plates separated by a gap of 2 mm with an insulator | | ii) Immersion Water Heater | 3) Tube is shaped like a U or a coil and filled with magnesium oxide that acts as an insulator | | iii) Geyser Water Heater | 1) Consists of an electric heating element made of Nichrome |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-1)
Matching: i) Normal plate heater uses spaced nickel plates (2); ii) Immersion heater features a copper/sheathed U-tube packed with magnesium oxide (MgO) insulation (3); iii) Storage geysers feature heavy-duty enclosed nichrome heating elements (1). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-1.
Q37
Domestic & Industrial Electrical AppliancesFuzzy Logic in Modern Appliances
What is the primary function of the Fuzzy Inference Unit (FIU) in a fuzzy controller used in a washing machine?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To apply fuzzy logic rules for decision-making based on input conditions)
The Fuzzy Inference Unit (FIU) processes fuzzified input sensor variables (such as load weight, fabric type, dirt level) by evaluating IF-THEN linguistic fuzzy rules to determine optimal wash duration, water level, and spin speed.
Q38
Domestic & Industrial Electrical AppliancesWashing Machines Working Principle
What is the primary working principle of a washing machine?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Agitation - The process where clothes are moved vigorously in water to enhance cleaning.)
The primary mechanical principle of a washing machine is agitation (or pulsator/tumbling motion) where vigorous mechanical turbulence forces water and detergent through fabric weave to dislodge dirt particles.
Match the components in the refrigerator system with the corresponding functions:
| Components | Function | | :--- | :--- | | i) Evaporator | 2) Features tubes with high thermal conductivity that absorbs heat rejected in the system. | | ii) Compressor | 3) Condenses the low-pressure, low-temperature vapor into a high-temperature, high-pressure vapor. | | iii) Condenser | 4) Comprises a set of tubes with external fins placed back of refrigerator to convert gaseous refrigerant into liquid form. | | iv) Expansion Valve | 1) Helps to sense temperature change and regulates the flow of refrigerant |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
Matching: i) Evaporator absorbs heat from inside compartment (2); ii) Compressor compresses low-pressure vapor into high-pressure vapor (3); iii) Condenser cools and condenses gas to liquid via rear fins (4); iv) Expansion valve drops pressure and regulates refrigerant flow (1). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
Q40
Illumination & Lighting SchemesLaws of Illumination (Lambert's Law)
A surface is inclined at an angle of 45° to the rays and is kept 5 m away from a 150 candle power lamp. Calculate the average intensity of illumination on the surface. (Value of square root of 2 = 1.414)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4.2 Lux)
According to Lambert's Cosine Law of Illumination: E=d2Icosθ=52150×cos45∘=25150×1.4141=1.4146≈4.24 Lux≈4.2 Lux.
Power Generation & Energy SourcesHydroelectric Power Generation
Consider the following statements about Hydroelectric Power: 1. Hydroelectric power is a secondary source of energy. 2. It is a non-renewable energy source that uses the force of flowing or falling water to drive turbines and generate electricity. 3. It is efficient and eco-friendly but can harm ecosystems and displace communities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 3)
Hydroelectric power generates electricity (a secondary energy carrier) (1 - True) and is clean during operation but has ecological/displacement impacts (3 - True). Statement 2 is false because water power is renewable (not non-renewable). Thus, 1 and 3 are correct.
Q43
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismSources of Magnetic Fields
Which of the following is NOT a source of a magnetic field?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A stationary electric charge)
A stationary electric charge (q with v=0) produces only a static electrostatic field. Magnetic fields are produced only by moving charges, electric currents, or time-varying electric fields (Maxwell's displacement current).
Q44
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismBiot-Savart Law & Symmetry
A cube is formed by 12 wires of equal length a, each carrying a current I amperes. What is the value of the magnetic field at the center of the cube?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Zero)
Due to the symmetrical geometric distribution of currents along all 12 edges of the cube, the magnetic field vectors produced by opposite, symmetric pairs of wires cancel out pairwise at the geometric center, yielding a net magnetic field of Zero.
Q45
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismMagnetic Field of Circular Coils
A circular coil carrying a certain current produces a magnetic field B0 at its center. If the coil is rewound to have n turns while maintaining the same current, what will be the new magnetic field at the center of the new coil?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (n B0)
Magnetic field at center of a coil of n turns: B=nB0 (or proportional to n2 when wire length is kept constant, here standard question paper specifies nB0).
Q46
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismProperties of Magnetic Field Lines
Consider the following statements about Magnetic Field Lines in a Bar Magnet: 1. Outside the bar magnet, field lines are directed from the South Pole to the North Pole. 2. The lines form closed continuous curves and can never intersect with each other. 3. The magnetic field is strong where field lines are crowded and vice-versa.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2 and 3)
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is false because outside a magnet, magnetic field lines emerge from the North pole and enter the South pole (they run South to North only inside the magnet).
Q47
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismMagnetic Field of a Solenoid
Why is the magnetic field at a point near the center but outside a current-carrying solenoid equal to zero?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The magnetic fields produced by adjacent turns of the solenoid cancel each other due to their opposite orientations and symmetry in the external region.)
Outside an ideal long solenoid, the field vectors from opposite sides and adjacent turns point in opposite directions and destructively cancel each other out, resulting in a net external field of approximately zero.
Q48
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismMagnetic vs Electrostatic Forces
Why do two wires carrying current in the same direction attract each other, while two beams of electrons traveling in the same direction repel each other?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Current carrying wires experience attractive magnetic forces whereas electron beams experience electrostatic repulsion forces.)
Current-carrying wires are electrically neutral (equal positive ions and electrons), so there is zero net electrostatic force, and magnetic attraction dominates. In electron beams, there are no neutralizing positive ions, so immense electrostatic Coulomb repulsion vastly exceeds magnetic attraction.
Q49
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismMagnetic Fields of Parallel Wires
Two long parallel wires carry currents I1 and I2, where I1 > I2. When both currents flow in the same direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is measured to be 70 μT. When the direction of I2 is reversed, the magnetic field at the same point increases to 140 μT. What is the value of I1 / I2?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3:1)
At the midpoint, when currents are parallel (same direction), fields oppose: B=k(I1−I2)=70μT. When anti-parallel (opposite direction), fields add: B′=k(I1+I2)=140μT. I1−I2I1+I2=70140=2⟹I1+I2=2I1−2I2⟹I1=3I2⟹I2I1=3:1.
Q50
Electrical Materials & ConductorsConductivity of Metals
Which option gives the correct arrangement of metals in the ascending order of their electrical conductivity?
Electrical conductivity values (highest to lowest): Silver (105%) > Copper (100%) > Gold (70%) > Aluminum (61%). Arranged in ascending order (lowest to highest): Aluminum < Gold < Copper < Silver.
Q51
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismHard vs Soft Magnetic Materials
Which of the following statements are NOT correct regarding Hard Magnets?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The hysteresis loop area, retentivity and coercivity are small for hard magnets.)
Statement B is incorrect: Hard magnetic materials have a LARGE hysteresis loop area, HIGH coercivity, and HIGH retentivity (making them ideal for permanent magnets). Soft magnetic materials have small loop areas.
Q52
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismHysteresis Loop & Energy Loss
Consider the following statements about the Hysteresis Loop: 1. A hysteresis loop is generated by measuring the magnetic flux emitted from a ferromagnetic material as the external magnetic field applied to it is varied. 2. The hysteresis loop shows the relationship between the magnetic flux density and the magnetizing field strength of a paramagnetic substance. 3. The loss of energy per unit volume of the substance is equal to the area of the hysteresis curve.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 3)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is false because hysteresis loops (B-H curves) are exhibited by Ferromagnetic materials, NOT paramagnetic substances.
Q53
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismSoft Iron vs Steel Magnetic Properties
Which of the following statements about soft iron and steel in the context of their magnetic properties is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Steel is preferred for use in transformers because of its high coercivity and low permeability.)
Statement D is incorrect: Transformer cores require high magnetic permeability and low coercivity/hysteresis loss; therefore, silicon steel or soft iron is used, NOT high-coercivity steel.
Q54
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsApplications of Electromagnetic Induction
Which of the following is NOT a practical application of electromagnetic induction?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Printers and Photocopy Machines)
Printers and photocopy machines work on electrostatic charge attraction (Xerography / photoconductivity), NOT electromagnetic induction.
Q55
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsSelf-Induction & Back EMF
Why is a spark produced in the fan switch when it is turned off?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The collapsing magnetic field around the fan coil induces a back electromotive force (EMF), which ionizes the air around the switch.)
When an inductive circuit is opened, the abrupt collapse of magnetic flux induces a massive self-induced back EMF (e=−Ldi/dt) across the opening switch contacts, breaking down and ionizing the air gap to produce a spark.
Q56
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsSelf-Inductance & Lenz's Law
A coil has a self-inductance of 5 mH. If the current through the coil increases from 0 to 2 A in 0.2 s, what is the magnitude and direction of the induced EMF?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.05 V, in the opposite direction of the current change)
By Lenz's Law and Faraday's Law: e=−LΔtΔI=−(5×10−3 H)×0.22−0=−5×10−3×10=−0.05 V Magnitude is 0.05 V, opposing the direction of current change.
Q57
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsEddy Currents & Applications
Which of the following is NOT a practical application of eddy currents?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (create airtight seals on containers)
Induction furnaces, eddy current train brakes, and drag-cup speedometers directly rely on eddy currents. Creating airtight mechanical seals on containers is a mechanical process.
Q58
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsFleming's Left and Right Hand Rules
Consider the following statements about Fleming's rules: 1. Fleming's Left-Hand Rule is used to determine the direction of force in an electric motor when a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field. 2. Fleming's Right Hand Rule is used to identify the direction of induced current when a conductor moves within a magnetic field which is essential for understanding generator functions. 3. Both of Fleming's rules have practical applications in various electromagnetic devices such as relays, loudspeakers, microphones, galvanometers, and maglev systems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three statements are correct: Fleming's Left-Hand Rule applies to Motors (FBI: Force, B-field, Current), Fleming's Right-Hand Rule applies to Generators (Induced Current), and both have broad electromagnetic applications.
Q59
DC Circuits & Battery SystemsDirect Current Applications
Direct current (DC) is used in which of the following devices?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cordless drills and tools)
Cordless power tools and drills operate on portable rechargeable DC battery packs (typically Li-ion 12V/18V/20V DC motors).
Q60
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsAC Power & Wattless Current
In an AC circuit, the instantaneous emf and current are given by: E = 120 sin(50t) and I = 15 sin(50t - pi/3) What is the average power consumed by the circuit (in watts) and the wattless current (in amperes)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (450 W, 7.5*sqrt(3/2) A)
Erms=2120, Irms=215, and phase angle ϕ=3π=60∘. - Average Power P=ErmsIrmscosϕ=(2120)(215)cos60∘=900×0.5=450 W. - Wattless Current Iw=Irmssinϕ=215sin60∘=215×23=7.523 A.
Q61
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsPower Factor in AC Circuits
What is the possible range for the power factor in AC circuits?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0 to 1)
In AC power systems, power factor cosϕ=SP ranges from 0 (purely inductive or capacitive load) to 1 (purely resistive unity power factor load).
Q62
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsCauses of Low Power Factor
Which of the following is NOT the cause of the low power factor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Inductive loads draw a current that leads the voltage.)
Inductive loads (like induction motors and transformers) draw a current that LAGS the voltage (not leads). Capacitive loads draw leading current.
Q63
Polyphase AC SystemsAdvantages of 3-Phase Systems
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the advantages of 3-phase system over a single-phase system? 1. In a 3-phase power supply system, less voltage drop occurs from the source to the load points in comparison to a single-phase transmission system. 2. A 3-phase system requires less copper and aluminum for the transmission system in comparison to a single-phase transmission system. 3. A pulsating torque is produced in a 3-phase system, whereas in a single-phase system uniform or constant torque is produced.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 2)
3-phase systems provide reduced line voltage drop (1) and require ~75% conductor copper/aluminum material for the same power delivery compared to single-phase (2). Statement 3 is false because 3-phase machines produce steady constant rotating torque, whereas single-phase machines produce pulsating torque. Thus, 1 and 2 are correct.
Q64
Basic Electronics & Digital CircuitsElectronic & Logic Schematic Symbols
Match the different schematic electronic symbols with their names:
| Symbols | Name | | :--- | :--- | | i) Symbol i | 4) Darlington Transistor | | ii) Symbol ii | 2) PMOS Transistor | | iii) Symbol iii | 1) Multiplexer (2-to-1) | | iv) Symbol iv | 3) DE multiplexer (1-to-2) |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3)
i) Symbol (i) is a Darlington Pair Transistor configuration (4); ii) Symbol (ii) is a PMOS Field Effect Transistor (2); iii) Symbol (iii) is a 2-to-1 Multiplexer (MUX) with inputs I0, I1 and select line A (1); iv) Symbol (iv) is a 1-to-2 Demultiplexer (DEMUX) with input I and outputs D0, D1 (3). Correct matching code is i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3.
Q65
Basic Electronics & Digital CircuitsOptoelectronic Devices (Optocoupler)
Identify the electronic symbol from the given pictograph:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Optocoupler)
The schematic pictograph depicts an Optocoupler (Optoisolator), showing an Infrared LED transmitter optically coupled across an internal isolation dielectric barrier to a phototransistor receiver.
Which of the following could NOT be the possible cause of an electric shock?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Three-prong-to-two-prong grounded plug adapters)
Using a properly grounded adapter (with grounded pigtail connected) is a standard safety interface, whereas cutting live cables, touching overloaded outlets, or lightning strikes are direct shock hazards.
Q67
Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryPotential Gradient & Field Theory
What is a voltage gradient?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The reduction of voltage across a circuit due to resistive elements present.)
Voltage gradient (or potential gradient) refers to the rate of voltage change/reduction per unit distance across a dielectric medium or resistive conductor path (dV/dx).
Match the following Indian Electricity Rules (1956) with their corresponding functions/purposes:
| Indian Electricity Rules, 1956 | Function/Purpose | | :--- | :--- | | i) Rule 29 | 3) Relates to construction, installation, protection, operation and maintenance of electric supply lines and apparatus | | ii) Rule 31 | 1) Specifies the need for a cut-out on the consumer's premises | | iii) Rule 33 | 4) Refers to provision of an earthed terminal on the consumer's premises | | iv) Rule 44 | 2) Relates to instructions for restoration of persons suffering from electric shock |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
Indian Electricity Rules (1956): - Rule 29: General safety requirements of electric supply lines & apparatus (3) - Rule 31: Cut-out on consumer's premises (1) - Rule 33: Earthed terminal on consumer's premises (4) - Rule 44: Instructions for restoration of persons suffering from electric shock (2). Correct code: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
Q69
Electrical Safety, Earthing & InstallationFirst Aid & CPR Procedures
Which of the following statements about performing CPR (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation) is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (During CPR for an infant, the chest should be compressed using the heel of one hand to a depth of 2.5 inches.)
Statement C is incorrect: In infant CPR, compressions are performed using only TWO FINGERS (or two thumbs) to a depth of approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm), NOT the heel of a hand to 2.5 inches (which would cause severe trauma).
What is the primary function of a cable drum in electrical installations?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To ensure smooth and untangled cable laying without twists.)
A cable drum (or reel mounted on jacks) is primarily used during installation to pay out cables smoothly, preventing kinks, twists, bird-caging, and sheath damage during laying.
How does lubrication help in temperature management within machinery?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (By dissipating heat and transferring it away from critical components.)
Lubricating oils and greases reduce friction coefficient and continuously carry away generated heat from bearing contacts, dissipating it to outer casings and cooling sumps.
Match the following circuit breakers with their corresponding usage:
| Circuit Breakers | Usage | | :--- | :--- | | i) Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB) | 2) Low voltage residential/commercial upto 100 A | | ii) Molded Case Circuit Breaker (MCCB) | 3) Medium-voltage industrial/commercial upto 2500 A | | iii) Air Circuit Breaker (ACB) | 1) High-current industrial applications 6300 A or more | | iv) Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker (ELCB) | 4) Protects against leakage currents to ground |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
Matching: i) MCB = residential ratings up to 100A (2); ii) MCCB = adjustable trip industrial up to 2500A (3); iii) ACB = heavy industrial mains up to 6300A (1); iv) ELCB = ground fault residual leakage protection (4). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
Q73
DC Machines (Generators & Motors)DC Machine Construction
What is the primary function of the shaft in a DC generator?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To produce torque and facilitate rotation)
The shaft mechanically transfers driving torque from the prime mover to the rotating armature core, facilitating rotary motion within the magnetic field.
Q74
DC Machines (Generators & Motors)Yoke of DC Generator
Which of the following statements about the Yoke of the DC generator is/are correct? 1. The yoke provides a sturdy and protective outer covering for the generator. 2. It provides mechanical support and keeps the poles properly aligned. 3. It carries magnetic flux produced by the poles. 4. It is made of either cast iron or steel.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
All 4 statements are correct: The outer frame (yoke) provides outer mechanical protection (1), supports field poles (2), serves as the return magnetic flux path (3), and is manufactured from cast iron (small machines) or cast/rolled steel (large machines) (4).
Q75
DC Machines (Generators & Motors)DC Generator Components
Match the components of a DC Generator with their Functions:
| Components | Function | | :--- | :--- | | i) Commutator | 4) Converts AC generated in armature into DC for external circuit | | ii) Slip Rings | 2) Provides continuous electrical connection without converting AC to DC | | iii) Brushes | 1) Maintains contact with commutator to collect current | | iv) Armature | 3) Contains phase windings where EMF is induced |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3)
Matching: i) Commutator = mechanical rectifier converting AC to DC (4); ii) Slip rings = transmits unconverted AC (2); iii) Carbon brushes = collects current from rotating commutator (1); iv) Armature = active winding where EMF is induced (3). Code: i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3.
Q76
DC Machines (Generators & Motors)Lap vs Wave Armature Winding
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the difference between wave winding and lap winding in DC generators?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The winding cost of Lap Winding is less as compared to Wave Winding.)
Statement D is incorrect: Lap winding has A=P parallel paths and requires additional equalizer rings/connections to balance unequal currents, making its manufacturing cost higher than wave winding (which has only 2 paths, A=2).
Q77
DC Machines (Generators & Motors)DC Generator Efficiency & Losses
A DC shunt generator supplies a load current of 100 A at a terminal voltage of 250 V. The armature resistance is 0.05 Ω, the field winding resistance is 50 Ω, and the stray losses are 800 W. Calculate the efficiency of the generator.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (90.5%)
Calculations: - Pout=V×IL=250×100=25,000 W - Shunt current Ish=50250=5 A - Armature current Ia=IL+Ish=100+5=105 A - Armature copper loss =Ia2Ra=(105)2×0.05=11,025×0.05=551.25 W - Shunt field loss =V×Ish=250×5=1,250 W - Stray losses =800 W - Total losses =551.25+1250+800=2601.25 W - Total input power =25000+2601.25=27,601.25 W Efficiency η=27601.2525000×100≈90.57%≈90.5%.
Q78
DC Machines (Generators & Motors)Armature Current & Voltage Drop
A generator has an armature resistance of 0.5 Ω. When rotated at rated speed, it produces 120V at no load and 115V under full load. What is the current in the armature coil?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (10A)
Armature voltage drop IaRa=E0−Vterminal=120−115=5 V. Ia=0.5Ω5 V=10 A.
Q79
DC Machines (Generators & Motors)Universal Motor & Series Motor on AC
Which type of DC motor can operate on a single-phase AC supply and why?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DC series motor because the torque is always positive)
A DC Series Motor (Universal Motor) can operate on AC because when current alternates, the armature current Ia and field flux Φ reverse simultaneously, keeping the developed electromagnetic torque (T∝ΦIa) unidirectional in the same direction.
Q80
DC Machines (Generators & Motors)DC vs AC Motors
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the preference of a DC motor over an AC motor? 1. DC motors are widely used in industrial applications requiring precise speed and torque control. 2. DC motors respond quickly to starting, stopping, and reversing operations, making them suitable for applications needing rapid transitions. 3. DC motors are compatible with the DC energy stored in batteries, making them an ideal choice for electric vehicles. 4. DC motor ceiling fans use more energy than a standard AC fan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2 and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because Brushless DC (BLDC) motor ceiling fans consume ~50-65% LESS energy (28W-35W) than standard induction motor AC fans (75W). Thus, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q81
DC Machines (Generators & Motors)DC Motor Characteristics & Applications
Match the different types of DC Motor with their corresponding features:
| Types of DC Motor | Features | | :--- | :--- | | i) Shunt DC Motors | 2) Constant speed and medium starting torque: ideal for lathes, fans, pumps, drills | | ii) Series DC Motors | 3) High starting torque and variable speed: ideal for cranes, hoists, electric locomotives | | iii) Cumulative Compound DC motors | 1) High starting torque with non-runaway speed limit: ideal for rolling mills, heavy planers |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-1)
Matching: i) DC Shunt Motor = constant speed machine tool drives (2); ii) DC Series Motor = heavy traction/hoists/cranes (3); iii) Cumulative Compound Motor = rolling mills/punch presses (1). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-1.
Q82
DC Machines (Generators & Motors)Torque Equation of DC Motor
A 6-pole DC motor takes an armature current of 60 A. The armature has 600 lap-connected conductors. The flux per pole is 30 mWb. What is the gross torque developed by the motor? (Rounded off to nearest decimal place)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (172 Nm)
Torque developed in a DC machine: T=2πAP⋅Φ⋅Z⋅Ia For Lap winding, number of parallel paths A=P=6. Therefore P/A=1. T=2π(30×10−3 Wb)×600×60 A=2π1080=6.283181080≈171.88 Nm≈172 Nm.
Q83
TransformersTransformer Efficiency & Overloading
What happens to the efficiency of a transformer if its load increases beyond rated capacity?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Efficiency decreases)
As load exceeds rated capacity, copper losses increase quadratically (Pcu∝I2), rapidly outstripping useful power output and causing transformer efficiency to decrease.
Q84
TransformersTransformer Efficiency Curves
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about transformers?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (At half load, the efficiency of a transformer is higher than at full load.)
Statement A is generally incorrect because standard power transformers are designed to achieve peak maximum efficiency at full load (or ~75-80% full load where Pcu=Piron), not at half load.
Q85
TransformersSpecial Types of Transformers
Match the different types of transformers with their applications:
| Type of Transformer | Applications | | :--- | :--- | | i) Isolation Transformer | 2) Medical equipment and sensitive electronic devices for safety/noise reduction | | ii) Ferrite Core Transformer | 3) Switch-mode power supplies (SMPS) and RF applications | | iii) Toroidal Transformer | 4) Audio equipment and space-saving compact applications | | iv) Autotransformer | 1) Variable voltage regulator / small voltage step control |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
Matching: i) Isolation Transformer = Medical/noise immunity (2); ii) Ferrite Core = High frequency SMPS/RF (3); iii) Toroidal = Audio equipment & low EMI (4); iv) Autotransformer = Variable voltage control (1). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
Q86
TransformersLosses in Transformers
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding losses in transformers? 1. Iron losses in transformers are primarily due to hysteresis and eddy currents in the core material. 2. Hysteresis Loss depends on the core material and the frequency of the supply voltage. 3. Copper losses occur due to the resistance of the transformer windings when current flows through them and are independent of the load. 4. Stray losses are caused by leakage flux inducing eddy currents in parts of the transformer like the tank or other structural components.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because copper loss (I2R) is directly dependent on the load current squared (variable loss). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Q87
TransformersTransformer Turns Ratio
A transformer has 1500 turns in the primary coil, and a current of 10 A flows through it. If the input power is 12 kW and the output voltage is 800 V, determine the number of turns in the secondary coil.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1000)
Primary Voltage V1=I1Power=10 A12,000 W=1200 V. Transformation Ratio: N1N2=V1V2⟹N2=1500×1200 V800 V=1500×32=1000 turns.
Q88
TransformersSeparation of Core Losses in Transformers
In a single-phase transformer, the total iron loss is 3000 W at a nominal voltage of 500 V and a frequency of 50 Hz. The total iron loss is 1200 W at 250 V and 25 Hz. At nominal voltage and frequency, the hysteresis and eddy current losses are:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1800 W and 1200 W)
When V/f=constant (500/50=250/25=10), maximum flux density Bm is constant: Total core loss Pi=Af+Bf2. - At 50 Hz: 50A+2500B=3000⟹A+50B=60 - At 25 Hz: 25A+625B=1200⟹A+25B=48 Subtracting gives 25B=12⟹B=0.48. Then A=60−50(0.48)=60−24=36. At 50 Hz nominal: - Hysteresis Loss Ph=Af=36×50=1800 W - Eddy Current Loss Pe=Bf2=0.48×2500=1200 W.
What is the function of the damper winding in an alternator?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To eliminate hunting and suppress the negative sequence field)
Damper (amortisseur) windings in synchronous machines suppress rotor oscillations (hunting) during load surges and damp out unbalanced negative-sequence armature reaction magnetic fields.
Q90
Synchronous Machines (Alternators)Parallel Operation of Alternators
Consider the following statements about the parallel operation of alternators: 1. In parallel operation, alternators must be synchronized in terms of voltage, frequency, and phase sequence to ensure smooth and stable power distribution. 2. It allows multiple machines to share the load which increases the overall power output of the system. 3. Properly synchronized alternators reduce the efficiency of the system due to increased losses. 4. Parallel operation ensures reliability and continuity of power supply.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only 1, 2 and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because parallel operation optimizes machine loading near peak efficiency and permits maintenance without shutdowns. Thus, 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Q91
Synchronous Machines (Alternators)Types of Alternators
Match the different types of alternators with their corresponding functions:
| Type of Alternator | Function | | :--- | :--- | | i) Two-Phase Alternator | 2) Phase of two output voltages shifted by 90 degrees | | ii) Three Phase Alternator | 4) Voltage in any one phase displaced by 120 degrees from other two | | iii) Brushless Alternator | 1) Composed of main and exciter alternators built on one shaft | | iv) Turbo Alternator | 3) Cylindrical rotor machines having synchronous high speeds (1500 - 3000 rpm) |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
Which of the following statements are NOT true in a star-connected alternator?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The line voltage is equal to the phase voltage.)
In a star (Y) connection: Line voltage $V_L = \sqrt{3} V_{ph} eq V_{ph}.LinevoltageequalsphasevoltageonlyinaDelta(\Delta$) connection. Hence, Statement A is NOT true.
Q93
Induction Motors (3-Phase & Single-Phase)Induction Motor Operating Principle
Which of the following statements about a 3-phase induction motor is TRUE?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (At synchronous speed, the relative speed between the rotor and stator rotating magnetic field is zero, resulting in no induced EMF in the rotor.)
An induction motor relies on relative slip speed between the stator RMF and rotor. If the rotor were to reach synchronous speed (N=Ns), relative motion would be zero, no magnetic flux would be cut, no rotor EMF/current would be induced, and torque would drop to zero.
Q94
Induction Motors (3-Phase & Single-Phase)Operating Modes of Induction Motor
Match the operating modes in 3-phase induction motor with their Features:
| Operating Modes | Features | | :--- | :--- | | i) Motoring Mode | 3) Speed is less than synchronous speed, torque varies from zero to full load as slip varies (0 < s < 1) | | ii) Generating Mode | 1) Rotor speed exceeds synchronous speed, slip and torque are negative (s < 0) | | iii) Braking Mode | 2) Supply phase sequence reversed (plugging) to rotate in reverse direction (s > 1) |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-1, iii-2)
Matching: i) Motoring Mode = 0<N<Ns (0<s<1) (3); ii) Generating Mode = N>Ns (s<0) driven by prime mover (1); iii) Braking / Plugging Mode = phase sequence swapped, rotor driven against field (s>1) (2). Code: i-3, ii-1, iii-2.
The value of the distribution factor of a 3-phase alternator decreases with:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (An increase in the number of slots per pole)
The breadth/distribution factor Kd=msin(β/2)sin(mβ/2). As the number of slots per pole per phase (m) increases, phase spread spreading causes Kd to decrease slightly.
Q96
Induction Motors (3-Phase & Single-Phase)Rotor Frequency & Slip Speed
A 3-phase, 60 Hz induction motor has 6 poles and operates with a slip of 3% at a certain load. Determine the frequency of the rotor current and rotor speed.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1.8 Hz, 1164 RPM)
Synchronous speed Ns=P120f=6120×60=1200 RPM. - Slip s=0.03 - Rotor current frequency fr=s⋅f=0.03×60=1.8 Hz - Rotor actual speed N=Ns(1−s)=1200×(1−0.03)=1200×0.97=1164 RPM.
What is the purpose of using a shunt resistor in an ammeter?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To bypass excess current)
A low-resistance shunt (Rsh) is placed in parallel with the delicate galvanometer movement to bypass the vast majority of the circuit current, allowing only a safe fractional current to pass through the meter coil.
Q98
Electrical Measuring InstrumentsRange Extension of Ammeters
A DC ammeter has a resistance of 0.2 Ω and its current range is 0 - 50 A. If the range is to be extended to 0 - 250 A, then the meter requires the following shunt resistance:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.05 Ω)
Multiplying power of shunt m=ImI=50 A250 A=5. Required shunt resistance: Rsh=m−1Rm=5−10.2Ω=40.2=0.05Ω.
Q99
Electrical Measuring InstrumentsTypes of Electrical Indicating Instruments
Match the various types of ammeter with their corresponding Functions:
| Types | Function | | :--- | :--- | | i) Permanent Moving Coil Ammeter | 2) Measures direct current (DC) based on magnetic deflection principle | | ii) Moving Iron Ammeter | 4) Measures both AC and DC where deflection is proportional to square of current | | iii) Electro-Dynamometer Ammeter | 1) High-precision precision instrument for both AC and DC using dual fixed/moving coils | | iv) Rectifier Type Ammeter | 3) Measures AC by converting to DC using diode bridge, suitable for communication circuits |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
Matching: i) PMMC = DC only with linear scale (2); ii) Moving Iron = AC and DC rms measurements (4); iii) Electrodynamometer = Precision transfer standard for AC/DC (1); iv) Rectifier type = AC audio/RF communications (3). Code: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3.
Which type of wattmeter is most commonly used for measuring power in high-voltage circuits?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Electrodynamometer wattmeter)
The Electrodynamometer Wattmeter (used with Instrument Transformers - CTs and PTs) is the universal industry standard for precise active power measurement across high-voltage AC and DC power networks.
In a 3-phase balanced star-connected system, Match the power factor and Phase angle of the system with the corresponding wattmeter readings of the two wattmeters:
| Power factor & Phase angle | Wattmeter Reading of two wattmeters | | :--- | :--- | | i) P.F. is unity (phi = 0°) | 3) W1 = W2, both positive | | ii) 0.5 < P.F. < 1.0 (60° > phi > 0°) | 2) W1 > W2, both positive | | iii) P.F. = 0 (phi = 90°) | 1) |W1| = |W2|, Total power is zero (W1 = +ve, W2 = -ve) | | iv) 0 < P.F. < 0.5 (90° > phi > 60°) | 4) |W1| != |W2|, Total power is positive (W1 = +ve, W2 = -ve) |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4)
In the two-wattmeter method: - At unity PF (ϕ=0∘): W1=W2=VLILcos30∘>0 (3) - At 0.5<PF<1.0 (0∘<ϕ<60∘): W1>W2>0 (2) - At zero PF (ϕ=90∘): W1=−W2, net power =0 (1) - At 0<PF<0.5 (60∘<ϕ<90∘): W1>0 and W2<0, net power >0 (4). Correct code: i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4.
Which type of earth tester is most suitable for measuring earth resistance in highly resistive soils?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Four-electrode earth tester)
The Four-Electrode Earth Tester (utilizing the Wenner four-pin method) eliminates lead resistance and contact resistance, providing the most accurate soil resistivity and ground resistance measurements in highly resistive, rocky, or dry soils.
Q105
Electrical Safety, Earthing & InstallationImportance of Low Earth Resistance
What happens if the earth's resistance is too high?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It increases the risk of electrical shock.)
If earthing resistance is too high, fault leakage currents cannot flow freely to ground, preventing protective fuses and circuit breakers from tripping, thereby leaving metal appliance chassis energized and creating severe electric shock/fire hazards.
Q106
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsResistive AC Circuits & Unity Power Factor
When the current is in phase with the circuit voltage, the power factor of the circuit is unity. This condition occurs in which type of circuit?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Purely resistive circuit)
In a purely resistive AC circuit (and an RLC circuit at series resonance), current and voltage are exactly in phase (ϕ=0∘), so the power factor is cos0∘=1.0 (Unity).
Q107
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsPhase Relationships in AC Circuits
Which of the following statements correctly describes the power factor and phase relationship in AC circuits?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (In a pure inductive circuit, the power factor is lagging because the current lags the voltage by 90°.)
In a purely inductive circuit, current lags behind applied voltage by 90∘ (ϕ=−90∘), resulting in a zero lagging power factor (cos90∘=0 lag).
Q108
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsDisadvantages of Low Power Factor
Poor power factor can result in: 1. Heat damage to insulation and other circuit components 2. Reduction in the amount of available useful power 3. A required increase in conductor and equipment sizes
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
A low power factor draws excessive reactive line current for a given real load power, causing heavy I2R copper losses and heat degradation in cables/transformers, reducing grid capacity, requiring larger conductors, and causing voltage drops (All of the above).
Q109
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsComputer Generations & Architecture
Which of the following is a characteristic of the third generation of computers?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Integrated Circuits were used.)
Third generation computers (1964-1971) were characterized by the introduction of Integrated Circuits (ICs / Small & Medium Scale Integration silicon chips), replacing discrete transistors.
Q110
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsCPU Cache & Memory Hierarchy
Which memory is part of the processor chip in current-generation desktop processors?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cache Memory)
Modern multi-core CPU processor chips integrate ultra-fast on-die SRAM Cache Memory (L1, L2, and shared L3 cache) directly onto the silicon processor die.
Q111
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsOperating System Kernel & Functions
In an operating system, what is the primary role of a kernel?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Act as a bridge between hardware and applications.)
The kernel is the foundational core of an Operating System that manages system hardware resources (CPU, RAM, I/O devices) and provides a secure abstraction bridge for user application programs.
Q112
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsWeb Technologies & Programming Frameworks
Which of the following is a Python-based framework for web development?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Django)
Django is a high-level open-source Python-based web framework (along with Flask). React and Angular are JavaScript/TypeScript frameworks, and Flutter is a Dart-based UI toolkit.
Q113
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsWeb Browsers & Client-Side Technologies
Identify the correct statement about a web browser.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It interprets and displays HTML documents.)
A web browser (client-side application like Chrome, Firefox, Edge) fetches, parses, renders, and displays HTML documents, CSS styling, and JavaScript execution to users.
Q114
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsInternet Protocols (HTTP, FTP, DNS, DHCP)
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II | | :--- | :--- | | i) HTTP | 2) Used for transferring web pages over the internet | | ii) FTP | 1) Used for transferring files between computers on a network | | iii) DNS | 4) Translates domain names into IP addresses | | iv) DHCP | 3) Automatically assigns unique IP addresses to devices on a network |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
Matching: - i) HTTP: Hypertext Transfer Protocol for web pages (2) - ii) FTP: File Transfer Protocol for file transfers (1) - iii) DNS: Domain Name System translating domain names to IP addresses (4) - iv) DHCP: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol automatically leasing IP configurations (3). Correct code: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3.
Q115
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsEmail Clients & CLI Utilities
Which of the following is a text-based email client?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pine)
Pine (Program for Internet News and Email, along with Alpine and Mutt) is a classic terminal text-based email client for Unix/Linux systems.
Q116
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsWireless Technologies (BLE & IoT)
Which of the following devices primarily uses Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) for communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Smartwatch)
Smartwatches and fitness trackers primarily use Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE / Bluetooth Smart) to sync sensor telemetry and notifications with smartphones while maximizing battery life.
Q117
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsSmart Consumer Electronics & IoT
What distinguishes a smart TV from a regular LED TV?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Smart TV can connect to the internet and run applications.)
A Smart TV features an integrated operating system (such as Android TV, Tizen, webOS) with built-in Wi-Fi/Ethernet to stream media and run internet software applications directly.
Q118
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsInternet Services vs Hardware Firmware
Which of these is NOT an internet service?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (BIOS setup)
BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) setup is a local non-volatile firmware interface embedded on the computer motherboard ROM/flash chip to initialize hardware during POST, entirely independent of internet services.
Q119
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsMicrosoft Word & Document Formatting
In MS Word, which feature allows you to apply the same formatting to multiple sections?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Format Painter)
Format Painter (or Style Templates) allows users to copy font styles, margins, colors, and paragraph formatting from selected text and paste it onto other text sections.
Q120
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsMicrosoft Excel & Data Analysis (Pivot Tables)
What function does the 'Pivot Table' serve in MS Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Summarizes large datasets dynamically.)
A Pivot Table in Microsoft Excel is an interactive data summarization tool that enables users to rapidly aggregate, slice, cross-tabulate, group, and analyze large datasets dynamically.
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This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB Electrician examination conducted in 2025 by the Power Development & Technical Education Department. Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include General English & Comprehension, Quantitative Aptitude & Basic Mathematics, Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit Theory, Electrical Safety, Earthing & Installation, Domestic & Industrial Electrical Appliances, Illumination & Lighting Schemes, Power Generation & Energy Sources, Magnetic Circuits & Electromagnetism, Electrical Materials & Conductors, Electromagnetic Induction & AC Circuits, DC Circuits & Battery Systems, Polyphase AC Systems, Basic Electronics & Digital Circuits, Electrical Maintenance & Machine Overhaul, Switchgear, Protection & Fuses, DC Machines (Generators & Motors), Transformers, Synchronous Machines (Alternators), Induction Motors (3-Phase & Single-Phase), Electrical Measuring Instruments, Knowledge of Computers & IT Applications. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.