What does the idiom "break the ice" mean? A) To build a wall B) To start a conversation C) To cause a disruption D) To make a mistake
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To start a conversation)
The idiom 'break the ice' means to do or say something that relieves tension, awkwardness, or silence, particularly by starting a friendly conversation with someone unfamiliar.
Q2
Basic EnglishIdioms and Phrases
What does the idiom "hit the nail on the head" mean? A) To criticize someone harshly B) To miss the target C) To hit something hard D) To be exactly right or accurate
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To be exactly right or accurate)
The idiom 'hit the nail on the head' means to describe exactly what is causing a situation or problem, or to be precisely right and accurate in judgment.
Q3
Basic EnglishSynonyms
Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. The speaker's argument was compelling enough to persuade the audience. A) Convincing B) Boring C) Criticizing D) Harsh
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Convincing)
'Compelling' means evoking interest, attention, or admiration in a powerfully irresistible and convincing manner. Therefore, 'Convincing' is the most appropriate synonym.
Q4
Basic EnglishSynonyms
Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. His explanation was ambiguous, leaving the audience confused. A) Direct B) Clear C) Uncertain D) Precise
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Uncertain)
'Ambiguous' means open to more than one interpretation or not having one obvious meaning; doubtful or uncertain. Hence, 'Uncertain' is the correct synonym.
Q5
Basic EnglishSentence Rearrangement
Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order. P. often determines the success of collective efforts Q. effective leadership R. by aligning individual goals S. with a shared vision and purpose A) QPRS B) QRPS C) PQRS D) PSQR
💡Correct Answer: Option A (QPRS)
The logical and grammatical sequence is: 'Effective leadership (Q) often determines the success of collective efforts (P) by aligning individual goals (R) with a shared vision and purpose (S).' This corresponds to QPRS.
Q6
Basic EnglishSentence Rearrangement
Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order. P. cannot be addressed through isolated actions Q. complex environmental problems R. that require coordinated global efforts S. but demand long-term strategic planning A) QPSR B) QRPS C) PQRS D) PSQR
💡Correct Answer: Option B (QRPS)
The coherent arrangement is: 'Complex environmental problems (Q) that require coordinated global efforts (R) cannot be addressed through isolated actions (P) but demand long-term strategic planning (S).' Therefore, the sequence is QRPS.
Q7
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with the appropriate article: I am going to _____ concert tomorrow. A) a B) on C) an D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a)
'Concert' begins with a consonant sound (/k/), so the indefinite article 'a' is appropriate when referring to an unspecified concert for the first time.
Q8
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with the appropriate article: At _____ equator, sunrise occurs at the same time each day. A) a B) the C) an D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (the)
Equator' is a unique geographical feature (there is only one equator on Earth), so the definite article 'the' is mandatory: 'At the equator...
Q9
Basic EnglishPrepositions
The doctor gave me a prescription _____ my cough. A) For B) To C) In D) With
💡Correct Answer: Option A (For)
The standard preposition used with 'prescription' to designate the illness or purpose is 'for': 'a prescription for my cough'.
Q10
Basic EnglishPrepositions
My watch is _____ the table. A) In B) On C) For D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (On)
To express position resting on a surface, the preposition 'on' is used: 'My watch is on the table.'
Q11
Basic MathematicsMensuration - 3D Solids
Volume of a cuboid of length (l), width (b) and height (h) is A) lbh B) lb+bh+hl C) 2(lb+bh+hl) D) 2(l+b)h
💡Correct Answer: Option A (lbh)
The volume of a cuboid is calculated as the product of its three dimensions: Volume = length × breadth × height = lbh.
Q12
Basic MathematicsMensuration - 2D Figures
The area of a rhombus whose diagonals are of lengths 10 cm and 8.2 cm is A) 82 cm² B) 410 cm² C) 41 cm² D) 820 cm²
💡Correct Answer: Option C (41 cm²)
Area of a rhombus = (1/2) × d₁ × d₂ = (1/2) × 10 × 8.2 = 5 × 8.2 = 41 cm².
Q13
Basic MathematicsMensuration - Circles
A circular pond has a circumference of 22 km. What is its diameter? A) 15 km B) 1.5 km C) 0.7 km D) 7 km
💡Correct Answer: Option D (7 km)
Circumference C = π × d => 22 = (22/7) × d => d = 22 × (7/22) = 7 km.
Q14
Basic MathematicsMensuration - Circles
The distance covered by a tire of 84 cm radius in 4 revolutions is A) 1056 cm B) 2112 cm C) 840 cm D) 1840 cm
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2112 cm)
Distance covered in 1 revolution = 2πr = 2 × (22/7) × 84 = 2 × 22 × 12 = 528 cm. In 4 revolutions = 4 × 528 = 2112 cm.
Q15
Basic MathematicsPercentages
The length of a field is increased by 50%, and its width is decreased by 40%. The percentage change in its area is A) 5% increase B) 15% increase C) 20% decrease D) 10% decrease
💡Correct Answer: Option D (10% decrease)
Net percentage change in area = a + b + (ab / 100) = 50 - 40 + (50 × -40 / 100) = 10 - 20 = -10%. The area decreases by 10%.
Q16
Basic MathematicsLinear Equations
The linear equation 3x - 11y = 0 (linear equation in two variables) has A) Unique solution B) Two solutions C) Infinitely many solutions D) No solutions
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Infinitely many solutions)
A single linear equation in two variables represents a straight line in the Cartesian plane and contains infinitely many points that satisfy the equation. Therefore, it has infinitely many solutions.
Q17
Basic MathematicsCoordinate Geometry and Linear Equations
Point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = kx + 7. The value of k is A) 4/3 B) 5/3 C) 4/7 D) 5/7
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5/3)
Substitute x = 3 and y = 4 into 3y = kx + 7: 3(4) = k(3) + 7 => 12 = 3k + 7 => 3k = 5 => k = 5/3.
Q18
Basic MathematicsCoordinate Geometry and Linear Equations
The graph of linear equation x + 2y = 2, cuts the y-axis at A) (1, 0) B) (2, 0) C) (0, 1) D) (0, 2)
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((0, 1))
On the y-axis, the x-coordinate is 0. Substituting x = 0 into x + 2y = 2 gives 0 + 2y = 2 => y = 1. Therefore, the graph intersects the y-axis at the point (0, 1).
Q19
Basic MathematicsSimple and Compound Interest
The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is A) 625 B) 635 C) 645 D) 655
💡Correct Answer: Option A (625)
For a period of 2 years, the difference between CI and SI is given by: D = P(r/100)². Here D = 1, r = 4. 1 = P(4/100)² = P(1/25)² = P / 625 => P = Rs. 625.
Q20
Basic MathematicsCompound Interest
The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in years) is A) 2.5 B) 2 C) 5 D) 4
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2)
Amount A = P + CI = 30000 + 4347 = 34347. Using A = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ => 34347 / 30000 = (1 + 7/100)ⁿ => 11449 / 10000 = (107/100)ⁿ => (107/100)² = (107/100)ⁿ => n = 2 years.
Q21
Basic MathematicsSimplification (BODMAS)
{ 720 ÷ 12 + 18 × 4 } ÷ 6 + 25% of 160 = ? A) 88 B) 66 C) 62 D) 72
What's the probability of drawing a red card or a card with a face (king, queen, or jack) from a standard deck of 52 cards? A) 13/15 B) 1/4 C) 29/52 D) 8/13
💡Correct Answer: Option D (8/13)
Total cards = 52. Red cards = 26 (which already include 6 red face cards: 2 kings, 2 queens, 2 jacks). Black face cards = 6 (2 kings, 2 queens, 2 jacks). Total favorable outcomes = 26 + 6 = 32. Probability = 32 / 52 = 8 / 13.
Q25
Basic MathematicsProbability
What is the probability of a sure event? A) 1 B) 0.5 C) 0 D) 0.25
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1)
A sure (or certain) event is an event that is guaranteed to happen under the given conditions. Its probability is always 1.
Q26
Basic MathematicsProbability
What is the probability of getting a number greater than 6 on dice? A) 1 B) 0.5 C) 0 D) 0.25
💡Correct Answer: Option C (0)
A standard die has faces numbered from 1 to 6. Getting a number strictly greater than 6 is an impossible event, so its probability is 0 / 6 = 0.
Q27
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss
By selling a bicycle for Rs. 2,850, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8%, then the selling price will be A) 2700 B) 2750 C) 20750 D) 27000
Rick bought cold drinks of Rs. 56000. Then he sold 1/3rd of the total purchase to a 40% loss. How much profit does he need to earn on the remaining cold drinks to cover the loss? A) 20% B) 18% C) 17% D) 22%
💡Correct Answer: Option A (20%)
Let total cost be 3 units. 1 unit is sold at a 40% loss, generating a loss of 0.40 units. The remaining portion is 2 units. To achieve overall break-even (net profit = 0), the profit on the remaining 2 units must equal the loss of 0.40 units. Required profit percentage = (0.40 / 2) × 100 = 20%.
Q31
Environment, Ecology & ForestryMining Impacts and Environmental Law
With reference to 'Rat-hole mining' as practiced in parts of Northeast India, identify the correct statements. I. It is a process of digging narrow horizontal tunnels into the hill slopes by extraction workers. II. The National Green Tribunal has banned this practice. III. Acid Mine Drainage (AMD) caused by this practice is characterized by high pH levels, making the water highly alkaline. A) I and III only B) II only C) I and II only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and II only)
Statements I and II are correct. Rat-hole mining (widely practiced in Meghalaya) involves digging narrow tunnels into hillsides to extract coal, and it was banned by the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2014 due to environmental and safety hazards. Statement III is incorrect because Acid Mine Drainage (AMD) results in severely acidic water with low pH (not high pH / alkaline) due to sulfuric acid formation.
Q32
Environment, Ecology & ForestryWater Pollution and Aquatic Ecosystems
Select the correct statements about Eutrophication. I. It is a general term describing a process in which nutrients accumulate in a body of water, resulting in increased growth of organisms. II. It leads to an increase in levels of dissolved oxygen, favoring fish growth. A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
Statement I is correct: Eutrophication is the progressive enrichment of water bodies with nutrients (nitrogen and phosphorus), triggering algal blooms. Statement II is incorrect because subsequent microbial decomposition of dense algae depletes dissolved oxygen (hypoxia), resulting in suffocation and death of fish.
Q33
Environment, Ecology & ForestryWildlife Ecology and Animal Behavior
Which of the following statements best describes 'Altitudinal Migration'? A) Movement of Marine species towards the equator for warmer waters B) Long-distance migration across continents to avoid harsh warm weather conditions C) Short-distance animal migration to higher altitudes to escape extreme heat D) Movement of Marine species towards the surface warm waters
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Short-distance animal migration to higher altitudes to escape extreme heat)
Altitudinal migration is a short-distance vertical migration where animals move up and down mountainous elevation gradients in response to seasonal temperature changes, food availability, or extreme heat.
As of February 2026, which of the following best describes India's progress towards its 'Panchamrit' targets outlined at COP-26 held at Glasgow? A) India has successfully achieved the target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity. B) India has decided to shift its net-zero target from 2070 to 2047. C) Renewable energy accounts for more than 50% of India's daily electricity production. D) India's total non-fossil power installed capacity crossed 50% of the total installed electricity capacity of the country.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (India's total non-fossil power installed capacity crossed 50% of the total installed electricity capacity of the country.)
India achieved one of its landmark Panchamrit COP-26 pledges well ahead of the 2030 deadline by having its installed capacity of non-fossil electric power exceed 50% of its total cumulative installed electricity generation capacity.
Q35
Environment, Ecology & ForestrySustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
Match the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to their primary objectives. SDG: i. SDG-6 ii. SDG-14 iii. SDG-15 iv. SDG-7 Objectives: a. Life below water b. Clean water and sanitation c. Affordable and clean energy d. Life on land Choose the correct option: A) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d B) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c D) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
Correct SDG mappings: SDG-6 is 'Clean Water and Sanitation' (b); SDG-14 is 'Life Below Water' (a); SDG-15 is 'Life on Land' (d); and SDG-7 is 'Affordable and Clean Energy' (c). Thus, i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q36
Environment, Ecology & ForestryEnvironmental Governance and NCAP
Select the correct statements about the Swacch Vayu Survekshan awards, 2025. I. Indore secured first rank with a score of 200 out of 200 in Category-1 (cities having over 10 lakh population). II. Amravati secured first rank in Category-2 (cities having population between 3 and 10 lakh). III. Dewas secured first rank in Category-3 (cities having a population under 3 lakh). A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change's Swachh Vayu Survekshan (National Clean Air Programme), the first ranks across the three population categories were achieved by Indore (Category 1: >10 lakh), Amravati (Category 2: 3-10 lakh), and Dewas (Category 3: <3 lakh). All three statements are correct.
Arrange the following steps in Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) in correct chronological order. I. Screening II. Scoping III. EIA Report IV. Impact Analysis V. Review and Public Participation A) I-II-III-IV-V B) I-II-IV-V-III C) I-II-IV-III-V D) I-II-III-V-IV
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I-II-IV-III-V)
The sequential stages of the EIA process are: 1. Screening (determining if EIA is required); 2. Scoping (identifying key issues and spatial boundaries); 3. Impact Analysis / Baseline Studies; 4. Preparation of the EIA Report; 5. Review and Public Participation. Therefore, the sequence is I - II - IV - III - V.
Which of the following authorities are constituted under the umbrella of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, for wildlife conservation? I. Central Zoo Authority II. State Board for Wildlife III. National Tiger Conservation Authority IV. National Coastal Zone Management Authority Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) I, II and III only C) I, III and IV only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, II and III only)
The Central Zoo Authority (Chapter IVA), State Board for Wildlife (Section 6), and National Tiger Conservation Authority (Chapter IVB) are statutory bodies created directly under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. In contrast, the National Coastal Zone Management Authority (NCZMA) is constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Hence, I, II, and III only.
Q39
Environment, Ecology & ForestryAgriculture and Land Use of J&K
As per Land Use Statistics (2022-23), published by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, what is the percentage of 'Net Sown Area' to the 'Total Reported Area' in Jammu and Kashmir? A) 19.01% B) 18.4% C) More than 20% D) Less than 17%
💡Correct Answer: Option B (18.4%)
According to the official Land Use Statistics (2022-23) from the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, the Net Sown Area in Jammu and Kashmir stands at approximately 18.4% of the Total Reported Area for land utilization.
Q40
Environment, Ecology & ForestryProtected Areas and Bird Sanctuaries
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Bird Sanctuary - States: I. Atapaka Bird Sanctuary - Andhra Pradesh II. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary - Goa III. Attiveri Bird Sanctuary - Karnataka Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) II and III only C) I and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All pairs are correctly matched: I. Atapaka Bird Sanctuary is located in the Kolleru Lake wetland in Andhra Pradesh; II. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is an estuarine mangrove habitat on Chorao Island, Goa; III. Attiveri Bird Sanctuary is located in Uttara Kannada district, Karnataka.
Q41
General SciencePhysics - Gravitation and Satellite Motion
A satellite is orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit at a height where the acceleration due to gravity is 4.9 m/s². If the radius of the Earth is 6,371 km, what is the orbital speed of the satellite? (Use g = 9.8 m/s², √2 = 1.414 and √10 = 3.162) A) 4.6 km/s B) 6.6 km/s C) 9.8 km/s D) 11.2 km/s
💡Correct Answer: Option B (6.6 km/s)
At orbit radius r, g' = GM / r² = 4.9 m/s². On the surface, g = GM / R² = 9.8 m/s². Thus, g / g' = r² / R² = 9.8 / 4.9 = 2 => r = R√2 = 6,371 × 1.414 ≈ 9,008.6 km. The orbital speed is v = √(GM / r) = √(g' × r) = √(4.9 m/s² × 9,008.6 × 10³ m) ≈ √(44,142,140) ≈ 6,644 m/s ≈ 6.6 km/s.
Q42
General SciencePhysics - Heat and Thermodynamics
A metal rod is heated at one end, and the temperature at the other end rises slowly over time. At the same time, a sealed glass flask filled with water is placed over a flame, and the water temperature rises quickly. Which of the following statements is correct regarding modes of heat transfer in each scenario (Rod and Flask)? A) Rod: Convection; Flask: Conduction and Radiation B) Rod: Conduction; Flask: Convection and Radiation C) Rod: Conduction; Flask: Convection D) Rod: Radiation; Flask: Convection
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rod: Conduction; Flask: Convection and Radiation)
In solid metals, heat propagates along the rod by Conduction via atomic collisions and free electrons. In the case of the flask placed over a flame, heat transfers from the flame to the flask via thermal Radiation (and conduction through glass) and circulates throughout the liquid via Convection currents.
Q43
General SciencePhysics - Optics and Lenses
An object 2 m tall is placed at a distance of 50 cm in front of a convex lens. The lens has a power of +5 D. Calculate the height and nature of the image formed by the lens. A) 1 m, virtual and erect B) 1.33 m, real and inverted C) 1.5 m, real and inverted D) 1.6 m, virtual and erect
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1.33 m, real and inverted)
Focal length f = 1 / P = 1 / 5 m = +20 cm. Object distance u = -50 cm, object height h = 2 m. Lens formula: 1/v - 1/u = 1/f => 1/v = 1/20 - 1/50 = (5 - 2)/100 = 3/100 => v = +100/3 cm. Magnification m = v / u = (100/3) / (-50) = -2/3. Height of image h' = m × h = (-2/3) × 2 m = -4/3 m = -1.33 m. The negative sign denotes a real and inverted image with a height of 1.33 m.
Q44
General ScienceBiology - Cell Structure and Organelles
Which of the following statements about cells is NOT true? A) Plasma membrane is selective permeable that regulates the movement of nutrients into and out of the cell. B) Cell interior contains many specialized membrane-bound organelles. C) Mitochondria are organelles responsible for energy transactions needed for cell D) Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles responsible for protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles responsible for protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells.)
Ribosomes are non-membrane-bound ribonucleoprotein particles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Statements A, B, and C are correct, while statement D is false because ribosomes lack a surrounding membrane.
Q45
General ScienceChemistry - Metals and Acids
Which of the following metals produce hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute nitric acid? A) Copper (Cu) B) Zinc (Zn) C) Magnesium (Mg) D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Magnesium (Mg))
Nitric acid (HNO₃) is a strong oxidizing agent that oxidizes hydrogen to water rather than releasing H₂ gas with most metals. However, very dilute nitric acid (1-2%) reacts with Magnesium (Mg) and Manganese (Mn) to liberate hydrogen gas.
Q46
General SciencePhysics - Sources of Energy
Which of the following statements about conventional sources of energy and their improvements is true? A) Thermal power plants cannot exceed 35% efficiency, even with advanced boiler technology. B) Supercritical and ultra-supercritical boilers allow coal power plants to achieve higher efficiency. C) Hydroelectric power plants cannot improve energy output once the dam is built. D) Efficiency of petroleum refining is solely determined by the quality of crude oil, not technology.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Supercritical and ultra-supercritical boilers allow coal power plants to achieve higher efficiency.)
Supercritical and ultra-supercritical (USC) boiler technologies operate at pressures and temperatures above the thermodynamic critical point of water (22.1 MPa, 374 °C), significantly enhancing net cycle efficiency to 42-45%+ while cutting fuel consumption and emissions.
Q47
General SciencePhysics - Non-Conventional Energy
Which of the following statements about non-conventional sources of energy and their improvements is correct? A) Commercial Solar panels can only convert 10-12% of sunlight into electricity. B) Wind energy efficiency improves by using larger and more aerodynamically designed blades. C) Tidal energy cannot be harnessed effectively due to the predictability of tides. D) Geothermal energy output is independent of drilling technology and heat extraction methods.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Wind energy efficiency improves by using larger and more aerodynamically designed blades.)
Aerodynamic blade design improvements and increased rotor diameter maximize the swept area and wind kinetic energy capture, substantially boosting the capacity factor and conversion efficiency of modern wind turbines.
Q48
General ScienceChemistry - Properties of Metals and Non-metals
Match Column-I with Column-II Column - I: i. Cesium ii. Zinc iii. Iodine iv. Graphite Column - II: a. A non-metal that is lustrous b. A metal that is brittle c. A metal that has a low melting point d. A non-metal that is a good conductor of electricity Choose the correct option: A) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d B) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d C) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a D) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d)
Matches: i. Cesium is a metal with a very low melting point (28.5 °C) that melts on human body heat (c); ii. Zinc is a metal that is brittle at ordinary temperature (b); iii. Iodine is an exception among non-metals because it is lustrous (a); iv. Graphite (allotrope of carbon) is a non-metal that conducts electricity due to delocalized electrons (d). Hence, i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d.
Q49
General ScienceChemistry - Metallurgy and Reactivity Series
Metals P, Q, and R have different positions in the activity series. Metal P reacts vigorously with water, metal Q reacts slowly with acids, and metal R does not react with water or acids. Their oxides are PO, QO, and R2O3, respectively. Considering their reactivity and the methods typically used for extraction, which of the following correctly matches the metal with its most suitable extraction method? A) P - Electrolysis of molten oxide; Q - Reduction by carbon; R - Reduction by carbon. B) P - Reduction by carbon; Q - Electrolysis of molten oxide; R - Electrolysis of molten oxide. C) P - Electrolysis of molten oxide; Q - Reduction by carbon; R - Native metal, no extraction needed. D) P - Reduction by carbon; Q - Native metal, no extraction needed; R - Electrolysis of molten oxide.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (P - Electrolysis of molten oxide; Q - Reduction by carbon; R - Native metal, no extraction needed.)
Metal P (highly reactive, reacts with cold water) is extracted via electrolytic reduction of its molten ore. Metal Q (moderately reactive, reacts slowly with acids) is extracted by carbon reduction of its oxide. Metal R (unreactive noble metal) exists in nature in the native free state and does not require chemical reduction.
Q50
General ScienceBiology - Modes of Nutrition
Which of the following organisms exhibits parasitic nutrition? A) Nitrosomonas B) Amoeba C) Plasmodium D) Paramecium
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Plasmodium)
Plasmodium is a protozoan endoparasite that causes malaria in humans and relies on parasitic nutrition by feeding on the nutrients of its host organisms (humans and female Anopheles mosquitoes). Amoeba and Paramecium exhibit holozoic nutrition, while Nitrosomonas is chemoautotrophic.
Q51
General ScienceBiology - Plant Physiology and Transport
Which of the following statements about transportation of water, food and minerals in plants is NOT correct? A) The ascent of sap in tall trees primarily occurs due to transpiration pull, cohesion, and adhesion forces rather than root pressure alone. B) Xylem transports water and dissolved minerals mainly in an upward direction, while phloem can transport food both upward and downward. C) Phloem transport requires metabolic energy, whereas xylem transport is largely a passive process. D) Minerals absorbed by roots move through phloem vessels to reach the leaves where they are utilized for photosynthesis.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Minerals absorbed by roots move through phloem vessels to reach the leaves where they are utilized for photosynthesis.)
Statement D is NOT correct because minerals absorbed from the soil by roots are transported to leaves via xylem vessels along with the water stream (ascent of sap), not through phloem vessels (which translocate photosynthesized organic solutes like sucrose).
Q52
General ScienceBiology - Excretion in Plants and Animals
Which of the following statements about excretion in plants and animals is correct? A) Plants lack specialized excretory organs, so all metabolic wastes are removed exclusively through stomata by diffusion. B) Plants assimilate ammonia into amino acids and can store waste in leaves, bark, and vacuoles. C) In mammals, the primary nitrogenous waste is uric acid, which requires minimal water for excretion compared to ammonia. D) Animals and plants both rely mainly on transpiration as their primary mechanism of excretion.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Plants assimilate ammonia into amino acids and can store waste in leaves, bark, and vacuoles.)
Statement B is correct: Plants convert inorganic ammonia into amino acids and sequester metabolic wastes in cellular vacuoles, heartwood, old xylem (as gums and resins), and in leaves and bark that are periodically shed. In mammals, the main nitrogenous waste is urea (not uric acid).
Q53
Environment, Ecology & ForestryEnvironmental Pollution and Toxicology
A city is located near a river and an industrial area. Over time, scientists observed the following: i. Fish in the river showed bioaccumulation of a persistent chemical that caused neurological disorders in humans who consumed them. ii. The air contained high levels of a gas that reacts with water to form acid rain, damaging monuments and crops. iii. Soil had elevated heavy metal concentrations, leading to reduced fertility and toxicity in plants. On the basis of the given observations, pair each cause (i, ii, iii) with the corresponding pollutant (a, b, c) and answer the correct statement: a) Mercury b) Sulfur dioxide c) Lead A) i -> a, ii -> b, iii -> c B) i -> a, ii -> c, iii -> b C) i -> b, ii -> c, iii -> a D) i -> c, ii -> b, iii -> a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i -> a, ii -> b, iii -> c)
Matching: i. Bioaccumulation in aquatic fish causing severe neurological disorders (Minamata syndrome) is caused by Mercury (a); ii. Gaseous emissions producing sulfuric acid precipitation (acid rain) correspond to Sulfur dioxide (b); iii. Toxic heavy metal accumulation in roadside and industrial soil is associated with Lead (c). Hence, i -> a, ii -> b, iii -> c.
Q54
Environment, Ecology & ForestryEcosystem - Food Chain and 10% Law
Consider the following jumbled food chain: Grasshopper, Grass, Hawk, Frog, Snake If the energy content of the frog is x kJ, the energy available to the primary consumer is A) 10x kJ B) x kJ C) x/10 kJ D) x/100 kJ
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10x kJ)
The correct trophic order of the food chain is: Grass (Producer) -> Grasshopper (Primary Consumer) -> Frog (Secondary Consumer) -> Snake (Tertiary Consumer) -> Hawk (Top Carnivore). According to Lindeman's 10% Law, only 10% of energy transfers from one trophic level to the next: Energy at Frog = 10% of Energy at Grasshopper => x = 0.1 × E(Grasshopper) => E(Grasshopper) = 10x kJ.
Q55
Environment, Ecology & ForestryAtmospheric Chemistry and Ozone Layer
Which statement is TRUE regarding the relationship between ozone depletion and climate change? A) CFCs destroy ozone and contribute to global warming. B) Ozone depletion directly causes the greenhouse effect. C) Greenhouse gases directly destroy ozone molecules. D) Reducing CO2 emissions alone can fully restore the ozone layer.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (CFCs destroy ozone and contribute to global warming.)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are dual-acting atmospheric pollutants: they catalytic break down stratospheric ozone via free chlorine radicals and, at the same time, are potent greenhouse gases with extremely high Global Warming Potentials (GWPs thousands of times greater than CO₂).
Q56
General ScienceBiology - Mendelian Genetics
Which of the following was NOT a character studied by Mendel in his experiments with Pisum sativum? A) Stem Height B) Flower shape C) Pod shape and colour D) Seed shape and colour
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Flower shape)
Gregor Mendel studied 7 contrasting characters in garden pea: stem height, flower colour, flower position, pod shape, pod colour, seed shape, and seed colour. He did NOT study 'flower shape'.
Q57
General ScienceBiology - Mendelian Genetics
Ali was breeding two Pisum sativum plants for plant height and seed shape. He noticed the following in the offspring: All plants were Tall Seed shape ratio: 3 (Round) : 1 (Wrinkled) How many possible combinations (unordered) of parental genotypes could produce this result? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
For seed shape to exhibit a 3:1 phenotypic ratio (Round : Wrinkled), both parents must be heterozygous (Rr × Rr). For plant height, all offspring must be phenotypically Tall. The crosses for height that yield 100% tall offspring are: (1) TT × TT, (2) TT × Tt, and (3) TT × tt. Combining these with Rr × Rr yields exactly 3 unordered parental genotype pairs: {TTRr, TTRr}, {TTRr, TtRr}, and {TTRr, ttRr}.
Q58
General ScienceBiology - Plant Reproduction and Meiosis
Raghav is trying to understand when plant cells are haploid (N) or diploid (2N) during sexual reproduction. Which of the following statements is correct? A) The microspore and megaspore are diploid (2N) cells that undergo meiosis, and the fertilized zygote remains haploid (N). B) The microspore and megaspore are haploid (N) cells formed after meiosis, and fertilization restores the diploid (2N) number in the zygote. C) The pollen and ovule mother cells are haploid (N) before meiosis and form diploid gametes after meiosis. D) The pollen and ovule mother cells are diploid (2N), and meiosis produces haploid gametes, but fertilization does not restore the diploid number.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The microspore and megaspore are haploid (N) cells formed after meiosis, and fertilization restores the diploid (2N) number in the zygote.)
In angiosperms, diploid (2N) microspore mother cells and megaspore mother cells undergo meiosis (reduction division) to form haploid (N) microspores and megaspores. Later, the fusion of haploid male and female gametes during syngamy (fertilization) restores the diploid (2N) chromosome complement in the zygote.
Q59
General ScienceBiology - Asexual Reproduction
Raghav was confused about how plants reproduce asexually. His teacher explained methods like Budding and Fragmentation, but Raghav wasn't sure how to tell them apart. Which of the following best distinguishes the two processes? A) In budding, a small protrusion forms on the parent and may stay attached before detaching, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into pieces, and each piece grows into a new organism. B) In budding, offspring develop from specialized reproductive cells, whereas in fragmentation, the parent divides under environmental stress to form new organisms. C) In budding, a small part of the parent detaches and grows into an independent organism, whereas in fragmentation, the parent splits into fragments that grow into independent organisms. D) In budding, the offspring remain attached to the parent for a while, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into two parts that grow into independent organisms.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (In budding, a small protrusion forms on the parent and may stay attached before detaching, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into pieces, and each piece grows into a new organism.)
In budding (e.g., Yeast, Hydra), a distinct localized outgrowth or bulb-like projection (bud) develops on the parent body through cell division, which may mature and detach. In fragmentation (e.g., Spirogyra), the mature multicellular organism simply breaks into two or more distinct pieces/fragments, and each fragment regenerates into a complete new individual.
Q60
General ScienceBiology - Biological Classification
Which of the following correctly matches the organism with its classification group? I. Rose - Monocotyledon II. Frog - Amphibian III. Mango - Gymnosperm IV. Shark - Reptile Choose the correct match: A) only II B) Only I and II C) Only II and IV D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (only II)
Only pair II is correctly matched: Frog is an Amphibian. In contrast: Rose is a Dicotyledonous angiosperm (not Monocotyledon); Mango is an Angiosperm/Dicot (not Gymnosperm); and Shark is a cartilaginous fish / Chondrichthyes (not a Reptile).
Q61
General Awareness & ScienceIndian National Movement - Books and Authors
Match the following books/texts with their respective authors Books/Texts: i. Voice of India ii. Economic History of India iii. Unhappy India iv. India Divided Authors: a. R.C. Dutt b. Dadabhai Naoroji c. Rajendra Prasad d. Lala Lajpat Rai Choose the correct match: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c B) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c D) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
Correct matches: i. 'Voice of India' journal was started by Dadabhai Naoroji in Bombay (b); ii. 'Economic History of India' was written by Romesh Chunder Dutt (a); iii. 'Unhappy India' was authored by Lala Lajpat Rai (d); iv. 'India Divided' was written by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c). Thus, i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q62
General Awareness & ScienceWorld Geography - Explorers and Discoveries
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Geographical Discoveries - Discoverers: I. Cape of Good Hope - Vasco De Gama II. Solar System - Kepler III. Australia - James Cook Choose the correct option: A) I only B) III only C) I and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (III only)
Only pair III is correctly matched: Captain James Cook charted and claimed the eastern coast of Australia in 1770. In contrast: Cape of Good Hope was discovered by Portuguese explorer Bartolomeu Dias in 1488 (Vasco da Gama was the first to sail past it to India in 1497); and the heliocentric model of the Solar System was discovered by Nicolaus Copernicus (Kepler discovered the laws of planetary motion).
Q63
General Awareness & ScienceInternational Organizations - IMF and SDR
Consider the following information regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and identify the INCORRECT statements. I. Every member country has an equal voting power regardless of its financial contribution. II. The IMF created Special Drawing Rights (SDR) as an international reserve asset in 1969. III. Private entities and individuals can also hold Special Drawing Rights (SDR). Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) I and III only D) II and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and III only)
Statements I and III are INCORRECT. Statement I is false because voting power in the IMF is weighted based on each member's quota and capital contribution (not one country, one vote). Statement III is false because SDRs cannot be held by private parties or individuals; only the IMF, member countries, and designated official entities can hold them. Statement II is correct (SDR was created in 1969). Hence, I and III only are incorrect.
Q64
General Awareness & ScienceScience and Technology - Space Missions
Which of the following Space Missions are successfully conducted by ISRO to develop and demonstrate the technology needed for the docking and undocking of two small spacecraft in a low-Earth circular orbit? A) Aditya L-1 B) Gaganyaan C) NISAR D) SPADEX
💡Correct Answer: Option D (SPADEX)
SPADEX (Space Docking Experiment) is an ISRO twin-spacecraft mission specifically designed to develop and demonstrate autonomous rendezvous, docking, and undocking technologies in low-Earth orbit, a critical prerequisite for human spaceflight, satellite servicing, and lunar sample return.
Q65
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs - Padma Awards 2026
Which of the following personalities of Jammu and Kashmir was recently awarded Padma Shri (2026) for his/her social work? A) Omar Abdullah B) Ghulam Nabi Azad C) Rehman Rahi D) Brij Lal Bhat
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Brij Lal Bhat)
Brij Lal Bhat from Jammu and Kashmir was conferred the prestigious Padma Shri in 2026 in recognition of his distinguished humanitarian service and lifelong grassroots social work in the region.
Q66
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Reorganisation Act, 2019
Following the 2019 Reorganization, while the legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir can legislate on state matters, which of the following subjects are exclusively reserved for the Union government, unlike other states? A) Public order and Police B) Education and Health C) Local self-government D) Agriculture and Industries
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Public order and Police)
Under Section 32 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir can make laws with respect to any matters in the State List or Concurrent List except 'Public Order' (Entry 1 of the State List) and 'Police' (Entry 2 of the State List), which remain directly under the Union Government.
Q67
General Awareness & ScienceGeography of Jammu and Kashmir - Rivers
Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Chenab? I. Ujh river II. Marusudar river III. Niru river IV. Ans river V. Tawi river Choose the correct option: A) I, II, IV and V only B) II, IV and V only C) II, III, IV and V only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II, III, IV and V only)
Marusudar (the largest tributary of Chenab in Kishtwar), Niru (joins at Pul Doda/Bhaderwah), Ans (joins in Reasi), and Tawi (major left-bank tributary) are all tributaries of the Chenab river. In contrast, Ujh river is a major tributary of the Ravi river. Therefore, II, III, IV, and V only.
Q68
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Kashmir Sultanate
Match the following: Kashmir Sultans: i. Shams-ud-din Shah Mir ii. Sikandar Butshikan iii. Yusuf Shah Chak Major Contribution/Title: a. Establishment of the Sultanate in Kashmir in 1339 CE b. Construction of the magnificent Jama Masjid in Srinagar in 1394 AD c. The last Independent ruler of Kashmir Choose the correct match: A) i-a, ii-c, iii-b B) i-b, ii-c, iii-a C) i-a, ii-b, iii-c D) i-b, ii-a, iii-c
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-a, ii-b, iii-c)
Correct matches: i. Shams-ud-din Shah Mir founded the Shah Mir dynasty and established the Kashmir Sultanate in 1339 CE (a); ii. Sultan Sikandar Butshikan built the grand Jamia Masjid in Nowhatta, Srinagar in 1394–1400 AD (b); iii. Yusuf Shah Chak was the last independent monarch of Kashmir before annexation by the Mughal Empire under Akbar in 1586 (c). Hence, i-a, ii-b, iii-c.
Q69
Environment, Ecology & ForestryForestry and ISFR - Jammu & Kashmir
According to the Indian State of Forest Report, 2023, what is the 'Total Forest Cover' of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir as a percentage of its total geographic area? A) 38.15% B) 37.15% C) 39.15% D) 36.15%
💡Correct Answer: Option C (39.15%)
According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, the total forest cover of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir is recorded at 39.15% of its total geographical area (amounting to 21,346.4 sq km).
Q70
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Infrastructure - USBRL Project
Identify the correct statements about the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project: I. Indian Railway's first cable-stayed bridge has been constructed over the Anji Khad in this project. II. The iconic 1315 m long Chenab bridge is the World's highest railway arch bridge, standing 359 m above the river bed. A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements are correct: I. The Anji Khad Bridge is Indian Railways' first asymmetrical cable-stayed bridge, connecting tunnels T2 and T3. II. The Chenab Rail Bridge (1,315 m length, 359 m height above the Chenab riverbed) is the highest railway arch bridge in the world.
Q71
Basic ReasoningNumber Series
Complete the following number series: 3, 3, 13, 81, 603, ? A) 5291 B) 6691 C) 5491 D) 4891
Fill in the blanks with appropriate letters to complete the following letter series: a _ d _ k d a _ d f k _ a _ d f k d A) c, f, c, f, c B) c, f, c, d, c C) c, f, d, f, c D) c, f, c, d, f
💡Correct Answer: Option B (c, f, c, d, c)
The repeating 6-letter block is 'a c d f k d': 1. a [c] d [f] k d 2. a [c] d f k [d] 3. a [c] d f k d The required letters to fill the blanks are c, f, c, d, c.
Q73
Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding
In a certain language, BRAIN is coded as TPKDC, then in that language, MINDS will be coded as A) UPOKF B) NPOKF C) TPOKF D) ZPOKF
💡Correct Answer: Option A (UPOKF)
In BRAIN, each letter is shifted by +2 (B->D, R->T, A->C, I->K, N->P) and rearranged by placing the 2nd letter first (T), 5th second (P), 4th third (K), 1st fourth (D), 3rd fifth (C) giving TPKDC. For MINDS: shifting by +2 gives M->O, I->K, N->P, D->F, S->U. Placing the 5th letter first (U), 3rd second (P), 1st third (O), 2nd fourth (K), 4th fifth (F) gives UPOKF.
Q74
Basic ReasoningDirection Sense Test
At 5 p.m., Mr. Floyd is standing facing a tower. His shadow falls exactly to his right. After 30 minutes, he turns 180° and starts walking straight. In which direction is he walking? A) East B) North C) South D) West
💡Correct Answer: Option C (South)
At 5 p.m., the sun is in the West, so all shadows cast towards the East. Since his shadow falls to his right, his Right = East. This implies he is facing North (Left = West, Behind = South). When he turns 180°, he faces the opposite direction, which is South, and begins walking South.
Q75
Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
Consider the following information and answer the given question: M is the mother of N. N is the brother of O. O is the wife of P. P is the son of Q. How is O related to Q? A) Grand Daughter B) Mother C) Daughter D) Daughter-in-law
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Daughter-in-law)
P is the son of Q, and O is the wife of P. Therefore, O is the wife of Q's son, making O the daughter-in-law of Q.
Q76
Basic MathematicsTime and Work / Pipes and Cisterns
A pump fills a water tank. If its pumping speed is increased to 9/7 of its original speed, the tank gets filled 30 minutes earlier than usual. How much time did the pump originally take to fill the tank? A) 135 minutes B) 140 minutes C) 145 minutes D) 150 minutes
💡Correct Answer: Option A (135 minutes)
Since work is constant, time taken is inversely proportional to speed. Speed ratio (New : Old) = 9 : 7 => Time ratio (New : Old) = 7 : 9. The difference is 9k - 7k = 2k = 30 minutes => k = 15 minutes. Original time = 9k = 9 × 15 = 135 minutes.
Q77
Basic MathematicsSpeed, Distance and Time
Three boats, A, B and C, start from the same jetty and move in the same direction along a river. Their speeds in still water are 18 km/h, 24 km/h and 36 km/h, respectively. Boat B starts 1 hour after Boat A. If Boat B and Boat C overtake Boat A at the same time, how many hours after Boat B did Boat C start? A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 3 hours D) Cannot be determined
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 hour)
Let t be the time taken by Boat B to overtake Boat A. Boat A has travelled for (t + 1) hours. Distance: 18(t + 1) = 24t => 18 = 6t => t = 3 hours. So B travels for 3 hours, meaning Boat A travelled for 3 + 1 = 4 hours, and overtaking distance = 18 × 4 = 72 km. Boat C also covers 72 km at 36 km/h, taking 72 / 36 = 2 hours. Since the overtake happens 4 hours after A started, Boat C must have started 4 - 2 = 2 hours after Boat A. Since Boat B started 1 hour after A, Boat C started 2 - 1 = 1 hour after Boat B.
Q78
Basic ReasoningSyllogism
Choose the correct inference from the statements Statements: I. All scientists are researchers. II. No researcher is a poet. Conclusions: I. No scientist is a poet. II. Some researchers are definitely scientists. A) Only Conclusion I follows B) Only Conclusion II follows C) Both I and II follow D) Neither I nor II follow
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II follow)
From 'All scientists are researchers' and 'No researcher is a poet': Since the entire set of scientists lies inside researchers, and researchers have zero overlap with poets, no scientist can be a poet (Conclusion I follows). Furthermore, since scientists are researchers, the subset of researchers containing scientists proves that some researchers are definitely scientists (Conclusion II follows). Thus, both follow.
Q79
Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding
Find the correct answer: If SMART = 96 and MIND = 56, then PRO = ? A) 55 B) 56 C) 57 D) 58
💡Correct Answer: Option D (58)
The logic is: (Sum of positional values of letters) + (number of letters)². For SMART: (19 + 13 + 1 + 18 + 20) + 5² = 71 + 25 = 96. For MIND: (13 + 9 + 14 + 4) + 4² = 40 + 16 = 56. For PRO: P(16) + R(18) + O(15) = 49. Adding 3² = 9: 49 + 9 = 58.
Q80
Basic MathematicsProfit, Loss and Partnerships
A company divides its total investment of Rs. 12,00,000 among three projects A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. After one year: Project A gives a return of 10% profit Project B gives a return of 20% profit Project C incurs a 10% loss What is the overall percentage gain or loss of the company? A) 3% loss B) 3% profit C) 3.6% profit D) 3.6% loss
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3% profit)
Total parts = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 parts. Net return = (2 × (+10%) + 3 × (+20%) + 5 × (-10%)) / 10 = (20 + 60 - 50) / 10 = +30 / 10 = +3%. Since the value is positive, the company made an overall 3% profit.
Q81
Modern Indian HistoryRevolt of 1857 & Government of India Act 1858
Following the suppression of the revolt of 1857, what major constitutional change was adopted via the Government of India Act, 1858?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The power of the East India Company was abolished, and power was transferred to the British Crown.)
The Government of India Act, 1858 (also known as the Act for the Better Government of India) liquidated the British East India Company and transferred the government, territories, and revenues of India directly to the British Crown (Queen Victoria). The Governor-General was given the additional title of Viceroy, and a Secretary of State for India was created to head the Indian administration.
Q82
Modern Indian HistoryLord Lytton & Nationalist Upsurge
Which of the following administrative measures taken by Lord Lytton was a factor in the rise of Indian Nationalism?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Passing of the Vernacular Press Act (1878))
Lord Lytton served as Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880. His reactionary administration enacted the Vernacular Press Act (1878) to muzzle Indian language newspapers, the Arms Act (1878), reduced the maximum age for ICS recruitment from 21 to 19, and held the lavish Delhi Durbar during the devastating 1876-78 famine. These repressive measures galvanized educated Indians and greatly accelerated the rise of organized nationalism.
Q83
Modern Indian HistoryFormation of Indian National Congress
The 'Safety Valve theory' propounded by leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai in the context of the formation of the Indian National Congress suggests that-
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The congress was formed to provide a peaceful outlet for public discontent and prevent another revolt like 1857.)
The 'Safety Valve theory', highlighted by Lala Lajpat Rai in his 1916 work 'Young India', argued that A.O. Hume founded the Indian National Congress under the guidance of Viceroy Lord Dufferin to act as an escape pipe or 'safety valve' for releasing growing political and social discontent among educated Indians, thereby preventing another mass revolt similar to 1857.
Q84
Modern Indian HistoryModerate Phase of INC
What was/were the primary political demands of the Moderates during the early phase of the Indian National Congress?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Expansion of Legislative Councils and greater representation of Indians in the Civil Services)
During the Moderate phase (1885–1905), Congress leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Pherozeshah Mehta pursued constitutional agitation. Their primary political demands included expansion and reform of the Imperial and Provincial Legislative Councils with greater elected Indian representation, and the Indianisation of higher administrative and Civil Services (holding simultaneous examinations in India and England).
Q85
Modern Indian HistorySwadeshi Movement & Indigenous Enterprises
Match the following in the context of the Swadeshi Movement: Swadeshi Initiatives: i. Bengal Chemicals Factory ii. Steam Navigation Company iii. Dawn Society iv. Swadesh Bandhab Samiti Associated Leaders: a. V.O. Chidambaram Pillai b. Prafulla Chandra Ray c. Ashwini Kumar Datta d. Satish Chandra Mukherjee Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
During the Swadeshi Movement (1905–1908): - Bengal Chemicals Pharmaceutical Works was established by Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray (i-b). - Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was launched at Tuticorin by V.O. Chidambaram Pillai (ii-a). - Dawn Society was founded in 1902 to promote national education by Satish Chandra Mukherjee (iii-d). - Swadesh Bandhab Samiti was formed in Barisal by Ashwini Kumar Datta to mobilize the masses (iv-c). Hence, the correct matching is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q86
Modern Indian HistoryIndian National Movement Chronology
Arrange the following historical events in the correct Chronological order. I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak II. Formation of the Swaraj Party by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru III. Self-Respect Movement by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker IV. Chauri Chaura incident during the Non-Cooperation Movement
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I - IV - II - III)
Chronological timeline of the events: I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak: August 1, 1920 (on the day the Non-Cooperation Movement began). IV. Chauri Chaura incident: February 4/5, 1922 (led to the suspension of Non-Cooperation Movement). II. Formation of the Swaraj Party: January 1, 1923 (founded by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru). III. Self-Respect Movement: 1925 (launched by Periyar E.V. Ramasamy in Tamil Nadu). Therefore, the correct chronological order is I - IV - II - III.
Q87
Modern Indian HistoryShimla Deputation & Formation of Muslim League
Why was the Shimla deputation (1906) prominent for the rise of the Muslim League in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The deputation received a positive assurance from Lord Minto regarding separate electorates)
On October 1, 1906, a delegation of 35 aristocratic Muslim leaders led by the Aga Khan met Viceroy Lord Minto at Shimla (the Shimla Deputation). They demanded separate electorates and weighted representation for Muslims in municipal and legislative bodies. Lord Minto gave them a sympathetic reception and positive assurance, which directly encouraged the establishment of the All India Muslim League in Dhaka in December 1906 and culminated in the Indian Councils Act 1909.
Q88
Modern Indian HistoryKhilafat Movement
Who were the two primary brothers who founded the 'All India Khilafat Committee' in 1919?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali)
The All India Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in 1919 under the leadership of the 'Ali Brothers'—Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar and Maulana Shaukat Ali—along with prominent leaders like Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Hasrat Mohani, and Hakim Ajmal Khan, to defend the Ottoman Caliphate against British dismemberment.
Q89
Modern Indian HistoryQuit India Movement & Parallel Governments
In which of the following places was a 'Parallel Government' (Prati Sarkar) formed by Nana Patil during the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Satara (Maharashtra))
During the Quit India Movement in 1942–43, Nana Patil, along with leaders like Y.B. Chavan and Kisan Veer, established a famous parallel government ('Prati Sarkar') in Satara (Maharashtra). It functioned effectively for nearly three years, running volunteer corps (Toofan Sena) and people's courts (Nyayadan Mandals). (Ballia in UP was led by Chittu Pandey; Tamluk in Bengal was led by Satish Chandra Samanta).
Q90
Modern Indian HistoryIndian Independence Act 1947
On which of the following dates the 'Indian Independence Act-1947' was given the British Royal Assent, thereby giving legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (July 18, 1947)
The Indian Independence Bill was introduced in the British Parliament on July 4, 1947, and received the Royal Assent from King George VI on July 18, 1947. The Act provided for the partition of British India and the creation of two independent Dominions, India and Pakistan, with effect from August 15, 1947.
Q91
Indian Polity & ConstitutionDirective Principles of State Policy
Match the following: Directive Principles: i. Organisation of village panchayats ii. Uniform Civil Code for citizens iii. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive iv. Promotion of International peace Constitutional Articles: a. Article 44 b. Article 40 c. Article 51 d. Article 50 Choose the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
Under Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Directive Principles of State Policy): - Article 40: Organisation of village panchayats (i-b) - Article 44: Uniform Civil Code for the citizens (ii-a) - Article 50: Separation of judiciary from the executive (iii-d) - Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security (iv-c) Thus, the correct match is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q92
Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & Constitutional Amendments
The Right to elementary education was made a Fundamental right under Article-21A through which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (86th Amendment Act)
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, providing free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years as a Fundamental Right. It also amended Article 45 (DPSP) and added clause (k) to Article 51A (Fundamental Duties).
Q93
Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Duties
Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) and select the INCORRECT statements- I. These Duties were part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950. II. These Duties can always be enforced through Writ jurisdiction in the court of law. III. Promoting Scientific temper and spirit of enquiry is one of the Fundamental Duties.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and II only)
Statements I and II are incorrect: - Statement I is INCORRECT: Fundamental Duties were not part of the original 1950 Constitution; they were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. - Statement II is INCORRECT: Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable; unlike Fundamental Rights, they cannot be enforced directly through writ jurisdiction in the courts. - Statement III is CORRECT: Article 51A(h) states that it is the duty of every citizen to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform. Hence, statements I and II are incorrect.
Q94
Indian Polity & ConstitutionTypes of Democracy
Which of the following statements are correct about Direct democracy and Indirect democracy? I. In Indirect democracy, people themselves vote on every legislation. II. Recall, Initiative and Plebiscite are the instruments of Direct democracy. III. Gram sabhas in the villages are the classic example of the functioning of Direct democracy in India. IV. Direct democracy is also known as Representative democracy, where people elect their representative leaders to make laws.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II and III only)
- Statement I is FALSE: In direct democracy (not indirect), citizens directly vote on legislation. In indirect democracy, elected representatives vote on laws. - Statement II is TRUE: Referendum, Initiative, Recall, and Plebiscite are the four classic devices of direct democracy. - Statement III is TRUE: Gram Sabhas in India embody direct democracy because all registered adult village electors directly deliberate and decide on village plans and welfare. - Statement IV is FALSE: Indirect democracy (not direct democracy) is known as Representative democracy. Therefore, statements II and III only are correct.
Q95
Indian Polity & ConstitutionElectoral System & Representation of the People Acts
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched- Provisions | Legal/Constitutional Sources I. Conduct of elections of President and Vice President | Representation of the People Act, 1950 II. Disqualifications for contesting elections | Representation of the People Act, 1951 III. Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18 years | 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II and III only)
- Pair I is INCORRECTLY matched: Elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President are regulated by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952 (not RPA 1950, which deals with seat allocation and electoral rolls). - Pair II is CORRECTLY matched: Disqualifications for contesting elections (criminal conviction, corrupt practices) are prescribed under Sections 8 to 11A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. - Pair III is CORRECTLY matched: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 amended Article 326 to reduce the minimum voting age from 21 to 18 years. Hence, pairs II and III only are correctly matched.
Q96
Indian Polity & ConstitutionElection Commission of India & Party Symbols
Who has the final authority to issue symbols to the political parties and solve disputes between the factions of a party claiming the same symbol?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Election Commission of India)
Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 (specifically Paragraph 15), the Election Commission of India (ECI) has the sole and final authority to allot symbols to political parties and to adjudicate disputes between rival sections or factions of a recognized political party claiming the same name and election symbol.
Q97
Indian Polity & ConstitutionPresidential Elections in India
Identify the INCORRECT statements about the Presidential Elections in India- I. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha do not participate in the election of the President, but participate in the impeachment process. II. Elected members of the State Legislative Councils also vote in the Election of the President, if the state has a bicameral legislature. III. According to Article 55(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Presidential Election is conducted by the secret ballot. IV. The value of each MLA's vote is the same across all states to ensure the principle of "One member, One vote".
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II and IV only)
Statements II and IV are INCORRECT: - Statement I is CORRECT: Under Article 54, nominated MPs do not vote in the presidential election; however, under Article 61, nominated MPs do participate in presidential impeachment. - Statement II is INCORRECT: Members of State Legislative Councils (MLCs)—whether elected or nominated—do NOT participate in presidential elections. - Statement III is CORRECT: Article 55(3) mandates proportional representation with single transferable vote and voting by secret ballot. - Statement IV is INCORRECT: The value of an MLA's vote is NOT equal across all states; it is calculated using the formula: (State Population) / (Total Elected MLAs × 1000), meaning MLAs from different states have vastly different vote values (e.g., UP MLA vote value is 208, whereas Sikkim MLA vote value is 7). Therefore, the incorrect statements are II and IV.
Q98
Indian Polity & ConstitutionEighth Schedule Languages
Identify the correct statements about the languages in Schedule Eighth of the Indian Constitution- I. Rajasthani is one of the 22 languages currently included in the Eighth Schedule. II. The languages - Bodo, Dogri and Maithili were added in the Schedule by the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II)
Both statements are false: - Statement I is FALSE: Rajasthani is NOT among the 22 languages recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. - Statement II is FALSE: The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. The languages Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali (BDMS) were added by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. Hence, Neither I nor II is correct.
Q99
Indian Polity & ConstitutionOfficial Language & Linguistic Minorities
Which of the following statements are correct? I. Article 343 of the Indian Constitution designates Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union. II. According to Article 350-B of the Indian Constitution, a special officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements are correct: - Statement I is CORRECT: Article 343(1) of the Indian Constitution states: 'The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.' - Statement II is CORRECT: Article 350-B(1) (inserted by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956) provides that 'There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President.'
Q100
General Knowledge & Current AffairsUnited Nations Organization
Consider the following statements about the United Nations and select the correct option. I. All UN Members are part of the General Assembly. II. States are admitted to membership by the decision of the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council. III. Members have the voting rights proportional to their financial contributions only.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and II only)
- Statement I is CORRECT: Under Article 9 of the UN Charter, the General Assembly consists of all member states of the United Nations (currently 193 members). - Statement II is CORRECT: Under Article 4(2) of the UN Charter, admission of any state to UN membership is decided by a two-thirds majority in the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council. - Statement III is INCORRECT: In the UN General Assembly, each member state has exactly one vote regardless of its size, population, wealth, or financial contributions, adhering to the principle of sovereign equality (Article 18(1)). Hence, statements I and II only are correct.
Q101
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSolar System & Astronomy
Which of the following statements about the solar system are correct? I. The planet Venus is also known as 'the Morning Star'. II. The asteroid belt, a region of rocky debris, lies between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. III. The Kuiper belt, a region of icy bodies, lies between the orbits of Planets Saturn and Uranus.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
- Statement I is CORRECT: Venus is commonly called the 'Morning Star' and 'Evening Star' because of its high reflectivity and visibility near sunrise and sunset. - Statement II is CORRECT: The Main Asteroid Belt is located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. - Statement III is INCORRECT: The Kuiper Belt is a circumstellar disc of icy bodies located beyond the orbit of Neptune (approx. 30 to 50 AU from the Sun), NOT between Saturn and Uranus. Therefore, statements I and II only are correct.
Q102
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Date Line & Longitudes
A ship is sailing from the International Date Line on Wednesday, from East to West (from America to Russia). What will happen to the day or date on the ship?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Date will change to Thursday (one day forward))
The International Date Line (IDL) lies around the 180° meridian. Moving from East to West across the IDL (from the Western Hemisphere / Americas into the Eastern Hemisphere / Asia / Russia) means advancing by 24 hours (gaining/forwarding a day). Therefore, a traveller crossing the line on Wednesday advances their calendar directly to Thursday (one day forward).
Q103
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEarth Movements & Solstices
On December 22nd, Winter Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, which of the following statements stands true?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The sun never sets at the Antarctic Circle)
On December 21/22 (Winter Solstice in Northern Hemisphere / Summer Solstice in Southern Hemisphere), the South Pole is tilted towards the Sun and the Sun is vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S). Consequently, regions south of the Antarctic Circle (66.5° S) experience continuous 24-hour daylight where the sun never sets. Meanwhile, the Arctic Circle experiences 24 hours of darkness.
Q104
Environment, Ecology & ForestryAltitudinal Zonation of Himalayan Forests
As one ascends from Jammu plains (300 m) to the Himalayas (4000 m), what would be the correct ecological sequence of the forest types?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tropical thorns - Sub-tropical pine - Himalayan moist temperate - Alpine Meadows)
With ascending altitude in Jammu & Kashmir: 1. 300 to 800 m (Plains and lower foothills): Tropical thorn and dry deciduous forests. 2. 800 to 1800 m (Mid elevations): Sub-tropical pine forests (Chir pine). 3. 1800 to 3000 m (Temperate zone): Himalayan moist temperate forests (Deodar, Kail, Oak, Fir, Spruce). 4. 3000 to 4000 m (High altitude alpine zone): Sub-alpine scrubs and Alpine Meadows (Bugyals, alpine pastures). Thus, the correct altitudinal sequence is: Tropical thorns -> Sub-tropical pine -> Himalayan moist temperate -> Alpine Meadows.
The Forest Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2023, exempted which of the following projects from the prior approval of the Central government?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Under Section 1A inserted by the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 (Van Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan Adhiniyam), prior central forest clearance is exempted for: - Strategic linear projects of national importance within 100 km of international borders, LAC, or LoC. - Security-related infrastructure projects up to 10 hectares. - Defence projects, camps for paramilitary forces, and specified public utility projects up to 5 hectares in Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) affected districts. Since all these categories are explicitly exempted, 'All of the above' is correct.
Q106
Environment, Ecology & ForestryWildlife Sanctuaries of Jammu & Kashmir
Match the following Wildlife sanctuaries with the districts they are located in: Wildlife Sanctuaries: i. Hirapora sanctuary ii. Rajparian (Daksum) sanctuary iii. Trikuta sanctuary Specific Districts: a. Reasi b. Shopian c. Anantnag Choose the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-b, ii-c, iii-a)
In Jammu & Kashmir: - Hirapora Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Shopian district in the Pir Panjal range (famous for the Markhor) (i-b). - Rajparian (Daksum) Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Anantnag district (famous for Hangul, musk deer) (ii-c). - Trikuta Wildlife Sanctuary encompasses the Trikuta hills (site of the Vaishno Devi shrine) in Reasi district (iii-a). Thus, the correct match is i-b, ii-c, iii-a.
Q107
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHydroelectric Projects & Rivers of J&K
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Dams | Rivers I. Uri-II | Jhelum II. Salal dam | Chenab III. Pakal Dul dam | Marusudar IV. Dulhasti dam | Ravi
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, II and III only)
- I. Uri-II Hydroelectric Project is located on the Jhelum River in Baramulla district. (Correct) - II. Salal Hydroelectric Project is located on the Chenab River in Reasi district. (Correct) - III. Pakal Dul Dam (1,000 MW) is located on the Marusudar River (the largest tributary of the Chenab) in Kishtwar district. (Correct) - IV. Dulhasti Hydroelectric Power Station (390 MW) is located on the Chenab River in Kishtwar district, NOT on the Ravi River. (Incorrect) Therefore, pairs I, II and III only are correctly matched.
Which of the following is/are examples of In-situ rainwater harvesting?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Storing water in the soil profile through mulching or contour bunding)
- In-situ rainwater harvesting refers to harvesting rainfall directly where it falls, storing moisture within the soil profile of the agricultural field itself through agronomic and soil conservation practices such as mulching, contour bunding, terracing, contour farming, and broad bed furrows. - Ex-situ rainwater harvesting involves capturing and storing surface runoff into structures outside the soil profile, such as farm ponds, check dams, rooftop cisterns, and underground storage tanks.
Q109
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInfrastructure & Tunnels of J&K
Identify the INCORRECT statements about tunnels in Jammu and Kashmir- I. Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel is a 9 km long, twin-tube, all-weather road tunnel connecting Udhampur and Ramban. II. Tunnel T 50, a 12.77 km engineering feat connecting Khari and Sumber in Jammu & Kashmir, stands as one of India's longest transportation tunnels constructed under the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II)
Both statements are factually correct, so neither is incorrect: - Statement I is CORRECT: Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (formerly Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 is ~9.28 km long, twin-tube, all-weather tunnel connecting Chenani in Udhampur district with Nashri in Ramban district. - Statement II is CORRECT: Tunnel T-50 is 12.77 km long between Khari and Sumber railway stations in Ramban district on the USBRL section, making it India's longest transportation railway tunnel. Since both statements are true, Neither I nor II is incorrect.
Q110
General Knowledge & Current AffairsUNESCO World Heritage Sites in India
The UNESCO World Heritage Sites 'Mountain Railways of India' recognises which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The UNESCO World Heritage Site 'Mountain Railways of India' includes three historic railway lines: 1. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (West Bengal) - inscribed in 1999 2. Nilgiri Mountain Railway (Tamil Nadu) - inscribed in 2005 3. Kalka-Shimla Railway (Himachal Pradesh) - inscribed in 2008 Hence, all of the above are recognized as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
Q111
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsBinary Arithmetic & 2's Complement Overflow
A computer uses 8-bit 2's complement representation. Which of the following operations will cause overflow? A) 01010101 + 00110011 B) 10011001 + 10101010 C) 01111111 + 00000001 D) 11110000 + 00010000
💡Correct Answer: Option C (01111111 + 00000001)
In 8-bit signed two's complement representation, valid integers range from -128 (10000000) to +127 (01111111). - In Option C: 01111111 represents the maximum positive integer (+127), and 00000001 represents +1. Adding them yields 10000000, which in two's complement represents -128. Adding two positive numbers to produce a negative number is the classic textbook definition of signed integer overflow (wrapping around to negative). (Note: In strict signed addition, options A and B also exceed the 8-bit signed bounds [-128, +127], while option D adds -16 and +16 yielding 0 without overflow. Option C is the canonical textbook demonstration of MAX_INT + 1 causing overflow).
Q112
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsApplications of Information Technology
Which of the following statements is true regarding applications of Information Technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Telemedicine allows doctors to provide consultation using communication networks.)
Statement C is true: Telemedicine is the application of information and communications technology (telecommunications networks, video conferencing, digital health records) enabling healthcare professionals to evaluate, diagnose, and provide consultations to patients remotely.
Q113
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSystem Software & Firmware
Match the following: Column - I: i. Firmware ii. Utility Software iii. Device Driver iv. Compiler Column - II: a. Translates high-level language into machine code b. Controls communication between operating system and hardware device c. Stored permanently in ROM to initialize hardware d. Performs system maintenance tasks like disk cleanup Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a)
Matching descriptions: - i. Firmware: Embedded software stored permanently in ROM/flash memory that initializes and tests hardware during boot (BIOS/UEFI) (c) - ii. Utility Software: System software that performs housekeeping and maintenance tasks such as disk defragmentation, cleanup, and antivirus scans (d) - iii. Device Driver: Software that translates commands between the operating system and a specific hardware peripheral (b) - iv. Compiler: Language processor that converts entire source code written in a high-level language into machine code (a) Therefore, the correct match is i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.
Q114
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsOperating Systems & Virtual Memory (Thrashing)
A student is using a computer with 8 GB RAM. He opens: - A web browser with 25 tabs - A video editing software - A music player - A code editor After some time, the system becomes slow, but it does NOT crash. The hard disk activity light keeps blinking continuously even though he is not saving or opening files. Which of the following is the most accurate explanation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The operating system is using virtual memory and swapping data between RAM and disk.)
When demanding applications consume all available physical RAM (8 GB), the Operating System's Virtual Memory manager activates the paging file/swap space on the secondary storage drive (HDD/SSD). To keep all programs running without crashing, pages of memory are repeatedly swapped in and out between physical RAM and disk storage. This condition (often known as 'paging thrashing') causes sustained high hard disk I/O, reflected by the continuously blinking hard drive LED and significant system slowdown.
Q115
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsE-Governance & IT Integration
A government launches a system where: - Citizens apply for documents online - Applications are automatically verified using databases - SMS/email updates are sent automatically - Officials approve requests digitally - Data is stored centrally and accessed across departments Which of the following best explains the real contribution of Information Technology (IT) in this system?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (IT integrates communication, data processing, storage, and automation)
The workflow illustrates the multifaceted nature of Information Technology: it does not merely digitize paper or provide an internet form, but seamlessly integrates telecommunications (SMS/email updates), automated data processing and verification, centralized enterprise databases, and digital workflow automation into a cohesive government service delivery ecosystem.
Q116
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsDigital Media & Raster vs Vector Graphics
A student uploads a PDF file to an online PDF-to-JPG converter website. After conversion, he downloads the JPG files but later notices: - The images are blurred - File size is much larger than expected - Text cannot be copied anymore Which of the following is the most accurate reason?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The PDF was converted into raster images.)
A standard PDF document stores text and shapes using scalable vector fonts and selectable character streams. When converted to JPG format, each page is rasterized into a grid of static pixels (bitmap/raster image). As a consequence: 1. Scalable vector glyphs are flattened into fixed-resolution pixels, leading to blurring when zoomed. 2. The character information is lost and cannot be selected or copied as text. 3. Large pixel arrays at high dimensions result in larger uncompressed bitmap payloads.
Q117
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsGeospatial Data, KMZ & Geo-tagging
Which of the following statements is true regarding KMZ files and geo-tagged photos?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Geo-tagging embeds latitude and longitude inside image metadata.)
Statement B is true: Geo-tagging is the process of embedding geographical identification data—specifically GPS latitude and longitude coordinates, altitude, and timestamps—directly into the metadata headers (such as EXIF headers) of digital image files.
Q118
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsCyber Security & Antivirus Mechanisms
Which of the following statements is correct regarding computer viruses and modern antivirus systems?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Signature-based antivirus detects only previously identified malware patterns.)
Statement B is correct: Signature-based detection works by comparing file contents against a database of known malware signatures (unique binary sequences or hashes). Consequently, it can only recognize and intercept threats whose signatures have already been analyzed, identified, and cataloged by security vendors.
Q119
Environment, Ecology & ForestryIT & Geospatial Applications in Forestry
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the use of modern computer applications in field operations of a Forest Department?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Forest apps replace the need for physical field inspections completely.)
Statement C is INCORRECT: Digital applications, GIS platforms, and remote sensing tools assist forest officers with real-time mapping, timber tracking, and patrolling, but they cannot eliminate the essential requirement for physical field inspections, ground truthing, and vigilance by forest staff on the ground.
Q120
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsCryptography & Information Security
In an e-Office system, a confidential file is sent digitally from a section officer to a higher authority. The department wants to ensure that only the intended officer can read the file during transmission. Which of the following ensures confidentiality during transmission?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Encrypting the file using the recipient's public key)
In asymmetric (public-key) cryptography, confidentiality is achieved by encrypting the confidential message or document with the recipient's public key. Once encrypted, the file can only be decrypted and read by the matching private key, which is kept secret and solely accessible by the intended recipient officer. (A digital signature ensures authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity, but does not provide confidentiality).
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About JKSSB Inspector FPF 2026 Previous Year Paper
This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB Inspector FPF examination conducted in 2026 by the Forest, Ecology & Environment Department. Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include Basic English, Basic Mathematics, Environment, Ecology & Forestry, General Science, General Awareness & Science, Basic Reasoning, Modern Indian History, Indian Polity & Constitution, General Knowledge & Current Affairs, Knowledge of Computer Applications. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.
