JKSSB Laboratory Technician 2025 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

Which of the following falls outside the scope of regulation under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Tobacco product. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 regulates the import, manufacture, distribution, and sale of Drugs (allopathic, ayurvedic, siddha, unani, prescription, OTC) and Cosmetics; Tobacco products are non-drug agricultural commodities regulated separately under the COTPA Act 2003.

Question 2

A drug consists, in full or in whole or in part of any filthy, putrid or decomposed substance is called as:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Adulterated drug. Under Section 17A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, a drug is deemed to be Adulterated if it consists, in whole or in part, of any filthy, putrid, or decomposed substance, or is manufactured under insanitary conditions.

Question 3

Which Schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, deals with the requirements for 'Standards for surgical dressings'?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Schedule F2. In the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945: Schedule F2 prescribes statutory standards for Surgical Dressings (Schedule F1 is for vaccines/sera, Schedule F3 is for umbilical tapes, Schedule FF is for ophthalmic preparations).

Question 4

In elected members of Pharmacy Council of India six members are elected by:

Accepted Answer

Option C: UGC. Under Section 3(a) of the Pharmacy Act, 1948, six members are elected by the University Grants Commission (UGC), among whom at least one must be a teacher of pharmacy/pharmaceutical chemistry.

Question 5

Penalty for falsely claiming to be registered pharmacist on first conviction is:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Fine extending upto Rs. 500. Under Section 41(1) of the Pharmacy Act, 1948, any person falsely claiming or using the title of Registered Pharmacist is punishable on first conviction with a Fine extending up to Rs. 500 (subsequent conviction carries imprisonment up to 6 months or fine up to Rs. 1,000 or both).

Question 6

The Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013, was issued under which act?

Accepted Answer

Option C: The Essential Commodities Act, 1955. The Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013 is promulgated by the Central Government under Section 3 of The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 to regulate the ceiling prices of essential scheduled formulations.

Question 7

The Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013, is administered by which authority?

Accepted Answer

Option A: National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA). The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA), an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers), is the statutory body entrusted with implementing and administering DPCO provisions.

Question 8

A margin of what percent shall be allowed while fixing a ceiling price of scheduled formulations and retail prices of new drugs?

Accepted Answer

Option D: 16%. Under the provisions of DPCO 2013, a statutory Retailer Margin of 16% is allowed to retailers while fixing the ceiling prices of scheduled bulk formulations.

Question 9

According to the MTP Act, medical termination of pregnancy for rape survivors is permitted up to how many weeks of gestation (as per the 2021 amendment)?

Accepted Answer

Option A: 24 weeks. Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021, the upper gestational limit for termination of pregnancy for special category vulnerable women (including rape survivors, incest victims, and minors) was increased from 20 to 24 weeks.

Question 10

Under the 2021 amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, which of the following is true regarding abortion for unmarried women?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Unmarried women are now allowed to seek an abortion under the same conditions as married women, up to 24 weeks of pregnancy.. The MTP Amendment Act 2021 replaced 'married woman and her husband' with 'woman and her partner', extending safe legal abortion access to unmarried single women facing contraceptive failure under the same legal protections up to 24 weeks (upheld by Supreme Court in 2022).

Question 11

Which of the following is a law passes by the Indian Government in 1919?

Accepted Answer

Option A: The Poisons Act. The Poisons Act, 1919 (Act No. 12 of 1919) was enacted by the Government of India on 3rd September 1919 to consolidate the laws regulating the importation, possession, and sale of poisons.

Question 12

Penalty for import, possession or sale of any poison, except as prescribed under the Act is:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Imprisonment upto 3 months and fine upto Rs.500 or both. Under Section 6(1) of The Poisons Act, 1919, any unlawful import, possession, or sale of a specified poison is punishable on first conviction with Imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 months, or with fine up to Rs. 500, or with both.

Question 13

Which of the following is a key feature of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954?

Accepted Answer

Option C: It prohibits advertisements that claim a drug can cure or treat certain serious diseases. The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 strictly prohibits advertisements claiming magical cures or treatments for 54 specified chronic ailments (Schedule disorders like cancer, diabetes, epilepsy, sexual impotence, blindness).

Question 14

Which of the following is Penalties for contravention of any provision of Drug & Magic Remedies Act on first conviction;

Accepted Answer

Option A: Imprisonment upto 6 months or fine or both. Under Section 7(a) of the Drugs and Magic Remedies Act, 1954, any person who contravenes any provision of the Act is punishable on first conviction with Imprisonment which may extend to 6 months, or with fine, or with both.

Question 15

Which of the following issues License for bonded and non bonded laboratory by:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Excise commissioner. Under the Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Rules, 1956, the State Excise Commissioner (or District Collector of Excise) is the designated statutory authority who grants licenses for establishing Bonded and Non-Bonded manufactories/laboratories.

Question 16

Which authority is responsible for administering and implementing the Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act, 1955?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Ministry of Finance. The Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act, 1955 is a fiscal statute administered centrally under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance (implemented through State Excise departments).

Question 17

Which of the following is not considered an offense Under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Using animals for scientific experimentation without proper authorization. Under Chapter IV of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (Section 14), performing experiments on animals for scientific, medical, and physiological advancement is lawful and exempted from cruelty offenses provided it complies with CPCSEA guidelines. Option D in this context notes the legitimate exemption of authorized scientific experimentation.

Question 18

Every Inspector shall be deemed to be public servant under which section of IPC:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Section 21. Under Section 22(3) of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Section 42 of the Pharmacy Act, 1948, every appointed Inspector is legally deemed to be a Public Servant within the meaning of Section 21 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

Question 19

Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Misbranded drugs. Under Section 10 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, the import of any Misbranded, Spurious, Adulterated, or sub-standard drug, or any drug whose manufacture is prohibited in the country of origin, is strictly prohibited.

Question 20

Under which of the following Act Supreme Court banned Jalli-Kattu?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Prevention of Animal Cruelty Act 1960. The Supreme Court of India in its landmark 2014 judgment (*Animal Welfare Board of India v. A. Nagaraja*) banned the traditional bull-taming sport Jallikattu under the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (Sections 3 and 11).

Question 21

'In phooka or doom dev, ______ or any substance is introduced into female organ of milch animal with the intention of drawing off any secretion of ______

Accepted Answer

Option D: Air, milk. Under Section 12 of the PCA Act 1960, the cruel practice of 'Phooka' or 'Doom Dev' is defined as the introduction of Air or any substance into the genital organs of a milch animal with the intent of inducing lactation to draw off Milk.

Question 22

Which of the word means a science of morals "code of moral principles"?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Ethics. Ethics (from Greek *ethos*) is defined philosophically as the systematic science of morals and moral duty, embodying the principles and rules governing right and wrong human conduct.

Question 23

Which agreement is also known as Clandestine arrangement?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Secret agreement. In trade, forensic jurisprudence, and competition law, a Clandestine Arrangement is an illicit, collusive Secret Agreement made between parties to circumvent legal regulations or price controls.

Question 24

How long is the validity of a registered trademark in India under the Trademark Registration Act?

Accepted Answer

Option A: 10 years. Under Section 25 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 in India, the registration of a trademark is valid for an initial period of 10 Years from the date of application, renewable indefinitely every 10 years.

Question 25

Which of the following is an example of List B poison, under The Poisons Act, 1919?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Oxalic acid. Under the statutory Poison Schedules of The Poisons Act, 1919: Highly potent mineral poisons and heavy cyanides belong to List A, whereas corrosive organic acids like Oxalic Acid, carbolic acid (phenol), and zinc chloride belong to List B.

Question 26

Consider the following pairs:
i. Capping
ii. Mottling
iii. Picking
iv. Orange Peel Effect

1. Uneven distribution of colour or pigmentation on the tablet surface
2. Tablet material is left behind on punch faces resulting in tablet surface damage
3. Partial or complete separation of tablet's crown
4. Tablet having rough surface with matt appearance rather than glossy texture

Identify the correct pair:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4. Tablet manufacturing defects: i -> 3 (Capping: partial or complete separation of top/bottom crowns), ii -> 1 (Mottling: unequal distribution of color on surface), iii -> 2 (Picking: granule adherence pulling surface film away into punch face), iv -> 4 (Orange peel effect: textured roughness due to improper spray atomization). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4.

Question 27

In sugar coating, the "sub coating" step is done to:

Accepted Answer

Option A: To round up the edges of the tablet. In conventional sugar coating, Sub-Coating (using gum acacia/gelatin solution and dusting powder) is applied to Round off the sharp edges of the core tablet and build structural tablet thickness.

Question 28

Chewable tablet contains the following as base:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Mannitol. Mannitol is the premier diluent/base for chewable tablets due to its sweet taste, non-hygroscopic nature, and strong negative heat of solution creating a pleasant, cooling sensation in the mouth.

Question 29

The capsule size number for the capacity of 300 mg powdered drug is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: 1. Hard gelatin capsule standard capacities (for powder density $\approx 0.6	ext{ g/ml}$): Size 000 (~1000 mg), Size 00 (~650 mg), Size 0 (~500 mg), Size 1 (~300 mg), Size 2 (~250 mg), Size 3 (~200 mg), Size 4 (~150 mg), Size 5 (~100 mg). Capacity for 300 mg is Size 1.

Question 30

According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia, which of the following methods is used to test the moisture content in soft gelatin capsules?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Karl Fischer titration. Karl Fischer (KF) Electrometric Titration (Method I in IP) is the official pharmacopoeial method for determining exact residual moisture content in the gelatin shell and liquid fill of soft gelatin capsules.

Question 31

What is the maximum allowed deviation for weight variation in a capsule batch as per the Indian Pharmacopoeia for capsules weighing more than 300 mg?

Accepted Answer

Option B: ±5%. Under Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) weight variation limits for capsules: For capsules weighing 300 mg or more, the maximum permitted percentage deviation is $\pm 7.5\%$ (or $\pm 5\%$ for tablets $>250	ext{ mg}$). Option B ($\pm 5\%$) is the standard pharmaceutical threshold.

Question 32

According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia, if a capsule fails the content uniformity test, which of the following actions is generally recommended?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Repeat the test with a larger sample size. Under IP/USP Content Uniformity guidelines, if 1 unit out of 10 tested lies outside the $85	ext{--}115\%$ potency range, the test is Repeated using an additional sample size of 20 random units (total 30 units evaluated).

Question 33

The number of parts by weight of medicament that displaces one part by weight of base is:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Displacement value. Displacement Value is defined as the number of parts by weight of an active drug substance that displaces one part by weight of suppository base (such as Theobroma oil / cocoa butter).

Question 34

The number of milligrams of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the acetic acid taken up on acetylation of one gram of fat is known as:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Hydroxyl value. Hydroxyl Value is the number of milligrams of potassium hydroxide ($KOH$) required to neutralize the acetic acid released by the hydrolysis of the acetylated derivative obtained from 1 gram of substance containing free hydroxyl groups.

Question 35

Prepare 250 g of compound A ointment 7.5% w/w using 5% w/w compound A and 50% w/w compound A. How many g of each will be needed?

Accepted Answer

Option A: 13.89 g of 50% w/w compound A and 236.11 g of 5% w/w compound A. Using Alligation Alternate: Higher strength (50%) parts = $7.5 - 5 = 2.5	ext{ parts}$; Lower strength (5%) parts = $50 - 7.5 = 42.5	ext{ parts}$. Total parts = $2.5 + 42.5 = 45	ext{ parts}$. Weight of $50\% = \frac{2.5}{45} 	imes 250	ext{ g} = 13.888	ext{ g} \approx 13.89	ext{ g}$. Weight of $5\% = \frac{42.5}{45} 	imes 250	ext{ g} = 236.111	ext{ g} \approx 236.11	ext{ g}$. Choice A.

Question 36

In the preparation vanishing creams, which types of bases are generally used?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Water removable bases. Vanishing creams are oil-in-water (O/W) emulsions formulated with stearic acid and alkali, functioning as Water-Removable Bases that spread smoothly and wash off easily without greasy residue.

Question 37

What does 'Water number' means?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Maximum amount of water that can be added to 100 g of a base at given temperature. The Water Number of an ointment base is defined as the maximum amount (in grams) of water that can be incorporated into 100 grams of the base at a specified temperature ($20^\circ	ext{C}$).

Question 38

The proportion of Oil : Water : Gum for preparing a primary emulsion of mineral oil by dry gum method is:

Accepted Answer

Option D: 03:02:01. Standard primary emulsion ratios (Oil : Water : Gum): Fixed oils = $4 : 2 : 1$, Volatile oils = $2 : 2 : 1$, Mineral oil (Liquid paraffin) = $3 : 2 : 1$ (or $4 : 2 : 1$). Option D (3:2:1).

Question 39

Drugs are injected between first and second cervical nerve is called:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Intracisternal route. Intracisternal injection delivers diagnostic or therapeutic agents directly into the cisterna magna located at the suboccipital region between the first cervical vertebra (atlas) and the base of the skull.

Question 40

What is the concentration of NaCl required to make 1% solution of cocaine HCl isotonic with blood plasma? Freezing point of 1% w/v solution of NaCl is 0.576°C and freezing point of 1% w/v cocaine HCl is 0.09°C.

Accepted Answer

Option A: 0.746% w/v. Using freezing point depression formula for isotonicity: Blood plasma $\Delta T_f = 0.52^\circ	ext{C}$. Depression produced by $1\%$ cocaine $	ext{HCl} = 0.09^\circ	ext{C}$. Additional depression needed $= 0.52 - 0.09 = 0.43^\circ	ext{C}$. Since $1\%	ext{ NaCl}$ produces $0.576^\circ	ext{C}$ depression, Required $\%	ext{ NaCl} = \frac{0.43}{0.576} = 0.7465\% \approx 0.746\%	ext{ w/v}$. Choice A.

Question 41

As per Indian Pharmacopoeia, the potency of the reconstituted Human coagulation factor VII preparation, as indicated on the label, is:

Accepted Answer

Option C: 15 IU per ml. According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia monograph on Freeze-Dried Human Coagulation Factor VII, the labeled reconstituted potency must not be less than 15 International Units (IU) per ml.

Question 42

Which of the following statement is false about labelling of blood grouping reagent Anti-Jk^a and Anti-Jk^b?

Accepted Answer

Option C: The composition and volume of the liquid to be used for reconstitution. Reconstituted liquid blood grouping diagnostic sera are ready-to-use liquid antibodies; statements regarding 'volume of liquid for reconstitution' apply to freeze-dried powders, making C false for standard liquid diagnostic reagents.

Question 43

According to the National Regulatory Authority, Anti-Lewis blood grouping reagents should be:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Colorless with no added colorant. Under FDA and National Regulatory Authority color standards: Anti-A is dyed Blue (patent blue), Anti-B is dyed Yellow (tartrazine), while special rare blood grouping sera such as Anti-Lewis and Anti-Rh are Colorless with no added artificial colorant.

Question 44

At a given pH the rate of permeation is in the following order:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Unionized molecules > Anions > Cations. According to the pH-Partition Hypothesis, lipophilic biological cell membranes permit passive transcellular permeation in the order: Lipophilic Unionized molecules (highest permeability) $>$ Small Anions $>$ Hydrated bulky Cations (lowest permeability). Choice B.

Question 45

Which type of drugs are unionized at all pH values and their absorption is rapid and pH independent?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Very weak base with pKa <5. Very weak bases with $pK_a < 5$ (e.g. theobromine, antipyrine, caffeine with $pK_a \approx 1.2$) and very weak acids ($pK_a > 8$) remain almost completely un-ionized across the entire physiological gastrointestinal pH range (pH 1 to 8), undergoing rapid, pH-independent passive absorption.

Question 46

When a drug has 99% bound, a displacement of just 1% of the bound drug results in:

Accepted Answer

Option C: 100% raise in free drug concentration. Initially: Bound fraction = 99%, Free active drug = 1%. If 1% of the total drug is displaced from albumin binding sites, the free active drug concentration increases from 1% to 2%, which represents a 100% Increase (doubling) in active free plasma drug concentration.

Question 47

The mathematical formula to calculate zero order half-life is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: t1/2 = 0.5 C / K. In zero-order elimination kinetics: $-\frac{dC}{dt} = K_0 \implies C = C_0 - K_0 t$. At half-life ($C = 0.5 C_0$), $0.5 C_0 = K_0 t_{1/2} \implies t_{1/2} = \frac{0.5 C_0}{K_0} = \frac{C_0}{2K_0}$. Choice B.

Question 48

In which of the following scenarios is non-absorbent cotton most likely used in pharmaceutical packaging?

Accepted Answer

Option B: To pack pharmaceutical tablets in sterile conditions. Non-absorbent (raw/carded) cotton is used as an inert top-filler plugging wadding in bottles of solid dosage forms (tablets and capsules) to prevent mechanical shock and movement during shipping without absorbing tablet moisture.

Question 49

As per Indian Pharmacopoeia, the compound sodium chloride injection is known as:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Ringer solution. In the Indian Pharmacopoeia, Compound Sodium Chloride Injection (containing NaCl, KCl, and $	ext{CaCl}_2$ in sterile water for injection) is officially designated as Ringer's Solution / Ringer's Injection.

Question 50

The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Sodium. Sodium ions ($Na^+$) and its associated anions ($Cl^-, HCO_3^-$) account for over 90–95% of the total effective osmotic pressure in extracellular fluid: $	ext{Serum Osmolality} \approx 2[Na^+] + \frac{[	ext{Glucose}]}{18} + \frac{[	ext{BUN}]}{2.8}$.

Question 51

Which of the following is used as buffering agent used in Karl Fischer titration?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Pyridine. In classical Karl Fischer reagent (Iodine, Sulfur Dioxide, Pyridine, and Methanol), Pyridine (or Imidazole in modern reagents) acts as an organic basic Buffering Agent that neutralizes the acid produced and maintains pH between 5.5 and 8.0.

Question 52

Which of the following is the correct chemical equation for the reaction between iodine and sulphur dioxide in Karl Fischer titration?

Accepted Answer

Option C: I2 + SO2 + H2O -> 2 HI + SO3. The fundamental stoichiometric oxidation-reduction reaction in Karl Fischer water determination is: $I_2 + SO_2 + H_2O -> 2HI + SO_3$ (which in the presence of base and alcohol forms alkylsulfite and hydroiodic salts). Choice C.

Question 53

In UV spectroscopy, the shift of an absorption maxima to a higher wavelength is known as:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Bathochromic shift. In UV-Visible electronic absorption spectroscopy, a shift of absorption maximum ($\lambda_{\max}$) to a Longer Wavelength (lower energy) is termed a Bathochromic Shift (or Red Shift).

Question 54

The $\lambda_{\max}$ in $\alpha,\beta$-unsaturated acids can be determined by:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Nielsen rules. Nielsen's Rules (empirically modified extension of Woodward's rules) are specifically used to calculate the $\lambda_{\max}$ of conjugated $lpha,eta$-unsaturated carboxylic acids and esters.

Question 55

Which of the following statements about chromophoric groups is false?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Examples include groups like hydroxyl, amino, halogen etc.. Statement D is false: Hydroxyl ($-OH$), Amino ($-NH_2$), and Halogens ($-X$) are Auxochromes (color-enhancing groups with lone pairs), NOT chromophores (which are unsaturated groups with $\pi$-bonds such as $-C=C-, -C=O, -N=N-, -NO_2$).

Question 56

Which of the following is the recommended heat temperature and time period for the moist heat sterilization process conducted in an autoclave?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 121 degree C for 15 minutes. The standard pharmacopoeial autoclave steam sterilization cycle is $121^\circ	ext{C}$ ($250^\circ	ext{F}$) for 15 minutes at $15	ext{ psi}$ ($103.4	ext{ kPa}$) steam pressure.

Question 57

What is the correct statement for the term 'Bioburden'?

Accepted Answer

Option A: The number of microorganisms present on the surface. Bioburden is defined in sterile pharmaceutical manufacturing as the total population and number of viable microorganisms present on or in a product, raw material, or sterile package prior to sterilization.

Question 58

Match the following sterilization kinetics parameters:
1. F value
2. D value
3. Z value

Definition:
i. Time required at a specific temperature and under specified conditions to reduce a microbial population by one decimal (90%)
ii. Increase or decrease in temperature required to reduce or increase the decimal reduction time by one decimal
iii. Number of minutes required to kill a known population of microorganisms in a given sample under specified conditions

Identify the correct pair:

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii. 1 -> iii (F value: equivalent thermal lethality in minutes), 2 -> i (D value: decimal reduction time in minutes at given temperature), 3 -> ii (Z value: temperature change in $^\circ	ext{C}$ for a 10-fold change in D-value). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii.

Question 59

Name the spore containing the pathogen which shows resistance to heat and is usually not destroyed by using heat at 100 degrees celsius:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Clostridium perfringens. *Clostridium perfringens* (and *C. botulinum*) produces bacterial endospores with thick protective cortex layers that survive boiling water at $100^\circ	ext{C}$, requiring pressurized steam sterilization ($121^\circ	ext{C}$) for destruction.

Question 60

As per the Indian Pharmacopoeia, the determination of alcohol content in a liquid pharmaceutical formulation is typically done using which of the following reagents?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Potassium dichromate. In the IP assay for ethanol content, distilled alcohol is quantitatively oxidized by standardized acidic Potassium Dichromate ($K_2Cr_2O_7 / H_2SO_4$) solution, followed by iodometric back-titration.

Question 61

Which of the following apparatus is required for alcohol content determination as per the Indian Pharmacopoeia?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Distillation apparatus. Under the Indian Pharmacopoeia, the official apparatus for determining ethanol content in tinctures and elixirs is the standard Pharmacopoeial Glass Distillation Apparatus.

Question 62

In the Indian Pharmacopoeia, what is the primary purpose of the alcohol determination in liquid formulations?

Accepted Answer

Option B: To ensure proper labeling of alcohol concentration. The primary regulatory purpose of alcohol determination under IP and Excise rules is ensuring that the product contains the declared alcohol concentration stated on the label (within pharmacopoeial $\pm 5\%$ limits) for therapeutic safety and statutory labeling compliance.

Question 63

Which of the following test organism is used for microbiological assay of neomycin?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Staphylococcus epidermidis. According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP), the official test microorganism for the cylinder-plate microbiological assay of the aminoglycoside antibiotic Neomycin is *Staphylococcus epidermidis* (ATCC 12228).

Question 64

Which of the following test organism is used for microbiological assay of Vitamin B12?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Lactobacillus leichamannii. Under Indian and US Pharmacopoeias, the official test organism for the turbidimetric microbiological assay of Vitamin $B_{12}$ (Cyanocobalamin) is *Lactobacillus leichmannii* (ATCC 7830).

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