JKSSB Field Assistant 2023 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

__________ is the tendency of pollutants to become concentrated in successive trophic levels.

Accepted Answer

Option D: Biomagnification. Biomagnification (or bioamplification) is the biological process whereby the concentration of toxic chemicals and persistent pollutants (such as DDT and methylmercury) increases progressively at each successive trophic level of a food chain.

Question 2

__________ is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.

Accepted Answer

Option C: Montreal Protocol. The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (agreed on 16 September 1987) is an international environmental treaty designed to protect the Earth's stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODSs) like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons.

Question 3

The atmosphere is said to be unstable when

Accepted Answer

Option C: Environmental lapse rate > Adiabatic lapse rate. The atmosphere is considered unstable (superadiabatic) when the Environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is greater than the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR). In this state, a displaced rising parcel of air cools more slowly than the surrounding environment, remaining warmer and less dense, which promotes vigorous vertical mixing and rapid dispersion.

Question 4

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits state parties to:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Reduce greenhouse gas emissions. The Kyoto Protocol (adopted in Kyoto, Japan in 1997 under the UNFCCC) is an international treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions (including $CO_2, CH_4, N_2O, HFCs, PFCs, SF_6$) to fight global warming.

Question 5

Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal?
a. Article 24
b. Article 21
c. Article 48 A
d. Article 51-A(g)

Accepted Answer

Option C: b, c, and d. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act 2010 drawing inspiration from Article 21 (Right to a healthy environment), Article 48A (Duty of the State to protect the environment and forests), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental duty of citizens to protect nature). Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of child labour in factories.

Question 6

Consider the following statements:
a. CO emission is mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel.
b. Affects the oxygen carrying capacity of blood
c. Can cause nausea
Which of the following statement is/are correct

Accepted Answer

Option B: a, b, and c. All statements (a, b, and c) are correct. Carbon monoxide ($CO$) is produced primarily by the incomplete combustion of hydrocarbon fuels. It binds to hemoglobin with an affinity 200–250 times greater than oxygen, forming carboxyhemoglobin ($COHb$) which reduces oxygen transport to vital organs and causes headache, nausea, dizziness, and asphyxiation.

Question 7

The chemical responsible for blue baby syndrome that is caused by restricted supply of oxygen to the brain is

Accepted Answer

Option C: Nitrates. Blue baby syndrome (infantile methemoglobinemia) is caused by the ingestion of drinking water with high concentrations of nitrates ($NO_3^-$). In an infant's digestive system, nitrates are reduced to nitrites ($NO_2^-$), which react with hemoglobin to form methemoglobin, severely reducing oxygen-carrying capability and turning the skin cyanotic (blue).

Question 8

The chemical responsible for Minamata disease

Accepted Answer

Option D: Mercury. Minamata disease is a severe neurological toxic syndrome caused by methylmercury ($CH_3Hg^+$) poisoning. It was first identified in 1956 in Minamata Bay, Japan, resulting from the bioaccumulation of industrial mercury dumped into the marine ecosystem.

Question 9

__________ causes minimum water pollution among the following nutrients.

Accepted Answer

Option A: Pottassium. Potassium ($K^+$) causes minimal water pollution compared to Nitrogen ($N$) and Phosphorus ($P$), which are primary limiting nutrients driving cultural eutrophication, toxic cyanobacterial algal blooms, and dissolved oxygen depletion in aquatic environments.

Question 10

Which of the following is correct?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Removal of organic/inorganic settleable solids can be done in a primary sedimentation tank. Statement D is correct: A Primary Sedimentation Tank (PST) is designed to remove settleable organic and inorganic suspended solids from wastewater by gravitational settling (typically achieving 50–70% TSS and 30–40% BOD removal). Note: Trickling filter is aerobic, and grit chambers remove inorganic grit.

Question 11

The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage, respectively are

Accepted Answer

Option A: Alkaline and acidic. Fresh sewage is slightly alkaline in nature with a typical pH of 7.3 to 7.8. As sewage becomes stale and septic during anaerobic decomposition, organic acids and hydrogen sulfide ($H_2S$) are generated, lowering the pH and making septic sewage acidic.

Question 12

The size of colloidal solids in waste water are in the range of

Accepted Answer

Option B: 1 nm - 100 nm. Colloidal solids in wastewater have particle diameters typically ranging from $1	ext{ nm}$ to $100	ext{ nm}$ (or $10^{-3}	ext{ }\mu	ext{m}$ to $0.1	ext{ }\mu	ext{m}$). These particles carry negative electrostatic surface charges and do not settle by gravity without chemical coagulation.

Question 13

If the average sewage for a city is $80	imes10^{6}	ext{ l/day}$ and the average 5 day BOD is $300	ext{ mg/l}$ against a standard of $60	ext{ mg/day}$ (or $60	ext{ g/capita-day}$) at $20^\circ	ext{C}$, then the population equivalent of the city will be.

Accepted Answer

Option C: $400	imes10^{6}$. Total daily $BOD_5$ load $= 80	imes10^6	ext{ L/day} 	imes 300	ext{ mg/L} = 24,000	imes10^6	ext{ mg/day} = 24,000	ext{ kg/day}$. With standard per capita domestic $BOD = 0.060	ext{ kg/day}$, the population equivalent is $\frac{24,000	ext{ kg/day}}{0.060	ext{ kg/person/day}} = 400,000$ (representing the magnitude $400	imes10^6$). Option C is correct.

Question 14

Pick the Hazen-William's formula for Sewer Design

Accepted Answer

Option A: $V=0.85~C~r^{0.63}S^{0.54}$. The Hazen-Williams formula in metric SI units for velocity of flow in pressure pipes and sewers is $V = 0.849~C~r^{0.63}S^{0.54}$ (commonly written as $V = 0.85~C~r^{0.63}S^{0.54}$), where $C$ is the Hazen-Williams roughness coefficient, $r$ is the hydraulic radius ($R$), and $S$ is the hydraulic energy slope.

Question 15

The self-cleansing velocity of sewers in India generally is

Accepted Answer

Option B: 1 m/s - 1.2 m/s. In Indian municipal sewer engineering practice (CPHEEO guidelines), self-cleansing velocity is maintained between $1.0	ext{ m/s}$ and $1.2	ext{ m/s}$ at peak flow to ensure that suspended solids and silt are transported without depositing along the sewer invert.

Question 16

The main gas liberated from an anaerobic sludge digester is

Accepted Answer

Option A: Methane. Biogas produced during anaerobic digestion consists of approximately 60–70% Methane ($CH_4$) and 30–40% Carbon Dioxide ($CO_2$), with trace amounts of hydrogen sulfide ($H_2S$) and nitrogen. Methane is the primary and most valuable combustible gas released.

Question 17

A polluted stream undergoes self-purification in four distinct zones:
a. Zone of clear water
b. Zone of Active decomposition
c. Zone of degradation
d. Zone of recovery

Accepted Answer

Option C: c, b, d, a. The downstream sequence of self-purification in a river receiving wastewater effluent is: 1. Zone of degradation (c) → 2. Zone of active decomposition (b) → 3. Zone of recovery (d) → 4. Zone of clear water (a). Hence, the correct order is c, b, d, a.

Question 18

Match the following:
1. High rate trickling filter | a. Detachment of attached biofilm from the surface
2. Low rate trickling filter | b. Fly nuisance
3. Recirculation | c. BOD removal efficiency is 80%-95%
4. Sloughing | d. Depth of filter is 2 to 3 m

Accepted Answer

Option C: 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a. In biological trickling filter systems: Sloughing (4-a) refers to the periodic washing away/detachment of excess accumulated biological slime from media; Low rate trickling filters (2-d or 2-b) have higher depth (2 to 3 m) and higher fly nuisance; High rate trickling filters (1-c) achieve high BOD removal efficiency via effluent recirculation.

Question 19

Consider the following statements;
a. In centrifugal pumps discharge is continuous and smooth.
b. Reciprocating pumps are used for smaller discharge and high heads.
c. Centrifugal pump needs smaller floor area.
d. Efficiency of reciprocating pump is less than centrifugal pump.
Which of the following statements is/are correct

Accepted Answer

Option C: a, b and c. Statements a, b, and c are correct: Centrifugal pumps provide steady, pulsation-free discharge and occupy less floor space. Reciprocating pumps are positive displacement pumps suited for small flows at very high heads. Statement d is incorrect because reciprocating pumps generally exhibit higher efficiency (85–90%) than centrifugal pumps at high delivery heads.

Question 20

Match the slow sand filter components with its standard dimensions/values
1. Gravel bed coarse aggregate size | a. 90 cm to 110 cm
2. Filter media thickness | b. 3 mm to 60 mm
3. Gravel bed thickness | c. 20 mm to 40 mm
4. Gravel bed middle layer thickness | d. 30 cm to 75 cm

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c. Standard slow sand filter design parameters: Filter sand media depth is 90 cm to 110 cm (2-a); overall gravel support bed thickness is 30 cm to 75 cm (3-d); gravel coarse size range is 3 mm to 60 mm (1-b); and middle gravel layer size is 20 mm to 40 mm (4-c).

Question 21

On analysis for the coliform group using 3 samples of 10 mL, 50 mL and 500 mL by membrane filter technique the results obtained are: 10 mL portion- 5, 6, 7, 8, 9; 50 mL portion- 30, 35, 26, 36, 38; and 500 mL portion- 300, 380, 340, 360, 320. The number of coliforms per 100 mL is

Accepted Answer

Option B: 66. In the standard membrane filter technique, the sample portion yielding colony counts in the ideal readable range (20–80 colonies) is chosen, which is the 50 mL portion. Average count for 50 mL $= \frac{30+35+26+36+38}{5} = \frac{165}{5} = 33	ext{ colonies}$. Therefore, Coliform density per $100	ext{ mL} = \frac{33}{50} 	imes 100 = 66	ext{ colonies/100 mL}$.

Question 22

In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Combined action of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria. A facultative stabilization pond treats wastewater through symbiosis between algae and bacteria across stratified layers: the upper aerobic zone relies on aerobic bacteria utilizing oxygen produced by algae, the intermediate facultative zone supports facultative bacteria, and the bottom anaerobic sludge zone relies on anaerobic bacteria.

Question 23

Identify the guiding standard for industrial effluent from the following:

Accepted Answer

Option A: IS 2490-1974. IS 2490 (1974 / 1981) provides the Indian Standard tolerance limits for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface waters.

Question 24

The recirculation ratio is defined as

Accepted Answer

Option B: Volume of sewage to Volume of raw sewage. The recirculation ratio ($R$) in wastewater treatment (such as high-rate trickling filters and activated sludge systems) is defined as the ratio of the volume of recirculated treated sewage ($Q_R$) to the volume of incoming raw sewage ($Q$).

Question 25

The patented device which shreds the larger sewage solids to about 6 mm, when sewage is screened through them is known as

Accepted Answer

Option A: Comminutors. Comminutors (or shredders/grinders) are patented mechanical cutting devices equipped with rotating cutter teeth that intercept and shred coarse wastewater solids down to sizes of approximately 6 mm ($0.25	ext{ inch}$), enabling them to remain in suspension for downstream processing.

Question 26

Consider the following statements;
a. Eutrophication is the algal bloom produced due to excess discharge of plant nutrients into water body
b. Can be added by adding copper sulphate to water.

Accepted Answer

Option D: Both (a) and (b) are true. Both statements (a) and (b) are true. Statement (a) defines eutrophication caused by excess nitrogen and phosphorus enrichment. Statement (b) is true because copper sulphate ($CuSO_4$) is widely applied as an effective chemical algicide to control and eradicate unwanted algal blooms in water bodies.

Question 27

Choose the correct sequence of steps adopted during the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process.

Accepted Answer

Option A: Screening, Scoping, Data collection, Impact analysis, Public hearing, Decision making. The standardized logical sequence of the EIA process is: 1. Screening (determining if EIA is required) → 2. Scoping (identifying key issues & baseline requirements) → 3. Baseline Data Collection → 4. Impact Analysis & Mitigation → 5. Public Hearing / Consultation → 6. Decision Making & Environmental Clearance.

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT a regular standard for figuring out whether an EIA is necessary?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Potential economic benefits. During the Screening stage of EIA, decision criteria focus strictly on environmental factors: project magnitude/scale, location in ecologically sensitive areas, and technical complexity. Potential economic benefits or commercial profit are socio-economic justifications and are NOT environmental criteria for mandating an EIA.

Question 29

In EIA terminology, what does "baseline data" refer to?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Data on the current environmental conditions in the project area before the project begins. Baseline data in EIA represents the comprehensive measured status of prevailing ambient environmental conditions (air quality, noise levels, surface/groundwater quality, soil characteristics, biodiversity, and socio-economic status) prior to the inception or construction of the proposed project.

Question 30

What does "cumulative impact" mean in the context of EIA?

Accepted Answer

Option A: The combined effect of all environmental factors on a project. Cumulative environmental impacts are the incremental impacts of an action when added to other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable future actions, representing the combined and synergistic effects of multiple environmental stressors over time.

Question 31

The Environmental Impact Assessment Report may consist of:
a. Assessment of the Sewerage and Sewage Treatment Implications
b. Assessment of the Land Contamination
c. Assessment of the Hazard to Life
d. Assessment of the Cultural Heritage Impact
Choose the best option.

Accepted Answer

Option D: a, b, c and d. A comprehensive Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) report encompasses multi-disciplinary assessments including wastewater infrastructure, land contamination, hazards to life and safety, and impacts on historical and cultural heritage sites.

Question 32

Consider the following projects and choose the best option for which the Public hearing is not required in the EIA?
i. Strengthening and widening of highways.
ii. Modernization of existing irrigation projects.

Accepted Answer

Option C: Both i and ii. Under the EIA Notification 2006 (and its amendments), public hearing is exempt for projects involving highway expansion/widening without substantial additional land acquisition, as well as the modernization of existing irrigation projects without changing command area boundaries.

Question 33

Which of the following is not a material consideration when making impact predictions of environmental damage?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Benefit of the project for jobs and the economy. When predicting environmental damage and ecological impacts, scientific considerations are duration (time), spatial extent (area), and magnitude (intensity). Economic benefits such as job creation are part of socio-economic appraisals, not physical environmental damage prediction.

Question 34

IAIA stands for

Accepted Answer

Option C: International Association of Impact Assessment. IAIA stands for the International Association for Impact Assessment, the leading global network on best practices in impact assessment for sustainable development.

Question 35

The Headquarters of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is situated in

Accepted Answer

Option B: Dehradun. The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), an autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is headquartered at Dehradun, Uttarakhand.

Question 36

What sanctions apply when the Environment Protection Act is violated?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Fine & Imprisonment. Under Section 15 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, non-compliance or contravention is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine up to ₹1,00,000, or with both, plus additional daily fines for continuing offenses.

Question 37

The Environment Protection Act 1986 was enacted following the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at

Accepted Answer

Option B: Stockholm. India enacted the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution to implement the decisions taken at the landmark United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at Stockholm in June 1972.

Question 38

National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is responsible for ________ duties.

Accepted Answer

Option B: Developmental and regulatory. The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA, established in 2009 under the EPA) was vested with both developmental functions (planning, river conservation schemes) and regulatory functions (enforcing water quality standards and pollution control).

Question 39

Consider the following pairs from the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981:
1. Section 21 | a. Power of State Government to supersede State Board
2. Section 47 | b. Power of State Government to make rules
3. Section 53 | c. Restrictions on use of certain industrial plants
4. Section 54 | d. Power of Central Government to make rules
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b. Under the Air Act, 1981: Section 21 deals with restrictions on the use of certain industrial plants (1-c); Section 47 provides the power of the State Government to supersede the State Board (2-a); Section 53 gives power to the Central Government to make rules (3-d); and Section 54 gives power to the State Government to make rules (4-b).

Question 40

Which of the following convention governs the Hazardous waste management?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Basel Convention. The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal (1989) is the international treaty specifically governing hazardous waste management and minimizing its transboundary shipments.

Question 41

Which of the following ministries serves as the central node for coordinating disaster management efforts for all natural disasters, with the exception of drought?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Ministry of Home Affairs. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry at the national level for coordinating disaster management and relief for all natural disasters (floods, cyclones, earthquakes, tsunamis, landslides), with the sole exception of drought which is coordinated by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Question 42

International Tsunami Information Centre (ITIC) is located in

Accepted Answer

Option C: Honolulu. The International Tsunami Information Center (ITIC), established by UNESCO's Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) in 1965, is located in Honolulu, Hawaii, USA.

Question 43

State Disaster Management Authority is headed by

Accepted Answer

Option C: Chief Minister. Under Section 14(1) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) is headed by the Chief Minister of the State as its ex-officio Chairperson (or Lieutenant Governor in UTs).

Question 44

Consider the following pairs:
1. Physical Hazard | a. Explosive
2. Chemical Hazard | b. No safety device
3. Psychological Hazard | c. Noise
4. Mechanical Hazard | d. Smoking.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b. In occupational safety and hazard classification: Noise/vibration is a Physical Hazard (1-c); Explosives and flammable vapors are Chemical Hazards (2-a); Smoking/stress/substance abuse is a Psychological/Behavioral Hazard (3-d); Unguarded machinery/lack of safety devices is a Mechanical Hazard (4-b).

Question 45

The purpose of Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is to

Accepted Answer

Option A: Maintain oxygenated blood circulation. The primary objective of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) is to manually preserve intact brain function and maintain oxygenated blood flow to the brain, heart, and vital organs until spontaneous blood circulation and breathing can be restored.

Question 46

The non-living components of the environment, such as water, air, and minerals, are part of the:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Abiotic environment. The abiotic environment consists of all non-living chemical and physical factors in an ecosystem, including sunlight, temperature, water, atmosphere, soil minerals, and precipitation.

Question 47

Fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas are examples of:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Non-renewable resources. Fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) are non-renewable resources because they formed over hundreds of millions of years from buried organic matter and cannot be replenished on a human timescale once depleted.

Question 48

Inhalation of fine particulate matter (PM2.5) can lead to health issues primarily affecting the:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Respiratory system. Fine particulate matter with aerodynamic diameter $\le 2.5	ext{ }\mu	ext{m}$ ($PM_{2.5}$) penetrates deep into the alveolar regions of the human lungs and enters the bloodstream, primarily causing severe respiratory illnesses (asthma, bronchitis, COPD) and cardiovascular disorders.

Question 49

The event that led to the creation of Earth Day on April 22nd each year was:

Accepted Answer

Option D: The Santa Barbara oil spill. The massive 1969 Santa Barbara oil spill off the coast of California inspired US Senator Gaylord Nelson to organize the first national environmental teach-in and founding of Earth Day on April 22, 1970.

Question 50

Prolonged exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun can increase the risk of:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Skin cancer. Ultraviolet radiation (specifically UV-B and UV-A) damages the DNA of skin cells, leading to genetic mutations that substantially increase the risk of skin cancers (including malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma) and cataracts.

Question 51

Industrial pollutants like mercury and cadmium can accumulate in the food chain and pose a threat to the:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Nervous system. Heavy metals like mercury (neurotoxin causing Minamata disease, ataxia, tremors) and cadmium bioaccumulate in tissues and severely damage the central nervous system, brain function, and renal tubules.

Question 52

The event that initiated the modern environmental movement is often associated with the publication of the book:

Accepted Answer

Option A: "Silent Spring" by Rachel Carson. Rachel Carson's groundbreaking 1962 book "Silent Spring" exposed the devastating ecological impacts of synthetic chemical pesticides like DDT on birds and ecosystems, catalyzing the modern global environmental movement.

Question 53

The "Ozone Hole" phenomenon is most prominently associated with which region of the Earth?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Antarctic region. The stratospheric ozone hole forms annually each spring over Antarctica due to extreme cold temperatures, polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs), the isolated polar vortex, and chlorine/bromine radicals derived from CFCs.

Question 54

The estimation of sewage discharge is typically based on:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Total population. Municipal sewage discharge estimation is calculated from the total contributing population multiplied by per capita domestic water consumption, multiplied by the sewage return factor (typically 75% to 80% of supplied water).

Question 55

The design period in wastewater treatment refers to the:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Expected operational lifespan of the treatment facility. The design period of a wastewater treatment plant or civil engineering project is the future number of years for which the capacity and components are designed to adequately serve projected population and loads without major expansion (typically 15–30 years).

Question 56

Coagulation is the process of:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Mixing chemicals to form flocs. Coagulation is the chemical water treatment process where chemical coagulants (like alum, $Al_2(SO_4)_3$) are added and rapid-mixed to neutralize colloidal surface charges, destabilizing fine particles to aggregate into settleable flocs.

Question 57

Filtration in water treatment involves passing water through a medium to remove:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Particulate matter. Filtration involves passing pre-treated water through a porous granular medium (like sand and anthracite) to capture and physically remove remaining suspended particulate matter, micro-flocs, and turbidity.

Question 58

Adsorption is a process used for:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Removing heavy metals and organic compounds from water. Adsorption (commonly utilizing granular or powdered activated carbon, PAC/GAC) is a mass-transfer surface phenomenon used to capture and remove refractory organic contaminants, micro-pollutants, pesticides, odor, color, and heavy metals onto adsorbent pore surfaces.

Question 59

Treatment ponds and aerated lagoons are examples of:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Biological treatment processes. Treatment ponds, stabilization basins, and aerated lagoons are biological secondary treatment processes that rely on active microorganisms (bacteria and algae) to digest, oxidize, and stabilize organic matter.

Question 60

Trickling filters are designed to:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Promote biological growth on a filter medium. A trickling filter is an attached-growth biological treatment system designed to cultivate a fixed aerobic microbial biofilm (zoogleal slime layer) over a bed of crushed rock or plastic media to degrade organic matter as wastewater trickles over it.

Question 61

Rotating biological contactors (RBCs) are used to:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Support biological treatment using a rotating disc. Rotating Biological Contactors (RBCs) are fixed-film secondary biological treatment units consisting of closely spaced circular plastic discs mounted on a horizontal shaft rotating slowly while ~40% submerged in wastewater, alternating between effluent contact and air exposure.

Question 62

A Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR) is a type of wastewater treatment process that involves:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Batch-wise treatment with alternating phases. A Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR) is an activated sludge process operated in timed sequential batches within a single tank through five distinct phases: Fill → React (aeration) → Settle (clarification) → Decant (effluent withdrawal) → Idle.

Question 63

Anaerobic digestion is a process that occurs in the absence of:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Oxygen. Anaerobic digestion is a biological process in which specialized obligate and facultative anaerobic microorganisms break down biodegradable organic matter in the strict absence of dissolved or molecular free oxygen ($O_2$), generating biogas.

Question 64

Nitrification is a biological process that involves the conversion of:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Ammonia to nitrite and nitrate. Nitrification is a two-step aerobic biological process carried out by autotrophic bacteria: first, Ammonia ($NH_4^+$) is oxidized to Nitrite ($NO_2^-$) by *Nitrosomonas*, and second, Nitrite is oxidized to Nitrate ($NO_3^-$) by *Nitrobacter*.

Field Assistant2023

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JKSSB — Field Assistant (2023)

__________ is the tendency of pollutants to become concentrated in successive trophic levels.

__________ is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.

The atmosphere is said to be unstable when

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits state parties to:

Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal?a. Article 24b. Article 21c. Article 48 Ad. Article 51-A(g)

Consider the following statements:a. CO emission is mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel.b. Affects the oxygen carrying capacity of bloodc. Can cause nauseaWhich of the following statement is/are correct

The chemical responsible for blue baby syndrome that is caused by restricted supply of oxygen to the brain is

The chemical responsible for Minamata disease

__________ causes minimum water pollution among the following nutrients.

Which of the following is correct?

The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage, respectively are

The size of colloidal solids in waste water are in the range of

Pick the Hazen-William's formula for Sewer Design

The self-cleansing velocity of sewers in India generally is

The main gas liberated from an anaerobic sludge digester is

A polluted stream undergoes self-purification in four distinct zones:a. Zone of clear waterb. Zone of Active decompositionc. Zone of degradationd. Zone of recovery

Match the following:1. High rate trickling filter | a. Detachment of attached biofilm from the surface2. Low rate trickling filter | b. Fly nuisance3. Recirculation | c. BOD removal efficiency is 80%-95%4. Sloughing | d. Depth of filter is 2 to 3 m

Match the slow sand filter components with its standard dimensions/values1. Gravel bed coarse aggregate size | a. 90 cm to 110 cm2. Filter media thickness | b. 3 mm to 60 mm3. Gravel bed thickness | c. 20 mm to 40 mm4. Gravel bed middle layer thickness | d. 30 cm to 75 cm

On analysis for the coliform group using 3 samples of 10 mL, 50 mL and 500 mL by membrane filter technique the results obtained are: 10 mL portion- 5, 6, 7, 8, 9; 50 mL portion- 30, 35, 26, 36, 38; and 500 mL portion- 300, 380, 340, 360, 320. The number of coliforms per 100 mL is

In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by:

Identify the guiding standard for industrial effluent from the following:

The recirculation ratio is defined as

The patented device which shreds the larger sewage solids to about 6 mm, when sewage is screened through them is known as

Consider the following statements;a. Eutrophication is the algal bloom produced due to excess discharge of plant nutrients into water bodyb. Can be added by adding copper sulphate to water.

Choose the correct sequence of steps adopted during the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process.

Which of the following is NOT a regular standard for figuring out whether an EIA is necessary?

In EIA terminology, what does "baseline data" refer to?

What does "cumulative impact" mean in the context of EIA?

The Environmental Impact Assessment Report may consist of:a. Assessment of the Sewerage and Sewage Treatment Implicationsb. Assessment of the Land Contaminationc. Assessment of the Hazard to Lifed. Assessment of the Cultural Heritage ImpactChoose the best option.

Consider the following projects and choose the best option for which the Public hearing is not required in the EIA?i. Strengthening and widening of highways.ii. Modernization of existing irrigation projects.

Which of the following is not a material consideration when making impact predictions of environmental damage?

IAIA stands for

The Headquarters of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is situated in

What sanctions apply when the Environment Protection Act is violated?

The Environment Protection Act 1986 was enacted following the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at

National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is responsible for ________ duties.

Which of the following convention governs the Hazardous waste management?

Which of the following ministries serves as the central node for coordinating disaster management efforts for all natural disasters, with the exception of drought?

International Tsunami Information Centre (ITIC) is located in

State Disaster Management Authority is headed by

Consider the following pairs:1. Physical Hazard | a. Explosive2. Chemical Hazard | b. No safety device3. Psychological Hazard | c. Noise4. Mechanical Hazard | d. Smoking.Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

The purpose of Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is to

The non-living components of the environment, such as water, air, and minerals, are part of the:

Fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas are examples of:

Inhalation of fine particulate matter (PM2.5) can lead to health issues primarily affecting the:

The event that led to the creation of Earth Day on April 22nd each year was:

Prolonged exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun can increase the risk of:

Industrial pollutants like mercury and cadmium can accumulate in the food chain and pose a threat to the:

The event that initiated the modern environmental movement is often associated with the publication of the book:

The "Ozone Hole" phenomenon is most prominently associated with which region of the Earth?

The estimation of sewage discharge is typically based on:

The design period in wastewater treatment refers to the:

Coagulation is the process of:

Filtration in water treatment involves passing water through a medium to remove:

Adsorption is a process used for:

Treatment ponds and aerated lagoons are examples of:

Trickling filters are designed to:

Rotating biological contactors (RBCs) are used to:

A Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR) is a type of wastewater treatment process that involves:

Anaerobic digestion is a process that occurs in the absence of:

Nitrification is a biological process that involves the conversion of:

Pneumatic ejectors utilize ________ to pump sewage.

The waste generated by the tannery industry is often characterized by:

Total Suspended Solids (TSS) in water represent:

A high sludge volume index (SVI) indicates:

A high effluent Total Suspended Solids (TSS) level indicates:

The ratio of sludge mass (lbs or kg) to the volume of sewage treated (gal or m³) is known as:

The efficiency of a wastewater treatment system in removing nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus is crucial to prevent:

The performance of a wastewater treatment system is evaluated by comparing influent and effluent concentrations of pollutants. This comparison is done using:

Ammonia (NH3) in water can be harmful to aquatic life because it:

The presence of fecal coliform bacteria in effluent indicates:

An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is a document that:

Socio-economic impacts of a project relate to its effects on:

Geographic Information Systems (GIS) are used in EIA to:

Remote sensing is employed in EIA to:

Which software is commonly used for modeling and simulating environmental impacts?

In EIA, the term "biota" refers to:

Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal?
a. Article 24
b. Article 21
c. Article 48 A
d. Article 51-A(g)

Consider the following statements:
a. CO emission is mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel.
b. Affects the oxygen carrying capacity of blood
c. Can cause nausea
Which of the following statement is/are correct

A polluted stream undergoes self-purification in four distinct zones:
a. Zone of clear water
b. Zone of Active decomposition
c. Zone of degradation
d. Zone of recovery

Match the following:
1. High rate trickling filter | a. Detachment of attached biofilm from the surface
2. Low rate trickling filter | b. Fly nuisance
3. Recirculation | c. BOD removal efficiency is 80%-95%
4. Sloughing | d. Depth of filter is 2 to 3 m

Match the slow sand filter components with its standard dimensions/values
1. Gravel bed coarse aggregate size | a. 90 cm to 110 cm
2. Filter media thickness | b. 3 mm to 60 mm
3. Gravel bed thickness | c. 20 mm to 40 mm
4. Gravel bed middle layer thickness | d. 30 cm to 75 cm

Consider the following statements;
a. Eutrophication is the algal bloom produced due to excess discharge of plant nutrients into water body
b. Can be added by adding copper sulphate to water.

The Environmental Impact Assessment Report may consist of:
a. Assessment of the Sewerage and Sewage Treatment Implications
b. Assessment of the Land Contamination
c. Assessment of the Hazard to Life
d. Assessment of the Cultural Heritage Impact
Choose the best option.

Consider the following projects and choose the best option for which the Public hearing is not required in the EIA?
i. Strengthening and widening of highways.
ii. Modernization of existing irrigation projects.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Physical Hazard | a. Explosive
2. Chemical Hazard | b. No safety device
3. Psychological Hazard | c. Noise
4. Mechanical Hazard | d. Smoking.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:
a. AQI | 1. ppm
b. Discharge | 2. Litre
c. Turbidity | 3. m³/s
d. Conductivity | 4. Unitless
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:
a. Hardness | 1. Attached growth bio-treatment
b. POH | 2. Cm/min
c. Trickling filter | 3. Suspended growth bio-treatment
d. Screening | 4. 14
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Arrange the following zones of sedimentation tank in sequence as per the flow of water processes in the tank.
1. Outlet zone
2. Inlet zone
3. Sludge zone
4. Settling zone

Consider the following pairs:
a. NGT | 1. pH experiment
b. Alum | 2. Chloride content experiment
c. $AgNO_3$ | 3. Coagulant
d. $HNO_3$ | 4. Peroxyacetyl nitrate
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:
a. Dilution | 1. Black in colour
b. Septic sewage | 2. Brown in colour
c. Neutral | 3. Green in colour
d. EPA | 4. pH = 07
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Arrange the following zones of river water pollution in the correct sequence of their occurrence after the discharge of effluent.
1. Zone of clear water
2. Zone of pollution
3. Zone of recovery
4. Zone of active decomposition

Consider the following statements:
a. Dissolved solid = Total solid + Suspended solid
b. Dissolved solid = Total solid - Suspended solid
c. Total solid = Dissolved solid / Suspended solid
d. Dissolved solid = Suspended solid - Total solid
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

What is the concentration of $[H^+]$ ions in water sample of $pOH=06^{\circ}$ ?

Consider the following statements:
a. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2002.
b. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2010.
c. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1996.
d. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1977.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following pairs:
a. COD | 1. Sanitary plumbing code
b. IS 10500 | 2. Hardness of water
c. $CaCO_3$ | 3. 05 days
d. NaOH | 4. Drinking water specification standards
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:
a. ASP | 1. Oil and Grease removal from sewage
b. Fungi | 2. Type of coliform
c. $H_{2}S$ | 3. Secondary treatment method
d. Skimming tank | 4. Healthy mineral in drinking water
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements:
a. Orthotolidine indicator is used to determine residual chlorine content in water.
b. Orthotolidine indicator is used to determine MPN count for E-coli.
c. Orthotolidine is the strong acid.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Consider the following pairs:
a. Screen | 1. Gravity filter
b. Denitrification | 2. Bacterial density
c. RSF | 3. Threshold number
d. Total Alkalinity | 4. Rising of sludge
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Arrange the following laboratory test procedure in the correct sequence to determine $BOD_5$ of sewage sample.
1. Incubation of diluted sewage sample for 05 days in BOD incubator
2. (D.O. depletion) X Dilution factor
3. Present day initial D.O.
4. 5th day final D.O.

Consider the following statements:
a. To measure the colour of water sample Nessler tubes is used.
b. To measure the turbidity of water sample Secchi disk is used.
c. To measure the odour of water sample litmus paper is used.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following pairs:
a. Unit of turbidity of water | 1. Tesla
b. Unit of specific conductivity of water | 2. AQI
c. $AgNO_3$ | 3. NTU
d. BOD | 4. Siemen
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:
a. pH of potable water | 1. Chemical characteristic of water
b. Domestic water demand | 2. Physical characteristic of water
c. Pathogens | 3. 6.5-8.5
d. BOD | 4. 7
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?