Consider the following principles of forensic science: i. Not all contact leaves a trace ii. Two different things can be compared iii. Everything is unique iv. Change is the only constant Which of the above statements is true/correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii and iv only)
According to the fundamental laws of forensic science, the Law of Individuality states 'Everything is unique' (iii), and the Law of Progressive Change states 'Change is the only constant' (iv). Statement i is incorrect because Locard's Exchange Principle states 'Every contact leaves a trace'. Statement ii is incorrect because the Law of Comparison states that only likes can be compared.
Q2
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsHistory of Forensics
Consider the following pairs: i. Father of forensic toxicology - Albert Osborn ii. Father of Forensic Ballistics - Calvin Goddard iii. Father of fingerprints - Francis Galton iv. Father of questioned documents - Mathieu Orfila Which of the scientists are correctly matched with their domain?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iii only)
Calvin Goddard is widely known as the Father of Forensic Ballistics (ii). Francis Galton is recognized as the Father of Fingerprints (iii) for developing the first classification system. Mathieu Orfila is the Father of Forensic Toxicology (not questioned documents), and Albert Osborn is the Father of Questioned Documents (not toxicology).
Q3
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsHistory of Forensics
Where was the first chemical examiner laboratory set up in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Madras)
The first Chemical Examiner's Laboratory in India was established at Madras (now Chennai) in the year 1849.
Q4
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsHistory of Forensics
The first Central Forensic Science Laboratory was started in Calcutta in which of the following year?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1957)
The first Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL) of India was established in Calcutta (Kolkata) in 1957.
Q5
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Physics
Examination of tire marks is carried out in which of the following divisions of forensic science laboratory?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Physics division)
Physical evidence such as tire marks, tool marks, glass fractures, soil, and fiber comparisons are typically analyzed in the Physics Division of a forensic science laboratory.
Q6
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsBiometrics
Automated Multi-modal Biometric Identification System (AMBIS) has which of the following biometrics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Fingerprints, palmprints and iris)
The Automated Multi-modal Biometric Identification System (AMBIS) integrates multiple biometric identifiers, including fingerprints, palmprints, face/iris scans, to assist law enforcement agencies in identifying suspects.
Q7
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Medicine
What does the term "Compos mentis" while giving a testimony or dying declaration mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Being of sound mind)
"Compos mentis" is a Latin term meaning 'of sound mind' or having full control of one's mental faculties, which is a key requirement for a valid testimony or dying declaration.
Q8
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
The following steps are carried out during crime scene processing. i. Collect ii. Process and preserve iii. Record iv. Observe Which is the right order beginning from the first step?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (iv, iii, i, ii)
The standard sequence of crime scene processing is to first Observe (iv) the scene, Record (iii) it through notes, sketches, and photos, Collect (i) the physical evidence, and finally Process and preserve (ii) the evidence and scene details.
Q9
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Law
What does Corpus delecti mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Elements of crime)
"Corpus delicti" is a Latin term meaning 'the body of the crime', which refers to the objective proof (elements) that a crime has indeed been committed.
Q10
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsBiometrics
AFIS is an automated system for storing and matching which of the following biometrics?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Fingerprints)
AFIS stands for Automated Fingerprint Identification System, which is used by forensic investigators to store, search, and match digital fingerprints.
Q11
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsTrace Evidence
Which of the following is an example of trace evidence?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Fiber)
Trace evidence refers to microscopic physical evidence that is transferred between objects or people during a crime. Examples include hair, fibers, glass fragments, and paint chips.
Q12
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Law
What is "Lying under oath" called?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Perjury)
Perjury is the act of willfully making false statements or lying under oath during a judicial proceeding.
Q13
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsBiometrics
Which of the following is an example of behavioural biometrics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Handwriting)
Behavioral biometrics measure patterns of human activities. Handwriting, signature dynamics, keystroke dynamics, and gait are behavioral, while iris, lip prints, and nail beds are physiological biometrics.
Q14
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Law
Which of the following standard is related to the admissibility of evidence?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Frye standard)
The Frye standard ( Frye v. United States, 1923) dictates that scientific evidence is admissible in court only if the scientific technique is 'generally accepted' as reliable within the relevant scientific community.
Q15
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsMicroscopy
After reaching the resolution limit of a microscope, it can be continued to magnify an image but not improve its resolution-this is called as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Empty magnification)
Empty magnification occurs when an image is enlarged further without revealing any new detail, because the resolution limit of the objective lens has already been reached.
Consider the following statements: i. Brand of footwear is a class characteristic ii. DNA profile is an individual characteristic iii. Wear and tear on the sole of the footwear is a class characteristic iv. Blood group is an individual characteristic Which of the above statements is true/correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and ii only)
The brand of footwear is a class characteristic (applies to a group) (i), and a DNA profile is an individual characteristic (uniquely identifies an individual) (ii). Wear and tear on footwear is an individual characteristic (iii is false), and blood group is a class characteristic (iv is false).
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Item for comparison with the questioned sample from a known source)
An exemplar (or reference sample) is a legally collected specimen of known origin (e.g. handwriting sample or DNA from a suspect) used to compare against the questioned evidence collected from the crime scene.
Q18
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Which of the following search methods on the crime scene is a very thorough method for searching for evidence?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Double strip method)
The double strip search method (also known as the grid search method) involves searching along parallel strips and then repeating the process perpendicular to the first path, making it extremely thorough.
Q19
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Sketching
Triangulation is a method used for which of the following purposes?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Measurement technique used for Sketching crime scene)
Triangulation is a classic measurement technique used in crime scene sketching to record the exact location of evidence relative to two fixed, known reference points.
Consider the following pairs: i. Fingerprint - Striations ii. Toolmarks - Hiatus iii. Handwriting - Minutiae iv. Glass - Fractures Which of the evidences are correctly matched with their features?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (iv only)
Only pair iv (Glass - Fractures) is correctly matched. Fingerprints are characterized by minutiae (ridge details), toolmarks by striations, and handwriting can exhibit hiatus (gaps).
Q21
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Consider the following duties of the first responding officer. i. Barricade the crime scene ii. Compile data from the scene iii. Attend to any injured people/survivors iv. Remove and detain witnesses/suspects from crime scene Arrange the duties in chronological order starting from the first duty
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iii, iv, i, ii)
The first priority of the responding officer is to preserve life by attending to the injured (iii). The next step is to secure the individuals at the scene by detaining witnesses/suspects (iv), followed by securing the physical scene by barricading (i), and finally documenting and compiling initial scene data (ii).
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Packaging system for trace evidence)
A druggist's fold is a folding technique for paper packaging that creates an enclosed, leak-proof packet. It is widely used in forensic science for collecting trace evidence like hair, fibers, paint chips, or powders.
Q23
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Investigation
The trace evidence sometimes fluoresces under Alternate Light Source (ALS) used at the crime scene. What is its range?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (400-800 nm)
Alternate Light Sources (ALS) utilized at crime scenes generally operate within the visible and near-ultraviolet range (typically from 400 nm to 800 nm) to detect biological fluids, fibers, and other trace evidence via fluorescence.
Q24
Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Reconstruction
In crime scene reconstruction, what does "conjecture" mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To formulate a possible explanation before detailed analysis)
In the process of crime scene reconstruction, a conjecture refers to a preliminary, working hypothesis or possible explanation formulated before comprehensive and detailed laboratory analysis is completed.
Q25
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyEvidence Packaging
Consider the following statements about the packaging of evidence: i. Biological samples such as bloody cloth have to be packaged in an airtight container while it's wet ii. Samples suspected of containing accelerants from arson scenes should be packaged in airtight metal cans iii. All the evidence collected from the crime scene should be packaged in one common container for ease of transportation iv. Biological samples should be air-dried at room temperature and before packaging in breathable paper bags Which of the above statements are true/correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii and iv only)
Arson evidence containing volatile accelerants must be stored in airtight metal cans to prevent evaporation (ii). Biological samples (like bloodstains) must be air-dried first and stored in breathable paper bags to prevent mold and bacterial degradation (iv). Packaging wet samples in airtight containers (i) or combining all samples (iii) causes contamination and degradation.
Q26
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyArson Investigation
A V-shaped burning pattern on a wall on a fire crime scene may indicate which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Origin of fire)
Fire naturally burns upward and outward, creating a V-shaped pattern on vertical surfaces. The bottom point of the 'V' often points directly to the point of origin of the fire.
Q27
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCriminology
A serial offender is suspected of victimizing young teenage girls by mutilating their breasts. What will be the signature/style by which the culprit is killing his victims be called?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Modus operandi)
The method of committing a crime is called Modus Operandi (M.O.). While mutilation is a psychological signature, of the choices provided, 'Modus operandi' is the only valid legal/criminological term matching criminal behavioral patterns.
Q28
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyDNA Profiling
Which of the following evidences have the power of individualization?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (DNA)
DNA profiling has the statistical power of individualization, meaning it can uniquely identify a single individual. Blood group, shoe brand, and general whorl patterns of fingerprints are class characteristics (shared by multiple people).
Q29
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Ethics
Which of the following is the ethical responsibility of a forensic scientist?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Maintaining unbiased opinion and confidentiality of the information)
Forensic scientists are ethically bound to maintain absolute objectivity (unbiased scientific analysis) and keep all case information completely confidential.
Q30
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Protection
Consider the following statements to follow to avoid contamination of the crime scene. i. Establish multiple routes of entry and exit to the crime scene ii. Wear PPE at all times while on the crime scene iii. Create a separate route for entry to the crime scene for onlookers iv. Use a single-use collection kit for biological samples Which of the above statements is true/correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iv only)
To prevent cross-contamination, investigators must wear Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) at all times (ii) and utilize single-use collection kits for each sample (iv). Only a single point of entry/exit should be established (i is false), and onlookers should never be allowed inside (iii is false).
Q31
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyEvidence Vocabulary
Consider the following pairs:
| Term | Definition | | --- | --- | | i. Elimination sample | Known source from someone who had lawful access to the scene | | ii. Questioned sample | Known source from the crime scene which was presumably uncontaminated during a crime | | iii. Reference sample | Known source with which evidence is compared to establish a link | | iv. Control sample | Recovered from crime whose source is in question |
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i and iii only)
Pairs i and iii are correctly matched. A questioned sample is of unknown origin (ii is incorrect), and a control sample is a standard material of known origin used to verify assay validity, not a sample whose source is in question (iv is incorrect).
Q32
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyPresumptive Testing
What is a presumptive test?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It is a non-confirmatory test to screen the presence of a substance)
A presumptive test is a highly sensitive but non-specific screening test. It is used to quickly screen samples and suggest the potential presence of a substance (e.g. blood, semen, drugs), but requires a confirmatory test for confirmation.
Q33
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyArson and Explosives
Consider the following guidelines for the collection of evidence on an explosive scene i. Collect samples in airtight glass jars without rubber liners ii. Fill the container with evidence suspected to have accelerant full up to the brim with no space. iii. Use breathable paper bags to collect debris with suspected explosive residue iv. Use an activated charcoal strip placed inside the container to absorb volatile fumes from the sample Which of the above statements is true/correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and iv only)
Explosive debris and accelerants must be packaged in clean, airtight glass jars or metal cans without rubber liners (i) to prevent organic contamination and evaporation of volatile gases. Activated charcoal strips are placed inside the container to absorb these volatile organic compounds for headspace analysis (iv). Breathable bags (iii) allow gases to escape, and filling to the brim (ii) leaves no headspace for vapor collection.
Q34
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Serology
On a suspected homicide crime scene, which of the following chemicals is used for the chemiluminescence of blood?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Luminol)
Luminol (5-amino-2,3-dihydrophthalazine-1,4-dione) is a chemical compound that exhibits chemiluminescence (glows blue) when it reacts with the iron found in hemoglobin.
Q35
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Sketching
Which of the following sketches shows a side view for example perspective of a wall looking from the side?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Elevated view)
An elevated sketch (or elevation view) depicts a vertical plane, showing a side-on view of the scene, such as a wall containing bullet holes or blood spatter patterns.
Q36
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Photography
Which of the following is a detailed millimetre scale placed next to evidence while taking close view photograph of evidence?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (ABFO)
The ABFO No. 2 scale, developed by the American Board of Forensic Odontologists, is a standard L-shaped millimetric scale placed next to wounds, bite marks, or other physical evidence during close-up photography to establish accurate scaling.
Q37
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyImpression Evidence
Electrostatic lifting device can be used to collect which of the following evidence from crime scene?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Dusty footprints on floor)
An Electrostatic Dust Print Lifter (EDPL) applies a high-voltage charge to a metallized plastic sheet, drawing dry dust particles from footwear impressions on floors or carpets onto the film.
Q38
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Quality
Which of the following body offers accreditation to forensic science laboratories?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NABL)
NABL (National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories) is the primary body in India that provides formal accreditation to testing and calibration laboratories, including forensic laboratories under ISO/IEC 17025.
Q39
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Law
Inquiry into the cause of death by Magistrate is covered in which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (176 CrPC)
Section 176 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with inquiry by a Magistrate into the cause of death in cases such as custodial deaths, suspicious deaths, or deaths of women within seven years of marriage.
Q40
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Ethics
Consider the following ethics of a forensic expert: i. Be subjective in validated scientific analysis ii. Be objective in their analysis iii. Employ validated methods of analysis iv. Give personal opinions on the suspect of the crime Which of the above statements are true/correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ii and iii only)
A forensic expert is ethically required to remain strictly objective (ii) during their analysis and always employ scientifically validated analytical methods (iii). Subjective bias (i) and personal opinions (iv) violate scientific and legal standards.
Q41
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Law
Which of the following Acts relates to evidence and its admissibility in the court in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Indian Evidence Act, 1872)
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is the primary legislation that governs the admissibility, relevance, and weight of evidence in Indian courts of law.
Q42
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyLocard Principle
When trace evidence is transferred from source "A" to source "C" without contact via intermediate source "B" it is called?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Secondary transfer)
Secondary transfer occurs when evidence is transferred from source A to B, and then from B to C without direct contact between A and C.
Q43
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Medicine
Consider the following statements regarding who can conduct an autopsy in India. i. A trained Magistrate ii. A Registered Medical Practitioner in forensic medicine iii. Coroner iv. A doctor with B.A.M.S degree Which of the above statements are true/correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii only)
In India, an autopsy (post-mortem examination) can only be performed by a Registered Medical Practitioner (holding a valid MBBS degree or specialization in Forensic Medicine/MD). Magistrates and coroners only conduct inquests/inquiries, and B.A.M.S. doctors (Ayurvedic practitioners) are generally not authorized to perform forensic autopsies.
Q44
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Law
Which of the following evidences are NOT accepted in the Indian Legal system or admissible in court?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Polygraphy)
In the landmark judgment Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010), the Supreme Court of India ruled that lie-detector tests (polygraphy, narco-analysis, brain mapping) cannot be admitted as evidence unless voluntarily undertaken, and even then, results are generally not substantively admissible. DNA, fingerprints, and autopsy reports are widely accepted.
Q45
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyMicroscopy
Michel Levy chart is referred in which of the following microscopy while examining birefringent evidence?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Polarized light microscope)
The Michel-Lévy interference color chart is used in polarized light microscopy to determine the birefringence of a specimen (like synthetic fibers or minerals) based on thickness and retardation.
Q46
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyMicroscopy
The Stereo microscope has a different optical path for each eye to view which gives rise to?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3-dimensional view of evidence sample)
A stereomicroscope (dissecting microscope) provides two separate optical paths, presenting slightly different angles of the specimen to each eye, which produces a three-dimensional (3D) visual effect.
Q47
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyMicroscopy
What is the lens in a compound microscope closest to the specimen called?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Objective lens)
The lens closest to the specimen in a light or compound microscope is called the objective lens, which gathers light and focuses the image of the specimen.
Q48
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyMicroscopy
The UV or blue light is used to focus on evidence sample in which of the following microscopes?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Fluorescence microscope)
A fluorescence microscope uses high-intensity ultraviolet or blue excitation light to illuminate the specimen, exciting fluorescent dyes or autofluorescent components to emit lower-energy light.
Q49
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMicroscopy
Which are the two types of electron microscopes used in forensic science laboratories?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Scanning and transmission)
The two main types of electron microscopes used in forensics are the Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) for surface topography, and the Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) for internal structural detail.
Q50
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistics
Consider the following pairs: i. Mean - Most occurring value in a sample ii. Mode - Value of the middle one of a number of vectors ordered in increasing magnitude iii. Median - An arithmetic average of all values iv. Standard deviation - Measure of dispersion around mean Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iv only)
Only pair iv is correctly matched. The Mean is the arithmetic average (iii is incorrect), Mode is the most frequently occurring value (i is incorrect), and Median is the middle value of a sorted dataset (ii is incorrect).
Q51
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability
The second law of probability, the addition rule is used for which of the following events?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mutually exclusive events)
The addition rule of probability states that for mutually exclusive events (events that cannot happen at the same time), the probability of either event occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities: P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B).
Q52
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyHypothesis Testing
In hypothesis testing, what is a type I error?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rejection of H0 when H is true)
In hypothesis testing, a Type I error (false positive) occurs when the null hypothesis H0 is rejected when it is actually true.
Q53
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistical Tests
What does the F--test measure?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Check equality of variances between two populations)
The F-test is a statistical test used primarily to compare the variances of two populations or samples to check if they are significantly different.
Q54
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySampling Methods
What is systemic sampling?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (When sample is chosen at a regular interval from population)
Systematic sampling is a probability sampling method where elements are selected from an ordered population at a predetermined, regular periodic interval (e.g. selecting every k-th individual).
Q55
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistical Tests
How are degrees of freedom calculated in Chi square test? (where r is number of rows and c is number of columns)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (df=(r-1)(c-1))
In a contingency table of a Chi-square test, the degrees of freedom (df) are calculated as: df = (r - 1) * (c - 1), where r is the number of rows and c is the number of columns.
Q56
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
Fetal hemoglobin is made up of four protein chains. They are
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2 α and 2 γ chains)
Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) is the main oxygen transport protein in human fetuses, consisting of two alpha (a) chains and two gamma (g) chains (a2g2). Adult hemoglobin (HbA) contains two alpha and two beta (b) chains.
Q57
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
What type of amylase does the human saliva constitute?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (α-amylase)
Human saliva contains salivary alpha-amylase (ptyalin), which catalyzes the hydrolysis of alpha-1,4-glucosidic bonds in starch.
Q58
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Biology
Match the columns:
| Column 1 | Column 2 | | --- | --- | | i. Blood | a) Phadebas test | | ii. Semen | b) Christmas tree staining | | iii. Saliva | c) Nessler's test | | iv. Urine | d) Takayama crystal assay |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c)
Blood is matched with Takayama crystal assay (d), Semen with Christmas tree staining for sperm heads (b), Saliva with Phadebas test for amylase (a), and Urine with Nessler's reagent test for urea/ammonia (c). This corresponds to option B.
Q59
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Profiling
In STR genotyping results for multiple contributors, four peaks were obtained on a single locus for a sample. What is your most probable conclusion?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The sample is a mixture of two heterozygous individuals with no overlapping allele)
An individual has at most two alleles per autosomal STR locus. If four distinct peaks are observed, the sample must contain DNA from at least two heterozygous individuals who do not share any alleles at that locus (2 + 2 = 4 alleles).
Q60
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
After 6 cycles of PCR amplification process, how many number of DNA copies would be generated under ideal conditions?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (64)
Under ideal PCR conditions, DNA amplification is exponential, represented by 2^n, where n is the number of cycles. For 6 cycles, 2^6 = 64 copies are generated.
Q61
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
In agarose gel electrophoresis, what dye is used to visualise DNA?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ethidium bromide)
Ethidium bromide (EtBr) is an intercalating agent commonly used as a fluorescent tag in agarose gel electrophoresis to visualize DNA bands under ultraviolet light.
Q62
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Extraction
Arrange the steps of organic DNA extraction method in order i. Ethanol precipitation ii. Cellular lysis iii. PCI treatment iv. Gel electrophoresis
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii, iii, i, iv)
The organic DNA extraction protocol follows this sequence: cellular lysis (ii) to break open cell membranes, Phenol-Chloroform-Isoamyl alcohol (PCI) treatment (iii) to separate proteins from DNA, ethanol precipitation (i) to concentrate DNA, and gel electrophoresis (iv) to analyze the quality/quantity of the isolated DNA.
Q63
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMitochondrial DNA
In the mitochondrial DNA, uninterrupted C-stretches in the mt DNA are an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Length heteroplasmy)
Homopolymeric cytosine stretches (C-stretches) in mitochondrial DNA control regions (like HVS-I or HVS-II) are highly prone to replication slippage, leading to variation in length within the same individual, which is known as length heteroplasmy.
Q64
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Profiling
In 1984, Sir Alec Jeffreys was the first to utilise VNTR loci for DNA fingerprinting. What technique did he use?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Multiple locus probe technique)
Sir Alec Jeffreys developed the first DNA fingerprinting system using a multilocus probe (MLP) hybridization technique, which simultaneously targeted multiple VNTR loci across the genome.
Q65
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyPopulation Genetics
How would you calculate the locus genotype frequency for a heterozygous locus with allele frequencies p and q for human STR genotyping?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2pq)
According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, the frequency of a heterozygous genotype for two alleles with frequencies p and q is calculated as 2pq.
Q66
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMitochondrial DNA
Which of the following statements related to mitochondrial DNA is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It follows Mendelian inheritance)
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is maternally inherited (uniparental), meaning it does not undergo recombination and does not follow Mendelian inheritance patterns.
Q67
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyGenetics
Which of the following regions of the Y chromosome does not participate in homologous recombination with the X chromosome?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (MSY)
The MSY (Male-specific region of the Y chromosome) makes up about 95% of the Y chromosome and does not undergo homologous recombination with the X chromosome, unlike the Pseudoautosomal Regions (PAR1 and PAR2).
Q68
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
Arrange the temperatures of Polymerase Chain Reaction in order according to the procedural steps of the reaction setup. i. 72°C ii. 60°C iii. 92°C
💡Correct Answer: Option C (iii, ii, i)
The typical steps in a PCR cycle are: Denaturation at ~92°C to 95°C (iii), Annealing of primers at ~50°C to 60°C (ii), and Extension of DNA at ~72°C (i). Hence, the order of temperatures is iii, ii, i.
Q69
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyAnatomy
Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Patella)
A sesamoid bone is a bone embedded within a tendon. The patella (kneecap) is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body.
Q70
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Profiling
Arrange the steps of VNTR RFLP analysis in their proper sequence i. Restriction digestion ii. Probe hybridisation iii. Gel electrophoresis iv. Blotting
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, iii, iv, ii)
The steps of VNTR RFLP analysis are: restriction digestion of genomic DNA (i), gel electrophoresis to separate fragments by size (iii), Southern blotting to transfer DNA to a membrane (iv), and probe hybridization to target specific VNTR loci (ii). This corresponds to i, iii, iv, ii.
Q71
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
Match the column with respect to the different forms of DNA helical properties:
| Form | Base pairs per turn | Axial rise (nm) | | --- | --- | --- | | i. A-DNA | p. 10 | x. 0.34 | | ii. B-DNA | q. 11 | y. 0.45 | | iii. Z-DNA | r. 12 | z. 0.26 |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-q-z, ii-p-x, iii-r-y)
A-DNA has 11 bp/turn and an axial rise of 0.26 nm (i-q-z). B-DNA has 10 bp/turn and an axial rise of 0.34 nm (ii-p-x). Z-DNA has 12 bp/turn and an axial rise of 0.45 nm (iii-r-y). This corresponds to option D.
Q72
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
Which of the following reagents is used for the biochemical analysis of RNA?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Orcinol)
Orcinol reagent (Bial's test) is used for the quantitative/biochemical analysis of RNA because it reacts with the ribose sugar. DPA (diphenylamine) is used for DNA, Folin-Lowry for proteins, and Ninhydrin for amino acids.
Q73
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesMolecular Biology
Which among the following radiolabelled probes show the highest sensitivity for DNA detection?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (32P)
Phosphorus-32 (32P) is a high-energy beta emitter that yields very high specific activity, making it the most sensitive radiolabel for DNA probe detection in hybridization assays.
Q74
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesMolecular Biology
The "REP" in REP-PCR stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Repetitive Element)
REP-PCR stands for Repetitive Element Sequence-Based PCR, which is used for genomic fingerprinting by targeting repetitive DNA sequences.
Q75
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesMolecular Biology
During probe synthesis which of the following causes hairpin loop formation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Complementary regions within the probe)
Hairpin loops are secondary structures that form when single-stranded nucleotide sequences fold back on themselves due to complementary regions within the same molecule.
Q76
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesDNA Profiling
In gender typing using AMEL locus, maleness is indicated by the presence of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both AMEL X and AMELY)
The Amelogenin (AMEL) gene has copies on both the X and Y chromosomes. Males (XY) have both AMELX (106 bp) and AMELY (112 bp) alleles, yielding two peaks, whereas females (XX) show only one peak (AMELX).
Q77
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesMolecular Biology
In ASO hybridisation for SNP analysis, what is the enzyme HRP conjugated to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Streptavidin)
In Allele-Specific Oligonucleotide (ASO) hybridization assays, probes are often biotinylated. The enzyme Horseradish Peroxidase (HRP) is conjugated to Streptavidin, which binds with extremely high affinity to the biotinylated probe.
Q78
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics
Which of the following forensic genetic markers does NOT show length polymorphism?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SNP)
SNPs (Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms) show sequence polymorphism (single base substitutions), whereas STRs, VNTRs, and LINEs vary in the length of repeated segments (length polymorphism).
Q79
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesDNA Profiling
Which of the following statements pertaining to STRs is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (STRs exhibit maternal inheritance)
Autosomal STRs exhibit biparental (both maternal and paternal) inheritance. Only mitochondrial DNA exhibits strict maternal inheritance.
Q80
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesPopulation Genetics
The minimum allele frequency for a sample size of 326 individuals is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.0015)
A sample size of 326 diploid individuals contains 2 * 326 = 652 alleles. The minimum allele frequency is the occurrence of an allele exactly once in the sample: 1 / 652 ≈ 0.0015.
Q81
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics
What is the most appropriate definition of Satellite DNA?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Extra-genic tandemly repeated DNA)
Satellite DNA consists of highly repetitive, non-coding DNA sequences that are clustered and tandemly repeated in specific regions of the genome (extra-genic tandemly repeated DNA).
Q82
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Biology
What part of the hair contains nerves and capillaries that supply nutrients?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hair papilla)
The hair papilla, located at the base of the hair follicle bulb, contains blood vessels (capillaries) and nerves that supply nutrients to the cells for hair growth.
Q83
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Biology
In what way, the presence of plant peroxidases may affect the result of Kastle-Meyer assay?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (By giving a false positive reaction)
The Kastle-Meyer (KM) test is a catalytic color test for blood. Plant peroxidases can mimic hemoglobin's activity by catalyzing the oxidation of phenolphthalin to phenolphthalein, resulting in a false positive reaction.
Q84
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesMolecular Biology
Regular DNA polymerases exhibit some activity below their optimal temperature, resulting in non-specific amplification. What type of PCR modification technique will help overcome this issue?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hot-start PCR)
Hot-start PCR is a technique that keeps the DNA polymerase inactive until the reaction mixture reaches the denaturation temperature, preventing non-specific primer binding and amplification at lower temperatures.
Q85
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesDNA Profiling
Arrange the steps for STR genotyping in order i. PCR amplification ii. Comparison with reference samples iii. Determination of STR profile iv. DNA quantification v. DNA extraction vi. Separation of STR alleles
💡Correct Answer: Option C (v, iv, i, vi, iii, ii)
The standard workflow for STR analysis is: DNA extraction (v) -> DNA quantification (iv) -> PCR amplification (i) -> separation of STR alleles (vi) -> determination of the STR profile (iii) -> comparison with reference/known samples (ii). This matches option C.
Q86
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesDNA Preservation
Which of the following statements related to FTA paper stand true? i. It is an absorbent cellulose-based paper ii. It protects DNA from nuclease degradation iii. It is stable at room temperature for several years iv. It prevents bacterial growth
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
FTA paper is a cellulose-based card containing chemicals that lyse cells, denature proteins, protect DNA from nuclease digestion, prevent bacterial growth, and allow long-term room temperature storage of blood or saliva samples.
Q87
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesDNA Profiling
TPOX locus used in the CODIS-based STR kits is an example of what type of STR marker?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Simple repeat consisting of one repeat sequence)
TPOX is a simple tetranucleotide repeat containing only one repeating sequence motif ([AATG]n) with no nonconsensus or complex structural variations.
Q88
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesBiochemistry
Rhodamine Red that is commonly used for the fluorescent labelling of DNA probes has an emission maximum at what wavelength?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (590 nm)
Rhodamine Red is a red fluorophore with an excitation maximum near 570 nm and an emission maximum at approximately 590 nm.
Q89
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesMolecular Biology
Who developed the technique of PCR, which is now used extensively for DNA fingerprinting?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kary Mullis)
Kary Mullis developed the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique in 1983, for which he received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1993.
Q90
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesBiochemistry
What are the components of an RNA nucleoside molecule?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ribose + Nitrogen base)
A nucleoside consists of a pentose sugar (ribose in RNA) and a nitrogenous base. A nucleotide contains a nucleoside plus a phosphate group.
Q91
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics
In what year was the Human Genome Project completed?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2003)
The Human Genome Project (HGP) was officially completed and declared closed in April 2003, having sequenced 99% of the euchromatic human genome.
Q92
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesBiochemistry
The combining of multiple polypeptide chains in a large functional protein is called its
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Quaternary structure)
The quaternary structure of a protein is the association of multiple individual polypeptide chains (subunits) into a single functional multi-subunit complex.
Q93
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics
What is the dihybrid ratio according to the second law of Mendel?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (9:3:3:1)
Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment (second law) predicts a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross.
Q94
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics
What is the study of a family tree by examination of appearing traits called?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pedigree analysis)
Pedigree analysis is the study of an inherited trait or condition across multiple generations of a family tree to determine its inheritance pattern.
Q95
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics
In snapdragons, a cross between a red flower plant and a white flower plant produces a heterozygote that has pink flowers. This is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Incomplete dominance)
Incomplete dominance occurs when the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype is an intermediate blend of the two homozygous phenotypes (e.g. pink flowers in snapdragons from red and white parents).
Q96
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics
What causes Barr body formation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (X chromosome inactivation)
A Barr body is an inactive, condensed X chromosome in female mammalian somatic cells, created during early development via X-chromosome inactivation (lyonization).
Q97
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Biology
What fluid accounts for 60% of the seminal fluid?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Seminal vesicle fluid)
Seminal vesicle fluid constitutes approximately 60% to 70% of the total volume of human semen, containing fructose, prostaglandins, and proteins.
Q98
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Biology
What component of the sweat can be used for performing a confirmatory assay?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dermicidin)
Dermcidin is an antimicrobial peptide expressed and secreted specifically by human eccrine sweat glands, serving as a highly specific biomarker for the identification of sweat.
Q99
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyGenetics
The stability of allele and genotype frequencies from one generation to the next is predicted by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium)
The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium states that in a large, random-mating population free from evolutionary forces (like mutation, selection, drift), allele and genotype frequencies remain constant over generations.
Q100
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Biology
Which of the following statement is FALSE?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The width of cortex is less than the width of the medulla)
In human hair, the cortex constitutes the bulk of the hair shaft, and the medulla is very narrow (occupying less than 1/3rd of the shaft's diameter). Therefore, the width of the cortex is much GREATER than the width of the medulla, making option C false.
Q101
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyBiochemistry
A heme molecule is also called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ferroprotoporphyrin)
Heme is a coordination complex consisting of an iron atom in the ferrous state (Fe2+) coordinated to protoporphyrin IX, hence it is chemically referred to as ferroprotoporphyrin.
Q102
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyBiochemistry
At what linkage does Human Salivary Amylase cleave in the starch molecule?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (α1→4)
Human salivary alpha-amylase is an endo-enzyme that specifically cleaves internal alpha-1,4-glucosidic bonds in starch and glycogen molecules.
Q103
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Biology
What are the predominant lactate dehydrogenase isozymes present in menstrual blood?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (LDH4, LDH5)
Menstrual blood exhibits higher activity levels of Lactate Dehydrogenase isozymes LDH4 and LDH5 compared to peripheral blood, which is useful for the identification of menstrual discharge.
Q104
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Biology
What is examined in the hair root sheath for sex determination?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Barr body)
For sex determination from hair roots, cells of the root sheath are stained and examined for the presence of a Barr body (which represents the inactive X chromosome in females).
Q105
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyDNA Profiling
A preferred procedure for analysing DNA in cases of sexual assault involving multiple unrelated perpetrators would be:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Differential extraction followed by autosomal STR analysis)
In sexual assault cases, differential extraction is always required to separate the sperm cells from the female epithelial cells. Autosomal STR analysis is then performed on the sperm fraction to achieve maximum discrimination power, allowing the identification and individualization of each unrelated perpetrator.
Q106
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Law
In 1993, the U. S. Supreme court set forth a nonexclusive checklist for trial courts to use in assessing the reliability of scientific expert testimony, such as standards and controls, testing, peer review, error rate etc. What was this admissibility standard named?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Daubert test)
The Daubert standard (Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc., 1993) established that the trial judge acts as a gatekeeper to determine the admissibility of scientific expert testimony using a set of criteria.
Q107
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyMitochondrial DNA
What is the most polymorphic region in human mitochondrial DNA?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (D-loop)
The D-loop (displacement loop) or control region of human mitochondrial DNA contains the hypervariable regions (HV1, HV2, and HV3), which accumulate mutations rapidly and are the most polymorphic regions used for sequencing.
Q108
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyAnatomy
What is the major organic component of the bone matrix?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Collagen)
Collagen (predominantly Type I collagen) constitutes about 90% of the organic matrix of bone, providing structural flexibility and tensile strength.
Q109
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyGenetics
In maize, a dominant allele (A) is necessary for seed color, as opposed to colorless (a). Another gene has a recessive allele (w) that results in waxy starch, as opposed to normal starch (W). The two genes segregate independently. An AaWW plant is testcrossed. What are the phenotypes and relative frequencies of offspring?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 (coloured seed, normal starch): 1 (colourless seed, normal starch))
The testcross is AaWW x aaww. Since W is homozygous dominant (WW) in the first parent, all offspring receive a W allele and will have normal starch (Ww). The A gene cross (Aa x aa) yields 1/2 Aa (colored) and 1/2 aa (colorless). Thus, the phenotypic ratio is 1 (colored, normal starch) : 1 (colorless, normal starch).
Q110
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyGenetics
A diploid organism in which both the alleles are the same at a given locus, is said to be
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Homozygous)
An individual or cell is homozygous at a given genetic locus when it carries identical alleles on homologous chromosomes.
Q111
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology
What region of a chromosome do mitotic and meiotic spindle fibers attach to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Centromere)
During cell division, the mitotic or meiotic spindle fibers attach to the centromere region of the chromosome, specifically at the kinetochore protein complex assembled there.
Q112
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology
At what phase during the mitotic cell division, does the kinetochore microtubule begin to form?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prometaphase)
During prometaphase of mitosis, the nuclear envelope breaks down and spindle microtubules begin to attach to the kinetochores of the chromosomes (forming kinetochore microtubules).
Q113
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyGenetics
A chromosomal aberration with a trisomy of chromosome 21 is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Down's syndrome)
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21).
Q114
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology
What is programmed cell death called as?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Apoptosis)
Apoptosis is a process of programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular organisms, characterized by morphological changes and cell disassembly without damage to neighboring cells.
Q115
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyMolecular Biology
During DNA replication, the two parental strands separate and each one acts as a template strand for new complementary strands. What is this model of DNA replication called?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Semiconservative)
The semiconservative model of DNA replication, proven by Meselson and Stahl, shows that each newly replicated DNA double helix consists of one intact parental (old) strand and one newly synthesized strand.
Q116
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology
What process do prokaryotic cells divide by?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Simple fission)
Prokaryotic cells (bacteria and archaea) lack a nucleus and divide via binary fission (or simple fission), a process of asexual reproduction where the cell splits into two equal parts.
Q117
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyBiochemistry
What are fatty acids containing more than one double bonds between the carbon atoms called?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Polyunsaturated fatty acids)
Fatty acids containing two or more carbon-carbon double bonds in their hydrocarbon chain are called polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs).
Q118
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyBiochemistry
Which of the following is an example of a disaccharide sugar?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sucrose)
Sucrose is a disaccharide sugar composed of one glucose molecule and one fructose molecule. Fructose and galactose are monosaccharides, and cellulose is a polysaccharide.
Q119
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyAnatomy
What part of the CNS is associated with vital reflexes such as heartbeat and respiration?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Medulla oblongata)
The medulla oblongata (part of the brainstem in the Central Nervous System) contains cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers that regulate autonomic reflexes like heartbeat, blood pressure, and breathing.
Q120
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology
Which of the following statements are TRUE? i. The membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane ii. The Golgi apparatus is a distinctive stack of flattened sacks called cristae iii. Peroxisomes contain enzymes that digest cellular components. iv. Mitochondria produce ATP molecules
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and iv only)
Statement i is true (ER membrane is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane), and statement iv is true (mitochondria synthesize ATP). Statement ii is false because Golgi sacs are called cisternae (cristae are inner mitochondrial membrane folds). Statement iii is false because lysosomes contain digestive/hydrolase enzymes, while peroxisomes contain oxidative enzymes (like catalase).
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About JKSSB Assistant Scientific Officer (DNA) 2024 Previous Year Paper
This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB Assistant Scientific Officer (DNA) examination conducted in 2024 by the Home Department (Forensic Science Laboratory). Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include Cell Biology & Molecular Genetics, Biochemistry & Human Physiology, Forensic Serology & Immunology, DNA Profiling & PCR Techniques, General Knowledge & Forensic Biology. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.
