Question 1

Consider the following principles of forensic science:
i. Not all contact leaves a trace
ii. Two different things can be compared
iii. Everything is unique
iv. Change is the only constant
Which of the above statements is true/correct?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: iii and iv only. According to the fundamental laws of forensic science, the Law of Individuality states 'Everything is unique' (iii), and the Law of Progressive Change states 'Change is the only constant' (iv). Statement i is incorrect because Locard's Exchange Principle states 'Every contact leaves a trace'. Statement ii is incorrect because the Law of Comparison states that only likes can be compared.

Question 2

AFIS is an automated system for storing and matching which of the following biometrics?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Fingerprints. AFIS stands for Automated Fingerprint Identification System, which is used by forensic investigators to store, search, and match digital fingerprints.

Question 3

Which of the following statement is FALSE?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: The width of cortex is less than the width of the medulla. In human hair, the cortex constitutes the bulk of the hair shaft, and the medulla is very narrow (occupying less than 1/3rd of the shaft's diameter). Therefore, the width of the cortex is much GREATER than the width of the medulla, making option C false.

Question 4

A heme molecule is also called

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Ferroprotoporphyrin. Heme is a coordination complex consisting of an iron atom in the ferrous state (Fe2+) coordinated to protoporphyrin IX, hence it is chemically referred to as ferroprotoporphyrin.

Question 5

At what linkage does Human Salivary Amylase cleave in the starch molecule?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: α1→4. Human salivary alpha-amylase is an endo-enzyme that specifically cleaves internal alpha-1,4-glucosidic bonds in starch and glycogen molecules.

Question 6

What are the predominant lactate dehydrogenase isozymes present in menstrual blood?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: LDH4, LDH5. Menstrual blood exhibits higher activity levels of Lactate Dehydrogenase isozymes LDH4 and LDH5 compared to peripheral blood, which is useful for the identification of menstrual discharge.

Question 7

What is examined in the hair root sheath for sex determination?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Barr body. For sex determination from hair roots, cells of the root sheath are stained and examined for the presence of a Barr body (which represents the inactive X chromosome in females).

Question 8

A preferred procedure for analysing DNA in cases of sexual assault involving multiple unrelated perpetrators would be:

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Differential extraction followed by autosomal STR analysis. In sexual assault cases, differential extraction is always required to separate the sperm cells from the female epithelial cells. Autosomal STR analysis is then performed on the sperm fraction to achieve maximum discrimination power, allowing the identification and individualization of each unrelated perpetrator.

Question 9

In 1993, the U. S. Supreme court set forth a nonexclusive checklist for trial courts to use in assessing the reliability of scientific expert testimony, such as standards and controls, testing, peer review, error rate etc. What was this admissibility standard named?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Daubert test. The Daubert standard (Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc., 1993) established that the trial judge acts as a gatekeeper to determine the admissibility of scientific expert testimony using a set of criteria.

Question 10

What is the most polymorphic region in human mitochondrial DNA?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: D-loop. The D-loop (displacement loop) or control region of human mitochondrial DNA contains the hypervariable regions (HV1, HV2, and HV3), which accumulate mutations rapidly and are the most polymorphic regions used for sequencing.

Question 11

What is the major organic component of the bone matrix?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Collagen. Collagen (predominantly Type I collagen) constitutes about 90% of the organic matrix of bone, providing structural flexibility and tensile strength.

Question 12

In maize, a dominant allele (A) is necessary for seed color, as opposed to colorless (a). Another gene has a recessive allele (w) that results in waxy starch, as opposed to normal starch (W). The two genes segregate independently. An AaWW plant is testcrossed. What are the phenotypes and relative frequencies of offspring?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: 1 (coloured seed, normal starch): 1 (colourless seed, normal starch). The testcross is AaWW x aaww. Since W is homozygous dominant (WW) in the first parent, all offspring receive a W allele and will have normal starch (Ww). The A gene cross (Aa x aa) yields 1/2 Aa (colored) and 1/2 aa (colorless). Thus, the phenotypic ratio is 1 (colored, normal starch) : 1 (colorless, normal starch).

Question 13

Which of the following is an example of trace evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Fiber. Trace evidence refers to microscopic physical evidence that is transferred between objects or people during a crime. Examples include hair, fibers, glass fragments, and paint chips.

Question 14

A diploid organism in which both the alleles are the same at a given locus, is said to be

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Homozygous. An individual or cell is homozygous at a given genetic locus when it carries identical alleles on homologous chromosomes.

Question 15

What region of a chromosome do mitotic and meiotic spindle fibers attach to?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Centromere. During cell division, the mitotic or meiotic spindle fibers attach to the centromere region of the chromosome, specifically at the kinetochore protein complex assembled there.

Question 16

At what phase during the mitotic cell division, does the kinetochore microtubule begin to form?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Prometaphase. During prometaphase of mitosis, the nuclear envelope breaks down and spindle microtubules begin to attach to the kinetochores of the chromosomes (forming kinetochore microtubules).

Question 17

A chromosomal aberration with a trisomy of chromosome 21 is known as

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Down's syndrome. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21).

Question 18

What is programmed cell death called as?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Apoptosis. Apoptosis is a process of programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular organisms, characterized by morphological changes and cell disassembly without damage to neighboring cells.

Question 19

During DNA replication, the two parental strands separate and each one acts as a template strand for new complementary strands. What is this model of DNA replication called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Semiconservative. The semiconservative model of DNA replication, proven by Meselson and Stahl, shows that each newly replicated DNA double helix consists of one intact parental (old) strand and one newly synthesized strand.

Question 20

What process do prokaryotic cells divide by?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Simple fission. Prokaryotic cells (bacteria and archaea) lack a nucleus and divide via binary fission (or simple fission), a process of asexual reproduction where the cell splits into two equal parts.

Question 21

What are fatty acids containing more than one double bonds between the carbon atoms called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Polyunsaturated fatty acids. Fatty acids containing two or more carbon-carbon double bonds in their hydrocarbon chain are called polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs).

Question 22

Which of the following is an example of a disaccharide sugar?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Sucrose. Sucrose is a disaccharide sugar composed of one glucose molecule and one fructose molecule. Fructose and galactose are monosaccharides, and cellulose is a polysaccharide.

Question 23

What part of the CNS is associated with vital reflexes such as heartbeat and respiration?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata (part of the brainstem in the Central Nervous System) contains cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers that regulate autonomic reflexes like heartbeat, blood pressure, and breathing.

Question 24

What is "Lying under oath" called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Perjury. Perjury is the act of willfully making false statements or lying under oath during a judicial proceeding.

Question 25

Which of the following statements are TRUE?
i. The membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane
ii. The Golgi apparatus is a distinctive stack of flattened sacks called cristae
iii. Peroxisomes contain enzymes that digest cellular components.
iv. Mitochondria produce ATP molecules

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i and iv only. Statement i is true (ER membrane is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane), and statement iv is true (mitochondria synthesize ATP). Statement ii is false because Golgi sacs are called cisternae (cristae are inner mitochondrial membrane folds). Statement iii is false because lysosomes contain digestive/hydrolase enzymes, while peroxisomes contain oxidative enzymes (like catalase).

Question 26

Which of the following is an example of behavioural biometrics?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Handwriting. Behavioral biometrics measure patterns of human activities. Handwriting, signature dynamics, keystroke dynamics, and gait are behavioral, while iris, lip prints, and nail beds are physiological biometrics.

Question 27

Which of the following standard is related to the admissibility of evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Frye standard. The Frye standard ( Frye v. United States, 1923) dictates that scientific evidence is admissible in court only if the scientific technique is 'generally accepted' as reliable within the relevant scientific community.

Question 28

After reaching the resolution limit of a microscope, it can be continued to magnify an image but not improve its resolution-this is called as:

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Empty magnification. Empty magnification occurs when an image is enlarged further without revealing any new detail, because the resolution limit of the objective lens has already been reached.

Question 29

Consider the following statements:
i. Brand of footwear is a class characteristic
ii. DNA profile is an individual characteristic
iii. Wear and tear on the sole of the footwear is a class characteristic
iv. Blood group is an individual characteristic
Which of the above statements is true/correct?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i and ii only. The brand of footwear is a class characteristic (applies to a group) (i), and a DNA profile is an individual characteristic (uniquely identifies an individual) (ii). Wear and tear on footwear is an individual characteristic (iii is false), and blood group is a class characteristic (iv is false).

Question 30

What is an exemplar?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Item for comparison with the questioned sample from a known source. An exemplar (or reference sample) is a legally collected specimen of known origin (e.g. handwriting sample or DNA from a suspect) used to compare against the questioned evidence collected from the crime scene.

Question 31

Which of the following search methods on the crime scene is a very thorough method for searching for evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Double strip method. The double strip search method (also known as the grid search method) involves searching along parallel strips and then repeating the process perpendicular to the first path, making it extremely thorough.

Question 32

Triangulation is a method used for which of the following purposes?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Measurement technique used for Sketching crime scene. Triangulation is a classic measurement technique used in crime scene sketching to record the exact location of evidence relative to two fixed, known reference points.

Question 33

Consider the following pairs:
i. Father of forensic toxicology - Albert Osborn
ii. Father of Forensic Ballistics - Calvin Goddard
iii. Father of fingerprints - Francis Galton
iv. Father of questioned documents - Mathieu Orfila
Which of the scientists are correctly matched with their domain?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: ii and iii only. Calvin Goddard is widely known as the Father of Forensic Ballistics (ii). Francis Galton is recognized as the Father of Fingerprints (iii) for developing the first classification system. Mathieu Orfila is the Father of Forensic Toxicology (not questioned documents), and Albert Osborn is the Father of Questioned Documents (not toxicology).

Question 34

Consider the following pairs:
i. Fingerprint - Striations
ii. Toolmarks - Hiatus
iii. Handwriting - Minutiae
iv. Glass - Fractures
Which of the evidences are correctly matched with their features?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: iv only. Only pair iv (Glass - Fractures) is correctly matched. Fingerprints are characterized by minutiae (ridge details), toolmarks by striations, and handwriting can exhibit hiatus (gaps).

Question 35

Consider the following duties of the first responding officer.
i. Barricade the crime scene
ii. Compile data from the scene
iii. Attend to any injured people/survivors
iv. Remove and detain witnesses/suspects from crime scene
Arrange the duties in chronological order starting from the first duty

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: iii, iv, i, ii. The first priority of the responding officer is to preserve life by attending to the injured (iii). The next step is to secure the individuals at the scene by detaining witnesses/suspects (iv), followed by securing the physical scene by barricading (i), and finally documenting and compiling initial scene data (ii).

Question 36

What is a druggist fold?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Packaging system for trace evidence. A druggist's fold is a folding technique for paper packaging that creates an enclosed, leak-proof packet. It is widely used in forensic science for collecting trace evidence like hair, fibers, paint chips, or powders.

Question 37

The trace evidence sometimes fluoresces under Alternate Light Source (ALS) used at the crime scene. What is its range?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: 400-800 nm. Alternate Light Sources (ALS) utilized at crime scenes generally operate within the visible and near-ultraviolet range (typically from 400 nm to 800 nm) to detect biological fluids, fibers, and other trace evidence via fluorescence.

Question 38

In crime scene reconstruction, what does "conjecture" mean?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: To formulate a possible explanation before detailed analysis. In the process of crime scene reconstruction, a conjecture refers to a preliminary, working hypothesis or possible explanation formulated before comprehensive and detailed laboratory analysis is completed.

Question 39

Consider the following statements about the packaging of evidence:
i. Biological samples such as bloody cloth have to be packaged in an airtight container while it's wet
ii. Samples suspected of containing accelerants from arson scenes should be packaged in airtight metal cans
iii. All the evidence collected from the crime scene should be packaged in one common container for ease of transportation
iv. Biological samples should be air-dried at room temperature and before packaging in breathable paper bags
Which of the above statements are true/correct?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: ii and iv only. Arson evidence containing volatile accelerants must be stored in airtight metal cans to prevent evaporation (ii). Biological samples (like bloodstains) must be air-dried first and stored in breathable paper bags to prevent mold and bacterial degradation (iv). Packaging wet samples in airtight containers (i) or combining all samples (iii) causes contamination and degradation.

Question 40

A V-shaped burning pattern on a wall on a fire crime scene may indicate which of the following?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Origin of fire. Fire naturally burns upward and outward, creating a V-shaped pattern on vertical surfaces. The bottom point of the 'V' often points directly to the point of origin of the fire.

Question 41

A serial offender is suspected of victimizing young teenage girls by mutilating their breasts. What will be the signature/style by which the culprit is killing his victims be called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Modus operandi. The method of committing a crime is called Modus Operandi (M.O.). While mutilation is a psychological signature, of the choices provided, 'Modus operandi' is the only valid legal/criminological term matching criminal behavioral patterns.

Question 42

Which of the following evidences have the power of individualization?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: DNA. DNA profiling has the statistical power of individualization, meaning it can uniquely identify a single individual. Blood group, shoe brand, and general whorl patterns of fingerprints are class characteristics (shared by multiple people).

Question 43

Which of the following is the ethical responsibility of a forensic scientist?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Maintaining unbiased opinion and confidentiality of the information. Forensic scientists are ethically bound to maintain absolute objectivity (unbiased scientific analysis) and keep all case information completely confidential.

Question 44

Where was the first chemical examiner laboratory set up in India?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Madras. The first Chemical Examiner's Laboratory in India was established at Madras (now Chennai) in the year 1849.

Question 45

Consider the following statements to follow to avoid contamination of the crime scene.
i. Establish multiple routes of entry and exit to the crime scene
ii. Wear PPE at all times while on the crime scene
iii. Create a separate route for entry to the crime scene for onlookers
iv. Use a single-use collection kit for biological samples
Which of the above statements is true/correct?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: ii and iv only. To prevent cross-contamination, investigators must wear Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) at all times (ii) and utilize single-use collection kits for each sample (iv). Only a single point of entry/exit should be established (i is false), and onlookers should never be allowed inside (iii is false).

Question 46

Consider the following pairs:

| Term | Definition |
| --- | --- |
| i. Elimination sample | Known source from someone who had lawful access to the scene |
| ii. Questioned sample | Known source from the crime scene which was presumably uncontaminated during a crime |
| iii. Reference sample | Known source with which evidence is compared to establish a link |
| iv. Control sample | Recovered from crime whose source is in question |

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i and iii only. Pairs i and iii are correctly matched. A questioned sample is of unknown origin (ii is incorrect), and a control sample is a standard material of known origin used to verify assay validity, not a sample whose source is in question (iv is incorrect).

Question 47

What is a presumptive test?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: It is a non-confirmatory test to screen the presence of a substance. A presumptive test is a highly sensitive but non-specific screening test. It is used to quickly screen samples and suggest the potential presence of a substance (e.g. blood, semen, drugs), but requires a confirmatory test for confirmation.

Question 48

Consider the following guidelines for the collection of evidence on an explosive scene
i. Collect samples in airtight glass jars without rubber liners
ii. Fill the container with evidence suspected to have accelerant full up to the brim with no space.
iii. Use breathable paper bags to collect debris with suspected explosive residue
iv. Use an activated charcoal strip placed inside the container to absorb volatile fumes from the sample
Which of the above statements is true/correct?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i and iv only. Explosive debris and accelerants must be packaged in clean, airtight glass jars or metal cans without rubber liners (i) to prevent organic contamination and evaporation of volatile gases. Activated charcoal strips are placed inside the container to absorb these volatile organic compounds for headspace analysis (iv). Breathable bags (iii) allow gases to escape, and filling to the brim (ii) leaves no headspace for vapor collection.

Question 49

On a suspected homicide crime scene, which of the following chemicals is used for the chemiluminescence of blood?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Luminol. Luminol (5-amino-2,3-dihydrophthalazine-1,4-dione) is a chemical compound that exhibits chemiluminescence (glows blue) when it reacts with the iron found in hemoglobin.

Question 50

Which of the following sketches shows a side view for example perspective of a wall looking from the side?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Elevated view. An elevated sketch (or elevation view) depicts a vertical plane, showing a side-on view of the scene, such as a wall containing bullet holes or blood spatter patterns.

Question 51

Which of the following is a detailed millimetre scale placed next to evidence while taking close view photograph of evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: ABFO. The ABFO No. 2 scale, developed by the American Board of Forensic Odontologists, is a standard L-shaped millimetric scale placed next to wounds, bite marks, or other physical evidence during close-up photography to establish accurate scaling.

Question 52

Electrostatic lifting device can be used to collect which of the following evidence from crime scene?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Dusty footprints on floor. An Electrostatic Dust Print Lifter (EDPL) applies a high-voltage charge to a metallized plastic sheet, drawing dry dust particles from footwear impressions on floors or carpets onto the film.

Question 53

Which of the following body offers accreditation to forensic science laboratories?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: NABL. NABL (National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories) is the primary body in India that provides formal accreditation to testing and calibration laboratories, including forensic laboratories under ISO/IEC 17025.

Question 54

Inquiry into the cause of death by Magistrate is covered in which of the following?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: 176 CrPC. Section 176 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with inquiry by a Magistrate into the cause of death in cases such as custodial deaths, suspicious deaths, or deaths of women within seven years of marriage.

Question 55

The first Central Forensic Science Laboratory was started in Calcutta in which of the following year?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: 1957. The first Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL) of India was established in Calcutta (Kolkata) in 1957.

Question 56

Consider the following ethics of a forensic expert:
i. Be subjective in validated scientific analysis
ii. Be objective in their analysis
iii. Employ validated methods of analysis
iv. Give personal opinions on the suspect of the crime
Which of the above statements are true/correct?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: ii and iii only. A forensic expert is ethically required to remain strictly objective (ii) during their analysis and always employ scientifically validated analytical methods (iii). Subjective bias (i) and personal opinions (iv) violate scientific and legal standards.

Question 57

Which of the following Acts relates to evidence and its admissibility in the court in India?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Indian Evidence Act, 1872. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is the primary legislation that governs the admissibility, relevance, and weight of evidence in Indian courts of law.

Question 58

When trace evidence is transferred from source "A" to source "C" without contact via intermediate source "B" it is called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Secondary transfer. Secondary transfer occurs when evidence is transferred from source A to B, and then from B to C without direct contact between A and C.

Question 59

Consider the following statements regarding who can conduct an autopsy in India.
i. A trained Magistrate
ii. A Registered Medical Practitioner in forensic medicine
iii. Coroner
iv. A doctor with B.A.M.S degree
Which of the above statements are true/correct?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: ii only. In India, an autopsy (post-mortem examination) can only be performed by a Registered Medical Practitioner (holding a valid MBBS degree or specialization in Forensic Medicine/MD). Magistrates and coroners only conduct inquests/inquiries, and B.A.M.S. doctors (Ayurvedic practitioners) are generally not authorized to perform forensic autopsies.

Question 60

Which of the following evidences are NOT accepted in the Indian Legal system or admissible in court?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Polygraphy. In the landmark judgment Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010), the Supreme Court of India ruled that lie-detector tests (polygraphy, narco-analysis, brain mapping) cannot be admitted as evidence unless voluntarily undertaken, and even then, results are generally not substantively admissible. DNA, fingerprints, and autopsy reports are widely accepted.

Question 61

Michel Levy chart is referred in which of the following microscopy while examining birefringent evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Polarized light microscope. The Michel-Lévy interference color chart is used in polarized light microscopy to determine the birefringence of a specimen (like synthetic fibers or minerals) based on thickness and retardation.

Question 62

The Stereo microscope has a different optical path for each eye to view which gives rise to?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: 3-dimensional view of evidence sample. A stereomicroscope (dissecting microscope) provides two separate optical paths, presenting slightly different angles of the specimen to each eye, which produces a three-dimensional (3D) visual effect.

Question 63

What is the lens in a compound microscope closest to the specimen called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Objective lens. The lens closest to the specimen in a light or compound microscope is called the objective lens, which gathers light and focuses the image of the specimen.

Question 64

The UV or blue light is used to focus on evidence sample in which of the following microscopes?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Fluorescence microscope. A fluorescence microscope uses high-intensity ultraviolet or blue excitation light to illuminate the specimen, exciting fluorescent dyes or autofluorescent components to emit lower-energy light.

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Consider the following principles of forensic science: i. Not all contact leaves a trace ii. Two different things can be compared iii. Everything is unique iv. Change is the only constant Which of the above statements is true/correct?

AFIS is an automated system for storing and matching which of the following biometrics?

Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A heme molecule is also called

At what linkage does Human Salivary Amylase cleave in the starch molecule?

What are the predominant lactate dehydrogenase isozymes present in menstrual blood?

What is examined in the hair root sheath for sex determination?

A preferred procedure for analysing DNA in cases of sexual assault involving multiple unrelated perpetrators would be:

In 1993, the U. S. Supreme court set forth a nonexclusive checklist for trial courts to use in assessing the reliability of scientific expert testimony, such as standards and controls, testing, peer review, error rate etc. What was this admissibility standard named?

What is the most polymorphic region in human mitochondrial DNA?

What is the major organic component of the bone matrix?

Which of the following is an example of trace evidence?

A diploid organism in which both the alleles are the same at a given locus, is said to be

What region of a chromosome do mitotic and meiotic spindle fibers attach to?

At what phase during the mitotic cell division, does the kinetochore microtubule begin to form?

A chromosomal aberration with a trisomy of chromosome 21 is known as

What is programmed cell death called as?

During DNA replication, the two parental strands separate and each one acts as a template strand for new complementary strands. What is this model of DNA replication called?

What process do prokaryotic cells divide by?

What are fatty acids containing more than one double bonds between the carbon atoms called?

Which of the following is an example of a disaccharide sugar?

What part of the CNS is associated with vital reflexes such as heartbeat and respiration?

What is "Lying under oath" called?

Which of the following is an example of behavioural biometrics?

Which of the following standard is related to the admissibility of evidence?

After reaching the resolution limit of a microscope, it can be continued to magnify an image but not improve its resolution-this is called as:

Consider the following statements: i. Brand of footwear is a class characteristic ii. DNA profile is an individual characteristic iii. Wear and tear on the sole of the footwear is a class characteristic iv. Blood group is an individual characteristic Which of the above statements is true/correct?

What is an exemplar?

Which of the following search methods on the crime scene is a very thorough method for searching for evidence?

Triangulation is a method used for which of the following purposes?

Consider the following pairs: i. Father of forensic toxicology - Albert Osborn ii. Father of Forensic Ballistics - Calvin Goddard iii. Father of fingerprints - Francis Galton iv. Father of questioned documents - Mathieu Orfila Which of the scientists are correctly matched with their domain?

Consider the following pairs: i. Fingerprint - Striations ii. Toolmarks - Hiatus iii. Handwriting - Minutiae iv. Glass - Fractures Which of the evidences are correctly matched with their features?

Consider the following duties of the first responding officer. i. Barricade the crime scene ii. Compile data from the scene iii. Attend to any injured people/survivors iv. Remove and detain witnesses/suspects from crime scene Arrange the duties in chronological order starting from the first duty

What is a druggist fold?

The trace evidence sometimes fluoresces under Alternate Light Source (ALS) used at the crime scene. What is its range?

In crime scene reconstruction, what does "conjecture" mean?

A V-shaped burning pattern on a wall on a fire crime scene may indicate which of the following?

A serial offender is suspected of victimizing young teenage girls by mutilating their breasts. What will be the signature/style by which the culprit is killing his victims be called?

Which of the following evidences have the power of individualization?

Which of the following is the ethical responsibility of a forensic scientist?

Where was the first chemical examiner laboratory set up in India?

What is a presumptive test?

On a suspected homicide crime scene, which of the following chemicals is used for the chemiluminescence of blood?

Which of the following sketches shows a side view for example perspective of a wall looking from the side?

Which of the following is a detailed millimetre scale placed next to evidence while taking close view photograph of evidence?

Electrostatic lifting device can be used to collect which of the following evidence from crime scene?

Which of the following body offers accreditation to forensic science laboratories?

Inquiry into the cause of death by Magistrate is covered in which of the following?

The first Central Forensic Science Laboratory was started in Calcutta in which of the following year?

Consider the following ethics of a forensic expert: i. Be subjective in validated scientific analysis ii. Be objective in their analysis iii. Employ validated methods of analysis iv. Give personal opinions on the suspect of the crime Which of the above statements are true/correct?

Which of the following Acts relates to evidence and its admissibility in the court in India?

When trace evidence is transferred from source "A" to source "C" without contact via intermediate source "B" it is called?

Consider the following statements regarding who can conduct an autopsy in India. i. A trained Magistrate ii. A Registered Medical Practitioner in forensic medicine iii. Coroner iv. A doctor with B.A.M.S degree Which of the above statements are true/correct?

Which of the following evidences are NOT accepted in the Indian Legal system or admissible in court?

Michel Levy chart is referred in which of the following microscopy while examining birefringent evidence?

The Stereo microscope has a different optical path for each eye to view which gives rise to?

What is the lens in a compound microscope closest to the specimen called?

The UV or blue light is used to focus on evidence sample in which of the following microscopes?

Which are the two types of electron microscopes used in forensic science laboratories?

Examination of tire marks is carried out in which of the following divisions of forensic science laboratory?

The second law of probability, the addition rule is used for which of the following events?

In hypothesis testing, what is a type I error?

What does the F--test measure?

What is systemic sampling?

How are degrees of freedom calculated in Chi square test? (where r is number of rows and c is number of columns)

Fetal hemoglobin is made up of four protein chains. They are

What type of amylase does the human saliva constitute?

Match the columns: | Column 1 | Column 2 | | --- | --- | | i. Blood | a) Phadebas test | | ii. Semen | b) Christmas tree staining | | iii. Saliva | c) Nessler's test | | iv. Urine | d) Takayama crystal assay | Choose the correct option:

In STR genotyping results for multiple contributors, four peaks were obtained on a single locus for a sample. What is your most probable conclusion?

Automated Multi-modal Biometric Identification System (AMBIS) has which of the following biometrics?

After 6 cycles of PCR amplification process, how many number of DNA copies would be generated under ideal conditions?

In agarose gel electrophoresis, what dye is used to visualise DNA?

Arrange the steps of organic DNA extraction method in order i. Ethanol precipitation ii. Cellular lysis iii. PCI treatment iv. Gel electrophoresis

In the mitochondrial DNA, uninterrupted C-stretches in the mt DNA are an example of

In 1984, Sir Alec Jeffreys was the first to utilise VNTR loci for DNA fingerprinting. What technique did he use?

How would you calculate the locus genotype frequency for a heterozygous locus with allele frequencies p and q for human STR genotyping?

Which of the following statements related to mitochondrial DNA is INCORRECT?

Which of the following regions of the Y chromosome does not participate in homologous recombination with the X chromosome?