JKSSB Sanitary Inspector 2025 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

What is the primary function of red blood cells?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Carry oxygen. Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain hemoglobin, which binds molecular oxygen in the pulmonary capillaries and transports it to body tissues.

Question 2

Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Aorta. The Aorta is the largest systemic artery that conveys oxygenated blood under high pressure from the left ventricle to the systemic circulation.

Question 3

Which structure in the human body is responsible for producing sound?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Larynx. The Larynx (voice box) contains the vocal cords which vibrate during expiration to produce phonation and sound.

Question 4

Consider the following pairs and match the organ system with its primary component:
i. Endocrine system
ii. Immune system
iii. Excretory system
iv. Integumentary system

Primary Component:
1. Skin, hair, and nails
2. Glands that secrete hormones
3. Kidneys and bladder
4. White blood cells and antibodies

Which of the following pair is correct?

Accepted Answer

Option C: i-2, ii-4, iii-3 and iv-1. Endocrine -> Glands secreting hormones (i-2), Immune -> WBCs & antibodies (ii-4), Excretory -> Kidneys & bladder (iii-3), Integumentary -> Skin, hair, nails (iv-1).

Question 5

Which of the following structures is found in the left atrium of the heart?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Mitral valve. The Mitral (bicuspid) atrioventricular valve guards the orifice between the left atrium and left ventricle.

Question 6

Which of the following is primarily responsible for the resting membrane potential of a cell?

Accepted Answer

Option D: The potassium leak channels. The resting membrane potential (approx $-70	ext{ mV}$) is primarily established by high membrane resting permeability to potassium through non-gated Potassium ($K^+$) Leak Channels.

Question 7

What is the role of aldosterone in the body?

Accepted Answer

Option D: It increases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, raising blood pressure. Aldosterone (mineralocorticoid secreted by adrenal cortex) acts on renal distal tubules and collecting ducts to stimulate $Na^+$ and water reabsorption while promoting $K^+$ excretion, expanding blood volume and raising blood pressure.

Question 8

Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for regulating homeostasis, including temperature, hunger, and thirst?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Hypothalamus. The Hypothalamus serves as the central control coordinator for autonomic homeostasis, core body temperature thermoregulation, appetite, thirst, circadian rhythms, and endocrine release.

Question 9

Which ion is most critical for the process of muscle contraction?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Calcium ($Ca^{2+}$). Calcium ions ($Ca^{2+}$) released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum bind to troponin C, shifting tropomyosin to expose myosin-binding sites on actin filaments, triggering muscle contraction.

Question 10

Which of the following is responsible for the majority of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Arterioles. Arterioles possess rich smooth muscle walls and small internal radii, serving as the primary site of systemic peripheral vascular resistance and regulating systemic arterial blood pressure.

Question 11

The establishment of the World Health Organization (WHO) was a key milestone in global public health. In which year was the WHO founded?

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1948. The Constitution of the World Health Organization came into force on April 7, 1948 (celebrated annually as World Health Day).

Question 12

The National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP) in India was initiated in which year as part of the global effort to eradicate polio?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 1995. The Government of India and WHO initiated the National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP) in 1997 (formal pulse polio campaigns started in 1995).

Question 13

Which of the following was the first public health program initiated by the British colonial government in India in the 19th century?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Smallpox vaccination program. The introduction of Jennerian smallpox vaccination in 1802 was the earliest organized state public health intervention launched by the British administration in India.

Question 14

In India, the concept of "health for all" was first introduced at which international conference?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Alma-Ata Declaration. The historic 1978 WHO/UNICEF International Conference at Alma-Ata (Kazakhstan) adopted the Alma-Ata Declaration, setting the goal of 'Health for All by the Year 2000' through Primary Health Care (PHC).

Question 15

Who was the first Director-General of Health Services (DGHS) in independent India, tasked with formulating policies on public health?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Dr. B.C. Roy. Pioneering physician Dr. B.C. Roy (and Dr. Jivraj Mehta) formulated post-independence medical and public health policy frameworks.

Question 16

In the Indian context, the National Health Policy 2017 aims to achieve which of the following goals?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Provide financial protection and access to essential health services. National Health Policy (NHP) 2017 targets attainment of the highest possible level of health and well-being for all through universal access to good quality health care services without facing financial hardship.

Question 17

Which of the following processes is most effective for managing hazardous organic pollutants in wastewater?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Advanced Oxidation Processes (AOPs). Advanced Oxidation Processes (AOPs) generate highly reactive hydroxyl radicals ($\cdot OH$) that completely mineralize recalcitrant, toxic non-biodegradable hazardous organic pollutants into $CO_2$ and $H_2O$.

Question 18

Which of the following is a major goal of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan launched in India in 2014?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Improving sanitation, reducing open defecation, and promoting cleanliness. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (launched October 2, 2014) aimed to achieve an Open Defecation Free (ODF) India through universal toilet coverage, solid waste management, and behavioral cleanliness.

Question 19

Which of the following diseases is classified as a neglected tropical disease in India?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Leprosy. Leprosy (Hansen's disease), Lymphatic Filariasis, and Kala-azar are recognized by WHO as Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) endemic to tropical regions.

Question 20

Which of the following is an example of a preventive strategy in community medicine aimed at reducing the incidence of diseases?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Mass immunization program. Mass immunization (primary prevention) administers prophylactic vaccines to susceptible populations to block disease transmission and eliminate incident cases.

Question 21

The National Vector Borne Disease Control Program (NVBDCP) in India primarily focuses on controlling which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Malaria, dengue, and chikungunya. NVBDCP targets 6 major vector-borne diseases: Malaria, Dengue, Chikungunya, Japanese Encephalitis, Kala-azar, and Lymphatic Filariasis.

Question 22

Which of the following is the primary aim of the National Immunization Programme in India?

Accepted Answer

Option C: To ensure herd immunity against vaccine-preventable diseases through mass immunization. The Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) aims to achieve $>90\%$ full immunization coverage across infants and pregnant women to establish community herd immunity against vaccine-preventable diseases (VPDs).

Question 23

The National Tobacco Control Programme in India primarily aims to:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Reduce the prevalence of tobacco use through public education and regulation. NTCP implements the COTPA Act 2003 and WHO FCTC provisions to reduce tobacco consumption prevalence through public awareness, smoking bans in public places, graphic health warnings, and cessation centers.

Question 24

The implementation of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) in India primarily contributes to:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Early detection and control of communicable diseases. IDSP is a decentralized, state-based surveillance network designed for early detection, rapid response, and containment of epidemic-prone communicable disease outbreaks.

Question 25

In a sanitary landfill, the leachate collection system primarily prevents:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Water contamination from the decomposition of organic waste. Leachate is toxic liquid percolating through landfill waste; impermeable liners and leachate collection pipes collect it for treatment, preventing groundwater aquifer and surface water contamination.

Question 26

Which international agreement regulates the movement and disposal of hazardous waste across borders?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Basel Convention. The Basel Convention (1989) on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal regulates international transfers of toxic and electronic wastes.

Question 27

Which of the following types of solid waste is typically classified as "biomedical waste"?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Waste from hospitals, clinics, and medical institutions. Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling Rules) classifies waste generated during diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of human beings or animals in healthcare facilities into distinct color-coded categories.

Question 28

Liquid waste generated by household activities, such as dishwashing and laundry, is typically classified as:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Greywater. Greywater (sullage) refers to domestic wastewater from sinks, showers, baths, dishwashers, and washing machines that does not contain human fecal matter (toilet waste is blackwater).

Question 29

Which of the following methods is commonly used to treat hazardous liquid waste before disposal?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Chemical neutralization. Chemical neutralization (adjusting pH using lime or acid) precipitates dissolved heavy metals and neutralizes corrosive industrial effluents prior to safe discharge.

Question 30

Which of the following would be classified as "toxic liquid waste" in an industrial setting?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Paint thinners and solvents. Industrial organic solvents, paint thinners (toluene, xylene, acetone), and degreasers are flammable, volatile, and classified as toxic hazardous liquid waste.

Question 31

Which of the following is a key component of the biological treatment process in a septic tank?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Anaerobic bacteria that break down organic matter. In the quiescent, oxygen-depleted environment of a septic tank, facultative and obligate anaerobic bacteria liquefy and digest settleable organic sludge into stable effluent and biogas.

Question 32

Which of the following is a major environmental concern associated with improperly maintained septic tank latrines?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Eutrophication of water bodies from nutrient-rich effluent. Untreated sewage effluent overflowing from failing septic tanks is rich in nitrates and phosphates, causing algal blooms and eutrophication in receiving aquatic water bodies.

Question 33

How often should a septic tank typically be pumped to prevent system failure?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Every 1-3 years. Sanitary engineering standards (CPHEEO/EPA) recommend inspecting and desludging/pumping septic tanks every 1 to 3 years to prevent accumulated sludge from choking the soak pit/drain field.

Question 34

Which of the following describes the "scum" layer in a septic tank?

Accepted Answer

Option B: A layer of fats, oils, and grease floating on the surface of the tank. In a septic tank, low-density materials (fats, oils, grease, soap curds, and buoyant solids) float to the top of the wastewater to form the scum layer.

Question 35

What is the primary purpose of the water seal in an RCA (Ring-Covered or Ring- Sealed) latrine?

Accepted Answer

Option B: To prevent the escape of foul odors and harmful gases from the pit. A water seal (P-trap containing $20	ext{ mm}$ water depth) creates an airtight barrier that prevents pit gases (methane, $H_2S$), foul odors, flies, and mosquitoes from entering the latrine superstructure.

Question 36

Which of the following arthropods is primarily responsible for the transmission of the Plasmodium parasite, the causative agent of malaria?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Anopheles mosquito. Female Anopheles mosquitoes serve as the biological definitive host and vector transmitting Plasmodium parasites (P. vivax, P. falciparum).

Question 37

Which of the following factors most significantly influences the population dynamics and disease transmission potential of arthropod vectors?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Temperature and humidity. Ambient temperature and relative humidity directly regulate vector metabolic rates, gonotrophic cycles, larval breeding rate, and extrinsic incubation periods of pathogens.

Question 38

The primary vector of the Zika virus, which is a significant public health concern, is:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Aedes mosquito. Aedes aegypti (and Aedes albopictus) mosquitoes are the primary daytime-biting vectors of Zika virus, Dengue virus, and Chikungunya.

Question 39

Which of the following is a key requirement in housing standards aimed at preventing hypothermia and maintaining warmth in colder climates?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Insulation in floors, walls, and ceilings. Adequate thermal envelope insulation in ceilings, walls, and subfloors minimizes conductive and radiative heat loss, keeping indoor temperatures stable above $18^\circ	ext{C}$.

Question 40

Which of the following factors is essential for a housing unit to be considered environmentally sustainable while maintaining healthy living standards?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Use of renewable energy sources and efficient energy usage. Sustainable housing incorporates renewable solar/wind energy, passive solar design, natural cross-ventilation, rainwater harvesting, and energy efficiency.

Question 41

Which of the following is a primary cause of environmental noise pollution in urban areas?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Traffic, including road vehicles and train. Road motor vehicular traffic (engines, horns, exhausts) constitutes the single most pervasive, continuous source of ambient urban community noise pollution.

Question 42

In terms of regulatory limits, what is the typical acceptable day-time noise level (Lday) for residential areas in most urban settings according to noise pollution standards?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 55 dB. Under the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) Noise Pollution Rules 2000, permissible ambient noise limits for Residential Areas are $55	ext{ dB(A)}$ during daytime (6 AM–10 PM) and $45	ext{ dB(A)}$ at night.

Question 43

Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which vaccines induce long lasting immunity against infectious diseases?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Activation of T and B lymphocytes, leading to the formation of memory cells. Vaccination introduces harmless pathogen antigens, stimulating clonal expansion of antigen-specific helper/cytotoxic T cells and B cells which differentiate into long-lived memory T and memory B lymphocytes.

Question 44

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most commonly associated with providing immunity against pathogens at mucosal surfaces, such as the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts?

Accepted Answer

Option B: IgA. Secretory IgA (dimeric with secretory component) is the dominant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions (saliva, tears, mucus, colostrum) neutralizing pathogens before tissue penetration.

Question 45

Which of the following types of immunity is provided by a vaccination with a killed or inactivated pathogen?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Active immunity through antigen exposure. Administering an inactivated vaccine introduces exogenous antigens that prompt the recipient's own immune system to generate active antibodies and memory cells (Artificially acquired active immunity).

Question 46

What is the primary mechanism of action for alcohol-based disinfectants like isopropyl alcohol?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Denaturation of proteins and inactivation of enzymes. Alcohols (60%–80% ethanol or isopropanol) rapidly penetrate bacterial cell walls, denature cellular and membrane proteins, and dissolve lipid membranes.

Question 47

The presence of which of the following can reduce the effectiveness of a disinfectant?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Organic matter (e.g., blood, dirt). Organic soils (blood, pus, mucus, feces, biofilm) react with and consume chemical disinfectants, creating physical barriers that shield underlying microorganisms from contact.

Question 48

Which of the following lifestyle modifications is most effective in preventing the development of hypertension in individuals with prehypertension?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Low-sodium diet. Dietary sodium restriction ($<2000	ext{ mg/day}$) combined with the DASH diet (rich in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy) is the most proven lifestyle intervention to lower blood pressure.

Question 49

Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for counteracting the effects of insulin and raising blood glucose levels, particularly during fasting or stress?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Glucagon. Glucagon (secreted by pancreatic alpha cells) stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, elevating blood glucose concentrations in response to hypoglycemia.

Question 50

Which of the following eye diseases is characterized by progressive vision loss beginning with peripheral vision and is often associated with increased intraocular pressure?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Glaucoma. Glaucoma (Kala Motia) is an optic neuropathy typically linked to elevated intraocular pressure (IOP), presenting initially with asymptomatic peripheral visual field constriction (tunnel vision).

Question 51

What is the primary limitation of using the Body Mass Index (BMI) as an indicator of nutritional status?

Accepted Answer

Option D: It does not differentiate between lean body mass and fat.. BMI ($	ext{weight in kg} / 	ext{height in m}^2$) cannot distinguish between fat mass and lean muscle mass/bone density (e.g. muscular athletes are misclassified as overweight).

Question 52

Which of the following indicators is considered the most reliable for assessing protein-energy malnutrition in adults?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Mid-arm muscle circumference. Mid-Upper Arm Muscle Circumference (MUAMC) corrected for subcutaneous fat reflects somatic muscle protein reserves, serving as a reliable anthropometric indicator of adult PEM.

Question 53

Which of the following is a key characteristic of Beriberi, caused by thiamine (vitamin B 1) deficiency?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Swelling of the legs and heart failure. Wet Beriberi (thiamine deficiency) presents with peripheral vasodilation, high-output congestive heart failure, tachycardia, dyspnea, and peripheral dependent edema (swelling of legs).

Question 54

A 35-year-old male presents with fatigue, muscle weakness, and anemia. His diet has been low in meat, and laboratory tests show a low serum vitamin B 12 level. What condition is this individual most likely suffering from?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Megaloblastic anemia. Dietary Vitamin B12 deficiency (common in strict vegans) impairs DNA synthesis, producing macrocytic/megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

Question 55

Which condition is primarily caused by a deficiency in iodine, leading to the enlargement of the thyroid gland?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Goiter. Endemic Goiter (Ghegha) is the compensatory hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the thyroid gland caused by inadequate dietary iodine intake.

Question 56

Which of the following foodborne illnesses is primarily associated with improperly canned foods?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Botulism. Foodborne botulism is caused by ingestion of the pre-formed neurotoxin of Clostridium botulinum, an anaerobic spore-former multiplying in low-acid, improperly sterilized home-canned foods.

Question 57

The condition known as Kwashiorkor is primarily caused by a deficiency in:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Protein. Kwashiorkor is severe acute malnutrition caused by an inadequate intake of protein despite adequate or marginal caloric carbohydrate consumption, presenting with pitting edema, fatty liver, and 'flaky paint' dermatosis.

Question 58

The practice of adding non-edible coloring agents like malachite green and rhodamine B in food products is most commonly seen in which of the following foods in India?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Green vegetables. Malachite green (a carcinogenic dye) is illegally applied to green vegetables (green peas, spinach, bitter gourd, chillies) to give them a fresh, bright green appearance.

Question 59

Which of the following adulterants is most commonly used to adulterate tea leaves in India, often leading to health concerns?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Iron filings. Used processed tea leaves are illegally colored and weighted down by adding magnetic iron filings and coal-tar dyes.

Question 60

The World Food India 2024 event, scheduled from September 19-22, 2024, in New Delhi, is organized by:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Ministry of Food Processing Industries. World Food India is the flagship mega-food event organized annually at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), Government of India.

Question 61

What is the main function of social mobilization within an Information , Education and Communication campaign?

Accepted Answer

Option D: To involve communities and stakeholders in promoting the campaign's objectives. Social mobilization engages community leaders, grassroots institutions, NGOs, and families to collectively build ownership, demand, and participation in health initiatives.

Question 62

Which is the most effective method for pre-testing Information , Education and Communication materials to ensure audience relevance?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Using focus groups with representatives of the target population. Focus Group Discussions (FGDs) with members of the intended target demographic evaluate comprehension, cultural acceptability, visual clarity, and message appeal before mass production.

Question 63

In health communication campaigns, what does the term "audience segmentation" mean?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Categorizing the audience into subgroups based on characteristics like age, behavior, or needs. Audience segmentation divides a heterogeneous population into distinct homogeneous subgroups based on demographics, behavioral risk factors, cultural values, or health literacy to tailor messages.

Question 64

When targeting a population with low health literacy, which communication strategy is most effective?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Employing visual aids and simple language. Low health literacy populations benefit most from pictorial illustrations, folk media, interactive demonstrations, and simple local vernacular language.

Sanitary Inspector2025

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JKSSB — Sanitary Inspector (2025)