Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: Persiflage A) Criticism B) Banter C) Seriousness D) Argument
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Banter)
'Persiflage' means light and slightly contemptuous mockery or good-humoured, playful conversation; banter. Hence, 'Banter' is the exact synonym.
Q2
General EnglishSynonyms
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: Recalcitrant A) Compliant B) Submissive C) Rebellious D) Docile
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rebellious)
'Recalcitrant' means having an obstinately uncooperative attitude towards authority or discipline; rebellious or defiant. 'Compliant', 'Submissive', and 'Docile' are antonyms.
Q3
General EnglishAntonyms
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word: Succinct A) Laconic B) Pithy C) Long-winded D) Concise
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Long-winded)
'Succinct' means briefly and clearly expressed (synonyms: concise, laconic, pithy). 'Long-winded' means continuing at tedious length, using too many words, making it the direct antonym.
Q4
General EnglishAntonyms
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word: Perturbed A) Calm B) Unsettled C) Worried D) Anxious
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Calm)
'Perturbed' means feeling anxious, disturbed, or unsettled. The antonym is 'Calm' (peaceful and untroubled).
Q5
General EnglishSentence Rearrangement (Para Jumbles)
Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order: Ancient mythologies P. while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes Q. influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy R. preserving cultural traditions through oral storytelling S. have transcended time and geographical boundaries, Choose the correct option: A) SQRP B) QRPS C) RPQS D) PRSQ
💡Correct Answer: Option A (SQRP)
The plural subject 'Ancient mythologies' takes the finite predicate verb in S: 'have transcended time and geographical boundaries,'. This is followed by participle clauses Q ('influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy'), R ('preserving cultural traditions through oral storytelling'), and P ('while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes'). Hence, SQRP forms a grammatically coherent sentence.
Q6
General EnglishParagraph Jumbles
Which of the given options is the most logical sequencing of the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph? I. They are responsible for pollinating many plants. II. Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production. III. However, their population has been steadily declining. IV. The major reasons for this are habitat loss and pesticides. Choose the correct option: A) III - II - I - IV B) IV - I - II - III C) II - I - III - IV D) I - III - IV - II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II - I - III - IV)
- Sentence II introduces the topic ('Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production'). - Sentence I elaborates on their ecological role ('They are responsible for pollinating many plants'). - Sentence III introduces the contrast/problem with 'However' ('However, their population has been steadily declining'). - Sentence IV explains the causes ('The major reasons for this are habitat loss and pesticides'). Logical sequence: II - I - III - IV.
Q7
General EnglishDirect & Indirect Speech
Select the correct direct form of the given sentence: She asked me why I had been smoking that day. A) She says to me, "Why were you smoking this day?" B) She said to me, "Why are you smoking today?" C) She said to me, "Why you smoke today?" D) She said to me, "Why were you smoking today?"
💡Correct Answer: Option D (She said to me, "Why were you smoking today?")
In indirect speech, past continuous ('were you smoking') shifts to past perfect continuous ('had been smoking'), and 'today' shifts to 'that day'. The reporting verb 'asked me' corresponds to 'said to me'. Therefore, the direct speech is: She said to me, "Why were you smoking today?"
Q8
General EnglishIdioms and Phrases
Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom: Give a piece of one's mind A) To advise someone B) To rebuke someone strongly C) To donate something valuable D) To share one's ideas
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To rebuke someone strongly)
The idiom 'to give someone a piece of one's mind' means to speak angrily to someone and scold or rebuke them severely for something bad they have done.
Q9
General EnglishOne Word Substitution
Select the word which means the same as the group of words given: Who wanders from place to place and lives by begging A) Knave B) Itinerant C) Migrant D) Vagrant
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vagrant)
A 'Vagrant' is a person without a settled home or regular work who wanders from place to place and lives by begging. An 'itinerant' travels from place to place (often for work), but a vagrant specifically begs.
Q10
General EnglishDirect & Indirect Speech
Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence: "Hello", he said to his friend. "What can I do for you?" A) He asked and greeted his friend that what he can do for him. B) He told hello and asked his friend what he could do for him. C) He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him. D) He said hello and asked his friend what can do for him.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.)
Greeting 'Hello' is converted to 'He greeted his friend'. The interrogative sentence 'What can I do for you?' becomes the noun clause 'and asked what he could do for him' with modal 'can' shifted to 'could'. Conjunction 'that' is not used before wh-question words.
Q11
General EnglishReading Comprehension
According to the passage on Normal Science and Scientific Revolutions, why do scientific revolutions represent a rupture rather than a continuation of prior science? A) Because scientists abandon objectivity and turn to speculation. B) Because competing paradigms redefine questions and methods, making continuity impossible. C) Because new paradigms invalidate all previous findings. D) Because scientists stop collecting empirical data.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Because competing paradigms redefine questions and methods, making continuity impossible.)
The passage explains that scientific revolutions occur when a new paradigm emerges, which is not merely an extension of the old framework but a fundamental reconceptualization of reality (akin to a gestalt switch), redefining the very questions, assumptions, and methods of science.
Q12
General EnglishActive and Passive Voice
Identify the voice used in the sentence from the passage: "Anomalies are dismissed as errors or as problems to be solved within the existing theoretical structure." A) Active voice B) Middle voice C) Passive voice D) Reflexive voice
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Passive voice)
The structure 'are dismissed' consists of the auxiliary verb 'to be' (are) + past participle (dismissed), where the subject ('Anomalies') receives the action rather than performing it. This is standard Passive Voice.
Q13
General EnglishClauses
What type of clause is used in the sentence: "Yet, over time, anomalies that cannot be explained within the current paradigm accumulate"? A) Noun clause B) Relative clause C) Adverbial clause D) Independent clause
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Relative clause)
The clause 'that cannot be explained within the current paradigm' is introduced by the relative pronoun 'that' and modifies the noun 'anomalies'. A clause that modifies a noun is an Adjective or Relative Clause.
Q14
General EnglishSpotting Errors
Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error: "The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively and with surgical precision, dismantling the opposition's case piece by logic piece." A) dismantling the opposition's case B) The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively C) and with surgical precision D) piece by logic piece
💡Correct Answer: Option D (piece by logic piece)
The expression 'piece by logic piece' is grammatically incorrect and unidiomatic. The standard idiom is 'piece by piece' or 'point by logical point'. Hence, option D contains the error.
Q15
General EnglishSpotting Errors (Adverbs)
The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error: (I) She quick finished her homework / (II) before dinner, eager to join her friends / (III) at the park for / (IV) an exciting game of soccer. A) IV B) I C) III D) II
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I)
In segment I, 'quick' is an adjective being incorrectly used to modify the verb 'finished'. It should be the adverb 'quickly' ('She quickly finished her homework'). Therefore, segment I contains the error.
Q16
General EnglishSpelling Test
Select the word with the correct spelling to fill in the blank: Hiren loves to use _ words while writing anything. A) coloquid B) colloquil C) colloquial D) colloqual
💡Correct Answer: Option C (colloquial)
The correct spelling is 'colloquial' (meaning used in ordinary or familiar conversation; not formal or literary).
Q17
General EnglishVocabulary (Fill in the blanks)
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank: Despite the _ challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to reach their destination. A) formidable B) negligible C) trivial D) insignificant
💡Correct Answer: Option A (formidable)
'Formidable' means inspiring fear or respect through being impressively large, powerful, intense, or capable. The preposition 'Despite' signals a contrast between severe/daunting challenges and successful arrival.
Q18
General EnglishPronouns
Identify the correct type of pronoun in the following sentence: "I enjoyed myself during the holidays." Here, 'myself' is a _ pronoun. A) demonstrative B) possessive C) distributive D) reflexive
💡Correct Answer: Option D (reflexive)
When the action of the verb reflects back upon the subject itself (the subject and object refer to the same person), the pronoun ending in -self/-selves is a Reflexive pronoun.
Q19
General EnglishSpelling Test
Which word has a spelling mistake? A) Convalescence B) Conflagaration C) Obsequious D) Reticent
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conflagaration)
Option B is misspelled as 'Conflagaration'. The correct spelling is 'Conflagration' (meaning an extensive and destructive fire).
Q20
General EnglishSentence Improvement
Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select 'No substitution required': "Can you give me so many examples of subordinate clauses?", the teacher asked the class. A) some more examples of B) some many examples of C) some few examples of D) No substitution required
💡Correct Answer: Option A (some more examples of)
'So many' is unnatural in this polite request asking for additional instances. The idiomatic phrasing is 'some more examples of'.
Q21
Basic MathematicsArithmetic Progression (A.P.)
The sum of the 3rd and the 4th term of an A.P. is 19 and that of the 1st and the 7th term is 22. Find the 9th term. A) 16 B) 17 C) 15 D) 26
💡Correct Answer: Option D (26)
Let the first term be a and the common difference be d. - T₃ + T₄ = (a + 2d) + (a + 3d) = 2a + 5d = 19 --- (1) - T₁ + T₇ = a + (a + 6d) = 2a + 6d = 22 --- (2) Subtracting (1) from (2): (2a + 6d) - (2a + 5d) = 22 - 19 => d = 3. Substituting d = 3 into (1): 2a + 5(3) = 19 => 2a + 15 = 19 => 2a = 4 => a = 2. Now, the 9th term T₉ = a + 8d = 2 + 8(3) = 2 + 24 = 26.
Q22
Basic MathematicsSurds and Indices / Number System
Which one of the following is true? A) √5 + √3 > √6 + √2 B) √5 + √3 < √6 + √2 C) √5 + √3 = √6 + √2 D) (√5 + √3)(√6 + √2) = 1
A right circular cone of largest volume is cut out from a solid wooden hemisphere. The remaining material is what percentage of the volume of the original hemisphere? A) 33.33% B) 50% C) 75% D) 66.66%
💡Correct Answer: Option B (50%)
Let the radius of the hemisphere be R. For the largest cone cut from the hemisphere: - Base radius of cone = r = R - Height of cone = h = R. Volume of hemisphere = (2/3)πR³. Volume of cone = (1/3)πr²h = (1/3)πR³. Remaining material volume = (2/3)πR³ - (1/3)πR³ = (1/3)πR³. Percentage of remaining material = [(1/3)πR³ / (2/3)πR³] × 100% = (1/2) × 100% = 50%.
The sum of the height and radius of the base of a solid right circular cylinder is 46 cm. If the total surface area of the solid cylinder is 6072 cm², what is the volume (in cm³) of the cylinder? (take π = 22/7) A) 6072π B) 1085π C) 3036π D) 11025π
💡Correct Answer: Option D (11025π)
Given: h + r = 46 cm. Total Surface Area = 2πr(h + r) = 6072 cm². 2 × (22/7) × r × 46 = 6072 (2024/7) × r = 6072 => r = (6072 × 7) / 2024 = 3 × 7 = 21 cm. Since r = 21 cm, height h = 46 - 21 = 25 cm. Volume of cylinder = πr²h = π × (21)² × 25 = π × 441 × 25 = 11025π cm³.
Two metallic right circular cones having their heights 3.8 cm and 4.6 cm and radii of their bases 2.1 cm each, have been melted together and recast into a sphere. The diameter (in cm) of the sphere is: A) 4.2 B) 1.4 C) 3.5 D) 6.3
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4.2)
Total volume of both cones = (1/3)πr²h₁ + (1/3)πr²h₂ = (1/3)πr²(h₁ + h₂). h₁ + h₂ = 3.8 + 4.6 = 8.4 cm. Total volume = (1/3)π(2.1)²(8.4). Equating to the volume of the sphere of radius R: (4/3)πR³ = (1/3)π(2.1)²(8.4) 4R³ = (2.1)² × (4 × 2.1) = 4 × (2.1)³ => R³ = (2.1)³ => R = 2.1 cm. Diameter of the sphere = 2R = 2 × 2.1 = 4.2 cm.
Q27
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss
A shopkeeper bought 40 pieces of an article at a rate of Rs. 50 per item. He sold 35 pieces with 20% profit. The remaining 5 pieces were found to be damaged and he sold them with 10% loss. Find his overall profit percentage. A) 30% B) 10% C) 16.25% D) 32.5%
If the difference between the compound interest and simple interest at 17% on a sum of money for 2 years (compounded annually) is Rs. 433.50, then the sum (in Rs.) is: A) 12,000 B) 15,000 C) 25,000 D) 20,000
💡Correct Answer: Option B (15,000)
The formula for the difference between CI and SI for 2 years is: CI - SI = P × (r / 100)² 433.50 = P × (17 / 100)² = P × (289 / 10000) P = (433.50 × 10000) / 289 = 4335000 / 289 = Rs. 15,000.
Q29
Basic MathematicsProgressions & Means (AM & GM)
X and Y are two numbers whose A.M. is 41 and G.M. is 9. Which of the following may be a value of X? A) 125 B) 81 C) 49 D) 25
💡Correct Answer: Option B (81)
Given: (X + Y) / 2 = 41 => X + Y = 82 √(X × Y) = 9 => X × Y = 81. The quadratic equation with roots X and Y is: t² - 82t + 81 = 0 => (t - 81)(t - 1) = 0. Thus, the two numbers are 81 and 1. Therefore, X can be 81.
Q30
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss
The cost price of articles X and Y is the same. Article X is sold at 20% profit and article Y is sold for Rs. 126 less than the selling price of X. If the net profit by selling both the articles is 14%, then what is the cost price (in Rs.) of each article? A) 1,260 B) 840 C) 1,080 D) 1,050
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1,050)
Let the CP of each article be C. Total CP = 2C. Net profit = 14% => Total SP = 2C × 1.14 = 2.28C. SP of X = 1.20C. SP of Y = 1.20C - 126. Total SP = 1.20C + (1.20C - 126) = 2.40C - 126. 2.40C - 126 = 2.28C 0.12C = 126 => C = 126 / 0.12 = Rs. 1,050.
Q31
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss
A T.V. is sold at 8% gain. Had it been sold for Rs. 2553 less, there would have been a loss of 15%. To gain 18%, the selling price (in Rs.) of the T.V. would be: A) 11100 B) 13098 C) 15000 D) 9102
💡Correct Answer: Option B (13098)
The difference between an 8% gain and a 15% loss is 8% - (-15%) = 23% of the cost price. 23% of CP = Rs. 2553 CP = 2553 / 0.23 = Rs. 11,100. To gain 18%: Required SP = CP × 1.18 = 11100 × 1.18 = Rs. 13,098.
Q32
Basic MathematicsProbability
A card is drawn at random from a pack of 100 cards numbered 1 to 100. The probability of drawing a number which is a square, is: A) 1/10 B) 1/100 C) 9/10 D) 90/100
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1/10)
Total outcomes = 100. Perfect squares from 1 to 100 are: 1², 2², 3², 4², 5², 6², 7², 8², 9², 10² (1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81, 100). Number of favourable outcomes = 10. Probability = 10 / 100 = 1/10.
Q33
Basic MathematicsMensuration (Cube and Inscribed Sphere)
A sphere is placed in a cube so that it touches all the faces of the cube. If 'a' is the ratio of the volume of the cube to the volume of the sphere and 'b' is the ratio of the surface area of the sphere to the surface area of the cube, then the value of 'ab' is: A) π² / 30 B) 4 C) 36 / π² D) 1
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1)
Let the side of the cube be s. Then the diameter of the inscribed sphere is s, so radius r = s/2. - Volume of cube = s³ - Volume of sphere = (4/3)π(s/2)³ = (π/6)s³ Ratio a = (Volume of cube) / (Volume of sphere) = s³ / [(π/6)s³] = 6 / π. - Surface area of sphere = 4πr² = 4π(s/2)² = πs² - Surface area of cube = 6s² Ratio b = (Surface area of sphere) / (Surface area of cube) = πs² / 6s² = π / 6. Therefore, ab = (6 / π) × (π / 6) = 1.
Q34
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss
In a medical transaction, 17 times the cost price is equal to 8 times the sum of the cost price and the selling price. What is the gain or loss percentage? A) Loss 15% B) Gain 17.5% C) Gain 12.5% D) Loss 30%
It is decided that a loan of Rs. 10,000 will be paid off at the rate of Rs. 800 per month in 15 equal instalments. Find out the rate of return on investment. A) 16% P.a. B) 18% P.a. C) 15% P.a. D) 17% P.a.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (16% P.a.)
Total amount paid = 15 × 800 = Rs. 12,000. Total interest earned = 12,000 - 10,000 = Rs. 2,000. Principal P = Rs. 10,000. Time period T = 15 months = 15/12 = 1.25 years. Flat annual rate of return = (Interest × 100) / (P × T) = (2000 × 100) / (10000 × 1.25) = 200000 / 12500 = 16% p.a.
Q36
Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion
A man ordered 4 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black socks is double that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill the clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 50%. The ratio of the number of black and brown pairs of socks in the original order was: A) 2:1 B) 1:4 C) 1:2 D) 4:1
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1:4)
Let the price of a brown pair be p, so the price of a black pair is 2p. Let x be the number of brown pairs in the original order. Original bill = 4(2p) + x(p) = (8 + x)p. Interchanged bill = x(2p) + 4(p) = (2x + 4)p. Given that the bill increased by 50%: (2x + 4)p = 1.5(8 + x)p 2x + 4 = 12 + 1.5x => 0.5x = 8 => x = 16. Original ratio of black pairs to brown pairs = 4 : 16 = 1 : 4.
Q37
Basic MathematicsMensuration (Inscribed Solids)
A right circular cone is exactly fitted inside a cube in such a way that the edges of the base of the cone are touching the edges of one of the faces of the cube and the vertex is on the opposite face of the cube. If the volume of the cube is 343 cc, what approximately is the volume of the cone? A) 70 cc B) 80 cc C) 90 cc D) 60 cc
💡Correct Answer: Option C (90 cc)
Volume of cube = s³ = 343 cc => side s = 7 cm. For the cone inscribed in the cube: - Base diameter = side of cube = 7 cm => base radius r = 7/2 = 3.5 cm - Height of cone = side of cube = 7 cm. Volume of cone = (1/3)πr²h = (1/3) × (22/7) × (7/2)² × 7 = (1/3) × (22/7) × (49/4) × 7 = (22 × 49) / 12 = 1078 / 12 ≈ 89.83 cc ≈ 90 cc.
Q38
Basic MathematicsSimple & Compound Interest
The compound interest (compounding annually) on a certain sum at the rate of 8 percent per annum for two years is Rs. 6656. What would be the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate of interest for two years? A) Rs. 6224 B) Rs. 6400 C) Rs. 5600 D) Rs. 6336
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 6400)
Effective CI rate for 2 years at 8% p.a. = 8 + 8 + (8 × 8)/100 = 16.64%. Effective SI rate for 2 years at 8% p.a. = 2 × 8% = 16%. SI = (CI / 16.64) × 16 = (6656 / 16.64) × 16 = 400 × 16 = Rs. 6400.
Q39
Basic MathematicsMensuration (Cuboid Surface Area & Volume)
The length, breadth and height of a rectangular box are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 4, respectively, and the cost of covering it with a sheet of paper at the rate of Rs. 1.50 per square metre is Rs. 1,950. Find 50% of the volume of the box (in m³): A) 1500 B) 1750 C) 1800 D) 1600
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1500)
Total surface area = Total Cost / Rate = 1950 / 1.50 = 1300 m². Let length l = 3x, breadth b = 2x, height h = 4x. Total surface area = 2(lb + bh + hl) = 2(6x² + 8x² + 12x²) = 2(26x²) = 52x². 52x² = 1300 => x² = 1300 / 52 = 25 => x = 5 m. Dimensions: l = 15 m, b = 10 m, h = 20 m. Total volume = l × b × h = 15 × 10 × 20 = 3000 m³. 50% of the volume = 3000 / 2 = 1500 m³.
Q40
Basic MathematicsProbability
A dice is thrown once. Find the probability that 3 or greater than 3 turns up: A) 1/2 B) 1/3 C) 1/4 D) 2/3
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2/3)
Total possible outcomes on a fair six-sided die = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} (6 outcomes). Favourable outcomes (3 or greater than 3) = {3, 4, 5, 6} (4 outcomes). Probability = 4 / 6 = 2/3.
Q41
Mental Ability & ReasoningNumber Series
Complete the Number Series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ? A) 189 B) 191 C) 187 D) 193
💡Correct Answer: Option B (191)
The pattern is: multiply by 2 and add 1 (2n + 1): - 5 × 2 + 1 = 11 - 11 × 2 + 1 = 23 - 23 × 2 + 1 = 47 - 47 × 2 + 1 = 95 - 95 × 2 + 1 = 191. Hence, 191 is the next number.
Q42
Mental Ability & ReasoningNumber Series
Complete the Number Series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ? A) 46 B) 48 C) 49 D) 50
Complete the Letter Series: Z, X, U, Q, L, ? A) G B) F C) I D) J
💡Correct Answer: Option B (F)
Check alphabetical position shifts backwards with increasing step sizes (-2, -3, -4, -5, -6): - Z (26) - 2 = X (24) - X (24) - 3 = U (21) - U (21) - 4 = Q (17) - Q (17) - 5 = L (12) - L (12) - 6 = F (6). Hence, the next letter is F.
Q45
Mental Ability & ReasoningLetter Series
Complete the Letter Series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ? A) EV B) EU C) EW D) DV
💡Correct Answer: Option A (EV)
Each pair consists of consecutive letters from the beginning and their reverse opposite letters from the end: - A (1st) and Z (26th) [Sum = 27] - B (2nd) and Y (25th) [Sum = 27] - C (3rd) and X (24th) [Sum = 27] - D (4th) and W (23rd) [Sum = 27] - Next is E (5th) and V (22nd) [Sum = 27] => EV.
Q46
Mental Ability & ReasoningLetter Series (Alternating Series)
Complete the Letter Series: A, C, B, E, D, H, ? A) F B) G C) E D) I
💡Correct Answer: Option B (G)
This is an alternating (interleaved) series: - Odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th): A (1) -> B (2) [+1] -> D (4) [+2] -> G (7) [+3] - Even positions (2nd, 4th, 6th): C (3) -> E (5) [+2] -> H (8) [+3] The 7th term is obtained by adding +3 to D (position 4): 4 + 3 = 7 = G.
Q47
Mental Ability & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
If COMPUTER is coded as FRPSXWHU, how is SCIENCE coded? A) VFLHQFH B) VFNHQFH C) VFJHQFH D) UFLHQFH
If DOG is written as WLT, how is CAT written? A) XZG B) XZK C) XZL D) YZL
💡Correct Answer: Option A (XZG)
Each letter is coded by its opposite letter in the English alphabet (sum of positional values = 27): - D(4) <-> W(23) - O(15) <-> L(12) - G(7) <-> T(20) For CAT: - C(3) <-> X(24) - A(1) <-> Z(26) - T(20) <-> G(7) Result: XZG.
Q49
Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense Test
Ravi walks 15 m east, then 12 m north, then 15 m west, and finally 5 m south. In which direction is Ravi now with respect to his starting point? A) North B) North-West C) South D) North-East
💡Correct Answer: Option A (North)
Track Ravi's coordinates from origin (0, 0): 1. 15 m east -> (15, 0) 2. 12 m north -> (15, 12) 3. 15 m west -> (0, 12) 4. 5 m south -> (0, 7). Since his final coordinate is (0, 7), he is 7 m directly North of the starting point.
Q50
Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense (Angle Rotations)
A man faces south. He turns 90° clockwise, then 180° anticlockwise, and again 270° clockwise. Which direction is he facing now? A) North B) East C) South D) West
💡Correct Answer: Option A (North)
Net rotation: Clockwise turns = +90° + 270° = +360°. Anticlockwise turns = -180°. Net rotation = +360° - 180° = +180° (clockwise). Turning 180° from South points directly North. Hence, he faces North.
If A + B means A is the mother of B, A - B means A is the brother of B, A × B means A is the father of B, what does P - Q × R + S mean? A) P is maternal uncle of S B) P is paternal uncle of S C) P is father of S D) P is brother of S
💡Correct Answer: Option A (P is maternal uncle of S)
Decoding the expression P - Q × R + S: - R + S: R is the mother of S. - Q × R: Q is the father of R. - P - Q: P is the brother of Q. Here R is the mother of S, and P belongs to the maternal family lineage (brother of maternal grandfather Q). In exam blood relation problems, this branch represents the maternal relation, where P is the maternal grand-uncle / maternal uncle of S. Option A is the intended answer.
Q52
Mental Ability & ReasoningBlood Relations
Introducing a woman, Raj said, "She is the wife of the only son of my mother-in-law." How is the woman related to Raj? A) Sister B) Wife C) Sister-in-law D) Cousin
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sister-in-law)
Break down the statement: - "my mother-in-law": Raj's wife's mother. - "the only son of my mother-in-law": Raj's wife's brother (Raj's brother-in-law/sala). - "wife of the only son of my mother-in-law": Wife of Raj's brother-in-law = Raj's sister-in-law (sarhaj/bhabhi). Hence, the woman is Raj's sister-in-law.
Q53
Mental Ability & ReasoningCause and Effect / Critical Reasoning
Consider the following statement: Statement: "There has been a sharp increase in online education platforms." Possible Causes: I. Affordable internet availability II. Increased demand for flexible learning Choose the correct option: A) Only I B) Only II C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both factors directly cause and fuel the expansion of online education platforms: widespread, cheap high-speed internet provides the necessary infrastructure (Cause I), and learner demand for self-paced, flexible scheduling provides the market demand (Cause II). Hence, Both I and II are valid causes.
Q54
Mental Ability & ReasoningSyllogism
Consider the following statement and conclusion: Statement: All teachers are educated. Conclusion: Some educated people are teachers. A) True B) False C) Cannot be determined D) Invalid
💡Correct Answer: Option A (True)
In formal logic, the universal affirmative proposition 'All A are B' (A-type) immediately converts by limitation to the particular affirmative 'Some B are A' (I-type). If all teachers are educated, it necessarily follows that some educated people are teachers. Hence, True.
Q55
Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance (Average Speed)
A car covers a distance at 50 km/h and returns at 40 km/h. What is the average speed for the whole journey? A) 44.4 km/h B) 46.4 km/h C) 46.8 km/h D) 48.6 km/h
💡Correct Answer: Option A (44.4 km/h)
When equal distances are covered at speeds x and y, the average speed is given by the harmonic mean: Average Speed = (2xy) / (x + y) = (2 × 50 × 40) / (50 + 40) = 4000 / 90 = 44.44 km/h ≈ 44.4 km/h.
Q56
Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance
If a man increases his speed by 25%, he takes 1 hour less to cover a certain distance. What was the original time? A) 3 hours B) 4 hours C) 5 hours D) 6 hours
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5 hours)
Let original speed = s, original time = t. New speed = s × (1 + 0.25) = (5/4)s. Since distance is constant, speed and time are inversely proportional: New time = (4/5)t. Time saved = t - (4/5)t = (1/5)t. Given that (1/5)t = 1 hour => t = 5 hours.
Q57
Basic MathematicsProblems on Trains
Two trains of lengths 120 m and 180 m are moving in opposite directions at 54 km/h and 72 km/h respectively. How long will they take to cross each other? A) 12 sec B) 9 sec C) 15 sec D) 20 sec
💡Correct Answer: Option B (9 sec)
Total distance to be covered = Sum of lengths = 120 m + 180 m = 300 m. Relative speed in opposite directions = 54 + 72 = 126 km/h. Convert to m/s: 126 × (5/18) = 7 × 5 = 35 m/s. Time taken = Distance / Relative Speed = 300 / 35 = 60 / 7 ≈ 8.57 seconds ≈ 9 seconds.
Q58
Mental Ability & ReasoningSyllogism
Consider the following statements and conclusion: Statements: All fruits are sweet. All apples are fruits. Conclusion: All apples are sweet. A) True B) False C) Cannot be determined D) Invalid
💡Correct Answer: Option A (True)
From the premises: All apples are fruits, and All fruits are sweet. By the transitive law of syllogisms (Barbara mood AAA-1), 'All apples are sweet' is a direct, valid deduction. Hence, True.
Q59
Mental Ability & ReasoningAssertion and Reason
Assertion (A) and Reason (R): Assertion (A): All squares are rectangles. Reason (R): All rectangles have four right angles. Choose the correct option: A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A C) A is true but R is false D) A is false but R is true
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A)
A rectangle is geometrically defined as a quadrilateral with four right angles. Because every square possesses four right angles (and additionally equal sides), it satisfies the definition of a rectangle. Hence, both A and R are true and R correctly explains A.
Q60
Mental Ability & ReasoningAssertion and Reason
Assertion (A) and Reason (R): Assertion (A): No cat is a dog. Reason (R): Some dogs are pets. Choose the correct option: A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A C) A is true but R is false D) A is false but R is true
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A)
Assertion A is true (cats and dogs are distinct biological species). Reason R is also factually true (many dogs are pets). However, being a pet has nothing to do with why a cat is not a dog. Thus, R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q61
General Knowledge & Current AffairsNuclear Energy Policy & Legislation
Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear energy policy and the SHANTI Act 2025: (I) The SHANTI Act, 2025, allows private sector participation in nuclear power generation. (II) India has set a target of achieving 100 GW of installed nuclear power capacity by the year 2030. (III) The SHANTI Act, 2025 retains unlimited supplier liability for nuclear damage to ensure enhanced accountability. Which of the above statements are correct? A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
- Statement I is correct: Legislative reforms and the SHANTI Act facilitate private sector and domestic vendor investment in small modular reactors (SMRs) and nuclear energy generation. - Statement II is incorrect: India's 100 GW nuclear capacity target is set for 2047 (the Viksit Bharat centenary year), not 2030. - Statement III is incorrect: The reform clarifies and caps supplier liability to facilitate international and private vendor participation. Hence, I only is correct.
Q62
General Knowledge & Current AffairsDefence & Joint Military Exercises
Match List-I (Military Exercises) with List-II (Partner Country): Military Exercises: i. Yudh Abhyaas ii. Zapad iii. Mitra-Shakti iv. Bright Star
Partner Country: a. USA b. Egypt c. Sri Lanka d. Russia
Choose the correct match: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d B) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b C) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c D) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b)
Matching joint military exercises: - Yudh Abhyas: Bilateral army exercise between India and the USA (i -> a). - Zapad: Multilateral theatre-level military exercise hosted by Russia (ii -> d). - Mitra Shakti: Joint army exercise between India and Sri Lanka (iii -> c). - Bright Star: Multinational joint exercise hosted by Egypt at Cairo West Air Base (iv -> b). Match: i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b.
Q63
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations (United Nations)
Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council: I. As per Article 23, the Security Council shall consist of fifteen Members of the United Nations. II. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for a term of five years. III. A retiring non-permanent member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and III only)
- Statement I is correct: Under Article 23(1) of the UN Charter, the Security Council consists of 15 members (5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members). - Statement II is incorrect: Non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of TWO years, not five years. - Statement III is correct: Article 23(2) explicitly provides that 'a retiring member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election'. Therefore, statements I and III only are correct.
Q64
General Knowledge & Current AffairsScience & Technology (Space Missions)
Consider the following statements about India's Space mission achievements: I. The Axiom Mission 4 has enabled human spaceflight for India, Poland, and Hungary, with each nation's first government-sponsored flight in more than 40 years. II. SpaDeX Mission made India the first country in the world to successfully carry out a satellite docking process in Low Earth Orbit (LEO). Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I Nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
- Statement I is correct: Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) to the ISS includes ISRO astronaut Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla representing India alongside astronauts from Poland and Hungary, marking the first government-backed spaceflights for all three nations in over 40 years. - Statement II is incorrect: SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) made India the fourth nation (after USA, Russia, and China) to demonstrate autonomous space docking technology, not the first in the world. Hence, I only is correct.
Q65
General Knowledge & Current AffairsNuclear Energy & Science
In India's three-stage nuclear program, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is considered important because: I. it is designed to use uranium-238 to breed plutonium in a sodium-cooled fast reactor design. II. Thorium-232, though not fissile, is proposed to be used as a blanket material. III. By transmutation, Thorium will create fissile Uranium-233, which will be used as fuel in the third stage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
All three statements accurately define Stage II (Fast Breeder Reactor) of Homi Bhabha's three-stage nuclear power plan: - The PFBR at Kalpakkam uses mixed plutonium-uranium oxide (MOX) fuel in a liquid sodium coolant to breed more fissile plutonium from U-238. - Thorium-232 blankets are introduced into the reactor core. - Through neutron absorption, fertile Th-232 transmutes into fissile Uranium-233, laying the indispensable foundation for Stage III (Thorium reactors). Therefore, all three statements I, II, and III are correct.
Q66
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Scientific Projects (ITER)
ITER is considered important for India and the world because: I. it demonstrates sustainable, clean fusion energy for the future. II. It allows India to participate in cutting-edge nuclear fusion research. III. It provides immediate commercial electricity to reduce fossil fuel dependency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
- Statements I and II are correct: ITER (located in Cadarache, France) is a 35-nation collaboration demonstrating the scientific and technological feasibility of magnetic confinement nuclear fusion power, in which India is an equal contributing member. - Statement III is incorrect: ITER is purely an experimental research facility designed to achieve net thermal power (Q ≥ 10), not a commercial power plant providing electricity to the public grid. Hence, I and II only are correct.
Q67
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Awards & Honours
Identify the correct statements about the Nobel Peace Prize, 2025: I. It was awarded to Maria Corina Machado of Venezuela. II. According to the Norwegian Nobel Committee, it can be transferred by the recipient to any other person. Which of the following statements is/are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II)
- Statement I is incorrect: While Venezuelan opposition leader Maria Corina Machado was awarded the Václav Havel Human Rights Prize in 2024 and nominated for the Nobel Peace Prize, she was not the recipient (Nihon Hidankyo was awarded the 2024 Nobel Peace Prize). - Statement II is incorrect: Under the statutes of the Nobel Foundation, Nobel Prizes are strictly personal distinctions and cannot be reassigned or transferred by recipients to any third party. Therefore, Neither I nor II is correct.
Q68
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Economy & Foreign Trade
Consider the following statements: I. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India accounts for more than 5% of global merchandise exports. II. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India's service imports were greater than its exports. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II)
- Statement I is incorrect: India's share in global merchandise exports stands at approximately 1.8% to 2.2% (well below 5%). - Statement II is incorrect: India consistently runs a substantial trade surplus in services, meaning service exports are significantly higher than service imports. Therefore, Neither I nor II is correct.
Q69
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (National Income & Development)
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): A rise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards. Reason (R): Income levels are fundamental metrics of Economic development. Which of the statements is/are correct: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A C) A is true, R is false D) A is false, R is true
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, R is true)
- Assertion A is false: The word 'always' invalidates it. Per capita GNP is an aggregate average and does not account for income inequality, inflation, environmental degradation, or access to healthcare and education. A rise in per capita GNP concentrated among the wealthy does not improve living standards for the general populace. - Reason R is true: National income and per capita income are standard fundamental baseline metrics used in economic development analysis. Hence, A is false, R is true.
Q70
General ScienceThermal Physics & Physical Geography
Two places, X (terrestrial) and Y (marine), are at the same latitude. During summer, Place X records 42°C and Place Y records 32°C. During winter, Place X records 0°C and Place Y records 10°C. What is the most plausible explanation? A) Variation in the altitudes of Place X and Y B) Land has a higher specific heat capacity than oceans C) Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans D) Variation in thermal insulation at places X and Y
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans)
Water has a very high specific heat capacity (~4184 J/kg·K) compared to dry soil and rock (~800 J/kg·K). Consequently, land heats up much faster and to higher temperatures in summer, and cools down much more rapidly and severely in winter (continentality effect), whereas maritime locations experience moderating marine influences.
Q71
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAgriculture & Government Schemes
Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses aims to make India self-sufficient in pulses by 2030–31. Statement II: The mission seeks to reduce import dependence, boost domestic production of pulses and sustainably improve farmers' incomes. Which of the statements is/are correct? A) Statement I and Statement II are correct B) Statement I and Statement II are incorrect C) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect D) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statement I and Statement II are correct)
Both statements are correct: - Statement I is correct: Approved under the Union Budget and implemented from FY 2025-26 to FY 2030-31 with a target of 350 lakh tonnes of domestic pulses production by 2030-31. - Statement II is correct: The central mission objective is eliminating dependency on foreign pulses imports (Tur, Urad, Masoor) through guaranteed MSP procurement, seed hubs, and boosting farmer prosperity.
Q72
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Geography (Major Ports of India)
Match the following Ports with their associated special features: Ports: i. Kamarajar Port ii. JNPT Port iii. Paradip Port iv. Vizhinjam Port
Special Features: a. First corporatised major port b. First deep-water transhipment hub c. India's first landlord-model port d. Top cargo-handling major port
Choose the correct option: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b C) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b)
- Kamarajar Port (Ennore, Tamil Nadu): India's first corporatised major port registered as a public company (i -> a). - JNPT (Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Navi Mumbai): India's first 100% landlord major port where all berths are operated on PPP (ii -> c). - Paradip Port (Odisha): Surpassed Deendayal Port to become India's top cargo handling major port in FY24 (iii -> d). - Vizhinjam Port (Kerala): India's first dedicated international deep-water transhipment container port (iv -> b). Match: i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b.
Q73
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History (Anglo-Sikh Wars)
Arrange the following battles of the First Anglo-Sikh War in chronological order: I. Battle of Mudki II. Battle of Ferozeshah III. Battle of Aliwal IV. Battle of Sobraon Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III - IV B) I - III - II - IV C) II - I - III - IV D) II - III - I - IV
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I - II - III - IV)
Chronological order of the First Anglo-Sikh War (1845–1846): 1. Battle of Mudki: 18 December 1845 (I) 2. Battle of Ferozeshah: 21–22 December 1845 (II) 3. Battle of Aliwal: 28 January 1846 (III) 4. Battle of Sobraon: 10 February 1846 (decisive British victory ending the war) (IV). Correct sequence: I - II - III - IV.
Q74
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCulture & Heritage of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following statements about Rauf is/are correct? I. Rauf is a traditional folk dance performed on typical folk songs in the Kashmir dialect. II. It is typically a solo performance by a woman only. III. Dancers wear traditional Kashmiri attire, including pherans (long, flowing gowns) and ornate jewelry. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and III only)
- Statement I is correct: Rauf is Kashmir's most celebrated traditional celebratory dance, performed during Eid and spring festivals (Navreh). - Statement II is incorrect: Rauf is never a solo performance; it is performed by two facing rows of women who interlink arms and glide back and forth in rhythmic harmony. - Statement III is correct: Women wear traditional embroidered Kashmiri pherans, kasaba headgear, and ornate silver jewelry. Hence, statements I and III are correct.
Q75
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography & Wetlands of J&K (Ramsar Sites)
How many of the following pairs are correct regarding Wetlands and their major associated Districts in J&K UT? - Hokersar wetland : Srinagar district - Mansar lake : Samba district - Wular lake : Bandipora district - Hygam wetland : Baramulla district Choose the correct option: A) One pair only B) Two pairs only C) Three pairs only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All 4 pairs are correctly matched: - Hokersar Wetland: Ramsar site located in Srinagar/Budgam. - Mansar Lake: Ramsar site in Samba District, Jammu division. - Wular Lake: Asia's largest freshwater lake and Ramsar site in Bandipora District. - Hygam Wetland: Designated Ramsar site in Baramulla District. Hence, All of the above are correct.
Q76
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Initiatives in J&K (ODOP)
Match the following Districts of J&K with their designated Products under One District One Product (ODOP): Districts: i. Baramulla ii. Udhampur iii. Samba iv. Ramban
Products under ODOP: a. Pickles b. Apples c. Honey d. Mushroom products
Choose the correct option: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d B) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c D) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
Under the One District One Product (ODOP) initiative in Jammu & Kashmir: - Baramulla: Apple (i -> b) - Udhampur: Pickles / Kud Kaladi (ii -> a) - Samba: Mushroom / Mushroom products (iii -> d) - Ramban: Honey / Sulai Honey (iv -> c). Matching: i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q77
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Schemes of J&K UT (Mission Youth)
Identify the correct statements about the MUMKIN scheme operational in J&K UT: I. "Mumkin - Livelihood Generation Scheme" is an initiative specifically aimed at empowering its young population. II. It provides up to Rs. 80,000 subsidy or 10% of the on-road price, whichever is lower, for unemployed youth to purchase small commercial vehicles. III. The age of the applicant should be between 18 to 35 years. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
All three statements are correct regarding the Mumkin scheme under Mission Youth J&K: - Statement I is correct: Mumkin is a flagship livelihood programme designed for unemployed youth in J&K. - Statement II is correct: The government provides 10% (up to Rs. 80,000) of on-road cost, and the vehicle manufacturer matches with another 10% upfront discount. - Statement III is correct: Eligibility criteria requires the candidate to be an unemployed domicile of J&K aged between 18 and 35 years. Therefore, I, II and III are all correct.
Q78
General Knowledge & Current AffairsBiodiversity & Wildlife of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following species in the J&K region have Endangered / Threatened status as per the IUCN Red Book? I. Hangul II. Snow Leopard III. Ibex IV. Himalayan Tahr V. Markhor VI. Cheer Pheasant Choose the correct option: A) I, III, IV and V only B) II, IV, V and VI only C) II, III, IV and VI only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I, III, IV and V only)
In regional J&K biodiversity surveys and departmental questions, prominent ungulates and native mountain species such as Hangul (Kashmir Stag - Critically Endangered), Markhor (Capra falconeri - Near Threatened/Endangered), Himalayan Tahr, and Siberian Ibex are categorized together as key conservation species in the valley's sanctuaries. Option A is the standard answer.
Q79
General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act, 2019
Which of the following was NOT a provision under the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019? A) The J&K High Court became the common high court for both UTs. B) Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only. C) The UT of J&K will have its own legislative assembly of 107-114 members. D) The act provides that the administration of Jammu and Kashmir will be as per Article 239A of the Indian Constitution.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only.)
Option B was NOT a provision of the Act. High Court judges in India are appointed by the President of India under Article 217 of the Constitution following the Supreme Court collegium process in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Lieutenant Governor, not selected 'by the Union Government only'. All other options (A, C, D) are genuine sections of the 2019 Act.
Q80
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers and Drainage System of J&K
Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Jhelum? I. Niki Tawi II. Veshaw river III. Brengi river IV. Jajhar V. Rambiara river Choose the correct option: A) I, II and III only B) II, III and IV only C) II, III and V only D) II, III, IV and V only
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II, III and V only)
- Veshaw River (originating from Kousarnag Lake), Brengi River (originating from Sinthan), and Rambiara River (originating from Pir Panjal near Pir Ki Gali) are major tributaries that feed the Jhelum River in Kashmir. - Niki Tawi and Jajhar stream (Jhajjar Kotli) flow in the Jammu region and are part of the Tawi/Chenab river basin. Therefore, tributaries of Jhelum are II, III and V only.
Q81
Basic SciencePhysics - Gravitation
If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force becomes: A) Double B) Four times C) Half D) One-fourth
💡Correct Answer: Option D (One-fourth)
According to Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation, the force between two masses separated by distance r is inversely proportional to the square of the distance (F ∝ 1/r²). When the distance is doubled (r' = 2r), the gravitational force becomes F' = F / (2)² = F / 4, which is one-fourth of the initial force.
Q82
Basic ScienceChemistry - Organic Acids
Match the following Organic Acids with their corresponding sources: ACIDS: i. Oxalic acid ii. Acetic acid iii. Ascorbic acid iv. Methanoic acid v. Malic acid
SOURCES: a. Dark chocolate b. Ant sting c. Apples d. Guava, amla e. Vinegar
Choose the correct option: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e B) i-e, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a, v-b C) i-b, ii-a, iii-e, iv-c, v-d D) i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-c
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-c)
Matching natural organic acids with their natural sources: - Oxalic acid (i) -> Dark chocolate / spinach (a) - Acetic acid (ii) -> Vinegar (e) - Ascorbic acid / Vitamin C (iii) -> Guava, amla (d) - Methanoic acid / Formic acid (iv) -> Ant sting (b) - Malic acid (v) -> Apples (c) Hence, the correct sequence is i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-c.
Q83
Basic SciencePhysics - Sources of Energy
Identify the correct source of energy based on the following statements: I. It is a non-renewable but low-carbon energy source. II. It is a reliable source of energy but poses challenges related to radioactive waste disposal and safety concerns. III. A huge amount of energy is released through the fission process. A) Compressed Natural Gas B) Petroleum Products C) Fossil Fuels D) Nuclear Fuels
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Nuclear Fuels)
Nuclear Fuels (such as Uranium-235, Plutonium-239) rely on mined finite mineral resources (non-renewable), release virtually no operational carbon emissions during electricity generation (low-carbon), pose radioactive waste containment challenges, and generate massive energy through controlled nuclear fission reactions.
Q84
Basic SciencePhysics - Ocean Energy
Which of the following statements is NOT related to Ocean Energy? A) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and cold ocean water to drive a turbine B) Tidal barrage systems are dam-like structures across ocean inlets that use tidal flow through turbines during high and low tides to generate electricity. C) Tidal stream systems use underwater turbines placed in moving tidal currents to convert the kinetic energy of flowing water into electricity. D) Wave energy systems convert the mechanical motion of ocean waves into electrical energy.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and cold ocean water to drive a turbine)
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) utilizes the temperature difference between warm ocean SURFACE WATER and cold DEEP OCEAN WATER (not air above the sea) to vaporize a working fluid with low boiling point and drive a turbine generator. Thus statement A is false and NOT related to how ocean energy works.
Q85
Basic ScienceChemistry - Non-metals
Which of the following non-metals exists in the liquid state at room temperature? A) Sulphur B) Bromine C) Phosphorus D) Iodine
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bromine)
Bromine (Br, atomic number 35) is the only non-metal on the periodic table that is in the liquid state at standard room temperature and pressure. It is a dense, reddish-brown volatile liquid. (Mercury is the only liquid metal).
Q86
Basic ScienceChemistry - Properties of Metals
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding metals? I. Form basic oxides II. Good reducing agents III. High electronegativity IV. High ionization energy Choose the correct option: A) Only I, II B) Only III and IV C) Only I, II and IV D) Only II, III and IV
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I, II)
Metals readily lose valence electrons (low ionization energy) and are electropositive (low electronegativity). Because they oxidize easily, they are strong reducing agents. Their oxides react with water or acids to form alkaline hydroxides/salts, making them basic oxides. Non-metals, conversely, have high electronegativity and high ionization energies. Thus, only statements I and II are correct.
Q87
Basic ScienceChemistry - Chemical Reactions of Metals
Which gas is produced when water reacts with calcium? A) Hydrogen B) Oxygen C) Carbon dioxide D) Nitrogen
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hydrogen)
Calcium reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas: Ca + 2H2O -> Ca(OH)2 + H2 (g). The reaction is exothermic and the bubbles of hydrogen gas produced stick to the calcium pieces, causing them to float.
Q88
Basic ScienceChemistry - Reactivity Series
What happens when magnesium sulphate solution is added to copper metal? A) Copper displaces magnesium, forming copper sulphate B) Magnesium displaces copper, forming magnesium sulphate C) Hydrogen gas is evolved D) No reaction occurs
💡Correct Answer: Option D (No reaction occurs)
In the chemical reactivity series, magnesium is far more reactive than copper (Mg > Cu). A less reactive metal cannot displace a more reactive metal from its salt solution. Therefore, copper cannot displace magnesium from magnesium sulphate (MgSO4), and no reaction occurs.
Q89
Basic ScienceChemistry - Reactivity Series
Arrange the following metals in decreasing order of reactivity: I. Gold II. Calcium III. Silver IV. Cobalt V. Magnesium VI. Nickel VII. Platinum VIII. Lithium Choose the correct option: A) I < II < III < IV < V < VI < VII < VIII B) VIII < II < V < IV < VI < III < VII < I C) VIII < V < II < IV < VI < I < III < VII D) VIII < VII < III < IV < VI < V < II < I
💡Correct Answer: Option B (VIII < II < V < IV < VI < III < VII < I)
The correct decreasing order of chemical reactivity among these metals is: Lithium (VIII) > Calcium (II) > Magnesium (V) > Cobalt (IV) > Nickel (VI) > Silver (III) > Platinum (VII) > Gold (I). In the exam options, this sequence is listed in Option B.
Q90
Basic ScienceChemistry - Ores and Metallurgy
Which of the following pairs is correct with respect to ores and the metals present in these ores? A) Sulphate ores - Iron (Iron pyrites, FeS2) B) Oxide ores - Zinc (Hemimorphite, 2ZnO·SiO2·H2O) C) Halide ores - Silver (Horn silver, AgCl) D) Silicate ores - Lead (Anglesite, PbSO4)
Horn silver (cerargyrite, AgCl) is a natural silver halide (chloride) mineral ore. Iron pyrites (FeS2) is a sulphide ore (not sulphate). Hemimorphite is a silicate ore (not oxide). Anglesite (PbSO4) is a sulphate ore (not silicate). Thus, C is the correct pair.
Q91
Basic ScienceChemistry - Extraction of Metals
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the extraction of metals in accordance with the activity series? I. Highly reactive metals (like sodium and potassium) are extracted by electrolysis of their molten compounds. II. Moderately reactive metals (zinc, iron, lead, etc.) are extracted by reduction using carbon or carbon monoxide. III. Less reactive metals (copper, mercury) can be obtained simply by heating ores. Choose the correct option: A) Only II B) Only I and III C) Only II and III D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All three principles are standard metallurgical extraction methods: 1. Highly reactive metals (Na, K, Ca, Al) have high chemical affinity for oxygen and cannot be reduced by carbon; they are extracted via molten salt electrolysis. 2. Middle-reactivity metals (Zn, Fe, Pb) are reduced from their oxides using carbon or carbon monoxide. 3. Low-reactivity metals (Hg, Cu) are extracted simply by heating their sulphide ores in air (e.g., cinnabar HgS -> Hg, copper glance Cu2S -> Cu).
Q92
Basic ScienceBiology - Nutrition
Which term best describes the mode of nutrition in both yeast and mushrooms? A) Saprophytic B) Autotrophic C) Parasitic D) Holozoic
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saprophytic)
Both yeast and mushrooms belong to Kingdom Fungi. They are saprophytes (saprotrophs) that obtain nutrition by absorbing dissolved organic compounds from decaying organic matter.
Q93
Basic ScienceBiology - Plant Physiology
Which plant structures function as gateways for gas exchange? A) Lenticels B) Stomata C) Xylem D) Phloem
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stomata)
Stomata are specialized microscopic pore complexes located primarily on the epidermis of plant leaves and green stems. Regulated by guard cells, they function as the main gateways for photosynthetic and respiratory gaseous exchange (CO2 and O2) as well as transpiration.
Q94
Basic ScienceBiology - Excretory System
Which of the following terms is NOT related to the structural and functional unit of the kidney? A) Nephrons B) Bowman's capsule C) Glottis D) Glomerulus
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Glottis)
The glottis is part of the human respiratory system (the opening between the vocal cords in the larynx). Nephrons, Bowman's capsule, and the glomerulus are all essential components of the renal excretory and filtration system in kidneys.
Q95
Basic ScienceBiology - Environment & Ecology
Classify the following substances as biodegradable and non-biodegradable: A) Biodegradable: Animal bones, Leather ; Non-Biodegradable: DDT, Mercury, Lead, Silver foils B) Biodegradable: DDT, Animal bones, Leather ; Non-Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead, Silver foils C) Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead ; Non-Biodegradable: DDT, Silver foils, Leather D) Biodegradable: DDT, Silver foils, Animal bones; Non-Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead, Leather
Biodegradable substances can be broken down naturally by biological microorganisms (animal bones, leather). Non-biodegradable substances cannot be degraded biologically and persist indefinitely in nature (DDT synthetic pesticide, toxic heavy metals like Mercury and Lead, and metallic Silver foils).
Q96
Basic ScienceBiology - Food Chain & Ecology
The correct sequence in an aquatic food chain is: A) Algae -> Crab -> Sea urchins -> Squid -> Spotted dolphin -> Tiger shark B) Sea urchins -> Algae -> Crab -> Squid -> Tiger shark -> Spotted dolphin C) Algae -> Sea urchins -> Crab -> Squid -> Spotted dolphin -> Tiger shark D) Tiger shark -> Spotted dolphin -> Squid -> Crab -> Sea urchins -> Algae
In marine ecosystems, energy flows from primary producers to apex predators: Algae (producer) -> Sea urchins (herbivore grazer) -> Crab (carnivore/scavenger) -> Squid (cephalopod predator) -> Spotted dolphin (marine mammal) -> Tiger shark (apex apex predator).
Q97
Basic ScienceBiology - Environmental Issues
Which of the following ozone-depleting substances are correctly matched with their primary sources? A) Halons — Soil fumigant B) Methyl bromide — Degreasing solvent C) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) — Fire extinguishers D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) — Refrigerants and aerosol propellants
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) — Refrigerants and aerosol propellants)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) were widely manufactured as refrigerants in cooling appliances and propellants in aerosol spray cans. Halons are fire extinguishing agents, and methyl bromide is an agricultural soil fumigant. Thus D is the correctly matched pair.
Q98
Basic ScienceBiology - Genetics & Heredity
In Mendel's pea plant experiments, which of the following is recessive? A) The trait that appears in all F1 hybrids B) The trait that hides in F1, but reappears in F2 C) The trait that increases with each generation D) The trait that only appears in the parental generation
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The trait that hides in F1, but reappears in F2)
In Gregor Mendel's genetic crosses, a recessive trait is masked/suppressed by the dominant allele in the heterozygous F1 generation, but reappears unchanged in the F2 generation in a 3:1 ratio.
Q99
Basic ScienceBiology - Reproduction
Match the categories of asexual reproduction in plants with their correct examples: i. Vegetative propagation ii. Fragmentation iii. Budding iv. Spore formation
a. Mosses and liverworts b. Begonia and Bryophyllum c. Yeast and Hydra d. Clostridium and Bacillus
Choose the correct option: A) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d B) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b D) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d)
Asexual reproduction methods matching: - Vegetative propagation (i) -> Begonia and Bryophyllum (leaf plantlets) (b) - Fragmentation (ii) -> Mosses and liverworts (a) - Budding (iii) -> Yeast and Hydra (c) - Spore formation (iv) -> Clostridium and Bacillus (bacterial endospores) (d) Hence, i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d is the correct option.
Q100
Basic ScienceBiology - Animal Diversity
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Vertebrates? I. These are a subphylum of chordates that are characterized by the presence of a vertebral column or backbone. II. They show bilateral symmetry. III. It includes animals such as fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals.
Choose the correct option: A) Only I B) Only I and II C) Only I and III D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All three statements are true regarding vertebrates: they possess an articulated vertebral column protecting the spinal cord, exhibit bilateral symmetry, and comprise cyclostomes, fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.
In a computer laboratory, a system boots normally and successfully compiles a program, but the program does not execute and no error message is displayed. The most likely cause is: A) Faulty keyboard or mouse B) Insufficient RAM C) Disconnected network cable D) Corrupted printer driver
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Insufficient RAM)
Compilation generates the executable file on disk. When execution begins, the OS loader must allocate memory and map the binary into physical RAM. If RAM is completely exhausted or unavailable to allocate the process, execution cannot proceed. Peripheral devices like keyboards, printers, or network cables do not affect local CPU execution.
Which of the following statements correctly describes a tactile display (also known as a refreshable braille display)? A) It is an electro-mechanical device that uses round-tipped pins to represent Braille characters by raising them through holes in a flat surface. B) It is a specialized monitor that uses haptic vibrations across a glass screen to simulate the texture of printed text. C) It is a peripheral device that converts text from a computer screen into high-speed audio for the visually impaired. D) It is a static hardware interface where Braille characters are permanently engraved into a metal plate for reading.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is an electro-mechanical device that uses round-tipped pins to represent Braille characters by raising them through holes in a flat surface.)
A refreshable Braille display (tactile display) is an electromechanical device consisting of an array of round-tipped pins that are dynamically pushed up and down through holes on a flat surface to represent Braille characters corresponding to text on a screen.
Q103
Basic Computer ApplicationsOperating System Architecture
Which statement is correct regarding the interaction between computer hardware and system software? A) System software is hardware-independent because it interacts with hardware only via high-level languages. B) Firmware is classified as application software since it is stored in non-volatile memory and executes user-level tasks. C) An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software by managing resources and providing hardware abstraction. D) Installing application software can directly modify CPU microarchitecture without involving system software.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software by managing resources and providing hardware abstraction.)
An operating system (system software) acts as an intermediary between physical hardware components and application software, managing system resources (CPU, RAM, storage, I/O) and providing uniform hardware abstraction layers.
Q104
Basic Computer ApplicationsInput and Output Devices
Which of the following statements about input and output devices is MOST accurate? A) A capacitive touchscreen is strictly an output device because it displays images, and the touch functionality is handled by the operating system, not the hardware. B) Optical Character Recognition (OCR) scanners are purely input devices since they convert physical text into digital form, and cannot provide feedback or output to the user. C) A common digitizer tablet with a stylus is both an input and output device because it can detect pressure and movement and can also display feedback to the user through a connected screen D) Braille displays are output devices because they allow visually impaired users to sense the display with haptic vibrations.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Optical Character Recognition (OCR) scanners are purely input devices since they convert physical text into digital form, and cannot provide feedback or output to the user.)
OCR scanners are dedicated input devices designed strictly to convert optical images of printed/written text into machine-readable digital data for computer processing, without providing output mechanisms back to the user.
Q105
Basic Computer ApplicationsHardware Diagnostics & POST
A school computer lab has 20 identical computers. Recently, several systems started showing some issue: the computer powers on (fans spin and lights turn on), but nothing appears on the monitor and no startup sound is heard. The monitors and cables have been tested and are working fine. A technician swaps the operating system drive from a working computer into one of the faulty systems, but the problem still persists. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue? A) The operating system is corrupted and needs to be reinstalled B) The graphics driver is outdated and incompatible with the monitor C) A hardware failure in a core internal component D) The monitor resolution settings are unsupported by the operating system.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A hardware failure in a core internal component)
Because fans and LEDs turn on but there is no display output, no BIOS splash, no POST beep, and swapping working storage drives has no effect, the failure occurs during the pre-boot hardware phase (POST failure), pointing directly to a core internal hardware component fault (such as RAM, motherboard, CPU, or power regulation rail).
A student creates the following VBA script in MS Access and attaches it to the "On Click" event of a button on a form:
```vba Private Sub CommandButton1_Click() Dim rs As DAO.Recordset Set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("Students")
rs.MoveFirst Do While Not rs.EOF If rs!Marks < 40 Then rs.Edit rs!Result = "Fail" rs.Update Else rs.Edit rs!Result = "Pass" rs.Update End If rs.MoveNext Loop
rs.Close End Sub ```
What does this script do? A) It filters and displays only students who scored below 40 marks in the form B) It automatically updates every record in the students table C) It deletes all records of students who scored below 40 marks D) It creates a new table that stores the result (Pass/Fail) separately from the Students table
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It automatically updates every record in the students table)
The code opens the 'Students' table as a recordset, iterates from the first record until the end (Do While Not rs.EOF), and evaluates whether Marks < 40 to update Result to 'Fail' or 'Pass'. Thus, it iterates through and updates every record in the Students table.
Q107
Basic Computer ApplicationsMS Word - Section Breaks & Page Numbering
Anaya is making a long report in MS Word. She wants pages 1–3 to use Roman numerals (i, ii, iii) and the rest to start from 1, 2, 3.... She does not know how to set different page numbering styles in one document. What should she do? A) Use Mixed Numbering from the Insert tab B) Add a section break and format page numbers separately C) Use the Pagination Wizard from the Layout tab and assign custom numbering templates D) Change the numbering style from the Font settings
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Add a section break and format page numbers separately)
In Microsoft Word, formatting different page number formats (e.g., Roman numerals followed by Arabic numerals starting at 1) requires inserting a Section Break (Next Page) between the sections and unlinking headers/footers to format page numbers independently in each section.
Q108
Basic Computer ApplicationsNetworking & Internet - Email Services
Riya works in a small office where all computers are connected through a LAN using Ethernet cables, but the network is not connected to any ISP or the Internet. She tries to send an email to her boss using Gmail. Can Riya send the email? A) Yes, because Gmail can temporarily store emails in the LAN cache and sync later B) No, because Gmail requires a Wi-Fi network to operate C) Yes, because Ethernet supports internal cloud routing for web apps D) No, because Gmail needs Internet access to contact its remote servers
💡Correct Answer: Option D (No, because Gmail needs Internet access to contact its remote servers)
Gmail is a cloud-based webmail service hosted on remote Google servers across the Internet. A local area network (LAN) provides only internal connectivity between local devices. Without an active ISP/Internet connection, the computer cannot route traffic or communicate with Google's remote mail servers.
While sending an email with a large attachment, Aarav notices that the email client automatically uploads the file and shares it as a link instead of attaching it directly. Which Internet feature makes this possible? A) Cloud storage integration B) SMTP compression C) Dynamic attachment routing D) Internet caching protocol
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cloud storage integration)
Modern email clients integrate with cloud storage services (e.g., Google Drive in Gmail, Microsoft OneDrive in Outlook). When an attachment exceeds SMTP message size limits (typically 25 MB), the client automatically uploads the file to the user's cloud drive and embeds a shareable access link into the email.
Match the terms (Column-A) with their most accurate descriptions (Column-B):
Column-A: i. Cache Memory ii. Register iii. Interpreter iv. Compiler
Column-B: a. Translates entire programs before execution b. Named memory locations built in processor c. Executes instructions one line at a time without separate object code d. Small storage location inside CPU for immediate operations
Choose the correct option: A) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c B) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b D) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a)
Term mappings: - Cache memory (i) -> High-speed memory built into processor (b) - Register (ii) -> Small storage location inside CPU for immediate operations (d) - Interpreter (iii) -> Executes instructions one line at a time without generating separate object code (c) - Compiler (iv) -> Translates entire programs before execution (a) Hence, the correct pairing is i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a.
A digital artist wants to create detailed and beautiful digital drawings on his computer. He finds it difficult to draw accurately using only a mouse. Which device would help him draw naturally and precisely on the computer? A) Graphics tablet B) Digital stroke enhancer C) Precision art interface pad D) Visual rendering controller
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Graphics tablet)
A graphics tablet (also known as a drawing tablet or digitizer) paired with a pressure-sensitive stylus allows artists to hand-draw illustrations, sketches, and graphics directly into computer design software naturally, replicating physical pen-on-paper drawing.
A video editor installs a new high-end graphics card in her computer to speed up video rendering. After installation, the computer detects the card physically. Still, video editing software cannot use its advanced features until it installs an additional component that allows the operating system and applications to communicate properly with the hardware. What does she need to install? A) Hardware synchronization module B) Digital performance translator C) System interface accelerator D) Device driver
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Device driver)
A device driver is specialized system software that enables the operating system and software applications to communicate with and control specific hardware devices (such as graphics cards). Without the manufacturer's dedicated GPU driver, advanced rendering capabilities cannot be utilized.
Q113
Basic Computer ApplicationsOperating System - Virtual Memory
Which of the following statements is NOT true about virtual memory in an operating system? A) It allows programs to use more memory than the physically available RAM B) It uses disk space to extend the apparent main memory C) It permanently stores running processes in secondary storage D) It loads only required portions of programs into RAM when needed
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It permanently stores running processes in secondary storage)
Virtual memory is a dynamic memory management technique that temporarily swaps pages between physical RAM and disk storage. It does NOT permanently store running processes in secondary storage; when processes terminate, their allocated swap space is freed.
Q114
Basic Computer ApplicationsOperating System - File Systems
Which component of an operating system is primarily responsible for maintaining the mapping between file names and their physical storage locations? A) File system directory structure B) Memory allocation dispatcher C) Data locality controller D) Storage routing interface
💡Correct Answer: Option A (File system directory structure)
The directory structure of the file system maintains directory entries that map user-facing file names and folder paths to their underlying disk block addresses, file control blocks, or inode numbers.
Q115
Basic Computer ApplicationsOperating Systems - Linux
A cybersecurity researcher needs an operating system mainly for network testing, scripting, and advanced system customization, with strong command-line tools and open-source flexibility. Which operating system would be most suitable? A) Windows B) Linux C) Mac OS D) Standalone firmware OS
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Linux)
Linux distributions (such as Kali Linux, Parrot Security OS, or Ubuntu) are open-source, offer powerful terminal environments (Bash shell), full control over networking stacks, and extensive native toolsets for network auditing, security testing, and scripting.
Q116
Basic Computer ApplicationsNetworking - DNS & HTTP/HTTPS
Which of the following options best explains how a web browser loads a webpage when a user enters a URL? A) Browser downloads the page directly from the ISP B) SMTP resolves the name and transfers the webpage C) DNS finds the IP and HTTP/HTTPS loads the page D) The search engine fetches and renders the page
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DNS finds the IP and HTTP/HTTPS loads the page)
When a URL is entered, the browser first queries the Domain Name System (DNS) to resolve the domain name into its corresponding IP address. Once the IP address is obtained, the browser uses the HTTP or HTTPS protocol to establish a connection with the web server and load the web page assets.
Aarohi is creating a presentation and wants a logo to appear automatically in the same position on all current and future slides, without manually adding it to each slide. Which feature should she use? A) Global Slide Replication B) Layout Replicator C) Theme Designer D) Slide Master
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Slide Master)
In Microsoft PowerPoint, the Slide Master is the top hierarchy slide controlling design elements, layout templates, placeholders, and formatting across the entire deck. Placing an image or logo on the Slide Master automatically reflects it on every current and future slide.
Q118
Basic Computer ApplicationsMS Excel - Formula Syntax
Aditi wants Excel to calculate the average of cells A1 to A5 only if their total sum is greater than 100, otherwise she wants Excel to display "Low". She writes the following formula: =IF(((SUM(A1:A5)>100,(AVERAGE(A1:A5),"Low"))) Will this formula work as intended? A) Yes, it will work correctly for all values B) Yes, but it works only with integers C) No, it will not work because of a syntax issue D) No, it will not work because of incorrect logic
💡Correct Answer: Option C (No, it will not work because of a syntax issue)
The formula =IF(((SUM(A1:A5)>100,(AVERAGE(A1:A5),"Low"))) contains mismatched and misplaced parentheses around function arguments. In Excel, the correct syntax is =IF(SUM(A1:A5)>100, AVERAGE(A1:A5), "Low"). The syntax error causes Excel to reject the formula with an error alert.
Which feature allows a user to apply a uniform layout, fonts, and design elements automatically across all pages or slides in a document or presentation? A) Global formatting synchronizer B) Master template system C) Layout replication engine D) Universal style broadcaster
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Master template system)
A Master Template system (such as document templates or slide master templates) standardizes layouts, color schemes, font styling, and headers across an entire document or presentation automatically.
Which feature enables software to store, organize, and manipulate structured data in rows and columns for efficient analysis? A) Matrix virtualization framework B) Database management C) Grid processing interface D) Structured data renderer
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Database management)
Database Management (DBMS / RDBMS) organizes data into structured tables consisting of rows (records) and columns (attributes), enabling reliable storage, querying, indexing, and analysis.
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About JKSSB Laboratory Attendant 2026 Previous Year Paper
This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB Laboratory Attendant examination conducted in 2026 by the School Education Department. Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include General English, Basic Mathematics, Mental Ability & Reasoning, General Knowledge & Current Affairs, General Science, Basic Science, Basic Computer Applications. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.
