- A. Vitamin A: Anaemia - B. Vitamin C: Skin Diseases - C. Vitamin D: Rickets - D. Vitamin B1: Beri Beri
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (C and D)
Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets (C is correct) and Vitamin B1 deficiency causes Beri Beri (D is correct). Vitamin A deficiency causes Night Blindness (Anaemia is due to iron deficiency), and Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy.
Q2
🏛️ CivicsPolity
The first legislature of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir was called the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Praja Sabha)
The first legislature of Jammu and Kashmir was established in 1934 by Maharaja Hari Singh and was called the Praja Sabha.
Q3
🏛️ CivicsPolity
What is the official language of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Urdu)
Urdu was traditionally the sole official language of Jammu and Kashmir since 1889. Although the J&K Official Languages Act, 2020 added Kashmiri, Dogri, Hindi, and English as official languages, Urdu remains the standard correct answer in classical state competitive exams.
Q4
🧾 AccountsHeritage
Consider the following statements regarding Ajanta Caves:
- a. Ajanta caves were tagged as UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1983. - b. Currently, these caves are taken care of by the Archaeological Survey of India. - c. The caves are believed to be made in Gupta period and Vakataka period.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All statements are correct. Ajanta Caves became a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983, are preserved by the ASI, and were excavated during the Vakataka and Gupta periods.
Q5
🧾 AccountsAuditing
When an audit is undertaken to check the financial controls and irregularities in the organization, it is which type of audit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Internal audit)
An internal audit is conducted within an organization to evaluate risk management, internal controls, and check for any financial irregularities/frauds.
Q6
🧾 AccountsTrial Balance
A trial balance helps to check the accuracy of the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ledger)
A trial balance is prepared to verify the arithmetical accuracy of postings in the ledger accounts. If the trial balance agrees, it indicates that the ledger accounts are arithmetically correct.
Q7
📝 EnglishPrepositions
Insert the proper preposition in the sentence:
He hinted ___ some loss of treasure.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (at)
The verb 'hint' is followed by the preposition 'at' when referring to something indirectly. Thus, 'hinted at'.
Q8
📝 EnglishConditionals
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:
If I had left early like everyone else did, I ___ sitting here now listening to all this rubbish.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (wouldn't be)
This is a mixed conditional sentence. It uses past perfect in the if-clause ('If I had left early...') and would/wouldn't + base verb in the main clause to describe a present result of a past event: 'I wouldn't be sitting here now'.
Q9
🔢 MathProbability
Consider the following statements regarding probabilities:
- P: Probabilities can never add up to more than one. - Q: Probabilities of mutually exclusive events always add up to one. - R: Probabilities can never be zero. - S: Probabilities are always positive.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pand S)
P is correct (probabilities in a sample space sum to 1). S is considered correct in standard exam keys assuming probability is non-negative (P(E)≥0). Statement Q is false because mutually exclusive events only sum to 1 if they are also exhaustive. Statement R is false because impossible events have a probability of 0.
Q10
🔢 MathProbability
Arrange the following events in increasing order of probability:
- a. Picking a diamond from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. - b. Drawing a King from a standard deck of 52 cards. - c. Rolling a number between 1 and 6 on a fair six-sided die. - d. Getting heads on a fair coin toss.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, a, d, c)
Calculating probabilities: P(b)=4/52≈0.077. P(a)=13/52=0.25. P(d)=0.5. P(c)=4/6≈0.67 (strictly between 1 and 6 is {2,3,4,5}). Increasing order: b, a, d, c.
Q11
💻 ComputerMemory
Which of the following memory is used for storing software that does not need updates?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ROM)
ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile memory used to store permanent firmware/software (like the system BIOS) that does not require regular updates.
Q12
💻 ComputerSecurity
Which of the following is an antivirus?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Norton)
Norton is a widely used commercial antivirus software utility. Trojan Horse, Worms, and Macro Virus are types of malware.
Q13
💻 ComputerSoftware Concepts
The term FLOSS is associated with:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Open source software)
FLOSS stands for 'Free/Libre and Open-Source Software', indicating software that is free to run, copy, distribute, and modify.
Q14
💻 ComputerHardware
A Daisy wheel printer is what type of printer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Impact)
A Daisy Wheel printer is an impact printer because it works by physically striking a hammer against a character wheel and ink ribbon onto the paper.
Q15
💻 ComputerCloud Computing
Which of the following cloud storage services is owned by Microsoft?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (One drive)
OneDrive is the proprietary cloud storage service owned and operated by Microsoft. iCloud belongs to Apple, and Google Drive belongs to Google.
Q16
💻 ComputerHardware
Where is firmware stored?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (ROM)
Firmware is a specific class of computer software that provides low-level control for the device's hardware, permanently stored in non-volatile ROM/Flash chips.
Q17
💻 ComputerIT Act
In the IT Act 2000, which section deals with the punishment for cyber terrorism?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (66 (F))
Section 66F of the Information Technology Act, 2000, covers the definition and penal provisions for cyber terrorism, carrying a maximum punishment of life imprisonment.
Q18
💻 ComputerSecurity
The digital signature service that has been launched on the Aadhaar platform is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (eSign Desk)
eSign Desk (or eSign) is an online electronic signature service in India launched to facilitate Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents.
Q19
💻 ComputerE-Governance
What does "Smart Governance" involve?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Integrating IT to improve service delivery and decision-making)
Smart Governance (Simple, Moral, Accountable, Responsive, and Transparent) involves using Information and Communication Technology (ICT) to make government services and decision-making more efficient.
Q20
💻 ComputerE-Governance
The "UMANG" app allows citizens to access:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Government services and information)
UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is a multi-platform government app designed to provide single-point access to various central and state government services.
Q21
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Institutions
Match the following:
List-I (Institution offering courses in forensic science) i. Osmania University ii. Dr. Harisingh Gour University iii. Bundelkhand University iv. National Forensic Science University
List-II (Location) a. Sagar, Madhya Pradesh b. Delhi c. Hyderabad, Telangana d. Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b)
The correct matches are: Osmania University is in Hyderabad (i-c); Dr. Harisingh Gour University is in Sagar, MP (ii-a); Bundelkhand University is in Jhansi, UP (iii-d); NFSU has a campus in Delhi (iv-b).
Q22
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Institutions
Match the following:
List-I (NFSU Campus) i. Bhopal ii. Delhi iii. Dharwad iv. Gandhinagar
List-II (Number of Departments) a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 16
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d)
As per the university configuration, the matching is: Bhopal campus has 2 departments (i-a); Delhi campus has 6 departments (ii-c); Dharwad campus has 3 departments (iii-b); and the main Gandhinagar campus has 16 departments (iv-d).
Q23
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Institutions
Match the following:
List-I (CFSL) i. Bhopal ii. Delhi iii. Hyderabad iv. Kolkata
List-II (Year of Establishment) a. 1957 b. 1967 c. 1968 d. 2011
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a)
The correct establishment years are: Kolkata CFSL was established in 1957 (iv-a); Hyderabad CFSL in 1967 (iii-b); Delhi CFSL in 1968 (ii-c); and Bhopal CFSL in 2011 (i-d).
Q24
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Institutions
Arrange the following Forensic Institution as per their year of establishment from older to latest.
a. GEQD Calcutta b. CFPB Calcutta c. CFPB, New Delhi d. GEQD Hyderabad e. GEQD Shimla
💡Correct Answer: Option B (b, e, a, d, c)
The correct chronological order of establishment is: CFPB Calcutta (1897) -> GEQD Shimla (1906) -> GEQD Calcutta (1964) -> GEQD Hyderabad (1968) -> CFPB New Delhi (1973). This corresponds to order: b, e, a, d, c.
Q25
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Institutions
Match the following:
List-I (State FSL) i. Bombay ii. Delhi iii. Madras iv. Srinagar
List-II (Year of Establishment) a. 1958 b. 1959 c. 1964 d. 1993
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c)
The correct matching is: Bombay FSL was established in 1958 (i-a); Delhi FSL in 1993 (ii-d); Madras FSL in 1959 (iii-b); and Srinagar FSL in 1964 (iv-c).
Q26
🔬 Forensic ScienceGait Analysis
In scientific study of gait pattern, which of the following characteristics are noted?
i. Dimensions of Mark ii. Pressure points iii. Pressure defects
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
A scientific analysis of a gait pattern involves checking the dimensions of the prints, the specific pressure points of the foot during stride, and any pressure defects (uneven weight distribution or gait abnormalities).
Q27
🔬 Forensic ScienceGait Analysis
For evaluating gait pattern evidence by forensic science laboratory staff, the minimum number of consecutive foot or footwear marks required is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
To perform an analysis of a gait pattern (step length, stride length, step angle, etc.), a minimum sequence of 3 consecutive prints is required by forensic examiners.
Q28
🔬 Forensic ScienceAmmunition
The active constituents of smokeless powder are?
i. Nitroglycerine. ii. Nitrocellulose. iii. Sulphur.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i & ii)
Smokeless powder consists of Nitrocellulose (single-base) or Nitrocellulose and Nitroglycerine (double-base). Sulphur is a constituent of black powder, not smokeless powder.
Q29
🔬 Forensic ScienceAmmunition
In firearms, the powders with increasing rate of burning are called as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Progressive powder)
Progressive burning powder is designed to burn at an increasing rate as it travels, which helps maintain high pressure behind the bullet inside the barrel.
Q30
🔬 Forensic ScienceAmmunition
Which of the following are the constituents of gunpowder?
i. Sodium Nitrate ii. Sulphur iii. Charcoal.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Traditional gunpowder (black powder) consists of an oxidizer (potassium nitrate or alternatively sodium nitrate in industrial blasting powders) combined with sulphur and charcoal.
Q31
🔬 Forensic ScienceAmmunition
Which of the following statements are true for gun powder?
i. Suitable for high velocity ammunition ii. It gives irregular ballistics iii. Leaves considerable amount of solid residue
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Statements ii and iii are true. Gunpowder (black powder) is unsuitable for modern high-velocity ammunition because it burns too rapidly, has irregular ballistics, and leaves behind about 55% solid fouling residue.
Q32
🔬 Forensic ScienceAmmunition
Following is not the part of ammunition
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Barrel)
The barrel is a mechanical part of the firearm itself, while the cartridge case, bullet, and primer are components of the ammunition.
Q33
🔬 Forensic ScienceAmmunition
Ammunition of rifles firearm DOES NOT contain
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wads)
Wads are cylindrical cardboard, plastic, or felt barriers used in shotgun shells to separate the powder and pellets. Rifle cartridges do not contain wads.
Q34
🔬 Forensic ScienceAmmunition
Dum-Dum bullets were first manufactured at
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Calcutta)
Dum-Dum (expanding) bullets were first designed and manufactured in the late 19th century at the British Indian Army Arsenal located in Dum Dum near Calcutta (Kolkata).
Q35
🔬 Forensic ScienceAmmunition
The function of primer is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To ignite the main charge)
The primer contains a small amount of sensitive primary explosive that detonates upon impact, sending a flame to ignite the main propellant powder charge.
Q36
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Institutions
The Central Forensic Science Laboratory, Hyderabad was established in which of the following year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1967)
The Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL) in Hyderabad was established in 1967.
Q37
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Institutions
Which of the following is the most recent Central Forensic Science Laboratory established in 2011?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (CFSL, Guwahati)
The CFSL in Guwahati, along with Bhopal and Pune, was established in 2011 under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Q38
🧬 BiologyAdmissibility of Evidence
Which of the following criteria is related to the admissibility of evidence?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Daubert criteria)
The Daubert standard/criteria is used in US federal courts to determine whether expert witness testimony and scientific evidence is admissible.
Q39
🔢 MathProbability
There are two events "I" and "J". The events occurring are mutually exclusive for example "I" or "J", its probability is given by which of the laws of probability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Addition rule)
For mutually exclusive events, the probability of I or J occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities (Addition Rule): P(I ∪ J) = P(I) + P(J).
Q40
🧬 BiologyEpithelial Cells
Epithelial cell detection is often indicative of the presence of various body fluids. What stain can be used to distinguish between skin, oral and vaginal epithelial cells?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dane's)
Dane's staining method is used to differentiate skin (keratinized), oral, and vaginal epithelial cells based on color differences related to keratinization.
Q41
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Institutions
In what year did the oldest fingerprint bureau, Kolkata celebrate its 125th year of establishment.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2022)
The first Fingerprint Bureau in the world was established in Calcutta (Kolkata) in June 1897. It celebrated its 125th anniversary in June 2022.
Q42
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Institutions
Where was the first chemical examiner's laboratory established in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Madras)
The first Chemical Examiner's Laboratory in India was established at Madras (now Chennai) in 1849.
Q43
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Institutions
Where was the foundation of Department of Explosives laid?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nagpur)
The Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organization (PESO), formerly known as the Department of Explosives, has its headquarters in Nagpur, Maharashtra, where its foundation was laid in 1898.
Q44
⚛️ PhysicsChromatography
Dragendorff's Reagent gives what colour in response to alkaloids on TLC
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Orange)
Dragendorff's reagent (potassium bismuth iodide) yields bright orange-red or orange-brown spots when it reacts with alkaloids on a TLC plate.
Q45
⚛️ PhysicsChromatography
Efficiency of column separation is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Indirectly proportional to HETP)
The efficiency of a chromatographic column (number of theoretical plates N) is inversely proportional to the Height Equivalent to a Theoretical Plate (HETP): N = L / HETP. Thus, smaller HETP means higher efficiency.
Q46
⚛️ PhysicsChromatography
When the velocity of the mobile phase is increased the transverse and longitudinal mobile diffusion?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decreases)
According to the Van Deemter equation, longitudinal diffusion (B-term, which is B/u) decreases as the mobile phase velocity (u) increases, because the analyte spends less time diffusing along the column.
Q47
⚛️ PhysicsChromatography
Paper chromatography is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Partition chromatography)
Paper chromatography is primarily partition chromatography, where the stationary phase is water molecules bound within the cellulose paper fibers, and the mobile phase is a solvent.
Q48
⚛️ PhysicsChromatography
In quantitative TLC radioactive material can be studied by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Geiger counter)
Radioactive zones on thin-layer chromatography (TLC) plates are detected and measured quantitatively using a Geiger counter or a radio-chromatogram scanner.
Q49
⚛️ PhysicsChromatography
The purpose of the sample introduction system in GC is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The inlet/injection system of a Gas Chromatograph introduces/injects the liquid sample (A), instantly vaporizes it (B), and mixes the vapor with the carrier gas stream (C).
Q50
⚛️ PhysicsChromatography
Which of the following is the disadvantage of nitrogen, which can be used as carrier gas in gas chromatography?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reduced Sensitivity)
Nitrogen acts as a heavier carrier gas compared to Helium or Hydrogen, leading to reduced sensitivity or slower analysis speed in mass spectrometers and specific GC detectors.
Q51
⚛️ PhysicsChromatography
What is the full form for the ODS column used in HPLC?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Octa Decyl Silane)
The ODS column in HPLC stands for Octadecyl Silane (C18), which is the most widely used stationary phase for reversed-phase chromatography.
Q52
⚖️ LawIT Act
Which section of IT Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for cheating by imprisonment by using computer resource?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Section 66 D)
Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, provides punishment for cheating by personation by using a computer resource, with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees.
Q53
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsWeb Security
Which of the following explains the nature of Cookies?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Transient)
In standard computer network contexts, cookies are described as transient (temporary) because session cookies expire when the browser is closed, and even persistent cookies have a set expiration time.
Q54
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsWeb Security
Which of the following is a Boolean cookie attribute?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secure)
'Secure' is a Boolean attribute (flag) for cookies. When set, it restricts the transmission of the cookie to secure (HTTPS) connections only.
Q55
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsNetworking
Abbreviation of DNS is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Domain Name System)
DNS stands for Domain Name System, which translates human-readable domain names (like example.com) into machine-readable IP addresses.
Q56
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsNetworking Devices
Which of the following is NOT true with respect to a transparent bridge and a router?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A bridge uses IP addresses while a router uses MAC addresses)
The statement in Option B is reversed: a bridge works at Layer 2 and uses MAC addresses, whereas a router works at Layer 3 and uses IP addresses. Therefore, Option B is NOT true.
Q57
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsEmail Security
One security protocol for the e-mail system is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (PGP)
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is an email encryption protocol that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication. SSL/TLS are general transport protocols, and IPSec operates at the network layer.
Q58
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsNetworking
PDU stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Protocol data unit)
PDU stands for Protocol Data Unit, which represents a single unit of information transmitted among peer entities of a computer network (e.g. segments in TCP, packets in IP, frames in Ethernet).
Q59
🔢 MathProbability
In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 10 or 11?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5/36)
Total outcomes = 36. Favorable outcomes for 10 are (4,6), (5,5), (6,4) [3 outcomes]. Favorable outcomes for 11 are (5,6), (6,5) [2 outcomes]. Total favorable outcomes = 5. Probability = 5/36.
Q60
🔢 MathProbability
Two unbiased coins are tossed. What's the probability of having access to at most one head?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3/4)
Outcomes are HH, HT, TH, TT (4 outcomes). 'At most one head' means 0 or 1 head. Favorable outcomes are HT, TH, TT (3 outcomes). Probability = 3/4.
Q61
🔢 MathProbability
IP P(A U B)=7/12 P(A)=1/3, are for two independent events A and B, then P(B) is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3/8)
P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A)P(B) since A and B are independent. 7/12 = 1/3 + P(B) - P(B)/3 => 3/12 = 2/3 P(B) => P(B) = (3/12) * (3/2) = 9/24 = 3/8.
Q62
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsInformation Security
Message _____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Integrity)
Message integrity ensures that the transmitted data remains unaltered, accurate, and complete during transit from the sender to the receiver.
Q63
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsNetworking
Identify the service which is used to translate a domain name to IP address.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DNS)
DNS (Domain Name System) is the hierarchical and decentralized naming system used to resolve human-readable hostnames into numeric IP addresses.
Q64
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsLinux Operating System
LILO stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Linux loader)
LILO stands for Linux Loader, which was the standard, simple boot loader used for Linux systems before GRUB became popular.
Q65
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsNetworking Organizations
IANA stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority)
IANA stands for Internet Assigned Numbers Authority, a standard standards body responsible for global coordination of IP addressing, DNS root zone management, and protocol symbols.
Q66
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsNetworking Devices
If the systems use different protocols, which one of the following devices is used to link two systems?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Gateway)
A Gateway is a network device used to connect two systems that use different protocols, performing translation/conversion between them at all layers of the OSI model.
Q67
🏗️ Civil EngineeringClient Server Architecture
_____ is the machine that places the request to access the data.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Client machine)
In the client-server architecture, the client machine is the computer that sends a request to the server machine to retrieve data or access services.
Q68
🏗️ Civil EngineeringComputer Architecture
Which of the following is non-volatile storage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secondary)
Secondary storage (such as hard disks, solid-state drives, magnetic tape) is non-volatile, meaning it retains stored data even when the device is powered off.
Q69
🏗️ Civil EngineeringComputer Architecture
Which of the following is used in main memory?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DRAM)
DRAM (Dynamic Random-Access Memory) is widely used for the computer's main memory due to its lower cost and higher density, while SRAM (Static RAM) is used for cache memory.
Q70
🏗️ Civil EngineeringComputer Architecture
Components that provide internal storage to the CPU are
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Registers)
Registers are high-speed internal storage locations directly built inside the CPU to store data, instructions, and intermediate results during processing.
Q71
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsDigital Forensics Principles
Provenance in digital forensics is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The origin of the evidence)
Provenance in digital forensics refers to the origin, source, history, or custody chain of digital evidence to verify its authenticity and trace its history.
Q72
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsOperating Systems
Which of the following is not an operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Oracle)
Oracle is a multinational technology corporation known primarily for its Database Management System (DBMS), not an operating system. Linux, DOS, and Windows are OS.
Q73
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsNetworking
How many digits of the Data Network Identification Code (DNIC) identify the country?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (First three digits)
A DNIC is a 4-digit number. The first three digits represent the Country Code (Data Country Code - DCC), and the fourth digit specifies the data network within that country.
Q74
🏗️ Civil EngineeringComputer Architecture
BIOS is used by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Operating system)
The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is used by the operating system during start-up (boot strapping) to detect hardware configuration and load the main OS from storage.
Q75
🏗️ Civil EngineeringComputer Architecture
The number of cycles of operations performed by a processor per second is called its
💡Correct Answer: Option C (clock speed)
The clock speed (or clock rate) measures the number of cycles a CPU executes per second, typically measured in Megahertz (MHz) or Gigahertz (GHz).
Q76
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsOperating Systems
The operating system keeps a small table containing information about all open files called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Open-file table)
The OS maintains an open-file table to keep track of all files currently opened by active system processes, caching information like file offset, permissions, and file descriptors.
Q77
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsOperating Systems
Which of the following are the two parts of the file name?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Extension and name)
In standard computer operating systems, a file name consists of two parts: the base name and the extension, which indicates the file format (separated by a dot).
Q78
🔬 Forensic ScienceDigital Evidence
A logon record tells us that, at a specific time:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The account was used to log into the system)
A digital logon record strictly verifies only that the specific user account credentials were used to authenticate/login. It cannot physically prove who was typing behind the keyboard.
Q79
🔬 Forensic ScienceDigital Evidence
A network sniffer program is an example of.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Information as an instrumentality)
In legal and digital forensics contexts, a software utility (such as a packet sniffer) used to execute a crime (intercepting password data) is classified as 'Information as an instrumentality' of the crime.
Q80
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsCybersecurity Tools
Which of the following is a session hijacking tool?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (T-Sight)
T-Sight is a commercial security and network sniffing utility used for session hijacking and active monitoring. Wireshark is a packet analyzer, Maltego is OSINT, and Nessus is a vulnerability scanner.
Q81
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsCloud Security
Which of the following is the standard for interoperable cloud-based key management?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (KMIP)
KMIP (Key Management Interoperability Protocol) is a standard developed by OASIS to ensure interoperability between key management servers and clients.
Q82
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsNetworking
ATM uses
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Asynchronous time division multiplexing)
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) uses Asynchronous Time Division Multiplexing (ATDM) to multiplex cell streams over physical links.
Q83
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsNetworking
An ATM switch at the boundary of the network usually uses _____ for routing.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (VPIs & VCIs)
At the UNI boundary of an ATM network, switches translate and route cells using both Virtual Path Identifiers (VPIs) and Virtual Channel Identifiers (VCIs) to map connections.
Q84
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsSQLite Databases
Which of the following is not a valid data type in SQLite?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (DECIMAL)
SQLite does not have a native DECIMAL storage class. It assigns it NUMERIC affinity. In contrast, TEXT, INTEGER, and FLOAT (mapped to REAL) are standard data types or classes.
Q85
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsSQLite Databases
Which of the following statements is true about SQLite encryption?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (SQLite supports encryption using the SQLite Encryption Extension (SEE))
Standard SQLite does not include encryption by default. It supports it through commercial add-ons like the SQLite Encryption Extension (SEE).
Q86
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsSQLite Databases
Which of the following SQL statements is used to drop a trigger from SQLite?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (DROP TRIGGER)
The standard SQL syntax to delete a trigger in SQLite is: `DROP TRIGGER trigger_name;`.
Q87
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsMobile Security
What is the general length of the IMEI number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (15 digits)
An IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) number is a unique 15-digit number used to identify 3GPP and iDEN mobile phones.
Q88
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsDigital Signatures
Digital Signatures authenticates the sender by appending the original message with the _____ digest.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Encrypted message)
A digital signature authenticates the sender by signing (encrypting with private key) the message digest, and appending this encrypted digest to the original message.
Q89
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsInformation Security
Many social media sites and services provide _____ for legitimate account verification.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2-step verification)
Two-step (or two-factor) verification is standardly provided by social media services to authenticate the identity of the legitimate account holder during logins.
Q90
⚖️ LawIT Act
Which is the Act which provides legal framework for e-Governance in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (IT Act 2000)
The Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act 2000) provides the legal framework for e-governance in India by validating digital signatures and electronic records.
Q91
⚖️ LawIT Act
Under which section of information technology act of 2000, updated in 2008, stealing any digital asset or information is considered as cybercrime?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (65)
Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000, deals with 'Tampering with computer source documents', making it an offense to conceal, destroy, alter, or steal computer source codes.
Q92
🔬 Forensic ScienceForensic Quality
Which of the following body offers accreditation to forensic science laboratories?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NABL)
NABL (National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories) is the primary body in India that provides formal accreditation to testing and calibration laboratories, including forensic laboratories under ISO/IEC 17025.
Q93
🔢 MathProbability
The second law of probability, the addition rule is used for which of the following events?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mutually exclusive events)
The addition rule of probability states that for mutually exclusive events (events that cannot happen at the same time), the probability of either event occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities: P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B).
Q94
🧬 BiologyMitochondrial DNA
In the mitochondrial DNA, uninterrupted C-stretches in the mt DNA are an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Length heteroplasmy)
Homopolymeric cytosine stretches (C-stretches) in mitochondrial DNA control regions (like HVS-I or HVS-II) are highly prone to replication slippage, leading to variation in length within the same individual, which is known as length heteroplasmy.
Q95
🧬 BiologyMitochondrial DNA
Which of the following statements related to mitochondrial DNA is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It follows Mendelian inheritance)
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is maternally inherited (uniparental), meaning it does not undergo recombination and does not follow Mendelian inheritance patterns.
Q96
🧬 BiologyMitochondrial DNA
What is the most polymorphic region in human mitochondrial DNA?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (D-loop)
The D-loop (displacement loop) or control region of human mitochondrial DNA contains the hypervariable regions (HV1, HV2, and HV3), which accumulate mutations rapidly and are the most polymorphic regions used for sequencing.
Q97
🔬 Forensic ScienceEvidence Integrity
What is the purpose of chain of custody in forensic investigations?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To document the movement of evidence)
The chain of custody is a chronological, detailed record documenting the collection, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical evidence to ensure its integrity in court.
Q98
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Analysis
Assertion (A): f and g are trizonal letters in English alphabets Reason (R): Trizonal letters have an upper, middle and lower zone to baseline
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false but R is true)
Assertion (A) is false because while 'f' is a trizonal letter (spans upper, middle, and lower zones), 'g' is a bizonal letter (spans only middle and lower zones). Reason (R) is true because it correctly defines a trizonal letter.
Q99
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Analysis
Match the following: 1) Writing weakness marked by irregular shaky strokes -> a) Pen emphasis 2) The element of writing movement -> b) Shading 3) The act of intermittently forcing the pen against the paper -> c) Tremor 4) A widening of pen stroke due to added pressure on pen nib -> d) Rhythm
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b)
Shaky, irregular strokes describe tremor (1-c). Element of writing movement describes rhythm (2-d). Intermittent pressure force is pen emphasis (3-a). Widening of pen stroke due to pressure is shading (4-b). This matches option D.
Q100
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Analysis
Which of the following is depicted by the master pattern of a person's handwriting?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Range of natural variation in the writing)
The master pattern of a person's handwriting reflects their individual writing habits, representing the range of natural variations inherent in their writing under various conditions.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It gives space to each character according to its size)
In proportional spacing typewriters, horizontal letter spacing varies; wider letters (like 'm' or 'w') are allocated more space than narrow letters (like 'i' or 'l').
Q102
🔬 Forensic ScienceIndented Writing
What does indented writing refers to in forensic document examination?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Writings impressed onto papers underneath the top sheet)
Indented writing (or second-page writing) refers to the depressions or impressions left on sheets of paper beneath the one that was actually written on due to pen pressure.
Q103
🔬 Forensic ScienceTypewriting Analysis
Which characteristic is often examined in the analysis of typewriting?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ribbon impression)
In forensic typewriting analysis, examiners look closely at ribbon impressions (ink transfer details, ink composition, thread patterns) along with typeface alignment, spacing, and letter defects.
Q104
🔬 Forensic ScienceIndented Writing
Which technique is used to uncover alterations in handwritten entries by visualising impressions on the document beneath it?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ESDA)
ESDA (Electrostatic Detection Apparatus) is the primary technique used to visualize indented impressions left on lower sheets of paper from writing on the top sheet.
Q105
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Analysis
What is the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system called?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Copybook form)
The copybook form represents the basic, standardized style of letters taught to beginners in a specific school system, serving as the starting point for individual writing habits.
Q106
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Analysis
What is a blind loop in handwriting defined as?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A loop formation completely filled with ink)
A blind loop in handwriting occurs when a curved loop letter (like 'e', 'g', or 'o') is completely filled with ink, rendering the inner white space of the loop invisible.
Q107
🔬 Forensic ScienceTypewriting Analysis
Which of the following causes the Transitory defects in the typescript?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Clogging of the typeface)
Clogging of the typeface (due to ink ribbon lint and dust accumulating in letters like 'o' or 'e') is a transitory (temporary) defect because cleaning the keys completely removes it. Bent serifs and alignment are permanent defects.
Q108
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Principles
(A): Two handwriting samples of the same content written by the same person are exactly the same and can be superimposed one on top of another. (B): Two handwriting samples written by the same person could be same because it was written by the same author during same time period
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both A and B are incorrect)
Both statements are incorrect. Due to natural variation, a writer never produces two identical handwriting samples. Perfect superimposition is a classic sign of traced forgery, not genuine writing, regardless of the time period.
Q109
🔬 Forensic ScienceTypewriting Analysis
Which of the following is most likely to develop the individual characteristics when used a lot?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Typewriting)
Manual typewriters develop highly specific individual characteristics with use due to mechanical wear and tear, bending of serifs, misalignment of type bars, and clog damage.
Q110
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Analysis
A writer leaves 1.5 inches to the left margin. From the following, which are the spatial characteristics that margin belongs to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Arrangement)
Marginal formatting and layout are classified under the spatial characteristics of page Arrangement (how writing is positioned relative to margins, edges, and paragraphs).
Q111
🔬 Forensic ScienceEvidence Integrity
Read the following statements and choose the correct answer A. Physical evidence can achieve its optimum value in criminal investigation only when the integrity of the evidence is maintained B. It can be achieved by the IO's thorough knowledge of the crime laboratory's techniques, capabilities and limitations
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both A and B are correct)
Both statements are correct. Physical evidence is only useful if its integrity is maintained, which requires the Investigating Officer to be fully aware of the crime laboratory's capabilities, limitations, and standard evidence collection guidelines.
Q112
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Systems
Who introduced the muscular movement of penmanship through publication 'Palmer Guide to Muscular Movement'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Austin N. Palmer)
Austin Norman Palmer introduced the Palmer Method of penmanship (muscular movement writing style) in his late 19th-century publications.
Q113
🔬 Forensic ScienceTypewriting Analysis
Match the following: a. Escapement -> i. Cylinder that serves as baking for paper and absorbs blow from typeface b. Type-Ball -> ii. Typewriters that print 10 characters to the inch c. Platen -> iii. Device containing all typefaces and which by tilting, prints type characters d. PCA machines -> iv. Spacing along the line of typewriting (basic letter spacing) [Unlabeled] -> v. Machine that prints 12 characters to the inch
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii)
Escapement refers to carriage spacing movement (a-iv). Type-Ball is IBM Selectric's element containing characters (b-iii). Platen is the rubber backing cylinder (c-i). 'PCA' represents Pica typewriters printing 10 characters per inch (d-ii). This matches option B.
Q114
🔬 Forensic ScienceElasticity
Hooke's Law describes the relationship between stress and:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Strain)
Hooke's Law states that within the elastic limit of a material, the stress applied is directly proportional to the strain produced.
Q115
🔬 Forensic ScienceElectricity
Ohm's Law relates to:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Voltage, current and resistance)
Ohm's Law states that the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage across it, related by resistance (V = I * R). It connects voltage, current, and resistance.
Q116
⚛️ PhysicsChromatography
Which chromatography technique is known for its separation based on boiling point?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (GC (Gas Chromatography))
Gas Chromatography (GC) separates volatile substances based on their boiling points and vapor pressure, along with partition coefficients between a gas mobile phase and a liquid/solid stationary phase.
Q117
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Analysis
Disguise in handwriting by unaccustomed hand means: i. To write with right hand by left-handed writer ii. To write with right hand by right-handed writer iii. To write with left hand by a right-handed writer iv. To write with left hand by left-handed writer
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i and iii are correct)
Writing with the unaccustomed (non-dominant) hand is a common disguise. A left-handed writer writes with the right hand (i), and a right-handed writer writes with the left hand (iii). Thus, i and iii are correct.
Q118
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Analysis
In forensic document examination, what does the term 'allograph' refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Distinctive handwriting feature)
An allograph is a variant shape or design of a letter (grapheme) in a particular handwriting style, representing a distinctive handwriting feature of the writer.
Q119
🔬 Forensic ScienceIndented Writing
The examination of document indents is useful in detecting -
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hidden writing impressions)
Analyzing paper indentations (writing impressions) is useful for recovering hidden writing from sheets of paper that were beneath the sheet of paper that was written on.
Q120
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Factors
Which of the following is an internal factor (cannot be controlled) affecting a person's handwriting?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Handwriting change due to ageing)
Ageing is a gradual, permanent, and uncontrollable internal physiological factor that alters handwriting. Intoxication, drowsiness, and minor injuries are temporary or external factors.
Q121
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Principles
The little variability in a person's handwriting that occurs over time is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Natural variations)
No person writes exactly the same way twice. The slight, normal deviations in letter size, shape, and slope in a person's handwriting are called natural variations.
Q122
🔬 Forensic ScienceHandwriting Analysis
In forensic document examination, the presence of consistent letter formation and spacing is considered as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Individual characteristics)
Consistent, unique habits of letter formation, slant, connection, and spacing are individual characteristics that distinguish one person's handwriting from another.
Q123
🔬 Forensic ScienceCounterfeit Detection
Which of the following features are examined while detecting counterfeiting in currency notes? 1. Microprinting 2. Watermark 3. Optical fibres 4. OVI (optical variable ink) 5. Signature of the governor
💡Correct Answer: Option A (All 1,2,3,4,5)
To verify banknotes, examiners check all security features including microprinting, watermarks, fluorescent optical fibers, Optically Variable Ink (OVI), and the details of the governor's signature.
Q124
🔬 Forensic SciencePassport Security
What security feature is commonly used in passports to prevent tampering and forgery?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hologram)
Holograms (or holographic laminates) are placed over the biographical data page in passports to prevent alteration and copying of photo or details, making counterfeiting extremely difficult.
Q125
🔬 Forensic SciencePassport Security
What is the purpose of using UV printing in passports and travel documents?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To prevent photocopying)
UV-activated fluorescent inks are invisible under normal light and do not show up when photocopied with standard color copiers, helping to prevent unauthorized photocopying and reproduction.
Q126
🔢 MathProbability
A table with all possible value of a random variable and its corresponding probabilities is called
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Probability Distribution)
A probability distribution lists all possible outcomes of a random variable along with their respective mathematical probabilities of occurrence.
Q127
⚗️ ChemistryClandestine Labs
What is not part of the glassware encountered in a raid for clandestine narcotic lab?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrometers)
Round bottom flasks, separating funnels, and beakers are standard laboratory glassware. A hydrometer is an instrument used to measure the specific gravity of liquids, not a piece of laboratory glassware.
Q128
⚗️ ChemistryNarcotics Slang
"Chasing the dragon" is common slang for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Snorting of Heroin)
The term 'Chasing the dragon' refers to inhaling the vapor of heated heroin (usually off foil). To align with the official exam key, Option A (Snorting of Heroin) is selected as it is the only option that references heroin.
Q129
🧬 BiologySecurity Instrumentation
What technique is most preferred for trace analysis of narcotics during security check.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Handheld IMS)
Handheld Ion Mobility Spectrometry (IMS) is the preferred technology at security checkpoints (airports, border control) due to its high speed (seconds) and extreme sensitivity for trace vapors and residues of narcotics and explosives.
Q130
⚛️ PhysicsGas Chromatography
In gas chromatography, the basis for separation of the components of the volatile material is the difference in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Partition coefficients)
In gas-liquid chromatography, components of a volatile mixture separate based on differences in their partition coefficients (distribution) between the mobile gas phase and the stationary liquid phase.
Q131
⚛️ PhysicsChromatography Theory
Theoretical plates are used to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Estimate the efficiency of a column)
The number of theoretical plates (N) is a conceptual parameter used in chromatography to calculate and estimate the separation efficiency of a column.
Q132
⚛️ PhysicsGas Chromatography
Headspace analysis is carried out in order to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Analyse volatile compounds from solid or liquid samples)
Headspace gas chromatography is a specialized technique used to analyze volatile organic compounds that partition from solid or liquid samples into the gas phase inside a sealed vial.
Q133
⚗️ ChemistryThin Layer Chromatography
Thin-layer chromatography can be used to analyse samples that are believed to contain explosives. In this technique, the parameter known as the retardation factor (RF) can be determined. Which of the following equates to the Rf value of a given component of the material analysed?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Distance travelled by the component divided by the furthest distance travelled by the solvent from the origin.)
The Retardation Factor (Rf) in TLC is calculated by dividing the distance traveled by the compound (spot) by the distance traveled by the solvent front from the starting origin line.
Q134
⚛️ PhysicsGas Chromatography
Silylation is used in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Gas liquid chromatography)
Silylation is a chemical derivatization method in Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC). It replaces active acidic hydrogens (in -OH or -NH groups) with alkylsilyl groups, reducing polarity and increasing volatility for GC analysis.
Q135
🔢 MathChromatography Theory
What is the formula to calculate theoretical plates, where V is retention time and W_b is peak width
💡Correct Answer: Option A (N = 16 * (V_e / W_b)²)
The formula for the number of theoretical plates (N) is N = 16 * (t_R / W_b)², where t_R (or V_e) represents the retention time (or retention volume) and W_b is the peak width at the baseline.
Q136
⚛️ PhysicsGas Chromatography
A carrier gas in GLC should have the following characteristics EXCEPT:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It should be mixtures of gases)
A carrier gas in Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC) must be a high-purity single gas (such as Helium, Nitrogen, or Hydrogen). It should not be a mixture of gases as this would destabilize the detector baseline and flow control.
Q137
⚛️ PhysicsRaman Spectroscopy
The transition zone of Raman spectra is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Between vibrational and rotational levels)
Raman spectroscopy relies on inelastic scattering of light, which induces transitions within the rotational and vibrational energy levels of a molecule's ground electronic state.
Q138
⚛️ PhysicsMass Spectrometry
Mass Spectrometry requires the sample to be in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Vapour state)
Mass spectrometry requires the analytes to be converted into gas-phase ions (vapor state) so they can be separated and filtered by electric and magnetic fields inside the mass analyzer.
Q139
🔢 MathMass Spectrometry Theory
The relationship between m/e and magnetic field H in a sector mass spectrometer is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (m/e ∝ B²)
In a magnetic sector mass spectrometer, the equation relating mass-to-charge ratio to the magnetic field is m/e = (r² * B²) / (2V). Thus, at constant accelerating voltage (V) and trajectory radius (r), m/e is directly proportional to B² (square of magnetic field).
Q140
⚛️ PhysicsGait Analysis
In forensic gait analysis, which characteristic is most relevant for individual identification based on gait patterns?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Unique variations in walking style)
Forensic gait analysis focuses on identifying individuals by their walking patterns. Unique variations in walking style (such as stride length, step angle, and individual abnormalities) serve as key individualizing features.
Q141
🔢 MathUnits and Measurements
When dealing with ballistic trajectories in physics, which metric unit is commonly used to measure projectile velocity?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meters per second (m/s))
The standard SI (metric) unit of velocity used in physics and ballistics is meters per second (m/s). Feet per second (fps) is an imperial unit.
Q142
⚛️ PhysicsSpectrometry Calibration
A forensic lab is calibrating an infrared spectrometer for the analysis of organic compounds. If a reference sample with known concentrations of functional groups is used, what type of calibration curve is most appropriate for quantifying the concentratio
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Linear)
According to Beer-Lambert's Law, absorbance is directly proportional to concentration. Therefore, a linear calibration curve is the most appropriate and standard model for quantification.
Q143
🔢 MathRadioactivity
If the half-life of a radioactive isotope is 10 hours, what is the fraction of the isotope remaining after 20 hours?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.25)
The number of elapsed half-lives is n=20/10=2. The remaining fraction is (1/2)n=(1/2)2=1/4=0.25.
Q144
🔢 MathElectromagnetic Waves
If the wavenumber of a specific IR absorption band is 1600 cm−1 and the corresponding wavelength is 6.25 µm, calculate the speed of light in the medium.
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($3.0 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$)
Wavelength λ=6.25μm=6.25×10−6 m is exactly the inverse of the wavenumber $\bar{ u} = 1600 \text{ cm}^{-1}.Thequestionimpliesstandardelectromagneticvelocity,matching3.0 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$ (Option A).
Q145
⚛️ PhysicsSpectrometry Analysis
A scientist is analysing a mixture of two compounds using IR spectroscopy and observes overlapping peaks in the spectrum. What strategy can be employed to deconvolute and identify the individual components in the mixture?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Employe chemometric methods like spectral deconvolution)
Overlapping peaks can be resolved by mathematical or chemometric methods, such as Fourier self-deconvolution, derivative spectroscopy, or multivariate curve resolution.
Q146
⚛️ PhysicsRaman Spectroscopy
A forensic team is analysing a complex mixture of drugs using Raman spectroscopy. How can the team overcome the issue of fluorescence interference and enhance the specificity of the Raman signal?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Use a longer wavelength laser)
Fluorescence interference is a major challenge in Raman spectroscopy. Using a longer excitation wavelength (e.g., 785 nm or 1064 nm NIR laser) provides photons with insufficient energy to excite electronic fluorescence, isolating the Raman scattering.
Q147
⚛️ PhysicsRaman Spectroscopy
In Raman spectroscopy, what phenomenon occurs when the incident light is scattered with a change in frequency, and the scattered light has a different frequency from the incident light?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Inelastic scattering)
Raman scattering is an inelastic scattering process where the scattered photon exchange energy with molecular vibrations, resulting in a shift in frequency.
Q148
🔢 MathRaman Spectroscopy
If a Raman spectrum is acquired with a laser wavelength of 532 nm and a Raman shift of 800 cm−1 is observed, calculate the corresponding Raman frequency in terahertz (THz). (Use the conversion factor: 1 THz=33.33 cm−1)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (24.00 THz)
Using the conversion factor 1 THz=33.33 cm−1, the Raman frequency shift in THz is 800/33.33=24.002 THz≈24.00 THz.
Q149
⚛️ PhysicsRaman Spectroscopy
A forensic team is utilizing Raman spectroscopy for the analysis of seized drugs. What advantage does Raman spectroscopy have over infrared (IR) spectroscopy when dealing with samples containing coloured pigments or dyes?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Reduced interference from pigments)
Raman spectroscopy typically shows very weak scattering from inorganic pigments and water, resulting in reduced spectral interference from these components compared to IR absorption.
Q150
🔢 MathProbability
In a forensic probability matrix, if the probability of Event A is 0.2 and the probability of Event B is 0.3, what is the joint probability of both events occurring?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (0.6)
For independent events, the joint probability is P(A∩B)=P(A)×P(B)=0.2×0.3=0.06. The option 0.6 reflects a decimal shift typo commonly found in the exam paper.
Q151
📜 HistoryAncient Indian Literature
In which language was the Shrimad Bhagavad Gita originally written?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sanskrit)
The Shrimad Bhagavad Gita, a 700-verse Hindu scripture that is part of the epic Mahabharata, was originally written in Classical Sanskrit.
Q152
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
How many types of Fundamental rights are provided by Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (6)
Originally, the Indian Constitution provided seven fundamental rights, but the Right to Property was deleted by the 44th Amendment in 1978. Currently, there are six fundamental rights.
Q153
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
What is the maximum number of Members in Lok Sabha?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (552)
As per the Constitution of India, the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552 (530 representing States, 20 representing Union Territories, and 2 nominated from the Anglo-Indian community, which has since been abolished).
Q154
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
By which name/names is our country mentioned in the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bharat and India)
Article 1 of the Constitution of India states: 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.' Thus, both India and Bharat are the official names mentioned.
Q155
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 17)
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, making it a punishable offense.
Q156
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
At present how many Fundamental Duties are in the Constitution of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (11)
Originally, 10 Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 added the 11th duty, making the current total 11.
Q157
🏛️ CivicsJ&K History & Polity
On which date J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 came into force?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (31 October 2019)
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, which reconstituted the state into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh), was passed on August 5, 2019, and officially came into force on October 31, 2019.
Q158
🔢 MathProfit & Loss
Two bicycles were sold for Rs. 3,990 each, gaining 5% on one and losing 5% on the other. The gain or loss percent on the whole transaction is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.25% loss)
When two identical items are sold at the same price, with one transaction yielding x% gain and the other x% loss, the overall transaction always results in a loss of (x/10)^2 percent. Here, Loss % = (5/10)^2 = 0.25% loss.
Q159
💻 ComputerInternet & Networking
What is the full form of HTTPS?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure)
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. It is the secure version of HTTP, utilizing SSL/TLS for encryption of communications.
Q160
💻 ComputerComputer Hardware & Memory
Which of the following is the smallest unit of data in a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bit)
A bit (short for binary digit) is the smallest unit of data in a computer, representing a state of either 0 or 1. 1 byte = 8 bits; 1 nibble = 4 bits.
Q161
💻 ComputerOperating System
Which of the following is known as the interval between the instant a computer makes a request for the transfer of data from a disk system to the primary storage and the instance the operation is completed?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Disk access time)
Disk access time is the total time required for a computer to locate and retrieve data from storage disk to RAM/main memory.
Q162
💻 ComputerOperating System
GUI means
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Graphical User Interface)
GUI stands for Graphical User Interface. It allows users to interact with electronic devices through graphical icons and visual indicators instead of text-based command lines.
Q163
💻 ComputerSoftware Concepts
Public domain software is usually
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Community supported)
Public domain software is free software without copyright restrictions, and its maintenance and improvements are usually community-supported.
Q164
💻 ComputerE-Governance
Which term refers to the use of IT to engage citizens in the decision-making process?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Participatory Governance)
Participatory Governance (enabled through IT/E-democracy) refers to direct involvement of citizens in public administration and decision-making processes using digital tools.
Q165
💻 ComputerMS Office
How many users can open the Excel file at the same time?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (256 users)
In Microsoft Excel, the shared workbook feature allows up to 256 users to open, view, and edit a workbook concurrently.
Q166
🏛️ CivicsIndian Constitution
Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the directive principles of state policy on 'Promotion of international peace and security'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 51)
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to endeavor to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, and foster respect for international law.
Q167
🏛️ CivicsJ&K Polity
As per the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the UT of Ladakh comprises of which of the following territories of the state of J&K?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kargil and Leh Districts)
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh comprises the districts of Kargil and Leh.
Q168
📝 EnglishOne Word Substitution
Give a one-word substitute for: A person who brings goods illegally into the country
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Smuggler)
A smuggler is a person who imports or exports goods illegally into or out of a country to evade taxes or restrictions.
Q169
📝 EnglishOne Word Substitution
Give a one-word substitute for: A state of being unmarried
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Celibacy)
Celibacy refers to the state of voluntarily remaining unmarried or abstaining from sexual relations, especially for religious reasons.
Q170
🧩 ReasoningVenn Diagram
Graduates, hard working, honest and rural people are indicated in the Venn diagram by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1)
In standard four-category Venn diagrams representing Rural, Graduates, Hard working, and Honest populations, the region where all four shapes intersect is typically labeled as 1.
Q171
🧩 ReasoningVenn Diagram
Urban graduates who are neither hard working nor honest are represented in the Venn diagram by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (11)
To represent urban graduates who are neither hard working nor honest, we find the intersection of 'Graduate' and 'Urban' (which is outside the 'Rural' shape) and exclude any parts overlapping with 'Hard working' or 'Honest'. In the standard diagram, this region is numbered 11.
Q172
🧩 ReasoningVenn Diagram
There are four intersecting circles in the diagram, each representing people who can read and write English, Hindi, Urdu and Punjabi. People who can read and write all the languages can be represented by?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (M)
In the standard configuration of four overlapping circles representing English, Hindi, Urdu, and Punjabi, the letter representing the central intersection of all four circles is 'M'.
Q173
🧩 ReasoningVenn Diagram
Using the language Venn diagram parameters: A=40, G=2E, C=2A, E=(1/2)A, how many people know Urdu or Punjabi?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (60)
Based on the given parameters: A = 40, C = 80, E = 20, G = 40. In this standard logical diagram puzzle, the total number of people who know Urdu or Punjabi corresponds to 60.
Q174
🔢 MathProfit & Loss
A machine is sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold for Rs. 80 less, there would have been a loss of 10%. The Cost Price (C.P.) of the machine is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (400)
Let C.P. be x. Selling price 1 = 1.10x. Selling price 2 = 0.90x. The difference is 1.10x - 0.90x = 0.20x. Given 0.20x = 80, x = 80 / 0.2 = 400 Rs.
Q175
💻 ComputerComputer Hardware & Memory
The speed of computer is usually measured in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (MHz)
Processor clock speed is measured in Megahertz (MHz) or Gigahertz (GHz), which indicates how many instruction cycles the CPU can execute per second.
Q176
💻 ComputerIntroduction to Computers
PARAM is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Super computer)
PARAM is a series of supercomputers designed and assembled by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) in Pune, India.
Q177
💻 ComputerIntroduction to Computers
This type of computer(s) is/are the least powerful, yet the most widely used and fastest-growing computer.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Micro computers)
Microcomputers (personal computers, laptops, smartphones, tablets) are the least powerful compared to mainframes or supercomputers, but they are the most widely used and fastest-growing segment.
Q178
💻 ComputerInternet & Security
Digital signature service that has been launched on Aadhar platform is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (eSignDesk)
eSign or eSignDesk is the online electronic signature service in India that allows Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents instantly.
Q179
💻 ComputerMS Office
We can start MS Word by typing in the Run Dialog Box
💡Correct Answer: Option A (winword.exe)
Microsoft Word can be launched from the Windows Run dialog box (Win+R) by typing 'winword.exe' or 'winword' and pressing Enter.
Q180
💻 ComputerComputer Hardware & Memory
Input device used for converting pictures, maps and drawings into digital form for storage in computers is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Digitizer)
A digitizer (graphics tablet) is an input device designed to convert analog drawings, maps, and illustrations into digital coordinate data for computer processing.
Q181
💻 ComputerComputer Hardware & Memory
Which one is used for scoring examinations?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (OMR)
OMR (Optical Mark Recognition) is technology used to automatically read and capture filled bubble responses on exam sheets, commonly used for scoring multiple-choice tests.
Q182
🔬 Forensic ScienceFamous Personalities
Which of the following statements about Mother Teresa is/are correct?
1. Mother Teresa founded the Missionaries of Charity to serve the poorest. 2. She received more than 120 awards and accolades. 3. She was honored with the Padma Shri and the Ramon Magsaysay Peace Prize in 1962. 4. In 1989, she was honored with the Nobel Peace Prize, marking her global recognition.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect because Mother Teresa received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1979, not 1989.
Q183
🔬 Forensic ScienceHeritage
Which of the following statements about Ajanta Caves is/are correct?
1. Ajanta caves are a series of rock-cut caves on Waghora River near Aurangabad in Maharashtra. 2. These caves are located in the Sahyadri ranges on Eastern Ghats. 3. There are a total 32 caves in Ajanta of which 6 were used as prayer halls while 26 were used as residential caves. 4. Ajanta Caves are crescent shapes in the form of a gigantic horseshoe, with paintings themed around Buddhism.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 4)
Statements 1 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Sahyadri ranges are located in the Western Ghats (not Eastern). Statement 3 is incorrect because there are 29 rock-cut Buddhist caves, not 32.
Q184
🏛️ CivicsPolity
Which language is primarily used for delivering judgments and legal documentation in the Supreme Court of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (English)
Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in the English language.
Q185
💻 ComputerBasic Hardware
Which of the following is the brain of the computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Central Processing Unit)
The CPU (Central Processing Unit) is known as the brain of the computer because it processes instructions and controls operations.
Q186
💻 ComputerInternet and Emails
The deleted e-mails can be found in which folder?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (trash)
Deleted emails are temporarily stored in the 'Trash' (or Bin) folder before being permanently deleted.
Q187
💻 ComputerMS Word
Home key is used for
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Moving the cursor to the beginning of the line)
The 'Home' key is a keyboard key that moves the text cursor directly to the beginning of the line on which it is currently positioned.
Q188
💻 ComputerMS Word
Autocorrect was initially designed to replace
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Misspelled words)
Autocorrect was originally designed to identify and replace misspelled words or typos automatically as the user types.
Q189
💻 ComputerMS Word
In MS-Word, which utility enables to send the same letter to multiple participants?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mail merge)
Mail Merge is a feature in MS Word that allows you to generate personalized letters or emails for multiple recipients using a single template and a data source.
Q190
💻 ComputerSoftware Types
Which of the following is not an application software?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Windows NT)
Windows NT is system software (Operating System), whereas Photoshop, Win Word, and Page Maker are application software packages.
Q191
💻 ComputerMS Word
In MS-Word, from which menu option can you access picture, text box and charts?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Insert)
In MS-Word, pictures, shapes, text boxes, and charts are accessed through the 'Insert' tab/menu.
Q192
💻 ComputerInternet and Emails
What is the full form of internet?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Interconnected Network)
The full form of Internet is Interconnected Network, representing a global system of interconnected computers.
Q193
💻 ComputerOperating Systems
Select the correct match:
- i) The processing time of this OS is consistent and predictable: 1. Real time OS - ii) This feature of Windows lets you check the performance of your computer: 2. Symbian - iii) This OS provides a GUI to the users: 3. Task manager - iv) This OS is specifically designed for mobile phones: 4. Interactive OS
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2)
Real-time OS has consistent processing times (i-1); Task manager checks system performance (ii-3); Interactive OS provides GUI (iii-4); Symbian was an early OS for mobile phones (iv-2). This matches i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2.
Q194
💻 ComputerNumber Systems
Consider four numbers as given below:
i) 100 measured in binary scale ii) 100 measured in octal scale iii) 100 measured in decimal scale iv) 100 measured in hexadecimal scale Select the correct ascending order of the above numbers.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Converting all to decimal (base 10): - i) Binary 1002=4 - ii) Octal 1008=64 - iii) Decimal 10010=100 - iv) Hexadecimal 10016=256 Ascending order: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q195
📝 EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below. As they navigated through the dense forest, they stumbled _____ an ancient ruin that was hidden beneath the overgrown vegetation.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (upon)
To 'stumble upon' something is a phrasal verb/preposition combination that means to discover something by chance.
Q196
📝 EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below. She walked _____ the bustling market, taking in the vibrant colors and enticing scents of fresh produce and spices.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (through)
To walk 'through' a location means to enter it and move to the other side or move around inside it, which fits a market context.
Q197
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
Who was the first Home Minister of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel)
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as the first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister of independent India from 1947 to 1950.
Q198
🌍 General AwarenessFamous Personalities
The Indian to beat the computers in mathematical wizardry is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Shakuntala Devi)
Shakuntala Devi was an Indian writer and mental calculator, popularly known as the 'Human Computer' for her capability to solve complex math problems rapidly.
Q199
🌍 General AwarenessLanguages of India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assam)
Bodo is an official language spoken mainly by the Bodo people in the state of Assam in Northeast India. It is also listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Q200
⚗️ ChemistryVitamins
Vitamin B Complex consists of how many vitamins?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
The Vitamin B complex consists of 8 distinct B vitamins: B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B3 (niacin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7 (biotin), B9 (folic acid), and B12 (cobalamin).
Q201
🌍 General AwarenessFamous Personalities
Who is often considered the "Father of Indian Cinema"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dadasaheb Phalke)
Dadasaheb Phalke (Dhundiraj Govind Phalke) is considered the Father of Indian Cinema, who made India's first full-length silent feature film, 'Raja Harishchandra' (1913).
Q202
🏛️ CivicsIndian Constitution
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 19)
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d) as a Fundamental Right.
Q203
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sarojini Naidu)
Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to become the Governor of an Indian state (United Provinces, now Uttar Pradesh) in independent India, from 1947 to 1949.
Q204
🏛️ CivicsPolitical Terms
What is a Junta?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Military group that takes control of the government)
A 'junta' (specifically a military junta) refers to a committee or group of military leaders who run a country, usually after taking power by force.
Q205
🛡️ Cyber ForensicsCybersecurity
Which territory has banned popular apps like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive from government computers due to cybersecurity concerns?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hong Kong)
In 2024, Hong Kong's Digital Policy Office directed government departments to block staff from accessing services like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive on office computers due to cybersecurity risks.
Q206
🌍 General AwarenessJ&K Heritage
Consider the following statements. I) Shri Raghunathji Mandir, Jammu is one of the largest temple complexs in Northern India. II) The temple was built in 1857 by Maharaja Hari Singh. Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I is correct)
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect because the Raghunath Temple complex construction was started by Maharaja Gulab Singh in 1853 and completed by Maharaja Ranbir Singh in 1860 (not by Maharaja Hari Singh, who ruled much later).
Q207
🏛️ CivicsJ&K History & Polity
Who became the first Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir after the title change from Prime Minister?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq)
Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq served as the last Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir and became the first Chief Minister of the state in 1965 after the designations were changed by the 6th Amendment.
Q208
🔢 MathArithmetic Puzzles
A stairway 10 ft. high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the top of the stairway?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (29 ft)
The total vertical steps = 10 / 0.5 = 20 steps. The ant climbs 20 risers (20 * 0.5 = 10 ft). However, it only moves forward for 19 steps because once it climbs the 20th riser, it is already at the top platform and does not need to walk forward. Total distance = 10 ft (vertical) + 19 ft (horizontal) = 29 ft.
Q209
🔢 MathProfit and Loss
A television manufacturer earns 20% profit by selling each T.V. set for Rs. 14400. If the production cost is increased by 15%, what should be the new selling price of a set so as to gain 15%?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 15870)
CP of TV = 14400 / 1.20 = Rs. 12000. New CP = 12000 1.15 = Rs. 13800. New SP for 15% profit = 13800 1.15 = Rs. 15870.
Q210
💻 ComputerData Units
Which of the following is the smallest unit of data in a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bit)
A bit (binary digit) is the smallest basic unit of data in computer science, representing either a 0 or a 1.
Q211
💻 ComputerSearch Engines
An example of an 'Internet search engine' is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Yahoo)
Yahoo is a web search engine, whereas Linux and Windows are Operating Systems, and MS Excel is an application spreadsheet software.
Q212
💻 ComputerNetwork Services
Which of the following service allows a user to log in to another computer somewhere on the Internet?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Telnet)
Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area network connections to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection.
Q213
💻 ComputerProtocols
The "S" in HTTPS stands for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secure)
In HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), the 'S' stands for 'Secure', indicating that the communications are encrypted using SSL/TLS.
Q214
💻 ComputerURL
What is the URL of a website?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is the location of website on internet)
A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is the unique address of a web resource (like a website) on the Internet.
Q215
💻 ComputerWeb Browsers
Which of these are web browsers?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of these)
Google Chrome, Internet Explorer, and Brave are all software applications used to access the World Wide Web (web browsers).
Q216
💻 ComputerProtocols
What does FTP stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (File Transfer Protocol)
FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol, a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client.
Q217
💻 ComputerHardware Components
Which of the following natural element is the primary element in computer chips?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Silicon)
Silicon is the primary semiconductor material used in the fabrication of computer microchips and integrated circuits.
Q218
💻 ComputerSoftware Types
Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (System Software)
System Software (like the Operating System) is designed to control and manage the hardware resources and basic operations of a computer system.
Q219
💻 ComputerCompilers
The compiler converts a program into
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Binary Language)
A compiler converts high-level programming code into machine language (binary language: 0s and 1s) that the CPU can execute directly.
Q220
💻 ComputerMS Excel
In MS-Excel, one can use the formula palette to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Select and edit formula containing functions)
The formula palette in MS Excel is used to help select, build, and edit formulas that contain complex mathematical and logical functions.
Q221
💻 ComputerOperating Systems
MS Windows is a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Operating system)
Microsoft Windows is a widely-used graphical operating system developed by Microsoft.
Q222
💻 ComputerWWW
World Wide Web is a standard maintained by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (W3C)
The standards and protocols for the World Wide Web are maintained by the World Wide Web Consortium, commonly abbreviated as W3C.
Q223
💻 ComputerCookies
A small text file created by a website that is stored in the user's computer is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (cookie)
A cookie is a small text file created by a website and stored on the user's computer by their web browser to remember user preferences or session state.
Q224
💻 ComputerCybersecurity
Select the correct match:
i. A type of program that is created with the purpose of causing damage, stealing data or abusing computer system resources is known as | 1. Privacy ii. means any email or communication that is intended to trick the recipient to disclose secret or sensitive information, such as password or account details | 2. Malware iii. Protecting an original invention from being sold or used by others for a specific period of time is known as | 3. Phishing iv. means your right to control your personal information and decide who can use the same | 4. Patents
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
Damaging software is Malware (i-2). Trick communication is Phishing (ii-3). Invention protection is Patents (iii-4). Control over personal information is Privacy (iv-1). This corresponds to i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
Q225
📝 EnglishOne Word Substitution
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.
Prohibited by law or treaty from being imported or exported
💡Correct Answer: Option A (contraband)
'Contraband' refers to goods that are banned by law or treaty from being imported or exported.
Q226
📝 EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank.
Everyone in this world is accountable to God _____ his actions.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (for)
The preposition 'for' is used after 'accountable' to indicate the thing/actions a person is responsible for. Thus, 'accountable to God for his actions'.
Q227
📝 EnglishOne Word Substitution
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.
A person who shows off his learning
💡Correct Answer: Option A (pedant)
A 'pedant' is a person who is excessively concerned with minor details and rules or who makes a showy display of academic learning.
Q228
📝 EnglishOne Word Substitution
Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
To express in an unclear way
💡Correct Answer: Option B (garbled)
'Garbled' means expressed in a confused, distorted, or unclear way. 'Eloquent', 'lucid', and 'intelligible' mean clear and well-expressed.
Q229
🏛️ CivicsIndian Constitution
The concept of the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Australian Constitution)
The concept of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the Constitution of Australia.
Q230
📡 Electronics & TelecomAmplitude Modulation
What will be the upper sideband and lower sideband frequencies for amplitude modulation of a 5-kHz signal with 40-KHz carrier frequency?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (45 kHz and 35 kHz, respectively)
Upper Sideband (USB) = fc + fm = 40 kHz + 5 kHz = 45 kHz. Lower Sideband (LSB) = fc - fm = 40 kHz - 5 kHz = 35 kHz.
Q231
📡 Electronics & TelecomAmplitude Modulation
The amplitude modulation signal without a carrier is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DSB-SC)
An amplitude modulated signal where the carrier is suppressed (removed) and both sidebands are transmitted is known as Double Sideband Suppressed Carrier (DSB-SC).
Q232
💻 ComputerComputer Hardware
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List - I: i. Monitor ii. CPU iii. Information
List - II: 1. Displays the information in the visual form 2. Processor for controlling and executing instructions 3. Processed data useful for the user
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3)
The correct matching is: Monitor displays visual info (i-1), CPU executes instructions (ii-2), and Information is processed data useful to the user (iii-3). This matches option A.
Q233
💻 ComputerStorage Devices
Which one of the following is not a type of magnetic storage system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Compact disk)
Magnetic tape, Hard disk, and Floppy disk use magnetic media. Compact Disk (CD) is an optical storage system that uses laser light to read and write data.
Q234
💻 ComputerInput Devices
Which of the following devices is NOT a media input device to a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of the above)
Microphone (audio input), Webcam (video input), and Digital Camera (image/video transfer input) are all input devices. Therefore, the answer is 'None of the above'.
Q235
💻 ComputerOperating Systems
The functions of operating systems are:
i. Process management ii. Memory management iii. File management iv. Device management
Choose the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii, iii, iv)
An operating system performs all of these tasks: process management, memory management, file system management, and device/hardware management.
Q236
💻 ComputerOutput Devices
Which of the following is not an output device?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Scanner)
Plotters, printers, and projectors are output devices. A scanner is an input device used to digitize physical images or documents.
Q237
💻 ComputerOffice Applications
Which of the following is a spreadsheet application program?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (MS Excel)
MS Excel is a spreadsheet application program. MS Access is a database management program, MS Word is a word processor, and MS-DOS is an operating system.
Q238
💻 ComputerComputer Hardware & Software
Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List - I: i. Operating System ii. Input Device iii. Output Device
Operating System handles security management (i-2), Input Device includes scanning devices (ii-1), and Output Device includes projectors (iii-3). This matches option C.
Q239
💻 ComputerShortcuts
Which one of the following is typed in the Run dialog box to access MS Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Winword)
'winword' or 'winword.exe' is the executable file name for Microsoft Word. Typing this in the Windows Run dialog box launches MS Word.
Q240
💻 ComputerInternet Services
________ is the widely used service of the ________ through which users can send and receive messages in an efficient way.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (E-mail, Internet)
E-mail (electronic mail) is a widely used service of the Internet that allows users to send and receive text, documents, and media messages efficiently.
Q241
💻 ComputerSearch Engines
What are the options available on the home page of the google.com search engine in a computer browser (e.g., Mozilla Firefox)?
I. Google Search II. I'm Feeling Lucky III. Search Text Box
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, III)
The Google homepage contains the search text box (III) in the center, and below it are two buttons: 'Google Search' (I) and 'I'm Feeling Lucky' (II).
Q242
⚛️ PhysicsElectromagnetism
Match the term in column-1 with its closest meaning in column-2:
Column-1: i. Lenz's law ii. Electric generator iii. High permeability iv. Reluctance
Column-2: 1. Application of electromagnetic induction 2. Polarity of induced voltage 3. Inversely proportional to permeability 4. Easily magnetized
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
The correct matching is: Lenz's law matches the polarity of induced voltage (i-2); Electric generator is an application of induction (ii-1); High permeability means easily magnetized (iii-4); Reluctance is inversely proportional to permeability (iv-3). This matches option A.
Q243
📡 Electronics & TelecomAmplitude Modulation
Consider the following statements:
Statement (I): In AM systems the modulation index (0 < m < 1) should be high. Statement (II): The higher the value of m, the greater the power in the sidebands.
Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I).)
In AM systems, the sideband power is given by Pc(m2/2). A higher modulation index 'm' increases the sideband power, leading to higher efficiency. Thus, statement II is true and is the correct explanation for statement I.
Q244
📡 Electronics & TelecomAmplitude Modulation
RF carrier 15 kV at 1 MHz is amplitude modulated and modulation index is 0.8. Find the peak voltage of the signal.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12 kV)
The peak voltage of the modulating signal alone is Vm=mimesVc=0.8imes15extkV=12extkV (Option B). Mathematically, the peak voltage of the combined modulated signal is 15imes(1+0.8)=27extkV, which is not in the choices, making 12 kV the intended correct option.
Q245
💻 ComputerFrequencies
Match List-X (Frequencies) with List-Y (Range) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-X: i. Audio Frequency (AF) ii. Intermediate Frequency (IF) iii. Radio Frequency (RF)
List-Y: 1. 3 kHz to 300 GHz 2. 20 Hz to 20 kHz 3. 10 MHz to 108 MHz
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 3, 1)
Audio Frequency (AF) is 20 Hz to 20 kHz (i-2). Intermediate Frequency (IF) for FM is typically 10.7 MHz, which fits the 10 MHz to 108 MHz range (ii-3). Radio Frequency (RF) is 3 kHz to 300 GHz (iii-1). This matches option C.
Q246
📡 Electronics & TelecomAmplitude Modulation
Fill in the blank. "The generation of single sideband suppressed carrier (SSB-SC) signal is done by ________ discrimination methods."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both A and B)
SSB-SC signals are commonly generated using either the frequency discrimination (filter) method or the phase discrimination (phase-shift) method.
Q247
💻 ComputerComposite Video
Which of the following is true about a composite video signal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It includes audio, colour, and sync information in one signal)
Although composite video actually combines luminance (brightness), chrominance (color), and sync pulses (but NOT audio), Option A is the standard intended answer in this exam's key (likely representing a common typographical error replacing 'luma/video' with 'audio').
Q248
💻 ComputerFrequencies
Match the following terms with their correct descriptions and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-X: i. VHF ii. UHF iii. HF iv. SHF
List-Y: 1. Commonly used for FM radio and TV channels 2. Used in cellular networks and TV broadcasting 3. Mainly used in amateur and shortwave radio 4. Often used in satellite communications
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3, 4)
The correct matching is: VHF - FM radio/TV (i-1); UHF - cellular/TV broadcasting (ii-2); HF - amateur/shortwave radio (iii-3); SHF - satellite communications (iv-4). This matches option D.
Q249
🌍 General AwarenessInternational Summits
The 18th Summit of G-20 was organized by India in New Delhi in 2023. Which country will organize the next Summit in the year 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Brazil)
Brazil hosted the 19th G-20 summit in Rio de Janeiro in November 2024.
Q250
🏛️ CivicsIndian Constitution
'Equal pay for equal work' has been ensured in the Indian Constitution as which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Directive Principle of State Policy)
Article 39(d) under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) of the Indian Constitution ensures equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Q251
💻 ComputerComputer Networks
What is the full form of HTTPS?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure)
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. It is the secure version of HTTP used to encrypt communications.
Q252
💻 ComputerProgramming Languages
Which of these computer languages do we use in Artificial Intelligence?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (PROLOG)
PROLOG (Programming in Logic) is widely used in artificial intelligence and computational linguistics.
Q253
💻 ComputerComputer Software
A program that converts assembly language to machine language is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assembler)
An assembler is a utility program that translates assembly language source code into machine language/object code.
Q254
💻 ComputerMS Excel
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the 'Number' type formatting of cells in MS-Excel 2007?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (30 is the maximum value for decimal places.)
In MS-Excel 2007, the maximum limit of decimal places you can format for a number cell is 30. The default value is 2.
Q255
💻 ComputerMS Word
What action is performed by pressing Ctrl+E in MS Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Align Center)
In MS Word, the keyboard shortcut Ctrl+E is used to align the selected text to the center.
Q256
💻 ComputerComputer History
Who was the founder of the Free Software Foundation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Richard Stallman)
Richard Stallman founded the Free Software Foundation (FSF) in October 1985 to support the free software movement.
Q257
🌍 General AwarenessEducation & Institutions
Which of the following universities has/have been established by an Act in the year 2016 in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both (A) and (B))
Both the Cluster University of Jammu and the Cluster University of Kashmir were established under the Srinagar and Jammu Cluster Universities Act, 2016.
Q258
🧩 ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship: Science, Physics, Economics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Physics inside Science, and Economics completely separate)
Physics is a branch of Science (drawn as a circle inside the larger Science circle). Economics is a separate social science (drawn as a completely disjoint circle).
Q259
💻 ComputerComputer Maintenance
If a computer system is malfunctioning, which of the following can be used to detect it?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (System diagnostics)
System diagnostics programs or tools are specifically designed to detect and diagnose hardware or software malfunctions in a computer system.
Q260
💻 ComputerIT Applications
Which of the following can be seen as evidence for the role of IT in e-Governance?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Smart City projects, Digilocker, and the UPI payment system are all primary examples of Information Technology facilitating governance and public services (e-Governance).
Q261
🔢 MathProfit & Loss
The owner sold an item at a loss of 20%. If the selling price was raised by 100, he would get a 5% profit. Find the original cost price.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (400)
Let CP be x. SP at 20% loss = 0.80x. If SP is raised by 100: 0.80x + 100 = 1.05x (CP with 5% profit) => 0.25x = 100 => x = 400. Thus, original cost is Rs. 400.
Q262
💻 ComputerALU & CPU Architecture
Which of the following is NOT a CPU/Processor architecture classification based on the way operands are input to the ALU?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Control Processing Unit)
ALU architectures based on input operands include Accumulator-based, Register-based, and Stack-based. Central/Control Processing Unit (CPU) is a hardware component containing the ALU, not an input classification.
Q263
💻 ComputerMS Powerpoint
What is the shortcut key to start a slide show in Microsoft PowerPoint?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Press F5)
F5 is the shortcut key used to start the slide show from the first slide in Microsoft PowerPoint.
Q264
💻 ComputerComputer Networks
PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network) is a classic example of which type of switching?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Circuit Switching)
The Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) is based on Circuit Switching, where a dedicated communication path is established between two nodes before data transmission.
Q265
🏗️ Civil EngineeringTitle Block Standards
The maximum length of title block can be
💡Correct Answer: Option C (170 mm)
According to IS 962:1989 guidelines for architectural and building drawings, the maximum recommended length of the title block is 170 mm (typically 170 mm × 65 mm) to ensure it remains visible when the drawing is folded.
Q266
💻 ComputerAutoCAD Commands
What is the shortcut for zoom command in AutoCAD?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
In AutoCAD, the zoom function can be executed by entering 'Z' (alias for ZOOM command) in the command line, typing the full 'ZOOM' command, or interactively rotating the mouse wheel.
Q267
💻 ComputerAutoCAD Interface
In AutoCAD, the nearest object snap (osnap) is indicated by which marker symbol?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Triangular hourglass symbol)
In AutoCAD, each object snap mode has a specific marker: endpoint is a square, midpoint is a triangle, center is a circle, and the nearest snap is represented by a triangular hourglass symbol.
Q268
🏗️ Civil EngineeringBuilding Planning
The term _______ is used to mean the external views as seen from certain rooms of the building.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prospect)
Prospect is a planning principle that refers to the external views as seen from certain windows or rooms of a building. Aspect refers to the orientation of walls to receive solar radiation and wind.
Q269
💻 ComputerInternet & Web
A program that looks through the internet for web pages on a particular topic is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Search engine)
A search engine (like Google, Bing, etc.) is a program designed to search for information on the World Wide Web based on user-entered keywords. A browser is the software client used to access these web pages.
Q270
💻 ComputerOperating System Commands
Which DOS command displays only file and directory names without size, date and time information?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dir/b)
The `/b` switch in the `dir` command (i.e. `dir /b`) stands for 'bare format'. It displays only the file/directory names without header, summary, file sizes, or time stamps.
Q271
💻 ComputerAutoCAD Concepts
What does UCS mean in the context of CAD drafting?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (User coordinate system)
In CAD systems like AutoCAD, UCS stands for User Coordinate System. It allows the user to define a custom X, Y, and Z coordinate system to make 2D drafting and 3D modeling easier.
Q272
💻 ComputerComputer Basics
The component of a computer system that provides visual interaction through icons and menus is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (GUI)
GUI stands for Graphical User Interface. It is a visual component of an operating system that allows users to interact with the computer using graphical icons, menus, and windows.
Q273
💻 ComputerOperating System Commands
Which command is used to display the Windows version in the Command Prompt?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (VER)
The `VER` command is used in the Windows Command Prompt (CMD) to display the current version of the operating system.
Q274
💻 ComputerAutoCAD Layers
Which of the following layers can be deleted from the Layer Properties Manager in AutoCAD?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Frozen layer not containing objects)
In AutoCAD, you cannot delete Layer 0, Defpoints, the current layer, or layers containing objects. However, you can delete a frozen or inactive layer that does not contain any drawing objects.
Q275
🏗️ Civil EngineeringBuilding Planning
Match the following building planning components with their descriptions: 1. Residential Building Planning - d. Regulations governing the layout, design, and construction of residential buildings. 2. Building Bylaws of Local Authorities - b. The rules and regulations set by local urban development authorities. 3. BIS Codes - c. National standards issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards. 4. Service Utilities in Dwelling House - a. Essential utilities such as water, electricity, and sewage. Choose the correctly matched option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a)
The correct matches are: Residential Planning (1-d), Local Bylaws (2-b), BIS Codes (3-c), Service Utilities (4-a). This corresponds to Option C.
Q276
💻 ComputerAutoCAD Commands
In AutoCAD, POL is the command used for drawing a polygon of minimum sides 3 and maximum sides of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1024)
In AutoCAD, the `POLYGON` (POL) command allows the user to draw regular polygons with a minimum of 3 sides and a maximum limit of 1024 sides.
Q277
🏗️ Civil EngineeringPlane Table Surveying
After fixing the plane table to the tripod, what is the correct sequence of operations needed at each plane table station?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((i), (iii), (ii))
At each plane table station, the operations must be performed in this strict sequence: 1) Levelling (making the table horizontal), 2) Centering (aligning the ground point with the paper point using a plumbing fork), and 3) Orientation (aligning the table along the magnetic north or previous line). This corresponds to sequence (i), (iii), (ii).
Q278
🏗️ Civil EngineeringBuilding Planning
_______ is a large open space located within a building. It is often used to light a central circulation or public area by daylight admitted through a glass roof or wall.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Atrium)
An Atrium is a large open-air or glass-covered space surrounded by a building, providing natural light and ventilation to the central circulation area.
Q279
💻 ComputerComputer Hardware
Which of the following is a computer storage device?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pen Drive)
A Pen Drive (USB flash drive) is a portable solid-state storage device. CPU is a processor, and Keyboard and Mouse are input devices.
Q280
💻 ComputerOperating Systems
Which of the following is NOT an Operating System?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Oracle)
Oracle is a multinational technology corporation known for its relational database management system (RDBMS), not an operating system. DOS, Linux, and Windows are operating systems.
Q281
💻 ComputerAutoCAD Interface
Origin of the AutoCAD drawing space is at which coordinate?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0,0)
The origin of the Cartesian coordinate system in AutoCAD drawing space is represented by the coordinate point (0,0) for 2D, or (0,0,0) for 3D.
Q282
🚗 AutomotiveSpeed Limits
Maximum speed of "N" category goods carriage vehicles, on 4 lanes divided carriageway of National Highway roads in India
💡Correct Answer: Option C (80 km/hr)
According to the speed limit notifications by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), the maximum speed for Category N (goods carriage) vehicles on 4-lane divided national highways is 80 km/hr.
Q283
🚗 AutomotiveIgnition Systems
What are the type of ignition system used in petrol engine?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Spark ignition)
Petrol engines use a spark plug to initiate the combustion process, which is why they are called Spark Ignition (SI) engines.
Q284
🧬 BiologyFish Nutrition
Exudative diathesis in fish is caused by deficiency of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Selenium and Vit E)
Exudative diathesis (accumulation of fluid under the skin/muscles) in fish is caused by a combined deficiency of Selenium and Vitamin E, which act together as antioxidants.
Q285
🧬 BiologyFish Nutrition
Bilateral central or sublenticular cataract in young salmonids is caused by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Zinc deficiency)
Zinc deficiency in young salmonids is a well-documented cause of bilateral cataracts (clouding of the eye lens), leading to reduced growth and feeding efficiency.
Q286
🧬 BiologyFish Nutrition
Which of the following statements are true? a. Wet feed has a moisture content of 18-45% b. Moist feed has a moisture content of 18-45% c. Sinking pellet feeds have a stability upto one hour d. Floating pellet have high protein content
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, c)
Statements b and c are true: moist feed has a moisture content of 18-45% (wet feed contains >45% moisture), and sinking pellets generally possess water stability up to 1-3 hours. Floating pellet buoyancy depends on density/extrusion, not protein content.
Q287
🧬 BiologyFish Nutrition
Which of the following statements are true? a. Phytase is a commonly used Enzyme additive in fish feed b. Antibiotics are live microbes supplemented to the fish gut through feed c. Prebiotics are non-digestible feed ingredients that selectively stimulate the activity of bacterial species already present in the gut d. Organic acids are used as additive in feed
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a, c, d)
Statements a, c, and d are correct. Phytase helps release phosphorus, prebiotics stimulate beneficial gut bacteria, and organic acids act as preservatives and gut acidifiers. Statement b is false because antibiotics are chemical agents that kill bacteria, whereas live microbes are probiotics.
Q288
🧬 BiologyFish Nutrition
Match the following to their formula: a. Food Conversion Ratio b. Protein efficiency ratio c. Feed efficiency ratio d. Net protein utilization
Formulas: 1. Weight gain / protein intake 2. Feed intake / weight gain 3. (Nitrogen retained / nitrogen absorbed) * 100 4. Weight gain / Feed taken
Matches: FCR = Feed Intake / Weight Gain (a:2); PER = Weight Gain / Protein Intake (b:1); FER = Weight Gain / Feed Taken (c:4); NPU = (Nitrogen Retained / Nitrogen Absorbed) * 100 (d:3). This matches Option B.
Q289
🧬 BiologyWater Quality
Brown blood disease in fishes are caused by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nitrite Toxicity)
Brown blood disease is caused by high levels of environmental Nitrite. Nitrite enters the fish's bloodstream and oxidizes hemoglobin to methemoglobin, which cannot bind oxygen and gives the blood a brown color.
Q290
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
Which Article of the Constitution of India details the procedure for amending the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 368)
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution of India grants power to Parliament to amend the Constitution and details the procedure for doing so.
Q291
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the constitution of which country?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ireland)
The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution).
Q292
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Vice-President of India)
According to Article 64 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q293
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
The Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (86th Amendment Act)
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a Fundamental Right.
Q294
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
How many Schedules were originally present in the Constitution of India when it was adopted in 1949?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8)
The Constitution of India originally had 8 schedules when adopted in 1949. Currently, there are 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
Q295
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The President of India)
Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
Q296
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 14)
Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
Q297
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
What is the minimum age required to contest elections for the Lok Sabha in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (25 years)
Article 84(b) of the Constitution of India provides that the minimum age to be eligible for election as a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years.
Q298
📝 EnglishOne Word Substitution
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who writes the story of his own life'
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Autobiographer)
A person who writes the story of their own life is an 'Autobiographer'. The work itself is an 'Autobiography'.
Q299
📝 EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'He is senior ________ me in service.'
💡Correct Answer: Option B (to)
Adjectives like senior, junior, superior, inferior, prior, etc., are followed by the preposition 'to' instead of 'than'.
Q300
📝 EnglishConditional Sentences
Fill in the blank with the appropriate conditional verb form: 'If it rains, we ________ the cricket match.'
💡Correct Answer: Option A (will cancel)
This is a Type 1 conditional sentence (present real). The structure is: If + Simple Present (it rains), simple future (we will cancel).
Q301
📝 EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'She is very good ________ English.'
💡Correct Answer: Option A (at)
We use 'good at' something (e.g., 'good at English', 'good at sports') to indicate skill or proficiency.
Q302
💻 ComputerComputer Hardware
Which of the following component is known as the 'brain' of the computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (CPU)
The CPU (Central Processing Unit) acts as the brain of the computer, executing instructions and processing data.
Q303
💻 ComputerInput & Output Devices
Which of the following devices is purely an input device?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Keyboard)
A keyboard is used to enter text and commands into the computer, making it an input device. Monitors, printers, and speakers are output devices.
Q304
💻 ComputerMemory Units
In terms of computer memory capacity, 1 Terabyte (TB) is equal to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1024 Gigabytes (GB))
In the binary system, 1 Terabyte (TB) is equal to 1024 Gigabytes (GB).
Q305
💻 ComputerKeyboard Shortcuts
Which function key is commonly used to refresh a web page or file explorer window in Windows?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (F5)
F5 is the standard shortcut key used to refresh or reload the active window or web page in Windows and web browsers.
Q306
💻 ComputerInternet & Networking
What does HTTP stand for in web technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol. It is the protocol used for transmitting web pages over the internet.
Q307
💻 ComputerComputer Memory
Which of the following is a type of volatile memory that loses its data when the computer is turned off?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (RAM)
RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory. ROM, HDDs, and SSDs are non-volatile as they retain their data even when power is turned off.
Q308
💻 ComputerFile Extensions
What is the full form of the document file extension 'PDF'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Portable Document Format)
PDF stands for Portable Document Format, developed by Adobe to present documents independent of application software, hardware, and operating systems.
Q309
💻 ComputerInternet & Networking
Which of the following protocol is used specifically for sending electronic mail (email)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (SMTP)
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the standard protocol used for sending/routing emails from one server to another.
Q310
💻 ComputerKeyboard Shortcuts
What is the keyboard shortcut to undo the last action in a Windows environment?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ctrl + Z)
The shortcut Ctrl + Z is used to undo the last action. Ctrl + Y is used to redo, Ctrl + X to cut, and Ctrl + U is often used for underline.
Q311
💻 ComputerComputer Hardware
Which term represents the physical, tangible parts of a computer system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hardware)
Hardware refers to the physical components of a computer, such as the motherboard, CPU, RAM, and storage devices. Software represents the instructions.
Q312
💻 ComputerOperating Systems
Which operating system is developed and sold by Apple Inc. for desktop computers and laptops?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (macOS)
macOS is Apple's proprietary graphical operating system designed specifically for its Mac computers.
Q313
💻 ComputerComputer Security
A software program designed to infiltrate, damage, or disable computer systems without the user's consent is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Malware)
Malware (short for malicious software) is any software intentionally designed to cause damage to a computer, server, client, or computer network.
Q314
💻 ComputerInternet & Networking
Which networking device is primarily used to connect multiple computer networks together and route data packets between them?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Router)
A router connects different networks (e.g., your home LAN to the internet) and routes data packets based on IP addresses, whereas a switch connects devices within a single network.
Q315
💻 ComputerMS Excel
In Microsoft Excel, which symbol must be typed first to start writing any formula or mathematical function?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (=)
All formulas and functions in Microsoft Excel must start with an equal sign (=).
Q316
💻 ComputerInput & Output Devices
Which of the following is an example of a non-impact printer?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Laser Printer)
Laser and Inkjet printers are non-impact printers because they do not hit the paper to print. Dot-matrix and daisy-wheel printers are impact printers.
Q317
🔢 MathProfit & Loss
A shopkeeper sells an article for Rs. 540 at a loss of 10%. At what price should he sell the article to gain 10%?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 660)
Selling Price (SP1) = Rs. 540 at 10% loss. This means SP1=90% of Cost Price (CP). 0.90×CP=540⟹CP=0.90540=600. To gain 10%, the new selling price (SP2) must be: SP2=1.10×CP=1.10×600=660.
Q318
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'پانی' کا ہم معنی (مترادف) لفظ کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (آب)
The synonym of 'Water' (پانی) in Urdu is 'Aab' (آب).
Q319
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
درج ذیل میں سے اسمِ معرفہ (خاص نام) کی نشاندہی کریں۔
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ہمالیہ)
A Proper Noun (اسمِ معرفہ) refers to a specific name. 'Himalayas' (ہمالیہ) is a specific mountain range, while others are common nouns.
Q320
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'دن' کا متضاد (ضد) کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (رات)
The antonym of 'Day' (دن) in Urdu is 'Night' (رات).
Q321
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
درج ذیل میں سے کون سا جملہ گرامر کے لحاظ سے درست ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (میں نے کتاب پڑھی ہے۔)
Since 'Kitab' (کتاب) is a feminine noun in Urdu, the verb agrees with it when transitive verb in past tense uses 'ne' (نے). Thus, 'Maine kitab padhi hai' is correct.
Q322
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'خوبصورت' کا متضاد (ضد) کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (بدصورت)
The antonym of 'Beautiful' (خوبصورت) in Urdu is 'Ugly' (بدصورت).
Q323
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
جملہ 'وہ گیا' میں لفظ 'وہ' قواعد (گرامر) کی رو سے کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ضمیر)
In the sentence 'Woh gaya' (He went), the word 'Woh' (He) is a Pronoun (ضمیر) because it replaces a noun.
Q324
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'استاد' کی جمع کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (اساتذہ)
The correct plural form of 'Teacher' (استاد) in Urdu is 'Asatiza' (اساتذہ).
Q325
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
کام کرنے والے شخص کو گرامر کی رو سے کیا کہتے ہیں؟
💡Correct Answer: Option C (فاعل)
In grammar, the doer of an action (Subject) is referred to as 'Faail' (فاعل).
Q326
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'تاریک' کا ہم معنی (مترادف) لفظ کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (اندھیرا)
The synonym of 'Dark' (تاریک) in Urdu is 'Andheera' (اندھیرا).
Q327
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
وہ جگہ جہاں تعلیم حاصل کی جاتی ہے، اسے کیا کہتے ہیں؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (مدرسہ)
The place where education is obtained is called 'Madrasa' (مدرسہ) or school.
Q328
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
درج ذیل الفاظ میں سے مؤنث لفظ کی نشاندہی کریں۔
💡Correct Answer: Option B (کاپی)
In Urdu, 'Copy' (کاپی) is treated as a feminine noun (مؤنث), while قلم, کاغذ, and خط are masculine (مذکر).
Q329
📖 UrduUrdu Literature
شاعرِ مشرق علامہ اقبال کا مزار کہاں واقع ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (لاہور)
The tomb of Allama Iqbal, the national poet of Pakistan, is located in Lahore near the Badshahi Mosque.
Q330
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'دوست' کا متضاد (ضد) کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (دشمن)
The antonym of 'Friend' (دوست) in Urdu is 'Enemy' (دشمن).
Q331
📖 UrduUrdu Literature
درج ذیل شعراء میں سے کس شاعر کو 'شاعرِ مشرق' کے لقب سے پکارا جاتا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (علامہ اقبال)
Allama Muhammad Iqbal is honored with the title 'Shair-e-Mashriq' (Poet of the East) for his influential poetry and philosophy.
Q332
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'عالم' (جاننے والا) کی صحیح جمع کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (علماء)
The correct plural of 'Alim' (scholar/knowledgeable person) in Urdu is 'Ulama' (علماء).
Q333
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'درخت' قواعد (گرامر) کی رو سے کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (اسمِ نکرہ (اسمِ عام))
'Darakht' (Tree) is a common noun (اسمِ نکرہ) in Urdu grammar because it refers to any general tree.
Q334
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'آزاد' کا متضاد (ضد) کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (غلام)
The antonym of 'Free' (آزاد) in Urdu is 'Slave' (غلام).
Q335
📖 UrduUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'کتاب' کی جمع کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option D (کتابیں اور کتب دونوں)
Both 'Kitabein' (کتابیں) and 'Kutub' (کتب) are valid plural forms of 'Kitab' (کتاب) in Urdu.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environmental lapse rate > Adiabatic lapse rate)
The atmosphere is considered unstable (superadiabatic) when the Environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is greater than the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR). In this state, a displaced rising parcel of air cools more slowly than the surrounding environment, remaining warmer and less dense, which promotes vigorous vertical mixing and rapid dispersion.
Q337
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal & Constitution
Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal? a. Article 24 b. Article 21 c. Article 48 A d. Article 51-A(g)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, c, and d)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act 2010 drawing inspiration from Article 21 (Right to a healthy environment), Article 48A (Duty of the State to protect the environment and forests), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental duty of citizens to protect nature). Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of child labour in factories.
Q338
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Pollutants & Methemoglobinemia
The chemical responsible for blue baby syndrome that is caused by restricted supply of oxygen to the brain is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nitrates)
Blue baby syndrome (infantile methemoglobinemia) is caused by the ingestion of drinking water with high concentrations of nitrates (NO3−). In an infant's digestive system, nitrates are reduced to nitrites (NO2−), which react with hemoglobin to form methemoglobin, severely reducing oxygen-carrying capability and turning the skin cyanotic (blue).
Q339
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyHeavy Metal Toxicity
The chemical responsible for Minamata disease
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mercury)
Minamata disease is a severe neurological toxic syndrome caused by methylmercury (CH3Hg+) poisoning. It was first identified in 1956 in Minamata Bay, Japan, resulting from the bioaccumulation of industrial mercury dumped into the marine ecosystem.
Q340
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityMembrane Filter Technique & Coliforms
On analysis for the coliform group using 3 samples of 10 mL, 50 mL and 500 mL by membrane filter technique the results obtained are: 10 mL portion- 5, 6, 7, 8, 9; 50 mL portion- 30, 35, 26, 36, 38; and 500 mL portion- 300, 380, 340, 360, 320. The number of coliforms per 100 mL is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (66)
In the standard membrane filter technique, the sample portion yielding colony counts in the ideal readable range (20–80 colonies) is chosen, which is the 50 mL portion. Average count for 50 mL =530+35+26+36+38=5165=33 colonies. Therefore, Coliform density per 100 mL=5033×100=66 colonies/100 mL.
Which of the following is NOT a regular standard for figuring out whether an EIA is necessary?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Potential economic benefits)
During the Screening stage of EIA, decision criteria focus strictly on environmental factors: project magnitude/scale, location in ecologically sensitive areas, and technical complexity. Potential economic benefits or commercial profit are socio-economic justifications and are NOT environmental criteria for mandating an EIA.
Q342
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyForestry Institutions in India
The Headquarters of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dehradun)
The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), an autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is headquartered at Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
Q343
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceRiver Basin Authorities & NGRBA
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is responsible for ________ duties.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Developmental and regulatory)
The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA, established in 2009 under the EPA) was vested with both developmental functions (planning, river conservation schemes) and regulatory functions (enforcing water quality standards and pollution control).
Q344
🛡️ Disaster ManagementDisaster Management Framework in India
Which of the following ministries serves as the central node for coordinating disaster management efforts for all natural disasters, with the exception of drought?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of Home Affairs)
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry at the national level for coordinating disaster management and relief for all natural disasters (floods, cyclones, earthquakes, tsunamis, landslides), with the sole exception of drought which is coordinated by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Q345
🛡️ Disaster ManagementTsunami Early Warning Institutions
International Tsunami Information Centre (ITIC) is located in
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Honolulu)
The International Tsunami Information Center (ITIC), established by UNESCO's Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) in 1965, is located in Honolulu, Hawaii, USA.
Under Section 14(1) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) is headed by the Chief Minister of the State as its ex-officio Chairperson (or Lieutenant Governor in UTs).
Q347
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Literature & History
The event that initiated the modern environmental movement is often associated with the publication of the book:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ("Silent Spring" by Rachel Carson)
Rachel Carson's groundbreaking 1962 book "Silent Spring" exposed the devastating ecological impacts of synthetic chemical pesticides like DDT on birds and ecosystems, catalyzing the modern global environmental movement.
The design period in wastewater treatment refers to the:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Expected operational lifespan of the treatment facility)
The design period of a wastewater treatment plant or civil engineering project is the future number of years for which the capacity and components are designed to adequately serve projected population and loads without major expansion (typically 15–30 years).
Q349
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityBiological Nitrogen Removal
Nitrification is a biological process that involves the conversion of:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ammonia to nitrite and nitrate)
Nitrification is a two-step aerobic biological process carried out by autotrophic bacteria: first, Ammonia (NH4+) is oxidized to Nitrite (NO2−) by Nitrosomonas, and second, Nitrite is oxidized to Nitrate (NO3−) by Nitrobacter.
Q350
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Quality Parameters: TSS
Total Suspended Solids (TSS) in water represent:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Particles that are retained by a filter)
Total Suspended Solids (TSS) is the dry weight of suspended non-filterable solid particles in a water sample that are retained by a standard glass fiber filter disc with a nominal pore size of 1.5μm to 2.0μm upon drying at 103∘C to 105∘C.
A high effluent Total Suspended Solids (TSS) level indicates:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (High solids content)
A high effluent TSS value signifies that the clarifier or filtration unit is failing to settle solids effectively, leading to a high concentration of particulate solids in the treated discharge water.
The ratio of sludge mass (lbs or kg) to the volume of sewage treated (gal or m³) is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sludge Loading Rate (SLR))
The ratio measuring sludge solids mass relative to sewage volumetric loading is described as the Sludge Loading Rate (SLR) or Solids Volumetric Yield.
Q353
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringMass Balance & Process Modeling
The performance of a wastewater treatment system is evaluated by comparing influent and effluent concentrations of pollutants. This comparison is done using:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mass balance analysis)
Mass balance analysis (conservation of mass principle: Mass In=Mass Out+Mass Accumulated−Mass Converted) is the fundamental analytical method used to evaluate removal efficiencies across wastewater treatment units.
Q354
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityAmmonia Toxicity in Aquatic Systems
Ammonia (NH3) in water can be harmful to aquatic life because it:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Is toxic at high concentrations)
Un-ionized ammonia (NH3) easily diffuses across the gill membranes of fish and aquatic organisms, where even low concentrations (>0.05 mg/L) induce cellular damage, disrupt internal organ function, reduce growth, and cause mortality.
Q355
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityMicrobial Indicators & Disinfection
The presence of fecal coliform bacteria in effluent indicates:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Inadequate disinfection)
Fecal coliforms (E. coli) serve as indicator microorganisms for human/warm-blooded animal intestinal pathogen contamination. Their presence in final effluent indicates inadequate or malfunctioning chlorination/UV disinfection.
Q356
🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetyWorkplace Safety Audits
Safety audits help in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Enhancing occupational health and safety standards)
Safety audits systematically review workplace operations, identify potential hazards, evaluate legal compliance, and enhance occupational health and safety (OHS) performance standards.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Minimize the impact of major emergencies and disasters)
Disaster management plans structure preparedness, rapid response, resource mobilization, and recovery strategies to minimize loss of life, injury, and structural damage from major disasters.
Q358
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Measurements
Consider the following pairs: a. AQI | 1. ppm b. Discharge | 2. Litre c. Turbidity | 3. m³/s d. Conductivity | 4. Unitless Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-3, c-1)
Air Quality Index (AQI) is a dimensionless unitless scale (a-4); river discharge is measured in volumetric flow rate (m3/s or cumecs) (b-3); and Turbidity on standard silica scale is expressed in ppm (or NTU) (c-1).
Q359
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChlorination & Chloramines Formation
Consider the following statements: a. In the disinfection process chloramine compounds are formed in water. b. In the sedimentation process chloramine compounds are formed in water. c. In the filtration process chloramine compounds are formed in water. d. In the skimming process chloramine compounds are formed in water. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (ONLY-a)
Statement (a) is correct: During water disinfection with combined chlorine (chloramination), chlorine (HOCl) reacts with ammonia (NH3) in water to form chloramines (NH2Cl,NHCl2,NCl3) that provide long-lasting residual disinfection.
Q360
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityIS 10500 Water Standards: Fluoride & Coliforms
Consider the following statements: a. Maximum permissible limit of Fluorides in drinking water is 1.5 ppm b. E-coli is helpful for water purification. c. Coliform group bacteria always found in colonies. d. Maximum permissible limit of Fluorides in drinking water is 0.5 ppm Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a and c)
Statement (a) is correct: According to Indian Standard IS 10500 and WHO guidelines, the maximum permissible limit of Fluoride in drinking water in the absence of an alternate source is 1.5 ppm (1.5 mg/L). Statement (c) is correct: Coliform bacteria form visible colonies on growth media (like agar plates).
Consider the following statements: a. Grit represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater. b. Chloramine represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater. c. Ammonia represents the purity of water. d. Plankton represents the fully treated wastewater. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY-a)
Statement (a) is correct: Grit refers to the heavier, non-putrescible inorganic mineral matter (such as sand, gravel, eggshells, and silt) with specific gravity >2.0 present in wastewater.
Q362
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChemical Reagents in Water Analysis
Consider the following pairs: a. NGT | 1. pH experiment b. Alum | 2. Chloride content experiment c. AgNO3 | 3. Coagulant d. HNO3 | 4. Peroxyacetyl nitrate Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b-3, c-2)
Alum (aluminum sulfate) is a standard chemical Coagulant (b-3), and Silver Nitrate (AgNO3) is the standard titrant used in Mohr's argentometric method to determine chloride content in water using potassium chromate indicator (c-2).
Q363
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitySewage Physical & Chemical Characteristics
Consider the following pairs: a. Dilution | 1. Black in colour b. Septic sewage | 2. Brown in colour c. Neutral | 3. Green in colour d. EPA | 4. pH = 07 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b-1, c-4)
Septic sewage turns dark grey to Black in color due to the formation of metal sulfides (such as ferrous sulfide, FeS) under anaerobic conditions (b-1), and a chemically Neutral solution is defined by a pH=7 at 25∘C (c-4).
Q364
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitySolids Classification in Water
Consider the following statements: a. Dissolved solid = Total solid + Suspended solid b. Dissolved solid = Total solid - Suspended solid c. Total solid = Dissolved solid / Suspended solid d. Dissolved solid = Suspended solid - Total solid Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY-b)
Total Solids (TS) in water is the sum of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) and Total Suspended Solids (TSS): TS=TDS+TSS. Therefore, Dissolved Solids=Total Solids−Suspended Solids. Statement (b) is correct.
Q365
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitypH, pOH & Hydrogen Ion Concentration
What is the concentration of [H+] ions in water sample of pOH=06∘?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($10^{-8}\text{ moles/L}$)
At 25∘C, pH+pOH=14. Given pOH=6, we find pH=14−6=8. Since pH=−log10[H+], the hydrogen ion concentration is [H+]=10−pH=10−8 moles/L.
Q366
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBiological Diversity Act 2002
Consider the following statements: a. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2002. b. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2010. c. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1996. d. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1977. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY- a)
The Biological Diversity Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in the year 2002 to preserve biological diversity, ensure sustainable use of its components, and secure equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
Q367
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityIS 10500 & Water Hardness
Consider the following pairs: a. COD | 1. Sanitary plumbing code b. IS 10500 | 2. Hardness of water c. CaCO3 | 3. 05 days d. NaOH | 4. Drinking water specification standards Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b-4, c-2)
IS 10500 is the official Bureau of Indian Standards specification for Drinking Water (b-4), and water Hardness is conventionally expressed in terms of Calcium Carbonate equivalent, mg/L as CaCO3 (c-2).
Q368
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityHeavy Metal Drinking Water Limits
What is acceptable limit of Mercury in drinking water?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.001 mg/L)
According to Indian Standard Drinking Water Specification (IS 10500:2012), the acceptable limit for total Mercury (Hg) in drinking water is 0.001 mg/L (1 ppb or 0.001 ppm).
Q369
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWastewater Treatment Units & Functions
Consider the following pairs: a. ASP | 1. Oil and Grease removal from sewage b. Fungi | 2. Type of coliform c. H2S | 3. Secondary treatment method d. Skimming tank | 4. Healthy mineral in drinking water Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, d-1)
Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is a widely used Secondary aerobic biological treatment method (a-3), and a Skimming Tank is a preliminary wastewater treatment unit designed to float and remove Oil and Grease (d-1).
Q370
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChlorine Residual Testing Methods
Consider the following statements: a. Orthotolidine indicator is used to determine residual chlorine content in water. b. Orthotolidine indicator is used to determine MPN count for E-coli. c. Orthotolidine is the strong acid. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ONLY-a)
Statement (a) is correct: The Orthotolidine test (OT test) utilizes the orthotolidine colorimetric reagent to react with free and combined residual chlorine in water, producing a yellow holoquinone color measured against standard comparator tubes.
Q371
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityCarbonate Equilibria & Alkalinity Forms
At what pH value there is only bicarbonate alkalinity remain present in the water?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Below 8.3)
In aqueous carbonate equilibria, at a pH below 8.3 (phenolphthalein end-point, P=0), carbonate (CO32−) and hydroxide (OH−) alkalinities are negligible, and total alkalinity is entirely comprised of bicarbonate ions (HCO3−).
Q372
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Treatment Units: Imhoff Tank
Which of the following is an ANAEROBIC process for treating sewage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Imhoff tank)
An Imhoff tank is a two-story anaerobic digestion unit consisting of an upper flow-through sedimentation chamber and a lower anaerobic digestion compartment where settled solids undergo anaerobic decomposition without oxygen.
Q373
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityBOD Test Procedure & Calculation
Arrange the following laboratory test procedure in the correct sequence to determine BOD5 of sewage sample. 1. Incubation of diluted sewage sample for 05 days in BOD incubator 2. (D.O. depletion) X Dilution factor 3. Present day initial D.O. 4. 5th day final D.O.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3, 1, 4, 2)
The standard 5-day BOD test sequence is: 3. Measure initial Dissolved Oxygen (DO0) on day 0 → 1. Incubate diluted sample in the dark at 20∘C for 5 days → 4. Measure final Dissolved Oxygen (DO5) on the 5th day → 2. Calculate BOD5=(DO0−DO5)×Dilution Factor.
Q374
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityToxic Heavy Metals: Arsenic Limits
What is acceptable limit of Arsenic in drinking water?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.01 mg/L)
According to Indian Standard IS 10500:2012 and WHO guidelines, the acceptable limit for toxic Arsenic (As) in drinking water is 0.01 mg/L (10 ppb). (The permissible limit in the absence of an alternate source is 0.05 mg/L).
Q375
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Quality Testing Apparatus
Consider the following statements: a. To measure the colour of water sample Nessler tubes is used. b. To measure the turbidity of water sample Secchi disk is used. c. To measure the odour of water sample litmus paper is used. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a and b)
Statements (a) and (b) are correct: Nessler tubes are matched on the platinum-cobalt scale to measure true Color, and a Secchi disk is used in limnology/water bodies to measure water clarity and Turbidity. Statement (c) is incorrect because Odour is measured using an Osmoscope / Threshold Odor Number (TON), whereas litmus paper measures pH.
Q376
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Parameters
Consider the following pairs: a. Unit of turbidity of water | 1. Tesla b. Unit of specific conductivity of water | 2. AQI c. AgNO3 | 3. NTU d. BOD | 4. Siemen Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, b-4)
The standard modern unit of Turbidity is Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) (a-3), and the unit of electrical Specific Conductivity of water is Siemens per meter (S/m or μS/cm) (b-4).
Q377
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityPotable Water Standards & Characteristics
Consider the following pairs: a. pH of potable water | 1. Chemical characteristic of water b. Domestic water demand | 2. Physical characteristic of water c. Pathogens | 3. 6.5-8.5 d. BOD | 4. 7 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, d-1)
According to IS 10500, the acceptable pH of potable drinking water is 6.5 to 8.5 (a-3), and Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the Chemical/Biological oxygen requirement characterizing water (d-1).
Q378
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Quality Parameters & Chemical Formulas
Consider the following pairs: a. NGT — 1. Ferroin indicator b. Blue baby disease — 2. Nitric acid c. CO2 — 3. Excessive Nitrates d. HNO3 — 4. Peroxyacetyl nitrate Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b-3, d-2)
Blue baby syndrome (methemoglobinemia) is caused by Excessive Nitrates in drinking water (b-3), and HNO3 is the chemical formula for Nitric acid (d-2).
Q379
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringNitrogen Forms & Sewage Freshness
Which form of nitrogen in sewage indicates that the decomposition of nitrogenous organic matter impurity has just started in the wastewater?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ammonia)
In sanitary engineering, Free Ammonia (ammoniacal nitrogen) indicates recent pollution and the initial onset of organic decomposition. Albuminoidal nitrogen represents undecomposed organic nitrogen, Nitrites (NO2−) indicate ongoing active decomposition, and Nitrates (NO3−) indicate fully stabilized past pollution.
Q380
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitypH Scale & Chlorination Chemistry
Consider the following statements: a) 7.0 pH value has most efficient disinfection by chlorination. b) 7.0 pH is low alkaline. c) 7.0 pH is high acidic. d) 14 pH is high alkaline. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a and d)
Statements (a) and (d) are correct: Around neutral pH (~7.0–7.5), chlorine exists predominantly as hypochlorous acid (HOCl), providing rapid and potent germicidal disinfection without causing excessive eye/skin irritation. On the standard pH scale (0 to 14), a pH of 14 represents maximum alkalinity.
Q381
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityDisinfection Chemistry: HOCl
Which among the following is responsible for disinfection of germs and bacteria?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (HOCl)
Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) is the active germicidal chemical form of free residual chlorine that rapidly penetrates microbial cell walls and destroys cellular enzymes.
Q382
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Quality Parameters: Turbidity
Which among the following causes turbidity in water?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Suspended Solids)
Turbidity (cloudiness or haziness in water) is caused by individual non-settling suspended solids, fine clay, silt, colloidal matter, and micro-particles that scatter and absorb light rays.
Q383
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityPhysical vs Chemical Water Parameters
Which among the following is NOT a physical characteristic?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (pH)
pH is a Chemical characteristic of water measuring hydrogen ion activity (−log10[H+]). Color, Odour, Temperature, and Turbidity are Physical characteristics.
Q384
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityThreshold Odour Number (TON) Standards
What is the acceptable range for threshold odour number?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-3 threshold odour number)
Under Indian Standard Drinking Water Specifications (IS 10500), the acceptable limit for Threshold Odour Number (TON) is 1, and the permissible limit in the absence of an alternate source is up to 3 TON.
Q385
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitypH and pOH Calculations
The concentration of [OH−] ion in a water sample is measured as 17 mg/L at 25 degrees Celsius. What is the pH of water sample?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (11)
Molecular weight of [OH−]=17 g/mol=17,000 mg/mol. Molarity of [OH−]=17,000 mg/mol17 mg/L=10−3 mol/L. Therefore, pOH=−log10[OH−]=−log10(10−3)=3. Since pH+pOH=14, pH=14−3=11.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Environmental Impact Assessment)
EIA stands for Environmental Impact Assessment, a formal planning and decision-making process used to predict and evaluate the environmental consequences of a proposed development project.
Q387
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Filtration & Treatment Units
Consider the following pairs: a. Gravity filter — 1. Inorganic material b. Grit — 2. Slow sand filter c. Carbohydrate — 3. Pressure filter d. Viscosity — 4. KVA Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-2, b-1)
A Slow sand filter is a classic Gravity Filter operating under atmospheric hydrostatic head (a-2), and Grit is composed of inorganic mineral materials like sand and gravel (b-1).
Q388
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Regulatory Framework in India
Which of the following is NOT the key environmental regulatory authority in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Department of Environment (DOE))
The primary statutory environmental regulatory authorities in India are MoEFCC, CPCB, and SPCBs. The historical 'Department of Environment' was merged into the full-fledged Ministry (MoEFCC) in 1985.
Q389
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePublic Liability Insurance Act 1991
Which victim of an accident is liable for Public Liability Insurance act-1991?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Handling hazardous substances)
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 was enacted to provide immediate relief to persons affected by accidents occurring while handling hazardous substances on a no-fault liability basis.
Q390
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityHeavy Metal Standards: Lead
What is acceptable limit of Lead in drinking water?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($0.01\text{ mg/L}$)
According to Indian Standard Drinking Water Specification (IS 10500:2012) and WHO guidelines, the acceptable limit for Lead (Pb) in drinking water is 0.01 mg/L (10 ppb).
Q391
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Chemistry & Odors
Consider the following statements: a) The smell of hydrogen sulphide is like a rotten egg in wastewater. b) Presence of algae in water increases alkalinity of water. c) Alkali salts are used to balance pH of acidic water. d) Hydrogen sulphide is odourless gas. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a, b and c)
Statements (a), (b), and (c) are correct: Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) produces a characteristic rotten egg odor, algal photosynthesis removes dissolved CO2 which shifts bicarbonate equilibria and increases water pH/alkalinity, and alkaline salts (like lime or soda ash) neutralize acidic water.
Q392
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyAir Quality Index (AQI) Color Codes
Which colour of AQI indicates good air condition?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Green)
In the National Air Quality Index (AQI) color-coding system, Green corresponds to 'Good' air quality (AQI score 0–50) with minimal health impact.
Q393
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityDisinfection By-Products (DBPs)
When chlorine reacts with organic matters what does it form?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DBP)
When free chlorine reacts with natural organic matter (NOM) like humic and fulvic acids in raw water, it forms Disinfection By-Products (DBPs) such as trihalomethanes (THMs) and haloacetic acids (HAAs).
Q394
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityAcidity, Neutrality & pH Scale
Consider the following pairs: a. H+=OH− — 1. pH=04 b. Total solids experiment — 2. 05 Hrs c. Acidic nature — 3. 30min d. Potable water — 4. pH=07 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-4, c-1)
When [H+]=[OH−], the solution is neutral with pH=7 (a-4), and an Acidic nature corresponds to a low pH<7 such as pH=4 (c-1).
Q395
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityTotal Suspended Solids (TSS) Testing
Where Whatman's filter paper is used?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To determine total suspended solids)
Whatman glass microfiber filter paper (such as Grade 934-AH or Whatman 40/42) is used in laboratory gravimetric analysis to filter and determine Total Suspended Solids (TSS) in water samples.
Plankton refers to the diverse collection of microscopic drifting organisms inhabiting water bodies, categorized into phytoplankton (microscopic photosynthetic plants/algae) and zooplankton (microscopic animals).
Q397
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRamsar Convention International Partners
Which of the following are Partners of Ramsar Convention? 1. International Union for conservation of Nature 2. Birdlife International 3. International Water Management Institute 4. Wildfowl and Wetlands Trust Select the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands has six International Organization Partners (IOPs): IUCN, BirdLife International, International Water Management Institute (IWMI), Wetlands International, Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT), and WWF. All four listed are official partners.
Q398
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCPCB Constitution & Water Act
In constitution of central board for prevention and control of water pollution how many persons are nominated by government, which represents the companies or corporation owned, controlled or managed by central government.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
Under Section 3(2)(c) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Central Government nominates not more than three persons to represent corporations/companies owned, controlled, or managed by the Central Government.
Q399
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityEDTA Titration & Water Hardness
For determining the hardness in water sample, which among the following is used as a titrant:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (EDTA)
Disodium EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is the standard chelating titrant used with Eriochrome Black T (EBT) indicator at pH 10 to determine total hardness in water.
Q400
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNational Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
What is the principal aim of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)? 1. NCAP was launched in January, 2019 with an aim to improve air quality in 131 non-attainment cities. 2. To attain a 20-30% reduction solely in PM2.5 levels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)
Statement 1 is correct: NCAP was launched in January 2019 covering non-attainment cities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the target was a 20–30% reduction in both PM10 and PM2.5 concentrations (not solely PM2.5).
Criteria for plantation at landfill sites should be: 1. Locally adopted non edible perineal plants that are resistant to drought and extreme temperature. 2. The selection of plants should be of such variety that their root does not penetrate more than 30 cms. This condition shall apply till landfill is stabilized. 3. Selected plants shall have ability to thrive on low nutrients soil with minimum nutrient addition. 4. Plantation to be made in sufficient density to minimize soil erosion.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
All four criteria (1, 2, 3, and 4) are standard technical guidelines under municipal solid waste landfill capping rules to prevent root puncture of the barrier membrane while stabilizing topsoil against erosion.
Q402
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityHeavy Metal Toxicity: Chromium Species
Which state of chromium is more toxic?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($\text{Cr}^{6+}$)
Hexavalent chromium (Cr6+) is highly mobile, strong oxidizing, highly toxic, mutagenic, and a known human carcinogen compared to trivalent chromium (Cr3+), which is an essential nutrient with low toxicity.
Q403
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityIdeal Disinfectant Characteristics
Consider the following statements: 1. A good disinfectant must be toxic to microorganisms at concentrations well below the toxic thresholds to humans. 2. It should have fast rate of killing. 3. Should be persistent enough to prevent regrowth of organisms in distribution system. 4. At low concentrations, chlorine kills the microorganisms by oxidizing the cell wall. Choose the correct:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4 only)
All statements (1, 2, 3, and 4) accurately describe the properties of ideal municipal water disinfectants and the physiological mechanism of chlorine disinfection.
Q404
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityAir Quality Monitoring Instruments
Which method is used for the analysis of NO2 in ambient air?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chemiluminescence)
Gas-phase Chemiluminescence (measuring light emitted when nitric oxide reacts with ozone: $NO + O_3 → NO_2^* + O_2 → NO_2 + h u)isthestandardreferencemethodformonitoringNO_2andNO_x$ in ambient air.
Which of the following is not included in National Air Quality Index (NAQI)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Carbon Dioxide)
The 8 pollutants monitored in India's National AQI are PM10,PM2.5,NO2,SO2,CO,O3,NH3, and Pb. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas, NOT one of the criteria NAQI pollutants.
Q406
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyMontreux Record & Ramsar Wetlands
With reference to the Montreux Protocol which of the statement is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is a register of wetland sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur as result of human intervention.)
The Montreux Record (under Ramsar Convention) is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where adverse ecological changes have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or human interference.
Q407
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNAAQS Air Quality Sampling Protocol
Annual average for air pollution means total of........ measurements in a year.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (104 (twice weekly))
In National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), an annual average calculation requires a minimum of 104 measurements taken over 24 hours twice a week at uniform intervals throughout the year.
Q408
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyWHO Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs)
WHO guideline values for ambient air concentration of PM2.5 and PM10 in annual average scale, in μg/m3 are respectively:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (05, 15)
Under the updated WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines (2021), the recommended annual mean concentrations are 5μg/m3 for PM2.5 and 15μg/m3 for PM10.
Q409
📜 Environmental Law & Governance42nd Constitutional Amendment & Environment
Which amendment explicitly incorporated Article 48-A and 51-A (g) into the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
The landmark 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Article 48A (Directive Principle directing the State to protect and improve the environment) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty of citizens).
Q410
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceLandfill Siting Buffer Distances
According to Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, a landfill site should be how many meters away from a river?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (100 m)
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, a sanitary landfill site must be located at a minimum buffer distance of 100 meters away from any river or water body.
In nitrogen cycle, elemental nitrogen returned to the atmosphere by the following process:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Denitrification process)
Denitrification is the anaerobic biological process carried out by bacteria (such as Pseudomonas and Paracoccus) that converts nitrates (NO3−) and nitrites (NO2−) back into dinitrogen gas (N2), returning elemental nitrogen to the atmosphere.
Q412
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityPhosphorus Analysis Methods
Which method is commonly employed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for estimating phosphorus levels in water samples?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Spectrophotometric analysis using the ascorbic acid method)
The standard US EPA and Standard Methods procedure for determining dissolved and total phosphorus is the automated or manual Ascorbic Acid Colorimetric Method, where orthophosphate reacts with ammonium molybdate and antimony potassium tartrate to form a phosphomolybdenum blue complex measured spectrophotometrically at 880 nm.
The word 'smog' was originally coined by Dr. H.A. Des Voeux as a portmanteau of Smoke and Fog, describing heavy atmospheric pollution formed by particulate smoke combining with damp fog.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Variety of living organisms in a specific region)
Biodiversity (biological diversity) refers to the totality of variety, richness, and variability among all living organisms from all ecological niches, including diversity within species (genetic), between species (species), and of ecosystems.
The estimated design period for sewage treatment facility typically ranges from
💡Correct Answer: Option C (20-30 years)
Under standard CPHEEO civil and environmental engineering guidelines, sewage treatment facilities and secondary treatment structures are designed for a 20 to 30 year operational design horizon based on projected population growth.
Q416
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityTypes of BOD: CBOD & NBOD
How many types of biological oxygen demand (BOD) is present in water?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2)
There are 2 primary types of BOD exerted during wastewater stabilization: (1) Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (CBOD) due to the oxidation of organic carbon compounds, and (2) Nitrogenous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (NBOD) due to the nitrification of ammonia.
Q417
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityCOD Definition & Units
The unit of COD present in wastewater is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{mg/L}$)
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is defined as the mass of equivalent oxygen required to chemically oxidize all organic compounds per unit volume of water, expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L or ppm).
Q418
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityBiochemical Oxygen Demand Concept
The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of a wastewater is a measure of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Amount of oxygen required by bacteria to decompose the organic matter in the wastewater)
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the empirical measure of the quantity of dissolved oxygen utilized by aerobic microorganisms during the biochemical oxidation and decomposition of biodegradable organic matter in water.
The nitrification process is controlled by temperature and
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Solids Retention time (SRT))
Nitrifying autotrophic bacteria (Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter) have slow growth rates; therefore, maintaining an adequate Solids Retention Time (SRT or Sludge Age) alongside appropriate temperature is the critical design control to prevent nitrifiers from being washed out.
A town with a population of 60,000 has a daily sewage discharge of 1000 m3. What is the per capita sewage discharge for the town?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($0.016\text{ m}^3/\text{day}$)
Per capita daily sewage discharge =PopulationTotal Daily Discharge=60,0001000 m3/day=601≈0.0166 m3/person/day. Option A (0.016 m3/day) is correct.
Q421
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringComposition of Sewage
What percentage of solids does wastewater usually have?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.1%)
Typical municipal raw wastewater is composed of approximately 99.9% water and only about 0.1% (1000 mg/L) total solids (both dissolved and suspended combined).
Q422
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringUnit Operations vs Unit Processes
Which of the following is NOT a unit operation in wastewater treatment?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Activated sludge process)
In chemical/environmental engineering, 'Unit Operations' refer to physical separation methods (screening, sedimentation, aeration, equalization, filtration). The Activated Sludge Process is a biological 'Unit Process' (involving biochemical conversions), NOT a unit operation.
Defining the Roles and Responsibilities comes under which stage of an Environmental Management Plan (EMP)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environmental Management Strategies)
Within the Environmental Management Plan (EMP), the organizational framework and institutional structure detailing administrative roles, responsibilities, and allocation of personnel is established under Environmental Management Strategies.
Q424
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyGIS Site Suitability in EIA
How does GIS assist in identifying potential impacts during site selection in EIA for industries?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Integrating land use data to locate sensitive habitats and ecosystems.)
GIS assists environmental site selection by integrating multi-layered spatial data (topography, land-use zoning, hydrology, wildlife corridors, and proximity to protected forests and populated settlements) to identify ecologically sensitive constraints.
Q425
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Clearance Validity
According to the EIA Notification 2006, what is the maximum duration for which environmental clearance for a project under Category A is valid?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (10 years)
Under the EIA Notification 2006 (as amended by MoEFCC in 2022), the prior Environmental Clearance (EC) granted for Category A developmental projects is valid for a maximum duration of 10 years (and up to 30/50 years for mining).
Q426
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir Act: Emission Limits
Under The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, which term refers to the maximum amount of pollutants that a particular source is allowed to emit over a specific period?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Emission limit)
An 'Emission Limit' (or emission standard) specifies the legal maximum permissible rate, mass, or concentration of pollutants that a specific industrial stack or source is legally allowed to discharge.
Q427
🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetyIndustrial Safety Audits
Safety audits in industrial units primarily focus on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ensuring compliance with safety regulations and protocols)
Industrial safety audits systematically verify whether workplace facilities, machinery, and procedures comply with statutory occupational health and safety regulations and internal hazard prevention protocols.
Q428
🌍 General KnowledgeUnited Nations & International Bodies
What does ECOSOC stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Economic and Social Council)
ECOSOC stands for the Economic and Social Council, one of the six principal organs of the United Nations responsible for coordinating the economic, social, and environmental fields.
Q429
🗺️ GeographyLakes & Wetlands of India
Which is the largest freshwater lake in Bihar?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kanwar Taal Lake)
Kanwar Taal (or Kabar Taal Lake in Begusarai district, Bihar) is Asia's largest freshwater oxbow lake and Bihar's first declared Ramsar site.
Q430
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionConstitutional History & 1947 Act
Which of the following statements about the Indian Independence Act of 1947 is false?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (This Act leads to the establishment of the Constituent Assembly of India.)
Statement B is false because the Constituent Assembly of India was formed earlier in November/December 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, NOT under the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
Q431
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Duties & Amendments
Which constitutional amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
Fundamental Duties (Article 51A in Part IVA) were incorporated into the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee via the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
Q432
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionEmergency Provisions & Fundamental Rights
Which Article of the Indian constitution describes the effect of a national emergency on fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Articles 358 and 359)
Articles 358 (automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19) and 359 (suspension of the enforcement of other fundamental rights except Articles 20 and 21) describe the effect of a National Emergency on fundamental rights.
Which of the following statements regarding Dugongs - marine mammals is/are correct? 1. The warm coastal waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans are home to dugongs. 2. Dugongs typically measure between 2.2 to 3.4 meters (7 to 11 feet) in length and weigh around 230 to 420 kg (500 to 925 pounds). 3. Males possess tusk-like incisors, while both male and female adults frequently exhibit sets of parallel scars on their backs, often resulting from mating attempts or fighting.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 3 only)
All statements (1, 2, and 3) are factually correct. Dugongs (sea cows) inhabit shallow coastal Indo-Pacific waters, are herbivorous marine mammals measuring 2.2–3.4 m, and mature males grow tusk-like incisors.
Q434
📜 History of Jammu & KashmirKarkota Dynasty & Lalitaditya
Who among the following is known as the "Samudra Gupta of Kashmir" due to his significant rule during the Karkota dynasty between 724-761 A.D.?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lalitaditya Muktapid)
King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty is celebrated as the "Samudragupta of Kashmir" for his extensive military conquests across northern and central Asia and for constructing the magnificent Martand Sun Temple.
Q435
📜 History of Jammu & KashmirMonuments & Heritage of J&K
In which district is Martand Sun Temple located?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The 8th-century Martand Sun Temple, built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida, is located near Mattan in the Anantnag district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q436
🌱 Agriculture & Horticulture of J&KWalnut & Fruit Varieties of J&K
Which of the following is not a variety of walnuts?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raktsey Karpo)
Kagzi, Sulaiman, and Burzil are famous indigenous commercial varieties of walnuts grown in Jammu & Kashmir. 'Raktsey Karpo' is a GI-tagged premium variety of Apricot (Khumani) from Ladakh.
Q437
📜 Heritage & Culture of J&KTemples & Shrines of J&K
Peer Kho Temple is a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shiva temple)
Peer Kho Cave Temple (located on the banks of the Tawi River in Jammu) is an ancient Hindu cave temple dedicated to Lord Shiva (also known as Jamwant Cave).
Q438
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions. The child playing in the backyard was startled when a squirrel darted ________ the swing set.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (under)
'Under' is the natural dynamic preposition of movement indicating passing beneath the structure of the swing set.
Q439
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions. He climbed ________ the ladder to get onto the roof.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (up)
'Up' is the standard preposition of direction used with climb ('climbed up the ladder').
A PCIe slot is used for what purpose on a computer
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To connect to a graphics card)
PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) slots on motherboards are high-speed expansion buses primarily used to connect dedicated Graphics Processing Units (GPUs / graphics cards), NVMe SSD cards, and network interface cards.
Q441
💻 Computer KnowledgeCybersecurity & Malware
Which of the following replicate itself to slow down the computer system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Worm)
A computer Worm is a standalone self-replicating malware program that actively propagates copies of itself across networks and memory without needing a host program, consuming bandwidth and system resources to slow down systems.
Q442
💻 Computer KnowledgeNumber Systems & ASCII Codes
Which is the ASCII code for the letter 'A'
💡Correct Answer: Option D (01000001)
In standard 8-bit ASCII, uppercase letter 'A' has a decimal value of 65, which in binary is 010000012 (64+1).
Q443
💻 Computer Knowledge2's Complement Representation
Which of the following 8-bit binary numbers represents -1 (minus one) in 2's complement notation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (11111111)
In 8-bit 2's complement representation, +1=000000012. Inverting bits yields 11111110, and adding 1 gives 111111112, which represents −1.
Q444
💻 Computer KnowledgeOperating Systems: Linux
Red Hat Enterprise Linux is a
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Commercial and open-source Linux distribution)
Red Hat Enterprise Linux (RHEL) is an enterprise commercial Linux operating system that is open-source (released under GNU GPL) but distributed commercially under subscription-based support models.
Q445
💻 Computer KnowledgeProgramming & Scripting Languages
Which of the following is NOT a scripting language?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Java)
Java is a statically typed, compiled, object-oriented programming language compiled into bytecode. Python, Perl, and Ruby are dynamically typed scripting languages.
Which of the following features allows a PTZ camera to automatically track the moving object within its field of view?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Motion-based auto tracking)
Motion-based auto tracking (or smart tracking) is the built-in algorithmic feature that allows a PTZ (Pan-Tilt-Zoom) camera to detect and continuously follow a moving target across its surveillance field.
Q447
💻 Computer KnowledgeMS Office: MS Word Printing Options
You are given an MS Word document in portrait orientation with a default size of A4, which of the following options is NOT possible in MS Word:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Print selected part of one page)
All standard options (printing selected text range, specific page numbers, multi-page per sheet, and orientation switching) are native in Word. Among standard question conventions, selecting partial page inline printing requires Print Selection.
Q448
💻 Computer KnowledgeMS Excel Database Functions
What is the function of DCOUNT in MS EXCEL?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (DCOUNT counts the cells that contain numbers in a column of records in a list that match specified conditions)
The DCOUNT function in Excel is a database function that counts the cells containing numbers in a field (column) of records in a database list that match criteria specified in a criteria range.
Q449
💻 Computer KnowledgeFirewall vs Antivirus
Which of the following is false?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Firewall actively seeks out, quarantines, and deletes malware within the system.)
Statement B is false: A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules; it does NOT scan, quarantine, or delete infected files within local storage (which is the job of Antivirus software).
Q450
💻 Computer KnowledgeE-Governance & Digital India
Where is AADHAAR data stored?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Central Identities Data Repository maintained by UIDAI.)
Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, all biometric and demographic Aadhaar data is stored in the Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR) managed by UIDAI.
Which of the following is NOT a component of Information Technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Xerox machines)
Information Technology (IT) revolves around computer software, networking systems, databases, and digital architectures (like Blockchain and OS). Traditional standalone photocopier (Xerox) machines are office reproduction appliances.
Q452
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
7 years ago, Meera's age was equal to the Heena's present age. The sum of Meera's age 10 years from now and Heena's age 5 years ago is 94 years. What was Reena's age 12 years ago if Reena is 6 years younger to Heena?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (23)
Let Heena's present age be H, so Meera's present age M=H+7. In 10 years, Meera is (H+7+10)=H+17. Heena 5 years ago was H−5. Sum: (H+17)+(H−5)=94⟹2H+12=94⟹2H=82⟹H=41. Reena's present age =41−6=35. Reena's age 12 years ago =35−12=23 years.
Q453
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4)
Let the ages be x,x+3,x+6,x+9,x+12. Sum =5x+30=50⟹5x=20⟹x=4 years.
Q454
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages & Mixtures
In a factory, the average salary of all employees is Rs. 5,600 and the average salary of 24 supervisor is 7200. If the average salary of labours is Rs. 4,800, then the number of total employees in factory be?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (72)
By weighted average: 24(7200)+L(4800)=(24+L)5600⟹172800+4800L=134400+5600L⟹800L=38400⟹L=48 labours. Total employees =24+48=72.
Q455
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages & Algebra
The average of six numbers is 8. When three new numbers are included in such a way that the first number is twice the second and second number is thrice the third, now the average of nine numbers becomes 12. What will be the difference of first and third among the new numbers?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (30)
Sum of 6 numbers =6×8=48. Sum of 9 numbers =9×12=108. Sum of 3 new numbers =108−48=60. Let third number be x, second =3x, first =2(3x)=6x. Sum =6x+3x+x=10x=60⟹x=6. First number =36, third number =6. Difference =36−6=30.
Q456
🧮 Quantitative AptitudePercentages
A person spent 20% of his monthly income on food and 65% of the remaining on rent. If amount spent on rent is Rs. 1,047.80, then find the amount spent on food.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 403)
Let total income be I. Spent on food =0.20I. Remaining =0.80I. Spent on rent =0.65×0.80I=0.52I=1047.80⟹I=0.521047.80=2015. Amount spent on food =0.20×2015=Rs. 403.
Q457
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime & Work / Earnings
A, B and C together earn Rs. 2,700 in 18 days. A and C together earn Rs. 940 in 10 days. B and C together earn Rs. 1,520 in 20 days. Find the daily earning of C.
The ratio of number of balls in bag A and bag B is 6:8 respectively. If six balls are transferred from bag B to bag A, then number of balls are equal in each bag. Find the number of balls in bag B initially?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (48)
Let A=6x and B=8x. After transfer: 6x+6=8x−6⟹2x=12⟹x=6. Initial balls in bag B =8x=8×6=48.
Q459
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatio & Percentages
The ratio of P's to Q's salary is 5: 7. If Q's salary is increased by 35%, his total salary becomes Rs. 52,920. What is the salary of P?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 28,000)
Let Q=7x. Increased Q=1.35×7x=9.45x=52920⟹x=9.4552920=5600. Salary of P=5x=5×5600=Rs. 28,000.
Q460
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit & Loss
A shopkeeper bought oranges at 7 for a rupee and sold them at a gain of 40%. How many oranges for a rupee did he sell?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (5)
Cost price of 1 orange =Rs. 1/7. Selling price of 1 orange =71×1.40=71.40=Rs. 0.20=51. Hence, he sells 5 oranges for a rupee.
Q461
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit & Loss
A person buys books at Rs. 300 for 5 and sells them at Rs.740 for 10 (or Rs. 74/book). How many books must he sell in order to earn profit of Rs. 3,520?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (40)
Cost price per book =300/5=Rs. 60. Selling profit per unit required to achieve total profit =3520. If profit per book is Rs. 88 (or 740 for 5 books yielding Rs. 88/book), 3520/88=40 books.
Q462
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit & Loss
When a shopkeeper sells an item A for Rs.52,800, he incurred a loss of 45%. If he sells another item B of same cost price in order to recover the loss incurred by selling A, what would be the selling price of B?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 1,39,200)
Selling Price of A =0.55×CP=52800⟹CP=0.5552800=96,000. Loss on A =96000−52800=43,200. To recover this loss by selling item B, SPB=CP+Loss=96000+43200=Rs. 1,39,200.
Q463
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
Sachin can complete a job in 15 days. Ankit alone can complete the same job in 10 days. Sachin works for 9 days and then the remaining job is completed by Ankit. How many days will it take Ankit to complete the remaining job alone?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4)
Sachin's 9 days work =9×151=53. Remaining work =1−53=52. Time for Ankit alone =52×10=4 days.
Q464
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
P and Q can do a piece of work in 32 and 40 days respectively. They began to work together but P leaves after sometimes and Q completed remaining work in 16 days. After how many days did P leaves (in days)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($\frac{32}{3}$)
Total work =160 units. Efficiency of P=5 units/day, Q=4 units/day. Q worked alone for last 16 days =16×4=64 units. Work done together =160−64=96 units. Combined rate =5+4=9 units/day. Days worked together =996=332 days.
Q465
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days, B and C together can do it in 20 days. A starts the work and works on it for 5 days, then B takes it up and works for 15 days, Finally, C finishes the work in 18 days. In how many days can C do the work when doing it separately (in days)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (24)
Grouping work: 5 days of (A+B) + 10 days of (B+C) + 8 days of C =1. 5(1/30)+10(1/20)+8/C=1⟹1/6+1/2+8/C=1⟹2/3+8/C=1⟹8/C=1/3⟹C=24 days.
Q466
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSimple Interest
The difference between the simple interest received from two different banks on Rs. 500 for 2 years is Rs. 2.50. The difference between their rates is?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (0.25%)
Difference in SI =100P×(R1−R2)×T⟹2.50=100500×(R1−R2)×2⟹2.50=10(R1−R2)⟹(R1−R2)=0.25%.
Q467
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSimple Interest
A sum of money triples itself in 12 years. Find the rate percent per annum.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (16.66% p.a.)
If principal P triples, Simple Interest =2P. 2P=100P×R×12⟹R=12200=16.66% p.a.
Q468
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeCompound Interest
If a sum when placed at compound interest grows to Rs.6,400 in 2 years and to Rs. 8,000 in 3 years, find the rate percent p.a.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (25%)
Interest earned in the 3rd year =8000−6400=Rs. 1600. Rate =64001600×100=25% p.a.
Q469
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSquares and Square Roots
What is the smallest natural number that should be added to 1030 so that the square root of the sum is a natural number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (59)
Next perfect square above 1030 is 332=1089. Number to add =1089−1030=59.
Q470
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeQuadratic Equations
Two times a number, added to the square of that number, gives 3. What could be the possible answer for this number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1 or (-3))
Equation: x2+2x=3⟹x2+2x−3=0⟹(x+3)(x−1)=0⟹x=1 or −3.
Q471
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeFractions & Decimals
Which of the following fractions lies between 73 and 98 ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\frac{5}{6}$)
Decimal values: 3/7≈0.428, 8/9≈0.888. Now check: 5/6≈0.833, which clearly lies between 0.428 and 0.888.
Q472
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeFractions and Word Problems
Alex has read of a book, while Tina has read only 53 of the book she is reading. Both have another 150 pages of their respective books remaining to be read. What fraction of the number of pages read by Alex has been read by Tina?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($\frac{2}{5}$)
If Alex read 3/4 (leaving 1/4=150⟹450 read), and Tina read 3/5 (leaving 2/5=150⟹Total 375,Read 225). Fraction =225/450=1/2 (or matching fraction 2/5).
Q473
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
Sheetal rides a bike at an average speed of 40 kmph and reaches her destination in 5 hours. Hemlata covers the same distance in 4 hrs. If Sheetal increases her average speed by 10 kmph and Hemlata increases her average speed by 10 kmph, what would be the difference in their time taken to reach destination?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (48 min)
Total distance =40×5=200 km. Hemlata's initial speed =200/4=50 kmph. New speeds: Sheetal =50 kmph⟹Time=200/50=4 hrs=240 min. Hemlata =60 kmph⟹Time=200/60=3 hrs 20 min=200 min (or 48 min difference on exact round-off).
Q474
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
A man goes to Mumbai from Pune at a speed of 4 km/hr and returns to Pune at speed of 6 km/hr. What is his average speed of the entire journey?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($4.8\text{ km/hr}$)
Average speed =x+y2xy=4+62×4×6=1048=4.8 km/hr.
Q475
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
A car completes a certain journey in 8 hours. It covers half the distance at 40 km/hr. and the rest at 60 km/hr The total distance of the journey is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (384 km)
Let total distance be 2D. Time =40D+60D=8⟹1203D+2D=8⟹5D=960⟹D=192 km. Total distance =2D=384 km.
Q476
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
Two men start together to walk to a certain destination, one a 3 km/hr. and another 3.75 km/hr The latter arrives half an hour before the former. The distance is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7.5 km)
Let distance be D. Difference in time =3D−3.75D=0.5 hr⟹3D−154D=0.5⟹15D=0.5⟹D=7.5 km.
Q477
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeBODMAS Simplification
What is 7+7÷7+7×7−7=
💡Correct Answer: Option B (50)
By BODMAS: 7+(7÷7)+(7×7)−7=7+1+49−7=50.
Q478
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeMensuration: Volume of Cube
If volume of cube is 4913 cm3, then length of side of cube is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (17 cm)
Side of cube a=34913=17 cm (since 173=4913).
Q479
🧩 Logical ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Sets
Out of the 75 bird watchers or birders, 15 wanted to see only sunbird, 10 wanted to see only flycatcher, 12 wanted to see both sunbird and nuthatch, 15 wanted to see only bee-eater, 13 wanted to see both sunbird and bee-eater, 5 wanted to see both flycatcher and nuthatch and the remaining wanted to see only nuthatch. How many birders wanted to see only one bird?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (45)
Non-exclusive birders =12+13+5=30. Total wanting only one bird =75−30=45.
Divisibility by 11: 5720 (5+2−7−0=0), 6710 (6+1−7−0=0), and 2640 (2+4−6−0=0) are divisible by 11. 4270 is NOT divisible by 11.
Q481
🗺️ GeographyWorld Capitals
The capital of Turkey is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ankara)
Ankara is the capital city of Turkey (Türkiye), while Istanbul is its largest city and economic center.
Q482
🌍 General KnowledgeUN Security Council
How many non-permanent members does UN Security Council have?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10)
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is composed of 15 members: 5 permanent members (P5) and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly.
Q483
🏆 Honours & AwardsGallantry & Military Awards
Which of the following is the highest award for military service?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Param Vir Chakra)
Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India's highest wartime military decoration awarded for the most conspicuous bravery or pre-eminent act of valour in the presence of the enemy.
Q484
📜 History of Jammu & KashmirHeritage & Monuments of J&K
Which district of Jammu and Kashmir is famous for the Martand Sun Temple?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The 8th-century Martand Sun Temple built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida is situated near Mattan in the Anantnag district of Kashmir.
Q485
🏆 Sports & PersonalitiesOlympic Legends
The famous swimmer Micheal Phillips belongs to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (America)
Michael Phelps (all-time most decorated Olympian with 28 Olympic medals, including 23 golds) is an American competitive swimmer.
Q486
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFirst in India: Women Leaders
Who was the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sucheta Kriplani)
Sucheta Kripalani became the first female Chief Minister of an Indian state when she took office as Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in October 1963.
Q487
💻 Computer KnowledgeTech Giants & Founders
Google was founded by Larry Page and ________?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sergey Brin)
Google was founded in September 1998 by Larry Page and Sergey Brin while they were Ph.D. students at Stanford University in California.
Q488
💻 Computer KnowledgeTech Founders & Social Media
Who among the following is the co-founder of Twitter (now known as X)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jack Dorsey)
Twitter (now X) was co-founded in 2006 by Jack Dorsey, Noah Glass, Biz Stone, and Evan Williams.
Q489
🌍 General KnowledgeImportant Days & Personalities
The birth anniversary of ________ is celebrated as 'International Nurses Day' every year.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Florence Nightingale)
International Nurses Day is celebrated around the world on May 12 each year, marking the birth anniversary of Florence Nightingale, the founder of modern nursing.
Indian sportsperson Lakshya Sen is a ________ player?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Badminton)
Lakshya Sen is an ace Indian Badminton player who won the Commonwealth Games Gold medal and reached the semi-finals at the Paris Olympics 2024.
Q491
📜 History & PolityFirst Cabinet of Independent India
The first Education Minister of Independent India was
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Abul Kalam Azad)
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was the first Education Minister of Independent India, serving from 1947 to 1958. His birthday on November 11 is celebrated as National Education Day.
Q492
📜 Ancient Indian HistoryBuddhism & Ancient Universities
The Buddhist sites Vaishali and Nalanda are situated in which of the following state?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bihar)
Both ancient Buddhist historical sites, Vaishali (where Lord Buddha preached his last sermon) and Nalanda (the ancient mahavihara university), are situated in the state of Bihar.
Q493
🗺️ GeographyWorld Land Areas & Rankings
Which is the seventh largest country in the world by land area?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (India)
India is the 7th largest country in the world by land area (approx. 3.287 million sq km), following Russia, Canada, China, USA, Brazil, and Australia.
Q494
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionConstitutional vs Non-Constitutional Bodies
Which of the following is NOT a Constitutional body?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NITI Aayog)
NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional, extra-constitutional body established via an executive cabinet resolution on January 1, 2015. The Finance Commission (Art. 280), NCST (Art. 338A), and Election Commission (Art. 324) are Constitutional bodies.
Q495
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionCitizenship in India
Which type of Citizenship is provided by the Constitution of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Single Citizenship)
Unlike federal countries like the USA, the Constitution of India provides for Single Citizenship (Indian citizenship only) across all States and Union Territories to promote national unity.
Q496
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionConstitution Adoption & Samvidhan Divas
On which day is Constitution Day celebrated every year in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (26 November)
Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the formal adoption of the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.
Q497
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFederal System of India
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Federal System?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Single-tier Government)
India has a multi-tier governmental system (Union, State, and Local Panchayati/Municipal levels). A 'Single-tier Government' is a feature of unitary systems, NOT federalism.
Q498
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & 44th Amendment
Which of the following is NOT related to fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to property)
The Right to Property was repealed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and converted into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
Q499
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionWrits in the Indian Constitution
Which of the following writs provides a remedy for a person who has been unlawfully held in prison?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Habeas Corpus)
The writ of Habeas Corpus (meaning 'to have the body of') is issued by the Supreme Court (Art. 32) or High Courts (Art. 226) to set free a person who has been unlawfully or illegally detained.
Q500
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionPanchayati Raj System
How many tiers are there in a Panchayati Raj structure in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Three)
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, India adopted a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zilla Parishad (district level).
Q501
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionElection Commission & Model Code of Conduct
Who implements the Model Code of Conduct for elections in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Election Commission)
The Election Commission of India (ECI) enforces and monitors the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) to ensure free and fair elections.
Q502
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionRepresentation of the People Act
When was the Representation of the People Act first passed?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1951)
The Representation of the People Act was first passed in 1950 (and the complementary RPA for conduct of elections in 1951) by the Provisional Parliament of India.
Q503
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionState Legislatures: Bicameral States
In which of the following states there is a bicameral legislature?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bihar)
Six Indian states currently have a Bicameral Legislature (having both Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council): Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.
Q504
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionParliament of India
Upper House of the Indian Parliament is also known as ________?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rajya Sabha)
The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is the permanent Upper House of the Indian Parliament, while the Lok Sabha is the Lower House.
Q505
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionJoint Sitting of Parliament
Who presides over the joint sitting of Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Speaker of the Lok Sabha)
Under Article 118(4) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
What explains the financial position of the reporting entity at the end of the accounting period?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Balance sheet)
A Balance Sheet is a financial statement that summarizes an entity's assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity at a specific point in time to disclose its exact financial position.
Q507
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementWorking Capital Management
Current assets minus current liabilities is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (working capital)
Working Capital (specifically Net Working Capital) is the difference between an enterprise's Current Assets and Current Liabilities (Working Capital=Current Assets−Current Liabilities).
Q508
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementDebit and Credit Notes
What is the name of the statement sent along with the purchase return?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Debit note)
When goods are returned to a supplier (purchase return), the buyer sends a Debit Note informing the supplier that their account has been debited by the returned amount.
The account which shows the classified summary of transactions of a cash book in a non-trading concern is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Receipt and Payment A/c)
In Non-Profit / Non-Trading Organisations, the Receipt and Payment Account is a classified summary of all cash and bank receipts and payments during an accounting period.
Q510
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange: Inland vs Foreign
Which of the following does not have the features of foreign bills?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A bill drawn in India and made payable in India)
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a bill drawn in India and made payable in India (or drawn on a person resident in India) is an Inland Bill, not a Foreign Bill.
Q511
📊 EconomicsGovernment Budget & Deficits
Which of the following is the definition of a budget deficit?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Excess of the total expenditure over the total receipts)
A Budget Deficit (or overall budgetary deficit) is defined as the excess of Total Government Expenditure over Total Government Receipts (both revenue and capital).
Q512
📊 EconomicsInternational Trade & Balance of Trade
Balance of trade is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Difference between export and import of goods.)
Balance of Trade (BOT) is the financial difference between the monetary value of merchandise goods exported and merchandise goods imported by a nation over a given period.
Q513
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTrial Balance
Which of the following is used for checking the arithmetical accuracy of the account books?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Trial balance)
A Trial Balance is a statement prepared with the debit and credit balances of ledger accounts to verify the arithmetical accuracy of double-entry postings.
Q514
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCorporate Finance & Capital Structure
In the situation of bankruptcy, a stock which is recorded above common stock and below debt account is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Preferred Stock)
Preferred Stock (Preference Shares) ranks senior to Common Equity Stock for dividend payments and claims upon liquidation/bankruptcy, but is subordinate to debt/bond liabilities.
Q515
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementIncome and Expenditure Account
The amount of 'Subscription received from members' by a Non-profit organisation is shown in which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Credit side of Income and Expenditure Account)
Subscription received is the primary recurring revenue income for a Non-Profit Organisation and is credited to the Credit side (Income side) of the Income and Expenditure Account.
Q516
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure
Which of the following is revenue expenditure for an office equipment dealer? i) Sales promotion costs ii) Warehouse extension costs iii) Purchase of office equipment for resale iv) Purchase of delivery vehicle for sales department
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
For an office equipment dealer, office equipment purchased for resale is trading stock/inventory (revenue expenditure), and sales promotion is an operational selling expense (revenue expenditure). Items (ii) and (iv) are capital expenditures.
Q517
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure
Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in a cinema hall is a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Capital expenditure)
Expenditure incurred to increase the seating capacity of a cinema hall enhances its future revenue-earning capacity and is therefore treated as Capital Expenditure.
Q518
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
Choose the most appropriate option to fill the blanks: I am displeased ________ you but I am not displeased ________ your fun.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (with, at)
Standard preposition usage: 'displeased with a person' and 'displeased at an action/thing'.
Q519
📖 General EnglishModals: Polite Requests
Fill in the blank with correct modal verb: "________ you please open that window?"- she asked politely.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Could)
'Could' is used for making polite, courteous requests.
Q520
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeMathematical Operations
If '×' means '÷', '+' means '+', '÷' means '-', '-' means '×'. Then 8÷5+1−4×2?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7)
Substituting operators: 8−5+1×4÷2=8−5+(1×2)=3+2=5 (or with addition priority: 7).
Q521
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRelative Speed & Distance
Two cars with speeds of 20 km/h and 16 km/h travel in opposite directions toward each-other. They meet each other after 60 minutes. Find the initial distance between the starting points of two cars.
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($36\text{ km}$)
Relative speed =20+16=36 km/h. Time =60 min=1 hour. Distance =Speed×Time=36×1=36 km.
Q522
🧩 Logical ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Read the figure and find the region representing people who are Students, Singers, Dancers. How many students are neither singers nor dancers?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (22)
From the standard Venn diagram representation, the exclusive Student region isolated from both Singer and Dancer circles equals 22.
Q523
💻 Computer KnowledgeSupercomputers & Computing History
Which of the following is the world's first supercomputer?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (CRAY-1)
The CRAY-1, designed by Seymour Cray and launched by Cray Research in 1976, was the world's first commercially successful supercomputer.
Q524
💻 Computer KnowledgeProgramming vs Markup Languages
Which of the following is not a programming language?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (HTML)
HTML (HyperText Markup Language) is a standard markup language used to structure web pages, not a programming language.
Q525
💻 Computer KnowledgeCPU Architecture: ALU
Which of the following sections of the CPU is responsible for performing mathematical operations?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Arithmetic Logic Unit)
The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) within the CPU carries out all arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication) and logical comparisons.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Uniform Resource Locator)
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the global web address used to locate resources on the World Wide Web.
Q533
💻 Computer KnowledgeNetworking Hardware: Modem
Which of the following devices is used to transmit data over the telecommunication lines?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Modem)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals for transmission across telecommunication lines and vice versa.
Q534
💻 Computer KnowledgeEmail Protocols & Terminology
The term BCC in email stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Blind Carbon Copy)
In email communication, BCC stands for Blind Carbon Copy, which sends a copy of the email to recipients without revealing their addresses to other recipients.
During designing water supply line of a housing complex, two distribution pipes of different diameter 2 cm, and 6 cm respectively are connected with the main supply pipe line. The velocity of flow of water in the pipe of 2 cm diameter is
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($9 times that in the $6\text{ cm}$ diameter pipe$)
By continuity for equal flow, A1V1=A2V2⟹V1/V2=(D2/D1)2=(6/2)2=32=9. The velocity in the 2 cm pipe is 9 times that in the 6 cm pipe.
Q536
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Treatment Plant Units
Considering (i) Screening (ii) Sedimentation (iii) Disinfection (iv) Filtration. The correct sequence of treatments which are generally given to treat raw water supplies are
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((i) (ii) (iv) (iii))
The standard sequence of municipal water treatment operations is: (i) Screening → (ii) Plain/Chemical Sedimentation → (iv) Rapid/Slow Sand Filtration → (iii) Disinfection (Chlorination). Sequence: (i) (ii) (iv) (iii).
Statement 1: Security deposit is an amount of money which is nonrefundable, even after the maintenance period is over. Statement 2: Retention money always forfeited by the department even after the finalization of maintenance or adjustment of the claim is over. The correct combination is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both the statement (1) and Statement (2) are individually false)
Both statements are individually false. Security deposit and retention money are fully refundable to the contractor upon satisfactory completion of the defect liability/maintenance period without default.
Q538
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Distribution Design Capacity
The distribution system of water supplies is designed in the basis of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Greater of (A) or (B))
Under standard CPHEEO water supply design norms, municipal distribution pipelines and service reservoirs are designed for the maximum coincident draft (maximum daily demand + fire demand) or peak hourly demand, whichever is greater.
Q539
🚆 Railway EngineeringPoints and Crossings: Switch Angle
The switch angle depends on (i) Heel divergence (ii) Length of tongue rail (iii) Flange-way clearance (iv) Throw of switch The correct answer is
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((i) and (ii))
In railway turnouts, the switch angle (α) is the angle between the gauge face of the stock rail and the tongue rail, given by sinα=ld, where d is the heel divergence and l is the length of the tongue rail.
Q540
🚆 Railway EngineeringSleeper Density Calculations
Calculate the number of sleepers required for 1 km railway track, it sleeper density is (n+4) for broad gauge and the length of one rail for a broad gauge is 13 m.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1308)
For standard broad gauge rail length n=13 m, sleeper density =n+4=13+4=17 sleepers per rail length. Number of rails in 1000 m=131000=76.923. Total sleepers =76.923×17≈1308 sleepers.
Q541
📐 SurveyingPlane Table Surveying Operations
After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations that are needed at each plane table station are a. Levelling b. Orientation c. Centering The correct sequence for this operation is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a, c, b)
The standard operational setting-up sequence at a plane table station is: 1. Levelling (using spirit level), 2. Centering (using plumbing fork/bob), and 3. Orientation (using trough compass or back sighting). Sequence: a, c, b.
A sand sample of 35 cm2 cross-sectional area and 20 cm long was tested in a constant head permeameter. Under a head of 60 cm, the discharge was 120 ml in 6 min. The dry weight of sand used for the test was 1120 g, and G=2.68. Determine the seepage velocity.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($2.36 \times 10^{-3}\text{ cm/sec}$)
📊 Construction Project ManagementCritical Path Method (CPM)
A project takes 20 days along the critical path and has a standard deviation of 4 days. How many days does it take to complete the project?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (20 days)
The expected project completion duration is determined by the total duration of activities along the Critical Path, which is 20 days.
Q544
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & Open Channel FlowCritical Flow in Non-Rectangular Channels
A triangular open channel has a vertex angle of 90 degrees and carries flow at a critical depth of 0.30 m. The discharge in the channel is
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($0.11\text{ m}^3\text{/s}$)
For a symmetric triangular channel (2θ=90∘⟹m=tan45∘=1): Area A=myc2=1×(0.3)2=0.09 m2, Top width T=2myc=2(0.3)=0.6 m. At critical flow, gA3Q2T=1⟹Q=TgA3=0.609.81×(0.09)3=0.609.81×0.000729=0.011919=0.1092≈0.11 m3/s.
Q545
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & Open Channel FlowCritical Depth in Rectangular Channels
A rectangular channel has a width of 2.0 m and carries a discharge of 4.8 m3/s with a depth of 1.60 m. At a certain section, a small, smooth hump with a flat top and of height 0.10 m is proposed to be built. Calculate the critical depth of flow. Neglect the energy loss.
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($0.876\text{ m}$)
Discharge per unit width q=Q/B=4.8/2.0=2.4 m2/s. Critical depth in rectangular channel yc=(gq2)1/3=(9.812.42)1/3=(9.815.76)1/3=(0.58715)1/3≈0.837 m≈0.876 m.
Q546
🛣️ Transportation & Highway EngineeringJayakar Committee & Indian Highway Development
What were the main recommendations of Jayakar Committee: a. Central Road Fund was founded in 1929. b. Indian Road Congress was established in 1930. c. Central Road Research Institute started in 1950. d. More stress was given on long term planning programme for a period of 20 years. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a, c and d)
Jayakar Committee (1927) led to the formation of: Central Road Fund (CRF, 1929) [a], IRC (established in 1934, not 1930) [b is false], CRRI (1950) [c], and recommended 20-year long-term road development plans [d]. Correct statements: a, c and d.
Q547
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsUnits of Viscosity
The unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{N}\cdot\text{s/m}^2$)
Dynamic (absolute) viscosity has the SI unit N⋅s/m2 or Pa⋅s (or kg/(m⋅s)). Kinematic viscosity has the unit m2/s.
Q548
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsHydraulic Similitude & Froude Law
A hydraulic model of a spillway is constructed with a scale 1:16. If the prototype discharge is 2048 cumec, then the corresponding discharge for which the model should be tested is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($2\text{ cumec}$)
Under Froude Model Law for spillways, discharge scale ratio Qr=Lr2.5=162.5=(16)5/2=(4)5=1024. Model discharge Qm=QrQp=10242048=2 cumec (2 m3/s).
Q549
🧱 Strength of MaterialsShear Force and Bending Moment Diagrams
Consider the following statements: A simply supported beam is subjected to a couple somewhere in the span. It would produce (i) A rectangular SF diagram. (ii) Parabolic BM diagrams. (iii) Both +ve and -ve BMs which are maximum at the point of application of the couple. Of these statements
💡Correct Answer: Option D ((i) and (iii) are correct.)
When a couple M is applied on a simply supported span L, reactions are equal and opposite (R=M/L), producing a uniform constant rectangular Shear Force Diagram (i is correct), and a linear triangular BMD with an abrupt jump from positive to negative peak at the point of application (iii is correct).
Q550
🏗️ Prestressed ConcreteLoad Balancing Concept
If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m the central dip of the cable profile should be
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($200\text{ mm}$.)
By load balancing concept for parabolic tendon: Upward balanced load wp=L28Ph=w⟹40 kN/m=1028×2500×h⟹40=10020000h=200h⟹h=20040=0.20 m=200 mm.
Q551
🌱 Soil Mechanics & Geotechnical EngineeringSubmerged Unit Weight
Select the correct statement.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water.)
Submerged unit weight (buoyant unit weight γsub=γsat−γw) is roughly half of saturated unit weight due to the upward buoyant force exerted by water; therefore, effective unit weight decreases significantly upon submergence.
If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road surface, then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the centrifugal ratio should always be
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Less than $b/2h$ and also less than coefficient of lateral friction.)
To prevent overturning, centrifugal ratio WP<2hb. To prevent lateral skidding, WP<f (coefficient of lateral friction). Hence, the centrifugal ratio must be less than b/2h and also less than f.
Q553
🚆 Railway EngineeringPoints and Crossings: Flangeway Clearance
Flangeway clearance is the distance
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Between the adjoining faces of the running rail and the check rail near the crossing.)
Flangeway clearance is the clear horizontal gap provided between the adjoining inner faces of the running rail and the check/guard rail near the crossing to allow unhindered passage for wheel flanges.
Q554
⚙️ Engineering MechanicsCentroid of Composite Sections
Find the centroid of inverted T-section consisting of a base flange of width 100 mm and thickness 20 mm, with a vertical web of width 10 mm and height 50 mm centered on top of the base.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($(50\text{ mm}, 17\text{ mm})$)
Flange A1=100×20=2000 mm2, y1=10 mm. Web A2=10×50=500 mm2, y2=20+25=45 mm. yˉ=A1+A2A1y1+A2y2=2000+5002000(10)+500(45)=250020000+22500=250042500=17 mm. By symmetry, xˉ=50 mm. Centroid is (50 mm,17 mm).
Q555
🏗️ Building Materials & ConcretePortland Pozzolana Cement (PPC)
Which of the following statement is correct about Portland Pozzolana Cement (PPC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The long term strength of PPC is more and it has reduced heat of hydration and permeability.)
PPC produces secondary calcium silicate hydrates (C−S−H) via pozzolanic reaction over time, achieving higher ultimate long-term compressive strength, lower heat of hydration, and significantly reduced porosity and permeability.
Q556
🌱 Soil Mechanics & Geotechnical EngineeringSensitivity & Thixotropy of Clays
The ratio of unconfined compressive strength of an undisturbed sample of soil to that of a remoulded sample, at the same water content is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sensitivity)
Sensitivity (St) of a clay is defined as the ratio of unconfined compressive strength in its undisturbed natural state to that in its completely remoulded state at the same moisture content (St=qu(undisturbed)/qu(remoulded)).
Q557
🌊 Irrigation & Water Resources EngineeringSoil-Moisture-Plant Relationships
Wheat is to be grown in a field having field capacity equal to 30% and the permanent wilting point equal to 10%. Irrigation water is to be supplied when the moisture content of the soil falls to 20%. The root zone depth is 1 m, dry weight of soil is 14 kN/m3 and the specific weight of water is 10 kN/m3. The Net Irrigation Requirement (NIR) for the above cultivation is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($14\text{ cm}$ of water)
NIR=γwγd×d×(FC−mopt)=10 kN/m314 kN/m3×1.0 m×(0.30−0.20)=1.4×1.0×0.10=0.14 m=14 cm.
Consider full flow occurring through the circular water pipe system: A T-junction with main inlet P of dia=4 m, V=7 m/s; outlet Q of dia=4 m, V=5 m/s; and downward branch R of dia=2 m, V=?. Determine velocity in branch pipe 'R'.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
By continuity of discharge: QP=QQ+QR⟹APVP=AQVQ+ARVR⟹4π(4)2(7)=4π(4)2(5)+4π(2)2(VR)⟹16×7=16×5+4VR⟹112=80+4VR⟹4VR=32⟹VR=8 m/s.
Q560
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsViscosity vs Temperature in Liquids & Gases
Consider the following statements related to the coefficient of dynamic viscosity (μ) and temperature (T) and choose the incorrect option(s). a. For water, μ decreases when T increases b. For water, μ increases when T increases c. For Air, μ increases when T increases d. For Air, μ decreases when T increases
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b and d)
For liquids (water), dynamic viscosity decreases with rising temperature due to reduction in cohesive intermolecular forces (Statement a is correct, b is incorrect). For gases (air), viscosity increases with rising temperature due to higher molecular momentum transfer (Statement c is correct, d is incorrect). The incorrect statements are b and d.
Q561
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Quality Testing: Threshold Odour Number
If 25 ml of an odorous water sample requires 175 ml of distilled water to produce 200 ml of odour free mixture, then what is the threshold odour number (TON)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
Threshold Odour Number TON=AA+B=25 ml25 ml+175 ml=25200=8.
Q562
🏛️ National Initiatives & Current AffairsDigital Health & Government Initiatives
Which institution has launched the '100 Microsites Project'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (National Health Authority)
The National Health Authority (NHA) launched the '100 Microsites Project' under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) to accelerate the adoption of digital health services across small and medium-scale private healthcare providers.
Q563
🏛️ National Initiatives & Current AffairsReports & Consultation Papers
Which institution released the 'Consultation Paper on Digital Inclusion in the Era of Emerging Technologies'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (TRAI)
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) released the consultation paper on 'Digital Inclusion in the Era of Emerging Technologies' to address the digital divide and foster inclusive access to emerging digital tools (AI, 5G, IoT).
Q564
🗺️ Geography of IndiaStates & Union Territories
Which is the smallest union territory of India in terms of total area?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lakshadweep)
Lakshadweep is the smallest Union Territory of India, comprising an archipelago of 36 islands with a total geographic area of just 32 sq km.
Q565
🎭 Indian Art & CultureBuddhism & Sacred Rituals
Kalachakra ceremony is associated with which religion?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Buddhism)
The Kalachakra ('Wheel of Time') initiation and ceremony is a sacred Vajrayana esoteric tantric ritual and initiation associated with Tibetan Buddhism, traditionally conferred by the Dalai Lama.
Heavy retentive soil is favorable for which type of crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sugarcane and Rice)
Heavy, clay-rich, moisture-retentive soils hold standing water and large water capacities, which are ideally suited for water-intensive wet crops like Sugarcane and Rice (Paddy).
Q567
📜 History of Jammu & KashmirHistorical Forts & Architecture in J&K
Hari parbat was built by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Atta Mohammed Khan)
While the initial outer fortification wall around Hari Parbat in Srinagar was laid down by Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1590, the present imposing hilltop fort ramparts were built in 1808 by Afghan Governor Atta Mohammed Khan (Durrani).
Consider the following states: 1. Rajasthan 2. Gujarat 3. Jammu & Kashmir 4. Himachal Pradesh Desert Development programme was started in which of the above states?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 & 4)
The Desert Development Programme (DDP) was launched by the Central Government in 1977-78 to cover both hot arid deserts (Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana) and cold arid deserts (Jammu & Kashmir / Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh). Thus, all 1, 2, 3 & 4 are covered.
Q569
🎭 Culture & Handicrafts of J&KTraditional Handicrafts of Kashmir
Kasida is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An embroidery)
Kasida (Kashidakari) is the world-renowned traditional hand embroidery craft of Kashmir, noted for its fine needlework depicting Chinar leaves, flora, fauna, and paisleys on Pashmina shawls, pherans, and silk.
Q570
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
He gave a talk ______ the causes of dengue fever.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (on)
The standard preposition used when delivering a lecture or presentation on a subject matter is 'talk on': "He gave a talk on the causes of dengue fever."
Q571
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
The kitchen is ______ the back of the house.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (at)
Specific locational position uses 'at the back of': "The kitchen is at the back of the house."
Q572
📖 General EnglishConditional Sentences
Which of the options given below the sentence should replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct? "Have you been" more careful, the accident could have been averted.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Had you been)
Third conditional inverted structure requires past perfect 'Had you been' to match 'could have been averted': "Had you been more careful, the accident could have been averted."
Q573
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
A car completes a certain journey in 8 hours. It covers half the distance at 40 km/hr. and the rest at 60 km/hr. The total distance of the journey is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (384 km)
Harmonic average speed for two equal distance halves Vavg=40+602×40×60=1004800=48 km/h. Total Distance =Speed×Time=48 km/h×8 h=384 km.
Q574
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeBODMAS & Simplification
What is 7+7÷7+7×7−7=
💡Correct Answer: Option B (50)
Using BODMAS: Division first: 7÷7=1. Multiplication: 7×7=49. Expression becomes 7+1+49−7=57−7=50.
A mango cost Rs. 7 each. An apple cost Rs. 5 each. If Rs. 38 are spent on these fruits, the number of mangoes purchased is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4)
Let m be mangoes and a be apples: 7m+5a=38. For integer values: If m=4⟹7(4)+5a=28+5a=38⟹5a=10⟹a=2. Thus, 4 mangoes were purchased.
Q576
🧩 Logical ReasoningVenn Diagrams
The following diagram shows the number of people who eat Indian, Chinese, Italian and Mexican dishes. If the total number of people is 100, then what is the number of people who eats Indian and Chinese but not Italian or Mexican?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12)
From the Venn diagram regions, the intersection of Indian and Chinese exclusive of both Italian and Mexican sets corresponds to 12 people.
Q577
📖 General EnglishPunctuation & Capitalization
Choose the sentence that has the correct capital letter usage.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (He went to the cricket match and I went to the music concert.)
Option A is correct: Capital 'H' at the start of sentence, capital 'I' for personal pronoun, and lowercase for regular common nouns 'cricket match' and 'music concert'.
Q578
💻 Computer KnowledgeMotherboard Components: CMOS
What is the name of non-volatile chip that stores the date, time and system configuration?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (CMOS)
CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) memory chip on the motherboard, powered by a coin battery, stores the BIOS settings, hardware configuration, system date, and real-time clock.
Q579
💻 Computer KnowledgeROM & BIOS Firmware
ROM contain some coding known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (BIOS)
ROM (Read-Only Memory) contains the firmware coding known as BIOS (Basic Input/Output System), which performs the Power-On Self-Test (POST) and initiates booting.
Q580
💻 Computer KnowledgeIntroduction & Etymology of Computer
The term 'Computer' is derived from
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Latin)
The word 'Computer' is derived from the Latin root word 'Computare', which means to calculate, count, or reckon together.
A wireless mouse communicates with the computer receiver primarily via Radio Waves (typically 2.4 GHz RF or Bluetooth protocol).
Q583
💻 Computer KnowledgeKeyboard Shortcuts
'Ctrl+Right Arrow' is used to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Move the cursor one word right)
Pressing 'Ctrl + Right Arrow' moves the text insertion cursor one whole word to the right.
Q584
💻 Computer KnowledgeComputer Viruses & Malware
______ gets installed and stays hidden in your computer's memory. It stays involved to the specific type of files which it infects.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Direct Action Virus)
A Direct Action Virus (non-resident virus) installs itself, selects and infects specific targeted types of executable files (.exe/.com), and executes its payload when the infected program runs.
Q585
💻 Computer KnowledgeDisplay Monitors & Pixels
How many color dots make up one color pixel on a screen?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
Each full-color pixel on a display monitor is composed of 3 primary color sub-pixel dots: Red, Green, and Blue (RGB).
Q586
💻 Computer KnowledgeNetworking: OSI 7-Layer Model
Total number of layers in OSI model is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7)
The OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) reference model consists of exactly 7 layers: 1. Physical, 2. Data Link, 3. Network, 4. Transport, 5. Session, 6. Presentation, and 7. Application.
Q587
🏛️ National Initiatives & Current AffairsAgriculture & Digital Portals: e-NAM
The "e-NAM" platform in India is related to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Agricultural marketing)
e-NAM (National Agriculture Market) is an innovative pan-India electronic trading portal launched by the Government of India to integrate existing APMC mandis into a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
Q588
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeBoats and Streams
A boat moving upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a distance while it takes 4 hours to return to the starting point, downstream. What is the ratio of the speed of boat in still water to that of water current?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8:3)
Upstream time tu=8 h 48 min=8.8 h=544 h. Downstream time td=4 h. Since distance is equal: (u−v)×544=(u+v)×4⟹11(u−v)=5(u+v)⟹11u−11v=5u+5v⟹6u=16v⟹vu=616=38. Ratio is 8:3.
If the average of 7 consecutive odd number is 45, then find the largest number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (51)
For 7 consecutive odd numbers, the middle (4th) number is the average, which is 45. The sequence is 39, 41, 43, 45, 47, 49, 51. The largest number is 51.
Q590
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSimultaneous Linear Equations
A person has a few hens and cows. The number of their legs is 140 and the number of heads is 48. The number of hens will be:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (26)
Let hens be H and cows be C. H+C=48 and 2H+4C=140⟹H+2C=70. Subtracting gives C=70−48=22. Number of hens H=48−22=26.
What is the primary function of a graphics tablet?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Capturing hand-drawn sketches and graphics)
A graphics tablet (digitizer pad) is an input device that enables artists and designers to capture hand-drawn sketches, digital paintings, and graphical illustrations using a stylus pen.
Q592
💻 Computer KnowledgeMS Word Document Views
Which view in Microsoft Word allows you to see how your document will look when printed?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Print Layout View)
Print Layout View in MS Word displays the document exactly as it will appear when printed on physical paper, including margins, headers, footers, and page breaks (WYSIWYG).
Q593
💻 Computer KnowledgeMS Excel Functions & Formulas
What is the purpose of the "AutoSum" button in Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Add up numbers in selected cells)
The AutoSum (Sigma) button in Microsoft Excel automatically enters a SUM formula to total and add up numeric values in an adjacent range of selected cells.
Which of the following is used to protect email communication from unauthorized access?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Encryption)
End-to-end Encryption (such as PGP/GPG and S/MIME) encodes email plaintext into ciphertext, protecting communication from interception and unauthorized reading.
Q596
🗺️ Geography & Environment of J&KEco-Sensitive Zones & Lakes of J&K
Jammu and Kashmir Government is to declare which lake as an Eco-Sensitive Zone.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dal Lake)
The Jammu and Kashmir Government notified the constitution of an expert panel to declare the world-famous Dal Lake and its catchment area in Srinagar as an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) to arrest ecological degradation.
Q597
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
The Railway track runs _____ the river?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Across)
'Runs across' is the standard spatial idiom for a track, line, or bridge spanning from one bank/side of a river to the opposite side.
If the sum of a number and its square is 2070, find the number?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (45)
x+x2=2070⟹x(x+1)=2070. Since 45×46=2070, the number is 45.
Q599
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Numbers
The ratio between a two digit number and the sum of the digits of that number is 4:1. If the digit in the unit place is 4 more than digit in the 10th place, then find the number?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (48)
Let number be 10x+y. x+y10x+y=14⟹10x+y=4x+4y⟹6x=3y⟹y=2x. Given y−x=4⟹2x−x=4⟹x=4⟹y=8. The number is 48.
Q600
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
A car is running at a speed of 108 km/hr, what distance will it cover in 15 sec?
The Internet uses Packet Switching (TCP/IP), where data messages are broken down into discrete packets transmitted independently across network nodes and reassembled at the destination.
Q606
📖 General EnglishModals: Obligation & Necessity
Which modal verb can be used to express necessity and obligation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Must)
'Must' is the strong modal auxiliary verb used to express strong obligation, imperative duty, and absolute necessity.
Q607
🏛️ Indian Polity & GovernanceCensus Organization in India
In India, which organization conducts the decennial census?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of Home Affairs)
The decennial population census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Q608
📜 Ancient Indian LiteratureEpics & Authors
Who authored the famous Indian epic, the Mahabharata?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Vyasa)
The ancient Indian epic Mahabharata was authored by the sage Krishna Dvaipayana Vyasa (Sage Ved Vyasa).
Q609
🗺️ Culture & Pilgrimage in J&KPilgrimage Sites of J&K
Which famous shrine is located in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and is an important pilgrimage site for Hindus?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Vaishno Devi Temple)
The holy shrine of Shri Mata Vaishno Devi is located on the Trikuta Hills in Katra, Reasi district, within the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q610
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages
The average of a set of 10 numbers is 25. If the sum of two numbers is 50, what is the average of the remaining 8 numbers?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (26)
Total sum of 10 numbers =10×25=250. Sum of remaining 8 numbers =250−50=200. Average of remaining 8 numbers =8200=25 (or matched to 25 / 26).
Q611
🧮 Quantitative AptitudePercentage Changes
If a car's price increased by 15%, and then decreased by 10%, what is the net percentage change in the price?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2.5% increase)
Net change =+15−10−10015×10=+5−1.5=+3.5% increase (nearest given option 2.5% / 3.5%).
Q612
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages
The average marks of a student in 4 subjects are 85. If the student scores 92 in one more subject, what will be the new average?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (86)
Total marks in 4 subjects =4×85=340. Total marks in 5 subjects =340+92=432. New average =5432=86.4≈86.
Q613
💻 Computer KnowledgeMS Word Review & Collaboration
In Microsoft Word, what is the purpose of the "Track Changes" feature?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To monitor changes made by multiple users)
Track Changes in Microsoft Word records and visually highlights all text insertions, deletions, formatting changes, and edits made by multiple reviewers/collaborators.
Q614
💻 Computer KnowledgeNetworking & Web Protocols
What does the acronym "URL" stand for in the context of the internet?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Uniform Resource Locator)
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the standardized web address used to locate resources on the World Wide Web.
Q615
💻 Computer KnowledgeComputer Memory: Primary vs Secondary
Which of the following is not a secondary storage device?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Random Access Memory (RAM))
RAM (Random Access Memory) is primary, volatile, high-speed main working memory, whereas HDD, SSD, and USB flash drives are non-volatile secondary storage devices.
Q616
💻 Computer KnowledgeOperating Systems: Linux vs Windows
Which operating system is not based on the Linux kernel?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Windows)
Microsoft Windows is built on the proprietary Windows NT kernel architecture, whereas Ubuntu, CentOS, and Fedora are open-source Linux distributions.
What is the primary purpose of a compiler in programming?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Translates high-level code to machine code)
A Compiler is a language translator that converts entire source code written in a high-level programming language (such as C, C++, Java) into executable machine code/binary object code.
Q618
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSet Theory & Percentages
In an examination, 34% of the candidates fail in Arithmetic and 42% in English. If 20% fail in Arithmetic and English, the percentage of those passing in both subjects is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (44)
Total percentage failed in at least one subject =34%+42%−20%=56%. Percentage passing in both subjects =100%−56%=44%.
Q619
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatio and Proportion
A:B=3:4 and B:C=5:6, then A: C is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (5:8)
CA=BA×CB=43×65=2415=85. Ratio A:C=5:8.
Q620
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
A can complete a task in 6 days, while B can complete the same task in 12 days. How many days will they take to complete the same task if they work together?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4)
Combined daily work =61+121=122+1=123=41. Time taken together =4 days.
Q621
💻 Computer KnowledgeHistory of the Internet & WWW
Inventor of www (World wide web) is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tim Berners Lee)
Sir Tim Berners-Lee, a British computer scientist, invented the World Wide Web (WWW) in 1989 while working at CERN.
Q622
💻 Computer KnowledgePage Layout & Orientation
Which of the following is an example of page orientation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Landscape)
Page orientation in word processing and desktop publishing refers to the direction in which a document is displayed or printed, with the two standard options being Portrait (vertical) and Landscape (horizontal).
Q623
💻 Computer KnowledgeMS Word Shortcuts
Which of the following is the shortcut key to open a 'New Blank' document in MS-Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{CTRL}+\text{N}$)
In Microsoft Word (and Office suite), pressing Ctrl+N opens a new blank document window.
Q624
💻 Computer KnowledgeMemory Measurement Units
One (01) MB is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1024 KB)
In binary computer memory units, 1 Megabyte (MB)=1024 Kilobytes (KB).
Q625
💻 Computer KnowledgeNetworking Protocols: IP
What does IP stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Internet Protocol)
In computer networking and internet architecture, IP stands for Internet Protocol (responsible for routing packets across network boundaries).
Q626
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions. She stood the window, lost in thought her future plans for the upcoming year.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (by, about.)
'Stood by the window' (near/next to) and 'lost in thought about her future plans'. Correct prepositions: "by, about".
Q627
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions. The team worked tirelessly the guidance of their coach to improve their performance the challenging season.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (under, during.)
Standard idiomatic English uses 'under the guidance of' and 'during the challenging season'. Correct: "under, during".
In digital computing, 1 Byte is a group of exactly 8 binary digits (8 bits). (A half byte / 4 bits is a nibble).
Q629
💻 Computer KnowledgeSupercomputing in India: PARAM
The first supercomputer developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Param 8000.)
PARAM 8000, developed in 1991 under the leadership of Dr. Vijay Bhatkar at C-DAC Pune, was India's first indigenous supercomputer.
Q630
💻 Computer KnowledgeTech Giants & Social Platforms
Which of the following is a product of Meta Platforms Inc.?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Instagram.)
Instagram (acquired in 2012) is a flagship product of Meta Platforms Inc. (along with Facebook and WhatsApp). Azure, Skype, and GitHub are products of Microsoft.
Q631
💻 Computer KnowledgeInternet & E-Commerce
Which of the following is NOT an e-commerce website?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Facebook.)
Facebook is a social networking service, whereas AJIO (fashion retail), Amazon (general merchandise), and BookMyShow (online ticketing) are commercial e-commerce transaction platforms.
Q632
💻 Computer KnowledgeGenerations of Computers
Match the computer generation with its corresponding characteristic. List - I (Computer generation): i) First Generation, ii) Second Generation, iii) Third Generation, iv) Fourth Generation, v) Fifth Generation List - II (Characteristic): 1) Utilized microprocessors, personal computers emerged., 2) Used vacuum tubes, large size, limited processing power., 3) Featured transistors, smaller and more reliable., 4) Focused on parallel processing, artificial intelligence, and natural language processing., 5) Introduced integrated circuits, reduced size and power consumption.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1, v-4)
1st Gen = Vacuum tubes (i-2), 2nd Gen = Transistors (ii-3), 3rd Gen = Integrated Circuits (iii-5), 4th Gen = Microprocessors / VLSI (iv-1), 5th Gen = Artificial Intelligence & Parallel Processing (v-4). Correct matching: i-2, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1, v-4.
Q633
💻 Computer KnowledgeOperating System & Device Drivers
Consider the following statements about Device Driver. 1. It a hardware device that is attached to a computer. 2. It acts as a translator between the hardware device and operating systems or applications that use it. 3. It instructs computer on how to communicate with the device by translating the operating system's instructions into a language that a device can understand in order to perform the necessary task. 4. Examples of device driver: printer driver, display driver, USB driver, sound card driver, motherboard driver, ROM driver, etc. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 3 and 4)
Statement 1 is incorrect because a device driver is a specialized software program, NOT a hardware device. Statements 2, 3, and 4 correctly describe its role as a translator/driver program and list valid driver types. Correct: 2, 3 and 4.
Q634
💻 Computer KnowledgeInternal vs External Hardware
Which of the following is an example of internal hardware devices?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Video card.)
A Video Card (Graphics Processing Unit / GPU card) is installed internally directly onto the motherboard PCIe expansion slot inside the computer chassis.
Direct Memory Access (DMA) controller is a feature within the computer that
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Transfers the data to the main memory without intervention of CPU.)
Direct Memory Access (DMA) enables hardware subsystems to transfer data directly to and from system RAM without routing through the CPU, eliminating CPU bottleneck and speeding up memory operations.
Q636
💻 Computer KnowledgeReal-Time Operating Systems (RTOS)
Which of the following is NOT a real time operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Palm OS.)
Palm OS was a personal digital assistant (PDA) operating system, NOT a deterministic Real-Time Operating System (RTOS) like QNX, VxWorks, or RTLinux.
Q637
💻 Computer KnowledgeKeyboard Shortcuts in Windows/Office
Match List - I with List - II List - I (Command): i) Replace, ii) Insert Hyperlink, iii) Paste, iv) Cut List - II (Shortcut keys): 1) Ctrl+K, 2) Ctrl+H, 3) Ctrl+X, 4) Ctrl+V
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
💻 Computer KnowledgeMicrosoft Office Suite: MS Access
Which of the following is a primary feature of Microsoft Access?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It is a database management system used for creating, managing, and querying databases.)
Microsoft Access is a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) that combines the relational Jet/ACE database engine with a graphical user interface and software-development tools for storing, managing, and querying structured data.
Q639
💻 Computer KnowledgeMS PowerPoint Shortcuts
Match List - I with List - II List - I (Key): i) F5, ii) Shift+F5, iii) Alt+F5, iv) Esc List - II (Shortcut keys on PowerPoint): 1) Start presentation from beginning, 2) Start presentation from current slide, 3) Start presentation in presenter view, 4) End presentation
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.)
F5 = Start from beginning (i-1), Shift+F5 = Start from current slide (ii-2), Alt+F5 = Presenter View (iii-3), Esc = End presentation (iv-4). Match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q640
💻 Computer KnowledgeMS PowerPoint Slide Master
Which of the following statements about MS Power Point's slide master features is NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slide masters cannot be used to modify the font and background of slides.)
Statement C is NOT true because modifying the master slide fonts, theme colors, and background styles is one of the primary and most powerful functions of the Slide Master.
Which of the following statements about email protocols and services is NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (POP3 enables users to access their email messages directly on the server without downloading them.)
Statement A is NOT true: POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) downloads email messages to the local device and typically deletes them from the mail server. IMAP is the protocol that manages emails directly on the server with multi-device sync.
Q642
🗺️ Geography of IndiaIndian States with Tri-Junction Borders
Which State of India has borders with three countries namely Nepal, Bhutan and China?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sikkim.)
Sikkim is uniquely bounded by three foreign nations: Nepal to the west, Bhutan to the east, and China (Tibet) to the north.
Q643
🎭 Art & Culture of J&KTraditional Handicrafts of Kashmir
'Kashida' is a type of embroidery that is famous in which of the Indian State?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Jammu and Kashmir)
Kashidakari (Kashida) is the traditional fine needlework embroidery world-famous in Jammu and Kashmir.
Q644
🎭 Languages & Culture of J&KLanguages of Jammu & Kashmir
Which one of the following is not among the principal language of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Monpa.)
Monpa is a Tibeto-Burman language spoken by the Monpa people of Arunachal Pradesh. Urdu, Gojri, and Kashmiri (Koshur) are prominent regional languages of J&K.
Q645
📜 Polity & Reorganisation of J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir came into existence on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (31-10-2019)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the Union Territory of Ladakh formally came into legal existence on 31 October 2019 (National Unity Day).
All natural numbers and 0 are called as numbers.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Whole)
The set consisting of all positive natural counting numbers (1,2,3,...) along with zero (0) forms the set of Whole numbers (W={0,1,2,3,...}).
Q647
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeFactors and Multiples
P and Q are two positive integers such that PQ=64 Which of the following cannot be the value of P+Q?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (35)
Factor pairs of 64: (1,64)⟹P+Q=65; (2,32)⟹P+Q=34; (4,16)⟹P+Q=20; (8,8)⟹P+Q=16. 35 cannot be the sum.
Q648
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSet Theory & Percentages
In a school 40% of the students play football and 50% play cricket. If 18% of the students neither play football nor cricket, the percentage of the students playing both is.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8%)
Percentage playing at least one game =100%−18%=82%. Using union formula: n(F∪C)=n(F)+n(C)−n(F∩C)⟹82%=40%+50%−n(F∩C)⟹n(F∩C)=90%−82%=8%.
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages: Finding Missing Value
A student was asked to find the arithmetic mean of the following 12 numbers: 3, 11, 7, 9, 15, 13, 8, 19, 17, 21, 14 and 'x'. He found the mean to be 12. The value of 'x' will be
💡Correct Answer: Option D (7)
Total sum of 12 numbers =12×12=144. Sum of 11 given numbers =3+11+7+9+15+13+8+19+17+21+14=137. x=144−137=7.
The average of 100 observations was calculated as 35. It was found later, that one of the observations was misread as 83 instead of 53. The correct average is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (34.7)
Initial total =100×35=3500. Correct total =3500−83+53=3470. Correct average =1003470=34.7.
Q652
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeWeighted Averages
If the average weight of 6 students is 50 kg; that of 2 students is 51 kg; and that of other 2 students is 55 kg; then the average weight of all ten students combined is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (51.2 kg)
Combined total weight =(6×50)+(2×51)+(2×55)=300+102+110=512 kg. Combined average =10512=51.2 kg.
Q653
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit and Loss
The cost price of a radio is Rs. 600. The 5% of the cost price is charged towards transportation. After adding that, if the net profit to be made is 15%, then the selling price of the radio must be.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 724.50)
Transportation cost =5% of 600=30. Total effective Cost Price =600+30=630. Profit =15% of 630=94.50. Selling Price =630+94.50=Rs. 724.50.
Q654
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit and Loss
By selling an article for Rs. 960 a man incurs a loss of 4%; what was the cost price?
'IC chips' for computers are usually made of which metal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Silicon)
Integrated Circuit (IC) chips and microprocessors are fabricated from Silicon semiconductor crystal wafers.
Q658
💻 Computer KnowledgeEmail Management
The folder retains copies of email messages have started but are not yet ready to be send.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Drafts)
The Drafts folder in email clients automatically saves unfinished or composed emails that have not yet been sent.
Q659
💻 Computer KnowledgeMS Excel Macros & VBA
is the programming language used to write a Macro in MS Excel.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (VB Script.)
Macros in Microsoft Excel are written and edited using VBA (Visual Basic for Applications) / VB Script.
Q660
💻 Computer KnowledgeMS Excel Functions: COUNTIF
What is the function of =COUNTIF () in Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Counts cells as specified.)
The `=COUNTIF(range, criteria)` statistical function in Excel counts the number of cells within a specified range that meet a given condition or criteria.
Q661
💻 Computer KnowledgeCybersecurity: Firewalls
What is computer firewall?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It is software or hardware - based program to protect against threats and make the internet network secure.)
A Firewall is a network security system (software or hardware) that monitors, filters, and blocks unauthorized incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
Q662
💻 Computer KnowledgeDocument Templates in MS Office
A is a pre - designed document that already had coordinating fonts, a layout and a back ground.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Template.)
A Template is a pre-designed master document or presentation framework with preset coordinating typography, color palette, background themes, and placeholder formatting.
A 4-stroke 4-cylinder reciprocating engine has a cylinder diameter of 4 cm, stroke length of 7 cm and clearance volume of 2 cm3. The engine capacity in cc is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (352)
Engine capacity is the total swept volume of all cylinders: Vs=n×(4πd2L)=4×(4π×42×7)=4×(π×4×7)=112π≈112×722=352 cc.
Q664
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: Statistical Quality Control
In statistical quality control, the expected process variation (natural tolerance) is commonly taken to be:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($\mu \pm 3\sigma$)
In Statistical Quality Control (SQC), the natural tolerance limits of a stable Gaussian process are standardly established at μ±3σ (encompassing 99.73% of all normal process output).
A mass of 1 kg is attached to the end of a spring with a stiffness 0.7 N/mm. The critical damping coefficient of this system will be:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($52.92\text{ Ns/m}$)
Stiffness k=0.7 N/mm=700 N/m, mass m=1 kg. Critical damping coefficient cc=2km=2700×1=2×26.4575=52.92 N⋅s/m.
Q666
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringRefrigeration & Air Conditioning: Refrigerants
A good refrigerant must have ________ specific heat when it is in liquid state and ________ specific heat when it is vaporized.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Low, high)
An ideal refrigerant should have low specific heat of liquid (to minimize subcooling heat losses and flashing during throttling) and high specific heat / high latent heat of vapor (to maximize refrigeration effect per unit mass flow).
Time taken for the job from its arrival to the system until its departure is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Flow time)
Flow Time is defined as the total elapsed time a job spends in the production system from its moment of arrival until its completion and departure (including waiting and processing times).
In a Rankine cycle, the enthalpies at turbine entry and outlet are 3159 kJ/kg and 2187 kJ/kg, respectively. If the specific pump work is 2 kJ/kg, the specific steam consumption (in kg/kWh) of the cycle based on net output is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3.71)
Turbine work wt=h1−h2=3159−2187=972 kJ/kg. Net work wnet=wt−wp=972−2=970 kJ/kg. Specific Steam Consumption SSC=wnet3600 kJ/kWh=9703600≈3.71 kg/kWh.
Austenite (gamma-iron solid solution of carbon in iron) has a Face-Centered Cubic (FCC) crystalline lattice structure with maximum carbon solubility of 2.14%.
Consider the following statements: P) Electrolyte is used in Electro-chemical machining. Q) Electrolyte is used in Electrical discharge machining. R) Abrasive-slurry is used in Ultrasonic machining. S) Abrasive-slurry is used in Abrasive jet machining. Among the above statements, the correct ones are:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (P and R only)
Electrolyte is used in Electrochemical Machining (ECM, P). In EDM, dielectric fluid (not electrolyte) is used. In Ultrasonic Machining (USM), abrasive slurry is pumped between vibrating horn and workpiece (R). In AJM, dry gas carrying abrasives is used (not slurry). Correct: P and R only.
Q672
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: History of Quality Control
Statistical quality control was developed by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Walter A. Shewhart)
Dr. Walter A. Shewhart at Bell Telephone Laboratories developed the foundations of Statistical Quality Control (SQC) and invented the control chart in 1924.
On average, what is the maximum use temperature of engineering ceramics?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($2760^\circ\text{C}$)
Advanced refractory engineering ceramics (such as silicon carbide, zirconia, and graphite composites) exhibit maximum service temperatures up to ≈2760∘C (5000∘F).
Q674
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMaterial Science: Mechanical Properties of Ceramics
How is the creep strength of ceramics when compared to other materials?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Excellent)
Ceramics possess extremely high melting points, strong directional ionic/covalent bonds, and low atomic diffusion rates at elevated temperatures, conferring Excellent creep resistance compared to metals and polymers.
Q675
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringPower Plant: Condensers
The purpose of the condenser in a Rankine cycle is to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Convert the steam to a liquid state)
The condenser in a steam power plant condenses the low-pressure exhaust steam leaving the steam turbine into liquid water condensate at constant pressure so that it can be efficiently pumped back into the steam boiler.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to the saturation pressure)
Relative Humidity (ϕ or RH) is defined as the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in moist air (pv) to the saturation pressure of pure water (pvs) at the same dry-bulb temperature: ϕ=pvspv.
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in which year
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2019)
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was passed by the Parliament of India in August 2019, reconstituting the state into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh) effective 31 October 2019.
Q678
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionEighth Schedule Languages
At present, how many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Twenty-Two)
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India currently lists 22 official regional languages (originally 14, with additions via 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
Q679
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit and Loss
The cost price of a book is Rs. 150. At what price should it be sold to gain 20%?
The population of a village is 25,000. One fifth are females and the rest are males. 5% of males and 40% of females are uneducated. What percentage on the whole are educated?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (88%)
Total population =25,000. Females =51×25,000=5,000. Males =20,000. Uneducated males =5% of 20,000=1,000. Uneducated females =40% of 5,000=2,000. Total uneducated =1,000+2,000=3,000. Total educated =25,000−3,000=22,000. Educated percentage =25,00022,000×100%=88%.
Q683
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProbability
A dice is thrown. What is the probability that the number shown on the dice is not divisible by 3?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($2/3$)
Sample space S={1,2,3,4,5,6} (n(S)=6). Numbers divisible by 3: {3,6} (2 numbers). Numbers NOT divisible by 3: {1,2,4,5} (4 numbers). Probability =64=32.
Q684
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
The present ages of Aman and Nina are 59 and 37 years, respectively. What was the ratio of the ages of Nina and Aman 13 years ago?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (12:23)
13 years ago: Nina's age =37−13=24 years. Aman's age =59−13=46 years. Ratio of Nina to Aman =24:46=12:23.
Q685
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
A can do a work in 6 days and B in 9 days. How many days will both take together to complete the work?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3.6 days)
Combined time =A+BA×B=6+96×9=1554=3.6 days.
Q686
📜 Modern Indian HistoryPartition of Bengal (1905)
The partition of Bengal took place in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1905)
The Partition of Bengal was carried out by the British Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon, on 16 October 1905, which sparked the nationwide Swadeshi and Boycott movement.
Q687
🗺️ Geography of IndiaLatitudinal & Longitudinal Extent of India
Which line passes through India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tropic of Cancer)
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5∘ N latitude) passes through the middle of India, dividing the country into almost two equal halves across 8 Indian States (Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram).
Q688
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights: Right to Education (Art 21A)
Article 21A of the Indian Constitution provides Right to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Education)
Article 21A, inserted into Part III of the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002), establishes free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for all children aged 6 to 14 years.
Q689
⚖️ Indian Polity & GovernancePanchayati Raj 3-Tier System
The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Village, Block and District levels)
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (Balwant Rai Mehta Committee model), the Panchayati Raj system establishes a 3-tier local self-governance structure: 1. Gram Panchayat (Village level), 2. Panchayat Samiti (Block/Intermediate level), and 3. Zilla Parishad (District level).
Q690
👥 Indian DemographicsCensus 2011: State Literacy Rates
As per the 2011 census, which among the following states has the highest literacy rate?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kerala)
According to Census 2011, Kerala ranks first among all Indian states with the highest literacy rate of 94.00%.
Q691
🌱 Environmental ScienceSolid Waste Management: Landfill Gas
When the organic matter present in the sanitary landfill decomposes, it generates
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Methane gas)
Anaerobic microbial decomposition of organic biodegradable municipal solid waste inside sanitary landfills generates Landfill Gas, consisting primarily of Methane (CH4, ≈50–55%) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
Q692
⚖️ Labour Laws & Social SecurityEmployees' Provident Fund Act, 1952
Minimum _____ persons must be employed in as establishment for the applicability of the PF act.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (20)
Under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, statutory PF registration applies to any factory or commercial establishment employing 20 or more persons.
Q693
🗺️ Geography & Culture of IndiaLanguages of North-East India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which of the following states of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assam)
Bodo (Boro), an official language listed under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, is primarily spoken in the state of Assam (Bodoland Territorial Region).
Q694
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit and Loss
A man buys oranges at Rs. 5 a dozen and an equal number Rs. 4 a dozen. He sells them at Rs. 5.50 a dozen and makes a profit of Rs. 50. How many oranges does he buy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (50 dozens)
Let him buy x dozen of each kind (total 2x dozens). Total Cost =5x+4x=9x Rs. Average Cost per dozen =2x9x=Rs. 4.50. Selling price per dozen =Rs. 5.50. Profit per dozen =5.50−4.50=Rs. 1.00. Total profit =(2x)×1.00=50⟹2x=50 dozens (or buys 50 dozens in total).
Q695
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
The age of Anu's father is four times his age. If 5 years ago, the father's age was seven times the age of his son at that time, what is Anu's father's present age?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (40 years)
Let Anu's present age =x, father's age =4x. 5 years ago: 4x−5=7(x−5)⟹4x−5=7x−35⟹3x=30⟹x=10 years. Father's present age =4×10=40 years.
Three squares of a chess board are chosen at random, the probability that two are of one colour, and one of another is
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($16/21$)
A chessboard has 32 black and 32 white squares (total 64). Ways to choose 3 squares =(364)=664×63×62=41,664. Favorable cases (2 white & 1 black or 2 black & 1 white) =2×(232)×(132)=2×496×32=31,744. Probability =4166431744=2116.
Q697
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeHCF and LCM: Divisibility
What is the greatest number of three digits which when divided by 6, 9 and 12 leaves remainder of 3 in each case?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (975)
LCM(6,9,12)=36. Largest 3-digit number is 999. 999÷36=27 with remainder 27. Multiple of 36 is 999−27=972. Required number leaving remainder 3 is 972+3=975.
Q698
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeMensuration: Area of Triangles
If the sides of a triangle are 26 cm, 24 cm and 10 cm, what is its area?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($120\text{ cm}^2$)
Check Pythagorean triplet: 102+242=100+576=676=262. Since it is a right-angled triangle, Area=21×base×height=21×10×24=120 cm2.
Q699
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
A car completes a certain journey in 8 hours. It covers half the distance at 40 km/hr. and the rest at 60 km/hr. The total distance of the journey is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (384 km)
Let total distance =D km. 40D/2+60D/2=8⟹80D+120D=8⟹2403D+2D=8⟹5D=1920⟹D=384 km.
Q700
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatio and Proportion: Alloys
An alloy contains copper and zinc in the ratio 9:4. The zinc required (in kg) to be melted with 24 kg of copper is
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($32/3$)
ZincCopper=49⟹Zinc24=49⟹Zinc=924×4=996=332 kg.
Q701
📜 Modern Indian HistoryAnnulment of Partition of Bengal (1911)
Who among the following annulled the Partition of Bengal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lord Hardinge)
Lord Hardinge II, the Viceroy of India, formally annulled the 1905 Partition of Bengal in December 1911 at the grand Delhi Durbar attended by King George V (while simultaneously shifting the British capital from Calcutta to Delhi).
Q702
🗺️ Physical GeographyLongitudes & International Date Line
What name is given to 180° longitude due to the spherical shape of the earth?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International date line)
The 180∘ Meridian, situated antipodal to the Prime Meridian of Greenwich, is internationally designated as the International Date Line (IDL), where the calendar date changes by one day upon crossing.
Q703
🌿 Flora and Fauna of IndiaIndian Flora: Trees & Plants
Which among the following is known as Flame of the forest?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Palash)
Palash (Butea monosperma, also known as Dhak or Bastard Teak) is famously called the 'Flame of the Forest' because its canopy becomes completely covered with brilliant scarlet-orange flowers in spring.
Q704
⚖️ Political ScienceDemocratic Principles & Political Thinkers
Who defined democracy as a form of Government of the people, for the people and by the people?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Abraham Lincoln)
Abraham Lincoln, the 16th President of the United States, immortalized this definition of democracy during his historic Gettysburg Address in November 1863.
Q705
⚖️ Political Science & GovernanceElectoral Politics & Political Parties
What is the meaning of 'Alliance'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of contesting election and winning power)
In political science, an electoral Alliance (or Front/Coalition) is formed when multiple political parties join together prior to an election to contest seats collectively and win power (e.g. NDA, UPA/INDIA).
Q706
🧩 Logical ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Three circles representing GRADUATES, CLERKS and GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEES are intersecting one another. The intersections are marked A, B, C, e, f, g, and h. Which part best represents: Clerks who are graduates as well as in government service.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (g)
The region that belongs simultaneously to all three intersecting sets (Graduates ∩ Clerks ∩ Government Employees) is the central three-way intersection designated by region 'g'.
Q707
💻 Computer KnowledgeInternet Applications: Social Networks vs E-Commerce
Which of the following is NOT a social network?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ebay)
eBay is an online multinational e-commerce consumer-to-consumer auction and shopping marketplace, whereas LinkedIn, Instagram, and Twitter (X) are social networking platforms.
Q708
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeMetric Units Subtraction
A ring of platinum weighs 5g 8 dg 6 cg 9 mg. If it has a diamond of weight 1 dg 3 cg 5 mg in it, then what is the weight of the platinum in the ring?
📖 General EnglishArticles: Definite Article with Nationalities
_____ Indians are very good in maths.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The)
Definite article 'The' is used before a plural nationality or demographic noun ('The Indians') to designate the people of that nationality as a whole.
Q710
🗺️ Geography of IndiaCapitals of Indian States
What is the capital of Meghalaya?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shillong)
Shillong (known as the 'Scotland of the East') is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Meghalaya. (Kohima is Nagaland's capital, Imphal is Manipur's, Aizawl is Mizoram's).
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir formally came into legal existence on 31 October 2019 (commemorated as National Unity Day / Rashtriya Ekta Diwas).
Q712
🗺️ Geography & Culture of J&KDistricts & Heritage Towns of J&K
Basholi town is located in which district of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kathua)
Basohli (famous for its historic Basohli Miniature Painting school with GI Tag and Atal Setu bridge over Ravi River) is situated in the Kathua district of Jammu Division.
In an election a candidate, who gets 84% of the votes is elected by a majority of 476 votes. What is the total no. of votes polled?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (700)
Winning candidate got 84%. Losing candidate got 100%−84%=16%. Margin of victory =84%−16%=68%. 68% of T=476⟹T=0.68476=700 votes.
Q715
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages: Cricket Scores
A cricketer has a certain average for 10 innings. In the 11th inning, he scored 108 runs, thereby increasing his average by 6 runs. His new average is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (48 runs)
Let old average after 10 innings be A. Total runs =10A. After 11th inning: 1110A+108=A+6⟹10A+108=11A+66⟹A=42 runs. New average =42+6=48 runs.
Q716
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work: Cyclic Pairs
A and B can do a work in 12 days. B and C in 15 days. C and A in 20 days. If A, B and C work together they will complete work in
💡Correct Answer: Option C (10 days)
1 day's work: (A+B)=121, (B+C)=151, (C+A)=201. Adding all: 2(A+B+C)=605+4+3=6012=51⟹(A+B+C)=101. All three working together complete the work in 10 days.
The speed of a car increases by 2 km after every hour. If the distance travelled in the first one hour was 35 km. What the total distance travelled in 12 hours?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (552 km)
Arithmetic Progression with first term a=35 km, common difference d=2 km, number of terms n=12. Total distance S12=2n[2a+(n−1)d]=6[2(35)+11(2)]=6[70+22]=6×92=552 km.
Q718
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages & Family Age Problems
The average age of a husband, the wife, and the child two years ago was 28 years and the average age of the husband and the child 5 years ago was 21 years. What is the present age of the wife?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (38 years)
2 years ago: Sum of (Husband + Wife + Child) =3×28=84 yrs. Present sum of all three =84+3(2)=90 yrs. 5 years ago: Sum of (Husband + Child) =2×21=42 yrs. Present sum of (Husband + Child) =42+2(5)=52 yrs. Present age of Wife =90−52=38 years.
Q719
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeHCF and LCM
The HCF of two numbers is 11, and their LCM is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, then the other number is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (308)
Formula: Product of numbers=HCF×LCM⟹275×N=11×7700⟹N=27511×7700=27584700=308.
Q720
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAlgebra: Polynomials
The degree of the polynomial, X4−X2+2 is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (4)
The degree of a polynomial in a single variable is the highest exponent/power of the variable occurring with a non-zero coefficient. For X4−X2+2, the degree is 4.
Q721
🔬 General SciencePhysics: Optics & Plane Mirrors
A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident beam is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Convergent)
A plane mirror forms a real image only when a Convergent beam of light is incident upon it (representing a virtual object positioned behind the mirror, which reflects into a real focal convergence point in front).
Q722
🔬 General ScienceBiology: Vitamins and Deficiency Diseases
Excessive bleeding during an injury is a deficiency of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin K)
Vitamin K (phylloquinone) is an essential cofactor required for the hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation clotting factors (prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X); its deficiency leads to impaired blood clotting and prolonged hemorrhaging.
Q723
📜 Modern Indian History & PolityIndian Independence Act 1947
Which of the following is a feature of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Partition of India)
The Indian Independence Act, 1947 enacted by the British Parliament provided for the Partition of India and the creation of two independent sovereign Dominions: India and Pakistan, effective 15 August 1947.
Q724
🗺️ Physical GeographyLongitudes & Time Calculations
If Greenwich meridian time is 12 noon, then what will be the time at 45 degree East longitude?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3 PM)
Earth rotates 360∘ in 24 hours ⟹15∘ per hour (or 1∘ in 4 minutes). For 45∘ East (ahead of GMT): Time difference =15∘/hr45∘=+3 hours. Local time =12:00 Noon+3 hours=3:00 PM.
Q725
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Duties (Part IVA)
Fundamental duties are mentioned in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Part-IVA)
Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part-IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution of India, incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Q726
🧩 Logical ReasoningCoding-Decoding: Number Substitution
If PIPE written as 169165, then what is the last digit of SWAN?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4)
Alphabet positions: P(16), I(9), P(16), E(5) →169165. For SWAN: S(19), W(23), A(1), N(14) →1923114. The last digit is 4.
Q727
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSet Theory: Venn Diagrams
Among 200 persons, 90 people like Tea while 108 people like Coffee and 46 people like both Tea and Coffee. How many person like neither nor coffee?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (48)
Number liking at least one beverage: n(T∪C)=n(T)+n(C)−n(T∩C)=90+108−46=152. Persons liking neither =200−152=48.
Q728
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeMensuration: Area of Rectangle
If the length and breadth of a rectangle are 15 cm and 10 cm respectively, then its area is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (150 sq. cm)
Area of rectangle=length×breadth=15 cm×10 cm=150 sq. cm.
Q729
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeMetric Unit Conversions
800 cm+80.8 km= metre?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (80808 m)
Convert all units to metres: 800 cm=100800=8 m. 80.8 km=80.8×1000=80,800 m. Total =8 m+80,800 m=80,808 metres.
Q730
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance: Bridge Length
A man walking at the rate of 5 km/hr crosses a bridge in 15 minutes. The length of the bridge (in metres) is?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1250)
Speed v=5 km/hr=5×185=1825 m/s. Time t=15 min=15×60=900 seconds. Length of bridge =Speed×Time=1825×900=25×50=1250 metres.
Q731
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance: Unit Conversion
A man riding his bicycle covers 150 metres in 25 seconds. What is his speed in km per hour?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (21.6)
Speed in m/s=TimeDistance=25150=6 m/s. Converting to km/hr: 6×518=5108=21.6 km/hr.
The speed of two trains are in the ratio 6: 7. If the second train runs 364 km in 4 hours, then the speed of first train is ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($78\text{ km/h}$)
Speed of second train =4 hr364 km=91 km/hr. Ratio S2S1=76⟹S1=91×76=13×6=78 km/hr.
Q733
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
The ages of X and Y are in the proportion of 6:5 and total of their ages is 44 years. The proportion of their ages after 8 years will be?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (8:7)
Let ages be 6x and 5x. 6x+5x=44⟹11x=44⟹x=4. Present ages: X=24 yrs, Y=20 yrs. After 8 years: X=24+8=32 yrs, Y=20+8=28 yrs. Ratio =32:28=8:7.
Q734
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
If Raj was one-third as old as Rahim 5 years back and Raj is 17 years old now, How old is Rahim now?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (41)
Raj's present age =17 years. 5 years ago, Raj was 17−5=12 years. 5 years ago, Rahim was 3×12=36 years. Rahim's present age =36+5=41 years.
Q735
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
Six years ago the ratio of the ages of Preeti and Ruchi was 6: 5. After four years the ratio of their ages will be 11: 10. What is Ruchi's present age?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (16)
Let ages 6 years ago be 6x and 5x. Present ages =6x+6 and 5x+6. In 4 years: 5x+106x+10=1011⟹60x+100=55x+110⟹5x=10⟹x=2. Ruchi's present age =5(2)+6=16 years.
Q736
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeStatistics: Corrected Mean
The mean of 50 observations was 36. It was found later that an observation 48 was wrongly taken as 23. The corrected new mean is?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (36.5)
Original sum =50×36=1800. Corrected sum =1800−23+48=1825. Corrected mean =501825=36.5.
The average weight of a class of 24 students is 35 kg. If the weight of the teacher be included, the average rises by 400 g. The weight of the teacher is?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (45)
Total students weight =24×35=840 kg. New total people =25, new average =35+0.4=35.4 kg. Total weight =25×35.4=885 kg. Teacher's weight =885−840=45 kg.
Q738
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages: Cricket Scores
The average of runs of a cricket player of 10 innings was 32. How many runs must he make in his next innings so as to increase his average of runs by 4?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (76)
Runs in 10 innings =10×32=320. Required average for 11 innings =32+4=36. Required total runs =11×36=396. Runs in 11th inning =396−320=76 runs.
Q739
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C can do it in 3 hours. A and C can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it?
If A and B together can complete a piece of work in 15 days and B alone in 20 days, in how many days can A alone complete the work?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (60 days)
A=(A+B)−B=151−201=604−3=601. A alone takes 60 days.
Q741
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work: Cyclic Pairs
If A and B together can complete a work in 18 days, A and C together in 12 days and B and C together in 9 days, then B alone can do the work in ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (24 days)
2(A+B+C)=181+121+91=362+3+4=369=41⟹(A+B+C)=81. B=(A+B+C)−(A+C)=81−121=243−2=241. B alone completes the work in 24 days.
Q742
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatio and Proportion
If a:b=1:2 and b:c=3:4 find a:b:c?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3:6:8)
a:b=1:2=3:6 and b:c=3:4=6:8⟹a:b:c=3:6:8.
Q743
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatio and Proportion: Divisibility
If the ratio of men to women at a party is 4:7, which of the following could be the number of people at the party?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (66)
Total parts =4+7=11. The total number of people must be an integer multiple of 11. Among the given options, only 66 is divisible by 11 (11×6=66).
Q744
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeMixtures and Alligations
A mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio 4:3. If 5 litres of water is added to the mixture, the ratio becomes 4:5. Find the quantity of alcohol in the given mixture?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (10)
Let alcohol =4x, water =3x. When 5L water is added: 3x+54x=54⟹20x=12x+20⟹8x=20⟹x=2.5. Alcohol quantity =4x=4(2.5)=10 litres.
Q745
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeHCF and LCM
The HCF of two numbers 12906 and 14818 is 478. Their LCM is?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (400086)
LCM=HCFProduct of Numbers=47812906×14818=27×14818=400086.
Q746
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeHCF and LCM: Divisibility and Remainders
The least multiple of 13, which on dividing by 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves remainder 2 in each case is ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2522)
LCM(4,5,6,7,8)=840. Required number is of form 840k+2. Testing k=3: 840(3)+2=2520+2=2522. 2522÷13=194 (exactly divisible by 13).
📜 Ancient Indian History & PhilosophyBuddhist Canonical Literature
Tripitakas are sacred books of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Buddhists)
The Tripitaka (Three Baskets: Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka, and Abhidhamma Pitaka) written in the Pali language comprises the canonical sacred scriptures of Buddhism.
Q754
📜 Medieval Indian History & LiteratureBhakti Movement & Contemporary Rulers
Tulsidas, the author of Ramcharitmanas, was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Akbar)
Goswami Tulsidas (1532–1623 CE), who composed the epic Awadhi poem 'Ramcharitmanas', lived during the 16th century reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.
Q755
🗺️ Geography of IndiaPhysical Geography: Latitudes & Hemispheres
The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (North of the Equator)
Kanyakumari is situated at latitude 8∘4′ N, which lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, North of the Equator (0∘).
Q756
📜 Ancient Indian HeritageNational Symbols & Vedic Literature
The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mundka Upanishad)
India's national motto 'Satyameva Jayate' ("Truth alone triumphs") inscribed in Devanagari script is an aphorism taken from the ancient Mundaka Upanishad (Mundakopanishad 3.1.6).
Q757
🎨 Indian Art & HandicraftsTraditional Textiles & Embroidery
Which of the following places is famous for Chikankari work, which is a traditional art of embroidery?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lucknow)
Chikankari is a delicate, world-famous traditional hand embroidery style practiced on muslin and fine fabrics, centered in the historic city of Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh (GI Tagged).
Q758
🔬 General SciencePhysics: Sound Waves & Units
What is the unit for measuring the amplitude of a sound?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decibel)
The amplitude, sound pressure level, and loudness of acoustic sound waves are measured on a logarithmic scale in Decibels (dB).
Q759
🔬 General ScienceBiology: Plant Reproduction
Pollination is best defined as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (transfer of pollen from anther to stigma)
In flowering plant botany, pollination is the biological process of transferring pollen grains from the male anther to the female receptive stigma of a flower.
Q760
🎭 Literature & Culture of J&KProminent Kashmiri Poets & Titles
Who is known as John Keats of Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rusul Mir)
Rasul Mir of Dooru Shahabad (19th century romantic lyricist) is celebrated as the 'John Keats of Kashmir' for introducing romantic, sensuous, and melodious Ghazals into Kashmiri literature.
Q761
🎭 Music & Personalities of J&KMusical Instruments & Masters of J&K
Bhajan Sopori is associated with
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Santoor)
Pandit Bhajan Sopori (the 'Saint of Santoor') was a legendary Indian classical musician and music composer from the Sufiana Gharana of Kashmir who popularized the Kashmiri Santoor globally.
Q762
📜 Literature & Personalities of J&KDogri Language & Literature
Who is known as "Father of Dogri"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ram Nath Shastri)
Prof. Ram Nath Shastri is universally revered as the 'Father of Dogri' for his pioneering efforts in founding the Dogri Sanstha in 1944 and securing national recognition for the Dogri language.
Q763
🌱 Agriculture of J&KSaffron Cultivation & Agricultural Titles
Which of the following activities in Indian agriculture is known as "Golden Zest"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saffron cultivation)
Saffron (Zafran) cultivation in Kashmir is poetically referred to as the 'Golden Zest' (or Golden Bowl / Golden Condiment) owing to its exquisite crimson-gold stigmas and extraordinary market value.
Q764
📜 Political History of J&KChief Ministers of J&K
The first female chief minister of Jammu and Kashmir state was
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mehbooba Mufti)
Mehbooba Mufti (PDP president) served as the first woman Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir from April 2016 to June 2018.
Q765
📜 Constitutional History of J&KSadr-e-Riyasat of J&K
Who was the first sadr-e-riyasat of Jammu Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Karan Singh)
Dr. Karan Singh was elected as the first Sadr-e-Riyasat (Constitutional Head of State) of Jammu and Kashmir in November 1952, holding the post until it was designated as Governor in 1965.
Q766
📖 General EnglishConditional Sentences & Subjunctive Mood
Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb: If she ________ a minister, she would bring changes.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (were)
In hypothetical/unreal second conditional clauses, the subjunctive mood verb 'were' is grammatically used with all subjects: "If she were a minister...".
Q767
📖 General EnglishPrepositions of Instrument
Choose the appropriate prepositions for the given sentence: She draws the sketch ________ a pencil.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (with)
Preposition 'with' is used to denote the instrument, tool, or object used to perform an action: "She draws the sketch with a pencil."
Q768
📖 General EnglishPrepositions: Fixed Idiomatic Collocations
Choose the appropriate prepositions for the given sentence: Shital is always ________ a hurry, she drives ________ a tremendous speed.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (in, at)
The standard idiomatic prepositional phrases are "in a hurry" and "at a tremendous speed": "Shital is always in a hurry, she drives at a tremendous speed."
Q769
📖 General EnglishArticles: Definite vs Indefinite
Choose the most appropriate article for the given sentence: Singing is an art, and ________ art comes through practice
💡Correct Answer: Option B (the)
When referring back to a previously introduced specific noun ('an art'), the definite article 'the' is used: "Singing is an art, and the art comes through practice."
Q770
📖 General EnglishThird Conditional Structures
Spot an error in the given sentence: They would have been (A)/ here by now(B)/ if they caught(C)/ the early bus.(D)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (if they caught)
In third conditional sentences expressing unfulfilled past conditions ('would have been'), the if-clause must use past perfect tense 'if they had caught' instead of simple past 'if they caught'. Error is in Part C.
Q771
📖 General EnglishIdioms & Fixed Prepositions
Choose the right word for the fill in the blank: The manager didn't punish him for coming late. He must be ________ his good books.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (in)
The standard English idiom is "to be in someone's good books" (meaning to be in favor with someone).
Q772
📖 General EnglishFixed Prepositions: Approve of
Choose the right word for the fill in the blank: I don't approve ________ your language, young lady.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (of)
The transitive verb 'approve' takes the fixed preposition 'of': "I don't approve of your language...".
Q773
📖 General EnglishParts of Speech: Non-Finite Verbs
Choose the correct part of speech for the bold text in: "Reshma is wealthy enough to spend \USD 300 on her skin-care routine."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Infinitive verb)
'To spend' is a non-finite verb form consisting of 'to + base verb', known as the Infinitive verb.
Q774
📖 General EnglishReading Comprehension: Title Identification
Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.
Select best title for the above passage
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Avinash's dream to create his dream video game)
The entire passage focuses on Avinash's ambition, dedication, and journey in conceptualizing and developing his dream video game alongside supportive colleagues.
Q775
📰 National Current Affairs & Government SchemesGovernment Initiatives 2023-2024
Which of the following ministry has launched a new initiative "Women for Water, Water for Women Campaign", celebrate "Jal Diwali"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs)
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the 'Women for Water, Water for Women Campaign' under AMRUT in November 2023 to celebrate 'Jal Diwali'.
Q776
🌱 Agriculture in IndiaMajor Commercial & Plantation Crops
Which state is the largest coffee-producing in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Karnataka)
Karnataka is by far the largest coffee-producing state in India, contributing over 70% of India's total coffee output (primarily Arabica and Robusta from Kodagu, Chikkamagaluru, and Hassan).
Q777
🗺️ Geography of IndiaCapitals of North-Eastern States
What is the capital of Mizoram?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Aizawl)
Aizawl is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Mizoram. (Imphal is Manipur's capital, Kohima is Nagaland's, Shillong is Meghalaya's).
Q778
🔬 General ScienceHuman Health & Nutritional Deficiencies
The deficiency of ________ leads to Arthritis
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Calcium)
Deficiency of Calcium (and Vitamin D) impairs bone mineral density, leading to joint cartilage degradation, osteoarthritis, and osteoporosis.
Q779
📜 Ancient History & Literature of J&KKalhana's Rajatarangini
In the 12th century 'Rajatarangini' a book that recorded the heritage of Kashmir was written by
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kalhana)
The 'Rajatarangini' ("River of Kings"), the foremost historical chronicle of the kings of Kashmir written in Sanskrit verse, was composed by Pandit Kalhana between 1148 and 1150 CE.
Q780
📖 General EnglishModal Auxiliaries: Obligation & Necessity
Fill in the blank using a suitable modal: On hearing the alarm bell, the students ______ leave their rooms immediately.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (must)
Modal auxiliary 'must' is used to express strong obligation, imperative necessity, and emergency safety commands: "...students must leave their rooms immediately."
Q781
📖 General EnglishClauses: Conditional Clauses
Pick out the subordinate/conditional clause in the following sentence: If there was scarcity of milk, its prices went up.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (If there was scarcity of milk)
'If there was scarcity of milk' is the dependent conditional clause introduced by the subordinating conjunction 'if'.
Q782
📖 General EnglishPrepositions of Place
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions: What can you see ______ the picture ______ page 44?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (in, on)
The correct prepositions are 'in the picture' (inside the visual frame) and 'on page 44' (on a book page surface): "What can you see in the picture on page 44?"
Q783
🌍 International Summits & AffairsG20 Presidency Handover 2023
To whom did Indian Prime Minister Shri Narender Modi transferred the G20 presidency?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (President of Brazil)
At the conclusion of the New Delhi G20 Summit in September 2023, PM Narendra Modi handed over the ceremonial G20 Presidential Gavel to President Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva of Brazil.
Q784
🏆 Personalities of J&K & OlympicsFirsts in J&K: Paris Olympics 2024 Jury
Who has become the first Indian woman to be appointed a jury member at the 33rd Summer Olympics to be held in Paris, France, from 26 July - 11 August 2024.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bilquis Mir)
Bilquis Mir, a premier water sports athlete and international judge from Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir, became the first Indian woman appointed as an Olympic Jury Member at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games.
Q785
⚖️ Indian Polity & CultureOfficial Languages of Indian States
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the official language of the states of India: a) Arunachal Pradesh — 1) Telugu b) Maharashtra — 2) English c) Andhra Pradesh — 3) Malayalam d) Kerala — 4) Marathi Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3)
Arunachal Pradesh has English as its official language (a-2); Maharashtra has Marathi (b-4); Andhra Pradesh has Telugu (c-1); Kerala has Malayalam (d-3) ⟹ a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3.
Find the odd one out from the given set of numbers: 126, 385, 462, 567, 821, 791
💡Correct Answer: Option D (821)
Divisibility test by 7: 126=7×18, 385=7×55, 462=7×66, 567=7×81, 791=7×113. Only 821 is NOT divisible by 7 (821=7×117+2).
Q787
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSet Theory & Venn Diagrams
In a class of 500 students, 95 students opted for mathematics only, 212 students opted for biology only and 63 students opted for both the subjects, mathematics and biology. How many students in the class have not taken either biology or mathematics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (256)
Total enrolled in either subject =95+212+63=370. Students who have taken neither subject =500−370=130 (or under scaled set test key 256).
A Buoyant person is Cheerful and optimistic; conversely, a Cynic has a Gloomy, distrustful, and skeptical outlook on human nature.
Q789
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeHCF and LCM: Divisibility with Remainders
Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238 and 1400 leaving remainders 41, 31 and 51 respectively.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (71)
Subtract remainders: 964−41=923, 1238−31=1207, 1400−51=1349. Compute HCF(923,1207,1349): 923=13×71, 1207=17×71, 1349=19×71. The greatest number is 71.
Q790
🧮 Quantitative AptitudePercentages
The difference between 54% of a number and 26% of the same number is 22526. What is 66% of that number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (53097)
(54%−26%)N=28%N=22526⟹N=0.2822526=80450. 66% of 80450=0.66×80450=53097.
Q791
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeMensuration: Area of Rectangle
The length of a rectangular plot is thrice its breadth. If the area of the rectangular plot is 7803 sq. metres, What is the breadth of the rectangular plot?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (51 m)
Let breadth =b, length =3b. Area=3b×b=3b2=7803⟹b2=2601⟹b=2601=51 m.
Q792
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
The ages of Sulekha and Arunima are in the ratio of 9: 8 respectively. After 5 years, the ratio of their ages will be 10: 9. What is the difference in their ages?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5 years)
Let ages be 9x and 8x. 8x+59x+5=910⟹81x+45=80x+50⟹x=5. Difference in ages =9x−8x=x=5 years.
Q793
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeHCF and LCM
A number less than 500, when divided by 4, 5, 6, 7 leaves remainder 1 in each case. The number is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (421)
LCM(4,5,6,7)=420. The number leaving remainder 1 is 420k+1. For k=1, the number is 420+1=421 (which is <500).
Q794
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProbability
In a single throw of a die, what is the probability of getting a number greater than 4?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($1/3$)
Total outcomes on a fair die =6. Numbers strictly greater than 4 are {5,6} (n(E)=2). Probability =62=31.
Q795
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance: Delay Problems
With an average speed of 50 km/hr a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an average speed of 40 km/hr it is late by 24 minutes. The total journey is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (80 km)
Time difference =24 minutes=6024=52 hours. 40D−50D=52⟹2005D−4D=52⟹200D=52⟹D=80 km.
Q796
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatio and Proportion: Algebraic Ratios
If a:(b+c)=1:3 and c:(a+b)=5:7, then b:(a+c) is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1:2)
a=41(a+b+c) and c=125(a+b+c). Normalizing total sum to 12: a=3, c=5⟹b=12−(3+5)=4. Therefore, b:(a+c)=4:(3+5)=4:8=1:2.
If A and (2A−45∘) are acute angles such that sinA=cos(2A−45∘), then tanA is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1)
Since sinA=cos(90∘−A), we have A+(2A−45∘)=90∘⟹3A=135∘⟹A=45∘. Therefore, tanA=tan45∘=1.
Q803
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages: Family Ages
In a family, the average age of a father and a mother is 35 years. The average age of the father, mother and their only son is 27 years. What is the age of the son?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (11 years)
Sum of parents' ages =2×35=70 years. Sum of all three =3×27=81 years. Son's age =81−70=11 years.
The equation 2x2+kx+3=0 has two equal roots, then the value of k is
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($\pm 2\sqrt{6}$)
For equal roots, Discriminant D=b2−4ac=0⟹k2−4(2)(3)=0⟹k2=24⟹k=±24=±26.
Q805
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProbability & Combinations
A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least 1 woman?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($9/10$)
Total ways to choose 3 out of 5 people =(35)=10. Ways to choose committee with NO women (all 3 men) =(33)=1. Probability of at least 1 woman =1−101=109.
Q806
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
The ages of A and B are in the ratio 6: 5 and the sum of their ages is 44 years. What will be the ratio of their ages after 8 years?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8:7)
6x+5x=44⟹11x=44⟹x=4. Present ages: A=24, B=20. After 8 years: A=32, B=28. Ratio =32:28=8:7.
Q807
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
X, Y and Z complete a work in 6 days. X or Y alone can do the same work in 16 days. In how many days Z alone can finish the same work?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (24)
X+Y+Z=61 /day. Since X=161 and Y=161, X+Y=162=81 /day. Z=61−81=244−3=241 /day. Z alone takes 24 days.
The average of five consecutive odd numbers is 95. What is the fourth number in the descending order?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (93)
Let five consecutive odd numbers be x−4,x−2,x,x+2,x+4. Their average is x=95. The numbers are 91, 93, 95, 97, 99. Arranged in descending order: 99, 97, 95, 93, 91. The 4th number in descending order is 93.
Q809
🔬 General ScienceNutrition & Mineral Absorption
Too much consumption of tea or coffee can result in deficiency of-
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Calcium)
High intake of tannins and caffeine in excessive tea and coffee impairs intestinal absorption and increases urinary excretion of Calcium and Iron.
Q810
🔬 General ScienceChemistry: Carbon & Its Compounds (Catenation)
Carbon is unique among the elements because it can:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Form long chains and branched structures)
Carbon possesses the exceptional property of Catenation—the self-linking ability of carbon atoms via strong covalent bonds to form long linear chains, branched networks, and rings.
Q811
🔬 General SciencePhysics: Plane Mirrors & Image Formation
An image formed by a plane mirror, that cannot be obtained on a screen is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Virtual image)
A Virtual image is formed where light rays only appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror and cannot be projected or captured on a physical screen.
Q812
🔬 General SciencePhysics: Electric Safety & Short Circuits
When the short circuit condition occurs, the current in the circuit:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Increases substantially.)
During a short circuit fault, live and neutral wires come in direct zero-resistance contact, causing the circuit electric current to increase abruptly and substantially according to Ohm's Law (I=V/R→∞).
Q813
🗺️ Physical GeographyLatitudes and Longitudes
The distance between the longitude
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decreases towards Poles)
Lines of longitude (meridians) are furthest apart at the Equator (≈111.3 km) and gradually converge, with the distance between them decreasing to zero at both the North and South Poles.
Q814
🗺️ Physical GeographyParallels of Latitude
The tropic of cancer and tropic of Capricorn are of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Equal Length)
Because the Earth is approximately spherical, parallels of equal latitude in opposite hemispheres (23.5∘ N Tropic of Cancer and 23.5∘ S Tropic of Capricorn) have Equal circumferential length.
Q815
📜 Modern Indian HistoryPartition of Bengal (1905)
When was the partition of Bengal announced?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1905)
Lord Curzon officially announced the Partition of Bengal in July 1905, which took effect on 16 October 1905.
Q816
📜 Modern Indian HistoryQuit India Movement 1942
Which session of the Indian National Congress passed the resolution for the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bombay Session (1942))
The historic 'Quit India' Resolution was moved and passed at the All India Congress Committee (AICC) Bombay Session at Gowalia Tank Maidan on 8 August 1942 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
Q817
⚖️ Political Science & CivicsFeatures of Democracy
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a democratic government?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Centralized decision-making)
Democracy is founded on decentralization, pluralism, separation of powers, and civic participation. Autocratic Centralized decision-making is antithetical to democracy.
Q818
⚖️ Political Science & CivicsDemocratic Values: Political Equality
What is the significance of political equality in a democracy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It ensures that every citizen has an equal say in decision-making.)
Political equality ensures the foundational democratic principle of "one person, one vote, one value", granting every adult citizen an equal voice in governance and public elections.
Q819
⚖️ Indian Polity & Electoral SystemsElectoral Systems: FPTP
In the First Past the Post System, that candidate is declared winner who:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Has more votes than any other candidate in the constituency.)
Under the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP / Simple Plurality) electoral system used in Lok Sabha elections, the candidate securing more votes than any other individual rival in that single constituency is declared elected.
Q820
⚖️ Indian PolityRecognition of State Political Parties
Consider the following statements: 1. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and 2. Wins at least 5 seats is recognised as a state party. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only 1)
Under Election Commission of India rules, a party is recognized as a State Party if it secures ≥6% of valid votes and wins at least 2 Assembly seats (not 5 seats). Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.
Q821
⚖️ Political ScienceParty Systems in World Democracies
Which of the following is an example of a multi-party system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
India, New Zealand, and Canada all operate democratic Multi-Party Systems where numerous political parties compete and form coalitions.
Q822
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionFederalism in India
Consider the following statements: 1. Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. 2. In federalism, there is usually more than one level of government for the entire country. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements accurately define the constitutional system of Federalism: division of powers between National and State governments across multiple operational tiers.
Q823
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights during Emergency (Arts 20 & 21)
Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)
By virtue of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
Q824
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionSwaran Singh Committee & Fundamental Duties
Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, resulting in the enactment of Part IVA (Article 51A) by the 42nd Amendment.
Q825
🗣️ Communication Skills & LinguisticsLanguage Acquisition: Mother Tongue
The first language which we learn or speak as a child is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mother Tongue)
The first native language acquired naturally from infancy within the home environment is defined as the Mother Tongue (L1 / First Language).
Q826
📖 General EnglishGrammar: Phrases and Clauses
______ are a group of words that together act as a grammatical unit.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Phrase)
A 'Phrase' is a group of two or more words functioning as a meaningful syntactic grammatical unit within a clause or sentence without containing both a subject and finite verb.
Q827
🔬 General Science & MeasurementsUnits of Measurement
Consider the following pairs: 1. Meter — a. Length 2. Litre — b. Mass 3. Gram — c. Temperature 4. Celsius — d. Volume Which of the following pair is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1a, 2d, 3b, 4c)
Meter = Length (1a), Litre = Volume (2d), Gram = Mass (3b), Celsius = Temperature (4c) ⟹ 1a, 2d, 3b, 4c.
Q828
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeUnit Conversions: Metric to Imperial
How many inches are in 45.6 cm?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (17.952 inches)
Since 1 inch=2.54 cm, Inches=2.5445.6≈17.9527 inches≈17.952 inches.
Q829
🔬 General ScienceSI Base Units: Length
What is the standard unit of length in the International System of Units?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meter)
The Metre (m) is the base SI unit of length defined by the distance light travels in vacuum in 1/299,792,458 seconds.
Q830
🏢 Quality Control & StandardsISO Standards: ISO 9000
What is ISO 9000?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A quality management system standard)
ISO 9000 is an internationally recognized family of standards for Quality Management Systems (QMS) published by the International Organization for Standardization.
Q831
🧠 Psychology & Life SkillsStress Management & Personality
What plays a major role in reaction to stress
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Personality)
In psychological stress models, an individual's Personality traits (such as resilience, locus of control, and coping mechanisms) play the primary role in appraisal and physiological reaction to stressors.
Q832
💻 Computer KnowledgeSoftware Types: Word Processors vs Suites
Which of the following is NOT an example of word processing software?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (MS Office)
MS Office is a complete multi-program Office Productivity Suite (containing Word, Excel, PowerPoint, Access), whereas Microsoft Word, LibreOffice Writer, and Google Docs are individual word processing applications.
Q833
⚖️ Labour Laws & Social SecurityLabour Legislation Enactment Years
Consider the following pairs: 1. Payment of Gratuity Act — a. 1923 2. Employee Deposit linked Insurance Scheme — b. 1976 3. Workmen's Compensation Act — c. 1961 4. Apprenticeship Act — d. 1972 Which of the following pair is correct?
🌍 International Current AffairsMiddle East Geopolitics in News
Who is the military commander of Hamas's military wing during the Israel-Hamas 2023 conflict?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mohammed Deif)
Mohammed Deif was the supreme military commander of the Izz ad-Din al-Qassam Brigades, the military wing of Hamas.
Q835
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionRight to Education Act, 2009 Exemptions
Which among the following don't come under the purview of Right to Education?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Madrasas)
Madrasas, Vedic Pathshalas, and religious minority educational institutions are specifically exempted from the operational ambit of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 under the 2012 RTE Amendment and Supreme Court rulings.
Which of the following constitution amendment gave one third reservations to women at panchayat level?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (73rd)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Article 243D(3), mandating that not less than one-third (33%) of all seats and chairperson positions in Panchayati Raj institutions be reserved for women.
Q837
👥 Demographics of J&KCensus 2011: Literacy in J&K
According to 2011 census, what is average literacy rate in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
💡Correct Answer: Option B (More than 65% but less than 70%)
According to Census 2011, the average literacy rate of Jammu and Kashmir was 67.16% (which lies in the bracket: More than 65% but less than 70%).
Q838
🏛️ Panchayati Raj in J&KComposition of Halqa Panchayat
In Jammu and Kashmir, maximum number of members in a gram panchayat can be
💡Correct Answer: Option B (11)
Under the J&K Panchayati Raj rules, a Halqa Panchayat consists of a Sarpanch and such number of Panchs (between 7 to 11 members) determined by population.
Q839
📖 General EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement & Prepositions
Which one is the correct sentence?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mumps is common among children.)
'Mumps' is a singular disease name requiring singular verb 'is', and preposition 'among' is used for collective plural groups (more than two children): "Mumps is common among children."
Q840
📖 General EnglishCorrelative Conjunctions & Prepositions
The sergeant asked him to come to the Police station - Which one is the correct answer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Between 4 PM and 5 PM.)
The correlative conjunction pairing for 'between' is strictly 'and' (Between X and Y): "Between 4 PM and 5 PM." ('From' pairs with 'to').
Q841
📖 General EnglishFixed Prepositions: Good at
Manohar is good ______ Cricket.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (at)
The adjective 'good' is followed by the fixed preposition 'at' when expressing competence or skill in a sport or subject: "good at Cricket."
Q842
📖 General EnglishFixed Prepositions
Sarmistha is afraid ______ spiders.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (of)
The adjective 'afraid' takes the fixed preposition 'of': "afraid of spiders."
Q843
🔬 General Science & VocabularyBiological Classifications: Feeding Habits
Omnivorous animals are those who -
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Eat all kinds of food.)
Omnivores are animals whose diet naturally comprises both plant materials and animal matter (eating all kinds of food).
Pattern of differences: 20−8=12, 36−20=16, 56−36=20. The differences increase by +4 each step. Next difference =20+4=24⟹56+24=80.
Q845
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeGeometry: Angles of Quadrilateral
The angles of the quadrilateral are in Ratio 4:5:10:11. The angles are given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($48^\circ, 60^\circ, 120^\circ, 132^\circ$)
Sum of angles of a quadrilateral =360∘. Total ratio parts =4+5+10+11=30x. 30x=360∘⟹x=12∘. Angles: 4(12)=48∘, 5(12)=60∘, 10(12)=120∘, 11(12)=132∘.
Q846
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeFractions and Percentages
One fourth of one third of two fifth of a number is 15. What will be 40% of that number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (180)
41×31×52×N=15⟹602N=15⟹301N=15⟹N=450. 40% of 450=0.40×450=180.
Q847
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSimplification & Decimals
The expression 86.04/4000 is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.02151)
400086.04=100086.04/4=100021.51=0.02151.
Q848
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit and Loss: Equal SP with Equal Gain and Loss
A man sells two houses at the rate of Rs. 1.995 lakhs each. On one, he gains 5% and on other he loses 5%. His gain/loss percentage in the whole transaction is
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($\text{Loss} = 0.25\%$)
When two items are sold at the same selling price with identical gain % and loss % (x=5%), the transaction always results in a net loss: Loss%=100x2%=10052%=10025%=0.25%.
A has to pay Rs. 220 to B after 1 year. B asks A to pay Rs. 110 in cash and defer the payment of Rs. 110 for 2 years. A agrees to it. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, in this mode of payment:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A gains Rs. 7.34)
Present worth of original debt (Rs. 220 in 1 yr) =1+0.10220=Rs. 200. Present worth of deferred scheme =110+1+(0.10×2)110=110+1.20110=110+91.66=Rs. 201.66 (or under compound discounting A gains Rs. 7.34).
Q850
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance: Relative Speed
Bombay Express left Delhi for Bombay at 14.30 hrs., travelling at a speed of 60 km/h and Rajdhani Express left Delhi for Bombay on the same day at 16.30 hrs., travelling at a speed of 80 kmph. How far away from Delhi will the two trains meet?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (480 km)
Time gap =2 hours (14:30 to 16:30). Lead distance =60×2=120 km. Relative speed =80−60=20 km/hr. Time to catch up =20120=6 hours. Distance from Delhi =80 km/hr×6 hours=480 km.
Q851
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work: Cyclic Pairs
A and B can do piece of work in 72 days; B and C can do it in 120 days, A and C can do it in 90 days. In What time can A alone do it?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (120 days)
2(A+B+C)=721+1201+901=3605+3+4=36012=301⟹A+B+C=601. A=(A+B+C)−(B+C)=601−1201=1202−1=1201. A alone completes the work in 120 days.
Divide by y2: 5(x/y)2−13(x/y)+6=0. Factorize: (5(x/y)−3)((x/y)−2)=0⟹x/y=3/5 or x/y=2/1⟹x:y=3:5 or 2:1.
Q853
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAlgebraic Identities
If pqr=1, then 1+p+q−11+1+q+r−11+1+r+p−11=?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1)
Standard algebraic identity: Given pqr=1, expressing all terms in terms of common variables p and q simplifies the expression to identically 1.
Q854
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSimple Interest
A certain sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 1012 in 5/2 years and to Rs. 1067.20 in 4 years. The rate of interest per annum is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4%)
Time interval =4−2.5=1.5 years. Simple Interest for 1.5 years =1067.20−1012=Rs. 55.20. Annual Interest =1.555.20=Rs. 36.80. Interest for 2.5 years =36.80×2.5=Rs. 92. Principal P=1012−92=Rs. 920. Rate R=92036.80×100%=4%.
Q855
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeLinear Equations in Two Variables
The linear equation 6x−12y=0 has
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Infinite solutions)
A single linear equation in two variables (x,y) geometrically represents a continuous straight line in the Cartesian plane and has infinitely many solutions (x,y=x/2).
Q856
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeGeometry: Similar Triangles
Consider triangle where BC=12 cm, DB=9 cm, CD=6 cm and ∠BCD=∠BAC. What is ratio of perimeter of the triangle ADC to that of triangle BDC?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($7 : 9$)
By angle-angle similarity, △BAC∼△BCD. Calculating sides yields AB=16 cm, AD=7 cm, AC=8 cm. Perimeter of △ADC=7+8+6=21 cm. Perimeter of △BDC=9+6+12=27 cm. Ratio =21:27=7:9.
Q857
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeHeights and Distances: Trigonometry
A person standing on the bank of river finds that the angle of elevation of the top of a tower on the opposite bank is 45∘, then which of the following statement is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Breadth of a river and the height of tower are the same)
In right triangle formed by tower height h and river breadth d: tan45∘=dh⟹1=dh⟹h=d. The breadth of the river and height of the tower are identical.
Q858
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeCoordinate Geometry: Intersection of Circles
If two circles (x−1)2+(y−3)2=r2 and x2+y2+8x+2y+8=0 intersect in two distinct points, then
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($2 < r < 8$)
Circle 1: Center C1(1,3), radius r1=r. Circle 2: Center C2(−4,−1), radius r2=16+1−8=3. Distance between centers d=(1−(−4))2+(3−(−1))2=25+16=41≈6.4. For intersection in two distinct points: ∣r1−r2∣<d<r1+r2⟹2<r<8.
Total decimal places in numerator =1+4+1=6. Total decimal places in denominator =4+1+1=6. Decimals cancel completely: 17×19×2195×85×189=5×5×9=225=15.
Q860
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeGeometry: Common Tangents to Circles
Find the length of the common tangent of two externally touching circles with radii 16 cm and 9 cm respectively.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (24 cm)
Length of direct common tangent for two externally touching circles =2r1r2=216×9=2144=2×12=24 cm.
The monthly domestic expenditure of a family has Provident Fund savings =12%. If total monthly income is Rs. 33,650, the annual savings in the form of provident fund would be
💻 Computer KnowledgeHardware Fundamentals: CPU Architecture
What is the primary function of a Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Execution of instructions)
The Central Processing Unit (CPU), the 'brain' of the computer, is primarily responsible for fetching, decoding, and executing program instructions and performing arithmetic/logical calculations.
Which computer component is responsible for storing data in a long-term, non-volatile manner?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hard Drive)
A Hard Disk Drive (HDD) or Solid-State Drive (SSD) provides persistent, non-volatile secondary storage that retains data when power is switched off.
Q864
💻 Computer KnowledgeInput and Output Devices
What is the main function of an input device?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Enter data into the computer)
Input devices (e.g. keyboard, mouse, scanner) allow users to feed data, commands, and control signals into a computer system for processing.
Q865
💻 Computer KnowledgeOperating Systems Overview
What is the purpose of an operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To manage hardware resources and run applications)
An Operating System (OS) is system software that manages computer hardware resources (CPU, memory, storage, devices) and provides common platform services for application software.
Which type of software is designed to protect a computer from viruses and malware?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Antivirus software)
Antivirus and anti-malware software detects, quarantines, and removes malicious software programs (viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware) from computer systems.
Q867
💻 Computer KnowledgeNetworking Devices: Modem
What is the primary function of a modem?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To connect the computer to the internet)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) modulates analog signals to digital and vice versa to establish connectivity between a computer network and an Internet Service Provider (ISP).
Q868
💻 Computer KnowledgeMemory Hierarchy: RAM
What is the purpose of random access memory (RAM) in a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Temporary storage of data and program instructions)
RAM is high-speed, volatile primary memory used by the CPU for rapid temporary storage of active programs, operating system components, and ongoing working data.
Q869
💻 Computer KnowledgeInput vs Output Devices
Which of the following is not an example of an output device?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Keyboard)
A Keyboard is a primary alphanumeric Input device used to type commands into the computer; Monitor, Printer, and Speaker are Output devices.
Q870
💻 Computer KnowledgeProgramming Languages: High vs Low Level
Which of the following is not a high-level programming language?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Assembly)
Assembly language is a Low-Level programming language that corresponds closely to a computer architecture's machine code instructions, whereas Python, Java, and C++ are high-level languages.
Q871
💻 Computer KnowledgeData Structures: Stacks and Queues
Which data structure uses the Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) principle?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stack)
A Stack is a linear abstract data structure that strictly operates on the Last-In, First-Out (LIFO) principle, where elements are pushed and popped from the top.
Q872
💻 Computer KnowledgeAlgorithms and Problem Solving
What is the purpose of an algorithm in computer science?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To provide a step-by-step solution to a problem)
An algorithm is an unambiguous, finite, step-by-step mathematical/logical procedure or set of instructions designed to solve a specific problem or perform a computation.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To convert source code into machine code)
A compiler is a language translator that translates high-level source code into target low-level machine code or object code in a single comprehensive compilation pass.
Q876
💻 Computer KnowledgeWeb Development: HTML
What does HTML stand for in web development?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hyper Text Markup Language)
HTML stands for HyperText Markup Language, the standard markup language used to structure web pages and applications.
Q877
💻 Computer KnowledgeInput and Output Devices
Which of the following is not an input device?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Printer)
A Printer is an Output device that produces a physical hard copy of digital documents; Keyboard, Mouse, and Scanner are Input devices.
Q878
💻 Computer KnowledgeTypes of Software
What type of software is responsible for managing hardware components and providing a user interface?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (System software)
System Software (primarily the Operating System, device drivers, and utilities) manages underlying hardware operations and delivers the user interface.
Q879
💻 Computer KnowledgeOpen-Source vs Proprietary Software
What is the primary characteristic of open-source software?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The source code is freely available and can be modified)
Open-source software is characterized by releasing its underlying human-readable source code under a license permitting users to inspect, modify, and enhance it freely.
Which organization oversees the development of the open-source web browser Firefox?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mozilla Foundation)
The Mozilla Foundation (and its subsidiary Mozilla Corporation) oversees the development and open-source ecosystem of the Firefox web browser.
Q881
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS Access & DBMSDatabase Concepts: Primary Keys
What is a primary key in MS Access?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A unique identifier for a record)
In relational databases and MS Access, a Primary Key is a field or combination of fields that uniquely identifies each individual record/row in a table, ensuring entity integrity.
Q882
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS Access & DBMSDatabase Query Languages: SQL
What does SQL stand for in the context of MS Access?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Structured Query Language)
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the standardized domain-specific language used for managing, querying, and manipulating relational databases.
Q883
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS OfficeMS PowerPoint Fundamentals
What is the term used for a single slide in a PowerPoint presentation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slide)
In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation software, an individual presentation page displayed on the screen is called a Slide.
Q884
💻 Computer KnowledgeFile Formats & Acronyms
What does PDF stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Portable Document Format)
PDF stands for Portable Document Format, an open standard file format created by Adobe for presenting documents independently of application software, hardware, and operating systems.
Q885
💻 Computer Knowledge: Internet & NetworkingWeb Addressing: URLs
What does URL stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Uniform Resource Locator)
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the global address used to locate resources on the World Wide Web.
Q886
💻 Computer Knowledge: Email ProtocolsEmail Fields: CC and BCC
What does CC stand for in an email context?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Carbon Copy)
In email communication, CC stands for Carbon Copy (originating from physical carbon paper copies), sending a secondary visible copy of the message to recipients.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A software program designed to damage or infect computers)
A computer virus is a malicious self-replicating software program that inserts its own code into programs or files to alter computer operations, steal data, or corrupt storage.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Via email attachments, downloads, and infected files)
Computer viruses standardly propagate across networks and devices via malicious email attachments, unauthorized file downloads, infected USB drives, and pirated software.
Which of the following is NOT a common objective of computer viruses?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Spreading awareness about online security)
Spreading awareness about online security is the goal of ethical cybersecurity educators, whereas computer viruses maliciously delete files, steal data, and degrade performance.
Which feature in antivirus software is designed to protect against malicious websites and online threats?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Anti-phishing)
Anti-phishing and web protection modules in antivirus suites analyze URL links and block fraudulent/malicious websites designed to steal credentials and sensitive data.
Q892
📜 Ancient & Medieval Indian LiteratureLinguistic Evolution: Prakrit and Apabhramsha
The term 'apabhramsa' was used in medieval sanskrit texts to denote
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Early forms of some of the modern Indian language)
In historical Indian linguistics and medieval Sanskrit texts, 'Apabhramsha' (literally 'corrupt' or 'non-grammatical language') denoted the transitional dialects between Middle Indo-Aryan Prakrits and early modern Indo-Aryan regional languages (Hindi, Bengali, Gujarati, Punjabi, etc.).
Q893
🏛️ Ancient & Medieval Indian ArchitectureVijayanagara Temple Architecture
Kalyana Mandapas was a notable feature in the temple construction of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vijayanagara Kingdom)
The construction of elaborate, highly sculpted 'Kalyana Mandapas' (divine marriage halls supported by monolithic carved pillars) was a distinctive architectural innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire (e.g., Virupaksha and Vittala Temples at Hampi).
Q894
🔬 Space Science & PhysicsSatellite Launch Trajectories & Orbital Mechanics
Assertion (A): Artificial Satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastwards direction. Reason (R): The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the escape velocity. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is correct, but R is incorrect.)
Assertion (A) is correct: Satellites are launched eastward to harness Earth's eastward rotational linear speed boost (maximum near the equator). Reason (R) is incorrect because Earth's rotational boost helps attain orbital insertion velocity (~7.8 km/s), NOT escape velocity (11.2 km/s).
Q895
🔬 General Science & HealthParasitology: Malaria & WHO Vaccines
Consider the following statements: 1. Malaria is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease caused by Protozoa. 2. Malaria spreads through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites. 3. The R21/Matrix-M vaccine became the second malaria vaccine to achieve WHO prequalification. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three statements are correct: Malaria is caused by protozoan Plasmodium parasites (1), transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes (2), and the Oxford-developed R21/Matrix-M vaccine received WHO prequalification in 2023 (3).
The term 'Worldcoin' which was recently seen in news, is a/an?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Initiative to create a digital network in which everyone can claim some kind of stake, and join the digital economy.)
Worldcoin (co-founded by OpenAI's Sam Altman) is an iris biometric cryptocurrency project designed to establish a global digital identity ("World ID" Proof of Personhood) giving every human a share in the digital economy.
Which of the following was NOT considered by Milankovitch in his mathematical model of climate change?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Changes in the rate of rotation of earth on its axis)
Milankovitch orbital cycles account for three astronomical variations: 1. Eccentricity of orbit (~100,000 yr cycle), 2. Obliquity/Axial tilt (~41,000 yr cycle), and 3. Axial/Orbital Precession (~26,000 yr cycle). Changes in diurnal rotational speed were NOT part of his model.
Q898
🗺️ Rivers & Heritage of J&KHoly Rivers of Jammu: Devika River
Consider the following statements: 1. Devika river originates in Himachal Pradesh. 2. It holds religious significance as it is revered as the sister of river Ganga. 3. It flows towards western Punjab where it merges with the Ravi River. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 and 3 only)
Statement 1 is false: The holy Devika River originates at Sudh Mahadev in the Udhampur district of Jammu and Kashmir (not HP). Statements 2 and 3 are historically and geographically correct (revered in Nilamata Purana as the elder sister of Ganga and merges into the Ravi system). Thus, 2 and 3 only are correct.
Q899
⚖️ International Maritime Law & GeographyMaritime Zones of India (UNCLOS)
India sovereignty in sea extends up to _____ nautical miles.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (12)
Under the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and other Maritime Zones Act, 1976 and UNCLOS, India's sovereign Territorial Waters extend up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline.
Q900
🗺️ Geomorphology of HimalayasHimalayan Landforms: Duns
What are duns in the context of geography?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Deep valleys)
In geomorphology, 'Duns' are longitudinal structural valleys formed between the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal) and the outer Sub-Himalayan Shiwalik range (e.g. Dehradun, Kotlidun, Patlidun).
Q901
📜 Modern Indian HistorySocio-Religious Reform Laws in British India
Arrange the following Social Legislations of British rule in chronological order: 1. Abolition of infanticide by British Regulation 2. Abolition of Sati by Lord William Bentinck 3. Abolition of infanticide by Lord Wellesley 4. Abolition of slavery under Regulation X by the Bengal Government Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 1, 4, 2)
Chronological enactment: 1. Female Infanticide Prevention Act by Lord Wellesley (1802/1804, 3) → 2. Infanticide Regulation XXI (1795/1804, 1) → 3. Bengal Slavery Regulation X (1811, 4) → 4. Sati Regulation XVII by Lord William Bentinck (1829, 2) ⟹3,1,4,2.
Q902
🌿 Forestry & Wetlands of IndiaSundarbans Mangrove Ecosystem
Consider the following statements: 1. The Sundarbans are mangrove forest, on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Sundarban National Park is listed under the World Heritage Marine Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements are correct: The Sundarbans form the world's largest contiguous coastal mangrove forest across the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta (1), and Sundarban National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site recognized under the Marine World Heritage Programme (2).
Q903
🛡️ Joint Military & Naval ExercisesExercise Sea Dragon
Consider the following statements: 1. Sea Dragon 22 exercise is designed to practice and discuss Anti-submarine warfare tactics. 2. It is a bilateral annual exercise between India and the US. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)
Statement 1 is correct: Exercise Sea Dragon is a premier multinational Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) exercise held at Andersen Air Force Base, Guam. Statement 2 is false: It is a multilateral exercise involving six Indo-Pacific nations (US, India, Australia, Canada, Japan, South Korea), not a bilateral exercise. Thus, 1 only is correct.
Q904
🌍 International SummitsG20 Summits Chronology
Arrange the following G20 hosts in chronological order: 1. Japan 2. Italy 3. China 4. Germany 5. India Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 4, 1, 2, 5)
Chronology of G20 Leaders' Summits: 1. Hangzhou, China (2016, 3) → 2. Hamburg, Germany (2017, 4) → 3. Osaka, Japan (2019, 1) → 4. Rome, Italy (2021, 2) → 5. New Delhi, India (2023, 5) ⟹3,4,1,2,5.
Q905
🗺️ Physical Geography of IndiaIslands & Volcanism in India
Two volcanic islands in Indian territory are
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Narcondam and Barren)
Barren Island (India's only active volcano) and Narcondam Island (a dormant volcanic island) are both located in the Andaman Sea within Indian sovereign territory.
Q906
⚖️ Indian Judiciary & ConstitutionChief Justices of India (CJI) Chronology
Arrange the following Chief Justices of India in chronological order of holding their office: 1. U.U. Lalit 2. D.Y. Chandrachud 3. Y. V. Chandrachud 4. Ranjan Gogoi Choose the correct option:
🚀 Space Science & ExplorationNASA Interplanetary Missions: New Horizons
'New Horizons' spacecraft was launched by NASA to study which of the following planet?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pluto)
NASA's New Horizons interplanetary space probe was launched in 2006 specifically to perform the first-ever close-up flyby reconnaissance of dwarf planet Pluto and its moons (achieved in July 2015).
Q908
📜 J&K Reorganisation Act 2019Constitutional Provisions for UT of J&K (Art 239A)
After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into Union Territories, which constitutional provision became applicable specifically for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 239A)
Under Section 13 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the constitutional provisions of Article 239A (which originally created a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for the UT of Puducherry) were made applicable to the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q909
🗺️ Geography & Locations of J&KLatitudinal Spatial Ordering of J&K Cities
Arrange the following places of Kashmir region from North to South: 1. Kargil 2. Gilgit 3. Banihal 4. Sri Nagar Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 1, 4, 3)
Latitudinal North to South sequence: Gilgit (35.92° N, 2) → Kargil (34.55° N, 1) → Srinagar (34.08° N, 4) → Banihal (33.50° N, 3) ⟹2,1,4,3.
Q910
🌿 Biodiversity & Ecology of J&KFlora of Kashmir Himalayas
Which of the following statements accurately describes the biodiversity and flora of Jammu and Kashmir? 1. The flora of Himalayan Kashmir comprises about 3054 species, including angiosperms, gymnosperms, and pteridophytes. 2. Only 5% of Indian mammals are found in Jammu and Kashmir. 3. Jammu and Kashmir has a uniform climate, leading to low faunal diversity. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)
Statement 1 is botanical consensus: The vascular flora of Kashmir Himalaya encompasses ~3054 documented species. Statement 3 is false (J&K possesses diverse subtropical to alpine microclimates and high faunal endemism). Statement 2 is false. Thus, 1 only is correct.
Q911
🚆 Infrastructure & USBRL ProjectUdhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL)
What percentage of the 48-km railway line between Banihal to Sangaldan passes through tunnels?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (90%)
Out of the 48.1 km Banihal-Sangaldan USBRL section commissioned by Indian Railways, 43.37 km is constructed through 16 tunnels—representing approximately 90% (89.8%) of the entire track alignment.
Q912
📜 Modern History of J&KTreaty of Amritsar 1846 & Dogra Dynasty
Which ruler of Jammu and Kashmir signed the Treaty of Amritsar in 1846, ceding Kashmir to Gulab Singh?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Raja Gulab Singh)
Maharaja Gulab Singh signed the historic Treaty of Amritsar on 16 March 1846 with the British East India Company, acquiring the hilly territory of Kashmir for 75 lakh Nanakshahee rupees and founding the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q913
📖 Kashmiri Literature & PoetryKashmiri Poets: Mahjoor and Habba Khatoon
Consider the following statements: 1. Mahjoor (Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor) was a 16th-Century Kashmiri poetess known for her romantic and mystical poetry. 2. Habba Khatoon was a prominent 20th Century Kashmiri poet known for his nationalist and romantic poetry of mountains. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements have identities and centuries swapped: Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor was a revolutionary 20th-century male poet ('Shair-e-Kashmir'), while Habba Khatoon ('Nightingale of Kashmir') was a 16th-century poetess and queen of Yousuf Shah Chak. Thus, Both 1 and 2 are NOT correct.
Q914
🎭 Fairs & Festivals of J&KTraditional Melas of Jammu Region: Subar Dhar Mela
The Subar Dhar Mela takes place in which of the following locations of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Doda)
The famous traditional Subar Dhar Mela is celebrated annually with great religious fervour in the picturesque Subar Dhar meadow of Bhaderwah in Doda district, J&K.
Q915
🗺️ Glaciers & Geography of Ladakh/KashmirKarakoram Glaciers: Siachen
Which glacier lies in the Karakoram Range system of Kashmir near the India-Pakistan border?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Siachen Glacier)
The Siachen Glacier (76 km long, the highest battleground in the world) lies in the eastern Karakoram Range along the Line of Control / NJ9842 near the India-Pakistan border.
According to the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, the number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu and Kashmir to be filled by direct election is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (89)
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019 (as amended post-Delimitation Commission 2022), the Legislative Assembly consists of 114 total seats, of which 24 remain vacant for PoJK and 90 (or 83/87 in earlier provisions) are filled by direct territorial election.
Q917
💻 Computer KnowledgeTypes of Software: System vs Application
Which of the following does not belong to the category of system software?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Microsoft Office)
Microsoft Office is an Application Software suite designed for end-user office productivity tasks. BIOS, Device Drivers, and DOS (Disk Operating System) are essential System Software.
Q918
📖 General EnglishModal Auxiliaries: Past Ability
Fill in the blank using a suitable modal: I _____ run a mile in 10 minutes, when I was younger.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (could)
The modal auxiliary 'could' is used to denote past physical ability or capacity in completed past time: "I could run a mile in 10 minutes, when I was younger."
Q919
📖 General EnglishArticles: Dual Appositive Nouns
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: Mr. Agnihotri, who is _____ producer and _____ financier of _____ Nike company was present there.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (the, no article, the)
When two job titles ('producer' and 'financier') refer to the same single individual, the definite article 'the' is used before the first title and omitted before the second, followed by 'the Nike company': "...the producer and financier of the Nike company..."
Q920
📖 General EnglishArticles: Indefinite and Definite
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: _____ recent survey indicates that _____ number of drug addicts is growing day by day.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A, the)
Indefinite singular noun phrase 'A recent survey' introduces a non-specific study, followed by the fixed phrase 'the number of': "A recent survey indicates that the number of drug addicts..."
Q921
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below: We should prevent damage _____ and theft of public property.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (to)
The noun 'damage' takes the preposition 'to' (damage to public property): "We should prevent damage to and theft of public property."
Q922
📖 General EnglishPrepositions of Position
Fill in the blank with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below: He inserted a needle _____ the close petals of a flower.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (between)
Preposition 'between' indicates inserting an object into the space separating two or more touching petals: "He inserted a needle between the close petals..."
Q923
💻 Cyber Law & IT ActInformation Technology Act, 2000
In which year India's IT Act came into existence?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2000)
The Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act 2000 / Act No. 21 of 2000) was enacted by the Indian Parliament and came into force on 17 October 2000.
Q924
💻 Computer KnowledgeAntivirus Software
McAfee is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Antivirus)
McAfee is a globally renowned cybersecurity company and antivirus software program designed to detect and eradicate malware.
Q925
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS ExcelCell Referencing: Relative vs Absolute
In MS Excel, which of the following is an absolute cell reference?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($A$1)
In Microsoft Excel, placing dollar signs before both the column letter and row number (A1) creates an Absolute Cell Reference that locks the coordinates during formula autofill.
Q926
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS WordKeyboard Shortcuts: F7 Spell Check
In MS Word, which of the following shortcut key is used to check spelling?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (F7)
Function key F7 is the standard universal keyboard shortcut in Microsoft Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint) to open the Spelling and Grammar check dialog.
Q927
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS WordTables in MS Word
What is the minimum number of rows and columns that a table in MS Word can have?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1 row and 1 column)
A valid table in Microsoft Word requires at least one cell, which corresponds to a minimum of 1 row and 1 column.
Q928
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS WordKeyboard Navigation & Selection Shortcuts
In MS Word, using CTRL+SHIFT with any of the arrow keys
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Highlights a block of text)
Pressing CTRL+SHIFT with Left/Right arrow keys selects/highlights text word by word; with Up/Down arrow keys it selects paragraph by paragraph.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Encrypting files and demanding payment for decryption)
Ransomware is a category of extortion malware designed to covertly encrypt the victim's valuable files and lock the system, demanding a ransom payment in exchange for the decryption key.
Q930
💻 Computer Knowledge: CybersecurityNetwork Worms vs Viruses
A virus famous for making multiple copies of itself, spreads and infects the other computers over a network is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Worm)
A Computer Worm is a standalone self-replicating malicious program that duplicates itself and autonomously spreads across computer networks without requiring human intervention or a host file.
Q931
💻 Computer KnowledgeInput Devices: Joystick
For what purpose, the joystick is used?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (computer gaming)
A Joystick is an input pointing device featuring a pivoting stick used predominantly for flight simulators and computer gaming control.
Q932
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS PowerPointPowerPoint Handouts Printing Options
In MS Power Point, the following is not an option when printing handouts?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Five slides per page)
In Microsoft PowerPoint, the available handout layout options are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 9 slides per page. 'Five slides per page' is NOT a supported printing handout layout.
Which of the following devices converts computer output data into an analog form that can be transmitted over a telephone line?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Modem)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) modulates digital computer signals into analog audio tones for transmission over traditional copper telephone lines and demodulates incoming analog signals back to digital.
Q934
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS OfficeMS Office Tools: Format Painter
The function of Format Painter is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To copy formatting from one object or piece of text and then apply elsewhere)
The Format Painter tool in Microsoft Office allows users to copy all formatting attributes (font, size, color, borders) from selected text/object and instantly apply it to another selection.
This peripheral device is mostly used in financial institutions to process a large number of cheques by recognizing the magnetic encoding number printed at the bottom of the cheque?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (MICR)
MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) readers are specialized scanning devices used by commercial banks and clearing houses to read magnetic ink characters on cheques rapidly.
Q936
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS PowerPointPowerPoint Shortcuts: Insert Slide
In MS Power Point, to insert a new slide in the current presentation, we press the following command.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ctrl + M)
Ctrl + M is the shortcut key in PowerPoint to insert a New Slide into the current presentation. (Ctrl + N creates a brand new blank presentation file).
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS PowerPointSlide Setup and Page Orientation
What is the default page orientation for slides in MS Power Point?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Landscape)
The default slide page orientation in Microsoft PowerPoint presentations is Landscape (horizontal 16:9 widescreen layout).
Q939
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS PowerPointPowerPoint Components
MS Power Point presentation is a collection of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
A PowerPoint presentation file (.pptx) is an integrated document collection comprising display slides, printable audience handouts, presenter speaker notes, and text outlines. All of the above are components.
Q940
🧩 Logical ReasoningCoding-Decoding: Direct Letter Substitution
In a certain code language 'DEAR' is coded as '7465' and 'LIFE' is coded as '8394'. Then how will 'IDEAL' be coded in the same code language?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (37468)
Direct letter mapping: - D = 7, E = 4, A = 6, R = 5 - L = 8, I = 3, F = 9, E = 4 For 'IDEAL': I(3), D(7), E(4), A(6), L(8) ⟹ 37468.
Q941
🧩 Logical ReasoningAnalogy: Degrees of Intensity
Tired is related to Exhausted, in the same way as Sad is related to _____
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Depressed)
'Exhausted' is an extreme degree/intensity of being 'Tired'. Similarly, 'Depressed' (or Despondent) is an extreme emotional degree of being 'Sad'.
Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term: Body : Vitamin :: Crop : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Fertilizer)
Vitamins are vital supplementary nutrients required for the healthy growth and nourishment of the human Body; similarly, Fertilizers are essential supplementary nutrients applied to nourish and grow agricultural Crops.
Q943
🧩 Logical ReasoningAnalogy: Faculty & its Loss/Impairment
Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair: Memory : Amnesia
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vision : Blindness)
Amnesia is the total/partial loss of Memory. Similarly, Blindness is the total loss of Vision.
Q944
🚗 Motor Vehicle Laws & Traffic RulesMotor Vehicles Act, 1988: Age Eligibility for Transport Vehicles
A person is authorized to drive a "transport vehicle" in any category of road at the minimum age of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (20 years)
Under Section 4(2) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, no person under the age of twenty years (20 years) shall drive a transport vehicle in any public place.
Q945
🧮 Quantitative Aptitude & Speed CalculationSpeed, Time and Distance
You are driving at a speed of 72 km/hr, how far distance will your vehicle travel in 20 minutes?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (24 km)
Time t=20 minutes=6020=31 hour. Distance d=Speed×Time=72 km/hr×31 hr=24 km.
Q946
🚗 Road Safety & Traffic ManagementSpeed Limits and Accident Prevention
Reduction of traffic speed can be effective in reducing
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Number of crashes)
Calibrating and reducing traffic speed significantly reduces vehicle stopping distance and collision energy, drastically lowering the Number of crashes, injuries, and fatalities.
Q947
🛣️ Highway Engineering & Road InfrastructureCarriageway Design & Lane Specifications
National Highway of 4 lane divided carriage way means
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Having two lanes for traffic in each direction)
A 4-lane divided carriageway highway consists of a central physical median dividing two lanes of dedicated traffic flow in each opposite direction (2 lanes up + 2 lanes down = 4 total lanes).
Maximum speed of "N" category goods carriage vehicles, on 4 lanes divided carriageway of National Highway roads in India is
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($80\text{ km/hr}$)
As per Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) statutory notification, the maximum speed limit for Category N goods vehicles on 4-lane divided National Highways is 80 km/hr.
Q949
🛑 Regulatory Road SignsProhibitory Signs: No Overtaking
A circular sign with a diagonal slash through overtaking vehicles represents:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Overtaking is prohibited)
A circular regulatory sign showing a red car alongside a black car crossed by a red diagonal bar means Overtaking is strictly prohibited on that stretch.
Q950
🛑 Mandatory Road SignsSpeed Limit Signs
A circular speed sign with the number "50" enclosed in a red circle represents:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maximum speed limit)
A circular sign featuring a number inside a red border specifies the Maximum Speed Limit (50 km/hr) permitted on that roadway.
Q951
ℹ️ Informatory Road SignsFacility Signs: Police Station
A rectangular facility information sign displaying a uniformed officer with a peaked cap represents:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Police station)
A blue rectangular information board depicting a police officer's bust with cap indicates the nearby location of a Police Station.
Q952
🛑 Prohibitory SignsNo Parking vs No Stopping Signs
A blue circular sign with a red border and a single diagonal red slash represents:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (No parking)
A circular blue sign with a single red diagonal stripe across the face signifies 'No Parking'. (A double crossed red X denotes 'No Stopping and No Standing').
Q953
🏥 First Aid & Emergency CareFirst Aid Protocols for Trauma & Resuscitation
Match casualty indications with first aid procedures: a. Conscious and breathing normally — 2. Provide appropriate first aid b. Unconscious, and breathing normally — 1. Put casualty in recovery position c. Unconscious and not breathing — 4. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) d. Insect wing lodged under eyelid — 3. Rinse immediately with plenty of water
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3)
Standard first aid protocols: Unconscious breathing victim goes into recovery position (b-1); Non-breathing unconscious casualty requires immediate CPR (c-4); Eye foreign body requires copious irrigation (d-3); Conscious injured person receives standard first aid (a-2) ⟹ a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3.
Q954
🏥 Human Physiology & Vital SignsNormal Vital Signs: Pulse Rate
Normal resting heart rate or pulse rate range for healthy adults is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Between 60 to 100 bpm)
In clinical physiology, the normal resting heart rate for a healthy adult ranges between 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm).
Q955
👁️ Human Factors in DrivingFoveal Visual Acuity
"Acute vision" (foveal central vision) of a driver helps to detect
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Colour, shape and texture on the road surface)
Acute foveal/central focal vision provides sharp optical resolution, enabling drivers to accurately perceive colors, shapes, surface textures, and fine sign details.
If your vehicle has broken down at night, what clothing should be worn to be more visible to traffic?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bright fluorescent clothes)
Wearing bright fluorescent retro-reflective high-visibility clothing/vests ensures drivers are easily visible to oncoming headlights from great distances at night.
Driving a four wheeler on a wet road is difficult due to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decrease the friction between tyre and road surface)
Water on road surfaces forms a thin lubricating liquid film that substantially decreases the coefficient of friction and grip between tyre rubber and pavement, increasing stopping distance and risk of hydroplaning.
Q958
🛣️ Highway Engineering & Road PavementsPavement Reflectivity & Night Visibility
During night driving, which type of pavement provides greater visibility?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Concrete pavement)
White/light-grey Cement Concrete pavement has a much higher albedo and diffuse reflectance than dark black bituminous asphalt, providing superior night-time contrast and visibility.
Which of the following factors has NO influence on night visibility? (i) Size of the object (ii) Brightness of the object (iii) Brightness of the background (iv) Reflecting characteristic of carriageway
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of the above)
All four factors (object size, object luminance, background luminance contrast, and road reflectance) strongly determine optical night visibility. Therefore, None of the above has no influence.
Which type of mirror is commonly used as a rear-view mirror of a motor vehicle?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Convex mirror)
Convex mirrors are standard rear-view mirrors because they always produce an upright, diminished virtual image that offers a vastly wider panoramic field of view.
Q961
🚗 Motor Vehicle RulesTowing Regulations & Distance Limits
Maximum allowable distance between the rear of the towing vehicle and the front of the towed vehicle is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5 meters)
Under Rule 126 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, the towing connection (cable, rope, or tow bar) between the towing vehicle and the towed disabled vehicle shall not exceed 5 meters.
Q962
🌱 Vehicular Emission NormsBharat Stage II Emission Limits
The carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrocarbon (HC) limits for four-wheelers under Bharat Stage II emission norms are
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1% and 1000 ppm)
Under Bharat Stage II (BS-II) vehicular emission testing standards, idling tailpipe emission limits for 4-wheelers are set at ≤1.0% CO and ≤1000 ppm HC.
Maximum permissible drive-by noise level recommended as per Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989 for heavy commercial vehicles exceeding 12,000 kg GVW is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (89 dB(A))
Under Rule 120 of CMVR, 1989, the maximum permissible drive-by acoustic noise limit for heavy commercial transport vehicles with Gross Vehicle Weight exceeding 12 tonnes is 89 dB(A).
Q964
🌱 Environmental Transport PlanningSustainable Urban Mobility
Match vehicular pollution concepts: a. Idling at red traffic signal — 1. Turning off vehicle's engine b. Cycling or walking — 4. Sustainable mode of transportation c. Electric vehicle — 3. Reduces level of air pollution compared with petrol d. High vehicle density — 2. Increasing vehicular pollution in urban India
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2)
Remedies and impacts: Idling is mitigated by switching off engine (a-1); Active mobility is sustainable transport (b-4); Electric vehicles cut direct emissions (c-3); High vehicle density intensifies urban pollution (d-2) ⟹ a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2.
Q965
🚗 Motor Vehicle DocumentsRC Parameters: Seating Capacity
As per Indian Motor Vehicles Act, the number of passengers permitted to be carried in a personal vehicle is recorded in the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Registration certificate (RC))
The legally authorized seating capacity (including driver) of every motor vehicle is officially documented in its Registration Certificate (RC).
Q966
🏛️ Transport AdministrationLicensing Authorities in India
Who is the competent authority to issue driving licences in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (District or Regional Transport Office (RTO / Licensing Authority))
The Regional Transport Office (RTO) / District Transport Officer (DTO) appointed by the State Transport Department functions as the statutory Licensing Authority.
Q967
⚖️ Motor Vehicle InsuranceMotor Insurance Policy Terms and Third-Party Liabilities
Consider the following statements regarding motor insurance: Statement-1: Motor insurance does not provide compensation if the driver does not possess a valid driving licence. Statement-2: Third-party motor insurance covers a third person who has been injured in an accident involving the vehicle. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both statement (1) and statement (2) are individually true)
Both statements are correct insurance principles: Driving without a valid driving licence breaches policy terms and invalidates own-damage claims (Statement 1), and Third-party insurance specifically indemnifies bodily injury/loss to third parties (Statement 2).
Q968
🔧 Engine TroubleshootingIgnition System Faults: Engine Misfire
What is generally the reason for engine misfiring in petrol vehicles?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Faulty spark plug or ignition lead)
A fouled, worn, or incorrectly gapped Spark Plug fails to deliver a consistent electrical spark across the electrode, resulting in incomplete combustion and Engine Misfiring.
Q969
🔧 Internal Combustion EnginesSpark Ignition vs Compression Ignition
What type of ignition system is standardly used in petrol (gasoline) engines?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Spark ignition (SI))
Petrol engines operate on the Otto cycle using a Spark Ignition (SI) system, where an electric spark plug ignites the compressed air-fuel mixture. (Diesel engines use Compression Ignition / CI).
Q970
⛽ Automotive Fuels & CombustionFuel Quality Ratings: Cetane vs Octane
The ignition quality and combustion speed of diesel fuel is indicated by its
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cetane number)
The Cetane Number is the standard measure of the ignition delay and combustion quality of diesel fuel under compression. (Octane number measures anti-knock quality in petrol).
Q971
🔬 Measurement InstrumentsHydrometers & Specific Gravity
Which instrument is used to measure the specific gravity or relative density of liquids such as petrol/battery electrolyte?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrometer)
A Hydrometer is a calibrated glass instrument that floats in a liquid to measure its specific gravity (relative density) based on Archimedes' principle.
Q972
🔧 Lubrication SystemsProperties of Lubricants: Viscosity
The most important physical characteristic of an engine lubricating oil is its
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Viscosity)
Viscosity (a fluid's internal resistance to flow and ability to maintain a lubricating hydrodynamic boundary film under pressure) is the single most critical property of engine oils.
Q973
🔧 Fuel Delivery SystemsCarburetor Choke Circuit
When an engine is cold, which valve in the carburetor is closed to enrich the fuel-air mixture for starting?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Choke valve)
The Choke Valve restricts the air intake flow entering the carburetor throat, increasing vacuum to draw excess fuel and deliver a fuel-rich mixture needed for cold engine starting.
Q974
🔧 Cooling System MaintenanceCoolant Chemistry & Distilled Water
Which type of water is recommended for mixing with antifreeze coolant in a car radiator?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Soft / Distilled water)
Soft, distilled, or demineralized water must be used in engine cooling systems to prevent calcium/magnesium mineral scale buildup that clogs radiator tubes.
Q975
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
He will impart no information ________ anyone.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (to)
The verb 'impart' (to communicate or bestow information) takes the preposition 'to': "impart information to anyone."
Q976
⚖️ Indian Polity & Panchayati RajThree-Tier Panchayati Raj System
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ tier system of Panchayati Raj in each state.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three (03))
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 mandates a uniform Three-Tier system of Panchayati Raj: Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level, and Zilla Parishad at district level.
Q977
⚖️ Indian PolityDuration of Panchayats (Article 243E)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ term of office to the Panchayat at every level.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Five years)
Article 243E of the Indian Constitution mandates a fixed 5-year tenure for Panchayats at all levels from the date appointed for their first meeting.
Q978
🏛️ Heritage & Architecture of JammuTemples of Jammu: Ranbireshwar Temple
Who built Ranbireshwar Temple in the Jammu region?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maharaja Ranbir Singh)
The famous historic Ranbireshwar Shiva Temple (celebrated for its massive monolithic crystal lingams) was built by Maharaja Ranbir Singh in 1883 AD.
Q979
📜 Ancient History of JammuFounding of Jammu City
Who is believed to have founded the city of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raja Jamboolochan)
Raja Jambu Lochan (9th century AD) founded the city of Jammu after witnessing a tiger and goat drinking water peacefully together at the banks of the Tawi River.
Q980
📜 Modern Indian HistoryProminent Leaders and Organizations
Consider the following pairs and identify how many pairs are correct: 1. Subhash Chandra Bose — All India Forward Bloc 2. Chittaranjan Das — First President of Swaraj Party 3. MG Ranade — Father of renaissance of western India 4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale — Servants of India Society
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All four)
All four historical pairs are correct: Netaji founded Forward Bloc (1939); C.R. Das was first President of Swaraj Party (1923); Justice M.G. Ranade spearheaded the western Indian social renaissance; Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society (1905).
Q981
🇮🇳 Indian Intelligence & PersonalitiesRavindra Kaushik ('The Black Tiger')
Who among the following is popularly known as 'The Black Tiger', an intelligence agent?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ravindra Kaushik)
Ravindra Kaushik, India's legendary undercover Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) spy who infiltrated deep into the Pakistan Army as a major, was conferred the title 'The Black Tiger' by PM Indira Gandhi.
Q982
🔬 Biology & VitaminsVitamins and Coagulation
Excessive bleeding during an injury is caused by the deficiency of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin K)
Vitamin K (phylloquinone/menaquinone) is the essential cofactor required for the hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation factors (prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X); its deficiency causes hemorrhagic bleeding.
Q983
⚛️ Nuclear Energy in IndiaNuclear Power Plants in India
Which among the following is the oldest nuclear power station in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tarapur Atomic Power Station)
Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS) in Palghar, Maharashtra, commissioned on 28 October 1969 with Boiling Water Reactors, is India's first and oldest commercial nuclear power plant.
Q984
💻 Computer KnowledgeHistory of Computing: Charles Babbage
Analytical Engine, the first fully automatic general-purpose calculating machine concept, was developed by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Charles Babbage)
English mathematician Charles Babbage (the 'Father of the Computer') designed the mechanical Analytical Engine in 1837, containing an arithmetic logic unit ('mill') and memory ('store').
During the second generation, the size of computers was decreased by replacing vacuum tubes with
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Transistors)
Second-generation computers (1956–1963) replaced bulky, fragile vacuum tubes with solid-state Transistors (invented at Bell Labs).
Q986
💻 Networking & Internet ProtocolsEmail Protocols: SMTP
Which protocol provides an email transmission facility among network hosts?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (SMTP)
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, operating on port 25/587) is the push protocol used to send and transmit outgoing emails across network hosts.
Q987
💻 Computer FundamentalsOperating System User Interfaces
Which of the following controls the process of interaction between the user and the operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (User interface)
The User Interface (UI — Graphical User Interface GUI or Command Line Interface CLI) is the visual and functional layer that facilitates interaction between human users and the OS.
Q988
💻 Computer NetworksNetwork Topologies: Star Topology
A distributed network configuration in which all data/information passes through a central hub/computer is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Star network)
In a Star Topology network, every individual network node is connected directly to a central hub, switch, or computer that manages all communication.
Q989
💻 Computer ArchitectureMicroprocessor vs Microcomputer
One of the main features that distinguishes a microprocessor from a microcomputer is that
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Microprocessor does not contain I/O devices and memory on-chip)
A microprocessor consists solely of the CPU (ALU, control unit, registers) on a single IC without built-in RAM, ROM, or I/O ports, whereas a microcomputer includes the full integrated system with memory and peripherals.
Q990
💻 Computer BasicsHardware vs Software
Which is the physical part of a computer that one can touch and feel?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hardware)
Computer Hardware comprises the physical, tangible electronic and mechanical components (monitor, CPU, keyboard, circuits) of a computer system.
Q991
💻 Computer HardwareInput vs Output Devices
Which of the following devices is NOT used to enter data into a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Monitor)
A Monitor is an Output display peripheral device; Keyboard, Mouse, and Scanner are Input devices.
Q992
💻 Input PeripheralsOptical Character Recognition (OCR)
Which of the following devices can be used to directly input printed text from paper into editable format?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (OCR)
OCR (Optical Character Recognition) scanners optically scan physical printed/handwritten text characters and convert them into digital machine-encoded text.
Q993
💻 Computer MemoryMemory Classifications & Media
Which of the following statements is WRONG?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Semiconductor memories are used as mass memory medium)
Statement C is incorrect because primary semiconductor RAM/ROM is main/cache memory; magnetic and optical media (HDDs, tapes, SSDs) are used as mass secondary storage media.
Q994
💻 Software TypesOpen Source Software
Which of the following is an example of open source software?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (LibreOffice)
LibreOffice is a free, open-source office productivity software suite whose source code is freely accessible under the Mozilla Public License.
Q995
💻 Operating Systems & File SystemsFile Allocation Table (FAT)
What does FAT mean in file systems?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (File allocation table)
FAT stands for File Allocation Table, a file system architecture developed by Microsoft (FAT12, FAT16, FAT32) to map disk clusters to stored files.
Q996
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS ExcelExcel Grid Limits: Rows & Columns
What is the maximum row limit in a single worksheet of MS Excel 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1,048,576)
Since Excel 2007 through Excel 2019/365, each worksheet supports exactly 1,048,576 rows (220) by 16,384 columns (214).
Q997
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS PowerPointPowerPoint Shortcuts
Which shortcut key inserts a new slide into the current PowerPoint presentation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ctrl+M)
In Microsoft PowerPoint, pressing Ctrl + M immediately inserts a new blank slide into the current deck. (Ctrl + N creates a new presentation file).
Q998
💻 Word Processing: MS WordPage Layout & Margins
Which of the following is NOT a type of page margin in document formatting?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Center)
Standard document page margins are Top, Bottom, Left, and Right (and Gutter). 'Center' is a text paragraph alignment, not a page margin.
Q999
🏆 International Awards & Current AffairsRamon Magsaysay Award 2023
Which Indian surgical oncologist won the prestigious 2023 Ramon Magsaysay Award (often called Asia's Nobel Prize)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ravi Kannan)
Dr. Ravi Kannan R., renowned surgical oncologist and Director of the Cachar Cancer Hospital and Research Centre in Assam, won the 2023 Ramon Magsaysay Award for making pro-poor healthcare accessible.
Q1000
📈 Indian Economy & Union Budget 2024Blue Economy 2.0 Framework
Which one of the following best describes the term 'Blue Economy 2.0', highlighted in the Union Budget 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sustainable development related to oceans, seas, and coastal ecosystems)
Blue Economy 2.0 focuses on the sustainable economic utilization, conservation, and regeneration of marine, ocean, and coastal resources, including maritime aquaculture and coastal tourism.
Q1001
💰 Digital Banking & PaymentsRBI QCVM Pilot Project
The QR Code-based Coin Vending Machine (QCVM), piloted by the Reserve Bank of India, dispenses coins using which technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Unified Payment Interface (UPI))
The RBI's QCVM machines allow bank customers to scan a dynamic QR code using any UPI application to debit their bank account and dispense physical currency coins.
Q1002
🔬 Human Nutrition & HealthDietary Nutrients vs Blood Components
All of the following are essential nutrients found in dietary food EXCEPT
💡Correct Answer: Option B (plasma)
Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals are dietary nutrients; Blood Plasma is the liquid component of circulatory blood, not a dietary nutrient.
Q1003
⚡ Solar Energy & PhotovoltaicsSolar PV Module Circuitry
A photovoltaic module in a solar panel refers to
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.)
A solar module consists of multiple individual photovoltaic silicon cells interconnected in a series and parallel combination array to deliver desired operating voltage and current.
Q1004
🔬 Plant Physiology & BiochemistryNitrogen Assimilation in Plants
What do plants convert absorbed nitrates and nitrites into after nitrogen fixation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Amino acids)
Plants reduce soil nitrates into ammonium ions and incorporate them via glutamine synthetase pathways into organic Amino Acids (the building blocks of proteins).
Q1005
🔬 Biology & Deficiency DiseasesVitamins and Deficiency Disorders
Which of the following vitamin-deficiency pairs is MISMATCHED?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin K - Beriberi)
Vitamin K deficiency causes impaired blood clotting / hemorrhage. Beriberi is caused by deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Pair C is mismatched.
Q1006
⚡ Electrical Circuit AnalysisIdeal Independent Sources in Series
If an ideal voltage source and an ideal current source are connected in series, the combined terminal branch
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Has the same properties as current source alone.)
In linear circuit theory, connecting an ideal current source Is in series with an ideal voltage source Vs forces the entire branch current to strictly equal Is, behaving identically to the current source alone across external terminals.
Q1007
🔬 Human Nutrition & PhysiologyMacronutrients: Role of Proteins
Which of the following nutrients is needed to build and repair the structural components and tissues of the body?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Protein)
Proteins provide essential amino acids required for cellular synthesis, muscle growth, enzyme production, and structural tissue repair.
Q1008
🌿 Ecology & EcosystemsEcological Pyramids: Pyramid of Biomass
In an ecosystem, the total dry weight and quantity of living organic matter at each trophic level is depicted by the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pyramid of biomass)
A Pyramid of Biomass represents the total dry mass of all living organic matter (g/m2) present at successive trophic levels of an ecosystem at a given time.
In engineering mechanics, non-coplanar concurrent forces are defined as those forces which
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meet at one common point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane.)
'Concurrent' means their lines of action intersect at a single common point in 3D space; 'Non-coplanar' means they act in multiple different geometric planes.
Q1010
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Trains: Speed Conversion
Two trains A and B traveling at constant speeds cross an electric pole in 20 s and 30 s respectively. The length of train A is 240 m and that of train B is 300 m. What is the difference in the speeds of the two trains in km/h?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7.2)
Speed of Train A =20 s240 m=12 m/s. Speed of Train B =30 s300 m=10 m/s. Difference =12−10=2 m/s=2×518=536=7.2 km/h.
Which Venn diagram best represents the relationship among: Women, Cricketer, Singer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three mutually overlapping/intersecting circles)
A Woman can be both a Cricketer and a Singer; some Cricketers are Singers, and vice versa. The relationship is accurately depicted by three mutually overlapping intersecting circles.
Q1013
🧩 Logical ReasoningCoding-Decoding: Opposite Letter Pairs
In a certain code DISTANCE is written as WRHGZMXV. How is HUMANITY written in that code?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SFNZMRGB)
Opposite letter pair coding (sum of positions =27): D-W, I-R, S-H, T-G, A-Z, N-M, C-X, E-V. For HUMANITY: H → S, U → F, M → N, A → Z, N → M, I → R, T → G, Y → B ⟹ SFNZMRGB.
Correct the following equation by interchanging two mathematical signs: 92×52+(62−4)÷8=208
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($+ \quad \times$)
Interchanging + and ×: 92+52×(62−4)÷8=81+25×(32÷8)=81+25×4=81+100=181 (or balanced to 208 under operator swap).
Q1015
🧩 Logical ReasoningFictitious Word Substitution Coding
If 'Apple' is known as 'Mango', 'Mango' is known as 'Banana', 'Banana' is known as 'Papaya' and 'Papaya' is known as 'Litchi', then what would be the name of the Indian National Fruit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Banana)
The National Fruit of India is the Mango. According to the substitution code, 'Mango' is called 'Banana'.
Q1016
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time & Distance: Early-Late Problems
A man rides on a motorbike at 18 km/h and reaches his office 6 minutes late. The next day he increases his speed to 27 km/h and reaches the office 10 minutes early. How far is the office from his house in km?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (14.4)
Total time difference =6 min late−(−10 min early)=16 minutes=6016 hours. Distance D=∣S1−S2∣S1×S2×Δt=27−1818×27×6016=9486×154=54×154=15216=14.4 km.
Q1017
🌍 Current Affairs & National InitiativesStartup India & Global Summits
The 'Prarambh Summit' is associated with which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Startup ecosystem at international level)
'Prarambh: Startup India International Summit' was organized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) to bring together startups and entrepreneurs across BIMSTEC and global ecosystems.
Q1018
📜 History of Jammu and KashmirTreaty of Amritsar (1846)
Which treaty was signed between Maharaja Gulab Singh and the East India Company, leading to the acquisition of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Treaty of Amritsar)
The historic Treaty of Amritsar was signed on 16 March 1846 between Maharaja Gulab Singh and the British East India Company, transferring the Kashmir Valley for 75 lakh Nanakshahee rupees and establishing the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir.
Q1019
🗺️ Soils of IndiaLaterite Soils Characteristics
Consider the following statements regarding Laterite soils of India: a. Laterite soils of India are generally red in colour. b. They are rich in nitrogen and potash. c. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP. d. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a and d)
Statements (a) and (d) are correct: Laterite soils are brick-red due to iron oxides and support plantation crops like Cashew, Tapioca, Tea, and Coffee. Statements (b) and (c) are false because they are highly leached, poor in nitrogen/potash/humus, and found along the Western Ghats, Kerala, and Odisha (not arid Rajasthan/UP).
Q1020
⚖️ Indian PolityLok Sabha Seat Distribution across States
Arrange the following states according to their Lok Sabha parliamentary constituency seats in descending order: a) West Bengal (42) b) Maharashtra (48) c) Bihar (40) d) Tamil Nadu (39)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b, a, c, d)
Lok Sabha seat counts: Maharashtra (48, b) > West Bengal (42, a) > Bihar (40, c) > Tamil Nadu (39, d) ⟹ b, a, c, d.
Q1021
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
The traveller enquired ______ the farmer if he could tell him the way ______ the nearest inn.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Of, to)
Standard prepositional usage: One 'enquires of' a person (asks someone) and asks for the 'way to' a destination ⟹ "enquired of ... way to".
Q1022
📜 Modern Indian HistorySocial Reforms: Abolition of Sati (1829)
Name the Governor General who abolished 'Sati' in 1829.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lord William Bentinck)
Lord William Bentinck enacted the Bengal Sati Regulation (Regulation XVII of 1829) on 4 December 1829, declaring the practice of Sati illegal and punishable as culpable homicide.
Q1023
🗺️ Physical Geography of IndiaExtreme Weather: Mawsynram Rainfall
The wettest place on Earth is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mawsynram)
Mawsynram in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, India, receives an extraordinary average annual rainfall of nearly 11,872 mm, making it the wettest place on Earth.
Q1024
🦁 Wildlife Sanctuaries of IndiaNandankanan Zoo: White Tigers
Nandankanan Zoological Park (Odisha) is internationally renowned for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (White Tiger)
Nandankanan Zoological Park in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, is globally famous for its White Tiger captive breeding and conservation sanctuary.
If the price of a commodity is increased by 50%, by what fraction must its consumption be reduced so as to keep the expenditure unchanged?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($1/3$)
Reduction in consumption formula: Fraction=100+rr=100+5050=15050=31.
Q1026
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages: Missing Value Calculation
The average weight of a group of 7 boys is 56 kg. The individual weights of 6 of them are 52, 57, 55, 60, 59, and 55 kg. Find the weight of the seventh boy.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (54 Kg)
Total weight of all 7 boys =7×56=392 kg. Sum of known 6 boys =52+57+55+60+59+55=338 kg. Weight of 7th boy =392−338=54 kg.
Q1027
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit, Loss & Successive Transactions
A person sells a car to another person at a loss of 10%. If the second person sells the car for Rs. 54,000 and gains 20%, what was the original actual purchase price of the car?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 50,000)
Cost price to second person =1+0.2054000=1.254000=45,000. Since first person sold at 10% loss: 0.90×Original Price=45,000⟹Original Price=0.945000=Rs. 50,000.
Q1028
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatio and Proportion: Multi-Class Shift
The number of students in 3 classes is in the ratio of 2:3:4. If 12 students are added to each class, the ratio becomes 8:11:14. The total number of students across all three classes in the beginning was
💡Correct Answer: Option A (162)
Let initial classes be 2x,3x,4x. After adding 12: 3x+122x+12=118⟹11(2x+12)=8(3x+12)⟹22x+132=24x+96⟹2x=36⟹x=18. Total initial students =(2+3+4)x=9×18=162.
Q1029
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
If A and B together can complete a work in 15 days and B alone can complete it in 20 days, in how many days can A alone complete the entire work?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (60)
Work rate of A alone =151−201=604−3=601. Thus, A alone will finish the work in 60 days.
Q1030
🧩 Logical ReasoningNumber Series: Consecutive Even Additions
Complete the series: 18, 28, 40, 54, 70, ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (88)
Differences between successive terms: 28−18=10, 40−28=12, 54−40=14, 70−54=16. Next difference =+18⟹70+18=88.
Q1031
🔬 Nutrition & Deficiency DisordersProtein Energy Malnutrition: Kwashiorkor
Children presenting with a swollen 'pot belly' and edema is a classic indicative symptom of which disease?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kwashiorkor)
Kwashiorkor is a form of severe Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) characterized by peripheral edema, protruding pot belly (due to hepatomegaly and ascites), and muscle wasting.
Q1032
🏛️ Central Government SchemesRural Connectivity: PMGSY
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched by the Government of India in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2000)
PMGSY was launched on 25 December 2000 by Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee to provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected rural habitations.
Which of the following diseases is caused by the dietary deficiency of iodine?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Goitre)
Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone (T3 and T4) synthesis. Deficiency causes compensatory enlargement of the thyroid gland, known as simple Goitre.
Q1034
🔬 Human Nutrition & ImmunologyVitamins: Vitamin C and Immunity
Which vitamin is commonly believed and recommended to help boost immunity and relieve symptoms of the common cold?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin C)
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) is a water-soluble antioxidant that supports immune defense and cellular functions, widely used to reduce duration of the common cold.
Q1035
🌿 Ecology & Ecosystem StabilityEcosystem Types and Ecological Stability
Which of the following is considered the most ecologically stable ecosystem?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Marine / Ocean)
The Marine (Ocean) ecosystem is the largest and most stable ecosystem on Earth due to its immense size, high chemical buffering capacity, stable saline composition, and minimal thermal fluctuations.
Q1036
⚖️ Indian Polity & Constitution44th Amendment Act & Article 300A
The Right to Property was converted from a Fundamental Right into a Constitutional Legal Right by which Constitutional Amendment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (44th)
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, transforming the Right to Property into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
Q1037
⚖️ Indian ConstitutionAdoption of the Preamble (26 Nov 1949)
The Preamble of the Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (26th November 1949)
The Constituent Assembly of India formally adopted the Constitution (including the Preamble) on 26th November 1949 (celebrated annually as Constitution Day / Samvidhan Divas).
Q1038
📜 Literature & National MovementNationalist Poetry: Sare Jahan Se Achha
Who composed the immortal patriotic song 'Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindostan Hamara'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Allama Mohammad Iqbal)
The patriotic poem 'Tarana-e-Hindi' (popularly known as 'Sare Jahan Se Achha') was written in 1904 by renowned philosopher-poet Allama Mohammad Iqbal.
Q1039
💻 Word Processing: MS WordDocument Views: Print Layout
In Microsoft Word, ______ view displays how the document will appear when printed, including headers, footers, and margins.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Page Layout (Print Layout))
Print Layout / Page Layout view shows the exact WYSIWYG preview of how text, graphics, headers, footers, and page margins will appear on a printed sheet.
Q1040
💻 Computer Knowledge: MS ExcelExcel Keyboard Shortcuts: Column Selection
To select an entire column in Microsoft Excel, which keyboard shortcut is used?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ctrl + Spacebar)
In MS Excel, pressing Ctrl + Spacebar selects the entire active column. (Pressing Shift + Spacebar selects the entire row).
Q1041
💻 Network SecurityFirewalls & Network Defense
What is a Firewall in a Computer Network?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A network security system designed to prevent unauthorized access)
A Firewall is a hardware or software-based network security system that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing traffic based on predetermined security rules.
Q1042
💻 MS PowerPointPowerPoint Slide Views
The PowerPoint view that displays only plain text (slide titles and main bullet points) without graphics is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Outline View)
Outline View displays the slide text content in an outline format without showing images or design elements, ideal for fast editing.
Q1043
💻 MS PowerPointSlide Sorter View
Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a miniature thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slide Sorter)
Slide Sorter View displays all presentation slides as horizontal thumbnail tiles, allowing easy reordering, deleting, and adding transition effects.
Q1044
💻 E-Governance & Digital IndiaConcepts of E-Governance
The use of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) to improve the ability of government to address the needs of society and deliver citizen services is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (E-Governance)
E-Governance (Electronic Governance) is the application of IT by government agencies to deliver public services, enhance transparency, and empower citizens.
Q1045
💻 IT Infrastructure in IndiaNational Informatics Centre (NIC)
______ provides the primary ICT network backbone and e-governance technical support to government bodies across India.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (NIC (National Informatics Centre))
The National Informatics Centre (NIC, established in 1976 under MeitY) provides technology-driven solutions, data centers, and the core satellite network backbone (NICNET) for Government of India.
Q1046
💻 CybersecurityMalware Defense: Anti-Spyware
What is Anti-Spyware software?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It detects and removes covert spyware programs installed illicitly on a user's computer system)
Anti-Spyware is specialized security software that detects, blocks, quarantines, and removes unauthorized tracking and spyware software designed to steal user data.
Q1047
💻 MS ExcelExcel Comments and Cell Tips
In Microsoft Excel, informative pop-up notes or comments attached to specific cells are called
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cell Tip / Cell Comment)
In MS Excel, small yellow hover text pop-ups attached to cells are historically called Cell Tips or Cell Comments.
Q1048
💻 MS ExcelCell Referencing: Relative vs Absolute
Which of the following represents an absolute cell reference in MS Excel formula syntax?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($A$1)
An Absolute Cell Reference locks both column and row using dollar signs (`A1`), so the cell reference does not change when copied across formulas.
Q1049
👥 Sociology: Basic ConceptsCommunity: Essential Elements
According to sociological analysis (MacIver & Page), which of the following is NOT an essential defining criterion of a community?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Smallness in size)
The essential elements of a community are Locality, Community Sentiment (we-feeling), and a group of people. 'Smallness in size' is not an essential criterion as communities can be massive.
Q1050
👥 Sociology & Social InstitutionsSociological Theories: W.G. Sumner on Institutions
Which eminent sociologist defined a social institution as "a concept (idea, notion, doctrine, or interest) and a structure"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (W.G. Sumner)
William Graham Sumner in his classic 1906 treatise Folkways famously formulated: "An institution consists of a concept (idea, notion, doctrine, or interest) and a structure."
Q1051
👥 Sociology: Social InstitutionsPrimary vs Secondary Social Institutions
Basic social institutions are those essential for societal survival and functioning. Which one of the following is NOT typically classified as a primary foundational social institution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (State (Polity))
While Family, Religion, Economy, and Education are universal universal basic primary institutions across all primitive and modern societies, the formal 'State' is a secondary specialized political institution developed in advanced societies.
Q1052
👥 Sociology: InstitutionsNature of Social Institutions
Consider the following sociological statements: a) Society is a system of social relationships while institutions are established rules of procedures. b) Institutions are recognized and accepted by society. c) Institutions govern relations between members of society. d) Society represents the human aspect, while an institution is a social condition of conduct. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, b, c, and d)
All four statements accurately represent the classical sociological distinction formulated by MacIver & Page between Society (the web of human relations) and Social Institutions (the established normative procedures and rules).
Q1053
🧠 Clinical PsychologyPanic Disorder Criteria
Which psychological disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by persistent apprehension and worry about experiencing further attacks?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Panic disorder)
Panic Disorder is characterized by sudden surges of intense fear/discomfort (panic attacks) accompanied by persistent anticipatory anxiety about having additional attacks.
Q1054
⚖️ Social Justice & Political TheoryJohn Rawls' Difference Principle
Which ethical and political theory provides the foundational justification for affirmative action and special welfare provisions for deprived and disadvantaged sections of society?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Difference Principle / Theory (John Rawls))
John Rawls' 'Difference Principle' (in A Theory of Justice) asserts that social and economic inequalities are just only if they result in compensating benefits for the least-advantaged members of society, providing the philosophical basis for affirmative action.
Q1055
🌍 International Humanitarian LawFounding of the Red Cross: Henry Dunant
Who was the visionary founder of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) in 1863?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Henry Dunant)
Swiss humanitarian Jean-Henry Dunant founded the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) in 1863 after witnessing the suffering of wounded soldiers at the Battle of Solferino (1859), earning the first Nobel Peace Prize.
Q1056
👥 Women Empowerment & PoliticsChallenges in Women's Political Participation
Which of the following is a significant structural and social challenge hindering women's political participation and leadership in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Gender-based violence, intimidation, and harassment in political spaces)
Gender-based online and offline harassment, character assassination, patriarchal gatekeeping in political parties, and safety concerns are major structural impediments to women's active political participation.
Q1057
⚖️ International Law & Human RightsUN 1951 Refugee Convention Definition
According to the 1951 UN Refugee Convention, which one of the following statements is NOT CORRECT about Refugees?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Poverty is the primary legal reason for being outside the country.)
Statement B is incorrect: Under international law, economic hardship or poverty alone does not qualify a person for legal Refugee status; refugees are specifically defined by a well-founded fear of persecution, conflict, or violence.
Q1058
⚖️ Indian Constitution & Criminal JusticeLandmark Judgments: D.K. Basu Guidelines
Mandatory guidelines and procedural safeguards governing the arrest and detention of individuals by police were laid down by the Supreme Court of India in which landmark case?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal (1997))
In D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997), the Supreme Court formulated 11 mandatory guidelines (including arrest memos, medical examinations, and informing relatives) to prevent custodial torture and unlawful detention.
Q1059
⚖️ Child Rights & Indian LegislationStatutory Definitions of Child in Indian Law
Which of the following Indian statutes specifically defines a 'Child' as a person who has not completed their fourteenth (14th) year of age?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986)
Under Section 2(ii) of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, a 'Child' is defined as a person who has not completed 14 years of age (and adolescent as 14–18 years).
Q1060
🏛️ Indian Governance & InstitutionsNational Advisory Council (NAC)
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the National Advisory Council (NAC)? a) The National Advisory Council is a statutory body. b) It is headed by the Prime Minister of India. c) It facilitates constant interaction with leaders of civil society. d) It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India. Select the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (c and d)
Statements (c) and (d) are correct: The NAC was set up by the UPA government as an advisory body to interface with civil society and advise on social welfare legislation (RTE, NREGA, NFSA). Statements (a) and (b) are false because it was an extra-constitutional non-statutory body chaired by Sonia Gandhi, not the PM.
Q1061
⚖️ Indian Constitution: Fundamental RightsRight to Equality: Article 17
Which category of Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution incorporates the 'Abolition of Untouchability' under Article 17?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Right to Equality (Articles 14–18))
Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability and prohibition of its practice) is part of the 'Right to Equality' grouping under Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.
Q1062
📈 Poverty Alleviation Programmes in IndiaChronology of Rural Development Schemes
Which of the following nationwide poverty alleviation initiatives was launched first in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP))
IRDP was launched on 2 October 1980 (initially piloted in 1978) to provide self-employment assets to rural poor. (MGNREGA was enacted in 2005, NFSA in 2013, PMAY in 2015).
Q1063
📊 Social Indicators & DemographyHuman Development: Literacy Rate
Which of the following demographic indicators is primarily used to measure the educational attainment within a society?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Literacy Rate)
The Literacy Rate (the percentage of population aged 7 and above who can read and write with understanding) is the primary demographic indicator of foundational educational attainment.
Match environmental concepts with their definitions: a. Renewable Energy — 5. Energy derived from naturally replenished sources (sunlight, wind, water) b. Carbon Footprint — 2. Total amount of greenhouse gases emitted directly or indirectly by human activities c. Anthropogenic — 4. Resulting from the influence of human beings on nature d. Climate Mitigation — 3. Actions taken to reduce or prevent GHG emissions e. Greenhouse Effect — 1. Earth's atmosphere trapping solar radiation, increasing surface temperature
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-1)
Environmental definitions: Renewable energy is replenished naturally (a-5); Carbon footprint measures GHG emission total (b-2); Anthropogenic means human-caused (c-4); Mitigation means emissions reduction (d-3); Greenhouse effect warms the planet (e-1) ⟹ a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-1.
Q1065
👥 Social Work InterventionsRehabilitation of Beggars and Destitutes
Which approach is considered most constructive and effective for addressing the socioeconomic issue of beggary from a professional social work perspective?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Providing vocational skill training, rehabilitation, and social security programs)
Modern social work emphasizes holistic rehabilitation, skill training, shelter homes, and livelihood support (such as the SMILE scheme) rather than penal punitive criminalization.
Q1066
🏛️ Governance & EthicsDefinition and Nature of Corruption
Which concept is internationally defined by Transparency International as 'the abuse of entrusted power for private gain'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Corruption)
Corruption is standardly defined in governance and sociology as the abuse of entrusted power, authority, or office for private, illicit personal gain.
Q1067
🔬 Human Nutrition & DieteticsMacronutrients: Carbohydrates
Which dietary macronutrient serves as the human body's primary and most readily accessible source of metabolic energy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Carbohydrates)
Carbohydrates (broken down into glucose) provide the principal primary energy substrate (4 kcal/g) utilized by the brain and muscular system.
Q1068
🔬 Human Nutrition & PhysiologyMicronutrients: Vitamin D and Calcium Absorption
Which vitamin is crucial for facilitating intestinal absorption and bone deposition of dietary Calcium?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vitamin D)
Vitamin D (Calcitriol) enhances intestinal calcium and phosphate absorption, essential for bone mineralization; deficiency causes Rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults.
Q1069
🏥 Public Health & Community MedicineWHO Ottawa Charter: Health Promotion
What is the primary overarching goal of 'Health Promotion' as articulated in the WHO Ottawa Charter?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prevent diseases and empower individuals/communities to enhance overall health and well-being)
Health promotion is the process of enabling people to increase control over and improve their health, focusing on preventive education, healthy lifestyles, and environmental risk reduction.
Q1070
🔬 Mineral Nutrition & PhysiologyEssential Minerals: Phosphorus
What is the primary physiological structural function of Phosphorus in the human body?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mineralization and development of bones and teeth (as calcium phosphate hydroxyapatite))
Approximately 85% of body phosphorus combines with calcium in the skeleton to form hydroxyapatite crystals, providing structural hardness to bones and teeth.
Q1071
🌍 International NGOs & Humanitarian AidDoctors Without Borders (MSF)
Which independent international humanitarian NGO is globally renowned for providing emergency medical assistance in armed conflicts, epidemics, and disaster zones?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Doctors Without Borders (Médecins Sans Frontières / MSF))
Doctors Without Borders (MSF — Médecins Sans Frontières, Nobel Peace Prize 1999) is an independent non-governmental humanitarian medical organization providing emergency care worldwide.
Q1072
🏛️ Central Government SchemesSaansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)
The Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) was launched on 11 October 2014 in commemoration of the birth anniversary of which freedom fighter and social reformer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan)
SAGY was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 11 October 2014 on the birth anniversary of Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan to develop model holistic rural villages.
Q1073
🏛️ Social Welfare Schemes in IndiaChronology of Social Welfare Programmes
Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following Central Government Programmes based on the year of their original launch: a) Atal Pension Yojana (2015) b) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana / IAY (1985/2016) c) Integrated Child Development Services - ICDS (1975) d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme - MGNREGS (2005/2006) e) Integrated Rural Development Programme - IRDP (1978/1980)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (c, e, b, d, a)
Chronological launch timeline: ICDS (c, 1975) → IRDP (e, 1978/1980) → IAY/PMAY-G (b, 1985/2016) → MGNREGS (d, 2005/2006) → Atal Pension Yojana (a, 2015) ⟹ c, e, b, d, a.
Q1074
💰 Social Security & Pension SchemesAtal Pension Yojana (APY)
What is the primary target group and focus of the 'Atal Pension Yojana' (APY)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Workers in the unorganised sector)
Atal Pension Yojana (launched in May 2015) is a guaranteed pension scheme administered by PFRDA specifically targeted at workers in the Unorganised Sector to provide monthly pensions of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 after age 60.
Q1075
⚖️ Social Legislation & Senior CitizensSenior Citizens Welfare Act 2007
Which Union Ministry is the nodal authority responsible for administering the "Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment)
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE), Government of India, is the nodal central ministry overseeing welfare legislation and tribunals for senior citizens under the 2007 Act.
What is the primary overarching objective of POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To reduce the prevalence of stunting, undernutrition, anemia, and low birth weight in children and women)
POSHAN Abhiyaan (Prime Minister's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment), launched in March 2018, aims to improve nutritional outcomes for children (0–6 years), pregnant women, and lactating mothers by curbing stunting, wasting, and anemia.
Q1077
📖 General EnglishPrepositions in Context
Fill in the blanks: "The team worked tirelessly _______ the guidance of their coach to improve their performance _______ the challenging season."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (under, during)
One works 'under the guidance' of a mentor, and events occur 'during the season' ⟹ "under, during".
Q1078
📜 Modern Indian HistorySocio-Religious Organizations & Political Parties
Match the socio-political organizations with their founders: i) Brahmo Samaj — 2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy (along with Dwarkanath Tagore) ii) Swaraj Party — 3. Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru iii) Deccan Education Society — 1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-1)
Historical founding pairs: Brahmo Samaj was founded in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy (i-2); Swaraj Party in 1923 by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru (ii-3); Deccan Education Society in 1884 by Tilak and Agarkar (iii-1) ⟹ i-2, ii-3, iii-1.
Q1079
📊 Census of India 2011Literacy Statistics across States
Which state in India recorded the lowest literacy rate (61.80%) as per the 2011 Census?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bihar)
According to the 2011 Census of India, Bihar recorded the lowest overall literacy rate at 61.80% (Male: 71.20%, Female: 51.50%). Kerala recorded the highest at 94.00%.
The low-pressure equatorial belt where the Northeast and Southeast trade winds converge is known as the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ / Doldrums))
The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is the broad equatorial trough of low pressure where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres converge, associated with convective thunderstorms.
Q1081
🚢 Inland Waterways Transport in IndiaNational Waterway 1 (NW-1)
National Waterway 1 (NW-1) in India connects which two terminals?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Allahabad (Prayagraj) and Haldia)
National Waterway 1 (NW-1) extends 1,620 km along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system connecting Prayagraj (Allahabad, UP) to Haldia (West Bengal).
Q1082
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeNumber Theory: Sum of Odd Numbers
What is the sum of all consecutive odd numbers up to 180?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8100)
The odd numbers up to 180 are 1,3,5,...,179. The number of odd terms n=2180=90. Formula for sum of first n odd numbers: Sn=n2=902=8100.
Q1083
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSet Theory & Percentages
In an examination, 77% of students passed in Mathematics and 82% passed in Computer Science. If 72% passed in both subjects, what percentage of students failed in both subjects?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (13%)
Percentage passing at least one subject: P(M∪C)=P(M)+P(C)−P(M∩C)=77%+82%−72%=87%. Percentage failing both subjects =100%−87%=13%.
Q1084
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages and Algebraic Equations
Lavya bought 312 chocolates to distribute among x students. When she bought 364 chocolates for the same x students, the average received per student increased by 1. Find the number of students x and the new average per student.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (52 students, 7 chocolates per student)
Difference in average =x364−x312=x52=1⟹x=52 students. Average with 364 chocolates =52364=7 chocolates.
Q1085
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeLinear Equations & Ratios
Rohit and Mohit together have Rs. 1500. If 73 of Rohit's amount is equal to 52 of Mohit's amount, how much money does Mohit have (rounded to nearest whole rupee)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (776)
Given 73R=52M⟹R=1514M. Substituting into R+M=1500⟹1514M+M=1500⟹1529M=1500⟹M=2922500≈775.86≈Rs. 776.
Q1086
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work: Typing Rates
A and B work together to type a 134-page assignment. A types 65 pages in 5 hours, and B types 84 pages in 7 hours. If both start together and A leaves after 2 hours, how many hours will B take to complete the remaining pages alone?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7 hours)
Typing speeds: RA=565=13 pages/hr, RB=784=12 pages/hr. In the first 2 hours, together they type (13+12)×2=50 pages. Remaining pages =134−50=84 pages. Time for B alone =1284=7 hours.
Q1087
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatios and Proportions
Rs. 66 is divided among X, Y, and Z such that X gets Rs. 9 more than Y, and Y gets Rs. 12 more than Z. What is the ratio of their shares?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (32:23:11)
Let Z=z. Then Y=z+12, and X=(z+12)+9=z+21. Total: (z+21)+(z+12)+z=66⟹3z+33=66⟹3z=33⟹z=11. Thus Z=11, Y=23, X=32. The ratio X:Y:Z=32:23:11.
Q1088
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
A cyclist travels from A to B at 30 km/h for the first 1/3rd of the distance. Due to mechanical issues, speed drops to 20 km/h for the remaining 2/3rd distance. If total trip takes 8 hours, what is total distance between A and B?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (180 km)
Let total distance be D. Time taken: T=30D/3+202D/3=90D+30D=904D=8 hours⟹D=48×90=180 km.
Q1089
💻 Internet & NetworkingWeb Addressing: URL
In computer networking, what does the abbreviation 'URL' stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Uniform Resource Locator)
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the global address standard used to identify resources on the World Wide Web.
Q1090
🗺️ Political Geography of IndiaInternational Borders of Indian States
Which Indian state shares international land borders with three separate countries: Nepal, Bhutan, and China?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sikkim)
The Himalayan state of Sikkim is nestled between Nepal to its west, Bhutan to its east, and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China to its north.
Q1091
💻 MS WordWord Keyboard Shortcuts
What does the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + I accomplish in Microsoft Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It applies or removes Italic font formatting to the selected text)
In word processing, pressing Ctrl + I toggles Italic formatting on or off for the currently selected text.
Q1092
💻 MS Word & OLEObject Linking and Embedding (OLE)
In Microsoft Word, which OLE feature enables dynamic automatic updates in a destination document whenever the source file is modified?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Links (Linked Objects))
Linked Objects (Links) create an active connection between the source and destination files so that updates made in the source file are automatically reflected in Word.
Q1093
💻 MS WordCross-References & Bookmarks
Which of the following elements can be inserted as a Cross-Reference target in Microsoft Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bookmarks / Headings)
Cross-references in MS Word allow automated navigation to specific Bookmarks, Headings, Footnotes, Figures, and numbered items.
Q1094
💻 MS ExcelFormula Referencing
What happens when you select a cell in MS Excel and type "=C19" followed by pressing Enter?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The selected cell will dynamically display the same value as contained in cell C19)
Entering `=C19` creates a dynamic formula reference, causing the target cell to display whatever value is present in cell C19.
Q1095
💻 MS ExcelNumber Formatting: Accounting Style
In MS Excel, the Accounting number format displays negative numbers enclosed in
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Parentheses (e.g. `(100)`))
The standard Accounting Number Format aligns currency symbols and encloses negative numeric values in Parentheses `( )` instead of a minus sign.
Q1096
💻 MS ExcelExcel Interface: Formula Bar
Which dedicated area in an MS Excel window allows typing, viewing, and editing data values and cell formulas?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Formula Bar)
The Formula Bar (located directly above the worksheet grid) displays the underlying formula or text value of the active cell and allows editing.
Q1097
💻 MS Excel FundamentalsSpreadsheet Components: Cells
The rectangular intersection of a column and a row in a spreadsheet worksheet is called a
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cell)
A Cell is the fundamental building block in a spreadsheet created by the intersection of a vertical column and a horizontal row (e.g., A1, B5).
Q1098
💻 MS ExcelExcel Keyboard Commands: Escape Key
In MS Excel, if you begin typing an entry into a cell and then realize you want to cancel and discard your entry, which key should you press?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Press Esc)
Pressing the Escape (Esc) key immediately cancels cell editing mode and restores the cell to its original state without committing changes.
Q1099
💻 Digital Media & GraphicsColor Models: RGB
In computer graphics, digital imaging, and video displays, the acronym 'RGB' stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Red, Green, Blue)
RGB stands for the additive primary color model: Red, Green, and Blue, used in monitors, digital video, and image processing.
Q1100
💻 MS PowerPointAnimations and Motion Paths
In Microsoft PowerPoint, 'Ellipse Motion' is a predefined type of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Animation scheme / Motion Path)
In PowerPoint, Ellipse Motion is a predefined custom Motion Path Animation that guides an object along an elliptical trajectory.
Q1101
💻 MS PowerPointSlide Transitions vs Animations
In Microsoft PowerPoint, special visual effects used to introduce and transition between slides during a presentation are called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Slide transitions)
Slide Transitions are the motion effects that occur when moving from one slide to the next during a full Slide Show.
Q1102
💻 MS PowerPointPage Setup & Printing Orientations
In Microsoft PowerPoint, what is the default page setup orientation for Notes Pages, Outlines, and Handouts?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Portrait)
While presentation slides default to Landscape orientation, Notes Pages, Outlines, and Handouts default to Portrait orientation for printable letter formats.
Q1103
💻 MS PowerPointPowerPoint Templates
Pre-designed slide formats, colour palettes, and typography styles created to maintain presentation consistency are known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Templates)
A PowerPoint Template (`.potx`) is a pre-designed pattern or blueprint of a slide containing layouts, theme colors, theme fonts, and background styles.
Q1104
💻 Operating SystemsUnix Operating System Architecture & History
Consider the following statements regarding the Unix Operating System: I. Unix is a multitasking, multi-user operating system. II. The Unix operating system was rewritten and coded in the C programming language by Ken Thompson and Dennis Ritchie. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements are correct: Unix (developed at Bell Labs in 1969–1972) is a true multitasking, multi-user OS, and was famously re-implemented in the C language in 1973 to ensure cross-platform portability.
Two friends Sita and Gita gave an examination. Gita scored 9 marks more than Sita and her marks were 56% of the sum total of both their marks. What are the individual marks of Sita and Gita?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (33, 42)
Let Sita =S, Gita =S+9. Total =2S+9. Given: S+9=0.56(2S+9)⟹S+9=1.12S+5.04⟹0.12S=3.96⟹S=33. Thus Gita =33+9=42. Marks are 33 and 42.
Q1107
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages: Age Problems
4 years ago, the average age of 6 members of a family was 56. The present average age increases to 60 as one new family member is added. The age of the new member is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (60)
Sum of 6 members 4 years ago =6×56=336. Present sum of 6 members =336+(6×4)=360. Present sum of 7 members =7×60=420. Age of new member =420−360=60 years.
There are 40 students in a hostel. If the number of students increases by 10, the daily food expenditure increases by Rs. 50, but the average expenditure per student drops by Re. 1. What was the initial daily food expenditure?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (400)
Let initial average be A. Total cost =40A. With 50 students, new cost =40A+50 and new average =A−1. Equation: 5040A+50=A−1⟹40A+50=50A−50⟹10A=100⟹A=10. Initial expenditure =40×10=Rs. 400.
Q1109
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
Mohan has to reach Bangalore (500 km away) at 5:30 pm, starting at 7:30 am. He travels the first 200 km at 50 km/hr and the next 3 hours at 60 km/hr. At what speed must he travel the remaining distance to arrive on time?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($40\text{ km/hr}$)
Total time =10 hours. Time for first 200 km =200/50=4 hours. Next 3 hours at 60 km/hr covers 3×60=180 km. Distance covered =380 km in 7 hours. Remaining distance =120 km in 3 hours. Required speed =120/3=40 km/hr.
Q1110
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work: Alternate Days
Abhijit can build a house alone in 16 days, and Vijay alone in 12 days. If they work on alternate days starting with Abhijit on the first day, in how many days will the house be built?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($13\frac{3}{4}\text{ days}$)
Total work =LCM(16,12)=48 units. Rates: Abhijit =3 u/day, Vijay =4 u/day. In a 2-day cycle, work done =7 units. In 6 cycles (12 days), work =42 units. Day 13 (Abhijit) does 3 units (total 45). Remaining 3 units done by Vijay on Day 14 in 43 day. Total time =1343 days.
Q1111
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatio and Proportion
The number 84 is divided into two parts such that one-fourth of the first part and one-fifth of the second part are in the ratio 1:2. The ratio of the first part to the second part is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2:5)
Let parts be x and y. y/5x/4=4y5x=21⟹yx=104=52. The ratio of the first part to the second part is 2:5.
Q1112
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatios & Fractions
In a college, the ratio of male to female employees is 2:5. If 1/4th of male employees and 1/5th of female employees are non-graduates, and the total number of non-graduate employees is 60, find the total number of employees in the college.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (280)
Let male =2x, female =5x. Non-graduates =41(2x)+51(5x)=0.5x+x=1.5x=60⟹x=40. Total employees =2x+5x=7x=7×40=280.
Q1113
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRatios and Linear Equations
Ahana and Anaya together have Rs. 1,200. When Rs. 300 is taken from Ahana, she has the same amount that Anaya had initially. Find the initial ratio of amounts with Ahana and Anaya.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($\frac{5}{3}$)
Ah+An=1200 and Ah−300=An⟹Ah−An=300. Solving gives Ah=750 and An=450. Ratio =450750=35.
Q1114
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
Prisha is currently 12 years old. Her mother's age is thrice Prisha's age, and her father is 6 years older than her mother. What was the father's age when Prisha was born?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (30)
Present ages: Prisha =12, Mother =3×12=36, Father =36+6=42. When Prisha was born 12 years ago, father was 42−12=30 years old.
Q1115
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAge Ratios
The present ages of Navish and Lavya are in the ratio 4:7. After 6 years, the ratio becomes 5:8. Find the sum of their ages after 11 years.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (88 years)
Let present ages be 4x and 7x. 7x+64x+6=85⟹32x+48=35x+30⟹3x=18⟹x=6. Present ages: Navish =24, Lavya =42. After 11 years: 24+11=35, 42+11=53. Sum =35+53=88 years.
Q1116
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRelative Ages
My sister is 3 years older than me. My father was 28 when my brother was born, and my mother was 26 when I was born. If my brother was 4 years old when my sister was born, find the age of my father and mother when my sister was born.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (32 yrs, 23 yrs)
Father's age when sister born =28+4=32 years. Sister is 3 years older than Me ⟹ mother was 26−3=23 years old when sister was born. Thus, Father: 32 yrs, Mother: 23 yrs.
A box contains 12 balls (red and blue). The probability of drawing a blue ball doubles when 6 more blue balls are added to the box. Find the initial number of blue and red balls.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3, 9)
Let initial blue balls be b. Initial probability =b/12. After adding 6 blue balls, new prob =18b+6. Given 18b+6=2(12b)=6b⟹b+6=3b⟹2b=6⟹b=3 blue, and red =12−3=9.
Q1118
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProbability: Dice Pairs
Two dice are rolled simultaneously. Find the probability of getting a multiple of 2 on one die and a multiple of 3 on the other die.
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\frac{11}{36}$)
Outcomes on die 1 mult of 2 (2,4,6) and die 2 mult of 3 (3,6): 3×2=6. Outcomes on die 1 mult of 3 (3,6) and die 2 mult of 2 (2,4,6): 2×3=6. Outcome (6,6) is common to both. Favorable outcomes =6+6−1=11. Probability =11/36.
Q1119
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProbability: Card Decks
A card is drawn from a well-shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. A gambler bets that it is either a spade or an ace. What is the probability of losing the bet?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($9/13$)
Winning cards (Spade or Ace) =13 spades+3 other aces=16. Losing cards =52−16=36. Probability of losing =5236=139.
Q1120
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeLCM & HCF: Bell Intervals
Four bells ring simultaneously at 9:00 am at intervals of 10, 20, 30, and 40 minutes respectively. When will all four bells next toll together?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (11 am)
LCM(10,20,30,40)=120 minutes=2 hours. Next simultaneous ringing =9:00 am+2 hours=11:00 am.
Q1121
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeHCF Applications
1008 Physics books, 720 Chemistry books, and 288 Mathematics books are to be stacked such that each stack contains the same number of subject-wise books. Find the minimum total number of stacks required.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (14)
Books per stack =HCF(1008,720,288)=144. Stacks of Physics =1008/144=7, Chemistry =720/144=5, Mathematics =288/144=2. Total stacks =7+5+2=14.
Q1122
🧮 Quantitative AptitudePipes and Cisterns
Pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 20 and 10 minutes respectively, while pipe R can empty it in x minutes. When all three open together, the tank fills in 12 minutes. Find x.
A wall measuring 6 m×5 m×0.5 m is constructed using bricks measuring 25 cm×12.5 cm×7.5 cm. If mortar occupies 10% of the wall volume, how many bricks are required?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5760)
Wall volume =600×500×50=15,000,000 cm3. Brick volume required =0.90×15,000,000=13,500,000 cm3. Volume of 1 brick =25×12.5×7.5=2343.75 cm3. Number of bricks =2343.7513500000=5760.
Q1124
🧮 Quantitative Aptitude & SetsVenn Diagrams & Set Cardinality
In a class of 50 students, 10 play Badminton, 20 play Volleyball, and 4 play both. How many students play neither game?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (24)
Students playing at least one game: n(B∪V)=10+20−4=26. Students playing neither =50−26=24.
Out of 500 invited guests, 200 chose Indian, 150 Italian, 100 Continental; 14 ate Indian & Italian, 10 Italian & Continental, 15 Indian & Continental, and 6 ate all three. How many people ate ONLY Italian food?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (132)
People eating only Italian =∣Italian∣−∣Ind∩It∣−∣It∩Cont∣+∣All Three∣=150−14−10+6=132.
Q1126
🧩 Logical Venn DiagramsVenn Diagram Relationships
Which Venn diagram indicates the relationship between: Profit, Dividend, Bonus?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Two disjoint circles inside a large enclosing circle)
Dividend and Bonus are distinct disbursements paid out of total corporate Profit. They are two separate categories enclosed within Profit.
Q1127
🧩 Logical ReasoningFictitious Language Deciphering
In a code language: - CUL WAP DIR = red little box - SUT MAD BIX = well arranged pile - BIX FAC DIR = pile of boxes What is the code for the word 'OF'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (FAC)
'DIR' is common between 1st and 3rd ('box'). 'BIX' is common between 2nd and 3rd ('pile'). The remaining word in 3rd statement 'of' corresponds to 'FAC'.
Q1128
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank: "The officials have the habit of fawning ______ ministers."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (upon)
The standard preposition with the verb 'fawn' (to display exaggerated flattery or affection) is 'on' or 'upon'.
Q1129
📖 General EnglishPrepositional Errors
Spot the error: "I do not understand why in spite of my best efforts to please him, my boss is so angry at me."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (my boss is so angry at me.)
One is 'angry with' a person (and 'angry at/about' a situation). Hence "angry at me" should be "angry with me".
Q1130
📖 General EnglishPrepositional Idioms
Spot the error: "Innovations into the field of artificial intelligence can help to increase the wages of the workforce provided workers have the necessary skills."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Innovations into the field of)
The correct preposition is 'in the field of', not 'into the field of'. Hence part A has an error.
Q1131
📖 General EnglishDeterminers: Little vs A Little
Fill in the blank: "I got up and went out to the veranda for ______ air, but the wind god seemed to have taken time off."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a little)
'A little' means some (a small positive quantity of fresh air), which fits the positive affirmative context.
Q1132
🏛️ Indian Governance & CVCVigilance Awareness Week Themes
What was the theme of 'Vigilance Awareness Week 2023' organized by the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Say no to corruption, commit to the Nation)
The Central Vigilance Commission observed Vigilance Awareness Week 2023 with the theme: 'Say no to corruption; commit to the Nation' (भ्रष्टाचार का विरोध करें; राष्ट्र के प्रति समर्पित रहें).
Q1133
⚖️ Indian ConstitutionConstitution Day (26 November)
When is Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) observed in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (November 26)
Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26 each year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.
Q1134
🎭 Indian Classical Music & PersonalitiesKirana Gharana: Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
Bharat Ratna Pandit Bhimsen Joshi was a legendary maestro of which art form?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hindustani Classical Vocalist (Kirana Gharana))
Pandit Bhimsen Joshi (1922–2011) was one of the greatest Hindustani classical vocalists from the Kirana Gharana, awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2008.
Q1135
📜 Ancient Indian LiteratureSanskrit Plays: Mudrarakshasa
Who authored the famous Sanskrit historical play 'Mudrarakshasa' depicting Chanakya's ascent with Chandragupta Maurya?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vishakhadatta)
The political Sanskrit play Mudrarakshasa (The Signet Ring of Rakshasa) was written by ancient Indian playwright Vishakhadatta in the 4th/5th century AD.
Q1136
📜 Historical Literature of KashmirKalhana's Rajatarangini
What is the literal English meaning of Kalhana's Sanskrit historical chronicle 'Rajatarangini'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (River of Kings)
'Rajatarangini' is composed of Raja (Kings) and Tarangini (River/Stream), literally translating to 'The River of Kings'.
Q1137
📜 Kashmiri Literature & CultureHabba Khatoon (Nightingale of Kashmir)
Which celebrated 16th-century poetess and queen of Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak is known as the 'Nightingale of Kashmir' (Zoon)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Habba Khatoon)
Habba Khatoon (born Zoon in Chandhara, Pampore) introduced the romantic 'Lol' lyric genre to Kashmiri poetry and is affectionately called the 'Nightingale of Kashmir'.
Q1138
📜 Dogri Language & LiteratureFather of Dogri: Prof. Ram Nath Shastri
Who is widely revered and celebrated as the "Father of Modern Dogri Literature"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prof. Ram Nath Shastri)
Padma Shri Prof. Ram Nath Shastri (1915–2009), co-founder of the Dogri Sanstha in 1944, is known as the 'Father of Modern Dogri' for his monumental contributions to the language.
Q1139
📜 Ancient Heritage of J&KMartand Sun Temple Deities
The 8th-century Martand Temple in Anantnag, Kashmir, is dedicated to which deity?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sun God (Surya))
'Martand' is another name for the Hindu Sun God (Surya) in Sanskrit, to whom Lalitaditya Muktapida dedicated the monumental temple.
Q1140
🗺️ Lagoons & Wetlands of IndiaChilika Lake of Odisha
Chilika Lake, the largest brackish water coastal lagoon in India and second largest in the world, is located in which state?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Odisha)
Chilika Lake (spread over 1,100 km2 at the mouth of the Daya River) is India's largest brackish water coastal lagoon, situated in the state of Odisha.
Q1141
🔬 Human Nutrition & DiseasesVitamin D Deficiency: Rickets
Deficiency of which vitamin causes bone softening and skeletal deformities known as Rickets in growing children?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vitamin D)
Vitamin D deficiency prevents adequate intestinal calcium absorption, leading to defective bone mineralization and Rickets.
Q1142
🔬 Physics & Modern ScienceEinstein's Theory of Relativity
Who formulated the revolutionary Special and General Theories of Relativity in modern physics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Albert Einstein)
Albert Einstein proposed the Special Theory of Relativity in 1905 (E=mc2) and the General Theory of Relativity in 1915.
Q1143
🔬 Human Nutrition & Blood DisordersMineral Deficiencies: Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Dietary deficiency of the essential trace mineral Iron leads to which blood disorder?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Anaemia)
Iron is required for hemoglobin synthesis in red blood cells; its deficiency causes Iron-Deficiency Anaemia.
Q1144
🔬 Human Nutrition: VitaminsDietary Sources of Vitamin C
Which of the following dietary sources is naturally richest in Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Citrus Fruits (Oranges, Lemons, Amla))
Citrus fruits (oranges, lemons, limes, amla/Indian gooseberry, and guavas) are the richest natural dietary sources of Vitamin C.
Q1145
📜 Ancient Indian LiteratureClassical Sanskrit Fables: Panchatantra
The famous ancient Indian collection of interrelated animal fables 'Panchatantra' by Vishnu Sharma was composed during the
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Gupta period)
The Panchatantra was composed by scholar Pandit Vishnu Sharma during the classical golden age of the Gupta Empire (circa 3rd to 5th century CE).
Q1146
📜 Ancient Architecture of KashmirMartand Sun Temple Construction
The monumental 8th-century Martand Sun Temple at Anantnag, Kashmir, was built by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lalitaditya Muktapida)
King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty built the world-renowned Martand Sun Temple in the 8th century CE.
Q1147
📜 Kashmiri LiteratureKashmiri Ghazal: Rasul Mir
Who among the following celebrated classical poets is revered as the "Father of the Kashmiri Ghazal"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rasul Mir)
Rasul Mir of Shahabad, Dooru (19th century) revolutionized Kashmiri poetry with lyrical romantic ghazals and is widely known as the 'Father of Kashmiri Ghazal' (or the Keats of Kashmir).
Q1148
🌍 Climate Change & UNFCCCUNFCCC COP Summits
What does the abbreviation 'COP28' stand for in the context of UN climate change summits?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conference of the Parties 28 (UNFCCC))
COP28 stands for the 28th annual Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), held in Dubai in 2023.
Q1149
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeBasic Arithmetic & Word Problems
There are 3 departments in a college: Physical Sciences, Humanities, and Commerce. There are 125 students in Physical Sciences. The number of students in Humanities is 1/5th of Physical Sciences. Commerce has 20 students fewer than Physical Sciences and Humanities combined. What is the total number of students studying in the three departments?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (280)
Physical Sciences =125. Humanities =5125=25. Combined PS + Humanities =125+25=150. Commerce =150−20=130. Total students =125+25+130=280.
Q1150
🧩 Logical ReasoningDice Tests & Opposite Faces
Three different positions of the same dice are shown below. Which symbol is on the face opposite to 3?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4)
Comparing Position 1 and Position 3 with common face 1: Moving clockwise from 1 gives 1→5→4 (Position 1) and 1→6→3 (Position 3). Hence, 5 is opposite 6, and 4 is opposite 3. The face opposite 3 is 4.
Q1151
🧮 Sets & Venn DiagramsSet Cardinality
In a class of 40 students, 20 have chosen Mathematics and 15 have chosen Mathematics but not Biology. If every student chose either Mathematics or Biology or both, find the number of students who chose both Mathematics and Biology.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (5)
Students taking Mathematics =n(M)=20. Students taking Mathematics only =n(M−B)=15. Students taking both Mathematics and Biology =n(M∩B)=n(M)−n(M−B)=20−15=5.
Q1152
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeDivisibility Rules & Number Theory
What is the greatest 5-digit number which is exactly divisible by 85?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (99960)
The greatest 5-digit number is 99999. Dividing 99999÷85 gives a quotient of 1176 with a remainder of 39. Greatest divisible number =99999−39=99960.
Q1153
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeFractions & Linear Equations
Eiffel tower's 1/5th part is painted bronze. 1/4th of the remaining part is painted maroon. The rest has a golden color. If the height of the golden colored part is 450 m, what is the total height of the Eiffel tower?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (750m)
Bronze portion =51H. Remaining =54H. Maroon portion =41×54H=51H. Golden portion =H−(51H+51H)=53H. Given 53H=450⟹H=3450×5=750 m.
Q1154
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit, Loss and Discounts
A shopkeeper gains a profit of 15% on selling a book after offering a 20% discount on the marked printed price. The ratio of the printed price to the cost price of the book is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (23:16)
Selling Price: SP=MP×(1−0.20)=0.80MP. Also SP=CP×(1+0.15)=1.15CP. 0.80MP=1.15CP⟹CPMP=0.801.15=80115=1623.
Q1155
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSuccessive Discounts
In a Diwali sale, there was a 25% discount on electric choppers. Sudha received an additional 10% cash discount and paid Rs. 405. What was the original tagged printed price of the chopper?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (600)
Net price after successive discounts of 25% and 10%: P=MP×(1−0.25)×(1−0.10)=0.75×0.90×MP=0.675MP. 0.675MP=405⟹MP=0.675405=Rs. 600.
Q1156
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work: Multi-Person Rate
Ram can complete a work in 12 days working 7 hours/day. Shyam can complete the same work in 8 days working 9 hours/day. If Ram and Shyam work together for 7 hours/day, in how many days will they complete the work?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($72/13$)
Total hours needed: Ram =12×7=84 hrs, Shyam =8×9=72 hrs. Hourly work rate combined =841+721=5046+7=50413. Daily work rate (at 7 hrs/day) =7×50413=7213. Total days required =1372 days.
Q1157
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
The present ratio of a brother and sister's age is 6:7. 12 years ago, the ratio was 3:4. Find the sum of their present ages in years.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (52)
Let present ages be 6x and 7x. 7x−126x−12=43⟹24x−48=21x−36⟹3x=12⟹x=4. Present ages: Brother =24, Sister =28. Sum of present ages =24+28=52 years.
A principal sum becomes 27 times its original value in 3 years when compounded annually at a certain rate of interest. Calculate the annual interest rate.
🧮 Algebra & Coordinate GeometrySystem of Linear Equations: No Solution Condition
If the linear equations 28x+8y+15=0 and 42x−ky−21=0 have no solution (parallel lines), then the value of k is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (-12)
For parallel lines with no solution: $\frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{b_1}{b_2} e \frac{c_1}{c_2} \implies \frac{28}{42} = \frac{8}{-k} \implies \frac{2}{3} = \frac{8}{-k} \implies -2k = 24 \implies k = -12$.
Q1162
⚖️ Indian Polity & GeographyStates and Union Territories of India
Which of the following is NOT a Union Territory of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Goa)
Goa is a full-fledged State of the Indian Union (granted statehood on 30 May 1987). Puducherry, Chandigarh, and Delhi (NCT) are Union Territories.
Q1163
⚖️ Indian PolityPanchayati Raj: Constitutional Status
According to the Constitution of India (73rd Constitutional Amendment Act), a Gram Panchayat is defined as a/an
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Institution of local self-government)
Under Article 243B and Part IX of the Constitution, Panchayats are constitutional institutions of local self-government established for rural areas.
Q1164
🏆 Sports of IndiaNational Sport Tradition: Hockey
Which sport is widely recognized in national sporting tradition as the national game of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Field Hockey)
While India does not have a legally declared official national sport under the Ministry of Youth Affairs, Field Hockey is universally recognized in traditional curriculum as India's national game.
Q1165
📜 Literature of Jammu & KashmirRehman Rahi
Professor Rehman Rahi is celebrated across India as an eminent
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kashmiri Poet and Jnanpith Laureate)
Prof. Rehman Rahi (1925–2023) was Kashmir's foremost modern poet, who won the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award in 1961 and became J&K's first Jnanpith Award laureate in 2007 (for Siyah Rood Jearen Manz).
Q1166
📜 History & Personalities of J&KProminent Figures of J&K
Tarachand Bhat is well known in Jammu and Kashmir as a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Freedom fighter and social reformer)
Tarachand Bhat is recognized in regional history as a dedicated freedom fighter and social reformer.
Q1167
📜 Modern Indian HistoryQuit India Movement: Do or Die Slogan
Which Indian freedom fighter gave the clarion call slogan 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) during the Quit India Movement in 1942?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mahatma Gandhi)
Mahatma Gandhi delivered the famous 'Do or Die' speech at Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay on 8 August 1942, launching the Quit India Movement.
Q1168
📊 Census of India 2011Literacy Statistics across Indian States
According to the Census of India 2011, which states recorded the maximum and minimum literacy rates respectively?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kerala & Bihar)
In the 2011 Census, Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate at 94.00%, while Bihar recorded the lowest literacy rate at 61.80%.
Q1169
⚖️ Indian Polity & National SymbolsNational Flag of India
In the National Flag of India (Tiranga), which color band is positioned at the bottom?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Dark Green)
The Indian National Flag is a horizontal tricolour of India Saffron at the top, White in the middle (with the navy blue 24-spoke Ashoka Chakra), and India Green (Dark Green) at the bottom.
Q1170
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
A and B travel the same distance at speeds of 9 km/h and 12 km/h respectively. If A takes 11 minutes longer than B, what is the distance travelled by each?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (6.6 KM)
Let distance be D. Difference in time =11 minutes=6011 hours. 9D−12D=6011⟹364D−3D=6011⟹36D=6011⟹D=6011×36=60396=6.6 km.
Aamir travelled 1800 km by air, which constituted 3/5th of his total journey. He travelled 1/3rd of the whole trip by car, and the remaining distance by train. How many kilometers did he travel by train?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (200 KM)
Total trip distance =3/51800=1800×35=3000 km. Distance by Car =31×3000=1000 km. Distance by Train =3000−(1800+1000)=3000−2800=200 km.
Q1172
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeProfit and Loss
A person incurs a 5% loss by selling a watch for Rs. 1140. At what price should the watch be sold to earn a 5% profit?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 1260)
Cost Price: CP=1−0.051140=0.951140=Rs. 1200. For 5% profit: SP=1200×(1+0.05)=1200×1.05=Rs. 1260.
Q1173
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work: Efficiency Ratio
A is thrice as efficient a workman as B, and takes 10 days less than B to finish a piece of work. If B alone takes 15 days, how many days will A alone take to finish the work?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5)
Let B take 3x days, then A takes x days. Time difference: 3x−x=2x=10⟹x=5 days. Thus A takes 5 days (and B takes 15 days).
Q1174
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeSuccessive Discounts Formula
Find a single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 10% and 20%.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (28%)
Formula for equivalent single discount: D=d1+d2−100d1d2=10+20−10010×20=30−2=28%.
Q1175
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAlligation and Mixtures
A shopkeeper mixes 6 kg of tea worth Rs. 6 per kg with 4 kg of tea worth Rs. 7 per kg. What is the weighted average cost of the mixture per kg?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 6.4)
Total cost =(6×6)+(4×7)=36+28=Rs. 64. Total weight =6+4=10 kg. Cost per kg =1064=Rs. 6.4.
Q1176
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeAverages
The average weight of a group of three friends is 55 kg. When a fourth person weighing 75 kg joins them, what is the new average weight of the four members?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (60kg)
Sum of weights of 3 friends =3×55=165 kg. New sum with 4th person =165+75=240 kg. New average =4240=60 kg.
Q1177
📜 Constitutional History of J&KRedesignation of Sadr-i-Riyasat
In 1965, the constitutional head of Jammu & Kashmir was redesignated as Governor through the 6th J&K Constitutional Amendment. What was this post previously designated as?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sadr-i-Riyasat)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution Amendment Act, 1965, the title of 'Sadr-i-Riyasat' was replaced by 'Governor', and 'Prime Minister (Wazir-e-Azam)' was replaced by 'Chief Minister'.
Q1178
⚖️ Indian Constitution: Article 370Classification of Article 370
With respect to the erstwhile State of Jammu & Kashmir, Part XXI of the Constitution of India classified Article 370 under which heading?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Temporary Provisions)
Part XXI of the Constitution of India is titled 'Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions', and Article 370 was explicitly titled 'Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir'.
Q1179
⚖️ Indian Constitution: Seventh ScheduleConcurrent List: Economic Planning
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, 'Economic and Social Planning' is placed in which Legislative List?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Concurrent List (List III))
Entry 20 of the Concurrent List (List III) in the Seventh Schedule deals with 'Economic and social planning', allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to enact laws.
Q1180
📜 Constitutional History of J&KAdoption of J&K Constitution (1956)
In which year was the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir formally adopted by its Constituent Assembly?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1956)
The Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir adopted the State Constitution on 17 November 1956, and it came into full force on 26 January 1957.
Q1181
⚖️ Indian Constitution: Fundamental Rights & WritsWrits: Mandamus (Articles 32 & 226)
Which constitutional writ issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts commands a public official or authority to perform a mandatory statutory duty that they have failed or refused to perform?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mandamus)
The writ of Mandamus (Latin for 'We Command') is an order issued to compel a public official, body, or tribunal to perform an obligatory public duty.
Q1182
🗺️ Lakes & Wetlands of IndiaSasthamkotta Lake of Kerala
Sasthamkotta Lake, acclaimed as the 'Queen of Lakes' and the largest freshwater lake in Kerala, is situated in which state?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kerala)
Sasthamkotta Lake (a Ramsar designated wetland site) is located in the Kollam district of Kerala.
Q1183
⚖️ Indian ConstitutionAdoption Date in the Preamble
Which specific historic date is solemnly mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution of India as the date of its adoption?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (November 26, 1949)
The Preamble concludes: "IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION."
Q1184
🏛️ Monuments & Heritage of J&KMartand Sun Temple, Anantnag
The grand 8th-century ruins of the Martand Sun Temple are situated in which district of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The Martand Sun Temple is situated atop the Mattan plateau in the Anantnag district of South Kashmir.
Q1185
📜 Mughal Gardens of KashmirMughal Architecture in Kashmir
Which Mughal Emperor laid out the iconic Shalimar Bagh (1619) and visited the Nishat Bagh on the banks of Dal Lake in Srinagar?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jahangir)
Emperor Jahangir laid out Shalimar Bagh in 1619 for his empress Nur Jahan. (Nishat Bagh was built nearby in 1633 by Asif Khan, Nur Jahan's brother, during Jahangir/Shah Jahan's era).
Q1186
🌿 Agricultural Initiatives in J&KPurple Revolution & Lavender Cultivation
The 'Purple Revolution' (Aroma Mission) initiated by the Ministry of Science and Technology in Jammu & Kashmir is associated with the large-scale cultivation of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lavender (in Doda / Bhaderwah))
Under the CSIR-IIIM Aroma Mission, the Purple Revolution revolutionized farming in Bhaderwah (Doda district) by cultivating high-value Purple Lavender for essential oils.
Q1187
🗺️ Tourism & Geography of J&KCity Nicknames: Jammu
Which city/district in Jammu and Kashmir is famously nicknamed the 'City of Temples'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jammu)
Jammu city is historically celebrated as the 'City of Temples' due to its numerous historic shrines including Raghunath Temple, Ranbireshwar Temple, and Bawe Wali Mata.
Q1188
🛕 Pilgrimage & Heritage of J&KPurmandal Temple: Chhota Kashi
Which historic temple complex situated on the banks of the sacred Devika river in Samba district is known as 'Chhota Kashi'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Purmandal Temple)
Purmandal Temple (dedicated to Lord Shiva along the holy underground Devika River) is revered as 'Chhota Kashi' in Jammu.
Q1189
⚖️ Constitutional Law of J&KArticle 35A
Which now-repealed constitutional provision empowered the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges regarding employment and property?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 35A)
Article 35A (inserted into the Indian Constitution via the 1954 Presidential Order) empowered the J&K legislature to define permanent residents and grant them exclusive rights.
Q1190
🛡️ Defense & National SecurityBSF Operations: Operation Alert
Which specialized security operation was launched by the Border Security Force (BSF) along the India-Pakistan International Border in J&K to prevent cross-border infiltration?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Operation Alert)
The BSF frequently launches 'Operation Alert' along the 200 km International Border in Jammu to step up electronic surveillance and counter foggy winter infiltration attempts.
Q1191
📖 General EnglishOne Word Substitution
Give one word for: "One who sacrifices his/her life for a noble cause or for the nation."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Martyr)
A Martyr is a person who suffers death or endures great suffering for their beliefs, cause, or country.
Q1192
📖 General EnglishPrepositions and Military Terms
Fill in the blanks: "Our army is ______ the border of the neighboring country."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (deployed, along)
Troops are strategically 'deployed along' a national boundary line ⟹ "deployed, along the border".
Q1193
📖 General EnglishModal Auxiliaries & Conditionals
Fill in the blanks using suitable modal verbs: "We ______ be honest under all circumstances. If we work hard, we ______ pass."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (must, will)
'Must' conveys strong categorical moral obligation ("must be honest"), and 'will' completes the standard first conditional construction with real future consequence ("if we work hard, we will pass").
Q1194
📖 General EnglishIdioms & Political Terms
What is the meaning of the political idiom: A banana republic?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A small, poor country with a weak, corrupt, or unstable government dependent on limited exports)
'Banana republic' is a pejorative term describing a small, politically unstable, and economically dependent country ruled by a corrupt oligarchy.
Q1195
📖 General EnglishAppropriate Prepositions
Fill in the blank: "Disintegration of the country is inimical ______ the progress of the people."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (to)
The adjective 'inimical' (meaning harmful, hostile, or adverse) is standardly followed by the preposition 'to' ("inimical to the progress").
Q1196
🧩 Logical ReasoningMathematical Symbol Substitutions
If > denotes +, < denotes -, + denotes ÷, # denotes ×, - denotes =, × denotes >, and = denotes <. Which of the following mathematical statements is TRUE?
Decoding Option C: 9+5+4=18÷9+16⟹18=2+16⟹18=18. This equality is perfectly true.
Q1197
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Economy & GST Implementation
When was the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implemented in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (July 8, 2017)
While GST was rolled out across the rest of India on July 1, 2017, Jammu and Kashmir officially adopted and implemented GST on July 8, 2017, following the passage of the J&K GST Act, 2017 by the state legislature.
Q1198
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsSupercomputers & IT Infrastructure
Which ministry/department is responsible for the functioning of 'Pratyush', India's high-performance computing (HPC) system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of Earth Science)
Pratyush is a 4.0 Petaflops High Performance Computing (HPC) system established at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, operating under the Ministry of Earth Sciences for high-resolution weather and climate modeling.
Q1199
General Awareness & National Current AffairsGovernment Schemes & Research Initiatives
When did the Union Cabinet approve the "One Nation, One Subscription" Scheme with an aim to provide nationwide access to scholarly research articles and journal publications?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (November, 2024)
In November 2024, the Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved the 'One Nation, One Subscription' (ONOS) initiative with a central allocation of ₹6,000 crore to provide universal digital access to premium scientific research journals.
Q1200
Indian Polity, Constitution & GovernanceConstitutional Amendments
What was the primary objective of the 2nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Remove the upper population limit for a parliamentary constituency)
The Constitution (Second Amendment) Act, 1952, amended Article 81(1)(b) to remove the upper population limit of 7,50,000 for representation by a single member in the Lok Sabha.
Q1201
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTAncient History of Kashmir
Which ancient kingdom of Kashmir was known for its Buddhist heritage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kushana)
The Kushana Empire, particularly under Emperor Kanishka I in the 1st-2nd century CE, was deeply celebrated for its Buddhist heritage in Kashmir, organizing the 4th Buddhist Council at Kundalvana (near modern-day Harwan, Srinagar).
Q1202
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Which section of the Jammu Kashmir Reorganization Act 2019 abolished the legislative council of the existing state of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Section 57)
Under Section 57(1) of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Legislative Council of the existing State of Jammu and Kashmir was officially abolished.
Q1203
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, led to the bifurcation of the state into two Union Territories. Reason (R): It was implemented to reclaim Pakistan-occupied Kashmir.
Which of the following is the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false.)
Assertion (A) is factually correct as the state was bifurcated into UT of J&K and UT of Ladakh on October 31, 2019. Reason (R) is false as the official objective of the Act was internal administrative reorganization, national integration, and socio-economic governance.
Q1204
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTNational Parks & Wildlife Sanctuaries of J&K
Which of the following national parks are located in Jammu and Kashmir? I. Dachigam National Park II. Kaziranga National Park III. Kishtwar High Altitude National Park
Which of the following options is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I and III)
Dachigam National Park (famous for the Hangul/Kashmir Stag) and Kishtwar High Altitude National Park are located in Jammu & Kashmir. Kaziranga National Park is located in Assam.
Q1205
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTHistorical Treaties & Political Milestones of J&K
Match the Column - X with Column - Y:
| Column - X (Historical treaties) | Column - Y (Outcomes) | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Treaty of Amritsar | I. Accession to India | | 2. Shimla Agreement | II. Creation of J&K princely state | | 3. Instrument of Accession | III. Ceasefire terms after 1971 war |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-II, 2-III, 3-I)
1. Treaty of Amritsar (1846) led to the creation of the Princely State of Jammu & Kashmir under Maharaja Gulab Singh (II) 2. Shimla Agreement (1972) established bilateral terms and converted the ceasefire line to the Line of Control (LoC) following the 1971 war (III) 3. Instrument of Accession (1947) formalized the accession of J&K to India (I). Correct match: 1-II, 2-III, 3-I.
Q1206
Geography of India & Physical GeographyWorld Geography & Physical Landforms
Match Column - X with Column - Y and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
| Column - X | Column - Y | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Grand Canyon | I. Canada | | 2. Lake Winnipeg | II. New Zealand | | 3. Southern Alps | III. USA |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-III, 2-I, 3-II)
1. Grand Canyon is a steep-sided canyon carved by the Colorado River in the United States (III) 2. Lake Winnipeg is a massive freshwater lake located in Manitoba, Canada (I) 3. Southern Alps is a mountain range extending along much of the length of the South Island in New Zealand (II). Correct code: 1-III, 2-I, 3-II.
Q1207
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTKargil War & Military Operations in J&K
Which operation was launched to regain control of Kargil during the 1999 war?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Operation Vijay)
Operation Vijay was launched by the Indian Armed Forces in May 1999 to recapture Indian territories occupied by Pakistani infiltrators in the Kargil-Drass sectors of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q1208
Indian Polity, Constitution & GovernanceFundamental Rights & Union of States
Match Column -X (article in the Indian Constitution) with their objectives in Column -Y:
| Column - X | Column - Y | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Article 1 | I. Guarantees equal opportunity in public employment | | 2. Article 14 | II. Guarantees equality before the law | | 3. Article 16 | III. Defines India as a Union of States |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-III, 2-II, 3-I)
1. Article 1 defines India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States (III) 2. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws (II) 3. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (I). Hence, the correct matching is 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.
Q1209
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTPhysical Geography & Mountain Ranges of Ladakh & J&K
Which major mountain range forms the northern boundary of Ladakh, contributing to its isolation and strategic significance?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Karakoram Range)
The Karakoram Range (home to K2 and the Siachen Glacier) forms the northern boundary of the Ladakh region, separating it from Central Asia and the Tarim Basin.
Q1210
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTConstitutional History & Article 370
Which constitutional provision allowed Jammu and Kashmir to have its own flag before 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 370)
Article 370 of the Constitution of India granted special autonomous status to the State of Jammu and Kashmir, allowing it to adopt its own Constitution (under Section 144 of the J&K Constitution) and separate state flag until August 2019.
Q1211
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K UT Administration & Governors
Who is the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Girish Chandra Murmu)
Girish Chandra Murmu (GC Murmu), an IAS officer of the Gujarat cadre, was sworn in as the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir on October 31, 2019.
Q1212
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTMughal Architecture & Gardens of Kashmir
Which of the following is/are famous Mughal gardens in Jammu and Kashmir? I. Nishat Bagh II. Shalimar Bagh III. Achabal Garden
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, II, and III)
Nishat Bagh (built by Asif Khan in 1633), Shalimar Bagh (built by Emperor Jahangir in 1619), and Achabal Garden (laid out by Empress Nur Jahan in Anantnag) are all world-famous Mughal gardens in Kashmir. Hence, I, II, and III are all correct.
Q1213
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Constitutional History & Integration
Why was the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution abrogated in 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The abrogation of Article 370 and the J&K Constitution was undertaken to foster complete national integration, eliminate discriminatory residency/domicile barriers, extend fundamental central laws, and accelerate socio-economic development and investments across the region.
Q1214
History of India & National MovementSwadeshi Movement & Partition of Bengal 1905
When were the 'Swadeshi' and 'Boycott' methods of struggle first adopted in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1905 Bengal Partition)
The Swadeshi and Boycott movements were first adopted as mass agitation methods during the anti-partition agitation of Bengal in 1905, officially proclaimed at the Calcutta Town Hall on August 7, 1905.
Q1215
General Awareness & National Current AffairsEducational Initiatives & Current Affairs
What is the name of the Channel launched by Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan for Indian Sign Language?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bhartiya Sanketik Bhasha DTH Channel)
Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched the dedicated 'Bhartiya Sanketik Bhasha' (Indian Sign Language) DTH channel under the PM e-VIDYA scheme to provide inclusive education to hearing-impaired learners.
Q1216
General Economics & Indian EconomyForeign Trade Policy & DGFT Initiatives
Who launched the 'Trade Watch', a weekly publication focusing on India's trade developments?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Directorate General of Foreign Trade)
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, launched 'Trade Watch' as a periodic trade intelligence digest analyzing India's export-import trends and market developments.
Q1217
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTIndo-Pak Wars & Diplomatic Treaties
The 1965 war between India and Pakistan over Kashmir ended with the signing of which agreement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tashkent Declaration)
The Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 ended with the signing of the Tashkent Declaration on January 10, 1966, mediated by Soviet Premier Alexei Kosygin between Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and President Ayub Khan.
Q1218
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTConstitutional Amendments of J&K
Which constitutional amendment replaced the position of Sadr-e-Riyasat with the title of Governor in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (6th Amendment)
The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir (Sixth Amendment) Act, 1965, amended the state constitution to replace the designation of 'Sadr-e-Riyasat' with 'Governor' and 'Prime Minister (Wazir-e-Azam)' with 'Chief Minister'.
Q1219
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTArt, Handicrafts & Cultural Heritage of J&K
The art of Pashmina weaving in Kashmir is an example of which type of cultural expression?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Handicrafts)
Pashmina shawl weaving (spun from Changthangi goat wool) is an indigenous textile handicraft with Geographical Indication (GI) tag, representing Kashmir's master craft heritage.
Q1220
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTTourism & Major Lakes of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following highlights the economic significance of Dal Lake in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It is renowned for tourism, houseboats, and shikara rides, contributing significantly to the local economy)
Dal Lake, known as the 'Jewel in the crown of Kashmir', is the backbone of Srinagar's tourism economy through its iconic shikaras, heritage houseboats, floating vegetable markets, and handicraft trade.
Q1221
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTDistricts & Administrative Setup of J&K
After the reorganization in 2019, how many districts are there in Jammu & Kashmir UT?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (20)
Following the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh (consisting of Leh and Kargil districts), the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises exactly 20 districts (10 in Jammu Division and 10 in Kashmir Division).
Q1222
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Governance & Legislative Assembly Powers
Who among the following will aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu & Kashmir on matters that the assembly has powers to legislate?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Council of Ministers)
According to Section 53 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, there shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than 10% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor on matters where the Assembly has legislative power.
Q1223
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Constitution Key Articles
Which article of the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution (before 2019) defined the relationship between the state and the Union of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 3)
Article 3 of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir irrevocably declared: 'The State of Jammu and Kashmir is and shall be an integral part of the Union of India.'
Q1224
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
In accordance with the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019, how many women can be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor to the Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2)
Under Section 15 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Lieutenant Governor may nominate two women members to the Legislative Assembly if, in his opinion, women are not adequately represented.
Q1225
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTBorder Roads Organisation & Projects in Ladakh
Consider the following statements about Project HIMANK: I. It is a project of NHAI II. It is responsible for the construction of roads in J&K and Ladakh
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II only)
Statement I is incorrect: Project HIMANK (established in 1985) is a landmark project of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), not NHAI. Statement II is correct: Project HIMANK is known as 'The Mountain Tamers' and is responsible for constructing world-record high-altitude roads (like Umling La and Khardung La) across Ladakh and J&K. Hence, II only is correct.
Q1226
General English & ComprehensionActive and Passive Voice
Choose the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: "My aunt promised me a present."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I was promised a present by my aunt.)
In changing 'My aunt (subject) promised (past simple) me (indirect object) a present (direct object)' to passive voice, the standard idiomatic construction promoting the personal indirect object is: 'I was promised a present by my aunt.'
Q1227
General English & ComprehensionDirect and Indirect Speech
Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: I said to my sister, "Let us go to some hill station for a change."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I suggested to my sister that we should go to some hill station for a change.)
In indirect speech, sentences starting with 'Let us' convey a proposal or suggestion. The reporting verb changes to 'suggested to / proposed to', followed by 'that we should...'. Hence: 'I suggested to my sister that we should go to some hill station for a change.'
Q1228
General English & ComprehensionDirect and Indirect Speech
Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: "If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you," she said to him in a calm voice.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (She warned him calmly that she would shoot him if he didn't keep quiet.)
The threat represents a warning delivered in a calm manner. Pronouns shift from 'I' to 'she' and 'you' to 'him', with 'shall' becoming 'would': 'She warned him calmly that she would shoot him if he didn't keep quiet.'
Q1229
General English & ComprehensionModal Auxiliary Verbs
Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliary verbs: Ramesh ______ be coming to see us tomorrow.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (may)
'May' is used to express future possibility or uncertainty regarding a planned visit: 'Ramesh may be coming to see us tomorrow.'
Q1230
General English & ComprehensionModal Auxiliary Verbs
Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliary verbs: My grandfather is 86 years old but he ______ still read without his glasses.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (can)
'Can' expresses present general physical capability/ability: '...he can still read without his glasses.'
Q1231
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: ______ weather was rainy, and we made ______ bet whether you would come.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The, a)
'Weather' in this specific situation refers to the specific prevailing weather of that day, taking the definite article 'The'. 'Made a bet' is a standard English idiomatic collocated phrase. Hence: 'The weather was rainy, and we made a bet...'
Q1232
General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
Which of the following best explains the author's statement, "An ounce of patience is worth a pound of brains"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Without patience, intelligence cannot be effectively utilized)
The proverb signifies that even a small amount of practical patience is vastly superior and more beneficial than abundant intellect (brains) if one lacks the emotional endurance to apply it calmly.
Q1233
General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the author's metaphorical statement, "it is not every garden that grows the herbs to make it with"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is only a small number of people that are found observing patience in life.)
The metaphor 'not every garden grows the herbs' correlates directly with the author's earlier clause 'few can practise it', meaning genuine patience is cultivated and observed by only a few rare individuals.
Q1234
General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
The writer's statement, "They think every person's burden to be light and their own feathers to be heavy as lead," holds great significance. It implies that:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (They feel that they alone face serious problems while others have a nice time)
The vivid contrast between another's heavy burden (viewed lightly) and one's own minor issues/feathers (felt as heavy as lead) highlights self-pity and the egocentric perception that one is uniquely suffering while others enjoy an easy life.
Q1235
General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
The writer's statement "It is their fancy rather than their fate" suggests that:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (They are unhappy because they think that way and not because it is their destiny)
'Fancy' means imagination/mindset whereas 'fate' means external destiny. The author clarifies that people's perpetual misery is a product of their pessimistic attitude rather than unavoidable bad luck.
Q1236
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the given word: LAXITY
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lethargy)
'Laxity' means lack of strictness, care, or discipline; sluggishness or slackness. Among the options, 'Lethargy' (or slackness) is the closest synonym.
Q1237
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the word: LISSOME
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ungainly)
'Lissome' means slim, supple, flexible, and graceful in movement. Its direct antonym is 'Ungainly', which means awkward, clumsy, or ungraceful.
Q1238
General English & ComprehensionHomophones & Word Usage
Fill in the blanks: The dog took a ______ during his walk and raised his ______ to show that he was tired.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (pause; paws)
'Pause' means a temporary stop/break, while 'paws' refers to the feet of an animal: 'The dog took a pause during his walk and raised his paws...'
Q1239
General English & ComprehensionOne Word Substitution
Choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence: Be the embodiment or perfect example of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Personify)
'Personify' (or Epitomize) means to represent a quality or concept in human form or to be the ultimate embodiment/archetype of something.
Q1240
General English & ComprehensionOne Word Substitution
Choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence: A story in verse
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ballad)
A 'Ballad' is a poem or song narrating a story in short stanzas, traditionally passed down orally.
Q1241
General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blanks: Did you try looking ______ the door or ______ the cupboard?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (behind, in)
One naturally searches 'behind' a door (in the space hidden by an open/closed door) and 'in' (or inside) a cupboard where items are stored. Hence: 'behind the door or in the cupboard'.
Q1242
General English & ComprehensionSentence Completion & Vocabulary
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank: Even at the risk of economic loss, he ______ refused to take the beaten track.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (steadfastly)
'Steadfastly' means with firm, unwavering purpose and determination, which fits the sentence: 'he steadfastly refused to take the beaten track.'
Q1243
General English & ComprehensionError Spotting & Prepositions
Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error, to ensure the meaning is clear and relevant. If there is no error, select 'No error': The visitors complained at (A) / the poor accommodation (B) / they were provided with (C) / No error (D)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The visitors complained at)
The correct preposition with the verb 'complain' when referring to a grievance or condition is 'about' or 'of', not 'at'. It should read: 'The visitors complained about the poor accommodation...'. Therefore, part (A) contains the error.
Q1244
General English & ComprehensionError Spotting & Voice
Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error, to ensure the meaning is clear and relevant. If there is no error, select 'No error': Arjun's parents died when he was young and (A) / he looked after his uncle (B) / who had no children. (C) / No error (D)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (he looked after his uncle)
In part (B), the context implies Arjun was brought up / cared for by his uncle after his parents died. The passive voice 'he was looked after by his uncle' is required. Using active 'he looked after his uncle' creates an illogical meaning.
Q1245
General English & ComprehensionIdioms and Phrases
Choose the correct meaning of the given Idiom: Harp on
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To keep on talking)
To 'harp on' (or harp on about something) means to talk or complain repeatedly and tiresomely about a single subject.
Q1246
General English & ComprehensionIdioms and Phrases
Choose the correct meaning of the given Idiom: A storm in a teacup
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Much excitement over something trivial)
A 'storm in a teacup' (or tempest in a teapot) refers to great anger, excitement, or commotion over a trivial or unimportant matter.
Q1247
General English & ComprehensionDirect and Indirect Speech
Choose the option that best conveys the sentence: She asked, "Where are you going?"
💡Correct Answer: Option A (She asked where I was going.)
In indirect reporting of WH-questions, the interrogative sentence changes into assertive word order (Subject + Verb) and the present continuous ('are you going') shifts to past continuous ('I was going'): 'She asked where I was going.'
Q1248
General English & ComprehensionSpellings & Vocabulary
Out of the given group of words, choose the misspelt one.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Accomodation)
The correct spelling is 'Accommodation' (with double 'c' and double 'm'). 'Accomodation' is misspelt.
Q1249
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: I saw ______ old woman yesterday.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (an)
The word 'old' begins with a vowel sound (/oʊ/), hence the indefinite article 'an' is used: 'I saw an old woman yesterday.'
Q1250
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningNumber Series & Pattern Completion
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank space:
1,2,3,6,9,18,(...),54
💡Correct Answer: Option A (27)
The pattern alternates multiplying by 2 and multiplying by 1.5: - 1×2=2 - 2×1.5=3 - 3×2=6 - 6×1.5=9 - 9×2=18 - 18×1.5=27 - 27×2=54. Hence, the missing number is 27.
Q1251
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningLetter Series & Pattern Matching
Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives: AB, BA, ABC, CBA, ABCD, ...?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (DCBA)
The sequence presents a group of letters in alphabetical order followed immediately by its complete reversal: - AB → BA (reversal) - ABC → CBA (reversal) - ABCD → DCBA (reversal). Hence, the next term is DCBA.
Q1252
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance
A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 300 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and the policeman run at the rate of 10 km/h and 11 km/h, respectively. What is the distance between them after 6 mins?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (200 m)
Relative speed of the policeman with respect to the thief: vrel=11−10=1 km/h=1×60 min1000 m=350 m/min Distance gained by policeman in 6 minutes: dgained=350×6=100 metres Distance remaining between them after 6 minutes: dremaining=300−100=200 metres.
Q1253
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningStatement and Conclusions
Statement: In today's world, no country is fully self-sufficient.
Conclusions: I. A country cannot grow and produce everything it requires on its own. II. Countrymen in general have become lazy.
Choose the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only conclusion I follows)
Conclusion I directly restates the economic reality of the statement that no country possesses all natural resources and capacity to produce 100% of its needs. Conclusion II makes an unjustified, subjective generalization not supported by the premise. Hence, only Conclusion I follows.
The logic problem presents three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and Fact 3. Then, three more statements (labelled I, II, and III) are given. Determine which of these, if any, is also a fact based solely on the information given in the first three facts.
Fact 1: Jasmeen has four children.
Fact 2: Two of the children have blue eyes, and two have brown eyes. Fact 3: Half of the children are girls.
Given that the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be true?
I: At least one girl has blue eyes. II: Two of the children are boys.
III: The boys have brown eyes.
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II only)
From Fact 1 (4 children) and Fact 3 (half are girls = 2 girls), it is a mathematical certainty that the remaining 2 children are boys. Therefore, Statement II must be true. Statements I and III are possibilities but cannot be proven definitively. Hence, II only is a known fact.
Q1255
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningBlood Relations
P is Q's sister. R is Q's mother. S is R's father. T is S's mother. How is P related to T?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Great-Granddaughter)
- P and Q are siblings (children of mother R). - S is R's father (P's maternal grandfather). - T is S's mother (P's maternal great-grandmother). Therefore, P is the Great-Granddaughter of T.
The relationship connects an animal with the sound it produces. A dog barks, while a goat bleats.
Q1257
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningDirection Sense & Linear Arrangements
There are five buildings called D, E, F, G and H in a row (not necessarily in that order). D is to the West of E. H is to the East of F and the West of D, E is to the West of G. Which is the building in the middle?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (D)
Ordering from West to East based on the given directional clues: - 'D is West of E' → D < E - 'H is East of F and West of D' → F < H < D - 'E is West of G' → E < G Combining the full sequence from West to East: F−H−D−E−G The building positioned exactly in the middle is D.
Q1258
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningLogical Problem Solving
Read the question carefully and choose the correct answer.
Four defensive football players are chasing the opposing side receiver, who has the ball. Arjuna is directly behind the ball carrier. Rahul and James are side by side, following Arjuna. Tamal is behind both Rahul and James. Arjuna attempts to make the tackle but misses and falls. James trips. Which defensive player ends up tackling the receiver?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rahul)
Position order from front to back: [Ball Carrier] → Arjuna → [Rahul & James side by side] → Tamal. 1. Arjuna misses and falls. 2. James trips. 3. Rahul was side by side with James (ahead of Tamal) and is still running unobstructed. Thus, Rahul makes the tackle.
Q1259
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningClassification & Common Properties
Choose one out of the four given alternatives, which mentions the quality common to the three given words: Coal : Iron : Mica
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Minerals)
Coal (fossil fuel/mineral), Iron (metallic mineral), and Mica (non-metallic mineral) are all classified naturally as Minerals extracted from the earth's crust.
Q1260
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Which one of the following Venn diagrams best illustrates the three classes: Rhombus, Quadrilaterals, Polygons
Every Rhombus is a Quadrilateral (4-sided polygon), and every Quadrilateral is a Polygon (closed figure bounded by straight lines). Thus, Rhombus is entirely contained within Quadrilaterals, which is entirely contained within Polygons (three nested concentric circles).
Q1261
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningNon-Verbal Reasoning & Paper Folding
Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet (shown in (Z)) is folded at the dotted line.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I)
When the transparent sheet is folded along the central vertical dotted line, the symmetrical geometric lines on the left overlay directly with the right quadrant to form Figure I.
An Informal gathering happens when a group of people get together in a casual, relaxed manner. Which of the following is the best example of an informal gathering?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (After hearing about her promotion, Eshani and a couple of colleagues choose to grab a quick drink after work.)
Option A describes a spontaneous, unplanned, relaxed social choice among friends after work without structured agendas or formal invitations, which defines an informal gathering.
Q1263
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningPuzzles & Day Scheduling
Five friends - A, B, C, D, and E - were born on different days of the week: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday. The following clues help determine their birth-days: I. A was born before B but after C II. D was born on Thursday. III. E was not born on Wednesday.
On which day was B born?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Friday)
Given days: Mon, Tue, Wed, Thu, Fri. - D = Thursday. - A was born before B but after C → Order must be C ... A ... B. - E was not born on Wednesday. To place C, A, and B in order around D (Thursday), B must be on Friday, A on Wednesday, and C on Monday. This leaves Tuesday for E (which satisfies that E is not Wednesday). Therefore, B was born on Friday.
If roll numbers are generated in the format 2024XX0001, where "2024" represents the year, "XX" is the centre code, and "0001" is the candidate number, what does roll number 2024DL0020 indicate?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is the roll number for the 20th candidate from a centre in Delhi in 2024.)
Decoding 2024DL0020 according to the rule: - 2024 = Year - DL = Centre code (Delhi) - 0020 = 20th candidate at that centre in 2024.
In a given pattern, the relationship between the first and second letters is as follows: D→c,G→f,J→i,M→? What is the missing letter?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (l)
Each uppercase letter shifts back by 1 alphabetical position and converts to lowercase: - D (4) - 1 = c (3) - G (7) - 1 = f (6) - J (10) - 1 = i (9) - M (13) - 1 = l (12) (lowercase L). Hence, the missing letter is 'l'.
Track the position of the single letter 'C' in an 8-character string of alternating B and A: 1. CBABABAB (C at position 1) 2. BACBABAB (C at position 3) 3. BABACBAB (C at position 5) 4. BABABACB (C at position 7) 5. BCABABAB (C wraps around to even position 2) 6. The next term must move C forward by 2 positions to position 4 → BABCABAB.
Q1267
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningMatrix Reasoning & Number Puzzles
A matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise and/or column-wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly:
| 8 | 13 | 30 | | 10 | 8 | 21 | | 14 | 7 | ? |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (21)
Check the row-wise mathematical rule: - Row 1: (8×2)+14=30 or (8+13+9)=30 - Column relationships: 8+10−4=14; 13+8−14=7 - Looking at (C1+C2): Row 1 has 8+13=21→30; Row 2 has 10+8=18→21; Row 3 has 14+7=21→21. Alternatively, (14×2)+7−14=21. Hence, the missing value is 21.
Choose the word that can be created using the letters from the word "AUTOGRAPHS":
💡Correct Answer: Option D (SHORT)
Available letters in AUTOGRAPHS: {A:2, U:1, T:1, O:1, G:1, R:1, P:1, H:1, S:1}. - TROPHY requires 'Y' (Not available) - GREATLY requires 'E', 'L', 'Y' (Not available) - THOROUGHLY requires 'L', 'Y' (Not available) - SHORT uses S, H, O, R, T (All present in AUTOGRAPHS). Hence, SHORT can be formed.
Q1270
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningOdd One Out & Classification
Select the word that does not belong to the group:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Piano)
Guitar, Violin, and Sitar are string instruments (chordophones) played directly by plucking or bowing strings. Piano is a keyboard instrument (percussion-string hybrid). Hence, Piano is the odd one out.
Read the paragraph below and answer the question that follows: Paragraph: The criminal justice system requires reform. It could become more equitable by giving victims the chance to confront those who have wronged them. Additionally, mediation between victims and offenders would allow offenders to express remorse for their actions.
This paragraph best supports the idea that crime victims should:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (have the right to confront their offenders.)
The core thesis of the paragraph explicitly proposes that the justice system can become more equitable by 'giving victims the chance to confront those who have wronged them'. Thus, it directly supports Option D.
If 3x−5y=12 and x/y=7/3, what is the value of x and y?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($x = 14$, $y = 6$)
Given yx=37⟹x=37y. Substitute into 3x−5y=12: 3(37y)−5y=12 7y−5y=12⟹2y=12⟹y=6 x=37(6)=14 Thus, x=14 and y=6.
Q1273
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningCoding and Decoding
If 'BOOK' is coded as 'DOOL', then how is 'RAT' coded?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (TAU)
Coding pattern: - B (+2) → D - O (+0) → O - O (+0) → O - K (+1) → L Applying the same transformation to RAT: - R (+2) → T - A (+0) → A - T (+1) → U Thus, RAT is coded as TAU.
Q1274
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsNumber Systems & Divisibility
The least five-digit number exactly divisible by 88 is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (10032)
The smallest 5-digit number is 10,000. Dividing 10,000 by 88: 10000=88×113+56 Remainder =56. To make it divisible by 88, we add (88−56)=32: 10000+32=10032.
Which of the following is arranged in descending order of their value?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($\frac{6}{7}, \frac{5}{6}, \frac{4}{5}, \frac{3}{7}, \frac{2}{5}, \frac{1}{3}$)
Convert each fraction into decimal equivalents: - 6/7≈0.857 - 5/6≈0.833 - 4/5=0.800 - 3/7≈0.428 - 2/5=0.400 - 1/3≈0.333 Descending order (largest to smallest): 76>65>54>73>52>31.
Q1276
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss & Data Sufficiency
How much profit did Lakshay earn on the cost price of an article by selling it? I. He got 15% discount on the marked price at the time of purchase II. He sold it for Rs. 2040 III. He earned 2% profit on the marked price
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All I, II and III)
To calculate the total profit earned: - From I: CP=0.85×MP - From II: SP=2040 - From III: SP=1.02×MP⟹1.02×MP=2040⟹MP=2000 Then CP=0.85×2000=1700, and Profit=2040−1700=340. All three statements I, II, and III together are required to find the exact monetary profit.
The true discount on Rs. 1800 due after a certain time at 10% per annum is Rs. 200. The time after which it is due is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (15 months)
Present Worth (PW): PW=Amount−True Discount=1800−200=1600 Using the formula TD=100PW×R×T: 200=1001600×10×T=160T T=160200=45 years=45×12=15 months.
Q1278
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsPartnership & Ratio
A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A's share is Rs. 912, the total profit is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 1600)
Let total profit be P. After 5% charity, distributable profit =0.95P. Ratio of A to B is 3:2, so A's fraction is 53: A’s share=53×0.95P=0.57P=912 P=0.57912=5791200=1600 Rs.
Q1279
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance
A train increases its normal speed by 12.5% and reaches its destination 20 minutes earlier. What is the actual (normal) time taken by the train on the journey?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3 hours)
Increase in speed =12.5%=81. New speed =S(1+81)=89S. Since distance is constant, time is inversely proportional to speed: New time T′=98T Time saved =T−98T=9T=20 minutes T=9×20=180 minutes=3 hours.
Q1280
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsAlligation and Mixture
A merchant has 800 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity of sugar sold at 18% profit is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (480 kg)
Using the rule of Alligation: - Part 1 (8%) vs. Part 2 (18%), Mean = 14% Ratio=(18−14):(14−8)=4:6=2:3 Quantity sold at 18\% profit: Quantity=2+33×800=53×800=480 kg.
Q1281
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsTime and Work
Manisha takes twice as much time as Usha to complete a work and Ravi does it in the same time as Manisha and Usha together. If all three working together can finish the work in 7 days, then the time taken by Manisha to finish the work is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (42 days)
Let Usha's time be x days ⟹ Manisha's time =2x days. Combined 1-day work of Manisha and Usha: 2x1+x1=2x3 Ravi's 1-day work is equal to Manisha + Usha together =2x3. All three together in 1 day: 2x3+2x3=2x6=x3=71⟹x=21 days Time taken by Manisha =2x=2×21=42 days.
Q1282
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsPercentages & Set Theory
In an examination, 30% and 35% of students, respectively, failed in History and Geography while 27% of students failed in both subjects. If the number of students passing the examination is 372, find the total number of students who appeared in the examination.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (600)
Percentage of students failing in at least one subject: %Failed=n(H)+n(G)−n(H∩G)=30%+35%−27%=38% Percentage of students passing both subjects: %Passed=100%−38%=62% Given 62%=372: Total Students=0.62372=600.
Q1283
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsAverages & Weighted Average
The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 10,000. The average salary of 6 technicians is Rs. 15,000 and the average salary of the rest is Rs. 8000. The total number of workers in the workshop is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (21)
Let total workers be N. Total salary =10000N. Salary of 6 technicians =6×15000=90000. Salary of remaining (N−6) workers =(N−6)×8000. Equation: 90000+8000(N−6)=10000N 90000+8000N−48000=10000N 42000=2000N⟹N=21.
Q1284
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsPercentages & Ratio
Mr. Verma's expenditure and savings are in the ratio of 3 : 2. His income increases by 10%. His expenditure also increased by 12%. How much percent does his savings increase?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (7%)
Let Expenditure =300, Savings =200⟹ Income =500. - New Income =500×1.10=550 - New Expenditure =300×1.12=336 - New Savings =550−336=214 Increase in savings =214−200=14. Percentage increase in savings: %Increase=20014×100=7%.
Q1285
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsNumber Systems & Squares
The least number by which 1470 must be divided to get a number which is a perfect square, is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (30)
Prime factorization of 1470: 1470=2×3×5×72=(2×3×5)×72=30×72 To make the quotient a perfect square (72=49), the unpaired factors 2×3×5=30 must be divided out. Hence, the required least number is 30.
Q1286
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsSimple and Compound Interest
A sum of money amounts to Rs. 9,800 after 5 years and Rs. 12,005 after 8 years at the same rate of simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12%)
Simple Interest for 3 years (between Year 5 and Year 8): SI3 yrs=12005−9800=2205 Simple Interest for 1 year: SI1 yr=32205=735 Principal P: P=9800−(5×735)=9800−3675=6125 Rate of Interest R: R=PSI1 yr×100=6125735×100=12%.
Q1287
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsSimple and Compound Interest
The difference between simple interest and compound interest (interest is compounded half yearly) on a sum at the rate of 25% per annum for one year is Rs. 4,575. What will be the principal?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 292800)
For half-yearly compounding over 1 year: - Number of conversion periods n=2 - Rate per half-year r=225%=12.5%=81 Difference formula for 2 periods: Diff=P(100r)2=P(81)2=64P Given Diff=4575: P=4575×64=292,800 Rs.
Using the algebraic identity (x+x1)2=(x−x1)2+4: (x+x1)2=62+4=36+4=40 x+x1=40=4×10=210 (Note: Option standard evaluates to $2\sqrt{10}$, listed in key under equivalent root options).
Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact. II. The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Choose the correct Statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Both I and II)
Both are fundamental theorems of circle geometry (Class 10 NCERT / CBSE): - Theorem 10.1: The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact. - Theorem 10.2: The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal. Thus, Both I and II are correct.
Q1290
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsHeights and Distances & Trigonometry
The top of a 15-metre high tower makes an angle of depression of 60∘ with the bottom of an electric pole and an angle of depression of 30∘ with the top of the pole. What is the height of the electric pole?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10 metres)
Let the height of the tower be H=15 m, height of the pole be h, and horizontal distance between them be d. From the bottom of the pole: tan60∘=d15⟹3=d15⟹d=315=53 m From the top of the pole to top of tower: tan30∘=d15−h⟹31=5315−h 15−h=5⟹h=15−5=10 metres.
The circumference of the base of a cylindrical vessel is 44 cm and its height is 25 cm. How many litres of water can it hold? (Take π=722)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3.85)
Base circumference: 2πr=44⟹2×722×r=44⟹r=7 cm Volume of the cylinder: V=πr2h=722×72×25=22×7×25=3850 cm3 Converting to litres (1 litre=1000 cm3): Capacity=10003850=3.85 litres.
Q1292
Statistics & DemographyCumulative Frequency & Histograms
The histogram below shows the time taken by workers to complete a task:
Using the trigonometric identity sec2θ=1+tan2θ: sec2θ=1+(125)2=1+14425=144169 secθ=144169=1213.
Q1294
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsMensuration & Surface Area
The radius of a hemisphere is 7 cm. Find the total surface area of the hemisphere. (consider π=722)
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($462\text{ cm}^2$)
Total surface area (TSA) of a solid hemisphere: TSA=3πr2=3×722×72=3×22×7=462 cm2.
Q1295
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsMS Word & Keyboard Shortcuts
Which of the following is the correct shortcut key combination for the "Find and Replace" feature in MS Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{Ctrl} + \text{H}$)
In Microsoft Word, 'Ctrl + H' directly opens the 'Find and Replace' tab of the Navigation/Find dialog box. (Ctrl + F opens Find, Ctrl + R aligns right).
Q1296
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsComputer Hardware & Output Devices
Which printer can be used to print on textiles? I. Laser printer II. Dot-matrix printer III. Electrostatic plotter IV. Dye sublimation printer
Choose the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (IV only)
Dye-sublimation printers use heat to transfer dye directly onto synthetic fabrics, polyester textiles, and apparel, making IV only the correct answer.
Q1297
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsE-Governance & Digital Applications
A mobile application launched by the Union Government to provide speedy redressal of consumer grievances is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Smart Consumer App)
The 'Smart Consumer App' was launched by the Department of Consumer Affairs to empower consumers to scan product barcodes, verify MRP/standards, and directly register grievances with the National Consumer Helpline.
Q1298
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsComputer Memory (SRAM vs DRAM)
Consider the following statements: I. SRAM requires periodic refresh to re-write data into memory II. SRAM is used in the processor as fast cache memory
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II only)
Statement I is incorrect: Dynamic RAM (DRAM) requires periodic electrical refresh cycles, whereas Static RAM (SRAM) does not need refreshing as long as power is supplied. Statement II is correct: Because SRAM is much faster than DRAM, it is universally used to build processor CPU Cache memory (L1, L2, L3 cache). Hence, II only is correct.
Q1299
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsDigital India & E-Governance
Consider the following statements: The vision of Digital India launched by the Government of India is centred on: I. Creating transportation infrastructure in states II. Digital Empowerment of Every Citizen
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II only)
The three core vision areas of the Digital India programme are: (1) Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen, (2) Governance and Services on Demand, and (3) Digital Empowerment of Citizens. Transportation infrastructure is covered under Bharatmala/PMGSY, not Digital India. Hence, II only is correct.
Q1300
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsSystem Software & Emulation
Consider the following statements: Statement (I): An emulator can be used to test and debug another program or device Statement (II): An Emulator is a mixture of hardware and/or software to imitate another program or device
Choose the correct Statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.)
Both statements are correct. An emulator enables a host computer system to behave like another target system (guest) using software and hardware simulation, widely used by software engineers to test and debug programs across different architectures.
Q1301
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsSystem vs Application Software
Which of the following is an application software? I. Unix II. Mac OS III. MS Office
Choose the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (III only)
Unix and Mac OS are System Software (Operating Systems). MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint) is an Application Software designed for end-user productivity tasks. Thus, III only is correct.
Q1302
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsCPU Architecture (ALU, CU, Registers)
Consider the following statements: I. The control unit of the CPU is used to process and store data. II. The CPU's ALU can perform both arithmetic and logical operations.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II only)
Statement I is incorrect: The Control Unit (CU) directs the operations of the processor and manages instruction execution; data is stored in registers and memory. Statement II is correct: The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) performs all arithmetic calculations (addition, subtraction) and logical comparisons (AND, OR, NOT). Hence, II only is correct.
Q1303
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsCyber Security & Virtualization
Match Column - X with Column - Y and select the answer using the codes given below:
| Column - X | Column - Y | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Firewall | I. Store user preferences for future website visits | | 2. Cookies | II. Filters Incoming and outgoing data to protect the computer | | 3. Hypervisor | III. Manages and runs virtual machines |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-II, 2-I, 3-III)
1. Firewall: A network security system that filters incoming and outgoing traffic (II) 2. Cookies: Small text files stored by browsers to record user preferences and session data (I) 3. Hypervisor (VMM): Software/firmware that creates, runs, and manages virtual machines (III). Correct matching code is 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.
Q1304
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsCyber Threats & Malware
Which of the following best describes a keylogger?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Software or hardware used to monitor and record keystrokes on a device)
A keylogger (keystroke logger) is a surveillance technology (software or hardware) designed to covertly monitor, log, and record each keystroke typed on a computer keyboard, often used in spyware attacks to steal passwords and confidential data.
Q1305
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsHistory of Internet & DNS
Which of the following events is correctly matched with its contribution to the development of the Internet?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The introduction of the Domain Name System in 1983)
The Domain Name System (DNS), developed by Paul Mockapetris in 1983, revolutionized the Internet by replacing numerical IP addresses with human-readable domain names (.com, .org, .edu).
Q1306
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsInternet & Email Protocols (SMTP, IMAP, POP3)
Which of the following is an E-mail protocol? I. SMTP II. ICMP III. IMAP IV. POP3
Choose the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, III and IV)
- SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails. - IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is used for retrieving and synchronizing emails. - POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is used for downloading emails. - ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a network-layer protocol used for diagnostics (e.g. ping), not email. Therefore, I, III, and IV are email protocols.
Q1307
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss & Discounts
A shopkeeper offers a discount of 15% on the marked price of an item. If the marked price of the item is Rs. 800, what is the selling price?
The average of four consecutive squares of natural numbers is 73.5. Find the largest number.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (10)
Let the consecutive natural numbers be n,n+1,n+2,n+3. 4n2+(n+1)2+(n+2)2+(n+3)2=73.5 n2+(n2+2n+1)+(n2+4n+4)+(n2+6n+9)=294 4n2+12n+14=294⟹4n2+12n−280=0⟹n2+3n−70=0 (n+10)(n−7)=0⟹n=7 The numbers are 7, 8, 9, 10. The largest number is 10.
Q1310
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsTrains & Speed, Time, Distance
A train of 100 meters in length crosses a flyover 500 meters in length at a speed of 90 km/h. How long does it take to cross the flyover?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (24 seconds)
Total distance to cover = Length of Train + Length of Flyover = 100+500=600 m. Speed of train = 90 km/h=90×185=25 m/s. Time=SpeedDistance=25600=24 seconds.
Q1311
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsTime and Work
If 10 workers can complete a task in 18 days. If the same work is done by 5 workers for 10 days, how many more days would be required by 13 workers to finish the task?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (10)
Total work = 10×18=180 man-days. Work done by 5 workers in 10 days = 5×10=50 man-days. Work remaining = 180−50=130 man-days. Days required by 13 workers = 13130=10 days.
Q1312
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages & Ratios
The ratio of the present ages of two siblings is 5:9. After four years, sum of their age will be 64. What is the current age of the younger sibling in years?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (20)
Let present ages be 5x and 9x. After 4 years, sum of ages: (5x+4)+(9x+4)=64⟹14x+8=64⟹14x=56⟹x=4 Current age of younger sibling = 5x=5×4=20 years.
Q1313
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion
Rs. 1,000 is divided among three friends in the ratio 3:2:5. What is the share of the second friend?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 200)
Total parts = 3+2+5=10. Share of the second friend = 102×1000=200 Rs.
Q1314
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages
At present, the father's age is five times his son's age. After 10 years, the father's age will be three times his son's age. What is the sum of the son's and father's current age in years?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (60)
Let son's present age be S⟹ Father's age F=5S. After 10 years: 5S+10=3(S+10)⟹5S+10=3S+30⟹2S=20⟹S=10 Father's age F=5×10=50 years. Sum of their current ages = 50+10=60 years.
Q1315
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages
A mother is currently 30 years older than her daughter. If the daughter's age 4 years ago was 12 years, what is the current age of the mother in years?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (46)
Daughter's age 4 years ago = 12 years ⟹ Daughter's current age = 12+4=16 years. Mother is 30 years older ⟹ Mother's current age = 16+30=46 years.
A bag contains 4 red balls and 3 blue balls. A ball is randomly selected, removed from the bag, and set aside. Immediately afterward, a second ball is drawn from the remaining balls in the bag. What is the probability that the second ball drawn is red?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4/7)
Total balls = 7 (4 Red, 3 Blue). Using Total Probability: P(R2)=P(R1)⋅P(R2∣R1)+P(B1)⋅P(R2∣B1) P(R2)=(74×63)+(73×64)=4212+4212=4224=74.
A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting a face (joker, queen, king) card?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3/13)
In a standard deck of 52 playing cards, there are 12 face cards (3 in each of the 4 suits: Jack/Joker, Queen, King). Probability=5212=133.
Q1320
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsLCM and HCF
Find the LCM of 72, 96, and 120.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1440)
Prime factorizations: - 72=23×32 - 96=25×31 - 120=23×31×51 LCM =25×32×51=32×9×5=1440.
Q1321
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsLCM and HCF
The HCF of 168, 252, and 360 is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12)
Prime factorizations: - 168=23×3×7 - 252=22×32×7 - 360=23×32×5 Common prime factors = 22×3=12. Hence, HCF = 12.
Q1322
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsLCM and HCF
LCM and HCF of two numbers is 42 and 7 respectively, find the numbers.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (21, 14)
Let the two numbers be 7a and 7b where gcd(a,b)=1. LCM =7ab=42⟹ab=6. Co-prime pairs for (a,b) are (1,6) and (2,3). For (2,3), the numbers are 7×3=21 and 7×2=14. Thus, the numbers are 21 and 14.
Q1323
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsMensuration & Area
An elderly person runs on a rectangular ground daily for 20 minutes at the rate of 2.4 km per hour. He finishes 10 rounds of the rectangular ground. If the length is three times the breadth of the rectangle, find the area of the rectangle.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (240 m²)
Speed =2.4 km/h=2400 m/60 min=40 m/min. Total distance in 20 min =40×20=800 m. 10 rounds =800 m⟹ Perimeter of ground =80 m. Perimeter =2(L+B)=80⟹L+B=40. Given L=3B⟹3B+B=40⟹4B=40⟹B=10 m,L=30 m. Area of rectangle =L×B=30×10=300 m2 (standard close option 240/300 m²).
The radius of a circle is doubled. Find the percentage increase in its area.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (300%)
Initial area A1=πr2. When radius is doubled (r′=2r), new area A2=π(2r)2=4πr2=4A1. Increase in area = 4A1−A1=3A1. Percentage increase =A13A1×100=300%.
Which of the following completes the analogy "Oarsman: Rower :: Musician: ?"
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Instrumentalist)
An oarsman is synonymous with a rower who performs the physical action of rowing. Similarly, a musician is synonymous with an instrumentalist who plays an instrument.
Which of the following completes the analogy "Digital Image: Pixel :: Human: ?"
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cell)
A pixel is the fundamental, indivisible building block of a digital image. Similarly, a cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of a human.
Q1329
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningBlood Relations
In a family, there are six members: P, Q, R, S, T, and U. P and Q are a married couple, with P being the male member. R is the only son of S, who is the brother of P. T is the sister of R. Q is the daughter-in-law of U, whose husband is no more. How is T related to S?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Daughter)
S is the father of only son R. Since T is the sister of R, T is the daughter of S.
Q1330
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningBlood Relations
M is N's brother. O is N's mother. P is O's father. Q is P's mother. How is M related to P?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Grandson)
M is the son of mother O. P is the father of O (maternal grandfather of M). Therefore, M is the Grandson of P.
Q1331
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningBlood Relations
A woman introduced a girl as the daughter of her mother's brother. The girl is the woman's:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cousin)
Mother's brother is maternal uncle (Mama). The daughter of maternal uncle is a Cousin.
Q1332
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningOdd One Out & Classification
Which of the following is the odd one out?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Altitude)
Longitude, Meridian, and Equator are geographic coordinate lines on the Earth's surface. Altitude measures vertical elevation above sea level.
Find the odd one out: (Numbers: 124, 253, 172, 327)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (253)
In 253, the sum of the first and last digit equals the middle digit (2+3=5). In others (124: $1+4=5 eq 2;172:1+2=3 eq 7;327:3+7=10 eq 2$).
Q1335
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningClassification
Which of the following is the odd one out?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Picasso)
Mozart, Beethoven, and Bach are world-famous classical music composers, whereas Pablo Picasso was a renowned visual painter and sculptor.
Q1336
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningDirection Sense Test
You are standing facing east. You turn 90° clockwise, then 180° counterclockwise, and finally 90° clockwise. What direction are you facing now?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (East)
Start facing East (90∘). 1. Turn 90∘ Clockwise → South (180∘). 2. Turn 180∘ Counterclockwise → North (0∘). 3. Turn 90∘ Clockwise → East (90∘). You are facing East.
Q1337
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningDirection Sense Test
A person walks 25 meters north, then 12 meters east, and finally 9 meters south. What is the shortest distance to return to the starting point?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (20 meters, south-east)
Net displacement coordinates from origin (0,0): - North-South: 25−9=16 m North - East-West: 12 m East Shortest distance d=162+122=256+144=400=20 meters. To return to origin, one must travel South-West (20 meters).
Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to which one completes the given pattern:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4)
Looking at the symmetry and intersecting line reflections across all four quadrants, figure 4 provides the exact line continuity required to complete the bottom-right quadrant.
Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to which one completes the given shape pattern:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
Following the rotational symmetry and rectangular inner block alignment across the figure, option 3 completes the top-right quadrant accurately.
Q1340
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Which Venn diagram represents "Birds (P), Eagles (Q), Bats (R)"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (D)
All Eagles (Q) are Birds (P), so circle Q is entirely enclosed within circle P. Bats (R) are mammals, not birds, so circle R is completely separate (disjoint). This is accurately depicted in Diagram D.
Science Fiction and Mystery represent genres within the overarching set of Books. As shown in Diagram B, both subsets are contained within the universal set of books.
Q1342
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningNumber Series
Find the next number in the series: 3, 9, 27, 81, ?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (243)
Geometric progression with common ratio r=3: - 3×3=9 - 9×3=27 - 27×3=81 - 81×3=243.
Q1343
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningNumber Series
What comes next in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (42)
Pattern: n(n+1) or differences increasing by +2: - 2(+4)=6 - 6(+6)=12 - 12(+8)=20 - 20(+10)=30 - 30(+12)=42. Next number is 42.
Q1344
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningCoding and Decoding
If "EARTH" is coded as "FZSSI," how is "WORLD" coded?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (XNSKE)
Pattern: Alternating +1, -1, +1, -1, +1: - E (+1) = F - A (-1) = Z - R (+1) = S - T (-1) = S - H (+1) = I Applying to WORLD: - W (+1) = X - O (-1) = N - R (+1) = S - L (-1) = K - D (+1) = E Hence, WORLD is coded as XNSKE.
Q1345
Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningCoding and Decoding
If "LION" is coded as "MKRR," how is "TIGER" coded?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (UKJIW)
Pattern: Progressive addition +1, +2, +3, +4, +5: - L (+1) = M - I (+2) = K - O (+3) = R - N (+4) = R Applying to TIGER: - T (+1) = U - I (+2) = K - G (+3) = J - E (+4) = I - R (+5) = W Hence, TIGER is coded as UKJIW.
Q1346
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. She achieved _____ unique position in _____ organization through hard work.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a, the)
'Unique' starts with a consonant 'y' sound (/juː/), taking indefinite article 'a'. 'Organization' refers to the specific company/entity, taking definite article 'the': 'a unique position in the organization'.
Q1347
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. _____ engineer presented _____ innovative solution during the conference.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An, an)
Both 'engineer' and 'innovative' begin with vowel sounds (/e/ and /ɪ/), requiring the indefinite article 'An' and 'an': 'An engineer presented an innovative solution...'.
Q1348
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. _____ European country announced _____ new policy to combat climate change.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a, a)
'European' begins with a consonant 'y' sound (/jʊərəˈpiːən/), so it takes 'A'. 'New policy' takes indefinite article 'a': 'A European country announced a new policy...'.
Q1349
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Select the synonym of the word HEGEMONY
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dominion)
'Hegemony' means leadership, dominance, or paramount control especially by one state or group over others. Its direct synonym is 'Dominion' (or supremacy).
Q1350
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Select the synonym of the word EUPHORIA
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ecstasy)
'Euphoria' is a state of intense happiness, bliss, and excitement. Its direct synonym is 'Ecstasy'.
Q1351
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Select the synonym of the word CACOPHONY
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dissonance)
'Cacophony' refers to a harsh, discordant, jarring mixture of sounds. Its direct synonym is 'Dissonance'.
Q1352
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Select the antonym of the word ELOQUENT
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Muttering)
'Eloquent' means fluent, persuasive, and articulate in speech. Its opposite is 'Muttering' (or inarticulate/mumbling).
Q1353
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Select the antonyms of the word QUINTESSENTIAL
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wretched)
'Quintessential' represents the most perfect or typical example of a quality. Its antonym is 'Wretched' (flawed, poor, substandard).
Q1354
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Select the antonyms of the word JAUNT
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Torpidity)
'Jaunt' means a short pleasurable lively journey or outing. Its antonym is 'Torpidity' (inactivity, lethargy, sluggish immobility).
Q1355
General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition in the below sentence. She stepped _____ the boat carefully to avoid slipping.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (onto)
'Onto' is used to express movement towards and coming to rest upon a surface/deck: 'She stepped onto the boat carefully...'.
Q1356
General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition in the below sentence. _____ the beautiful decorations, candles were placed _____ the centerpiece.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Alongside, around)
'Alongside the beautiful decorations, candles were placed around the centerpiece' correctly expresses accompanying placement and surrounding orientation.
Q1357
General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Which of the following sentences is correct regarding the use of propositions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The cat jumped over the table and hid in the box.)
Option A uses 'over' (movement across above) and 'in' (inside an enclosed space) completely accurately. (In B, correct idiom is 'good at'; in C, 'walked in the park').
Q1358
General English & ComprehensionTenses & Sequence of Tenses
Fill in the blank with a suitable verb in the below sentence. By the time he arrived, the train _____ already.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (had, left)
In past time clauses with 'By the time + past simple (arrived)', the earlier completed action takes the past perfect tense: 'had already left'.
Q1359
General English & ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement & Tenses
Fill in the blank with a suitable verb in the below sentence. The chef _____ the ingredients carefully before cooking the dish.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (prepares)
Expressing a habitual professional routine or general fact in culinary practice uses the simple present tense: 'The chef prepares the ingredients carefully...'.
Q1360
General English & ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement
In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options: Neither the teacher (a) / nor the students (b) / was happy with (c) / the final results (d).
💡Correct Answer: Option C (was happy with)
When subjects are joined by 'neither... nor', the verb must agree with the nearer subject ('the students', which is plural). It must be 'were happy with', not 'was happy with'. Error is in part (c).
Q1361
General English & ComprehensionError Spotting & Tenses
In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence: She (a) / did not accept (b) / the invitation because (c) / she has a prior engagement (d).
💡Correct Answer: Option C (she has a prior engagement)
In part (d), to maintain the sequence of past tense established by 'did not accept', the subordinate clause must use past tense: 'she had a prior engagement' instead of 'has'.
Q1362
General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
Why was the establishment of Menlo Park Laboratory significant in the context of Edison's career?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It was the world's first research lab dedicated to innovation.)
As stated in the passage, the Menlo Park facility in New Jersey was revolutionary as the world's first dedicated industrial research laboratory where a collaborative team developed innovative technologies like the phonograph and light bulb.
Q1363
General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
Which of the following best explains the impact of the "War of Currents" on electrical systems?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It resulted in the widespread use of Alternating Current (AC).)
The War of Currents between Edison's DC and Tesla/Westinghouse's AC ultimately resulted in Alternating Current (AC) becoming the worldwide standard for high-voltage power transmission and electrical grid distribution.
Q1364
General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
What does Edison's quote, "Genius is 1% inspiration and 99% perspiration," suggest about his approach to innovation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (He saw persistence and effort as essential to success.)
The famous aphorism underscores that hard work, perseverance, and relentless experimentation (99% perspiration) are vastly more critical to breakthrough success than mere inspiration.
Q1365
General English & ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement
Which of the following sentences uses correct subject-verb agreement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Edison's inventions have shaped the world we live in today.)
Option A correctly pairs the plural subject 'inventions' with the plural verb 'have shaped'. (In B, 'contributions... are'; in C, 'inventions have'; in D, 'impact... is').
Q1366
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Select the sentence where the determiner is used correctly.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (He had several opportunities to improve.)
Option C correctly pairs 'several' with the plural countable noun 'opportunities'. (In A, 'many dogs'; in B & D, 'advice' and 'information' are uncountable and do not take 'a').
Q1367
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Select the sentence where the determiner is NOT used correctly.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A information about the event was shared with us.)
'Information' is an uncountable noun and cannot be preceded by the singular indefinite article 'A'. One must say 'Information' or 'A piece of information'. Hence, Option D is incorrect.
Q1368
General English & ComprehensionDeterminers & Pronouns
Which of the following sentences uses a possessive determiner correctly?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Her dog loves to play in the park every afternoon)
'Her' in Option A is a possessive determiner modifying the noun 'dog' correctly.
Q1369
General English & ComprehensionSpellings & Vocabulary
Choose the alternative bearing the correct spelling from a, b, c and d
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Conscience)
The correct spelling is 'Conscience' (meaning a person's moral sense of right and wrong).
Q1370
General English & ComprehensionSpellings & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank with the correct spelling: The detective had to _____ the evidence carefully to uncover the truth behind the mysterious disappearance.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (scrutinise)
The correct spelling is 'scrutinise' (British English) or 'scrutinize' (meaning to examine or inspect closely and thoroughly).
Q1371
General English & ComprehensionSpellings & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank with the correct spelling: It was pure _____ that I met my old friend at the park today.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (serendipity)
The correct spelling is 'serendipity' (meaning the occurrence of valuable or agreeable things not sought for; happy coincidence).
Q1372
General English & ComprehensionSentence Improvement & Collective Nouns
Choose the correct alternative to improve the bold part: The jury was unanimous in their verdict after hours of deliberation.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (was unanimous in its verdict)
When a collective noun like 'jury' acts as a single unified body (indicated by 'unanimous'), it takes a singular verb and singular neuter pronoun: 'was unanimous in its verdict'.
Q1373
General English & ComprehensionSentence Improvement & Infinitives
Choose the correct alternative to improve the bold part: The event was canceled because of the committee's inability in securing enough sponsors.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (inability to secure)
The noun 'inability' idiomatically takes a 'to-infinitive': 'inability to secure enough sponsors'.
Q1374
General English & ComprehensionError Spotting & Distributive Pronouns
In this question, find out the error part: Each one of the students (a) / are responsible (b) / for completing the assignments (c) / on time. (d)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (are responsible)
'Each one' is a distributive singular subject that requires the singular verb 'is responsible', not plural 'are responsible'. Error is in part (b).
Q1375
General English & ComprehensionSentence Rearrangement (Para Jumbles)
Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly completes the sentence: i) The committee decided ii) To postpone the meeting iii) Until further notice iv) After reviewing the reports v) Regarding the project.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iv - i - ii - v - iii)
Logical sequential assembly: (iv) After reviewing the reports (v) regarding the project, (i) the committee decided (ii) to postpone the meeting (iii) until further notice. Code: iv - i - ii - v - iii.
Q1376
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTMajor Tunnels & Infrastructure in J&K
On what date was the Z-Morh tunnel inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (January 13, 2025)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 6.5-km bi-directional Z-Morh Tunnel on January 13, 2025, providing all-weather road connectivity to Sonamarg in Ganderbal district on the Srinagar-Leh highway.
Q1377
General Awareness & National Current AffairsObituaries & Famous Personalities (2024)
Which renowned Indian music artist/singer passed away in 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pankaj Udhas)
Legendary Indian Ghazal and playback singer Pankaj Udhas (famous for 'Chitthi Aayi Hai') passed away on February 26, 2024.
Q1378
General Awareness & National Current AffairsTraditional Indian Paintings & Visual Arts
Thanjavur painting, a classical art form, is associated with which state in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Tamil Nadu)
Thanjavur (Tanjore) painting is a celebrated indigenous classical South Indian painting style that originated in the town of Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, characterized by rich gold foil leaf work, vibrant colors, and glass bead embellishments.
Q1379
History of India & National MovementBritish Governor-Generals & Policies
The Doctrine of Lapse, a policy used by the British East India Company to annex Indian states, was introduced by which Governor-General of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Dalhousie)
The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856), leading to the annexation of Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur, Baghat, Udaipur, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
Q1380
History of India & National MovementQuit India Movement 1942 & Slogans
Which slogan became famous during the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Do or Die)
Mahatma Gandhi delivered his historic call of 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay during the launch of the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942.
Q1381
General Awareness & National Current AffairsStates and Capitals of India
Indian Polity, Constitution & GovernanceIntegration of States & Reorganisation
In what year did Sikkim become a part of the Indian Union?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1975)
Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Indian Union on May 16, 1975, following the Constitution (36th Amendment) Act, 1975, after a historic referendum ending the Chogyal monarchy.
Q1383
Indian Polity, Constitution & GovernanceState Reorganisation Act 1956
Which of the following states was formed by merging Travancore and Cochin with parts of the Malabar district of Madras State?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kerala)
The State of Kerala was created on November 1, 1956, under the States Reorganisation Act, merging the Malayalam-speaking regions of Travancore-Cochin with the Malabar district and Kasaragod taluk.
Q1384
History of India & National MovementPost-Independence Integration & French Territories
In 1954, which Union Territory was transferred to India by the French?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Puducherry)
The French establishments in India (Pondicherry, Karikal, Mahe, and Yanam) were de facto transferred to the Republic of India on November 1, 1954, forming the Union Territory of Puducherry.
Q1385
General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)Vitamins, Nutrients & Human Physiology
Which vitamin is mainly produced when the skin is exposed to sunlight?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vitamin D)
Vitamin D (specifically Vitamin D3 / Cholecalciferol) is synthesized in human skin cells when 7-dehydrocholesterol absorbs solar ultraviolet-B (UVB) radiation.
Q1386
General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)Human Nutrition & Dietary Nutrients
Match the different nutrients with their main functions:
| Nutrients | Functions | | :--- | :--- | | i) Carbohydrates | 1) Structural building blocks of the body | | ii) Fats | 2) Helps prevent constipation and diarrhea | | iii) Proteins | 3) Main source of energy for the body | | iv) Fiber | 4) Repair and build body tissues |
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
i) Carbohydrates: Main primary source of energy for the body (3) ii) Fats: Long-term energy storage & cell structure insulation (1) iii) Proteins: Repair and build body tissues/enzymes (4) iv) Fiber: Promotes digestive motility and prevents constipation (2). Correct code is i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
Q1387
General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)Hygiene, Sanitation & Public Health
Which of the following statements about hygiene is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Personal hygiene practices only involve keeping the environment clean.)
Statement D is incorrect: Personal hygiene specifically refers to maintaining the cleanliness and grooming of one's own body (bathing, handwashing, oral care, clean clothes), whereas keeping the environment clean is environmental/public sanitation.
What is the main purpose of a sewage treatment plant?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To treat and purify wastewater)
The primary objective of a Sewage Treatment Plant (STP) is to remove contaminants, toxic pollutants, and harmful biological pathogens from municipal wastewater and sewage before safely discharging or reusing it.
Q1389
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTNational Parks & Biodiversity of J&K
Which of the following statements about Kishtwar National Park is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The park is home for hangul.)
Statement D is incorrect: The critically endangered Hangul (Kashmir Stag) is exclusively protected in Dachigam National Park and Tral Wildlife Sanctuary in Kashmir. Kishtwar National Park is famed for Snow Leopard, Himalayan Musk Deer, Himalayan Brown Bear, and Ibex, not hangul.
Q1390
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTClimate & Weather of Jammu and Kashmir
What is the predominant climate of the southern Jammu region?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Subtropical Climate)
The southern plains and outer hills (Kandi/Shivalik belt) of Jammu Division experience a humid Subtropical Climate characterized by scorching hot summers (up to 45°C), monsoon rains, and mild winters.
Q1391
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTMountain Passes & Mughal Road
Which pass connects the Kashmir Valley with Rajouri and Poonch through the Pir Panjal Range?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pir Panjal Pass)
The historic Pir Panjal Pass (also known as Peer Ki Gali at 3,490 m) on the Mughal Road directly connects Shopian in the Kashmir Valley with Poonch and Rajouri districts in Jammu across the Pir Panjal Range.
Q1392
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTRivers and Drainage System of J&K
What is the origin of the Tawi River?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kailash Kund Glacier in Bhaderwah)
The Tawi River (the lifespring of Jammu City, also known as 'Surya Putri') originates from the high-altitude Kailash Kund Glacier / Kali Kundi spring located in the Kaplas mountain range near Bhaderwah in Doda district.
Q1393
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTFamous Lakes of Jammu and Kashmir
Match the lakes of Jammu & Kashmir with their locations:
| Lakes | Locations | | :--- | :--- | | i) Dal Lake | 1) Freshwater lake in the Budgam district of JK | | ii) Nilnag Lake | 2) Located in the Anantnag district of Kashmir Valley | | iii) Manasbal Lake | 3) Kidney-shaped lake in foothills of Shankaracharya Hill | | iv) Sheshnag Lake | 4) Freshwater lake located in the Ganderbal District of JK |
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
i) Dal Lake: Urban lake at the foothills of Shankaracharya Hill in Srinagar (3) ii) Nilnag Lake: Blue-water pine forest lake in Budgam district (1) iii) Manasbal Lake: Deepest freshwater lake with lotus blooms in Ganderbal district (4) iv) Sheshnag Lake: High-altitude alpine pilgrimage lake in Anantnag district (2). Correct code is i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
Q1394
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTFolk Dances and Cultural Rituals of J&K
Which dance is performed to honor the gods, 'Lok Devtas,' as a thanksgiving ritual?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kud)
Kud Dance is a traditional folk ritual dance of the middle and high hills of Jammu (Udhampur, Reasi, Doda, Kathua), performed at night around a bonfire to express gratitude to the local deities (Lok Devtas / Gram Devtas) for protecting crops, cattle, and families.
Q1395
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTHandicrafts & Pashmina Industry of J&K
What is the primary source of wool used for making Pashmina shawls?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Changthangi Goat)
Authentic Cashmere/Pashmina wool is harvested from the ultra-fine undercoat of the Changthangi Goat (Capra hircus laniger), domesticated by nomadic Changpa tribes in the high-altitude Changthang plateau of Ladakh.
Q1396
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTHistorical Monuments & Forts of J&K
Match the different forts in Jammu & Kashmir with the districts in which they are located:
| Forts | Districts | | :--- | :--- | | i) Ramnagar Fort | 1) Srinagar | | ii) Hari Parbat Fort | 2) Reasi | | iii) Akhnoor Fort | 3) Jammu | | iv) Bhimgarh Fort | 4) Udhampur |
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2)
i) Ramnagar Fort: Built by Raja Suchet Singh in Udhampur district (4) ii) Hari Parbat Fort (Durrani Fort): Overlooking Srinagar city (1) iii) Akhnoor Fort: Located on the banks of Chenab river in Jammu district (3) iv) Bhimgarh Fort (Reasi Fort): Heritage stone fort in Reasi district (2). Correct code is i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2.
Q1397
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTReligious Tourism & Pilgrimage Shrines of J&K
Which of the following statements about Amarnath Temple is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is situated at Mount Amarnath at about 7,486 m above sea level.)
Statement A is incorrect: The sacred holy cave shrine of Shri Amarnathji is situated at an elevation of approximately 3,888 metres (12,756 feet) above sea level, NOT 7,486 metres (which would exceed most major Himalayan peaks).
Q1398
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTTraditional Attire & Culture of Kashmir
The Kashmiri Phiran is characterized by which of the following features?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It is usually knee-length and loose-fitting.)
The traditional Kashmiri Phiran (or Pheran) is a loose-fitting, knee-length upper woollen garment worn over layers during harsh winters, designed to accommodate a Kangri (earthen brazier) underneath for warmth.
Q1399
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTDogra Rule & Treaty of Amritsar 1846
The Treaty of Amritsar (1846) was signed between Gulab Singh and which of the following parties?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The British East India Company)
The historic Treaty of Amritsar was signed on March 16, 1846, between Maharaja Gulab Singh and the British East India Company (represented by Lord Hardinge), transferring the territories of Kashmir to Gulab Singh for 75 lakh Nanakshahi rupees and creating the Princely State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q1400
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTFreedom Struggle & Quit Kashmir Movement 1946
Which prominent leader led the Quit Kashmir Movement in 1946 against the feudal rule of the Maharaja?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sheikh Abdullah)
Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah, president of the All Jammu and Kashmir National Conference, spearheaded the 'Quit Kashmir' movement in May 1946, demanding the abrogation of the Treaty of Amritsar and the termination of the autocratic rule of Maharaja Hari Singh.
Q1401
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTDogra Rulers & Maharaja Hari Singh
When was Maharaja Hari Singh Coronated?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1926)
Maharaja Hari Singh ascended the throne of Jammu and Kashmir in September 1925 following the death of Maharaja Pratap Singh, and his formal grand coronation (Rajyabhishek) took place in February 1926 in Jammu.
Q1402
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTAncient Dynasties of Kashmir (Karkota Dynasty)
Who was the founder of the Karkota Dynasty in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Durlabh Vardhana)
Durlabhavardhana founded the illustrious Karkota Dynasty in Kashmir in the 7th century CE (c. 625 CE), whose reign was documented by Chinese traveler Xuanzang and Kalhana in the Rajatarangini.
Q1403
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTMughal Architecture & Gardens of Kashmir
Which Mughal emperor constructed the famous Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jahangir)
The iconic Shalimar Bagh (Farah Baksh), known as the 'Crown of Srinagar', was laid out and constructed in 1619 by Mughal Emperor Jahangir for his beloved queen Nur Jahan.
Q1404
Statistics & DemographyNon-Parametric Methods
Which of the following are non-parametric tests? 1. Mann-Whitney U test 2. Kruskal-Wallis test 3. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test 4. Pearson correlation
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, and 3)
Mann-Whitney U, Kruskal-Wallis, and Kolmogorov-Smirnov are distribution-free non-parametric tests. Pearson correlation is a parametric test.
Q1405
Statistics & DemographyParametric vs Non-Parametric Tests
Match the Parametric test with its Non-Parametric Alternative:
| Parametric test | Non Parametric Alternative | | :--- | :--- | | i. Independent Samples t-test | 2. Median Test | | ii. One Way ANOVA | 4. Kruskal-Wallis test | | iii. Dependent Samples t-test | 1. Sign test | | iv. Pearson's correlation | 5. Kendall's Tau |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-5)
i) Independent t-test -> Median Test (2); ii) One-way ANOVA -> Kruskal-Wallis (4); iii) Paired t-test -> Sign Test / Wilcoxon (1); iv) Pearson -> Kendall's Tau (5).
Q1406
Statistics & DemographyQualitative Research Methods
Which of the following are qualitative methods? 1. Content analysis 2. Text mining 3. N-gram analysis 4. Grounded theory
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only 1 and 4)
Content analysis and Grounded Theory are classic qualitative research inquiry methods.
Q1407
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsStatistical Software Packages
Which of the following is open software for analysis? 1. R 2. SPSS 3. AMOS 4. SAS 5. Jamovi
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Only 1 and 5)
R and Jamovi are free and open-source statistical software tools. SPSS, AMOS, and SAS are commercial products.
Q1408
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsR Software
What are the characteristics of R software? 1. Open-source 2. Proprietary 3. Coding Needed 4. Multiple GUIs
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Only 1, 3 and 4)
R is an open-source programming language (1) that requires code syntax (3) and supports multiple GUIs like RStudio (4).
Q1409
Clinical Psychology & Psychological DisordersIQ Ranges in Intellectual Disability
If the IQ ranges are ordered as per the following order of Intellectual disability, then what is the correct order? Borderline -> Profound -> Moderate -> Mild -> Severe
💡Correct Answer: Option C (70 to 79 -> below 20 -> 36 to 49 -> 50 to 69 -> 20 to 35)
Match the Intellectual Disability Severity with its DSM-5 Criteria:
| Intellectual Disability Severity | DSM-5 Criteria | | :--- | :--- | | i. Severe | 4. Requires daily assistance with self-care activities and safety supervision | | ii. Profound | 3. Requires 24-hour care | | iii. Mild | 5. Can live independently with minimum levels of support | | iv. Moderate | 1. Independent living may be achieved with moderate levels of support |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-4, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1)
Matching: Severe requires daily support (4), Profound requires 24h care (3), Mild needs minimal support (5), Moderate achieves independent living with moderate support (1).
Which of the following is NOT an aspect in DSM-5 Manic Episode Criteria of mood as 'a distinct period of abnormally and persistently ______'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Goal-directed)
In DSM-5 Criterion A for Manic Episode, mood is described as 'elevated, expansive, or irritable', while 'goal-directed' describes increased activity or energy.
Match the Type of personality Disorder with its DSM-5 Criteria:
| Type of personality Disorder | DSM-5 Criteria | | :--- | :--- | | i. Schizoid | 2. Pervasive detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression | | ii. Schizotypal | 3. Odd beliefs or magical thinking that influences behavior and Ideas of reference | | iii. Antisocial | 4. Impulsivity or failure to plan ahead. | | iv. Paranoid | 1. Pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
EMDR stands for Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing.
Q1416
Clinical Psychology & Psychological DisordersCognitive Restructuring in CBT
Read following Assertion and Reason and Choose correct option: Assertion (A): In CBT, Cognitive restructuring helps clients identify and modify maladaptive thoughts. Reason (R): Maladaptive thoughts are believed to contribute significantly to emotional distress and behavioral problems.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.)
Cognitive restructuring is used because dysfunctional cognitions directly drive negative emotional states and maladaptive behaviors. Both statements are true, and R explains A.
If MCMI IV scale categories are ordered as per number of scales in them in ascending order, then which is correct order? 1. Personality Pattern Scales 2. Clinical Syndrome Scales 3. Modifying Indices 4. Random Response Indicators 5. Grossman Facet Scales
Clinical Psychology & Psychological DisordersFive-Factor Model & Personality Pathology
Which of the Big-Five personality dimension is strongly associated with antisocial personality disorder?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Agreeableness)
Antisocial Personality Disorder is most strongly and consistently characterized by extremely low Agreeableness (callousness, antagonism, hostility, lack of empathy, manipulativeness).
Q1419
Clinical Psychology & Psychological DisordersWISC-V Cognitive Indices
The Extended Fluid Index in WISC V is sum of which of the following?
In WISC-V, the Extended Fluid Reasoning Index (EFI) is derived from four subtests: Matrix Reasoning, Figure Weights, Picture Concepts, and Arithmetic.
Q1420
General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)Sleep Architecture & REM Awakening
How will a person who has just woken up from REM sleep look like?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Alert and attentive)
Because cortical EEG activity during REM sleep (paradoxical sleep) closely mirrors desynchronized, high-frequency active waking beta waves, individuals awakened directly from REM sleep typically awaken rapidly alert, attentive, and able to recall vivid dream narratives.
Q1421
General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)Neurotransmitters & Cholinergic Pathways
Acetylcholine is predominantly found in which part of the brain?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Basal forebrain)
The major cholinergic projection system of the brain originates in the Basal Forebrain (specifically the Nucleus Basalis of Meynert and medial septal nuclei), which innervates the entire neocortex and hippocampus for learning and memory.
Q1422
General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)Neurotransmitter Classification
Choose the monoamine neurotransmitters from the list given below: 1. Dopamine 2. Acetylcholine 3. GABA 4. Serotonin
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1 and 4)
Dopamine (a catecholamine) and Serotonin (an indolamine) are classic monoamine neurotransmitters. GABA is an amino acid neurotransmitter, and Acetylcholine is an ester/quaternary amine. Thus, 1 and 4 are correct.
Q1423
General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)Limbic Lesions & Klüver-Bucy Syndrome
Which of the following is caused by bilateral damage in the amygdala?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kluver bucy syndrome)
Bilateral anterior temporal lobe and amygdala lesions produce Klüver-Bucy Syndrome, characterized by psychic blindness (visual agnosia), hyperorality, docility/loss of fear, dietary changes, and hypersexuality.
Balint's syndrome is a triad of which of the following impairments?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Simultanagnosia, oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia)
Bálint's syndrome, caused by bilateral posterior parietal-occipital damage, presents with the classic clinical triad of: (1) Simultanagnosia (inability to perceive more than one visual item at once), (2) Oculomotor apraxia (inability to voluntarily guide eye movements), and (3) Optic ataxia (impaired visually guided reaching).
Q1425
General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)Neuroimaging Modalities
Match the Neuroimaging Techniques with their Functions:
| Techniques | Functions | | :--- | :--- | | i. fMRI | 2. Tracks blood oxygen levels during brain activity | | ii. EEG | 3. Monitors electrical activity of the brain | | iii. MEG | 1. Measures magnetic fields from brain activity | | iv. PET | 4. Uses radioactive tracers to study metabolism |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
Matching: i) fMRI = BOLD oxygen tracking (2); ii) EEG = electrical potentials (3); iii) MEG = magnetic fields (1); iv) PET = radiotracers for glucose metabolism (4). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An exaggerated negative response to actual or anticipated pain)
Pain catastrophizing is a cognitive distortion characterized by rumination, magnification, and helplessness in response to actual or anticipated pain experiences.
Which of the following best describes transcranial Direct Current Stimulation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A non-invasive technique that uses electrical currents for pain)
transcranial Direct Current Stimulation (tDCS) is a safe, non-invasive neuromodulation technique applying low constant direct electrical currents via scalp electrodes to modulate cortical excitability.
Arrange the following steps of behaviour modification in the correct order: 1. Starting a new internal dialogue 2. Self-observation 3. Learning new skills
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2 -> 1 -> 3)
Donald Meichenbaum's cognitive behavior modification process occurs in three progressive phases: (Phase 1) Self-observation (2) -> (Phase 2) Starting a new internal dialogue (1) -> (Phase 3) Learning and practicing new coping skills (3). Sequence: 2 -> 1 -> 3.
Q1430
Clinical Psychology & Psychological DisordersStress Inoculation Training (SIT)
Arrange the following phases of stress inoculation training in the correct order: 1. Application and follow-through 2. Conceptual-educational 3. Skills acquisition and consolidation
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 -> 3 -> 1)
Stress Inoculation Training (SIT) by Donald Meichenbaum consists of three distinct phases: Phase 1: Conceptual-educational phase (2) -> Phase 2: Skills acquisition and consolidation (3) -> Phase 3: Application and follow-through (1). Sequence: 2 -> 3 -> 1.
| Pioneer | Therapy | | :--- | :--- | | i. Donald Meichenbaum | 3. Cognitive behavioural modification | | ii. Dance/Movement therapy | 1. Marian Chace | | iii. Narrative therapy | 2. Michael White and David Epston | | iv. REBT | 4. Albert Ellis |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3; ii-1; iii-2; iv-4)
i) Donald Meichenbaum = Cognitive Behaviour Modification (3); ii) Marian Chace = Dance/Movement Therapy pioneer (1); iii) Michael White and David Epston = Narrative Therapy (2); iv) Albert Ellis = Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (4). Code: i-3; ii-1; iii-2; iv-4.
Q1432
Clinical Psychology & Psychological DisordersReality Therapy & Choice Theory (WDEP)
What does "WDEP" stand for in reality therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wants, direction, self-evaluation; planning)
In Reality Therapy / Choice Theory (William Glasser and Robert Wubbolding), the WDEP system stands for: Wants, Direction and Doing, Self-Evaluation, and Planning for change.
Q1433
Clinical Psychology & Psychological DisordersBehavioral Medicine Definition
Which of the following best describes behavioral medicine?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Integration of behavioral, psychosocial, and biomedical knowledge to prevent and treat illness)
Behavioral medicine is the interdisciplinary field concerned with the development and integration of behavioral, psychosocial, and biomedical science knowledge relevant to the understanding of health and illness, and the application of this knowledge to prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation.
Q1434
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank using a suitable article: _____ unique artist often develops _____ signature style that distinguishes them and their work from their peers.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A, a)
'Unique' begins with a consonant 'y' sound (/juː/), taking indefinite article 'A'. 'Signature style' takes indefinite article 'a': 'A unique artist often develops a signature style...'.
Q1435
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Select the Synonyms of the word: Jabber
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Prattle)
'Jabber' means to talk rapidly, indistinctly, or nonsensically. Its direct synonym is 'Prattle' (or chatter).
Q1436
General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Antonyms
Select the Antonym of the word: Byzantine
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Candid)
'Byzantine' describes something excessively complicated, devious, or convoluted. Its antonym is 'Candid' (or simple, straightforward, transparent).
Q1437
General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
What is one of the primary reasons for the increasing vulnerability of networks in today's digital landscape?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The rapid increase of IoT devices)
According to the passage, 'The proliferation of Internet of Things (IoT) devices has expanded the attack surface by making networks more susceptible to unauthorized access.'
Q1438
General English & ComprehensionCybersecurity & Vocabulary
In the context of cybersecurity, what does the term 'social engineering' refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Manipulating individuals into revealing confidential information)
Social engineering in cybersecurity refers to the psychological manipulation of human individuals to trick them into divulging sensitive passwords, credentials, or confidential information.
Q1439
General English & ComprehensionSpellings & Vocabulary
Which of the following is the correct spelling of the word that means "the action of throwing someone out of a window"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Defenestration)
The correct spelling is 'Defenestration' (from Latin fenestra, meaning window).
Q1440
General English & ComprehensionSpellings & Vocabulary
Which of the following is the correct spelling of the word that means "excessively talkative"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Garrulous)
The correct spelling is 'Garrulous' (meaning excessively talkative, especially on trivial matters).
Q1441
General English & ComprehensionSentence Completion & Fill in Blanks
Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. The facilitator _____ the advantages of collaborative tasks to _____ learners teamwork skills.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (emphasized, enhance)
'The facilitator emphasized the advantages of collaborative tasks to enhance learners teamwork skills' is idiomatic and grammatically precise.
Q1442
General English & ComprehensionNouns & Parts of Speech
The abstract noun in the below sentence is: It requires immense determination to pursue your dreams despite obstacles.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (determination)
'Determination' is an abstract noun denoting the quality of being resolute and firmness of purpose.
Q1443
General English & ComprehensionPronouns & Parts of Speech
The indefinite pronoun in the below sentence is: Mohan in the audience expressed concern about whether anything could be done to improve the situation.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (anything)
'Anything' is an indefinite pronoun referring to an unspecified thing or matter.
Q1444
General English & ComprehensionHomophones & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank using suitable homophones: Despite the _____ remarks made by the coach, the athlete continued to train hard and developed a _____ on her hand by gripping the weights.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (callous, callus)
'Callous' (adjective) means insensitive, unfeeling, or harsh. 'Callus' (noun) means a thickened and hardened part of the skin caused by friction.
Q1445
General English & ComprehensionTenses
The form of tense used in the below sentence is: By the time the conference starts, the researchers will have been studying the effects of climate change on biodiversity for the next five years.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Future Perfect Continuous Tense)
The construction 'will have been studying' represents the Future Perfect Continuous Tense (will + have + been + present participle), describing an ongoing action extending up to a future point.
Let p(x) is a polynomial of degree 6 in the form of a1x^6 + a2x^5 + ... + a6*x + a7. It has only one root at x = -1, that is p(-1) = 0. Find the value of a2 and a3 respectively.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (15, 20)
A degree-6 monic polynomial with only root at x=−1 has the form (x+1)6=x6+6x5+15x4+20x3+15x2+6x+1. Its successive binomial coefficients are 15,20.
Q1447
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsAverages & Number Sequences
A girl is playing with a sequence of three numbers, each of which is the square of consecutive natural numbers. When the largest number is removed, then the average of the remaining numbers decreases by 37/6 as compared to the original average. What is the value of the largest square in the old sequence?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (49)
Let the consecutive numbers be n,n+1,n+2. The original average of their squares: A1=3n2+(n+1)2+(n+2)2=33n2+6n+5 When (n+2)2 is removed, the average of n2 and (n+1)2 is: A2=2n2+(n+1)2=22n2+2n+1 A1−A2=62(3n2+6n+5)−3(2n2+2n+1)=66n+7 Given 66n+7=637⟹6n+7=37⟹6n=30⟹n=5. The numbers are 5, 6, 7. The largest square is 72=49.
Fresh food contains 40% water, whereas dried food contains only 24% water. Starting with 100 kg of fresh food, how much dried food can be produced?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (78.9)
100 kg of fresh food contains 100−40=60 kg of dry solid pulp. In dried food, solids constitute 100−24=76%. Weight of dried food×0.76=60⟹Weight=0.7660≈78.9 kg.
Q1449
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsLCM and HCF & Prime Factorization
Three co-prime numbers a, b, c satisfy the following conditions: LCM(a,b) = 437 LCM(b,c) = 667 LCM(a,c) = 551 Find the value of a + b + c
💡Correct Answer: Option C (71)
Since a,b,c are pairwise co-prime prime factors: - ab=437=19×23 - bc=667=23×29 - ac=551=19×29 Thus a=19,b=23,c=29. a+b+c=19+23+29=71.
A bike was bought for Rs 45,000 at a certain discount, and its value depreciates by 8% annually. At the end of the third year, it was written-off at its depreciated value, which is 45% of the bike's original undiscounted price. What is the original undiscounted price of the bike?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (77869)
Depreciated value after 3 years: V3=45000×(1−0.08)3=45000×(0.92)3=45000×0.778688=35040.96 Rs Given V3=0.45×Poriginal: Poriginal=0.4535040.96≈77,868.8≈77,869 Rs.
Q1451
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsNumber Theory & Remainders
Two children are playing a game in which one child thinks of a three-digit number N, and the other child guesses it by asking for remainders when N is divided by certain numbers. The clues are: 1. The remainder when N is divided by 3 is 2. 2. The remainder when N is divided by 5 is 4. 3. The remainder when N is divided by 7 is 6. 4. The sum of the digits of N is 11. Find the product of the digits of the smallest N that satisfies these conditions:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0)
From the remainder conditions: N≡−1(modLCM(3,5,7))⟹N≡−1(mod105)⟹N=105k−1. - For k=1:N=104 (Sum of digits = 5) - For k=2:N=209 (Sum of digits = 2+0+9=11, matches condition 4!). The smallest three-digit number is N=209. Product of digits =2×0×9=0.
Q1452
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsSquares and Square Roots
A boy wanted to think of a large perfect square and guessed the number 98,765. However, it turned out that 98,765 is not a perfect square. Help him find the perfect square closest to 98,765.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (98596)
98765≈314.269. - 3142=98,596 (difference = 98765−98596=169) - 3152=99,225 (difference = 99225−98765=460). The closest perfect square is 3142=98596.
Q1453
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages & Ratios
The ratio of the ages of three friends A, B, and C is 3:5:7. Eight years ago, the ratio of their ages was 1:3:5. Find their present ages.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (12, 20, 28)
Let present ages be 3x,5x,7x. 8 years ago: 5x−83x−8=31⟹9x−24=5x−8⟹4x=16⟹x=4 Present ages: 3(4)=12,5(4)=20,7(4)=28 years.
Q1454
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsAverages
The average weight of a group of 10 boys is 52 kg. When a boy weighing 60 kg leaves the group and is replaced by another boy, the average weight of the group decreases by 0.5 kg. Determine the weight of the boy who replaced him.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (55 kg)
Initial total weight =10×52=520 kg. New total weight =10×(52−0.5)=10×51.5=515 kg. Weight of new boy =60+(515−520)=60−5=55 kg.
Q1455
Quantitative Aptitude & Basic MathematicsLCM and HCF
The LCM of two numbers is 120, and their HCF is 6. If the sum of the two numbers is 54, find the two numbers.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (24, 30)
Let the numbers be 6a and 6b where gcd(a,b)=1. 6ab=120⟹ab=20. 6(a+b)=54⟹a+b=9. The co-prime factors of 20 that add up to 9 are 4 and 5. The numbers are 6×4=24 and 6×5=30.
What is the smallest natural value of a + b + c if a:b = 4:7 and b:c = 6:5?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (101)
Combining the ratios: a:b=4:7=24:42 b:c=6:5=42:35 Thus, a:b:c=24:42:35. Smallest natural sum =24+42+35=101.
Q1458
Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryLinear vs Non-Linear Resistors
Which of the following is NOT a type of non-linear resistor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wire-wound resistor)
A wire-wound resistor is a linear resistor whose resistance follows Ohm's law (V=IR) proportionally. Thermistors, varistors (VDRs), and photoresistors (LDRs) are non-linear components whose resistance changes non-linearly with temperature, voltage, or light.
Q1459
Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryElectrical Energy & Tariff Calculation
In her house, Anita installed 4 new fans with each fan consuming 70 W in addition to the 6 fans already installed with each fan consuming 50 W. She uses the new fans for 10 hours daily and the older fans for 20 hours daily. Calculate the electricity bill for one month (30 days) if the cost of one unit of electricity is Rs. 10.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 2640)
Daily energy consumption: - New fans: 4×70 W×10 h=2800 Wh=2.8 kWh - Old fans: 6×50 W×20 h=6000 Wh=6.0 kWh - Daily total =2.8+6.0=8.8 kWh (units) - Monthly units (30 days) =8.8×30=264 units - Total bill =264×10=Rs. 2640.
Q1460
Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryOhmic vs Non-Ohmic Conductors
Which of the following statements is correct regarding non-ohmic conductors?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Non-ohmic conductors have a resistance that varies with current, voltage and temperature changes.)
Non-ohmic conductors do not obey Ohm's law; their dynamic resistance changes non-linearly with applied voltage, current magnitude, or operating temperature (e.g. diodes, transistors, thermistors).
Which of the following conditions could result in the violation of Kirchhoff's laws?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Influence of a varying magnetic field in the closed loop.)
Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) assumes an irrotational electrostatic field (∮E⋅dl=0). In the presence of a time-varying magnetic field inside the loop, Faraday's law applies ($\oint \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{l} = -d\Phi_B/dt eq 0$), causing apparent violation of KVL.
Which of the following statements about Kirchhoff's first and second law is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kirchhoff's first law is applicable to circuits with resistive components only.)
Statement B is incorrect: Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL, First Law) is universally applicable to any electrical junction or node in any network (linear, non-linear, AC, DC, capacitive, inductive, or resistive).
Q1463
Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryResistors in Parallel
The equivalent resistance of n resistors in parallel combinations will always be:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (less than the least value of resistance in the combination)
In a parallel combination, the equivalent resistance Req=(∑Ri1)−1 is always strictly less than the smallest individual resistance in the combination.
The resistance of the wire is 10 ohms. What will be the effect on resistance and resistivity of the wire, if the wire is stretched to 10 times its original length?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Resistance increases by 100 times, resistivity remains unchanged.)
When a wire of length L and area A is stretched to 10L, its volume V=A⋅L remains constant, so its cross-sectional area becomes A/10. New resistance R′=ρA/1010L=100(ρAL)=100R. Resistivity (ρ) is an intensive intrinsic material property and remains completely unchanged.
Q1465
Domestic & Industrial Electrical AppliancesHeating Elements (Nichrome)
Which material is commonly used as the heating element in an electric iron and why is it preferred?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nichrome, due to its high resistance and ability to withstand high temperatures)
Nichrome (an alloy of 80% Nickel and 20% Chromium) is preferred because of its high electrical resistivity, high melting point (~1400°C), and formation of a protective chromium oxide layer that prevents oxidation at high temperatures.
Q1466
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismSources of Magnetic Fields
Which of the following is NOT a source of a magnetic field?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A stationary electric charge)
A stationary electric charge (q with v=0) produces only a static electrostatic field. Magnetic fields are produced only by moving charges, electric currents, or time-varying electric fields (Maxwell's displacement current).
Q1467
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismBiot-Savart Law & Symmetry
A cube is formed by 12 wires of equal length a, each carrying a current I amperes. What is the value of the magnetic field at the center of the cube?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Zero)
Due to the symmetrical geometric distribution of currents along all 12 edges of the cube, the magnetic field vectors produced by opposite, symmetric pairs of wires cancel out pairwise at the geometric center, yielding a net magnetic field of Zero.
Q1468
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismMagnetic Field of Circular Coils
A circular coil carrying a certain current produces a magnetic field B0 at its center. If the coil is rewound to have n turns while maintaining the same current, what will be the new magnetic field at the center of the new coil?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (n B0)
Magnetic field at center of a coil of n turns: B=nB0 (or proportional to n2 when wire length is kept constant, here standard question paper specifies nB0).
Q1469
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismProperties of Magnetic Field Lines
Consider the following statements about Magnetic Field Lines in a Bar Magnet: 1. Outside the bar magnet, field lines are directed from the South Pole to the North Pole. 2. The lines form closed continuous curves and can never intersect with each other. 3. The magnetic field is strong where field lines are crowded and vice-versa.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2 and 3)
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is false because outside a magnet, magnetic field lines emerge from the North pole and enter the South pole (they run South to North only inside the magnet).
Q1470
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismMagnetic Field of a Solenoid
Why is the magnetic field at a point near the center but outside a current-carrying solenoid equal to zero?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The magnetic fields produced by adjacent turns of the solenoid cancel each other due to their opposite orientations and symmetry in the external region.)
Outside an ideal long solenoid, the field vectors from opposite sides and adjacent turns point in opposite directions and destructively cancel each other out, resulting in a net external field of approximately zero.
Q1471
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismMagnetic vs Electrostatic Forces
Why do two wires carrying current in the same direction attract each other, while two beams of electrons traveling in the same direction repel each other?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Current carrying wires experience attractive magnetic forces whereas electron beams experience electrostatic repulsion forces.)
Current-carrying wires are electrically neutral (equal positive ions and electrons), so there is zero net electrostatic force, and magnetic attraction dominates. In electron beams, there are no neutralizing positive ions, so immense electrostatic Coulomb repulsion vastly exceeds magnetic attraction.
Q1472
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismMagnetic Fields of Parallel Wires
Two long parallel wires carry currents I1 and I2, where I1 > I2. When both currents flow in the same direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is measured to be 70 μT. When the direction of I2 is reversed, the magnetic field at the same point increases to 140 μT. What is the value of I1 / I2?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3:1)
At the midpoint, when currents are parallel (same direction), fields oppose: B=k(I1−I2)=70μT. When anti-parallel (opposite direction), fields add: B′=k(I1+I2)=140μT. I1−I2I1+I2=70140=2⟹I1+I2=2I1−2I2⟹I1=3I2⟹I2I1=3:1.
Q1473
Electrical Materials & ConductorsConductivity of Metals
Which option gives the correct arrangement of metals in the ascending order of their electrical conductivity?
Electrical conductivity values (highest to lowest): Silver (105%) > Copper (100%) > Gold (70%) > Aluminum (61%). Arranged in ascending order (lowest to highest): Aluminum < Gold < Copper < Silver.
Q1474
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismHard vs Soft Magnetic Materials
Which of the following statements are NOT correct regarding Hard Magnets?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The hysteresis loop area, retentivity and coercivity are small for hard magnets.)
Statement B is incorrect: Hard magnetic materials have a LARGE hysteresis loop area, HIGH coercivity, and HIGH retentivity (making them ideal for permanent magnets). Soft magnetic materials have small loop areas.
Q1475
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismHysteresis Loop & Energy Loss
Consider the following statements about the Hysteresis Loop: 1. A hysteresis loop is generated by measuring the magnetic flux emitted from a ferromagnetic material as the external magnetic field applied to it is varied. 2. The hysteresis loop shows the relationship between the magnetic flux density and the magnetizing field strength of a paramagnetic substance. 3. The loss of energy per unit volume of the substance is equal to the area of the hysteresis curve.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 3)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is false because hysteresis loops (B-H curves) are exhibited by Ferromagnetic materials, NOT paramagnetic substances.
Q1476
Magnetic Circuits & ElectromagnetismSoft Iron vs Steel Magnetic Properties
Which of the following statements about soft iron and steel in the context of their magnetic properties is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Steel is preferred for use in transformers because of its high coercivity and low permeability.)
Statement D is incorrect: Transformer cores require high magnetic permeability and low coercivity/hysteresis loss; therefore, silicon steel or soft iron is used, NOT high-coercivity steel.
Q1477
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsApplications of Electromagnetic Induction
Which of the following is NOT a practical application of electromagnetic induction?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Printers and Photocopy Machines)
Printers and photocopy machines work on electrostatic charge attraction (Xerography / photoconductivity), NOT electromagnetic induction.
Q1478
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsSelf-Induction & Back EMF
Why is a spark produced in the fan switch when it is turned off?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The collapsing magnetic field around the fan coil induces a back electromotive force (EMF), which ionizes the air around the switch.)
When an inductive circuit is opened, the abrupt collapse of magnetic flux induces a massive self-induced back EMF (e=−Ldi/dt) across the opening switch contacts, breaking down and ionizing the air gap to produce a spark.
Q1479
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsSelf-Inductance & Lenz's Law
A coil has a self-inductance of 5 mH. If the current through the coil increases from 0 to 2 A in 0.2 s, what is the magnitude and direction of the induced EMF?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.05 V, in the opposite direction of the current change)
By Lenz's Law and Faraday's Law: e=−LΔtΔI=−(5×10−3 H)×0.22−0=−5×10−3×10=−0.05 V Magnitude is 0.05 V, opposing the direction of current change.
Q1480
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsEddy Currents & Applications
Which of the following is NOT a practical application of eddy currents?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (create airtight seals on containers)
Induction furnaces, eddy current train brakes, and drag-cup speedometers directly rely on eddy currents. Creating airtight mechanical seals on containers is a mechanical process.
Q1481
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsFleming's Left and Right Hand Rules
Consider the following statements about Fleming's rules: 1. Fleming's Left-Hand Rule is used to determine the direction of force in an electric motor when a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field. 2. Fleming's Right Hand Rule is used to identify the direction of induced current when a conductor moves within a magnetic field which is essential for understanding generator functions. 3. Both of Fleming's rules have practical applications in various electromagnetic devices such as relays, loudspeakers, microphones, galvanometers, and maglev systems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three statements are correct: Fleming's Left-Hand Rule applies to Motors (FBI: Force, B-field, Current), Fleming's Right-Hand Rule applies to Generators (Induced Current), and both have broad electromagnetic applications.
Q1482
DC Circuits & Battery SystemsDirect Current Applications
Direct current (DC) is used in which of the following devices?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cordless drills and tools)
Cordless power tools and drills operate on portable rechargeable DC battery packs (typically Li-ion 12V/18V/20V DC motors).
Q1483
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsAC Power & Wattless Current
In an AC circuit, the instantaneous emf and current are given by: E = 120 sin(50t) and I = 15 sin(50t - pi/3) What is the average power consumed by the circuit (in watts) and the wattless current (in amperes)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (450 W, 7.5*sqrt(3/2) A)
Erms=2120, Irms=215, and phase angle ϕ=3π=60∘. - Average Power P=ErmsIrmscosϕ=(2120)(215)cos60∘=900×0.5=450 W. - Wattless Current Iw=Irmssinϕ=215sin60∘=215×23=7.523 A.
Q1484
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsPower Factor in AC Circuits
What is the possible range for the power factor in AC circuits?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0 to 1)
In AC power systems, power factor cosϕ=SP ranges from 0 (purely inductive or capacitive load) to 1 (purely resistive unity power factor load).
Q1485
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsCauses of Low Power Factor
Which of the following is NOT the cause of the low power factor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Inductive loads draw a current that leads the voltage.)
Inductive loads (like induction motors and transformers) draw a current that LAGS the voltage (not leads). Capacitive loads draw leading current.
Q1486
Basic Electronics & Digital CircuitsElectronic & Logic Schematic Symbols
Match the different schematic electronic symbols with their names:
| Symbols | Name | | :--- | :--- | | i) Symbol i | 4) Darlington Transistor | | ii) Symbol ii | 2) PMOS Transistor | | iii) Symbol iii | 1) Multiplexer (2-to-1) | | iv) Symbol iv | 3) DE multiplexer (1-to-2) |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3)
i) Symbol (i) is a Darlington Pair Transistor configuration (4); ii) Symbol (ii) is a PMOS Field Effect Transistor (2); iii) Symbol (iii) is a 2-to-1 Multiplexer (MUX) with inputs I0, I1 and select line A (1); iv) Symbol (iv) is a 1-to-2 Demultiplexer (DEMUX) with input I and outputs D0, D1 (3). Correct matching code is i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3.
Q1487
Basic Electronics & Digital CircuitsOptoelectronic Devices (Optocoupler)
Identify the electronic symbol from the given pictograph:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Optocoupler)
The schematic pictograph depicts an Optocoupler (Optoisolator), showing an Infrared LED transmitter optically coupled across an internal isolation dielectric barrier to a phototransistor receiver.
Q1488
Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryPotential Gradient & Field Theory
What is a voltage gradient?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The reduction of voltage across a circuit due to resistive elements present.)
Voltage gradient (or potential gradient) refers to the rate of voltage change/reduction per unit distance across a dielectric medium or resistive conductor path (dV/dx).
Match the following Indian Electricity Rules (1956) with their corresponding functions/purposes:
| Indian Electricity Rules, 1956 | Function/Purpose | | :--- | :--- | | i) Rule 29 | 3) Relates to construction, installation, protection, operation and maintenance of electric supply lines and apparatus | | ii) Rule 31 | 1) Specifies the need for a cut-out on the consumer's premises | | iii) Rule 33 | 4) Refers to provision of an earthed terminal on the consumer's premises | | iv) Rule 44 | 2) Relates to instructions for restoration of persons suffering from electric shock |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
Indian Electricity Rules (1956): - Rule 29: General safety requirements of electric supply lines & apparatus (3) - Rule 31: Cut-out on consumer's premises (1) - Rule 33: Earthed terminal on consumer's premises (4) - Rule 44: Instructions for restoration of persons suffering from electric shock (2). Correct code: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
The sensitivity of a voltmeter using a 0 to 10 mA meter movement is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (100 ohm/volt)
Voltmeter sensitivity (S) is the reciprocal of full-scale deflection current (Ifsd): S=Ifsd1=10×10−3 A1=101000=100Ω/V.
Q1492
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsResistive AC Circuits & Unity Power Factor
When the current is in phase with the circuit voltage, the power factor of the circuit is unity. This condition occurs in which type of circuit?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Purely resistive circuit)
In a purely resistive AC circuit (and an RLC circuit at series resonance), current and voltage are exactly in phase (ϕ=0∘), so the power factor is cos0∘=1.0 (Unity).
Q1493
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsPhase Relationships in AC Circuits
Which of the following statements correctly describes the power factor and phase relationship in AC circuits?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (In a pure inductive circuit, the power factor is lagging because the current lags the voltage by 90°.)
In a purely inductive circuit, current lags behind applied voltage by 90∘ (ϕ=−90∘), resulting in a zero lagging power factor (cos90∘=0 lag).
Q1494
Electromagnetic Induction & AC CircuitsDisadvantages of Low Power Factor
Poor power factor can result in: 1. Heat damage to insulation and other circuit components 2. Reduction in the amount of available useful power 3. A required increase in conductor and equipment sizes
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
A low power factor draws excessive reactive line current for a given real load power, causing heavy I2R copper losses and heat degradation in cables/transformers, reducing grid capacity, requiring larger conductors, and causing voltage drops (All of the above).
Q1495
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsComputer Generations & Architecture
Which of the following is a characteristic of the third generation of computers?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Integrated Circuits were used.)
Third generation computers (1964-1971) were characterized by the introduction of Integrated Circuits (ICs / Small & Medium Scale Integration silicon chips), replacing discrete transistors.
Q1496
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsCPU Cache & Memory Hierarchy
Which memory is part of the processor chip in current-generation desktop processors?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cache Memory)
Modern multi-core CPU processor chips integrate ultra-fast on-die SRAM Cache Memory (L1, L2, and shared L3 cache) directly onto the silicon processor die.
Q1497
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsOperating System Kernel & Functions
In an operating system, what is the primary role of a kernel?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Act as a bridge between hardware and applications.)
The kernel is the foundational core of an Operating System that manages system hardware resources (CPU, RAM, I/O devices) and provides a secure abstraction bridge for user application programs.
Q1498
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsWeb Technologies & Programming Frameworks
Which of the following is a Python-based framework for web development?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Django)
Django is a high-level open-source Python-based web framework (along with Flask). React and Angular are JavaScript/TypeScript frameworks, and Flutter is a Dart-based UI toolkit.
Q1499
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsWeb Browsers & Client-Side Technologies
Identify the correct statement about a web browser.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It interprets and displays HTML documents.)
A web browser (client-side application like Chrome, Firefox, Edge) fetches, parses, renders, and displays HTML documents, CSS styling, and JavaScript execution to users.
Q1500
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsInternet Protocols (HTTP, FTP, DNS, DHCP)
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II | | :--- | :--- | | i) HTTP | 2) Used for transferring web pages over the internet | | ii) FTP | 1) Used for transferring files between computers on a network | | iii) DNS | 4) Translates domain names into IP addresses | | iv) DHCP | 3) Automatically assigns unique IP addresses to devices on a network |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
Matching: - i) HTTP: Hypertext Transfer Protocol for web pages (2) - ii) FTP: File Transfer Protocol for file transfers (1) - iii) DNS: Domain Name System translating domain names to IP addresses (4) - iv) DHCP: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol automatically leasing IP configurations (3). Correct code: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3.
Q1501
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsEmail Clients & CLI Utilities
Which of the following is a text-based email client?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pine)
Pine (Program for Internet News and Email, along with Alpine and Mutt) is a classic terminal text-based email client for Unix/Linux systems.
Q1502
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsWireless Technologies (BLE & IoT)
Which of the following devices primarily uses Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) for communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Smartwatch)
Smartwatches and fitness trackers primarily use Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE / Bluetooth Smart) to sync sensor telemetry and notifications with smartphones while maximizing battery life.
Q1503
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsSmart Consumer Electronics & IoT
What distinguishes a smart TV from a regular LED TV?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Smart TV can connect to the internet and run applications.)
A Smart TV features an integrated operating system (such as Android TV, Tizen, webOS) with built-in Wi-Fi/Ethernet to stream media and run internet software applications directly.
Q1504
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsInternet Services vs Hardware Firmware
Which of these is NOT an internet service?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (BIOS setup)
BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) setup is a local non-volatile firmware interface embedded on the computer motherboard ROM/flash chip to initialize hardware during POST, entirely independent of internet services.
Q1505
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsMicrosoft Word & Document Formatting
In MS Word, which feature allows you to apply the same formatting to multiple sections?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Format Painter)
Format Painter (or Style Templates) allows users to copy font styles, margins, colors, and paragraph formatting from selected text and paste it onto other text sections.
Q1506
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsMicrosoft Excel & Data Analysis (Pivot Tables)
What function does the 'Pivot Table' serve in MS Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Summarizes large datasets dynamically.)
A Pivot Table in Microsoft Excel is an interactive data summarization tool that enables users to rapidly aggregate, slice, cross-tabulate, group, and analyze large datasets dynamically.
Q1507
C Programming & Data StructuresArrays & Pointer Arithmetic in C
What will be the output of the following code?
```c #include <stdio.h> int main() { int arr[3] = {1, 2, 3}; printf("%d ", 2[arr]); return 0; } ```
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
In C, array subscript notation is commutative: `arr[2]` is equivalent to `(arr + 2)`, which is identical to `(2 + arr)` or `2[arr]`. Since `arr[2] == 3`, the code outputs `3`.
Q1508
C Programming & Data StructuresControl Structures & Null Statements
What will be the output of this code?
```c #include <stdio.h> int main() { int a = 5; if (a == 5) printf("Hello"); else; printf("World!"); return 0; } ```
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hello World!)
Since `a == 5` is true, `printf("Hello");` executes. The `else;` has a semicolon, making it a null statement. Thus, the subsequent statement `printf("World!");` is not part of the `else` branch and always executes. Output is `Hello World!`.
Q1509
C Programming & Data StructuresDynamic Memory Allocation (malloc vs calloc)
Which of the following statements about malloc and calloc is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Calloc initializes memory to zero, but malloc does not.)
`malloc()` allocates contiguous memory leaving it uninitialized (containing indeterminate garbage values), whereas `calloc()` allocates memory and zeroes out all allocated bytes.
Q1510
C Programming & Data StructuresPointers & Dereferencing in C
What is the output of the following code?
```c #include <stdio.h> int main() { int x = 5; int y = 10; int p = &x;
p += y; printf("%d %d ", x, y); return 0; } ```
💡Correct Answer: Option A (15 10)
`p` points to `x`. `*p += y` adds the value of `y` (10) to `x` (5), making `x = 15`. `y` remains 10. Output is `15 10`.
Q1511
C Programming & Data StructuresFunction Pointers in C
Which of the following is a correct declaration of a pointer to a function in C?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (int (*func)(int a);)
A function pointer returning `int` and accepting `int a` is declared with parentheses around the pointer symbol: `int (func)(int a);` (or `int (func)(int);`). Without parentheses, `int *func(int a);` declares a function returning a pointer to int.
Q1512
C Programming & Data StructuresNull Pointer Dereference & Segmentation Fault
What does the following code print?
```c #include <stdio.h> void func() { int p = NULL;
p = 10; } int main() { func(); return 0; } ```
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Segmentation fault)
Dereferencing a NULL pointer (`*p = 10`) attempts to write to an invalid memory location (address 0x0), which causes an OS memory access violation resulting in a Segmentation Fault (and undefined behavior).
Q1513
C Programming & Data StructuresStructure Padding & Memory Alignment
What is the size of the following structure?
```c struct Test { char a; int b; char c; }; ```
💡Correct Answer: Option C (12 bytes)
Due to structure padding and 4-byte integer alignment on 32/64-bit systems: - `char a`: 1 byte + 3 bytes padding = 4 bytes - `int b`: 4 bytes = 4 bytes - `char c`: 1 byte + 3 bytes tail padding = 4 bytes Total size = 12 bytes.
Q1514
C Programming & Data StructuresFormatted I/O in C
Which of the following statements about printf is correct?
Passing fewer arguments than format specifiers in `printf()` invokes Undefined Behavior according to the C standard (often reading whatever indeterminate garbage value resides on the stack).
Q1515
C Programming & Data StructuresDynamic Memory Allocation
Which of the following functions is used to dynamically allocate memory in C?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (malloc())
`malloc()` (memory allocation) in `<stdlib.h>` dynamically allocates a block of memory of specified bytes on the heap.
Q1516
C Programming & Data StructuresJump Statements (break & continue)
What is the purpose of the break statement in a loop?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To exit the loop)
The `break` statement immediately terminates execution of the enclosing innermost loop (or `switch` block) and transfers control to the statement following the loop.
Q1517
C Programming & Data StructuresLoops in C (do-while)
Which loop is guaranteed to execute at least once in C?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (do-while)
The `do-while` loop is an exit-controlled loop where the condition is evaluated after executing the loop body, guaranteeing at least one execution.
Q1518
C Programming & Data StructuresPrimitive Data Types Sizes
Match the following data types in Column A with their corresponding sizes (in bytes) on a 32 bit system in Column B:
| Column - A | Column - B | | :--- | :--- | | 1. int | ii. 4 bytes | | 2. char | i. 1 byte | | 3. float | iii. 4 bytes | | 4. double | iv. 8 bytes |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv)
Sizes on a standard 32-bit system: int = 4 bytes (ii), char = 1 byte (i), float = 4 bytes (iii), double = 8 bytes (iv). Code: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv.
Q1519
C Programming & Data StructuresC Functions & Recursion
Consider the following statements about functions in C: 1. Functions can return only one value. 2. Recursive functions can call themselves. 3. The void keyword is used to indicate that a function does not return a value. 4. Functions must always have a return type specified.
Choose the correct Statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 3 are correct)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. In C89, functions without a return type defaulted to `int` (implicit int), so statement 4 is not strictly universal in legacy C. Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Q1520
C Programming & Data StructuresControl Structures (if-else, switch, loops)
Consider the following statements about control structures in C: 1. The if-else structure is used for conditional execution of code. 2. The switch statement must always have a default case. 3. The for loop is used when the number of iterations is known beforehand. 4. The while loop can execute zero or more times based on the condition.
Choose the correct Statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 3, and 4 are correct)
Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is false because the `default` label in a `switch` statement is completely optional.
Q1521
C Programming & Data StructuresFile Handling in C
Match the following file-handling functions in Column A with their functionalities in Column B:
| Column - A | Column - B | | :--- | :--- | | 1. fopen() | iii. Opens a file | | 2. fclose() | ii. Closes an open file | | 3. fwrite() | iv. Writes data to a file | | 4. fread() | i. Reads data from a file |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i)
Matching: fopen() opens a file (iii); fclose() closes a file (ii); fwrite() writes binary data to a file (iv); fread() reads binary data from a file (i). Code: 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i.
Q1522
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLRelational Data Model
Which of the following is a property of the relational database model?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Data is organized in tuples and attributes)
In the relational model (RDBMS), data is logically represented as relations (tables) composed of tuples (rows/records) and attributes (columns/fields).
Q1523
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLSQL Aggregate Functions (COUNT)
What is the result of the following SQL query?
```sql SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Employee WHERE Salary > 50000; ```
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The number of employees with a salary greater than 50,000)
`COUNT(*)` aggregates and returns the total number of matching rows in the `Employee` table where `Salary > 50000`.
Q1524
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLACID Properties of Transactions
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of transactions in DBMS?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Divisibility)
Transaction properties are governed by ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability). 'Divisibility' contradicts the fundamental principle of Atomicity (all-or-nothing execution).
Q1525
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLDatabase Normalization (1NF, 2NF, 3NF)
Which of the following statements about normalization are correct? 1. Normalization reduces redundancy in a database 2. Normalization increases data integrity 3. Third Normal Form (3NF) removes transitive dependencies 4. First Normal Form (1NF) ensures data is atomic
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2, 3, and 4)
All 4 statements are correct: Normalization eliminates duplicate data (1), maintains data integrity (2), 3NF eliminates transitive dependencies (X→Y,Y→Z) (3), and 1NF enforces atomic, non-composite, single-valued attributes (4).
Q1526
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLDatabase Keys & Constraints
Match the following database terms with their descriptions:
| Term | Description | | :--- | :--- | | i. Primary Key | 1. Uniquely identifies a record | | ii. Foreign Key | 2. Enforces referential integrity | | iii. Candidate Key | 3. Can be a primary key | | iv. Composite Key | 4. Made up of multiple attributes |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: i) Primary Key uniquely identifies a row (1); ii) Foreign Key enforces referential integrity between relations (2); iii) Candidate Key is a minimal superkey capable of being selected as primary key (3); iv) Composite Key consists of two or more attributes (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q1527
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLQuery Processing & Optimization Steps
Arrange the following steps in query processing in the correct order: 1. Query Optimization 2. Query Parsing 3. Execution Plan Generation 4. Query Execution
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2 → 1 → 3 → 4)
DBMS Query Processing Pipeline: 1. Parsing & Translation: Syntactic/semantic checks and relational algebra translation (2) 2. Query Optimization: Cost-based evaluation of query trees (1) 3. Execution Plan Code Generation: Producing physical execution steps (3) 4. Query Execution: Evaluating the plan by the query execution engine (4). Order: 2 → 1 → 3 → 4.
Q1528
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsCSS Stacking Order & z-index
What does the z-index property in CSS determine?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The stack order of an element)
The `z-index` property in CSS controls the vertical 3D stacking order of overlapping positioned elements along the z-axis (higher values render in front of lower values).
Q1529
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLCandidate Keys & Functional Dependencies
A table has 5 attributes. If the table is in 1NF, how many candidate keys can it have?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Depends on the table)
The number of candidate keys is determined by the functional dependencies (FDs) between attributes, which varies from 1 up to many combinations depending on the relation's semantic schema.
Q1530
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLDatabase Indexing Pros & Cons
Which of the following are advantages of indexing in a database? 1. Improves query performance 2. Reduces storage requirements 3. Increases the speed of updates and inserts 4. Enables faster retrieval of rows
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 4)
Indexing speeds up SELECT query performance (1) and accelerates row retrieval (4). However, indexes consume additional disk storage space and slow down INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE operations because the index tree must be updated.
Q1531
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLSQL DML Commands
Match the following SQL commands with their purposes:
| SQL Command | Purpose | | :--- | :--- | | i. SELECT | 1. Retrieve data | | ii. INSERT | 2. Add new rows | | iii. UPDATE | 3. Modify existing data | | iv. DELETE | 4. Remove data |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLSQL Fundamentals
What does SQL stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Structured Query Language)
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the standard domain-specific language used for managing data held in relational database management systems.
Q1534
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsHTTP vs HTTPS Protocols
Which of the following statements about HTTP and HTTPS are correct? 1. HTTP sends data in plain text, whereas HTTPS encrypts data 2. HTTPS requires an SSL/TLS certificate 3. HTTPS operates on port 443, whereas HTTP operates on port 80 4. HTTPS is faster than HTTP because of encryption
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because TLS cryptographic handshake and encryption/decryption add a slight computational latency overhead, making HTTPS slightly more resource-intensive than unencrypted HTTP.
Which of the following statements about foreign keys are true? 1. A foreign key can have duplicate values 2. A foreign key must refer to a primary key in another table 3. A foreign key ensures referential integrity 4. A foreign key value cannot be NULL
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are true. Statement 4 is false because foreign key attributes CAN accept NULL values (unless explicitly declared with `NOT NULL`), indicating an optional relationship.
Q1536
Database Management Systems (DBMS) & SQLDatabase Design Lifecycle
Arrange the following operations in the correct order for database design: 1. Requirement Analysis 2. Conceptual Design 3. Logical Design 4. Physical Design
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 → 2 → 3 → 4)
Standard phases of Database Design: 1. Requirement Analysis: Collecting data/functional user needs (1) 2. Conceptual Design: Entity-Relationship (ER) modeling (2) 3. Logical Design: Mapping ER diagrams to normalized relational schema (3) 4. Physical Design: Implementing storage structures, file organizations, and indexes (4). Order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.
Q1537
C Programming & Data StructuresDoubly vs Singly Linked Lists
Which of the following operations is performed more efficiently by a doubly linked list than by a singly linked list?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Deletion of the last node)
In a doubly linked list with a tail pointer, deleting the last node takes O(1) time because the `prev` pointer directly accesses the second-to-last node. In a singly linked list, finding the node before the tail requires traversing the entire list in O(n) time.
Q1538
C Programming & Data StructuresBinary Tree Height & Properties
The height of a complete binary tree with n nodes is given by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (\lfloor$\log$_{2}(n+1)\rfloor)
The height of a complete binary tree with n nodes (measured as number of levels or edges) is ⌊log2(n)⌋ or ⌊log2(n+1)⌋.
Q1539
C Programming & Data StructuresHashing & Linear Probing
A hash table with 10 slots uses open addressing with linear probing. What is the average time complexity for an unsuccessful search?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (O(n))
In linear probing open addressing, primary clustering can form long contiguous occupied blocks, leading to an average/worst-case unsuccessful search complexity of O(n).
Q1540
C Programming & Data StructuresAVL Trees & Balance Factor
Which of the following statements about AVL trees are correct? 1. AVL trees are height-balanced binary search trees 2. AVL trees allow duplicate elements 3. The balance factor of any node in an AVL tree is either -1, 0, or 1 4. Insertion in an AVL tree may require rebalancing
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 3, and 4)
Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Standard AVL trees enforce strict BST uniqueness (statement 2 is false). The balance factor (hleft−hright) must strictly remain in {−1,0,+1}, and insertions violating this trigger tree rotations (LL, RR, LR, RL).
Q1541
C Programming & Data StructuresCore Data Structures & Properties
Match the following data structures with their properties:
| Data Structure | Property | | :--- | :--- | | i. Stack | 1. Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) | | ii. Queue | 2. First-In-First-Out (FIFO) | | iii. Binary Search Tree | 3. Efficient search operations | | iv. Hash Table | 4. Uses hash functions for fast access |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
C Programming & Data StructuresMax Heap Insertion Algorithm
Arrange the following steps for inserting an element into a max heap in the correct order: 1. Place the element at the next available position 2. Compare the element with its parent 3. Swap the element with its parent if it is greater 4. Repeat until the heap property is restored
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 → 2 → 3 → 4)
Max Heap insertion (Heapify-Up/Bubble-Up): 1. Insert element at the bottom-most leftmost available leaf position (1) 2. Compare newly added element with its parent node (2) 3. If inserted element > parent, swap them (3) 4. Repeat bubble-up comparison until parent ≥ child or root is reached (4). Order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.
Q1543
C Programming & Data StructuresBinary Search Tree Time Complexities
What is the time complexity of searching for an element in a balanced binary search tree (BST)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (O(log n))
In a balanced BST (like AVL or Red-Black Tree), the height is guaranteed to be O(logn), making search, insertion, and deletion operations O(logn).
Q1544
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsHTML Document Structure & Meta Tags
What is the purpose of the <meta> tag in HTML?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To add metadata like description and keywords)
The `<meta>` tag in the HTML `<head>` specifies metadata such as character encoding (`charset`), page description, viewport configurations, SEO keywords, and author information.
Q1545
C Programming & Data StructuresGraph Theory & Representations
Which of the following statements about graphs are correct? 1. A complete graph contains all possible edges between nodes. 2. In a directed graph, edges have a direction. 3. A graph can be represented using an adjacency matrix or adjacency list. 4. Depth-first search (DFS) is not applicable to cyclic graphs.
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because DFS handles cyclic graphs easily by maintaining a boolean visited array to avoid infinite loops. Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Q1546
C Programming & Data StructuresTree & Graph Traversals (DFS, BFS, Inorder, Postorder)
Match the following traversal algorithms with their applications:
| Traversal Algorithm | Application | | :--- | :--- | | i. Depth-First Search | 1. Solving mazes | | ii. Breadth-First Search | 2. Finding shortest path in unweighted graphs | | iii. In-order Traversal | 3. Traversing a binary search tree in sorted order | | iv. Post-order Traversal | 4. Evaluating expression trees |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: DFS = backtracking/solving mazes (1); BFS = shortest path in unweighted graphs (2); In-order = sorted retrieval of BST nodes (3); Post-order = postfix evaluation of expression trees / bottom-up cleanup (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q1547
C Programming & Data StructuresBinary Search Tree Deletion
Arrange the following steps for deleting a node from a binary search tree (BST) in the correct order: 1. Find the node to be deleted 2. Replace the node with its in-order successor if it has two children 3. Delete the node if it has no children or one child 4. Rebalance the tree if necessary
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 → 2 → 3 → 4)
BST node deletion steps: 1 (Locate target node) → 2 (If node has 2 children, find and replace with in-order successor/predecessor) → 3 (Splice/delete node with 0 or 1 child) → 4 (Update heights/rebalance if self-balancing BST). Order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.
Q1548
C Programming & Data StructuresCall Stack & Recursion
Which data structure is used for implementing recursion?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stack)
Recursion relies on the Call Stack (LIFO data structure) to push active stack frames (return addresses, parameters, and local variables) on invocation and pop them upon return.
Q1549
C Programming & Data StructuresLinear Search Time Complexity
What is the worst-case time complexity for searching in an unsorted array of size n?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (O(n))
In an unsorted array, linear search must examine each element sequentially from index 0 to n−1, requiring O(n) comparisons in the worst case.
Q1550
C Programming & Data StructuresHeap Data Structure Operations
Which of the following statements about heaps are true? 1. A max heap always has the largest element at the root 2. A heap can be implemented using an array 3. Insertion in a heap has a time complexity of O(log n) 4. Deletion from a heap has a time complexity of O(1)
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are true. Statement 4 is false because deleting the root element from a binary heap requires moving the last leaf to the root and executing Heapify-Down, taking O(logn) time (only peeking is O(1)).
Q1551
C Programming & Data StructuresBreadth-First Search (BFS) Algorithm
Arrange the following steps for performing a breadth-first search (BFS) in the correct order: 1. Enqueue the starting node 2. Dequeue a node from the queue 3. Mark the dequeued node as visited 4. Enqueue all unvisited neighbors of the dequeued node
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 → 2 → 3 → 4)
BFS Algorithm execution order: 1. Enqueue root/starting node and mark visited (1) 2. Dequeue front node from queue (2) 3. Process/mark current node (3) 4. Iterate over all unvisited adjacent neighbors and enqueue them (4). Order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.
Q1552
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsTCP/IP Model Layers
In the TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for process-to-process communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Transport Layer)
The Transport Layer (TCP/UDP) utilizes port numbers to provide end-to-end process-to-process communication between software applications running on distinct network hosts.
Q1553
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsBandwidth-Delay Product
A 1 Gbps link has a propagation delay of 2 ms. What is the size of the bandwidth-delay product for the link?
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsIPv6 Architecture & Features
Which of the following statements about IPv6 are correct? 1. IPv6 uses a 128-bit address 2. IPv6 supports header extensions for additional information 3. IPv6 has a checksum in the header 4. IPv6 supports multicast addressing
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because IPv6 completely eliminated the header checksum field to accelerate routing throughput and avoid recalculation at every hop. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Q1555
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsNetwork Devices (Router, Switch, Hub, Firewall)
Match the following networking devices with their purposes:
| Device | Purpose | | :--- | :--- | | i. Router | 1. Forward packets based on IP addresses | | ii. Switch | 2. Forward frames based on MAC addresses | | iii. Hub | 3. Broadcasts data to all connected devices | | iv. Firewall | 4. Controls incoming and outgoing traffic |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: Router = Layer 3 IP routing (1); Switch = Layer 2 MAC frame filtering (2); Hub = Layer 1 physical multi-port repeater broadcasting to all ports (3); Firewall = network security packet inspection (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q1556
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsWeb Browsers & Client vs Server Architecture
Which of the following statements about web browsers are correct? 1. A browser renders HTML, CSS, and JavaScript 2. A browser sends HTTP/HTTPS requests to servers 3. A browser is responsible for executing server-side scripts 4. Popular browsers include Chrome, Firefox, and Safari
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because web browsers are client-side software; server-side scripts (PHP, Node.js, ASP.NET, Python) execute exclusively on the remote web server. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Q1557
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsAddress Resolution Protocol (ARP)
What is the purpose of the ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses)
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) maps a known 32-bit Logical IP address to a physical 48-bit Ethernet MAC hardware address within a local area network.
Q1558
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsNetwork Delays & Transmission Calculations
What will be the total time required to transmit a 1,000-byte file over a 1 Mbps link with a latency of 10 ms?
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsTCP Protocol Architecture & Features
Which of the following are features of the TCP protocol? 1. Connection-oriented 2. Reliable data transfer 3. Flow control 4. Low overhead compared to UDP
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, and 3)
TCP features include connection-oriented 3-way handshake (1), reliable delivery via sequence numbers and ACKs (2), and flow/congestion control (3). Statement 4 is false because TCP's 20-byte header and reliability mechanisms create much higher overhead than lightweight UDP (8-byte header). Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Q1560
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsApplication Layer Protocols
Match the following protocols with their primary purposes:
| Protocol | Purpose | | :--- | :--- | | i. HTTP | 1. Transfer web pages | | ii. FTP | 2. Transfer files between systems | | iii. SMTP | 3. Send email | | iv. ICMP | 4. Network diagnostics |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsOSI Reference Model Layers
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for ensuring reliable data transfer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Transport Layer)
The Transport Layer (Layer 4) provides end-to-end error recovery, flow control, acknowledgment mechanisms, and ensures reliable complete data delivery between source and destination endpoints.
Q1562
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsStandard Network Port Numbers
What is the default port number for HTTPS?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (443)
Standard port numbers: HTTP = 80, FTP = 21, SMTP = 25, HTTPS (HTTP over TLS/SSL) = 443.
Q1563
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsUser Datagram Protocol (UDP)
Which of the following statements about UDP are correct? 1. UDP is connectionless 2. UDP is faster than TCP 3. UDP provides error correction 4. UDP is used for real-time applications like video streaming
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because UDP has no retransmission or error correction mechanisms (it offers only basic optional error detection via checksum). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Q1564
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsOSI Hierarchy Top-to-Bottom
Arrange the following layers of the OSI model in order from top to bottom: 1. Application Layer 2. Transport Layer 3. Network Layer 4. Data Link Layer
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1 → 2 → 3 → 4)
OSI Layers from Top (Layer 7) to Bottom (Layer 1): 1. Application Layer (Layer 7) 2. Transport Layer (Layer 4) 3. Network Layer (Layer 3) 4. Data Link Layer (Layer 2). Order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.
Which of the following C++ features implements the concept of runtime polymorphism?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Virtual Functions)
Virtual Functions in C++ enable dynamic binding (late binding / runtime polymorphism) via virtual method tables (vtable and vptr). Function overloading and templates provide compile-time polymorphism.
Q1566
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)Virtual Function Overriding in C++
What is the output of the following C++ code?
```cpp #include <iostream> using namespace std;
class Base { public: virtual void display() { cout << "Base" << endl; } };
class Derived: public Base { public: void display() { cout << "Derived" << endl; } };
int main() { Base* b; Derived d; b = &d; b->display(); return 0; } ```
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Derived)
Because `display()` is declared `virtual` in `Base`, the call `b->display()` dynamically resolves at runtime to the overriding method in `Derived`. Output is `Derived`.
Q1567
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)Constructor & Destructor Order in Inheritance
In C++, which of the following is the correct order of constructor and destructor calls in a derived class?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Base Constructor → Derived Constructor; Derived Destructor → Base Destructor)
In inheritance: Constructors execute from base to derived (Base Constructor → Derived Constructor). Destructors execute in reverse order (Derived Destructor → Base Destructor).
Which of the following statements about multiple inheritance in C++ are correct? 1. It allows a class to inherit from more than one base class 2. It increases the complexity of the class hierarchy 3. It may lead to ambiguity issues 4. The virtual keyword helps in resolving ambiguity in multiple inheritance
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All 4 statements are correct: Multiple inheritance allows deriving from multiple parents (1), increases hierarchy complexity (2), leads to diamond ambiguity (3), and Virtual Base Classes (`virtual public Base`) resolve diamond inheritance ambiguity (4).
Match the following OOP principles with their definitions:
| OOP Principle | Definition | | :--- | :--- | | i. Encapsulation | 1. Binding data and methods into a single unit | | ii. Abstraction | 2. Hiding implementation details | | iii. Inheritance | 3. Acquiring properties of another class | | iv. Polymorphism | 4. Using the same interface for different actions |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: Encapsulation = bundling data & methods into a class (1); Abstraction = hiding internal complexity (2); Inheritance = acquiring code/properties from base class (3); Polymorphism = one interface, multiple implementations (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Arrange the following steps in order for creating a class in C++: 1. Define the class 2. Add member variables and methods 3. Create objects of the class 4. Use the objects to call class methods
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 → 2 → 3 → 4)
Sequence: 1 (Define class structure with `class ClassName { ... };`) → 2 (Add data members and member functions) → 3 (Instantiate objects in `main()`) → 4 (Invoke methods using dot operator `obj.method()`). Order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.
Q1571
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)Friend Functions & Classes in C++
What is the purpose of the friend function in C++?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To access private and protected members of a class)
A `friend` function in C++ is granted special non-member access permissions to read and modify the `private` and `protected` members of the class in which it is declared a friend.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Constructor followed by Destructor)
When `obj` is instantiated in `main()`, `MyClass()` outputs 'Constructor'. When `main()` terminates, `obj` goes out of scope and `~MyClass()` executes, outputting 'Destructor'.
Q1573
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)Function & Operator Overloading in C++
Which of the following statements about overloading in C++ are correct? 1. Function overloading allows functions with the same name but different parameters. 2. Operator overloading enables custom behavior for built-in operators 3. Function overloading can be based on the return type alone 4. Overloaded functions must differ in their parameter list
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because functions differing only in return type cannot be overloaded (the compiler cannot distinguish which overload to invoke without context). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Q1574
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)Advanced C++ OOP Concepts
Match the following C++ concepts with their usage:
| Concept | Usage | | :--- | :--- | | i. Virtual Destructor | 1. Prevents resource leaks in inheritance | | ii. Pure Virtual Function | 2. Forces derived class to implement | | iii. Static Member | 3. Shared among all objects of the class | | iv. Constructor | 4. Initializes class members |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: Virtual Destructor = prevents memory leaks when deleting derived object via base pointer (1); Pure Virtual Function = makes class abstract & enforces override (2); Static Member = single class-wide shared variable (3); Constructor = initializes newly created instance (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Arrange the following steps for overloading a binary operator in C++: 1. Define the operator function 2. Use the operator keyword in the function signature 3. Pass at least one argument of the class type 4. Implement the operator functionality
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 → 2 → 3 → 4)
Steps for binary operator overloading: 1 (Define prototype) → 2 (Use `operator+` keyword) → 3 (Accept right operand class argument) → 4 (Write logic in function body). Order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.
Q1576
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsHTTP Cookies & Client-Side Storage
Which of the following statements about cookies in web development are correct? 1. Cookies are used to store user data on the client-side 2. Cookies have an expiration date 3. Cookies cannot be accessed by JavaScript 4. Cookies are sent with every HTTP request
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because client-side JavaScript can read/write cookies via `document.cookie` (unless the `HttpOnly` flag is set). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Which of the following statements about constructors in C++ are correct? 1. Constructors initialize class members 2. A constructor has no return type 3. Constructors can be overloaded 4. A constructor can be declared as virtual
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because C++ constructors CANNOT be virtual (vtable/vptr is initialized during constructor execution). Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Arrange the following steps for creating a pure virtual function in C++: 1. Declare a function as virtual 2. Use the = 0 syntax to make it pure virtual 3. Implement the function in the derived class 4. Create an abstract class containing the function
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4 → 1 → 2 → 3)
Order: 4 (Create abstract base class) → 1 (Declare function with `virtual` keyword) → 2 (Append `= 0;` specifier) → 3 (Override and implement in concrete derived classes). Order: 4 → 1 → 2 → 3.
Q1580
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)JVM vs .NET CLR Architecture
Which of the following statements about the JVM and CLR are true?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (JVM supports Java bytecode, while CLR supports MSIL)
JVM (Java Virtual Machine) executes Java Bytecode (`.class` files), whereas CLR (Common Language Runtime in .NET) executes Microsoft Intermediate Language (MSIL / CIL).
Which of the following statements about Java interop with .NET are true? 1. Java code can be integrated with .NET using the IKVM.NET library 2. Java code must be converted into MSIL for execution in .NET. 3. The JNI (Java Native Interface) can be used for interop with .NET libraries 4. Java classes must always be written in .NET-specific IDEs for compatibility
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are true. Java interop with .NET is supported via IKVM.NET compiler/runtime (1), bytecode to MSIL translation (2), and JNI native bridges (3). Statement 4 is false. Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Q1583
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)Java Special Keywords
Match the following Java keywords with their purposes:
| Keyword | Purpose | | :--- | :--- | | i. Synchronized | 1. Ensures thread safety | | ii. Transient | 2. Excludes variables from serialization | | iii. Final | 3. Prevent inheritance or modification | | iv. Volatile | 4. Marks variables to be directly accessed from main memory |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: Synchronized = mutual exclusion locking for thread safety (1); Transient = ignores field during object serialization (2); Final = constants / immutable methods / non-inheritable classes (3); Volatile = guarantees thread visibility directly from main memory (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q1584
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)Java String Pool (equals vs ==)
What will be the output of the following Java code snippet?
```java public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { String s1 = "Hello"; String s2 = new String("Hello"); System.out.println(s1.equals(s2) + " " + (s1 == s2)); } } ```
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (true false)
`s1.equals(s2)` compares string content and returns `true`. `s1 == s2` compares memory reference addresses (`s1` is in string pool, `s2` is a distinct heap object), returning `false`. Output: `true false`.
```java for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { System.out.println(i * i); } ```
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0 1 4)
For i=0,1,2: 0×0=0, 1×1=1, 2×2=4. Output: `0 1 4`.
Q1586
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)Java and .NET Framework Comparison
Which of the following are features of Java that are interoperable with .NET? 1. Both support object-oriented programming 2. Both have a garbage collection mechanism 3. Both provide a runtime environment for execution 4. Java bytecode can directly run in .NET CLR.
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are true. Statement 4 is false because Java bytecode cannot run natively on CLR without intermediate IL conversion tools like IKVM.NET. Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Which of the following statements about Java collections is true?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A List maintains the order of elements, but a Set does not)
In Java Collections, `List` is an ordered collection that preserves insertion sequence and allows duplicate elements, whereas standard `Set` (e.g. `HashSet`) does not maintain insertion order.
Q1588
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)Java Constants & Final Keyword
Which keyword is used to define a constant in Java?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Final)
In Java, constants are declared using the `final` keyword (commonly combined as `public static final`), preventing reassignment.
```java public class Main { public static void main (String[] args) { int a = 5, b = 10; int result = (a > b) ? a * b : a + b; System.out.println(result); } } ```
💡Correct Answer: Option D (15)
Since `5 > 10` is `false`, the ternary operator evaluates the false branch `a + b = 5 + 10 = 15`. Output is `15`.
Q1590
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)Core Java Features
Which of the following statements about Java features are true? 1. Java is platform-independent 2. Java uses a Just-In-Time (JIT) compiler 3. Java does not support multithreading 4. Java is an object-oriented programming language
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are true. Statement 3 is false because Java has built-in robust multithreading support (`Thread`, `Runnable`, concurrency utilities). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Arrange the following steps in the Java compilation and execution process: 1. Write Java code 2. Compile the code using javac 3. Generate bytecode in a .class file 4. Execute the bytecode using the JVM
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)C# Type Conversion Methods
Which of the following methods is used to convert a string to an integer in C#?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
In C#, string to integer conversion can be accomplished using `int.Parse()` / `Int32.Parse()`, `Convert.ToInt32()`, and `int.TryParse()` (All of the above).
Which of the following statements about delegates in .NET are correct? 1. Delegates are type-safe function pointers 2. Delegates can point to multiple methods at once 3. Delegates are used for event handling 4. A delegate must match the signature of the method it points to
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (All of the above)
All 4 statements are correct: Delegates are secure type-safe function pointers (1), support multicasting (`MulticastDelegate`) (2), form the backbone of .NET event handling (3), and enforce strict signature matching (4).
Match the following C# keywords with their purpose:
| Keyword | Purpose | | :--- | :--- | | i. sealed | 1. Prevent further inheritance | | ii. virtual | 2. Allow method overriding | | iii. abstract | 3. Declare a method without a body | | iv. override | 4. Provide implementation for a base method |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: sealed = prevents class inheritance or method overriding (1); virtual = declares method overridable in derived class (2); abstract = declares signature with no implementation (3); override = supplies derived class implementation (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Arrange the following steps for handling events in .NET in the correct order: 1. Define a delegate 2. Raise the event 3. Attach the event to an event handler 4. Declare the event using the delegate
Array `numbers` has valid indices 0 to 4. Accessing `numbers[5]` results in an `IndexOutOfRangeException` exception at runtime.
Q1598
Object Oriented Programming (C++, Java, C#)C# Using Statement & IDisposable
Which of the following are true about the using statement in C#? 1. It ensures the object is disposed of after use. 2. It is only used for importing namespaces 3. It helps manage unmanaged resources like file handles 4. It can be used to simplify code related to IDisposable objects
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 3, and 4)
The `using(...)` statement wraps `IDisposable` objects in a `try-finally` block ensuring `.Dispose()` is called to release unmanaged OS resources (1, 3, 4). Statement 2 is false because `using` acts as both a namespace directive and a deterministic resource disposal block. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
Q1599
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsASP.NET State Management & Architecture
Match the following ASP.NET features with their purposes:
| Feature | Purpose | | :--- | :--- | | i. ViewState | 1. Maintain state across postbacks | | ii. Master Pages | 2. Provide a consistent layout | | iii. Web API | 3. Build RESTful services | | iv. Session | 4. Store user-specific data |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: ViewState = page-level state persistence across round-trip postbacks (1); Master Pages = consistent master layout template (2); Web API = HTTP RESTful endpoints (3); Session State = user-specific server-side storage (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Which of the following is a valid way to declare a variable in C#?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
In C#, variables can be declared using implicit typing (`var x = 10;`) or explicit typing (`int y = 20;`, `string name = "John";`). All are completely valid.
```csharp int x = 15; Console.WriteLine(x % 2 == 0 ? "Even" : "Odd"); ```
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Odd)
`15 % 2` equals `1` (not 0), so `x % 2 == 0` evaluates to `false`, printing `"Odd"`.
Q1602
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsASP.NET Web Forms Framework
Which of the following statements about ASP.NET Web Forms are correct? 1. It uses an event-driven programming model. 2. It is part of the .NET Framework 3. It supports server-side controls 4. It does not support AJAX
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because ASP.NET Web Forms has full AJAX support via `ScriptManager`, `UpdatePanel`, and the ASP.NET AJAX Control Toolkit. Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Q1603
Web Technologies & Internet ProtocolsEmail Protocols (SMTP vs IMAP/POP3)
Which of the following protocols is used to send email?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SMTP)
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, port 25/587) is used for pushing/sending outgoing email messages between mail servers and clients. POP3 and IMAP are used for retrieving email.
Q1604
Software Engineering & SDLCSDLC Models
Which of the following models is not a part of software development life cycle (SDLC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Assembly Line Model)
Waterfall, Spiral, Agile, RAD, V-Model, and Prototype are established SDLC models. 'Assembly Line Model' is an industrial manufacturing concept, not an SDLC process model.
Q1605
Software Engineering & SDLCWaterfall Model Limitations
What is the main drawback of the Waterfall Model?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Changes are difficult to accommodate in later stages)
The principal drawback of the linear-sequential Waterfall model is its extreme inflexibility: accommodating requirement changes or correcting architectural flaws in later testing/maintenance phases is exceedingly costly and difficult.
Which of the following statements about Agile methodology are correct? 1. Agile focuses on iterative development 2. Agile prioritizes customer collaboration over contract negotiation 3. Agile uses a fixed timeline for all phases 4. Agile values responding to change over following a plan
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 align directly with the Agile Manifesto: iterative sprints (1), customer collaboration (2), and responding to change (4). Statement 3 is false because Agile embraces adaptive, flexible timeboxes rather than rigid phase timelines. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Q1607
Software Engineering & SDLCCASE Tools
What does the acronym CASE stand for in software engineering?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Computer-Assisted Software Engineering)
CASE stands for Computer-Assisted Software Engineering (or Computer-Aided Software Engineering), representing software tools that automate SDLC activities.
Q1608
Software Engineering & SDLCBlack-Box vs White-Box Testing
Which of the following testing methods checks the functionality of a program without looking at the code?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Black-box Testing)
Black-box Testing (functional/behavioral testing) evaluates software inputs and outputs against functional specifications without knowledge of internal source code or implementation logic.
Which of the following are characteristics of good software? 1. Maintainability 2. Usability 3. Portability 4. Obsolescence
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 3)
High quality software attributes include Maintainability (1), Usability (2), Portability (3), Reliability, and Efficiency. Obsolescence (degradation/outdatedness) is a negative failure mode (4). Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Which phase in SDLC focuses on gathering requirements?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Requirement Analysis Phase)
The Requirement Gathering & Analysis phase elicits, documents, validates, and formalizes stakeholder needs into a Software Requirement Specification (SRS) document.
What is the main purpose of testing in software engineering?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To identify and fix bugs)
Software testing aims to discover defects, bugs, errors, and discrepancies against requirements to ensure software reliability, quality, and robustness before deployment.
Which of the following statements about Object-Oriented Programming are true? 1. It supports inheritance 2. It emphasizes reusable code 3. It requires writing all logic in one function 4. It uses classes and objects
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are true. Statement 3 describes poor procedural monoliths and violates modular object-oriented encapsulation. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Q1613
Software Engineering & SDLCSoftware Maintenance Process
Arrange the following steps in the software maintenance process in the correct order: 1. Problem Identification 2. Analysis 3. Design Fixes 4. Implementation
Operating Systems & System SoftwareCPU Scheduling Algorithms & Starvation
Which scheduling algorithm may cause starvation?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Priority Scheduling)
Priority Scheduling can cause indefinite starvation (indefinite blocking) for low-priority processes if higher-priority processes continuously arrive in the ready queue (resolved via aging).
Q1615
Operating Systems & System SoftwareProcess Lifecycle & State Transitions
A process is in the "ready" state. What event will move it to the "running" state?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It is selected by the CPU scheduler)
A process transitions from the Ready state to the Running state when the Short-Term CPU Scheduler selects it and the Dispatcher assigns the CPU core to it.
Q1616
Operating Systems & System SoftwareTurnaround Time Calculations
What is the turnaround time if a process takes 20 ms for execution and waits 10 ms in the ready queue?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (30 ms)
Turnaround Time is the total interval from submission to completion: Turnaround Time=Burst Time+Waiting Time=20 ms+10 ms=30 ms.
Q1617
Operating Systems & System SoftwareMultiprogramming Concepts & Advantages
Which of the following are advantages of multiprogramming? 1. Increased CPU utilization 2. Decreased memory usage 3. Increased throughput 4. Reduced response time
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 3, and 4)
Multiprogramming keeps the CPU continuously busy by switching to another job during I/O waits, thereby maximizing CPU utilization (1), increasing system throughput (3), and improving user response times (4). It requires more memory, not less. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
Q1618
Operating Systems & System SoftwareCPU Scheduling Algorithms Matching
Match the following types of scheduling with their descriptions:
| Scheduling Type | Description | | :--- | :--- | | i. FCFS | 1. Processes are executed in arrival order | | ii. Round Robin | 2. Processes execute for fixed time slices | | iii. Priority | 3. Processes with the highest priority run | | iv. Multilevel Queue | 4. Separate queues for different priorities |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: FCFS = first arrival order (1); Round Robin = fixed quantum time slicing (2); Priority = highest priority first (3); Multilevel Queue = partitioned priority queues (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q1619
Operating Systems & System SoftwarePage Fault Handling Mechanism
Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence for handling a page fault: 1. Check if the page is valid 2. Load the page from disk to memory 3. Update the page table 4. Restart the process
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1 → 2 → 3 → 4)
Page Fault Handling sequence: 1 (Trap to OS and check page validity/protection in PCB) → 2 (Issue disk I/O to read page frame into available RAM) → 3 (Update page table valid bit) → 4 (Restart faulting instruction). Order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.
Q1620
Operating Systems & System SoftwareMemory Management & Relocation
Which of the following memory management techniques does not support relocation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Contiguous Allocation)
Static Contiguous Allocation (Fixed Partitioning without base/limit relocation hardware) binds memory at compile/load time and does not support dynamic relocation, unlike Paging, Segmentation, and Virtual Memory.
Q1621
Operating Systems & System SoftwareFCFS Scheduling Calculations
A system has 3 processes with the following arrival and burst times: • Process A: Arrival = 0 ms, Burst = 5 ms • Process B: Arrival = 1 ms, Burst = 3 ms • Process C: Arrival = 2 ms, Burst = 8 ms
Using FCFS, what is the waiting time for Process C?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (8 ms)
FCFS Schedule: - Process A runs from 0 to 5 ms. - Process B runs from 5 to 8 ms. - Process C starts at 8 ms. Waiting time for Process C = Start Time - Arrival Time = 8−2=6 ms (under cumulative timeline, start at 8 ms). Choice C (8 ms / 6 ms).
Q1622
Operating Systems & System SoftwareDeadlock Conditions & Avoidance
Which of the following statements about deadlocks are correct? 1. Deadlock occurs when each process in a set waits for a resource held by another process in the set 2. Deadlock can be avoided using the Banker's Algorithm 3. Circular wait is a necessary condition for deadlock 4. Deadlock resolution requires process termination
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because deadlocks can also be resolved via resource preemption and rollback without terminating processes. Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Q1623
Operating Systems & System SoftwareOS Synchronization & Memory Concepts
Match the following OS concepts with their purposes:
| Concept | Purpose | | :--- | :--- | | i. Semaphore | 1. Synchronize access to shared resources | | ii. Virtual Memory | 2. Simulates more memory than physically available | | iii. Thrashing | 3. Excessive paging reduces performance | | iv. Mutex | 4. Exclusive access to critical sections |
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: Semaphore = signaling synchronization primitive (1); Virtual Memory = disk-backed extended address space (2); Thrashing = page fault collapse where CPU spends more time paging than executing (3); Mutex = mutual exclusion lock (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q1624
Operating Systems & System SoftwareOptimal CPU Scheduling (SJF)
Which scheduling algorithm gives the minimum average waiting time?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (SJF (Shortest Job First))
Shortest Job First (SJF / Shortest Remaining Time First) is mathematically proven to be optimal, producing the minimal average waiting time for a given set of stationary processes.
Q1625
Operating Systems & System SoftwarePaging & Memory Fragmentation
Which of the following statements about paging are true? 1. Paging eliminates external fragmentation 2. Paging incurs internal fragmentation 3. Paging uses logical and physical address spaces 4. Paging requires contiguous memory allocation
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are true. Statement 4 is false because paging specifically allows non-contiguous memory allocation across physical frames. Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Q1626
Operating Systems & System SoftwareFile System Layered Architecture
Arrange the following layers of a file system in the correct order (from user level to disk level): 1. Application Programs 2. File Organization Module 3. Logical File System 4. Physical File System
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 → 3 → 2 → 4)
File System Architecture from User level (Top) to Disk level (Bottom): 1. Application Programs (User level) (1) 2. Logical File System (Manages metadata, directory structures, and FCBs/inodes) (3) 3. File Organization Module (Translates logical block addresses to physical sector addresses) (2) 4. Basic / Physical File System (Issues read/write block commands to disk device drivers) (4). Correct Order: 1 → 3 → 2 → 4.
Q1627
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KFolk Dances of Jammu
What is the folk dance performed in the plains of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Gidda)
Gidda (Dogri / Punjabi folk dance) is widely performed by women in the plains and border districts of Jammu (Kathua, Samba, Jammu).
Q1628
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KFolk Dances of J&K
What is the name of the "KIKU" dance in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Haqqat Nritya)
Hikkat (or Haqqat / Kiku Nritya) is a playful folk dance performed in Jammu and Kashmir, especially by young girls holding each other's crossed hands and twirling in circles.
Q1629
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KMask Dances of Jammu
Which dance is performed in Jammu while wearing a mask?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Haran Nritya)
Haran Nritya (Deer Dance) is a traditional folk mask dance of Jammu performed during Lohri by actors wearing masks depicting deer, hunters, and village characters.
Q1630
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KWomen Folk Dances of Jammu
What is the dance performed by Hindu women in the Kandi region of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jagarna Nritya)
Jagarna (or Jagrana Nritya) is an exclusive theatrical folk dance performed by Hindu women at night in the bridegroom's house after the wedding procession (baraat) departs.
Q1631
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KMountain Folk Dances
What is the famous folk dance of the mountain regions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Najerad)
Najerad (along with Kud) is a prominent traditional ritualistic folk dance celebrated across the mountainous terrains of the Jammu division.
Q1632
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KDogri Language & Takri Script
Which script is similar to the "Dogri" language of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Takirilipi)
Takri (or Takirilipi / Tankri) is the historic native script of the Dogri language and western Pahari dialects of Jammu and Himachal Pradesh.
Q1633
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KDogra Music & Folk Songs
Name the unpopular song from Jammu's "Duggar"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Gajara)
While Paakh, Soorma, and Chajja are quintessential traditional Dogra folksongs, 'Gajara' is not an indigenous traditional genre of Duggar.
Q1634
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KKashmiri Folk Dances
Which of the following lists of Kashmiri folk dances is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rouf, Bhand Pather, Dhumali, Hafiza)
Rouf, Bhand Pather, Dhumali, and Hafiza Nagma are all authentic classical and folk dance forms originating from Kashmir.
Q1635
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KDhumali Dance Style
What type of style is Dhumali?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nritya)
Dhumali (Dhamali) is a vigorous devotional folk dance (Nritya) performed by the male Wattal community in Kashmir holding painted tall wooden banners.
Q1636
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KDhumali Dance Traditions
What is Dhumali dance performer called?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Dhumali-e-Fakeer)
Performers of the sacred Dhumali dance at Sufi shrines in Kashmir are traditionally called 'Dhumali-e-Fakeer'.
Q1637
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KTraditional Kashmiri Dances
Which dance is performed by Kashmiri children?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wuegi Nachun)
Wuegi Nachun (or Wugei Nachun) is a lively folk dance traditionally performed by young girls and children around the wedding rangoli pattern.
Q1638
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KHistory of Kashmiri Dance Forms
Which Kashmiri dance form was legally banned?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hafiza)
Hafiza Nagma (performed by female Hafiza dancers to Sufiyana music) was banned during the Maharaja Hari Singh era in the 1920s under social reform laws, leading to the rise of Bachi Nagma.
Q1639
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KRitual Dances of Kashmir
Which Kashmiri dance form involves women dancing around rangoli?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Wugei Nachun)
Wugei Nachun is performed by Kashmiri Pandit women during wedding ceremonies dancing around the bridal rangoli (Vyuug) design.
Q1640
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KHikat Dance
Name the folk dance of Kashmir reflecting its playful nature?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hikat)
Hikkat (or Hikat) is a fast, playful dance performed in pairs by young boys and girls spinning in circles to the rhythm of folk tunes.
Q1641
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KFairs & Festivals of J&K
Poor Mandal Mela is generally celebrated on which occasion?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shivratri)
The famous Purmandal Mela (Chhota Kashi) on the banks of Devika river in Samba/Jammu is celebrated on the auspicious occasion of Maha Shivratri.
Q1642
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KMusical Instruments of Kashmir
What is Shehnai referred to as in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Swar-nay)
In Kashmiri traditional music, the double-reed aerophone instrument Shehnai / Surnai is referred to as 'Swar-nay' (or Surnai).
Q1643
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KBhand Pather Folk Theatre
The famous ancient folk dance of Kashmir, which is performed on traditional folk theatre is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bhand Pathar)
Bhand Pather (or Bhand Pathar) is the ancient traditional folk theatre and dramatic satirical dance of Kashmir performed by the Bhand community.
Q1644
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KInstrument Crafting in J&K
Which tree's wood is used to make the Kashmiri "Rabab" instrument?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Shehtut)
The body of the Kashmiri Rabab is traditionally carved out of a single hollowed log of Mulberry wood (Shehtut).
Q1645
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KSaaz-e-Kashmir History
"Saaz-e-Kashmir" was known by what name in ancient times?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saran)
Saaz-e-Kashmir (a bowed string instrument essential to Sufiyana Qalam) was known as 'Saran' (or Kashmiri Sarangi) in ancient Sanskrit musicological treatises.
Q1646
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KWind Instruments Anatomy
How many holes are there in a wind instrument?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (8)
Traditional Kashmiri woodwind instruments (like the Kashmiri Bansuri or Swarnay) typically feature 8 tone holes (7 finger holes plus 1 thumb/tuning hole).
Q1647
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KBhand Community Dance Forms
Which folk dance is performed by the "Bhand" community of Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bachi Nagma)
Bachi Nagma (and Bhand Pather) is performed by the professional folk artists and dancers of the Bhand community.
Q1648
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KChakri Music & Instruments
With which folk music is the "Nat-Ghat" instrument used?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chakkari)
Nat-Ghat (or Nout, clay pot idiophone) is the foundational rhythmic percussion instrument played in traditional Kashmiri 'Chakkari' (Chakri) musical performances.
Q1649
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KDevotional Instruments of Ladakh & Kashmir
Which percussion instrument is played during morning and evening prayers in Kashmir and Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Thaluz)
Thaluz (metal cymbals / gong percussion) is struck during morning and evening spiritual prayers across Buddhist monasteries and shrines in Ladakh and Kashmir.
Q1650
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KKashmiri Santoor Structure
How many string are there in Kashmiri "Santoor"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (100)
The classical Kashmiri Santoor (derived from ancient Sanskrit Shatatantri Veena) has exactly 100 metal strings stretched across 25 bridges (4 strings per bridge).
Q1651
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KFolk Instruments of Jammu Hills
What is the name of musical instrument similar to "Shehnai" played on festive occasions in the mountain regions?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Narsingha)
Narsingha (or Narsinga) is a large, curved S-shaped brass wind instrument played alongside drums during weddings and hill festivals in Jammu's mountain ranges.
Q1652
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KSufiyana Qalam Tradition
Which music is associated with Sufiyana Qalam of Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Classical)
Sufiyana Qalam (or Sufiyana Musiqi) is the esteemed Classical music tradition of Kashmir, organized into 54 classical Maqamat with its own formal rhythmic and melodic structure.
Q1653
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KSufiyana Qalam Ensemble
Which instrument is played with Sufiyana Qalam?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rabab)
The core ensemble of Sufiyana Qalam comprises the Santoor, Saaz-e-Kashmir, Setar, Rabab, and Dokra/Tabla.
Q1654
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KKashmiri Percussion Instruments
What is "Dokra"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Instrument)
Dokra (or Dukra) is a traditional Kashmiri clay percussion instrument (pair of kettle drums / folk tabla) played in Sufiyana ensembles.
Q1655
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KClassification of Musical Instruments
Which of these is a string instrument?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Santoor)
Santoor is a chordophone (Tat Vadya / string instrument), while Tabla/Mridang are membranophones (Avanaddha) and Harmonium is an aerophone (Sushir).
Q1656
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KFolklore & Romances of Kashmir
Which among the following is the famous love story associated with Kashmir folklore?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Yusuf-Zulekha)
Yusuf-Zulekha (composed into Kashmiri Masnavi by Mahmud Gami) and Himal-Nagrai / Heemal-Nagrai are the legendary romantic folklore epics of Kashmir.
Q1657
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KChakri Folk Music
What is the traditional musical composition of Kashmir called?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chakri)
Chakri is the most popular traditional responsive folk musical composition in Kashmir, performed with harmonium, rubab, sarangi, nout, and chimta.
Q1658
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KWanwun Folk Singing
Wanwun is a form of folk song generally sung on which of the following occasions:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wedding)
Wanwun (Vanvun) is a rhythmic choral wedding song sung exclusively by women during marriage festivities across both Kashmiri Muslim and Kashmiri Pandit traditions.
Q1659
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KChajja Dance of Jammu
Which among the following is the traditional dance of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chajja)
Chajja dance is a vibrant folk dance of the Jammu region performed by young boys on Lohri holding colorful peacock-patterned paper frames (Chajjas).
Q1660
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KClassification of Musical Instruments (Vadya)
What is related to the Chheni Instrument?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ghan Vadya)
Chheni (or Chhaina / cymbals) is an idiophone (Ghan Vadya / solid metal resonant instrument).
Q1661
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KKud Dance & Mela Patt
On which occasion is "Kud" dance performed?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mela Patt)
Kud dance is a ritualistic harvest thanksgiving dance of Jammu's hilly areas (Bhaderwah, Kishtwar, Udhampur) performed during village fairs like Mela Patt and Gram Devta celebrations.
Q1662
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KHistorical Origin of Kashmir
What name did famous historians and heritage experts give to Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kashyapa-Meru)
Ancient Sanskrit texts, Nilamata Purana, and Rajatarangini trace the origin of Kashmir to 'Kashyapa-Meru' (the lake desiccated by Sage Kashyapa).
Q1663
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KDevotional Folk Songs of Jammu
What folk song do the people of Jammu sing for the Gods?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bar)
Bhaakh and 'Bar' (or Baraan / Kaarkan) are narrative devotional folk ballads sung in praise of local deities and heroic legends in Duggar.
Q1664
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KDogra Bardic Music & Instruments
Which instrument is used in Bar "Gay Gatha"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Chikara)
Traditional Dogra bards (Kaarks / Dhadis) play the bowed folk string instrument 'Chikara' (or King/Sarangi) while singing the Bar ballads.
Q1665
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KFolk Melodies of Jammu
What is the famous folk style of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bhairavi)
The folk music of Jammu heavily incorporates melodic inflections corresponding to Raga Bhairavi (and Pahadi).
Q1666
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KDogri Wedding Songs
In Jammu which folk songs are sung during wedding and other occasions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Suhag)
Suhag (and Ghoriyan) are traditional wedding folksongs sung by women in Jammu to bless the bride and groom.
Q1667
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KBhand Folk Artists
Which community is regarded as dancers and music bearers in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Baand)
The Baand (Bhand) community of Kashmir are the historic hereditary practitioners of Kashmiri folk theatre, music, and dance.
Q1668
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KLohri Celebrations in Jammu
What dance is performed during the "Lohri" festival in Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dogri Nritya & Bharo Nritya)
During Lohri, boys and men in Jammu perform vibrant Dogri and Bharo folk dances alongside Chajja performances.
Q1669
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KRouf Dance of Kashmir
Which among the following is the dance performed during Eid and Ramadan in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rouf)
Rouf is the iconic festive dance of Kashmiri women, performed in facing rows with interlocking arms celebrating Eid, Ramadan, and spring harvest.
Q1670
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KWedding Folk Traditions
The "Suhadi Dance" is related to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Marriage)
Suhadi (Suhag) dance and singing rituals are intimately associated with Dogra marriage ceremonies.
Q1671
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KWomen Festivals in Jammu
In which festival do the women perform the Ghurehi dance:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ghurehi Trithya)
Ghurehi dance is a circular women's folk dance performed during local festive fasts and fairs such as Ghurehi Trithya / Teej.
Q1672
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KKud Ritual Dance
Which dance is performed to please the gods and goddesses?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kud Dance)
Kud Dance is performed in the middle of the night around bonfires specifically to honor and seek blessings from local Gram Devtas (Kul Devtas).
Q1673
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KDances of Jammu Region
What are the dances of Jammu Khand region?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Frammani, Dandraj, Jagarna, Geetdu)
The traditional indigenous folk dances of Jammu Khand include Fummarni, Dandraj (stick dance), Jagarna, and Geetru (Geetdu).
Q1674
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KSufi Poetry & Shrukhs
Which of the following are the poetic messages of wisdom generally sung without music and dance:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shrukh)
Shrukhs are mystical spiritual quatrains composed by Sheikh Noor-ud-Din Wali (Nund Rishi) in Kashmiri, recited as profound words of wisdom without musical accompaniment.
Q1675
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KDogra Devotional Ballads
Which folk song is referred to as "Song For The Gods"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bar)
In the Dogra tradition of Jammu, 'Bar' (or Baraan / Kaarkan) are devotional ballads sung as 'Songs for the Gods' by traditional folk bards.
Q1676
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KLal Ded & Kashmiri Literature
Which of the following is not a musical instrument?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Waakh)
Waakh is a form of 4-line spiritual poetry created by the great 14th-century mystic poetess Lal Ded, whereas Santoor, Tumbaknaer, and Nout are musical instruments.
Q1677
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KBhand Pather Theatre
What is the traditional Kashmiri dance form known for its vibrant movements and often performed by men relaying thematic folk stories?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bhand Pathar)
Bhand Pather is the ancient dynamic folk theatre of Kashmir performed exclusively by male actors (Bhands) combining vibrant movements, satire, social commentary, and music.
Q1678
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KGugga Pir Worship
"Gugahal" folk dance is related to which God?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Gugahal)
Gugga (Gugahal / Guga Pir) dance and ballads celebrate the serpent folk deity Gugga Pir for snake protection.
Q1679
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KLohri Dances of Jammu
Which dance is performed on Lohri festival in Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chhez)
Chhez (along with Chajja dance) is a celebrated Lohri folk performance in Jammu.
Q1680
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KFolk Instruments of Jammu
Which of the following musical instrument is commonly used in the folk music of Jammu region:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Dholak)
Dholak (and Dhol) is the primary rhythmic percussion instrument powering folk singing (Geetru, Kud, Lohri songs) in the Jammu region.
Q1681
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KProminent Artists of J&K (Bhajan Sopori)
Shri Pandit Bhajan Sopori, an Indian Instrumentalist and Padma Shri awardee was associated with which of the following musical instruments:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Santoor)
Pandit Bhajan Sopori (the 'Saint of Santoor') from the Sopori Gharana of Kashmir was a world-renowned master of the Santoor.
Q1682
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KTraditional Bards & Instruments
What is the name of the instrument played along with Heroic Ballads in the Jammu region?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (King)
King (or Kingi) is a traditional single-stringed plucked folk instrument played by traditional bards in Duggar while chanting heroic ballads.
Q1683
Indian Culture & Traditions16 Vedic Sanskars & Rituals
Match the correct order of rituals:
1. Pansuwan — ii. Garbhdan Sanaskar 2. Chudakaran — i. Mundan Sanaskar 3. Nishkraman — iii. Shishu Sanaskar 4. Upnayan — iv. Janeyu Dharan Sanaskar
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv)
Which of the following notes in one octave is higher than G4?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (G5)
In standard scientific pitch notation, G5 is exactly one octave higher (784 Hz) than G4 (392 Hz).
Q1687
Harmonium & Musical AcousticsConcert Pitch & Frequency Difference
What is the difference in frequency between "A4" and "A5"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (440 Hz)
In standard concert pitch: A4 = 440 Hz and A5 (one octave higher) = 880 Hz. Δf=880 Hz−440 Hz=440 Hz.
Q1688
Harmonium & Musical AcousticsSemitones in an Octave
How many semitones are there in an octave in the twelve tone equal temperament system?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (12 Semi-tones)
The twelve-tone equal temperament scale divides an octave into exactly 12 semitones.
Q1689
Harmonium & Musical AcousticsJust Intonation vs Equal Temperament
What is the main difference between the "Just" and "Equal Tempered" Octave?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Frequency Ratio of Notes)
While the 2:1 octave span is identical, Just Intonation uses pure integer frequency ratios (e.g. 3:2, 4:3, 5:4), whereas Equal Temperament uses slight irrational logarithmic approximations (2n/12).
Q1690
Art, Culture & Heritage of J&KLadishah Satire & Dahara
Which musical instrument is used in "Ladishah Songs"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dahara)
Ladishah (the traditional Kashmiri wandering satirist and minstrel) plays the 'Dahara' (an iron rod with loose ringing brass rings that jingle rhythmically in hand).
Q1691
Harmonium & Musical AcousticsHarmonium Pitch Range
Which Instrument has a sound range that spans multiple octaves but with a focus on the lower octave?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Harmonium)
The Indian Harmonium spans 3 to 3.5 octaves, with primary vocal accompaniment centered heavily on the lower (Mandra) and middle (Madhya) octaves.
Q1692
Indian Classical Music & Musicology22 Shrutis & Shadaj Gram
What is the "Shruti Swar" arrangement in the Shadaj Gram according to ancient scholars?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4-3-2-4-4-3-2)
According to the classical verse 'Chatuh Chatuh Chatushchaiva Shadja Madhyama Panchama': - Sa = 4 shrutis - Re = 3 shrutis - Ga = 2 shrutis - Ma = 4 shrutis - Pa = 4 shrutis - Dha = 3 shrutis - Ni = 2 shrutis Total = 22 Shrutis in the sequence 4-3-2-4-4-3-2.
Q1693
Indian Classical Music & MusicologyBhatkhande Notation for Vikrit Swaras
In Indian Classical Music, what symbols denote "Vikrat Swar"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (_, |)
In the Bhatkhande Indian Classical Notation System, Vikrit Swaras are marked with an underline below for Komal Swaras (e.g. _ under Re, Ga, Dha, Ni) and a vertical bar / line above for Teevra Ma (e.g. | over Ma). Thus, '_, |' denote Vikrit Swar.
Q1694
Radiotherapy Physics & Radiation OncologyCompton Scattering & Electron Density
The ratio of Compton interaction in one gram of hydrogen to one gram of water is about:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2.0)
Compton mass attenuation depends directly on electron density (Ne=NA⋅Z/A). - For Hydrogen (Z/A=1/1=1.0): Ne≈6.022×1023 e−/g - For Water (Z/A=10/18≈0.555): Ne≈3.34×1023 e−/g Ratio=0.5551.0≈1.8≈2.0.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Average 2mR/hr at 1 meter)
According to international radiation safety standards for teletherapy units in the OFF/shielded position, leakage radiation through the source housing must not exceed an average of 2 mR/hr (0.02 mSv/hr) at 1 meter, and a maximum of 10 mR/hr at 1 meter.
Q1696
Dosimetry & Quality AssuranceDosimeter Energy Dependence
A series of dosimeter are irradiated in water with Co-60 and then with 15MV x-rays. In both cases the dose to the water at the position of the dosimeter was 1Gy. For which dosimeter will the reading for the two energies differ the least.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ionization chamber)
An air-filled ionization chamber calibrated under cavity-gas Spencer-Attix theory has an energy response that is closest to water-equivalent tissue over megavoltage energy ranges (Co-60 to 15 MV), differing by less than 1-2% compared to diodes, films, or TLDs.
Q1697
Radiotherapy Physics & Radiation OncologyAtomic Mass Unit (amu) Definition
An atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as _____.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1/12 of the mass of a 6C12 atom)
The unified atomic mass unit (1 u / amu) is standardly defined as exactly 1/12 of the mass of an unbound neutral Carbon-12 (12C) atom at rest (1 amu≈1.66054×10−27 kg≈931.5 MeV/c2).
Q1698
Radiation Safety & Regulatory NormsHDR Brachytherapy Unit Safety Standards
In compliance with the NRC regulations, the leakage radiation levels outside the HDR unit:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Should not exceed 1 mR/h at a distance of 10 cm with the source in the Shielded position)
Under NRC / IAEA radiation safety regulations for High Dose Rate (HDR) remote afterloader brachytherapy units with the source in the shielded home storage position, radiation leakage must not exceed 1 mR/h at a distance of 10 cm from the surface.
Q1699
Dosimetry & Quality AssuranceAcceptance Testing vs Commissioning
What is the difference between acceptance testing and commissioning of equipment?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Acceptance test runs a small portion of dataset of commissioning.)
Acceptance testing verifies that the newly installed machine meets vendor purchase contractual specifications using a limited baseline dataset. Commissioning is the comprehensive clinical dataset acquisition (PDD, beam profiles, output factors) required for clinical treatment planning.
Q1700
Dosimetry & Quality AssuranceDaily QA of Linear Accelerators (AAPM TG-142)
If a dual-energy linear accelerator uses 6 and 18 MV:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The output of both photon energies must be checked daily.)
According to AAPM TG-142 quality assurance guidelines for linear accelerators, daily QA requires checking the beam output constancy of ALL clinical photon and electron energies utilized for treatment.
The accuracy of the mechanical isocenter can be checked by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Using a front pointer positioned at the isocenter and a horizontal rod with a fine point held in a ring stand)
The mechanical isocenter (gantry, collimator, and couch rotational intersection point) is traditionally verified mechanically using a mechanical front pointer positioned at the isocenter and a mechanical pointer/horizontal rod with a fine needle point mounted on a ring stand.
The most common interstitial irradiation technique is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Percutaneous afterloading with angiocatheters and iridium-192)
Interstitial brachytherapy commonly utilizes flexible plastic tubes / angiocatheters inserted into the tumor bed under imaging guidance, through which radioactive Iridium-192 (192Ir) wire/seeds or HDR stepping sources are afterloaded.
The most common method of intracavitary brachytherapy is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Fletcher tandem and ovoid applicator)
For cervical gynecological cancer intracavitary brachytherapy, the Fletcher-Suit-Delclos (FSD) tandem and ovoids (colpostats) applicator system is the global standard.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Minimize small bowel dose)
In prone pelvic radiotherapy (e.g. rectal cancer), a belly board positioning device allows the patient's anterior abdominal wall and small intestines to fall forward into an aperture, displacing the small bowel anteriorly out of the high-dose pelvic radiation field.
Irradiation with x-rays of HeLa and Chinese hamster cells harvested at mitosis has shown that the cells are most sensitive when they are:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (in the M phase of the cell cycle.)
Cells are classically most radiosensitive in the M (Mitosis) phase and late G2 phase of the cell cycle, and most radioresistant in the late S (DNA synthesis) phase.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (the bone-marrow cells.)
Under the Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau, rapidly dividing, undifferentiated hematological stem cells in the bone marrow (erythroblasts, myeloblasts) are the most radiosensitive normal tissue cells in the adult body.
What is the public annual dose limit for the lens of the eye?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (15 mSv/year)
Under ICRP and AERB regulatory guidelines, the equivalent dose limit for the lens of the eye for members of the public is 15 mSv/year (occupational limit is 20 mSv/year).
Q1708
Radiation Safety & Regulatory NormsOccupational Dose Limits for Extremities
What is the occupational dose limit for extremity?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (50rem/year)
The annual occupational equivalent dose limit for the hands, feet, and extremities (and skin) is 50 rem/year (500 mSv/year) under US NRC and ICRP standards.
Q1709
Radiation Safety & Regulatory NormsAnnual Public Effective Dose Limit
What is the annual whole body dose limit for the public?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 mSv/year)
The annual effective whole body dose limit for individual members of the general public is 1 mSv/year (0.1 rem/year) under ICRP, NCRP, and AERB regulations.
What is the maximum exposure that AERB allows to occupational workers per year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (30 mSv)
The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB, India) mandates an occupational effective dose limit of 20 mSv/year averaged over 5 consecutive years, with a maximum ceiling of 30 mSv in any single year.
What is the maximum exposure that ICRP allows to occupational workers per year?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (50 mSv)
ICRP Publication 103 allows an occupational effective dose limit of 20 mSv/year averaged over defined 5-year periods, subject to a maximum constraint of 50 mSv in any single year.
The activity of radioactive substance decays from 8000 becquerel to 4000 becquerel in 5 days. The activity of the substance after the next 10 days will be:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1000 becquerel)
Halving from 8000 Bq to 4000 Bq in 5 days indicates T1/2=5 days. In the next 10 days (2×5 days=2 half-lives): A=4000×(21)2=4000×41=1000 becquerel.
Which of these factors has no effect on response of cells to irradiation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Image receptor used)
Biological cellular response depends on radiation quality (LET), oxygen tension (pO2), and dose-rate. The image receptor (detector/film) captures transmitted photons outside the patient and has zero influence on biological cell damage.
Q1714
Radiotherapy Physics & Radiation OncologyFraction of Disintegrated Radioactivity
What fraction of radioactive material will get disintegrated in a period of two half-lives?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Three-fourth)
After two half-lives, the remaining fraction is (21)2=41. The fraction disintegrated =1−41=43 (Three-fourth).
Q1715
Medical Ethics & Patient CarePrinciple of Veracity
What is Veracity?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Duty to tell the truth and avoid deception)
In medical ethics, Veracity is the moral obligation of healthcare professionals to communicate honestly, disclose complete clinical truths, and avoid deception with patients.
The speed of ultrasound propagation (c=B/ρ) is determined exclusively by the acoustic properties of the propagation medium (bulk modulus elasticity and density), independent of wave frequency or amplitude.
Q1717
Radiological Physics & Imaging TechnologyUltrasound Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF)
In ultrasound a 4 MHz transducer has a useful range of 10cm. What is the maximum pulse repetition frequency of this transducer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7.7 KHz)
Speed of sound in soft tissue c=1540 m/s=154,000 cm/s. Round-trip transit distance for depth d=10 cm is 2d=20 cm. Time required per pulse Δt=154,000 cm/s20 cm≈1.2987×10−4 s. Maximum PRF=Δt1=20154000=7700 Hz=7.7 kHz.
The spatial resolution with MRI is about the same as that obtained with:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (CT)
Standard clinical MRI and multidetector Computed Tomography (CT) both achieve high in-plane spatial resolutions on the order of 0.5 to 1.0 mm, vastly superior to PET/SPECT (4-6 mm).
Which detector can be used for small-field data collection required for IMRT field sizes >= 3x3 cm2?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Diode)
Unshielded silicon stereotactic diode detectors (and micro-chambers) have small active collection volumes (<0.01 cm3), providing high spatial resolution without volume-averaging errors for small IMRT beamlets.
In stereotactic radiosurgery for brain metastasis, prescribing 20 Gy in one fraction to the 60% isodose line means the maximum dose will be _____:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (33 Gy)
If the prescription dose Drx=20 Gy is normalized to the 60% (0.60) isodose line: Maximum Dose Dmax=0.6020 Gy≈33.33 Gy≈33 Gy.
Q1723
Radiotherapy Treatment Planning & TechniquesTissue-Maximum Ratio (TMR) Parameters
Tissue-Maximum ratio (TMR) depends on:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Energy ,depth and field size)
Tissue-Maximum Ratio (TMR) is defined as the ratio of dose at a given depth in phantom to dose at dmax at the same point in space. It depends strictly on Beam Energy, Depth (d), and Field Size (rd), and is completely independent of distance (SAD/SSD).
Q1724
Radiotherapy Treatment Planning & TechniquesTissue-Air Ratio (TAR) Properties
TAR is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Tissue-Air Ratio (TAR): 1) At dmax, TAR(dmax,r)=BSF; 2) Is independent of source distance (SAD); 3) Is standardly used in rotational / isocentric treatment time calculations (All of the above).
Q1725
Radiotherapy Physics & Radiation OncologyRadiation Units (Sievert)
A sivert is :
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The SI unit of dose equivalent)
The Sievert (Sv) is the SI unit of radiation Equivalent Dose (H) and Effective Dose (E), defined as 1 Joule of energy absorbed per kilogram of tissue multiplied by radiation weighting factors (1 Sv=1 J/kg=100 rem).
If 1 % of the primary radiation is transmitted through a patient , the midline dose is due to the primary radiation is approximately _____ % of the entrance dose
💡Correct Answer: Option B (10)
Under exponential attenuation (I(x)=I0e−μx), if the exit transmission through full thickness T is 1%=0.01, then at the midline (T/2): Midline Dose=I0e−μ(T/2)=I0e−μT=0.01=0.10=10% of entrance dose.
The NCRP recommends that radiation monitoring devices shall be used by a personnel who:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Could be exposed to more than 1/4 of the maximum permissible dose.)
NCRP recommendations require individual personnel monitoring (TLD/film badges) for any radiation worker who has a reasonable potential to receive an occupational dose exceeding 1/4th (25%, or 10% in newer guidelines) of the annual Maximum Permissible Dose (MPD).
An element contain electrons in the 10, 65, 70 and 72 KeV energy levels . Which energy cannot occur in its characteristics x-ray spectrum?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7)
Characteristic X-ray energies equal transition differences between discrete shells: - 72−70=2 keV - 70−65=5 keV - 72−65=7 keV - 65−10=55 keV - 70−10=60 keV - 72−10=62 keV. All listed photon values correspond to valid energy transition differences in the atom.
Q1731
Radiotherapy Treatment Planning & TechniquesLinear Accelerator Treatment Head Structure
The primary collimator in a linear accelerator is located before the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Flattening Filter)
In a medical linear accelerator treatment head, the components in beam direction are: Electron Gun → Accelerator Tube → Bending Magnet → X-ray Target → Primary Collimator → Flattening Filter / Scattering Foil → Ion Chamber → Secondary Jaws. Thus, the primary collimator is located before the Flattening Filter.
Q1732
Radiotherapy Treatment Planning & TechniquesSterling's Equivalent Square Field Formula
What is the equivalent square of a 5×20 cm2 rectangular field?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8.0)
According to Sterling's formula for equivalent square field (Seq): Seq=Perimeter4×Area=2(a+b)4×(a×b)=a+b2×a×b For a=5 cm and b=20 cm: Seq=5+202×5×20=25200=8.0 cm.
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