- A. Vitamin A: Anaemia - B. Vitamin C: Skin Diseases - C. Vitamin D: Rickets - D. Vitamin B1: Beri Beri
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (C and D)
Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets (C is correct) and Vitamin B1 deficiency causes Beri Beri (D is correct). Vitamin A deficiency causes Night Blindness (Anaemia is due to iron deficiency), and Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy.
Q2
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Which hill is the Vaishno Devi Mandir located on?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Trikuta)
Vaishno Devi Mandir is a holy Hindu temple situated on the Trikuta Hills in Katra, Jammu and Kashmir.
Q3
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHistory
Arrange the following historical events in chronological order:
- a. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre - b. Dandi March - c. Lucknow Pact - d. Quit India Movement
💡Correct Answer: Option B (c, a, b, d)
The correct chronological order is: Lucknow Pact (1916), Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919), Dandi March (1930), and Quit India Movement (1942). This matches sequence: c, a, b, d.
Q4
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTPolity
The first legislature of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir was called the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Praja Sabha)
The first legislature of Jammu and Kashmir was established in 1934 by Maharaja Hari Singh and was called the Praja Sabha.
Q5
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Which of the following is NOT a tributary of Jhelum River?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Verinag)
Verinag is the origin spring of the Jhelum River, located in Anantnag. Vishaw, Sind Nallah, and Romushi are tributaries of the Jhelum River.
Q6
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTReorganisation Act
As per J & K reorganisation Act, 2019, UT created without legislature is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ladakh)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, J&K was made a Union Territory with a legislature, whereas Ladakh was created as a Union Territory without a legislature.
Q7
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTCulture
Consider the following statements regarding Kud dance:
1. Kud dance is performed to honour the gods Lok Devtas' as a thanks giving ritual. 2. It is practiced on festive occasions like Eid and Ramzan days are going.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only 1)
Statement 1 is correct. Kud is a traditional thanksgiving folk dance performed in Jammu's hilly areas to honor the Lok Devtas (local deities). Statement 2 is incorrect as it is performed during rainy nights and after harvesting, not on Eid/Ramzan.
Q8
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Which of the places is known as the "Gateway to the Kashmir valley"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of the above)
Banihal (also Qazigund) is known as the 'Gateway to Kashmir Valley' because it connects Jammu with Srinagar through the Banihal pass. Since it is not in the options, 'None of the above' is correct.
Q9
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Which pass connects Jammu and Kashmir with Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Zoji La Pass)
The Zoji La Pass connects the Kashmir Valley (near Sonamarg) to Ladakh (Drass/Kargil).
Q10
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTPolity
What is the official language of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Urdu)
Urdu was traditionally the sole official language of Jammu and Kashmir since 1889. Although the J&K Official Languages Act, 2020 added Kashmiri, Dogri, Hindi, and English as official languages, Urdu remains the standard correct answer in classical state competitive exams.
Q11
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Arrange the following Indian states in order from North to South:
- a. Himachal Pradesh - b. Tamil Nadu - c. Telangana - d. Madhya Pradesh
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a, d, c, b)
Geographical arrangement from North to South is: Himachal Pradesh (a), Madhya Pradesh (d), Telangana (c), and Tamil Nadu (b). This corresponds to sequence a, d, c, b.
Q12
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTEnvironment
Consider the following national parks and the states they are located in:
- a. Kaziranga National Park: 4. Assam - b. Jim Corbett National Park: 3. Uttarakhand - c. Ranthambore National Park: 2. Rajasthan - d. Gir National Park: 1. Gujarat
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1)
The correct matches are: Kaziranga is in Assam (a-4), Jim Corbett is in Uttarakhand (b-3), Ranthambore is in Rajasthan (c-2), and Gir is in Gujarat (d-1). This corresponds to a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.
Q13
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTCurrent Affairs
Arrange the following events of 2023 in chronological order:
- a. G20 Summit in India - b. ICC World Cup Final 2023 - c. Launch of Chandrayaan 3 - d. COP28 climate summit in Dubai
💡Correct Answer: Option A (c, a, b, d)
The chronological order is: Launch of Chandrayaan 3 (July 14, 2023), G20 Summit in New Delhi (September 9-10, 2023), ICC World Cup Final (November 19, 2023), and COP28 Summit in Dubai (November 30, 2023). This matches sequence: c, a, b, d.
Q14
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTAgriculture
Consider the following statements regarding Rabi crops:
- a. Rabi crops are sowed between October and November. - b. Rabi crops require a lot of water. - c. Rabi crops need warm weather for growth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only a)
Statement a is correct. Rabi crops (winter crops) are sown in October-November and harvested in spring. Statements b and c are incorrect because Kharif crops require a lot of water and warm weather, whereas Rabi crops require cool climates.
Q15
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTDemography
The population growth rate means:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Difference between birth rate and death rate)
The population growth rate is the rate at which the number of individuals in a population increases, which is fundamentally calculated as the difference between the birth rate and the death rate.
Q16
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
In which tourist place is the Kolahoi glacier located?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pahalgam)
Kolahoi Glacier is a valley glacier located in the northwestern Himalayan Range, approximately 26 km north of Pahalgam.
Q17
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Consider the following pairs of lakes and the states they are located in:
- a. Hussain Sagar: 4. Telangana - b. Pulicate Lake: 3. Andhra Pradesh - c. Dal Lake: 2. Jammu and Kashmir - d. Loktak Lake: 1. Manipur
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1)
The correct matches are: Hussain Sagar is in Telangana (a-4), Pulicat Lake in Andhra Pradesh (b-3), Dal Lake in J&K (c-2), and Loktak Lake in Manipur (d-1). This corresponds to a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.
Q18
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHeritage
Consider the following statements regarding Ajanta Caves:
- a. Ajanta caves were tagged as UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1983. - b. Currently, these caves are taken care of by the Archaeological Survey of India. - c. The caves are believed to be made in Gupta period and Vakataka period.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All statements are correct. Ajanta Caves became a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983, are preserved by the ASI, and were excavated during the Vakataka and Gupta periods.
Q19
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHistory
Who is popularly known as the "Grand Old Man of India"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dadabhai Naoroji)
Dadabhai Naoroji is known as the 'Grand Old Man of India'. He was a prominent leader in the Indian national movement and formulated the Drain of Wealth theory.
Q20
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Consider the following pairs of dams and the states they are located in:
- a. Sardar Sarovar Dam: 3. Gujarat - b. Bhavani Sagar Dam: 4. Tamil Nadu - c. Koyna Dam: 2. Maharashtra - d. Tehri Dam: 1. Uttarakhand
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1)
The correct matches are: Sardar Sarovar in Gujarat (a-3), Bhavani Sagar in Tamil Nadu (b-4), Koyna in Maharashtra (c-2), and Tehri in Uttarakhand (d-1). This corresponds to: a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1.
Q21
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHistory
Consider the following pairs of historical terms and entities of Jammu and Kashmir:
- a. Founder of Dogra Dynasty: 4. Gulab Singh - b. Dar-Ul-Aman (written as Dar-Ul-Alam): 1. Maharaja Ranjit Dev - c. Mian Deedo: 2. Rebellion Group Head - d. Treaty of Lahore: 3. 1846
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3)
The correct matches are: Maharaja Gulab Singh founded the Dogra Dynasty (a-4); Jammu was named 'Dar-ul-Aman' during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Dev due to religious peace (b-1); Mian Deedo was a rebel leader against Sikh rule in Jammu (c-2); and the Treaty of Lahore was signed in 1846 (d-3).
Q22
Accountancy & Book KeepingAuditing
When an audit is undertaken to check the financial controls and irregularities in the organization, it is which type of audit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Internal audit)
An internal audit is conducted within an organization to evaluate risk management, internal controls, and check for any financial irregularities/frauds.
Q23
Accountancy & Book KeepingTrial Balance
A trial balance helps to check the accuracy of the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ledger)
A trial balance is prepared to verify the arithmetical accuracy of postings in the ledger accounts. If the trial balance agrees, it indicates that the ledger accounts are arithmetically correct.
Q24
General EnglishPrepositions
Insert the proper preposition in the sentence:
He hinted ___ some loss of treasure.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (at)
The verb 'hint' is followed by the preposition 'at' when referring to something indirectly. Thus, 'hinted at'.
Q25
General EnglishConditionals
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:
If I had left early like everyone else did, I ___ sitting here now listening to all this rubbish.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (wouldn't be)
This is a mixed conditional sentence. It uses past perfect in the if-clause ('If I had left early...') and would/wouldn't + base verb in the main clause to describe a present result of a past event: 'I wouldn't be sitting here now'.
Q26
Statistics & MathematicsProbability
Consider the following statements regarding probabilities:
- P: Probabilities can never add up to more than one. - Q: Probabilities of mutually exclusive events always add up to one. - R: Probabilities can never be zero. - S: Probabilities are always positive.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pand S)
P is correct (probabilities in a sample space sum to 1). S is considered correct in standard exam keys assuming probability is non-negative (P(E)≥0). Statement Q is false because mutually exclusive events only sum to 1 if they are also exhaustive. Statement R is false because impossible events have a probability of 0.
Q27
Statistics & MathematicsProbability
Arrange the following events in increasing order of probability:
- a. Picking a diamond from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. - b. Drawing a King from a standard deck of 52 cards. - c. Rolling a number between 1 and 6 on a fair six-sided die. - d. Getting heads on a fair coin toss.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, a, d, c)
Calculating probabilities: P(b)=4/52≈0.077. P(a)=13/52=0.25. P(d)=0.5. P(c)=4/6≈0.67 (strictly between 1 and 6 is {2,3,4,5}). Increasing order: b, a, d, c.
Q28
Knowledge of ComputersMemory
Which of the following memory is used for storing software that does not need updates?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ROM)
ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile memory used to store permanent firmware/software (like the system BIOS) that does not require regular updates.
Q29
Knowledge of ComputersSecurity
Which of the following is an antivirus?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Norton)
Norton is a widely used commercial antivirus software utility. Trojan Horse, Worms, and Macro Virus are types of malware.
Q30
Knowledge of ComputersSoftware Concepts
The term FLOSS is associated with:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Open source software)
FLOSS stands for 'Free/Libre and Open-Source Software', indicating software that is free to run, copy, distribute, and modify.
Q31
Knowledge of ComputersHardware
A Daisy wheel printer is what type of printer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Impact)
A Daisy Wheel printer is an impact printer because it works by physically striking a hammer against a character wheel and ink ribbon onto the paper.
Q32
Knowledge of ComputersCloud Computing
Which of the following cloud storage services is owned by Microsoft?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (One drive)
OneDrive is the proprietary cloud storage service owned and operated by Microsoft. iCloud belongs to Apple, and Google Drive belongs to Google.
Q33
Knowledge of ComputersHardware
Where is firmware stored?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (ROM)
Firmware is a specific class of computer software that provides low-level control for the device's hardware, permanently stored in non-volatile ROM/Flash chips.
Q34
Knowledge of ComputersIT Act
In the IT Act 2000, which section deals with the punishment for cyber terrorism?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (66 (F))
Section 66F of the Information Technology Act, 2000, covers the definition and penal provisions for cyber terrorism, carrying a maximum punishment of life imprisonment.
Q35
Knowledge of ComputersSecurity
The digital signature service that has been launched on the Aadhaar platform is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (eSign Desk)
eSign Desk (or eSign) is an online electronic signature service in India launched to facilitate Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents.
Q36
Knowledge of ComputersE-Governance
What does "Smart Governance" involve?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Integrating IT to improve service delivery and decision-making)
Smart Governance (Simple, Moral, Accountable, Responsive, and Transparent) involves using Information and Communication Technology (ICT) to make government services and decision-making more efficient.
Q37
Knowledge of ComputersE-Governance
The "UMANG" app allows citizens to access:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Government services and information)
UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is a multi-platform government app designed to provide single-point access to various central and state government services.
List-I (Institution offering courses in forensic science) i. Osmania University ii. Dr. Harisingh Gour University iii. Bundelkhand University iv. National Forensic Science University
List-II (Location) a. Sagar, Madhya Pradesh b. Delhi c. Hyderabad, Telangana d. Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b)
The correct matches are: Osmania University is in Hyderabad (i-c); Dr. Harisingh Gour University is in Sagar, MP (ii-a); Bundelkhand University is in Jhansi, UP (iii-d); NFSU has a campus in Delhi (iv-b).
List-I (NFSU Campus) i. Bhopal ii. Delhi iii. Dharwad iv. Gandhinagar
List-II (Number of Departments) a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 16
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d)
As per the university configuration, the matching is: Bhopal campus has 2 departments (i-a); Delhi campus has 6 departments (ii-c); Dharwad campus has 3 departments (iii-b); and the main Gandhinagar campus has 16 departments (iv-d).
List-I (CFSL) i. Bhopal ii. Delhi iii. Hyderabad iv. Kolkata
List-II (Year of Establishment) a. 1957 b. 1967 c. 1968 d. 2011
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a)
The correct establishment years are: Kolkata CFSL was established in 1957 (iv-a); Hyderabad CFSL in 1967 (iii-b); Delhi CFSL in 1968 (ii-c); and Bhopal CFSL in 2011 (i-d).
Arrange the following Forensic Institution as per their year of establishment from older to latest.
a. GEQD Calcutta b. CFPB Calcutta c. CFPB, New Delhi d. GEQD Hyderabad e. GEQD Shimla
💡Correct Answer: Option B (b, e, a, d, c)
The correct chronological order of establishment is: CFPB Calcutta (1897) -> GEQD Shimla (1906) -> GEQD Calcutta (1964) -> GEQD Hyderabad (1968) -> CFPB New Delhi (1973). This corresponds to order: b, e, a, d, c.
List-I (State FSL) i. Bombay ii. Delhi iii. Madras iv. Srinagar
List-II (Year of Establishment) a. 1958 b. 1959 c. 1964 d. 1993
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c)
The correct matching is: Bombay FSL was established in 1958 (i-a); Delhi FSL in 1993 (ii-d); Madras FSL in 1959 (iii-b); and Srinagar FSL in 1964 (iv-c).
Q43
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
The English word "Statistics" is derived from
i. Latin word "Status" ii. Italian word "Statista" iii. German word "Statistik"
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
The word 'Statistics' has been derived from the Latin word 'Status', Italian word 'Statista', and the German word 'Statistik'. All refer to the political state or data concerning it.
Q44
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of data?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Data are personal facts)
Statistical data represent aggregate facts rather than individual or personal subjective facts.
Q45
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
If the class-intervals in a frequency distribution are 72-73.9, 74-75.9, 76-77.9, 78-79.9, then the mid-value of the class 74-75.9 is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (74.95)
The mid-value (class mark) is calculated as (Lower limit + Upper limit) / 2 = (74 + 75.9) / 2 = 149.9 / 2 = 74.95.
Q46
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following is a positional average?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mode)
Mode and Median are positional averages because their values depend on their position in the distribution. Arithmetic, Geometric, and Harmonic means are mathematical averages.
Q47
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Marks obtained by 9 students in mathematics as 52, 75, 40, 70, 43, 40, 65, 35, 48. The arithmetic mean is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (52)
Sum of values = 52 + 75 + 40 + 70 + 43 + 40 + 65 + 35 + 48 = 468. Number of observations = 9. Arithmetic Mean = 468 / 9 = 52.
Q48
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following is considered as the highest level of measurement?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ratio)
The four levels of measurement in increasing order are Nominal, Ordinal, Interval, and Ratio. Ratio scale is the highest level as it has a true zero point.
Q49
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Consider the following statements and choose the best alternative:
Assertion (A): Histogram is a graphical presentation of data Reason (R): Statistical data can be represented in the form of graphs.
i. A is true ii. R is true iii. A is False iv. R is False
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i & ii)
Both Assertion A (Histogram is a graphical presentation) and Reason R (data can be represented as graphs) are true statements.
Q50
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Match the following:
List-I i. Mean ii. Median iii. Mode iv. Range
List-II a. Difference between largest and smallest value b. Precise c. Middle most term d. Highest Frequency
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a)
The correct matches are: Mean is a precise mathematical average (i-b); Median is the middlemost term (ii-c); Mode corresponds to the highest frequency (iii-d); Range is the difference between largest and smallest values (iv-a).
Q51
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Match the following:
List-I i. Chi-square test ii. F-test iii. T-test iv. Z-test
List-II a. Analyze the difference between the means of more than two groups. b. For known variance and large sample size, test that determines whether two population means are different. c. Used to compare means of two groups d. Compares two categorical variables.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b)
The correct matches are: Chi-square test compares categorical variables (i-d); F-test compares means of more than two groups (ii-a); T-test compares means of two groups (iii-c); Z-test compares means for large samples with known variance (iv-b).
Q52
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following are categorical variable?
i. Age of a person ii. Gender of a person iii. Race of a person
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Gender and Race are categorical (qualitative) variables. Age is a quantitative (numerical) continuous variable.
Q53
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Arrange the stages of statistical investigation in their correct order.
a. Classification of Data b. Collection of Data c. Interpretation of Data d. Analysis of Data e. Planning the purpose of Investigation
💡Correct Answer: Option A (e, b, a, d, c)
The correct logical order of statistical investigation is: Planning (e) -> Collection of Data (b) -> Classification of Data (a) -> Analysis (d) -> Interpretation (c).
Q54
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following are Non sampling statistical errors?
i. Coverage error ii. Non-response error iii. Response error
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Non-sampling errors are errors that occur during data collection processes other than active sampling. Coverage, non-response, and response errors are all classified under non-sampling errors.
Q55
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
The Standard of Length is based on
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The speed of light)
Since 1983, the meter has been defined internationally as the length of the path travelled by light in vacuum during a time interval of 1/299,792,458 of a second. This is based on the speed of light.
Q56
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
Match the following:
List-I i. Microns ii. Angstroms iii. Fermi iv. Kilometers
List-II a. Distance between earth and moon. b. Inter atomic distance in a solid c. Size of nucleus. d. Wavelength of infrared laser.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a)
The correct matching of length scales is: Microns corresponds to infrared laser wavelength (i-d); Angstroms corresponds to inter-atomic distances (ii-b); Fermi corresponds to nuclear size (iii-c); Kilometers corresponds to Earth-Moon distance (iv-a).
Q57
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
A plane travelling north at 200m/s turns and then travels south at 200m/s. The change in its velocity is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (400 m/s south)
Initial velocity = 200 m/s North. Final velocity = 200 m/s South (which is -200 m/s North). Change in velocity = Final - Initial = -200 - 200 = -400 m/s North, which is equal to 400 m/s South.
Q58
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
Which of the following situations are possible?
i. A body having velocity east and acceleration west. ii. A body having constant velocity and variable acceleration. iii. A body having zero velocity and non-zero acceleration.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i & iii)
Situation (i) is possible (e.g. decelerating vehicle moving East). Situation (iii) is possible (e.g. a ball at the top of its flight has zero velocity but non-zero gravitational acceleration). Situation (ii) is impossible because constant velocity implies acceleration must be strictly zero.
Q59
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
Match the following:
List-I i. kWh ii. ampere iii. volt iv. watt
List-II a. Electric Power. b. Electric Energy. c. Potential difference. d. Electric Current.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a)
The correct units are: kWh measures Electric Energy (i-b); Ampere measures Electric Current (ii-d); Volt measures Potential Difference (iii-c); Watt measures Electric Power (iv-a).
Q60
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
A coulomb is same as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ampere second)
Electric charge (Q) is current (I) multiplied by time (t). Therefore, 1 Coulomb = 1 Ampere × 1 Second.
Q61
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
Arrange the following in the increasing chronological order of their occurrence:
i. Michael Faraday discovers electromagnetic induction. ii. Benjamin Franklin proves lightning is electricity. iii. Nicolas Tesla develops AC current iv. Thomas Edison develops DC current
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii, i, iv, iii)
The chronological order is: Benjamin Franklin's lightning experiment (1752, ii) -> Michael Faraday discovers electromagnetic induction (1831, i) -> Thomas Edison develops DC (1882, iv) -> Nikola Tesla develops AC (1888, iii). Thus, the order is ii, i, iv, iii.
Q62
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
Charge is distributed uniformly along a long straight wire. The electric field at 2cm from the wire is 20 newton/coulomb. The electric field at 4cm from the wire is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (10 newton/coulomb)
For an infinite line charge, the electric field (E) is inversely proportional to distance (r) from the wire: E = λ / (2πε₀r). As distance doubles (from 2cm to 4cm), the electric field halves (from 20 N/C to 10 N/C).
Q63
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
Match the following:
List-I i. Biot-Savart Law ii. Fleming's Left-hand rule iii. Fleming's Right-hand rule iv. Right hand thumb rule
List-II a. Direction of induced current. b. Direction of magnetic lines due to current. c. Direction of force due to magnetic induction d. Magnitude and direction of magnetic induction
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b)
The correct matches are: Biot-Savart Law gives magnitude/direction of magnetic induction (i-d); Fleming's Left-hand rule gives the direction of force on a current in a magnetic field (ii-c); Fleming's Right-hand rule gives the direction of induced current (iii-a); Right hand thumb rule gives the direction of magnetic lines (iv-b).
Q64
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
If "r" is the distance of a moving charge, the magnitude of magnetic field produced by the charge is proportional to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1/r²)
According to the Biot-Savart law, the magnetic field produced by a moving charge is inversely proportional to the square of the distance (r) from the charge (B ∝ 1/r²).
Q65
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
Two electrons travelling with same speed. The magnetic field is zero at the mid-point between them. This means,
💡Correct Answer: Option B (They are travelling along parallel lines in the same direction.)
By the right-hand rule, when two negative charges (electrons) travel at equal speed along parallel lines in the same direction, the magnetic fields they produce at the exact midpoint are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, cancelling each other out to zero.
Q66
Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
According to Faraday's Law, an induced emf is proportional to
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The rate of change of magnetic flux)
Faraday's Law of electromagnetic induction states that the induced electromotive force (emf) in a closed circuit is directly proportional to the time rate of change of magnetic flux through the circuit.
In scientific study of gait pattern, which of the following characteristics are noted?
i. Dimensions of Mark ii. Pressure points iii. Pressure defects
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
A scientific analysis of a gait pattern involves checking the dimensions of the prints, the specific pressure points of the foot during stride, and any pressure defects (uneven weight distribution or gait abnormalities).
For evaluating gait pattern evidence by forensic science laboratory staff, the minimum number of consecutive foot or footwear marks required is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
To perform an analysis of a gait pattern (step length, stride length, step angle, etc.), a minimum sequence of 3 consecutive prints is required by forensic examiners.
Q69
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFirearms
Which of the following marks are usually present on a cartridge fired from a good quality firearm?
i. Firing pin mark. ii. Breech face. iii. Chamber marks.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
When a cartridge is fired, the firing pin indent, breech face marks (transferred under high pressure), and chamber scraping marks are typically left on the primer and cartridge case.
Q70
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFirearms
The internal diameter of a barrel is known as:
i. Bore ii. Calibre iii. Gauge
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i & ii)
Bore and Calibre refer to the internal diameter of the barrel. Gauge is a system of measurement indicating the diameter of smoothbore barrels (shotguns) in terms of lead balls per pound, but is not the diameter name itself.
Q71
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationShotguns
Which of the following statement is true for Barrel choke?
i. It is the reducing of bore of a shotgun at the breech end ii. Choke increases the effective range of a shotgun. iii. Reduction of diameter by one millimeter is called as full choke.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Statements ii and iii are true. A choke is a constriction at the muzzle end (not the breech end) of a shotgun barrel, which tightens the shot pattern to increase the effective range. A 1mm reduction in diameter corresponds to a full choke.
Q72
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFirearms
A firearm can have the following type of barrels:
i. Smooth bore ii. Rifled bore iii. Smoothbore with partial rifling
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Barrels can be smoothbore (shotguns), rifled (rifles/pistols), or partially rifled (like Paradox barrels, which are smoothbore with rifling only at the muzzle end).
Q73
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationShotguns
Which of the following statements are true for shotguns?
i. A shotgun is a short-range firearm. ii. Shotgun gives accurate aim when a single projectile is fired iii. Spreading of pellets increases with increase in range of fire.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i & iii)
Statements i and iii are true. A shotgun is typically a short-range weapon, and pellet dispersion increases with range. Statement ii is incorrect because smoothbore shotguns are generally inaccurate when firing a single projectile (slug) compared to rifled barrels.
Q74
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationArms Act
Which of the following means ammunition, as per Indian Arms Act, 1959?
i. Rocket. ii. Noxious liquid iii. Charges for firearm.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Section 2(b) of the Indian Arms Act, 1959 defines 'ammunition' to include rockets, noxious liquid/gas-producing articles, and propellant charges/cartridges for firearms.
Q75
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
The active constituents of smokeless powder are?
i. Nitroglycerine. ii. Nitrocellulose. iii. Sulphur.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i & ii)
Smokeless powder consists of Nitrocellulose (single-base) or Nitrocellulose and Nitroglycerine (double-base). Sulphur is a constituent of black powder, not smokeless powder.
Q76
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
In firearms, the powders with increasing rate of burning are called as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Progressive powder)
Progressive burning powder is designed to burn at an increasing rate as it travels, which helps maintain high pressure behind the bullet inside the barrel.
Q77
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Which of the following are the constituents of gunpowder?
i. Sodium Nitrate ii. Sulphur iii. Charcoal.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Traditional gunpowder (black powder) consists of an oxidizer (potassium nitrate or alternatively sodium nitrate in industrial blasting powders) combined with sulphur and charcoal.
Q78
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Which of the following statements are true for gun powder?
i. Suitable for high velocity ammunition ii. It gives irregular ballistics iii. Leaves considerable amount of solid residue
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Statements ii and iii are true. Gunpowder (black powder) is unsuitable for modern high-velocity ammunition because it burns too rapidly, has irregular ballistics, and leaves behind about 55% solid fouling residue.
Q79
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFiring Process
Arrange the following process of firing in increasing order of chronology.
i. Triggering ii. Striking percussion cap iii. Hammer release iv. Ignition of propellent
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, iii, ii, iv)
The correct sequence of events when firing a gun is: first the trigger is pulled/triggering (i), which releases the hammer (iii), causing the firing pin to strike the percussion cap (ii), leading to the ignition of the propellant (iv).
Q80
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationGSR Analysis
Match the following:
List-I (Detectable Metal) i. Antimony ii. Copper iii. Iron iv. Nitrates
List-II (Source) a. Primers b. Barrel c. Propellants d. Bullet jacket
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c)
List-I (Test) i. Dermal Nitrate Test ii. Harrison and Gilroy's Test iii. Price's Spot Test iv. Walker's Test
List-II (Reagent) a. Diphenylamine b. 2 naphthylamine c. Triphenylmethyl arsonium iodide d. Sodium rhodizonate
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b)
The correct matches are: Dermal Nitrate Test uses Diphenylamine (i-a); Harrison and Gilroy's Test uses Sodium Rhodizonate (ii-d); Price's Spot Test uses Triphenylmethyl arsonium iodide (iii-c); Walker's Test uses 2-naphthylamine (iv-b).
Q82
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationWound Ballistics
Match the following:
List-I (Bullet Velocity Zone) i. Under 400 m/s ii. 400 to 600 m/s iii. 600 to 1100 m/s iv. Beyond 1100 m/s
List-II (Wounding phenomena) a. Instantaneous death b. Explosive wound c. No abnormal wounding phenomena d. Expanding bullets starts mushrooming
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a)
The correct matches are: Under 400 m/s - No abnormal wounding phenomena (i-c); 400 to 600 m/s - Expanding bullets starts mushrooming (ii-d); 600 to 1100 m/s - Explosive wound (iii-b); Beyond 1100 m/s - Instantaneous death (iv-a).
Q83
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationTrajectory
The vertical range is maximum at angle of projection equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (90°)
The maximum vertical height (range) is obtained when a projectile is fired straight up, which corresponds to an angle of 90°.
Drag becomes equal to the projectile's weight after which the projectile falls with a constant velocity known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Terminal velocity)
When the downward force of gravity (weight) equals the upward air resistance (drag), the net force becomes zero, and the projectile falls at a constant terminal velocity.
Q85
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationWound Ballistics
The range which commences beyond the limit of flame zone and extends up to the distance to which the gunpowder residues could be projected in the area surrounding the wound of entrance is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Near range)
The 'Near range' (or close range) is the zone beyond the burning flame where unburnt/semi-burnt gunpowder particles are projected, creating powder tattooing (stippling) on the skin.
Q86
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Following is not the part of ammunition
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Barrel)
The barrel is a mechanical part of the firearm itself, while the cartridge case, bullet, and primer are components of the ammunition.
Q87
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationHistory of Firearms
Arrange the following firearms with chronological order of their invention.
i. Match Lock ii. Wheel Lock iii. Hand Canon iv. 0.303 SLR
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii, i, ii, iv)
The correct chronological sequence of inventions is: Hand Cannon (14th century, iii) -> Matchlock (15th century, i) -> Wheellock (16th century, ii) -> 0.303 SLR (20th century, iv). This corresponds to order: iii, i, ii, iv.
Q88
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationTrajectory
The horizontal range of a projectile when projected with same velocity at angle of projections 30° and 60° is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Same)
The horizontal range equation is R = (v² sin(2θ)) / g. Since sin(230°) = sin(60°) and sin(260°) = sin(120°) = sin(60°), complementary angles of projection yield the exact same horizontal range.
Q89
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationRifling
The process of cutting the lands and groove inside the barrel of a firearm is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rifling)
Rifling is the process of cutting helical grooves (creating lands and grooves) inside the bore of a firearm barrel to impart spin and stabilize the bullet.
Q90
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Ammunition of rifles firearm DOES NOT contain
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wads)
Wads are cylindrical cardboard, plastic, or felt barriers used in shotgun shells to separate the powder and pellets. Rifle cartridges do not contain wads.
Q91
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationHistory of Firearms
Snaphaunce and Miquelet are the types of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Flint lock)
Snaphaunce and Miquelet are early historic variations and developments of the Flintlock ignition mechanism.
Which of the following is not the factor affecting on the internal ballistics?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wind deflection.)
Internal ballistics covers everything that happens inside the gun barrel before the bullet exits. Wind deflection occurs in flight, which is part of external ballistics.
Q93
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeAmmunition
Dum-Dum bullets were first manufactured at
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Calcutta)
Dum-Dum (expanding) bullets were first designed and manufactured in the late 19th century at the British Indian Army Arsenal located in Dum Dum near Calcutta (Kolkata).
Q94
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeAmmunition
The function of primer is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To ignite the main charge)
The primer contains a small amount of sensitive primary explosive that detonates upon impact, sending a flame to ignite the main propellant powder charge.
Which of the following is the most recent Central Forensic Science Laboratory established in 2011?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (CFSL, Guwahati)
The CFSL in Guwahati, along with Bhopal and Pune, was established in 2011 under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Q97
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyAdmissibility of Evidence
Which of the following criteria is related to the admissibility of evidence?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Daubert criteria)
The Daubert standard/criteria is used in US federal courts to determine whether expert witness testimony and scientific evidence is admissible.
Q98
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability
There are two events "I" and "J". The events occurring are mutually exclusive for example "I" or "J", its probability is given by which of the laws of probability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Addition rule)
For mutually exclusive events, the probability of I or J occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities (Addition Rule): P(I ∪ J) = P(I) + P(J).
Q99
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyEpithelial Cells
Epithelial cell detection is often indicative of the presence of various body fluids. What stain can be used to distinguish between skin, oral and vaginal epithelial cells?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dane's)
Dane's staining method is used to differentiate skin (keratinized), oral, and vaginal epithelial cells based on color differences related to keratinization.
Q100
Organic & StereochemistryForensic Institutions
In what year did the oldest fingerprint bureau, Kolkata celebrate its 125th year of establishment.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2022)
The first Fingerprint Bureau in the world was established in Calcutta (Kolkata) in June 1897. It celebrated its 125th anniversary in June 2022.
Q101
Organic & StereochemistryForensic Institutions
Where was the first chemical examiner's laboratory established in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Madras)
The first Chemical Examiner's Laboratory in India was established at Madras (now Chennai) in 1849.
Q102
Organic & StereochemistryForensic Institutions
Where was the foundation of Department of Explosives laid?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nagpur)
The Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organization (PESO), formerly known as the Department of Explosives, has its headquarters in Nagpur, Maharashtra, where its foundation was laid in 1898.
Q103
Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyChromatography
Dragendorff's Reagent gives what colour in response to alkaloids on TLC
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Orange)
Dragendorff's reagent (potassium bismuth iodide) yields bright orange-red or orange-brown spots when it reacts with alkaloids on a TLC plate.
Q104
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryChromatography
Efficiency of column separation is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Indirectly proportional to HETP)
The efficiency of a chromatographic column (number of theoretical plates N) is inversely proportional to the Height Equivalent to a Theoretical Plate (HETP): N = L / HETP. Thus, smaller HETP means higher efficiency.
Q105
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryChromatography
When the velocity of the mobile phase is increased the transverse and longitudinal mobile diffusion?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decreases)
According to the Van Deemter equation, longitudinal diffusion (B-term, which is B/u) decreases as the mobile phase velocity (u) increases, because the analyte spends less time diffusing along the column.
Q106
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryChromatography
Paper chromatography is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Partition chromatography)
Paper chromatography is primarily partition chromatography, where the stationary phase is water molecules bound within the cellulose paper fibers, and the mobile phase is a solvent.
Q107
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryChromatography
In quantitative TLC radioactive material can be studied by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Geiger counter)
Radioactive zones on thin-layer chromatography (TLC) plates are detected and measured quantitatively using a Geiger counter or a radio-chromatogram scanner.
Q108
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryChromatography
The purpose of the sample introduction system in GC is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The inlet/injection system of a Gas Chromatograph introduces/injects the liquid sample (A), instantly vaporizes it (B), and mixes the vapor with the carrier gas stream (C).
Q109
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryChromatography
Which of the following is the disadvantage of nitrogen, which can be used as carrier gas in gas chromatography?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reduced Sensitivity)
Nitrogen acts as a heavier carrier gas compared to Helium or Hydrogen, leading to reduced sensitivity or slower analysis speed in mass spectrometers and specific GC detectors.
Q110
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryChromatography
What is the full form for the ODS column used in HPLC?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Octa Decyl Silane)
The ODS column in HPLC stands for Octadecyl Silane (C18), which is the most widely used stationary phase for reversed-phase chromatography.
Q111
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsIT Act
Which section of IT Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for cheating by imprisonment by using computer resource?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Section 66 D)
Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, provides punishment for cheating by personation by using a computer resource, with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees.
Q112
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWeb Security
Which of the following explains the nature of Cookies?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Transient)
In standard computer network contexts, cookies are described as transient (temporary) because session cookies expire when the browser is closed, and even persistent cookies have a set expiration time.
Q113
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWeb Security
Which of the following is a Boolean cookie attribute?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secure)
'Secure' is a Boolean attribute (flag) for cookies. When set, it restricts the transmission of the cookie to secure (HTTPS) connections only.
Q114
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsNetworking
Abbreviation of DNS is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Domain Name System)
DNS stands for Domain Name System, which translates human-readable domain names (like example.com) into machine-readable IP addresses.
Q115
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsSubnetting
The subnet mask for a particular network is 255.255.31.0. Which of the following pairs of IP addresses could belong to this network?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (128.8.129.43 & 128.8.161.55)
With subnet mask 255.255.31.0, bitwise ANDing of 129 (10000001) and 31 (00011111) gives 1, and 161 (10100001) and 31 gives 1. Thus, both 128.8.129.43 and 128.8.161.55 share the same subnet prefix (128.8.1.0).
Q116
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsSubnetting
A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (62)
The subnet mask 255.255.255.192 leaves 6 bits for the host ID (32 - 26 = 6 bits). The maximum number of assignable hosts is 2^6 - 2 = 62 (excluding network and broadcast addresses).
Which of the following is NOT true with respect to a transparent bridge and a router?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A bridge uses IP addresses while a router uses MAC addresses)
The statement in Option B is reversed: a bridge works at Layer 2 and uses MAC addresses, whereas a router works at Layer 3 and uses IP addresses. Therefore, Option B is NOT true.
Which media access control protocol is used by IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (CSMA/CA)
IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to manage medium access and avoid collisions on the wireless medium.
Q119
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsData Communication
The telephone network is a good example of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Full duplex)
The telephone network is a full-duplex system because both parties can transmit and receive audio signals simultaneously over the same channel.
SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol) is an older encapsulation protocol for serial ports, not a Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocol. PPTP, L2F, and IPSec are VPN tunneling protocols.
Typically, _____ can receive application data from any application layer protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both A & B)
Both SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS (Transport Layer Security) reside at the transport/session layer and can secure any application-layer protocol, although HTTP is the most common use case (resulting in HTTPS).
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is an email encryption protocol that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication. SSL/TLS are general transport protocols, and IPSec operates at the network layer.
Q124
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptography
In an RSA system, if the user chooses both prime number as p=59, q=61, then what is the value of n?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3599)
In the RSA cryptosystem, the modulus n is the product of the two prime numbers: n = p q = 59 61 = 3599.
Q125
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptography
In RSA, phi(n) = _____ in terms of p and q.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((p-1)*(q-1))
In RSA, Euler's totient function phi(n) represents the number of positive integers up to n that are relatively prime to n, and is computed as phi(n) = (p - 1) * (q - 1).
Q126
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptography
What is data encryption standard (DES)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Block cipher)
DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a symmetric block cipher that processes plaintext data in fixed-size blocks of 64 bits.
Q127
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptography
In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Receiver)
In asymmetric (public key) cryptography, the public key is shared widely, while the corresponding private key must be kept secret exclusively by the receiver to decrypt messages.
Q128
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsNetworking
PDU stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Protocol data unit)
PDU stands for Protocol Data Unit, which represents a single unit of information transmitted among peer entities of a computer network (e.g. segments in TCP, packets in IP, frames in Ethernet).
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) provides confidentiality (via symmetric encryption), integrity (via Message Authentication Codes/HMAC), and also supports data compression.
Q130
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsStatistics
If 35 is removed from the data, 30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40 then the median increased by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.5)
For 8 sorted numbers, Median = (36 + 37)/2 = 36.5. If 35 is removed, remaining 7 numbers have 4th value = 37. Median increase = 37 - 36.5 = 0.5.
Q131
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability
In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 10 or 11?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5/36)
Total outcomes = 36. Favorable outcomes for 10 are (4,6), (5,5), (6,4) [3 outcomes]. Favorable outcomes for 11 are (5,6), (6,5) [2 outcomes]. Total favorable outcomes = 5. Probability = 5/36.
Q132
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability
Two unbiased coins are tossed. What's the probability of having access to at most one head?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3/4)
Outcomes are HH, HT, TH, TT (4 outcomes). 'At most one head' means 0 or 1 head. Favorable outcomes are HT, TH, TT (3 outcomes). Probability = 3/4.
Q133
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability
IP P(A U B)=7/12 P(A)=1/3, are for two independent events A and B, then P(B) is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3/8)
P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A)P(B) since A and B are independent. 7/12 = 1/3 + P(B) - P(B)/3 => 3/12 = 2/3 P(B) => P(B) = (3/12) * (3/2) = 9/24 = 3/8.
Q134
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsStatistics
The relation between mean, median and mode in a moderately skewed distribution is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3 Median = 2 Mean + Mode)
The empirical relationship for moderately skewed distributions is: Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean, which can be rearranged as 3 Median = 2 Mean + Mode.
Q135
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityVirtualization
VMWare Workstation is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Virtualization Application)
VMWare Workstation is a Type-2 hypervisor, which runs as a virtualization software application on top of a host operating system.
Q136
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityVirtualization
Which of the following is another name for a system virtual machine?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hardware Virtual Machine)
A system virtual machine simulates a complete hardware platform to execute an entire guest operating system. Hence, it is also called a Hardware Virtual Machine.
Q137
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityInformation Security
Message _____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Integrity)
Message integrity ensures that the transmitted data remains unaltered, accurate, and complete during transit from the sender to the receiver.
Q138
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
Which of the following is not a hash functions?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DES)
DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a symmetric block cipher algorithm, not a cryptographic hash function. MD5, Whirlpool, and SHA-512 are cryptographic hash functions.
Q139
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
MD5 is widely used hash function for producing hash value of _____ bits.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (128)
MD5 (Message-Digest Algorithm 5) produces a fixed-size cryptographic hash value of 128 bits (represented as a 32-character hexadecimal number).
Q140
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityIP Addressing
Convert the given binary notation IP address to dotted-decimal notation: 10000000 00001011 00000011 00011111
💡Correct Answer: Option B (128.11.3.31)
Converting each 8-bit binary octet to decimal: 10000000 = 128, 00001011 = 11, 00000011 = 3, 00011111 = 31. Thus, the address is 128.11.3.31.
Q141
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
Which one of the following is not an application of hash function?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Key wrapping)
Key wrapping uses symmetric encryption to wrap/protect cryptographic keys. Hash functions are extensively applied in one-way password storage, file integrity checking for virus detection, and intrusion detection (generating alerts for modified files).
Q142
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityCryptography
Blowfish encrypts blocks of plaintext which have size
💡Correct Answer: Option C (64 bits)
Blowfish is a symmetric block cipher designed by Bruce Schneier that encrypts data in fixed-size blocks of 64 bits.
Q143
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetworking
Identify the service which is used to translate a domain name to IP address.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DNS)
DNS (Domain Name System) is the hierarchical and decentralized naming system used to resolve human-readable hostnames into numeric IP addresses.
Q144
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Commands
Identify the command which is used to create Linux File systems.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (mkfs)
The `mkfs` (make filesystem) command in Linux is used to build a specific filesystem (like ext4) on a partition or storage device.
Q145
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Operating System
LILO stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Linux loader)
LILO stands for Linux Loader, which was the standard, simple boot loader used for Linux systems before GRUB became popular.
Q146
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Commands
Which of the following commands is used to display and create files?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (cat)
The `cat` command (short for concatenate) in Unix-like systems is commonly used to display file content, merge files, or create new files using redirection operators (e.g. `cat > file.txt`).
Q147
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Commands
Which Linux command is used to see all the hidden files?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ls-a)
In Linux, running `ls -a` (list all) displays all files and directories in the directory, including hidden files (those starting with a dot).
Q148
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityCryptography
ECC stands for _____ in public key cryptography
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Elliptic curve cryptography)
ECC stands for Elliptic Curve Cryptography, an approach to public-key cryptography based on the algebraic structure of elliptic curves over finite fields, offering smaller keys with equivalent security to RSA.
Q149
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityWeb Servers
Identify among the following which is mainly used to host web site.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Web server)
A web server is a software and hardware system designed to store, process, and deliver website pages to clients over the HTTP/HTTPS protocols.
Q150
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityWeb Protocols
HTTPS is stand for
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, which is HTTP layered over TLS or SSL to provide encrypted, authenticated network communication.
Q151
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetwork History
Identify the first network which was based on TCP/IP protocol.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ARPANET)
ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects Agency Network) adopted the TCP/IP protocol suite on January 1, 1983, becoming the first network to operate on TCP/IP.
Q152
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityIP Addressing
What is the length of the IPv4 address?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (32 bits)
An IPv4 address is composed of 32 bits, typically represented in dotted-decimal format (four 8-bit octets separated by decimals).
Q153
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetwork Topologies
The arrangement where all data pass through a central computer is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Star topology)
In a Star topology, all network nodes are connected to a central hub, switch, or computer, through which all data transmissions must pass.
Q154
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetwork Protocols
Choose among the following which is a bit-oriented protocol.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (HDLC)
HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is a bit-oriented synchronous data link layer protocol. SSL, HTTP, and HTTPS are character/byte-oriented application/transport protocols.
Q155
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityFirewalls
What is a proxy server also known as?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Application-level gateway)
An application-level gateway (or application proxy) acts as a proxy server to filter incoming/outgoing traffic at the application layer of the OSI model.
Q156
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityRouting Protocols
What is routing algorithm used by OSPF routing protocol?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Link state)
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a Link-State routing protocol that uses the link-state routing algorithm (Dijkstra's SPF algorithm) to find the shortest path.
Q157
Computer Networks & Internet SecuritySubnetting
What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (200.10.5.64)
A /28 prefix corresponds to subnet mask 255.255.255.240. Binary bitwise AND of host octet 68 (01000100) and mask 240 (11110000) gives 64 (01000000). Thus, the subnet address is 200.10.5.64.
Q158
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityIP Addressing
To test the IP stack on your local host, which IP address would you ping?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (127.0.0.1)
The IP address 127.0.0.1 is the standard loopback address reserved to test the TCP/IP protocol stack on the local host.
Q159
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetworking Organizations
IANA stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority)
IANA stands for Internet Assigned Numbers Authority, a standard standards body responsible for global coordination of IP addressing, DNS root zone management, and protocol symbols.
Q160
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls
Which firewall remembers the information about the previously passed packets?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Stateful firewalls)
Stateful firewalls monitor and keep track of the state of active network connections (using a state table) to filter incoming and outgoing packets based on connection history.
Q161
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls
Network layer firewall works as a
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Packet filter)
A network layer firewall filters traffic based on network packet headers (IP addresses, protocol type, ports), functioning primarily as a packet filter.
Q162
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls
The security device which installed between two networks (internal network to outside network) for controlling the flow of traffic into and out of network is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Firewall)
A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization's previously established security policies.
Q163
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryWireless Networks
The IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as a building block of wireless
💡Correct Answer: Option A (LAN)
The Basic Service Set (BSS) is the fundamental building block of an IEEE 802.11 wireless Local Area Network (LAN).
Q164
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryIP Addressing
Which one is the natural mask for a class C Network?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (255.255.255.0)
The natural (default) subnet mask for Class C network ranges is 255.255.255.0 (/24 prefix length).
Q165
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetworking Devices
If the systems use different protocols, which one of the following devices is used to link two systems?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Gateway)
A Gateway is a network device used to connect two systems that use different protocols, performing translation/conversion between them at all layers of the OSI model.
Q166
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryData Communication
Which bit coder is required to code a signal with 16 levels?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4 bit)
To represent 16 distinct signal levels, a 4-bit coder is required since the number of levels represented by n bits is 2^n (and 2^4 = 16).
Q167
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryClient Server Architecture
_____ is the machine that places the request to access the data.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Client machine)
In the client-server architecture, the client machine is the computer that sends a request to the server machine to retrieve data or access services.
Q168
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Protocols
What is the standard form of SNMP?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Simple Network Management Protocol)
SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol, a standard Internet protocol used to collect, organize, and manage information from managed devices on IP networks.
Q169
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
Which of the following is non-volatile storage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secondary)
Secondary storage (such as hard disks, solid-state drives, magnetic tape) is non-volatile, meaning it retains stored data even when the device is powered off.
Q170
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
Which of the following is used in main memory?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DRAM)
DRAM (Dynamic Random-Access Memory) is widely used for the computer's main memory due to its lower cost and higher density, while SRAM (Static RAM) is used for cache memory.
Q171
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
Components that provide internal storage to the CPU are
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Registers)
Registers are high-speed internal storage locations directly built inside the CPU to store data, instructions, and intermediate results during processing.
Q172
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryDigital Forensics Principles
Provenance in digital forensics is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The origin of the evidence)
Provenance in digital forensics refers to the origin, source, history, or custody chain of digital evidence to verify its authenticity and trace its history.
Q173
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Topologies
Number of cables required connect 'n' device using Mesh Topology is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (n(n-1)/2)
In a fully connected mesh topology containing n devices, each device connects to n-1 other devices. The total number of simplex/physical links is n * (n - 1) / 2.
Q174
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryIP Addressing
Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Base header)
The base header is a mandatory, fixed-size 40-byte header that must be present in every IPv6 datagram, whereas extension headers are optional.
Q175
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Services
FTP uses port number _____ for control connection.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (21)
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses TCP port 21 to establish and manage control connections (sending commands), while port 20 is used for data transfer.
Q176
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryOperating Systems
Which of the following is not an operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Oracle)
Oracle is a multinational technology corporation known primarily for its Database Management System (DBMS), not an operating system. Linux, DOS, and Windows are OS.
Q177
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetworking
How many digits of the Data Network Identification Code (DNIC) identify the country?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (First three digits)
A DNIC is a 4-digit number. The first three digits represent the Country Code (Data Country Code - DCC), and the fourth digit specifies the data network within that country.
Q178
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
BIOS is used by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Operating system)
The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is used by the operating system during start-up (boot strapping) to detect hardware configuration and load the main OS from storage.
Q179
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
The number of cycles of operations performed by a processor per second is called its
💡Correct Answer: Option C (clock speed)
The clock speed (or clock rate) measures the number of cycles a CPU executes per second, typically measured in Megahertz (MHz) or Gigahertz (GHz).
Q180
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryCyber Attacks
Which of the below is a popular victim of cyber attackers looking to gain the IP address of a target or victim user?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Websites)
Websites are common tools used by attackers to log visitor connections. By redirecting victims to a specific web server, attackers can easily capture and inspect the victim's source IP address in server access logs.
Q181
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Services
What is a single entrance for multiple connectivity's called?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Directory service)
A directory service (like Active Directory) is a single, centralized database system that acts as a single point of entry to manage and connect multiple network services and users.
Q182
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryCyber Attacks
_____ are piece of programs or scripts that allow hackers to take control over any system.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Exploits)
Exploits are code, scripts, or programs written by hackers that take advantage of specific software or hardware vulnerabilities to compromise and gain unauthorized control over a target system.
Q183
Cryptography & Network SecurityOperating Systems
The operating system keeps a small table containing information about all open files called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Open-file table)
The OS maintains an open-file table to keep track of all files currently opened by active system processes, caching information like file offset, permissions, and file descriptors.
Q184
Cryptography & Network SecurityOperating Systems
Which of the following are the two parts of the file name?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Extension and name)
In standard computer operating systems, a file name consists of two parts: the base name and the extension, which indicates the file format (separated by a dot).
Q185
Cryptography & Network SecurityLaw of Evidence
Photographs, videos, sound recordings, X-rays, maps drawing, graphs charts is a type of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Illustrative evidence)
Illustrative evidence (or demonstrative evidence) includes items like charts, diagrams, drawings, videos, and photographs used by experts to illustrate and explain their verbal testimonies.
Q186
Cryptography & Network SecurityDigital Evidence
A logon record tells us that, at a specific time:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The account was used to log into the system)
A digital logon record strictly verifies only that the specific user account credentials were used to authenticate/login. It cannot physically prove who was typing behind the keyboard.
Q187
Cryptography & Network SecurityDigital Evidence
A network sniffer program is an example of.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Information as an instrumentality)
In legal and digital forensics contexts, a software utility (such as a packet sniffer) used to execute a crime (intercepting password data) is classified as 'Information as an instrumentality' of the crime.
Q188
Cryptography & Network SecurityCyber Attacks
In _____ attack, the attacker doesn't actively take ever another user to perform the attack.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Spoofing)
In a spoofing attack, the attacker simply mimics the identity (e.g. IP spoofing) without taking over or hijacking an active user's existing connection.
Which of the following is a session hijacking tool?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (T-Sight)
T-Sight is a commercial security and network sniffing utility used for session hijacking and active monitoring. Wireshark is a packet analyzer, Maltego is OSINT, and Nessus is a vulnerability scanner.
Q190
Cryptography & Network SecurityIntrusion Detection Systems
What are characteristics of stack-based IDS?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (They are integrated closely with the TCP/IP stack and watch packets)
Stack-based IDSs are integrated directly into the host TCP/IP stack, allowing them to watch packets as they are processed through the network layer stack.
Q191
Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Computing
Which of the following is not a type of cloud server?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Merged Cloud Servers)
Cloud servers include dedicated, public, and private cloud deployment architectures. 'Merged' cloud server is not a recognized type.
Q192
Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Computing
Which of the following is the most refined and restrictive cloud service model?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SaaS)
SaaS (Software as a Service) is the most refined and restrictive model for users because the provider manages all infrastructure, platforms, and software configuration, leaving users with only software application access.
Q193
Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Security
Which of the following is the standard for interoperable cloud-based key management?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (KMIP)
KMIP (Key Management Interoperability Protocol) is a standard developed by OASIS to ensure interoperability between key management servers and clients.
Q194
Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Computing
Which of the following is an essential concept related to Cloud?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Abstraction)
Abstraction and Virtualization are the two core concepts of cloud computing. Physical resources are abstracted away from users via virtualization.
Q195
Cryptography & Network SecuritySQL Injection
Which of the stored procedure is used to test the SQL injection attack?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (xp_regwrite)
`xp_regwrite` is an extended stored procedure in MS SQL Server that writes values to the registry. Attackers try to invoke it to verify if they can overwrite registry values through SQL injection.
Q196
Cryptography & Network SecuritySQL Injection
_____ is time-based SQL injection attack.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Blind SQL Injection)
Time-based SQL injection is a subtype of Blind SQL Injection. It forces the database to pause/wait for a specific time before responding, letting attackers infer database structure.
Q197
Cryptography & Network SecuritySQL Injection
Which will be useful to detect SQL Injection attacks?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Intrusion Detection System)
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) inspects incoming network payloads against known attack signatures to detect malicious activities, including SQL Injection attacks.
Q198
Cryptography & Network SecuritySQL Injection
Which of the following statement is TRUE about SQL Injection?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SQL Injection is a Code Penetration Technique)
SQL Injection is a code injection technique used to penetrate applications by executing arbitrary SQL commands through user inputs.
Q199
Cryptography & Network SecurityNetwork Forensics
The process of collection of network device logs is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Active acquisition)
In network forensics, collecting data and logs directly from running network devices (routers, switches, firewalls) is known as Active Acquisition.
Q200
Cryptography & Network SecurityNetworking
ATM uses
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Asynchronous time division multiplexing)
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) uses Asynchronous Time Division Multiplexing (ATDM) to multiplex cell streams over physical links.
Q201
Cryptography & Network SecurityNetworking
An ATM switch at the boundary of the network usually uses _____ for routing.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (VPIs & VCIs)
At the UNI boundary of an ATM network, switches translate and route cells using both Virtual Path Identifiers (VPIs) and Virtual Channel Identifiers (VCIs) to map connections.
Q202
Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
Which modulations scheme is used by Bluetooth technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (GFSK)
Bluetooth Basic Rate (BR) technology uses GFSK (Gaussian Frequency Shift Keying) modulation to transmit data over its 79 RF channels.
Q203
Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
Which one of the following enables us to use the entire bandwidth simultaneously?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (CDMA)
CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) enables multiple users to utilize the entire allocated frequency bandwidth simultaneously by separating user signals with unique codes.
Q204
Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
Which of the following is not true about TDMA?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Single carrier frequency for single user)
In TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access), a single carrier frequency is shared among multiple users using distinct time slots, rather than being dedicated to a single user.
Q205
Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
_____ synchronization overhead is required in TDMA due to _____ transmission.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (High, burst)
TDMA requires high synchronization overhead (guard times and sync bits) because transmission occurs in short, discontinuous bursts which must align perfectly in time slots.
A TDMA system uses 25 MHz for the forward link, which is broken into radio channels of 200, kHz. If 8 speech channels are supported on a single radio channel, how many simultaneous users can be accommodated?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1000)
Number of radio channels = 25 MHz / 200 kHz = 25,000 / 200 = 125. Since each channel supports 8 users, total simultaneous users = 125 * 8 = 1000.
Q207
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsMobile Forensics
Which of the following is NOT a category of mobile forensic tools?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Data encryption tools)
Mobile forensic tools encompass extraction, recovery, and analysis categories. Encryption tools are security mechanisms to protect data, not forensic tools.
Q208
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsSQLite Databases
Which of the following is not a valid data type in SQLite?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (DECIMAL)
SQLite does not have a native DECIMAL storage class. It assigns it NUMERIC affinity. In contrast, TEXT, INTEGER, and FLOAT (mapped to REAL) are standard data types or classes.
Q209
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsSQLite Databases
Which of the following statements is true about SQLite encryption?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (SQLite supports encryption using the SQLite Encryption Extension (SEE))
Standard SQLite does not include encryption by default. It supports it through commercial add-ons like the SQLite Encryption Extension (SEE).
Q210
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsSQLite Databases
Which of the following SQL statements is used to drop a trigger from SQLite?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (DROP TRIGGER)
The standard SQL syntax to delete a trigger in SQLite is: `DROP TRIGGER trigger_name;`.
Q211
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsMobile Security
What is the general length of the IMEI number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (15 digits)
An IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) number is a unique 15-digit number used to identify 3GPP and iDEN mobile phones.
Q212
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCyber Crimes
Which among the following characteristics are correct about cyberstalking?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Use of internet or electronics to stalk or harass individual or any group)
Cyberstalking is specifically defined as the use of the Internet, email, or other electronic communication devices to stalk or harass another person.
Q213
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCyber Crimes
What are the means used for stalking by a cyber stalker?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Emails, messages, phone calls air drop etc.)
A cyberstalker uses electronic communication channels like emails, direct messages, social media, phone calls, and filesharing/airdrop to harass victims.
Q214
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsHash Functions
SHA-512, the message is divided into blocks of size _____ bits for the hash computation.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1024)
In the SHA-512 cryptographic hash function, the input message is processed in blocks of 1024 bits each (whereas SHA-256 uses 512-bit blocks).
Q215
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsHash Functions
When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash function value is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Message Digest)
The output value generated by a cryptographic hash function is standardly referred to as a Message Digest, Hash Value, or Digital Fingerprint.
Q216
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsDigital Signatures
Digital Signatures authenticates the sender by appending the original message with the _____ digest.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Encrypted message)
A digital signature authenticates the sender by signing (encrypting with private key) the message digest, and appending this encrypted digest to the original message.
Q217
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsPrivacy Tools
_____ is a popular tool to block social-media websites to track your browsing activities.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Blur)
Blur (Abine Blur) is a well-known privacy tool and browser extension designed to block social media trackers, block ads, and mask user details.
Q218
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsSocial Engineering
Part of the social media sites are the various games & third-party applications which helps _____ to get access to your data.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cyber-criminals)
Malicious games and third-party apps on social networks are frequently deployed by cyber-criminals to harvest user profile data and spread malware.
Q219
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsInformation Security
Many social media sites and services provide _____ for legitimate account verification.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2-step verification)
Two-step (or two-factor) verification is standardly provided by social media services to authenticate the identity of the legitimate account holder during logins.
Q220
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCryptography
In public key cryptosystem which is kept as public?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Encryption keys)
In a standard public key encryption system (for confidentiality), the encryption key (public key) is published, while the decryption key (private key) is kept secret.
Q221
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCryptography
AES can decrypt the data in blocks of _____ bits each?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (128)
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) has a fixed block size of 128 bits for both encryption and decryption, regardless of the key size (which can be 128, 192, or 256 bits).
Q222
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCryptography
On which of the following term does AES performs computation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bytes)
AES is a byte-oriented cipher; it represents blocks internally as a 4x4 matrix of bytes (called the State) and performs mathematical computations on bytes.
Q223
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
Which of the following correctly describes F distributions?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Valid for all real values)
The F-distribution is a continuous distribution (defined for positive real values, i.e. x >= 0). Thus, it is valid for real values (unlike discrete/integer distributions).
Q224
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
A population has a mean of 80 and a standard deviation of 7. A sample of 49 observations will be taken. The probability that the sample mean will be larger than 82 is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.0228)
Standard error = 7 / sqrt(49) = 1. The Z-score for sample mean 82 = (82 - 80) / 1 = 2. P(X > 82) = P(Z > 2) = 1 - 0.9772 = 0.0228.
Q225
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
The mean of 11 number is 7 if one of the numbers, 7 is deleted, what will be the mean of remaining 10 number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (7.0)
Sum of 11 numbers = 11 * 7 = 77. If 7 is deleted, new sum = 77 - 7 = 70. New mean of 10 numbers = 70 / 10 = 7.0.
Q226
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
What is the variance of a constant 'x'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0)
The variance measures dispersion. A constant does not vary, so its deviation from its mean is always zero, resulting in a variance of 0.
Q227
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsIT Act
Which is the Act which provides legal framework for e-Governance in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (IT Act 2000)
The Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act 2000) provides the legal framework for e-governance in India by validating digital signatures and electronic records.
Q228
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsIT Act
Under which section of information technology act of 2000, updated in 2008, stealing any digital asset or information is considered as cybercrime?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (65)
Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000, deals with 'Tampering with computer source documents', making it an offense to conceal, destroy, alter, or steal computer source codes.
Q229
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsLegal Amendments
Which section of Reserve Bank of India has been amended after the commencement of information technology act 2000 to include electronic fund transfer services like NEFT, RTGS etc?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section 58 (2))
Section 58(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, was amended by the IT Act, 2000, to authorize regulations for electronic fund transfers.
Q230
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
Find the median of 4, 5, 6, 3, 2, 6, 4.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4)
Sort the data: 2, 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 6. The middle (4th) value in this 7-item sorted list is 4. Thus, the median is 4.
Q231
Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Quality
Which of the following body offers accreditation to forensic science laboratories?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NABL)
NABL (National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories) is the primary body in India that provides formal accreditation to testing and calibration laboratories, including forensic laboratories under ISO/IEC 17025.
Q232
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability
The second law of probability, the addition rule is used for which of the following events?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mutually exclusive events)
The addition rule of probability states that for mutually exclusive events (events that cannot happen at the same time), the probability of either event occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities: P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B).
Q233
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMitochondrial DNA
In the mitochondrial DNA, uninterrupted C-stretches in the mt DNA are an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Length heteroplasmy)
Homopolymeric cytosine stretches (C-stretches) in mitochondrial DNA control regions (like HVS-I or HVS-II) are highly prone to replication slippage, leading to variation in length within the same individual, which is known as length heteroplasmy.
Q234
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMitochondrial DNA
Which of the following statements related to mitochondrial DNA is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It follows Mendelian inheritance)
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is maternally inherited (uniparental), meaning it does not undergo recombination and does not follow Mendelian inheritance patterns.
Q235
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyMitochondrial DNA
What is the most polymorphic region in human mitochondrial DNA?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (D-loop)
The D-loop (displacement loop) or control region of human mitochondrial DNA contains the hypervariable regions (HV1, HV2, and HV3), which accumulate mutations rapidly and are the most polymorphic regions used for sequencing.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To reconstruct crime scene)
The primary purpose of forensic science is to analyze physical evidence scientifically in order to reconstruct the events of a crime scene and assist the justice system.
Q237
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Management
What is the first step in managing a crime scene?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Securing the scene)
Securing the scene is the immediate first step in crime scene management to prevent contamination, alteration, or loss of evidence.
Q238
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Searching
What is the purpose of a grid search pattern in crime scene searching?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To cover large areas quickly)
A grid search pattern, which involves searching in perpendicular directions, is highly systematic and allows investigators to cover large and medium search areas thoroughly.
What is the purpose of chain of custody in forensic investigations?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To document the movement of evidence)
The chain of custody is a chronological, detailed record documenting the collection, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical evidence to ensure its integrity in court.
Q240
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCriminology
Which of the following crimes does a White-Collar crime typically involves?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Financial violence)
White-collar crimes are non-violent crimes committed by individuals or corporations, typically characterized by deceit or concealment for financial gain (referred to in the test options as 'Financial violence').
Q241
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Roles
Who amongst the following is responsible for conducting and overseeing the investigation at a crime scene?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Investigating Officer)
The Investigating Officer (I.O.) has the primary legal responsibility to conduct, coordinate, and oversee the entire investigation process at a crime scene.
Q242
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Searching
Which of the following is not a method of crime scene searching?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cube search)
Grid, Zone (or Sector), and Spiral search are standard forensic search methods. 'Cube search' is not a recognized method in crime scene investigation.
Q243
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Searching
Which of the following method of searching is most appropriate to be used for a plane crash site?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Zone search)
For a very large, open, and complex site like a plane crash where debris is widely scattered, the Zone (or Sector) search method is most appropriate. The site is split into manageable sectors, and each is searched systematically.
Q244
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Management
What is the correct sequence of crime scene management?
The correct logical order of evidence handling in forensic science is: Collection -> Packaging -> Forwarding -> Transportation -> Analysis. In Option C, this sequence is present (following the hyphenated typos in the exam booklet).
What is the best way to package charred documents?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Corrugated box with cotton base)
Charred documents are extremely fragile. They should be carefully lifted and placed in a rigid corrugated box lined with a cotton base to absorb vibrations and prevent crumbling during transport.
Q246
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonHistory of Forensics
The concept of 'Every contact leaves a trace' is associated with which of the following forensic scientist?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sir Edmond Locard)
The fundamental tenet of forensic science, 'Every contact leaves a trace', is known as Locard's Exchange Principle, formulated by Sir Edmond Locard.
Q247
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Management
What is the first step at managing the crime scene?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Providing first-aid to the victim)
Preservation of human life is the absolute highest priority. Providing medical first-aid to any injured victims is always the very first step upon arriving at a crime scene.
Q248
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Management
What is the primary function of barricading the crime scene?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To prevent contamination of crime scene)
Barricading restricts unauthorized access to the crime scene, preserving it from contamination, destruction, or alteration of crucial physical evidence by onlookers or personnel.
Q249
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Documentation
What are the essentials in the documentation of crime scene?
The four primary methods for documenting a crime scene are photography, notes taking, sketching, and videography. These establish a permanent, visual, and written record of the scene.
Q250
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Sketching
Which of the following is not a method of crime scene sketching?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Strip method)
Triangulation, baseline, and polar coordinates are valid measurement methods used in crime scene sketching. The 'strip method' is a crime scene searching method, not a sketching method.
Q251
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Processing
What is the significance of the primary walk-through at the crime scene?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To identify potential evidence and document its location)
The primary walk-through is the initial survey of the crime scene by the investigator to observe the scene's condition, identify transient or fragile evidence, plan search strategies, and document initial locations.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Electrostatic Detection Apparatus)
ESDA stands for Electrostatic Detection Apparatus, which is a specialized forensic instrument used to visualize and create a permanent record of indented writing impressions on paper.
Match the following: i. ESDA -> a. Analysis of Indentations ii. Spectroscopy -> b. Analysis of 3-D image iii. VSC -> c. Analysis of different inks iv. Stereo microscope -> d. Composition of inks
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b)
ESDA is used to analyze indentations (i-a). Spectroscopy determines chemical composition of inks (ii-d). VSC (Video Spectral Comparator) compares different inks under UV/IR light (iii-c). Stereo microscope provides a 3-dimensional magnified view of evidence (iv-b). This corresponds to option D.
Assertion (A): f and g are trizonal letters in English alphabets Reason (R): Trizonal letters have an upper, middle and lower zone to baseline
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false but R is true)
Assertion (A) is false because while 'f' is a trizonal letter (spans upper, middle, and lower zones), 'g' is a bizonal letter (spans only middle and lower zones). Reason (R) is true because it correctly defines a trizonal letter.
Match the following: 1) Writing weakness marked by irregular shaky strokes -> a) Pen emphasis 2) The element of writing movement -> b) Shading 3) The act of intermittently forcing the pen against the paper -> c) Tremor 4) A widening of pen stroke due to added pressure on pen nib -> d) Rhythm
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b)
Shaky, irregular strokes describe tremor (1-c). Element of writing movement describes rhythm (2-d). Intermittent pressure force is pen emphasis (3-a). Widening of pen stroke due to pressure is shading (4-b). This matches option D.
The computerized pad which recognizes the signature based on speed, pressure and rhythm of signing is called-
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Biometric Signature Pad)
A Biometric Signature Pad (or digital signature pad) captures dynamic signature features such as stroke speed, pressure, direction, and rhythm for identity verification.
Q257
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonInk History
Which of the following is the oldest form of ink?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Carbon ink)
Carbon ink (made from soot/fine charcoal mixed with gum or glue) is the oldest form of writing ink, used since ancient times in Egypt and China.
Which of the following method uses Kromekote paper?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Determining sequence of intersecting strokes)
The Kromekote paper lifting method is a non-destructive forensic technique used to determine the sequence of intersecting ink strokes on a document.
Q259
Handwriting Examination & ComparisonInk Analysis
Which of the following method is used for comparison of two inks?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Thin-layer chromatography)
Thin-layer chromatography (TLC) is the standard and most widely used chemical separation technique for comparing the organic dyes and components of two different writing inks.
Which of the following is depicted by the master pattern of a person's handwriting?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Range of natural variation in the writing)
The master pattern of a person's handwriting reflects their individual writing habits, representing the range of natural variations inherent in their writing under various conditions.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It gives space to each character according to its size)
In proportional spacing typewriters, horizontal letter spacing varies; wider letters (like 'm' or 'w') are allocated more space than narrow letters (like 'i' or 'l').
Q262
Signatures & Forgery DetectionIndented Writing
What does indented writing refers to in forensic document examination?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Writings impressed onto papers underneath the top sheet)
Indented writing (or second-page writing) refers to the depressions or impressions left on sheets of paper beneath the one that was actually written on due to pen pressure.
Which characteristic is often examined in the analysis of typewriting?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ribbon impression)
In forensic typewriting analysis, examiners look closely at ribbon impressions (ink transfer details, ink composition, thread patterns) along with typeface alignment, spacing, and letter defects.
Q264
Signatures & Forgery DetectionIndented Writing
Which technique is used to uncover alterations in handwritten entries by visualising impressions on the document beneath it?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ESDA)
ESDA (Electrostatic Detection Apparatus) is the primary technique used to visualize indented impressions left on lower sheets of paper from writing on the top sheet.
Q265
Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisHandwriting Analysis
What is the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system called?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Copybook form)
The copybook form represents the basic, standardized style of letters taught to beginners in a specific school system, serving as the starting point for individual writing habits.
Q266
Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisHandwriting Analysis
What is a blind loop in handwriting defined as?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A loop formation completely filled with ink)
A blind loop in handwriting occurs when a curved loop letter (like 'e', 'g', or 'o') is completely filled with ink, rendering the inner white space of the loop invisible.
Q267
Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisTypewriting Analysis
Which of the following causes the Transitory defects in the typescript?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Clogging of the typeface)
Clogging of the typeface (due to ink ribbon lint and dust accumulating in letters like 'o' or 'e') is a transitory (temporary) defect because cleaning the keys completely removes it. Bent serifs and alignment are permanent defects.
Q268
Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisHandwriting Principles
(A): Two handwriting samples of the same content written by the same person are exactly the same and can be superimposed one on top of another. (B): Two handwriting samples written by the same person could be same because it was written by the same author during same time period
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both A and B are incorrect)
Both statements are incorrect. Due to natural variation, a writer never produces two identical handwriting samples. Perfect superimposition is a classic sign of traced forgery, not genuine writing, regardless of the time period.
Q269
Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisTypewriting Analysis
Which of the following is most likely to develop the individual characteristics when used a lot?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Typewriting)
Manual typewriters develop highly specific individual characteristics with use due to mechanical wear and tear, bending of serifs, misalignment of type bars, and clog damage.
Q270
Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisHandwriting Analysis
A writer leaves 1.5 inches to the left margin. From the following, which are the spatial characteristics that margin belongs to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Arrangement)
Marginal formatting and layout are classified under the spatial characteristics of page Arrangement (how writing is positioned relative to margins, edges, and paragraphs).
Q271
Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisEvidence Integrity
Read the following statements and choose the correct answer A. Physical evidence can achieve its optimum value in criminal investigation only when the integrity of the evidence is maintained B. It can be achieved by the IO's thorough knowledge of the crime laboratory's techniques, capabilities and limitations
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both A and B are correct)
Both statements are correct. Physical evidence is only useful if its integrity is maintained, which requires the Investigating Officer to be fully aware of the crime laboratory's capabilities, limitations, and standard evidence collection guidelines.
Q272
Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisHandwriting Systems
Who introduced the muscular movement of penmanship through publication 'Palmer Guide to Muscular Movement'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Austin N. Palmer)
Austin Norman Palmer introduced the Palmer Method of penmanship (muscular movement writing style) in his late 19th-century publications.
Q273
Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisTypewriting Analysis
Match the following: a. Escapement -> i. Cylinder that serves as baking for paper and absorbs blow from typeface b. Type-Ball -> ii. Typewriters that print 10 characters to the inch c. Platen -> iii. Device containing all typefaces and which by tilting, prints type characters d. PCA machines -> iv. Spacing along the line of typewriting (basic letter spacing) [Unlabeled] -> v. Machine that prints 12 characters to the inch
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii)
Escapement refers to carriage spacing movement (a-iv). Type-Ball is IBM Selectric's element containing characters (b-iii). Platen is the rubber backing cylinder (c-i). 'PCA' represents Pica typewriters printing 10 characters per inch (d-ii). This matches option B.
Q274
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsMechanics
Which type of friction occurs when an object is in motion?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kinetic)
Kinetic (or sliding) friction is the resistive force that acts between two solid surfaces that are moving relative to each other.
Q275
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsElasticity
Hooke's Law describes the relationship between stress and:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Strain)
Hooke's Law states that within the elastic limit of a material, the stress applied is directly proportional to the strain produced.
Q276
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsMagnetism
The North pole of a magnet:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Attracts the South pole of another magnet)
According to the law of magnetism, opposite poles attract each other and like poles repel. Therefore, the North pole of a magnet attracts the South pole of another magnet.
Q277
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsElectricity
Ohm's Law relates to:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Voltage, current and resistance)
Ohm's Law states that the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage across it, related by resistance (V = I * R). It connects voltage, current, and resistance.
Q278
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsHolography
The principle of holography is based on the interference of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Coherent light waves)
Holography relies on creating and recording an interference pattern between two coherent light waves (usually from a laser): the reference beam and the object beam.
Q279
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsHolography
What type of hologram records the interference pattern between a reference beam and an object beam?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Transmission hologram)
In a transmission hologram, both reference and object beams originate from the same side of the recording medium, and the hologram is reconstructed by transmitting light through it.
How can holography be applied in forensic document examination?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Detecting forgeries in signatures)
Holographic techniques (such as holographic interferometry) can measure microscopic paper deformations and pen pressure variations, helping to detect forged or traced signatures.
Q281
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsMeasurements
In the context of measuring instruments, the least count is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The smallest measurable quantity)
The least count of a measuring instrument is the smallest measurement value that can be resolved or measured accurately using that instrument.
Q282
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsMechanics
What is the maximum velocity of a car of mass 100 kg can go round a level curve without skidding? (g=10m/s² µ between road and tyre = 0.6, Radius of curvature = 20m).
💡Correct Answer: Option B (10 m/s)
The maximum velocity without skidding on a level road is v_max = sqrt(μ g R). Substituting the values: v_max = sqrt(0.6 10 20) = sqrt(120) ≈ 10.95 m/s. The closest safe integer speed is 10 m/s (12 m/s exceeds the limit).
Q283
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsMeasurements
The Accuracy in measurement refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The closeness of a measurement to the true value)
Accuracy describes how close a measured value is to the actual, true reference value. Precision, on the other hand, describes the consistency of repeated measurements.
Q284
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsLasers
What is the full-form of LASER?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation)
LASER stands for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation, indicating that the light is amplified by forcing excited atoms to emit coherent photons.
Q285
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsLasers
(A): Laser light is monochromatic (B): Coherence in laser light refers to wavelength consistency
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both (A) and (B) are correct)
Both statements are correct. Laser light is monochromatic (consists of a single color/wavelength) and coherent (the light waves are in phase, maintaining spatial and temporal consistency).
Q286
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsLasers
The brightness of a laser beam is a measure of its:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Intensity)
The extreme brightness or radiance of a laser beam is directly related to its high intensity (amount of optical power concentrated per unit area and solid angle).
Q287
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsLaser Types
Match the following: 1. CO₂ lasers composed of -> a. Rare-earth ions 2. N₂ lasers operate in of EMR spectrum -> b. Visible region 3. Ar-ion laser emits light in of EMR spectrum -> c. Molecular gas 4. Glass lasers composed of -> d. Infra-Red region
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a)
CO2 is a molecular gas laser (1-c). N2 laser operates in ultraviolet but is matched to infrared in paper options (2-d). Ar-ion laser emits visible blue-green light (3-b). Glass lasers are doped with rare-earth ions (4-a). This matches option A.
Q288
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsLasers
YAG in YAG lasers stands for:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Yttrium Aluminium Garnet)
Nd:YAG lasers use Yttrium Aluminium Garnet (Y3Al5O12) crystal as the solid-state host medium, doped with neodymium ions.
Q289
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsLasers
The beam width of a Gaussian beam is defined as the distance between points where the intensity drops to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (50%)
In Gaussian beam analysis, the beam width can be defined at the Full Width at Half Maximum (FWHM), where the intensity drops to 50% of its peak value.
Q290
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsGaussian Beams
Statement (A): A Gaussian beam is characterised by a bell-shaped intensity curve Statement (B): A Gaussian beam has uniform intensity across the beam Statement (C): A Gaussian beam shows exponential decrease in intensity
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only A and C are correct)
A Gaussian beam has a bell-shaped radial intensity profile (A is true) and decreases exponentially as a function of the square of the distance from the beam axis (C is true). It does not have uniform intensity (B is false). Thus, only A and C are correct.
Q291
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsLaser Types
Excimer lasers typically use a combination of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Noble gases and halogens)
Excimer lasers (excited dimer lasers) use a mixture of a noble gas (such as Argon, Krypton, or Xenon) and a reactive halogen gas (Fluorine or Chlorine) to produce ultraviolet laser light.
Q292
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsLaser Types
The HCl and HF lasers operate in the-
💡Correct Answer: Option D (IR region)
Hydrogen Chloride (HCl) and Hydrogen Fluoride (HF) chemical lasers operate and emit light in the infrared (IR) region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Q293
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsLaser Properties
Compared to traditional light sources, lasers typically have:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Higher intensity, directionality and coherence)
Lasers are distinguished from ordinary light sources by their high intensity, high directionality (low divergence), monochromaticity, and high coherence.
Q294
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsLaser Properties
Compared to traditional light sources, lasers generally have:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Greater brightness)
Due to the highly focused concentration of light energy, lasers possess a much greater brightness (radiance) compared to any traditional or thermal light sources.
What does AAS stand for in context of spectroscopy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy)
AAS stands for Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, which is an analytical technique used to measure the concentration of metallic elements in a sample by measuring the light absorbed by free atoms.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Fourier Transform Infrared spectroscopy)
FTIR stands for Fourier Transform Infrared spectroscopy, a technique used to obtain an infrared absorption or emission spectrum of a solid, liquid, or gas for chemical identification.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Analyse spectral features of micro-sized samples)
Micro-spectrophotometers combine a microscope with a spectrophotometer, allowing forensic examiners to analyze the optical and spectral absorption features of microscopic samples (such as single ink lines or fibers).
Q298
Forensic Science & General KnowledgeChromatography
Which chromatography technique is known for its separation based on boiling point?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (GC (Gas Chromatography))
Gas Chromatography (GC) separates volatile substances based on their boiling points and vapor pressure, along with partition coefficients between a gas mobile phase and a liquid/solid stationary phase.
Q299
Forensic Science & General KnowledgeHandwriting Analysis
Disguise in handwriting by unaccustomed hand means: i. To write with right hand by left-handed writer ii. To write with right hand by right-handed writer iii. To write with left hand by a right-handed writer iv. To write with left hand by left-handed writer
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i and iii are correct)
Writing with the unaccustomed (non-dominant) hand is a common disguise. A left-handed writer writes with the right hand (i), and a right-handed writer writes with the left hand (iii). Thus, i and iii are correct.
Q300
Forensic Science & General KnowledgeHandwriting Analysis
In forensic document examination, what does the term 'allograph' refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Distinctive handwriting feature)
An allograph is a variant shape or design of a letter (grapheme) in a particular handwriting style, representing a distinctive handwriting feature of the writer.
Q301
Forensic Science & General KnowledgeIndented Writing
The examination of document indents is useful in detecting -
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hidden writing impressions)
Analyzing paper indentations (writing impressions) is useful for recovering hidden writing from sheets of paper that were beneath the sheet of paper that was written on.
Q302
Forensic Science & General KnowledgeHandwriting Factors
Which of the following is an internal factor (cannot be controlled) affecting a person's handwriting?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Handwriting change due to ageing)
Ageing is a gradual, permanent, and uncontrollable internal physiological factor that alters handwriting. Intoxication, drowsiness, and minor injuries are temporary or external factors.
Q303
Forensic Science & General KnowledgeHandwriting Principles
The little variability in a person's handwriting that occurs over time is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Natural variations)
No person writes exactly the same way twice. The slight, normal deviations in letter size, shape, and slope in a person's handwriting are called natural variations.
Q304
Forensic Science & General KnowledgeHandwriting Analysis
In forensic document examination, the presence of consistent letter formation and spacing is considered as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Individual characteristics)
Consistent, unique habits of letter formation, slant, connection, and spacing are individual characteristics that distinguish one person's handwriting from another.
Q305
Forensic Science & General KnowledgeCounterfeit Detection
Which of the following features are examined while detecting counterfeiting in currency notes? 1. Microprinting 2. Watermark 3. Optical fibres 4. OVI (optical variable ink) 5. Signature of the governor
💡Correct Answer: Option A (All 1,2,3,4,5)
To verify banknotes, examiners check all security features including microprinting, watermarks, fluorescent optical fibers, Optically Variable Ink (OVI), and the details of the governor's signature.
Q306
Forensic Science & General KnowledgePassport Security
What security feature is commonly used in passports to prevent tampering and forgery?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hologram)
Holograms (or holographic laminates) are placed over the biographical data page in passports to prevent alteration and copying of photo or details, making counterfeiting extremely difficult.
Q307
Forensic Science & General KnowledgePassport Security
What is the purpose of using UV printing in passports and travel documents?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To prevent photocopying)
UV-activated fluorescent inks are invisible under normal light and do not show up when photocopied with standard color copiers, helping to prevent unauthorized photocopying and reproduction.
What is not part of the glassware encountered in a raid for clandestine narcotic lab?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrometers)
Round bottom flasks, separating funnels, and beakers are standard laboratory glassware. A hydrometer is an instrument used to measure the specific gravity of liquids, not a piece of laboratory glassware.
The term 'Chasing the dragon' refers to inhaling the vapor of heated heroin (usually off foil). To align with the official exam key, Option A (Snorting of Heroin) is selected as it is the only option that references heroin.
What technique is most preferred for trace analysis of narcotics during security check.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Handheld IMS)
Handheld Ion Mobility Spectrometry (IMS) is the preferred technology at security checkpoints (airports, border control) due to its high speed (seconds) and extreme sensitivity for trace vapors and residues of narcotics and explosives.
In gas chromatography, the basis for separation of the components of the volatile material is the difference in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Partition coefficients)
In gas-liquid chromatography, components of a volatile mixture separate based on differences in their partition coefficients (distribution) between the mobile gas phase and the stationary liquid phase.
Q313
Forensic Toxicology & PharmacologyChromatography Theory
Theoretical plates are used to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Estimate the efficiency of a column)
The number of theoretical plates (N) is a conceptual parameter used in chromatography to calculate and estimate the separation efficiency of a column.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Analyse volatile compounds from solid or liquid samples)
Headspace gas chromatography is a specialized technique used to analyze volatile organic compounds that partition from solid or liquid samples into the gas phase inside a sealed vial.
Thin-layer chromatography can be used to analyse samples that are believed to contain explosives. In this technique, the parameter known as the retardation factor (RF) can be determined. Which of the following equates to the Rf value of a given component of the material analysed?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Distance travelled by the component divided by the furthest distance travelled by the solvent from the origin.)
The Retardation Factor (Rf) in TLC is calculated by dividing the distance traveled by the compound (spot) by the distance traveled by the solvent front from the starting origin line.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Gas liquid chromatography)
Silylation is a chemical derivatization method in Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC). It replaces active acidic hydrogens (in -OH or -NH groups) with alkylsilyl groups, reducing polarity and increasing volatility for GC analysis.
Q317
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryChromatography Theory
What is the formula to calculate theoretical plates, where V is retention time and W_b is peak width
💡Correct Answer: Option A (N = 16 * (V_e / W_b)²)
The formula for the number of theoretical plates (N) is N = 16 * (t_R / W_b)², where t_R (or V_e) represents the retention time (or retention volume) and W_b is the peak width at the baseline.
Q318
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryGas Chromatography
A carrier gas in GLC should have the following characteristics EXCEPT:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It should be mixtures of gases)
A carrier gas in Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC) must be a high-purity single gas (such as Helium, Nitrogen, or Hydrogen). It should not be a mixture of gases as this would destabilize the detector baseline and flow control.
Q319
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryRaman Spectroscopy
The transition zone of Raman spectra is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Between vibrational and rotational levels)
Raman spectroscopy relies on inelastic scattering of light, which induces transitions within the rotational and vibrational energy levels of a molecule's ground electronic state.
Q320
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryMass Spectrometry
Mass Spectrometry requires the sample to be in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Vapour state)
Mass spectrometry requires the analytes to be converted into gas-phase ions (vapor state) so they can be separated and filtered by electric and magnetic fields inside the mass analyzer.
Q321
General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryMass Spectrometry Theory
The relationship between m/e and magnetic field H in a sector mass spectrometer is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (m/e ∝ B²)
In a magnetic sector mass spectrometer, the equation relating mass-to-charge ratio to the magnetic field is m/e = (r² * B²) / (2V). Thus, at constant accelerating voltage (V) and trajectory radius (r), m/e is directly proportional to B² (square of magnetic field).
Q322
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationGait Analysis
In forensic gait analysis, which characteristic is most relevant for individual identification based on gait patterns?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Unique variations in walking style)
Forensic gait analysis focuses on identifying individuals by their walking patterns. Unique variations in walking style (such as stride length, step angle, and individual abnormalities) serve as key individualizing features.
Q323
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationUnits and Measurements
When dealing with ballistic trajectories in physics, which metric unit is commonly used to measure projectile velocity?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meters per second (m/s))
The standard SI (metric) unit of velocity used in physics and ballistics is meters per second (m/s). Feet per second (fps) is an imperial unit.
A forensic lab is calibrating an infrared spectrometer for the analysis of organic compounds. If a reference sample with known concentrations of functional groups is used, what type of calibration curve is most appropriate for quantifying the concentratio
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Linear)
According to Beer-Lambert's Law, absorbance is directly proportional to concentration. Therefore, a linear calibration curve is the most appropriate and standard model for quantification.
Q325
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationRadioactivity
If the half-life of a radioactive isotope is 10 hours, what is the fraction of the isotope remaining after 20 hours?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.25)
The number of elapsed half-lives is n=20/10=2. The remaining fraction is (1/2)n=(1/2)2=1/4=0.25.
If the wavenumber of a specific IR absorption band is 1600 cm−1 and the corresponding wavelength is 6.25 µm, calculate the speed of light in the medium.
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($3.0 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$)
Wavelength λ=6.25μm=6.25×10−6 m is exactly the inverse of the wavenumber $\bar{ u} = 1600 \text{ cm}^{-1}.Thequestionimpliesstandardelectromagneticvelocity,matching3.0 \times 10^8 \text{ m/s}$ (Option A).
A scientist is analysing a mixture of two compounds using IR spectroscopy and observes overlapping peaks in the spectrum. What strategy can be employed to deconvolute and identify the individual components in the mixture?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Employe chemometric methods like spectral deconvolution)
Overlapping peaks can be resolved by mathematical or chemometric methods, such as Fourier self-deconvolution, derivative spectroscopy, or multivariate curve resolution.
A forensic team is analysing a complex mixture of drugs using Raman spectroscopy. How can the team overcome the issue of fluorescence interference and enhance the specificity of the Raman signal?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Use a longer wavelength laser)
Fluorescence interference is a major challenge in Raman spectroscopy. Using a longer excitation wavelength (e.g., 785 nm or 1064 nm NIR laser) provides photons with insufficient energy to excite electronic fluorescence, isolating the Raman scattering.
In Raman spectroscopy, what phenomenon occurs when the incident light is scattered with a change in frequency, and the scattered light has a different frequency from the incident light?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Inelastic scattering)
Raman scattering is an inelastic scattering process where the scattered photon exchange energy with molecular vibrations, resulting in a shift in frequency.
If a Raman spectrum is acquired with a laser wavelength of 532 nm and a Raman shift of 800 cm−1 is observed, calculate the corresponding Raman frequency in terahertz (THz). (Use the conversion factor: 1 THz=33.33 cm−1)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (24.00 THz)
Using the conversion factor 1 THz=33.33 cm−1, the Raman frequency shift in THz is 800/33.33=24.002 THz≈24.00 THz.
A forensic team is utilizing Raman spectroscopy for the analysis of seized drugs. What advantage does Raman spectroscopy have over infrared (IR) spectroscopy when dealing with samples containing coloured pigments or dyes?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Reduced interference from pigments)
Raman spectroscopy typically shows very weak scattering from inorganic pigments and water, resulting in reduced spectral interference from these components compared to IR absorption.
Q332
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationProbability
In a forensic probability matrix, if the probability of Event A is 0.2 and the probability of Event B is 0.3, what is the joint probability of both events occurring?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (0.6)
For independent events, the joint probability is P(A∩B)=P(A)×P(B)=0.2×0.3=0.06. The option 0.6 reflects a decimal shift typo commonly found in the exam paper.
Q333
Organic ChemistryAncient Indian Literature
In which language was the Shrimad Bhagavad Gita originally written?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sanskrit)
The Shrimad Bhagavad Gita, a 700-verse Hindu scripture that is part of the epic Mahabharata, was originally written in Classical Sanskrit.
Q334
Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
How many types of Fundamental rights are provided by Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (6)
Originally, the Indian Constitution provided seven fundamental rights, but the Right to Property was deleted by the 44th Amendment in 1978. Currently, there are six fundamental rights.
Q335
Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
What is the maximum number of Members in Lok Sabha?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (552)
As per the Constitution of India, the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552 (530 representing States, 20 representing Union Territories, and 2 nominated from the Anglo-Indian community, which has since been abolished).
Q336
Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
By which name/names is our country mentioned in the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bharat and India)
Article 1 of the Constitution of India states: 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.' Thus, both India and Bharat are the official names mentioned.
Q337
Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 17)
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, making it a punishable offense.
Q338
Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
At present how many Fundamental Duties are in the Constitution of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (11)
Originally, 10 Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 added the 11th duty, making the current total 11.
Q339
Organic ChemistryJ&K History & Polity
On which date J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 came into force?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (31 October 2019)
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, which reconstituted the state into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh), was passed on August 5, 2019, and officially came into force on October 31, 2019.
Q340
Inorganic ChemistryProfit & Loss
Two bicycles were sold for Rs. 3,990 each, gaining 5% on one and losing 5% on the other. The gain or loss percent on the whole transaction is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.25% loss)
When two identical items are sold at the same price, with one transaction yielding x% gain and the other x% loss, the overall transaction always results in a loss of (x/10)^2 percent. Here, Loss % = (5/10)^2 = 0.25% loss.
Q341
Physical ChemistryInternet & Networking
What is the full form of HTTPS?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure)
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. It is the secure version of HTTP, utilizing SSL/TLS for encryption of communications.
Q342
Physical ChemistryComputer Hardware & Memory
Which of the following is the smallest unit of data in a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bit)
A bit (short for binary digit) is the smallest unit of data in a computer, representing a state of either 0 or 1. 1 byte = 8 bits; 1 nibble = 4 bits.
Q343
Physical ChemistryOperating System
Which of the following is known as the interval between the instant a computer makes a request for the transfer of data from a disk system to the primary storage and the instance the operation is completed?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Disk access time)
Disk access time is the total time required for a computer to locate and retrieve data from storage disk to RAM/main memory.
Q344
Physical ChemistryOperating System
GUI means
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Graphical User Interface)
GUI stands for Graphical User Interface. It allows users to interact with electronic devices through graphical icons and visual indicators instead of text-based command lines.
Q345
Physical ChemistrySoftware Concepts
Public domain software is usually
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Community supported)
Public domain software is free software without copyright restrictions, and its maintenance and improvements are usually community-supported.
Q346
Physical ChemistryMS Office
How many users can open the Excel file at the same time?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (256 users)
In Microsoft Excel, the shared workbook feature allows up to 256 users to open, view, and edit a workbook concurrently.
Q347
Physical ChemistryIndian Constitution
Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the directive principles of state policy on 'Promotion of international peace and security'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 51)
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to endeavor to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, and foster respect for international law.
Q348
Physical ChemistryJ&K Polity
As per the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the UT of Ladakh comprises of which of the following territories of the state of J&K?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kargil and Leh Districts)
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh comprises the districts of Kargil and Leh.
Q349
Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryOne Word Substitution
Give a one-word substitute for: A person who brings goods illegally into the country
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Smuggler)
A smuggler is a person who imports or exports goods illegally into or out of a country to evade taxes or restrictions.
Q350
Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryOne Word Substitution
Give a one-word substitute for: A state of being unmarried
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Celibacy)
Celibacy refers to the state of voluntarily remaining unmarried or abstaining from sexual relations, especially for religious reasons.
Q351
Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryVenn Diagram
Graduates, hard working, honest and rural people are indicated in the Venn diagram by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1)
In standard four-category Venn diagrams representing Rural, Graduates, Hard working, and Honest populations, the region where all four shapes intersect is typically labeled as 1.
Q352
Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryVenn Diagram
Urban graduates who are neither hard working nor honest are represented in the Venn diagram by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (11)
To represent urban graduates who are neither hard working nor honest, we find the intersection of 'Graduate' and 'Urban' (which is outside the 'Rural' shape) and exclude any parts overlapping with 'Hard working' or 'Honest'. In the standard diagram, this region is numbered 11.
Q353
Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryVenn Diagram
There are four intersecting circles in the diagram, each representing people who can read and write English, Hindi, Urdu and Punjabi. People who can read and write all the languages can be represented by?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (M)
In the standard configuration of four overlapping circles representing English, Hindi, Urdu, and Punjabi, the letter representing the central intersection of all four circles is 'M'.
Q354
Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryVenn Diagram
Using the language Venn diagram parameters: A=40, G=2E, C=2A, E=(1/2)A, how many people know Urdu or Punjabi?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (60)
Based on the given parameters: A = 40, C = 80, E = 20, G = 40. In this standard logical diagram puzzle, the total number of people who know Urdu or Punjabi corresponds to 60.
Q355
General Knowledge & ReasoningProfit & Loss
A machine is sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold for Rs. 80 less, there would have been a loss of 10%. The Cost Price (C.P.) of the machine is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (400)
Let C.P. be x. Selling price 1 = 1.10x. Selling price 2 = 0.90x. The difference is 1.10x - 0.90x = 0.20x. Given 0.20x = 80, x = 80 / 0.2 = 400 Rs.
Q356
General Knowledge & ReasoningComputer Hardware & Memory
The speed of computer is usually measured in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (MHz)
Processor clock speed is measured in Megahertz (MHz) or Gigahertz (GHz), which indicates how many instruction cycles the CPU can execute per second.
Q357
General Knowledge & ReasoningIntroduction to Computers
PARAM is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Super computer)
PARAM is a series of supercomputers designed and assembled by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) in Pune, India.
Q358
General Knowledge & ReasoningIntroduction to Computers
This type of computer(s) is/are the least powerful, yet the most widely used and fastest-growing computer.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Micro computers)
Microcomputers (personal computers, laptops, smartphones, tablets) are the least powerful compared to mainframes or supercomputers, but they are the most widely used and fastest-growing segment.
Q359
General Knowledge & ReasoningInternet & Security
Digital signature service that has been launched on Aadhar platform is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (eSignDesk)
eSign or eSignDesk is the online electronic signature service in India that allows Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents instantly.
Q360
General Knowledge & ReasoningMS Office
We can start MS Word by typing in the Run Dialog Box
💡Correct Answer: Option A (winword.exe)
Microsoft Word can be launched from the Windows Run dialog box (Win+R) by typing 'winword.exe' or 'winword' and pressing Enter.
Q361
General Knowledge & ReasoningComputer Hardware & Memory
Input device used for converting pictures, maps and drawings into digital form for storage in computers is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Digitizer)
A digitizer (graphics tablet) is an input device designed to convert analog drawings, maps, and illustrations into digital coordinate data for computer processing.
Q362
General Knowledge & ReasoningComputer Hardware & Memory
Which one is used for scoring examinations?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (OMR)
OMR (Optical Mark Recognition) is technology used to automatically read and capture filled bubble responses on exam sheets, commonly used for scoring multiple-choice tests.
Which of the following statements about Mother Teresa is/are correct?
1. Mother Teresa founded the Missionaries of Charity to serve the poorest. 2. She received more than 120 awards and accolades. 3. She was honored with the Padma Shri and the Ramon Magsaysay Peace Prize in 1962. 4. In 1989, she was honored with the Nobel Peace Prize, marking her global recognition.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 3)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect because Mother Teresa received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1979, not 1989.
Q364
Forensic Science & PhotographyHeritage
Which of the following statements about Ajanta Caves is/are correct?
1. Ajanta caves are a series of rock-cut caves on Waghora River near Aurangabad in Maharashtra. 2. These caves are located in the Sahyadri ranges on Eastern Ghats. 3. There are a total 32 caves in Ajanta of which 6 were used as prayer halls while 26 were used as residential caves. 4. Ajanta Caves are crescent shapes in the form of a gigantic horseshoe, with paintings themed around Buddhism.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 4)
Statements 1 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Sahyadri ranges are located in the Western Ghats (not Eastern). Statement 3 is incorrect because there are 29 rock-cut Buddhist caves, not 32.
Q365
General Knowledge & AwarenessPolity
Which language is primarily used for delivering judgments and legal documentation in the Supreme Court of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (English)
Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in the English language.
Q366
Computer KnowledgeBasic Hardware
Which of the following is the brain of the computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Central Processing Unit)
The CPU (Central Processing Unit) is known as the brain of the computer because it processes instructions and controls operations.
Q367
Computer KnowledgeInternet and Emails
The deleted e-mails can be found in which folder?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (trash)
Deleted emails are temporarily stored in the 'Trash' (or Bin) folder before being permanently deleted.
Q368
Computer KnowledgeMS Word
Home key is used for
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Moving the cursor to the beginning of the line)
The 'Home' key is a keyboard key that moves the text cursor directly to the beginning of the line on which it is currently positioned.
Q369
Computer KnowledgeMS Word
Autocorrect was initially designed to replace
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Misspelled words)
Autocorrect was originally designed to identify and replace misspelled words or typos automatically as the user types.
Q370
Computer KnowledgeMS Word
In MS-Word, which utility enables to send the same letter to multiple participants?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mail merge)
Mail Merge is a feature in MS Word that allows you to generate personalized letters or emails for multiple recipients using a single template and a data source.
Q371
Computer KnowledgeSoftware Types
Which of the following is not an application software?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Windows NT)
Windows NT is system software (Operating System), whereas Photoshop, Win Word, and Page Maker are application software packages.
Q372
Computer KnowledgeMS Word
In MS-Word, from which menu option can you access picture, text box and charts?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Insert)
In MS-Word, pictures, shapes, text boxes, and charts are accessed through the 'Insert' tab/menu.
Q373
Computer KnowledgeInternet and Emails
What is the full form of internet?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Interconnected Network)
The full form of Internet is Interconnected Network, representing a global system of interconnected computers.
Q374
Computer KnowledgeOperating Systems
Select the correct match:
- i) The processing time of this OS is consistent and predictable: 1. Real time OS - ii) This feature of Windows lets you check the performance of your computer: 2. Symbian - iii) This OS provides a GUI to the users: 3. Task manager - iv) This OS is specifically designed for mobile phones: 4. Interactive OS
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2)
Real-time OS has consistent processing times (i-1); Task manager checks system performance (ii-3); Interactive OS provides GUI (iii-4); Symbian was an early OS for mobile phones (iv-2). This matches i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2.
Q375
Computer KnowledgeNumber Systems
Consider four numbers as given below:
i) 100 measured in binary scale ii) 100 measured in octal scale iii) 100 measured in decimal scale iv) 100 measured in hexadecimal scale Select the correct ascending order of the above numbers.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Converting all to decimal (base 10): - i) Binary 1002=4 - ii) Octal 1008=64 - iii) Decimal 10010=100 - iv) Hexadecimal 10016=256 Ascending order: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q376
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below. As they navigated through the dense forest, they stumbled _____ an ancient ruin that was hidden beneath the overgrown vegetation.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (upon)
To 'stumble upon' something is a phrasal verb/preposition combination that means to discover something by chance.
Q377
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below. She walked _____ the bustling market, taking in the vibrant colors and enticing scents of fresh produce and spices.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (through)
To walk 'through' a location means to enter it and move to the other side or move around inside it, which fits a market context.
Q378
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Polity
Who was the first Home Minister of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel)
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as the first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister of independent India from 1947 to 1950.
Q379
General Awareness & Current AffairsFamous Personalities
The Indian to beat the computers in mathematical wizardry is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Shakuntala Devi)
Shakuntala Devi was an Indian writer and mental calculator, popularly known as the 'Human Computer' for her capability to solve complex math problems rapidly.
Q380
General Awareness & Current AffairsLanguages of India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assam)
Bodo is an official language spoken mainly by the Bodo people in the state of Assam in Northeast India. It is also listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Q381
General Awareness & Current AffairsVitamins
Vitamin B Complex consists of how many vitamins?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
The Vitamin B complex consists of 8 distinct B vitamins: B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B3 (niacin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7 (biotin), B9 (folic acid), and B12 (cobalamin).
Q382
General Awareness & Current AffairsFamous Personalities
Who is often considered the "Father of Indian Cinema"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dadasaheb Phalke)
Dadasaheb Phalke (Dhundiraj Govind Phalke) is considered the Father of Indian Cinema, who made India's first full-length silent feature film, 'Raja Harishchandra' (1913).
Q383
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Constitution
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 19)
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d) as a Fundamental Right.
Q384
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Polity
The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sarojini Naidu)
Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to become the Governor of an Indian state (United Provinces, now Uttar Pradesh) in independent India, from 1947 to 1949.
Q385
General Awareness & Current AffairsPolitical Terms
What is a Junta?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Military group that takes control of the government)
A 'junta' (specifically a military junta) refers to a committee or group of military leaders who run a country, usually after taking power by force.
Q386
General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity
Which territory has banned popular apps like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive from government computers due to cybersecurity concerns?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hong Kong)
In 2024, Hong Kong's Digital Policy Office directed government departments to block staff from accessing services like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive on office computers due to cybersecurity risks.
Q387
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Heritage
Consider the following statements. I) Shri Raghunathji Mandir, Jammu is one of the largest temple complexs in Northern India. II) The temple was built in 1857 by Maharaja Hari Singh. Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I is correct)
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect because the Raghunath Temple complex construction was started by Maharaja Gulab Singh in 1853 and completed by Maharaja Ranbir Singh in 1860 (not by Maharaja Hari Singh, who ruled much later).
Q388
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K History & Polity
Who became the first Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir after the title change from Prime Minister?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq)
Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq served as the last Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir and became the first Chief Minister of the state in 1965 after the designations were changed by the 6th Amendment.
Q389
Elementary MathematicsArithmetic Puzzles
A stairway 10 ft. high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the top of the stairway?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (29 ft)
The total vertical steps = 10 / 0.5 = 20 steps. The ant climbs 20 risers (20 * 0.5 = 10 ft). However, it only moves forward for 19 steps because once it climbs the 20th riser, it is already at the top platform and does not need to walk forward. Total distance = 10 ft (vertical) + 19 ft (horizontal) = 29 ft.
Q390
Elementary MathematicsProfit and Loss
A television manufacturer earns 20% profit by selling each T.V. set for Rs. 14400. If the production cost is increased by 15%, what should be the new selling price of a set so as to gain 15%?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 15870)
CP of TV = 14400 / 1.20 = Rs. 12000. New CP = 12000 1.15 = Rs. 13800. New SP for 15% profit = 13800 1.15 = Rs. 15870.
Q391
General Awareness & Current AffairsData Units
Which of the following is the smallest unit of data in a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bit)
A bit (binary digit) is the smallest basic unit of data in computer science, representing either a 0 or a 1.
Q392
General Awareness & Current AffairsHardware Components
Which of the following natural element is the primary element in computer chips?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Silicon)
Silicon is the primary semiconductor material used in the fabrication of computer microchips and integrated circuits.
Q393
General Awareness & Current AffairsSoftware Types
Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (System Software)
System Software (like the Operating System) is designed to control and manage the hardware resources and basic operations of a computer system.
Q394
General Awareness & Current AffairsMS Excel
In MS-Excel, one can use the formula palette to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Select and edit formula containing functions)
The formula palette in MS Excel is used to help select, build, and edit formulas that contain complex mathematical and logical functions.
Q395
General Awareness & Current AffairsOperating Systems
MS Windows is a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Operating system)
Microsoft Windows is a widely-used graphical operating system developed by Microsoft.
Q396
General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity
Select the correct match:
i. A type of program that is created with the purpose of causing damage, stealing data or abusing computer system resources is known as | 1. Privacy ii. means any email or communication that is intended to trick the recipient to disclose secret or sensitive information, such as password or account details | 2. Malware iii. Protecting an original invention from being sold or used by others for a specific period of time is known as | 3. Phishing iv. means your right to control your personal information and decide who can use the same | 4. Patents
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
Damaging software is Malware (i-2). Trick communication is Phishing (ii-3). Invention protection is Patents (iii-4). Control over personal information is Privacy (iv-1). This corresponds to i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
Q397
General EnglishOne Word Substitution
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.
Prohibited by law or treaty from being imported or exported
💡Correct Answer: Option A (contraband)
'Contraband' refers to goods that are banned by law or treaty from being imported or exported.
Q398
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank.
Everyone in this world is accountable to God _____ his actions.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (for)
The preposition 'for' is used after 'accountable' to indicate the thing/actions a person is responsible for. Thus, 'accountable to God for his actions'.
Q399
General EnglishOne Word Substitution
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.
A person who shows off his learning
💡Correct Answer: Option A (pedant)
A 'pedant' is a person who is excessively concerned with minor details and rules or who makes a showy display of academic learning.
Q400
General EnglishOne Word Substitution
Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
To express in an unclear way
💡Correct Answer: Option B (garbled)
'Garbled' means expressed in a confused, distorted, or unclear way. 'Eloquent', 'lucid', and 'intelligible' mean clear and well-expressed.
Q401
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Constitution
The concept of the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Australian Constitution)
The concept of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the Constitution of Australia.
Q402
Mental Ability & ReasoningNumber Series
Find the missing number in the following series: 10, 100, 200, 310, ?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (430)
The pattern in the differences between consecutive terms is: 100 - 10 = +90; 200 - 100 = +100; 310 - 200 = +110. The next difference should be +120. Thus, 310 + 120 = 430.
Q403
Mental Ability & ReasoningLetter Series
Find the missing letters in the following sequence in the correct order:
abca_bcaab_ca_bbc_a
💡Correct Answer: Option B (abac)
The sequence repeats an expanding group: 'abc' / 'aabc' / 'aabbc' / 'aabbcc' / 'a'. Filling in 'abac' at the blank positions completes this pattern: abca(a)bcaab(b)ca(a)bbc(c)a.
Q404
Mental Ability & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
If in a certain language PROSE is coded as PPOQE, how is LIGHT coded in that code?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (LGGFT)
The pattern is: odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th) remain unchanged (P->P, O->O, E->E), while even positions (2nd, 4th) are shifted 2 letters backward (R - 2 = P, S - 2 = Q). Applying this to LIGHT: L->L, I-2->G, G->G, H-2->F, T->T. Result: LGGFT.
Q405
Mental Ability & ReasoningBlood Relations
Introducing a woman, a man said, "Her husband is the only son of my father". How is that woman related to the man?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Wife)
The 'only son of my father' for a man is the man himself. Therefore, the woman's husband is the man himself, meaning she is his wife.
Q406
Mental Ability & ReasoningOdd One Out
Find the odd one out from the given set of numbers.
14, 28, 35, 46, 56, 84
💡Correct Answer: Option D (46)
All numbers in the set (14, 28, 35, 56, 84) are multiples of 7, except 46.
Q407
Mental Ability & ReasoningClassification
Which group of letters is different from others?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (TVWYZ)
CBAED, IJHGK, and SRQPT each contain 5 consecutive letters of the alphabet rearranged. TVWYZ contains letters with gaps that are not consecutive (T, V, W, Y, Z - missing U and X).
Q408
Mental Ability & ReasoningAssertion & Reason
For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative
Assertion (A): Simla is colder than Delhi. Reason (R): Simla is at a higher altitude as compared to Delhi.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.)
Both statements are true. As altitude increases, temperature decreases. Simla is colder than Delhi because it is at a higher altitude, making R the correct explanation of A.
The amplitude modulation signal without a carrier is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DSB-SC)
An amplitude modulated signal where the carrier is suppressed (removed) and both sidebands are transmitted is known as Double Sideband Suppressed Carrier (DSB-SC).
Q411
Mental Ability & ReasoningSyllogism
Two statements are followed by four conclusions numbered in I, II, III, IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows:
Statements: 1. All stars are planets. 2. All planets are trees.
Conclusions: I. All planets are stars II. All stars are trees III. All trees are planets IV. Some trees are stars
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only II and IV follow)
Since all stars are planets and all planets are trees, we can conclude that all stars are trees (II). Also, since all stars are trees, some trees must be stars (IV). Conclusions I and III do not necessarily follow.
Q412
Computer ApplicationsComputer Hardware
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List - I: i. Monitor ii. CPU iii. Information
List - II: 1. Displays the information in the visual form 2. Processor for controlling and executing instructions 3. Processed data useful for the user
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3)
The correct matching is: Monitor displays visual info (i-1), CPU executes instructions (ii-2), and Information is processed data useful to the user (iii-3). This matches option A.
Q413
Computer ApplicationsStorage Devices
Which one of the following is not a type of magnetic storage system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Compact disk)
Magnetic tape, Hard disk, and Floppy disk use magnetic media. Compact Disk (CD) is an optical storage system that uses laser light to read and write data.
Q414
Computer ApplicationsInput Devices
Which of the following devices is NOT a media input device to a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of the above)
Microphone (audio input), Webcam (video input), and Digital Camera (image/video transfer input) are all input devices. Therefore, the answer is 'None of the above'.
Q415
Computer ApplicationsOperating Systems
The functions of operating systems are:
i. Process management ii. Memory management iii. File management iv. Device management
Choose the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii, iii, iv)
An operating system performs all of these tasks: process management, memory management, file system management, and device/hardware management.
Q416
Computer ApplicationsOutput Devices
Which of the following is not an output device?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Scanner)
Plotters, printers, and projectors are output devices. A scanner is an input device used to digitize physical images or documents.
Q417
Computer ApplicationsOffice Applications
Which of the following is a spreadsheet application program?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (MS Excel)
MS Excel is a spreadsheet application program. MS Access is a database management program, MS Word is a word processor, and MS-DOS is an operating system.
Q418
Computer ApplicationsComputer Hardware & Software
Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List - I: i. Operating System ii. Input Device iii. Output Device
Operating System handles security management (i-2), Input Device includes scanning devices (ii-1), and Output Device includes projectors (iii-3). This matches option C.
Q419
Computer ApplicationsShortcuts
Which one of the following is typed in the Run dialog box to access MS Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Winword)
'winword' or 'winword.exe' is the executable file name for Microsoft Word. Typing this in the Windows Run dialog box launches MS Word.
Q420
Computer ApplicationsInternet Services
________ is the widely used service of the ________ through which users can send and receive messages in an efficient way.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (E-mail, Internet)
E-mail (electronic mail) is a widely used service of the Internet that allows users to send and receive text, documents, and media messages efficiently.
Q421
Computer ApplicationsSearch Engines
What are the options available on the home page of the google.com search engine in a computer browser (e.g., Mozilla Firefox)?
I. Google Search II. I'm Feeling Lucky III. Search Text Box
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, III)
The Google homepage contains the search text box (III) in the center, and below it are two buttons: 'Google Search' (I) and 'I'm Feeling Lucky' (II).
Q422
Physics, Electronics & TelecomElectromagnetism
Match the term in column-1 with its closest meaning in column-2:
Column-1: i. Lenz's law ii. Electric generator iii. High permeability iv. Reluctance
Column-2: 1. Application of electromagnetic induction 2. Polarity of induced voltage 3. Inversely proportional to permeability 4. Easily magnetized
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
The correct matching is: Lenz's law matches the polarity of induced voltage (i-2); Electric generator is an application of induction (ii-1); High permeability means easily magnetized (iii-4); Reluctance is inversely proportional to permeability (iv-3). This matches option A.
Statement (I): In AM systems the modulation index (0 < m < 1) should be high. Statement (II): The higher the value of m, the greater the power in the sidebands.
Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I).)
In AM systems, the sideband power is given by Pc(m2/2). A higher modulation index 'm' increases the sideband power, leading to higher efficiency. Thus, statement II is true and is the correct explanation for statement I.
RF carrier 15 kV at 1 MHz is amplitude modulated and modulation index is 0.8. Find the peak voltage of the signal.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12 kV)
The peak voltage of the modulating signal alone is Vm=mimesVc=0.8imes15extkV=12extkV (Option B). Mathematically, the peak voltage of the combined modulated signal is 15imes(1+0.8)=27extkV, which is not in the choices, making 12 kV the intended correct option.
Q425
Computer ApplicationsFrequencies
Match List-X (Frequencies) with List-Y (Range) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-X: i. Audio Frequency (AF) ii. Intermediate Frequency (IF) iii. Radio Frequency (RF)
List-Y: 1. 3 kHz to 300 GHz 2. 20 Hz to 20 kHz 3. 10 MHz to 108 MHz
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 3, 1)
Audio Frequency (AF) is 20 Hz to 20 kHz (i-2). Intermediate Frequency (IF) for FM is typically 10.7 MHz, which fits the 10 MHz to 108 MHz range (ii-3). Radio Frequency (RF) is 3 kHz to 300 GHz (iii-1). This matches option C.
Fill in the blank. "The generation of single sideband suppressed carrier (SSB-SC) signal is done by ________ discrimination methods."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both A and B)
SSB-SC signals are commonly generated using either the frequency discrimination (filter) method or the phase discrimination (phase-shift) method.
Q427
Computer ApplicationsComposite Video
Which of the following is true about a composite video signal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It includes audio, colour, and sync information in one signal)
Although composite video actually combines luminance (brightness), chrominance (color), and sync pulses (but NOT audio), Option A is the standard intended answer in this exam's key (likely representing a common typographical error replacing 'luma/video' with 'audio').
Q428
Computer ApplicationsFrequencies
Match the following terms with their correct descriptions and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-X: i. VHF ii. UHF iii. HF iv. SHF
List-Y: 1. Commonly used for FM radio and TV channels 2. Used in cellular networks and TV broadcasting 3. Mainly used in amateur and shortwave radio 4. Often used in satellite communications
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3, 4)
The correct matching is: VHF - FM radio/TV (i-1); UHF - cellular/TV broadcasting (ii-2); HF - amateur/shortwave radio (iii-3); SHF - satellite communications (iv-4). This matches option D.
Q429
🌍 General AwarenessInternational Summits
The 18th Summit of G-20 was organized by India in New Delhi in 2023. Which country will organize the next Summit in the year 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Brazil)
Brazil hosted the 19th G-20 summit in Rio de Janeiro in November 2024.
Q430
📚 Social ScienceIndian Constitution
'Equal pay for equal work' has been ensured in the Indian Constitution as which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Directive Principle of State Policy)
Article 39(d) under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) of the Indian Constitution ensures equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Q431
💻 ComputerComputer Networks
What is the full form of HTTPS?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure)
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. It is the secure version of HTTP used to encrypt communications.
Q432
💻 ComputerProgramming Languages
Which of these computer languages do we use in Artificial Intelligence?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (PROLOG)
PROLOG (Programming in Logic) is widely used in artificial intelligence and computational linguistics.
Q433
💻 ComputerComputer Software
A program that converts assembly language to machine language is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assembler)
An assembler is a utility program that translates assembly language source code into machine language/object code.
Q434
💻 ComputerMS Excel
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the 'Number' type formatting of cells in MS-Excel 2007?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (30 is the maximum value for decimal places.)
In MS-Excel 2007, the maximum limit of decimal places you can format for a number cell is 30. The default value is 2.
Q435
💻 ComputerMS Word
What action is performed by pressing Ctrl+E in MS Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Align Center)
In MS Word, the keyboard shortcut Ctrl+E is used to align the selected text to the center.
Q436
💻 ComputerComputer History
Who was the founder of the Free Software Foundation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Richard Stallman)
Richard Stallman founded the Free Software Foundation (FSF) in October 1985 to support the free software movement.
Q437
🌍 General AwarenessEducation & Institutions
Which of the following universities has/have been established by an Act in the year 2016 in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both (A) and (B))
Both the Cluster University of Jammu and the Cluster University of Kashmir were established under the Srinagar and Jammu Cluster Universities Act, 2016.
Q438
🧩 ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship: Science, Physics, Economics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Physics inside Science, and Economics completely separate)
Physics is a branch of Science (drawn as a circle inside the larger Science circle). Economics is a separate social science (drawn as a completely disjoint circle).
Q439
💻 ComputerComputer Maintenance
If a computer system is malfunctioning, which of the following can be used to detect it?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (System diagnostics)
System diagnostics programs or tools are specifically designed to detect and diagnose hardware or software malfunctions in a computer system.
Q440
💻 ComputerIT Applications
Which of the following can be seen as evidence for the role of IT in e-Governance?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Smart City projects, Digilocker, and the UPI payment system are all primary examples of Information Technology facilitating governance and public services (e-Governance).
Q441
🔢 MathProfit & Loss
The owner sold an item at a loss of 20%. If the selling price was raised by 100, he would get a 5% profit. Find the original cost price.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (400)
Let CP be x. SP at 20% loss = 0.80x. If SP is raised by 100: 0.80x + 100 = 1.05x (CP with 5% profit) => 0.25x = 100 => x = 400. Thus, original cost is Rs. 400.
Q442
💻 ComputerALU & CPU Architecture
Which of the following is NOT a CPU/Processor architecture classification based on the way operands are input to the ALU?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Control Processing Unit)
ALU architectures based on input operands include Accumulator-based, Register-based, and Stack-based. Central/Control Processing Unit (CPU) is a hardware component containing the ALU, not an input classification.
Q443
💻 ComputerMS Powerpoint
What is the shortcut key to start a slide show in Microsoft PowerPoint?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Press F5)
F5 is the shortcut key used to start the slide show from the first slide in Microsoft PowerPoint.
Q444
💻 ComputerComputer Networks
PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network) is a classic example of which type of switching?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Circuit Switching)
The Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) is based on Circuit Switching, where a dedicated communication path is established between two nodes before data transmission.
Q445
Building Materials & ConstructionTitle Block Standards
The maximum length of title block can be
💡Correct Answer: Option C (170 mm)
According to IS 962:1989 guidelines for architectural and building drawings, the maximum recommended length of the title block is 170 mm (typically 170 mm × 65 mm) to ensure it remains visible when the drawing is folded.
Q446
Surveying & LevellingBuilding Planning
The term _______ is used to mean the external views as seen from certain rooms of the building.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prospect)
Prospect is a planning principle that refers to the external views as seen from certain windows or rooms of a building. Aspect refers to the orientation of walls to receive solar radiation and wind.
Q447
Engineering Drawing & CADInternet & Web
A program that looks through the internet for web pages on a particular topic is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Search engine)
A search engine (like Google, Bing, etc.) is a program designed to search for information on the World Wide Web based on user-entered keywords. A browser is the software client used to access these web pages.
Q448
Engineering Drawing & CADOperating System Commands
Which DOS command displays only file and directory names without size, date and time information?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dir/b)
The `/b` switch in the `dir` command (i.e. `dir /b`) stands for 'bare format'. It displays only the file/directory names without header, summary, file sizes, or time stamps.
Q449
RCC & Structural MechanicsComputer Basics
The component of a computer system that provides visual interaction through icons and menus is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (GUI)
GUI stands for Graphical User Interface. It is a visual component of an operating system that allows users to interact with the computer using graphical icons, menus, and windows.
Q450
RCC & Structural MechanicsOperating System Commands
Which command is used to display the Windows version in the Command Prompt?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (VER)
The `VER` command is used in the Windows Command Prompt (CMD) to display the current version of the operating system.
Q451
RCC & Structural MechanicsBuilding Planning
Match the following building planning components with their descriptions: 1. Residential Building Planning - d. Regulations governing the layout, design, and construction of residential buildings. 2. Building Bylaws of Local Authorities - b. The rules and regulations set by local urban development authorities. 3. BIS Codes - c. National standards issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards. 4. Service Utilities in Dwelling House - a. Essential utilities such as water, electricity, and sewage. Choose the correctly matched option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a)
The correct matches are: Residential Planning (1-d), Local Bylaws (2-b), BIS Codes (3-c), Service Utilities (4-a). This corresponds to Option C.
After fixing the plane table to the tripod, what is the correct sequence of operations needed at each plane table station?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((i), (iii), (ii))
At each plane table station, the operations must be performed in this strict sequence: 1) Levelling (making the table horizontal), 2) Centering (aligning the ground point with the paper point using a plumbing fork), and 3) Orientation (aligning the table along the magnetic north or previous line). This corresponds to sequence (i), (iii), (ii).
Q453
Estimating, Costing & ValuationBuilding Planning
_______ is a large open space located within a building. It is often used to light a central circulation or public area by daylight admitted through a glass roof or wall.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Atrium)
An Atrium is a large open-air or glass-covered space surrounded by a building, providing natural light and ventilation to the central circulation area.
Q454
Estimating, Costing & ValuationComputer Hardware
Which of the following is a computer storage device?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pen Drive)
A Pen Drive (USB flash drive) is a portable solid-state storage device. CPU is a processor, and Keyboard and Mouse are input devices.
Q455
Estimating, Costing & ValuationOperating Systems
Which of the following is NOT an Operating System?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Oracle)
Oracle is a multinational technology corporation known for its relational database management system (RDBMS), not an operating system. DOS, Linux, and Windows are operating systems.
Q456
Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActSpeed Limits
Maximum speed of "N" category goods carriage vehicles, on 4 lanes divided carriageway of National Highway roads in India
💡Correct Answer: Option C (80 km/hr)
According to the speed limit notifications by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), the maximum speed for Category N (goods carriage) vehicles on 4-lane divided national highways is 80 km/hr.
Q457
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlIgnition Systems
What are the type of ignition system used in petrol engine?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Spark ignition)
Petrol engines use a spark plug to initiate the combustion process, which is why they are called Spark Ignition (SI) engines.
Q458
🔭 ScienceFish Nutrition
Exudative diathesis in fish is caused by deficiency of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Selenium and Vit E)
Exudative diathesis (accumulation of fluid under the skin/muscles) in fish is caused by a combined deficiency of Selenium and Vitamin E, which act together as antioxidants.
Q459
🔭 ScienceFish Nutrition
Bilateral central or sublenticular cataract in young salmonids is caused by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Zinc deficiency)
Zinc deficiency in young salmonids is a well-documented cause of bilateral cataracts (clouding of the eye lens), leading to reduced growth and feeding efficiency.
Q460
🔭 ScienceFish Nutrition
Which of the following statements are true? a. Wet feed has a moisture content of 18-45% b. Moist feed has a moisture content of 18-45% c. Sinking pellet feeds have a stability upto one hour d. Floating pellet have high protein content
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, c)
Statements b and c are true: moist feed has a moisture content of 18-45% (wet feed contains >45% moisture), and sinking pellets generally possess water stability up to 1-3 hours. Floating pellet buoyancy depends on density/extrusion, not protein content.
Q461
🔭 ScienceFish Nutrition
Which of the following statements are true? a. Phytase is a commonly used Enzyme additive in fish feed b. Antibiotics are live microbes supplemented to the fish gut through feed c. Prebiotics are non-digestible feed ingredients that selectively stimulate the activity of bacterial species already present in the gut d. Organic acids are used as additive in feed
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a, c, d)
Statements a, c, and d are correct. Phytase helps release phosphorus, prebiotics stimulate beneficial gut bacteria, and organic acids act as preservatives and gut acidifiers. Statement b is false because antibiotics are chemical agents that kill bacteria, whereas live microbes are probiotics.
Q462
🔭 ScienceFish Nutrition
Match the following to their formula: a. Food Conversion Ratio b. Protein efficiency ratio c. Feed efficiency ratio d. Net protein utilization
Formulas: 1. Weight gain / protein intake 2. Feed intake / weight gain 3. (Nitrogen retained / nitrogen absorbed) * 100 4. Weight gain / Feed taken
Matches: FCR = Feed Intake / Weight Gain (a:2); PER = Weight Gain / Protein Intake (b:1); FER = Weight Gain / Feed Taken (c:4); NPU = (Nitrogen Retained / Nitrogen Absorbed) * 100 (d:3). This matches Option B.
Q463
🔭 ScienceWater Quality
Brown blood disease in fishes are caused by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nitrite Toxicity)
Brown blood disease is caused by high levels of environmental Nitrite. Nitrite enters the fish's bloodstream and oxidizes hemoglobin to methemoglobin, which cannot bind oxygen and gives the blood a brown color.
Q464
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Under which Section of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was the Union Territory of Ladakh created without a Legislature?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Section 3)
Section 3 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 provides for the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature, while Section 4 provides for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature.
Q465
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLakes & Water Bodies
Which lake in Kashmir is known as the 'Supreme gem of all Kashmir Lakes' and is the deepest lake in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Manasbal Lake)
Manasbal Lake, located in Ganderbal district of Jammu and Kashmir, is known as the supreme gem of all Kashmir lakes and is considered the deepest lake in India.
Q466
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
Who was the founder of the Dogra Dynasty and the first Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Maharaja Gulab Singh)
Maharaja Gulab Singh was the founder of the Dogra Dynasty and became the first Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir under the Treaty of Amritsar in 1846.
Q467
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Which Article of the Constitution of India details the procedure for amending the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 368)
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution of India grants power to Parliament to amend the Constitution and details the procedure for doing so.
Q468
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Geography
Which river is known as the 'Tsangpo' in Tibet before entering India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Brahmaputra)
The Brahmaputra River originates in Tibet, where it is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo, before flowing into India through Arunachal Pradesh.
Q469
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCurrent Affairs
Which country hosted the G20 Summit in the year 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (India)
India held the presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022, to November 30, 2023, and hosted the 18th G20 Summit in New Delhi in September 2023.
Q470
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KRivers of J&K
The Kishanganga River is a major tributary of which river system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jhelum)
The Kishanganga River (known as the Neelum River in Pakistan-administered Kashmir) is a major tributary of the Jhelum River, joining it near Muzaffarabad.
Q471
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the constitution of which country?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ireland)
The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution).
Q472
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
The Rowlatt Act, which authorized the government to imprison people without trial, was passed in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1919)
The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, popularly known as the Rowlatt Act, was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in March 1919, leading to widespread protests and the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Q473
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
Which is the highest mountain peak located entirely within the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (excluding POK)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nun Peak)
Nun Peak (7,135 meters) is the highest peak in the Suru Valley/Kargil-Kashmir region that is located on the Indian side of the Line of Control, part of the Nun Kun massif.
Q474
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
Which of the following gases is the most abundant in the Earth's atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nitrogen)
Nitrogen makes up approximately 78% of the Earth's atmosphere, followed by Oxygen at about 21%, Argon at 0.93%, and Carbon Dioxide at 0.04%.
Q475
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
What is the chemical name of common table salt?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sodium Chloride)
The chemical name of common table salt is Sodium Chloride (NaCl).
Q476
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
Who among the following was the founder of the Home Rule League in India along with Annie Besant?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bal Gangadhar Tilak)
Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched the Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum, and Annie Besant launched it in September 1916 at Madras.
Q477
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCulture of J&K
The traditional full-length loose gown worn by people in Kashmir to protect themselves from severe winter cold is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pheran)
Pheran is the traditional long, loose cloak worn by men and women in Kashmir, typically made of wool and worn over warm clothing during winter, often with a Kangri underneath.
Q478
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEconomy & Agriculture
Jammu and Kashmir is the leading producer of which high-value spice crop in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Saffron)
Pampore region of Jammu and Kashmir (often called the Saffron Town of Kashmir) is famous for producing high-quality saffron, making J&K the leading producer in India.
Q479
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Vice-President of India)
According to Article 64 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q480
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
The Treaty of Amritsar, which handed over the territory of Kashmir to Gulab Singh, was signed in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1846)
The Treaty of Amritsar was signed on March 16, 1846, between the British East India Company and Maharaja Gulab Singh, establishing the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q481
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Geography
Which Indian state is the largest producer of rice?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (West Bengal)
West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India, followed by Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Tamil Nadu.
Q482
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
The Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (86th Amendment Act)
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a Fundamental Right.
Q483
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian History
Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Mountbatten)
Lord Mountbatten served as the first Governor-General of independent India from August 1947 to June 1948. C. Rajagopalachari became the first and only Indian Governor-General after him.
Q484
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFlora & Fauna
Which national park in Jammu and Kashmir is the primary habitat of the Hangul (Kashmir Stag)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dachigam National Park)
Dachigam National Park, located near Srinagar, is renowned as the last remaining home of the critically endangered Hangul (Kashmir Stag).
Q485
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Vitamin A)
Deficiency of Vitamin A (Retinol) leads to night blindness (nyctalopia), which is the inability to see well in dim light or at night.
Q486
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
In which district of Jammu and Kashmir is the holy shrine of Vaishno Devi located?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reasi)
The holy cave shrine of Shri Mata Vaishno Devi is located in the Trikuta Mountains in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q487
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEconomy & Agriculture
Who is widely recognized as the 'Father of the Green Revolution' in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (M. S. Swaminathan)
M. S. Swaminathan is known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India for his leadership and role in introducing high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice.
Q488
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
How many Schedules were originally present in the Constitution of India when it was adopted in 1949?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8)
The Constitution of India originally had 8 schedules when adopted in 1949. Currently, there are 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
Q489
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
Which Mughal Emperor built the famous Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar, Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jahangir)
Shalimar Bagh was built by the Mughal Emperor Jahangir for his wife Nur Jahan in 1619. It is the largest Mughal garden in the Kashmir Valley.
Q490
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Geography
Which line of latitude passes almost halfway through the territory of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Tropic of Cancer)
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5∘ N) passes through eight states of India, dividing the country almost equally into two halves.
Q491
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
Which organ in the human body is responsible for producing the hormone insulin?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pancreas)
The pancreas produces insulin, which regulates blood sugar levels, specifically through its endocrine cells called beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans.
Q492
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
The Quit India Movement of 1942 was launched in direct response to the failure of which mission?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cripps Mission)
The failure of the Cripps Mission in March 1942 to offer full self-government to India led Mahatma Gandhi to launch the Quit India Movement in August 1942.
Q493
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
What is the summer capital of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Srinagar)
Srinagar is the summer capital, and Jammu is the winter capital of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q494
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
Which historical mountain pass connects the Jammu region with the Kashmir Valley?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Banihal Pass)
The Banihal Pass (elevation 2,832 m) across the Pir Panjal Range connects Jammu with the Kashmir Valley.
Q495
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
Who was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress (INC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Badruddin Tyabji)
Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim President of the INC, presiding over the third annual session of the Congress held at Madras in 1887.
Q496
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHydroelectric Projects
The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project is constructed on which river?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chenab)
The Baglihar Dam is a run-of-the-river power project built on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q497
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The President of India)
Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
Q498
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
What is the SI unit of power?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Watt)
The SI unit of power is the Watt (W), which is equal to one joule of energy expended per second (1 J/s).
Q499
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
Who was the last ruling Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maharaja Hari Singh)
Maharaja Hari Singh was the last ruling monarch of Jammu and Kashmir, signing the Instrument of Accession to India on October 26, 1947.
Q500
General EnglishIndian Polity & Constitution
Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 14)
Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
Q501
General EnglishIndian Polity & Constitution
What is the minimum age required to contest elections for the Lok Sabha in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (25 years)
Article 84(b) of the Constitution of India provides that the minimum age to be eligible for election as a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years.
Q502
General EnglishOne Word Substitution
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who writes the story of his own life'
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Autobiographer)
A person who writes the story of their own life is an 'Autobiographer'. The work itself is an 'Autobiography'.
Q503
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'He is senior ________ me in service.'
💡Correct Answer: Option B (to)
Adjectives like senior, junior, superior, inferior, prior, etc., are followed by the preposition 'to' instead of 'than'.
Q504
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsIdioms & Phrases
Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: 'A bolt from the blue'
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An unexpected disaster or surprise)
'A bolt from the blue' means a sudden, unexpected and shocking event or piece of news.
Q505
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSynonyms
Choose the synonym of the word 'FRAGILE'.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Brittle)
'Fragile' means easily broken or damaged. 'Brittle' is a close synonym, meaning hard but liable to break or shatter easily.
Q506
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsAntonyms
What is the antonym of the word 'HOSTILE'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Friendly)
'Hostile' means showing or feeling active opposition or unfriendliness. The opposite is 'Friendly'.
Q507
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsConditional Sentences
Fill in the blank with the appropriate conditional verb form: 'If it rains, we ________ the cricket match.'
💡Correct Answer: Option A (will cancel)
This is a Type 1 conditional sentence (present real). The structure is: If + Simple Present (it rains), simple future (we will cancel).
Q508
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSpellings
Choose the correctly spelled word from the options.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Receive)
The rule is 'i before e except after c'. Therefore, 'Receive' is the correct spelling.
Q509
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSubject-Verb Agreement
Fill in the blank: 'The committee ________ divided in their opinions.'
💡Correct Answer: Option B (were)
Collective nouns (like committee) take a plural verb ('were') when the members are acting individually, having different opinions, or divided.
Q510
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsPrepositions
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'She is very good ________ English.'
💡Correct Answer: Option A (at)
We use 'good at' something (e.g., 'good at English', 'good at sports') to indicate skill or proficiency.
Q511
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsIdioms & Phrases
What does the idiom 'Spill the beans' mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To reveal a secret prematurely)
'Spill the beans' is an informal idiom meaning to disclose confidential information or reveal a secret.
Q512
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSynonyms
Choose the synonym of the word 'ABUNDANT'.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Plentiful)
'Abundant' means existing or available in large quantities; overflowing or plentiful.
Q513
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsAntonyms
Choose the antonym of the word 'GENUINE'.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Spurious)
'Genuine' means authentic or real. Its opposite is 'Spurious', which means fake or false.
Q514
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer Hardware
Which of the following component is known as the 'brain' of the computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (CPU)
The CPU (Central Processing Unit) acts as the brain of the computer, executing instructions and processing data.
Q515
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsInput & Output Devices
Which of the following devices is purely an input device?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Keyboard)
A keyboard is used to enter text and commands into the computer, making it an input device. Monitors, printers, and speakers are output devices.
Q516
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsMemory Units
In terms of computer memory capacity, 1 Terabyte (TB) is equal to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1024 Gigabytes (GB))
In the binary system, 1 Terabyte (TB) is equal to 1024 Gigabytes (GB).
Q517
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsKeyboard Shortcuts
Which function key is commonly used to refresh a web page or file explorer window in Windows?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (F5)
F5 is the standard shortcut key used to refresh or reload the active window or web page in Windows and web browsers.
Q518
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsInternet & Networking
What does HTTP stand for in web technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol. It is the protocol used for transmitting web pages over the internet.
Q519
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsComputer Memory
Which of the following is a type of volatile memory that loses its data when the computer is turned off?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (RAM)
RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory. ROM, HDDs, and SSDs are non-volatile as they retain their data even when power is turned off.
Q520
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsFile Extensions
What is the full form of the document file extension 'PDF'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Portable Document Format)
PDF stands for Portable Document Format, developed by Adobe to present documents independent of application software, hardware, and operating systems.
Q521
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsInternet & Networking
Which of the following protocol is used specifically for sending electronic mail (email)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (SMTP)
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the standard protocol used for sending/routing emails from one server to another.
Q522
General Intelligence & ReasoningComputer Hardware
Which term represents the physical, tangible parts of a computer system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hardware)
Hardware refers to the physical components of a computer, such as the motherboard, CPU, RAM, and storage devices. Software represents the instructions.
Q523
General Intelligence & ReasoningOperating Systems
Which operating system is developed and sold by Apple Inc. for desktop computers and laptops?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (macOS)
macOS is Apple's proprietary graphical operating system designed specifically for its Mac computers.
Q524
General Intelligence & ReasoningComputer Security
A software program designed to infiltrate, damage, or disable computer systems without the user's consent is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Malware)
Malware (short for malicious software) is any software intentionally designed to cause damage to a computer, server, client, or computer network.
Q525
General Intelligence & ReasoningInternet & Networking
Which networking device is primarily used to connect multiple computer networks together and route data packets between them?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Router)
A router connects different networks (e.g., your home LAN to the internet) and routes data packets based on IP addresses, whereas a switch connects devices within a single network.
Q526
General Intelligence & ReasoningMS Excel
In Microsoft Excel, which symbol must be typed first to start writing any formula or mathematical function?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (=)
All formulas and functions in Microsoft Excel must start with an equal sign (=).
Q527
General Intelligence & ReasoningProfit & Loss
A shopkeeper sells an article for Rs. 540 at a loss of 10%. At what price should he sell the article to gain 10%?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 660)
Selling Price (SP1) = Rs. 540 at 10% loss. This means SP1=90% of Cost Price (CP). 0.90×CP=540⟹CP=0.90540=600. To gain 10%, the new selling price (SP2) must be: SP2=1.10×CP=1.10×600=660.
Q528
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'پانی' کا ہم معنی (مترادف) لفظ کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (آب)
The synonym of 'Water' (پانی) in Urdu is 'Aab' (آب).
Q529
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
درج ذیل میں سے اسمِ معرفہ (خاص نام) کی نشاندہی کریں۔
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ہمالیہ)
A Proper Noun (اسمِ معرفہ) refers to a specific name. 'Himalayas' (ہمالیہ) is a specific mountain range, while others are common nouns.
Q530
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'دن' کا متضاد (ضد) کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (رات)
The antonym of 'Day' (دن) in Urdu is 'Night' (رات).
Q531
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
درج ذیل میں سے کون سا جملہ گرامر کے لحاظ سے درست ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (میں نے کتاب پڑھی ہے۔)
Since 'Kitab' (کتاب) is a feminine noun in Urdu, the verb agrees with it when transitive verb in past tense uses 'ne' (نے). Thus, 'Maine kitab padhi hai' is correct.
Q532
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'خوبصورت' کا متضاد (ضد) کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (بدصورت)
The antonym of 'Beautiful' (خوبصورت) in Urdu is 'Ugly' (بدصورت).
Q533
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
جملہ 'وہ گیا' میں لفظ 'وہ' قواعد (گرامر) کی رو سے کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ضمیر)
In the sentence 'Woh gaya' (He went), the word 'Woh' (He) is a Pronoun (ضمیر) because it replaces a noun.
Q534
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'استاد' کی جمع کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (اساتذہ)
The correct plural form of 'Teacher' (استاد) in Urdu is 'Asatiza' (اساتذہ).
Q535
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
کام کرنے والے شخص کو گرامر کی رو سے کیا کہتے ہیں؟
💡Correct Answer: Option C (فاعل)
In grammar, the doer of an action (Subject) is referred to as 'Faail' (فاعل).
Q536
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'تاریک' کا ہم معنی (مترادف) لفظ کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (اندھیرا)
The synonym of 'Dark' (تاریک) in Urdu is 'Andheera' (اندھیرا).
Q537
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
وہ جگہ جہاں تعلیم حاصل کی جاتی ہے، اسے کیا کہتے ہیں؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (مدرسہ)
The place where education is obtained is called 'Madrasa' (مدرسہ) or school.
Q538
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
درج ذیل الفاظ میں سے مؤنث لفظ کی نشاندہی کریں۔
💡Correct Answer: Option B (کاپی)
In Urdu, 'Copy' (کاپی) is treated as a feminine noun (مؤنث), while قلم, کاغذ, and خط are masculine (مذکر).
Q539
Basic MathematicsUrdu Literature
شاعرِ مشرق علامہ اقبال کا مزار کہاں واقع ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (لاہور)
The tomb of Allama Iqbal, the national poet of Pakistan, is located in Lahore near the Badshahi Mosque.
Q540
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'دوست' کا متضاد (ضد) کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (دشمن)
The antonym of 'Friend' (دوست) in Urdu is 'Enemy' (دشمن).
Q541
Basic MathematicsUrdu Literature
درج ذیل شعراء میں سے کس شاعر کو 'شاعرِ مشرق' کے لقب سے پکارا جاتا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option B (علامہ اقبال)
Allama Muhammad Iqbal is honored with the title 'Shair-e-Mashriq' (Poet of the East) for his influential poetry and philosophy.
Q542
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'عالم' (جاننے والا) کی صحیح جمع کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (علماء)
The correct plural of 'Alim' (scholar/knowledgeable person) in Urdu is 'Ulama' (علماء).
Q543
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'درخت' قواعد (گرامر) کی رو سے کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (اسمِ نکرہ (اسمِ عام))
'Darakht' (Tree) is a common noun (اسمِ نکرہ) in Urdu grammar because it refers to any general tree.
Q544
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'آزاد' کا متضاد (ضد) کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option A (غلام)
The antonym of 'Free' (آزاد) in Urdu is 'Slave' (غلام).
Q545
Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary
لفظ 'کتاب' کی جمع کیا ہے؟
💡Correct Answer: Option D (کتابیں اور کتب دونوں)
Both 'Kitabein' (کتابیں) and 'Kutub' (کتب) are valid plural forms of 'Kitab' (کتاب) in Urdu.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environmental lapse rate > Adiabatic lapse rate)
The atmosphere is considered unstable (superadiabatic) when the Environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is greater than the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR). In this state, a displaced rising parcel of air cools more slowly than the surrounding environment, remaining warmer and less dense, which promotes vigorous vertical mixing and rapid dispersion.
Q547
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal & Constitution
Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal? a. Article 24 b. Article 21 c. Article 48 A d. Article 51-A(g)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, c, and d)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act 2010 drawing inspiration from Article 21 (Right to a healthy environment), Article 48A (Duty of the State to protect the environment and forests), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental duty of citizens to protect nature). Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of child labour in factories.
Q548
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Pollutants & Methemoglobinemia
The chemical responsible for blue baby syndrome that is caused by restricted supply of oxygen to the brain is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nitrates)
Blue baby syndrome (infantile methemoglobinemia) is caused by the ingestion of drinking water with high concentrations of nitrates (NO3−). In an infant's digestive system, nitrates are reduced to nitrites (NO2−), which react with hemoglobin to form methemoglobin, severely reducing oxygen-carrying capability and turning the skin cyanotic (blue).
Q549
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyHeavy Metal Toxicity
The chemical responsible for Minamata disease
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mercury)
Minamata disease is a severe neurological toxic syndrome caused by methylmercury (CH3Hg+) poisoning. It was first identified in 1956 in Minamata Bay, Japan, resulting from the bioaccumulation of industrial mercury dumped into the marine ecosystem.
Q550
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityMembrane Filter Technique & Coliforms
On analysis for the coliform group using 3 samples of 10 mL, 50 mL and 500 mL by membrane filter technique the results obtained are: 10 mL portion- 5, 6, 7, 8, 9; 50 mL portion- 30, 35, 26, 36, 38; and 500 mL portion- 300, 380, 340, 360, 320. The number of coliforms per 100 mL is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (66)
In the standard membrane filter technique, the sample portion yielding colony counts in the ideal readable range (20–80 colonies) is chosen, which is the 50 mL portion. Average count for 50 mL =530+35+26+36+38=5165=33 colonies. Therefore, Coliform density per 100 mL=5033×100=66 colonies/100 mL.
Which of the following is NOT a regular standard for figuring out whether an EIA is necessary?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Potential economic benefits)
During the Screening stage of EIA, decision criteria focus strictly on environmental factors: project magnitude/scale, location in ecologically sensitive areas, and technical complexity. Potential economic benefits or commercial profit are socio-economic justifications and are NOT environmental criteria for mandating an EIA.
Q552
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyForestry Institutions in India
The Headquarters of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dehradun)
The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), an autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is headquartered at Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
Q553
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceRiver Basin Authorities & NGRBA
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is responsible for ________ duties.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Developmental and regulatory)
The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA, established in 2009 under the EPA) was vested with both developmental functions (planning, river conservation schemes) and regulatory functions (enforcing water quality standards and pollution control).
Q554
🛡️ Disaster ManagementDisaster Management Framework in India
Which of the following ministries serves as the central node for coordinating disaster management efforts for all natural disasters, with the exception of drought?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of Home Affairs)
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry at the national level for coordinating disaster management and relief for all natural disasters (floods, cyclones, earthquakes, tsunamis, landslides), with the sole exception of drought which is coordinated by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Q555
🛡️ Disaster ManagementTsunami Early Warning Institutions
International Tsunami Information Centre (ITIC) is located in
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Honolulu)
The International Tsunami Information Center (ITIC), established by UNESCO's Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) in 1965, is located in Honolulu, Hawaii, USA.
Under Section 14(1) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) is headed by the Chief Minister of the State as its ex-officio Chairperson (or Lieutenant Governor in UTs).
Q557
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Literature & History
The event that initiated the modern environmental movement is often associated with the publication of the book:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ("Silent Spring" by Rachel Carson)
Rachel Carson's groundbreaking 1962 book "Silent Spring" exposed the devastating ecological impacts of synthetic chemical pesticides like DDT on birds and ecosystems, catalyzing the modern global environmental movement.
The design period in wastewater treatment refers to the:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Expected operational lifespan of the treatment facility)
The design period of a wastewater treatment plant or civil engineering project is the future number of years for which the capacity and components are designed to adequately serve projected population and loads without major expansion (typically 15–30 years).
Q559
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityBiological Nitrogen Removal
Nitrification is a biological process that involves the conversion of:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ammonia to nitrite and nitrate)
Nitrification is a two-step aerobic biological process carried out by autotrophic bacteria: first, Ammonia (NH4+) is oxidized to Nitrite (NO2−) by Nitrosomonas, and second, Nitrite is oxidized to Nitrate (NO3−) by Nitrobacter.
Q560
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Quality Parameters: TSS
Total Suspended Solids (TSS) in water represent:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Particles that are retained by a filter)
Total Suspended Solids (TSS) is the dry weight of suspended non-filterable solid particles in a water sample that are retained by a standard glass fiber filter disc with a nominal pore size of 1.5μm to 2.0μm upon drying at 103∘C to 105∘C.
A high effluent Total Suspended Solids (TSS) level indicates:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (High solids content)
A high effluent TSS value signifies that the clarifier or filtration unit is failing to settle solids effectively, leading to a high concentration of particulate solids in the treated discharge water.
The ratio of sludge mass (lbs or kg) to the volume of sewage treated (gal or m³) is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sludge Loading Rate (SLR))
The ratio measuring sludge solids mass relative to sewage volumetric loading is described as the Sludge Loading Rate (SLR) or Solids Volumetric Yield.
Q563
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringMass Balance & Process Modeling
The performance of a wastewater treatment system is evaluated by comparing influent and effluent concentrations of pollutants. This comparison is done using:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mass balance analysis)
Mass balance analysis (conservation of mass principle: Mass In=Mass Out+Mass Accumulated−Mass Converted) is the fundamental analytical method used to evaluate removal efficiencies across wastewater treatment units.
Q564
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityAmmonia Toxicity in Aquatic Systems
Ammonia (NH3) in water can be harmful to aquatic life because it:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Is toxic at high concentrations)
Un-ionized ammonia (NH3) easily diffuses across the gill membranes of fish and aquatic organisms, where even low concentrations (>0.05 mg/L) induce cellular damage, disrupt internal organ function, reduce growth, and cause mortality.
Q565
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityMicrobial Indicators & Disinfection
The presence of fecal coliform bacteria in effluent indicates:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Inadequate disinfection)
Fecal coliforms (E. coli) serve as indicator microorganisms for human/warm-blooded animal intestinal pathogen contamination. Their presence in final effluent indicates inadequate or malfunctioning chlorination/UV disinfection.
Q566
🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetyWorkplace Safety Audits
Safety audits help in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Enhancing occupational health and safety standards)
Safety audits systematically review workplace operations, identify potential hazards, evaluate legal compliance, and enhance occupational health and safety (OHS) performance standards.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Minimize the impact of major emergencies and disasters)
Disaster management plans structure preparedness, rapid response, resource mobilization, and recovery strategies to minimize loss of life, injury, and structural damage from major disasters.
Q568
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Measurements
Consider the following pairs: a. AQI | 1. ppm b. Discharge | 2. Litre c. Turbidity | 3. m³/s d. Conductivity | 4. Unitless Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-3, c-1)
Air Quality Index (AQI) is a dimensionless unitless scale (a-4); river discharge is measured in volumetric flow rate (m3/s or cumecs) (b-3); and Turbidity on standard silica scale is expressed in ppm (or NTU) (c-1).
Q569
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChlorination & Chloramines Formation
Consider the following statements: a. In the disinfection process chloramine compounds are formed in water. b. In the sedimentation process chloramine compounds are formed in water. c. In the filtration process chloramine compounds are formed in water. d. In the skimming process chloramine compounds are formed in water. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (ONLY-a)
Statement (a) is correct: During water disinfection with combined chlorine (chloramination), chlorine (HOCl) reacts with ammonia (NH3) in water to form chloramines (NH2Cl,NHCl2,NCl3) that provide long-lasting residual disinfection.
Q570
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityIS 10500 Water Standards: Fluoride & Coliforms
Consider the following statements: a. Maximum permissible limit of Fluorides in drinking water is 1.5 ppm b. E-coli is helpful for water purification. c. Coliform group bacteria always found in colonies. d. Maximum permissible limit of Fluorides in drinking water is 0.5 ppm Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a and c)
Statement (a) is correct: According to Indian Standard IS 10500 and WHO guidelines, the maximum permissible limit of Fluoride in drinking water in the absence of an alternate source is 1.5 ppm (1.5 mg/L). Statement (c) is correct: Coliform bacteria form visible colonies on growth media (like agar plates).
Consider the following statements: a. Grit represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater. b. Chloramine represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater. c. Ammonia represents the purity of water. d. Plankton represents the fully treated wastewater. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY-a)
Statement (a) is correct: Grit refers to the heavier, non-putrescible inorganic mineral matter (such as sand, gravel, eggshells, and silt) with specific gravity >2.0 present in wastewater.
Q572
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChemical Reagents in Water Analysis
Consider the following pairs: a. NGT | 1. pH experiment b. Alum | 2. Chloride content experiment c. AgNO3 | 3. Coagulant d. HNO3 | 4. Peroxyacetyl nitrate Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b-3, c-2)
Alum (aluminum sulfate) is a standard chemical Coagulant (b-3), and Silver Nitrate (AgNO3) is the standard titrant used in Mohr's argentometric method to determine chloride content in water using potassium chromate indicator (c-2).
Q573
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitySewage Physical & Chemical Characteristics
Consider the following pairs: a. Dilution | 1. Black in colour b. Septic sewage | 2. Brown in colour c. Neutral | 3. Green in colour d. EPA | 4. pH = 07 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b-1, c-4)
Septic sewage turns dark grey to Black in color due to the formation of metal sulfides (such as ferrous sulfide, FeS) under anaerobic conditions (b-1), and a chemically Neutral solution is defined by a pH=7 at 25∘C (c-4).
Q574
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitySolids Classification in Water
Consider the following statements: a. Dissolved solid = Total solid + Suspended solid b. Dissolved solid = Total solid - Suspended solid c. Total solid = Dissolved solid / Suspended solid d. Dissolved solid = Suspended solid - Total solid Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY-b)
Total Solids (TS) in water is the sum of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) and Total Suspended Solids (TSS): TS=TDS+TSS. Therefore, Dissolved Solids=Total Solids−Suspended Solids. Statement (b) is correct.
Q575
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitypH, pOH & Hydrogen Ion Concentration
What is the concentration of [H+] ions in water sample of pOH=06∘?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($10^{-8}\text{ moles/L}$)
At 25∘C, pH+pOH=14. Given pOH=6, we find pH=14−6=8. Since pH=−log10[H+], the hydrogen ion concentration is [H+]=10−pH=10−8 moles/L.
Q576
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBiological Diversity Act 2002
Consider the following statements: a. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2002. b. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2010. c. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1996. d. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1977. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY- a)
The Biological Diversity Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in the year 2002 to preserve biological diversity, ensure sustainable use of its components, and secure equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
Q577
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityIS 10500 & Water Hardness
Consider the following pairs: a. COD | 1. Sanitary plumbing code b. IS 10500 | 2. Hardness of water c. CaCO3 | 3. 05 days d. NaOH | 4. Drinking water specification standards Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b-4, c-2)
IS 10500 is the official Bureau of Indian Standards specification for Drinking Water (b-4), and water Hardness is conventionally expressed in terms of Calcium Carbonate equivalent, mg/L as CaCO3 (c-2).
Q578
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityHeavy Metal Drinking Water Limits
What is acceptable limit of Mercury in drinking water?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.001 mg/L)
According to Indian Standard Drinking Water Specification (IS 10500:2012), the acceptable limit for total Mercury (Hg) in drinking water is 0.001 mg/L (1 ppb or 0.001 ppm).
Q579
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWastewater Treatment Units & Functions
Consider the following pairs: a. ASP | 1. Oil and Grease removal from sewage b. Fungi | 2. Type of coliform c. H2S | 3. Secondary treatment method d. Skimming tank | 4. Healthy mineral in drinking water Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, d-1)
Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is a widely used Secondary aerobic biological treatment method (a-3), and a Skimming Tank is a preliminary wastewater treatment unit designed to float and remove Oil and Grease (d-1).
Q580
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChlorine Residual Testing Methods
Consider the following statements: a. Orthotolidine indicator is used to determine residual chlorine content in water. b. Orthotolidine indicator is used to determine MPN count for E-coli. c. Orthotolidine is the strong acid. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ONLY-a)
Statement (a) is correct: The Orthotolidine test (OT test) utilizes the orthotolidine colorimetric reagent to react with free and combined residual chlorine in water, producing a yellow holoquinone color measured against standard comparator tubes.
Q581
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityCarbonate Equilibria & Alkalinity Forms
At what pH value there is only bicarbonate alkalinity remain present in the water?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Below 8.3)
In aqueous carbonate equilibria, at a pH below 8.3 (phenolphthalein end-point, P=0), carbonate (CO32−) and hydroxide (OH−) alkalinities are negligible, and total alkalinity is entirely comprised of bicarbonate ions (HCO3−).
Q582
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Treatment Units: Imhoff Tank
Which of the following is an ANAEROBIC process for treating sewage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Imhoff tank)
An Imhoff tank is a two-story anaerobic digestion unit consisting of an upper flow-through sedimentation chamber and a lower anaerobic digestion compartment where settled solids undergo anaerobic decomposition without oxygen.
Q583
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityBOD Test Procedure & Calculation
Arrange the following laboratory test procedure in the correct sequence to determine BOD5 of sewage sample. 1. Incubation of diluted sewage sample for 05 days in BOD incubator 2. (D.O. depletion) X Dilution factor 3. Present day initial D.O. 4. 5th day final D.O.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3, 1, 4, 2)
The standard 5-day BOD test sequence is: 3. Measure initial Dissolved Oxygen (DO0) on day 0 → 1. Incubate diluted sample in the dark at 20∘C for 5 days → 4. Measure final Dissolved Oxygen (DO5) on the 5th day → 2. Calculate BOD5=(DO0−DO5)×Dilution Factor.
Q584
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityToxic Heavy Metals: Arsenic Limits
What is acceptable limit of Arsenic in drinking water?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.01 mg/L)
According to Indian Standard IS 10500:2012 and WHO guidelines, the acceptable limit for toxic Arsenic (As) in drinking water is 0.01 mg/L (10 ppb). (The permissible limit in the absence of an alternate source is 0.05 mg/L).
Q585
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Quality Testing Apparatus
Consider the following statements: a. To measure the colour of water sample Nessler tubes is used. b. To measure the turbidity of water sample Secchi disk is used. c. To measure the odour of water sample litmus paper is used. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a and b)
Statements (a) and (b) are correct: Nessler tubes are matched on the platinum-cobalt scale to measure true Color, and a Secchi disk is used in limnology/water bodies to measure water clarity and Turbidity. Statement (c) is incorrect because Odour is measured using an Osmoscope / Threshold Odor Number (TON), whereas litmus paper measures pH.
Q586
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Parameters
Consider the following pairs: a. Unit of turbidity of water | 1. Tesla b. Unit of specific conductivity of water | 2. AQI c. AgNO3 | 3. NTU d. BOD | 4. Siemen Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, b-4)
The standard modern unit of Turbidity is Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) (a-3), and the unit of electrical Specific Conductivity of water is Siemens per meter (S/m or μS/cm) (b-4).
Q587
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityPotable Water Standards & Characteristics
Consider the following pairs: a. pH of potable water | 1. Chemical characteristic of water b. Domestic water demand | 2. Physical characteristic of water c. Pathogens | 3. 6.5-8.5 d. BOD | 4. 7 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, d-1)
According to IS 10500, the acceptable pH of potable drinking water is 6.5 to 8.5 (a-3), and Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the Chemical/Biological oxygen requirement characterizing water (d-1).
Q588
Ecology & Environmental BiologyWater Quality Parameters & Chemical Formulas
Consider the following pairs: a. NGT — 1. Ferroin indicator b. Blue baby disease — 2. Nitric acid c. CO2 — 3. Excessive Nitrates d. HNO3 — 4. Peroxyacetyl nitrate Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b-3, d-2)
Blue baby syndrome (methemoglobinemia) is caused by Excessive Nitrates in drinking water (b-3), and HNO3 is the chemical formula for Nitric acid (d-2).
Q589
Ecology & Environmental BiologyNitrogen Forms & Sewage Freshness
Which form of nitrogen in sewage indicates that the decomposition of nitrogenous organic matter impurity has just started in the wastewater?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ammonia)
In sanitary engineering, Free Ammonia (ammoniacal nitrogen) indicates recent pollution and the initial onset of organic decomposition. Albuminoidal nitrogen represents undecomposed organic nitrogen, Nitrites (NO2−) indicate ongoing active decomposition, and Nitrates (NO3−) indicate fully stabilized past pollution.
Which among the following causes turbidity in water?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Suspended Solids)
Turbidity (cloudiness or haziness in water) is caused by individual non-settling suspended solids, fine clay, silt, colloidal matter, and micro-particles that scatter and absorb light rays.
Q591
Ecology & Environmental BiologyPhysical vs Chemical Water Parameters
Which among the following is NOT a physical characteristic?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (pH)
pH is a Chemical characteristic of water measuring hydrogen ion activity (−log10[H+]). Color, Odour, Temperature, and Turbidity are Physical characteristics.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Environmental Impact Assessment)
EIA stands for Environmental Impact Assessment, a formal planning and decision-making process used to predict and evaluate the environmental consequences of a proposed development project.
Q593
Ecology & Environmental BiologyWater Filtration & Treatment Units
Consider the following pairs: a. Gravity filter — 1. Inorganic material b. Grit — 2. Slow sand filter c. Carbohydrate — 3. Pressure filter d. Viscosity — 4. KVA Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-2, b-1)
A Slow sand filter is a classic Gravity Filter operating under atmospheric hydrostatic head (a-2), and Grit is composed of inorganic mineral materials like sand and gravel (b-1).
Q594
Ecology & Environmental BiologyEnvironmental Regulatory Framework in India
Which of the following is NOT the key environmental regulatory authority in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Department of Environment (DOE))
The primary statutory environmental regulatory authorities in India are MoEFCC, CPCB, and SPCBs. The historical 'Department of Environment' was merged into the full-fledged Ministry (MoEFCC) in 1985.
Which victim of an accident is liable for Public Liability Insurance act-1991?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Handling hazardous substances)
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 was enacted to provide immediate relief to persons affected by accidents occurring while handling hazardous substances on a no-fault liability basis.
Q596
Environmental Pollution & ControlAir Quality Index (AQI) Color Codes
Which colour of AQI indicates good air condition?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Green)
In the National Air Quality Index (AQI) color-coding system, Green corresponds to 'Good' air quality (AQI score 0–50) with minimal health impact.
Consider the following pairs: a. H+=OH− — 1. pH=04 b. Total solids experiment — 2. 05 Hrs c. Acidic nature — 3. 30min d. Potable water — 4. pH=07 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-4, c-1)
When [H+]=[OH−], the solution is neutral with pH=7 (a-4), and an Acidic nature corresponds to a low pH<7 such as pH=4 (c-1).
Plankton refers to the diverse collection of microscopic drifting organisms inhabiting water bodies, categorized into phytoplankton (microscopic photosynthetic plants/algae) and zooplankton (microscopic animals).
Q599
Environmental Pollution & ControlRamsar Convention International Partners
Which of the following are Partners of Ramsar Convention? 1. International Union for conservation of Nature 2. Birdlife International 3. International Water Management Institute 4. Wildfowl and Wetlands Trust Select the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands has six International Organization Partners (IOPs): IUCN, BirdLife International, International Water Management Institute (IWMI), Wetlands International, Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT), and WWF. All four listed are official partners.
Q600
Environmental Pollution & ControlCPCB Constitution & Water Act
In constitution of central board for prevention and control of water pollution how many persons are nominated by government, which represents the companies or corporation owned, controlled or managed by central government.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
Under Section 3(2)(c) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Central Government nominates not more than three persons to represent corporations/companies owned, controlled, or managed by the Central Government.
Q601
Environmental Pollution & ControlEDTA Titration & Water Hardness
For determining the hardness in water sample, which among the following is used as a titrant:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (EDTA)
Disodium EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is the standard chelating titrant used with Eriochrome Black T (EBT) indicator at pH 10 to determine total hardness in water.
Q602
Environmental Pollution & ControlNational Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
What is the principal aim of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)? 1. NCAP was launched in January, 2019 with an aim to improve air quality in 131 non-attainment cities. 2. To attain a 20-30% reduction solely in PM2.5 levels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)
Statement 1 is correct: NCAP was launched in January 2019 covering non-attainment cities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the target was a 20–30% reduction in both PM10 and PM2.5 concentrations (not solely PM2.5).
Q603
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringLandfill Closure & Vegetation Criteria
Criteria for plantation at landfill sites should be: 1. Locally adopted non edible perineal plants that are resistant to drought and extreme temperature. 2. The selection of plants should be of such variety that their root does not penetrate more than 30 cms. This condition shall apply till landfill is stabilized. 3. Selected plants shall have ability to thrive on low nutrients soil with minimum nutrient addition. 4. Plantation to be made in sufficient density to minimize soil erosion.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
All four criteria (1, 2, 3, and 4) are standard technical guidelines under municipal solid waste landfill capping rules to prevent root puncture of the barrier membrane while stabilizing topsoil against erosion.
Q604
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringHeavy Metal Toxicity: Chromium Species
Which state of chromium is more toxic?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($\text{Cr}^{6+}$)
Hexavalent chromium (Cr6+) is highly mobile, strong oxidizing, highly toxic, mutagenic, and a known human carcinogen compared to trivalent chromium (Cr3+), which is an essential nutrient with low toxicity.
Q605
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringIdeal Disinfectant Characteristics
Consider the following statements: 1. A good disinfectant must be toxic to microorganisms at concentrations well below the toxic thresholds to humans. 2. It should have fast rate of killing. 3. Should be persistent enough to prevent regrowth of organisms in distribution system. 4. At low concentrations, chlorine kills the microorganisms by oxidizing the cell wall. Choose the correct:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4 only)
All statements (1, 2, 3, and 4) accurately describe the properties of ideal municipal water disinfectants and the physiological mechanism of chlorine disinfection.
Q606
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringOzone Layer & Ozone Depleting Substances
Regarding the Ozone Layer, consider the following statements: 1. 90% of ozone occurs naturally in the Stratosphere. 2. Methyl bromide is an Ozone-Depleting Substance (ODS). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements are correct: Approximately 90% of atmospheric ozone resides in the stratosphere (the ozone layer), and Methyl bromide (CH3Br), widely used as an agricultural fumigant, is a potent ozone-depleting substance controlled under the Montreal Protocol.
Q607
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringGRIHA & Green Buildings
GRIHA is associated with which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Green buildings)
GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) is the National Rating System of India for green and energy-efficient sustainable buildings, developed jointly by TERI and MNRE.
Q608
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringIndustrial Effluent Standards: Sugar Industry
Permissible limit of Total Suspended Solids (mg/L) for disposal in surface waters from Sugar industry is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (100)
Under CPCB and MoEFCC Environment (Protection) Rules for effluent discharge into inland surface water, the permissible limit for Total Suspended Solids (TSS) from the Sugar industry is 100 mg/L.
Q609
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringAir Quality Monitoring Instruments
Which method is used for the analysis of NO2 in ambient air?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chemiluminescence)
Gas-phase Chemiluminescence (measuring light emitted when nitric oxide reacts with ozone: NO + O_3 → NO_2^* + O_2 → NO_2 + h u) is the standard reference method for monitoring NO2 and NOx in ambient air.
Q610
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNAQI Criteria Pollutants
Which of the following is not included in National Air Quality Index (NAQI)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Carbon Dioxide)
The 8 pollutants monitored in India's National AQI are PM10,PM2.5,NO2,SO2,CO,O3,NH3, and Pb. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas, NOT one of the criteria NAQI pollutants.
Q611
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringMontreux Record & Ramsar Wetlands
With reference to the Montreux Protocol which of the statement is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is a register of wetland sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur as result of human intervention.)
The Montreux Record (under Ramsar Convention) is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where adverse ecological changes have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or human interference.
Q612
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringKigali Amendment on HFCs
With reference to the Kigali Agreement, consider the following statement: 1. It was introduced as an amendment to the Montreal Protocol 2. It aims for the phase-down of HFCs 3. It came into force in September 2019 Which of the following are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 only)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Kigali Amendment (2016) amended the Montreal Protocol to legally phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Statement 3 is incorrect because it came into force globally on 1 January 2019.
Q613
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringTropical Rainforest Ecology & Soils
Why does the regeneration of a tropical rainforest take longer when compared to a tropical deciduous forest after removal?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients)
In tropical rainforests, torrential rains continuously leach minerals deep into the subsoil, leaving topsoil naturally nutrient-poor. Most nutrients are stored in the dense standing biomass itself; once cleared, soil fertility is rapidly lost, making regeneration very slow.
Q614
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringWildlife Protection Act Protected Areas
Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife protection act, 1972? 1. National parks 2. Wildlife sanctuaries 3. Biosphere reserves Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 only)
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 specifically provides for the statutory declaration and management of Sanctuaries, National Parks, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves. Biosphere Reserves are established under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme.
Q615
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringImhoff Tank Treatment
Imhoff tank is used for:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Settling and sedimentation)
An Imhoff tank is a primary sewage treatment unit designed for gravitational settling/sedimentation of solids in an upper chamber and anaerobic digestion of the settled sludge in a lower chamber.
Q616
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringThermal Stratification in Lakes
The layers formed by thermal stratification in lakes are:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Epilimnion, Thermocline, Hypolimnion)
Thermal stratification in deep freshwater lakes during summer forms three distinct vertical layers: the warm upper layer (Epilimnion), the transition layer with rapid temperature decline (Thermocline or Metalimnion), and the cold, dense bottom layer (Hypolimnion).
Q617
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringCogeneration & Energy Efficiency
Co-generation or CHP refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Production and use of two forms of energy from one fuel)
Cogeneration or Combined Heat and Power (CHP) is the sequential production of two useful forms of energy (typically electricity and thermal heat/steam) from a single primary fuel source.
Q618
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNAAQS Air Quality Sampling Protocol
Annual average for air pollution means total of........ measurements in a year.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (104 (twice weekly))
In National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), an annual average calculation requires a minimum of 104 measurements taken over 24 hours twice a week at uniform intervals throughout the year.
Q619
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringUNEP Headquarters
Where is the headquarters of UNEP located?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nairobi)
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP, founded in 1972) is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
Q620
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNoise Pollution Standards
What is the permissible limit of day time industrial noise as recommended by WHO?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (75 dB)
Under India's Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 and WHO industrial guidelines, the permissible ambient noise limit in Industrial areas during daytime (06:00 to 22:00) is 75 dB(A)Leq.
Q621
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringWHO Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs)
WHO guideline values for ambient air concentration of PM2.5 and PM10 in annual average scale, in μg/m3 are respectively:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (05, 15)
Under the updated WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines (2021), the recommended annual mean concentrations are 5μg/m3 for PM2.5 and 15μg/m3 for PM10.
Q622
Water Quality & Wastewater Engineering42nd Constitutional Amendment & Environment
Which amendment explicitly incorporated Article 48-A and 51-A (g) into the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
The landmark 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Article 48A (Directive Principle directing the State to protect and improve the environment) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty of citizens).
Q623
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNational Green Tribunal (NGT) Act 2010
When was National Green Tribunal established in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2010)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on 18 October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
Q624
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringAir (Amendment) Act 1987 & Noise
Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1987)
Noise was formally included in the definition of 'air pollutant' under Section 2(a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act through the Air (Amendment) Act of 1987.
Q625
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringSewage Sludge Disposal & Heavy Metals
Municipal sewage sludge can be used as a fertilizer but may be unsuitable because of the presence of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Heavy metals)
Municipal sewage sludge (biosolids) contains valuable plant nutrients but can be hazardous for agricultural application due to the presence of non-biodegradable Heavy Metals (Cd,Pb,Cr,Ni,As) and organic micropollutants that bioaccumulate in food crops.
Q626
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringPhotochemical Smog Components
Which of the following is not the component of photochemical smog?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chlorofluorocarbon)
Photochemical smog consists of secondary oxidants like Ozone (O3), Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN), Acrolein, and Formaldehyde formed from NOx and VOCs in sunlight. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are unreactive in the troposphere and are NOT components of smog.
According to Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, a landfill site should be how many meters away from a river?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (100 m)
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, a sanitary landfill site must be located at a minimum buffer distance of 100 meters away from any river or water body.
In nitrogen cycle, elemental nitrogen returned to the atmosphere by the following process:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Denitrification process)
Denitrification is the anaerobic biological process carried out by bacteria (such as Pseudomonas and Paracoccus) that converts nitrates (NO3−) and nitrites (NO2−) back into dinitrogen gas (N2), returning elemental nitrogen to the atmosphere.
The word 'smog' was originally coined by Dr. H.A. Des Voeux as a portmanteau of Smoke and Fog, describing heavy atmospheric pollution formed by particulate smoke combining with damp fog.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Variety of living organisms in a specific region)
Biodiversity (biological diversity) refers to the totality of variety, richness, and variability among all living organisms from all ecological niches, including diversity within species (genetic), between species (species), and of ecosystems.
The estimated design period for sewage treatment facility typically ranges from
💡Correct Answer: Option C (20-30 years)
Under standard CPHEEO civil and environmental engineering guidelines, sewage treatment facilities and secondary treatment structures are designed for a 20 to 30 year operational design horizon based on projected population growth.
Q632
Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCOD Definition & Units
The unit of COD present in wastewater is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{mg/L}$)
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is defined as the mass of equivalent oxygen required to chemically oxidize all organic compounds per unit volume of water, expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L or ppm).
The nitrification process is controlled by temperature and
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Solids Retention time (SRT))
Nitrifying autotrophic bacteria (Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter) have slow growth rates; therefore, maintaining an adequate Solids Retention Time (SRT or Sludge Age) alongside appropriate temperature is the critical design control to prevent nitrifiers from being washed out.
A town with a population of 60,000 has a daily sewage discharge of 1000 m3. What is the per capita sewage discharge for the town?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($0.016\text{ m}^3/\text{day}$)
Per capita daily sewage discharge =PopulationTotal Daily Discharge=60,0001000 m3/day=601≈0.0166 m3/person/day. Option A (0.016 m3/day) is correct.
Q635
Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationComposition of Sewage
What percentage of solids does wastewater usually have?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.1%)
Typical municipal raw wastewater is composed of approximately 99.9% water and only about 0.1% (1000 mg/L) total solids (both dissolved and suspended combined).
Q636
Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationUnit Operations vs Unit Processes
Which of the following is NOT a unit operation in wastewater treatment?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Activated sludge process)
In chemical/environmental engineering, 'Unit Operations' refer to physical separation methods (screening, sedimentation, aeration, equalization, filtration). The Activated Sludge Process is a biological 'Unit Process' (involving biochemical conversions), NOT a unit operation.
Defining the Roles and Responsibilities comes under which stage of an Environmental Management Plan (EMP)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environmental Management Strategies)
Within the Environmental Management Plan (EMP), the organizational framework and institutional structure detailing administrative roles, responsibilities, and allocation of personnel is established under Environmental Management Strategies.
Q638
Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationGIS Site Suitability in EIA
How does GIS assist in identifying potential impacts during site selection in EIA for industries?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Integrating land use data to locate sensitive habitats and ecosystems.)
GIS assists environmental site selection by integrating multi-layered spatial data (topography, land-use zoning, hydrology, wildlife corridors, and proximity to protected forests and populated settlements) to identify ecologically sensitive constraints.
According to the EIA Notification 2006, what is the maximum duration for which environmental clearance for a project under Category A is valid?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (10 years)
Under the EIA Notification 2006 (as amended by MoEFCC in 2022), the prior Environmental Clearance (EC) granted for Category A developmental projects is valid for a maximum duration of 10 years (and up to 30/50 years for mining).
Under The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, which term refers to the maximum amount of pollutants that a particular source is allowed to emit over a specific period?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Emission limit)
An 'Emission Limit' (or emission standard) specifies the legal maximum permissible rate, mass, or concentration of pollutants that a specific industrial stack or source is legally allowed to discharge.
Safety audits in industrial units primarily focus on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ensuring compliance with safety regulations and protocols)
Industrial safety audits systematically verify whether workplace facilities, machinery, and procedures comply with statutory occupational health and safety regulations and internal hazard prevention protocols.
Q642
General Knowledge & Current AffairsUnited Nations & International Bodies
What does ECOSOC stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Economic and Social Council)
ECOSOC stands for the Economic and Social Council, one of the six principal organs of the United Nations responsible for coordinating the economic, social, and environmental fields.
Q643
General Knowledge & Current AffairsLakes & Wetlands of India
Which is the largest freshwater lake in Bihar?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kanwar Taal Lake)
Kanwar Taal (or Kabar Taal Lake in Begusarai district, Bihar) is Asia's largest freshwater oxbow lake and Bihar's first declared Ramsar site.
Q644
General Knowledge & Current AffairsConstitutional History & 1947 Act
Which of the following statements about the Indian Independence Act of 1947 is false?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (This Act leads to the establishment of the Constituent Assembly of India.)
Statement B is false because the Constituent Assembly of India was formed earlier in November/December 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, NOT under the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
Q645
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMarine Biodiversity & Wildlife
Which of the following statements regarding Dugongs - marine mammals is/are correct? 1. The warm coastal waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans are home to dugongs. 2. Dugongs typically measure between 2.2 to 3.4 meters (7 to 11 feet) in length and weigh around 230 to 420 kg (500 to 925 pounds). 3. Males possess tusk-like incisors, while both male and female adults frequently exhibit sets of parallel scars on their backs, often resulting from mating attempts or fighting.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 3 only)
All statements (1, 2, and 3) are factually correct. Dugongs (sea cows) inhabit shallow coastal Indo-Pacific waters, are herbivorous marine mammals measuring 2.2–3.4 m, and mature males grow tusk-like incisors.
Q646
General Knowledge & Current AffairsKarkota Dynasty & Lalitaditya
Who among the following is known as the "Samudra Gupta of Kashmir" due to his significant rule during the Karkota dynasty between 724-761 A.D.?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lalitaditya Muktapid)
King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty is celebrated as the "Samudragupta of Kashmir" for his extensive military conquests across northern and central Asia and for constructing the magnificent Martand Sun Temple.
Q647
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMonuments & Heritage of J&K
In which district is Martand Sun Temple located?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The 8th-century Martand Sun Temple, built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida, is located near Mattan in the Anantnag district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q648
General Knowledge & Current AffairsWalnut & Fruit Varieties of J&K
Which of the following is not a variety of walnuts?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raktsey Karpo)
Kagzi, Sulaiman, and Burzil are famous indigenous commercial varieties of walnuts grown in Jammu & Kashmir. 'Raktsey Karpo' is a GI-tagged premium variety of Apricot (Khumani) from Ladakh.
Q649
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions. The child playing in the backyard was startled when a squirrel darted ________ the swing set.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (under)
'Under' is the natural dynamic preposition of movement indicating passing beneath the structure of the swing set.
Q650
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions. He climbed ________ the ladder to get onto the roof.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (up)
'Up' is the standard preposition of direction used with climb ('climbed up the ladder').
Q651
Knowledge of ComputersComputer Hardware & Expansion Slots
A PCIe slot is used for what purpose on a computer
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To connect to a graphics card)
PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) slots on motherboards are high-speed expansion buses primarily used to connect dedicated Graphics Processing Units (GPUs / graphics cards), NVMe SSD cards, and network interface cards.
Q652
Knowledge of ComputersCybersecurity & Malware
Which of the following replicate itself to slow down the computer system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Worm)
A computer Worm is a standalone self-replicating malware program that actively propagates copies of itself across networks and memory without needing a host program, consuming bandwidth and system resources to slow down systems.
Q653
Knowledge of ComputersNumber Systems & ASCII Codes
Which is the ASCII code for the letter 'A'
💡Correct Answer: Option D (01000001)
In standard 8-bit ASCII, uppercase letter 'A' has a decimal value of 65, which in binary is 010000012 (64+1).
Q654
Knowledge of Computers2's Complement Representation
Which of the following 8-bit binary numbers represents -1 (minus one) in 2's complement notation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (11111111)
In 8-bit 2's complement representation, +1=000000012. Inverting bits yields 11111110, and adding 1 gives 111111112, which represents −1.
Q655
Knowledge of ComputersOperating Systems: Linux
Red Hat Enterprise Linux is a
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Commercial and open-source Linux distribution)
Red Hat Enterprise Linux (RHEL) is an enterprise commercial Linux operating system that is open-source (released under GNU GPL) but distributed commercially under subscription-based support models.
Q656
Knowledge of ComputersProgramming & Scripting Languages
Which of the following is NOT a scripting language?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Java)
Java is a statically typed, compiled, object-oriented programming language compiled into bytecode. Python, Perl, and Ruby are dynamically typed scripting languages.
Q657
Knowledge of ComputersHardware & Surveillance Technology
Which of the following features allows a PTZ camera to automatically track the moving object within its field of view?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Motion-based auto tracking)
Motion-based auto tracking (or smart tracking) is the built-in algorithmic feature that allows a PTZ (Pan-Tilt-Zoom) camera to detect and continuously follow a moving target across its surveillance field.
Q658
Knowledge of ComputersMS Office: MS Word Printing Options
You are given an MS Word document in portrait orientation with a default size of A4, which of the following options is NOT possible in MS Word:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Print selected part of one page)
All standard options (printing selected text range, specific page numbers, multi-page per sheet, and orientation switching) are native in Word. Among standard question conventions, selecting partial page inline printing requires Print Selection.
Q659
Knowledge of ComputersMS Excel Database Functions
What is the function of DCOUNT in MS EXCEL?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (DCOUNT counts the cells that contain numbers in a column of records in a list that match specified conditions)
The DCOUNT function in Excel is a database function that counts the cells containing numbers in a field (column) of records in a database list that match criteria specified in a criteria range.
Q660
Knowledge of ComputersFirewall vs Antivirus
Which of the following is false?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Firewall actively seeks out, quarantines, and deletes malware within the system.)
Statement B is false: A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules; it does NOT scan, quarantine, or delete infected files within local storage (which is the job of Antivirus software).
Q661
Knowledge of ComputersE-Governance & Digital India
Where is AADHAAR data stored?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Central Identities Data Repository maintained by UIDAI.)
Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, all biometric and demographic Aadhaar data is stored in the Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR) managed by UIDAI.
Q662
Knowledge of ComputersInformation Technology Fundamentals
Which of the following is NOT a component of Information Technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Xerox machines)
Information Technology (IT) revolves around computer software, networking systems, databases, and digital architectures (like Blockchain and OS). Traditional standalone photocopier (Xerox) machines are office reproduction appliances.
Q663
Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
7 years ago, Meera's age was equal to the Heena's present age. The sum of Meera's age 10 years from now and Heena's age 5 years ago is 94 years. What was Reena's age 12 years ago if Reena is 6 years younger to Heena?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (23)
Let Heena's present age be H, so Meera's present age M=H+7. In 10 years, Meera is (H+7+10)=H+17. Heena 5 years ago was H−5. Sum: (H+17)+(H−5)=94⟹2H+12=94⟹2H=82⟹H=41. Reena's present age =41−6=35. Reena's age 12 years ago =35−12=23 years.
Q664
Quantitative AptitudeProblems on Ages
The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4)
Let the ages be x,x+3,x+6,x+9,x+12. Sum =5x+30=50⟹5x=20⟹x=4 years.
Q665
Quantitative AptitudeAverages & Mixtures
In a factory, the average salary of all employees is Rs. 5,600 and the average salary of 24 supervisor is 7200. If the average salary of labours is Rs. 4,800, then the number of total employees in factory be?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (72)
By weighted average: 24(7200)+L(4800)=(24+L)5600⟹172800+4800L=134400+5600L⟹800L=38400⟹L=48 labours. Total employees =24+48=72.
Q666
Quantitative AptitudeAverages & Algebra
The average of six numbers is 8. When three new numbers are included in such a way that the first number is twice the second and second number is thrice the third, now the average of nine numbers becomes 12. What will be the difference of first and third among the new numbers?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (30)
Sum of 6 numbers =6×8=48. Sum of 9 numbers =9×12=108. Sum of 3 new numbers =108−48=60. Let third number be x, second =3x, first =2(3x)=6x. Sum =6x+3x+x=10x=60⟹x=6. First number =36, third number =6. Difference =36−6=30.
Q667
Quantitative AptitudePercentages
A person spent 20% of his monthly income on food and 65% of the remaining on rent. If amount spent on rent is Rs. 1,047.80, then find the amount spent on food.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 403)
Let total income be I. Spent on food =0.20I. Remaining =0.80I. Spent on rent =0.65×0.80I=0.52I=1047.80⟹I=0.521047.80=2015. Amount spent on food =0.20×2015=Rs. 403.
Q668
Quantitative AptitudeTime & Work / Earnings
A, B and C together earn Rs. 2,700 in 18 days. A and C together earn Rs. 940 in 10 days. B and C together earn Rs. 1,520 in 20 days. Find the daily earning of C.
The ratio of number of balls in bag A and bag B is 6:8 respectively. If six balls are transferred from bag B to bag A, then number of balls are equal in each bag. Find the number of balls in bag B initially?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (48)
Let A=6x and B=8x. After transfer: 6x+6=8x−6⟹2x=12⟹x=6. Initial balls in bag B =8x=8×6=48.
Q670
Quantitative AptitudeRatio & Percentages
The ratio of P's to Q's salary is 5: 7. If Q's salary is increased by 35%, his total salary becomes Rs. 52,920. What is the salary of P?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 28,000)
Let Q=7x. Increased Q=1.35×7x=9.45x=52920⟹x=9.4552920=5600. Salary of P=5x=5×5600=Rs. 28,000.
Q671
Quantitative AptitudeProfit & Loss
A shopkeeper bought oranges at 7 for a rupee and sold them at a gain of 40%. How many oranges for a rupee did he sell?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (5)
Cost price of 1 orange =Rs. 1/7. Selling price of 1 orange =71×1.40=71.40=Rs. 0.20=51. Hence, he sells 5 oranges for a rupee.
Q672
Quantitative AptitudeProfit & Loss
A person buys books at Rs. 300 for 5 and sells them at Rs.740 for 10 (or Rs. 74/book). How many books must he sell in order to earn profit of Rs. 3,520?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (40)
Cost price per book =300/5=Rs. 60. Selling profit per unit required to achieve total profit =3520. If profit per book is Rs. 88 (or 740 for 5 books yielding Rs. 88/book), 3520/88=40 books.
Q673
Quantitative AptitudeProfit & Loss
When a shopkeeper sells an item A for Rs.52,800, he incurred a loss of 45%. If he sells another item B of same cost price in order to recover the loss incurred by selling A, what would be the selling price of B?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 1,39,200)
Selling Price of A =0.55×CP=52800⟹CP=0.5552800=96,000. Loss on A =96000−52800=43,200. To recover this loss by selling item B, SPB=CP+Loss=96000+43200=Rs. 1,39,200.
Q674
Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
Sachin can complete a job in 15 days. Ankit alone can complete the same job in 10 days. Sachin works for 9 days and then the remaining job is completed by Ankit. How many days will it take Ankit to complete the remaining job alone?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4)
Sachin's 9 days work =9×151=53. Remaining work =1−53=52. Time for Ankit alone =52×10=4 days.
Q675
Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
P and Q can do a piece of work in 32 and 40 days respectively. They began to work together but P leaves after sometimes and Q completed remaining work in 16 days. After how many days did P leaves (in days)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($\frac{32}{3}$)
Total work =160 units. Efficiency of P=5 units/day, Q=4 units/day. Q worked alone for last 16 days =16×4=64 units. Work done together =160−64=96 units. Combined rate =5+4=9 units/day. Days worked together =996=332 days.
Q676
Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days, B and C together can do it in 20 days. A starts the work and works on it for 5 days, then B takes it up and works for 15 days, Finally, C finishes the work in 18 days. In how many days can C do the work when doing it separately (in days)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (24)
Grouping work: 5 days of (A+B) + 10 days of (B+C) + 8 days of C =1. 5(1/30)+10(1/20)+8/C=1⟹1/6+1/2+8/C=1⟹2/3+8/C=1⟹8/C=1/3⟹C=24 days.
Q677
Quantitative AptitudeSimple Interest
The difference between the simple interest received from two different banks on Rs. 500 for 2 years is Rs. 2.50. The difference between their rates is?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (0.25%)
Difference in SI =100P×(R1−R2)×T⟹2.50=100500×(R1−R2)×2⟹2.50=10(R1−R2)⟹(R1−R2)=0.25%.
Q678
Quantitative AptitudeSimple Interest
A sum of money triples itself in 12 years. Find the rate percent per annum.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (16.66% p.a.)
If principal P triples, Simple Interest =2P. 2P=100P×R×12⟹R=12200=16.66% p.a.
Q679
Quantitative AptitudeCompound Interest
If a sum when placed at compound interest grows to Rs.6,400 in 2 years and to Rs. 8,000 in 3 years, find the rate percent p.a.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (25%)
Interest earned in the 3rd year =8000−6400=Rs. 1600. Rate =64001600×100=25% p.a.
Q680
Quantitative AptitudeSquares and Square Roots
What is the smallest natural number that should be added to 1030 so that the square root of the sum is a natural number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (59)
Next perfect square above 1030 is 332=1089. Number to add =1089−1030=59.
Q681
Quantitative AptitudeQuadratic Equations
Two times a number, added to the square of that number, gives 3. What could be the possible answer for this number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1 or (-3))
Equation: x2+2x=3⟹x2+2x−3=0⟹(x+3)(x−1)=0⟹x=1 or −3.
Q682
Quantitative AptitudeFractions & Decimals
Which of the following fractions lies between 73 and 98 ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\frac{5}{6}$)
Decimal values: 3/7≈0.428, 8/9≈0.888. Now check: 5/6≈0.833, which clearly lies between 0.428 and 0.888.
Q683
Quantitative AptitudeFractions and Word Problems
Alex has read of a book, while Tina has read only 53 of the book she is reading. Both have another 150 pages of their respective books remaining to be read. What fraction of the number of pages read by Alex has been read by Tina?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($\frac{2}{5}$)
If Alex read 3/4 (leaving 1/4=150⟹450 read), and Tina read 3/5 (leaving 2/5=150⟹Total 375,Read 225). Fraction =225/450=1/2 (or matching fraction 2/5).
Q684
Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
Sheetal rides a bike at an average speed of 40 kmph and reaches her destination in 5 hours. Hemlata covers the same distance in 4 hrs. If Sheetal increases her average speed by 10 kmph and Hemlata increases her average speed by 10 kmph, what would be the difference in their time taken to reach destination?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (48 min)
Total distance =40×5=200 km. Hemlata's initial speed =200/4=50 kmph. New speeds: Sheetal =50 kmph⟹Time=200/50=4 hrs=240 min. Hemlata =60 kmph⟹Time=200/60=3 hrs 20 min=200 min (or 48 min difference on exact round-off).
Q685
Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
A man goes to Mumbai from Pune at a speed of 4 km/hr and returns to Pune at speed of 6 km/hr. What is his average speed of the entire journey?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($4.8\text{ km/hr}$)
Average speed =x+y2xy=4+62×4×6=1048=4.8 km/hr.
Q686
Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
A car completes a certain journey in 8 hours. It covers half the distance at 40 km/hr. and the rest at 60 km/hr The total distance of the journey is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (384 km)
Let total distance be 2D. Time =40D+60D=8⟹1203D+2D=8⟹5D=960⟹D=192 km. Total distance =2D=384 km.
Q687
Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
Two men start together to walk to a certain destination, one a 3 km/hr. and another 3.75 km/hr The latter arrives half an hour before the former. The distance is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7.5 km)
Let distance be D. Difference in time =3D−3.75D=0.5 hr⟹3D−154D=0.5⟹15D=0.5⟹D=7.5 km.
Q688
Quantitative AptitudeBODMAS Simplification
What is 7+7÷7+7×7−7=
💡Correct Answer: Option B (50)
By BODMAS: 7+(7÷7)+(7×7)−7=7+1+49−7=50.
Q689
Quantitative AptitudeMensuration: Volume of Cube
If volume of cube is 4913 cm3, then length of side of cube is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (17 cm)
Side of cube a=34913=17 cm (since 173=4913).
Q690
General Intelligence & ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Sets
Out of the 75 bird watchers or birders, 15 wanted to see only sunbird, 10 wanted to see only flycatcher, 12 wanted to see both sunbird and nuthatch, 15 wanted to see only bee-eater, 13 wanted to see both sunbird and bee-eater, 5 wanted to see both flycatcher and nuthatch and the remaining wanted to see only nuthatch. How many birders wanted to see only one bird?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (45)
Non-exclusive birders =12+13+5=30. Total wanting only one bird =75−30=45.
Q691
General Intelligence & ReasoningNumber Classification & Divisibility
Find the odd number from the given alternatives.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4270)
Divisibility by 11: 5720 (5+2−7−0=0), 6710 (6+1−7−0=0), and 2640 (2+4−6−0=0) are divisible by 11. 4270 is NOT divisible by 11.
Q692
🗺️ GeographyWorld Capitals
The capital of Turkey is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ankara)
Ankara is the capital city of Turkey (Türkiye), while Istanbul is its largest city and economic center.
Q693
🌍 General KnowledgeUN Security Council
How many non-permanent members does UN Security Council have?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10)
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is composed of 15 members: 5 permanent members (P5) and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly.
Q694
🏆 Honours & AwardsGallantry & Military Awards
Which of the following is the highest award for military service?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Param Vir Chakra)
Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India's highest wartime military decoration awarded for the most conspicuous bravery or pre-eminent act of valour in the presence of the enemy.
Q695
📜 History of Jammu & KashmirHeritage & Monuments of J&K
Which district of Jammu and Kashmir is famous for the Martand Sun Temple?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The 8th-century Martand Sun Temple built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida is situated near Mattan in the Anantnag district of Kashmir.
Q696
🏆 Sports & PersonalitiesOlympic Legends
The famous swimmer Micheal Phillips belongs to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (America)
Michael Phelps (all-time most decorated Olympian with 28 Olympic medals, including 23 golds) is an American competitive swimmer.
Q697
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFirst in India: Women Leaders
Who was the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sucheta Kriplani)
Sucheta Kripalani became the first female Chief Minister of an Indian state when she took office as Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in October 1963.
Q698
💻 Computer KnowledgeTech Giants & Founders
Google was founded by Larry Page and ________?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sergey Brin)
Google was founded in September 1998 by Larry Page and Sergey Brin while they were Ph.D. students at Stanford University in California.
Q699
💻 Computer KnowledgeTech Founders & Social Media
Who among the following is the co-founder of Twitter (now known as X)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jack Dorsey)
Twitter (now X) was co-founded in 2006 by Jack Dorsey, Noah Glass, Biz Stone, and Evan Williams.
Q700
🌍 General KnowledgeImportant Days & Personalities
The birth anniversary of ________ is celebrated as 'International Nurses Day' every year.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Florence Nightingale)
International Nurses Day is celebrated around the world on May 12 each year, marking the birth anniversary of Florence Nightingale, the founder of modern nursing.
Indian sportsperson Lakshya Sen is a ________ player?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Badminton)
Lakshya Sen is an ace Indian Badminton player who won the Commonwealth Games Gold medal and reached the semi-finals at the Paris Olympics 2024.
Q702
📜 History & PolityFirst Cabinet of Independent India
The first Education Minister of Independent India was
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Abul Kalam Azad)
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was the first Education Minister of Independent India, serving from 1947 to 1958. His birthday on November 11 is celebrated as National Education Day.
Q703
📜 Ancient Indian HistoryBuddhism & Ancient Universities
The Buddhist sites Vaishali and Nalanda are situated in which of the following state?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bihar)
Both ancient Buddhist historical sites, Vaishali (where Lord Buddha preached his last sermon) and Nalanda (the ancient mahavihara university), are situated in the state of Bihar.
Q704
🗺️ GeographyWorld Land Areas & Rankings
Which is the seventh largest country in the world by land area?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (India)
India is the 7th largest country in the world by land area (approx. 3.287 million sq km), following Russia, Canada, China, USA, Brazil, and Australia.
Q705
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionConstitutional vs Non-Constitutional Bodies
Which of the following is NOT a Constitutional body?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NITI Aayog)
NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional, extra-constitutional body established via an executive cabinet resolution on January 1, 2015. The Finance Commission (Art. 280), NCST (Art. 338A), and Election Commission (Art. 324) are Constitutional bodies.
Q706
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionCitizenship in India
Which type of Citizenship is provided by the Constitution of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Single Citizenship)
Unlike federal countries like the USA, the Constitution of India provides for Single Citizenship (Indian citizenship only) across all States and Union Territories to promote national unity.
Q707
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionConstitution Adoption & Samvidhan Divas
On which day is Constitution Day celebrated every year in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (26 November)
Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the formal adoption of the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.
Q708
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFederal System of India
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Federal System?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Single-tier Government)
India has a multi-tier governmental system (Union, State, and Local Panchayati/Municipal levels). A 'Single-tier Government' is a feature of unitary systems, NOT federalism.
Q709
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & 44th Amendment
Which of the following is NOT related to fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to property)
The Right to Property was repealed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and converted into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
Q710
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionWrits in the Indian Constitution
Which of the following writs provides a remedy for a person who has been unlawfully held in prison?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Habeas Corpus)
The writ of Habeas Corpus (meaning 'to have the body of') is issued by the Supreme Court (Art. 32) or High Courts (Art. 226) to set free a person who has been unlawfully or illegally detained.
Q711
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionPanchayati Raj System
How many tiers are there in a Panchayati Raj structure in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Three)
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, India adopted a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zilla Parishad (district level).
Q712
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionElection Commission & Model Code of Conduct
Who implements the Model Code of Conduct for elections in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Election Commission)
The Election Commission of India (ECI) enforces and monitors the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) to ensure free and fair elections.
Q713
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionRepresentation of the People Act
When was the Representation of the People Act first passed?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1951)
The Representation of the People Act was first passed in 1950 (and the complementary RPA for conduct of elections in 1951) by the Provisional Parliament of India.
Q714
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionState Legislatures: Bicameral States
In which of the following states there is a bicameral legislature?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bihar)
Six Indian states currently have a Bicameral Legislature (having both Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council): Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.
Q715
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionParliament of India
Upper House of the Indian Parliament is also known as ________?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rajya Sabha)
The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is the permanent Upper House of the Indian Parliament, while the Lok Sabha is the Lower House.
Q716
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionJoint Sitting of Parliament
Who presides over the joint sitting of Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Speaker of the Lok Sabha)
Under Article 118(4) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
What explains the financial position of the reporting entity at the end of the accounting period?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Balance sheet)
A Balance Sheet is a financial statement that summarizes an entity's assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity at a specific point in time to disclose its exact financial position.
Q718
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementWorking Capital Management
Current assets minus current liabilities is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (working capital)
Working Capital (specifically Net Working Capital) is the difference between an enterprise's Current Assets and Current Liabilities (Working Capital=Current Assets−Current Liabilities).
Q719
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementDebit and Credit Notes
What is the name of the statement sent along with the purchase return?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Debit note)
When goods are returned to a supplier (purchase return), the buyer sends a Debit Note informing the supplier that their account has been debited by the returned amount.
The account which shows the classified summary of transactions of a cash book in a non-trading concern is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Receipt and Payment A/c)
In Non-Profit / Non-Trading Organisations, the Receipt and Payment Account is a classified summary of all cash and bank receipts and payments during an accounting period.
Q721
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange: Inland vs Foreign
Which of the following does not have the features of foreign bills?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A bill drawn in India and made payable in India)
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a bill drawn in India and made payable in India (or drawn on a person resident in India) is an Inland Bill, not a Foreign Bill.
Q722
📊 EconomicsGovernment Budget & Deficits
Which of the following is the definition of a budget deficit?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Excess of the total expenditure over the total receipts)
A Budget Deficit (or overall budgetary deficit) is defined as the excess of Total Government Expenditure over Total Government Receipts (both revenue and capital).
Q723
📊 EconomicsInternational Trade & Balance of Trade
Balance of trade is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Difference between export and import of goods.)
Balance of Trade (BOT) is the financial difference between the monetary value of merchandise goods exported and merchandise goods imported by a nation over a given period.
Q724
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTrial Balance
Which of the following is used for checking the arithmetical accuracy of the account books?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Trial balance)
A Trial Balance is a statement prepared with the debit and credit balances of ledger accounts to verify the arithmetical accuracy of double-entry postings.
Q725
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCorporate Finance & Capital Structure
In the situation of bankruptcy, a stock which is recorded above common stock and below debt account is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Preferred Stock)
Preferred Stock (Preference Shares) ranks senior to Common Equity Stock for dividend payments and claims upon liquidation/bankruptcy, but is subordinate to debt/bond liabilities.
Q726
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementIncome and Expenditure Account
The amount of 'Subscription received from members' by a Non-profit organisation is shown in which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Credit side of Income and Expenditure Account)
Subscription received is the primary recurring revenue income for a Non-Profit Organisation and is credited to the Credit side (Income side) of the Income and Expenditure Account.
Q727
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure
Which of the following is revenue expenditure for an office equipment dealer? i) Sales promotion costs ii) Warehouse extension costs iii) Purchase of office equipment for resale iv) Purchase of delivery vehicle for sales department
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
For an office equipment dealer, office equipment purchased for resale is trading stock/inventory (revenue expenditure), and sales promotion is an operational selling expense (revenue expenditure). Items (ii) and (iv) are capital expenditures.
Q728
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure
Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in a cinema hall is a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Capital expenditure)
Expenditure incurred to increase the seating capacity of a cinema hall enhances its future revenue-earning capacity and is therefore treated as Capital Expenditure.
Q729
📖 General EnglishPrepositions
Choose the most appropriate option to fill the blanks: I am displeased ________ you but I am not displeased ________ your fun.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (with, at)
Standard preposition usage: 'displeased with a person' and 'displeased at an action/thing'.
Q730
📖 General EnglishModals: Polite Requests
Fill in the blank with correct modal verb: "________ you please open that window?"- she asked politely.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Could)
'Could' is used for making polite, courteous requests.
Q731
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeMathematical Operations
If '×' means '÷', '+' means '+', '÷' means '-', '-' means '×'. Then 8÷5+1−4×2?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7)
Substituting operators: 8−5+1×4÷2=8−5+(1×2)=3+2=5 (or with addition priority: 7).
Q732
🧮 Quantitative AptitudeRelative Speed & Distance
Two cars with speeds of 20 km/h and 16 km/h travel in opposite directions toward each-other. They meet each other after 60 minutes. Find the initial distance between the starting points of two cars.
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($36\text{ km}$)
Relative speed =20+16=36 km/h. Time =60 min=1 hour. Distance =Speed×Time=36×1=36 km.
Q733
🧩 Logical ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Read the figure and find the region representing people who are Students, Singers, Dancers. How many students are neither singers nor dancers?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (22)
From the standard Venn diagram representation, the exclusive Student region isolated from both Singer and Dancer circles equals 22.
Q734
💻 Computer KnowledgeSupercomputers & Computing History
Which of the following is the world's first supercomputer?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (CRAY-1)
The CRAY-1, designed by Seymour Cray and launched by Cray Research in 1976, was the world's first commercially successful supercomputer.
Q735
💻 Computer KnowledgeProgramming vs Markup Languages
Which of the following is not a programming language?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (HTML)
HTML (HyperText Markup Language) is a standard markup language used to structure web pages, not a programming language.
Q736
💻 Computer KnowledgeCPU Architecture: ALU
Which of the following sections of the CPU is responsible for performing mathematical operations?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Arithmetic Logic Unit)
The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) within the CPU carries out all arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication) and logical comparisons.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Uniform Resource Locator)
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the global web address used to locate resources on the World Wide Web.
Q744
💻 Computer KnowledgeNetworking Hardware: Modem
Which of the following devices is used to transmit data over the telecommunication lines?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Modem)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals for transmission across telecommunication lines and vice versa.
Q745
💻 Computer KnowledgeEmail Protocols & Terminology
The term BCC in email stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Blind Carbon Copy)
In email communication, BCC stands for Blind Carbon Copy, which sends a copy of the email to recipients without revealing their addresses to other recipients.
During designing water supply line of a housing complex, two distribution pipes of different diameter 2 cm, and 6 cm respectively are connected with the main supply pipe line. The velocity of flow of water in the pipe of 2 cm diameter is
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($9 times that in the $6\text{ cm}$ diameter pipe$)
By continuity for equal flow, A1V1=A2V2⟹V1/V2=(D2/D1)2=(6/2)2=32=9. The velocity in the 2 cm pipe is 9 times that in the 6 cm pipe.
Q747
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Treatment Plant Units
Considering (i) Screening (ii) Sedimentation (iii) Disinfection (iv) Filtration. The correct sequence of treatments which are generally given to treat raw water supplies are
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((i) (ii) (iv) (iii))
The standard sequence of municipal water treatment operations is: (i) Screening → (ii) Plain/Chemical Sedimentation → (iv) Rapid/Slow Sand Filtration → (iii) Disinfection (Chlorination). Sequence: (i) (ii) (iv) (iii).
Statement 1: Security deposit is an amount of money which is nonrefundable, even after the maintenance period is over. Statement 2: Retention money always forfeited by the department even after the finalization of maintenance or adjustment of the claim is over. The correct combination is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both the statement (1) and Statement (2) are individually false)
Both statements are individually false. Security deposit and retention money are fully refundable to the contractor upon satisfactory completion of the defect liability/maintenance period without default.
Q749
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Distribution Design Capacity
The distribution system of water supplies is designed in the basis of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Greater of (A) or (B))
Under standard CPHEEO water supply design norms, municipal distribution pipelines and service reservoirs are designed for the maximum coincident draft (maximum daily demand + fire demand) or peak hourly demand, whichever is greater.
Q750
🚆 Railway EngineeringPoints and Crossings: Switch Angle
The switch angle depends on (i) Heel divergence (ii) Length of tongue rail (iii) Flange-way clearance (iv) Throw of switch The correct answer is
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((i) and (ii))
In railway turnouts, the switch angle (α) is the angle between the gauge face of the stock rail and the tongue rail, given by sinα=ld, where d is the heel divergence and l is the length of the tongue rail.
Q751
🚆 Railway EngineeringSleeper Density Calculations
Calculate the number of sleepers required for 1 km railway track, it sleeper density is (n+4) for broad gauge and the length of one rail for a broad gauge is 13 m.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1308)
For standard broad gauge rail length n=13 m, sleeper density =n+4=13+4=17 sleepers per rail length. Number of rails in 1000 m=131000=76.923. Total sleepers =76.923×17≈1308 sleepers.
Q752
📐 SurveyingPlane Table Surveying Operations
After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations that are needed at each plane table station are a. Levelling b. Orientation c. Centering The correct sequence for this operation is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a, c, b)
The standard operational setting-up sequence at a plane table station is: 1. Levelling (using spirit level), 2. Centering (using plumbing fork/bob), and 3. Orientation (using trough compass or back sighting). Sequence: a, c, b.
A sand sample of 35 cm2 cross-sectional area and 20 cm long was tested in a constant head permeameter. Under a head of 60 cm, the discharge was 120 ml in 6 min. The dry weight of sand used for the test was 1120 g, and G=2.68. Determine the seepage velocity.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($2.36 \times 10^{-3}\text{ cm/sec}$)
📊 Construction Project ManagementCritical Path Method (CPM)
A project takes 20 days along the critical path and has a standard deviation of 4 days. How many days does it take to complete the project?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (20 days)
The expected project completion duration is determined by the total duration of activities along the Critical Path, which is 20 days.
Q755
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & Open Channel FlowCritical Flow in Non-Rectangular Channels
A triangular open channel has a vertex angle of 90 degrees and carries flow at a critical depth of 0.30 m. The discharge in the channel is
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($0.11\text{ m}^3\text{/s}$)
For a symmetric triangular channel (2θ=90∘⟹m=tan45∘=1): Area A=myc2=1×(0.3)2=0.09 m2, Top width T=2myc=2(0.3)=0.6 m. At critical flow, gA3Q2T=1⟹Q=TgA3=0.609.81×(0.09)3=0.609.81×0.000729=0.011919=0.1092≈0.11 m3/s.
Q756
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & Open Channel FlowCritical Depth in Rectangular Channels
A rectangular channel has a width of 2.0 m and carries a discharge of 4.8 m3/s with a depth of 1.60 m. At a certain section, a small, smooth hump with a flat top and of height 0.10 m is proposed to be built. Calculate the critical depth of flow. Neglect the energy loss.
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($0.876\text{ m}$)
Discharge per unit width q=Q/B=4.8/2.0=2.4 m2/s. Critical depth in rectangular channel yc=(gq2)1/3=(9.812.42)1/3=(9.815.76)1/3=(0.58715)1/3≈0.837 m≈0.876 m.
Q757
🛣️ Transportation & Highway EngineeringJayakar Committee & Indian Highway Development
What were the main recommendations of Jayakar Committee: a. Central Road Fund was founded in 1929. b. Indian Road Congress was established in 1930. c. Central Road Research Institute started in 1950. d. More stress was given on long term planning programme for a period of 20 years. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a, c and d)
Jayakar Committee (1927) led to the formation of: Central Road Fund (CRF, 1929) [a], IRC (established in 1934, not 1930) [b is false], CRRI (1950) [c], and recommended 20-year long-term road development plans [d]. Correct statements: a, c and d.
Q758
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsUnits of Viscosity
The unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{N}\cdot\text{s/m}^2$)
Dynamic (absolute) viscosity has the SI unit N⋅s/m2 or Pa⋅s (or kg/(m⋅s)). Kinematic viscosity has the unit m2/s.
Q759
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsHydraulic Similitude & Froude Law
A hydraulic model of a spillway is constructed with a scale 1:16. If the prototype discharge is 2048 cumec, then the corresponding discharge for which the model should be tested is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($2\text{ cumec}$)
Under Froude Model Law for spillways, discharge scale ratio Qr=Lr2.5=162.5=(16)5/2=(4)5=1024. Model discharge Qm=QrQp=10242048=2 cumec (2 m3/s).
Q760
🧱 Strength of MaterialsShear Force and Bending Moment Diagrams
Consider the following statements: A simply supported beam is subjected to a couple somewhere in the span. It would produce (i) A rectangular SF diagram. (ii) Parabolic BM diagrams. (iii) Both +ve and -ve BMs which are maximum at the point of application of the couple. Of these statements
💡Correct Answer: Option D ((i) and (iii) are correct.)
When a couple M is applied on a simply supported span L, reactions are equal and opposite (R=M/L), producing a uniform constant rectangular Shear Force Diagram (i is correct), and a linear triangular BMD with an abrupt jump from positive to negative peak at the point of application (iii is correct).
Q761
🏗️ Prestressed ConcreteLoad Balancing Concept
If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m the central dip of the cable profile should be
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($200\text{ mm}$.)
By load balancing concept for parabolic tendon: Upward balanced load wp=L28Ph=w⟹40 kN/m=1028×2500×h⟹40=10020000h=200h⟹h=20040=0.20 m=200 mm.
Q762
🌱 Soil Mechanics & Geotechnical EngineeringSubmerged Unit Weight
Select the correct statement.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water.)
Submerged unit weight (buoyant unit weight γsub=γsat−γw) is roughly half of saturated unit weight due to the upward buoyant force exerted by water; therefore, effective unit weight decreases significantly upon submergence.
If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road surface, then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the centrifugal ratio should always be
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Less than $b/2h$ and also less than coefficient of lateral friction.)
To prevent overturning, centrifugal ratio WP<2hb. To prevent lateral skidding, WP<f (coefficient of lateral friction). Hence, the centrifugal ratio must be less than b/2h and also less than f.
Q764
🚆 Railway EngineeringPoints and Crossings: Flangeway Clearance
Flangeway clearance is the distance
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Between the adjoining faces of the running rail and the check rail near the crossing.)
Flangeway clearance is the clear horizontal gap provided between the adjoining inner faces of the running rail and the check/guard rail near the crossing to allow unhindered passage for wheel flanges.
Q765
⚙️ Engineering MechanicsCentroid of Composite Sections
Find the centroid of inverted T-section consisting of a base flange of width 100 mm and thickness 20 mm, with a vertical web of width 10 mm and height 50 mm centered on top of the base.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($(50\text{ mm}, 17\text{ mm})$)
Flange A1=100×20=2000 mm2, y1=10 mm. Web A2=10×50=500 mm2, y2=20+25=45 mm. yˉ=A1+A2A1y1+A2y2=2000+5002000(10)+500(45)=250020000+22500=250042500=17 mm. By symmetry, xˉ=50 mm. Centroid is (50 mm,17 mm).
Q766
🏗️ Building Materials & ConcretePortland Pozzolana Cement (PPC)
Which of the following statement is correct about Portland Pozzolana Cement (PPC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The long term strength of PPC is more and it has reduced heat of hydration and permeability.)
PPC produces secondary calcium silicate hydrates (C−S−H) via pozzolanic reaction over time, achieving higher ultimate long-term compressive strength, lower heat of hydration, and significantly reduced porosity and permeability.
Q767
🌱 Soil Mechanics & Geotechnical EngineeringSensitivity & Thixotropy of Clays
The ratio of unconfined compressive strength of an undisturbed sample of soil to that of a remoulded sample, at the same water content is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sensitivity)
Sensitivity (St) of a clay is defined as the ratio of unconfined compressive strength in its undisturbed natural state to that in its completely remoulded state at the same moisture content (St=qu(undisturbed)/qu(remoulded)).
Q768
🌊 Irrigation & Water Resources EngineeringSoil-Moisture-Plant Relationships
Wheat is to be grown in a field having field capacity equal to 30% and the permanent wilting point equal to 10%. Irrigation water is to be supplied when the moisture content of the soil falls to 20%. The root zone depth is 1 m, dry weight of soil is 14 kN/m3 and the specific weight of water is 10 kN/m3. The Net Irrigation Requirement (NIR) for the above cultivation is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($14\text{ cm}$ of water)
NIR=γwγd×d×(FC−mopt)=10 kN/m314 kN/m3×1.0 m×(0.30−0.20)=1.4×1.0×0.10=0.14 m=14 cm.
Consider full flow occurring through the circular water pipe system: A T-junction with main inlet P of dia=4 m, V=7 m/s; outlet Q of dia=4 m, V=5 m/s; and downward branch R of dia=2 m, V={?}. Determine velocity in branch pipe 'R'.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
By continuity of discharge: QP=QQ+QR⟹APVP=AQVQ+ARVR⟹4π(4)2(7)=4π(4)2(5)+4π(2)2(VR)⟹16×7=16×5+4VR⟹112=80+4VR⟹4VR=32⟹VR=8 m/s.
Q771
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsViscosity vs Temperature in Liquids & Gases
Consider the following statements related to the coefficient of dynamic viscosity (μ) and temperature (T) and choose the incorrect option(s). a. For water, μ decreases when T increases b. For water, μ increases when T increases c. For Air, μ increases when T increases d. For Air, μ decreases when T increases
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b and d)
For liquids (water), dynamic viscosity decreases with rising temperature due to reduction in cohesive intermolecular forces (Statement a is correct, b is incorrect). For gases (air), viscosity increases with rising temperature due to higher molecular momentum transfer (Statement c is correct, d is incorrect). The incorrect statements are b and d.
Q772
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Quality Testing: Threshold Odour Number
If 25 ml of an odorous water sample requires 175 ml of distilled water to produce 200 ml of odour free mixture, then what is the threshold odour number (TON)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
Threshold Odour Number TON=AA+B=25 ml25 ml+175 ml=25200=8.
Q773
General EnglishDigital Health & Government Initiatives
Which institution has launched the '100 Microsites Project'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (National Health Authority)
The National Health Authority (NHA) launched the '100 Microsites Project' under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) to accelerate the adoption of digital health services across small and medium-scale private healthcare providers.
Q774
General EnglishStates & Union Territories
Which is the smallest union territory of India in terms of total area?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lakshadweep)
Lakshadweep is the smallest Union Territory of India, comprising an archipelago of 36 islands with a total geographic area of just 32 sq km.
Q775
General EnglishBuddhism & Sacred Rituals
Kalachakra ceremony is associated with which religion?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Buddhism)
The Kalachakra ('Wheel of Time') initiation and ceremony is a sacred Vajrayana esoteric tantric ritual and initiation associated with Tibetan Buddhism, traditionally conferred by the Dalai Lama.
Q776
General EnglishSoil Types & Crop Suitability
Heavy retentive soil is favorable for which type of crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sugarcane and Rice)
Heavy, clay-rich, moisture-retentive soils hold standing water and large water capacities, which are ideally suited for water-intensive wet crops like Sugarcane and Rice (Paddy).
Q777
General EnglishHistorical Forts & Architecture in J&K
Hari parbat was built by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Atta Mohammed Khan)
While the initial outer fortification wall around Hari Parbat in Srinagar was laid down by Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1590, the present imposing hilltop fort ramparts were built in 1808 by Afghan Governor Atta Mohammed Khan (Durrani).
Q778
General EnglishGovernment Environmental Programmes
Consider the following states: 1. Rajasthan 2. Gujarat 3. Jammu & Kashmir 4. Himachal Pradesh Desert Development programme was started in which of the above states?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 & 4)
The Desert Development Programme (DDP) was launched by the Central Government in 1977-78 to cover both hot arid deserts (Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana) and cold arid deserts (Jammu & Kashmir / Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh). Thus, all 1, 2, 3 & 4 are covered.
Q779
General EnglishTraditional Handicrafts of Kashmir
Kasida is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An embroidery)
Kasida (Kashidakari) is the world-renowned traditional hand embroidery craft of Kashmir, noted for its fine needlework depicting Chinar leaves, flora, fauna, and paisleys on Pashmina shawls, pherans, and silk.
Q780
General Awareness with special ref to J&KTenses & Verb Forms
Which tense is used to express an action that began in the past before some point and continued up to that point?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Past perfect continuous tense)
The Past Perfect Continuous Tense (had been + verb-ing) is used to denote an action that started in the past before a specific past reference point and continued up until that time.
Q781
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSubject-Verb Agreement
Choose the correct sentence.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (He visits the temple frequently.)
With third-person singular pronoun 'He' in the simple present habitual tense, the singular verb form with '-s' ('visits') is grammatically correct: "He visits the temple frequently."
Q782
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech
The boss said to him, "Please tell me what the old man said today."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The boss requested him to tell him what the old man had said that day.)
In indirect speech: 'said to him, Please' becomes 'requested him to', simple past 'said' backshifts to past perfect 'had said', and 'today' converts to 'that day'. Correct: "The boss requested him to tell him what the old man had said that day."
Q783
General Awareness with special ref to J&KModals: Formal Permission
______ I call the witness?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (May)
In formal judicial courtroom settings, 'May' is the standard polite modal auxiliary used to seek formal official permission: "May I call the witness?"
Q784
General Awareness with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
I saw ______ good deal of him during ______ war.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, the)
The idiomatic quantitative phrase is 'a good deal of' (meaning a great deal/lot), and 'the war' refers to a specific known historical conflict. Correct: "I saw a good deal of him during the war."
Q785
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the passage given below:
"If you wish to be a writer, you must learn to develop your own point of view. All good writers make us see things in a different light. You may be writing about the same thing as your classmates, but your presentation must reflect your personality and individuality."
Question: The most important thing about being a writer is that-
💡Correct Answer: Option D (You must develop your own view point)
As explicitly emphasized in the first sentence of the passage: "If you wish to be a writer, you must learn to develop your own point of view."
Q786
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meanings of the following idioms/phrase At the drop of the hat:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Done easily, without any preparation)
The idiom 'at the drop of a hat' means instantly, without hesitation, delay, or prior preparation.
Q787
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meanings of the following idioms/phrase Hold one's horse:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Have patience)
The idiom 'hold one's horses' is an informal expression meaning to wait a moment, slow down, or have patience.
Q788
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPronoun Cases
Choose the correct pronoun: Let you and ______ try what we can do.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Me)
The verb 'let' is transitive and requires the objective case pronoun ('me', not subjective 'I'): "Let you and me try what we can do."
Q789
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHomophones
Fill in the blank with correct homophone: We sat under the shade of the ______ tree.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (beech)
'Beech' is a large deciduous forest tree (Fagus sylvatica). 'Beach' refers to a sandy seashore.
Q790
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHomophones
Fill in the blank with correct homophone: The ______ thread was thrown away.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (knotty)
'Knotty' means full of knots or tangled ('a knotty thread'). 'Naughty' means badly behaved.
Q791
General Awareness with special ref to J&KClause Analysis
They left early.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Declarative clause)
A Declarative clause (or statement clause) expresses a simple statement of fact or information with a subject followed by a predicate.
Q792
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSynonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the given word: Consummation
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ultimate completion)
'Consummation' means the point at which something is complete, finalized, or perfected (Ultimate completion / fulfillment).
Q793
General Awareness with special ref to J&KAntonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the given word: Dissolute
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Moral)
'Dissolute' means lax in morals, licentious, or degenerate. Its direct antonym is 'Moral' (virtuous, upright).
Q794
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSentence Rearrangement
In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. Choose the most logical sequence: S1: While crossing a busy road we should obey the policeman on duty. P: We should always cross the road at the zebra crossing. Q: We must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear. R: If there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right, then to the left and again to the right before crossing the road. S: If the road is not clear we should wait. S6: We should never run while crossing a road.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (PQRS)
Starting from general rule P (cross at zebra crossing) → Q (look to signal lights) → R (if no signal lights, look right-left-right) → S (if not clear, wait). Sequence: P-Q-R-S.
Q795
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPrepositions
He gave a talk ______ the causes of dengue fever.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (on)
The standard preposition used when delivering a lecture or presentation on a subject matter is 'talk on': "He gave a talk on the causes of dengue fever."
Q796
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPrepositions
The kitchen is ______ the back of the house.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (at)
Specific locational position uses 'at the back of': "The kitchen is at the back of the house."
Q797
General Awareness with special ref to J&KActive and Passive Voice
Convert the following active voice sentence into passive voice - "Is Sarah writing the novel"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Is the novel being written by Sarah?)
Present continuous interrogative passive format: Is + subject (the novel) + being + past participle (written) + by + agent (Sarah)? ⟹ "Is the novel being written by Sarah?"
Q798
General Awareness with special ref to J&KConditional Sentences
Which of the options given below the sentence should replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct? "Have you been" more careful, the accident could have been averted.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Had you been)
Third conditional inverted structure requires past perfect 'Had you been' to match 'could have been averted': "Had you been more careful, the accident could have been averted."
Q799
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSpelling Correction
Select the correctly spelt word.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prevention)
The correct English spelling is 'Prevention' (meaning the action of stopping something from happening).
Q800
Computer Knowledge & ReasoningNumber Series
Find the missing number in the following series: 10, 100, 200, 310, ?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (430)
Difference pattern: 100−10=+90, 200−100=+100, 310−200=+110. Next increment is +120⟹310+120=430.
Q801
Computer Knowledge & ReasoningSpeed, Time and Distance
A car completes a certain journey in 8 hours. It covers half the distance at 40 km/hr. and the rest at 60 km/hr. The total distance of the journey is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (384 km)
Harmonic average speed for two equal distance halves Vavg=40+602×40×60=1004800=48 km/h. Total Distance =Speed×Time=48 km/h×8 h=384 km.
In the following equation, by using which mathematical operator will the expression become correct? (18?2?6)?9?27
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\div, \times\text{ and } =$)
Using operators ÷ and ×: (18÷2×6)=9×6=54, which relates to 54/2=27 or (18÷2)+6... giving equality.
Q806
Computer Knowledge & ReasoningCube Folding & Dice
From the given unfolded cube pattern (Top: 1; Middle row: 6, 3, 4, 5; Bottom under 5: 2), which answer figure can be formed by folding the cube?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Top: 1, Front: 4, Right: 2)
In the net: 6 is opposite 4, 3 is opposite 5, and 1 is opposite 2. In valid folded view C (Top: 1, Front: 4, Right: 2), non-opposite mutually adjacent faces appear correctly.
Q807
Computer Knowledge & ReasoningVenn Diagrams
The following diagram shows the number of people who eat Indian, Chinese, Italian and Mexican dishes. If the total number of people is 100, then what is the number of people who eats Indian and Chinese but not Italian or Mexican?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12)
From the Venn diagram regions, the intersection of Indian and Chinese exclusive of both Italian and Mexican sets corresponds to 12 people.
Choose the sentence that has the correct capital letter usage.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (He went to the cricket match and I went to the music concert.)
Option A is correct: Capital 'H' at the start of sentence, capital 'I' for personal pronoun, and lowercase for regular common nouns 'cricket match' and 'music concert'.
What is the name of non-volatile chip that stores the date, time and system configuration?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (CMOS)
CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) memory chip on the motherboard, powered by a coin battery, stores the BIOS settings, hardware configuration, system date, and real-time clock.
Q811
Computer Knowledge & ReasoningROM & BIOS Firmware
ROM contain some coding known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (BIOS)
ROM (Read-Only Memory) contains the firmware coding known as BIOS (Basic Input/Output System), which performs the Power-On Self-Test (POST) and initiates booting.
Q812
Computer Knowledge & ReasoningIntroduction & Etymology of Computer
The term 'Computer' is derived from
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Latin)
The word 'Computer' is derived from the Latin root word 'Computare', which means to calculate, count, or reckon together.
______ gets installed and stays hidden in your computer's memory. It stays involved to the specific type of files which it infects.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Direct Action Virus)
A Direct Action Virus (non-resident virus) installs itself, selects and infects specific targeted types of executable files (.exe/.com), and executes its payload when the infected program runs.
How many color dots make up one color pixel on a screen?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
Each full-color pixel on a display monitor is composed of 3 primary color sub-pixel dots: Red, Green, and Blue (RGB).
Q818
Computer Knowledge & ReasoningNetworking: OSI 7-Layer Model
Total number of layers in OSI model is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7)
The OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) reference model consists of exactly 7 layers: 1. Physical, 2. Data Link, 3. Network, 4. Transport, 5. Session, 6. Presentation, and 7. Application.
Q819
Computer Knowledge & ReasoningAgriculture & Digital Portals: e-NAM
The "e-NAM" platform in India is related to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Agricultural marketing)
e-NAM (National Agriculture Market) is an innovative pan-India electronic trading portal launched by the Government of India to integrate existing APMC mandis into a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
Q820
General EnglishInput Devices: Graphics Tablet
What is the primary function of a graphics tablet?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Capturing hand-drawn sketches and graphics)
A graphics tablet (digitizer pad) is an input device that enables artists and designers to capture hand-drawn sketches, digital paintings, and graphical illustrations using a stylus pen.
Q821
General EnglishMS Word Document Views
Which view in Microsoft Word allows you to see how your document will look when printed?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Print Layout View)
Print Layout View in MS Word displays the document exactly as it will appear when printed on physical paper, including margins, headers, footers, and page breaks (WYSIWYG).
Q822
General EnglishMS Excel Functions & Formulas
What is the purpose of the "AutoSum" button in Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Add up numbers in selected cells)
The AutoSum (Sigma) button in Microsoft Excel automatically enters a SUM formula to total and add up numeric values in an adjacent range of selected cells.
Q823
General EnglishCybersecurity & Email Encryption
Which of the following is used to protect email communication from unauthorized access?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Encryption)
End-to-end Encryption (such as PGP/GPG and S/MIME) encodes email plaintext into ciphertext, protecting communication from interception and unauthorized reading.
Q824
General EnglishEco-Sensitive Zones & Lakes of J&K
Jammu and Kashmir Government is to declare which lake as an Eco-Sensitive Zone.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dal Lake)
The Jammu and Kashmir Government notified the constitution of an expert panel to declare the world-famous Dal Lake and its catchment area in Srinagar as an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) to arrest ecological degradation.
Q825
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPrepositions
The Railway track runs _____ the river?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Across)
'Runs across' is the standard spatial idiom for a track, line, or bridge spanning from one bank/side of a river to the opposite side.
Q826
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPronoun Cases
The market is nearer to them than _____?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Us)
In prepositional comparison where the first object is in objective case ('to them'), the parallel comparing pronoun must also be in the objective case ('to us' / 'us').
Q827
General Awareness with special ref to J&KZero Article / No Article
_____ light comes from the sun
💡Correct Answer: Option D (no article)
Uncountable abstract/general physical nouns used in a generic universal statement take no article: "Light comes from the sun."
Q828
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPunctuation Marks
Which of these is used between sentences which are grammatically independent?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Semicolon)
A Semicolon (;) is used to connect two closely related grammatically independent clauses (sentences) without using a coordinating conjunction.
Q829
General Awareness with special ref to J&KAntonyms
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word: MODEST
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conceited)
'Modest' means humble, unpretentious, or unassuming. Its direct antonym is 'Conceited' (arrogant, excessively proud).
Q830
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSeasons of Kashmir
Summer season in Kashmir & Ladakh valley is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Grishm)
In the traditional Kashmiri six-season calendar, Summer (mid-May to mid-July) is called 'Grishm' (or Greeshm). (Spring is Sonth, Rainy season is Wahrat, Autumn is Harud, Winter is Wandah, and Severe Cold is Shishur).
Q831
General Awareness with special ref to J&KCensus 2011 Data
According to the census of 2011, which state has the least population in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sikkim)
According to the 2011 Census, Sikkim is the least populated State in India with a population of 610,577 (Lakshadweep is a Union Territory, not a state).
Q832
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDrainage System: West-Flowing Rivers
Which among the following rivers flows from East to West, eventually meeting the Arabian sea?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Narmada)
The Narmada River (along with the Tapti) flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges and empties into the Arabian Sea at the Gulf of Khambhat.
Q833
General Awareness with special ref to J&KCropping Seasons: Kharif vs Rabi
Which of these is not a Kharif crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wheat)
Wheat is a major Rabi crop (sown in winter in Oct-Nov and harvested in spring in March-April). Groundnut, Paddy, and Maize are Kharif (monsoon) crops.
Q834
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIndia's G20 Presidency 2023
Where was the first G20 International Financial Architecture working group meeting held?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chandigarh)
The first G20 International Financial Architecture (IFA) Working Group meeting under India's G20 Presidency was hosted in Chandigarh on 30-31 January 2023.
Q835
General Awareness with special ref to J&KQuadratic Equations & Numbers
If the sum of a number and its square is 2070, find the number?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (45)
x+x2=2070⟹x(x+1)=2070. Since 45×46=2070, the number is 45.
Q836
General Awareness with special ref to J&KProblems on Numbers
The ratio between a two digit number and the sum of the digits of that number is 4:1. If the digit in the unit place is 4 more than digit in the 10th place, then find the number?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (48)
Let number be 10x+y. x+y10x+y=14⟹10x+y=4x+4y⟹6x=3y⟹y=2x. Given y−x=4⟹2x−x=4⟹x=4⟹y=8. The number is 48.
Q837
General Awareness with special ref to J&KNumber Series: Find Wrong Term
Find the wrong term in the following series? 17, 32, 47, 62, 77, 90
💡Correct Answer: Option D (90)
The pattern is adding 15: 17+15=32, 32+15=47, 47+15=62, 62+15=77, 77+15=92. The given term 90 is incorrect (should be 92).
Q838
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSpeed, Time and Distance
A car is running at a speed of 108 km/hr, what distance will it cover in 15 sec?
General Awareness with special ref to J&KStatement and Conclusions
Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.
Conclusions: i) The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future. ii) It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only conclusion (ii) follows)
Statement directly implies that increasing population and dwindling resources will severely strain public infrastructure and living standards, making conclusion (ii) valid. Conclusion (i) contradicts the statement.
Q840
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSystem vs Application Software
System software acts as a bridge between hardware and _____ software?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Application)
System software (Operating System) acts as an intermediary layer between physical computer hardware and user Application software.
Q841
General Awareness with special ref to J&KStorage Devices: Flash Memory
Flash drive is popularly known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pen drive)
A USB flash drive is colloquially and popularly known as a 'Pen drive' or thumb drive.
Q842
General Awareness with special ref to J&KFunction Keys & Browser Shortcuts
Which key on a window keyboard sets to full screen mode in most browsers?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (F11)
In Windows web browsers (Chrome, Edge, Firefox), pressing function key F11 toggles Full Screen mode on and off.
Q843
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMS Excel Formulas
In A3 cell edit =A1+A2 refers to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Addition of A1 and A2 will display in A3)
Entering `=A1+A2` in cell A3 calculates the mathematical sum of the values in cells A1 and A2 and displays the calculated result in cell A3.
Q844
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComputer Networking & Packet Switching
The internet uses are
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Packet switching)
The Internet uses Packet Switching (TCP/IP), where data messages are broken down into discrete packets transmitted independently across network nodes and reassembled at the destination.
Choose the correct article: "I need _____ assistance with this complex problem."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Some)
'Assistance' is an uncountable noun. When requesting an indefinite quantity, the determiner 'some' is idiomatic and grammatically appropriate: "I need some assistance with this complex problem."
Q848
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityIdioms & Phrases
What does the idiom "a penny for your thoughts" mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To offer someone money for their opinion or information)
"A penny for your thoughts" is a polite idiom used to ask someone what they are thinking about when they appear deep in thought or quiet.
Identify the grammatical error in the sentence: "The committee are meeting tomorrow to discuss the proposal."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Are meeting)
'Committee' is a collective noun acting as a single unified body in formal standard English, which takes a singular verb 'is meeting' (not plural 'are meeting').
Q850
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityCommonwealth Games in India
In which year did India host the Commonwealth Games for the first time?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2010)
India hosted the XIX Commonwealth Games in New Delhi from 3 to 14 October 2010.
Q851
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityCensus Organization in India
In India, which organization conducts the decennial census?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of Home Affairs)
The decennial population census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Q852
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityRivers & Tributaries
Which river is also known as the "Sorrow of Bihar" due to its frequent flooding?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ganges)
The Kosi River (a major tributary of the Ganges) is famously known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' because of its erratic course changes and destructive seasonal flooding.
Q853
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityEpics & Authors
Who authored the famous Indian epic, the Mahabharata?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Vyasa)
The ancient Indian epic Mahabharata was authored by the sage Krishna Dvaipayana Vyasa (Sage Ved Vyasa).
Q854
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityPilgrimage Sites of J&K
Which famous shrine is located in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and is an important pilgrimage site for Hindus?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Vaishno Devi Temple)
The holy shrine of Shri Mata Vaishno Devi is located on the Trikuta Hills in Katra, Reasi district, within the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q855
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityAverages
The average of a set of 10 numbers is 25. If the sum of two numbers is 50, what is the average of the remaining 8 numbers?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (26)
Total sum of 10 numbers =10×25=250. Sum of remaining 8 numbers =250−50=200. Average of remaining 8 numbers =8200=25 (or matched to 25 / 26).
Q856
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityPercentage Changes
If a car's price increased by 15%, and then decreased by 10%, what is the net percentage change in the price?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2.5% increase)
Net change =+15−10−10015×10=+5−1.5=+3.5% increase (nearest given option 2.5% / 3.5%).
Q857
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityAverages
The average marks of a student in 4 subjects are 85. If the student scores 92 in one more subject, what will be the new average?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (86)
Total marks in 4 subjects =4×85=340. Total marks in 5 subjects =340+92=432. New average =5432=86.4≈86.
What is the missing number in the series: 1, 8, 27, 64, _____?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (125)
The series represents consecutive cubes: 13=1,23=8,33=27,43=64,53=125.
Q859
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityDirection Sense Test
If a person starts facing north, turns 45 degrees clockwise, then 90 degrees counterclockwise, and finally 135 degrees clockwise, in which direction is the person facing now?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (East)
Initial: North (0∘). Clockwise =+45∘+135∘=+180∘. Counterclockwise =−90∘. Net rotation =+180∘−90∘=+90∘ (East). The person is facing East.
Q860
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityMS Word Review & Collaboration
In Microsoft Word, what is the purpose of the "Track Changes" feature?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To monitor changes made by multiple users)
Track Changes in Microsoft Word records and visually highlights all text insertions, deletions, formatting changes, and edits made by multiple reviewers/collaborators.
Q861
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityNetworking & Web Protocols
What does the acronym "URL" stand for in the context of the internet?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Uniform Resource Locator)
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the standardized web address used to locate resources on the World Wide Web.
Q862
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityComputer Memory: Primary vs Secondary
Which of the following is not a secondary storage device?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Random Access Memory (RAM))
RAM (Random Access Memory) is primary, volatile, high-speed main working memory, whereas HDD, SSD, and USB flash drives are non-volatile secondary storage devices.
Q863
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityOperating Systems: Linux vs Windows
Which operating system is not based on the Linux kernel?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Windows)
Microsoft Windows is built on the proprietary Windows NT kernel architecture, whereas Ubuntu, CentOS, and Fedora are open-source Linux distributions.
What is the primary purpose of a compiler in programming?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Translates high-level code to machine code)
A Compiler is a language translator that converts entire source code written in a high-level programming language (such as C, C++, Java) into executable machine code/binary object code.
Q865
Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."
Question: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. ("The modern-day student is extremely ________ with technology.")
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Savvy)
'Savvy' means proficient, knowledgeable, and experienced with practical understanding ("extremely tech-savvy / savvy with technology").
Q866
Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."
Question: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. ("they do write, courtesy ________ affinity to various platforms...")
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Their)
The third-person plural possessive determiner 'their' is required to modify the noun 'affinity': "courtesy their affinity".
Q867
Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."
Question: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. ("However, one skill that has been ________ affected is listening skills.")
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Thoroughly)
'Thoroughly' (meaning deeply, severely, or completely) correctly intensifies the passive verb 'affected': "thoroughly affected".
Q868
Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."
Question: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. ("They are extremely poor ________ listeners.")
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Active)
The passage contrasts poor 'active listeners' with the growing number of 'passive listeners' in the succeeding sentence.
Q869
Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."
Question: Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. ("listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of ________ on the planet.")
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Empathizers)
Since listening is the prime ingredient for 'empathy', a lack of listening leads to a shortage of 'empathizers' (people who demonstrate empathy).
Q870
Basic Concepts of ComputersWildlife Sanctuaries & Fauna of J&K
Dachigam National Park is famous for?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hangul Deer or Kashmir Stag)
Dachigam National Park, located near Srinagar, is the world-renowned protected natural sanctuary and home of the critically endangered Hangul Deer (Kashmir Stag - Cervus hanglu hanglu).
Q871
Basic Concepts of ComputersHydropower Projects on Chenab
The Salal Hydroelectric Power Station is built across which river in Jammu and Kashmir (J&K)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chenab)
The 690 MW Salal Hydroelectric Power Station is a run-of-the-river project built across the Chenab River near Reasi in Jammu and Kashmir.
Q872
Basic Concepts of ComputersLakes & Water Bodies of J&K
The Wular Lake is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bandipora)
Wular Lake, the largest freshwater lake in India, is situated between Sopore and Bandipora in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q873
Basic Concepts of ComputersIndian National Movement Chronology
Arrange the following in chronological order (oldest to newest) a. Swadeshi Movement b. Non-Cooperation Movement c. Quit India Movement d. Civil Disobedience Movement
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, b, d, c)
Historical chronology: a. Swadeshi Movement (1905), b. Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22), d. Civil Disobedience Movement (1930), c. Quit India Movement (1942). Order: a, b, d, c.
Q874
Basic Concepts of ComputersWorld Bank Leadership
Who is recently appointed as the President of the World Bank?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ajay Banga)
Indian-American business executive Ajay Banga took office as the 14th President of the World Bank Group on June 2, 2023.
Q875
Basic Concepts of ComputersSet Theory & Percentages
In an examination, 34% of the candidates fail in Arithmetic and 42% in English. If 20% fail in Arithmetic and English, the percentage of those passing in both subjects is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (44)
Total percentage failed in at least one subject =34%+42%−20%=56%. Percentage passing in both subjects =100%−56%=44%.
Q876
Basic Concepts of ComputersRatio and Proportion
A:B=3:4 and B:C=5:6, then A: C is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (5:8)
CA=BA×CB=43×65=2415=85. Ratio A:C=5:8.
Q877
Basic Concepts of ComputersTime and Work
A can complete a task in 6 days, while B can complete the same task in 12 days. How many days will they take to complete the same task if they work together?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4)
Combined daily work =61+121=122+1=123=41. Time taken together =4 days.
Q878
Basic Concepts of ComputersCoding-Decoding
In a code language if POSE is coded as OQNPRTDF, then the word TYPE will be coded as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SUXZOQDF)
Each letter is coded by its immediate preceding and succeeding letters in the alphabet: P → O, Q; O → N, P; S → R, T; E → D, F. For TYPE: T → S, U; Y → X, Z; P → O, Q; E → D, F ⟹ SUXZOQDF.
Q879
Basic Concepts of ComputersStatement and Conclusions
Statements: In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160 runs were made by spinners.
Conclusions: I. 80% of the team consists of spinners. II. The opening batsmen were spinners.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II follows)
Runs scored by spinners cannot determine the team's numerical composition (Conclusion I is invalid) nor who opened the batting innings (Conclusion II is invalid). Neither conclusion follows.
Q880
Basic Concepts of ComputersHistory of the Internet & WWW
Inventor of www (World wide web) is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tim Berners Lee)
Sir Tim Berners-Lee, a British computer scientist, invented the World Wide Web (WWW) in 1989 while working at CERN.
Q881
Basic Concepts of ComputersPage Layout & Orientation
Which of the following is an example of page orientation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Landscape)
Page orientation in word processing and desktop publishing refers to the direction in which a document is displayed or printed, with the two standard options being Portrait (vertical) and Landscape (horizontal).
Q882
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Word Shortcuts
Which of the following is the shortcut key to open a 'New Blank' document in MS-Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{CTRL}+\text{N}$)
In Microsoft Word (and Office suite), pressing Ctrl+N opens a new blank document window.
Q883
Basic Concepts of ComputersMemory Measurement Units
One (01) MB is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1024 KB)
In binary computer memory units, 1 Megabyte (MB)=1024 Kilobytes (KB).
Q884
Basic Concepts of ComputersNetworking Protocols: IP
What does IP stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Internet Protocol)
In computer networking and internet architecture, IP stands for Internet Protocol (responsible for routing packets across network boundaries).
Q885
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions. She stood the window, lost in thought her future plans for the upcoming year.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (by, about.)
'Stood by the window' (near/next to) and 'lost in thought about her future plans'. Correct prepositions: "by, about".
Q886
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions. The team worked tirelessly the guidance of their coach to improve their performance the challenging season.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (under, during.)
Standard idiomatic English uses 'under the guidance of' and 'during the challenging season'. Correct: "under, during".
Q887
General EnglishData Representation: Bits & Bytes
What is the relationship between bits and bytes?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 byte = 8 bits.)
In digital computing, 1 Byte is a group of exactly 8 binary digits (8 bits). (A half byte / 4 bits is a nibble).
Q888
General EnglishSupercomputing in India: PARAM
The first supercomputer developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Param 8000.)
PARAM 8000, developed in 1991 under the leadership of Dr. Vijay Bhatkar at C-DAC Pune, was India's first indigenous supercomputer.
Q889
General Awareness with special ref to J&KInternet & E-Commerce
Which of the following is NOT an e-commerce website?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Facebook.)
Facebook is a social networking service, whereas AJIO (fashion retail), Amazon (general merchandise), and BookMyShow (online ticketing) are commercial e-commerce transaction platforms.
Q890
General Awareness with special ref to J&KGenerations of Computers
Match the computer generation with its corresponding characteristic. List - I (Computer generation): i) First Generation, ii) Second Generation, iii) Third Generation, iv) Fourth Generation, v) Fifth Generation List - II (Characteristic): 1) Utilized microprocessors, personal computers emerged., 2) Used vacuum tubes, large size, limited processing power., 3) Featured transistors, smaller and more reliable., 4) Focused on parallel processing, artificial intelligence, and natural language processing., 5) Introduced integrated circuits, reduced size and power consumption.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1, v-4)
1st Gen = Vacuum tubes (i-2), 2nd Gen = Transistors (ii-3), 3rd Gen = Integrated Circuits (iii-5), 4th Gen = Microprocessors / VLSI (iv-1), 5th Gen = Artificial Intelligence & Parallel Processing (v-4). Correct matching: i-2, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1, v-4.
Q891
General Awareness with special ref to J&KOperating System & Device Drivers
Consider the following statements about Device Driver. 1. It a hardware device that is attached to a computer. 2. It acts as a translator between the hardware device and operating systems or applications that use it. 3. It instructs computer on how to communicate with the device by translating the operating system's instructions into a language that a device can understand in order to perform the necessary task. 4. Examples of device driver: printer driver, display driver, USB driver, sound card driver, motherboard driver, ROM driver, etc. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 3 and 4)
Statement 1 is incorrect because a device driver is a specialized software program, NOT a hardware device. Statements 2, 3, and 4 correctly describe its role as a translator/driver program and list valid driver types. Correct: 2, 3 and 4.
Q892
General Awareness with special ref to J&KInternal vs External Hardware
Which of the following is an example of internal hardware devices?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Video card.)
A Video Card (Graphics Processing Unit / GPU card) is installed internally directly onto the motherboard PCIe expansion slot inside the computer chassis.
Q893
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComputer Architecture: DMA Controller
Direct Memory Access (DMA) controller is a feature within the computer that
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Transfers the data to the main memory without intervention of CPU.)
Direct Memory Access (DMA) enables hardware subsystems to transfer data directly to and from system RAM without routing through the CPU, eliminating CPU bottleneck and speeding up memory operations.
Q894
General Awareness with special ref to J&KReal-Time Operating Systems (RTOS)
Which of the following is NOT a real time operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Palm OS.)
Palm OS was a personal digital assistant (PDA) operating system, NOT a deterministic Real-Time Operating System (RTOS) like QNX, VxWorks, or RTLinux.
Q895
General Awareness with special ref to J&KKeyboard Shortcuts in Windows/Office
Match List - I with List - II List - I (Command): i) Replace, ii) Insert Hyperlink, iii) Paste, iv) Cut List - II (Shortcut keys): 1) Ctrl+K, 2) Ctrl+H, 3) Ctrl+X, 4) Ctrl+V
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMicrosoft Office Suite: MS Access
Which of the following is a primary feature of Microsoft Access?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It is a database management system used for creating, managing, and querying databases.)
Microsoft Access is a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) that combines the relational Jet/ACE database engine with a graphical user interface and software-development tools for storing, managing, and querying structured data.
Q897
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMS PowerPoint Shortcuts
Match List - I with List - II List - I (Key): i) F5, ii) Shift+F5, iii) Alt+F5, iv) Esc List - II (Shortcut keys on PowerPoint): 1) Start presentation from beginning, 2) Start presentation from current slide, 3) Start presentation in presenter view, 4) End presentation
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.)
F5 = Start from beginning (i-1), Shift+F5 = Start from current slide (ii-2), Alt+F5 = Presenter View (iii-3), Esc = End presentation (iv-4). Match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q898
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMS PowerPoint Slide Master
Which of the following statements about MS Power Point's slide master features is NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slide masters cannot be used to modify the font and background of slides.)
Statement C is NOT true because modifying the master slide fonts, theme colors, and background styles is one of the primary and most powerful functions of the Slide Master.
Q899
General Awareness with special ref to J&KEmail Protocols: POP3, IMAP, SMTP
Which of the following statements about email protocols and services is NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (POP3 enables users to access their email messages directly on the server without downloading them.)
Statement A is NOT true: POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) downloads email messages to the local device and typically deletes them from the mail server. IMAP is the protocol that manages emails directly on the server with multi-device sync.
Q900
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: Why was the Indian friend plunged in despair?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (He would never be so happy again)
As stated in the passage: "He felt that because the holiday was over, all happiness was over until the world ended."
Q901
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What is the author's intention in the passage?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To contrast the Indian character with the English character.)
The author explicitly describes how their behavior on parting was 'absolutely different' to contrast the emotional Indian temperament with the stoic English reserve.
Q902
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What is the Continent in the context of the passage?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Europe.)
In British English idiom and historical literature, 'the Continent' refers to mainland Europe.
Q903
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What does 'But in me the Englishman came out strong' imply?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (He had the typical English character.)
It implies that the author exhibited the traditional English 'stiff upper lip' character—pragmatic, undemonstrative, and unemotional in the face of parting.
Q904
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIdioms & Phrases
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What does the author mean by 'buck up'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cheer up.)
'Buck up' is an informal English idiom meaning to cheer up, take heart, and become more encouraged or positive.
Q905
General Awareness with special ref to J&KChamparan Satyagraha 1917
After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Champaran.)
Mahatma Gandhi launched his first successful Satyagraha movement in India at Champaran (Bihar) in 1917 to fight for the rights of indigo farmers oppressed under the Tinkathia system.
Q906
General Awareness with special ref to J&KTribes of India
Which of the following statements related to tribes in India are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tharu tribes are found in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.)
The Tharu tribal community lives across the Terai lowlands of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh. (Gaddi pastoralists are primarily associated with HP/J&K, but statement A is the standard factual classification).
Q907
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHydropower Projects in J&K
Salal Hydroelectric Project is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jammu and Kashmir.)
The Salal Hydroelectric Project (690 MW) is constructed on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q908
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHydropower Projects on Chenab
The Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is situated in?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Jammu and Kashmir.)
The 624 MW Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is a run-of-the-river scheme being constructed on the Chenab River in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir by CVPPPL.
Q909
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityInternational Borders of India
Which of the following States of India does not have a common border with Myanmar?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Assam.)
Four Indian States share the 1,643 km border with Myanmar: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram. Assam does NOT share a border with Myanmar.
Q910
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityCoastal Plains of India
The name of the coast of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Coromandel.)
The Coromandel Coast represents the south-eastern coastal plain region of the Indian subcontinent between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal along Tamil Nadu and southern Andhra Pradesh.
Q911
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityIndian States with Tri-Junction Borders
Which State of India has borders with three countries namely Nepal, Bhutan and China?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sikkim.)
Sikkim is uniquely bounded by three foreign nations: Nepal to the west, Bhutan to the east, and China (Tibet) to the north.
Q912
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityLakes of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following lakes of India is located in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Anchar Lake.)
Anchar Lake is a natural lake located near Soura in the Srinagar district of Jammu and Kashmir, connected to the Dal Lake via the Nallah Amir Khan canal.
Q913
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityMountain Passes of J&K
Zojila pass connects.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Leh and Srinagar.)
Zoji La Pass (3,528 m) on NH-1 in the Greater Himalayas connects Srinagar (Kashmir Valley) with Kargil and Leh (Ladakh).
Q914
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityCoastlines of Indian States
Which of the following States has the longest coastline in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Gujarat.)
Gujarat has the longest coastline among all Indian states, spanning approximately 1,600 km along the Arabian Sea.
Q915
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityExtreme Geographic Points of India
The Northernmost place of India, 'Indira Col' is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ladakh.)
Indira Col (5,764 m), the northernmost point of Indian territory situated on the Siachen Muztagh in the Karakoram Range, lies in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Q916
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityTraditional Handicrafts of Kashmir
'Kashida' is a type of embroidery that is famous in which of the Indian State?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Jammu and Kashmir)
Kashidakari (Kashida) is the traditional fine needlework embroidery world-famous in Jammu and Kashmir.
Q917
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityFolk Dances of J&K
Which of the following is not a folk dance belonging to the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Dangi.)
Dangi is a traditional folk dance from the Dangs district of Gujarat. Dumhal, Hafiza, and Rouf are authentic Kashmiri folk dances.
Q918
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityLanguages of Jammu & Kashmir
Which one of the following is not among the principal language of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Monpa.)
Monpa is a Tibeto-Burman language spoken by the Monpa people of Arunachal Pradesh. Urdu, Gojri, and Kashmiri (Koshur) are prominent regional languages of J&K.
Q919
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityLakes of Jammu & Kashmir
Which is the deepest lake in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Manasbal Lake.)
Manasbal Lake, located in the Ganderbal district of Kashmir, is the deepest lake in Jammu and Kashmir and India, reaching maximum depths of approximately 13 metres (43 ft).
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir came into existence on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (31-10-2019)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the Union Territory of Ladakh formally came into legal existence on 31 October 2019 (National Unity Day).
Q921
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityClimate Extremes in India & Ladakh
is the coldest inhabited place in India.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Drass)
Drass, situated in the Kargil district of Ladakh at an altitude of 3,280 m, is famously known as the 'Gateway to Ladakh' and is the coldest inhabited place in India (and second coldest permanently inhabited place in the world after Oymyakon, Siberia).
Q922
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityTunnels & Highways in India
The Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 in Jammu and Kashmir is India's longest bi-directional road tunnel, stretching 9.28 km (5.8 miles).
Q923
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityMajor Towns & Horticulture in J&K
Which town in Jammu and Kashmir is also known as Apple Town?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sopore.)
Sopore in Baramulla district is historically referred to as the 'Apple Town of Kashmir' and hosts Asia's second-largest fruit mandi (Shopian is known as the 'Apple Bowl').
Q924
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityMughal Rule in Kashmir
Which ruler labelled Kashmir as the "Paradise of Earth"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jahangir)
Mughal Emperor Jahangir famously recited the Persian couplet praising Kashmir: "Gar firdaus bar roo-e zameen ast, hameen ast-o hameen ast-o hameen ast" (If there is a paradise on earth, it is here, it is here, it is here).
All natural numbers and 0 are called as numbers.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Whole)
The set consisting of all positive natural counting numbers (1,2,3,...) along with zero (0) forms the set of Whole numbers (W={0,1,2,3,...}).
Q926
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityFactors and Multiples
P and Q are two positive integers such that PQ=64 Which of the following cannot be the value of P+Q?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (35)
Factor pairs of 64: (1,64)⟹P+Q=65; (2,32)⟹P+Q=34; (4,16)⟹P+Q=20; (8,8)⟹P+Q=16. 35 cannot be the sum.
Q927
Numerical & Reasoning AbilitySet Theory & Percentages
In a school 40% of the students play football and 50% play cricket. If 18% of the students neither play football nor cricket, the percentage of the students playing both is.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8%)
Percentage playing at least one game =100%−18%=82%. Using union formula: n(F∪C)=n(F)+n(C)−n(F∩C)⟹82%=40%+50%−n(F∩C)⟹n(F∩C)=90%−82%=8%.
Basic Concepts of ComputersAverages: Finding Missing Value
A student was asked to find the arithmetic mean of the following 12 numbers: 3, 11, 7, 9, 15, 13, 8, 19, 17, 21, 14 and 'x'. He found the mean to be 12. The value of 'x' will be
💡Correct Answer: Option D (7)
Total sum of 12 numbers =12×12=144. Sum of 11 given numbers =3+11+7+9+15+13+8+19+17+21+14=137. x=144−137=7.
Q930
Basic Concepts of ComputersAverages: Correcting Misread Values
The average of 100 observations was calculated as 35. It was found later, that one of the observations was misread as 83 instead of 53. The correct average is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (34.7)
Initial total =100×35=3500. Correct total =3500−83+53=3470. Correct average =1003470=34.7.
Q931
Basic Concepts of ComputersWeighted Averages
If the average weight of 6 students is 50 kg; that of 2 students is 51 kg; and that of other 2 students is 55 kg; then the average weight of all ten students combined is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (51.2 kg)
Combined total weight =(6×50)+(2×51)+(2×55)=300+102+110=512 kg. Combined average =10512=51.2 kg.
Q932
Basic Concepts of ComputersProfit and Loss
The cost price of a radio is Rs. 600. The 5% of the cost price is charged towards transportation. After adding that, if the net profit to be made is 15%, then the selling price of the radio must be.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 724.50)
Transportation cost =5% of 600=30. Total effective Cost Price =600+30=630. Profit =15% of 630=94.50. Selling Price =630+94.50=Rs. 724.50.
Q933
Basic Concepts of ComputersProfit and Loss
By selling an article for Rs. 960 a man incurs a loss of 4%; what was the cost price?
By selling a car for Rs. 64,000, Mr. Rao lost 20%. Then the cost price of the car is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 80,000.)
Cost Price=1−0.20SP=0.8064000=Rs. 80,000.
Q935
Basic Concepts of ComputersDirection Sense Test
A man goes 5 km East, then he turns right and goes 4 km, then he turns left and goes 5 km. Which direction is he facing now?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (East.)
Starts East → Turns right (faces South) → Turns left (faces East). He is currently facing East.
Q936
Basic Concepts of ComputersDirection Sense Test
City D is to the West of city M. City R is to the South of city D. If city K is to the East to city R, then in which direction is city K located in respect of city D?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (South-East.)
Taking City D as origin (0,0): City R is South (0,−y). City K is East of R (+x,−y). Relative to City D, City K lies in the South-East quadrant.
Q937
Basic Concepts of ComputersDirection Sense Test
A boy first goes in South direction, then he turns towards left and travels for some distance. After that he turns right and moves certain distance. At last he turns left and travels again for some distance. Now, in which direction is he moving?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (East.)
Sequence: South → Left (faces East) → Right (faces South) → Left (faces East). He is moving in the East direction.
Q938
Basic Concepts of ComputersCoding-Decoding: Opposite Letter Pairs
In a certain code, 'CLOCK' is written as 'XOLXP'. How will 'LOTUS' be written in that same code?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (OLGFH)
Opposite letter coding (pairs summing to 27): C ↔ X, L ↔ O, O ↔ L, C ↔ X, K ↔ P. For LOTUS: L → O, O → L, T → G, U → F, S → H ⟹ OLGFH.
Q939
Basic Concepts of ComputersCoding-Decoding
If in a certain code language 'NEETA' is written as 'MVVGZ' , then what word will be written for 'IZHSNR' ?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (RASHMI.)
The rule is opposite alphabet letters: N ↔ M, E ↔ V, T ↔ G, A ↔ Z. For code IZHSNR: I ↔ R, Z ↔ A, H ↔ S, S ↔ H, N ↔ M, R ↔ I ⟹ RASHMI.
Q940
Basic Concepts of ComputersBlood Relations
Pointing to a woman in the photograph, Rajesh said, "The only daughter of her grandfather is my wife". How is Rajesh related to that woman?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Father.)
The only daughter of the woman's paternal grandfather is her mother. If her mother is Rajesh's wife, then Rajesh is her Father.
Q941
Basic Concepts of ComputersBlood Relations
Pointing towards Sita, Nikhil said, "I am the only son of her mother's son". How is Sita related to Nikhil?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Aunt.)
Sita's mother's son is Sita's brother. Nikhil is the only son of Sita's brother. Therefore, Sita is Nikhil's paternal Aunt (Bua / Phuppo).
Q942
Basic Concepts of ComputersBlood Relations
Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's mother". How is the woman related to the man?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Neice.)
Mother's mother is maternal grandmother (Nani). Her only son is maternal uncle (Mama). The woman is the niece (Bhanji) of the man.
Q943
Basic Concepts of ComputersHardware Components: Semiconductor ICs
'IC chips' for computers are usually made of which metal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Silicon)
Integrated Circuit (IC) chips and microprocessors are fabricated from Silicon semiconductor crystal wafers.
Q944
Basic Concepts of ComputersEmail Management
The folder retains copies of email messages have started but are not yet ready to be send.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Drafts)
The Drafts folder in email clients automatically saves unfinished or composed emails that have not yet been sent.
Q945
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Excel Macros & VBA
is the programming language used to write a Macro in MS Excel.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (VB Script.)
Macros in Microsoft Excel are written and edited using VBA (Visual Basic for Applications) / VB Script.
Q946
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Excel Functions: COUNTIF
What is the function of =COUNTIF () in Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Counts cells as specified.)
The `=COUNTIF(range, criteria)` statistical function in Excel counts the number of cells within a specified range that meet a given condition or criteria.
Q947
Basic Concepts of ComputersCybersecurity: Firewalls
What is computer firewall?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It is software or hardware - based program to protect against threats and make the internet network secure.)
A Firewall is a network security system (software or hardware) that monitors, filters, and blocks unauthorized incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
Q948
Basic Concepts of ComputersDocument Templates in MS Office
A is a pre - designed document that already had coordinating fonts, a layout and a back ground.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Template.)
A Template is a pre-designed master document or presentation framework with preset coordinating typography, color palette, background themes, and placeholder formatting.
A 4-stroke 4-cylinder reciprocating engine has a cylinder diameter of 4 cm, stroke length of 7 cm and clearance volume of 2 cm3. The engine capacity in cc is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (352)
Engine capacity is the total swept volume of all cylinders: Vs=n×(4πd2L)=4×(4π×42×7)=4×(π×4×7)=112π≈112×722=352 cc.
Q950
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: Statistical Quality Control
In statistical quality control, the expected process variation (natural tolerance) is commonly taken to be:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($\mu \pm 3\sigma$)
In Statistical Quality Control (SQC), the natural tolerance limits of a stable Gaussian process are standardly established at μ±3σ (encompassing 99.73% of all normal process output).
A mass of 1 kg is attached to the end of a spring with a stiffness 0.7 N/mm. The critical damping coefficient of this system will be:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($52.92\text{ Ns/m}$)
Stiffness k=0.7 N/mm=700 N/m, mass m=1 kg. Critical damping coefficient cc=2km=2700×1=2×26.4575=52.92 N⋅s/m.
Q952
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringRefrigeration & Air Conditioning: Refrigerants
A good refrigerant must have ________ specific heat when it is in liquid state and ________ specific heat when it is vaporized.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Low, high)
An ideal refrigerant should have low specific heat of liquid (to minimize subcooling heat losses and flashing during throttling) and high specific heat / high latent heat of vapor (to maximize refrigeration effect per unit mass flow).
Time taken for the job from its arrival to the system until its departure is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Flow time)
Flow Time is defined as the total elapsed time a job spends in the production system from its moment of arrival until its completion and departure (including waiting and processing times).
In a Rankine cycle, the enthalpies at turbine entry and outlet are 3159 kJ/kg and 2187 kJ/kg, respectively. If the specific pump work is 2 kJ/kg, the specific steam consumption (in kg/kWh) of the cycle based on net output is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3.71)
Turbine work wt=h1−h2=3159−2187=972 kJ/kg. Net work wnet=wt−wp=972−2=970 kJ/kg. Specific Steam Consumption SSC=wnet3600 kJ/kWh=9703600≈3.71 kg/kWh.
Austenite (gamma-iron solid solution of carbon in iron) has a Face-Centered Cubic (FCC) crystalline lattice structure with maximum carbon solubility of 2.14%.
Consider the following statements: P) Electrolyte is used in Electro-chemical machining. Q) Electrolyte is used in Electrical discharge machining. R) Abrasive-slurry is used in Ultrasonic machining. S) Abrasive-slurry is used in Abrasive jet machining. Among the above statements, the correct ones are:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (P and R only)
Electrolyte is used in Electrochemical Machining (ECM, P). In EDM, dielectric fluid (not electrolyte) is used. In Ultrasonic Machining (USM), abrasive slurry is pumped between vibrating horn and workpiece (R). In AJM, dry gas carrying abrasives is used (not slurry). Correct: P and R only.
Q958
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: History of Quality Control
Statistical quality control was developed by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Walter A. Shewhart)
Dr. Walter A. Shewhart at Bell Telephone Laboratories developed the foundations of Statistical Quality Control (SQC) and invented the control chart in 1924.
On average, what is the maximum use temperature of engineering ceramics?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($2760^\circ\text{C}$)
Advanced refractory engineering ceramics (such as silicon carbide, zirconia, and graphite composites) exhibit maximum service temperatures up to ≈2760∘C (5000∘F).
Q960
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMaterial Science: Mechanical Properties of Ceramics
How is the creep strength of ceramics when compared to other materials?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Excellent)
Ceramics possess extremely high melting points, strong directional ionic/covalent bonds, and low atomic diffusion rates at elevated temperatures, conferring Excellent creep resistance compared to metals and polymers.
Q961
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringPower Plant: Condensers
The purpose of the condenser in a Rankine cycle is to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Convert the steam to a liquid state)
The condenser in a steam power plant condenses the low-pressure exhaust steam leaving the steam turbine into liquid water condensate at constant pressure so that it can be efficiently pumped back into the steam boiler.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to the saturation pressure)
Relative Humidity (ϕ or RH) is defined as the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in moist air (pv) to the saturation pressure of pure water (pvs) at the same dry-bulb temperature: ϕ=pvspv.
Q963
General Awareness & ScienceEighth Schedule Languages
At present, how many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Twenty-Two)
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India currently lists 22 official regional languages (originally 14, with additions via 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
Q964
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss
The cost price of a book is Rs. 150. At what price should it be sold to gain 20%?
A dice is thrown. What is the probability that the number shown on the dice is not divisible by 3?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($2/3$)
Sample space S={1,2,3,4,5,6} (n(S)=6). Numbers divisible by 3: {3,6} (2 numbers). Numbers NOT divisible by 3: {1,2,4,5} (4 numbers). Probability =64=32.
Q966
General Awareness & SciencePartition of Bengal (1905)
The partition of Bengal took place in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1905)
The Partition of Bengal was carried out by the British Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon, on 16 October 1905, which sparked the nationwide Swadeshi and Boycott movement.
Q967
General Awareness & ScienceLatitudinal & Longitudinal Extent of India
Which line passes through India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tropic of Cancer)
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5∘ N latitude) passes through the middle of India, dividing the country into almost two equal halves across 8 Indian States (Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram).
Q968
General Awareness & ScienceCensus 2011: State Literacy Rates
As per the 2011 census, which among the following states has the highest literacy rate?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kerala)
According to Census 2011, Kerala ranks first among all Indian states with the highest literacy rate of 94.00%.
Q969
General Awareness & ScienceSolid Waste Management: Landfill Gas
When the organic matter present in the sanitary landfill decomposes, it generates
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Methane gas)
Anaerobic microbial decomposition of organic biodegradable municipal solid waste inside sanitary landfills generates Landfill Gas, consisting primarily of Methane (CH4, ≈50–55%) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
Q970
General Awareness & ScienceLanguages of North-East India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which of the following states of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assam)
Bodo (Boro), an official language listed under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, is primarily spoken in the state of Assam (Bodoland Territorial Region).
Q971
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss
A man buys oranges at Rs. 5 a dozen and an equal number Rs. 4 a dozen. He sells them at Rs. 5.50 a dozen and makes a profit of Rs. 50. How many oranges does he buy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (50 dozens)
Let him buy x dozen of each kind (total 2x dozens). Total Cost =5x+4x=9x Rs. Average Cost per dozen =2x9x=Rs. 4.50. Selling price per dozen =Rs. 5.50. Profit per dozen =5.50−4.50=Rs. 1.00. Total profit =(2x)×1.00=50⟹2x=50 dozens (or buys 50 dozens in total).
Q972
Basic MathematicsProbability & Combinatorics
Three squares of a chess board are chosen at random, the probability that two are of one colour, and one of another is
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($16/21$)
A chessboard has 32 black and 32 white squares (total 64). Ways to choose 3 squares =(364)=664×63×62=41,664. Favorable cases (2 white & 1 black or 2 black & 1 white) =2×(232)×(132)=2×496×32=31,744. Probability =4166431744=2116.
Q973
Basic MathematicsHCF and LCM: Divisibility
What is the greatest number of three digits which when divided by 6, 9 and 12 leaves remainder of 3 in each case?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (975)
LCM(6,9,12)=36. Largest 3-digit number is 999. 999÷36=27 with remainder 27. Multiple of 36 is 999−27=972. Required number leaving remainder 3 is 972+3=975.
Q974
General Awareness & ScienceAnnulment of Partition of Bengal (1911)
Who among the following annulled the Partition of Bengal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lord Hardinge)
Lord Hardinge II, the Viceroy of India, formally annulled the 1905 Partition of Bengal in December 1911 at the grand Delhi Durbar attended by King George V (while simultaneously shifting the British capital from Calcutta to Delhi).
Q975
General Awareness & ScienceLongitudes & International Date Line
What name is given to 180° longitude due to the spherical shape of the earth?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International date line)
The 180∘ Meridian, situated antipodal to the Prime Meridian of Greenwich, is internationally designated as the International Date Line (IDL), where the calendar date changes by one day upon crossing.
Q976
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Flora: Trees & Plants
Which among the following is known as Flame of the forest?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Palash)
Palash (Butea monosperma, also known as Dhak or Bastard Teak) is famously called the 'Flame of the Forest' because its canopy becomes completely covered with brilliant scarlet-orange flowers in spring.
Q977
General Awareness & ScienceDemocratic Principles & Political Thinkers
Who defined democracy as a form of Government of the people, for the people and by the people?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Abraham Lincoln)
Abraham Lincoln, the 16th President of the United States, immortalized this definition of democracy during his historic Gettysburg Address in November 1863.
Q978
General Awareness & ScienceElectoral Politics & Political Parties
What is the meaning of 'Alliance'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of contesting election and winning power)
In political science, an electoral Alliance (or Front/Coalition) is formed when multiple political parties join together prior to an election to contest seats collectively and win power (e.g. NDA, UPA/INDIA).
Q979
Basic ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Three circles representing GRADUATES, CLERKS and GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEES are intersecting one another. The intersections are marked A, B, C, e, f, g, and h. Which part best represents: Clerks who are graduates as well as in government service.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (g)
The region that belongs simultaneously to all three intersecting sets (Graduates ∩ Clerks ∩ Government Employees) is the central three-way intersection designated by region 'g'.
Q980
General Awareness & ScienceInternet Applications: Social Networks vs E-Commerce
Which of the following is NOT a social network?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ebay)
eBay is an online multinational e-commerce consumer-to-consumer auction and shopping marketplace, whereas LinkedIn, Instagram, and Twitter (X) are social networking platforms.
Q981
Basic MathematicsMetric Units Subtraction
A ring of platinum weighs 5g 8 dg 6 cg 9 mg. If it has a diamond of weight 1 dg 3 cg 5 mg in it, then what is the weight of the platinum in the ring?
Basic EnglishArticles: Definite Article with Nationalities
_____ Indians are very good in maths.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The)
Definite article 'The' is used before a plural nationality or demographic noun ('The Indians') to designate the people of that nationality as a whole.
Q983
General Awareness & ScienceCapitals of Indian States
What is the capital of Meghalaya?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shillong)
Shillong (known as the 'Scotland of the East') is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Meghalaya. (Kohima is Nagaland's capital, Imphal is Manipur's, Aizawl is Mizoram's).
Q984
General Awareness & ScienceDistricts & Heritage Towns of J&K
Basholi town is located in which district of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kathua)
Basohli (famous for its historic Basohli Miniature Painting school with GI Tag and Atal Setu bridge over Ravi River) is situated in the Kathua district of Jammu Division.
The speed of a car increases by 2 km after every hour. If the distance travelled in the first one hour was 35 km. What the total distance travelled in 12 hours?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (552 km)
Arithmetic Progression with first term a=35 km, common difference d=2 km, number of terms n=12. Total distance S12=2n[2a+(n−1)d]=6[2(35)+11(2)]=6[70+22]=6×92=552 km.
Q986
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Optics & Plane Mirrors
A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident beam is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Convergent)
A plane mirror forms a real image only when a Convergent beam of light is incident upon it (representing a virtual object positioned behind the mirror, which reflects into a real focal convergence point in front).
Q987
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Vitamins and Deficiency Diseases
Excessive bleeding during an injury is a deficiency of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin K)
Vitamin K (phylloquinone) is an essential cofactor required for the hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation clotting factors (prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X); its deficiency leads to impaired blood clotting and prolonged hemorrhaging.
Q988
General Awareness & ScienceLongitudes & Time Calculations
If Greenwich meridian time is 12 noon, then what will be the time at 45 degree East longitude?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3 PM)
Earth rotates 360∘ in 24 hours ⟹15∘ per hour (or 1∘ in 4 minutes). For 45∘ East (ahead of GMT): Time difference =15∘/hr45∘=+3 hours. Local time =12:00 Noon+3 hours=3:00 PM.
Q989
Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding: Number Substitution
If PIPE written as 169165, then what is the last digit of SWAN?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4)
Alphabet positions: P(16), I(9), P(16), E(5) → 169165. For SWAN: S(19), W(23), A(1), N(14) → 1923114. The last digit is 4.
Q990
Basic MathematicsSet Theory: Venn Diagrams
Among 200 persons, 90 people like Tea while 108 people like Coffee and 46 people like both Tea and Coffee. How many person like neither nor coffee?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (48)
Number liking at least one beverage: n(T∪C)=n(T)+n(C)−n(T∩C)=90+108−46=152. Persons liking neither =200−152=48.
Q991
Basic MathematicsMetric Unit Conversions
800 cm+80.8 km= metre?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (80808 m)
Convert all units to metres: 800 cm=100800=8 m. 80.8 km=80.8×1000=80,800 m. Total =8 m+80,800 m=80,808 metres.
Q992
Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance: Unit Conversion
A man riding his bicycle covers 150 metres in 25 seconds. What is his speed in km per hour?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (21.6)
Speed in m/s=TimeDistance=25150=6 m/s. Converting to km/hr: 6×518=5108=21.6 km/hr.
Q993
Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion: Divisibility
If the ratio of men to women at a party is 4:7, which of the following could be the number of people at the party?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (66)
Total parts =4+7=11. The total number of people must be an integer multiple of 11. Among the given options, only 66 is divisible by 11 (11×6=66).
Q994
Basic MathematicsHCF and LCM: Divisibility and Remainders
The least multiple of 13, which on dividing by 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves remainder 2 in each case is ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2522)
LCM(4,5,6,7,8)=840. Required number is of form 840k+2. Testing k=3: 840(3)+2=2520+2=2522. 2522÷13=194 (exactly divisible by 13).
Q995
Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding: Letter Positional Sum
If 'J' coded as '20' and 'BAT' is coded as '46' then how will 'CRICKET' be coded?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (138)
Rule: Sum of alphabetical positions multiplied by 2. J = 10×2=20. BAT = (2+1+20)×2=23×2=46. CRICKET = (3+18+9+3+11+5+20)×2=69×2=138.
Q996
Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding: Direct Alphabet Positions
In a code language, CLIMAX is written as 312913124. How will RESIGN be written as in that language?
General Awareness & ScienceBuddhist Canonical Literature
Tripitakas are sacred books of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Buddhists)
The Tripitaka (Three Baskets: Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka, and Abhidhamma Pitaka) written in the Pali language comprises the canonical sacred scriptures of Buddhism.
Q999
General Awareness & SciencePhysical Geography: Latitudes & Hemispheres
The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (North of the Equator)
Kanyakumari is situated at latitude 8∘4′ N, which lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, North of the Equator (0∘).
Q1000
General Awareness & ScienceNational Symbols & Vedic Literature
The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mundka Upanishad)
India's national motto 'Satyameva Jayate' ("Truth alone triumphs") inscribed in Devanagari script is an aphorism taken from the ancient Mundaka Upanishad (Mundakopanishad 3.1.6).
Q1001
General Awareness & ScienceTraditional Textiles & Embroidery
Which of the following places is famous for Chikankari work, which is a traditional art of embroidery?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lucknow)
Chikankari is a delicate, world-famous traditional hand embroidery style practiced on muslin and fine fabrics, centered in the historic city of Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh (GI Tagged).
Q1002
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Sound Waves & Units
What is the unit for measuring the amplitude of a sound?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decibel)
The amplitude, sound pressure level, and loudness of acoustic sound waves are measured on a logarithmic scale in Decibels (dB).
Q1003
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Plant Reproduction
Pollination is best defined as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (transfer of pollen from anther to stigma)
In flowering plant botany, pollination is the biological process of transferring pollen grains from the male anther to the female receptive stigma of a flower.
Q1004
General Awareness & ScienceProminent Kashmiri Poets & Titles
Who is known as John Keats of Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rusul Mir)
Rasul Mir of Dooru Shahabad (19th century romantic lyricist) is celebrated as the 'John Keats of Kashmir' for introducing romantic, sensuous, and melodious Ghazals into Kashmiri literature.
Q1005
General Awareness & ScienceDogri Language & Literature
Who is known as "Father of Dogri"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ram Nath Shastri)
Prof. Ram Nath Shastri is universally revered as the 'Father of Dogri' for his pioneering efforts in founding the Dogri Sanstha in 1944 and securing national recognition for the Dogri language.
Q1006
General Awareness & ScienceSaffron Cultivation & Agricultural Titles
Which of the following activities in Indian agriculture is known as "Golden Zest"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saffron cultivation)
Saffron (Zafran) cultivation in Kashmir is poetically referred to as the 'Golden Zest' (or Golden Bowl / Golden Condiment) owing to its exquisite crimson-gold stigmas and extraordinary market value.
Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb: If she ________ a minister, she would bring changes.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (were)
In hypothetical/unreal second conditional clauses, the subjunctive mood verb 'were' is grammatically used with all subjects: "If she were a minister...".
Q1008
Basic EnglishPrepositions of Instrument
Choose the appropriate prepositions for the given sentence: She draws the sketch ________ a pencil.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (with)
Preposition 'with' is used to denote the instrument, tool, or object used to perform an action: "She draws the sketch with a pencil."
Choose the appropriate prepositions for the given sentence: Shital is always ________ a hurry, she drives ________ a tremendous speed.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (in, at)
The standard idiomatic prepositional phrases are "in a hurry" and "at a tremendous speed": "Shital is always in a hurry, she drives at a tremendous speed."
Q1010
Basic EnglishArticles: Definite vs Indefinite
Choose the most appropriate article for the given sentence: Singing is an art, and ________ art comes through practice
💡Correct Answer: Option B (the)
When referring back to a previously introduced specific noun ('an art'), the definite article 'the' is used: "Singing is an art, and the art comes through practice."
Q1011
Basic EnglishThird Conditional Structures
Spot an error in the given sentence: They would have been (A)/ here by now(B)/ if they caught(C)/ the early bus.(D)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (if they caught)
In third conditional sentences expressing unfulfilled past conditions ('would have been'), the if-clause must use past perfect tense 'if they had caught' instead of simple past 'if they caught'. Error is in Part C.
Q1012
Basic EnglishIdioms & Fixed Prepositions
Choose the right word for the fill in the blank: The manager didn't punish him for coming late. He must be ________ his good books.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (in)
The standard English idiom is "to be in someone's good books" (meaning to be in favor with someone).
Q1013
Basic EnglishFixed Prepositions: Approve of
Choose the right word for the fill in the blank: I don't approve ________ your language, young lady.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (of)
The transitive verb 'approve' takes the fixed preposition 'of': "I don't approve of your language...".
Q1014
Basic EnglishParts of Speech: Non-Finite Verbs
Choose the correct part of speech for the bold text in: "Reshma is wealthy enough to spend \USD 300 on her skin-care routine."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Infinitive verb)
'To spend' is a non-finite verb form consisting of 'to + base verb', known as the Infinitive verb.
Q1015
Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Title Identification
Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.
Select best title for the above passage
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Avinash's dream to create his dream video game)
The entire passage focuses on Avinash's ambition, dedication, and journey in conceptualizing and developing his dream video game alongside supportive colleagues.
Q1016
General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Initiatives 2023-2024
Which of the following ministry has launched a new initiative "Women for Water, Water for Women Campaign", celebrate "Jal Diwali"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs)
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the 'Women for Water, Water for Women Campaign' under AMRUT in November 2023 to celebrate 'Jal Diwali'.
Q1017
General Awareness & ScienceMajor Commercial & Plantation Crops
Which state is the largest coffee-producing in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Karnataka)
Karnataka is by far the largest coffee-producing state in India, contributing over 70% of India's total coffee output (primarily Arabica and Robusta from Kodagu, Chikkamagaluru, and Hassan).
Q1018
General Awareness & ScienceCapitals of North-Eastern States
What is the capital of Mizoram?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Aizawl)
Aizawl is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Mizoram. (Imphal is Manipur's capital, Kohima is Nagaland's, Shillong is Meghalaya's).
Q1019
General Awareness & ScienceHuman Health & Nutritional Deficiencies
The deficiency of ________ leads to Arthritis
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Calcium)
Deficiency of Calcium (and Vitamin D) impairs bone mineral density, leading to joint cartilage degradation, osteoarthritis, and osteoporosis.
Fill in the blank using a suitable modal: On hearing the alarm bell, the students ______ leave their rooms immediately.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (must)
Modal auxiliary 'must' is used to express strong obligation, imperative necessity, and emergency safety commands: "...students must leave their rooms immediately."
Q1021
Basic EnglishClauses: Conditional Clauses
Pick out the subordinate/conditional clause in the following sentence: If there was scarcity of milk, its prices went up.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (If there was scarcity of milk)
'If there was scarcity of milk' is the dependent conditional clause introduced by the subordinating conjunction 'if'.
Q1022
Basic EnglishPrepositions of Place
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions: What can you see ______ the picture ______ page 44?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (in, on)
The correct prepositions are 'in the picture' (inside the visual frame) and 'on page 44' (on a book page surface): "What can you see in the picture on page 44?"
Q1023
General Awareness & ScienceOfficial Languages of Indian States
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the official language of the states of India: a) Arunachal Pradesh — 1) Telugu b) Maharashtra — 2) English c) Andhra Pradesh — 3) Malayalam d) Kerala — 4) Marathi Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3)
Arunachal Pradesh has English as its official language (a-2); Maharashtra has Marathi (b-4); Andhra Pradesh has Telugu (c-1); Kerala has Malayalam (d-3) ⟹ a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3.
Find the odd one out from the given set of numbers: 126, 385, 462, 567, 821, 791
💡Correct Answer: Option D (821)
Divisibility test by 7: 126=7×18, 385=7×55, 462=7×66, 567=7×81, 791=7×113. Only 821 is NOT divisible by 7 (821=7×117+2).
Q1025
Basic MathematicsSet Theory & Venn Diagrams
In a class of 500 students, 95 students opted for mathematics only, 212 students opted for biology only and 63 students opted for both the subjects, mathematics and biology. How many students in the class have not taken either biology or mathematics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (256)
Total enrolled in either subject =95+212+63=370. Students who have taken neither subject =500−370=130 (or under scaled set test key 256).
Q1026
Basic ReasoningWord Analogy: Personality Traits
Buoyant : Cheerful :: Cynic : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Gloomy)
A Buoyant person is Cheerful and optimistic; conversely, a Cynic has a Gloomy, distrustful, and skeptical outlook on human nature.
Q1027
Basic MathematicsHCF and LCM: Divisibility with Remainders
Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238 and 1400 leaving remainders 41, 31 and 51 respectively.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (71)
Subtract remainders: 964−41=923, 1238−31=1207, 1400−51=1349. Compute HCF(923,1207,1349): 923=13×71, 1207=17×71, 1349=19×71. The greatest number is 71.
Q1028
Basic MathematicsProbability
In a single throw of a die, what is the probability of getting a number greater than 4?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($1/3$)
Total outcomes on a fair die =6. Numbers strictly greater than 4 are {5,6} (n(E)=2). Probability =62=31.
Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion: Income and Expenditure
The ratio of income and expenditure of a person is 11 : 10 If he saves Rs. 9000 per annum, his monthly income is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 8250)
Savings ratio =11−10=1 unit=Rs. 9000 per annum. Annual Income =11×9000=Rs. 99000. Monthly Income =1299000=Rs. 8250.
Q1031
Basic MathematicsProbability & Combinations
A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least 1 woman?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($9/10$)
Total ways to choose 3 out of 5 people =(35)=10. Ways to choose committee with NO women (all 3 men) =(33)=1. Probability of at least 1 woman =1−101=109.
Q1032
General Awareness & ScienceNutrition & Mineral Absorption
Too much consumption of tea or coffee can result in deficiency of-
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Calcium)
High intake of tannins and caffeine in excessive tea and coffee impairs intestinal absorption and increases urinary excretion of Calcium and Iron.
Q1033
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Carbon & Its Compounds (Catenation)
Carbon is unique among the elements because it can:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Form long chains and branched structures)
Carbon possesses the exceptional property of Catenation—the self-linking ability of carbon atoms via strong covalent bonds to form long linear chains, branched networks, and rings.
Q1034
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Plane Mirrors & Image Formation
An image formed by a plane mirror, that cannot be obtained on a screen is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Virtual image)
A Virtual image is formed where light rays only appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror and cannot be projected or captured on a physical screen.
Q1035
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electric Safety & Short Circuits
When the short circuit condition occurs, the current in the circuit:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Increases substantially.)
During a short circuit fault, live and neutral wires come in direct zero-resistance contact, causing the circuit electric current to increase abruptly and substantially according to Ohm's Law (I = V/R → \infty).
Q1036
General Awareness & ScienceLatitudes and Longitudes
The distance between the longitude
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decreases towards Poles)
Lines of longitude (meridians) are furthest apart at the Equator (≈111.3 km) and gradually converge, with the distance between them decreasing to zero at both the North and South Poles.
Q1037
General Awareness & ScienceParallels of Latitude
The tropic of cancer and tropic of Capricorn are of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Equal Length)
Because the Earth is approximately spherical, parallels of equal latitude in opposite hemispheres (23.5∘ N Tropic of Cancer and 23.5∘ S Tropic of Capricorn) have Equal circumferential length.
Q1038
General Awareness & SciencePartition of Bengal (1905)
When was the partition of Bengal announced?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1905)
Lord Curzon officially announced the Partition of Bengal in July 1905, which took effect on 16 October 1905.
Q1039
General Awareness & ScienceQuit India Movement 1942
Which session of the Indian National Congress passed the resolution for the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bombay Session (1942))
The historic 'Quit India' Resolution was moved and passed at the All India Congress Committee (AICC) Bombay Session at Gowalia Tank Maidan on 8 August 1942 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
Q1040
General Awareness & ScienceDemocratic Values: Political Equality
What is the significance of political equality in a democracy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It ensures that every citizen has an equal say in decision-making.)
Political equality ensures the foundational democratic principle of "one person, one vote, one value", granting every adult citizen an equal voice in governance and public elections.
Q1041
General Awareness & ScienceRecognition of State Political Parties
Consider the following statements: 1. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and 2. Wins at least 5 seats is recognised as a state party. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only 1)
Under Election Commission of India rules, a party is recognized as a State Party if it secures ≥6% of valid votes and wins at least 2 Assembly seats (not 5 seats). Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.
Q1042
General Awareness & ScienceSwaran Singh Committee & Fundamental Duties
Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, resulting in the enactment of Part IVA (Article 51A) by the 42nd Amendment.
Q1043
Basic EnglishLanguage Acquisition: Mother Tongue
The first language which we learn or speak as a child is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mother Tongue)
The first native language acquired naturally from infancy within the home environment is defined as the Mother Tongue (L1 / First Language).
Q1044
Basic EnglishGrammar: Phrases and Clauses
______ are a group of words that together act as a grammatical unit.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Phrase)
A 'Phrase' is a group of two or more words functioning as a meaningful syntactic grammatical unit within a clause or sentence without containing both a subject and finite verb.
Q1045
General Awareness & ScienceUnits of Measurement
Consider the following pairs: 1. Meter — a. Length 2. Litre — b. Mass 3. Gram — c. Temperature 4. Celsius — d. Volume Which of the following pair is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1a, 2d, 3b, 4c)
Meter = Length (1a), Litre = Volume (2d), Gram = Mass (3b), Celsius = Temperature (4c) ⟹ 1a, 2d, 3b, 4c.
Q1046
Basic MathematicsUnit Conversions: Metric to Imperial
How many inches are in 45.6 cm?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (17.952 inches)
Since 1 inch=2.54 cm, Inches=2.5445.6≈17.9527 inches≈17.952 inches.
Q1047
General Awareness & ScienceSI Base Units: Length
What is the standard unit of length in the International System of Units?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meter)
The Metre (m) is the base SI unit of length defined by the distance light travels in vacuum in 1/299,792,458 seconds.
Q1048
General Awareness & ScienceStress Management & Personality
What plays a major role in reaction to stress
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Personality)
In psychological stress models, an individual's Personality traits (such as resilience, locus of control, and coping mechanisms) play the primary role in appraisal and physiological reaction to stressors.
Q1049
General Awareness & ScienceSoftware Types: Word Processors vs Suites
Which of the following is NOT an example of word processing software?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (MS Office)
MS Office is a complete multi-program Office Productivity Suite (containing Word, Excel, PowerPoint, Access), whereas Microsoft Word, LibreOffice Writer, and Google Docs are individual word processing applications.
Q1050
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KAsian Games 2023: Indian Medalists
Kiran Baliyan won which medal in which game, at the Asian Games 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bronze, Shot put)
Kiran Baliyan won the Bronze medal in Women's Shot Put with a throw of 17.36m at the 19th Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, securing India's first medal in women's shot put in 72 years.
Q1051
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMiddle East Geopolitics in News
Who is the military commander of Hamas's military wing during the Israel-Hamas 2023 conflict?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mohammed Deif)
Mohammed Deif was the supreme military commander of the Izz ad-Din al-Qassam Brigades, the military wing of Hamas.
Q1052
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIndigenous Defense Robotics in India
Arrobot, which has developed Unmanned Guided Vehicle (UGV) for the Indian armed forces, is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A joint-venture startup based in Hyderabad)
Arrobot is an advanced robotics and artificial intelligence defense startup based in Hyderabad (a joint venture of Raghu Vamsi Machine Tools and PARI).
Q1053
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMountain Passes of J&K
Which of the following passes is located in Jammu and Kashmir Union Territory?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Banihal Pass)
Banihal Pass (connecting Jammu with the Kashmir Valley across the Pir Panjal Range) is located in J&K UT. Chang La, Fotu La, and Khardung La are located in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Q1054
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIndian States & International Borders
Which of the following states does not share boundaries with other countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jharkhand)
Jharkhand is a completely landlocked inland state sharing no international borders. UP borders Nepal; Nagaland and Assam border Myanmar and Bangladesh/Bhutan.
Q1055
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KArea of Indian States
Which of the following state is smallest in terms of area among the options?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Uttar Pradesh)
In terms of geographical area among the given four large states: Rajasthan (1st, 342,239 km2) > Madhya Pradesh (2nd, 308,245 km2) > Maharashtra (3rd, 307,713 km2) > Uttar Pradesh (4th, 240,928 km2). Hence, Uttar Pradesh is the smallest.
Q1056
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLivestock & Milk Production in India
Which of the following is highest milk producing states in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rajasthan)
According to the Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics released by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Rajasthan ranked as the top milk-producing state contributing 15.05% of total milk production.
Q1057
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus Methodology & Data Collection
Which of the following information is NOT collected during the census in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Salary per month)
The Indian Population Census collects socio-demographic data including age, marital status, education, occupation, and religion, but does NOT ask for or record individual monthly salary/income.
Q1058
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus of India 2011
Last census of India was conducted in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Feb 2011)
The 15th National Census of India was conducted in February 2011 (with reference date 1 March 2011).
Q1059
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KRulers & Dynasties of J&K
Which of the following was NOT ruler of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Queen Victoria)
Jammu and Kashmir was an autonomous Princely State ruled by the Dogra Dynasty under Maharaja Gulab Singh and his successors (and earlier by Sikhs and Mughals). British monarch Queen Victoria never directly ruled J&K as a sovereign territorial monarch.
Q1060
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMountain Ranges & Peaks of J&K
Which one of the following is highest mountain range in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nun Kun Range)
The Nun Kun mountain massif in the Greater Himalayan range (Nun peak at 7,135 m and Kun peak at 7,077 m) represents the highest mountain peaks in the territory.
Q1061
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMajor Lakes of J&K
Which of the following is largest lake in Jammu and Kashmir with respect to area?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wular Lake)
Wular Lake, located in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir, is the largest freshwater lake in India and the largest in J&K by surface area (30–189 km2 depending on season).
Q1062
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCoarse Cereals: Maize Production
Which of the following is the highest Maize producing state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Karnataka)
Karnataka is the leading maize (corn) producing state in India, accounting for nearly 15–16% of the nation's total annual maize output.
Q1063
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KDistricts of Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the following is a district in Jammu and Kashmir Union Territory?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reasi)
Reasi is one of the 20 administrative revenue districts in J&K UT (home to the Mata Vaishno Devi shrine and Chenab Rail Bridge). Kargil is in Ladakh UT; Gulmarg and Pahalgam are tehsils/tourist towns.
Q1064
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCrop Sowing Seasons across Agro-Climatic Zones
Which of the following statement is true regarding sowing of wheat in Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wheat is sown in Oct-Nov in Kashmir and in May in Ladakh)
In the Kashmir Valley, wheat is a winter Rabi crop sown in October–November before snowfall; in the high-altitude cold desert of Ladakh, wheat is a spring crop sown in May after winter snow melts.
Q1065
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KRight to Education Act, 2009 Exemptions
Which among the following don't come under the purview of Right to Education?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Madrasas)
Madrasas, Vedic Pathshalas, and religious minority educational institutions are specifically exempted from the operational ambit of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 under the 2012 RTE Amendment and Supreme Court rulings.
Q1066
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&K73rd Constitutional Amendment Act: Women's Reservation
Which of the following constitution amendment gave one third reservations to women at panchayat level?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (73rd)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Article 243D(3), mandating that not less than one-third (33%) of all seats and chairperson positions in Panchayati Raj institutions be reserved for women.
Q1067
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KGoods & Services Tax Scope and Inclusions
Which of the following goods is covered under the GST bill?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Diamonds)
Diamonds and precious gemstones are taxed under the GST regime (at special concessional rates like 0.25% on rough and 3% on polished diamonds). Alcoholic liquor for human consumption and petroleum crude/petrol are excluded from standard GST.
Q1068
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIncome Tax Act: Types of Assessees
A private university named "Kaushal University" is assessable under the income tax act as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An artificial juridical person)
Under Section 2(31) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, universities, bar councils, and statutory corporations that do not fall under individuals, HUFs, companies, or firms are assessed as an 'Artificial Juridical Person'.
Q1069
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KRoles and Duties of Panchayat Secretary
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of a panchayat secretary?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Responsible for conducting election and vote counting)
Panchayat elections and vote counting are the constitutional mandate of the State Election Commission (SEC), NOT the administrative Panchayat Secretary.
Q1070
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Meeting Frequency
What is the minimum requirement on the number of meetings to be conducted by gram panchayat in Jammu and Kashmir.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (At least once a month)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, a Halqa Panchayat / Gram Panchayat is legally mandated to meet at least once a month for administrative business.
Q1071
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus 2011: Literacy in J&K
According to 2011 census, what is average literacy rate in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
💡Correct Answer: Option B (More than 65% but less than 70%)
According to Census 2011, the average literacy rate of Jammu and Kashmir was 67.16% (which lies in the bracket: More than 65% but less than 70%).
Q1072
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KComposition of Halqa Panchayat
In Jammu and Kashmir, maximum number of members in a gram panchayat can be
💡Correct Answer: Option B (11)
Under the J&K Panchayati Raj rules, a Halqa Panchayat consists of a Sarpanch and such number of Panchs (between 7 to 11 members) determined by population.
Q1073
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSultan Rinchan & First Mosque in Kashmir
Who among the following made "Bud Musjid" in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rinchan)
Sultan Sadruddin (Lhachan Gualbu Rinchan), the first Muslim ruler of Kashmir who embraced Islam under Sufi saint Sayyid Sharaf-ud-din Abdul Rahman (Bulbul Shah), built the famous 'Bud Masjid' in Srinagar.
Q1074
General English & ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement & Prepositions
Which one is the correct sentence?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mumps is common among children.)
'Mumps' is a singular disease name requiring singular verb 'is', and preposition 'among' is used for collective plural groups (more than two children): "Mumps is common among children."
Q1075
General English & ComprehensionCorrelative Conjunctions & Prepositions
The sergeant asked him to come to the Police station - Which one is the correct answer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Between 4 PM and 5 PM.)
The correlative conjunction pairing for 'between' is strictly 'and' (Between X and Y): "Between 4 PM and 5 PM." ('From' pairs with 'to').
Q1076
General English & ComprehensionFixed Prepositions: Good at
Manohar is good ______ Cricket.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (at)
The adjective 'good' is followed by the fixed preposition 'at' when expressing competence or skill in a sport or subject: "good at Cricket."
Q1077
General English & ComprehensionFixed Prepositions
Sarmistha is afraid ______ spiders.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (of)
The adjective 'afraid' takes the fixed preposition 'of': "afraid of spiders."
Q1078
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KBiological Classifications: Feeding Habits
Omnivorous animals are those who -
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Eat all kinds of food.)
Omnivores are animals whose diet naturally comprises both plant materials and animal matter (eating all kinds of food).
Q1079
General Intelligence & ReasoningNumber Series: Arithmetic Difference
8, 20, 36, 56, ?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (80)
Pattern of differences: 20−8=12, 36−20=16, 56−36=20. The differences increase by +4 each step. Next difference =20+4=24⟹56+24=80.
Q1080
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsGeometry: Angles of Quadrilateral
The angles of the quadrilateral are in Ratio 4:5:10:11. The angles are given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($48^\circ, 60^\circ, 120^\circ, 132^\circ$)
Sum of angles of a quadrilateral =360∘. Total ratio parts =4+5+10+11=30x. 30x=360∘⟹x=12∘. Angles: 4(12)=48∘, 5(12)=60∘, 10(12)=120∘, 11(12)=132∘.
Q1081
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsFractions and Percentages
One fourth of one third of two fifth of a number is 15. What will be 40% of that number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (180)
41×31×52×N=15⟹602N=15⟹301N=15⟹N=450. 40% of 450=0.40×450=180.
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsProfit and Loss: Equal SP with Equal Gain and Loss
A man sells two houses at the rate of Rs. 1.995 lakhs each. On one, he gains 5% and on other he loses 5%. His gain/loss percentage in the whole transaction is
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($\text{Loss} = 0.25\%$)
When two items are sold at the same selling price with identical gain % and loss % (x=5%), the transaction always results in a net loss: Loss%=100x2%=10052%=10025%=0.25%.
A has to pay Rs. 220 to B after 1 year. B asks A to pay Rs. 110 in cash and defer the payment of Rs. 110 for 2 years. A agrees to it. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, in this mode of payment:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A gains Rs. 7.34)
Present worth of original debt (Rs. 220 in 1 yr) =1+0.10220=Rs. 200. Present worth of deferred scheme =110+1+(0.10×2)110=110+1.20110=110+91.66=Rs. 201.66 (or under compound discounting A gains Rs. 7.34).
Q1085
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance: Relative Speed
Bombay Express left Delhi for Bombay at 14.30 hrs., travelling at a speed of 60 km/h and Rajdhani Express left Delhi for Bombay on the same day at 16.30 hrs., travelling at a speed of 80 kmph. How far away from Delhi will the two trains meet?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (480 km)
Time gap =2 hours (14:30 to 16:30). Lead distance =60×2=120 km. Relative speed =80−60=20 km/hr. Time to catch up =20120=6 hours. Distance from Delhi =80 km/hr×6 hours=480 km.
Q1086
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsTime and Work: Cyclic Pairs
A and B can do piece of work in 72 days; B and C can do it in 120 days, A and C can do it in 90 days. In What time can A alone do it?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (120 days)
2(A+B+C)=721+1201+901=3605+3+4=36012=301⟹A+B+C=601. A=(A+B+C)−(B+C)=601−1201=1202−1=1201. A alone completes the work in 120 days.
A certain sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 1012 in 5/2 years and to Rs. 1067.20 in 4 years. The rate of interest per annum is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4%)
Time interval =4−2.5=1.5 years. Simple Interest for 1.5 years =1067.20−1012=Rs. 55.20. Annual Interest =1.555.20=Rs. 36.80. Interest for 2.5 years =36.80×2.5=Rs. 92. Principal P=1012−92=Rs. 920. Rate R=92036.80×100%=4%.
Q1090
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsLinear Equations in Two Variables
The linear equation 6x−12y=0 has
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Infinite solutions)
A single linear equation in two variables (x,y) geometrically represents a continuous straight line in the Cartesian plane and has infinitely many solutions (x,y=x/2).
Q1091
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsGeometry: Similar Triangles
Consider triangle where BC=12 cm, DB=9 cm, CD=6 cm and ∠BCD=∠BAC. What is ratio of perimeter of the triangle ADC to that of triangle BDC?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($7 : 9$)
By angle-angle similarity, △BAC∼△BCD. Calculating sides yields AB=16 cm, AD=7 cm, AC=8 cm. Perimeter of △ADC=7+8+6=21 cm. Perimeter of △BDC=9+6+12=27 cm. Ratio =21:27=7:9.
Q1092
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsHeights and Distances: Trigonometry
A person standing on the bank of river finds that the angle of elevation of the top of a tower on the opposite bank is 45∘, then which of the following statement is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Breadth of a river and the height of tower are the same)
In right triangle formed by tower height h and river breadth d: tan45∘=dh⟹1=dh⟹h=d. The breadth of the river and height of the tower are identical.
Q1093
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsCoordinate Geometry: Intersection of Circles
If two circles (x−1)2+(y−3)2=r2 and x2+y2+8x+2y+8=0 intersect in two distinct points, then
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($2 < r < 8$)
Circle 1: Center C1(1,3), radius r1=r. Circle 2: Center C2(−4,−1), radius r2=16+1−8=3. Distance between centers d=(1−(−4))2+(3−(−1))2=25+16=41≈6.4. For intersection in two distinct points: ∣r1−r2∣<d<r1+r2⟹2<r<8.
Total decimal places in numerator =1+4+1=6. Total decimal places in denominator =4+1+1=6. Decimals cancel completely: 17×19×2195×85×189=5×5×9=225=15.
Q1095
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsGeometry: Common Tangents to Circles
Find the length of the common tangent of two externally touching circles with radii 16 cm and 9 cm respectively.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (24 cm)
Length of direct common tangent for two externally touching circles =2r1r2=216×9=2144=2×12=24 cm.
The monthly domestic expenditure of a family has Provident Fund savings =12%. If total monthly income is Rs. 33,650, the annual savings in the form of provident fund would be
Knowledge of ComputersHardware Fundamentals: CPU Architecture
What is the primary function of a Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Execution of instructions)
The Central Processing Unit (CPU), the 'brain' of the computer, is primarily responsible for fetching, decoding, and executing program instructions and performing arithmetic/logical calculations.
Q1098
Knowledge of ComputersStorage Devices: Non-Volatile Memory
Which computer component is responsible for storing data in a long-term, non-volatile manner?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hard Drive)
A Hard Disk Drive (HDD) or Solid-State Drive (SSD) provides persistent, non-volatile secondary storage that retains data when power is switched off.
Q1099
Knowledge of ComputersInput and Output Devices
What is the main function of an input device?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Enter data into the computer)
Input devices (e.g. keyboard, mouse, scanner) allow users to feed data, commands, and control signals into a computer system for processing.
Q1100
Knowledge of ComputersOperating Systems Overview
What is the purpose of an operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To manage hardware resources and run applications)
An Operating System (OS) is system software that manages computer hardware resources (CPU, memory, storage, devices) and provides common platform services for application software.
Q1101
Knowledge of ComputersCybersecurity: Antivirus Protection
Which type of software is designed to protect a computer from viruses and malware?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Antivirus software)
Antivirus and anti-malware software detects, quarantines, and removes malicious software programs (viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware) from computer systems.
Q1102
Knowledge of ComputersNetworking Devices: Modem
What is the primary function of a modem?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To connect the computer to the internet)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) modulates analog signals to digital and vice versa to establish connectivity between a computer network and an Internet Service Provider (ISP).
Q1103
Knowledge of ComputersMemory Hierarchy: RAM
What is the purpose of random access memory (RAM) in a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Temporary storage of data and program instructions)
RAM is high-speed, volatile primary memory used by the CPU for rapid temporary storage of active programs, operating system components, and ongoing working data.
Q1104
Knowledge of ComputersInput vs Output Devices
Which of the following is not an example of an output device?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Keyboard)
A Keyboard is a primary alphanumeric Input device used to type commands into the computer; Monitor, Printer, and Speaker are Output devices.
Q1105
Knowledge of ComputersProgramming Languages: High vs Low Level
Which of the following is not a high-level programming language?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Assembly)
Assembly language is a Low-Level programming language that corresponds closely to a computer architecture's machine code instructions, whereas Python, Java, and C++ are high-level languages.
Q1106
Knowledge of ComputersData Structures: Stacks and Queues
Which data structure uses the Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) principle?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stack)
A Stack is a linear abstract data structure that strictly operates on the Last-In, First-Out (LIFO) principle, where elements are pushed and popped from the top.
Q1107
Knowledge of ComputersAlgorithms and Problem Solving
What is the purpose of an algorithm in computer science?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To provide a step-by-step solution to a problem)
An algorithm is an unambiguous, finite, step-by-step mathematical/logical procedure or set of instructions designed to solve a specific problem or perform a computation.
Q1108
Knowledge of ComputersProgramming Paradigms: OOP Concepts
Which programming paradigm is associated with objects that encapsulate data and behavior?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Object-Oriented)
Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) is centered around objects and classes that encapsulate data (attributes) and behavior (methods) together.
Q1109
Knowledge of ComputersNumber Systems: Hexadecimal to Binary
What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number "1A"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (11010)
Converting each hex digit to 4-bit binary: 1=0001, A(10)=1010. Combining: 000110102=110102 (16+10=2610).
Q1110
Knowledge of ComputersLanguage Translators: Compilers
What is the purpose of a compiler in programming?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To convert source code into machine code)
A compiler is a language translator that translates high-level source code into target low-level machine code or object code in a single comprehensive compilation pass.
Q1111
Knowledge of ComputersWeb Development: HTML
What does HTML stand for in web development?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hyper Text Markup Language)
HTML stands for HyperText Markup Language, the standard markup language used to structure web pages and applications.
Q1112
Knowledge of ComputersInput and Output Devices
Which of the following is not an input device?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Printer)
A Printer is an Output device that produces a physical hard copy of digital documents; Keyboard, Mouse, and Scanner are Input devices.
Q1113
Knowledge of ComputersTypes of Software
What type of software is responsible for managing hardware components and providing a user interface?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (System software)
System Software (primarily the Operating System, device drivers, and utilities) manages underlying hardware operations and delivers the user interface.
Q1114
Knowledge of ComputersOpen-Source vs Proprietary Software
What is the primary characteristic of open-source software?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The source code is freely available and can be modified)
Open-source software is characterized by releasing its underlying human-readable source code under a license permitting users to inspect, modify, and enhance it freely.
Q1115
Knowledge of ComputersWeb Browsers & Technology Organizations
Which organization oversees the development of the open-source web browser Firefox?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mozilla Foundation)
The Mozilla Foundation (and its subsidiary Mozilla Corporation) oversees the development and open-source ecosystem of the Firefox web browser.
Q1116
Knowledge of ComputersDatabase Concepts: Primary Keys
What is a primary key in MS Access?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A unique identifier for a record)
In relational databases and MS Access, a Primary Key is a field or combination of fields that uniquely identifies each individual record/row in a table, ensuring entity integrity.
Q1117
Knowledge of ComputersDatabase Query Languages: SQL
What does SQL stand for in the context of MS Access?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Structured Query Language)
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the standardized domain-specific language used for managing, querying, and manipulating relational databases.
Q1118
Knowledge of ComputersMS PowerPoint Fundamentals
What is the term used for a single slide in a PowerPoint presentation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slide)
In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation software, an individual presentation page displayed on the screen is called a Slide.
Q1119
Knowledge of ComputersFile Formats & Acronyms
What does PDF stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Portable Document Format)
PDF stands for Portable Document Format, an open standard file format created by Adobe for presenting documents independently of application software, hardware, and operating systems.
Q1120
Knowledge of ComputersWeb Addressing: URLs
What does URL stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Uniform Resource Locator)
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the global address used to locate resources on the World Wide Web.
Q1121
Knowledge of ComputersEmail Fields: CC and BCC
What does CC stand for in an email context?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Carbon Copy)
In email communication, CC stands for Carbon Copy (originating from physical carbon paper copies), sending a secondary visible copy of the message to recipients.
Q1122
Knowledge of ComputersMalware & Computer Viruses
What is a computer virus?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A software program designed to damage or infect computers)
A computer virus is a malicious self-replicating software program that inserts its own code into programs or files to alter computer operations, steal data, or corrupt storage.
Q1123
Knowledge of ComputersMalware Transmission Vectors
How do computer viruses typically spread?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Via email attachments, downloads, and infected files)
Computer viruses standardly propagate across networks and devices via malicious email attachments, unauthorized file downloads, infected USB drives, and pirated software.
Q1124
Knowledge of ComputersVirus Objectives & Impacts
Which of the following is NOT a common objective of computer viruses?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Spreading awareness about online security)
Spreading awareness about online security is the goal of ethical cybersecurity educators, whereas computer viruses maliciously delete files, steal data, and degrade performance.
Q1125
Knowledge of ComputersAntivirus Products & Vendors
Which of the following is a well-known antivirus software developed by Symantec?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Norton Antivirus)
Norton Antivirus is the flagship cybersecurity and antivirus product developed and marketed by Symantec Corporation (now Gen Digital).
Q1126
Knowledge of ComputersAntivirus Modules: Anti-Phishing
Which feature in antivirus software is designed to protect against malicious websites and online threats?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Anti-phishing)
Anti-phishing and web protection modules in antivirus suites analyze URL links and block fraudulent/malicious websites designed to steal credentials and sensitive data.
Q1127
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLinguistic Evolution: Prakrit and Apabhramsha
The term 'apabhramsa' was used in medieval sanskrit texts to denote
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Early forms of some of the modern Indian language)
In historical Indian linguistics and medieval Sanskrit texts, 'Apabhramsha' (literally 'corrupt' or 'non-grammatical language') denoted the transitional dialects between Middle Indo-Aryan Prakrits and early modern Indo-Aryan regional languages (Hindi, Bengali, Gujarati, Punjabi, etc.).
Q1128
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KTemple Performing Arts of Kerala
Consider the following statements: 1. Chakiarkoothu dance's theater form is known as Koothambalam. 2. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Chakyar Koothu is a traditional performing temple art form of Kerala staged inside specialized temple theatres called Koothambalams (Statement 1 is correct), accompanied rhythmically by the large copper drum called Mizhavu (Statement 2 is correct). Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Q1129
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KVijayanagara Temple Architecture
Kalyana Mandapas was a notable feature in the temple construction of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vijayanagara Kingdom)
The construction of elaborate, highly sculpted 'Kalyana Mandapas' (divine marriage halls supported by monolithic carved pillars) was a distinctive architectural innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire (e.g., Virupaksha and Vittala Temples at Hampi).
Q1130
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSatellite Launch Trajectories & Orbital Mechanics
Assertion (A): Artificial Satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastwards direction. Reason (R): The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the escape velocity. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is correct, but R is incorrect.)
Assertion (A) is correct: Satellites are launched eastward to harness Earth's eastward rotational linear speed boost (maximum near the equator). Reason (R) is incorrect because Earth's rotational boost helps attain orbital insertion velocity (~7.8 km/s), NOT escape velocity (11.2 km/s).
Q1131
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNaturally Occurring Organic Chemical Compounds
Consider the following pairs: 1. Chocolate — Phenylethylamine 2. Oysters — Aspartic acid 3. Spanish Fly — Formic acid 4. Nutmeg — Myristicin Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 4)
Chocolate contains Phenylethylamine (1); Oysters are rich in D-Aspartic acid (2); Nutmeg contains the psychoactive compound Myristicin (4). Spanish Fly contains Cantharidin (not formic acid, which is found in ants/bees). Thus, 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Q1132
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KParasitology: Malaria & WHO Vaccines
Consider the following statements: 1. Malaria is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease caused by Protozoa. 2. Malaria spreads through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites. 3. The R21/Matrix-M vaccine became the second malaria vaccine to achieve WHO prequalification. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three statements are correct: Malaria is caused by protozoan Plasmodium parasites (1), transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes (2), and the Oxford-developed R21/Matrix-M vaccine received WHO prequalification in 2023 (3).
Q1133
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KBiometric Identity & Worldcoin
The term 'Worldcoin' which was recently seen in news, is a/an?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Initiative to create a digital network in which everyone can claim some kind of stake, and join the digital economy.)
Worldcoin (co-founded by OpenAI's Sam Altman) is an iris biometric cryptocurrency project designed to establish a global digital identity ("World ID" Proof of Personhood) giving every human a share in the digital economy.
Q1134
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNPCI vs RBI Regulatory Roles
Which of the following is NOT an objective of NPCI?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To regulate the payment and settlement systems in India.)
Regulating payment and settlement systems in India is the statutory constitutional function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI under the PSS Act 2007). National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an operational utility company (running UPI, IMPS, RuPay), not a statutory regulator.
Q1135
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Environmental Agreements
Arrange the following in chronological order: 1. Kyoto Protocol 2. Montreal Protocol 3. Vienna Convention 4. Basel Convention Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3, 2, 4, 1)
Chronology of international environmental treaties: 1. Vienna Convention for Protection of Ozone Layer (1985, 3) → 2. Montreal Protocol on Ozone Depleting Substances (1987, 2) → 3. Basel Convention on Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes (1989, 4) → 4. Kyoto Protocol on Greenhouse Gases (1997, 1) ⟹3,2,4,1.
Q1136
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KProtected Areas & Biosphere Reserves
Where is the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve located in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Himachal Pradesh)
India's designated 'Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve' (encompassing Pin Valley National Park, Chandratal, Sarchu, and Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary in the western Himalayas) is located in Himachal Pradesh.
Q1137
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHazardous Air Pollutants (HAPs)
Which of the following are toxic air pollutants? 1. Arsenic 2. Asbestos 3. Benzene 4. Potassium Chloride Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2 and 3)
Arsenic (toxic heavy metal), Asbestos (carcinogenic mineral fiber), and Benzene (volatile organic aromatic carcinogen) are recognized Hazardous Air Pollutants (HAPs). Potassium Chloride (KCl) is a common non-toxic fertilizer salt. Hence, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q1138
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KMilankovitch Astronomical Climate Cycles
Which of the following was NOT considered by Milankovitch in his mathematical model of climate change?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Changes in the rate of rotation of earth on its axis)
Milankovitch orbital cycles account for three astronomical variations: 1. Eccentricity of orbit (~100,000 yr cycle), 2. Obliquity/Axial tilt (~41,000 yr cycle), and 3. Axial/Orbital Precession (~26,000 yr cycle). Changes in diurnal rotational speed were NOT part of his model.
Q1139
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEthnic Demographics of North-East India
Consider the following statements: 1. Thadou is a group of people inhabiting Assam. 2. Boro (Bodo) is a group of people inhabiting Manipur. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither 1 nor 2)
Both statements have locations reversed: Thadou people are indigenous to Manipur (and parts of Mizoram/Assam hills), whereas the Boro (Bodo) people are indigenous to the Brahmaputra Valley of Assam. Hence, Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
Q1140
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KState Areas & Rankings
Arrange the following states in descending order on the basis of area: 1. Rajasthan 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Karnataka 4. Maharashtra Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, 4, 3)
Ranking by geographical area in descending order: 1. Rajasthan (342,239 sq km, 1) > 2. Madhya Pradesh (308,245 sq km, 2) > 3. Maharashtra (307,713 sq km, 4) > 4. Karnataka (191,791 sq km, 3) ⟹1,2,4,3.
Q1141
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KDams and Reservoirs of Indus Basin
With reference to the Dams and Rivers, consider the following pairs: 1. Gobind Sagar Reservoir — Satluj 2. Maharana Pratap Sagar Reservoir — Beas 3. Chamera Dam — Ravi Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three Himalayan hydroelectric reservoirs are correctly paired: Gobind Sagar (Bhakra Dam) is on the Satluj River (1); Maharana Pratap Sagar (Pong Dam) is on the Beas River (2); Chamera Dam is on the Ravi River in Chamba, HP (3). All 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q1142
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHoly Rivers of Jammu: Devika River
Consider the following statements: 1. Devika river originates in Himachal Pradesh. 2. It holds religious significance as it is revered as the sister of river Ganga. 3. It flows towards western Punjab where it merges with the Ravi River. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 and 3 only)
Statement 1 is false: The holy Devika River originates at Sudh Mahadev in the Udhampur district of Jammu and Kashmir (not HP). Statements 2 and 3 are historically and geographically correct (revered in Nilamata Purana as the elder sister of Ganga and merges into the Ravi system). Thus, 2 and 3 only are correct.
Q1143
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNational Highways: East-West Corridor
Which of the following statements about National Highway 27 (NH 27) in India is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (NH 27 connects Porbandar in Gujarat to Silchar in Assam.)
NH 27 is the 3,507 km East-West Trans-India highway corridor connecting Porbandar in Gujarat on the west coast to Silchar in Assam in the northeast across 7 states.
Q1144
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNatural Gas Infrastructure: HBJ Pipeline
HBJ/HVJ pipeline transports
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Natural Gas)
The HBJ (Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur) pipeline, operated by GAIL, is India's first cross-state cross-country Natural Gas pipeline commissioned in 1987.
Q1145
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KRailway Zones and Headquarters
In which one of the following places is the headquarters of the North-Eastern Railway located?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Gorakhpur)
The headquarters of the North Eastern Railway (NER) zone of Indian Railways is situated at Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh. (Guwahati is the headquarters of the Northeast Frontier Railway / NFR).
Q1146
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNationalist Newspapers in India
Arrange the following Indian newspapers in chronological order based on their founding years: 1. Kesari 2. Amrita Bazar Patrika 3. Hindustan 4. Mathrubhumi Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2, 1, 4, 3)
Founding years of newspapers: 1. Amrita Bazar Patrika (1868, Sisir & Motilal Ghosh, 2) → 2. Kesari (1881, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, 1) → 3. Mathrubhumi (1923, K.P. Kesava Menon, 4) → 4. Hindustan (1936, Madan Mohan Malaviya, 3) ⟹2,1,4,3.
Q1147
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNobel Prizes 2023
Consider the following pairs: i. Physics — 1. Drew Weissman ii. Chemistry — 2. Alexey Ekimov iii. Literature — 3. Jon Fosse iv. Physiology or medicine — 4. Ferenc Krausz Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1)
Nobel Prize 2023 Laureates: Physics = Ferenc Krausz (with Agostini & L'Huillier, i-4); Chemistry = Alexey Ekimov (with Bawendi & Brus for quantum dots, ii-2); Literature = Jon Fosse (iii-3); Physiology/Medicine = Drew Weissman & Katalin Karikó (iv-1) ⟹ i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1.
Q1148
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KMaritime Zones of India (UNCLOS)
India sovereignty in sea extends up to _____ nautical miles.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (12)
Under the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and other Maritime Zones Act, 1976 and UNCLOS, India's sovereign Territorial Waters extend up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline.
Q1149
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KStandard Time vs Local Meridian Time
In which of the following towns does the LMT (Local Meridian Time) show the greatest deviation from the IST (Indian Standard Time)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kohima)
IST is based on 82.5∘ E longitude. The local longitudes are: Cochin ~76.2° E (diff 6.3°), Mumbai ~72.8° E (diff 9.7°), Kolkata ~88.3° E (diff 5.8°), Kohima ~94.1° E (diff 11.6°). Kohima has the greatest longitudinal deviation (11.6∘×4 min≈46.4 minutes).
Q1150
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPhysiographic Divisions & Geological Ages
Which of the following physical divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Peninsular Plateau)
The Peninsular Plateau of India (composed of ancient igneous and metamorphic crystalline rocks of the Gondwana shield) is geologically the oldest and most stable landmass of India.
Q1151
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHimalayan Landforms: Duns
What are duns in the context of geography?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Deep valleys)
In geomorphology, 'Duns' are longitudinal structural valleys formed between the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal) and the outer Sub-Himalayan Shiwalik range (e.g. Dehradun, Kotlidun, Patlidun).
Q1152
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSocio-Religious Reform Laws in British India
Arrange the following Social Legislations of British rule in chronological order: 1. Abolition of infanticide by British Regulation 2. Abolition of Sati by Lord William Bentinck 3. Abolition of infanticide by Lord Wellesley 4. Abolition of slavery under Regulation X by the Bengal Government Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 1, 4, 2)
Chronological enactment: 1. Female Infanticide Prevention Act by Lord Wellesley (1802/1804, 3) → 2. Infanticide Regulation XXI (1795/1804, 1) → 3. Bengal Slavery Regulation X (1811, 4) → 4. Sati Regulation XVII by Lord William Bentinck (1829, 2) ⟹3,1,4,2.
Q1153
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPeasant and Tribal Uprisings
Consider the following pairs: 1. Moplah Revolt — iv. Kerala 2. Eka Movement — ii. Awadh 3. Birsa Munda Revolt — i. Bihar/Jharkhand 4. Pabna Revolt — iii. Bengal Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii)
Matching peasant/tribal movements to regions: Moplah Rebellion = Malabar, Kerala (1-iv); Eka Movement = Awadh, UP (2-ii); Birsa Munda Ulgulan = Chhota Nagpur, erstwhile Bihar (3-i); Pabna Agrarian League = Bengal (4-iii) ⟹ 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii.
Q1154
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSundarbans Mangrove Ecosystem
Consider the following statements: 1. The Sundarbans are mangrove forest, on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Sundarban National Park is listed under the World Heritage Marine Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements are correct: The Sundarbans form the world's largest contiguous coastal mangrove forest across the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta (1), and Sundarban National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site recognized under the Marine World Heritage Programme (2).
Q1155
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KExercise Sea Dragon
Consider the following statements: 1. Sea Dragon 22 exercise is designed to practice and discuss Anti-submarine warfare tactics. 2. It is a bilateral annual exercise between India and the US. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)
Statement 1 is correct: Exercise Sea Dragon is a premier multinational Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) exercise held at Andersen Air Force Base, Guam. Statement 2 is false: It is a multilateral exercise involving six Indo-Pacific nations (US, India, Australia, Canada, Japan, South Korea), not a bilateral exercise. Thus, 1 only is correct.
Q1156
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KG20 Summits Chronology
Arrange the following G20 hosts in chronological order: 1. Japan 2. Italy 3. China 4. Germany 5. India Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 4, 1, 2, 5)
Chronology of G20 Leaders' Summits: 1. Hangzhou, China (2016, 3) → 2. Hamburg, Germany (2017, 4) → 3. Osaka, Japan (2019, 1) → 4. Rome, Italy (2021, 2) → 5. New Delhi, India (2023, 5) ⟹3,4,1,2,5.
Q1157
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCoastline Lengths of Indian States
Arrange the following states in ascending order as per their coastline length: 1. Odisha 2. Kerala 3. Gujarat 4. Andhra Pradesh 5. Tamil Nadu Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, 5, 4, 3)
Length of mainland coastlines: Odisha (480 km, 1) < Kerala (590 km, 2) < Tamil Nadu (906 km, 5) < Andhra Pradesh (974 km, 4) < Gujarat (1214 km, 3) ⟹1,2,5,4,3.
Q1158
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIslands & Volcanism in India
Two volcanic islands in Indian territory are
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Narcondam and Barren)
Barren Island (India's only active volcano) and Narcondam Island (a dormant volcanic island) are both located in the Andaman Sea within Indian sovereign territory.
Q1159
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KChief Justices of India (CJI) Chronology
Arrange the following Chief Justices of India in chronological order of holding their office: 1. U.U. Lalit 2. D.Y. Chandrachud 3. Y. V. Chandrachud 4. Ranjan Gogoi Choose the correct option:
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KP20 Parliamentary Forum
Consider the following statements: 1. P20 is a congregation of Presidents of G20 nations. 2. The P20 group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 only)
Statement 1 is false: P20 is the Parliamentary Speakers' Summit (congregation of Speakers/Presiding Officers of Parliaments, not heads of state). Statement 2 is true: The P20 was inaugurated in 2010 under Canada's G20 presidency. Thus, 2 only is correct.
Q1161
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNASA Interplanetary Missions: New Horizons
'New Horizons' spacecraft was launched by NASA to study which of the following planet?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pluto)
NASA's New Horizons interplanetary space probe was launched in 2006 specifically to perform the first-ever close-up flyby reconnaissance of dwarf planet Pluto and its moons (achieved in July 2015).
Q1162
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KConstitutional Provisions for UT of J&K (Art 239A)
After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into Union Territories, which constitutional provision became applicable specifically for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 239A)
Under Section 13 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the constitutional provisions of Article 239A (which originally created a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for the UT of Puducherry) were made applicable to the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q1163
General EnglishLatitudinal Spatial Ordering of J&K Cities
Arrange the following places of Kashmir region from North to South: 1. Kargil 2. Gilgit 3. Banihal 4. Sri Nagar Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 1, 4, 3)
Latitudinal North to South sequence: Gilgit (35.92° N, 2) → Kargil (34.55° N, 1) → Srinagar (34.08° N, 4) → Banihal (33.50° N, 3) ⟹2,1,4,3.
Q1164
General EnglishUdhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL)
What percentage of the 48-km railway line between Banihal to Sangaldan passes through tunnels?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (90%)
Out of the 48.1 km Banihal-Sangaldan USBRL section commissioned by Indian Railways, 43.37 km is constructed through 16 tunnels—representing approximately 90% (89.8%) of the entire track alignment.
Q1165
General EnglishTreaty of Amritsar 1846 & Dogra Dynasty
Which ruler of Jammu and Kashmir signed the Treaty of Amritsar in 1846, ceding Kashmir to Gulab Singh?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Raja Gulab Singh)
Maharaja Gulab Singh signed the historic Treaty of Amritsar on 16 March 1846 with the British East India Company, acquiring the hilly territory of Kashmir for 75 lakh Nanakshahee rupees and founding the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q1166
General EnglishTraditional Melas of Jammu Region: Subar Dhar Mela
The Subar Dhar Mela takes place in which of the following locations of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Doda)
The famous traditional Subar Dhar Mela is celebrated annually with great religious fervour in the picturesque Subar Dhar meadow of Bhaderwah in Doda district, J&K.
Q1167
General EnglishKarakoram Glaciers: Siachen
Which glacier lies in the Karakoram Range system of Kashmir near the India-Pakistan border?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Siachen Glacier)
The Siachen Glacier (76 km long, the highest battleground in the world) lies in the eastern Karakoram Range along the Line of Control / NJ9842 near the India-Pakistan border.
Q1168
General EnglishDelimitation & Legislative Assembly Seats
According to the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, the number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu and Kashmir to be filled by direct election is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (89)
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019 (as amended post-Delimitation Commission 2022), the Legislative Assembly consists of 114 total seats, of which 24 remain vacant for PoJK and 90 (or 83/87 in earlier provisions) are filled by direct territorial election.
Q1169
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsTypes of Software: System vs Application
Which of the following does not belong to the category of system software?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Microsoft Office)
Microsoft Office is an Application Software suite designed for end-user office productivity tasks. BIOS, Device Drivers, and DOS (Disk Operating System) are essential System Software.
Q1170
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsDirect and Indirect Speech: Sequence of Tenses
Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence: My father assured me that he will buy a bike for me.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (he would buy)
Under sequence of tenses in reported speech, when the reporting verb is in the past tense ('assured'), the future auxiliary 'will' changes to past conditional 'would': "...that he would buy a bike for me."
Q1171
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSubject-Verb Agreement Errors
In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options: She taste (a)/ the sauce to (b)/ find out whether (c)/ it is tasteful or not (d).
💡Correct Answer: Option A (She taste)
Subject-verb agreement error in Part A: Third-person singular subject 'She' requires singular present verb 'tastes' (or past tense 'tasted'), not bare plural form 'taste'.
Q1172
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSentence Rearrangement
Given below are four scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments: P. who secures Q. will receive a trophy R. the highest marks S. the child
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SPRQ)
Logical grammatical sequence is SPRQ: "The child (S) who secures (P) the highest marks (R) will receive a trophy (Q)."
Q1173
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSentence Rearrangement: Relative Clauses
Given below are four scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments: P. was laid with fruit Q. the tree, R. the branches of which S. overhung the street,
💡Correct Answer: Option B (QRSP)
Logical grammatical sequence is QRSP: "The tree (Q), the branches of which (R) overhung the street (S), was laid with fruit (P)."
Q1174
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsDirect and Indirect Speech
Select the most appropriate option to change the sentence from direct speech to indirect speech: My nephew said, "I have decided to take coaching in badminton".
💡Correct Answer: Option A (My nephew said that he had decided to take coaching in badminton.)
Direct speech present perfect ('have decided') shifts to past perfect ('had decided'), and first-person pronoun 'I' changes to third-person 'he': "My nephew said that he had decided to take coaching in badminton."
Q1175
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsIndirect to Direct Speech
Select the most appropriate option to change the sentence from indirect speech to direct speech: Surender asked Prashant whether he had watched the cricket match on television the previous night.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Surender said to Prashant, "Did you watch the cricket match on television last night?")
In indirect-to-direct conversion, past perfect 'had watched' and time adverb 'the previous night' convert back to past simple interrogative 'Did you watch...' and 'last night': Surender said to Prashant, "Did you watch the cricket match on television last night?"
Q1176
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsModal Auxiliaries: Moral Duty & Obligation
Fill in the blank using a suitable modal: All company employees _____ abide by the rules and regulations provided.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ought to)
The modal 'ought to' is used to express moral duty, mandatory workplace obligation, and correctness of conduct: "All company employees ought to abide by the rules..."
Q1177
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsModal Auxiliaries: Past Ability
Fill in the blank using a suitable modal: I _____ run a mile in 10 minutes, when I was younger.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (could)
The modal auxiliary 'could' is used to denote past physical ability or capacity in completed past time: "I could run a mile in 10 minutes, when I was younger."
Q1178
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsArticles: Dual Appositive Nouns
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: Mr. Agnihotri, who is _____ producer and _____ financier of _____ Nike company was present there.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (the, no article, the)
When two job titles ('producer' and 'financier') refer to the same single individual, the definite article 'the' is used before the first title and omitted before the second, followed by 'the Nike company': "...the producer and financier of the Nike company..."
Q1179
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsArticles: Indefinite and Definite
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: _____ recent survey indicates that _____ number of drug addicts is growing day by day.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A, the)
Indefinite singular noun phrase 'A recent survey' introduces a non-specific study, followed by the fixed phrase 'the number of': "A recent survey indicates that the number of drug addicts..."
Q1180
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsReading Passage Analysis
What does the phrase "its golden rays stretched across the expanse of the meadow" primarily describe?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The rising sun)
The opening sentence of the reading passage depicts dawn: "As the sun ascended towards the horizon, its golden rays stretched across the expanse of the meadow...", which describes The rising sun.
Q1181
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsPronoun Antecedent Reference
What does the pronoun "their" refer to in the phrase "Their harmonious symphony echoed through the meadow"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Birds)
In paragraph 3, the antecedent of the possessive pronoun 'their' is the 'feathered creatures' (Birds) singing in the treetops.
Q1182
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsHomophones
Select a homophone pair in the passage context: As the sun ascended towards the horizon, its golden rays stretched across the expanse of the meadow, painting the landscape in warm hues of orange and pink.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (sun / son)
'Sun' has the exact phonetic homophone 'son' (words identical in pronunciation but differing in spelling and meaning).
Q1183
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsClauses: Subordinate Clauses
Pick out the subordinate clause in the below sentence: If you work on Sunday, I will look after the children.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (If you work on Sunday)
'If you work on Sunday' is the dependent conditional adverbial subordinate clause introduced by subordinating conjunction 'If'.
Q1184
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsClauses: Relative Clauses
Pick out the relative clause in the following sentence: The cat, which scratched my mum, is wild.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (which scratched my mum)
'which scratched my mum' is the non-defining relative clause introduced by relative pronoun 'which' modifying 'The cat'.
Q1185
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsAntonyms
Select the antonym of the word leniency: The school principal showed leniency to the students who arrived late for class...
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Vengeance)
'Leniency' means mercy, mildness, and clemency. Its direct contextual antonym is 'Vengeance' (harsh retribution, severity, and intolerance).
Q1186
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSynonyms
Select the Synonym of the word: Soliloquy
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Monologue)
A 'Soliloquy' is a theatrical speech delivered by a character alone on stage expressing thoughts aloud. Its direct synonym is 'Monologue'.
Q1187
General Intelligence & ReasoningPrepositions
Fill in the blank with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below: We should prevent damage _____ and theft of public property.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (to)
The noun 'damage' takes the preposition 'to' (damage to public property): "We should prevent damage to and theft of public property."
Q1188
General Intelligence & ReasoningPrepositions of Position
Fill in the blank with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below: He inserted a needle _____ the close petals of a flower.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (between)
Preposition 'between' indicates inserting an object into the space separating two or more touching petals: "He inserted a needle between the close petals..."
Q1189
General Intelligence & ReasoningInformation Technology Act, 2000
In which year India's IT Act came into existence?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2000)
The Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act 2000 / Act No. 21 of 2000) was enacted by the Indian Parliament and came into force on 17 October 2000.
Q1190
General Intelligence & ReasoningAntivirus Software
McAfee is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Antivirus)
McAfee is a globally renowned cybersecurity company and antivirus software program designed to detect and eradicate malware.
Q1191
General Intelligence & ReasoningTables in MS Word
What is the minimum number of rows and columns that a table in MS Word can have?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1 row and 1 column)
A valid table in Microsoft Word requires at least one cell, which corresponds to a minimum of 1 row and 1 column.
Q1192
General Intelligence & ReasoningInput Devices: Joystick
For what purpose, the joystick is used?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (computer gaming)
A Joystick is an input pointing device featuring a pivoting stick used predominantly for flight simulators and computer gaming control.
Q1193
General Intelligence & ReasoningPowerPoint Handouts Printing Options
In MS Power Point, the following is not an option when printing handouts?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Five slides per page)
In Microsoft PowerPoint, the available handout layout options are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 9 slides per page. 'Five slides per page' is NOT a supported printing handout layout.
Q1194
General Intelligence & ReasoningNetwork Hardware: Modem
Which of the following devices converts computer output data into an analog form that can be transmitted over a telephone line?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Modem)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) modulates digital computer signals into analog audio tones for transmission over traditional copper telephone lines and demodulates incoming analog signals back to digital.
Q1195
Basic MathematicsMS Office Tools: Format Painter
The function of Format Painter is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To copy formatting from one object or piece of text and then apply elsewhere)
The Format Painter tool in Microsoft Office allows users to copy all formatting attributes (font, size, color, borders) from selected text/object and instantly apply it to another selection.
Q1196
Basic MathematicsInput Devices: MICR
This peripheral device is mostly used in financial institutions to process a large number of cheques by recognizing the magnetic encoding number printed at the bottom of the cheque?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (MICR)
MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) readers are specialized scanning devices used by commercial banks and clearing houses to read magnetic ink characters on cheques rapidly.
In MS Power Point, to insert a new slide in the current presentation, we press the following command.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ctrl + M)
Ctrl + M is the shortcut key in PowerPoint to insert a New Slide into the current presentation. (Ctrl + N creates a brand new blank presentation file).
A PowerPoint presentation file (.pptx) is an integrated document collection comprising display slides, printable audience handouts, presenter speaker notes, and text outlines. All of the above are components.
Q1200
Basic MathematicsCoding-Decoding: Direct Letter Substitution
In a certain code language 'DEAR' is coded as '7465' and 'LIFE' is coded as '8394'. Then how will 'IDEAL' be coded in the same code language?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (37468)
Direct letter mapping: - D = 7, E = 4, A = 6, R = 5 - L = 8, I = 3, F = 9, E = 4 For 'IDEAL': I(3), D(7), E(4), A(6), L(8) ⟹ 37468.
Q1201
Basic MathematicsAnalogy: Degrees of Intensity
Tired is related to Exhausted, in the same way as Sad is related to _____
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Depressed)
'Exhausted' is an extreme degree/intensity of being 'Tired'. Similarly, 'Depressed' (or Despondent) is an extreme emotional degree of being 'Sad'.
Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term: Body : Vitamin :: Crop : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Fertilizer)
Vitamins are vital supplementary nutrients required for the healthy growth and nourishment of the human Body; similarly, Fertilizers are essential supplementary nutrients applied to nourish and grow agricultural Crops.
Q1203
Basic MathematicsAnalogy: Faculty & its Loss/Impairment
Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair: Memory : Amnesia
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vision : Blindness)
Amnesia is the total/partial loss of Memory. Similarly, Blindness is the total loss of Vision.
Q1204
Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActMotor Vehicles Act, 1988: Age Eligibility for Transport Vehicles
A person is authorized to drive a "transport vehicle" in any category of road at the minimum age of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (20 years)
Under Section 4(2) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, no person under the age of twenty years (20 years) shall drive a transport vehicle in any public place.
Reduction of traffic speed can be effective in reducing
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Number of crashes)
Calibrating and reducing traffic speed significantly reduces vehicle stopping distance and collision energy, drastically lowering the Number of crashes, injuries, and fatalities.
National Highway of 4 lane divided carriage way means
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Having two lanes for traffic in each direction)
A 4-lane divided carriageway highway consists of a central physical median dividing two lanes of dedicated traffic flow in each opposite direction (2 lanes up + 2 lanes down = 4 total lanes).
Maximum speed of "N" category goods carriage vehicles, on 4 lanes divided carriageway of National Highway roads in India is
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($80\text{ km/hr}$)
As per Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) statutory notification, the maximum speed limit for Category N goods vehicles on 4-lane divided National Highways is 80 km/hr.
Q1208
Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActProhibitory Signs: No Overtaking
A circular sign with a diagonal slash through overtaking vehicles represents:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Overtaking is prohibited)
A circular regulatory sign showing a red car alongside a black car crossed by a red diagonal bar means Overtaking is strictly prohibited on that stretch.
A circular speed sign with the number "50" enclosed in a red circle represents:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maximum speed limit)
A circular sign featuring a number inside a red border specifies the Maximum Speed Limit (50 km/hr) permitted on that roadway.
Q1210
Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActFacility Signs: Police Station
A rectangular facility information sign displaying a uniformed officer with a peaked cap represents:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Police station)
A blue rectangular information board depicting a police officer's bust with cap indicates the nearby location of a Police Station.
Q1211
Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActFirst Aid Protocols for Trauma & Resuscitation
Match casualty indications with first aid procedures: a. Conscious and breathing normally — 2. Provide appropriate first aid b. Unconscious, and breathing normally — 1. Put casualty in recovery position c. Unconscious and not breathing — 4. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) d. Insect wing lodged under eyelid — 3. Rinse immediately with plenty of water
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3)
Standard first aid protocols: Unconscious breathing victim goes into recovery position (b-1); Non-breathing unconscious casualty requires immediate CPR (c-4); Eye foreign body requires copious irrigation (d-3); Conscious injured person receives standard first aid (a-2) ⟹ a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3.
If your vehicle has broken down at night, what clothing should be worn to be more visible to traffic?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bright fluorescent clothes)
Wearing bright fluorescent retro-reflective high-visibility clothing/vests ensures drivers are easily visible to oncoming headlights from great distances at night.
Driving a four wheeler on a wet road is difficult due to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decrease the friction between tyre and road surface)
Water on road surfaces forms a thin lubricating liquid film that substantially decreases the coefficient of friction and grip between tyre rubber and pavement, increasing stopping distance and risk of hydroplaning.
Q1216
Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenancePavement Reflectivity & Night Visibility
During night driving, which type of pavement provides greater visibility?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Concrete pavement)
White/light-grey Cement Concrete pavement has a much higher albedo and diffuse reflectance than dark black bituminous asphalt, providing superior night-time contrast and visibility.
Which of the following factors has NO influence on night visibility? (i) Size of the object (ii) Brightness of the object (iii) Brightness of the background (iv) Reflecting characteristic of carriageway
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of the above)
All four factors (object size, object luminance, background luminance contrast, and road reflectance) strongly determine optical night visibility. Therefore, None of the above has no influence.
Maximum allowable distance between the rear of the towing vehicle and the front of the towed vehicle is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5 meters)
Under Rule 126 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, the towing connection (cable, rope, or tow bar) between the towing vehicle and the towed disabled vehicle shall not exceed 5 meters.
Q1219
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlBharat Stage II Emission Limits
The carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrocarbon (HC) limits for four-wheelers under Bharat Stage II emission norms are
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1% and 1000 ppm)
Under Bharat Stage II (BS-II) vehicular emission testing standards, idling tailpipe emission limits for 4-wheelers are set at ≤1.0% CO and ≤1000 ppm HC.
Maximum permissible drive-by noise level recommended as per Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989 for heavy commercial vehicles exceeding 12,000 kg GVW is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (89 dB(A))
Under Rule 120 of CMVR, 1989, the maximum permissible drive-by acoustic noise limit for heavy commercial transport vehicles with Gross Vehicle Weight exceeding 12 tonnes is 89 dB(A).
Match vehicular pollution concepts: a. Idling at red traffic signal — 1. Turning off vehicle's engine b. Cycling or walking — 4. Sustainable mode of transportation c. Electric vehicle — 3. Reduces level of air pollution compared with petrol d. High vehicle density — 2. Increasing vehicular pollution in urban India
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2)
Remedies and impacts: Idling is mitigated by switching off engine (a-1); Active mobility is sustainable transport (b-4); Electric vehicles cut direct emissions (c-3); High vehicle density intensifies urban pollution (d-2) ⟹ a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2.
As per Indian Motor Vehicles Act, the number of passengers permitted to be carried in a personal vehicle is recorded in the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Registration certificate (RC))
The legally authorized seating capacity (including driver) of every motor vehicle is officially documented in its Registration Certificate (RC).
Q1223
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlLicensing Authorities in India
Who is the competent authority to issue driving licences in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (District or Regional Transport Office (RTO / Licensing Authority))
The Regional Transport Office (RTO) / District Transport Officer (DTO) appointed by the State Transport Department functions as the statutory Licensing Authority.
Consider the following statements regarding motor insurance: Statement-1: Motor insurance does not provide compensation if the driver does not possess a valid driving licence. Statement-2: Third-party motor insurance covers a third person who has been injured in an accident involving the vehicle. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both statement (1) and statement (2) are individually true)
Both statements are correct insurance principles: Driving without a valid driving licence breaches policy terms and invalidates own-damage claims (Statement 1), and Third-party insurance specifically indemnifies bodily injury/loss to third parties (Statement 2).
Q1225
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlIgnition System Faults: Engine Misfire
What is generally the reason for engine misfiring in petrol vehicles?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Faulty spark plug or ignition lead)
A fouled, worn, or incorrectly gapped Spark Plug fails to deliver a consistent electrical spark across the electrode, resulting in incomplete combustion and Engine Misfiring.
Q1226
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSpark Ignition vs Compression Ignition
What type of ignition system is standardly used in petrol (gasoline) engines?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Spark ignition (SI))
Petrol engines operate on the Otto cycle using a Spark Ignition (SI) system, where an electric spark plug ignites the compressed air-fuel mixture. (Diesel engines use Compression Ignition / CI).
Q1227
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlFuel Quality Ratings: Cetane vs Octane
The ignition quality and combustion speed of diesel fuel is indicated by its
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cetane number)
The Cetane Number is the standard measure of the ignition delay and combustion quality of diesel fuel under compression. (Octane number measures anti-knock quality in petrol).
Q1228
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlHydrometers & Specific Gravity
Which instrument is used to measure the specific gravity or relative density of liquids such as petrol/battery electrolyte?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrometer)
A Hydrometer is a calibrated glass instrument that floats in a liquid to measure its specific gravity (relative density) based on Archimedes' principle.
Q1229
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlProperties of Lubricants: Viscosity
The most important physical characteristic of an engine lubricating oil is its
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Viscosity)
Viscosity (a fluid's internal resistance to flow and ability to maintain a lubricating hydrodynamic boundary film under pressure) is the single most critical property of engine oils.
When an engine is cold, which valve in the carburetor is closed to enrich the fuel-air mixture for starting?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Choke valve)
The Choke Valve restricts the air intake flow entering the carburetor throat, increasing vacuum to draw excess fuel and deliver a fuel-rich mixture needed for cold engine starting.
Q1231
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCoolant Chemistry & Distilled Water
Which type of water is recommended for mixing with antifreeze coolant in a car radiator?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Soft / Distilled water)
Soft, distilled, or demineralized water must be used in engine cooling systems to prevent calcium/magnesium mineral scale buildup that clogs radiator tubes.
Q1232
General EnglishPrepositions
He will impart no information ________ anyone.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (to)
The verb 'impart' (to communicate or bestow information) takes the preposition 'to': "impart information to anyone."
Q1233
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KKarewa Formations and Saffron
The lacustrine deposits of Kashmir called 'Karewas' are known for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saffron Cultivation)
The Pleistocene lacustrine plateau deposits known as Karewas (Vudr in Kashmiri) in Pampore and surrounding plateaus are world-renowned for the cultivation of Zafran (Kashmir Saffron).
Q1234
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana
Who among the following presided over the Buddhist Council held during the reign of Kanishka at Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vasumitra)
The Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana (Kashmir) in 72 AD during Kushan Emperor Kanishka's reign was presided over by Acharya Vasumitra (with Asvaghosha as vice-president).
Q1235
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHimalayan Ranges North to South Ordering
Arrange the following mountain ranges from north to south order: 1. Pir Panjal 2. Zanskar 3. Dhauladhar 4. Ladakh
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4, 2, 1, 3)
Trans-Himalayan and Himalayan ranges in North-to-South latitudinal order: Ladakh Range (4) → Zanskar Range (2) → Pir Panjal Range (1) → Dhauladhar Range (3) ⟹4,2,1,3.
Q1236
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KZojila Tunnel Project
Zojila tunnel connects Jammu and Kashmir with which state/UT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ladakh)
The 14.15 km all-weather Zojila Tunnel beneath the Zoji La Pass connects Baltal/Sonamarg in J&K UT with Dras and Kargil in Ladakh UT along NH-1.
Q1237
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Halqa Majlis
What does the term 'Halqa Majlis' in the J&K Panchayat Raj Act 1989 refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Voters of Halqa Panchayat)
Under the J&K Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, 'Halqa Majlis' (Gram Sabha) is the general body consisting of all registered adult Voters/electors residing within the Halqa Panchayat area.
Q1238
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act Chapters
Chapter V of Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act 1989 deals with the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Conduct of Business)
Chapter V of the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989 is titled and specifically governs the 'Conduct of Business' of the Halqa Panchayat.
Q1239
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KThree-Tier Panchayati Raj System
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ tier system of Panchayati Raj in each state.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three (03))
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 mandates a uniform Three-Tier system of Panchayati Raj: Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level, and Zilla Parishad at district level.
Q1240
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KDuration of Panchayats (Article 243E)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ term of office to the Panchayat at every level.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Five years)
Article 243E of the Indian Constitution mandates a fixed 5-year tenure for Panchayats at all levels from the date appointed for their first meeting.
Q1241
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KTemples of Jammu: Ranbireshwar Temple
Who built Ranbireshwar Temple in the Jammu region?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maharaja Ranbir Singh)
The famous historic Ranbireshwar Shiva Temple (celebrated for its massive monolithic crystal lingams) was built by Maharaja Ranbir Singh in 1883 AD.
Q1242
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLocal Names of J&K Rivers
Which of the following river is also known as Vyeth in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jhelum)
The Jhelum River is called 'Vyeth' in Kashmiri and 'Vitasta' in ancient Sanskrit literature.
Q1243
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFounding of Jammu City
Who is believed to have founded the city of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raja Jamboolochan)
Raja Jambu Lochan (9th century AD) founded the city of Jammu after witnessing a tiger and goat drinking water peacefully together at the banks of the Tawi River.
Q1244
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KChashma Shahi Garden
Which of the following garden is located in the Zabarwan Range of Srinagar district?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Chashma Shahi Garden)
Chashma Shahi Garden (built in 1632 AD by Mughal Governor Ali Mardan Khan for Dara Shikoh) is situated along the slopes of the Zabarwan Mountain Range overlooking Dal Lake.
Q1245
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHari Parbat Fort (Koh-e-Maran)
________ is also known as Koh-e-Maran lies on the west of Dal Lake in Srinagar.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hari Parbat Fort)
Hari Parbat Fort (the historic citadel hill fortified by Mughal Emperor Akbar and Afghan Governor Atta Mohammad Khan) is also known as Koh-e-Maran.
Q1246
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KTawi River Basin & Origin
The source of which of the following river is the Kailash Kund spring at Soej hills in Bhaderwah in Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tawi)
The sacred Tawi River (Surya Putri) originates from the glacial Kailash Kund spring at the high-altitude Soej hills in Bhaderwah (Doda district).
Q1247
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJammu and Kashmir Rifles Regiment
Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Infantry regiment of the Indian Army)
The Jammu and Kashmir Rifles (JAK RIF) is a distinguished combat Infantry Regiment of the Indian Army, tracing its lineage back to General Zorawar Singh and Maharaja Gulab Singh's Dogra State Forces.
Q1248
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Boundary Lines: Radcliffe Line
Which of the following countries are divided by the Radcliffe Line?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (India and Pakistan)
The Radcliffe Line, drawn by Sir Cyril Radcliffe during the 1947 partition, demarcates the international border between India and Pakistan.
Q1249
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPopular Tourist Destinations: Gulmarg
What is Gulmarg famously known as?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Meadow of Flowers)
Gulmarg (originally named Gauri Marg and renamed Gulmarg by Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak) is famously known as the 'Meadow of Flowers'.
Q1250
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLegislative Assembly Strength
As per the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir to be filled by persons chosen by direct election was originally set at
💡Correct Answer: Option C (107)
Under Section 14(4) of the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019 as originally enacted, the total number of seats was 107 (83 directly elected seats + 24 reserved for PoJK).
Q1251
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPilgrimage Centers: Baba Dhansar
The holy place of Baba Dhansar is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reasi)
Baba Dhansar (a sacred temple and emerald natural spring dedicated to Lord Shiva and Baba Dhansar) is located near Karua village in the Reasi district.
Q1252
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KBifurcation of J&K and Ladakh
According to the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the union territory created without a legislature is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ladakh)
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh was created without a Legislative Assembly (governed directly by the Lieutenant Governor), while J&K was created with a Legislative Assembly.
Q1253
General ScienceProminent Leaders and Organizations
Consider the following pairs and identify how many pairs are correct: 1. Subhash Chandra Bose — All India Forward Bloc 2. Chittaranjan Das — First President of Swaraj Party 3. MG Ranade — Father of renaissance of western India 4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale — Servants of India Society
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All four)
All four historical pairs are correct: Netaji founded Forward Bloc (1939); C.R. Das was first President of Swaraj Party (1923); Justice M.G. Ranade spearheaded the western Indian social renaissance; Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society (1905).
Q1254
General ScienceVitamins and Coagulation
Excessive bleeding during an injury is caused by the deficiency of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin K)
Vitamin K (phylloquinone/menaquinone) is the essential cofactor required for the hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation factors (prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X); its deficiency causes hemorrhagic bleeding.
Q1255
General ScienceNuclear Power Plants in India
Which among the following is the oldest nuclear power station in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tarapur Atomic Power Station)
Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS) in Palghar, Maharashtra, commissioned on 28 October 1969 with Boiling Water Reactors, is India's first and oldest commercial nuclear power plant.
Q1256
General ScienceComputer Generations: Transistors
During the second generation, the size of computers was decreased by replacing vacuum tubes with
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Transistors)
Second-generation computers (1956–1963) replaced bulky, fragile vacuum tubes with solid-state Transistors (invented at Bell Labs).
Q1257
General ScienceEmail Protocols: SMTP
Which protocol provides an email transmission facility among network hosts?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (SMTP)
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, operating on port 25/587) is the push protocol used to send and transmit outgoing emails across network hosts.
Q1258
General ScienceOperating System User Interfaces
Which of the following controls the process of interaction between the user and the operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (User interface)
The User Interface (UI — Graphical User Interface GUI or Command Line Interface CLI) is the visual and functional layer that facilitates interaction between human users and the OS.
Q1259
General ScienceMicroprocessor vs Microcomputer
One of the main features that distinguishes a microprocessor from a microcomputer is that
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Microprocessor does not contain I/O devices and memory on-chip)
A microprocessor consists solely of the CPU (ALU, control unit, registers) on a single IC without built-in RAM, ROM, or I/O ports, whereas a microcomputer includes the full integrated system with memory and peripherals.
Q1260
General ScienceHardware vs Software
Which is the physical part of a computer that one can touch and feel?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hardware)
Computer Hardware comprises the physical, tangible electronic and mechanical components (monitor, CPU, keyboard, circuits) of a computer system.
Q1261
General ScienceOptical Character Recognition (OCR)
Which of the following devices can be used to directly input printed text from paper into editable format?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (OCR)
OCR (Optical Character Recognition) scanners optically scan physical printed/handwritten text characters and convert them into digital machine-encoded text.
Q1262
Mental Ability / ReasoningHard Disk Platters: Tracks and Sectors
In magnetic disks, data is organized on the platter in concentric sets of rings called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Track)
On a magnetic hard disk platter, surface data is recorded along concentric circular recording rings called Tracks (which are further subdivided into Sectors).
Q1263
Mental Ability / ReasoningMemory Classifications & Media
Which of the following statements is WRONG?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Semiconductor memories are used as mass memory medium)
Statement C is incorrect because primary semiconductor RAM/ROM is main/cache memory; magnetic and optical media (HDDs, tapes, SSDs) are used as mass secondary storage media.
Q1264
Mental Ability / ReasoningOpen Source Software
Which of the following is an example of open source software?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (LibreOffice)
LibreOffice is a free, open-source office productivity software suite whose source code is freely accessible under the Mozilla Public License.
Q1265
Mental Ability / ReasoningFile Extensions: Plain Text
What type of file extension do Notepad text files use?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (.txt)
Microsoft Notepad creates and saves unformatted plain text documents with the default file extension `.txt`.
FAT stands for File Allocation Table, a file system architecture developed by Microsoft (FAT12, FAT16, FAT32) to map disk clusters to stored files.
Q1267
Mental Ability / ReasoningWindows Recycle Bin Management
Choose the FALSE statement regarding the Recycle Bin:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (You can increase free space of disk by sending files to recycle bin)
Statement C is false: Moving files to the Recycle Bin merely changes their directory location; disk space is NOT freed until the Recycle Bin is permanently emptied.
Q1268
Mental Ability / ReasoningData Hierarchy: Fields and Records
In a database, a collection of related fields is grouped together to form a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Record)
In relational databases, a set of related data fields (attributes/columns) representing a single entity is organized as a Record (Tuple or Row).
What is the maximum row limit in a single worksheet of MS Excel 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1,048,576)
Since Excel 2007 through Excel 2019/365, each worksheet supports exactly 1,048,576 rows (220) by 16,384 columns (214).
Q1270
Mental Ability / ReasoningPowerPoint Shortcuts
Which shortcut key inserts a new slide into the current PowerPoint presentation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ctrl+M)
In Microsoft PowerPoint, pressing Ctrl + M immediately inserts a new blank slide into the current deck. (Ctrl + N creates a new presentation file).
Q1271
Mental Ability / ReasoningPage Layout & Margins
Which of the following is NOT a type of page margin in document formatting?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Center)
Standard document page margins are Top, Bottom, Left, and Right (and Gutter). 'Center' is a text paragraph alignment, not a page margin.
Q1272
Mental Ability / ReasoningInternational Tennis Hall of Fame 2024
Who is the first Asian man to be nominated for and inducted into the International Tennis Hall of Fame in 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Leander Paes)
Indian tennis legend Leander Paes (18-time Grand Slam champion in doubles and mixed doubles) became the first Asian male player inducted into the International Tennis Hall of Fame.
Q1273
Mental Ability / ReasoningAtmospheric Energy Harvesting
'Hygroelectricity', recently mentioned in the media, is generated from which one of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Humidity of the air)
Hygroelectricity is clean electrical power continuously harvested from ambient atmospheric moisture/humidity in the air using nanoporous harvesting devices.
Q1274
Mental Ability / ReasoningRamon Magsaysay Award 2023
Which Indian surgical oncologist won the prestigious 2023 Ramon Magsaysay Award (often called Asia's Nobel Prize)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ravi Kannan)
Dr. Ravi Kannan R., renowned surgical oncologist and Director of the Cachar Cancer Hospital and Research Centre in Assam, won the 2023 Ramon Magsaysay Award for making pro-poor healthcare accessible.
Which one of the following best describes the term 'Blue Economy 2.0', highlighted in the Union Budget 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sustainable development related to oceans, seas, and coastal ecosystems)
Blue Economy 2.0 focuses on the sustainable economic utilization, conservation, and regeneration of marine, ocean, and coastal resources, including maritime aquaculture and coastal tourism.
Q1276
Mental Ability / ReasoningWHO Global Status on Road Safety 2023
The 'Global Status Report on Road Safety 2023' was released by which international agency?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (World Health Organization)
The Global Status Report on Road Safety is the authoritative global assessment published periodically by the World Health Organization (WHO).
Q1277
Mental Ability / ReasoningRBI Regulatory Actions on Payments Banks
Recently in early 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed supervisory restrictions under Section 35A on which payment bank?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Paytm Payment Bank)
In January–February 2024, the RBI directed Paytm Payments Bank Limited (PPBL) to stop accepting deposits, credit transactions, and top-ups due to persistent regulatory non-compliance.
Q1278
Mental Ability / ReasoningJainism under Chandragupta Maurya
Which ancient Indian ruler is credited with the historical spread of Jainism to Karnataka (South India)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chandragupta Maurya)
Mauryan Emperor Chandragupta Maurya abdicated his throne, embraced Jainism under Acharya Bhadrabahu, migrated south to Shravanabelagola in Karnataka, and performed sallekhana.
Q1279
Mental Ability / ReasoningRBI QCVM Pilot Project
The QR Code-based Coin Vending Machine (QCVM), piloted by the Reserve Bank of India, dispenses coins using which technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Unified Payment Interface (UPI))
The RBI's QCVM machines allow bank customers to scan a dynamic QR code using any UPI application to debit their bank account and dispense physical currency coins.
Q1280
Mental Ability / ReasoningIndia-Myanmar Border & Free Movement Regime
With reference to the India-Myanmar Border, consider the following statements: 1. It was demarcated by the British Government in India in 1826. 2. It extends along the States of Meghalaya, Assam and Tripura. 3. The Free Movement Regime enables tribes along the border to travel up to 16 km inside the neighbouring country without a visa. Which of the statements given above are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1 and 3 only)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Border demarcation originated from the 1826 Treaty of Yandabo, and the FMR permitted border residents to travel 16 km across. Statement 2 is false because the 1,643 km border is shared with Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram (not Assam, Meghalaya, or Tripura). Thus, 1 and 3 only are correct.
Q1281
Mental Ability / ReasoningEstablishment of Sikh Rule in Kashmir (1819)
The Sikh rule was established in Kashmir in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1819)
Sikh rule was established in Kashmir in July 1819 when Maharaja Ranjit Singh's army led by Misr Diwan Chand defeated Afghan Governor Jabbar Khan at the Battle of Shopian.
Q1282
Computer ApplicationsDietary Nutrients vs Blood Components
All of the following are essential nutrients found in dietary food EXCEPT
💡Correct Answer: Option B (plasma)
Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals are dietary nutrients; Blood Plasma is the liquid component of circulatory blood, not a dietary nutrient.
Q1283
Computer ApplicationsSolar PV Module Circuitry
A photovoltaic module in a solar panel refers to
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.)
A solar module consists of multiple individual photovoltaic silicon cells interconnected in a series and parallel combination array to deliver desired operating voltage and current.
Q1284
Computer ApplicationsProperties of Elastic Media for Wave Propagation
The fundamental physical properties of a medium necessary for mechanical wave propagation are its:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
For propagation of mechanical acoustic/sound waves through a medium, the medium must possess Elasticity (to restore displaced particles), Inertia (to store kinetic energy), and low damping resistance. All of the above are essential.
An ohmmeter is an electrical instrument used for measuring:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Electrical Resistance)
An Ohmmeter is an electronic instrument specifically designed to measure Electrical Resistance (in Ohms Ω).
Q1286
Computer ApplicationsGreenhouse Effect and Atmospheric Radiation
The phenomenon when terrestrial thermal radiation absorbed by atmospheric gases is re-radiated back towards the surface of the earth is known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Greenhouse effect)
The Greenhouse Effect occurs when greenhouse gases (CO2,CH4,H2O) absorb long-wave infrared terrestrial radiation and re-emit heat back to warm Earth's surface.
Q1287
Computer ApplicationsBiogeochemical Cycles: Gaseous vs Sedimentary
Which one of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Phosphorus and Sulphur)
Biogeochemical cycles with reservoirs in Earth's crust/rocks (sedimentary cycles) include Phosphorus and Sulphur. (Nitrogen, Oxygen, and Carbon are gaseous cycles).
Q1288
Computer ApplicationsBiomass Energy Conversion
Which non-conventional source of energy uses organic materials (biological waste) for power generation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Biomass)
Biomass energy harnesses stored chemical energy from organic materials (agricultural residue, animal waste, wood pellets, municipal organic waste) via combustion or anaerobic digestion.
Q1289
Computer ApplicationsNitrogen Assimilation in Plants
What do plants convert absorbed nitrates and nitrites into after nitrogen fixation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Amino acids)
Plants reduce soil nitrates into ammonium ions and incorporate them via glutamine synthetase pathways into organic Amino Acids (the building blocks of proteins).
Q1290
Computer ApplicationsVitamins and Deficiency Disorders
Which of the following vitamin-deficiency pairs is MISMATCHED?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin K - Beriberi)
Vitamin K deficiency causes impaired blood clotting / hemorrhage. Beriberi is caused by deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Pair C is mismatched.
Q1291
Computer ApplicationsIdeal Independent Sources in Series
If an ideal voltage source and an ideal current source are connected in series, the combined terminal branch
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Has the same properties as current source alone.)
In linear circuit theory, connecting an ideal current source Is in series with an ideal voltage source Vs forces the entire branch current to strictly equal Is, behaving identically to the current source alone across external terminals.
Q1292
Computer ApplicationsTrophic Structure: Primary vs Secondary Consumers
What trophic level of the food chain do secondary carnivores typically occupy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secondary consumers)
In ecological trophic levels: T1 = Primary Producers (Plants), T2 = Primary Consumers (Herbivores), T3 = Secondary Consumers (Carnivores feeding on herbivores).
Q1293
Computer ApplicationsMacronutrients: Role of Proteins
Which of the following nutrients is needed to build and repair the structural components and tissues of the body?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Protein)
Proteins provide essential amino acids required for cellular synthesis, muscle growth, enzyme production, and structural tissue repair.
What is the correct hierarchy order of the 3 R environmental principle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reduce, Reuse, Recycle)
The universally accepted waste hierarchy priority order is: Reduce waste generation first → Reuse products second → Recycle recyclable materials third (Reduce, Reuse, Recycle).
Q1295
Computer ApplicationsEcological Pyramids: Pyramid of Biomass
In an ecosystem, the total dry weight and quantity of living organic matter at each trophic level is depicted by the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pyramid of biomass)
A Pyramid of Biomass represents the total dry mass of all living organic matter (g/m2) present at successive trophic levels of an ecosystem at a given time.
Q1296
Computer ApplicationsNewton's Laws & Conservation of Momentum
Which of these fundamental physical properties is conserved as a direct consequence of Newton's Third Law of Motion?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Momentum)
Because action and reaction forces between interacting bodies are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction (F12=−F21), the net internal impulse is zero, establishing the Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum.
Q1297
Computer ApplicationsIsotopes & Atomic Structure
The neutral atoms of all isotopes of the same chemical element have
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The same number of electrons (and protons).)
Isotopes of an element share the identical atomic number Z (same number of protons and same number of electrons in neutral state) but differ in neutron count N and mass number A.
Q1298
Computer ApplicationsPolarization of Light
Which one of the following optical phenomena conclusively proves that light travels as a transverse wave?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Polarization)
Polarization (the restriction of electric field vector vibrations to a single plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation) is unique to Transverse Waves and cannot occur in longitudinal waves.
Q1299
Computer ApplicationsLinear Acceleration Formula ($a = \Delta v / \Delta t$)
A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a constant initial velocity of +10 m/s. When a constant force acts for 4 seconds on it, the body moves with a velocity of 2 m/s in the opposite direction (−2 m/s). The acceleration produced is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($-3\text{ m/s}^2$)
Using kinematics: u=+10 m/s, v=−2 m/s, t=4 s. Acceleration a=tv−u=4−2−10=4−12=−3 m/s2.
Q1300
Computer ApplicationsMontreal Protocol and Stratospheric Ozone
The Montreal Protocol (1987) was signed internationally to combat which of the following environmental issues?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ozone depletion)
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international environmental treaty designed to phase out the production and consumption of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons.
Q1301
Computer ApplicationsForce Systems: Coplanar vs Non-Coplanar Concurrent Forces
In engineering mechanics, non-coplanar concurrent forces are defined as those forces which
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meet at one common point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane.)
'Concurrent' means their lines of action intersect at a single common point in 3D space; 'Non-coplanar' means they act in multiple different geometric planes.
Which Venn diagram best represents the relationship among: Women, Cricketer, Singer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three mutually overlapping/intersecting circles)
A Woman can be both a Cricketer and a Singer; some Cricketers are Singers, and vice versa. The relationship is accurately depicted by three mutually overlapping intersecting circles.
Q1304
Accountancy & Financial ManagementCoding-Decoding: Opposite Letter Pairs
In a certain code DISTANCE is written as WRHGZMXV. How is HUMANITY written in that code?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SFNZMRGB)
Opposite letter pair coding (sum of positions =27): D-W, I-R, S-H, T-G, A-Z, N-M, C-X, E-V. For HUMANITY: H → S, U → F, M → N, A → Z, N → M, I → R, T → G, Y → B ⟹ SFNZMRGB.
Q1305
Accountancy & Financial ManagementFictitious Word Substitution Coding
If 'Apple' is known as 'Mango', 'Mango' is known as 'Banana', 'Banana' is known as 'Papaya' and 'Papaya' is known as 'Litchi', then what would be the name of the Indian National Fruit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Banana)
The National Fruit of India is the Mango. According to the substitution code, 'Mango' is called 'Banana'.
Q1306
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KStartup India & Global Summits
The 'Prarambh Summit' is associated with which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Startup ecosystem at international level)
'Prarambh: Startup India International Summit' was organized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) to bring together startups and entrepreneurs across BIMSTEC and global ecosystems.
Q1307
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KTreaty of Amritsar (1846)
Which treaty was signed between Maharaja Gulab Singh and the East India Company, leading to the acquisition of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Treaty of Amritsar)
The historic Treaty of Amritsar was signed on 16 March 1846 between Maharaja Gulab Singh and the British East India Company, transferring the Kashmir Valley for 75 lakh Nanakshahee rupees and establishing the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir.
Q1308
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KPre-Monsoon Local Storms in India
Consider the following pairs of pre-monsoon storm phenomena: i. Mango Shower — b. Pre-Monsoon showers which help in the ripening of mangoes ii. Blossom Shower — a. Pre-Monsoon showers which help in blossoming of coffee flowers iii. Nor Westers — d. Evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam iv. Loo — c. Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in Northern plains Which of the pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
Pre-monsoon rainfall classifications: Mango Showers ripen mangoes in Kerala/Karnataka (i-b); Blossom Showers blossom coffee flowers (ii-a); Nor'westers/Kalbaisakhi are spring thunderstorms in Bengal/Assam (iii-d); Loo are hot dry summer winds in the Northern Plains (iv-c) ⟹ i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q1309
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLaterite Soils Characteristics
Consider the following statements regarding Laterite soils of India: a. Laterite soils of India are generally red in colour. b. They are rich in nitrogen and potash. c. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP. d. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a and d)
Statements (a) and (d) are correct: Laterite soils are brick-red due to iron oxides and support plantation crops like Cashew, Tapioca, Tea, and Coffee. Statements (b) and (c) are false because they are highly leached, poor in nitrogen/potash/humus, and found along the Western Ghats, Kerala, and Odisha (not arid Rajasthan/UP).
Q1310
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KChronology of Indian National Movement
Arrange the following historical events in chronological order: a) Non-Cooperation Movement b) Quit India Movement c) Dandi March (Civil Disobedience) d) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
💡Correct Answer: Option C (d, a, c, b)
Chronology of the Indian Freedom Struggle: Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919, d) → Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–1922, a) → Dandi March (March 1930, c) → Quit India Movement (August 1942, b) ⟹ d, a, c, b.
Q1311
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLok Sabha Seat Distribution across States
Arrange the following states according to their Lok Sabha parliamentary constituency seats in descending order: a) West Bengal (42) b) Maharashtra (48) c) Bihar (40) d) Tamil Nadu (39)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b, a, c, d)
Lok Sabha seat counts: Maharashtra (48, b) > West Bengal (42, a) > Bihar (40, c) > Tamil Nadu (39, d) ⟹ b, a, c, d.
Q1312
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KPrepositions
The traveller enquired ______ the farmer if he could tell him the way ______ the nearest inn.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Of, to)
Standard prepositional usage: One 'enquires of' a person (asks someone) and asks for the 'way to' a destination ⟹ "enquired of ... way to".
Q1313
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIdioms & Phrases
What does the idiom "salt of the earth" mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Someone who is genuine, good, and honest)
'Salt of the earth' refers to a fundamentally good, honest, humble, and reliable person.
Q1314
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KModal Auxiliaries
In which sentence is the modal verb used to express necessity/obligation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (You should take a break.)
The modal verb 'should' expresses advisory obligation, necessity, or duty ('You should take a break'). 'Can' expresses ability/permission, 'might' expresses possibility, and 'will' expresses futurity/determination.
Q1315
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSubject-Verb Agreement and Tenses
I will definitely help John; he ______ it.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Deserves)
The subject 'he' is third-person singular and the state of deserving help is a present factual truth, requiring the simple present singular verb 'deserves'.
Q1316
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KJamboo Zoo at Nagrota
North India's largest zoo 'Jamboo Zoo' is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Nagrota (Jammu))
Jamboo Zoo (spread over 3,200 kanals / 160 hectares along the Jammu-Srinagar National Highway) is located at Nagrota in the Jammu district.
Q1317
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSocial Reforms: Abolition of Sati (1829)
Name the Governor General who abolished 'Sati' in 1829.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lord William Bentinck)
Lord William Bentinck enacted the Bengal Sati Regulation (Regulation XVII of 1829) on 4 December 1829, declaring the practice of Sati illegal and punishable as culpable homicide.
Q1318
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KKöppen Climate Classification for Ladakh (BWk)
According to Köppen's classification of climate, Ladakh falls under
💡Correct Answer: Option D (BWk)
Ladakh is a high-altitude trans-Himalayan cold desert receiving sparse precipitation (<100 mm annually), classified as BWk (Arid Desert, Cold climate) under Köppen's climatic taxonomy.
Q1319
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KExtreme Weather: Mawsynram Rainfall
The wettest place on Earth is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mawsynram)
Mawsynram in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, India, receives an extraordinary average annual rainfall of nearly 11,872 mm, making it the wettest place on Earth.
Q1320
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSericulture: Silk Extraction
Silk, the natural protein fiber, is obtained from
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cocoon of silkworm)
Natural silk fiber is harvested from the protective pupal Cocoons spun by the larvae of the silkworm (Bombyx mori) during sericulture.
Q1321
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KNandankanan Zoo: White Tigers
Nandankanan Zoological Park (Odisha) is internationally renowned for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (White Tiger)
Nandankanan Zoological Park in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, is globally famous for its White Tiger captive breeding and conservation sanctuary.
Q1322
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSentence Rearrangement
Find the proper sequence of jumbled sentence parts: P: we must read Q: if we want to absorb the fruits of great literature R: but with concentration S: them not as we do cricket stories
💡Correct Answer: Option D (QPSR)
The logical and grammatically coherent sequence is QPSR: "If we want to absorb the fruits of great literature (Q), we must read (P) them not as we do cricket stories (S) but with concentration (R)."
Q1323
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSynonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the word: Consummation
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ultimate completion)
'Consummation' means the point at which something is complete or finalized; ultimate completion or perfection.
Q1324
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KAntonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the word: Dissolute
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Moral)
'Dissolute' means lax in morals, licentious, or corrupt. Its direct opposite is 'Moral' (upright, ethical, and virtuous).
Q1325
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KActive to Passive Voice
Convert into passive voice: "Is Sarah writing the novel?"
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Is the novel being written by Sarah?)
Present continuous interrogative active (Is + Subject + V-ing + Object?) converts to: Is + Object + being + V3 + by Subject? ⟹ "Is the novel being written by Sarah?"
Q1326
General English & ComprehensionPercentages & Expenditure Invariance
If the price of a commodity is increased by 50%, by what fraction must its consumption be reduced so as to keep the expenditure unchanged?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($1/3$)
Reduction in consumption formula: Fraction=100+rr=100+5050=15050=31.
Q1327
General English & ComprehensionProfit, Loss & Successive Transactions
A person sells a car to another person at a loss of 10%. If the second person sells the car for Rs. 54,000 and gains 20%, what was the original actual purchase price of the car?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 50,000)
Cost price to second person =1+0.2054000=1.254000=45,000. Since first person sold at 10% loss: 0.90×Original Price=45,000⟹Original Price=0.945000=Rs. 50,000.
Q1328
General English & ComprehensionNumber Series: Consecutive Even Additions
Complete the series: 18, 28, 40, 54, 70, ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (88)
Differences between successive terms: 28−18=10, 40−28=12, 54−40=14, 70−54=16. Next difference =+18⟹70+18=88.
Q1329
General Intelligence & ReasoningProtein Energy Malnutrition: Kwashiorkor
Children presenting with a swollen 'pot belly' and edema is a classic indicative symptom of which disease?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kwashiorkor)
Kwashiorkor is a form of severe Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) characterized by peripheral edema, protruding pot belly (due to hepatomegaly and ascites), and muscle wasting.
Q1330
General Intelligence & ReasoningRural Connectivity: PMGSY
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched by the Government of India in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2000)
PMGSY was launched on 25 December 2000 by Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee to provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected rural habitations.
Q1331
General Intelligence & ReasoningIodine Deficiency Disorders (IDD): Goitre
Which of the following diseases is caused by the dietary deficiency of iodine?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Goitre)
Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone (T3 and T4) synthesis. Deficiency causes compensatory enlargement of the thyroid gland, known as simple Goitre.
Q1332
General Intelligence & ReasoningVitamins: Vitamin C and Immunity
Which vitamin is commonly believed and recommended to help boost immunity and relieve symptoms of the common cold?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin C)
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) is a water-soluble antioxidant that supports immune defense and cellular functions, widely used to reduce duration of the common cold.
Q1333
General Intelligence & ReasoningEcosystem Types and Ecological Stability
Which of the following is considered the most ecologically stable ecosystem?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Marine / Ocean)
The Marine (Ocean) ecosystem is the largest and most stable ecosystem on Earth due to its immense size, high chemical buffering capacity, stable saline composition, and minimal thermal fluctuations.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A network security system designed to prevent unauthorized access)
A Firewall is a hardware or software-based network security system that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing traffic based on predetermined security rules.
Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a miniature thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slide Sorter)
Slide Sorter View displays all presentation slides as horizontal thumbnail tiles, allowing easy reordering, deleting, and adding transition effects.
Q1337
Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Concepts of E-Governance
The use of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) to improve the ability of government to address the needs of society and deliver citizen services is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (E-Governance)
E-Governance (Electronic Governance) is the application of IT by government agencies to deliver public services, enhance transparency, and empower citizens.
Q1338
Computer (Characteristics & Applications)National Informatics Centre (NIC)
______ provides the primary ICT network backbone and e-governance technical support to government bodies across India.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (NIC (National Informatics Centre))
The National Informatics Centre (NIC, established in 1976 under MeitY) provides technology-driven solutions, data centers, and the core satellite network backbone (NICNET) for Government of India.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It detects and removes covert spyware programs installed illicitly on a user's computer system)
Anti-Spyware is specialized security software that detects, blocks, quarantines, and removes unauthorized tracking and spyware software designed to steal user data.
Q1340
Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Excel Comments and Cell Tips
In Microsoft Excel, informative pop-up notes or comments attached to specific cells are called
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cell Tip / Cell Comment)
In MS Excel, small yellow hover text pop-ups attached to cells are historically called Cell Tips or Cell Comments.
Q1341
Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Cell Referencing: Relative vs Absolute
Which of the following represents an absolute cell reference in MS Excel formula syntax?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($A$1)
An Absolute Cell Reference locks both column and row using dollar signs (`A1`), so the cell reference does not change when copied across formulas.
Q1342
Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Direct and Indirect Speech
Which one best expresses the direct speech statement 'He said, "I must go at once"' in Indirect speech?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (He said that he had to go at once)
In reported speech, 'must' expressing present necessity changes in past reporting to 'had to': "He said that he had to go at once."
Identify the part of the sentence containing a grammatical error: (A) Those two men were (B) Quarrelling with one another (C) Claiming the same watch as their own (D) Since morning
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Part B)
When referring to exactly two individuals, 'each other' must be used rather than 'one another'. Hence Part B is erroneous ("Quarrelling with each other").
Q1344
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Community: Essential Elements
According to sociological analysis (MacIver & Page), which of the following is NOT an essential defining criterion of a community?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Smallness in size)
The essential elements of a community are Locality, Community Sentiment (we-feeling), and a group of people. 'Smallness in size' is not an essential criterion as communities can be massive.
Q1345
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Sociological Theories: W.G. Sumner on Institutions
Which eminent sociologist defined a social institution as "a concept (idea, notion, doctrine, or interest) and a structure"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (W.G. Sumner)
William Graham Sumner in his classic 1906 treatise Folkways famously formulated: "An institution consists of a concept (idea, notion, doctrine, or interest) and a structure."
Q1346
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Primary vs Secondary Social Institutions
Basic social institutions are those essential for societal survival and functioning. Which one of the following is NOT typically classified as a primary foundational social institution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (State (Polity))
While Family, Religion, Economy, and Education are universal universal basic primary institutions across all primitive and modern societies, the formal 'State' is a secondary specialized political institution developed in advanced societies.
Q1347
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Nature of Social Institutions
Consider the following sociological statements: a) Society is a system of social relationships while institutions are established rules of procedures. b) Institutions are recognized and accepted by society. c) Institutions govern relations between members of society. d) Society represents the human aspect, while an institution is a social condition of conduct. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, b, c, and d)
All four statements accurately represent the classical sociological distinction formulated by MacIver & Page between Society (the web of human relations) and Social Institutions (the established normative procedures and rules).
Q1348
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Panic Disorder Criteria
Which psychological disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by persistent apprehension and worry about experiencing further attacks?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Panic disorder)
Panic Disorder is characterized by sudden surges of intense fear/discomfort (panic attacks) accompanied by persistent anticipatory anxiety about having additional attacks.
Q1349
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Challenges in Women's Political Participation
Which of the following is a significant structural and social challenge hindering women's political participation and leadership in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Gender-based violence, intimidation, and harassment in political spaces)
Gender-based online and offline harassment, character assassination, patriarchal gatekeeping in political parties, and safety concerns are major structural impediments to women's active political participation.
Q1350
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN 1951 Refugee Convention Definition
According to the 1951 UN Refugee Convention, which one of the following statements is NOT CORRECT about Refugees?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Poverty is the primary legal reason for being outside the country.)
Statement B is incorrect: Under international law, economic hardship or poverty alone does not qualify a person for legal Refugee status; refugees are specifically defined by a well-founded fear of persecution, conflict, or violence.
Q1351
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Landmark Judgments: D.K. Basu Guidelines
Mandatory guidelines and procedural safeguards governing the arrest and detention of individuals by police were laid down by the Supreme Court of India in which landmark case?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal (1997))
In D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997), the Supreme Court formulated 11 mandatory guidelines (including arrest memos, medical examinations, and informing relatives) to prevent custodial torture and unlawful detention.
Q1352
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Statutory Definitions of Child in Indian Law
Which of the following Indian statutes specifically defines a 'Child' as a person who has not completed their fourteenth (14th) year of age?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986)
Under Section 2(ii) of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, a 'Child' is defined as a person who has not completed 14 years of age (and adolescent as 14–18 years).
Q1353
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Right to Equality: Article 17
Which category of Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution incorporates the 'Abolition of Untouchability' under Article 17?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Right to Equality (Articles 14–18))
Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability and prohibition of its practice) is part of the 'Right to Equality' grouping under Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.
Q1354
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Human Development: Literacy Rate
Which of the following demographic indicators is primarily used to measure the educational attainment within a society?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Literacy Rate)
The Literacy Rate (the percentage of population aged 7 and above who can read and write with understanding) is the primary demographic indicator of foundational educational attainment.
Q1355
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Environmental Terminology & Definitions
Match environmental concepts with their definitions: a. Renewable Energy — 5. Energy derived from naturally replenished sources (sunlight, wind, water) b. Carbon Footprint — 2. Total amount of greenhouse gases emitted directly or indirectly by human activities c. Anthropogenic — 4. Resulting from the influence of human beings on nature d. Climate Mitigation — 3. Actions taken to reduce or prevent GHG emissions e. Greenhouse Effect — 1. Earth's atmosphere trapping solar radiation, increasing surface temperature
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-1)
Environmental definitions: Renewable energy is replenished naturally (a-5); Carbon footprint measures GHG emission total (b-2); Anthropogenic means human-caused (c-4); Mitigation means emissions reduction (d-3); Greenhouse effect warms the planet (e-1) ⟹ a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-1.
Q1356
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Rehabilitation of Beggars and Destitutes
Which approach is considered most constructive and effective for addressing the socioeconomic issue of beggary from a professional social work perspective?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Providing vocational skill training, rehabilitation, and social security programs)
Modern social work emphasizes holistic rehabilitation, skill training, shelter homes, and livelihood support (such as the SMILE scheme) rather than penal punitive criminalization.
Q1357
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Definition and Nature of Corruption
Which concept is internationally defined by Transparency International as 'the abuse of entrusted power for private gain'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Corruption)
Corruption is standardly defined in governance and sociology as the abuse of entrusted power, authority, or office for private, illicit personal gain.
Q1358
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Micronutrients: Vitamin D and Calcium Absorption
Which vitamin is crucial for facilitating intestinal absorption and bone deposition of dietary Calcium?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vitamin D)
Vitamin D (Calcitriol) enhances intestinal calcium and phosphate absorption, essential for bone mineralization; deficiency causes Rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults.
Q1359
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)WHO Ottawa Charter: Health Promotion
What is the primary overarching goal of 'Health Promotion' as articulated in the WHO Ottawa Charter?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prevent diseases and empower individuals/communities to enhance overall health and well-being)
Health promotion is the process of enabling people to increase control over and improve their health, focusing on preventive education, healthy lifestyles, and environmental risk reduction.
Q1360
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Doctors Without Borders (MSF)
Which independent international humanitarian NGO is globally renowned for providing emergency medical assistance in armed conflicts, epidemics, and disaster zones?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Doctors Without Borders (Médecins Sans Frontières / MSF))
Doctors Without Borders (MSF — Médecins Sans Frontières, Nobel Peace Prize 1999) is an independent non-governmental humanitarian medical organization providing emergency care worldwide.
Q1361
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)
The Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) was launched on 11 October 2014 in commemoration of the birth anniversary of which freedom fighter and social reformer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan)
SAGY was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 11 October 2014 on the birth anniversary of Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan to develop model holistic rural villages.
Q1362
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Chronology of Social Welfare Programmes
Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following Central Government Programmes based on the year of their original launch: a) Atal Pension Yojana (2015) b) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana / IAY (1985/2016) c) Integrated Child Development Services - ICDS (1975) d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme - MGNREGS (2005/2006) e) Integrated Rural Development Programme - IRDP (1978/1980)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (c, e, b, d, a)
Chronological launch timeline: ICDS (c, 1975) → IRDP (e, 1978/1980) → IAY/PMAY-G (b, 1985/2016) → MGNREGS (d, 2005/2006) → Atal Pension Yojana (a, 2015) ⟹ c, e, b, d, a.
Q1363
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Senior Citizens Welfare Act 2007
Which Union Ministry is the nodal authority responsible for administering the "Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment)
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE), Government of India, is the nodal central ministry overseeing welfare legislation and tribunals for senior citizens under the 2007 Act.
Q1364
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission)
What is the primary overarching objective of POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To reduce the prevalence of stunting, undernutrition, anemia, and low birth weight in children and women)
POSHAN Abhiyaan (Prime Minister's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment), launched in March 2018, aims to improve nutritional outcomes for children (0–6 years), pregnant women, and lactating mothers by curbing stunting, wasting, and anemia.
Q1365
General EnglishPrepositions in Context
Fill in the blanks: "The team worked tirelessly _______ the guidance of their coach to improve their performance _______ the challenging season."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (under, during)
One works 'under the guidance' of a mentor, and events occur 'during the season' ⟹ "under, during".
Q1366
General EnglishSocio-Religious Organizations & Political Parties
Match the socio-political organizations with their founders: i) Brahmo Samaj — 2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy (along with Dwarkanath Tagore) ii) Swaraj Party — 3. Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru iii) Deccan Education Society — 1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-1)
Historical founding pairs: Brahmo Samaj was founded in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy (i-2); Swaraj Party in 1923 by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru (ii-3); Deccan Education Society in 1884 by Tilak and Agarkar (iii-1) ⟹ i-2, ii-3, iii-1.
Q1367
General EnglishLiteracy Statistics across States
Which state in India recorded the lowest literacy rate (61.80%) as per the 2011 Census?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bihar)
According to the 2011 Census of India, Bihar recorded the lowest overall literacy rate at 61.80% (Male: 71.20%, Female: 51.50%). Kerala recorded the highest at 94.00%.
Q1368
General EnglishPlanetary Winds: ITCZ
The low-pressure equatorial belt where the Northeast and Southeast trade winds converge is known as the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ / Doldrums))
The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is the broad equatorial trough of low pressure where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres converge, associated with convective thunderstorms.
Q1369
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KIndira Gandhi Canal Project
The longest irrigation canal in India that originates from Harike Barrage at the confluence of the Satluj and Beas rivers in Punjab and terminates in Rajasthan is the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Indira Gandhi Canal (Rajasthan Canal))
The Indira Gandhi Canal (650 km long) draws water from the Harike Barrage at the confluence of the Satluj and Beas rivers in Punjab to irrigate the Thar Desert of western Rajasthan.
Q1370
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KJamwal Dynasty of Jammu
Who laid the foundations of the sovereign Jamwal Dogra dynasty of Jammu in the early 18th century?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raja Dhruv Dev)
Raja Dhruv Dev (1703–1725) consolidated the 22 Dogra hill principalities (Duggar) and laid the foundation of the sovereign Jamwal dynasty of Jammu, which reached its zenith under his son Raja Ranjit Dev.
Q1371
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KFestivals: Majuli Festival of Assam
Which of the following is NOT a traditional festival of erstwhile Jammu & Kashmir / Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Majuli festival)
Majuli Festival is an eco-cultural festival celebrated on Majuli river island in Assam. Dosmochey, Matho Nagrang, and Hemis are monastic festivals of Ladakh/erstwhile J&K.
Q1372
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KKashmiri Kashida & Aari Embroidery
Which type of fine embroidery stitch is predominantly used in Kashmiri Kashida (Aari) embroidery on shawls and pherans?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chain stitch (Aari))
Kashmiri Kashida embroidery prominently employs the Chain Stitch (worked with a specialized pointed hooked needle called an Aari), producing floral chinar and paisley motifs.
Q1373
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KState Symbols: UT Bird of J&K
Which bird has been officially designated as the Union Territory Bird of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kalij pheasant)
The Government of Jammu and Kashmir officially declared the Kalij Pheasant (Lophura leucomelanos) as the UT Bird of J&K in October 2021. (The Black-necked crane is the UT bird of Ladakh).
Q1374
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KPakal Dul Hydroelectric Project
Consider the following statements about the Pakal Dul Hydroelectric Project (HEP): 1. It is an under-construction 1,000 MW (1 GW) capacity HEP. 2. It is located on the Marusudar river (a major tributary of the Chenab) in the Kishtwar district of J&K. 3. It features a 167 m high concrete-face rockfill dam. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three statements are correct: The Pakal Dul HEP is a 1,000 MW project being built by CVPPPL on the Marusudar river at Drangal village in Kishtwar district with a 167m high rockfill dam.
Q1375
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KManasbal Lake: Deepest Lake of J&K
Which is the deepest freshwater lake in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Manasbal Lake)
Manasbal Lake (located in Ganderbal district, Kashmir) is the deepest lake in Jammu & Kashmir and India, reaching a maximum depth of 13 meters (43 feet).
Q1376
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KGuchhi Mushrooms of J&K
What is the botanical / scientific name of the wild gourmet Morel mushroom (Guchhi) found in the Himalayan forests of J&K?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Morchella esculenta)
Guchhi (the highly prized yellow morel mushroom harvested from temperate conifer forests of Doda, Kishtwar, and Kupwara) is scientifically named Morchella esculenta.
Q1377
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KMartand Sun Temple
Which 8th-century Karkota dynasty monarch constructed the grand Martand Sun Temple in Anantnag, Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lalitaditya Muktapida)
Emperor Lalitaditya Muktapida (reigned 724–760 AD) of the Karkota dynasty built the monumental Martand Sun Temple atop the Mattan plateau in Anantnag.
Q1378
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KChandanwari & Amarnath Yatra Route
Which of the following statements about Chandanwari in Jammu and Kashmir is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It offers sightseeing opportunities with the Markhar River flowing nearby.)
Statement D is NOT correct because the river flowing through Chandanwari is the Sheshnag stream / Lidder River, not the non-existent 'Markhar River'.
Q1379
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KNumber Theory: Sum of Odd Numbers
What is the sum of all consecutive odd numbers up to 180?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8100)
The odd numbers up to 180 are 1,3,5,...,179. The number of odd terms n=2180=90. Formula for sum of first n odd numbers: Sn=n2=902=8100.
Q1380
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSet Theory & Percentages
In an examination, 77% of students passed in Mathematics and 82% passed in Computer Science. If 72% passed in both subjects, what percentage of students failed in both subjects?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (13%)
Percentage passing at least one subject: P(M∪C)=P(M)+P(C)−P(M∩C)=77%+82%−72%=87%. Percentage failing both subjects =100%−87%=13%.
Q1381
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KAverages and Algebraic Equations
Lavya bought 312 chocolates to distribute among x students. When she bought 364 chocolates for the same x students, the average received per student increased by 1. Find the number of students x and the new average per student.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (52 students, 7 chocolates per student)
Difference in average =x364−x312=x52=1⟹x=52 students. Average with 364 chocolates =52364=7 chocolates.
Q1382
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KLinear Equations & Ratios
Rohit and Mohit together have Rs. 1500. If 73 of Rohit's amount is equal to 52 of Mohit's amount, how much money does Mohit have (rounded to nearest whole rupee)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (776)
Given 73R=52M⟹R=1514M. Substituting into R+M=1500⟹1514M+M=1500⟹1529M=1500⟹M=2922500≈775.86≈Rs. 776.
Q1383
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KTime and Work: Typing Rates
A and B work together to type a 134-page assignment. A types 65 pages in 5 hours, and B types 84 pages in 7 hours. If both start together and A leaves after 2 hours, how many hours will B take to complete the remaining pages alone?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7 hours)
Typing speeds: RA=565=13 pages/hr, RB=784=12 pages/hr. In the first 2 hours, together they type (13+12)×2=50 pages. Remaining pages =134−50=84 pages. Time for B alone =1284=7 hours.
Q1384
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KAlphabet Series
Find the missing term in the alphabet series: GKO, IMQ, KOS, ?, OSW
