JKSSB Drug Control Officer 2025 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

What does Schedule S prescribe under D and C Act 1940?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Standards for Cosmetics. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, Schedule S prescribes the statutory standards, testing specifications, and quality limits for Cosmetics manufactured in India.

Question 2

Indian Veterinary Research Institute is situated at ......

Accepted Answer

Option C: Izatnagar. The Indian Veterinary Research Institute (ICAR-IVRI), established in 1889, is located at Izatnagar, Bareilly in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 3

List of diseases and ailments which a drug may not claim to prevent or cure is covered under .............

Accepted Answer

Option C: Schedule J. Schedule J of the D&C Rules lists diseases and ailments (such as Cancer, AIDS, Diabetes, Blindness) which a drug may not claim to prevent or cure.

Question 4

DTAB has ______ Ex-officio members

Accepted Answer

Option D: Eight. Under Section 5 of the D&C Act 1940, the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) consists of 18 members in total, out of which exactly 8 are Ex-Officio Members (including DGHS, DCGI, CDL Director, CRI Kasauli Director, IVRI Director, Central Drug Research Institute Director, President MCI, and President PCI).

Question 5

Examples of Schedule X except ______

Accepted Answer

Option A: Analgin. Schedule X covers potent psychotropic and habit-forming barbiturates/CNS depressants (Amobarbital, Pentobarbital, Cyclobarbital). Analgin (Metamizole) is an NSAID/analgesic and is not a Schedule X drug.

Question 6

If it is so coloured, coated, powdered or polished that damage is concealed or if it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is;

Accepted Answer

Option C: Misbranded drug. Under Section 17 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940, a drug is deemed to be Misbranded if it is so coloured, coated, powdered, or polished that damage is concealed, or if it is made to appear of greater therapeutic value than it really is.

Question 7

Give the form no. of Licence required for retail sale of drugs other than Schedule C, C1, X

Accepted Answer

Option B: Form 20. Form 20 is the statutory license granted for the retail sale of general allopathic drugs other than those specified in Schedules C, C1, and X (Form 21 is for C/C1; Form 20F is for Schedule X).

Question 8

Application for the grant or renewal of loan license shall be made in ______

Accepted Answer

Option A: Form 24A. Application for the grant or renewal of a Loan License to manufacture for sale of drugs other than those specified in Schedule C/C1 is submitted in Form 24A.

Question 9

The application to import drug as part of bonafide luggage is made to the licensing authority in .......

Accepted Answer

Option C: Form 12B. Under Rule 36 of the D&C Rules, an application for a permit to import small quantities of drugs for personal use as part of bonafide passenger luggage is made in Form 12B (permit issued in Form 12BA).

Question 10

University Grants Commission established under section 4 of ______

Accepted Answer

Option B: UGC Act, 1956. The University Grants Commission (UGC) of India was formally established as a statutory body under Section 4 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956.

Question 11

Register of Pharmacist maintained by the Central Council under ______

Accepted Answer

Option D: Section 15A. Under Section 15A of the Pharmacy Act, 1948, the Central Council (PCI) maintains the Central Register of Pharmacists containing the names of all registered pharmacists across India.

Question 12

In the constitution of Central Council, Six members nominated by ______

Accepted Answer

Option B: Central Government. Under Section 3(a) of the Pharmacy Act 1948, six members (of whom at least four shall be persons possessing a degree or diploma in pharmacy/pharmaceutical chemistry) are nominated by the Central Government.

Question 13

The Pharmacy Council of India is reconstituted by the Central Government every ______

Accepted Answer

Option B: Five years. Under Section 3 of the Pharmacy Act 1948, the Pharmacy Council of India is reconstituted by the Central Government every five years.

Question 14

Penalty for whoever contravenes any of the provision of D.M.R.(O.A) Act, 1954 in case of first conviction ______

Accepted Answer

Option B: Imprisonment 6 months or with fine or with both. Under Section 7(a) of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act 1954, a first conviction is punishable with imprisonment extending to 6 months, or with fine, or with both (second conviction up to 1 year).

Question 15

Who formulated the code of ethics for the Pharmacy Profession?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Pharmacy Council of India. The Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) formulated the official Code of Pharmaceutical Ethics governing pharmacists' relationships to their job, trade, medical profession, and profession.

Question 16

Hawking of drugs is a part of ethics related to ______

Accepted Answer

Option A: Pharmacist in relation to his trade. Under the PCI Code of Pharmaceutical Ethics, prohibition of hawking (canvassing/peddling drugs in public streets) is covered under 'Pharmacist in relation to his trade'.

Question 17

Import of poison under Poison Act, 1919 regulated by ______

Accepted Answer

Option B: Central Government. Under Section 2 of the Poisons Act, 1919, the Central Government is statutory authorized to regulate the importation of poisons into India.

Question 18

The provisions of DPCO are implemented and enforced by ______

Accepted Answer

Option B: NPPA. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA), an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals, enforces and monitors the Drugs (Prices Control) Order.

Question 19

For calculation of price of bulk drugs a return of 12% is allowed on ______ costing

Accepted Answer

Option B: Long term marginal. Under DPCO bulk drug pricing formulas, pre-tax return of 14% on net worth or 12% on Long Term Marginal Costing is allowed for calculating bulk drug ceiling prices.

Question 20

For production from basic stage post tax return of ______ on net worth is considered.

Accepted Answer

Option C: 18%. Under national pharmaceutical pricing formulas for active pharmaceutical ingredients manufactured from the basic chemical stage, an incentive post-tax return of 18% on net worth is permitted.

Question 21

Medical Termination of pregnancy is safe up to ______

Accepted Answer

Option A: 12 weeks. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is medically safest during the first trimester (up to 12 weeks of gestation).

Question 22

Penalty for termination of pregnancy by a person who is not a RMP

Accepted Answer

Option B: Rigorous imprisonment for two to seven years. Under Section 5(2) of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, termination of pregnancy by any person who is not a registered medical practitioner is punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term of two to seven years.

Question 23

The full form of IAEC is ______

Accepted Answer

Option A: Institutional Animal Ethics Committee. IAEC stands for Institutional Animal Ethics Committee, established in every institution conducting animal experimentation under CPCSEA guidelines.

Question 24

Name the local body which allows experiments on small animals.

Accepted Answer

Option A: IAEC. The Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC) is the statutory institutional body empowered to review and permit research protocols involving small laboratory animals (rodents, rabbits).

Question 25

Trade Marks Registry has been established under section of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 to provide for registration and better protection of trademarks for goods and services

Accepted Answer

Option D: Section 5(1). Section 5(1) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 provides for the statutory establishment of the Trade Marks Registry headed by the Controller-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks.

Question 26

Excessive moisture present in tablet granules is responsible for

Accepted Answer

Option C: Sticking. Excessive residual moisture in dried granules causes the formulation to adhere to the die wall and punch faces during compression, resulting in Sticking (and picking).

Question 27

What is the range of angle of repose for excellent flowing property of powder?

Accepted Answer

Option A: $25^\circ	ext{--}30^\circ$. According to pharmacopoeial standards: An angle of repose ($	heta$) between $25^\circ	ext{--}30^\circ$ indicates Excellent powder flow; $31^\circ	ext{--}35^\circ$ indicates Good; $>50^\circ$ indicates Very Poor.

Question 28

Mottling in tablets means

Accepted Answer

Option C: Unequal distribution of colour on a tablet. Mottling is a visual tablet defect characterized by an unequal, non-uniform distribution of colour on the tablet surface due to dye migration.

Question 29

The ratio of rate of urinary excretion to plasma drug concentration is

Accepted Answer

Option B: Renal Clearance. Renal Clearance ($Cl_R$) is defined as: $Cl_R = \frac{	ext{Rate of urinary drug excretion } (dXu/dt)}{	ext{Plasma drug concentration } (C_p)}$.

Question 30

For the preparation of primary emulsion containing fixed oil, the ratio of fixed oil: water :gum is

Accepted Answer

Option D: Ratio 4:2:1. The classic Continental/Dry Gum method uses a standard ratio for primary emulsion: Fixed Oils = 4 : 2 : 1 (Oil:Water:Gum); Mineral Oils = 3 : 2 : 1; Volatile Oils = 2 : 2 : 1.

Question 31

Bioequivalence studies are necessary:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Fixed dose combination products with systemic action. In vivo bioequivalence testing is mandatory for multi-active Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) generic formulations with systemic action to demonstrate therapeutic equivalence.

Question 32

USP Dissolution Apparatus-I is:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Basket type. Under USP dissolution specifications: Apparatus 1 = Rotating Basket; Apparatus 2 = Paddle; Apparatus 3 = Reciprocating Cylinder; Apparatus 4 = Flow-Through Cell; Apparatus 5 = Paddle Over Disc.

Question 33

Live attenuated vaccines are better immunizing agents because:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Replication of organism in a live attenuated vaccine increases the stimulation of the immune system and a lower dose is often required.. Live attenuated vaccines mimic natural subclinical infection: the attenuated pathogen actively replicates in host tissues, providing sustained antigenic presentation, robust humoral and cell-mediated immunity with single lower doses.

Question 34

The loading dose of a drug is determined on the basis of:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Apparent volume of distribution and desired drug concentration in plasma.. Loading dose ($D_L$) is calculated as: $D_L = V_d 	imes C_{target}$ (where $V_d$ is the apparent volume of distribution and $C_{target}$ is the target therapeutic steady-state plasma concentration).

Question 35

Suspending agents are added to suspension for

Accepted Answer

Option B: Increasing the zeta potential. Suspending and deflocculating agents increase the medium viscosity and adjust the surface electrical charge, Increasing the Zeta Potential to prevent rapid irreversible cake formation.

Question 36

Guidelines for stability testing of drugs are given by

Accepted Answer

Option C: Both. International harmonization guidelines for drug stability testing (Q1A-Q1F) are formulated jointly by the International Council for Harmonisation (ICH) and adopted by regulatory authorities including the USFDA and CDSCO (Both).

Question 37

A 500 ml infusion bag of a formulation complies the particulate matter test if the average number of particles greater than or equal to 10 microns, present in the units does not exceed:

Accepted Answer

Option A: 25 particles per ml. Under USP <788> and IP particulate matter standards for large volume parenterals ($>100	ext{ mL}$), the formulation passes if the average count does not exceed 25 particles/mL $\ge 10\ \mu	ext{m}$ (and 3 particles/mL $\ge 25\ \mu	ext{m}$).

Question 38

DOP or smoke test(Dioctyl phthalate test)is used for

Accepted Answer

Option D: Determining HEPA filter integrity. The Dioctyl Phthalate (DOP) aerosol challenge test (or PAO test) is the standard validation test used to verify the filtration efficiency and leak-free integrity of cleanroom HEPA filters ($99.97\%$ retention at $0.3\ \mu	ext{m}$).

Question 39

A drug delivery system which is composed of phospholipids that spontaneously form a multilamellar concentric bilayer vesicles with layers of aqueous media separating the lipid layers is

Accepted Answer

Option B: Liposomes. Liposomes are microscopic vesicular delivery systems formed spontaneously by natural phospholipids organized into concentric spherical lipid bilayers enclosing aqueous compartments.

Question 40

Microencapsulation achieved by

Accepted Answer

Option B: Co-acervation phase separation. Coacervation-Phase Separation (thermal change, non-solvent addition, or complex coacervation) is a premier physical-chemical method for microencapsulating pharmaceutical drug cores.

Question 41

Ophthalmic ointments are primarily anhydrous and contain mineral oil and white petrolatum as the base ingredients.______

Accepted Answer

Option A: The Statement is Correct. Pharmacopoeial sterile ophthalmic ointment bases are anhydrous lipophilic systems formulated with white soft paraffin (petrolatum), liquid paraffin (mineral oil), and wool fat.

Question 42

What does "Cmax" represent in pharmacokinetics?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Maximum concentration of drug in plasma. $C_{\max}$ represents the Maximum (peak) concentration of a drug observed in the systemic blood plasma circulation following administration.

Question 43

What is the term used for the displacement value in suppository formulation?

Accepted Answer

Option A: The volume of base displaced by the drug. The Displacement Value is the number of parts by weight of a medicament that displaces 1 part by weight of the suppository base (representing the volume of base displaced by the drug).

Question 44

Match Property of Surfactant to HLB Values in range:
Property:
1. Emulsifying Agent (W/O)
2. Wetting Agent (O/W)
3. Antifoaming
4. Solubilizer

HLB Values in range:
i. 15 to 20
ii. 1 to 3
iii. 8 to 18 (or 7 to 9)
iv. 3 to 6

Choose the Correct Option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i. On Griffin's HLB scale: 1 -> iv (W/O Emulsifier: 3 to 6), 2 -> iii (Wetting agent: 7 to 9 / O/W Emulsifier: 8 to 16), 3 -> ii (Antifoaming agent: 1 to 3), 4 -> i (Solubilizer: 15 to 20). Correct match: 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.

Question 45

Isoelectric point of type A gelatine is

Accepted Answer

Option C: pH 9.0. Type A gelatin (derived from acid-treated pig skin collagen) has an Isoelectric Point between pH 7.0–9.0 (typically pH 9.0), whereas Type B gelatin (alkali-treated) has an isoelectric point of pH 4.7–5.0.

Question 46

pH of Lachrymal Fluid is ______

Accepted Answer

Option D: pH 7.4. The physiological pH of human tears (lachrymal fluid) is approximately 7.4 (ranging from 7.2 to 7.6), identical to normal blood plasma pH.

Question 47

The Statement 'store in a cool place' as per IP means

Accepted Answer

Option C: Store at any temperature between $8^\circ	ext{C to }25^\circ	ext{C}$. According to Indian Pharmacopoeia storage conditions: 'Cold' = $2^\circ	ext{ to }8^\circ	ext{C}$; 'Cool' = $8^\circ	ext{ to }25^\circ	ext{C}$; 'Room temperature' = $25^\circ	ext{ to }30^\circ	ext{C}$; 'Warm' = $30^\circ	ext{ to }40^\circ	ext{C}$.

Question 48

Which of the following equation gives the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Noyes Whitney equation. The Noyes-Whitney equation ($\frac{dC}{dt} = \frac{D \cdot A}{h}(C_s - C)$) governs the diffusion-controlled dissolution rate of solid drugs in dissolution media.

Question 49

Various polymers used in pharmacy are given. Match them with respective monomer:
Polymer:
1. Carbopol
2. Eudragits
3. Polyethylene
4. Polycarbonate

Monomer:
i. (Bis-phenol + phosgene)
ii. Ethylene
iii. Methacrylate ester
iv. Acrylic Acid

Choose the Correct Option:

Accepted Answer

Option D: 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i. 1 -> iv (Carbopol: crosslinked Acrylic Acid polymer), 2 -> iii (Eudragit: Methacrylic acid/methacrylate copolymer), 3 -> ii (Polyethylene: Ethylene monomer), 4 -> i (Polycarbonate: Bisphenol A + Phosgene). Correct match: 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.

Question 50

Drying of blood products and enzyme based preparation is carried out by:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Lyophilization. Thermolabile biological preparations, blood products, proteins, and enzymes are dehydrated using Lyophilization (Freeze-drying / sublimation under vacuum).

Question 51

Which of the following culture media is used to detect fungi in sterility testing.

Accepted Answer

Option A: Soybean casein Digest medium. Under IP/USP sterility testing, Fluid Thioglycollate Medium (FTM) is used primarily for anaerobic/aerobic bacteria, while Soybean-Casein Digest Medium (SCDM / TSB) incubated at $20	ext{--}25^\circ	ext{C}$ is used for detecting fungi and aerobic bacteria.

Question 52

As per IP, temperature range for incubation in sterility testing is

Accepted Answer

Option B: $20	ext{--}25^\circ	ext{C}$. According to Indian Pharmacopoeia sterility testing monographs, Soybean Casein Digest Medium for fungi is incubated at $20	ext{--}25^\circ	ext{C}$ (and FTM for bacteria at $30	ext{--}35^\circ	ext{C}$).

Question 53

Animals commonly used in pyrogen testing

Accepted Answer

Option A: Rabbit. Healthy mature Albino Rabbits are statutory mandated for the in vivo Rabbit Pyrogen Test due to their reproducible hyperthermic fever response matching human pyrogen sensitivity.

Question 54

Assertion: Thioglycollic acid is added in limit test of heavy metals
Reason: Thioglycollic acid acts as reducing and complexing agent
Which of the following is correct?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Both A and R are true. In the limit test for iron (and select heavy metals), Thioglycolic acid reduces ferric ($Fe^{3+}$) ions to ferrous ($Fe^{2+}$) and forms a stable reddish-purple coordination complex with iron in ammoniacal medium (Both A and R are true).

Question 55

Lead reacts with dithizone to give ______ complex

Accepted Answer

Option A: Violet. In the pharmacopoeial limit test for Lead, lead ions ($Pb^{2+}$) react with dithizone (diphenylthiocarbazone) reagent in ammoniacal cyanide solution to form a distinctive violet-red / plum-violet lead dithizonate complex.

Question 56

Arsine gas reacts with ______ to give yellow stain

Accepted Answer

Option A: $	ext{HgCl}_2$. In the Gutzeit limit test for Arsenic, generated arsine gas ($AsH_3$) reacts with Mercuric Chloride ($	ext{HgCl}_2$) test paper to produce a yellow-to-brown stain of mercuric arsenide.

Question 57

In fluorimetry, the wavelength of fluorescent radiation ______

Accepted Answer

Option B: Is more than wavelength of absorbed radiation. Due to Stokes Shift (energy loss via non-radiative vibrational relaxation in the excited state), emitted fluorescence photons have lower energy and therefore a Longer (higher) Wavelength than the absorbed excitation radiation ($\lambda_{	ext{em}} > \lambda_{	ext{abs}}$).

Question 58

Which one of the following is an example of wavelength selector in UV visible spectroscopy

Accepted Answer

Option B: Monochromator. A Monochromator (comprising entrance slit, dispersion prism/diffraction grating, and exit slit) functions as the wavelength selector isolating narrow monochromatic bands in UV-Vis spectrophotometers.

Question 59

Paracetamol and ibuprofen combination can be analyzed by using the following method.

Accepted Answer

Option C: Simultaneous Equation method. Binary combination formulations (Paracetamol + Ibuprofen) with overlapping UV absorption spectra are quantitatively resolved without chemical separation using the Simultaneous Equation Method (Vierordt's two-wavelength method).

Question 60

Naphelometry is based on

Accepted Answer

Option A: Light scattering. Nephelometry quantitatively measures the intensity of light Scattered at a $90^\circ$ angle by suspended colloidal particles in a liquid suspension.

Question 61

Assertion: On increasing pH phenol shows bathochromic shift
Reason: Phenol exists in phenoxide ion, which shows more absorption increasing wavelength.
Which of the following is correct?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Both A and R are true. Both A and R are true: Deprotonation of phenol at alkaline pH produces the phenoxide anion, where the unshared electron pair on oxygen conjugates more strongly with the aromatic $\pi$-system, lowering the $\pi -> \pi^*$ excitation energy and causing a red shift (Bathochromic shift to longer $\lambda_{\max}$).

Question 62

Beer Lambert 's law gives the relation between which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Energy absorption and concentration. The Beer-Lambert Law ($A = \varepsilon \cdot b \cdot c$) mathematically relates monochromatic radiant Energy Absorption (absorbance) to the molar Concentration of absorbing species and optical path length.

Question 63

What is the main clinical use of Turbidimetry

Accepted Answer

Option D: Determination of concentration of total proteins in biological fluids.. Turbidimetry is clinically employed for the rapid quantitative determination of Total Protein concentrations in biological fluids (CSF, urine, plasma) and immunoturbidimetric assays.

Question 64

When molecules are excited in visible region, which lamp is used.

Accepted Answer

Option C: Tungsten lamp. A Tungsten-Halogen filament lamp provides a stable continuous emission spectrum across the Visible and near-infrared regions ($320	ext{--}1100	ext{ nm}$), whereas Deuterium lamps are used for the UV range ($190	ext{--}380	ext{ nm}$).

Drug Control Officer2025

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JKSSB — Drug Control Officer (2025)

What does Schedule S prescribe under D and C Act 1940?

Indian Veterinary Research Institute is situated at ......

List of diseases and ailments which a drug may not claim to prevent or cure is covered under .............

DTAB has ______ Ex-officio members

Examples of Schedule X except ______

If it is so coloured, coated, powdered or polished that damage is concealed or if it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is;

Give the form no. of Licence required for retail sale of drugs other than Schedule C, C1, X

Application for the grant or renewal of loan license shall be made in ______

The application to import drug as part of bonafide luggage is made to the licensing authority in .......

University Grants Commission established under section 4 of ______

Register of Pharmacist maintained by the Central Council under ______

In the constitution of Central Council, Six members nominated by ______

The Pharmacy Council of India is reconstituted by the Central Government every ______

Penalty for whoever contravenes any of the provision of D.M.R.(O.A) Act, 1954 in case of first conviction ______

Who formulated the code of ethics for the Pharmacy Profession?

Hawking of drugs is a part of ethics related to ______

Import of poison under Poison Act, 1919 regulated by ______

The provisions of DPCO are implemented and enforced by ______

For calculation of price of bulk drugs a return of 12% is allowed on ______ costing

For production from basic stage post tax return of ______ on net worth is considered.

Medical Termination of pregnancy is safe up to ______

Penalty for termination of pregnancy by a person who is not a RMP

The full form of IAEC is ______

Name the local body which allows experiments on small animals.

Trade Marks Registry has been established under section of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 to provide for registration and better protection of trademarks for goods and services

Excessive moisture present in tablet granules is responsible for

What is the range of angle of repose for excellent flowing property of powder?

Mottling in tablets means

The ratio of rate of urinary excretion to plasma drug concentration is

For the preparation of primary emulsion containing fixed oil, the ratio of fixed oil: water :gum is

Bioequivalence studies are necessary:

USP Dissolution Apparatus-I is:

Live attenuated vaccines are better immunizing agents because:

The loading dose of a drug is determined on the basis of:

Suspending agents are added to suspension for

Guidelines for stability testing of drugs are given by

A 500 ml infusion bag of a formulation complies the particulate matter test if the average number of particles greater than or equal to 10 microns, present in the units does not exceed:

DOP or smoke test(Dioctyl phthalate test)is used for

A drug delivery system which is composed of phospholipids that spontaneously form a multilamellar concentric bilayer vesicles with layers of aqueous media separating the lipid layers is

Microencapsulation achieved by

Ophthalmic ointments are primarily anhydrous and contain mineral oil and white petrolatum as the base ingredients.______

What does "Cmax" represent in pharmacokinetics?

What is the term used for the displacement value in suppository formulation?

Match Property of Surfactant to HLB Values in range:Property:1. Emulsifying Agent (W/O)2. Wetting Agent (O/W)3. Antifoaming4. SolubilizerHLB Values in range:i. 15 to 20ii. 1 to 3iii. 8 to 18 (or 7 to 9)iv. 3 to 6Choose the Correct Option:

Isoelectric point of type A gelatine is

pH of Lachrymal Fluid is ______

The Statement 'store in a cool place' as per IP means

Which of the following equation gives the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?

Various polymers used in pharmacy are given. Match them with respective monomer:Polymer:1. Carbopol2. Eudragits3. Polyethylene4. PolycarbonateMonomer:i. (Bis-phenol + phosgene)ii. Ethyleneiii. Methacrylate esteriv. Acrylic AcidChoose the Correct Option:

Drying of blood products and enzyme based preparation is carried out by:

Which of the following culture media is used to detect fungi in sterility testing.

As per IP, temperature range for incubation in sterility testing is

Animals commonly used in pyrogen testing

Assertion: Thioglycollic acid is added in limit test of heavy metalsReason: Thioglycollic acid acts as reducing and complexing agentWhich of the following is correct?

Lead reacts with dithizone to give ______ complex

Arsine gas reacts with ______ to give yellow stain

In fluorimetry, the wavelength of fluorescent radiation ______

Which one of the following is an example of wavelength selector in UV visible spectroscopy

Paracetamol and ibuprofen combination can be analyzed by using the following method.

Naphelometry is based on

Assertion: On increasing pH phenol shows bathochromic shiftReason: Phenol exists in phenoxide ion, which shows more absorption increasing wavelength.Which of the following is correct?

Beer Lambert 's law gives the relation between which of the following?

What is the main clinical use of Turbidimetry

When molecules are excited in visible region, which lamp is used.

Which type of bioassay method are not type of Graded response

What is the primary principle of the Karl Fischer Titration?

Listed below are substances which are assayed by methods in i to iii. Match them:Substance:1. Ascorbic Acid2. Thiamine Hydrochloride3. Pyridoxine HydrochlorideMethod:i. Spectrophotometryii. Fluorimetryiii. Ceric ammonium sulphate oxidationChoose the Correct Option:

The alcoholic concentration of spirit is ______ than aromatic waters

The chemical shift value is

Energy absorbed in U.V. region produces changes in the

Which of the following drug belongs to the class of benzodiazepine

Choose the correct brand name for the following drug: [Chemical Structure: 2-(4-isobutylphenyl)propanoic acid]

Which of the following drug is prepared from 1-naphthol?

In digitalis glycoside C17 position of steroidal ring is substituted by

Match the columns:Drug:i. Astemizoleii. Diethyl stilbesteroliii. Indomethaciniv. DiltiazemRing / Group:1. Phenol ring2. Indole ring3. Benzothiazepine ring4. 1,3-benzodiazole ringChoose the Correct Option:

Assertion: Clonidine is used as antihypertensive drugReason: Clonidine is centrally acting α2\alpha_2α2​ agonistWhich of the following is correct?

Chlordiazepoxide is synthesized from

Match Property of Surfactant to HLB Values in range:
Property:
1. Emulsifying Agent (W/O)
2. Wetting Agent (O/W)
3. Antifoaming
4. Solubilizer

HLB Values in range:
i. 15 to 20
ii. 1 to 3
iii. 8 to 18 (or 7 to 9)
iv. 3 to 6

Choose the Correct Option:

Various polymers used in pharmacy are given. Match them with respective monomer:
Polymer:
1. Carbopol
2. Eudragits
3. Polyethylene
4. Polycarbonate

Monomer:
i. (Bis-phenol + phosgene)
ii. Ethylene
iii. Methacrylate ester
iv. Acrylic Acid

Choose the Correct Option:

Assertion: Thioglycollic acid is added in limit test of heavy metals
Reason: Thioglycollic acid acts as reducing and complexing agent
Which of the following is correct?

Assertion: On increasing pH phenol shows bathochromic shift
Reason: Phenol exists in phenoxide ion, which shows more absorption increasing wavelength.
Which of the following is correct?

Listed below are substances which are assayed by methods in i to iii. Match them:
Substance:
1. Ascorbic Acid
2. Thiamine Hydrochloride
3. Pyridoxine Hydrochloride

Method:
i. Spectrophotometry
ii. Fluorimetry
iii. Ceric ammonium sulphate oxidation

Choose the Correct Option:

Match the columns:
Drug:
i. Astemizole
ii. Diethyl stilbesterol
iii. Indomethacin
iv. Diltiazem

Ring / Group:
1. Phenol ring
2. Indole ring
3. Benzothiazepine ring
4. 1,3-benzodiazole ring

Choose the Correct Option:

Assertion: Clonidine is used as antihypertensive drug
Reason: Clonidine is centrally acting $\alpha_2$ agonist
Which of the following is correct?

Assertion: Oxazepam is a short acting sedative
Reason: Oxazepam belongs to the class of benzodiazepine
Which of the following is correct?

Match the columns:
Brand:
i. Viagra
ii. I pill
iii. Omnacortil
iv. Primacort

Generic:
1. Levonorgestrel
2. Prednisolone
3. Hydrocortisone
4. Sildenafil

Choose the Correct Option:

Assertion: Risperidone shows lower incidences of extra pyramidal side effects
Reason: Risperidone has high affinity for 5HT2A receptors as compared with D2 receptors.
Which of the following is correct?

Match the columns:
Drug:
i. Ethosuximide
ii. Fluphenazine
iii. Thiopental
iv. Trimethadione

Class:
1. Oxazolidinedion
2. Barbiturates
3. Phenothiazine
4. Succinimides

Choose the correct option:

Assertion: Esmolol is shortest acting $\beta$ blocker
Reason: Esmolol contains metabolically labile ester group.
Which of the following is correct?

Consider the following states:
1. Rajasthan
2. Gujarat
3. Jammu & Kashmir
4. Himachal Pradesh
Desert Development programme was started in which of the above states?