Preamble, Fundamental Rights & Duties, Directive Principles (DPSP), President, Prime Minister, Parliament, Supreme Court, High Courts, and Panchayati Raj.
The first legislature of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir was called the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Praja Sabha)
The first legislature of Jammu and Kashmir was established in 1934 by Maharaja Hari Singh and was called the Praja Sabha.
Q2
🏛️ CivicsPolity
What is the official language of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Urdu)
Urdu was traditionally the sole official language of Jammu and Kashmir since 1889. Although the J&K Official Languages Act, 2020 added Kashmiri, Dogri, Hindi, and English as official languages, Urdu remains the standard correct answer in classical state competitive exams.
Q3
📝 EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with a suitable article:
The Sun rises in the east and sets in ___ west.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (the)
Directions (east, west, north, south) take the definite article 'the' when preceded by a preposition. Therefore, 'sets in the west'.
Q4
💻 ComputerE-Governance
What does "Smart Governance" involve?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Integrating IT to improve service delivery and decision-making)
Smart Governance (Simple, Moral, Accountable, Responsive, and Transparent) involves using Information and Communication Technology (ICT) to make government services and decision-making more efficient.
Q5
💻 ComputerE-Governance
The "UMANG" app allows citizens to access:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Government services and information)
UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is a multi-platform government app designed to provide single-point access to various central and state government services.
Q6
🏛️ CivicsLegal Amendments
Which section of Reserve Bank of India has been amended after the commencement of information technology act 2000 to include electronic fund transfer services like NEFT, RTGS etc?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section 58 (2))
Section 58(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, was amended by the IT Act, 2000, to authorize regulations for electronic fund transfers.
Q7
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
How many types of Fundamental rights are provided by Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (6)
Originally, the Indian Constitution provided seven fundamental rights, but the Right to Property was deleted by the 44th Amendment in 1978. Currently, there are six fundamental rights.
Q8
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
What is the maximum number of Members in Lok Sabha?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (552)
As per the Constitution of India, the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552 (530 representing States, 20 representing Union Territories, and 2 nominated from the Anglo-Indian community, which has since been abolished).
Q9
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
By which name/names is our country mentioned in the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bharat and India)
Article 1 of the Constitution of India states: 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.' Thus, both India and Bharat are the official names mentioned.
Q10
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 17)
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, making it a punishable offense.
Q11
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
At present how many Fundamental Duties are in the Constitution of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (11)
Originally, 10 Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 added the 11th duty, making the current total 11.
Q12
🏛️ CivicsJ&K History & Polity
On which date J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 came into force?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (31 October 2019)
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, which reconstituted the state into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh), was passed on August 5, 2019, and officially came into force on October 31, 2019.
Q13
📝 EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank: "________ unit means a measurement."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a)
The word 'unit' begins with a consonant sound /juː/ (like 'Y-o-u'), so the indefinite article 'a' is used before it.
Q14
💻 ComputerE-Governance
Which term refers to the use of IT to engage citizens in the decision-making process?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Participatory Governance)
Participatory Governance (enabled through IT/E-democracy) refers to direct involvement of citizens in public administration and decision-making processes using digital tools.
Q15
🏛️ CivicsIndian Constitution
Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the directive principles of state policy on 'Promotion of international peace and security'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 51)
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to endeavor to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, and foster respect for international law.
Q16
🏛️ CivicsJ&K Polity
As per the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the UT of Ladakh comprises of which of the following territories of the state of J&K?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kargil and Leh Districts)
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh comprises the districts of Kargil and Leh.
Q17
📝 EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks: ________ children recited ________ poem in ________ honour of ________ Prime Minister.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (the, a, the, the)
The complete sentence is: 'The children recited a poem in the honour of the Prime Minister.' (Note: the printed question text had only three blanks, but the options had four article items. It is resolved by placing 'the' before children, 'a' before poem, 'the' before honour, and 'the' before Prime Minister).
Q18
📝 EnglishArticles
Sarah was excited to visit _____ Eiffel Tower during her trip to Paris.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (the, No article)
'The' is used before unique geographical monuments (the Eiffel Tower). Names of cities (Paris) do not take an article.
Q19
📝 EnglishArticles
Eating _____ orange and _____ banana together may cause digestive issues because they have different digestion rates.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (an, a)
'an' is used before 'orange' because it starts with a vowel sound. 'a' is used before 'banana' because it starts with a consonant sound.
Q20
🏛️ CivicsPolity
Which language is primarily used for delivering judgments and legal documentation in the Supreme Court of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (English)
Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in the English language.
Q21
📝 EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options. John decided to enroll in _____ MBA program at _____ University to enhance his business skills.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (an, a)
Use 'an' before 'MBA' because it begins with a vowel sound (/ɛm/). Use 'a' before 'University' because it begins with a consonant sound (/juː/).
Q22
📝 EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options. I work at _____ company in New York. _____ company is called Global Tech Solutions.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a, the)
'a' is used for the first mention of a non-specific singular countable noun ('a company'). 'the' is used for the second mention because the company has now been specified.
Q23
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
Who was the first Home Minister of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel)
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as the first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister of independent India from 1947 to 1950.
Q24
🏛️ CivicsIndian Constitution
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 19)
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d) as a Fundamental Right.
Q25
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity
The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sarojini Naidu)
Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to become the Governor of an Indian state (United Provinces, now Uttar Pradesh) in independent India, from 1947 to 1949.
Q26
🏛️ CivicsPolitical Terms
What is a Junta?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Military group that takes control of the government)
A 'junta' (specifically a military junta) refers to a committee or group of military leaders who run a country, usually after taking power by force.
Q27
🏛️ CivicsJ&K History & Polity
Who became the first Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir after the title change from Prime Minister?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq)
Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq served as the last Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir and became the first Chief Minister of the state in 1965 after the designations were changed by the 6th Amendment.
Q28
🏛️ CivicsIndian Constitution
The concept of the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Australian Constitution)
The concept of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the Constitution of Australia.
Q29
🏛️ CivicsIndian Constitution
'Equal pay for equal work' has been ensured in the Indian Constitution as which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Directive Principle of State Policy)
Article 39(d) under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) of the Indian Constitution ensures equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Q30
🏛️ CivicsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Under which Section of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was the Union Territory of Ladakh created without a Legislature?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Section 3)
Section 3 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 provides for the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature, while Section 4 provides for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature.
Q31
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
Which Article of the Constitution of India details the procedure for amending the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 368)
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution of India grants power to Parliament to amend the Constitution and details the procedure for doing so.
Q32
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the constitution of which country?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ireland)
The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution).
Q33
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Vice-President of India)
According to Article 64 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q34
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
The Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (86th Amendment Act)
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a Fundamental Right.
Q35
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
How many Schedules were originally present in the Constitution of India when it was adopted in 1949?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8)
The Constitution of India originally had 8 schedules when adopted in 1949. Currently, there are 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
Q36
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The President of India)
Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
Q37
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 14)
Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
Q38
🏛️ CivicsIndian Polity & Constitution
What is the minimum age required to contest elections for the Lok Sabha in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (25 years)
Article 84(b) of the Constitution of India provides that the minimum age to be eligible for election as a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years.
Q39
📝 EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with the appropriate article: 'She is ________ MBA graduate.'
💡Correct Answer: Option B (an)
Even though 'M' is a consonant letter, the word 'MBA' starts with a vowel sound /em/. Hence, the article 'an' is appropriate.
Q40
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal & Constitution
Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal? a. Article 24 b. Article 21 c. Article 48 A d. Article 51-A(g)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, c, and d)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act 2010 drawing inspiration from Article 21 (Right to a healthy environment), Article 48A (Duty of the State to protect the environment and forests), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental duty of citizens to protect nature). Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of child labour in factories.
Q41
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBIS Standards for Effluents
Identify the guiding standard for industrial effluent from the following:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (IS 2490-1974)
IS 2490 (1974 / 1981) provides the Indian Standard tolerance limits for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface waters.
Q42
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEIA Public Hearing Exemptions
Consider the following projects and choose the best option for which the Public hearing is not required in the EIA? i. Strengthening and widening of highways. ii. Modernization of existing irrigation projects.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both i and ii)
Under the EIA Notification 2006 (and its amendments), public hearing is exempt for projects involving highway expansion/widening without substantial additional land acquisition, as well as the modernization of existing irrigation projects without changing command area boundaries.
Q43
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEPA 1986 Penalties
What sanctions apply when the Environment Protection Act is violated?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Fine & Imprisonment)
Under Section 15 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, non-compliance or contravention is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine up to ₹1,00,000, or with both, plus additional daily fines for continuing offenses.
Q44
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceStockholm Conference & EPA History
The Environment Protection Act 1986 was enacted following the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stockholm)
India enacted the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution to implement the decisions taken at the landmark United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at Stockholm in June 1972.
Q45
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceRiver Basin Authorities & NGRBA
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is responsible for ________ duties.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Developmental and regulatory)
The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA, established in 2009 under the EPA) was vested with both developmental functions (planning, river conservation schemes) and regulatory functions (enforcing water quality standards and pollution control).
Q46
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1981
Consider the following pairs from the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981: 1. Section 21 | a. Power of State Government to supersede State Board 2. Section 47 | b. Power of State Government to make rules 3. Section 53 | c. Restrictions on use of certain industrial plants 4. Section 54 | d. Power of Central Government to make rules Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b)
Under the Air Act, 1981: Section 21 deals with restrictions on the use of certain industrial plants (1-c); Section 47 provides the power of the State Government to supersede the State Board (2-a); Section 53 gives power to the Central Government to make rules (3-d); and Section 54 gives power to the State Government to make rules (4-b).
Q47
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBasel Convention on Hazardous Wastes
Which of the following convention governs the Hazardous waste management?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Basel Convention)
The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal (1989) is the international treaty specifically governing hazardous waste management and minimizing its transboundary shipments.
Q48
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePrecautionary Principle & Jurisprudence
The "Precautionary Principle" enshrined in the Environment (Protection) Act emphasizes:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Taking preventive measures when an activity could harm the environment)
The Precautionary Principle states that where there are threats of serious or irreversible environmental damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective preventive measures.
Q49
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCoastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) & EPA
The amendments to the Environment (Protection) Act in 1991 extended its provisions to cover:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Coastal areas and regulation of hazardous substances)
In February 1991, under the Environment (Protection) Act, the Ministry issued the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, regulating developmental activities along coastal areas and strengthening hazardous substances rules.
Q50
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEIA Categorization (Category A & B)
The EIA notification categorizes projects into two broad categories based on their potential environmental impacts. These categories are:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Category A and Category B)
The EIA Notification 2006 classifies all developmental projects into Category A (projects appraised at the Central Level by MoEFCC) and Category B (projects appraised at the State Level by SEIAA).
Q51
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePollution Control Boards Functions
The central and state pollution control boards were established under these acts to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Implement and enforce pollution control measures)
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) were established under the Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981 to implement, monitor, and enforce statutory pollution control standards across India.
Q52
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater Act 1974 Consent Provisions
Under the Water Act, 1974, no person can discharge any pollutant into a water body without obtaining:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Consent from the State Pollution Control Board)
Under Section 25 and 26 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, no industry or person can establish or operate any outlet to discharge trade effluent or sewage without the prior Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO) from the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB).
Q53
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir Act 1981 Powers
The Air Act, 1981, empowers the central and state boards to take measures for:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Preventing and controlling air pollution)
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 empowers environmental boards to declare air pollution control areas, set emission standards, inspect industrial plants, and take all necessary measures for the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution.
Q54
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBhopal Gas Tragedy & EPA 1986
When EPA came into force?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (After Bhopal Gas tragedy)
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted by the Parliament of India in the immediate aftermath of the catastrophic December 1984 Bhopal Gas Tragedy (Union Carbide pesticide plant toxic methyl isocyanate gas leak).
Q55
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBiological Diversity Act 2002
Consider the following statements: a. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2002. b. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2010. c. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1996. d. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1977. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY- a)
The Biological Diversity Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in the year 2002 to preserve biological diversity, ensure sustainable use of its components, and secure equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
Q56
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater Act 1974 Sections
Which section of Water Act 1974 deals with Compulsory acquisition of land for the State Board?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section 56 of Water Act 1974)
Section 56 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 provides for the compulsory acquisition of land for the State Pollution Control Board under the provisions of the Land Acquisition Act.
Q57
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceISO 14000 Environmental Management Standards
Which of the ISO 14000 series of standards focuses on evaluation of environmental performance?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (14031)
ISO 14031 provides international standard guidelines on Environmental Performance Evaluation (EPE) within an organization's Environmental Management System.
Q58
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Regulatory Framework in India
Which of the following is NOT the key environmental regulatory authority in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Department of Environment (DOE))
The primary statutory environmental regulatory authorities in India are MoEFCC, CPCB, and SPCBs. The historical 'Department of Environment' was merged into the full-fledged Ministry (MoEFCC) in 1985.
Q59
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePublic Liability Insurance Act 1991
Which victim of an accident is liable for Public Liability Insurance act-1991?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Handling hazardous substances)
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 was enacted to provide immediate relief to persons affected by accidents occurring while handling hazardous substances on a no-fault liability basis.
Q60
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Environment Policy (NEP 2006)
Which is the most recent pronouncement of the government's commitment to improve environmental conditions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (National Environmental Policy)
The National Environment Policy (NEP 2006) represents the comprehensive overarching national policy framework approved by the Government of India for environmental conservation, pollution control, and sustainable development.
Q61
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Terms & Organizations
Consider the following pairs: a. Unit of (BOD/COD) — 1. National Green Tribunal b. NGT — 2. Unitless c. PAN — 3. m3/s d. Conductivity — 4. National Geographic Tracking Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-2, b-1)
NGT stands for National Green Tribunal (b-1), and in standardized matching options, BOD/COD is expressed in concentration units (mg/L) or ratios.
Q62
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceChronology of Indian Environmental Acts
Arrange the following environmental legislations in India, in chronological order with respect to their passing and enactment. 1. The air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act 2. Forest conservation Act 3. Wildlife protection Act 4. The water (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3, 4, 2, 1)
Chronological enactment order of Indian environmental acts: 3. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 → 4. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 → 2. Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 → 1. Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Correct sequence: 3, 4, 2, 1.
Q63
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCPCB Constitution & Water Act
In constitution of central board for prevention and control of water pollution how many persons are nominated by government, which represents the companies or corporation owned, controlled or managed by central government.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
Under Section 3(2)(c) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Central Government nominates not more than three persons to represent corporations/companies owned, controlled, or managed by the Central Government.
Q64
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceSolid Waste Management Rules 2016
As per Solid Waste Management rule 2016 which ministry decides tariff or charges for the power generated from the waste to energy plant based on solid waste.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Power)
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, the Ministry of Power (and State Electricity Regulatory Commissions) is responsible for determining the tariff, power purchase agreements, and mandatory power procurement from Waste-to-Energy (WtE) plants.
Q65
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyKigali Amendment on HFCs
With reference to the Kigali Agreement, consider the following statement: 1. It was introduced as an amendment to the Montreal Protocol 2. It aims for the phase-down of HFCs 3. It came into force in September 2019 Which of the following are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 only)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Kigali Amendment (2016) amended the Montreal Protocol to legally phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Statement 3 is incorrect because it came into force globally on 1 January 2019.
Q66
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWildlife Protection Act Protected Areas
Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife protection act, 1972? 1. National parks 2. Wildlife sanctuaries 3. Biosphere reserves Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 only)
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 specifically provides for the statutory declaration and management of Sanctuaries, National Parks, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves. Biosphere Reserves are established under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme.
Q67
📜 Environmental Law & Governance42nd Constitutional Amendment & Environment
Which amendment explicitly incorporated Article 48-A and 51-A (g) into the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
The landmark 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Article 48A (Directive Principle directing the State to protect and improve the environment) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty of citizens).
Q68
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal (NGT) Act 2010
When was National Green Tribunal established in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2010)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on 18 October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
Q69
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir (Amendment) Act 1987 & Noise
Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1987)
Noise was formally included in the definition of 'air pollutant' under Section 2(a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act through the Air (Amendment) Act of 1987.
Q70
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceLandfill Siting Buffer Distances
According to Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, a landfill site should be how many meters away from a river?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (100 m)
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, a sanitary landfill site must be located at a minimum buffer distance of 100 meters away from any river or water body.
Q71
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCategory B2 EIA Exemptions
Which one of the categories of development does not require an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) report?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Category B2 projects)
Under the EIA Notification 2006, Category B2 projects are specifically exempted from preparing a comprehensive EIA report and public hearing, and are appraised directly based on their application form (Form 1/1A).
Q72
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePlastic Waste EPR Categories
Match the following with respect to plastic packaging: List 1: 1. Category I, 2. Category II, 3. Category III, 4. Category IV List 2: i. Multilayered plastic packaging, ii. Carry bags of compostable plastic, iii. Rigid plastic packaging, iv. Flexible plastic packaging single or multilayer Select the correct option:
Under Plastic Waste Management (Extended Producer Responsibility) Rules: Category I = Rigid plastic packaging (iii), Category II = Flexible plastic packaging (iv), Category III = Multi-layered plastic packaging (i), Category IV = Plastic sheet/carry bags of compostable plastic (ii). Option B matches perfectly.
Q73
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceRio Declaration 1992 & EIA
Which international agreement, signed in 1992, emphasizes the importance of conducting EIAs for projects that may have transboundary environmental effects?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rio Declaration)
Principle 17 of the landmark 1992 Rio Declaration on Environment and Development explicitly mandated Environmental Impact Assessment as a national instrument for proposed activities likely to have significant adverse environmental impacts.
Q74
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Clearance Validity
According to the EIA Notification 2006, what is the maximum duration for which environmental clearance for a project under Category A is valid?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (10 years)
Under the EIA Notification 2006 (as amended by MoEFCC in 2022), the prior Environmental Clearance (EC) granted for Category A developmental projects is valid for a maximum duration of 10 years (and up to 30/50 years for mining).
Q75
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCoastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Distances
According to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification 2006, what is the minimum distance from the high tide line that should be maintained for building new structures in the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)-I?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (500 meters)
Under Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) regulations, the standard landward regulatory zone extends up to 500 meters from the High Tide Line (HTL), within which CRZ-I (ecologically sensitive inter-tidal areas) strictly prohibits new permanent civil construction.
Q76
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEPA 1986 Penalties & Imprisonment
What is the maximum penalty, in terms of imprisonment, specified in The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, for offenses related to environmental pollution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5 years)
Under Section 15 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the primary maximum imprisonment penalty for contravention of any provision is 5 years (which may extend to 7 years if non-compliance continues beyond one year after conviction).
Q77
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater (Amendment) Act 1988
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, was amended in 1988 to include a new chapter specifically dealing with
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conservation of coastal areas)
The 1988 Amendment to the Water Act strengthened enforcement powers, specifically introducing Section 33A granting the Board power to give binding directions for closure, prohibition, or regulation of industries.
Q78
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir Act: Emission Limits
Under The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, which term refers to the maximum amount of pollutants that a particular source is allowed to emit over a specific period?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Emission limit)
An 'Emission Limit' (or emission standard) specifies the legal maximum permissible rate, mass, or concentration of pollutants that a specific industrial stack or source is legally allowed to discharge.
Q79
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionConstitutional History & 1947 Act
Which of the following statements about the Indian Independence Act of 1947 is false?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (This Act leads to the establishment of the Constituent Assembly of India.)
Statement B is false because the Constituent Assembly of India was formed earlier in November/December 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, NOT under the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
Q80
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Duties & Amendments
Which constitutional amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
Fundamental Duties (Article 51A in Part IVA) were incorporated into the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee via the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
Q81
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionEmergency Provisions & Fundamental Rights
Which Article of the Indian constitution describes the effect of a national emergency on fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Articles 358 and 359)
Articles 358 (automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19) and 359 (suspension of the enforcement of other fundamental rights except Articles 20 and 21) describe the effect of a National Emergency on fundamental rights.
Q82
📜 J&K Reorganisation Act 2019Representation in Parliament: Rajya Sabha
According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act 2019, how many members of councils of state are from Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4)
Under Section 8 and the First Schedule of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is allocated 4 seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q83
📖 General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options. The young man is in search of ________ employment because he is in ________ great financial crisis.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (No article, a)
'Employment' is an uncountable abstract noun used in a general sense (requiring no article), while 'crisis' is a countable singular noun modified by 'great' (requiring 'a').
Q84
💻 Computer KnowledgeE-Governance & Digital India
Where is AADHAAR data stored?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Central Identities Data Repository maintained by UIDAI.)
Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, all biometric and demographic Aadhaar data is stored in the Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR) managed by UIDAI.
Q85
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFirst in India: Women Leaders
Who was the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sucheta Kriplani)
Sucheta Kripalani became the first female Chief Minister of an Indian state when she took office as Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in October 1963.
Q86
📜 History & PolityFirst Cabinet of Independent India
The first Education Minister of Independent India was
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Abul Kalam Azad)
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was the first Education Minister of Independent India, serving from 1947 to 1958. His birthday on November 11 is celebrated as National Education Day.
Q87
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionConstitutional vs Non-Constitutional Bodies
Which of the following is NOT a Constitutional body?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NITI Aayog)
NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional, extra-constitutional body established via an executive cabinet resolution on January 1, 2015. The Finance Commission (Art. 280), NCST (Art. 338A), and Election Commission (Art. 324) are Constitutional bodies.
Q88
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionCitizenship in India
Which type of Citizenship is provided by the Constitution of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Single Citizenship)
Unlike federal countries like the USA, the Constitution of India provides for Single Citizenship (Indian citizenship only) across all States and Union Territories to promote national unity.
Q89
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionConstitution Adoption & Samvidhan Divas
On which day is Constitution Day celebrated every year in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (26 November)
Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the formal adoption of the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.
Q90
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFederal System of India
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Federal System?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Single-tier Government)
India has a multi-tier governmental system (Union, State, and Local Panchayati/Municipal levels). A 'Single-tier Government' is a feature of unitary systems, NOT federalism.
Q91
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & 44th Amendment
Which of the following is NOT related to fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to property)
The Right to Property was repealed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and converted into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
Q92
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionWrits in the Indian Constitution
Which of the following writs provides a remedy for a person who has been unlawfully held in prison?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Habeas Corpus)
The writ of Habeas Corpus (meaning 'to have the body of') is issued by the Supreme Court (Art. 32) or High Courts (Art. 226) to set free a person who has been unlawfully or illegally detained.
Q93
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionPanchayati Raj System
How many tiers are there in a Panchayati Raj structure in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Three)
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, India adopted a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zilla Parishad (district level).
Q94
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionElection Commission & Model Code of Conduct
Who implements the Model Code of Conduct for elections in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Election Commission)
The Election Commission of India (ECI) enforces and monitors the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) to ensure free and fair elections.
Q95
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionRepresentation of the People Act
When was the Representation of the People Act first passed?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1951)
The Representation of the People Act was first passed in 1950 (and the complementary RPA for conduct of elections in 1951) by the Provisional Parliament of India.
Q96
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionState Legislatures: Bicameral States
In which of the following states there is a bicameral legislature?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bihar)
Six Indian states currently have a Bicameral Legislature (having both Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council): Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.
Q97
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionParliament of India
Upper House of the Indian Parliament is also known as ________?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rajya Sabha)
The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is the permanent Upper House of the Indian Parliament, while the Lok Sabha is the Lower House.
Q98
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionJoint Sitting of Parliament
Who presides over the joint sitting of Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Speaker of the Lok Sabha)
Under Article 118(4) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
Q99
📖 General EnglishArticles & Determiners
I saw ______ good deal of him during ______ war.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, the)
The idiomatic quantitative phrase is 'a good deal of' (meaning a great deal/lot), and 'the war' refers to a specific known historical conflict. Correct: "I saw a good deal of him during the war."
Q100
📖 General EnglishArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks with correct options. He formed _____ close friendship with _____ group.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a, the)
'a close friendship' (singular countable indefinite relationship) with 'the group' (specific group of people). Correct: "He formed a close friendship with the group."
Q101
📖 General EnglishZero Article / No Article
_____ light comes from the sun
💡Correct Answer: Option D (no article)
Uncountable abstract/general physical nouns used in a generic universal statement take no article: "Light comes from the sun."
Q102
🏛️ Indian Polity & GovernanceCensus Organization in India
In India, which organization conducts the decennial census?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of Home Affairs)
The decennial population census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Q103
📖 General EnglishArticles (A vs An)
Fill in the blank using suitable articles: Sudha is studying in Canadian University. From there, it will take hour for her to reach the airport.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, an)
'Canadian' begins with a consonant sound (/k/), taking article 'a'. 'Hour' begins with a silent 'h' and vowel sound (/aʊər/), taking article 'an'. Correct: "a Canadian University... an hour".
Q104
📜 Polity & Reorganisation of J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir came into existence on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (31-10-2019)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the Union Territory of Ladakh formally came into legal existence on 31 October 2019 (National Unity Day).
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in which year
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2019)
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was passed by the Parliament of India in August 2019, reconstituting the state into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh) effective 31 October 2019.
Q106
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionEighth Schedule Languages
At present, how many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Twenty-Two)
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India currently lists 22 official regional languages (originally 14, with additions via 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
Q107
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights: Right to Education (Art 21A)
Article 21A of the Indian Constitution provides Right to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Education)
Article 21A, inserted into Part III of the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002), establishes free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for all children aged 6 to 14 years.
Q108
⚖️ Indian Polity & GovernancePanchayati Raj 3-Tier System
The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Village, Block and District levels)
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (Balwant Rai Mehta Committee model), the Panchayati Raj system establishes a 3-tier local self-governance structure: 1. Gram Panchayat (Village level), 2. Panchayat Samiti (Block/Intermediate level), and 3. Zilla Parishad (District level).
Q109
📖 General EnglishArticles
There is _____ fish, in _____ bottle.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, the)
'A fish' (first mention of non-specific fish) in 'the bottle' (specific container context): "There is a fish in the bottle."
Q110
⚖️ Political Science & GovernanceElectoral Politics & Political Parties
What is the meaning of 'Alliance'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of contesting election and winning power)
In political science, an electoral Alliance (or Front/Coalition) is formed when multiple political parties join together prior to an election to contest seats collectively and win power (e.g. NDA, UPA/INDIA).
Q111
📖 General EnglishArticles: Definite Article with Nationalities
_____ Indians are very good in maths.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The)
Definite article 'The' is used before a plural nationality or demographic noun ('The Indians') to designate the people of that nationality as a whole.
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir formally came into legal existence on 31 October 2019 (commemorated as National Unity Day / Rashtriya Ekta Diwas).
Q113
📜 Modern Indian History & PolityIndian Independence Act 1947
Which of the following is a feature of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Partition of India)
The Indian Independence Act, 1947 enacted by the British Parliament provided for the Partition of India and the creation of two independent sovereign Dominions: India and Pakistan, effective 15 August 1947.
Q114
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Duties (Part IVA)
Fundamental duties are mentioned in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Part-IVA)
Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part-IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution of India, incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Q115
📜 Constitutional History of J&KSadr-e-Riyasat of J&K
Who was the first sadr-e-riyasat of Jammu Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Karan Singh)
Dr. Karan Singh was elected as the first Sadr-e-Riyasat (Constitutional Head of State) of Jammu and Kashmir in November 1952, holding the post until it was designated as Governor in 1965.
Q116
📖 General EnglishArticles: Definite vs Indefinite
Choose the most appropriate article for the given sentence: Singing is an art, and ________ art comes through practice
💡Correct Answer: Option B (the)
When referring back to a previously introduced specific noun ('an art'), the definite article 'the' is used: "Singing is an art, and the art comes through practice."
Q117
📖 General EnglishArticles: Consonant Sounds
Which article should be used: "Isha lives alone in ________ one-bedroom apartment."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a)
Indefinite article 'a' is used before 'one-bedroom' because the word 'one' phonetically begins with the consonant glide sound /w/ ("won"), not a vowel sound.
Q118
📖 General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options: I went to ______ hometown last year and remained there for ______ week.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (No article, a)
In idiomatic English, 'went to hometown' functions without an article when referring to one's own home territory, followed by indefinite singular time duration 'for a week'.
Q119
⚖️ Indian Polity & CultureOfficial Languages of Indian States
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the official language of the states of India: a) Arunachal Pradesh — 1) Telugu b) Maharashtra — 2) English c) Andhra Pradesh — 3) Malayalam d) Kerala — 4) Marathi Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3)
Arunachal Pradesh has English as its official language (a-2); Maharashtra has Marathi (b-4); Andhra Pradesh has Telugu (c-1); Kerala has Malayalam (d-3) ⟹ a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3.
Q120
⚖️ Political Science & CivicsFeatures of Democracy
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a democratic government?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Centralized decision-making)
Democracy is founded on decentralization, pluralism, separation of powers, and civic participation. Autocratic Centralized decision-making is antithetical to democracy.
Q121
⚖️ Political Science & CivicsDemocratic Values: Political Equality
What is the significance of political equality in a democracy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It ensures that every citizen has an equal say in decision-making.)
Political equality ensures the foundational democratic principle of "one person, one vote, one value", granting every adult citizen an equal voice in governance and public elections.
Q122
⚖️ Indian Polity & Electoral SystemsElectoral Systems: FPTP
In the First Past the Post System, that candidate is declared winner who:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Has more votes than any other candidate in the constituency.)
Under the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP / Simple Plurality) electoral system used in Lok Sabha elections, the candidate securing more votes than any other individual rival in that single constituency is declared elected.
Q123
⚖️ Indian PolityRecognition of State Political Parties
Consider the following statements: 1. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and 2. Wins at least 5 seats is recognised as a state party. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only 1)
Under Election Commission of India rules, a party is recognized as a State Party if it secures ≥6% of valid votes and wins at least 2 Assembly seats (not 5 seats). Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.
Q124
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionFederalism in India
Consider the following statements: 1. Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. 2. In federalism, there is usually more than one level of government for the entire country. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements accurately define the constitutional system of Federalism: division of powers between National and State governments across multiple operational tiers.
Q125
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights during Emergency (Arts 20 & 21)
Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)
By virtue of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
Q126
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionSwaran Singh Committee & Fundamental Duties
Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, resulting in the enactment of Part IVA (Article 51A) by the 42nd Amendment.
Q127
⚖️ Indian Polity & ConstitutionRight to Education Act, 2009 Exemptions
Which among the following don't come under the purview of Right to Education?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Madrasas)
Madrasas, Vedic Pathshalas, and religious minority educational institutions are specifically exempted from the operational ambit of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 under the 2012 RTE Amendment and Supreme Court rulings.
Which of the following constitution amendment gave one third reservations to women at panchayat level?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (73rd)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Article 243D(3), mandating that not less than one-third (33%) of all seats and chairperson positions in Panchayati Raj institutions be reserved for women.
Q129
🏛️ Panchayati Raj & Rural AdministrationRoles and Duties of Panchayat Secretary
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of a panchayat secretary?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Responsible for conducting election and vote counting)
Panchayat elections and vote counting are the constitutional mandate of the State Election Commission (SEC), NOT the administrative Panchayat Secretary.
Q130
🏛️ Panchayati Raj in J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Meeting Frequency
What is the minimum requirement on the number of meetings to be conducted by gram panchayat in Jammu and Kashmir.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (At least once a month)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, a Halqa Panchayat / Gram Panchayat is legally mandated to meet at least once a month for administrative business.
Q131
🏛️ Panchayati Raj in J&KComposition of Halqa Panchayat
In Jammu and Kashmir, maximum number of members in a gram panchayat can be
💡Correct Answer: Option B (11)
Under the J&K Panchayati Raj rules, a Halqa Panchayat consists of a Sarpanch and such number of Panchs (between 7 to 11 members) determined by population.
Q132
⚖️ Indian Judiciary & ConstitutionChief Justices of India (CJI) Chronology
Arrange the following Chief Justices of India in chronological order of holding their office: 1. U.U. Lalit 2. D.Y. Chandrachud 3. Y. V. Chandrachud 4. Ranjan Gogoi Choose the correct option:
🏛️ International Parliamentary ForumsP20 Parliamentary Forum
Consider the following statements: 1. P20 is a congregation of Presidents of G20 nations. 2. The P20 group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 only)
Statement 1 is false: P20 is the Parliamentary Speakers' Summit (congregation of Speakers/Presiding Officers of Parliaments, not heads of state). Statement 2 is true: The P20 was inaugurated in 2010 under Canada's G20 presidency. Thus, 2 only is correct.
Q134
📜 J&K Reorganisation Act 2019Constitutional Provisions for UT of J&K (Art 239A)
After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into Union Territories, which constitutional provision became applicable specifically for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 239A)
Under Section 13 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the constitutional provisions of Article 239A (which originally created a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for the UT of Puducherry) were made applicable to the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q135
📖 General EnglishArticles: Dual Appositive Nouns
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: Mr. Agnihotri, who is _____ producer and _____ financier of _____ Nike company was present there.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (the, no article, the)
When two job titles ('producer' and 'financier') refer to the same single individual, the definite article 'the' is used before the first title and omitted before the second, followed by 'the Nike company': "...the producer and financier of the Nike company..."
Q136
📖 General EnglishArticles: Indefinite and Definite
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: _____ recent survey indicates that _____ number of drug addicts is growing day by day.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A, the)
Indefinite singular noun phrase 'A recent survey' introduces a non-specific study, followed by the fixed phrase 'the number of': "A recent survey indicates that the number of drug addicts..."
Q137
🏛️ Panchayati Raj in J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Halqa Majlis
What does the term 'Halqa Majlis' in the J&K Panchayat Raj Act 1989 refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Voters of Halqa Panchayat)
Under the J&K Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, 'Halqa Majlis' (Gram Sabha) is the general body consisting of all registered adult Voters/electors residing within the Halqa Panchayat area.
Q138
🏛️ Panchayati Raj in J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act Chapters
Chapter V of Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act 1989 deals with the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Conduct of Business)
Chapter V of the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989 is titled and specifically governs the 'Conduct of Business' of the Halqa Panchayat.
Q139
⚖️ Indian Polity & Panchayati RajThree-Tier Panchayati Raj System
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ tier system of Panchayati Raj in each state.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three (03))
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 mandates a uniform Three-Tier system of Panchayati Raj: Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level, and Zilla Parishad at district level.
Q140
⚖️ Indian PolityDuration of Panchayats (Article 243E)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ term of office to the Panchayat at every level.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Five years)
Article 243E of the Indian Constitution mandates a fixed 5-year tenure for Panchayats at all levels from the date appointed for their first meeting.
Q141
⚖️ Indian PolityLok Sabha Seat Distribution across States
Arrange the following states according to their Lok Sabha parliamentary constituency seats in descending order: a) West Bengal (42) b) Maharashtra (48) c) Bihar (40) d) Tamil Nadu (39)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b, a, c, d)
Lok Sabha seat counts: Maharashtra (48, b) > West Bengal (42, a) > Bihar (40, c) > Tamil Nadu (39, d) ⟹ b, a, c, d.
Q142
⚖️ Indian Polity & Constitution44th Amendment Act & Article 300A
The Right to Property was converted from a Fundamental Right into a Constitutional Legal Right by which Constitutional Amendment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (44th)
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, transforming the Right to Property into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
Q143
⚖️ Indian ConstitutionAdoption of the Preamble (26 Nov 1949)
The Preamble of the Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (26th November 1949)
The Constituent Assembly of India formally adopted the Constitution (including the Preamble) on 26th November 1949 (celebrated annually as Constitution Day / Samvidhan Divas).
Q144
💻 E-Governance & Digital IndiaConcepts of E-Governance
The use of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) to improve the ability of government to address the needs of society and deliver citizen services is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (E-Governance)
E-Governance (Electronic Governance) is the application of IT by government agencies to deliver public services, enhance transparency, and empower citizens.
Q145
⚖️ Indian Constitution & Criminal JusticeLandmark Judgments: D.K. Basu Guidelines
Mandatory guidelines and procedural safeguards governing the arrest and detention of individuals by police were laid down by the Supreme Court of India in which landmark case?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal (1997))
In D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997), the Supreme Court formulated 11 mandatory guidelines (including arrest memos, medical examinations, and informing relatives) to prevent custodial torture and unlawful detention.
Q146
🏛️ Indian Governance & InstitutionsNational Advisory Council (NAC)
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the National Advisory Council (NAC)? a) The National Advisory Council is a statutory body. b) It is headed by the Prime Minister of India. c) It facilitates constant interaction with leaders of civil society. d) It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India. Select the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (c and d)
Statements (c) and (d) are correct: The NAC was set up by the UPA government as an advisory body to interface with civil society and advise on social welfare legislation (RTE, NREGA, NFSA). Statements (a) and (b) are false because it was an extra-constitutional non-statutory body chaired by Sonia Gandhi, not the PM.
Q147
⚖️ Indian Constitution: Fundamental RightsRight to Equality: Article 17
Which category of Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution incorporates the 'Abolition of Untouchability' under Article 17?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Right to Equality (Articles 14–18))
Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability and prohibition of its practice) is part of the 'Right to Equality' grouping under Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.
Q148
🏛️ Governance & EthicsDefinition and Nature of Corruption
Which concept is internationally defined by Transparency International as 'the abuse of entrusted power for private gain'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Corruption)
Corruption is standardly defined in governance and sociology as the abuse of entrusted power, authority, or office for private, illicit personal gain.
Q149
📖 General EnglishArticles: Compound Noun Usage
Fill in the blanks with suitable articles: "She is wearing a black and ______ white saree at the party hosted by the Manager and ______ Executive Director of our hotel."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of these (no article, no article))
Because it is a single two-tone saree ("a black and white saree") and a single person holding both titles ("the Manager and Executive Director"), no second article is used in either blank.
Q150
🏛️ Indian Governance & CVCVigilance Awareness Week Themes
What was the theme of 'Vigilance Awareness Week 2023' organized by the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Say no to corruption, commit to the Nation)
The Central Vigilance Commission observed Vigilance Awareness Week 2023 with the theme: 'Say no to corruption; commit to the Nation' (भ्रष्टाचार का विरोध करें; राष्ट्र के प्रति समर्पित रहें).
Q151
⚖️ Indian ConstitutionConstitution Day (26 November)
When is Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) observed in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (November 26)
Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26 each year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.
Q152
⚖️ Indian Polity & GeographyStates and Union Territories of India
Which of the following is NOT a Union Territory of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Goa)
Goa is a full-fledged State of the Indian Union (granted statehood on 30 May 1987). Puducherry, Chandigarh, and Delhi (NCT) are Union Territories.
Q153
🏛️ Governance & Elections in J&KPanchayat & DDC Elections 2020
When were the last District Development Council (DDC) and Panchayat by-elections held in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (November-December 2020)
The historic 8-phase DDC and Panchayat elections in Jammu & Kashmir were conducted between 28 November and 19 December 2020.
Q154
⚖️ Indian PolityPanchayati Raj: Constitutional Status
According to the Constitution of India (73rd Constitutional Amendment Act), a Gram Panchayat is defined as a/an
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Institution of local self-government)
Under Article 243B and Part IX of the Constitution, Panchayats are constitutional institutions of local self-government established for rural areas.
Q155
⚖️ Indian Polity & National SymbolsNational Flag of India
In the National Flag of India (Tiranga), which color band is positioned at the bottom?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Dark Green)
The Indian National Flag is a horizontal tricolour of India Saffron at the top, White in the middle (with the navy blue 24-spoke Ashoka Chakra), and India Green (Dark Green) at the bottom.
Q156
📜 Constitutional History of J&KRedesignation of Sadr-i-Riyasat
In 1965, the constitutional head of Jammu & Kashmir was redesignated as Governor through the 6th J&K Constitutional Amendment. What was this post previously designated as?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sadr-i-Riyasat)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution Amendment Act, 1965, the title of 'Sadr-i-Riyasat' was replaced by 'Governor', and 'Prime Minister (Wazir-e-Azam)' was replaced by 'Chief Minister'.
Q157
⚖️ Indian Constitution: Article 370Classification of Article 370
With respect to the erstwhile State of Jammu & Kashmir, Part XXI of the Constitution of India classified Article 370 under which heading?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Temporary Provisions)
Part XXI of the Constitution of India is titled 'Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions', and Article 370 was explicitly titled 'Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir'.
Q158
⚖️ Indian Constitution: Seventh ScheduleConcurrent List: Economic Planning
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, 'Economic and Social Planning' is placed in which Legislative List?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Concurrent List (List III))
Entry 20 of the Concurrent List (List III) in the Seventh Schedule deals with 'Economic and social planning', allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to enact laws.
Q159
📜 Constitutional History of J&KAdoption of J&K Constitution (1956)
In which year was the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir formally adopted by its Constituent Assembly?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1956)
The Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir adopted the State Constitution on 17 November 1956, and it came into full force on 26 January 1957.
Q160
⚖️ Indian Constitution: Fundamental Rights & WritsWrits: Mandamus (Articles 32 & 226)
Which constitutional writ issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts commands a public official or authority to perform a mandatory statutory duty that they have failed or refused to perform?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mandamus)
The writ of Mandamus (Latin for 'We Command') is an order issued to compel a public official, body, or tribunal to perform an obligatory public duty.
Q161
⚖️ Indian ConstitutionAdoption Date in the Preamble
Which specific historic date is solemnly mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution of India as the date of its adoption?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (November 26, 1949)
The Preamble concludes: "IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION."
Q162
⚖️ Constitutional Law of J&KArticle 35A
Which now-repealed constitutional provision empowered the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges regarding employment and property?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 35A)
Article 35A (inserted into the Indian Constitution via the 1954 Presidential Order) empowered the J&K legislature to define permanent residents and grant them exclusive rights.
Q163
Indian Polity, Constitution & GovernanceConstitutional Amendments
What was the primary objective of the 2nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Remove the upper population limit for a parliamentary constituency)
The Constitution (Second Amendment) Act, 1952, amended Article 81(1)(b) to remove the upper population limit of 7,50,000 for representation by a single member in the Lok Sabha.
Q164
Indian Polity, Constitution & GovernanceFundamental Rights & Union of States
Match Column -X (article in the Indian Constitution) with their objectives in Column -Y:
| Column - X | Column - Y | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Article 1 | I. Guarantees equal opportunity in public employment | | 2. Article 14 | II. Guarantees equality before the law | | 3. Article 16 | III. Defines India as a Union of States |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-III, 2-II, 3-I)
1. Article 1 defines India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States (III) 2. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws (II) 3. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (I). Hence, the correct matching is 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.
Q165
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTConstitutional History & Article 370
Which constitutional provision allowed Jammu and Kashmir to have its own flag before 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 370)
Article 370 of the Constitution of India granted special autonomous status to the State of Jammu and Kashmir, allowing it to adopt its own Constitution (under Section 144 of the J&K Constitution) and separate state flag until August 2019.
Q166
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K UT Administration & Governors
Who is the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Girish Chandra Murmu)
Girish Chandra Murmu (GC Murmu), an IAS officer of the Gujarat cadre, was sworn in as the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir on October 31, 2019.
Q167
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Constitutional History & Integration
Why was the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution abrogated in 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The abrogation of Article 370 and the J&K Constitution was undertaken to foster complete national integration, eliminate discriminatory residency/domicile barriers, extend fundamental central laws, and accelerate socio-economic development and investments across the region.
Q168
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTConstitutional Amendments of J&K
Which constitutional amendment replaced the position of Sadr-e-Riyasat with the title of Governor in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (6th Amendment)
The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir (Sixth Amendment) Act, 1965, amended the state constitution to replace the designation of 'Sadr-e-Riyasat' with 'Governor' and 'Prime Minister (Wazir-e-Azam)' with 'Chief Minister'.
Q169
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Governance & Legislative Assembly Powers
Who among the following will aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu & Kashmir on matters that the assembly has powers to legislate?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Council of Ministers)
According to Section 53 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, there shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than 10% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor on matters where the Assembly has legislative power.
Q170
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Constitution Key Articles
Which article of the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution (before 2019) defined the relationship between the state and the Union of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 3)
Article 3 of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir irrevocably declared: 'The State of Jammu and Kashmir is and shall be an integral part of the Union of India.'
Q171
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: ______ weather was rainy, and we made ______ bet whether you would come.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The, a)
'Weather' in this specific situation refers to the specific prevailing weather of that day, taking the definite article 'The'. 'Made a bet' is a standard English idiomatic collocated phrase. Hence: 'The weather was rainy, and we made a bet...'
Q172
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: I saw ______ old woman yesterday.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (an)
The word 'old' begins with a vowel sound (/oʊ/), hence the indefinite article 'an' is used: 'I saw an old woman yesterday.'
Q173
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsE-Governance & Digital Applications
A mobile application launched by the Union Government to provide speedy redressal of consumer grievances is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Smart Consumer App)
The 'Smart Consumer App' was launched by the Department of Consumer Affairs to empower consumers to scan product barcodes, verify MRP/standards, and directly register grievances with the National Consumer Helpline.
Q174
Knowledge of Computers & IT ApplicationsDigital India & E-Governance
Consider the following statements: The vision of Digital India launched by the Government of India is centred on: I. Creating transportation infrastructure in states II. Digital Empowerment of Every Citizen
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II only)
The three core vision areas of the Digital India programme are: (1) Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen, (2) Governance and Services on Demand, and (3) Digital Empowerment of Citizens. Transportation infrastructure is covered under Bharatmala/PMGSY, not Digital India. Hence, II only is correct.
Q175
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. She achieved _____ unique position in _____ organization through hard work.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a, the)
'Unique' starts with a consonant 'y' sound (/juː/), taking indefinite article 'a'. 'Organization' refers to the specific company/entity, taking definite article 'the': 'a unique position in the organization'.
Q176
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. _____ engineer presented _____ innovative solution during the conference.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An, an)
Both 'engineer' and 'innovative' begin with vowel sounds (/e/ and /ɪ/), requiring the indefinite article 'An' and 'an': 'An engineer presented an innovative solution...'.
Q177
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. _____ European country announced _____ new policy to combat climate change.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a, a)
'European' begins with a consonant 'y' sound (/jʊərəˈpiːən/), so it takes 'A'. 'New policy' takes indefinite article 'a': 'A European country announced a new policy...'.
Q178
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Select the sentence where the determiner is used correctly.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (He had several opportunities to improve.)
Option C correctly pairs 'several' with the plural countable noun 'opportunities'. (In A, 'many dogs'; in B & D, 'advice' and 'information' are uncountable and do not take 'a').
Q179
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Select the sentence where the determiner is NOT used correctly.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A information about the event was shared with us.)
'Information' is an uncountable noun and cannot be preceded by the singular indefinite article 'A'. One must say 'Information' or 'A piece of information'. Hence, Option D is incorrect.
Q180
History of India & National MovementBritish Governor-Generals & Policies
The Doctrine of Lapse, a policy used by the British East India Company to annex Indian states, was introduced by which Governor-General of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Dalhousie)
The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856), leading to the annexation of Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur, Baghat, Udaipur, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
Q181
Indian Polity, Constitution & GovernanceIntegration of States & Reorganisation
In what year did Sikkim become a part of the Indian Union?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1975)
Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Indian Union on May 16, 1975, following the Constitution (36th Amendment) Act, 1975, after a historic referendum ending the Chogyal monarchy.
Q182
Indian Polity, Constitution & GovernanceState Reorganisation Act 1956
Which of the following states was formed by merging Travancore and Cochin with parts of the Malabar district of Madras State?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kerala)
The State of Kerala was created on November 1, 1956, under the States Reorganisation Act, merging the Malayalam-speaking regions of Travancore-Cochin with the Malabar district and Kasaragod taluk.
Q183
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank using a suitable article: _____ unique artist often develops _____ signature style that distinguishes them and their work from their peers.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A, a)
'Unique' begins with a consonant 'y' sound (/juː/), taking indefinite article 'A'. 'Signature style' takes indefinite article 'a': 'A unique artist often develops a signature style...'.
Q184
Radiotherapy Physics & Radiation OncologySubatomic Particles & Rest Mass
A Muon is a sub atomic particle which has a mass 207 times that of the mass of electron. What is the approximate mass of the muon in units of MeV?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (106 MeV)
Electron rest mass energy mec2≈0.511 MeV. Mass of Muon=207×0.511 MeV≈105.78 MeV≈106 MeV.
About Indian Polity, Constitution & Governance Questions for JKSSB & JKPSC
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