Grass (Producer) is eaten by Goat (Primary Consumer), which in turn is consumed by Human (Secondary Consumer), forming a valid food chain.
Q2
🧾 AccountsEnvironment
Who was the first scientist to use the term SMOG and define its layers?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Dr. Henry Antoine)
Dr. Henry Antoine Des Voeux first coined the term 'smog' (portmanteau of smoke and fog) in a paper presented at the Public Health Congress in 1905.
Q3
🧾 AccountsEnvironment
Consider the following statements regarding the greenhouse effect:
1. Life on the earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect. 2. Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only 1)
Statement 1 is correct because the greenhouse effect maintains Earth's temperature suitable for life. Statement 2 is incorrect because the recent increased emission of greenhouse gases is primarily anthropogenic (human-caused), not natural.
Q4
🧾 AccountsEnvironment
Consider the following national parks and the states they are located in:
- a. Kaziranga National Park: 4. Assam - b. Jim Corbett National Park: 3. Uttarakhand - c. Ranthambore National Park: 2. Rajasthan - d. Gir National Park: 1. Gujarat
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1)
The correct matches are: Kaziranga is in Assam (a-4), Jim Corbett is in Uttarakhand (b-3), Ranthambore is in Rajasthan (c-2), and Gir is in Gujarat (d-1). This corresponds to a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.
Q5
🧬 BiologyWildlife Protection
Which act deals with the protection and conservation of various species of birds and animals in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wildlife Conservation Act 1972)
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 in India deals with the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants.
Q6
🧬 BiologyWildlife Conservation
IUCN stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International Union for Conservation of Nature)
IUCN stands for the International Union for Conservation of Nature, an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
Q7
🧬 BiologyWildlife Conservation
According to IUCN Red List, Endangered species are defined as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Species that possess a very high risk of extinction because of rapid population declines of 50 to more than 70 percent over the previous 10 years)
Under IUCN criteria, Endangered (EN) species are those facing a very high risk of extinction due to a population decline of 50% to 70% or more over 10 years.
Q8
🧬 BiologyWildlife Forensics
Establishing geographical location of a wildlife species is crucial to legislative actions. How can this be achieved?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (By identifying reproductive population)
To enforce regional protections (such as CITES appendices or regional laws), identifying the breeding/reproductive population of origin is the primary way to establish the geographic origin of a specimen.
Q9
🧬 BiologyWildlife Protection
Appendix II of CITES includes
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled)
Appendix II of CITES lists species that are not currently threatened with extinction but may become so unless trade is strictly regulated.
Q10
🧬 BiologyWildlife Protection
A wildlife poacher is interested in illegal trade of tiger skin. What method of poaching will he prefer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Legtraps)
Poachers targeting tiger skins prefer legtraps (jaw traps) because they are silent and do not damage the pelt with bullet holes, ensuring maximum market value.
Q11
⚗️ ChemistryEnvironmental Pollution
Which of the following primarily causes Mercury Pollution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (CFL Lamp)
Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs) contain small amounts of mercury gas, which is released into the environment if the bulbs break or are improperly disposed of, causing mercury pollution.
Q12
🧬 BiologyEcology & Wildlife
Where is the 'Rajaji Tiger Reserve' located in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Uttarakhand)
Rajaji Tiger Reserve (formerly Rajaji National Park) is located in the Shivalik range of the Himalayas in the state of Uttarakhand.
Q13
⚗️ ChemistryEcology & Environment
When is the World Wildlife Week observed?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (First week of October)
World Wildlife Week is celebrated annually in India from October 2 to October 8, coinciding with the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, to promote wildlife conservation.
Q14
🌍 General AwarenessEnvironment & Ecology
Which of the following regions is regarded as an ecological hotspot of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Western Ghats)
The Western Ghats is one of India's prominent ecological hotspots, hosting a massive diversity of flora and fauna.
Q15
🌍 General AwarenessEnvironment & Ecology
Which of the following fauna can be observed in Dachigam National Park?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Dachigam National Park is home to the Kashmiri Stag (Hangul), Himalayan Serow, Long-tailed Marmot, and several other native Himalayan species.
Q16
🚗 AutomotiveEnvironmental Pollution
Among the following options, which are man-made sources of air pollution? (i) Burning of fire wood (ii) Forest fire (iii) Automobile (iv) Earth quakes
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((i) and (iii))
Forest fires and earthquakes are natural phenomena that contribute to air pollution. Woodburning and automobile emissions are anthropogenic (man-made) activities.
Q17
🚗 AutomotiveEnvironmental Pollution
Among following pollutants which is not released by the motor vehicle
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Phosphorus trioxide (P4O6))
Automobiles emit SPM, sulfur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), carbon monoxide, and hydrocarbons. Phosphorus trioxide (P4O6) is not a constituent of automotive exhaust gases.
Q18
🚗 AutomotiveNoise Pollution & Regulations
Maximum permissible noise level recommended as per central motor vehicle rules 1989, for passenger or commercial vehicles with gross vehicle weight above 12000 kgs, is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (89db (A))
Under the CMVR, 1989, the maximum permissible noise level at the manufacturing stage for passenger or commercial vehicles with a GVW exceeding 12000 kgs is 89 dB(A).
Q19
📜 HistoryEnvironmental awareness
Match the following (List-1) with their description (List-2): List-1: (a) Idling at red traffic signal, (b) Cycling or walking, (c) Electric vehicle, (d) High vehicle density. List-2: (1) Turning off engine, (2) Increase urban pollution, (3) Reduces air pollution, (4) Sustainable transport.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2)
Idling at red lights requires turning off the engine (a-1); Cycling/walking is sustainable transport (b-4); EVs reduce local air pollution compared to petrol (c-3); High vehicle density increases urban pollution (d-2). Therefore, Option B is correct.
Q20
🧬 BiologyAquatic Ecology
Red tide is caused
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dinoflagellates)
Red tides (harmful algal blooms) are caused by rapid growth/blooming of microscopic algae, most commonly dinoflagellates, which produce toxins and turn the water red or brown.
Q21
🧬 BiologyAquatic Ecology
Plankton size classification: a. Megaplankton b. Macroplankton c. Mesoplankton d. Microplankton e. Nanoplankton f. Picoplankton
And dimensions: i. 0.2-2 cm ii. 20 to 200 µm iii. 0.2 to 2 µm iv. 2 to 20 µm v. >20 cm vi. 2-20 cm
Match correctly:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a: v, b:vi, c: i, d: ii, e: iv, f: iii)
Standard plankton size classes: Megaplankton (>20 cm -> a:v); Macroplankton (2-20 cm -> b:vi); Mesoplankton (0.2-2 cm -> c:i); Microplankton (20-200 µm -> d:ii); Nanoplankton (2-20 µm -> e:iv); Picoplankton (0.2-2 µm -> f:iii). This matches Option A.
Q22
🧬 BiologyAquatic Ecology
Hydrosere Stages of ecological succession in pond/lake are
The correct ecological succession sequence in a hydrosere is: 1) Phytoplankton stage, 2) Submerged macrophyte stage, 3) Floating-leaved stage, 4) Reed-swamp stage, 5) Sedge-meadow/marsh stage, 6) Carr (shrub/alder/willow) stage, 7) Woodland stage, and 8) Climax forest stage. This is Option A.
Q23
🧬 BiologyAquatic Ecology
Which of the following statements are true? a. Plankton occur only in freshwater ecosystem b. Plankton do not have active locomotory organs c. Plankton include only unicellular organisms d. Phytoplankton form the first trophic level
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b, d)
Statements b and d are true. Plankton lack active organs for swimming against currents, and phytoplankton are primary producers forming the first trophic level. Statement a is false because plankton also live in marine ecosystems. Statement c is false because zooplankton include multicellular organisms (e.g. copepods, krill).
Q24
🧬 BiologyAquatic Ecology
The depth at which the photosynthesis balances respiration
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Compensation depth)
The compensation depth is the depth in a water body where light intensity is such that the rate of oxygen production by photosynthesis equals the rate of oxygen consumption by respiration.
Q25
🧬 BiologyAquatic Ecology
Functional role an organism plays within an ecosystem is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Niche)
The ecological niche describes the functional role, position, and interactions of an organism within its community and ecosystem.
Q26
🧬 BiologyAquatic Ecology
Match the indices to what they quantify: a. Shannon Weiner Index b. Pielou Index c. Margalef Index d. Berger Parker Index
Matches: Shannon-Wiener Index measures species diversity (a:3); Pielou's Index measures species evenness (b:4); Margalef's Index measures species richness (c:1); Berger-Parker Index measures species dominance (d:2). This matches Option A.
Q27
🧬 BiologyEnvironment & Treaties
Match the International Conventions to respective years: a. Convention on Biological Diversity b. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora c. Ramsar Convention d. International Union for Conservation of Nature
Correct matches: CBD was opened for signature in 1992 (a:4); CITES entered into force in 1975 (b:3); Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 (c:1); IUCN was established in 1948 (d:2). This matches Option A.
Q28
🧬 BiologyEnvironment & Ecology
Which of the following statements are true? a. There are 80 Ramsar sites in India b. Ex-situ is a method of conservation that involves the conservation of species in its natural habitat c. Kanwar Lake is the smallest lake in India d. Manasbal is the deepest lake in India
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a, d)
Statements a and d are correct. India reached 80 Ramsar sites in early 2024, and Manasbal is the deepest freshwater lake in India. Statement b is false because ex-situ conservation happens outside the natural habitat. Statement c is false because Renuka Lake is the smallest Ramsar site in India, not Kanwar Lake.
Q29
🧬 BiologyAquatic Ecology
Identify the correct statements from the following: a. Clownfish and sea anemones have a symbiotic relationship b. Remora fish and Shark exhibit a commensalism relationship c. Hermit crabs and sea anemones exhibit a parasitic relationship d. Anchor worms are annelid parasites to freshwater finfishes
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a, b)
Statements a and b are correct: Clownfish/sea anemones share a mutualistic symbiosis, and remora fish/sharks exhibit commensalism. Statement c is false because hermit crabs/anemones have a mutualistic (not parasitic) relationship. Statement d is false because anchor worms (Lernaea) are parasitic copepod crustaceans, not annelids.
Q30
🧬 BiologyAquatic Ecology
Nitrification process involves
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ammonia to Nitrite to Nitrate)
Nitrification is a biological process where ammonia is oxidized to nitrite (by bacteria like Nitrosomonas), and nitrite is then oxidized to nitrate (by bacteria like Nitrobacter).
Q31
🧬 BiologyFisheries & Environment
Commercial species of fishes from river Jhelum
💡Correct Answer: Option C (C. Carpio)
Cyprinus carpio (common carp) is the major commercial species harvested from the River Jhelum and Dal Lake in Kashmir, having successfully adapted and dominated the valley's coldwater ecosystems since its introduction.
__________ is the tendency of pollutants to become concentrated in successive trophic levels.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Biomagnification)
Biomagnification (or bioamplification) is the biological process whereby the concentration of toxic chemicals and persistent pollutants (such as DDT and methylmercury) increases progressively at each successive trophic level of a food chain.
__________ is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Montreal Protocol)
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (agreed on 16 September 1987) is an international environmental treaty designed to protect the Earth's stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODSs) like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environmental lapse rate > Adiabatic lapse rate)
The atmosphere is considered unstable (superadiabatic) when the Environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is greater than the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR). In this state, a displaced rising parcel of air cools more slowly than the surrounding environment, remaining warmer and less dense, which promotes vigorous vertical mixing and rapid dispersion.
The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits state parties to:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Reduce greenhouse gas emissions)
The Kyoto Protocol (adopted in Kyoto, Japan in 1997 under the UNFCCC) is an international treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions (including CO2,CH4,N2O,HFCs,PFCs,SF6) to fight global warming.
Q36
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal & Constitution
Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal? a. Article 24 b. Article 21 c. Article 48 A d. Article 51-A(g)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, c, and d)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act 2010 drawing inspiration from Article 21 (Right to a healthy environment), Article 48A (Duty of the State to protect the environment and forests), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental duty of citizens to protect nature). Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of child labour in factories.
Q37
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyAir Pollutants & Health Impacts
Consider the following statements: a. CO emission is mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel. b. Affects the oxygen carrying capacity of blood c. Can cause nausea Which of the following statement is/are correct
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a, b, and c)
All statements (a, b, and c) are correct. Carbon monoxide (CO) is produced primarily by the incomplete combustion of hydrocarbon fuels. It binds to hemoglobin with an affinity 200–250 times greater than oxygen, forming carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) which reduces oxygen transport to vital organs and causes headache, nausea, dizziness, and asphyxiation.
Q38
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyHeavy Metal Toxicity
The chemical responsible for Minamata disease
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mercury)
Minamata disease is a severe neurological toxic syndrome caused by methylmercury (CH3Hg+) poisoning. It was first identified in 1956 in Minamata Bay, Japan, resulting from the bioaccumulation of industrial mercury dumped into the marine ecosystem.
Q39
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEutrophication & Water Nutrients
__________ causes minimum water pollution among the following nutrients.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pottassium)
Potassium (K+) causes minimal water pollution compared to Nitrogen (N) and Phosphorus (P), which are primary limiting nutrients driving cultural eutrophication, toxic cyanobacterial algal blooms, and dissolved oxygen depletion in aquatic environments.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Removal of organic/inorganic settleable solids can be done in a primary sedimentation tank)
Statement D is correct: A Primary Sedimentation Tank (PST) is designed to remove settleable organic and inorganic suspended solids from wastewater by gravitational settling (typically achieving 50–70% TSS and 30–40% BOD removal). Note: Trickling filter is aerobic, and grit chambers remove inorganic grit.
The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage, respectively are
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Alkaline and acidic)
Fresh sewage is slightly alkaline in nature with a typical pH of 7.3 to 7.8. As sewage becomes stale and septic during anaerobic decomposition, organic acids and hydrogen sulfide (H2S) are generated, lowering the pH and making septic sewage acidic.
The size of colloidal solids in waste water are in the range of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 nm - 100 nm)
Colloidal solids in wastewater have particle diameters typically ranging from 1 nm to 100 nm (or 10−3μm to 0.1μm). These particles carry negative electrostatic surface charges and do not settle by gravity without chemical coagulation.
Q43
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringPopulation Equivalent & BOD
If the average sewage for a city is 80×106 l/day and the average 5 day BOD is 300 mg/l against a standard of 60 mg/day (or 60 g/capita-day) at 20∘C, then the population equivalent of the city will be.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($400\times10^{6}$)
Total daily BOD5 load =80×106 L/day×300 mg/L=24,000×106 mg/day=24,000 kg/day. With standard per capita domestic BOD=0.060 kg/day, the population equivalent is 0.060 kg/person/day24,000 kg/day=400,000 (representing the magnitude 400×106). Option C is correct.
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($V=0.85~C~r^{0.63}S^{0.54}$)
The Hazen-Williams formula in metric SI units for velocity of flow in pressure pipes and sewers is V=0.849Cr0.63S0.54 (commonly written as V=0.85Cr0.63S0.54), where C is the Hazen-Williams roughness coefficient, r is the hydraulic radius (R), and S is the hydraulic energy slope.
The self-cleansing velocity of sewers in India generally is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 m/s - 1.2 m/s)
In Indian municipal sewer engineering practice (CPHEEO guidelines), self-cleansing velocity is maintained between 1.0 m/s and 1.2 m/s at peak flow to ensure that suspended solids and silt are transported without depositing along the sewer invert.
The main gas liberated from an anaerobic sludge digester is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Methane)
Biogas produced during anaerobic digestion consists of approximately 60–70% Methane (CH4) and 30–40% Carbon Dioxide (CO2), with trace amounts of hydrogen sulfide (H2S) and nitrogen. Methane is the primary and most valuable combustible gas released.
Q47
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRiver Self-Purification Zones
A polluted stream undergoes self-purification in four distinct zones: a. Zone of clear water b. Zone of Active decomposition c. Zone of degradation d. Zone of recovery
💡Correct Answer: Option C (c, b, d, a)
The downstream sequence of self-purification in a river receiving wastewater effluent is: 1. Zone of degradation (c) → 2. Zone of active decomposition (b) → 3. Zone of recovery (d) → 4. Zone of clear water (a). Hence, the correct order is c, b, d, a.
Match the following: 1. High rate trickling filter | a. Detachment of attached biofilm from the surface 2. Low rate trickling filter | b. Fly nuisance 3. Recirculation | c. BOD removal efficiency is 80%-95% 4. Sloughing | d. Depth of filter is 2 to 3 m
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a)
In biological trickling filter systems: Sloughing (4-a) refers to the periodic washing away/detachment of excess accumulated biological slime from media; Low rate trickling filters (2-d or 2-b) have higher depth (2 to 3 m) and higher fly nuisance; High rate trickling filters (1-c) achieve high BOD removal efficiency via effluent recirculation.
Match the slow sand filter components with its standard dimensions/values 1. Gravel bed coarse aggregate size | a. 90 cm to 110 cm 2. Filter media thickness | b. 3 mm to 60 mm 3. Gravel bed thickness | c. 20 mm to 40 mm 4. Gravel bed middle layer thickness | d. 30 cm to 75 cm
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c)
Standard slow sand filter design parameters: Filter sand media depth is 90 cm to 110 cm (2-a); overall gravel support bed thickness is 30 cm to 75 cm (3-d); gravel coarse size range is 3 mm to 60 mm (1-b); and middle gravel layer size is 20 mm to 40 mm (4-c).
In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Combined action of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria)
A facultative stabilization pond treats wastewater through symbiosis between algae and bacteria across stratified layers: the upper aerobic zone relies on aerobic bacteria utilizing oxygen produced by algae, the intermediate facultative zone supports facultative bacteria, and the bottom anaerobic sludge zone relies on anaerobic bacteria.
Q51
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBIS Standards for Effluents
Identify the guiding standard for industrial effluent from the following:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (IS 2490-1974)
IS 2490 (1974 / 1981) provides the Indian Standard tolerance limits for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface waters.
Q52
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringRecirculation in Biological Filters
The recirculation ratio is defined as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Volume of sewage to Volume of raw sewage)
The recirculation ratio (R) in wastewater treatment (such as high-rate trickling filters and activated sludge systems) is defined as the ratio of the volume of recirculated treated sewage (QR) to the volume of incoming raw sewage (Q).
The patented device which shreds the larger sewage solids to about 6 mm, when sewage is screened through them is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Comminutors)
Comminutors (or shredders/grinders) are patented mechanical cutting devices equipped with rotating cutter teeth that intercept and shred coarse wastewater solids down to sizes of approximately 6 mm (0.25 inch), enabling them to remain in suspension for downstream processing.
Consider the following statements; a. Eutrophication is the algal bloom produced due to excess discharge of plant nutrients into water body b. Can be added by adding copper sulphate to water.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both (a) and (b) are true)
Both statements (a) and (b) are true. Statement (a) defines eutrophication caused by excess nitrogen and phosphorus enrichment. Statement (b) is true because copper sulphate (CuSO4) is widely applied as an effective chemical algicide to control and eradicate unwanted algal blooms in water bodies.
Q55
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Process & Methodology
Choose the correct sequence of steps adopted during the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Screening, Scoping, Data collection, Impact analysis, Public hearing, Decision making)
The standardized logical sequence of the EIA process is: 1. Screening (determining if EIA is required) → 2. Scoping (identifying key issues & baseline requirements) → 3. Baseline Data Collection → 4. Impact Analysis & Mitigation → 5. Public Hearing / Consultation → 6. Decision Making & Environmental Clearance.
Which of the following is NOT a regular standard for figuring out whether an EIA is necessary?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Potential economic benefits)
During the Screening stage of EIA, decision criteria focus strictly on environmental factors: project magnitude/scale, location in ecologically sensitive areas, and technical complexity. Potential economic benefits or commercial profit are socio-economic justifications and are NOT environmental criteria for mandating an EIA.
Q57
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyBaseline Environmental Data
In EIA terminology, what does "baseline data" refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Data on the current environmental conditions in the project area before the project begins)
Baseline data in EIA represents the comprehensive measured status of prevailing ambient environmental conditions (air quality, noise levels, surface/groundwater quality, soil characteristics, biodiversity, and socio-economic status) prior to the inception or construction of the proposed project.
What does "cumulative impact" mean in the context of EIA?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The combined effect of all environmental factors on a project)
Cumulative environmental impacts are the incremental impacts of an action when added to other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable future actions, representing the combined and synergistic effects of multiple environmental stressors over time.
The Environmental Impact Assessment Report may consist of: a. Assessment of the Sewerage and Sewage Treatment Implications b. Assessment of the Land Contamination c. Assessment of the Hazard to Life d. Assessment of the Cultural Heritage Impact Choose the best option.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, b, c and d)
A comprehensive Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) report encompasses multi-disciplinary assessments including wastewater infrastructure, land contamination, hazards to life and safety, and impacts on historical and cultural heritage sites.
Q60
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEIA Public Hearing Exemptions
Consider the following projects and choose the best option for which the Public hearing is not required in the EIA? i. Strengthening and widening of highways. ii. Modernization of existing irrigation projects.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both i and ii)
Under the EIA Notification 2006 (and its amendments), public hearing is exempt for projects involving highway expansion/widening without substantial additional land acquisition, as well as the modernization of existing irrigation projects without changing command area boundaries.
Which of the following is not a material consideration when making impact predictions of environmental damage?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Benefit of the project for jobs and the economy)
When predicting environmental damage and ecological impacts, scientific considerations are duration (time), spatial extent (area), and magnitude (intensity). Economic benefits such as job creation are part of socio-economic appraisals, not physical environmental damage prediction.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International Association of Impact Assessment)
IAIA stands for the International Association for Impact Assessment, the leading global network on best practices in impact assessment for sustainable development.
Q63
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyForestry Institutions in India
The Headquarters of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dehradun)
The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), an autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is headquartered at Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
Q64
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEPA 1986 Penalties
What sanctions apply when the Environment Protection Act is violated?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Fine & Imprisonment)
Under Section 15 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, non-compliance or contravention is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine up to ₹1,00,000, or with both, plus additional daily fines for continuing offenses.
Q65
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceStockholm Conference & EPA History
The Environment Protection Act 1986 was enacted following the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stockholm)
India enacted the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution to implement the decisions taken at the landmark United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at Stockholm in June 1972.
Q66
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceRiver Basin Authorities & NGRBA
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is responsible for ________ duties.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Developmental and regulatory)
The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA, established in 2009 under the EPA) was vested with both developmental functions (planning, river conservation schemes) and regulatory functions (enforcing water quality standards and pollution control).
Q67
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1981
Consider the following pairs from the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981: 1. Section 21 | a. Power of State Government to supersede State Board 2. Section 47 | b. Power of State Government to make rules 3. Section 53 | c. Restrictions on use of certain industrial plants 4. Section 54 | d. Power of Central Government to make rules Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b)
Under the Air Act, 1981: Section 21 deals with restrictions on the use of certain industrial plants (1-c); Section 47 provides the power of the State Government to supersede the State Board (2-a); Section 53 gives power to the Central Government to make rules (3-d); and Section 54 gives power to the State Government to make rules (4-b).
Q68
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBasel Convention on Hazardous Wastes
Which of the following convention governs the Hazardous waste management?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Basel Convention)
The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal (1989) is the international treaty specifically governing hazardous waste management and minimizing its transboundary shipments.
The non-living components of the environment, such as water, air, and minerals, are part of the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Abiotic environment)
The abiotic environment consists of all non-living chemical and physical factors in an ecosystem, including sunlight, temperature, water, atmosphere, soil minerals, and precipitation.
Q70
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnergy Resources
Fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas are examples of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Non-renewable resources)
Fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) are non-renewable resources because they formed over hundreds of millions of years from buried organic matter and cannot be replenished on a human timescale once depleted.
Q71
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyParticulate Matter & Human Health
Inhalation of fine particulate matter (PM2.5) can lead to health issues primarily affecting the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Respiratory system)
Fine particulate matter with aerodynamic diameter ≤2.5μm (PM2.5) penetrates deep into the alveolar regions of the human lungs and enters the bloodstream, primarily causing severe respiratory illnesses (asthma, bronchitis, COPD) and cardiovascular disorders.
Q72
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental History & Earth Day
The event that led to the creation of Earth Day on April 22nd each year was:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The Santa Barbara oil spill)
The massive 1969 Santa Barbara oil spill off the coast of California inspired US Senator Gaylord Nelson to organize the first national environmental teach-in and founding of Earth Day on April 22, 1970.
Q73
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRadiation Hazards & Health
Prolonged exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun can increase the risk of:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Skin cancer)
Ultraviolet radiation (specifically UV-B and UV-A) damages the DNA of skin cells, leading to genetic mutations that substantially increase the risk of skin cancers (including malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma) and cataracts.
Q74
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyHeavy Metal Ecotoxicology
Industrial pollutants like mercury and cadmium can accumulate in the food chain and pose a threat to the:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Nervous system)
Heavy metals like mercury (neurotoxin causing Minamata disease, ataxia, tremors) and cadmium bioaccumulate in tissues and severely damage the central nervous system, brain function, and renal tubules.
Q75
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Literature & History
The event that initiated the modern environmental movement is often associated with the publication of the book:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ("Silent Spring" by Rachel Carson)
Rachel Carson's groundbreaking 1962 book "Silent Spring" exposed the devastating ecological impacts of synthetic chemical pesticides like DDT on birds and ecosystems, catalyzing the modern global environmental movement.
The "Ozone Hole" phenomenon is most prominently associated with which region of the Earth?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Antarctic region)
The stratospheric ozone hole forms annually each spring over Antarctica due to extreme cold temperatures, polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs), the isolated polar vortex, and chlorine/bromine radicals derived from CFCs.
The estimation of sewage discharge is typically based on:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Total population)
Municipal sewage discharge estimation is calculated from the total contributing population multiplied by per capita domestic water consumption, multiplied by the sewage return factor (typically 75% to 80% of supplied water).
The design period in wastewater treatment refers to the:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Expected operational lifespan of the treatment facility)
The design period of a wastewater treatment plant or civil engineering project is the future number of years for which the capacity and components are designed to adequately serve projected population and loads without major expansion (typically 15–30 years).
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mixing chemicals to form flocs)
Coagulation is the chemical water treatment process where chemical coagulants (like alum, Al2(SO4)3) are added and rapid-mixed to neutralize colloidal surface charges, destabilizing fine particles to aggregate into settleable flocs.
Q80
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Filtration
Filtration in water treatment involves passing water through a medium to remove:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Particulate matter)
Filtration involves passing pre-treated water through a porous granular medium (like sand and anthracite) to capture and physically remove remaining suspended particulate matter, micro-flocs, and turbidity.
Q81
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAdvanced Water Treatment & Adsorption
Adsorption is a process used for:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Removing heavy metals and organic compounds from water)
Adsorption (commonly utilizing granular or powdered activated carbon, PAC/GAC) is a mass-transfer surface phenomenon used to capture and remove refractory organic contaminants, micro-pollutants, pesticides, odor, color, and heavy metals onto adsorbent pore surfaces.
Treatment ponds and aerated lagoons are examples of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Biological treatment processes)
Treatment ponds, stabilization basins, and aerated lagoons are biological secondary treatment processes that rely on active microorganisms (bacteria and algae) to digest, oxidize, and stabilize organic matter.
Q83
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAttached Growth Biological Systems
Trickling filters are designed to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Promote biological growth on a filter medium)
A trickling filter is an attached-growth biological treatment system designed to cultivate a fixed aerobic microbial biofilm (zoogleal slime layer) over a bed of crushed rock or plastic media to degrade organic matter as wastewater trickles over it.
Q84
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringRBC & Attached Growth Systems
Rotating biological contactors (RBCs) are used to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Support biological treatment using a rotating disc)
Rotating Biological Contactors (RBCs) are fixed-film secondary biological treatment units consisting of closely spaced circular plastic discs mounted on a horizontal shaft rotating slowly while ~40% submerged in wastewater, alternating between effluent contact and air exposure.
A Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR) is a type of wastewater treatment process that involves:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Batch-wise treatment with alternating phases)
A Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR) is an activated sludge process operated in timed sequential batches within a single tank through five distinct phases: Fill → React (aeration) → Settle (clarification) → Decant (effluent withdrawal) → Idle.
Anaerobic digestion is a process that occurs in the absence of:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Oxygen)
Anaerobic digestion is a biological process in which specialized obligate and facultative anaerobic microorganisms break down biodegradable organic matter in the strict absence of dissolved or molecular free oxygen (O2), generating biogas.
Pneumatic ejectors utilize ________ to pump sewage.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Air pressure)
Pneumatic ejectors are specialized sewage-lifting devices that use compressed air pressure to displace and discharge wastewater from low-lying collection basements into higher-level gravity sewers without clogging.
The waste generated by the tannery industry is often characterized by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (High organic content and toxic chemicals)
Tannery industrial effluents are characterized by extremely high organic matter loads (BOD/COD), high total dissolved solids, elevated sulfides, and toxic heavy metals like hexavalent/trivalent Chromium used during leather tanning.
Q89
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSludge Volume Index & Bulking
A high sludge volume index (SVI) indicates:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Poor sludge settling)
Sludge Volume Index (SVI) measures the settling characteristics of activated sludge in milliliters occupied by 1 gram of MLSS after 30 minutes of settling. A high SVI (>150 mL/g) indicates filamentous sludge bulking and poor settling/compaction.
A high effluent Total Suspended Solids (TSS) level indicates:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (High solids content)
A high effluent TSS value signifies that the clarifier or filtration unit is failing to settle solids effectively, leading to a high concentration of particulate solids in the treated discharge water.
The efficiency of a wastewater treatment system in removing nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus is crucial to prevent:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Algal blooms and eutrophication)
Nitrogen and phosphorus are limiting plant macronutrients. Removing them during tertiary biological wastewater treatment is essential to prevent rapid eutrophication, dense toxic algal blooms, and oxygen depletion in downstream receiving water bodies.
Q93
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringMass Balance & Process Modeling
The performance of a wastewater treatment system is evaluated by comparing influent and effluent concentrations of pollutants. This comparison is done using:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mass balance analysis)
Mass balance analysis (conservation of mass principle: Mass In=Mass Out+Mass Accumulated−Mass Converted) is the fundamental analytical method used to evaluate removal efficiencies across wastewater treatment units.
An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is a document that:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Describes the potential environmental impacts of a project and proposed mitigation measures)
An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is a formal public document resulting from the EIA study that outlines the environmental consequences of a proposed development and specifies the Environmental Management Plan (EMP) and mitigation measures.
Socio-economic impacts of a project relate to its effects on:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Livelihoods, employment, and community well-being)
Socio-economic impact assessment evaluates changes in human population, employment opportunities, local community livelihoods, public health services, housing, cultural displacement, and overall community well-being.
Q96
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyGIS Applications in EIA
Geographic Information Systems (GIS) are used in EIA to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Display spatial data and analyze impacts on maps)
Geographic Information Systems (GIS) are digital spatial mapping tools used in EIA for spatial data overlay, site selection, sensitivity zoning, modeling land-use alterations, and visualizing projected impact radii on maps.
Q97
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRemote Sensing in Environmental Studies
Remote sensing is employed in EIA to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Collect data about the Earth's surface from a distance)
Remote sensing is the technique of acquiring information about the Earth's land cover, vegetation index, topography, and surface features from a distance using satellite imagery or aerial sensors.
Which software is commonly used for modeling and simulating environmental impacts?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Specialized environmental modeling software)
Specialized environmental modeling software (such as AERMOD and CALPUFF for air dispersion, QUAL2K for water quality, and SoundPLAN for acoustics) is standard for numerical simulations in EIA.
In ecology and EIA terminology, 'biota' encompasses all the combined flora (plants, trees, vegetation) and fauna (animals, birds, aquatic organisms) inhabiting a specified geographical region.
The socio-economic environment encompasses aspects related to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Community well-being and livelihoods)
The socio-economic environment includes aspects related to human society, culture, community well-being, employment, education, demographic shifts, and local economic livelihoods.
Q101
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePrecautionary Principle & Jurisprudence
The "Precautionary Principle" enshrined in the Environment (Protection) Act emphasizes:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Taking preventive measures when an activity could harm the environment)
The Precautionary Principle states that where there are threats of serious or irreversible environmental damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective preventive measures.
Q102
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCoastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) & EPA
The amendments to the Environment (Protection) Act in 1991 extended its provisions to cover:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Coastal areas and regulation of hazardous substances)
In February 1991, under the Environment (Protection) Act, the Ministry issued the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, regulating developmental activities along coastal areas and strengthening hazardous substances rules.
Q103
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEIA Categorization (Category A & B)
The EIA notification categorizes projects into two broad categories based on their potential environmental impacts. These categories are:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Category A and Category B)
The EIA Notification 2006 classifies all developmental projects into Category A (projects appraised at the Central Level by MoEFCC) and Category B (projects appraised at the State Level by SEIAA).
Q104
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePollution Control Boards Functions
The central and state pollution control boards were established under these acts to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Implement and enforce pollution control measures)
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) were established under the Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981 to implement, monitor, and enforce statutory pollution control standards across India.
Q105
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater Act 1974 Consent Provisions
Under the Water Act, 1974, no person can discharge any pollutant into a water body without obtaining:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Consent from the State Pollution Control Board)
Under Section 25 and 26 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, no industry or person can establish or operate any outlet to discharge trade effluent or sewage without the prior Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO) from the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB).
Q106
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir Act 1981 Powers
The Air Act, 1981, empowers the central and state boards to take measures for:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Preventing and controlling air pollution)
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 empowers environmental boards to declare air pollution control areas, set emission standards, inspect industrial plants, and take all necessary measures for the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution.
Q107
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Measurements
Consider the following pairs: a. AQI | 1. ppm b. Discharge | 2. Litre c. Turbidity | 3. m³/s d. Conductivity | 4. Unitless Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-3, c-1)
Air Quality Index (AQI) is a dimensionless unitless scale (a-4); river discharge is measured in volumetric flow rate (m3/s or cumecs) (b-3); and Turbidity on standard silica scale is expressed in ppm (or NTU) (c-1).
Consider the following pairs: a. Hardness | 1. Attached growth bio-treatment b. POH | 2. Cm/min c. Trickling filter | 3. Suspended growth bio-treatment d. Screening | 4. 14 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (c-1, b-4)
A Trickling Filter is an attached-growth biological wastewater treatment process (c-1), and the sum of pH+pOH=14 at 25∘C on the standard aqueous dissociation scale (b-4).
Q109
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSedimentation Tank Hydraulic Zones
Arrange the following zones of sedimentation tank in sequence as per the flow of water processes in the tank. 1. Outlet zone 2. Inlet zone 3. Sludge zone 4. Settling zone
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2, 4, 3, 1)
In a continuous flow horizontal sedimentation tank, the sequence along the water path is: 2. Inlet zone (distributes incoming flow evenly) → 4. Settling zone (where particles settle) → 3. Sludge zone (at the tank bottom collecting settled solids) → 1. Outlet zone (where clarified water is discharged).
Consider the following statements: a. Grit represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater. b. Chloramine represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater. c. Ammonia represents the purity of water. d. Plankton represents the fully treated wastewater. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY-a)
Statement (a) is correct: Grit refers to the heavier, non-putrescible inorganic mineral matter (such as sand, gravel, eggshells, and silt) with specific gravity >2.0 present in wastewater.
Q111
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRiver Pollution & DO Sag Curve
Arrange the following zones of river water pollution in the correct sequence of their occurrence after the discharge of effluent. 1. Zone of clear water 2. Zone of pollution 3. Zone of recovery 4. Zone of active decomposition
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 4, 3, 1)
The sequential zones of pollution downstream of an effluent outfall in a self-purifying river are: 2. Zone of pollution (degradation) → 4. Zone of active decomposition → 3. Zone of recovery → 1. Zone of clear water.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rapid Environmental Assessment)
In environmental management and disaster response, the REA tool stands for Rapid Environmental Assessment, a streamlined methodology for quickly identifying key environmental vulnerabilities and post-disaster hazards.
Where of the following greenhouse gases are present?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Troposphere)
Greenhouse gases (CO2,CH4,N2O, and water vapor) are primarily concentrated in the Troposphere (the lowest atmospheric layer extending up to ~12 km), where they trap outgoing terrestrial infrared radiation to maintain Earth's thermal equilibrium.
Q114
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBhopal Gas Tragedy & EPA 1986
When EPA came into force?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (After Bhopal Gas tragedy)
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted by the Parliament of India in the immediate aftermath of the catastrophic December 1984 Bhopal Gas Tragedy (Union Carbide pesticide plant toxic methyl isocyanate gas leak).
Q115
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBiological Diversity Act 2002
Consider the following statements: a. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2002. b. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2010. c. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1996. d. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1977. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY- a)
The Biological Diversity Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in the year 2002 to preserve biological diversity, ensure sustainable use of its components, and secure equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
Q116
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater Act 1974 Sections
Which section of Water Act 1974 deals with Compulsory acquisition of land for the State Board?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section 56 of Water Act 1974)
Section 56 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 provides for the compulsory acquisition of land for the State Pollution Control Board under the provisions of the Land Acquisition Act.
Q117
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWastewater Treatment Units & Functions
Consider the following pairs: a. ASP | 1. Oil and Grease removal from sewage b. Fungi | 2. Type of coliform c. H2S | 3. Secondary treatment method d. Skimming tank | 4. Healthy mineral in drinking water Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, d-1)
Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is a widely used Secondary aerobic biological treatment method (a-3), and a Skimming Tank is a preliminary wastewater treatment unit designed to float and remove Oil and Grease (d-1).
Consider the following pairs: a. Screen | 1. Gravity filter b. Denitrification | 2. Bacterial density c. RSF | 3. Threshold number d. Total Alkalinity | 4. Rising of sludge Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (b-4, c-1)
In biological secondary clarifiers, unintended Denitrification produces nitrogen gas bubbles that attach to sludge flocs, causing the 'Rising of Sludge' phenomenon (b-4). Rapid Sand Filter (RSF) is the standard high-rate granular Gravity Filter (c-1).
Q119
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Treatment Units: Imhoff Tank
Which of the following is an ANAEROBIC process for treating sewage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Imhoff tank)
An Imhoff tank is a two-story anaerobic digestion unit consisting of an upper flow-through sedimentation chamber and a lower anaerobic digestion compartment where settled solids undergo anaerobic decomposition without oxygen.
Q120
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Parameters
Consider the following pairs: a. Unit of turbidity of water | 1. Tesla b. Unit of specific conductivity of water | 2. AQI c. AgNO3 | 3. NTU d. BOD | 4. Siemen Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, b-4)
The standard modern unit of Turbidity is Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) (a-3), and the unit of electrical Specific Conductivity of water is Siemens per meter (S/m or μS/cm) (b-4).
Arrange the following non-renewable fossil fuel in the sequence of higher to lower heating values. 1. Coal 2. Hydrogen 3. Petroleum. 4. Natural Gas
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 3, 1, 4)
Heating (calorific) values: Hydrogen (~142 MJ/kg) > Natural Gas (~50-55 MJ/kg) > Petroleum (~42-45 MJ/kg) > Coal (~20-30 MJ/kg). Arranging in sequence from highest to lowest yields: Hydrogen (2), Petroleum/Gas (3), Coal (1), etc.
Q122
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Observance Days
Consider the following statements: a) Earth Day is celebrated on March-22. b) Ammonia is the form of carbonaceous impurity. c) Potable water is a mineral water. d) World Water Day is celebrated on March-22. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ONLY-d)
World Water Day is observed globally on March 22 every year (Statement d is correct). Note: Earth Day is celebrated on April 22, Ammonia (NH3) is a nitrogenous (not carbonaceous) impurity, and potable water is safe drinking water conforming to health standards.
Q123
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEutrophication & Water Nutrients
Consider the following statements: a) Eutrophication causes the water pollution and death of aquatic lives. b) Phosphorous and Nitrogen causes the eutrophication. c) Smog causes the eutrophication. d) Water Hyacinth is the source of water pollution. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a and b)
Statements (a) and (b) are correct: Eutrophication is the dense algal bloom caused by excessive runoff of nutrients (Phosphorus and Nitrogen) into water bodies, leading to dissolved oxygen depletion and massive fish kills.
Q124
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyBiotic vs Abiotic Components
Which among the following is abiotic?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Air)
Air is an abiotic (non-living physical/chemical) component of the environment. Bacteria, Fungi, and Plants are living biotic components.
Q125
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringNitrogen Forms & Sewage Freshness
Which form of nitrogen in sewage indicates that the decomposition of nitrogenous organic matter impurity has just started in the wastewater?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ammonia)
In sanitary engineering, Free Ammonia (ammoniacal nitrogen) indicates recent pollution and the initial onset of organic decomposition. Albuminoidal nitrogen represents undecomposed organic nitrogen, Nitrites (NO2−) indicate ongoing active decomposition, and Nitrates (NO3−) indicate fully stabilized past pollution.
Q126
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringBOD Calculations
A sewage of 3% diluted sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 deg.C and D.O. depletion found to be 3 mg/lit. Estimate BOD of sewage after 5 days.
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAttached vs Suspended Growth Processes
Which among the following is attached growth process?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rotating Biological Contactors)
Rotating Biological Contactors (RBCs) and Trickling Filters are Attached Growth biological wastewater treatment processes where microbial biomass grows as a fixed biofilm on supporting media. Activated Sludge, Aerated Lagoons, and Oxidation Ponds are Suspended Growth processes.
Q128
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringActivated Sludge Process
Which of the following type of wastewater treatment process is used for treating wastewater or industrial wastewater using aeration and biological flocs?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Activated sludge process)
The Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is the primary suspended-growth aerobic biological treatment system where wastewater is mixed with a suspension of active microorganisms (biological flocs) in an aeration tank supplied with continuous oxygen.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Environmental Impact Assessment)
EIA stands for Environmental Impact Assessment, a formal planning and decision-making process used to predict and evaluate the environmental consequences of a proposed development project.
Q130
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Filtration & Treatment Units
Consider the following pairs: a. Gravity filter — 1. Inorganic material b. Grit — 2. Slow sand filter c. Carbohydrate — 3. Pressure filter d. Viscosity — 4. KVA Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-2, b-1)
A Slow sand filter is a classic Gravity Filter operating under atmospheric hydrostatic head (a-2), and Grit is composed of inorganic mineral materials like sand and gravel (b-1).
Q131
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceISO 14000 Environmental Management Standards
Which of the ISO 14000 series of standards focuses on evaluation of environmental performance?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (14031)
ISO 14031 provides international standard guidelines on Environmental Performance Evaluation (EPE) within an organization's Environmental Management System.
Q132
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Regulatory Framework in India
Which of the following is NOT the key environmental regulatory authority in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Department of Environment (DOE))
The primary statutory environmental regulatory authorities in India are MoEFCC, CPCB, and SPCBs. The historical 'Department of Environment' was merged into the full-fledged Ministry (MoEFCC) in 1985.
Q133
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePublic Liability Insurance Act 1991
Which victim of an accident is liable for Public Liability Insurance act-1991?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Handling hazardous substances)
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 was enacted to provide immediate relief to persons affected by accidents occurring while handling hazardous substances on a no-fault liability basis.
Which of the following is NOT the key international conferences on environment to the development of international environmental law?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (World Environment Conference (WEC)1988)
The landmark historical UN environmental summits shaping international environmental law are: Stockholm 1972, Rio Earth Summit 1992, and Johannesburg WSSD 2002. There was no landmark international treaty summit named 'WEC 1988'.
Q135
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Environment Policy (NEP 2006)
Which is the most recent pronouncement of the government's commitment to improve environmental conditions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (National Environmental Policy)
The National Environment Policy (NEP 2006) represents the comprehensive overarching national policy framework approved by the Government of India for environmental conservation, pollution control, and sustainable development.
Q136
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Terms & Organizations
Consider the following pairs: a. Unit of (BOD/COD) — 1. National Green Tribunal b. NGT — 2. Unitless c. PAN — 3. m3/s d. Conductivity — 4. National Geographic Tracking Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-2, b-1)
NGT stands for National Green Tribunal (b-1), and in standardized matching options, BOD/COD is expressed in concentration units (mg/L) or ratios.
Q137
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceChronology of Indian Environmental Acts
Arrange the following environmental legislations in India, in chronological order with respect to their passing and enactment. 1. The air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act 2. Forest conservation Act 3. Wildlife protection Act 4. The water (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3, 4, 2, 1)
Chronological enactment order of Indian environmental acts: 3. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 → 4. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 → 2. Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 → 1. Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Correct sequence: 3, 4, 2, 1.
Q138
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Movements in India
Arrange the following environmental movements in chronological order. 1. Narmada Bachao Andolan 2. Silent Valley movement 3. Chipko movement 4. Appiko movement
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 2, 4, 1)
Chronological order of Indian environmental grassroots movements: 3. Chipko Movement (1973 in Uttarakhand) → 2. Silent Valley Movement (1978 in Kerala) → 4. Appiko Movement (1983 in Karnataka) → 1. Narmada Bachao Andolan (1985). Correct sequence: 3, 2, 4, 1.
Q139
🛡️ Disaster ManagementMajor Global Environmental Disasters
Arrange the following environmental disasters in chronological order. 1. Niger-Delta Oil Pollution 2. India - Bhopal Cyanide Gas Leak 3. Italy - Seveso Dioxin Cloud 4. Romania - Cyanide Spill
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 2, 4, 1)
Chronological sequence: 3. Seveso Dioxin Disaster, Italy (July 1976) → 2. Bhopal Gas Leak, India (December 1984) → 4. Baia Mare Cyanide Spill, Romania (January 2000) → 1. Niger Delta ongoing spills.
Q140
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyAir Quality Index (AQI) Color Codes
Which colour of AQI indicates good air condition?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Green)
In the National Air Quality Index (AQI) color-coding system, Green corresponds to 'Good' air quality (AQI score 0–50) with minimal health impact.
What is the removal efficiency of high-rate trickling filter?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (85%)
A high-rate trickling filter utilizing effluent recirculation typically achieves a BOD removal efficiency of 80% to 85% (and up to 90% in two-stage systems).
Plankton refers to the diverse collection of microscopic drifting organisms inhabiting water bodies, categorized into phytoplankton (microscopic photosynthetic plants/algae) and zooplankton (microscopic animals).
Q143
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRamsar Convention International Partners
Which of the following are Partners of Ramsar Convention? 1. International Union for conservation of Nature 2. Birdlife International 3. International Water Management Institute 4. Wildfowl and Wetlands Trust Select the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands has six International Organization Partners (IOPs): IUCN, BirdLife International, International Water Management Institute (IWMI), Wetlands International, Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT), and WWF. All four listed are official partners.
Q144
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCPCB Constitution & Water Act
In constitution of central board for prevention and control of water pollution how many persons are nominated by government, which represents the companies or corporation owned, controlled or managed by central government.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
Under Section 3(2)(c) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Central Government nominates not more than three persons to represent corporations/companies owned, controlled, or managed by the Central Government.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Neutrally Stable atmosphere)
A coning plume profile occurs under neutral atmospheric stability (Environmental Lapse Rate equal to Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate) with high cloud cover and moderate-to-strong horizontal winds (>32 km/h).
Q147
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceSolid Waste Management Rules 2016
As per Solid Waste Management rule 2016 which ministry decides tariff or charges for the power generated from the waste to energy plant based on solid waste.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Power)
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, the Ministry of Power (and State Electricity Regulatory Commissions) is responsible for determining the tariff, power purchase agreements, and mandatory power procurement from Waste-to-Energy (WtE) plants.
Q148
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNational Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
What is the principal aim of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)? 1. NCAP was launched in January, 2019 with an aim to improve air quality in 131 non-attainment cities. 2. To attain a 20-30% reduction solely in PM2.5 levels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)
Statement 1 is correct: NCAP was launched in January 2019 covering non-attainment cities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the target was a 20–30% reduction in both PM10 and PM2.5 concentrations (not solely PM2.5).
Q149
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyUNEP Global Environment Outlook
The Global Environment Outlook report is published by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (UNEP)
The flagship Global Environment Outlook (GEO) periodic assessment report is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Criteria for plantation at landfill sites should be: 1. Locally adopted non edible perineal plants that are resistant to drought and extreme temperature. 2. The selection of plants should be of such variety that their root does not penetrate more than 30 cms. This condition shall apply till landfill is stabilized. 3. Selected plants shall have ability to thrive on low nutrients soil with minimum nutrient addition. 4. Plantation to be made in sufficient density to minimize soil erosion.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
All four criteria (1, 2, 3, and 4) are standard technical guidelines under municipal solid waste landfill capping rules to prevent root puncture of the barrier membrane while stabilizing topsoil against erosion.
Regarding the Ozone Layer, consider the following statements: 1. 90% of ozone occurs naturally in the Stratosphere. 2. Methyl bromide is an Ozone-Depleting Substance (ODS). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements are correct: Approximately 90% of atmospheric ozone resides in the stratosphere (the ozone layer), and Methyl bromide (CH3Br), widely used as an agricultural fumigant, is a potent ozone-depleting substance controlled under the Montreal Protocol.
Q152
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyGRIHA & Green Buildings
GRIHA is associated with which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Green buildings)
GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) is the National Rating System of India for green and energy-efficient sustainable buildings, developed jointly by TERI and MNRE.
Q153
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringIndustrial Effluent Standards: Sugar Industry
Permissible limit of Total Suspended Solids (mg/L) for disposal in surface waters from Sugar industry is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (100)
Under CPCB and MoEFCC Environment (Protection) Rules for effluent discharge into inland surface water, the permissible limit for Total Suspended Solids (TSS) from the Sugar industry is 100 mg/L.
Which of the following is not included in National Air Quality Index (NAQI)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Carbon Dioxide)
The 8 pollutants monitored in India's National AQI are PM10,PM2.5,NO2,SO2,CO,O3,NH3, and Pb. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas, NOT one of the criteria NAQI pollutants.
Q155
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyMontreux Record & Ramsar Wetlands
With reference to the Montreux Protocol which of the statement is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is a register of wetland sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur as result of human intervention.)
The Montreux Record (under Ramsar Convention) is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where adverse ecological changes have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or human interference.
Q156
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyKigali Amendment on HFCs
With reference to the Kigali Agreement, consider the following statement: 1. It was introduced as an amendment to the Montreal Protocol 2. It aims for the phase-down of HFCs 3. It came into force in September 2019 Which of the following are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 only)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Kigali Amendment (2016) amended the Montreal Protocol to legally phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Statement 3 is incorrect because it came into force globally on 1 January 2019.
Why does the regeneration of a tropical rainforest take longer when compared to a tropical deciduous forest after removal?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients)
In tropical rainforests, torrential rains continuously leach minerals deep into the subsoil, leaving topsoil naturally nutrient-poor. Most nutrients are stored in the dense standing biomass itself; once cleared, soil fertility is rapidly lost, making regeneration very slow.
Q158
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWildlife Protection Act Protected Areas
Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife protection act, 1972? 1. National parks 2. Wildlife sanctuaries 3. Biosphere reserves Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 only)
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 specifically provides for the statutory declaration and management of Sanctuaries, National Parks, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves. Biosphere Reserves are established under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme.
Q159
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringImhoff Tank Treatment
Imhoff tank is used for:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Settling and sedimentation)
An Imhoff tank is a primary sewage treatment unit designed for gravitational settling/sedimentation of solids in an upper chamber and anaerobic digestion of the settled sludge in a lower chamber.
Q160
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyThermal Stratification in Lakes
The layers formed by thermal stratification in lakes are:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Epilimnion, Thermocline, Hypolimnion)
Thermal stratification in deep freshwater lakes during summer forms three distinct vertical layers: the warm upper layer (Epilimnion), the transition layer with rapid temperature decline (Thermocline or Metalimnion), and the cold, dense bottom layer (Hypolimnion).
Q161
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyCogeneration & Energy Efficiency
Co-generation or CHP refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Production and use of two forms of energy from one fuel)
Cogeneration or Combined Heat and Power (CHP) is the sequential production of two useful forms of energy (typically electricity and thermal heat/steam) from a single primary fuel source.
Q162
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNAAQS Air Quality Sampling Protocol
Annual average for air pollution means total of........ measurements in a year.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (104 (twice weekly))
In National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), an annual average calculation requires a minimum of 104 measurements taken over 24 hours twice a week at uniform intervals throughout the year.
What is the permissible limit of day time industrial noise as recommended by WHO?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (75 dB)
Under India's Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 and WHO industrial guidelines, the permissible ambient noise limit in Industrial areas during daytime (06:00 to 22:00) is 75 dB(A)Leq.
Q165
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyWHO Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs)
WHO guideline values for ambient air concentration of PM2.5 and PM10 in annual average scale, in μg/m3 are respectively:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (05, 15)
Under the updated WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines (2021), the recommended annual mean concentrations are 5μg/m3 for PM2.5 and 15μg/m3 for PM10.
Q166
📜 Environmental Law & Governance42nd Constitutional Amendment & Environment
Which amendment explicitly incorporated Article 48-A and 51-A (g) into the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
The landmark 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Article 48A (Directive Principle directing the State to protect and improve the environment) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty of citizens).
Q167
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal (NGT) Act 2010
When was National Green Tribunal established in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2010)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on 18 October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
Q168
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir (Amendment) Act 1987 & Noise
Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1987)
Noise was formally included in the definition of 'air pollutant' under Section 2(a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act through the Air (Amendment) Act of 1987.
Q169
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewage Sludge Disposal & Heavy Metals
Municipal sewage sludge can be used as a fertilizer but may be unsuitable because of the presence of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Heavy metals)
Municipal sewage sludge (biosolids) contains valuable plant nutrients but can be hazardous for agricultural application due to the presence of non-biodegradable Heavy Metals (Cd,Pb,Cr,Ni,As) and organic micropollutants that bioaccumulate in food crops.
Which of the following is not the component of photochemical smog?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chlorofluorocarbon)
Photochemical smog consists of secondary oxidants like Ozone (O3), Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN), Acrolein, and Formaldehyde formed from NOx and VOCs in sunlight. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are unreactive in the troposphere and are NOT components of smog.
Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA) is a more advanced tool in environmental management. Reason (R): SEA is applicable at the level of policy, planning and programs. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A))
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) correctly explains (A). Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA) is considered an advanced tool because it evaluates environmental consequences upstream at the strategic Policy, Plan, and Programme (PPP) level before individual project-level EIAs are even initiated.
Q173
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceLandfill Siting Buffer Distances
According to Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, a landfill site should be how many meters away from a river?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (100 m)
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, a sanitary landfill site must be located at a minimum buffer distance of 100 meters away from any river or water body.
Q174
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCategory B2 EIA Exemptions
Which one of the categories of development does not require an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) report?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Category B2 projects)
Under the EIA Notification 2006, Category B2 projects are specifically exempted from preparing a comprehensive EIA report and public hearing, and are appraised directly based on their application form (Form 1/1A).
In nitrogen cycle, elemental nitrogen returned to the atmosphere by the following process:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Denitrification process)
Denitrification is the anaerobic biological process carried out by bacteria (such as Pseudomonas and Paracoccus) that converts nitrates (NO3−) and nitrites (NO2−) back into dinitrogen gas (N2), returning elemental nitrogen to the atmosphere.
Q176
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePlastic Waste EPR Categories
Match the following with respect to plastic packaging: List 1: 1. Category I, 2. Category II, 3. Category III, 4. Category IV List 2: i. Multilayered plastic packaging, ii. Carry bags of compostable plastic, iii. Rigid plastic packaging, iv. Flexible plastic packaging single or multilayer Select the correct option:
The word 'smog' was originally coined by Dr. H.A. Des Voeux as a portmanteau of Smoke and Fog, describing heavy atmospheric pollution formed by particulate smoke combining with damp fog.
Q178
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyCauses of Ozone Depletion
The "Ozone Hole" is primarily caused by the release of which type of chemicals into the atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs))
Stratospheric ozone depletion is primarily caused by synthetic Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and carbon tetrachloride, which release free chlorine and bromine radicals under intense UV radiation that catalytically break down ozone molecules (O3).
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Variety of living organisms in a specific region)
Biodiversity (biological diversity) refers to the totality of variety, richness, and variability among all living organisms from all ecological niches, including diversity within species (genetic), between species (species), and of ecosystems.
Acid rain is caused by the presence of which pollutants in the atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides)
Acid precipitation (pH<5.6) is primarily caused by the atmospheric emission of Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), which react with water vapor, oxygen, and oxidants to form sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3).
Q181
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyPollution & Human Health Hazards
An example of a health hazard associated with environmental pollution is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Respiratory diseases caused by air pollution)
Exposure to particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, ozone, and toxic fumes in ambient air triggers severe chronic respiratory illnesses such as asthma, bronchitis, COPD, and lung cancer.
Q182
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyHealth Effects of Ozone Depletion
Which of the following diseases is majorly caused due to ozone depletion?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Skin cancer)
Ozone layer thinning allows harmful ultraviolet-B (UV-B) radiation to penetrate to Earth's surface, causing cellular DNA damage that significantly increases the incidence of skin cancers (melanoma and carcinomas) and cataracts.
The estimated design period for sewage treatment facility typically ranges from
💡Correct Answer: Option C (20-30 years)
Under standard CPHEEO civil and environmental engineering guidelines, sewage treatment facilities and secondary treatment structures are designed for a 20 to 30 year operational design horizon based on projected population growth.
Q184
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringFluid Hydraulics & Flowrate Formula
If the area of reactor is 0.25 m2 through which water is flowing at a velocity of 10 m/s, what is the flowrate?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($2.5\text{ m}^3/\text{s}$)
Discharge/Flowrate Q=Cross-sectional Area (A)×Flow Velocity (V)=0.25 m2×10 m/s=2.5 m3/s.
The nitrification process is controlled by temperature and
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Solids Retention time (SRT))
Nitrifying autotrophic bacteria (Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter) have slow growth rates; therefore, maintaining an adequate Solids Retention Time (SRT or Sludge Age) alongside appropriate temperature is the critical design control to prevent nitrifiers from being washed out.
A town with a population of 60,000 has a daily sewage discharge of 1000 m3. What is the per capita sewage discharge for the town?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($0.016\text{ m}^3/\text{day}$)
Per capita daily sewage discharge =PopulationTotal Daily Discharge=60,0001000 m3/day=601≈0.0166 m3/person/day. Option A (0.016 m3/day) is correct.
Q187
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringCement Industry Effluent Characteristics
Which waste characteristic is common in the effluent from the cement industry?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Low pH)
Cement manufacturing process washwaters contain suspended cement particulate slurry with high pH / low acidity (alkaline nature, high dissolved calcium hydroxide), distinct from high organic BOD effluents.
A sequencing batch reactor (SBR) is operated in a fill-and-draw cycle. The cycle time is 8 hours. The aeration time is 4 hours. What is the fraction of the cycle time that the SBR is aerated?
The activated sludge process is a biological wastewater treatment method that primarily removes:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Suspended solids and organic matter)
The Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is fundamentally designed as a secondary biological treatment method to remove soluble and colloidal biodegradable organic matter (BOD) and settleable suspended solids.
Q191
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringComposition of Sewage
What percentage of solids does wastewater usually have?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.1%)
Typical municipal raw wastewater is composed of approximately 99.9% water and only about 0.1% (1000 mg/L) total solids (both dissolved and suspended combined).
Q192
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringUnit Operations vs Unit Processes
Which of the following is NOT a unit operation in wastewater treatment?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Activated sludge process)
In chemical/environmental engineering, 'Unit Operations' refer to physical separation methods (screening, sedimentation, aeration, equalization, filtration). The Activated Sludge Process is a biological 'Unit Process' (involving biochemical conversions), NOT a unit operation.
Q193
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSuspended Growth Biological Systems
Which wastewater treatment process relies on the growth of microorganisms in suspended sludge to treat organic matter?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anaerobic digestion)
Biological treatment systems such as suspended-growth anaerobic digestion and activated sludge rely on suspended microbial biomass flocs to biodegrade organic substrates.
Which industry typically generates wastewater with high levels of organic pollutants and requires specialized treatment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Tannery)
The Tannery industry generates extremely recalcitrant, complex wastewater containing exceptionally high chemical oxygen demand (COD), biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), toxic chromium salts, and sulfides requiring multi-stage chemical and biological treatment.
What type of microorganisms are predominantly active in a UASB (Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket) reactor?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Anaerobic microorganisms)
A UASB (Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket) reactor is a high-rate anaerobic wastewater treatment process that utilizes a dense blanket of granular anaerobic methanogenic and acidogenic bacteria operating in the complete absence of dissolved oxygen.
Q196
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Process Components
Which of the following is not a primary component in an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Preparing and Environmental Statement)
The core stages of the formal EIA process are Scoping, Impact Assessment, Mitigation Measures, Public Consultation, and Environmental Management Planning. Preparing an annual 'Environmental Statement' (Form V under EPA) is a post-construction statutory audit, not a primary pre-project EIA step.
Which impact methodology makes use of a remote sensing approach in an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Overlay technique)
The Map Overlay Technique (developed by Ian McHarg and modernized through GIS and Remote Sensing spatial data layers) overlays thematic transparent maps of environmental factors to evaluate aggregate spatial impacts.
Defining the Roles and Responsibilities comes under which stage of an Environmental Management Plan (EMP)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environmental Management Strategies)
Within the Environmental Management Plan (EMP), the organizational framework and institutional structure detailing administrative roles, responsibilities, and allocation of personnel is established under Environmental Management Strategies.
Q199
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceRio Declaration 1992 & EIA
Which international agreement, signed in 1992, emphasizes the importance of conducting EIAs for projects that may have transboundary environmental effects?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rio Declaration)
Principle 17 of the landmark 1992 Rio Declaration on Environment and Development explicitly mandated Environmental Impact Assessment as a national instrument for proposed activities likely to have significant adverse environmental impacts.
When a cultural site comes under the impact line of a proposed project, the matter is relevant to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Socio-cultural Index)
Impacts on archaeological monuments, religious shrines, historical landmarks, and indigenous cultural heritage are evaluated under the Socio-Cultural Index and Heritage Impact Assessment within the socio-economic dimension of EIA.
Which of the following pollutants is primarily assessed in Air Quality monitoring?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dust)
In routine criteria ambient air quality monitoring, Dust/Particulate Matter (specifically PM10 and PM2.5) is the most widespread and critical primary physical pollutant directly measured.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Strategic Environmental Assessment)
SEA stands for Strategic Environmental Assessment, the formalized, systematic, and comprehensive process of evaluating the environmental effects of a policy, plan, or programme.
Q203
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyGIS Site Suitability in EIA
How does GIS assist in identifying potential impacts during site selection in EIA for industries?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Integrating land use data to locate sensitive habitats and ecosystems.)
GIS assists environmental site selection by integrating multi-layered spatial data (topography, land-use zoning, hydrology, wildlife corridors, and proximity to protected forests and populated settlements) to identify ecologically sensitive constraints.
Q204
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEnvironmental Clearance Validity
According to the EIA Notification 2006, what is the maximum duration for which environmental clearance for a project under Category A is valid?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (10 years)
Under the EIA Notification 2006 (as amended by MoEFCC in 2022), the prior Environmental Clearance (EC) granted for Category A developmental projects is valid for a maximum duration of 10 years (and up to 30/50 years for mining).
Q205
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCoastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Distances
According to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification 2006, what is the minimum distance from the high tide line that should be maintained for building new structures in the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)-I?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (500 meters)
Under Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) regulations, the standard landward regulatory zone extends up to 500 meters from the High Tide Line (HTL), within which CRZ-I (ecologically sensitive inter-tidal areas) strictly prohibits new permanent civil construction.
Q206
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEPA 1986 Penalties & Imprisonment
What is the maximum penalty, in terms of imprisonment, specified in The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, for offenses related to environmental pollution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5 years)
Under Section 15 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the primary maximum imprisonment penalty for contravention of any provision is 5 years (which may extend to 7 years if non-compliance continues beyond one year after conviction).
Q207
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater (Amendment) Act 1988
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, was amended in 1988 to include a new chapter specifically dealing with
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conservation of coastal areas)
The 1988 Amendment to the Water Act strengthened enforcement powers, specifically introducing Section 33A granting the Board power to give binding directions for closure, prohibition, or regulation of industries.
Q208
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir Act: Emission Limits
Under The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, which term refers to the maximum amount of pollutants that a particular source is allowed to emit over a specific period?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Emission limit)
An 'Emission Limit' (or emission standard) specifies the legal maximum permissible rate, mass, or concentration of pollutants that a specific industrial stack or source is legally allowed to discharge.
LCA is conducted to analyze systematic impact of product or service in environment. LCA stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Life cycle assessment)
LCA stands for Life Cycle Assessment (standardized under ISO 14040/14044), a cradle-to-grave methodology used to evaluate the environmental impacts of a product or service across all lifecycle stages.
Which of the following reasons results in winter smog?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Temperature inversion causes pollutants to be trapped at ground level.)
During winter, thermal/temperature inversion occurs when cold ground-level air is trapped beneath a warmer layer of air aloft, preventing vertical air mixing and trapping particulate matter and smoke close to the surface to form dense winter smog.
Which of the following statements regarding Dugongs - marine mammals is/are correct? 1. The warm coastal waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans are home to dugongs. 2. Dugongs typically measure between 2.2 to 3.4 meters (7 to 11 feet) in length and weigh around 230 to 420 kg (500 to 925 pounds). 3. Males possess tusk-like incisors, while both male and female adults frequently exhibit sets of parallel scars on their backs, often resulting from mating attempts or fighting.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 3 only)
All statements (1, 2, and 3) are factually correct. Dugongs (sea cows) inhabit shallow coastal Indo-Pacific waters, are herbivorous marine mammals measuring 2.2–3.4 m, and mature males grow tusk-like incisors.
Q212
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNational Parks & Wildlife of J&K
Which National park is located in Jammu and Kashmir and is known for its population of endangered Hangul?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dachigam National Park)
Dachigam National Park, located 22 km from Srinagar, is the primary and only viable habitat of the critically endangered Kashmir Stag (Hangul - Cervus hanglu hanglu).
Q213
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Days
Which day is celebrated every year as 'World Environment Day'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5th June)
World Environment Day is celebrated worldwide on June 5 every year under the leadership of UNEP to encourage awareness and action for the protection of the environment.
Q214
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Distribution Valves
Match the list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below, List -1 (Name of the valve): a. Reflux valve, b. Sluice valve, c. Pressure relief valve, d. Scour valve List -2 (Purpose of the valve): 1. Drain out the west water from dead end, 2. Relieving water hammer pressure, 3. Control the flow in the distribution system at corner and pipe junction, 4. Allow the flow only in one direction
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1)
Reflux (non-return) valve = Flow in one direction only (a-4), Sluice (gate) valve = Regulate flow in pipe junctions (b-3), Pressure relief valve = Relieve water hammer pressure (c-2), Scour (blow-off) valve = Drain silt/water from depressions and dead ends (d-1). Match: a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.
Q215
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Treatment Plant Units
Considering (i) Screening (ii) Sedimentation (iii) Disinfection (iv) Filtration. The correct sequence of treatments which are generally given to treat raw water supplies are
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((i) (ii) (iv) (iii))
The standard sequence of municipal water treatment operations is: (i) Screening → (ii) Plain/Chemical Sedimentation → (iv) Rapid/Slow Sand Filtration → (iii) Disinfection (Chlorination). Sequence: (i) (ii) (iv) (iii).
Q216
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Distribution Design Capacity
The distribution system of water supplies is designed in the basis of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Greater of (A) or (B))
Under standard CPHEEO water supply design norms, municipal distribution pipelines and service reservoirs are designed for the maximum coincident draft (maximum daily demand + fire demand) or peak hourly demand, whichever is greater.
Arrange the following environmental conventions in chronological order (from oldest to latest) a. Stockholm Convention b. Montreal Protocol c. Kyoto Protocol d. Basel Convention
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b > d > a > c)
Chronological adoption: a. Stockholm Declaration (1972) / POPs (2001), b. Montreal Protocol (1987), d. Basel Convention (1989), c. Kyoto Protocol (1997).
Q218
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewage vs Sullage
What is the name of the water coming out of the kitchen, bathroom, and wash basin?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sullage)
Sullage (greywater) is domestic wastewater originating from kitchen sinks, bathrooms, washbasins, and laundry that does not contain human excreta / fecal matter.
Q219
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringDesalination Methods
Which of the following treatments reduce salinity of water? (i) Flocculation and sedimentation. (ii) Filtration. (iii) Reverse osmosis. (iv) Electrodialysis. Select the correct answer given below.
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((iii) and (iv))
Desalination and removal of dissolved mineral salts (salinity) are accomplished by membrane and electrochemical separation techniques, specifically Reverse Osmosis (iii) and Electrodialysis (iv).
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the combinations given below: List - I (Terms/Description): a. Sludge volume index, b. Thickening of sludge, c. Scum removal, d. Recycling of effluent List - II (Treatment operation/process): 1. Settling in primary sedimentation tank., 2. Settling in secondary sedimentation tank., 3. Filtration in trickling filter., 4. Activated sludge process. The correct combination is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3)
Sludge Volume Index (SVI) = Activated sludge settling test (a-4), Thickening of sludge = Secondary clarifier / thickeners (b-2), Scum removal = Skimming in primary sedimentation tank (c-1), Recycling of effluent = High-rate trickling filter recirculation (d-3). Match: a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3.
Q221
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Quality Testing: Threshold Odour Number
If 25 ml of an odorous water sample requires 175 ml of distilled water to produce 200 ml of odour free mixture, then what is the threshold odour number (TON)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
Threshold Odour Number TON=AA+B=25 ml25 ml+175 ml=25200=8.
What is the minimum residual chlorine desired after the chlorination process?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($0.2\text{ ppm}$)
According to Indian Standards (IS 10500) and WHO guidelines, treated potable drinking water must have a minimum free residual chlorine concentration of 0.2 mg/L (0.2 ppm) after a minimum contact time of 30 minutes.
Q223
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Distribution Layouts: Grid Iron
Among the following water supply distribution system, which one is referred to as Reticulation system?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Grid Iron system)
The Grid Iron system (interlaced/reticulation network) features interconnected loops and mains without dead ends, allowing continuous multi-directional circulation.
Q224
🌐 International AffairsClimate Change & UNFCCC
Which country has been selected to host the "Loss and Damage" fund board aimed at supporting countries affected by climate change?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Philippines)
The Philippines (Manila) was officially selected to host the Board of the 'Loss and Damage' Fund established under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) at COP28 to assist vulnerable nations facing climate disasters.
Consider the following states: 1. Rajasthan 2. Gujarat 3. Jammu & Kashmir 4. Himachal Pradesh Desert Development programme was started in which of the above states?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 & 4)
The Desert Development Programme (DDP) was launched by the Central Government in 1977-78 to cover both hot arid deserts (Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana) and cold arid deserts (Jammu & Kashmir / Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh). Thus, all 1, 2, 3 & 4 are covered.
Q226
🗺️ Geography & Environment of J&KEco-Sensitive Zones & Lakes of J&K
Jammu and Kashmir Government is to declare which lake as an Eco-Sensitive Zone.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dal Lake)
The Jammu and Kashmir Government notified the constitution of an expert panel to declare the world-famous Dal Lake and its catchment area in Srinagar as an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) to arrest ecological degradation.
Q227
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyWildlife Sanctuaries & Fauna of J&K
Dachigam National Park is famous for?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hangul Deer or Kashmir Stag)
Dachigam National Park, located near Srinagar, is the world-renowned protected natural sanctuary and home of the critically endangered Hangul Deer (Kashmir Stag - Cervus hanglu hanglu).
Q228
🔬 General ScienceEcology: Trophic Levels & Food Chains
The primary consumers are
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Herbivores)
In an ecological food chain, Herbivores (plant-eating animals like deer, cows, rabbits) occupy the second trophic level and are classified as primary consumers because they feed directly on primary producers (plants).
Q229
🌱 Environmental ScienceSolid Waste Management: Landfill Gas
When the organic matter present in the sanitary landfill decomposes, it generates
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Methane gas)
Anaerobic microbial decomposition of organic biodegradable municipal solid waste inside sanitary landfills generates Landfill Gas, consisting primarily of Methane (CH4, ≈50–55%) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
A Biogas (gobar gas) plant anaerobically digests cattle dung and organic waste to simultaneously generate combustible methane gas for power/cooking and nutrient-rich bio-slurry for agricultural manure/fertilizer.
Which of the following would produce minimum environmental pollution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrogen)
Hydrogen is a zero-carbon clean green fuel; when burned with oxygen, its only combustion product is pure water vapor (H2O), generating zero soot, carbon monoxide, or greenhouse gas emissions.
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs, e.g. CFC-11, CFC-12) used historically as refrigerants and aerosol propellants are commercially known by the DuPont brand trademark Freon.
Q233
🌿 National Parks & Wildlife of J&KDachigam National Park & Gateways
Which is the gateway of the famous Wildlife sanctuary of Dachigam?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Harwan Garden)
Harwan Garden in Srinagar serves as the primary entrance and gateway to the Dachigam National Park (home to the endangered Hangul / Kashmir Stag).
Which of the following solid wastage describes the term 'Municipal Solid Waste'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Non Hazardous)
Municipal Solid Waste (MSW), commonly referred to as everyday domestic and commercial trash or garbage, is primarily categorized as Non-Hazardous solid waste.
Q235
🌱 Environmental ScienceFundamentals of Ecology
Ecology deals with
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Relation between organisms and their environment)
Ecology (from Greek 'oikos' meaning house) is the branch of biology that studies the interactions and interrelationships between living organisms and their abiotic/biotic environment.
Q236
🌿 National Parks & Wildlife of LadakhHemis National Park
Consider the following statements about the Hemis National Park: 1. It is located in eastern Ladakh, Leh district, and is the largest national park in India. 2. Covering 4,400 square kilometers, this park is renowned for high-altitude habitats and Snow leopard safaris. 3. The name 'Hemis National Park' stands for "ten villages" in memory of the ten villages relocated for the park. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2)
Statements 1 and 2 are accurate. Statement 3 describes Dachigam National Park ('ten villages'), not Hemis (which is named after the historic Hemis Monastery). Thus, only 1 and 2 are correct.
Q237
🌿 Wildlife & Zoology of J&KScientific Names of Fauna in J&K
What is the scientific name of Markhor, a large wild goat?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Capra Falconeri)
The Markhor (the largest species of wild goat native to Central Asia, J&K's Pir Panjal range, and the national animal of Pakistan) is scientifically named Capra falconeri.
Q238
🌿 Flora & Forestry of J&KScientific Names of Himalayan Flora
Consider the following pairs of trees and their scientific names: 1. Chinar - Platanus orientalis 2. Deodar - Cedrus deodara 3. Silver Fir - Abies alba 4. Pine - Pinus roxburghii Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 3 only)
Chinar is Platanus orientalis (1) and European Silver Fir is Abies alba (3). Both 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
Q239
🌱 Environmental ScienceAir vs Water Pollutants
Which of the following is not a water pollutant?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sulphur Dioxide)
Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) is a primary atmospheric Air Pollutant (gas), whereas Zinc, Copper, and Nickel are toxic heavy metal Water Pollutants when discharged into water bodies.
Q240
🌱 Energy & EnvironmentRenewable & Conventional Energy Sources
Why is wind energy considered a conventional source of energy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (As it is readily available and used for a long time)
Harnessing wind power for traditional windmills, water pumping, and sailing has been in human practical use since antiquity.
Q241
🌱 Environmental ScienceGreenhouse Gases & Global Warming
Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas found naturally in the atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nitrogen oxide)
Synthetic Halocarbons / higher nitrogen oxides are primarily anthropogenic, whereas Carbon dioxide, Methane, Water vapor, and Ozone occur naturally in Earth's atmosphere.
A plant being eaten by a herbivorous which in turn is eaten by a carnivorous makes
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Food chain)
A linear unidirectional nutritional feeding sequence where nutrients and energy transfer from producer → primary consumer → secondary consumer constitutes a Food Chain.
Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (South India)
Extensive colonial commercial Teak monoculture plantations replaced complex multi-species moist deciduous forests in South India (Western Ghats), reducing native biodiversity.
Q244
🌱 Environmental Science & Waste ManagementWaste Segregation Color Codes
Consider the following pairs: 1. Green — a. General Waste 2. Blue — b. Paper and Cardboard 3. Yellow — c. Organic Waste 4. Red — d. Hazardous Waste Which of the following pair is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1c, 2a, 3d, 4b)
Standard municipal solid waste color coding: Green = Organic wet waste (1c), Blue = Dry recyclable waste (2a), Yellow = Bio-medical / Hazardous (3d), Red = Plastic/Infectious (4b) ⟹ 1c, 2a, 3d, 4b.
The process of burning municipal solid wastes under suitable temperature and conditions in a specific furnace is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Incineration)
Incineration is a controlled thermal waste treatment process that involves the high-temperature combustion of organic substances contained in solid waste materials.
Q246
🌱 Environmental ScienceAir Pollutants and Emission Sources
Consider the following pairs: 1. Carbon monoxide — a. Coal burn 2. Carbon-dioxide — b. Fossil fuels 3. Sulphur dioxide — c. Automobiles Which of the following pair is correct?
Arrange the following in chronological order: 1. Kyoto Protocol 2. Montreal Protocol 3. Vienna Convention 4. Basel Convention Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3, 2, 4, 1)
Chronology of international environmental treaties: 1. Vienna Convention for Protection of Ozone Layer (1985, 3) → 2. Montreal Protocol on Ozone Depleting Substances (1987, 2) → 3. Basel Convention on Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes (1989, 4) → 4. Kyoto Protocol on Greenhouse Gases (1997, 1) ⟹3,2,4,1.
Q248
🌱 Environmental ScienceHazardous Air Pollutants (HAPs)
Which of the following are toxic air pollutants? 1. Arsenic 2. Asbestos 3. Benzene 4. Potassium Chloride Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2 and 3)
Arsenic (toxic heavy metal), Asbestos (carcinogenic mineral fiber), and Benzene (volatile organic aromatic carcinogen) are recognized Hazardous Air Pollutants (HAPs). Potassium Chloride (KCl) is a common non-toxic fertilizer salt. Hence, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q249
🌿 Forestry & Wetlands of IndiaSundarbans Mangrove Ecosystem
Consider the following statements: 1. The Sundarbans are mangrove forest, on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Sundarban National Park is listed under the World Heritage Marine Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements are correct: The Sundarbans form the world's largest contiguous coastal mangrove forest across the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta (1), and Sundarban National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site recognized under the Marine World Heritage Programme (2).
Q250
🌿 Biodiversity & Ecology of J&KFlora of Kashmir Himalayas
Which of the following statements accurately describes the biodiversity and flora of Jammu and Kashmir? 1. The flora of Himalayan Kashmir comprises about 3054 species, including angiosperms, gymnosperms, and pteridophytes. 2. Only 5% of Indian mammals are found in Jammu and Kashmir. 3. Jammu and Kashmir has a uniform climate, leading to low faunal diversity. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)
Statement 1 is botanical consensus: The vascular flora of Kashmir Himalaya encompasses ~3054 documented species. Statement 3 is false (J&K possesses diverse subtropical to alpine microclimates and high faunal endemism). Statement 2 is false. Thus, 1 only is correct.
Q251
🌱 Environmental ScienceSources of Air Pollution: Anthropogenic vs Natural
Among the following options, which are man-made (anthropogenic) sources of air pollution? (i) Burning of firewood (ii) Forest fire (iii) Automobile (iv) Earthquakes
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((i) and (iii))
Domestic firewood burning (i) and motor vehicle combustion emissions (iii) are direct human/anthropogenic activities. Natural forest fires and earthquakes are natural phenomena. Thus, (i) and (iii) are man-made.
Maximum permissible drive-by noise level recommended as per Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989 for heavy commercial vehicles exceeding 12,000 kg GVW is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (89 dB(A))
Under Rule 120 of CMVR, 1989, the maximum permissible drive-by acoustic noise limit for heavy commercial transport vehicles with Gross Vehicle Weight exceeding 12 tonnes is 89 dB(A).
Q254
🌱 Environmental Transport PlanningSustainable Urban Mobility
Match vehicular pollution concepts: a. Idling at red traffic signal — 1. Turning off vehicle's engine b. Cycling or walking — 4. Sustainable mode of transportation c. Electric vehicle — 3. Reduces level of air pollution compared with petrol d. High vehicle density — 2. Increasing vehicular pollution in urban India
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2)
Remedies and impacts: Idling is mitigated by switching off engine (a-1); Active mobility is sustainable transport (b-4); Electric vehicles cut direct emissions (c-3); High vehicle density intensifies urban pollution (d-2) ⟹ a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2.
Q255
🔬 Physics & Automotive MechanicsConservation of Energy in Braking
When brakes are applied, the kinetic energy of the moving motor vehicle is converted into
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Thermal (heat) energy)
By the law of conservation of energy, friction between brake pads and discs/drums dissipates the vehicle's kinetic energy into Thermal (heat) energy.
What do "BS IV" and "BS VI" vehicle designations signify?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Emission control standard norms of India)
Bharat Stage (BS) emission standards (such as BS-IV and BS-VI) are statutory automotive emission control standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate atmospheric pollutants from motor vehicles.
Q257
🌱 Environmental Science & ClimatologyGreenhouse Effect and Atmospheric Radiation
The phenomenon when terrestrial thermal radiation absorbed by atmospheric gases is re-radiated back towards the surface of the earth is known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Greenhouse effect)
The Greenhouse Effect occurs when greenhouse gases (CO2,CH4,H2O) absorb long-wave infrared terrestrial radiation and re-emit heat back to warm Earth's surface.
Q258
🌿 Ecology & EnvironmentBiogeochemical Cycles: Gaseous vs Sedimentary
Which one of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Phosphorus and Sulphur)
Biogeochemical cycles with reservoirs in Earth's crust/rocks (sedimentary cycles) include Phosphorus and Sulphur. (Nitrogen, Oxygen, and Carbon are gaseous cycles).
Q259
🌿 Ecology & Trophic LevelsTrophic Structure: Primary vs Secondary Consumers
What trophic level of the food chain do secondary carnivores typically occupy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secondary consumers)
In ecological trophic levels: T1 = Primary Producers (Plants), T2 = Primary Consumers (Herbivores), T3 = Secondary Consumers (Carnivores feeding on herbivores).
What is the correct hierarchy order of the 3 R environmental principle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reduce, Reuse, Recycle)
The universally accepted waste hierarchy priority order is: Reduce waste generation first → Reuse products second → Recycle recyclable materials third (Reduce, Reuse, Recycle).
Q261
🌿 Ecology & EcosystemsEcological Pyramids: Pyramid of Biomass
In an ecosystem, the total dry weight and quantity of living organic matter at each trophic level is depicted by the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pyramid of biomass)
A Pyramid of Biomass represents the total dry mass of all living organic matter (g/m2) present at successive trophic levels of an ecosystem at a given time.
Q262
🔬 Classical Mechanics & PhysicsNewton's Laws & Conservation of Momentum
Which of these fundamental physical properties is conserved as a direct consequence of Newton's Third Law of Motion?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Momentum)
Because action and reaction forces between interacting bodies are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction (F12=−F21), the net internal impulse is zero, establishing the Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum.
Q263
🌱 Environmental Treaties & Atmospheric ScienceMontreal Protocol and Stratospheric Ozone
The Montreal Protocol (1987) was signed internationally to combat which of the following environmental issues?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ozone depletion)
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international environmental treaty designed to phase out the production and consumption of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons.
Q264
🦁 Tourism & Wildlife of J&KJamboo Zoo at Nagrota
North India's largest zoo 'Jamboo Zoo' is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Nagrota (Jammu))
Jamboo Zoo (spread over 3,200 kanals / 160 hectares along the Jammu-Srinagar National Highway) is located at Nagrota in the Jammu district.
Q265
🦁 Wildlife Sanctuaries of IndiaNandankanan Zoo: White Tigers
Nandankanan Zoological Park (Odisha) is internationally renowned for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (White Tiger)
Nandankanan Zoological Park in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, is globally famous for its White Tiger captive breeding and conservation sanctuary.
Q266
🌿 Ecology & Ecosystem StabilityEcosystem Types and Ecological Stability
Which of the following is considered the most ecologically stable ecosystem?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Marine / Ocean)
The Marine (Ocean) ecosystem is the largest and most stable ecosystem on Earth due to its immense size, high chemical buffering capacity, stable saline composition, and minimal thermal fluctuations.
Match environmental concepts with their definitions: a. Renewable Energy — 5. Energy derived from naturally replenished sources (sunlight, wind, water) b. Carbon Footprint — 2. Total amount of greenhouse gases emitted directly or indirectly by human activities c. Anthropogenic — 4. Resulting from the influence of human beings on nature d. Climate Mitigation — 3. Actions taken to reduce or prevent GHG emissions e. Greenhouse Effect — 1. Earth's atmosphere trapping solar radiation, increasing surface temperature
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-1)
Environmental definitions: Renewable energy is replenished naturally (a-5); Carbon footprint measures GHG emission total (b-2); Anthropogenic means human-caused (c-4); Mitigation means emissions reduction (d-3); Greenhouse effect warms the planet (e-1) ⟹ a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-1.
Q268
🍄 Flora and Forest Produce of J&KGuchhi Mushrooms of J&K
What is the botanical / scientific name of the wild gourmet Morel mushroom (Guchhi) found in the Himalayan forests of J&K?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Morchella esculenta)
Guchhi (the highly prized yellow morel mushroom harvested from temperate conifer forests of Doda, Kishtwar, and Kupwara) is scientifically named Morchella esculenta.
Q269
🦁 National Parks & Biosphere ReservesNanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
The Nanda Devi National Park and Biosphere Reserve is located in which Indian State?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Uttarakhand)
Nanda Devi National Park (a UNESCO World Heritage Site surrounding peak Nanda Devi, 7,816 m) is located in Chamoli district, Uttarakhand.
Q270
🌿 Ecology & Energy FlowSolar Energy in Ecosystems
What is the ultimate primary driving force and energy source powering all natural ecosystems on Earth?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Solar Energy (Sunlight))
Solar Energy from sunlight is captured by green autotrophs via photosynthesis, driving trophic food chains, nutrient cycles, and energy flow across all ecosystems.
Q271
🌱 Environmental ScienceGreenhouse Gases
Which of the following atmospheric gases is NOT categorized as a direct greenhouse gas?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hydrogen ($\text{H}_2$))
Methane, Nitrous Oxide, and Carbon Dioxide are potent greenhouse gases that absorb infrared radiation. Diatomic Hydrogen (H2) is not a direct greenhouse gas.
Q272
🌍 Climate Change & UNFCCCUNFCCC COP Summits
What does the abbreviation 'COP28' stand for in the context of UN climate change summits?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conference of the Parties 28 (UNFCCC))
COP28 stands for the 28th annual Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), held in Dubai in 2023.
Q273
🦁 Wildlife and State Symbols of J&KState Symbols: Hangul
Which animal is the official State / UT Animal of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kashmir Stag (Hangul))
The Kashmir Stag (Cervus hanglu hanglu), locally known as Hangul, is the critically endangered official State Animal of Jammu and Kashmir, conserved in Dachigam National Park.
Q274
🌍 Current Affairs & Wildlife LawOperation Sesha: Red Sanders Anti-Smuggling
'Operation Sesha', launched by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) and Customs authorities, aims to curb the illicit international trafficking of:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Red Sanders / Timber)
Operation Sesha is a targeted global interdiction operation initiated by India's Customs administration to crack down on the illegal export and smuggling of Red Sanders and precious timber.
Q275
🌱 Environmental Physics & ClimatologyMechanism of Greenhouse Effect
The greenhouse effect in the Earth's atmosphere is physically produced due to the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Absorption and re-emission of terrestrial infrared radiation by greenhouse gases)
Greenhouse gases (CO2, CH4, H2O vapor) allow incoming solar shortwave visible light to pass through but absorb and re-emit the outgoing longwave infrared radiation back toward Earth's surface.
Q276
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTNational Parks & Wildlife Sanctuaries of J&K
Which of the following national parks are located in Jammu and Kashmir? I. Dachigam National Park II. Kaziranga National Park III. Kishtwar High Altitude National Park
Which of the following options is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I and III)
Dachigam National Park (famous for the Hangul/Kashmir Stag) and Kishtwar High Altitude National Park are located in Jammu & Kashmir. Kaziranga National Park is located in Assam.
What is the main purpose of a sewage treatment plant?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To treat and purify wastewater)
The primary objective of a Sewage Treatment Plant (STP) is to remove contaminants, toxic pollutants, and harmful biological pathogens from municipal wastewater and sewage before safely discharging or reusing it.
Q278
General Knowledge with Special Reference to J&K UTNational Parks & Biodiversity of J&K
Which of the following statements about Kishtwar National Park is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The park is home for hangul.)
Statement D is incorrect: The critically endangered Hangul (Kashmir Stag) is exclusively protected in Dachigam National Park and Tral Wildlife Sanctuary in Kashmir. Kishtwar National Park is famed for Snow Leopard, Himalayan Musk Deer, Himalayan Brown Bear, and Ibex, not hangul.
Radon represents an environmental hazard primarily in:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Basement and ground floor apartments)
Radon-222 gas (a decay daughter of Uranium/Radium in soil and rock bedrock) is dense and seeps through foundation cracks, concentrating to hazardous levels primarily in basements and unventilated ground-floor rooms.
About Environment, Ecology & Biodiversity Questions for JKSSB & JKPSC
Practice authentic Environment, Ecology & Biodiversity questions asked in official JKSSB, JKPSC, and JK Police examinations. This comprehensive deck includes 279 solved MCQs from 26 different recruitment cycles with verified solutions.
Regular practice with these solved MCQs will help you master the exam pattern, improve problem-solving speed, and boost your score in upcoming Jammu & Kashmir government competitive exams.