Question 1

The Bacille Calmette-Guérin vaccine (popularly called BCG vaccine) is used to prevent which of these diseases?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Tuberculosis. BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guérin) vaccine is a vaccine primarily used to protect against Tuberculosis (TB).

Question 2

Name the hardest material present in the human body:

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Enamel. Tooth Enamel, which covers the crown of the tooth, is the hardest and most mineralized substance in the human body.

Question 3

What is the raised portion of a strand in a twisted cordage called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Crown. In technical cordage terms, the crown is the raised ridge formed by a strand on the surface of a twisted rope.

Question 4

What is the excitation range of the Alternate Light Sources used for direct visualisation of seminal stains?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: 450-495 nm. Seminal stains fluoresce brightly under blue light in the range of 450–495 nm, visualized using orange barrier filters/goggles.

Question 5

Urobilinoids can be converted to urobilin zinc salt that fluoresces under ALS of 450 nm. This method can be used to spot -

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Fecal stains. The Edelman test converts urobilinoids present in feces to a green fluorescent zinc-urobilin complex, serving as a test for fecal stains.

Question 6

Which of the following can distinguish between human salivary amylase and human pancreatic amylase?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Use of antihuman salivary amylase antibody. Antihuman salivary amylase antibodies (used in lateral flow tests like RSID-Saliva) specifically target salivary amylase and do not cross-react with pancreatic amylase.

Question 7

In the ABO system, what does the B-transferase gene transfer to the O antigen, thereby forming the B antigen?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Galactose. The B gene encodes a transferase enzyme that adds D-galactose to the H antigen (O antigen precursor), creating the B blood group antigen.

Question 8

What solution is used for the temporary mounting of hair sample?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Glycerin. Glycerin (or a glycerin-water mixture) is the standard medium used for the temporary mounting and microscopic examination of hair.

Question 9

Which of the following is a chemiluminescent assay of blood detection?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Luminol. Luminol produces a bright blue chemiluminescence when it reacts with the iron in hemoglobin in the presence of an oxidizer.

Question 10

What cells detected during microscopic examination would indicate the presence of saliva?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Buccal squamous epithelial cells. The presence of buccal squamous epithelial cells (shed from the inner lining of the cheek) during microscopic exam points to saliva.

Question 11

Which of the following statements aptly define the difference between Human hair and animal hair?

i. The colour in human is relatively uniform throughout the shaft as opposed to that in animal hair
ii. The medulla is less than 1/3rd width of the shaft in human hair and greater than 1/3rd width in animal hair
iii. Scaling pattern of human hair is imbricate while that of animal hair is varied

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i, ii and iii. All three statements correctly differentiate human from animal hair: human hair has uniform pigmentation (i), a narrow medulla (index < 0.33) (ii), and consistently imbricate scales (iii).

Question 12

What technique is most preferably used for the detection of blood in dried stains?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Absorption elution. The absorption-elution method is the most sensitive and preferred technique for detecting ABO blood group antigens in dried bloodstains.

Question 13

Which of the following is a type of impression evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Tire marks. Tire marks are impressions left by a tire on a soft surface, which can be cast or photographed.

Question 14

Which of the following is a type of individual characteristic of physical evidence, a shoe?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Wear and tear Of the sole of the shoe. Individual characteristics are unique features (like random cuts, wear, and tears on the sole) that can uniquely identify a specific shoe, as opposed to class characteristics like size or brand.

Question 15

The trace evidence sometimes fluoresces under UV light used at the crime scene. What is its range?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: 100-400 nm. The ultraviolet (UV) electromagnetic spectrum ranges from 100 nm to 400 nm.

Question 16

Consider the following statements pertaining importance of physical evidence.

i. Physical evidence can be tested by an independent forensic expert
ii. Physical evidence is subjected to memory loss
iii. Physical evidence can provide a link between the crime scene and the suspect
iv. Physical evidence changes according to the statements of the defendant

Which of the above statements is true/correct?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i only. Statement i is true as physical evidence can be independently tested. Statement iii is also true, but among the options provided, only 'i only' is available as a single correct choice.

Question 17

Consider the following pairs:

i. Fingerprints - Striations in marks
ii. Toolmarks - Minutiae patterns
iii. Footwear - Wear damage to sole
iv. Handwriting- Hiatus

Which of the physical evidence is correctly matched with their individual characteristics?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: iii and iv only. Footwear sole wear/damage (iii) and a hiatus in handwriting (iv) are individual characteristics. Minutiae are for fingerprints, and striations are for toolmarks/bullets.

Question 18

Which of the following criteria is related to the admissibility of evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Daubert criteria. The Daubert standard/criteria is used in US federal courts to determine whether expert witness testimony and scientific evidence is admissible.

Question 19

Which of the following evidences have the power of individualization?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: DNA profile. Only a DNA profile has the power to uniquely identify (individualize) a specific person to the exclusion of all others. Blood groups and clothing brands are class characteristics.

Question 20

Section 60 of IPC relates to which of the following?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Oral evidence must be direct. The question refers to Section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which states that 'Oral evidence must, in all cases whatever, be direct'.

Question 21

Which act deals with the protection and conservation of various species of birds and animals in India?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Wildlife Conservation Act 1972. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 in India deals with the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants.

Question 22

Which of the following is the major protein present in seminal fluid at concentrations of 0.5-2.0 mg/mL?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Prostate Specific Antigen. Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA or p30) is present in seminal fluid at concentrations of 0.5–2.0 mg/mL, serving as a key marker for semen detection. Semenogelins are present in much higher concentrations (10-20 mg/mL).

Question 23

What compound acts as the substrate in the Fast Blue B test for semen detection?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: a-naphthyl phosphate. In the Brentamine (Fast Blue B) test, alpha-naphthyl phosphate acts as the substrate for acid phosphatase, releasing alpha-naphthol which reacts with the dye to form a purple color.

Question 24

DMAC assay is a presumptive assay for body fluid detection. What does it detect?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Urea in urine. The DMAC (p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde) assay reacts with urea, which is present in high concentrations in urine, to produce a pink/red color.

Question 25

Epithelial cell detection is often indicative of the presence of various body fluids. What stain can be used to distinguish between skin, oral and vaginal epithelial cells?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Dane's. Dane's staining method is used to differentiate skin (keratinized), oral, and vaginal epithelial cells based on color differences related to keratinization.

Question 26

Match the column of the part of spermatozoa to the colour stained in Christmas tree staining.

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i-q, ii-r, iii-s, iv-p. In the Christmas Tree Stain (nuclear fast red/picroindigocarmine), the acrosomal cap is pink (i-q), the nucleus is red (ii-r), the tail is green (iii-s), and the midpiece is blue (iv-p).

Question 27

Which gland produces majority of saliva in humans?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Submandibular glands. The submandibular glands produce approximately 65-70% of the total unstimulated saliva in humans, followed by the parotids.

Question 28

What are the predominant bacteria in the vagina of women of reproductive age?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Lactobacilli spp. Lactobacillus species are the dominant members of the vaginal microbiota in healthy women of reproductive age, keeping the pH acidic to protect against infections.

Question 29

Which of the following statements pertaining to the Lewis antigen system is INCORRECT?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Lewis Ags expression is influenced by LEW1 and LEW2 genes. The Lewis antigen expression is governed by the FUT3 (Lewis) and FUT2 (Secretor) genes on chromosome 19. There are no genes named LEW1 and LEW2.

Question 30

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn occurs when -

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: An Rh negative mother becomes pregnant with an Rh positive fetus for the second time. Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN) occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. In subsequent pregnancies, maternal antibodies cross the placenta and attack fetal RBCs.

Question 31

IUCN stands for

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: International Union for Conservation of Nature. IUCN stands for the International Union for Conservation of Nature, an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.

Question 32

The Government Examiner of Questioned Documents (GEQD) was shifted to 1906 in which of the following places?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Shimla. The office of the Government Examiner of Questioned Documents (GEQD), initially setup in Bengal in 1904, was shifted to Shimla in 1906.

Question 33

What is the salicaceous outer covering of the diatom called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Frustule. The silica-rich, hard outer cell wall of a diatom is called a frustule.

Question 34

According to IUCN Red List, Endangered species are defined as

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Species that possess a very high risk of extinction because of rapid population declines of 50 to more than 70 percent over the previous 10 years. Under IUCN criteria, Endangered (EN) species are those facing a very high risk of extinction due to a population decline of 50% to 70% or more over 10 years.

Question 35

In what region of the spermatozoa is the mitochondria placed?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Mid piece. The mitochondria are spirally arranged in the midpiece of the spermatozoon, providing energy (ATP) for sperm motility.

Question 36

What antigen system does the FUT 1 and FUT 2 gene expression together determine?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: ABO antigens. FUT1 (H gene) and FUT2 (Secretor gene) determine the H antigen precursor, which forms the substrate for the A and B transferases in the ABO blood group system.

Question 37

Establishing geographical location of a wildlife species is crucial to legislative actions. How can this be achieved?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: By identifying reproductive population. To enforce regional protections (such as CITES appendices or regional laws), identifying the breeding/reproductive population of origin is the primary way to establish the geographic origin of a specimen.

Question 38

During autopsy of a body found in a lake, diatoms were found in the bone marrow. Which of the following assumptions is most valid?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: The water was aspirated while the victim was still alive. Diatoms entering the bone marrow requires active circulation, proving that the victim aspirated water containing diatoms while still alive.

Question 39

Appendix II of CITES includes

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled. Appendix II of CITES lists species that are not currently threatened with extinction but may become so unless trade is strictly regulated.

Question 40

In Ouchterlony assay, what would the appearance of a Y-shaped precipitin reaction indicate?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Partial identity. In the Ouchterlony double diffusion assay, a Y-shaped precipitin pattern (with a spur) indicates partial identity (shared epitopes but distinct ones as well).

Question 41

Which of the following is a quantitative assay?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Rocket immunoelectrophoresis. Rocket immunoelectrophoresis is a quantitative technique where the height of the rocket-shaped precipitin curve is directly proportional to the antigen concentration.

Question 42

The $I^{A}$ and $I^{B}$ are both expressed dominantly to produce AB blood group phenotype. What inheritance pattern does this example follow?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Codominance. Codominance occurs when both alleles are fully expressed in the heterozygote, as seen in individuals with the AB blood group expressing both A and B antigens.

Question 43

Which of the following is a primary binding assay?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Western blotting. Western blotting directly detects the primary binding between an antigen and a labeled antibody, whereas others are secondary assays depending on precipitation or agglutination.

Question 44

A prozone effect during a precipitation reaction is observed when

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: The concentration of antibody is excessive. The prozone effect is a false negative result observed in antigen-antibody reactions due to antibody excess.

Question 45

What type of antigen reacts with an antibody to give agglutination reaction?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Insoluble. Agglutination involves particulate or insoluble antigens (like red blood cells or bacteria) clumping together, while precipitation involves soluble antigens.

Question 46

A wildlife poacher is interested in illegal trade of tiger skin. What method of poaching will he prefer?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Legtraps. Poachers targeting tiger skins prefer legtraps (jaw traps) because they are silent and do not damage the pelt with bullet holes, ensuring maximum market value.

Question 47

What do you mean by Phagocytosis?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Absorption phenomenon. Phagocytosis is a cellular absorption/ingestion phenomenon where a cell engulfs solid particles or pathogens.

Question 48

AFIS is an automated system for storing and matching which of the following biometrics?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Fingerprints. AFIS stands for Automated Fingerprint Identification System, which is used by forensic investigators to store, search, and match digital fingerprints.

Question 49

Which of the following statement is FALSE?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: The width of cortex is less than the width of the medulla. In human hair, the cortex constitutes the bulk of the hair shaft, and the medulla is very narrow (occupying less than 1/3rd of the shaft's diameter). Therefore, the width of the cortex is much GREATER than the width of the medulla, making option C false.

Question 50

What are the predominant lactate dehydrogenase isozymes present in menstrual blood?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: LDH4, LDH5. Menstrual blood exhibits higher activity levels of Lactate Dehydrogenase isozymes LDH4 and LDH5 compared to peripheral blood, which is useful for the identification of menstrual discharge.

Question 51

What is examined in the hair root sheath for sex determination?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Barr body. For sex determination from hair roots, cells of the root sheath are stained and examined for the presence of a Barr body (which represents the inactive X chromosome in females).

Question 52

A preferred procedure for analysing DNA in cases of sexual assault involving multiple unrelated perpetrators would be:

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Differential extraction followed by autosomal STR analysis. In sexual assault cases, differential extraction is always required to separate the sperm cells from the female epithelial cells. Autosomal STR analysis is then performed on the sperm fraction to achieve maximum discrimination power, allowing the identification and individualization of each unrelated perpetrator.

Question 53

What is the most polymorphic region in human mitochondrial DNA?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: D-loop. The D-loop (displacement loop) or control region of human mitochondrial DNA contains the hypervariable regions (HV1, HV2, and HV3), which accumulate mutations rapidly and are the most polymorphic regions used for sequencing.

Question 54

What is the major organic component of the bone matrix?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Collagen. Collagen (predominantly Type I collagen) constitutes about 90% of the organic matrix of bone, providing structural flexibility and tensile strength.

Question 55

In maize, a dominant allele (A) is necessary for seed color, as opposed to colorless (a). Another gene has a recessive allele (w) that results in waxy starch, as opposed to normal starch (W). The two genes segregate independently. An AaWW plant is testcrossed. What are the phenotypes and relative frequencies of offspring?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: 1 (coloured seed, normal starch): 1 (colourless seed, normal starch). The testcross is AaWW x aaww. Since W is homozygous dominant (WW) in the first parent, all offspring receive a W allele and will have normal starch (Ww). The A gene cross (Aa x aa) yields 1/2 Aa (colored) and 1/2 aa (colorless). Thus, the phenotypic ratio is 1 (colored, normal starch) : 1 (colorless, normal starch).

Question 56

Which of the following is an example of trace evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Fiber. Trace evidence refers to microscopic physical evidence that is transferred between objects or people during a crime. Examples include hair, fibers, glass fragments, and paint chips.

Question 57

A diploid organism in which both the alleles are the same at a given locus, is said to be

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Homozygous. An individual or cell is homozygous at a given genetic locus when it carries identical alleles on homologous chromosomes.

Question 58

What region of a chromosome do mitotic and meiotic spindle fibers attach to?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Centromere. During cell division, the mitotic or meiotic spindle fibers attach to the centromere region of the chromosome, specifically at the kinetochore protein complex assembled there.

Question 59

At what phase during the mitotic cell division, does the kinetochore microtubule begin to form?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Prometaphase. During prometaphase of mitosis, the nuclear envelope breaks down and spindle microtubules begin to attach to the kinetochores of the chromosomes (forming kinetochore microtubules).

Question 60

A chromosomal aberration with a trisomy of chromosome 21 is known as

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Down's syndrome. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21).

Question 61

What is programmed cell death called as?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Apoptosis. Apoptosis is a process of programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular organisms, characterized by morphological changes and cell disassembly without damage to neighboring cells.

Question 62

During DNA replication, the two parental strands separate and each one acts as a template strand for new complementary strands. What is this model of DNA replication called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Semiconservative. The semiconservative model of DNA replication, proven by Meselson and Stahl, shows that each newly replicated DNA double helix consists of one intact parental (old) strand and one newly synthesized strand.

Question 63

What process do prokaryotic cells divide by?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Simple fission. Prokaryotic cells (bacteria and archaea) lack a nucleus and divide via binary fission (or simple fission), a process of asexual reproduction where the cell splits into two equal parts.

Question 64

What part of the CNS is associated with vital reflexes such as heartbeat and respiration?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata (part of the brainstem in the Central Nervous System) contains cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers that regulate autonomic reflexes like heartbeat, blood pressure, and breathing.

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The Bacille Calmette-Guérin vaccine (popularly called BCG vaccine) is used to prevent which of these diseases?

Name the hardest material present in the human body:

What is the raised portion of a strand in a twisted cordage called?

What is the excitation range of the Alternate Light Sources used for direct visualisation of seminal stains?

Urobilinoids can be converted to urobilin zinc salt that fluoresces under ALS of 450 nm. This method can be used to spot -

Which of the following can distinguish between human salivary amylase and human pancreatic amylase?

In the ABO system, what does the B-transferase gene transfer to the O antigen, thereby forming the B antigen?

What solution is used for the temporary mounting of hair sample?

Which of the following is a chemiluminescent assay of blood detection?

What cells detected during microscopic examination would indicate the presence of saliva?

What technique is most preferably used for the detection of blood in dried stains?

Which of the following is a type of impression evidence?

Which of the following is a type of individual characteristic of physical evidence, a shoe?

The trace evidence sometimes fluoresces under UV light used at the crime scene. What is its range?

Consider the following pairs: i. Fingerprints - Striations in marks ii. Toolmarks - Minutiae patterns iii. Footwear - Wear damage to sole iv. Handwriting- Hiatus Which of the physical evidence is correctly matched with their individual characteristics?

Which of the following criteria is related to the admissibility of evidence?

Which of the following evidences have the power of individualization?

Section 60 of IPC relates to which of the following?

Which act deals with the protection and conservation of various species of birds and animals in India?

Which of the following is the major protein present in seminal fluid at concentrations of 0.5-2.0 mg/mL?

What compound acts as the substrate in the Fast Blue B test for semen detection?

DMAC assay is a presumptive assay for body fluid detection. What does it detect?

Epithelial cell detection is often indicative of the presence of various body fluids. What stain can be used to distinguish between skin, oral and vaginal epithelial cells?

Match the column of the part of spermatozoa to the colour stained in Christmas tree staining.

Which gland produces majority of saliva in humans?

What are the predominant bacteria in the vagina of women of reproductive age?

Which of the following statements pertaining to the Lewis antigen system is INCORRECT?

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn occurs when -

IUCN stands for

The Government Examiner of Questioned Documents (GEQD) was shifted to 1906 in which of the following places?

What is the salicaceous outer covering of the diatom called?

According to IUCN Red List, Endangered species are defined as

In what region of the spermatozoa is the mitochondria placed?

What antigen system does the FUT 1 and FUT 2 gene expression together determine?

Establishing geographical location of a wildlife species is crucial to legislative actions. How can this be achieved?

During autopsy of a body found in a lake, diatoms were found in the bone marrow. Which of the following assumptions is most valid?

Appendix II of CITES includes

In Ouchterlony assay, what would the appearance of a Y-shaped precipitin reaction indicate?

Which of the following is a quantitative assay?

The $I^{A}$ and $I^{B}$ are both expressed dominantly to produce AB blood group phenotype. What inheritance pattern does this example follow?

Which of the following is a primary binding assay?

A prozone effect during a precipitation reaction is observed when

What type of antigen reacts with an antibody to give agglutination reaction?

A wildlife poacher is interested in illegal trade of tiger skin. What method of poaching will he prefer?

What do you mean by Phagocytosis?

AFIS is an automated system for storing and matching which of the following biometrics?

Which of the following statement is FALSE?

What are the predominant lactate dehydrogenase isozymes present in menstrual blood?

What is examined in the hair root sheath for sex determination?

A preferred procedure for analysing DNA in cases of sexual assault involving multiple unrelated perpetrators would be:

What is the most polymorphic region in human mitochondrial DNA?

What is the major organic component of the bone matrix?

Which of the following is an example of trace evidence?

A diploid organism in which both the alleles are the same at a given locus, is said to be

What region of a chromosome do mitotic and meiotic spindle fibers attach to?

At what phase during the mitotic cell division, does the kinetochore microtubule begin to form?

A chromosomal aberration with a trisomy of chromosome 21 is known as

What is programmed cell death called as?

During DNA replication, the two parental strands separate and each one acts as a template strand for new complementary strands. What is this model of DNA replication called?

What process do prokaryotic cells divide by?

What part of the CNS is associated with vital reflexes such as heartbeat and respiration?

Which of the following is an example of behavioural biometrics?

Consider the following statements: i. Brand of footwear is a class characteristic ii. DNA profile is an individual characteristic iii. Wear and tear on the sole of the footwear is a class characteristic iv. Blood group is an individual characteristic Which of the above statements is true/correct?

What is a druggist fold?

A serial offender is suspected of victimizing young teenage girls by mutilating their breasts. What will be the signature/style by which the culprit is killing his victims be called?

Which of the following evidences have the power of individualization?

On a suspected homicide crime scene, which of the following chemicals is used for the chemiluminescence of blood?

Electrostatic lifting device can be used to collect which of the following evidence from crime scene?

When trace evidence is transferred from source "A" to source "C" without contact via intermediate source "B" it is called?

Match the columns: | Column 1 | Column 2 | | --- | --- | | i. Blood | a) Phadebas test | | ii. Semen | b) Christmas tree staining | | iii. Saliva | c) Nessler's test | | iv. Urine | d) Takayama crystal assay | Choose the correct option:

In STR genotyping results for multiple contributors, four peaks were obtained on a single locus for a sample. What is your most probable conclusion?

Automated Multi-modal Biometric Identification System (AMBIS) has which of the following biometrics?

After 6 cycles of PCR amplification process, how many number of DNA copies would be generated under ideal conditions?

In agarose gel electrophoresis, what dye is used to visualise DNA?

In the mitochondrial DNA, uninterrupted C-stretches in the mt DNA are an example of

In 1984, Sir Alec Jeffreys was the first to utilise VNTR loci for DNA fingerprinting. What technique did he use?

How would you calculate the locus genotype frequency for a heterozygous locus with allele frequencies p and q for human STR genotyping?

Which of the following statements related to mitochondrial DNA is INCORRECT?