JKSSB Field Assistant 2026 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

Which of the following international conferences is correctly matched with its primary outcome?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Rio Earth Summit (1992) - adopted Agenda 21 and the Convention on Biological Diversity. The 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) in Rio de Janeiro (Earth Summit) adopted Agenda 21, the Rio Declaration, the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), and the UNFCCC.

Question 2

Which of the following is not a Multilateral Environmental Agreement (MEA) related to climate change?

Accepted Answer

Option D: CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species). CITES regulates international trade in wild fauna and flora to prevent species endangerment. UNFCCC, Kyoto Protocol, and Paris Agreement are multilateral treaties specifically focused on climate change.

Question 3

Which of the following correctly describes an abiotic component of the environment?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Wind patterns influencing erosion and sediment transport. Abiotic components are the non-living physical and chemical elements of an environment, such as wind, temperature, soil, sunlight, and precipitation. Wind patterns represent an abiotic process.

Question 4

Which of the following best describes a biotic environment?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Plants, animals, and microorganisms. The biotic environment encompasses all living organisms within an ecosystem, including producers (plants), consumers (animals), and decomposers (microorganisms).

Question 5

Which of the following is not an example of a non-renewable resource?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Solar energy. Solar energy is an inexhaustible, renewable resource derived from the sun that does not deplete with human consumption. Coal, petroleum, and non-recharging fossil aquifers are non-renewable.

Question 6

Over-exploitation of non-renewable resources primarily leads to:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Depletion of resource stock and long-term environmental degradation. Over-exploitation of finite non-renewable resources permanently exhausts natural reserves and causes severe long-term environmental degradation including pollution, habitat loss, and climate impacts.

Question 7

Which of the following conditions is least likely to be caused by long-term exposure to air pollution in urban areas?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Vitamin-D deficiency. Chronic bronchitis, ischemic heart disease, and asthma exacerbations are direct, well-documented cardiopulmonary diseases caused by airborne particulate matter and toxic gases. Vitamin D deficiency is primarily dietary or related to insufficient direct UV sunlight exposure.

Question 8

Which of the following pollutants is most strongly associated with methemoglobinemia (blue-baby syndrome) in infants?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Nitrate (NO3-) in drinking water. Excessive nitrate (NO3-) in drinking water is converted into nitrite (NO2-) in an infant's gut, which binds with hemoglobin to form methemoglobin, reducing oxygen-carrying capacity and causing methemoglobinemia (blue-baby syndrome).

Question 9

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under:

Accepted Answer

Option B: The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. The National Green Tribunal was established on 18 October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection.

Question 10

Which of the following environmental laws is not explicitly covered under the NGT Act for adjudicating disputes?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010 lists 7 statutes. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Indian Forest Act, 1927 are not included under the jurisdiction of the National Green Tribunal.

Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding abiotic and biotic components of the environment:
I. Abiotic components are governed primarily by physical and chemical laws and do not reproduce.
II. Biotic components include only plants and animals, excluding microorganisms.
III. Interaction between abiotic and biotic components determines productivity and carrying capacity of an ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option B: I and III only. Statement I is correct (abiotic components are non-living physical/chemical factors). Statement II is incorrect because biotic components include microorganisms, bacteria, and fungi. Statement III is correct. Thus, I and III only are correct.

Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010:
I. NGT primarily hears civil disputes arising under specified environmental enactments.
II. Orders of NGT are appealable only before the respective High Court.
III. NGT can frame new criminal substantive law and independently prosecute offenders under the IPC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: I only. Statement I is correct: NGT has civil jurisdiction over environmental matters involving a substantial question relating to the environment. Statement II is incorrect because under Section 22 of the NGT Act, appeals lie directly to the Supreme Court of India. Statement III is incorrect because NGT cannot frame criminal laws. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding non-renewable resources and health hazards:
I. Coal and petroleum are non-renewable resources whose extraction often leads to land subsidence and acid mine drainage.
II. Long-term exposure to groundwater contaminated with arsenic is associated with skin lesions and black-foot disease.
III. Indoor air pollution from solid-fuel stoves does not cause any significant health burden in developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: I and II only. Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because indoor/household air pollution from burning biomass and solid fuels is one of the leading global causes of respiratory mortality and disease burden in developing nations. Thus, I and II only are correct.

Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding pollution indices and environmental events:
I. The Air Quality Index (AQI) in India is based on the concentration of multiple pollutants including PM2.5, PM10, NO2, and CO.
II. The Pollutant Standards Index (PSI) is used in India as the primary national air quality index.
III. The Montreal Protocol (1987) is an international agreement aimed at protecting the ozone layer by phasing out ozone depleting substances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option B: I and III only. Statements I and III are correct: India's National AQI considers 8 pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, Pb), and Montreal Protocol phases out ozone-depleting substances. Statement II is incorrect because India uses the National Air Quality Index (NAQI), not the US PSI. Thus, I and III only are correct.

Question 15

Match List-I (Pollution Type) with List-II (Associated Health Hazard / Effect) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Air (PM2.5)
ii. Water (Nitrates)
iii. Land (Heavy Metals)
iv. Noise
List-II:
a. Methemoglobinemia
b. Hearing loss
c. Respiratory diseases
d. Neurological disorders

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b. PM2.5 causes respiratory diseases (i-c); Nitrates in water cause methemoglobinemia (ii-a); Heavy metals in soil cause neurological disorders (iii-d); Excessive noise causes hearing loss (iv-b). Thus, i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.

Question 16

Match List-I (Environmental Agreement) with List-II (Year / Description) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Stockholm
ii. Rio
iii. Kyoto
iv. Paris
List-II:
a. 1997 targets
b. 1992 Agenda 21
c. 1972 first UN conf
d. 2015 global agreement

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d. Stockholm Conference took place in 1972 (i-c); Rio Summit in 1992 adopted Agenda 21 (ii-b); Kyoto Protocol in 1997 set emission reduction targets (iii-a); Paris Agreement in 2015 is the global climate accord (iv-d). Hence, i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d.

Question 17

Match List-I (Resource Type) with List-II (Example) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Non-renewable
ii. Renewable
iii. Abiotic
iv. Biotic
List-II:
a. Solar
b. Petroleum
c. Topography
d. Forest

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d. Non-renewable matches Petroleum (i-b); Renewable matches Solar (ii-a); Abiotic matches Topography (iii-c); Biotic matches Forest (iv-d). Hence, i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d.

Question 18

Match List-I (Pollution Index / Tool) with List-II (Purpose) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. AQI
ii. WQI
iii. BOD
iv. PSI
List-II:
a. Organic pollution in water
b. Overall water quality
c. Urban air quality
d. Old US index

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d. AQI measures urban air quality (i-c); WQI measures overall water quality (ii-b); BOD measures organic pollution in water (iii-a); PSI is the older US Pollutant Standards Index (iv-d). Hence, i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d.

Question 19

Arrange the following environmental events in chronological order (earliest first):
I. Earth Summit (Rio Earth Summit)
II. Stockholm Conference on Human Environment
III. Adoption of the Kyoto Protocol
IV. Paris Agreement on Climate Change
Choose the correct order:

Accepted Answer

Option B: II - I - III - IV. Chronological order: II. Stockholm Conference (1972) -> I. Rio Earth Summit (1992) -> III. Kyoto Protocol (1997) -> IV. Paris Agreement (2015). Thus, II - I - III - IV.

Question 20

Arrange the following environment-related days in chronological order within a single calendar year (earliest first):
I. World Health Day
II. World Environment Day
III. Earth Day
IV. World Ozone Day
Choose the correct order:

Accepted Answer

Option A: I - III - II - IV. In a calendar year: I. World Health Day is on 7 April; III. Earth Day is on 22 April; II. World Environment Day is on 5 June; IV. World Ozone Day is on 16 September. Hence, I - III - II - IV.

Question 21

The quantity of sewage generated in a town is generally estimated as approximately:

Accepted Answer

Option C: 75-85% of per-capita water supplied. As per standard sanitary engineering and CPHEEO norms, approximately 75% to 85% of the total potable water supplied to a community reaches the sewerage system as domestic wastewater.

Question 22

For proper design of sewerage components, the design period is normally taken as:

Accepted Answer

Option C: 20-30 years for sewers and 15-25 years for treatment works. Under standard design practices (CPHEEO Manual), sewer collection networks are designed for a 30-year period (20-30 years) due to difficulty in expanding underground pipes, whereas sewage treatment plants are designed for 15-25 years in phases.

Question 23

In a conventional activated sludge process, the secondary clarifier is primarily used for:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Settling and separation of biomass (sludge) from treated effluent. The secondary clarifier (settling tank) in an activated sludge process separates the suspended biological flocs (biomass) from the aerated mixed liquor, producing clear supernatant effluent and concentrated sludge for recycle (RAS).

Question 24

The Rotating Biological Contactor (RBC) is a type of:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Attached-growth biological system. A Rotating Biological Contactor (RBC) is an attached-growth (fixed-film) biological reactor consisting of closely spaced rotating plastic disks on which a biofilm of microorganisms grows to treat wastewater.

Question 25

Which of the following unit operations removes fine suspended solids and colloidal particles by chemical destabilization and formation of flocs?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Coagulation and flocculation. Coagulation destabilizes negative surface charges on colloidal particles using chemical coagulants (like alum), and flocculation aggregates the destabilized particles into larger settleable flocs.

Question 26

In a UASB (Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket) reactor, the key feature is:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Naturally formed granular sludge bed through which wastewater flows upward. The UASB reactor operates anaerobically by introducing wastewater at the bottom and flowing upwards through a dense blanket of self-immobilized, naturally formed anaerobic granular sludge.

Question 27

Which of the following industrial wastewaters is characterized by high BOD, high solids, and high alkalinity, and often requires neutralization and equalization before treatment?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Tannery. Tannery wastewater (specifically from beamhouse operations like liming and unhairing) is renowned for extremely high alkalinity (pH 9-11), high dissolved and suspended solids, high BOD/COD, and chromium, necessitating equalization and chemical neutralization before biological treatment.

Question 28

In a Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR), the operational sequence within each cycle is:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Fill -> Aerate -> Settle -> Decant -> Idle. The five discrete phases in an SBR cycle occur sequentially in the same reactor basin: 1. Fill (influent addition), 2. React/Aerate (biological treatment), 3. Settle (quiescent clarification), 4. Decant (treated effluent withdrawal), and 5. Idle (sludge wasting/waiting for next cycle).

Question 29

Which of the following pumps is most commonly used for pumping raw sewage containing suspended solids?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Centrifugal pump with open impeller. Non-clog centrifugal pumps fitted with open or semi-open impellers (with wide passages) are standard for raw sewage to prevent clogging by suspended fibrous solids and debris.

Question 30

Pumping stations for sewage are generally located:

Accepted Answer

Option B: At depression points, along the sewer line, and at the sewage treatment plant head. Sewage lift stations are placed at low depression points where gravity flow cannot continue, intermediate lift stations along long trunk sewers to avoid excessive trench depth, and at the headworks of the sewage treatment plant.

Question 31

Consider the following statements about sewage discharge and design periods:
I. Per-capita sewage generated is generally taken as about 75-85% of per-capita water supplied.
II. The average daily sewage flow is sufficient for sizing all components of the sewerage system without any peak-factor consideration.
III. Design periods for sewers are usually longer than those for treatment-plant components.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option B: I and III only. Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because sewer pipelines must be sized to carry peak flow (using a peak factor of 2.0 to 3.0) to prevent overflow during maximum discharge hours. Thus, I and III only are correct.

Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding unit operations in water and wastewater treatment:
I. Coagulation neutralizes the surface charge of colloids, while flocculation promotes their aggregation.
II. Sedimentation tanks are designed mainly for the removal of dissolved organics.
III. Adsorption (e.g., using activated carbon) is effective for removing color, taste-and-odor compounds, and some micropollutants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option B: I and III only. Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because sedimentation tanks are designed to remove settleable suspended solids, not dissolved organics (which require biological treatment or advanced oxidation). Thus, I and III only are correct.

Question 33

Consider the following statements regarding biological treatment systems:
I. Trickling filters are attached-growth systems in which wastewater trickles over a media bed.
II. Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR) is a suspended-growth system that operates in time-phased cycles in a single tank.
III. Anaerobic filters are used only for treating sewage and not for industrial effluents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: I and II only. Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because anaerobic filters are extensively employed to treat high-strength industrial wastewaters (distillery, dairy, pharmaceutical, and chemical effluents). Thus, I and II only are correct.

Question 34

Consider the following statements regarding nitrification and denitrification:
I. Nitrification converts ammonium (NH4+) to nitrate (NO3-) under aerobic conditions.
II. Denitrification converts nitrate (NO3-) to nitrogen gas (N2) under anaerobic/anoxic conditions.
III. Both processes are performed by the same group of autotrophic bacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: I and II only. Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because nitrification is carried out by obligate autotrophic bacteria (Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter), whereas denitrification is conducted by facultative heterotrophic bacteria in anoxic environments. Thus, I and II only are correct.

Question 35

Match List-I (Unit Process) with List-II (Primary Purpose) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Equalization
ii. Aeration
iii. Adsorption
iv. Disinfection
List-II:
a. Pathogen removal
b. Reduction of variations
c. Supply oxygen
d. Removal of color/odour

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a. Equalization reduces flow and pollutant load variations (i-b); Aeration supplies dissolved oxygen for microbial metabolism (ii-c); Adsorption removes color and odor compounds (iii-d); Disinfection eliminates harmful pathogens (iv-a). Thus, i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a.

Question 36

Match List-I (Biological System) with List-II (Type of Growth / Configuration) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Activated Sludge
ii. Trickling Filter
iii. RBC
iv. UASB
List-II:
a. Attached (rotating)
b. Attached (stationary)
c. Suspended (aeration+clarifier)
d. Anaerobic granular bed

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d. Activated Sludge is a suspended growth process with aeration and clarifier (i-c); Trickling Filter is stationary attached-growth (ii-b); RBC is rotating attached-growth (iii-a); UASB uses an anaerobic granular sludge bed (iv-d). Hence, i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d.

Question 37

Match List-I (Industrial Effluent) with List-II (Characteristics / Major Issues) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Textile
ii. Tannery
iii. Dairy
iv. Distillery
List-II:
a. Salinity/Anaerobic
b. Nutrients/Fats
c. Colour/Dyes
d. Organics/Chromium

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a. Textile effluent is characterized by intense color and synthetic dyes (i-c); Tannery effluent carries high organics and heavy metal Chromium (ii-d); Dairy effluent contains fats, oils, and organic nutrients (iii-b); Distillery effluent (spent wash) has high salinity and requires anaerobic treatment (iv-a). Thus, i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.

Question 38

Match List-I (Pump Type) with List-II (Typical Use) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Centrifugal
ii. Reciprocating
iii. Diaphragm
iv. Pneumatic
List-II:
a. Viscous sludge
b. Raw sewage
c. Small-scale lifting
d. Dosing chemicals

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Centrifugal pumps handle raw sewage (i-b); Reciprocating (positive displacement) pumps handle thick viscous sludge (ii-a); Diaphragm pumps provide accurate chemical dosing (iii-d); Pneumatic ejectors handle small-scale sewage lifting (iv-c). Hence, i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.

Question 39

Arrange the following steps in a conventional biological wastewater treatment train in correct order (flow direction):
I. Secondary clarifier
II. Aeration tank
III. Primary clarifier
IV. Coagulation flocculation settling (if included)
Choose the correct sequence:

Accepted Answer

Option B: III - IV - II - I. In a wastewater treatment plant with chemical enhancement, primary clarifier (III) removes settleable solids, followed by chemical coagulation-flocculation-settling (IV) for fine colloidal removal, then biological aeration tank (II), and finally secondary clarifier (I) to settle biological flocs. Sequence: III - IV - II - I.

Question 40

Arrange the following biological treatment configurations in the order of increasing level of process control / sophistication (simplest first):
I. Wastewater stabilization ponds
II. Trickling filter
III. Conventional activated sludge process
IV. Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR)
Choose the correct sequence:

Accepted Answer

Option A: I - II - III - IV. Wastewater stabilization ponds are passive natural systems requiring minimal operational control (I); trickling filters are robust attached systems with low-to-medium control (II); conventional ASP requires continuous mechanical aeration, clarifiers, and return sludge monitoring (III); and SBR requires automated PLC timing, cyclically controlled valves, and sophisticated decanters (IV). Order: I - II - III - IV.

Question 41

Which of the following is primarily a physical characteristic of water or sewage?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Turbidity. Turbidity is a physical characteristic of water caused by suspended particles scattering light. pH and COD are chemical characteristics, and BOD is a biochemical/biological parameter.

Question 42

High BOD in wastewater indicates:

Accepted Answer

Option B: High concentration of biodegradable organic matter. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of oxygen required by microorganisms to biologically oxidize organic matter. A high BOD value indicates a high concentration of biodegradable organic pollutants.

Question 43

Which of the following parameters measures both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic matter in wastewater?

Accepted Answer

Option B: COD. Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) uses a strong chemical oxidant (potassium dichromate in acid) to oxidize virtually all organic substances, thereby measuring both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic matter.

Question 44

Coliform bacteria are used as indicator organisms because they:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Are present in human/animal faeces and are easy to detect. Coliform bacteria (e.g., E. coli) inhabit the intestines of warm-blooded animals and are excreted in vast numbers in feces. Their presence indicates potential fecal contamination and the possible presence of waterborne pathogens, and they are simple and economical to detect.

Question 45

The most common parameter used to assess the efficiency of a primary sedimentation tank is:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Removal of Suspended Solids (SS). Primary sedimentation tanks are physically designed to settle out settleable particulate matter by gravity. The percentage removal of Suspended Solids (SS), typically 50% to 70%, is the primary metric used to evaluate their performance.

Question 46

For a given industrial wastewater sample, BOD is usually less than COD because:

Accepted Answer

Option B: COD measures more organic compounds (including non-biodegradable) than BOD. BOD measures only biologically degradable organic matter consumed by microbes over 5 days, whereas COD oxidizes both biodegradable and biologically refractory (non-biodegradable) organic compounds using strong chemical reagents.

Question 47

The self-purification of a natural stream after discharge of sewage is retarded by:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Low dissolved oxygen and high organic load. Natural stream self-purification relies on aerobic decomposition facilitated by dissolved oxygen. Excessive organic loading depletes oxygen faster than atmospheric reaeration can replenish it, causing septic anaerobic conditions that retard self-purification.

Question 48

Which of the following is not a typical method of performance evaluation of a wastewater treatment plant?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Comparing design discharge with personal opinion. Performance evaluation relies on quantitative, scientific operational and laboratory metrics. Subjective personal opinion is not a recognized or valid engineering evaluation method.

Question 49

Which of the following is most closely related to the odour of sewage under anaerobic conditions?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Hydrogen sulfide (H2S). Under septic anaerobic conditions, sulfate-reducing bacteria reduce sulfates to Hydrogen Sulfide gas (H2S), which imparts the characteristic pungent 'rotten egg' odor to stale sewage.

Question 50

The most widely used test for measuring dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms in 5 days at 20°C is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: BOD test. The standard 5-day Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD5) test incubated at 20°C is the universally accepted standard for measuring dissolved oxygen consumed by heterotrophic microorganisms while degrading organic matter.

Question 51

Consider the following statements regarding physical characteristics of water and sewage:
I. Turbidity is a measure of light-scattering due to suspended solids.
II. Colour in water is mainly a biological characteristic related to algal blooms.
III. Temperature affects the solubility of gases and the rate of biochemical reactions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option B: I and III only. Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because colour is formally classified as a physical characteristic of water, caused by dissolved humus, peat materials, or metallic ions. Thus, I and III only are correct.

Question 52

Consider the following statements regarding chemical characteristics:
I. COD usually gives a higher value than BOD for the same wastewater sample.
II. High hardness in water is mainly due to dissolved Ca2+ and Mg2+ salts.
III. BOD is used to estimate the concentration of inorganic salts in water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: I and II only. Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because BOD measures organic biodegradable matter, not inorganic mineral salts. Thus, I and II only are correct.

Question 53

Consider the following statements regarding biological characteristics and performance evaluation:
I. Presence of coliforms in treated effluent indicates possible faecal contamination.
II. High Sludge Volume Index (SVI) indicates poor settling characteristics of secondary sludge.
III. Performance evaluation of a plant should be done only once, after construction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: I and II only. Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because performance evaluation must be conducted continuously or periodically throughout the plant's operational life to ensure regulatory compliance and process control. Thus, I and II only are correct.

Question 54

Consider the following statements regarding self-purification and parameter interpretation:
I. Satisfying oxygen demand in a stream promotes self-purification.
II. High temperature always reduces the self-purification capacity of a stream.
III. Complete oxidation of organic matter by microorganisms produces CO2, H2O and inorganic salts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option B: I and III only. Statements I and III are correct: Oxygen replenishment enables aerobic mineralization into CO2, H2O, nitrates, and sulfates. Statement II is incorrect because while higher temperature slightly lowers oxygen saturation solubility, it significantly accelerates the biological reaction rates and reaeration velocity; thus it does not 'always reduce' capacity. Hence, I and III only are correct.

Question 55

Match List-I (Parameter) with List-II (Type of Characteristic) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Turbidity
ii. BOD
iii. Total coliforms
iv. COD
List-II:
a. Total organic matter
b. Faecal contamination
c. Suspended solids
d. Biodegradable organics

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a. Turbidity relates to suspended solids (i-c); BOD measures biodegradable organics (ii-d); Total coliforms indicate faecal contamination (iii-b); COD measures total chemically oxidizable organic matter (iv-a). Thus, i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.

Question 56

Match List-I (Performance Indicator) with List-II (Indication) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. BOD removal
ii. SS removal
iii. SVI
iv. F/M ratio
List-II:
a. Settling properties
b. Organic-load efficiency
c. Solids-separation
d. Substrate/Biomass balance

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d. BOD removal measures organic-load efficiency (i-b); SS removal indicates solids separation (ii-c); SVI evaluates sludge settling properties (iii-a); F/M ratio reflects substrate-to-biomass operational balance (iv-d). Hence, i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d.

Question 57

Match List-I (Test / Process) with List-II (Main outcome measured) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. BOD5
ii. COD
iii. DO measurement
iv. SVI
List-II:
a. Available Oxygen
b. Aerobic biodegradable load
c. Total COD
d. Settling ability

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d. BOD5 measures the aerobic biodegradable organic load (i-b); COD determines the total chemically oxidizable organic matter (ii-c); DO measurement quantifies dissolved available oxygen (iii-a); SVI reflects sludge settling ability (iv-d). Hence, i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d.

Question 58

Match List-I (Factor) with List-II (Effect on self-purification) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. High DO
ii. High organic load
iii. Sunlight
iv. Low temperature
List-II:
a. Retards
b. Promotes
c. Enhances O2 production
d. Slows reactions

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d. High dissolved oxygen promotes aerobic decomposition (i-b); High organic loading depletes oxygen and retards self-purification (ii-a); Sunlight stimulates algal photosynthesis and oxygen production (iii-c); Low temperature reduces biological metabolic reaction rates (iv-d). Hence, i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d.

Question 59

Arrange the following parameters in the order of increasing complexity (simplest first):
I. COD
II. Turbidity
III. BOD
IV. Total nitrogen and phosphorus
Choose the correct sequence:

Accepted Answer

Option A: II - I - III - IV. Turbidity (II) is an immediate optical instrumental reading (simplest); COD (I) is a 2-hour chemical digestion and titration; BOD (III) is a 5-day biological incubation bioassay; Total N and P (IV) require multiple digestions, autoclaving, and spectrophotometric nutrient assays (most complex). Sequence: II - I - III - IV.

Question 60

Arrange the following steps in performance evaluation in logical order:
I. Compare effluent quality with standards
II. Collect and analyse samples
III. Calculate removal efficiencies (%)
IV. Identify operational issues
Choose the correct sequence:

Accepted Answer

Option A: II - III - I - IV. The logical sequence begins with sampling and laboratory testing (II), followed by calculating unit pollutant removal efficiencies (III), evaluating effluent compliance against statutory standards (I), and diagnosing operational bottlenecks (IV). Sequence: II - III - I - IV.

Question 61

Which of the following best defines Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?

Accepted Answer

Option B: A process of identifying, predicting, and evaluating environmental impacts of a proposed project and designing mitigation. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a formal planning and decision-making tool used to identify, predict, and evaluate the biophysical and socio-economic consequences of proposed projects prior to major decisions and commitments being made, and to formulate mitigation measures.

Question 62

An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is prepared:

Accepted Answer

Option B: As a detailed written report summarizing the results of EIA, normally submitted with EIA notification. An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is the official comprehensive written document resulting from an EIA study that outlines predicted impacts, baseline conditions, public consultations, and mitigation plans submitted for regulatory environmental clearance.

Question 63

The Environment Management Plan (EMP) essentially:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Specifies mitigation, monitoring, and contingency measures to manage environmental impacts during construction and operation. An Environment Management Plan (EMP) is an operational action plan that details site-specific mitigation measures, environmental monitoring protocols, schedule, budgeting, and institutional responsibilities to mitigate impacts during pre-construction, construction, and operation.

Question 64

Which of the following impacts is not typically considered in an EIA?

Accepted Answer

Option C: General economic inflation rates. National or macroeconomic inflation rates are broad macroeconomic indicators unrelated to the localized biophysical and socio-environmental impacts assessed in a project EIA.

Field Assistant2026

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JKSSB — Field Assistant (2026)

Which of the following international conferences is correctly matched with its primary outcome?

Which of the following is not a Multilateral Environmental Agreement (MEA) related to climate change?

Which of the following correctly describes an abiotic component of the environment?

Which of the following best describes a biotic environment?

Which of the following is not an example of a non-renewable resource?

Over-exploitation of non-renewable resources primarily leads to:

Which of the following conditions is least likely to be caused by long-term exposure to air pollution in urban areas?

Which of the following pollutants is most strongly associated with methemoglobinemia (blue-baby syndrome) in infants?

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under:

Which of the following environmental laws is not explicitly covered under the NGT Act for adjudicating disputes?

Match List-I (Pollution Type) with List-II (Associated Health Hazard / Effect) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Air (PM2.5)ii. Water (Nitrates)iii. Land (Heavy Metals)iv. NoiseList-II:a. Methemoglobinemiab. Hearing lossc. Respiratory diseasesd. Neurological disorders

Match List-I (Environmental Agreement) with List-II (Year / Description) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Stockholmii. Rioiii. Kyotoiv. ParisList-II:a. 1997 targetsb. 1992 Agenda 21c. 1972 first UN confd. 2015 global agreement

Match List-I (Resource Type) with List-II (Example) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Non-renewableii. Renewableiii. Abioticiv. BioticList-II:a. Solarb. Petroleumc. Topographyd. Forest

Match List-I (Pollution Index / Tool) with List-II (Purpose) and select the correct code:List-I:i. AQIii. WQIiii. BODiv. PSIList-II:a. Organic pollution in waterb. Overall water qualityc. Urban air qualityd. Old US index

Arrange the following environmental events in chronological order (earliest first):I. Earth Summit (Rio Earth Summit)II. Stockholm Conference on Human EnvironmentIII. Adoption of the Kyoto ProtocolIV. Paris Agreement on Climate ChangeChoose the correct order:

Arrange the following environment-related days in chronological order within a single calendar year (earliest first):I. World Health DayII. World Environment DayIII. Earth DayIV. World Ozone DayChoose the correct order:

The quantity of sewage generated in a town is generally estimated as approximately:

For proper design of sewerage components, the design period is normally taken as:

In a conventional activated sludge process, the secondary clarifier is primarily used for:

The Rotating Biological Contactor (RBC) is a type of:

Which of the following unit operations removes fine suspended solids and colloidal particles by chemical destabilization and formation of flocs?

In a UASB (Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket) reactor, the key feature is:

Which of the following industrial wastewaters is characterized by high BOD, high solids, and high alkalinity, and often requires neutralization and equalization before treatment?

In a Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR), the operational sequence within each cycle is:

Which of the following pumps is most commonly used for pumping raw sewage containing suspended solids?

Pumping stations for sewage are generally located:

Match List-I (Unit Process) with List-II (Primary Purpose) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Equalizationii. Aerationiii. Adsorptioniv. DisinfectionList-II:a. Pathogen removalb. Reduction of variationsc. Supply oxygend. Removal of color/odour

Match List-I (Biological System) with List-II (Type of Growth / Configuration) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Activated Sludgeii. Trickling Filteriii. RBCiv. UASBList-II:a. Attached (rotating)b. Attached (stationary)c. Suspended (aeration+clarifier)d. Anaerobic granular bed

Match List-I (Industrial Effluent) with List-II (Characteristics / Major Issues) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Textileii. Tanneryiii. Dairyiv. DistilleryList-II:a. Salinity/Anaerobicb. Nutrients/Fatsc. Colour/Dyesd. Organics/Chromium

Match List-I (Pump Type) with List-II (Typical Use) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Centrifugalii. Reciprocatingiii. Diaphragmiv. PneumaticList-II:a. Viscous sludgeb. Raw sewagec. Small-scale liftingd. Dosing chemicals

Arrange the following steps in a conventional biological wastewater treatment train in correct order (flow direction):I. Secondary clarifierII. Aeration tankIII. Primary clarifierIV. Coagulation flocculation settling (if included)Choose the correct sequence:

Which of the following is primarily a physical characteristic of water or sewage?

High BOD in wastewater indicates:

Which of the following parameters measures both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic matter in wastewater?

Coliform bacteria are used as indicator organisms because they:

The most common parameter used to assess the efficiency of a primary sedimentation tank is:

For a given industrial wastewater sample, BOD is usually less than COD because:

The self-purification of a natural stream after discharge of sewage is retarded by:

Which of the following is not a typical method of performance evaluation of a wastewater treatment plant?

Which of the following is most closely related to the odour of sewage under anaerobic conditions?

The most widely used test for measuring dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms in 5 days at 20°C is:

Match List-I (Parameter) with List-II (Type of Characteristic) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Turbidityii. BODiii. Total coliformsiv. CODList-II:a. Total organic matterb. Faecal contaminationc. Suspended solidsd. Biodegradable organics

Match List-I (Performance Indicator) with List-II (Indication) and select the correct code:List-I:i. BOD removalii. SS removaliii. SVIiv. F/M ratioList-II:a. Settling propertiesb. Organic-load efficiencyc. Solids-separationd. Substrate/Biomass balance

Match List-I (Test / Process) with List-II (Main outcome measured) and select the correct code:List-I:i. BOD5ii. CODiii. DO measurementiv. SVIList-II:a. Available Oxygenb. Aerobic biodegradable loadc. Total CODd. Settling ability

Match List-I (Factor) with List-II (Effect on self-purification) and select the correct code:List-I:i. High DOii. High organic loadiii. Sunlightiv. Low temperatureList-II:a. Retardsb. Promotesc. Enhances O2 productiond. Slows reactions

Arrange the following parameters in the order of increasing complexity (simplest first):I. CODII. TurbidityIII. BODIV. Total nitrogen and phosphorusChoose the correct sequence:

Arrange the following steps in performance evaluation in logical order:I. Compare effluent quality with standardsII. Collect and analyse samplesIII. Calculate removal efficiencies (%)IV. Identify operational issuesChoose the correct sequence:

Which of the following best defines Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?

An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is prepared:

The Environment Management Plan (EMP) essentially:

Which of the following impacts is not typically considered in an EIA?

Which stage of EIA specifically involves collection of baseline environmental data (air, water, soil, biota, socio-economic)?

In rapid EIA, the level of prediction and analysis is generally:

Public participation in EIA is most explicitly sought during:

GIS is most helpful in EIA for:

Remote sensing in EIA is particularly useful for:

Which of the following is not a typical component of an Environment Management Plan (EMP)?

Match List-I (EIA Stage / Element) with List-II (Main purpose / focus) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Screeningii. Scopingiii. Environmental inventoryiv. EMPList-II:a. Identifying impacts to studyb. Baseline data collectionc. Deciding if EIA is requiredd. Mitigation measures

Match List-I (Impact Type) with List-II (Example / key focus) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Air-qualityii. Water-quantityiii. Noiseiv. Socio-economicList-II:a. Employment patternsb. Dust/Emissionsc. Groundwater drawdownd. Noise levels

Match List-I (Tool / Technology) with List-II (Use in EIA) and select the correct code:List-I:i. GISii. Remote sensingiii. Noise-softwareiv. Water-networkList-II:a. Sound levelsb. Mapping/Overlayingc. Time-series monitoringd. Satellite land-cover

Match List-I (EIA Approach) with List-II (Typical context) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Rapid EIAii. Comprehensiveiii. Sectoraliv. Strategic (SEA)List-II:a. High-impact projectsb. Policy/Plan levelc. Moderate-impactd. Whole sector guidelines

Arrange the following steps in a typical EIA process in logical sequence (earliest first):I. Decision-making and clearanceII. Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) preparationIII. Scoping and baseline studyIV. Screening and project identificationChoose the correct sequence:

Arrange the following impact-assessment categories for an industrial EIA in the order of increasing complexity / scope (simplest first):I. Noise and vibrationII. Air-quality impactsIII. Cultural and socio-economic impactsIV. Hydrological and aquatic-biological impactsChoose the correct sequence:

The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is often called an "umbrella Act" because it:

The Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986 derives its statutory basis from a direction issued after the:

Under Section 5 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the Central Government can issue:

The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006 is issued under:

Under the EIA Notification, 2006, Category A projects:

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 envisages the establishment of:

Under the Water (P&CP) Act, 1974, setting of effluent and water-quality standards is a function of:

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was enacted to give effect to the decisions of the:

Under the Air (P&CP) Act, 1981, the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) is entrusted with:

For most industries, consent to establish and consent to operate (CTO) are required under:

Match List-I (Act / Notification) with List-II (Key feature / purpose) and select the correct code:List-I:i. EPA-1986ii. EIA-2006iii. Water Act-1974iv. Air Act-1981List-II:a. Water standardsb. Air standardsc. Umbrella frameworkd. A/B Project categoriesChoose the correct match:

Match List-I (Section / Power) with List-II (Enactment / Context) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Section-5 directionsii. Category A/B classificationiii. CTOiv. Ambient air monitoringList-II:a. EPA-1986b. EIA-2006c. Water Act-1974d. Air Act-1981Choose the correct match:

Match List-I (Board / Authority) with List-II (Primary environmental domain) and select the correct code:List-I:i. CPCBii. SPCBiii. ENVISiv. IAAList-II:a. National EIA appraisalb. National water/air controlc. State water/air controld. Info networkChoose the correct match:

Match List-I (Legal requirement) with List-II (Enactment) and select the correct code:List-I:i. Environmental clearanceii. Effluent standardsiii. Stack standardsiv. General rule frameworkList-II:a. EPA-1986b. Water Actc. Air Actd. EIA-2006Choose the correct match:

Match List-I (Pollution Type) with List-II (Associated Health Hazard / Effect) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Air (PM2.5)
ii. Water (Nitrates)
iii. Land (Heavy Metals)
iv. Noise
List-II:
a. Methemoglobinemia
b. Hearing loss
c. Respiratory diseases
d. Neurological disorders

Match List-I (Environmental Agreement) with List-II (Year / Description) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Stockholm
ii. Rio
iii. Kyoto
iv. Paris
List-II:
a. 1997 targets
b. 1992 Agenda 21
c. 1972 first UN conf
d. 2015 global agreement

Match List-I (Resource Type) with List-II (Example) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Non-renewable
ii. Renewable
iii. Abiotic
iv. Biotic
List-II:
a. Solar
b. Petroleum
c. Topography
d. Forest

Match List-I (Pollution Index / Tool) with List-II (Purpose) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. AQI
ii. WQI
iii. BOD
iv. PSI
List-II:
a. Organic pollution in water
b. Overall water quality
c. Urban air quality
d. Old US index

Arrange the following environmental events in chronological order (earliest first):
I. Earth Summit (Rio Earth Summit)
II. Stockholm Conference on Human Environment
III. Adoption of the Kyoto Protocol
IV. Paris Agreement on Climate Change
Choose the correct order:

Arrange the following environment-related days in chronological order within a single calendar year (earliest first):
I. World Health Day
II. World Environment Day
III. Earth Day
IV. World Ozone Day
Choose the correct order:

Match List-I (Unit Process) with List-II (Primary Purpose) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Equalization
ii. Aeration
iii. Adsorption
iv. Disinfection
List-II:
a. Pathogen removal
b. Reduction of variations
c. Supply oxygen
d. Removal of color/odour

Match List-I (Biological System) with List-II (Type of Growth / Configuration) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Activated Sludge
ii. Trickling Filter
iii. RBC
iv. UASB
List-II:
a. Attached (rotating)
b. Attached (stationary)
c. Suspended (aeration+clarifier)
d. Anaerobic granular bed

Match List-I (Industrial Effluent) with List-II (Characteristics / Major Issues) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Textile
ii. Tannery
iii. Dairy
iv. Distillery
List-II:
a. Salinity/Anaerobic
b. Nutrients/Fats
c. Colour/Dyes
d. Organics/Chromium

Match List-I (Pump Type) with List-II (Typical Use) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Centrifugal
ii. Reciprocating
iii. Diaphragm
iv. Pneumatic
List-II:
a. Viscous sludge
b. Raw sewage
c. Small-scale lifting
d. Dosing chemicals

Arrange the following steps in a conventional biological wastewater treatment train in correct order (flow direction):
I. Secondary clarifier
II. Aeration tank
III. Primary clarifier
IV. Coagulation flocculation settling (if included)
Choose the correct sequence:

Match List-I (Parameter) with List-II (Type of Characteristic) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Turbidity
ii. BOD
iii. Total coliforms
iv. COD
List-II:
a. Total organic matter
b. Faecal contamination
c. Suspended solids
d. Biodegradable organics

Match List-I (Performance Indicator) with List-II (Indication) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. BOD removal
ii. SS removal
iii. SVI
iv. F/M ratio
List-II:
a. Settling properties
b. Organic-load efficiency
c. Solids-separation
d. Substrate/Biomass balance

Match List-I (Test / Process) with List-II (Main outcome measured) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. BOD5
ii. COD
iii. DO measurement
iv. SVI
List-II:
a. Available Oxygen
b. Aerobic biodegradable load
c. Total COD
d. Settling ability

Match List-I (Factor) with List-II (Effect on self-purification) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. High DO
ii. High organic load
iii. Sunlight
iv. Low temperature
List-II:
a. Retards
b. Promotes
c. Enhances O2 production
d. Slows reactions

Arrange the following parameters in the order of increasing complexity (simplest first):
I. COD
II. Turbidity
III. BOD
IV. Total nitrogen and phosphorus
Choose the correct sequence:

Arrange the following steps in performance evaluation in logical order:
I. Compare effluent quality with standards
II. Collect and analyse samples
III. Calculate removal efficiencies (%)
IV. Identify operational issues
Choose the correct sequence:

Match List-I (EIA Stage / Element) with List-II (Main purpose / focus) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Screening
ii. Scoping
iii. Environmental inventory
iv. EMP
List-II:
a. Identifying impacts to study
b. Baseline data collection
c. Deciding if EIA is required
d. Mitigation measures

Match List-I (Impact Type) with List-II (Example / key focus) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Air-quality
ii. Water-quantity
iii. Noise
iv. Socio-economic
List-II:
a. Employment patterns
b. Dust/Emissions
c. Groundwater drawdown
d. Noise levels

Match List-I (Tool / Technology) with List-II (Use in EIA) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. GIS
ii. Remote sensing
iii. Noise-software
iv. Water-network
List-II:
a. Sound levels
b. Mapping/Overlaying
c. Time-series monitoring
d. Satellite land-cover

Match List-I (EIA Approach) with List-II (Typical context) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Rapid EIA
ii. Comprehensive
iii. Sectoral
iv. Strategic (SEA)
List-II:
a. High-impact projects
b. Policy/Plan level
c. Moderate-impact
d. Whole sector guidelines

Arrange the following steps in a typical EIA process in logical sequence (earliest first):
I. Decision-making and clearance
II. Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) preparation
III. Scoping and baseline study
IV. Screening and project identification
Choose the correct sequence:

Match List-I (Act / Notification) with List-II (Key feature / purpose) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. EPA-1986
ii. EIA-2006
iii. Water Act-1974
iv. Air Act-1981

List-II:
a. Water standards
b. Air standards
c. Umbrella framework
d. A/B Project categories

Choose the correct match:

Match List-I (Section / Power) with List-II (Enactment / Context) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Section-5 directions
ii. Category A/B classification
iii. CTO
iv. Ambient air monitoring

List-II:
a. EPA-1986
b. EIA-2006
c. Water Act-1974
d. Air Act-1981

Choose the correct match:

Match List-I (Board / Authority) with List-II (Primary environmental domain) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. CPCB
ii. SPCB
iii. ENVIS
iv. IAA

List-II:
a. National EIA appraisal
b. National water/air control
c. State water/air control
d. Info network

Choose the correct match:

Match List-I (Legal requirement) with List-II (Enactment) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Environmental clearance
ii. Effluent standards
iii. Stack standards
iv. General rule framework

List-II:
a. EPA-1986
b. Water Act
c. Air Act
d. EIA-2006

Choose the correct match:

Match List-I (Plan / Concept) with List-II (Main Focus) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Env.Audit
ii. Safety Audit
iii. OSEP
iv. Off-site Plan

List-II:
a. multi-agency coordination
b. EMS verification
c. hazard identification
d. Internal incident control

Choose the correct match:

Match List-I (Tool / Technique) with List-II (Use in Audits / Plans) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. HAZOP
ii. MSDS
iii. Drills
iv. Incident-Controller

List-II:
a. chemical info
b. process-design hazards
c. validate plans
d. coordinate on-site response

Choose the correct match:

Match List-I (Legal / Institutional driver) with List-II (Mandate) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Factories Act
ii. PCB guidelines
iii. ISO 14001
iv. District DMP

List-II:
a. Internal EMS audit
b. OSEP mandate
c. Off-site linkages
d. Regulatory compliance

Choose the correct match:

Match List-I (Phase of disaster-management) with List-II (Typical activity) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Prevention
ii. Preparedness
iii. Response
iv. Recovery

List-II:
a. Rehabilitation
b. Evacuation
c. Training/Drills
d. Safer design

Choose the correct match:

Arrange the following phases of an industrial disaster-management cycle in logical order (early to late):
I. Recovery
II. Response
III. Preparedness
IV. Prevention
Choose the correct sequence: