JKSSB Telephone Operator / Junior Projectionist / Film Operator / Tracer 2025 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

How many National Olympic Committees (NOCs) participated in the 2024 Summer Olympics according to the passage?

Accepted Answer

Option A: 206. As stated in the passage, 206 National Olympic Committees (NOCs) participated in the Paris 2024 Summer Olympics.

Question 2

Which of the following was a new addition to track and field events at the 2024 Olympics?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Mixed marathon race walk relay. The passage explicitly highlights the 'marathon race walk mixed relay in athletics' as a notable new addition to the 2024 Games.

Question 3

Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.
P. Find the suit I wanted
Q. Even though I had
R. I couldn't
S. Two hours to spare for shopping
The correct sequence should be

Accepted Answer

Option B: QSRP. Coherent sentence: 'Even though I had (Q) two hours to spare for shopping (S), I couldn't (R) find the suit I wanted (P)'. Sequence: QSRP.

Question 4

Select the most appropriate option to change the sentence from direct speech to indirect speech.
My uncle once said to me, "If I can't trust my people, then I don't want to be doing this".

Accepted Answer

Option D: My uncle once told me that if he couldn't trust his people then he didn't want to be doing that.. In indirect speech: 'said to me' becomes 'told me', first person 'I' changes to 'he', 'can't' becomes 'couldn't', 'don't' becomes 'didn't', and 'this' changes to 'that'.

Question 5

Fill in the blank using a suitable modal :
Yatika _______ apologize for the confusion that was caused yesterday because of her carelessness.

Accepted Answer

Option A: should. 'Should' expresses moral obligation or appropriate advisable behavior.

Question 6

Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options.
_______ water of _______ river Ganga is believed to have purifying qualities that makes it sacred in many religious rituals.

Accepted Answer

Option C: The, the. Definite article 'The' is required before specific defined water ('The water of...') and before names of rivers ('the river Ganga').

Question 7

In the context of the paragraph, what does the phrase "egging him on" mean?

Accepted Answer

Option B: To encourage someone to take action. The idiom 'to egg someone on' means to urge, incite, or strongly encourage someone to take action (especially a bold or risky one).

Question 8

In the context of the paragraph, which of the following is a relative pronoun?

Accepted Answer

Option D: That. 'That' functions as a relative pronoun connecting the dependent clause to its antecedent noun ('the strong backlash that followed').

Question 9

In the context of the paragraph, which of the following is a homophone?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Some. 'Some' is a homophone paired with 'Sum' (identical pronunciation /sʌm/, different spelling and meaning).

Question 10

Pick out the adverb clause in the below sentence :
He left in a hurry, after he got a phone call.

Accepted Answer

Option C: After he got a phone call. 'After he got a phone call' is a subordinate adverb clause of time modifying the main clause verb 'left'.

Question 11

Select the Synonyms of the word :
Disdain

Accepted Answer

Option A: Loathe. 'Disdain' means contempt, scorn, or intense dislike/hatred; its closest synonym is 'Loathe' / 'Despise'.

Question 12

Select the Antonym of the word :
Feud

Accepted Answer

Option D: Orchestration. 'Feud' denotes prolonged mutual hostility and bitter conflict; 'Orchestration' / 'Harmony' represents organized cooperation and peaceful unity.

Question 13

Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
Lord Buddha _______ an eight fold path to _______ deliverance from sorrows of life.

Accepted Answer

Option B: Preached, attain. Lord Buddha preached (expounded religious doctrine) the Noble Eightfold Path to attain (reach/gain) spiritual liberation and deliverance.

Question 14

Pick out the correct meaning of the given idiom :
Argus eyed

Accepted Answer

Option C: Extremely attentive and observant. 'Argus-eyed' (originating from the 100-eyed giant Argus in Greek mythology) means extremely vigilant, watchful, and observant.

Question 15

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below .
The two brothers and their two sisters wanted to divide the property _______ them. However, the property was ultimately divided only _______ the two brothers.

Accepted Answer

Option D: among, between. 'Among' is used for division among more than two individuals (four siblings), while 'between' is used for division between exactly two persons (the two brothers).

Question 16

Three cubes are joined together face to face. The volume of each cube is $64	ext{ cm}^3$. Calculate the total surface area of the resulting solid.

Accepted Answer

Option C: $224	ext{ cm}^2$. Edge of each cube $a = \sqrt[3]{64} = 4	ext{ cm}$. When 3 cubes are joined in a line, the resulting cuboid has dimensions $l = 12	ext{ cm}, b = 4	ext{ cm}, h = 4	ext{ cm}$. Total Surface Area $= 2(lb + bh + hl) = 2(12	imes 4 + 4	imes 4 + 12	imes 4) = 2(48 + 16 + 48) = 2(112) = 224	ext{ cm}^2$.

Question 17

A block is made up of two solids, in which cylinder is placed on the top surface of cuboid. The dimensions of the cuboid are $5	ext{ cm} 	imes 2	ext{ cm} 	imes 5	ext{ cm}$ and cylinder has radius $0.7	ext{ cm}$ and height $10	ext{ cm}$. What is the total surface area of the block ? [Take $\pi = 22/7$]

Accepted Answer

Option D: $135.5	ext{ cm}^2$. Cuboid surface area $= 2(5	imes 2 + 2	imes 5 + 5	imes 5) = 2(10 + 10 + 25) = 90	ext{ cm}^2$. Cylinder Curved Surface Area $= 2\pi r h = 2 	imes \frac{22}{7} 	imes 0.7 	imes 10 = 44	ext{ cm}^2$. Cylinder top circle area $= \pi r^2 = \frac{22}{7} 	imes 0.49 = 1.54	ext{ cm}^2$. The base circle area is covered on cuboid: $	ext{Total Area} = 90 - \pi r^2 + 2\pi rh + \pi r^2 = 90 + 44 + 1.54 = 135.54 \approx 135.5	ext{ cm}^2$.

Question 18

A hollow cube with an internal edge length of $33	ext{ cm}$ is to be packed with tiny spherical marbles of diameter $1.4	ext{ cm}$ each. If it is assumed that $1/9	ext{th}$ of the cube's volume is left unoccupied, how many marbles can the cube hold (rounded off to nearest decimal place)? [Take $\pi = 22/7$].

Accepted Answer

Option D: 22225. Volume of cube $= 33^3 = 35937	ext{ cm}^3$. Occupied volume $= \frac{8}{9} 	imes 35937 = 31944	ext{ cm}^3$. Radius of marble $r = 0.7	ext{ cm}$. Volume of one marble $= \frac{4}{3} \pi r^3 = \frac{4}{3} 	imes \frac{22}{7} 	imes 0.343 = 1.43733	ext{ cm}^3$. Number of marbles $= \frac{31944}{1.43733} \approx 22224.5 \approx 22225$.

Question 19

A garden has 4 cylindrical planters with a diameter of $2.8	ext{ meters}$ and a height of $10	ext{ meters}$. Each planter needs to be painted on its curved surface and the cost of painting is Rs. 30 per square meter. What is the total cost of painting the curved surface area of the 4 planters? [Take $\pi = 22/7$]

Accepted Answer

Option D: Rs. 10,560. Radius $r = 1.4	ext{ m}, h = 10	ext{ m}$. CSA of 1 planter $= 2\pi rh = 2 	imes \frac{22}{7} 	imes 1.4 	imes 10 = 88	ext{ m}^2$. CSA of 4 planters $= 4 	imes 88 = 352	ext{ m}^2$. Total Cost $= 352 	imes 30 = 	ext{Rs. } 10,560$.

Question 20

A solid consisting of a right circular cone of height $12	ext{ cm}$ and radius $6	ext{ cm}$ standing on a hemisphere of radius $6	ext{ cm}$ is placed upright in a right circular cylinder full of water such that it touches the bottom of cylinder. Find the volume of the water left in the cylinder, if the radius of the cylinder is $6	ext{ cm}$ and height is $18	ext{ cm}$.

Accepted Answer

Option B: $360\pi	ext{ cm}^3$. Volume of cylinder $= \pi r^2 h = \pi(6^2)(18) = 648\pi	ext{ cm}^3$. Volume of solid $= V_{	ext{cone}} + V_{	ext{hemisphere}} = \frac{1}{3}\pi(6^2)(12) + \frac{2}{3}\pi(6^3) = 144\pi + 144\pi = 288\pi	ext{ cm}^3$. Water left in cylinder $= 648\pi - 288\pi = 360\pi	ext{ cm}^3$.

Question 21

A decorative lampshade has the shape of a frustum of a cone with top and bottom radius $3	ext{ cm}$ and $9	ext{ cm}$ respectively. Frustum of a cone is attached to a hemisphere at the top. The total height of the lampshade is $11	ext{ cm}$. Calculate the total external surface area of the lampshade.

Accepted Answer

Option C: $138\pi	ext{ cm}^2$. Hemisphere at top has radius $r_1 = 3	ext{ cm}$ and height $h_1 = 3	ext{ cm}$. Height of frustum $h = 11 - 3 = 8	ext{ cm}$. Frustum radii: $r_1 = 3	ext{ cm}, r_2 = 9	ext{ cm}$. Slant height of frustum $l = \sqrt{h^2 + (r_2 - r_1)^2} = \sqrt{8^2 + 6^2} = 10	ext{ cm}$. CSA of frustum $= \pi(r_1 + r_2)l = \pi(3 + 9)(10) = 120\pi	ext{ cm}^2$. CSA of top hemisphere $= 2\pi r_1^2 = 2\pi(3^2) = 18\pi	ext{ cm}^2$. Total External Surface Area $= 120\pi + 18\pi = 138\pi	ext{ cm}^2$.

Question 22

A block of chocolate with dimensions $22	ext{ cm} 	imes 24	ext{ cm} 	imes 24	ext{ cm}$ is to be divided among children by filling chocolate cups in the shape of a sphere. Each chocolate cup has a radius of $3	ext{ cm}$ and is to be filled completely. How many children will receive chocolate cups filled from the cuboidal block?

Accepted Answer

Option C: 112. Volume of cuboid $= 22 	imes 24 	imes 24 = 12672	ext{ cm}^3$. Volume of one spherical cup $= \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3 = \frac{4}{3} 	imes \frac{22}{7} 	imes 27 = \frac{2376}{21} = 113.14	ext{ cm}^3$. Number of children $= \frac{12672 	imes 7}{4 	imes 22 	imes 9} = \frac{88704}{792} = 112$.

Question 23

A cone of maximum size is carved out from a cube of edge length of $12	ext{ cm}$. Calculate the surface area of the remaining solid, left after the cone is carved out (rounded off to the nearest decimal place) [Take $\pi = 3.14, \sqrt{5} = 2.24$]

Accepted Answer

Option C: $1004	ext{ cm}^2$. Cube side $a = 12	ext{ cm}$. Cone base radius $r = 6	ext{ cm}$, height $h = 12	ext{ cm}$. Slant height $l = \sqrt{12^2 + 6^2} = 6\sqrt{5} = 6(2.24) = 13.44	ext{ cm}$. Remaining Surface Area $= 5	ext{ faces of cube} + (	ext{top face} - 	ext{circle base}) + 	ext{cone CSA} = 6a^2 - \pi r^2 + \pi rl = 6(144) + \pi r(l - r) = 864 + 3.14(6)(13.44 - 6) = 864 + 18.84(7.44) = 864 + 140.17 = 1004.17 \approx 1004	ext{ cm}^2$.

Question 24

A person sells a laptop to another person at a loss of 10%. If the second person sells the laptop for Rs. 30,000 and receives a 20% profit, what's the actual price of the laptop (round to the nearest whole number)?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Rs. 27,778. Cost price for second person $CP_2 = \frac{30000}{1.20} = 	ext{Rs. } 25,000$. Original cost price $CP_1 = \frac{CP_2}{0.90} = \frac{25000}{0.90} = 	ext{Rs. } 27,777.78 \approx 	ext{Rs. } 27,778$.

Question 25

The selling price of 8 pens is equivalent to the cost price of 10 pencils. Calculate the profit percent.

Accepted Answer

Option B: 25%. Let $CP$ of 1 pen be 1 unit. $SP$ of 8 pens $= CP$ of 10 pens $\implies 8 SP = 10 CP \implies \frac{SP}{CP} = \frac{10}{8} = \frac{5}{4}$. Profit $\% = \frac{5-4}{4} 	imes 100 = 25\%$.

Question 26

Shyam invests Rs. 2500 and receives Rs. 3250 after 6 years at some rate of simple interest. If he had invested in another place where the rate of simple interest is 4% higher than the current rate, how much amount would Shyam have received in the same time?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 3,850 Rs.. Simple interest earned initially $= 3250 - 2500 = 	ext{Rs. } 750$. Rate $R = \frac{750 	imes 100}{2500 	imes 6} = 5\%$. New rate $R' = 5\% + 4\% = 9\%$. New interest $= \frac{2500 	imes 9 	imes 6}{100} = 	ext{Rs. } 1350$. New amount $= 2500 + 1350 = 	ext{Rs. } 3850$.

Question 27

The pairs of equation $3x - 21y - 5 = 0$ and $-x + 7y + 20 = 0$ have :

Accepted Answer

Option D: No solution. Ratios: $\frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{3}{-1} = -3$, $\frac{b_1}{b_2} = \frac{-21}{7} = -3$, $\frac{c_1}{c_2} = \frac{-5}{20} = -\frac{1}{4}$. Since $\frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{b_1}{b_2} 
e \frac{c_1}{c_2}$, the lines are parallel and have No solution.

Question 28

A fraction becomes $2/5$, when 3 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes $1/2$ when 4 is added to its denominator. The fraction obtained is.

Accepted Answer

Option C: 7/10. Let fraction be $\frac{x}{y}$. Equations: (1) $\frac{x-3}{y} = \frac{2}{5} \implies 5x - 15 = 2y \implies 5x - 2y = 15$; (2) $\frac{x}{y+4} = \frac{1}{2} \implies 2x = y + 4 \implies y = 2x - 4$. Substituting $y$: $5x - 2(2x - 4) = 15 \implies x + 8 = 15 \implies x = 7$. Then $y = 2(7) - 4 = 10$. The fraction is $7/10$.

Question 29

Find the value of the expression: $\frac{5}{11} 	ext{ of } \left(\frac{3}{20} + \frac{2}{5}ight) \div \left(\frac{7}{9} - \frac{2}{3}ight) 	ext{ of } \frac{9}{4}$

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1. Evaluate brackets: $\frac{3}{20} + \frac{8}{20} = \frac{11}{20}$. And $\frac{7}{9} - \frac{6}{9} = \frac{1}{9}$. First 'of': $\frac{5}{11} 	imes \frac{11}{20} = \frac{1}{4}$. Second 'of': $\frac{1}{9} 	imes \frac{9}{4} = \frac{1}{4}$. Expression $= \frac{1}{4} \div \frac{1}{4} = 1$.

Question 30

A coin is flipped and a dice is rolled. Find the probability of flipping tails on the coin and rolling a number greater than and equal to 4 on the dice?

Accepted Answer

Option C: 1/4. Probability of tails $P(T) = \frac{1}{2}$. Favorable dice outcomes for $\ge 4$ are $\{4, 5, 6\}$, so $P(\ge 4) = \frac{3}{6} = \frac{1}{2}$. Combined independent probability $= \frac{1}{2} 	imes \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}$.

Question 31

What was the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Introduction of the Enfield rifle.. The immediate catalyst of the 1857 uprising was the introduction of the new Pattern 1853 Enfield rifle, whose paper cartridges were greased with animal fat (tallow and lard) offensive to Hindu and Muslim sepoys.

Question 32

Consider the following statements about the immediate impact of Revolt of 1857.
1. The Government of India Act of 1858 ended East India Company's rule (EIC) by transferring governance of India directly to the British parliament and the EIC is being reverted as a trading entity.
2. The position of the Governor - General gained increased significance with the title and role of Viceroy.
3. The Board of Control was integrated into the new structure established by the government of India Act of 1858.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option C: 2 and 3. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Act of 1858 created the office of Viceroy and the Secretary of State in Council (abolishing the dual system of Court of Directors and Board of Control). Statement 1 is incorrect because the EIC was liquidated, not reverted as a trading entity.

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributed to the emergence of the Indian National Movement across India?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Non - unification under the National Congress in 1885. The founding and pan-Indian unification of leaders under the Indian National Congress in 1885 was a powerful unifying catalyst for nationalism, not 'non-unification'.

Question 34

Which of the following pairs of location - year and president of the Indian National congress sessions held in India is/are correctly matched?
Location - year:
i. Bombay - 1885
ii. Calcutta - 1886
iii. Allahabad - 1888
iv. Bombay - 1889

President:
1. W C Bonnerjee
2. Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Bombay - 1885 (William Wedderburn)
4. George Yule

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option C: i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3. INC Presidential sessions: 1885 Bombay -> W.C. Bonnerjee (1), 1886 Calcutta -> Dadabhai Naoroji (2), 1888 Allahabad -> George Yule (4), 1889 Bombay -> Sir William Wedderburn (3).

Question 35

During which session did the Indian National Congress split into two factions, Moderates and Extremists?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Surat Session, 1907. The historic Surat Split occurred at the 23rd session of the INC at Surat in December 1907, presided over by Rash Behari Ghosh.

Question 36

Consider the following statements about the partition of Bengal.
1. The partition of Bengal was carried out by the British viceroy of India, Lord Curzon in 1908.
2. It was partitioned to divide the Hindus and Muslims in Bengal.
3. The partition of Bengal was the catalyst that led to the rise of extremist in the Indian National Congress.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option C: 2 and 3. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The partition took effect on 16 October 1905 (not 1908) under Lord Curzon.

Question 37

Which of the following pairs of significant years and historical events related to India's freedom movement is/are correctly matched?
Year:
i. 1906
ii. 1920
iii. 1930
iv. 1942

Historical event:
1. Formation of Muslim League
2. Quit India Movement
3. Non Cooperation Movement
4. Civil disobedience movement

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option B: i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2. 1906 -> Muslim League founded at Dhaka (1), 1920 -> Non-Cooperation Movement launched (3), 1930 -> Civil Disobedience Movement / Dandi March (4), 1942 -> Quit India Movement (2).

Question 38

Consider the following statements about the Swadeshi Movement.
1. The Swadeshi movement emerged in 1905 in response to the British partition of Bengal.
2. It emphasized the use of goods made in India by fellow countrymen, promoting small - scale production and hand - spun cloth.
3. It placed great emphasis on 'Narishakti' as a means of reasserting women's dignity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option D: 1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct: The movement arose against Bengal partition in 1905, fostered indigenous khadi/charkha enterprise, and saw massive active participation by women breaking purdah.

Question 39

Which of the following was NOT an objective of the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement?

Accepted Answer

Option B: To urge the British to send Indian students abroad.. The movement advocated National Education (setting up Bengal National College and local technical schools), not urging the colonial government to send students abroad.

Question 40

Which of the following was an objective of the Muslim League, formed in 1906?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Protection of political rights of Muslims.. The founding resolution of the All-India Muslim League (Dhaka, 1906) declared its prime objective: 'To protect and advance the political rights and interests of the Musalmans of India'.

Question 41

Which of the following is NOT the significance of Khilafat Movement in Indian history?

Accepted Answer

Option C: The movement had non - alliance with the Indian National Congress under Mahatma Gandhi's leadership.. The Khilafat Movement formed a direct, historic joint alliance with the Indian National Congress under Mahatma Gandhi to launch the unified Non-Cooperation Movement.

Question 42

Which national movement is also known as August Revolution?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Quit India Movement. The Quit India Movement, launched following the AICC resolution at Gowalia Tank, Bombay on August 8–9, 1942, is famously celebrated as the 'August Kranti' (August Revolution).

Question 43

What was "Operation Zero Hour" during the India's Freedom Movement?

Accepted Answer

Option B: A British operation to arrest the leaders of the Quit India Movement.. In the early morning hours of August 9, 1942, the British colonial government executed 'Operation Zero Hour', arresting Mahatma Gandhi and all top CWC Congress leaders simultaneously.

Question 44

Match the following pairs :
Name of Leader:
i. Mahatma Gandhi
ii. Yusuf Meher Ali
iii. Moulana Hasrat Mohani
iv. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Slogan:
1. Bharat chhodo (Quit India slogan)
2. Karo Ya Maro (Do or Die)
3. Swaraj Mera Janamsidh Adhikar Hai (Freedom is my birthright and I shall have it)
4. Inquilab Zindabad (Long live Revolution).

Choose the correct Answer:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3. Mahatma Gandhi -> Do or Die (i-2), Yusuf Meherally -> Coined 'Quit India' / Bharat Chhodo (ii-1), Hasrat Mohani -> Coined 'Inquilab Zindabad' (iii-4), Tilak -> Swaraj is my birthright (iv-3).

Question 45

Who is popularly known as the architect of Two - nation theory?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Mohammad Ali jinnah. Muhammad Ali Jinnah formally articulated and championed the Two-Nation Theory at the 1940 Lahore Resolution of the Muslim League.

Question 46

What is an indirect democracy, also known as a representative democracy?

Accepted Answer

Option A: A political system where elected officials vote and make decisions on behalf of the people.. In an indirect or representative democracy, sovereign citizens elect representatives through periodic franchise who enact legislation and govern on behalf of the electorate.

Question 47

Why was the right to property removed from the list of Fundamental rights by the 44th Indian constitutional amendment?

Accepted Answer

Option D: It hindered the goal of socialism and equitable distribution of wealth.. The 44th Amendment Act (1978) repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 because fundamental property rights impeded progressive land reforms and equitable redistribution of wealth (re-enacted as a legal right under Article 300A).

Question 48

Match the following pairs regarding Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution :
Article:
i. Article 20
ii. Article 21
iii. Article 21 (A)
iv. Article 22

Brief description:
1. Provides protection in respect of conviction for offences.
2. Protects the right to life and personal liberty of every person.
3. Provide free and compulsory education for all children in the age group of six to fourteen year
4. Grants the right to an arrested person to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice.

Choose the correct Answer:

Accepted Answer

Option D: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4. Article 20 -> Protection in conviction for offences (1), Article 21 -> Right to life and personal liberty (2), Article 21A -> Right to elementary education (3), Article 22 -> Protection against arrest/detention (4).

Question 49

Which of the following statements are correct regarding fundamental duties of the citizens?
1. 40th amendment act added 10 Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution. They are added under Part - II - A of the constitution.
2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act provides fundamental rights for education to child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
3. Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended fundamental Duties to be added in the constitution.
Which of the following Statements is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Only 3. Statement 3 is correct. The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended Fundamental Duties, incorporated via the 42nd Amendment in Part IV-A (Article 51A).

Question 50

Which of the following is NOT the Directive Principle of State Policy added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Article 50: Separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.. Article 50 (Separation of Judiciary from Executive) was part of the original Constitution in 1950; Articles 39(f), 39A, 43A, and 48A were newly added by the 42nd Amendment Act 1976.

Question 51

Which of the following statement most closely defines Universal Adult Franchise?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Any adult has right to vote in public political elections.. Under Article 326 of the Constitution, Universal Adult Suffrage/Franchise grants every Indian citizen aged 18 years or above the equal constitutional right to vote in legislative elections without discrimination.

Question 52

Which of the following Indian elections currently follow the secret ballot system?
1. Presidential elections.
2. Lok Sabha elections.
3. Rajya Sabha elections.
Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option B: 1 and 2. Presidential elections (Article 55) and Lok Sabha general elections are conducted by secret ballot. Rajya Sabha elections use an open ballot system (2003 amendment) to prevent cross-voting.

Question 53

On which website can a candidate register online for nomination in elections?

Accepted Answer

Option C: https://suvidha.eci.gov.in. The Election Commission of India (ECI) provides the 'ENCORE / Suvidha Candidate Portal' (suvidha.eci.gov.in) for online filing of candidate nominations and permission requests.

Question 54

How election commission of India allocates election symbol to an unrecognized party?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Based on list of preferred symbols given by the party.. Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order 1968, registered unrecognized political parties choose from a list of 'free symbols' by submitting a ranked preference list of 10 free symbols.

Question 55

What is the maximum limit of cash carried by a candidate during an election campaign?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Rs. 50,000 for both Lok Sabha as well as Vidhan Sabha candidate.. Under ECI Model Code of Conduct (MCC) election expenditure monitoring instructions, carrying unverified cash exceeding Rs. 50,000 in an election constituency is subject to seizure by flying squads.

Question 56

Which of the following statement is true about presidential election in India.

Accepted Answer

Option A: Each elector can mark as many preferences as possible.. Under the single transferable vote system with proportional representation, electors (MPs/MLAs) can rank as many preferences (1, 2, 3...) as there are contesting candidates on the ballot paper.

Question 57

In which year P.A. Sangma contested for president of India?

Accepted Answer

Option C: 2012. Former Lok Sabha Speaker Purno Agitok Sangma contested the 14th Presidential Election in July 2012 against Pranab Mukherjee.

Question 58

Which of the following tuple of languages has same script?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Marathi and Hindi. Both Marathi and Hindi are written in the Devanagari script (Balbodh style in Marathi).

Question 59

Which of the following is elected by people of villages?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Gram Panchayat. The Gram Panchayat (executive village governing body comprising the Sarpanch and Ward Panchs) is directly elected by the adult voters of the Gram Sabha.

Question 60

How many judges form the panel of International Court of Justice?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 15. The International Court of Justice (ICJ at The Hague) is composed of 15 judges elected to 9-year terms by the UN General Assembly and Security Council.

Question 61

The term that describes the Sun being directly above the Earth's equator resulting in days and night of equal lengths across the globe is called

Accepted Answer

Option D: Equinox.. An Equinox (occurring around March 21 and September 23) is the astronomical moment when the subsolar point crosses the celestial equator, resulting in equal day and night worldwide.

Question 62

Match the following pairs regarding the planets in Solar system :
Planet:
i. Mercury
ii. Mars
iii. Jupiter
iv. Neptune

Related Description about Planet:
1. The planet features characteristic colored cloud patterns created by enormous swirling storms in its atmosphere composed of hydrogen, helium, methane, and ammonia, with the most distinctive being the Great Red Spot.
2. The planet's red surface is due to presence of iron oxide and has large volcanoes and deep valleys
3. The planet's blue color comes from its methane - rich atmosphere, while its cold interior is primarily composed of methane ice.
4. The planet's size is slightly larger than Earth's moon with no moons and no rings.

Choose the correct Answer:

Accepted Answer

Option C: i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3. Mercury -> Smallest planet, no moons/rings (i-4); Mars -> Red planet with iron oxide/volcanoes (ii-2); Jupiter -> Great Red Spot gas giant (iii-1); Neptune -> Methane-rich deep blue planet (iv-3).

Question 63

The lines that run between the geographic North Pole and the geographic South Pole and are used to measure distances from the Prime Meridian are called :

Accepted Answer

Option B: Longitude lines.. Meridians of Longitude are vertical reference lines running from North Pole to South Pole, measuring angular distance east or west from the Prime Meridian ($0^\circ$).

Question 64

Which of the following statements are correct about forests in Jammu and Kashmir as per Indian State of Forest Research Report 2021?
1. The forests cover around 48% of the total geographical area of Jammu and Kashmir.
2. It has highest growing stock of wood per unit area in India, measuring approximately 172.46 cubic meters per hectare.
3. The per hectare carbon stock in Jammu and Kashmir is 173.41 tons, making it the highest in the country.
Choose the correct Answer:

Accepted Answer

Option C: 2 and 3. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. J&K has the highest growing stock of timber per hectare ($172.46	ext{ m}^3/	ext{ha}$) and highest per-hectare carbon stock in India; total forest cover is approx $39.15\%$ of accessible area (not 48%).

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Fill in the blank using a suitable modal :
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Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options.
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He left in a hurry, after he got a phone call.

Select the Synonyms of the word :
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Pick out the correct meaning of the given idiom :
Argus eyed

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