J&K General KnowledgeGeneral Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&K

Hydroelectric Projects & Infrastructure of J&K

Hydropower generation potential, run-of-the-river projects (Salal, Baglihar, Dulhasti, Uri I & II, Kishanganga, Ratle, Pakal Dul), historical power stations (Mohra 1905), Indus Waters Treaty (1960) provisions, and mega transportation tunnels (Syama Prasad Mookerjee / Chenani-Nashri, Jawahar Tunnel, Qazigund-Banihal, Zojila, Chenab Rail Bridge).

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📝 Solved Questions on Hydroelectric Projects & Infrastructure of J&K (1804)

Start Timed Test (1804 Qs)Self-Paced Practice
1📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTCulture
Consider the following statements regarding Kud dance:

1. Kud dance is performed to honour the gods Lok Devtas' as a thanks giving ritual.
2. It is practiced on festive occasions like Eid and Ramzan days are going.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. Kud is a traditional thanksgiving folk dance performed in Jammu's hilly areas to honor the Lok Devtas (local deities). Statement 2 is incorrect as it is performed during rainy nights and after harvesting, not on Eid/Ramzan.
پہلا بیان درست ہے کیونکہ کُد رقص جموں کے پہاڑی علاقوں میں مقامی دیوتاؤں (Lok Devtas) کے اعزاز میں شکرانے کے طور پر کیا جاتا ہے۔ یہ رقص عید یا رمضان کے موقع پر نہیں کیا جاتا۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
2📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Which of the places is known as the "Gateway to the Kashmir valley"?
Explanation
Banihal (also Qazigund) is known as the 'Gateway to Kashmir Valley' because it connects Jammu with Srinagar through the Banihal pass. Since it is not in the options, 'None of the above' is correct.
بانہال (Banihal) کو وادی کشمیر کا گیٹ وے کہا جاتا ہے۔ چونکہ یہ اختیارات میں شامل نہیں ہے، اس لیے 'None of the above' صحیح ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
3📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTDemography
The population growth rate means:
Explanation
The population growth rate is the rate at which the number of individuals in a population increases, which is fundamentally calculated as the difference between the birth rate and the death rate.
آبادی کی شرح نمو (population growth rate) سے مراد شرح پیدائش (birth rate) اور شرح اموات (death rate) کے درمیان فرق ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
4📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
In which tourist place is the Kolahoi glacier located?
Explanation
Kolahoi Glacier is a valley glacier located in the northwestern Himalayan Range, approximately 26 km north of Pahalgam.
کولاہوئی گلیشیئر (Kolahoi glacier) جموں و کشمیر کے مشہور سیاحتی مقام پہلگام (Pahalgam) کے قریب واقع ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
5📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHeritage
Consider the following statements regarding Ajanta Caves:

- a. Ajanta caves were tagged as UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1983.
- b. Currently, these caves are taken care of by the Archaeological Survey of India.
- c. The caves are believed to be made in Gupta period and Vakataka period.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
All statements are correct. Ajanta Caves became a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983, are preserved by the ASI, and were excavated during the Vakataka and Gupta periods.
تمام بیانات درست ہیں۔ اجنتا غاروں کو 1983 میں یونیسکو نے عالمی ثقافتی ورثہ قرار دیا، ان کی نگہداشت ASI کرتا ہے اور یہ گپتا اور واکاٹکا دور میں بنی تھیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
6📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Consider the following pairs of dams and the states they are located in:

- a. Sardar Sarovar Dam: 3. Gujarat
- b. Bhavani Sagar Dam: 4. Tamil Nadu
- c. Koyna Dam: 2. Maharashtra
- d. Tehri Dam: 1. Uttarakhand

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
The correct matches are: Sardar Sarovar in Gujarat (a-3), Bhavani Sagar in Tamil Nadu (b-4), Koyna in Maharashtra (c-2), and Tehri in Uttarakhand (d-1). This corresponds to: a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1.
صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: سردار سروور ڈیم گجرات (a-3)، بھوانی ساگر تمل ناڈو (b-4)، کوئنا ڈیم مہاراشٹر (c-2)، اور ٹیہری ڈیم اتراکھنڈ (d-1)۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
7📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHistory
Consider the following pairs of historical terms and entities of Jammu and Kashmir:

- a. Founder of Dogra Dynasty: 4. Gulab Singh
- b. Dar-Ul-Aman (written as Dar-Ul-Alam): 1. Maharaja Ranjit Dev
- c. Mian Deedo: 2. Rebellion Group Head
- d. Treaty of Lahore: 3. 1846

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
The correct matches are: Maharaja Gulab Singh founded the Dogra Dynasty (a-4); Jammu was named 'Dar-ul-Aman' during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Dev due to religious peace (b-1); Mian Deedo was a rebel leader against Sikh rule in Jammu (c-2); and the Treaty of Lahore was signed in 1846 (d-3).
صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: مہاراجہ گلاب سنگھ نے ڈوگرہ خاندان کی بنیاد رکھی (a-4)؛ مہاراجہ رنجیت دیو کے دور میں جموں کو دارالامن کہا گیا (b-1)؛ میاں دیدو جموں کے باغی لیڈر تھے (c-2)؛ اور لاہور کا معاہدہ 1846 میں ہوا (d-3)۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
8📚Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
Fixed cost is a cost:
Explanation
Fixed costs are those expenses that remain constant in total amount over a specific range of activity/output during a given period, regardless of volume changes.
مستقل لاگت (Fixed cost) وہ لاگت ہے جو پیداوار کی مقدار تبدیل ہونے کے باوجود کل رقم میں تبدیل نہیں ہوتی (جیسے کرایہ، تنخواہیں)۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
9📚Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
Calculate the Prime Cost from the following information:

- Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000
- Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000
- Direct labour: Rs. 60,000
- Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000
- Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
Explanation
Prime Cost is the sum of direct costs: Prime Cost = Direct Materials Consumed + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses = Rs. 90,000 + Rs. 60,000 + Rs. 20,000 = Rs. 1,70,000. (Note: Purchased material is not used directly, only consumed material is counted).
پرائم کاسٹ (Prime Cost) کا فارمولا: استعمال شدہ خام مال + براہ راست اجرت + دیگر براہ راست اخراجات = 90,000 + 60,000 + 20,000 = 1,70,000 روپے ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
10📚Accountancy & Book KeepingAccounting Equation
Which of the following is correct?
Explanation
The fundamental accounting equation is Assets = Liabilities + Capital (Owner's Equity). This represents the balance sheet structure.
بنیادی اکاؤنٹنگ مساوات ہے: اثاثے (Assets) = واجبات (Liabilities) + ایکویٹی / سرمایہ (Equity)۔ یعنی آپشن C درست ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
11📚Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation (GST)
Which of the following is/are included in the definition of "Goods" as defined under section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017?
Explanation
Section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017 defines 'goods' to exclude money and securities but specifically includes actionable claims, growing crops, grass, etc.
جی ایس ٹی ایکٹ کی دفعہ 2(52) کے تحت 'اشیاء' (goods) کی تعریف میں منی اور سیکیورٹیز شامل نہیں ہیں، لیکن ایکشن ایبل کلیم (Actionable claim) شامل ہیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
12📚Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
From the following information, find out the number of units that must be sold by the firm to earn a profit of Rs. 1,80,000 per year:

- Sales price: Rs. 25 per unit
- Variable manufacturing costs: Rs. 12 per unit
- Variable selling costs: Rs. 3 per unit
- Fixed factory overheads: Rs. 5,00,000
- Fixed selling costs: Rs. 3,00,000
Explanation
Contribution per unit = Selling Price - Total Variable Cost = 25 - (12 + 3) = Rs. 10. Total Fixed Cost = 5,00,000 + 3,00,000 = Rs. 8,00,000. Required Sales Units = (Fixed Costs + Target Profit) / Contribution per unit = (8,00,000 + 1,80,000) / 10 = 9,80,000 / 10 = 98,000 units.
فی یونٹ کنٹریبیوشن = 25 - (12+3) = 10۔ کل فکسڈ لاگت = 8,00,000۔ مطلوبہ یونٹس = (فکسڈ لاگت + منافع) / کنٹریبیوشن = (8,00,000 + 1,80,000) / 10 = 98,000 یونٹس۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
13📚General EnglishSentence Rearrangement
Rearrange the following jumbled phrases into a meaningful sentence:

- 1. Are tree from (free from)
- 2. Grow abundantly
- 3. Low plants
- 4. Tundra region
- 5. During the short summer
- 6. Like mosses and clinches (lichens)
- 7. And
- 8. Ice
Explanation
Option B (4, 1, 8, 5, 7, 3, 6, 2) forms the correct sentence: 'Tundra region are free from ice during the short summer, and low plants like mosses and lichens grow abundantly.'
صحیح ترتیب آپشن B ہے: 'Tundra region are free from ice during the short summer, and low plants like mosses and lichens grow abundantly.'
2024JKSSBFinance Department
14📚General EconomicsEconomics
What is Gross Domestic Product?
Explanation
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total monetary or market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific time period (usually annually).
مجموعی ملکی پیداوار (GDP) سے مراد ایک مخصوص مدت (عام طور پر ایک سال) میں ملک کی حدود کے اندر پیدا ہونے والی تمام حتمی اشیاء اور خدمات کی مالیاتی قدر ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
15📚General EconomicsEconomics
Which is NOT one of the four main factors of production?
Explanation
The four classical factors of production are Land, Labour, Capital, and Entrepreneurship. Manufacturing is a production process/sector, not a fundamental factor of production.
پیداوار کے چار اہم عوامل: زمین، محنت (Labour)، سرمایہ (Capital) اور تنظیم ہیں۔ مینوفیکچرنگ (Manufacturing) ان عوامل میں شامل نہیں ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
16📚Knowledge of ComputersSecurity
Which of the following is an antivirus?
Explanation
Norton is a widely used commercial antivirus software utility. Trojan Horse, Worms, and Macro Virus are types of malware.
نورٹن (Norton) ایک اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر ہے، جبکہ ٹروجن ہارس اور ورمز وغیرہ نقصان دہ وائرس اور مالویئر ہیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
17📚Knowledge of ComputersSecurity
The digital signature service that has been launched on the Aadhaar platform is called:
Explanation
eSign Desk (or eSign) is an online electronic signature service in India launched to facilitate Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents.
آدھار پلیٹ فارم پر مبنی آن لائن ڈیجیٹل دستخط کی سروس کو ای-سائن ڈیسک (eSign Desk) کہا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
18📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsForensic Science
The prime work of investigating officer is based on which of the following principle?
Explanation
Locard's Principle of Exchange states that 'every contact leaves a trace', which forms the fundamental basis of crime scene investigation.
لوکارڈ کا تبادلے کا اصول (Locard's Principle of Exchange) کہتا ہے کہ 'ہر رابطہ ایک نشان چھوڑتا ہے'، جو کرائم سین کی تفتیش کی بنیادی بنیاد ہے۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
19📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsCrime Scene Management
Mark the proper sequence of tasks to be completed in a crime scene.

i. Packaging of physical evidence
ii. Securing the scene
iii. Collecting physical evidence
iv. Recognizing physical evidence
Explanation
The correct sequence is: first secure the scene (ii), then recognize/identify evidence (iv), then collect the evidence (iii), and finally package it (i).
صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: پہلے جرم کی جگہ کو محفوظ کرنا (ii)، پھر ثبوتوں کی شناخت کرنا (iv)، پھر ثبوت اکٹھے کرنا (iii)، اور آخر میں پیک کرنا (i)۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
20📚Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following are Non sampling statistical errors?

i. Coverage error
ii. Non-response error
iii. Response error
Explanation
Non-sampling errors are errors that occur during data collection processes other than active sampling. Coverage, non-response, and response errors are all classified under non-sampling errors.
نان سیمپلنگ غلطیاں (Non sampling errors) وہ ہوتی ہیں جو نمونے کے علاوہ ڈیٹا جمع کرنے کے عمل میں پیدا ہوتی ہیں۔ ان میں کوریج، نان رسپانس، اور رسپانس کی غلطیاں تینوں شامل ہیں۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
21📚Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
The Standard of Length is based on
Explanation
Since 1983, the meter has been defined internationally as the length of the path travelled by light in vacuum during a time interval of 1/299,792,458 of a second. This is based on the speed of light.
1983 سے، لمبائی کے بین الاقوامی معیار (میٹر) کی تعریف خلا میں روشنی کی رفتار (speed of light) کے تحت کی گئی ہے، یعنی روشنی ایک سیکنڈ کے ایک مخصوص حصے میں جتنا فاصلہ طے کرتی ہے۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
22📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsFootprints
A footprint classification system is required for filing the footprints of

i. New born babies
ii. Military airmen
iii. People lacking arms
Explanation
Footprint classification systems are used for filing records of newborn babies (hospital security), military airmen (for identification after plane crashes/burns), and individuals lacking arms (who cannot provide fingerprints).
فٹ پرنٹ کی درجہ بندی کا نظام نوزائیدہ بچوں، فوجی ہوابازوں (حادثات میں شناخت کے لیے)، اور بغیر بازوؤں والے افراد (جن کے فنگر پرنٹ نہیں لیے جا سکتے) کی ریکارڈ فائلنگ کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔ اس لیے تینوں درست ہیں۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
23📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsFootprints
Which of the following materials can be used for casting footprint impressions in snow

i. Molten wax
ii. Plaster of Paris solution
iii. Molten Sulphur.
Explanation
Molten sulfur and molten wax can be used to cast impressions in snow because they solidify rapidly without generating excessive heat that would melt the details. Plaster of Paris solution is water-based and generates heat during its setting process, which would melt the snow and destroy the print detail.
برف پر پاؤں کے نشانات کی کاسٹنگ کے لیے پگھلا ہوا گندھک (Molten Sulphur) اور پگھلی ہوئی موم (Molten wax) استعمال کی جاتی ہے کیونکہ یہ برف کو پگھلائے بغیر تیزی سے جم جاتی ہیں۔ پلاسٹر آف پیرس حرارت پیدا کر کے برف پگھلا دیتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
24📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsGait Analysis
In scientific study of gait pattern, which of the following characteristics are noted?

i. Dimensions of Mark
ii. Pressure points
iii. Pressure defects
Explanation
A scientific analysis of a gait pattern involves checking the dimensions of the prints, the specific pressure points of the foot during stride, and any pressure defects (uneven weight distribution or gait abnormalities).
چال کی رفتار اور انداز (gait pattern) کے سائنسی مطالعے میں پاؤں کے نشان کا سائز (dimensions)، دباؤ کے مقامات (pressure points)، اور چال کی خرابیاں یا نقائص (pressure defects) سبھی نوٹ کیے جاتے ہیں۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
25📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsGlass
Match the following:

List-I (Element)
i. Arsenic
ii. Cobalt
iii. Chromium
iv. Titanium

List-II (Effect on Glass)
a. Air Bubble removal
b. Blue colour
c. Decolourisation
d. Green Colour
Explanation
The matching is: Arsenic is used for air bubble removal (i-a); Cobalt imparts a blue color (ii-b); Chromium imparts a green color (iii-d); Titanium is used for decolorisation (iv-c).
صحیح جوڑ: آرسینک (Arsenic) -> ہوا کے بلبلوں کا خاتمہ (i-a)؛ کوبالٹ -> نیلا رنگ (ii-b)؛ کرومیم -> ہرا رنگ (iii-d)؛ ٹائٹینیم -> رنگ کا اڑنا یا ڈی کلرائزیشن (iv-c)۔
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26📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsFirearms
Which of the following statements are true for Breech face?

i. It is the area surrounding the firing pin hole.
ii. It seals the barrel from chamber side.
iii. It comes in close contact with the base of the cartridge.
Explanation
The breech face is the portion of the bolt or breech block that seals the rear of the chamber, surrounds the firing pin hole, and directly supports the base of the cartridge case during firing.
بریچ فیس (Breech face) وہ حصہ ہے جو فائرنگ پن کے سوراخ کے گرد ہوتا ہے، چیمبر کی طرف سے نالی کو بند کرتا ہے اور فائرنگ کے وقت کارٹریج کی بنیاد (base) سے جوڑتا ہے۔ اس لیے تینوں سچ ہیں۔
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27📚Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeFirearms
Backward movement of firearm during firing is termed as
Explanation
Recoil is the rearward movement of a firearm caused by Newton's third law of motion (action and reaction) when the bullet is projected forward.
فائرنگ کے وقت بندوق کا پیچھے کی طرف جھٹکا لینا یا حرکت کرنا ریکوائل (Recoil) کہلاتا ہے۔
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28📚Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeExternal Ballistics
The tendency of a projectile to suck backward to fill up the vacuum is called as
Explanation
Base drag is the aerodynamic drag caused by the low pressure/vacuum area formed behind the flat base of a moving bullet, which pulls it backward.
گولی کے پیچھے پیدا ہونے والے ویکیوم یا کم دباؤ کے باعث پیچھے کی طرف کھنچنے کے عمل کو بیس ڈریگ (Base drag) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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29📚Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeWound Ballistics
Scorching is also known as

i. Singeing
ii. Burning
iii. Charring
Explanation
Scorching (the thermal damage caused by muzzle flash gases) is also referred to as singeing (specifically for hair) or burning/charring (for fibers and tissue).
شعلے کی گرمی سے بال اور کپڑے جھلسنے (scorching) کو جھلسنا (singeing)، جلنا (burning)، اور کوئلہ بننا (charring) تینوں ناموں سے پکارا جاتا ہے۔
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30📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Science
Which of the following is called "Locard's Principle of Exchange"?
Explanation
Locard's Exchange Principle states that 'every contact leaves a trace', which forms the fundamental basis of trace evidence and crime scene investigation.
لوکارڈ کا تبادلے کا اصول (Locard's Exchange Principle) کہتا ہے کہ 'ہر رابطہ ایک نشان چھوڑتا ہے'، جو کرائم سین کی تفتیش اور ٹریس شواہد کی بنیادی بنیاد ہے۔
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31📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
The following steps are involved in the crime scene processing:

i. Packaging of evidence
ii. Collection of evidence
iii. Securing the crime scene
iv. Sketching and videography of the crime scene

Which of the following sequence/order is correct beginning from the first step?
Explanation
The standard sequence of crime scene processing is: first securing the scene (iii), documenting via sketching and photography (iv), collecting evidence (ii), and then packaging it (i).
کرائم سین پروسیسنگ کی صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: سب سے پہلے جائے وقوعہ کو محفوظ کرنا (iii)، خاکہ سازی اور فوٹوگرافی (iv)، شواہد جمع کرنا (ii)، اور پھر ان کی پیکیجنگ کرنا (i)۔
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32📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyArson Investigation
While investigating an arson crime scene, what can indicate the possible area of origin of the fire?
Explanation
The area of origin in a fire scene typically exhibits the longest exposure to fire, resulting in the maximum amount of charring and structural damage.
آتش زدگی کی جگہ پر آگ لگنے کا اصل مرکز (origin) وہ ہوتا ہے جہاں آگ سب سے زیادہ دیر رہی ہو اور وہاں سب سے زیادہ نقصان (maximum damage) پہنچا ہو۔
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33📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyLegal Terms
Who can order a body for exhumation in India?
Explanation
In India, under Section 176 of the CrPC, only an Executive Magistrate has the authority to order the exhumation of a buried body for forensic investigation.
بھارت میں ضابطہ فوجداری (CrPC) کی دفعہ 176 کے تحت دفن شدہ لاش کو تفتیش کے لیے باہر نکالنے (Exhumation) کا حکم صرف ایک مجسٹریٹ (Magistrate) دے سکتا ہے۔
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34📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Management
Which of the following is an example of trace evidence found on a crime scene?
Explanation
Trace evidence refers to microscopic physical evidence transferred during a crime, such as fibers, hair, soil, or glass fragments.
ٹریس شواہد (Trace evidence) سے مراد انتہائی چھوٹے یا خوردبینی شواہد ہیں، جیسے کہ کوئی دھاگہ یا ریشہ (Fiber) جو جائے وقوعہ پر پایا جائے۔
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35📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyPhysical Evidence
Consider the following pairs:

i. Fingerprints - Striations in marks
ii. Toolmarks - Minutiae patterns
iii. Footwear - Wear damage to sole
iv. Handwriting- Hiatus

Which of the physical evidence is correctly matched with their individual characteristics?
Explanation
Footwear sole wear/damage (iii) and a hiatus in handwriting (iv) are individual characteristics. Minutiae are for fingerprints, and striations are for toolmarks/bullets.
جوتے کے تلوے کا گھساؤ (iii) اور تحریر میں ہیاٹس یا وقفہ (iv) انفرادی خصوصیات ہیں۔ فنگر پرنٹ میں منوشیا پیٹرن ہوتے ہیں اور ٹول مارکس میں لکیریں (striations)۔
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36📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyUrine Detection
DMAC assay is a presumptive assay for body fluid detection. What does it detect?
Explanation
The DMAC (p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde) assay reacts with urea, which is present in high concentrations in urine, to produce a pink/red color.
ڈی ایم اے سی (DMAC) ٹیسٹ پیشاب میں موجود یوریا (Urea) کی شناخت کرنے والا ایک ابتدائی فارنسک ٹیسٹ ہے۔
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37📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyImmunoassays
Arrange the steps of immunoprecipitation in the right order:

i. Elution
ii. Binding of antigen and antibody
iii. Immobilisation of primary antibody on a matrix
Explanation
The correct sequence for immunoprecipitation is: first immobilizing the antibody on a solid support (iii), then binding the antigen/target (ii), and finally eluting the purified antigen (i).
امیونوپریسیپیٹیشن (Immunoprecipitation) کی صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: پہلے اینٹی باڈی کو میٹرکس پر مستحکم کرنا (iii)، پھر اینٹی جن کا بائنڈ ہونا (ii)، اور آخر میں مطلوبہ پروٹین کو الگ کرنا یا ایلیوشن (i)۔
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38📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Medicine
What stage marks the beginning of putrefaction during decomposition in a terrestrial environment?
Explanation
The bloated stage is characterized by the accumulation of gases produced by anaerobic bacteria during putrefaction, marking its overt beginning.
لاش کے گلنے سڑنے کے دوران گیسوں کے جمع ہونے سے پیدا ہونے والا سوزش کا مرحلہ (Bloated stage) تعفن یا سڑن (putrefaction) کے باقاعدہ آغاز کی نشاندہی کرتا ہے۔
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39📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesDrowning
During autopsy of a body found in a lake, diatoms were found in the bone marrow. Which of the following assumptions is most valid?
Explanation
Diatoms entering the bone marrow requires active circulation, proving that the victim aspirated water containing diatoms while still alive.
ہڈی کے گودے میں ڈائیٹمز ملنے سے ثابت ہوتا ہے کہ پانی سانس کے ذریعے جسم میں تب گیا تھا جب مقتول زندہ تھا (active circulation)، یعنی یہ ڈوبنے کی تصدیق کرتا ہے۔
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40📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Botany
During processing of pollen samples from soil, what is the chemical used to remove silica?
Explanation
Hydrofluoric acid (HF) is used in palynology to dissolve silicate minerals and release pollen grains from soil/sediment samples.
مٹی سے پولن (pollen) کے نمونے الگ کرنے کے عمل میں، مٹی میں موجود سلیکا (silica) کو گھولنے کے لیے ہائیڈروفلورک ایسڈ (HF) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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41📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Entomology
Adult flies are
Explanation
Adult blowflies are positively phototropic (attracted to light) and are active during daylight hours.
بالغ مکھیاں روشنی کی طرف راغب ہوتی ہیں یعنی وہ مثبت فوٹوٹروپک (Positively phototropic) خصوصیات کی حامل ہوتی ہیں۔
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42📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesSerology
A prozone effect during a precipitation reaction is observed when
Explanation
The prozone effect is a false negative result observed in antigen-antibody reactions due to antibody excess.
پروزون اثر (Prozone effect) تب ظاہر ہوتا ہے جب محلول میں اینٹی باڈی کی مقدار اینٹی جن کے مقابلے میں بہت زیادہ (excessive) ہو۔
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43📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesWildlife Protection
A wildlife poacher is interested in illegal trade of tiger skin. What method of poaching will he prefer?
Explanation
Poachers targeting tiger skins prefer legtraps (jaw traps) because they are silent and do not damage the pelt with bullet holes, ensuring maximum market value.
ٹائیگر کی کھال کا غیر قانونی دھندا کرنے والے شکاری پھندوں یا لیگ ٹریپس (Legtraps) کا استعمال پسند کرتے ہیں، کیونکہ گولی چلانے سے کھال خراب ہو جاتی ہے اور آواز بھی ہوتی ہے۔
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44📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Odontology
During dental comparison, it was found that in the antemortem findings, tooth number 16 was intact, whereas in the postmortem examination, the same tooth was missing. This is reported as
Explanation
A tooth present antemortem but missing postmortem is an explainable inconsistency because teeth can be lost postmortem due to decay, extraction, or trauma during or after death.
اگر موت سے پہلے دانت موجود تھا اور موت کے بعد غائب ملا، تو یہ ایک ایسی تبدیلی ہے جس کی وضاحت کی جا سکتی ہے (Explainable inconsistency)، کیونکہ دانت بعد میں گر سکتا ہے یا ٹوٹ سکتا ہے۔
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45📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Odontology
Which statement pertaining to defensive bitemarks is TRUE?

i. Show a well-defined pattern
ii. Are usually singular
iii. Show tearing of skin
iv. Are most often seen in postmortem bitemarks
Explanation
Defensive bite marks occur during a violent struggle, meaning they are antemortem (not postmortem) and often ill-defined/distorted, showing tearing of skin due to movement. Only statement iii is correct.
حفاظتی کاٹنے کے نشانات (Defensive bitemarks) کشمکش کے دوران بنتے ہیں، جس کی وجہ سے نشانات کھنچ جاتے ہیں اور جلد پھٹ (tearing of skin) جاتی ہے۔ اس لیے صرف بیان (iii) درست ہے۔
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46📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyNucleic Acids
Consider the following statements:

i. The sugar molecule in RNA is ribose
ii. The purine bases in RNA are cytosine and uracil
iii. RNA molecule is a single-stranded molecule.

Which of the statements are true?
Explanation
Statements i (ribose sugar) and iii (single-stranded) are true. Statement ii is false because cytosine and uracil are pyrimidine bases, not purines (which are adenine and guanine).
پہلا اور تیسرا بیان درست ہے: آر این اے میں رائبوز شوگر ہوتی ہے (i) اور یہ عام طور پر سنگل اسٹینڈرڈ ہوتا ہے (iii)۔ دوسرا بیان غلط ہے کیونکہ سائٹوسین اور یوراسل پائریمیڈین ہیں، پیورین نہیں س۔
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47📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologySaliva Analysis
What cells detected during microscopic examination would indicate the presence of saliva?
Explanation
The presence of buccal squamous epithelial cells (shed from the inner lining of the cheek) during microscopic exam points to saliva.
لعاب دہن (saliva) کی خوردبینی جانچ کے دوران منہ کے گال کی جھلی سے جھڑے ہوئے خلیات یعنی بکل اسکواومس خلیات (Buccal squamous epithelial cells) پائے جاتے ہیں۔
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48📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
What is not the responsibility of an First Responder?
Explanation
The first responder's priority is life safety (first aid), securing the scene, and arresting suspects if present. Collection of transient evidence is typically done by forensic specialists, although they must preserve it.
فرسٹ ریسپونڈر کا بنیادی کام زخمیوں کو طبی امداد دینا، ملزم کو پکڑنا اور جائے وقوعہ کو محفوظ کرنا ہے۔ شواہد کو اکٹھا کرنا (Collection) فارنسک ٹیم کا کام ہے، فرسٹ ریسپونڈر کا نہیں۔
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49📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
The document meant at the crime scene to keep a record of entry and exit of personnels is known as
Explanation
The Crime Scene Security Log (or Crime Scene Log) records the names and times of arrival and departure of all personnel entering or exiting the secured perimeter.
جائے وقوعہ پر آنے اور جانے والے تمام افسران اور افراد کا ریکارڈ رکھنے والی دستاویز کو کرائم سین لاگ (Crime Scene Log) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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50📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsExplosives
What are the fundamental features of an explosive?
Explanation
The absolute defining chemical features of an explosion are the rapid conversion of a solid or liquid into gaseous products with a simultaneous massive release of heat and pressure energy.
کسی دھماکہ خیز مواد کی سب سے بنیادی خصوصیت یہ ہے کہ وہ بہت تیزی سے گیس بناتا ہے اور اس کے ساتھ ہی بے پناہ توانائی اور حرارت خارج کرتا ہے۔
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51📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyToxicology
Urine testing kit for the exposure to drugs is based on principle of
Explanation
Commercial rapid urine drug test kits utilize lateral flow immunochromatographic assays (Immunoassays) to detect drugs or their metabolites.
پیشاب میں منشیات کی فوری جانچ کے لیے استعمال ہونے والی کٹس ایمیونوایسے (Immunoassay) کے سائنسی اصول پر کام کرتی ہیں۔
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52📚Forensic Toxicology & PharmacologyMedical Jurisprudence
Apoplexy is the term used for
Explanation
Historically in forensic MCQ banks, apoplexy refers to cerebral congestion or hemorrhage causing sudden loss of consciousness.
فارنسک ایم سی کیو کے مطابق، اپوپلیسی (Apoplexy) کا لفظ روایتی طور پر دماغ میں خون کے جماؤ یا دماغی بھیڑ (Cerebral congestion) کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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53📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWeb Security
Which of the following explains the nature of Cookies?
Explanation
In standard computer network contexts, cookies are described as transient (temporary) because session cookies expire when the browser is closed, and even persistent cookies have a set expiration time.
کوکیز (Cookies) کی نوعیت عارضی یا ٹرانزینٹ (Transient) ہوتی ہے کیونکہ یہ عام طور پر سیشن ختم ہونے پر مٹ جاتی ہیں۔
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54📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWeb Security
Which of the following is a Boolean cookie attribute?
Explanation
'Secure' is a Boolean attribute (flag) for cookies. When set, it restricts the transmission of the cookie to secure (HTTPS) connections only.
سیکیور (Secure) کوکی کا ایک بولین (Boolean) وصف ہے؛ اگر یہ لاگو ہو تو کوکی صرف سیکیور کنکشن (HTTPS) پر ہی بھیجی جائے گی۔
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55📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsVPN Protocols
Which of the following is not a VPN protocol?
Explanation
SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol) is an older encapsulation protocol for serial ports, not a Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocol. PPTP, L2F, and IPSec are VPN tunneling protocols.
سلپ (SLIP) ایک پرانا لنک لیئر پروٹوکول ہے اور یہ وی پی این (VPN) پروٹوکول نہیں ہے، جبکہ باقی تمام وی پی این پروٹوکول ہیں۔
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56📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptographic Protocols
Typically, _____ can receive application data from any application layer protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP.
Explanation
Both SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS (Transport Layer Security) reside at the transport/session layer and can secure any application-layer protocol, although HTTP is the most common use case (resulting in HTTPS).
ایس ایس ایل (SSL) اور ٹی ایل ایس (TLS) دونوں ہی کسی بھی ایپلی کیشن لیئر پروٹوکول سے ڈیٹا حاصل کر سکتے ہیں، حالانکہ عام طور پر یہ ایچ ٹی ٹی پی (HTTP) ہوتا ہے۔
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57📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsEmail Security
One security protocol for the e-mail system is
Explanation
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is an email encryption protocol that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication. SSL/TLS are general transport protocols, and IPSec operates at the network layer.
ای میل سیکیورٹی کے لیے پی جی پی (Pretty Good Privacy) پروٹوکول کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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58📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityInformation Security
Message _____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent.
Explanation
Message integrity ensures that the transmitted data remains unaltered, accurate, and complete during transit from the sender to the receiver.
پیغام کی سالمیت (Message Integrity) کا مطلب یہ ہے کہ وصول کنندہ کے پاس ڈیٹا بالکل اسی حالت میں پہنچے جس حالت میں بھیجا گیا تھا۔
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59📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityCryptography
ECC stands for _____ in public key cryptography
Explanation
ECC stands for Elliptic Curve Cryptography, an approach to public-key cryptography based on the algebraic structure of elliptic curves over finite fields, offering smaller keys with equivalent security to RSA.
ای سی سی (ECC) کا پورا نام ایلپٹک کرو کرپٹوگرافی (Elliptic curve cryptography) ہے۔
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60📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls
The security device which installed between two networks (internal network to outside network) for controlling the flow of traffic into and out of network is known as
Explanation
A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization's previously established security policies.
دو نیٹ ورکس کے درمیان ٹریفک کو کنٹرول کرنے کے لیے لگایا جانے والا حفاظتی آلہ فائر وال (Firewall) کہلاتا ہے۔
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61📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryWireless Networks
The IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as a building block of wireless
Explanation
The Basic Service Set (BSS) is the fundamental building block of an IEEE 802.11 wireless Local Area Network (LAN).
آئی ای ای ای 802.11 (IEEE 802.11) وائرلیس لوکل ایریا نیٹ ورک (LAN) کی تعمیراتی اکائی کے طور پر کام کرتا ہے۔
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62📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
Components that provide internal storage to the CPU are
Explanation
Registers are high-speed internal storage locations directly built inside the CPU to store data, instructions, and intermediate results during processing.
سی پی یو (CPU) کے اندر عارضی اور تیز ترین اسٹوریج فراہم کرنے والے حصوں کو رجسٹرز (Registers) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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63📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture
BIOS is used by
Explanation
The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is used by the operating system during start-up (boot strapping) to detect hardware configuration and load the main OS from storage.
کمپیوٹر شروع ہوتے وقت ہارڈ ویئر سے رابطہ قائم کرنے کے لیے آپریٹنگ سسٹم (Operating system) بنیادی ان پٹ/آؤٹ پٹ سسٹم (BIOS) کا استعمال کرتا ہے۔
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64📚Cryptography & Network SecurityCybersecurity Tools
Which of the following is a session hijacking tool?
Explanation
T-Sight is a commercial security and network sniffing utility used for session hijacking and active monitoring. Wireshark is a packet analyzer, Maltego is OSINT, and Nessus is a vulnerability scanner.
ٹی-سائٹ (T-Sight) ایک مشہور سیشن ہائی جیکنگ اور نیٹ ورک مانیٹرنگ ٹول ہے۔
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65📚Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Security
Which of the following is the standard for interoperable cloud-based key management?
Explanation
KMIP (Key Management Interoperability Protocol) is a standard developed by OASIS to ensure interoperability between key management servers and clients.
کلاؤڈ میں کیز (Keys) کے انتظام کے لیے متفقہ پروٹوکول کے ایم آئی پی (KMIP) ہے۔
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66📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsMobile Forensics
Which of the following is NOT a category of mobile forensic tools?
Explanation
Mobile forensic tools encompass extraction, recovery, and analysis categories. Encryption tools are security mechanisms to protect data, not forensic tools.
ڈیٹا کو انکریپٹ کرنے والے ٹولز (Data encryption tools) فارنسک تفتیش کا حصہ نہیں ہیں بلکہ ڈیٹا چھپانے کے کام آتے ہیں۔
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67📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsMobile Security
What is the general length of the IMEI number?
Explanation
An IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) number is a unique 15-digit number used to identify 3GPP and iDEN mobile phones.
موبائل فون کی شناخت کے لیے استعمال ہونے والا آئی ایم ای آئی (IMEI) نمبر عام طور پر 15 ہندسوں (15 digits) پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے۔
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68📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsInformation Security
Many social media sites and services provide _____ for legitimate account verification.
Explanation
Two-step (or two-factor) verification is standardly provided by social media services to authenticate the identity of the legitimate account holder during logins.
سوشل میڈیا سائٹس اکاؤنٹ کی سیکیورٹی اور تصدیق کے لیے ٹو-اسٹیپ ویریفکیشن (2-step verification) کی سہولت دیتی ہیں۔
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69📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Principles
Consider the following principles of forensic science:
i. Not all contact leaves a trace
ii. Two different things can be compared
iii. Everything is unique
iv. Change is the only constant
Which of the above statements is true/correct?
Explanation
According to the fundamental laws of forensic science, the Law of Individuality states 'Everything is unique' (iii), and the Law of Progressive Change states 'Change is the only constant' (iv). Statement i is incorrect because Locard's Exchange Principle states 'Every contact leaves a trace'. Statement ii is incorrect because the Law of Comparison states that only likes can be compared.
فارنزک سائنس کے بنیادی اصولوں کے مطابق، انفرادیت کا قانون (Law of Individuality) بتاتا ہے کہ 'ہر چیز منفرد ہے' (iii) اور ترقی پسند تبدیلی کا قانون (Law of Progressive Change) بتاتا ہے کہ 'تبدیلی ہی واحد مستقل ہے' (iv)۔ پہلا بیان غلط ہے کیونکہ لوکارڈ کا اصول کہتا ہے کہ 'ہر رابطہ ایک نشان چھوڑتا ہے'۔ دوسرا بیان غلط ہے کیونکہ موازنہ کا قانون کہتا ہے کہ صرف ملتی جلتی چیزوں کا موازنہ کیا جا سکتا ہے۔
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70📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
The following steps are carried out during crime scene processing.
i. Collect
ii. Process and preserve
iii. Record
iv. Observe
Which is the right order beginning from the first step?
Explanation
The standard sequence of crime scene processing is to first Observe (iv) the scene, Record (iii) it through notes, sketches, and photos, Collect (i) the physical evidence, and finally Process and preserve (ii) the evidence and scene details.
کرائم سین پروسیسنگ کا صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: سب سے پہلے مشاہدہ کرنا (Observe - iv)، پھر ریکارڈ کرنا (Record - iii)، پھر نمونے جمع کرنا (Collect - i)، اور آخر میں پروسیس اور محفوظ کرنا (Process and preserve - ii)۔ یعنی iv، iii، i، ii۔
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71📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsTrace Evidence
Which of the following is an example of trace evidence?
Explanation
Trace evidence refers to microscopic physical evidence that is transferred between objects or people during a crime. Examples include hair, fibers, glass fragments, and paint chips.
ٹریس ایویڈینس (Trace evidence) سے مراد وہ خوردبینی مادی ثبوت ہیں جو جرم کے دوران منتقل ہوتے ہیں۔ دھاگہ یا ریشہ (Fiber) اس کی ایک بہترین مثال ہے۔
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72📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Law
What is "Lying under oath" called?
Explanation
Perjury is the act of willfully making false statements or lying under oath during a judicial proceeding.
حلف کے تحت جھوٹ بولنا یا عدالت میں جھوٹی گواہی دینا پرجری (Perjury) کہلاتا ہے۔
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73📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Consider the following duties of the first responding officer.
i. Barricade the crime scene
ii. Compile data from the scene
iii. Attend to any injured people/survivors
iv. Remove and detain witnesses/suspects from crime scene
Arrange the duties in chronological order starting from the first duty
Explanation
The first priority of the responding officer is to preserve life by attending to the injured (iii). The next step is to secure the individuals at the scene by detaining witnesses/suspects (iv), followed by securing the physical scene by barricading (i), and finally documenting and compiling initial scene data (ii).
سب سے پہلے زخمیوں کو طبی امداد فراہم کرنا (iii)، پھر گواہوں یا مشتبہ افراد کو قابو کرنا (iv)، پھر کرائم سین کو بیریکیڈ کر کے سیل کرنا (i) اور آخر میں ڈیٹا اکٹھا کرنا (ii) ترجیحی ترتیب ہے۔
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74📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyEvidence Vocabulary
Consider the following pairs:

| Term | Definition |
| --- | --- |
| i. Elimination sample | Known source from someone who had lawful access to the scene |
| ii. Questioned sample | Known source from the crime scene which was presumably uncontaminated during a crime |
| iii. Reference sample | Known source with which evidence is compared to establish a link |
| iv. Control sample | Recovered from crime whose source is in question |

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pairs i and iii are correctly matched. A questioned sample is of unknown origin (ii is incorrect), and a control sample is a standard material of known origin used to verify assay validity, not a sample whose source is in question (iv is incorrect).
صرف پہلا (i - ایلیمینیشن نمونہ) اور تیسرا (iii - ریفرینس نمونہ) بیانات صحیح طور پر میل کھاتے ہیں۔ نامعلوم ماخذ والے نمونے کو کوئسچنڈ نمونہ کہتے ہیں (ii غلط ہے)۔ کنٹرول نمونہ ٹیسٹ کی درستگی جانچنے کے لیے معلوم چیز ہوتی ہے (iv غلط ہے)۔
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75📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Photography
Which of the following is a detailed millimetre scale placed next to evidence while taking close view photograph of evidence?
Explanation
The ABFO No. 2 scale, developed by the American Board of Forensic Odontologists, is a standard L-shaped millimetric scale placed next to wounds, bite marks, or other physical evidence during close-up photography to establish accurate scaling.
اے بی ایف او (ABFO) ایک ملی میٹر پیمانہ ہے جسے قریبی تصاویر لیتے وقت نمونوں کے پاس رکھا جاتا ہے تاکہ سائز کا درست تعین ہو سکے۔
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76📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Ethics
Consider the following ethics of a forensic expert:
i. Be subjective in validated scientific analysis
ii. Be objective in their analysis
iii. Employ validated methods of analysis
iv. Give personal opinions on the suspect of the crime
Which of the above statements are true/correct?
Explanation
A forensic expert is ethically required to remain strictly objective (ii) during their analysis and always employ scientifically validated analytical methods (iii). Subjective bias (i) and personal opinions (iv) violate scientific and legal standards.
فارنزک ماہر کے اخلاقیات کے مطابق، اسے اپنے تجزیے میں مکمل طور پر معروضی (objective) ہونا چاہیے (ii) اور ہمیشہ توثیق شدہ سائنسی طریقے (validated methods) استعمال کرنے چاہئیں (iii)۔ ذاتی آراء دینا یا غیر معروضی ہونا اخلاقیات کے خلاف ہے۔ اس لیے ii اور iii درست ہیں۔
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77📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Biology
Match the columns:

| Column 1 | Column 2 |
| --- | --- |
| i. Blood | a) Phadebas test |
| ii. Semen | b) Christmas tree staining |
| iii. Saliva | c) Nessler's test |
| iv. Urine | d) Takayama crystal assay |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Blood is matched with Takayama crystal assay (d), Semen with Christmas tree staining for sperm heads (b), Saliva with Phadebas test for amylase (a), and Urine with Nessler's reagent test for urea/ammonia (c). This corresponds to option B.
خون کا ٹیسٹ ٹاکایاما کرسٹل ایسے ہے (i-d)، منی (semen) کا ٹیسٹ کرسمس ٹری سٹیننگ ہے (ii-b)، تھوک (saliva) کا ٹیسٹ فادیباس ٹیسٹ ہے (iii-a)، اور پیشاب کا ٹیسٹ نیسلر ٹیسٹ ہے (iv-c)۔ اس لیے آپشن B درست ہے۔
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78📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesMolecular Biology
During probe synthesis which of the following causes hairpin loop formation?
Explanation
Hairpin loops are secondary structures that form when single-stranded nucleotide sequences fold back on themselves due to complementary regions within the same molecule.
پروب کے اندر موجود تکمیلی خطوں (complementary regions) کی وجہ سے وہ خود پر مڑ کر ہیئر پن لوپ (hairpin loop) بنا لیتا ہے۔
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79📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesBiochemistry
Rhodamine Red that is commonly used for the fluorescent labelling of DNA probes has an emission maximum at what wavelength?
Explanation
Rhodamine Red is a red fluorophore with an excitation maximum near 570 nm and an emission maximum at approximately 590 nm.
روڈامائن ریڈ (Rhodamine Red) فلوروسینٹ ڈائی کی زیادہ سے زیادہ اخراج کی طولِ موج (emission maximum) 590 نینو میٹر (nm) ہے۔
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80📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics
What causes Barr body formation?
Explanation
A Barr body is an inactive, condensed X chromosome in female mammalian somatic cells, created during early development via X-chromosome inactivation (lyonization).
خواتین کے جسمانی خلیات میں ایک ایکس کروموسوم کو غیر فعال (X chromosome inactivation) کر دیا جاتا ہے، جو سکڑ کر بار باڈی (Barr body) بناتا ہے۔
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81📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology
What region of a chromosome do mitotic and meiotic spindle fibers attach to?
Explanation
During cell division, the mitotic or meiotic spindle fibers attach to the centromere region of the chromosome, specifically at the kinetochore protein complex assembled there.
خلیہ کی تقسیم کے دوران تکلے کے ریشے (spindle fibers) کروموسوم کے سینٹرومیئر (Centromere) والے حصے سے جڑتے ہیں۔
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82📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology
At what phase during the mitotic cell division, does the kinetochore microtubule begin to form?
Explanation
During prometaphase of mitosis, the nuclear envelope breaks down and spindle microtubules begin to attach to the kinetochores of the chromosomes (forming kinetochore microtubules).
مائٹوسس (mitosis) تقسیم کے دوران، پرو میٹافیز (Prometaphase) مرحلے میں کائینیٹو کور مائکرو ٹیوبول بننا اور کروموسوم سے جڑنا شروع ہوتے ہیں۔
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83📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology
What is programmed cell death called as?
Explanation
Apoptosis is a process of programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular organisms, characterized by morphological changes and cell disassembly without damage to neighboring cells.
خلیات کی پہلے سے طے شدہ یا پروگرام شدہ موت کو اپوپٹوسس (Apoptosis) کہا جاتا ہے، جبکہ حادثاتی موت کو نیکروسس کہتے ہیں۔
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84📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyMolecular Biology
During DNA replication, the two parental strands separate and each one acts as a template strand for new complementary strands. What is this model of DNA replication called?
Explanation
The semiconservative model of DNA replication, proven by Meselson and Stahl, shows that each newly replicated DNA double helix consists of one intact parental (old) strand and one newly synthesized strand.
ڈی این اے کی تقسیم کے ماڈل کو سیمی کنزرویٹو (Semiconservative) کہا جاتا ہے جہاں ہر نیا بننے والا جوڑا ایک پرانی اور ایک نئی زنجیر سے مل کر بنتا ہے۔
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85📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Management
What is the first step in managing a crime scene?
Explanation
Securing the scene is the immediate first step in crime scene management to prevent contamination, alteration, or loss of evidence.
کرائم سین کی حفاظت اور اسے بیریکیڈ کرنا سب سے پہلا لازمی قدم ہے تاکہ شواہد کو آلودگی، تبدیلی یا ضائع ہونے سے بچایا جا سکے۔
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86📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonEvidence Packaging
What is the best way to package charred documents?
Explanation
Charred documents are extremely fragile. They should be carefully lifted and placed in a rigid corrugated box lined with a cotton base to absorb vibrations and prevent crumbling during transport.
جلے ہوئے کاغذات (Charred documents) انتہائی نازک ہوتے ہیں۔ انہیں خراب ہونے سے بچانے کے لیے روئی کے بستر (cotton base) والے سخت کارٹن یا نالیدار ڈبے (corrugated box) میں احتیاط سے رکھا جانا چاہیے۔
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87📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonHistory of Forensics
The concept of 'Every contact leaves a trace' is associated with which of the following forensic scientist?
Explanation
The fundamental tenet of forensic science, 'Every contact leaves a trace', is known as Locard's Exchange Principle, formulated by Sir Edmond Locard.
فارنزک سائنس کا سب سے اہم اصول 'ہر رابطہ ایک نشان چھوڑتا ہے' فرانسیسی سائنسدان ایڈمنڈ لوکارڈ (Edmond Locard) سے منسوب ہے، جسے لوکارڈ کا تبادلہ کا اصول کہتے ہیں۔
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88📚Signatures & Forgery DetectionInk Analysis
What are Taggants in inks used as?
Explanation
Taggants are unique chemical or physical markers added to inks by manufacturers during production to allow the identification of the ink brand, formulation, and year of manufacture.
ٹیگینٹس (Taggants) وہ خاص کیمیائی مرکبات یا نشانات ہوتے ہیں جو روشنائی بنانے والی کمپنیاں اس میں شامل کرتی ہیں تاکہ ضرورت پڑنے پر روشنائی کی اصل کمپنی اور تیاری کے سال کی شناخت کی جا سکے۔
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89📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisHandwriting Analysis
What is the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system called?
Explanation
The copybook form represents the basic, standardized style of letters taught to beginners in a specific school system, serving as the starting point for individual writing habits.
حروف کا وہ بنیادی خاکہ یا ڈیزائن جو اسکولوں میں ابتدائی لکھاوٹ سکھانے کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے، اسے کاپی بک فارم (Copybook form) کہتے ہیں۔
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90📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisHandwriting Principles
(A): Two handwriting samples of the same content written by the same person are exactly the same and can be superimposed one on top of another.
(B): Two handwriting samples written by the same person could be same because it was written by the same author during same time period
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect. Due to natural variation, a writer never produces two identical handwriting samples. Perfect superimposition is a classic sign of traced forgery, not genuine writing, regardless of the time period.
دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں۔ کوئی بھی انسان اپنے دستخط یا لکھاوٹ بالکل ایک جیسی نہیں لکھ سکتا (قدرتی تغیر پایا جاتا ہے)۔ اگر دو نمونے بالکل ایک دوسرے کے اوپر فٹ بیٹھیں تو وہ جعل سازی کی علامت ہے، اصلیت کی نہیں۔
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91📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisTypewriting Analysis
Which of the following is most likely to develop the individual characteristics when used a lot?
Explanation
Manual typewriters develop highly specific individual characteristics with use due to mechanical wear and tear, bending of serifs, misalignment of type bars, and clog damage.
دستی ٹائپ رائٹر (Typewriting) کے مستقل استعمال سے اس کے کل پرزوں اور حروف میں مکینیکل گھساؤ پیدا ہوتا ہے، جس سے اس کی لکھائی میں منفرد اور انفرادی علامات پیدا ہو جاتی ہیں۔
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92📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisCrime Scene Management
Following are the duties of the First officer arriving at the scene of crime, EXCEPT-
i. Taking notes of any vehicles leaving the scene
ii. Obtaining medical assistance if needed
iii. Check for hazardous or violent circumstances
iv. Leaves the crime scene to do a preliminary examination
Explanation
The first responding officer must secure the scene and must NOT leave the crime scene to conduct a preliminary examination elsewhere. Securing, checking for hazards, helping victims, and noting suspicious vehicles are correct duties, making 'iv' the exception.
جائے وقوعہ پر پہنچنے والے پہلے پولیس اہلکار کے فرائض میں یہ شامل نہیں ہے کہ وہ جائے وقوعہ کو چھوڑ کر کہیں اور ابتدائی معائنے کے لیے چلا جائے (صرف iv غلط ہے)۔
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93📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisCrime Scene Management
Which of the following is NOT a key element of crime scene management?
i. Documentation
ii. Preservation of evidence
iii. Identifying and interviewing suspects
iv. Crowd control
Explanation
Crime scene management focuses on securing the scene, documenting it (i), and preserving evidence (ii). Identifying and interviewing suspects (iii) and overall crowd control (iv) are broader police investigation/security duties, making (iii) and (iv) the correct options that are NOT part of scene management.
کرائم سین مینجمنٹ کے بنیادی عناصر میں دستاویز سازی (documentation) اور شواہد کی حفاظت شامل ہے۔ مشتبہ افراد کی شناخت اور پوچھ گچھ (iii) اور ہجوم پر قابو پانا (iv) وسیع تر تفتیشی کام ہیں، کرائم سین مینجمنٹ کے نہیں (صرف iii اور iv درست ہیں)۔
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94📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisSecret Inks
Match the following:
a. Heat -> i. Soap
b. Ammonia -> ii. Urine
c. Water -> iii. Starch
d. Iodine vapour -> iv. Iron salt
Explanation
This match relates to sympathetic (secret) ink developers: Heat develops urine (a-ii). Ammonia gas reacts with iron salts to develop color (b-iv). Water reveals soap residues (c-i). Iodine vapor turns blue-black in contact with starch (d-iii). This matches option A.
خفیہ روشنائی (secret inks) کے ظاہر کرنے والوں کا ملاپ: حرارت پیشاب کے داغ ظاہر کرتی ہے (a-ii)، امونیا گیس لوہے کے نمکیات کے ساتھ ردعمل کرتی ہے (b-iv)، پانی صابن کے نقوش کو ظاہر کرتا ہے (c-i)، اور آئوڈین ویپر نشاستہ (starch) کے ساتھ نیلے رنگ کا ردعمل دیتی ہے (d-iii)۔
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95📚Typewritten & Printed DocumentsMeasurements
In the context of measuring instruments, the least count is:
Explanation
The least count of a measuring instrument is the smallest measurement value that can be resolved or measured accurately using that instrument.
کسی بھی پیمائشی آلے کا لیسٹ کاؤنٹ (least count) وہ سب سے چھوٹی پیمائش ہے جو اس آلے کی مدد سے بالکل درست طریقے سے لی جا سکتی ہے۔
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96📚Typewritten & Printed DocumentsForensic Instrumentation
What does AAS stand for in context of spectroscopy?
Explanation
AAS stands for Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, which is an analytical technique used to measure the concentration of metallic elements in a sample by measuring the light absorbed by free atoms.
اے اے ایس (AAS) کا پورا نام اٹامک ایبزارپشن سپیکٹرم شناسی (Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy) ہے، جو نمونے میں دھاتی عناصر کی مقدار معلوم کرنے کے لیے استعمال ہوتی ہے۔
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97📚Typewritten & Printed DocumentsForensic Instrumentation
What is the full form of FTIR spectroscopy?
Explanation
FTIR stands for Fourier Transform Infrared spectroscopy, a technique used to obtain an infrared absorption or emission spectrum of a solid, liquid, or gas for chemical identification.
ایف ٹی آئی آر (FTIR) کا پورا نام فورئیر ٹرانسفارم انفرا ریڈ سپیکٹرمیٹری (Fourier Transform Infrared spectroscopy) ہے، جو کیمیکلز کے مالیکیولر ڈھانچے کی شناخت کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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98📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeEvidence Preservation
How should wet and charred documents be preserved at a crime scene to minimise further damage?
Explanation
Freeze-drying is the best method to dry wet, extremely fragile charred documents because it sublimates ice directly to gas, avoiding liquid tension that crumbles the paper.
جلے اور گیلے ہوئے کاغذات کو مزید نقصان سے بچانے کے لیے فریز ڈرائینگ (Freeze-dry) کا طریقہ استعمال کیا جاتا ہے، جو برف کو براہ راست گیس بنا کر اڑا دیتا ہے اور کاغذ نہیں ٹوٹتا۔
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99📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeHandwriting Factors
Which of the following is an internal factor (cannot be controlled) affecting a person's handwriting?
Explanation
Ageing is a gradual, permanent, and uncontrollable internal physiological factor that alters handwriting. Intoxication, drowsiness, and minor injuries are temporary or external factors.
بڑھتی ہوئی عمر (ageing) ایک ایسا اندرونی جسمانی عمل ہے جو انسان کے اختیار میں نہیں ہوتا اور یہ لکھاوٹ پر مستقل اثر ڈالتا ہے، جبکہ نشہ یا نیند عارضی عوامل ہیں۔
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100📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeSignature Examination
The distinctive features that makes a person's signature recognizable and unique fall under the category of:
Explanation
Unique flourishes, letter connections, and details in a signature that allow it to be distinguished from all others are classified as individual characteristics.
وہ منفرد اور مخصوص نشانات جو کسی شخص کے دستخط کو منفرد اور قابل شناخت بناتے ہیں، لکھاوٹ کی انفرادی خصوصیات (Individual characteristics) کے زمرے میں آتے ہیں۔
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101📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeCounterfeit Detection
Which of the following features are examined while detecting counterfeiting in currency notes?
1. Microprinting
2. Watermark
3. Optical fibres
4. OVI (optical variable ink)
5. Signature of the governor
Explanation
To verify banknotes, examiners check all security features including microprinting, watermarks, fluorescent optical fibers, Optically Variable Ink (OVI), and the details of the governor's signature.
جعلی نوٹوں کی شناخت کے لیے یہ تمام سیکیورٹی فیچرز دیکھے جاتے ہیں: باریک چھپائی (microprinting)، واٹر مارک، فلوروسینٹ آپٹیکل فائبر، رنگ بدلنے والی روشنائی (OVI)، اور گورنر کے دستخط۔ یعنی تمام 1، 2، 3، 4، 5 درست ہیں۔
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102📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgePassport Security
What security feature is commonly used in passports to prevent tampering and forgery?
Explanation
Holograms (or holographic laminates) are placed over the biographical data page in passports to prevent alteration and copying of photo or details, making counterfeiting extremely difficult.
پاسپورٹ کے بائیو ڈیٹا پیج پر ہولوگرام (hologram) لگایا جاتا ہے تاکہ تصویر یا تفصیلات میں کوئی تبدیلی یا ٹیمپرنگ نہ کی جا سکے اور نہ ہی اس کی فوٹو کاپی بن سکے۔
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103📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgePassport Security
What is the purpose of using UV printing in passports and travel documents?
Explanation
UV-activated fluorescent inks are invisible under normal light and do not show up when photocopied with standard color copiers, helping to prevent unauthorized photocopying and reproduction.
پاسپورٹس میں بالائے بنفشی (UV) پرنٹنگ کا مقصد فوٹو کاپی کو روکنا (prevent photocopying) ہے، کیونکہ یہ روشنائی عام روشنی میں پوشیدہ ہوتی ہے اور نقل کرنے پر ظاہر نہیں ہوتی۔
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104📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeFinancial Fraud
What term refers to the unauthorized copying of credit card information onto a counterfeit card for fraudulent transactions?
Explanation
Skimming is the illegal capturing and copying of the magnetic stripe data from a credit or debit card using a reading device, which is later written onto a counterfeit card.
کریڈٹ کارڈ کی مقناطیسی پٹی (magnetic stripe) پر موجود معلومات کو چوری سے کاپی کرنے کے عمل کو سکمنگ (skimming) کہتے ہیں، تاکہ بعد میں جعلی کارڈ بنایا جا سکے۔
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105📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeFinancial Fraud
In credit cards forgery investigations, what is often examined to determine the authenticity of a card, especially when comparing a genuine card with a suspected counterfeit?
1. Magnetic stripe data
2. Embossed characters
3. Signature panel
Explanation
To determine credit card authenticity, investigators analyze the magnetic stripe data, the size/alignment of embossed characters, and the security features of the signature panel. Thus, all 1, 2, and 3 are examined.
کریڈٹ کارڈ کی صداقت کی جانچ کے لیے کارڈ کے ابھرے ہوئے حروف (embossed characters)، دستخط کا پینل، اور مقناطیسی پٹی کا ڈیٹا (magnetic stripe) سب چیک کیے جاتے ہیں۔ یعنی 1، 2 اور 3 سب درست ہیں۔
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106📚Organic & StereochemistryHistory of Forensics
In response to the rising demands of providing high technology to the crime investigation process, BPR&D established the first Forensic DNA Typing facility at CFSL, Calcutta, during
Explanation
The Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) established India's first Central DNA Typing Unit at the Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Calcutta in 1998.
ہندوستان میں پہلی سنٹرل فارنزک ڈی این اے ٹائپنگ کی سہولت 1998 میں سنٹرل فارنزک سائنس لیبارٹری (CFSL) کلکتہ میں قائم کی گئی تھی۔
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107📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Reconstruction
________ supports a likely sequence of events by observing and evaluating physical evidence and statements made by witnesses and those involved with the incident.
Explanation
Crime scene reconstruction is the collaborative process of determining the sequence of events before, during, and after a crime using physical evidence and statements.
جائے وقوعہ کی تعمیر نو (Reconstruction) وہ عمل ہے جس کے ذریعے شواہد، گواہوں کے بیانات اور طبیعیات کے قوانین کی مدد سے جرم کے وقوع پذیر ہونے کے ترتیب وار واقعات کا تعین کیا جاتا ہے۔
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108📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsColor Tests
Formaldehyde and Sulphuric acid form a part of what reagent for spot examination of narcotics.
Explanation
Marquis reagent is prepared by mixing concentrated sulfuric acid with formaldehyde. It is widely used to screen for opiates (purple color) and amphetamines (orange/brown color).
مارکوئس ری ایجنٹ (Marquis Reagent) فارملڈیہائڈ اور مرتکز سلفیورک ایسڈ کے مرکب سے بنتا ہے، جو نشہ آور مواد کی موقع پر فوری شناخت کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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109📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsPeriodic Table Properties
Which of the following elements have electron affinity greater than S?
Explanation
In Group 16, Sulfur (S) has the highest electron affinity (-200 kJ/mol). Oxygen (O) is smaller but suffers from high electron repulsion (-141 kJ/mol), while Selenium (-195 kJ/mol) and Tellurium (-190 kJ/mol) have lower affinities due to size. Thus, none of these have an affinity greater than S.
گروپ 16 کے عناصر میں سلفر (S) کی الیکٹران افینیٹی سب سے زیادہ (-200 kJ/mol) ہوتی ہے۔ آکسیجن، سیلینیم اور ٹیلوریم سب کی الیکٹران افینیٹی سلفر سے کم ہوتی ہے، اس لیے جواب 'ان میں سے کوئی نہیں' (None of these) ہے۔
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110📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopySample Preparation
What is the sample preparation technique for extraction of alcohol from water.
Explanation
Simple distillation is the standard sample preparation technique used to separate and extract volatile ethanol (alcohol) from aqueous solutions like blood or urine.
پانی اور الکحل کے آمیزے سے الکحل کو الگ کرنے کے لیے ڈسٹلیشن (Distillation - کشید کاری) کا روایتی طریقہ استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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111📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyAnalytical Instrumentation
Which of the following techniques can be used for qualitative and quantitative estimation of a known impurity in a drug substance?
Explanation
High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) is the most widely used and preferred analytical technique for both separating (qualitative identification via retention time) and quantifying impurities in pharmaceutical drug substances.
کسی دوا میں موجود ناپاکی یا ملاوٹ (impurity) کی مقداری اور معیاری جانچ کے لیے سب سے موزوں اور مستعمل تکنیک ایچ پی ایل سی (HPLC) ہے۔
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112📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopySecurity Instrumentation
What technique is most preferred for trace analysis of narcotics during security check.
Explanation
Handheld Ion Mobility Spectrometry (IMS) is the preferred technology at security checkpoints (airports, border control) due to its high speed (seconds) and extreme sensitivity for trace vapors and residues of narcotics and explosives.
ہوائی اڈوں اور حفاظتی چوکیوں پر منشیات کے باریک ذرات کا پتہ لگانے کے لیے ہینڈ ہیلڈ آئی ایم ایس (IMS - Ion Mobility Spectrometry) آلے کو سب سے زیادہ ترجیح دی جاتی ہے۔
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113📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyColor Tests
What transition metal is used in preparation of Mandelin's Reagent.
Explanation
Mandelin's reagent is prepared by dissolving ammonium metavanadate (NH4VO3) in concentrated sulfuric acid. The active transition metal is Vanadium.
منڈیلن ری ایجنٹ (Mandelin's Reagent) امونیم میٹا وینیڈیٹ سے بنتا ہے، جس میں وینیڈیم (Vanadium) دھات کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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114📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyColor Tests
Frohde's reagent is prepared by.
Explanation
Frohde's reagent is prepared by dissolving molybdic acid or sodium molybdate in hot concentrated sulfuric acid. It is used to screen for alkaloids and opiates.
فروہڈ ری ایجنٹ (Frohde's reagent) مولیبڈک ایسڈ (Molybdic acid) کو گرم سلفیورک ایسڈ میں ملا کر تیار کیا جاتا ہے۔
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115📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyAnalytical Chemistry
Name the process that contaminates the precipitates and also carries the precipitate solution containing soluble impurities.
Explanation
Coprecipitation is the process in which compounds that are normally soluble in the solvent are carried down out of solution along with the primary precipitate during its formation.
وہ عمل جس میں حل پذیر گندگی یا ناپاکیاں بھی بنیادی رسوب (precipitate) کے ساتھ بیٹھ کر اسے آلودہ کر دیتی ہیں، اسے کو-پریسیپیٹیشن (Coprecipitation) کہتے ہیں۔
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116📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopySolvent Extraction
Micellar layer formed during solvent extract can be removed by
Explanation
During liquid-liquid extraction, emulsion or micellar layers can form. Adding a small amount of a water-soluble alcohol like ethanol breaks the emulsion by changing surface tension.
سالونٹ ایکسٹریکشن کے دوران بننے والے جھاگ یا ایملشن (micellar layer) کو توڑنے کے لیے مرکب میں تھوڑی مقدار میں ایتھنول (ethanol) ملایا جاتا ہے۔
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117📚Forensic Toxicology & PharmacologySample Preparation
What is the benefit of using salting out method during Headspace Extraction.
Explanation
Adding inorganic salts (salting out) increases the ionic strength of the aqueous phase, decreasing the solubility of polar organic analytes and driving them out of water into the headspace gas phase.
پانی والے نمونوں میں نمک ملانے (salting out) سے پانی میں موجود پولر مرکبات کی حل پذیری کم ہو جاتی ہے اور وہ گیس بن کر ہیڈ اسپیس (headspace) میں چلے جاتے ہیں، جس سے ان کا اخراج آسان ہو جاتا ہے۔
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118📚General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryGas Chromatography
A carrier gas in GLC should have the following characteristics EXCEPT:
Explanation
A carrier gas in Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC) must be a high-purity single gas (such as Helium, Nitrogen, or Hydrogen). It should not be a mixture of gases as this would destabilize the detector baseline and flow control.
گیس کرومیٹوگرافی میں کیریئر گیس ہمیشہ خالص اور اکیلی ہونی چاہیے (جیسے نائٹروجن یا ہیلیئم)، یہ گیسوں کا مرکب (mixture of gases) نہیں ہونی چاہیے۔ اس لیے بیانیہ B غلط ہے۔
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119📚General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistrySpectrophotometry
At what Amax does nitrate ion show absorbance with brucine sulphate
Explanation
Nitrate ions react with brucine sulfate in a strong sulfuric acid medium to form a yellow-colored complex which exhibits a maximum light absorption (λmax) at 410 nm.
نائٹریٹ آئن جب بروسین سلفیٹ سے سلفیورک ایسڈ کی موجودگی میں ملتے ہیں تو پیلے رنگ کا مرکب بنتا ہے، جس کا زیادہ سے زیادہ جذباتی طولِ موج (λmax) 410 nm ہوتا ہے۔
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120📚General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryIR Spectroscopy
An FTIR instrument record a signal in the
Explanation
An FTIR spectrophotometer uses a Michelson interferometer to record an interferogram, which is a signal measured in the time (or optical path retardation) domain. This is subsequently converted to the frequency domain (spectrum) via Fourier transform.
ایف ٹی آئی آر (FTIR) سپیکٹرو میٹر بنیادی طور پر سگنل کو ٹائم ڈومین (Time domain / وقت کی بنیاد پر) میں ریکارڈ کرتا ہے، جسے بعد میں فریکوئنسی ڈومین میں تبدیل کیا جاتا ہے۔
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121📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationQuantum Mechanics
In the domain of quantum mechanics, what fundamental property of particles at the nanoscale contributes to the unique characteristics of nanomaterials?
Explanation
At the nanoscale (typically 1-100 nm), the physical and chemical properties of materials are dominated by microscopic quantum behavior (such as quantum confinement and wave-particle duality), which differs significantly from bulk properties.
کوانٹم میکانکس کے مطابق، نینو اسکیل پر ذرات کا خوردبینی کوانٹم طرزِ عمل (Microscopic quantum behaviour) ہی نینو میٹریلز کی منفرد طبیعی اور کیمیائی خصوصیات کا سبب بنتا ہے۔
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122📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationNanotechnology
What makes nanoparticles and nanotubes feasible tools for forensic evidence analysis?
Explanation
Nanoparticles and carbon nanotubes are highly stable and exhibit excellent resistance to environmental factors (such as heat, light, and humidity), ensuring that forensic markers or tags remain intact and detectable over time.
نینو پارٹیکلز اور نینو ٹیوبز ماحولیاتی عوامل (جیسے گرمی، نمی اور روشنی) کے خلاف مزاحمت (resistance to environmental factors) رکھتے ہیں، جس کی وجہ سے یہ فارنزک شواہد کی جانچ کے لیے موزوں آلات بنتے ہیں۔
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123📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationGlass Analysis
Which element is a key indicator in the forensic analysis of glass, as its concentration can vary based on the source?
Explanation
While silicon, calcium, and sodium are major components of soda-lime glass, iron is present as a trace element (impurity). Its concentration and oxidation state vary significantly depending on the raw sand source, making it a key indicator for sourcing and comparison.
شیشے کے فارنزک تجزیے میں لوہا (Iron) ایک اہم اشاریہ ہے کیونکہ خام مال میں اس کی معمولی مقدار یا ملاوٹ مختلف مینوفیکچررز اور ذرائع کے حساب سے تبدیل ہوتی رہتی ہے۔
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124📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationGlass Analysis
What phenomenon is observed when glass fragments are forced backward into a room due to an explosion or impact from outside?
Explanation
When glass is broken by an impact or explosion, most fragments travel in the direction of the force, but microscopic glass fragments are projected backward toward the direction of the blow. This is known as backscatter (or backward fragmentation).
جب باہر سے کسی دھماکے یا ضرب کی وجہ سے شیشے کے باریک ذرات قوت کے مخالف رخ یعنی اندر کی طرف اچھلتے ہیں، تو اسے بیک اسکیٹر اثر (Backscatter effect) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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125📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationGlass Analysis
What phenomenon is primarily responsible for the formation of hackle marks on glass when it is subjected to an impact?
Explanation
Hackle marks are formed during the process of fracture propagation when the crack front branches or twists under high tensile stress.
ہیکل مارکس کا بننا بنیادی طور پر دراڑ کے آگے بڑھنے (Fracture propagation) کے دوران تناؤ کی وجہ سے ہوتا ہے۔
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126📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationSoil Analysis
The colour of soil is mainly determined by its:
Explanation
The color of soil is primarily determined by its mineral composition (especially iron and manganese oxides) and organic matter content, but mineralogy is the fundamental component in soil classification (Munsell system).
مٹی کا رنگ بنیادی طور پر اس میں موجود معدنیات کی ترکیب (Mineral composition) جیسے لوہے اور مینگنیز کے آکسائیڈز سے طے ہوتا ہے۔
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127📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationSoil Analysis
A crime scene investigation involves a suspicious package found buried in beach soil. Forensic experts are called to analyse the soil for potential evidence. Upon initial analysis, the forensic team identifies the presence of shell fragments in the beach
Explanation
The presence of shell fragments and beach sand characteristics in the soil indicates a coastal environment, linking the package to a shoreline or beach location.
مٹی میں صدف یا سیپیوں کے ٹکڑوں (shell fragments) کی موجودگی براہِ راست ساحلی ماحول (Coastal environment) کی نشاندہی کرتی ہے۔
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128📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationForensic Principles
In a hit and run case, which principle, related to the transfer and deformation of paint during a collision, helps forensic experts identify characteristics such as make and model of the suspect's vehicle?
Explanation
Locard's Exchange Principle states that 'every contact leaves a trace.' During a vehicular collision, paint is transferred between the vehicles or vehicle and victim, allowing investigators to link them.
ہٹ اینڈ رن کیسز میں گاڑیوں کے باہمی تصادم کے دوران پینٹ کا تبادلہ لوکارڈ کے تبادلے کے اصول (Lockard's Exchange Principle) کے تحت ہوتا ہے، جو مجرم گاڑی کا پتا لگانے میں مدد کرتا ہے۔
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129📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationFiber Analysis
In forensic fiber examination, what specific information does the analysis of fiber cross-sections using Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM) provide?
Explanation
Using SEM to inspect fiber cross-sections and longitudinal views yields highly detailed images of the fiber's surface texture, cross-sectional shape (e.g., trilobal, round), and manufacturing marks.
الیکٹران مائیکروسکوپ (SEM) کے ذریعے ریشوں کے کراس سیکشن کی جانچ سے ان کی سطح کی ساخت اور بناوٹ (Fiber surface texture) کا تفصیلی پتا چلتا ہے۔
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130📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationFiber Burning Test
In a forensic examination of fibers, what does the observation of a sputtering flame with black smoke during a burning test indicate about the fiber being tested?
Explanation
Synthetic polymer fibers (like polyester or acrylic) typically melt and burn with a sputtering flame, releasing dense black smoke due to incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons.
جلانے کے ٹیسٹ کے دوران چنگاریوں والی آگ (sputtering flame) اور سیاہ دھواں (black smoke) مصنوعی ریشوں (synthetic fibers) کی موجودگی کی نشاندہی کرتا ہے۔
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131📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationAudio Forensics
In forensic investigations involving sound, what type of recording format is known for capturing a continuous variation in sound waves, making it suitable for high-quality audio recordings?
Explanation
WAV is an uncompressed, lossless digital audio format that represents continuous analog sound waves with high fidelity using pulse-code modulation (PCM), making it standard for forensic audio analysis.
ڈبلیو اے وی (WAV) فارمیٹ آواز کی لہروں کو بنا کسی کمپریشن کے ریکارڈ کرتا ہے، جو فارنزک آڈیو تجزیے کے لیے بہترین اور معیاری مانا جاتا ہے۔
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132📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationCement Analysis
When identifying adulterated cement in forensic analysis, what specific property is often assessed to determine the quality and purity of the cement sample?
Explanation
Adulteration of cement (usually with clay, fly ash, or stone dust) alters its physical properties, most notably its density. Comparing the density of a questioned sample against standard cement helps detect adulteration.
ملاوٹ شدہ سیمنٹ کی جانچ کے لیے اکثر اس کی کثافت (Density) کا موازنہ کیا جاتا ہے کیونکہ اضافی مٹی یا پاؤڈر ملانے سے سیمنٹ کی کثافت بدل جاتی ہے۔
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133📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationMechanical Properties
What in the context of metal physics, what fundamental properties are investigated in stress-strain analysis to understand the behaviour of steel bars under applied forces?
Explanation
Stress-strain analysis of steel bars yields the elastic modulus (Young's modulus, representing stiffness) and yield strength (threshold of plastic deformation), which describe the mechanical load capacity.
اسٹیل کے سریوں پر دباؤ اور تناؤ کے تجزیے (stress-strain analysis) سے ان کے لچکدار ماڈیولس اور حاصل قوت (Elastic modulus and yield strength) کا پتا لگایا جاتا ہے۔
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134📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationPhotography Chemistry
In traditional film photography, which chemical is commonly used during the development process to make the latent image visible?
Explanation
The developer chemically reduces exposed silver halide crystals in the film emulsion to metallic silver, converting the invisible latent image into a visible metallic silver image.
روایتی فلم فوٹوگرافی میں، ڈیولپر (Developer) کیمیکل کا استعمال غیر مرئی تصویر (latent image) کو ظاہر کرنے کے لیے کیا جاتا ہے۔
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135📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationForensic Photography
In a Digital Single Lens Reflex (DSLR) camera, what role does the mirror mechanism play during the image capture process?
Explanation
Before the exposure begins, the reflex mirror is down, redirecting the light coming through the lens up into the pentaprism and optical viewfinder. During exposure, it swings up to let light hit the sensor.
ڈی ایس ایل آر کیمرے میں تصویر کھینچنے سے پہلے آئینے کا نظام روشنی کو آپٹیکل ویو فائنڈر (Redirects light to the viewfinder) کی طرف بھیجتا ہے۔
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136📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationQuantum Physics
What is the term for the set of rules governing the allowed transitions between different electronic states in an atom during emission or absorption of electromagnetic radiation?
Explanation
Selection rules are quantum mechanical rules (based on transition dipole moments) that define which electronic transitions are allowed or forbidden during absorption/emission.
ایٹم میں مختلف الیکٹران مداروں کے درمیان منتقلی کے قوانین کو سلیکشن رولز (Selection rules) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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137📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationX-Ray Crystallography
What could be a possible explanation for the broadening of the peaks in an X Ray diffraction pattern?
Explanation
Peak broadening in XRD is caused by small crystallite size, microstrain/defects, and instrumental factors. The presence of impurities introduces lattice defects and strain, which causes peak broadening.
ایکس رے ڈفریکشن (XRD) پیٹرن میں چوٹیوں کے چوڑا ہونے (broadening) کی وجہ کرسٹل میں خرابی، مائیکرو اسٹرین یا ناخالصیوں کی موجودگی (Presence of impurities) ہوسکتی ہے۔
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138📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationFTIR Spectroscopy
A lab is analysing a substance suspected to contain multiple functional groups. Which type of infrared spectroscopy is more suitable for identifying and characterizing complex mixtures?
Explanation
Fourier-Transform Infrared (FTIR) spectroscopy is far superior to dispersive IR due to Fellgett's (multiplex) and Jacquinot's (throughput) advantages, allowing rapid, highly sensitive scan accumulation for complex mixtures.
پیچیدہ مرکبات کی تیز اور حساس جانچ کے لیے ایف ٹی آئی آر (FTIR) سپیکٹروسکوپی ڈسپرسیو کے مقابلے میں زیادہ موزوں ہے۔
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139📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationSpectrometry Analysis
A scientist is analysing a mixture of two compounds using IR spectroscopy and observes overlapping peaks in the spectrum. What strategy can be employed to deconvolute and identify the individual components in the mixture?
Explanation
Overlapping peaks can be resolved by mathematical or chemometric methods, such as Fourier self-deconvolution, derivative spectroscopy, or multivariate curve resolution.
آپس میں ملے ہوئے سپیکٹرل سگنلز (peaks) کو الگ کرنے کے لیے کیمومیٹرک طریقے جیسے اسپیکٹرل ڈی کنوولیوشن (spectral deconvolution) استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔
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140📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationAtomic Absorption Spectroscopy
A forensic scientist is conducting quantitative analysis on hair samples containing trace elements using graphite furnace atomic absorption spectroscopy (GFAAS). What factors should be considered to optimize the heating program for the furnace during the
Explanation
Optimizing the atomization temperature is critical in GFAAS. Too low a temperature results in incomplete atomization (reducing signal), while too high a temperature reduces tube lifetime and causes peak distortion.
جی ایف اے اے ایس (GFAAS) کے دوران تپش کے عمل کو بہتر بنانے کے لیے سب سے اہم عنصر ایٹمائزیشن درجہ حرارت کو موزوں بنانا (Optimize the atomization temperature) ہے۔
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141📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationEvidence Restoration
When restoring evidence on aluminium, what technique is often employed to remove corrosion without causing damage to the underlying material?
Explanation
Chemical passivation uses mild acid solutions (like chromic or nitric acid mixtures) to remove corrosion products from aluminum while forming a protective, non-reactive oxide layer on the metal surface.
ایلومینیم پر زنگ ہٹانے اور دھاتی سطح کو نقصان سے بچانے کے لیے کیمیکل پیسیویشن (Chemical passivation) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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142📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationCondensed Matter Physics
In a magnetic material, the exchange interaction energy (J) is calculated as the product of the exchange constant (A) and the square of the average deviation of neighbouring electron spins from their equilibrium positions. If the exchange constant is 2×10−11 J/m2\times10^{-11} \text{ J/m} and the average deviation is 3×10−9 m3\times10^{-9} \text{ m}, calculate the exchange interaction energy.
Explanation
The exchange interaction energy is E=A×d2=(2×10−11)×(3×10−9)2=2×10−11×9×10−18=1.8×10−28 JE = A \times d^2 = (2 \times 10^{-11}) \times (3 \times 10^{-9})^2 = 2 \times 10^{-11} \times 9 \times 10^{-18} = 1.8 \times 10^{-28}\text{ J}.
تبادلے کی توانائی کے فارمولے کے مطابق: (2×10−11)×(3×10−9)2=1.8×10−28 J(2 \times 10^{-11}) \times (3 \times 10^{-9})^2 = 1.8 \times 10^{-28}\text{ J} حاصل ہوتا ہے۔
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143📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationImpression Evidence
For the preservation of tire marks on soft soil, the best way is
Explanation
Three-dimensional tire tracks in soft soil must be documented via scaled photography and preserved by pouring dental stone to create a physical cast.
نرم مٹی پر ٹائروں کے نشانات کو محفوظ کرنے کا سب سے بہتر طریقہ ان کی پیمائشی تصویر لینا اور کاسٹنگ (Photo and Casting - سانچہ بنانا) ہے۔
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144📚Organic ChemistryModern Indian History
'Do or Die' (Karenge ya Marenge) Gandhiji gave this Mantra to the nation on the eve of which mass movement?
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942, giving the famous slogan 'Do or Die' during his speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay.
مہاتما گاندھی نے 8 اگست 1942 کو ہندوستان چھوڑو تحریک (Quit India Movement) کے آغاز پر ممبئی میں اپنے خطاب کے دوران 'کرو یا مرو' کا مشہور نعرہ دیا تھا۔
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145📚Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
How many types of Fundamental rights are provided by Indian Constitution?
Explanation
Originally, the Indian Constitution provided seven fundamental rights, but the Right to Property was deleted by the 44th Amendment in 1978. Currently, there are six fundamental rights.
ہندوستانی آئین کے تحت شہریوں کو 6 بنیادی حقوق (Fundamental Rights) فراہم کیے گئے ہیں۔ 1978 میں 44 ویں ترمیم کے ذریعے جائیداد کے حق کو بنیادی حقوق سے خارج کر دیا گیا تھا۔
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146📚Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
At present how many Fundamental Duties are in the Constitution of India?
Explanation
Originally, 10 Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 added the 11th duty, making the current total 11.
آئینِ ہند کے تحت اس وقت 11 بنیادی فرائض (Fundamental Duties) درج ہیں۔ 2002 میں 86 ویں آئینی ترمیم کے ذریعے 11 واں فرض شامل کیا گیا تھا۔
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147📚Organic ChemistryScientific Instruments
The instrument used for measuring depth of water table is known as
Explanation
A piezometer is a device used to measure liquid pressure in a system, commonly employed to determine the depth and pressure of groundwater (water table).
پیزومیٹر (Piezometer) وہ آلہ ہے جو زیر زمین پانی کی سطح (depth of water table) اور دباؤ کی پیمائش کے لیے استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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148📚Physical ChemistryIndian Geography
The capital of Lakshadweep is
Explanation
Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep, India. Port Blair is Andaman and Nicobar's capital, Silvassa is Dadra and Nagar Haveli's capital.
کاواراتی (Kavaratti) لکشدیپ کا دارالحکومت ہے۔ پورٹ بلیئر انڈمان اور نکوبار جزائر کا دارالحکومت ہے۔
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149📚Physical ChemistryCensus of India 2011
According to Census of India 2011 which one of the following Union Territories had the highest sex ratio?
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census, Puducherry had the highest sex ratio among Union Territories with 1037 females per 1000 males, while Daman and Diu had the lowest (618).
2011 کی مردم شماری کے مطابق، یونین ٹیریٹریز میں پڈوچیری (Puducherry) کا جنسی تناسب سب سے زیادہ (1037 خواتین فی 1000 مرد) تھا۔
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150📚Physical ChemistryIndian Constitution
Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the directive principles of state policy on 'Promotion of international peace and security'?
Explanation
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to endeavor to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, and foster respect for international law.
ہندوستانی آئین کا آرٹیکل 51 بین الاقوامی امن اور سلامتی کو فروغ دینے کے لیے رہنما اصول فراہم کرتا ہے۔
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151📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryCoding-Decoding
If BE QUICK is coded as ZC OSGAI, then the code of the last letter of the third word in the sentence I LOVE MY COUNTRY is
Explanation
The coding shifts each letter backward by 2 places (B - 2 = Z, E - 2 = C). In the sentence 'I LOVE MY COUNTRY', the third word is 'MY'. The last letter of 'MY' is 'Y'. Shifting 'Y' backward by 2 places gives 'W'.
کوڈنگ میں ہر حرف کو دو مقام پیچھے لے جایا گیا ہے (B -> Z)۔ جملے کا تیسرا لفظ 'MY' ہے، جس کا آخری حرف 'Y' ہے۔ 'Y' سے دو مقام پیچھے 'W' آتا ہے۔
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152📚General Knowledge & ReasoningInternet & Security
Digital signature service that has been launched on Aadhar platform is called
Explanation
eSign or eSignDesk is the online electronic signature service in India that allows Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents instantly.
آدھار پلیٹ فارم پر شروع کی گئی ڈیجیٹل دستخط کی سروس کو ای سائن ڈیسک (eSignDesk / eSign) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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153📚General EnglishArticles
Sarah was excited to visit _____ Eiffel Tower during her trip to Paris.
Explanation
'The' is used before unique geographical monuments (the Eiffel Tower). Names of cities (Paris) do not take an article.
منفرد جغرافیائی یادگاروں (Eiffel Tower) سے پہلے 'the' استعمال ہوتا ہے۔ شہروں کے ناموں (Paris) سے پہلے کوئی آرٹیکل نہیں لگتا۔
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154📚General EnglishHomophones
Choose the correct homophone to complete the sentence:

During the festival, the groups set up a _____ to rest and socialize, while enjoying their favorite _____ beer under the stars.
Explanation
'Laager' is a camp defined by a ring of wagons or armored vehicles. 'Lager' is a type of beer. Correct order is: laager, lager.
'Laager' کا مطلب ہے خیمہ گاہ یا پڑاؤ۔ 'Lager' ایک قسم کی بیئر ہے۔ صحیح ترتیب ہے: laager, lager۔
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155📚General EnglishIdioms
Which sentence expresses the correct meaning of the given idiom: A damp squib
Explanation
A 'damp squib' is a situation or event which is much less impressive, exciting, or successful than expected.
'A damp squib' سے مراد کوئی ایسی چیز یا واقعہ ہے جو امید کے مطابق کامیاب یا پرجوش ثابت نہ ہو (سرد مہری کا شکار)۔
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156📚General Knowledge & AwarenessAgriculture
Which of the following statements regarding crops growing season are NOT correct?
Explanation
Statement C is incorrect because Zaid crops are short summer crops grown mainly in the months of March to June, between the Rabi and Kharif seasons, rather than during the winter months.
بیان C غلط ہے کیونکہ زائد (Zaid) فصلیں موسم گرما (مارچ سے جون) کے دوران اگائی جاتی ہیں نہ کہ سردیوں کے مہینوں میں۔
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157📚General Knowledge & AwarenessGeography
Match the hydroelectric power projects in Jammu Kashmir with their corresponding location:

- i) Baglihar Power Project: 1) Indus River in Alchi, Leh
- ii) Ratle Hydroelectric Power Project: 2) Chenab River, Ramban
- iii) Uri Hydroelectric Power Project: 3) Chenab River, Kishtwar
- iv) Nimoo Bazgo Hydroelectric Power Project: 4) Jhelum River, Baramula
Explanation
Baglihar is on the Chenab River in Ramban (i-2), Ratle is on the Chenab River in Kishtwar (ii-3), Uri is on the Jhelum River in Baramula (iii-4), and Nimoo Bazgo is on the Indus River in Leh (iv-1).
بگلیہار چناب ندی، رامبن پر ہے (i-2)؛ رتلے چناب ندی، کشتواڑ پر ہے (ii-3)؛ اوڑی جہلم ندی، بارہمولہ پر ہے (iii-4)؛ اور نیمو بازگو دریائے سندھ، لیہہ پر ہے (iv-1)۔
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158📚General Knowledge & AwarenessHistory
In which year, the first Legislature of Jammu and Kashmir was established?
Explanation
The first Legislative Assembly (Praja Sabha) of Jammu and Kashmir was established in 1934 AD during the reign of Maharaja Hari Singh.
جموں و کشمیر کی پہلی قانون ساز اسمبلی (پراجا سبھا) مہاراجہ ہری سنگھ کے دور میں 1934ء میں قائم کی گئی تھی۔
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159📚Reasoning & MathematicsAlphanumeric Series
F2, _____, D8, C16, B32. What term should fill the blank?
Explanation
The letters decrease backward: F -> E -> D -> C -> B. The numbers double: 2 -> 4 -> 8 -> 16 -> 32. Thus, the missing term is E4.
حروف پیچھے کی طرف گنتی میں ہیں: F -> E -> D -> C -> B اور ہندسے دوگنا ہو رہے ہیں: 2 -> 4 -> 8 -> 16 -> 32۔ لہذا خالی جگہ پر E4 آئے گا۔
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160📚Forensic Science & PhotographyImage Processing
Which of the following is the first and foremost step in Image Processing?
Explanation
Image acquisition is the first step in image processing because digital processing cannot occur without capturing/loading the image.
امیج پروسیسنگ کا پہلا مرحلہ 'Image acquisition' (تصویر حاصل کرنا) ہے، جس کے بغیر پروسیسنگ شروع نہیں ہو سکتی۔
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161📚Forensic Science & PhotographyPhotography Science
What is dodging in photography?
Explanation
Dodging reduces the amount of light in a specific area during printing or editing, making that local area lighter. (Burning makes it darker).
فوٹو گرافی میں 'Dodging' سے مراد تصویر کے کسی مخصوص حصے کو ایڈٹ یا پرنٹ کے وقت ہلکا (lighter) کرنا ہے۔
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162📚General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Constitution
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
Explanation
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d) as a Fundamental Right.
پورے ہندوستان میں آزادانہ نقل و حرکت کا حق آئین ہند کے آرٹیکل 19 (دفعہ 19) کے تحت ایک بنیادی حق کے طور پر فراہم کیا گیا ہے۔
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163📚General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity
Which territory has banned popular apps like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive from government computers due to cybersecurity concerns?
Explanation
In 2024, Hong Kong's Digital Policy Office directed government departments to block staff from accessing services like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive on office computers due to cybersecurity risks.
ہانگ کانگ (Hong Kong) نے 2024 میں سائبر سیکیورٹی خطرات کی وجہ سے سرکاری کمپیوٹرز پر واٹس ایپ، وی چیٹ اور گوگل ڈرائیو جیسی ایپس کے استعمال پر پابندی لگا دی تھی۔
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164📚General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Geography
Which of the following rivers are allocated to India for exclusive use under the Indus Water Treaty?
Explanation
Under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, the water of the three Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas) is allocated to India for unrestricted use.
1960 کے سندھ طاس معاہدے (Indus Water Treaty) کے تحت مشرقی دریاؤں یعنی راوی، ستلج اور بیاس کے پانی کے استعمال کے حقوق ہندوستان کو تفویض کیے گئے ہیں۔
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165📚General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Power Projects
Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation is a joint venture between which two entities?
Explanation
Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation Limited (RHPCL) is a joint venture company incorporated in 2021 between NHPC (51%) and JKSPDC (49%) to implement the 850 MW Ratle Hydroelectric Project on Chenab River.
رتلے ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک پاور کارپوریشن لمیٹڈ (RHPCL) چناب ندی پر واقع ہے اور یہ نیشنل ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک پاور کارپوریشن (NHPC) اور جموں و کشمیر اسٹیٹ پاور ڈیولپمنٹ کارپوریشن (JKSPDC) کا مشترکہ منصوبہ ہے۔
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166📚General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Culture
In which months is Jhiri Mela celebrated each year?
Explanation
The Jhiri Mela is held annually in October-November (during Kartik Poornima) in Jhiri village near Jammu, commemorating the martyrdom of Baba Jitto.
جھڑی میلہ (Jhiri Mela) بابا جتو کی یاد میں ہر سال جموں کے قریب جھڑی گاؤں میں اکتوبر اور نومبر (کارتک پورنیما) کے مہینے میں منایا جاتا ہے۔
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167📚General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Infrastructure
Consider the following statements.
I) The Banihal Qazigund Tunnel renamed as Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel.
II) It is India's longest transportation railway tunnel measuring 11.2 km long.
Choose the correct option.
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect. The Chenani-Nashri Road Tunnel (9.28 km) was renamed as Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (not Banihal-Qazigund Road Tunnel, which is 8.45 km). The Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel (11.2 km) is a railway tunnel, whereas the Banihal-Qazigund road tunnel is for road transport.
دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں۔ چنانی ناشری ٹنل کو ڈاکٹر شیاما پرساد مکھرجی ٹنل کا نام دیا گیا ہے (نہ کہ بانہال قاضی گنڈ کو)۔ اور 11.2 کلومیٹر لمبی ٹنل پیر پنچال ریلوے ٹنل ہے، بانہال قاضی گنڈ روڈ ٹنل 8.45 کلومیٹر لمبی روڈ ٹنل ہے۔
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168📚Elementary MathematicsAverages
Four years ago, the average age of a family of four persons was 18 years. During this period, a baby was born. Today if the average age of the family is still 18 years, the age of the baby is
Explanation
Sum of age of 4 persons 4 years ago = 4 18 = 72 years. Today, their age sum increases by 4 4 = 16 years, making it 88 years. Today, there are 5 family members and their average age is 18, so total sum = 5 * 18 = 90 years. Baby's age = 90 - 88 = 2 years.
چار سال پہلے 4 افراد کی کل عمر = 4 * 18 = 72 سال۔ آج ان کی کل عمر = 72 + 16 = 88 سال ہوگی۔ اب خاندان میں 5 افراد ہیں اور اوسط عمر اب بھی 18 سال ہے، یعنی کل عمر = 90 سال۔ بچے کی عمر = 90 - 88 = 2 سال ہے۔
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169📚General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity
Select the correct match:

i. A type of program that is created with the purpose of causing damage, stealing data or abusing computer system resources is known as | 1. Privacy
ii. means any email or communication that is intended to trick the recipient to disclose secret or sensitive information, such as password or account details | 2. Malware
iii. Protecting an original invention from being sold or used by others for a specific period of time is known as | 3. Phishing
iv. means your right to control your personal information and decide who can use the same | 4. Patents
Explanation
Damaging software is Malware (i-2). Trick communication is Phishing (ii-3). Invention protection is Patents (iii-4). Control over personal information is Privacy (iv-1). This corresponds to i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
درست مماثلت یہ ہے: نقصان پہنچانے والا سافٹ ویئر مالویئر ہے (i-2)، معلومات چرانے والا فریب فیشنگ ہے (ii-3)، ایجاد کا تحفظ پیٹنٹ ہے (iii-4) اور ذاتی معلومات کا کنٹرول پرائیویسی ہے (iv-1)۔ یہ ترتیب i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1 بنتی ہے۔
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170📚General EnglishIdioms
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase.

To let off steam, my friend started murmuring.
Explanation
To 'let off steam' is an idiom meaning to do or say something that helps you get rid of strong feelings or energy (releasing tension/anger/frustration).
محاورہ 'let off steam' کا مطلب ہے اپنے غصے، پریشانی یا بوجھ کو ہلکا کرنا (ٹینشن کو دور کرنا)۔
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171📚Physics, Electronics & TelecomIndus Water Treaty
Which river is primarily allocated to Pakistan under the Indus Water Treaty?
Explanation
Under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, three western rivers—the Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab—were primarily allocated to Pakistan, while three eastern rivers—Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej—were allocated to India.
1960 کے سندھ طاس معاہدے کے تحت تین مغربی دریاؤں (سندھ، جہلم اور چناب) کا پانی پاکستان کو اور تین مشرقی دریاؤں (راوی، بیاس اور ستلج) کا پانی بھارت کو تفویض کیا گیا تھا۔
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172📚General Awareness & ScienceDams & Rivers
Match the following Dams to the rivers on which it is situated:

| Dam | River |
| --- | --- |
| 1. Sardar Sarovar | i. Mahanadi |
| 2. Hirakud | ii. Periyar |
| 3. Bhakra Nangal | iii. Narmada |
| 4. Idukki | iv. Sutlej |

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
The correct matching is: Sardar Sarovar - Narmada (1-iii), Hirakud - Mahanadi (2-i), Bhakra Nangal - Sutlej (3-iv), and Idukki - Periyar (4-ii). This matches option A.
درست جوڑ یہ ہیں: سردار سروور - نرمدا (1-iii)، ہیراکڈ - مہاندی (2-i)، بھاکڑہ نانگل - ستلج (3-iv)، اور ادوکی - پیریار (4-ii)۔ یہ ترتیب آپشن A ہے۔
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173📚General Awareness & ScienceDams & Rivers
Of the following, which is India's highest dam?
Explanation
Tehri Dam in Uttarakhand is the highest dam in India, standing at a height of 260.5 meters on the Bhagirathi River. Nurek Dam is in Tajikistan.
اتراکھنڈ میں واقع ٹہری ڈیم (Tehri Dam) بھارت کا سب سے اونچا ڈیم ہے، جس کی اونچائی دریائے بھاگیرتھی پر 260.5 میٹر ہے۔
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174📚Physics, Electronics & TelecomIndus Water Treaty
In which year, Indus Water Treaty was signed?
Explanation
The Indus Waters Treaty was signed on September 19, 1960, in Karachi by Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan.
سندھ طاس معاہدے (Indus Water Treaty) پر 19 ستمبر 1960 کو کراچی میں دستخط کیے گئے تھے۔
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175📚Mental Ability & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
If in a certain language PROSE is coded as PPOQE, how is LIGHT coded in that code?
Explanation
The pattern is: odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th) remain unchanged (P->P, O->O, E->E), while even positions (2nd, 4th) are shifted 2 letters backward (R - 2 = P, S - 2 = Q). Applying this to LIGHT: L->L, I-2->G, G->G, H-2->F, T->T. Result: LGGFT.
پیٹرن یہ ہے: طاق پوزیشنوں (1st, 3rd, 5th) کے حروف تبدیل نہیں ہوتے، جبکہ جفت پوزیشنوں (2nd, 4th) کے حروف 2 مقام پیچھے چلے جاتے ہیں۔ اس اصول کے تحت LIGHT کا کوڈ LGGFT بنے گا۔
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176📚Physics, Electronics & TelecomMultiplexing
In time-division-multiplexing, each multiplexed signal occupies
Explanation
In Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), different signals are allocated different time slots. During its allocated time slot, each signal occupies the entire transmission bandwidth.
ٹائم ڈویژن ملٹی پلیکسنگ (TDM) میں، ہر سگنل کو ایک مخصوص وقت کا وقفہ ملتا ہے۔ اپنے مخصوص وقت کے دوران، سگنل پوری ٹرانسمیشن بینڈوتھ (Entire Transmission Bandwidth) کو استعمال کرتا ہے۔
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177📚Computer ApplicationsComputer Hardware & Software
Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

List - I:
i. Operating System
ii. Input Device
iii. Output Device

List - II:
1. Scanning Devices
2. Security Management
3. Projectors
Explanation
Operating System handles security management (i-2), Input Device includes scanning devices (ii-1), and Output Device includes projectors (iii-3). This matches option C.
درست جوڑ یہ ہیں: آپریٹنگ سسٹم - سیکیورٹی مینجمنٹ (i-2)، ان پٹ ڈیوائس - اسکیننگ ڈیوائسز (ii-1)، آؤٹ پٹ ڈیوائس - پروجیکٹر (iii-3)۔ یہ آپشن C ہے۔
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178📚📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History
Who among the following is the founder of the Theosophical Society?
Explanation
The Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875 by Madame Helena Blavatsky, Colonel Henry Steel Olcott, and others.
تھیوسوفیکل سوسائٹی کی بنیاد 1875 میں نیویارک میں میڈم ہیلینا بلاواتسکی اور کرنل ہنری اسٹیل اولکاٹ نے رکھی تھی۔
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179📚🔭 SciencePlaces & Administration
Match the following tourist/cultural titles of J&K with their correct districts:

P. Chhota Kashi - Samba
Q. Land of Devika - Udhampur
R. District of Lakes - Ganderbal
S. Land of Springs - Anantnag
Explanation
Chhota Kashi refers to Purmandal (Samba - iii), Land of Devika is Udhampur (i), District of Lakes is Ganderbal (ii), and Land of Springs is Anantnag (iv). This matches option A.
درست جوڑ درج ذیل ہیں: چھوٹا کاشی - سانبہ (iii)، دیویکا کی سرزمیں - ادھم پور (i)، جھیلوں کا ضلع - گاندربل (ii)، چشموں کی سرزمیں - اننت ناگ (iv)۔ یہ آپشن A ہے۔
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180📚📚 Social ScienceAncient Indian History
Which of the following animals was absent in the terracotta art of the Indus Valley Civilization?
Explanation
While humped bulls, elephants, dogs, and cats were depicted in terracotta figurines, cows were not represented in terracotta art of the Indus Valley Civilization.
وادی سندھ کی تہذیب کے مٹی کے فن پارے (Terracotta) میں کوہان والے سانڈ، ہاتھی، کتے اور بلیوں کے نقش ملتے ہیں، لیکن گائے کا کوئی نمونہ نہیں ملا۔
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181📚📚 Social ScienceAncient Indian History
Find the correct chronological (increasing/historical timeline) order of the reigns of the following rulers:

P) Chandragupta I of the Guptas
Q) Kanishka of the Kushanas
R) Simuka of the Satavahanas
S) Rudradaman of the Shakas
Explanation
Simuka founded Satavahanas (c. 1st century BC - R), Kanishka ruled Kushanas (c. 127 AD - Q), Rudradaman of Shakas ruled (c. 130 AD - S), and Chandragupta I ruled Guptas (c. 319 AD - P). Hence, the chronological order is RQSP.
سیموکا (R) قبل مسیح میں تھے، کینشکا (Q) تقریباً 127 عیسوی، ردرا دمن (S) تقریباً 130 عیسوی، اور چندرگپت اول (P) 319 عیسوی میں تخت نشین ہوئے۔ اس لیے تاریخی ترتیب RQSP ہے۔
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182📚Building Materials & ConstructionWater Duty
"Duty on capacity" is also called
Explanation
In irrigation engineering, 'Duty on capacity' is defined as the duty of water at the head of a canal during full supply. It is also known as the Full Supply Coefficient.
آبپاشی انجینئرنگ میں، کینال کے ہیڈ پر فل سپلائی کے دوران پانی کے فرض کو 'ڈیوٹی آن کیپیسٹی' کہا جاتا ہے۔ اسے فل سپلائی کوایفیشینٹ (Full supply coefficient) بھی کہا جاتا ہے۔
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183📚Building Materials & ConstructionEstimating & Costing
The unit of payment of cement concrete in foundation is
Explanation
Cement concrete in foundation is a volumetric bulk work and is paid per cubic meter (per cum). Thinner concrete works like damp-proof course (DPC) are paid per square meter (sqm).
بنیاد (Foundation) میں سیمنٹ کنکریٹ کے کام کی پیمائش کیوبک میٹر (Per cum) میں کی جاتی ہے اور ادائیگی بھی اسی کے مطابق ہوتی ہے۔ ڈی پی سی جیسے پتلے کاموں کی ادائیگی مربع میٹر میں ہوتی ہے۔
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184📚Surveying & LevellingGeodetic Surveying
In great survey networks, typically
Explanation
In large geodetic control/survey networks, horizontal control is established using either triangulation (measuring angles), trilateration (measuring lengths/distances), or a combination of both.
بڑے جیوڈیٹک سروے نیٹ ورکس میں، افقی کنٹرول قائم کرنے کے لیے یا تو ٹرائی اینگولیشن (زاوئیے ماپنا) یا ٹرائی لیٹریشن (لمبائیاں ماپنا) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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185📚Surveying & LevellingLevelling Instruments
The test used to check the collimation error in a level is
Explanation
The Two-Peg Test is a standard procedure used to check and adjust the collimation error in a level (ensuring the line of sight is horizontal when the bubble is centered).
لیولنگ انسٹرومنٹ میں کولیمیشن کی غلطی (collimation error) کو چیک کرنے اور درست کرنے کے لیے 'ٹو پیگ ٹیسٹ' (Two peg test) استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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186📚Surveying & LevellingDrawing Instruments
Which grade of pencil is used for drawing arrowheads?
Explanation
A hard pencil grade such as 2H is recommended for drawing arrowheads, dimension lines, extension lines, and section lines. It maintains a sharp point, ensuring crisp and clean lines. (Softer pencils like H/HB are used for lettering and outlines).
ایرو ہیڈز (arrowheads)، ڈائمینشن اور سیکشن لائنوں کے لیے 2H گریڈ کی پنسل استعمال کی جاتی ہے، کیونکہ یہ سخت ہوتی ہے اور اس کی نوک باریک رہتی ہے جس سے لائنیں صاف بنتی ہیں۔
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187📚Surveying & LevellingLime & Mortar
The commonly used lime for works under water or in damp situation is
Explanation
Eminently hydraulic lime contains a high percentage of clay (20-30%) and is capable of setting underwater or in damp conditions. It is used for structural works under water or in damp foundations.
پانی کے نیچے یا نم جگہوں پر کام کے لیے 'ایمینینٹلی ہائیڈرولک لائم' (Eminently hydraulic lime) استعمال کیا جاتا ہے کیونکہ اس میں مٹی کی مقدار زیادہ ہوتی ہے جو اسے پانی کے نیچے جمنے کی صلاحیت دیتی ہے۔
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188📚Surveying & LevellingSurveying Principles
In plane surveying,
Explanation
In plane surveying, the mean surface of the earth is treated as a plane surface, and the curvature of the earth is neglected. This is typically done for surveys covering small areas (less than 250 sq km). Option B represents the fundamental defining assumption of plane surveying.
پلین سروے (Plane surveying) میں زمین کی مہراب دار سطح کو ہموار سمجھا جاتا ہے اور زمین کی گولائی (curvature) کو نظر انداز کر دیا جاتا ہے۔ یہ عام طور پر چھوٹے علاقوں کے سروے کے لیے ہوتا ہے۔
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189📚Surveying & LevellingContouring
Contour lines cross ridge or valley lines at
Explanation
Contour lines intersect ridge lines and valley lines perpendicularly (i.e. at 90°). For ridge lines, the contours bulge outwards (towards lower values), and for valley lines, they bulge inwards (towards higher values).
کونٹور لائنیں (Contour lines) رج اور ویلی لائنوں کو ہمیشہ 90° کے زاویے پر کاٹتی ہیں۔ رج لائنوں پر یہ باہر کی طرف اور ویلی لائنوں پر اندر کی طرف مڑتی ہیں۔
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190📚Engineering Drawing & CADCanal Structures
Cross regulators are provided in canals for which of the following purposes?
Explanation
Cross regulators are built across a parent canal to: 1. Raise the water level on the upstream side to feed off-taking canals during low discharges. 2. Stop flow downstream for repairs. 3. Control and absorb fluctuations in the canal system.
نہروں میں کراس ریگولیٹرز (Cross regulators) کا کام کم ڈسچارج کے وقت پانی کی سطح کو بڑھانا، نیچے کی طرف پانی بند کرنا، اور نہر کے نظام میں پانی کے اتار چڑھاؤ کو کنٹرول کرنا ہوتا ہے۔ اس لیے تمام جوابات درست ہیں۔
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191📚Engineering Drawing & CADBricks
Choose the right sequence of stages during burning/firing of bricks is
Explanation
The firing of bricks follows these sequential stages: 1. Dehydration (or water smoking, up to 650°C) to remove moisture. 2. Oxidation (650°C - 900°C) to burn organic matters. 3. Vitrification (900°C - 1100°C) where clay particles fuse into a glassy mass. 4. Cooling.
اینٹوں کے پکنے کا درست تسلسل ہے: 1. پانی کا اخراج (Dehydration)، 2. آکسیڈیشن (Oxidation - نامیاتی مادوں کا جلنا)، 3. وِٹری فیکیشن (Vitrification - گلاس جیسا سخت بننا)، 4. ٹھنڈا ہونا (Cooling)۔ اس لیے آپشن A درست ہے۔
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192📚RCC & Structural MechanicsSurveying Instruments
Match the following surveying instruments with their descriptions:
1. Theodolite - c. An optical instrument used for measuring distances and angles in surveying.
2. Prismatic Compass - a. Used for measuring angles (bearings) in horizontal planes.
3. Planimeter - b. Measures the area of a closed figure on a map or drawing.
4. Leveling Rod - d. Used to measure height differences or elevations during leveling.
Choose the correctly matched option:
Explanation
The correct matches are: Theodolite (1-c) for measuring angles and distances (tachometer function); Prismatic Compass (2-a) for measuring magnetic bearings; Planimeter (3-b) for measuring plan area; Leveling Rod (4-d) for vertical height measurements.
درست جوڑ: تھیوڈولائٹ (1-c)، پرزمیٹک کمپاس (2-a)، پلانی میٹر (3-b) اور لیولنگ راڈ (4-d) ہے۔ اس لیے آپشن B درست جواب ہے۔
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193📚RCC & Structural MechanicsBridge Engineering
Match the bridge-related term with its description:
1. Component Parts of a Bridge - c. Different elements that together make up a complete bridge structure.
2. Culverts - b. Small structures allowing water to flow under roads or railways.
3. Bridge Location - d. Determining suitable placement for constructing a bridge.
4. Tunnel Rules - a. Guidelines specifying sizes of various bridge elements.
Choose the correctly matched option:
Explanation
The correct matches are: Component parts (1-c), Culverts (2-b) representing drainage structure with span < 6m; Bridge Location (3-d) to find the site alignment; Tunnel Rules (4-a) as standard regulatory guidelines. This yields 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a.
درست مماثلت: پل کے حصے (1-c)، پلیاں/کلورٹ (2-b)، پل کی جگہ (3-d) اور سرنگ کے قوانین (4-a) ہے۔ اس لیے آپشن C درست جواب ہے۔
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194📚RCC & Structural MechanicsCement Testing
The IS sieve which is used for measuring the fineness of cement is
Explanation
According to IS 4031-Part 1, the fineness of cement is tested by dry sieving using a 90-micron (IS Sieve No. 9) sieve. The residue should not exceed 10% for ordinary Portland cement.
سیمنٹ کی باریکی (fineness) کو ماپنے کے لیے 90 مائیکرون (90 micron - IS Sieve No. 9) کی چھلنی استعمال کی جاتی ہے۔ OPC کے لیے چھلنی پر بچا ہوا سیمنٹ 10٪ سے زیادہ نہیں ہونا چاہیے۔
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195📚Estimating, Costing & ValuationDams
The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by which of the following methods?
i) Constructing cut-off under upstream face
ii) Constructing drainage channels between the dam and its foundation
iii) By pressure grouting in foundation
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Uplift pressure on a gravity dam is controlled by: 1. Upstream cut-off walls (reduces seepage head). 2. Drainage gallery/channels in the foundation (relieves uplift pressure). 3. Foundation pressure grouting (seals joints/fissures in rock foundation). Thus, all three methods are effective.
ڈیم پر پانی کے نیچے سے لگنے والے بوجھ (uplift pressure) کو کنٹرول کرنے کے لیے: اپ اسٹریم پر کٹ آف بنانا، ڈیم اور فاؤنڈیشن کے درمیان ڈرینیج گیلری بنانا اور بنیاد میں پریشر گراؤٹنگ کرنا، یہ تینوں طریقے استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔
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196📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActTraffic Rules & Regulations
When a vehicle is parked on the road side after 11 pm
Explanation
When a vehicle is parked on a road or public place at night or during hours of darkness (such as after 11 pm) without adequate street lighting, the parking lights or hazard warning lights must be left on to alert other road users.
جب گاڑی رات کے وقت (جیسے کہ رات 11 بجے کے بعد) سڑک کے کنارے پارک کی جائے تو پارکنگ لائٹس کو روشن رکھنا ضروری ہے تاکہ دوسرے مسافروں کو خبردار کیا جا سکے۔
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197📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActAccident Duties & M.V. Act
What you do when any property of a third party is damaged due to an accident
Explanation
Under Section 134(b) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the driver of the vehicle must report the accident and any damage caused to third-party property to the nearest police station within 24 hours.
موٹر وہیکل ایکٹ 1988 کی دفعہ 134(ب) کے تحت، حادثے کی صورت میں اگر کسی تیسرے فریق کی املاک کو نقصان پہنچے، تو ڈرائیور کو 24 گھنٹے کے اندر قریبی پولیس اسٹیشن میں رپورٹ کرنی چاہیے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
198📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceRoad Safety
Which safety device should be used while driving a four-wheeler?
Explanation
A seatbelt is the primary mandatory occupant restraint safety device designed to be worn in four-wheelers to prevent injury during collisions.
چار پہیوں والی گاڑی چلاتے وقت بیلٹ (Seatbelt) کا استعمال لازمی ہے جو حادثے کی صورت میں چوٹ لگنے سے بچاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
199📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceEmergency Procedures
Arrange the following steps in a correct sequence, when a motor vehicle breaks down at night:
(i) Apply brakes, (ii) Slow down the vehicle, (iii) Turn on hazardous warning light, (iv) Get out from the vehicle.
Explanation
The correct safety sequence during a breakdown at night is: first slow down the vehicle (ii), safely apply brakes to stop (i), immediately turn on hazard warning lights to warn others (iii), and then carefully exit the vehicle (iv).
خرابی کی صورت میں صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: پہلے رفتار کم کریں (ii)، بریک لگا کر روکیں (i)، ہنگامی انتباہی لائٹس آن کریں (iii) اور پھر گاڑی سے باہر نکلیں (iv)۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
200📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceReflectance & Pavements
During night driving which type of pavement has more visibility?
Explanation
Concrete pavements are lighter in color and have higher retro-reflectance properties than dark blacktop bituminous/asphalt pavements, providing better contrast and visibility under vehicle headlights at night.
کنکریٹ کے فرش (Concrete pavement) ہلکے رنگ کے ہوتے ہیں، جو تاریک اسفالٹ کے مقابلے میں ہیڈلائٹ کی روشنی کو بہتر منعکس کرتے ہیں اور رات میں زیادہ نظر آتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
201📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenancePhysics of Braking
What is the fundamental principle on which breaking system work?
Explanation
Brakes function on the principle of friction. Pressing the pedal clamps friction material (brake pads/shoes) against rotating metal surfaces (rotors/drums) to convert kinetic energy into heat energy.
گاڑی کا بریکنگ سسٹم رگڑ (Friction) کے بنیادی اصول پر کام کرتا ہے، جو متحرک پہیوں کو روکنے کے لیے مزاحمت پیدا کرتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
202📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceVehicle Systems
What does abbreviation "ABS." of a motor vehicle mean?
Explanation
ABS stands for Anti-lock Braking System, an safety anti-skid system that prevents wheels from locking up during hard braking.
گاڑیوں کے سلسلے میں 'ABS' کا مطلب اینٹی لاک بریکنگ سسٹم (Anti-lock braking system) ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
203📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlNoise Pollution & Regulations
Maximum permissible noise level recommended as per central motor vehicle rules 1989, for passenger or commercial vehicles with gross vehicle weight above 12000 kgs, is
Explanation
Under the CMVR, 1989, the maximum permissible noise level at the manufacturing stage for passenger or commercial vehicles with a GVW exceeding 12000 kgs is 89 dB(A).
موٹر وہیکل رولز 1989 کے مطابق، 12000 کلوگرام سے زائد وزن والی گاڑیوں کے شور کی زیادہ سے زیادہ حد 89 ڈیسیبل یعنی 89db(A) ہونی چاہیے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
204📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Insurance
Consider the following statements related with motor insurance, choose the correct option:
Statement-1: The motor insurance does not provide compensations if driver don't have driving licence
Statement-2: Third-party motor insurance cover third person who has been injured in an accident involving owner and his/her car
Explanation
Statement-1 is true because driving without a valid license voids insurance claims. Statement-2 is true because third-party insurance specifically covers the cost of damage or injury to other people (third parties). Both statements are true.
پہلا بیان سچ ہے کیونکہ لائسنس کے بغیر دعویٰ رد ہو جاتا ہے۔ دوسرا بیان بھی سچ ہے کیونکہ تھرڈ پارٹی انشورنس دوسرے فریق کے نقصان کی تلافی کرتی ہے۔ دونوں سچ ہیں۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
205📚🔭 ScienceFish Taxonomy
The order of catfishes is
Explanation
Catfishes belong to the order Siluriformes. This order is characterized by the presence of prominent barbels (resembling cat whiskers) and a lack of scales.
کیٹ فش (Catfish) کا تعلق آرڈر Siluriformes سے ہے۔ اس گروپ کی نمایاں خصوصیات میں حساس باربلز (مونچھیں) اور جسم پر سکیلز (Scales) کی غیر موجودگی شامل ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
206📚🔭 ScienceMolecular Biology
The correct order of steps in DNA isolation are
Explanation
The standard workflow for DNA isolation is: 1) Lysis (disrupting cell membranes to release DNA), 2) Purification (removing proteins, lipids, and other contaminants using phenol-chloroform or enzymatic treatment), 3) Precipitation (concentrating DNA using ethanol or isopropanol), followed by 4) Electrophoresis (for visualization/quality check).
ڈی این اے کی تنہائی (DNA Isolation) کے درست اقدامات: 1) لیسس (Lysis - خلیے کو توڑنا)، 2) پیوریفیکیشن (Purification - پروٹین اور چکنائی کو ہٹانا)، 3) پریسپیٹیشن (Precipitation - الکحل کے ذریعے ڈی این اے کو نیچے بٹھانا) اور 4) الیکٹروفورسس (Electrophoresis - جانچنا)۔ اس لیے آپشن C درست ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
207📚🔭 ScienceCell Biology
In the cell cycle, DNA replication is followed by........
Explanation
In the eukaryotic cell cycle, DNA replication occurs during the S (Synthesis) phase. It is followed by the G2 (Gap 2) phase, which prepares the cell for mitosis (M phase).
سیل سائیکل میں، ڈی این اے کی نقل (DNA Replication) ایس (S) فیز میں ہوتی ہے، جس کے فوراً بعد جی 2 (G2) فیز آتا ہے جو خلیے کو تقسیم (M phase) کے لیے تیار کرتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
208📚🔭 ScienceLakes & Waterbodies
Which of the following statements are true?
a. Wular Lake is an example of tectonic lake
b. Dal lake is an example of crater lake
c. Surinsar-Mansar lakes are Ramsar sites
d. Manasbal Lake is a saltwater lake
Explanation
Statements a and c are correct: Wular Lake is a tectonic lake and Surinsar-Mansar are Ramsar sites. Statements b (Dal Lake is a crater lake) and d (Manasbal Lake is a saltwater lake) are false. Option C is marked correct based on the official exam answer key which contained a printing typo (where d was meant to state 'freshwater' lake).
بیانات a اور c درست ہیں: وولر جھیل ٹیکٹونک سرگرمی سے بنی ہے اور سرینسر-مانسر جھیلیں رامسر سائٹس ہیں۔ بیانات b اور d غلط ہیں۔ امتحانی پرچے کی غلطی کی وجہ سے آپشن C (a, c, d) کو درست مانا گیا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
209📚📚 Social ScienceIndian Geography
Which of the following is NOT a lagoon?
Explanation
Periyar Lake is a freshwater artificial reservoir created by the construction of the Mullaperiyar Dam on the Periyar River. Vembanad, Chilika, and Pulicat are coastal brackish water lagoons.
پیریاڑ جھیل (Periyar Lake) ایک مصنوعی میٹھے پانی کا ذخیرہ ہے جو ڈیم بنانے سے وجود میں آیا، جبکہ ویمباناد، چلکا اور پلیکٹ ساحلی کھارے پانی کی جھیلیں (Lagoons) ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
210📚🔭 ScienceLimnology
Streams that flow only during and immediately after rain are
Explanation
Ephemeral streams flow briefly only during and immediately after periods of precipitation. Intermittent streams flow regularly during wet seasons when fed by groundwater.
ایسے ندیاں اور نالے جو صرف بارش کے دوران یا بارش کے فوراً بعد بہتے ہیں، انہیں عارضی یا ایفیمیرل ندیاں (Ephemeral Streams) کہا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
211📚🔭 ScienceAquaculture
Hypophysation success in IMCs was achieved by Hiralal Chaudhuri and K. H. Alikunhi for the first time in the year
Explanation
Hypophysation (induced breeding of carps using pituitary gland extracts) was successfully achieved for the first time in Indian Major Carps (IMCs) by Hiralal Chaudhuri and K.H. Alikunhi on July 10, 1957 at Cuttack.
ہندوستانی بڑی کارپ مچھلیوں (IMCs) میں پٹیوٹری گلینڈ کے عرق سے مصنوعی انڈے دلوانے کا کامیاب تجربہ (Hypophysation) پہلی بار ہیرا لال چودھری اور کے-ایچ الیکونہی نے 1957 میں کیا تھا۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
212📚🔭 ScienceAquaculture
Select the commonly used anaesthetic used for handling fish from the list
Explanation
Tricaine methanesulfonate (also known as MS-222) is the most widely used and FDA-approved chemical anaesthetic used for sedating and handling fish during sampling or transport.
مچھلیوں کو پکڑنے، ان کا معائنہ کرنے یا منتقلی کے دوران بے ہوش کرنے کے لیے عام طور پر استعمال ہونے والا کیمیکل ٹرائیکین میتھین سلفونیٹ (MS-222) ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
213📚🔭 ScienceFish Processing
Fish used for preparation of surimi in India
Explanation
Nemipterus japonicus (Japanese threadfin bream, locally called pink perch) is the major fish species utilized for the commercial production of surimi (fish paste) in India due to its excellent gel-forming capacity.
ہندوستان میں سوریمی (Surimi - مچھلی کا پیسٹ) بنانے کے لیے سب سے زیادہ استعمال ہونے والی مچھلی نیمیپٹیرس جاپونیکس (Nemipterus japonicus - پنک پرچ) ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
214📚🔭 ScienceFish Processing
Which of the following statements are true regarding GMP?
a. Fishes caught at different times are mixed and chilled immediately
b. Fishes of all sizes are chilled /pre-processed together
c. Body cavity has to be cleaned after removing gut in case of belly burst fishes
d. Fish should be handled on platforms and not on grounds
Explanation
Statements c and d are true. Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) require that belly-burst fish have their body cavities washed thoroughly to remove digestive enzymes and contaminants, and fish must be handled on clean platforms rather than the bare ground to prevent contamination. Statements a and b are false (mixing catch batches and sizes reduces quality uniformity).
بیانات c اور d درست ہیں۔ اچھی مینوفیکچرنگ کی پریکٹسز (GMP) کے مطابق مچھلیوں کو ننگے فرش کے بجائے صاف ستھرے پلیٹ فارم پر ہینڈل کرنا چاہیے اور ان کی باڈی کیویٹی کو گٹ نکالنے کے بعد اچھی طرح دھونا چاہیے۔ بیانات a اور b غلط ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
215📚🔭 ScienceAquaculture
Kunka is used to measure fish seed in---- technique
Explanation
A 'Kunka' is a traditional, small cup-like measuring container made of wood or metal, used traditionally by spawn collectors and fish farmers in West Bengal to estimate the volume of fish seed/spawn.
کُنکا (Kunka) ماہی پروری کی روایتی (Traditional) تکنیک میں مچھلیوں کے بیج (Spawn/Seed) کو ناپنے کا لکڑی یا دھات کا ایک روایتی چھوٹا برتن ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
216📚🔭 ScienceSport Fishing
This is called the 'Best game fish destination
Explanation
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are widely considered the premier destination for big game sport fishing in India, famous for species like Giant Trevally, Marlin, and Sailfish.
جزائر انڈمان اور نکوبار (Andaman and Nicobar) کو ہندوستان میں سمندری کھیل کی مچھلیوں کے شکار (Game Fishing) کا بہترین مقام مانا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
217📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KRivers of J&K
The Kishanganga River is a major tributary of which river system?
Explanation
The Kishanganga River (known as the Neelum River in Pakistan-administered Kashmir) is a major tributary of the Jhelum River, joining it near Muzaffarabad.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
218📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCulture of J&K
The traditional full-length loose gown worn by people in Kashmir to protect themselves from severe winter cold is called:
Explanation
Pheran is the traditional long, loose cloak worn by men and women in Kashmir, typically made of wool and worn over warm clothing during winter, often with a Kangri underneath.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
219📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
The Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
Explanation
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a Fundamental Right.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
220📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHydroelectric Projects
The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project is constructed on which river?
Explanation
The Baglihar Dam is a run-of-the-river power project built on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
221📚General EnglishIndian History
Who wrote the famous book 'The Discovery of India' during his imprisonment?
Explanation
The Discovery of India was written by Jawaharlal Nehru during his imprisonment at Ahmednagar Fort from 1942 to 1945.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
222📚General EnglishTourism in J&K
Which picturesque tourist destination in Jammu and Kashmir is known as the 'Meadow of Gold'?
Explanation
Sonamarg is known as the 'Meadow of Gold' due to the golden-yellow flowers that bloom in summer and the sunlit snow-capped peaks surrounding it.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
223📚General EnglishIndian Geography
The Chilika Lake, the largest brackish water coastal lagoon in India, is located in which state?
Explanation
Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha state on the east coast of India.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
224📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSynonyms
Choose the synonym of the word 'FRAGILE'.
Explanation
'Fragile' means easily broken or damaged. 'Brittle' is a close synonym, meaning hard but liable to break or shatter easily.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
225📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsAntonyms
Choose the antonym of the word 'GENUINE'.
Explanation
'Genuine' means authentic or real. Its opposite is 'Spurious', which means fake or false.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
226📚General Intelligence & ReasoningComputer Security
A software program designed to infiltrate, damage, or disable computer systems without the user's consent is called:
Explanation
Malware (short for malicious software) is any software intentionally designed to cause damage to a computer, server, client, or computer network.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
227📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal & Constitution
Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal?
a. Article 24
b. Article 21
c. Article 48 A
d. Article 51-A(g)
Explanation
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act 2010 drawing inspiration from Article 21 (Right to a healthy environment), Article 48A (Duty of the State to protect the environment and forests), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental duty of citizens to protect nature). Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of child labour in factories.
نیشنل گرین ٹریبونل (NGT) آئین کے آرٹیکل 21، آرٹیکل 48A اور آرٹیکل 51A(g) سے منسلک ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
228📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewage Chemistry & Characteristics
The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage, respectively are
Explanation
Fresh sewage is slightly alkaline in nature with a typical pH of 7.3 to 7.8. As sewage becomes stale and septic during anaerobic decomposition, organic acids and hydrogen sulfide (H2SH_2S) are generated, lowering the pH and making septic sewage acidic.
تازہ سیوریج الکلائن (Alkaline) ہوتا ہے جبکہ سیپٹک سیوریج تیزابی (Acidic) ہو جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
229📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Digestion & Biogas
The main gas liberated from an anaerobic sludge digester is
Explanation
Biogas produced during anaerobic digestion consists of approximately 60–70% Methane (CH4CH_4) and 30–40% Carbon Dioxide (CO2CO_2), with trace amounts of hydrogen sulfide (H2SH_2S) and nitrogen. Methane is the primary and most valuable combustible gas released.
اینیروبک سلج ڈائجیسٹر سے خارج ہونے والی اہم گیس میتھین (Methane - CH4CH_4) ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
230📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRiver Self-Purification Zones
A polluted stream undergoes self-purification in four distinct zones:
a. Zone of clear water
b. Zone of Active decomposition
c. Zone of degradation
d. Zone of recovery
Explanation
The downstream sequence of self-purification in a river receiving wastewater effluent is: 1. Zone of degradation (c) → 2. Zone of active decomposition (b) → 3. Zone of recovery (d) → 4. Zone of clear water (a). Hence, the correct order is c, b, d, a.
کسی ندی میں گندے پانی کی خود صفائی کے زونز کی درست ترتیب: خرابی کا زون (c) ← فعال سڑن کا زون (b) ← بحالی کا زون (d) ← صاف پانی کا زون (a)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
231📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Process & Methodology
Choose the correct sequence of steps adopted during the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process.
Explanation
The standardized logical sequence of the EIA process is: 1. Screening (determining if EIA is required) → 2. Scoping (identifying key issues & baseline requirements) → 3. Baseline Data Collection → 4. Impact Analysis & Mitigation → 5. Public Hearing / Consultation → 6. Decision Making & Environmental Clearance.
EIA کا صحیح سلسلہ: اسکریننگ ← اسکوپنگ ← ڈیٹا کا حصول ← اثرات کا تجزیہ ← عوامی سماعت ← فیصلہ سازی۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
232📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Screening Criteria
Which of the following is NOT a regular standard for figuring out whether an EIA is necessary?
Explanation
During the Screening stage of EIA, decision criteria focus strictly on environmental factors: project magnitude/scale, location in ecologically sensitive areas, and technical complexity. Potential economic benefits or commercial profit are socio-economic justifications and are NOT environmental criteria for mandating an EIA.
EIA کی ضرورت کا تعین کرتے وقت اقتصادی فوائد (Economic benefits) ماحولیاتی معیار کے طور پر استعمال نہیں ہوتے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
233📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyImpact Prediction Methodologies
Which of the following is not a material consideration when making impact predictions of environmental damage?
Explanation
When predicting environmental damage and ecological impacts, scientific considerations are duration (time), spatial extent (area), and magnitude (intensity). Economic benefits such as job creation are part of socio-economic appraisals, not physical environmental damage prediction.
ماحولیاتی نقصان کی پیشین گوئی میں ملازمتوں اور معاشی فوائد کو ماحولیاتی نقصان کے پیمانے کے طور پر نہیں دیکھا جاتا۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
234📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnergy Resources
Fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas are examples of:
Explanation
Fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) are non-renewable resources because they formed over hundreds of millions of years from buried organic matter and cannot be replenished on a human timescale once depleted.
کوئلہ، پٹرولیم، اور قدرتی گیس غیر قابل تجدید وسائل (Non-renewable resources) کی مثالیں ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
235📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRadiation Hazards & Health
Prolonged exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun can increase the risk of:
Explanation
Ultraviolet radiation (specifically UV-B and UV-A) damages the DNA of skin cells, leading to genetic mutations that substantially increase the risk of skin cancers (including malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma) and cataracts.
سورج سے آنے والی الٹرا وائلٹ (UV) تابکاری کی طویل نمائش جلد کے کینسر (Skin cancer) کا خطرہ بڑھاتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
236📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyHeavy Metal Ecotoxicology
Industrial pollutants like mercury and cadmium can accumulate in the food chain and pose a threat to the:
Explanation
Heavy metals like mercury (neurotoxin causing Minamata disease, ataxia, tremors) and cadmium bioaccumulate in tissues and severely damage the central nervous system, brain function, and renal tubules.
پارہ اور کیڈمیم جیسے صنعتی زہریلے مادے فوڈ چین میں جمع ہو کر اعصابی نظام (Nervous system) کے لیے سنگین خطرہ بنتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
237📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Digestion Fundamentals
Anaerobic digestion is a process that occurs in the absence of:
Explanation
Anaerobic digestion is a biological process in which specialized obligate and facultative anaerobic microorganisms break down biodegradable organic matter in the strict absence of dissolved or molecular free oxygen (O2O_2), generating biogas.
اینیروبک ڈائجیسشن (Anaerobic digestion) کا عمل آکسیجن کی غیر موجودگی میں سرانجام پاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
238📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringIndustrial Waste Management
The waste generated by the tannery industry is often characterized by:
Explanation
Tannery industrial effluents are characterized by extremely high organic matter loads (BOD/COD), high total dissolved solids, elevated sulfides, and toxic heavy metals like hexavalent/trivalent Chromium used during leather tanning.
چمڑا سازی کی صنعت (Tannery) کے فضلے میں زیادہ نامیاتی مواد اور زہریلے کیمیکلز (کرومیم وغیرہ) ہوتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
239📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSludge Yield & Loading Parameters
The ratio of sludge mass (lbs or kg) to the volume of sewage treated (gal or m³) is known as:
Explanation
The ratio measuring sludge solids mass relative to sewage volumetric loading is described as the Sludge Loading Rate (SLR) or Solids Volumetric Yield.
سلج کے وزن کا سیوریج کے حجم کے ساتھ تناسب سلج لوڈنگ ریٹ (Sludge Loading Rate) کہلاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
240📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNutrient Removal & Eutrophication
The efficiency of a wastewater treatment system in removing nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus is crucial to prevent:
Explanation
Nitrogen and phosphorus are limiting plant macronutrients. Removing them during tertiary biological wastewater treatment is essential to prevent rapid eutrophication, dense toxic algal blooms, and oxygen depletion in downstream receiving water bodies.
نائٹروجن اور فاسفورس کو صاف کرنا ندی نالوں میں الجی کے پھیلاؤ اور یوٹروفیکیشن کو روکنے کے لیے ضروری ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
241📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringMass Balance & Process Modeling
The performance of a wastewater treatment system is evaluated by comparing influent and effluent concentrations of pollutants. This comparison is done using:
Explanation
Mass balance analysis (conservation of mass principle: Mass In=Mass Out+Mass Accumulated−Mass Converted\text{Mass In} = \text{Mass Out} + \text{Mass Accumulated} - \text{Mass Converted}) is the fundamental analytical method used to evaluate removal efficiencies across wastewater treatment units.
ٹریٹمنٹ سسٹم کی کارکردگی کا جائزہ لینے کے لیے ماس بیلنس انالیسس (Mass balance analysis) کا طریقہ استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
242📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityAmmonia Toxicity in Aquatic Systems
Ammonia (NH3) in water can be harmful to aquatic life because it:
Explanation
Un-ionized ammonia (NH3NH_3) easily diffuses across the gill membranes of fish and aquatic organisms, where even low concentrations (>0.05 mg/L> 0.05\text{ mg/L}) induce cellular damage, disrupt internal organ function, reduce growth, and cause mortality.
امونیا (NH3NH_3) زیادہ مقدار میں مچھلیوں اور آبی جانداروں کے لیے انتہائی زہریلا ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
243📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePrecautionary Principle & Jurisprudence
The "Precautionary Principle" enshrined in the Environment (Protection) Act emphasizes:
Explanation
The Precautionary Principle states that where there are threats of serious or irreversible environmental damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective preventive measures.
حفاظتی اصول (Precautionary Principle) ماحولیاتی نقصان کے خطرے کی صورت میں پیشگی حفاظتی اقدامات پر زور دیتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
244📚🛡️ Disaster ManagementDisaster Management Planning
Disaster management plans are designed to:
Explanation
Disaster management plans structure preparedness, rapid response, resource mobilization, and recovery strategies to minimize loss of life, injury, and structural damage from major disasters.
ڈیزاسٹر مینجمنٹ پلانز بڑی ہنگامی صورتحال اور آفات کے منفی اثرات اور نقصانات کو کم کرنے کے لیے بنائے جاتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
245📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChlorination & Chloramines Formation
Consider the following statements:
a. In the disinfection process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
b. In the sedimentation process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
c. In the filtration process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
d. In the skimming process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement (a) is correct: During water disinfection with combined chlorine (chloramination), chlorine (HOClHOCl) reacts with ammonia (NH3NH_3) in water to form chloramines (NH2Cl,NHCl2,NCl3NH_2Cl, NHCl_2, NCl_3) that provide long-lasting residual disinfection.
کلورامین مرکبات جراثیم کشی کے عمل (Disinfection) کے دوران کلورین اور امونیا کے ملاپ سے بنتے ہیں۔ (صرف بیان a درست ہے)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
246📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityIS 10500 Water Standards: Fluoride & Coliforms
Consider the following statements:
a. Maximum permissible limit of Fluorides in drinking water is 1.5 ppm
b. E-coli is helpful for water purification.
c. Coliform group bacteria always found in colonies.
d. Maximum permissible limit of Fluorides in drinking water is 0.5 ppm
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement (a) is correct: According to Indian Standard IS 10500 and WHO guidelines, the maximum permissible limit of Fluoride in drinking water in the absence of an alternate source is 1.5 ppm1.5\text{ ppm} (1.5 mg/L1.5\text{ mg/L}). Statement (c) is correct: Coliform bacteria form visible colonies on growth media (like agar plates).
پینے کے پانی میں فلورائیڈ کی زیادہ سے زیادہ قابل قبول حد 1.5 ppm ہے اور کالیفارم بیکٹیریا کالونیوں میں پائے جاتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
247📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringGrit Separation & Wastewater Solids
Consider the following statements:
a. Grit represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
b. Chloramine represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
c. Ammonia represents the purity of water.
d. Plankton represents the fully treated wastewater.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement (a) is correct: Grit refers to the heavier, non-putrescible inorganic mineral matter (such as sand, gravel, eggshells, and silt) with specific gravity >2.0> 2.0 present in wastewater.
گریٹ (Grit) سیوریج میں موجود ریت اور بھاری غیر نامیاتی ٹھوس مادے کی نمائندگی کرتا ہے۔ (صرف بیان a درست ہے)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
248📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRiver Pollution & DO Sag Curve
Arrange the following zones of river water pollution in the correct sequence of their occurrence after the discharge of effluent.
1. Zone of clear water
2. Zone of pollution
3. Zone of recovery
4. Zone of active decomposition
Explanation
The sequential zones of pollution downstream of an effluent outfall in a self-purifying river are: 2. Zone of pollution (degradation) → 4. Zone of active decomposition → 3. Zone of recovery → 1. Zone of clear water.
ندی میں گندا پانی گرنے کے بعد زونز کا درست سلسلہ: آلودگی کا زون (2) ← فعال سڑن کا زون (4) ← بحالی کا زون (3) ← صاف پانی کا زون (1)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
249📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyEnvironmental Observance Days
Consider the following statements:
a) Earth Day is celebrated on March-22.
b) Ammonia is the form of carbonaceous impurity.
c) Potable water is a mineral water.
d) World Water Day is celebrated on March-22.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
World Water Day is observed globally on March 22 every year (Statement d is correct). Note: Earth Day is celebrated on April 22, Ammonia (NH3NH_3) is a nitrogenous (not carbonaceous) impurity, and potable water is safe drinking water conforming to health standards.
عالمی یوم آب (World Water Day) ہر سال 22 مارچ کو منایا جاتا ہے۔ (صرف بیان d درست ہے)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
250📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyNitrogen Forms & Sewage Freshness
Which form of nitrogen in sewage indicates that the decomposition of nitrogenous organic matter impurity has just started in the wastewater?
Explanation
In sanitary engineering, Free Ammonia (ammoniacal nitrogen) indicates recent pollution and the initial onset of organic decomposition. Albuminoidal nitrogen represents undecomposed organic nitrogen, Nitrites (NO2−NO_2^-) indicate ongoing active decomposition, and Nitrates (NO3−NO_3^-) indicate fully stabilized past pollution.
سیوریج میں فری امونیا (Free Ammonia) ظاہر کرتا ہے کہ نامیاتی مادے کی سڑن ابھی شروع ہوئی ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
251📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyPhysical vs Chemical Water Parameters
Which among the following is NOT a physical characteristic?
Explanation
pH is a Chemical characteristic of water measuring hydrogen ion activity (−log⁡10[H+]-\log_{10}[H^+]). Color, Odour, Temperature, and Turbidity are Physical characteristics.
pH پانی کی کیمیائی خصوصیت ہے، جبکہ رنگ، بو اور درجہ حرارت جسمانی (Physical) خصوصیات ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
252📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringAir Quality Monitoring Instruments
Which method is used for the analysis of NO2\text{NO}_2 in ambient air?
Explanation
Gas-phase Chemiluminescence (measuring light emitted when nitric oxide reacts with ozone: NO + O_3 → NO_2^* + O_2 → NO_2 + h
u) is the standard reference method for monitoring NO2NO_2 and NOxNO_x in ambient air.
ہوا میں NO2\text{NO}_2 کی پیمائش کے لیے کیمی لومینیسینس (Chemiluminescence) کا طریقہ استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
253📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringThermal Stratification in Lakes
The layers formed by thermal stratification in lakes are:
Explanation
Thermal stratification in deep freshwater lakes during summer forms three distinct vertical layers: the warm upper layer (Epilimnion), the transition layer with rapid temperature decline (Thermocline or Metalimnion), and the cold, dense bottom layer (Hypolimnion).
جھیلوں میں درجہ حرارت کی تہوں کی تقسیم: ایپی لمینین (اوپری)، تھرموکلائن (درمیانی)، اور ہائپو لمینین (نچلی تہہ)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
254📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNoise Pollution Standards
What is the permissible limit of day time industrial noise as recommended by WHO?
Explanation
Under India's Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 and WHO industrial guidelines, the permissible ambient noise limit in Industrial areas during daytime (06:00 to 22:00) is 75 dB(A) Leq75\text{ dB(A)}~L_{eq}.
صنعتی علاقوں میں دن کے وقت شور کی قابل قبول حد 75 ڈیسیبل (75 dB) ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
255📚Water Quality & Wastewater Engineering42nd Constitutional Amendment & Environment
Which amendment explicitly incorporated Article 48-A and 51-A (g) into the Constitution?
Explanation
The landmark 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Article 48A (Directive Principle directing the State to protect and improve the environment) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty of citizens).
42ویں آئینی ترمیم 1976 کے ذریعے آئین میں ماحولیات سے متعلق آرٹیکل 48-A اور 51-A(g) شامل کیے گئے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
256📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementEIA Methodology & Standards
Which of the following is NOT included during EIA?
Explanation
EIA requires rigorous quantitative empirical measurements, baseline comparison, and environmental management plans; superficial or vague qualitative-only scoring without baseline validation is inadequate.
EIA میں صرف مبہم معیاری بیانات کی بجائے مقداری پیمائش اور جامع ماڈلنگ لازمی ہوتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
257📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementSmog Definition & Formation
Smog is the mixture of
Explanation
The word 'smog' was originally coined by Dr. H.A. Des Voeux as a portmanteau of Smoke and Fog, describing heavy atmospheric pollution formed by particulate smoke combining with damp fog.
سموگ (Smog) دھوئیں (Smoke) اور دھند (Fog) کے ملاپ سے بنتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
258📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementAcid Rain Chemistry
Acid rain is caused by the presence of which pollutants in the atmosphere?
Explanation
Acid precipitation (pH<5.6pH < 5.6) is primarily caused by the atmospheric emission of Sulfur Dioxide (SO2SO_2) and Nitrogen Oxides (NOxNO_x), which react with water vapor, oxygen, and oxidants to form sulfuric acid (H2SO4H_2SO_4) and nitric acid (HNO3HNO_3).
تیزابی بارش فضا میں سلفر ڈائی آکسائیڈ (SO2SO_2) اور نائٹروجن آکسائیڈز (NOxNO_x) کی موجودگی سے ہوتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
259📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementHealth Effects of Ozone Depletion
Which of the following diseases is majorly caused due to ozone depletion?
Explanation
Ozone layer thinning allows harmful ultraviolet-B (UV-B) radiation to penetrate to Earth's surface, causing cellular DNA damage that significantly increases the incidence of skin cancers (melanoma and carcinomas) and cataracts.
اوزون کی تہہ کے پتلے ہونے اور UV شعاعوں کے بڑھنے سے جلد کا کینسر (Skin cancer) لاحق ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
260📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementTypes of BOD: CBOD & NBOD
How many types of biological oxygen demand (BOD) is present in water?
Explanation
There are 2 primary types of BOD exerted during wastewater stabilization: (1) Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (CBOD) due to the oxidation of organic carbon compounds, and (2) Nitrogenous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (NBOD) due to the nitrification of ammonia.
پانی میں حیاتیاتی آکسیجن کی مانگ (BOD) کی 2 اہم اقسام ہوتی ہیں: کاربونیشس BOD اور نائٹروجینس BOD۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
261📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementBiochemical Oxygen Demand Concept
The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of a wastewater is a measure of
Explanation
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the empirical measure of the quantity of dissolved oxygen utilized by aerobic microorganisms during the biochemical oxidation and decomposition of biodegradable organic matter in water.
BOD گندے پانی میں نامیاتی مادے کو گلانے کے لیے بیکٹیریا کو درکار آکسیجن کی مقدار ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
262📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCement Industry Effluent Characteristics
Which waste characteristic is common in the effluent from the cement industry?
Explanation
Cement manufacturing process washwaters contain suspended cement particulate slurry with high pH / low acidity (alkaline nature, high dissolved calcium hydroxide), distinct from high organic BOD effluents.
سیمنٹ انڈسٹری کا فضلہ بنیادی طور پر الکلائن اور معلق ذرات پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے، جس میں نامیاتی BOD نہیں ہوتا۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
263📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationActivated Sludge Biological Removal
The activated sludge process is a biological wastewater treatment method that primarily removes:
Explanation
The Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is fundamentally designed as a secondary biological treatment method to remove soluble and colloidal biodegradable organic matter (BOD) and settleable suspended solids.
ایکٹیویٹڈ سلج پروسیس بنیادی طور پر نامیاتی مادے (BOD) اور معلق ٹھوس ذرات کو صاف کرتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
264📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationGIS Site Suitability in EIA
How does GIS assist in identifying potential impacts during site selection in EIA for industries?
Explanation
GIS assists environmental site selection by integrating multi-layered spatial data (topography, land-use zoning, hydrology, wildlife corridors, and proximity to protected forests and populated settlements) to identify ecologically sensitive constraints.
GIS زمین کے استعمال اور حساس ماحولیاتی علاقوں کا ڈیٹا ملا کر محفوظ اور موزوں جگہ کے انتخاب میں مدد دیتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
265📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationDisaster Management Objectives
What is the primary goal of a disaster management plan?
Explanation
The primary objective of all disaster management planning is to prevent hazards, build community resilience, and minimize the loss of human life, injury, property damage, and socio-economic disruption.
ڈیزاسٹر مینجمنٹ پلان کا بنیادی مقصد انسانی جان اور مالی نقصان کو کم سے کم کرنا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
266📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Transportation & National Highways
NH-44 is the longest national highway in India with a length of ________ Kilometers running from ________ in the north to ________ in the south.
Explanation
National Highway 44 (NH-44) is the longest highway in India, measuring approximately 3,745 km (and extended up to 4,112 km), connecting Srinagar in the North to Kanyakumari in the South.
NH-44 ہندوستان کا سب سے لمبا قومی شاہراہ ہے جو سری نگر سے کنیا کماری تک پھیلا ہوا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
267📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsFolk Dances of India
Popir is the folk dance of which Indian State?
Explanation
Popir is a traditional indigenous folk dance performed by the Galo tribe of Arunachal Pradesh during the Mopin spring festival.
پوپیر (Popir) اروناچل پردیش کے گالو قبیلے کا روایتی لوک رقص ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
268📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsFundamental Duties & Amendments
Which constitutional amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution?
Explanation
Fundamental Duties (Article 51A in Part IVA) were incorporated into the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee via the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
بنیادی فرائض کو 42ویں آئینی ترمیم 1976 کے ذریعے آئین کے آرٹیکل 51A میں شامل کیا گیا۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
269📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsEmergency Provisions & Fundamental Rights
Which Article of the Indian constitution describes the effect of a national emergency on fundamental rights?
Explanation
Articles 358 (automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19) and 359 (suspension of the enforcement of other fundamental rights except Articles 20 and 21) describe the effect of a National Emergency on fundamental rights.
آرٹیکل 358 اور 359 قومی ایمرجنسی کے دوران بنیادی حقوق کی معطلی کے اثرات کو بیان کرتے ہیں۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
270📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsAtmospheric Inversion & Winter Smog
Which of the following reasons results in winter smog?
Explanation
During winter, thermal/temperature inversion occurs when cold ground-level air is trapped beneath a warmer layer of air aloft, preventing vertical air mixing and trapping particulate matter and smoke close to the surface to form dense winter smog.
درجہ حرارت کا الٹاؤ (Temperature inversion) آلودگی کو زمین کی سطح کے قریب قید کر لیتا ہے جس سے موسم سرما کا سموگ بنتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
271📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsMarine Biodiversity & Wildlife
Which of the following statements regarding Dugongs - marine mammals is/are correct?
1. The warm coastal waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans are home to dugongs.
2. Dugongs typically measure between 2.2 to 3.4 meters (7 to 11 feet) in length and weigh around 230 to 420 kg (500 to 925 pounds).
3. Males possess tusk-like incisors, while both male and female adults frequently exhibit sets of parallel scars on their backs, often resulting from mating attempts or fighting.
Explanation
All statements (1, 2, and 3) are factually correct. Dugongs (sea cows) inhabit shallow coastal Indo-Pacific waters, are herbivorous marine mammals measuring 2.2–3.4 m, and mature males grow tusk-like incisors.
ڈیوگونگ (Dugong) سے متعلق تینوں بیانات (1، 2 اور 3) درست ہیں۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
272📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsKarkota Dynasty & Lalitaditya
Who among the following is known as the "Samudra Gupta of Kashmir" due to his significant rule during the Karkota dynasty between 724-761 A.D.?
Explanation
King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty is celebrated as the "Samudragupta of Kashmir" for his extensive military conquests across northern and central Asia and for constructing the magnificent Martand Sun Temple.
کرکوٹا خاندان کے راجہ للتا دتیہ مکتا پیڈ کو اپنی فتوحات کی وجہ سے "کشمیر کا سمدر گپت" کہا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
273📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsTourist Destinations of J&K
Yusmarg is a hill station in Jammu and Kashmir is known as
Explanation
Yusmarg (in Budgam district of J&K) translates to the "Meadow of Jesus" in Kashmiri folklore and local tradition.
یوسمرگ (ضلع بڈگام) کو کشمیری زبان میں "عیسیٰ کا مرغزار" (Meadow of Jesus) کہا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
274📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
Which of the following is NOT considered a renewable energy source?
Explanation
According to the passage and general science, Coal is a finite fossil fuel (non-renewable), whereas solar, wind, and hydroelectric are renewable.
کوئلہ (Coal) غیر قابل تجدید فوسل ایندھن ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
275📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
What is the primary goal of adopting sustainable energy?
Explanation
As stated in the passage: "One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels... which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution."
پائیدار توانائی کا بنیادی مقصد گرین ہاؤس گیسوں کے اخراج اور فضائی آلودگی کو کم کرنا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
276📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
How is sustainable energy linked to global initiatives?
Explanation
The passage explicitly connects sustainable energy to the UN SDGs and the Paris Agreement temperature targets.
پائیدار توانائی اقوام متحدہ کے SDGs اور پیرس معاہدے سے منسلک ہے۔
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277📚General EnglishIdioms & Phrases
Which of the following options does NOT express the correct meaning of the given idiom/Phrase:
Wet blanket
Explanation
A 'wet blanket' is a spoilsport who dampens other people's fun and excitement. Option D expresses the exact opposite and does NOT express its meaning.
'Wet blanket' رنگ میں بھنگ ڈالنے والے شخص کو کہتے ہیں۔ آپشن D اس کے برعکس معنی دیتا ہے۔
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278📚General EnglishSpelling Rules
Out of the four options, choose the option bearing the correct spelling.
Explanation
The correctly spelled word is 'Luxuriant' (meaning rich, lush, and profuse in growth).
صحیح ہجے والا لفظ 'Luxuriant' ہے۔
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279📚Knowledge of ComputersCybersecurity & Malware
Which of the following replicate itself to slow down the computer system?
Explanation
A computer Worm is a standalone self-replicating malware program that actively propagates copies of itself across networks and memory without needing a host program, consuming bandwidth and system resources to slow down systems.
کمپیوٹر ورم (Worm) خود کو خود بخود ریپلیکیٹ کر کے سسٹم اور نیٹ ورک کو سست کر دیتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
280📚Knowledge of ComputersFirewall vs Antivirus
Which of the following is false?
Explanation
Statement B is false: A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules; it does NOT scan, quarantine, or delete infected files within local storage (which is the job of Antivirus software).
بیان B غلط ہے کیونکہ فائر وال نیٹ ورک ٹریفک کو فلٹر کرتا ہے، سسٹم کے اندر سے میلویئر کو ڈیلیٹ کرنا اینٹی وائرس کا کام ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
281📚Knowledge of ComputersInformation Technology Fundamentals
Which of the following is NOT a component of Information Technology?
Explanation
Information Technology (IT) revolves around computer software, networking systems, databases, and digital architectures (like Blockchain and OS). Traditional standalone photocopier (Xerox) machines are office reproduction appliances.
فوٹو کاپی (زیروکس) مشین معلوماتی ٹیکنالوجی (IT) کا بنیادی ڈیجیٹل جزو نہیں ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
282📚General Intelligence & ReasoningLetter Classification
Which group of letters is different from others?
Explanation
In CBAED (C-B-A followed by E-D), IJHGK (I-J-H-G-K), and SRQPT, letters follow a backwards reverse pattern. TVWYZ follows a forward alphabetic progression.
TVWYZ باقی تمام گروپس سے مختلف ہے۔
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283📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers and Tributaries of J&K
Kishanganga is an important tributary of which of the following rivers?
Explanation
The Kishanganga River (known as the Neelum River in Pakistan-administered Kashmir) is a major right-bank tributary of the Jhelum River, joining it near Muzaffarabad.
کشن گنگا (نیلم) دریائے جہلم کا ایک اہم معاون دریا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
284📚🌍 General KnowledgeUN Security Council
How many non-permanent members does UN Security Council have?
Explanation
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is composed of 15 members: 5 permanent members (P5) and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly.
اقوام متحدہ کی سلامتی کونسل (UNSC) میں 10 غیر مستقل ارکان (Non-permanent members) ہوتے ہیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
285📚📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & 44th Amendment
Which of the following is NOT related to fundamental rights?
Explanation
The Right to Property was repealed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and converted into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
حق جائیداد (Right to property) 44ویں ترمیم کے بعد بنیادی حق نہیں رہا بلکہ آرٹیکل 300A کے تحت ایک قانونی حق ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
286📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementNon-Profit Organization Accounting
The account which shows the classified summary of transactions of a cash book in a non-trading concern is known as
Explanation
In Non-Profit / Non-Trading Organisations, the Receipt and Payment Account is a classified summary of all cash and bank receipts and payments during an accounting period.
نان ٹریڈنگ اداروں میں کیش بک کے لین دین کا خلاصہ 'Receipt and Payment Account' کہلاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
287📚📊 EconomicsSectors of the Economy
Banking sector comes under which of the following sectors?
Explanation
Banking, insurance, finance, and tourism provide commercial services and are classified under the Tertiary / Service Sector of the economy.
بینکنگ سیکٹر سروس سیکٹر یعنی خدمات کے شعبے (Service sector) کا حصہ ہے۔
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288📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementRectification of Errors
Which of the following is not an error of principle?
Explanation
Posting cash received from Meena to Sharin is an Error of Commission (posting to wrong personal account). An Error of Principle occurs when fundamental capital/revenue accounting rules are violated.
مینا سے موصولہ رقم کو شارین کے کھاتے میں لکھنا ایرر آف کمیشن ہے، اصول کی غلطی (Error of principle) نہیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
289📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementAccounting Equation
When assets are subtracted from liabilities it will be equal to?
Explanation
According to the fundamental accounting equation: Assets−Liabilities=Capital (Owner’s Equity)\text{Assets} - \text{Liabilities} = \text{Capital (Owner's Equity)}.
اثاثوں میں سے واجبات کو منہا کرنے پر مالک کا سرمایہ یعنی کیپیٹل (Capital) حاصل ہوتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
290📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCash and Cash Equivalents
A current asset that can be transferred into cash within three months is known as:
Explanation
Cash Equivalents are short-term, highly liquid investments that are readily convertible to known amounts of cash and subject to an insignificant risk of changes in value (typically maturity ≤3\le 3 months).
وہ قلیل مدتی اثاثے جو 3 ماہ کے اندر نقد رقم میں تبدیل ہو سکتے ہیں، کیش ایکولینٹ (Cash equivalent) کہلاتے ہیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
291📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange & Days of Grace
What are the three additional days known as that a drawer gives to the drawee for payment?
Explanation
Under Section 22 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, three extra days allowed to the drawee for payment beyond the nominal maturity date are legally called 'Days of Grace'.
بل آف ایکسچینج میں ادائیگی کے لیے دیے جانے والے 3 اضافی دن 'ڈیز آف گریس' (Days of grace) کہلاتے ہیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
292📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementInventory Valuation: FIFO vs LIFO
In periods of inflation, the impact of change in the method of valuation of inventories from LIFO method to FIFO method will cause:
Explanation
During inflation, FIFO assigns older (cheaper) costs to Cost of Goods Sold (COGS), resulting in a lower COGS and consequently higher reported net profit and higher closing inventory valuation.
مہنگائی کے دوران LIFO سے FIFO پر منتقل ہونے سے اشیاء کی لاگت (COGS) کم ہو جاتی ہے اور منافع بڑھ جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
293📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementAccounting Cycle & Objectives
________ is the last step of accounting as a process of information.
Explanation
Accounting is the process of identifying, measuring, recording, classifying, summarizing, analyzing, interpreting, and finally Communicating financial information to users.
اکاؤنٹنگ کے عمل کا آخری مرحلہ معلومات کو متعلقہ صارفین تک پہنچانا (Communication of information) ہے۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
294📚📖 General EnglishComprehension Passage: Stone Age
Read the passage given below to answer the question:
"The Stone Age was a period of history that began approximately 2 million BC and lasted until 3000 BC, deriving its name from the stone tools and weapons discovered by modern scientists. This period was divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic periods. During the First Age (2 million to 8000 BC), the first hatchets and the use of fire for heating and cooking were developed.

As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about 1 million years into the Paleolithic era, humans were forced to shelter in caves, wear clothing, and develop new tools. During the Mesolithic period (8000 to 6000 BC), people made crude pottery and took dogs for hunting with the first fish hook and developed a bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century BC. The Neolithic period (6000 to 3000 BC) saw mankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, becoming less nomadic than in earlier periods, establishing permanent settlements and forming governments."

Question:
What were some developments during the first age (Paleolithic period)?
Explanation
As stated in the passage: "During the First Age (2 million to 8000 BC) the first hatchets and the use of fire for heating and cooking were developed."
پہلے دور میں کلہاڑی اور کھانا پکانے و حرارت کے لیے آگ کا استعمال شروع ہوا۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
295📚📖 General EnglishComprehension Passage: Stone Age
Read the passage given below to answer the question:
"The Stone Age was a period of history that began approximately 2 million BC and lasted until 3000 BC, deriving its name from the stone tools and weapons discovered by modern scientists. This period was divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic periods. During the First Age (2 million to 8000 BC), the first hatchets and the use of fire for heating and cooking were developed.

As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about 1 million years into the Paleolithic era, humans were forced to shelter in caves, wear clothing, and develop new tools. During the Mesolithic period (8000 to 6000 BC), people made crude pottery and took dogs for hunting with the first fish hook and developed a bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century BC. The Neolithic period (6000 to 3000 BC) saw mankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, becoming less nomadic than in earlier periods, establishing permanent settlements and forming governments."

Question:
On the basis of above passage, what were some developments during the Neolithic period?
Explanation
As directly stated in the passage: "The Neolithic period (6000 to 3000 BC) saw mankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, becoming less nomadic than in earlier periods, establishing permanent settlements and forming governments."
نیولتھک دور میں انسان نے جانوروں کو پالتو بنایا، مستقل بستیاں بسائیں اور حکومتیں قائم کیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
296📚🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsContinuity Equation & Pipe Flow
During designing water supply line of a housing complex, two distribution pipes of different diameter 2 cm2\text{ cm}, and 6 cm6\text{ cm} respectively are connected with the main supply pipe line. The velocity of flow of water in the pipe of 2 cm2\text{ cm} diameter is
Explanation
By continuity for equal flow, A1V1=A2V2  ⟹  V1/V2=(D2/D1)2=(6/2)2=32=9A_1 V_1 = A_2 V_2 \implies V_1 / V_2 = (D_2 / D_1)^2 = (6 / 2)^2 = 3^2 = 9. The velocity in the 2 cm2\text{ cm} pipe is 9 times that in the 6 cm6\text{ cm} pipe.
کنٹینیوٹی مساوات کے مطابق رفتار قطر کے مربع کے الٹ متناسب ہوتی ہے: (6/2)2=9(6/2)^2 = 9 گنا۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti
297📚🌊 Irrigation & Water Resources EngineeringReservoirs & Dams
Considering,
(i) Controlling flood
(ii) Generating hydropower
(iii) Preventing loss of water in percolation from fields
(iv) Sewage disposal.
A reservoir is used for
Correct answer is
Explanation
Storage reservoirs are primarily multi-purpose hydraulic structures designed for flood mitigation (i), hydroelectric power generation (ii), irrigation, and municipal water supply.
ذخائر آب (Reservoirs) کا بنیادی مقصد سیلاب کی روک تھام (i) اور پن بجلی پیدا کرنا (ii) ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti
298📚📊 Contracts & TendersSecurity Deposit & Retention Money
Statement 1: Security deposit is an amount of money which is nonrefundable, even after the maintenance period is over.
Statement 2: Retention money always forfeited by the department even after the finalization of maintenance or adjustment of the claim is over.
The correct combination is
Explanation
Both statements are individually false. Security deposit and retention money are fully refundable to the contractor upon satisfactory completion of the defect liability/maintenance period without default.
دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں کیونکہ سیکورٹی ڈپازٹ اور ریٹینشن منی دونوں دیکھ بھال کی مدت مکمل ہونے کے بعد ٹھیکیدار کو واپس مل جاتی ہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti
299📚🏗️ Structural AnalysisSpace Trusses: Tetrahedron
The simplest space frame or truss consists of six members joined to form
Explanation
The fundamental, simplest stable 3-dimensional space truss is a Tetrahedron, consisting of 6 members connecting 4 triangular joints (m=3j−6=3(4)−6=6m = 3j - 6 = 3(4) - 6 = 6).
سب سے آسان اور مستحکم خلائی ٹرس ٹیٹراہائیڈرون (Tetrahedron - 6 ممبرز اور 4 جوائنٹس) پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti
300📚🏗️ Building Materials & ConcreteCement Testing: Setting Time
The diameter of needle used in Vicat's apparatus for the determination of initial setting time is prescribed as
Explanation
Under IS 4031 (Part 5), the needle used in Vicat's apparatus for measuring the Initial Setting Time of cement is a 1 mm1\text{ mm} square (or 1.13 mm1.13\text{ mm} dia round) needle.
سیمنٹ کا ابتدائی سیٹنگ ٹائم معلوم کرنے کے لیے ویکاٹ اپریٹس میں 1 ملی میٹر کی سوئی استعمال ہوتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti
301📚🌱 Soil Mechanics & Geotechnical EngineeringTriaxial Shear Tests
In a triaxial compression test when drainage is allowed during the first stage (i.e. application of cell pressure) only and not during the second stage (i.e. application of deviator stress at constant cell pressure), the test is known as
Explanation
A triaxial test where consolidation (drainage) is permitted under confining cell pressure in Stage 1 and drainage valves are closed during shear (deviator stress) in Stage 2 is called a Consolidated Undrained (CU) test.
اس ٹیسٹ کو کنسولیڈیٹڈ ان ڈرینڈ (CU - Consolidated Undrained) ٹیسٹ کہا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti
302📚🌊 Irrigation & Water Resources EngineeringReservoir Storage Levels
Full Reservoir Level (FRL) is:
Explanation
Full Reservoir Level (FRL) represents the maximum conservation water level to which the storage surface will rise during normal operating conditions without spilling (Both A and C are synonymous).
فل ریزروائر لیول (FRL) معمول کے حالات میں ریزروائر کی زیادہ سے زیادہ پانی کی سطح کو ظاہر کرتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti
303📚🌱 Soil Mechanics & Dam EngineeringSeepage & Phreatic Line in Earthen Dams
The line in a dam section below which there are positive hydrostatic pressure within the dam?
Explanation
The Phreatic Line (also called Seepage Line or Saturation Line) is the top streamline of seepage through an earthen dam section along which pressure is atmospheric, and below which positive hydrostatic pore water pressure exists.
فریٹک لائن، سیپیج لائن یا سیچوریشن لائن وہ اوپری خط ہے جس کے نیچے مثبت ہائیڈروسٹیٹک دباؤ ہوتا ہے۔ (All of these)
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304📚General EnglishClimate Change & UNFCCC
Which country has been selected to host the "Loss and Damage" fund board aimed at supporting countries affected by climate change?
Explanation
The Philippines (Manila) was officially selected to host the Board of the 'Loss and Damage' Fund established under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) at COP28 to assist vulnerable nations facing climate disasters.
فلپائن (Philippines) کو موسمیاتی تبدیلیوں کے 'نقصان اور خسارے' (Loss and Damage) فنڈ بورڈ کی میزبانی کے لیے منتخب کیا گیا ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
305📚General EnglishDams & Multi-Purpose River Projects
Indira Sagar Dam located in Madhya Pradesh is built on which of the following river?
Explanation
Indira Sagar Dam is a multi-purpose project located in Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh, constructed on the Narmada River.
مدھیہ پردیش کا اندرا ساگر ڈیم دریائے نرمدا (Narmada) پر بنایا گیا ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
306📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
I saw ______ good deal of him during ______ war.
Explanation
The idiomatic quantitative phrase is 'a good deal of' (meaning a great deal/lot), and 'the war' refers to a specific known historical conflict. Correct: "I saw a good deal of him during the war."
صحیح آرٹیکلز: 'a' good deal of him during 'the' war (Option D)۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
307📚General EnglishCybersecurity & Email Encryption
Which of the following is used to protect email communication from unauthorized access?
Explanation
End-to-end Encryption (such as PGP/GPG and S/MIME) encodes email plaintext into ciphertext, protecting communication from interception and unauthorized reading.
ای میل مواصلات کو غیر مجاز رسائی سے محفوظ رکھنے کے لیے انکرپشن (Encryption) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
308📚General EnglishHydropower Projects in India & J&K
Consider the following hydropower projects with states where they are/have been installed:
1. Naitwar Mori Hydro Electric Project - Uttarakhand
2. Parbati Hydroelectric Project (III) - Himachal Pradesh
3. Ratle Hydroelectric Project - Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the above is/are correct?
Explanation
All three pairs are correct: 1. Naitwar Mori (60 MW60\text{ MW}) on Tons river in Uttarakhand, 2. Parbati Stage-III (520 MW520\text{ MW}) in Himachal Pradesh, 3. Ratle (850 MW850\text{ MW}) on Chenab river in Kishtwar, J&K. Option D (1, 2 & 3).
تینوں پن بجلی پروجیکٹس درست ہیں: نیتوار موری (اتراکھنڈ)، پربتی III (ہماچل پردیش)، اور رتلے (جموں و کشمیر - 1, 2 & 3)۔
2023JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
309📚General EnglishBridges & Strategic Infrastructure in J&K
Draj Bridge is situated in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
The 72 m72\text{ m} long Draj Bridge, constructed by Border Roads Organisation (BRO) over Draj Nallah on Rajouri-Kotranka-Budhal road, is located in the Rajouri district of Jammu and Kashmir.
دراج پل (Draj Bridge) بارڈر روڈز آرگنائزیشن کی طرف سے جموں و کشمیر کے ضلع راجوری (Rajouri) میں تعمیر کیا گیا ہے۔
2023JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
310📚Basic Concepts of ComputersHydropower Projects on Chenab
The Salal Hydroelectric Power Station is built across which river in Jammu and Kashmir (J&K)?
Explanation
The 690 MW690\text{ MW} Salal Hydroelectric Power Station is a run-of-the-river project built across the Chenab River near Reasi in Jammu and Kashmir.
سلالم ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک پاور اسٹیشن دریائے چناب (Chenab) پر ضلع ریاسی میں واقع ہے۔
2023JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
311📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.
The team worked tirelessly ‾\underline{\hspace{1cm}} the guidance of their coach to improve their performance ‾\underline{\hspace{1cm}} the challenging season.
Explanation
Standard idiomatic English uses 'under the guidance of' and 'during the challenging season'. Correct: "under, during".
رہنمائی کے لیے 'under the guidance' اور مدت کے لیے 'during the season' درست ہے۔ (under, during)
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
312📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KHydropower Projects in J&K
Salal Hydroelectric Project is situated in
Explanation
The Salal Hydroelectric Project (690 MW690\text{ MW}) is constructed on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
سلالم ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک پروجیکٹ جموں و کشمیر کے ضلع ریاسی میں دریائے چناب پر واقع ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
313📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KHydropower Projects on Chenab
The Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is situated in?
Explanation
The 624 MW624\text{ MW} Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is a run-of-the-river scheme being constructed on the Chenab River in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir by CVPPPL.
کیرو ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک پاور پروجیکٹ (Kiru Project) جموں و کشمیر کے ضلع کشتواڑ میں دریائے چناب پر زیر تعمیر ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
314📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityTunnels & Highways in India
India's longest road tunnel is
Explanation
The Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 in Jammu and Kashmir is India's longest bi-directional road tunnel, stretching 9.28 km9.28\text{ km} (5.8 miles5.8\text{ miles}).
شیاما پرساد مکھرجی ٹنل (چینانی-ناشری ٹنل - 9.28 کلومیٹر) ہندوستان کی سب سے لمبی روڈ ٹنل ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
315📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCybersecurity: Firewalls
What is computer firewall?
Explanation
A Firewall is a network security system (software or hardware) that monitors, filters, and blocks unauthorized incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
فائر وال ایک سیکیورٹی سسٹم ہے جو انٹرنیٹ نیٹ ورک اور کمپیوٹر کو غیر مجاز رسائی اور خطرات سے محفوظ رکھتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
316📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringTheory of Machines: Flywheels
The rotational speed of an automobile engine fluctuates between 210 rad/sec210\text{ rad/sec} and 190 rad/sec190\text{ rad/sec}. During a single cycle, there is an observed change in Kinetic Energy of 400 J. What is the mass inertia of the flywheel about its central axis, represented in kg-m2\text{kg-m}^2?
Explanation
Mean angular velocity ωmean=210+1902=200 rad/s\omega_{mean} = \frac{210 + 190}{2} = 200\text{ rad/s}. Fluctuation of energy ΔE=Iωmean(ω1−ω2)  ⟹  400=I×200×(210−190)=4000I  ⟹  I=4004000=0.10 kg⋅m2\Delta E = I \omega_{mean} (\omega_1 - \omega_2) \implies 400 = I \times 200 \times (210 - 190) = 4000 I \implies I = \frac{400}{4000} = 0.10\text{ kg}\cdot\text{m}^2.
فلائی وہیل کا ماس انرشا I=ΔEω(ω1−ω2)=400200×20=0.10 kg-m2I = \frac{\Delta E}{\omega (\omega_1 - \omega_2)} = \frac{400}{200 \times 20} = 0.10\text{ kg-m}^2 ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
317📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Casting Defects
Misruns and cold shuts in sand casting arise from:
Explanation
Misruns (incomplete cavity filling) and cold shuts (imperfect fusion of two metal streams) occur due to low pouring temperature, insufficient fluidity, or slow pouring rates.
کاسٹنگ میں مس رنز اور کولڈ شٹس پگھلی ہوئی دھات کا درجہ حرارت کم (Lower pouring temperature) ہونے کی وجہ سے پیدا ہوتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
318📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Technology: Chvorinov's Rule
The volume of a cube with side 'll' and the volume of a sphere with radius 'rr' are equal. Both the cube and sphere are composed of the same material and are being cast. What is the ratio of the solidification time of the cube to that of the sphere?
Explanation
According to Chvorinov's Rule: ts∝(VA)2t_s \propto \left(\frac{V}{A}\right)^2. Since Vcube=VsphereV_{cube} = V_{sphere}, the ratio of solidification times is \frac{t_{cube}}{t_{sphere}} = \left(\frac{A_{sphere}}{A_{cube}} ight)^2 = \left(\frac{4\pi r^2}{6 l^2}\right)^2 = \left(\frac{4\pi}{6}\right)^2 \left(\frac{r}{l}\right)^4.
چورینوف کے قانون کے تحت جمنے کے وقت کا تناسب: (4π6)2(rl)4\left(\frac{4\pi}{6}\right)^{2}\left(\frac{r}{l}\right)^{4} حاصل ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
319📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMetrology & Inspection: Optical Flats
Of what material are optical flats typically made?
Explanation
High-precision optical flats used for light-wave interferometry surface flatness testing are typically manufactured from high-purity fused silica (Quartz) due to its near-zero thermal expansion coefficient and exceptional hardness.
آپٹیکل فلیٹس عام طور پر کوارٹز (Quartz) سے بنائے جاتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
320📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: 5S Lean Manufacturing
Arrange the following steps in order to eliminate waste and enhance efficiency in lean manufacturing:
a. Seiso
b. Shitsuke
c. Seiri
d. Seiketsu
e. Seiton
Explanation
The 5S methodology sequence is: 1. Seiri (Sort - c), 2. Seiton (Set in order - e), 3. Seiso (Shine - a), 4. Seiketsu (Standardize - d), 5. Shitsuke (Sustain - b). Correct sequence: c, e, a, d, b.
5S طریقہ کار کی درست ترتیب: 1. سیری (c)، 2. سیتون (e)، 3. سیسو (a)، 4. سیکیتسو (d)، 5. شیتسوکے (b) یعنی c, e, a, d, b ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
321📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: CNC Machine Components
In modern CNC machine tools, the backlash has been eliminated by:
Explanation
Preloaded recirculating ball screws eliminate backlash and axial play between the screw and nut in CNC machines, ensuring high positioning accuracy and minimum friction.
جدید CNC مشینوں میں بیک لیش کو ختم کرنے کے لیے پری لوڈڈ بال اسکرو (Preloaded ball screws) استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
322📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMechanical Vibrations: Critical Damping
A mass of 1 kg is attached to the end of a spring with a stiffness 0.7 N/mm0.7\text{ N/mm}. The critical damping coefficient of this system will be:
Explanation
Stiffness k=0.7 N/mm=700 N/mk = 0.7\text{ N/mm} = 700\text{ N/m}, mass m=1 kgm = 1\text{ kg}. Critical damping coefficient cc=2km=2700×1=2×26.4575=52.92 N⋅s/mc_c = 2\sqrt{k m} = 2\sqrt{700 \times 1} = 2 \times 26.4575 = 52.92\text{ N}\cdot\text{s/m}.
کریٹیکل ڈیمپنگ کوایفیشینٹ cc=2km=2700×1=52.92 Ns/mc_c = 2\sqrt{km} = 2\sqrt{700 \times 1} = 52.92\text{ Ns/m} ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
323📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringRefrigeration & Air Conditioning: Refrigerants
A good refrigerant must have ________ specific heat when it is in liquid state and ________ specific heat when it is vaporized.
Explanation
An ideal refrigerant should have low specific heat of liquid (to minimize subcooling heat losses and flashing during throttling) and high specific heat / high latent heat of vapor (to maximize refrigeration effect per unit mass flow).
ایک اچھے ریفریجرنٹ میں مائع حالت میں کم مخصوص حرارت اور بخاراتی حالت میں زیادہ مخصوص حرارت (Low, high) ہونی چاہیے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
324📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMaterial Science: Mechanical Properties
When a material is able to resist fracture due to high impact load is called:
Explanation
Toughness is the mechanical property of a material that enables it to absorb energy and deform plastically without fracturing under sudden shock or high impact loading (measured by Charpy/Izod tests).
اچانک لگنے والے اثرات (Impact loads) کو برداشت کرنے اور ٹوٹنے سے بچنے کی مادی صلاحیت کو ٹفنس (Toughness) کہتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
325📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Technology: Welding Joints
In single V-butt welds, the angle between edges is:
Explanation
In standard single V-groove butt welding joints, the included groove angle between the prepared plate edges typically ranges from 60∘60^\circ to 70∘70^\circ to ensure complete joint penetration.
سنگل وی بٹ ویلڈنگ میں کناروں کے درمیان کا زاویہ 60∘60^\circ سے 70∘70^\circ رکھا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
326📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Investment Casting
The pattern used in investment casting is:
Explanation
Investment casting (also known as the lost-wax casting process) utilizes patterns made of Wax (or expandable polystyrene) which melt and drain out when the ceramic shell mold is heated.
انویسٹمنٹ کاسٹنگ (Lost wax process) میں موم (Wax) کے پیٹرن استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
327📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Evaporative Pattern Casting
While using the disposable pattern, the metal should be poured:
Explanation
In full-mold / evaporative / disposable pattern casting (lost foam), molten metal must be poured rapidly to vaporize the foam pattern completely and prevent premature freezing or entrapment of pyrolysis residues.
ڈسپوزیبل پیٹرن کاسٹنگ میں پگھلی ہوئی دھات کو انتہائی تیزی سے (Very rapidly) ڈالا جانا چاہیے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
328📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMetrology: Comparators & Gauges
The dimension of bore 14.67mm in a workpiece is measured using:
Explanation
Pneumatic comparators/gauges (e.g. Solex air gauges) are high-precision non-contact instruments widely used for measuring fine internal cylinder/bore diameters with sub-micron accuracy.
بور کی باریک پیمائش کے لیے نیومیٹک گیج (Pneumatic gauge) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
329📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringThermodynamics: Heat and Work Interactions
Heat and work are:
Explanation
Heat (QQ) and Work (WW) are energy interactions in transit across a system boundary; they depend on the path followed during a process and are inexact differentials (Path functions, not thermodynamic state properties).
حرارت اور کام پاتھ فنکشنز (Path functions) ہیں، اسٹیٹ پراپرٹیز نہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
330📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Casting Defects
Match the casting defects (Group A) with the probable causes (Group B):
Group A: 1. Cold Shut, 2. Shrinkage, 3. Blow holes, 4. Hot tears
Group B: P. Wide range of solidification temperature / contraction resistance, Q. Low permeability of the sand mould, R. Volumetric contraction both in liquid and solid stage, S. Improper fusion of two streams of liquid metal
Explanation
Cold Shut = Improper fusion of liquid streams (1-S); Blow holes = Trapped gases due to low mould permeability (3-Q); Shrinkage = Volumetric contraction during freezing (2-R); Hot tears = Severe thermal contraction stresses / wide solidification range (4-P). Match: 1-S, 3-Q, 2-R, 4-P.
کاسٹنگ کے نقائص کا درست ملاپ: 1-S، 3-Q، 2-R، 4-P ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
331📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Product-Process Mapping
Match the following products with preferred manufacturing processes:
Group A (Products): I. Rails, II. Engine crankshaft, III. Aluminium channels, IV. PET water bottles
Group B (Manufacturing Processes): P. Blow molding, Q. Extrusion, R. Forging, S. Rolling
Explanation
Railway Rails = Hot Rolling (I-S); Engine Crankshaft = Drop Forging (II-R); Aluminium Channels = Forward Hot Extrusion (III-Q); PET Water Bottles = Stretch Blow Molding (IV-P). Match: I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P.
مصنوعات اور مینوفیکچرنگ پروسیسز کا درست ملاپ: I-S، II-R، III-Q، IV-P ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
332📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Gating Systems
A gating ratio 1:2:4 is used to design the gating system for magnesium alloy casting. This gating system refers to the cross-section areas of the various gating elements as given below:
1. Down sprue
2. Runner bar
3. Ingate
The correct sequence of the above elements in the ratio 1:2:4 is:
Explanation
Gating ratio is standardly defined as Asprue:Arunner:AingateA_{sprue} : A_{runner} : A_{ingate}. An unpressurized ratio of 1:2:4 corresponds directly to 1 (Down sprue) : 2 (Runner bar) : 3 (Ingate).
گیٹنگ ریشو As:Ar:Ag=1:2:4A_s : A_r : A_g = 1:2:4 کا مطلب ہے ڈاؤن اسپرو، رنر بار اور ان گیٹ (1، 2 اور 3)۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
333📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMetrology: Surface Metrology & Gauges
Match the correct pairs between List-I and List-II:
List-I: P. Talysurf, Q. Telescopic gauge, R. Transfer callipers, S. Autocollimator
List-II: 1. T-slot, 2. Flatness / Straightness, 3. Internal diameter, 4. Roughness
Explanation
Talysurf = Surface roughness measurement (P-4); Telescopic gauge = Internal bore diameter (Q-3); Transfer calipers = Measuring recessed features/T-slots (R-1); Autocollimator = Straightness/flatness testing (S-2). Match: P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2.
پیمائشی آلات کا درست ملاپ: P-4، Q-3، R-1، S-2 ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
334📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: CNC Motion Control
NC contouring is an example of following positioning:
Explanation
Contouring in Numerical Control (NC) involves synchronized, simultaneous multi-axis interpolated motion along curved profile boundaries, representing a Continuous Path control system.
NC کنٹورنگ مسلسل پاتھ (Continuous path) پوزیشننگ کی مثال ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
335📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: Group Technology & Cellular Manufacturing
Consider the following statements:
P. Computer aided process planning (CAPP) takes input from material requirement plan (MRP).
Q. Production flow analysis helps in work cell formation.
R. Group technology takes input from choice of machining or cutting parameters.
Among the above statements, the correct one(s) is (are):
Explanation
Production Flow Analysis (PFA) developed by Burbidge analyzes routing sheets to group part families and machines into manufacturing work cells for cellular manufacturing. Thus, statement Q is correct.
پروڈکشن فلو اینالائسس (PFA) مینوفیکچرنگ ورک سیلز کی تشکیل میں مدد دیتا ہے (Q درست ہے)۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
336📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringFluid Mechanics: Flow Measurement
The Venturi meter is based on the principle of:
Explanation
A Venturi meter measures discharge/flow rate in a pipe by accelerating the fluid through a converging throat constriction, creating a measurable differential pressure drop according to Bernoulli's principle.
وینچوری میٹر تنگ راستے میں پیدا ہونے والے پریشر کے فرق (Pressure difference in constriction) کی بنیاد پر کام کرتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
337📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Arc Welding
TIG welding stands for:
Explanation
TIG welding stands for Tungsten Inert Gas welding (also designated Gas Tungsten Arc Welding or GTAW), which uses a non-consumable tungsten electrode and an inert shielding gas (Argon/Helium).
TIG ویلڈنگ کا مکمل نام ٹنگسٹن انرٹ گیس (Tungsten Inert Gas) ویلڈنگ ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
338📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMachining & Machine Tools: Chip Formation
The material removed during machining is called:
Explanation
In metal cutting and machining terminology, the waste metallic debris and chips produced during cutting operations are formally termed Swarf (or chips).
مشیننگ کے دوران کٹ کر الگ ہونے والے میٹل کے ٹکڑوں کو سوارف (Swarf / Chips) کہتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
339📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Casting Defects
A common defect in casting caused by improper mold compaction is called:
Explanation
Improper/uneven mould compaction and ramming leads to localized sand permeability variations, causing gas entrapment, pinholes, and mould surface porosity defects.
مولڈ کی نامناسب کمپیکشن کے باعث گیسوں کے پھنس جانے سے پوروسٹی (Porosity) کا نقص پیدا ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
340📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: Fundamentals
CAM refers to:
Explanation
CAM stands for Computer-Aided Manufacturing, which uses specialized software and automated computer-controlled machinery (CNC/DNC) to plan, manage, and execute manufacturing operations.
CAM کا مطلب کمپیوٹر ایڈیڈ مینوفیکچرنگ (Computer-Aided Manufacturing) ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
341📚General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Halogens & Bleaching
Bleaching action of chlorine is by
Explanation
Chlorine bleaches in the presence of moisture through Oxidation: Chlorine reacts with water to release nascent oxygen (\text{Cl}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} → 2\text{HCl} + [\text{O}]), which oxidizes and decolourizes organic colouring matter permanently.
کلورین کا بلیچنگ ایکشن آکسیڈیشن (Oxidation - نوزائیدہ آکسیجن کے اخراج) کے ذریعے عمل میں آتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBVarious Departments
342📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electrical Instruments
Which device is used to measure the potential difference between two points in an electric circuit?
Explanation
A Voltmeter is an electrical measuring instrument connected in parallel across two circuit points to measure the electric potential difference (voltage) in Volts.
سرکٹ کے دو پوائنٹس کے درمیان پوٹینشل ڈفرنس ناپنے کے لیے وولٹ میٹر (Voltmeter) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBVarious Departments
343📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Respiratory System
During respiration exchange of gases take place in
Explanation
In human respiratory anatomy, the exchange of oxygen (O2\text{O}_2) and carbon dioxide (CO2\text{CO}_2) occurs across the thin, vascularized walls of microscopic air sacs called Alveoli in the lungs via simple diffusion.
سانس کے عمل کے دوران گیسوں کا تبادلہ پھیپھڑوں کے ایلوولی (Alveoli of lungs) میں ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBVarious Departments
344📚General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Rights: Right to Education (Art 21A)
Article 21A of the Indian Constitution provides Right to
Explanation
Article 21A, inserted into Part III of the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002), establishes free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for all children aged 6 to 14 years.
آئین ہند کی دفعہ 21A بچوں کے لیے مفت اور لازمی تعلیم کے بنیادی حق (Right to Education) کی ضمانت دیتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBVarious Departments
345📚Basic EnglishHomophones & Vocabulary Usage
Which of the following sentence is/are correct?
I. The robbers' seas the money in the bank.
II. Tina seas three geese in the pond.
III. The sailor travelled the deep seas during the voyage.
Explanation
In Sentence I, 'seas' is misused instead of 'seize'. In Sentence II, 'seas' is misused instead of 'sees'. Sentence III correctly uses the noun 'seas' (ocean bodies). Thus, only III is correct.
صرف جملہ III درست ہے جہاں لفظ 'seas' (سمندر) کا درست استعمال ہوا ہے۔
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346📚General Awareness & ScienceTourism Icons of Kashmir
A traditional Gondola type lightweight rowing boat ride which is famous of the Dal Lake in Kashmir is referred to as
Explanation
The Shikara is a traditional wooden cultural boat of Kashmir, famously used for scenic rides, floating markets, and transport across Dal Lake and Nigeen Lake in Srinagar.
ڈل جھیل میں روایتی خوبصورت کشتی کی سواری کو شکارا رائیڈ (Shikara ride) کہا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBVarious Departments
347📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Scientific Instruments
Consider the following statement(s) is/are related to the device of Ammeter:
I: It is a measuring device used to measure the current in a circuit.
II: It is a measuring device used to measure the altitude of an object above a fixed level.
Which of following statement(s) is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: An Ammeter is an electrical instrument connected in series to measure electric current in Amperes. Statement II describes an Altimeter, not an ammeter. Thus, only Statement I is correct.
صرف بیان I درست ہے کیونکہ ایم میٹر برقی رو (Current) ناپتا ہے، اونچائی ناپنے والا آلہ الٹی میٹر کہلاتا ہے۔
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348📚General Awareness & ScienceDemocratic Principles & Political Thinkers
Who defined democracy as a form of Government of the people, for the people and by the people?
Explanation
Abraham Lincoln, the 16th President of the United States, immortalized this definition of democracy during his historic Gettysburg Address in November 1863.
جمہوریت کی یہ مشہور تعریف ابراہم لنکن (Abraham Lincoln) نے اپنے خطبہ گیٹس برگ میں پیش کی تھی۔
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349📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Vitamins and Deficiency Diseases
Excessive bleeding during an injury is a deficiency of
Explanation
Vitamin K (phylloquinone) is an essential cofactor required for the hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation clotting factors (prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X); its deficiency leads to impaired blood clotting and prolonged hemorrhaging.
چوٹ لگنے پر خون کا مسلسل بہنا وٹامن K (Vitamin K) کی کمی کی علامت ہے۔
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350📚General Awareness & ScienceChemistry / Materials: Properties of Metals
Which one of the following mechanical properties enables a metal to be made into thin sheets?
Explanation
Malleability is the mechanical property of metals that allows them to be hammered, rolled, or pressed into thin foils and sheets without fracturing (e.g. Gold, Aluminium). (Ductility enables drawing into wires).
دھات کو کوٹ کر پتلی چادروں میں تبدیل کرنے کی خاصیت کو ملیبلٹی (Malleability) کہتے ہیں۔
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351📚General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Duties (Part IVA)
Fundamental duties are mentioned in
Explanation
Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part-IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution of India, incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
بنیادی فرائض آئین ہند کے حصہ IVA (دفعہ 51A) میں درج ہیں۔
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352📚Basic ReasoningLetter Analogy
Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
EGJ:JLO :: ________ :TVY?
Explanation
Pattern is +5+5 to each letter: E(+5)=J, G(+5)=L, J(+5)=O. Working backwards from TVY by subtracting 5: T(-5)=O, V(-5)=Q, Y(-5)=T   ⟹  \implies OQT.
حروف میں 5 کا اضافہ کیا گیا ہے۔ الٹا کرنے پر TVY سے OQT بنتا ہے۔
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353📚General Awareness & ScienceFundamentals of Ecology
Ecology deals with
Explanation
Ecology (from Greek 'oikos' meaning house) is the branch of biology that studies the interactions and interrelationships between living organisms and their abiotic/biotic environment.
ایکولوجی کا تعلق جانداروں اور ان کے ماحول کے باہمی تعلقات کے مطالعے سے ہے۔
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354📚General Awareness & ScienceEconomic Nationalism & Drain of Wealth
The theory of economic drain of India during British imperialism was propounded by
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji (the 'Grand Old Man of India') first formulated and popularized the 'Drain of Wealth' theory in his landmark book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (1901).
ہندوستان سے دولت کی غیر ملکی منتقلی کا نظریہ (Drain of Wealth) دادا بھائی نوروجی نے پیش کیا۔
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355📚General Awareness & ScienceBhakti Movement & Contemporary Rulers
Tulsidas, the author of Ramcharitmanas, was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?
Explanation
Goswami Tulsidas (1532–1623 CE), who composed the epic Awadhi poem 'Ramcharitmanas', lived during the 16th century reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.
رام چرت مانس کے مصنف گوسوامی تلسی داس مغل شہنشاہ اکبر کے ہم عصر تھے۔
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356📚General Awareness & ScienceNational Song vs National Anthem
The National Song of India was written and composed by
Explanation
The National Song of India, 'Vande Mataram', was written in Sanskritized Bengali by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his 1882 novel 'Anandamath'. (The National Anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' was composed by Rabindranath Tagore).
قومی گیت 'وندے ماترم' بنکم چندر چٹرجی نے اپنی ناول آنند مٹھ میں لکھا تھا۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
357📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Sound Waves & Units
What is the unit for measuring the amplitude of a sound?
Explanation
The amplitude, sound pressure level, and loudness of acoustic sound waves are measured on a logarithmic scale in Decibels (dB).
آواز کی بلندی اور وسعت (Amplitude) ناپنے کی اکائی ڈیسی بل (Decibel - dB) ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
358📚General Awareness & ScienceDogri Language & Literature
Who is known as "Father of Dogri"?
Explanation
Prof. Ram Nath Shastri is universally revered as the 'Father of Dogri' for his pioneering efforts in founding the Dogri Sanstha in 1944 and securing national recognition for the Dogri language.
پروفیسر رام ناتھ شاستری کو ڈوگری زبان کی ترویج و ترقی کی وجہ سے 'بابائے ڈوگری' کہا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
359📚General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Folk Dance: Rouf
On occasion of Eid, and during Ramzan, Kashmiri women performos
Explanation
Rouf is the quintessential traditional Kashmiri women's folk dance performed in facing rows with rhythmic footwork to celebrate festive occasions like Eid, spring festivals, and weddings.
عید اور رمضان کے پرمسرت مواقع پر کشمیری خواتین روایتی 'روف' (Rouf) رقص پیش کرتی ہیں۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
360📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Title Identification
Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

Select best title for the above passage
Explanation
The entire passage focuses on Avinash's ambition, dedication, and journey in conceptualizing and developing his dream video game alongside supportive colleagues.
عبارت کا مرکزی خیال اویناش کے اپنے خوابیدہ ویڈیو گیم کو حقیقت بنانے پر مبنی ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
361📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Direct Facts
Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

What did Avinash and his colleagues do to secure funding for their game?
Explanation
The text explicitly states: "...they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality."
عبارت کے مطابق انہوں نے فنڈنگ کے لیے کک اسٹارٹر مہم (Kickstarter campaign) کا آغاز کیا۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
362📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Direct Facts
Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

How did Avinash balance his job and game project?
Explanation
The text mentions: "Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization..."
اویناش نے ملازمت کے ساتھ اپنے فالتو وقت (Spare time) کو پروجیکٹ کے لیے وقف کیا۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
363📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Vocabulary & Antonyms
Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

What is the opposite of the word: meticulously
Explanation
'Meticulously' means with great attention to detail, precision, and thoroughness. Its direct opposite is 'Sloppily' (carelessly, untidily).
'Meticulously' (نہایت احتیاط اور باریک بینی سے) کا متضاد لفظ 'Sloppily' (لاپرواہی اور بے ترتیبی سے) ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
364📚General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Folk Theatre: Bhand Pather
BhandPather is a traditional ________ of the region of Kashmir.
Explanation
Bhand Pather is a centuries-old traditional satirical folk theatre and dance-drama form of the Kashmir Valley, performed by traditional folk artists called Bhands.
بانڈ پاتھر (Bhand Pather) وادی کشمیر کا روایتی ڈرامائی اور طنزیہ لوک تھیٹر (Dance drama) ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
365📚General Awareness & ScienceWestern Disturbances & Winter Weather in Kashmir
The Kashmir region receives an additional amount of precipitation during the winter brought by which of the following?
Explanation
Winter precipitation (heavy snowfall and rain) across the Kashmir Himalayas is caused by Western Disturbances, which are extratropical cyclonic weather systems originating over the Mediterranean Sea.
کشمیر میں موسم سرما کی برف باری اور بارشیں مغربی ہوائی خلل یعنی ویسٹرن ڈسٹربنس (Western Disturbances) کی وجہ سے ہوتی ہیں۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
366📚General Awareness & ScienceTourist Destinations in J&K
In which district of Jammu and Kashmir, is the famous hill station Doodhpathri, also known as the Valley of Milk, located?
Explanation
Doodhpathri ('Valley of Milk'), a picturesque alpine meadow and hill resort nestled in the Pir Panjal range, is situated in the Budgam district of the Kashmir Valley.
مشہور صحت افزا مقام دودھ پتھری جموں و کشمیر کے ضلع بڈگام (Budgam) میں واقع ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
367📚Basic ReasoningLetter-Number Analogy
876 : TSR :: 345 : ______
Explanation
Letters encoded in order: 8=T(20), 7=S(19), 6=R(18) (alphabet sequence moving backwards). For 3, 4, 5, the ascending consecutive three-letter block is PQR (or related sequence).
حروف کی ترتیب کے مطابق 345 کا کوڈ PQR بنتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
368📚General Awareness & ScienceNutrition & Mineral Absorption
Too much consumption of tea or coffee can result in deficiency of-
Explanation
High intake of tannins and caffeine in excessive tea and coffee impairs intestinal absorption and increases urinary excretion of Calcium and Iron.
چائے اور کافی کا حد سے زیادہ استعمال کیلشیم (Calcium) اور آئرن کے جذب ہونے میں رکاوٹ بنتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
369📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Excretory Products
All of the following are excretory (waste) products of animals, except
Explanation
Carbohydrates are essential metabolic macronutrient energy fuels, whereas Urea, Uric acid, and Ammonia are cellular metabolic nitrogenous excretory wastes.
کاربوہائیڈریٹس غذائی توانائی کا ذریعہ ہیں، اخراجی فضلہ (Excretory waste) نہیں ہیں۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
370📚General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Redox Reactions
When a substance loses oxygen during a reaction, it is called ...
Explanation
In classical redox chemistry, the loss of oxygen (or gain of hydrogen / gain of electrons) by a substance during a chemical reaction is termed Reduction.
کیمیائی عمل کے دوران آکسیجن کا خارج ہونا ریڈکشن (Reduction) کہلاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
371📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electric Safety & Short Circuits
When the short circuit condition occurs, the current in the circuit:
Explanation
During a short circuit fault, live and neutral wires come in direct zero-resistance contact, causing the circuit electric current to increase abruptly and substantially according to Ohm's Law (I = V/R → \infty).
شارٹ سرکٹ کی حالت میں سرکٹ کے اندر برقی رو بے پناہ بڑھ جاتی ہے (Increases substantially)۔
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372📚General Awareness & ScienceForest Ecology & Monoculture
Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest in
Explanation
Extensive colonial commercial Teak monoculture plantations replaced complex multi-species moist deciduous forests in South India (Western Ghats), reducing native biodiversity.
ساگون (Teak) کی یک فصلہ کاشت نے جنوبی ہندوستان (South India) کے قدرتی جنگلات کو نقصان پہنچایا ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
373📚General Awareness & ScienceEarth's Revolution & Seasons
The tilting of the earth is responsible for
Explanation
The permanent 23.5∘23.5^\circ axial tilt of Earth relative to its orbital plane during its annual revolution around the Sun is the primary cause for the Cycle of Seasons.
زمین کا اپنے محور پر جھکاؤ (23.5∘23.5^\circ) موسموں کی تبدیلی (Change of the season) کا اصل سبب ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
374📚General Awareness & ScienceSectors of Indian Economy
Consider the following pairs:
1. Primary — a. Banking
2. Secondary — b. Car manufacturing
3. Tertiary — c. Fishing
Which of the following pair is correct?
Explanation
Primary Sector = Fishing (1c), Secondary Sector = Car manufacturing (2b), Tertiary Sector = Banking (3a)   ⟹  \implies 1c, 2b, 3a.
معیشت کے شعبے: پرائمری (ماہی گیری - 1c)، سیکنڈری (گاڑی سازی - 2b)، ٹرشری (بینکنگ - 3a)۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
375📚General Awareness & ScienceElectoral Systems: FPTP
In the First Past the Post System, that candidate is declared winner who:
Explanation
Under the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP / Simple Plurality) electoral system used in Lok Sabha elections, the candidate securing more votes than any other individual rival in that single constituency is declared elected.
فرسٹ پاسٹ دی پوسٹ سسٹم میں وہ امیدوار جیتتا ہے جو حلقے میں دیگر تمام امیدواروں سے زیادہ ووٹ حاصل کرے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
376📚General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Rights during Emergency (Arts 20 & 21)
Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?
Explanation
By virtue of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
دفعہ 20 اور دفعہ 21 (زندگی اور ذاتی آزادی کا حق) کو ایمرجنسی کے دوران بھی معطل نہیں کیا جا سکتا۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
377📚General Awareness & ScienceSwaran Singh Committee & Fundamental Duties
Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
Explanation
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, resulting in the enactment of Part IVA (Article 51A) by the 42nd Amendment.
سورن سنگھ کمیٹی کی سفارش پر آئین ہند میں بنیادی فرائض شامل کیے گئے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
378📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KAsian Games 2023: Indian Medalists
Kiran Baliyan won which medal in which game, at the Asian Games 2023?
Explanation
Kiran Baliyan won the Bronze medal in Women's Shot Put with a throw of 17.36m at the 19th Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, securing India's first medal in women's shot put in 72 years.
کرن بالیان نے ایشین گیمز 2023 میں خواتین کے شاٹ پٹ (Shot put) میں کانسے کا تمغہ (Bronze medal) جیتا۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
379📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMiddle East Geopolitics in News
Who is the military commander of Hamas's military wing during the Israel-Hamas 2023 conflict?
Explanation
Mohammed Deif was the supreme military commander of the Izz ad-Din al-Qassam Brigades, the military wing of Hamas.
حماس کے عسکری ونگ (القسام بریگیڈز) کے کمانڈر محمد ضیف تھے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
380📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus Methodology & Data Collection
Which of the following information is NOT collected during the census in India?
Explanation
The Indian Population Census collects socio-demographic data including age, marital status, education, occupation, and religion, but does NOT ask for or record individual monthly salary/income.
ہندوستان کی مردم شماری میں فرد کی ماہانہ تنخواہ یا آمدنی (Salary per month) کی معلومات جمع نہیں کی جاتیں۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
381📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KDistricts of Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the following is a district in Jammu and Kashmir Union Territory?
Explanation
Reasi is one of the 20 administrative revenue districts in J&K UT (home to the Mata Vaishno Devi shrine and Chenab Rail Bridge). Kargil is in Ladakh UT; Gulmarg and Pahalgam are tehsils/tourist towns.
ریاسی (Reasi) جموں و کشمیر کا ایک باقاعدہ انتظامی ضلع ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
382📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIncome Tax Act: Types of Assessees
A private university named "Kaushal University" is assessable under the income tax act as
Explanation
Under Section 2(31) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, universities, bar councils, and statutory corporations that do not fall under individuals, HUFs, companies, or firms are assessed as an 'Artificial Juridical Person'.
انکم ٹیکس ایکٹ کے تحت نجی یونیورسٹی کو 'Artificial Juridical Person' کے طور پر اسیس کیا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
383📚General Intelligence & ReasoningNumber Series: Alternate Series
9, __, 18, 28, 27, 21, 36, 14
Explanation
Interleaved series: First series (odd terms): 9,18,27,369, 18, 27, 36 (+9+9). Second series (even terms): x,28,21,14x, 28, 21, 14 (−7-7). Working backwards: x=28+7=35x = 28 + 7 = 35.
دوسرا متبادل سلسلہ 7 کی کمی ظاہر کرتا ہے: 28+7=3528 + 7 = 35۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
384📚Knowledge of ComputersHardware Fundamentals: CPU Architecture
What is the primary function of a Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
Explanation
The Central Processing Unit (CPU), the 'brain' of the computer, is primarily responsible for fetching, decoding, and executing program instructions and performing arithmetic/logical calculations.
سی پی یو (CPU) کا بنیادی کام ہدایات پر عمل درآمد (Execution of instructions) کرنا ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
385📚Knowledge of ComputersCybersecurity: Antivirus Protection
Which type of software is designed to protect a computer from viruses and malware?
Explanation
Antivirus and anti-malware software detects, quarantines, and removes malicious software programs (viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware) from computer systems.
اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر کمپیوٹر کو وائرس اور نقصان دہ میلویئر سے محفوظ رکھتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
386📚Knowledge of ComputersDatabase Concepts: Primary Keys
What is a primary key in MS Access?
Explanation
In relational databases and MS Access, a Primary Key is a field or combination of fields that uniquely identifies each individual record/row in a table, ensuring entity integrity.
پرائمری کی (Primary Key) ٹیبل میں ہر ریکارڈ کی منفرد شناخت (Unique identifier) ہوتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
387📚Knowledge of ComputersMS PowerPoint Fundamentals
What is the term used for a single slide in a PowerPoint presentation?
Explanation
In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation software, an individual presentation page displayed on the screen is called a Slide.
پاور پوائنٹ پریزنٹیشن کے ایک صفحے کو سلائیڈ (Slide) کہا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
388📚Knowledge of ComputersVirus Objectives & Impacts
Which of the following is NOT a common objective of computer viruses?
Explanation
Spreading awareness about online security is the goal of ethical cybersecurity educators, whereas computer viruses maliciously delete files, steal data, and degrade performance.
آن لائن سیکیورٹی سے متعلق شعور بیدار کرنا وائرس کا مقصد نہیں بلکہ سیکیورٹی ماہرین کا کام ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
389📚Knowledge of ComputersAntivirus Products & Vendors
Which of the following is a well-known antivirus software developed by Symantec?
Explanation
Norton Antivirus is the flagship cybersecurity and antivirus product developed and marketed by Symantec Corporation (now Gen Digital).
نارٹن اینٹی وائرس (Norton Antivirus) سائمنٹیک (Symantec) کا مشہور اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
390📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KDams and Reservoirs of Indus Basin
With reference to the Dams and Rivers, consider the following pairs:
1. Gobind Sagar Reservoir — Satluj
2. Maharana Pratap Sagar Reservoir — Beas
3. Chamera Dam — Ravi
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
All three Himalayan hydroelectric reservoirs are correctly paired: Gobind Sagar (Bhakra Dam) is on the Satluj River (1); Maharana Pratap Sagar (Pong Dam) is on the Beas River (2); Chamera Dam is on the Ravi River in Chamba, HP (3). All 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
تینوں ڈیم اور دریا درست میچ ہیں: گوبند ساگر (ستلج)، مہارانا پرتاپ ساگر (بیاس)، چمیرا ڈیم (راوی)۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
391📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIslands & Volcanism in India
Two volcanic islands in Indian territory are
Explanation
Barren Island (India's only active volcano) and Narcondam Island (a dormant volcanic island) are both located in the Andaman Sea within Indian sovereign territory.
ہندوستان کی سرزمین میں دو آتش فشانی جزیرے نارکوندم (خوابیدہ) اور بیرن آئی لینڈ (فعال) ہیں۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
392📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KP20 Parliamentary Forum
Consider the following statements:
1. P20 is a congregation of Presidents of G20 nations.
2. The P20 group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is false: P20 is the Parliamentary Speakers' Summit (congregation of Speakers/Presiding Officers of Parliaments, not heads of state). Statement 2 is true: The P20 was inaugurated in 2010 under Canada's G20 presidency. Thus, 2 only is correct.
P20 پارلیمانی اسپیکروں کی کانفرنس ہے (نہ کہ صدور کی) جس کا آغاز کینیڈا کی صدارت میں 2010 میں ہوا، لہذا صرف بیان 2 درست ہے۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
393📚General EnglishDev Dynasty Rulers of Jammu
Which ruler of the Dev Dynasty defeated Mahmud of Ghazni with the combined strength of Jammu hill chiefs?
Explanation
According to Dogra chronicles and the Rajdarshani, Raja Bhuj Dev of Jammu united the hill chieftains and inflicted a defeat on Ghaznavid forces during one of their northern expeditions.
راج درشنی کے مطابق راجہ بھوج دیو (Bhuj Dev) نے جموں کے پہاڑی سرداروں کے ساتھ مل کر غزنوی فوجوں کا مقابلہ کیا۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
394📚General EnglishUdhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL)
What percentage of the 48-km railway line between Banihal to Sangaldan passes through tunnels?
Explanation
Out of the 48.1 km Banihal-Sangaldan USBRL section commissioned by Indian Railways, 43.37 km is constructed through 16 tunnels—representing approximately 90% (89.8%) of the entire track alignment.
بانہال-سنگلدان ریلوے سیکشن کا تقریباً 90 فیصد (43.37 کلومیٹر) ٹریک سرنگوں (Tunnels) سے گزرتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
395📚General EnglishUSBRL Project Milestones: Banihal-Qazigund
When was the Banihal-Qazigund section of the railway project inaugurated?
Explanation
The historic 18-km Banihal-Qazigund railway section (featuring the 11.2 km Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel T-80) was officially inaugurated and opened for public train traffic on 26 June 2013.
بانہال-قاضی گنڈ ریلوے ٹریک اور پیر پنجال سرنگ کا افتتاح جون 2013 میں کیا گیا تھا۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
396📚General EnglishNational Highways of J&K (NH 44)
Which of the following national highways passes through Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
National Highway 44 (NH 44, the longest national highway in India running from Srinagar to Kanyakumari) is the primary arterial highway passing through J&K. (NH-1 also connects Srinagar to Uri and Leh).
قومی شاہراہ 44 (NH-44) سری نگر سے کنیا کماری تک جموں و کشمیر سے گزرنے والی اہم ترین ہائی وے ہے۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
397📚General EnglishKashmiri Poets: Mahjoor and Habba Khatoon
Consider the following statements:
1. Mahjoor (Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor) was a 16th-Century Kashmiri poetess known for her romantic and mystical poetry.
2. Habba Khatoon was a prominent 20th Century Kashmiri poet known for his nationalist and romantic poetry of mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Explanation
Both statements have identities and centuries swapped: Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor was a revolutionary 20th-century male poet ('Shair-e-Kashmir'), while Habba Khatoon ('Nightingale of Kashmir') was a 16th-century poetess and queen of Yousuf Shah Chak. Thus, Both 1 and 2 are NOT correct.
دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں کیونکہ مہجور 20ویں صدی کے قومی شاعر تھے اور حبہ خاتون 16ویں صدی کی ملکہ اور شاعرہ تھیں (Both 1 and 2 are NOT correct)۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
398📚General Intelligence & ReasoningPrepositions
Fill in the blank with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below:
We should prevent damage _____ and theft of public property.
Explanation
The noun 'damage' takes the preposition 'to' (damage to public property): "We should prevent damage to and theft of public property."
لفظ 'damage' کے ساتھ پریپوزیشن 'to' آتی ہے: "damage to public property".
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
399📚General Intelligence & ReasoningAntivirus Software
McAfee is an example of
Explanation
McAfee is a globally renowned cybersecurity company and antivirus software program designed to detect and eradicate malware.
میکافی (McAfee) اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر کی مثال ہے۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
400📚General Intelligence & ReasoningCell Referencing: Relative vs Absolute
In MS Excel, which of the following is an absolute cell reference?
Explanation
In Microsoft Excel, placing dollar signs before both the column letter and row number (AA1) creates an Absolute Cell Reference that locks the coordinates during formula autofill.
ایم ایس ایکسل میں ایبسولیوٹ سیل ریفرنس کے لیے کا نشان (A\USD 1) استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
401📚General Intelligence & ReasoningInput Devices: Joystick
For what purpose, the joystick is used?
Explanation
A Joystick is an input pointing device featuring a pivoting stick used predominantly for flight simulators and computer gaming control.
جوائے اسٹک بنیادی طور پر کمپیوٹر گیمنگ (Computer gaming) کے لیے استعمال ہوتی ہے۔
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402📚Basic MathematicsAnalogy: Biological & Nutritional Relationships
Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term:
Body : Vitamin :: Crop : ?
Explanation
Vitamins are vital supplementary nutrients required for the healthy growth and nourishment of the human Body; similarly, Fertilizers are essential supplementary nutrients applied to nourish and grow agricultural Crops.
جس طرح جسم کو وٹامن کی ضرورت ہوتی ہے، اسی طرح فصل کو کھاد (Fertilizer) کی ضرورت ہوتی ہے۔
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403📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActSpeed Limits and Accident Prevention
Reduction of traffic speed can be effective in reducing
Explanation
Calibrating and reducing traffic speed significantly reduces vehicle stopping distance and collision energy, drastically lowering the Number of crashes, injuries, and fatalities.
گاڑی کی رفتار کم رکھنے سے سڑک حادثات (Number of crashes) میں نمایاں کمی واقع ہوتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments
404📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActDuties of Driver in Road Accidents (Section 134)
What must you do when any property of a third party is damaged due to an accident?
Explanation
Under Section 134(b) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the driver must report the accident and third-party property damage to the nearest police station within 24 hours.
حادثے میں تیسرے فریق کا نقصان ہونے پر ڈرائیور کو 24 گھنٹے کے اندر قریبی تھانے میں رپورٹ کرنا لازمی ہے۔
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405📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActOvertaking Signals
A driver moving their hand in a forward sweeping motion represents:
Explanation
Extending the right arm below shoulder level and waving it forward and backward gives clear permission to following vehicles behind to safely overtake.
پیچھے آنے والی گاڑی کو اوورٹیک کرنے کی اجازت دینے کا اشارہ۔
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406📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActFlashing Amber Light Rules
Approaching an intersection where the yellow signal light is blinking, you should
Explanation
A flashing amber/yellow signal light requires drivers to slow down, look in all directions, and proceed with caution only after ensuring the intersection is clear and safe.
پیلے رنگ کی ٹمٹماتی بتی پر رفتار دھیمی کریں اور سڑک محفوظ ہونے کی تسلی کر کے احتیاط سے آگے بڑھیں۔
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407📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActComponents of a Map
Among (i) Distance, (ii) Direction, and (iii) Symbol, which are the components of a map?
Explanation
In basic cartography, there are three fundamental essential components of every map: 1. Distance (Scale), 2. Direction (Cardinal orientation / Compass rose), and 3. Symbols (Conventional signs).
نقشے کے تین بنیادی اجزاء فاصلہ، سمت اور علامات (i, ii, iii) سبھی شامل ہیں۔
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408📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActSpeed Limit Signs
A circular speed sign with the number "50" enclosed in a red circle represents:
Explanation
A circular sign featuring a number inside a red border specifies the Maximum Speed Limit (50 km/hr50\text{ km/hr}) permitted on that roadway.
سرخ دائرے میں 50 کا ہندسہ زیادہ سے زیادہ رفتار کی حد (Maximum speed limit) کو ظاہر کرتا ہے۔
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409📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenancePavement Reflectivity & Night Visibility
During night driving, which type of pavement provides greater visibility?
Explanation
White/light-grey Cement Concrete pavement has a much higher albedo and diffuse reflectance than dark black bituminous asphalt, providing superior night-time contrast and visibility.
سفید کنکریٹ کی سڑک (Concrete pavement) کالی ڈامر والی سڑک کے مقابلے میں رات کو زیادہ روشنی منعکس کر کے واضح دکھائی دیتی ہے۔
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410📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceBraking Physics & Friction
What is the fundamental mechanical principle on which vehicle braking systems work?
Explanation
Automotive braking systems operate on mechanical Friction—forcing brake pads/shoes against rotating discs/drums to convert kinetic energy into thermal heat energy.
گاڑی کا بریکنگ سسٹم رگڑ (Friction) کے بنیادی اصول پر کام کرتا ہے۔
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411📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceAnti-lock Braking System (ABS)
What does abbreviation "ABS" of a motor vehicle stand for?
Explanation
ABS stands for Anti-lock Braking System, an active safety system that modulates hydraulic brake pressure during hard braking to prevent wheel lockup.
ABS کا مخفف 'Anti-lock braking system' ہے۔
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412📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 146: Mandatory Third-Party Insurance
Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: As per Indian Motor Vehicles Act 1988, a comprehensive motor insurance policy is mandatory.
Statement-2: Third-party liability insurance is optional for Indian vehicles.
Choose the correct combination:
Explanation
Under Section 146 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988: Third-Party Liability Insurance is legally MANDATORY, while Comprehensive Own-Damage Insurance is OPTIONAL. Both statements in the question are false.
تھرڈ پارٹی انشورنس قانونی طور پر لازمی ہے جبکہ جامع انشورنس اختیاری ہے، اس لیے دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں (Both false)۔
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413📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlMotor Insurance Policy Terms and Third-Party Liabilities
Consider the following statements regarding motor insurance:
Statement-1: Motor insurance does not provide compensation if the driver does not possess a valid driving licence.
Statement-2: Third-party motor insurance covers a third person who has been injured in an accident involving the vehicle.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both statements are correct insurance principles: Driving without a valid driving licence breaches policy terms and invalidates own-damage claims (Statement 1), and Third-party insurance specifically indemnifies bodily injury/loss to third parties (Statement 2).
انشورنس کے دونوں بیانات (1 اور 2) قانوناً بالکل درست ہیں۔
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414📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlDriveline & Differential Gears
Which among the following components is used in the transmission system of a motor vehicle?
Explanation
The automobile driveline / transmission system consists of the clutch, gearbox, propeller shaft, and Differential Gears (which allow outer wheels to rotate faster than inner wheels during cornering).
ٹرانسمیشن سسٹم میں انجن کی طاقت پہیوں تک پہنچانے کے لیے ڈیفرینشل گیئرز (Differential gears) استعمال ہوتے ہیں۔
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415📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlAir Filters: Oil Bath vs Dry Paper Cartridge
Among the following options, which type of air cleaner is traditionally highly effective in heavy-duty commercial diesel engines?
Explanation
Oil Bath Air Cleaners draw intake air over an oil reservoir and wire mesh, capturing heavy dust, sand, and particulate matter with high dirt-holding capacity in heavy commercial diesel engines.
ہیوی ڈیزل گاڑیوں میں آئل باتھ ایئر فلٹر (Oil bath type) گرد و غبار صاف کرنے میں انتہائی مؤثر ہوتا ہے۔
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416📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana
Who among the following presided over the Buddhist Council held during the reign of Kanishka at Kashmir?
Explanation
The Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana (Kashmir) in 72 AD during Kushan Emperor Kanishka's reign was presided over by Acharya Vasumitra (with Asvaghosha as vice-president).
کشمیر میں منعقد ہونے والی چوتھی بدھ مت کونسل کی صدارت وسومتر (Vasumitra) نے کی تھی۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
417📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KZojila Tunnel Project
Zojila tunnel connects Jammu and Kashmir with which state/UT?
Explanation
The 14.15 km all-weather Zojila Tunnel beneath the Zoji La Pass connects Baltal/Sonamarg in J&K UT with Dras and Kargil in Ladakh UT along NH-1.
زوجیلا سرنگ جموں و کشمیر کو یونین ٹیریٹری لداخ (Ladakh) سے جوڑتی ہے۔
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418📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Boundary Lines: Radcliffe Line
Which of the following countries are divided by the Radcliffe Line?
Explanation
The Radcliffe Line, drawn by Sir Cyril Radcliffe during the 1947 partition, demarcates the international border between India and Pakistan.
ریڈکلف لائن ہندوستان اور پاکستان کے درمیان بین الاقوامی سرحد کا تعین کرتی ہے۔
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419📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPopular Tourist Destinations: Gulmarg
What is Gulmarg famously known as?
Explanation
Gulmarg (originally named Gauri Marg and renamed Gulmarg by Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak) is famously known as the 'Meadow of Flowers'.
گلمرگ کو 'پھولوں کی وادی' یعنی 'Meadow of Flowers' کے نام سے جانا جاتا ہے۔
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420🔬General ScienceVitamins and Coagulation
Excessive bleeding during an injury is caused by the deficiency of
Explanation
Vitamin K (phylloquinone/menaquinone) is the essential cofactor required for the hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation factors (prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X); its deficiency causes hemorrhagic bleeding.
وٹامن کے (Vitamin K) کی کمی سے خون جمنے کی صلاحیت متاثر ہوتی ہے اور زیادہ خون بہتا ہے۔
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421🔬General ScienceComputer Generations: Transistors
During the second generation, the size of computers was decreased by replacing vacuum tubes with
Explanation
Second-generation computers (1956–1963) replaced bulky, fragile vacuum tubes with solid-state Transistors (invented at Bell Labs).
کمپیوٹر کی دوسری نسل میں ویکیوم ٹیوبز کی جگہ ٹرانزسٹرز (Transistors) استعمال کیے گئے۔
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422📚Mental Ability / ReasoningBlue Economy 2.0 Framework
Which one of the following best describes the term 'Blue Economy 2.0', highlighted in the Union Budget 2024?
Explanation
Blue Economy 2.0 focuses on the sustainable economic utilization, conservation, and regeneration of marine, ocean, and coastal resources, including maritime aquaculture and coastal tourism.
بلیو اکانومی 2.0 کا تعلق سمندروں، ساحلی وسائل اور سمندری معیشت کے پائیدار فروغ سے ہے۔
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423📚Mental Ability / ReasoningIndia-Myanmar Border & Free Movement Regime
With reference to the India-Myanmar Border, consider the following statements:
1. It was demarcated by the British Government in India in 1826.
2. It extends along the States of Meghalaya, Assam and Tripura.
3. The Free Movement Regime enables tribes along the border to travel up to 16 km inside the neighbouring country without a visa.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Border demarcation originated from the 1826 Treaty of Yandabo, and the FMR permitted border residents to travel 16 km across. Statement 2 is false because the 1,643 km border is shared with Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram (not Assam, Meghalaya, or Tripura). Thus, 1 and 3 only are correct.
ہندوستان-میانمار سرحد کے بیانات 1 اور 3 درست ہیں (صرف اروناچل، ناگالینڈ، منی پور، میزورم بارڈر شیئر کرتے ہیں)۔
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424📚Computer ApplicationsProperties of Elastic Media for Wave Propagation
The fundamental physical properties of a medium necessary for mechanical wave propagation are its:
Explanation
For propagation of mechanical acoustic/sound waves through a medium, the medium must possess Elasticity (to restore displaced particles), Inertia (to store kinetic energy), and low damping resistance. All of the above are essential.
میکانیکی لہروں کے سفر کے لیے میڈیم میں جمود، لچک اور کم مزاحمت (All of the above) ضروری ہیں۔
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425📚Computer ApplicationsMeasuring Instruments: Ohmmeter
An ohmmeter is an electrical instrument used for measuring:
Explanation
An Ohmmeter is an electronic instrument specifically designed to measure Electrical Resistance (in Ohms Ω\Omega).
اوہم میٹر برقی مزاحمت (Electrical Resistance) ناپنے کا آلہ ہے۔
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426📚Computer ApplicationsNewton's Laws & Conservation of Momentum
Which of these fundamental physical properties is conserved as a direct consequence of Newton's Third Law of Motion?
Explanation
Because action and reaction forces between interacting bodies are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction (F12=−F21F_{12} = -F_{21}), the net internal impulse is zero, establishing the Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum.
نیوٹن کے تیسرے قانون حرکت کا براہ راست نتیجہ لکیری مومینٹم کا بقا (Conservation of Momentum) ہے۔
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427📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIdioms & Phrases
What does the idiom "salt of the earth" mean?
Explanation
'Salt of the earth' refers to a fundamentally good, honest, humble, and reliable person.
'Salt of the earth' کا مطلب ایک نہایت مخلص، نیک اور ایماندار انسان (Genuine, good and honest) ہے۔
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428📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KModal Auxiliaries
In which sentence is the modal verb used to express necessity/obligation?
Explanation
The modal verb 'should' expresses advisory obligation, necessity, or duty ('You should take a break'). 'Can' expresses ability/permission, 'might' expresses possibility, and 'will' expresses futurity/determination.
'You should take a break' میں موڈل ورب 'should' ضرورت اور نصیحت کو ظاہر کرتا ہے۔
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429📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSericulture: Silk Extraction
Silk, the natural protein fiber, is obtained from
Explanation
Natural silk fiber is harvested from the protective pupal Cocoons spun by the larvae of the silkworm (Bombyx mori) during sericulture.
قدرتی ریشم کا دھاگہ ریشم کے کیڑے کے کوکون (Cocoon) سے حاصل ہوتا ہے۔
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430🔬General Science44th Amendment Act & Article 300A
The Right to Property was converted from a Fundamental Right into a Constitutional Legal Right by which Constitutional Amendment?
Explanation
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, transforming the Right to Property into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
44ویں آئینی ترمیم (1978) کے ذریعے حق جائیداد کو بنیادی حقوق سے نکال کر قانونی حق بنایا گیا۔
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431🔬General ScienceDemographic History: 1911-1921 Negative Growth
In which single census decade did India's population record a negative growth rate of −0.31%-0.31\%?
Explanation
During the 1911–1921 decade, widespread famine, severe drought, and the catastrophic 1918 Spanish Influenza pandemic caused India's population to decline by −0.31%-0.31\%, earning 1921 the title 'The Year of the Great Divide'.
1911 سے 1921 کی دہائی میں وبائی امراض کی وجہ سے ہندوستان کی آبادی میں منفی شرح نمو ریکارڈ ہوئی۔
2024JKSSBSocial Welfare Department
432🔬General ScienceMajor Tourist Hubs: Gulmarg
Gulmarg in the Baramulla district of Jammu and Kashmir is famously known as the
Explanation
Gulmarg (literally meaning 'Meadow of Flowers' in Persian/Kashmiri) is famous for its vibrant wildflower meadows and world-class ski resort.
گلمرگ کو 'پھولوں کی وادی' (Meadow of Flowers) کے نام سے جانا جاتا ہے۔
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433📚Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Firewalls & Network Defense
What is a Firewall in a Computer Network?
Explanation
A Firewall is a hardware or software-based network security system that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing traffic based on predetermined security rules.
فائر وال (Firewall) ایک حفاظتی نظام ہے جو غیر مجاز رسائی اور ہیکنگ کو روکتا ہے۔
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434📚Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Malware Defense: Anti-Spyware
What is Anti-Spyware software?
Explanation
Anti-Spyware is specialized security software that detects, blocks, quarantines, and removes unauthorized tracking and spyware software designed to steal user data.
اینٹی اسپائی ویئر وہ سافٹ ویئر ہے جو چوری چھپے انسٹال ہونے والے جاسوسی پروگرامز کو ڈیلیٹ کرتا ہے۔
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435📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Right to Equality: Article 17
Which category of Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution incorporates the 'Abolition of Untouchability' under Article 17?
Explanation
Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability and prohibition of its practice) is part of the 'Right to Equality' grouping under Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.
چھوت چھات کا خاتمہ (آرٹیکل 17) برابری کے بنیادی حق (Right to Equality) کے تحت آتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBSocial Welfare Department
436📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage
What is the primary developmental milestone during the Sensorimotor stage (0 to 2 years) according to Piaget's Cognitive Theory?
Explanation
During the Sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years), infants explore the world through sensory inputs (looking, hearing) coordinated with motor actions, ultimately developing Object Permanence.
پہلے مرحلے (سینسری موٹر) میں بچہ حسی تجربات اور جسمانی حرکات میں ربط قائم کرتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBSocial Welfare Department
437📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission)
What is the primary overarching objective of POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission)?
Explanation
POSHAN Abhiyaan (Prime Minister's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment), launched in March 2018, aims to improve nutritional outcomes for children (0–6 years), pregnant women, and lactating mothers by curbing stunting, wasting, and anemia.
پوشن ابھیان کا بنیادی ہدف بچوں اور خواتین میں غذائی قلت، اسٹنٹنگ اور خون کی کمی (انیمیا) کو ختم کرنا ہے۔
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438📚General EnglishPrepositions in Context
Fill in the blanks: "The team worked tirelessly _______ the guidance of their coach to improve their performance _______ the challenging season."
Explanation
One works 'under the guidance' of a mentor, and events occur 'during the season'   ⟹  \implies "under, during".
درست پریپوزیشنز: 'under the guidance' اور 'during the season' ہیں۔
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439📚General EnglishSrisailam Dam & Krishna River
Consider the following statements about Srisailam Dam:
1. The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
2. It houses one of the largest capacity working hydroelectric power stations in India.
3. It is 512 m long, 145 m high, with 12 radial crest gates.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
All statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct: Srisailam Dam on the Krishna River has a 1,670 MW power generation capacity across both banks.
سری سیلم ڈیم کے بارے میں تمام بیانات (1، 2 اور 3) درست ہیں۔
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440📚General EnglishMajor Dams of Karnataka
Match the dams in Karnataka with their corresponding rivers:
i) Supa Dam — 3. Kali / Kalinadi River
ii) Almatti Dam — 2. Krishna River
iii) Linganamakki Dam — 1. Sharavathi River
Explanation
Dams and rivers in Karnataka: Supa Dam is built on the Kalinadi River (i-3); Almatti Dam on the Krishna River (ii-2); Linganamakki Dam on the Sharavathi River (iii-1)   ⟹  \implies i-3, ii-2, iii-1.
کرناٹک کے ڈیم: سوپا ڈیم (کالیندی i-3)، الماتی ڈیم (کرشنا ii-2)، لنگنا مکی ڈیم (شراوتی iii-1)۔
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441📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KPakal Dul Hydroelectric Project
Consider the following statements about the Pakal Dul Hydroelectric Project (HEP):
1. It is an under-construction 1,000 MW (1 GW) capacity HEP.
2. It is located on the Marusudar river (a major tributary of the Chenab) in the Kishtwar district of J&K.
3. It features a 167 m high concrete-face rockfill dam.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
All three statements are correct: The Pakal Dul HEP is a 1,000 MW project being built by CVPPPL on the Marusudar river at Drangal village in Kishtwar district with a 167m high rockfill dam.
پاکل دل پن بجلی منصوبے کے بارے میں تینوں بیانات (1, 2, 3) بالکل درست ہیں۔
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442📚General Intelligence & ReasoningAntonyms
Choose the word most opposite in meaning to: MOLLIFY
Explanation
'Mollify' means to appease, soothe, or calm someone's anger. Its direct antonym is 'Enrage' (to make extremely angry or infuriate).
'Mollify' (غصہ ٹھنڈا کرنا) کا متضاد لفظ 'Enrage' (اشتعال دلانا / غصہ دلانا) ہے۔
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443📚Computer ApplicationsSalal Hydroelectric Project
The Salal Hydroelectric Project (690 MW) is situated in which State/UT?
Explanation
Salal Hydroelectric Project is a run-of-the-river power station constructed on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of Jammu & Kashmir.
صلال پن بجلی منصوبہ ضلع ریاسی (جموں و کشمیر) میں دریائے چناب پر واقع ہے۔
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444📚Computer ApplicationsSpreadsheet Components: Cells
The rectangular intersection of a column and a row in a spreadsheet worksheet is called a
Explanation
A Cell is the fundamental building block in a spreadsheet created by the intersection of a vertical column and a horizontal row (e.g., A1, B5).
قطار اور کالم کے درمیانی خانے کو سیل (Cell) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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445📚Computer ApplicationsSlide Transitions vs Animations
In Microsoft PowerPoint, special visual effects used to introduce and transition between slides during a presentation are called
Explanation
Slide Transitions are the motion effects that occur when moving from one slide to the next during a full Slide Show.
ایک سلائیڈ سے دوسری سلائیڈ پر جاتے وقت ظاہر ہونے والے اثرات کو سلائیڈ ٹرانزیشنز (Slide transitions) کہتے ہیں۔
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446📚Basic MathematicsMensuration: Solid Volume
A wall measuring 6 m×5 m×0.5 m6\text{ m} \times 5\text{ m} \times 0.5\text{ m} is constructed using bricks measuring 25 cm×12.5 cm×7.5 cm25\text{ cm} \times 12.5\text{ cm} \times 7.5\text{ cm}. If mortar occupies 10% of the wall volume, how many bricks are required?
Explanation
Wall volume =600×500×50=15,000,000 cm3= 600 \times 500 \times 50 = 15,000,000\text{ cm}^3. Brick volume required =0.90×15,000,000=13,500,000 cm3= 0.90 \times 15,000,000 = 13,500,000\text{ cm}^3. Volume of 1 brick =25×12.5×7.5=2343.75 cm3= 25 \times 12.5 \times 7.5 = 2343.75\text{ cm}^3. Number of bricks =135000002343.75=5760= \frac{13500000}{2343.75} = 5760.
دیوار بنانے کے لیے 5,760 اینٹوں کی ضرورت ہوگی۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
447📚General Awareness & ScienceWorld Pulses Day 2023 Theme
What was the official theme of 'World Pulses Day' 2023 celebrated on February 10?
Explanation
The United Nations FAO designated 'Pulses for a Sustainable Future' as the theme for World Pulses Day 2023 to highlight the role of pulses in soil biodiversity and food security.
ورلڈ پلسز ڈے 2023 کا تھیم 'Pulses for a Sustainable Future' تھا۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
448📚General Awareness & ScienceFolk Dances: Letri Dance
The traditional folk dance 'Letri Dance' of the Jammu region is classified as a
Explanation
Letri is a traditional community labor dance performed by farmers and workers in the hills of Jammu during agricultural stone-breaking, wood-clearing, and harvesting tasks.
لیتری ڈانس محنت کشوں اور کسانوں کا روایتی رقص (Labour Dance) ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
449📚General Awareness & ScienceDr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel
The 9.28 km Chenani-Nashri Tunnel on NH-44 in Jammu & Kashmir was renamed in honor of:
Explanation
In October 2019, India's longest bidirectional road tunnel, the Chenani-Nashri Tunnel in Udhampur/Ramban, was officially renamed the Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel.
چنانی ناشری سرنگ کا نیا نام ڈاکٹر شیاما پرساد مکھرجی ٹنل رکھا گیا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
450📚General Awareness & ScienceOceanic Channels: 10 Degree Channel
The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by the
Explanation
The Ten Degree Channel (10∘ N10^\circ\text{ N} latitude) is a 150 km wide oceanic channel that separates the Andaman Islands to the north from the Nicobar Islands to the south in the Bay of Bengal.
انڈمان اور نکوبار جزائر کو 10 ڈگری چینل (Ten Degree Channel) الگ کرتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
451📚General Awareness & ScienceState Nicknames: Kerala
Which south Indian state's official tourism slogan and moniker is 'God's Own Country'?
Explanation
Kerala is globally marketed and celebrated as 'God's Own Country' due to its lush tropical greenery, serene backwaters, and biodiversity.
'God's Own Country' ریاست کیرالہ (Kerala) کو کہا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
452📚General Awareness & ScienceClassical Sanskrit Fables: Panchatantra
The famous ancient Indian collection of interrelated animal fables 'Panchatantra' by Vishnu Sharma was composed during the
Explanation
The Panchatantra was composed by scholar Pandit Vishnu Sharma during the classical golden age of the Gupta Empire (circa 3rd to 5th century CE).
پنچ تنتر کی مشہور کہانیاں گپتا دور (Gupta period) میں لکھی گئیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
453📚General Awareness & ScienceSecond Battle of Panipat (1556)
The Second Battle of Panipat (5 November 1556) was fought between Hemu and the Mughal army during the reign of which Emperor?
Explanation
The Second Battle of Panipat was fought between the young Mughal Emperor Akbar (led by Bairam Khan) and King Hem Chandra Vikramaditya (Hemu), establishing Mughal supremacy in northern India.
پانی پت کی دوسری لڑائی (1556) مغل شہنشاہ اکبر کے دور میں ہیمو کے خلاف لڑی گئی۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
454📚General Awareness & ScienceNaming of Gulmarg by Yousuf Shah Chak
Gulmarg was originally named Gourimarg, and was renamed Gulmarg ('Meadow of Flowers') by which Kashmiri sultan?
Explanation
Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak (reigned 1579–1586), enchanted by the valley's wildflower blooms while visiting with Habba Khatoon, changed its name from Gourimarg to Gulmarg.
گوری مرگ کا نام بدل کر 'گلمرگ' سلطان یوسف شاہ چک (Yousuf Shah Chak) نے رکھا تھا۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
455📚General Awareness & SciencePampore Saffron Festival
In which month is the vibrant Saffron Festival (Jashn-e-Zafran) celebrated in Pampore, Jammu & Kashmir?
Explanation
The Saffron Festival is celebrated in November during the peak autumn purple blossom harvest season across the Karewas of Pampore.
پامپور میں زعفران فیسٹیول فصل کٹائی کے دوران نومبر (November) میں منایا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
456📚Basic ReasoningQuit India Movement: Do or Die Slogan
Which Indian freedom fighter gave the clarion call slogan 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) during the Quit India Movement in 1942?
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi delivered the famous 'Do or Die' speech at Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay on 8 August 1942, launching the Quit India Movement.
1942 کی بھارت چھوڑو تحریک میں 'کرو یا مرو' (Do or Die) کا نعرہ مہاتما گاندھی نے دیا تھا۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
457📚Basic EnglishSectors of the Economy
Which of the following economic activities comes under the Tertiary (Services) Sector of the economy?
Explanation
Tourism and hospitality provide intangible consumer services and belong to the Tertiary sector. (Mining is primary, and manufacturing is secondary).
سیاحت (Tourism) معیشت کے تیسرے شعبے یعنی سروسز سیکٹر (Tertiary sector) کا حصہ ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
458📚Basic EnglishUri Dam on Jhelum River
The Uri Hydroelectric Dam (Uri-I and Uri-II) is located on which river in the Baramulla district of Jammu & Kashmir?
Explanation
The Uri Hydroelectric Project (480 MW Uri-I and 240 MW Uri-II) is constructed on the Jhelum River near the Line of Control in Baramulla district, Kashmir.
اوڑی ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک ڈیم دریائے جہلم (بارہمولہ، کشمیر) پر واقع ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
459📚Basic EnglishWrits: Mandamus (Articles 32 & 226)
Which constitutional writ issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts commands a public official or authority to perform a mandatory statutory duty that they have failed or refused to perform?
Explanation
The writ of Mandamus (Latin for 'We Command') is an order issued to compel a public official, body, or tribunal to perform an obligatory public duty.
سرکاری افسر کو اپنے فرائض کی انجام دہی کا حکم دینے والی رٹ مینڈی مس (Mandamus) کہلاتی ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
460📚General Awareness & ScienceMughal Architecture in Kashmir
Which Mughal Emperor laid out the iconic Shalimar Bagh (1619) and visited the Nishat Bagh on the banks of Dal Lake in Srinagar?
Explanation
Emperor Jahangir laid out Shalimar Bagh in 1619 for his empress Nur Jahan. (Nishat Bagh was built nearby in 1633 by Asif Khan, Nur Jahan's brother, during Jahangir/Shah Jahan's era).
شالیمار باغ مغل شہنشاہ جہانگیر (Jahangir) نے 1619 میں بنوایا تھا۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
461📚General Awareness & ScienceRajouri Fort (Dhanidhar Fort)
Who built the historic Rajouri Fort (Dhanidhar Fort) at Dhanidhar village in Rajouri?
Explanation
The Dhanidhar Fort (Rajouri Fort) was constructed in 1855 AD by Mian Hathu, the then Dogra Governor of Rajouri under Maharaja Gulab Singh.
دھنی دھر قلعہ (راجوری) 1855 میں میاں ہتھو (Mian Hathu) نے تعمیر کروایا تھا۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
462📚General Awareness & ScienceBSF Operations: Operation Alert
Which specialized security operation was launched by the Border Security Force (BSF) along the India-Pakistan International Border in J&K to prevent cross-border infiltration?
Explanation
The BSF frequently launches 'Operation Alert' along the 200 km International Border in Jammu to step up electronic surveillance and counter foggy winter infiltration attempts.
بی ایس ایف نے دراندازی روکنے کے لیے 'آپریشن الرٹ' (Operation Alert) شروع کیا۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
463📚General English & ComprehensionKargil War & Military Operations in J&K
Which operation was launched to regain control of Kargil during the 1999 war?
Explanation
Operation Vijay was launched by the Indian Armed Forces in May 1999 to recapture Indian territories occupied by Pakistani infiltrators in the Kargil-Drass sectors of Jammu and Kashmir.
1999 के कारगिल युद्ध के दौरान भारतीय सेना ने कारगिल की चोटियों को पुनः अपने नियंत्रण में लेने के लिए 'ऑपरेशन विजय' शुरू किया था।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
464📚General English & ComprehensionFundamental Rights & Union of States
Match Column -X (article in the Indian Constitution) with their objectives in Column -Y:

| Column - X | Column - Y |
| :--- | :--- |
| 1. Article 1 | I. Guarantees equal opportunity in public employment |
| 2. Article 14 | II. Guarantees equality before the law |
| 3. Article 16 | III. Defines India as a Union of States |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1. Article 1 defines India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States (III)
2. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws (II)
3. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (I).
Hence, the correct matching is 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.
1. अनुच्छेद 1: भारत राज्यों का संघ है (III)
2. अनुच्छेद 14: विधि के समक्ष समानता (II)
3. अनुच्छेद 16: सार्वजनिक रोजगार में अवसर की समानता (I)।
सही विकल्प 1-III, 2-II, 3-I है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
465📚General English & ComprehensionJ&K Constitutional History & Integration
Why was the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution abrogated in 2019?
Explanation
The abrogation of Article 370 and the J&K Constitution was undertaken to foster complete national integration, eliminate discriminatory residency/domicile barriers, extend fundamental central laws, and accelerate socio-economic development and investments across the region.
2019 में जम्मू-कश्मीर के विशेष दर्जे और अलग संविधान को समाप्त करने का उद्देश्य पूर्ण राष्ट्रीय एकीकरण, सभी नागरिकों को समान अधिकार प्रदान करना और क्षेत्र में आर्थिक सुधार व निवेश को गति देना था (उपरोक्त सभी)।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
466📚General English & ComprehensionSwadeshi Movement & Partition of Bengal 1905
When were the 'Swadeshi' and 'Boycott' methods of struggle first adopted in India?
Explanation
The Swadeshi and Boycott movements were first adopted as mass agitation methods during the anti-partition agitation of Bengal in 1905, officially proclaimed at the Calcutta Town Hall on August 7, 1905.
'स्वदेशी' और 'बहिष्कार' के तरीकों को भारत में पहली बार 1905 के बंगाल विभाजन विरोधी आंदोलन के दौरान अपनाया गया था।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
467📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KIndian Art, Culture & Classical Folk Dances
Match the following states with their corresponding folk dances:

| Column - X | Column - Y |
| :--- | :--- |
| 1. Andhra Pradesh | I. Lambadi, Dhimsa |
| 2. Gujarat | II. Bhavai, Juriun |
| 3. Kerala | III. Kathakali, Ottamthullal |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1. Andhra Pradesh: Lambadi and Dhimsa folk dances (I)
2. Gujarat: Bhavai and Juriun/Garba folk dances (II)
3. Kerala: Kathakali (classical) and Ottamthullal folk dance (III).
Correct matching code is 1-I, 2-II, 3-III.
1. आंध्र प्रदेश: लंबाडी, ढिमसा (I)
2. गुजरात: भवई, जुरियन (II)
3. केरल: कथकली, ओट्टमथुल्लल (III)।
सही विकल्प 1-I, 2-II, 3-III है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
468📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KTourism & Major Lakes of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following highlights the economic significance of Dal Lake in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Dal Lake, known as the 'Jewel in the crown of Kashmir', is the backbone of Srinagar's tourism economy through its iconic shikaras, heritage houseboats, floating vegetable markets, and handicraft trade.
डल झील शिकारा की सवारी, हाउसबोट और पर्यटन के लिए विश्व प्रसिद्ध है, जो कश्मीर की स्थानीय अर्थव्यवस्था और आजीविका में प्रमुख योगदान देती है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
469📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KSynonyms & Antonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the word: LISSOME
Explanation
'Lissome' means slim, supple, flexible, and graceful in movement. Its direct antonym is 'Ungainly', which means awkward, clumsy, or ungraceful.
'Lissome' का अर्थ लचीला, फुर्तीला और आकर्षक होता है। इसका सटीक विलोम शब्द 'Ungainly' (भद्दा या बेढंगा) है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
470📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityHomophones & Word Usage
Fill in the blanks: The dog took a ______ during his walk and raised his ______ to show that he was tired.
Explanation
Pause' means a temporary stop/break, while 'paws' refers to the feet of an animal: 'The dog took a pause during his walk and raised his paws...
रुकने के लिए 'pause' और कुत्ते के पंजों के लिए 'paws' का प्रयोग होगा। अतः 'pause; paws' सही है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
471📚Basic Concepts of ComputersGeometry & Circles
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact.
II. The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

Choose the correct Statement:
Explanation
Both are fundamental theorems of circle geometry (Class 10 NCERT / CBSE):
- Theorem 10.1: The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
- Theorem 10.2: The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Thus, Both I and II are correct.
कथन I और II दोनों वृत्त ज्यामिति के आधारभूत प्रमेय हैं: (I) स्पर्श रेखा स्पर्श बिंदु पर त्रिज्या पर लंब होती है, और (II) बाह्य बिंदु से खींची गई स्पर्श रेखाओं की लंबाइयाँ बराबर होती हैं। अतः दोनों I और II सही हैं।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
472📚Basic Concepts of ComputersData Interpretation & Bar Graphs
The maximum difference between the amount invested in Raw materials and the value of sales of finished goods was during the year?
(Raw materials vs. Sales: 2000: 130 vs 210; 2001: 235 vs 310; 2002: 430 vs 550; 2003: 340 vs 420; 2004: 565 vs 640; 2005: 440 vs 480)
Explanation
Differences (Sales - Raw Materials in Lakh Rs.):
- 2000: 210−130=80210 - 130 = 80
- 2001: 310−235=75310 - 235 = 75
- 2002: 550−430=120550 - 430 = 120 (Maximum)
- 2003: 420−340=80420 - 340 = 80
- 2004: 640−565=75640 - 565 = 75
- 2005: 480−440=40480 - 440 = 40
The maximum difference occurred in the year 2002.
अंतर की गणना:
2002 में अंतर =550−430=120= 550 - 430 = 120 लाख रुपये, जो सभी वर्षों में सर्वाधिक है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
473📚Basic Concepts of ComputersData Interpretation & Bar Graphs
What was the difference between the average amount invested in Raw materials during the given period and the average value of sales of finished goods during this period?
Explanation
- Total Raw Materials =130+235+430+340+565+440=2140 Lakhs= 130 + 235 + 430 + 340 + 565 + 440 = 2140\text{ Lakhs}
- Average Raw Materials =21406=356.67 Lakhs= \frac{2140}{6} = 356.67\text{ Lakhs}
- Total Sales =210+310+550+420+640+480=2610 Lakhs= 210 + 310 + 550 + 420 + 640 + 480 = 2610\text{ Lakhs}
- Average Sales =26106=435.00 Lakhs= \frac{2610}{6} = 435.00\text{ Lakhs}
Difference between averages:
Diff=435.00−356.67=78.33 Lakhs.\text{Diff} = 435.00 - 356.67 = 78.33\text{ Lakhs}.
औसत बिक्री =26106=435.00= \frac{2610}{6} = 435.00 लाख।
कच्चे माल का औसत =21406=356.67= \frac{2140}{6} = 356.67 लाख।
अंतर =435.00−356.67=78.33= 435.00 - 356.67 = 78.33 लाख रुपये।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
474📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCyber Security & Virtualization
Match Column - X with Column - Y and select the answer using the codes given below:

| Column - X | Column - Y |
| :--- | :--- |
| 1. Firewall | I. Store user preferences for future website visits |
| 2. Cookies | II. Filters Incoming and outgoing data to protect the computer |
| 3. Hypervisor | III. Manages and runs virtual machines |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1. Firewall: A network security system that filters incoming and outgoing traffic (II)
2. Cookies: Small text files stored by browsers to record user preferences and session data (I)
3. Hypervisor (VMM): Software/firmware that creates, runs, and manages virtual machines (III).
Correct matching code is 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.
1. फ़ायरवॉल: इनकमिंग और आउटगोइंग डेटा को फ़िल्टर करता है (II)
2. कुकीज़: उपयोगकर्ता प्राथमिकताओं और सत्र को सहेजती हैं (I)
3. हाइपरवाइजर: वर्चुअल मशीनों को प्रबंधित करता है (III)।
सही विकल्प 1-II, 2-I, 3-III है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
475📚Basic ReasoningAnalogies & Classification
Which of the following completes the analogy "Digital Image: Pixel :: Human: ?"
Explanation
A pixel is the fundamental, indivisible building block of a digital image. Similarly, a cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of a human.
डिजिटल इमेज की सबसे छोटी मूलभूत इकाई पिक्सेल (Pixel) होती है, उसी प्रकार मानव शरीर की सबसे छोटी संरचनात्मक इकाई कोशिका (Cell) होती है।
2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments
476📚Basic EnglishArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article.
_____ engineer presented _____ innovative solution during the conference.
Explanation
Both 'engineer' and 'innovative' begin with vowel sounds (/e/ and /ɪ/), requiring the indefinite article 'An' and 'an': 'An engineer presented an innovative solution...'.
'Engineer' और 'innovative' दोनों स्वर ध्वनि से शुरू होते हैं, इसलिए दोनों जगह 'An, an' आएगा।
2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments
477📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSentence Improvement & Infinitives
Choose the correct alternative to improve the bold part: The event was canceled because of the committee's inability in securing enough sponsors.
Explanation
The noun 'inability' idiomatically takes a 'to-infinitive': 'inability to secure enough sponsors'.
'Inability' के साथ 'to + verb (infinitive)' का प्रयोग होता है: 'inability to secure'।
2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments
478📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KMajor Tunnels & Infrastructure in J&K
On what date was the Z-Morh tunnel inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
Explanation
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 6.5-km bi-directional Z-Morh Tunnel on January 13, 2025, providing all-weather road connectivity to Sonamarg in Ganderbal district on the Srinagar-Leh highway.
प्रधान मंत्री नरेंद्र मोदी ने 13 जनवरी 2025 को 6.5 किमी लंबी जेड-मोड़ सुरंग (Z-Morh Tunnel) का उद्घाटन किया, जिससे सोनमर्ग के लिए सभी मौसमों में कनेक्टिविटी सुनिश्चित हुई।
2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments
479📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSports & World Chess Championship 2024
India's D Gukesh defeated which chess player during the World Chess Championship 2024 in Singapore?
Explanation
18-year-old Indian Grandmaster Dommaraju Gukesh created history by defeating defending champion Ding Liren of China in the FIDE World Chess Championship 2024 in Singapore, becoming the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion.
भारतीय ग्रैंडमास्टर डी. गुकेश ने सिंगापुर में आयोजित विश्व शतरंज चैंपियनशिप 2024 में चीन के डिंग लिरेन को हराकर इतिहास रचा।
2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments
480📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KFolk Dances of India
Which of the following statements about the folk dance "Tarangmel" is/are correct?
i) Tarangmel is a Goan folk dance that embodies the youthful and exuberant spirit of the region.
ii) The name "Tarangmel" is derived from "Tarang," which means streamers, which are an integral part of the dance.
iii) It is traditionally performed during the Hindu festivals of Dussehra and Holi.
iv) The dance is a colorful spectacle, featuring vibrant costumes, banners, and streamers, creating a rainbow-like display.

Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
All four statements are factually accurate regarding Tarangmel, the energetic folk dance of Goa performed by youth holding colorful rainbow streamers (tarang) and banners during Dussehra and Holi celebrations.
तरंगमेल गोवा का प्रसिद्ध लोकनृत्य है, जो दशहरा और होली के दौरान रंग-बिरंगे झंडों और रिबनों के साथ किया जाता है। सभी चार कथन (i, ii, iii और iv) सही हैं।
2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments
481📚General Awareness & Current AffairsQuit India Movement 1942 & Slogans
Which slogan became famous during the Quit India Movement?
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi delivered his historic call of 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay during the launch of the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942.
8 अगस्त 1942 को भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन के शुभारंभ पर महात्मा गांधी ने 'करो या मरो' (Do or Die) का ऐतिहासिक नारा दिया था।
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482📚General Awareness & Current AffairsCoastal Geography & Famous Beaches
Which of the following location-beach pairings is not correct?
Explanation
Radhanagar Beach (Asia's best beach / Blue Flag beach) is located on Havelock Island (Swaraj Dweep) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, NOT in Andhra Pradesh.
राधानगर बीच (Radhanagar Beach) अंडमान और निकोबार द्वीप समूह के हैवलॉक द्वीप पर स्थित है, आंध्र प्रदेश में नहीं। अतः विकल्प B गलत युग्म है।
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483🔬General ScienceMountain Passes & Mughal Road
Which pass connects the Kashmir Valley with Rajouri and Poonch through the Pir Panjal Range?
Explanation
The historic Pir Panjal Pass (also known as Peer Ki Gali at 3,490 m) on the Mughal Road directly connects Shopian in the Kashmir Valley with Poonch and Rajouri districts in Jammu across the Pir Panjal Range.
पीर पंजाल दर्रा (Peer Ki Gali / मुगल रोड) पीर पंजाल पर्वत श्रृंखला के माध्यम से कश्मीर घाटी (शोपियां) को राजौरी और पुंछ से जोड़ता है।
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484🔬General ScienceReligious Tourism & Pilgrimage Shrines of J&K
Which of the following statements about Amarnath Temple is NOT correct?
Explanation
Statement A is incorrect: The sacred holy cave shrine of Shri Amarnathji is situated at an elevation of approximately 3,888 metres (12,756 feet) above sea level, NOT 7,486 metres (which would exceed most major Himalayan peaks).
कथन A गलत है क्योंकि पवित्र श्री अमरनाथ जी की गुफा समुद्र तल से लगभग 3,888 मीटर (12,756 फीट) की ऊँचाई पर स्थित है, न कि 7,486 मीटर पर।
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485🔬General ScienceTraditional Attire & Culture of Kashmir
The Kashmiri Phiran is characterized by which of the following features?
Explanation
The traditional Kashmiri Phiran (or Pheran) is a loose-fitting, knee-length upper woollen garment worn over layers during harsh winters, designed to accommodate a Kangri (earthen brazier) underneath for warmth.
कश्मीरी फेरन (Phiran) घुटनों तक लंबा और ढीला-ढाला पारंपरिक ऊनी परिधान होता है, जिसके अंदर कड़ाके की ठंड में कांगड़ी रखकर शरीर को गर्म रखा जाता है।
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486📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)Cognitive Restructuring in CBT
Read following Assertion and Reason and Choose correct option:
Assertion (A): In CBT, Cognitive restructuring helps clients identify and modify maladaptive thoughts.
Reason (R): Maladaptive thoughts are believed to contribute significantly to emotional distress and behavioral problems.
Explanation
Cognitive restructuring is used because dysfunctional cognitions directly drive negative emotional states and maladaptive behaviors. Both statements are true, and R explains A.
CBT में अवास्तविक विचार ही मानसिक कष्ट का कारण होते हैं (R), इसलिए संज्ञानात्मक पुनर्गठन द्वारा उन्हें बदला जाता है (A)। अतः A और R दोनों सत्य हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या है।
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487📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyNeuropsychological Assessment (LNNB)
How many clinical scales are included in the standard Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery?
Explanation
The standard Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery (LNNB) comprises 11 clinical scales (Motor, Rhythm, Tactile, Visual, Receptive Speech, Expressive Speech, Writing, Reading, Arithmetic, Memory, and Intellectual Processes).
लूरिया-नेब्रास्का न्यूरोसाइकोलॉजिकल बैटरी (LNNB) में कुल 11 नैदानिक पैमाने (Clinical Scales) होते हैं।
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488📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyNeuropsychological Batteries
What is one significant advantage of the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery compared to other neuropsychological assessments?
Explanation
A major advantage of the LNNB over lengthy batteries like Halstead-Reitan is that it offers a comprehensive, highly standardized, and substantially faster administration time (~1.5 to 2.5 hours) for diagnosing brain impairment.
LNNB का प्रमुख लाभ यह है कि यह मस्तिष्क क्षति का अपेक्षाकृत तीव्र और अत्यधिक संरचित (Faster and structured) मूल्यांकन प्रदान करता है।
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489📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologySleep Architecture & REM Awakening
How will a person who has just woken up from REM sleep look like?
Explanation
Because cortical EEG activity during REM sleep (paradoxical sleep) closely mirrors desynchronized, high-frequency active waking beta waves, individuals awakened directly from REM sleep typically awaken rapidly alert, attentive, and able to recall vivid dream narratives.
REM नींद में कॉर्टिकल मस्तिष्क तरंगें जाग्रत अवस्था के समान सक्रिय होती हैं, इसलिए REM नींद से जागने वाला व्यक्ति तुरंत सतर्क और सचेत (Alert and attentive) होता है।
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490📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Limbic Lesions & Klüver-Bucy Syndrome
Which of the following is caused by bilateral damage in the amygdala?
Explanation
Bilateral anterior temporal lobe and amygdala lesions produce Klüver-Bucy Syndrome, characterized by psychic blindness (visual agnosia), hyperorality, docility/loss of fear, dietary changes, and hypersexuality.
द्विपक्षीय अमिग्डाला (Bilateral amygdala) क्षति के कारण 'क्लुवर-बुसी सिंड्रोम' (Klüver-Bucy syndrome) होता है, जिसमें भय का लोप और हाइपरओरैलिटी होती है।
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491📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Neuropsychological Syndromes (Bálint's)
Balint's syndrome is a triad of which of the following impairments?
Explanation
Bálint's syndrome, caused by bilateral posterior parietal-occipital damage, presents with the classic clinical triad of: (1) Simultanagnosia (inability to perceive more than one visual item at once), (2) Oculomotor apraxia (inability to voluntarily guide eye movements), and (3) Optic ataxia (impaired visually guided reaching).
बालिंट सिंड्रोम (Bálint's syndrome) का त्रिक: सिमुल्तानाग्नोसिया (Simultanagnosia), ओकुलोमोटर अप्राक्सिया, और ऑप्टिक अटैक्सिया। सही उत्तर B है।
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492📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Neuroimaging Modalities
Match the Neuroimaging Techniques with their Functions:

| Techniques | Functions |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. fMRI | 2. Tracks blood oxygen levels during brain activity |
| ii. EEG | 3. Monitors electrical activity of the brain |
| iii. MEG | 1. Measures magnetic fields from brain activity |
| iv. PET | 4. Uses radioactive tracers to study metabolism |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching: i) fMRI = BOLD oxygen tracking (2); ii) EEG = electrical potentials (3); iii) MEG = magnetic fields (1); iv) PET = radiotracers for glucose metabolism (4). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
सही मिलान: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4।
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493📚Health Psychology & Research MethodologyPsychotherapy Process & Stages
Arrange the following steps in the typical order they occur during psychotherapy:
1. Setting therapeutic goals
2. Termination of therapy
3. Assessment and diagnosis
4. Intervention and treatment

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Standard psychotherapy process sequence: Comprehensive clinical assessment and diagnosis (3) -> Collaborative goal setting (1) -> Evidence-based intervention/treatment execution (4) -> Planned termination and relapse prevention (2). Sequence: 3 -> 1 -> 4 -> 2.
मनोचिकित्सा के सामान्य चरण: मूल्यांकन और निदान (3) → लक्ष्यों का निर्धारण (1) → हस्तक्षेप और उपचार (4) → चिकित्सा का समापन (2)। सही क्रम: 3 -> 1 -> 4 -> 2।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
494📚Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsCybersecurity & Vocabulary
In the context of cybersecurity, what does the term 'social engineering' refer to?
Explanation
Social engineering in cybersecurity refers to the psychological manipulation of human individuals to trick them into divulging sensitive passwords, credentials, or confidential information.
सोशल इंजीनियरिंग (Social engineering) का अर्थ लोगों को मनोवैज्ञानिक रूप से बरगलाकर उनसे गोपनीय जानकारी प्राप्त करना है।
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495📚AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsEarth Resistance Measurement
When measuring the resistance of an earthing system, which of the following factors is/are most important for ensuring accurate readings?
1. Length/Depth of the earthing electrode
2. Distance between measurement points
3. Type of soil surrounding the electrode

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Accurate earth resistance testing (Fall-of-Potential method) depends critically on electrode insertion depth (1), proper auxiliary electrode spacing distances (2), and surrounding soil resistivity/composition (3) (All of the above).
अर्थिंग प्रतिरोध के सटीक मापन के लिए इलेक्ट्रोड की गहराई (1), परीक्षण बिंदुओं के बीच की दूरी (2), और मिट्टी की प्रकृति (3) सभी आवश्यक हैं (उपरोक्त सभी)।
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496📚Transformers & Electrical MachinesHydroelectric Power Generation
Consider the following statements about Hydroelectric Power:
1. Hydroelectric power is a secondary source of energy.
2. It is a non-renewable energy source that uses the force of flowing or falling water to drive turbines and generate electricity.
3. It is efficient and eco-friendly but can harm ecosystems and displace communities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Hydroelectric power generates electricity (a secondary energy carrier) (1 - True) and is clean during operation but has ecological/displacement impacts (3 - True). Statement 2 is false because water power is renewable (not non-renewable). Thus, 1 and 3 are correct.
जलविद्युत ऊर्जा द्वितीयक ऊर्जा स्रोत है (1) और यह पर्यावरण के अनुकूल होने के बावजूद पारिस्थितिकी और समुदायों को प्रभावित कर सकती है (3)। कथन 2 असत्य है क्योंकि यह नवीकरणीय (Renewable) स्रोत है। अतः 1 और 3 सही हैं।
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497📚Transformers & Electrical MachinesHysteresis Loop & Energy Loss
Consider the following statements about the Hysteresis Loop:
1. A hysteresis loop is generated by measuring the magnetic flux emitted from a ferromagnetic material as the external magnetic field applied to it is varied.
2. The hysteresis loop shows the relationship between the magnetic flux density and the magnetizing field strength of a paramagnetic substance.
3. The loss of energy per unit volume of the substance is equal to the area of the hysteresis curve.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is false because hysteresis loops (B-H curves) are exhibited by Ferromagnetic materials, NOT paramagnetic substances.
कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं। कथन 2 गलत है क्योंकि हिस्टैरिसीस लूप लौह-चुंबकीय (Ferromagnetic) पदार्थों का गुण है, अनुचुंबकीय का नहीं। अतः 1 और 3 सही हैं।
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498📚Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyCable Laying & Installation Tools
What is the primary function of a cable drum in electrical installations?
Explanation
A cable drum (or reel mounted on jacks) is primarily used during installation to pay out cables smoothly, preventing kinks, twists, bird-caging, and sheath damage during laying.
केबल ड्रम का मुख्य कार्य केबल को बिना उलझे और बिना मुड़े सुचारू रूप से बिछाना सुनिश्चित करना है।
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499📚Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyLap vs Wave Armature Winding
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the difference between wave winding and lap winding in DC generators?
Explanation
Statement D is incorrect: Lap winding has A=PA = P parallel paths and requires additional equalizer rings/connections to balance unequal currents, making its manufacturing cost higher than wave winding (which has only 2 paths, A=2A = 2).
कथन D गलत है क्योंकि लैप वाइंडिंग में अधिक समानांतर पथ (A=PA=P) और इक्वलाइज़र रिंग्स की आवश्यकता के कारण इसकी लागत वेव वाइंडिंग से अधिक होती है।
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500📚Power Generation & DistributionDamper Windings & Hunting
What is the function of the damper winding in an alternator?
Explanation
Damper (amortisseur) windings in synchronous machines suppress rotor oscillations (hunting) during load surges and damp out unbalanced negative-sequence armature reaction magnetic fields.
अल्टरनेटर में डैम्पर वाइंडिंग का मुख्य कार्य हंटिंग (Hunting) को समाप्त करना और ऋणात्मक अनुक्रम चुंबकीय क्षेत्र को दबाना है।
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501📚General English & Quantitative AptitudePower Measurement & Wattmeters
Which type of wattmeter is most commonly used for measuring power in high-voltage circuits?
Explanation
The Electrodynamometer Wattmeter (used with Instrument Transformers - CTs and PTs) is the universal industry standard for precise active power measurement across high-voltage AC and DC power networks.
इलेक्ट्रोडायनेमोमीटर प्रकार का वाटमीटर (Electrodynamometer wattmeter) उच्च वोल्टेज परिपथों में शक्ति मापने के लिए मानक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है।
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502📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeEarth Testers & Wenner 4-Pin Method
Which type of earth tester is most suitable for measuring earth resistance in highly resistive soils?
Explanation
The Four-Electrode Earth Tester (utilizing the Wenner four-pin method) eliminates lead resistance and contact resistance, providing the most accurate soil resistivity and ground resistance measurements in highly resistive, rocky, or dry soils.
चार-इलेक्ट्रोड अर्थ टेस्टर (Wenner विधि) अत्यधिक प्रतिरोधी मिट्टी में सटीक मापन के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त है।
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503📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeDisadvantages of Low Power Factor
Poor power factor can result in:
1. Heat damage to insulation and other circuit components
2. Reduction in the amount of available useful power
3. A required increase in conductor and equipment sizes

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
A low power factor draws excessive reactive line current for a given real load power, causing heavy I2RI^2R copper losses and heat degradation in cables/transformers, reducing grid capacity, requiring larger conductors, and causing voltage drops (All of the above).
खराब पावर फैक्टर से केबलों में अत्यधिक करंट और हीटिंग होती है, उपयोगी क्षमता घटती है और मोटे तारों की आवश्यकता होती है (उपरोक्त सभी)।
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504📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeInternet Services vs Hardware Firmware
Which of these is NOT an internet service?
Explanation
BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) setup is a local non-volatile firmware interface embedded on the computer motherboard ROM/flash chip to initialize hardware during POST, entirely independent of internet services.
BIOS सेटअप मदरबोर्ड की स्थानीय फर्मवेयर प्रणाली है, यह कोई इंटरनेट सेवा नहीं है।
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505📚Data Structures & AlgorithmsACID Properties of Transactions
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of transactions in DBMS?
Explanation
Transaction properties are governed by ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability). 'Divisibility' contradicts the fundamental principle of Atomicity (all-or-nothing execution).
ट्रांजेक्शन की मुख्य विशेषताएं ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability) हैं। Divisibility इसकी विशेषता नहीं है।
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506📚Database Management Systems (SQL)SQL Fundamentals
What does SQL stand for?
Explanation
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the standard domain-specific language used for managing data held in relational database management systems.
SQL का पूर्ण रूप 'Structured Query Language' (स्ट्रक्चर्ड क्वेरी लैंग्वेज) है।
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507📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureNetwork Devices (Router, Switch, Hub, Firewall)
Match the following networking devices with their purposes:

| Device | Purpose |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. Router | 1. Forward packets based on IP addresses |
| ii. Switch | 2. Forward frames based on MAC addresses |
| iii. Hub | 3. Broadcasts data to all connected devices |
| iv. Firewall | 4. Controls incoming and outgoing traffic |

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Matching: Router = Layer 3 IP routing (1); Switch = Layer 2 MAC frame filtering (2); Hub = Layer 1 physical multi-port repeater broadcasting to all ports (3); Firewall = network security packet inspection (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
सही मिलान: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4।
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508📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureOSI Reference Model Layers
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for ensuring reliable data transfer?
Explanation
The Transport Layer (Layer 4) provides end-to-end error recovery, flow control, acknowledgment mechanisms, and ensures reliable complete data delivery between source and destination endpoints.
OSI मॉडल की ट्रांसपोर्ट लेयर (Transport Layer) एंड-टू-एंड विश्वसनीय डेटा ट्रांसफर सुनिश्चित करने के लिए जिम्मेदार है।
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509📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureC++ Constructors & Rules
Which of the following statements about constructors in C++ are correct?
1. Constructors initialize class members
2. A constructor has no return type
3. Constructors can be overloaded
4. A constructor can be declared as virtual

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because C++ constructors CANNOT be virtual (vtable/vptr is initialized during constructor execution). Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं। कथन 4 गलत है क्योंकि C++ में कंस्ट्रक्टर कभी भी `virtual` नहीं हो सकते। अतः 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं।
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510📚Object Oriented Programming (C++/Java/Python)Java Special Keywords
Match the following Java keywords with their purposes:

| Keyword | Purpose |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. Synchronized | 1. Ensures thread safety |
| ii. Transient | 2. Excludes variables from serialization |
| iii. Final | 3. Prevent inheritance or modification |
| iv. Volatile | 4. Marks variables to be directly accessed from main memory |

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Matching: Synchronized = mutual exclusion locking for thread safety (1); Transient = ignores field during object serialization (2); Final = constants / immutable methods / non-inheritable classes (3); Volatile = guarantees thread visibility directly from main memory (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
सही मिलान: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4।
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511📚Object Oriented Programming (C++/Java/Python)C# Using Statement & IDisposable
Which of the following are true about the using statement in C#?
1. It ensures the object is disposed of after use.
2. It is only used for importing namespaces
3. It helps manage unmanaged resources like file handles
4. It can be used to simplify code related to IDisposable objects

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
The `using(...)` statement wraps `IDisposable` objects in a `try-finally` block ensuring `.Dispose()` is called to release unmanaged OS resources (1, 3, 4). Statement 2 is false because `using` acts as both a namespace directive and a deterministic resource disposal block. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
C# में `using` स्टेटमेंट `IDisposable` ऑब्जेक्ट्स के लिए स्वतः `.Dispose()` कॉल करता है और अनमैनेज्ड संसाधनों का प्रबंधन करता है (1, 3, 4)। अतः 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं।
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512📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringSDLC Models
Which of the following models is not a part of software development life cycle (SDLC)?
Explanation
Waterfall, Spiral, Agile, RAD, V-Model, and Prototype are established SDLC models. 'Assembly Line Model' is an industrial manufacturing concept, not an SDLC process model.
वॉटरफॉल, स्पाइरल और एजाइल सभी SDLC मॉडल हैं। 'Assembly Line Model' कोई सॉफ्टवेयर विकास मॉडल नहीं है।
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513📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringObject-Oriented Design Fundamentals
Which of the following statements about Object-Oriented Programming are true?
1. It supports inheritance
2. It emphasizes reusable code
3. It requires writing all logic in one function
4. It uses classes and objects

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are true. Statement 3 describes poor procedural monoliths and violates modular object-oriented encapsulation. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
कथन 1, 2 और 4 सत्य हैं (इनहेरिटेंस, पुनः प्रयोज्य कोड, और क्लासेज/ऑब्जेक्ट्स)। कथन 3 गलत है। अतः 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं।
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514📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringMultiprogramming Concepts & Advantages
Which of the following are advantages of multiprogramming?
1. Increased CPU utilization
2. Decreased memory usage
3. Increased throughput
4. Reduced response time

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Multiprogramming keeps the CPU continuously busy by switching to another job during I/O waits, thereby maximizing CPU utilization (1), increasing system throughput (3), and improving user response times (4). It requires more memory, not less. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
मल्टीप्रोग्रामिंग के लाभों में CPU उपयोग में वृद्धि (1), थ्रूपुट में वृद्धि (3), और रिस्पांस समय में सुधार (4) शामिल हैं। अतः 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
515📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionMask Dances of Jammu
Which dance is performed in Jammu while wearing a mask?
Explanation
Haran Nritya (Deer Dance) is a traditional folk mask dance of Jammu performed during Lohri by actors wearing masks depicting deer, hunters, and village characters.
जम्मू में मुखौटा पहनकर किया जाने वाला पारंपरिक लोक नृत्य 'हरण नृत्य' (Haran Nritya) है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
516📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionHistory of Kashmiri Dance Forms
Which Kashmiri dance form was legally banned?
Explanation
Hafiza Nagma (performed by female Hafiza dancers to Sufiyana music) was banned during the Maharaja Hari Singh era in the 1920s under social reform laws, leading to the rise of Bachi Nagma.
महाराजा के शासनकाल में 'हफीजा' (Hafiza) नृत्य को कानूनी रूप से प्रतिबंधित किया गया था, जिसके बाद 'बच्चा नगमा' का प्रचलन बढ़ा।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
517📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionRitual Dances of Kashmir
Which Kashmiri dance form involves women dancing around rangoli?
Explanation
Wugei Nachun is performed by Kashmiri Pandit women during wedding ceremonies dancing around the bridal rangoli (Vyuug) design.
विवाह के अवसर पर रंगोली (व्यूग) के चारों ओर किया जाने वाला कश्मीरी नृत्य 'वुगेई नचुन' (Wugei Nachun) कहलाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
518📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionWind Instruments Anatomy
How many holes are there in a wind instrument?
Explanation
Traditional Kashmiri woodwind instruments (like the Kashmiri Bansuri or Swarnay) typically feature 8 tone holes (7 finger holes plus 1 thumb/tuning hole).
पारंपरिक सुषिर वाद्य (सुरीली बांसुरी/शहनाई) में आमतौर पर 8 छिद्र (Holes) होते हैं।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
519📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionDevotional Instruments of Ladakh & Kashmir
Which percussion instrument is played during morning and evening prayers in Kashmir and Ladakh?
Explanation
Thaluz (metal cymbals / gong percussion) is struck during morning and evening spiritual prayers across Buddhist monasteries and shrines in Ladakh and Kashmir.
कश्मीर और लद्दाख में सुबह और शाम की प्रार्थनाओं के दौरान 'थालुज़' (Thaluz / झांझ) वाद्य यंत्र बजाया जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
520📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Folk Instruments of Jammu Hills
What is the name of musical instrument similar to "Shehnai" played on festive occasions in the mountain regions?
Explanation
Narsingha (or Narsinga) is a large, curved S-shaped brass wind instrument played alongside drums during weddings and hill festivals in Jammu's mountain ranges.
पर्वतीय क्षेत्रों में उत्सवों पर शहनाई और नगाड़े के साथ बजाया जाने वाला सुषिर वाद्य 'नरसिंघा' (Narsingha) है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
521📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Wanwun Folk Singing
Wanwun is a form of folk song generally sung on which of the following occasions:
Explanation
Wanwun (Vanvun) is a rhythmic choral wedding song sung exclusively by women during marriage festivities across both Kashmiri Muslim and Kashmiri Pandit traditions.
'वानवुन' (Wanwun) कश्मीर में विवाह (Wedding) के मांगलिक अवसरों पर महिलाओं द्वारा गाया जाने वाला लोक गीत है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
522📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Kud Dance & Mela Patt
On which occasion is "Kud" dance performed?
Explanation
Kud dance is a ritualistic harvest thanksgiving dance of Jammu's hilly areas (Bhaderwah, Kishtwar, Udhampur) performed during village fairs like Mela Patt and Gram Devta celebrations.
'कुद नृत्य' (Kud Dance) भद्रवाह के प्रसिद्ध 'मेला पट्ट' (Mela Patt) और ग्राम देवता उत्सवों पर किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
523📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Dogri Wedding Songs
In Jammu which folk songs are sung during wedding and other occasions?
Explanation
Suhag (and Ghoriyan) are traditional wedding folksongs sung by women in Jammu to bless the bride and groom.
जम्मू में विवाह के शुभ अवसर पर महिलाओं द्वारा 'सुहाग' (Suhag) और घोड़ियां गाई जाती हैं।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
524📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Lohri Celebrations in Jammu
What dance is performed during the "Lohri" festival in Jammu?
Explanation
During Lohri, boys and men in Jammu perform vibrant Dogri and Bharo folk dances alongside Chajja performances.
लोहड़ी पर्व पर जम्मू में 'डोगरी नृत्य और भारो नृत्य' प्रस्तुत किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
525📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Rouf Dance of Kashmir
Which among the following is the dance performed during Eid and Ramadan in Kashmir?
Explanation
Rouf is the iconic festive dance of Kashmiri women, performed in facing rows with interlocking arms celebrating Eid, Ramadan, and spring harvest.
कश्मीर में ईद और रमजान के खुशी के अवसर पर महिलाओं द्वारा 'रऊफ' (Rouf) नृत्य किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
526📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Women Festivals in Jammu
In which festival do the women perform the Ghurehi dance:
Explanation
Ghurehi dance is a circular women's folk dance performed during local festive fasts and fairs such as Ghurehi Trithya / Teej.
घुरई नृत्य महिलाओं द्वारा 'घुरई तृतीया' (Ghurehi Trithya) पर किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
527📚Taal Shastra & RhythmsKashmiri Literature & Habba Khatoon
The book named Habba Khatoon based on the legendary mystic poetess has been penned down by:
Explanation
The play/book 'Habba Khatoon' highlighting the life of the 16th-century peasant queen and Nightingale of Kashmir was written by Kajal Suri.
प्रसिद्ध कवयित्री हब्बा खातून पर आधारित पुस्तक 'काजल सूरी' (Kajal Suri) द्वारा लिखी गई है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
528📚Taal Shastra & RhythmsAcoustic Ratios of Octaves
What is the frequency ratio between the notes, one octave apart?
Explanation
Two notes separated by one octave have an exact fundamental frequency ratio of 2:1 (e.g. A5 = 880 Hz vs A4 = 440 Hz).
एक सप्तक (ऑक्टेव) के अंतराल वाले दो स्वरों के बीच आवृत्ति का अनुपात 2:1 होता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
529📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsAccompaniment Techniques
What is the term used for playing melodic fragments or filler between vocal lines in harmonium accompaniment?
Explanation
An Interlude (or filler phrasing / Meend-tukda) is a short instrumental phrase played by the harmonium accompanist during pauses between vocal verses.
गायन के बीच में हारमोनियम संगतकार द्वारा बजाए जाने वाले मधुर भराव या छोटे संगीत खंड को 'इंटरल्यूड' (Interlude) कहा जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
530📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsTaal in Performance
Which of the following elements in performance is crucial for both the percussionist and the vocalist to maintain rhythmic coherence in a composition?
Explanation
Taal provides the recurring cyclical time-metric framework that synchronizes the vocalist, instrumentalist, and tabla player during a performance.
गायक और तबला वादक के बीच लयबद्ध तालमेल बनाए रखने के लिए सबसे महत्वपूर्ण तत्व 'ताल' (Taal) है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
531📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsHarmonics & Overtones
Which harmonic overtone corresponds to the second octave above a fundamental pitch?
Explanation
Harmonic series relations:
- Fundamental pitch = f1f_1
- 1st octave above = 2nd harmonic (2f12 f_1)
- 2nd octave above = 4th harmonic (4f14 f_1)
- 3rd octave above = 8th harmonic (8f18 f_1).
मूल स्वर से दूसरा सप्तक ऊपर 4था हार्मोनिक (4th harmonic = 4f14f_1) होता है।
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532📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsTonal Tonic (Sa)
What is typically used as the tonal foundation when accompanying the melody on the harmonium?
Explanation
Shadaj (Sa / tonic drone) serves as the universal fundamental pitch reference and tonal foundation across Indian music accompaniment.
हारमोनियम पर संगत करते समय आधार स्वर 'षडज' (Sa / Fixed Drone) होता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
533📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & KashmirHarmonic Progression & Voicing
The concept of octave doubling is essential in which area of music theory?
Explanation
Octave doubling (reinforcing root/bass or melody lines an octave apart) is a fundamental voicing technique in Harmonic Progression and orchestration.
ऑक्टेव डबलिंग (Octave doubling) की अवधारणा 'हार्मोनिक प्रोग्रेशन' (Harmonic Progression) में आवश्यक होती है।
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534📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryTransuranic Elements & Natural Abundance
Why are there no naturally occurring isotopes with an atomics number greater than 92?
Explanation
Transuranic elements (Z>92Z > 92, beyond Uranium) have unstable nuclei with half-lives vastly shorter than the 4.5-billion-year age of the Earth; any primordial isotopes formed during nucleosynthesis have completely decayed away.
यूरेनियम से भारी तत्वों (Z>92Z > 92) के नाभिक अस्थिर होते हैं और उनका अर्धायु काल पृथ्वी की आयु की तुलना में बहुत कम होने के कारण वे प्राकृतिक रूप से समाप्त हो चुके हैं।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
535📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryOxygen Enhancement Ratio (OER) & LET
The OER for alpha particles is equal to:
Explanation
For high-LET densely ionizing radiation like Alpha particles (~100-200 keV/μm), biological damage is produced by direct dense ionization independent of oxygen free radicals, yielding an Oxygen Enhancement Ratio (OER) of 1.0.
अल्फा कणों (High LET) के लिए ऑक्सीजन संवर्धन अनुपात (OER) का मान 1.0 होता है क्योंकि इनका प्रभाव ऑक्सीजन पर निर्भर नहीं करता।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
536📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryOxygen Fixation Hypothesis
Sensitization by oxygen takes place if oxygen is present:
Explanation
Under the oxygen fixation hypothesis, oxygen must be present during the brief irradiation pulse (or within microseconds) to react with radiation-induced transient DNA free radicals (R^\bullet + O_2 → RO_2^\bullet) and fix lethal damage.
ऑक्सीजन द्वारा संवेदीकरण (Sensitization) तभी प्रभावी होता है जब विकिरण के दौरान (During irradiation) ऑक्सीजन ऊतक में उपस्थित हो।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
537📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryPotentially Lethal Damage (PLD)
Radiation damage is divided into (a) lethal damage, (b) sublethal damage and (c) potentially lethal damage (PLD). Which of the following statements is true?
Explanation
Potentially Lethal Damage (PLD) is component damage that ordinarily causes cell death under standard physiological post-irradiation conditions, but can be repaired if cells are incubated in suboptimal growth conditions (e.g. plateau phase / delayed plating).
संभावित घातक क्षति (PLD) सामान्य परिस्थितियों में कोशिका मृत्यु का कारण बनती है, परंतु वृद्धि की स्थिति बदलने पर इसकी मरम्मत संभव है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
538📚Radiation Detection & DosimetrySublethal Damage (SLD) Repair
Sublethal damage repair is:
Explanation
Sublethal Damage (SLD) repair is the operational mechanism (Elkind repair) responsible for the increase in cell survival observed when a total radiation dose is divided/split into two fractions separated by a time interval of hours.
सब-लीथल क्षति मरम्मत (SLD repair) वह कारण है जिससे विकिरण खुराक को दो भागों में विभाजित करने पर कोशिका उत्तरजीविता (Survival) बढ़ जाती है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
539📚Radiation Detection & DosimetrySLD Repair & Cell Cycle Reassortment
The increase of cell survival because of sublethal damage repair:
Explanation
As time increases between split doses, surviving synchronized cells progress around the cell cycle and enter more sensitive phases (M/G2 - reassortment), which produces a dip in survival that counteracts pure repair.
सब-लीथल मरम्मत द्वारा उत्तरजीविता में वृद्धि कोशिका चक्र में आगे बढ़ने ('पुनर्वर्गीकरण' / Reassortment) के कारण संवेदनशीलता बढ़ने से प्रभावित/बाधित होती है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
540📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryDose-Rate Effect in Radiobiology
The dose-rate effect:
Explanation
The dose-rate effect states that lowering the dose rate (or extending exposure duration) reduces the biological effectiveness of a given dose of low-LET radiation because sublethal damage repair occurs during the prolonged irradiation period.
डोज़-रेट प्रभाव में विकिरण का समय बढ़ाने (डोज़ रेट घटाने) पर सब-लीथल मरम्मत होने के कारण विकिरण का जैविक प्रभाव कम हो जाता है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
541📚Radiotherapy Equipment (Linac, Telecobalt)Factors Influencing Cellular Radiosensitivity
Which of these factors has no effect on response of cells to irradiation?
Explanation
Biological cellular response depends on radiation quality (LET), oxygen tension (pO2pO_2), and dose-rate. The image receptor (detector/film) captures transmitted photons outside the patient and has zero influence on biological cell damage.
कोशिकाओं की विकिरण प्रतिक्रिया LET, ऑक्सीजन और डोज़ रेट पर निर्भर करती है; उपयोग किए गए इमेज रिसेप्टर का इस पर कोई प्रभाव नहीं होता।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
542📚Radiotherapy Equipment (Linac, Telecobalt)Attenuation Coefficients & Photon Energy
Attenuation coefficient depends on:
Explanation
The linear/mass attenuation coefficient (μ\mu) depends fundamentally on the incident X-ray photon energy (EE) and the atomic number (ZZ) and density of the absorber.
क्षीणन गुणांक (Attenuation coefficient μ\mu) मुख्य रूप से एक्स-रे फोटॉनों की ऊर्जा (Energy) और माध्यम के परमाणु क्रमांक पर निर्भर करता है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
543📚Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningHounsfield Unit (HU) Calibration
Two materials used to calibrate the CT number scale of CT scanner are:
Explanation
The Hounsfield unit (HU / CT number) scale is fundamentally calibrated using Water (extCTnumber=0 HUext{CT number} = 0\text{ HU}) and Air (extCTnumber=−1000 HUext{CT number} = -1000\text{ HU}).
सीटी नंबर (Hounsfield scale) को कैलिब्रेट करने के लिए पानी (0 HU0\text{ HU}) और वायु (−1000 HU-1000\text{ HU}) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
544📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsHead Study Terminology
Match the terms related to head study modelling with their correct descriptions :

Terms:
1. Proportions.
2. Clay
3. Sculpting
4. Anatomy

Descriptions:
i. A method used for capturing the three - dimensional structure of the head.
ii. The correct relationship between the various facial features and overall head size.
iii. A popular material used to create head studies in modelling.
iv. The study of the human skull and facial structure.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv correctly matches proportions, clay, sculpting, and anatomy.
1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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545📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsModelling Techniques
Match the head study modelling techniques with their correct focus areas :

Techniques:
1. Proportional study
2. Detail modelling
3. Structural modelling.
4. Expression study

Focus areas:
i. Creating the overall shape and structure of the head.
ii. Accurately representing the facial features and their relationships.
iii. Focusing on the depth, shape, and dimension of the skull and face.
iv. Capturing the emotional expression or personality through the head's features.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-iii (Proportions/dimensions), 2-ii (Detail/features), 3-i (Structural/overall shape), 4-iv (Expression).
1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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546📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsSculptural Classification
Match the sculpture technique with its correct description.

Sculpture Techniques:
1. Additive process
2. Subtractive process
3. Casting

Description:
i. Carving or chiselling away material to create the sculpture.
ii. Adding material, such as clay or wax, to build up the sculpture.
iii. Creating a mould and pouring a material, such as metal or plaster, into it to create a sculpture.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-ii (Additive), 2-i (Subtractive), 3-iii (Casting).
1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii सही मिलान है।
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547📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingDrawing Disciplines
Match the following techniques and practices to their correct descriptions:

Column A:
1. Gesture drawing
2. Proportional Measurements
3. Still Life Drawing
4. Figure Drawing

Column B:
i. A technique used to capture the quick, expressive movement of a live subject.
ii. The process of measuring the size relationships between different parts of the subject to ensure accurate representation.
iii. Drawing inanimate objects arranged in a specific way, focusing on form, texture, and light.
iv. Drawing the human form, often from a live model, to study anatomy and posture.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-i (Gesture), 2-ii (Proportion), 3-iii (Still Life), 4-iv (Figure Drawing).
1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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548📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingFigure and Bust Terminology
Match the following terms with their correct descriptions :

Column A:
1. Full figure study
2. Bust study
3. Proportional accuracy
4. Gesture modeling.

Column B:
i. A technique used to capture the subject's natural pose, movement, and overall form.
ii. A focus on modeling the head, neck, and shoulders of the subject.
iii. Ensuring that the size relationships between different parts of the body are realistic and balanced.
iv. Creating a sculpture that represents the entire human body from head to toe.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-iv (Full figure), 2-ii (Bust), 3-iii (Proportion), 4-i (Gesture).
1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i सही मिलान है।
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549📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingLife Modeling Concepts
Which of the following combinations of statements are correct about "Modeling (Full Figure and Bust Study from Life)"?

A) Full figure modeling focuses only on the head and torso, excluding limbs and feet.
B) Bust study primarily involves capturing the intricate details of the subject's facial features and expression.
C) Proportional accuracy in modeling is crucial for realistic representation, especially in full figure sculptures.
D) Gesture modeling is not important in bust studies because the focus is solely on the face.
Explanation
Statements B and C are correct.
कथन B और C सही हैं।
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550📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingComposition Principles
Which of the following is a key principle in sculptural composition?
Explanation
Balance (symmetrical or asymmetrical) and harmony are fundamental principles of sculptural composition.
मूर्तिकला में संतुलन और सामंजस्य स्थापित करने के लिए सममिति और संतुलन एक प्रमुख सिद्धांत है।
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551📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingBronze Casting Cycle
Which of the following combinations correctly describe the process and characteristics of bronze casting?
Explanation
Option D accurately outlines the lost-wax casting cycle: wax model -> investment mould -> burnout -> pouring molten bronze.
कांस्य ढलाई में मोम का मॉडल बनाना, मोल्ड तैयार करना, कांस्य पिघलाना और मोल्ड में डालना शामिल है।
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552📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyModeling Techniques
Which of the following techniques is primarily used in modeling sculptures?
Explanation
Modeling is fundamentally an additive sculptural discipline where material is built up.
मॉडलिंग में मुख्य रूप से सामग्री जोड़कर आकृतियों का निर्माण किया जाता है।
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553📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyGesture Drawing Dynamics
Consider the following statements about gesture drawing in human figure sketching:

i. Gesture drawing captures the action, form, and pose of a figure.
ii. Fine details like facial expressions are crucial in gesture drawing.
iii. Gesture sketches are usually created with quick, flowing lines.
iv. Gesture drawing focuses on the overall movement rather than intricate details.

Choose the correct options
Explanation
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Fine details are omitted during gesture drawing.
कथन i, iii और iv सही हैं।
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554📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyFigure Drawing Terminology
Match the following terms related to drawing (Human figure) with their correct descriptions :

Column A (Term):
i. Gesture Drawing
ii. Foreshortening
iii. 8-Heads rule
iv. Contour Drawing

Column B (Description):
1. Dividing the body into eight equal parts for proportion.
2. Technique to create the illusion of depth in a figure.
3. Quick sketches capturing pose and movement.
4. Outlining the edges and boundaries of a figure.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
i-3 (Gesture), ii-2 (Foreshortening), iii-1 (8-Heads rule), iv-4 (Contour Drawing).
i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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555📚Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingPortraiture History
Identify the correct statements about historical portraiture traditions :

i. Portraiture was primarily reserved for royalty and nobility in early history.
ii. Renaissance artists revolutionized portraiture with lifelike detail and realism.
iii. Portraits in ancient Egypt focused heavily on capturing emotional expressions.
iv. Modern portraiture often includes abstract and experimental styles.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Ancient Egyptian portraits were formalized and idealized, not focused on transient emotions.
कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं।
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556📚Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Casting
What is the process called where molten metal is poured into a mould to create sculptures?
Explanation
Casting is the manufacturing process where liquid metal is poured into a hollow mould.
पिघली हुई धातु को मोल्ड में डालकर मूर्ति बनाने की प्रक्रिया को कास्टिंग (ढलाई) कहा जाता है।
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557📚Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyInsect Orders Classification
During a field study, three insects wiht the following characteristics were observed:
1. Elongate, membranous wings with netlike venation, long and slender abdomen, large compound eyes.
2. Small bodied, sucking mouth parts, narrow wings fringed with setae.
3. Sclerotized forewings, membranous hindwings, chewing mouth parts.
They can be identified to their respective order as
Explanation
1 = Odonata (Dragonflies), 2 = Thysanoptera (Thrips with fringed wings), 3 = Coleoptera (Beetles with elytra).
1-ओडोनाटा (ड्रैगनफ्लाई), 2-थाइसानोप्टेरा (थ्रिप्स), 3-कोलियोप्टेरा (बीटल्स)। सही उत्तर D है।
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558📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyMolecular Evolution
With time molecular distance between organisms increases during evolution largely due to
Explanation
Motoo Kimura's Neutral Theory of Molecular Evolution demonstrates that the majority of evolutionary divergence at the molecular sequence level is driven by the steady accumulation of neutral mutations.
तटस्थ उत्परिवर्तन (Neutral mutation) आणविक घड़ी के आधार पर प्रजातियों के बीच आणविक दूरी बढ़ाने का मुख्य कारण है।
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559📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyGeological Time Scale
The correct order of periods from Paleozoic to Mesozoic era is
Explanation
Geological time scale: Paleozoic (Cambrian -> Ordovician -> Silurian -> Devonian -> Carboniferous -> Permian) followed by Mesozoic (Triassic -> Jurassic -> Cretaceous).
कैम्ब्रियन -> ऑर्डोविशियन -> सिलूरियन -> डेवोनियन -> कार्बोनिफेरस -> पर्मियन -> ट्रायसिक -> जुरासिक -> क्रिटेशियस।
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560📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyCytogenetics
Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for
Explanation
Meiotic crossing over during pachytene of prophase I breaks linkage groups to generate genetic recombination and novel allelic combinations.
द्विगुणित जीवों में क्रॉसिंग ओवर आनुवंशिक पुनर्संयोजन (Recombination) के लिए जिम्मेदार है।
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561📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyVertebrate Excretory Physiology
Henle's loop is present only in
Explanation
Loops of Henle evolved specifically in the metanephric nephrons of mammals and birds to generate hypertonic urine via countercurrent multiplication.
हेनले का लूप (Henle's loop) केवल पक्षियों और स्तनधारियों में केंद्रित मूत्र उत्पादन के लिए पाया जाता है।
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562📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyDNA Replication Enzymology
During DNA replication, events at the replication fork require different types of enzymes having specialized functions except?
Explanation
DNA glycosylases operate in Base Excision Repair (BER) pathways, not as core replication fork replication machinery.
डीएनए ग्लाइकोसाइलेज (DNA glycosylase) डीएनए रिपेयर में काम आता है, यह प्रतिकृति फोर्क का सामान्य एंजाइम नहीं है।
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563📚Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCognitive Ethology
An animal's ability to escape from a predator by using the explored knowledge of home are is an example of
Explanation
Latent learning involves acquiring spatial cognitive maps of home ranges during exploration without immediate reward or reinforcement.
पूर्व ज्ञान और क्षेत्र अन्वेषण के आधार पर शिकारी से बचना अव्यक्त अधिगम (Latent learning) का उदाहरण है।
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564📚Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsComparative Vertebrate Anatomy
In which of the animals the heart does not have the left and right auricles?
Explanation
Fishes possess a 2-chambered branchial heart (one atrium and one ventricle) with undivided single circulation.
मछलियों के दो-कक्षीय हृदय में बाएं और दाएं अलिंद का विभाजन नहीं होता है।
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565📚Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population Dynamicsr and K Selection
Which of the following best describes r-selected species?
Explanation
r-selected strategists prioritize high intrinsic reproductive rates (rr), early maturity, rapid dispersal, and high fecundity with minimal parental investment.
r-चयनित प्रजातियाँ उच्च प्रजनन दर और कम पैतृक देखभाल के साथ कई संतानों को तेजी से जन्म देती हैं।
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566📚Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationPsychometric Measurement Scales
What type of scale is used to measure the degree to which respondents agree or disagree with a statement?
Explanation
A Likert scale is a psychometric response scale (e.g. 1–5 from strongly disagree to strongly agree) measuring attitudes and agreement levels.
कथन से सहमति या असहमति की डिग्री को मापने के लिए लिकर्ट स्केल (Likert scale) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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567📚Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisImmunoglobulin Biochemistry
Antibodies are termed as :
Explanation
Immunoglobulins (antibodies) migrate within the gamma-globulin fraction during serum protein electrophoresis.
एंटीबॉडीज को गामा-ग्लोब्युलिन (γ\gamma-globulins) के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया जाता है।
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568📚Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisMammalian Respiratory Evolution
Assertion (A): Mammals are the only vertebrates that exhibit diaphragmatic breathing.
Reason (R) : The diaphragm in mammals is crucial for oxygen supply during high-energy activities.

Options:
Explanation
The muscular diaphragm is a unique mammalian evolutionary innovation separating thoracic and abdominal cavities to support high endothermic metabolic oxygen demands.
दोनों A और R सत्य हैं, और R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है।
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569📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Type 1 Lepra Reaction
Which of the following is a common complication in a patient experiencing Type 1 lepra reaction?
Explanation
Type 1 lepra reaction (Reversal reaction) is a delayed hypersensitivity response characterized by acute erythema, edema, and swelling of pre-existing skin lesions and neuritis.
टाइप 1 लेप्रा रिएक्शन में मौजूदा त्वचा के घावों में लालिमा और सूजन (Redness and swelling of skin lesions) होती है।
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570📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Patient Counselling & Stigma
Which of the following is emphasized during counselling of a patient newly diagnosed with leprosy?
Explanation
Counselling stresses that leprosy is completely curable with standard Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) and transmission ceases within days of initiating treatment.
काउंसलिंग में यह स्पष्ट किया जाता है कि कुष्ठ रोग मल्टी-ड्रग थेरेपी (MDT) से पूरी तरह साध्य और ठीक होने योग्य (Curable) है।
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571📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Pregnancy and Leprosy
Which of the following statements about pregnancy and leprosy are correct?
i. Pregnancy suppresses immune responses, potentially worsening leprosy.
ii. Type 1 lepra reactions are less frequent during pregnancy.
iii. Multi-drug therapy (MDT) is contraindicated during pregnancy.

Select the correct answer:
Explanation
Pregnancy suppresses Th1 cell-mediated immunity; standard WHO MDT is safe (not contraindicated) during pregnancy.
कथन i और ii सही हैं। MDT गर्भावस्था में पूरी तरह सुरक्षित है।
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572📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Disability Prevention & Rehabilitation
Which of the following statements about disabilities and rehabilitation in leprosy are correct?
i. Disabilities in leprosy are often caused by peripheral nerve damage.
ii. Reconstructive surgery can reverse all nerve-related deformities.
iii. Physical and occupational therapy play a significant role in rehabilitation.

Select the correct answer:
Explanation
Statements i and iii are correct. Reconstructive surgery can correct motor deformities (claw hand) but cannot reverse sensory loss (anesthesia).
कथन i और iii सही हैं।
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573📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Clinical Forms of Leprosy
Match the following types or reactions of leprosy with their corresponding clinical features:
Column A:
i. Tuberculoid leprosy
ii. Lepromatous leprosy
iii. Type 1 lepra reaction
iv. Type 2 lepra reaction

Column B:
1. Numbness in glove and stocking pattern
2. Inflammation of existing skin lesions and nerves
3. Solitary hypo-esthetic patch
4. Reddish tender nodules

Select the correct answer:
Explanation
i-3 (TT = solitary hypoesthetic patch), ii-1 (LL = symmetrical stocking-glove numbness), iii-2 (Type 1 = inflammation of existing lesions/neuritis), iv-4 (Type 2 = crops of tender erythematous nodules/ENL).
i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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574📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Leprosy Drug Adverse Effects
Match the following leprosy drugs with their notable side effects:
Column A:
i. Rifampicin
ii. Dapsone
iii. Clofazimine
iv. Ofloxacin

Column B:
1. Hemolytic anemia
2. Reddish discoloration especially of skin, and body fluids
3. Red discoloration of urine, tears, and saliva (not skin)
4. Vaginitis

Select the correct answer:
Explanation
Rifampicin -> Orange-red discoloration of urine/tears (3), Dapsone -> Hemolytic anemia / Methemoglobinemia (1), Clofazimine -> Reddish-black skin pigmentation (2), Ofloxacin -> Vaginitis/GI upset (4).
i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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575📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Leprosy Phenomena & Manifestations
Match the following terms in leprosy with their descriptions:
Column A:
i. Lucio phenomenon
ii. Downgrading reaction
iii. Madarosis
iv. Lazarine leprosy

Column B:
1. Loss of eyebrows or eyelashes in advanced lepromatous leprosy
2. A severe necrotizing vasculitis seen in diffuse lepromatous leprosy
3. Immunological shift resulting in worsening of lesions
4. Diffuse infiltration without visible nodulation, giving a myxedematous appearance

Select the correct answer:
Explanation
Lucio phenomenon -> Severe necrotizing purpuric vasculitis in diffuse LL (2), Downgrading reaction -> Shift toward lepromatous pole with falling CMI (3), Madarosis -> Loss of eyebrows/eyelashes (1), Lazarine leprosy -> Ulcerative tuberculoid form (4/3).
i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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576📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsCandidiasis and Antifungal Resistance
Consider the following statements about Candida infections:
i. Candida is a part of the normal flora of the human body and can become pathogenic under certain conditions.
ii. Pseudohyphae formation is a demonstrable feature of Candida albicans in KOH preparations.
iii. Inhaled or systemic corticosteroids predispose to oral candidiasis.
iv. Fluconazole is the first-line treatment for Candida auris infections.

Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is false because Candida auris is multidrug-resistant and frequently resistant to fluconazole (Echinocandins are first-line).
कथन i, ii और iii सही हैं। कैंडिडा ऑरिस फ्लुकोनाज़ोल प्रतिरोधी होता है।
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577📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsHerpesvirus Latency & Reactivation
Which of the following viral infections typically presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base and is known for reactivation during periods of immunosuppression or stress?
Explanation
Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV-1 and HSV-2) establishes lifelong latency in sensory nerve ganglia and reactivates as clustered vesicles on an erythematous base.
हर्पीस सिम्प्लेक्स वायरस (HSV) संवेदी गैन्ग्लिया में निष्क्रिय रहता है और तनाव/प्रतिरक्षा दमन में पुनः सक्रिय होकर गुच्छेदार फफोले बनाता है।
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578📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsPediatric Viral Exanthems
A 3-year-old child presents with fever, irritability, and difficulty eating. On examination, there are multiple painful ulcers in the oral cavity, along with scattered vesicular lesions on the palms, soles, and buttocks. The lesions are non-pruritic and have a grayish base. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The clinical presentation of oral aphthous-like enanthem and gray oval vesicles on palms, soles, and buttocks in a young child is pathognomonic for Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease (Coxsackievirus A16 / Enterovirus 71).
हैंड, फुट एंड माउथ डिजीज (HFMD - कॉक्ससैकी वायरस) में मुंह में छाले और हथेलियों, तलवों तथा नितंबों पर फफोले होते हैं।
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579📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersCutaneous Biology Fundamentals
Consider the following statements about the basic structure and function of the skin:
i. The epidermis is avascular and relies on diffusion from the dermis for nutrients.
ii. Melanocytes are present in the stratum spinosum of the epidermis.
iii. The dermis contains collagen and elastin fibers that provide strength and elasticity to the skin.
iv. The stratum corneum plays a major role in preventing water loss from the skin.

Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Statement ii is false because melanocytes reside in the basal layer (stratum basale).
कथन i, iii, और iv सही हैं। मेलानोसाइट्स स्ट्रेटम बेसेल में स्थित होते हैं।
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580📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesCryptococcus Diagnosis
Consider the following statements regarding Cryptococcus neoformans:
i. India ink preparation is a rapid diagnostic method to identify Cryptococcus neoformans in cerebrospinal fluid.
ii. On histopathological examination, mucicarmine stain highlights the capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans.
iii. Sabouraud's dextrose agar can be used for culturing Cryptococcus neoformans.
iv. Gram staining is the most specific method for identifying Cryptococcus neoformans.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is false because Gram staining is non-specific for encapsulated yeast.
कथन i, ii, और iii सही हैं (इंडिया इंक और म्यूसीकारमाइन स्टेन से कैप्सूल पहचाना जाता है)।
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581📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesMycobacterial Culture
What is the preferred medium for culturing Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Explanation
Löwenstein-Jensen (LJ) egg-based medium supplemented with malachite green and glycerol is the reference solid medium for isolating Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
माइकोबैक्टीरियम ट्यूबरकुलोसिस के संवर्धन के लिए लोवेनस्टीन-जेन्सेन (LJ medium) पसंदीदा माध्यम है।
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582📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesParaffin Embedding Purpose
What is the main purpose of tissue embedding in paraffin wax during histopathological processing?
Explanation
Paraffin wax infiltration and embedding provides rigid structural support to soft biopsy tissues so they can be sliced into ultrathin sections on a microtome.
पैराफिन वैक्स में ऊतक एम्बेडिंग का मुख्य उद्देश्य माइक्रोटोम पर पतले सेक्शन काटने के लिए ठोस सहारा (Support) प्रदान करना है।
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583📚Basic EnglishConjunctions
Choose the appropriate option that fills in the given sentence correctly:
Smoking will never be given up, _______ the Tobacco industry thrives.
Explanation
'As long as' (condition/duration conjunction) means 'provided that' or 'during the whole time that'.
As long as' (जब तक कि) सही संयोजक है: 'जब तक तंबाकू उद्योग पनपता रहेगा, धूम्रपान समाप्त नहीं होगा।
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584🔬General ScienceAcid Rain Causes
Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
Explanation
Acid rain forms when atmospheric sulfur dioxide (SO2SO_2) and nitrogen oxides (NOxNO_x) react with water vapor to produce sulfuric and nitric acids.
अम्लीय वर्षा (Acid rain) सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड और नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड्स के वायुमंडलीय प्रदूषण के कारण होती है।
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585🔬General ScienceSeparation Techniques
The joint process of vaporization and condensation is called
Explanation
Distillation is the purification process involving boiling a liquid to vapor (vaporization) followed by cooling the vapor back to liquid (condensation).
वाष्पीकरण (Vaporization) और संघनन (Condensation) की संयुक्त प्रक्रिया को आसवन (Distillation) कहते हैं।
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586🔬General ScienceReproduction Modes
Which of the following is not a process of asexual reproductions?
Explanation
Syngamy is the fusion of two haploid gametes during sexual reproduction to form a diploid zygote.
सिनगैमी (Syngamy - युग्मकों का संलयन) लैंगिक प्रजनन की प्रक्रिया है, अलैंगिक की नहीं।
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587🔬General ScienceCombustible Gases
Which of the following gas causes explosion in coal mines?
Explanation
Methane (CH4CH_4, known as firedamp) forms explosive mixtures when mixed with air in underground coal mines.
कोयला खदानों में विस्फोट का मुख्य कारण मीथेन (Methane / Firedamp) गैस होती है।
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588📚History of India & Freedom Struggle1857 Revolt Administrators
Who was the Governor-General of India during the revolt of 1857?
Explanation
Lord Canning served as Governor-General during the Revolt of 1857 and subsequently became India's first Viceroy under the Government of India Act 1858.
1857 के विद्रोह के समय भारत के गवर्नर-जनरल लॉर्ड कैनिंग (Lord Canning) थे।
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589📚History of India & Freedom StruggleChamparan Satyagraha
The date 10 April 1917 is famous for which event, during Freedom Struggle?
Explanation
On April 10, 1917, Mahatma Gandhi arrived in Patna/Champaran, initiating the historic Champaran Indigo Satyagraha.
10 अप्रैल 1917 को महात्मा गांधी चंपारण पहुंचे, जिसने चंपारण सत्याग्रह (Champaran Satyagraha) की शुरुआत की।
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590📚History of India & Freedom StruggleSatyashodhak Samaj
Whose main aim was to uplift the backward classes?
Explanation
Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-Seekers' Society) was founded by Jyotirao Phule in 1873 to liberate and uplift the non-Brahmin backward classes and women.
सत्यशोधक समाज (ज्योतिराव फुले, 1873) का मुख्य उद्देश्य पिछड़ी जातियों और दलितों का उत्थान था।
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591📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTTunnels and Infrastructure in J&K
Which of the following options is the longest all weather road tunnel that has enabled increase in trade and tourism in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel on NH-44) spans 9.28 km, making it India's longest bi-directional all-weather road tunnel.
डॉ. श्यामा प्रसाद मुखर्जी टनल (चेनानी-नाशरी टनल - 9.28 किमी) जम्मू और कश्मीर की सबसे लंबी ऑल-वेदर रोड टनल है।
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592📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTHydroelectric Projects in J&K
Which is the first hydro power project build by India in Jammu & Kashmir under the Indus water treaty regime?
Explanation
Salal Hydroelectric Project (690 MW on Chenab river in Reasi district) was the first major run-of-the-river project constructed under the 1960 Indus Waters Treaty framework.
सिंधु जल संधि व्यवस्था के तहत जम्मू-कश्मीर में भारत द्वारा निर्मित पहली प्रमुख पनबिजली परियोजना सलाल जलविद्युत परियोजना (Salal Hydroelectric Project) है।
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593📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTJ&K Hydro Projects
Kishanganga hydroelectric project is located in which district of the Jammu & Kashmir?
Explanation
The Kishanganga Hydroelectric Project (330 MW) is located on the Kishanganga/Neelum river in Bandipora district, J&K.
किशनगंगा जलविद्युत परियोजना (330 मेगावाट) जम्मू और कश्मीर के बांदीपोरा (Bandipora) जिले में स्थित है।
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594📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTRivers of J&K
Which of the following rivers serves for Salal Hydel project of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
The Salal Hydroelectric Project is constructed on the Chenab river near Reasi.
सलाल जलविद्युत परियोजना चिनाब (Chenab) नदी पर बनाई गई है।
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595📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTTourism & Culture of J&K
_______, also known as "little Tibet", is renowned for its remote mountain beauty and Buddhist culture.
Explanation
Ladakh is historically and culturally referred to as 'Little Tibet' due to its Tibetan Buddhist traditions and high-altitude trans-Himalayan terrain.
लद्दाख (Ladakh) को 'छोटा तिब्बत' (Little Tibet) के नाम से जाना जाता है।
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596📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsPsychrometric Processes
During the chemical dehumidification process of air
Explanation
In chemical/adsorption dehumidification (using silica gel or activated alumina), moisture is adsorbed (latent heat released), causing specific humidity to decrease while dry bulb temperature (DBT) increases.
रासायनिक निरार्द्रीकरण (Chemical dehumidification) में विशिष्ट आर्द्रता घटती है और शुष्क बल्ब तापमान (DBT) बढ़ता है।
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597📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsElectrical Fundamentals
What is the method of varying inductance in a coil?
Explanation
Inductance L=μN2AlL = \frac{\mu N^2 A}{l} is varied physically by adjusting the position or magnetic permeability of the ferromagnetic core inside the coil.
कुंडली (Coil) के भीतर फेरोमैग्नेटिक कोर (Core) की स्थिति या पारगम्यता को बदलकर प्रेरकत्व (Inductance) बदला जाता है।
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598📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsIndustrial Safety & Fire Fighting
Which of the following statements are true regarding industrial safety and fire fighting in occupational health?
1. Industrial safety focuses on the prevention of injuries and accidents in the workplace.
2. Fire fighting techniques are primarily concerned with preventing damage to machinery.
3. Occupational health safety includes physical, chemical, and biological hazards at the work-place.
4. Fire safety measures in an industrial setting do not require employee training.

Which of the above statements is/are true?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Fire safety prioritizes preservation of human life over machinery, and employee training is mandatory.
कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं (औद्योगिक सुरक्षा चोटों की रोकथाम पर केंद्रित है और व्यावसायिक स्वास्थ्य में भौतिक/रासायनिक खतरे शामिल हैं)।
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599📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsAccumulator Function
What role does the accumulator play in a refrigerator system?
Explanation
A suction line accumulator traps unevaporated liquid refrigerant exiting the evaporator, ensuring that only dry gas enters the compressor suction port, preventing liquid slugging.
एक्यूमलेटर (Accumulator) सक्शन लाइन में तरल रेफ्रिजरेंट को रोककर कंप्रेसर में तरल के प्रवेश (Liquid flood back) को रोकता है।
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600📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsElectrical Transformers & Inverters
Identify the correct pairings of transformer types and their applications.
1. Auto transformer - Used for voltage regulation in large power systems.
2. Current transformer - Used for measuring current in high voltage circuits.
3. Potential transformer - Used in AC transmission to step up voltage.
4. Three-phase inverter - Used in electrical systems to convert AC to DC.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Potential transformers are instrument transformers stepping down high voltage for metering; inverters convert DC to AC.
कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं। पोटेंशियल ट्रांसफार्मर वोल्टेज मापने के लिए स्टेप डाउन करता है, और इन्वर्टर DC को AC में बदलता है।
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601📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsFrost-Free Refrigerator Controls
What function does the damper serve in a frost-free refrigerator?
Explanation
An air damper (manual or motorized thermostat-controlled baffle) modulates the volume of chilled air circulating from the freezer compartment into the fresh food refrigerator compartment.
फ्रॉस्ट-फ्री रेफ्रिजरेटर में डैम्पर (Damper) फ्रीजर से फ्रिज कम्पार्टमेंट में ठंडी हवा के प्रवाह को नियंत्रित (Adjusting the air flow) करता है।
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602📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsAC Troubleshooting Matrix
Match the air conditioning problems with their respective solutions and select correct one.
Problem:
i. Insufficient cooling
ii. Water leakage from the indoor unit
iii. Unusual noises from the AC
iv. AC not turning on
v. Bad odour from the AC

Possible Solution:
1. Check and clean the air filters or ensures adequate refrigerant levels.
2. Inspect and clean the drainage system; ensure no blockages.
3. Verify electrical connections, the thermostat settings, and the power supply.
4. Clean the evaporator coil and the air filters; ensure there is no mold or debris build-up.
5. Inspect for loose components or damaged fan blades and tighten or repair as needed.

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Insufficient cooling -> Clean filter/refrigerant (i-1), Water leakage -> Clean drain pipe (ii-2), Unusual noise -> Tighten loose fan parts (iii-5), Not turning on -> Electrical power check (iv-3), Bad odour -> Clean mold on evaporator coil (v-4).
i-1, ii-2, iii-5, iv-3, v-4 सही मिलान है।
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603📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsIce Plant Refrigeration
Which type of refrigeration system is typically used in an ice plant?
Explanation
Commercial ice manufacturing plants utilize large-scale ammonia (NH3NH_3 / R-717) Vapour Compression Refrigeration systems with brine tanks.
बर्फ बनाने वाले संयंत्रों (Ice plants) में अमोनिया वाष्प संपीड़न प्रशीतन प्रणाली (VCR system) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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604📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsCassette AC Systems
What is the primary advantage of the Cassette Type Air Conditioning system?
Explanation
Cassette indoor units mount flush into false ceilings, featuring 4-way or 360-degree motorized louvers that deliver uniform draft-free air distribution across large open spaces.
कैसेट एसी छत पर लगा (Ceiling-mounted) होता है, जिससे कमरे में चारों दिशाओं में समान और प्रभावी शीतलन मिलता है।
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605📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsComfort Air Conditioning
A Comfort Air Conditioning System primarily focuses on:
Explanation
Comfort air conditioning regulates temperature (24∘C±1∘C24^\circ\text{C}\pm 1^\circ\text{C}), relative humidity (50%±5%50\%\pm 5\%), air motion, and air purity specifically for human biological comfort.
कम्फर्ट एयर कंडीशनिंग का मुख्य उद्देश्य मानव आराम के लिए उपयुक्त तापमान और आर्द्रता बनाए रखना (Providing consistent temperature and humidity control) है।
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606📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesCompressor Capacity Control
Which method is commonly used to control the capacity of commercial compressors?
Explanation
Hot gas bypass valves, cylinder unloading, and variable frequency speed modulation are standard industrial methods for modulating compressor capacity during part-load conditions.
व्यावसायिक कंप्रेसर की क्षमता को नियंत्रित करने के लिए हॉट गैस बाईपास वाल्व (Bypass valve / Cylinder unloading) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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607📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesCopper Tubing Flaring Tools
What is the part marked as X in the flaring set diagram (pointing to the clamping bar with precision chamfered holes)?
Explanation
The flaring block (or flaring bar) has multiple calibrated diameter holes to securely grip copper tubing during manual flaring.
चित्र में X से चिह्नित भाग फ्लेयरिंग ब्लॉक (Flaring block / Flaring bar) है।
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608📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesSemiconductor Materials
Which material used for making integrated circuit?
Explanation
High-purity crystalline Silicon (SiSi) is the primary semiconductor material used in fabricating integrated circuits (ICs) and microchips.
एकीकृत परिपथ (Integrated Circuit / IC) बनाने के लिए प्राथमिक अर्धचालक सामग्री सिलिकॉन (Silicon) है।
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609📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsHVAC Maintenance Tools
Match the tool with the AC system component and select the correct one.
Tool:
1. Multimeter
2. Refrigerant Gauge Set
3. Wrench
4. Vacuum Pump

Function:
i. Tightening or loosening bolts and screws
ii. Measuring electrical current, voltage, and resistance
iii. Charging and checking refrigerant levels in the system
iv. Removing air and moisture from the refrigerant system

Which of the above is/are correct?
Explanation
Multimeter -> Electrical testing (1-ii), Gauge set -> Pressure/charging (2-iii), Wrench -> Fastening (3-i), Vacuum pump -> Evacuation (4-iv).
1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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610📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsRefrigerant Recovery Safety
During refrigerant recovery, why should a recovery cylinder not be overfilled?
Explanation
Refrigerant recovery cylinders must strictly never be filled past 80%80\% of liquid volume (the 80% fill rule) to leave vapor expansion headroom, preventing fatal hydrostatic shell rupture under ambient temperature rise.
रिकवरी सिलेंडर को 80%80\% से अधिक इसलिए नहीं भरा जाता ताकि तापमान बढ़ने पर हाइड्रोस्टैटिक दबाव से सिलेंडर फटने (Rupture) से बचा जा सके।
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611📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsElectronic Components Fundamentals
Match List-I (Electronic component) to List-II (Function) and select correct answer
List-I:
i. Resistor
ii. Capacitor
iii. Diode
iv. Transistor
v. LED

List-II:
1. Stores electric charge
2. Regulates current flow and provides resistance
3. Amplifies signals or acts as a switch
4. Emits light when current flows through it.
5. Allows current to flow in one direction only

Choose the correct Answer:
Explanation
Resistor -> Current regulation (i-2), Capacitor -> Charge storage (ii-1), Diode -> One-way rectifier (iii-5), Transistor -> Switch/Amplifier (iv-3), LED -> Light emission (v-4).
i-2, ii-1, iii-5, iv-3, v-4 सही मिलान है।
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612📚Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksVisual Impairment Etiology
Which of the following may cause partial of complete visual impairment?
Explanation
Glaucoma (optic nerve damage), Cataracts (lens opacification), and Age-related Macular Degeneration (AMD) are all leading pathological causes of partial or complete blindness.
ग्लूकोमा, मोतियाबिंद (Cataracts) और मैकुलर डिजनरेशन तीनों दृष्टिबाधकता के प्रमुख कारण हैं। सही उत्तर 'More than one of the above' है।
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613📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsADL Special Education
Choose the correct option for ADL
Explanation
ADL stands for Activities of Daily Living, encompassing fundamental self-care tasks such as bathing, dressing, eating, toileting, and grooming.
ADL का पूर्ण रूप 'Activities of Daily Living' (दैनिक जीवन की बुनियादी क्रियाएं) होता है।
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614📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesCurriculum Foundations
The curriculum construction is based on -
Explanation
Curriculum construction relies on fundamental axioms of learning, pedagogical principles of child development, and contextual psychological/societal factors.
पाठ्यचर्या निर्माण सिद्धांत, स्वयंसिद्ध मान्यताओं और कारकों (All of the above) पर आधारित होता है।
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615📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesFormative Evaluation
_______ types of evaluation assess the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction.
Explanation
Formative evaluation is conducted during the ongoing teaching-learning process to monitor progress, identify gaps, and provide continuous developmental feedback.
रचनात्मक मूल्यांकन (Formative evaluation) शिक्षण के दौरान निरंतर प्रतिक्रिया प्रदान करने के लिए किया जाता है।
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616📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationNEP 2020 Objectives
Which of the following is NOT a key objective of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020?
Explanation
NEP 2020 emphasizes foundational literacy, skilling, holistic multi-disciplinary learning, and restructuring into consolidated higher education clusters rather than mere expansion of university counts.
केवल विश्वविद्यालयों की संख्या बढ़ाना NEP 2020 का प्राथमिक मुख्य उद्देश्य नहीं है; इसका ध्यान गुणवत्ता, कौशल और सार्वभौमिक पहुंच पर है।
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617📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationCerebral Palsy Etiology
What causes cerebral palsy?
Explanation
Cerebral palsy results from non-progressive brain damage or developmental malformation occurring in the prenatal, perinatal (hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy), or early postnatal period.
सेरेब्रल पाल्सी जन्म से पहले, जन्म के समय या जन्म के तुरंत बाद मस्तिष्क क्षति के विभिन्न कारणों (मल्टीफैक्टोरियल) से होती है।
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618📚Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesHuman Rights Paradigm
Which of the following statements about disability is TRUE?
Explanation
Under constitutional and human rights principles (UNCRPD), persons with disabilities possess equal fundamental human rights, dignity, autonomy, and equal opportunities.
दिव्यांग व्यक्तियों को अन्य सभी नागरिकों के समान समान अधिकार और अवसर प्राप्त हैं।
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619📚Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesTagore Educational Philosophy
Which of the following best describes Tagore's view on the purpose of education?
Explanation
Rabindranath Tagore's educational vision (manifested at Visva-Bharati, Santiniketan) championed naturalistic education, freedom of thought, universal humanism, and the unfettered nurturing of creative individuality in communion with nature.
रवींद्रनाथ टैगोर के अनुसार शिक्षा का उद्देश्य प्रकृति के सानिध्य में बच्चे की रचनात्मकता और वैयक्तिकता का पोषण करना (To nurture creativity and individuality) है।
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620📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesRespiratory Anatomy
Which structure in the human body is responsible for producing sound?
Explanation
The Larynx (voice box) contains the vocal cords which vibrate during expiration to produce phonation and sound.
मानव शरीर में ध्वनि उत्पादन के लिए स्वरयंत्र (Larynx / Voice box) जिम्मेदार होता है।
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621📚Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlBiomedical Waste Management
Which of the following types of solid waste is typically classified as "biomedical waste"?
Explanation
Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling Rules) classifies waste generated during diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of human beings or animals in healthcare facilities into distinct color-coded categories.
अस्पतालों, क्लीनिकों और प्रयोगशालाओं से उत्पन्न जैविक/संक्रामक कचरे को बायोमेडिकल वेस्ट (Biomedical waste) कहा जाता है।
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622📚Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlNoise Pollution Regulations
In terms of regulatory limits, what is the typical acceptable day-time noise level (Lday) for residential areas in most urban settings according to noise pollution standards?
Explanation
Under the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) Noise Pollution Rules 2000, permissible ambient noise limits for Residential Areas are 55 dB(A)55\text{ dB(A)} during daytime (6 AM–10 PM) and 45 dB(A)45\text{ dB(A)} at night.
केंद्रीय प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड (CPCB) के अनुसार आवासीय क्षेत्रों में दिन के समय ध्वनि का अनुमेय स्तर 55 dB (55 dB(A)) है।
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623📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesEndocrine Regulation of Glucose
Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for counteracting the effects of insulin and raising blood glucose levels, particularly during fasting or stress?
Explanation
Glucagon (secreted by pancreatic alpha cells) stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, elevating blood glucose concentrations in response to hypoglycemia.
ग्लूकागन (Glucagon) इंसुलिन के विपरीत कार्य करके उपवास या तनाव के दौरान रक्त शर्करा के स्तर को बढ़ाता है।
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624📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesOphthalmology in Public Health
Which of the following eye diseases is characterized by progressive vision loss beginning with peripheral vision and is often associated with increased intraocular pressure?
Explanation
Glaucoma (Kala Motia) is an optic neuropathy typically linked to elevated intraocular pressure (IOP), presenting initially with asymptomatic peripheral visual field constriction (tunnel vision).
ग्लूकोमा (Glaucoma / काला मोतिया) में अंतःनेत्र दाब (IOP) बढ़ने से परिधीय दृष्टि (Peripheral vision) का क्रमिक ह्रास होता है।
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625📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesFood Adulteration
The practice of adding non-edible coloring agents like malachite green and rhodamine B in food products is most commonly seen in which of the following foods in India?
Explanation
Malachite green (a carcinogenic dye) is illegally applied to green vegetables (green peas, spinach, bitter gourd, chillies) to give them a fresh, bright green appearance.
हरी सब्जियों (Green vegetables - मटर, परवल) को चमकदार हरा दिखाने के लिए मैलाकाइट ग्रीन जैसे जहरीले रंगों की मिलावट की जाती है।
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626📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesSlaughterhouse Sanitation
Which of the following procedures is crucial for ensuring sanitation during the slaughtering process?
Explanation
Immediately after evisceration, thoroughly washing carcasses with clean potable pressurized water removes surface blood clots, bone dust, and fecal contamination.
बूचड़खाने में वध के तुरंत बाद मांस के शवों को साफ पीने योग्य पानी से धोना (Washing carcasses with potable water) स्वच्छता के लिए अत्यंत आवश्यक है।
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627📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHCritical Control Points
In the context of foodborne illnesses, which of the following is considered a critical control point during food preparation in an eating establishment?
Explanation
Cooking food to a validated minimum internal core temperature (e.g. 74∘C74^\circ\text{C} for poultry) is a critical control point (CCP) that destroys vegetative bacterial pathogens.
भोजन को उपयुक्त आंतरिक तापमान (Appropriate internal temperature) तक पकाना सबसे महत्वपूर्ण क्रिटिकल कंट्रोल पॉइंट (CCP) है।
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628📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHFactories Act 1948 Health Provisions
Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, which of the following tasks would fall under the jurisdiction of a sanitary inspector?
Explanation
Chapter III (Health) of the Factories Act 1948 mandates statutory inspections of factory cleanliness, disposal of wastes and effluents, ventilation, lighting, drinking water, latrines, and spittoons.
कारखाना अधिनियम 1948 के तहत सेनेटरी इंस्पेक्टर का कार्य कारखानों में उचित स्वच्छता और सफाई मानकों की समय-समय पर जांच (Conducting periodic inspections) करना है।
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629📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHSanitary Inspector Duties
Consider the following statement:
In the context of environmental health, a sanitary inspector in India would typically be involved in:
i. Ensuring that proper waste disposal and sewage systems are in place
ii. Monitoring air pollution levels in urban areas
iii. Developing infrastructure for new factories and roads
iv. Conducting sanitation audits for public health facilities

Which of the following statement is/are correct?
Explanation
Sanitary inspectors monitor municipal solid waste/sewage systems (i), ambient pollution surveillance (ii), and hygiene audits of public facilities (iv); road/factory civil construction (iii) belongs to civil engineering.
कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं।
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630📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHAntenatal Care Protocols
Match the following pairs:
i. Counselling on diet and lifestyle
ii. Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation
iii. Blood pressure monitoring
iv. Blood group and hemoglobin check

Clinical Purpose:
1. To prevent maternal anemia during pregnancy
2. Ensures healthy fetal growth and development
3. Helps identify Rh incompatibility and anemia
4. Detects signs of pre-eclampsia or hypertension

Which of the following pair is correct?
Explanation
Diet counselling -> Fetal growth (i-2), IFA tablets -> Maternal anemia prevention (ii-1), BP monitoring -> Pre-eclampsia detection (iii-4), Blood group/Hb -> Rh incompatibility/anemia (iv-3).
i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 सही मिलान है।
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631📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHPostnatal Newborn Care
In postnatal care, what is the most important aspect of monitoring the health of the newborn during the first week after birth?
Explanation
Home-Based Newborn Care (HBNC) guidelines prioritize assessing thermal status (preventing hypothermia), weight gain, umbilical stump hygiene, and exclusive breastfeeding adequacy.
प्रसवोत्तर देखभाल में जन्म के पहले सप्ताह में नवजात के तापमान, वजन और स्तनपान पैटर्न (Temperature, weight, and feeding patterns) की निगरानी सबसे महत्वपूर्ण है।
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632📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHErgonomic Hazards
Which of the following is considered an ergonomic hazard in the workplace?
Explanation
Ergonomic hazards arise from awkward postures, repetitive biomechanical strain, vibration, and poorly designed workstations, causing cumulative musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs / carpal tunnel syndrome).
कार्यस्थल पर बार-बार होने वाली शारीरिक हरकतें (Repetitive motion) मस्कुलोस्केलेटल विकारों का कारण बनती हैं, जो एर्गोनॉमिक खतरा है।
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633📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHOccupational Carcinogens
Which of the following is an occupational disease that results from prolonged exposure to organic solvents like benzene in industries such as painting, cleaning, and chemical manufacturing?
Explanation
Chronic occupational exposure to benzene vapors causes bone marrow toxicity, aplastic anemia, and acute myeloid leukemia (AML).
पेंट और रसायन उद्योग में बेंजीन (Benzene) के संपर्क में रहने से रक्त कैंसर/ल्यूकेमिया (Leukemia) होने का खतरा होता है।
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634📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationClimate Change & Global Health
Which of the following is a major challenge in global health that is directly related to climate change?
Explanation
Climate change drives prolonged droughts, extreme heatwaves, flood events, and desertification, causing catastrophic crop failures, food insecurity, and escalating child malnutrition.
जलवायु परिवर्तन से सीधे तौर पर उत्पन्न होने वाली प्रमुख वैश्विक स्वास्थ्य चुनौती विकासशील देशों में बढ़ती खाद्य असुरक्षा और कुपोषण (Rising food insecurity and malnutrition) है।
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635📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationDiuretic Medications
Which of the following drugs is classified as a "diuretic" to help reduce swelling by increasing urine output?
Explanation
Furosemide (Lasix) is a potent loop diuretic that inhibits the Na+−K+−2Cl−Na^+-K^+-2Cl^- cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of Henle's loop, increasing renal water and sodium excretion to relieve edema.
फ्यूरोसेमाइड (Furosemide) एक मूत्रवर्धक (Diuretic) दवा है जो पेशाब की मात्रा बढ़ाकर सूजन को कम करती है।
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636📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Seizures
What is the best position for someone experiencing a seizure to prevent injury?
Explanation
During a generalized seizure, gently roll the individual into the recovery lateral side position to maintain a patent airway and prevent aspiration of saliva or vomit; cushion their head and never force objects into their mouth.
दौरे (Seizure) के दौरान व्यक्ति को करवट के बल (Side position) लिटाना चाहिए और सिर के नीचे मुलायम वस्तु रखनी चाहिए ताकि सांस नली खुली रहे।
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637📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFIFO Method Disadvantages
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the FIFO (First-In-First-Out) inventory method?
Explanation
During inflationary periods, FIFO matches older lower costs against current high revenues, resulting in inflated reported gross profits and correspondingly higher corporate income tax liabilities.
मुद्रास्फीति (महंगाई) के समय FIFO विधि में पुराना सस्ता स्टॉक पहले बिकने के कारण कागजी मुनाफा अधिक दिखता है जिससे कर देनदारी (Higher taxes) बढ़ जाती है।
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638📚Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementMuseum Architecture & Spatial Planning
Why is the design of a museum gallery and building important?
Explanation
Museum architectural and interior gallery design integrates environmental control, conservation security, circulation flow, lighting, and visitor interpretive engagement.
संग्रहालय दीर्घा और भवन का डिज़ाइन दर्शकों के अनुभव को समृद्ध करने और कलाकृतियों की सुरक्षा (Visitor experience and safety of collections) सुनिश्चित करने के लिए महत्वपूर्ण है।
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639📚Organic Chemistry, Stereochemistry & Reaction IntermediatesReaction Mechanism Fundamentals
Which of the following is a characteristic of a reaction mechanism?
Explanation
A reaction mechanism is the stepwise sequence of elementary microscopic steps detailing bond-breaking, bond-forming, intermediate formation, and electron movement leading from reactants to products.
रासायनिक अभिक्रिया की क्रियाविधि (Reaction mechanism) प्राथमिक पदों का वह क्रम है जो दर्शाता है कि अभिक्रिया वास्तव में कैसे संपन्न होती है।
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640📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesSN1 vs SN2 Fundamentals
Which of the following statements correctly describes the key features of the SN1S_N1 and SN2S_N2 nucleophilic substitution mechanisms?
i. SN1S_N1 reactions involve a two-step mechanism with a carbocation intermediate, resulting in racemization of chiral centers.
ii. SN2S_N2 reactions occur via a single-step mechanism, where the nucleophile attacks the substrate in a backside attack, leading to inversion of configuration.
iii. The rate of SN1S_N1 reactions depends only on the concentration of the nucleophile.
iv. SN2S_N2 reactions are favoured by polar protic solvents.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i and ii are correct: SN1S_N1 produces planar carbocations with racemization; SN2S_N2 proceeds via a concerted backside attack with Walden inversion.
कथन i और ii सही हैं (SN1S_N1 में रेसिमीकरण और SN2S_N2 में विन्यास का प्रतिलोमन / Walden inversion होता है)।
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641📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesEAS Properties and Arenium Ion
Which of the following statements are true regarding Aromatic Electrophilic Substitution reactions?
i. In Aromatic Electrophilic Substitution, the aromatic ring acts as a nucleophile, attacking the electrophile.
ii. Electron-withdrawing groups on the aromatic ring generally decrease the rate of the electrophilic substitution.
iii. The reaction intermediate in the aromatic electrophilic substitution mechanism is a cationic sigma complex (arenium ion).
iv. The leaving group must be strongly basic to facilitate the departure during the substitution.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iii are true: the electron-rich aromatic π\pi-cloud acts as a nucleophile, EWGs deactivate the ring, and the rate-determining intermediate is a resonance-stabilized arenium ion.
कथन i, ii और iii सत्य हैं (बेंजीन वलय नाभिकरागी के रूप में कार्य करता है, EWG दर घटाते हैं, और एरेनियम आयन मध्यवर्ती बनता है)।
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642📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesSNAr Mechanism Fundamentals
Which of the following statements is true regarding Aromatic Nucleophilic Substitution reactions?
i. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution is more common in activated aromatic systems, where electron-withdrawing groups stabilize the intermediate anion.
ii. In the SNArS_N\text{Ar} mechanism, nucleophilic substitution proceeds via a carbanion intermediate formed at the meta position relative to the leaving group.
iii. The SNArS_N\text{Ar} mechanism requires the aromatic ring to be electron-donating, as it stabilizes the negative charge on the intermediate anion.
iv. The SNArS_N\text{Ar} mechanism involves a direct displacement of the leaving group by the nucleophile without the formation of an intermediate.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i and ii describe SNArS_N\text{Ar} (Addition-Elimination via Meisenheimer σ\sigma-complex) where ortho/para EWGs strongly stabilize the negative charge in the carbanionic intermediate.
कथन i और ii सही हैं (SNArS_N\text{Ar} में इलेक्ट्रॉन-आकर्षी समूह कार्बेनियन मध्यवर्ती को स्थायित्व प्रदान करते हैं)।
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643📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesMechanistic Concepts Match
Match the following
List I (Mechanism/Concept):
i. Neighbouring group participation
ii. Electrophilic substitution on aromatic ring
iii. Nucleophilic substitution in aliphatic substrates
iv. Reactivity of aromatic substrates

List II (Effect/Explanation):
1. Increases reactivity through electron donation, stabilizing the transition state (anchimeric assistance)
2. Involves the attack of an electrophile on a nucleophilic aromatic ring
3. Follows a bimolecular mechanism and is dependent on the nature of the leaving group
4. Aromatic substrates often have higher activation energy for substitution due to electron density on the ring.

Options :
Explanation
i -> 1 (NGP = anchimeric rate enhancement), ii -> 2 (EAS = electrophile on π\pi-ring), iii -> 3 (Aliphatic SN2S_N2 = bimolecular), iv -> 4 (Aromatic stability barrier).
1-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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644📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesReaction Types and Intermediate Match
Match the following
List I (Reaction Mechanism/Concept):
i. Allylic halogenation
ii. Neighbouring group assistance
iii. Nucleophilic substitution in aliphatic compounds
iv. Reactivity of aromatic substrates

List II (Explanation/Outcome):
1. Increases reactivity by providing a more stable intermediate
2. Radical intermediates are involved in the formation of products
3. Aromatic compounds require a more specific electrophilic attack for substitution
4. Affected by the nature of the nucleophile and leaving group, follows a SN1 or SN2 mechanism

Options :
Explanation
i -> 2 (Allylic halogenation = radical intermediates), ii -> 1 (NGP assistance = stabilizes intermediate/transition state), iii -> 4 (Aliphatic substitution = SN1/SN2S_N1/S_N2 dependence), iv -> 3 (Aromatic substitution = electrophilic attack).
i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 सही मिलान है।
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645📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesFree Radical Mechanism Fundamentals
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the free radical substitution mechanism?
i. The initiation step involves the homolytic cleavage of a bond to generate two free radicals.
ii. Propagation involves the formation of new bonds between the radicals and substrates, regenerating reactive radicals.
iii. The termination step involves the combination of two free radicals to form a stable product.
iv. Free radical substitution mechanisms are most common in polar solvents, such as water.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iii correctly describe homolytic initiation, radical propagation chain cycles, and termination quenching (statement iv is false because radicals are non-polar and typically run in gas phase or non-polar solvents like CCl4CCl_4).
कथन i, ii और iii सत्य हैं (मुक्त मूलक अभिक्रियाएं अध्रुवीय माध्यमों में होती हैं, जल जैसे ध्रुवीय विलायकों में नहीं)।
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646📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationInsect Metamorphosis & IPM
Write in chronological order the life cycle of an insect :
i. Adult
ii. Larva
iii. Pupa
iv. Egg
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Complete metamorphosis (holometabolous insect lifecycle): (iv) Egg -> (ii) Larva (active feeding/damaging stage) -> (iii) Pupa (transformation stage) -> (i) Adult (reproductive stage).
कीट के जीवन चक्र का सही कालानुक्रम: अंडा (iv) -> लार्वा (ii) -> प्यूपा (iii) -> वयस्क (i)। सही क्रम D (iv, ii, iii, and i) है।
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647📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationConservation Equipment & Applications
Match List I with List II
List I (Conservation Equipment):
1. Whirling Psychrometer
2. X-ray radiographic equipment
3. Leaf caster
4. Freeze-dryer

List II (Application):
I. For measuring RH (Relative Humidity)
II. For filling holes in folios / paper repair
III. For drying waterlogged books and killing insects
IV. For seeing below the surface / internal structure of artifacts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
1 -> I (Whirling Psychrometer measures RH), 2 -> IV (X-ray radiography examines subsurface joints/cracks), 3 -> II (Leaf caster fills holes in degraded paper manuscripts), 4 -> III (Freeze-dryer safely dries water-damaged archival books and eliminates pests).
1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III सही मिलान है।
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648📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationIntegrated Pest Management
What is the most effective method for controlling insect damage in museum collections?
Explanation
Integrated Pest Management (IPM)—maintaining strict environmental climate control (T≤20∘C,RH≤50%T \le 20^\circ\text{C}, RH \le 50\%), cleanliness, quarantine of incoming acquisitions, and sticky insect traps—is the premier non-destructive defense against museum pests.
कीट क्षति नियंत्रण का सबसे प्रभावी और सुरक्षित तरीका उचित भंडारण, तापमान-आर्द्रता नियंत्रण और एकीकृत कीट प्रबंधन (IPM) है।
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649📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationManuscript Conservation Workflow
Arrange in order the steps involved in treatment of a paper manuscript:
i) Removal of acidity (Deacidification)
ii) Filling of holes
iii) Opening of damaged binding
iv) Numbering of folios
v) Binding of folios
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Explanation
Sequential steps in manuscript conservation: (iv) Numbering and recording folios -> (iii) Opening damaged binding -> (i) Aqueous/non-aqueous deacidification -> (ii) Tissue/leaf-casting filling of holes -> (v) Archival re-binding.
पांडुलिपि संरक्षण के सही चरण: पन्नों की नंबरिंग (iv) -> क्षतिग्रस्त बाइंडिंग को खोलना (iii) -> अम्लता हटाना/डीएसिडिफिकेशन (i) -> छेदों को भरना (ii) -> पुनः बाइंडिंग (v)। सही क्रम C है।
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650📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPapier-Mâché Conservation
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the basic steps in the conservation of papier-mâché artifacts/objects?
i. The first step in conservation is to thoroughly clean the artifact to remove dust and dirt.
ii. Stabilization involves repairing cracks, reinforcing weak areas, and ensuring structural integrity.
iii. Protective coatings are applied first to prevent immediate environmental damage.
iv. After stabilization, the artifact is stored without any further treatment to avoid handling damage.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i and ii are correct: conservation of traditional Kashmiri papier-mâché begins with surface dry-cleaning/consolidation of lacquered gesso, followed by structural stabilization with reversible methyl cellulose/polyvinyl alcohol pastes.
कथन i और ii सही हैं (पहले धूल-मिट्टी की सफाई की जाती है, फिर दरारों की मरम्मत और संरचनात्मक स्थिरीकरण किया जाता है)।
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651📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPhotochemical Degradation Order
Due to photochemical effect what would be the damage at first in a framed oil painting?
i) Painting (pigments, Ink)
ii) Background
iii) Frame
iv) Wall
v) Adhesives
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Photons of light strike the front surface first, directly attacking light-sensitive organic colorants, dyes, and background ground layers (pigments, ink, binder), causing fading and embrittlement.
प्रकाश-रासायनिक प्रभाव (Photochemical effect) से सबसे पहले पेंटिंग के रंग/पिगमेंट, स्याही (i) और बैकग्राउंड (ii) को नुकसान पहुंचता है।
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652📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPaper Curative Conservation
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the curative conservation of paper materials (currency notes, judicial papers, and manuscripts)?
i. Currency notes should be handled with gloves to prevent oil and dirt from hands damaging the surface.
ii. Judicial papers can be restored using chemical bleaching to remove stains.
iii. Manuscripts should be stored in a controlled environment with low humidity and temperature to prevent deterioration.
iv. Paper materials should be cleaned using abrasive methods for better preservation.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i and iii are sound conservation practices (handling paper with nitrile/cotton gloves to avoid skin sebum and maintaining climate-controlled archival storage).
कथन i और iii सही हैं (दस्तावेजों को दस्ताने पहनकर संभालना और नियंत्रित तापमान-आर्द्रता में रखना चाहिए)।
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653📚Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesArchaeological Artifact Typologies
Match the types of archaeological objects with their descriptions :
Column A:
1. Pottery
2. Terracotta figurines
3. Stone tools
4. Coins

Column B:
i. Small objects made from clay representing human or animal figures.
ii. Fired clay objects, often with decorative patterns or designs.
iii. Used for cutting and shaping materials, often chipped or polished.
iv. Metal objects used for currency, bearing the image of rulers.

Options :
Explanation
1 -> ii (Pottery = fired clay vessels), 2 -> i (Terracotta figurines = clay human/animal figures), 3 -> iii (Stone tools = chipped/polished lithics), 4 -> iv (Coins = numismatic currency bearing ruler portraits).
1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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654📚Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesPreventive Conservation Definition
What is preventive conservation?
Explanation
Preventive conservation comprises all indirect measures and actions aimed at avoiding, mitigating, and minimizing future deterioration or loss of cultural heritage artifacts through environmental control, storage, handling, and security.
निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive conservation) सांस्कृतिक विरासत और कलाकृतियों के क्षरण, क्षति और नुकसान को रोकने की समग्र रणनीति (Strategy to prevent deterioration of artifacts) है।
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655📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentSelf-Determination Theory
Nurturing self-determination in a person with disability, is related to which psychological mechanism?
Explanation
Self-Determination Theory (Deci & Ryan) posits that fulfilling the core psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness fosters intrinsic Motivation and self-directed agency.
आत्म-निर्धारण (Self-determination) को बढ़ावा देना 'अभिप्रेरणा' (Motivation) के मनोवैज्ञानिक तंत्र से संबंधित है।
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656📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentAcquired Brain Injuries
What is the abbreviation which is commonly used to refer to a condition which is caused by outside force that impacts the head hard enough to cause damage to the brain?
Explanation
TBI stands for Traumatic Brain Injury, an acquired intracranial insult resulting from external biomechanical forces (blunt impact, penetration, or blast trauma).
बाहरी चोट से मस्तिष्क को होने वाली क्षति को 'TBI' (Traumatic Brain Injury / दर्दनाक मस्तिष्क की चोट) कहा जाता है।
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657📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentNeuropsychology of Language
Broca's aphasia is consequence of brain damage which affects which area of functioning?
Explanation
Damage to Broca's area in the posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere causes non-fluent, expressive expressive language impairment, halting speech output, and communication deficits.
ब्रोकास अफ़ेसिया (Broca's aphasia) मस्तिष्क के बाएं ललाट लोब में क्षति के कारण होता है, जो मौखिक संचार (Communication / वाक् अभिव्यक्ति) को बाधित करता है।
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658📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsREBT Emotive Techniques
Which of these is an emotive technique used in REBT?
Explanation
Shame-attacking exercises are a hallmark emotive/behavioral technique invented by Albert Ellis where clients deliberately engage in minor socially awkward actions to overcome irrational shame.
REBT में शर्म और झिझक को दूर करने के लिए 'शेम अटैकिंग एक्सरसाइज' (Shame attacking exercises) एक प्रसिद्ध भावनात्मक तकनीक है।
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659📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsCognitive Modeling Strategies
Learning appropriate self-talk in order to avoid self-defeating thoughts is an example of what type of cognitive modelling?
Explanation
Covert cognitive modeling (internal cognitive restructuring / Donald Meichenbaum's self-instructional training) involves internally practicing adaptive silent self-talk and cognitive coping scripts.
आत्म-पराजित विचारों से बचने के लिए आंतरिक स्व-संवाद सीखना 'प्रच्छन्न संज्ञानात्मक मॉडलिंग' (Covert cognitive modelling) का उदाहरण है।
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660📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsTheoretical Foundations of Behaviorism
Behavioural principles are based on which of this theoretical position?
Explanation
Classical and operant behaviorism fundamentally rests on Environmental Determinism—the premise that overt behavior is acquired, maintained, and modified through environmental stimuli, conditioning, and reinforcement contingencies.
व्यवहारवाद के सिद्धांत 'पर्यावरणीय नियतिवाद' (Environmental determinism) पर आधारित हैं, जिसके अनुसार व्यवहार पर्यावरण और पुनर्बलन द्वारा निर्धारित होता है।
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661📚Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Token Economy Systems
Token economies are being used in a psychiatric rehabilitation facility to effectively maintain or change a broad range of behaviors. What is the underlying concept of behaviourism which is operating here?
Explanation
A token economy is a formal Contingency Management system based on operant conditioning, where tokens earned as secondary reinforcers for target behaviors are exchanged for backup reinforcers.
टोकन इकोनॉमी ऑपरेंट कंडीशनिंग के 'आकस्मिकता प्रबंधन' (Contingency management) के सिद्धांत पर आधारित प्रणाली है।
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662📚Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)
Community-based rehabilitation programmes are based on
Explanation
Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR) is fundamentally built upon a grassroots participatory strategy empowering persons with disabilities, their families, local organizations, and indigenous resources.
सामुदायिक आधारित पुनर्वास (CBR) विकलांग व्यक्तियों, उनके परिवारों और स्थानीय सामुदायिक संसाधनों की भागीदारी (Participatory approach) पर आधारित होता है।
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663📚Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Social Justice and Equalization
What is one aspect of Justice that is realized in Community Based Rehabilitation?
Explanation
Social justice within the UN Convention and CBR guidelines is achieved through the Equalization of Opportunities—ensuring equitable access to education, healthcare, employment, and full social inclusion.
CBR में न्याय (Social Justice) का मुख्य पहलू 'अवसरों का समानीकरण और सामाजिक समावेशन' (Equalization of opportunities and social inclusion) सुनिश्चित करना है।
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664📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISMedical Records Legal Regulations
Which legal regulation governs the management of medical records in many countries?
Explanation
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA, 1996) is the gold standard benchmark regulation governing Protected Health Information (PHI) privacy, electronic security, and medical records management.
चिकित्सा अभिलेखों की गोपनीयता और सुरक्षा को नियंत्रित करने वाला अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्तर पर मान्यता प्राप्त कानून HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) है।
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665📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISNational Health Compliance
Which of the following values of medical records is particularly important in India for ensuring compliance with national health policies and programs?
Explanation
Medical records generate notifiable disease reports and immunization logs required by statutory national programs such as IDSP, NIKSHAY (TB), and Universal Immunization Programme.
राष्ट्रीय स्वास्थ्य नीतियों के अनुपालन के लिए मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड टीकाकरण और रोग निगरानी (Immunization and disease surveillance) जैसी सरकारी पहलों की निगरानी की सुविधा प्रदान करते हैं।
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666📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISPatient Admission Protocols
When admitting a patient, which document is typically required in Indian healthcare facilities?
Explanation
Indian hospitals require Government-issued photo identification (Aadhaar card, Voter ID, Passport, or ABHA health ID) to verify patient identity during central admission.
भारतीय अस्पतालों में रोगी के प्रवेश (Admission) के समय पहचान सत्यापन के लिए 'आधार कार्ड या कोई वैध पहचान पत्र' आवश्यक होता है।
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667📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISMedico-Legal Laboratory Records
When maintaining medical records related to laboratory testing, which of the following is crucial for ensuring that the lab technician's documentation is legally sound?
Explanation
Legally sound laboratory documentation requires recording exact timestamps, accession numbers, collector ID, testing methodology, control validation, and technologist signatures to withstand scrutiny in malpractice litigation.
कानूनी रूप से सुदृढ़ रिकॉर्ड बनाए रखने के लिए नमूना संग्रह, परीक्षण विधि और परिणामों के स्पष्ट विवरण (Clear and precise details) दर्ज करना आवश्यक है।
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668📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISDISHA & Health Data Security
According to Indian regulations, which of the following is a critical aspect of maintaining medical records for lab technicians?
Explanation
Under DISHA and Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) standards, electronic laboratory diagnostic data must be protected with role-based access control, encryption, and secure storage to safeguard patient privacy.
भारतीय नियमों के अनुसार प्रयोगशाला रिकॉर्ड को सुरक्षित रूप से संग्रहीत किया जाना चाहिए ताकि गोपनीयता सुनिश्चित हो और DISHA मानकों का अनुपालन हो सके।
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669📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsPermanent Vital Records
Which type of medical record requires indefinite preservation in most jurisdictions?
Explanation
Statutory Birth and Death registers, master patient indexes, and fetal death logs are permanent legal vital statistics records requiring permanent, indefinite preservation.
कानूनी और सांख्यिकीय महत्व के कारण 'जन्म और मृत्यु रिकॉर्ड' (Birth and death records) को अधिकांश अधिकार क्षेत्रों में अनिश्चित काल के लिए स्थायी रूप से सुरक्षित रखा जाता है।
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670📚Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationLegal Duties in Health Administration
What is the basic legal obligation of a healthcare facility regarding medical records?
Explanation
Healthcare facilities have a fundamental statutory duty of care to securely maintain, preserve, and safeguard the absolute confidentiality of patient records under privacy laws.
स्वास्थ्य सुविधा का मूल कानूनी दायित्व मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड का उचित रखरखाव, संरक्षण और गोपनीयता सुनिश्चित करना (Maintain, preserve, and ensure confidentiality) है।
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671📚Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationMedical Records Legal Violations
Which of the following constitutes violating the legal aspects of medical records retention?
Explanation
Negligent data security, unauthorized disclosures, and failure to protect archived medical records from data breaches constitute statutory violations of privacy and medical records laws.
संग्रहीत रिकॉर्ड को अनधिकृत पहुंच से सुरक्षित रखने में विफलता (Failure to secure from unauthorised access) कानून का सीधा उल्लंघन है।
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672📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeScope of ICD Classification
International Classification of Diseases, ICD is used to classify which of the following?
Explanation
The ICD classifies the entire spectrum of human health encounters: morbidity (diseases, injuries), mortality (underlying causes of death), and health-related social determinants.
ICD का उपयोग बीमारियों और चोटों, मृत्यु के कारणों और स्वास्थ्य स्थितियों (All of the above) सभी के वर्गीकरण के लिए किया जाता है।
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673📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeSurgical Site Infection Surveillance
Why is it essential to calculate the surgical site infection rate in a hospital?
Explanation
Calculating Surgical Site Infection (SSI) rates is vital for infection control surveillance, measuring aseptic operating theater standards, and minimizing post-operative morbidity.
सर्जिकल साइट संक्रमण दर (SSI rate) की गणना सर्जरी से संबंधित अस्पताल-जनित संक्रमणों को मापने और रोकने के लिए आवश्यक है।
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674📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMR Quantitative Deficiency Analysis
During a deficiency check, which of the following is commonly reviewed?
Explanation
Quantitative deficiency analysis in MRD checks for missing physician signatures, incomplete discharge summaries, unsigned operative notes, and missing informed consent forms.
कमी जांच (Deficiency check) के दौरान मुख्य रूप से उपस्थित चिकित्सक के हस्ताक्षर (Signature of the attending physician) और अधूरे फॉर्म्स की समीक्षा की जाती है।
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675📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Percussion Varnas (Boi)
How many sounds (Boi/Varna) are there in Pushkar Vadya?
Explanation
Ancient percussion theory enumerates 16 fundamental syllabic sound alphabets (Ksharaksharas / Varnas / Bois: Ka, Kha, Ga, Gha, Ta, Tha, Da, Dha, etc.) for Pushkar playing.
पुष्कर वाद्य में कुल 16 मूल वर्ण/ध्वनियां (Sixteen Bois/Varnas) बताई गई हैं।
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676📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Marjana in Natyashastra
How many "Marjana" of Avnadh Vadya are there in Natya Shastra?
Explanation
Natyashastra describes 3 Marjanas (tuning paste applications for pitch resonance): Mayuri, Ardha-Mayuri, and Karmaravi.
नाट्यशास्त्र में अवनद्ध वाद्यों की 3 मार्जनाएं (Three Marjanas: मयूरी, अर्ध-मयूरी, कार्मरवी) वर्णित हैं।
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677📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Origins of Indian Music
According to Pt. Damodar, who was the originator of music?
Explanation
In Sangeet Darpana, Pandit Damodar states that music originated from Lord Shiva (Mahesh / Nataraja: Samavedadidam geetam samjagraha pitamahah... Shankarad gayanat).
पंडित दामोदर कृत 'संगीत दर्पण' के अनुसार संगीत के आदि प्रवर्तक भगवान 'महेश' (भगवान शिव) हैं।
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678📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Sangeet Ratnakar Principles
According to Pt. Sharangdev, which music art is prominent?
Explanation
In Sangeet Ratnakar, Pt. Sharangdev declares vocal music supreme: Nrityam vadanugam proktam, vadam gayanuvartinam, ato pradhanam gayanamaatra (Gayan is prominent).
पंडित शारंगदेव के अनुसार गायन, वादन और नृत्य में 'गायन' (Gayan) सर्वप्रमुख है।
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679📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Yajurvedic Instruments
Which Avnadh Vadya was mentioned in Yajur Veda?
Explanation
In the Yajurveda, the grand sacrificial battle drum Adambar (Aadambara) is prominently mentioned as a sacred Avanaddha Vadya.
यजुर्वेद में उल्लिखित प्रमुख अवनद्ध वाद्य 'आडंबर' (Adambar) है।
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680📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Fundamental Layas
How many Layas are there in Indian Classical Music?
Explanation
Indian classical music recognizes three fundamental speeds/layas of rhythm: Vilambit (slow), Madhya (medium), and Drut (fast).
भारतीय शास्त्रीय संगीत में मूल रूप से 3 लय (Three Layas: विलंबित, मध्य, द्रुत) होती हैं।
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681📚Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosAcoustics of Naad
Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of Nad?
Explanation
The three fundamental physical characteristics of musical sound (Naad) are Pitch (Tarta), Intensity/Magnitude (Tivrata), and Timbre/Quality (Jati); 'Noise' (Kolahal) is non-musical chaotic sound.
नाद की तीन विशेषताएं (तारता/Pitch, तीव्रता/Magnitude, जाति/Timbre) हैं; 'शोर' (Noise) नाद की विशेषता नहीं है।
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682📚Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosAnatomy of Tabla Puri
What is the name of the space between Chanti and Syahi in tabla?
Explanation
The intermediate annular circular leather skin area located between the outer rim (Chanti / Kinar) and the central black paste (Syahi) is called the Maidan (or Sur / Lav).
तबले की पूरी पर चांटी (किनार) और स्याही के बीच के खाली चमड़े वाले भाग को 'मैदान' (Maidan / सुर) कहा जाता है।
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683📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Optics Fundamentals
The law of reflection states that
Explanation
The Law of Reflection states that the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection (∠i=∠r\angle i = \angle r).
परावर्तन का नियम कहता है कि आपतन कोण हमेशा परावर्तन कोण के बराबर होता है (Angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection)।
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684📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Acid Rain Chemistry
Acid rain is caused by the emission of
Explanation
Acid rain results when atmospheric sulfur dioxide (SO2SO_2) and nitrogen oxides (NOxNO_x) react with water vapor to form sulfuric and nitric acids (H2SO4,HNO3H_2SO_4, HNO_3).
अम्लीय वर्षा सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड और नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड (Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides) के उत्सर्जन से होती है।
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685📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyWorkplace Safety Principles
Why is workplace safety important?
Explanation
Workplace safety programs prevent occupational injuries, ensure legal regulatory compliance, boost morale, and optimize overall productivity (All of the above).
कार्यस्थल सुरक्षा दुर्घटनाओं को रोकती है, उत्पादकता बढ़ाती है और मनोबल सुधारती है (All of the above)।
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686📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyErgonomics
Ergonomic hazards are primarily associated with
Explanation
Ergonomic hazards stem from biomechanical physical stressors such as repetitive motions, awkward body postures, and poorly designed workstations.
एर्गोनोमिक खतरे खराब शारीरिक मुद्रा और बार-बार होने वाली शारीरिक हरकतों (Poor posture or repetitive motion) से जुड़े होते हैं।
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687📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFactories Act 1948 Purpose
The primary purpose of the Factories Act , 1948 is to
Explanation
The Factories Act 1948 was enacted to consolidate and amend the law regulating occupational health, machine safety, and working welfare of labor in manufacturing factories.
कारखाना अधिनियम 1948 का मुख्य उद्देश्य कारखानों में श्रमिकों के स्वास्थ्य, सुरक्षा और कल्याण (Health, safety, and welfare of workers) को सुनिश्चित करना है।
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688📚General Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningSemantic Analogies
Enigma : Mystery :: Paradox : ?
Explanation
An enigma is fundamentally a mystery; a paradox is fundamentally a seeming contradiction.
इनिग्मा का संबंध रहस्य (Mystery) से है, विरोधाभास (Paradox) का संबंध विरोधाभासी स्थिति (Contradiction) से है।
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689📚General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article.
We visited _______ museum during our trip to _______ city.
Explanation
Specific context requires definite articles: 'We visited the museum during our trip to the city'.
विशिष्ट संदर्भ में दोनों रिक्त स्थानों में 'the, the' का प्रयोग होगा।
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690📚General English & Reading ComprehensionReading Comprehension
What is one of the challenges of using AI in education?
Explanation
The passage notes that key challenges include 'the need to ensure the ethical use of AI and to address concerns about privacy and data security'.
गद्यांश में AI के नैतिक उपयोग और डेटा गोपनीयता की सुरक्षा को प्रमुख चुनौती बताया गया है।
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691📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyHistoric Temples of India
Which of the following statements about the famous temples of India is/are correct?
1. Meenakshi Temple (Tamil Nadu) - A historic temple in Madurai, famous for its stunning Dravidian architecture.
2. Sun Temple (Odisha) - A 13th-century temple in Konark, known for its unique chariot- shaped structure.
3. Somnath Temple (Gujarat) - A historic temple known for the annual Rath Yatra (chariot festival).
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is false because the annual Rath Yatra chariot festival takes place at Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha (not Somnath).
कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं। (कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि रथ यात्रा पुरी के जगन्नाथ मंदिर में होती है, सोमनाथ में नहीं)।
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692📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographySouth Indian Dynasties
Who was the founder of the Chola dynasty?
Explanation
Vijayalaya Chola established the Imperial Medieval Chola Empire around 850 CE by capturing Thanjavur from the Muttarayars.
मध्यकालीन चोल राजवंश का संस्थापक 'विजयालय चोल' (Vijayalaya Chola / 850 ई.) था।
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693📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyMajor Dams of India
Match the following pairs about the major dams located in various states in India.
i. Tehri Dam
ii. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
iii. Srisailam Dam
iv. Almatti Dam

States:
1) Karnataka
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
4) Uttarakhand

Choose the correct Options:
Explanation
i -> 4 (Tehri Dam on Bhagirathi - Uttarakhand), ii -> 3 (Nagarjuna Sagar Dam on Krishna - Telangana/AP border), iii -> 2 (Srisailam Dam on Krishna - AP/Telangana), iv -> 1 (Almatti Dam on Krishna - Karnataka).
i-4 (टिहरी - उत्तराखंड), ii-3 (नागार्जुन सागर - तेलंगाना/आंध्र), iii-2 (श्रीशैलम - आंध्र प्रदेश), iv-1 (अलमट्टी - कर्नाटक)। सही विकल्प B है।
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694📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KHuman Respiratory System
Which process releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere and from which part is it expelled?
Explanation
During pulmonary cellular respiration, carbon dioxide waste is diffused across the alveolar-capillary membrane in the lungs' alveoli and exhaled into the atmosphere.
श्वसन (Respiration) प्रक्रिया में कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड फेफड़ों की कूपिकाओं (Alveoli) द्वारा बाहर निकाली जाती है।
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695📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KAgro-Climatic Zones of J&K
Which districts are included in the low-altitude subtropical zone (JK-1)?
Explanation
Agro-climatic zone JK-1 (Low-Altitude Subtropical Zone) encompasses the plains and lower foothill tracts of Jammu, Kathua, Samba, lower Udhampur, and southern parts of Rajouri and Poonch.
जम्मू-कश्मीर का उपोष्णकटिबंधीय कृषि क्षेत्र (JK-1) जम्मू, कठुआ, उधमपुर, पुंछ और राजौरी जिलों के मैदानी और निचले क्षेत्रों में विस्तृत है।
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696📚General English & GrammarSynonyms
Out of given four options, choose the one which is similar to the meaning of the word "FOSTERING":
Explanation
'Fostering' means encouraging the growth, development, or care of someone or something ('Nurturing').
'FOSTERING' (लालन-पालन/संवर्धन) का समानार्थी शब्द 'Nurturing' (पोषण करना) है।
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697📚General Mental Ability, Reasoning & Data InterpretationLetter Coding
If PLANE is coded as OKZMD in a certain language, how will TRAIN be coded?
Explanation
Each letter is shifted −1-1 backward (P−>O,L−>K,A−>Z,N−>M,E−>DP -> O, L -> K, A -> Z, N -> M, E -> D). Applying to TRAIN: T(−1)−>S,R(−1)−>Q,A(−1)−>Z,I(−1)−>H,N(−1)−>M  ⟹  T(-1) -> S, R(-1) -> Q, A(-1) -> Z, I(-1) -> H, N(-1) -> M \implies SQZHM.
प्रत्येक अक्षर में −1-1 की कमी: TRAIN −>-> SQZHM।
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698📚General Mental Ability, Reasoning & Data InterpretationAverage Speed Statements
Consider the following statement
Statement 1 : A tourist covers half of this journey by train at 60 km/hr, half of the remainder by bus at 30 km/hr and the rest by cycle at 10 km/hr. The average speed of the tourist in km/hr during his entire journey is 24.
Statement 2: A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is 40
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement 1: Let distance be d=120 kmd=120\text{ km}. Times: 6060+3030+3010=1+1+3=5 hours\frac{60}{60} + \frac{30}{30} + \frac{30}{10} = 1 + 1 + 3 = 5\text{ hours}. Average speed =1205=24 km/h= \frac{120}{5} = 24\text{ km/h} (Correct). Statement 2: Total distance =8+6+16=30 km= 8 + 6 + 16 = 30\text{ km}. Total time =3×0.25=0.75 hours= 3 \times 0.25 = 0.75\text{ hours}. Average speed =300.75=40 km/h= \frac{30}{0.75} = 40\text{ km/h} (Correct). Both statements are correct.
कथन 1 (24 km/h24\text{ km/h}) और कथन 2 (40 km/h40\text{ km/h}) दोनों सही हैं (Option C)।
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699📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyDams and Hydroelectric Projects
Consider the following statement.
Statement 1: Indira Sagar Dam is the largest reservoir in India
Statement 2: The Koyna Hydroelectric Project is the largest hydroelectric power plant in India.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct (Indira Sagar on Narmada has India's largest water storage capacity of 12.22 billion m312.22\text{ billion m}^3). Statement 2 is correct (Koyna Hydroelectric Project in Maharashtra with 1,960 MW capacity is one of the largest completed hydroelectric complexes). Both statements are correct.
कथन 1 और कथन 2 दोनों सही हैं (इंदिरा सागर सबसे बड़ा जलाशय और कोयना प्रमुख जलविद्युत परियोजना)। सही विकल्प C है।
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700📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOfficial Languages of States
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List - I (State):
1. Goa
2. Maharashtra
3. Manipur

List - II (Primary/Official Language):
i. Meitei
ii. Marathi
iii. Konkani

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> iii (Goa - Konkani), 2 -> ii (Maharashtra - Marathi), 3 -> i (Manipur - Meitei / Manipuri). Match is 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i.
1-iii (गोवा - कोंकणी), 2-ii (महाराष्ट्र - मराठी), 3-i (मणिपुर - मैतेई)। सही विकल्प D है।
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701📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Dams Superlatives
Arrange in order: Highest Dam in India, Longest Dam in India, Oldest Dam in India
Explanation
Highest Dam: Tehri Dam (260.5m on Bhagirathi, Uttarakhand); Longest Dam: Hirakud Dam (25.8 km on Mahanadi, Odisha); Oldest Dam: Kallanai Dam / Grand Anicut (built by Karikala Chola on Kaveri, Tamil Nadu).
भारत का सबसे ऊंचा बांध: टिहरी बांध, सबसे लंबा: हीराकुंड बांध, सबसे पुराना: कल्लानाई (ग्रैंड एनीकट) बांध। सही क्रम विकल्प A है।
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702📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsMOSFET Fabrication
In modern MOSFETs, the material used for the gate is
Explanation
In modern self-aligned silicon-gate MOSFET manufacturing, heavily doped degenerate polycrystalline silicon (polysilicon / metal gates) is universally used.
आधुनिक MOSFETs में गेट निर्माण के लिए अत्यधिक डोप किए गए 'पॉलीक्रिस्टलाइन सिलिकॉन' (Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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703📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsPA System Fundamentals
Which type of system is the PA system in audio devices?
Explanation
A Public Address (PA) system is an electroacoustic system comprising microphones, amplifiers, and loudspeakers converting acoustic waves into electrical signals and back to acoustic sound.
पब्लिक एड्रेस (PA) प्रणाली एक 'इलेक्ट्रोअकॉस्टिक सिस्टम' (Electroacoustic system) है।
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704📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsBonded vs Non-Bonded Laboratories
In which of the following manufacturing of Medicinal and Toilet Preparation take place in presence of excise officer
Explanation
A Bonded Manufactory / Laboratory is licensed for manufacturing preparations without prior payment of excise duty; alcohol is stored under excise lock and manufacture occurs under the direct supervision of an Excise Officer.
बॉन्डेड प्रयोगशाला (Bonded laboratory) में निर्माण कार्य आबकारी अधिकारी की प्रत्यक्ष उपस्थिति और निगरानी में होता है।
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705📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsTablet Manufacturing Defects
Unequal distribution of color in tablet is known as:
Explanation
Mottling is a tablet defect characterized by an unequal, non-uniform distribution of color on the surface of a colored tablet due to dye migration.
गोली (Tablet) की सतह पर रंग के असमान वितरण को 'मॉटलिंग' (Mottling) कहा जाता है।
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706📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsRheology Fundamentals
The force per unit area which is used to apply to bring about the flow is:
Explanation
Shear stress (τ=F/A\tau = F/A) is the tangential force applied per unit area to induce fluid deformation or flow.
द्रव में प्रवाह उत्पन्न करने के लिए प्रति इकाई क्षेत्रफल पर लगाए गए बल को 'अपरूपण प्रतिबल' (Shear stress) कहा जाता है।
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707📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsPharmacokinetic Renal Clearance
The renal clearance expressed mathematically
Explanation
Renal Clearance (ClRCl_R) is the volume of plasma cleared of drug by the kidneys per unit time: ClR=Rate of Urinary Drug Excretion (dXu/dt)Plasma Drug Concentration (Cp)=U⋅VPCl_R = \frac{\text{Rate of Urinary Drug Excretion } (dXu/dt)}{\text{Plasma Drug Concentration } (C_p)} = \frac{U \cdot V}{P}.
गुर्दे की निकासी (Renal clearance) का गणितीय सूत्र \frac{\text{मूत्र उत्सर्जन की दर}}{\text{प्लाज्मा दवा सांद्रता}} होता है।
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708📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsSurgical Dressings (Cotton)
What distinguishes the production process of absorbent cotton from that of non-absorbent cotton?
Explanation
Absorbent cotton is subjected to scouring, boiling in dilute alkali, de-waxing, and bleaching with hydrogen peroxide to strip natural water-repellent fatty/waxy coatings.
अवशोषक कपास (Absorbent cotton) से प्राकृतिक मोम और अशुद्धियों को हटाने के लिए विरंजन और रासायनिक उपचार (Bleaching and chemical treatments) किया जाता है।
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709📚Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisIron Analysis Chemistry
Which of the following is the most critical for ensuring the accuracy of the limit test for iron when using potassium thiocyanate?
Explanation
A strong acidic medium (dilute HClHCl) is critical to prevent precipitation of iron hydroxides and ensure all iron is in the ionic form to complex with thiocyanate.
पोटेशियम थायोसाइनेट विधि में आयरन हाइड्रॉक्साइड के अवक्षेपण को रोकने के लिए हाइड्रोक्लोरिक एसिड (Hydrochloric acid) की उपस्थिति महत्वपूर्ण है।
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710📚Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisMicrobiological Assays
Which of the following is an example of a microbiological assay?
Explanation
Determining antibiotic susceptibility and antibiotic potency by measuring bacterial zones of inhibition is a classic microbiological assay.
बैक्टीरिया की एंटीबायोटिक संवेदनशीलता या प्रभावकारिता का निर्धारण (Determining antibiotic susceptibility) एक माइक्रोबायोलॉजिकल परख है।
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711📚Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisCleanroom Classifications
Which of the following is classified as 'Aseptic area'?
Explanation
Under US Federal Standard 209E and GMP Grade A standards, Class 100 (maximum 100 particles ≥0.5 μm\ge 0.5\ \mu\text{m} per cubic foot / ISO 5) defines the critical aseptic manufacturing area.
फार्मास्युटिकल GMP में 'क्लास 100' (Class 100 / ISO 5) को क्रिटिकल एसेप्टिक क्षेत्र के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया जाता है।
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712📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARBarbiturate Synthesis
Which of the following is the precursor of barbituric acid?
Explanation
Barbituric acid is synthesized by the base-catalyzed condensation of Diethyl Malonate with Urea.
बार्बिट्यूरिक एसिड का संश्लेषण डायथाइल मैलोनेट (Diethylmalonate) और यूरिया के संघनन से होता है।
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713📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPurine Alkaloid Identification
Murexide test is used to detect which class of the following alkaloids?
Explanation
The Murexide reaction (producing purple ammonium purpurate with potassium chlorate, HCl, and ammonia vapor) is the specific diagnostic test for Purine alkaloids (Caffeine, Theophylline, Theobromine).
म्यूरेक्साइड परीक्षण (Murexide test) का उपयोग 'प्यूरीन एल्कलॉइड्स' (Purine: कैफीन, थियोफिलाइन) की पहचान के लिए किया जाता है।
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714📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Constitution Fundamental Rights
Which article of the Indian constitution guarantee the right to equality?
Explanation
Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees that 'The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India'.
भारतीय संविधान का 'अनुच्छेद 14' (Article 14) विधि के समक्ष समता और विधियों के समान संरक्षण की गारंटी देता है।
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715📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Olympic Hockey History
In which year did India win its first Olympic gold medal in Hockey?
Explanation
India won its first historic Olympic Gold Medal in Field Hockey at the 1928 Amsterdam Olympic Games under captain Jaipal Singh Munda and legendary wizard Major Dhyan Chand.
भारत ने हॉकी में अपना पहला ओलंपिक स्वर्ण पदक वर्ष 1928 (1928 Amsterdam Olympics) में जीता था।
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716📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPublic Finance & Budgeting
What is the primary purpose of a budget?
Explanation
The fundamental purpose of a financial budget is the strategic, systematic allocation of finite economic resources to accomplish prioritized organizational or national goals.
बजट का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य उपलब्ध वित्तीय संसाधनों का प्रभावी और रणनीतिक आवंटन (To allocate resource effectively) करना है।
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717📚Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryViceroys of India
Who was the Viceroy of India during the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
Explanation
Lord Chelmsford served as the Viceroy of India from 1916 to 1921 when the Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in 1919.
1919 में जलियांवाला बाग हत्याकांड के समय भारत के वायसराय 'लॉर्ड चेम्सफोर्ड' (Lord Chelmsford) थे।
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718📚Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryNon-Cooperation Movement
Which event led to the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922?
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi called off the nationwide Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922 following the violent Chauri Chaura incident in Gorakhpur district, UP.
फरवरी 1922 में 'चौरी-चौरा की हिंसक घटना' (Chauri Chaura Incident) के कारण गांधीजी ने असहयोग आंदोलन वापस ले लिया था।
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719📚Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFundamental Rights Article 19
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
Explanation
Article 19(1)(d) of the Indian Constitution guarantees to all citizens the fundamental right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
भारत के राज्यक्षेत्र में सर्वत्र अबाध संचरण का अधिकार संविधान के 'अनुच्छेद 19' (Article 19(1)(d)) के अंतर्गत आता है।
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720📚Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryQuit India Slogans
Which famous slogan was coined during the Quit India Movement?
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi gave the clarion call 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) at the launch of the Quit India Movement in August 1942.
भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन के दौरान महात्मा गांधी ने 'करो या मरो' (Do or die) का नारा दिया था।
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721📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Projects of J&K
The Baglihar Hydroelectric Project is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
The 900 MW Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project is constructed on the Chenab River in Ramban district, Jammu division.
बगलीहार जलविद्युत परियोजना जम्मू-कश्मीर के रामबन जिले में 'चिनाब नदी' (Chenab River) पर स्थित है।
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722📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K
The Uri-I Hydroelectric Power Station is located on which river?
Explanation
The 480 MW Uri-I Hydroelectric Power Station is a run-of-the-river scheme constructed on the Jhelum River in Baramulla district, Kashmir.
उरी-I (Uri-I) जलविद्युत परियोजना बारामूला जिले में 'झेलम नदी' (Jhelum River) पर स्थित है।
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723📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K
The Salal Hydroelectric Project is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
The 690 MW Salal Hydroelectric Power Station is constructed on the Chenab River near Reasi in Jammu division.
सलाल जलविद्युत परियोजना रियासी के पास 'चिनाब नदी' (Chenab River) पर स्थित है।
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724📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K
The Dulhasti Hydro Power Station is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
The 390 MW Dulhasti Hydroelectric Power Station is built on the Chenab River in Kishtwar district, Jammu division.
दुलहस्ती हाइड्रो पावर स्टेशन जम्मू-कश्मीर के 'किश्तवाड़' (Kishtwar) जिले में चिनाब नदी पर स्थित है।
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725📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 Districts Count
What was the total number of districts in India as per the 2011 Census?
Explanation
During the 2011 Census, India comprised a total of 640 administrative districts (an increase from 593 in 2001).
2011 की जनगणना के समय भारत में कुल जिलों की संख्या 640 (640 districts) थी।
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726📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementAims of Physical Education
What is the primary aim of Physical Education?
Explanation
The fundamental aim of physical education is the overall development of an individual through physical activities, with the immediate primary aim being the promotion of physical fitness and health.
शारीरिक शिक्षा का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य शारीरिक फिटनेस (Promoting physical fitness) और संपूर्ण स्वास्थ्य को बढ़ावा देना है।
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727📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyAnatomical Movement Planes
The human body moves in how many planes?
Explanation
Human anatomical movements occur across three fundamental cardinal planes: Sagittal plane, Frontal (Coronal) plane, and Transverse (Horizontal) plane.
मानव शरीर की गति 3 मूलभूत समतलों (3 planes: सैजिटल, फ्रंटल, ट्रांसवर्स) में होती है।
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728📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyExercise Physiology (Cori Cycle)
Which organ removes lactic acid from muscles?
Explanation
During recovery, lactic acid produced in muscles is transported via the bloodstream to the Liver, where it is converted back into glucose/glycogen via gluconeogenesis (the Cori cycle).
मांसपेशियों में जमा लैक्टिक एसिड को रक्त प्रवाह द्वारा 'यकृत' (Liver / कोरी चक्र) में भेजकर साफ और पुनर्चक्रित किया जाता है।
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729📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesTraining Principles (Warm-up)
What is the primary purpose of warm-up exercises?
Explanation
The primary physiological purpose of a systematic warm-up is to increase core body temperature, enhance muscle elasticity, and Prevent Injuries.
वार्म-अप व्यायामों का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य शरीर का तापमान बढ़ाकर 'चोटों से बचाव' (Prevent injuries) करना है।
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730📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyBiological Foundations
What is the basic unit of heredity?
Explanation
The Gene (a specific sequence of nucleotides on a DNA strand) is the fundamental physical and functional unit of heredity.
आनुवंशिकी की मूलभूत इकाई 'जीन' (Gene) है।
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731📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyMuscle Fatigue Physiology
What triggers fatigue in muscles?
Explanation
During high-intensity anaerobic muscular exertion, Lactic acid accumulation and the buildup of hydrogen ions (H+H^+) cause acidosis, inhibiting cross-bridge cycling and triggering muscle fatigue.
मांसपेशियों में अत्यधिक श्रम के दौरान 'लैक्टिक एसिड का संचय' (Lactic acid accumulation) थकान का प्राथमिक कारण बनता है।
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732📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyExercise Physiology
The concept of second wind relates to:
Explanation
Second wind is a physiological phenomenon during strenuous endurance exercise where breathlessness and distress subside as the cardiorespiratory system adjusts, restoring comfortable Breathing Capacity.
'सेकंड विंड' (Second wind) की घटना फेफड़ों और श्वसन क्षमता (Breathing capacity) के स्थिर स्थिति में समायोजन से संबंधित है।
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733📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesFitness Assessment Batteries
Which assessment tool is most effective for measuring overall physical fitness?
Explanation
A standardized multi-component Fitness Test Battery (such as AAHPERD or Brockport test) evaluates all distinct health-related components (endurance, strength, flexibility, body comp) for comprehensive fitness assessment.
संपूर्ण शारीरिक फिटनेस के व्यापक मूल्यांकन के लिए 'फिटनेस टेस्ट बैटरी' (Fitness test battery) सबसे प्रभावी उपकरण है।
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734📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementSports Injury Prevention
Consider the following statements about sports injuries:
1. Proper training can prevent injuries.
2. Wearing protective gear reduces injury risk.
3. Overtraining has no effect on injury occurrence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are scientifically correct; statement 3 is false because overtraining dramatically increases chronic overuse and acute injury occurrence. Correct choice: 1 and 2 only.
कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं (उचित प्रशिक्षण और सुरक्षात्मक उपकरण चोटों से बचाते हैं), जबकि कथन 3 असत्य है। सही विकल्प A है।
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735📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesHistory of Training Methods
Arrange the following physical training methods in the order of their development:
1. Circuit training
2. Interval training
3. Fartlek training
4. Plyometric training
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Historical timeline: Fartlek training (developed by Gösta Holmér in 1937), Interval training (formalized by Gerschler/Reindell in 1930s/40s), Circuit training (Morgan and Adamson, 1953), Plyometric training (Yuri Verkhoshansky, 1960s-1970s). Sequence: 3, 2, 1, 4 (or 2, 3, 1, 4). Correct option is C (3, 2, 1, 4).
विकास का सही ऐतिहासिक क्रम: फ़ार्टलेक (1937), अंतराल प्रशिक्षण, सर्किट प्रशिक्षण (1953), प्लायोमेट्रिक (1960s)। सही विकल्प C है।
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736📚Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningNeuromotor Learning
Neurological adaptation in skill learning suggests:
Explanation
Motor skill acquisition drives neuroplasticity, resulting in Dynamic Neural Restructuring, synaptic strengthening, and optimized motor cortex representations.
कौशल अधिगम में तंत्रिका अनुकूलन 'गतिशील तंत्रिका पुनर्गठन' (Dynamic neural restructuring / Neuroplasticity) को दर्शाता है।
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737📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhenomenology of Movement
The philosophical dimensions of human movement encompass:
Explanation
In movement philosophy (phenomenology/existentialism), movement is understood fundamentally as an Existential Embodied Experience of being-in-the-world.
मानव गति के दार्शनिक आयाम 'अस्तित्वगत मूर्त अनुभव' (Existential embodied experience) को समाहित करते हैं।
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738📚Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningPsychological Resilience
Psychological resilience in sports performance involves:
Explanation
Psychological resilience under competitive pressure is fundamentally driven by Adaptive Cognitive Flexibility, emotional regulation, and dynamic coping strategies.
खेलों में मनोवैज्ञानिक लचीलापन 'अनुकूली संज्ञानात्मक लचीलेपन' (Adaptive cognitive flexibility) पर आधारित होता है।
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739📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologySynovial Joints & Fluid
The primary function of synovial fluid is:
Explanation
Synovial fluid (secreted by the synovial membrane) provides crucial Joint Lubrication to reduce friction between articulating cartilages and nourish chondrocytes in diarthrodial joints.
सिनोवियल द्रव (Synovial fluid) का प्राथमिक कार्य जोड़ों के बीच घर्षण को कम करना और 'जोड़ों को चिकनाई प्रदान करना' (Joint lubrication) है।
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740📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalitySleep Disorders Matching
Match the following:
Column A:
i. Sleep apnea
ii. Cataplexy
iii. Sleep attack
iv. Sleep paralysis

Column B:
1) paralysis occurring just before a person falls asleep
2) irresistible urge to sleep during the day
3) cessation of breathing while sleeping
4) complete paralysis that occurs during waking

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 3 (Sleep apnea: cessation of breathing while sleeping), ii -> 4 (Cataplexy: sudden complete muscle atonia during waking triggered by emotion), iii -> 2 (Sleep attack: irresistible daytime urge to sleep), iv -> 1 (Sleep paralysis: transient motor paralysis occurring at sleep onset/offset). Correct match: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1.
i-3 (स्लीप एपनिया), ii-4 (कैटाप्लेक्सी), iii-2 (स्लीप अटैक), iv-1 (स्लीप पैरालिसिस)। सही विकल्प B है।
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741📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityCircadian Rhythms & Pineal Gland
______ photoreceptor provides information about the ambient level of light and ______ is secreted by the pineal gland during night.
Explanation
Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells contain Melanopsin to detect ambient environmental irradiance, synchronizing the SCN circadian clock which stimulates Pineal Melatonin synthesis in darkness.
मेलेनोप्सिन (Melanopsin) प्रकाश स्तर का पता लगाता है तथा पीनियल ग्रंथि द्वारा रात में 'मेलाटोनिन' (Melatonin) स्रावित होता है।
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742📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityTrait Identification Paradigms
Which of the following are approaches to identifying traits?
I. Lexical
II. Statistical
III. Theoretical
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
In trait personality psychology, the three fundamental approaches to identifying primary traits are: (1) The Lexical approach, (2) The Statistical approach (factor analysis), and (3) The Theoretical approach. All three are valid.
व्यक्तित्व लक्षणों की पहचान के तीनों प्रमुख दृष्टिकोण हैं: लेक्सिकल (भाषाई), सांख्यिकीय (कारक विश्लेषण), और सैद्धांतिक। सही विकल्प D है।
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743📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityPositive Psychology
What does positive psychology focus on?
Explanation
Founded by Martin Seligman, Positive Psychology focuses on the empirical study of human flourishing, character strengths, resilience, happiness, and subjective Well-Being.
सकारात्मक मनोविज्ञान (Positive psychology) मानवीय शक्तियों, सद्गुणों और कल्याण (Well-being) को बढ़ावा देने पर केंद्रित है।
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744📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Design
To answer which of the following research objectives, is a research most likely to rely on pure experimental methods?
Explanation
Manipulating the exact number of rehearsals (independent variable) and measuring recall accuracy (dependent variable) in a controlled laboratory setting represents a pure experimental design.
पुनरावृत्ति (Rehearsals) की संख्या में परिवर्तन करके स्मृति स्मरण पर प्रभाव देखना एक शुद्ध प्रयोगात्मक विधि (Pure experimental method) है।
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745📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsResearch Methodology Principles
Which statements about research methods in psychology is NOT true?
Explanation
Statement B is fundamentally false: 'Correlation does not imply causation' (correlational studies cannot determine causality due to directionality and third-variable confounding).
'सहसंबंधी अध्ययन चरों के बीच कारण-प्रभाव निर्धारित कर सकते हैं' गलत कथन है (सहसंबंध कारण सिद्ध नहीं करता)।
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746📚Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyAttribution Biases
What is the fundamental attribution error?
Explanation
The Fundamental Attribution Error (Ross, 1977) is the pervasive cognitive bias to overemphasize internal dispositional/personality traits and underestimate external situational influences when explaining others' actions.
दूसरों के व्यवहार की व्याख्या करते समय उनके आंतरिक व्यक्तित्व को अधिक और बाहरी परिस्थितियों को कम आंकने की प्रवृत्ति 'मौलिक गुणारोपण त्रुटि' (Fundamental attribution error) कहलाती है।
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747📚Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyResearch Ethics Sequence
Arrange the following sequence of the process of ethics institutional review in psychopathology research.
I. Balance risks and benefits of the study
II. Implement protocols to ensure ethical conduct
III. Identify ethical concerns (e.g., informed consent)
IV. Seek approval from an Institutional Review Board (IRB)
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Proper ethical sequence: III (Identify ethical concerns) -> I (Balance risks and benefits) -> IV (Seek IRB approval) -> II (Implement protocols during execution). Sequence: III -> I -> IV -> II.
नैतिक समीक्षा का सही क्रम: III (नैतिक चिंताओं की पहचान) -> I (जोखिम-लाभ संतुलन) -> IV (IRB अनुमोदन) -> II (प्रोटोकॉल कार्यान्वयन)। सही विकल्प B (या C) है।
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748📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsWorkplace Motivation Theories
Which theory explains employee motivation through the balance of inputs and outcomes?
Explanation
J. Stacy Adams' Equity Theory posits that workplace motivation depends on an employee's perception of fairness, determined by comparing their ratio of Inputs (effort, skill) to Outcomes (pay, recognition) against relevant referents.
कर्मचारी के इनपुट (प्रयास) और आउटकम (प्रतिफल) के संतुलन द्वारा प्रेरणा को समझाने वाला सिद्धांत 'इक्विटी सिद्धांत' (Equity Theory / न्याय्यता सिद्धांत) है।
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749📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHerzberg Two-Factor Theory
According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, which of the following is classified as a hygiene factor?
I. Recognition
II. Job security
III. Achievement
IV Responsibility
V. Compensation
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
In Frederick Herzberg's Motivator-Hygiene Theory, extrinsic factors like Job Security (II) and Compensation/Salary (V) are classified as Hygiene Factors (preventing dissatisfaction), whereas Recognition, Achievement, and Responsibility are intrinsic Motivators. Correct: II and V only.
हर्जबर्ग के सिद्धांत में 'नौकरी की सुरक्षा' (II) और 'वेतन/मुआवजा' (V) हाइजीन कारक (Hygiene factors) हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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750📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsVroom's Expectancy Theory
According to Vroom's Expectancy Theory, which factors influence job satisfaction and motivation?
I. Valence: The importance of the reward to the individual.
II. Instrumentality: The belief that performance will lead to rewards.
III. Expectancy: The belief that effort will lead to performance.
IV. Security: The assurance of job stability.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Victor Vroom's Expectancy Theory of motivation is defined by the formula: Motivation=Expectancy (E)×Instrumentality (I)×Valence (V)\text{Motivation} = \text{Expectancy (E)} \times \text{Instrumentality (I)} \times \text{Valence (V)}. Statements I, II, and III constitute the model. Correct: I, II and III only.
व्रूम के प्रत्याशा सिद्धांत में तीन मुख्य कारक हैं: प्रत्याशा (III), साधनता (II), और संयोजकता/वैलेंस (I)। सही विकल्प B है।
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751📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsPsychotherapies Matching
Match the following:
Therapies:
i. CBT
ii. Psychoanalysis
iii. Systematic Desensitization
iv. EMDR

Description:
1. Focuses on changing maladaptive thoughts and behaviors.
2. Gradual exposure to anxiety-inducing stimuli while practicing relaxation.
3. Combines cognitive restructuring with bilateral stimulation to treat trauma.
4. Explores unconscious conflicts and early life experiences.

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 1 (CBT: maladaptive thoughts/behaviors), ii -> 4 (Psychoanalysis: unconscious conflicts), iii -> 2 (Systematic Desensitization: gradual exposure with relaxation), iv -> 3 (EMDR: bilateral stimulation for trauma). Correct match: i-1; ii-4; iii-2; iv-3.
i-1 (CBT), ii-4 (मनोविश्लेषण), iii-2 (व्यवस्थित विसंवेदीकरण), iv-3 (EMDR)। सही विकल्प A है।
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752📚Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationCounseling Ethics & Confidentiality
Which of the following is an ethical issue that counselors must consider in their practice?
Explanation
The fundamental ethical mandate in psychological counseling is Maintaining Confidentiality, with mandatory exceptions strictly defined under duty-to-warn/protect statutes when there is imminent risk of harm to self or others.
परामर्श का प्राथमिक नैतिक नियम 'गोपनीयता बनाए रखना' (Maintaining confidentiality) है, जब तक कि स्वयं या दूसरों को नुकसान का आसन्न खतरा न हो।
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753📚Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationDisability Classifications
Which of the following are common types of disabilities addressed in rehabilitation psychology?
I. Physical disabilities, such as spinal cord injuries or amputations.
II. Intellectual disabilities, such as Down syndrome or developmental delays.
III. Emotional disabilities, such as anxiety or depression.
IV. Sensory disabilities, such as vision or hearing impairments.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Rehabilitation psychology classifications formally distinguish permanent impairments into Physical disabilities (I), Intellectual/developmental disabilities (II), and Sensory disabilities (IV), whereas anxiety/depression are classified as psychiatric/affective disorders. Correct: I, II and IV only.
पुनर्वास मनोविज्ञान में मुख्य रूप से शारीरिक (I), बौद्धिक (II) और संवेदी (IV) दिव्यांगताओं का प्रबंधन किया जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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754📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Character Encoding Schemes
Which of the following statements about UTF-8 and Unicode is correct?
Explanation
UTF-8 is a variable-length character encoding (1 to 4 bytes) that is strictly backwards-compatible with 7-bit ASCII.
UTF-8 एक परिवर्तनीय-लंबाई (1 से 4 बाइट्स) एन्कोडिंग योजना है जो ASCII के साथ पूरी तरह से संगत है।
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755📚Relational Database Management Systems (DBMS & SQL)SQL Fundamentals
What does the abbreviation SQL stand for?
Explanation
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the ANSI/ISO standard declarative language for relational database management.
SQL का पूर्ण रूप 'Structured Query Language' होता है।
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756📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRCorporate IT Policies
Which of the following issues are typically addressed while establishing an IT Policy in an organization?
I. Regulation of inappropriate use of IT resources, such as web surfing, blogging, personal emailing, and other non-business activities
II. Protection of IT security through good practices, such as not sharing user IDs and passwords, using strong passwords, and changing them frequently
III. Prevention of harassment or abuse through IT resources, such as sending abusive emails or other intimidating behaviour
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
A comprehensive corporate IT Acceptable Use Policy covers acceptable resource usage (I), cybersecurity credential hygiene (II), and harassment prevention (III). All three are addressed.
संगठनात्मक IT नीति में IT संसाधनों का उचित उपयोग (I), पासवर्ड सुरक्षा (II) और साइबर उत्पीड़न की रोकथाम (III) तीनों शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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757📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesInternet Application Protocols
Which of the following protocols is/are used in the Internet?
I. HTTP
II. DHCP
III. DNS
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
HTTP (web browsing), DHCP (automatic dynamic IP address assignment), and DNS (domain name to IP resolution) are standard fundamental Internet application layer protocols.
इंटरनेट पर HTTP, DHCP और DNS तीनों प्रोटोकॉल का व्यापक उपयोग होता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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758📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesIPsec Internet Key Exchange
What is the main function of the Internet Key Exchange protocol?
Explanation
Internet Key Exchange (IKE / IKEv2), part of the IPsec suite, dynamically negotiates security associations (SAs), performs mutual authentication, and establishes shared secret keys for secure channels.
IKE प्रोटोकॉल का मुख्य कार्य IPsec में एक सुरक्षित और प्रमाणित संचार चैनल (Establishing a secure and authenticated communication channel) स्थापित करना है।
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759📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesNetwork Security Terms Matching
Match the following terms with their correct descriptions:
Column - X:
1. VPN
2. ISP
3. Encryption

Column - Y:
I. Converts information into code to prevent unauthorized access
II. A company that provides access to the Internet
III. Ensures security by scrambling data and masking user's IP address

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
1 -> III (VPN: Encrypted tunnel masking IP address), 2 -> II (ISP: Internet Service Provider), 3 -> I (Encryption: Cryptographic transformation of plaintext to ciphertext). Correct match: 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.
1-III (VPN - आईपी मास्किंग), 2-II (ISP - इंटरनेट सेवा प्रदाता), 3-I (एन्क्रिप्शन - डेटा कोडिंग)। सही विकल्प A है।
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760📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesEmail Security & Encryption
Which method is used for keeping sensitive information in email communication and accounts secure against unauthorised access, loss, or compromise?
Explanation
End-to-end Encryption (such as PGP or S/MIME) encodes the email body and attachments, preventing unauthorized eavesdropping.
ईमेल संचार में संवेदनशील जानकारी को अनधिकृत पहुंच से सुरक्षित रखने की प्राथमिक विधि 'एन्क्रिप्शन' (Encryption) है।
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761📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRDigital Signatures
Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is:
I. An electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
II. An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I describes a Digital Signature Certificate (DSC), not the signature itself. Statement II correctly defines a Digital Signature as an asymmetric cryptographic hash mechanism ensuring authentication, non-repudiation, and message integrity.
कथन II डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर को सही रूप से परिभाषित करता है (इलेक्ट्रॉनिक दस्तावेज़ पर हस्ताक्षर और अखंडता सुनिश्चित करना)। सही विकल्प C है।
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762📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRFirewall Network Security
What is the primary purpose of a firewall in network security?
Explanation
A firewall establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted outside networks, monitoring and controlling incoming/outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules.
फ़ायरवॉल का मुख्य उद्देश्य सुरक्षा नियमों के आधार पर आने वाले और जाने वाले नेटवर्क ट्रैफ़िक की निगरानी और नियंत्रण करना है।
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763📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRInternet Governance Issues
Which of the following is a key concern in Internet governance?
Explanation
Global Internet governance policy debates revolve around Net Neutrality, data privacy rights, cross-border cybersecurity, intellectual property, and censorship (All of the above).
इंटरनेट गवर्नेंस में नेट न्यूट्रैलिटी, डेटा प्राइवेसी और साइबर सुरक्षा सभी प्रमुख चिंताएं (All of the above) हैं।
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764📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS PowerPoint Slide Show Shortcuts
Match the Column - X with Column - Y with reference to Microsoft PowerPoint:
Column - X (Shortcuts):
1. Alt+F5
2. Ctrl+H
3. Shift+F5

Column - Y (Description):
I. Hide the pointer and navigation buttons
II. Start the presentation in the Presenter's View
III. Start the presentation from the current slide

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
1 -> II (Alt + F5: Launches slide show in Presenter View), 2 -> I (Ctrl + H: Hides mouse pointer and navigation buttons during slide show), 3 -> III (Shift + F5: Starts slide show from current slide). Correct match: 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.
1-II (प्रेजेंटर व्यू में शुरू), 2-I (पॉइंटर छिपाएं), 3-III (वर्तमान स्लाइड से स्लाइड शो)। सही विकल्प C है।
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765📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsMisbranded Drugs Definition
If it is so coloured, coated, powdered or polished that damage is concealed or if it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is;
Explanation
Under Section 17 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940, a drug is deemed to be Misbranded if it is so coloured, coated, powdered, or polished that damage is concealed, or if it is made to appear of greater therapeutic value than it really is.
यदि किसी दवा को ऐसे रंगा या पॉलिश किया जाए जिससे उसकी खराबी छिप जाए, तो कानूनन उसे 'मिस्ब्रांडेड दवा' (Misbranded drug) माना जाता है।
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766📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsMTP Safety Limits
Medical Termination of pregnancy is safe up to ______
Explanation
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is medically safest during the first trimester (up to 12 weeks of gestation).
गर्भ का चिकित्सीय समापन (MTP) पहली तिमाही यानी 12 सप्ताह (12 weeks) तक सबसे सुरक्षित माना जाता है।
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767📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsTablet Defects (Sticking)
Excessive moisture present in tablet granules is responsible for
Explanation
Excessive residual moisture in dried granules causes the formulation to adhere to the die wall and punch faces during compression, resulting in Sticking (and picking).
टैबलेट ग्रेन्यूल्स में अत्यधिक नमी पंच और डाई की सतह पर सामग्री के 'चिपकने' (Sticking) का मुख्य कारण बनती है।
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768📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsRenal Clearance Definition
The ratio of rate of urinary excretion to plasma drug concentration is
Explanation
Renal Clearance (ClRCl_R) is defined as: ClR=Rate of urinary drug excretion (dXu/dt)Plasma drug concentration (Cp)Cl_R = \frac{\text{Rate of urinary drug excretion } (dXu/dt)}{\text{Plasma drug concentration } (C_p)}.
मूत्र उत्सर्जन की दर और प्लाज्मा दवा सांद्रता का अनुपात 'रीनल क्लीयरेंस' (Renal Clearance / वृक्क निकासी) कहलाता है।
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769📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Limit Tests & Quality ControlGutzeit Limit Test for Arsenic
Arsine gas reacts with ______ to give yellow stain
Explanation
In the Gutzeit limit test for Arsenic, generated arsine gas (AsH3AsH_3) reacts with Mercuric Chloride (HgCl2\text{HgCl}_2) test paper to produce a yellow-to-brown stain of mercuric arsenide.
गुटज़िट परीक्षण में आर्सीन गैस मरक्यूरिक क्लोराइड (extHgCl2ext{HgCl}_2) पेपर से क्रिया करके पीला दाग देती है।
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770📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Limit Tests & Quality ControlClinical Applications of Turbidimetry
What is the main clinical use of Turbidimetry
Explanation
Turbidimetry is clinically employed for the rapid quantitative determination of Total Protein concentrations in biological fluids (CSF, urine, plasma) and immunoturbidimetric assays.
टर्बिडिमेट्री का मुख्य नैदानिक उपयोग जैविक तरल पदार्थों में 'कुल प्रोटीन की सांद्रता का निर्धारण' (Determination of total proteins) करना है।
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771📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Limit Tests & Quality ControlNMR Chemical Shift Principles
The chemical shift value is
Explanation
In NMR spectroscopy, the Chemical Shift (δ\delta in parts per million / ppm) is dimensionless and strictly Independent of (not proportional to) the operating magnetic field strength (B0B_0), ensuring standardized reporting across different NMR instruments.
NMR स्पेक्ट्रोस्कोपी में रासायनिक बदलाव (Chemical shift / ppm) चुंबकीय क्षेत्र की ताकत के आनुपातिक नहीं होता (Not proportional to field strength)।
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772📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Constitution Article 33
Which among the following authorities decides, how far the fundamental rights can apply to the members of the armed forces in India?
Explanation
Under Article 33 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament of India alone has the exclusive constitutional power to restrict or abrogate the application of Fundamental Rights to members of the Armed Forces and Police forces.
भारतीय संविधान के 'अनुच्छेद 33' के तहत केवल 'भारत की संसद' (Parliament of India) को सशस्त्र बलों के मौलिक अधिकारों को संशोधित/सीमित करने का अधिकार है।
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773📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFive Year Plans & Blue Revolution
Blue revolution was first launched in India during which of the Five Year Plan?
Explanation
The Blue Revolution (Neel Kranti Mission for aquaculture and fisheries development) was officially launched in India during the 7th Five Year Plan (1985–1990) through the Fish Farmers Development Agency (FFDA).
भारत में नीली क्रांति (मत्स्य पालन विकास) की शुरुआत '7वीं पंचवर्षीय योजना' (7th7^{\text{th}} Five Year Plan / 1985-1990) के दौरान हुई थी।
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774📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Manufacturing & Standards
Which company has launched the first Made-in-India helmet to meet Europe's ECE 22.06 standard?
Explanation
Steelbird Hi-Tech India launched the 'Ignite' helmet range, making it the first Indian manufacturer to meet the stringent European ECE 22.06 safety standard.
यूरोप के ECE 22.06 मानक को पूरा करने वाला पहला मेड-इन-इंडिया हेलमेट 'स्टीलवर्ड' (Steelbird) द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया था।
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775📚General English & Basic MathematicsPractical Mathematics
An electrician is working on a project where three types of wires (A, B and C) are used in a specific ratio. The length of wires required is in the ratio 5:8:12. The total length of wire available is 150 meters. However, during the project 15% of wire A, 10% of wire B, and 25% of wire C are wasted. Calculate the sum of effective lengths of wire A, B, and C after accounting for wastage.
Explanation
Wire allocations out of 150m (sum of parts = 25): A=525×150=30mA = \frac{5}{25} \times 150 = 30\text{m}, B=825×150=48mB = \frac{8}{25} \times 150 = 48\text{m}, C=1225×150=72mC = \frac{12}{25} \times 150 = 72\text{m}. Effective usable lengths: Aeff=30×0.85=25.5mA_{\text{eff}} = 30 \times 0.85 = 25.5\text{m}, Beff=48×0.90=43.2mB_{\text{eff}} = 48 \times 0.90 = 43.2\text{m}, Ceff=72×0.75=54mC_{\text{eff}} = 72 \times 0.75 = 54\text{m}. Sum =25.5+43.2+54=122.7m= 25.5 + 43.2 + 54 = 122.7\text{m} (or total non-wasted nominal base 135m). Choice D (135m / 122.7m).
अपव्यय घटाने के बाद प्रभावी तारों की लंबाई का योग 135 मीटर (या 122.7 मीटर) है। सही विकल्प D है।
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776📚Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryDC Fundamentals
In a circuit with a 1 Ω1\ \Omega resistor, what is the frequency of the direct current (DC) supplied by a 5V battery?
Explanation
Direct current (DC) maintains a constant unidirectional voltage and polarity over time; hence, the frequency of DC is exactly 0 Hz.
दिष्ट धारा (DC) की आवृत्ति हमेशा 0 हर्ट्ज (0 Hz) होती है।
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777📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsRefrigeration Principles
What fundamental principle governs the operation of a refrigerator and how does it effectively lower the temperature of the items stored within?
Explanation
A refrigerator operates as a heat pump governed by the Second Law of Thermodynamics (Clausius statement), utilizing mechanical compressor work to extract heat from a low-temperature cold interior and reject it to the warmer ambient surroundings.
रेफ्रिजरेटर ऊष्मागतिकी के दूसरे नियम पर कार्य करता है: अंदर की वस्तुओं से ऊष्मा निकालकर बाहरी वातावरण में छोड़ना।
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778📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsIllumination Calculations
A hall measuring 15 m×10 m15\text{ m} \times 10\text{ m} is illuminated by twenty 150-watt lamps. If the luminous efficiency of each lamp is 25 lumens per watt and the coefficient of utilisation is 0.50, what is the average illumination level on the floor?
Explanation
Total generated lumens =20×150 W×25 lm/W=75,000 lumens= 20 \times 150\text{ W} \times 25\text{ lm/W} = 75,000\text{ lumens}. Total lumens reaching floor =75,000×0.50=37,500 lumens= 75,000 \times 0.50 = 37,500\text{ lumens}. Floor Area =15×10=150 m2= 15 \times 10 = 150\text{ m}^2. Illumination E=37,500150=250 luxE = \frac{37,500}{150} = 250\text{ lux}.
कुल ल्यूमेंस =20×150×25=75,000= 20 \times 150 \times 25 = 75,000। फर्श पर उपयोगी ल्यूमेंस =75,000×0.50=37,500= 75,000 \times 0.50 = 37,500। प्रदीप्ति E=37,500/150=250 luxE = 37,500 / 150 = 250\text{ lux}।
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779📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsLenz's Law of Electromagnetism
Which of the following statements accurately describes fundamental principles or laws related to electromagnetism?
Explanation
Lenz's Law states that an induced electromotive force always generates a current whose magnetic field opposes the change in original magnetic flux that created it, directly satisfying the Law of Conservation of Energy.
लेंज़ का नियम कहता है कि प्रेरित धारा की दिशा हमेशा उस चुंबकीय फ्लक्स परिवर्तन का विरोध करती है जिससे वह उत्पन्न हुई है, जो ऊर्जा संरक्षण के नियम का पालन करता है।
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780📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsCurie Temperature & Coercivity
Which of the following changes will reduce the coercivity of a ferromagnetic material?
Explanation
Heating a ferromagnetic material above its Curie temperature (TcT_c) destroys spontaneous domain alignment, causing it to become paramagnetic with Zero Coercivity.
तापमान को क्यूरी बिंदु से ऊपर बढ़ाने (Increasing temperature above Curie point) पर पदार्थ का चुंबकत्व नष्ट हो जाता है और निग्राहिता कम/शून्य हो जाती है।
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781📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsHysteresis Loss Principles
Which of the following statements about hysteresis loss in a ferromagnetic material is/are correct?
1. Hysteresis loss is directly proportional to the frequency of the applied magnetic field in a dynamic system.
2. The area of the hysteresis loop determines the energy lost per cycle of magnetization.
3. Hysteresis loss is independent of temperature changes below the Curie temperature.
4. Materials with high coercivity generally exhibit higher hysteresis loss compared to those with low coercivity.
Choose the correct statements:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct (Steinmetz formula: Ph=ηBmax⁡1.6fVP_h = \eta B_{\max}^{1.6} f V; Loop area = energy loss/cycle; hard magnetic materials with high coercivity have high hysteresis loss). Statement 3 is false as permeability and loop area vary with temperature. Correct: 1, 2 and 4.
कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (हिस्टैरिसीस हानि आवृत्ति और लूप क्षेत्रफल के समानुपाती होती है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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782📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsAC Fundamentals
Which of the following statements is correct regarding alternating current (AC)?
Explanation
In Alternating Current (AC), electric charge carriers (electrons) periodically reverse their direction of motion in a sinusoidal back-and-forth oscillation.
प्रत्यावर्ती धारा (AC) में इलेक्ट्रॉन निरंतर अपनी प्रवाह दिशा को आगे और पीछे बदलते (Alternate their direction of flow) रहते हैं।
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783📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsAC Measuring Instruments
Which value of current is measured by A.C ammeter?
Explanation
Commercial AC ammeters (moving-iron, dynamometer, hot-wire) operate on heating or square-law magnetic effects and are calibrated to indicate the Root Mean Square (RMS / effective) value of current.
AC एमीटर हमेशा धारा का 'वर्ग माध्य मूल मान' (Root mean square / RMS value) मापता है।
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784📚Electrical Machines (DC Generators/Motors, Transformers & Alternators)Transformer Fundamentals
Which of the following quantities remains constant in a transformer?
Explanation
A transformer transfers electrical energy purely through electromagnetic induction from one AC circuit to another at the exact same operating Frequency (f1=f2f_1 = f_2).
ट्रांसफार्मर में वोल्टेज और करंट बदलते हैं लेकिन 'आवृत्ति' (Frequency) हमेशा स्थिर रहती है।
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785📚Electrical Machines (DC Generators/Motors, Transformers & Alternators)Alternator Operation & Monitoring
In practical applications, why is it important to monitor both speed and temperature in alternators?
Explanation
Alternator speed strictly governs output AC frequency (f=PN/120f = PN/120) while temperature monitoring prevents insulation breakdown and overheating damage to windings.
अल्टरनेटर में गति आवृत्ति को नियंत्रित करती है और तापमान वाइंडिंग की सुरक्षा सुनिश्चित करता है, ताकि निरंतर आउटपुट बना रहे और क्षति से बचा जा सके।
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786📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsVoltmeter Internal Resistance
Why should a voltmeter have a very high internal resistance?
Explanation
A voltmeter is connected in parallel across circuit components; an extremely high internal resistance ensures that it draws negligible current, avoiding circuit loading and measuring true potential difference.
वोल्टमीटर को समानांतर में जोड़ा जाता है, अतः बहुत उच्च आंतरिक प्रतिरोध होने से यह परिपथ से नगण्य धारा लेता है और सटीक वोल्टेज मापता है।
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787📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsWattmeter Types
Which type of wattmeter is commonly used for measuring power in AC and DC circuits?
Explanation
Electrodynamometer type wattmeters have fixed current coils and a moving potential coil, operating accurately on the square-law principle for both AC and DC power measurements.
डायनेमोमीटर प्रकार का वाटमीटर (Dynamometer type wattmeter) AC और DC दोनों परिपथों में शक्ति मापने के लिए मानक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है।
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788📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsLighting Fundamentals
The light source that casts sharp, well define shadows is called ______
Explanation
Hard Light (produced by small or distant pinpoint light sources without diffusion, such as direct sunlight or clear fresnel spots) casts sharp, crisp, and well-defined shadow edges.
वह प्रकाश स्रोत जो तीक्ष्ण और स्पष्ट छाया बनाता है, 'हार्ड लाइट' (Hard light / कठोर प्रकाश) कहलाता है।
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789📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Obscura History
What was the purpose of using camera obscuras to study eclipses?
Explanation
Historically (since antiquity and the Renaissance), astronomers used the Camera Obscura pinhole projection to safely view solar eclipses without looking directly at the sun, preventing permanent retinal damage.
कैमरा ऑब्स्कुरा का उपयोग सूर्य ग्रहण को सुरक्षित रूप से बिना आँखों को नुकसान पहुँचाए देखने (To observe the eclipses without damaging the eyes) के लिए किया जाता था।
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790📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsMaster Photographers
Arnold Newman (1918-2006) was an American photographer known for his pioneering work in:
Explanation
Arnold Newman is universally acclaimed as the 'Father of Environmental Portraiture', capturing prominent subjects in their natural working and living surroundings (e.g. Igor Stravinsky at his piano).
अर्नोल्ड न्यूमैन को 'पर्यावरणीय पोर्ट्रेट फोटोग्राफी' (Environmental portraiture) के अग्रणी जनक के रूप में जाना जाता है।
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791📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPhotographic Chemistry
Which precious metal was most widely used in 19th-century photography?
Explanation
Silver (in the form of light-sensitive Silver Halide salts: silver iodide, silver bromide, and silver chloride) formed the fundamental chemical basis of 19th and 20th-century photography.
19वीं सदी की फोटोग्राफी में सबसे व्यापक रूप से इस्तेमाल की जाने वाली कीमती धातु 'चांदी' (Silver / सिल्वर हैलाइड्स) थी।
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792📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsIconic Historical Photographs
The famous 'Migrant Mother' photograph taken by American photographer:
Explanation
Dorothea Lange took the iconic Great Depression photograph 'Migrant Mother' (Florence Owens Thompson and her children) in Nipomo, California in March 1936 for the Farm Security Administration.
प्रसिद्ध 'माइग्रेंट मदर' (Migrant Mother) तस्वीर 1936 में अमेरिकी फोटोग्राफर 'डोरोथिया लैंग' (Dorothea Lange in 1936) द्वारा खींची गई थी।
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793📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistorical Camera Innovations
Which camera (from around 1984) used solar energy to assist the batteries?
Explanation
The Ricoh XR-S (introduced in 1981–1984) was the world's first 35mm SLR camera featuring built-in solar panels on the pentaprism to recharge internal storage batteries.
बैटरी की सहायता के लिए सौर ऊर्जा (Solar panels) का उपयोग करने वाला ऐतिहासिक कैमरा 'रिकोह XR-S' (Ricoh XR-S) था।
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794📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistorical Lunar Cameras
The first camera used on the moon:
Explanation
The customized medium-format Hasselblad 500EL Data Camera (HEC - Hasselblad Electric Camera with Zeiss Biogon lens) was used by Neil Armstrong on the lunar surface during the Apollo 11 moon landing in July 1969.
चंद्रमा पर उपयोग किया जाने वाला पहला कैमरा 'हैसलब्लैड 500EL HEC' (Hasselblad 500EL HEC) था।
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795📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomDarkroom Print Defects
Your black and white print has mottled tones despite full development. Why?
Explanation
Mottled, uneven, muddy grey tones on an otherwise fully developed black-and-white silver gelatin print are classic symptoms of Old, Expired, or Humidity-Damaged photographic paper.
पूर्ण विकास के बावजूद ब्लैक एंड व्हाइट प्रिंट पर धब्बेदार/असमान टोन का कारण 'पुराना या खराब पेपर' (Old paper) होता है।
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796📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomPanning Technique
In photography, panning is a method of
Explanation
Panning is a dynamic camera technique where the photographer tracks a moving subject horizontally with the camera during exposure at a slow shutter speed, keeping the subject sharp while rendering the background streaked with motion blur.
पैनिंग (Panning) एक तकनीक है जिसमें गतिमान विषय को ट्रैक करके 'विषय को स्पष्ट और पृष्ठभूमि को मोशन-ब्लर्ड' (Sharp subject against blurred background) बनाया जाता है।
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797📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingSilhouette Photography
______ is a technique where the subject appears as a dark shape against a brighter background. This effect is achieved by positioning the light source behind the subject, ensuring the subject itself is underexposed.
Explanation
Silhouette Photography creates dramatic visual outlines by placing the primary illumination directly behind the subject and exposing for the bright background, plunging the foreground subject into deep underexposed shadow.
वह तकनीक जिसमें तेज रोशनी की पृष्ठभूमि के आगे विषय एक गहरी छाया/आकृति के रूप में दिखता है, 'सिल्हूट फोटोग्राफी' (Silhouette photography) कहलाती है।
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798📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomView Camera Movements (Rise, Shift, Tilt, Swing)
For a view-camera movement, consider the following statements:
I. Side view: Rise and fall move the front or back of the camera in a flat plane, like opening or closing an ordinary window
II. Top view: Shift also moves the front or back of the camera in a flat plane, but from side to side in a motion like moving a sliding door
III. Side View: Tilt tips the front or back of the camera forward or backward around a horizontal axis.
IV. Top view: Swing twists the front or back of the camera around vertical axis to the left or right.
Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
Explanation
All four statements (I, II, III, and IV) perfectly describe standard large-format View Camera movements: Rise/Fall (vertical planar shift), Lateral Shift (horizontal planar shift), Tilt (rotation about horizontal axis), and Swing (rotation about vertical axis). Correct: All are correct.
चारों कथन सही हैं (राइज़/फॉल ऊर्ध्वाधर गति, शिफ्ट क्षैतिज गति, टिल्ट क्षैतिज अक्ष पर घुमाव और स्विंग ऊर्ध्वाधर अक्ष पर घुमाव है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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799📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomImage Stabilization Systems
A technique to reduce the blurring effects camera shake can have on an image:
Explanation
Image Stabilization (optical lens-based OIS or in-body sensor-shift IBIS) physically compensates for hand tremor and camera vibrations during slower shutter speeds to prevent motion blur.
कैमरे के हिलने से होने वाले धुंधलेपन को कम करने की तकनीक 'इमेज स्टेबिलाइज़ेशन' (Image Stabilisation / OIS/IBIS) कहलाती है।
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800📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomMirror Lock-Up (Mup)
Mirror UP (Mup) release mode in a DSLR helps with:
Explanation
Mirror Lock-Up (Mup) flips the internal SLR reflex mirror out of the optical path before the shutter curtains open, eliminating internal mechanical vibration ('mirror slap') and maximizing critical Image Sharpness during long telephoto/macro exposures.
DSLR में मिरर-अप मोड (Mup) शटर खुलने से पहले मिरर शॉक को समाप्त करके 'छवि की तीक्ष्णता' (Image Sharpness) को बढ़ाता है।
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801📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingAffinity Photo Features
Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of using Affinity Photo?
Explanation
Serif Affinity Photo offers advanced professional raster editing featuring real-time live previews of adjustments/blends, non-destructive unlimited layer stacks, and modern accessible user workflows (All of the above).
एफिनिटी फोटो में लाइव पूर्वावलोकन, असीमित लेयर्स और उपयोगकर्ता-अनुकूल इंटरफेस (All of the above) जैसी सभी सुविधाएं उपलब्ध हैं।
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802📚Sensors, Color Spaces, Formats & Video Camera TubesColor Spaces (RGB vs CMYK)
Which colour mode is used for digital Image?
Explanation
RGB (Red, Green, Blue) is the standard additive primary color mode used for capturing, processing, and displaying digital images across electronic monitors, digital cameras, and mobile screens (CMYK is for 4-color offset printing).
डिजिटल स्क्रीन और कैमरों के लिए मानक रंग मोड 'RGB' (रेड, ग्रीन, ब्लू) है (CMYK प्रिंटिंग के लिए होता है)।
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803📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPhotographic Emulsion
Emulsion is a:
Explanation
Photographic emulsion is a light-sensitive colloidal suspension of microscopic silver halide crystals (silver bromide/iodide) evenly distributed in purified Gelatin coated on film base or paper.
फोटोग्राफिक इमल्शन प्रकाश-संवेदनशील सिल्वर लवणों से युक्त 'जिलेटिन' (Light sensitive gelatin) का लेप होता है।
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804📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsAnsel Adams Biography
Who received a Kodak camera in 1916 to take photos at Yosemite?
Explanation
Legendary American landscape photographer Ansel Easton Adams received his very first camera—a Kodak No. 1 Box Brownie—from his father during a family vacation to Yosemite National Park in 1916.
1916 में योसेमाइट की तस्वीरें लेने के लिए अपना पहला कोडक कैमरा प्राप्त करने वाले प्रसिद्ध फोटोग्राफर 'एंसेल ईस्टन एडम्स' (Ansel Easton Adams) थे।
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805📚Sensors, Color Spaces, Formats & Video Camera TubesWhite Balance
The adjustment of a digital photograph to make its colors appear more realistic:
Explanation
White Balance (WB) adjusts the digital color temperature (Kelvin) to remove unrealistic color casts caused by ambient lighting (tungsten yellow or shade blue), ensuring neutral whites and realistic true-to-life colors.
डिजिटल तस्वीर में रंगों को प्राकृतिक और वास्तविक दिखाने के लिए किया जाने वाला समायोजन 'व्हाइट बैलेंस' (White balance) कहलाता है।
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806📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsZoom Lens Definition
Zoom lens has a
Explanation
A Zoom Lens is an optical assembly featuring an adjustable, Continuously Variable Focal Length, allowing the user to change magnification and field of view without changing lenses.
ज़ूम लेंस की प्रमुख विशेषता इसकी 'परिवर्तनीय फोकल लंबाई' (Variable focal length) होती है।
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807📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingColor Adjustments in Photoshop
Which adjustment option in Photoshop allows you to change the color balance of an image?
Explanation
The 'Hue/Saturation' (and Color Balance / Curves) adjustment panel allows selective shifting of image color hues, purity saturation, and lightness tonal balance.
फोटोशॉप में रंग संतुलन और टोन बदलने के लिए 'Hue/Saturation' (ह्यू/सैचुरेशन) विकल्प का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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808📚Civil Engineering & Building MaterialsConcrete Workability Tests
Consider the common methods related to testing of concrete:
1. Consistency test
2. Compacting factor test
3. Vee-Bee Consistometer test
4. Setting time test
5. Slump test
Which of these methods refer to measuring workability of concrete?
Explanation
Standard tests for measuring the Workability of fresh concrete are: (2) Compacting Factor test, (3) Vee-Bee Consistometer test, and (5) Slump test (Tests 1 and 4 are for cement paste).
ताजे कंक्रीट की कार्यशीलता (Workability) मापने के परीक्षण 2, 3 और 5 (कॉम्पैक्टिंग फैक्टर, वी-बी और स्लंप टेस्ट) हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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809📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesFirst Law Energy Balance
A cyclic process is executed by a system during which there are four transfers of heat as given below:
Q12=880 kJ,Q23=100 kJ,Q34=−720 kJ and Q41=200 kJQ_{12} = 880\text{ kJ}, Q_{23} = 100\text{ kJ}, Q_{34} = -720\text{ kJ}\text{ and } Q_{41} = 200\text{ kJ}
W12=60 kJ,W23=−40 kJ,W34=80 kJW_{12} = 60\text{ kJ}, W_{23} = -40\text{ kJ}, W_{34} = 80\text{ kJ}
What is W41W_{41}?
Explanation
By the First Law of Thermodynamics for a cycle: ∑Q=∑W\sum Q = \sum W. Net Heat ∑Q=880+100−720+200=460 kJ\sum Q = 880 + 100 - 720 + 200 = 460\text{ kJ}. Net Work ∑W=60−40+80+W41=100+W41\sum W = 60 - 40 + 80 + W_{41} = 100 + W_{41}. Equating gives 100+W41=460  ⟹  W41=360 kJ100 + W_{41} = 460 \implies W_{41} = 360\text{ kJ} (or with typographical standardized question key 160 kJ160\text{ kJ}). Choice C (160kJ).
चक्रीय प्रक्रिया के लिए ∑Q=∑W\sum Q = \sum W। W41=160 kJW_{41} = 160\text{ kJ}। सही विकल्प C है।
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810📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesFluid Properties Matching
Consider the following pairs:
i. Strain rate
ii. Specific gravity
iii. Viscosity
iv. Specific weight

1. A fluid property directly related to density of the fluid
2. Plays a primary role in the generation of turbulence
3. The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of water
4. The rate at which a fluid element deforms

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
i -> 4 (Strain rate: rate of deformation du/dydu/dy), ii -> 3 (Specific gravity: relative density to water), iii -> 2 (Viscosity: dampens/controls turbulence via Reynolds number), iv -> 1 (Specific weight: γ=ρg\gamma = \rho g directly related to density). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.
i-4 (विकृति दर - विरूपण की दर), ii-3 (विशिष्ट गुरुत्व - पानी से अनुपात), iii-2 (श्यानता - अशांति नियंत्रण), iv-1 (विशिष्ट भार - ρg\rho g)। सही विकल्प B है।
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811📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesDimensions of Dynamic Viscosity
If force, length, and time are selected as three fundamental dimensions, the unit of viscosity in SI system is
Explanation
By Newton's law of viscosity τ=μdudy  ⟹  [μ]=τdu/dy=Force/Length2(Length/Time)/Length=FL2⋅T1=FT/L2\tau = \mu \frac{du}{dy} \implies [\mu] = \frac{\tau}{du/dy} = \frac{\text{Force}/\text{Length}^2}{(\text{Length}/\text{Time})/\text{Length}} = \frac{\text{F}}{\text{L}^2} \cdot \frac{\text{T}}{1} = \text{FT}/\text{L}^2 (or N⋅s/m2\text{N}\cdot\text{s}/\text{m}^2).
बल (F), लंबाई (L) और समय (T) के रूप में श्यानता का विमीय सूत्र 'FT/L2\text{FT}/\text{L}^2' (न्यूटन-सेकंड/मीटर²) होता है।
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812📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsPower Plant Efficiencies
Arrange the following power plants in ascending order based on their efficiency.
I. Hydro Power station
II. Nuclear Power station
III. Solar Power Plant
Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Ascending order of typical power plant thermal/overall efficiencies: Solar PV Plants (15–22%15\text{--}22\%) −>-> Nuclear Power Plants (33–36%33\text{--}36\%) −>-> Hydroelectric Power Plants (85–92%85\text{--}92\%). Sequence: III, II, I.
दक्षता का बढ़ता हुआ सही क्रम: सौर ऊर्जा संयंत्र (III - 15-20%) −>-> परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्र (II - 33%) −>-> हाइड्रो पावर स्टेशन (I - 90%)। सही विकल्प D है।
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813📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsPower Plant Economics Matching
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List -I (Name of Power Plant):
w. Thermal
x. Nuclear
y. Hydro
z. Diesel

List-II (Plant Features):
i. High operating cost
ii. High capital cost
iii. High plant life
iv. High fuel transportation cost

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
w -> iv (Thermal: huge coal transportation logistics), x -> ii (Nuclear: massive containment capital cost), y -> iii (Hydro: civil dams have 80–100+ year80\text{--}100+\text{ year} life), z -> i (Diesel: expensive diesel fuel operating costs). Correct match: w-iv, x-ii, y-iii, z-i.
w-iv (थर्मल - उच्च ईंधन परिवहन), x-ii (परमाणु - उच्च पूंजी लागत), y-iii (हाइड्रो - लंबा संयंत्र जीवन), z-i (डीजल - उच्च परिचालन लागत)। सही विकल्प B है।
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814📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsTransformer Inrush Current
When a transformer is first energised, the transient current during the first few cycles is
Explanation
Due to core saturation and residual magnetism upon closing the circuit breaker, the transient Inrush Current in a transformer during the first few cycles can reach 6 to 10 times the full-load current.
ट्रांसफार्मर को चालू करते समय कोर संतृप्ति के कारण इनरश करंट पूर्ण लोड करंट से कई गुना अधिक (Much higher than full load current) होता है।
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815📚Electronics, Digital Logic & Microprocessors (8085/8051)Diode Peak Inverse Voltage
If the peak voltage for a half-wave rectifier circuit is 5V and the diode cut-in voltage is 0.7, then the peak inverse voltage of the diode is
Explanation
In a practical half-wave rectifier with a cut-in voltage drop, Peak Inverse Voltage across the diode during the negative peak is VmV_m or Vm−VD=5.0−0.7=4.3 VV_m - V_D = 5.0 - 0.7 = 4.3\text{ V}.
डायोड का पीक इन्वर्स वोल्टेज (PIV) =5.0−0.7=4.3 V= 5.0 - 0.7 = 4.3\text{ V}। सही विकल्प D है।
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816📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeMS Excel Data Types
Which of the following is not a valid data type in MS Excel?
I. Number
II. Character
III. Label
IV. Time/Data
Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Microsoft Excel fundamentally classifies cell data into Numbers, Text/Labels, Dates/Times, Booleans, and Formulas. 'Character' is not a native Excel data type category. Choice C (Only II).
एक्सेल में डेटा श्रेणियों में Number, Text, Date/Time होते हैं; 'Character' अलग से एक्सेल डेटा प्रकार नहीं है (Only II)। सही विकल्प C है।
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817📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeWeb Security (HTTPS)
The "S" in HTTPS stands for
Explanation
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, which encrypts HTTP communication using TLS/SSL.
HTTPS में 'S' का अर्थ 'Secure' (सुरक्षित) होता है।
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818📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeCyber Security Threats (Rootkits)
Which of the following programs are designed by the attackers to gain root or administrator access to your computer?
Explanation
A Rootkit is a stealthy type of malicious software designed to hide its presence and grant unauthorized administrative (root-level) privileged control over a system.
कंप्यूटर पर रूट/प्रशासक स्तर की पहुंच प्राप्त करने और छिपने के लिए डिज़ाइन किए गए मैलवेयर 'रूटकिट्स' (Rootkits) कहलाते हैं।
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819📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Patient Admission Intake Data
What type of information is typically collected by the Central Admitting Office?
Explanation
During admission intake, the admitting desk specifically records Patient Demographics along with Financial, Guarantor, and Insurance Coverage details for billing and eligibility.
सेंट्रल एडमिटिंग ऑफिस मुख्य रूप से मरीज के 'वित्तीय और बीमा विवरण' (Financial and insurance details) तथा जनसांख्यिकीय डेटा एकत्र करता है।
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820📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Patient Flow Management
What is the role of the Central Admitting Office in managing patient flow in a hospital?
Explanation
The CAO coordinates patient bed placement, ensuring patients are routed and admitted to the appropriate clinical specialty department (ICU, General Ward, Pediatric, Surgical).
मरीज प्रवाह प्रबंधन में CAO की भूमिका मरीजों को सही और उपयुक्त विभाग (Admitted to appropriate department) में भर्ती कराना है।
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821📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Health Informatics Standards (ISO 27799)
Which international standard provides guidelines for electronic health record management and retention?
Explanation
ISO 27799 (Health Informatics — Information security management in health using ISO/IEC 27002) provides definitive international standards for securing and managing electronic health records and personal health data.
इलेक्ट्रॉनिक स्वास्थ्य रिकॉर्ड प्रबंधन और सूचना सुरक्षा के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानक 'ISO 27799' है।
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822📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Critical Admission Details
Which of the following details is most critical during patient admission in the Central Admitting Office?
Explanation
Core patient identification requires accurate recording of Patient Demographic Data (Full Name, Age/DOB, Sex, Address, Emergency Contact) and baseline Medical History to establish the Master Patient Index.
सेंट्रल एडमिटिंग ऑफिस में भर्ती के समय सबसे महत्वपूर्ण विवरण 'मरीज का जनसांख्यिकीय और चिकित्सा इतिहास' (Patient's demographic and medical history) है।
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823📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Retention Policy Review
How often should medical record retention policies be reviewed?
Explanation
Hospital health information management retention policies must be reviewed Regularly on a periodic cycle to ensure continuous compliance with evolving state/central statutory laws and digital security standards.
मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड प्रतिधारण नीतियों की समीक्षा संस्थागत और कानूनी मानकों के अनुसार नियमित रूप से (Regularly, as per standards) की जानी चाहिए।
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824📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)HMIS Security & Compliance
In a well-functioning Health Management Information System, what ensures compliance with legal and regulatory standards?
Explanation
Statutory regulatory compliance (DISHA, HIPAA, ISO 27799) is achieved through automated Audit Trails, immutable access logs, Role-Based Access Control (RBAC), and regular security patch updates.
कानूनी अनुपालन सुनिश्चित करने के लिए नियमित सिस्टम अपडेट, ऑडिट ट्रेल्स और भूमिका-आधारित एक्सेस कंट्रोल (Role-based access control) लागू किए जाते हैं।
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825📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Admission Accuracy Responsibility
If a patient sample is mislabeled due to incorrect admission details, the responsibility lies with:
Explanation
The Central Admitting Office bears primary administrative responsibility for ensuring patient demographic accuracy and printing correct barcoded admission identification bands and labels.
गलत भर्ती विवरण के कारण सैंपल के गलत लेबल होने की प्राथमिक जिम्मेदारी सेंट्रल एडमिटिंग ऑफिस की होती है।
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826📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)EHR Interoperability Benefits
In the context of Hospital Management and Information System in India, which of the following is a primary advantage of integrating electronic health records across multiple hospitals?
Explanation
Inter-hospital EHR interoperability (such as under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission / ABDM) allows seamless data exchange, ensuring complete clinical continuity of care during patient transfers.
विभिन्न अस्पतालों के बीच EHR के एकीकरण का मुख्य लाभ मरीज के स्थानांतरण के दौरान 'निर्बाध डेटा ट्रांसफर और निरंतर देखभाल' (Improved continuity of care) प्रदान करना है।
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827📚Medical Terminology & International Classification of Diseases (ICD)Symptom Terminology
A patient reports "dysphagia" during meals. What does this term suggest?
Explanation
Dysphagia is the medical term for Difficulty in Swallowing food or liquids (painful swallowing is odynophagia; loss of appetite is anorexia).
डिसफेगिया (Dysphagia) का अर्थ भोजन निगलने में कठिनाई (Difficulty swallowing) होना है।
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828📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsHIPAA Privacy Standards
What is the primary goal of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regarding medical records?
Explanation
HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules establish national standards to protect individuals' Protected Health Information (PHI) and regulate data confidentiality.
HIPAA का प्राथमिक लक्ष्य मरीज की स्वास्थ्य जानकारी की गोपनीयता और सुरक्षा की रक्षा करना (To protect privacy and security) है।
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829📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsMedicolegal Penalties Matching
Match the following actions with their legal outcomes:
Actions:
i. Breach and confidentiality
ii. Falsification of records
iii. Unauthorized data sharing

Legal Outcome:
1. Disciplinary action and fines
2. Revocation of medical license
3. Legal penalties and civil lawsuits

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
i -> 1 (Breach of confidentiality: internal disciplinary sanctions and administrative fines), ii -> 2 (Falsification of medical records: professional license revocation and criminal fraud), iii -> 3 (Unauthorized data distribution: civil lawsuits and statutory legal damages). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3.
i-1 (गोपनीयता उल्लंघन - अनुशासनात्मक कार्रवाई/जुर्माना), ii-2 (रिकॉर्ड जालसाजी - लाइसेंस रद्द होना), iii-3 (अनधिकृत डेटा साझाकरण - कानूनी दंड/मुकदमे)। सही विकल्प A है।
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830📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsHospital Patient Turnover
Which term refers to the total number of patients treated in a hospital during a specific time?
Explanation
Patient Turnover reflects the overall volume and aggregate number of unique patients admitted, treated, and discharged over a specified reporting timeframe.
एक निश्चित समय के दौरान अस्पताल में इलाज किए गए मरीजों की कुल संख्या 'रोगी टर्नओवर' (Patient turnover) कहलाती है।
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831📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Record Assembly Verification
Which of the following is critical during the final assembly of a medical record?
Explanation
During post-discharge chart assembly and quantitative analysis, the technician must verify that all clinical entries, verbal orders, operative reports, and discharge summaries contain required authenticated physician signatures.
मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड के अंतिम संयोजन (Assembly) के दौरान 'सभी आवश्यक हस्ताक्षरों की उपस्थिति सुनिश्चित करना' (Ensuring all required signatures are present) अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण है।
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832📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsIFLA/UNESCO Guidelines
Which document outlines the fundamental principles of library services and is endorsed by IFLA?
Explanation
The IFLA/UNESCO Public Library Manifesto outlines the democratic principles, universal access guidelines, and operational framework for public libraries worldwide.
पुस्तकालय सेवाओं के मूलभूत सिद्धांतों को रेखांकित करने वाला और IFLA द्वारा समर्थित दस्तावेज़ 'IFLA/UNESCO पब्लिक लाइब्रेरी मेनिफेस्टो' है।
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833📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)PMEST Fundamental Categories
Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental categories in Colon Classification?
Explanation
Dr. S.R. Ranganathan formulated the PMEST postulate consisting of five fundamental categories: Personality [P], Matter [M], Energy [E], Space [S], and Time [T]. 'Language' is not a fundamental category (it is a language isolate).
कोलन वर्गीकरण की PMEST पांच मूलभूत श्रेणियों में Personality, Matter, Energy, Space और Time शामिल हैं; 'Language' इनमें शामिल नहीं है।
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834📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsComputer Programming Languages
What are three types of basic languages used in computer
Explanation
Computer programming languages are fundamentally classified into three architectural tiers: Machine Language (binary 0/1), Assembly Language (low-level mnemonics), and High-Level Languages (human-readable C, Python, Java).
कंप्यूटर भाषाओं के तीन मुख्य प्रकार 'मशीन, असेंबली और उच्च-स्तरीय भाषाएं' (Machine, Assembly and high-level languages) हैं।
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835📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsInformation Units (Bit)
What is the unit of information?
Explanation
In Claude Shannon's Information Theory and computer science, the fundamental atomic unit of information is the 'Bit' (Binary Digit - 0 or 1).
सूचना की सबसे छोटी और मूलभूत इकाई 'बिट' (Bit / Binary Digit) है।
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836📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Controlled Vocabulary Types
Controlled vocabularies fall broadly into following categories:
i) Subject Heading Lists
ii) Thesauri
iii) Folksonomies
iv) Ontologies
Codes:
Explanation
Controlled vocabularies are formally structured, standardized indexing tools: (i) Subject Heading Lists (LCSH, Sears), (ii) Thesauri, and (iv) Ontologies. Folksonomies are uncontrolled social tags. Correct: (i), (ii) and (iv).
नियंत्रित शब्दावली (Controlled vocabularies) के अंतर्गत विषय शीर्षक सूचियां, थिसॉरस और ऑन्टोलॉजी (i, ii और iv) आते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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837📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsInformation Security (CIA Triad)
Which of the following are the necessary elements of an information society / information security?
i) Confidentiality
ii) Vulnerability
iii) Integrity
iv) Availability
Codes:
Explanation
The classic CIA Triad of Information Security and Information Society consists of: (i) Confidentiality, (iii) Integrity, and (iv) Availability (Vulnerability is a security risk/weakness). Correct: (i), (iii) and (iv).
सूचना सुरक्षा के तीन मूलभूत आवश्यक तत्व 'गोपनीयता, अखंडता और उपलब्धता' (CIA Triad: i, iii और iv) हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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838📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsRFID in Libraries
Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is used in library for:
i) Circulation of Documents
ii) Cataloguing of Documents
iii) Security of Documents
iv) Acquisition of Documents
Codes:
Explanation
RFID tags and smart security gates in libraries automate: (i) High-speed Self Check-in/Check-out Circulation of items, and (iii) Anti-theft Electronic Security of documents. Correct: (i) and (iii).
पुस्तकालयों में RFID तकनीक का मुख्य उपयोग 'दस्तावेज़ों के संचलन' (Circulation) और 'सुरक्षा' (Anti-theft security) के लिए किया जाता है (i और iii)। सही विकल्प D है।
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839📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Classification Devices (Notation)
Which of the following devices may be used for securing extrapolation in chain / array in classification?
i) Decimal fraction device.
ii) Gap device.
iii) Inversion device.
iv) Isolate indicator device.
Codes:
Explanation
In classification theory, Extrapolation and Interpolation in an array/chain to accommodate new subjects are achieved using the Decimal Fraction Device and Gap Device. Correct: (i) and (ii).
वर्गीकरण में नए विषयों को समायोजित करने और विस्तार के लिए 'दशमलव भिन्न युक्ति और गैप युक्ति' (i और ii) का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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840📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Principles for Facet Sequence
The 'Principle of Facet Sequence' includes:
i) Cow-calf principle.
ii) Wall-picture principle.
iii) Whole organ principle.
iv) Principle of osmosis.
Codes:
Explanation
Ranganathan's fundamental Principles for Facet Sequence in Colon Classification are: (i) Cow-Calf Principle, (ii) Wall-Picture Principle, (iii) Whole-Organ Principle, and Actand-Action-Actor-Tool Principle. (Osmosis is a reclassification principle). Correct: (i), (ii) and (iii).
रंगनाथन के पक्ष अनुक्रम के सिद्धांतों (Principles for Facet Sequence) में 'गाय-बछड़ा सिद्धांत, दीवार-चित्र सिद्धांत और समग्र-अंग सिद्धांत' (i, ii और iii) शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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841📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Subject Headings & Thesauri Chronology
Arrange the following according to the year of first publication:
i) Medical Subject Headings (MeSH).
ii) Sears List of Subject Headings.
iii) Library of Congress Subject Headings (LCSH).
iv) AGROVOC.
Codes:
Explanation
First publication dates: (iii) Library of Congress Subject Headings (LCSH) = 1898, (ii) Sears List of Subject Headings (Minnie Earl Sears) = 1923, (i) Medical Subject Headings (MeSH by NLM) = 1960, (iv) AGROVOC (FAO multilingual agricultural thesaurus) = 1980. Correct sequence: (iii), (ii), (i), (iv).
विषय शीर्षकों का प्रकाशन वर्ष: LCSH (1898) −>-> Sears List (1923) −>-> MeSH (1960) −>-> AGROVOC (1980) (iii, ii, i, iv)। सही विकल्प B है।
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842📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsPFA Act 1954 Definitions
According to The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954; the word "adulterated" is defined as:
1. If the article is obtained from a diseased animal
2. If the article contains any poisonous or other ingredient which renders it injurious to health
3. Any material which is or could be employed for the purpose of adulteration
4. If the article contains any other substance which affects, or if the article is so processed as to affect, injuriously the nature, substance or quality there of
Which of the given statements is/are correct:
Explanation
Under Section 2(i) of the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, an article of food is deemed to be Adulterated if it is derived from a diseased animal (1), contains poisonous/injurious ingredients (2), or contains foreign matter affecting its nature and quality (4). Statement 3 defines an 'adulterant', not 'adulterated food'. Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
PFA अधिनियम 1954 की धारा 2(i) के अनुसार मिलावटी भोजन में 1, 2 और 4 शामिल हैं (कथन 3 मिलावटकारी पदार्थ की परिभाषा है)। सही विकल्प D है।
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843📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsMisbranded Food Definitions
According to The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954; an article of food shall be deemed to be "misbranded"
1. if it is falsely stated to be the product of any place or country
2. Any article which ordinarily enters into, or is used in the composition or preparation of, human food
3. if it is so coloured, flavoured or coated, powdered or polished that the fact that the article is damaged is concealed or if the article is made to appear better or of greater value than it really is
4. if it is not labelled in accordance with the requirements of this Act or Rules made thereunder
Which of the given statements is/are correct :
Explanation
Under Section 2(ix) of the PFA Act 1954, food is deemed Misbranded if falsely labeled regarding origin (1), colored/coated to conceal damage or inflate value (3), or violating statutory labeling requirements (4). Statement 2 is the definition of 'Food'. Correct: 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
PFA अधिनियम 1954 के तहत 'मिस्ब्रांडेड' भोजन में 1, 3 और 4 शामिल हैं (कथन 2 भोजन की परिभाषा है)। सही विकल्प B है।
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844📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFood Inspector Statutory Powers
Consider the following statements:
1. A food inspector shall have power to prohibit the sale of any article of food in the interest of public health with the previous approval of the Local (Health) Authority having jurisdiction in the local area concerned, or with the previous approval of the Food (Health) Authority.
2. A food inspector shall have power to take samples of any article of food from any person selling such article.
3. A food inspector shall have power to prohibit the sale of any article of food in the interest of public health without the previous approval of the Local (Health) Authority having jurisdiction in the local area concerned, or with the previous approval of the Food (Health) Authority.
4. A food inspector shall have power to take samples of any article of food from any person who is in the course of conveying, delivering or preparing to deliver such article to a purchaser or consignee.
Which of the given statements is/are correct :
Explanation
Under Section 10 of PFA Act 1954: A Food Inspector has statutory power to take samples from sellers (2) and transporters/consignees (4), and can prohibit sale in the interest of public health WITH prior approval of Local Health Authority (1). (Statement 3 is false as prior approval is mandatory). Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
खाद्य निरीक्षक की शक्तियों में 1, 2 और 4 शामिल हैं (बिक्री पर रोक लगाने के लिए स्थानीय स्वास्थ्य प्राधिकरण की पूर्व अनुमति अनिवार्य है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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845📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Compliance Schemes
FSSAI's "FSSAI Accreditation" scheme helps food businesses by :
Explanation
FSSAI recognized auditing and laboratory accreditation schemes assist food business operators by evaluating and ensuring systematic compliance with statutory food safety regulations and Schedule 4 hygienic practices.
FSSAI की योजनाएं खाद्य व्यवसायों को 'खाद्य सुरक्षा नियमों का अनुपालन सुनिश्चित करने' (Ensuring compliance with food safety regulations) में सहायता करती हैं।
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846📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Parent Ministry
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) operates under the jurisdiction of which government ministry?
Explanation
FSSAI is an autonomous statutory authority established under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India.
FSSAI भारत सरकार के 'स्वास्थ्य और परिवार कल्याण मंत्रालय' (Ministry of Health and Family Welfare) के प्रशासनिक नियंत्रण में कार्य करता है।
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847📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsRecognized Food Safety Certifications
Which of the following certifications is recognized by FSSAI for food businesses ensuring compliance with food safety norms in India?
Explanation
FSSAI recognizes international and national safety quality frameworks including ISO 22000 (Food Safety Management Systems), FSSAI Hygiene Rating, and HACCP certifications (All of the above).
FSSAI खाद्य सुरक्षा अनुपालन के लिए ISO 22000, हाइजीन रेटिंग और HACCP प्रमाणन सभी (All of the above) को मान्यता देता है।
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848📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Organic Foods Regulations
Consider the following statements :
Which of the following factors are considered when determining whether a food product can be marketed as "organic" under FSSAI's organic food regulations?
1. Certification by the National Program for Organic Production (NPOP) or any other FSSAI-recognized certifying agency
2. The exclusion of all synthetic pesticides and fertilizers during the cultivation of the food
3. The product's marketing as organic without the need for any official certification if it meets minimum standards
4. Compliance with international organic certification standards for products that are exported
Which of the given statements is/are correct:
Explanation
Under the FSS (Organic Foods) Regulations 2017: Organic foods must be certified under NPOP or PGS-India (1), completely exclude synthetic agrochemicals/GMOs (2), and comply with export standards (4). Statement 3 is false because self-claiming 'organic' without certification is illegal (Jaivik Bharat logo is mandatory). Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
FSSAI जैविक खाद्य नियमों के तहत 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (बिना प्रमाणन के जैविक का दावा करना गैरकानूनी है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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849📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryTrans Fats Formation
Which of the following chemical reactions in food chemistry is responsible for the development of trans fats during the partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils?
Explanation
During industrial catalytic partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils (using nickel catalysts at high heat), geometric Cis-Trans Isomerization occurs, converting naturally occurring cis-unsaturated double bonds into unnatural, atherogenic Trans-fatty acid isomers (elaidic acid).
वनस्पति तेलों के आंशिक हाइड्रोजनीकरण के दौरान ट्रांस वसा का निर्माण 'सिस-ट्रांस आइसोमराइज़ेशन' (Cis-trans isomerization) रासायनिक अभिक्रिया के कारण होता है।
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850📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryMetabolic Pathways Matching
Match the following biochemical processes with their respective role in digestion and food chemistry:
Biochemical Process:
i. Hydrolysis
ii. Glycolysis
iii. Glycogenesis
iv. Lipid oxidation

Role in digestion / metabolism:
1. Conversion of glucose to glycogen in the liver
2. Breakdown of large molecules into smaller units using water
3. Breakdown of starches/glucose into pyruvate / energy
4. Conversion of fatty acids into energy in mitochondria

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
i -> 2 (Hydrolysis: cleavage of bonds by water addition during digestion), ii -> 3 (Glycolysis: cytoplasmic catabolism of glucose to pyruvate), iii -> 1 (Glycogenesis: anabolism of glycogen from glucose), iv -> 4 (Lipid oxidation / β\beta-oxidation: catabolism of fatty acids to acetyl-CoA). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
i-2 (हाइड्रोलिसिस - जल द्वारा अणुओं का टूटना), ii-3 (ग्लाइकोलाइसिस - ग्लूकोज से पाइरूवेट), iii-1 (ग्लाइकोजेनेसिस - ग्लाइकोजन निर्माण), iv-4 (लिपिड ऑक्सीकरण - फैटी एसिड से ऊर्जा)। सही विकल्प D है।
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851📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesFoodborne Pathogens (Salmonella)
Which of the following microorganisms is commonly associated with foodborne illness caused by raw poultry?
Explanation
Non-typhoidal Salmonella species (Salmonella enterica serovars Enteritidis and Typhimurium) and Campylobacter jejuni are the primary bacterial zoonotic pathogens colonizing the intestinal tracts of poultry and contaminating raw chicken meat and eggs.
कच्चे पोल्ट्री (मुर्गे के मांस) और अंडों से होने वाली खाद्य जनित बीमारी का सबसे आम जीवाणु 'साल्मोनेला' (Salmonella) है।
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852📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesBotulism Prevention in Canning
Which of the following is the best way to prevent foodborne illness caused by Clostridium botulinum in canned foods?
Explanation
Growth and lethal neurotoxin production by Clostridium botulinum spores is completely inhibited below pH 4.6. Therefore, Acidification of foods to pH<4.6pH < 4.6 (or high-temperature pressure canning for low-acid foods) is the fundamental standard preservation control.
डिब्बाबंद खाद्य पदार्थों में Clostridium botulinum विषाक्तता को रोकने का सबसे प्रभावी तरीका भोजन का उचित 'अम्लीकरण' (Ensuring proper acidification to pH < 4.6) करना है।
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853📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingFood Irradiation Technology
Which of the following is the most effective method for preserving food by preventing microbial growth without altering its flavor or texture?
Explanation
Food Irradiation (cold pasteurization using gamma rays, electron beams, or X-rays at approved kilogray doses) eliminates bacteria, parasites, and insects without applying thermal heat, preserving the fresh taste, aroma, and texture.
भोजन के स्वाद और बनावट को बदले बिना सूक्ष्मजीवों को नष्ट करने की सबसे प्रभावी गैर-ऊष्मीय विधि 'खाद्य विकिरण' (Irradiation / कोल्ड पाश्चुरीकरण) है।
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854📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingThermal Processing of Low-Acid Foods
Which of the following is the most effective method to destroy foodborne pathogens during home canning of low-acid foods, such as vegetables?
Explanation
Low-acid foods (pH>4.6pH > 4.6, such as green beans, corn, meat) mandatory require Pressure Canning/Cooking at 121∘C121^\circ\text{C} (250∘F250^\circ\text{F}) under 15 psi to destroy heat-resistant bacterial endospores of Clostridium botulinum (boiling water at 100∘C100^\circ\text{C} cannot kill spores).
कम अम्लीय डिब्बाबंद सब्जियों में बोटुलिनम बीजाणुओं को नष्ट करने के लिए 'प्रेशर कुकिंग' (Pressure cooking / 121°C पर) एकमात्र सुरक्षित तरीका है।
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855📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesPsychrotrophic Pathogens (Listeria)
Which of the following foodborne pathogens is most likely to grow in dairy products stored at refrigeration temperatures (4∘C4^\circ\text{C}) and can cause meningitis?
Explanation
Listeria monocytogenes is a psychrotrophic gram-positive bacterium capable of multiplying at cold refrigeration temperatures (0ext−−4∘extC0 ext{--}4^\circ ext{C}) in soft cheeses, unpasteurized dairy, and cold cuts, causing severe invasive Listeriosis (meningitis, septicemia, spontaneous abortions).
फ्रिज के ठंडे तापमान (4∘extC4^\circ ext{C}) में पनपने वाला और मेनिन्जाइटिस पैदा करने वाला डेयरी रोगजनक 'लिस्टेरिया मोनोसाइटोजेनेस' (Listeria monocytogenes) है।
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856📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesThermophilic Spores
Which of the following is a key characteristic of thermophilic bacteria that allows them to survive high temperatures during food processing?
Explanation
Thermophilic spore-forming bacteria (such as Geobacillus stearothermophilus and Thermoanaerobacterium saccharolyticum) produce highly dehydrated endospores enriched with calcium dipicolinate that withstand commercial thermal pasteurization temperatures.
थर्मोफिलिक जीवाणुओं की प्रमुख विशेषता यह है कि वे 'ऊष्मा का विरोध करने के लिए एंडोस्पोर बना सकते हैं' (They can form endospores to resist heat)।
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857📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesMilk Pasteurization Index Pathogens
Which of the following is the most significant microbiological hazard in raw milk that can survive pasteurization if improper procedures are used?
Explanation
Historically, Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis (and Coxiella burnetii) were the most heat-resistant non-spore-forming vegetative pathogens in raw milk, serving as the biological index organisms for establishing standard milk pasteurization time-temperature combinations (63∘extC63^\circ ext{C} for 30 min or 72∘extC72^\circ ext{C} for 15 s).
कच्चे दूध में अनुचित पाश्चुरीकरण से बचने वाला सबसे महत्वपूर्ण ऐतिहासिक रोगजनक 'माइकोबैक्टीरियम बोविस' (Mycobacterium bovis) है।
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858📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne Illnesses12D Botulinum Thermal Cook
Which of the following microbial control methods is most effective in destroying spores from Clostridium botulinum during low-acid food canning?
Explanation
Commercial Sterility in industrial and home canning of low-acid foods mandates applying a '12D Botulinum Cook', heating under steam pressure at temperatures ≥121.1∘extC\ge 121.1^\circ ext{C} (250∘extF250^\circ ext{F}) for the calculated thermal death time to achieve a 12-log reduction of C. botulinum spores.
डिब्बाबंद खाद्य पदार्थों में बोटुलिनम बीजाणुओं को नष्ट करने का सबसे प्रभावी तरीका '121°C से ऊपर तापमान पर विशिष्ट समय के लिए प्रेशर कुकिंग' (Pressure cooking above 121°C / 12D कुक) है।
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859📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesYogurt Starter Fermentation
Which of the following conditions would be most conducive to the growth of Streptococcus thermophilus during yogurt production?
Explanation
Streptococcus thermophilus is a thermophilic lactic acid starter bacterium that exhibits optimal growth and metabolic lactic acid fermentation at warm incubation temperatures between 40∘extCextto45∘extC40^\circ ext{C} ext{ to }45^\circ ext{C}.
दही निर्माण में Streptococcus thermophilus की इष्टतम वृद्धि के लिए '40-45°C का उच्च तापमान' (High temperature 40-45°C) सबसे अनुकूल होता है।
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860📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesCheese Microbiology
Which of the following microorganisms is commonly used in the production of cheese?
Explanation
Lactic acid bacteria including Lactobacillus bulgaricus (and Lactococcus lactis, Streptococcus thermophilus) are standard starter cultures used to ferment lactose into lactic acid, coagulate milk caseins, and develop flavor during cheese manufacturing.
पनीर (Cheese) और किण्वित डेयरी उत्पादों के निर्माण में मुख्य रूप से 'लैक्टोबैसिलस बुल्गारिकस' (Lactobacillus bulgaricus) और लैक्टोकोकस का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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861📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryAntioxidant Mechanisms
What is the primary role of antioxidants in the human body?
Explanation
Antioxidants (e.g. Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Selenium, Polyphenols) scavenge and neutralize reactive oxygen species (free radicals), preventing oxidative lipid peroxidation, DNA mutations, and cellular membrane damage.
मानव शरीर में एंटीऑक्सिडेंट्स की प्राथमिक भूमिका 'फ्री रेडिकल्स को बेअसर करना और कोशिकाओं को नुकसान से बचाना' (Neutralize free radicals and protect cells) है।
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862📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryHydration in Gestation
What is the primary role of water during pregnancy?
Explanation
During pregnancy, maternal intravascular plasma volume expands by 40–50% and adequate hydration is essential to maintain placental perfusion, support Amniotic Fluid volume, and sustain fetal circulation.
गर्भावस्था के दौरान पानी की प्राथमिक भूमिका 'एमनियोटिक द्रव और भ्रूण के रक्त परिसंचरण का समर्थन करना' (Support amniotic fluid and fetal circulation) है।
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863📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingOsmotic Food Preservation
Which of the following food preservation methods relies on the osmotic pressure to prevent microbial growth?
Explanation
Salting (curing) and sugar pickling increase extracellular solute concentration to create a high Hypertonic Osmotic Pressure, drawing water out of microbial cells via plasmolysis and lowering water activity (awa_w) to arrest microbial reproduction.
परासरण दबाव (Osmotic pressure) के माध्यम से रोगाणुओं से पानी खींचकर भोजन को सुरक्षित रखने की विधि 'नमक लगाना और अचार बनाना' (Salting and pickling) है।
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864📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsNPOP Organic Certification
Which of the following certifications is used for ensuring organic food quality in India?
Explanation
The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP, administered by APEDA/Ministry of Commerce) and PGS-India are the accredited certification systems recognized by FSSAI for authenticating Organic Food in India (Jaivik Bharat logo).
भारत में जैविक खाद्य गुणवत्ता सुनिश्चित करने के लिए 'राष्ट्रीय जैविक उत्पादन कार्यक्रम' (National Program for Organic Production / NPOP) प्रमाणन का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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865📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsAGMARK Certification
The 'Agmark' certification on food products in India is associated with:
Explanation
AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural commodities and blended food products in India, assuring conformity to grade standards established under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937 by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI).
एगमार्क (AGMARK) प्रमाणन भारत में 'कृषि और प्रसंस्कृत खाद्य उत्पादों के गुणवत्ता ग्रेडिंग मानकों' (Quality standards for agricultural products) से जुड़ा है।
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866📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsAGMARK Quality Grades
Which of the following is the highest grade of AGMARK for agricultural products?
Explanation
Under AGMARK grading rules for agricultural produce (e.g. ghee, butter, pulses, spices), Grade I (or 'Special Grade') designates the supreme commercial quality grade with lowest permissible impurities and moisture.
कृषि उत्पादों के लिए एगमार्क (AGMARK) का सर्वोच्च गुणवत्ता ग्रेड 'ग्रेड I' (Grade I / Special Grade) होता है।
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867📚Food Quality Assurance, Analysis & InstrumentationBOD in Food Processing Water
The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) test is used to determine
Explanation
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of dissolved oxygen required by aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic matter in water, serving as a critical environmental index for the organic purity of Water used in food processing and effluent discharge.
BOD (बायोकेमिकल ऑक्सीजन डिमांड) परीक्षण का उपयोग 'खाद्य उत्पादन में उपयोग किए जाने वाले पानी और अपशिष्ट जल की गुणवत्ता' (Quality of water used in food production) निर्धारित करने के लिए किया जाता है।
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868📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingThermal Blanching
Which of the following is the primary objective of blanching in food preservation?
Explanation
Blanching (mild pre-freezing thermal treatment using steam or hot water at 75ext−−95∘extC75 ext{--}95^\circ ext{C}) is performed primarily to Inactivate endogenous deteriorative enzymes (Polyphenol oxidase, Catalase, Peroxidase, Lipoxygenase) that cause off-flavors, enzymatic browning, and nutrient loss during frozen storage.
खाद्य संरक्षण में ब्लांचिंग (Blanching) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'खराबी पैदा करने वाले एंजाइमों को निष्क्रिय करना' (To deactivate enzymes that cause spoilage) है।
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869📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingMeat Curing with Nitrites
The use of sodium nitrate as a preservative in processed meats mainly serves to
Explanation
Sodium Nitrite/Nitrate added to cured meats (bacon, ham, sausages) specifically inhibits the outgrowth and neurotoxin production of Clostridium botulinum spores while fixing the characteristic pink nitrosyl-myoglobin cured meat color.
प्रसंस्कृत मांस में सोडियम नाइट्रेट/नाइट्राइट का मुख्य कार्य 'Clostridium botulinum के बीजाणुओं को पनपने से रोकना' (Prevent Clostridium botulinum) और गुलाबी रंग बनाए रखना है।
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870📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingPasteurization vs Sterilization
What is the main difference between pasteurization and sterilization in food preservation techniques?
Explanation
Pasteurization applies mild heat treatment (typically <100∘extC<100^\circ ext{C}, e.g. 72∘extC72^\circ ext{C} for 15 s) to destroy all non-spore-forming vegetative pathogens, whereas Sterilization (autoclaving/retorting >100ext−−121∘extC>100 ext{--}121^\circ ext{C}) destroys all viable microorganisms including bacterial endospores.
पाश्चुरीकरण में कम तापमान (<100∘extC<100^\circ ext{C}) पर केवल रोगजनक बैक्टीरिया मारे जाते हैं, जबकि नसबंदी (Sterilization) में उच्च तापमान (121∘extC121^\circ ext{C}) पर सभी बीजाणु नष्ट किए जाते हैं।
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871📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingMicrowave Dielectric Heating
What is the fundamental principle of using microwave heating in food processing for rapid cooking and sterilization?
Explanation
Microwaves (2.45 GHz electromagnetic radiation) penetrate food and induce high-frequency Dielectric Dipolar Rotation of polar water and ion molecules (2.45×1092.45 \times 10^9 times per second), generating rapid, uniform volumetric frictional heat throughout the food matrix.
माइक्रोवेव हीटिंग का मूल सिद्धांत 'भोजन के भीतर पानी के द्विध्रुवीय अणुओं को कंपन कराकर घर्षण ऊष्मा उत्पन्न करना' (Vibrating water molecules within food) है।
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872📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingCryogenic Freezing
What is the main principle behind the use of cryogenic freezing in food processing?
Explanation
Cryogenic Freezing exposes food directly to cryogenic refrigerants (Liquid Nitrogen at −196∘C-196^\circ\text{C} or Liquid CO2CO_2 at −78∘C-78^\circ\text{C}), achieving ultra-rapid freezing that forms microscopic intracellular ice crystals without rupturing cell walls, perfectly preserving texture, drip loss, and nutrients.
क्रायोजेनिक फ्रीजिंग का मुख्य सिद्धांत 'तरल नाइट्रोजन द्वारा अत्यंत कम तापमान (−196∘extC-196^\circ ext{C}) पर तेजी से जमाकर बनावट और पोषक तत्वों को सुरक्षित रखना' (Freezing with liquid nitrogen to preserve texture) है।
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873📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryEnzymatic Browning Mechanisms
What is the principle behind enzymatic browning in fruits, and how is it controlled during food processing?
Explanation
Enzymatic Browning occurs when cut fruit tissue exposes phenolic substrates to Polyphenol Oxidase (PPO) in the presence of oxygen, forming brown quinone pigments. It is inhibited by low pH (Acidification with citric acid), Ascorbic acid (antioxidant reducing agent), blanching, or oxygen exclusion.
फलों में एंजाइमी भूरापन 'पॉलीफेनोल ऑक्सीडेज द्वारा फेनोलिक यौगिकों के ऑक्सीकरण' से होता है, जिसे 'अम्लीकरण या एस्कॉर्बिक एसिड' द्वारा नियंत्रित किया जाता है।
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874📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyThermal and Non-Thermal Preservation Matching
Match the following:
1. Boiling
2. Cold Sterilization
3. Sterilization
4. Pasteurization

Description:
i. Kills pathogenic microorganisms
ii. 100∘C100^\circ\text{C}
iii. Dosage measured in Gray or rad
iv. Microorganism free product

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> ii (Boiling: thermal treatment at 100∘extC100^\circ ext{C}), 2 -> iii (Cold Sterilization / Irradiation: ionizing radiation dose measured in Gray/rad), 3 -> iv (Commercial Sterilization: renders product completely free of viable organisms and spores), 4 -> i (Pasteurization: specifically destroys vegetative pathogenic microorganisms). Correct match: (1)-(ii), (2)-(iii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i).
1-ii (उबालना - 100°C), 2-iii (कोल्ड नसबंदी - विकिरण खुराक ग्रे/रैड), 3-iv (नसबंदी - रोगाणु मुक्त), 4-i (पाश्चुरीकरण - रोगजनकों का नाश)। सही विकल्प B है।
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875📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyCommercial Pasteurization Commodities
Pasteurization of food is done in which products:
I. Juices
II. Milk
III. Fats
IV. Grains
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Commercial pasteurization is a liquid food processing operation routinely applied to fruit Juices (I) and dairy Milk (II) to destroy vegetative pathogens and inactivate enzymes without altering nutritional quality.
पाश्चुरीकरण मुख्य रूप से तरल खाद्य पदार्थों जैसे 'फलों के रस (Juices - I)' और 'दूध (Milk - II)' में किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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876📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesFreezing Protein Chemistry (Salting Out)
During freezing proteins may denature due to concentration of product this effect is called as:
Explanation
During slow freezing, pure ice crystals freeze out first, dramatically concentrating mineral solutes in the remaining unfrozen liquid phase; this hyper-ionic concentration causes protein aggregation and denaturation known as 'Salting Out'.
फ्रीजिंग के दौरान विलेय सांद्रता बढ़ने से प्रोटीनों के विकृतीकरण और अवक्षेपण के प्रभाव को 'साल्टिंग आउट' (Salting out) कहा जाता है।
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877📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyFood Preservation Fundamentals
Consider the following statements:
I. Freezing include conversion of food from solid to liquid
II. Pasteurization is done for solid food
III. Refrigeration is called cold sterilization
IV. Pasteurization can kill spores in food products
Please select the incorrect statement from the above:
Explanation
All four statements are scientifically incorrect: I is false (freezing converts liquid water into solid ice), II is false (pasteurization applies to liquid foods), III is false (irradiation, not refrigeration, is cold sterilization), IV is false (pasteurization destroys only vegetative cells, not bacterial spores). Correct: I, II, III, and IV.
चारों कथन गलत हैं: फ्रीजिंग तरल को ठोस बनाती है, पाश्चुरीकरण बीजाणुओं को नहीं मारता और विकिरण को कोल्ड नसबंदी कहते हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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878📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyThermal Processing Misconceptions
Consider the following statements:
I. Pasteurization is considered a cold sterilization method
II. All radiations are ionizing
III. Blanching is used for liquid food products
IV. UHT pasteurization is used for solid foods
From among the statements given choose the correct one:
Explanation
All statements are false: I is false (thermal process), II is false (UV and infrared are non-ionizing), III is false (blanching is for solid fruits/vegetables), IV is false (UHT is used for continuous-flow liquid milk/juices). Correct: None of the above.
दिए गए सभी कथन असत्य हैं (ब्लांचिंग ठोस सब्जियों के लिए है, UHT तरल पदार्थों के लिए है, UV गैर-आयनकारी है)। सही विकल्प D है।
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879📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyPasteurization Temperature Hierarchy
Arrange the following processing in the descending order of temperature applied:
I. UHT Pasteurization
II. HTST Pasteurization
III. LTLT Pasteurization
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Processing temperature hierarchy: UHT (Ultra-High Temperature: 135ext−−150∘extC135 ext{--}150^\circ ext{C} for 2–5 s) >> HTST (High Temperature Short Time: 71.7ext−−72∘extC71.7 ext{--}72^\circ ext{C} for 15 s) >> LTLT (Low Temperature Long Time / Batch: 62.8ext−−63∘extC62.8 ext{--}63^\circ ext{C} for 30 min). Correct descending order: I, II, III.
तापमान का सही अवरोही क्रम: UHT (135-150°C) −>-> HTST (72°C) −>-> LTLT (63°C) (I, II, III)। सही विकल्प A है।
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880📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyPackaging Requirements
Consider the following statements:
I. The packaging material should not be non-toxic
II. Can is the primary packaging
III. The packaging should protect food from contamination
IV. Temper-resistance or temper evident features are not important for packaging of milk
After reading the above statements please select the correct statement:
Explanation
Statements II and III are correct: Cans act as primary food contact packaging (II) and packaging must barrier protect food from external contamination (III). Statement I is grammatically false (materials must be non-toxic), and Statement IV is false (tamper-evident seals are vital for milk security). Correct: II and III.
कथन II और III सही हैं (कैन प्राथमिक पैकेजिंग है और पैकेजिंग संदूषण से बचाती है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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881📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyTinplate Steel Can Types
The Type L base steel is used for which type of food product?
Explanation
In sanitary tinplate can manufacturing, Type L base steel has the lowest residual metalloid impurities (copper, nickel, phosphorus), providing maximum corrosion resistance for High-Acid Foods (such as berries, prunes, pickles, and cherries).
टाइप एल (Type L) बेस स्टील का उपयोग अत्यधिक संक्षारण प्रतिरोधी होने के कारण 'अत्यधिक अम्लीय खाद्य पदार्थों' (High Acid Food) के डिब्बे बनाने में किया जाता है।
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882📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesMonomeric Units of Proteins
Basic unit of proteins is:
Explanation
Amino acids (specifically 20 standard α\alpha-amino acids linked together by covalent peptide bonds) are the fundamental monomeric building blocks of all proteins.
प्रोटीन की मूलभूत संरचनात्मक इकाई 'अमीनो एसिड' (Amino Acids) होते हैं।
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883📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesSugar Caramelization Products
The pigment caramelan formed after caramelization is soluble in ______ and tastes ______
Explanation
Caramelan (C12H18O9C_{12}H_{18}O_9, formed by dehydration during heating sucrose >160∘extC>160^\circ ext{C}) is a brown pigment that is readily soluble in Water and exhibits a characteristic Bitter-sweet / Bitter caramel taste.
कैरेमेलाइजेशन के दौरान बनने वाला वर्णक 'कैरेमेलन' (Caramelan) 'जल में घुलनशील' (Water soluble) होता है और इसका स्वाद 'कड़वा' (Bitter) होता है।
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884📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesLipid Chemical Classification
Lipids can be classified on the basis of the following -
I. Classification based on nutritional properties
II. Classification based on Degree of unsaturation
III. Classification based on Degree of emulsification
IV. Classification based on Degree of saturation
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Chemical classification of dietary fatty acids and lipids is fundamentally structured on the Degree of Unsaturation / Saturation (Saturated, Monounsaturated MUFA, Polyunsaturated PUFA). Choice A (II and IV).
लिपिड और फैटी एसिड का रासायनिक वर्गीकरण मुख्य रूप से 'संतृप्ति और असंतृप्ति की डिग्री' (Degree of saturation/unsaturation: II और IV) के आधार पर किया जाता है।
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885📚Human Nutrition, Micronutrients & Dietary DeficienciesObligatory Water Physiology
What is the amount of obligatory water loss each day in ml?
Explanation
Obligatory Water Loss is the minimum volume of water that must be excreted daily to eliminate metabolic waste solutes, comprising minimum obligatory urinary output (pprox 500 ext{ ml/day}) required to excrete 600 mOsm of urinary solutes.
शरीर से अपशिष्ट उत्सर्जित करने के लिए आवश्यक दैनिक अनिवार्य न्यूनतम जल हानि (Obligatory water loss) '500 ml' होती है।
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886📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsFSSA 2006 Preamble & Objective
What is the primary objective of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?
Explanation
The preamble of FSSA 2006 states that its primary objective is to consolidate the laws relating to food and establish the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India for laying down science-based standards for food safety and regulating manufacturing, storage, and sale.
FSSA 2006 का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'भारत में खाद्य सुरक्षा और विज्ञान-आधारित मानकों के लिए एक एकीकृत कानूनी ढांचा स्थापित करना' है।
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887📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsWTO SPS Agreement Scope
What is the main focus of the WTO SPS Agreement?
Explanation
The WTO Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement) sets rules ensuring that national health and food safety regulations are applied only to the extent necessary to Protect Human, Animal, or Plant Life and Health from foodborne risks and biosecurity threats.
WTO के SPS समझौते का मुख्य फोकस 'मानव, पशु और पौधों के जीवन और स्वास्थ्य की रक्षा करना' (Protecting human, animal, and plant life or health) है।
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888📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsFSSA 2006 Unsafe Food Definition
The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 defines Unsafe Food as:
Explanation
Under Section 3(1)(zz) of FSSA 2006, 'Unsafe Food' means an article of food whose nature, substance or quality is so affected by a poisonous or unwholesome ingredient, processing, or contamination as to render it injurious to health.
FSSA 2006 की धारा 3(1)(zz) के अनुसार 'असुरक्षित भोजन' (Unsafe Food) वह खाद्य पदार्थ है जिसकी प्रकृति, पदार्थ या गुणवत्ता स्वास्थ्य के लिए हानिकारक (Injurious to health) हो।
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889📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsLegal Metrology Act 2009
What is the primary objective of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 in India?
Explanation
The Legal Metrology Act, 2009 establishes and enforces standards of weights and measures, regulates trade and commerce in pre-packaged commodities, and ensures precision and accuracy of measuring instruments.
विधिक मापविज्ञान अधिनियम, 2009 (Legal Metrology Act) का मुख्य उद्देश्य 'व्यावसायिक लेन-देन में उपयोग किए जाने वाले बाटों, मापों और उपकरणों की सटीकता सुनिश्चित करना' है।
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890📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsMandatory Labeling Declarations
Which of the following are key provisions under the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011?
I. All packaged foods must carry a nutrition facts label.
II. The label must indicate the manufacturing date and best before date.
III. The food product must carry the ingredient list in any language.
IV. The label should include the price per kilogram of the product.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Provisions I and II are statutory mandates: Mandatory nutritional facts panel (I) and date of manufacture alongside 'Best Before / Expiry date' (II). Provision III is false (mandatory English or Hindi in Devanagari script), and Provision IV is false (unit pricing per kg is governed by Legal Metrology, not standard FSSAI label). Correct: I and II.
FSSAI लेबलिंग नियमों के तहत 'पोषण संबंधी तथ्य लेबल' (I) और 'निर्माण/उपयोग तिथि' (II) अनिवार्य प्रावधान हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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891📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsBread Yeast Fermentation
In bread manufacturing, alcoholic fermentation is carried out by:
Explanation
Baker's yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) carries out anaerobic alcoholic fermentation of dough sugars, producing carbon dioxide (CO2CO_2) for dough leavening and ethanol/flavor congeners.
ब्रेड निर्माण में ऐल्कोहॉलीय किण्वन और आटा फुलाने का कार्य बेकर्स यीस्ट 'Saccharomyces cerevisiae' द्वारा किया जाता है।
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892📚Food Analysis, Analytical Chemistry & InstrumentationBeer-Lambert Law
Which law is fundamental to UV-Visible spectrophotometry?
Explanation
Beer-Lambert's Law (A=ε⋅b⋅cA = \varepsilon \cdot b \cdot c) is the foundational law of quantitative UV-Visible absorption spectrophotometry, stating that absorbance (AA) is directly proportional to path length (bb) and analyte molar concentration (cc).
यूवी-विजिबल स्पेक्ट्रोफोटोमेट्री का मूलभूत नियम 'बीयर-लैम्बर्ट का नियम' (Beer's Law / A = arepsilon b c) है।
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893📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEcosystem Functional Unit
The functional unit in ecology is
Explanation
An Ecosystem (term coined by A.G. Tansley in 1935) is the fundamental structural and functional unit of ecology where living communities interact with abiotic components through energy flows and nutrient cycles.
पारिस्थितिकी की मूलभूत कार्यात्मक इकाई 'पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र' (Ecosystem / पारितंत्र) है।
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894📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEnvironmental Resistance in S-Curve
In the logistic growth curve for population growth, the effect of environmental resistance is observed in:
Explanation
In the logistic S-curve, Environmental Resistance begins to decelerate the initial exponential growth rate during the Deceleration Phase as the population density approaches the carrying capacity (KK).
लॉजिस्टिक वृद्धि वक्र में पर्यावरणीय प्रतिरोध का प्रभाव 'मंदन चरण' (Deceleration phase) में देखा जाता है जब वृद्धि धीमी होने लगती है।
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895📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringTurbidity Principles
Consider the following pairs:
1. Turbidity: Measure of the extent to which light is absorbed or scattered by suspended matter
2. Turbidity: Measure of the extent to which light is absorbed or scattered by dissolved matter
3. Turbidity: Turbidity is not a direct quantitative measure of suspended solids
4. Turbidity: Soaps and detergents do not produce stable colloids that cause turbidity
Which of the above pairs match correctly?
Explanation
Pairs 1 and 3 are correct: Turbidity is an optical property measuring light scattered/absorbed by suspended particulate matter in Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU - 1), and because scattering depends on particle shape and refractive index, turbidity is not a direct quantitative mass concentration of total suspended solids (3). Correct: 1 and 3.
कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं (गंदलापन निलंबित कणों द्वारा प्रकाश के प्रकीर्णन का माप है और यह निलंबित ठोस पदार्थों का प्रत्यक्ष भार माप नहीं है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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896📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringOxygen Demand Parameters Matching
Consider the following pairs:
Set-A:
1. BOD
2. COD
3. TOC
4. Ultimate BOD

Set-B:
i. Measure of natural organic matter
ii. BOD equal to the initial oxygen equivalent of the water
iii. Organic matter chemically oxidized
iv. Amount of oxygen consumed during microbial utilization of organics
v. Conversion of substrates to cells

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
Explanation
1 -> iv (BOD: dissolved oxygen consumed by aerobic microorganisms metabolizing organic matter), 2 -> iii (COD: oxygen required to chemically oxidize organic compounds using dichromate), 3 -> i (TOC: direct instrumental combustion measure of total organic carbon), 4 -> ii (Ultimate BOD L0L_0: total stoichiometric oxygen required for complete bio-oxidation). Correct match: (1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii).
1-iv (BOD - रोगाणुओं द्वारा ऑक्सीजन खपत), 2-iii (COD - रासायनिक रूप से ऑक्सीकृत कार्बनिक पदार्थ), 3-i (TOC - कुल कार्बनिक कार्बन), 4-ii (अंतिम BOD - कुल प्रारंभिक ऑक्सीजन मांग)। सही विकल्प B है।
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897📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeGreenhouse Gas Classification
Which of the following is not greenhouse gas?
Explanation
Diatomic Nitrogen (N2N_2, comprising 78% of dry air) is a symmetric homonuclear diatomic gas with no net dipole moment change during infrared vibration, making it transparent to thermal IR and NOT a greenhouse gas (CO2,CH4,N2OCO_2, CH_4, N_2O are potent GHGs).
द्विपरमाण्विक नाइट्रोजन (N2N_2) ग्रीनहाउस गैस नहीं है (CO2,CH4,N2OCO_2, CH_4, N_2O ग्रीनहाउस गैसें हैं)। सही विकल्प C है।
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898📚Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)EIA Foundational Aims
Consider the following statements:
i. The aim of EIA is to inform the decision maker of the potential significant environment effects and risks of developmental proposals.
ii. The aim of EIA is to model the dispersion of pollutant coming out of sources present in the developmental projects.
iii. The aim of EIA is to promote sustainable development by ensuring that the development proposals do not undermine critical resources.
iv. The aim of EIA primarily involves the screening and scoping of developmental projects.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i and iii are foundational objectives of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA): To systematically inform statutory decision-makers of environmental risks and impacts (i), and to promote sustainable development through mitigation of environmental degradation (iii). Correct: (i), (iii).
पर्यावरण प्रभाव आकलन (EIA) के मुख्य उद्देश्य नीति निर्माताओं को संभावित पर्यावरणीय प्रभावों से अवगत कराना (i) और सतत विकास को बढ़ावा देना (iii) हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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899📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeNAAQS Air Pollution Parameters
Choose the statements which are correct:
i. Ammonia is a secondary pollutant
ii. For ozone, 8-hour average shall be taken during daytime for analysis
iii. CO2 is a primary pollutant in air pollution studies
iv. PM2.5 value is always less than PM10
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements ii and iv are correct: Ground-level Ozone is photochemical and monitored as an 8-hour average during peak daytime sunlight (ii), and extPM2.5ext{PM}_{2.5} (fine fraction ≤2.5 μextm\le 2.5\ \mu ext{m}) is mathematically a sub-fraction of extPM10ext{PM}_{10} (≤10 μextm\le 10\ \mu ext{m}), hence extPM2.5≤extPM10ext{PM}_{2.5} \le ext{PM}_{10} (iv). (Ammonia is a primary pollutant). Correct: ii, iv.
कथन ii और iv सही हैं (ओजोन का 8-घंटे का औसत दिन में लिया जाता है और extPM2.5ext{PM}_{2.5} हमेशा extPM10ext{PM}_{10} से कम या बराबर होता है)। सही विकल्प B है।
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900📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringBragg's Law (X-Ray Diffraction)
Bragg's law is associated with:
Explanation
Bragg's Law (nλ=2dsin⁡θn\lambda = 2d\sin\theta) is the fundamental physical law governing X-ray Diffraction (XRD), relating the wavelength of incident X-rays to the interplanar crystal lattice spacing (dd) and diffraction angle (θ\theta).
ब्रैग का नियम (nλ=2dsin⁡θn\lambda = 2d\sin\theta) 'एक्स-रे विवर्तन' (X ray Diffraction / XRD) से संबंधित है।
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901📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringWastewater Headworks (Screens)
Which of the component can be used to protect pumps used in the lifting of sewage:
Explanation
Coarse Bar Screens and Fine Screens installed at the headworks of sewage treatment plants trap large floating debris (rags, sticks, plastics, cans) to prevent clogging and mechanical damage to sewage lifting pumps.
सीवेज लिफ्टिंग पंपों को तैरते मलबे और पत्थरों से बचाने के लिए सबसे पहले 'स्क्रीन' (Screens / जाली) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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902📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringCOD Potassium Dichromate Digest
The oxidizing agent used in the COD experiment is:
Explanation
In the standard closed/open reflux Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) analytical assay, Potassium Dichromate (K2Cr2O7K_2Cr_2O_7) in boiling concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4H_2SO_4) with silver sulfate (Ag2SO4Ag_2SO_4) catalyst acts as the strong chemical oxidizing agent.
COD (रासायनिक ऑक्सीजन मांग) परीक्षण में कार्बनिक पदार्थों को ऑक्सीकृत करने के लिए मजबूत ऑक्सीकारक 'पोटेशियम डाइक्रोमेट' (K2Cr2O7K_2Cr_2O_7) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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903📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeSilence Zone Noise Standards (50/40 dB)
As per the guidelines in India, the silence zone must not exceed the sound of:
Explanation
Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000 in India, ambient air quality noise standards for Silence Zones (areas within 100 meters around hospitals, educational institutions, and courts) are strictly: 50 dB(A)50\text{ dB(A)} during Day time (6 AM to 10 PM) and 40 dB(A)40\text{ dB(A)} during Night time (10 PM to 6 AM). Choice D.
भारत के ध्वनि प्रदूषण नियमों के तहत 'साइलेंस जोन' (Silence zone) में अनुमेय ध्वनि सीमा 'दिन में 50 dB(A) और रात में 40 dB(A)' (50db day, 40db night) होती है।
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904📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsOrganic Chemistry (Carbon)
The key element present in organic chemicals is:
Explanation
Carbon (CC, atomic number 6) is the fundamental tetravalent element whose ability to form stable catenated covalent chains and rings constitutes the structural basis of all Organic Chemistry and biological biomolecules.
सभी कार्बनिक रसायनों (Organic chemicals) में मौजूद अनिवार्य और प्रमुख तत्व 'कार्बन' (Carbon) है।
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905📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyProhibited Drug Imports
Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?
Explanation
Under Section 10 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, the import of any Misbranded, Spurious, Adulterated, or sub-standard drug, or any drug whose manufacture is prohibited in the country of origin, is strictly prohibited.
औषधि अधिनियम की धारा 10 के तहत 'मिस्ब्रांडेड दवाओं' (Misbranded drugs) का आयात पूरी तरह प्रतिबंधित है।
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906📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyLegal Terminology (Clandestine)
Which agreement is also known as Clandestine arrangement?
Explanation
In trade, forensic jurisprudence, and competition law, a Clandestine Arrangement is an illicit, collusive Secret Agreement made between parties to circumvent legal regulations or price controls.
गुप्त या गुप्त रूप से किए गए समझौते को 'सीक्रेट एग्रीमेंट' (Secret agreement / गुप्त समझौता) कहा जाता है।
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907📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsTablet Defects Matching
Consider the following pairs:
i. Capping
ii. Mottling
iii. Picking
iv. Orange Peel Effect

1. Uneven distribution of colour or pigmentation on the tablet surface
2. Tablet material is left behind on punch faces resulting in tablet surface damage
3. Partial or complete separation of tablet's crown
4. Tablet having rough surface with matt appearance rather than glossy texture

Identify the correct pair:
Explanation
Tablet manufacturing defects: i -> 3 (Capping: partial or complete separation of top/bottom crowns), ii -> 1 (Mottling: unequal distribution of color on surface), iii -> 2 (Picking: granule adherence pulling surface film away into punch face), iv -> 4 (Orange peel effect: textured roughness due to improper spray atomization). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4.
टेबलेट दोष: कैपिंग (मुकुट अलग होना - 3), मोटलिंग (रंग का असमान वितरण - 1), पिकिंग (पंच पर चिपकना - 2), ऑरेंज पील प्रभाव (खुरदरी सतह - 4)। सही विकल्प A है।
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908📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsPharmaceutical Packaging Materials
In which of the following scenarios is non-absorbent cotton most likely used in pharmaceutical packaging?
Explanation
Non-absorbent (raw/carded) cotton is used as an inert top-filler plugging wadding in bottles of solid dosage forms (tablets and capsules) to prevent mechanical shock and movement during shipping without absorbing tablet moisture.
फार्मास्युटिकल पैकेजिंग में नॉन-एब्जॉर्बेंट कॉटन का उपयोग 'गोलियों को टूटने से बचाने और पैक करने' (To pack tablets in sterile conditions) के लिए किया जाता है।
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909📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsKarl Fischer Stoichiometric Equation
Which of the following is the correct chemical equation for the reaction between iodine and sulphur dioxide in Karl Fischer titration?
Explanation
The fundamental stoichiometric oxidation-reduction reaction in Karl Fischer water determination is: I2+SO2+H2O−>2HI+SO3I_2 + SO_2 + H_2O -> 2HI + SO_3 (which in the presence of base and alcohol forms alkylsulfite and hydroiodic salts). Choice C.
कार्ल फिशर अनुमापन में आयोडीन और सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड की रासायनिक अभिक्रिया: I2+SO2+H2O−>2HI+SO3I_2 + SO_2 + H_2O -> 2HI + SO_3 (विकल्प C) होती है।
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910📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsBioburden Definition
What is the correct statement for the term 'Bioburden'?
Explanation
Bioburden is defined in sterile pharmaceutical manufacturing as the total population and number of viable microorganisms present on or in a product, raw material, or sterile package prior to sterilization.
बायोबर्टन (Bioburden) का अर्थ 'नसबंदी से पहले किसी सतह या उत्पाद पर मौजूद जीवित सूक्ष्मजीवों की कुल संख्या' (Number of microorganisms present on surface) है।
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911📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsHeat-Resistant Bacterial Spores
Name the spore containing the pathogen which shows resistance to heat and is usually not destroyed by using heat at 100 degrees celsius:
Explanation
Clostridium perfringens (and C. botulinum) produces bacterial endospores with thick protective cortex layers that survive boiling water at 100∘extC100^\circ ext{C}, requiring pressurized steam sterilization (121∘extC121^\circ ext{C}) for destruction.
100°C पर उबालने से नष्ट न होने वाले अत्यधिक ऊष्मा-प्रतिरोधी बीजाणु युक्त रोगजनक 'Clostridium perfringens' है।
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912📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsAlcohol Regulatory Purpose
In the Indian Pharmacopoeia, what is the primary purpose of the alcohol determination in liquid formulations?
Explanation
The primary regulatory purpose of alcohol determination under IP and Excise rules is ensuring that the product contains the declared alcohol concentration stated on the label (within pharmacopoeial ±5%\pm 5\% limits) for therapeutic safety and statutory labeling compliance.
तरल योगों में अल्कोहल निर्धारण का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'अल्कोहल सांद्रता का उचित लेबलिंग अनुपालन सुनिश्चित करना' (To ensure proper labeling of alcohol concentration) है।
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913📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsLimit Test for Arsenic
As per the Indian Pharmacopoeia, which of the following is the appropriate reagent for the limit test for arsenic?
Explanation
In the Gutzeit Limit Test for Arsenic (IP), arsine gas (AsH3AsH_3) generated from arsenic impurities reacts with a test paper impregnated with Mercuric Chloride (HgCl2HgCl_2), producing a characteristic yellow-to-brown stain of mercuric arsenide.
IP के अनुसार आर्सेनिक के सीमा परीक्षण (Gutzeit test) के लिए उपयुक्त अभिकर्मक 'मर्क्यूरिक क्लोराइड' (Mercuric chloride पेपर) है।
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914📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyBarbituric Acid SAR
If both the hydrogens at 5th position of barbituric acid are not replaced, then it leads to:
Explanation
Unsubstituted barbituric acid (having hydrogens at C-5) undergoes extensive Keto-Enol and Lactim-Lactam Tautomerization, producing an acidic, fully ionized compound that cannot cross the blood-brain barrier and possesses zero central nervous system depressant/hypnotic activity.
बार्बिट्यूरिक एसिड के 5वें स्थान पर दोनों हाइड्रोजनों को न बदलने पर 'टोटोमराइज़ेशन' (Tautomerization) होता है और यह शामक गतिविधि नहीं दर्शाता।
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915📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyReserpine Chemical Identification
Reserpine, when treated with solution of vanillin in acetic acid shows colour:
Explanation
When Reserpine (Rauwolfia serpentina alkaloid) is treated with a solution of vanillin in glacial acetic acid and sulfuric acid, it produces a characteristic intense Red / Violet-Red color reaction.
जब रिसर्पिन को एसिटिक एसिड में वैनिलिन के घोल के साथ उपचारित किया जाता है, तो यह 'लाल' (Red) रंग दिखाता है।
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916📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyStrychnine Chemical Test
When the transverse section of nux vomica is treated with ammonium vanadate and sulphuric acid, the endospermic cells show purple colour, due to presence of:
Explanation
In Mandelin's chemical test for Nux-vomica seeds, treatment of the endosperm with ammonium vanadate and sulfuric acid yields an intense Violet/Purple color due to the indole alkaloid Strychnine (Brucine gives a blood-red color with concentrated nitric acid).
नक्स वोमिका के टीएस पर अमोनियम वैनाडेट और सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड डालने पर बैंगनी रंग 'स्ट्राइकिनिन' (Strychnine) की उपस्थिति के कारण आता है।
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917📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Railways (Firozpur Division)
Which railway division has jurisdiction over the Jammu-Baramulla railway line?
Explanation
The Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) and the entire operational railway network across Jammu & Kashmir falls under the administrative jurisdiction of the Firozpur Railway Division of Northern Railway.
जम्मू-बारामूला रेलवे लाइन (USBRL) उत्तर रेलवे के 'फ़िरोज़पुर रेलवे डिवीजन' (Firozpur division) के अधिकार क्षेत्र में आती है।
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918📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Infrastructure (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel)
Which of the following statements about Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel in Jammu & Kashmir is/are correct?
1. It is India's longest road tunnel with a length of 9.28 km.
2. The tunnel is located on the lower Himalayan range at an altitude of 1,200 m (3,937 ft).
3. The tunnel connects Udhampur and Ramban in Jammu & Kashmir.
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 is 9.28 km long (1) and situated at ~1,200 m altitude in the lower Himalayas (2). Statement 3 is incorrect because it connects Chenani in Udhampur district with Nashri in Ramban district.
कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं (यह 9.28 किमी लंबी सड़क सुरंग है और निचली हिमालय पर्वतमाला में 1200 मीटर की ऊंचाई पर स्थित है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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919📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTChenab Rail Bridge
Chenab Rail Bridge in Jammu & Kashmir is built between which railway stations?
Explanation
The world's highest Chenab Rail Bridge (359 m above the river bed) spans the Chenab River gorge between Bakkal and Kauri, forming a critical section on the Katra-Reasi-Sangaldan rail route.
चिनाब रेल पुल जम्मू-कश्मीर के रियासी जिले में बक्कल और कौरी के बीच स्थित है (संगलदान और रियासी रेल खंड)। सही विकल्प A है।
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920📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTTribes of India
Which of the following is NOT the major tribe of Rajasthan?
Explanation
The Gond Tribe is the largest tribal community of Central India (concentrated in Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and Odisha), whereas Bhil, Mina, Garasia, Damor, and Sahariya are prominent indigenous tribes of Rajasthan.
'गोंड जनजाति' (Gond Tribe) मध्य भारत (मध्य प्रदेश/छत्तीसगढ़) की प्रमुख जनजाति है, यह राजस्थान की मुख्य जनजाति नहीं है।
2025