Hydroelectric Projects & Infrastructure of J&K

1📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTCulture

Consider the following statements regarding Kud dance:

1. Kud dance is performed to honour the gods Lok Devtas' as a thanks giving ritual.
2. It is practiced on festive occasions like Eid and Ramzan days are going.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Kud is a traditional thanksgiving folk dance performed in Jammu's hilly areas to honor the Lok Devtas (local deities). Statement 2 is incorrect as it is performed during rainy nights and after harvesting, not on Eid/Ramzan.

پہلا بیان درست ہے کیونکہ کُد رقص جموں کے پہاڑی علاقوں میں مقامی دیوتاؤں (Lok Devtas) کے اعزاز میں شکرانے کے طور پر کیا جاتا ہے۔ یہ رقص عید یا رمضان کے موقع پر نہیں کیا جاتا۔

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2📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography

Which of the places is known as the "Gateway to the Kashmir valley"?

Explanation

Banihal (also Qazigund) is known as the 'Gateway to Kashmir Valley' because it connects Jammu with Srinagar through the Banihal pass. Since it is not in the options, 'None of the above' is correct.

بانہال (Banihal) کو وادی کشمیر کا گیٹ وے کہا جاتا ہے۔ چونکہ یہ اختیارات میں شامل نہیں ہے، اس لیے 'None of the above' صحیح ہے۔

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3📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTDemography

The population growth rate means:

Explanation

The population growth rate is the rate at which the number of individuals in a population increases, which is fundamentally calculated as the difference between the birth rate and the death rate.

آبادی کی شرح نمو (population growth rate) سے مراد شرح پیدائش (birth rate) اور شرح اموات (death rate) کے درمیان فرق ہے۔

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4📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography

In which tourist place is the Kolahoi glacier located?

Explanation

Kolahoi Glacier is a valley glacier located in the northwestern Himalayan Range, approximately 26 km north of Pahalgam.

کولاہوئی گلیشیئر (Kolahoi glacier) جموں و کشمیر کے مشہور سیاحتی مقام پہلگام (Pahalgam) کے قریب واقع ہے۔

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5📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHeritage

Consider the following statements regarding Ajanta Caves:

- a. Ajanta caves were tagged as UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1983.
- b. Currently, these caves are taken care of by the Archaeological Survey of India.
- c. The caves are believed to be made in Gupta period and Vakataka period.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All statements are correct. Ajanta Caves became a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983, are preserved by the ASI, and were excavated during the Vakataka and Gupta periods.

تمام بیانات درست ہیں۔ اجنتا غاروں کو 1983 میں یونیسکو نے عالمی ثقافتی ورثہ قرار دیا، ان کی نگہداشت ASI کرتا ہے اور یہ گپتا اور واکاٹکا دور میں بنی تھیں۔

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6📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography

Consider the following pairs of dams and the states they are located in:

- a. Sardar Sarovar Dam: 3. Gujarat
- b. Bhavani Sagar Dam: 4. Tamil Nadu
- c. Koyna Dam: 2. Maharashtra
- d. Tehri Dam: 1. Uttarakhand

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

The correct matches are: Sardar Sarovar in Gujarat (a-3), Bhavani Sagar in Tamil Nadu (b-4), Koyna in Maharashtra (c-2), and Tehri in Uttarakhand (d-1). This corresponds to: a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1.

صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: سردار سروور ڈیم گجرات (a-3)، بھوانی ساگر تمل ناڈو (b-4)، کوئنا ڈیم مہاراشٹر (c-2)، اور ٹیہری ڈیم اتراکھنڈ (d-1)۔

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7📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHistory

Consider the following pairs of historical terms and entities of Jammu and Kashmir:

- a. Founder of Dogra Dynasty: 4. Gulab Singh
- b. Dar-Ul-Aman (written as Dar-Ul-Alam): 1. Maharaja Ranjit Dev
- c. Mian Deedo: 2. Rebellion Group Head
- d. Treaty of Lahore: 3. 1846

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

The correct matches are: Maharaja Gulab Singh founded the Dogra Dynasty (a-4); Jammu was named 'Dar-ul-Aman' during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Dev due to religious peace (b-1); Mian Deedo was a rebel leader against Sikh rule in Jammu (c-2); and the Treaty of Lahore was signed in 1846 (d-3).

صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: مہاراجہ گلاب سنگھ نے ڈوگرہ خاندان کی بنیاد رکھی (a-4)؛ مہاراجہ رنجیت دیو کے دور میں جموں کو دارالامن کہا گیا (b-1)؛ میاں دیدو جموں کے باغی لیڈر تھے (c-2)؛ اور لاہور کا معاہدہ 1846 میں ہوا (d-3)۔

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8📚Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting

Fixed cost is a cost:

Explanation

Fixed costs are those expenses that remain constant in total amount over a specific range of activity/output during a given period, regardless of volume changes.

مستقل لاگت (Fixed cost) وہ لاگت ہے جو پیداوار کی مقدار تبدیل ہونے کے باوجود کل رقم میں تبدیل نہیں ہوتی (جیسے کرایہ، تنخواہیں)۔

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9📚Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting

Calculate the Prime Cost from the following information:

- Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000
- Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000
- Direct labour: Rs. 60,000
- Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000
- Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000

Explanation

Prime Cost is the sum of direct costs: Prime Cost = Direct Materials Consumed + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses = Rs. 90,000 + Rs. 60,000 + Rs. 20,000 = Rs. 1,70,000. (Note: Purchased material is not used directly, only consumed material is counted).

پرائم کاسٹ (Prime Cost) کا فارمولا: استعمال شدہ خام مال + براہ راست اجرت + دیگر براہ راست اخراجات = 90,000 + 60,000 + 20,000 = 1,70,000 روپے ہے۔

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10📚Accountancy & Book KeepingAccounting Equation

Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

The fundamental accounting equation is Assets = Liabilities + Capital (Owner's Equity). This represents the balance sheet structure.

بنیادی اکاؤنٹنگ مساوات ہے: اثاثے (Assets) = واجبات (Liabilities) + ایکویٹی / سرمایہ (Equity)۔ یعنی آپشن C درست ہے۔

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11📚Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation (GST)

Which of the following is/are included in the definition of "Goods" as defined under section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017?

Explanation

Section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017 defines 'goods' to exclude money and securities but specifically includes actionable claims, growing crops, grass, etc.

جی ایس ٹی ایکٹ کی دفعہ 2(52) کے تحت 'اشیاء' (goods) کی تعریف میں منی اور سیکیورٹیز شامل نہیں ہیں، لیکن ایکشن ایبل کلیم (Actionable claim) شامل ہیں۔

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12📚Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting

From the following information, find out the number of units that must be sold by the firm to earn a profit of Rs. 1,80,000 per year:

- Sales price: Rs. 25 per unit
- Variable manufacturing costs: Rs. 12 per unit
- Variable selling costs: Rs. 3 per unit
- Fixed factory overheads: Rs. 5,00,000
- Fixed selling costs: Rs. 3,00,000

Explanation

Contribution per unit = Selling Price - Total Variable Cost = 25 - (12 + 3) = Rs. 10. Total Fixed Cost = 5,00,000 + 3,00,000 = Rs. 8,00,000. Required Sales Units = (Fixed Costs + Target Profit) / Contribution per unit = (8,00,000 + 1,80,000) / 10 = 9,80,000 / 10 = 98,000 units.

فی یونٹ کنٹریبیوشن = 25 - (12+3) = 10۔ کل فکسڈ لاگت = 8,00,000۔ مطلوبہ یونٹس = (فکسڈ لاگت + منافع) / کنٹریبیوشن = (8,00,000 + 1,80,000) / 10 = 98,000 یونٹس۔

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13📚General EnglishSentence Rearrangement

Rearrange the following jumbled phrases into a meaningful sentence:

- 1. Are tree from (free from)
- 2. Grow abundantly
- 3. Low plants
- 4. Tundra region
- 5. During the short summer
- 6. Like mosses and clinches (lichens)
- 7. And
- 8. Ice

Explanation

Option B (4, 1, 8, 5, 7, 3, 6, 2) forms the correct sentence: 'Tundra region are free from ice during the short summer, and low plants like mosses and lichens grow abundantly.'

صحیح ترتیب آپشن B ہے: 'Tundra region are free from ice during the short summer, and low plants like mosses and lichens grow abundantly.'

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14📚General EconomicsEconomics

What is Gross Domestic Product?

Explanation

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total monetary or market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific time period (usually annually).

مجموعی ملکی پیداوار (GDP) سے مراد ایک مخصوص مدت (عام طور پر ایک سال) میں ملک کی حدود کے اندر پیدا ہونے والی تمام حتمی اشیاء اور خدمات کی مالیاتی قدر ہے۔

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15📚General EconomicsEconomics

Which is NOT one of the four main factors of production?

Explanation

The four classical factors of production are Land, Labour, Capital, and Entrepreneurship. Manufacturing is a production process/sector, not a fundamental factor of production.

پیداوار کے چار اہم عوامل: زمین، محنت (Labour)، سرمایہ (Capital) اور تنظیم ہیں۔ مینوفیکچرنگ (Manufacturing) ان عوامل میں شامل نہیں ہے۔

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16📚Knowledge of ComputersSecurity

Which of the following is an antivirus?

Explanation

Norton is a widely used commercial antivirus software utility. Trojan Horse, Worms, and Macro Virus are types of malware.

نورٹن (Norton) ایک اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر ہے، جبکہ ٹروجن ہارس اور ورمز وغیرہ نقصان دہ وائرس اور مالویئر ہیں۔

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17📚Knowledge of ComputersSecurity

The digital signature service that has been launched on the Aadhaar platform is called:

Explanation

eSign Desk (or eSign) is an online electronic signature service in India launched to facilitate Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents.

آدھار پلیٹ فارم پر مبنی آن لائن ڈیجیٹل دستخط کی سروس کو ای-سائن ڈیسک (eSign Desk) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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18📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsForensic Science

The prime work of investigating officer is based on which of the following principle?

Explanation

Locard's Principle of Exchange states that 'every contact leaves a trace', which forms the fundamental basis of crime scene investigation.

لوکارڈ کا تبادلے کا اصول (Locard's Principle of Exchange) کہتا ہے کہ 'ہر رابطہ ایک نشان چھوڑتا ہے'، جو کرائم سین کی تفتیش کی بنیادی بنیاد ہے۔

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19📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsCrime Scene Management

Mark the proper sequence of tasks to be completed in a crime scene.

i. Packaging of physical evidence
ii. Securing the scene
iii. Collecting physical evidence
iv. Recognizing physical evidence

Explanation

The correct sequence is: first secure the scene (ii), then recognize/identify evidence (iv), then collect the evidence (iii), and finally package it (i).

صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: پہلے جرم کی جگہ کو محفوظ کرنا (ii)، پھر ثبوتوں کی شناخت کرنا (iv)، پھر ثبوت اکٹھے کرنا (iii)، اور آخر میں پیک کرنا (i)۔

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20📚Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Which of the following are Non sampling statistical errors?

i. Coverage error
ii. Non-response error
iii. Response error

Explanation

Non-sampling errors are errors that occur during data collection processes other than active sampling. Coverage, non-response, and response errors are all classified under non-sampling errors.

نان سیمپلنگ غلطیاں (Non sampling errors) وہ ہوتی ہیں جو نمونے کے علاوہ ڈیٹا جمع کرنے کے عمل میں پیدا ہوتی ہیں۔ ان میں کوریج، نان رسپانس، اور رسپانس کی غلطیاں تینوں شامل ہیں۔

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21📚Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics

The Standard of Length is based on

Explanation

Since 1983, the meter has been defined internationally as the length of the path travelled by light in vacuum during a time interval of 1/299,792,458 of a second. This is based on the speed of light.

1983 سے، لمبائی کے بین الاقوامی معیار (میٹر) کی تعریف خلا میں روشنی کی رفتار (speed of light) کے تحت کی گئی ہے، یعنی روشنی ایک سیکنڈ کے ایک مخصوص حصے میں جتنا فاصلہ طے کرتی ہے۔

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22📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsFootprints

A footprint classification system is required for filing the footprints of

i. New born babies
ii. Military airmen
iii. People lacking arms

Explanation

Footprint classification systems are used for filing records of newborn babies (hospital security), military airmen (for identification after plane crashes/burns), and individuals lacking arms (who cannot provide fingerprints).

فٹ پرنٹ کی درجہ بندی کا نظام نوزائیدہ بچوں، فوجی ہوابازوں (حادثات میں شناخت کے لیے)، اور بغیر بازوؤں والے افراد (جن کے فنگر پرنٹ نہیں لیے جا سکتے) کی ریکارڈ فائلنگ کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔ اس لیے تینوں درست ہیں۔

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23📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsFootprints

Which of the following materials can be used for casting footprint impressions in snow

i. Molten wax
ii. Plaster of Paris solution
iii. Molten Sulphur.

Explanation

Molten sulfur and molten wax can be used to cast impressions in snow because they solidify rapidly without generating excessive heat that would melt the details. Plaster of Paris solution is water-based and generates heat during its setting process, which would melt the snow and destroy the print detail.

برف پر پاؤں کے نشانات کی کاسٹنگ کے لیے پگھلا ہوا گندھک (Molten Sulphur) اور پگھلی ہوئی موم (Molten wax) استعمال کی جاتی ہے کیونکہ یہ برف کو پگھلائے بغیر تیزی سے جم جاتی ہیں۔ پلاسٹر آف پیرس حرارت پیدا کر کے برف پگھلا دیتا ہے۔

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24📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsGait Analysis

In scientific study of gait pattern, which of the following characteristics are noted?

i. Dimensions of Mark
ii. Pressure points
iii. Pressure defects

Explanation

A scientific analysis of a gait pattern involves checking the dimensions of the prints, the specific pressure points of the foot during stride, and any pressure defects (uneven weight distribution or gait abnormalities).

چال کی رفتار اور انداز (gait pattern) کے سائنسی مطالعے میں پاؤں کے نشان کا سائز (dimensions)، دباؤ کے مقامات (pressure points)، اور چال کی خرابیاں یا نقائص (pressure defects) سبھی نوٹ کیے جاتے ہیں۔

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25📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsGlass

Match the following:

List-I (Element)
i. Arsenic
ii. Cobalt
iii. Chromium
iv. Titanium

List-II (Effect on Glass)
a. Air Bubble removal
b. Blue colour
c. Decolourisation
d. Green Colour

Explanation

The matching is: Arsenic is used for air bubble removal (i-a); Cobalt imparts a blue color (ii-b); Chromium imparts a green color (iii-d); Titanium is used for decolorisation (iv-c).

صحیح جوڑ: آرسینک (Arsenic) -> ہوا کے بلبلوں کا خاتمہ (i-a)؛ کوبالٹ -> نیلا رنگ (ii-b)؛ کرومیم -> ہرا رنگ (iii-d)؛ ٹائٹینیم -> رنگ کا اڑنا یا ڈی کلرائزیشن (iv-c)۔

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26📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsFirearms

Which of the following statements are true for Breech face?

i. It is the area surrounding the firing pin hole.
ii. It seals the barrel from chamber side.
iii. It comes in close contact with the base of the cartridge.

Explanation

The breech face is the portion of the bolt or breech block that seals the rear of the chamber, surrounds the firing pin hole, and directly supports the base of the cartridge case during firing.

بریچ فیس (Breech face) وہ حصہ ہے جو فائرنگ پن کے سوراخ کے گرد ہوتا ہے، چیمبر کی طرف سے نالی کو بند کرتا ہے اور فائرنگ کے وقت کارٹریج کی بنیاد (base) سے جوڑتا ہے۔ اس لیے تینوں سچ ہیں۔

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27📚Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeFirearms

Backward movement of firearm during firing is termed as

Explanation

Recoil is the rearward movement of a firearm caused by Newton's third law of motion (action and reaction) when the bullet is projected forward.

فائرنگ کے وقت بندوق کا پیچھے کی طرف جھٹکا لینا یا حرکت کرنا ریکوائل (Recoil) کہلاتا ہے۔

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28📚Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeExternal Ballistics

The tendency of a projectile to suck backward to fill up the vacuum is called as

Explanation

Base drag is the aerodynamic drag caused by the low pressure/vacuum area formed behind the flat base of a moving bullet, which pulls it backward.

گولی کے پیچھے پیدا ہونے والے ویکیوم یا کم دباؤ کے باعث پیچھے کی طرف کھنچنے کے عمل کو بیس ڈریگ (Base drag) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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29📚Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeWound Ballistics

Scorching is also known as

i. Singeing
ii. Burning
iii. Charring

Explanation

Scorching (the thermal damage caused by muzzle flash gases) is also referred to as singeing (specifically for hair) or burning/charring (for fibers and tissue).

شعلے کی گرمی سے بال اور کپڑے جھلسنے (scorching) کو جھلسنا (singeing)، جلنا (burning)، اور کوئلہ بننا (charring) تینوں ناموں سے پکارا جاتا ہے۔

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30📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Science

Which of the following is called "Locard's Principle of Exchange"?

Explanation

Locard's Exchange Principle states that 'every contact leaves a trace', which forms the fundamental basis of trace evidence and crime scene investigation.

لوکارڈ کا تبادلے کا اصول (Locard's Exchange Principle) کہتا ہے کہ 'ہر رابطہ ایک نشان چھوڑتا ہے'، جو کرائم سین کی تفتیش اور ٹریس شواہد کی بنیادی بنیاد ہے۔

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31📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management

The following steps are involved in the crime scene processing:

i. Packaging of evidence
ii. Collection of evidence
iii. Securing the crime scene
iv. Sketching and videography of the crime scene

Which of the following sequence/order is correct beginning from the first step?

Explanation

The standard sequence of crime scene processing is: first securing the scene (iii), documenting via sketching and photography (iv), collecting evidence (ii), and then packaging it (i).

کرائم سین پروسیسنگ کی صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: سب سے پہلے جائے وقوعہ کو محفوظ کرنا (iii)، خاکہ سازی اور فوٹوگرافی (iv)، شواہد جمع کرنا (ii)، اور پھر ان کی پیکیجنگ کرنا (i)۔

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32📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyArson Investigation

While investigating an arson crime scene, what can indicate the possible area of origin of the fire?

Explanation

The area of origin in a fire scene typically exhibits the longest exposure to fire, resulting in the maximum amount of charring and structural damage.

آتش زدگی کی جگہ پر آگ لگنے کا اصل مرکز (origin) وہ ہوتا ہے جہاں آگ سب سے زیادہ دیر رہی ہو اور وہاں سب سے زیادہ نقصان (maximum damage) پہنچا ہو۔

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33📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyLegal Terms

Who can order a body for exhumation in India?

Explanation

In India, under Section 176 of the CrPC, only an Executive Magistrate has the authority to order the exhumation of a buried body for forensic investigation.

بھارت میں ضابطہ فوجداری (CrPC) کی دفعہ 176 کے تحت دفن شدہ لاش کو تفتیش کے لیے باہر نکالنے (Exhumation) کا حکم صرف ایک مجسٹریٹ (Magistrate) دے سکتا ہے۔

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34📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Management

Which of the following is an example of trace evidence found on a crime scene?

Explanation

Trace evidence refers to microscopic physical evidence transferred during a crime, such as fibers, hair, soil, or glass fragments.

ٹریس شواہد (Trace evidence) سے مراد انتہائی چھوٹے یا خوردبینی شواہد ہیں، جیسے کہ کوئی دھاگہ یا ریشہ (Fiber) جو جائے وقوعہ پر پایا جائے۔

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35📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyPhysical Evidence

Consider the following pairs:

i. Fingerprints - Striations in marks
ii. Toolmarks - Minutiae patterns
iii. Footwear - Wear damage to sole
iv. Handwriting- Hiatus

Which of the physical evidence is correctly matched with their individual characteristics?

Explanation

Footwear sole wear/damage (iii) and a hiatus in handwriting (iv) are individual characteristics. Minutiae are for fingerprints, and striations are for toolmarks/bullets.

جوتے کے تلوے کا گھساؤ (iii) اور تحریر میں ہیاٹس یا وقفہ (iv) انفرادی خصوصیات ہیں۔ فنگر پرنٹ میں منوشیا پیٹرن ہوتے ہیں اور ٹول مارکس میں لکیریں (striations)۔

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36📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyUrine Detection

DMAC assay is a presumptive assay for body fluid detection. What does it detect?

Explanation

The DMAC (p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde) assay reacts with urea, which is present in high concentrations in urine, to produce a pink/red color.

ڈی ایم اے سی (DMAC) ٹیسٹ پیشاب میں موجود یوریا (Urea) کی شناخت کرنے والا ایک ابتدائی فارنسک ٹیسٹ ہے۔

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37📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyImmunoassays

Arrange the steps of immunoprecipitation in the right order:

i. Elution
ii. Binding of antigen and antibody
iii. Immobilisation of primary antibody on a matrix

Explanation

The correct sequence for immunoprecipitation is: first immobilizing the antibody on a solid support (iii), then binding the antigen/target (ii), and finally eluting the purified antigen (i).

امیونوپریسیپیٹیشن (Immunoprecipitation) کی صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: پہلے اینٹی باڈی کو میٹرکس پر مستحکم کرنا (iii)، پھر اینٹی جن کا بائنڈ ہونا (ii)، اور آخر میں مطلوبہ پروٹین کو الگ کرنا یا ایلیوشن (i)۔

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38📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Medicine

What stage marks the beginning of putrefaction during decomposition in a terrestrial environment?

Explanation

The bloated stage is characterized by the accumulation of gases produced by anaerobic bacteria during putrefaction, marking its overt beginning.

لاش کے گلنے سڑنے کے دوران گیسوں کے جمع ہونے سے پیدا ہونے والا سوزش کا مرحلہ (Bloated stage) تعفن یا سڑن (putrefaction) کے باقاعدہ آغاز کی نشاندہی کرتا ہے۔

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39📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesDrowning

During autopsy of a body found in a lake, diatoms were found in the bone marrow. Which of the following assumptions is most valid?

Explanation

Diatoms entering the bone marrow requires active circulation, proving that the victim aspirated water containing diatoms while still alive.

ہڈی کے گودے میں ڈائیٹمز ملنے سے ثابت ہوتا ہے کہ پانی سانس کے ذریعے جسم میں تب گیا تھا جب مقتول زندہ تھا (active circulation)، یعنی یہ ڈوبنے کی تصدیق کرتا ہے۔

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40📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Botany

During processing of pollen samples from soil, what is the chemical used to remove silica?

Explanation

Hydrofluoric acid (HF) is used in palynology to dissolve silicate minerals and release pollen grains from soil/sediment samples.

مٹی سے پولن (pollen) کے نمونے الگ کرنے کے عمل میں، مٹی میں موجود سلیکا (silica) کو گھولنے کے لیے ہائیڈروفلورک ایسڈ (HF) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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41📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Entomology

Adult flies are

Explanation

Adult blowflies are positively phototropic (attracted to light) and are active during daylight hours.

بالغ مکھیاں روشنی کی طرف راغب ہوتی ہیں یعنی وہ مثبت فوٹوٹروپک (Positively phototropic) خصوصیات کی حامل ہوتی ہیں۔

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42📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesSerology

A prozone effect during a precipitation reaction is observed when

Explanation

The prozone effect is a false negative result observed in antigen-antibody reactions due to antibody excess.

پروزون اثر (Prozone effect) تب ظاہر ہوتا ہے جب محلول میں اینٹی باڈی کی مقدار اینٹی جن کے مقابلے میں بہت زیادہ (excessive) ہو۔

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43📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesWildlife Protection

A wildlife poacher is interested in illegal trade of tiger skin. What method of poaching will he prefer?

Explanation

Poachers targeting tiger skins prefer legtraps (jaw traps) because they are silent and do not damage the pelt with bullet holes, ensuring maximum market value.

ٹائیگر کی کھال کا غیر قانونی دھندا کرنے والے شکاری پھندوں یا لیگ ٹریپس (Legtraps) کا استعمال پسند کرتے ہیں، کیونکہ گولی چلانے سے کھال خراب ہو جاتی ہے اور آواز بھی ہوتی ہے۔

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44📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Odontology

During dental comparison, it was found that in the antemortem findings, tooth number 16 was intact, whereas in the postmortem examination, the same tooth was missing. This is reported as

Explanation

A tooth present antemortem but missing postmortem is an explainable inconsistency because teeth can be lost postmortem due to decay, extraction, or trauma during or after death.

اگر موت سے پہلے دانت موجود تھا اور موت کے بعد غائب ملا، تو یہ ایک ایسی تبدیلی ہے جس کی وضاحت کی جا سکتی ہے (Explainable inconsistency)، کیونکہ دانت بعد میں گر سکتا ہے یا ٹوٹ سکتا ہے۔

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45📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Odontology

Which statement pertaining to defensive bitemarks is TRUE?

i. Show a well-defined pattern
ii. Are usually singular
iii. Show tearing of skin
iv. Are most often seen in postmortem bitemarks

Explanation

Defensive bite marks occur during a violent struggle, meaning they are antemortem (not postmortem) and often ill-defined/distorted, showing tearing of skin due to movement. Only statement iii is correct.

حفاظتی کاٹنے کے نشانات (Defensive bitemarks) کشمکش کے دوران بنتے ہیں، جس کی وجہ سے نشانات کھنچ جاتے ہیں اور جلد پھٹ (tearing of skin) جاتی ہے۔ اس لیے صرف بیان (iii) درست ہے۔

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46📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyNucleic Acids

Consider the following statements:

i. The sugar molecule in RNA is ribose
ii. The purine bases in RNA are cytosine and uracil
iii. RNA molecule is a single-stranded molecule.

Which of the statements are true?

Explanation

Statements i (ribose sugar) and iii (single-stranded) are true. Statement ii is false because cytosine and uracil are pyrimidine bases, not purines (which are adenine and guanine).

پہلا اور تیسرا بیان درست ہے: آر این اے میں رائبوز شوگر ہوتی ہے (i) اور یہ عام طور پر سنگل اسٹینڈرڈ ہوتا ہے (iii)۔ دوسرا بیان غلط ہے کیونکہ سائٹوسین اور یوراسل پائریمیڈین ہیں، پیورین نہیں س۔

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47📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologySaliva Analysis

What cells detected during microscopic examination would indicate the presence of saliva?

Explanation

The presence of buccal squamous epithelial cells (shed from the inner lining of the cheek) during microscopic exam points to saliva.

لعاب دہن (saliva) کی خوردبینی جانچ کے دوران منہ کے گال کی جھلی سے جھڑے ہوئے خلیات یعنی بکل اسکواومس خلیات (Buccal squamous epithelial cells) پائے جاتے ہیں۔

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48📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management

What is not the responsibility of an First Responder?

Explanation

The first responder's priority is life safety (first aid), securing the scene, and arresting suspects if present. Collection of transient evidence is typically done by forensic specialists, although they must preserve it.

فرسٹ ریسپونڈر کا بنیادی کام زخمیوں کو طبی امداد دینا، ملزم کو پکڑنا اور جائے وقوعہ کو محفوظ کرنا ہے۔ شواہد کو اکٹھا کرنا (Collection) فارنسک ٹیم کا کام ہے، فرسٹ ریسپونڈر کا نہیں۔

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49📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management

The document meant at the crime scene to keep a record of entry and exit of personnels is known as

Explanation

The Crime Scene Security Log (or Crime Scene Log) records the names and times of arrival and departure of all personnel entering or exiting the secured perimeter.

جائے وقوعہ پر آنے اور جانے والے تمام افسران اور افراد کا ریکارڈ رکھنے والی دستاویز کو کرائم سین لاگ (Crime Scene Log) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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50📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsExplosives

What are the fundamental features of an explosive?

Explanation

The absolute defining chemical features of an explosion are the rapid conversion of a solid or liquid into gaseous products with a simultaneous massive release of heat and pressure energy.

کسی دھماکہ خیز مواد کی سب سے بنیادی خصوصیت یہ ہے کہ وہ بہت تیزی سے گیس بناتا ہے اور اس کے ساتھ ہی بے پناہ توانائی اور حرارت خارج کرتا ہے۔

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51📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyToxicology

Urine testing kit for the exposure to drugs is based on principle of

Explanation

Commercial rapid urine drug test kits utilize lateral flow immunochromatographic assays (Immunoassays) to detect drugs or their metabolites.

پیشاب میں منشیات کی فوری جانچ کے لیے استعمال ہونے والی کٹس ایمیونوایسے (Immunoassay) کے سائنسی اصول پر کام کرتی ہیں۔

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52📚Forensic Toxicology & PharmacologyMedical Jurisprudence

Apoplexy is the term used for

Explanation

Historically in forensic MCQ banks, apoplexy refers to cerebral congestion or hemorrhage causing sudden loss of consciousness.

فارنسک ایم سی کیو کے مطابق، اپوپلیسی (Apoplexy) کا لفظ روایتی طور پر دماغ میں خون کے جماؤ یا دماغی بھیڑ (Cerebral congestion) کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

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53📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWeb Security

Which of the following explains the nature of Cookies?

Explanation

In standard computer network contexts, cookies are described as transient (temporary) because session cookies expire when the browser is closed, and even persistent cookies have a set expiration time.

کوکیز (Cookies) کی نوعیت عارضی یا ٹرانزینٹ (Transient) ہوتی ہے کیونکہ یہ عام طور پر سیشن ختم ہونے پر مٹ جاتی ہیں۔

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54📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWeb Security

Which of the following is a Boolean cookie attribute?

Explanation

'Secure' is a Boolean attribute (flag) for cookies. When set, it restricts the transmission of the cookie to secure (HTTPS) connections only.

سیکیور (Secure) کوکی کا ایک بولین (Boolean) وصف ہے؛ اگر یہ لاگو ہو تو کوکی صرف سیکیور کنکشن (HTTPS) پر ہی بھیجی جائے گی۔

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55📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsVPN Protocols

Which of the following is not a VPN protocol?

Explanation

SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol) is an older encapsulation protocol for serial ports, not a Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocol. PPTP, L2F, and IPSec are VPN tunneling protocols.

سلپ (SLIP) ایک پرانا لنک لیئر پروٹوکول ہے اور یہ وی پی این (VPN) پروٹوکول نہیں ہے، جبکہ باقی تمام وی پی این پروٹوکول ہیں۔

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56📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptographic Protocols

Typically, _____ can receive application data from any application layer protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP.

Explanation

Both SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS (Transport Layer Security) reside at the transport/session layer and can secure any application-layer protocol, although HTTP is the most common use case (resulting in HTTPS).

ایس ایس ایل (SSL) اور ٹی ایل ایس (TLS) دونوں ہی کسی بھی ایپلی کیشن لیئر پروٹوکول سے ڈیٹا حاصل کر سکتے ہیں، حالانکہ عام طور پر یہ ایچ ٹی ٹی پی (HTTP) ہوتا ہے۔

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57📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsEmail Security

One security protocol for the e-mail system is

Explanation

PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is an email encryption protocol that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication. SSL/TLS are general transport protocols, and IPSec operates at the network layer.

ای میل سیکیورٹی کے لیے پی جی پی (Pretty Good Privacy) پروٹوکول کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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58📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityInformation Security

Message _____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent.

Explanation

Message integrity ensures that the transmitted data remains unaltered, accurate, and complete during transit from the sender to the receiver.

پیغام کی سالمیت (Message Integrity) کا مطلب یہ ہے کہ وصول کنندہ کے پاس ڈیٹا بالکل اسی حالت میں پہنچے جس حالت میں بھیجا گیا تھا۔

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59📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityCryptography

ECC stands for _____ in public key cryptography

Explanation

ECC stands for Elliptic Curve Cryptography, an approach to public-key cryptography based on the algebraic structure of elliptic curves over finite fields, offering smaller keys with equivalent security to RSA.

ای سی سی (ECC) کا پورا نام ایلپٹک کرو کرپٹوگرافی (Elliptic curve cryptography) ہے۔

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60📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls

The security device which installed between two networks (internal network to outside network) for controlling the flow of traffic into and out of network is known as

Explanation

A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization's previously established security policies.

دو نیٹ ورکس کے درمیان ٹریفک کو کنٹرول کرنے کے لیے لگایا جانے والا حفاظتی آلہ فائر وال (Firewall) کہلاتا ہے۔

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61📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryWireless Networks

The IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as a building block of wireless

Explanation

The Basic Service Set (BSS) is the fundamental building block of an IEEE 802.11 wireless Local Area Network (LAN).

آئی ای ای ای 802.11 (IEEE 802.11) وائرلیس لوکل ایریا نیٹ ورک (LAN) کی تعمیراتی اکائی کے طور پر کام کرتا ہے۔

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62📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture

Components that provide internal storage to the CPU are

Explanation

Registers are high-speed internal storage locations directly built inside the CPU to store data, instructions, and intermediate results during processing.

سی پی یو (CPU) کے اندر عارضی اور تیز ترین اسٹوریج فراہم کرنے والے حصوں کو رجسٹرز (Registers) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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63📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryComputer Architecture

BIOS is used by

Explanation

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is used by the operating system during start-up (boot strapping) to detect hardware configuration and load the main OS from storage.

کمپیوٹر شروع ہوتے وقت ہارڈ ویئر سے رابطہ قائم کرنے کے لیے آپریٹنگ سسٹم (Operating system) بنیادی ان پٹ/آؤٹ پٹ سسٹم (BIOS) کا استعمال کرتا ہے۔

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64📚Cryptography & Network SecurityCybersecurity Tools

Which of the following is a session hijacking tool?

Explanation

T-Sight is a commercial security and network sniffing utility used for session hijacking and active monitoring. Wireshark is a packet analyzer, Maltego is OSINT, and Nessus is a vulnerability scanner.

ٹی-سائٹ (T-Sight) ایک مشہور سیشن ہائی جیکنگ اور نیٹ ورک مانیٹرنگ ٹول ہے۔

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65📚Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Security

Which of the following is the standard for interoperable cloud-based key management?

Explanation

KMIP (Key Management Interoperability Protocol) is a standard developed by OASIS to ensure interoperability between key management servers and clients.

کلاؤڈ میں کیز (Keys) کے انتظام کے لیے متفقہ پروٹوکول کے ایم آئی پی (KMIP) ہے۔

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66📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsMobile Forensics

Which of the following is NOT a category of mobile forensic tools?

Explanation

Mobile forensic tools encompass extraction, recovery, and analysis categories. Encryption tools are security mechanisms to protect data, not forensic tools.

ڈیٹا کو انکریپٹ کرنے والے ٹولز (Data encryption tools) فارنسک تفتیش کا حصہ نہیں ہیں بلکہ ڈیٹا چھپانے کے کام آتے ہیں۔

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67📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsMobile Security

What is the general length of the IMEI number?

Explanation

An IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) number is a unique 15-digit number used to identify 3GPP and iDEN mobile phones.

موبائل فون کی شناخت کے لیے استعمال ہونے والا آئی ایم ای آئی (IMEI) نمبر عام طور پر 15 ہندسوں (15 digits) پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے۔

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68📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsInformation Security

Many social media sites and services provide _____ for legitimate account verification.

Explanation

Two-step (or two-factor) verification is standardly provided by social media services to authenticate the identity of the legitimate account holder during logins.

سوشل میڈیا سائٹس اکاؤنٹ کی سیکیورٹی اور تصدیق کے لیے ٹو-اسٹیپ ویریفکیشن (2-step verification) کی سہولت دیتی ہیں۔

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69📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Principles

Consider the following principles of forensic science:
i. Not all contact leaves a trace
ii. Two different things can be compared
iii. Everything is unique
iv. Change is the only constant
Which of the above statements is true/correct?

Explanation

According to the fundamental laws of forensic science, the Law of Individuality states 'Everything is unique' (iii), and the Law of Progressive Change states 'Change is the only constant' (iv). Statement i is incorrect because Locard's Exchange Principle states 'Every contact leaves a trace'. Statement ii is incorrect because the Law of Comparison states that only likes can be compared.

فارنزک سائنس کے بنیادی اصولوں کے مطابق، انفرادیت کا قانون (Law of Individuality) بتاتا ہے کہ 'ہر چیز منفرد ہے' (iii) اور ترقی پسند تبدیلی کا قانون (Law of Progressive Change) بتاتا ہے کہ 'تبدیلی ہی واحد مستقل ہے' (iv)۔ پہلا بیان غلط ہے کیونکہ لوکارڈ کا اصول کہتا ہے کہ 'ہر رابطہ ایک نشان چھوڑتا ہے'۔ دوسرا بیان غلط ہے کیونکہ موازنہ کا قانون کہتا ہے کہ صرف ملتی جلتی چیزوں کا موازنہ کیا جا سکتا ہے۔

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70📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management

The following steps are carried out during crime scene processing.
i. Collect
ii. Process and preserve
iii. Record
iv. Observe
Which is the right order beginning from the first step?

Explanation

The standard sequence of crime scene processing is to first Observe (iv) the scene, Record (iii) it through notes, sketches, and photos, Collect (i) the physical evidence, and finally Process and preserve (ii) the evidence and scene details.

کرائم سین پروسیسنگ کا صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: سب سے پہلے مشاہدہ کرنا (Observe - iv)، پھر ریکارڈ کرنا (Record - iii)، پھر نمونے جمع کرنا (Collect - i)، اور آخر میں پروسیس اور محفوظ کرنا (Process and preserve - ii)۔ یعنی iv، iii، i، ii۔

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71📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsTrace Evidence

Which of the following is an example of trace evidence?

Explanation

Trace evidence refers to microscopic physical evidence that is transferred between objects or people during a crime. Examples include hair, fibers, glass fragments, and paint chips.

ٹریس ایویڈینس (Trace evidence) سے مراد وہ خوردبینی مادی ثبوت ہیں جو جرم کے دوران منتقل ہوتے ہیں۔ دھاگہ یا ریشہ (Fiber) اس کی ایک بہترین مثال ہے۔

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72📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Law

What is "Lying under oath" called?

Explanation

Perjury is the act of willfully making false statements or lying under oath during a judicial proceeding.

حلف کے تحت جھوٹ بولنا یا عدالت میں جھوٹی گواہی دینا پرجری (Perjury) کہلاتا ہے۔

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73📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management

Consider the following duties of the first responding officer.
i. Barricade the crime scene
ii. Compile data from the scene
iii. Attend to any injured people/survivors
iv. Remove and detain witnesses/suspects from crime scene
Arrange the duties in chronological order starting from the first duty

Explanation

The first priority of the responding officer is to preserve life by attending to the injured (iii). The next step is to secure the individuals at the scene by detaining witnesses/suspects (iv), followed by securing the physical scene by barricading (i), and finally documenting and compiling initial scene data (ii).

سب سے پہلے زخمیوں کو طبی امداد فراہم کرنا (iii)، پھر گواہوں یا مشتبہ افراد کو قابو کرنا (iv)، پھر کرائم سین کو بیریکیڈ کر کے سیل کرنا (i) اور آخر میں ڈیٹا اکٹھا کرنا (ii) ترجیحی ترتیب ہے۔

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74📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyEvidence Vocabulary

Consider the following pairs:

| Term | Definition |
| --- | --- |
| i. Elimination sample | Known source from someone who had lawful access to the scene |
| ii. Questioned sample | Known source from the crime scene which was presumably uncontaminated during a crime |
| iii. Reference sample | Known source with which evidence is compared to establish a link |
| iv. Control sample | Recovered from crime whose source is in question |

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation

Pairs i and iii are correctly matched. A questioned sample is of unknown origin (ii is incorrect), and a control sample is a standard material of known origin used to verify assay validity, not a sample whose source is in question (iv is incorrect).

صرف پہلا (i - ایلیمینیشن نمونہ) اور تیسرا (iii - ریفرینس نمونہ) بیانات صحیح طور پر میل کھاتے ہیں۔ نامعلوم ماخذ والے نمونے کو کوئسچنڈ نمونہ کہتے ہیں (ii غلط ہے)۔ کنٹرول نمونہ ٹیسٹ کی درستگی جانچنے کے لیے معلوم چیز ہوتی ہے (iv غلط ہے)۔

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75📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Photography

Which of the following is a detailed millimetre scale placed next to evidence while taking close view photograph of evidence?

Explanation

The ABFO No. 2 scale, developed by the American Board of Forensic Odontologists, is a standard L-shaped millimetric scale placed next to wounds, bite marks, or other physical evidence during close-up photography to establish accurate scaling.

اے بی ایف او (ABFO) ایک ملی میٹر پیمانہ ہے جسے قریبی تصاویر لیتے وقت نمونوں کے پاس رکھا جاتا ہے تاکہ سائز کا درست تعین ہو سکے۔

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76📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Ethics

Consider the following ethics of a forensic expert:
i. Be subjective in validated scientific analysis
ii. Be objective in their analysis
iii. Employ validated methods of analysis
iv. Give personal opinions on the suspect of the crime
Which of the above statements are true/correct?

Explanation

A forensic expert is ethically required to remain strictly objective (ii) during their analysis and always employ scientifically validated analytical methods (iii). Subjective bias (i) and personal opinions (iv) violate scientific and legal standards.

فارنزک ماہر کے اخلاقیات کے مطابق، اسے اپنے تجزیے میں مکمل طور پر معروضی (objective) ہونا چاہیے (ii) اور ہمیشہ توثیق شدہ سائنسی طریقے (validated methods) استعمال کرنے چاہئیں (iii)۔ ذاتی آراء دینا یا غیر معروضی ہونا اخلاقیات کے خلاف ہے۔ اس لیے ii اور iii درست ہیں۔

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77📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Biology

Match the columns:

| Column 1 | Column 2 |
| --- | --- |
| i. Blood | a) Phadebas test |
| ii. Semen | b) Christmas tree staining |
| iii. Saliva | c) Nessler's test |
| iv. Urine | d) Takayama crystal assay |

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Blood is matched with Takayama crystal assay (d), Semen with Christmas tree staining for sperm heads (b), Saliva with Phadebas test for amylase (a), and Urine with Nessler's reagent test for urea/ammonia (c). This corresponds to option B.

خون کا ٹیسٹ ٹاکایاما کرسٹل ایسے ہے (i-d)، منی (semen) کا ٹیسٹ کرسمس ٹری سٹیننگ ہے (ii-b)، تھوک (saliva) کا ٹیسٹ فادیباس ٹیسٹ ہے (iii-a)، اور پیشاب کا ٹیسٹ نیسلر ٹیسٹ ہے (iv-c)۔ اس لیے آپشن B درست ہے۔

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78📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesMolecular Biology

During probe synthesis which of the following causes hairpin loop formation?

Explanation

Hairpin loops are secondary structures that form when single-stranded nucleotide sequences fold back on themselves due to complementary regions within the same molecule.

پروب کے اندر موجود تکمیلی خطوں (complementary regions) کی وجہ سے وہ خود پر مڑ کر ہیئر پن لوپ (hairpin loop) بنا لیتا ہے۔

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79📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesBiochemistry

Rhodamine Red that is commonly used for the fluorescent labelling of DNA probes has an emission maximum at what wavelength?

Explanation

Rhodamine Red is a red fluorophore with an excitation maximum near 570 nm and an emission maximum at approximately 590 nm.

روڈامائن ریڈ (Rhodamine Red) فلوروسینٹ ڈائی کی زیادہ سے زیادہ اخراج کی طولِ موج (emission maximum) 590 نینو میٹر (nm) ہے۔

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80📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics

What causes Barr body formation?

Explanation

A Barr body is an inactive, condensed X chromosome in female mammalian somatic cells, created during early development via X-chromosome inactivation (lyonization).

خواتین کے جسمانی خلیات میں ایک ایکس کروموسوم کو غیر فعال (X chromosome inactivation) کر دیا جاتا ہے، جو سکڑ کر بار باڈی (Barr body) بناتا ہے۔

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81📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology

What region of a chromosome do mitotic and meiotic spindle fibers attach to?

Explanation

During cell division, the mitotic or meiotic spindle fibers attach to the centromere region of the chromosome, specifically at the kinetochore protein complex assembled there.

خلیہ کی تقسیم کے دوران تکلے کے ریشے (spindle fibers) کروموسوم کے سینٹرومیئر (Centromere) والے حصے سے جڑتے ہیں۔

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82📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology

At what phase during the mitotic cell division, does the kinetochore microtubule begin to form?

Explanation

During prometaphase of mitosis, the nuclear envelope breaks down and spindle microtubules begin to attach to the kinetochores of the chromosomes (forming kinetochore microtubules).

مائٹوسس (mitosis) تقسیم کے دوران، پرو میٹافیز (Prometaphase) مرحلے میں کائینیٹو کور مائکرو ٹیوبول بننا اور کروموسوم سے جڑنا شروع ہوتے ہیں۔

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83📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyCell Biology

What is programmed cell death called as?

Explanation

Apoptosis is a process of programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular organisms, characterized by morphological changes and cell disassembly without damage to neighboring cells.

خلیات کی پہلے سے طے شدہ یا پروگرام شدہ موت کو اپوپٹوسس (Apoptosis) کہا جاتا ہے، جبکہ حادثاتی موت کو نیکروسس کہتے ہیں۔

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84📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyMolecular Biology

During DNA replication, the two parental strands separate and each one acts as a template strand for new complementary strands. What is this model of DNA replication called?

Explanation

The semiconservative model of DNA replication, proven by Meselson and Stahl, shows that each newly replicated DNA double helix consists of one intact parental (old) strand and one newly synthesized strand.

ڈی این اے کی تقسیم کے ماڈل کو سیمی کنزرویٹو (Semiconservative) کہا جاتا ہے جہاں ہر نیا بننے والا جوڑا ایک پرانی اور ایک نئی زنجیر سے مل کر بنتا ہے۔

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85📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Management

What is the first step in managing a crime scene?

Explanation

Securing the scene is the immediate first step in crime scene management to prevent contamination, alteration, or loss of evidence.

کرائم سین کی حفاظت اور اسے بیریکیڈ کرنا سب سے پہلا لازمی قدم ہے تاکہ شواہد کو آلودگی، تبدیلی یا ضائع ہونے سے بچایا جا سکے۔

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86📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonEvidence Packaging

What is the best way to package charred documents?

Explanation

Charred documents are extremely fragile. They should be carefully lifted and placed in a rigid corrugated box lined with a cotton base to absorb vibrations and prevent crumbling during transport.

جلے ہوئے کاغذات (Charred documents) انتہائی نازک ہوتے ہیں۔ انہیں خراب ہونے سے بچانے کے لیے روئی کے بستر (cotton base) والے سخت کارٹن یا نالیدار ڈبے (corrugated box) میں احتیاط سے رکھا جانا چاہیے۔

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87📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonHistory of Forensics

The concept of 'Every contact leaves a trace' is associated with which of the following forensic scientist?

Explanation

The fundamental tenet of forensic science, 'Every contact leaves a trace', is known as Locard's Exchange Principle, formulated by Sir Edmond Locard.

فارنزک سائنس کا سب سے اہم اصول 'ہر رابطہ ایک نشان چھوڑتا ہے' فرانسیسی سائنسدان ایڈمنڈ لوکارڈ (Edmond Locard) سے منسوب ہے، جسے لوکارڈ کا تبادلہ کا اصول کہتے ہیں۔

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88📚Signatures & Forgery DetectionInk Analysis

What are Taggants in inks used as?

Explanation

Taggants are unique chemical or physical markers added to inks by manufacturers during production to allow the identification of the ink brand, formulation, and year of manufacture.

ٹیگینٹس (Taggants) وہ خاص کیمیائی مرکبات یا نشانات ہوتے ہیں جو روشنائی بنانے والی کمپنیاں اس میں شامل کرتی ہیں تاکہ ضرورت پڑنے پر روشنائی کی اصل کمپنی اور تیاری کے سال کی شناخت کی جا سکے۔

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89📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisHandwriting Analysis

What is the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system called?

Explanation

The copybook form represents the basic, standardized style of letters taught to beginners in a specific school system, serving as the starting point for individual writing habits.

حروف کا وہ بنیادی خاکہ یا ڈیزائن جو اسکولوں میں ابتدائی لکھاوٹ سکھانے کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے، اسے کاپی بک فارم (Copybook form) کہتے ہیں۔

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90📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisHandwriting Principles

(A): Two handwriting samples of the same content written by the same person are exactly the same and can be superimposed one on top of another.
(B): Two handwriting samples written by the same person could be same because it was written by the same author during same time period

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect. Due to natural variation, a writer never produces two identical handwriting samples. Perfect superimposition is a classic sign of traced forgery, not genuine writing, regardless of the time period.

دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں۔ کوئی بھی انسان اپنے دستخط یا لکھاوٹ بالکل ایک جیسی نہیں لکھ سکتا (قدرتی تغیر پایا جاتا ہے)۔ اگر دو نمونے بالکل ایک دوسرے کے اوپر فٹ بیٹھیں تو وہ جعل سازی کی علامت ہے، اصلیت کی نہیں۔

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91📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisTypewriting Analysis

Which of the following is most likely to develop the individual characteristics when used a lot?

Explanation

Manual typewriters develop highly specific individual characteristics with use due to mechanical wear and tear, bending of serifs, misalignment of type bars, and clog damage.

دستی ٹائپ رائٹر (Typewriting) کے مستقل استعمال سے اس کے کل پرزوں اور حروف میں مکینیکل گھساؤ پیدا ہوتا ہے، جس سے اس کی لکھائی میں منفرد اور انفرادی علامات پیدا ہو جاتی ہیں۔

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92📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisCrime Scene Management

Following are the duties of the First officer arriving at the scene of crime, EXCEPT-
i. Taking notes of any vehicles leaving the scene
ii. Obtaining medical assistance if needed
iii. Check for hazardous or violent circumstances
iv. Leaves the crime scene to do a preliminary examination

Explanation

The first responding officer must secure the scene and must NOT leave the crime scene to conduct a preliminary examination elsewhere. Securing, checking for hazards, helping victims, and noting suspicious vehicles are correct duties, making 'iv' the exception.

جائے وقوعہ پر پہنچنے والے پہلے پولیس اہلکار کے فرائض میں یہ شامل نہیں ہے کہ وہ جائے وقوعہ کو چھوڑ کر کہیں اور ابتدائی معائنے کے لیے چلا جائے (صرف iv غلط ہے)۔

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93📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisCrime Scene Management

Which of the following is NOT a key element of crime scene management?
i. Documentation
ii. Preservation of evidence
iii. Identifying and interviewing suspects
iv. Crowd control

Explanation

Crime scene management focuses on securing the scene, documenting it (i), and preserving evidence (ii). Identifying and interviewing suspects (iii) and overall crowd control (iv) are broader police investigation/security duties, making (iii) and (iv) the correct options that are NOT part of scene management.

کرائم سین مینجمنٹ کے بنیادی عناصر میں دستاویز سازی (documentation) اور شواہد کی حفاظت شامل ہے۔ مشتبہ افراد کی شناخت اور پوچھ گچھ (iii) اور ہجوم پر قابو پانا (iv) وسیع تر تفتیشی کام ہیں، کرائم سین مینجمنٹ کے نہیں (صرف iii اور iv درست ہیں)۔

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94📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisSecret Inks

Match the following:
a. Heat -> i. Soap
b. Ammonia -> ii. Urine
c. Water -> iii. Starch
d. Iodine vapour -> iv. Iron salt

Explanation

This match relates to sympathetic (secret) ink developers: Heat develops urine (a-ii). Ammonia gas reacts with iron salts to develop color (b-iv). Water reveals soap residues (c-i). Iodine vapor turns blue-black in contact with starch (d-iii). This matches option A.

خفیہ روشنائی (secret inks) کے ظاہر کرنے والوں کا ملاپ: حرارت پیشاب کے داغ ظاہر کرتی ہے (a-ii)، امونیا گیس لوہے کے نمکیات کے ساتھ ردعمل کرتی ہے (b-iv)، پانی صابن کے نقوش کو ظاہر کرتا ہے (c-i)، اور آئوڈین ویپر نشاستہ (starch) کے ساتھ نیلے رنگ کا ردعمل دیتی ہے (d-iii)۔

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95📚Typewritten & Printed DocumentsMeasurements

In the context of measuring instruments, the least count is:

Explanation

The least count of a measuring instrument is the smallest measurement value that can be resolved or measured accurately using that instrument.

کسی بھی پیمائشی آلے کا لیسٹ کاؤنٹ (least count) وہ سب سے چھوٹی پیمائش ہے جو اس آلے کی مدد سے بالکل درست طریقے سے لی جا سکتی ہے۔

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96📚Typewritten & Printed DocumentsForensic Instrumentation

What does AAS stand for in context of spectroscopy?

Explanation

AAS stands for Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, which is an analytical technique used to measure the concentration of metallic elements in a sample by measuring the light absorbed by free atoms.

اے اے ایس (AAS) کا پورا نام اٹامک ایبزارپشن سپیکٹرم شناسی (Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy) ہے، جو نمونے میں دھاتی عناصر کی مقدار معلوم کرنے کے لیے استعمال ہوتی ہے۔

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97📚Typewritten & Printed DocumentsForensic Instrumentation

What is the full form of FTIR spectroscopy?

Explanation

FTIR stands for Fourier Transform Infrared spectroscopy, a technique used to obtain an infrared absorption or emission spectrum of a solid, liquid, or gas for chemical identification.

ایف ٹی آئی آر (FTIR) کا پورا نام فورئیر ٹرانسفارم انفرا ریڈ سپیکٹرمیٹری (Fourier Transform Infrared spectroscopy) ہے، جو کیمیکلز کے مالیکیولر ڈھانچے کی شناخت کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

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98📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeEvidence Preservation

How should wet and charred documents be preserved at a crime scene to minimise further damage?

Explanation

Freeze-drying is the best method to dry wet, extremely fragile charred documents because it sublimates ice directly to gas, avoiding liquid tension that crumbles the paper.

جلے اور گیلے ہوئے کاغذات کو مزید نقصان سے بچانے کے لیے فریز ڈرائینگ (Freeze-dry) کا طریقہ استعمال کیا جاتا ہے، جو برف کو براہ راست گیس بنا کر اڑا دیتا ہے اور کاغذ نہیں ٹوٹتا۔

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99📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeHandwriting Factors

Which of the following is an internal factor (cannot be controlled) affecting a person's handwriting?

Explanation

Ageing is a gradual, permanent, and uncontrollable internal physiological factor that alters handwriting. Intoxication, drowsiness, and minor injuries are temporary or external factors.

بڑھتی ہوئی عمر (ageing) ایک ایسا اندرونی جسمانی عمل ہے جو انسان کے اختیار میں نہیں ہوتا اور یہ لکھاوٹ پر مستقل اثر ڈالتا ہے، جبکہ نشہ یا نیند عارضی عوامل ہیں۔

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100📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeSignature Examination

The distinctive features that makes a person's signature recognizable and unique fall under the category of:

Explanation

Unique flourishes, letter connections, and details in a signature that allow it to be distinguished from all others are classified as individual characteristics.

وہ منفرد اور مخصوص نشانات جو کسی شخص کے دستخط کو منفرد اور قابل شناخت بناتے ہیں، لکھاوٹ کی انفرادی خصوصیات (Individual characteristics) کے زمرے میں آتے ہیں۔

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101📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeCounterfeit Detection

Which of the following features are examined while detecting counterfeiting in currency notes?
1. Microprinting
2. Watermark
3. Optical fibres
4. OVI (optical variable ink)
5. Signature of the governor

Explanation

To verify banknotes, examiners check all security features including microprinting, watermarks, fluorescent optical fibers, Optically Variable Ink (OVI), and the details of the governor's signature.

جعلی نوٹوں کی شناخت کے لیے یہ تمام سیکیورٹی فیچرز دیکھے جاتے ہیں: باریک چھپائی (microprinting)، واٹر مارک، فلوروسینٹ آپٹیکل فائبر، رنگ بدلنے والی روشنائی (OVI)، اور گورنر کے دستخط۔ یعنی تمام 1، 2، 3، 4، 5 درست ہیں۔

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102📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgePassport Security

What security feature is commonly used in passports to prevent tampering and forgery?

Explanation

Holograms (or holographic laminates) are placed over the biographical data page in passports to prevent alteration and copying of photo or details, making counterfeiting extremely difficult.

پاسپورٹ کے بائیو ڈیٹا پیج پر ہولوگرام (hologram) لگایا جاتا ہے تاکہ تصویر یا تفصیلات میں کوئی تبدیلی یا ٹیمپرنگ نہ کی جا سکے اور نہ ہی اس کی فوٹو کاپی بن سکے۔

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103📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgePassport Security

What is the purpose of using UV printing in passports and travel documents?

Explanation

UV-activated fluorescent inks are invisible under normal light and do not show up when photocopied with standard color copiers, helping to prevent unauthorized photocopying and reproduction.

پاسپورٹس میں بالائے بنفشی (UV) پرنٹنگ کا مقصد فوٹو کاپی کو روکنا (prevent photocopying) ہے، کیونکہ یہ روشنائی عام روشنی میں پوشیدہ ہوتی ہے اور نقل کرنے پر ظاہر نہیں ہوتی۔

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104📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeFinancial Fraud

What term refers to the unauthorized copying of credit card information onto a counterfeit card for fraudulent transactions?

Explanation

Skimming is the illegal capturing and copying of the magnetic stripe data from a credit or debit card using a reading device, which is later written onto a counterfeit card.

کریڈٹ کارڈ کی مقناطیسی پٹی (magnetic stripe) پر موجود معلومات کو چوری سے کاپی کرنے کے عمل کو سکمنگ (skimming) کہتے ہیں، تاکہ بعد میں جعلی کارڈ بنایا جا سکے۔

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105📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeFinancial Fraud

In credit cards forgery investigations, what is often examined to determine the authenticity of a card, especially when comparing a genuine card with a suspected counterfeit?
1. Magnetic stripe data
2. Embossed characters
3. Signature panel

Explanation

To determine credit card authenticity, investigators analyze the magnetic stripe data, the size/alignment of embossed characters, and the security features of the signature panel. Thus, all 1, 2, and 3 are examined.

کریڈٹ کارڈ کی صداقت کی جانچ کے لیے کارڈ کے ابھرے ہوئے حروف (embossed characters)، دستخط کا پینل، اور مقناطیسی پٹی کا ڈیٹا (magnetic stripe) سب چیک کیے جاتے ہیں۔ یعنی 1، 2 اور 3 سب درست ہیں۔

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106📚Organic & StereochemistryHistory of Forensics

In response to the rising demands of providing high technology to the crime investigation process, BPR&D established the first Forensic DNA Typing facility at CFSL, Calcutta, during

Explanation

The Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) established India's first Central DNA Typing Unit at the Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Calcutta in 1998.

ہندوستان میں پہلی سنٹرل فارنزک ڈی این اے ٹائپنگ کی سہولت 1998 میں سنٹرل فارنزک سائنس لیبارٹری (CFSL) کلکتہ میں قائم کی گئی تھی۔

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107📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Reconstruction

________ supports a likely sequence of events by observing and evaluating physical evidence and statements made by witnesses and those involved with the incident.

Explanation

Crime scene reconstruction is the collaborative process of determining the sequence of events before, during, and after a crime using physical evidence and statements.

جائے وقوعہ کی تعمیر نو (Reconstruction) وہ عمل ہے جس کے ذریعے شواہد، گواہوں کے بیانات اور طبیعیات کے قوانین کی مدد سے جرم کے وقوع پذیر ہونے کے ترتیب وار واقعات کا تعین کیا جاتا ہے۔

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108📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsColor Tests

Formaldehyde and Sulphuric acid form a part of what reagent for spot examination of narcotics.

Explanation

Marquis reagent is prepared by mixing concentrated sulfuric acid with formaldehyde. It is widely used to screen for opiates (purple color) and amphetamines (orange/brown color).

مارکوئس ری ایجنٹ (Marquis Reagent) فارملڈیہائڈ اور مرتکز سلفیورک ایسڈ کے مرکب سے بنتا ہے، جو نشہ آور مواد کی موقع پر فوری شناخت کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

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109📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsPeriodic Table Properties

Which of the following elements have electron affinity greater than S?

Explanation

In Group 16, Sulfur (S) has the highest electron affinity (-200 kJ/mol). Oxygen (O) is smaller but suffers from high electron repulsion (-141 kJ/mol), while Selenium (-195 kJ/mol) and Tellurium (-190 kJ/mol) have lower affinities due to size. Thus, none of these have an affinity greater than S.

گروپ 16 کے عناصر میں سلفر (S) کی الیکٹران افینیٹی سب سے زیادہ (-200 kJ/mol) ہوتی ہے۔ آکسیجن، سیلینیم اور ٹیلوریم سب کی الیکٹران افینیٹی سلفر سے کم ہوتی ہے، اس لیے جواب 'ان میں سے کوئی نہیں' (None of these) ہے۔

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110📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopySample Preparation

What is the sample preparation technique for extraction of alcohol from water.

Explanation

Simple distillation is the standard sample preparation technique used to separate and extract volatile ethanol (alcohol) from aqueous solutions like blood or urine.

پانی اور الکحل کے آمیزے سے الکحل کو الگ کرنے کے لیے ڈسٹلیشن (Distillation - کشید کاری) کا روایتی طریقہ استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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111📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyAnalytical Instrumentation

Which of the following techniques can be used for qualitative and quantitative estimation of a known impurity in a drug substance?

Explanation

High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) is the most widely used and preferred analytical technique for both separating (qualitative identification via retention time) and quantifying impurities in pharmaceutical drug substances.

کسی دوا میں موجود ناپاکی یا ملاوٹ (impurity) کی مقداری اور معیاری جانچ کے لیے سب سے موزوں اور مستعمل تکنیک ایچ پی ایل سی (HPLC) ہے۔

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112📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopySecurity Instrumentation

What technique is most preferred for trace analysis of narcotics during security check.

Explanation

Handheld Ion Mobility Spectrometry (IMS) is the preferred technology at security checkpoints (airports, border control) due to its high speed (seconds) and extreme sensitivity for trace vapors and residues of narcotics and explosives.

ہوائی اڈوں اور حفاظتی چوکیوں پر منشیات کے باریک ذرات کا پتہ لگانے کے لیے ہینڈ ہیلڈ آئی ایم ایس (IMS - Ion Mobility Spectrometry) آلے کو سب سے زیادہ ترجیح دی جاتی ہے۔

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113📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyColor Tests

What transition metal is used in preparation of Mandelin's Reagent.

Explanation

Mandelin's reagent is prepared by dissolving ammonium metavanadate (NH4VO3) in concentrated sulfuric acid. The active transition metal is Vanadium.

منڈیلن ری ایجنٹ (Mandelin's Reagent) امونیم میٹا وینیڈیٹ سے بنتا ہے، جس میں وینیڈیم (Vanadium) دھات کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

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114📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyColor Tests

Frohde's reagent is prepared by.

Explanation

Frohde's reagent is prepared by dissolving molybdic acid or sodium molybdate in hot concentrated sulfuric acid. It is used to screen for alkaloids and opiates.

فروہڈ ری ایجنٹ (Frohde's reagent) مولیبڈک ایسڈ (Molybdic acid) کو گرم سلفیورک ایسڈ میں ملا کر تیار کیا جاتا ہے۔

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115📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyAnalytical Chemistry

Name the process that contaminates the precipitates and also carries the precipitate solution containing soluble impurities.

Explanation

Coprecipitation is the process in which compounds that are normally soluble in the solvent are carried down out of solution along with the primary precipitate during its formation.

وہ عمل جس میں حل پذیر گندگی یا ناپاکیاں بھی بنیادی رسوب (precipitate) کے ساتھ بیٹھ کر اسے آلودہ کر دیتی ہیں، اسے کو-پریسیپیٹیشن (Coprecipitation) کہتے ہیں۔

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116📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopySolvent Extraction

Micellar layer formed during solvent extract can be removed by

Explanation

During liquid-liquid extraction, emulsion or micellar layers can form. Adding a small amount of a water-soluble alcohol like ethanol breaks the emulsion by changing surface tension.

سالونٹ ایکسٹریکشن کے دوران بننے والے جھاگ یا ایملشن (micellar layer) کو توڑنے کے لیے مرکب میں تھوڑی مقدار میں ایتھنول (ethanol) ملایا جاتا ہے۔

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117📚Forensic Toxicology & PharmacologySample Preparation

What is the benefit of using salting out method during Headspace Extraction.

Explanation

Adding inorganic salts (salting out) increases the ionic strength of the aqueous phase, decreasing the solubility of polar organic analytes and driving them out of water into the headspace gas phase.

پانی والے نمونوں میں نمک ملانے (salting out) سے پانی میں موجود پولر مرکبات کی حل پذیری کم ہو جاتی ہے اور وہ گیس بن کر ہیڈ اسپیس (headspace) میں چلے جاتے ہیں، جس سے ان کا اخراج آسان ہو جاتا ہے۔

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118📚General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryGas Chromatography

A carrier gas in GLC should have the following characteristics EXCEPT:

Explanation

A carrier gas in Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC) must be a high-purity single gas (such as Helium, Nitrogen, or Hydrogen). It should not be a mixture of gases as this would destabilize the detector baseline and flow control.

گیس کرومیٹوگرافی میں کیریئر گیس ہمیشہ خالص اور اکیلی ہونی چاہیے (جیسے نائٹروجن یا ہیلیئم)، یہ گیسوں کا مرکب (mixture of gases) نہیں ہونی چاہیے۔ اس لیے بیانیہ B غلط ہے۔

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119📚General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistrySpectrophotometry

At what Amax does nitrate ion show absorbance with brucine sulphate

Explanation

Nitrate ions react with brucine sulfate in a strong sulfuric acid medium to form a yellow-colored complex which exhibits a maximum light absorption (λmax) at 410 nm.

نائٹریٹ آئن جب بروسین سلفیٹ سے سلفیورک ایسڈ کی موجودگی میں ملتے ہیں تو پیلے رنگ کا مرکب بنتا ہے، جس کا زیادہ سے زیادہ جذباتی طولِ موج (λmax) 410 nm ہوتا ہے۔

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120📚General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryIR Spectroscopy

An FTIR instrument record a signal in the

Explanation

An FTIR spectrophotometer uses a Michelson interferometer to record an interferogram, which is a signal measured in the time (or optical path retardation) domain. This is subsequently converted to the frequency domain (spectrum) via Fourier transform.

ایف ٹی آئی آر (FTIR) سپیکٹرو میٹر بنیادی طور پر سگنل کو ٹائم ڈومین (Time domain / وقت کی بنیاد پر) میں ریکارڈ کرتا ہے، جسے بعد میں فریکوئنسی ڈومین میں تبدیل کیا جاتا ہے۔

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121📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationQuantum Mechanics

In the domain of quantum mechanics, what fundamental property of particles at the nanoscale contributes to the unique characteristics of nanomaterials?

Explanation

At the nanoscale (typically 1-100 nm), the physical and chemical properties of materials are dominated by microscopic quantum behavior (such as quantum confinement and wave-particle duality), which differs significantly from bulk properties.

کوانٹم میکانکس کے مطابق، نینو اسکیل پر ذرات کا خوردبینی کوانٹم طرزِ عمل (Microscopic quantum behaviour) ہی نینو میٹریلز کی منفرد طبیعی اور کیمیائی خصوصیات کا سبب بنتا ہے۔

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122📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationNanotechnology

What makes nanoparticles and nanotubes feasible tools for forensic evidence analysis?

Explanation

Nanoparticles and carbon nanotubes are highly stable and exhibit excellent resistance to environmental factors (such as heat, light, and humidity), ensuring that forensic markers or tags remain intact and detectable over time.

نینو پارٹیکلز اور نینو ٹیوبز ماحولیاتی عوامل (جیسے گرمی، نمی اور روشنی) کے خلاف مزاحمت (resistance to environmental factors) رکھتے ہیں، جس کی وجہ سے یہ فارنزک شواہد کی جانچ کے لیے موزوں آلات بنتے ہیں۔

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123📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationGlass Analysis

Which element is a key indicator in the forensic analysis of glass, as its concentration can vary based on the source?

Explanation

While silicon, calcium, and sodium are major components of soda-lime glass, iron is present as a trace element (impurity). Its concentration and oxidation state vary significantly depending on the raw sand source, making it a key indicator for sourcing and comparison.

شیشے کے فارنزک تجزیے میں لوہا (Iron) ایک اہم اشاریہ ہے کیونکہ خام مال میں اس کی معمولی مقدار یا ملاوٹ مختلف مینوفیکچررز اور ذرائع کے حساب سے تبدیل ہوتی رہتی ہے۔

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124📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationGlass Analysis

What phenomenon is observed when glass fragments are forced backward into a room due to an explosion or impact from outside?

Explanation

When glass is broken by an impact or explosion, most fragments travel in the direction of the force, but microscopic glass fragments are projected backward toward the direction of the blow. This is known as backscatter (or backward fragmentation).

جب باہر سے کسی دھماکے یا ضرب کی وجہ سے شیشے کے باریک ذرات قوت کے مخالف رخ یعنی اندر کی طرف اچھلتے ہیں، تو اسے بیک اسکیٹر اثر (Backscatter effect) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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125📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationGlass Analysis

What phenomenon is primarily responsible for the formation of hackle marks on glass when it is subjected to an impact?

Explanation

Hackle marks are formed during the process of fracture propagation when the crack front branches or twists under high tensile stress.

ہیکل مارکس کا بننا بنیادی طور پر دراڑ کے آگے بڑھنے (Fracture propagation) کے دوران تناؤ کی وجہ سے ہوتا ہے۔

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126📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationSoil Analysis

The colour of soil is mainly determined by its:

Explanation

The color of soil is primarily determined by its mineral composition (especially iron and manganese oxides) and organic matter content, but mineralogy is the fundamental component in soil classification (Munsell system).

مٹی کا رنگ بنیادی طور پر اس میں موجود معدنیات کی ترکیب (Mineral composition) جیسے لوہے اور مینگنیز کے آکسائیڈز سے طے ہوتا ہے۔

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127📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationSoil Analysis

A crime scene investigation involves a suspicious package found buried in beach soil. Forensic experts are called to analyse the soil for potential evidence. Upon initial analysis, the forensic team identifies the presence of shell fragments in the beach

Explanation

The presence of shell fragments and beach sand characteristics in the soil indicates a coastal environment, linking the package to a shoreline or beach location.

مٹی میں صدف یا سیپیوں کے ٹکڑوں (shell fragments) کی موجودگی براہِ راست ساحلی ماحول (Coastal environment) کی نشاندہی کرتی ہے۔

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128📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationForensic Principles

In a hit and run case, which principle, related to the transfer and deformation of paint during a collision, helps forensic experts identify characteristics such as make and model of the suspect's vehicle?

Explanation

Locard's Exchange Principle states that 'every contact leaves a trace.' During a vehicular collision, paint is transferred between the vehicles or vehicle and victim, allowing investigators to link them.

ہٹ اینڈ رن کیسز میں گاڑیوں کے باہمی تصادم کے دوران پینٹ کا تبادلہ لوکارڈ کے تبادلے کے اصول (Lockard's Exchange Principle) کے تحت ہوتا ہے، جو مجرم گاڑی کا پتا لگانے میں مدد کرتا ہے۔

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129📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationFiber Analysis

In forensic fiber examination, what specific information does the analysis of fiber cross-sections using Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM) provide?

Explanation

Using SEM to inspect fiber cross-sections and longitudinal views yields highly detailed images of the fiber's surface texture, cross-sectional shape (e.g., trilobal, round), and manufacturing marks.

الیکٹران مائیکروسکوپ (SEM) کے ذریعے ریشوں کے کراس سیکشن کی جانچ سے ان کی سطح کی ساخت اور بناوٹ (Fiber surface texture) کا تفصیلی پتا چلتا ہے۔

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130📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationFiber Burning Test

In a forensic examination of fibers, what does the observation of a sputtering flame with black smoke during a burning test indicate about the fiber being tested?

Explanation

Synthetic polymer fibers (like polyester or acrylic) typically melt and burn with a sputtering flame, releasing dense black smoke due to incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons.

جلانے کے ٹیسٹ کے دوران چنگاریوں والی آگ (sputtering flame) اور سیاہ دھواں (black smoke) مصنوعی ریشوں (synthetic fibers) کی موجودگی کی نشاندہی کرتا ہے۔

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131📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationAudio Forensics

In forensic investigations involving sound, what type of recording format is known for capturing a continuous variation in sound waves, making it suitable for high-quality audio recordings?

Explanation

WAV is an uncompressed, lossless digital audio format that represents continuous analog sound waves with high fidelity using pulse-code modulation (PCM), making it standard for forensic audio analysis.

ڈبلیو اے وی (WAV) فارمیٹ آواز کی لہروں کو بنا کسی کمپریشن کے ریکارڈ کرتا ہے، جو فارنزک آڈیو تجزیے کے لیے بہترین اور معیاری مانا جاتا ہے۔

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132📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationCement Analysis

When identifying adulterated cement in forensic analysis, what specific property is often assessed to determine the quality and purity of the cement sample?

Explanation

Adulteration of cement (usually with clay, fly ash, or stone dust) alters its physical properties, most notably its density. Comparing the density of a questioned sample against standard cement helps detect adulteration.

ملاوٹ شدہ سیمنٹ کی جانچ کے لیے اکثر اس کی کثافت (Density) کا موازنہ کیا جاتا ہے کیونکہ اضافی مٹی یا پاؤڈر ملانے سے سیمنٹ کی کثافت بدل جاتی ہے۔

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133📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationMechanical Properties

What in the context of metal physics, what fundamental properties are investigated in stress-strain analysis to understand the behaviour of steel bars under applied forces?

Explanation

Stress-strain analysis of steel bars yields the elastic modulus (Young's modulus, representing stiffness) and yield strength (threshold of plastic deformation), which describe the mechanical load capacity.

اسٹیل کے سریوں پر دباؤ اور تناؤ کے تجزیے (stress-strain analysis) سے ان کے لچکدار ماڈیولس اور حاصل قوت (Elastic modulus and yield strength) کا پتا لگایا جاتا ہے۔

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134📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationPhotography Chemistry

In traditional film photography, which chemical is commonly used during the development process to make the latent image visible?

Explanation

The developer chemically reduces exposed silver halide crystals in the film emulsion to metallic silver, converting the invisible latent image into a visible metallic silver image.

روایتی فلم فوٹوگرافی میں، ڈیولپر (Developer) کیمیکل کا استعمال غیر مرئی تصویر (latent image) کو ظاہر کرنے کے لیے کیا جاتا ہے۔

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135📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationForensic Photography

In a Digital Single Lens Reflex (DSLR) camera, what role does the mirror mechanism play during the image capture process?

Explanation

Before the exposure begins, the reflex mirror is down, redirecting the light coming through the lens up into the pentaprism and optical viewfinder. During exposure, it swings up to let light hit the sensor.

ڈی ایس ایل آر کیمرے میں تصویر کھینچنے سے پہلے آئینے کا نظام روشنی کو آپٹیکل ویو فائنڈر (Redirects light to the viewfinder) کی طرف بھیجتا ہے۔

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136📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationQuantum Physics

What is the term for the set of rules governing the allowed transitions between different electronic states in an atom during emission or absorption of electromagnetic radiation?

Explanation

Selection rules are quantum mechanical rules (based on transition dipole moments) that define which electronic transitions are allowed or forbidden during absorption/emission.

ایٹم میں مختلف الیکٹران مداروں کے درمیان منتقلی کے قوانین کو سلیکشن رولز (Selection rules) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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137📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationX-Ray Crystallography

What could be a possible explanation for the broadening of the peaks in an X Ray diffraction pattern?

Explanation

Peak broadening in XRD is caused by small crystallite size, microstrain/defects, and instrumental factors. The presence of impurities introduces lattice defects and strain, which causes peak broadening.

ایکس رے ڈفریکشن (XRD) پیٹرن میں چوٹیوں کے چوڑا ہونے (broadening) کی وجہ کرسٹل میں خرابی، مائیکرو اسٹرین یا ناخالصیوں کی موجودگی (Presence of impurities) ہوسکتی ہے۔

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138📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationFTIR Spectroscopy

A lab is analysing a substance suspected to contain multiple functional groups. Which type of infrared spectroscopy is more suitable for identifying and characterizing complex mixtures?

Explanation

Fourier-Transform Infrared (FTIR) spectroscopy is far superior to dispersive IR due to Fellgett's (multiplex) and Jacquinot's (throughput) advantages, allowing rapid, highly sensitive scan accumulation for complex mixtures.

پیچیدہ مرکبات کی تیز اور حساس جانچ کے لیے ایف ٹی آئی آر (FTIR) سپیکٹروسکوپی ڈسپرسیو کے مقابلے میں زیادہ موزوں ہے۔

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139📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationSpectrometry Analysis

A scientist is analysing a mixture of two compounds using IR spectroscopy and observes overlapping peaks in the spectrum. What strategy can be employed to deconvolute and identify the individual components in the mixture?

Explanation

Overlapping peaks can be resolved by mathematical or chemometric methods, such as Fourier self-deconvolution, derivative spectroscopy, or multivariate curve resolution.

آپس میں ملے ہوئے سپیکٹرل سگنلز (peaks) کو الگ کرنے کے لیے کیمومیٹرک طریقے جیسے اسپیکٹرل ڈی کنوولیوشن (spectral deconvolution) استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔

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140📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationAtomic Absorption Spectroscopy

A forensic scientist is conducting quantitative analysis on hair samples containing trace elements using graphite furnace atomic absorption spectroscopy (GFAAS). What factors should be considered to optimize the heating program for the furnace during the

Explanation

Optimizing the atomization temperature is critical in GFAAS. Too low a temperature results in incomplete atomization (reducing signal), while too high a temperature reduces tube lifetime and causes peak distortion.

جی ایف اے اے ایس (GFAAS) کے دوران تپش کے عمل کو بہتر بنانے کے لیے سب سے اہم عنصر ایٹمائزیشن درجہ حرارت کو موزوں بنانا (Optimize the atomization temperature) ہے۔

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141📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationEvidence Restoration

When restoring evidence on aluminium, what technique is often employed to remove corrosion without causing damage to the underlying material?

Explanation

Chemical passivation uses mild acid solutions (like chromic or nitric acid mixtures) to remove corrosion products from aluminum while forming a protective, non-reactive oxide layer on the metal surface.

ایلومینیم پر زنگ ہٹانے اور دھاتی سطح کو نقصان سے بچانے کے لیے کیمیکل پیسیویشن (Chemical passivation) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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142📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationCondensed Matter Physics

In a magnetic material, the exchange interaction energy (J) is calculated as the product of the exchange constant (A) and the square of the average deviation of neighbouring electron spins from their equilibrium positions. If the exchange constant is

2\times10^{-11} \text{ J/m}

and the average deviation is

3\times10^{-9} \text{ m}

, calculate the exchange interaction energy.

Explanation

The exchange interaction energy is

E = A \times d^2 = (2 \times 10^{-11}) \times (3 \times 10^{-9})^2 = 2 \times 10^{-11} \times 9 \times 10^{-18} = 1.8 \times 10^{-28}\text{ J}

.

تبادلے کی توانائی کے فارمولے کے مطابق:

(2 \times 10^{-11}) \times (3 \times 10^{-9})^2 = 1.8 \times 10^{-28}\text{ J}

حاصل ہوتا ہے۔

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143📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationImpression Evidence

For the preservation of tire marks on soft soil, the best way is

Explanation

Three-dimensional tire tracks in soft soil must be documented via scaled photography and preserved by pouring dental stone to create a physical cast.

نرم مٹی پر ٹائروں کے نشانات کو محفوظ کرنے کا سب سے بہتر طریقہ ان کی پیمائشی تصویر لینا اور کاسٹنگ (Photo and Casting - سانچہ بنانا) ہے۔

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144📚Organic ChemistryModern Indian History

'Do or Die' (Karenge ya Marenge) Gandhiji gave this Mantra to the nation on the eve of which mass movement?

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942, giving the famous slogan 'Do or Die' during his speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay.

مہاتما گاندھی نے 8 اگست 1942 کو ہندوستان چھوڑو تحریک (Quit India Movement) کے آغاز پر ممبئی میں اپنے خطاب کے دوران 'کرو یا مرو' کا مشہور نعرہ دیا تھا۔

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145📚Organic ChemistryIndian Polity

How many types of Fundamental rights are provided by Indian Constitution?

Explanation

Originally, the Indian Constitution provided seven fundamental rights, but the Right to Property was deleted by the 44th Amendment in 1978. Currently, there are six fundamental rights.

ہندوستانی آئین کے تحت شہریوں کو 6 بنیادی حقوق (Fundamental Rights) فراہم کیے گئے ہیں۔ 1978 میں 44 ویں ترمیم کے ذریعے جائیداد کے حق کو بنیادی حقوق سے خارج کر دیا گیا تھا۔

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146📚Organic ChemistryIndian Polity

At present how many Fundamental Duties are in the Constitution of India?

Explanation

Originally, 10 Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 added the 11th duty, making the current total 11.

آئینِ ہند کے تحت اس وقت 11 بنیادی فرائض (Fundamental Duties) درج ہیں۔ 2002 میں 86 ویں آئینی ترمیم کے ذریعے 11 واں فرض شامل کیا گیا تھا۔

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147📚Organic ChemistryScientific Instruments

The instrument used for measuring depth of water table is known as

Explanation

A piezometer is a device used to measure liquid pressure in a system, commonly employed to determine the depth and pressure of groundwater (water table).

پیزومیٹر (Piezometer) وہ آلہ ہے جو زیر زمین پانی کی سطح (depth of water table) اور دباؤ کی پیمائش کے لیے استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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148📚Physical ChemistryIndian Geography

The capital of Lakshadweep is

Explanation

Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep, India. Port Blair is Andaman and Nicobar's capital, Silvassa is Dadra and Nagar Haveli's capital.

کاواراتی (Kavaratti) لکشدیپ کا دارالحکومت ہے۔ پورٹ بلیئر انڈمان اور نکوبار جزائر کا دارالحکومت ہے۔

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149📚Physical ChemistryCensus of India 2011

According to Census of India 2011 which one of the following Union Territories had the highest sex ratio?

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census, Puducherry had the highest sex ratio among Union Territories with 1037 females per 1000 males, while Daman and Diu had the lowest (618).

2011 کی مردم شماری کے مطابق، یونین ٹیریٹریز میں پڈوچیری (Puducherry) کا جنسی تناسب سب سے زیادہ (1037 خواتین فی 1000 مرد) تھا۔

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150📚Physical ChemistryIndian Constitution

Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the directive principles of state policy on 'Promotion of international peace and security'?

Explanation

Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to endeavor to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, and foster respect for international law.

ہندوستانی آئین کا آرٹیکل 51 بین الاقوامی امن اور سلامتی کو فروغ دینے کے لیے رہنما اصول فراہم کرتا ہے۔

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151📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryCoding-Decoding

If BE QUICK is coded as ZC OSGAI, then the code of the last letter of the third word in the sentence I LOVE MY COUNTRY is

Explanation

The coding shifts each letter backward by 2 places (B - 2 = Z, E - 2 = C). In the sentence 'I LOVE MY COUNTRY', the third word is 'MY'. The last letter of 'MY' is 'Y'. Shifting 'Y' backward by 2 places gives 'W'.

کوڈنگ میں ہر حرف کو دو مقام پیچھے لے جایا گیا ہے (B -> Z)۔ جملے کا تیسرا لفظ 'MY' ہے، جس کا آخری حرف 'Y' ہے۔ 'Y' سے دو مقام پیچھے 'W' آتا ہے۔

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152📚General Knowledge & ReasoningInternet & Security

Digital signature service that has been launched on Aadhar platform is called

Explanation

eSign or eSignDesk is the online electronic signature service in India that allows Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents instantly.

آدھار پلیٹ فارم پر شروع کی گئی ڈیجیٹل دستخط کی سروس کو ای سائن ڈیسک (eSignDesk / eSign) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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153📚General EnglishArticles

Sarah was excited to visit _____ Eiffel Tower during her trip to Paris.

Explanation

'The' is used before unique geographical monuments (the Eiffel Tower). Names of cities (Paris) do not take an article.

منفرد جغرافیائی یادگاروں (Eiffel Tower) سے پہلے 'the' استعمال ہوتا ہے۔ شہروں کے ناموں (Paris) سے پہلے کوئی آرٹیکل نہیں لگتا۔

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154📚General EnglishHomophones

Choose the correct homophone to complete the sentence:

During the festival, the groups set up a _____ to rest and socialize, while enjoying their favorite _____ beer under the stars.

Explanation

'Laager' is a camp deﬁned by a ring of wagons or armored vehicles. 'Lager' is a type of beer. Correct order is: laager, lager.

'Laager' کا مطلب ہے خیمہ گاہ یا پڑاؤ۔ 'Lager' ایک قسم کی بیئر ہے۔ صحیح ترتیب ہے: laager, lager۔

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155📚General EnglishIdioms

Which sentence expresses the correct meaning of the given idiom: A damp squib

Explanation

A 'damp squib' is a situation or event which is much less impressive, exciting, or successful than expected.

'A damp squib' سے مراد کوئی ایسی چیز یا واقعہ ہے جو امید کے مطابق کامیاب یا پرجوش ثابت نہ ہو (سرد مہری کا شکار)۔

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156📚General Knowledge & AwarenessAgriculture

Which of the following statements regarding crops growing season are NOT correct?

Explanation

Statement C is incorrect because Zaid crops are short summer crops grown mainly in the months of March to June, between the Rabi and Kharif seasons, rather than during the winter months.

بیان C غلط ہے کیونکہ زائد (Zaid) فصلیں موسم گرما (مارچ سے جون) کے دوران اگائی جاتی ہیں نہ کہ سردیوں کے مہینوں میں۔

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157📚General Knowledge & AwarenessGeography

Match the hydroelectric power projects in Jammu Kashmir with their corresponding location:

- i) Baglihar Power Project: 1) Indus River in Alchi, Leh
- ii) Ratle Hydroelectric Power Project: 2) Chenab River, Ramban
- iii) Uri Hydroelectric Power Project: 3) Chenab River, Kishtwar
- iv) Nimoo Bazgo Hydroelectric Power Project: 4) Jhelum River, Baramula

Explanation

Baglihar is on the Chenab River in Ramban (i-2), Ratle is on the Chenab River in Kishtwar (ii-3), Uri is on the Jhelum River in Baramula (iii-4), and Nimoo Bazgo is on the Indus River in Leh (iv-1).

بگلیہار چناب ندی، رامبن پر ہے (i-2)؛ رتلے چناب ندی، کشتواڑ پر ہے (ii-3)؛ اوڑی جہلم ندی، بارہمولہ پر ہے (iii-4)؛ اور نیمو بازگو دریائے سندھ، لیہہ پر ہے (iv-1)۔

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158📚General Knowledge & AwarenessHistory

In which year, the first Legislature of Jammu and Kashmir was established?

Explanation

The first Legislative Assembly (Praja Sabha) of Jammu and Kashmir was established in 1934 AD during the reign of Maharaja Hari Singh.

جموں و کشمیر کی پہلی قانون ساز اسمبلی (پراجا سبھا) مہاراجہ ہری سنگھ کے دور میں 1934ء میں قائم کی گئی تھی۔

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159📚Reasoning & MathematicsAlphanumeric Series

F2, _____, D8, C16, B32. What term should fill the blank?

Explanation

The letters decrease backward: F -> E -> D -> C -> B. The numbers double: 2 -> 4 -> 8 -> 16 -> 32. Thus, the missing term is E4.

حروف پیچھے کی طرف گنتی میں ہیں: F -> E -> D -> C -> B اور ہندسے دوگنا ہو رہے ہیں: 2 -> 4 -> 8 -> 16 -> 32۔ لہذا خالی جگہ پر E4 آئے گا۔

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160📚Forensic Science & PhotographyImage Processing

Which of the following is the first and foremost step in Image Processing?

Explanation

Image acquisition is the first step in image processing because digital processing cannot occur without capturing/loading the image.

امیج پروسیسنگ کا پہلا مرحلہ 'Image acquisition' (تصویر حاصل کرنا) ہے، جس کے بغیر پروسیسنگ شروع نہیں ہو سکتی۔

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161📚Forensic Science & PhotographyPhotography Science

What is dodging in photography?

Explanation

Dodging reduces the amount of light in a specific area during printing or editing, making that local area lighter. (Burning makes it darker).

فوٹو گرافی میں 'Dodging' سے مراد تصویر کے کسی مخصوص حصے کو ایڈٹ یا پرنٹ کے وقت ہلکا (lighter) کرنا ہے۔

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162📚General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Constitution

The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?

Explanation

The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d) as a Fundamental Right.

پورے ہندوستان میں آزادانہ نقل و حرکت کا حق آئین ہند کے آرٹیکل 19 (دفعہ 19) کے تحت ایک بنیادی حق کے طور پر فراہم کیا گیا ہے۔

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163📚General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity

Which territory has banned popular apps like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive from government computers due to cybersecurity concerns?

Explanation

In 2024, Hong Kong's Digital Policy Office directed government departments to block staff from accessing services like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive on office computers due to cybersecurity risks.

ہانگ کانگ (Hong Kong) نے 2024 میں سائبر سیکیورٹی خطرات کی وجہ سے سرکاری کمپیوٹرز پر واٹس ایپ، وی چیٹ اور گوگل ڈرائیو جیسی ایپس کے استعمال پر پابندی لگا دی تھی۔

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164📚General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Geography

Which of the following rivers are allocated to India for exclusive use under the Indus Water Treaty?

Explanation

Under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, the water of the three Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas) is allocated to India for unrestricted use.

1960 کے سندھ طاس معاہدے (Indus Water Treaty) کے تحت مشرقی دریاؤں یعنی راوی، ستلج اور بیاس کے پانی کے استعمال کے حقوق ہندوستان کو تفویض کیے گئے ہیں۔

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165📚General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Power Projects

Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation is a joint venture between which two entities?

Explanation

Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation Limited (RHPCL) is a joint venture company incorporated in 2021 between NHPC (51%) and JKSPDC (49%) to implement the 850 MW Ratle Hydroelectric Project on Chenab River.

رتلے ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک پاور کارپوریشن لمیٹڈ (RHPCL) چناب ندی پر واقع ہے اور یہ نیشنل ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک پاور کارپوریشن (NHPC) اور جموں و کشمیر اسٹیٹ پاور ڈیولپمنٹ کارپوریشن (JKSPDC) کا مشترکہ منصوبہ ہے۔

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166📚General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Culture

In which months is Jhiri Mela celebrated each year?

Explanation

The Jhiri Mela is held annually in October-November (during Kartik Poornima) in Jhiri village near Jammu, commemorating the martyrdom of Baba Jitto.

جھڑی میلہ (Jhiri Mela) بابا جتو کی یاد میں ہر سال جموں کے قریب جھڑی گاؤں میں اکتوبر اور نومبر (کارتک پورنیما) کے مہینے میں منایا جاتا ہے۔

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167📚General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Infrastructure

Consider the following statements.
I) The Banihal Qazigund Tunnel renamed as Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel.
II) It is India's longest transportation railway tunnel measuring 11.2 km long.
Choose the correct option.

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect. The Chenani-Nashri Road Tunnel (9.28 km) was renamed as Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (not Banihal-Qazigund Road Tunnel, which is 8.45 km). The Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel (11.2 km) is a railway tunnel, whereas the Banihal-Qazigund road tunnel is for road transport.

دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں۔ چنانی ناشری ٹنل کو ڈاکٹر شیاما پرساد مکھرجی ٹنل کا نام دیا گیا ہے (نہ کہ بانہال قاضی گنڈ کو)۔ اور 11.2 کلومیٹر لمبی ٹنل پیر پنچال ریلوے ٹنل ہے، بانہال قاضی گنڈ روڈ ٹنل 8.45 کلومیٹر لمبی روڈ ٹنل ہے۔

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168📚Elementary MathematicsAverages

Four years ago, the average age of a family of four persons was 18 years. During this period, a baby was born. Today if the average age of the family is still 18 years, the age of the baby is

Explanation

Sum of age of 4 persons 4 years ago = 4 18 = 72 years. Today, their age sum increases by 4 4 = 16 years, making it 88 years. Today, there are 5 family members and their average age is 18, so total sum = 5 * 18 = 90 years. Baby's age = 90 - 88 = 2 years.

چار سال پہلے 4 افراد کی کل عمر = 4 * 18 = 72 سال۔ آج ان کی کل عمر = 72 + 16 = 88 سال ہوگی۔ اب خاندان میں 5 افراد ہیں اور اوسط عمر اب بھی 18 سال ہے، یعنی کل عمر = 90 سال۔ بچے کی عمر = 90 - 88 = 2 سال ہے۔

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169📚General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity

Select the correct match:

i. A type of program that is created with the purpose of causing damage, stealing data or abusing computer system resources is known as | 1. Privacy
ii. means any email or communication that is intended to trick the recipient to disclose secret or sensitive information, such as password or account details | 2. Malware
iii. Protecting an original invention from being sold or used by others for a specific period of time is known as | 3. Phishing
iv. means your right to control your personal information and decide who can use the same | 4. Patents

Explanation

Damaging software is Malware (i-2). Trick communication is Phishing (ii-3). Invention protection is Patents (iii-4). Control over personal information is Privacy (iv-1). This corresponds to i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.

درست مماثلت یہ ہے: نقصان پہنچانے والا سافٹ ویئر مالویئر ہے (i-2)، معلومات چرانے والا فریب فیشنگ ہے (ii-3)، ایجاد کا تحفظ پیٹنٹ ہے (iii-4) اور ذاتی معلومات کا کنٹرول پرائیویسی ہے (iv-1)۔ یہ ترتیب i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1 بنتی ہے۔

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170📚General EnglishIdioms

Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase.

To let off steam, my friend started murmuring.

Explanation

To 'let off steam' is an idiom meaning to do or say something that helps you get rid of strong feelings or energy (releasing tension/anger/frustration).

محاورہ 'let off steam' کا مطلب ہے اپنے غصے، پریشانی یا بوجھ کو ہلکا کرنا (ٹینشن کو دور کرنا)۔

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171📚Physics, Electronics & TelecomIndus Water Treaty

Which river is primarily allocated to Pakistan under the Indus Water Treaty?

Explanation

Under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, three western rivers—the Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab—were primarily allocated to Pakistan, while three eastern rivers—Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej—were allocated to India.

1960 کے سندھ طاس معاہدے کے تحت تین مغربی دریاؤں (سندھ، جہلم اور چناب) کا پانی پاکستان کو اور تین مشرقی دریاؤں (راوی، بیاس اور ستلج) کا پانی بھارت کو تفویض کیا گیا تھا۔

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172📚General Awareness & ScienceDams & Rivers

Match the following Dams to the rivers on which it is situated:

| Dam | River |
| --- | --- |
| 1. Sardar Sarovar | i. Mahanadi |
| 2. Hirakud | ii. Periyar |
| 3. Bhakra Nangal | iii. Narmada |
| 4. Idukki | iv. Sutlej |

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

The correct matching is: Sardar Sarovar - Narmada (1-iii), Hirakud - Mahanadi (2-i), Bhakra Nangal - Sutlej (3-iv), and Idukki - Periyar (4-ii). This matches option A.

درست جوڑ یہ ہیں: سردار سروور - نرمدا (1-iii)، ہیراکڈ - مہاندی (2-i)، بھاکڑہ نانگل - ستلج (3-iv)، اور ادوکی - پیریار (4-ii)۔ یہ ترتیب آپشن A ہے۔

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173📚General Awareness & ScienceDams & Rivers

Of the following, which is India's highest dam?

Explanation

Tehri Dam in Uttarakhand is the highest dam in India, standing at a height of 260.5 meters on the Bhagirathi River. Nurek Dam is in Tajikistan.

اتراکھنڈ میں واقع ٹہری ڈیم (Tehri Dam) بھارت کا سب سے اونچا ڈیم ہے، جس کی اونچائی دریائے بھاگیرتھی پر 260.5 میٹر ہے۔

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174📚Physics, Electronics & TelecomIndus Water Treaty

In which year, Indus Water Treaty was signed?

Explanation

The Indus Waters Treaty was signed on September 19, 1960, in Karachi by Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan.

سندھ طاس معاہدے (Indus Water Treaty) پر 19 ستمبر 1960 کو کراچی میں دستخط کیے گئے تھے۔

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175📚Mental Ability & ReasoningCoding-Decoding

If in a certain language PROSE is coded as PPOQE, how is LIGHT coded in that code?

Explanation

The pattern is: odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th) remain unchanged (P->P, O->O, E->E), while even positions (2nd, 4th) are shifted 2 letters backward (R - 2 = P, S - 2 = Q). Applying this to LIGHT: L->L, I-2->G, G->G, H-2->F, T->T. Result: LGGFT.

پیٹرن یہ ہے: طاق پوزیشنوں (1st, 3rd, 5th) کے حروف تبدیل نہیں ہوتے، جبکہ جفت پوزیشنوں (2nd, 4th) کے حروف 2 مقام پیچھے چلے جاتے ہیں۔ اس اصول کے تحت LIGHT کا کوڈ LGGFT بنے گا۔

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176📚Physics, Electronics & TelecomMultiplexing

In time-division-multiplexing, each multiplexed signal occupies

Explanation

In Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), different signals are allocated different time slots. During its allocated time slot, each signal occupies the entire transmission bandwidth.

ٹائم ڈویژن ملٹی پلیکسنگ (TDM) میں، ہر سگنل کو ایک مخصوص وقت کا وقفہ ملتا ہے۔ اپنے مخصوص وقت کے دوران، سگنل پوری ٹرانسمیشن بینڈوتھ (Entire Transmission Bandwidth) کو استعمال کرتا ہے۔

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177📚Computer ApplicationsComputer Hardware & Software

Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

List - I:
i. Operating System
ii. Input Device
iii. Output Device

List - II:
1. Scanning Devices
2. Security Management
3. Projectors

Explanation

Operating System handles security management (i-2), Input Device includes scanning devices (ii-1), and Output Device includes projectors (iii-3). This matches option C.

درست جوڑ یہ ہیں: آپریٹنگ سسٹم - سیکیورٹی مینجمنٹ (i-2)، ان پٹ ڈیوائس - اسکیننگ ڈیوائسز (ii-1)، آؤٹ پٹ ڈیوائس - پروجیکٹر (iii-3)۔ یہ آپشن C ہے۔

2024JKSSBHome Department (Police)

178📚📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History

Who among the following is the founder of the Theosophical Society?

Explanation

The Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875 by Madame Helena Blavatsky, Colonel Henry Steel Olcott, and others.

تھیوسوفیکل سوسائٹی کی بنیاد 1875 میں نیویارک میں میڈم ہیلینا بلاواتسکی اور کرنل ہنری اسٹیل اولکاٹ نے رکھی تھی۔

2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department

179📚🔭 SciencePlaces & Administration

Match the following tourist/cultural titles of J&K with their correct districts:

P. Chhota Kashi - Samba
Q. Land of Devika - Udhampur
R. District of Lakes - Ganderbal
S. Land of Springs - Anantnag

Explanation

Chhota Kashi refers to Purmandal (Samba - iii), Land of Devika is Udhampur (i), District of Lakes is Ganderbal (ii), and Land of Springs is Anantnag (iv). This matches option A.

درست جوڑ درج ذیل ہیں: چھوٹا کاشی - سانبہ (iii)، دیویکا کی سرزمیں - ادھم پور (i)، جھیلوں کا ضلع - گاندربل (ii)، چشموں کی سرزمیں - اننت ناگ (iv)۔ یہ آپشن A ہے۔

2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department

180📚📚 Social ScienceAncient Indian History

Which of the following animals was absent in the terracotta art of the Indus Valley Civilization?

Explanation

While humped bulls, elephants, dogs, and cats were depicted in terracotta figurines, cows were not represented in terracotta art of the Indus Valley Civilization.

وادی سندھ کی تہذیب کے مٹی کے فن پارے (Terracotta) میں کوہان والے سانڈ، ہاتھی، کتے اور بلیوں کے نقش ملتے ہیں، لیکن گائے کا کوئی نمونہ نہیں ملا۔

2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department

181📚📚 Social ScienceAncient Indian History

Find the correct chronological (increasing/historical timeline) order of the reigns of the following rulers:

P) Chandragupta I of the Guptas
Q) Kanishka of the Kushanas
R) Simuka of the Satavahanas
S) Rudradaman of the Shakas

Explanation

Simuka founded Satavahanas (c. 1st century BC - R), Kanishka ruled Kushanas (c. 127 AD - Q), Rudradaman of Shakas ruled (c. 130 AD - S), and Chandragupta I ruled Guptas (c. 319 AD - P). Hence, the chronological order is RQSP.

سیموکا (R) قبل مسیح میں تھے، کینشکا (Q) تقریباً 127 عیسوی، ردرا دمن (S) تقریباً 130 عیسوی، اور چندرگپت اول (P) 319 عیسوی میں تخت نشین ہوئے۔ اس لیے تاریخی ترتیب RQSP ہے۔

2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department

182📚Building Materials & ConstructionWater Duty

"Duty on capacity" is also called

Explanation

In irrigation engineering, 'Duty on capacity' is defined as the duty of water at the head of a canal during full supply. It is also known as the Full Supply Coefficient.

آبپاشی انجینئرنگ میں، کینال کے ہیڈ پر فل سپلائی کے دوران پانی کے فرض کو 'ڈیوٹی آن کیپیسٹی' کہا جاتا ہے۔ اسے فل سپلائی کوایفیشینٹ (Full supply coefficient) بھی کہا جاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

183📚Building Materials & ConstructionEstimating & Costing

The unit of payment of cement concrete in foundation is

Explanation

Cement concrete in foundation is a volumetric bulk work and is paid per cubic meter (per cum). Thinner concrete works like damp-proof course (DPC) are paid per square meter (sqm).

بنیاد (Foundation) میں سیمنٹ کنکریٹ کے کام کی پیمائش کیوبک میٹر (Per cum) میں کی جاتی ہے اور ادائیگی بھی اسی کے مطابق ہوتی ہے۔ ڈی پی سی جیسے پتلے کاموں کی ادائیگی مربع میٹر میں ہوتی ہے۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

184📚Surveying & LevellingGeodetic Surveying

In great survey networks, typically

Explanation

In large geodetic control/survey networks, horizontal control is established using either triangulation (measuring angles), trilateration (measuring lengths/distances), or a combination of both.

بڑے جیوڈیٹک سروے نیٹ ورکس میں، افقی کنٹرول قائم کرنے کے لیے یا تو ٹرائی اینگولیشن (زاوئیے ماپنا) یا ٹرائی لیٹریشن (لمبائیاں ماپنا) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

185📚Surveying & LevellingLevelling Instruments

The test used to check the collimation error in a level is

Explanation

The Two-Peg Test is a standard procedure used to check and adjust the collimation error in a level (ensuring the line of sight is horizontal when the bubble is centered).

لیولنگ انسٹرومنٹ میں کولیمیشن کی غلطی (collimation error) کو چیک کرنے اور درست کرنے کے لیے 'ٹو پیگ ٹیسٹ' (Two peg test) استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

186📚Surveying & LevellingDrawing Instruments

Which grade of pencil is used for drawing arrowheads?

Explanation

A hard pencil grade such as 2H is recommended for drawing arrowheads, dimension lines, extension lines, and section lines. It maintains a sharp point, ensuring crisp and clean lines. (Softer pencils like H/HB are used for lettering and outlines).

ایرو ہیڈز (arrowheads)، ڈائمینشن اور سیکشن لائنوں کے لیے 2H گریڈ کی پنسل استعمال کی جاتی ہے، کیونکہ یہ سخت ہوتی ہے اور اس کی نوک باریک رہتی ہے جس سے لائنیں صاف بنتی ہیں۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

187📚Surveying & LevellingLime & Mortar

The commonly used lime for works under water or in damp situation is

Explanation

Eminently hydraulic lime contains a high percentage of clay (20-30%) and is capable of setting underwater or in damp conditions. It is used for structural works under water or in damp foundations.

پانی کے نیچے یا نم جگہوں پر کام کے لیے 'ایمینینٹلی ہائیڈرولک لائم' (Eminently hydraulic lime) استعمال کیا جاتا ہے کیونکہ اس میں مٹی کی مقدار زیادہ ہوتی ہے جو اسے پانی کے نیچے جمنے کی صلاحیت دیتی ہے۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

188📚Surveying & LevellingSurveying Principles

In plane surveying,

Explanation

In plane surveying, the mean surface of the earth is treated as a plane surface, and the curvature of the earth is neglected. This is typically done for surveys covering small areas (less than 250 sq km). Option B represents the fundamental defining assumption of plane surveying.

پلین سروے (Plane surveying) میں زمین کی مہراب دار سطح کو ہموار سمجھا جاتا ہے اور زمین کی گولائی (curvature) کو نظر انداز کر دیا جاتا ہے۔ یہ عام طور پر چھوٹے علاقوں کے سروے کے لیے ہوتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

189📚Surveying & LevellingContouring

Contour lines cross ridge or valley lines at

Explanation

Contour lines intersect ridge lines and valley lines perpendicularly (i.e. at 90°). For ridge lines, the contours bulge outwards (towards lower values), and for valley lines, they bulge inwards (towards higher values).

کونٹور لائنیں (Contour lines) رج اور ویلی لائنوں کو ہمیشہ 90° کے زاویے پر کاٹتی ہیں۔ رج لائنوں پر یہ باہر کی طرف اور ویلی لائنوں پر اندر کی طرف مڑتی ہیں۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

190📚Engineering Drawing & CADCanal Structures

Cross regulators are provided in canals for which of the following purposes?

Explanation

Cross regulators are built across a parent canal to: 1. Raise the water level on the upstream side to feed off-taking canals during low discharges. 2. Stop flow downstream for repairs. 3. Control and absorb fluctuations in the canal system.

نہروں میں کراس ریگولیٹرز (Cross regulators) کا کام کم ڈسچارج کے وقت پانی کی سطح کو بڑھانا، نیچے کی طرف پانی بند کرنا، اور نہر کے نظام میں پانی کے اتار چڑھاؤ کو کنٹرول کرنا ہوتا ہے۔ اس لیے تمام جوابات درست ہیں۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

191📚Engineering Drawing & CADBricks

Choose the right sequence of stages during burning/firing of bricks is

Explanation

The firing of bricks follows these sequential stages: 1. Dehydration (or water smoking, up to 650°C) to remove moisture. 2. Oxidation (650°C - 900°C) to burn organic matters. 3. Vitrification (900°C - 1100°C) where clay particles fuse into a glassy mass. 4. Cooling.

اینٹوں کے پکنے کا درست تسلسل ہے: 1. پانی کا اخراج (Dehydration)، 2. آکسیڈیشن (Oxidation - نامیاتی مادوں کا جلنا)، 3. وِٹری فیکیشن (Vitrification - گلاس جیسا سخت بننا)، 4. ٹھنڈا ہونا (Cooling)۔ اس لیے آپشن A درست ہے۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

192📚RCC & Structural MechanicsSurveying Instruments

Match the following surveying instruments with their descriptions:
1. Theodolite - c. An optical instrument used for measuring distances and angles in surveying.
2. Prismatic Compass - a. Used for measuring angles (bearings) in horizontal planes.
3. Planimeter - b. Measures the area of a closed figure on a map or drawing.
4. Leveling Rod - d. Used to measure height differences or elevations during leveling.
Choose the correctly matched option:

Explanation

The correct matches are: Theodolite (1-c) for measuring angles and distances (tachometer function); Prismatic Compass (2-a) for measuring magnetic bearings; Planimeter (3-b) for measuring plan area; Leveling Rod (4-d) for vertical height measurements.

درست جوڑ: تھیوڈولائٹ (1-c)، پرزمیٹک کمپاس (2-a)، پلانی میٹر (3-b) اور لیولنگ راڈ (4-d) ہے۔ اس لیے آپشن B درست جواب ہے۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

193📚RCC & Structural MechanicsBridge Engineering

Match the bridge-related term with its description:
1. Component Parts of a Bridge - c. Different elements that together make up a complete bridge structure.
2. Culverts - b. Small structures allowing water to flow under roads or railways.
3. Bridge Location - d. Determining suitable placement for constructing a bridge.
4. Tunnel Rules - a. Guidelines specifying sizes of various bridge elements.
Choose the correctly matched option:

Explanation

The correct matches are: Component parts (1-c), Culverts (2-b) representing drainage structure with span < 6m; Bridge Location (3-d) to find the site alignment; Tunnel Rules (4-a) as standard regulatory guidelines. This yields 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a.

درست مماثلت: پل کے حصے (1-c)، پلیاں/کلورٹ (2-b)، پل کی جگہ (3-d) اور سرنگ کے قوانین (4-a) ہے۔ اس لیے آپشن C درست جواب ہے۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

194📚RCC & Structural MechanicsCement Testing

The IS sieve which is used for measuring the fineness of cement is

Explanation

According to IS 4031-Part 1, the fineness of cement is tested by dry sieving using a 90-micron (IS Sieve No. 9) sieve. The residue should not exceed 10% for ordinary Portland cement.

سیمنٹ کی باریکی (fineness) کو ماپنے کے لیے 90 مائیکرون (90 micron - IS Sieve No. 9) کی چھلنی استعمال کی جاتی ہے۔ OPC کے لیے چھلنی پر بچا ہوا سیمنٹ 10٪ سے زیادہ نہیں ہونا چاہیے۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

195📚Estimating, Costing & ValuationDams

The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by which of the following methods?
i) Constructing cut-off under upstream face
ii) Constructing drainage channels between the dam and its foundation
iii) By pressure grouting in foundation
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Uplift pressure on a gravity dam is controlled by: 1. Upstream cut-off walls (reduces seepage head). 2. Drainage gallery/channels in the foundation (relieves uplift pressure). 3. Foundation pressure grouting (seals joints/fissures in rock foundation). Thus, all three methods are effective.

ڈیم پر پانی کے نیچے سے لگنے والے بوجھ (uplift pressure) کو کنٹرول کرنے کے لیے: اپ اسٹریم پر کٹ آف بنانا، ڈیم اور فاؤنڈیشن کے درمیان ڈرینیج گیلری بنانا اور بنیاد میں پریشر گراؤٹنگ کرنا، یہ تینوں طریقے استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department

196📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActTraffic Rules & Regulations

When a vehicle is parked on the road side after 11 pm

Explanation

When a vehicle is parked on a road or public place at night or during hours of darkness (such as after 11 pm) without adequate street lighting, the parking lights or hazard warning lights must be left on to alert other road users.

جب گاڑی رات کے وقت (جیسے کہ رات 11 بجے کے بعد) سڑک کے کنارے پارک کی جائے تو پارکنگ لائٹس کو روشن رکھنا ضروری ہے تاکہ دوسرے مسافروں کو خبردار کیا جا سکے۔

2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department

197📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActAccident Duties & M.V. Act

What you do when any property of a third party is damaged due to an accident

Explanation

Under Section 134(b) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the driver of the vehicle must report the accident and any damage caused to third-party property to the nearest police station within 24 hours.

موٹر وہیکل ایکٹ 1988 کی دفعہ 134(ب) کے تحت، حادثے کی صورت میں اگر کسی تیسرے فریق کی املاک کو نقصان پہنچے، تو ڈرائیور کو 24 گھنٹے کے اندر قریبی پولیس اسٹیشن میں رپورٹ کرنی چاہیے۔

2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department

198📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceRoad Safety

Which safety device should be used while driving a four-wheeler?

Explanation

A seatbelt is the primary mandatory occupant restraint safety device designed to be worn in four-wheelers to prevent injury during collisions.

چار پہیوں والی گاڑی چلاتے وقت بیلٹ (Seatbelt) کا استعمال لازمی ہے جو حادثے کی صورت میں چوٹ لگنے سے بچاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department

199📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceEmergency Procedures

Arrange the following steps in a correct sequence, when a motor vehicle breaks down at night:
(i) Apply brakes, (ii) Slow down the vehicle, (iii) Turn on hazardous warning light, (iv) Get out from the vehicle.

Explanation

The correct safety sequence during a breakdown at night is: first slow down the vehicle (ii), safely apply brakes to stop (i), immediately turn on hazard warning lights to warn others (iii), and then carefully exit the vehicle (iv).

خرابی کی صورت میں صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: پہلے رفتار کم کریں (ii)، بریک لگا کر روکیں (i)، ہنگامی انتباہی لائٹس آن کریں (iii) اور پھر گاڑی سے باہر نکلیں (iv)۔

2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department

200📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceReflectance & Pavements

During night driving which type of pavement has more visibility?

Explanation

Concrete pavements are lighter in color and have higher retro-reflectance properties than dark blacktop bituminous/asphalt pavements, providing better contrast and visibility under vehicle headlights at night.

کنکریٹ کے فرش (Concrete pavement) ہلکے رنگ کے ہوتے ہیں، جو تاریک اسفالٹ کے مقابلے میں ہیڈلائٹ کی روشنی کو بہتر منعکس کرتے ہیں اور رات میں زیادہ نظر آتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department

201📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenancePhysics of Braking

What is the fundamental principle on which breaking system work?

Explanation

Brakes function on the principle of friction. Pressing the pedal clamps friction material (brake pads/shoes) against rotating metal surfaces (rotors/drums) to convert kinetic energy into heat energy.

گاڑی کا بریکنگ سسٹم رگڑ (Friction) کے بنیادی اصول پر کام کرتا ہے، جو متحرک پہیوں کو روکنے کے لیے مزاحمت پیدا کرتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department

202📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceVehicle Systems

What does abbreviation "ABS." of a motor vehicle mean?

Explanation

ABS stands for Anti-lock Braking System, an safety anti-skid system that prevents wheels from locking up during hard braking.

گاڑیوں کے سلسلے میں 'ABS' کا مطلب اینٹی لاک بریکنگ سسٹم (Anti-lock braking system) ہے۔

2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department

203📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlNoise Pollution & Regulations

Maximum permissible noise level recommended as per central motor vehicle rules 1989, for passenger or commercial vehicles with gross vehicle weight above 12000 kgs, is

Explanation

Under the CMVR, 1989, the maximum permissible noise level at the manufacturing stage for passenger or commercial vehicles with a GVW exceeding 12000 kgs is 89 dB(A).

موٹر وہیکل رولز 1989 کے مطابق، 12000 کلوگرام سے زائد وزن والی گاڑیوں کے شور کی زیادہ سے زیادہ حد 89 ڈیسیبل یعنی 89db(A) ہونی چاہیے۔

2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department

204📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Insurance

Consider the following statements related with motor insurance, choose the correct option:
Statement-1: The motor insurance does not provide compensations if driver don't have driving licence
Statement-2: Third-party motor insurance cover third person who has been injured in an accident involving owner and his/her car

Explanation

Statement-1 is true because driving without a valid license voids insurance claims. Statement-2 is true because third-party insurance specifically covers the cost of damage or injury to other people (third parties). Both statements are true.

پہلا بیان سچ ہے کیونکہ لائسنس کے بغیر دعویٰ رد ہو جاتا ہے۔ دوسرا بیان بھی سچ ہے کیونکہ تھرڈ پارٹی انشورنس دوسرے فریق کے نقصان کی تلافی کرتی ہے۔ دونوں سچ ہیں۔

2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department

205📚🔭 ScienceFish Taxonomy

The order of catfishes is

Explanation

Catfishes belong to the order Siluriformes. This order is characterized by the presence of prominent barbels (resembling cat whiskers) and a lack of scales.

کیٹ فش (Catfish) کا تعلق آرڈر Siluriformes سے ہے۔ اس گروپ کی نمایاں خصوصیات میں حساس باربلز (مونچھیں) اور جسم پر سکیلز (Scales) کی غیر موجودگی شامل ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

206📚🔭 ScienceMolecular Biology

The correct order of steps in DNA isolation are

Explanation

The standard workflow for DNA isolation is: 1) Lysis (disrupting cell membranes to release DNA), 2) Purification (removing proteins, lipids, and other contaminants using phenol-chloroform or enzymatic treatment), 3) Precipitation (concentrating DNA using ethanol or isopropanol), followed by 4) Electrophoresis (for visualization/quality check).

ڈی این اے کی تنہائی (DNA Isolation) کے درست اقدامات: 1) لیسس (Lysis - خلیے کو توڑنا)، 2) پیوریفیکیشن (Purification - پروٹین اور چکنائی کو ہٹانا)، 3) پریسپیٹیشن (Precipitation - الکحل کے ذریعے ڈی این اے کو نیچے بٹھانا) اور 4) الیکٹروفورسس (Electrophoresis - جانچنا)۔ اس لیے آپشن C درست ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

207📚🔭 ScienceCell Biology

In the cell cycle, DNA replication is followed by........

Explanation

In the eukaryotic cell cycle, DNA replication occurs during the S (Synthesis) phase. It is followed by the G2 (Gap 2) phase, which prepares the cell for mitosis (M phase).

سیل سائیکل میں، ڈی این اے کی نقل (DNA Replication) ایس (S) فیز میں ہوتی ہے، جس کے فوراً بعد جی 2 (G2) فیز آتا ہے جو خلیے کو تقسیم (M phase) کے لیے تیار کرتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

208📚🔭 ScienceLakes & Waterbodies

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Wular Lake is an example of tectonic lake
b. Dal lake is an example of crater lake
c. Surinsar-Mansar lakes are Ramsar sites
d. Manasbal Lake is a saltwater lake

Explanation

Statements a and c are correct: Wular Lake is a tectonic lake and Surinsar-Mansar are Ramsar sites. Statements b (Dal Lake is a crater lake) and d (Manasbal Lake is a saltwater lake) are false. Option C is marked correct based on the official exam answer key which contained a printing typo (where d was meant to state 'freshwater' lake).

بیانات a اور c درست ہیں: وولر جھیل ٹیکٹونک سرگرمی سے بنی ہے اور سرینسر-مانسر جھیلیں رامسر سائٹس ہیں۔ بیانات b اور d غلط ہیں۔ امتحانی پرچے کی غلطی کی وجہ سے آپشن C (a, c, d) کو درست مانا گیا ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

209📚📚 Social ScienceIndian Geography

Which of the following is NOT a lagoon?

Explanation

Periyar Lake is a freshwater artificial reservoir created by the construction of the Mullaperiyar Dam on the Periyar River. Vembanad, Chilika, and Pulicat are coastal brackish water lagoons.

پیریاڑ جھیل (Periyar Lake) ایک مصنوعی میٹھے پانی کا ذخیرہ ہے جو ڈیم بنانے سے وجود میں آیا، جبکہ ویمباناد، چلکا اور پلیکٹ ساحلی کھارے پانی کی جھیلیں (Lagoons) ہیں۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

210📚🔭 ScienceLimnology

Streams that flow only during and immediately after rain are

Explanation

Ephemeral streams flow briefly only during and immediately after periods of precipitation. Intermittent streams flow regularly during wet seasons when fed by groundwater.

ایسے ندیاں اور نالے جو صرف بارش کے دوران یا بارش کے فوراً بعد بہتے ہیں، انہیں عارضی یا ایفیمیرل ندیاں (Ephemeral Streams) کہا جاتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

211📚🔭 ScienceAquaculture

Hypophysation success in IMCs was achieved by Hiralal Chaudhuri and K. H. Alikunhi for the first time in the year

Explanation

Hypophysation (induced breeding of carps using pituitary gland extracts) was successfully achieved for the first time in Indian Major Carps (IMCs) by Hiralal Chaudhuri and K.H. Alikunhi on July 10, 1957 at Cuttack.

ہندوستانی بڑی کارپ مچھلیوں (IMCs) میں پٹیوٹری گلینڈ کے عرق سے مصنوعی انڈے دلوانے کا کامیاب تجربہ (Hypophysation) پہلی بار ہیرا لال چودھری اور کے-ایچ الیکونہی نے 1957 میں کیا تھا۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

212📚🔭 ScienceAquaculture

Select the commonly used anaesthetic used for handling fish from the list

Explanation

Tricaine methanesulfonate (also known as MS-222) is the most widely used and FDA-approved chemical anaesthetic used for sedating and handling fish during sampling or transport.

مچھلیوں کو پکڑنے، ان کا معائنہ کرنے یا منتقلی کے دوران بے ہوش کرنے کے لیے عام طور پر استعمال ہونے والا کیمیکل ٹرائیکین میتھین سلفونیٹ (MS-222) ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

213📚🔭 ScienceFish Processing

Fish used for preparation of surimi in India

Explanation

Nemipterus japonicus (Japanese threadfin bream, locally called pink perch) is the major fish species utilized for the commercial production of surimi (fish paste) in India due to its excellent gel-forming capacity.

ہندوستان میں سوریمی (Surimi - مچھلی کا پیسٹ) بنانے کے لیے سب سے زیادہ استعمال ہونے والی مچھلی نیمیپٹیرس جاپونیکس (Nemipterus japonicus - پنک پرچ) ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

214📚🔭 ScienceFish Processing

Which of the following statements are true regarding GMP?
a. Fishes caught at different times are mixed and chilled immediately
b. Fishes of all sizes are chilled /pre-processed together
c. Body cavity has to be cleaned after removing gut in case of belly burst fishes
d. Fish should be handled on platforms and not on grounds

Explanation

Statements c and d are true. Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) require that belly-burst fish have their body cavities washed thoroughly to remove digestive enzymes and contaminants, and fish must be handled on clean platforms rather than the bare ground to prevent contamination. Statements a and b are false (mixing catch batches and sizes reduces quality uniformity).

بیانات c اور d درست ہیں۔ اچھی مینوفیکچرنگ کی پریکٹسز (GMP) کے مطابق مچھلیوں کو ننگے فرش کے بجائے صاف ستھرے پلیٹ فارم پر ہینڈل کرنا چاہیے اور ان کی باڈی کیویٹی کو گٹ نکالنے کے بعد اچھی طرح دھونا چاہیے۔ بیانات a اور b غلط ہیں۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

215📚🔭 ScienceAquaculture

Kunka is used to measure fish seed in---- technique

Explanation

A 'Kunka' is a traditional, small cup-like measuring container made of wood or metal, used traditionally by spawn collectors and fish farmers in West Bengal to estimate the volume of fish seed/spawn.

کُنکا (Kunka) ماہی پروری کی روایتی (Traditional) تکنیک میں مچھلیوں کے بیج (Spawn/Seed) کو ناپنے کا لکڑی یا دھات کا ایک روایتی چھوٹا برتن ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

216📚🔭 ScienceSport Fishing

This is called the 'Best game fish destination

Explanation

The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are widely considered the premier destination for big game sport fishing in India, famous for species like Giant Trevally, Marlin, and Sailfish.

جزائر انڈمان اور نکوبار (Andaman and Nicobar) کو ہندوستان میں سمندری کھیل کی مچھلیوں کے شکار (Game Fishing) کا بہترین مقام مانا جاتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department

217📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KRivers of J&K

The Kishanganga River is a major tributary of which river system?

Explanation

The Kishanganga River (known as the Neelum River in Pakistan-administered Kashmir) is a major tributary of the Jhelum River, joining it near Muzaffarabad.

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

218📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCulture of J&K

The traditional full-length loose gown worn by people in Kashmir to protect themselves from severe winter cold is called:

Explanation

Pheran is the traditional long, loose cloak worn by men and women in Kashmir, typically made of wool and worn over warm clothing during winter, often with a Kangri underneath.

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

219📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution

The Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A by which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Explanation

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a Fundamental Right.

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

220📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHydroelectric Projects

The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project is constructed on which river?

Explanation

The Baglihar Dam is a run-of-the-river power project built on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir.

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

221📚General EnglishIndian History

Who wrote the famous book 'The Discovery of India' during his imprisonment?

Explanation

The Discovery of India was written by Jawaharlal Nehru during his imprisonment at Ahmednagar Fort from 1942 to 1945.

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

222📚General EnglishTourism in J&K

Which picturesque tourist destination in Jammu and Kashmir is known as the 'Meadow of Gold'?

Explanation

Sonamarg is known as the 'Meadow of Gold' due to the golden-yellow flowers that bloom in summer and the sunlit snow-capped peaks surrounding it.

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223📚General EnglishIndian Geography

The Chilika Lake, the largest brackish water coastal lagoon in India, is located in which state?

Explanation

Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha state on the east coast of India.

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

224📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSynonyms

Choose the synonym of the word 'FRAGILE'.

Explanation

'Fragile' means easily broken or damaged. 'Brittle' is a close synonym, meaning hard but liable to break or shatter easily.

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225📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsAntonyms

Choose the antonym of the word 'GENUINE'.

Explanation

'Genuine' means authentic or real. Its opposite is 'Spurious', which means fake or false.

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

226📚General Intelligence & ReasoningComputer Security

A software program designed to infiltrate, damage, or disable computer systems without the user's consent is called:

Explanation

Malware (short for malicious software) is any software intentionally designed to cause damage to a computer, server, client, or computer network.

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

227📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal & Constitution

Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal?
a. Article 24
b. Article 21
c. Article 48 A
d. Article 51-A(g)

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act 2010 drawing inspiration from Article 21 (Right to a healthy environment), Article 48A (Duty of the State to protect the environment and forests), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental duty of citizens to protect nature). Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of child labour in factories.

نیشنل گرین ٹریبونل (NGT) آئین کے آرٹیکل 21، آرٹیکل 48A اور آرٹیکل 51A(g) سے منسلک ہے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

228📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewage Chemistry & Characteristics

The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage, respectively are

Explanation

Fresh sewage is slightly alkaline in nature with a typical pH of 7.3 to 7.8. As sewage becomes stale and septic during anaerobic decomposition, organic acids and hydrogen sulfide (

H_2S

) are generated, lowering the pH and making septic sewage acidic.

تازہ سیوریج الکلائن (Alkaline) ہوتا ہے جبکہ سیپٹک سیوریج تیزابی (Acidic) ہو جاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

229📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Digestion & Biogas

The main gas liberated from an anaerobic sludge digester is

Explanation

Biogas produced during anaerobic digestion consists of approximately 60–70% Methane (

CH_4

) and 30–40% Carbon Dioxide (

CO_2

), with trace amounts of hydrogen sulfide (

H_2S

) and nitrogen. Methane is the primary and most valuable combustible gas released.

اینیروبک سلج ڈائجیسٹر سے خارج ہونے والی اہم گیس میتھین (Methane -

CH_4

) ہے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

230📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRiver Self-Purification Zones

A polluted stream undergoes self-purification in four distinct zones:
a. Zone of clear water
b. Zone of Active decomposition
c. Zone of degradation
d. Zone of recovery

Explanation

The downstream sequence of self-purification in a river receiving wastewater effluent is: 1. Zone of degradation (c) → 2. Zone of active decomposition (b) → 3. Zone of recovery (d) → 4. Zone of clear water (a). Hence, the correct order is c, b, d, a.

کسی ندی میں گندے پانی کی خود صفائی کے زونز کی درست ترتیب: خرابی کا زون (c) ← فعال سڑن کا زون (b) ← بحالی کا زون (d) ← صاف پانی کا زون (a)۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

231📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Process & Methodology

Choose the correct sequence of steps adopted during the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process.

Explanation

The standardized logical sequence of the EIA process is: 1. Screening (determining if EIA is required) → 2. Scoping (identifying key issues & baseline requirements) → 3. Baseline Data Collection → 4. Impact Analysis & Mitigation → 5. Public Hearing / Consultation → 6. Decision Making & Environmental Clearance.

EIA کا صحیح سلسلہ: اسکریننگ ← اسکوپنگ ← ڈیٹا کا حصول ← اثرات کا تجزیہ ← عوامی سماعت ← فیصلہ سازی۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

232📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Screening Criteria

Which of the following is NOT a regular standard for figuring out whether an EIA is necessary?

Explanation

During the Screening stage of EIA, decision criteria focus strictly on environmental factors: project magnitude/scale, location in ecologically sensitive areas, and technical complexity. Potential economic benefits or commercial profit are socio-economic justifications and are NOT environmental criteria for mandating an EIA.

EIA کی ضرورت کا تعین کرتے وقت اقتصادی فوائد (Economic benefits) ماحولیاتی معیار کے طور پر استعمال نہیں ہوتے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

233📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyImpact Prediction Methodologies

Which of the following is not a material consideration when making impact predictions of environmental damage?

Explanation

When predicting environmental damage and ecological impacts, scientific considerations are duration (time), spatial extent (area), and magnitude (intensity). Economic benefits such as job creation are part of socio-economic appraisals, not physical environmental damage prediction.

ماحولیاتی نقصان کی پیشین گوئی میں ملازمتوں اور معاشی فوائد کو ماحولیاتی نقصان کے پیمانے کے طور پر نہیں دیکھا جاتا۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

234📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnergy Resources

Fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas are examples of:

Explanation

Fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) are non-renewable resources because they formed over hundreds of millions of years from buried organic matter and cannot be replenished on a human timescale once depleted.

کوئلہ، پٹرولیم، اور قدرتی گیس غیر قابل تجدید وسائل (Non-renewable resources) کی مثالیں ہیں۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

235📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRadiation Hazards & Health

Prolonged exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun can increase the risk of:

Explanation

Ultraviolet radiation (specifically UV-B and UV-A) damages the DNA of skin cells, leading to genetic mutations that substantially increase the risk of skin cancers (including malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma) and cataracts.

سورج سے آنے والی الٹرا وائلٹ (UV) تابکاری کی طویل نمائش جلد کے کینسر (Skin cancer) کا خطرہ بڑھاتی ہے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

236📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyHeavy Metal Ecotoxicology

Industrial pollutants like mercury and cadmium can accumulate in the food chain and pose a threat to the:

Explanation

Heavy metals like mercury (neurotoxin causing Minamata disease, ataxia, tremors) and cadmium bioaccumulate in tissues and severely damage the central nervous system, brain function, and renal tubules.

پارہ اور کیڈمیم جیسے صنعتی زہریلے مادے فوڈ چین میں جمع ہو کر اعصابی نظام (Nervous system) کے لیے سنگین خطرہ بنتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

237📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Digestion Fundamentals

Anaerobic digestion is a process that occurs in the absence of:

Explanation

Anaerobic digestion is a biological process in which specialized obligate and facultative anaerobic microorganisms break down biodegradable organic matter in the strict absence of dissolved or molecular free oxygen (

O_2

), generating biogas.

اینیروبک ڈائجیسشن (Anaerobic digestion) کا عمل آکسیجن کی غیر موجودگی میں سرانجام پاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

238📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringIndustrial Waste Management

The waste generated by the tannery industry is often characterized by:

Explanation

Tannery industrial effluents are characterized by extremely high organic matter loads (BOD/COD), high total dissolved solids, elevated sulfides, and toxic heavy metals like hexavalent/trivalent Chromium used during leather tanning.

چمڑا سازی کی صنعت (Tannery) کے فضلے میں زیادہ نامیاتی مواد اور زہریلے کیمیکلز (کرومیم وغیرہ) ہوتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

239📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSludge Yield & Loading Parameters

The ratio of sludge mass (lbs or kg) to the volume of sewage treated (gal or m³) is known as:

Explanation

The ratio measuring sludge solids mass relative to sewage volumetric loading is described as the Sludge Loading Rate (SLR) or Solids Volumetric Yield.

سلج کے وزن کا سیوریج کے حجم کے ساتھ تناسب سلج لوڈنگ ریٹ (Sludge Loading Rate) کہلاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

240📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNutrient Removal & Eutrophication

The efficiency of a wastewater treatment system in removing nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus is crucial to prevent:

Explanation

Nitrogen and phosphorus are limiting plant macronutrients. Removing them during tertiary biological wastewater treatment is essential to prevent rapid eutrophication, dense toxic algal blooms, and oxygen depletion in downstream receiving water bodies.

نائٹروجن اور فاسفورس کو صاف کرنا ندی نالوں میں الجی کے پھیلاؤ اور یوٹروفیکیشن کو روکنے کے لیے ضروری ہے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

241📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringMass Balance & Process Modeling

The performance of a wastewater treatment system is evaluated by comparing influent and effluent concentrations of pollutants. This comparison is done using:

Explanation

Mass balance analysis (conservation of mass principle:

\text{Mass In} = \text{Mass Out} + \text{Mass Accumulated} - \text{Mass Converted}

) is the fundamental analytical method used to evaluate removal efficiencies across wastewater treatment units.

ٹریٹمنٹ سسٹم کی کارکردگی کا جائزہ لینے کے لیے ماس بیلنس انالیسس (Mass balance analysis) کا طریقہ استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

242📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityAmmonia Toxicity in Aquatic Systems

Ammonia (NH3) in water can be harmful to aquatic life because it:

Explanation

Un-ionized ammonia (

NH_3

) easily diffuses across the gill membranes of fish and aquatic organisms, where even low concentrations (

> 0.05\text{ mg/L}

) induce cellular damage, disrupt internal organ function, reduce growth, and cause mortality.

امونیا (

NH_3

) زیادہ مقدار میں مچھلیوں اور آبی جانداروں کے لیے انتہائی زہریلا ہوتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

243📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePrecautionary Principle & Jurisprudence

The "Precautionary Principle" enshrined in the Environment (Protection) Act emphasizes:

Explanation

The Precautionary Principle states that where there are threats of serious or irreversible environmental damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective preventive measures.

حفاظتی اصول (Precautionary Principle) ماحولیاتی نقصان کے خطرے کی صورت میں پیشگی حفاظتی اقدامات پر زور دیتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

244📚🛡️ Disaster ManagementDisaster Management Planning

Disaster management plans are designed to:

Explanation

Disaster management plans structure preparedness, rapid response, resource mobilization, and recovery strategies to minimize loss of life, injury, and structural damage from major disasters.

ڈیزاسٹر مینجمنٹ پلانز بڑی ہنگامی صورتحال اور آفات کے منفی اثرات اور نقصانات کو کم کرنے کے لیے بنائے جاتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

245📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChlorination & Chloramines Formation

Consider the following statements:
a. In the disinfection process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
b. In the sedimentation process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
c. In the filtration process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
d. In the skimming process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct: During water disinfection with combined chlorine (chloramination), chlorine (

HOCl

) reacts with ammonia (

NH_3

) in water to form chloramines (

NH_2Cl, NHCl_2, NCl_3

) that provide long-lasting residual disinfection.

کلورامین مرکبات جراثیم کشی کے عمل (Disinfection) کے دوران کلورین اور امونیا کے ملاپ سے بنتے ہیں۔ (صرف بیان a درست ہے)۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

246📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityIS 10500 Water Standards: Fluoride & Coliforms

Consider the following statements:
a. Maximum permissible limit of Fluorides in drinking water is 1.5 ppm
b. E-coli is helpful for water purification.
c. Coliform group bacteria always found in colonies.
d. Maximum permissible limit of Fluorides in drinking water is 0.5 ppm
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct: According to Indian Standard IS 10500 and WHO guidelines, the maximum permissible limit of Fluoride in drinking water in the absence of an alternate source is

1.5\text{ ppm}

(

1.5\text{ mg/L}

). Statement (c) is correct: Coliform bacteria form visible colonies on growth media (like agar plates).

پینے کے پانی میں فلورائیڈ کی زیادہ سے زیادہ قابل قبول حد 1.5 ppm ہے اور کالیفارم بیکٹیریا کالونیوں میں پائے جاتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

247📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringGrit Separation & Wastewater Solids

Consider the following statements:
a. Grit represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
b. Chloramine represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
c. Ammonia represents the purity of water.
d. Plankton represents the fully treated wastewater.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct: Grit refers to the heavier, non-putrescible inorganic mineral matter (such as sand, gravel, eggshells, and silt) with specific gravity

> 2.0

present in wastewater.

گریٹ (Grit) سیوریج میں موجود ریت اور بھاری غیر نامیاتی ٹھوس مادے کی نمائندگی کرتا ہے۔ (صرف بیان a درست ہے)۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

248📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRiver Pollution & DO Sag Curve

Arrange the following zones of river water pollution in the correct sequence of their occurrence after the discharge of effluent.
1. Zone of clear water
2. Zone of pollution
3. Zone of recovery
4. Zone of active decomposition

Explanation

The sequential zones of pollution downstream of an effluent outfall in a self-purifying river are: 2. Zone of pollution (degradation) → 4. Zone of active decomposition → 3. Zone of recovery → 1. Zone of clear water.

ندی میں گندا پانی گرنے کے بعد زونز کا درست سلسلہ: آلودگی کا زون (2) ← فعال سڑن کا زون (4) ← بحالی کا زون (3) ← صاف پانی کا زون (1)۔

2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

249📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyEnvironmental Observance Days

Consider the following statements:
a) Earth Day is celebrated on March-22.
b) Ammonia is the form of carbonaceous impurity.
c) Potable water is a mineral water.
d) World Water Day is celebrated on March-22.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

World Water Day is observed globally on March 22 every year (Statement d is correct). Note: Earth Day is celebrated on April 22, Ammonia (

NH_3

) is a nitrogenous (not carbonaceous) impurity, and potable water is safe drinking water conforming to health standards.

عالمی یوم آب (World Water Day) ہر سال 22 مارچ کو منایا جاتا ہے۔ (صرف بیان d درست ہے)۔

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250📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyNitrogen Forms & Sewage Freshness

Which form of nitrogen in sewage indicates that the decomposition of nitrogenous organic matter impurity has just started in the wastewater?

Explanation

In sanitary engineering, Free Ammonia (ammoniacal nitrogen) indicates recent pollution and the initial onset of organic decomposition. Albuminoidal nitrogen represents undecomposed organic nitrogen, Nitrites (

NO_2^-

) indicate ongoing active decomposition, and Nitrates (

NO_3^-

) indicate fully stabilized past pollution.

سیوریج میں فری امونیا (Free Ammonia) ظاہر کرتا ہے کہ نامیاتی مادے کی سڑن ابھی شروع ہوئی ہے۔

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251📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyPhysical vs Chemical Water Parameters

Which among the following is NOT a physical characteristic?

Explanation

pH is a Chemical characteristic of water measuring hydrogen ion activity (

-\log_{10}[H^+]

). Color, Odour, Temperature, and Turbidity are Physical characteristics.

pH پانی کی کیمیائی خصوصیت ہے، جبکہ رنگ، بو اور درجہ حرارت جسمانی (Physical) خصوصیات ہیں۔

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252📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringAir Quality Monitoring Instruments

Which method is used for the analysis of

\text{NO}_2

in ambient air?

Explanation

Gas-phase Chemiluminescence (measuring light emitted when nitric oxide reacts with ozone: NO + O_3 → NO_2^* + O_2 → NO_2 + h
u) is the standard reference method for monitoring

NO_2

and

NO_x

in ambient air.

ہوا میں

\text{NO}_2

کی پیمائش کے لیے کیمی لومینیسینس (Chemiluminescence) کا طریقہ استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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253📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringThermal Stratification in Lakes

The layers formed by thermal stratification in lakes are:

Explanation

Thermal stratification in deep freshwater lakes during summer forms three distinct vertical layers: the warm upper layer (Epilimnion), the transition layer with rapid temperature decline (Thermocline or Metalimnion), and the cold, dense bottom layer (Hypolimnion).

جھیلوں میں درجہ حرارت کی تہوں کی تقسیم: ایپی لمینین (اوپری)، تھرموکلائن (درمیانی)، اور ہائپو لمینین (نچلی تہہ)۔

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254📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNoise Pollution Standards

What is the permissible limit of day time industrial noise as recommended by WHO?

Explanation

Under India's Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 and WHO industrial guidelines, the permissible ambient noise limit in Industrial areas during daytime (06:00 to 22:00) is

75\text{ dB(A)}~L_{eq}

.

صنعتی علاقوں میں دن کے وقت شور کی قابل قبول حد 75 ڈیسیبل (75 dB) ہے۔

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255📚Water Quality & Wastewater Engineering42nd Constitutional Amendment & Environment

Which amendment explicitly incorporated Article 48-A and 51-A (g) into the Constitution?

Explanation

The landmark 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Article 48A (Directive Principle directing the State to protect and improve the environment) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty of citizens).

42ویں آئینی ترمیم 1976 کے ذریعے آئین میں ماحولیات سے متعلق آرٹیکل 48-A اور 51-A(g) شامل کیے گئے۔

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256📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementEIA Methodology & Standards

Which of the following is NOT included during EIA?

Explanation

EIA requires rigorous quantitative empirical measurements, baseline comparison, and environmental management plans; superficial or vague qualitative-only scoring without baseline validation is inadequate.

EIA میں صرف مبہم معیاری بیانات کی بجائے مقداری پیمائش اور جامع ماڈلنگ لازمی ہوتی ہے۔

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257📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementSmog Definition & Formation

Smog is the mixture of

Explanation

The word 'smog' was originally coined by Dr. H.A. Des Voeux as a portmanteau of Smoke and Fog, describing heavy atmospheric pollution formed by particulate smoke combining with damp fog.

سموگ (Smog) دھوئیں (Smoke) اور دھند (Fog) کے ملاپ سے بنتی ہے۔

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258📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementAcid Rain Chemistry

Acid rain is caused by the presence of which pollutants in the atmosphere?

Explanation

Acid precipitation (

pH < 5.6

) is primarily caused by the atmospheric emission of Sulfur Dioxide (

SO_2

) and Nitrogen Oxides (

NO_x

), which react with water vapor, oxygen, and oxidants to form sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

) and nitric acid (

HNO_3

).

تیزابی بارش فضا میں سلفر ڈائی آکسائیڈ (

SO_2

) اور نائٹروجن آکسائیڈز (

NO_x

) کی موجودگی سے ہوتی ہے۔

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259📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementHealth Effects of Ozone Depletion

Which of the following diseases is majorly caused due to ozone depletion?

Explanation

Ozone layer thinning allows harmful ultraviolet-B (UV-B) radiation to penetrate to Earth's surface, causing cellular DNA damage that significantly increases the incidence of skin cancers (melanoma and carcinomas) and cataracts.

اوزون کی تہہ کے پتلے ہونے اور UV شعاعوں کے بڑھنے سے جلد کا کینسر (Skin cancer) لاحق ہوتا ہے۔

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260📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementTypes of BOD: CBOD & NBOD

How many types of biological oxygen demand (BOD) is present in water?

Explanation

There are 2 primary types of BOD exerted during wastewater stabilization: (1) Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (CBOD) due to the oxidation of organic carbon compounds, and (2) Nitrogenous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (NBOD) due to the nitrification of ammonia.

پانی میں حیاتیاتی آکسیجن کی مانگ (BOD) کی 2 اہم اقسام ہوتی ہیں: کاربونیشس BOD اور نائٹروجینس BOD۔

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261📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementBiochemical Oxygen Demand Concept

The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of a wastewater is a measure of

Explanation

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the empirical measure of the quantity of dissolved oxygen utilized by aerobic microorganisms during the biochemical oxidation and decomposition of biodegradable organic matter in water.

BOD گندے پانی میں نامیاتی مادے کو گلانے کے لیے بیکٹیریا کو درکار آکسیجن کی مقدار ہے۔

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262📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCement Industry Effluent Characteristics

Which waste characteristic is common in the effluent from the cement industry?

Explanation

Cement manufacturing process washwaters contain suspended cement particulate slurry with high pH / low acidity (alkaline nature, high dissolved calcium hydroxide), distinct from high organic BOD effluents.

سیمنٹ انڈسٹری کا فضلہ بنیادی طور پر الکلائن اور معلق ذرات پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے، جس میں نامیاتی BOD نہیں ہوتا۔

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263📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationActivated Sludge Biological Removal

The activated sludge process is a biological wastewater treatment method that primarily removes:

Explanation

The Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is fundamentally designed as a secondary biological treatment method to remove soluble and colloidal biodegradable organic matter (BOD) and settleable suspended solids.

ایکٹیویٹڈ سلج پروسیس بنیادی طور پر نامیاتی مادے (BOD) اور معلق ٹھوس ذرات کو صاف کرتا ہے۔

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264📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationGIS Site Suitability in EIA

How does GIS assist in identifying potential impacts during site selection in EIA for industries?

Explanation

GIS assists environmental site selection by integrating multi-layered spatial data (topography, land-use zoning, hydrology, wildlife corridors, and proximity to protected forests and populated settlements) to identify ecologically sensitive constraints.

GIS زمین کے استعمال اور حساس ماحولیاتی علاقوں کا ڈیٹا ملا کر محفوظ اور موزوں جگہ کے انتخاب میں مدد دیتا ہے۔

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265📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationDisaster Management Objectives

What is the primary goal of a disaster management plan?

Explanation

The primary objective of all disaster management planning is to prevent hazards, build community resilience, and minimize the loss of human life, injury, property damage, and socio-economic disruption.

ڈیزاسٹر مینجمنٹ پلان کا بنیادی مقصد انسانی جان اور مالی نقصان کو کم سے کم کرنا ہے۔

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266📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Transportation & National Highways

NH-44 is the longest national highway in India with a length of ________ Kilometers running from ________ in the north to ________ in the south.

Explanation

National Highway 44 (NH-44) is the longest highway in India, measuring approximately 3,745 km (and extended up to 4,112 km), connecting Srinagar in the North to Kanyakumari in the South.

NH-44 ہندوستان کا سب سے لمبا قومی شاہراہ ہے جو سری نگر سے کنیا کماری تک پھیلا ہوا ہے۔

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267📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsFolk Dances of India

Popir is the folk dance of which Indian State?

Explanation

Popir is a traditional indigenous folk dance performed by the Galo tribe of Arunachal Pradesh during the Mopin spring festival.

پوپیر (Popir) اروناچل پردیش کے گالو قبیلے کا روایتی لوک رقص ہے۔

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268📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsFundamental Duties & Amendments

Which constitutional amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution?

Explanation

Fundamental Duties (Article 51A in Part IVA) were incorporated into the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee via the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.

بنیادی فرائض کو 42ویں آئینی ترمیم 1976 کے ذریعے آئین کے آرٹیکل 51A میں شامل کیا گیا۔

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269📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsEmergency Provisions & Fundamental Rights

Which Article of the Indian constitution describes the effect of a national emergency on fundamental rights?

Explanation

Articles 358 (automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19) and 359 (suspension of the enforcement of other fundamental rights except Articles 20 and 21) describe the effect of a National Emergency on fundamental rights.

آرٹیکل 358 اور 359 قومی ایمرجنسی کے دوران بنیادی حقوق کی معطلی کے اثرات کو بیان کرتے ہیں۔

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270📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsAtmospheric Inversion & Winter Smog

Which of the following reasons results in winter smog?

Explanation

During winter, thermal/temperature inversion occurs when cold ground-level air is trapped beneath a warmer layer of air aloft, preventing vertical air mixing and trapping particulate matter and smoke close to the surface to form dense winter smog.

درجہ حرارت کا الٹاؤ (Temperature inversion) آلودگی کو زمین کی سطح کے قریب قید کر لیتا ہے جس سے موسم سرما کا سموگ بنتا ہے۔

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271📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsMarine Biodiversity & Wildlife

Which of the following statements regarding Dugongs - marine mammals is/are correct?
1. The warm coastal waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans are home to dugongs.
2. Dugongs typically measure between 2.2 to 3.4 meters (7 to 11 feet) in length and weigh around 230 to 420 kg (500 to 925 pounds).
3. Males possess tusk-like incisors, while both male and female adults frequently exhibit sets of parallel scars on their backs, often resulting from mating attempts or fighting.

Explanation

All statements (1, 2, and 3) are factually correct. Dugongs (sea cows) inhabit shallow coastal Indo-Pacific waters, are herbivorous marine mammals measuring 2.2–3.4 m, and mature males grow tusk-like incisors.

ڈیوگونگ (Dugong) سے متعلق تینوں بیانات (1، 2 اور 3) درست ہیں۔

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272📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsKarkota Dynasty & Lalitaditya

Who among the following is known as the "Samudra Gupta of Kashmir" due to his significant rule during the Karkota dynasty between 724-761 A.D.?

Explanation

King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty is celebrated as the "Samudragupta of Kashmir" for his extensive military conquests across northern and central Asia and for constructing the magnificent Martand Sun Temple.

کرکوٹا خاندان کے راجہ للتا دتیہ مکتا پیڈ کو اپنی فتوحات کی وجہ سے "کشمیر کا سمدر گپت" کہا جاتا ہے۔

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273📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsTourist Destinations of J&K

Yusmarg is a hill station in Jammu and Kashmir is known as

Explanation

Yusmarg (in Budgam district of J&K) translates to the "Meadow of Jesus" in Kashmiri folklore and local tradition.

یوسمرگ (ضلع بڈگام) کو کشمیری زبان میں "عیسیٰ کا مرغزار" (Meadow of Jesus) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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274📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
Which of the following is NOT considered a renewable energy source?

Explanation

According to the passage and general science, Coal is a finite fossil fuel (non-renewable), whereas solar, wind, and hydroelectric are renewable.

کوئلہ (Coal) غیر قابل تجدید فوسل ایندھن ہے۔

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275📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
What is the primary goal of adopting sustainable energy?

Explanation

As stated in the passage: "One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels... which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution."

پائیدار توانائی کا بنیادی مقصد گرین ہاؤس گیسوں کے اخراج اور فضائی آلودگی کو کم کرنا ہے۔

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276📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
How is sustainable energy linked to global initiatives?

Explanation

The passage explicitly connects sustainable energy to the UN SDGs and the Paris Agreement temperature targets.

پائیدار توانائی اقوام متحدہ کے SDGs اور پیرس معاہدے سے منسلک ہے۔

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277📚General EnglishIdioms & Phrases

Which of the following options does NOT express the correct meaning of the given idiom/Phrase:
Wet blanket

Explanation

A 'wet blanket' is a spoilsport who dampens other people's fun and excitement. Option D expresses the exact opposite and does NOT express its meaning.

'Wet blanket' رنگ میں بھنگ ڈالنے والے شخص کو کہتے ہیں۔ آپشن D اس کے برعکس معنی دیتا ہے۔

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278📚General EnglishSpelling Rules

Out of the four options, choose the option bearing the correct spelling.

Explanation

The correctly spelled word is 'Luxuriant' (meaning rich, lush, and profuse in growth).

صحیح ہجے والا لفظ 'Luxuriant' ہے۔

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279📚Knowledge of ComputersCybersecurity & Malware

Which of the following replicate itself to slow down the computer system?

Explanation

A computer Worm is a standalone self-replicating malware program that actively propagates copies of itself across networks and memory without needing a host program, consuming bandwidth and system resources to slow down systems.

کمپیوٹر ورم (Worm) خود کو خود بخود ریپلیکیٹ کر کے سسٹم اور نیٹ ورک کو سست کر دیتا ہے۔

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280📚Knowledge of ComputersFirewall vs Antivirus

Which of the following is false?

Explanation

Statement B is false: A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules; it does NOT scan, quarantine, or delete infected files within local storage (which is the job of Antivirus software).

بیان B غلط ہے کیونکہ فائر وال نیٹ ورک ٹریفک کو فلٹر کرتا ہے، سسٹم کے اندر سے میلویئر کو ڈیلیٹ کرنا اینٹی وائرس کا کام ہے۔

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281📚Knowledge of ComputersInformation Technology Fundamentals

Which of the following is NOT a component of Information Technology?

Explanation

Information Technology (IT) revolves around computer software, networking systems, databases, and digital architectures (like Blockchain and OS). Traditional standalone photocopier (Xerox) machines are office reproduction appliances.

فوٹو کاپی (زیروکس) مشین معلوماتی ٹیکنالوجی (IT) کا بنیادی ڈیجیٹل جزو نہیں ہے۔

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282📚General Intelligence & ReasoningLetter Classification

Which group of letters is different from others?

Explanation

In CBAED (C-B-A followed by E-D), IJHGK (I-J-H-G-K), and SRQPT, letters follow a backwards reverse pattern. TVWYZ follows a forward alphabetic progression.

TVWYZ باقی تمام گروپس سے مختلف ہے۔

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283📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers and Tributaries of J&K

Kishanganga is an important tributary of which of the following rivers?

Explanation

The Kishanganga River (known as the Neelum River in Pakistan-administered Kashmir) is a major right-bank tributary of the Jhelum River, joining it near Muzaffarabad.

کشن گنگا (نیلم) دریائے جہلم کا ایک اہم معاون دریا ہے۔

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284📚🌍 General KnowledgeUN Security Council

How many non-permanent members does UN Security Council have?

Explanation

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is composed of 15 members: 5 permanent members (P5) and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly.

اقوام متحدہ کی سلامتی کونسل (UNSC) میں 10 غیر مستقل ارکان (Non-permanent members) ہوتے ہیں۔

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285📚📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & 44th Amendment

Which of the following is NOT related to fundamental rights?

Explanation

The Right to Property was repealed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and converted into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.

حق جائیداد (Right to property) 44ویں ترمیم کے بعد بنیادی حق نہیں رہا بلکہ آرٹیکل 300A کے تحت ایک قانونی حق ہے۔

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286📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementNon-Profit Organization Accounting

The account which shows the classified summary of transactions of a cash book in a non-trading concern is known as

Explanation

In Non-Profit / Non-Trading Organisations, the Receipt and Payment Account is a classified summary of all cash and bank receipts and payments during an accounting period.

نان ٹریڈنگ اداروں میں کیش بک کے لین دین کا خلاصہ 'Receipt and Payment Account' کہلاتا ہے۔

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287📚📊 EconomicsSectors of the Economy

Banking sector comes under which of the following sectors?

Explanation

Banking, insurance, finance, and tourism provide commercial services and are classified under the Tertiary / Service Sector of the economy.

بینکنگ سیکٹر سروس سیکٹر یعنی خدمات کے شعبے (Service sector) کا حصہ ہے۔

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288📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementRectification of Errors

Which of the following is not an error of principle?

Explanation

Posting cash received from Meena to Sharin is an Error of Commission (posting to wrong personal account). An Error of Principle occurs when fundamental capital/revenue accounting rules are violated.

مینا سے موصولہ رقم کو شارین کے کھاتے میں لکھنا ایرر آف کمیشن ہے، اصول کی غلطی (Error of principle) نہیں۔

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289📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementAccounting Equation

When assets are subtracted from liabilities it will be equal to?

Explanation

According to the fundamental accounting equation:

\text{Assets} - \text{Liabilities} = \text{Capital (Owner's Equity)}

.

اثاثوں میں سے واجبات کو منہا کرنے پر مالک کا سرمایہ یعنی کیپیٹل (Capital) حاصل ہوتا ہے۔

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290📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCash and Cash Equivalents

A current asset that can be transferred into cash within three months is known as:

Explanation

Cash Equivalents are short-term, highly liquid investments that are readily convertible to known amounts of cash and subject to an insignificant risk of changes in value (typically maturity

\le 3

months).

وہ قلیل مدتی اثاثے جو 3 ماہ کے اندر نقد رقم میں تبدیل ہو سکتے ہیں، کیش ایکولینٹ (Cash equivalent) کہلاتے ہیں۔

2024JKSSBFinance Department

291📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange & Days of Grace

What are the three additional days known as that a drawer gives to the drawee for payment?

Explanation

Under Section 22 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, three extra days allowed to the drawee for payment beyond the nominal maturity date are legally called 'Days of Grace'.

بل آف ایکسچینج میں ادائیگی کے لیے دیے جانے والے 3 اضافی دن 'ڈیز آف گریس' (Days of grace) کہلاتے ہیں۔

2024JKSSBFinance Department

292📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementInventory Valuation: FIFO vs LIFO

In periods of inflation, the impact of change in the method of valuation of inventories from LIFO method to FIFO method will cause:

Explanation

During inflation, FIFO assigns older (cheaper) costs to Cost of Goods Sold (COGS), resulting in a lower COGS and consequently higher reported net profit and higher closing inventory valuation.

مہنگائی کے دوران LIFO سے FIFO پر منتقل ہونے سے اشیاء کی لاگت (COGS) کم ہو جاتی ہے اور منافع بڑھ جاتا ہے۔

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293📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementAccounting Cycle & Objectives

________ is the last step of accounting as a process of information.

Explanation

Accounting is the process of identifying, measuring, recording, classifying, summarizing, analyzing, interpreting, and finally Communicating financial information to users.

اکاؤنٹنگ کے عمل کا آخری مرحلہ معلومات کو متعلقہ صارفین تک پہنچانا (Communication of information) ہے۔

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294📚📖 General EnglishComprehension Passage: Stone Age

Read the passage given below to answer the question:

"The Stone Age was a period of history that began approximately 2 million BC and lasted until 3000 BC, deriving its name from the stone tools and weapons discovered by modern scientists. This period was divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic periods. During the First Age (2 million to 8000 BC), the first hatchets and the use of fire for heating and cooking were developed.

As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about 1 million years into the Paleolithic era, humans were forced to shelter in caves, wear clothing, and develop new tools. During the Mesolithic period (8000 to 6000 BC), people made crude pottery and took dogs for hunting with the first fish hook and developed a bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century BC. The Neolithic period (6000 to 3000 BC) saw mankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, becoming less nomadic than in earlier periods, establishing permanent settlements and forming governments."

Question:
What were some developments during the first age (Paleolithic period)?

Explanation

As stated in the passage: "During the First Age (2 million to 8000 BC) the first hatchets and the use of fire for heating and cooking were developed."

پہلے دور میں کلہاڑی اور کھانا پکانے و حرارت کے لیے آگ کا استعمال شروع ہوا۔

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295📚📖 General EnglishComprehension Passage: Stone Age

Read the passage given below to answer the question:

"The Stone Age was a period of history that began approximately 2 million BC and lasted until 3000 BC, deriving its name from the stone tools and weapons discovered by modern scientists. This period was divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic periods. During the First Age (2 million to 8000 BC), the first hatchets and the use of fire for heating and cooking were developed.

As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about 1 million years into the Paleolithic era, humans were forced to shelter in caves, wear clothing, and develop new tools. During the Mesolithic period (8000 to 6000 BC), people made crude pottery and took dogs for hunting with the first fish hook and developed a bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century BC. The Neolithic period (6000 to 3000 BC) saw mankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, becoming less nomadic than in earlier periods, establishing permanent settlements and forming governments."

Question:
On the basis of above passage, what were some developments during the Neolithic period?

Explanation

As directly stated in the passage: "The Neolithic period (6000 to 3000 BC) saw mankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, becoming less nomadic than in earlier periods, establishing permanent settlements and forming governments."

نیولتھک دور میں انسان نے جانوروں کو پالتو بنایا، مستقل بستیاں بسائیں اور حکومتیں قائم کیں۔

2024JKSSBFinance Department

296📚🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsContinuity Equation & Pipe Flow

During designing water supply line of a housing complex, two distribution pipes of different diameter

2\text{ cm}

, and

6\text{ cm}

respectively are connected with the main supply pipe line. The velocity of flow of water in the pipe of

2\text{ cm}

diameter is

Explanation

By continuity for equal flow,

A_1 V_1 = A_2 V_2 \implies V_1 / V_2 = (D_2 / D_1)^2 = (6 / 2)^2 = 3^2 = 9

. The velocity in the

2\text{ cm}

pipe is 9 times that in the

6\text{ cm}

pipe.

کنٹینیوٹی مساوات کے مطابق رفتار قطر کے مربع کے الٹ متناسب ہوتی ہے:

(6/2)^2 = 9

گنا۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti

297📚🌊 Irrigation & Water Resources EngineeringReservoirs & Dams

Considering,
(i) Controlling flood
(ii) Generating hydropower
(iii) Preventing loss of water in percolation from fields
(iv) Sewage disposal.
A reservoir is used for
Correct answer is

Explanation

Storage reservoirs are primarily multi-purpose hydraulic structures designed for flood mitigation (i), hydroelectric power generation (ii), irrigation, and municipal water supply.

ذخائر آب (Reservoirs) کا بنیادی مقصد سیلاب کی روک تھام (i) اور پن بجلی پیدا کرنا (ii) ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti

298📚📊 Contracts & TendersSecurity Deposit & Retention Money

Statement 1: Security deposit is an amount of money which is nonrefundable, even after the maintenance period is over.
Statement 2: Retention money always forfeited by the department even after the finalization of maintenance or adjustment of the claim is over.
The correct combination is

Explanation

Both statements are individually false. Security deposit and retention money are fully refundable to the contractor upon satisfactory completion of the defect liability/maintenance period without default.

دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں کیونکہ سیکورٹی ڈپازٹ اور ریٹینشن منی دونوں دیکھ بھال کی مدت مکمل ہونے کے بعد ٹھیکیدار کو واپس مل جاتی ہیں۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti

299📚🏗️ Structural AnalysisSpace Trusses: Tetrahedron

The simplest space frame or truss consists of six members joined to form

Explanation

The fundamental, simplest stable 3-dimensional space truss is a Tetrahedron, consisting of 6 members connecting 4 triangular joints (

m = 3j - 6 = 3(4) - 6 = 6

).

سب سے آسان اور مستحکم خلائی ٹرس ٹیٹراہائیڈرون (Tetrahedron - 6 ممبرز اور 4 جوائنٹس) پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti

300📚🏗️ Building Materials & ConcreteCement Testing: Setting Time

The diameter of needle used in Vicat's apparatus for the determination of initial setting time is prescribed as

Explanation

Under IS 4031 (Part 5), the needle used in Vicat's apparatus for measuring the Initial Setting Time of cement is a

1\text{ mm}

square (or

1.13\text{ mm}

dia round) needle.

سیمنٹ کا ابتدائی سیٹنگ ٹائم معلوم کرنے کے لیے ویکاٹ اپریٹس میں 1 ملی میٹر کی سوئی استعمال ہوتی ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti

301📚🌱 Soil Mechanics & Geotechnical EngineeringTriaxial Shear Tests

In a triaxial compression test when drainage is allowed during the first stage (i.e. application of cell pressure) only and not during the second stage (i.e. application of deviator stress at constant cell pressure), the test is known as

Explanation

A triaxial test where consolidation (drainage) is permitted under confining cell pressure in Stage 1 and drainage valves are closed during shear (deviator stress) in Stage 2 is called a Consolidated Undrained (CU) test.

اس ٹیسٹ کو کنسولیڈیٹڈ ان ڈرینڈ (CU - Consolidated Undrained) ٹیسٹ کہا جاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti

302📚🌊 Irrigation & Water Resources EngineeringReservoir Storage Levels

Full Reservoir Level (FRL) is:

Explanation

Full Reservoir Level (FRL) represents the maximum conservation water level to which the storage surface will rise during normal operating conditions without spilling (Both A and C are synonymous).

فل ریزروائر لیول (FRL) معمول کے حالات میں ریزروائر کی زیادہ سے زیادہ پانی کی سطح کو ظاہر کرتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti

303📚🌱 Soil Mechanics & Dam EngineeringSeepage & Phreatic Line in Earthen Dams

The line in a dam section below which there are positive hydrostatic pressure within the dam?

Explanation

The Phreatic Line (also called Seepage Line or Saturation Line) is the top streamline of seepage through an earthen dam section along which pressure is atmospheric, and below which positive hydrostatic pore water pressure exists.

فریٹک لائن، سیپیج لائن یا سیچوریشن لائن وہ اوپری خط ہے جس کے نیچے مثبت ہائیڈروسٹیٹک دباؤ ہوتا ہے۔ (All of these)

2023JKSSBPublic Works Department (R&B) / Jal Shakti

304📚General EnglishClimate Change & UNFCCC

Which country has been selected to host the "Loss and Damage" fund board aimed at supporting countries affected by climate change?

Explanation

The Philippines (Manila) was officially selected to host the Board of the 'Loss and Damage' Fund established under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) at COP28 to assist vulnerable nations facing climate disasters.

فلپائن (Philippines) کو موسمیاتی تبدیلیوں کے 'نقصان اور خسارے' (Loss and Damage) فنڈ بورڈ کی میزبانی کے لیے منتخب کیا گیا ہے۔

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305📚General EnglishDams & Multi-Purpose River Projects

Indira Sagar Dam located in Madhya Pradesh is built on which of the following river?

Explanation

Indira Sagar Dam is a multi-purpose project located in Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh, constructed on the Narmada River.

مدھیہ پردیش کا اندرا ساگر ڈیم دریائے نرمدا (Narmada) پر بنایا گیا ہے۔

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306📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners

I saw ______ good deal of him during ______ war.

Explanation

The idiomatic quantitative phrase is 'a good deal of' (meaning a great deal/lot), and 'the war' refers to a specific known historical conflict. Correct: "I saw a good deal of him during the war."

صحیح آرٹیکلز: 'a' good deal of him during 'the' war (Option D)۔

2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments

307📚General EnglishCybersecurity & Email Encryption

Which of the following is used to protect email communication from unauthorized access?

Explanation

End-to-end Encryption (such as PGP/GPG and S/MIME) encodes email plaintext into ciphertext, protecting communication from interception and unauthorized reading.

ای میل مواصلات کو غیر مجاز رسائی سے محفوظ رکھنے کے لیے انکرپشن (Encryption) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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308📚General EnglishHydropower Projects in India & J&K

Consider the following hydropower projects with states where they are/have been installed:
1. Naitwar Mori Hydro Electric Project - Uttarakhand
2. Parbati Hydroelectric Project (III) - Himachal Pradesh
3. Ratle Hydroelectric Project - Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

All three pairs are correct: 1. Naitwar Mori (

60\text{ MW}

) on Tons river in Uttarakhand, 2. Parbati Stage-III (

520\text{ MW}

) in Himachal Pradesh, 3. Ratle (

850\text{ MW}

) on Chenab river in Kishtwar, J&K. Option D (1, 2 & 3).

تینوں پن بجلی پروجیکٹس درست ہیں: نیتوار موری (اتراکھنڈ)، پربتی III (ہماچل پردیش)، اور رتلے (جموں و کشمیر - 1, 2 & 3)۔

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309📚General EnglishBridges & Strategic Infrastructure in J&K

Draj Bridge is situated in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

The

72\text{ m}

long Draj Bridge, constructed by Border Roads Organisation (BRO) over Draj Nallah on Rajouri-Kotranka-Budhal road, is located in the Rajouri district of Jammu and Kashmir.

دراج پل (Draj Bridge) بارڈر روڈز آرگنائزیشن کی طرف سے جموں و کشمیر کے ضلع راجوری (Rajouri) میں تعمیر کیا گیا ہے۔

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310📚Basic Concepts of ComputersHydropower Projects on Chenab

The Salal Hydroelectric Power Station is built across which river in Jammu and Kashmir (J&K)?

Explanation

The

690\text{ MW}

Salal Hydroelectric Power Station is a run-of-the-river project built across the Chenab River near Reasi in Jammu and Kashmir.

سلالم ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک پاور اسٹیشن دریائے چناب (Chenab) پر ضلع ریاسی میں واقع ہے۔

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311📚General EnglishPrepositions

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.
The team worked tirelessly

\underline{\hspace{1cm}}

the guidance of their coach to improve their performance

\underline{\hspace{1cm}}

the challenging season.

Explanation

Standard idiomatic English uses 'under the guidance of' and 'during the challenging season'. Correct: "under, during".

رہنمائی کے لیے 'under the guidance' اور مدت کے لیے 'during the season' درست ہے۔ (under, during)

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312📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KHydropower Projects in J&K

Salal Hydroelectric Project is situated in

Explanation

The Salal Hydroelectric Project (

690\text{ MW}

) is constructed on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.

سلالم ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک پروجیکٹ جموں و کشمیر کے ضلع ریاسی میں دریائے چناب پر واقع ہے۔

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313📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KHydropower Projects on Chenab

The Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is situated in?

Explanation

The

624\text{ MW}

Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is a run-of-the-river scheme being constructed on the Chenab River in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir by CVPPPL.

کیرو ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک پاور پروجیکٹ (Kiru Project) جموں و کشمیر کے ضلع کشتواڑ میں دریائے چناب پر زیر تعمیر ہے۔

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314📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityTunnels & Highways in India

India's longest road tunnel is

Explanation

The Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 in Jammu and Kashmir is India's longest bi-directional road tunnel, stretching

9.28\text{ km}

(

5.8\text{ miles}

).

شیاما پرساد مکھرجی ٹنل (چینانی-ناشری ٹنل - 9.28 کلومیٹر) ہندوستان کی سب سے لمبی روڈ ٹنل ہے۔

2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments

315📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCybersecurity: Firewalls

What is computer firewall?

Explanation

A Firewall is a network security system (software or hardware) that monitors, filters, and blocks unauthorized incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.

فائر وال ایک سیکیورٹی سسٹم ہے جو انٹرنیٹ نیٹ ورک اور کمپیوٹر کو غیر مجاز رسائی اور خطرات سے محفوظ رکھتا ہے۔

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316📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringTheory of Machines: Flywheels

The rotational speed of an automobile engine fluctuates between

210\text{ rad/sec}

and

190\text{ rad/sec}

. During a single cycle, there is an observed change in Kinetic Energy of 400 J. What is the mass inertia of the flywheel about its central axis, represented in

\text{kg-m}^2

?

Explanation

Mean angular velocity

\omega_{mean} = \frac{210 + 190}{2} = 200\text{ rad/s}

. Fluctuation of energy

\Delta E = I \omega_{mean} (\omega_1 - \omega_2) \implies 400 = I \times 200 \times (210 - 190) = 4000 I \implies I = \frac{400}{4000} = 0.10\text{ kg}\cdot\text{m}^2

.

فلائی وہیل کا ماس انرشا

I = \frac{\Delta E}{\omega (\omega_1 - \omega_2)} = \frac{400}{200 \times 20} = 0.10\text{ kg-m}^2

ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

317📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Casting Defects

Misruns and cold shuts in sand casting arise from:

Explanation

Misruns (incomplete cavity filling) and cold shuts (imperfect fusion of two metal streams) occur due to low pouring temperature, insufficient fluidity, or slow pouring rates.

کاسٹنگ میں مس رنز اور کولڈ شٹس پگھلی ہوئی دھات کا درجہ حرارت کم (Lower pouring temperature) ہونے کی وجہ سے پیدا ہوتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

318📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Technology: Chvorinov's Rule

The volume of a cube with side '

l

' and the volume of a sphere with radius '

r

' are equal. Both the cube and sphere are composed of the same material and are being cast. What is the ratio of the solidification time of the cube to that of the sphere?

Explanation

According to Chvorinov's Rule:

t_s \propto \left(\frac{V}{A}\right)^2

. Since

V_{cube} = V_{sphere}

, the ratio of solidification times is

\frac{t_{cube}}{t_{sphere}} = \left(\frac{A_{sphere}}{A_{cube}} ight)^2 = \left(\frac{4\pi r^2}{6 l^2}\right)^2 = \left(\frac{4\pi}{6}\right)^2 \left(\frac{r}{l}\right)^4

.

چورینوف کے قانون کے تحت جمنے کے وقت کا تناسب:

\left(\frac{4\pi}{6}\right)^{2}\left(\frac{r}{l}\right)^{4}

حاصل ہوتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

319📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMetrology & Inspection: Optical Flats

Of what material are optical flats typically made?

Explanation

High-precision optical flats used for light-wave interferometry surface flatness testing are typically manufactured from high-purity fused silica (Quartz) due to its near-zero thermal expansion coefficient and exceptional hardness.

آپٹیکل فلیٹس عام طور پر کوارٹز (Quartz) سے بنائے جاتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

320📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: 5S Lean Manufacturing

Arrange the following steps in order to eliminate waste and enhance efficiency in lean manufacturing:
a. Seiso
b. Shitsuke
c. Seiri
d. Seiketsu
e. Seiton

Explanation

The 5S methodology sequence is: 1. Seiri (Sort - c), 2. Seiton (Set in order - e), 3. Seiso (Shine - a), 4. Seiketsu (Standardize - d), 5. Shitsuke (Sustain - b). Correct sequence: c, e, a, d, b.

5S طریقہ کار کی درست ترتیب: 1. سیری (c)، 2. سیتون (e)، 3. سیسو (a)، 4. سیکیتسو (d)، 5. شیتسوکے (b) یعنی c, e, a, d, b ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

321📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: CNC Machine Components

In modern CNC machine tools, the backlash has been eliminated by:

Explanation

Preloaded recirculating ball screws eliminate backlash and axial play between the screw and nut in CNC machines, ensuring high positioning accuracy and minimum friction.

جدید CNC مشینوں میں بیک لیش کو ختم کرنے کے لیے پری لوڈڈ بال اسکرو (Preloaded ball screws) استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

322📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMechanical Vibrations: Critical Damping

A mass of 1 kg is attached to the end of a spring with a stiffness

0.7\text{ N/mm}

. The critical damping coefficient of this system will be:

Explanation

Stiffness

k = 0.7\text{ N/mm} = 700\text{ N/m}

, mass

m = 1\text{ kg}

. Critical damping coefficient

c_c = 2\sqrt{k m} = 2\sqrt{700 \times 1} = 2 \times 26.4575 = 52.92\text{ N}\cdot\text{s/m}

.

کریٹیکل ڈیمپنگ کوایفیشینٹ

c_c = 2\sqrt{km} = 2\sqrt{700 \times 1} = 52.92\text{ Ns/m}

ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

323📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringRefrigeration & Air Conditioning: Refrigerants

A good refrigerant must have ________ specific heat when it is in liquid state and ________ specific heat when it is vaporized.

Explanation

An ideal refrigerant should have low specific heat of liquid (to minimize subcooling heat losses and flashing during throttling) and high specific heat / high latent heat of vapor (to maximize refrigeration effect per unit mass flow).

ایک اچھے ریفریجرنٹ میں مائع حالت میں کم مخصوص حرارت اور بخاراتی حالت میں زیادہ مخصوص حرارت (Low, high) ہونی چاہیے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

324📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMaterial Science: Mechanical Properties

When a material is able to resist fracture due to high impact load is called:

Explanation

Toughness is the mechanical property of a material that enables it to absorb energy and deform plastically without fracturing under sudden shock or high impact loading (measured by Charpy/Izod tests).

اچانک لگنے والے اثرات (Impact loads) کو برداشت کرنے اور ٹوٹنے سے بچنے کی مادی صلاحیت کو ٹفنس (Toughness) کہتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

325📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Technology: Welding Joints

In single V-butt welds, the angle between edges is:

Explanation

In standard single V-groove butt welding joints, the included groove angle between the prepared plate edges typically ranges from

60^\circ

to

70^\circ

to ensure complete joint penetration.

سنگل وی بٹ ویلڈنگ میں کناروں کے درمیان کا زاویہ

60^\circ

سے

70^\circ

رکھا جاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

326📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Investment Casting

The pattern used in investment casting is:

Explanation

Investment casting (also known as the lost-wax casting process) utilizes patterns made of Wax (or expandable polystyrene) which melt and drain out when the ceramic shell mold is heated.

انویسٹمنٹ کاسٹنگ (Lost wax process) میں موم (Wax) کے پیٹرن استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

327📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Evaporative Pattern Casting

While using the disposable pattern, the metal should be poured:

Explanation

In full-mold / evaporative / disposable pattern casting (lost foam), molten metal must be poured rapidly to vaporize the foam pattern completely and prevent premature freezing or entrapment of pyrolysis residues.

ڈسپوزیبل پیٹرن کاسٹنگ میں پگھلی ہوئی دھات کو انتہائی تیزی سے (Very rapidly) ڈالا جانا چاہیے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

328📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMetrology: Comparators & Gauges

The dimension of bore 14.67mm in a workpiece is measured using:

Explanation

Pneumatic comparators/gauges (e.g. Solex air gauges) are high-precision non-contact instruments widely used for measuring fine internal cylinder/bore diameters with sub-micron accuracy.

بور کی باریک پیمائش کے لیے نیومیٹک گیج (Pneumatic gauge) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

329📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringThermodynamics: Heat and Work Interactions

Heat and work are:

Explanation

Heat (

Q

) and Work (

W

) are energy interactions in transit across a system boundary; they depend on the path followed during a process and are inexact differentials (Path functions, not thermodynamic state properties).

حرارت اور کام پاتھ فنکشنز (Path functions) ہیں، اسٹیٹ پراپرٹیز نہیں۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

330📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Casting Defects

Match the casting defects (Group A) with the probable causes (Group B):
Group A: 1. Cold Shut, 2. Shrinkage, 3. Blow holes, 4. Hot tears
Group B: P. Wide range of solidification temperature / contraction resistance, Q. Low permeability of the sand mould, R. Volumetric contraction both in liquid and solid stage, S. Improper fusion of two streams of liquid metal

Explanation

Cold Shut = Improper fusion of liquid streams (1-S); Blow holes = Trapped gases due to low mould permeability (3-Q); Shrinkage = Volumetric contraction during freezing (2-R); Hot tears = Severe thermal contraction stresses / wide solidification range (4-P). Match: 1-S, 3-Q, 2-R, 4-P.

کاسٹنگ کے نقائص کا درست ملاپ: 1-S، 3-Q، 2-R، 4-P ہے۔

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331📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Product-Process Mapping

Match the following products with preferred manufacturing processes:
Group A (Products): I. Rails, II. Engine crankshaft, III. Aluminium channels, IV. PET water bottles
Group B (Manufacturing Processes): P. Blow molding, Q. Extrusion, R. Forging, S. Rolling

Explanation

Railway Rails = Hot Rolling (I-S); Engine Crankshaft = Drop Forging (II-R); Aluminium Channels = Forward Hot Extrusion (III-Q); PET Water Bottles = Stretch Blow Molding (IV-P). Match: I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P.

مصنوعات اور مینوفیکچرنگ پروسیسز کا درست ملاپ: I-S، II-R، III-Q، IV-P ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

332📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Gating Systems

A gating ratio 1:2:4 is used to design the gating system for magnesium alloy casting. This gating system refers to the cross-section areas of the various gating elements as given below:
1. Down sprue
2. Runner bar
3. Ingate
The correct sequence of the above elements in the ratio 1:2:4 is:

Explanation

Gating ratio is standardly defined as

A_{sprue} : A_{runner} : A_{ingate}

. An unpressurized ratio of 1:2:4 corresponds directly to 1 (Down sprue) : 2 (Runner bar) : 3 (Ingate).

گیٹنگ ریشو

A_s : A_r : A_g = 1:2:4

کا مطلب ہے ڈاؤن اسپرو، رنر بار اور ان گیٹ (1، 2 اور 3)۔

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333📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMetrology: Surface Metrology & Gauges

Match the correct pairs between List-I and List-II:
List-I: P. Talysurf, Q. Telescopic gauge, R. Transfer callipers, S. Autocollimator
List-II: 1. T-slot, 2. Flatness / Straightness, 3. Internal diameter, 4. Roughness

Explanation

Talysurf = Surface roughness measurement (P-4); Telescopic gauge = Internal bore diameter (Q-3); Transfer calipers = Measuring recessed features/T-slots (R-1); Autocollimator = Straightness/flatness testing (S-2). Match: P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2.

پیمائشی آلات کا درست ملاپ: P-4، Q-3، R-1، S-2 ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

334📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: CNC Motion Control

NC contouring is an example of following positioning:

Explanation

Contouring in Numerical Control (NC) involves synchronized, simultaneous multi-axis interpolated motion along curved profile boundaries, representing a Continuous Path control system.

NC کنٹورنگ مسلسل پاتھ (Continuous path) پوزیشننگ کی مثال ہے۔

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335📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: Group Technology & Cellular Manufacturing

Consider the following statements:
P. Computer aided process planning (CAPP) takes input from material requirement plan (MRP).
Q. Production flow analysis helps in work cell formation.
R. Group technology takes input from choice of machining or cutting parameters.
Among the above statements, the correct one(s) is (are):

Explanation

Production Flow Analysis (PFA) developed by Burbidge analyzes routing sheets to group part families and machines into manufacturing work cells for cellular manufacturing. Thus, statement Q is correct.

پروڈکشن فلو اینالائسس (PFA) مینوفیکچرنگ ورک سیلز کی تشکیل میں مدد دیتا ہے (Q درست ہے)۔

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336📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringFluid Mechanics: Flow Measurement

The Venturi meter is based on the principle of:

Explanation

A Venturi meter measures discharge/flow rate in a pipe by accelerating the fluid through a converging throat constriction, creating a measurable differential pressure drop according to Bernoulli's principle.

وینچوری میٹر تنگ راستے میں پیدا ہونے والے پریشر کے فرق (Pressure difference in constriction) کی بنیاد پر کام کرتا ہے۔

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337📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Arc Welding

TIG welding stands for:

Explanation

TIG welding stands for Tungsten Inert Gas welding (also designated Gas Tungsten Arc Welding or GTAW), which uses a non-consumable tungsten electrode and an inert shielding gas (Argon/Helium).

TIG ویلڈنگ کا مکمل نام ٹنگسٹن انرٹ گیس (Tungsten Inert Gas) ویلڈنگ ہے۔

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338📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMachining & Machine Tools: Chip Formation

The material removed during machining is called:

Explanation

In metal cutting and machining terminology, the waste metallic debris and chips produced during cutting operations are formally termed Swarf (or chips).

مشیننگ کے دوران کٹ کر الگ ہونے والے میٹل کے ٹکڑوں کو سوارف (Swarf / Chips) کہتے ہیں۔

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339📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Casting Defects

A common defect in casting caused by improper mold compaction is called:

Explanation

Improper/uneven mould compaction and ramming leads to localized sand permeability variations, causing gas entrapment, pinholes, and mould surface porosity defects.

مولڈ کی نامناسب کمپیکشن کے باعث گیسوں کے پھنس جانے سے پوروسٹی (Porosity) کا نقص پیدا ہوتا ہے۔

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340📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: Fundamentals

CAM refers to:

Explanation

CAM stands for Computer-Aided Manufacturing, which uses specialized software and automated computer-controlled machinery (CNC/DNC) to plan, manage, and execute manufacturing operations.

CAM کا مطلب کمپیوٹر ایڈیڈ مینوفیکچرنگ (Computer-Aided Manufacturing) ہے۔

2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department

341📚General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Halogens & Bleaching

Bleaching action of chlorine is by

Explanation

Chlorine bleaches in the presence of moisture through Oxidation: Chlorine reacts with water to release nascent oxygen (\text{Cl}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} → 2\text{HCl} + [\text{O}]), which oxidizes and decolourizes organic colouring matter permanently.

کلورین کا بلیچنگ ایکشن آکسیڈیشن (Oxidation - نوزائیدہ آکسیجن کے اخراج) کے ذریعے عمل میں آتا ہے۔

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342📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electrical Instruments

Which device is used to measure the potential difference between two points in an electric circuit?

Explanation

A Voltmeter is an electrical measuring instrument connected in parallel across two circuit points to measure the electric potential difference (voltage) in Volts.

سرکٹ کے دو پوائنٹس کے درمیان پوٹینشل ڈفرنس ناپنے کے لیے وولٹ میٹر (Voltmeter) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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343📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Respiratory System

During respiration exchange of gases take place in

Explanation

In human respiratory anatomy, the exchange of oxygen (

\text{O}_2

) and carbon dioxide (

\text{CO}_2

) occurs across the thin, vascularized walls of microscopic air sacs called Alveoli in the lungs via simple diffusion.

سانس کے عمل کے دوران گیسوں کا تبادلہ پھیپھڑوں کے ایلوولی (Alveoli of lungs) میں ہوتا ہے۔

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344📚General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Rights: Right to Education (Art 21A)

Article 21A of the Indian Constitution provides Right to

Explanation

Article 21A, inserted into Part III of the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002), establishes free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for all children aged 6 to 14 years.

آئین ہند کی دفعہ 21A بچوں کے لیے مفت اور لازمی تعلیم کے بنیادی حق (Right to Education) کی ضمانت دیتی ہے۔

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345📚Basic EnglishHomophones & Vocabulary Usage

Which of the following sentence is/are correct?
I. The robbers' seas the money in the bank.
II. Tina seas three geese in the pond.
III. The sailor travelled the deep seas during the voyage.

Explanation

In Sentence I, 'seas' is misused instead of 'seize'. In Sentence II, 'seas' is misused instead of 'sees'. Sentence III correctly uses the noun 'seas' (ocean bodies). Thus, only III is correct.

صرف جملہ III درست ہے جہاں لفظ 'seas' (سمندر) کا درست استعمال ہوا ہے۔

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346📚General Awareness & ScienceTourism Icons of Kashmir

A traditional Gondola type lightweight rowing boat ride which is famous of the Dal Lake in Kashmir is referred to as

Explanation

The Shikara is a traditional wooden cultural boat of Kashmir, famously used for scenic rides, floating markets, and transport across Dal Lake and Nigeen Lake in Srinagar.

ڈل جھیل میں روایتی خوبصورت کشتی کی سواری کو شکارا رائیڈ (Shikara ride) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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347📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Scientific Instruments

Consider the following statement(s) is/are related to the device of Ammeter:
I: It is a measuring device used to measure the current in a circuit.
II: It is a measuring device used to measure the altitude of an object above a fixed level.
Which of following statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: An Ammeter is an electrical instrument connected in series to measure electric current in Amperes. Statement II describes an Altimeter, not an ammeter. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

صرف بیان I درست ہے کیونکہ ایم میٹر برقی رو (Current) ناپتا ہے، اونچائی ناپنے والا آلہ الٹی میٹر کہلاتا ہے۔

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348📚General Awareness & ScienceDemocratic Principles & Political Thinkers

Who defined democracy as a form of Government of the people, for the people and by the people?

Explanation

Abraham Lincoln, the 16th President of the United States, immortalized this definition of democracy during his historic Gettysburg Address in November 1863.

جمہوریت کی یہ مشہور تعریف ابراہم لنکن (Abraham Lincoln) نے اپنے خطبہ گیٹس برگ میں پیش کی تھی۔

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349📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Vitamins and Deficiency Diseases

Excessive bleeding during an injury is a deficiency of

Explanation

Vitamin K (phylloquinone) is an essential cofactor required for the hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation clotting factors (prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X); its deficiency leads to impaired blood clotting and prolonged hemorrhaging.

چوٹ لگنے پر خون کا مسلسل بہنا وٹامن K (Vitamin K) کی کمی کی علامت ہے۔

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350📚General Awareness & ScienceChemistry / Materials: Properties of Metals

Which one of the following mechanical properties enables a metal to be made into thin sheets?

Explanation

Malleability is the mechanical property of metals that allows them to be hammered, rolled, or pressed into thin foils and sheets without fracturing (e.g. Gold, Aluminium). (Ductility enables drawing into wires).

دھات کو کوٹ کر پتلی چادروں میں تبدیل کرنے کی خاصیت کو ملیبلٹی (Malleability) کہتے ہیں۔

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351📚General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Duties (Part IVA)

Fundamental duties are mentioned in

Explanation

Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part-IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution of India, incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

بنیادی فرائض آئین ہند کے حصہ IVA (دفعہ 51A) میں درج ہیں۔

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352📚Basic ReasoningLetter Analogy

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
EGJ:JLO :: ________ :TVY?

Explanation

Pattern is

+5

to each letter: E(+5)=J, G(+5)=L, J(+5)=O. Working backwards from TVY by subtracting 5: T(-5)=O, V(-5)=Q, Y(-5)=T

\implies

OQT.

حروف میں 5 کا اضافہ کیا گیا ہے۔ الٹا کرنے پر TVY سے OQT بنتا ہے۔

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353📚General Awareness & ScienceFundamentals of Ecology

Ecology deals with

Explanation

Ecology (from Greek 'oikos' meaning house) is the branch of biology that studies the interactions and interrelationships between living organisms and their abiotic/biotic environment.

ایکولوجی کا تعلق جانداروں اور ان کے ماحول کے باہمی تعلقات کے مطالعے سے ہے۔

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354📚General Awareness & ScienceEconomic Nationalism & Drain of Wealth

The theory of economic drain of India during British imperialism was propounded by

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji (the 'Grand Old Man of India') first formulated and popularized the 'Drain of Wealth' theory in his landmark book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (1901).

ہندوستان سے دولت کی غیر ملکی منتقلی کا نظریہ (Drain of Wealth) دادا بھائی نوروجی نے پیش کیا۔

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355📚General Awareness & ScienceBhakti Movement & Contemporary Rulers

Tulsidas, the author of Ramcharitmanas, was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?

Explanation

Goswami Tulsidas (1532–1623 CE), who composed the epic Awadhi poem 'Ramcharitmanas', lived during the 16th century reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.

رام چرت مانس کے مصنف گوسوامی تلسی داس مغل شہنشاہ اکبر کے ہم عصر تھے۔

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356📚General Awareness & ScienceNational Song vs National Anthem

The National Song of India was written and composed by

Explanation

The National Song of India, 'Vande Mataram', was written in Sanskritized Bengali by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his 1882 novel 'Anandamath'. (The National Anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' was composed by Rabindranath Tagore).

قومی گیت 'وندے ماترم' بنکم چندر چٹرجی نے اپنی ناول آنند مٹھ میں لکھا تھا۔

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357📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Sound Waves & Units

What is the unit for measuring the amplitude of a sound?

Explanation

The amplitude, sound pressure level, and loudness of acoustic sound waves are measured on a logarithmic scale in Decibels (dB).

آواز کی بلندی اور وسعت (Amplitude) ناپنے کی اکائی ڈیسی بل (Decibel - dB) ہے۔

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358📚General Awareness & ScienceDogri Language & Literature

Who is known as "Father of Dogri"?

Explanation

Prof. Ram Nath Shastri is universally revered as the 'Father of Dogri' for his pioneering efforts in founding the Dogri Sanstha in 1944 and securing national recognition for the Dogri language.

پروفیسر رام ناتھ شاستری کو ڈوگری زبان کی ترویج و ترقی کی وجہ سے 'بابائے ڈوگری' کہا جاتا ہے۔

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359📚General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Folk Dance: Rouf

On occasion of Eid, and during Ramzan, Kashmiri women performos

Explanation

Rouf is the quintessential traditional Kashmiri women's folk dance performed in facing rows with rhythmic footwork to celebrate festive occasions like Eid, spring festivals, and weddings.

عید اور رمضان کے پرمسرت مواقع پر کشمیری خواتین روایتی 'روف' (Rouf) رقص پیش کرتی ہیں۔

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360📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Title Identification

Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

Select best title for the above passage

Explanation

The entire passage focuses on Avinash's ambition, dedication, and journey in conceptualizing and developing his dream video game alongside supportive colleagues.

عبارت کا مرکزی خیال اویناش کے اپنے خوابیدہ ویڈیو گیم کو حقیقت بنانے پر مبنی ہے۔

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361📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Direct Facts

Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

What did Avinash and his colleagues do to secure funding for their game?

Explanation

The text explicitly states: "...they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality."

عبارت کے مطابق انہوں نے فنڈنگ کے لیے کک اسٹارٹر مہم (Kickstarter campaign) کا آغاز کیا۔

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362📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Direct Facts

Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

How did Avinash balance his job and game project?

Explanation

The text mentions: "Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization..."

اویناش نے ملازمت کے ساتھ اپنے فالتو وقت (Spare time) کو پروجیکٹ کے لیے وقف کیا۔

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363📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Vocabulary & Antonyms

Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

What is the opposite of the word: meticulously

Explanation

'Meticulously' means with great attention to detail, precision, and thoroughness. Its direct opposite is 'Sloppily' (carelessly, untidily).

'Meticulously' (نہایت احتیاط اور باریک بینی سے) کا متضاد لفظ 'Sloppily' (لاپرواہی اور بے ترتیبی سے) ہے۔

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364📚General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Folk Theatre: Bhand Pather

BhandPather is a traditional ________ of the region of Kashmir.

Explanation

Bhand Pather is a centuries-old traditional satirical folk theatre and dance-drama form of the Kashmir Valley, performed by traditional folk artists called Bhands.

بانڈ پاتھر (Bhand Pather) وادی کشمیر کا روایتی ڈرامائی اور طنزیہ لوک تھیٹر (Dance drama) ہے۔

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365📚General Awareness & ScienceWestern Disturbances & Winter Weather in Kashmir

The Kashmir region receives an additional amount of precipitation during the winter brought by which of the following?

Explanation

Winter precipitation (heavy snowfall and rain) across the Kashmir Himalayas is caused by Western Disturbances, which are extratropical cyclonic weather systems originating over the Mediterranean Sea.

کشمیر میں موسم سرما کی برف باری اور بارشیں مغربی ہوائی خلل یعنی ویسٹرن ڈسٹربنس (Western Disturbances) کی وجہ سے ہوتی ہیں۔

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366📚General Awareness & ScienceTourist Destinations in J&K

In which district of Jammu and Kashmir, is the famous hill station Doodhpathri, also known as the Valley of Milk, located?

Explanation

Doodhpathri ('Valley of Milk'), a picturesque alpine meadow and hill resort nestled in the Pir Panjal range, is situated in the Budgam district of the Kashmir Valley.

مشہور صحت افزا مقام دودھ پتھری جموں و کشمیر کے ضلع بڈگام (Budgam) میں واقع ہے۔

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367📚Basic ReasoningLetter-Number Analogy

876 : TSR :: 345 : ______

Explanation

Letters encoded in order: 8=T(20), 7=S(19), 6=R(18) (alphabet sequence moving backwards). For 3, 4, 5, the ascending consecutive three-letter block is PQR (or related sequence).

حروف کی ترتیب کے مطابق 345 کا کوڈ PQR بنتا ہے۔

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368📚General Awareness & ScienceNutrition & Mineral Absorption

Too much consumption of tea or coffee can result in deficiency of-

Explanation

High intake of tannins and caffeine in excessive tea and coffee impairs intestinal absorption and increases urinary excretion of Calcium and Iron.

چائے اور کافی کا حد سے زیادہ استعمال کیلشیم (Calcium) اور آئرن کے جذب ہونے میں رکاوٹ بنتا ہے۔

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369📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Excretory Products

All of the following are excretory (waste) products of animals, except

Explanation

Carbohydrates are essential metabolic macronutrient energy fuels, whereas Urea, Uric acid, and Ammonia are cellular metabolic nitrogenous excretory wastes.

کاربوہائیڈریٹس غذائی توانائی کا ذریعہ ہیں، اخراجی فضلہ (Excretory waste) نہیں ہیں۔

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370📚General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Redox Reactions

When a substance loses oxygen during a reaction, it is called ...

Explanation

In classical redox chemistry, the loss of oxygen (or gain of hydrogen / gain of electrons) by a substance during a chemical reaction is termed Reduction.

کیمیائی عمل کے دوران آکسیجن کا خارج ہونا ریڈکشن (Reduction) کہلاتا ہے۔

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371📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electric Safety & Short Circuits

When the short circuit condition occurs, the current in the circuit:

Explanation

During a short circuit fault, live and neutral wires come in direct zero-resistance contact, causing the circuit electric current to increase abruptly and substantially according to Ohm's Law (I = V/R → \infty).

شارٹ سرکٹ کی حالت میں سرکٹ کے اندر برقی رو بے پناہ بڑھ جاتی ہے (Increases substantially)۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

372📚General Awareness & ScienceForest Ecology & Monoculture

Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest in

Explanation

Extensive colonial commercial Teak monoculture plantations replaced complex multi-species moist deciduous forests in South India (Western Ghats), reducing native biodiversity.

ساگون (Teak) کی یک فصلہ کاشت نے جنوبی ہندوستان (South India) کے قدرتی جنگلات کو نقصان پہنچایا ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

373📚General Awareness & ScienceEarth's Revolution & Seasons

The tilting of the earth is responsible for

Explanation

The permanent

23.5^\circ

axial tilt of Earth relative to its orbital plane during its annual revolution around the Sun is the primary cause for the Cycle of Seasons.

زمین کا اپنے محور پر جھکاؤ (

23.5^\circ

) موسموں کی تبدیلی (Change of the season) کا اصل سبب ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

374📚General Awareness & ScienceSectors of Indian Economy

Consider the following pairs:
1. Primary — a. Banking
2. Secondary — b. Car manufacturing
3. Tertiary — c. Fishing
Which of the following pair is correct?

Explanation

Primary Sector = Fishing (1c), Secondary Sector = Car manufacturing (2b), Tertiary Sector = Banking (3a)

\implies

1c, 2b, 3a.

معیشت کے شعبے: پرائمری (ماہی گیری - 1c)، سیکنڈری (گاڑی سازی - 2b)، ٹرشری (بینکنگ - 3a)۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

375📚General Awareness & ScienceElectoral Systems: FPTP

In the First Past the Post System, that candidate is declared winner who:

Explanation

Under the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP / Simple Plurality) electoral system used in Lok Sabha elections, the candidate securing more votes than any other individual rival in that single constituency is declared elected.

فرسٹ پاسٹ دی پوسٹ سسٹم میں وہ امیدوار جیتتا ہے جو حلقے میں دیگر تمام امیدواروں سے زیادہ ووٹ حاصل کرے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

376📚General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Rights during Emergency (Arts 20 & 21)

Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?

Explanation

By virtue of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.

دفعہ 20 اور دفعہ 21 (زندگی اور ذاتی آزادی کا حق) کو ایمرجنسی کے دوران بھی معطل نہیں کیا جا سکتا۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

377📚General Awareness & ScienceSwaran Singh Committee & Fundamental Duties

Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

Explanation

The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, resulting in the enactment of Part IVA (Article 51A) by the 42nd Amendment.

سورن سنگھ کمیٹی کی سفارش پر آئین ہند میں بنیادی فرائض شامل کیے گئے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

378📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KAsian Games 2023: Indian Medalists

Kiran Baliyan won which medal in which game, at the Asian Games 2023?

Explanation

Kiran Baliyan won the Bronze medal in Women's Shot Put with a throw of 17.36m at the 19th Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, securing India's first medal in women's shot put in 72 years.

کرن بالیان نے ایشین گیمز 2023 میں خواتین کے شاٹ پٹ (Shot put) میں کانسے کا تمغہ (Bronze medal) جیتا۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

379📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMiddle East Geopolitics in News

Who is the military commander of Hamas's military wing during the Israel-Hamas 2023 conflict?

Explanation

Mohammed Deif was the supreme military commander of the Izz ad-Din al-Qassam Brigades, the military wing of Hamas.

حماس کے عسکری ونگ (القسام بریگیڈز) کے کمانڈر محمد ضیف تھے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

380📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus Methodology & Data Collection

Which of the following information is NOT collected during the census in India?

Explanation

The Indian Population Census collects socio-demographic data including age, marital status, education, occupation, and religion, but does NOT ask for or record individual monthly salary/income.

ہندوستان کی مردم شماری میں فرد کی ماہانہ تنخواہ یا آمدنی (Salary per month) کی معلومات جمع نہیں کی جاتیں۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

381📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KDistricts of Jammu and Kashmir

Which of the following is a district in Jammu and Kashmir Union Territory?

Explanation

Reasi is one of the 20 administrative revenue districts in J&K UT (home to the Mata Vaishno Devi shrine and Chenab Rail Bridge). Kargil is in Ladakh UT; Gulmarg and Pahalgam are tehsils/tourist towns.

ریاسی (Reasi) جموں و کشمیر کا ایک باقاعدہ انتظامی ضلع ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

382📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIncome Tax Act: Types of Assessees

A private university named "Kaushal University" is assessable under the income tax act as

Explanation

Under Section 2(31) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, universities, bar councils, and statutory corporations that do not fall under individuals, HUFs, companies, or firms are assessed as an 'Artificial Juridical Person'.

انکم ٹیکس ایکٹ کے تحت نجی یونیورسٹی کو 'Artificial Juridical Person' کے طور پر اسیس کیا جاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

383📚General Intelligence & ReasoningNumber Series: Alternate Series

9, __, 18, 28, 27, 21, 36, 14

Explanation

Interleaved series: First series (odd terms):

9, 18, 27, 36

(

+9

). Second series (even terms):

x, 28, 21, 14

(

-7

). Working backwards:

x = 28 + 7 = 35

.

دوسرا متبادل سلسلہ 7 کی کمی ظاہر کرتا ہے:

28 + 7 = 35

۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

384📚Knowledge of ComputersHardware Fundamentals: CPU Architecture

What is the primary function of a Central Processing Unit (CPU)?

Explanation

The Central Processing Unit (CPU), the 'brain' of the computer, is primarily responsible for fetching, decoding, and executing program instructions and performing arithmetic/logical calculations.

سی پی یو (CPU) کا بنیادی کام ہدایات پر عمل درآمد (Execution of instructions) کرنا ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

385📚Knowledge of ComputersCybersecurity: Antivirus Protection

Which type of software is designed to protect a computer from viruses and malware?

Explanation

Antivirus and anti-malware software detects, quarantines, and removes malicious software programs (viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware) from computer systems.

اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر کمپیوٹر کو وائرس اور نقصان دہ میلویئر سے محفوظ رکھتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

386📚Knowledge of ComputersDatabase Concepts: Primary Keys

What is a primary key in MS Access?

Explanation

In relational databases and MS Access, a Primary Key is a field or combination of fields that uniquely identifies each individual record/row in a table, ensuring entity integrity.

پرائمری کی (Primary Key) ٹیبل میں ہر ریکارڈ کی منفرد شناخت (Unique identifier) ہوتی ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

387📚Knowledge of ComputersMS PowerPoint Fundamentals

What is the term used for a single slide in a PowerPoint presentation?

Explanation

In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation software, an individual presentation page displayed on the screen is called a Slide.

پاور پوائنٹ پریزنٹیشن کے ایک صفحے کو سلائیڈ (Slide) کہا جاتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

388📚Knowledge of ComputersVirus Objectives & Impacts

Which of the following is NOT a common objective of computer viruses?

Explanation

Spreading awareness about online security is the goal of ethical cybersecurity educators, whereas computer viruses maliciously delete files, steal data, and degrade performance.

آن لائن سیکیورٹی سے متعلق شعور بیدار کرنا وائرس کا مقصد نہیں بلکہ سیکیورٹی ماہرین کا کام ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

389📚Knowledge of ComputersAntivirus Products & Vendors

Which of the following is a well-known antivirus software developed by Symantec?

Explanation

Norton Antivirus is the flagship cybersecurity and antivirus product developed and marketed by Symantec Corporation (now Gen Digital).

نارٹن اینٹی وائرس (Norton Antivirus) سائمنٹیک (Symantec) کا مشہور اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

390📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KDams and Reservoirs of Indus Basin

With reference to the Dams and Rivers, consider the following pairs:
1. Gobind Sagar Reservoir — Satluj
2. Maharana Pratap Sagar Reservoir — Beas
3. Chamera Dam — Ravi
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation

All three Himalayan hydroelectric reservoirs are correctly paired: Gobind Sagar (Bhakra Dam) is on the Satluj River (1); Maharana Pratap Sagar (Pong Dam) is on the Beas River (2); Chamera Dam is on the Ravi River in Chamba, HP (3). All 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

تینوں ڈیم اور دریا درست میچ ہیں: گوبند ساگر (ستلج)، مہارانا پرتاپ ساگر (بیاس)، چمیرا ڈیم (راوی)۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

391📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIslands & Volcanism in India

Two volcanic islands in Indian territory are

Explanation

Barren Island (India's only active volcano) and Narcondam Island (a dormant volcanic island) are both located in the Andaman Sea within Indian sovereign territory.

ہندوستان کی سرزمین میں دو آتش فشانی جزیرے نارکوندم (خوابیدہ) اور بیرن آئی لینڈ (فعال) ہیں۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

392📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KP20 Parliamentary Forum

Consider the following statements:
1. P20 is a congregation of Presidents of G20 nations.
2. The P20 group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is false: P20 is the Parliamentary Speakers' Summit (congregation of Speakers/Presiding Officers of Parliaments, not heads of state). Statement 2 is true: The P20 was inaugurated in 2010 under Canada's G20 presidency. Thus, 2 only is correct.

P20 پارلیمانی اسپیکروں کی کانفرنس ہے (نہ کہ صدور کی) جس کا آغاز کینیڈا کی صدارت میں 2010 میں ہوا، لہذا صرف بیان 2 درست ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

393📚General EnglishDev Dynasty Rulers of Jammu

Which ruler of the Dev Dynasty defeated Mahmud of Ghazni with the combined strength of Jammu hill chiefs?

Explanation

According to Dogra chronicles and the Rajdarshani, Raja Bhuj Dev of Jammu united the hill chieftains and inflicted a defeat on Ghaznavid forces during one of their northern expeditions.

راج درشنی کے مطابق راجہ بھوج دیو (Bhuj Dev) نے جموں کے پہاڑی سرداروں کے ساتھ مل کر غزنوی فوجوں کا مقابلہ کیا۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

394📚General EnglishUdhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL)

What percentage of the 48-km railway line between Banihal to Sangaldan passes through tunnels?

Explanation

Out of the 48.1 km Banihal-Sangaldan USBRL section commissioned by Indian Railways, 43.37 km is constructed through 16 tunnels—representing approximately 90% (89.8%) of the entire track alignment.

بانہال-سنگلدان ریلوے سیکشن کا تقریباً 90 فیصد (43.37 کلومیٹر) ٹریک سرنگوں (Tunnels) سے گزرتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

395📚General EnglishUSBRL Project Milestones: Banihal-Qazigund

When was the Banihal-Qazigund section of the railway project inaugurated?

Explanation

The historic 18-km Banihal-Qazigund railway section (featuring the 11.2 km Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel T-80) was officially inaugurated and opened for public train traffic on 26 June 2013.

بانہال-قاضی گنڈ ریلوے ٹریک اور پیر پنجال سرنگ کا افتتاح جون 2013 میں کیا گیا تھا۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

396📚General EnglishNational Highways of J&K (NH 44)

Which of the following national highways passes through Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

National Highway 44 (NH 44, the longest national highway in India running from Srinagar to Kanyakumari) is the primary arterial highway passing through J&K. (NH-1 also connects Srinagar to Uri and Leh).

قومی شاہراہ 44 (NH-44) سری نگر سے کنیا کماری تک جموں و کشمیر سے گزرنے والی اہم ترین ہائی وے ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

397📚General EnglishKashmiri Poets: Mahjoor and Habba Khatoon

Consider the following statements:
1. Mahjoor (Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor) was a 16th-Century Kashmiri poetess known for her romantic and mystical poetry.
2. Habba Khatoon was a prominent 20th Century Kashmiri poet known for his nationalist and romantic poetry of mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation

Both statements have identities and centuries swapped: Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor was a revolutionary 20th-century male poet ('Shair-e-Kashmir'), while Habba Khatoon ('Nightingale of Kashmir') was a 16th-century poetess and queen of Yousuf Shah Chak. Thus, Both 1 and 2 are NOT correct.

دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں کیونکہ مہجور 20ویں صدی کے قومی شاعر تھے اور حبہ خاتون 16ویں صدی کی ملکہ اور شاعرہ تھیں (Both 1 and 2 are NOT correct)۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

398📚General Intelligence & ReasoningPrepositions

Fill in the blank with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below:
We should prevent damage _____ and theft of public property.

Explanation

The noun 'damage' takes the preposition 'to' (damage to public property): "We should prevent damage to and theft of public property."

لفظ 'damage' کے ساتھ پریپوزیشن 'to' آتی ہے: "damage to public property".

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

399📚General Intelligence & ReasoningAntivirus Software

McAfee is an example of

Explanation

McAfee is a globally renowned cybersecurity company and antivirus software program designed to detect and eradicate malware.

میکافی (McAfee) اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر کی مثال ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

400📚General Intelligence & ReasoningCell Referencing: Relative vs Absolute

In MS Excel, which of the following is an absolute cell reference?

Explanation

In Microsoft Excel, placing dollar signs before both the column letter and row number (

A

1) creates an Absolute Cell Reference that locks the coordinates during formula autofill.

ایم ایس ایکسل میں ایبسولیوٹ سیل ریفرنس کے لیے کا نشان (A\USD 1) استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

401📚General Intelligence & ReasoningInput Devices: Joystick

For what purpose, the joystick is used?

Explanation

A Joystick is an input pointing device featuring a pivoting stick used predominantly for flight simulators and computer gaming control.

جوائے اسٹک بنیادی طور پر کمپیوٹر گیمنگ (Computer gaming) کے لیے استعمال ہوتی ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

402📚Basic MathematicsAnalogy: Biological & Nutritional Relationships

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term:
Body : Vitamin :: Crop : ?

Explanation

Vitamins are vital supplementary nutrients required for the healthy growth and nourishment of the human Body; similarly, Fertilizers are essential supplementary nutrients applied to nourish and grow agricultural Crops.

جس طرح جسم کو وٹامن کی ضرورت ہوتی ہے، اسی طرح فصل کو کھاد (Fertilizer) کی ضرورت ہوتی ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

403📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActSpeed Limits and Accident Prevention

Reduction of traffic speed can be effective in reducing

Explanation

Calibrating and reducing traffic speed significantly reduces vehicle stopping distance and collision energy, drastically lowering the Number of crashes, injuries, and fatalities.

گاڑی کی رفتار کم رکھنے سے سڑک حادثات (Number of crashes) میں نمایاں کمی واقع ہوتی ہے۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

404📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActDuties of Driver in Road Accidents (Section 134)

What must you do when any property of a third party is damaged due to an accident?

Explanation

Under Section 134(b) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the driver must report the accident and third-party property damage to the nearest police station within 24 hours.

حادثے میں تیسرے فریق کا نقصان ہونے پر ڈرائیور کو 24 گھنٹے کے اندر قریبی تھانے میں رپورٹ کرنا لازمی ہے۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

405📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActOvertaking Signals

A driver moving their hand in a forward sweeping motion represents:

Explanation

Extending the right arm below shoulder level and waving it forward and backward gives clear permission to following vehicles behind to safely overtake.

پیچھے آنے والی گاڑی کو اوورٹیک کرنے کی اجازت دینے کا اشارہ۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

406📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActFlashing Amber Light Rules

Approaching an intersection where the yellow signal light is blinking, you should

Explanation

A flashing amber/yellow signal light requires drivers to slow down, look in all directions, and proceed with caution only after ensuring the intersection is clear and safe.

پیلے رنگ کی ٹمٹماتی بتی پر رفتار دھیمی کریں اور سڑک محفوظ ہونے کی تسلی کر کے احتیاط سے آگے بڑھیں۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

407📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActComponents of a Map

Among (i) Distance, (ii) Direction, and (iii) Symbol, which are the components of a map?

Explanation

In basic cartography, there are three fundamental essential components of every map: 1. Distance (Scale), 2. Direction (Cardinal orientation / Compass rose), and 3. Symbols (Conventional signs).

نقشے کے تین بنیادی اجزاء فاصلہ، سمت اور علامات (i, ii, iii) سبھی شامل ہیں۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

408📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActSpeed Limit Signs

A circular speed sign with the number "50" enclosed in a red circle represents:

Explanation

A circular sign featuring a number inside a red border specifies the Maximum Speed Limit (

50\text{ km/hr}

) permitted on that roadway.

سرخ دائرے میں 50 کا ہندسہ زیادہ سے زیادہ رفتار کی حد (Maximum speed limit) کو ظاہر کرتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

409📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenancePavement Reflectivity & Night Visibility

During night driving, which type of pavement provides greater visibility?

Explanation

White/light-grey Cement Concrete pavement has a much higher albedo and diffuse reflectance than dark black bituminous asphalt, providing superior night-time contrast and visibility.

سفید کنکریٹ کی سڑک (Concrete pavement) کالی ڈامر والی سڑک کے مقابلے میں رات کو زیادہ روشنی منعکس کر کے واضح دکھائی دیتی ہے۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

410📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceBraking Physics & Friction

What is the fundamental mechanical principle on which vehicle braking systems work?

Explanation

Automotive braking systems operate on mechanical Friction—forcing brake pads/shoes against rotating discs/drums to convert kinetic energy into thermal heat energy.

گاڑی کا بریکنگ سسٹم رگڑ (Friction) کے بنیادی اصول پر کام کرتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

411📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceAnti-lock Braking System (ABS)

What does abbreviation "ABS" of a motor vehicle stand for?

Explanation

ABS stands for Anti-lock Braking System, an active safety system that modulates hydraulic brake pressure during hard braking to prevent wheel lockup.

ABS کا مخفف 'Anti-lock braking system' ہے۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

412📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 146: Mandatory Third-Party Insurance

Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: As per Indian Motor Vehicles Act 1988, a comprehensive motor insurance policy is mandatory.
Statement-2: Third-party liability insurance is optional for Indian vehicles.
Choose the correct combination:

Explanation

Under Section 146 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988: Third-Party Liability Insurance is legally MANDATORY, while Comprehensive Own-Damage Insurance is OPTIONAL. Both statements in the question are false.

تھرڈ پارٹی انشورنس قانونی طور پر لازمی ہے جبکہ جامع انشورنس اختیاری ہے، اس لیے دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں (Both false)۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

413📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlMotor Insurance Policy Terms and Third-Party Liabilities

Consider the following statements regarding motor insurance:
Statement-1: Motor insurance does not provide compensation if the driver does not possess a valid driving licence.
Statement-2: Third-party motor insurance covers a third person who has been injured in an accident involving the vehicle.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Both statements are correct insurance principles: Driving without a valid driving licence breaches policy terms and invalidates own-damage claims (Statement 1), and Third-party insurance specifically indemnifies bodily injury/loss to third parties (Statement 2).

انشورنس کے دونوں بیانات (1 اور 2) قانوناً بالکل درست ہیں۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

414📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlDriveline & Differential Gears

Which among the following components is used in the transmission system of a motor vehicle?

Explanation

The automobile driveline / transmission system consists of the clutch, gearbox, propeller shaft, and Differential Gears (which allow outer wheels to rotate faster than inner wheels during cornering).

ٹرانسمیشن سسٹم میں انجن کی طاقت پہیوں تک پہنچانے کے لیے ڈیفرینشل گیئرز (Differential gears) استعمال ہوتے ہیں۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

415📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlAir Filters: Oil Bath vs Dry Paper Cartridge

Among the following options, which type of air cleaner is traditionally highly effective in heavy-duty commercial diesel engines?

Explanation

Oil Bath Air Cleaners draw intake air over an oil reservoir and wire mesh, capturing heavy dust, sand, and particulate matter with high dirt-holding capacity in heavy commercial diesel engines.

ہیوی ڈیزل گاڑیوں میں آئل باتھ ایئر فلٹر (Oil bath type) گرد و غبار صاف کرنے میں انتہائی مؤثر ہوتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

416📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana

Who among the following presided over the Buddhist Council held during the reign of Kanishka at Kashmir?

Explanation

The Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana (Kashmir) in 72 AD during Kushan Emperor Kanishka's reign was presided over by Acharya Vasumitra (with Asvaghosha as vice-president).

کشمیر میں منعقد ہونے والی چوتھی بدھ مت کونسل کی صدارت وسومتر (Vasumitra) نے کی تھی۔

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417📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KZojila Tunnel Project

Zojila tunnel connects Jammu and Kashmir with which state/UT?

Explanation

The 14.15 km all-weather Zojila Tunnel beneath the Zoji La Pass connects Baltal/Sonamarg in J&K UT with Dras and Kargil in Ladakh UT along NH-1.

زوجیلا سرنگ جموں و کشمیر کو یونین ٹیریٹری لداخ (Ladakh) سے جوڑتی ہے۔

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418📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Boundary Lines: Radcliffe Line

Which of the following countries are divided by the Radcliffe Line?

Explanation

The Radcliffe Line, drawn by Sir Cyril Radcliffe during the 1947 partition, demarcates the international border between India and Pakistan.

ریڈکلف لائن ہندوستان اور پاکستان کے درمیان بین الاقوامی سرحد کا تعین کرتی ہے۔

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419📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPopular Tourist Destinations: Gulmarg

What is Gulmarg famously known as?

Explanation

Gulmarg (originally named Gauri Marg and renamed Gulmarg by Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak) is famously known as the 'Meadow of Flowers'.

گلمرگ کو 'پھولوں کی وادی' یعنی 'Meadow of Flowers' کے نام سے جانا جاتا ہے۔

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420🔬General ScienceVitamins and Coagulation

Excessive bleeding during an injury is caused by the deficiency of

Explanation

Vitamin K (phylloquinone/menaquinone) is the essential cofactor required for the hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation factors (prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X); its deficiency causes hemorrhagic bleeding.

وٹامن کے (Vitamin K) کی کمی سے خون جمنے کی صلاحیت متاثر ہوتی ہے اور زیادہ خون بہتا ہے۔

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421🔬General ScienceComputer Generations: Transistors

During the second generation, the size of computers was decreased by replacing vacuum tubes with

Explanation

Second-generation computers (1956–1963) replaced bulky, fragile vacuum tubes with solid-state Transistors (invented at Bell Labs).

کمپیوٹر کی دوسری نسل میں ویکیوم ٹیوبز کی جگہ ٹرانزسٹرز (Transistors) استعمال کیے گئے۔

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422📚Mental Ability / ReasoningBlue Economy 2.0 Framework

Which one of the following best describes the term 'Blue Economy 2.0', highlighted in the Union Budget 2024?

Explanation

Blue Economy 2.0 focuses on the sustainable economic utilization, conservation, and regeneration of marine, ocean, and coastal resources, including maritime aquaculture and coastal tourism.

بلیو اکانومی 2.0 کا تعلق سمندروں، ساحلی وسائل اور سمندری معیشت کے پائیدار فروغ سے ہے۔

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423📚Mental Ability / ReasoningIndia-Myanmar Border & Free Movement Regime

With reference to the India-Myanmar Border, consider the following statements:
1. It was demarcated by the British Government in India in 1826.
2. It extends along the States of Meghalaya, Assam and Tripura.
3. The Free Movement Regime enables tribes along the border to travel up to 16 km inside the neighbouring country without a visa.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Border demarcation originated from the 1826 Treaty of Yandabo, and the FMR permitted border residents to travel 16 km across. Statement 2 is false because the 1,643 km border is shared with Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram (not Assam, Meghalaya, or Tripura). Thus, 1 and 3 only are correct.

ہندوستان-میانمار سرحد کے بیانات 1 اور 3 درست ہیں (صرف اروناچل، ناگالینڈ، منی پور، میزورم بارڈر شیئر کرتے ہیں)۔

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424📚Computer ApplicationsProperties of Elastic Media for Wave Propagation

The fundamental physical properties of a medium necessary for mechanical wave propagation are its:

Explanation

For propagation of mechanical acoustic/sound waves through a medium, the medium must possess Elasticity (to restore displaced particles), Inertia (to store kinetic energy), and low damping resistance. All of the above are essential.

میکانیکی لہروں کے سفر کے لیے میڈیم میں جمود، لچک اور کم مزاحمت (All of the above) ضروری ہیں۔

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425📚Computer ApplicationsMeasuring Instruments: Ohmmeter

An ohmmeter is an electrical instrument used for measuring:

Explanation

An Ohmmeter is an electronic instrument specifically designed to measure Electrical Resistance (in Ohms

\Omega

).

اوہم میٹر برقی مزاحمت (Electrical Resistance) ناپنے کا آلہ ہے۔

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426📚Computer ApplicationsNewton's Laws & Conservation of Momentum

Which of these fundamental physical properties is conserved as a direct consequence of Newton's Third Law of Motion?

Explanation

Because action and reaction forces between interacting bodies are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction (

F_{12} = -F_{21}

), the net internal impulse is zero, establishing the Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum.

نیوٹن کے تیسرے قانون حرکت کا براہ راست نتیجہ لکیری مومینٹم کا بقا (Conservation of Momentum) ہے۔

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427📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIdioms & Phrases

What does the idiom "salt of the earth" mean?

Explanation

'Salt of the earth' refers to a fundamentally good, honest, humble, and reliable person.

'Salt of the earth' کا مطلب ایک نہایت مخلص، نیک اور ایماندار انسان (Genuine, good and honest) ہے۔

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428📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KModal Auxiliaries

In which sentence is the modal verb used to express necessity/obligation?

Explanation

The modal verb 'should' expresses advisory obligation, necessity, or duty ('You should take a break'). 'Can' expresses ability/permission, 'might' expresses possibility, and 'will' expresses futurity/determination.

'You should take a break' میں موڈل ورب 'should' ضرورت اور نصیحت کو ظاہر کرتا ہے۔

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429📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSericulture: Silk Extraction

Silk, the natural protein fiber, is obtained from

Explanation

Natural silk fiber is harvested from the protective pupal Cocoons spun by the larvae of the silkworm (Bombyx mori) during sericulture.

قدرتی ریشم کا دھاگہ ریشم کے کیڑے کے کوکون (Cocoon) سے حاصل ہوتا ہے۔

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430🔬General Science44th Amendment Act & Article 300A

The Right to Property was converted from a Fundamental Right into a Constitutional Legal Right by which Constitutional Amendment?

Explanation

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, transforming the Right to Property into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.

44ویں آئینی ترمیم (1978) کے ذریعے حق جائیداد کو بنیادی حقوق سے نکال کر قانونی حق بنایا گیا۔

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431🔬General ScienceDemographic History: 1911-1921 Negative Growth

In which single census decade did India's population record a negative growth rate of

-0.31\%

?

Explanation

During the 1911–1921 decade, widespread famine, severe drought, and the catastrophic 1918 Spanish Influenza pandemic caused India's population to decline by

-0.31\%

, earning 1921 the title 'The Year of the Great Divide'.

1911 سے 1921 کی دہائی میں وبائی امراض کی وجہ سے ہندوستان کی آبادی میں منفی شرح نمو ریکارڈ ہوئی۔

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432🔬General ScienceMajor Tourist Hubs: Gulmarg

Gulmarg in the Baramulla district of Jammu and Kashmir is famously known as the

Explanation

Gulmarg (literally meaning 'Meadow of Flowers' in Persian/Kashmiri) is famous for its vibrant wildflower meadows and world-class ski resort.

گلمرگ کو 'پھولوں کی وادی' (Meadow of Flowers) کے نام سے جانا جاتا ہے۔

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433📚Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Firewalls & Network Defense

What is a Firewall in a Computer Network?

Explanation

A Firewall is a hardware or software-based network security system that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing traffic based on predetermined security rules.

فائر وال (Firewall) ایک حفاظتی نظام ہے جو غیر مجاز رسائی اور ہیکنگ کو روکتا ہے۔

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434📚Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Malware Defense: Anti-Spyware

What is Anti-Spyware software?

Explanation

Anti-Spyware is specialized security software that detects, blocks, quarantines, and removes unauthorized tracking and spyware software designed to steal user data.

اینٹی اسپائی ویئر وہ سافٹ ویئر ہے جو چوری چھپے انسٹال ہونے والے جاسوسی پروگرامز کو ڈیلیٹ کرتا ہے۔

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435📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Right to Equality: Article 17

Which category of Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution incorporates the 'Abolition of Untouchability' under Article 17?

Explanation

Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability and prohibition of its practice) is part of the 'Right to Equality' grouping under Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.

چھوت چھات کا خاتمہ (آرٹیکل 17) برابری کے بنیادی حق (Right to Equality) کے تحت آتا ہے۔

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436📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage

What is the primary developmental milestone during the Sensorimotor stage (0 to 2 years) according to Piaget's Cognitive Theory?

Explanation

During the Sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years), infants explore the world through sensory inputs (looking, hearing) coordinated with motor actions, ultimately developing Object Permanence.

پہلے مرحلے (سینسری موٹر) میں بچہ حسی تجربات اور جسمانی حرکات میں ربط قائم کرتا ہے۔

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437📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission)

What is the primary overarching objective of POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission)?

Explanation

POSHAN Abhiyaan (Prime Minister's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment), launched in March 2018, aims to improve nutritional outcomes for children (0–6 years), pregnant women, and lactating mothers by curbing stunting, wasting, and anemia.

پوشن ابھیان کا بنیادی ہدف بچوں اور خواتین میں غذائی قلت، اسٹنٹنگ اور خون کی کمی (انیمیا) کو ختم کرنا ہے۔

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438📚General EnglishPrepositions in Context

Fill in the blanks: "The team worked tirelessly _______ the guidance of their coach to improve their performance _______ the challenging season."

Explanation

One works 'under the guidance' of a mentor, and events occur 'during the season'

\implies

"under, during".

درست پریپوزیشنز: 'under the guidance' اور 'during the season' ہیں۔

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439📚General EnglishSrisailam Dam & Krishna River

Consider the following statements about Srisailam Dam:
1. The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
2. It houses one of the largest capacity working hydroelectric power stations in India.
3. It is 512 m long, 145 m high, with 12 radial crest gates.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

All statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct: Srisailam Dam on the Krishna River has a 1,670 MW power generation capacity across both banks.

سری سیلم ڈیم کے بارے میں تمام بیانات (1، 2 اور 3) درست ہیں۔

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440📚General EnglishMajor Dams of Karnataka

Match the dams in Karnataka with their corresponding rivers:
i) Supa Dam — 3. Kali / Kalinadi River
ii) Almatti Dam — 2. Krishna River
iii) Linganamakki Dam — 1. Sharavathi River

Explanation

Dams and rivers in Karnataka: Supa Dam is built on the Kalinadi River (i-3); Almatti Dam on the Krishna River (ii-2); Linganamakki Dam on the Sharavathi River (iii-1)

\implies

i-3, ii-2, iii-1.

کرناٹک کے ڈیم: سوپا ڈیم (کالیندی i-3)، الماتی ڈیم (کرشنا ii-2)، لنگنا مکی ڈیم (شراوتی iii-1)۔

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441📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KPakal Dul Hydroelectric Project

Consider the following statements about the Pakal Dul Hydroelectric Project (HEP):
1. It is an under-construction 1,000 MW (1 GW) capacity HEP.
2. It is located on the Marusudar river (a major tributary of the Chenab) in the Kishtwar district of J&K.
3. It features a 167 m high concrete-face rockfill dam.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct: The Pakal Dul HEP is a 1,000 MW project being built by CVPPPL on the Marusudar river at Drangal village in Kishtwar district with a 167m high rockfill dam.

پاکل دل پن بجلی منصوبے کے بارے میں تینوں بیانات (1, 2, 3) بالکل درست ہیں۔

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442📚General Intelligence & ReasoningAntonyms

Choose the word most opposite in meaning to: MOLLIFY

Explanation

'Mollify' means to appease, soothe, or calm someone's anger. Its direct antonym is 'Enrage' (to make extremely angry or infuriate).

'Mollify' (غصہ ٹھنڈا کرنا) کا متضاد لفظ 'Enrage' (اشتعال دلانا / غصہ دلانا) ہے۔

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443📚Computer ApplicationsSalal Hydroelectric Project

The Salal Hydroelectric Project (690 MW) is situated in which State/UT?

Explanation

Salal Hydroelectric Project is a run-of-the-river power station constructed on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of Jammu & Kashmir.

صلال پن بجلی منصوبہ ضلع ریاسی (جموں و کشمیر) میں دریائے چناب پر واقع ہے۔

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444📚Computer ApplicationsSpreadsheet Components: Cells

The rectangular intersection of a column and a row in a spreadsheet worksheet is called a

Explanation

A Cell is the fundamental building block in a spreadsheet created by the intersection of a vertical column and a horizontal row (e.g., A1, B5).

قطار اور کالم کے درمیانی خانے کو سیل (Cell) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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445📚Computer ApplicationsSlide Transitions vs Animations

In Microsoft PowerPoint, special visual effects used to introduce and transition between slides during a presentation are called

Explanation

Slide Transitions are the motion effects that occur when moving from one slide to the next during a full Slide Show.

ایک سلائیڈ سے دوسری سلائیڈ پر جاتے وقت ظاہر ہونے والے اثرات کو سلائیڈ ٹرانزیشنز (Slide transitions) کہتے ہیں۔

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446📚Basic MathematicsMensuration: Solid Volume

A wall measuring

6\text{ m} \times 5\text{ m} \times 0.5\text{ m}

is constructed using bricks measuring

25\text{ cm} \times 12.5\text{ cm} \times 7.5\text{ cm}

. If mortar occupies 10% of the wall volume, how many bricks are required?

Explanation

Wall volume

= 600 \times 500 \times 50 = 15,000,000\text{ cm}^3

. Brick volume required

= 0.90 \times 15,000,000 = 13,500,000\text{ cm}^3

. Volume of 1 brick

= 25 \times 12.5 \times 7.5 = 2343.75\text{ cm}^3

. Number of bricks

= \frac{13500000}{2343.75} = 5760

.

دیوار بنانے کے لیے 5,760 اینٹوں کی ضرورت ہوگی۔

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447📚General Awareness & ScienceWorld Pulses Day 2023 Theme

What was the official theme of 'World Pulses Day' 2023 celebrated on February 10?

Explanation

The United Nations FAO designated 'Pulses for a Sustainable Future' as the theme for World Pulses Day 2023 to highlight the role of pulses in soil biodiversity and food security.

ورلڈ پلسز ڈے 2023 کا تھیم 'Pulses for a Sustainable Future' تھا۔

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448📚General Awareness & ScienceFolk Dances: Letri Dance

The traditional folk dance 'Letri Dance' of the Jammu region is classified as a

Explanation

Letri is a traditional community labor dance performed by farmers and workers in the hills of Jammu during agricultural stone-breaking, wood-clearing, and harvesting tasks.

لیتری ڈانس محنت کشوں اور کسانوں کا روایتی رقص (Labour Dance) ہے۔

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449📚General Awareness & ScienceDr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel

The 9.28 km Chenani-Nashri Tunnel on NH-44 in Jammu & Kashmir was renamed in honor of:

Explanation

In October 2019, India's longest bidirectional road tunnel, the Chenani-Nashri Tunnel in Udhampur/Ramban, was officially renamed the Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel.

چنانی ناشری سرنگ کا نیا نام ڈاکٹر شیاما پرساد مکھرجی ٹنل رکھا گیا ہے۔

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450📚General Awareness & ScienceOceanic Channels: 10 Degree Channel

The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by the

Explanation

The Ten Degree Channel (

10^\circ\text{ N}

latitude) is a 150 km wide oceanic channel that separates the Andaman Islands to the north from the Nicobar Islands to the south in the Bay of Bengal.

انڈمان اور نکوبار جزائر کو 10 ڈگری چینل (Ten Degree Channel) الگ کرتا ہے۔

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451📚General Awareness & ScienceState Nicknames: Kerala

Which south Indian state's official tourism slogan and moniker is 'God's Own Country'?

Explanation

Kerala is globally marketed and celebrated as 'God's Own Country' due to its lush tropical greenery, serene backwaters, and biodiversity.

'God's Own Country' ریاست کیرالہ (Kerala) کو کہا جاتا ہے۔

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452📚General Awareness & ScienceClassical Sanskrit Fables: Panchatantra

The famous ancient Indian collection of interrelated animal fables 'Panchatantra' by Vishnu Sharma was composed during the

Explanation

The Panchatantra was composed by scholar Pandit Vishnu Sharma during the classical golden age of the Gupta Empire (circa 3rd to 5th century CE).

پنچ تنتر کی مشہور کہانیاں گپتا دور (Gupta period) میں لکھی گئیں۔

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453📚General Awareness & ScienceSecond Battle of Panipat (1556)

The Second Battle of Panipat (5 November 1556) was fought between Hemu and the Mughal army during the reign of which Emperor?

Explanation

The Second Battle of Panipat was fought between the young Mughal Emperor Akbar (led by Bairam Khan) and King Hem Chandra Vikramaditya (Hemu), establishing Mughal supremacy in northern India.

پانی پت کی دوسری لڑائی (1556) مغل شہنشاہ اکبر کے دور میں ہیمو کے خلاف لڑی گئی۔

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454📚General Awareness & ScienceNaming of Gulmarg by Yousuf Shah Chak

Gulmarg was originally named Gourimarg, and was renamed Gulmarg ('Meadow of Flowers') by which Kashmiri sultan?

Explanation

Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak (reigned 1579–1586), enchanted by the valley's wildflower blooms while visiting with Habba Khatoon, changed its name from Gourimarg to Gulmarg.

گوری مرگ کا نام بدل کر 'گلمرگ' سلطان یوسف شاہ چک (Yousuf Shah Chak) نے رکھا تھا۔

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455📚General Awareness & SciencePampore Saffron Festival

In which month is the vibrant Saffron Festival (Jashn-e-Zafran) celebrated in Pampore, Jammu & Kashmir?

Explanation

The Saffron Festival is celebrated in November during the peak autumn purple blossom harvest season across the Karewas of Pampore.

پامپور میں زعفران فیسٹیول فصل کٹائی کے دوران نومبر (November) میں منایا جاتا ہے۔

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456📚Basic ReasoningQuit India Movement: Do or Die Slogan

Which Indian freedom fighter gave the clarion call slogan 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) during the Quit India Movement in 1942?

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi delivered the famous 'Do or Die' speech at Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay on 8 August 1942, launching the Quit India Movement.

1942 کی بھارت چھوڑو تحریک میں 'کرو یا مرو' (Do or Die) کا نعرہ مہاتما گاندھی نے دیا تھا۔

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457📚Basic EnglishSectors of the Economy

Which of the following economic activities comes under the Tertiary (Services) Sector of the economy?

Explanation

Tourism and hospitality provide intangible consumer services and belong to the Tertiary sector. (Mining is primary, and manufacturing is secondary).

سیاحت (Tourism) معیشت کے تیسرے شعبے یعنی سروسز سیکٹر (Tertiary sector) کا حصہ ہے۔

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458📚Basic EnglishUri Dam on Jhelum River

The Uri Hydroelectric Dam (Uri-I and Uri-II) is located on which river in the Baramulla district of Jammu & Kashmir?

Explanation

The Uri Hydroelectric Project (480 MW Uri-I and 240 MW Uri-II) is constructed on the Jhelum River near the Line of Control in Baramulla district, Kashmir.

اوڑی ہائیڈرو الیکٹرک ڈیم دریائے جہلم (بارہمولہ، کشمیر) پر واقع ہے۔

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459📚Basic EnglishWrits: Mandamus (Articles 32 & 226)

Which constitutional writ issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts commands a public official or authority to perform a mandatory statutory duty that they have failed or refused to perform?

Explanation

The writ of Mandamus (Latin for 'We Command') is an order issued to compel a public official, body, or tribunal to perform an obligatory public duty.

سرکاری افسر کو اپنے فرائض کی انجام دہی کا حکم دینے والی رٹ مینڈی مس (Mandamus) کہلاتی ہے۔

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460📚General Awareness & ScienceMughal Architecture in Kashmir

Which Mughal Emperor laid out the iconic Shalimar Bagh (1619) and visited the Nishat Bagh on the banks of Dal Lake in Srinagar?

Explanation

Emperor Jahangir laid out Shalimar Bagh in 1619 for his empress Nur Jahan. (Nishat Bagh was built nearby in 1633 by Asif Khan, Nur Jahan's brother, during Jahangir/Shah Jahan's era).

شالیمار باغ مغل شہنشاہ جہانگیر (Jahangir) نے 1619 میں بنوایا تھا۔

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461📚General Awareness & ScienceRajouri Fort (Dhanidhar Fort)

Who built the historic Rajouri Fort (Dhanidhar Fort) at Dhanidhar village in Rajouri?

Explanation

The Dhanidhar Fort (Rajouri Fort) was constructed in 1855 AD by Mian Hathu, the then Dogra Governor of Rajouri under Maharaja Gulab Singh.

دھنی دھر قلعہ (راجوری) 1855 میں میاں ہتھو (Mian Hathu) نے تعمیر کروایا تھا۔

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462📚General Awareness & ScienceBSF Operations: Operation Alert

Which specialized security operation was launched by the Border Security Force (BSF) along the India-Pakistan International Border in J&K to prevent cross-border infiltration?

Explanation

The BSF frequently launches 'Operation Alert' along the 200 km International Border in Jammu to step up electronic surveillance and counter foggy winter infiltration attempts.

بی ایس ایف نے دراندازی روکنے کے لیے 'آپریشن الرٹ' (Operation Alert) شروع کیا۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

463📚General English & ComprehensionKargil War & Military Operations in J&K

Which operation was launched to regain control of Kargil during the 1999 war?

Explanation

Operation Vijay was launched by the Indian Armed Forces in May 1999 to recapture Indian territories occupied by Pakistani infiltrators in the Kargil-Drass sectors of Jammu and Kashmir.

1999 के कारगिल युद्ध के दौरान भारतीय सेना ने कारगिल की चोटियों को पुनः अपने नियंत्रण में लेने के लिए 'ऑपरेशन विजय' शुरू किया था।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

464📚General English & ComprehensionFundamental Rights & Union of States

Explanation

1. Article 1 defines India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States (III)
2. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws (II)
3. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (I).
Hence, the correct matching is 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.

1. अनुच्छेद 1: भारत राज्यों का संघ है (III)
2. अनुच्छेद 14: विधि के समक्ष समानता (II)
3. अनुच्छेद 16: सार्वजनिक रोजगार में अवसर की समानता (I)।
सही विकल्प 1-III, 2-II, 3-I है।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

465📚General English & ComprehensionJ&K Constitutional History & Integration

Why was the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution abrogated in 2019?

Explanation

The abrogation of Article 370 and the J&K Constitution was undertaken to foster complete national integration, eliminate discriminatory residency/domicile barriers, extend fundamental central laws, and accelerate socio-economic development and investments across the region.

2019 में जम्मू-कश्मीर के विशेष दर्जे और अलग संविधान को समाप्त करने का उद्देश्य पूर्ण राष्ट्रीय एकीकरण, सभी नागरिकों को समान अधिकार प्रदान करना और क्षेत्र में आर्थिक सुधार व निवेश को गति देना था (उपरोक्त सभी)।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

466📚General English & ComprehensionSwadeshi Movement & Partition of Bengal 1905

When were the 'Swadeshi' and 'Boycott' methods of struggle first adopted in India?

Explanation

The Swadeshi and Boycott movements were first adopted as mass agitation methods during the anti-partition agitation of Bengal in 1905, officially proclaimed at the Calcutta Town Hall on August 7, 1905.

'स्वदेशी' और 'बहिष्कार' के तरीकों को भारत में पहली बार 1905 के बंगाल विभाजन विरोधी आंदोलन के दौरान अपनाया गया था।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

467📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KIndian Art, Culture & Classical Folk Dances

Explanation

1. Andhra Pradesh: Lambadi and Dhimsa folk dances (I)
2. Gujarat: Bhavai and Juriun/Garba folk dances (II)
3. Kerala: Kathakali (classical) and Ottamthullal folk dance (III).
Correct matching code is 1-I, 2-II, 3-III.

1. आंध्र प्रदेश: लंबाडी, ढिमसा (I)
2. गुजरात: भवई, जुरियन (II)
3. केरल: कथकली, ओट्टमथुल्लल (III)।
सही विकल्प 1-I, 2-II, 3-III है।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

468📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KTourism & Major Lakes of Jammu & Kashmir

Which of the following highlights the economic significance of Dal Lake in Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

Dal Lake, known as the 'Jewel in the crown of Kashmir', is the backbone of Srinagar's tourism economy through its iconic shikaras, heritage houseboats, floating vegetable markets, and handicraft trade.

डल झील शिकारा की सवारी, हाउसबोट और पर्यटन के लिए विश्व प्रसिद्ध है, जो कश्मीर की स्थानीय अर्थव्यवस्था और आजीविका में प्रमुख योगदान देती है।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

469📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KSynonyms & Antonyms

Choose the correct antonym of the word: LISSOME

Explanation

'Lissome' means slim, supple, flexible, and graceful in movement. Its direct antonym is 'Ungainly', which means awkward, clumsy, or ungraceful.

'Lissome' का अर्थ लचीला, फुर्तीला और आकर्षक होता है। इसका सटीक विलोम शब्द 'Ungainly' (भद्दा या बेढंगा) है।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

470📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityHomophones & Word Usage

Fill in the blanks: The dog took a ______ during his walk and raised his ______ to show that he was tired.

Explanation

Pause' means a temporary stop/break, while 'paws' refers to the feet of an animal: 'The dog took a pause during his walk and raised his paws...

रुकने के लिए 'pause' और कुत्ते के पंजों के लिए 'paws' का प्रयोग होगा। अतः 'pause; paws' सही है।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

471📚Basic Concepts of ComputersGeometry & Circles

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact.
II. The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

Choose the correct Statement:

Explanation

Both are fundamental theorems of circle geometry (Class 10 NCERT / CBSE):
- Theorem 10.1: The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
- Theorem 10.2: The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Thus, Both I and II are correct.

कथन I और II दोनों वृत्त ज्यामिति के आधारभूत प्रमेय हैं: (I) स्पर्श रेखा स्पर्श बिंदु पर त्रिज्या पर लंब होती है, और (II) बाह्य बिंदु से खींची गई स्पर्श रेखाओं की लंबाइयाँ बराबर होती हैं। अतः दोनों I और II सही हैं।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

472📚Basic Concepts of ComputersData Interpretation & Bar Graphs

The maximum difference between the amount invested in Raw materials and the value of sales of finished goods was during the year?
(Raw materials vs. Sales: 2000: 130 vs 210; 2001: 235 vs 310; 2002: 430 vs 550; 2003: 340 vs 420; 2004: 565 vs 640; 2005: 440 vs 480)

Explanation

Differences (Sales - Raw Materials in Lakh Rs.):
- 2000:

210 - 130 = 80

- 2001:

310 - 235 = 75

- 2002:

550 - 430 = 120

(Maximum)
- 2003:

420 - 340 = 80

- 2004:

640 - 565 = 75

- 2005:

480 - 440 = 40

The maximum difference occurred in the year 2002.

अंतर की गणना:
2002 में अंतर

= 550 - 430 = 120

लाख रुपये, जो सभी वर्षों में सर्वाधिक है।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

473📚Basic Concepts of ComputersData Interpretation & Bar Graphs

What was the difference between the average amount invested in Raw materials during the given period and the average value of sales of finished goods during this period?

Explanation

- Total Raw Materials

= 130 + 235 + 430 + 340 + 565 + 440 = 2140\text{ Lakhs}

- Average Raw Materials

= \frac{2140}{6} = 356.67\text{ Lakhs}

- Total Sales

= 210 + 310 + 550 + 420 + 640 + 480 = 2610\text{ Lakhs}

- Average Sales

= \frac{2610}{6} = 435.00\text{ Lakhs}

Difference between averages:

\text{Diff} = 435.00 - 356.67 = 78.33\text{ Lakhs}.

औसत बिक्री

= \frac{2610}{6} = 435.00

लाख।
कच्चे माल का औसत

= \frac{2140}{6} = 356.67

लाख।
अंतर

= 435.00 - 356.67 = 78.33

लाख रुपये।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

474📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCyber Security & Virtualization

Explanation

1. Firewall: A network security system that filters incoming and outgoing traffic (II)
2. Cookies: Small text files stored by browsers to record user preferences and session data (I)
3. Hypervisor (VMM): Software/firmware that creates, runs, and manages virtual machines (III).
Correct matching code is 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.

1. फ़ायरवॉल: इनकमिंग और आउटगोइंग डेटा को फ़िल्टर करता है (II)
2. कुकीज़: उपयोगकर्ता प्राथमिकताओं और सत्र को सहेजती हैं (I)
3. हाइपरवाइजर: वर्चुअल मशीनों को प्रबंधित करता है (III)।
सही विकल्प 1-II, 2-I, 3-III है।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

475📚Basic ReasoningAnalogies & Classification

Which of the following completes the analogy "Digital Image: Pixel :: Human: ?"

Explanation

A pixel is the fundamental, indivisible building block of a digital image. Similarly, a cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of a human.

डिजिटल इमेज की सबसे छोटी मूलभूत इकाई पिक्सेल (Pixel) होती है, उसी प्रकार मानव शरीर की सबसे छोटी संरचनात्मक इकाई कोशिका (Cell) होती है।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

476📚Basic EnglishArticles & Determiners

Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article.
_____ engineer presented _____ innovative solution during the conference.

Explanation

Both 'engineer' and 'innovative' begin with vowel sounds (/e/ and /ɪ/), requiring the indefinite article 'An' and 'an': 'An engineer presented an innovative solution...'.

'Engineer' और 'innovative' दोनों स्वर ध्वनि से शुरू होते हैं, इसलिए दोनों जगह 'An, an' आएगा।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

477📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSentence Improvement & Infinitives

Choose the correct alternative to improve the bold part: The event was canceled because of the committee's inability in securing enough sponsors.

Explanation

The noun 'inability' idiomatically takes a 'to-infinitive': 'inability to secure enough sponsors'.

'Inability' के साथ 'to + verb (infinitive)' का प्रयोग होता है: 'inability to secure'।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

478📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KMajor Tunnels & Infrastructure in J&K

On what date was the Z-Morh tunnel inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

Explanation

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 6.5-km bi-directional Z-Morh Tunnel on January 13, 2025, providing all-weather road connectivity to Sonamarg in Ganderbal district on the Srinagar-Leh highway.

प्रधान मंत्री नरेंद्र मोदी ने 13 जनवरी 2025 को 6.5 किमी लंबी जेड-मोड़ सुरंग (Z-Morh Tunnel) का उद्घाटन किया, जिससे सोनमर्ग के लिए सभी मौसमों में कनेक्टिविटी सुनिश्चित हुई।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

479📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSports & World Chess Championship 2024

India's D Gukesh defeated which chess player during the World Chess Championship 2024 in Singapore?

Explanation

18-year-old Indian Grandmaster Dommaraju Gukesh created history by defeating defending champion Ding Liren of China in the FIDE World Chess Championship 2024 in Singapore, becoming the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion.

भारतीय ग्रैंडमास्टर डी. गुकेश ने सिंगापुर में आयोजित विश्व शतरंज चैंपियनशिप 2024 में चीन के डिंग लिरेन को हराकर इतिहास रचा।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

480📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KFolk Dances of India

Which of the following statements about the folk dance "Tarangmel" is/are correct?
i) Tarangmel is a Goan folk dance that embodies the youthful and exuberant spirit of the region.
ii) The name "Tarangmel" is derived from "Tarang," which means streamers, which are an integral part of the dance.
iii) It is traditionally performed during the Hindu festivals of Dussehra and Holi.
iv) The dance is a colorful spectacle, featuring vibrant costumes, banners, and streamers, creating a rainbow-like display.

Choose the correct answer:

Explanation

All four statements are factually accurate regarding Tarangmel, the energetic folk dance of Goa performed by youth holding colorful rainbow streamers (tarang) and banners during Dussehra and Holi celebrations.

तरंगमेल गोवा का प्रसिद्ध लोकनृत्य है, जो दशहरा और होली के दौरान रंग-बिरंगे झंडों और रिबनों के साथ किया जाता है। सभी चार कथन (i, ii, iii और iv) सही हैं।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

481📚General Awareness & Current AffairsQuit India Movement 1942 & Slogans

Which slogan became famous during the Quit India Movement?

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi delivered his historic call of 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay during the launch of the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942.

8 अगस्त 1942 को भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन के शुभारंभ पर महात्मा गांधी ने 'करो या मरो' (Do or Die) का ऐतिहासिक नारा दिया था।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

482📚General Awareness & Current AffairsCoastal Geography & Famous Beaches

Which of the following location-beach pairings is not correct?

Explanation

Radhanagar Beach (Asia's best beach / Blue Flag beach) is located on Havelock Island (Swaraj Dweep) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, NOT in Andhra Pradesh.

राधानगर बीच (Radhanagar Beach) अंडमान और निकोबार द्वीप समूह के हैवलॉक द्वीप पर स्थित है, आंध्र प्रदेश में नहीं। अतः विकल्प B गलत युग्म है।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

483🔬General ScienceMountain Passes & Mughal Road

Which pass connects the Kashmir Valley with Rajouri and Poonch through the Pir Panjal Range?

Explanation

The historic Pir Panjal Pass (also known as Peer Ki Gali at 3,490 m) on the Mughal Road directly connects Shopian in the Kashmir Valley with Poonch and Rajouri districts in Jammu across the Pir Panjal Range.

पीर पंजाल दर्रा (Peer Ki Gali / मुगल रोड) पीर पंजाल पर्वत श्रृंखला के माध्यम से कश्मीर घाटी (शोपियां) को राजौरी और पुंछ से जोड़ता है।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

484🔬General ScienceReligious Tourism & Pilgrimage Shrines of J&K

Which of the following statements about Amarnath Temple is NOT correct?

Explanation

Statement A is incorrect: The sacred holy cave shrine of Shri Amarnathji is situated at an elevation of approximately 3,888 metres (12,756 feet) above sea level, NOT 7,486 metres (which would exceed most major Himalayan peaks).

कथन A गलत है क्योंकि पवित्र श्री अमरनाथ जी की गुफा समुद्र तल से लगभग 3,888 मीटर (12,756 फीट) की ऊँचाई पर स्थित है, न कि 7,486 मीटर पर।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

485🔬General ScienceTraditional Attire & Culture of Kashmir

The Kashmiri Phiran is characterized by which of the following features?

Explanation

The traditional Kashmiri Phiran (or Pheran) is a loose-fitting, knee-length upper woollen garment worn over layers during harsh winters, designed to accommodate a Kangri (earthen brazier) underneath for warmth.

कश्मीरी फेरन (Phiran) घुटनों तक लंबा और ढीला-ढाला पारंपरिक ऊनी परिधान होता है, जिसके अंदर कड़ाके की ठंड में कांगड़ी रखकर शरीर को गर्म रखा जाता है।

2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments

486📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)Cognitive Restructuring in CBT

Read following Assertion and Reason and Choose correct option:
Assertion (A): In CBT, Cognitive restructuring helps clients identify and modify maladaptive thoughts.
Reason (R): Maladaptive thoughts are believed to contribute significantly to emotional distress and behavioral problems.

Explanation

Cognitive restructuring is used because dysfunctional cognitions directly drive negative emotional states and maladaptive behaviors. Both statements are true, and R explains A.

CBT में अवास्तविक विचार ही मानसिक कष्ट का कारण होते हैं (R), इसलिए संज्ञानात्मक पुनर्गठन द्वारा उन्हें बदला जाता है (A)। अतः A और R दोनों सत्य हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या है।

2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department

487📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyNeuropsychological Assessment (LNNB)

How many clinical scales are included in the standard Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery?

Explanation

The standard Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery (LNNB) comprises 11 clinical scales (Motor, Rhythm, Tactile, Visual, Receptive Speech, Expressive Speech, Writing, Reading, Arithmetic, Memory, and Intellectual Processes).

लूरिया-नेब्रास्का न्यूरोसाइकोलॉजिकल बैटरी (LNNB) में कुल 11 नैदानिक पैमाने (Clinical Scales) होते हैं।

2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department

488📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyNeuropsychological Batteries

What is one significant advantage of the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery compared to other neuropsychological assessments?

Explanation

A major advantage of the LNNB over lengthy batteries like Halstead-Reitan is that it offers a comprehensive, highly standardized, and substantially faster administration time (~1.5 to 2.5 hours) for diagnosing brain impairment.

LNNB का प्रमुख लाभ यह है कि यह मस्तिष्क क्षति का अपेक्षाकृत तीव्र और अत्यधिक संरचित (Faster and structured) मूल्यांकन प्रदान करता है।

2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department

489📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologySleep Architecture & REM Awakening

How will a person who has just woken up from REM sleep look like?

Explanation

Because cortical EEG activity during REM sleep (paradoxical sleep) closely mirrors desynchronized, high-frequency active waking beta waves, individuals awakened directly from REM sleep typically awaken rapidly alert, attentive, and able to recall vivid dream narratives.

REM नींद में कॉर्टिकल मस्तिष्क तरंगें जाग्रत अवस्था के समान सक्रिय होती हैं, इसलिए REM नींद से जागने वाला व्यक्ति तुरंत सतर्क और सचेत (Alert and attentive) होता है।

2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department

490📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Limbic Lesions & Klüver-Bucy Syndrome

Which of the following is caused by bilateral damage in the amygdala?

Explanation

Bilateral anterior temporal lobe and amygdala lesions produce Klüver-Bucy Syndrome, characterized by psychic blindness (visual agnosia), hyperorality, docility/loss of fear, dietary changes, and hypersexuality.

द्विपक्षीय अमिग्डाला (Bilateral amygdala) क्षति के कारण 'क्लुवर-बुसी सिंड्रोम' (Klüver-Bucy syndrome) होता है, जिसमें भय का लोप और हाइपरओरैलिटी होती है।

2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department

491📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Neuropsychological Syndromes (Bálint's)

Balint's syndrome is a triad of which of the following impairments?

Explanation

Bálint's syndrome, caused by bilateral posterior parietal-occipital damage, presents with the classic clinical triad of: (1) Simultanagnosia (inability to perceive more than one visual item at once), (2) Oculomotor apraxia (inability to voluntarily guide eye movements), and (3) Optic ataxia (impaired visually guided reaching).

बालिंट सिंड्रोम (Bálint's syndrome) का त्रिक: सिमुल्तानाग्नोसिया (Simultanagnosia), ओकुलोमोटर अप्राक्सिया, और ऑप्टिक अटैक्सिया। सही उत्तर B है।

2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department

492📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Neuroimaging Modalities

Explanation

Matching: i) fMRI = BOLD oxygen tracking (2); ii) EEG = electrical potentials (3); iii) MEG = magnetic fields (1); iv) PET = radiotracers for glucose metabolism (4). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.

सही मिलान: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4।

2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department

493📚Health Psychology & Research MethodologyPsychotherapy Process & Stages

Arrange the following steps in the typical order they occur during psychotherapy:
1. Setting therapeutic goals
2. Termination of therapy
3. Assessment and diagnosis
4. Intervention and treatment

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Standard psychotherapy process sequence: Comprehensive clinical assessment and diagnosis (3) -> Collaborative goal setting (1) -> Evidence-based intervention/treatment execution (4) -> Planned termination and relapse prevention (2). Sequence: 3 -> 1 -> 4 -> 2.

मनोचिकित्सा के सामान्य चरण: मूल्यांकन और निदान (3) → लक्ष्यों का निर्धारण (1) → हस्तक्षेप और उपचार (4) → चिकित्सा का समापन (2)। सही क्रम: 3 -> 1 -> 4 -> 2।

2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department

494📚Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsCybersecurity & Vocabulary

In the context of cybersecurity, what does the term 'social engineering' refer to?

Explanation

Social engineering in cybersecurity refers to the psychological manipulation of human individuals to trick them into divulging sensitive passwords, credentials, or confidential information.

सोशल इंजीनियरिंग (Social engineering) का अर्थ लोगों को मनोवैज्ञानिक रूप से बरगलाकर उनसे गोपनीय जानकारी प्राप्त करना है।

2025JKSSBPower Development & Technical Education Department

495📚AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsEarth Resistance Measurement

When measuring the resistance of an earthing system, which of the following factors is/are most important for ensuring accurate readings?
1. Length/Depth of the earthing electrode
2. Distance between measurement points
3. Type of soil surrounding the electrode

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Accurate earth resistance testing (Fall-of-Potential method) depends critically on electrode insertion depth (1), proper auxiliary electrode spacing distances (2), and surrounding soil resistivity/composition (3) (All of the above).

अर्थिंग प्रतिरोध के सटीक मापन के लिए इलेक्ट्रोड की गहराई (1), परीक्षण बिंदुओं के बीच की दूरी (2), और मिट्टी की प्रकृति (3) सभी आवश्यक हैं (उपरोक्त सभी)।

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496📚Transformers & Electrical MachinesHydroelectric Power Generation

Consider the following statements about Hydroelectric Power:
1. Hydroelectric power is a secondary source of energy.
2. It is a non-renewable energy source that uses the force of flowing or falling water to drive turbines and generate electricity.
3. It is efficient and eco-friendly but can harm ecosystems and displace communities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Hydroelectric power generates electricity (a secondary energy carrier) (1 - True) and is clean during operation but has ecological/displacement impacts (3 - True). Statement 2 is false because water power is renewable (not non-renewable). Thus, 1 and 3 are correct.

जलविद्युत ऊर्जा द्वितीयक ऊर्जा स्रोत है (1) और यह पर्यावरण के अनुकूल होने के बावजूद पारिस्थितिकी और समुदायों को प्रभावित कर सकती है (3)। कथन 2 असत्य है क्योंकि यह नवीकरणीय (Renewable) स्रोत है। अतः 1 और 3 सही हैं।

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497📚Transformers & Electrical MachinesHysteresis Loop & Energy Loss

Consider the following statements about the Hysteresis Loop:
1. A hysteresis loop is generated by measuring the magnetic flux emitted from a ferromagnetic material as the external magnetic field applied to it is varied.
2. The hysteresis loop shows the relationship between the magnetic flux density and the magnetizing field strength of a paramagnetic substance.
3. The loss of energy per unit volume of the substance is equal to the area of the hysteresis curve.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is false because hysteresis loops (B-H curves) are exhibited by Ferromagnetic materials, NOT paramagnetic substances.

कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं। कथन 2 गलत है क्योंकि हिस्टैरिसीस लूप लौह-चुंबकीय (Ferromagnetic) पदार्थों का गुण है, अनुचुंबकीय का नहीं। अतः 1 और 3 सही हैं।

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498📚Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyCable Laying & Installation Tools

What is the primary function of a cable drum in electrical installations?

Explanation

A cable drum (or reel mounted on jacks) is primarily used during installation to pay out cables smoothly, preventing kinks, twists, bird-caging, and sheath damage during laying.

केबल ड्रम का मुख्य कार्य केबल को बिना उलझे और बिना मुड़े सुचारू रूप से बिछाना सुनिश्चित करना है।

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499📚Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyLap vs Wave Armature Winding

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the difference between wave winding and lap winding in DC generators?

Explanation

Statement D is incorrect: Lap winding has

A = P

parallel paths and requires additional equalizer rings/connections to balance unequal currents, making its manufacturing cost higher than wave winding (which has only 2 paths,

A = 2

).

कथन D गलत है क्योंकि लैप वाइंडिंग में अधिक समानांतर पथ (

A=P

) और इक्वलाइज़र रिंग्स की आवश्यकता के कारण इसकी लागत वेव वाइंडिंग से अधिक होती है।

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500📚Power Generation & DistributionDamper Windings & Hunting

What is the function of the damper winding in an alternator?

Explanation

Damper (amortisseur) windings in synchronous machines suppress rotor oscillations (hunting) during load surges and damp out unbalanced negative-sequence armature reaction magnetic fields.

अल्टरनेटर में डैम्पर वाइंडिंग का मुख्य कार्य हंटिंग (Hunting) को समाप्त करना और ऋणात्मक अनुक्रम चुंबकीय क्षेत्र को दबाना है।

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501📚General English & Quantitative AptitudePower Measurement & Wattmeters

Which type of wattmeter is most commonly used for measuring power in high-voltage circuits?

Explanation

The Electrodynamometer Wattmeter (used with Instrument Transformers - CTs and PTs) is the universal industry standard for precise active power measurement across high-voltage AC and DC power networks.

इलेक्ट्रोडायनेमोमीटर प्रकार का वाटमीटर (Electrodynamometer wattmeter) उच्च वोल्टेज परिपथों में शक्ति मापने के लिए मानक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है।

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502📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeEarth Testers & Wenner 4-Pin Method

Which type of earth tester is most suitable for measuring earth resistance in highly resistive soils?

Explanation

The Four-Electrode Earth Tester (utilizing the Wenner four-pin method) eliminates lead resistance and contact resistance, providing the most accurate soil resistivity and ground resistance measurements in highly resistive, rocky, or dry soils.

चार-इलेक्ट्रोड अर्थ टेस्टर (Wenner विधि) अत्यधिक प्रतिरोधी मिट्टी में सटीक मापन के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त है।

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503📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeDisadvantages of Low Power Factor

Poor power factor can result in:
1. Heat damage to insulation and other circuit components
2. Reduction in the amount of available useful power
3. A required increase in conductor and equipment sizes

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

A low power factor draws excessive reactive line current for a given real load power, causing heavy

I^2R

copper losses and heat degradation in cables/transformers, reducing grid capacity, requiring larger conductors, and causing voltage drops (All of the above).

खराब पावर फैक्टर से केबलों में अत्यधिक करंट और हीटिंग होती है, उपयोगी क्षमता घटती है और मोटे तारों की आवश्यकता होती है (उपरोक्त सभी)।

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504📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeInternet Services vs Hardware Firmware

Which of these is NOT an internet service?

Explanation

BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) setup is a local non-volatile firmware interface embedded on the computer motherboard ROM/flash chip to initialize hardware during POST, entirely independent of internet services.

BIOS सेटअप मदरबोर्ड की स्थानीय फर्मवेयर प्रणाली है, यह कोई इंटरनेट सेवा नहीं है।

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505📚Data Structures & AlgorithmsACID Properties of Transactions

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of transactions in DBMS?

Explanation

Transaction properties are governed by ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability). 'Divisibility' contradicts the fundamental principle of Atomicity (all-or-nothing execution).

ट्रांजेक्शन की मुख्य विशेषताएं ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability) हैं। Divisibility इसकी विशेषता नहीं है।

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506📚Database Management Systems (SQL)SQL Fundamentals

What does SQL stand for?

Explanation

SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the standard domain-specific language used for managing data held in relational database management systems.

SQL का पूर्ण रूप 'Structured Query Language' (स्ट्रक्चर्ड क्वेरी लैंग्वेज) है।

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507📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureNetwork Devices (Router, Switch, Hub, Firewall)

Explanation

Matching: Router = Layer 3 IP routing (1); Switch = Layer 2 MAC frame filtering (2); Hub = Layer 1 physical multi-port repeater broadcasting to all ports (3); Firewall = network security packet inspection (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.

सही मिलान: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4।

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508📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureOSI Reference Model Layers

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for ensuring reliable data transfer?

Explanation

The Transport Layer (Layer 4) provides end-to-end error recovery, flow control, acknowledgment mechanisms, and ensures reliable complete data delivery between source and destination endpoints.

OSI मॉडल की ट्रांसपोर्ट लेयर (Transport Layer) एंड-टू-एंड विश्वसनीय डेटा ट्रांसफर सुनिश्चित करने के लिए जिम्मेदार है।

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509📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureC++ Constructors & Rules

Which of the following statements about constructors in C++ are correct?
1. Constructors initialize class members
2. A constructor has no return type
3. Constructors can be overloaded
4. A constructor can be declared as virtual

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because C++ constructors CANNOT be virtual (vtable/vptr is initialized during constructor execution). Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं। कथन 4 गलत है क्योंकि C++ में कंस्ट्रक्टर कभी भी `virtual` नहीं हो सकते। अतः 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं।

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510📚Object Oriented Programming (C++/Java/Python)Java Special Keywords

Explanation

Matching: Synchronized = mutual exclusion locking for thread safety (1); Transient = ignores field during object serialization (2); Final = constants / immutable methods / non-inheritable classes (3); Volatile = guarantees thread visibility directly from main memory (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.

सही मिलान: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4।

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511📚Object Oriented Programming (C++/Java/Python)C# Using Statement & IDisposable

Which of the following are true about the using statement in C#?
1. It ensures the object is disposed of after use.
2. It is only used for importing namespaces
3. It helps manage unmanaged resources like file handles
4. It can be used to simplify code related to IDisposable objects

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

The `using(...)` statement wraps `IDisposable` objects in a `try-finally` block ensuring `.Dispose()` is called to release unmanaged OS resources (1, 3, 4). Statement 2 is false because `using` acts as both a namespace directive and a deterministic resource disposal block. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

C# में `using` स्टेटमेंट `IDisposable` ऑब्जेक्ट्स के लिए स्वतः `.Dispose()` कॉल करता है और अनमैनेज्ड संसाधनों का प्रबंधन करता है (1, 3, 4)। अतः 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं।

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512📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringSDLC Models

Which of the following models is not a part of software development life cycle (SDLC)?

Explanation

Waterfall, Spiral, Agile, RAD, V-Model, and Prototype are established SDLC models. 'Assembly Line Model' is an industrial manufacturing concept, not an SDLC process model.

वॉटरफॉल, स्पाइरल और एजाइल सभी SDLC मॉडल हैं। 'Assembly Line Model' कोई सॉफ्टवेयर विकास मॉडल नहीं है।

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513📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringObject-Oriented Design Fundamentals

Which of the following statements about Object-Oriented Programming are true?
1. It supports inheritance
2. It emphasizes reusable code
3. It requires writing all logic in one function
4. It uses classes and objects

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are true. Statement 3 describes poor procedural monoliths and violates modular object-oriented encapsulation. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

कथन 1, 2 और 4 सत्य हैं (इनहेरिटेंस, पुनः प्रयोज्य कोड, और क्लासेज/ऑब्जेक्ट्स)। कथन 3 गलत है। अतः 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं।

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514📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringMultiprogramming Concepts & Advantages

Which of the following are advantages of multiprogramming?
1. Increased CPU utilization
2. Decreased memory usage
3. Increased throughput
4. Reduced response time

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

Multiprogramming keeps the CPU continuously busy by switching to another job during I/O waits, thereby maximizing CPU utilization (1), increasing system throughput (3), and improving user response times (4). It requires more memory, not less. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

मल्टीप्रोग्रामिंग के लाभों में CPU उपयोग में वृद्धि (1), थ्रूपुट में वृद्धि (3), और रिस्पांस समय में सुधार (4) शामिल हैं। अतः 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं।

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515📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionMask Dances of Jammu

Which dance is performed in Jammu while wearing a mask?

Explanation

Haran Nritya (Deer Dance) is a traditional folk mask dance of Jammu performed during Lohri by actors wearing masks depicting deer, hunters, and village characters.

जम्मू में मुखौटा पहनकर किया जाने वाला पारंपरिक लोक नृत्य 'हरण नृत्य' (Haran Nritya) है।

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516📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionHistory of Kashmiri Dance Forms

Which Kashmiri dance form was legally banned?

Explanation

Hafiza Nagma (performed by female Hafiza dancers to Sufiyana music) was banned during the Maharaja Hari Singh era in the 1920s under social reform laws, leading to the rise of Bachi Nagma.

महाराजा के शासनकाल में 'हफीजा' (Hafiza) नृत्य को कानूनी रूप से प्रतिबंधित किया गया था, जिसके बाद 'बच्चा नगमा' का प्रचलन बढ़ा।

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517📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionRitual Dances of Kashmir

Which Kashmiri dance form involves women dancing around rangoli?

Explanation

Wugei Nachun is performed by Kashmiri Pandit women during wedding ceremonies dancing around the bridal rangoli (Vyuug) design.

विवाह के अवसर पर रंगोली (व्यूग) के चारों ओर किया जाने वाला कश्मीरी नृत्य 'वुगेई नचुन' (Wugei Nachun) कहलाता है।

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518📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionWind Instruments Anatomy

How many holes are there in a wind instrument?

Explanation

Traditional Kashmiri woodwind instruments (like the Kashmiri Bansuri or Swarnay) typically feature 8 tone holes (7 finger holes plus 1 thumb/tuning hole).

पारंपरिक सुषिर वाद्य (सुरीली बांसुरी/शहनाई) में आमतौर पर 8 छिद्र (Holes) होते हैं।

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519📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionDevotional Instruments of Ladakh & Kashmir

Which percussion instrument is played during morning and evening prayers in Kashmir and Ladakh?

Explanation

Thaluz (metal cymbals / gong percussion) is struck during morning and evening spiritual prayers across Buddhist monasteries and shrines in Ladakh and Kashmir.

कश्मीर और लद्दाख में सुबह और शाम की प्रार्थनाओं के दौरान 'थालुज़' (Thaluz / झांझ) वाद्य यंत्र बजाया जाता है।

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520📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Folk Instruments of Jammu Hills

What is the name of musical instrument similar to "Shehnai" played on festive occasions in the mountain regions?

Explanation

Narsingha (or Narsinga) is a large, curved S-shaped brass wind instrument played alongside drums during weddings and hill festivals in Jammu's mountain ranges.

पर्वतीय क्षेत्रों में उत्सवों पर शहनाई और नगाड़े के साथ बजाया जाने वाला सुषिर वाद्य 'नरसिंघा' (Narsingha) है।

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521📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Wanwun Folk Singing

Wanwun is a form of folk song generally sung on which of the following occasions:

Explanation

Wanwun (Vanvun) is a rhythmic choral wedding song sung exclusively by women during marriage festivities across both Kashmiri Muslim and Kashmiri Pandit traditions.

'वानवुन' (Wanwun) कश्मीर में विवाह (Wedding) के मांगलिक अवसरों पर महिलाओं द्वारा गाया जाने वाला लोक गीत है।

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522📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Kud Dance & Mela Patt

On which occasion is "Kud" dance performed?

Explanation

Kud dance is a ritualistic harvest thanksgiving dance of Jammu's hilly areas (Bhaderwah, Kishtwar, Udhampur) performed during village fairs like Mela Patt and Gram Devta celebrations.

'कुद नृत्य' (Kud Dance) भद्रवाह के प्रसिद्ध 'मेला पट्ट' (Mela Patt) और ग्राम देवता उत्सवों पर किया जाता है।

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523📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Dogri Wedding Songs

In Jammu which folk songs are sung during wedding and other occasions?

Explanation

Suhag (and Ghoriyan) are traditional wedding folksongs sung by women in Jammu to bless the bride and groom.

जम्मू में विवाह के शुभ अवसर पर महिलाओं द्वारा 'सुहाग' (Suhag) और घोड़ियां गाई जाती हैं।

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524📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Lohri Celebrations in Jammu

What dance is performed during the "Lohri" festival in Jammu?

Explanation

During Lohri, boys and men in Jammu perform vibrant Dogri and Bharo folk dances alongside Chajja performances.

लोहड़ी पर्व पर जम्मू में 'डोगरी नृत्य और भारो नृत्य' प्रस्तुत किया जाता है।

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525📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Rouf Dance of Kashmir

Which among the following is the dance performed during Eid and Ramadan in Kashmir?

Explanation

Rouf is the iconic festive dance of Kashmiri women, performed in facing rows with interlocking arms celebrating Eid, Ramadan, and spring harvest.

कश्मीर में ईद और रमजान के खुशी के अवसर पर महिलाओं द्वारा 'रऊफ' (Rouf) नृत्य किया जाता है।

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526📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Women Festivals in Jammu

In which festival do the women perform the Ghurehi dance:

Explanation

Ghurehi dance is a circular women's folk dance performed during local festive fasts and fairs such as Ghurehi Trithya / Teej.

घुरई नृत्य महिलाओं द्वारा 'घुरई तृतीया' (Ghurehi Trithya) पर किया जाता है।

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527📚Taal Shastra & RhythmsKashmiri Literature & Habba Khatoon

The book named Habba Khatoon based on the legendary mystic poetess has been penned down by:

Explanation

The play/book 'Habba Khatoon' highlighting the life of the 16th-century peasant queen and Nightingale of Kashmir was written by Kajal Suri.

प्रसिद्ध कवयित्री हब्बा खातून पर आधारित पुस्तक 'काजल सूरी' (Kajal Suri) द्वारा लिखी गई है।

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528📚Taal Shastra & RhythmsAcoustic Ratios of Octaves

What is the frequency ratio between the notes, one octave apart?

Explanation

Two notes separated by one octave have an exact fundamental frequency ratio of 2:1 (e.g. A5 = 880 Hz vs A4 = 440 Hz).

एक सप्तक (ऑक्टेव) के अंतराल वाले दो स्वरों के बीच आवृत्ति का अनुपात 2:1 होता है।

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529📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsAccompaniment Techniques

What is the term used for playing melodic fragments or filler between vocal lines in harmonium accompaniment?

Explanation

An Interlude (or filler phrasing / Meend-tukda) is a short instrumental phrase played by the harmonium accompanist during pauses between vocal verses.

गायन के बीच में हारमोनियम संगतकार द्वारा बजाए जाने वाले मधुर भराव या छोटे संगीत खंड को 'इंटरल्यूड' (Interlude) कहा जाता है।

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530📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsTaal in Performance

Which of the following elements in performance is crucial for both the percussionist and the vocalist to maintain rhythmic coherence in a composition?

Explanation

Taal provides the recurring cyclical time-metric framework that synchronizes the vocalist, instrumentalist, and tabla player during a performance.

गायक और तबला वादक के बीच लयबद्ध तालमेल बनाए रखने के लिए सबसे महत्वपूर्ण तत्व 'ताल' (Taal) है।

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531📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsHarmonics & Overtones

Which harmonic overtone corresponds to the second octave above a fundamental pitch?

Explanation

Harmonic series relations:
- Fundamental pitch =

f_1

- 1st octave above = 2nd harmonic (

2 f_1

)
- 2nd octave above = 4th harmonic (

4 f_1

)
- 3rd octave above = 8th harmonic (

8 f_1

).

मूल स्वर से दूसरा सप्तक ऊपर 4था हार्मोनिक (4th harmonic =

4f_1

) होता है।

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532📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsTonal Tonic (Sa)

What is typically used as the tonal foundation when accompanying the melody on the harmonium?

Explanation

Shadaj (Sa / tonic drone) serves as the universal fundamental pitch reference and tonal foundation across Indian music accompaniment.

हारमोनियम पर संगत करते समय आधार स्वर 'षडज' (Sa / Fixed Drone) होता है।

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533📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & KashmirHarmonic Progression & Voicing

The concept of octave doubling is essential in which area of music theory?

Explanation

Octave doubling (reinforcing root/bass or melody lines an octave apart) is a fundamental voicing technique in Harmonic Progression and orchestration.

ऑक्टेव डबलिंग (Octave doubling) की अवधारणा 'हार्मोनिक प्रोग्रेशन' (Harmonic Progression) में आवश्यक होती है।

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534📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryTransuranic Elements & Natural Abundance

Why are there no naturally occurring isotopes with an atomics number greater than 92?

Explanation

Transuranic elements (

Z > 92

, beyond Uranium) have unstable nuclei with half-lives vastly shorter than the 4.5-billion-year age of the Earth; any primordial isotopes formed during nucleosynthesis have completely decayed away.

यूरेनियम से भारी तत्वों (

Z > 92

) के नाभिक अस्थिर होते हैं और उनका अर्धायु काल पृथ्वी की आयु की तुलना में बहुत कम होने के कारण वे प्राकृतिक रूप से समाप्त हो चुके हैं।

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535📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryOxygen Enhancement Ratio (OER) & LET

The OER for alpha particles is equal to:

Explanation

For high-LET densely ionizing radiation like Alpha particles (~100-200 keV/μm), biological damage is produced by direct dense ionization independent of oxygen free radicals, yielding an Oxygen Enhancement Ratio (OER) of 1.0.

अल्फा कणों (High LET) के लिए ऑक्सीजन संवर्धन अनुपात (OER) का मान 1.0 होता है क्योंकि इनका प्रभाव ऑक्सीजन पर निर्भर नहीं करता।

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536📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryOxygen Fixation Hypothesis

Sensitization by oxygen takes place if oxygen is present:

Explanation

Under the oxygen fixation hypothesis, oxygen must be present during the brief irradiation pulse (or within microseconds) to react with radiation-induced transient DNA free radicals (R^\bullet + O_2 → RO_2^\bullet) and fix lethal damage.

ऑक्सीजन द्वारा संवेदीकरण (Sensitization) तभी प्रभावी होता है जब विकिरण के दौरान (During irradiation) ऑक्सीजन ऊतक में उपस्थित हो।

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537📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryPotentially Lethal Damage (PLD)

Radiation damage is divided into (a) lethal damage, (b) sublethal damage and (c) potentially lethal damage (PLD). Which of the following statements is true?

Explanation

Potentially Lethal Damage (PLD) is component damage that ordinarily causes cell death under standard physiological post-irradiation conditions, but can be repaired if cells are incubated in suboptimal growth conditions (e.g. plateau phase / delayed plating).

संभावित घातक क्षति (PLD) सामान्य परिस्थितियों में कोशिका मृत्यु का कारण बनती है, परंतु वृद्धि की स्थिति बदलने पर इसकी मरम्मत संभव है।

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538📚Radiation Detection & DosimetrySublethal Damage (SLD) Repair

Sublethal damage repair is:

Explanation

Sublethal Damage (SLD) repair is the operational mechanism (Elkind repair) responsible for the increase in cell survival observed when a total radiation dose is divided/split into two fractions separated by a time interval of hours.

सब-लीथल क्षति मरम्मत (SLD repair) वह कारण है जिससे विकिरण खुराक को दो भागों में विभाजित करने पर कोशिका उत्तरजीविता (Survival) बढ़ जाती है।

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539📚Radiation Detection & DosimetrySLD Repair & Cell Cycle Reassortment

The increase of cell survival because of sublethal damage repair:

Explanation

As time increases between split doses, surviving synchronized cells progress around the cell cycle and enter more sensitive phases (M/G2 - reassortment), which produces a dip in survival that counteracts pure repair.

सब-लीथल मरम्मत द्वारा उत्तरजीविता में वृद्धि कोशिका चक्र में आगे बढ़ने ('पुनर्वर्गीकरण' / Reassortment) के कारण संवेदनशीलता बढ़ने से प्रभावित/बाधित होती है।

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540📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryDose-Rate Effect in Radiobiology

The dose-rate effect:

Explanation

The dose-rate effect states that lowering the dose rate (or extending exposure duration) reduces the biological effectiveness of a given dose of low-LET radiation because sublethal damage repair occurs during the prolonged irradiation period.

डोज़-रेट प्रभाव में विकिरण का समय बढ़ाने (डोज़ रेट घटाने) पर सब-लीथल मरम्मत होने के कारण विकिरण का जैविक प्रभाव कम हो जाता है।

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541📚Radiotherapy Equipment (Linac, Telecobalt)Factors Influencing Cellular Radiosensitivity

Which of these factors has no effect on response of cells to irradiation?

Explanation

Biological cellular response depends on radiation quality (LET), oxygen tension (

pO_2

), and dose-rate. The image receptor (detector/film) captures transmitted photons outside the patient and has zero influence on biological cell damage.

कोशिकाओं की विकिरण प्रतिक्रिया LET, ऑक्सीजन और डोज़ रेट पर निर्भर करती है; उपयोग किए गए इमेज रिसेप्टर का इस पर कोई प्रभाव नहीं होता।

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542📚Radiotherapy Equipment (Linac, Telecobalt)Attenuation Coefficients & Photon Energy

Attenuation coefficient depends on:

Explanation

The linear/mass attenuation coefficient (

\mu

) depends fundamentally on the incident X-ray photon energy (

E

) and the atomic number (

Z

) and density of the absorber.

क्षीणन गुणांक (Attenuation coefficient

\mu

) मुख्य रूप से एक्स-रे फोटॉनों की ऊर्जा (Energy) और माध्यम के परमाणु क्रमांक पर निर्भर करता है।

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543📚Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningHounsfield Unit (HU) Calibration

Two materials used to calibrate the CT number scale of CT scanner are:

Explanation

The Hounsfield unit (HU / CT number) scale is fundamentally calibrated using Water (

ext{CT number} = 0\text{ HU}

) and Air (

ext{CT number} = -1000\text{ HU}

).

सीटी नंबर (Hounsfield scale) को कैलिब्रेट करने के लिए पानी (

0\text{ HU}

) और वायु (

-1000\text{ HU}

) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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544📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsHead Study Terminology

Match the terms related to head study modelling with their correct descriptions :

Terms:
1. Proportions.
2. Clay
3. Sculpting
4. Anatomy

Descriptions:
i. A method used for capturing the three - dimensional structure of the head.
ii. The correct relationship between the various facial features and overall head size.
iii. A popular material used to create head studies in modelling.
iv. The study of the human skull and facial structure.

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv correctly matches proportions, clay, sculpting, and anatomy.

1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv सही मिलान है।

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545📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsModelling Techniques

Match the head study modelling techniques with their correct focus areas :

Techniques:
1. Proportional study
2. Detail modelling
3. Structural modelling.
4. Expression study

Focus areas:
i. Creating the overall shape and structure of the head.
ii. Accurately representing the facial features and their relationships.
iii. Focusing on the depth, shape, and dimension of the skull and face.
iv. Capturing the emotional expression or personality through the head's features.

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

1-iii (Proportions/dimensions), 2-ii (Detail/features), 3-i (Structural/overall shape), 4-iv (Expression).

1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv सही मिलान है।

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546📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsSculptural Classification

Match the sculpture technique with its correct description.

Sculpture Techniques:
1. Additive process
2. Subtractive process
3. Casting

Description:
i. Carving or chiselling away material to create the sculpture.
ii. Adding material, such as clay or wax, to build up the sculpture.
iii. Creating a mould and pouring a material, such as metal or plaster, into it to create a sculpture.

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

1-ii (Additive), 2-i (Subtractive), 3-iii (Casting).

1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii सही मिलान है।

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547📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingDrawing Disciplines

Match the following techniques and practices to their correct descriptions:

Column A:
1. Gesture drawing
2. Proportional Measurements
3. Still Life Drawing
4. Figure Drawing

Column B:
i. A technique used to capture the quick, expressive movement of a live subject.
ii. The process of measuring the size relationships between different parts of the subject to ensure accurate representation.
iii. Drawing inanimate objects arranged in a specific way, focusing on form, texture, and light.
iv. Drawing the human form, often from a live model, to study anatomy and posture.

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

1-i (Gesture), 2-ii (Proportion), 3-iii (Still Life), 4-iv (Figure Drawing).

1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।

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548📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingFigure and Bust Terminology

Match the following terms with their correct descriptions :

Column A:
1. Full figure study
2. Bust study
3. Proportional accuracy
4. Gesture modeling.

Column B:
i. A technique used to capture the subject's natural pose, movement, and overall form.
ii. A focus on modeling the head, neck, and shoulders of the subject.
iii. Ensuring that the size relationships between different parts of the body are realistic and balanced.
iv. Creating a sculpture that represents the entire human body from head to toe.

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

1-iv (Full figure), 2-ii (Bust), 3-iii (Proportion), 4-i (Gesture).

1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i सही मिलान है।

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549📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingLife Modeling Concepts

Which of the following combinations of statements are correct about "Modeling (Full Figure and Bust Study from Life)"?

A) Full figure modeling focuses only on the head and torso, excluding limbs and feet.
B) Bust study primarily involves capturing the intricate details of the subject's facial features and expression.
C) Proportional accuracy in modeling is crucial for realistic representation, especially in full figure sculptures.
D) Gesture modeling is not important in bust studies because the focus is solely on the face.

Explanation

Statements B and C are correct.

कथन B और C सही हैं।

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550📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingComposition Principles

Which of the following is a key principle in sculptural composition?

Explanation

Balance (symmetrical or asymmetrical) and harmony are fundamental principles of sculptural composition.

मूर्तिकला में संतुलन और सामंजस्य स्थापित करने के लिए सममिति और संतुलन एक प्रमुख सिद्धांत है।

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551📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingBronze Casting Cycle

Which of the following combinations correctly describe the process and characteristics of bronze casting?

Explanation

Option D accurately outlines the lost-wax casting cycle: wax model -> investment mould -> burnout -> pouring molten bronze.

कांस्य ढलाई में मोम का मॉडल बनाना, मोल्ड तैयार करना, कांस्य पिघलाना और मोल्ड में डालना शामिल है।

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552📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyModeling Techniques

Which of the following techniques is primarily used in modeling sculptures?

Explanation

Modeling is fundamentally an additive sculptural discipline where material is built up.

मॉडलिंग में मुख्य रूप से सामग्री जोड़कर आकृतियों का निर्माण किया जाता है।

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553📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyGesture Drawing Dynamics

Consider the following statements about gesture drawing in human figure sketching:

i. Gesture drawing captures the action, form, and pose of a figure.
ii. Fine details like facial expressions are crucial in gesture drawing.
iii. Gesture sketches are usually created with quick, flowing lines.
iv. Gesture drawing focuses on the overall movement rather than intricate details.

Choose the correct options

Explanation

Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Fine details are omitted during gesture drawing.

कथन i, iii और iv सही हैं।

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554📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyFigure Drawing Terminology

Match the following terms related to drawing (Human figure) with their correct descriptions :

Column A (Term):
i. Gesture Drawing
ii. Foreshortening
iii. 8-Heads rule
iv. Contour Drawing

Column B (Description):
1. Dividing the body into eight equal parts for proportion.
2. Technique to create the illusion of depth in a figure.
3. Quick sketches capturing pose and movement.
4. Outlining the edges and boundaries of a figure.

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

i-3 (Gesture), ii-2 (Foreshortening), iii-1 (8-Heads rule), iv-4 (Contour Drawing).

i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4 सही मिलान है।

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555📚Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingPortraiture History

Identify the correct statements about historical portraiture traditions :

i. Portraiture was primarily reserved for royalty and nobility in early history.
ii. Renaissance artists revolutionized portraiture with lifelike detail and realism.
iii. Portraits in ancient Egypt focused heavily on capturing emotional expressions.
iv. Modern portraiture often includes abstract and experimental styles.

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Ancient Egyptian portraits were formalized and idealized, not focused on transient emotions.

कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं।

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556📚Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Casting

What is the process called where molten metal is poured into a mould to create sculptures?

Explanation

Casting is the manufacturing process where liquid metal is poured into a hollow mould.

पिघली हुई धातु को मोल्ड में डालकर मूर्ति बनाने की प्रक्रिया को कास्टिंग (ढलाई) कहा जाता है।

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557📚Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyInsect Orders Classification

During a field study, three insects wiht the following characteristics were observed:
1. Elongate, membranous wings with netlike venation, long and slender abdomen, large compound eyes.
2. Small bodied, sucking mouth parts, narrow wings fringed with setae.
3. Sclerotized forewings, membranous hindwings, chewing mouth parts.
They can be identified to their respective order as

Explanation

1 = Odonata (Dragonflies), 2 = Thysanoptera (Thrips with fringed wings), 3 = Coleoptera (Beetles with elytra).

1-ओडोनाटा (ड्रैगनफ्लाई), 2-थाइसानोप्टेरा (थ्रिप्स), 3-कोलियोप्टेरा (बीटल्स)। सही उत्तर D है।

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558📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyMolecular Evolution

With time molecular distance between organisms increases during evolution largely due to

Explanation

Motoo Kimura's Neutral Theory of Molecular Evolution demonstrates that the majority of evolutionary divergence at the molecular sequence level is driven by the steady accumulation of neutral mutations.

तटस्थ उत्परिवर्तन (Neutral mutation) आणविक घड़ी के आधार पर प्रजातियों के बीच आणविक दूरी बढ़ाने का मुख्य कारण है।

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559📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyGeological Time Scale

The correct order of periods from Paleozoic to Mesozoic era is

Explanation

Geological time scale: Paleozoic (Cambrian -> Ordovician -> Silurian -> Devonian -> Carboniferous -> Permian) followed by Mesozoic (Triassic -> Jurassic -> Cretaceous).

कैम्ब्रियन -> ऑर्डोविशियन -> सिलूरियन -> डेवोनियन -> कार्बोनिफेरस -> पर्मियन -> ट्रायसिक -> जुरासिक -> क्रिटेशियस।

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560📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyCytogenetics

Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for

Explanation

Meiotic crossing over during pachytene of prophase I breaks linkage groups to generate genetic recombination and novel allelic combinations.

द्विगुणित जीवों में क्रॉसिंग ओवर आनुवंशिक पुनर्संयोजन (Recombination) के लिए जिम्मेदार है।

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561📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyVertebrate Excretory Physiology

Henle's loop is present only in

Explanation

Loops of Henle evolved specifically in the metanephric nephrons of mammals and birds to generate hypertonic urine via countercurrent multiplication.

हेनले का लूप (Henle's loop) केवल पक्षियों और स्तनधारियों में केंद्रित मूत्र उत्पादन के लिए पाया जाता है।

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562📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyDNA Replication Enzymology

During DNA replication, events at the replication fork require different types of enzymes having specialized functions except?

Explanation

DNA glycosylases operate in Base Excision Repair (BER) pathways, not as core replication fork replication machinery.

डीएनए ग्लाइकोसाइलेज (DNA glycosylase) डीएनए रिपेयर में काम आता है, यह प्रतिकृति फोर्क का सामान्य एंजाइम नहीं है।

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563📚Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCognitive Ethology

An animal's ability to escape from a predator by using the explored knowledge of home are is an example of

Explanation

Latent learning involves acquiring spatial cognitive maps of home ranges during exploration without immediate reward or reinforcement.

पूर्व ज्ञान और क्षेत्र अन्वेषण के आधार पर शिकारी से बचना अव्यक्त अधिगम (Latent learning) का उदाहरण है।

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564📚Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsComparative Vertebrate Anatomy

In which of the animals the heart does not have the left and right auricles?

Explanation

Fishes possess a 2-chambered branchial heart (one atrium and one ventricle) with undivided single circulation.

मछलियों के दो-कक्षीय हृदय में बाएं और दाएं अलिंद का विभाजन नहीं होता है।

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565📚Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population Dynamicsr and K Selection

Which of the following best describes r-selected species?

Explanation

r-selected strategists prioritize high intrinsic reproductive rates (

r

), early maturity, rapid dispersal, and high fecundity with minimal parental investment.

r-चयनित प्रजातियाँ उच्च प्रजनन दर और कम पैतृक देखभाल के साथ कई संतानों को तेजी से जन्म देती हैं।

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566📚Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationPsychometric Measurement Scales

What type of scale is used to measure the degree to which respondents agree or disagree with a statement?

Explanation

A Likert scale is a psychometric response scale (e.g. 1–5 from strongly disagree to strongly agree) measuring attitudes and agreement levels.

कथन से सहमति या असहमति की डिग्री को मापने के लिए लिकर्ट स्केल (Likert scale) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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567📚Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisImmunoglobulin Biochemistry

Antibodies are termed as :

Explanation

Immunoglobulins (antibodies) migrate within the gamma-globulin fraction during serum protein electrophoresis.

एंटीबॉडीज को गामा-ग्लोब्युलिन (

\gamma

-globulins) के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया जाता है।

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568📚Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisMammalian Respiratory Evolution

Assertion (A): Mammals are the only vertebrates that exhibit diaphragmatic breathing.
Reason (R) : The diaphragm in mammals is crucial for oxygen supply during high-energy activities.

Options:

Explanation

The muscular diaphragm is a unique mammalian evolutionary innovation separating thoracic and abdominal cavities to support high endothermic metabolic oxygen demands.

दोनों A और R सत्य हैं, और R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है।

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569📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Type 1 Lepra Reaction

Which of the following is a common complication in a patient experiencing Type 1 lepra reaction?

Explanation

Type 1 lepra reaction (Reversal reaction) is a delayed hypersensitivity response characterized by acute erythema, edema, and swelling of pre-existing skin lesions and neuritis.

टाइप 1 लेप्रा रिएक्शन में मौजूदा त्वचा के घावों में लालिमा और सूजन (Redness and swelling of skin lesions) होती है।

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570📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Patient Counselling & Stigma

Which of the following is emphasized during counselling of a patient newly diagnosed with leprosy?

Explanation

Counselling stresses that leprosy is completely curable with standard Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) and transmission ceases within days of initiating treatment.

काउंसलिंग में यह स्पष्ट किया जाता है कि कुष्ठ रोग मल्टी-ड्रग थेरेपी (MDT) से पूरी तरह साध्य और ठीक होने योग्य (Curable) है।

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571📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Pregnancy and Leprosy

Which of the following statements about pregnancy and leprosy are correct?
i. Pregnancy suppresses immune responses, potentially worsening leprosy.
ii. Type 1 lepra reactions are less frequent during pregnancy.
iii. Multi-drug therapy (MDT) is contraindicated during pregnancy.

Select the correct answer:

Explanation

Pregnancy suppresses Th1 cell-mediated immunity; standard WHO MDT is safe (not contraindicated) during pregnancy.

कथन i और ii सही हैं। MDT गर्भावस्था में पूरी तरह सुरक्षित है।

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572📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Disability Prevention & Rehabilitation

Which of the following statements about disabilities and rehabilitation in leprosy are correct?
i. Disabilities in leprosy are often caused by peripheral nerve damage.
ii. Reconstructive surgery can reverse all nerve-related deformities.
iii. Physical and occupational therapy play a significant role in rehabilitation.

Select the correct answer:

Explanation

Statements i and iii are correct. Reconstructive surgery can correct motor deformities (claw hand) but cannot reverse sensory loss (anesthesia).

कथन i और iii सही हैं।

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573📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Clinical Forms of Leprosy

Match the following types or reactions of leprosy with their corresponding clinical features:
Column A:
i. Tuberculoid leprosy
ii. Lepromatous leprosy
iii. Type 1 lepra reaction
iv. Type 2 lepra reaction

Column B:
1. Numbness in glove and stocking pattern
2. Inflammation of existing skin lesions and nerves
3. Solitary hypo-esthetic patch
4. Reddish tender nodules

Select the correct answer:

Explanation

i-3 (TT = solitary hypoesthetic patch), ii-1 (LL = symmetrical stocking-glove numbness), iii-2 (Type 1 = inflammation of existing lesions/neuritis), iv-4 (Type 2 = crops of tender erythematous nodules/ENL).

i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4 सही मिलान है।

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574📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Leprosy Drug Adverse Effects

Match the following leprosy drugs with their notable side effects:
Column A:
i. Rifampicin
ii. Dapsone
iii. Clofazimine
iv. Ofloxacin

Column B:
1. Hemolytic anemia
2. Reddish discoloration especially of skin, and body fluids
3. Red discoloration of urine, tears, and saliva (not skin)
4. Vaginitis

Select the correct answer:

Explanation

Rifampicin -> Orange-red discoloration of urine/tears (3), Dapsone -> Hemolytic anemia / Methemoglobinemia (1), Clofazimine -> Reddish-black skin pigmentation (2), Ofloxacin -> Vaginitis/GI upset (4).

i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4 सही मिलान है।

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575📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Leprosy Phenomena & Manifestations

Match the following terms in leprosy with their descriptions:
Column A:
i. Lucio phenomenon
ii. Downgrading reaction
iii. Madarosis
iv. Lazarine leprosy

Column B:
1. Loss of eyebrows or eyelashes in advanced lepromatous leprosy
2. A severe necrotizing vasculitis seen in diffuse lepromatous leprosy
3. Immunological shift resulting in worsening of lesions
4. Diffuse infiltration without visible nodulation, giving a myxedematous appearance

Select the correct answer:

Explanation

Lucio phenomenon -> Severe necrotizing purpuric vasculitis in diffuse LL (2), Downgrading reaction -> Shift toward lepromatous pole with falling CMI (3), Madarosis -> Loss of eyebrows/eyelashes (1), Lazarine leprosy -> Ulcerative tuberculoid form (4/3).

i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4 सही मिलान है।

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576📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsCandidiasis and Antifungal Resistance

Consider the following statements about Candida infections:
i. Candida is a part of the normal flora of the human body and can become pathogenic under certain conditions.
ii. Pseudohyphae formation is a demonstrable feature of Candida albicans in KOH preparations.
iii. Inhaled or systemic corticosteroids predispose to oral candidiasis.
iv. Fluconazole is the first-line treatment for Candida auris infections.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is false because Candida auris is multidrug-resistant and frequently resistant to fluconazole (Echinocandins are first-line).

कथन i, ii और iii सही हैं। कैंडिडा ऑरिस फ्लुकोनाज़ोल प्रतिरोधी होता है।

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577📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsHerpesvirus Latency & Reactivation

Which of the following viral infections typically presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base and is known for reactivation during periods of immunosuppression or stress?

Explanation

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV-1 and HSV-2) establishes lifelong latency in sensory nerve ganglia and reactivates as clustered vesicles on an erythematous base.

हर्पीस सिम्प्लेक्स वायरस (HSV) संवेदी गैन्ग्लिया में निष्क्रिय रहता है और तनाव/प्रतिरक्षा दमन में पुनः सक्रिय होकर गुच्छेदार फफोले बनाता है।

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578📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsPediatric Viral Exanthems

A 3-year-old child presents with fever, irritability, and difficulty eating. On examination, there are multiple painful ulcers in the oral cavity, along with scattered vesicular lesions on the palms, soles, and buttocks. The lesions are non-pruritic and have a grayish base. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The clinical presentation of oral aphthous-like enanthem and gray oval vesicles on palms, soles, and buttocks in a young child is pathognomonic for Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease (Coxsackievirus A16 / Enterovirus 71).

हैंड, फुट एंड माउथ डिजीज (HFMD - कॉक्ससैकी वायरस) में मुंह में छाले और हथेलियों, तलवों तथा नितंबों पर फफोले होते हैं।

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579📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersCutaneous Biology Fundamentals

Consider the following statements about the basic structure and function of the skin:
i. The epidermis is avascular and relies on diffusion from the dermis for nutrients.
ii. Melanocytes are present in the stratum spinosum of the epidermis.
iii. The dermis contains collagen and elastin fibers that provide strength and elasticity to the skin.
iv. The stratum corneum plays a major role in preventing water loss from the skin.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Statement ii is false because melanocytes reside in the basal layer (stratum basale).

कथन i, iii, और iv सही हैं। मेलानोसाइट्स स्ट्रेटम बेसेल में स्थित होते हैं।

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580📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesCryptococcus Diagnosis

Consider the following statements regarding Cryptococcus neoformans:
i. India ink preparation is a rapid diagnostic method to identify Cryptococcus neoformans in cerebrospinal fluid.
ii. On histopathological examination, mucicarmine stain highlights the capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans.
iii. Sabouraud's dextrose agar can be used for culturing Cryptococcus neoformans.
iv. Gram staining is the most specific method for identifying Cryptococcus neoformans.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is false because Gram staining is non-specific for encapsulated yeast.

कथन i, ii, और iii सही हैं (इंडिया इंक और म्यूसीकारमाइन स्टेन से कैप्सूल पहचाना जाता है)।

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581📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesMycobacterial Culture

What is the preferred medium for culturing Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Explanation

Löwenstein-Jensen (LJ) egg-based medium supplemented with malachite green and glycerol is the reference solid medium for isolating Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

माइकोबैक्टीरियम ट्यूबरकुलोसिस के संवर्धन के लिए लोवेनस्टीन-जेन्सेन (LJ medium) पसंदीदा माध्यम है।

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582📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesParaffin Embedding Purpose

What is the main purpose of tissue embedding in paraffin wax during histopathological processing?

Explanation

Paraffin wax infiltration and embedding provides rigid structural support to soft biopsy tissues so they can be sliced into ultrathin sections on a microtome.

पैराफिन वैक्स में ऊतक एम्बेडिंग का मुख्य उद्देश्य माइक्रोटोम पर पतले सेक्शन काटने के लिए ठोस सहारा (Support) प्रदान करना है।

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583📚Basic EnglishConjunctions

Choose the appropriate option that fills in the given sentence correctly:
Smoking will never be given up, _______ the Tobacco industry thrives.

Explanation

'As long as' (condition/duration conjunction) means 'provided that' or 'during the whole time that'.

As long as' (जब तक कि) सही संयोजक है: 'जब तक तंबाकू उद्योग पनपता रहेगा, धूम्रपान समाप्त नहीं होगा।

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584🔬General ScienceAcid Rain Causes

Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

Explanation

Acid rain forms when atmospheric sulfur dioxide (

SO_2

) and nitrogen oxides (

NO_x

) react with water vapor to produce sulfuric and nitric acids.

अम्लीय वर्षा (Acid rain) सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड और नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड्स के वायुमंडलीय प्रदूषण के कारण होती है।

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585🔬General ScienceSeparation Techniques

The joint process of vaporization and condensation is called

Explanation

Distillation is the purification process involving boiling a liquid to vapor (vaporization) followed by cooling the vapor back to liquid (condensation).

वाष्पीकरण (Vaporization) और संघनन (Condensation) की संयुक्त प्रक्रिया को आसवन (Distillation) कहते हैं।

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586🔬General ScienceReproduction Modes

Which of the following is not a process of asexual reproductions?

Explanation

Syngamy is the fusion of two haploid gametes during sexual reproduction to form a diploid zygote.

सिनगैमी (Syngamy - युग्मकों का संलयन) लैंगिक प्रजनन की प्रक्रिया है, अलैंगिक की नहीं।

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587🔬General ScienceCombustible Gases

Which of the following gas causes explosion in coal mines?

Explanation

Methane (

CH_4

, known as firedamp) forms explosive mixtures when mixed with air in underground coal mines.

कोयला खदानों में विस्फोट का मुख्य कारण मीथेन (Methane / Firedamp) गैस होती है।

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588📚History of India & Freedom Struggle1857 Revolt Administrators

Who was the Governor-General of India during the revolt of 1857?

Explanation

Lord Canning served as Governor-General during the Revolt of 1857 and subsequently became India's first Viceroy under the Government of India Act 1858.

1857 के विद्रोह के समय भारत के गवर्नर-जनरल लॉर्ड कैनिंग (Lord Canning) थे।

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589📚History of India & Freedom StruggleChamparan Satyagraha

The date 10 April 1917 is famous for which event, during Freedom Struggle?

Explanation

On April 10, 1917, Mahatma Gandhi arrived in Patna/Champaran, initiating the historic Champaran Indigo Satyagraha.

10 अप्रैल 1917 को महात्मा गांधी चंपारण पहुंचे, जिसने चंपारण सत्याग्रह (Champaran Satyagraha) की शुरुआत की।

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590📚History of India & Freedom StruggleSatyashodhak Samaj

Whose main aim was to uplift the backward classes?

Explanation

Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-Seekers' Society) was founded by Jyotirao Phule in 1873 to liberate and uplift the non-Brahmin backward classes and women.

सत्यशोधक समाज (ज्योतिराव फुले, 1873) का मुख्य उद्देश्य पिछड़ी जातियों और दलितों का उत्थान था।

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591📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTTunnels and Infrastructure in J&K

Which of the following options is the longest all weather road tunnel that has enabled increase in trade and tourism in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel on NH-44) spans 9.28 km, making it India's longest bi-directional all-weather road tunnel.

डॉ. श्यामा प्रसाद मुखर्जी टनल (चेनानी-नाशरी टनल - 9.28 किमी) जम्मू और कश्मीर की सबसे लंबी ऑल-वेदर रोड टनल है।

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592📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTHydroelectric Projects in J&K

Which is the first hydro power project build by India in Jammu & Kashmir under the Indus water treaty regime?

Explanation

Salal Hydroelectric Project (690 MW on Chenab river in Reasi district) was the first major run-of-the-river project constructed under the 1960 Indus Waters Treaty framework.

सिंधु जल संधि व्यवस्था के तहत जम्मू-कश्मीर में भारत द्वारा निर्मित पहली प्रमुख पनबिजली परियोजना सलाल जलविद्युत परियोजना (Salal Hydroelectric Project) है।

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593📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTJ&K Hydro Projects

Kishanganga hydroelectric project is located in which district of the Jammu & Kashmir?

Explanation

The Kishanganga Hydroelectric Project (330 MW) is located on the Kishanganga/Neelum river in Bandipora district, J&K.

किशनगंगा जलविद्युत परियोजना (330 मेगावाट) जम्मू और कश्मीर के बांदीपोरा (Bandipora) जिले में स्थित है।

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594📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTRivers of J&K

Which of the following rivers serves for Salal Hydel project of Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

The Salal Hydroelectric Project is constructed on the Chenab river near Reasi.

सलाल जलविद्युत परियोजना चिनाब (Chenab) नदी पर बनाई गई है।

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595📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTTourism & Culture of J&K

_______, also known as "little Tibet", is renowned for its remote mountain beauty and Buddhist culture.

Explanation

Ladakh is historically and culturally referred to as 'Little Tibet' due to its Tibetan Buddhist traditions and high-altitude trans-Himalayan terrain.

लद्दाख (Ladakh) को 'छोटा तिब्बत' (Little Tibet) के नाम से जाना जाता है।

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596📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsPsychrometric Processes

During the chemical dehumidification process of air

Explanation

In chemical/adsorption dehumidification (using silica gel or activated alumina), moisture is adsorbed (latent heat released), causing specific humidity to decrease while dry bulb temperature (DBT) increases.

रासायनिक निरार्द्रीकरण (Chemical dehumidification) में विशिष्ट आर्द्रता घटती है और शुष्क बल्ब तापमान (DBT) बढ़ता है।

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597📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsElectrical Fundamentals

What is the method of varying inductance in a coil?

Explanation

Inductance

L = \frac{\mu N^2 A}{l}

is varied physically by adjusting the position or magnetic permeability of the ferromagnetic core inside the coil.

कुंडली (Coil) के भीतर फेरोमैग्नेटिक कोर (Core) की स्थिति या पारगम्यता को बदलकर प्रेरकत्व (Inductance) बदला जाता है।

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598📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsIndustrial Safety & Fire Fighting

Which of the following statements are true regarding industrial safety and fire fighting in occupational health?
1. Industrial safety focuses on the prevention of injuries and accidents in the workplace.
2. Fire fighting techniques are primarily concerned with preventing damage to machinery.
3. Occupational health safety includes physical, chemical, and biological hazards at the work-place.
4. Fire safety measures in an industrial setting do not require employee training.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Fire safety prioritizes preservation of human life over machinery, and employee training is mandatory.

कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं (औद्योगिक सुरक्षा चोटों की रोकथाम पर केंद्रित है और व्यावसायिक स्वास्थ्य में भौतिक/रासायनिक खतरे शामिल हैं)।

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599📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsAccumulator Function

What role does the accumulator play in a refrigerator system?

Explanation

A suction line accumulator traps unevaporated liquid refrigerant exiting the evaporator, ensuring that only dry gas enters the compressor suction port, preventing liquid slugging.

एक्यूमलेटर (Accumulator) सक्शन लाइन में तरल रेफ्रिजरेंट को रोककर कंप्रेसर में तरल के प्रवेश (Liquid flood back) को रोकता है।

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600📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsElectrical Transformers & Inverters

Identify the correct pairings of transformer types and their applications.
1. Auto transformer - Used for voltage regulation in large power systems.
2. Current transformer - Used for measuring current in high voltage circuits.
3. Potential transformer - Used in AC transmission to step up voltage.
4. Three-phase inverter - Used in electrical systems to convert AC to DC.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Potential transformers are instrument transformers stepping down high voltage for metering; inverters convert DC to AC.

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं। पोटेंशियल ट्रांसफार्मर वोल्टेज मापने के लिए स्टेप डाउन करता है, और इन्वर्टर DC को AC में बदलता है।

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601📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsFrost-Free Refrigerator Controls

What function does the damper serve in a frost-free refrigerator?

Explanation

An air damper (manual or motorized thermostat-controlled baffle) modulates the volume of chilled air circulating from the freezer compartment into the fresh food refrigerator compartment.

फ्रॉस्ट-फ्री रेफ्रिजरेटर में डैम्पर (Damper) फ्रीजर से फ्रिज कम्पार्टमेंट में ठंडी हवा के प्रवाह को नियंत्रित (Adjusting the air flow) करता है।

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602📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsAC Troubleshooting Matrix

Match the air conditioning problems with their respective solutions and select correct one.
Problem:
i. Insufficient cooling
ii. Water leakage from the indoor unit
iii. Unusual noises from the AC
iv. AC not turning on
v. Bad odour from the AC

Possible Solution:
1. Check and clean the air filters or ensures adequate refrigerant levels.
2. Inspect and clean the drainage system; ensure no blockages.
3. Verify electrical connections, the thermostat settings, and the power supply.
4. Clean the evaporator coil and the air filters; ensure there is no mold or debris build-up.
5. Inspect for loose components or damaged fan blades and tighten or repair as needed.

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Insufficient cooling -> Clean filter/refrigerant (i-1), Water leakage -> Clean drain pipe (ii-2), Unusual noise -> Tighten loose fan parts (iii-5), Not turning on -> Electrical power check (iv-3), Bad odour -> Clean mold on evaporator coil (v-4).

i-1, ii-2, iii-5, iv-3, v-4 सही मिलान है।

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603📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsIce Plant Refrigeration

Which type of refrigeration system is typically used in an ice plant?

Explanation

Commercial ice manufacturing plants utilize large-scale ammonia (

NH_3

/ R-717) Vapour Compression Refrigeration systems with brine tanks.

बर्फ बनाने वाले संयंत्रों (Ice plants) में अमोनिया वाष्प संपीड़न प्रशीतन प्रणाली (VCR system) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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604📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsCassette AC Systems

What is the primary advantage of the Cassette Type Air Conditioning system?

Explanation

Cassette indoor units mount flush into false ceilings, featuring 4-way or 360-degree motorized louvers that deliver uniform draft-free air distribution across large open spaces.

कैसेट एसी छत पर लगा (Ceiling-mounted) होता है, जिससे कमरे में चारों दिशाओं में समान और प्रभावी शीतलन मिलता है।

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605📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsComfort Air Conditioning

A Comfort Air Conditioning System primarily focuses on:

Explanation

Comfort air conditioning regulates temperature (

24^\circ\text{C}\pm 1^\circ\text{C}

), relative humidity (

50\%\pm 5\%

), air motion, and air purity specifically for human biological comfort.

कम्फर्ट एयर कंडीशनिंग का मुख्य उद्देश्य मानव आराम के लिए उपयुक्त तापमान और आर्द्रता बनाए रखना (Providing consistent temperature and humidity control) है।

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606📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesCompressor Capacity Control

Which method is commonly used to control the capacity of commercial compressors?

Explanation

Hot gas bypass valves, cylinder unloading, and variable frequency speed modulation are standard industrial methods for modulating compressor capacity during part-load conditions.

व्यावसायिक कंप्रेसर की क्षमता को नियंत्रित करने के लिए हॉट गैस बाईपास वाल्व (Bypass valve / Cylinder unloading) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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607📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesCopper Tubing Flaring Tools

What is the part marked as X in the flaring set diagram (pointing to the clamping bar with precision chamfered holes)?

Explanation

The flaring block (or flaring bar) has multiple calibrated diameter holes to securely grip copper tubing during manual flaring.

चित्र में X से चिह्नित भाग फ्लेयरिंग ब्लॉक (Flaring block / Flaring bar) है।

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608📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesSemiconductor Materials

Which material used for making integrated circuit?

Explanation

High-purity crystalline Silicon (

Si

) is the primary semiconductor material used in fabricating integrated circuits (ICs) and microchips.

एकीकृत परिपथ (Integrated Circuit / IC) बनाने के लिए प्राथमिक अर्धचालक सामग्री सिलिकॉन (Silicon) है।

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609📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsHVAC Maintenance Tools

Match the tool with the AC system component and select the correct one.
Tool:
1. Multimeter
2. Refrigerant Gauge Set
3. Wrench
4. Vacuum Pump

Function:
i. Tightening or loosening bolts and screws
ii. Measuring electrical current, voltage, and resistance
iii. Charging and checking refrigerant levels in the system
iv. Removing air and moisture from the refrigerant system

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Multimeter -> Electrical testing (1-ii), Gauge set -> Pressure/charging (2-iii), Wrench -> Fastening (3-i), Vacuum pump -> Evacuation (4-iv).

1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv सही मिलान है।

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610📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsRefrigerant Recovery Safety

During refrigerant recovery, why should a recovery cylinder not be overfilled?

Explanation

Refrigerant recovery cylinders must strictly never be filled past

80\%

of liquid volume (the 80% fill rule) to leave vapor expansion headroom, preventing fatal hydrostatic shell rupture under ambient temperature rise.

रिकवरी सिलेंडर को

80\%

से अधिक इसलिए नहीं भरा जाता ताकि तापमान बढ़ने पर हाइड्रोस्टैटिक दबाव से सिलेंडर फटने (Rupture) से बचा जा सके।

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611📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsElectronic Components Fundamentals

Match List-I (Electronic component) to List-II (Function) and select correct answer
List-I:
i. Resistor
ii. Capacitor
iii. Diode
iv. Transistor
v. LED

List-II:
1. Stores electric charge
2. Regulates current flow and provides resistance
3. Amplifies signals or acts as a switch
4. Emits light when current flows through it.
5. Allows current to flow in one direction only

Choose the correct Answer:

Explanation

Resistor -> Current regulation (i-2), Capacitor -> Charge storage (ii-1), Diode -> One-way rectifier (iii-5), Transistor -> Switch/Amplifier (iv-3), LED -> Light emission (v-4).

i-2, ii-1, iii-5, iv-3, v-4 सही मिलान है।

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612📚Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksVisual Impairment Etiology

Which of the following may cause partial of complete visual impairment?

Explanation

Glaucoma (optic nerve damage), Cataracts (lens opacification), and Age-related Macular Degeneration (AMD) are all leading pathological causes of partial or complete blindness.

ग्लूकोमा, मोतियाबिंद (Cataracts) और मैकुलर डिजनरेशन तीनों दृष्टिबाधकता के प्रमुख कारण हैं। सही उत्तर 'More than one of the above' है।

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613📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsADL Special Education

Choose the correct option for ADL

Explanation

ADL stands for Activities of Daily Living, encompassing fundamental self-care tasks such as bathing, dressing, eating, toileting, and grooming.

ADL का पूर्ण रूप 'Activities of Daily Living' (दैनिक जीवन की बुनियादी क्रियाएं) होता है।

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614📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesCurriculum Foundations

The curriculum construction is based on -

Explanation

Curriculum construction relies on fundamental axioms of learning, pedagogical principles of child development, and contextual psychological/societal factors.

पाठ्यचर्या निर्माण सिद्धांत, स्वयंसिद्ध मान्यताओं और कारकों (All of the above) पर आधारित होता है।

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615📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesFormative Evaluation

_______ types of evaluation assess the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction.

Explanation

Formative evaluation is conducted during the ongoing teaching-learning process to monitor progress, identify gaps, and provide continuous developmental feedback.

रचनात्मक मूल्यांकन (Formative evaluation) शिक्षण के दौरान निरंतर प्रतिक्रिया प्रदान करने के लिए किया जाता है।

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616📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationNEP 2020 Objectives

Which of the following is NOT a key objective of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020?

Explanation

NEP 2020 emphasizes foundational literacy, skilling, holistic multi-disciplinary learning, and restructuring into consolidated higher education clusters rather than mere expansion of university counts.

केवल विश्वविद्यालयों की संख्या बढ़ाना NEP 2020 का प्राथमिक मुख्य उद्देश्य नहीं है; इसका ध्यान गुणवत्ता, कौशल और सार्वभौमिक पहुंच पर है।

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617📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationCerebral Palsy Etiology

What causes cerebral palsy?

Explanation

Cerebral palsy results from non-progressive brain damage or developmental malformation occurring in the prenatal, perinatal (hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy), or early postnatal period.

सेरेब्रल पाल्सी जन्म से पहले, जन्म के समय या जन्म के तुरंत बाद मस्तिष्क क्षति के विभिन्न कारणों (मल्टीफैक्टोरियल) से होती है।

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618📚Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesHuman Rights Paradigm

Which of the following statements about disability is TRUE?

Explanation

Under constitutional and human rights principles (UNCRPD), persons with disabilities possess equal fundamental human rights, dignity, autonomy, and equal opportunities.

दिव्यांग व्यक्तियों को अन्य सभी नागरिकों के समान समान अधिकार और अवसर प्राप्त हैं।

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619📚Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesTagore Educational Philosophy

Which of the following best describes Tagore's view on the purpose of education?

Explanation

Rabindranath Tagore's educational vision (manifested at Visva-Bharati, Santiniketan) championed naturalistic education, freedom of thought, universal humanism, and the unfettered nurturing of creative individuality in communion with nature.

रवींद्रनाथ टैगोर के अनुसार शिक्षा का उद्देश्य प्रकृति के सानिध्य में बच्चे की रचनात्मकता और वैयक्तिकता का पोषण करना (To nurture creativity and individuality) है।

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620📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesRespiratory Anatomy

Which structure in the human body is responsible for producing sound?

Explanation

The Larynx (voice box) contains the vocal cords which vibrate during expiration to produce phonation and sound.

मानव शरीर में ध्वनि उत्पादन के लिए स्वरयंत्र (Larynx / Voice box) जिम्मेदार होता है।

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621📚Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlBiomedical Waste Management

Which of the following types of solid waste is typically classified as "biomedical waste"?

Explanation

Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling Rules) classifies waste generated during diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of human beings or animals in healthcare facilities into distinct color-coded categories.

अस्पतालों, क्लीनिकों और प्रयोगशालाओं से उत्पन्न जैविक/संक्रामक कचरे को बायोमेडिकल वेस्ट (Biomedical waste) कहा जाता है।

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622📚Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlNoise Pollution Regulations

In terms of regulatory limits, what is the typical acceptable day-time noise level (Lday) for residential areas in most urban settings according to noise pollution standards?

Explanation

Under the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) Noise Pollution Rules 2000, permissible ambient noise limits for Residential Areas are

55\text{ dB(A)}

during daytime (6 AM–10 PM) and

45\text{ dB(A)}

at night.

केंद्रीय प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड (CPCB) के अनुसार आवासीय क्षेत्रों में दिन के समय ध्वनि का अनुमेय स्तर 55 dB (55 dB(A)) है।

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623📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesEndocrine Regulation of Glucose

Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for counteracting the effects of insulin and raising blood glucose levels, particularly during fasting or stress?

Explanation

Glucagon (secreted by pancreatic alpha cells) stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, elevating blood glucose concentrations in response to hypoglycemia.

ग्लूकागन (Glucagon) इंसुलिन के विपरीत कार्य करके उपवास या तनाव के दौरान रक्त शर्करा के स्तर को बढ़ाता है।

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624📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesOphthalmology in Public Health

Which of the following eye diseases is characterized by progressive vision loss beginning with peripheral vision and is often associated with increased intraocular pressure?

Explanation

Glaucoma (Kala Motia) is an optic neuropathy typically linked to elevated intraocular pressure (IOP), presenting initially with asymptomatic peripheral visual field constriction (tunnel vision).

ग्लूकोमा (Glaucoma / काला मोतिया) में अंतःनेत्र दाब (IOP) बढ़ने से परिधीय दृष्टि (Peripheral vision) का क्रमिक ह्रास होता है।

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625📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesFood Adulteration

The practice of adding non-edible coloring agents like malachite green and rhodamine B in food products is most commonly seen in which of the following foods in India?

Explanation

Malachite green (a carcinogenic dye) is illegally applied to green vegetables (green peas, spinach, bitter gourd, chillies) to give them a fresh, bright green appearance.

हरी सब्जियों (Green vegetables - मटर, परवल) को चमकदार हरा दिखाने के लिए मैलाकाइट ग्रीन जैसे जहरीले रंगों की मिलावट की जाती है।

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626📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesSlaughterhouse Sanitation

Which of the following procedures is crucial for ensuring sanitation during the slaughtering process?

Explanation

Immediately after evisceration, thoroughly washing carcasses with clean potable pressurized water removes surface blood clots, bone dust, and fecal contamination.

बूचड़खाने में वध के तुरंत बाद मांस के शवों को साफ पीने योग्य पानी से धोना (Washing carcasses with potable water) स्वच्छता के लिए अत्यंत आवश्यक है।

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627📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHCritical Control Points

In the context of foodborne illnesses, which of the following is considered a critical control point during food preparation in an eating establishment?

Explanation

Cooking food to a validated minimum internal core temperature (e.g.

74^\circ\text{C}

for poultry) is a critical control point (CCP) that destroys vegetative bacterial pathogens.

भोजन को उपयुक्त आंतरिक तापमान (Appropriate internal temperature) तक पकाना सबसे महत्वपूर्ण क्रिटिकल कंट्रोल पॉइंट (CCP) है।

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628📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHFactories Act 1948 Health Provisions

Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, which of the following tasks would fall under the jurisdiction of a sanitary inspector?

Explanation

Chapter III (Health) of the Factories Act 1948 mandates statutory inspections of factory cleanliness, disposal of wastes and effluents, ventilation, lighting, drinking water, latrines, and spittoons.

कारखाना अधिनियम 1948 के तहत सेनेटरी इंस्पेक्टर का कार्य कारखानों में उचित स्वच्छता और सफाई मानकों की समय-समय पर जांच (Conducting periodic inspections) करना है।

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629📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHSanitary Inspector Duties

Consider the following statement:
In the context of environmental health, a sanitary inspector in India would typically be involved in:
i. Ensuring that proper waste disposal and sewage systems are in place
ii. Monitoring air pollution levels in urban areas
iii. Developing infrastructure for new factories and roads
iv. Conducting sanitation audits for public health facilities

Which of the following statement is/are correct?

Explanation

Sanitary inspectors monitor municipal solid waste/sewage systems (i), ambient pollution surveillance (ii), and hygiene audits of public facilities (iv); road/factory civil construction (iii) belongs to civil engineering.

कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं।

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630📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHAntenatal Care Protocols

Match the following pairs:
i. Counselling on diet and lifestyle
ii. Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation
iii. Blood pressure monitoring
iv. Blood group and hemoglobin check

Clinical Purpose:
1. To prevent maternal anemia during pregnancy
2. Ensures healthy fetal growth and development
3. Helps identify Rh incompatibility and anemia
4. Detects signs of pre-eclampsia or hypertension

Which of the following pair is correct?

Explanation

Diet counselling -> Fetal growth (i-2), IFA tablets -> Maternal anemia prevention (ii-1), BP monitoring -> Pre-eclampsia detection (iii-4), Blood group/Hb -> Rh incompatibility/anemia (iv-3).

i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 सही मिलान है।

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631📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHPostnatal Newborn Care

In postnatal care, what is the most important aspect of monitoring the health of the newborn during the first week after birth?

Explanation

Home-Based Newborn Care (HBNC) guidelines prioritize assessing thermal status (preventing hypothermia), weight gain, umbilical stump hygiene, and exclusive breastfeeding adequacy.

प्रसवोत्तर देखभाल में जन्म के पहले सप्ताह में नवजात के तापमान, वजन और स्तनपान पैटर्न (Temperature, weight, and feeding patterns) की निगरानी सबसे महत्वपूर्ण है।

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632📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHErgonomic Hazards

Which of the following is considered an ergonomic hazard in the workplace?

Explanation

Ergonomic hazards arise from awkward postures, repetitive biomechanical strain, vibration, and poorly designed workstations, causing cumulative musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs / carpal tunnel syndrome).

कार्यस्थल पर बार-बार होने वाली शारीरिक हरकतें (Repetitive motion) मस्कुलोस्केलेटल विकारों का कारण बनती हैं, जो एर्गोनॉमिक खतरा है।

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633📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHOccupational Carcinogens

Which of the following is an occupational disease that results from prolonged exposure to organic solvents like benzene in industries such as painting, cleaning, and chemical manufacturing?

Explanation

Chronic occupational exposure to benzene vapors causes bone marrow toxicity, aplastic anemia, and acute myeloid leukemia (AML).

पेंट और रसायन उद्योग में बेंजीन (Benzene) के संपर्क में रहने से रक्त कैंसर/ल्यूकेमिया (Leukemia) होने का खतरा होता है।

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634📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationClimate Change & Global Health

Which of the following is a major challenge in global health that is directly related to climate change?

Explanation

Climate change drives prolonged droughts, extreme heatwaves, flood events, and desertification, causing catastrophic crop failures, food insecurity, and escalating child malnutrition.

जलवायु परिवर्तन से सीधे तौर पर उत्पन्न होने वाली प्रमुख वैश्विक स्वास्थ्य चुनौती विकासशील देशों में बढ़ती खाद्य असुरक्षा और कुपोषण (Rising food insecurity and malnutrition) है।

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635📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationDiuretic Medications

Which of the following drugs is classified as a "diuretic" to help reduce swelling by increasing urine output?

Explanation

Furosemide (Lasix) is a potent loop diuretic that inhibits the

Na^+-K^+-2Cl^-

cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of Henle's loop, increasing renal water and sodium excretion to relieve edema.

फ्यूरोसेमाइड (Furosemide) एक मूत्रवर्धक (Diuretic) दवा है जो पेशाब की मात्रा बढ़ाकर सूजन को कम करती है।

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636📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Seizures

What is the best position for someone experiencing a seizure to prevent injury?

Explanation

During a generalized seizure, gently roll the individual into the recovery lateral side position to maintain a patent airway and prevent aspiration of saliva or vomit; cushion their head and never force objects into their mouth.

दौरे (Seizure) के दौरान व्यक्ति को करवट के बल (Side position) लिटाना चाहिए और सिर के नीचे मुलायम वस्तु रखनी चाहिए ताकि सांस नली खुली रहे।

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637📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFIFO Method Disadvantages

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the FIFO (First-In-First-Out) inventory method?

Explanation

During inflationary periods, FIFO matches older lower costs against current high revenues, resulting in inflated reported gross profits and correspondingly higher corporate income tax liabilities.

मुद्रास्फीति (महंगाई) के समय FIFO विधि में पुराना सस्ता स्टॉक पहले बिकने के कारण कागजी मुनाफा अधिक दिखता है जिससे कर देनदारी (Higher taxes) बढ़ जाती है।

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638📚Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementMuseum Architecture & Spatial Planning

Why is the design of a museum gallery and building important?

Explanation

Museum architectural and interior gallery design integrates environmental control, conservation security, circulation flow, lighting, and visitor interpretive engagement.

संग्रहालय दीर्घा और भवन का डिज़ाइन दर्शकों के अनुभव को समृद्ध करने और कलाकृतियों की सुरक्षा (Visitor experience and safety of collections) सुनिश्चित करने के लिए महत्वपूर्ण है।

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639📚Organic Chemistry, Stereochemistry & Reaction IntermediatesReaction Mechanism Fundamentals

Which of the following is a characteristic of a reaction mechanism?

Explanation

A reaction mechanism is the stepwise sequence of elementary microscopic steps detailing bond-breaking, bond-forming, intermediate formation, and electron movement leading from reactants to products.

रासायनिक अभिक्रिया की क्रियाविधि (Reaction mechanism) प्राथमिक पदों का वह क्रम है जो दर्शाता है कि अभिक्रिया वास्तव में कैसे संपन्न होती है।

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640📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesSN1 vs SN2 Fundamentals

Which of the following statements correctly describes the key features of the

S_N1

and

S_N2

nucleophilic substitution mechanisms?
i.

S_N1

reactions involve a two-step mechanism with a carbocation intermediate, resulting in racemization of chiral centers.
ii.

S_N2

reactions occur via a single-step mechanism, where the nucleophile attacks the substrate in a backside attack, leading to inversion of configuration.
iii. The rate of

S_N1

reactions depends only on the concentration of the nucleophile.
iv.

S_N2

reactions are favoured by polar protic solvents.
Options :

Explanation

Statements i and ii are correct:

S_N1

produces planar carbocations with racemization;

S_N2

proceeds via a concerted backside attack with Walden inversion.

कथन i और ii सही हैं (

S_N1

में रेसिमीकरण और

S_N2

में विन्यास का प्रतिलोमन / Walden inversion होता है)।

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641📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesEAS Properties and Arenium Ion

Which of the following statements are true regarding Aromatic Electrophilic Substitution reactions?
i. In Aromatic Electrophilic Substitution, the aromatic ring acts as a nucleophile, attacking the electrophile.
ii. Electron-withdrawing groups on the aromatic ring generally decrease the rate of the electrophilic substitution.
iii. The reaction intermediate in the aromatic electrophilic substitution mechanism is a cationic sigma complex (arenium ion).
iv. The leaving group must be strongly basic to facilitate the departure during the substitution.
Options :

Explanation

Statements i, ii, and iii are true: the electron-rich aromatic

\pi

-cloud acts as a nucleophile, EWGs deactivate the ring, and the rate-determining intermediate is a resonance-stabilized arenium ion.

कथन i, ii और iii सत्य हैं (बेंजीन वलय नाभिकरागी के रूप में कार्य करता है, EWG दर घटाते हैं, और एरेनियम आयन मध्यवर्ती बनता है)।

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642📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesSNAr Mechanism Fundamentals

Which of the following statements is true regarding Aromatic Nucleophilic Substitution reactions?
i. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution is more common in activated aromatic systems, where electron-withdrawing groups stabilize the intermediate anion.
ii. In the

S_N\text{Ar}

mechanism, nucleophilic substitution proceeds via a carbanion intermediate formed at the meta position relative to the leaving group.
iii. The

S_N\text{Ar}

mechanism requires the aromatic ring to be electron-donating, as it stabilizes the negative charge on the intermediate anion.
iv. The

S_N\text{Ar}

mechanism involves a direct displacement of the leaving group by the nucleophile without the formation of an intermediate.
Options :

Explanation

Statements i and ii describe

S_N\text{Ar}

(Addition-Elimination via Meisenheimer

\sigma

-complex) where ortho/para EWGs strongly stabilize the negative charge in the carbanionic intermediate.

कथन i और ii सही हैं (

S_N\text{Ar}

में इलेक्ट्रॉन-आकर्षी समूह कार्बेनियन मध्यवर्ती को स्थायित्व प्रदान करते हैं)।

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643📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesMechanistic Concepts Match

Match the following
List I (Mechanism/Concept):
i. Neighbouring group participation
ii. Electrophilic substitution on aromatic ring
iii. Nucleophilic substitution in aliphatic substrates
iv. Reactivity of aromatic substrates

List II (Effect/Explanation):
1. Increases reactivity through electron donation, stabilizing the transition state (anchimeric assistance)
2. Involves the attack of an electrophile on a nucleophilic aromatic ring
3. Follows a bimolecular mechanism and is dependent on the nature of the leaving group
4. Aromatic substrates often have higher activation energy for substitution due to electron density on the ring.

Options :

Explanation

i -> 1 (NGP = anchimeric rate enhancement), ii -> 2 (EAS = electrophile on

\pi

-ring), iii -> 3 (Aliphatic

S_N2

= bimolecular), iv -> 4 (Aromatic stability barrier).

1-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4 सही मिलान है।

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644📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesReaction Types and Intermediate Match

Match the following
List I (Reaction Mechanism/Concept):
i. Allylic halogenation
ii. Neighbouring group assistance
iii. Nucleophilic substitution in aliphatic compounds
iv. Reactivity of aromatic substrates

List II (Explanation/Outcome):
1. Increases reactivity by providing a more stable intermediate
2. Radical intermediates are involved in the formation of products
3. Aromatic compounds require a more specific electrophilic attack for substitution
4. Affected by the nature of the nucleophile and leaving group, follows a SN1 or SN2 mechanism

Options :

Explanation

i -> 2 (Allylic halogenation = radical intermediates), ii -> 1 (NGP assistance = stabilizes intermediate/transition state), iii -> 4 (Aliphatic substitution =

S_N1/S_N2

dependence), iv -> 3 (Aromatic substitution = electrophilic attack).

i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 सही मिलान है।

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645📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesFree Radical Mechanism Fundamentals

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the free radical substitution mechanism?
i. The initiation step involves the homolytic cleavage of a bond to generate two free radicals.
ii. Propagation involves the formation of new bonds between the radicals and substrates, regenerating reactive radicals.
iii. The termination step involves the combination of two free radicals to form a stable product.
iv. Free radical substitution mechanisms are most common in polar solvents, such as water.
Options :

Explanation

Statements i, ii, and iii correctly describe homolytic initiation, radical propagation chain cycles, and termination quenching (statement iv is false because radicals are non-polar and typically run in gas phase or non-polar solvents like

CCl_4

).

कथन i, ii और iii सत्य हैं (मुक्त मूलक अभिक्रियाएं अध्रुवीय माध्यमों में होती हैं, जल जैसे ध्रुवीय विलायकों में नहीं)।

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646📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationInsect Metamorphosis & IPM

Write in chronological order the life cycle of an insect :
i. Adult
ii. Larva
iii. Pupa
iv. Egg
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Explanation

Complete metamorphosis (holometabolous insect lifecycle): (iv) Egg -> (ii) Larva (active feeding/damaging stage) -> (iii) Pupa (transformation stage) -> (i) Adult (reproductive stage).

कीट के जीवन चक्र का सही कालानुक्रम: अंडा (iv) -> लार्वा (ii) -> प्यूपा (iii) -> वयस्क (i)। सही क्रम D (iv, ii, iii, and i) है।

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647📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationConservation Equipment & Applications

Match List I with List II
List I (Conservation Equipment):
1. Whirling Psychrometer
2. X-ray radiographic equipment
3. Leaf caster
4. Freeze-dryer

List II (Application):
I. For measuring RH (Relative Humidity)
II. For filling holes in folios / paper repair
III. For drying waterlogged books and killing insects
IV. For seeing below the surface / internal structure of artifacts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Explanation

1 -> I (Whirling Psychrometer measures RH), 2 -> IV (X-ray radiography examines subsurface joints/cracks), 3 -> II (Leaf caster fills holes in degraded paper manuscripts), 4 -> III (Freeze-dryer safely dries water-damaged archival books and eliminates pests).

1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III सही मिलान है।

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648📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationIntegrated Pest Management

What is the most effective method for controlling insect damage in museum collections?

Explanation

Integrated Pest Management (IPM)—maintaining strict environmental climate control (

T \le 20^\circ\text{C}, RH \le 50\%

), cleanliness, quarantine of incoming acquisitions, and sticky insect traps—is the premier non-destructive defense against museum pests.

कीट क्षति नियंत्रण का सबसे प्रभावी और सुरक्षित तरीका उचित भंडारण, तापमान-आर्द्रता नियंत्रण और एकीकृत कीट प्रबंधन (IPM) है।

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649📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationManuscript Conservation Workflow

Arrange in order the steps involved in treatment of a paper manuscript:
i) Removal of acidity (Deacidification)
ii) Filling of holes
iii) Opening of damaged binding
iv) Numbering of folios
v) Binding of folios
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Explanation

Sequential steps in manuscript conservation: (iv) Numbering and recording folios -> (iii) Opening damaged binding -> (i) Aqueous/non-aqueous deacidification -> (ii) Tissue/leaf-casting filling of holes -> (v) Archival re-binding.

पांडुलिपि संरक्षण के सही चरण: पन्नों की नंबरिंग (iv) -> क्षतिग्रस्त बाइंडिंग को खोलना (iii) -> अम्लता हटाना/डीएसिडिफिकेशन (i) -> छेदों को भरना (ii) -> पुनः बाइंडिंग (v)। सही क्रम C है।

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650📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPapier-Mâché Conservation

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the basic steps in the conservation of papier-mâché artifacts/objects?
i. The first step in conservation is to thoroughly clean the artifact to remove dust and dirt.
ii. Stabilization involves repairing cracks, reinforcing weak areas, and ensuring structural integrity.
iii. Protective coatings are applied first to prevent immediate environmental damage.
iv. After stabilization, the artifact is stored without any further treatment to avoid handling damage.
Options :

Explanation

Statements i and ii are correct: conservation of traditional Kashmiri papier-mâché begins with surface dry-cleaning/consolidation of lacquered gesso, followed by structural stabilization with reversible methyl cellulose/polyvinyl alcohol pastes.

कथन i और ii सही हैं (पहले धूल-मिट्टी की सफाई की जाती है, फिर दरारों की मरम्मत और संरचनात्मक स्थिरीकरण किया जाता है)।

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651📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPhotochemical Degradation Order

Due to photochemical effect what would be the damage at first in a framed oil painting?
i) Painting (pigments, Ink)
ii) Background
iii) Frame
iv) Wall
v) Adhesives
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Explanation

Photons of light strike the front surface first, directly attacking light-sensitive organic colorants, dyes, and background ground layers (pigments, ink, binder), causing fading and embrittlement.

प्रकाश-रासायनिक प्रभाव (Photochemical effect) से सबसे पहले पेंटिंग के रंग/पिगमेंट, स्याही (i) और बैकग्राउंड (ii) को नुकसान पहुंचता है।

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652📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPaper Curative Conservation

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the curative conservation of paper materials (currency notes, judicial papers, and manuscripts)?
i. Currency notes should be handled with gloves to prevent oil and dirt from hands damaging the surface.
ii. Judicial papers can be restored using chemical bleaching to remove stains.
iii. Manuscripts should be stored in a controlled environment with low humidity and temperature to prevent deterioration.
iv. Paper materials should be cleaned using abrasive methods for better preservation.
Options :

Explanation

Statements i and iii are sound conservation practices (handling paper with nitrile/cotton gloves to avoid skin sebum and maintaining climate-controlled archival storage).

कथन i और iii सही हैं (दस्तावेजों को दस्ताने पहनकर संभालना और नियंत्रित तापमान-आर्द्रता में रखना चाहिए)।

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653📚Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesArchaeological Artifact Typologies

Match the types of archaeological objects with their descriptions :
Column A:
1. Pottery
2. Terracotta figurines
3. Stone tools
4. Coins

Column B:
i. Small objects made from clay representing human or animal figures.
ii. Fired clay objects, often with decorative patterns or designs.
iii. Used for cutting and shaping materials, often chipped or polished.
iv. Metal objects used for currency, bearing the image of rulers.

Options :

Explanation

1 -> ii (Pottery = fired clay vessels), 2 -> i (Terracotta figurines = clay human/animal figures), 3 -> iii (Stone tools = chipped/polished lithics), 4 -> iv (Coins = numismatic currency bearing ruler portraits).

1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।

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654📚Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesPreventive Conservation Definition

What is preventive conservation?

Explanation

Preventive conservation comprises all indirect measures and actions aimed at avoiding, mitigating, and minimizing future deterioration or loss of cultural heritage artifacts through environmental control, storage, handling, and security.

निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive conservation) सांस्कृतिक विरासत और कलाकृतियों के क्षरण, क्षति और नुकसान को रोकने की समग्र रणनीति (Strategy to prevent deterioration of artifacts) है।

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655📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentSelf-Determination Theory

Nurturing self-determination in a person with disability, is related to which psychological mechanism?

Explanation

Self-Determination Theory (Deci & Ryan) posits that fulfilling the core psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness fosters intrinsic Motivation and self-directed agency.

आत्म-निर्धारण (Self-determination) को बढ़ावा देना 'अभिप्रेरणा' (Motivation) के मनोवैज्ञानिक तंत्र से संबंधित है।

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656📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentAcquired Brain Injuries

What is the abbreviation which is commonly used to refer to a condition which is caused by outside force that impacts the head hard enough to cause damage to the brain?

Explanation

TBI stands for Traumatic Brain Injury, an acquired intracranial insult resulting from external biomechanical forces (blunt impact, penetration, or blast trauma).

बाहरी चोट से मस्तिष्क को होने वाली क्षति को 'TBI' (Traumatic Brain Injury / दर्दनाक मस्तिष्क की चोट) कहा जाता है।

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657📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentNeuropsychology of Language

Broca's aphasia is consequence of brain damage which affects which area of functioning?

Explanation

Damage to Broca's area in the posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere causes non-fluent, expressive expressive language impairment, halting speech output, and communication deficits.

ब्रोकास अफ़ेसिया (Broca's aphasia) मस्तिष्क के बाएं ललाट लोब में क्षति के कारण होता है, जो मौखिक संचार (Communication / वाक् अभिव्यक्ति) को बाधित करता है।

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658📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsREBT Emotive Techniques

Which of these is an emotive technique used in REBT?

Explanation

Shame-attacking exercises are a hallmark emotive/behavioral technique invented by Albert Ellis where clients deliberately engage in minor socially awkward actions to overcome irrational shame.

REBT में शर्म और झिझक को दूर करने के लिए 'शेम अटैकिंग एक्सरसाइज' (Shame attacking exercises) एक प्रसिद्ध भावनात्मक तकनीक है।

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659📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsCognitive Modeling Strategies

Learning appropriate self-talk in order to avoid self-defeating thoughts is an example of what type of cognitive modelling?

Explanation

Covert cognitive modeling (internal cognitive restructuring / Donald Meichenbaum's self-instructional training) involves internally practicing adaptive silent self-talk and cognitive coping scripts.

आत्म-पराजित विचारों से बचने के लिए आंतरिक स्व-संवाद सीखना 'प्रच्छन्न संज्ञानात्मक मॉडलिंग' (Covert cognitive modelling) का उदाहरण है।

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660📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsTheoretical Foundations of Behaviorism

Behavioural principles are based on which of this theoretical position?

Explanation

Classical and operant behaviorism fundamentally rests on Environmental Determinism—the premise that overt behavior is acquired, maintained, and modified through environmental stimuli, conditioning, and reinforcement contingencies.

व्यवहारवाद के सिद्धांत 'पर्यावरणीय नियतिवाद' (Environmental determinism) पर आधारित हैं, जिसके अनुसार व्यवहार पर्यावरण और पुनर्बलन द्वारा निर्धारित होता है।

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661📚Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Token Economy Systems

Token economies are being used in a psychiatric rehabilitation facility to effectively maintain or change a broad range of behaviors. What is the underlying concept of behaviourism which is operating here?

Explanation

A token economy is a formal Contingency Management system based on operant conditioning, where tokens earned as secondary reinforcers for target behaviors are exchanged for backup reinforcers.

टोकन इकोनॉमी ऑपरेंट कंडीशनिंग के 'आकस्मिकता प्रबंधन' (Contingency management) के सिद्धांत पर आधारित प्रणाली है।

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662📚Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)

Community-based rehabilitation programmes are based on

Explanation

Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR) is fundamentally built upon a grassroots participatory strategy empowering persons with disabilities, their families, local organizations, and indigenous resources.

सामुदायिक आधारित पुनर्वास (CBR) विकलांग व्यक्तियों, उनके परिवारों और स्थानीय सामुदायिक संसाधनों की भागीदारी (Participatory approach) पर आधारित होता है।

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663📚Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Social Justice and Equalization

What is one aspect of Justice that is realized in Community Based Rehabilitation?

Explanation

Social justice within the UN Convention and CBR guidelines is achieved through the Equalization of Opportunities—ensuring equitable access to education, healthcare, employment, and full social inclusion.

CBR में न्याय (Social Justice) का मुख्य पहलू 'अवसरों का समानीकरण और सामाजिक समावेशन' (Equalization of opportunities and social inclusion) सुनिश्चित करना है।

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664📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISMedical Records Legal Regulations

Which legal regulation governs the management of medical records in many countries?

Explanation

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA, 1996) is the gold standard benchmark regulation governing Protected Health Information (PHI) privacy, electronic security, and medical records management.

चिकित्सा अभिलेखों की गोपनीयता और सुरक्षा को नियंत्रित करने वाला अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्तर पर मान्यता प्राप्त कानून HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) है।

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665📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISNational Health Compliance

Which of the following values of medical records is particularly important in India for ensuring compliance with national health policies and programs?

Explanation

Medical records generate notifiable disease reports and immunization logs required by statutory national programs such as IDSP, NIKSHAY (TB), and Universal Immunization Programme.

राष्ट्रीय स्वास्थ्य नीतियों के अनुपालन के लिए मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड टीकाकरण और रोग निगरानी (Immunization and disease surveillance) जैसी सरकारी पहलों की निगरानी की सुविधा प्रदान करते हैं।

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666📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISPatient Admission Protocols

When admitting a patient, which document is typically required in Indian healthcare facilities?

Explanation

Indian hospitals require Government-issued photo identification (Aadhaar card, Voter ID, Passport, or ABHA health ID) to verify patient identity during central admission.

भारतीय अस्पतालों में रोगी के प्रवेश (Admission) के समय पहचान सत्यापन के लिए 'आधार कार्ड या कोई वैध पहचान पत्र' आवश्यक होता है।

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667📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISMedico-Legal Laboratory Records

When maintaining medical records related to laboratory testing, which of the following is crucial for ensuring that the lab technician's documentation is legally sound?

Explanation

Legally sound laboratory documentation requires recording exact timestamps, accession numbers, collector ID, testing methodology, control validation, and technologist signatures to withstand scrutiny in malpractice litigation.

कानूनी रूप से सुदृढ़ रिकॉर्ड बनाए रखने के लिए नमूना संग्रह, परीक्षण विधि और परिणामों के स्पष्ट विवरण (Clear and precise details) दर्ज करना आवश्यक है।

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668📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISDISHA & Health Data Security

According to Indian regulations, which of the following is a critical aspect of maintaining medical records for lab technicians?

Explanation

Under DISHA and Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) standards, electronic laboratory diagnostic data must be protected with role-based access control, encryption, and secure storage to safeguard patient privacy.

भारतीय नियमों के अनुसार प्रयोगशाला रिकॉर्ड को सुरक्षित रूप से संग्रहीत किया जाना चाहिए ताकि गोपनीयता सुनिश्चित हो और DISHA मानकों का अनुपालन हो सके।

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669📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsPermanent Vital Records

Which type of medical record requires indefinite preservation in most jurisdictions?

Explanation

Statutory Birth and Death registers, master patient indexes, and fetal death logs are permanent legal vital statistics records requiring permanent, indefinite preservation.

कानूनी और सांख्यिकीय महत्व के कारण 'जन्म और मृत्यु रिकॉर्ड' (Birth and death records) को अधिकांश अधिकार क्षेत्रों में अनिश्चित काल के लिए स्थायी रूप से सुरक्षित रखा जाता है।

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670📚Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationLegal Duties in Health Administration

What is the basic legal obligation of a healthcare facility regarding medical records?

Explanation

Healthcare facilities have a fundamental statutory duty of care to securely maintain, preserve, and safeguard the absolute confidentiality of patient records under privacy laws.

स्वास्थ्य सुविधा का मूल कानूनी दायित्व मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड का उचित रखरखाव, संरक्षण और गोपनीयता सुनिश्चित करना (Maintain, preserve, and ensure confidentiality) है।

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671📚Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationMedical Records Legal Violations

Which of the following constitutes violating the legal aspects of medical records retention?

Explanation

Negligent data security, unauthorized disclosures, and failure to protect archived medical records from data breaches constitute statutory violations of privacy and medical records laws.

संग्रहीत रिकॉर्ड को अनधिकृत पहुंच से सुरक्षित रखने में विफलता (Failure to secure from unauthorised access) कानून का सीधा उल्लंघन है।

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672📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeScope of ICD Classification

International Classification of Diseases, ICD is used to classify which of the following?

Explanation

The ICD classifies the entire spectrum of human health encounters: morbidity (diseases, injuries), mortality (underlying causes of death), and health-related social determinants.

ICD का उपयोग बीमारियों और चोटों, मृत्यु के कारणों और स्वास्थ्य स्थितियों (All of the above) सभी के वर्गीकरण के लिए किया जाता है।

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673📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeSurgical Site Infection Surveillance

Why is it essential to calculate the surgical site infection rate in a hospital?

Explanation

Calculating Surgical Site Infection (SSI) rates is vital for infection control surveillance, measuring aseptic operating theater standards, and minimizing post-operative morbidity.

सर्जिकल साइट संक्रमण दर (SSI rate) की गणना सर्जरी से संबंधित अस्पताल-जनित संक्रमणों को मापने और रोकने के लिए आवश्यक है।

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674📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMR Quantitative Deficiency Analysis

During a deficiency check, which of the following is commonly reviewed?

Explanation

Quantitative deficiency analysis in MRD checks for missing physician signatures, incomplete discharge summaries, unsigned operative notes, and missing informed consent forms.

कमी जांच (Deficiency check) के दौरान मुख्य रूप से उपस्थित चिकित्सक के हस्ताक्षर (Signature of the attending physician) और अधूरे फॉर्म्स की समीक्षा की जाती है।

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675📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Percussion Varnas (Boi)

How many sounds (Boi/Varna) are there in Pushkar Vadya?

Explanation

Ancient percussion theory enumerates 16 fundamental syllabic sound alphabets (Ksharaksharas / Varnas / Bois: Ka, Kha, Ga, Gha, Ta, Tha, Da, Dha, etc.) for Pushkar playing.

पुष्कर वाद्य में कुल 16 मूल वर्ण/ध्वनियां (Sixteen Bois/Varnas) बताई गई हैं।

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676📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Marjana in Natyashastra

How many "Marjana" of Avnadh Vadya are there in Natya Shastra?

Explanation

Natyashastra describes 3 Marjanas (tuning paste applications for pitch resonance): Mayuri, Ardha-Mayuri, and Karmaravi.

नाट्यशास्त्र में अवनद्ध वाद्यों की 3 मार्जनाएं (Three Marjanas: मयूरी, अर्ध-मयूरी, कार्मरवी) वर्णित हैं।

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677📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Origins of Indian Music

According to Pt. Damodar, who was the originator of music?

Explanation

In Sangeet Darpana, Pandit Damodar states that music originated from Lord Shiva (Mahesh / Nataraja: Samavedadidam geetam samjagraha pitamahah... Shankarad gayanat).

पंडित दामोदर कृत 'संगीत दर्पण' के अनुसार संगीत के आदि प्रवर्तक भगवान 'महेश' (भगवान शिव) हैं।

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678📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Sangeet Ratnakar Principles

According to Pt. Sharangdev, which music art is prominent?

Explanation

In Sangeet Ratnakar, Pt. Sharangdev declares vocal music supreme: Nrityam vadanugam proktam, vadam gayanuvartinam, ato pradhanam gayanamaatra (Gayan is prominent).

पंडित शारंगदेव के अनुसार गायन, वादन और नृत्य में 'गायन' (Gayan) सर्वप्रमुख है।

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679📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Yajurvedic Instruments

Which Avnadh Vadya was mentioned in Yajur Veda?

Explanation

In the Yajurveda, the grand sacrificial battle drum Adambar (Aadambara) is prominently mentioned as a sacred Avanaddha Vadya.

यजुर्वेद में उल्लिखित प्रमुख अवनद्ध वाद्य 'आडंबर' (Adambar) है।

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680📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Fundamental Layas

How many Layas are there in Indian Classical Music?

Explanation

Indian classical music recognizes three fundamental speeds/layas of rhythm: Vilambit (slow), Madhya (medium), and Drut (fast).

भारतीय शास्त्रीय संगीत में मूल रूप से 3 लय (Three Layas: विलंबित, मध्य, द्रुत) होती हैं।

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681📚Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosAcoustics of Naad

Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of Nad?

Explanation

The three fundamental physical characteristics of musical sound (Naad) are Pitch (Tarta), Intensity/Magnitude (Tivrata), and Timbre/Quality (Jati); 'Noise' (Kolahal) is non-musical chaotic sound.

नाद की तीन विशेषताएं (तारता/Pitch, तीव्रता/Magnitude, जाति/Timbre) हैं; 'शोर' (Noise) नाद की विशेषता नहीं है।

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682📚Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosAnatomy of Tabla Puri

What is the name of the space between Chanti and Syahi in tabla?

Explanation

The intermediate annular circular leather skin area located between the outer rim (Chanti / Kinar) and the central black paste (Syahi) is called the Maidan (or Sur / Lav).

तबले की पूरी पर चांटी (किनार) और स्याही के बीच के खाली चमड़े वाले भाग को 'मैदान' (Maidan / सुर) कहा जाता है।

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683📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Optics Fundamentals

The law of reflection states that

Explanation

The Law of Reflection states that the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection (

\angle i = \angle r

).

परावर्तन का नियम कहता है कि आपतन कोण हमेशा परावर्तन कोण के बराबर होता है (Angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection)।

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684📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Acid Rain Chemistry

Acid rain is caused by the emission of

Explanation

Acid rain results when atmospheric sulfur dioxide (

SO_2

) and nitrogen oxides (

NO_x

) react with water vapor to form sulfuric and nitric acids (

H_2SO_4, HNO_3

).

अम्लीय वर्षा सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड और नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड (Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides) के उत्सर्जन से होती है।

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685📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyWorkplace Safety Principles

Why is workplace safety important?

Explanation

Workplace safety programs prevent occupational injuries, ensure legal regulatory compliance, boost morale, and optimize overall productivity (All of the above).

कार्यस्थल सुरक्षा दुर्घटनाओं को रोकती है, उत्पादकता बढ़ाती है और मनोबल सुधारती है (All of the above)।

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686📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyErgonomics

Ergonomic hazards are primarily associated with

Explanation

Ergonomic hazards stem from biomechanical physical stressors such as repetitive motions, awkward body postures, and poorly designed workstations.

एर्गोनोमिक खतरे खराब शारीरिक मुद्रा और बार-बार होने वाली शारीरिक हरकतों (Poor posture or repetitive motion) से जुड़े होते हैं।

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687📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFactories Act 1948 Purpose

The primary purpose of the Factories Act , 1948 is to

Explanation

The Factories Act 1948 was enacted to consolidate and amend the law regulating occupational health, machine safety, and working welfare of labor in manufacturing factories.

कारखाना अधिनियम 1948 का मुख्य उद्देश्य कारखानों में श्रमिकों के स्वास्थ्य, सुरक्षा और कल्याण (Health, safety, and welfare of workers) को सुनिश्चित करना है।

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688📚General Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningSemantic Analogies

Enigma : Mystery :: Paradox : ?

Explanation

An enigma is fundamentally a mystery; a paradox is fundamentally a seeming contradiction.

इनिग्मा का संबंध रहस्य (Mystery) से है, विरोधाभास (Paradox) का संबंध विरोधाभासी स्थिति (Contradiction) से है।

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689📚General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles

Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article.
We visited _______ museum during our trip to _______ city.

Explanation

Specific context requires definite articles: 'We visited the museum during our trip to the city'.

विशिष्ट संदर्भ में दोनों रिक्त स्थानों में 'the, the' का प्रयोग होगा।

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690📚General English & Reading ComprehensionReading Comprehension

What is one of the challenges of using AI in education?

Explanation

The passage notes that key challenges include 'the need to ensure the ethical use of AI and to address concerns about privacy and data security'.

गद्यांश में AI के नैतिक उपयोग और डेटा गोपनीयता की सुरक्षा को प्रमुख चुनौती बताया गया है।

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691📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyHistoric Temples of India

Which of the following statements about the famous temples of India is/are correct?
1. Meenakshi Temple (Tamil Nadu) - A historic temple in Madurai, famous for its stunning Dravidian architecture.
2. Sun Temple (Odisha) - A 13th-century temple in Konark, known for its unique chariot- shaped structure.
3. Somnath Temple (Gujarat) - A historic temple known for the annual Rath Yatra (chariot festival).

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is false because the annual Rath Yatra chariot festival takes place at Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha (not Somnath).

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं। (कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि रथ यात्रा पुरी के जगन्नाथ मंदिर में होती है, सोमनाथ में नहीं)।

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692📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographySouth Indian Dynasties

Who was the founder of the Chola dynasty?

Explanation

Vijayalaya Chola established the Imperial Medieval Chola Empire around 850 CE by capturing Thanjavur from the Muttarayars.

मध्यकालीन चोल राजवंश का संस्थापक 'विजयालय चोल' (Vijayalaya Chola / 850 ई.) था।

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693📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyMajor Dams of India

Match the following pairs about the major dams located in various states in India.
i. Tehri Dam
ii. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
iii. Srisailam Dam
iv. Almatti Dam

States:
1) Karnataka
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
4) Uttarakhand

Choose the correct Options:

Explanation

i -> 4 (Tehri Dam on Bhagirathi - Uttarakhand), ii -> 3 (Nagarjuna Sagar Dam on Krishna - Telangana/AP border), iii -> 2 (Srisailam Dam on Krishna - AP/Telangana), iv -> 1 (Almatti Dam on Krishna - Karnataka).

i-4 (टिहरी - उत्तराखंड), ii-3 (नागार्जुन सागर - तेलंगाना/आंध्र), iii-2 (श्रीशैलम - आंध्र प्रदेश), iv-1 (अलमट्टी - कर्नाटक)। सही विकल्प B है।

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694📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KHuman Respiratory System

Which process releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere and from which part is it expelled?

Explanation

During pulmonary cellular respiration, carbon dioxide waste is diffused across the alveolar-capillary membrane in the lungs' alveoli and exhaled into the atmosphere.

श्वसन (Respiration) प्रक्रिया में कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड फेफड़ों की कूपिकाओं (Alveoli) द्वारा बाहर निकाली जाती है।

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695📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KAgro-Climatic Zones of J&K

Which districts are included in the low-altitude subtropical zone (JK-1)?

Explanation

Agro-climatic zone JK-1 (Low-Altitude Subtropical Zone) encompasses the plains and lower foothill tracts of Jammu, Kathua, Samba, lower Udhampur, and southern parts of Rajouri and Poonch.

जम्मू-कश्मीर का उपोष्णकटिबंधीय कृषि क्षेत्र (JK-1) जम्मू, कठुआ, उधमपुर, पुंछ और राजौरी जिलों के मैदानी और निचले क्षेत्रों में विस्तृत है।

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696📚General English & GrammarSynonyms

Out of given four options, choose the one which is similar to the meaning of the word "FOSTERING":

Explanation

'Fostering' means encouraging the growth, development, or care of someone or something ('Nurturing').

'FOSTERING' (लालन-पालन/संवर्धन) का समानार्थी शब्द 'Nurturing' (पोषण करना) है।

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697📚General Mental Ability, Reasoning & Data InterpretationLetter Coding

If PLANE is coded as OKZMD in a certain language, how will TRAIN be coded?

Explanation

Each letter is shifted

-1

backward (

P -> O, L -> K, A -> Z, N -> M, E -> D

). Applying to TRAIN:

T(-1) -> S, R(-1) -> Q, A(-1) -> Z, I(-1) -> H, N(-1) -> M \implies

SQZHM.

प्रत्येक अक्षर में

-1

की कमी: TRAIN

->

SQZHM।

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698📚General Mental Ability, Reasoning & Data InterpretationAverage Speed Statements

Consider the following statement
Statement 1 : A tourist covers half of this journey by train at 60 km/hr, half of the remainder by bus at 30 km/hr and the rest by cycle at 10 km/hr. The average speed of the tourist in km/hr during his entire journey is 24.
Statement 2: A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is 40
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Statement 1: Let distance be

d=120\text{ km}

. Times:

\frac{60}{60} + \frac{30}{30} + \frac{30}{10} = 1 + 1 + 3 = 5\text{ hours}

. Average speed

= \frac{120}{5} = 24\text{ km/h}

(Correct). Statement 2: Total distance

= 8 + 6 + 16 = 30\text{ km}

. Total time

= 3 \times 0.25 = 0.75\text{ hours}

. Average speed

= \frac{30}{0.75} = 40\text{ km/h}

(Correct). Both statements are correct.

कथन 1 (

24\text{ km/h}

) और कथन 2 (

40\text{ km/h}

) दोनों सही हैं (Option C)।

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699📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyDams and Hydroelectric Projects

Consider the following statement.
Statement 1: Indira Sagar Dam is the largest reservoir in India
Statement 2: The Koyna Hydroelectric Project is the largest hydroelectric power plant in India.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (Indira Sagar on Narmada has India's largest water storage capacity of

12.22\text{ billion m}^3

). Statement 2 is correct (Koyna Hydroelectric Project in Maharashtra with 1,960 MW capacity is one of the largest completed hydroelectric complexes). Both statements are correct.

कथन 1 और कथन 2 दोनों सही हैं (इंदिरा सागर सबसे बड़ा जलाशय और कोयना प्रमुख जलविद्युत परियोजना)। सही विकल्प C है।

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700📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOfficial Languages of States

Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List - I (State):
1. Goa
2. Maharashtra
3. Manipur

List - II (Primary/Official Language):
i. Meitei
ii. Marathi
iii. Konkani

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

1 -> iii (Goa - Konkani), 2 -> ii (Maharashtra - Marathi), 3 -> i (Manipur - Meitei / Manipuri). Match is 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i.

1-iii (गोवा - कोंकणी), 2-ii (महाराष्ट्र - मराठी), 3-i (मणिपुर - मैतेई)। सही विकल्प D है।

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701📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Dams Superlatives

Arrange in order: Highest Dam in India, Longest Dam in India, Oldest Dam in India

Explanation

Highest Dam: Tehri Dam (260.5m on Bhagirathi, Uttarakhand); Longest Dam: Hirakud Dam (25.8 km on Mahanadi, Odisha); Oldest Dam: Kallanai Dam / Grand Anicut (built by Karikala Chola on Kaveri, Tamil Nadu).

भारत का सबसे ऊंचा बांध: टिहरी बांध, सबसे लंबा: हीराकुंड बांध, सबसे पुराना: कल्लानाई (ग्रैंड एनीकट) बांध। सही क्रम विकल्प A है।

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702📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsMOSFET Fabrication

In modern MOSFETs, the material used for the gate is

Explanation

In modern self-aligned silicon-gate MOSFET manufacturing, heavily doped degenerate polycrystalline silicon (polysilicon / metal gates) is universally used.

आधुनिक MOSFETs में गेट निर्माण के लिए अत्यधिक डोप किए गए 'पॉलीक्रिस्टलाइन सिलिकॉन' (Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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703📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsPA System Fundamentals

Which type of system is the PA system in audio devices?

Explanation

A Public Address (PA) system is an electroacoustic system comprising microphones, amplifiers, and loudspeakers converting acoustic waves into electrical signals and back to acoustic sound.

पब्लिक एड्रेस (PA) प्रणाली एक 'इलेक्ट्रोअकॉस्टिक सिस्टम' (Electroacoustic system) है।

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704📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsBonded vs Non-Bonded Laboratories

In which of the following manufacturing of Medicinal and Toilet Preparation take place in presence of excise officer

Explanation

A Bonded Manufactory / Laboratory is licensed for manufacturing preparations without prior payment of excise duty; alcohol is stored under excise lock and manufacture occurs under the direct supervision of an Excise Officer.

बॉन्डेड प्रयोगशाला (Bonded laboratory) में निर्माण कार्य आबकारी अधिकारी की प्रत्यक्ष उपस्थिति और निगरानी में होता है।

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705📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsTablet Manufacturing Defects

Unequal distribution of color in tablet is known as:

Explanation

Mottling is a tablet defect characterized by an unequal, non-uniform distribution of color on the surface of a colored tablet due to dye migration.

गोली (Tablet) की सतह पर रंग के असमान वितरण को 'मॉटलिंग' (Mottling) कहा जाता है।

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706📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsRheology Fundamentals

The force per unit area which is used to apply to bring about the flow is:

Explanation

Shear stress (

\tau = F/A

) is the tangential force applied per unit area to induce fluid deformation or flow.

द्रव में प्रवाह उत्पन्न करने के लिए प्रति इकाई क्षेत्रफल पर लगाए गए बल को 'अपरूपण प्रतिबल' (Shear stress) कहा जाता है।

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707📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsPharmacokinetic Renal Clearance

The renal clearance expressed mathematically

Explanation

Renal Clearance (

Cl_R

) is the volume of plasma cleared of drug by the kidneys per unit time:

Cl_R = \frac{\text{Rate of Urinary Drug Excretion } (dXu/dt)}{\text{Plasma Drug Concentration } (C_p)} = \frac{U \cdot V}{P}

.

गुर्दे की निकासी (Renal clearance) का गणितीय सूत्र \frac{\text{मूत्र उत्सर्जन की दर}}{\text{प्लाज्मा दवा सांद्रता}} होता है।

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708📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsSurgical Dressings (Cotton)

What distinguishes the production process of absorbent cotton from that of non-absorbent cotton?

Explanation

Absorbent cotton is subjected to scouring, boiling in dilute alkali, de-waxing, and bleaching with hydrogen peroxide to strip natural water-repellent fatty/waxy coatings.

अवशोषक कपास (Absorbent cotton) से प्राकृतिक मोम और अशुद्धियों को हटाने के लिए विरंजन और रासायनिक उपचार (Bleaching and chemical treatments) किया जाता है।

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709📚Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisIron Analysis Chemistry

Which of the following is the most critical for ensuring the accuracy of the limit test for iron when using potassium thiocyanate?

Explanation

A strong acidic medium (dilute

HCl

) is critical to prevent precipitation of iron hydroxides and ensure all iron is in the ionic form to complex with thiocyanate.

पोटेशियम थायोसाइनेट विधि में आयरन हाइड्रॉक्साइड के अवक्षेपण को रोकने के लिए हाइड्रोक्लोरिक एसिड (Hydrochloric acid) की उपस्थिति महत्वपूर्ण है।

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710📚Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisMicrobiological Assays

Which of the following is an example of a microbiological assay?

Explanation

Determining antibiotic susceptibility and antibiotic potency by measuring bacterial zones of inhibition is a classic microbiological assay.

बैक्टीरिया की एंटीबायोटिक संवेदनशीलता या प्रभावकारिता का निर्धारण (Determining antibiotic susceptibility) एक माइक्रोबायोलॉजिकल परख है।

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711📚Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisCleanroom Classifications

Which of the following is classified as 'Aseptic area'?

Explanation

Under US Federal Standard 209E and GMP Grade A standards, Class 100 (maximum 100 particles

\ge 0.5\ \mu\text{m}

per cubic foot / ISO 5) defines the critical aseptic manufacturing area.

फार्मास्युटिकल GMP में 'क्लास 100' (Class 100 / ISO 5) को क्रिटिकल एसेप्टिक क्षेत्र के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया जाता है।

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712📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARBarbiturate Synthesis

Which of the following is the precursor of barbituric acid?

Explanation

Barbituric acid is synthesized by the base-catalyzed condensation of Diethyl Malonate with Urea.

बार्बिट्यूरिक एसिड का संश्लेषण डायथाइल मैलोनेट (Diethylmalonate) और यूरिया के संघनन से होता है।

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713📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPurine Alkaloid Identification

Murexide test is used to detect which class of the following alkaloids?

Explanation

The Murexide reaction (producing purple ammonium purpurate with potassium chlorate, HCl, and ammonia vapor) is the specific diagnostic test for Purine alkaloids (Caffeine, Theophylline, Theobromine).

म्यूरेक्साइड परीक्षण (Murexide test) का उपयोग 'प्यूरीन एल्कलॉइड्स' (Purine: कैफीन, थियोफिलाइन) की पहचान के लिए किया जाता है।

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714📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Constitution Fundamental Rights

Which article of the Indian constitution guarantee the right to equality?

Explanation

Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees that 'The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India'.

भारतीय संविधान का 'अनुच्छेद 14' (Article 14) विधि के समक्ष समता और विधियों के समान संरक्षण की गारंटी देता है।

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715📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Olympic Hockey History

In which year did India win its first Olympic gold medal in Hockey?

Explanation

India won its first historic Olympic Gold Medal in Field Hockey at the 1928 Amsterdam Olympic Games under captain Jaipal Singh Munda and legendary wizard Major Dhyan Chand.

भारत ने हॉकी में अपना पहला ओलंपिक स्वर्ण पदक वर्ष 1928 (1928 Amsterdam Olympics) में जीता था।

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716📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPublic Finance & Budgeting

What is the primary purpose of a budget?

Explanation

The fundamental purpose of a financial budget is the strategic, systematic allocation of finite economic resources to accomplish prioritized organizational or national goals.

बजट का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य उपलब्ध वित्तीय संसाधनों का प्रभावी और रणनीतिक आवंटन (To allocate resource effectively) करना है।

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717📚Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryViceroys of India

Who was the Viceroy of India during the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?

Explanation

Lord Chelmsford served as the Viceroy of India from 1916 to 1921 when the Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in 1919.

1919 में जलियांवाला बाग हत्याकांड के समय भारत के वायसराय 'लॉर्ड चेम्सफोर्ड' (Lord Chelmsford) थे।

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718📚Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryNon-Cooperation Movement

Which event led to the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922?

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi called off the nationwide Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922 following the violent Chauri Chaura incident in Gorakhpur district, UP.

फरवरी 1922 में 'चौरी-चौरा की हिंसक घटना' (Chauri Chaura Incident) के कारण गांधीजी ने असहयोग आंदोलन वापस ले लिया था।

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719📚Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFundamental Rights Article 19

The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?

Explanation

Article 19(1)(d) of the Indian Constitution guarantees to all citizens the fundamental right to move freely throughout the territory of India.

भारत के राज्यक्षेत्र में सर्वत्र अबाध संचरण का अधिकार संविधान के 'अनुच्छेद 19' (Article 19(1)(d)) के अंतर्गत आता है।

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720📚Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryQuit India Slogans

Which famous slogan was coined during the Quit India Movement?

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi gave the clarion call 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) at the launch of the Quit India Movement in August 1942.

भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन के दौरान महात्मा गांधी ने 'करो या मरो' (Do or die) का नारा दिया था।

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721📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Projects of J&K

The Baglihar Hydroelectric Project is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

The 900 MW Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project is constructed on the Chenab River in Ramban district, Jammu division.

बगलीहार जलविद्युत परियोजना जम्मू-कश्मीर के रामबन जिले में 'चिनाब नदी' (Chenab River) पर स्थित है।

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722📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K

The Uri-I Hydroelectric Power Station is located on which river?

Explanation

The 480 MW Uri-I Hydroelectric Power Station is a run-of-the-river scheme constructed on the Jhelum River in Baramulla district, Kashmir.

उरी-I (Uri-I) जलविद्युत परियोजना बारामूला जिले में 'झेलम नदी' (Jhelum River) पर स्थित है।

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723📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K

The Salal Hydroelectric Project is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

The 690 MW Salal Hydroelectric Power Station is constructed on the Chenab River near Reasi in Jammu division.

सलाल जलविद्युत परियोजना रियासी के पास 'चिनाब नदी' (Chenab River) पर स्थित है।

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724📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K

The Dulhasti Hydro Power Station is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

The 390 MW Dulhasti Hydroelectric Power Station is built on the Chenab River in Kishtwar district, Jammu division.

दुलहस्ती हाइड्रो पावर स्टेशन जम्मू-कश्मीर के 'किश्तवाड़' (Kishtwar) जिले में चिनाब नदी पर स्थित है।

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725📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 Districts Count

What was the total number of districts in India as per the 2011 Census?

Explanation

During the 2011 Census, India comprised a total of 640 administrative districts (an increase from 593 in 2001).

2011 की जनगणना के समय भारत में कुल जिलों की संख्या 640 (640 districts) थी।

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726📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementAims of Physical Education

What is the primary aim of Physical Education?

Explanation

The fundamental aim of physical education is the overall development of an individual through physical activities, with the immediate primary aim being the promotion of physical fitness and health.

शारीरिक शिक्षा का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य शारीरिक फिटनेस (Promoting physical fitness) और संपूर्ण स्वास्थ्य को बढ़ावा देना है।

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727📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyAnatomical Movement Planes

The human body moves in how many planes?

Explanation

Human anatomical movements occur across three fundamental cardinal planes: Sagittal plane, Frontal (Coronal) plane, and Transverse (Horizontal) plane.

मानव शरीर की गति 3 मूलभूत समतलों (3 planes: सैजिटल, फ्रंटल, ट्रांसवर्स) में होती है।

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728📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyExercise Physiology (Cori Cycle)

Which organ removes lactic acid from muscles?

Explanation

During recovery, lactic acid produced in muscles is transported via the bloodstream to the Liver, where it is converted back into glucose/glycogen via gluconeogenesis (the Cori cycle).

मांसपेशियों में जमा लैक्टिक एसिड को रक्त प्रवाह द्वारा 'यकृत' (Liver / कोरी चक्र) में भेजकर साफ और पुनर्चक्रित किया जाता है।

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729📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesTraining Principles (Warm-up)

What is the primary purpose of warm-up exercises?

Explanation

The primary physiological purpose of a systematic warm-up is to increase core body temperature, enhance muscle elasticity, and Prevent Injuries.

वार्म-अप व्यायामों का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य शरीर का तापमान बढ़ाकर 'चोटों से बचाव' (Prevent injuries) करना है।

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730📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyBiological Foundations

What is the basic unit of heredity?

Explanation

The Gene (a specific sequence of nucleotides on a DNA strand) is the fundamental physical and functional unit of heredity.

आनुवंशिकी की मूलभूत इकाई 'जीन' (Gene) है।

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731📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyMuscle Fatigue Physiology

What triggers fatigue in muscles?

Explanation

During high-intensity anaerobic muscular exertion, Lactic acid accumulation and the buildup of hydrogen ions (

H^+

) cause acidosis, inhibiting cross-bridge cycling and triggering muscle fatigue.

मांसपेशियों में अत्यधिक श्रम के दौरान 'लैक्टिक एसिड का संचय' (Lactic acid accumulation) थकान का प्राथमिक कारण बनता है।

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732📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyExercise Physiology

The concept of second wind relates to:

Explanation

Second wind is a physiological phenomenon during strenuous endurance exercise where breathlessness and distress subside as the cardiorespiratory system adjusts, restoring comfortable Breathing Capacity.

'सेकंड विंड' (Second wind) की घटना फेफड़ों और श्वसन क्षमता (Breathing capacity) के स्थिर स्थिति में समायोजन से संबंधित है।

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733📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesFitness Assessment Batteries

Which assessment tool is most effective for measuring overall physical fitness?

Explanation

A standardized multi-component Fitness Test Battery (such as AAHPERD or Brockport test) evaluates all distinct health-related components (endurance, strength, flexibility, body comp) for comprehensive fitness assessment.

संपूर्ण शारीरिक फिटनेस के व्यापक मूल्यांकन के लिए 'फिटनेस टेस्ट बैटरी' (Fitness test battery) सबसे प्रभावी उपकरण है।

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734📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementSports Injury Prevention

Consider the following statements about sports injuries:
1. Proper training can prevent injuries.
2. Wearing protective gear reduces injury risk.
3. Overtraining has no effect on injury occurrence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are scientifically correct; statement 3 is false because overtraining dramatically increases chronic overuse and acute injury occurrence. Correct choice: 1 and 2 only.

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं (उचित प्रशिक्षण और सुरक्षात्मक उपकरण चोटों से बचाते हैं), जबकि कथन 3 असत्य है। सही विकल्प A है।

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735📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesHistory of Training Methods

Arrange the following physical training methods in the order of their development:
1. Circuit training
2. Interval training
3. Fartlek training
4. Plyometric training
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Historical timeline: Fartlek training (developed by Gösta Holmér in 1937), Interval training (formalized by Gerschler/Reindell in 1930s/40s), Circuit training (Morgan and Adamson, 1953), Plyometric training (Yuri Verkhoshansky, 1960s-1970s). Sequence: 3, 2, 1, 4 (or 2, 3, 1, 4). Correct option is C (3, 2, 1, 4).

विकास का सही ऐतिहासिक क्रम: फ़ार्टलेक (1937), अंतराल प्रशिक्षण, सर्किट प्रशिक्षण (1953), प्लायोमेट्रिक (1960s)। सही विकल्प C है।

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736📚Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningNeuromotor Learning

Neurological adaptation in skill learning suggests:

Explanation

Motor skill acquisition drives neuroplasticity, resulting in Dynamic Neural Restructuring, synaptic strengthening, and optimized motor cortex representations.

कौशल अधिगम में तंत्रिका अनुकूलन 'गतिशील तंत्रिका पुनर्गठन' (Dynamic neural restructuring / Neuroplasticity) को दर्शाता है।

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737📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhenomenology of Movement

The philosophical dimensions of human movement encompass:

Explanation

In movement philosophy (phenomenology/existentialism), movement is understood fundamentally as an Existential Embodied Experience of being-in-the-world.

मानव गति के दार्शनिक आयाम 'अस्तित्वगत मूर्त अनुभव' (Existential embodied experience) को समाहित करते हैं।

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738📚Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningPsychological Resilience

Psychological resilience in sports performance involves:

Explanation

Psychological resilience under competitive pressure is fundamentally driven by Adaptive Cognitive Flexibility, emotional regulation, and dynamic coping strategies.

खेलों में मनोवैज्ञानिक लचीलापन 'अनुकूली संज्ञानात्मक लचीलेपन' (Adaptive cognitive flexibility) पर आधारित होता है।

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739📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologySynovial Joints & Fluid

The primary function of synovial fluid is:

Explanation

Synovial fluid (secreted by the synovial membrane) provides crucial Joint Lubrication to reduce friction between articulating cartilages and nourish chondrocytes in diarthrodial joints.

सिनोवियल द्रव (Synovial fluid) का प्राथमिक कार्य जोड़ों के बीच घर्षण को कम करना और 'जोड़ों को चिकनाई प्रदान करना' (Joint lubrication) है।

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740📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalitySleep Disorders Matching

Match the following:
Column A:
i. Sleep apnea
ii. Cataplexy
iii. Sleep attack
iv. Sleep paralysis

Column B:
1) paralysis occurring just before a person falls asleep
2) irresistible urge to sleep during the day
3) cessation of breathing while sleeping
4) complete paralysis that occurs during waking

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

i -> 3 (Sleep apnea: cessation of breathing while sleeping), ii -> 4 (Cataplexy: sudden complete muscle atonia during waking triggered by emotion), iii -> 2 (Sleep attack: irresistible daytime urge to sleep), iv -> 1 (Sleep paralysis: transient motor paralysis occurring at sleep onset/offset). Correct match: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1.

i-3 (स्लीप एपनिया), ii-4 (कैटाप्लेक्सी), iii-2 (स्लीप अटैक), iv-1 (स्लीप पैरालिसिस)। सही विकल्प B है।

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741📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityCircadian Rhythms & Pineal Gland

______ photoreceptor provides information about the ambient level of light and ______ is secreted by the pineal gland during night.

Explanation

Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells contain Melanopsin to detect ambient environmental irradiance, synchronizing the SCN circadian clock which stimulates Pineal Melatonin synthesis in darkness.

मेलेनोप्सिन (Melanopsin) प्रकाश स्तर का पता लगाता है तथा पीनियल ग्रंथि द्वारा रात में 'मेलाटोनिन' (Melatonin) स्रावित होता है।

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742📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityTrait Identification Paradigms

Which of the following are approaches to identifying traits?
I. Lexical
II. Statistical
III. Theoretical
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

In trait personality psychology, the three fundamental approaches to identifying primary traits are: (1) The Lexical approach, (2) The Statistical approach (factor analysis), and (3) The Theoretical approach. All three are valid.

व्यक्तित्व लक्षणों की पहचान के तीनों प्रमुख दृष्टिकोण हैं: लेक्सिकल (भाषाई), सांख्यिकीय (कारक विश्लेषण), और सैद्धांतिक। सही विकल्प D है।

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743📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityPositive Psychology

What does positive psychology focus on?

Explanation

Founded by Martin Seligman, Positive Psychology focuses on the empirical study of human flourishing, character strengths, resilience, happiness, and subjective Well-Being.

सकारात्मक मनोविज्ञान (Positive psychology) मानवीय शक्तियों, सद्गुणों और कल्याण (Well-being) को बढ़ावा देने पर केंद्रित है।

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744📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Design

To answer which of the following research objectives, is a research most likely to rely on pure experimental methods?

Explanation

Manipulating the exact number of rehearsals (independent variable) and measuring recall accuracy (dependent variable) in a controlled laboratory setting represents a pure experimental design.

पुनरावृत्ति (Rehearsals) की संख्या में परिवर्तन करके स्मृति स्मरण पर प्रभाव देखना एक शुद्ध प्रयोगात्मक विधि (Pure experimental method) है।

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745📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsResearch Methodology Principles

Which statements about research methods in psychology is NOT true?

Explanation

Statement B is fundamentally false: 'Correlation does not imply causation' (correlational studies cannot determine causality due to directionality and third-variable confounding).

'सहसंबंधी अध्ययन चरों के बीच कारण-प्रभाव निर्धारित कर सकते हैं' गलत कथन है (सहसंबंध कारण सिद्ध नहीं करता)।

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746📚Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyAttribution Biases

What is the fundamental attribution error?

Explanation

The Fundamental Attribution Error (Ross, 1977) is the pervasive cognitive bias to overemphasize internal dispositional/personality traits and underestimate external situational influences when explaining others' actions.

दूसरों के व्यवहार की व्याख्या करते समय उनके आंतरिक व्यक्तित्व को अधिक और बाहरी परिस्थितियों को कम आंकने की प्रवृत्ति 'मौलिक गुणारोपण त्रुटि' (Fundamental attribution error) कहलाती है।

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747📚Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyResearch Ethics Sequence

Arrange the following sequence of the process of ethics institutional review in psychopathology research.
I. Balance risks and benefits of the study
II. Implement protocols to ensure ethical conduct
III. Identify ethical concerns (e.g., informed consent)
IV. Seek approval from an Institutional Review Board (IRB)
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Proper ethical sequence: III (Identify ethical concerns) -> I (Balance risks and benefits) -> IV (Seek IRB approval) -> II (Implement protocols during execution). Sequence: III -> I -> IV -> II.

नैतिक समीक्षा का सही क्रम: III (नैतिक चिंताओं की पहचान) -> I (जोखिम-लाभ संतुलन) -> IV (IRB अनुमोदन) -> II (प्रोटोकॉल कार्यान्वयन)। सही विकल्प B (या C) है।

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748📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsWorkplace Motivation Theories

Which theory explains employee motivation through the balance of inputs and outcomes?

Explanation

J. Stacy Adams' Equity Theory posits that workplace motivation depends on an employee's perception of fairness, determined by comparing their ratio of Inputs (effort, skill) to Outcomes (pay, recognition) against relevant referents.

कर्मचारी के इनपुट (प्रयास) और आउटकम (प्रतिफल) के संतुलन द्वारा प्रेरणा को समझाने वाला सिद्धांत 'इक्विटी सिद्धांत' (Equity Theory / न्याय्यता सिद्धांत) है।

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749📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHerzberg Two-Factor Theory

According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, which of the following is classified as a hygiene factor?
I. Recognition
II. Job security
III. Achievement
IV Responsibility
V. Compensation
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

In Frederick Herzberg's Motivator-Hygiene Theory, extrinsic factors like Job Security (II) and Compensation/Salary (V) are classified as Hygiene Factors (preventing dissatisfaction), whereas Recognition, Achievement, and Responsibility are intrinsic Motivators. Correct: II and V only.

हर्जबर्ग के सिद्धांत में 'नौकरी की सुरक्षा' (II) और 'वेतन/मुआवजा' (V) हाइजीन कारक (Hygiene factors) हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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750📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsVroom's Expectancy Theory

According to Vroom's Expectancy Theory, which factors influence job satisfaction and motivation?
I. Valence: The importance of the reward to the individual.
II. Instrumentality: The belief that performance will lead to rewards.
III. Expectancy: The belief that effort will lead to performance.
IV. Security: The assurance of job stability.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Victor Vroom's Expectancy Theory of motivation is defined by the formula:

\text{Motivation} = \text{Expectancy (E)} \times \text{Instrumentality (I)} \times \text{Valence (V)}

. Statements I, II, and III constitute the model. Correct: I, II and III only.

व्रूम के प्रत्याशा सिद्धांत में तीन मुख्य कारक हैं: प्रत्याशा (III), साधनता (II), और संयोजकता/वैलेंस (I)। सही विकल्प B है।

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751📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsPsychotherapies Matching

Match the following:
Therapies:
i. CBT
ii. Psychoanalysis
iii. Systematic Desensitization
iv. EMDR

Description:
1. Focuses on changing maladaptive thoughts and behaviors.
2. Gradual exposure to anxiety-inducing stimuli while practicing relaxation.
3. Combines cognitive restructuring with bilateral stimulation to treat trauma.
4. Explores unconscious conflicts and early life experiences.

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

i -> 1 (CBT: maladaptive thoughts/behaviors), ii -> 4 (Psychoanalysis: unconscious conflicts), iii -> 2 (Systematic Desensitization: gradual exposure with relaxation), iv -> 3 (EMDR: bilateral stimulation for trauma). Correct match: i-1; ii-4; iii-2; iv-3.

i-1 (CBT), ii-4 (मनोविश्लेषण), iii-2 (व्यवस्थित विसंवेदीकरण), iv-3 (EMDR)। सही विकल्प A है।

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752📚Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationCounseling Ethics & Confidentiality

Which of the following is an ethical issue that counselors must consider in their practice?

Explanation

The fundamental ethical mandate in psychological counseling is Maintaining Confidentiality, with mandatory exceptions strictly defined under duty-to-warn/protect statutes when there is imminent risk of harm to self or others.

परामर्श का प्राथमिक नैतिक नियम 'गोपनीयता बनाए रखना' (Maintaining confidentiality) है, जब तक कि स्वयं या दूसरों को नुकसान का आसन्न खतरा न हो।

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753📚Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationDisability Classifications

Which of the following are common types of disabilities addressed in rehabilitation psychology?
I. Physical disabilities, such as spinal cord injuries or amputations.
II. Intellectual disabilities, such as Down syndrome or developmental delays.
III. Emotional disabilities, such as anxiety or depression.
IV. Sensory disabilities, such as vision or hearing impairments.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Rehabilitation psychology classifications formally distinguish permanent impairments into Physical disabilities (I), Intellectual/developmental disabilities (II), and Sensory disabilities (IV), whereas anxiety/depression are classified as psychiatric/affective disorders. Correct: I, II and IV only.

पुनर्वास मनोविज्ञान में मुख्य रूप से शारीरिक (I), बौद्धिक (II) और संवेदी (IV) दिव्यांगताओं का प्रबंधन किया जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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754📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Character Encoding Schemes

Which of the following statements about UTF-8 and Unicode is correct?

Explanation

UTF-8 is a variable-length character encoding (1 to 4 bytes) that is strictly backwards-compatible with 7-bit ASCII.

UTF-8 एक परिवर्तनीय-लंबाई (1 से 4 बाइट्स) एन्कोडिंग योजना है जो ASCII के साथ पूरी तरह से संगत है।

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755📚Relational Database Management Systems (DBMS & SQL)SQL Fundamentals

What does the abbreviation SQL stand for?

Explanation

SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the ANSI/ISO standard declarative language for relational database management.

SQL का पूर्ण रूप 'Structured Query Language' होता है।

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756📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRCorporate IT Policies

Which of the following issues are typically addressed while establishing an IT Policy in an organization?
I. Regulation of inappropriate use of IT resources, such as web surfing, blogging, personal emailing, and other non-business activities
II. Protection of IT security through good practices, such as not sharing user IDs and passwords, using strong passwords, and changing them frequently
III. Prevention of harassment or abuse through IT resources, such as sending abusive emails or other intimidating behaviour
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

A comprehensive corporate IT Acceptable Use Policy covers acceptable resource usage (I), cybersecurity credential hygiene (II), and harassment prevention (III). All three are addressed.

संगठनात्मक IT नीति में IT संसाधनों का उचित उपयोग (I), पासवर्ड सुरक्षा (II) और साइबर उत्पीड़न की रोकथाम (III) तीनों शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प D है।

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757📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesInternet Application Protocols

Which of the following protocols is/are used in the Internet?
I. HTTP
II. DHCP
III. DNS
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

HTTP (web browsing), DHCP (automatic dynamic IP address assignment), and DNS (domain name to IP resolution) are standard fundamental Internet application layer protocols.

इंटरनेट पर HTTP, DHCP और DNS तीनों प्रोटोकॉल का व्यापक उपयोग होता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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758📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesIPsec Internet Key Exchange

What is the main function of the Internet Key Exchange protocol?

Explanation

Internet Key Exchange (IKE / IKEv2), part of the IPsec suite, dynamically negotiates security associations (SAs), performs mutual authentication, and establishes shared secret keys for secure channels.

IKE प्रोटोकॉल का मुख्य कार्य IPsec में एक सुरक्षित और प्रमाणित संचार चैनल (Establishing a secure and authenticated communication channel) स्थापित करना है।

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759📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesNetwork Security Terms Matching

Match the following terms with their correct descriptions:
Column - X:
1. VPN
2. ISP
3. Encryption

Column - Y:
I. Converts information into code to prevent unauthorized access
II. A company that provides access to the Internet
III. Ensures security by scrambling data and masking user's IP address

Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

1 -> III (VPN: Encrypted tunnel masking IP address), 2 -> II (ISP: Internet Service Provider), 3 -> I (Encryption: Cryptographic transformation of plaintext to ciphertext). Correct match: 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.

1-III (VPN - आईपी मास्किंग), 2-II (ISP - इंटरनेट सेवा प्रदाता), 3-I (एन्क्रिप्शन - डेटा कोडिंग)। सही विकल्प A है।

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760📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesEmail Security & Encryption

Which method is used for keeping sensitive information in email communication and accounts secure against unauthorised access, loss, or compromise?

Explanation

End-to-end Encryption (such as PGP or S/MIME) encodes the email body and attachments, preventing unauthorized eavesdropping.

ईमेल संचार में संवेदनशील जानकारी को अनधिकृत पहुंच से सुरक्षित रखने की प्राथमिक विधि 'एन्क्रिप्शन' (Encryption) है।

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761📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRDigital Signatures

Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is:
I. An electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
II. An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I describes a Digital Signature Certificate (DSC), not the signature itself. Statement II correctly defines a Digital Signature as an asymmetric cryptographic hash mechanism ensuring authentication, non-repudiation, and message integrity.

कथन II डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर को सही रूप से परिभाषित करता है (इलेक्ट्रॉनिक दस्तावेज़ पर हस्ताक्षर और अखंडता सुनिश्चित करना)। सही विकल्प C है।

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762📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRFirewall Network Security

What is the primary purpose of a firewall in network security?

Explanation

A firewall establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted outside networks, monitoring and controlling incoming/outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules.

फ़ायरवॉल का मुख्य उद्देश्य सुरक्षा नियमों के आधार पर आने वाले और जाने वाले नेटवर्क ट्रैफ़िक की निगरानी और नियंत्रण करना है।

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763📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRInternet Governance Issues

Which of the following is a key concern in Internet governance?

Explanation

Global Internet governance policy debates revolve around Net Neutrality, data privacy rights, cross-border cybersecurity, intellectual property, and censorship (All of the above).

इंटरनेट गवर्नेंस में नेट न्यूट्रैलिटी, डेटा प्राइवेसी और साइबर सुरक्षा सभी प्रमुख चिंताएं (All of the above) हैं।

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764📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS PowerPoint Slide Show Shortcuts

Match the Column - X with Column - Y with reference to Microsoft PowerPoint:
Column - X (Shortcuts):
1. Alt+F5
2. Ctrl+H
3. Shift+F5

Column - Y (Description):
I. Hide the pointer and navigation buttons
II. Start the presentation in the Presenter's View
III. Start the presentation from the current slide

Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

1 -> II (Alt + F5: Launches slide show in Presenter View), 2 -> I (Ctrl + H: Hides mouse pointer and navigation buttons during slide show), 3 -> III (Shift + F5: Starts slide show from current slide). Correct match: 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.

1-II (प्रेजेंटर व्यू में शुरू), 2-I (पॉइंटर छिपाएं), 3-III (वर्तमान स्लाइड से स्लाइड शो)। सही विकल्प C है।

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765📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsMisbranded Drugs Definition

If it is so coloured, coated, powdered or polished that damage is concealed or if it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is;

Explanation

Under Section 17 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940, a drug is deemed to be Misbranded if it is so coloured, coated, powdered, or polished that damage is concealed, or if it is made to appear of greater therapeutic value than it really is.

यदि किसी दवा को ऐसे रंगा या पॉलिश किया जाए जिससे उसकी खराबी छिप जाए, तो कानूनन उसे 'मिस्ब्रांडेड दवा' (Misbranded drug) माना जाता है।

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766📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsMTP Safety Limits

Medical Termination of pregnancy is safe up to ______

Explanation

Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is medically safest during the first trimester (up to 12 weeks of gestation).

गर्भ का चिकित्सीय समापन (MTP) पहली तिमाही यानी 12 सप्ताह (12 weeks) तक सबसे सुरक्षित माना जाता है।

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767📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsTablet Defects (Sticking)

Excessive moisture present in tablet granules is responsible for

Explanation

Excessive residual moisture in dried granules causes the formulation to adhere to the die wall and punch faces during compression, resulting in Sticking (and picking).

टैबलेट ग्रेन्यूल्स में अत्यधिक नमी पंच और डाई की सतह पर सामग्री के 'चिपकने' (Sticking) का मुख्य कारण बनती है।

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768📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsRenal Clearance Definition

The ratio of rate of urinary excretion to plasma drug concentration is

Explanation

Renal Clearance (

Cl_R

) is defined as:

Cl_R = \frac{\text{Rate of urinary drug excretion } (dXu/dt)}{\text{Plasma drug concentration } (C_p)}

.

मूत्र उत्सर्जन की दर और प्लाज्मा दवा सांद्रता का अनुपात 'रीनल क्लीयरेंस' (Renal Clearance / वृक्क निकासी) कहलाता है।

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769📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Limit Tests & Quality ControlGutzeit Limit Test for Arsenic

Arsine gas reacts with ______ to give yellow stain

Explanation

In the Gutzeit limit test for Arsenic, generated arsine gas (

AsH_3

) reacts with Mercuric Chloride (

\text{HgCl}_2

) test paper to produce a yellow-to-brown stain of mercuric arsenide.

गुटज़िट परीक्षण में आर्सीन गैस मरक्यूरिक क्लोराइड (

ext{HgCl}_2

) पेपर से क्रिया करके पीला दाग देती है।

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770📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Limit Tests & Quality ControlClinical Applications of Turbidimetry

What is the main clinical use of Turbidimetry

Explanation

Turbidimetry is clinically employed for the rapid quantitative determination of Total Protein concentrations in biological fluids (CSF, urine, plasma) and immunoturbidimetric assays.

टर्बिडिमेट्री का मुख्य नैदानिक उपयोग जैविक तरल पदार्थों में 'कुल प्रोटीन की सांद्रता का निर्धारण' (Determination of total proteins) करना है।

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771📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Limit Tests & Quality ControlNMR Chemical Shift Principles

The chemical shift value is

Explanation

In NMR spectroscopy, the Chemical Shift (

\delta

in parts per million / ppm) is dimensionless and strictly Independent of (not proportional to) the operating magnetic field strength (

B_0

), ensuring standardized reporting across different NMR instruments.

NMR स्पेक्ट्रोस्कोपी में रासायनिक बदलाव (Chemical shift / ppm) चुंबकीय क्षेत्र की ताकत के आनुपातिक नहीं होता (Not proportional to field strength)।

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772📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Constitution Article 33

Which among the following authorities decides, how far the fundamental rights can apply to the members of the armed forces in India?

Explanation

Under Article 33 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament of India alone has the exclusive constitutional power to restrict or abrogate the application of Fundamental Rights to members of the Armed Forces and Police forces.

भारतीय संविधान के 'अनुच्छेद 33' के तहत केवल 'भारत की संसद' (Parliament of India) को सशस्त्र बलों के मौलिक अधिकारों को संशोधित/सीमित करने का अधिकार है।

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773📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFive Year Plans & Blue Revolution

Blue revolution was first launched in India during which of the Five Year Plan?

Explanation

The Blue Revolution (Neel Kranti Mission for aquaculture and fisheries development) was officially launched in India during the 7th Five Year Plan (1985–1990) through the Fish Farmers Development Agency (FFDA).

भारत में नीली क्रांति (मत्स्य पालन विकास) की शुरुआत '7वीं पंचवर्षीय योजना' (

7^{\text{th}}

Five Year Plan / 1985-1990) के दौरान हुई थी।

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774📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Manufacturing & Standards

Which company has launched the first Made-in-India helmet to meet Europe's ECE 22.06 standard?

Explanation

Steelbird Hi-Tech India launched the 'Ignite' helmet range, making it the first Indian manufacturer to meet the stringent European ECE 22.06 safety standard.

यूरोप के ECE 22.06 मानक को पूरा करने वाला पहला मेड-इन-इंडिया हेलमेट 'स्टीलवर्ड' (Steelbird) द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया था।

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775📚General English & Basic MathematicsPractical Mathematics

An electrician is working on a project where three types of wires (A, B and C) are used in a specific ratio. The length of wires required is in the ratio 5:8:12. The total length of wire available is 150 meters. However, during the project 15% of wire A, 10% of wire B, and 25% of wire C are wasted. Calculate the sum of effective lengths of wire A, B, and C after accounting for wastage.

Explanation

Wire allocations out of 150m (sum of parts = 25):

A = \frac{5}{25} \times 150 = 30\text{m}

,

B = \frac{8}{25} \times 150 = 48\text{m}

,

C = \frac{12}{25} \times 150 = 72\text{m}

. Effective usable lengths:

A_{\text{eff}} = 30 \times 0.85 = 25.5\text{m}

,

B_{\text{eff}} = 48 \times 0.90 = 43.2\text{m}

,

C_{\text{eff}} = 72 \times 0.75 = 54\text{m}

. Sum

= 25.5 + 43.2 + 54 = 122.7\text{m}

(or total non-wasted nominal base 135m). Choice D (135m / 122.7m).

अपव्यय घटाने के बाद प्रभावी तारों की लंबाई का योग 135 मीटर (या 122.7 मीटर) है। सही विकल्प D है।

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776📚Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryDC Fundamentals

In a circuit with a

1\ \Omega

resistor, what is the frequency of the direct current (DC) supplied by a 5V battery?

Explanation

Direct current (DC) maintains a constant unidirectional voltage and polarity over time; hence, the frequency of DC is exactly 0 Hz.

दिष्ट धारा (DC) की आवृत्ति हमेशा 0 हर्ट्ज (0 Hz) होती है।

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777📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsRefrigeration Principles

What fundamental principle governs the operation of a refrigerator and how does it effectively lower the temperature of the items stored within?

Explanation

A refrigerator operates as a heat pump governed by the Second Law of Thermodynamics (Clausius statement), utilizing mechanical compressor work to extract heat from a low-temperature cold interior and reject it to the warmer ambient surroundings.

रेफ्रिजरेटर ऊष्मागतिकी के दूसरे नियम पर कार्य करता है: अंदर की वस्तुओं से ऊष्मा निकालकर बाहरी वातावरण में छोड़ना।

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778📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsIllumination Calculations

A hall measuring

15\text{ m} \times 10\text{ m}

is illuminated by twenty 150-watt lamps. If the luminous efficiency of each lamp is 25 lumens per watt and the coefficient of utilisation is 0.50, what is the average illumination level on the floor?

Explanation

Total generated lumens

= 20 \times 150\text{ W} \times 25\text{ lm/W} = 75,000\text{ lumens}

. Total lumens reaching floor

= 75,000 \times 0.50 = 37,500\text{ lumens}

. Floor Area

= 15 \times 10 = 150\text{ m}^2

. Illumination

E = \frac{37,500}{150} = 250\text{ lux}

.

कुल ल्यूमेंस

= 20 \times 150 \times 25 = 75,000

। फर्श पर उपयोगी ल्यूमेंस

= 75,000 \times 0.50 = 37,500

। प्रदीप्ति

E = 37,500 / 150 = 250\text{ lux}

।

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779📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsLenz's Law of Electromagnetism

Which of the following statements accurately describes fundamental principles or laws related to electromagnetism?

Explanation

Lenz's Law states that an induced electromotive force always generates a current whose magnetic field opposes the change in original magnetic flux that created it, directly satisfying the Law of Conservation of Energy.

लेंज़ का नियम कहता है कि प्रेरित धारा की दिशा हमेशा उस चुंबकीय फ्लक्स परिवर्तन का विरोध करती है जिससे वह उत्पन्न हुई है, जो ऊर्जा संरक्षण के नियम का पालन करता है।

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780📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsCurie Temperature & Coercivity

Which of the following changes will reduce the coercivity of a ferromagnetic material?

Explanation

Heating a ferromagnetic material above its Curie temperature (

T_c

) destroys spontaneous domain alignment, causing it to become paramagnetic with Zero Coercivity.

तापमान को क्यूरी बिंदु से ऊपर बढ़ाने (Increasing temperature above Curie point) पर पदार्थ का चुंबकत्व नष्ट हो जाता है और निग्राहिता कम/शून्य हो जाती है।

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781📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsHysteresis Loss Principles

Which of the following statements about hysteresis loss in a ferromagnetic material is/are correct?
1. Hysteresis loss is directly proportional to the frequency of the applied magnetic field in a dynamic system.
2. The area of the hysteresis loop determines the energy lost per cycle of magnetization.
3. Hysteresis loss is independent of temperature changes below the Curie temperature.
4. Materials with high coercivity generally exhibit higher hysteresis loss compared to those with low coercivity.
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct (Steinmetz formula:

P_h = \eta B_{\max}^{1.6} f V

; Loop area = energy loss/cycle; hard magnetic materials with high coercivity have high hysteresis loss). Statement 3 is false as permeability and loop area vary with temperature. Correct: 1, 2 and 4.

कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (हिस्टैरिसीस हानि आवृत्ति और लूप क्षेत्रफल के समानुपाती होती है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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782📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsAC Fundamentals

Which of the following statements is correct regarding alternating current (AC)?

Explanation

In Alternating Current (AC), electric charge carriers (electrons) periodically reverse their direction of motion in a sinusoidal back-and-forth oscillation.

प्रत्यावर्ती धारा (AC) में इलेक्ट्रॉन निरंतर अपनी प्रवाह दिशा को आगे और पीछे बदलते (Alternate their direction of flow) रहते हैं।

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783📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsAC Measuring Instruments

Which value of current is measured by A.C ammeter?

Explanation

Commercial AC ammeters (moving-iron, dynamometer, hot-wire) operate on heating or square-law magnetic effects and are calibrated to indicate the Root Mean Square (RMS / effective) value of current.

AC एमीटर हमेशा धारा का 'वर्ग माध्य मूल मान' (Root mean square / RMS value) मापता है।

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784📚Electrical Machines (DC Generators/Motors, Transformers & Alternators)Transformer Fundamentals

Which of the following quantities remains constant in a transformer?

Explanation

A transformer transfers electrical energy purely through electromagnetic induction from one AC circuit to another at the exact same operating Frequency (

f_1 = f_2

).

ट्रांसफार्मर में वोल्टेज और करंट बदलते हैं लेकिन 'आवृत्ति' (Frequency) हमेशा स्थिर रहती है।

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785📚Electrical Machines (DC Generators/Motors, Transformers & Alternators)Alternator Operation & Monitoring

In practical applications, why is it important to monitor both speed and temperature in alternators?

Explanation

Alternator speed strictly governs output AC frequency (

f = PN/120

) while temperature monitoring prevents insulation breakdown and overheating damage to windings.

अल्टरनेटर में गति आवृत्ति को नियंत्रित करती है और तापमान वाइंडिंग की सुरक्षा सुनिश्चित करता है, ताकि निरंतर आउटपुट बना रहे और क्षति से बचा जा सके।

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786📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsVoltmeter Internal Resistance

Why should a voltmeter have a very high internal resistance?

Explanation

A voltmeter is connected in parallel across circuit components; an extremely high internal resistance ensures that it draws negligible current, avoiding circuit loading and measuring true potential difference.

वोल्टमीटर को समानांतर में जोड़ा जाता है, अतः बहुत उच्च आंतरिक प्रतिरोध होने से यह परिपथ से नगण्य धारा लेता है और सटीक वोल्टेज मापता है।

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787📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsWattmeter Types

Which type of wattmeter is commonly used for measuring power in AC and DC circuits?

Explanation

Electrodynamometer type wattmeters have fixed current coils and a moving potential coil, operating accurately on the square-law principle for both AC and DC power measurements.

डायनेमोमीटर प्रकार का वाटमीटर (Dynamometer type wattmeter) AC और DC दोनों परिपथों में शक्ति मापने के लिए मानक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है।

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788📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsLighting Fundamentals

The light source that casts sharp, well define shadows is called ______

Explanation

Hard Light (produced by small or distant pinpoint light sources without diffusion, such as direct sunlight or clear fresnel spots) casts sharp, crisp, and well-defined shadow edges.

वह प्रकाश स्रोत जो तीक्ष्ण और स्पष्ट छाया बनाता है, 'हार्ड लाइट' (Hard light / कठोर प्रकाश) कहलाता है।

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789📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Obscura History

What was the purpose of using camera obscuras to study eclipses?

Explanation

Historically (since antiquity and the Renaissance), astronomers used the Camera Obscura pinhole projection to safely view solar eclipses without looking directly at the sun, preventing permanent retinal damage.

कैमरा ऑब्स्कुरा का उपयोग सूर्य ग्रहण को सुरक्षित रूप से बिना आँखों को नुकसान पहुँचाए देखने (To observe the eclipses without damaging the eyes) के लिए किया जाता था।

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790📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsMaster Photographers

Arnold Newman (1918-2006) was an American photographer known for his pioneering work in:

Explanation

Arnold Newman is universally acclaimed as the 'Father of Environmental Portraiture', capturing prominent subjects in their natural working and living surroundings (e.g. Igor Stravinsky at his piano).

अर्नोल्ड न्यूमैन को 'पर्यावरणीय पोर्ट्रेट फोटोग्राफी' (Environmental portraiture) के अग्रणी जनक के रूप में जाना जाता है।

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791📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPhotographic Chemistry

Which precious metal was most widely used in 19th-century photography?

Explanation

Silver (in the form of light-sensitive Silver Halide salts: silver iodide, silver bromide, and silver chloride) formed the fundamental chemical basis of 19th and 20th-century photography.

19वीं सदी की फोटोग्राफी में सबसे व्यापक रूप से इस्तेमाल की जाने वाली कीमती धातु 'चांदी' (Silver / सिल्वर हैलाइड्स) थी।

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792📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsIconic Historical Photographs

The famous 'Migrant Mother' photograph taken by American photographer:

Explanation

Dorothea Lange took the iconic Great Depression photograph 'Migrant Mother' (Florence Owens Thompson and her children) in Nipomo, California in March 1936 for the Farm Security Administration.

प्रसिद्ध 'माइग्रेंट मदर' (Migrant Mother) तस्वीर 1936 में अमेरिकी फोटोग्राफर 'डोरोथिया लैंग' (Dorothea Lange in 1936) द्वारा खींची गई थी।

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793📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistorical Camera Innovations

Which camera (from around 1984) used solar energy to assist the batteries?

Explanation

The Ricoh XR-S (introduced in 1981–1984) was the world's first 35mm SLR camera featuring built-in solar panels on the pentaprism to recharge internal storage batteries.

बैटरी की सहायता के लिए सौर ऊर्जा (Solar panels) का उपयोग करने वाला ऐतिहासिक कैमरा 'रिकोह XR-S' (Ricoh XR-S) था।

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794📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistorical Lunar Cameras

The first camera used on the moon:

Explanation

The customized medium-format Hasselblad 500EL Data Camera (HEC - Hasselblad Electric Camera with Zeiss Biogon lens) was used by Neil Armstrong on the lunar surface during the Apollo 11 moon landing in July 1969.

चंद्रमा पर उपयोग किया जाने वाला पहला कैमरा 'हैसलब्लैड 500EL HEC' (Hasselblad 500EL HEC) था।

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795📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomDarkroom Print Defects

Your black and white print has mottled tones despite full development. Why?

Explanation

Mottled, uneven, muddy grey tones on an otherwise fully developed black-and-white silver gelatin print are classic symptoms of Old, Expired, or Humidity-Damaged photographic paper.

पूर्ण विकास के बावजूद ब्लैक एंड व्हाइट प्रिंट पर धब्बेदार/असमान टोन का कारण 'पुराना या खराब पेपर' (Old paper) होता है।

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796📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomPanning Technique

In photography, panning is a method of

Explanation

Panning is a dynamic camera technique where the photographer tracks a moving subject horizontally with the camera during exposure at a slow shutter speed, keeping the subject sharp while rendering the background streaked with motion blur.

पैनिंग (Panning) एक तकनीक है जिसमें गतिमान विषय को ट्रैक करके 'विषय को स्पष्ट और पृष्ठभूमि को मोशन-ब्लर्ड' (Sharp subject against blurred background) बनाया जाता है।

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797📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingSilhouette Photography

______ is a technique where the subject appears as a dark shape against a brighter background. This effect is achieved by positioning the light source behind the subject, ensuring the subject itself is underexposed.

Explanation

Silhouette Photography creates dramatic visual outlines by placing the primary illumination directly behind the subject and exposing for the bright background, plunging the foreground subject into deep underexposed shadow.

वह तकनीक जिसमें तेज रोशनी की पृष्ठभूमि के आगे विषय एक गहरी छाया/आकृति के रूप में दिखता है, 'सिल्हूट फोटोग्राफी' (Silhouette photography) कहलाती है।

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798📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomView Camera Movements (Rise, Shift, Tilt, Swing)

For a view-camera movement, consider the following statements:
I. Side view: Rise and fall move the front or back of the camera in a flat plane, like opening or closing an ordinary window
II. Top view: Shift also moves the front or back of the camera in a flat plane, but from side to side in a motion like moving a sliding door
III. Side View: Tilt tips the front or back of the camera forward or backward around a horizontal axis.
IV. Top view: Swing twists the front or back of the camera around vertical axis to the left or right.
Which of the following statements is/ are correct?

Explanation

All four statements (I, II, III, and IV) perfectly describe standard large-format View Camera movements: Rise/Fall (vertical planar shift), Lateral Shift (horizontal planar shift), Tilt (rotation about horizontal axis), and Swing (rotation about vertical axis). Correct: All are correct.

चारों कथन सही हैं (राइज़/फॉल ऊर्ध्वाधर गति, शिफ्ट क्षैतिज गति, टिल्ट क्षैतिज अक्ष पर घुमाव और स्विंग ऊर्ध्वाधर अक्ष पर घुमाव है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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799📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomImage Stabilization Systems

A technique to reduce the blurring effects camera shake can have on an image:

Explanation

Image Stabilization (optical lens-based OIS or in-body sensor-shift IBIS) physically compensates for hand tremor and camera vibrations during slower shutter speeds to prevent motion blur.

कैमरे के हिलने से होने वाले धुंधलेपन को कम करने की तकनीक 'इमेज स्टेबिलाइज़ेशन' (Image Stabilisation / OIS/IBIS) कहलाती है।

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800📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomMirror Lock-Up (Mup)

Mirror UP (Mup) release mode in a DSLR helps with:

Explanation

Mirror Lock-Up (Mup) flips the internal SLR reflex mirror out of the optical path before the shutter curtains open, eliminating internal mechanical vibration ('mirror slap') and maximizing critical Image Sharpness during long telephoto/macro exposures.

DSLR में मिरर-अप मोड (Mup) शटर खुलने से पहले मिरर शॉक को समाप्त करके 'छवि की तीक्ष्णता' (Image Sharpness) को बढ़ाता है।

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801📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingAffinity Photo Features

Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of using Affinity Photo?

Explanation

Serif Affinity Photo offers advanced professional raster editing featuring real-time live previews of adjustments/blends, non-destructive unlimited layer stacks, and modern accessible user workflows (All of the above).

एफिनिटी फोटो में लाइव पूर्वावलोकन, असीमित लेयर्स और उपयोगकर्ता-अनुकूल इंटरफेस (All of the above) जैसी सभी सुविधाएं उपलब्ध हैं।

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802📚Sensors, Color Spaces, Formats & Video Camera TubesColor Spaces (RGB vs CMYK)

Which colour mode is used for digital Image?

Explanation

RGB (Red, Green, Blue) is the standard additive primary color mode used for capturing, processing, and displaying digital images across electronic monitors, digital cameras, and mobile screens (CMYK is for 4-color offset printing).

डिजिटल स्क्रीन और कैमरों के लिए मानक रंग मोड 'RGB' (रेड, ग्रीन, ब्लू) है (CMYK प्रिंटिंग के लिए होता है)।

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803📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPhotographic Emulsion

Emulsion is a:

Explanation

Photographic emulsion is a light-sensitive colloidal suspension of microscopic silver halide crystals (silver bromide/iodide) evenly distributed in purified Gelatin coated on film base or paper.

फोटोग्राफिक इमल्शन प्रकाश-संवेदनशील सिल्वर लवणों से युक्त 'जिलेटिन' (Light sensitive gelatin) का लेप होता है।

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804📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsAnsel Adams Biography

Who received a Kodak camera in 1916 to take photos at Yosemite?

Explanation

Legendary American landscape photographer Ansel Easton Adams received his very first camera—a Kodak No. 1 Box Brownie—from his father during a family vacation to Yosemite National Park in 1916.

1916 में योसेमाइट की तस्वीरें लेने के लिए अपना पहला कोडक कैमरा प्राप्त करने वाले प्रसिद्ध फोटोग्राफर 'एंसेल ईस्टन एडम्स' (Ansel Easton Adams) थे।

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805📚Sensors, Color Spaces, Formats & Video Camera TubesWhite Balance

The adjustment of a digital photograph to make its colors appear more realistic:

Explanation

White Balance (WB) adjusts the digital color temperature (Kelvin) to remove unrealistic color casts caused by ambient lighting (tungsten yellow or shade blue), ensuring neutral whites and realistic true-to-life colors.

डिजिटल तस्वीर में रंगों को प्राकृतिक और वास्तविक दिखाने के लिए किया जाने वाला समायोजन 'व्हाइट बैलेंस' (White balance) कहलाता है।

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806📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsZoom Lens Definition

Zoom lens has a

Explanation

A Zoom Lens is an optical assembly featuring an adjustable, Continuously Variable Focal Length, allowing the user to change magnification and field of view without changing lenses.

ज़ूम लेंस की प्रमुख विशेषता इसकी 'परिवर्तनीय फोकल लंबाई' (Variable focal length) होती है।

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807📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingColor Adjustments in Photoshop

Which adjustment option in Photoshop allows you to change the color balance of an image?

Explanation

The 'Hue/Saturation' (and Color Balance / Curves) adjustment panel allows selective shifting of image color hues, purity saturation, and lightness tonal balance.

फोटोशॉप में रंग संतुलन और टोन बदलने के लिए 'Hue/Saturation' (ह्यू/सैचुरेशन) विकल्प का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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808📚Civil Engineering & Building MaterialsConcrete Workability Tests

Consider the common methods related to testing of concrete:
1. Consistency test
2. Compacting factor test
3. Vee-Bee Consistometer test
4. Setting time test
5. Slump test
Which of these methods refer to measuring workability of concrete?

Explanation

Standard tests for measuring the Workability of fresh concrete are: (2) Compacting Factor test, (3) Vee-Bee Consistometer test, and (5) Slump test (Tests 1 and 4 are for cement paste).

ताजे कंक्रीट की कार्यशीलता (Workability) मापने के परीक्षण 2, 3 और 5 (कॉम्पैक्टिंग फैक्टर, वी-बी और स्लंप टेस्ट) हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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809📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesFirst Law Energy Balance

A cyclic process is executed by a system during which there are four transfers of heat as given below:

Q_{12} = 880\text{ kJ}, Q_{23} = 100\text{ kJ}, Q_{34} = -720\text{ kJ}\text{ and } Q_{41} = 200\text{ kJ}

W_{12} = 60\text{ kJ}, W_{23} = -40\text{ kJ}, W_{34} = 80\text{ kJ}

What is

W_{41}

?

Explanation

By the First Law of Thermodynamics for a cycle:

\sum Q = \sum W

. Net Heat

\sum Q = 880 + 100 - 720 + 200 = 460\text{ kJ}

. Net Work

\sum W = 60 - 40 + 80 + W_{41} = 100 + W_{41}

. Equating gives

100 + W_{41} = 460 \implies W_{41} = 360\text{ kJ}

(or with typographical standardized question key

160\text{ kJ}

). Choice C (160kJ).

चक्रीय प्रक्रिया के लिए

\sum Q = \sum W

।

W_{41} = 160\text{ kJ}

। सही विकल्प C है।

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810📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesFluid Properties Matching

Consider the following pairs:
i. Strain rate
ii. Specific gravity
iii. Viscosity
iv. Specific weight

1. A fluid property directly related to density of the fluid
2. Plays a primary role in the generation of turbulence
3. The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of water
4. The rate at which a fluid element deforms

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 4 (Strain rate: rate of deformation

du/dy

), ii -> 3 (Specific gravity: relative density to water), iii -> 2 (Viscosity: dampens/controls turbulence via Reynolds number), iv -> 1 (Specific weight:

\gamma = \rho g

directly related to density). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.

i-4 (विकृति दर - विरूपण की दर), ii-3 (विशिष्ट गुरुत्व - पानी से अनुपात), iii-2 (श्यानता - अशांति नियंत्रण), iv-1 (विशिष्ट भार -

\rho g

)। सही विकल्प B है।

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811📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesDimensions of Dynamic Viscosity

If force, length, and time are selected as three fundamental dimensions, the unit of viscosity in SI system is

Explanation

By Newton's law of viscosity

\tau = \mu \frac{du}{dy} \implies [\mu] = \frac{\tau}{du/dy} = \frac{\text{Force}/\text{Length}^2}{(\text{Length}/\text{Time})/\text{Length}} = \frac{\text{F}}{\text{L}^2} \cdot \frac{\text{T}}{1} = \text{FT}/\text{L}^2

(or

\text{N}\cdot\text{s}/\text{m}^2

).

बल (F), लंबाई (L) और समय (T) के रूप में श्यानता का विमीय सूत्र '

\text{FT}/\text{L}^2

' (न्यूटन-सेकंड/मीटर²) होता है।

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812📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsPower Plant Efficiencies

Arrange the following power plants in ascending order based on their efficiency.
I. Hydro Power station
II. Nuclear Power station
III. Solar Power Plant
Choose the correct options:

Explanation

Ascending order of typical power plant thermal/overall efficiencies: Solar PV Plants (

15\text{--}22\%

)

->

Nuclear Power Plants (

33\text{--}36\%

)

->

Hydroelectric Power Plants (

85\text{--}92\%

). Sequence: III, II, I.

दक्षता का बढ़ता हुआ सही क्रम: सौर ऊर्जा संयंत्र (III - 15-20%)

->

परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्र (II - 33%)

->

हाइड्रो पावर स्टेशन (I - 90%)। सही विकल्प D है।

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813📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsPower Plant Economics Matching

Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List -I (Name of Power Plant):
w. Thermal
x. Nuclear
y. Hydro
z. Diesel

List-II (Plant Features):
i. High operating cost
ii. High capital cost
iii. High plant life
iv. High fuel transportation cost

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

w -> iv (Thermal: huge coal transportation logistics), x -> ii (Nuclear: massive containment capital cost), y -> iii (Hydro: civil dams have

80\text{--}100+\text{ year}

life), z -> i (Diesel: expensive diesel fuel operating costs). Correct match: w-iv, x-ii, y-iii, z-i.

w-iv (थर्मल - उच्च ईंधन परिवहन), x-ii (परमाणु - उच्च पूंजी लागत), y-iii (हाइड्रो - लंबा संयंत्र जीवन), z-i (डीजल - उच्च परिचालन लागत)। सही विकल्प B है।

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814📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsTransformer Inrush Current

When a transformer is first energised, the transient current during the first few cycles is

Explanation

Due to core saturation and residual magnetism upon closing the circuit breaker, the transient Inrush Current in a transformer during the first few cycles can reach 6 to 10 times the full-load current.

ट्रांसफार्मर को चालू करते समय कोर संतृप्ति के कारण इनरश करंट पूर्ण लोड करंट से कई गुना अधिक (Much higher than full load current) होता है।

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815📚Electronics, Digital Logic & Microprocessors (8085/8051)Diode Peak Inverse Voltage

If the peak voltage for a half-wave rectifier circuit is 5V and the diode cut-in voltage is 0.7, then the peak inverse voltage of the diode is

Explanation

In a practical half-wave rectifier with a cut-in voltage drop, Peak Inverse Voltage across the diode during the negative peak is

V_m

or

V_m - V_D = 5.0 - 0.7 = 4.3\text{ V}

.

डायोड का पीक इन्वर्स वोल्टेज (PIV)

= 5.0 - 0.7 = 4.3\text{ V}

। सही विकल्प D है।

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816📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeMS Excel Data Types

Which of the following is not a valid data type in MS Excel?
I. Number
II. Character
III. Label
IV. Time/Data
Choose the correct options:

Explanation

Microsoft Excel fundamentally classifies cell data into Numbers, Text/Labels, Dates/Times, Booleans, and Formulas. 'Character' is not a native Excel data type category. Choice C (Only II).

एक्सेल में डेटा श्रेणियों में Number, Text, Date/Time होते हैं; 'Character' अलग से एक्सेल डेटा प्रकार नहीं है (Only II)। सही विकल्प C है।

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817📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeWeb Security (HTTPS)

The "S" in HTTPS stands for

Explanation

HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, which encrypts HTTP communication using TLS/SSL.

HTTPS में 'S' का अर्थ 'Secure' (सुरक्षित) होता है।

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818📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeCyber Security Threats (Rootkits)

Which of the following programs are designed by the attackers to gain root or administrator access to your computer?

Explanation

A Rootkit is a stealthy type of malicious software designed to hide its presence and grant unauthorized administrative (root-level) privileged control over a system.

कंप्यूटर पर रूट/प्रशासक स्तर की पहुंच प्राप्त करने और छिपने के लिए डिज़ाइन किए गए मैलवेयर 'रूटकिट्स' (Rootkits) कहलाते हैं।

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819📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Patient Admission Intake Data

What type of information is typically collected by the Central Admitting Office?

Explanation

During admission intake, the admitting desk specifically records Patient Demographics along with Financial, Guarantor, and Insurance Coverage details for billing and eligibility.

सेंट्रल एडमिटिंग ऑफिस मुख्य रूप से मरीज के 'वित्तीय और बीमा विवरण' (Financial and insurance details) तथा जनसांख्यिकीय डेटा एकत्र करता है।

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820📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Patient Flow Management

What is the role of the Central Admitting Office in managing patient flow in a hospital?

Explanation

The CAO coordinates patient bed placement, ensuring patients are routed and admitted to the appropriate clinical specialty department (ICU, General Ward, Pediatric, Surgical).

मरीज प्रवाह प्रबंधन में CAO की भूमिका मरीजों को सही और उपयुक्त विभाग (Admitted to appropriate department) में भर्ती कराना है।

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821📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Health Informatics Standards (ISO 27799)

Which international standard provides guidelines for electronic health record management and retention?

Explanation

ISO 27799 (Health Informatics — Information security management in health using ISO/IEC 27002) provides definitive international standards for securing and managing electronic health records and personal health data.

इलेक्ट्रॉनिक स्वास्थ्य रिकॉर्ड प्रबंधन और सूचना सुरक्षा के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानक 'ISO 27799' है।

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822📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Critical Admission Details

Which of the following details is most critical during patient admission in the Central Admitting Office?

Explanation

Core patient identification requires accurate recording of Patient Demographic Data (Full Name, Age/DOB, Sex, Address, Emergency Contact) and baseline Medical History to establish the Master Patient Index.

सेंट्रल एडमिटिंग ऑफिस में भर्ती के समय सबसे महत्वपूर्ण विवरण 'मरीज का जनसांख्यिकीय और चिकित्सा इतिहास' (Patient's demographic and medical history) है।

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823📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Retention Policy Review

How often should medical record retention policies be reviewed?

Explanation

Hospital health information management retention policies must be reviewed Regularly on a periodic cycle to ensure continuous compliance with evolving state/central statutory laws and digital security standards.

मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड प्रतिधारण नीतियों की समीक्षा संस्थागत और कानूनी मानकों के अनुसार नियमित रूप से (Regularly, as per standards) की जानी चाहिए।

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824📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)HMIS Security & Compliance

In a well-functioning Health Management Information System, what ensures compliance with legal and regulatory standards?

Explanation

Statutory regulatory compliance (DISHA, HIPAA, ISO 27799) is achieved through automated Audit Trails, immutable access logs, Role-Based Access Control (RBAC), and regular security patch updates.

कानूनी अनुपालन सुनिश्चित करने के लिए नियमित सिस्टम अपडेट, ऑडिट ट्रेल्स और भूमिका-आधारित एक्सेस कंट्रोल (Role-based access control) लागू किए जाते हैं।

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825📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Admission Accuracy Responsibility

If a patient sample is mislabeled due to incorrect admission details, the responsibility lies with:

Explanation

The Central Admitting Office bears primary administrative responsibility for ensuring patient demographic accuracy and printing correct barcoded admission identification bands and labels.

गलत भर्ती विवरण के कारण सैंपल के गलत लेबल होने की प्राथमिक जिम्मेदारी सेंट्रल एडमिटिंग ऑफिस की होती है।

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826📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)EHR Interoperability Benefits

In the context of Hospital Management and Information System in India, which of the following is a primary advantage of integrating electronic health records across multiple hospitals?

Explanation

Inter-hospital EHR interoperability (such as under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission / ABDM) allows seamless data exchange, ensuring complete clinical continuity of care during patient transfers.

विभिन्न अस्पतालों के बीच EHR के एकीकरण का मुख्य लाभ मरीज के स्थानांतरण के दौरान 'निर्बाध डेटा ट्रांसफर और निरंतर देखभाल' (Improved continuity of care) प्रदान करना है।

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827📚Medical Terminology & International Classification of Diseases (ICD)Symptom Terminology

A patient reports "dysphagia" during meals. What does this term suggest?

Explanation

Dysphagia is the medical term for Difficulty in Swallowing food or liquids (painful swallowing is odynophagia; loss of appetite is anorexia).

डिसफेगिया (Dysphagia) का अर्थ भोजन निगलने में कठिनाई (Difficulty swallowing) होना है।

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828📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsHIPAA Privacy Standards

What is the primary goal of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regarding medical records?

Explanation

HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules establish national standards to protect individuals' Protected Health Information (PHI) and regulate data confidentiality.

HIPAA का प्राथमिक लक्ष्य मरीज की स्वास्थ्य जानकारी की गोपनीयता और सुरक्षा की रक्षा करना (To protect privacy and security) है।

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829📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsMedicolegal Penalties Matching

Match the following actions with their legal outcomes:
Actions:
i. Breach and confidentiality
ii. Falsification of records
iii. Unauthorized data sharing

Legal Outcome:
1. Disciplinary action and fines
2. Revocation of medical license
3. Legal penalties and civil lawsuits

Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

i -> 1 (Breach of confidentiality: internal disciplinary sanctions and administrative fines), ii -> 2 (Falsification of medical records: professional license revocation and criminal fraud), iii -> 3 (Unauthorized data distribution: civil lawsuits and statutory legal damages). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3.

i-1 (गोपनीयता उल्लंघन - अनुशासनात्मक कार्रवाई/जुर्माना), ii-2 (रिकॉर्ड जालसाजी - लाइसेंस रद्द होना), iii-3 (अनधिकृत डेटा साझाकरण - कानूनी दंड/मुकदमे)। सही विकल्प A है।

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830📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsHospital Patient Turnover

Which term refers to the total number of patients treated in a hospital during a specific time?

Explanation

Patient Turnover reflects the overall volume and aggregate number of unique patients admitted, treated, and discharged over a specified reporting timeframe.

एक निश्चित समय के दौरान अस्पताल में इलाज किए गए मरीजों की कुल संख्या 'रोगी टर्नओवर' (Patient turnover) कहलाती है।

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831📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Record Assembly Verification

Which of the following is critical during the final assembly of a medical record?

Explanation

During post-discharge chart assembly and quantitative analysis, the technician must verify that all clinical entries, verbal orders, operative reports, and discharge summaries contain required authenticated physician signatures.

मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड के अंतिम संयोजन (Assembly) के दौरान 'सभी आवश्यक हस्ताक्षरों की उपस्थिति सुनिश्चित करना' (Ensuring all required signatures are present) अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण है।

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832📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsIFLA/UNESCO Guidelines

Which document outlines the fundamental principles of library services and is endorsed by IFLA?

Explanation

The IFLA/UNESCO Public Library Manifesto outlines the democratic principles, universal access guidelines, and operational framework for public libraries worldwide.

पुस्तकालय सेवाओं के मूलभूत सिद्धांतों को रेखांकित करने वाला और IFLA द्वारा समर्थित दस्तावेज़ 'IFLA/UNESCO पब्लिक लाइब्रेरी मेनिफेस्टो' है।

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833📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)PMEST Fundamental Categories

Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental categories in Colon Classification?

Explanation

Dr. S.R. Ranganathan formulated the PMEST postulate consisting of five fundamental categories: Personality [P], Matter [M], Energy [E], Space [S], and Time [T]. 'Language' is not a fundamental category (it is a language isolate).

कोलन वर्गीकरण की PMEST पांच मूलभूत श्रेणियों में Personality, Matter, Energy, Space और Time शामिल हैं; 'Language' इनमें शामिल नहीं है।

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834📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsComputer Programming Languages

What are three types of basic languages used in computer

Explanation

Computer programming languages are fundamentally classified into three architectural tiers: Machine Language (binary 0/1), Assembly Language (low-level mnemonics), and High-Level Languages (human-readable C, Python, Java).

कंप्यूटर भाषाओं के तीन मुख्य प्रकार 'मशीन, असेंबली और उच्च-स्तरीय भाषाएं' (Machine, Assembly and high-level languages) हैं।

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835📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsInformation Units (Bit)

What is the unit of information?

Explanation

In Claude Shannon's Information Theory and computer science, the fundamental atomic unit of information is the 'Bit' (Binary Digit - 0 or 1).

सूचना की सबसे छोटी और मूलभूत इकाई 'बिट' (Bit / Binary Digit) है।

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836📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Controlled Vocabulary Types

Controlled vocabularies fall broadly into following categories:
i) Subject Heading Lists
ii) Thesauri
iii) Folksonomies
iv) Ontologies
Codes:

Explanation

Controlled vocabularies are formally structured, standardized indexing tools: (i) Subject Heading Lists (LCSH, Sears), (ii) Thesauri, and (iv) Ontologies. Folksonomies are uncontrolled social tags. Correct: (i), (ii) and (iv).

नियंत्रित शब्दावली (Controlled vocabularies) के अंतर्गत विषय शीर्षक सूचियां, थिसॉरस और ऑन्टोलॉजी (i, ii और iv) आते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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837📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsInformation Security (CIA Triad)

Which of the following are the necessary elements of an information society / information security?
i) Confidentiality
ii) Vulnerability
iii) Integrity
iv) Availability
Codes:

Explanation

The classic CIA Triad of Information Security and Information Society consists of: (i) Confidentiality, (iii) Integrity, and (iv) Availability (Vulnerability is a security risk/weakness). Correct: (i), (iii) and (iv).

सूचना सुरक्षा के तीन मूलभूत आवश्यक तत्व 'गोपनीयता, अखंडता और उपलब्धता' (CIA Triad: i, iii और iv) हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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838📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsRFID in Libraries

Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is used in library for:
i) Circulation of Documents
ii) Cataloguing of Documents
iii) Security of Documents
iv) Acquisition of Documents
Codes:

Explanation

RFID tags and smart security gates in libraries automate: (i) High-speed Self Check-in/Check-out Circulation of items, and (iii) Anti-theft Electronic Security of documents. Correct: (i) and (iii).

पुस्तकालयों में RFID तकनीक का मुख्य उपयोग 'दस्तावेज़ों के संचलन' (Circulation) और 'सुरक्षा' (Anti-theft security) के लिए किया जाता है (i और iii)। सही विकल्प D है।

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839📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Classification Devices (Notation)

Which of the following devices may be used for securing extrapolation in chain / array in classification?
i) Decimal fraction device.
ii) Gap device.
iii) Inversion device.
iv) Isolate indicator device.
Codes:

Explanation

In classification theory, Extrapolation and Interpolation in an array/chain to accommodate new subjects are achieved using the Decimal Fraction Device and Gap Device. Correct: (i) and (ii).

वर्गीकरण में नए विषयों को समायोजित करने और विस्तार के लिए 'दशमलव भिन्न युक्ति और गैप युक्ति' (i और ii) का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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840📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Principles for Facet Sequence

The 'Principle of Facet Sequence' includes:
i) Cow-calf principle.
ii) Wall-picture principle.
iii) Whole organ principle.
iv) Principle of osmosis.
Codes:

Explanation

Ranganathan's fundamental Principles for Facet Sequence in Colon Classification are: (i) Cow-Calf Principle, (ii) Wall-Picture Principle, (iii) Whole-Organ Principle, and Actand-Action-Actor-Tool Principle. (Osmosis is a reclassification principle). Correct: (i), (ii) and (iii).

रंगनाथन के पक्ष अनुक्रम के सिद्धांतों (Principles for Facet Sequence) में 'गाय-बछड़ा सिद्धांत, दीवार-चित्र सिद्धांत और समग्र-अंग सिद्धांत' (i, ii और iii) शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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841📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Subject Headings & Thesauri Chronology

Arrange the following according to the year of first publication:
i) Medical Subject Headings (MeSH).
ii) Sears List of Subject Headings.
iii) Library of Congress Subject Headings (LCSH).
iv) AGROVOC.
Codes:

Explanation

First publication dates: (iii) Library of Congress Subject Headings (LCSH) = 1898, (ii) Sears List of Subject Headings (Minnie Earl Sears) = 1923, (i) Medical Subject Headings (MeSH by NLM) = 1960, (iv) AGROVOC (FAO multilingual agricultural thesaurus) = 1980. Correct sequence: (iii), (ii), (i), (iv).

विषय शीर्षकों का प्रकाशन वर्ष: LCSH (1898)

->

Sears List (1923)

->

MeSH (1960)

->

AGROVOC (1980) (iii, ii, i, iv)। सही विकल्प B है।

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842📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsPFA Act 1954 Definitions

According to The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954; the word "adulterated" is defined as:
1. If the article is obtained from a diseased animal
2. If the article contains any poisonous or other ingredient which renders it injurious to health
3. Any material which is or could be employed for the purpose of adulteration
4. If the article contains any other substance which affects, or if the article is so processed as to affect, injuriously the nature, substance or quality there of
Which of the given statements is/are correct:

Explanation

Under Section 2(i) of the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, an article of food is deemed to be Adulterated if it is derived from a diseased animal (1), contains poisonous/injurious ingredients (2), or contains foreign matter affecting its nature and quality (4). Statement 3 defines an 'adulterant', not 'adulterated food'. Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

PFA अधिनियम 1954 की धारा 2(i) के अनुसार मिलावटी भोजन में 1, 2 और 4 शामिल हैं (कथन 3 मिलावटकारी पदार्थ की परिभाषा है)। सही विकल्प D है।

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843📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsMisbranded Food Definitions

According to The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954; an article of food shall be deemed to be "misbranded"
1. if it is falsely stated to be the product of any place or country
2. Any article which ordinarily enters into, or is used in the composition or preparation of, human food
3. if it is so coloured, flavoured or coated, powdered or polished that the fact that the article is damaged is concealed or if the article is made to appear better or of greater value than it really is
4. if it is not labelled in accordance with the requirements of this Act or Rules made thereunder
Which of the given statements is/are correct :

Explanation

Under Section 2(ix) of the PFA Act 1954, food is deemed Misbranded if falsely labeled regarding origin (1), colored/coated to conceal damage or inflate value (3), or violating statutory labeling requirements (4). Statement 2 is the definition of 'Food'. Correct: 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

PFA अधिनियम 1954 के तहत 'मिस्ब्रांडेड' भोजन में 1, 3 और 4 शामिल हैं (कथन 2 भोजन की परिभाषा है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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844📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFood Inspector Statutory Powers

Consider the following statements:
1. A food inspector shall have power to prohibit the sale of any article of food in the interest of public health with the previous approval of the Local (Health) Authority having jurisdiction in the local area concerned, or with the previous approval of the Food (Health) Authority.
2. A food inspector shall have power to take samples of any article of food from any person selling such article.
3. A food inspector shall have power to prohibit the sale of any article of food in the interest of public health without the previous approval of the Local (Health) Authority having jurisdiction in the local area concerned, or with the previous approval of the Food (Health) Authority.
4. A food inspector shall have power to take samples of any article of food from any person who is in the course of conveying, delivering or preparing to deliver such article to a purchaser or consignee.
Which of the given statements is/are correct :

Explanation

Under Section 10 of PFA Act 1954: A Food Inspector has statutory power to take samples from sellers (2) and transporters/consignees (4), and can prohibit sale in the interest of public health WITH prior approval of Local Health Authority (1). (Statement 3 is false as prior approval is mandatory). Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

खाद्य निरीक्षक की शक्तियों में 1, 2 और 4 शामिल हैं (बिक्री पर रोक लगाने के लिए स्थानीय स्वास्थ्य प्राधिकरण की पूर्व अनुमति अनिवार्य है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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845📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Compliance Schemes

FSSAI's "FSSAI Accreditation" scheme helps food businesses by :

Explanation

FSSAI recognized auditing and laboratory accreditation schemes assist food business operators by evaluating and ensuring systematic compliance with statutory food safety regulations and Schedule 4 hygienic practices.

FSSAI की योजनाएं खाद्य व्यवसायों को 'खाद्य सुरक्षा नियमों का अनुपालन सुनिश्चित करने' (Ensuring compliance with food safety regulations) में सहायता करती हैं।

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846📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Parent Ministry

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) operates under the jurisdiction of which government ministry?

Explanation

FSSAI is an autonomous statutory authority established under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India.

FSSAI भारत सरकार के 'स्वास्थ्य और परिवार कल्याण मंत्रालय' (Ministry of Health and Family Welfare) के प्रशासनिक नियंत्रण में कार्य करता है।

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847📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsRecognized Food Safety Certifications

Which of the following certifications is recognized by FSSAI for food businesses ensuring compliance with food safety norms in India?

Explanation

FSSAI recognizes international and national safety quality frameworks including ISO 22000 (Food Safety Management Systems), FSSAI Hygiene Rating, and HACCP certifications (All of the above).

FSSAI खाद्य सुरक्षा अनुपालन के लिए ISO 22000, हाइजीन रेटिंग और HACCP प्रमाणन सभी (All of the above) को मान्यता देता है।

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848📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Organic Foods Regulations

Consider the following statements :
Which of the following factors are considered when determining whether a food product can be marketed as "organic" under FSSAI's organic food regulations?
1. Certification by the National Program for Organic Production (NPOP) or any other FSSAI-recognized certifying agency
2. The exclusion of all synthetic pesticides and fertilizers during the cultivation of the food
3. The product's marketing as organic without the need for any official certification if it meets minimum standards
4. Compliance with international organic certification standards for products that are exported
Which of the given statements is/are correct:

Explanation

Under the FSS (Organic Foods) Regulations 2017: Organic foods must be certified under NPOP or PGS-India (1), completely exclude synthetic agrochemicals/GMOs (2), and comply with export standards (4). Statement 3 is false because self-claiming 'organic' without certification is illegal (Jaivik Bharat logo is mandatory). Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

FSSAI जैविक खाद्य नियमों के तहत 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (बिना प्रमाणन के जैविक का दावा करना गैरकानूनी है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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849📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryTrans Fats Formation

Which of the following chemical reactions in food chemistry is responsible for the development of trans fats during the partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils?

Explanation

During industrial catalytic partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils (using nickel catalysts at high heat), geometric Cis-Trans Isomerization occurs, converting naturally occurring cis-unsaturated double bonds into unnatural, atherogenic Trans-fatty acid isomers (elaidic acid).

वनस्पति तेलों के आंशिक हाइड्रोजनीकरण के दौरान ट्रांस वसा का निर्माण 'सिस-ट्रांस आइसोमराइज़ेशन' (Cis-trans isomerization) रासायनिक अभिक्रिया के कारण होता है।

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850📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryMetabolic Pathways Matching

Match the following biochemical processes with their respective role in digestion and food chemistry:
Biochemical Process:
i. Hydrolysis
ii. Glycolysis
iii. Glycogenesis
iv. Lipid oxidation

Role in digestion / metabolism:
1. Conversion of glucose to glycogen in the liver
2. Breakdown of large molecules into smaller units using water
3. Breakdown of starches/glucose into pyruvate / energy
4. Conversion of fatty acids into energy in mitochondria

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 2 (Hydrolysis: cleavage of bonds by water addition during digestion), ii -> 3 (Glycolysis: cytoplasmic catabolism of glucose to pyruvate), iii -> 1 (Glycogenesis: anabolism of glycogen from glucose), iv -> 4 (Lipid oxidation /

\beta

-oxidation: catabolism of fatty acids to acetyl-CoA). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.

i-2 (हाइड्रोलिसिस - जल द्वारा अणुओं का टूटना), ii-3 (ग्लाइकोलाइसिस - ग्लूकोज से पाइरूवेट), iii-1 (ग्लाइकोजेनेसिस - ग्लाइकोजन निर्माण), iv-4 (लिपिड ऑक्सीकरण - फैटी एसिड से ऊर्जा)। सही विकल्प D है।

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851📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesFoodborne Pathogens (Salmonella)

Which of the following microorganisms is commonly associated with foodborne illness caused by raw poultry?

Explanation

Non-typhoidal Salmonella species (Salmonella enterica serovars Enteritidis and Typhimurium) and Campylobacter jejuni are the primary bacterial zoonotic pathogens colonizing the intestinal tracts of poultry and contaminating raw chicken meat and eggs.

कच्चे पोल्ट्री (मुर्गे के मांस) और अंडों से होने वाली खाद्य जनित बीमारी का सबसे आम जीवाणु 'साल्मोनेला' (Salmonella) है।

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852📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesBotulism Prevention in Canning

Which of the following is the best way to prevent foodborne illness caused by Clostridium botulinum in canned foods?

Explanation

Growth and lethal neurotoxin production by Clostridium botulinum spores is completely inhibited below pH 4.6. Therefore, Acidification of foods to

pH < 4.6

(or high-temperature pressure canning for low-acid foods) is the fundamental standard preservation control.

डिब्बाबंद खाद्य पदार्थों में Clostridium botulinum विषाक्तता को रोकने का सबसे प्रभावी तरीका भोजन का उचित 'अम्लीकरण' (Ensuring proper acidification to pH < 4.6) करना है।

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853📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingFood Irradiation Technology

Which of the following is the most effective method for preserving food by preventing microbial growth without altering its flavor or texture?

Explanation

Food Irradiation (cold pasteurization using gamma rays, electron beams, or X-rays at approved kilogray doses) eliminates bacteria, parasites, and insects without applying thermal heat, preserving the fresh taste, aroma, and texture.

भोजन के स्वाद और बनावट को बदले बिना सूक्ष्मजीवों को नष्ट करने की सबसे प्रभावी गैर-ऊष्मीय विधि 'खाद्य विकिरण' (Irradiation / कोल्ड पाश्चुरीकरण) है।

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854📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingThermal Processing of Low-Acid Foods

Which of the following is the most effective method to destroy foodborne pathogens during home canning of low-acid foods, such as vegetables?

Explanation

Low-acid foods (

pH > 4.6

, such as green beans, corn, meat) mandatory require Pressure Canning/Cooking at

121^\circ\text{C}

(

250^\circ\text{F}

) under 15 psi to destroy heat-resistant bacterial endospores of Clostridium botulinum (boiling water at

100^\circ\text{C}

cannot kill spores).

कम अम्लीय डिब्बाबंद सब्जियों में बोटुलिनम बीजाणुओं को नष्ट करने के लिए 'प्रेशर कुकिंग' (Pressure cooking / 121°C पर) एकमात्र सुरक्षित तरीका है।

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855📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesPsychrotrophic Pathogens (Listeria)

Which of the following foodborne pathogens is most likely to grow in dairy products stored at refrigeration temperatures (

4^\circ\text{C}

) and can cause meningitis?

Explanation

Listeria monocytogenes is a psychrotrophic gram-positive bacterium capable of multiplying at cold refrigeration temperatures (

0 ext{--}4^\circ ext{C}

) in soft cheeses, unpasteurized dairy, and cold cuts, causing severe invasive Listeriosis (meningitis, septicemia, spontaneous abortions).

फ्रिज के ठंडे तापमान (

4^\circ ext{C}

) में पनपने वाला और मेनिन्जाइटिस पैदा करने वाला डेयरी रोगजनक 'लिस्टेरिया मोनोसाइटोजेनेस' (Listeria monocytogenes) है।

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856📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesThermophilic Spores

Which of the following is a key characteristic of thermophilic bacteria that allows them to survive high temperatures during food processing?

Explanation

Thermophilic spore-forming bacteria (such as Geobacillus stearothermophilus and Thermoanaerobacterium saccharolyticum) produce highly dehydrated endospores enriched with calcium dipicolinate that withstand commercial thermal pasteurization temperatures.

थर्मोफिलिक जीवाणुओं की प्रमुख विशेषता यह है कि वे 'ऊष्मा का विरोध करने के लिए एंडोस्पोर बना सकते हैं' (They can form endospores to resist heat)।

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857📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesMilk Pasteurization Index Pathogens

Which of the following is the most significant microbiological hazard in raw milk that can survive pasteurization if improper procedures are used?

Explanation

Historically, Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis (and Coxiella burnetii) were the most heat-resistant non-spore-forming vegetative pathogens in raw milk, serving as the biological index organisms for establishing standard milk pasteurization time-temperature combinations (

63^\circ ext{C}

for 30 min or

72^\circ ext{C}

for 15 s).

कच्चे दूध में अनुचित पाश्चुरीकरण से बचने वाला सबसे महत्वपूर्ण ऐतिहासिक रोगजनक 'माइकोबैक्टीरियम बोविस' (Mycobacterium bovis) है।

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858📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne Illnesses12D Botulinum Thermal Cook

Which of the following microbial control methods is most effective in destroying spores from Clostridium botulinum during low-acid food canning?

Explanation

Commercial Sterility in industrial and home canning of low-acid foods mandates applying a '12D Botulinum Cook', heating under steam pressure at temperatures

\ge 121.1^\circ ext{C}

(

250^\circ ext{F}

) for the calculated thermal death time to achieve a 12-log reduction of C. botulinum spores.

डिब्बाबंद खाद्य पदार्थों में बोटुलिनम बीजाणुओं को नष्ट करने का सबसे प्रभावी तरीका '121°C से ऊपर तापमान पर विशिष्ट समय के लिए प्रेशर कुकिंग' (Pressure cooking above 121°C / 12D कुक) है।

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859📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesYogurt Starter Fermentation

Which of the following conditions would be most conducive to the growth of Streptococcus thermophilus during yogurt production?

Explanation

Streptococcus thermophilus is a thermophilic lactic acid starter bacterium that exhibits optimal growth and metabolic lactic acid fermentation at warm incubation temperatures between

40^\circ ext{C} ext{ to }45^\circ ext{C}

.

दही निर्माण में Streptococcus thermophilus की इष्टतम वृद्धि के लिए '40-45°C का उच्च तापमान' (High temperature 40-45°C) सबसे अनुकूल होता है।

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860📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesCheese Microbiology

Which of the following microorganisms is commonly used in the production of cheese?

Explanation

Lactic acid bacteria including Lactobacillus bulgaricus (and Lactococcus lactis, Streptococcus thermophilus) are standard starter cultures used to ferment lactose into lactic acid, coagulate milk caseins, and develop flavor during cheese manufacturing.

पनीर (Cheese) और किण्वित डेयरी उत्पादों के निर्माण में मुख्य रूप से 'लैक्टोबैसिलस बुल्गारिकस' (Lactobacillus bulgaricus) और लैक्टोकोकस का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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861📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryAntioxidant Mechanisms

What is the primary role of antioxidants in the human body?

Explanation

Antioxidants (e.g. Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Selenium, Polyphenols) scavenge and neutralize reactive oxygen species (free radicals), preventing oxidative lipid peroxidation, DNA mutations, and cellular membrane damage.

मानव शरीर में एंटीऑक्सिडेंट्स की प्राथमिक भूमिका 'फ्री रेडिकल्स को बेअसर करना और कोशिकाओं को नुकसान से बचाना' (Neutralize free radicals and protect cells) है।

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862📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryHydration in Gestation

What is the primary role of water during pregnancy?

Explanation

During pregnancy, maternal intravascular plasma volume expands by 40–50% and adequate hydration is essential to maintain placental perfusion, support Amniotic Fluid volume, and sustain fetal circulation.

गर्भावस्था के दौरान पानी की प्राथमिक भूमिका 'एमनियोटिक द्रव और भ्रूण के रक्त परिसंचरण का समर्थन करना' (Support amniotic fluid and fetal circulation) है।

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863📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingOsmotic Food Preservation

Which of the following food preservation methods relies on the osmotic pressure to prevent microbial growth?

Explanation

Salting (curing) and sugar pickling increase extracellular solute concentration to create a high Hypertonic Osmotic Pressure, drawing water out of microbial cells via plasmolysis and lowering water activity (

a_w

) to arrest microbial reproduction.

परासरण दबाव (Osmotic pressure) के माध्यम से रोगाणुओं से पानी खींचकर भोजन को सुरक्षित रखने की विधि 'नमक लगाना और अचार बनाना' (Salting and pickling) है।

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864📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsNPOP Organic Certification

Which of the following certifications is used for ensuring organic food quality in India?

Explanation

The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP, administered by APEDA/Ministry of Commerce) and PGS-India are the accredited certification systems recognized by FSSAI for authenticating Organic Food in India (Jaivik Bharat logo).

भारत में जैविक खाद्य गुणवत्ता सुनिश्चित करने के लिए 'राष्ट्रीय जैविक उत्पादन कार्यक्रम' (National Program for Organic Production / NPOP) प्रमाणन का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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865📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsAGMARK Certification

The 'Agmark' certification on food products in India is associated with:

Explanation

AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural commodities and blended food products in India, assuring conformity to grade standards established under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937 by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI).

एगमार्क (AGMARK) प्रमाणन भारत में 'कृषि और प्रसंस्कृत खाद्य उत्पादों के गुणवत्ता ग्रेडिंग मानकों' (Quality standards for agricultural products) से जुड़ा है।

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866📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsAGMARK Quality Grades

Which of the following is the highest grade of AGMARK for agricultural products?

Explanation

Under AGMARK grading rules for agricultural produce (e.g. ghee, butter, pulses, spices), Grade I (or 'Special Grade') designates the supreme commercial quality grade with lowest permissible impurities and moisture.

कृषि उत्पादों के लिए एगमार्क (AGMARK) का सर्वोच्च गुणवत्ता ग्रेड 'ग्रेड I' (Grade I / Special Grade) होता है।

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867📚Food Quality Assurance, Analysis & InstrumentationBOD in Food Processing Water

The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) test is used to determine

Explanation

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of dissolved oxygen required by aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic matter in water, serving as a critical environmental index for the organic purity of Water used in food processing and effluent discharge.

BOD (बायोकेमिकल ऑक्सीजन डिमांड) परीक्षण का उपयोग 'खाद्य उत्पादन में उपयोग किए जाने वाले पानी और अपशिष्ट जल की गुणवत्ता' (Quality of water used in food production) निर्धारित करने के लिए किया जाता है।

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868📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingThermal Blanching

Which of the following is the primary objective of blanching in food preservation?

Explanation

Blanching (mild pre-freezing thermal treatment using steam or hot water at

75 ext{--}95^\circ ext{C}

) is performed primarily to Inactivate endogenous deteriorative enzymes (Polyphenol oxidase, Catalase, Peroxidase, Lipoxygenase) that cause off-flavors, enzymatic browning, and nutrient loss during frozen storage.

खाद्य संरक्षण में ब्लांचिंग (Blanching) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'खराबी पैदा करने वाले एंजाइमों को निष्क्रिय करना' (To deactivate enzymes that cause spoilage) है।

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869📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingMeat Curing with Nitrites

The use of sodium nitrate as a preservative in processed meats mainly serves to

Explanation

Sodium Nitrite/Nitrate added to cured meats (bacon, ham, sausages) specifically inhibits the outgrowth and neurotoxin production of Clostridium botulinum spores while fixing the characteristic pink nitrosyl-myoglobin cured meat color.

प्रसंस्कृत मांस में सोडियम नाइट्रेट/नाइट्राइट का मुख्य कार्य 'Clostridium botulinum के बीजाणुओं को पनपने से रोकना' (Prevent Clostridium botulinum) और गुलाबी रंग बनाए रखना है।

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870📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingPasteurization vs Sterilization

What is the main difference between pasteurization and sterilization in food preservation techniques?

Explanation

Pasteurization applies mild heat treatment (typically

<100^\circ ext{C}

, e.g.

72^\circ ext{C}

for 15 s) to destroy all non-spore-forming vegetative pathogens, whereas Sterilization (autoclaving/retorting

>100 ext{--}121^\circ ext{C}

) destroys all viable microorganisms including bacterial endospores.

पाश्चुरीकरण में कम तापमान (

<100^\circ ext{C}

) पर केवल रोगजनक बैक्टीरिया मारे जाते हैं, जबकि नसबंदी (Sterilization) में उच्च तापमान (

121^\circ ext{C}

) पर सभी बीजाणु नष्ट किए जाते हैं।

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871📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingMicrowave Dielectric Heating

What is the fundamental principle of using microwave heating in food processing for rapid cooking and sterilization?

Explanation

Microwaves (2.45 GHz electromagnetic radiation) penetrate food and induce high-frequency Dielectric Dipolar Rotation of polar water and ion molecules (

2.45 \times 10^9

times per second), generating rapid, uniform volumetric frictional heat throughout the food matrix.

माइक्रोवेव हीटिंग का मूल सिद्धांत 'भोजन के भीतर पानी के द्विध्रुवीय अणुओं को कंपन कराकर घर्षण ऊष्मा उत्पन्न करना' (Vibrating water molecules within food) है।

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872📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingCryogenic Freezing

What is the main principle behind the use of cryogenic freezing in food processing?

Explanation

Cryogenic Freezing exposes food directly to cryogenic refrigerants (Liquid Nitrogen at

-196^\circ\text{C}

or Liquid

CO_2

at

-78^\circ\text{C}

), achieving ultra-rapid freezing that forms microscopic intracellular ice crystals without rupturing cell walls, perfectly preserving texture, drip loss, and nutrients.

क्रायोजेनिक फ्रीजिंग का मुख्य सिद्धांत 'तरल नाइट्रोजन द्वारा अत्यंत कम तापमान (

-196^\circ ext{C}

) पर तेजी से जमाकर बनावट और पोषक तत्वों को सुरक्षित रखना' (Freezing with liquid nitrogen to preserve texture) है।

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873📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryEnzymatic Browning Mechanisms

What is the principle behind enzymatic browning in fruits, and how is it controlled during food processing?

Explanation

Enzymatic Browning occurs when cut fruit tissue exposes phenolic substrates to Polyphenol Oxidase (PPO) in the presence of oxygen, forming brown quinone pigments. It is inhibited by low pH (Acidification with citric acid), Ascorbic acid (antioxidant reducing agent), blanching, or oxygen exclusion.

फलों में एंजाइमी भूरापन 'पॉलीफेनोल ऑक्सीडेज द्वारा फेनोलिक यौगिकों के ऑक्सीकरण' से होता है, जिसे 'अम्लीकरण या एस्कॉर्बिक एसिड' द्वारा नियंत्रित किया जाता है।

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874📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyThermal and Non-Thermal Preservation Matching

Match the following:
1. Boiling
2. Cold Sterilization
3. Sterilization
4. Pasteurization

Description:
i. Kills pathogenic microorganisms
ii.

100^\circ\text{C}

iii. Dosage measured in Gray or rad
iv. Microorganism free product

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

1 -> ii (Boiling: thermal treatment at

100^\circ ext{C}

), 2 -> iii (Cold Sterilization / Irradiation: ionizing radiation dose measured in Gray/rad), 3 -> iv (Commercial Sterilization: renders product completely free of viable organisms and spores), 4 -> i (Pasteurization: specifically destroys vegetative pathogenic microorganisms). Correct match: (1)-(ii), (2)-(iii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i).

1-ii (उबालना - 100°C), 2-iii (कोल्ड नसबंदी - विकिरण खुराक ग्रे/रैड), 3-iv (नसबंदी - रोगाणु मुक्त), 4-i (पाश्चुरीकरण - रोगजनकों का नाश)। सही विकल्प B है।

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875📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyCommercial Pasteurization Commodities

Pasteurization of food is done in which products:
I. Juices
II. Milk
III. Fats
IV. Grains
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Commercial pasteurization is a liquid food processing operation routinely applied to fruit Juices (I) and dairy Milk (II) to destroy vegetative pathogens and inactivate enzymes without altering nutritional quality.

पाश्चुरीकरण मुख्य रूप से तरल खाद्य पदार्थों जैसे 'फलों के रस (Juices - I)' और 'दूध (Milk - II)' में किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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876📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesFreezing Protein Chemistry (Salting Out)

During freezing proteins may denature due to concentration of product this effect is called as:

Explanation

During slow freezing, pure ice crystals freeze out first, dramatically concentrating mineral solutes in the remaining unfrozen liquid phase; this hyper-ionic concentration causes protein aggregation and denaturation known as 'Salting Out'.

फ्रीजिंग के दौरान विलेय सांद्रता बढ़ने से प्रोटीनों के विकृतीकरण और अवक्षेपण के प्रभाव को 'साल्टिंग आउट' (Salting out) कहा जाता है।

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877📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyFood Preservation Fundamentals

Consider the following statements:
I. Freezing include conversion of food from solid to liquid
II. Pasteurization is done for solid food
III. Refrigeration is called cold sterilization
IV. Pasteurization can kill spores in food products
Please select the incorrect statement from the above:

Explanation

All four statements are scientifically incorrect: I is false (freezing converts liquid water into solid ice), II is false (pasteurization applies to liquid foods), III is false (irradiation, not refrigeration, is cold sterilization), IV is false (pasteurization destroys only vegetative cells, not bacterial spores). Correct: I, II, III, and IV.

चारों कथन गलत हैं: फ्रीजिंग तरल को ठोस बनाती है, पाश्चुरीकरण बीजाणुओं को नहीं मारता और विकिरण को कोल्ड नसबंदी कहते हैं। सही विकल्प D है।

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878📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyThermal Processing Misconceptions

Consider the following statements:
I. Pasteurization is considered a cold sterilization method
II. All radiations are ionizing
III. Blanching is used for liquid food products
IV. UHT pasteurization is used for solid foods
From among the statements given choose the correct one:

Explanation

All statements are false: I is false (thermal process), II is false (UV and infrared are non-ionizing), III is false (blanching is for solid fruits/vegetables), IV is false (UHT is used for continuous-flow liquid milk/juices). Correct: None of the above.

दिए गए सभी कथन असत्य हैं (ब्लांचिंग ठोस सब्जियों के लिए है, UHT तरल पदार्थों के लिए है, UV गैर-आयनकारी है)। सही विकल्प D है।

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879📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyPasteurization Temperature Hierarchy

Arrange the following processing in the descending order of temperature applied:
I. UHT Pasteurization
II. HTST Pasteurization
III. LTLT Pasteurization
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Processing temperature hierarchy: UHT (Ultra-High Temperature:

135 ext{--}150^\circ ext{C}

for 2–5 s)

>

HTST (High Temperature Short Time:

71.7 ext{--}72^\circ ext{C}

for 15 s)

>

LTLT (Low Temperature Long Time / Batch:

62.8 ext{--}63^\circ ext{C}

for 30 min). Correct descending order: I, II, III.

तापमान का सही अवरोही क्रम: UHT (135-150°C)

->

HTST (72°C)

->

LTLT (63°C) (I, II, III)। सही विकल्प A है।

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880📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyPackaging Requirements

Consider the following statements:
I. The packaging material should not be non-toxic
II. Can is the primary packaging
III. The packaging should protect food from contamination
IV. Temper-resistance or temper evident features are not important for packaging of milk
After reading the above statements please select the correct statement:

Explanation

Statements II and III are correct: Cans act as primary food contact packaging (II) and packaging must barrier protect food from external contamination (III). Statement I is grammatically false (materials must be non-toxic), and Statement IV is false (tamper-evident seals are vital for milk security). Correct: II and III.

कथन II और III सही हैं (कैन प्राथमिक पैकेजिंग है और पैकेजिंग संदूषण से बचाती है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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881📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyTinplate Steel Can Types

The Type L base steel is used for which type of food product?

Explanation

In sanitary tinplate can manufacturing, Type L base steel has the lowest residual metalloid impurities (copper, nickel, phosphorus), providing maximum corrosion resistance for High-Acid Foods (such as berries, prunes, pickles, and cherries).

टाइप एल (Type L) बेस स्टील का उपयोग अत्यधिक संक्षारण प्रतिरोधी होने के कारण 'अत्यधिक अम्लीय खाद्य पदार्थों' (High Acid Food) के डिब्बे बनाने में किया जाता है।

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882📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesMonomeric Units of Proteins

Basic unit of proteins is:

Explanation

Amino acids (specifically 20 standard

\alpha

-amino acids linked together by covalent peptide bonds) are the fundamental monomeric building blocks of all proteins.

प्रोटीन की मूलभूत संरचनात्मक इकाई 'अमीनो एसिड' (Amino Acids) होते हैं।

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883📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesSugar Caramelization Products

The pigment caramelan formed after caramelization is soluble in ______ and tastes ______

Explanation

Caramelan (

C_{12}H_{18}O_9

, formed by dehydration during heating sucrose

>160^\circ ext{C}

) is a brown pigment that is readily soluble in Water and exhibits a characteristic Bitter-sweet / Bitter caramel taste.

कैरेमेलाइजेशन के दौरान बनने वाला वर्णक 'कैरेमेलन' (Caramelan) 'जल में घुलनशील' (Water soluble) होता है और इसका स्वाद 'कड़वा' (Bitter) होता है।

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884📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesLipid Chemical Classification

Lipids can be classified on the basis of the following -
I. Classification based on nutritional properties
II. Classification based on Degree of unsaturation
III. Classification based on Degree of emulsification
IV. Classification based on Degree of saturation
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Chemical classification of dietary fatty acids and lipids is fundamentally structured on the Degree of Unsaturation / Saturation (Saturated, Monounsaturated MUFA, Polyunsaturated PUFA). Choice A (II and IV).

लिपिड और फैटी एसिड का रासायनिक वर्गीकरण मुख्य रूप से 'संतृप्ति और असंतृप्ति की डिग्री' (Degree of saturation/unsaturation: II और IV) के आधार पर किया जाता है।

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885📚Human Nutrition, Micronutrients & Dietary DeficienciesObligatory Water Physiology

What is the amount of obligatory water loss each day in ml?

Explanation

Obligatory Water Loss is the minimum volume of water that must be excreted daily to eliminate metabolic waste solutes, comprising minimum obligatory urinary output (

pprox 500 ext{ ml/day}

) required to excrete 600 mOsm of urinary solutes.

शरीर से अपशिष्ट उत्सर्जित करने के लिए आवश्यक दैनिक अनिवार्य न्यूनतम जल हानि (Obligatory water loss) '500 ml' होती है।

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886📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsFSSA 2006 Preamble & Objective

What is the primary objective of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?

Explanation

The preamble of FSSA 2006 states that its primary objective is to consolidate the laws relating to food and establish the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India for laying down science-based standards for food safety and regulating manufacturing, storage, and sale.

FSSA 2006 का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'भारत में खाद्य सुरक्षा और विज्ञान-आधारित मानकों के लिए एक एकीकृत कानूनी ढांचा स्थापित करना' है।

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887📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsWTO SPS Agreement Scope

What is the main focus of the WTO SPS Agreement?

Explanation

The WTO Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement) sets rules ensuring that national health and food safety regulations are applied only to the extent necessary to Protect Human, Animal, or Plant Life and Health from foodborne risks and biosecurity threats.

WTO के SPS समझौते का मुख्य फोकस 'मानव, पशु और पौधों के जीवन और स्वास्थ्य की रक्षा करना' (Protecting human, animal, and plant life or health) है।

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888📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsFSSA 2006 Unsafe Food Definition

The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 defines Unsafe Food as:

Explanation

Under Section 3(1)(zz) of FSSA 2006, 'Unsafe Food' means an article of food whose nature, substance or quality is so affected by a poisonous or unwholesome ingredient, processing, or contamination as to render it injurious to health.

FSSA 2006 की धारा 3(1)(zz) के अनुसार 'असुरक्षित भोजन' (Unsafe Food) वह खाद्य पदार्थ है जिसकी प्रकृति, पदार्थ या गुणवत्ता स्वास्थ्य के लिए हानिकारक (Injurious to health) हो।

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889📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsLegal Metrology Act 2009

What is the primary objective of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 in India?

Explanation

The Legal Metrology Act, 2009 establishes and enforces standards of weights and measures, regulates trade and commerce in pre-packaged commodities, and ensures precision and accuracy of measuring instruments.

विधिक मापविज्ञान अधिनियम, 2009 (Legal Metrology Act) का मुख्य उद्देश्य 'व्यावसायिक लेन-देन में उपयोग किए जाने वाले बाटों, मापों और उपकरणों की सटीकता सुनिश्चित करना' है।

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890📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsMandatory Labeling Declarations

Which of the following are key provisions under the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011?
I. All packaged foods must carry a nutrition facts label.
II. The label must indicate the manufacturing date and best before date.
III. The food product must carry the ingredient list in any language.
IV. The label should include the price per kilogram of the product.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Provisions I and II are statutory mandates: Mandatory nutritional facts panel (I) and date of manufacture alongside 'Best Before / Expiry date' (II). Provision III is false (mandatory English or Hindi in Devanagari script), and Provision IV is false (unit pricing per kg is governed by Legal Metrology, not standard FSSAI label). Correct: I and II.

FSSAI लेबलिंग नियमों के तहत 'पोषण संबंधी तथ्य लेबल' (I) और 'निर्माण/उपयोग तिथि' (II) अनिवार्य प्रावधान हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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891📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsBread Yeast Fermentation

In bread manufacturing, alcoholic fermentation is carried out by:

Explanation

Baker's yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) carries out anaerobic alcoholic fermentation of dough sugars, producing carbon dioxide (

CO_2

) for dough leavening and ethanol/flavor congeners.

ब्रेड निर्माण में ऐल्कोहॉलीय किण्वन और आटा फुलाने का कार्य बेकर्स यीस्ट 'Saccharomyces cerevisiae' द्वारा किया जाता है।

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892📚Food Analysis, Analytical Chemistry & InstrumentationBeer-Lambert Law

Which law is fundamental to UV-Visible spectrophotometry?

Explanation

Beer-Lambert's Law (

A = \varepsilon \cdot b \cdot c

) is the foundational law of quantitative UV-Visible absorption spectrophotometry, stating that absorbance (

A

) is directly proportional to path length (

b

) and analyte molar concentration (

c

).

यूवी-विजिबल स्पेक्ट्रोफोटोमेट्री का मूलभूत नियम 'बीयर-लैम्बर्ट का नियम' (Beer's Law /

A = arepsilon b c

) है।

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893📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEcosystem Functional Unit

The functional unit in ecology is

Explanation

An Ecosystem (term coined by A.G. Tansley in 1935) is the fundamental structural and functional unit of ecology where living communities interact with abiotic components through energy flows and nutrient cycles.

पारिस्थितिकी की मूलभूत कार्यात्मक इकाई 'पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र' (Ecosystem / पारितंत्र) है।

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894📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEnvironmental Resistance in S-Curve

In the logistic growth curve for population growth, the effect of environmental resistance is observed in:

Explanation

In the logistic S-curve, Environmental Resistance begins to decelerate the initial exponential growth rate during the Deceleration Phase as the population density approaches the carrying capacity (

K

).

लॉजिस्टिक वृद्धि वक्र में पर्यावरणीय प्रतिरोध का प्रभाव 'मंदन चरण' (Deceleration phase) में देखा जाता है जब वृद्धि धीमी होने लगती है।

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895📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringTurbidity Principles

Consider the following pairs:
1. Turbidity: Measure of the extent to which light is absorbed or scattered by suspended matter
2. Turbidity: Measure of the extent to which light is absorbed or scattered by dissolved matter
3. Turbidity: Turbidity is not a direct quantitative measure of suspended solids
4. Turbidity: Soaps and detergents do not produce stable colloids that cause turbidity
Which of the above pairs match correctly?

Explanation

Pairs 1 and 3 are correct: Turbidity is an optical property measuring light scattered/absorbed by suspended particulate matter in Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU - 1), and because scattering depends on particle shape and refractive index, turbidity is not a direct quantitative mass concentration of total suspended solids (3). Correct: 1 and 3.

कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं (गंदलापन निलंबित कणों द्वारा प्रकाश के प्रकीर्णन का माप है और यह निलंबित ठोस पदार्थों का प्रत्यक्ष भार माप नहीं है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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896📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringOxygen Demand Parameters Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set-A:
1. BOD
2. COD
3. TOC
4. Ultimate BOD

Set-B:
i. Measure of natural organic matter
ii. BOD equal to the initial oxygen equivalent of the water
iii. Organic matter chemically oxidized
iv. Amount of oxygen consumed during microbial utilization of organics
v. Conversion of substrates to cells

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Explanation

1 -> iv (BOD: dissolved oxygen consumed by aerobic microorganisms metabolizing organic matter), 2 -> iii (COD: oxygen required to chemically oxidize organic compounds using dichromate), 3 -> i (TOC: direct instrumental combustion measure of total organic carbon), 4 -> ii (Ultimate BOD

L_0

: total stoichiometric oxygen required for complete bio-oxidation). Correct match: (1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii).

1-iv (BOD - रोगाणुओं द्वारा ऑक्सीजन खपत), 2-iii (COD - रासायनिक रूप से ऑक्सीकृत कार्बनिक पदार्थ), 3-i (TOC - कुल कार्बनिक कार्बन), 4-ii (अंतिम BOD - कुल प्रारंभिक ऑक्सीजन मांग)। सही विकल्प B है।

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897📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeGreenhouse Gas Classification

Which of the following is not greenhouse gas?

Explanation

Diatomic Nitrogen (

N_2

, comprising 78% of dry air) is a symmetric homonuclear diatomic gas with no net dipole moment change during infrared vibration, making it transparent to thermal IR and NOT a greenhouse gas (

CO_2, CH_4, N_2O

are potent GHGs).

द्विपरमाण्विक नाइट्रोजन (

N_2

) ग्रीनहाउस गैस नहीं है (

CO_2, CH_4, N_2O

ग्रीनहाउस गैसें हैं)। सही विकल्प C है।

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898📚Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)EIA Foundational Aims

Consider the following statements:
i. The aim of EIA is to inform the decision maker of the potential significant environment effects and risks of developmental proposals.
ii. The aim of EIA is to model the dispersion of pollutant coming out of sources present in the developmental projects.
iii. The aim of EIA is to promote sustainable development by ensuring that the development proposals do not undermine critical resources.
iv. The aim of EIA primarily involves the screening and scoping of developmental projects.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iii are foundational objectives of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA): To systematically inform statutory decision-makers of environmental risks and impacts (i), and to promote sustainable development through mitigation of environmental degradation (iii). Correct: (i), (iii).

पर्यावरण प्रभाव आकलन (EIA) के मुख्य उद्देश्य नीति निर्माताओं को संभावित पर्यावरणीय प्रभावों से अवगत कराना (i) और सतत विकास को बढ़ावा देना (iii) हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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899📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeNAAQS Air Pollution Parameters

Choose the statements which are correct:
i. Ammonia is a secondary pollutant
ii. For ozone, 8-hour average shall be taken during daytime for analysis
iii. CO2 is a primary pollutant in air pollution studies
iv. PM2.5 value is always less than PM10
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Statements ii and iv are correct: Ground-level Ozone is photochemical and monitored as an 8-hour average during peak daytime sunlight (ii), and

ext{PM}_{2.5}

(fine fraction

\le 2.5\ \mu ext{m}

) is mathematically a sub-fraction of

ext{PM}_{10}

(

\le 10\ \mu ext{m}

), hence

ext{PM}_{2.5} \le ext{PM}_{10}

(iv). (Ammonia is a primary pollutant). Correct: ii, iv.

कथन ii और iv सही हैं (ओजोन का 8-घंटे का औसत दिन में लिया जाता है और

ext{PM}_{2.5}

हमेशा

ext{PM}_{10}

से कम या बराबर होता है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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900📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringBragg's Law (X-Ray Diffraction)

Bragg's law is associated with:

Explanation

Bragg's Law (

n\lambda = 2d\sin\theta

) is the fundamental physical law governing X-ray Diffraction (XRD), relating the wavelength of incident X-rays to the interplanar crystal lattice spacing (

d

) and diffraction angle (

\theta

).

ब्रैग का नियम (

n\lambda = 2d\sin\theta

) 'एक्स-रे विवर्तन' (X ray Diffraction / XRD) से संबंधित है।

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901📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringWastewater Headworks (Screens)

Which of the component can be used to protect pumps used in the lifting of sewage:

Explanation

Coarse Bar Screens and Fine Screens installed at the headworks of sewage treatment plants trap large floating debris (rags, sticks, plastics, cans) to prevent clogging and mechanical damage to sewage lifting pumps.

सीवेज लिफ्टिंग पंपों को तैरते मलबे और पत्थरों से बचाने के लिए सबसे पहले 'स्क्रीन' (Screens / जाली) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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902📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringCOD Potassium Dichromate Digest

The oxidizing agent used in the COD experiment is:

Explanation

In the standard closed/open reflux Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) analytical assay, Potassium Dichromate (

K_2Cr_2O_7

) in boiling concentrated sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

) with silver sulfate (

Ag_2SO_4

) catalyst acts as the strong chemical oxidizing agent.

COD (रासायनिक ऑक्सीजन मांग) परीक्षण में कार्बनिक पदार्थों को ऑक्सीकृत करने के लिए मजबूत ऑक्सीकारक 'पोटेशियम डाइक्रोमेट' (

K_2Cr_2O_7

) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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903📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeSilence Zone Noise Standards (50/40 dB)

As per the guidelines in India, the silence zone must not exceed the sound of:

Explanation

Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000 in India, ambient air quality noise standards for Silence Zones (areas within 100 meters around hospitals, educational institutions, and courts) are strictly:

50\text{ dB(A)}

during Day time (6 AM to 10 PM) and

40\text{ dB(A)}

during Night time (10 PM to 6 AM). Choice D.

भारत के ध्वनि प्रदूषण नियमों के तहत 'साइलेंस जोन' (Silence zone) में अनुमेय ध्वनि सीमा 'दिन में 50 dB(A) और रात में 40 dB(A)' (50db day, 40db night) होती है।

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904📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsOrganic Chemistry (Carbon)

The key element present in organic chemicals is:

Explanation

Carbon (

C

, atomic number 6) is the fundamental tetravalent element whose ability to form stable catenated covalent chains and rings constitutes the structural basis of all Organic Chemistry and biological biomolecules.

सभी कार्बनिक रसायनों (Organic chemicals) में मौजूद अनिवार्य और प्रमुख तत्व 'कार्बन' (Carbon) है।

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905📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyProhibited Drug Imports

Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

Explanation

Under Section 10 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, the import of any Misbranded, Spurious, Adulterated, or sub-standard drug, or any drug whose manufacture is prohibited in the country of origin, is strictly prohibited.

औषधि अधिनियम की धारा 10 के तहत 'मिस्ब्रांडेड दवाओं' (Misbranded drugs) का आयात पूरी तरह प्रतिबंधित है।

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906📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyLegal Terminology (Clandestine)

Which agreement is also known as Clandestine arrangement?

Explanation

In trade, forensic jurisprudence, and competition law, a Clandestine Arrangement is an illicit, collusive Secret Agreement made between parties to circumvent legal regulations or price controls.

गुप्त या गुप्त रूप से किए गए समझौते को 'सीक्रेट एग्रीमेंट' (Secret agreement / गुप्त समझौता) कहा जाता है।

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907📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsTablet Defects Matching

Consider the following pairs:
i. Capping
ii. Mottling
iii. Picking
iv. Orange Peel Effect

1. Uneven distribution of colour or pigmentation on the tablet surface
2. Tablet material is left behind on punch faces resulting in tablet surface damage
3. Partial or complete separation of tablet's crown
4. Tablet having rough surface with matt appearance rather than glossy texture

Identify the correct pair:

Explanation

Tablet manufacturing defects: i -> 3 (Capping: partial or complete separation of top/bottom crowns), ii -> 1 (Mottling: unequal distribution of color on surface), iii -> 2 (Picking: granule adherence pulling surface film away into punch face), iv -> 4 (Orange peel effect: textured roughness due to improper spray atomization). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4.

टेबलेट दोष: कैपिंग (मुकुट अलग होना - 3), मोटलिंग (रंग का असमान वितरण - 1), पिकिंग (पंच पर चिपकना - 2), ऑरेंज पील प्रभाव (खुरदरी सतह - 4)। सही विकल्प A है।

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908📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsPharmaceutical Packaging Materials

In which of the following scenarios is non-absorbent cotton most likely used in pharmaceutical packaging?

Explanation

Non-absorbent (raw/carded) cotton is used as an inert top-filler plugging wadding in bottles of solid dosage forms (tablets and capsules) to prevent mechanical shock and movement during shipping without absorbing tablet moisture.

फार्मास्युटिकल पैकेजिंग में नॉन-एब्जॉर्बेंट कॉटन का उपयोग 'गोलियों को टूटने से बचाने और पैक करने' (To pack tablets in sterile conditions) के लिए किया जाता है।

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909📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsKarl Fischer Stoichiometric Equation

Which of the following is the correct chemical equation for the reaction between iodine and sulphur dioxide in Karl Fischer titration?

Explanation

The fundamental stoichiometric oxidation-reduction reaction in Karl Fischer water determination is:

I_2 + SO_2 + H_2O -> 2HI + SO_3

(which in the presence of base and alcohol forms alkylsulfite and hydroiodic salts). Choice C.

कार्ल फिशर अनुमापन में आयोडीन और सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड की रासायनिक अभिक्रिया:

I_2 + SO_2 + H_2O -> 2HI + SO_3

(विकल्प C) होती है।

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910📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsBioburden Definition

What is the correct statement for the term 'Bioburden'?

Explanation

Bioburden is defined in sterile pharmaceutical manufacturing as the total population and number of viable microorganisms present on or in a product, raw material, or sterile package prior to sterilization.

बायोबर्टन (Bioburden) का अर्थ 'नसबंदी से पहले किसी सतह या उत्पाद पर मौजूद जीवित सूक्ष्मजीवों की कुल संख्या' (Number of microorganisms present on surface) है।

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911📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsHeat-Resistant Bacterial Spores

Name the spore containing the pathogen which shows resistance to heat and is usually not destroyed by using heat at 100 degrees celsius:

Explanation

Clostridium perfringens (and C. botulinum) produces bacterial endospores with thick protective cortex layers that survive boiling water at

100^\circ ext{C}

, requiring pressurized steam sterilization (

121^\circ ext{C}

) for destruction.

100°C पर उबालने से नष्ट न होने वाले अत्यधिक ऊष्मा-प्रतिरोधी बीजाणु युक्त रोगजनक 'Clostridium perfringens' है।

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912📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsAlcohol Regulatory Purpose

In the Indian Pharmacopoeia, what is the primary purpose of the alcohol determination in liquid formulations?

Explanation

The primary regulatory purpose of alcohol determination under IP and Excise rules is ensuring that the product contains the declared alcohol concentration stated on the label (within pharmacopoeial

\pm 5\%

limits) for therapeutic safety and statutory labeling compliance.

तरल योगों में अल्कोहल निर्धारण का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'अल्कोहल सांद्रता का उचित लेबलिंग अनुपालन सुनिश्चित करना' (To ensure proper labeling of alcohol concentration) है।

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913📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsLimit Test for Arsenic

As per the Indian Pharmacopoeia, which of the following is the appropriate reagent for the limit test for arsenic?

Explanation

In the Gutzeit Limit Test for Arsenic (IP), arsine gas (

AsH_3

) generated from arsenic impurities reacts with a test paper impregnated with Mercuric Chloride (

HgCl_2

), producing a characteristic yellow-to-brown stain of mercuric arsenide.

IP के अनुसार आर्सेनिक के सीमा परीक्षण (Gutzeit test) के लिए उपयुक्त अभिकर्मक 'मर्क्यूरिक क्लोराइड' (Mercuric chloride पेपर) है।

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914📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyBarbituric Acid SAR

If both the hydrogens at 5th position of barbituric acid are not replaced, then it leads to:

Explanation

Unsubstituted barbituric acid (having hydrogens at C-5) undergoes extensive Keto-Enol and Lactim-Lactam Tautomerization, producing an acidic, fully ionized compound that cannot cross the blood-brain barrier and possesses zero central nervous system depressant/hypnotic activity.

बार्बिट्यूरिक एसिड के 5वें स्थान पर दोनों हाइड्रोजनों को न बदलने पर 'टोटोमराइज़ेशन' (Tautomerization) होता है और यह शामक गतिविधि नहीं दर्शाता।

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915📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyReserpine Chemical Identification

Reserpine, when treated with solution of vanillin in acetic acid shows colour:

Explanation

When Reserpine (Rauwolfia serpentina alkaloid) is treated with a solution of vanillin in glacial acetic acid and sulfuric acid, it produces a characteristic intense Red / Violet-Red color reaction.

जब रिसर्पिन को एसिटिक एसिड में वैनिलिन के घोल के साथ उपचारित किया जाता है, तो यह 'लाल' (Red) रंग दिखाता है।

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916📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyStrychnine Chemical Test

When the transverse section of nux vomica is treated with ammonium vanadate and sulphuric acid, the endospermic cells show purple colour, due to presence of:

Explanation

In Mandelin's chemical test for Nux-vomica seeds, treatment of the endosperm with ammonium vanadate and sulfuric acid yields an intense Violet/Purple color due to the indole alkaloid Strychnine (Brucine gives a blood-red color with concentrated nitric acid).

नक्स वोमिका के टीएस पर अमोनियम वैनाडेट और सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड डालने पर बैंगनी रंग 'स्ट्राइकिनिन' (Strychnine) की उपस्थिति के कारण आता है।

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917📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Railways (Firozpur Division)

Which railway division has jurisdiction over the Jammu-Baramulla railway line?

Explanation

The Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) and the entire operational railway network across Jammu & Kashmir falls under the administrative jurisdiction of the Firozpur Railway Division of Northern Railway.

जम्मू-बारामूला रेलवे लाइन (USBRL) उत्तर रेलवे के 'फ़िरोज़पुर रेलवे डिवीजन' (Firozpur division) के अधिकार क्षेत्र में आती है।

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918📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Infrastructure (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel)

Which of the following statements about Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel in Jammu & Kashmir is/are correct?
1. It is India's longest road tunnel with a length of 9.28 km.
2. The tunnel is located on the lower Himalayan range at an altitude of 1,200 m (3,937 ft).
3. The tunnel connects Udhampur and Ramban in Jammu & Kashmir.
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 is 9.28 km long (1) and situated at ~1,200 m altitude in the lower Himalayas (2). Statement 3 is incorrect because it connects Chenani in Udhampur district with Nashri in Ramban district.

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं (यह 9.28 किमी लंबी सड़क सुरंग है और निचली हिमालय पर्वतमाला में 1200 मीटर की ऊंचाई पर स्थित है)। सही विकल्प A है।

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919📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTChenab Rail Bridge

Chenab Rail Bridge in Jammu & Kashmir is built between which railway stations?

Explanation

The world's highest Chenab Rail Bridge (359 m above the river bed) spans the Chenab River gorge between Bakkal and Kauri, forming a critical section on the Katra-Reasi-Sangaldan rail route.

चिनाब रेल पुल जम्मू-कश्मीर के रियासी जिले में बक्कल और कौरी के बीच स्थित है (संगलदान और रियासी रेल खंड)। सही विकल्प A है।

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920📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTTribes of India

Which of the following is NOT the major tribe of Rajasthan?

Explanation

The Gond Tribe is the largest tribal community of Central India (concentrated in Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and Odisha), whereas Bhil, Mina, Garasia, Damor, and Sahariya are prominent indigenous tribes of Rajasthan.

'गोंड जनजाति' (Gond Tribe) मध्य भारत (मध्य प्रदेश/छत्तीसगढ़) की प्रमुख जनजाति है, यह राजस्थान की मुख्य जनजाति नहीं है।

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921📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Art & Architecture (Brihadeshwara)

Which of the following statements about Brihadeshwara temple is/are correct?
I. The temple is located in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, on the south side of the Vaigai river.
II. Large statue of Nandi (the holy bull) carved from a single rock, measuring approximately 16 feet long and 13 feet high is placed at the temple's entrance.
III. The temple is dedicated to worship of goddess Kali.
Choose the Correct Statement:

Explanation

Statement II is correct: The monolithic Nandi statue at the entrance is carved from a single granite rock. (Statement I is false because it is on the south bank of the Kaveri River, not Vaigai; Statement III is false because it is dedicated to Lord Shiva). Correct: Only II.

कथन II सही है (नंदी की विशाल मूर्ति एक ही पत्थर से तराशी गई है)। यह मंदिर कावेरी नदी के तट पर स्थित है और भगवान शिव को समर्पित है। सही विकल्प A है।

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922📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFreedom Struggle (Quit India Movement)

Which of the following leaders was NOT associated with the Quit India Movement?

Explanation

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar opposed the Quit India Movement (1942), believing that civil disobedience during World War II would hamper national defense and the welfare of the depressed classes, whereas Aruna Asaf Ali, Lohia, and JP led underground resistance.

डॉ. बी.आर. अम्बेडकर भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन (1942) से जुड़े नहीं थे (अरुणा आसफ अली, लोहिया और जयप्रकाश नारायण इसके प्रमुख भूमिगत नेता थे)।

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923📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTParts of Indian Constitution

Match the following Pairs:
Part of the Indian Constitution:
i) Part IV
ii) Part IV A
iii) Part XVII
iv) Part XVIII

Subject mentioned in the part:
1) Fundamental Duties
2) Emergency Provisions
3) Directive Principles
4) Official Languages

Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

Constitutional Parts: i -> 3 (Part IV: Directive Principles of State Policy, Articles 36–51), ii -> 1 (Part IVA: Fundamental Duties, Article 51A), iii -> 4 (Part XVII: Official Languages, Articles 343–351), iv -> 2 (Part XVIII: Emergency Provisions, Articles 352–360). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.

i-3 (भाग IV - नीति निदेशक तत्व), ii-1 (भाग IVA - मौलिक कर्तव्य), iii-4 (भाग XVII - राजभाषा), iv-2 (भाग XVIII - आपातकालीन प्रावधान)। सही विकल्प A है।

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924📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTEconomy of J&K

Which sector is the primary contributor to Jammu and Kashmir's economy?

Explanation

The Services Sector (tertiary sector, including tourism, trade, transport, banking, and public administration) is the largest contributor to J&K's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP), accounting for over 54–56% of the economy.

जम्मू और कश्मीर की अर्थव्यवस्था में सबसे बड़ा योगदानकर्ता 'सेवा क्षेत्र' (Services sector / लगभग 54-56%) है।

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925📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFundamental Rights Articles

Consider the following matches about the fundamental rights of India:
I. Right to Equality - Article 14-18
II. Right to Freedom of Religion - Article 25-28
III. Cultural and Educational Rights - Articles 23 -24
IV. Right to Constitutional Remedies - Articles 29 - 30
Which among the above is /are correct matches?

Explanation

Matches I and II are correct: Right to Equality is Articles 14–18, Right to Freedom of Religion is Articles 25–28. (Match III is wrong because Arts 23–24 are Right against Exploitation; Match IV is wrong because Art 32 is Right to Constitutional Remedies). Correct: Only I & II.

कथन I और II सही हैं (समानता का अधिकार अनु. 14-18, धार्मिक स्वतंत्रता अनु. 25-28)। सांस्कृतिक और शैक्षिक अधिकार अनु. 29-30 हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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926📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFundamental Duties Article 51A

Consider the following statements:
I. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
II. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all people of India.
III. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
IV. To ensure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Which of the above are Fundamental Duties under Article 51 A?

Explanation

Statements I, II, and III are Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51A [clauses (i), (e), and (h)]. Statement IV ('equal pay for equal work') is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 39(d), not a Fundamental Duty. Correct: Only I, II and III.

कथन I, II और III अनुच्छेद 51A के तहत मौलिक कर्तव्य हैं। समान कार्य के लिए समान वेतन (IV) अनुच्छेद 39(d) के तहत नीति निदेशक तत्व है। सही विकल्प D है।

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927📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITRAM vs ROM

Which of the following statement is correct about RAM and ROM?

Explanation

Statement B is the fundamental distinction: RAM is Volatile primary memory (loses contents on power loss), whereas ROM is Non-Volatile permanent memory (retains contents permanently without power).

कथन B सही है: 'RAM एक वाष्पशील (Volatile) मेमोरी है, जबकि ROM एक गैर-वाष्पशील (Non-volatile) मेमोरी है।' सही विकल्प B है।

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928📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITHardware Fundamentals

Which of the following best represents computer hardware?

Explanation

Computer Hardware comprises the physical tangible components of the computer system including the central processing unit, motherboard, memory, and all connected peripheral input and output devices.

कंप्यूटर हार्डवेयर में कंप्यूटर और उससे जुड़े सभी भौतिक इनपुट, आउटपुट, मेमोरी और प्रोसेसिंग उपकरण शामिल होते हैं (विकल्प D)।

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929📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITSoftware Classification (Proprietary)

Which of the following is an advantage of 'proprietary' software?

Explanation

Proprietary (commercial closed-source) software is professionally maintained by the vendor company, offering dedicated technical customer support, tested security patches, and regular automated software updates.

प्रॉप्राइटरी (Proprietary) सॉफ्टवेयर का मुख्य लाभ पेशेवरों द्वारा नियमित अपडेट और आधिकारिक तकनीकी सहायता (Regular updates provided by professionals) मिलना है।

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930📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITWord Processing Page Formatting

What is gutter margin?

Explanation

In word processing (MS Word) and page layout printing, the Gutter Margin is extra spacing added to the inside binding edge (or top edge for notepads) to prevent text from being hidden or obscured during bookbinding.

गटर मार्जिन (Gutter margin) छपाई के दौरान 'पृष्ठ के बाइंडिंग वाले किनारे पर जोड़ा जाने वाला अतिरिक्त स्थान' (Margin added to the binding side) होता है।

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931📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITComputer Security & Viruses

Which of the following infects the master boot record and is a complex task to remove this virus?

Explanation

A Boot Sector Virus infects the Master Boot Record (MBR) of hard disks or boot partitions, executing into RAM during system power-on before the operating system loads, making removal complex.

हार्ड डिस्क के मास्टर बूट रिकॉर्ड (MBR) को संक्रमित करने वाला और हटाने में जटिल वायरस 'बूट सेक्टर वायरस' (Boot Sector Virus) है।

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932📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITCybersecurity Fundamentals

Which of them is NOT an ideal way of spreading the virus?

Explanation

Authentic, factory-sealed Official Antivirus Installation CDs produced by verified cybersecurity vendors are digitally signed read-only media and NOT a channel for spreading malware.

आधिकारिक एंटीवायरस सीडी (Official Antivirus CDs) वायरस फैलाने का माध्यम नहीं है। सही विकल्प C है।

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933📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITInformation Security (Authentication)

The process of verifying the identity of a user is:

Explanation

Authentication is the cybersecurity security process of validating and confirming that a user or system entity is genuine and who they claim to be (using credentials such as passwords, biometrics, or 2FA tokens).

किसी उपयोगकर्ता की पहचान सत्यापित करने की सुरक्षा प्रक्रिया को 'प्रमाणीकरण' (Authentication) कहा जाता है।

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934📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITBrowser Security

Which of the following information security technology is used for avoiding browser based hacking?

Explanation

Browser-integrated Anti-Malware / real-time phishing and script blockers actively detect and intercept malicious drive-by downloads, cross-site scripting (XSS), and zero-day browser exploits.

ब्राउज़र आधारित हैकिंग को रोकने के लिए 'ब्राउज़र में एंटी-मालवेयर' (Anti-malware in browsers) सुरक्षा तकनीक का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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935📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITInformation Security Controls

Which of these is not a proper solution to maintain confidentiality?

Explanation

Confidentiality in information security is maintained through active cryptographic access controls: Biometric authentication, strong Passwords, and Multi-factor Authentication (2FA). 'Switching off the phone' is not an information security authorization mechanism.

डेटा गोपनीयता बनाए रखने के लिए बायोमेट्रिक, पासवर्ड और 2FA समाधान हैं; 'फोन बंद करना' (Switching off the phone) कोई सुरक्षा समाधान नहीं है। सही विकल्प D है।

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936📚Television Studio Production, Lighting & Camera OperationsTelevision Framing and Safe Areas

What is the term used for the portion of the picture lost during transmission and scanning in television production?

Explanation

In television broadcasting, 'Domestic Cut-off' (or Overscan) refers to the peripheral outer 10% to 20% margin of the transmitted television image that is lost or masked by consumer television receivers during scanning and framing.

टेलीविजन प्रसारण में स्कैनिंग और ट्रांसमिशन के दौरान कट जाने वाले बाहरी दृश्य भाग को 'डोमेस्टिक कट-ऑफ' (Domestic cut-off / ओवरस्कैन) कहा जाता है।

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937📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda History Chronology

Arrange the following historical events in the order they occurred:
i. Establishment of the Ministry of Popular Enlightenment and Propaganda in Nazi Germany.
ii. Use of propaganda by the Allies during WWII.
iii. Cold War propaganda efforts by the US and USSR.
iv. Pope Gregory XV's establishment of the Sacra Congregation de Propaganda Fide.
Choose the correct Answer:

Explanation

Chronological timeline of propaganda history: iv. Pope Gregory XV establishes Sacra Congregatio de Propaganda Fide = 1622

->

i. Joseph Goebbels' Nazi Ministry of Propaganda = 1933

->

ii. Allied WWII propaganda = 1939–1945

->

iii. US/USSR Cold War psychological warfare = 1947–1991. Correct sequence: iv, i, ii, iii.

प्रचार के इतिहास का सही कालानुक्रम: iv. पोप ग्रेगरी XV द्वारा प्रोपेगैंडा का गठन (1622)

->

i. नाजी प्रचार मंत्रालय (1933)

->

ii. द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध में मित्र राष्ट्रों का प्रचार (1939-45)

->

iii. शीत युद्ध प्रचार (1947-91) (iv, i, ii, iii)। सही विकल्प A है।

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938📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyScales of Measurement (Ratio Scale)

Which level of measurement allows for the classification, ranking, and comparison of intervals with a true zero point?

Explanation

In statistical scales of measurement (Stevens' Taxonomy): Ratio Scale is the highest level of measurement featuring mutually exclusive categories, inherent ranking/order, equal intervals, and an absolute, non-arbitrary True Zero Point (e.g., height, weight, broadcasting duration).

सांख्यिकी में वर्गीकरण, रैंकिंग, समान अंतराल और 'वास्तविक शून्य बिंदु' (True zero point) वाला माप स्तर 'अनुपात पैमाना' (Ratio scale) है।

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939📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationSITE Project 1975

What was the main objective of the SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) project launched in India in 1975?

Explanation

The Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE, 1975–1976), conceived by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai using NASA's ATS-6 satellite, directly broadcast educational, health, family planning, and agricultural programs to over 2,400 backward villages in 6 Indian states.

1975 के SITE प्रोजेक्ट का मुख्य उद्देश्य 'उपग्रह प्रौद्योगिकी द्वारा ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में शिक्षा और विकासपरक संचार प्रदान करना' था।

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940📚Television Studio Production, Lighting & Camera OperationsMulti-Camera Studio Setup

In a multi-camera setup for an interview, which of the following camera positions is most likely to be used for capturing the interviewer's reactions?

Explanation

In a standard 3-camera interview setup: Camera A captures the host/interviewer (reverse reaction shots and questions), Camera B captures the guest/interviewee, and Camera C captures the wide two-shot master angle.

मल्टी-कैमरा इंटरव्यू में साक्षात्कारकर्ता (Interviewer) की प्रतिक्रियाओं और सवालों को रिकॉर्ड करने के लिए 'साक्षात्कारकर्ता पर केंद्रित कैमरा' (Camera focused on the interviewer) उपयोग किया जाता है।

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941📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyBasic vs Applied Research

Which of the following best defines "Basic Research"?

Explanation

Basic Research (pure or fundamental research) is driven by scientific curiosity and aims to expand theoretical knowledge, discover fundamental laws, and develop conceptual frameworks without immediate commercial or practical application.

मौलिक / बुनियादी अनुसंधान (Basic Research) का उद्देश्य 'तत्काल व्यावहारिक अनुप्रयोग के बिना सिद्धांतों का विकास और परीक्षण करना' (Developing and testing theories) होता है।

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942📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationCold War International Communication

What was the primary focus of international communication studies during the Cold War?

Explanation

During the Cold War (1947–1991), international communication research was dominated by state-sponsored studies on Propaganda, Psychological Warfare, radio broadcasting (Voice of America vs Radio Moscow), and ideological persuasion.

शीत युद्ध के दौरान अंतरराष्ट्रीय संचार अध्ययन का प्राथमिक केंद्र 'प्रचार और मनोवैज्ञानिक युद्ध' (Propaganda and psychological warfare) था।

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943📚Television Studio Production, Lighting & Camera OperationsTelevision Camera Mechanics

Consider the following statements about camera work in television production:
i. The camera head consists of the zoom lens, pick-up tube, viewfinder, and camera cable.
ii. The panning head allows the camera to tilt and pan smoothly.
iii. The tally light indicates when the camera is live during recording.
iv. The chroma key process is used to superimpose a black background over a scene.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements ii and iii are fundamental operational facts: The friction/fluid panning head enables smooth horizontal pans and vertical tilts (ii), and the red Tally Light on the camera housing illuminates to alert talent and operator that the camera is live on air (iii). (Statement iv is false as chroma key keys out green/blue, not black). Correct: ii and iii.

कथन ii और iii सही हैं (पैनिंग हेड से पैन व टिल्ट सुगम होता है और टैली लाइट कैमरा ऑन-एयर होने का संकेत देती है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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944📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHistorical Propaganda Methods Matching

Match the following historical events with their associated propaganda techniques:
i. Nazi Germany
ii. Allied efforts during WWII
iii. Cold War

Techniques:
1. Demonising the enemy through films and posters.
2. Subtle censorship and "strategy of truth."
3. Psychological warfare through radio broadcasts.

Which of the following is the correct match?

Explanation

i -> 1 (Nazi Germany: racial demonization and anti-Semitic propaganda films like Der ewige Jude), ii -> 2 (Allied WWII: BBC / US OWI 'Strategy of Truth' factual framing), iii -> 3 (Cold War: covert radio psychological warfare via Radio Liberty / Voice of America). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3.

i-1 (नाजी जर्मनी - फिल्मों/पोस्टरों द्वारा शत्रु का दानवीकरण), ii-2 (मित्र राष्ट्र - सत्य की रणनीति), iii-3 (शीत युद्ध - रेडियो प्रसारण द्वारा मनोवैज्ञानिक युद्ध)। सही विकल्प A है।

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945📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Variables Classification

Which of the following statements about variables is/are correct?
i. An independent variable is the outcome that a researcher wishes to explain.
ii. A dependent variable is the variable that is manipulated in an experiment.
iii. Discrete variables are obtained by counting, while continuous variables are obtained by measuring.
iv. Variables can be classified as either independent or dependent based on their role in the research.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Statements iii and iv are correct: Discrete variables take countable whole numbers (e.g. number of viewers), while continuous variables are measured on a continuum (e.g. response time) (iii), and variables are categorized functionally as

IV

or

DV

(iv). (Statements i and ii are inverted:

IV

is manipulated,

DV

is the outcome measured). Correct: iii and iv only.

कथन iii और iv सही हैं (असतत चर गिने जाते हैं, सतत चर मापे जाते हैं और चरों को उनके शोध कार्य के आधार पर वर्गीकृत किया जाता है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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946📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryDimensioning Principles

In Engineering Drawing, the following rules should be observed on Dimensioning:
1. Dimensions should be clear and permit multiple interpretations. Numerals and letters should be small enough to ensure simple reading.
2. Dimensions should be placed on the view that most clearly shows the corresponding features.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Statement 2 is a fundamental dimensioning rule: dimensions must be placed on the view that most clearly depicts the profile feature. Statement 1 is incorrect because dimensions must be completely unambiguous and allow ONLY ONE single interpretation (not 'permit multiple interpretations'). Correct: Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect.

कथन 2 सही है और कथन 1 गलत है (विमांकन हमेशा स्पष्ट और केवल एक ही अर्थ वाला होना चाहिए, एकाधिक व्याख्या वाला नहीं)। सही विकल्प B है।

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947📚Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsAir Pollution Control Equipment

For controlling measures on air pollution in industries, which are the mechanical devices used in the manufacturing process?

Explanation

Industrial particulate and gaseous emissions are controlled using mechanical and physicochemical separation devices: Electrostatic Precipitators (ESPs for fine fly ash), Cyclone Separators (centrifugal dust collection), and Wet Scrubbers (venturi/spray towers for acidic gases and particulates)

\implies

All of the above.

उद्योगों में वायु प्रदूषण नियंत्रण के लिए इलेक्ट्रोस्टैटिक प्रीसिपिटेटर, चक्रवात विभाजक और वेट स्क्रबर सभी का उपयोग किया जाता है (All of the above)।

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948📚Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsEnvironmental Spheres

The environment can be divided into four segments. The segments are:

Explanation

The Earth's global environment is fundamentally divided into four interconnected concentric spheres/segments: Atmosphere (air/gases), Hydrosphere (oceans/water), Lithosphere (solid crust/soil), and Biosphere (realm of living organisms).

पर्यावरण के चार मुख्य घटक: 'वायुमंडल (Atmosphere), जलमंडल (Hydrosphere), स्थलमंडल (Lithosphere) और जैवमंडल (Biosphere)' हैं।

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949📚Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsLinear Momentum and Impulse

Consider the following statements related to momentum and impulse:
1. Momentum of the particle is given by the product of mass and velocity of the particle. The unit of momentum is kg m/s.
2. Impulse of the particle is given by the product of force and the time of applied force. The unit of impulse is N s or kg m/s.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Both statements are fundamental physical definitions: Linear Momentum is

ec{p} = m ec{v}

(

ext{kg}\cdot ext{m/s}

- 1), and Impulse is

ec{J} = \int ec{F}\,dt = \Delta ec{p}

(

ext{N}\cdot ext{s} = ext{kg}\cdot ext{m/s}

- 2). Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

कथन 1 और 2 दोनों सही हैं (संवेग

p=mv

और आवेग

J=F \Delta t

दोनों की इकाई

ext{kg m/s}

या

ext{N s}

होती है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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950📚Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsRigid Body Kinematic Theorems Matching

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Concept/theory):
i. Chasle's theorem
ii. General plane motion
iii. Translation

List II (Explanation):
1. A rigid body is said to have translatory motion if an imaginary straight line drawn on the body remains parallel to the original position during its motion
2. Any plane motion which is neither a pure rotation nor a pure translation
3. Any general displacement of a rigid body can be represented by a combination of a translatory motion and rotational motion

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

i -> 3 (Chasles' Theorem: any general spatial rigid body displacement is equivalent to a translation plus a rotation about a screw axis), ii -> 2 (General plane motion: simultaneous translation and rotation), iii -> 1 (Translation: any line in body remains parallel to itself). Correct match: (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1.

i-3 (चास्ले का प्रमेय - स्थानांतरण व घूर्णन का संयोजन), ii-2 (सामान्य समतल गति), iii-1 (स्थानांतरण गति - रेखाएं समानांतर रहना)। सही विकल्प A है।

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951📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesDamped Vibrations Logarithmic Decay

In a viscous damping vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration reduces to 0.125 of its initial value after six oscillations. What will be the ratio of amplitudes after eighth oscillation to that of after fourth oscillations?

Explanation

Amplitude decay in damped vibrations follows

x_n = x_0 e^{-n\delta}

. After 6 oscillations:

x_6/x_0 = e^{-6\delta} = 0.125 = (0.5)^3 \implies e^{-2\delta} = 0.5

. The ratio of the 8th to the 4th oscillation represents a decay across

(8 - 4) = 4

oscillations:

\frac{x_8}{x_4} = e^{-4\delta} = (e^{-2\delta})^2 = (0.5)^2 = 0.25

. Choice B.

6 दोलनों में क्षय

= 0.125 = (0.5)^3

। 4 दोलनों (

x_8/x_4

) में क्षय

= (0.5)^2 = 0.25

। सही विकल्प B है।

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952📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesDamped Oscillations Geometric Progression

Under logarithmic decrement, the amplitude of successive vibrations are:

Explanation

In underdamped harmonic oscillatory systems, the ratio of any two successive peak amplitudes is a constant (

x_n / x_{n+1} = e^{\delta}

); therefore, the successive peak amplitudes form a Geometric Progression (

x_0, x_0 e^{-\delta}, x_0 e^{-2\delta}, \dots

).

लॉगरिदमिक डिक्रीमेंट के तहत कंपन के क्रमिक आयाम 'गुणोत्तर श्रेणी' (In geometric progression) में घटते हैं।

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953📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesOscillations & Vibrations Definitions

Consider the following Statements:
Statement 1: The oscillation of a body whose amplitude goes on decreasing with time is defined as a damped oscillation.
Statement 2: The oscillation in which a body oscillates under the influence of an external periodic force is known as forced oscillation.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Both statements are standard physical definitions: Damped oscillations dissipate mechanical energy to overcome friction/viscosity causing amplitude decay over time (1), and Forced oscillations occur when a system is continuously driven by an external periodic force (2). Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

कथन 1 और 2 दोनों सही हैं (अवमंदित दोलन में आयाम घटता है और प्रणोदित दोलन बाह्य आवर्त बल के प्रभाव में होता है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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954📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesElectromagnetic Laws Matching

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Law):
i. Ampere Maxwell's Law
ii. Kirchhoff's Law
iii. Faraday's Law
iv. Hertz's Law

List - II (Descriptions):
1. Law specifically describes the generation of an electric field due to a changing magnetic field, not vice versa.
2. Law relates to the generation of electromagnetic waves by oscillating charges, not specifically to the relationship between electric and magnetic field
3. Laws describe the behavior of electrical circuits and do not directly relate to the relationship between electric and magnetic fields
4. Fundamental law of electromagnetism that describes the relationship between a changing electric field and a magnetic field

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

i -> 4 (Ampere-Maxwell: changing electric displacement current produces magnetic field), ii -> 3 (Kirchhoff's laws: circuit voltages and currents), iii -> 1 (Faraday's law: changing magnetic flux induces electric field), iv -> 2 (Hertz: spark discharge experiments generating radio EM waves). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2.

i-4 (एम्पीयर-मैक्सवेल नियम - बदलते E से B), ii-3 (किरचॉफ नियम - सर्किट), iii-1 (फैराडे नियम - बदलते B से E), iv-2 (हर्ट्ज़ - दोलायमान आवेशों से EM तरंगें)। सही विकल्प B है।

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955📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesSchrodinger Wave Equation

Schrodinger wave equation:
1. Schrodinger wave equation is a mathematical expression describing the energy, momentum and position of the electron in space and time.
2. The Schrödinger equation is a partial differential equation that describe the dynamics of quantum mechanical systems via the wave function.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Both statements are correct: The Schrödinger equation (

i\hbar rac{\partial\Psi}{\partial t} = \hat{H}\Psi

) is the fundamental partial differential equation of quantum mechanics that governs the space-time evolution of the probability wave function

\Psi( ec{r}, t)

and quantum observables. Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

कथन 1 और 2 दोनों सही हैं (श्रोडिंगर समीकरण क्वांटम यांत्रिकी का आंशिक अवकल समीकरण है जो तरंग फलन की गतिशीलता का वर्णन करता है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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956📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingSoftware Tools (Debugger)

Which of the following software helps the users to detect the errors while executing program?

Explanation

A Debugger is a specialized software tool used by programmers to test, trace, set breakpoints, inspect memory variables, and detect runtime errors/bugs during program execution.

प्रोग्राम निष्पादन के दौरान त्रुटियों (Bugs) का पता लगाने और सुधारने वाला सॉफ्टवेयर 'डीबगर' (Debugger) कहलाता है।

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957📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingNetwork Topologies (Hybrid)

Which topology is the combination of multiple topologies, used for constructing a single large topology?

Explanation

A Hybrid Topology is an enterprise network architecture created by integrating two or more different fundamental network topologies (such as Star-Bus, Star-Ring, or Mesh-Star) into a single scalable network.

एक बड़ा नेटवर्क बनाने के लिए कई अलग-अलग टोपोलॉजी के संयोजन को 'हाइब्रिड टोपोलॉजी' (Hybrid topology) कहा जाता है।

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958📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingOperating System Functions

The following statements are major functions of Operating System (OS):
1. Interpretation of commands and instructions
2. Providing a friendly interface between the computer and the user
3. Coordination and assignment of different hardware devices to the programs
4. Ensuring security of access to computer resources
Which are the statements considered a function of OS?

Explanation

An Operating System performs all these foundational management functions: Command interpretation (1), User Interface GUI/CLI (2), Resource/Device management and process scheduling (3), and Security/Access control (4)

\implies

1, 2, 3 and 4. Choice D.

ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम कमांड निष्पादन, यूजर इंटरफेस, हार्डवेयर प्रबंधन और सुरक्षा नियंत्रण सभी कार्य करता है (1, 2, 3 and 4)।

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959📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeMultivariable Taylor Series

Taylor's series of

f(x, y) = e^x \log(1 + y)

in powers of x and y up to second degree is:

Explanation

Using standard Maclaurin series:

e^x = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2} + \dots

and

\log(1 + y) = y - \frac{y^2}{2} + \dots

. Multiplying up to degree 2:

f(x, y) = (1 + x)\left(y - \frac{y^2}{2}\right) = y - \frac{y^2}{2} + xy = y + \frac{1}{2}(2xy - y^2)

. Choice C.

मैकलॉरिन श्रेणी विस्तार:

e^x \log(1+y) = (1+x)(y - y^2/2) = y + \frac{1}{2}(2xy - y^2)

। सही विकल्प C है।

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960📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeInternational Organizations (UNESCO)

UNESCO stands for:

Explanation

UNESCO stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization, a specialized agency of the UN established in 1945 to promote world peace and security through international cooperation in education, sciences, and culture.

UNESCO का पूर्ण रूप 'यूनाइटेड नेशंस एजुकेशनल, साइंटिफिक एंड कल्चरल ऑर्गनाइजेशन' (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) है।

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961📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeIndian River Valley Projects (Srisailam)

The 770 MW (7 x 110 MW) Srisailam Hydro Electric Project is constructed across the river:

Explanation

The Srisailam Dam and Hydroelectric Project (one of India's largest hydropower stations) is constructed across the Krishna River in the Nallamala Hills on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

श्रीशैलम जलविद्युत परियोजना (Srisailam Hydro Electric Project) 'कृष्णा नदी' (Krishna River) पर निर्मित है।

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962📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeLakes of India (Prashar Lake)

In which district of Himachal Pradesh 'Prashar Lake' is situated?

Explanation

Prashar Lake (altitude 2,730 m, featuring a three-tiered pagoda temple and a floating circular island) is located in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh.

हिमाचल प्रदेश की प्रसिद्ध 'पराशर झील' (Prashar Lake / तैरते द्वीप वाली झील) 'मंडी' (Mandi) जिले में स्थित है।

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963📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeEpidemiology (COVID-19 Isolation)

Which of the following statements regarding Isolation during COVID-19 is/are correct?
1. It is used for people suffering from COVID-19 symptoms or who have tested positive for the virus.
2. In isolation means being separated from other people, mainly in a medical facility where you can receive clinical care.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Both statements are standard epidemiological definitions: Isolation separates confirmed infected symptomatic or test-positive individuals from healthy populations to stop transmission (1), either at home or in dedicated healthcare facilities with medical monitoring (2). Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

कथन 1 और 2 दोनों सही हैं (आइसोलेशन संक्रमित या लक्षण वाले व्यक्तियों को अलग रखने और चिकित्सकीय देखभाल प्रदान करने की प्रक्रिया है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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964📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeOfficial Languages of Indian States

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (State/UT):
1. Meghalaya
2. Daman and Diu
3. Nagaland

List II (Official Language):
i. English
ii. Konkani / Gujarati
iii. Garo and Khasi

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

1 -> iii (Meghalaya: English is official language alongside associate official Garo and Khasi), 2 -> ii (Daman and Diu: Konkani/Gujarati), 3 -> i (Nagaland: English as sole official language). Correct match: (1)-iii, (2)-ii, (3)-i.

1-iii (मेघालय - गारो व खासी), 2-ii (दमन और दीव - कोंकणी/गुजराती), 3-i (नागालैंड - अंग्रेजी)। सही विकल्प D है।

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965📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentSociology of Development (Underdevelopment)

Which concept had been constructed as the phenomena of poverty, low productivity and backwardness?

Explanation

In development sociology and political economy, 'Underdevelopment' is conceptualized as the systemic state of structural poverty, technological dependency, low economic productivity, and institutional backwardness generated by historical colonial exploitation.

गरीबी, निम्न उत्पादकता और पिछड़ेपन की संरचनात्मक परिघटना को 'अल्पविकास' (Underdevelopment) के रूप में परिभाषित किया गया है।

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966📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentWorld-Systems Theory (Wallerstein)

According to Immanuel Wallerstein, which are the three types of Economic Dominance in Capitalist Society?

Explanation

In Immanuel Wallerstein's World-Systems Theory, a core state achieves hegemony through a sequential three-stage succession of economic dominance: 1. Productivity Dominance (manufacturing efficiency)

->

2. Commercial / Trade Dominance (global logistics control)

->

3. Financial Dominance (banking and investment hegemony). Choice C.

इमैनुएल वालरस्टीन के विश्व-प्रणाली सिद्धांत के अनुसार हेजेमनी के तीन आर्थिक प्रभुत्व: 'उत्पादकता प्रभुत्व, व्यापार प्रभुत्व और वित्तीय प्रभुत्व' (Productivity, Trade, and Finance dominance) हैं।

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967📚Neuropsychology, Clinical Assessment & De-Addiction InterventionsDe-Addiction Physiology (Alcohol Liver Damage)

Which part of the body is specially affected by the consumption of excessive alcohol?

Explanation

Chronic excessive alcohol consumption predominantly inflicts severe metabolic and toxic damage upon the Liver, leading progressively to alcoholic fatty liver, alcoholic hepatitis, fibrosis, and irreversible liver cirrhosis.

अत्यधिक शराब के सेवन से शरीर का सबसे अधिक और प्रत्यक्ष प्रभावित होने वाला अंग 'यकृत / लिवर' (Liver / सिरोसिस) है।

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968📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentSociology of Socialization

Which are the agencies of primary socialization?
1. Family
2. Peer group
3. School
4. Jail
Select the correct option:

Explanation

Primary and foundational socialization agencies that shape a child's personality and social norms during early life include the Family (primary foundational agency), Peer group, and School (1, 2, and 3). Prisons/jails are total institutions for re-socialization. Choice D.

प्राथमिक और प्रारंभिक समाजीकरण की प्रमुख संस्थाओं में परिवार, मित्र समूह (पीयर ग्रुप) और विद्यालय शामिल हैं (1, 2, and 3)। सही विकल्प D है।

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969📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentEconomic Sectors Matching

Match Column A with Column B and select the correct answer:
Column A:
i. Cottage Industry
ii. Primary sector
iii. Secondary sector
iv. Tertiary sector

Column B:
1. Trade
2. Construction
3. Mining
4. Bidi industry

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

i -> 4 (Cottage Industry: small-scale home-based manual rolling like Bidi industry), ii -> 3 (Primary sector: natural resource extraction such as Mining/agriculture), iii -> 2 (Secondary sector: manufacturing and Construction), iv -> 1 (Tertiary sector: services, commerce, and Trade). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.

i-4 (कुटीर उद्योग - बीड़ी उद्योग), ii-3 (प्राथमिक क्षेत्र - खनन), iii-2 (द्वितीयक क्षेत्र - निर्माण), iv-1 (तृतीयक क्षेत्र - व्यापार)। सही विकल्प C है।

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970📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentSociology of Religion (Max Müller)

Which one of the following Max Muller believed to be the earliest form of religion?

Explanation

German philologist and comparative mythologist Friedrich Max Müller proposed that 'Naturism' (the awe, wonder, and personification of overpowering natural phenomena like the sun, thunder, wind, and dawn) was the earliest origin of religious thought.

मैक्स मूलर के अनुसार धर्म का सबसे प्रारंभिक रूप 'प्रकृतिवाद' (Naturism / प्राकृतिक शक्तियों की पूजा) था।

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971📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicySocial Work Field Practicum Sequence

Identify the correct sequence of the field practicum in social work education:

Explanation

The standardized pedagogical sequence of field practicum in professional social work curriculum is: 1. Orientation

->

2. Agency Observation Visits

->

3. Concurrent Field Work (regular agency placement during semesters)

->

4. Block Placement (intensive full-time internship). Choice D.

सोशल वर्क फील्ड प्रैक्टिकम का सही अनुक्रम: 'ओरिएंटेशन

->

अवलोकन यात्रा (Observation visit)

->

समवर्ती फील्ड वर्क (Concurrent)

->

ब्लॉक प्लेसमेंट' (विकल्प D)।

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972📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentModels of Development

Which of the following model of development is based on free market and competitiveness?

Explanation

The Western Liberal (Capitalist / Neoliberal) Model of Development is fundamentally grounded in laissez-faire free-market enterprise, privatization, deregulation, supply-and-demand price mechanisms, and competitive open markets.

मुक्त बाजार, प्रतिस्पर्धा और निजीकरण पर आधारित विकास का मॉडल 'पश्चिमी उदारवादी मॉडल' (Western liberal model / पूंजीवादी मॉडल) कहलाता है।

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973📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyDevelopmental Theories (Ethology)

Which theory says that there are sensitive or critical periods of development in human life?

Explanation

Ethological Theory of Development (founded by Konrad Lorenz and John Bowlby) posits that human development is shaped by evolutionary biology and features specific Critical / Sensitive Periods during which the presence or absence of certain experiences leaves an indelible imprint.

'इथोलॉजिकल सिद्धांत' (Ethological theory / बॉल्बी व लोरेंज) यह मानता है कि मानव विकास में जैविक रूप से संवेदनशील या महत्वपूर्ण अवधियां (Sensitive periods) होती हैं।

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974📚Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsSignal Detection Theory in Memory

Which of the following is a commonly used dependent variable in signal detection memory experiments?

Explanation

In Signal Detection Theory (SDT) and recognition memory paradigms, the primary dependent variables measuring memory sensitivity (

d'

) and accuracy include Hits (correctly identifying a target item), False Alarms, Misses, and Correct Rejections.

सिग्नल डिटेक्शन थ्योरी और स्मृति प्रयोगों में मापे जाने वाले प्रमुख आश्रित चरों में 'हिट्स' (Hits / सही पहचान) और 'फॉल्स अलार्म' शामिल हैं।

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975📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologySocial Cognition & Perception

The perspective in social psychology which focuses on how we pay attention to, process, and interpret social situations is known as:

Explanation

The Social Cognitive Perspective focuses on the mental processes—such as social schemas, heuristics, causal attributions, attention, and memory—involved in perceiving, interpreting, storing, and responding to social information.

सामाजिक स्थितियों पर ध्यान देने, उन्हें समझने और व्याख्या करने पर केंद्रित सामाजिक मनोविज्ञान का दृष्टिकोण 'सामाजिक संज्ञानात्मक दृष्टिकोण' (Social cognitive perspective) कहलाता है।

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976📚Neuropsychology, Clinical Assessment & De-Addiction InterventionsNeuropsychology (Broca's Area)

After a traumatic brain injury if a patient's motor speech production is affected (expressive aphasia) while speech comprehension remains intact, which part of the brain is most likely affected?

Explanation

Broca's Area (located in the left posterior inferior frontal gyrus) controls motor speech articulation and output; damage results in Broca's Expressive Aphasia (halting, non-fluent speech with preserved language comprehension). Wernicke's area controls receptive language comprehension.

मस्तिष्क की चोट के बाद यदि रोगी का भाषण उत्पादन (बोलना) प्रभावित होता है जबकि समझना ठीक रहता है, तो 'ब्रोका क्षेत्र' (Broca's area) प्रभावित होता है।

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977📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyCognitive Heuristics (Availability)

The cognitive mental shortcut used to assess the probability or frequency of an event based on the ease with which instances of that event come to mind is known as:

Explanation

The Availability Heuristic (identified by Amos Tversky and Daniel Kahneman in 1973) is a cognitive heuristic where people evaluate the likelihood, frequency, or probability of an event based on how readily and easily examples or vivid memories come to mind.

किसी घटना की संभावना का आकलन इस आधार पर करना कि उसके उदाहरण कितनी आसानी से याद आते हैं, 'उपलब्धता अनुमानी' (Availability heuristic) कहलाता है।

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978📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyTheories of Motivation (Henry Murray)

Which psychologist proposed the theory of psychogenic needs?

Explanation

Henry Alexander Murray developed the Theory of Psychogenic Needs (1938), identifying 27 fundamental psychological needs (e.g. Need for Achievement, Affiliation, Power, Autonomy) and co-creating the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) to assess them.

'मनोजेनिक आवश्यकताओं का सिद्धांत' (Theory of psychogenic needs / 1938) और TAT परीक्षण 'हेनरी मरे' (Henry Murray) द्वारा प्रतिपादित किया गया था।

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979📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismTourism Concepts & Etymology

The word 'tour' is derived from the Latin word:

Explanation

The etymological origin of the word 'tour' and 'tourism' is derived from the Latin word 'Tornus' (and Greek Tornos), meaning a lathe or tool for making a circle, signifying a circular journey returning to the starting point.

'टूर' (Tour) शब्द की उत्पत्ति लैटिन शब्द 'Tornus' से हुई है, जिसका अर्थ एक गोल चक्कर या वृत्ताकार यात्रा होता है।

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980📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismHotel Departmental Organization

Which one of the following is a revenue generating department in hotel?

Explanation

In hotel organizational operations, Front Office (Rooms Division) and Food & Beverage (F&B) Service are primary Revenue-Generating (Operating) Departments. HR, Purchase, Maintenance, and Security are non-revenue Cost/Support Centers.

होटल में राजस्व उत्पन्न करने वाला प्रमुख परिचालन विभाग 'फ्रंट ऑफिस' (Front office / कमरा बिक्री) होता है।

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981📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismUniformed Services (Bellboy)

The person who transports the guest luggage at the time of check-in & check-out is the:

Explanation

A Bellboy (Bellhop / Luggage Porter), working under the Uniformed Services section of the Front Office, is responsible for escorting guests and transporting their baggage during check-in, room transfers, and check-out.

चेक-इन और चेक-आउट के समय अतिथि के सामान (सामान/बैगेज) को कमरे तक पहुंचाने वाला कर्मचारी 'बेलबॉय' (Bellboy / Bellhop) कहलाता है।

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982📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismTypes of Hotels (Resort Hotels)

Hotels located at the tourist destinations such as hill stations, sea beaches & countryside are:

Explanation

Resort Hotels are leisure lodging establishments located at scenic vacation destinations (such as hill stations, beaches, islands, mountains, and countryside) providing recreational amenities and full-board facilities.

हिल स्टेशनों, समुद्री तटों और ग्रामीण पर्यटन स्थलों पर स्थित होटलों को 'रिसॉर्ट होटल' (Resorts hotels) कहा जाता है।

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983📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismForms of Tourism (Domestic)

The tourism activity of people travelling within their own country is known as:

Explanation

Domestic Tourism comprises the tourism activities of resident visitors traveling exclusively within the geographical boundaries of their own country of residence.

किसी देश के नागरिकों द्वारा अपने ही देश के भीतर की जाने वाली पर्यटन गतिविधि 'घरेलू पर्यटन' (Domestic tourism) कहलाती है।

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984📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsFront Office Cashiering

A person who handles money, post charges & oversees guest account settlement at the front desk is:

Explanation

The Front Office Cashier (Cashier) is responsible for opening guest folios, receiving payments (cash/credit card), posting departmental vouchers, exchanging foreign currency, and executing final account settlements during guest checkout.

फ्रंट डेस्क पर नकदी का लेन-देन करने, बिल बनाने और अंतिम खाता निपटाने वाला व्यक्ति 'कैशियर' (A cashier) होता है।

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985📚Hotel Administration, HRACC Star Classification & TimeshareHotel Star Classification

The star rating given to hotels is based on:

Explanation

In the hospitality industry, Star Classification Ratings (from 1-Star to 5-Star Deluxe) are awarded based on the Standard and Quality of Facilities, architectural design, guest services, amenities, and security standards.

होटलों को दी जाने वाली स्टार रेटिंग 'सुविधाओं और सेवाओं के मानक' (Standard of facilities) के आधार पर निर्धारित की जाती है।

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986📚Hotel Administration, HRACC Star Classification & TimeshareHRACC Classification Committee

The star classification system in India is done by a central government committee called the:

Explanation

The Hotel and Restaurant Approval and Classification Committee (HRACC), functioning under the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, is the statutory body responsible for inspecting and awarding star ratings to hotels in India.

भारत में होटलों को स्टार वर्गीकरण प्रदान करने वाली केंद्रीय समिति 'HRACC' (होटल एंड रेस्टोरेंट अप्रूवल एंड क्लासिफिकेशन कमेटी) है।

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987📚Hotel Administration, HRACC Star Classification & TimeshareHeritage Hotel Classification

This category covers hotels in residences, havelis, hunting lodges, castles or forts & palaces built between the year 1920-1935:

Explanation

Under Ministry of Tourism guidelines for Heritage Hotels: Heritage Basic (built before 1920), Heritage Classic (palaces, forts, havelis built between 1920 and 1935), and Heritage Grand (built before 1935 possessing exceptional historical/architectural splendor).

1920 से 1935 के बीच बनी हवेलियों, महलों और किलों में संचालित होटलों को 'हेरिटेज क्लासिक' (Heritage classic) श्रेणी में वर्गीकृत किया जाता है।

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988📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsGuest Registration (Arrival Stage)

A guest's registration record is completed during which of the following stages of the guest cycle?

Explanation

The guest registration record (Guest Registration Card - GRC) and identity verification are legally completed during the Arrival Stage of the guest cycle at the front desk.

अतिथि पंजीकरण रिकॉर्ड (GRC) अतिथि चक्र के 'आगमन' (Arrival) चरण के दौरान पूरा किया जाता है।

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989📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsGuest Cycle (Stay Stage)

Handling guests queries & complaints are part of which guest cycle stage?

Explanation

During the Stay / Occupancy Stage of the guest cycle, front desk and guest relations associates actively manage guest queries, telephone requests, room service coordination, and resolve operational complaints.

अतिथियों के प्रश्नों और शिकायतों का निवारण अतिथि चक्र के 'ठहराव / रहने' (Stay / Occupancy) चरण का हिस्सा होता है।

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990📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismGuest Mail Handling

The guest mails addressed to the hotel are received by the:

Explanation

Incoming postal mail, parcels, and couriers addressed to resident guests are standardly received, sorted, time-stamped, and logged by the Information Desk (or Front Desk / Concierge) for prompt delivery.

होटल में अतिथियों के पते पर आने वाले डाक और पत्रों को 'सूचना पटल' (Information desk / फ्रंट डेस्क) द्वारा प्राप्त और दर्ज किया जाता है।

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991📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismLeft Luggage Procedures

Consider the following statements for procedure for delivering left luggage of the guest:
1) Requesting the guest to show counterfoil
2) Tallying the counterfoil with luggage tag
3) Just asking for room number
4) Just asking him to take his own luggage
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Standard security procedure for releasing temporary left luggage: The bell captain must request the guest to present the Baggage Counterfoil (1) and rigorously verify and tally the receipt number and name against the Luggage Tag attached to the bag (2). Correct: Both 1 & 2 (Choice C).

अमानती सामान (Left luggage) सौंपने की सुरक्षित प्रक्रिया में अतिथि से रसीद (Counterfoil) मांगना (1) और उसका मिलान लगेज टैग से करना (2) दोनों शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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992📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsGuest Folio Statement

It is a detailed statement of all financial transactions (debits and credits) that take place between a hotel and a resident guest during their stay:

Explanation

A Guest Folio (Guest Bill) is the formal statement of account that continuously records all financial transactions, room tariffs, taxes, restaurant charges, and payments between an individual registered guest and the hotel.

होटल और अतिथि के बीच होने वाले सभी वित्तीय लेन-देन (खर्च और भुगतान) का विस्तृत विवरण 'गेस्ट फोलियो' (Guest folio) कहलाता है।

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993📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsFront Office Posting Process

The process of recording financial transactions (debits or credits) on a guest folio is called:

Explanation

Posting is the fundamental accounting process of entering, updating, and recording financial transaction charges (room rent, restaurant bills, laundry) and payments directly onto an active guest folio.

गेस्ट फोलियो में वित्तीय लेन-देन (खर्च या भुगतान) को दर्ज करने की प्रक्रिया को 'पोस्टिंग' (Posting) कहा जाता है।

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994📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsCash Float / Cash Bank

An amount of cash assigned to a cashier so that he or she can handle change and small currency transactions during a particular work shift is the:

Explanation

A Cash Bank (or Cash Float / Bank) is a specific, predetermined amount of working cash currency assigned to a front desk cashier at the start of each work shift to provide change to guests.

कैशियर को दैनिक लेन-देन और खुले पैसे देने के लिए शुरू में दी जाने वाली नकदी राशि को 'कैश बैंक' (Cash bank / फ्लोट) कहा जाता है।

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995📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementNight Audit Transcripts (Supplemental)

A front office transcript which is used to record the day's transactional activity for non-guest accounts in the city ledger is a:

Explanation

While the Daily Transcript records guest ledger transactions for in-house resident guests, the Supplemental Transcript is specifically used during the audit to record daily transactional charges and credits posted to Non-Guest City Ledger accounts.

गैर-अतिथि (Non-guest) खातों और सिटी लेज़र लेन-देन को दर्ज करने के लिए 'सप्लीमेंटल ट्रांसक्रिप्ट' (Supplemental transcript) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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996📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsFront Office Internal Controls

Which of the following statement/statements DOES NOT involve in front office internal control procedure?

Explanation

Internal accounting control in front office operations fundamentally encompasses all listed procedures: tracking all source vouchers, verifying billing entries against receipts, cross-checking cashier balances, and identifying system vulnerabilities

\implies

All are involved. Option D.

फ्रंट ऑफिस आंतरिक नियंत्रण में दस्तावेजीकरण को ट्रैक करना, प्रविष्टियों का सत्यापन और इनवॉइस का मिलान सभी प्रक्रियाएं शामिल होती हैं।

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997📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismHotel Safety & Accident Book

A book kept in every organization where the receptionist records all details of accidents which have occurred to employees or guests whilst engaged in carrying out their normal daily duties is the:

Explanation

An Accident Book (Incident Register) is a legally mandated register maintained by the front desk/security department to formally record the date, time, location, nature, causes, and first-aid actions taken for any accident or injury on the premises.

ड्यूटी के दौरान होने वाली दुर्घटनाओं का विवरण दर्ज करने वाली आधिकारिक पुस्तिका 'एक्सीडेंट बुक' (Accident book) कहलाती है।

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998📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementLow Demand Revenue Tactics

Which of these is a low demand tactic used in hotel revenue management?

Explanation

During periods of low occupancy/demand, revenue managers deploy yield tactics including: removing minimum length-of-stay restrictions (A), designing discounted value packages and promotions (B), and encouraging room upgrades to stimulate booking volume

\implies

Options A, B, C. Choice D.

कम मांग के समय होटल रेवेन्यू मैनेजमेंट में स्टे प्रतिबंध हटाना, विशेष पैकेज पेश करना और अपग्रेड देना सभी रणनीतियां अपनाई जाती हैं (Options A, B, C)।

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999📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismHotel Security & Bomb Threat Procedures

In a situation like a bomb threat received on a telephone call, the person receiving the call should follow which protocol?

Explanation

In hotel security standard operating procedures for telephone bomb threats, the receiver must remain calm, listen attentively without interrupting, and meticulously Write Down the Exact Words of the caller along with background noises, voice tone, and accent.

बम की धमकी भरी कॉल आने पर फ्रंट डेस्क कर्मचारी को 'कॉलर के सटीक शब्दों को तुरंत लिखना' (Write down the exact words) और शांत रहकर जानकारी दर्ज करनी चाहिए।

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1000📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Polity (Fundamental Duties)

The Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen under Article 51A include:
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper
3. Respect for the Government
4. To protect Wildlife
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Explanation

Under Article 51A of the Constitution of India, Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, Flag and Anthem [51A(a)], protecting forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife [51A(g)], and developing scientific temper and humanism [51A(h)]. 'Respect for the Government' is NOT a fundamental duty. Correct: 1, 2 and 4 (Choice B).

अनुच्छेद 51A के तहत मौलिक कर्तव्यों में संविधान व ध्वज का सम्मान (1), वैज्ञानिक दृष्टिकोण (2) और वन्यजीवों की रक्षा (4) शामिल हैं ('सरकार का सम्मान' कोई मौलिक कर्तव्य नहीं है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1001📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTAncient History (Indus Valley Civilization)

Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
I. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present did not dominate the scene.
II. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements are historically accurate: Archaeological evidence shows that the Harappan civilization lacked large monumental temples or theocratic rule, maintaining a predominantly secular civic character (I), and Harappans were the earliest people in the world to cultivate cotton and weave textiles, known to Greeks as Sindon (II). Correct: Both I and II.

कथन I और II दोनों सत्य हैं (हड़प्पा सभ्यता मुख्य रूप से धर्मनिरपेक्ष थी जहां धार्मिक तत्व हावी नहीं था और यह कपास का उत्पादन करने वाली पहली सभ्यता थी)। सही विकल्प C है।

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1002📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTConstitutional Bodies (Attorney General)

Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct about the Attorney General of India?
I. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
II. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
III. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
IV. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Explanation

Under Article 76: Statement I is NOT correct (must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court, not High Court). Statement IV is NOT correct (holds office during the pleasure of the President, with no fixed tenure specified in the Constitution). Statements II and III are correct [Articles 76(3) and 88]. Correct answer for NOT correct: I and IV (Choice A).

कथन I और IV गलत हैं क्योंकि महान्यायवादी (AGI) बनने के लिए सुप्रीम कोर्ट का जज होने की योग्यता चाहिए (हाई कोर्ट नहीं) और उनका कोई निश्चित कार्यकाल नहीं होता (वे राष्ट्रपति के प्रसादपर्यंत पद धारण करते हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1003📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITComputer Hardware (BIOS)

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The BIOS is responsible for initializing hardware components during the computer's boot process.
Reason (R): The BIOS loads the operating system into memory to start the computer.
Which statement is correct?

Explanation

Both statements are true: The Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) executes the Power-On Self-Test (POST) to test and initialize motherboard hardware (Assertion A), and immediately thereafter locates the boot sector (MBR/GPT) to load the OS kernel into RAM (Reason R). Choice A.

अभिकथन A और कारण R दोनों सही हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है (BIOS हार्डवेयर का परीक्षण करता है और बूट प्रक्रिया में OS को मेमोरी में लोड करता है)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1004📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyEchinoderm Water Vascular System

Match the Echinoderm Features with their Functions in the water vascular system:
Feature:
i. Tube feet
ii. Madreporite
iii. Pedicellariae
iv. Radial canal

Function:
1. Regulates water entry
2. Locomotion and feeding
3. Defense and cleaning
4. Distributes water

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

i -> 2 (Tube feet / podia: hydraulic locomotion, prey capture, and respiration), ii -> 1 (Madreporite: perforated sieve plate regulating seawater entry into stone canal), iii -> 3 (Pedicellariae: microscopic pincer-like jaws for surface debris removal and defense), iv -> 4 (Radial canal: distributes pressurized water down each ambulacral arm). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4 (Choice A).

i-2 (नालपाद - संचलन व भोजन), ii-1 (मैड्रेपोराइट - जल प्रवेश नियंत्रण), iii-3 (पेडिसिलेरी - रक्षा व सफाई), iv-4 (रेडियल कैनाल - जल वितरण)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1005📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyUrochordata (Endostyle)

Which of the following is/are true about the endostyle in Urochordates (e.g. Herdmania)?
I. It is involved in filter feeding.
II. It secretes mucus to trap food particles.
III. It is homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates.
IV. It is present only in the larval stage.
Options:

Explanation

Statements I, II, and III are true: The endostyle on the ventral floor of the pharynx secretes iodinated mucus to trap suspended micro-food particles during ciliary filter feeding (I, II), and biochemical and developmental studies confirm it is evolutionary homologous to the vertebrate Thyroid Gland (III). Statement IV is false because the endostyle is retained and functions actively throughout adult urochordate life. Correct: I, II, and III (Choice B).

कथन I, II और III सही हैं (एंडोस्टाइल फिल्टर फीडिंग करता है, बलगम स्रावित करता है और कशेरुकियों की थायरॉयड ग्रंथि के समजात है; यह वयस्क में भी रहता है अतः IV गलत है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1006📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyIchthyology Classification Matching

Match the fish orders/classes with their representative examples:
Orders:
i. Chondrichthyes
ii. Perciformes
iii. Cypriniformes
iv. Siluriformes

Examples:
1) Labeo (Rohu)
2) Scoliodon (Dogfish)
3) Catla
4) Clarias (Catfish)

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

i -> 2 (Chondrichthyes: cartilaginous dogfish shark Scoliodon), iii -> 1 (Cypriniformes: carp Labeo rohita / Catla), iv -> 4 (Siluriformes: air-breathing freshwater catfish Clarias batrachus), ii -> 3 (Perch-like teleosts / Catla). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4 (Choice B).

i-2 (कॉन्ड्रिकथीज - स्कोलियोडोन डॉगफिश), iii-1 (साइप्रिनिफोर्मेस - रोहू लाबियो), iv-4 (सिलुरिफोर्मेस - क्लेरियस मांगुर)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1007📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyAvian Anatomy (Uropygial Gland)

Feathers of birds are made waterproof due to the oily preening secretion of the:

Explanation

Birds possess a specialized sebaceous cutaneous gland located dorsally at the base of the tail called the Uropygial Gland (Preen Gland), which secretes a rich fatty, hydrophobic oil spread over the plumage during preening to ensure waterproofing and feather flexibility.

पक्षियों के पंख 'यूरोपाइजियल ग्रंथि' (Uropygial glands / प्रीन ग्रंथि) द्वारा स्रावित तैलीय पदार्थ के कारण जलरोधी (Waterproof) बनते हैं।

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1008📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyHerpetology (Order Squamata)

Which of the following reptile orders includes both lizards and snakes?

Explanation

The reptilian order Squamata (scaled reptiles, characterized by movable quadrate bones and horny epidermal scales) encompasses suborder Lacertilia/Sauria (lizards) and suborder Serpentes/Ophidia (snakes).

छिपकलियों और सांपों को सम्मिलित करने वाला सरीसृप गण 'स्कवामाटा' (Squamata) है।

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1009📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyNeurophysiology (Action Potential Stages)

Which option indicates the correct chronology of electrical and physiological changes occurring during the transmission of a nerve impulse across an axon?

Explanation

Sequential stages of an axonal action potential: Stimulus threshold causes opening of voltage-gated

Na^+

channels

->

Depolarization (influx of

Na^+

)

->

Generation of Action Potential spike

->

Opening of

K^+

channels causing Repolarization

->

Activation of electrogenic

Na^+/K^+

ATPase pump to restore resting membrane ion concentrations. Choice A.

तंत्रिका आवेग संचरण का सही कालानुक्रम: तंत्रिका तंतु

->

विध्रुवण (Depolarization)

->

क्रियात्मक विभव (Action potential)

->

पुनर्ध्रुवण (Repolarization)

->

Na^+/K^+

पंप की सक्रियता। सही विकल्प A है।

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1010📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyRenal Physiology (Loop of Henle)

If the loop of Henle were completely absent from an individual's nephrons, which one of the following is to be expected?

Explanation

The hairpin loop of Henle acts as a countercurrent multiplier establishing the hyperosmotic medullary concentration gradient necessary for water reabsorption in the collecting ducts; without it, mammals cannot concentrate urine, producing copious amounts of severely Dilute Hypotonic Urine.

यदि वृक्क के नेफ्रॉन से हेनले का लूप अनुपस्थित हो, तो सांद्रण क्षमता समाप्त हो जाएगी और 'मूत्र अधिक पतला (तनु)' (The urine will be more dilute) बनेगा।

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1011📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyPopulation Genetics & Evolution Unit

The fundamental unit of biological evolution is the:

Explanation

In modern evolutionary synthesis (population genetics), the Population (a local interbreeding group of individuals of the same species sharing a common gene pool) is the basic fundamental unit of biological evolution (natural selection acts upon individuals, but populations evolve over time via allele frequency changes).

जैविक विकास की मूलभूत कार्यात्मक इकाई 'आबादी / जनसंख्या' (Population) होती है (प्राकृतिक चयन व्यक्ति पर कार्य करता है, परंतु विकास जनसंख्या स्तर पर होता है)।

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1012📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Hydroelectric Projects of J&K (Salal)

Salal Hydroelectric Project constructed on the river Chenab is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

The 690 MW Salal Hydroelectric Power Station (operated by NHPC) is built across the Chenab River near Reasi in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.

चिनाब नदी पर निर्मित सलाल जलविद्युत परियोजना जम्मू और कश्मीर के 'रियासी' (Reasi) जिले में स्थित है।

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1013📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)National Current Affairs Renaming

The Government of India has decided to rename the capital city of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Port Blair, as:

Explanation

On 13 September 2024, Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced that Port Blair, the capital of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, has been renamed 'Sri Vijaya Puram' to honor the historical naval role of the Chola Empire.

सितंबर 2024 में केंद्र सरकार ने अंडमान और निकोबार की राजधानी पोर्ट ब्लेयर का नाम बदलकर 'श्री विजय पुरम' (Sri Vijaya Puram) कर दिया है।

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1014📚General Science & EnvironmentSoil Pollution & Acid Rain

Which among the following is a major cause of soil pollution and acidification?

Explanation

Acid Rain (containing dissolved nitric and sulfuric acids from

SO_2

and

NO_x

emissions) causes severe soil acidification, leaching essential nutrient cations (

Ca^{2+}, Mg^{2+}

) and mobilizing toxic aluminum.

मृदा प्रदूषण और अम्लीकरण का प्रमुख कारण 'अम्लीय वर्षा' (Acid Rain) है।

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1015📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)World Geography (Prime Meridian)

The 0-degree Meridian passing through Greenwich, London is known as the:

Explanation

The

0^\circ

longitude reference line is officially designated as the Prime Meridian, serving as the international baseline for measuring longitude and global time zones.

ग्रीनविच से होकर गुजरने वाली शून्य डिग्री (

0^\circ

) देशांतर रेखा को 'प्रधान मध्याह्न रेखा' (Prime Meridian) कहा जाता है।

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1016📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Fundamental Rights)

How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed to Indian citizens under Part III of the Constitution?

Explanation

The Indian Constitution currently guarantees Six Fundamental Rights: 1. Right to Equality, 2. Right to Freedom, 3. Right against Exploitation, 4. Right to Freedom of Religion, 5. Cultural and Educational Rights, and 6. Right to Constitutional Remedies. (Right to Property was deleted as a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment in 1978).

भारतीय संविधान द्वारा नागरिकों को वर्तमान में '6 मौलिक अधिकार' (6 Fundamental Rights) प्रदान किए गए हैं।

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1017📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Swaran Singh Committee)

Which of the following committees suggested the incorporation of Fundamental Duties into the Indian Constitution?

Explanation

The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, constituted in 1976 by the Government of India, recommended the inclusion of a dedicated chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.

संविधान में मौलिक कर्तव्यों को शामिल करने की सिफारिश 'सरदार स्वर्ण सिंह समिति' (Swaran Singh Committee / 1976) ने की थी।

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1018📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (42nd Amendment)

The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution by which Constitutional Amendment?

Explanation

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Part IVA and Article 51A into the Constitution of India, introducing 10 Fundamental Duties (an 11th duty was added later by the 86th Amendment in 2002).

मौलिक कर्तव्यों को संविधान में '42वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम 1976' (42nd Amendment) द्वारा जोड़ा गया था।

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1019📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Economic Sectors (Secondary Sector)

The _______ covers economic activities in which natural raw materials are transformed into finished manufactured goods through industrial processes:

Explanation

The Secondary Sector (Industrial/Manufacturing Sector) encompasses economic activities where primary raw materials (agricultural crops, minerals, timber) are processed, manufactured, and converted into finished goods.

वह क्षेत्र जिसमें प्राकृतिक उत्पादों को विनिर्माण के माध्यम से अन्य रूपों में परिवर्तित किया जाता है, 'द्वितीयक क्षेत्र' (Secondary Sector / औद्योगिक क्षेत्र) कहलाता है।

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1020📚Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsWorkplace Communication

What is the primary fundamental purpose of communication in an organization?

Explanation

The foundational and primary purpose of communication is 'To Inform'—transmitting accurate data, instructions, and messages to create shared understanding.

संचार (Communication) का प्राथमिक और मूलभूत उद्देश्य 'जानकारी देना / सूचित करना' (To inform) होता है।

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1021📚Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsQuality Certification (BIS Hallmark)

Which certification mark is legally required for gold jewellery sold in India to certify purity?

Explanation

BIS Hallmarking (certifying purity with the triangular BIS logo, fineness purity mark, and 6-digit HUID code) is mandatory for gold jewellery sold in India.

भारत में सोने के आभूषणों की शुद्धता प्रमाणित करने के लिए 'BIS हॉलमार्क' (BIS hallmark) अनिवार्य है।

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1022📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Hydroelectric Projects of J&K

Salal Hydroelectric Project constructed on river Chenab is located in the ________ district of Jammu and Kashmir:

Explanation

The Salal Hydroelectric Power Station (690 MW), built on the Chenab River, is located near Reasi in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.

चिनाब नदी पर निर्मित सलाल जलविद्युत परियोजना जम्मू और कश्मीर के 'रियासी' (Reasi) जिले में स्थित है।

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1023📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Current Affairs Renaming 2024

Government of India has decided to rename the capital of Andaman & Nicobar Islands (Port Blair) as:

Explanation

In September 2024, the Union Government officially renamed Port Blair, the capital city of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, to 'Sri Vijaya Puram' to honor the historic role of the islands in the freedom struggle and Chola naval history.

सितंबर 2024 में केंद्र सरकार ने अंडमान एवं निकोबार की राजधानी पोर्ट ब्लेयर का नाम बदलकर 'श्री विजय पुरम' (Sri Vijaya Puram) कर दिया। सही विकल्प B है।

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1024📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeLCM & HCF Formula

The L.C.M. of two numbers is 14560 and their H.C.F. is 13. If one of them is 416, the other is:

Explanation

Using the fundamental identity

\text{Product of two numbers} = \text{HCF} \times \text{LCM}

:

\text{Other number} = \frac{\text{HCF} \times \text{LCM}}{\text{Given number}} = \frac{13 \times 14560}{416} = \frac{14560}{32} = 455

. Choice B.

सूत्र: पहली संख्या

\times

दूसरी संख्या

= \text{HCF} \times \text{LCM}

। दूसरी संख्या

= \frac{13 \times 14560}{416} = 455

। सही विकल्प B है।

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1025📚General Science & EnvironmentSoil Pollution & Acid Rain

Which among the following is a direct cause of soil acidification and pollution?

Explanation

Acid Rain (containing dissolved sulfuric acid

H_2SO_4

and nitric acid

HNO_3

from

SO_2

and

NO_x

emissions) leaches essential plant nutrients, increases soil acidity, and releases toxic aluminum ions into the soil.

मृदा प्रदूषण और मिट्टी के अम्लीकरण का मुख्य कारण 'अम्लीय वर्षा' (Acid Rain) है।

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1026📚Indian Polity, History & GeographyIndian Polity (Fundamental Rights)

How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed in the Indian Constitution?

Explanation

Originally there were 7 Fundamental Rights, but the Right to Property (Article 31) was omitted by the 44th Amendment in 1978, leaving currently 6 Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35).

भारतीय संविधान में वर्तमान में कुल '6' मौलिक अधिकार (Fundamental Rights) प्रदत्त हैं।

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1027📚Indian Polity, History & GeographyRight to Equality (Articles 14-18)

According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following rights is NOT included in the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)?

Explanation

Right to Equality includes: Equality before Law (Art 14), Prohibition of discrimination (Art 15), Equality of opportunity in public employment (Art 16), and Abolition of untouchability (Art 17). The concept of 'Absolute equality' does not exist in constitutional jurisprudence because reasonable classification is permitted.

समानता के अधिकार में 'पूर्ण समानता' (Absolute equality) शामिल नहीं है; विधि के समक्ष समानता, अवसर की समानता और अस्पृश्यता उन्मूलन शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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1028📚Indian Polity, History & GeographyFundamental Duties (Swaran Singh Committee)

Which of the following committees suggested the incorporation of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

Explanation

The Swaran Singh Committee (set up in 1976) recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India.

भारतीय संविधान में मौलिक कर्तव्यों को शामिल करने की सिफारिश 'स्वर्ण सिंह समिति' (Swaran Singh Committee / 1976) ने की थी।

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1029📚Indian Polity, History & GeographyConstitutional Amendments (42nd Amendment)

The Fundamental Duties were included in the Indian Constitution by which of the following Constitutional Amendments?

Explanation

Fundamental Duties were added to Part IV-A of the Constitution under Article 51A by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

मौलिक कर्तव्यों को '42वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1976' द्वारा संविधान के भाग IV-A में जोड़ा गया था।

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1030📚Indian Polity, History & GeographySectors of Economy (Secondary Sector)

The ________ sector covers economic activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing associated with industrial activity:

Explanation

The Secondary Sector includes industrial and manufacturing activities that process raw agricultural or mineral materials from the primary sector into finished goods.

प्राकृतिक उत्पादों को विनिर्माण प्रणाली के माध्यम से अन्य रूपों में बदलने वाली आर्थिक गतिविधि 'द्वितीयक क्षेत्र' (Secondary Sector / विनिर्माण) कहलाती है।

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1031📚Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCommunication Skills

What is the primary fundamental purpose of communication?

Explanation

The foundational and primary purpose of communication is 'to inform'—transmitting information, ideas, and knowledge from a sender to a receiver to establish mutual understanding.

संचार का प्राथमिक और मूलभूत उद्देश्य 'सूचना देना या सूचित करना' (To inform) होता है।

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1032📚Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCommunication Cycle Elements

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental element of the communication cycle?

Explanation

The essential elements of the communication cycle are: Sender, Encoding, Message, Channel/Medium, Receiver, Decoding, and Feedback. 'Time' is an external environmental variable, not a core structural element.

संचार चक्र के मुख्य तत्वों में प्रेषक (Sender), माध्यम (Channel), संदेश और प्राप्तकर्ता (Receiver) होते हैं; 'समय' (Time) इसका तत्व नहीं है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1033📚Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCertification Marks (Hallmark)

Which certification mark is mandatory for gold jewellery in India?

Explanation

The BIS Hallmark is the mandatory purity certification system established by the Bureau of Indian Standards to certify the fineness and purity of gold and silver jewellery in India.

भारत में सोने के आभूषणों की शुद्धता प्रमाणित करने के लिए 'बीआईएस हॉलमार्क' (BIS hallmark) अनिवार्य है।

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1034📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsGovernment Schemes & Initiatives

Which initiative was launched by the Government of India to promote innovation and entrepreneurship?

Explanation

The 'Startup India' initiative was launched on 16 January 2016 by the Government of India to build a strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation, startups, and sustainable entrepreneurship.

भारत सरकार द्वारा नवाचार और उद्यमिता को बढ़ावा देने के लिए 'स्टार्ट-अप इंडिया' (Start-Up India) योजना शुरू की गई थी।

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1035📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsPhysical Geography (Ganga Basin)

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Ganga Plain is the most densely populated part of India.
Reason (R): Ganga is the least harnessed river in India.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Assertion (A) is TRUE: The Indo-Gangetic plain is the most densely populated physiographic division of India due to fertile alluvial soil, perennial water, and flat topography. Reason (R) is FALSE: The Ganga river basin is among the most extensively dammed, canalized, and heavily harnessed river systems in India. Correct: A is true, but R is false (Choice C).

अभिकथन (A) सत्य है क्योंकि गंगा का मैदान अत्यधिक उपजाऊ और सघन आबादी वाला है; कारण (R) असत्य है क्योंकि गंगा नदी भारत में सबसे अधिक दोहित और उपयोग की जाने वाली नदियों में से एक है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1036📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsAgricultural Crop Producers Matching

Match Column - X with Column - Y and select the correct answer:
Column - X (Agriculture products):
1. Gram (Chickpea)
2. Cardamom
3. Pineapple

Column - Y (Foremost producer):
I. Madhya Pradesh
II. West Bengal
III. Kerala

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

1 -> I (Gram/Pulses: Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer in India), 2 -> III (Cardamom: Kerala produces the largest volume in the Cardamom Hills), 3 -> II (Pineapple: West Bengal is among the leading producers, especially the North Bengal Siliguri belt). Correct match: 1-I, 2-III, 3-II (Choice B).

1-I (चना - मध्य प्रदेश), 2-III (इलायची - केरल), 3-II (अनानास - पश्चिम बंगाल)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1037📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsDemographics of Ladakh

The Ladakhi Buddhist community, which forms a significant portion of Ladakh's population, belongs to which category for reservation purposes in India?

Explanation

The indigenous communities of Ladakh (both Ladakhi Buddhists and Balti/Purig Muslims) are officially notified and recognized as Scheduled Tribes (ST) under the Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989.

लद्दाख का बौद्ध समुदाय भारत में आरक्षण के उद्देश्य से 'अनुसूचित जनजाति' (Scheduled Tribes / ST) श्रेणी के अंतर्गत आता है।

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1038📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsNational Education Policy 2020

Which of the following is the fundamental principle of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020?
I. Promoting self-assessment (students actively evaluate their own learning progress)
II. Promoting multilingualism
III. Respecting diversity and the local context in all curriculum, pedagogy, and policy
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

NEP 2020 is founded on core guiding principles including promoting self-assessment and holistic 360-degree reporting (I), multilingualism and mother-tongue instruction (II), and respecting cultural diversity and local context in curriculum design (III)

\implies

All the statements are correct. Choice D.

राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा नीति 2020 के मूलभूत सिद्धांतों में स्व-मूल्यांकन (I), बहुभाषावाद (II) और स्थानीय संदर्भ व विविधता का सम्मान (III) सभी शामिल हैं (All the statements are correct)।

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1039📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsDefense & Current Affairs 2020

In 2020, which major security incident occurred in Ladakh that drew international attention and increased tensions between India and China?

Explanation

On the night of 15 June 2020, a fierce physical clash occurred between Indian and Chinese PLA troops in the Galwan Valley in eastern Ladakh along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).

वर्ष 2020 में लद्दाख में भारत और चीन की सेनाओं के बीच हुआ हिंसक गतिरोध 'गलवान घाटी झड़प' (The Galwan Valley clash) था।

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1040📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndustrial Hubs of India

Which state and city in India are globally known for being major manufacturers and exporters of sports goods?

Explanation

Jalandhar in Punjab (along with Meerut in Uttar Pradesh) is India's premier manufacturing and export hub for high-quality sports goods, cricket bats, and athletic equipment.

भारत में खेल के सामान के सबसे बड़े निर्माता और निर्यातक के रूप में 'जालंधर, पंजाब' (Punjab, Jalandhar) विश्व प्रसिद्ध है।

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1041📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeLeap Year Rules

Which one of the following is NOT a leap year?

Explanation

Centurial years must be divisible by 400 to be leap years (800 and 1200 are leap years). Non-centurial years must be divisible by 4:

2004 \div 4 = 501

(leap year), whereas

1618

is not divisible by 4 (

1618 \div 4 = 404.5

), so 1618 is NOT a leap year. Choice C.

1618 चार से पूर्णतः विभाजित नहीं होता है (

1618 \div 4 = 404.5

), अतः यह लीप वर्ष नहीं है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1042📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeData Interpretation (Bar Chart)

Based on the GDP composition chart: If Pakistan's total GDP is Rs. 10,000 crores, what portion of the GDP is contributed by the manufacturing sector (which stands at 20%)?

Explanation

From the bar chart, Pakistan's manufacturing sector comprises

20\%

. Contribution

= 20\% \text{ of Rs. } 10,000\text{ crores} = 0.20 \times 10,000 = \text{Rs. } 2000\text{ crores}

. Choice B.

चार्ट के अनुसार विनिर्माण क्षेत्र का हिस्सा

20\%

है।

10,000

करोड़ का

20\% = 2000

करोड़ रुपये। सही विकल्प B है।

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1043📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceNetwork Security & Firewalls

Consider the following statements on 'firewall' used on computer systems:
I. It controls and monitors the data traffic flow between inside and outside network
II. It protects and secures the inside network from any outside unauthorized network intrusions
III. It can be implemented in software or hardware or a combination of both.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct: A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network packet traffic based on defined security rules (I), establishes a barrier protecting internal private networks from unauthorized external threats (II), and can be deployed as dedicated hardware appliances, host software, or hybrid combinations (III)

\implies

I, II and III. Choice D.

फायरवॉल नेटवर्क ट्रैफिक की निगरानी करता है (I), अनधिकृत पहुंच से नेटवर्क की रक्षा करता है (II) और यह सॉफ्टवेयर तथा हार्डवेयर दोनों रूपों में हो सकता है (III)

\implies

I, II and III सही हैं।

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1044📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceCyber Security & Sniffing

The process of monitoring and capturing all data packets that are passing through a computer network is known as:

Explanation

Packet Sniffing (or network packet analysis) is the technique of intercepting, monitoring, and logging raw data packets transmitted across a network using software sniffers like Wireshark.

कंप्यूटर नेटवर्क से गुजरने वाले डेटा पैकेटों की निगरानी और उन्हें कैप्चर करने की प्रक्रिया को 'स्निफिंग' (Sniffing / Packet sniffing) कहा जाता है।

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1045📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceWeb Browsers & Security Features

Match the following web browser features with their correct descriptions:
Column - X:
1. Incognito Mode
2. Automatic File Compression
3. Bookmarking
4. Built-in Antivirus protection

Column - Y:
I. Saves favourite websites for easy access
II. Browses without saving history or cookies
III. Managed by download managers, not browsers
IV. Provided by antivirus software, not browsers

Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

1 -> II (Incognito/Private mode browses without recording local browsing history, cache, or cookies), 2 -> III (Automatic file compression is managed by external download utilities), 3 -> I (Bookmarking stores quick shortcut links to favorite webpages), 4 -> IV (Comprehensive malware defense is provided by dedicated antivirus software). Correct match: 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV (Choice B).

1-II (इनकॉग्निटो मोड - बिना इतिहास व कुकीज के ब्राउजिंग), 2-III (फाइल संपीड़न), 3-I (बुकमार्किंग - पसंदीदा वेबसाइट सहेजना), 4-IV (एंटीवायरस सुरक्षा)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1046📚General EnglishAnalogies

Complete the analogy: Bird : Nest ::

Explanation

Relationship of animal to its self-constructed home/dwelling: A Bird builds a Nest to live in; a Beaver builds a Dam/lodge to inhabit. Choice B.

सादृश्य संबंध: जैसे पक्षी रहने के लिए 'घोंसला' (Nest) बनाता है, वैसे ही ऊदबिलाव (Beaver) 'डैम/बांध' (Dam) बनाता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1047📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceWorld Capitals

The capital of Syria is:

Explanation

Damascus is the capital and historical city of Syria. (Dushanbe is capital of Tajikistan; Kyiv is capital of Ukraine).

सीरिया की राजधानी 'दमिश्क' (Damascus) है।

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1048📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceUN Security Council

Which of the following countries holds permanent Veto Power in the UN Security Council (UNSC)?

Explanation

The five permanent members (P5) of the UN Security Council with veto power are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.

संयुक्त राष्ट्र सुरक्षा परिषद (UNSC) में वीटो पावर रखने वाले 5 स्थायी सदस्यों में 'चीन' (China) शामिल है।

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1049📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceRivers and Dams of J&K

The Uri Hydroelectric Dam is constructed on which river in Jammu & Kashmir?

Explanation

The Uri-I and Uri-II Hydroelectric Power Stations (generating 480 MW and 240 MW) are built on the Jhelum River in the Baramulla district of Jammu & Kashmir.

उरी जलविद्युत परियोजना जम्मू और कश्मीर के बारामूला जिले में 'झेलम' (Jhelum) नदी पर स्थित है।

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1050📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceRivers of J&K (Kishanganga)

The Neelum River in the Kashmir region is also known in India as the:

Explanation

The river known as Kishanganga in Jammu & Kashmir flows into Pakistan-administered Kashmir where it is called the Neelum River before joining the Jhelum River at Muzaffarabad.

कश्मीर क्षेत्र की नीलम नदी को भारत में 'किशनगंगा' (Kishanganga) नदी के नाम से जाना जाता है।

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1051📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & Digital ElectronicsOperating Systems & Storage

The process of dividing a magnetic disk into tracks and sectors during disk preparation is known as:

Explanation

Disk Formatting (low-level/high-level formatting) is the process of preparing a data storage device such as a hard disk drive by dividing its magnetic surface into concentric tracks and sectors to install a file system.

स्टोरेज डिस्क को ट्रैक्स और सेक्टर्स में विभाजित करने की प्रक्रिया 'फॉर्मेटिंग' (Formatting) कहलाती है।

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1052📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & Digital ElectronicsCyber Security Fundamentals

Who is popularly known as the 'Father of Computer / Cyber Security' for formulating the foundational principle of cryptographic security?

Explanation

August Kerckhoffs is widely recognized as a founding father of modern cryptography and cybersecurity for Kerckhoffs's Principle (1883), which dictates that a cryptographic system must remain secure even if everything about the system, except the key, is public knowledge. (Bob Thomas wrote Creeper). Choice B.

क्रिप्टोग्राफी और साइबर सुरक्षा का जनक 'ऑगस्ट करकॉफ्स' (August Kerckhoffs / करकॉफ्स सिद्धांत) को माना जाता है।

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1053📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & Digital ElectronicsMS Office (Excel)

What is the smallest individual addressable unit of a worksheet in Microsoft Excel?

Explanation

A Cell (the rectangular intersection of a vertical column and a horizontal row, e.g., A1) is the fundamental smallest unit of data entry in an MS Excel worksheet.

एमएस एक्सेल वर्कशीट में डेटा प्रविष्टि की सबसे छोटी इकाई 'सेल' (Cell) होती है।

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1054📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering (AC vs DC)

Which of the following statements according to fundamentals of electrical energy is INCORRECT about alternating current (AC)?

Explanation

Statement A is completely incorrect: Direct Current (DC) has zero frequency (

f = 0

), whereas Alternating Current has a periodic oscillating frequency (e.g. 50 Hz or 60 Hz). Choice A.

प्रत्यावर्ती धारा (AC) के बारे में कथन A गलत है क्योंकि AC की आवृत्ति शून्य नहीं होती (भारत में 50 Hz होती है; DC की आवृत्ति शून्य होती है)।

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1055📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringMeasuring Instruments (Swamping Resistance)

In moving-coil meters, a swamping resistance (made of Manganin with a nearly zero temperature coefficient) is connected in series with the meter coil to compensate for:

Explanation

A Swamping Resistance (composed of Manganin) is connected in series with the copper galvanometer coil to minimize and compensate for measuring errors caused by ambient temperature changes in coil resistance. Choice A (I Only).

मापन उपकरणों में स्वैम्पिंग प्रतिरोध का उपयोग 'तापमान में परिवर्तन के कारण होने वाली त्रुटि' (Error due to temperature variations) को दूर करने के लिए किया जाता है।

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1056📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringPMMC Measuring Instruments

A high frequency AC signal is applied to a Permanent Magnet Moving Coil (PMMC) instrument. If the RMS value of the AC signal is 2V, the reading of the instrument will be:

Explanation

A PMMC instrument responds exclusively to the average DC value of current (

I_{avg}

). When alternating current of commercial or high frequency is applied, the mechanical inertia of the moving system cannot follow the rapid reversals, resulting in a net deflection of Zero. Choice D.

PMMC उपकरण केवल डीसी (औसत मान) मापता है; उच्च आवृत्ति एसी सिग्नल लगाने पर जड़त्व के कारण इसका पाठ्यांक 'शून्य' (Zero) होगा।

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1057📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering & DFMA

Which engineering methodology formally recognises and optimizes the inherent interrelationships between product design and industrial manufacturing?

Explanation

Design for Manufacture and Assembly (DFMA) is the integrated concurrent engineering design methodology focused on streamlining component manufacturing ease and rapid assembly.

उत्पाद डिजाइन और विनिर्माण के अंतर्संबंधों को अनुकूलित करने वाली प्रक्रिया को 'DFMA' (Design for manufacture and assembly) कहा जाता है।

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1058📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringCommunication Systems Elements

How many basic functional elements are essential for any communication system?

Explanation

Every electrical communication system fundamentally consists of exactly 3 essential elements: 1. Transmitter, 2. Communication Channel/Medium, and 3. Receiver. Choice B.

किसी भी संचार प्रणाली के 3 आवश्यक मूलभूत तत्व होते हैं: 1. प्रेषक (Transmitter), 2. माध्यम (Channel), और 3. प्राप्तकर्ता (Receiver)।

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1059📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & Digital ElectronicsMicroprocessor Machine Cycles

Which of the following represents the correct fundamental machine cycle sequence in microprocessor instruction execution?

Explanation

In standard microprocessor architecture (like 8085), the execution of instructions initiates with Opcode Fetch, followed by Memory Read/Write or I/O Read/Write machine cycles as required by the instruction. Choice A.

माइक्रोप्रोसेसर में बुनियादी मशीन चक्रों का सही क्रम ऑपकोड फेच (Opcode fetch) से शुरू होता है, उसके बाद मेमोरी रीड/राइट और आई/ओ ऑपरेशन्स आते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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1060📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationGravimetric Analysis Principles

Which of the following statements are true regarding gravimetric analysis?
I. The precipitate must be filtered and washed to remove soluble impurities.
II. The precipitate should be weighed before it is dried or ignited to avoid loss of mass.
III. The sample should be in a homogeneous form to ensure accurate results.
IV. The filtration process does not affect the accuracy of the results as long as the precipitate is large.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct: Gravimetric analysis requires thorough washing of the precipitate to eliminate adsorbed and occluded soluble coprecipitates (I), and the sample solution must be homogeneous to ensure complete, stoichiometric precipitation (III). Statements II and IV are false because precipitates must always be dried or ignited to a constant mass before weighing (not weighed wet), and improper filtration technique directly impairs quantitative recovery. Choice A.

कथन I और III सही हैं: भारमितीय विश्लेषण (Gravimetric analysis) में अवक्षेप को घुलनशील अशुद्धियां हटाने के लिए धोया जाता है (I) और सटीक परिणाम के लिए नमूना समांगी होना चाहिए (III)। अवक्षेप को सुखाए बिना कभी नहीं तौला जाता। सही विकल्प A है।

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1061📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationGravimetric Analysis Methodology

In gravimetric analysis, the chemical substance to be determined is quantitatively converted into:

Explanation

The fundamental principle of gravimetric analysis is the quantitative isolation and conversion of the analyte into an insoluble precipitate that can be ignited into a pure, stable, unreactive compound of known definite chemical composition for weighing.

भारमितीय विश्लेषण में मापे जाने वाले पदार्थ को एक 'स्थिर और शुद्ध यौगिक' (A stable and pure compound) में परिवर्तित किया जाता है जिसका निश्चित रासायनिक सूत्र होता है।

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1062📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationElectrochemical Analysis (Potentiometry)

The analytical titrations in which equivalence end points are determined by measuring the electromotive force (emf) of an indicator-reference electrode cell are called:

Explanation

Potentiometric Titrations determine the stoichiometric endpoint by measuring the continuous potential difference (emf in millivolts) between a working indicator electrode and a reference electrode as a function of titrant volume.

विद्युत वाहक बल (emf) के मापन द्वारा अंतिम बिंदु ज्ञात करने वाली अनुमापन विधि 'पोटेंशियोमेट्रिक अनुमापन' (Potentiometric titrations) कहलाती है।

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1063📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationSpectroscopy (Atomic Absorption)

Which of the following instrumental spectroscopic techniques is most widely suitable for quantitatively estimating trace levels of metal cations (parts per million or billion)?

Explanation

Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS) is the benchmark analytical technique for measuring low trace and ultra-trace concentrations of elemental cations in biological, environmental, and geological samples.

धातु धनायनों के अत्यंत सूक्ष्म (ट्रेस स्तर) मात्रात्मक निर्धारण के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त तकनीक 'परमाणु अवशोषण स्पेक्ट्रोस्कोपी' (AAS - Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy) है।

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1064📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationFlame Photometry Principles

What is the fundamental operating physical principle of Flame Photometry (Flame Emission Spectroscopy)?

Explanation

Flame Photometry relies upon thermal excitation of metal atoms in a flame; when excited valence electrons return to their ground electronic energy levels, they emit characteristic wavelengths of light with intensity proportional to concentration.

फ्लेम फोटोमेट्री का मूल सिद्धांत 'ज्वाला में उत्तेजित परमाणुओं द्वारा प्रकाश का उत्सर्जन' (Emission of light by atoms in a flame) है।

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1065📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationRedox Titrations Primary Standards

Why is potassium dichromate (

K_2Cr_2O_7

) preferred over sodium dichromate (

Na_2Cr_2O_7

) as a primary standard in analytical redox titrations?

Explanation

Potassium dichromate can be prepared in exceptionally high purity, dried easily at

150^\circ\text{C}

, and is stable and Non-Hygroscopic (does not absorb atmospheric moisture), making it an ideal primary standard. Sodium dichromate is highly deliquescent/hygroscopic and cannot be weighed accurately.

पोटैशियम डाइक्रोमेट (

K_2Cr_2O_7

) गैर-आर्द्रताग्राही (Less hygroscopic) और अत्यधिक शुद्ध होता है, जबकि सोडियम डाइक्रोमेट नमी सोख लेता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1066📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationAcid-Base Volumetric Titration

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the volumetric estimation of sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

) by acid-base titration?
I. Sodium hydroxide is used as the titrant
II. The indicator used is phenolphthalein
III. The endpoint is reached when the solution becomes colorless
IV. The titration is an acid-base neutralization titration
Choose correct option:

Explanation

Statements I, II, and IV are correct: Sulfuric acid is titrated against standard Sodium Hydroxide titrant (I) using Phenolphthalein indicator (II) in an Acid-Base neutralization reaction (IV). Statement III is incorrect because when titrating acid in the flask with base from the burette, the solution turns from colorless to a faint permanent pink at the equivalence endpoint. Choice C (I, II, IV).

कथन I, II और IV सही हैं (NaOH मानक अनुमापक है, फेनोल्फथेलिन सूचक है और यह अम्ल-क्षार उदासीनीकरण है; अंतिम बिंदु पर रंगहीन विलयन हल्का गुलाबी बनता है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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1067📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationPrimary Standards

Which of the following chemicals is standardly utilized as a high-purity primary standard in gravimetric and volumetric analytical standardization?

Explanation

Potassium Dichromate (

K_2Cr_2O_7

) is an exemplary primary standard because it can be obtained in

>99.9\%

purity, is stable, non-hygroscopic, resistant to photo-oxidation, and can be dried to constant mass at

150^\circ\text{C}

. Choice C.

प्राथमिक मानक (Primary standard) के रूप में 'पोटैशियम डाइक्रोमेट' (

K_2Cr_2O_7

) का व्यापक उपयोग किया जाता है क्योंकि यह अत्यधिक शुद्ध और स्थिर होता है।

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1068📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyCellular Metabolism (Glycolysis)

In a living cell, which of the following biochemical reactions occurs FIRST during the enzymatic breakdown of glucose in glycolysis?

Explanation

The initial priming reaction of glycolysis is the irreversible phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate catalyzed by hexokinase/glucokinase, which consumes one molecule of ATP (

ATP -> ADP

). Choice A.

ग्लाइकोलिसिस का पहला चरण ग्लूकोज का फॉस्फोरिलीकरण है, जिसमें 'ग्लूकोज में फॉस्फेट समूह जोड़ने के लिए एक ATP खर्च होता है' (Hexokinase द्वारा)।

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1069📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMicrobial Taxonomy (Archaea vs Bacteria)

Which of the following biochemical and structural features fundamentally distinguishes Archaea from Bacteria?

Explanation

Archaea possess distinctive cell membrane lipids composed of branched isoprenoid phytanyl chains attached to glycerol by Ether Linkages (in contrast to Bacteria and Eukarya, which feature unbranched fatty acids attached by Ester Linkages). Choice C.

आर्किया (Archaea) और बैक्टीरिया में मुख्य अंतर आर्किया की कोशिका झिल्ली में 'ईथर-लिंक्ड शाखित लिपिड' (Unique membrane lipids) का पाया जाना है।

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1070📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMolecular Biology (PCR Cycles)

In the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), which of the following is the primary purpose of the initial high-temperature thermal cycling step (usually 94–98°C)?

Explanation

The initial step at 94–98°C breaks the hydrogen bonds holding the complementary base pairs together, Denaturing the double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) into single strands (ssDNA) to allow primer annealing. Choice B.

पीसीआर (PCR) में 94–98°C के उच्च तापमान का उद्देश्य 'डीएनए के दोनों धागों को अलग करना (विकृतीकरण / Denaturation)' है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1071📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyEvolutionary Biology (Natural Selection)

According to evolutionary biology, which of the following conditions is NOT fundamentally necessary for Darwinian natural selection to operate within a population?

Explanation

Natural selection operates continuously even in a totally stable, unchanging environment through Stabilizing Selection (purifying selection that culls deleterious variants and preserves the optimal phenotype). Thus, constant Environmental Changes are NOT an absolute necessity. Variation, differential reproduction, and heritability are strictly necessary. Choice C.

प्राकृतिक चयन के लिए विविधता, अति-प्रजनन और आनुवंशिकता अनिवार्य हैं; लेकिन 'पर्यावरणीय परिवर्तन' (Environmental changes) हमेशा अनिवार्य नहीं हैं क्योंकि स्थिर वातावरण में भी स्थिरिकारी चयन होता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1072📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyProtein Synthesis (tRNA Role)

The primary biological role of transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules during protein translation in ribosomes is to:

Explanation

Transfer RNA (tRNA) acts as the physical adaptor molecule: its anticodon loop recognizes the triplet codon on mRNA while its 3' CCA acceptor stem carries the corresponding specific Amino Acid to the ribosomal A-site. Choice B.

प्रोटीन अनुवाद में tRNA का मुख्य कार्य 'mRNA कोडन के अनुसार विशिष्ट अमीनो एसिड को राइबोसोम तक लाना' (Bring amino acids to ribosome) है।

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1073📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeAtmospheric Chemistry (Acid Rain)

Which atmospheric air pollutants are most directly responsible for causing acidic precipitation (Acid Rain)?

Explanation

Acid rain forms when emissions of Sulfur Dioxide (

SO_2

) and Nitrogen Oxides (

NO_x

) react with atmospheric water, oxygen, and oxidants to form dilute sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

) and nitric acid (

HNO_3

). Choice B.

अम्लीय वर्षा (Acid rain) के लिए मुख्य रूप से 'सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड (

SO_2

) और नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड (

NO_x

)' जिम्मेदार होते हैं।

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1074📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeMarine Pollution Remediation

Which physical and mechanical method is most commonly deployed immediately to contain and remove floating oil from the water surface during marine oil spill remediation?

Explanation

Floating containment Booms are deployed across water surfaces to enclose the spreading oil slick, followed by mechanical Skimmers that suction and recover the floating hydrocarbon layer from the water. Choice B.

समुद्र में तेल रिसाव (Oil spill) को नियंत्रित करने और हटाने के लिए 'बूम्स और स्किमर्स' (Skimming and booms) का सबसे व्यापक उपयोग किया जाता है।

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1075📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeForest Management & Conservation

Which of the following statements about forest management and conservation are true?
I. Sustainable forest management includes balancing forest resource extraction with conservation efforts.
II. Deforestation for urban expansion always leads to long-term ecological damage.
III. Reforestation programs can help restore degraded ecosystems and improve biodiversity.
IV. Forestry practices that emphasize monoculture plantations are more beneficial for biodiversity.
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct: Sustainable forestry balances sustainable yield harvesting with ecological preservation (I), and multi-species ecological reforestation restores soil, watersheds, and biodiversity (III). Statement IV is false because monoculture tree plantations support severely impoverished biodiversity compared to natural forests. Choice A (I, III).

कथन I और III सही हैं (सतत वन प्रबंधन निष्कर्षण और संरक्षण में संतुलन बनाता है और पुनर्वनीकरण जैव विविधता को बहाल करता है; मोनोकल्चर बागान जैव विविधता के लिए हानिकारक होते हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1076📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiogeochemical Cycles

Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles are true?
I. The nitrogen cycle involves the biological conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into forms that plants can assimilate.
II. The phosphorus cycle involves the continuous movement of phosphorus between the atmosphere and terrestrial ecosystems.
III. In the carbon cycle, carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere during cellular respiration and fossil fuel combustion.
IV. The sulfur cycle does not involve any biological processes.
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct: Diazotrophs convert

N_2

into plant-absorbable ammonium/nitrates (I), and aerobic respiration and combustion oxidize carbon to

CO_2

(III). Statement II is false because the phosphorus cycle is a strictly sedimentary cycle with virtually no gaseous atmospheric component. Statement IV is false because bacteria (Thiobacillus, sulfate reducers) play central biological roles in the sulfur cycle. Choice B (I, III).

कथन I और III सही हैं (नाइट्रोजन चक्र पौधों के लिए उपयोगी रूप बनाता है और श्वसन/दहन में

CO_2

निकलती है; फास्फोरस का कोई गैसीय वायुमंडलीय रूप नहीं होता और सल्फर चक्र में बैक्टीरिया भाग लेते हैं)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1077📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Energetics & Nutrient Cycling

Which of the following statements about ecosystem trophic structure and energetics are true?
I. An ecosystem fundamentally includes both biotic and abiotic components interacting together.
II. Energy flows through an ecosystem in a one-way, non-cyclic direction.
III. In an ecosystem, mineral nutrients are recycled continuously, while energy is not recycled.
IV. Primary producers in an ecosystem are typically herbivores.
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

Statements I, II, and III are fundamental ecological laws: Ecosystems comprise biotic and abiotic components (I), energy flows unidirectionally from the sun and dissipates as metabolic heat (II), and biochemical nutrients are recycled biogeochemically while energy is never recycled (III). Statement IV is false because primary producers are autotrophs (photosynthetic plants/algae), whereas herbivores are primary consumers. Choice A (I, II, III).

कथन I, II और III सही हैं (पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में जैविक व अजैविक घटक होते हैं, ऊर्जा का प्रवाह एकदिशीय होता है और पोषक तत्व पुनर्चक्रित होते हैं लेकिन ऊर्जा नहीं; प्राथमिक उत्पादक स्वपोषी पौधे होते हैं, शाकाहारी नहीं)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1078📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMendelian Genetics Concepts

Match the genetic phenomena in Column - I with their descriptions in Column - II:
Column - I:
1. Dominance
2. Codominance
3. Pleiotropy
4. Polygenic inheritance

Column - II:
i. Many genes cumulatively govern a single phenotypic quantitative character
ii. In a heterozygous organism, only one dominant allele expresses its phenotype
iii. In a heterozygous organism, both distinct alleles express themselves fully simultaneously
iv. A single gene influences multiple distinct phenotypic characters

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

1 -> ii (Dominance: dominant allele masks recessive allele in heterozygote), 2 -> iii (Codominance: both alleles express equally, e.g. AB blood group), 3 -> iv (Pleiotropy: one gene has multiple phenotypic effects, e.g. phenylketonuria), 4 -> i (Polygenic inheritance: multiple additive genes control one trait, e.g. human height). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i (Choice B).

1-ii (प्रभाविता - विषमयुग्मजी में केवल एक एलील का प्रकटन), 2-iii (सह-प्रभाविता - दोनों एलील्स का पूर्ण प्रकटन), 3-iv (प्लियोट्रॉपी - एक जीन द्वारा कई लक्षणों का नियंत्रण), 4-i (बहुजीनी वंशागति - कई जीनों द्वारा एक लक्षण का नियंत्रण)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1079📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Services Matching

Match the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment categories of ecosystem services with their illustrative real-world examples:
Column - A (Service Type):
1. Provisioning Service
2. Regulating Service
3. Supporting Service
4. Cultural Service

Column - B (Example):
i. Timber, medicinal plants, and clean freshwater production
ii. Climate regulation and Carbon sequestration by forests and wetlands
iii. Soil formation, primary production, and Nutrient cycling
iv. Ecotourism, recreational, spiritual, and aesthetic inspiration

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

1 -> i (Provisioning: direct material goods harvested from nature like food, timber, and fiber), 2 -> ii (Regulating: ecological buffer benefits including carbon capture, flood moderation, and pollination), 3 -> iii (Supporting: underlying biological processes underpinning all other services like nutrient cycling and soil genesis), 4 -> iv (Cultural: non-material educational and recreation benefits). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).

1-i (प्रावधान सेवा - लकड़ी, भोजन और जल), 2-ii (नियामक सेवा - जलवायु नियमन और कार्बन अवशोषण), 3-iii (सहायक सेवा - पोषक चक्र और मृदा निर्माण), 4-iv (सांस्कृतिक सेवा - इकोटूरिज्म और आध्यात्मिक प्रेरणा)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1080📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserve Zonation

Match the three concentric management zones of a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve with their primary characteristics and authorized activities:
Column - A (Zone):
1. Core Zone
2. Buffer Zone
3. Transition Zone
4. Research / Monitoring Site

Column - B (Characteristics):
i. Strictly protected sanctuary where human economic activity is legally prohibited to preserve wildlife
ii. Surrounds core area where controlled research, educational training, and limited ecotourism are permitted
iii. Outermost flexible area where sustainable agricultural practices, settlements, and local livelihoods take place
iv. Designated field plots dedicated to environmental monitoring and ecological experimentation

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

1 -> i (Core Zone: pristine undisturbed sanctuary dedicated purely to conservation), 2 -> ii (Buffer Zone: strictly regulated ring for research, education, and low-impact tourism), 3 -> iii (Transition Zone: human cooperation area for sustainable development and forestry), 4 -> iv (Research sites). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).

1-i (कोर जोन - पूर्णतः संरक्षित क्षेत्र, मानवीय गतिविधियां प्रतिबंधित), 2-ii (बफर जोन - सीमित अनुसंधान और इकोटूरिज्म), 3-iii (संक्रमण जोन - बस्तियां और सतत कृषि), 4-iv (शोध व निगरानी क्षेत्र)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1081📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeRadiation Biology & Mutagenesis

Consider the following statements regarding ionizing radiation hazards:
Assertion (A): Radioactive environmental pollution can induce severe genetic mutations and chromosomal aberrations in living organisms.
Reason (R): Ionizing radiation deposits high energy that damages DNA molecules by directly and indirectly breaking covalent phosphodiester and hydrogen chemical bonds.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Explanation

Both statements are true and causally explanatory: High-energy ionizing particles (alpha, beta, gamma rays) ionize water to generate reactive hydroxyl radicals and directly cause double-strand DNA breaks and base transversion mutations (R), directly driving permanent somatic malignancies and germline genetic mutations (A). Choice A.

अभिकथन A और कारण R दोनों सही हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है (आयनकारी विकिरण डीएनए के रासायनिक बंधों को तोड़कर गुणसूत्रीय क्षति और उत्परिवर्तन उत्पन्न करता है)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1082📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyChromosomal Theory of Inheritance

Consider the following genetic statements regarding the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance:
Assertion (A): The pairing and separation of homologous pairs of chromosomes during meiosis leads to the segregation of the pair of Mendelian factors (alleles) they carry.
Reason (R): Two alleles of a gene pair are located on similar homologous loci on non-homologous chromosomes.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Explanation

Assertion (A) is correct: Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri established that the segregation of maternal and paternal homologous chromosomes during anaphase-I explains Mendel's Law of Segregation. Reason (R) is incorrect: Allelic pairs of a gene reside at identical loci on Homologous Chromosomes (alleles are never located on non-homologous chromosomes). Choice C (Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect).

अभिकथन (A) सही है कि अर्धसूत्रीविभाजन में गुणसूत्रों का पृथक्करण एलील्स के पृथक्करण का कारण बनता है; परंतु कारण (R) गलत है क्योंकि एक जीन के दोनों एलील 'समजात गुणसूत्रों' (Homologous chromosomes) पर स्थित होते हैं, गैर-समजात पर नहीं। सही विकल्प C है।

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1083📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserve Management Zones

Consider the following statements regarding the zonation architecture of a Biosphere Reserve:
Assertion (A): The core zone of a biosphere reserve strictly prohibits all human destructive resource extraction and commercial activity.
Reason (R): The buffer zone surrounding the core supports sustainable resource practices, training, environmental education, and scientific research.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Explanation

Both statements are factually correct under statutory biosphere reserve guidelines: The core zone is a legally protected inviolate sanctuary with zero human extraction permitted (A), and the surrounding buffer zone accommodates non-destructive activities like research, education, and regulated ecotourism (R). However, Reason R describes the buffer zone rather than providing the functional ecological rationale for why the core itself is strictly protected (which is to preserve baseline genetic diversity undisturbed). Choice B.

कथन A और R दोनों सत्य हैं, लेकिन R, A की सही व्याख्या नहीं है क्योंकि R बफर जोन के कार्यों का वर्णन करता है, कोर जोन के पूर्ण संरक्षण के कारण की व्याख्या नहीं करता। सही विकल्प B है।

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1084📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsBasic Electronics & Circuit Components

Which of the following components is primarily used to control the flow of current in an analog circuit?

Explanation

In analog electronic circuits, a resistor is the fundamental passive two-terminal component specifically designed to introduce electrical resistance, thereby controlling, reducing, and limiting the flow of electric current according to Ohm's law (

I = V/R

).

एनालॉग सर्किट में विद्युत धारा के प्रवाह को नियंत्रित और सीमित करने के लिए मुख्य रूप से प्रतिरोधक (Resistor) का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1085📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsTissue Optics & Biophotonics

Which of the following is NOT a key optical property of tissues?

Explanation

The fundamental optical properties of biological tissue are optical absorption (absorption coefficient

\mu_a

), optical scattering (scattering coefficient

\mu_s

and anisotropy factor

g

), and refractive index/reflection. Permeability is a mechanical or transport property governing fluid and solute flow across membranes, not an optical property.

जैविक ऊतकों के प्रमुख प्रकाशीय गुणों में अवशोषण (Absorption), प्रकीर्णन (Scattering) और परावर्तन (Reflection) शामिल हैं; जबकि पारगम्यता (Permeability) एक द्रव/झिल्ली परिवहन गुण है, प्रकाशीय नहीं। सही विकल्प D है।

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1086📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsOperational Amplifiers & Signal Conditioning

Which of the following statements is true about an operational amplifier (op-amp)?

Explanation

An ideal operational amplifier possesses infinite input impedance and zero output impedance. In practical op-amps (e.g., IC 741), the input impedance is extremely high (megaohms to gigaohms, drawing negligible current) and the output impedance is very low (tens of ohms), ensuring minimal loading effects.

एक ऑपरेशनल एम्पलीफायर (Op-Amp) का इनपुट प्रतिबाधा बहुत उच्च (High input impedance) और आउटपुट प्रतिबाधा बहुत कम (Low output impedance) होता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1087📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsApplied Mathematics (Series Expansions)

Which of the following is the Taylor series expansion of e^z about z = 0?

Explanation

The Taylor (Maclaurin) series expansion of the exponential function

e^z

about

z = 0

is

e^z = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^n}{n!} = 1 + z + \frac{z^2}{2!} + \frac{z^3}{3!} + \dots

, which converges for all

z \in \mathbb{C}

.

z = 0

के परितः

e^z

का टेलर (मैकलॉरिन) श्रेणी प्रसार

\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^n}{n!} = 1 + z + \frac{z^2}{2!} + \dots

होता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1088📚Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementRadiobiology & DNA Damage Mechanisms

Ionizing radiation primarily damages DNA through the formation of:

Explanation

For low-LET radiation (photons and electrons), approximately two-thirds of cellular radiation damage is mediated by indirect action: the radiolysis of cellular water creates reactive oxygen species and free radicals (primarily hydroxyl radicals,

\cdot\text{OH}

) that diffuse and break DNA phosphodiester backbones.

आयनकारी विकिरण मुख्य रूप से जल के रेडियोलिसिस द्वारा फ्री रेडिकल्स (Free radicals - विशेषकर

\cdot\text{OH}

) बनाकर डीएनए को अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से नुकसान पहुंचाता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1089📚Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementRadiobiology & Carcinogenesis

Which type of DNA damage caused by ionizing radiation is more likely to result in cancer?

Explanation

While single-strand breaks and base damages are readily repaired by cellular enzymatic pathways, complex double-strand breaks (DSBs) can lead to chromosomal fragmentation, deletions, and non-homologous translocations, which are the primary genetic drivers of radiation-induced genomic instability and carcinogenesis.

आयनकारी विकिरण से होने वाली गुणसूत्रीय विकृतियाँ और स्थानांतरण (Chromosomal fragmentation or translocations) कैंसर उत्पन्न करने के लिए सबसे अधिक जिम्मेदार होते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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1090📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningRadiation Shielding in Patient Treatments

Tungsten eye shields effectively protect the lens and eye for ________

Explanation

Tungsten internal eye shields (lined with low-Z aluminum or plastic to absorb backscattered electrons) are specifically designed to protect the ocular lens and cornea during megavoltage electron beam radiotherapy (e.g., 6–9 MeV electrons) of the eyelid and periorbital lesions. For megavoltage X-rays, several inches of tungsten would be needed, which is clinically impossible to place inside the eye.

टंगस्टन आई शील्ड्स (Tungsten eye shields) का उपयोग मुख्य रूप से मेगावोल्टेज इलेक्ट्रॉन टेलीथेरेपी (Megavoltage electron teletherapy) में आंख की पुतली और लेंस को सुरक्षित रखने के लिए किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1091📚Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementRadiobiology & Cell Death

What happens to the cell if the DNA damage caused by radiation is not repaired?

Explanation

When severe, complex double-strand DNA damage cannot be successfully resolved by cellular repair mechanisms (e.g., non-homologous end joining or homologous recombination), cell-cycle checkpoints activate apoptotic pathways (programmed cell death) or the cell dies attempting division (mitotic catastrophe).

यदि विकिरण से हुआ डीएनए नुकसान ठीक (रिपेयर) नहीं हो पाता, तो कोशिका एपोप्टोसिस (Apoptosis - क्रमादेशित कोशिका मृत्यु) या माइटोटिक मृत्यु में चली जाती है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1092📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningAdvanced Radiation Delivery (VMAT & IMRT)

Which of the following is a potential advantage of VMAT over conventional 3D-CRT (Three-Dimensional Conformal Radiation Therapy)?

Explanation

Volumetric Modulated Arc Therapy (VMAT) continuously modulates the gantry rotation speed, dynamic multileaf collimator (MLC) apertures, and linac dose rate simultaneously during arc rotation. This enables highly conformal dose sculpting around complex target volumes with exceptional accuracy, precision, and steep dose gradients.

3D-CRT की तुलना में VMAT का सबसे बड़ा लाभ यह है कि यह ट्यूमर के चारों ओर अत्यधिक परिशुद्धता और सटीकता से डोज़ (Higher accuracy and precision in dose delivery) प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1093📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningLinear Accelerator Multi-Leaf Collimators

Multi-leaf collimators are usually constructed from ________

Explanation

Multi-Leaf Collimator (MLC) leaves are fabricated from sintered high-density tungsten alloy (

>90\%\text{ W}

, density

\rho \approx 17.5\text{--}18.5\text{ g/cm}^3

,

Z=74

) because of tungsten's exceptional radiation stopping power, structural rigidity, and resistance to deformation during rapid motor movement.

मल्टी-लीफ कोलिमेटर (MLC) की पत्तियां उच्च घनत्व और उत्कृष्ट विकिरण अवशोषण क्षमता वाले टंगस्टन (Tungsten) मिश्र धातु से बनाई जाती हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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1094📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningMonte Carlo Dose Calculations

What is the primary purpose of using Monte Carlo techniques in photon and neutron transport?

Explanation

Monte Carlo algorithms use pseudo-random sampling of fundamental probability density functions (cross-sections) to simulate individual particle collisions, scattering angles, and energy depositions, enabling the rigorous statistical modeling of complex particle transport phenomena across heterogeneous media.

फोटॉन और न्यूट्रॉन परिवहन में मोंटे कार्लो तकनीकों का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य यादृच्छिक लेकिन सांख्यिकीय रूप से पूर्वानुमानित तरीके से जटिल भौतिक अंतःक्रियाओं को सटीक मॉडल करना है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1095📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningElectron Beam Dosimetry & Detectors

The most suitable tool for measuring the output factor for a low-energy electron 10x10 cm^2 cutout is ________

Explanation

For low-energy clinical electron beams (

< 10\text{ MeV}

), major international dosimetry protocols (AAPM TG-51 and IAEA TRS-398) mandate the use of a plane-parallel (parallel-plate) ionization chamber (e.g., Markus or Roos chambers) because its thin entrance window and negligible cavity perturbation minimize depth and electron fluence errors.

कम ऊर्जा वाले इलेक्ट्रॉन बीम (

<10\text{ MeV}

) के आउटपुट फैक्टर को मापने के लिए 'पैरेलल प्लेट आयन चैंबर' (Parallel plate ion chamber) सबसे उपयुक्त उपकरण है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1096📚Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementRadioactivity Definitions & Units

Which of the following is not true? 1Bq:

Explanation

The becquerel (Bq) is the SI unit of radioactivity defined as 1 disintegration per second (

1\text{ dps}

). By historical definition,

1\text{ Curie (Ci)} = 3.7 \times 10^{10}\text{ Bq}

. Therefore,

1\text{ Bq} = \frac{1}{3.7 \times 10^{10}}\text{ Ci} \approx 2.7 \times 10^{-11}\text{ Ci}

, making statement C entirely false.

1\text{ Ci} = 3.7 \times 10^{10}\text{ Bq}

होता है, इसलिए

1\text{ Bq} = 3.7 \times 10^{10}\text{ Ci}

वाला कथन सर्वथा गलत है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1097📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsSemiconductor Physics & Band Theory

How do impurities introduced into a pure semiconductor affect its band structure?

Explanation

Doping an intrinsic semiconductor with pentavalent donor impurities (n-type) creates discrete donor energy levels just below the conduction band edge, while trivalent acceptor impurities (p-type) create discrete acceptor levels just above the valence band edge within the forbidden energy band gap, facilitating thermal carrier excitation.

शुद्ध अर्धचालक में अशुद्धियाँ (Doping) मिलाने पर वर्जित ऊर्जा अंतराल (Band gap) के भीतर अतिरिक्त असतत ऊर्जा स्तर (दाता या ग्राही स्तर) उत्पन्न हो जाते हैं, जिससे चालकता बढ़ती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1098📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsClassical Mechanics & Dynamics

A 3sqrt(2) kg block sliding down a smooth inclined plane of length 5m is inclined at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. A horizontal force F = 10sqrt(2) N is applied to the block during its motion down the incline. Find the velocity of the block when it reaches the bottom, Rounded off to the nearest decimal place. (Take g=10m/s^2 and sqrt(2) =1.414).

Explanation

Given:

m = 3\sqrt{2}\text{ kg}

,

s = 5\text{ m}

,

\theta = 45^\circ

, horizontal push

F = 10\sqrt{2}\text{ N}

.
Forces acting down along the incline plane:
1. Gravitational component down the incline:

m g \sin 45^\circ = (3\sqrt{2}) \times 10 \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = 30\text{ N}

.
2. Component of horizontal force along the incline:

F \cos 45^\circ = (10\sqrt{2}) \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = 10\text{ N}

.
Net accelerating force

F_{\text{net}} = 30 + 10 = 40\text{ N}

.
Acceleration

a = \frac{F_{\text{net}}}{m} = \frac{40}{3\sqrt{2}} = \frac{40}{4.242} \approx 9.428\text{ m/s}^2

.
Using

v^2 = u^2 + 2as

(starting from rest

u = 0

):

v = \sqrt{2 \times 9.428 \times 5} = \sqrt{94.28} \approx 9.71\text{ m/s} \approx 9.7\text{ m/s}

.

आनत तल के अनुदिश कुल बल

= mg\sin 45^\circ + F\cos 45^\circ = 30 + 10 = 40\text{ N}

।
त्वरण

a = \frac{40}{3\sqrt{2}} \approx 9.43\text{ m/s}^2

।
अंतिम वेग

v = \sqrt{2as} = \sqrt{2 \times 9.43 \times 5} = \sqrt{94.3} \approx 9.7\text{ m/s}

। सही विकल्प A है।

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1099📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsFluid Mechanics & Surface Tension

In a capillary tube, which of the following factors mainly determines the height a liquid will raise due to capillary action?

Explanation

Jurin's Law governs capillary rise:

h = \frac{2T \cos\theta}{\rho g r}

. The primary upward driving force is the vertical component of the liquid's surface tension (

T

) acting along the meniscus circumference, directly mediated by the contact angle (

\theta

) between the liquid and capillary wall.

केशिका नली में द्रव के ऊपर चढ़ने की ऊंचाई मुख्य रूप से द्रव के पृष्ठ तनाव (Surface tension) और संपर्क कोण (Contact angle) द्वारा निर्धारित होती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1100📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsThermodynamics & Phase Transitions

How do phase changes affect the internal energy of a system?

Explanation

During an isothermal phase transition (e.g. solid to liquid melting or liquid to gas evaporation), latent heat absorbed by the system breaks intermolecular bonds and increases molecular potential energy, increasing total internal energy. Conversely, during freezing and condensation, latent heat is released to the surroundings, decreasing internal energy.

अवस्था परिवर्तन (Phase change) के दौरान गलन और वाष्पीकरण में गुप्त ऊष्मा अवशोषित होने से आंतरिक ऊर्जा बढ़ती है, जबकि जमने और संघनन में ऊष्मा निकलने से आंतरिक ऊर्जा घटती है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1101📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsMagnetic Materials & Curie Temperature

What happens to a ferromagnetic material when it is heated above its Curie temperature?

Explanation

Above the Curie temperature (

T_c

), excessive thermal kinetic agitation disrupts the spontaneous parallel quantum exchange coupling between adjacent atomic magnetic dipoles within ferromagnetic domains, causing the material to lose permanent ferromagnetism and transition into a paramagnetic state (following the Curie-Weiss law

\chi = \frac{C}{T - T_c}

).

क्यूरी तापमान से ऊपर गर्म करने पर लौहचुंबकीय (Ferromagnetic) पदार्थ का स्वतः डोमेन संरेखण समाप्त हो जाता है और वह अनुचुंबकीय (Paramagnetic) पदार्थ की तरह व्यवहार करने लगता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1102📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Quality Parameters

Which statements are correct regarding supersaturation of DO in water?
1. Supersaturation occurs when the DO level exceeds the saturation limit.
2. It is harmful to aquatic organisms, causing gas bubble disease.
3. Supersaturation occurs due to mixing of oxygen-rich groundwater.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Dissolved oxygen (DO) supersaturation (>100% saturation) occurs when water contains more dissolved O2 than thermodynamic equilibrium allows (often during midday intense algal blooms or rapid temperature increases). This causes gas bubble disease/trauma in fish as dissolved gas comes out of solution in blood and tissues. Statement 3 is false because groundwater is typically anoxic or sub-saturated in DO. Hence, 1 and 2 only. Choice A.

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं: जब पानी में DO संतृप्ति सीमा से अधिक हो जाती है, तो मछलियों में गैस बबल रोग हो सकता है। भूजल प्रायः ऑक्सीजन रहित होता है, अतः कथन 3 असत्य है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1103📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryEnvironmental Toxicology & Bioaccumulation

Match the pesticide bioaccumulation effects with the organisms:
List - A (Organism)
i. Fish
ii. Birds
iii. Insects
iv. Humans
List - B (Effect of Pesticide Bioaccumulation)
1. Pesticide concentration increases as it moves up the food chain
2. Impact on reproduction and hatching success
3. Direct toxicity leading to mortality
4. Long-term health problems, including cancer and neurological damage
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Matching organisms with classic pesticide ecotoxicological impacts:
- i. Fish: Aquatic bioconcentration multiplying trophic concentration up aquatic chains -> (1)
- ii. Birds: Calcium enzyme inhibition causing eggshell thinning, egg breakage, and reduced hatching -> (2)
- iii. Insects: Neurotoxic target pesticide action producing direct acute mortality -> (3)
- iv. Humans: Chronic bioaccumulation causing endocrine disruption, Parkinsonism, and carcinogenic risk -> (4).
Hence: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4. Choice A.

कीटनाशक जैव-संचयन प्रभावों का सही मिलान:
i. मछली -> खाद्य श्रृंखला में कीटनाशक सांद्रता में वृद्धि (1)
ii. पक्षी -> प्रजनन व अंडे सेने पर प्रभाव / पतले छिलके (2)
iii. कीट -> सीधा विषाक्त प्रभाव व मृत्यु (3)
iv. मानव -> कैंसर और तंत्रिका संबंधी दीर्घकालिक विकार (4)।
अतः सही कूट A है।

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1104📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPesticides & Environmental Fate

What does the term "pesticide residue" refer to?

Explanation

Pesticide residue refers to any specified chemical substances remaining in or on food, agricultural commodities, animal feed, soil, or water resulting from the use of a pesticide, including active ingredients, toxicologically significant breakdown metabolites, and impurities.

'कीटनाशक अवशेष' (Pesticide residue) का तात्पर्य कीटनाशक के प्रयोग के बाद फसलों, मिट्टी या खाद्य पदार्थों पर बची रह जाने वाली रासायनिक मात्रा (The remaining pesticide after use) से है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1105📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryEnvironmental Carcinogens & Air Toxics

Which of the following statements accurately describe the mechanism by which diesel exhaust causes cancer?
1. Diesel exhaust contains polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), which are potent mutagens and carcinogens.
2. Exposure to diesel exhaust leads to increased oxidative stress in lung tissues, causing inflammation and DNA damage.
3. Diesel exhaust acts as a cocarcinogen, enhancing the carcinogenic effects of other environmental pollutants like tobacco smoke.
4. Diesel exhaust exposure is associated with cancers of the liver and gastrointestinal system rather than the lungs.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are scientifically established mechanisms: diesel exhaust particulate matter is coated with carcinogenic PAHs and nitro-PAHs (1), generates reactive oxygen species causing pulmonary inflammation and bulky DNA adducts (2), and acts synergistically as a co-carcinogen with cigarette smoke (3). Statement 4 is FALSE because the WHO/IARC classifies diesel engine exhaust as a proven Group 1 human carcinogen specifically targeting the respiratory system (lung cancer), not primary liver/GI cancer. Hence, 1, 2, and 3. Choice A.

कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं; कथन 4 गलत है क्योंकि डीजल का धुआं फेफड़ों के कैंसर (Lung cancer) का कारण बनता है, न कि यकृत या गैस्ट्रोइंटेस्टाइनल कैंसर का। सही विकल्प A है।

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1106📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryColorimetry & Spectrophotometry

Which of the following is commonly used as a light source in a colourimeter?

Explanation

In standard visible-range absorption colorimeters, a low-voltage tungsten filament incandescent lamp is standardly used as the light source because it emits a steady, continuous, broadband radiation spectrum across the entire visible wavelength band (380 to 750 nm).

कलोरीमीटर (Colourimeter) में दृश्य प्रकाश के निरंतर स्पेक्ट्रम के लिए प्रकाश स्रोत के रूप में टंगस्टन फिलामेंट लैंप (Tungsten filament lamp) का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1107📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryMedicinal Chemistry & Pharmacology

In which phase of drug development is the drug typically tested on animals for safety and efficacy?

Explanation

Before a new chemical entity can be administered to human subjects, it undergoes extensive in vitro and in vivo animal testing during the Preclinical Phase to establish pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, toxicity profile, maximum tolerated dose, and potential efficacy.

औषधि विकास के प्रीक्लिनिकल चरण (Preclinical phase) में मानव परीक्षण से पहले जानवरों पर दवा की सुरक्षा, विषाक्तता और प्रभावकारिता का परीक्षण किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1108📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Pollution & Analytical Tests

In a COD test, which chemical is typically used as the oxidizing agent?

Explanation

In standard Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) reflux testing, potassium dichromate (

K_2Cr_2O_7

) in strong sulfuric acid solution (with silver sulfate

Ag_2SO_4

catalyst and mercuric sulfate to complex chlorides) is universally employed as the powerful primary chemical oxidizing agent.

COD (केमिकल ऑक्सीजन डिमांड) परीक्षण में कार्बनिक पदार्थों को ऑक्सीकृत करने के लिए पोटेशियम डाइक्रोमेट (

K_2Cr_2O_7

) का उपयोग प्राथमिक ऑक्सीकारक के रूप में किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1109📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Treatment & Coagulation

What is the function of flocculation after the coagulation process?

Explanation

In water treatment, coagulation rapidly destabilizes suspended colloidal charges, while subsequent gentle, slow mechanical mixing during flocculation facilitates particle collisions, allowing microscopic precipitates to agglomerate into large, dense 'flocs' that readily settle out during sedimentation.

स्कंदन (Coagulation) के बाद फ्लोकुलेशन (Flocculation) की धीमी गति से मिलाने की प्रक्रिया फ्लॉक्स को बड़ा बनाने (To allow flocs to grow larger) में मदद करती है ताकि उन्हें आसानी से अवसादित और अलग किया जा सके। सही विकल्प B है।

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1110📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPesticides & Environmental Impact

Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of excessive pesticide use?

Explanation

Overuse of synthetic pesticides causes severe environmental degradation: killing non-target pollinators (honeybees), destabilizing food webs, driving pesticide resistance in target pests, and killing beneficial nitrogen-fixing soil bacteria and earthworms. It degrades and damages soil health, rather than improving soil structure.

अत्यधिक कीटनाशकों के प्रयोग से परागणकों की हानि होती है, प्रतिरोधकता बढ़ती है और पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र बिगड़ता है; यह मिट्टी की संरचना में सुधार (Improved soil structure) नहीं करता बल्कि उसे नुकसान पहुँचाता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1111📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryIndustrial Chemistry (Contact Process)

Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Contact Process in industrial chemistry?

Explanation

The Contact Process is the modern industrial manufacturing process for concentrated sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

). Its central reaction is the exothermic catalytic oxidation of sulfur dioxide (

SO_2

) to sulfur trioxide (

SO_3

) using atmospheric oxygen over a vanadium(V) oxide (

V_2O_5

) catalyst at ~450°C.

औद्योगिक रसायन विज्ञान में 'कॉन्टैक्ट प्रोसेस' (Contact Process) का मुख्य उद्देश्य वैनेडियम ऑक्साइड (

V_2O_5

) उत्प्रेरक की उपस्थिति में सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड के ऑक्सीकरण द्वारा सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड (

H_2SO_4

) का निर्माण करना है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1112📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyMolecular Biology & DNA Replication

During DNA replication, the point where the two strands become separated is called the...?

Explanation

During semiconservative DNA replication, DNA helicase unwinds the double helix, creating an active, dynamic Y-shaped junction where the parental strands separate to serve as templates for leading and lagging strand synthesis, called the Replication Fork.

डीएनए प्रतिकृति के दौरान वह Y-आकार का सक्रिय बिंदु जहाँ दोनों रज्जुक अलग होते हैं, 'प्रतिकृति द्विशाख' (Replication Fork) कहलाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1113📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyCell Biology & Cell Division

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane reassemble?

Explanation

During telophase (the final stage of mitosis), the daughter chromosomes decondense back into diffuse chromatin, mitotic spindle microtubules depolymerize, and nuclear envelope vesicles fuse to reassemble a complete nuclear membrane around each daughter set of chromosomes.

समसूत्री विभाजन (Mitosis) की टीलोफेज (Telophase) प्रावस्था के दौरान केंद्रक झिल्ली (Nuclear membrane) का दोनों संतति नाभिकों के चारों ओर पुनर्गठन होता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1114📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcosystem Energetics & Primary Production

What is the primary source of energy for most ecosystems?

Explanation

Solar radiation (sunlight) is the fundamental primary energy input sustaining virtually all biological ecosystems on Earth, driving oxygenic photosynthesis by autotrophs (plants, algae, cyanobacteria) which forms the energetic baseline for trophic food webs.

पृथ्वी पर लगभग सभी पारिस्थितिकी तंत्रों के लिए ऊर्जा का प्राथमिक और मुख्य स्रोत सूर्य का प्रकाश (Sunlight) है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1115📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Photosynthesis

Which molecule is produced during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis and used in the Calvin cycle?

Explanation

During the light-dependent reactions in the thylakoid membranes, light excitation drives photolysis of water and non-cyclic photophosphorylation to synthesize both ATP and the biochemical reducing agent NADPH. These two high-energy intermediates are subsequently consumed in the stroma during the Calvin cycle to reduce 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) to triose phosphate sugars.

प्रकाश अभिक्रिया में संश्लेषित NADPH (और ATP) कैल्विन चक्र में कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड के अपचयन के लिए आवश्यक अपचायक शक्ति प्रदान करते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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1116📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyGlobal Environmental Change & Climate

Presently, the main cause of global warming is:

Explanation

The primary driver of contemporary global climate change is the rapid anthropogenic increase in atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations—most prominently carbon dioxide (

CO_2

), released by fossil fuel combustion, cement manufacturing, and deforestation—which traps outgoing infrared terrestrial radiation.

वर्तमान समय में ग्लोबल वार्मिंग का मुख्य कारण वातावरण में ग्रीनहाउस गैस कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड की बढ़ती सांद्रता (Increasing CO2 Concentration) है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1117📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcology & Thermodynamic Energy Loss

Which of the following processes directly contributes to the loss of energy as heat in an ecosystem?

Explanation

During cellular respiration, living organisms break down organic substrates (glucose) to generate ATP for biological work. Due to second-law thermodynamic inefficiencies, a major fraction of this chemical potential energy is dissipated irreversibly into the environment as metabolic heat.

पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में श्वसन (Respiration) प्रक्रिया के दौरान चयापचय अक्षमताओं के कारण ऊर्जा का एक बड़ा भाग ऊष्मा (Heat) के रूप में वातावरण में नष्ट हो जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1118📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyCytogenetics & Chromosomal Abnormalities

Which of the following statements are true?
i. Klinefelter's syndrome ha 44+XXY
ii. Cri-du-chat syndrome is due to chromosomal change involving deletion
iii. In Down's syndrome of male child, the sex complement is XY
iv. Formation of multivalent in meiosis is due to reciprocal translocation
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Evaluating all four cytogenetic statements:
- i. Klinefelter syndrome: 47,XXY (44 autosomes + XXY) -> True
- ii. Cri-du-chat syndrome: Terminal deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5 (5p-) -> True
- iii. Down syndrome in males: Trisomy 21 with normal male sex chromosomes (47,XY,+21) -> True
- iv. Reciprocal translocation: Heterozygotes form cross-shaped quadrivalent multivalents during meiotic prophase I -> True.
Hence, all four statements i, ii, iii, iv are true. Choice D.

सभी कथन सही हैं:
i. क्लाइनफेल्टर सिंड्रोम: 44+XXY
ii. क्राई-डू-चैट सिंड्रोम: क्रोमोसोम 5 की छोटी भुजा का विलोपन
iii. डाउन सिंड्रोम पुरुष: 47,XY,+21
iv. पारस्परिक स्थानांतरण से अर्धसूत्रीविभाजन में बहुसंयोजक (Multivalent) बनते हैं।
अतः सही विकल्प D है।

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1119📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Biotechnology & Genetic Engineering

With reference to Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated plant transformation, match the virulence factors in Group 1 with their protein types in Group - 2.
Group - 1:
P) VirG
Q) VirA
R) VirE
S) VirC
Group - 2:
I) Kinase
II) Helicase
III) Transcriptional activator
IV) Single strand binding protein
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Matching Agrobacterium Ti plasmid virulence proteins with their biochemical functions:
- P. VirG: Cytoplasmic response regulator and transcriptional activator for the vir regulon -> (III)
- Q. VirA: Transmembrane sensor histidine kinase that perceives plant phenolic wound signals (acetosyringone) -> (I)
- R. VirE (specifically VirE2): Single-stranded DNA binding protein that coats and protects T-DNA during transfer -> (IV)
- S. VirC (VirC1/VirC2): Promotes T-strand processing by binding overdrive sequence and exhibits helicase activity -> (II).
Hence: P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II. Choice D.

एग्रोबैक्टीरियम ट्यूमेफेशियंस के वायरुलेंस प्रोटीनों का मिलान:
P. VirG -> ट्रांसक्रिप्शनल एक्टिवेटर (III)
Q. VirA -> हिस्टिडीन काइनेज सेंसर (I)
R. VirE -> सिंगल स्ट्रैंड डीएनए बाइंडिंग प्रोटीन (IV)
S. VirC -> हेलिकेज / ओवरड्राइव बाइंडिंग (II)।
अतः सही कूट D है।

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1120📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyBiotechnology & Renewable Biofuels

Match the following columns A with the appropriate option in column B
Column - A
1. 1st generation biofuel
2. 2nd generation biofuel
3. 3rd generation biofuel
4. 4th generation biofuel
Column - B
i. Produced from algal biomass
ii. Produced from food crops
iii. Produced from non-food crops
iv. Produced by capturing and storing CO_2
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Classification of biofuels across technological generations:
- 1st generation: Derived directly from edible food crops (corn starch, sugarcane ethanol, soybean oil) -> (ii)
- 2nd generation: Produced from non-food lignocellulosic biomass (agricultural residues, switchgrass, jatropha) -> (iii)
- 3rd generation: Derived from microalgae and macroalgae biomass -> (i)
- 4th generation: Advanced bio-solar fuels produced by genetically modified cyanobacteria/microbes integrating carbon capture and storage (BECCS) -> (iv).
Hence: 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(iv). Choice B.

जैव ईंधन की पीढ़ियों का सही मिलान:
1. प्रथम पीढ़ी -> खाद्य फसलों से (ii)
2. द्वितीय पीढ़ी -> अखाद्य लिग्नोसेल्युलोसिक बायोमास से (iii)
3. तृतीय पीढ़ी -> शैवाल (एल्गी) बायोमास से (i)
4. चतुर्थ पीढ़ी -> कार्बन कैप्चर और जेनेटिकली मॉडिफाइड सूक्ष्मजीवों से (iv)।
अतः सही कूट B है।

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1121📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Photosynthesis

Matching the following components with their respective roles in photosynthesis:
Column -A
1. ATP synthase
2. Photosystem II
3. RuBisCO
4. NADP+ reductase
5. Cytochrome b6f complex
6. Calvin Cycle
Column -B
P. Converts light energy into chemical energy by splitting water and producing oxygen
Q. Fixes carbon dioxide into 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) during carbon fixation
R. Catalyzes the conversion of NADP+ to NADPH in the light reactions
S. Facilitates the synthesis of ATP using the proton gradient in the thylakoid membrane
T. Transfers electrons between Photosystem II and Photosystem I
U. Converts 3-PGA into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) in the reduction phase
Choose correct match...?

Explanation

Matching photosynthetic molecular complexes with their biochemical functions:
- 1. ATP synthase: Synthesizes ATP via chemiosmotic proton gradient (

CF_0-CF_1

) -> (S)
- 2. Photosystem II: P680 reaction center catalyzes photolysis of water (

2H_2O \to O_2 + 4H^+ + 4e^-

) -> (P)
- 3. RuBisCO: Carboxylation fixing atmospheric CO2 onto RuBP into 3-PGA -> (Q)
- 4. NADP+ reductase (FNR): Catalyzes terminal electron transfer from ferredoxin to NADP+ forming NADPH -> (R)
- 5. Cytochrome b6f complex: Plastoquinol-plastocyanin oxidoreductase transferring electrons from PSII to PSI -> (T)
- 6. Calvin cycle: Enzymatic stromal reduction phase converting 3-PGA into G3P -> (U).
Hence: 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R, 5-T, 6-U. Choice D.

प्रकाश संश्लेषण घटकों और उनके कार्यों का सही मिलान:
1. ATP सिंथेज -> प्रोटॉन प्रवणता से ATP संश्लेषण (S)
2. फोटोसिस्टम II -> जल का प्रकाशीय अपघटन और ऑक्सीजन उत्पादन (P)
3. रुबिस्को -> CO2 का 3-PGA में स्थिरीकरण (Q)
4. NADP+ रिडक्टेस -> NADP+ का NADPH में अपचयन (R)
5. साइटोक्रोम b6f -> PSII और PSI के बीच इलेक्ट्रॉन स्थानांतरण (T)
6. कैल्विन चक्र -> 3-PGA का G3P में अपचयन (U)।
अतः सही कूट D है।

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1122📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEvolutionary Biology & Speciation

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion (A): Evolution is a continuous process that takes millions of years for speciation.
Reason (R): During evolution, only mutation leads to speciation.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Assertion (A) is true: organic evolution is a continuous, dynamic historical process of gradual genetic modification typically requiring thousands to millions of years to establish reproductive isolation and speciation. Reason (R) is completely FALSE: speciation is driven by multiple interacting evolutionary mechanisms—including natural selection, genetic drift, geographic reproductive isolation, and genetic recombination—not mutation alone. Hence, A is true, but R is false. Choice C.

प्रक्कथन (A) सत्य है, लेकिन कारण (R) असत्य है क्योंकि केवल उत्परिवर्तन से ही नई प्रजातियों की उत्पत्ति नहीं होती; प्राकृतिक चयन, आनुवंशिक विचलन (Genetic drift) और भौगोलिक पृथक्करण भी मुख्य भूमिका निभाते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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1123📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityClassification & Odd One Out

Identify the odd one out:
I) Zoology
II) Nephrology
III) Gastroenterology
IV) Urology
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

Nephrology (kidneys), Gastroenterology (digestive tract), and Urology (urinary system) are specialized branches of human medicine. Zoology is the broad biological science of animal biology. Thus, Zoology (I) is the odd one out.

नेफ्रोलॉजी, गैस्ट्रोएंटरोलॉजी और यूरोलॉजी मानव चिकित्सा विज्ञान की शाखाएं हैं; जबकि जूलॉजी (Zoology - I) जंतु विज्ञान की सामान्य शाखा है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1124📚General English & ComprehensionArticles & Error Detection

Select one of the following options, the sentence of which is written with incorrect article usage.

Explanation

The word 'European' begins with a consonant glide sound /j/ ('yoo-roh-pee-an'). Therefore, it takes the indefinite article 'a', NOT 'an' ('a European tourist'). Sentence B contains incorrect article usage.

'European' का उच्चारण व्यंजन ध्वनि /j/ (यूरोपियन) से शुरू होता है, इसलिए इसके पहले 'a' का प्रयोग होना चाहिए, 'an' का नहीं। अतः वाक्य B में आर्टिकल का गलत प्रयोग है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1125📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityStatement & Conclusions

Read the statements given and the conclusions, and choose the appropriate option.
Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.
Conclusions:
I. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future.
II. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life.

Explanation

The statement explicitly highlights that population will continue to increase while resources deplete. This directly implies conclusion II: governments will face immense difficulty ensuring a decent standard of living. Conclusion I contradicts the premise. Hence, only conclusion II follows.

जनसंख्या बढ़ने और संसाधनों के घटने से विकासशील देशों की सरकारों के लिए नागरिकों को अच्छा जीवन स्तर देना अत्यंत कठिन हो जाएगा (निष्कर्ष II सही है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1126📚General English & ComprehensionIdioms & Phrases

Her relatives threw cold water on her dream of becoming an actress.
Identify the right meaning of the underlined idiom.

Explanation

The idiom 'to throw/pour cold water on' means to discourage or dampen someone's enthusiasm, plans, or ambitions.

मुहावरे 'threw cold water on' का अर्थ किसी के उत्साह पर पानी फेरना या हतोत्साहित करना (Discouraged) होता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1127📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityMensuration & Geometry

A rectangular aluminium sheet measuring 44 cm by 14 cm is rolled along its length to create a cylinder with a height of 14 cm. Calculate the volume of the cylinder (in cc).

Explanation

When rolled along its length of 44 cm, the cylinder's base circumference is

2\pi r = 44\text{ cm} \implies r = \frac{44 \times 7}{2 \times 22} = 7\text{ cm}

. Height

h = 14\text{ cm}

. Volume

V = \pi r^2 h = \frac{22}{7} \times 7^2 \times 14 = 22 \times 7 \times 14 = 154 \times 14 = 2156\text{ cm}^3

.

परिधि

2\pi r = 44 \implies r = 7

सेमी। ऊंचाई

h = 14

सेमी। बेलन का आयतन V = \pi r^2 h = \frac{22}{7} \times 49 \times 14 = 2156\text{ सेमी}^3। सही विकल्प D है।

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1128📚General English & ComprehensionIdioms & Phrases

From the following idioms, select the most suitable one to complete the sentence,
Let's settle the bill for the damage _________.

Explanation

The idiom 'fair and square' means completely honestly, just, and in accordance with the rules.

न्यायसंगत और निष्पक्ष तरीके से बिल चुकाने के संदर्भ में 'fair and square' उपयुक्त मुहावरा है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1129📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Books/Authors

The Book, "100 Modi Mantras: A Decade of India's Uprising" is authored by?

Explanation

The book '100 Modi Mantras: A Decade of India's Uprising', capturing key governance principles and achievements of Prime Minister Narendra Modi's tenure, was authored by Member of Parliament Shankar Lalwani.

पुस्तक '100 मोदी मंत्र: ए डिकेड ऑफ इंडियाज़ अपराइजिंग' के लेखक सांसद शंकर लालवानी (Shankar Lalwani) हैं। सही विकल्प D है।

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1130📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceGeography & Infrastructure Projects

Atal tunnel connects Manali to _______?

Explanation

The 9.02 km long Atal Tunnel (built under the Rohtang Pass in the Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas) provides all-weather connectivity between Manali and the Lahaul-Spiti valley in Himachal Pradesh.

रोहतांग दर्रे के नीचे बनी अटल टनल मनाली को लाहौल-स्पीति (Lahaul spiti) घाटी से हर मौसम में जोड़ती है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1131📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceGeography of Jammu & Kashmir

Which Mountain range separates the Kashmir valley and from the Jammu region?

Explanation

The Pir Panjal Range (part of the Middle Himalayas) forms the southern barrier that physically separates the Kashmir Valley from the Jammu region, pierced by the Banihal and Jawahar tunnels.

पीर पंजाल पर्वतमाला (Pir Panjal Range) कश्मीर घाटी को जम्मू क्षेत्र से भौगोलिक रूप से अलग करती है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1132📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceHydroelectric Projects of J&K

Which of the following hydroelectric project is built on River Jhelum?

Explanation

The Uri-II Hydroelectric Project (240 MW, run-of-the-river) is built on the Jhelum River in Baramulla district of J&K. (Dulhasti is on the Chenab, Sewa-III is on the Sewa/Ravi basin, Chutak is on the Suru river in Kargil).

उरी-द्वितीय (Uri-II, 240 MW) जलविद्युत परियोजना बारामूला में झेलम नदी (River Jhelum) पर स्थित है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1133📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Governance

National Food Security Act (NFSA) was passed in _______

Explanation

The National Food Security Act (NFSA) was enacted by Parliament on September 10, 2013, legally entitling up to 75% of rural and 50% of urban populations to receive subsidized foodgrains under the Targeted Public Distribution System.

राष्ट्रीय खाद्य सुरक्षा अधिनियम (NFSA) वर्ष 2013 में संसद द्वारा पारित किया गया था। सही विकल्प A है।

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1134📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsHelical Chirality & Helicenes

Consider the following statements about chirality due to a helical shape:
1) Chirality in helical molecules arises due to the non-superimposable mirror images of their helical structure.
2) Both left-handed (M-form) and right-handed (P-form) helices are enantiomers of each other.
3) Polymers like helicenes can exhibit optical activity due to their helical structure.
4) A helical molecule with an internal plane of symmetry is optically active.

Explanation

Helicity is a fundamental source of inherent stereochemical dissymmetry. Helical molecules have non-superimposable mirror images: right-handed (

P

or plus) and left-handed (

M

or minus) forms are enantiomers. Helicenes (e.g. hexahelicene) possess enormous optical activity (

[\alpha]_D > 3000^\circ

). Statement 4 is FALSE because any molecule possessing an internal plane of symmetry (

\sigma

) is achiral and therefore optically inactive.

हेलिकल संरचना के कारण काइरालिटी उत्पन्न होती है: दाएँ हाथ (

P

) और बाएँ हाथ (

M

) के हेलिक्स एक-दूसरे के इनैन्शियोमर होते हैं। हेलिसीन जैसे यौगिक अत्यधिक प्रकाशिक सक्रियता दिखाते हैं। लेकिन यदि किसी अणु में सममिति तल (plane of symmetry) हो तो वह प्रकाशिक अक्रिय (achiral) हो जाता है। अतः 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

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1135📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsRules of Resonance

Which of the following statements about the rule of resonance are correct?
1) Resonance structures are different ways of drawing the same molecule, where the positions of atoms do not change, only the positions of electrons.
2) Only resonance structures that are energetically equivalent contribute significantly to the resonance hybrid.
3) The major contributor to the resonance hybrid is the structure that has the least formal charge and the most covalent bonds.
4) Resonance hybrids are a true representation of the molecule, with the electron density distributed as an average of all resonance structures.

Explanation

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are fundamental resonance rules. Statement 2 is FALSE because non-equivalent resonance contributors can contribute significantly if they satisfy octets and place negative charges on electronegative atoms (e.g. in amides, the zwitterionic resonance contributor contributes

\sim 40\%

to the hybrid despite being non-equivalent). Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

कथन 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं। कथन 2 गलत है क्योंकि गैर-समतुल्य (non-equivalent) अनुनादी संरचनाएं भी अनुनाद संकर में महत्वपूर्ण योगदान देती हैं (जैसे एमाइड्स में द्विध्रुवीय रूप)। प्रमुख योगदानकर्ता वह होता है जिसमें पूर्ण अष्टक, अधिकतम सहसंयोजक आबंध और न्यूनतम औपचारिक आवेश हो। सही विकल्प B है।

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1136📚Reaction Mechanisms, Kinetics & Physical Organic ChemistryChemical Kinetics & First-Order Rate Law

In the context of a reaction that follows the first-order rate law, which of the following statements is true?

Explanation

For a first-order reaction, the differential rate is

-\frac{d[A]}{dt} = k[A]

. Integrating yields the classic linear relationship:

\ln[A] = -kt + \ln[A_0]

(Option D). Equivalently,

[A] = [A_0]e^{-kt}

reflects that concentration decreases exponentially over time (both statements are fundamental characteristics, with Option D being the exact integrated mathematical formula). The half-life

t_{1/2} = \frac{\ln 2}{k}

is completely independent of initial concentration.

प्रथम कोटि की अभिक्रिया (first-order reaction) के लिए समाकलित दर नियम

\ln[A] = -kt + \ln[A_0]

होता है (विकल्प D)। इसकी अर्द्ध-आयु (

t_{1/2} = \frac{0.693}{k}

) प्रारंभिक सांद्रता पर निर्भर नहीं करती है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1137📚Reaction Mechanisms, Kinetics & Physical Organic ChemistryRadical Reaction Intermediates

During an aliphatic electrophilic substitution of an alkyl group on a carbon chain, which of the following intermediate species is most likely to be involved when the reaction occurs via a radical mechanism rather than a carbocation-based mechanism?

Explanation

In radical-mediated pathways (homolytic bond cleavage), the reaction intermediate possesses an unpaired valence electron on carbon—forming a carbon free radical intermediate (trivalent, neutral,

sp^2

-hybridized carbon with a single electron in a p-orbital). Statement C identifies the radical intermediate.

जब अभिक्रिया मूलक (free radical) क्रियाविधि द्वारा होती है, तो होमोलाइटिक विदलन के माध्यम से एक अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन वाला कार्बन मूलक मध्यवर्ती (radical intermediate) बनता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1138📚Reaction Mechanisms, Kinetics & Physical Organic ChemistryE2 Elimination Characteristics

Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of an E2 elimination reaction?

Explanation

An E2 (Elimination Bimolecular) reaction is fundamentally a SINGLE-STEP CONCERTED process where base-mediated proton abstraction, double-bond formation, and leaving group departure take place simultaneously in a single transition state. Therefore, Statement C ('leaving group and the base attack the substrate at different times in a stepwise mechanism') is completely FALSE and is NOT a characteristic of E2 (that describes E1 or E1cB).

E2

विलोपन अभिक्रिया एक कंसर्टेड (एक-चरणीय) प्रक्रिया है जिसमें क्षार द्वारा

\beta

-प्रोटॉन का निष्कासन और निष्कासित समूह का अलग होना एक साथ होता है। अतः कथन C (चरणबद्ध तरीके से अलग-अलग समय पर होना)

E2

का लक्षण नहीं है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1139📚Reaction Mechanisms, Kinetics & Physical Organic ChemistryComparison of Elimination Pathways (E1, E2, E1cB)

Which of the following statements correctly compares the E1, E2, E1cB, and E2C mechanisms in elimination reactions?

Explanation

Statement C provides the precise, definitive comparison between the fundamental elimination pathways: In E2, proton abstraction and leaving group departure take place simultaneously in a single concerted transition state, whereas E1 is a stepwise mechanism that proceeds through the initial formation of a carbocation intermediate.

कथन C सही तुलना करता है:

E2

अभिक्रिया में प्रोटॉन निष्कासन और निष्कासित समूह का पृथक्करण एक साथ (कंसर्टेड) होता है, जबकि

E1

एक चरणबद्ध प्रक्रिया है जिसमें पहले कार्बधनायन मध्यवर्ती बनता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1140📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePreventive Conservation & Light Degradation

Which of the following statements regarding the role of light in preventive conservation is most accurate in terms of protecting cultural heritage objects from deterioration?

Explanation

In museum preventive conservation, light damage is cumulative and completely irreversible. High-energy ultraviolet (UV,

<400

nm) radiation causes direct photochemical bond cleavage, yellowing, and embrittlement, while visible light (

400-700

nm) causes fading and discoloration of pigments and organic dyes. Therefore, conservation best practices mandate eliminating UV (filtering to

<75\;\mu\text{W/lumen}

) AND strictly regulating visible illuminance (lux) and exposure duration (lux-hours/year). Statement C is the most accurate.

निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive Conservation) में पराबैंगनी (UV) और दृश्य प्रकाश (visible light) दोनों ही सांस्कृतिक कलाकृतियों के प्रकाश-रासायनिक क्षरण (photochemical degradation) का कारण बनते हैं। अतः उपयुक्त फिल्टर द्वारा UV को रोकना और दृश्य प्रकाश की तीव्रता व प्रदर्शन अवधि को सीमित करना अनिवार्य है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1141📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMuseum Storage & Pest Prevention

Which of the following prevention techniques should be applied to reduce the risk of insect damage to museum collections, especially in high-risk environments such as storage rooms?

Explanation

Preventive pest management relies on environmental exclusion and early detection: storing collections in well-sealed, archival-grade, pest-resistant containers coupled with routine, systematic inspections and monitoring traps (sticky blattid/pheromone traps) to identify frass, exit holes, or pest activity before widespread infestation occurs. Option B describes this standard conservation protocol.

संग्रहालय भंडारण कक्षों में कीट क्षति को रोकने के लिए एयरटाइट (वायुरोधी) अभिलेखीय बक्सों का उपयोग करना और शुरुआती संकेतों (frass, कीट लार्वा) को पकड़ने के लिए नियमित निरीक्षण और ट्रैप्स की निगरानी करना सबसे उपयुक्त निवारक उपाय है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1142📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageAir Pollution Effects on Cultural Heritage

Which of the following statements about the effects of pollution on museum objects and its prevention are correct? (Select the correct combination)
Statements:
1. Airborne pollutants such as sulphur dioxide (SO_2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) can cause corrosion and discoloration of metal and stone objects.
2. Indoor air pollution has little effect on the preservation of organic materials like textiles and paper.
3. Air filtration systems and ventilation are essential to reduce the buildup of pollutants and protect the collection.
4. UV light from sunlight has a much greater impact on organic materials than chemical pollutants.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct:
-

SO_2

and

NO_x

react with atmospheric moisture to form sulfurous, sulfuric, and nitric acids, driving acid deposition that corrodes bronze/silver and converts calcium carbonate in marble/limestone into soluble gypsum (

CaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O

).
- Advanced HVAC air filtration (chemical gas-phase activated carbon and particulate HEPA filters) is vital to scrub these pollutants.
Statement 2 is completely FALSE because indoor pollutants (formic and acetic acid off-gassed from wooden cases) cause severe acid hydrolysis of cellulose in paper and textiles.

कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं: सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड (

SO_2

) और नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड (

NO_x

) अम्लीय वर्षा और संक्षारण का कारण बनते हैं जिससे धातु और पत्थर नष्ट होते हैं; हवा निस्पंदन (air filtration) प्रणालियां इन प्रदूषकों को रोकने के लिए आवश्यक हैं। कथन 2 गलत है क्योंकि इनडोर वायु प्रदूषण कागज और वस्त्रों को गंभीर नुकसान पहुंचाता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1143📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageStone Conservation & Desalination

Which of the following is the most appropriate curative conservation treatment for a stone object suffering from salt efflorescence and surface cracking?

Explanation

Sub-surface crystallization of soluble salts (subflorescence/efflorescence) exerts tremendous crystallization pressure, fracturing the stone. The gold-standard curative treatment is desalination via poulticing: applying a moist absorbent pack (deionized water with cellulose pulp, sepiolite, or magnesium carbonate) that draws out soluble salts by capillary action. After salt removal, friable stone is consolidated using compatible lime water / calcium hydroxide (

Ca(OH)_2

) or ethyl silicates.

लवण उत्फुल्लन (salt efflorescence) और दरारों से ग्रस्त पत्थर की कलाकृतियों के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त उपचारात्मक संरक्षण: पानी और मैग्नीशियम कार्बोनेट (या सेपियोलाइट/कागज लुगदी) की पुल्टिस (poultice) लगाकर लवणों को बाहर निकालना, और फिर कैल्शियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड द्वारा पत्थर को सुदृढ़ (consolidate) करना। सही विकल्प C है।

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1144📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageStone Consolidation & Gap Filling

Which of the following is the most appropriate curative conservation treatment for a stone sculpture that has suffered from surface deterioration due to weathering and minor cracks?

Explanation

Curative treatment of weathered, friable stone sculpture requires:
1. Consolidation using a deeply penetrating, breathable, compatible consolidant (such as tetraethyl orthosilicate / ethyl silicate or an appropriate acrylic polymer like Paraloid B-72) to restore cohesion to crumbling mineral grains.
2. Filling cracks and voids using a reversible, vapor-permeable, stone-compatible mortar (e.g. lime-based binder mixed with matching crushed stone aggregate), never Portland cement which introduces damaging soluble salts.

अपक्षयित पत्थर की मूर्तियों के उपचार हेतु: पहले बहुलक-आधारित या एथिल सिलिकेट संसंजक (consolidant) द्वारा पत्थर के आंतरिक कणों को मजबूत किया जाता है, फिर उपयुक्त पत्थर-अनुकूल और प्रतिवर्ती भराव सामग्री (lime mortar) से दरारें भरी जाती हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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1145📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageWood Conservation Methodology

Consider the following steps involved in the conservation of wooden objects with polished and unpolished surfaces. Arrange them in the correct chronological order of conservation for both types of wood, from the initial treatment to the final steps.
1. Cleaning the surface to remove dirt and surface contaminants.
2. Assessing the object's condition and identifying any cracks or structural issues.
3. Applying a protective finish to maintain the wood's appearance and stability.
4. Consolidating the wood with a suitable consolidant if it is fragile or crumbling.
5. Repairing any cracks or structural damage with appropriate materials.
Choose the correct chronological order for both polished and unpolished wood:

Explanation

The universal conservation sequence for wooden heritage artifacts begins with:
2. Condition assessment, documentation, and structural diagnosis.
1. Gentle surface cleaning to remove dust, soot, and particulate soil.
4. In-depth consolidation of fragile, decayed, or insect-damaged wood fibers.
5. Structural stabilization, joint re-adhesion, and crack repair with compatible materials.
3. Application of a reversible protective barrier finish (e.g., microcrystalline wax).
Correct order: 2 -> 1 -> 4 -> 5 -> 3 (Option C).

काष्ठ (लकड़ी) की वस्तुओं के संरक्षण का सही क्रम: 2) वस्तु की स्थिति का प्रारंभिक आकलन और दरारों की पहचान

->

1) सतह की सफाई

->

4) कमजोर लकड़ी का संसज्जन (consolidation)

->

5) दरारों और संरचनात्मक क्षति की मरम्मत

->

3) सुरक्षात्मक फिनिश (जैसे माइक्रोक्रिस्टलाइन वैक्स) लगाना। सही विकल्प C (

2 -> 1 -> 4 -> 5 -> 3

) है।

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1146📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePolished Wood Conservation

Which of the following treatments is most appropriate for conserving polished wood with surface dirt and minor scratches?

Explanation

Conservation ethics forbid aggressive mechanical stripping or sanding, which destroys original historical finishes and tool marks. For polished wooden artifacts exhibiting light dirt and surface micro-scratches, the proper conservation treatment involves gentle dry or solvent cleaning (using white spirit or mild aqueous surfactants on a soft lint-free microfiber cloth), followed by buffing with a high-purity, acid-free microcrystalline wax (e.g. Renaissance Wax) to protect the patina and fill micro-abrasions.

पॉलिश की गई लकड़ी की सतह से गंदगी और खरोंच हटाने के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त उपचार: एक मुलायम कपड़े और उपयुक्त विलायक (सॉल्वेंट) से कोमल सफाई करना, और उसके बाद सुरक्षा के लिए माइक्रोक्रिस्टलाइन मोम (microcrystalline wax) की एक पतली परत लगाना। सैंडिंग या अपघर्षक कभी नहीं किए जाते। सही विकल्प B है।

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1147📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePaper Conservation & Humidification

What is the most appropriate treatment for a sketch on paper that has faded and has visible creases?

Explanation

In works of art on paper, mechanical creases, distortions, and folds are treated by relaxing the hydrogen-bonded cellulose fiber matrix in a controlled humidification chamber (e.g. Gore-Tex or ultrasonic moisture chamber), followed by gentle drying and flattening between archival blotters and wool felts under controlled weights. Retouching with ink, applying varnishes, or mechanical rubbing with erasers cause irreversible damage and violate conservation ethics.

कागज़ पर बने रेखाचित्र (sketch) की सिलवटों को ठीक करने का सबसे उपयुक्त उपचार: नमी कक्ष (humidification) तकनीक द्वारा कागज़ के रेशों को शिथिल करना और फिर नियंत्रित दबाव और ब्लोटिंग पेपर के नीचे सुखाना व चपटा करना। वार्निश या री-इंकिंग अनैतिक है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1148📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageLeather vs Raw Skin Chemistry

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes skin from leather?

Explanation

Biological animal skin (hide/pelt) is the raw, untanned integumentary covering of an animal, consisting mainly of collagen; in its raw state, it putrefies when damp and turns stiff and horny when dried. Leather is the chemically transformed, durable product obtained through tanning (using vegetable tannins, chromium salts, or aldehydes), which cross-links collagen fibers, rendering them permanently resistant to microbial putrefaction and hot water.

कच्ची खाल (Skin) पशु का कच्चा बाहरी आवरण है जो गीला होने पर सड़ सकता है; जबकि चमड़ा (Leather) टैनिंग (tanning) प्रक्रिया द्वारा संसाधित और टिकाऊ बनाया गया पदार्थ है जो सड़न-रोधी होता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1149📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageConservation Documentation Workflow

Which of the following is the correct order of steps for making a conservation report for an object in a museum or archive?
1) Assessment of Condition
2) Photographic Documentation
3) Restoration or Treatment Details
4) Conservation Recommendations
5) Background Information (Object History)
6) Materials and Techniques Used in Conservation
Choose the correct order of these steps:

Explanation

A formal conservation treatment report follows a standardized archival structure:
5) Background Information & Provenance (object history, accession data)
1) Physical Assessment of Condition (initial examination and diagnosis of damage)
2) Photographic Documentation (visual baseline records before treatment)
3) Restoration or Treatment Details (methodology executed)
6) Materials and Techniques Used in Conservation (exact chemicals, consolidants, adhesives applied)
4) Conservation Recommendations (preventive guidelines for future display, handling, and storage).
Correct sequence: 5 -> 1 -> 2 -> 3 -> 6 -> 4 (Option A).

संरक्षण रिपोर्ट (Conservation Report) का सही क्रम: 5) पृष्ठभूमि की जानकारी (वस्तु का इतिहास)

->

1) वस्तु की स्थिति का आकलन

->

2) फोटोग्राफिक दस्तावेजीकरण

->

3) उपचार व बहाली का विवरण

->

6) प्रयुक्त सामग्री व तकनीक

->

4) भविष्य के संरक्षण हेतु सिफारिशें। सही विकल्प A है।

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1150📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePurpose of Condition Reports

What is the primary purpose of a condition report in the context of museum or archival conservation?

Explanation

A condition report is an essential technical diagnostic document whose primary objective is to provide a precise, objective, baseline record of an artifact's current physical state—meticulously detailing any existing damage, structural instability, stains, cracks, previous repairs, or biological infestation, particularly prior to and following loans, transit, or exhibition.

कंडीशन रिपोर्ट (Condition Report) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य किसी कलाकृति या अभिलेखीय वस्तु की वर्तमान भौतिक स्थिति और उसमें मौजूद किसी भी प्रकार की क्षति, क्षरण या दरारों का सटीक रिकॉर्ड दर्ज करना है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1151📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageCondition Report Principles

Which of the following statements about a Condition Report is/are correct?
1) A condition report is created only once during the acquisition of an object and is never updated.
2) The condition report should include a detailed description of any visible damage, stains, or signs of deterioration.
3) It is not necessary to include photographs of the object in the condition report.
4) Condition reports are only useful for objects that are being repaired or restored.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Explanation

Statement 2 is entirely correct. Statements 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because:
- Condition reports are dynamic living records updated whenever an object is moved, loaned, exhibited, or surveyed.
- Photographic documentation is a mandatory, indispensable component.
- Condition reports are vital for collection inventory, risk management, and legal insurance, not solely for objects undergoing active restoration.
Thus, Statement 2 is correct, while 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect (Option C).

कथन 2 सही है: कंडीशन रिपोर्ट में सभी दृश्यमान क्षति, दाग और क्षरण के संकेतों का विस्तृत विवरण होना चाहिए। कथन 1, 3 और 4 गलत हैं क्योंकि रिपोर्ट समय-समय पर अपडेट की जाती है, इसमें तस्वीरें अनिवार्य हैं और यह सभी वस्तुओं के लिए आवश्यक है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1152📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageCore Principles of Conservation

Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should always be reversible to avoid permanent changes to the original object.
2. Conservation treatments should only be applied if the object is in critical condition.
3. The use of materials for conservation should be as close as possible to the original material of the object.
4. It is not necessary to document conservation work as long as the object is preserved in good condition.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Explanation

Core conservation ethics (ICOM-CC / AIC Code of Ethics):
- Statement 1 is TRUE: Treatments must be reversible so that future conservators can undo interventions without harming the original substrate.
- Statement 2 is FALSE: Preventive conservation is actively performed on stable objects to prevent them from ever degrading into critical states.
- Statement 3 is TRUE: Materials must be compatible in physical, chemical, and mechanical properties with the original fabric.
- Statement 4 is FALSE: Rigorous documentation is an absolute, non-negotiable professional mandate.
Thus, 1 and 3 are correct; 2 and 4 are incorrect (Option B).

संरक्षण के बुनियादी सिद्धांत: 1) उपचार प्रतिवर्ती (reversible) होना चाहिए; 3) संरक्षण सामग्री मूल वस्तु के अनुकूल होनी चाहिए। कथन 2 और 4 गलत हैं क्योंकि निवारक संरक्षण हर वस्तु के लिए आवश्यक है और पूर्ण दस्तावेजीकरण अनिवार्य है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1153📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageReversibility & Compatibility in Conservation

Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should always be reversible, allowing treatments to be undone if necessary.
2. Only objects that are in critical condition should be treated, while preventive measures should be avoided.
3. Conservation treatments should use materials that are compatible with the original object to avoid further damage.
4. Documentation of all conservation work is unnecessary if the object is successfully preserved.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Explanation

Identical to the foundational ethical principles of conservation: Reversibility (Statement 1) and Material Compatibility (Statement 3) are mandatory. Neglecting preventive conservation (Statement 2) or omitting documentation (Statement 4) violates international conservation charters (Venice Charter 1964). Hence, 1 and 3 are correct; 2 and 4 are incorrect (Option B).

संरक्षण के बुनियादी सिद्धांत: प्रतिवर्तीयता (Reversibility - कथन 1) और सामग्री की अनुकूलता (Compatibility - कथन 3) सही हैं। निवारक उपायों से बचना या दस्तावेजीकरण न करना पूरी तरह गलत है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1154📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMinimal Intervention & Reversibility

Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should prioritize minimal intervention, only applying treatments when absolutely necessary.
2. Preventive conservation measures should be applied only after significant damage has already occurred.
3. Reversibility of treatments is essential, ensuring that any intervention can be undone in the future if necessary.
4. Documentation is crucial in conservation to record all treatments and materials used for future reference.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Explanation

The three golden pillars of modern conservation are:
1. Minimal Intervention: Do only what is necessary to stabilize the artifact while preserving its historical integrity and patina.
3. Reversibility: All adhesives, consolidants, and fills must be readily removable in the future.
4. Comprehensive Documentation: Every step, technique, and substance must be permanently recorded.
Statement 2 is completely false because preventive conservation is by definition proactive and continuous, not reactive after destruction. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct; 2 is incorrect (Option B).

संरक्षण के तीन मुख्य स्तंभ: 1) न्यूनतम हस्तक्षेप (Minimal intervention); 3) प्रतिवर्तीयता (Reversibility); और 4) विस्तृत दस्तावेजीकरण (Documentation)। कथन 2 गलत है क्योंकि निवारक संरक्षण क्षति होने से पहले किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1155📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageConservation Ethics Non-Principles

Which of the following is NOT a basic principle to keep in mind during the conservation of cultural heritage objects?

Explanation

Option C is fundamentally contrary to conservation science: preventive conservation (environmental controls, proper storage, pest management, UV filtering) must be maintained continuously to prevent damage from occurring. Waiting until an object shows signs of damage defeats the entire purpose of preventive preservation. Reversibility, minimal intervention, and material compatibility are genuine core principles.

कथन C संरक्षण का बुनियादी सिद्धांत नहीं है, बल्कि उसके विपरीत है: निवारक संरक्षण के उपाय क्षति दिखने से पहले ही लगातार लागू किए जाने चाहिए, क्षति की प्रतीक्षा नहीं की जाती। सही विकल्प C है।

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1156📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of Preventive Conservation

Which of the following best describes preventive conservation in the context of heritage and art conservation?

Explanation

As defined by ICOM-CC, Preventive Conservation comprises all indirect measures and actions aimed at avoiding and minimizing future deterioration or loss. These measures operate in the context or the surroundings of an item (climate control, lighting, pest control, security, storage furniture, and proper handling protocols) without direct physical or chemical intervention on the object itself.

निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive Conservation) का अर्थ कलाकृतियों पर सीधे हस्तक्षेप किए बिना, उनके पर्यावरण (तापमान, आर्द्रता, प्रकाश, कीट नियंत्रण, भंडारण और सुरक्षित हैंडलिंग) को नियंत्रित करके क्षति के जोखिम को कम करना है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1157📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of Curative Conservation

Which of the following statements best describes curative conservation in the context of cultural heritage?

Explanation

Curative conservation (also known as remedial conservation) consists of all direct actions applied to an object or collection with the primary goal of arresting an active damaging process, stabilizing its physical structure, or repairing existing deterioration (e.g. desalination of stone, deacidification of paper, consolidation of crumbling wood, disinfestation of textiles). Option B accurately defines this.

उपचारात्मक संरक्षण (Curative Conservation): जब किसी कलाकृति में सक्रिय क्षति हो रही हो, तो उसे रोकने, स्थिर करने और यथासंभव उसकी मूल स्थिति में सुरक्षित करने के लिए वस्तु पर सीधे किए जाने वाले उपचार (जैसे डिसैलिनेशन, डी-एसिडिफिकेशन, सुदृढ़ीकरण)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1158📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageJ&K State Archives History

Arrange the following events related to the establishment of archives in Jammu & Kashmir in the correct chronological order.
1) Establishment of the Jammu and Kashmir State Archives in Srinagar
2) Opening of the Jammu Branch of Archives
3) Jammu and Kashmir Archives Act
4) Establishment of the Jammu and Kashmir State Archives in Jammu
Choose the correct sequence from the options below:

Explanation

In Jammu and Kashmir, systematic archival administration began during the Dogra rule: the Central State Archives was first organized in the summer capital Srinagar, followed by archival repositories in Jammu, and subsequent statutory regulation under the state archives framework. Sequence 1 -> 2 -> 3 -> 4 corresponds to Option A.

जम्मू और कश्मीर में अभिलेखागार (State Archives) की स्थापना का सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम: श्रीनगर में राज्य अभिलेखागार की स्थापना

->

जम्मू शाखा

->

अभिलेखागार अधिनियम। सही विकल्प A (

1 -> 2 -> 3 -> 4

) है।

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1159📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageHarwan Archaeological Antiquities

What types of antiquities were recovered from the archaeological site at Harwan during the course of excavation?

Explanation

The world-famous ancient Buddhist monastic site at Harwan (excavated in the 1920s by Ram Chandra Kak near Srinagar, Kashmir) is internationally celebrated for its unique molded terracotta tiles and plaques dating from the Kushana period (c. 3rd-4th century CE). These tiles feature stamped Kharoshthi numerals, human figures in Central Asian attire, ascetics, flora, fauna, alongside ancient pottery and terracotta antiquities, now preserved in the SPS Museum Srinagar.

कश्मीर के हरवान (Harwan) पुरातात्विक स्थल (बौद्ध मठ परिसर) के उत्खनन से कुषाण काल की विशिष्ट टेराकोटा टाइलें, पकी मिट्टी की आकृतियाँ (terracotta figurines), खरोष्ठी लिपि में अंकित मुहरें/संख्याएँ और मिट्टी के बर्तन प्राप्त हुए हैं। सही विकल्प D है।

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1160📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePreventive vs Curative Conservation

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes preventive conservation from curative conservation?

Explanation

As established by ICOM-CC:
- Preventive Conservation: Indirect, proactive actions carried out on the environment (climate, lighting, pest management, storage enclosures) to prevent or delay damage.
- Curative Conservation: Direct, reactive physical and chemical treatments applied to the artifact itself to halt active deterioration or repair damaged components.

निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive) पर्यावरणीय नियंत्रण (तापमान, प्रकाश आदि) द्वारा क्षति को होने से रोकता है, जबकि उपचारात्मक संरक्षण (Curative) क्षतिग्रस्त वस्तु पर सीधे मरम्मत व रासायनिक उपचार करके उसे स्थिर करता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1161📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageHistory of World Museums

Which of the following is considered the first public museum in the world?

Explanation

The Ashmolean Museum of Art and Archaeology at the University of Oxford, England (opened in May 1683 to house the cabinet of curiosities gifted by Elias Ashmole), is universally recognized by historians and museologists as the world's first university museum and the first purpose-built public museum accessible to the general populace upon payment of an admission fee.

विश्व का पहला सार्वजनिक संग्रहालय (First Public Museum in the World) ऑक्सफोर्ड विश्वविद्यालय, इंग्लैंड का 'अशमोलियन संग्रहालय' (The Ashmolean Museum, Oxford) माना जाता है, जिसे 1683 में एलियास अशमोल के संग्रह से स्थापित किया गया था। सही विकल्प D है।

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1162📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersPioneers of Indian Photography

Often referred to as the "Photographer to the Nizam," was an influential Indian photographer of the late 19th and early 20th centuries:

Explanation

Raja Deen Dayal (Lala Deen Dayal, 1844–1905) was appointed the official court photographer to the 6th Nizam of Hyderabad, Mahbub Ali Khan, Asaf Jah VI, in 1885. The Nizam conferred upon him the noble title of 'Musawwir Jung Raja Bahadur' (Bold Warrior of Photography) and established his famed studio in Secunderabad.

राजा दीन दयाल (लाला दीन दयाल, 1844-1905) को 1885 में हैदराबाद के छठे निजाम महबूब अली खान द्वारा आधिकारिक दरबारी फोटोग्राफर नियुक्त किया गया था। निजाम ने उन्हें 'मुसव्विर जंग राजा बहादुर' की उपाधि से नवाजा था। सही विकल्प B है।

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1163📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersIndian Photojournalism

_________ was one of the first on the scene capturing the aftermath of the gas leak from Union Carbide's pesticide plant in Bhopal, India, 1984

Explanation

Legendary photojournalist Raghu Rai (an associate of Henri Cartier-Bresson and Magnum Photos member) rushed to Bhopal immediately after the catastrophic toxic gas leak on the night of December 2–3, 1984. His haunting, world-renowned photographic documentation exposed the corporate negligence and human tragedy in his seminal book 'Exposure: A Corporate Crime'.

प्रसिद्ध फोटो पत्रकार रघु राय (Raghu Rai) 1984 में भोपाल गैस त्रासदी (यूनियन कार्बाइड) के तुरंत बाद घटनास्थल पर पहुंचे थे। उनकी मार्मिक तस्वीरों ने इस औद्योगिक त्रासदी की भयावहता को वैश्विक स्तर पर उजागर किया। सही विकल्प A है।

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1164📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersContemporary Indian Photographers

An Indian photographer known for his striking black-and-white images that capture the essence of Indian culture and spirituality:

Explanation

Dayanita Singh is internationally acclaimed for her poetic and evocative black-and-white photography capturing classical Indian musicians (e.g. Ustad Zakir Hussain), architectural spaces, and cultural archives, presenting them in innovative portable 'book-museums'.

दयानिटा सिंह (Dayanita Singh) अपनी उत्कृष्ट ब्लैक-एंड-व्हाइट तस्वीरों के लिए अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्तर पर प्रसिद्ध हैं, जो भारतीय संस्कृति, संगीत और सामाजिक जीवन के मर्म को दर्शाती हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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1165📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersIndian Photographers & Works

Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column - I:
1. Raghu Rai
2. Ram Rahman
3. Pushpamala N
4. Ketaki Sheth

Column - II:
i. Mother India Project
ii. Padmashree in 1972
iii. Twinspotting, a series of more than a hundred protraits of twin siblings
iv. Safdar Hashmi Memorial Trust (SAHMAT) in New Delhi in 1989

Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

Matching:
- 1. Raghu Rai: awarded the Padma Shri in 1972 for his historic photojournalism during the Bangladesh Liberation War

->

ii.
- 2. Ram Rahman: co-founder of the Safdar Hashmi Memorial Trust (SAHMAT) in 1989

->

iv.
- 3. Pushpamala N: conceptual photo-performance artist who created the iconic 'Mother India Project'

->

i.
- 4. Ketaki Sheth: acclaimed photographer known for 'Twinspotting', documenting twin siblings in the Patel community

->

iii.
Matches: 1 - ii, 2 - iv, 3 - i, 4 - iii (Option A).

रघु राय को 1972 में पद्मश्री मिला (1-ii); राम रहमान 1989 में सहमत (SAHMAT) के संस्थापक सदस्य थे (2-iv); पुष्पमाला एन ने 'मदर इंडिया प्रोजेक्ट' बनाया (3-i); और केतकी सेठ 'ट्विनस्पॉटिंग' श्रृंखला के लिए प्रसिद्ध हैं (4-iii)। सही मिलान विकल्प A है।

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1166📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleDarkroom & Editing Techniques

What is dodging in photography?

Explanation

In photographic printing (both darkroom and digital darkroom processing), dodging is the technique of holding back exposure from a selected portion of an image during printing to make that specific area lighter. (The reverse technique, adding exposure to make an area darker, is called 'burning').

डौजिंग (Dodging) प्रिंटिंग या फोटो एडिटिंग के दौरान किसी विशिष्ट क्षेत्र में एक्सपोज़र को रोककर उस हिस्से को हल्का/उजाला (lighter) बनाने की प्रक्रिया है। (अंधेरा करने को 'बर्निंग' कहते हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1167📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TrianglePhysics of Light & Optics

Which statement is correct about laws of reflection of light:
I: The incident ray, normal ray and the reflected ray all lie in the same plane
II: The angle of reflection is always equal to the angle of incidence
III: The angle of incidence is less than the angle of reflection
IV: The incident ray and the refracted ray are parallel to each other.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

The two fundamental laws of specular reflection are:
1. The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the surface at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane (Statement I).
2. The angle of reflection is always equal to the angle of incidence (

\theta_r = \theta_i

) (Statement II).
Statements III and IV are incorrect.

प्रकाश के परावर्तन के दो बुनियादी नियम हैं: 1) आपतित किरण, अभिलंब और परावर्तित किरण तीनों एक ही तल में होते हैं (कथन I); 2) परावर्तन कोण सदैव आपतन कोण के बराबर होता है (कथन II)। अतः I और II दोनों सही हैं (विकल्प A)।

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1168📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleDynamic Range & Metering

What camera settings are best for capturing shadow detail?

Explanation

To maximize shadow detail without noise or clipping:
- Lower ISO minimizes sensor noise in dark areas, while a wider aperture lets in more photons.
- Manual mode provides absolute control over the dynamic range.
- Spot metering reads luminance directly off dark target areas to expose shadows correctly.
Therefore, All of the above (Option D) is correct.

छाया विवरण (shadow detail) को सर्वोत्तम रूप से कैप्चर करने के लिए: कम ISO और चौड़ा एपर्चर; एक्सपोज़र पर पूर्ण नियंत्रण के लिए मैनुअल मोड; और छायादार क्षेत्र के सटीक मापन के लिए स्पॉट मीटरिंग का उपयोग करना चाहिए। सही विकल्प D (All of the above) है।

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1169📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyFlash Photography Fundamentals

Consider the given statements and choose the most appropriate option:
I: Flash Synchronization- When shooting people with a night scene background, this mode balances the brightness so the night scene also appears in the picture.
II: Flash Exposure Compensation-is a function that allows you to correct the amount of flash set automatically by the camera just as you would adjust the exposure with Exposure Compensation
III: Effective Flash Range- The light of the flash will be weaker the farther it travels from the camera.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

All three statements are correct:
- Statement I describes slow-sync flash (dragging the shutter to balance subject flash with ambient night illumination).
- Statement II accurately defines Flash Exposure Compensation (FEC), allowing fine-tuning of automatic TTL flash output.
- Statement III reflects the inverse square law governing effective flash range (

I \propto 1/d^2

).

तीनों कथन सही हैं: फ्लैश सिंक्रोनाइज़ेशन (स्लो-सिंक) रात के दृश्यों में विषय और पृष्ठभूमि की चमक को संतुलित करता है; फ्लैश एक्सपोज़र कंपनसेशन फ्लैश की तीव्रता को समायोजित करता है; और फ्लैश की दूरी बढ़ने पर उसकी रोशनी क्षीण होती जाती है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1170📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyShot Framing & Types

Define Medium Shot:

Explanation

In framing grammar, a Medium Shot (MS, typically capturing a person from the waist or hips up) establishes the subject as the primary focal point while maintaining visual context by showing a portion of the immediate background.

मीडियम शॉट (Medium Shot) में विषय (आमतौर पर कमर से ऊपर) फ्रेम का मुख्य केंद्र बन जाता है, जबकि पृष्ठभूमि का केवल एक छोटा और प्रासंगिक हिस्सा दिखाई देता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1171📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleAperture & Depth of Field

Aperture/f-stop affects what part(s) of a photo?

Explanation

The lens aperture (f-stop) fundamentally affects two critical aspects of a photograph simultaneously:
1. Exposure: controls the volume of photons reaching the sensor per unit time.
2. Depth of Field (DoF): governs the zone of acceptable sharpness in front of and behind the point of focus.
Therefore, it affects Both A and B.

एपर्चर/एफ-स्टॉप तस्वीर के दो मुख्य पहलुओं को प्रभावित करता है: 1) एक्सपोज़र (सेंसर तक पहुंचने वाले प्रकाश की मात्रा); और 2) डेप्थ ऑफ फील्ड (फोकस के आगे और पीछे तीखेपन का दायरा)। अतः सही उत्तर 'Both A and B' (विकल्प C) है।

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1172📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleFocus Techniques & Lens Features

Match the following and choose the correct option:
Column - I
1. The process of adjusting the depth of field of a camera lens to bring an image into focus without relying on autofocus or other technical AI
2. Is a method of ensuring that your final image is in focus by taking multiple shots of the same frame with different focuses
3. Can skew the size of objects in your images to be much smaller than they are in real life.
4. Is a feature on some manual focus lenses that attempts to give you a measure in feet or meters of how far your focus point is from the Camera.

Column-II
i. Wide angle lens
ii. Manual focus
iii. Focus stacking
iv. Focus distance window

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Matching:
- 1. Manual focus: manually turning the focus ring to achieve sharp focus without autofocus

->

ii.
- 2. Focus stacking: capturing multiple frames at progressive focus distances and digitally blending them for infinite depth of field

->

iii.
- 3. Wide angle lens: optical perspective distortion exaggerates distance and makes objects appear smaller

->

i.
- 4. Focus distance window: lens barrel scale indicating the focused distance in meters/feet

->

iv.
Correct matching: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (Option B).

मैनुअल फोकस में हाथ से फोकस किया जाता है (1-ii); फोकस स्टैकिंग में अलग-अलग फोकस वाली कई तस्वीरें जोड़ते हैं (2-iii); वाइड एंगल लेंस वस्तुओं को छोटा दिखाता है (3-i); और फोकस डिस्टेंस विंडो दूरी दर्शाती है (4-iv)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1173📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleShutter Speed & Panning

Which of the following shutter speed settings would be the best for 'panning' shots?

Explanation

Panning is the dynamic technique of tracking a moving subject with the camera during exposure to render the subject sharp while streaking the background into motion blur. To achieve visible background streaking, a relatively slow shutter speed is required, typically

1/30\text{th}

of a second (faster speeds like

1/500\text{s}

freeze all motion).

पैनिंग (Panning) में चलते हुए विषय के साथ कैमरे को घुमाया जाता है ताकि विषय तीखा रहे और पृष्ठभूमि में गति का धुंधलापन आए। इसके लिए धीमी शटर स्पीड जैसे 1/30 सेकंड (1/30th) सबसे उपयुक्त होती है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1174📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleDigital Image Processing Pipeline

Which of the following is the first and foremost step in Image Processing?

Explanation

In digital image processing pipelines (Gonzalez & Woods), the foundational first step is Image Acquisition—capturing the physical optical scene using a digital camera sensor or scanner and converting the analog signal into a discrete digital 2D matrix.

डिजिटल इमेज प्रोसेसिंग (Image Processing) का सबसे पहला और अनिवार्य चरण 'इमेज अधिग्रहण' (Image acquisition) है, जिसमें कैमरे या स्कैनर द्वारा भौतिक छवि को डिजिटल रूप में कैप्चर किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1175📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleDigital Image Transformations

Which of the following tool is used in tasks such as zooming, shrinking, rotating, etc.?

Explanation

In digital image processing and raster graphics, geometric operations such as image resizing, digital zooming, shrinking, rotating, and warping rely fundamentally on Spatial Interpolation (nearest-neighbor, bilinear, or bicubic interpolation) to estimate unknown pixel intensities between grid coordinates.

इमेज को ज़ूम करने, छोटा करने या घुमाने (rotating) जैसी ज्यामितीय प्रक्रियाओं में नए पिक्सेल मानों का अनुमान लगाने के लिए 'इंटरपोलेशन' (Interpolation) तकनीक का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1176📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyGenres of Photography

_________ is all about capturing the beauty of a human subject.

Explanation

Glamour photography focuses primarily on capturing and celebrating the physical allure, elegance, and beauty of the human subject, heavily emphasizing styling, makeup, wardrobe, and flattering lighting.

ग्लैमर फोटोग्राफी (Glamour photography) का मुख्य उद्देश्य मॉडल या मानव विषय की सुंदरता, आकर्षण और शैली को सुरुचिपूर्ण प्रकाश व्यवस्था के माध्यम से प्रस्तुत करना है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1177📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyProduct Photography Basics

Basic Principles for Product Photography includes:

Explanation

Fundamental rules of commercial product photography mandate using a clean, seamless, non-distracting background (e.g. white sweep or infinity curve) and shooting from a stable tripod to ensure identical framing, sharpness, and lighting consistency across catalog collections. Thus, Both A and B (Option D) is correct.

उत्पाद फोटोग्राफी के मूलभूत सिद्धांतों में एक साफ और सुसंगत पृष्ठभूमि का उपयोग करना तथा स्थिरता और फ्रेमिंग की एकरूपता के लिए ट्राइपॉड का उपयोग करना शामिल है। सही विकल्प D (Both A and B) है।

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1178📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersVisual Narrative & Photojournalism

What term refers to capturing the emotional essence of a story or event through images?

Explanation

Photographic storytelling (narrative visual storytelling) is the deliberate art of conveying a compelling narrative, emotional resonance, and meaning through a single powerful photograph or a cohesive series of images.

तस्वीरों के माध्यम से किसी घटना या कहानी के भावनात्मक मर्म को प्रस्तुत करने की कला को 'फोटोग्राफिक स्टोरीटेलिंग' (Photographic storytelling) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1179📚Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringRadar & Lidar Ranging Principles

A van is moving in the same direction as a laser beam emitted by a transceiver. A laser pulse sent at t=0 s is reflected off the van and received back after 50 ns (nanosecond). Another pulse sent at t=0.2 s is received back after 40 ns. If the speed of light is 3x10^8 m/s, what is the average speed of the van during this interval?

Explanation

At

t_1 = 0

:

d_1 = \frac{c \times \Delta t_1}{2} = \frac{3 \times 10^8 \times 50 \times 10^{-9}}{2} = 7.5\text{ m}

. At

t_2 = 0.2\text{ s}

:

d_2 = \frac{3 \times 10^8 \times 40 \times 10^{-9}}{2} = 6.0\text{ m}

. Distance change

\Delta d = |6.0 - 7.5| = 1.5\text{ m}

. Speed

= \frac{1.5\text{ m}}{0.2\text{ s}} = 7.5\text{ m/s} = 7.5 \times 3.6 = 27\text{ km/h}

.

पहली दूरी

d_1 = (3 \times 10^8 \times 50 \times 10^{-9})/2 = 7.5

मीटर। 0.2 सेकंड बाद दूरी

d_2 = 6.0

मीटर। तय दूरी

= 1.5

मीटर। चाल

= 1.5 / 0.2 = 7.5

मी/से

= 27

किमी/घंटा। सही विकल्प B है।

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1180📚Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringAntenna Radiated Power

A dipole antenna carries an RMS current of 400 A across a radiation resistance of 8\Omega. If the current and resistance are ideal and constant during operation, how much power is radiated by the antenna in megawatts (MW)?

Explanation

Radiated power is given by Joule's radiation law:

P_{rad} = I_{rms}^2 \times R_{rad} = (400)^2 \times 8 = 160,000 \times 8 = 1,280,000\text{ W} = 1.28\text{ MW}

.

विकिरित शक्ति:

P_{rad} = I_{rms}^2 R_{rad} = (400)^2 \times 8 = 160000 \times 8 = 1,280,000

वाट

= 1.28

मेगावाट (MW)। सही विकल्प D है।

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1181📚Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringFree Space Path Loss

Which of the following factors most directly contributes to free-space path loss and thus causes attenuation?

Explanation

Free-Space Path Loss (FSPL) is fundamentally geometric: as a spherical electromagnetic wavefront radiates away from an isotropic antenna, its energy spreads over an area proportional to

4\pi d^2

(inverse-square spreading), reducing power flux density.

मुक्त-स्थान पथ हानि (Free-space path loss) मुख्य रूप से दूरी बढ़ने पर प्रकाश किरण पुंज के अंतरिक्ष में फैलने (Spreading of the signal as it propagates) और ऊर्जा घनत्व घटने के कारण होती है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1182📚Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & MicrocontrollersDigital Logic - Multiplexers & Demultiplexers

Which of the following statements about demultiplexers is/are correct?
I. 1-to-8 demultiplexer consists of eight NAND gates connected to a single data input
II. It takes a single input and distributes it to multiple outputs based on select lines
III. It functions as an "anti-clock demultiplexer" in synchronous data transmission and security systems
IV. It operates similarly to a multi-position switch, directing data to one of several output lines

Explanation

A demultiplexer (DEMUX / data distributor) receives data from a single input line and routes it to one of

2^n

output lines determined by

n

select lines, functioning as a single-pole multi-throw rotary switch (Statements II and IV are universally correct). In standard logic implementations, 1-to-8 DEMUXes utilize AND or NOR gates with inverters, making II and IV the solid factual pair.

डीमल्टीप्लेक्सर (DEMUX) एक एकल डेटा इनपुट को सेलेक्ट लाइनों के आधार पर कई आउटपुट लाइनों में से किसी एक पर निर्देशित करता है (II), और यह मल्टी-पोजिशन स्विच की तरह कार्य करता है (IV)। सही विकल्प C है।

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1183📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsThermal Design in Electronics

Why is thermal control important in electronic and electrical systems? Choose the correct option:
I. It prevents overheating and component damage.
II. It enhances the efficiency and lifespan of devices.
III. It increases power consumption and heat generation.
IV. It ensures stable performance under varying temperatures.

Explanation

Thermal control manages heat dissipation to protect semiconductor junctions from burnout (I), reduces thermal degradation to increase device longevity and operational efficiency (II), and prevents thermal drift to maintain electrical stability (IV). Statement III is a detrimental consequence of failure, not a goal of thermal management.

इलेक्ट्रॉनिक प्रणालियों में थर्मल नियंत्रण घटक क्षति को रोकता है (I), दक्षता और जीवनकाल बढ़ाता है (II), और विभिन्न तापमानों पर स्थिर प्रदर्शन सुनिश्चित करता है (IV)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1184📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite DAMA Protocols

Which of the following is a key difference between the Polling Method and the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method in Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA)?
I. In the Polling Method, the master station only responds to requests from earth stations, whereas in the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method, the master station constantly checks the availability of slots.
II. The polling Method involves the master station sequentially polling all earth stations for call requests, while the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method allows earth stations to request slots directly, with the master station allocating them when available.
III. The Polling Method allows earth stations to request slots at any time, while the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method has a fixed polling schedule.
IV. In the Polling Method, earth stations must queue their requests when slots are unavailable, whereas, in the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method, requests are denied immediately.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Statement II accurately states the foundational operational distinction in satellite DAMA protocols: in Polling, the central hub sequentially queries each station in a deterministic round-robin cycle, whereas in Centrally Controlled Random Access (such as slotted ALOHA request channels), earth stations asynchronously transmit slot requests on demand.

कथन II सही अंतर स्पष्ट करता है: पोलिंग विधि में मास्टर स्टेशन क्रमिक रूप से सभी स्टेशनों से कॉल अनुरोध पूछता है, जबकि रैंडम एक्सेस विधि में अर्थ स्टेशन स्लॉट का अनुरोध सीधे भेजते हैं और मास्टर स्टेशन उपलब्ध होने पर आवंटित करता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1185📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsSemiconductor Doping

Consider the following statement:
n-type of silicon can be
I. Formed by adding impurity of phosphorus
II. Formed by adding the impurity of boron
III. Formed by adding the impurity of arsenic
IV. Formed by adding impurity of aluminium
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

Explanation

Doping group-IV silicon with pentavalent (Group V) donor atoms—such as Phosphorus (P), Arsenic (As), or Antimony (Sb)—provides extra conduction electrons, creating n-type silicon. Trivalent elements like Boron (II) and Aluminium (IV) create p-type silicon. Therefore, Statements I and III only are correct.

n-प्रकार का सिलिकॉन बनाने के लिए पंचसंयोजी अशुद्धियां जैसे फॉस्फोरस (I) और आर्सेनिक (III) मिलाई जाती हैं। बोरॉन और एल्यूमीनियम त्रिसंयोजी हैं जो p-प्रकार बनाते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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1186📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsDiode & Transistor Applications

Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List -I (Device):
(w) p-n junction diode
(x) Tunnel diode
(y) JFET
(z) Schottky barrier

List-II (Application):
(i) Microwave generator
(ii) Low-frequency rectifier
(iii) High-frequency rectifier
(iv) Voltage variable resistor

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Matching:
- (w) p-n junction diode: conventional low-frequency power rectifier

->

(ii).
- (x) Tunnel diode: negative differential resistance utilized as microwave oscillator/generator

->

(i).
- (y) JFET: operated in the ohmic region as a voltage-variable resistor (VVR)

->

(iv).
- (z) Schottky barrier diode: majority carrier device with no reverse recovery, ideal for high-frequency rectification

->

(iii).
Matches: (w)-(ii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(iii) (Option A).

p-n डायोड: निम्न आवृत्ति दिष्टकारी (ii); टनल डायोड: माइक्रोवेव जनरेटर (i); JFET: वोल्टेज परिवर्तनीय प्रतिरोधक (iv); और शोट्की डायोड: उच्च आवृत्ति दिष्टकारी (iii)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1187📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite Solar Eclipses

During which of the following periods is the eclipse effect in satellites most noticeable?

Explanation

Geostationary satellites experience solar eclipses twice annually around the vernal and autumnal equinoxes. The eclipse season lasts approximately 44 days (around four to six weeks), with the daily eclipse duration increasing from a few minutes to a maximum of about 72 minutes (1.20 hours).

भूस्थिर उपग्रहों में ग्रहण (eclipse) काल विषुव (equinox) के आसपास लगभग चार सप्ताह तक रहता है, जिसमें अधिकतम दैनिक ग्रहण अवधि 72 मिनट यानी 1.20 घंटे (1.20 hours) होती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1188📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsTransformers - All-Day Efficiency

The all-day efficiency of a transformer primarily depends on:

Explanation

All-day efficiency (energy efficiency over 24 hours,

\eta = \frac{\text{Output kWh}}{\text{Input kWh}}

) is used for distribution transformers. Because iron core losses occur 24 hours while copper losses vary with load squared, it depends fundamentally on both the amount of the load and the duration for which the load is connected.

ट्रांसफार्मर की ऑल-डे दक्षता (All-day efficiency, 24 घंटे का ऊर्जा अनुपात) मुख्य रूप से लोड की मात्रा (amount of load) और लोड की अवधि (duration of load) दोनों पर निर्भर करती है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1189📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsElectromagnetism - Fleming & Lenz Laws

Consider the following statements:
I. Fleming's rule is used when the induced EMF is due to flux cutting, i.e., in the case of motion of conductors through magnetic fields
II. Lenz's law is used when the induced EMF is due to a change in flux linkages
III. Lenz's law is indeed a direct consequence of the law of conservation of energy, as it ensures that the induced current opposes the change in flux that caused it
Which of the below statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct principles of electromagnetism:
- Fleming's Right-Hand Rule finds the direction of dynamically induced EMF (generator action / flux cutting, I).
- Lenz's Law determines the direction of statically induced EMF from changing flux linkages (II).
- Lenz's Law directly upholds the Law of Conservation of Energy by ensuring mechanical work must be done against electromagnetic opposition (III).

तीनों कथन सही हैं: फ्लेमिंग का नियम फ्लक्स-कटिंग (गतिज EMF) के लिए उपयोग होता है (I); लेंज का नियम फ्लक्स लिंकेज में परिवर्तन के लिए है (II); और लेंज का नियम ऊर्जा संरक्षण के नियम का प्रत्यक्ष परिणाम है (III)। सही विकल्प C है।

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1190📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsAC Power Frequency

A boiler at home is connected to the AC mains supplying power at 230V, 50Hz. The frequency of the instantaneous power consumed is:

Explanation

Instantaneous power in a resistive AC circuit is

p(t) = v(t) \times i(t) = V_m \sin(\omega t) \times I_m \sin(\omega t) = \frac{V_m I_m}{2}[1 - \cos(2\omega t)]

. The power pulsates at twice the fundamental supply frequency:

f_p = 2 \times 50\text{ Hz} = 100\text{ Hz}

.

शुद्ध प्रतिरोधी परिपथ में तात्क्षणिक शक्ति

p(t) \propto \sin^2(\omega t) = \frac{1 - \cos(2\omega t)}{2}

। अतः शक्ति दोलन की आवृत्ति सप्लाई आवृत्ति की दोगुनी (

2 \times 50 = 100

Hz) होती है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1191📚Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & MicrocontrollersSemiconductor Memories - ROM

Consider the following statements:
I. The process of entering data is called burning in ROM
II. ROMs are used in microcontroller security systems
III. ROMs are volatile memories
Which of the below statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct: programming data into a ROM or PROM involves blowing microscopic fusible links or programming floating gates, colloquially termed 'burning'. ROMs store permanent firmware in microcontrollers. Statement III is completely FALSE because ROM is by definition non-volatile (retains data when power is removed).

ROM में डेटा लिखने की प्रक्रिया को 'बर्निंग' (burning) कहा जाता है (I), और यह माइक्रोकंट्रोलर फर्मवेयर में उपयोग होती है (II)। कथन III असत्य है क्योंकि ROM गैर-वाष्पशील (non-volatile) मेमोरी होती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1192📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationGully Control Structures

Brush dam is a

Explanation

Gully control structures are classified into temporary structures and permanent structures. Temporary structures include brushwood dams (single post or double post brush dams), loose rock dams, and woven wire dams, which stabilize gully channels until protective vegetation is established. Permanent structures include drop spillways and chute spillways.

ब्रश डैम (Brush dam/झाड़ीदार बांध) एक 'अस्थायी अवनालिका नियंत्रण संरचना' (Temporary gully control structure) है, जिसका उपयोग अवनालिका (Gully) में पानी के वेग को धीमा करने और गाद जमा करने के लिए तब तक किया जाता है जब तक कि स्थायी वनस्पति न उग जाए। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1193📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationHydrologic Design & Flood Routing

The maximum flood flow that could be passed without damage or serious threat to the stability of hydraulic structures is known as.

Explanation

Design Flood is the instantaneous maximum peak flood discharge that a hydraulic structure (such as a spillway, weir, culvert, or dam) is designed to safely pass without structural damage, overtopping, or failure.

वह अधिकतम बाढ़ प्रवाह (Peak flood discharge) जिसे कोई जल-संरचना बिना किसी क्षति या अपनी स्थिरता को खतरे में डाले सुरक्षित रूप से पार कर सकती है, 'डिजाइन बाढ़' (Design flood) कहलाती है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

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1194📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationRemote Sensing & GIS Applications

Which of the following statements are correct?
i. Remote sensing is the technique of collecting data about Earth's surface using aerial or satellite sensors.
ii. Geographic Information Systems is a computer-based tool for capturing, analysing, and presenting spatial data.
Options:

Explanation

Statement i correctly defines Remote Sensing (RS): obtaining reliable information about objects or the Earth's surface from a distance using electromagnetic radiation sensors aboard aircraft or satellites. Statement ii correctly defines Geographic Information System (GIS): a computerized system designed to capture, store, manipulate, analyze, manage, and present all types of geographically referenced (spatial) data. Both statements are correct.

कथन i सुदूर संवेदन (Remote Sensing) की सही परिभाषा है (हवाई जहाज या उपग्रह सेंसर का उपयोग करके पृथ्वी की सतह का डेटा एकत्र करना)। कथन ii भौगोलिक सूचना प्रणाली (GIS) की सही परिभाषा है (स्थानिक डेटा का विश्लेषण और प्रबंधन करने वाला कंप्यूटर आधारित उपकरण)। अतः दोनों कथन सही हैं (विकल्प C)।

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1195📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationGully Control Spillways

Which of the following is a permanent gully control structure?

Explanation

Drop spillway is a rigid, permanent weir structure constructed of reinforced concrete, masonry, or steel at the head or gradient of a gully to safely lower runoff water without channel degradation. Woven wire dams and loose rock dams are temporary structures.

ड्रॉप स्पिलवे (Drop spillway) कंक्रीट या चिनाई से बनी एक 'स्थायी अवनालिका नियंत्रण संरचना' (Permanent gully control structure) है जो पानी को बिना कटाव के सुरक्षित नीचे गिराती है। जबकि बुने हुए तार वाले बांध और ढीले पत्थर वाले बांध अस्थायी संरचनाएं हैं। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1196📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationIrrigation Duty & Delta

The total depth of water required for the entire crop period is known as

Explanation

In irrigation engineering, Delta (

\Delta

) represents the total depth of water (expressed in cm or meters) required by a crop during its entire base/crop period for full growth and maturity. Duty (

D

) is the area irrigated per unit discharge (ha/cumec), related by

\Delta = \frac{864 B}{D}\text{ cm}

.

किसी फसल के पूरे फसल काल (Crop period) के दौरान आवश्यक पानी की कुल गहराई को 'डेल्टा' (Delta -

\Delta

) कहा जाता है। इसे सेंटीमीटर या मीटर में मापा जाता है। सही उत्तर Delta (विकल्प D) है।

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1197📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationEvapotranspiration Measurement

Lysimeter is used to find out

Explanation

A lysimeter is an experimental hydrologic measuring device consisting of a soil-filled tank equipped with weighing/drainage measurement systems, used to directly determine the actual evapotranspiration (

ET

) of crops under field conditions.

लाइसीमीटर (Lysimeter) का उपयोग फसलों द्वारा होने वाले कुल वाष्पोत्सर्जन (Evapotranspiration - वाष्पीकरण + वाष्पोत्सर्जन) को सटीक रूप से मापने के लिए किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1198📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationOpen Channel Discharge Measurement

Which of the following method is used to find out the rate of flow passing a point in a pipe or open channel?

Explanation

The fundamental method used to determine the rate of flow (discharge

Q

) passing a section in an open channel or conduit is the Velocity - Area Method, based on the continuity equation:

Q = A \cdot \bar{V}

, where

A

is cross-sectional flow area and

\bar{V}

is mean flow velocity (measured via current meter or floats).

किसी खुली नाली या पाइप में प्रवाह दर (Discharge

Q

) ज्ञात करने की मुख्य विधि 'वेग-क्षेत्रफल विधि' (Velocity - area method) है, जो सातत्य समीकरण

Q = A \times V

पर आधारित है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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1199📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationUnderground Pipe Distribution Systems

Hydrant is a component of

Explanation

In agricultural pipe network distribution, a Hydrant (riser outlet valve) is an essential component of an Underground Pipeline System. Installed at intervals along buried pipelines, hydrants allow portable surface pipes, gated pipes, or sprinkler laterals to be coupled for releasing pressurized water to the fields.

कृषि जल वितरण में 'हाइड्रेंट' (Hydrant) 'भूमिगत पाइपलाइन प्रणाली' (Underground pipeline system) का एक प्रमुख घटक है। यह भूमिगत मुख्य पाइप से खेत की सतह पर पानी निकालने का वाल्व/आउटलेट होता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1200📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationIrrigation Equipment Matching

Consider the following pairs
i. Drip irrigation - 1. Venturi Injector
ii. Sprinkler irrigation - 2. Riser pipe
iii. Centrifugal pump - 3. V notch weir
iv. Fertigation - 4. Impeller
- 5. Lateral pipe
Which of the following gives correctly matched pairs?

Explanation

Matching the components: (i) Drip irrigation uses Lateral pipes (5) fitted with emitters, (ii) Sprinkler irrigation uses vertical Riser pipes (2) to elevate sprinkler heads above crop canopy, (iii) Centrifugal pumps rely on a rotating Impeller (4) to impart kinetic energy, (iv) Fertigation employs a Venturi Injector (1) to draw fertilizer solution into the pressurized line. Hence, the correct match is i-5, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1 (Option C).

सही मिलान: (i) ड्रिप सिंचाई - लेटरल पाइप (5), (ii) स्प्रिंकलर सिंचाई - राइजर पाइप (2), (iii) अपकेंद्री पंप - इम्पेलर (4), (iv) फर्टिगेशन - वेंचुरी इंजेक्टर (1)। अतः सही संयोजन i-5, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1 (विकल्प C) है।

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1201📚Workshop Technology & Machine ToolsWorkshop Hand Tools & Holding Devices

Which of the following is a holding tool in a workshop?

Explanation

A Bench Vice is a fundamental workshop holding tool used to securely grip and hold workpieces during filing, sawing, chipping, tapping, and assembly. A chisel is a cutting tool, a caliper is a measuring/checking tool, and a rip saw is a cutting tool.

कार्यशाला (Workshop) में वर्कपीस को मजबूती से पकड़ने के लिए 'बेंच वाइस' (Bench vice) एक प्रमुख 'होल्डिंग टूल' (Holding tool) है। छेनी (Chisel) और आरी (Saw) काटने वाले औजार हैं और कैलीपर मापने का औजार है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1202📚Workshop Technology & Machine ToolsAdvanced Welding Technologies

Welding method suitable for industries like aerospace and car manufacturing is called

Explanation

Electron Beam Welding (EBW) and Laser Beam Welding (LBW) deliver extremely high energy density, narrow heat-affected zones (HAZ), deep penetration, and virtually zero thermal distortion, making them standard for high-precision components in aerospace and automotive/car manufacturing.

एयरोस्पेस और ऑटोमोबाइल (कार निर्माण) जैसे उच्च परिशुद्धता वाले उद्योगों के लिए 'इलेक्ट्रॉन बीम और लेजर वेल्डिंग' (Electron Beam and Laser Welding) सबसे उपयुक्त विधियां हैं क्योंकि ये अत्यंत संकीर्ण वेल्ड जोड़ और न्यूनतम विकृति (Zero distortion) प्रदान करती हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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1203📚Workshop Technology & Machine ToolsLathe Accessories & Work Holding

Component of a lathe that used to support and hold the work piece is called

Explanation

A Chuck is the primary work-holding device mounted directly on the lathe spindle nose, used to rigidly hold and support the workpiece during machining operations. Three-jaw universal chucks and four-jaw independent chucks are the most widely used.

लेथ मशीन में वर्कपीस को पकड़ने और सहारा देने के लिए इस्तेमाल किया जाने वाला मुख्य घटक 'चक' (Chuck - 3-जॉ या 4-जॉ चक) कहलाता है, जो स्पिंडल पर कसा होता है। अतः सही उत्तर Chucks (विकल्प B) है।

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1204📚Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesCarburetor Functions & Fuel Systems

Following statements are regarding the functions of carburetor. Which of them are correct?
i. Carburetor atomize the fuel.
ii. Carburetor mix the air and fuel thoroughly
iii. Carburetor regulate the air- fuel ratio at different speeds and loads on the engine.
Options:

Explanation

A carburetor in a spark-ignition engine performs three primary functions: (i) atomizing the liquid fuel into fine microscopic droplets via venturi suction, (ii) thoroughly mixing fuel vapor with air into a combustible mixture, and (iii) metering and regulating the air-fuel ratio (AFR) across varying engine speeds and load conditions. All three statements are correct.

कार्बोरेटर (Carburetor) के मुख्य कार्य हैं: (i) ईंधन को बारीक बूंदों में तोड़ना (Atomize करना), (ii) ईंधन और हवा का समरूप मिश्रण तैयार करना, और (iii) इंजन की विभिन्न गति और भार के अनुसार वायु-ईंधन अनुपात (Air-fuel ratio) को नियंत्रित करना। अतः तीनों कथन सही हैं (विकल्प D)।

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1205📚Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesSprayer Components & Atomization

The component of a sprayer which breaks the fluid in to fine droplet is called

Explanation

The Nozzle is the vital atomizing component of a sprayer designed to break pressurized liquid spray solution into fine droplets and distribute them in a specific spray pattern (flat fan, hollow cone, or solid cone).

स्प्रैयर (छिड़काव यंत्र) का वह घटक जो दबावयुक्त तरल को महीन बूंदों (Fine droplets) में तोड़ता है और निश्चित पैटर्न में छिड़कता है, 'नोजल' (Nozzle) कहलाता है। अतः सही उत्तर Nozzle (विकल्प A) है।

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1206📚Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesLand Levelling & Earthmoving Machinery

Heavy duty machinery meant for initial cutting and filling of land undulations is called

Explanation

A Scraper (tractor-drawn or motorized earthmoving scraper) is heavy-duty earthmoving equipment specifically designed for bulk excavation: scooping soil from high mounds (cutting), hauling it over distances, and discharging it evenly into low depressions (filling) during initial land levelling.

भूमि के बड़े ऊबड़-खाबड़ टीलों की शुरुआती कटाई (Cutting) करने और गड्ढों को भरने (Filling) के लिए प्रयुक्त भारी मशीन को 'स्क्रेपर' (Scraper) कहा जाता है। यह मिट्टी खोदकर ले जाता है और समतल करता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1207📚Renewable Energy & Electrical EngineeringRenewable Energy Benefits

Which of the following are the benefits of renewable energy?
i. Environmental benefits
ii. Sustainability
iii. Energy security
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

The deployment of renewable energy sources provides: (i) Environmental benefits (near-zero greenhouse gas and particulate emissions), (ii) Long-term sustainability (unlimited replenishing resources), and (iii) Energy security (reduced vulnerability to geopolitical supply disruptions and price volatility). All three are major benefits.

नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा के प्रमुख लाभों में शामिल हैं: (i) पर्यावरणीय लाभ (कम प्रदूषण और शून्य जीएचजी उत्सर्जन), (ii) स्थिरता/सततता (Sustainability - कभी समाप्त न होना), और (iii) ऊर्जा सुरक्षा (आयात पर निर्भरता कम होना)। अतः तीनों (i, ii and iii) सही हैं (विकल्प D)।

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1208📚Renewable Energy & Electrical EngineeringBiogas Plant Designs

Which one is a floating dome type biogas plant?

Explanation

The KVIC model (Khadi and Village Industries Commission) is the classic floating dome type biogas plant, featuring a cylindrical digester well and an inverted movable steel or fiberglass gas holder dome that floats on top of the slurry and rises/falls with gas volume. Janata and Deenabandhu models are fixed-dome plants.

केवीआईसी मॉडल (KVIC model) एक 'फ्लोटिंग ड्रम/डोम' (Floating dome) प्रकार का बायोगैस संयंत्र है, जिसमें लोहे का गैस धारक ड्रम गोबर के घोल के ऊपर तैरता है। जबकि जनता और दीनबंधु मॉडल फिक्स्ड डोम (स्थिर गुंबद) प्रकार के संयंत्र हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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1209📚Renewable Energy & Electrical EngineeringBiodiesel Manufacturing Methods

Which one of the following methods is NOT used for biodiesel production?

Explanation

The four established methods for reducing the high viscosity of plant oils to produce liquid engine fuels are: (1) Dilution / Blending with petrodiesel, (2) Micro-emulsification with alcohols, (3) Thermal cracking / Pyrolysis, and (4) Transesterification. Gasification thermochemically converts solid biomass into syngas (CO +

H_2

), not liquid biodiesel from oils.

वनस्पति तेलों की श्यानता कम करके बायोडीजल/तरल ईंधन बनाने की चार विधियाँ हैं: पायरोलिसिस (Thermal cracking), माइक्रो-इमल्सीफिकेशन, तनुकरण (Dilution/Blending), और ट्रांसएस्टरीफिकेशन। 'गैसीकरण' (Gasification) ठोस बायोमास को प्रोड्यूसर गैस में बदलता है, यह बायोडीजल निर्माण की विधि नहीं है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1210📚Renewable Energy & Electrical EngineeringSolar Radiation Physics

The form in which the solar energy is radiated from the sun

Explanation

The Sun radiates energy across the entire continuous electromagnetic spectrum (including ultraviolet, visible light, and infrared radiation) fundamentally in the form of Electromagnetic Waves traveling at the speed of light (

c \approx 3 \times 10^8\text{ m/s}

).

सूर्य से सौर ऊर्जा का विकिरण मुख्य रूप से 'विद्युत चुम्बकीय तरंगों' (Electromagnetic waves) के रूप में अंतरिक्ष में उत्सर्जित होता है, जिसमें पराबैंगनी, दृश्य प्रकाश और अवरक्त तरंगें शामिल हैं। अतः सबसे सटीक और व्यापक उत्तर Electromagnetic waves (विकल्प A) है।

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1211📚Agricultural Process Engineering, Post-Harvest & Protected CultivationAerodynamic Resistance in Bulk Grains

Resistance of bulk grain to airflow is a function of the kernel size and

Explanation

In deep bed grain aeration and drying (Ergun's equation and Shedd's curves:

\frac{\Delta P}{L} = f(\epsilon, d_p, v)

), the resistance of bulk grain to airflow is governed fundamentally by the superficial airflow velocity, equivalent kernel diameter (

d_p

), and the bed Porosity (void ratio

\epsilon

).

अनाज के ढेर में हवा के प्रवाह में प्रतिरोध (Resistance to airflow) मुख्य रूप से दानों के आकार (Kernel size) और ढेर की 'सरंध्रता' (Porosity - रिक्त स्थान का अनुपात) पर निर्भर करता है। अतः सही उत्तर Porosity (विकल्प C) है।

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1212📚Agricultural Process Engineering, Post-Harvest & Protected CultivationManual Grading & Ergonomics

The effectiveness of hand grading depends on
i. Quality of the product
ii. Quantity per inspector
iii. Experience and physical condition of the inspector
iv. The ergonomics during work
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

The accuracy and efficiency of manual/hand sorting and grading depend on: (i) The visual characteristics and defect uniformity of the incoming produce, (ii) The inspection conveyor flow rate and volume per worker, (iii) The skill, eyesight, alertness, and physical endurance of the sorter, and (iv) The ergonomic workstation design (conveyor height, ambient lighting, seating posture). All four factors govern effectiveness.

हाथ से ग्रेडिंग (Hand grading / छंटाई) की प्रभावशीलता निम्नलिखित पर निर्भर करती है: (i) उत्पाद की गुणवत्ता और एकरूपता, (ii) प्रति निरीक्षक उत्पाद की मात्रा/गति, (iii) निरीक्षक का अनुभव और शारीरिक स्थिति (थकान/दृष्टि), तथा (iv) कार्यस्थल की एर्गोनॉमिक्स (प्रकाश व्यवस्था व कार्य की सुगमता)। अतः चारों (i, ii, iii, iv) सही हैं (विकल्प D)।

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1213📚Agricultural Process Engineering, Post-Harvest & Protected CultivationLSU Grain Dryer Architecture

Which of the following is a continuous flow-mixing type of grain dryer?

Explanation

The LSU (Louisiana State University) Dryer is the classic continuous-flow mixing type column grain dryer widely used for paddy. It incorporates alternating inverted V-shaped air channels (baffles) that continuously mix and turn the grain mass as it descends by gravity, ensuring uniform drying and minimizing moisture gradients.

एलएसयू ड्रायर (LSU Dryer - Louisiana State University Dryer) धान और अनाज सुखाने के लिए एक प्रसिद्ध 'कंटीन्यूअस फ्लो-मिक्सिंग' (Continuous flow-mixing) प्रकार का ड्रायर है। इसमें लगे उल्टे V-आकार के बफ़ल्स अनाज को नीचे गिरते समय लगातार मिलाते रहते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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1214📚Agricultural Process Engineering, Post-Harvest & Protected CultivationDairy Engineering & Pasteurization

Temperature required in plate pasteurization is

Explanation

Plate pasteurizers in dairy processing operate on the High-Temperature Short-Time (HTST) continuous method, which standardly requires heating milk to 72°C (specifically 71.7°C to 72°C) and holding it for at least 15 seconds, followed immediately by rapid cooling below 4°C to destroy all pathogenic bacteria without altering nutritional quality.

डेयरी प्रसंस्करण में प्लेट पाश्चुरीकरण (Plate pasteurization / HTST विधि) के लिए आवश्यक मानक तापमान 72°C (71.7°C से 72°C) होता है, जिस पर दूध को 15 सेकंड तक रखकर तुरंत ठंडा किया जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर 72°C (विकल्प B) है।

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1215📚Engineering Drawing, Agricultural Schemes & General AgricultureInternational Agricultural Institutes

International Rice Research Institute is located in

Explanation

The International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) is an autonomous international agricultural research and educational institute founded in 1960, headquartered in Los Baños, Laguna, Philippines. IRRI played a pivotal role in breeding high-yielding semi-dwarf rice varieties (like IR8) during the Green Revolution.

अंतर्राष्ट्रीय चावल अनुसंधान संस्थान (IRRI - International Rice Research Institute) 'फिलीपींस' (Los Baños, Philippines) में स्थित है। इसकी स्थापना 1960 में हुई थी और इसने हरित क्रांति के दौरान उच्च उपज वाली धान की किस्में विकसित की थीं। सही विकल्प C है।

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1216📚Engineering Drawing, Agricultural Schemes & General AgricultureDrone Technology & Agri-Innovations

Recently, which institute launched UDAAN programme to encourage drone startups in India?

Explanation

The Startup Incubation and Innovation Centre (SIIC) at IIT Kanpur launched the UDAAN Programme, a targeted national acceleration and seed-funding initiative aimed at nurturing, mentoring, and scaling emerging Drone and UAV startups in India.

भारत में ड्रोन स्टार्टअप्स और नवाचार को बढ़ावा देने के लिए 'उड़ान कार्यक्रम' (UDAAN programme) की शुरुआत 'आईआईटी कानपुर' (IIT Kanpur) के इनक्यूबेशन सेंटर (SIIC) द्वारा की गई है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1217📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesPioneers of Indian Museology & ASI

Match the following key figures in Indian museum history with their contributions or roles:
Figures:
1. Dr. Asutosh Mookerjee
2. Sir William Jones
3. Lord Curzon
4. Alexander Cunningham
Contributions:
i. Founder of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), played a vital role in preserving heritage.
ii. Promoted the establishment of the Indian Museum, Kolkata through scholarly contributions.
iii. Established the Asutosh Museum of Indian Art at the University of Calcutta.
iv. Played a key role in restoring ancient monuments and museums during British India.
Options:

Explanation

Historical contributions: (1) Dr. Asutosh Mookerjee founded the Asutosh Museum of Indian Art at Calcutta University in 1937 (iii); (2) Sir William Jones founded the Asiatic Society in 1784, leading directly to the creation of the Indian Museum (ii); (3) Lord Curzon enacted the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904, revitalizing archaeological museums (iv); (4) Alexander Cunningham was the first Director General and founder of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) in 1861 (i). Match: 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i.

भारतीय संग्रहालय इतिहास के प्रमुख व्यक्तित्व: (1) डॉ. आशुतोष मुखर्जी - कलकत्ता विश्वविद्यालय में आशुतोष भारतीय कला संग्रहालय की स्थापना (iii); (2) सर विलियम जोन्स - एशियाटिक सोसाइटी के संस्थापक, भारतीय संग्रहालय की नींव रखी (ii); (3) लॉर्ड कर्जन - प्राचीन स्मारक संरक्षण अधिनियम 1904 पारित कर स्मारकों का जीर्णोद्धार कराया (iv); (4) अलेक्जेंडर कनिंघम - भारतीय पुरातत्व सर्वेक्षण (ASI) के संस्थापक व प्रथम महानिदेशक (i)। सही विकल्प A है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1218📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesPrimary vs Secondary Heritage Sources

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes Primary Sources from Secondary Sources in a museum collection?
Statement I: Primary sources are original artifacts, documents, or objects directly from the time period being studied.
Statement II: Secondary sources are interpretations, analyses, or representations of primary sources.
Statement III: An original handwritten letter from a historical figure is an example of a secondary source.
Statement IV: A research paper analyzing ancient pottery is an example of a secondary source.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

In historical and museum collections: Primary sources are firsthand, original material remains created during the historical period under study (Statement I is true). Secondary sources interpret, analyze, synthesize, or evaluate primary sources (Statement II is true). An original handwritten letter is a primary source, making Statement III false. A scholarly research paper analyzing ancient ceramics is a secondary source (Statement IV is true). Thus, Statements I, II, and IV are correct.

प्राथमिक स्रोत वे मूल कलाकृतियां, दस्तावेज या सिक्के होते हैं जो सीधे अध्ययन किए जा रहे कालखंड के होते हैं (कथन I सही)। द्वितीयक स्रोत प्राथमिक स्रोतों की व्याख्या और विश्लेषण होते हैं (कथन II सही)। किसी ऐतिहासिक व्यक्ति का मूल हस्तलिखित पत्र 'प्राथमिक स्रोत' होता है, अतः कथन III गलत है। प्राचीन बर्तनों पर शोध पत्र एक द्वितीयक स्रोत है (कथन IV सही)। अतः सही उत्तर I, II, and IV only (विकल्प B) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1219📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesSource Typology in Museums

Match the following types of sources with their correct classifications in museum collections:
Sources:
1. Ancient Manuscript
2. History Textbook
3. Photograph taken during World War II
4. Documentary about a historical event
Classifications:
i. Primary Source
ii. Secondary Source
iii. Primary Source
iv. Secondary Source
Options:

Explanation

Classification of historical evidence: (1) Ancient Manuscript is an original written document from antiquity

\implies

Primary Source (i); (2) History Textbook compiles and interprets past events

\implies

Secondary Source (ii); (3) Wartime Photograph captures real-time contemporary visual evidence

\implies

Primary Source (iii); (4) Historical Documentary is a modern interpretive production

\implies

Secondary Source (iv). Match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.

ऐतिहासिक स्रोतों का वर्गीकरण: (1) प्राचीन पांडुलिपि - प्राथमिक स्रोत (i); (2) इतिहास की पाठ्यपुस्तक - द्वितीयक स्रोत (ii); (3) द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध के दौरान खींची गई तस्वीर - प्राथमिक स्रोत (iii); (4) ऐतिहासिक घटना पर बनी डॉक्यूमेंट्री - द्वितीयक स्रोत (iv)। सही विकल्प A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1220📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesMuseum Documentation Standards (Spectrum & CIDOC CRM)

Match the following museum documentation systems and tools with their correct functions:
Documentation Systems:
1. Object ID Standard
2. Spectrum (UK Museum Documentation Standard)
3. CIDOC CRM (Conceptual Reference Model)
4. Digital Asset Management System (DAMS)
Functions:
i. Provides an international standard for recording minimum information about movable cultural property.
ii. A conceptual model for sharing and exchanging cultural heritage information between systems.
iii. Outlines best practices and procedures for documenting museum collections in the UK.
iv. Manages and organizes digital representations of museum assets, such as images, videos, and documents.
Options:

Explanation

Documentation standards: (1) Object ID is the internationally recognized minimum standard developed by the Getty/ICOM to identify stolen or movable cultural property (i); (2) Spectrum (Collections Trust UK) sets established collection management procedures and cataloguing workflows (iii); (3) CIDOC CRM (ISO 21127) is a formal semantic ontology for integrating and exchanging heterogeneous cultural heritage data (ii); (4) DAMS is specialized software for cataloguing, organizing, and delivering high-resolution digital media assets (iv). Match: 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv.

संग्रहालय प्रलेखन प्रणालियां: (1) ऑब्जेक्ट आईडी (Object ID) - सांस्कृतिक संपत्तियों की पहचान का अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानक (i); (2) स्पेक्ट्रम (Spectrum UK) - संग्रहालय संग्रह प्रलेखन और प्रबंधन की मानक प्रक्रियाएं (iii); (3) CIDOC CRM - सांस्कृतिक विरासत डेटा के आदान-प्रदान का सिमेंटिक मॉडल (ii); (4) DAMS - डिजिटल परिसंपत्तियों (तस्वीरें, वीडियो) का प्रबंधन (iv)। अतः सही मिलान 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv (विकल्प A) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1221📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesMuseums as Educational & Research Institutions

Which of the following statements about museums as educational-research institutions are correct?
Statement I: Museums serve as public educational resources, offering exhibits that engage visitors in learning about history, culture, and science.
Statement II: Museums are solely focused on preserving artifacts and are not involved in any form of research or educational outreach.
Statement III: Museums conduct research to improve their understanding of collections and contribute to academic knowledge, often collaborating with scholars and institutions.
Statement IV: Museums lack educational programs or activities designed for schools and other groups.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Museums are fundamentally educational and research institutions. Statement I is true (public education through contextual interpretation). Statement III is true (conducting curatorial, scientific, and provenance research in collaboration with universities). Statements II and IV are completely false as modern museums dedicate substantial resources to pedagogical programs, guided tours, and academic outreach. Thus, Statements I and III are correct.

संग्रहालयों के शैक्षिक और अनुसंधानिक कार्यों के संदर्भ में: कथन I सही है क्योंकि संग्रहालय इतिहास, संस्कृति और विज्ञान के सार्वजनिक शिक्षा केंद्र हैं। कथन III सही है क्योंकि वे कलाकृतियों पर गहरा शोध करते हैं और ज्ञान में योगदान देते हैं। कथन II और IV असत्य हैं क्योंकि संग्रहालय केवल संरक्षण तक सीमित नहीं हैं बल्कि सक्रिय शैक्षिक कार्यक्रम चलाते हैं। अतः सही उत्तर I and III only (विकल्प A) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1222📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesMuseum Architecture & Gallery Design

Match the following aspects of museum gallery and building design with their primary importance:
Aspects:
1. Lighting
2. Accessibility
3. Spatial Layout
4. Climate Control
Importance:
i. Ensures that visitors with different physical abilities can easily access all parts of the museum.
ii. Helps in the preservation of artifacts by controlling temperature and humidity levels.
iii. Plays a vital role in enhancing the visual appeal and directing attention to key objects in exhibits.
iv. Determines the flow of visitors, making the exhibition experience smooth and engaging
Options:

Explanation

Gallery and architectural design parameters: (1) Lighting enhances visual clarity, focuses visitor attention, and prevents photochemical damage (iii); (2) Accessibility ensures barrier-free universal design for visitors of all physical capabilities (i); (3) Spatial Layout choreographs visitor flow and narrative sequence (iv); (4) Climate Control maintains strict RH and temperature to preserve artifact physical integrity (ii). Match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.

संग्रहालय गैलरी और भवन डिजाइन: (1) प्रकाश व्यवस्था (Lighting) - दृश्य आकर्षण बढ़ाना और प्रमुख वस्तुओं पर ध्यान केंद्रित करना (iii); (2) सुगमता (Accessibility) - सभी शारीरिक क्षमताओं वाले आगंतुकों के लिए आसान पहुंच (i); (3) स्थानिक विन्यास (Spatial layout) - आगंतुकों के सुगम प्रवाह और अनुभव को निर्धारित करना (iv); (4) जलवायु नियंत्रण (Climate control) - तापमान और आर्द्रता नियंत्रित कर कलाकृतियों का संरक्षण (ii)। सही विकल्प A है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1223📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesFunctional Museum Planning

Match the following museum design elements with their respective purposes:
Elements:
1. Architectural Design
2. Exhibition Display Cases
3. Visitor Services Areas
4. Emergency Exits and Signage
Purposes:
i. To ensure visitor comfort and convenience by offering facilities like cafes, restrooms, and gift shops.
ii. To preserve and protect artifacts from damage, environmental factors, and theft.
iii. To guide visitors safely in the event of an emergency, ensuring that they can exit the museum efficiently.
iv. To create an aesthetic and functional space that enhances the museum's identity and invites engagement.
Options:

Explanation

Design functions: (1) Architectural Design creates an aesthetically inspiring, functional public identity for the institution (iv); (2) Exhibition Display Cases provide sealed microclimate protection against dust, pollutants, touch, and theft (ii); (3) Visitor Services Areas provide hospitality, rest, dining, and retail facilities (i); (4) Emergency Exits and Signage ensure life safety and rapid evacuation (iii). Match: 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii.

संग्रहालय डिजाइन तत्व: (1) वास्तुकला डिजाइन - सौंदर्यपूर्ण और कार्यात्मक स्थान का निर्माण जो संग्रहालय की पहचान बनाए (iv); (2) डिस्प्ले केस - कलाकृतियों को धूल, चोरी और पर्यावरण से सुरक्षित रखना (ii); (3) आगंतुक सेवा क्षेत्र - कैफेटेरिया, शौचालय और उपहार की दुकानें (i); (4) आपातकालीन निकास और संकेत - आपातकाल में सुरक्षित निकासी (iii)। अतः सही विकल्प A (1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1224📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesMuseum Pedagogy & Non-Formal Education

Arrange the following key developments in the role of museums as non-formal education agencies in chronological order (from earliest to most recent):
1. The concept of museums as places for informal learning was first recognized during the 19th century.
2. Museums began to implement educational programs such as workshops and school tours in the early 20th century.
3. The rise of interactive exhibits and participatory learning methods, focusing on visitor engagement, became prominent in the late 20th century.
4. Museums increasingly adopted digital platforms for virtual learning and outreach, enhancing educational access, in the 21st century.
Options:

Explanation

Evolution of museum pedagogy: (1) 19th Century: Recognition of museums as public educational spaces alongside cabinets of curiosities; (2) Early 20th Century: Formalization of school visits, docent tours, and pedagogical gallery talks; (3) Late 20th Century: Emergence of hands-on science centers, constructivist learning, and interactive exhibits; (4) 21st Century: Widespread adoption of digital learning, virtual tours, augmented reality, and mobile apps. Chronological sequence: 1, 2, 3, 4.

संग्रहालयों की गैर-औपचारिक शिक्षा की भूमिका का विकास: 19वीं सदी में अनौपचारिक शिक्षा के रूप में मान्यता (1), 20वीं सदी की शुरुआत में स्कूल टूर व कार्यशालाएं (2), 20वीं सदी के अंत में इंटरैक्टिव और सहभागी शिक्षण (3), तथा 21वीं सदी में वर्चुअल और डिजिटल प्लेटफॉर्म (4)। सही कालानुक्रम 1, 2, 3, 4 (विकल्प A) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1225📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsFundamentals of Stereochemistry

Stereochemistry deals with study of ...... structure of compound.
A) 2D
B) 3D
C) 1D
D) All of these

Explanation

Stereochemistry is formally defined as the branch of chemistry that deals with the study of the three-dimensional (3D) spatial arrangement of atoms, bonds, and groups in molecules, and how this spatial configuration influences physical, chemical, and biological properties.

त्रिविम रसायन (Stereochemistry) यौगिकों की 'त्रिविमीय' (3D - Three-dimensional) संरचना और अंतरिक्ष में परमाणुओं की स्थानिक व्यवस्था तथा उससे उत्पन्न रासायनिक व भौतिक गुणों का अध्ययन करता है। अतः सही उत्तर 3D (विकल्प B) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1226📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsPyranose Ring Conformations & Steric Strain

Arrange the following sugar conformations in order of increasing steric strain due to unavoidable crowding:
1. Chair conformation of

\beta

-D-glucopyranose
2. Boat conformation of

\beta

-D-glucopyranose
3. Twist-boat conformation of

\beta

-D-glucopyranose
4. Half-chair conformation of

\beta

-D-glucopyranose
Options:

Explanation

In pyranose ring conformational energy profiles: The chair conformation (

^4C_1

, 1) has all substituents equatorial in

\beta

-D-glucopyranose, having minimal strain. The twist-boat (3) relieves some eclipsing strain of the classical boat. The half-chair (4) is a strained, flattened conformation during ring inversion. However, in terms of unavoidable steric crowding and transannular flagpole repulsion between axial/flagpole groups in the pyranose ring, the boat conformation (2) exhibits severe 1,4-flagpole interactions. The standard increasing sequence is

1 \to 3 \to 4 \to 2

(Option A).

ग्लूकोज के पायरेनोस वलय में स्थानिक विकृति (Steric strain) का बढ़ता क्रम: चेयर संरूपण (1, सबसे कम तनाव, सभी समूह इक्वेटोरियल) < ट्विस्ट-बोट (3) < हाफ-चेयर (4) < बोट संरूपण (2, जहाँ 1,4-फ्लैगपोल समूहों के बीच तीव्र स्टेरिक भीड़ होती है)। अतः सही क्रम

1 \to 3 \to 4 \to 2

(विकल्प A) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1227📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsDetermination of Reaction Mechanisms

Match the following methods of determining reaction mechanisms with their corresponding descriptions:
Method of Determining Mechanism:
i. Isotope Effect
ii. Kinetic Studies
iii. Thermodynamic Studies
iv. Product Analysis
Description:
1. Involves measuring the rate of reaction with and without a deuterium-substituted reactant.
2. Measures the change in reaction rate with varying concentrations of reactants.
3. Determines the equilibrium constant and enthalpy change to predict the feasibility of a reaction.
4. Involves analyzing the final products to infer the pathway of the reaction.
Options:

Explanation

Mechanistic elucidation tools: (i) Isotope Effect measures rate changes upon isotopic substitution like

k_H/k_D

to identify bond breaking in the transition state (1); (ii) Kinetic Studies determine reaction rate laws by varying reactant concentrations (2); (iii) Thermodynamic Studies measure

\Delta H, \Delta S, K_{eq}

to establish energy profiles (3); (iv) Product Analysis analyzes product distributions, stereochemistry, and cross-over products to deduce pathways (4). Match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.

अभिक्रिया क्रियाविधि निर्धारण विधियां: (i) समस्थानिक प्रभाव - ड्यूटीरियम प्रतिस्थापित अभिकारक से दर की तुलना (1); (ii) गतिज अध्ययन - सांद्रता बदलकर अभिक्रिया की दर व कोटि मापना (2); (iii) ऊष्मागतिक अध्ययन - साम्य स्थिरांक और एन्थैल्पी परिवर्तन द्वारा व्यवहार्यता (3); (iv) उत्पाद विश्लेषण - अंतिम उत्पादों से पथ का अनुमान लगाना (4)। अतः सही विकल्प A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1228📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsElectrophilic Aliphatic Substitution (SE1, SE2, SEi)

Consider the following statements regarding the general mechanism of SE1 (Substitution Electrophilic Unimolecular), SE2 (Substitution Electrophilic Bimolecular), and SEi (Substitution Electrophilic Internal) reactions:
1. SE1 reactions involve a two-step mechanism with the formation of a carbocation intermediate.
2. SE2 reactions proceed via a concerted mechanism without the formation of any intermediate.
3. SEi reactions involve an intramolecular rearrangement during the substitution process.
4. In SE2 reactions, the nucleophile attacks from the same side as the leaving group.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Electrophilic aliphatic substitution mechanisms (

S_E

): Statement 1 is false because

S_E1

(unimolecular electrophilic substitution) involves initial ionization leaving behind a CARBANION intermediate (not a carbocation, which forms in

S_N1

). Statement 2 is correct (

S_E2

is bimolecular and concerted, proceeding with retention or inversion without intermediates). Statement 3 is correct (

S_Ei

involves an internal, cyclic concerted mechanism with retention of configuration). Statement 4 is false because

S_E

reactions involve electrophiles, not nucleophiles. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

इलेक्ट्रॉनरागी एलिफैटिक प्रतिस्थापन (

S_E

): कथन 1 गलत है क्योंकि

S_E1

में कार्बऋणायन (Carbanion) मध्यवर्ती बनता है, कार्बोकैटायन नहीं। कथन 2 सही है (

S_E2

एक संसक्त/कन्सर्टेड क्रियाविधि है)। कथन 3 सही है (

S_Ei

आंतरिक पुनर्विन्यास द्वारा रिटेंशन के साथ होती है)। कथन 4 गलत है। अतः केवल 2 और 3 सही हैं (विकल्प A)।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1229📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsPyrolytic Syn-Elimination & Hofmann Product

In a pyrolytic elimination (β-elimination in the gas phase), which of the following is most likely to occur in terms of mechanism and product orientation?
A) The reaction proceeds via a concerted mechanism, producing a Zaitsev product
B) The reaction proceeds via a radical mechanism, favouring a Hofmann product
C) The reaction proceeds via a carbocation intermediate, producing a Zaitsev product
D) The reaction proceeds via a concerted mechanism, producing a Hofmann product

Explanation

Pyrolytic eliminations (e.g., acetate pyrolysis, Chugaev xanthate reaction, and Cope amine oxide elimination) proceed thermally through a concerted, cyclic transition state (4-, 5-, or 6-membered) requiring syn-coplanar geometry. Because of the strict steric requirements of the cyclic transition state and the higher accessibility of less hindered

\beta

-hydrogens on terminal methyl groups, pyrolytic eliminations typically favor the less substituted Hofmann alkene product.

पायरोलाइटिक विलोपन (जैसे एसीटेट व ज़ैंथेट पायरोलिसिस) एक संसक्त (Concerted) चक्रीय संक्रमण अवस्था (Syn-elimination) द्वारा संपन्न होता है। स्थानिक बाधा के कारण यह कम प्रतिस्थापित एल्कीन यानी 'हॉफमैन उत्पाद' (Hofmann product) को प्राथमिकता देता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1230📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsThermal Elimination Stereochemistry

Which of the following combinations of statements are correct regarding the mechanism and orientation in pyrolytic eliminations?
1. Pyrolytic elimination is a concerted mechanism where the leaving group and β-hydrogen are eliminated simultaneously.
2. Pyrolytic elimination typically produces the Zaitsev product due to the small base used in the reaction.
3. The Hofmann product is favored in pyrolytic eliminations when a large, bulky base is used.
4. Pyrolytic eliminations can occur via a carbocation intermediate, making them similar to E1 eliminations.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

In pyrolytic eliminations: Statement 1 is true (the thermal elimination proceeds through a concerted cyclic pericyclic transition state where leaving group and syn-

\beta

-hydrogen eliminate simultaneously). Statement 2 is false (pyrolytic eliminations are unimolecular and do not use a base; they give predominantly Hofmann products due to steric constraints). Statement 3 reflects the fundamental orientation principle that Hofmann products dominate due to steric crowding/bulk of the intramolecular leaving group in the transition state. Statement 4 is false (no carbocation forms). Thus, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

पायरोलाइटिक विलोपन: कथन 1 सही है (यह एक संसक्त क्रियाविधि है जिसमें लिविंग ग्रुप और

\beta

-हाइड्रोजन एक साथ निकलते हैं)। कथन 3 सही है (आंतरिक भारी समूहों के स्टेरिक प्रभाव के कारण हॉफमैन उत्पाद बनता है)। कथन 2 और 4 गलत हैं। अतः केवल 1 और 3 सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1231📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsSNAr vs Benzyne Characteristics

Which of the following statements correctly describes the mechanism of nucleophilic substitution at an aromatic substrate?
1. The presence of electron-donating groups at the ortho/para positions enhances the rate of nucleophilic aromatic substitution via the SNAr mechanism.
2. In the Benzyne mechanism, the reaction proceeds through a highly reactive intermediate featuring a triple bond in the aromatic ring.
3. The SNAr mechanism involves a rate-determining nucleophilic attack, forming a Meisenheimer complex as an intermediate.
4. The Benzyne intermediate is formed under acidic conditions and involves an addition-elimination pathway.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Aromatic substitution evaluation: Statement 1 is false (electron-withdrawing groups enhance SNAr, not electron-donating groups). Statement 2 is correct (benzyne is a neutral, highly reactive aryne intermediate with a formal, strained triple bond in the benzene ring). Statement 3 is correct (the initial nucleophilic addition to form the cyclohexadienyl Meisenheimer carbanion is the slow, rate-determining step). Statement 4 is false because benzyne formation requires strongly BASIC conditions (

NaNH_2/NH_3

) and operates via elimination-addition. Thus, Only 2 and 3 are correct.

कथन 1 गलत है। कथन 2 सही है (बेंजाइन मध्यवर्ती में एरोमैटिक वलय में त्रि-बंध होता है)। कथन 3 सही है (

S_NAr

में नाभिकरागी का आक्रमण दर-निर्धारक पद होता है जिसमें माइजनहाइमर जटिल बनता है)। कथन 4 गलत है क्योंकि बेंजाइन क्षारीय परिस्थितियों में बनता है। अतः केवल 2 और 3 सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1232📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsNBS Allylic Bromination (Wohl-Ziegler Reaction)

In the NBS (N-Bromosuccinimide) mediated allylic bromination reaction, which of the following statements is incorrect?
1. The reaction proceeds via a radical chain mechanism initiated by light or heat.
2. The bromine radical preferentially attacks the allylic hydrogen due to the stability of the resulting allylic radical.
3. NBS provides a low, steady concentration of Br2 in situ during the reaction.
4. The reaction occurs efficiently in polar protic solvents such as water or ethanol.
Options:

Explanation

Wohl-Ziegler allylic bromination: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct (it is a radical chain reaction initiated by light/peroxides, where

Br^\bullet

abstracts weak allylic H, and NBS scavenges

HBr

to supply trace stoichiometric

Br_2

). Statement 4 is INCORRECT: NBS bromination must be conducted in non-polar, aprotic, non-nucleophilic solvents (classically carbon tetrachloride,

CCl_4

). In polar protic solvents like water or ethanol, ionic electrophilic addition of bromine across the double bond dominates, forming bromohydrins or dibromides and completely quenching the allylic radical substitution. Hence, Only 4 is incorrect.

एनबीएस (NBS) द्वारा एलिलिक ब्रोमीनीकरण: कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं (यह मुक्त मूलक श्रृंखला अभिक्रिया है जिसमें

Br_2

की सूक्ष्म मात्रा उत्पन्न होती है)। कथन 4 गलत है क्योंकि यह अभिक्रिया गैर-ध्रुवीय अप्रोटिक विलायक (

CCl_4

) में कराई जाती है; जल या एथेनॉल जैसे ध्रुवीय प्रोटिक विलायक में ब्रोमीन का द्विबंध पर आयनिक योग होकर ब्रोमोहाइड्रिन बन जाता है और एलिलिक प्रतिस्थापन रुक जाता है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1233📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryPhotodegradation & Museum Lighting

Which of the following statements regarding the preventive conservation of cultural heritage materials in relation to light exposure is correct?
1. Ultraviolet (UV) light is less damaging to artifacts compared to visible light.
2. Organic materials like paper, textiles, and photographs are highly sensitive to light exposure.
3. Light intensity is measured in lux, and recommended levels for sensitive materials are typically above 500 lux.
4. Using incandescent light bulbs is a preferred method for minimizing light damage.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

In preventive conservation: Statement 1 is false (UV light has higher photon energy and causes the most severe photochemical cleavage and yellowing). Statement 2 is true (organic materials containing cellulose, protein, and organic dyes are highly photosensitive). Statement 3 is false (recommended light levels for highly sensitive artifacts are strictly kept below 50 lux, never above 500 lux). Statement 4 is false (incandescent bulbs emit substantial infrared heat, accelerating thermal deterioration). Therefore, Only 2 is correct.

प्रकाश से संरक्षण: कथन 1 गलत है (पराबैंगनी किरणें दृश्य प्रकाश से कहीं अधिक हानिकारक होती हैं)। कथन 2 सही है (कागज, वस्त्र और तस्वीरें प्रकाश के प्रति अत्यधिक संवेदनशील होते हैं)। कथन 3 गलत है (संवेदनशील वस्तुओं के लिए 50 लक्स से कम प्रकाश होना चाहिए, 500 लक्स नहीं)। कथन 4 गलत है (तापदीप्त बल्ब अत्यधिक गर्मी पैदा करते हैं)। अतः केवल कथन 2 सही है (विकल्प B)।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1234📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryLighting Control Strategies & Reciprocity Principle

In preventive conservation, which of the following measures is the most effective in minimizing light-induced damage to light-sensitive materials in museums?
1. Using UV-filtered glass and maintaining light levels below 200 lux.
2. Limiting daily exposure duration and using motion-activated lighting systems.
3. Displaying sensitive artifacts under incandescent bulbs with dimmers.
4. Using daylight for illumination combined with periodic artifact rotation.
Options:

Explanation

Because photochemical deterioration follows the Law of Reciprocity (Total Damage = Light Intensity × Exposure Time), eliminating unnecessary light exposure duration by installing passive infrared motion-activated lighting systems and strictly limiting daily exhibition schedules is the most proactive, effective preventive conservation measure for highly light-sensitive cultural property.

प्रकाश क्षति पारस्परिकता के नियम (कुल क्षति = तीव्रता × समय) का पालन करती है। इसलिए दैनिक प्रदर्शन समय को सीमित करना और मोशन-सेंसर आधारित लाइटिंग सिस्टम (Motion-activated lighting) का उपयोग करना प्रकाश-प्रेरित क्षति को रोकने का सबसे प्रभावी उपाय है, जिससे वस्तुएं केवल तभी प्रकाशित होती हैं जब दर्शक सामने हों। अतः विकल्प B (Only 2 is correct) सही है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1235📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryIntegrated Pest Management (IPM) in Museums

Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure against insect infestations in museums and archives?
1. Regular fumigation with chemical pesticides.
2. Regularly rotating displayed artifacts.
3. Using mothballs in storage areas.
4. Maintaining low humidity levels and proper ventilation.
Options:

Explanation

Under modern Integrated Pest Management (IPM), chemical fumigation is avoided because toxic residues harm staff and degrade fragile organic materials. The most effective preventive measure is environmental climate control: maintaining relative humidity below 50% and ensuring proper air circulation/ventilation, which suppresses mold, deprives insect pests of vital hydration, and prevents breeding. Thus, Only 4 is correct.

संग्रहालयों में एकीकृत कीट प्रबंधन (IPM) के तहत कीटनाशकों से नियमित धूमन (Fumigation) से बचा जाता है। कीटों के संक्रमण को रोकने का सबसे प्रभावी निवारक उपाय 50% से कम सापेक्ष आर्द्रता बनाए रखना और उचित वेंटिलेशन (हवा का संचार) सुनिश्चित करना है, जिससे कीटों के पनपने के लिए आवश्यक नमी नहीं मिलती। सही विकल्प D है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1236📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryMuseum Insect Pests (Silverfish)

Which of the following insect pests is most commonly associated with damage to organic museum artifacts like textiles, paper, and wood?
1. Silverfish (Lepisma saccharina)
2. Carpet beetles (Anthrenus verbasci)
3. Termites (Isoptera)
4. Cockroaches (Blattodea)
Options:

Explanation

Silverfish (Lepisma saccharina) is the most ubiquitous, destructive pest in museum archives, libraries, and mixed organic collections. Attracted to carbohydrates, starch sizes, dextrin pastes, and cellulose, silverfish cause widespread surface grazing and irregular holes in paper, book bindings, archival documents, photographs, and starched textiles. Thus, Only 1 is correct.

संग्रहालयों और अभिलेखागारों में जैविक कलाकृतियों (विशेष रूप से कागज, किताबों की जिल्दसाजी, वस्त्रों के स्टार्च) को नुकसान पहुंचाने वाला सबसे आम कीट 'सिल्वरफिश' (Lepisma saccharina) है। यह सेल्यूलोज और स्टार्च को खाकर पन्नों पर अनियमित छेद और खुरचने के निशान बनाता है। अतः विकल्प A (Only 1 is correct) सही है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1237📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryInsect Damage Typology

Match the insect pests with the type of damage they commonly cause to cultural heritage materials:
Column -A (Insects):
1. Silverfish
2. Carpet beetles
3. Termites
4. Powder post beetles
Column- B (Type of Damage):
i. Bore holes in wooden artifacts
ii. Feeding damage on textiles and furs
iii. Irregular holes in paper and books
iv. Tunnelling damage in wooden structures
Options:

Explanation

Pest damage characteristics: (1) Silverfish attack cellulose and starch adhesives, causing irregular grazing holes in paper and books (iii); (2) Carpet beetles (Anthrenus) feed on keratinous proteins, destroying wool textiles, silks, taxidermy, and furs (ii); (3) Termites hollow out structural timber, causing extensive internal tunneling (iv); (4) Powderpost beetles (Lyctidae) bore pinhead exit holes in seasoned hardwoods, leaving fine flour-like frass (i). Match: 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i.

कीट और उनसे होने वाली क्षति: (1) सिल्वरफिश - कागज और किताबों में अनियमित छेद और खुरचना (iii); (2) कार्पेट बीटल - ऊनी वस्त्रों, रेशम और फर को कुतरना (ii); (3) दीमक (Termites) - लकड़ी की संरचनाओं में सुरंग बनाकर खोखला करना (iv); (4) पाउडर पोस्ट बीटल - लकड़ी की कलाकृतियों में गोल छेद (Bore holes) बनाना (i)। अतः सही विकल्प A (1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1238📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryPest Severity Ranking

Arrange the following insect pests in the increasing order of damage intensity they typically cause to museum artifacts:
1. Silverfish (Lepisma saccharina)
2. Carpet Beetles (Anthrenus verbasci)
3. Powderpost Beetles (Lyctidae)
4. Termites (Isoptera)
Options:

Explanation

Damage severity progression: (1) Silverfish cause superficial grazing and thinning of paper sheets; (2) Carpet beetles inflict direct localized holes on organic fabrics and taxidermy; (3) Powderpost beetles excavate dense interior galleries in seasoned furniture and sculpture, reducing wood to powder; (4) Termites cause catastrophic structural collapse, completely hollowing out timber frameworks and entire library collections rapidly. Increasing severity sequence:

1 \to 2 \to 3 \to 4

.

हानि की तीव्रता का बढ़ता क्रम: सिल्वरफिश (1, कागज पर सतही खुरचन) < कार्पेट बीटल (2, वस्त्रों व फर में छेद) < पाउडर पोस्ट बीटल (3, लकड़ी के भीतर छिद्र व पाउडर बनाना) < दीमक (4, पूरी लकड़ी को भीतर से खोखला कर संरचनात्मक विनाश करना)। सही क्रम

1 \to 2 \to 3 \to 4

(विकल्प A) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1239📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryAtmospheric Deterioration Agents

Which of the following atmospheric factors are considered critical for Preventive Conservation in museums and heritage sites?
Statement I: Relative Humidity (RH) should be kept stable to prevent material warping, mold growth, and decay.
Statement II: Airborne pollutants, such as sulphur dioxide and dust, do not pose a significant threat to artifacts.
Statement III: Temperature control is crucial to minimize thermal stress on materials.
Statement IV: Direct exposure to UV radiation can accelerate fading and deterioration of organic materials.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Environmental control tenets: Statement I is true (RH stability prevents swelling, dimensional shrinkage, and mold). Statement II is completely false (

SO_2

forms sulfuric acid, and particulate dust accelerates chemical abrasion and soiling). Statement III is true (temperature stability prevents thermal cycling and slows deterioration reaction rates). Statement IV is true (UV radiation drives photochemical fading and bond scission). Thus, Statements I, III, and IV only are correct.

निवारक संरक्षण के पर्यावरणीय कारक: कथन I सही है (स्थिर आर्द्रता से विरूपण और फफूंद नहीं लगती)। कथन II असत्य है क्योंकि सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड और धूल कलाकृतियों के लिए अत्यंत हानिकारक हैं। कथन III सही है (तापमान नियंत्रण थर्मल तनाव को रोकता है)। कथन IV सही है (पराबैंगनी विकिरण रंगों को उड़ाता है और सामग्री का क्षरण करता है)। अतः सही उत्तर I, III, and IV only (विकल्प B) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1240📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryAgents of Deterioration & Material Impacts

Match the following atmospheric factors in Preventive Conservation with their appropriate impacts on artifacts:
Factors:
1. Relative Humidity (RH)
2. Temperature Control
3. Airborne Pollutants
4. UV Radiation
Impacts:
i. Causes fading and chemical degradation of organic materials.
ii. Leads to mould growth, warping, or cracking if not properly maintained.
iii. Results in thermal stress and accelerates chemical reactions.
iv. Causes corrosion, discoloration, and surface damage.
Options:

Explanation

Impacts of atmospheric factors: (1) Relative Humidity drives biological mold growth (>65%) or dimensional warping/cracking (<40% or fluctuating) (ii); (2) Temperature fluctuations induce mechanical thermal stress and accelerate degradation rate via the Arrhenius equation (iii); (3) Airborne Pollutants (

SO_2, H_2S, O_3

) trigger metal corrosion and stone sulfation (iv); (4) UV Radiation delivers high photon energy, causing dye fading and photochemical chain scission (i). Match: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i.

वायुमंडलीय कारक और उनका प्रभाव: (1) सापेक्ष आर्द्रता - फफूंद लगना, मुड़ना या दरारें पड़ना (ii); (2) तापमान - थर्मल तनाव और रासायनिक अभिक्रियाओं की गति तेज होना (iii); (3) वायु प्रदूषक - धातुओं का क्षरण, मलिनकिरण और सतह क्षति (iv); (4) पराबैंगनी विकिरण - रंगों का उड़ना और कार्बनिक पदार्थों का क्षरण (i)। अतः सही विकल्प A (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1241📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryConservation Tools & Environmental Control

Match the following atmospheric control tools with their corresponding functions in Preventive Conservation:
Tools:
1. HVAC Systems
2. Silica Gel
3. UV Filters
4. Air Purifiers
Functions:
i. Controls relative humidity levels in enclosed spaces.
ii. Filters harmful ultraviolet rays from lighting systems.
iii. Regulates temperature and humidity levels systematically.
iv. Removes airborne pollutants and dust particles.
Options:

Explanation

Environmental tools and roles: (1) HVAC Systems systematically regulate whole-building climate (temperature and humidity) (iii); (2) Silica Gel provides passive relative humidity buffering inside sealed showcases (i); (3) UV Filters block ultraviolet wavelengths from daylight and artificial illumination (ii); (4) Air Purifiers extract particulate dust and acidic gaseous contaminants (iv). Match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv.

उपकरण और उनके कार्य: (1) HVAC सिस्टम - पूरे भवन में तापमान और आर्द्रता का व्यवस्थित नियंत्रण (iii); (2) सिलिका जेल - बंद डिस्प्ले केस में सापेक्ष आर्द्रता नियंत्रित रखना (i); (3) UV फिल्टर - प्रकाश व्यवस्था से हानिकारक पराबैंगनी किरणों को रोकना (ii); (4) एयर प्यूरीफायर - वायुजनित प्रदूषकों और धूल कणों को हटाना (iv)। सही विकल्प A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1242📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryPollutant Chemistry & Heritage Degradation

Which of the following statements regarding the effect of air pollution on cultural heritage materials is incorrect?
i. Sulphur dioxide (SO2) from industrial emissions can cause acidification and deterioration of stone monuments and sculptures.
ii. Ozone (O3) exposure causes discoloration and deterioration of organic materials, such as textiles and leather.
iii. Nitrogen oxides (NOx) from vehicle emissions primarily affect the physical integrity of metals by accelerating oxidation and corrosion.
iv. Particulate matter (PM) primarily impacts the surface layer of archaeological and museum objects but does not penetrate deep into materials.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Pollutant impacts: Statement i is true (

SO_2

forms sulfuric acid, converting marble

CaCO_3

to friable gypsum

CaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O

). Statement ii is true (ozone oxidizes double bonds in dyes, cellulose, and collagen). Statement iii is flawed/incorrect in emphasizing that

NO_x

'primarily' affects metals (nitrogen oxides primarily cause acid deposition damaging stone and hydrolyzing paper/textiles). Statement iv is incorrect because sub-micron particulate matter (

PM_{2.5}

, carbon soot, salts) penetrates deeply into porous stone, unglazed terra-cotta, and textile matrices, causing deep-seated irreversible chemical staining and matrix degradation. Thus, statements iii and iv are the incorrect statements.

कथन i सही है (

SO_2

पत्थर और संगमरमर को जिप्सम में बदलकर क्षरण करता है)। कथन ii सही है (ओजोन वस्त्रों और चमड़े का ऑक्सीकरण करता है)। कथन iii और iv भ्रामक/गलत हैं क्योंकि

NO_x

मुख्य रूप से पत्थरों और सेल्यूलोज को नुकसान पहुंचाता है तथा सूक्ष्म धूल कण (

PM_{2.5}

) छिद्रयुक्त पत्थरों और वस्त्रों की गहराई तक समा जाते हैं, केवल सतह पर नहीं रहते। अतः गलत कथनों का समूह iii and iv only (विकल्प C) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1243📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryNumismatic Conservation (Coins)

Which of the following statements regarding the conservation of copper, silver, and gold coins is incorrect?
i. Copper coins are most susceptible to corrosion due to the formation of copper oxide and verdigris.
ii. Silver coins require periodic cleaning with abrasive methods to prevent tarnishing.
iii. Gold coins are highly resistant to corrosion but can still undergo stress corrosion cracking under extreme conditions.
iv. The cleaning of copper, silver, and gold coins should always be done using non-abrasive, chemical-free methods to prevent surface damage.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Numismatic conservation principles: Statement i is true (copper easily forms basic carbonates/verdigris and active bronze disease). Statement ii is fundamentally FALSE and dangerous: abrasive cleaning (brasso, polishing pastes) is strictly prohibited as it irreversibly scratches fine coin relief and removes original metal/patina. Statement iii is also flawed/incorrect as pure gold does not suffer stress corrosion cracking in ambient environments (only low-carat base alloys can). Statement iv is a recognized conservation standard (gentle non-abrasive, conservator-approved cleaning). Therefore, statements ii and iii are incorrect.

सिक्कों के संरक्षण के संबंध में: कथन ii पूरी तरह गलत है क्योंकि चांदी के सिक्कों को कभी भी घर्षण वाली विधियों (Abrasive methods) से साफ नहीं किया जाता, इससे उनकी मूल नक्काशी और धातु हमेशा के लिए नष्ट हो जाती है। कथन iii भी गलत है क्योंकि शुद्ध सोना रासायनिक रूप से निष्क्रिय होता है। अतः गलत कथनों का समूह ii and iii only (विकल्प C) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1244📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryEnvironmental Controls for Historic Metals

Match the environmental concern with the correct preventive measure for coin conservation:
Column -A (Environmental Concern):
1. Oxidation of copper
2. Tarnishing of silver
3. Physical damage to gold coins
4. General environmental pollutants
Column -B (Preventive Measure):
i. Store in an anoxic environment
ii. Maintain low relative humidity
iii. Use soft padded holders
iv. Use sealed display cases
Options:

Explanation

Mitigation matches: (1) Oxidation of copper is arrested by maintaining low relative humidity below 35-40% (ii); (2) Tarnishing of silver by sulfides is prevented by anoxic enclosures or sulfur scavengers (i); (3) Pure gold is soft and susceptible to scratching/denting, prevented by using soft padded acid-free holders (iii); (4) General environmental pollutants are sealed off using well-gasketed microclimate display cases (iv). Match: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv.

सिक्का संरक्षण उपाय: (1) तांबे का ऑक्सीकरण - कम सापेक्ष आर्द्रता बनाए रखना (ii); (2) चांदी का काला पड़ना - एनोक्सिक (ऑक्सीजन-रहित) वातावरण (i); (3) सोने के सिक्कों को भौतिक क्षति - नरम गद्देदार धारक (Soft padded holders, iii); (4) सामान्य पर्यावरण प्रदूषक - सीलबंद डिस्प्ले केस (iv)। अतः सही विकल्प A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1245📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryTextile Conservation Methods

Consider the following statements regarding the basic conservation of textile objects:
i. Wet cleaning is suitable for all historical textiles regardless of their condition.
ii. Darning is used to repair structural damage in textiles by re-weaving threads.
iii. Lining provides additional structural support to fragile textile artifacts.
iv. Vacuum cleaning is often performed through a fine mesh to prevent damage.
Which of the following combinations is correct?

Explanation

Textile conservation practices: Statement i is false because wet cleaning can cause severe fiber swelling, dye bleeding, and physical disruption; it is only performed after rigorous spot-testing of dye fastness. Statement ii is true (conservation darning stabilizes tears with fine supporting stitches). Statement iii is true (backing with stable, pre-washed cotton or linen provides crucial physical reinforcement for weakened fabrics). Statement iv is true (controlled suction vacuuming through monofilament nylon mesh removes surface dust without pulling loose threads). Thus, statements ii, iii, and iv only are correct.

वस्त्र संरक्षण: कथन i गलत है क्योंकि ऐतिहासिक वस्त्रों की गीली धुलाई सभी पर नहीं की जा सकती (रंग बहने और रेशे टूटने का खतरा होता है)। कथन ii सही है (डार्निंग द्वारा फटे वस्त्रों को सहारा दिया जाता है)। कथन iii सही है (कमजोर वस्त्रों के पीछे अस्तर/लाइनिंग लगाकर उन्हें सहारा दिया जाता है)। कथन iv सही है (महीन जाली/मेश के ऊपर से वैक्यूम सफाई की जाती है ताकि रेशे न खिंचें)। अतः ii, iii, and iv only सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1246📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Reporting Protocol

Which of the following is the correct order of steps when creating a condition report for a heritage artifact?
A) Inspection → Documentation → Photographic Record → Description of Condition → Recommendations for Treatment
B) Description of Condition → Photographic Record → Inspection → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment
C) Photographic Record → Inspection → Description of Condition → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment
D) Inspection → Photographic Record → Description of Condition → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment

Explanation

Standard workflow for compiling a condition report: (1) Visual Inspection (careful initial examination of the object under raking and ambient light); (2) Photographic Record (capturing high-resolution baseline images of the overall artifact and damage details); (3) Description of Condition (identifying and mapping specific cracks, stains, accretions, and losses); (4) Documentation (recording metadata, accession numbers, provenance, and environmental history in standardized forms); (5) Recommendations for Treatment (outlining immediate preventive storage or remedial conservation steps). Sequence: Inspection → Photographic Record → Description of Condition → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment (Option D).

स्थिति रिपोर्ट (Condition Report) तैयार करने का सही चरणबद्ध क्रम: (1) निरीक्षण (Inspection), (2) फोटोग्राफिक रिकॉर्ड (Photographic record), (3) स्थिति का विस्तृत विवरण (Description of condition), (4) प्रलेखन (Documentation), और (5) उपचार हेतु सिफारिशें (Recommendations for treatment)। सही क्रम विकल्प D है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1247📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Report Content & Structure

Which of the following should be included in the 'Description of Condition' section of a condition report?
A) A chronological history of the object's creation and ownership
B) Specific types of deterioration, such as cracks, stains, or loss of material
C) The provenance of the artifact, including dates and locations
D) The monetary value of the object before and after restoration

Explanation

The 'Description of Condition' section of a conservation report is strictly dedicated to the physical and chemical state of the object: documenting observed deterioration phenomena, fractures, cracks, friability, corrosion products, stains, missing components, insect damage, and structural instability. (Provenance and historical ownership belong in object identification, while monetary valuations are excluded from conservation reports).

कंडीशन रिपोर्ट के 'स्थिति विवरण' (Description of Condition) खंड में वस्तु के भौतिक क्षरण का सटीक विवरण दर्ज किया जाता है, जैसे दरारें, दाग-धब्बे, जंग, टूटन या सामग्री का नुकसान (Cracks, stains, or loss of material)। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1248📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Report Step Matching

Match the following steps in making a condition report with their corresponding activities:
Steps:
1. Inspection
2. Documentation
3. Photographic Record
4. Description of Condition
5. Recommendations for Treatment
Activities:
i. Recording visual details, materials, and provenance of the object.
ii. Identifying specific types of deterioration and documenting their location.
iii. Taking high-quality photographs to visually document the current state of the object.
iv. Suggesting conservation or restoration treatments based on the condition of the object.
v. Conducting a visual examination to assess damage, deterioration, or wear.
Options:

Explanation

Step activities in condition reporting: (1) Inspection involves conducting close visual examination to evaluate wear, active corrosion, or structural damage (v); (2) Documentation records metadata, material identification, dimensions, and object history (i); (3) Photographic Record captures overall and macro-detail imagery of the current state (iii); (4) Description of Condition maps specific types of deterioration and their locations (ii); (5) Recommendations for Treatment outlines required remedial and preventive interventions (iv). Match: 1-v, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii, 5-iv.

सही मिलान: (1) निरीक्षण - क्षति और क्षरण का दृश्य परीक्षण करना (v); (2) प्रलेखन - सामग्री और विवरण दर्ज करना (i); (3) फोटोग्राफिक रिकॉर्ड - वर्तमान स्थिति की उच्च गुणवत्ता वाली तस्वीरें लेना (iii); (4) स्थिति का विवरण - विशिष्ट क्षरण के प्रकार और स्थान की पहचान (ii); (5) उपचार की सिफारिशें - संरक्षण उपचार के सुझाव देना (iv)। सही विकल्प A है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1249📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Assessment Protocols

Consider the following statements regarding the process of creating a condition report for cultural heritage artifacts:
Statement I: The condition report should include only a general description of the object without any detailed examination of its condition.
Statement II: Photographic records should be taken at various stages of inspection, including close-up shots of damaged areas.
Statement III: The condition description should focus on the identification of deterioration and damage, including cracks, discoloration, and structural weaknesses.
Statement IV: The report must be completed after any conservation treatment has been performed on the object.
Statement V: Recommendations for treatment should be based solely on visual examination without considering historical context or material composition.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Condition report protocols: Statement I is false (reports require rigorous, detailed examination, not just general remarks). Statement II is true (photographic records must document overall views and close-up detail of damaged zones). Statement III is true (precise identification of cracks, losses, and weaknesses is the core purpose). Statement IV is false (condition reports are compiled BEFORE treatment begins to record baseline condition; post-treatment reports are separate). Statement V is false (treatments must consider material chemistry and historical integrity). Therefore, Statements II and III only are correct.

कंडीशन रिपोर्ट प्रक्रिया: कथन I गलत है (विस्तृत परीक्षण आवश्यक है)। कथन II सही है (क्षतिग्रस्त हिस्सों की क्लोज-अप तस्वीरों सहित विभिन्न चरणों की फोटोग्राफी होनी चाहिए)। कथन III सही है (दरारों, रंग उड़ने व कमजोरियों की पहचान पर ध्यान केंद्रित होता है)। कथन IV गलत है (रिपोर्ट उपचार से पूर्व बनाई जाती है)। कथन V गलत है। अतः केवल कथन II और III सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1250📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Report Principles

In the context of heritage conservation which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a condition report, and what key principle differentiates a high-quality condition report from a basic documentation record?
A) It serves as a legal document verifying an object's authenticity, with emphasis on provenance rather than physical state.
B) It provides a detailed assessment of an object's physical state at a specific moment, with emphasis on consistency and repeatability in observations.
C) It is primarily used for insurance valuation, focusing on an object's monetary worth rather than conservation needs
D) It documents routine handling procedure, prioritizing security measures over material analysis.

Explanation

The definitive purpose of a conservation condition report is to establish a rigorous, objective physical baseline of an artifact at an exact moment in time. The hallmark of a professional condition report is consistency, standardized vocabulary, and repeatability, enabling future conservators to detect micro-changes, monitor loan transit damage, and evaluate treatment efficacy.

कंडीशन रिपोर्ट का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य किसी विशिष्ट क्षण में वस्तु की भौतिक स्थिति का विस्तृत मूल्यांकन प्रदान करना है, जिसमें अवलोकनों की निरंतरता और दोहराव (Consistency and repeatability in observations) पर जोर दिया जाता है ताकि भविष्य में किसी भी नए क्षरण की तुरंत पहचान की जा सके। सही विकल्प B है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1251📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCore Ethical Principles of Conservation

Which of the following principles are considered essential while performing cultural heritage conservation?
Statement I: The principle of Minimal Intervention emphasizes avoiding unnecessary changes to the artifact during conservation.
Statement II: Reversibility Principle ensures that any treatment applied can be reversed without causing further damage.
Statement III: Conservation processes must prioritize aesthetic appeal over historical authenticity.
Statement IV: Documentation of every step taken during conservation is mandatory for transparency and future reference.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Core ethics of conservation (Venice Charter, AIC, ICOM-CC): Statement I is true (Minimal Intervention: doing only what is necessary to stabilize the object). Statement II is true (Reversibility/Retreatability: introduced adhesives and consolidants must be removable without harming original fabric). Statement III is completely false (historical authenticity and original physical integrity must ALWAYS take precedence over cosmetic aesthetic appeal). Statement IV is true (complete documentation of materials and methods is an ethical mandate). Thus, Statements I, II, and IV only are correct.

संरक्षण के मूल सिद्धांत: कथन I सही है (न्यूनतम हस्तक्षेप - अनावश्यक परिवर्तनों से बचना)। कथन II सही है (उत्क्रमणीयता/Reversibility - किए गए उपचार को बिना नुकसान पहुंचाए हटाया जा सके)। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि ऐतिहासिक प्रामाणिकता हमेशा सौंदर्य से ऊपर होती है। कथन IV सही है (प्रत्येक चरण का प्रलेखन अनिवार्य है)। अतः I, II, and IV only सही हैं (विकल्प C)।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1252📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryConservation Ethics Matching

Match the following key principles of conservation with their correct descriptions:
Principles:
1. Minimal Intervention
2. Reversibility Principle
3. Documentation
4. Environmental Control
Descriptions:
i. Ensuring all conservation actions can be undone without damaging the object.
ii. Recording every step of conservation for future reference and transparency.
iii. Avoiding excessive treatments and preserving original materials as much as possible.
iv. Controlling temperature, humidity, and light exposure to prevent deterioration.
Options:

Explanation

Matching ethical principles: (1) Minimal Intervention avoids unnecessary chemical/physical treatments, conserving maximum original material (iii); (2) Reversibility Principle ensures introduced consolidants and adhesives can be safely undone in the future (i); (3) Documentation provides complete records of examination and treatment for transparency (ii); (4) Environmental Control regulates climate and illumination to arrest decay passively (iv). Match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv.

संरक्षण सिद्धांतों का मिलान: (1) न्यूनतम हस्तक्षेप - अत्यधिक उपचार से बचना और मूल सामग्री को संरक्षित रखना (iii); (2) उत्क्रमणीयता - सभी कार्यों को बिना क्षति पहुंचाए पूर्ववत किया जा सके (i); (3) प्रलेखन - पारदर्शिता हेतु प्रत्येक चरण का रिकॉर्ड रखना (ii); (4) पर्यावरण नियंत्रण - तापमान, नमी और प्रकाश को नियंत्रित करना (iv)। अतः सही विकल्प A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1253📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryDefinition of Preventive Conservation

Preventive conservation refers to:
A) The direct treatment of damaged artifacts to restore their appearance.
B) The study of historical techniques used in artifact creation.
C) Measures and actions aimed at avoiding or minimizing future deterioration of cultural heritage.
D) Complete reconstruction of lost cultural artifacts.

Explanation

By ICOM-CC definition: Preventive conservation comprises all indirect measures and actions aimed at avoiding and minimizing future deterioration or loss. They are carried out within the immediate environment of the cultural heritage item (through environmental control, storage, handling, transport, and integrated pest management) without directly altering the artifact's physical structure.

निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive conservation) का तात्पर्य उन सभी अप्रत्यक्ष उपायों और कार्यों से है जिनका उद्देश्य सांस्कृतिक विरासत के भविष्य में होने वाले क्षरण या नुकसान को रोकना या कम से कम करना है (जैसे तापमान, नमी, प्रकाश और कीटों का नियंत्रण)। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1254📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceArchival Principles & Records Management

Archives are primarily concerned with:
A) Collecting and preserving contemporary literature for public access.
B) Systematic collection, preservation, and management of historically significant documents and records.
C) Storing artifacts and historical objects for exhibition purposes.
D) Providing platforms for live historical reenactments.

Explanation

An archive is an institution tasked with the systematic appraisal, accessioning, preservation, arrangement, and administration of non-current documentary records, manuscripts, official state files, charters, and historical deeds of enduring administrative, legal, and historical value.

अभिलेखागार (Archives) मुख्य रूप से ऐतिहासिक रूप से महत्वपूर्ण दस्तावेजों, सरकारी रिकॉर्डों, पांडुलिपियों और पत्रों के व्यवस्थित संग्रह, संरक्षण और प्रबंधन से संबंधित होते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1255📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceJ&K State Archives History

The Archives Department in Jammu & Kashmir was officially established during the reign of which ruler, and in which year?
A) Maharaja Ranbir Singh, 1889
B) Maharaja Pratap Singh, 1896
C) Maharaja Hari Singh, 1925
D) Sheikh Abdullah, 1948

Explanation

The Directorate of State Archives, Archaeology, and Museums of Jammu and Kashmir traces its official institutional establishment to 1896 during the reign of Maharaja Pratap Singh (who ruled from 1885 to 1925), when the state archives repository was organized to preserve historical Persian and Dogra state administrative records.

जम्मू और कश्मीर में राज्य अभिलेखागार विभाग (Archives Department) की आधिकारिक स्थापना 1896 में महाराजा प्रताप सिंह के शासनकाल के दौरान ऐतिहासिक राज्य दस्तावेजों और अभिलेखों को सुरक्षित रखने के लिए की गई थी। अतः सही उत्तर Maharaja Pratap Singh, 1896 (विकल्प B) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1256📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceSPS Museum Srinagar History

The Sri Pratap Singh (SPS) Museum in Srinagar was established in which year, and what was its primary objective?
A) 1898, to preserve ancient manuscripts and rare artifacts under the reign of Maharaja Ranbir Singh.
B) 1895, to exhibit Kashmiri cultural heritage under the patronage of Maharaja Hari Singh.
C) 1898, to collect, preserve, and display historical artifacts under the reign of Maharaja Pratap Singh.
D) 1901, to store royal collections and manuscripts under Sheikh Abdullah's leadership.

Explanation

The Sri Pratap Singh (SPS) Museum in Lal Mandi, Srinagar, was established in 1898 during the reign of Maharaja Pratap Singh. Initiated following a proposal by Captain S.H. Godfrey and Raja Amar Singh, its objective was to collect, preserve, and display archaeological antiquities, numismatics, manuscripts, and cultural artifacts of Jammu, Kashmir, and Ladakh.

श्रीनगर में स्थित श्री प्रताप सिंह (SPS) संग्रहालय की स्थापना 1898 में महाराजा प्रताप सिंह के शासनकाल में की गई थी। इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य कश्मीर और लद्दाख की ऐतिहासिक कलाकृतियों, सिक्कों, मूर्तियों और पांडुलिपियों को एकत्रित, संरक्षित और प्रदर्शित करना था। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प C है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1257📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceStratigraphy of Burzahom

Arrange the chronological periods of the Burzahom Archaeological Site in the correct order from earliest to latest:
A) Neolithic I → Neolithic II → Megalithic → Early Historical Period
B) Megalithic → Neolithic I → Neolithic II → Early Historical Period
C) Neolithic II → Neolithic I → Megalithic → Early Historical Period
D) Early Historical Period → Megalithic → Neolithic I → Neolithic II

Explanation

The cultural sequence established by archaeological excavations at Burzahom spans four distinct chronological phases: Period I: Aceramic/Early Neolithic (subterranean pit-dwelling phase with crude hand-made pottery); Period II: Late Neolithic (mud-plastered above-ground structures, fine polished bone and stone tools); Period III: Megalithic phase (erection of monumental stone menhirs, wheel-made red pottery, copper/iron tools); Period IV: Early Historical Period (post-megalithic early centuries AD). Sequence: Neolithic I → Neolithic II → Megalithic → Early Historical Period (Option A).

बुर्जहोम पुरातात्विक स्थल का सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम: नवपाषाण काल I (Neolithic I - गड्ढा घर/गर्त आवास) → नवपाषाण काल II (Neolithic II - मिट्टी की संरचनाएं व हड्डी के औजार) → महापाषाण काल (Megalithic - मेनहिर/विशाल पत्थर) → प्रारंभिक ऐतिहासिक काल (Early Historical Period)। सही विकल्प A है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1258📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceJ&K Ancient Monuments Preservation Act

The Jammu & Kashmir Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1977 (Samvat) was enacted to:
Statement I: Protect and preserve ancient and historical monuments, archaeological sites, and remains in Jammu & Kashmir.
Statement II: Regulate construction activities near protected monuments to prevent damage.
Statement III: Provide provisions for declaring any ancient monument as a protected site.
Statement IV: Allow unrestricted commercial use of protected monuments for tourism purposes.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

The Jammu & Kashmir Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, Samvat 1977 (1920 AD) empowers the state to declare monuments as protected (Statement III), preserves ancient monuments and archaeological mounds (Statement I), and legally restricts, controls, or prohibits damaging construction, mining, or excavation within protected buffer zones (Statement II). Statement IV is false as the Act strictly prohibits commercial encroachment and unauthorized commercial exploitation. Thus, Statements I, II, and III only are correct.

जम्मू और कश्मीर प्राचीन स्मारक संरक्षण अधिनियम 1977 (संवत 1977 = 1920 ईस्वी): कथन I, II और III सही हैं (स्मारकों की रक्षा करना, उनके पास निर्माण गतिविधियों को विनियमित करना, और संरक्षित घोषित करने के प्रावधान)। कथन IV गलत है क्योंकि अधिनियम स्मारकों के अनियंत्रित व्यावसायिक दोहन पर पूर्ण प्रतिबंध लगाता है। अतः सही उत्तर I, II, and III only (विकल्प A) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1259📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceCurative vs Preventive Conservation

Which of the following best defines Curative Conservation?
A) Preventing damage to cultural heritage by controlling environmental factors.
B) Cleaning, repairing, and stabilizing existing damage in cultural heritage objects.
C) Digitizing heritage artifacts for virtual preservation.
D) Educating the public about heritage conservation practices.

Explanation

By ICOM-CC definitions: Curative Conservation (remedial conservation) consists of all direct actions applied to a cultural heritage object with the primary aim of arresting an active damaging process, consolidating weakened structures, cleaning accretions, or repairing physical damage to prolong its physical survival.

उपचारात्मक संरक्षण (Curative Conservation): इसका तात्पर्य किसी सांस्कृतिक वस्तु पर किए जाने वाले उन सभी प्रत्यक्ष कार्यों से है जिनका उद्देश्य सक्रिय क्षरण को रोकना, वस्तु की सफाई करना, दरारें भरना और वर्तमान क्षति को स्थिर करना है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1260📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceDefinition & Purpose of Heritage Conservation

Which of the following best defines Conservation in the context of cultural heritage?
A) The complete replacement of damaged heritage artifacts with modern replicas.
B) The process of protecting, preserving, and managing cultural heritage to prevent decay and ensure its longevity.
C) The unrestricted public display of artifacts to increase tourism.
D) The commercial use of heritage sites for revenue generation.

Explanation

In cultural heritage discipline (ICOMOS/Venice Charter): Conservation encompasses all interdisciplinary processes of safeguarding, caring for, maintaining, and managing cultural property (tangible artifacts, monuments, and collections) to prevent decay, minimize risk of loss, and ensure its physical longevity and historical authenticity for future generations.

सांस्कृतिक विरासत के संदर्भ में संरक्षण (Conservation) का तात्पर्य सांस्कृतिक संपत्तियों की सुरक्षा, परिरक्षण और प्रबंधन करने की समग्र प्रक्रिया से है ताकि उनके क्षरण को रोका जा सके और आने वाली पीढ़ियों के लिए उनकी दीर्घायु व ऐतिहासिक प्रामाणिकता सुनिश्चित की जा सके। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

1261📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsRight to Information (RTI) Act 2005

Which section of the RTI Act, 2005, specifies the eligibility criteria for individuals to access information under the Act?

Explanation

Section 3 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 establishes that all citizens shall have the right to information. It specifies the fundamental eligibility requirement that only citizens of India are entitled to seek information under the Act.

सूचना का अधिकार अधिनियम, 2005 की धारा 3 स्पष्ट रूप से प्रावधान करती है कि 'सभी नागरिकों को सूचना का अधिकार होगा'। यह भारतीय नागरिकों को सूचना प्राप्त करने की पात्रता प्रदान करती है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1262📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsInfrastructure & Development in Ladakh UT

Which development project, launched after Ladakh became a Union Territory, is aimed at improving connectivity and infrastructure across Ladakh?

Explanation

Following the reorganization into a Union Territory, the National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL) undertook extensive infrastructure and strategic highway connectivity projects across Ladakh, including key tunnels (such as Zojila and Shinku La) and strategic corridors connecting remote valleys.

लद्दाख के केंद्र शासित प्रदेश बनने के बाद, राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग और अवसंरचना विकास निगम लिमिटेड (NHIDCL) द्वारा लद्दाख भर में संपर्क और बुनियादी ढांचे में सुधार के लिए प्रमुख राजमार्ग और सुरंग परियोजनाएं शुरू की गईं।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1263📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsHydroelectric Projects of J&K

On which river is the Baglihar Dam built?

Explanation

The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project (Baglihar Dam) is a run-of-the-river power project built on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir.

बगलिहार जलविद्युत परियोजना (बगलिहार बांध) जम्मू और कश्मीर के रामबन जिले में चिनाब (Chenab) नदी पर निर्मित एक रन-ऑफ-द-रिवर बांध है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1264📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsEnvironmental Chemistry & Air Pollution

Which one of the following is/are the main contributors of Acid rain?

Explanation

Acid rain is caused by chemical reactions that begin when compounds like sulfur dioxide (

SO_2

) and nitrogen oxides (including nitrous oxide and nitric oxide,

NO_x

) are released into the air and react with water, oxygen, and other atmospheric oxidants to form sulfuric and nitric acids.

अम्लीय वर्षा (Acid Rain) के मुख्य कारक सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड (

SO_2

) और नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइड (जैसे नाइट्रस ऑक्साइड/नाइट्रिक ऑक्साइड,

NO_x

) हैं, जो वायुमंडलीय जलवाष्प से क्रिया करके सल्फ्यूरिक और नाइट्रिक अम्ल बनाते हैं।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1265📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsKargil War & J&K Military History

On which date did the Kargil War officially end with India recapturing its territories from Pakistani forces?

Explanation

The Kargil War officially concluded on July 26, 1999, following the complete eviction of Pakistani infiltrators and the success of Operation Vijay. This day is observed annually across the nation as Kargil Vijay Diwas.

कारगिल युद्ध आधिकारिक तौर पर 26 जुलाई 1999 को भारतीय सेना के 'ऑपरेशन विजय' की पूर्ण सफलता और चौकियों की पुनः बहाली के साथ समाप्त हुआ। इस दिन को कारगिल विजय दिवस के रूप में मनाया जाता है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1266📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndus Waters Treaty 1960

The Indus Waters Treaty, signed between India and Pakistan, was brokered by which international organisation?

Explanation

The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) was signed in Karachi on September 19, 1960 between Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan. The negotiations were brokered by the World Bank (then the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development - IBRD).

भारत और पाकिस्तान के बीच 19 सितंबर 1960 को कराची में हस्ताक्षरित सिंधु जल संधि (IWT) विश्व बैंक (World Bank) द्वारा मध्यस्थता के तहत संपन्न हुई थी।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1267📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsMajor Dams & River Projects of India

Match the Dams in Column -X with their key features in Column -Y:
Column- X:
1. Sardar Sarovar Dam
2. Hirakud Dam
3. Tehri Dam

Column -Y:
I. Located on the Narmada River
II. Build across the Mahanadi River
III. Build across the Bhagirathi River

Explanation

Sardar Sarovar Dam is on the Narmada River in Gujarat (1-I). Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River in Odisha (2-II). Tehri Dam is built across the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand (3-III). Hence, 1-I, 2-II, 3-III.

सरदार सरोवर बांध: नर्मदा नदी पर स्थित है (1-I)।
हीराकुंड बांध: ओडिशा में महानदी पर निर्मित है (2-II)।
टिहरी बांध: उत्तराखंड में भागीरथी नदी पर निर्मित है (3-III)।
सही विकल्प 1-I, 2-II, 3-III है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1268📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndus Waters Treaty Provisions

Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Waters Treaty, 1960:
I. As per the treaty, India has unrestricted rights over the waters of the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej rivers.
II. Pakistan has complete rights over the waters of the Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab rivers, with no exceptions for India.
III. India is allowed to utilize the waters for purposes like power generation, and navigation.
IV. The Shahpurkandi Project situated on the Ravi river is an initiative to generate electricity.
Which of the above statements is correct?

Explanation

Under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), India was given unrestricted rights over the three Eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej; statement I is correct). Although the Western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) were allocated to Pakistan, India is permitted specific non-consumptive uses, domestic use, agricultural storage, and run-of-the-river hydroelectric power generation; hence statement II is false. Statement III is correct as India can use the waters for run-of-the-river power and navigation. Statement IV is correct as the Shahpurkandi Dam on the Ravi River enables power generation and irrigation in J&K and Punjab. Thus, I, III, and IV only are correct.

सिंधु जल संधि 1960 के तहत:
I. भारत को पूर्वी नदियों (रावी, ब्यास, सतलुज) के पानी पर अप्रतिबंधित अधिकार प्राप्त हैं (सही)।
II. पश्चिमी नदियों (सिंधु, झेलम, चिनाब) पर पाकिस्तान का अधिकार है, लेकिन भारत को गैर-उपभोगी उपयोग जैसे रन-ऑफ-द-रिवर जलविद्युत और कृषि की छूट दी गई है, अतः 'बिना किसी अपवाद' कहना गलत है।
III. भारत को बिजली उत्पादन और नौवहन जैसे उद्देश्यों के लिए पानी का उपयोग करने की अनुमति है (सही)।
IV. रावी नदी पर स्थित शाहपुरकंडी परियोजना बिजली उत्पादन और सिंचाई की पहल है (सही)।
अतः I, III और IV केवल सही हैं।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1269📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsTunnels & Transportation in J&K

The Jawahar Tunnel connects which two regions of Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

The Jawahar Tunnel (built under the Pir Panjal mountain range on NH-44) connects Banihal in the Jammu division with Qazigund in the Kashmir Valley.

जवाहर सुरंग (पीर पंजाल पर्वतमाला में स्थित) जम्मू संभाग के बनिहाल को कश्मीर घाटी के काजीगुंड से जोड़ती है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1270📚General English & ComprehensionSynonyms

Choose the correct synonym of TARNISH:

Explanation

'Tarnish' means to dull the luster of a metallic surface or to stain/damage a reputation. A direct synonym is 'Blemish' (to spoil the flawlessness of; a stain or defect).

'Tarnish' का अर्थ कलंकित करना, चमक खोना या दाग लगाना होता है। इसका सटीक पर्यायवाची 'Blemish' (दाग, धब्बा या कलंक) है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1271📚General English & ComprehensionAntonyms

Choose the correct antonym of RADICAL:

Explanation

'Radical' means affecting the fundamental nature of something, going to the very root or core. Its opposite is 'Superficial', which means existing or occurring only at the surface level.

'Radical' का अर्थ मौलिक, जड़ से संबंधित या गहन होता है। इसका विलोम शब्द 'Superficial' (सतही या ऊपरी) होता है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1272📚General Intelligence & ReasoningAnalogy

The following consists of two words that have a specific relationship to each other. Choose the pair that shares the same relationship as the original pair of words:
Thermal: Coal

Explanation

Thermal power utilizes Coal as its source. Similarly, Hydel (hydroelectric) power utilizes Water as its primary source.

जिस प्रकार 'Thermal' (तापीय ऊर्जा) का प्राथमिक स्रोत 'Coal' (कोयला) है, उसी प्रकार 'Hydel' (जलविद्युत) का प्राथमिक स्रोत 'Water' (जल) है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1273📚Data Interpretation & Data SufficiencyBar Graph Analysis

Based on the bar graph: Which flavour had the highest average annual production during the specified period (2000-2005)?

Explanation

Summing annual production over 6 years:
- Flavour R:

50 + 40 + 55 + 45 + 60 + 50 = 300\text{ lakh bottles}

(Average = 50)
- Flavour S:

55 + 60 + 50 + 55 + 50 + 55 = 325\text{ lakh bottles}

(Average = 54.17)
- Flavour T:

45 + 50 + 60 + 60 + 45 + 40 = 300\text{ lakh bottles}

(Average = 50)
Flavour S had the highest average annual production (S only).

6 वर्षों में कुल उत्पादन:
- फ्लेवर R =

50 + 40 + 55 + 45 + 60 + 50 = 300

लाख
- फ्लेवर S =

55 + 60 + 50 + 55 + 50 + 55 = 325

लाख
- फ्लेवर T =

45 + 50 + 60 + 60 + 45 + 40 = 300

लाख
स्पष्टतः फ्लेवर S का औसत उत्पादन सर्वाधिक रहा ('S only')।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1274📚Data Interpretation & Data SufficiencyLine Graph Analysis

Based on the line graph (Ratio of Exports to Imports):
In 1995, Company A’s exports were twice the exports of Company B. If Company A’s imports during that year amounted to Rs. 180 crores, what was the approximate value of Company B’s imports for the same period?

Explanation

In 1995:
- Company A: Ratio

E_A / I_A = 1.75

.
Given

I_A = \text{Rs. } 180\text{ crores} \implies E_A = 1.75 \times 180 = \text{Rs. } 315\text{ crores}

.
- Since

E_A = 2 E_B

, Company B's exports

E_B = \frac{315}{2} = 157.5\text{ crores}

.
- For Company B in 1995: Ratio

E_B / I_B = 0.75

.
Imports

I_B = \frac{E_B}{0.75} = \frac{157.5}{0.75} = \text{Rs. } 210\text{ crores}

.

1995 में कंपनी A के लिए:

E_A / I_A = 1.75

I_A = 180

करोड़

\implies E_A = 1.75 \times 180 = 315

करोड़ रुपये।
कंपनी B का निर्यात

E_B = \frac{315}{2} = 157.5

करोड़ रुपये।
कंपनी B के लिए अनुपात

E_B / I_B = 0.75

I_B = \frac{157.5}{0.75} = 210

करोड़ रुपये।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

1275📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyOrigins of Khat-e-Nastaliq

"خط نستعلیق" کو کس نے اختراع کیا ہے؟
(Who invented / originated the "Nastaliq" script?)

Explanation

Mir Ali Tabrizi (circa late 14th century, Timurid era) is universally recognized in Islamic calligraphy history as the originator and systematizer of 'Khat-e-Nastaliq'. He ingeniously combined the rounded characteristics of 'Naskh' and the hanging/cursive elegance of 'Ta'liq' (Naskh + Ta'liq -> Nastaliq).

خطِ نستعلیق کی ایجاد و باقاعدہ اصول سازی کا سہرا چودھویں صدی عیسوی کے نامور ایرانی خطاط میر علی تبریزی کے سر ہے۔ انہوں نے خطِ نسخ کے دائروں اور خطِ تعلیق کے خمدار حسن کو یکجا کر کے نستعلیق (نسخ + تعلیق) اختراع کیا۔

2025JKSSBSkill Development Department

1276📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyClassification of Nuqat (Dots)

"نقاط" کی کتنی قسمیں ہیں؟
(How many types of "Nuqat" (dots) are categorized in calligraphy?)

Explanation

In classical calligraphy orthography, dots (Nuqat, plural of Nuqta) are categorized into three primary structural varieties based on their geometrical form: Nuqta Mudawwar (circular/round), Nuqta Murabba (square/rhomboid measuring qat dot), and Nuqta Musallas/Mustateel.

فنِ خطاطی میں نقاط کی ہیئت کے اعتبار سے بنیادی طور پر تین قسمیں مانی جاتی ہیں: نقطۂ مدور (گول)، نقطۂ مربع (چوکور/معیاری قط)، اور نقطۂ مثلث۔

2025JKSSBSkill Development Department

1277📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyProportions of Badi Ba

"ب" کی دوشکلیں ہیں ایک بڑی اور دوسری چھوٹی، بڑی "ب" میں کتنے قط ہوتے ہیں؟
(There are two forms of "Ba": one large (Kashida) and the other small. How many Qats are in the large "Ba"?)

Explanation

In classical Nastaliq, Badi Ba (کشیدہ ب / extended Ba) has a proportional base measuring 9, 11, or 13 Qats depending on the aesthetic composition and line spacing.

خطِ نستعلیق میں کشیدہ یعنی بڑی 'ب' کی پیمائش اور لمبائی حسنِ خط اور ضرورت کے مطابق 9، 11 یا 13 قط کی رکھی جاتی ہے۔

2025JKSSBSkill Development Department

1278📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyOrigins of Khat-e-Shikasta

خط "شکستہ" کو کس نے ایجاد کیا؟
(Who invented / developed "Khat-e-Shikasta"?)

Explanation

Khat-e-Shikasta (the rapid broken/cursive script) was developed in Safavid Iran during the 17th century by court scribes and munshis (such as Murtaza Qoli Khan Shamloo and Shafia) to facilitate speedy bureaucratic and diplomatic record-keeping.

خطِ شکستہ صفوی عہد کے دوران ایران کے شاہی منشیوں اور کاتبوں نے سرکاری مراسلت، دفتری احکامات اور تیز رفتاری سے تحریر قلمبند کرنے کے لیے ایجاد کیا۔

2025JKSSBSkill Development Department

1279📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyTwelve Principles of Calligraphy

فنِ خطاطی کے بنیادی اصول کتنے ہیں؟
(How many fundamental principles (Usool) of calligraphy are codified?)

Explanation

Classical masters (from Ibn Muqla to Mir Ali) established exactly 12 fundamental principles (بارہ اصول) of calligraphy: Tarkib, Kursi, Nisbat, Dha'f, Quwwat, Satah, Daura, Su'ood, Nazool, Tarteeb, Safa, and Shaan.

فنِ خطاطی کے کلاسیکی اساتذہ نے اس فن کے بنیادی طور پر 12 اصول وضع کیے ہیں جن میں ترکیب، کرسی، نسبت، ضعف، قوت، سطح، دورہ، صعود، نزول، ترتیب، صفا اور شان شامل ہیں۔

2025JKSSBSkill Development Department

1280📚Traditional Calligraphy Tools, Inks, Papers & MaterialsCalligraphy Pens for Beginners

طالب علموں کے لیے دورانِ خوشنویسی کس طرح کے قلم مفید ہیں؟
(For students during calligraphy training, which types of pens are most useful and beneficial?)

Explanation

Traditional reed pens made of Kilk/Nadi (نڑی) and Bamboo (بانس) are the time-tested, universally recommended natural pens for learners to acquire proper stroke pressure, ink absorption, and angled cuts.

خوشنویسی سیکھنے والے طلبہ کے لیے نڑی (کلک) اور بانس سے بنے روایتی قلم سب سے زیادہ مفید اور موزوں سمجھے جاتے ہیں کیونکہ یہ سیاہی کو مناسب جذب کرتے ہیں اور ان کا قط آسانی سے کٹتا ہے۔

2025JKSSBSkill Development Department

1281📚Traditional Calligraphy Tools, Inks, Papers & MaterialsInvention of Paper

فن خطاطی میں کاغذ "پیپر " ایک اہم شے ہے اس کی ایجاد سب سے پہلے کس ملک میں ہوئی ؟
(Paper is an essential medium in calligraphy; in which country was it first invented?)

Explanation

Paper was invented in China (چین) around 105 AD by court official Cai Lun during the Han Dynasty, from where paper-making technology spread to Samarqand, the Islamic world, and Europe.

کاغذ کی ایجاد سب سے پہلے چین (China) میں کائی لون نامی درباری نے 105ء میں کی، جہاں سے یہ سمرقند کے راستے اسلامی دنیا اور پھر یورپ تک پہنچا۔

2025JKSSBSkill Development Department

1282📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphySpiritual Origins of Calligraphy

فن خطاطی و خوشنویسی کا آغاز کس کتاب سے ہوا ہے؟
(With the transcription and ornamentation of which sacred book did the art of Islamic calligraphy originate?)

Explanation

Islamic calligraphy originated, flourished, and attained its sacred summit through the pious transcription, copying, and embellishment of the Holy Quran (قرآن مجید).

فنِ خطاطی کا آغاز اور اس کی معراج قرآنِ مجید کی کتابت، تفہیم اور اسے انتہائی خوبصورت و عقیدت مندانہ انداز میں محفوظ کرنے سے ہوئی۔

2025JKSSBSkill Development Department

1283📚Urdu DTP, InPage, Digital Graphic Design & HardwareSoftware Fundamentals

کمپیوٹر کی دنیا میں "فوٹوشاپ" کیا ہے؟
(In computing, what is "Photoshop"?)

Explanation

Adobe Photoshop is a premier raster graphics editing application software (سافٹ ویئر).

کمپیوٹر کی دنیا میں فوٹوشاپ ایک معروف گرافک ڈیزائننگ اور امیج ایڈیٹنگ 'سافٹ ویئر' (Software) ہے۔

2025JKSSBSkill Development Department

1284📚Traditional Calligraphy Tools, Inks, Papers & MaterialsCalligraphy Toolkits

خطاطی میں استعمال ہونے والے سامان کے صحیح جواب کی نشاندہی کیجئے؟
(Identify the correct statement regarding equipment used in calligraphy:)
1. قلم، پنسل ، روشنائی، ربر
2. پنسل ، روشنائی ، سکیل ، مارکر
3. ربر، قلم ، کاغذ، روشنائی
4. مارکر ، قلم ، پنسل ، سکیل
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

All items mentioned across lists 1, 2, 3, and 4 (Qalam, pencil, ink, eraser, scale/ruler, paper, marker) are genuine and necessary tools used during drafting, grid lining, inking, and measuring in calligraphy.

چاروں زمروں میں درج اشیاء (قلم، پنسل، روشنائی، ربر، سکیل، کاغذ اور مارکر) فنِ خطاطی میں پیمائش، ڈرافٹنگ اور تحریر کے لیے استعمال ہوتی ہیں، لہٰذا چاروں درست ہیں۔

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1285📚Urdu DTP, InPage, Digital Graphic Design & HardwareInPage Urdu Typing Proficiency

اردو ٹائپنگ کو ان پیج میں کس طرح بہتر بنایا جا سکتا ہے؟
(How can Urdu typing speed and accuracy be best improved in InPage?)

Explanation

The fundamental prerequisite to proficient Urdu typing in InPage is systematically memorizing and mastering the Urdu keyboard layout (such as the InPage Phonetic Keyboard), followed by continuous practice.

ان پیج میں اردو ٹائپنگ کو تیز رفتار اور درست بنانے کے لیے سب سے پہلے اردو کی بورڈ لے آؤٹ (جیسے فونیٹک کی بورڈ) کو ذہن نشین اور یاد کرنا بنیادی شرط ہے۔

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1286📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyCalligraphic Historical Verification

درج ذیل سوال کو غور سے پڑھنے کے بعد درست جواب کی نشاندہی کیجئے؟
1. فن خطاطی کے بنیاد گزار میر علی تبریزی ہیں
2. خط نستعلیق کے مابعد موجد محمد حسین ابن مقلہ ہیں
3. شبیر احمد رضوی ملتان کے رہنے والے ہیں
4. مولانا خلیق ٹونکی خطاطی کی دو درجن کتابوں کے خالق ہیں
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

All four statements are historically incorrect: 1 is false (Mir Ali founded Nastaliq, not all calligraphy); 2 is false (Ibn Muqla lived centuries before Nastaliq); 3 is false (Shabir Ahmad Rizvi was from Kashmir, not Multan); 4 is false. Thus, none of them is correct.

دیے گئے چاروں بیانات تاریخی اعتبار سے غلط ہیں، کیونکہ میر علی خطاطی نہیں بلکہ صرف نستعلیق کے موجد تھے، ابن مقلہ نسخ کے دور کے تھے، شبیر احمد رضوی کشمیری تھے نہ کہ ملتانی۔ لہٰذا 'ان میں سے کوئی درست نہیں' صحیح جواب ہے۔

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1287📚Traditional Calligraphy Tools, Inks, Papers & MaterialsThe Calligraphic Triad

خطاطی سیکھنے کے لیے تین بنیادی چیزیں کون سی ہیں؟
(Which are the three fundamental tools required for learning calligraphy?)

Explanation

In the tradition of calligraphy, the universal indispensable triad consists of Ink, Pen, and Paper (سیاہی، قلم، کاغذ - Midad, Qalam, Qirtaas).

فنِ خطاطی کی تعلیم و مشق کے لیے تین بنیادی اور لازمی عناصر 'سیاہی، قلم اور کاغذ' (مداد، قلم، قرطاس) ہیں۔

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1288📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyPrinciple of Safa

خطاطی کا ایک اصول "صفا" ہے اس سے کیا مراد لیا جاتا ہے؟
(One of the 12 principles of calligraphy is "Safa"; what does it signify?)

Explanation

In calligraphy treatises, 'Safa' (صفا) signifies that pristine clarity, effortless elegance, and purity of line achieved exclusively through dedicated, prolonged practice and discipline.

خطاطی کے اصولوں میں 'صفا' سے مراد وہ فنی نکھار، پاکیزگی اور یکسانیت ہے جو کاتب کو مسلسل اور طویل مشق کے بعد خط میں حاصل ہوتی ہے۔

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1289📚Traditional Calligraphy Tools, Inks, Papers & MaterialsTraditional Ink Preparation

"دلیھو" روشنائی بنیادی طور پر کن چیزوں سے تیار ہوتی ہے؟
(From which ingredients is "Doodha / Leeho" traditional ink fundamentally prepared?)

Explanation

Traditional carbon lampblack calligraphy ink (دلیھو/دھواں سیاہی) is fundamentally formulated by burning oil (کڑوا تیل) to obtain fine soot, which is then ground and emulsified with water and gum arabic (تیل اور پانی).

روایتی کالی روشنائی (دلیھو/سیاہی) کی تیاری میں بنیادی طور پر چراغ یا تیل کے جلنے سے حاصل شدہ دھوئیں (کاجل) کو گوند اور پانی کے ساتھ گھوٹ کر تیار کیا جاتا ہے۔

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1290📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyThe Secret of Calligraphy Mastery

فن خوشنویسی کا تمام تر راز کس میں مضمر ہے؟
(In what does the supreme secret of mastering the art of calligraphy lie?)

Explanation

The supreme open secret of calligraphy mastery has always been continuous, devoted, repetitive physical practice ('Mashq') of the fundamental isolated letters (مفردات) on a wooden slate (تختی پر لکھ کر خوب مشق کرنے میں).

فنِ خوشنویسی کا کل راز اور کامیابی صرف اس میں پوشیدہ ہے کہ کاتب بنیادی حروف کو تختی پر بار بار لکھے اور انتھک مشق (خوب مشق) جاری رکھے، کیونکہ بغیر مشق کے خط میں حسن پیدا نہیں ہو سکتا۔

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1291📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsConstitution of India & Press Freedom

Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression, including freedom of the press?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19(1)(a)
C) Article 21
D) Article 32

Explanation

Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the fundamental right to 'freedom of speech and expression', which the Supreme Court has consistently held includes the freedom of the press (Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras, Indian Express Newspapers case).

भारतीय संविधान का अनुच्छेद 19(1)(क) सभी नागरिकों को 'वाक् और अभिव्यक्ति की स्वतंत्रता' की गारंटी देता है, जिसमें प्रेस की स्वतंत्रता भी अंतर्निहित है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B है।

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1292📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)FM Radio Broadcasting Fundamentals

Which of the following are features of FM radio broadcasting?
i. Line-of-sight coverage
ii. Susceptibility to atmospheric disturbances
iii. Higher audio quality compared to AM
iv. Use of frequency modulation
Choose the correct Option:

Explanation

Features of Frequency Modulation (FM) broadcasting:
- Operates in the VHF band (88-108 MHz) via line-of-sight space wave propagation.
- High immunity to atmospheric and electrical static noise (unlike AM which is amplitude-dependent).
- Wide bandwidth providing superior, stereophonic high-fidelity sound quality.

FM (फ़्रीक्वेंसी मॉड्यूलेशन) रेडियो प्रसारण की विशेषताएं:
- यह VHF बैंड में दृष्टि-रेखा (Line-of-sight) पर काम करता है।
- यह वायुमंडलीय गड़बड़ी से अप्रभावित रहता है (कथन ii गलत है)।
- इसमें AM की तुलना में उच्च ध्वनि गुणवत्ता और स्टीरियो साउंड होता है। अतः i, iii और iv सही हैं।

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1293📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Milestones in Indian Television

Arrange the following events in the history of Indian television in chronological order:
i. Introduction of colour television
ii. Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE)
iii. Launch of Gyan Darshan
iv. Experimental TV service from Delhi
Which of the following is the correct chronological order?

Explanation

Chronology of television in India:
1. Experimental TV service from Delhi: 15 September 1959.
2. Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE): 1975-1976.
3. Introduction of colour television (during IX Asian Games in New Delhi): 1982.
4. Launch of Gyan Darshan (dedicated educational TV channel by IGNOU/Doordarshan): 26 January 2000.

भारतीय दूरदर्शन के विकास का कालानुक्रम:
1. दिल्ली से प्रायोगिक टीवी सेवा: 1959 (iv)
2. उपग्रह अनुदेशात्मक टेलीविजन प्रयोग (SITE): 1975-76 (ii)
3. रंगीन टीवी का आगमन: 1982 (i)
4. ज्ञान दर्शन शैक्षिक चैनल का शुभारंभ: 2000 (iii)। अतः सही क्रम iv, ii, i, iii है।

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1294📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsElements of Visual Design

Arrange the following design elements in order of their importance in creating visual compositions:
i. Line
ii. Color
iii. Shape
iv. Texture
Choose the correct Option:

Explanation

In foundational visual arts theory, the elements of design follow a natural compositional progression: Line (the fundamental mark) -> Shape (created by lines enclosing space) -> Color -> Texture.

दृश्य संयोजन (Visual Composition) में डिज़ाइन तत्वों का बुनियादी पदानुक्रम रेखा (Line), रंग (Color), आकार (Shape) और बनावट (Texture) के आधार पर व्यवस्थित होता है।

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1295📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDefamation Defence & Apology

A news channel broadcasts a report alleging corruption by a government official without verifying the facts. The official files a defamation case. Which of the following is the best course of action for the channel?
A) Issue an unconditional apology.
B) Claim absolute privilege.
C) Prove the truth of the allegations in court.
D) Argue that the report was in the public interest.

Explanation

When defamatory unverified facts are broadcast without due diligence and without factual proof, issuing an immediate, prominent, and unconditional apology is the standard legal and ethical remedy to mitigate damages and terminate criminal/civil defamation proceedings.

यदि बिना तथ्यों की पुष्टि के मानहानिकारक समाचार प्रसारित किया गया हो, तो मानहानि के मुकदमे में कानूनी दंड और नुकसान से बचने के लिए बिना शर्त माफी (Unconditional Apology) मांगना सबसे उपयुक्त कदम होता है।

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1296📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsArticle 19(2) Constitutional Restrictions

Which of the following is NOT a ground for reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(2)?
A) Sovereignty and integrity of India
B) Public order
C) Economic stability
D) Decency or morality

Explanation

Under Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution, the eight specified grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions are:
1. Sovereignty and integrity of India
2. Security of the State
3. Friendly relations with foreign States
4. Public order
5. Decency or morality
6. Contempt of court
7. Defamation
8. Incitement to an offence.
'Economic stability' is NOT a constitutional ground for restricting free speech.

संविधान के अनुच्छेद 19(2) में वाक् स्वतंत्रता पर युक्तियुक्त प्रतिबंध के 8 आधार दिए गए हैं। 'आर्थिक स्थिरता' (Economic stability) इनमें शामिल नहीं है।

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1297📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsMedia Laws & Constitutional Focus

Match the following laws with their primary focus:
1. Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
3. Article 19(1)(a)
4. Defamation Law
Focus:
i. Regulates freedom of speech and expression
ii. Protects classified government information
iii. Ensures respect for judicial authority
iv. Protects individuals from false attacks on reputation
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Matching:
- Official Secrets Act, 1923: Protects classified state security documents (1-ii).
- Contempt of Courts Act, 1971: Upholds dignity and authority of the judiciary (2-iii).
- Article 19(1)(a): Guarantees free speech and expression (3-i).
- Defamation Law: Protects individuals from reputation damage (4-iv).

कानूनों का उनके मुख्य उद्देश्य से सही मिलान:
1. शासकीय गुप्त बात अधिनियम: सरकारी गोपनीय जानकारी का संरक्षण (ii)
2. न्यायालय अवमानना अधिनियम: न्यायिक सत्ता और सम्मान की सुरक्षा (iii)
3. अनुच्छेद 19(1)(क): वाक् व अभिव्यक्ति की स्वतंत्रता (i)
4. मानहानि कानून: प्रतिष्ठा पर झूठे हमलों से व्यक्ति की सुरक्षा (iv)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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1298📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Microphone Polar Patterns

A radio station wants to broadcast a live concert. Which type of microphone would be most suitable for capturing the sound of the entire audience?
A) Omni-directional
B) Uni-directional
C) Bi-directional
D) Cardioid

Explanation

An Omni-directional microphone has a spherical 360-degree pickup pattern that captures ambient sound equally from all directions, making it ideal for recording ambient crowd applause, audience room response, and live concert ambience.

लाइव कॉन्सर्ट में पूरे सभागार और दर्शकों की सामूहिक ध्वनि और तालियों को रिकॉर्ड करने के लिए 'ओम्नी-डायरेक्शनल' (Omni-directional) माइक्रोफोन सबसे उपयुक्त होता है क्योंकि यह 360 डिग्री से समान ध्वनि ग्रहण करता है।

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1299📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingSocial Responsibility of Journalism

What is the primary role of journalism in society?
A) To entertain the audience
B) To inform, interpret, and educate the public
C) To promote political agendas
D) To provide advertisements

Explanation

The fundamental normative function of journalism in a democratic society is to inform citizens with truthful reporting, interpret complex societal issues, and educate the public to facilitate self-governance and democratic participation.

लोकतांत्रिक समाज में पत्रकारिता का सर्वोपरि और प्राथमिक कार्य जनता को निष्पक्ष रूप से 'सूचित करना, व्याख्या करना और शिक्षित करना' (Inform, Interpret, and Educate) है।

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1300📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Paradigm

Which of the following best describes the participatory paradigm in development communication?
A) It focuses on transferring information from experts to communities.
B) It emphasizes horizontal knowledge sharing and collective decision-making.
C) It relies on centralized decision-making by external authorities.
D) It prioritizes the use of mass media for disseminating development messages.

Explanation

The participatory paradigm in development communication fundamentally rejects top-down, vertical modernization models and instead champions horizontal, dialogue-driven, grassroots knowledge sharing and collective community empowerment.

विकास संचार में सहभागी प्रतिमान (Participatory Paradigm) शीर्ष-से-नीचे (Top-down) दृष्टिकोण को नकारता है और क्षैतिज ज्ञान साझाकरण (Horizontal knowledge sharing) तथा सामूहिक निर्णय लेने पर बल देता है।

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1301📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingPrimary Purpose of Advertising

Which of the following is the primary purpose of advertising?
A) To entertain the audience
B) To sell products, services, or ideas
C) To provide free samples to consumers
D) To reduce production costs

Explanation

The fundamental definition and primary commercial purpose of advertising is to persuade, inform, and influence a target audience to purchase products, adopt services, or embrace specific ideas.

विज्ञापन (Advertising) का मुख्य और अंतिम उद्देश्य लक्षित उपभोक्ताओं को प्रेरित करके उत्पादों, सेवाओं अथवा विचारों की बिक्री को बढ़ावा देना है।

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1302📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Nature of Radio Broadcasting

Which of the following is a key feature of radio broadcasting?
A) Visual storytelling
B) Audience interaction through social media
C) Audio content delivered through electromagnetic waves
D) Use of printed material to support the message

Explanation

Radio broadcasting is fundamentally an aural medium wherein acoustic sound and audio content are modulated onto high-frequency radio frequency electromagnetic carrier waves and radiated into space.

रेडियो प्रसारण की मूल और सार्वभौमिक विशेषता यह है कि इसमें श्रव्य सामग्री (Audio) को विद्युत-चुंबकीय तरंगों (Electromagnetic waves) के माध्यम से प्रसारित किया जाता है।

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1303📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsTraditional Folk Media in India

Consider the following statements about folk media in India:
i. Folk media often combines music, dance, and drama to convey messages.
ii. It is ineffective in areas with low literacy rates.
iii. Folk media has been used historically for both entertainment and social reform.
iv. Folk media is limited to religious content only.
Which of the statement are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iii are correct. Traditional folk media organically weaves music, dance, puppetry, and street theatre into compelling participatory narratives, historically driving social reforms (e.g., against social evils, during the freedom movement). Statements ii and iv are false (folk media is exceptionally potent in non-literate rural areas and covers diverse socio-political themes).

कथन i और iii सही हैं। लोक मीडिया संगीत, नृत्य और नाटक का मिश्रण है और इसका उपयोग सामाजिक सुधार और मनोरंजन दोनों के लिए होता रहा है। यह कम साक्षरता वाले क्षेत्रों में भी अत्यंत प्रभावी होता है और केवल धार्मिक विषयों तक सीमित नहीं है।

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1304📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Developmental Television in 1970s

What was the primary goal of using television for development in India during the mid-1970s?
A) To promote entertainment shows
B) To spread development-oriented messages
C) To replace radio as the primary medium of communication
D) To showcase international films

Explanation

During the mid-1970s, the landmark Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE, 1975-76) spearheaded by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai aimed to deploy television as an educational instrument to beam instructional messages on agricultural innovation, health, hygiene, and primary education to 2,400 backward rural villages.

1970 के दशक के मध्य में भारत में टेलीविजन (विशेषकर 1975-76 के SITE उपग्रह प्रयोग) का मुख्य उद्देश्य ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में कृषि, स्वास्थ्य, परिवार नियोजन और प्राथमिक शिक्षा से जुड़े विकासोन्मुखी संदेशों का प्रसार करना था।

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1305📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingEvolution of Public Relations

Consider the following statements about the evolution of public relations:
i. The British government in India established the Central Bureau of Public Information in 1923.
ii. The House of Tata's started its public relations department in 1945.
iii. The Soviet Union and the Communist International established PR organs during World War I.
iv. The primary goal of corporate PR during the 1930s Depression was to increase advertising revenue.
Which of the statements are correct?

Explanation

Statements i, ii, and iii are historically accurate:
- Central Bureau of Public Information was established by the British Indian Government in 1923 (headed by J. Coatman).
- Tata established India's first dedicated corporate public relations division in 1945 under Mina Kharas.
- Post-1917 Bolshevik Russia institutionalized international state agitprop/PR organs.
Statement iv is false because corporate PR during the Great Depression was launched to rebuild shattered public trust in big corporations and defend the free enterprise system, not to generate ad revenue.

कथन i, ii और iii सही हैं। ब्रिटिश सरकार ने 1923 में सेंट्रल ब्यूरो ऑफ पब्लिक इंफॉर्मेशन बनाया और टाटा समूह ने 1945 में भारत का पहला कॉरपोरेट पीआर विभाग स्थापित किया। 1930 की मंदी में कॉरपोरेट पीआर का उद्देश्य विज्ञापन राजस्व बढ़ाना नहीं बल्कि जनविश्वास बहाल करना था।

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1306📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHistory of Corporate Public Relations

What was the primary reason for the rise of corporate public relations during the 1930s Depression in the United States?
A) To increase product sales through advertising
B) To counteract public distrust of business and government
C) To promote international trade relations
D) To expand the use of mass media for entertainment

Explanation

Following the 1929 stock market crash and the Great Depression, big corporations faced severe public hostility, suspicion, and regulatory scrutiny. Corporate PR emerged dynamically to rehabilitate business credibility and counteract public distrust.

1930 के दशक की महामंदी के दौरान अमेरिकी कॉरपोरेट पीआर के उदय का मुख्य कारण बड़े व्यापारिक घरानों और सरकार के प्रति जनता के गहरे अविश्वास और आक्रोश को कम करना तथा व्यापारिक विश्वसनीयता को पुनः स्थापित करना था।

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1307📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsHistorical Genesis of Performing Media

Arrange the following folk media forms in the order of their historical origin:
i. Puppetry
ii. Street Theatre
iii. Folk Storytelling (Oral Tradition)
iv. Radio Drama
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Historical genesis of performance and communication genres:
1. Folk Storytelling / Oral Tradition (prehistoric antiquity, oral folklore) (iii)
2. Puppetry (ancient antiquity, found in Indus Valley and ancient Indian epics) (i)
3. Modern Street Theatre (Nukkad Natak, popularized during the anti-imperialist / IPTA movement in early 20th century) (ii)
4. Radio Drama (born with electromagnetic broadcasting in the 1920s-1930s) (iv).

लोक संचार माध्यमों के ऐतिहासिक उद्भव का सही क्रम:
1. लोक कथावाचन / मौखिक परंपरा (प्राचीनतम - iii)
2. कठपुतली कला (प्राचीन काल - i)
3. नुक्कड़ नाटक / स्ट्रीट थियेटर (20वीं सदी - ii)
4. रेडियो नाटक (प्रसारण युग - iv)। अतः सही क्रम iii, i, ii, iv है।

2025JKSSBHigher Education Department

1308📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingEarliest Indian Corporate PR Venture

Which of the following was the earliest known public relations venture by Indian industry?
A) The establishment of the Public Information Bureau (PIB) in 1923
B) The publicity campaign by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway in 1920
C) The formation of the House of Tata's PR department in 1945
D) The British government's use of PR during World War II

Explanation

In the history of Indian public relations, the Great Indian Peninsular (GIP) Railway launched the first institutional corporate publicity campaign in 1920, opening a publicity bureau in London and using cinema vans and posters to stimulate tourist travel in India.

भारतीय उद्योग में जनसंपर्क (PR) का सबसे पहला ज्ञात अभियान 1920 में 'ग्रेट इंडियन पेनिनसुलर रेलवे' (GIP Railway) द्वारा पर्यटन और रेल यात्रा को बढ़ावा देने के लिए शुरू किया गया था।

2025JKSSBHigher Education Department

1309📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingPR History Chronology

Arrange the following events in the evolution of public relations in chronological order:
i. Establishment of the Central Bureau of Public Information in India
ii. Publicity campaign by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway
iii. Rise of corporate PR during the 1930s Depression in the United States
iv. Formation of the House of Tata's PR department
Which of the following is the correct chronological order?

Explanation

Chronology of PR milestones:
1. Great Indian Peninsular Railway publicity campaign: 1920 (ii)
2. Central Bureau of Public Information established: 1923 (i)
3. Rise of corporate PR during Great Depression in US: 1930s (iii)
4. Formation of Tata PR division: 1945 (iv).

जनसंपर्क (PR) के विकास का सही कालानुक्रम:
1. GIP रेलवे का प्रचार अभियान: 1920 (ii)
2. सेंट्रल ब्यूरो ऑफ पब्लिक इंफॉर्मेशन की स्थापना: 1923 (i)
3. अमेरिकी महामंदी के दौरान कॉरपोरेट पीआर का उभार: 1930 का दशक (iii)
4. टाटा के पीआर विभाग की स्थापना: 1945 (iv)। अतः सही क्रम ii, i, iii, iv है।

2025JKSSBHigher Education Department

1310📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Secondary Metabolism

Which of the following is not an example of an alkaloid?

Explanation

Starch is a carbohydrate (polysaccharide). Caffeine (purine alkaloid), reserpine (indole alkaloid from Rauwolfia), and morphine (isoquinoline/phenanthrene alkaloid from Papaver) are typical nitrogenous secondary plant metabolites known as alkaloids.

स्टार्च एक कार्बोहाइड्रेट (पॉलीसेकेराइड) है। कैफीन, रेसरपीन और मॉर्फिन नाइट्रोजन युक्त द्वितीयक मेटाबोलाइट्स हैं जिन्हें एल्कलॉइड (alkaloids) कहा जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1311📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPomology & Physiological Disorders

Spongy tissue disorder is specifically found in which variety of mango?

Explanation

Spongy tissue is a major, specific physiological ripening disorder that severely affects the prized 'Alphonso' (Hapus) mango variety, caused by convective heat emitted from the soil during high summer, leading to non-edible sour, spongy pulp breakdown around the stone.

स्पंजी ऊतक (Spongy Tissue) विकार विशेष रूप से आम की विश्व प्रसिद्ध 'अल्फांसो' (हापुस) किस्म में पाया जाने वाला एक गंभीर कायिकीय विकार है, जो फल के पकने के दौरान अत्यधिक मिट्टी की गर्मी के कारण गूदे को स्पंजी और खट्टा बना देता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1312📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionTemperate Fruit Pathology

What is Apple Scab, caused by Venturia inaequalis?

Explanation

Apple Scab is a destructive fungal disease caused by the ascomycete fungus Venturia inaequalis. It produces dull olive-green to black velvety and scabby lesions on leaves, blossoms, and developing fruits, severely affecting commercial fruit yield and quality in temperate zones like Jammu & Kashmir.

एप्पल स्कैब (Apple Scab) कवक 'वेंटुरिया इनइक्वलिस' (Venturia inaequalis) के कारण होने वाला एक विनाशकारी फंगल रोग है, जो सेब की पत्तियों, फूलों और फलों पर गहरे भूरे-काले पपड़ीदार (scabby) धब्बे उत्पन्न करता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1313📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionEntomology & Pest Management

The fruit and shoot borer (Leucinodes orbonalis) is a major pest of which crop?

Explanation

Leucinodes orbonalis (Brinjal Shoot and Fruit Borer / BSFB) is the most economically destructive pest of eggplant/brinjal, where larvae bore into tender terminal shoots during vegetative growth and bore into fruits during fruiting.

फल एवं तना छेदक (Leucinodes orbonalis) बैंगन (Brinjal) का सबसे विनाशकारी और प्रमुख कीट है। इसकी सूंडी (larva) कोमल तनों और फलों में छेद करके भारी नुकसान पहुंचाती है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1314📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPost-Harvest Physiology & Tuber Crops

Greening in potatoes is due to:

Explanation

Exposure of potato tubers to natural or artificial light during growth or storage triggers the synthesis of chlorophyll, accompanied by the accumulation of bitter, toxic glycoalkaloids (primarily alpha-solanine and chaconine).

आलू के कंदों का हरा होना (Greening) भंडारण या खेत में प्रकाश (Light) के संपर्क में आने के कारण होता है। प्रकाश से क्लोरोफिल के साथ-साथ विषाक्त ग्लाइकोएल्कलॉइड 'सोलेनाइन' का निर्माण होता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1315📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPomology & Harvest Indices

Tapka stage (when mature fruits start dropping) is related to:

Explanation

In mango (Mangifera indica), the 'Tapka' stage refers to the stage of tree maturity when ripe fruits naturally begin to drop onto the ground, signaling the optimal harvesting stage for fruit picking.

टपका अवस्था (Tapka stage - जब पके फल स्वाभाविक रूप से पेड़ से टपकने या गिरने लगते हैं) आम (Mango) की तुड़ाई की पारंपरिक परिपक्वता अवस्था से संबंधित है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

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1316📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPost-Harvest & Quality Instrumentation

Instrument used for measuring tenderness:

Explanation

A Tenderometer is a precision mechanical instrument used to measure the tenderness and maturity of fresh peas and other vegetables by measuring the force required to shear the sample through a grid.

मटर और अन्य सब्जियों के कोमलपन (मुलायमता/परिपक्वता) को मापने के लिए प्रयुक्त उपकरण 'टेंडरोमीटर' (Tenderometer) कहलाता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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1317📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPost-Harvest & Food Processing

Gaseous SO2 is incorporated in food by a process called:

Explanation

Sulphuring refers specifically to the process of exposing solid food products (such as cut fruits, apricots, and raisins) to the fumes of burning elemental sulfur (releasing gaseous SO2) inside a closed chamber. (Dissolving sulfites in liquids is sulphitation).

ठोस खाद्य उत्पादों (जैसे खुबानी, किशमिश आदि) को बंद कक्ष में गंधक (सल्फर) जलाकर उत्पन्न गैसीय सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड (

SO_2

) के धुएं से उपचारित करने की प्रक्रिया 'सल्फरिंग' (Sulphuring) कहलाती है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1318📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionFungicide History & Formulations

Match the following:
i. Bordeaux Mixture - 1. Singh (1942)
ii. Burgundy Mixture - 2. Millardet
iii. Cheshunt Compound - 3. Bewley, 1921
iv. Chaubattia Paste - 4. "Soda Bordeaux"
Options:

Explanation

Historical plant pathology matches:
- i. Bordeaux Mixture -> Discovered by P.M.A. Millardet in 1885 (2)
- ii. Burgundy Mixture -> Prepared with sodium carbonate, known as 'Soda Bordeaux' (4)
- iii. Cheshunt Compound -> Formulated by W.F. Bewley in 1921 for damping-off (3)
- iv. Chaubattia Paste -> Formulated by U.B. Singh in 1942 in Uttarakhand for wound treatment (1)
Thus: i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1.

पादप रोग विज्ञान के ऐतिहासिक कवकनाशियों का सुमेलन:
- i. बोर्डो मिश्रण (Bordeaux Mixture) = मिलाईडेट (Millardet, 1885) (2)
- ii. बरगंडी मिश्रण = कॉपर सल्फेट + सोडियम कार्बोनेट ('सोडा बोर्डो') (4)
- iii. चेशंट कम्पाउंड = बेव्ले (Bewley, 1921) (3)
- iv. चौबटिया पेस्ट = यू.बी. सिंह (Singh, 1942) (1)
अतः सही कूट A (i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1) है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1319📚Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Agricultural MeteorologySoil Testing Instrumentation

Flame photometer is used for the estimation of:

Explanation

The Flame Photometer is the primary optical instrument used in routine soil testing laboratories for determining available Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) by measuring atomic emission at 766.5 nm upon aspiration into a flame.

फ्लेम फोटोमीटर (Flame Photometer) का उपयोग मृदा और जल विश्लेषण में मुख्य रूप से पोटेशियम (Potassium / K) और सोडियम (Na) के उत्सर्जन मापन द्वारा उनके निर्धारण हेतु किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

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1320📚Floriculture, Ornamental Gardening & Landscape ArchitectureTurfgrass Pathology

Brown patch disease of lawn is caused by:

Explanation

Brown patch is a common and destructive foliar disease of turfgrass lawns caused by the soil-borne rhizoctonia fungus Rhizoctonia solani, particularly active during hot, humid summer conditions.

लॉन (घास के मैदान) का ब्राउन पैच रोग (Brown patch disease) 'राइजोक्टोनिया सोलानी' (Rhizoctonia solani) नामक मृदा-जनित कवक (Fungi) के कारण होता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1321📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyOrganic Agriculture Movements

In which year was IFOAM (International Federation of Organic Agriculture Movements) created?

Explanation

IFOAM (International Federation of Organic Agriculture Movements, now IFOAM - Organics International) was founded on 5 November 1972 in Versailles, France, during an international conference convened by Roland Chevriot.

इंटरनेशनल फेडरेशन ऑफ ऑर्गेनिक एग्रीकल्चर मूवमेंट्स (IFOAM) की स्थापना 5 नवंबर 1972 को वर्साय (फ्रांस) में जैविक कृषि को वैश्विक स्तर पर बढ़ावा देने हेतु की गई थी। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1322📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Tissue Culture Media

Which is the most extensively used basal media in plant tissue culture?

Explanation

Murashige and Skoog (MS) medium, formulated by Toshio Murashige and Folke K. Skoog in 1962 during tobacco tissue culture research, is by far the most widely used basal nutrient medium in plant micropropagation due to its high concentration of inorganic salts.

पादप ऊतक संवर्धन में सर्वाधिक व्यापक रूप से उपयोग किया जाने वाला आधारीय माध्यम 'मुराशीगे और स्कूग माध्यम' (Murashige and Skoog / MS medium, 1962) है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1323📚Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Agricultural MeteorologyMeteorological Instrumentation

Instrument used for measuring wind velocity is known as:

Explanation

An Anemometer (specifically a cup anemometer) is an instrument used to measure wind speed and velocity. (Pyranometers measure solar radiation; altimeters measure altitude; hydrometers measure liquid specific gravity).

वायु की गति/वेग (Wind velocity) को मापने के लिए प्रयुक्त उपकरण को 'एनीमोमीटर' (Anemometer / पवनवेगमापी) कहा जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1324📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyNational Horticultural Schemes

National Horticulture Mission (NHM) was started in:

Explanation

The National Horticulture Mission (NHM), a centrally sponsored scheme to promote the holistic growth of the horticulture sector covering fruits, vegetables, root and tuber crops, spices, and flowers, was launched in the financial year 2005-06 during the 10th Five-Year Plan.

राष्ट्रीय बागवानी मिशन (National Horticulture Mission - NHM) की शुरुआत केंद्र सरकार द्वारा 10वीं पंचवर्षीय योजना के तहत वर्ष 2005-06 में की गई थी, जिसका उद्देश्य बागवानी क्षेत्र का समग्र विकास करना था। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1325📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyCrop Water Requirements

The quantity of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of a crop, excluding effective rainfall, is known as:

Explanation

Consumptive Irrigation Requirement (CIR) is defined as the depth of water required to meet the consumptive use (evapotranspiration) of a crop minus the effective rainfall received during that period: CIR = ETc - Pe.

फसल की वाष्पोत्सर्जन (Evapotranspiration) आवश्यकताओं को पूरा करने के लिए आवश्यक सिंचाई जल की वह मात्रा, जिसमें प्रभावी वर्षा को घटा दिया जाता है, 'उपभोगी सिंचाई आवश्यकता' (Consumptive Irrigation Requirement / CIR) कहलाती है। (

CIR = ET_c - P_e

)। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1326📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologySeed Technology & Physiology

A seed can tolerate drying and freezing without losing viability is called:

Explanation

Orthodox seeds are seeds that can tolerate desiccation down to low moisture contents (below 5%) and survive freezing temperatures (-20 deg C) during ex-situ gene bank conservation without losing viability. (Recalcitrant seeds die upon drying).

वे बीज जो बिना अपनी अंकुरण क्षमता (जीवनक्षमता) खोए अत्यधिक शुष्कन (कम नमी) और ठंड (हिमांक) को सहन कर सकते हैं, 'ऑर्थोडॉक्स बीज' (Orthodox seed / रूढ़िवादी बीज) कहलाते हैं (जैसे गेहूं, धान, मक्का)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1327📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPomology & High Density Orcharding

High Density Planting was first established in ______ in Europe during sixties:

Explanation

High Density Planting (HDP) using dwarfing clonal rootstocks (such as Malling 9 / M.9 and M.26) was first established commercially in Apple (Malus domestica) orchards in Europe (specifically England and the Netherlands) during the 1960s.

सघन बागवानी (High Density Planting - HDP) की शुरुआत 1960 के दशक में यूरोप में सबसे पहले 'सेब' (Apple) की फसल में बौने मूलवृंतों (जैसे M.9) का उपयोग करके की गई थी। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1328📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionAgricultural Biotechnology & Pest Resistance

Bt toxin producing plants are resistant to ______:

Explanation

Bt crops (such as Bt cotton expressing Cry1Ac and Cry2Ab endotoxin crystal proteins derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis) are engineered specifically for resistance against lepidopteran insect pests, primarily the Pink Bollworm (Pectinophora gossypiella) and American bollworm.

बीटी (Bt) विष उत्पन्न करने वाले पौधे मुख्य रूप से लेपिडोप्टेरा कीटों, विशेष रूप से कपास के 'गुलाबी सुंडी' (Pink Bollworm / पेक्टिनोफोरा गॉसिपिएला) के प्रति प्रतिरोधी होते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1329📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyCell Culture Kinetics

Which phase is characterized by cells regaining the ability to divide in a fresh medium?

Explanation

In batch cell suspension cultures, the Lag phase is the initial acclimation period following inoculation into fresh media during which cells absorb nutrients, synthesize necessary RNA, proteins, and division enzymes to regain their physiological division competence before active cleavage.

संवर्धन माध्यम में कोशिकाओं को नए माध्यम में स्थानांतरित करने के बाद विभाजन की क्षमता पुनः प्राप्त करने और अनुकूलन की प्रारंभिक अवस्था को 'लैग फेज' (Lag phase / मंद चरण) कहा जाता है। इसके बाद तेजी से विभाजन वाला लॉग (घातांकीय) चरण आता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1330📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologySpices & Botanical Names

Which of the following are correct names for Amomum subulatum?
i) Black cardamom
ii) Nepal cardamom
iii) Green cardamom
iv) Nutmeg
Options:

Explanation

Amomum subulatum (family Zingiberaceae) is standardly known in trade as Black cardamom, Large cardamom, or Nepal cardamom. (Green small cardamom is Elettaria cardamomum; Nutmeg is Myristica fragrans). Therefore, i and ii only are correct.

अमोमम सबुलाटम (Amomum subulatum) बड़ी इलायची का वानस्पतिक नाम है, जिसे 'काली इलायची' (Black cardamom) और 'नेपाल इलायची' (Nepal cardamom) दोनों नामों से जाना जाता है। (छोटी हरी इलायची एलेटेरिया इलायची है)। अतः सही विकल्प C (i and ii only) है।

2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department

1331📚Database Management Systems & SQLRelational Integrity & Foreign Keys

What is the correct sequence to create and link two tables with a foreign key?
I. Create the parent table
II. Define the foreign key in the child table
III. Create the child table
Options:

Explanation

To establish a valid foreign key relationship: First, the parent table containing the primary key must be created (I). Next, the child table must be created (III). Finally, the foreign key referencing the parent table is defined (II) (or defined inline during child creation). The correct sequence is I -> III -> II.

विदेशी कुंजी (Foreign Key) द्वारा दो तालिकाओं को जोड़ने का सही क्रम है:
1. पहले पैरेंट (मूल) तालिका का निर्माण करना (I)
2. फिर चाइल्ड तालिका का निर्माण करना (III)
3. इसके बाद चाइल्ड तालिका में विदेशी कुंजी को परिभाषित करना जो मूल तालिका को संदर्भित करे (II)।
अतः सही अनुक्रम B (I -> III -> II) है।

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1332📚Database Management Systems & SQLDatabase Security & SQL Injection

Which of the following mechanisms is most effective for preventing SQL injection attacks?

Explanation

Parameterized queries (prepared statements) are the most effective defense against SQL injection. They separate SQL code from user-supplied data, ensuring the database engine treats all input parameters strictly as data literals rather than executable SQL statements.

एसक्यूएल इंजेक्शन (SQL Injection) हमलों से बचाव के लिए सबसे प्रभावी तंत्र 'पैरामीटरयुक्त क्वेरी और तैयार विवरण' (Parameterized queries and prepared statements) का उपयोग करना है। यह उपयोगकर्ता इनपुट को निष्पादन योग्य कोड के रूप में व्याख्यायित होने से रोकता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1333📚C Programming & Data StructuresProblem Solving Approaches

Which of the following best describes the difference between top-down and bottom-up problem solving?

Explanation

Bottom-up design starts by constructing and testing individual low-level fundamental sub-modules first, then combines and integrates them into larger subsystems. In contrast, Top-down design decomposes the overall high-level system into progressively finer modules.

बॉटम-अप (तले से शीर्ष) दृष्टिकोण में पहले सबसे छोटी उप-समस्याओं या बुनियादी घटकों को हल/विकसित किया जाता है और फिर उन्हें एकीकृत करके बड़ी प्रणाली का निर्माण किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1334📚C++ & Object-Oriented ProgrammingOOP vs POP Paradigms

Which of the following best differentiates Object Oriented Programming from Procedure Oriented Programming?

Explanation

Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) fundamentally structures software around 'objects' that encapsulate both data attributes and the operational methods (behavior) that manipulate that data, whereas Procedure-Oriented Programming (POP) treats data and functions as separate entities with data moving freely between procedures.

ऑब्जेक्ट ओरिएंटेड प्रोग्रामिंग (OOP) और प्रोसीजर ओरिएंटेड प्रोग्रामिंग (POP) में मुख्य अंतर यह है कि OOP कार्यक्रमों को ऐसे 'ऑब्जेक्ट्स' के रूप में मॉडल करता है जो डेटा और उस पर कार्य करने वाले व्यवहार (फ़ंक्शन) दोनों को एक साथ एनकैप्सुलेट करते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1335📚Java Programming & JVM ArchitectureException Handling & Finally

What does the finally block do in exception handling?

Explanation

In Java exception handling, the 'finally' block is guaranteed to execute following try-catch blocks regardless of whether an exception was thrown, caught, or unhandled, ensuring critical resource cleanup.

जावा अपवाद प्रबंधन (Exception Handling) में 'finally' ब्लॉक हमेशा निष्पादित होता है, चाहे try ब्लॉक में कोई अपवाद उत्पन्न हुआ हो या नहीं। इसका उपयोग संसाधन मुक्त करने (cleanup) के लिए किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1336📚.NET Framework & VB.NET DevelopmentWindows Forms Controls

Which control is used to display multiple items, allowing multiple selections?

Explanation

In Windows Forms / VB.NET, the ListBox control displays a list of selectable items and supports multi-item selection by configuring the SelectionMode property (e.g., MultiSimple or MultiExtended). A ComboBox allows only single item selection.

विंडोज फॉर्म्स / VB.NET में 'ListBox' कंट्रोल का उपयोग वस्तुओं की सूची प्रदर्शित करने और एक साथ कई चयन (multiple selections) की अनुमति देने के लिए किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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1337📚.NET Framework & VB.NET DevelopmentCommon Language Runtime (CLR)

Which component of the .NET architecture handles security, memory management, and exception handling?

Explanation

The Common Language Runtime (CLR) is the core virtual machine engine of the .NET Framework responsible for application execution services including automatic memory management (garbage collection), Code Access Security, thread execution, and structured exception handling.

.NET आर्किटेक्चर का 'कॉमन लैंग्वेज रनटाइम' (CLR) मुख्य निष्पादन इंजन है जो सुरक्षा, मेमोरी प्रबंधन (गारबेज कलेक्शन), कोड सत्यापन और अपवाद प्रबंधन को संभालता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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1338📚.NET Framework & VB.NET DevelopmentVB.NET Function Overloading

Which of the following statements about Function Overloading in VB.NET is true?

Explanation

In VB.NET (using the Overloads modifier), overloaded procedures must have the exact same name but must differ fundamentally in their parameter list signature (the number, order, or data types of parameters). Differing solely by return type is invalid.

VB.NET में फंक्शन ओवरलोडिंग के संबंध में यह कथन सत्य है कि ओवरलोड किए गए फलनों का नाम समान होना चाहिए लेकिन उनके पैरामीटर की संख्या या डेटा प्रकार अलग-अलग होने चाहिए। केवल रिटर्न प्रकार के आधार पर ओवरलोडिंग मान्य नहीं है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1339📚Software Engineering, Testing & Quality AssuranceCapability Maturity Model (CMM)

The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is primarily used for:

Explanation

The Capability Maturity Model (CMM), formulated by the Software Engineering Institute (SEI) at Carnegie Mellon University, is a process improvement methodology used to evaluate and refine an organization's software development processes across five maturity levels.

क्षमता परिपक्वता मॉडल (CMM / Capability Maturity Model) का प्राथमिक उपयोग सॉफ्टवेयर विकास संगठनों में 'प्रक्रिया सुधार और गुणवत्ता आश्वासन' (Process improvement and quality assurance) के लिए किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1340📚Software Engineering, Testing & Quality AssuranceSoftware Verification & Testing

Static analysis in software quality assurance refers to:

Explanation

Static Code Analysis evaluates the software source code or compiled bytecode for defects, security vulnerabilities, syntax violations, and structural complexity without executing the program.

सॉफ्टवेयर गुणवत्ता आश्वासन में स्टैटिक एनालिसिस (Static Analysis) का अर्थ प्रोग्राम को निष्पादित (run) किए बिना उसके स्रोत कोड (source code) या संरचना का विश्लेषण करना है ताकि संभावित त्रुटियों और सुरक्षा कमियों का पता लगाया जा सके। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1341📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityNetwork Security & Cyber Attacks

What type of attack floods a server with requests to crash it?

Explanation

A Denial-of-Service (DoS) or Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack deliberately overwhelms a target server, service, or network with a massive flood of illegitimate traffic and requests, depleting resources and rendering it unavailable to legitimate users.

डिनायल-ऑफ-सर्विस (DoS / Denial-of-Service) हमला वह साइबर हमला है जिसमें किसी सर्वर को अत्यधिक अनुरोधों (requests) की बाढ़ से भर दिया जाता है ताकि वह क्रैश हो जाए और वैध उपयोगकर्ताओं के लिए अनुपलब्ध हो जाए। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1342📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityNetwork Troubleshooting & IP Addressing

Arrange the following types of IP addresses in the correct order of usage priority during troubleshooting:
I. Loopback Address
II. Public IP Address
III. Private IP Address
IV. Link-local Address (for IPv6)
Choose the correct options:

Explanation

In structured network troubleshooting (bottom-up / inside-out):
1. Ping the local loopback address (127.0.0.1) to confirm the local TCP/IP stack is functioning (I)
2. Verify the link-local interface address (IV)
3. Ping the private local subnet default gateway (III)
4. Ping an external public IP on the Internet to verify WAN routing (II).
Sequence: I -> IV -> III -> II.

नेटवर्क समस्या निवारण (Troubleshooting) के दौरान परीक्षण का सही प्राथमिकता क्रम है:
1. लूपबैक पता (127.0.0.1) पिंग करना (I)
2. लिंक-लोकल पता जांचना (IV)
3. स्थानीय सबनेट का प्राइवेट आईपी पता / गेटवे जांचना (III)
4. बाहरी सार्वजनिक (Public) आईपी पता पिंग करना (II)।
अतः सही अनुक्रम A (I -> IV -> III -> II) है।

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1343📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityNetwork Switching Concepts

About network switching concepts, which statements are TRUE?
I. Message switching sends the entire message to the destination before forwarding.
II. Circuit switching is inefficient for bursty data traffic but guarantees bandwidth.
III. Packet switching allows multiple sessions to share the same physical link simultaneously.
IV. Logical addressing is only used in circuit switching networks.
Options:

Explanation

Statements I, II, and III are correct. Circuit switching establishes a dedicated channel guaranteeing bandwidth but wastes capacity during idle bursty traffic. Packet switching enables statistical multiplexing where packets from multiple sessions dynamically share transmission links. Statement IV is false because logical IP addressing is primarily used in packet-switched networks.

कथन I, II और III सत्य हैं:
- सर्किट स्विचिंग समर्पित बैंडविड्थ की गारंटी देता है लेकिन बर्स्टी डेटा के लिए अक्षम है।
- पैकेट स्विचिंग एक ही भौतिक लिंक पर कई सत्रों को साझा करने की अनुमति देता है।
कथन IV असत्य है क्योंकि लॉजिकल एड्रेसिंग पैकेट स्विचिंग में प्रयुक्त होती है। अतः सही विकल्प A (I, II, and III only) है।

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1344📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecuritySSL/TLS & Cryptographic Protocols

Which of the following protocols uses asymmetric cryptography to exchange symmetric keys for data encryption?

Explanation

SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer / Transport Layer Security) uses asymmetric public-key cryptography during the handshake phase to authenticate servers and securely exchange or derive a shared symmetric session key (e.g., AES) used for bulk data encryption.

SSL/TLS प्रोटोकॉल हैंडशेक के दौरान असममित क्रिप्टोग्राफी (जैसे RSA) का उपयोग करके प्रमाणीकरण करता है और डेटा एन्क्रिप्शन के लिए सममित सत्र कुंजी (Symmetric key) का सुरक्षित आदान-प्रदान करता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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1345📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityInformation Security & Web Basics

Match the items in Column A with their correct descriptions in Column B:
Column - A
1. Hypermedia
2. Internet Explorer
3. Social Engineering
4. Digital Signature
5. Encryption
Column - B
i. Hypertext plus multimedia elements
ii. Web browser
iii. Attacking users by manipulating trust
iv. Ensures message authenticity and integrity
v. Process of converting data to unreadable form
Options:

Explanation

Direct matches:
- 1. Hypermedia -> i (Hypertext plus multimedia elements)
- 2. Internet Explorer -> ii (Web browser)
- 3. Social Engineering -> iii (Attacking users by manipulating psychological trust)
- 4. Digital Signature -> iv (Ensures message authenticity, integrity, and non-repudiation)
- 5. Encryption -> v (Process of converting plaintext into unreadable ciphertext).
Matches: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv, 5-v.

सही सुमेलन:
- 1. हाइपरमीडिया = हाइपरटेक्स्ट तथा मल्टीमीडिया तत्व (i)
- 2. इंटरनेट एक्सप्लोरर = वेब ब्राउज़र (ii)
- 3. सोशल इंजीनियरिंग = विश्वास का दुरुपयोग करके उपयोगकर्ताओं पर हमला करना (iii)
- 4. डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर = संदेश की प्रामाणिकता और अखंडता सुनिश्चित करता है (iv)
- 5. एन्क्रिप्शन = डेटा को अपठनीय रूप में बदलने की प्रक्रिया (v)।
अतः सही कूट A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv, 5-v) है।

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1346📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityWeb Security & Authentication

What does authentication in web security refer to?

Explanation

Authentication is the security verification process that validates the identity of a user, device, or system before granting access to protected system resources. (Assigning permissions is authorization).

वेब सुरक्षा में प्रमाणीकरण (Authentication) का अर्थ संरक्षित संसाधनों तक पहुँच की अनुमति देने से पहले उपयोगकर्ता की वास्तविक पहचान की पुष्टि और सत्यापन करना है। (अनुमतियाँ देना ऑथराइजेशन कहलाता है)। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1347📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityHTTP Status Codes

Which HTTP response status code indicates a redirection to another resource?

Explanation

HTTP status code 301 ('Moved Permanently') is the standard 3xx Redirection response code indicating that the requested URL resource has been permanently assigned a new URI. (200 is OK, 403 is Forbidden, 500 is Internal Server Error).

एचटीटीपी (HTTP) स्थिति कोड '301' (Moved Permanently) पुनर्निर्देशन (Redirection) कोड है जो यह दर्शाता है कि अनुरोधित संसाधन को स्थायी रूप से नए यूआरएल पर स्थानांतरित कर दिया गया है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1348📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecuritySSL/TLS & Bulk Data Encryption

What kind of encryption is primarily used in SSL for data transmission after secure handshake?

Explanation

In SSL/TLS, asymmetric cryptography is used only during the initial handshake for authentication and session key exchange. Once established, all subsequent bulk data transmission is encrypted using fast, efficient Symmetric Encryption (such as AES-GCM).

एसएसएल/टीएलएस (SSL/TLS) में सुरक्षित हैंडशेक पूरा होने के बाद वास्तविक डेटा संचरण के लिए तेज़ और कुशल 'सममित एन्क्रिप्शन' (Symmetric encryption, जैसे AES) का मुख्य रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1349📚History of Photography & Classical Chemical ProcessesPhotographic Emulsions & Chemical Development

Which chemical is used in developing a photo from a photographic film?

Explanation

Silver bromide (AgBr), along with other silver halides, is the primary light-sensitive chemical suspended in the gelatin emulsion of photographic film. During development, exposed silver bromide grains are chemically reduced into dark metallic silver particles to form the image.

फोटोग्राफिक फिल्म से फोटो तैयार करने में प्रकाश-संवेदनशील सिल्वर ब्रोमाइड (Silver bromide - AgBr) मुख्य घटक होता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1350📚History of Photography & Classical Chemical ProcessesPhotographic Movements & Pioneers

The "f64 Group," known for promoting straight photography and sharp focus, was founded in which decade?

Explanation

Group f/64 was founded in 1932 (the 1930s) in San Francisco by legendary photographers including Ansel Adams, Edward Weston, Imogen Cunningham, and Willard Van Dyke to promote 'straight photography' characterized by sharp focus, maximum depth of field, and unmanipulated imagery.

ग्रुप f/64 की स्थापना 1932 (1930 के दशक) में अनसेल एडम्स और एडवर्ड वेस्टन जैसे प्रसिद्ध फोटोग्राफरों द्वारा तीक्ष्ण फोकस और शुद्ध 'स्ट्रेट फोटोग्राफी' को बढ़ावा देने के लिए की गई थी। सही विकल्प B है।

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1351📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionComputer Fundamentals for Imaging

What is the primary function of an operating system?

Explanation

An operating system (OS) is the fundamental system software that manages a computer's hardware resources (CPU, memory, disk, peripheral devices) and provides common services and execution environments for application software.

ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम (OS) का प्राथमिक कार्य कंप्यूटर के सभी हार्डवेयर और सॉफ्टवेयर संसाधनों का प्रबंधन और नियंत्रण करना है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1352📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyDSLR Mechanical Assemblies

What does the term "mirror lock-up" refer to in DSLR cameras?

Explanation

Mirror lock-up (MLU) is a DSLR feature that swings the reflex mirror up and locks it prior to opening the shutter curtains. This eliminates 'mirror slap' (mechanical vibrations) that could otherwise blur images during long exposures, telephoto shooting, or high-magnification macro work.

डीएसएलआर में 'मिरर लॉक-अप' वह प्रणाली है जो शटर खुलने से पहले ही दर्पण को ऊपर उठाकर लॉक कर देती है ताकि लंबे एक्सपोजर या मैक्रो फोटोग्राफी के दौरान यांत्रिक कंपन (Vibrations) से फोटो धुंधली न हो। सही विकल्प B है।

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1353📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyLens Types & Optical Characteristics

Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column - I: types of lenses
1. Prime Lens
2. Zoom Lens
3. Wide-Angle Lens
4. Telephoto Lens
5. Macro Lens
Column - II: Description
i. Designed for close-up photography, allowing for high detail of small subjects.
ii. Has a focal length typically less than 35mm, ideal for capturing expansive scenes.
iii. Offers a variable focal length, enabling the photographer to zoom in and out.
iv. Provides a fixed focal length, often resulting in sharper images and better low-light performance.
v. Suitable for photographing distant subjects, with a focal length greater than 70mm.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Correct lens classifications:
- 1. Prime Lens: Fixed focal length, superior sharpness & wide maximum aperture -> (iv)
- 2. Zoom Lens: Variable focal length for zooming in/out -> (iii)
- 3. Wide-Angle Lens: Focal length < 35mm, ideal for broad landscapes -> (ii)
- 4. Telephoto Lens: Focal length > 70mm for distant subjects -> (v)
- 5. Macro Lens: Designed for high-magnification close-up capture of tiny subjects -> (i).
Hence, 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-v, 5-i. Choice B.

लेंसों का सही मिलान:
1. प्राइम लेंस -> निश्चित फोकल लेंथ, अधिक तीक्ष्णता (iv)
2. ज़ूम लेंस -> परिवर्ती फोकल लेंथ (iii)
3. वाइड-एंगल लेंस -> 35mm से कम, विस्तृत दृश्यों के लिए (ii)
4. टेलीफोटो लेंस -> 70mm से अधिक, दूर की वस्तुओं के लिए (v)
5. मैक्रो लेंस -> अत्यधिक नज़दीकी सूक्ष्म विवरण के लिए (i)।
अतः सही कूट B है।

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1354📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesPhotography Ethics & Environmental Stewardship

What is an important ethical consideration when practicing environmental photography?

Explanation

Ethical guidelines for wildlife and environmental photography mandate minimizing human impact: never baiting, stressing, or displacing animals, respecting fragile habitats, not littering, and adhering strictly to conservation ethics over securing a photograph.

पर्यावरण और वन्यजीव फोटोग्राफी में सबसे महत्वपूर्ण नैतिक पहलू यह है कि प्राकृतिक पर्यावरण का संरक्षण किया जाए और वन्यजीवों के प्राकृतिक जीवन में कोई बाधा न डाली जाए। सही विकल्प D है।

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1355📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologySensors & Signal-to-Noise Ratio

Does sensor size affect high ISO performance?

Explanation

Yes, sensor size strongly influences high ISO performance. Larger sensors (like full frame vs micro four thirds) have larger individual photosites (pixel pitch) at equivalent resolutions, capturing more photons and yielding a higher signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) with less visible digital noise.

हाँ, बड़ा सेंसर (जैसे फुल फ्रेम) उच्च ISO पर बेहतर प्रदर्शन करता है क्योंकि इसके बड़े पिक्सेल अधिक प्रकाश ग्रहण करते हैं जिससे नॉइज़ कम उत्पन्न होता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1356📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionComputer Fundamentals for Imaging

What is the primary function of an operating system?

Explanation

The core role of any computer operating system (such as Windows, macOS, or Linux) is managing hardware devices (CPU, RAM, storage, input/output peripherals) and supervising program execution and software resources.

ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम का प्राथमिक कार्य कंप्यूटर हार्डवेयर और सॉफ्टवेयर संसाधनों का प्रबंधन करना है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1357📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesPhotographic Genres & Applications

Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column - I
1) Portrait Photography
2) Landscape Photography
3) Street Photography
4) Wildlife Photography
5) Macro Photography
Column - II
i) Captures the beauty of nature, often including vast scenes and natural elements.
ii) Focuses on capturing candid moments in public spaces, often highlighting everyday life.
iii) Involves taking close-up photographs of small subjects, revealing intricate details.
iv) Aims to depict animals in their natural habitats, often requiring patience and skill.
v) Centers on capturing the personality and mood of individuals or groups, typically involving posed shots.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Matching photographic genres with their descriptions:
- 1) Portrait: Centers on capturing personality/mood of people -> (v)
- 2) Landscape: Captures vast natural scenes -> (i)
- 3) Street: Candid moments in public spaces -> (ii)
- 4) Wildlife: Animals in natural habitats -> (iv)
- 5) Macro: Extreme close-up of tiny subjects -> (iii).
Hence, 1-v, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-iii. Choice D.

फोटोग्राफी की शैलियों का सही मिलान:
1) पोर्ट्रेट फोटोग्राफी -> व्यक्तियों का व्यक्तित्व और मनोदशा (v)
2) लैंडस्केप फोटोग्राफी -> प्रकृति के विशाल दृश्य (i)
3) स्ट्रीट फोटोग्राफी -> सार्वजनिक स्थानों पर दैनिक जीवन के क्षण (ii)
4) वाइल्डलाइफ फोटोग्राफी -> प्राकृतिक आवास में वन्यजीव (iv)
5) मैक्रो फोटोग्राफी -> छोटी वस्तुओं के नज़दीकी सूक्ष्म विवरण (iii)।
अतः सही कूट D है।

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1358📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesFocus Stacking & Macro Techniques

What does "focus stacking" involve in digital photography?

Explanation

Focus stacking is the computational technique of capturing a sequence of photos across progressive focus distances and digitally fusing their sharpest segments into a single composite photograph with deep, edge-to-edge depth of field.

फोकस स्टैकिंग डिजिटल फोटोग्राफी में अलग-अलग फोकल दूरियों पर ली गई कई छवियों को जोड़कर फील्ड की गहराई (Depth of Field) को बढ़ाने की तकनीक है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1359📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionColor Spaces & Color Grading

What does the term "HSL" stand for in photo editing software?

Explanation

In color theory and digital imaging software (like Lightroom and Photoshop), HSL stands for Hue (the pure color pigment), Saturation (the purity or vividness of the color), and Lightness (the relative brightness from black to white).

फोटो संपादन सॉफ्टवेयर में HSL का अर्थ 'ह्यू, सैचुरेशन, लाइटनेस' (Hue, Saturation, Lightness) होता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1360📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyLenses & Candid Photography

Which type of lens is often preferred for candid photography due to its versatility and ability to capture subjects from a distance?

Explanation

Telephoto lenses (such as a 70-200mm) are preferred for candid street, documentary, and event photography because they allow the photographer to maintain distance from subjects, capturing natural, unposed expressions without intruding into their personal space.

कैंडिड फोटोग्राफी में दूर से विषयों के स्वाभाविक और बिना बनावटी हाव-भाव कैद करने के लिए टेलीफोटो लेंस (Telephoto lens) को प्राथमिकता दी जाती है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1361📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyImage Stabilization Technologies

Which component of a camera is responsible for reducing vibrations and stabilizing images during handheld shooting?

Explanation

An Optical Image Stabilization (OIS) system (implemented either through floating lens elements or in-body sensor-shift IBIS) detects angular vibrations via gyro-sensors and micro-shifts counter-compensating elements to prevent camera shake blur during handheld shooting at slow shutter speeds.

हाथ से फोटो खींचते समय कंपन को कम करने और धुंधलेपन को रोकने के लिए 'ऑप्टिकल इमेज स्टेबलाइजेशन सिस्टम' (OIS / IBIS) जिम्मेदार होता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1362📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyViewfinders & Eyepiece Optics

What is the main function of a "diopter adjustment" on a camera?

Explanation

The diopter adjustment wheel (located beside the viewfinder eyepiece) customizes the optical focus of the viewfinder optics to match the photographer's individual eyesight/prescription, ensuring viewfinder displays and focus points appear razor sharp without eyeglasses.

कैमरे के व्यूफाइंडर के पास स्थित 'डायोप्टर एडजस्टमेंट' का मुख्य कार्य फोटोग्राफर की व्यक्तिगत आंखों की दृष्टि/नंबर के अनुसार व्यूफाइंडर को स्पष्ट और फोकस में करना है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1363📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologySensors & Low-Light Sensitivity

Which sensor size is generally considered to provide better low-light performance and dynamic range in digital cameras?

Explanation

Full Frame sensors (36x24mm) offer the largest photosite area among standard commercial digital camera systems, capturing the maximum amount of light energy to produce higher signal-to-noise ratio, superior low-light sensitivity, and the widest dynamic range.

दिए गए विकल्पों में 'फुल फ्रेम' (Full Frame) सेंसर अपने बड़े भौतिक आकार के कारण कम रोशनी में सबसे बेहतरीन प्रदर्शन और व्यापक डायनामिक रेंज प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1364📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesExposure Bracketing & High Dynamic Range

Which camera feature is particularly useful for ensuring correct exposure in high-contrast scenes?

Explanation

Auto Exposure Bracketing (AEB) captures multiple consecutive shots of the same scene at varying exposures (standard, underexposed for highlights, overexposed for shadows). This ensures at least one perfect exposure and provides the raw source images needed to blend into an HDR photograph.

अत्यधिक कंट्रास्ट वाले दृश्यों में सटीक एक्सपोजर सुनिश्चित करने के लिए 'ब्रैकेटिंग' (Bracketing / AEB) सुविधा सबसे उपयोगी होती है, जो अलग-अलग एक्सपोजर पर तस्वीरें लेती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1365📚History of Photography & Classical Chemical ProcessesPhotographic History & Movements

Which movement in photography is associated with the use of photography as an art form, challenging the notion of photography as merely a documentary tool?

Explanation

Pictorialism was an international photographic movement of the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Pictorialists deliberately used soft focus, textured papers, and chemical manipulations to emulate the expressive brushwork of fine art paintings, firmly asserting photography's place as a fine art rather than a simple mechanical record.

19वीं सदी के अंत का 'पिक्टोरियलिज्म' (Pictorialism) आंदोलन फोटोग्राफी को केवल दस्तावेजी उपकरण मानने की धारणा को चुनौती देकर इसे एक ललित कला (Art form) के रूप में स्थापित करने से जुड़ा है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1366📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyPanoramic Photography & Swing-Lens Cameras

Which feature distinguishes a "swing-lens" panoramic camera from other types of cameras?

Explanation

A swing-lens panoramic camera features an internal pivoting optical barrel that sweeps across an arc during the exposure, projecting light through a narrow slit onto film wrapped along a matching curved focal plane to capture a seamless wide field of view without wide-angle corner distortion.

स्विंग-लेंस पैनोरमिक कैमरे की पहचान यह है कि यह एक्सपोजर के दौरान लेंस को घुमाकर (Rotating the lens during exposure) एक विस्तृत पैनोरमा दृश्य को स्लिट के माध्यम से रिकॉर्ड करता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1367📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyAutofocus Modes & Action Photography

Which autofocus mode would be most suitable for capturing fast-moving subjects in sports photography?

Explanation

Continuous Autofocus (AF-C or AI Servo) is essential for sports and action photography: the camera's autofocus computer uses predictive tracking algorithms to continuously adjust focus distance in real time as the athlete or vehicle speeds across the frame.

खेल (Sports) फोटोग्राफी में तेजी से गतिशील एथलीटों या गाड़ियों की स्पष्ट तस्वीरें लेने के लिए 'कंटीन्यूअस ऑटोफोकस' (Continuous AF / AF-C) सबसे उपयुक्त मोड है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1368📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KScience & Technology Current Affairs

Which company is developing India's first 'Drone City' in Andhra Pradesh?

Explanation

Garuda Aerospace partnered with the Andhra Pradesh government to establish India's first dedicated 'Drone City' and manufacturing hub in Andhra Pradesh to foster indigenous UAV technology.

ड्रोन स्टार्टअप 'गरुड़ एयरोस्पेस' (Garuda Aerospace) आंध्र प्रदेश में भारत के पहले 'ड्रोन सिटी' और विनिर्माण केंद्र का विकास कर रहा है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

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1369📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHistory of Jammu & Kashmir

Who was the Mughal emperor during the annexation of Kashmir to the Mughal Empire?

Explanation

Mughal Emperor Akbar annexed Kashmir to the Mughal Empire in 1586 AD after his forces under Qasim Khan and Raja Bhagwant Das defeated the last Chak sultan, Yaqub Shah Chak.

मुगल साम्राज्य में कश्मीर के विलय (1586 ई.) के समय मुगल सम्राट 'अकबर' (Akbar) था। अकबर की सेना ने अंतिम चक सुल्तान याकूब शाह चक को पराजित कर कश्मीर को मुगल साम्राज्य का हिस्सा बनाया था। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1370📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KArt & Architecture of India

The famous Dilwara temples of Mount Abu are a sacred pilgrimage place for whom?

Explanation

The Dilwara Temples located on Mount Abu in Rajasthan are celebrated worldwide for their exquisite white marble carvings and are holy pilgrimage shrines dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras, built between the 11th and 13th centuries.

माउंट आबू (राजस्थान) के प्रसिद्ध 'दिलवाड़ा मंदिर' जैन धर्म (Jains) के अत्यंत पवित्र तीर्थ स्थल हैं। ये मंदिर अपनी उत्कृष्ट संगमरमर की नक्काशी के लिए विश्व प्रसिद्ध हैं। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1371📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KSports Current Affairs

Which team won the 90th edition of the Ranji Trophy?

Explanation

Mumbai cricket team won the historic 90th edition of the Ranji Trophy (2023-24 season) by defeating Vidarbha by 169 runs in the final at Wankhede Stadium, securing their record-extending 42nd Ranji title.

रणजी ट्रॉफी के 90वें संस्करण (2023-24) का खिताब 'मुंबई' की टीम ने फाइनल में विदर्भ को हराकर जीता। यह मुंबई का रिकॉर्ड 42वां रणजी ट्रॉफी खिताब था। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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1372📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KDefense & Security Affairs

What is the name of the military operation launched by India targeting terrorist infrastructure in Pakistan and PoK recently?

Explanation

India's counter-terrorism response operations along the Line of Control are coded under specific operational directives such as Operation Sindoor / Sarp Vinash / Snow Leopard.

आतंकवाद विरोधी अभियानों के अंतर्गत सुरक्षा बलों द्वारा चलाए गए विशिष्ट सैन्य अभियान का नाम 'ऑपरेशन सिंदूर' (Operation Sindoor) है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1373📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KTunnels & Infrastructure in J&K

Which of the following is the under construction tunnel that will provide all-weather connectivity between Srinagar valley and Leh?

Explanation

The 14.15-kilometer-long Zojila Tunnel, excavated under the treacherous Zojila Pass on the Srinagar-Leh National Highway (NH-1), is designed to provide uninterrupted all-weather road connectivity between the Kashmir Valley and Ladakh.

श्रीनगर घाटी और लेह (लद्दाख) के बीच सभी मौसमों में निर्बाध सड़क संपर्क प्रदान करने के लिए निर्माणाधीन 14.15 किमी लंबी रणनीतिक सुरंग 'ज़ोजिला सुरंग' (Zojila tunnel) है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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1374📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHydroelectric Projects of J&K

Which of the following power project in J & K is located on Suru river which is also a tributary of the river indus?

Explanation

The 44 MW Chutak Hydroelectric Project is a run-of-the-river power generation facility constructed on the Suru River (a primary tributary of the Indus River) in Kargil district.

सिंधु नदी की सहायक 'सुरु नदी' पर स्थित जम्मू-कश्मीर/लद्दाख का प्रमुख जलविद्युत प्रोजेक्ट 'चुटक जलविद्युत परियोजना' (Chutak Hydroelectric power plant, 44 MW) है जो कारगिल में स्थित है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1375📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KTourism & Culture of J&K

A traditional Gondola type light weight rowing boat ride which is famous on the pristine Dal Lake in Kashmir is referred to as:

Explanation

The 'Shikara' is the iconic, elegant wooden rowing boat unique to the pristine Dal Lake and Nigeen Lake in Srinagar, Kashmir, renowned as the Gondola of Kashmir.

कश्मीर की प्रसिद्ध डल झील और नगीन झील पर पर्यटकों को आकर्षित करने वाली पारंपरिक गोंडोला जैसी हल्की लकड़ी की नाव की सवारी को 'शिकारा सवारी' (Shikara ride) कहा जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1376📚Basic Road Rules, Driving Methods & Speed LimitsVehicle Documentation Fundamentals

What does abbreviation "R.C." of a vehicle stands for

Explanation

The abbreviation 'R.C.' stands for Registration Certificate. Issued under Section 39 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 by the Regional Transport Authority, it is the official document confirming that a motor vehicle is duly registered with the Government.

वाहन के संदर्भ में 'R.C.' का पूर्ण रूप 'रजिस्ट्रेशन सर्टिफिकेट' (Registration Certificate - पंजीकरण प्रमाणपत्र) होता है, जो मोटर वाहन अधिनियम के तहत आरटीओ द्वारा जारी किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1377📚Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsUncontrolled Intersection Protocol

Which among the following is correct action, while driver approach an intersection that does not have traffic light or signs and traffic police,

Explanation

Under standard priority rules at an uncontrolled intersection in India (Rules of the Road Regulations), drivers must reduce speed, yield right of way to traffic approaching from their right side, and proceed only after ensuring the intersection is clear and giving necessary turn signals.

बिना ट्रैफिक लाइट, संकेत या पुलिस वाले अनियंत्रित चौराहे (Uncontrolled intersection) पर पहुँचते समय चालक को गति धीमी करनी चाहिए, अपनी दाईं ओर से आने वाले वाहनों को रास्ता देना चाहिए और आवश्यक संकेत देकर आगे बढ़ना चाहिए। सही विकल्प C है।

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1378📚Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsTraffic Signal Operations & Disadvantages

Among the following options the disadvantages of traffic signals in a populated city is

Explanation

While automated traffic signals eliminate right-angle and broadside collisions at urban intersections, their primary operational drawback is an increase in rear-end collisions (due to abrupt deceleration during amber/red transitions) and increased delay on minor approaches.

यातायात सिग्नलों का मुख्य नुकसान यह है कि अचानक ब्रेक लगने के कारण 'पीछे से होने वाली टक्करों (Rear-end collisions) की संख्या और स्टॉपेज विलंब बढ़ जाता है'। सही विकल्प C है।

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1379📚Traffic Signage & Road MarkingsGradient Warning Signs

What does the following symbol mean? [Equilateral triangular sign with red border depicting a vehicle driving down a steep incline]

Explanation

A cautionary equilateral triangular sign featuring a vehicle sloping downwards along an inclined gradient warns drivers of an upcoming 'Steep descent' (steep downhill grade), advising lower gear selection.

लाल त्रिकोणीय चेतावनी संकेत में ढलान पर नीचे की ओर जाती कार 'तीव्र ढलान' (Steep descent) की चेतावनी देती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1380📚Traffic Signage & Road MarkingsDe-restriction Signs

What does the following symbol mean? [White circular sign with a thick black diagonal slash across it]

Explanation

A circular sign featuring a white field intersected by a diagonal black band signifies 'Restriction ends', indicating that all previously posted regulatory speed and overtaking restrictions on the highway have ceased.

सफ़ेद वृत्ताकार बोर्ड पर तिरछी काली पट्टी का संकेत 'प्रतिबंध समाप्ति' (Restriction ends) को दर्शाता है, अर्थात पूर्व में लगाए गए गति या ओवरटेकिंग प्रतिबंध अब समाप्त हो चुके हैं। सही विकल्प D है।

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1381📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceWound Dressing & Hemostasis

Dry bandage is commonly use to

Explanation

Applying a firm, sterile dry pressure bandage over an open bleeding wound is the fundamental first-aid procedure to promote clotting and achieve hemostasis ('Stop blood flow').

सूखी पट्टी (Dry bandage) का मुख्य उपयोग घाव पर दबाव बनाकर 'रक्तस्राव रोकने' (Stop blood flow) के लिए किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1382📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceVehicle Safety Physics & Inertia

Which of the following principles is appropriate based on which seat belt of a car works?

Explanation

Seat belts function based on Newton's First Law of Motion (Law of Inertia). When a moving car decelerates rapidly during a collision, occupants continue moving forward at the car's pre-crash velocity due to inertia; the locked seat belt provides the opposing external restraining force.

कार की सीट बेल्ट न्यूटन के गति के प्रथम नियम यानी 'जड़त्व' (Inertia) के सिद्धांत पर कार्य करती है, जो अचानक ब्रेक या टक्कर के समय यात्री को आगे फेंकने से रोकती है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1383📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceSeat Belt Biomechanics & Correct Fitting

The lap belt portion of a car passenger seatbelt should be rest securely

Explanation

To provide optimal restraint and prevent fatal internal soft-tissue hemorrhage or mesenteric tears during a crash, the lap belt must fit low and snug across the rigid pelvic bones / hips, never across the compressible abdomen/stomach.

सीट बेल्ट का निचला लैप भाग हमेशा जांघों/कूल्हों की हड्डियों (Across the passenger hips) के ऊपर कसकर बंधा होना चाहिए, पेट पर नहीं। सही विकल्प B है।

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1384📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceSeatbelt Efficacy & Crash Trauma Analysis

Consider the following statements,
Statement-1: Passengers in vehicles are less likely to be injured in a crash if they are wearing seatbelts
Statement-2: The nature of injuries in motor vehicle accidents is not related to the wearing of seatbelts
Which of the following combinations is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is TRUE: Wearing a three-point seat belt reduces the risk of fatal injury by 45-50% and moderate-to-critical injury by 50%. Statement 2 is FALSE: The nature, location, and severity of injuries are fundamentally influenced by seat belt usage; unrestrained occupants suffer severe head/face/chest impacts with steering wheels and windshields, or complete ejection.

कथन 1 सही है क्योंकि सीट बेल्ट पहनने से चोट का जोखिम काफी कम हो जाता है। कथन 2 गलत है क्योंकि दुर्घटना में लगने वाली चोटों की प्रकृति सीधे तौर पर सीट बेल्ट पहनने से संबंधित होती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1385📚Difficult Driving Conditions & Vehicle DynamicsNight Driving & Glare Recovery

The visibility difficulty that the driver faces during night driving is due to the

Explanation

During night driving, the primary hazard affecting vision is 'Glare vision' caused by un-dipped high beam headlights of oncoming vehicles, which constricts the driver's pupils and induces temporary disability glare.

रात में वाहन चलाते समय चालक को होने वाली दृष्टि संबंधी मुख्य कठिनाई सामने से आने वाले वाहनों की तेज हेडलाइट से उत्पन्न 'चकाचौंध' (Glare vision) के कारण होती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1386📚Difficult Driving Conditions & Vehicle DynamicsOptical Scattering & Selective Fog Penetration

Based on their wavelength, which of the following colour of the light is most effective for visibly, during fog

Explanation

According to Rayleigh scattering (

I \propto rac{1}{\\lambda^4}

), shorter wavelengths (violet and blue) scatter intensely in suspended fog droplets, creating a blinding glare. Yellow light has a significantly longer wavelength (~580 nm), which reduces optical backscatter and provides superior contrast penetration through fog.

प्रकाश के प्रकीर्णन नियम के अनुसार, लंबी तरंगदैर्ध्य वाला प्रकाश कोहरे में कम बिखरता है। दिए गए विकल्पों में 'पीले रंग' (Yellow) की तरंगदैर्ध्य अधिक होने के कारण यह कोहरे में सर्वाधिक प्रभावी दृश्यता प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1387📚Difficult Driving Conditions & Vehicle DynamicsSkid Mechanics & Wheel Lockup

If the distance travel along the road is more than the movement of wheel circumference, while applying sudden break in wet road may cause of

Explanation

In automotive engineering: 'Skidding' occurs when braking locks the wheels or reduces their rotational movement such that the linear distance travelled by the vehicle exceeds the rotational distance of the wheel circumference (

d > 2\pi r \cdot n

). Conversely, 'slip' occurs during acceleration when the wheels spin faster than road progress.

जब अचानक ब्रेक लगाने पर सड़क पर तय की गई दूरी पहिये की परिधि के घूर्णन से अधिक हो जाती है, तो पहिये लॉक होकर फिसलने लगते हैं; इस स्थिति को 'स्किडिंग' (Skidding) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1388📚Provisions of Motor Vehicles Act & RulesRegistration Plate Color Code Schemes

As per Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989, A vehicular car bearing black number plate with yellow lettering are

Explanation

Under Rule 50 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989, a registration plate featuring yellow alphanumeric lettering on a black background was designated for commercial passenger transport vehicles operated as self-drive rental cars (rent-a-cab scheme).

केंद्रीय मोटर वाहन नियम 1989 के अनुसार, काले बैकग्राउंड पर पीले अक्षरों वाली नंबर प्लेट 'स्वयं चलाने हेतु किराए पर उपलब्ध व्यावसायिक वाहनों' (Commercial vehicles available on rent for self-driving) के लिए निर्धारित थी। सही विकल्प B है।

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1389📚Provisions of Motor Vehicles Act & RulesAppellate Jurisdiction in Accident Claims

As per motor vehicle Act 1988, section 173, a person aggrieved or unhappy by an award of the Tribunal can prefer an appeal to the

Explanation

Section 173(1) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 explicitly provides: 'Subject to the provisions of sub-section (2), any person aggrieved by an award of a Claims Tribunal may, within ninety days from the date of the award, prefer an appeal to the High Court.'

मोटर वाहन अधिनियम 1988 की धारा 173 के तहत, मोटर दुर्घटना दावा अधिकरण (MACT) के फैसले से असंतुष्ट व्यक्ति 'उच्च न्यायालय' (High court) में अपील दायर कर सकता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1390📚Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsAtmospheric Chemistry of Acid Precipitation

Which of the following pollutants are responsible for acid rain formation?

Explanation

Acid rain forms when Sulphur dioxide (

SO_2

) and Nitrogen dioxide (

NO_2

) emitted from engine combustion and industrial processes react with atmospheric moisture, oxygen, and oxidants to form dilute sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

) and nitric acid (

HNO_3

).

अम्लीय वर्षा (Acid rain) के निर्माण के लिए मुख्य रूप से 'नाइट्रोजन डाइऑक्साइड' (

NO_2

) और 'सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड' (

SO_2

) उत्तरदायी होते हैं, जो वायुमंडल में जलवाष्प के साथ मिलकर सल्फ्यूरिक और नाइट्रिक अम्ल बनाते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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1391📚Driving Documents, Licensing, Insurance & OffencesHeavy Vehicle Exterior Noise Limits

As per motor vehicle Act 1988, maximum permissible noise levels of a passenger or commercial vehicles with GVW above 12000 kgs, is

Explanation

Under Rule 120 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989 (prescribing maximum drive-by exterior noise levels for motor vehicles at the manufacturing stage), commercial goods and passenger vehicles with a Gross Vehicle Weight (GVW) exceeding 12,000 kg are permitted a maximum sound level of 91 dB(A).

CMVR नियम 120 के तहत, 12,000 किग्रा से अधिक सकल वाहन भार (GVW) वाले भारी वाणिज्यिक वाहनों के लिए अधिकतम अनुमेय ध्वनि स्तर '91 dB(A)' निर्धारित है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1392📚Driving Documents, Licensing, Insurance & OffencesNational Jurisdiction of Driving Licences

A learner's license is effective and valid for driving a vehicle

Explanation

Section 13 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 (Extent of effectiveness of licences, to drive motor vehicles) explicitly mandates that any learner's licence or driving licence issued under this Act shall be effective throughout India.

मोटर वाहन अधिनियम 1988 की धारा 13 के अनुसार, भारत में जारी किया गया कोई भी लर्नर लाइसेंस या ड्राइविंग लाइसेंस 'संपूर्ण भारत में' (Throughout India) प्रभावी और मान्य होता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1393📚Provisions of Motor Vehicles Act & RulesHit-and-Run Statutory Jurisprudence

"Hit and Run motor accident" is defined under which section of motor vehicle Act 1988?

Explanation

Section 161(1)(b) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 explicitly defines a 'hit and run motor accident' as an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle or motor vehicles the identity whereof cannot be ascertained in spite of reasonable efforts, providing for statutory compensation from the Solatium Scheme.

मोटर वाहन अधिनियम 1988 की धारा 161 में 'हिट एंड रन मोटर दुर्घटना' (Hit and Run motor accident) को परिभाषित किया गया है और इसके पीड़ितों हेतु मुआवज़े का प्रावधान है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1394📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsTire Tribology & Friction Mechanics

The force responsible for the wearing out of the car tires is

Explanation

Tyre tread abrasion is caused by Frictional force (dry sliding and rolling friction) acting at the tire-pavement contact patch during acceleration, steering maneuvers, and braking deceleration, which mechanically shears microscopic rubber particles over time.

कार के टायरों के घिसने के लिए मुख्य रूप से टायर और सड़क के बीच लगने वाला 'घर्षण बल' (Frictional force) उत्तरदायी होता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1395📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsAnti-lock Braking System (ABS) Operation

Which of the following option correctly represent the major function of an Anti-lock Braking System (ABS) of a car

Explanation

The primary safety function of an Anti-lock Braking System (ABS) is to modulate hydraulic brake line pressure during panic stops to prevent the wheels from locking up. By keeping the wheels rotating, ABS maintains tractive steering force and lateral tyre grip, allowing the driver to steer around obstacles while braking.

एंटी-लॉक ब्रेकिंग सिस्टम (ABS) का प्राथमिक कार्य आपातकालीन ब्रेक लगाने पर पहियों को लॉक होने से बचाना और पहियों का सड़क से 'कर्षण बल बनाए रखना' (To maintain tractive force) है, जिससे स्टीयरिंग नियंत्रण बना रहता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1396📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsPreventive Maintenance Protocols

Which of the following is the first stage of preventive maintenance of the vehicle

Explanation

Preventive maintenance follows a structured hierarchy: the fundamental and first stage is daily and periodic 'Inspection and checking' (visual walk-around, tyre tread/pressure checks, engine oil and coolant level monitoring, belt tension, and brake fluid inspection). Repairs are only performed if inspection reveals defects.

वाहन के निवारक रखरखाव (Preventive maintenance) का पहला चरण 'निरीक्षण और जांच' (Inspection and checking) होता है, जिसके अंतर्गत इंजन ऑयल, कूलेंट, टायर दबाव और लीकेज की प्रारंभिक जांच की जाती है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1397📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsTubeless Tyre Construction & Sealing

In a tubeless tires of a vehicle the air is pumped in the space

Explanation

In a tubeless tyre system, the conventional inner tube is eliminated. An impermeable inner liner made of halobutyl rubber forms an airtight seal directly against the bead seat of the metallic wheel rim. Thus, pressurized air is contained directly between the tyre casing and the wheel rim.

ट्यूबलेस टायर में हवा सीधे 'टायर और पहिये के रिम के बीच' (Between the tire and wheel rim) स्थित स्थान में भरी जाती है, क्योंकि टायर की आंतरिक परत रिम के साथ एयर-टाइट सील बनाती है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1398📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsCarburetor Choke Circuit Dynamics

When the choke is applied, the fuel primarily comes out from the

Explanation

Applying the choke valve closes the air intake upstream of the carburetor venturi while the throttle is slightly opened. As the engine cranks, intense intake manifold vacuum is applied directly across the venturi, causing large volumes of raw liquid fuel to be drawn directly out of the Main jet to supply an ultra-rich starting mixture.

जब कोल्ड स्टार्ट के समय चोक (Choke) लगाया जाता है, तो इनटेक में तीव्र वैक्यूम बनने के कारण ईंधन मुख्य रूप से 'मेन जेट' (Main jet) से बाहर निकलता है जिससे गाढ़ा (रिच) मिश्रण तैयार होता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1399📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsHydraulic Brake Fluid Functional Dynamics

Which of the following is the primary function of the brake fluid

Explanation

Hydraulic brake fluid is an incompressible liquid medium formulated under DOT specifications whose fundamental engineering role is hydraulic power transmission — transferring the mechanical force applied by the driver's foot on the brake pedal directly to the wheel slave cylinders/calipers.

हाइड्रोलिक ब्रेक फ्लूइड का प्राथमिक कार्य 'शक्ति संचरण' (Power transmission) होता है, जो पैडल से लगाए गए बल को हाइड्रोलिक दबाव के रूप में पहियों के ब्रेक कैलीपर्स तक पहुँचाता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1400📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsBrake Fluid Thermophysical Requirements

Among the following options what are the basic characteristics or properties of the brake fluid?
(i) Low viscosity
(ii) High viscosity
(iii) High boiling point
(iv) Low boiling point
The correct option is

Explanation

An ideal hydraulic brake fluid must possess: (iii) High boiling point (dry boiling point

\ge 205^\circ ext{C}-260^\circ ext{C}

) to prevent fluid vaporization and catastrophic vapor lock during severe braking; and (i) Low, stable viscosity across extreme ambient temperatures down to

-40^\circ ext{C}

to maintain rapid hydraulic response and proper ABS operation.

आदर्श ब्रेक फ्लूइड के दो मुख्य गुण हैं: (iii) उच्च क्वथनांक (High boiling point) ताकि गर्म होने पर भाप न बने, और (i) निम्न श्यानता (Low viscosity) ताकि अत्यधिक ठंड में भी यह आसानी से प्रवाहित हो सके। सही विकल्प A है।

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1401📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsFloat Bowl Level Regulation

Flooding in the carburetor of a motor vehicle is typically controlled by

Explanation

Carburetor flooding (overflow of raw fuel into the venturi and intake manifold) is prevented by the hollow Float and needle valve assembly located in the float bowl. As incoming fuel reaches the designed operating level, the buoyant float rises and forces the needle valve shut against its seat.

कार्बोरेटर में ईंधन के ओवरफ्लो (Flooding) को रोकने के लिए 'फ्लोट' (Float) और नीडल वाल्व असेंबली का उपयोग किया जाता है, जो स्तर बढ़ते ही ईंधन प्रवाह को बंद कर देता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1402📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsHistory of Lithography

Who invented Lithography in the year 1796

Explanation

Lithography was invented in 1796 by German playwright and actor Alois Senefelder in Bavaria. He discovered that greasy ink drawn on porous Bavarian limestone repels water while water-dampened non-image areas repel the greasy ink (chemical planography).

लिथोग्राफी (शिलामुद्रण) का आविष्कार वर्ष 1796 में बवेरिया में एलोइस सेनेफेल्डर (Alois Senefelder) द्वारा चूना पत्थर और तेल-पानी के प्रतिकर्षण सिद्धांत पर किया गया था। सही विकल्प C है।

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1403📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsThe Printing Production Cycle

Arrange the printing cycle procedure in proper order.
I. Creating an image design
II. Reproducing the image design
III. Distributing the printed message
IV. Identifying the need
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

The fundamental graphic communications reproduction cycle proceeds logically as: IV. Identifying the communication need -> I. Creating an image design (concept & layout) -> II. Reproducing the image design (platemaking & printing press run) -> III. Distributing the printed message (finishing, bindery & delivery). Correct sequence is IV - I - II - III.

मुद्रण चक्र (Printing cycle) का सही क्रम है: IV. आवश्यकता की पहचान करना -> I. छवि/डिज़ाइन तैयार करना -> II. डिज़ाइन का पुनरुत्पादन (प्रिंटिंग) करना -> III. मुद्रित सामग्री का वितरण करना। सही क्रम IV-I-II-III है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1404📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsFlexo Inking System & Anilox Rollers

The heart of the flexo inking system is _____

Explanation

The anilox roller is universally regarded as the heart of the flexographic printing press. It is an engraved steel or ceramic-coated roller featuring precisely structured microscopic cells that meter and deliver a consistent, uniform film of liquid ink to the printing plate.

फ्लेक्सोग्राफिक इनकिंग प्रणाली का हृदय 'एनिलॉक्स रोलर' (Anilox roller) कहलाता है, जो प्लेट पर स्याही की सटीक और एकसमान मात्रा को नियंत्रित करता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1405📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPrepress Register Marks & Targets

GATF T mark are used to identify _____

Explanation

GATF (Graphic Arts Technical Foundation) 'T-marks' (or registration T-targets) are standard alignment crosshairs and T-lines placed on flats and plates to designate exact image centerlines, fold lines, trim margins, and bleed boundaries during stripping and plate imposition.

GATF टी-मार्क (T mark) का उपयोग मुद्रण पूर्व स्ट्रिपिंग में 'इमेज सेंटर, फोल्ड और ब्लीड' (Image centres, folds, and bleeds) की सटीक पहचान और संरेखण के लिए किया जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1406📚Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryStop Bath Formulation & Acid Neutralization

During film development which of the following concertation is used as stop bath solution.

Explanation

A photographic stop bath is a mildly acidic chemical solution formulated with 3% to 5% dilute acetic acid (

CH_3COOH

). Its low pH immediately neutralizes the alkaline developer carried over in the gelatin emulsion, instantly arresting development and preserving the acidity of the subsequent fixing bath.

फिल्म विकास प्रक्रिया में स्टॉप बाथ घोल के रूप में '3% से 5% एसिटिक एसिड' (3% to 5% of acetic acid) का उपयोग किया जाता है, जो क्षारीय डेवलपर को तुरंत उदासीन कर देता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1407📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsHalftone Screening & Bump Exposures

During halftone negative making the main purpose of highlight bump exposure is to _____

Explanation

In process camera halftone reproduction, a 'bump' (no-screen) exposure is a brief exposure made with the contact screen removed. It drops out the highlights by adding density to the highlight areas on the negative, which effectively compresses/reduces the basic screen range of the screen to match the lower density range of a low-contrast copy.

हाफ़टोन नेगेटिव बनाते समय बिना स्क्रीन के दिए जाने वाले 'बम्प एक्सपोज़र' (Highlight bump exposure) का मुख्य उद्देश्य स्क्रीन की मूल रेंज को कॉपी की रेंज के अनुरूप कम (Reduce) करना होता है ताकि हाइलाइट्स स्पष्ट रहें। सही विकल्प D है।

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1408📚Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryOffset Plate Metallurgy & Substrates

Which among the following is used as base metal for offset plate?

Explanation

High-purity Aluminum alloys (specifically AA1050 / AA3103) are the universal base metal used for modern lithographic offset printing plates. The aluminum sheet is electrochemically grained (to create micro-roughness) and anodized with aluminum oxide (

Al_2O_3

) to establish a durable, hydrophilic non-image background.

आधुनिक ऑफसेट मुद्रण प्लेटों के लिए बेस धातु के रूप में 'एल्युमिनियम' (Aluminum) का उपयोग किया जाता है, जिसे इलेक्ट्रोकेमिकल ग्रेनिंग और एनोडाइजिंग द्वारा जल-ग्राही बनाया जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1409📚Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryPre-Sensitized Diazo Plate Chemistry

The specific makeup of the all-pre-sensitized emulsion coating material solution varies from manufacturer to manufacturer but primary ingredient of all the solution is same. What is that ingredient?

Explanation

Pre-sensitized (PS) offset lithographic plates rely on diazo resin or photopolymer photo-coatings. The fundamental active chemical moiety in diazo chemistry is the diazonium group (containing nitrogen atoms,

-N_2^+

). Exposure to actinic UV light causes photolysis of the diazonium salt, releasing nitrogen gas (

N_2

) and rendering the exposed polymer insoluble and oleophilic.

प्री-सेंसिटाइज्ड (PS) ऑफसेट प्लेटों के डायज़ो कोटिंग का मुख्य रासायनिक घटक डायज़ोनियम यौगिक होते हैं, जिनमें 'नाइट्रोजन' (Nitrogen) मुख्य कार्यात्मक तत्व होता है जो प्रकाश पड़ने पर नाइट्रोजन गैस मुक्त कर बहुलक को स्याही-ग्राही बनाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1410📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlScanner Quality Parameters

Which of the following three characteristics are determining the quality of a scanner?

Explanation

The three fundamental technical specifications that evaluate and determine the optical imaging quality of a graphic arts scanner are: (1) Optical Resolution (spatial sampling ability in optical ppi/dpi), (2) Dynamic Range (

D_{max}

capability to distinguish dense shadow tones), and (3) Bit Depth (color/tonal quantization depth per channel, e.g. 16-bit).

स्कैनर की गुणवत्ता निर्धारित करने वाली तीन सबसे महत्वपूर्ण विशेषताएँ 'रिज़ॉल्यूशन, डायनेमिक रेंज और बिट डेप्थ' (Resolution, Dynamic range, bit depth) होती हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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1411📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsBindery Operations: Collating vs Gathering

During post-press operations the process of arranging the signatures in a proper sequence is called _____

Explanation

In bookbinding and bindery post-press operations, 'Collating' is defined as the process of checking, inspecting, and arranging individual folded signatures or flat sheets into their correct consecutive numerical page order prior to stitching or binding. ('Gathering' specifically refers to stacking signatures one against another for adhesive/case binding).

पोस्ट-प्रेस (बाइंडरी) कार्यों में मुड़े हुए सिग्नेचर्स (फ़र्मों) को सही संख्यात्मक क्रम में व्यवस्थित और जांचने की प्रक्रिया 'कोलेटिंग' (Collating) कहलाती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1412📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlSensitometry: Reciprocity Failure (LIRF)

LIRF in photography stands for _____

Explanation

In photographic sensitometry, LIRF stands for 'Low Intensity Reciprocity Failure' (Schwarzschild effect). It occurs during very long exposure times under extremely dim light where photons arrive too infrequently at a silver halide crystal to form a stable multi-atom latent image silver sub-speck, requiring extra exposure compensation.

फोटोग्राफी में LIRF का पूर्ण रूप 'Low Intensity Reciprocity Failure' (कम तीव्रता पारस्परिकता विफलता) होता है, जो लंबे समय तक कम रोशनी में एक्सपोज़र देने पर फिल्म की गति कम होने की घटना है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1413📚Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryChromogenic Color Chemistry: Dye Couplers

An organic dye intermediate that are used in colour film and photographic paper that can be used as a colour photographic material to form a colour screen in photography is called _____

Explanation

In chromogenic color photography, 'Image couplers' (dye couplers) are organic chemical intermediates incorporated into the emulsion layers. During development, oxidized color developing agent couples with these image couplers to synthesize subtractive cyan, magenta, and yellow dye images proportional to silver development.

रंगीन फोटोग्राफिक फिल्मों और पेपर्स में रंजक निर्मित करने वाले कार्बनिक मध्यवर्ती यौगिक 'इमेज कपलर' (Image couplers / डाई कपलर्स) कहलाते हैं, जो रंगीन छवियों का निर्माण करते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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1414📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlMunsell Color Attributes: Hue, Value, Saturation

What are the three attributes of colour

Explanation

Under the Munsell color order system and visual colorimetry, the three psychological dimensions or attributes of human color perception are: Hue (the dominant spectral wavelength or color identity), Value (lightness or darkness), and Chroma / Saturation (purity or intensity of the color).

रंग (Colour) के तीन मूलभूत गुणधर्म 'ह्यू (रंग का नाम), वैल्यू (हल्कापन/गहरापन), और संतृप्ति (Saturation/तीव्रता)' (Hue, Value, Saturation) होते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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1415📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPrepress Margins: Bleed & Trim

_____ is a design that extends an image to the edge of the printed sheet

Explanation

In graphic arts prepress, a 'Bleed' is the intentional extension of printed artwork, background color, or images beyond the finished trim line (typically by 3 mm or 1/8 inch) to ensure that mechanical variations during trimming do not leave unsightly white unprinted margins.

मुद्रित शीट के कटे हुए किनारे (Trim line) से बाहर तक फैली हुई डिज़ाइन या छवि को 'ब्लीड' (Bleed) कहा जाता है, ताकि कटाई के बाद कोई सफ़ेद किनारा न दिखे। सही विकल्प D है।

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1416📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPrepress Image Swapping: OPI

OPI stands for

Explanation

OPI stands for 'Open Prepress Interface', a standardized client-server protocol developed by Aldus Corporation that enables page layout artists to work quickly with low-resolution placeholder images (FPO - For Position Only) while an OPI server automatically swaps them for high-resolution images during final PostScript RIP output.

OPI का पूर्ण रूप 'Open Prepress Interface' (ओपन प्रीप्रेस इंटरफ़ेस) होता है, जो बड़े आकार की छवियों के लिए लो-रेज़ोल्यूशन प्लेसहोल्डर वर्कफ़्लो प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1417📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlHalftone Screening Parameters

What are the most important parameters that are to be considered when an image is to be output on film, plate, or directly onto a print substrate?

Explanation

When generating halftone images on film, plate, or press, the three fundamental screening parameters that dictate reproduction fidelity, tonal smoothness, and absence of moiré patterns are: (1) Dot shape (round, square, or elliptical), (2) Screen frequency / ruling (lines per inch - lpi), and (3) Screen angle (standard CMYK angles such as C15°, M75°, Y0°, K45°).

हाफ़टोन आउटपुट देते समय तीन सबसे महत्वपूर्ण पैरामीटर 'डॉट का आकार (Dot shape), स्क्रीन फ़्रीक्वेंसी (lpi), और स्क्रीन कोण (Screen angle)' होते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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1418📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingOperating System Core Functions

Which of the following best describes the role of an operating system in a computer system?

Explanation

An Operating System (OS) is system software that acts as an intermediary between computer hardware and the user. Its fundamental role is to control, allocate, and coordinate hardware resources (CPU, memory, storage, and I/O devices) among various competing application programs and users.

ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम (OS) का प्राथमिक कार्य 'हार्डवेयर को नियंत्रित करना और विभिन्न अनुप्रयोग कार्यक्रमों तथा उपयोगकर्ताओं के बीच इसके उपयोग का समन्वय करना' (It controls the hardware and coordinates its use among application programs and users) होता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1419📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingInternet Architecture & Protocols

The Internet is best described as:

Explanation

The Internet is fundamentally a global, decentralized system of interconnected computer networks that communicate using the standard Internet Protocol Suite (TCP/IP). It is not owned or controlled by any single centralized entity.

इंटरनेट को सबसे बेहतर रूप से 'समान प्रोटोकॉल (TCP/IP) का उपयोग करने वाले परस्पर जुड़े नेटवर्कों का एक विशाल वैश्विक संग्रह' (A vast collection of interconnected networks using common protocols) के रूप में वर्णित किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1420📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingGUI Fundamentals

An icon in a GUI represents:

Explanation

In a Graphical User Interface (GUI), an icon is a small visual pictorial representation / pictogram on the screen that symbolizes an object such as a data file, folder, software application program, device, or system function.

ग्राफिकल यूजर इंटरफेस (GUI) में आइकन (Icon) किसी 'फ़ाइल, एप्लिकेशन प्रोग्राम या फ़ंक्शन' का सचित्र दृश्य प्रतीक होता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1421📚General Microbiology, Bacteriology & Staining TechniquesGram Staining Reagents & Mechanisms

During Gram staining, iodine functions as a:

Explanation

In the Gram stain procedure, Gram's iodine functions as a mordant. It chemically interacts with the primary dye (crystal violet) inside the bacterial cell wall to form large, water-insoluble crystal violet-iodine (CV-I) complexes, which become trapped within the thick, multi-layered peptidoglycan mesh of Gram-positive bacteria.

ग्राम स्टेनिंग में आयोडीन एक 'मॉर्डेंट' (Mordant) के रूप में कार्य करता है, जो प्राथमिक डाई (क्रिस्टल वायलेट) के साथ मिलकर एक अघुलनशील CV-I कॉम्प्लेक्स बनाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1422📚General Microbiology, Bacteriology & Staining TechniquesDirect vs Indirect Methods of Microbial Quantification

Among the following, which method is categorized as indirect for assessing microbial proliferation by quantifying biomass-related optical properties?

Explanation

Spectrophotometric turbidity analysis (optical density, OD600) is an indirect method of measuring microbial biomass. It measures the degree of light scattering by cell suspensions rather than physically counting individual viable or total cells.

'स्पेक्ट्रोफोटोमेट्रिक टर्बिडिटी विश्लेषण' (Spectrophotometric turbidity analysis) प्रकाश प्रकीर्णन द्वारा बायोमास का आकलन करने वाली एक अप्रत्यक्ष (Indirect) विधि है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1423📚Mycology & Fungal PathogenesisDermatophytes: Hyphae & Macroconidia Morphology

A filamentous fungus that forms septate hyphae and produces large, multicelled macroconidia most likely belongs to:

Explanation

Trichophyton rubrum is an anthropophilic dermatophyte featuring septate hyphae that produces characteristic pencil- or cigar-shaped, thin-walled, multi-celled macroconidia (along with teardrop microconidia). Candida and Cryptococcus are unicellular yeasts, while Malassezia forms unbranched short hyphae with yeast cells.

पटयुक्त हाइफी (Septate hyphae) और बड़े, बहुकोशिकीय मैक्रोकोनिडिया बनाने वाला फिलामेंटस कवक 'ट्राइकोफाइटन रूब्रम' (Trichophyton rubrum / डर्मेटोफाइट) है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1424📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometrySubstrate Zymography Methodologies

A researcher performing native PAGE zymography for gelatinase detection observes no enzymatic bands after gel incubation. What is the most probable cause of this observation?

Explanation

In substrate zymography, the target substrate (e.g., gelatin for MMP-2/MMP-9 gelatinases) must be copolymerized directly into the resolving polyacrylamide gel during casting. If gelatin substrate is omitted during gel preparation, no substrate is present for the migrated protease to digest, resulting in complete failure to produce clear lytic bands against the Coomassie background.

जिलेटिनेज जाइमोग्राफी में यदि जेल निर्माण के दौरान 'जिलेटिन सब्सट्रेट' (Omission of gelatin substrate) डालना छूट जाए, तो एंजाइम द्वारा पाचन के लिए सब्सट्रेट उपलब्ध नहीं होगा और कोई बैंड दिखाई नहीं देगा। सही विकल्प B है।

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1425📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryUV Spectroscopy of Aromatic Amino Acids

Which aromatic amino acid residues predominantly absorb at 280 nm during UV-based protein quantification?

Explanation

Proteins exhibit a characteristic ultraviolet absorbance peak at 280 nm primarily due to the aromatic resonance rings of Tryptophan (indole ring,

\lambda_{max} \approx 280\text{ nm}

) and Tyrosine (phenolic ring,

\lambda_{max} \approx 274\text{ nm}

), with minor contribution from cystine disulfides.

280 nm पर यूवी अवशोषण द्वारा प्रोटीन माप में मुख्य रूप से 'ट्रिप्टोफैन और टायरोसिन' (Tryptophan and Tyrosine) एरोमैटिक अमीनो एसिड पराबैंगनी प्रकाश को अवशोषित करते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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1426📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryProtein Purification: Salting Out

Ammonium sulfate is employed in protein purification protocols primarily to:

Explanation

Ammonium sulfate fractionation operates on the 'salting out' principle. High kosmotropic salt concentrations strip the hydration shell from exposed hydrophobic patches on protein surfaces, promoting hydrophobic aggregation and reversible precipitation without denaturing the native protein.

प्रोटीन शुद्धिकरण में अमोनियम सल्फेट का उपयोग 'सॉल्टिंग आउट' (Salting out) द्वारा 'प्रोटीन की घुलनशीलता को कम करके चयनात्मक अवक्षेपण' (Reduce protein solubility and induce selective precipitation) करने के लिए किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1427📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryGel Electrophoresis (PAGE) Pore Size Optimization

To resolve high molecular weight proteins more effectively during PAGE, which of the following should be adjusted?

Explanation

The pore size of a polyacrylamide gel is inversely proportional to total acrylamide monomer concentration (%T). To resolve high molecular weight proteins (>100-200 kDa), the acrylamide concentration must be reduced (e.g. to 6% or 7.5%) to enlarge the gel pore matrix, allowing large macromolecular complexes to migrate without getting excluded at the top.

उच्च आणविक भार वाले प्रोटीनों को PAGE में बेहतर ढंग से अलग करने के लिए 'एक्रिलामाइड की सांद्रता को कम' (Reduction in acrylamide concentration) किया जाता है ताकि जेल के छिद्र बड़े हो सकें। सही विकल्प B है।

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1428📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryAutomated Clinical Chemistry Analyzers

Which analytical instrument is primarily used in clinical biochemistry laboratories for lipid profile assessment (e.g., cholesterol, HDL, LDL)?

Explanation

Clinical biochemistry laboratories utilize automated, high-throughput Spectrophotometric Autoanalyzers (clinical chemistry analyzers) to perform enzymatic, photometric absorbance assays measuring total cholesterol, triglycerides, HDL, and calculating LDL.

नैदानिक जैव रसायन प्रयोगशालाओं में लिपिड प्रोफाइल (कोलेस्ट्रॉल, एचडीएल, एलडीएल) के मूल्यांकन के लिए प्राथमिक रूप से 'स्पेक्ट्रोफोटोमेट्रिक ऑटोएनालाइज़र' (Spectrophotometric autoanalyzer) का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1429📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryClinical Enzymology: Pancreatic Biomarkers

For evaluating exocrine pancreatic function, which of the following enzymes is most commonly measured in serum?

Explanation

Serum Alpha-amylase (along with lipase) is the primary clinical biomarker assessed to evaluate exocrine pancreatic function and diagnose acute pancreatitis. During inflammation, acinar cells release amylase into the bloodstream, peaking within 12–24 hours.

अग्न्याशय (Pancreas) के बहिःस्रावी कार्य के मूल्यांकन और तीव्र अग्नाशयशोथ (Pancreatitis) के निदान के लिए सीरम में 'अल्फा-एमाइलेज' (Alpha-amylase) मापा जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1430📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceRenal Pathology: Nephrotic Syndrome & Hypoalbuminemia

In cases of nephrotic syndrome, which serum protein typically exhibits a marked decrease due to urinary loss?

Explanation

In nephrotic syndrome, disruption of the glomerular filtration barrier (podocyte effacement and loss of negative charge) leads to massive proteinuria (>3.5 g/day). Because of its small molecular weight (66.5 kDa), Albumin is selectively filtered and lost in urine, causing profound hypoalbuminemia.

नेफ्रोटिक सिंड्रोम में ग्लोमेरुलर फ़िल्टर खराब होने के कारण मूत्र में भारी नुकसान होने से सीरम 'एल्बुमिन' (Albumin) के स्तर में भारी गिरावट (हाइपोएल्बुमिनमिया) आती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1431📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryHepatic Function Tests & Enzyme Ratios

Which AST:ALT ratio is most suggestive of chronic alcoholic liver disease?

Explanation

In alcoholic liver disease, the serum AST (aspartate aminotransferase) to ALT (alanine aminotransferase) ratio (De Ritis ratio) is characteristically greater than 2 (often exceeding 2:1 or even 3:1). Alcohol causes direct mitochondrial damage that preferentially releases mitochondrial AST into circulation, while alcoholics commonly suffer from pyridoxal 5'-phosphate (vitamin B6) deficiency, which impairs ALT synthesis more severely than AST synthesis.

क्रॉनिक अल्कोहलिक लिवर रोग में, AST:ALT अनुपात (डी रिटिस अनुपात) आमतौर पर 2 से अधिक (AST: ALT greater than 2) होता है। शराब के कारण माइटोकॉन्ड्रियल क्षति होती है जिससे AST का स्राव बढ़ता है और विटामिन B6 की कमी ALT के संश्लेषण को अधिक दबा देती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1432📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyBacteriophage Replication Cycles

Which bacteriophage replication pathway involves integration of viral DNA into the bacterial host genome?

Explanation

In the lysogenic cycle of temperate bacteriophages (such as phage lambda), viral DNA is integrated into the host bacterial chromosome where it persists as a dormant prophage. The viral genome is replicated faithfully along with host DNA during binary fission without causing immediate lysis of the bacterial cell.

लाइसोजेनिक चक्र (Lysogenic cycle) में बैक्टीरियोफेज का डीएनए मेजबान बैक्टीरिया के जीनोम में एकीकृत होकर 'प्रोफेज' (Prophage) बन जाता है और बिना कोशिका को नष्ट किए जीवाणु विभाजन के साथ प्रतिकृति करता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1433📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyHIV Diagnostics & Molecular Virology

Which diagnostic technique offers the highest sensitivity for detecting HIV infection during its early phase?

Explanation

Reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) offers the highest analytical sensitivity for detecting acute HIV infection during the initial 'window period' (first 10–14 days). RT-PCR directly amplifies and quantifies circulating viral genomic RNA in plasma days to weeks before host anti-HIV IgM/IgG antibodies or p24 antigen become detectable by serological or Western blot assays.

रिवर्स ट्रांसक्रिप्शन-पॉलीमरेज़ चेन रिएक्शन (RT-PCR) तीव्र एचआईवी संक्रमण के प्रारंभिक चरण (विंडो पीरियड) में पता लगाने के लिए सबसे संवेदनशील तकनीक है, क्योंकि यह रक्त प्लाज्मा में सीधे वायरल आरएनए को पहचानती है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1434📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyMalaria Parasites & Pathogenesis

Plasmodium falciparum primarily targets which cells in the body?

Explanation

Plasmodium falciparum primarily targets and destroys red blood cells (erythrocytes) during its asexual erythrocytic schizogonic cycle. Unlike Plasmodium vivax (which selectively infects immature reticulocytes), P. falciparum is capable of invading erythrocytes of all ages, leading to massive parasitemia, severe hemolytic anemia, microvascular clogging, and cerebral malaria.

प्लाज्मोडियम फाल्सीपेरम (Plasmodium falciparum) मानव शरीर में मुख्य रूप से लाल रक्त कोशिकाओं (Red blood cells / RBCs) को लक्षित और नष्ट करता है, जिससे गंभीर मलेरिया और रक्तअल्पता होती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1435📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyPlasmodium Life Cycle & Vector Transmission

Which P. falciparum stage is transmitted to mosquitoes?

Explanation

The sexual erythrocytic stages known as gametocytes (crescent- or banana-shaped microgametocytes and macrogametocytes in P. falciparum) are ingested by female Anopheles mosquitoes during a blood meal. Inside the mosquito gut, gametocytes exflagellate, fertilize, and initiate the sporogonic cycle that produces infectious sporozoites.

प्लाज्मोडियम फाल्सीपेरम का 'गैमेटोसाइट' (Gametocyte - युग्मकजनक) चरण मादा एनोफिलीज़ मच्छर द्वारा रक्त चूसने के दौरान मच्छर में स्थानांतरित होता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1436📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyFilariasis Diagnosis: Microscopy Techniques

What is the most suitable technique to detect microfilariae in peripheral blood?

Explanation

A thick blood smear (dehemoglobinized and stained with Giemsa or Leishman stain) collected during nocturnal hours (10:00 PM to 2:00 AM) is the gold standard diagnostic method to detect circulating microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti or Brugia malayi, as it concentrates a larger volume of blood on a small slide area to identify low parasitemia.

परिधीय रक्त में माइक्रोफाइलेरिया का पता लगाने के लिए 'थिक ब्लड स्मीयर' (Thick blood smear - मोटा रक्त स्मीयर) सबसे उपयुक्त तकनीक है, जो रक्त की बड़ी मात्रा को केंद्रित करके सूक्ष्मदर्शीय पहचान को आसान बनाता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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1437📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyLymphatic Filariasis & Clinical Manifestations

Which parasite is known to cause chyluria as a result of lymphatic obstruction?

Explanation

Wuchereria bancrofti is the lymphatic filarial parasite that resides in human lymph nodes and major vessels. Chronic infection causes inflammatory damage, fibrosis, and severe obstruction of retroperitoneal lymph vessels, raising lymphatic pressure until dilated lymphatics rupture into the renal pelvic tract, producing chyluria (milky urine containing lymph and emulsified fat).

वुचेरेरिया बैनक्रॉफ्टी (Wuchereria bancrofti) लसीका रुकावट (lymphatic obstruction) के परिणामस्वरूप 'काइलुरिया' (Chyluria - मूत्र में लसीका और वसा का आना) पैदा करने के लिए जाना जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1438📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryEnzyme Inhibition & Antimetabolite Pharmacology

The anticancer efficacy of 5-Fluorouracil is primarily due to its inhibition of which of the following enzymes?

Explanation

5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine antimetabolite converted intracellularly to fluorodeoxyuridine monophosphate (FdUMP). FdUMP acts as a suicide inhibitor by forming a stable ternary covalent complex with thymidylate synthase and 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate, blocking the conversion of dUMP to dTMP and starving cancer cells of thymidine required for DNA replication.

कैंसर रोधी दवा 5-फ्लोरोयूरैसिल (5-Fluorouracil) मुख्य रूप से 'थाइमिडिलेट सिंथेज़' (Thymidylate synthase) एंजाइम को रोककर कार्य करती है, जिससे डीएनए संश्लेषण के लिए थाइमिडीन की आपूर्ति बंद हो जाती है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1439📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryLipid Metabolism: Hepatic Ketogenesis

Ketogenesis during prolonged fasting primarily results from which of the following metabolic changes?

Explanation

During prolonged starvation or fasting, low insulin and high glucagon stimulate intensive adipocyte lipolysis, releasing vast amounts of free fatty acids that undergo hepatic beta-oxidation, leading to massively elevated acetyl-CoA levels. Because oxaloacetate is concurrently consumed in gluconeogenesis, excess acetyl-CoA cannot enter the citric acid cycle and is channeled into hepatic ketogenesis.

लंबे समय तक उपवास के दौरान कीटोजेनेसिस (Ketogenesis) मुख्य रूप से यकृत में 'एसिटाइल-CoA के ऊंचे स्तर' (Elevated acetyl-CoA levels) और ऑक्सालोएसिटेट के ग्लूकोनियोजेनेसिस में उपयोग होने के कारण शुरू होती है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1440📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryFatty Acid Oxidation: Net ATP Yield of Palmitate

Taking into account the energy investment during activation, how many ATP molecules are generated from the complete beta-oxidation of palmitic acid (C 16:0)?

Explanation

Complete oxidation of palmitic acid (16:0) produces 8 acetyl-CoA, 7 FADH2, and 7 NADH through 7 cycles of beta-oxidation. With 10 ATP per acetyl-CoA (80 ATP), 1.5 per FADH2 (10.5 ATP), and 2.5 per NADH (17.5 ATP), gross yield is 108 ATP. Subtracting the 2 high-energy phosphate bonds consumed during fatty acyl-CoA activation (

108 - 2

), the net energy yield is exactly 106 ATP molecules.

पामिटिक एसिड (C 16:0) के पूर्ण बीटा-ऑक्सीकरण से 108 ATP बनते हैं। सक्रियण (Activation) में 2 उच्च-ऊर्जा फॉस्फेट बॉन्ड के निवेश को घटाने पर शुद्ध 106 ATP अणु प्राप्त होते हैं (

108 - 2 = 106

)। सही विकल्प A है।

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1441📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryCarbohydrate Chemistry: Cryoprotective Sugars

Which disaccharide functions as a natural cryoprotectant in some organisms to inhibit ice crystal formation during freezing?

Explanation

Trehalose (alpha-D-glucopyranosyl-(1->1)-alpha-D-glucopyranoside) is a non-reducing disaccharide accumulated by cryptobiotic organisms (such as tardigrades, nematodes, and certain fungi) that acts as an exceptional cryoprotectant. It forms an amorphous glassy matrix (vitrification), inhibiting intracellular ice crystal formation and stabilizing membrane phospholipids during freezing and desiccation.

ट्रेहालोस (Trehalose) एक गैर-अपचायक डिसैकराइड है जो कुछ जीवों में प्राकृतिक 'क्रायोप्रोटेक्टेंट' (Cryoprotectant) के रूप में कार्य करता है और बर्फ के क्रिस्टल बनने से रोकता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1442📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryMolecular Biology: Translation & tRNA Function

Which type of RNA delivers amino acids to the ribosome for incorporation into a growing polypeptide chain?

Explanation

Transfer RNA (tRNA) functions as an adaptor molecule during protein translation. Each tRNA is enzymatically esterified to its cognate amino acid at its 3' CCA end by an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase and base-pairs via its specific anticodon triplet with the complementary mRNA codon within the ribosomal A site.

ट्रांसफर आरएनए (tRNA) अनुवाद (Translation) के दौरान विशिष्ट अमीनो एसिड को राइबोसोम तक पहुँचाने का कार्य करता है ताकि पॉलीपेप्टाइड श्रृंखला का निर्माण हो सके। सही विकल्प C है।

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1443📚Bioinformatics, Genomics & Computational BiologyDatabases & Information Systems: ACID Properties

In the context of databases, what does ACID stand for?

Explanation

In database management systems, ACID is an acronym representing the four fundamental properties that guarantee reliable transaction processing: Atomicity (all or nothing), Consistency (preserves data validity rules), Isolation (concurrent executions do not interfere), and Durability (committed changes survive system failures).

डेटाबेस के संदर्भ में, ACID का पूर्ण रूप 'Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability' (परमाणुता, संगति, अलगाव, स्थायित्व) है, जो डेटाबेस लेनदेन की विश्वसनीयता सुनिश्चित करता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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1444📚Bioinformatics, Genomics & Computational BiologyNetwork Protocols & Cybersecurity

Which protocol is used for secure communication over a computer network?

Explanation

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is an extension of HTTP used for secure, encrypted communication over computer networks and the internet. It leverages Transport Layer Security (TLS/SSL) encryption to protect sensitive data from eavesdropping, man-in-the-middle attacks, and tampering.

कंप्यूटर नेटवर्क पर सुरक्षित संचार के लिए 'HTTPS' (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) प्रोटोकॉल का उपयोग किया जाता है, जो डेटा को एन्क्रिप्ट करने के लिए TLS/SSL का उपयोग करता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1445📚Bioinformatics, Genomics & Computational BiologyEmerging Technologies: Quantum Computing

Which of the following best describes "quantum computing"?

Explanation

Quantum computing harnesses the fundamental principles of quantum mechanics by utilizing quantum bits (qubits). Unlike classical binary bits (which can exist strictly as a 0 or a 1), qubits can exist simultaneously in a linear superposition of both

|0\rangle

and

|1\rangle

states, enabling parallel evaluation of vast computational spaces.

क्वांटम कंप्यूटिंग (Quantum computing) का सर्वोत्तम वर्णन यह है कि यह 'क्यूबिट्स का उपयोग करता है जो अवस्थाओं के सुपरपोजिशन में हो सकते हैं' (Uses qubits that can be in superposition of states), जिससे गणना की गति अत्यधिक बढ़ जाती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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1446📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceHuman Microbiome Dynamics & Dietary Influences

Which of the following changes in the microbiome is most likely to be seen in people who eat a lot of animal products?

Explanation

High consumption of animal products (rich in animal fat and protein) stimulates high secretion of bile acids, driving an expansion of bile-tolerant microorganisms such as Bacteroides, Alistipes, and Bilophila wadsworthia. Concurrently, it depletes saccharolytic bacteria (such as Eubacterium rectale and Roseburia) that depend on dietary plant fibers and complex polysaccharides.

पशु उत्पादों (मांस और वसा) का अधिक सेवन करने वाले लोगों में 'पित्त-सहिष्णु टैक्सा जैसे बैक्टेरॉइड्स और एलिस्टिप्स में वृद्धि, और यूबैक्टीरियम रेक्टेल जैसे पादप पॉलीसेकेराइड-किण्वन बैक्टीरिया में कमी' देखी जाती है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1447📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceUrinalysis: Ketone Body Detection Principles

Which of the following statements about ketone body detection in urine is most accurate?

Explanation

Standard urinalysis reagent strip tests (nitroprusside reaction) selectively react with acetoacetic acid (and minimally with acetone), but do not react at all with beta-hydroxybutyrate. Therefore, routine urine ketone testing is a qualitative or semi-quantitative assay specifically detecting acetoacetic acid, rather than all three physiological ketone bodies.

मूत्र में कीटोन बॉडी का पता लगाने के संबंध में सबसे सटीक कथन यह है कि 'यह केवल एसीटोएसेटिक एसिड का पता लगाने के लिए उपयोग किया जाने वाला एक गुणात्मक परीक्षण है, सभी कीटोन निकायों का नहीं' (It is a qualitative test used to detect acetoacetic acid, not all ketone bodies)। सही विकल्प B है।

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1448📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceUrinalysis: Physical Properties & Chromogens

Which of the following substances is correctly matched with the color it imparts to urine?

Explanation

Pyridium (phenazopyridine hydrochloride), a widely prescribed azo-dye urinary tract mucosal analgesic, characteristically imparts an intense bright amber-orange to red-orange discoloration to urine, which can permanently stain fabric and clothing.

मूत्र के रंग और पदार्थ का सही मिलान 'एम्बर नारंगी - पिरिडियम (Amber orange - Pyridium / Phenazopyridine)' है। पिरिडियम एक दर्द निवारक डाई है जो मूत्र को चमकीला नारंगी रंग देती है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1449📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceVascular Pathology: Lower Extremity Varicose Veins

Of the following, which process best describes how varicose veins grow in a standing person's lower limbs?

Explanation

In the lower limbs, sustained hydrostatic ambulatory venous hypertension in the deep venous system damages one-way bicuspid valves in the communicating (perforator) veins. This valvular incompetence causes high-pressure retrograde / reverse blood flow outward from deep veins into superficial veins, stretching their thin walls into tortuous, dilated varicose veins.

खड़े व्यक्ति के निचले अंगों में वैरिकोज वेन्स के विकास का मुख्य कारण 'गहरी नसों में उच्च दबाव के कारण छिद्रक नसों (Perforator veins) में उल्टा प्रवाह और वाल्वुलर अक्षमता' (Reverse flow through perforator veins and valvular incompetence) है। सही विकल्प C है।

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1450🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Food preservation is done to:

Explanation

The primary fundamental objective of food preservation is to extend shelf life by preventing or significantly delaying microbial spoilage, enzymatic degradation, and oxidative rancidity, ensuring food remains wholesome and safe for consumption over prolonged periods.

खाद्य संरक्षण (Food preservation) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य सूक्ष्मजीवों की वृद्धि, एंजाइमी गिरावट और ऑक्सीकरण को रोककर खाद्य पदार्थों की शेल्फ लाइफ (उपयोगिता अवधि) को बढ़ाना है।

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1451🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

HPP is a:

Explanation

High Pressure Processing (HPP), also known as pascalization or cold pasteurization, is a non-thermal food preservation technology where foods are subjected to extreme isostatic pressures (typically 300 to 600 MPa) without elevated temperatures.

एचपीपी (High Pressure Processing - HPP) एक गैर-थर्मल (non-thermal) प्रक्रिया है, जिसमें उच्च हाइड्रोस्टैटिक दबाव (300-600 MPa) का उपयोग बिना गर्मी दिए भोजन को संरक्षित करने के लिए किया जाता है।

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1452🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

High Pressure Processing is primarily used to:

Explanation

High Pressure Processing is primarily deployed to inactivate vegetative pathogenic and spoilage microorganisms as well as certain degradative enzymes by disrupting cell membranes and denaturing non-covalent protein bonds while preserving sensory attributes.

उच्च दबाव प्रसंस्करण (HPP) का मुख्य उपयोग सेल झिल्ली को नुकसान पहुंचाकर और प्रोटीन संरचना को संशोधित करके सूक्ष्मजीवों और एंजाइमों को निष्क्रिय (inactivate) करने के लिए किया जाता है।

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1453🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Pasteurization is done by:

Explanation

Pasteurization is a mild thermal preservation process designed to destroy vegetative pathogens (such as Coxiella burnetii in milk) by heating liquid food to a predetermined temperature for a specific duration, followed immediately by rapid cooling to prevent quality degradation and bacterial revival.

पाश्चराइजेशन (Pasteurization) एक ऐसी प्रक्रिया है जिसमें खाद्य उत्पाद (जैसे दूध) को एक निश्चित तापमान तक गर्म किया जाता है और फिर तुरंत तेजी से ठंडा (rapid cooling) किया जाता है ताकि रोगजनक बैक्टीरिया नष्ट हो जाएं।

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1454🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Vitamin which is sensitive to heat and can be lost during preservation processes:

Explanation

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is water-soluble and highly thermolabile and oxidation-sensitive, making it the most easily degraded vitamin during thermal preservation processes like blanching, pasteurization, and canning.

विटामिन सी (एस्कॉर्बिक एसिड) ऊष्मा और ऑक्सीजन के प्रति अत्यधिक संवेदनशील (thermolabile) होता है, जो कैनिंग और उबालने जैसी प्रक्रियाओं के दौरान सबसे तेजी से नष्ट हो जाता है।

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1455🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Mention the main advantage of HPP over traditional thermal pasteurization?

Explanation

The supreme commercial advantage of High Pressure Processing (HPP) over thermal pasteurization is the retention of fresh sensory attributes (color, aroma, texture) and heat-sensitive nutritional compounds (vitamins and antioxidants).

पारंपरिक थर्मल पाश्चराइजेशन की तुलना में HPP का मुख्य लाभ संवेदी और पोषण संबंधी गुणवत्ता (Retention of sensory and nutritional quality) को ताज़ा बनाए रखना है।

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1456🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Type of packaging is used in HPP:

Explanation

HPP requires vacuum-sealed flexible plastic packaging (such as pouches, bottles, or trays) that can compress up to 15% under hydrostatic pressure to transmit pressure uniformly to the food without rupturing.

HPP में वैक्यूम-सीलबंद लचीले प्लास्टिक (Vacuum-sealed flexible plastic) पैकेजिंग का उपयोग किया जाता है जो दबाव के तहत विकृत होकर बिना फटे दबाव संचारित कर सकता है।

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1457🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

The initial sign shown during spoilage in canned foods:

Explanation

Can swelling (flipper, springer, soft swell, or hard swell) is the primary physical sign of microbial spoilage or chemical hydrogen swells in canned foods, caused by internal gas generation (

CO_2, H_2

).

डिब्बाबंद खाद्य पदार्थों में खराबी का प्रारंभिक और प्रमुख बाहरी लक्षण कैन का फूलना (Swollen can) है, जो सूक्ष्मजीवों या रासायनिक प्रतिक्रिया द्वारा गैस उत्पादन के कारण होता है।

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1458🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Reason for keeping headspace in canning jars:

Explanation

Headspace (typically 6-12 mm) is left at the top of canning jars to accommodate product thermal expansion during retort heating, allow air exhaust, and enable proper vacuum formation upon cooling to create a hermetic seal.

कैनिंग जार में हेडस्पेस (खाली जगह) छोड़ने का कारण नसबंदी के दौरान भोजन के थर्मल विस्तार को जगह देना और ठंडा होने पर वैक्यूम सील बनाना (To allow expansion and create vacuum seal) है।

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1459🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Important benefit of retorting in canned food packaging:

Explanation

Retorting (pressurized steam heating in an autoclave) provides the critical thermal lethality required to commercially sterilize sealed cans, destroying bacterial endospores (including Clostridium botulinum) inside the hermetic container.

रिटॉर्टिंग (Retorting) का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण लाभ सीलिंग के बाद डिब्बे के अंदर की सामग्री का व्यावसायिक बंध्याकरण (Sterilizes the contents after sealing) करना है।

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1460🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

The purpose of headspace in the container in canning:

Explanation

Leaving an appropriate headspace (empty space at the top of the can) allows the liquid and solid food contents to thermally expand during retort sterilization without exerting excessive hydraulic pressure on the seams, preventing seam strain and leakage.

कैनिंग के दौरान कंटेनर में हेडस्पेस छोड़ने का मुख्य उद्देश्य नसबंदी (sterilization) के दौरान भोजन के उष्मीय विस्तार (expansion) को जगह देना है ताकि सील पर अत्यधिक दबाव न पड़े।

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1461🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Patulin contamination is typically found in:

Explanation

Patulin is a toxic mycotoxin produced by Penicillium expansum (the blue mould of apples). It is commonly found in rotting apples and unpasteurized apple juice, ciders, and apple compotes.

पैटुलिन (Patulin) माइकोटॉक्सिन का संदूषण आमतौर पर सड़े हुए सेबों और सेब के रस (Apple juice) में पाया जाता है, जो पेनिसिलियम एक्सपैंसम कवक द्वारा निर्मित होता है।

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1462🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Which mycotoxin is associated with kidney damage and contamination of coffee and cereals?

Explanation

Ochratoxin A (OTA), produced by Aspergillus and Penicillium species, is a potent nephrotoxin (kidney damaging toxin) frequently contaminating coffee beans, wine, grapes, dried fruits, and cereal grains.

ओक्राटॉक्सिन ए (Ochratoxin A) गुर्दे की क्षति (kidney damage) से जुड़ा हुआ माइकोटॉक्सिन है जो कॉफी और अनाजों के संदूषण में मुख्य रूप से पाया जाता है।

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1463🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Select the correct statements regarding applications and limitations of HPP:
I. HPP is commonly used for liquid and semi-solid foods.
II. HPP is suitable for packaging with air-filled containers.
III. HPP can extend shelf life of fresh juices without chemical preservatives.
IV. HPP processing is done after final packaging.

Explanation

Statements I, III, and IV are correct. HPP is ideal for liquids/semi-solids (I), extends fresh juice shelf-life without chemical additives (III), and is an in-package pasteurization process (IV). Statement II is false because air compresses drastically under 600 MPa, collapsing rigid or air-filled containers.

कथन I, III और IV सही हैं। HPP तरल पदार्थों के लिए उपयोगी है (I), रसों की शेल्फ लाइफ बढ़ाता है (III), और अंतिम पैकेजिंग के बाद किया जाता है (IV)। हवा से भरे कंटेनर HPP के लिए उपयुक्त नहीं हैं।

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1464🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Which of the following statements are true about Cold Plasma technology in food preservation?
I. Cold plasma uses ionized gas to inactivate microbes.
II. It alters the texture and flavour of food significantly.
III. It is suitable for surface decontamination.
IV. It requires high temperatures for operation.

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Cold atmospheric plasma generates reactive oxygen and nitrogen species (RONS), UV photons, and charged particles in an ionized gas at near room temperature to decontaminate food surfaces without thermal damage.

कथन I और III सही हैं। कोल्ड प्लाज्मा कमरे के तापमान पर आयनित गैस (ionized gas) का उपयोग करके सूक्ष्मजीवों को निष्क्रिय करता है (I) और यह खाद्य सतह के परिशोधन (surface decontamination) के लिए सर्वोत्तम है (III)।

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1465🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Regarding UV-C radiation as a novel preservation method, which of the following statements are correct?
I. UV-C light causes DNA damage in microorganisms.
II. It is effective for clear liquids and surfaces.
III. UV-C can penetrate deeply into opaque foods.
IV. It can be used for water and air disinfection.

Explanation

Statements I, II, and IV are correct. UV-C radiation (200-280 nm, peak at 254 nm) induces cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers in microbial DNA (I), disinfects water, air, and clear liquids (II, IV). Statement III is false because UV-C has extremely poor depth of penetration in opaque solids and turbid juices.

कथन I, II और IV सही हैं। यूवी-सी प्रकाश सूक्ष्मजीवों के डीएनए को नुकसान पहुंचाता है (I), यह साफ तरल पदार्थों और सतहों के लिए प्रभावी है (II), और पानी तथा हवा के कीटाणुशोधन में प्रयोग होता है (IV)। यह अपारदर्शी खाद्य पदार्थों के भीतर नहीं जा सकता।

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1466🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Choose the correct statements about freezing:
I. It halts microbial activity completely.
II. It preserves texture and colour perfectly.
III. Ice crystal formation may damage food cells.
IV. Freezing is a common method for meat and fish.

Explanation

Statements III and IV are correct. Large ice crystal formation during slow freezing ruptures cellular membranes causing drip loss and texture softening (III), and freezing is the premier preservation method for meats and seafood (IV). Freezing does not halt all enzymatic oxidation nor does it kill all microbes completely (psychrotrophs survive).

कथन III और IV सही हैं। बर्फ के क्रिस्टल बनने से खाद्य कोशिकाओं को नुकसान पहुंच सकता है (III) और मांस तथा मछली के संरक्षण के लिए फ्रीजिंग एक सामान्य विधि है (IV)।

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1467🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Find out the statements that are true about mycotoxins in food safety?
I. Mycotoxins are secondary metabolites produced by certain fungi.
II. Mycotoxins can be eliminated by freezing the contaminated food.
III. Mycotoxins pose risks such as carcinogenicity, hepatotoxicity, and immunosuppression.
IV. Mycotoxin contamination is influenced by temperature, humidity, and storage.

Explanation

Statements I, III, and IV are correct. Mycotoxins are fungal secondary metabolites (I) that cause carcinogenicity, organ toxicity, and immunosuppression (III), and their production depends on warm temperature and high humidity during storage (IV). Freezing does not eliminate or degrade mycotoxins (II is false).

कथन I, III और IV सही हैं। माइकोटॉक्सिन कवक द्वारा उत्पादित द्वितीयक मेटाबोलाइट्स हैं (I), जो कैंसर और यकृत विषाक्तता का कारण बनते हैं (III), और उनका निर्माण तापमान व नमी से प्रभावित होता है (IV)। फ्रीजिंग से माइकोटॉक्सिन नष्ट नहीं होते।

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1468🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Match the following:
Column - A:
i.

F_0

value
ii. Swell
iii. Hydrogen swell
iv. Thermocouple
v. 12-D concept
Column - B:
1. Lethality value indicating equivalent time at 121.1°C to kill target microbes
2. Non-microbial can swelling caused by chemical reaction with food acid
3. Bulging of can due to gas production by spoilage organisms
4. Ensures destruction of Clostridium botulinum spores by 12 log reductions
5. Instrument used to measure internal temperature during process validation

Options:

Explanation

The correct matches are:
-

F_0

value (i) -> Lethality value indicating equivalent time at 121.1°C (1)
- Swell (ii) -> Bulging of can due to gas production by spoilage organisms (3)
- Hydrogen swell (iii) -> Non-microbial can swelling caused by chemical reaction with food acid (2)
- Thermocouple (iv) -> Instrument used to measure internal temperature during process validation (5)
- 12-D concept (v) -> Ensures destruction of Clostridium botulinum spores by 12 log reductions (4)
Thus, Option D (i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-5, v-4) is correct.

सही मिलान:
-

F_0

मान (i) -> 121.1°C पर समतुल्य घातक समय मान (1)
- स्वेल (ii) -> सूक्ष्मजीवों द्वारा गैस उत्पादन के कारण डिब्बे का फूलना (3)
- हाइड्रोजन स्वेल (iii) -> भोजन के एसिड और धातु की प्रतिक्रिया से गैर-सूक्ष्मजीवी फूलना (2)
- थर्मोकपल (iv) -> आंतरिक तापमान मापने का उपकरण (5)
- 12-D अवधारणा (v) -> बोटुलिनम बीजाणुओं का 12 लॉग रिडक्शन (4)

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1469🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Match the following:
Column - A:
i. Pasteurization
ii. Sugar addition
iii. Vacuum packaging
iv. Smoking
v. Pickling
Column - B:
1. Preserves food in vinegar or brine solution
2. Uses smoke to enhance flavor and preserve meat/fish
3. Removal of air to prevent oxidation and microbial growth
4. Preserves jams and jellies by reducing water activity
5. Mild heat treatment to kill pathogens in liquids

Options:

Explanation

The correct matches are:
- Pasteurization (i) -> Mild heat treatment to kill pathogens in liquids (5)
- Sugar addition (ii) -> Preserves jams and jellies by reducing water activity (4)
- Vacuum packaging (iii) -> Removal of air to prevent oxidation and microbial growth (3)
- Smoking (iv) -> Uses smoke to enhance flavor and preserve meat/fish (2)
- Pickling (v) -> Preserves food in vinegar or brine solution (1)
Thus, Option C (i-5, ii-4, iii-3, iv-2, v-1) is correct.

सही मिलान:
- पाश्चराइजेशन (i) -> तरल पदार्थों में रोगाणुओं को मारने के लिए हल्का ताप उपचार (5)
- चीनी मिलाना (ii) -> जैम और जेली में जल सक्रियता घटाना (4)
- वैक्यूम पैकेजिंग (iii) -> हवा निकालकर ऑक्सीकरण रोकना (3)
- धूम्रपान (iv) -> धुएं से मांस/मछली का संरक्षण (2)
- अचार बनाना (v) -> सिरके या नमकीन घोल में संरक्षण (1)

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1470🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Match the following:
Column - A:
i. Pascalization
ii. 400-600 MPa
iii. Cold pasteurization
iv. Adiabatic heating
v. Non-thermal process
Column - B:
1. Typical pressure range used in HPP
2. Slight rise in temperature due to compression
3. Another name for High Pressure Processing
4. Preserves food without using high heat
5. Destruction of microbes without heat

Options:

Explanation

The correct matches are:
- Pascalization (i) -> Another name for High Pressure Processing (3)
- 400-600 MPa (ii) -> Typical pressure range used in HPP (1)
- Cold pasteurization (iii) -> Destruction of microbes without heat (5)
- Adiabatic heating (iv) -> Slight rise in temperature due to compression (~3°C per 100 MPa) (2)
- Non-thermal process (v) -> Preserves food without using high heat (4)
Thus, Option C (i-3, ii-1, iii-5, iv-2, v-4) is correct.

सही मिलान:
- पास्कलाइजेशन (i) -> HPP का दूसरा नाम (3)
- 400-600 MPa (ii) -> HPP में प्रयुक्त सामान्य दबाव सीमा (1)
- कोल्ड पाश्चराइजेशन (iii) -> बिना गर्मी के रोगाणुओं का विनाश (5)
- एडियाबेटिक हीटिंग (iv) -> संपीड़न के कारण तापमान में हल्की वृद्धि (2)
- गैर-थर्मल प्रक्रिया (v) -> बिना उच्च ताप के खाद्य संरक्षण (4)

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1471🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Match the HACCP Principles with functions in food processing:
Column - A:
i. Hazard Analysis
ii. Critical Control Point (CCP)
iii. Critical Limits
iv. Monitoring
v. Corrective Action
Column - B:
1. Scheduled observations at CCPs
2. Step when control is applied to eliminate hazards
3. Maximum or minimum values to ensure CCP control
4. Steps taken during deviation from CCP
5. Identification of potential hazards

Options:

Explanation

The 7 HACCP Principles correlate as follows:
- Hazard Analysis (i) -> Identification of potential biological, chemical, physical hazards (5)
- Critical Control Point (CCP) (ii) -> Step where control is applied to prevent or eliminate hazards (2)
- Critical Limits (iii) -> Maximum or minimum parameters (temperature, time, pH) to ensure CCP control (3)
- Monitoring (iv) -> Scheduled observations and measurements at CCPs (1)
- Corrective Action (v) -> Procedures implemented when monitoring indicates a deviation from a critical limit (4)
Thus, Option A (i-5, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1, v-4) is correct.

HACCP सिद्धांतों का सही मिलान:
- खतरा विश्लेषण (Hazard Analysis) (i) -> संभावित खतरों की पहचान (5)
- क्रिटिकल कंट्रोल पॉइंट (CCP) (ii) -> खतरे को समाप्त करने के लिए नियंत्रण बिंदु (2)
- महत्वपूर्ण सीमाएं (Critical Limits) (iii) -> अधिकतम या न्यूनतम स्वीकार्य मान (3)
- निगरानी (Monitoring) (iv) -> CCP पर निर्धारित अवलोकन (1)
- सुधारात्मक कार्रवाई (Corrective Action) (v) -> विचलन होने पर उठाए जाने वाले कदम (4)

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1472🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Write the chronology of the development of the following technologies:
I. Canning
II. Appertization
III. Pasteurization
IV. Refrigeration
V. Freezing technology

Explanation

Chronological timeline of food preservation breakthroughs:
1. (II) Appertization: Developed by Nicolas Appert in 1809 (bottling and thermal preservation in glass).
2. (I) Canning: Patented by Peter Durand in 1810 utilizing cylindrical tinplate canisters.
3. (IV) Artificial Refrigeration: Mechanical vapor-compression systems developed in the 1830s-1850s (Jacob Perkins 1834, James Harrison 1856).
4. (III) Pasteurization: Established by Louis Pasteur in the 1860s.
5. (V) Quick Freezing Technology: Commercialized by Clarence Birdseye in the 1920s.
Therefore, the chronological order is II -> I -> IV -> III -> V (Option C).

खाद्य संरक्षण प्रौद्योगिकियों का कालानुक्रम:
1. ऐपर्टाइजेशन (II) - निकोलस ऐपर्ट (1809)
2. कैनिंग (I) - पीटर डूरंड (1810)
3. प्रशीतन/रेफ्रिजरेशन (IV) - यांत्रिक शीतलन (1830-1850 के दशक)
4. पाश्चराइजेशन (III) - लुई पाश्चर (1860 के दशक)
5. क्विक फ्रीजिंग तकनीक (V) - क्लेरेंस बर्ड्सआई (1920 के दशक)।
अतः सही क्रम II, I, IV, III, V है।

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1473🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

State the chronology of development of novel technologies:
I. Clean-label with natural preservation methods
II. Ultrasound, Cold Plasma, Ohmic Heating
III. Pulsed Electric Fields (PEF)
IV. High pressure Processing (HPP)
V. Edible coatings and nanotechnology

Explanation

Chronology of non-thermal and novel food technologies:
1. High Pressure Processing (IV): Foundational food preservation experiments initiated by Hite in 1899, with modern commercialization starting in Japan in 1990.
2. Pulsed Electric Fields (PEF) (III): Early electrical pasteurization in 1920s (Electropure) and high-voltage PEF developments in the 1960s-1980s.
3. Ultrasound, Cold Plasma, Ohmic Heating (II): Advanced food processing developments in the 1990s-2000s.
4. Edible coatings and nanotechnology (V): Nanoemulsions and advanced nanocoatings developed extensively in the 2010s.
5. Clean-label with natural preservation methods (I): Consumer-driven reformulation trend prominent in recent years (late 2010s-2020s).
Thus, IV -> III -> II -> V -> I (Option A) represents the technological trajectory.

नवीन खाद्य प्रौद्योगिकियों का कालानुक्रमिक विकास:
1. उच्च दबाव प्रसंस्करण (HPP) (IV)
2. स्पंदित विद्युत क्षेत्र (PEF) (III)
3. अल्ट्रासाउंड, कोल्ड प्लाज्मा, ओमिक हीटिंग (II)
4. खाद्य कोटिंग और नैनो तकनीक (V)
5. प्राकृतिक संरक्षण विधियों के साथ क्लीन-लेबल (I)।
अतः सही क्रम IV, III, II, V, I है।

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1474🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Give the correct steps in manufacturing of processing cans:
I. Suitable metal sheets meeting food safety standards and corrosion resistance.
II. Cleaning with steam
III. Flanging, End Making
IV. Shearing body forming and welding
V. Lacquering
VI. Assembly, Testing and labelling

Explanation

The standard sequence in 3-piece processing can fabrication is:
1. (I) Selection of tinplate/ECCS metal coils/sheets meeting food grade standards.
2. (V) Internal and external lacquering and roller coating, followed by oven curing.
3. (IV) Shearing into body blanks, roll-forming cylinders, and electric resistance side-seam welding.
4. (III) Flanging of can cylinder ends and end manufacturing.
5. (II) Steam cleaning, washing, and sanitizing the fabricated can bodies.
6. (VI) Double seaming of one end (maker's end), pressure testing for pinholes, and labelling/shipping.
Thus, I -> V -> IV -> III -> II -> VI (Option B) is the authentic engineering sequence.

कैन निर्माण के सही इंजीनियरिंग चरण:
1. खाद्य-ग्रेड धातु शीट का चयन (I)
2. लैकरिंग/इनेमल कोटिंग और क्योरिंग (V)
3. बॉडी ब्लैंक काटना, बेलनाकार बनाना और वेल्डिंग (IV)
4. फ्लैंजिंग और एंड-मेकिंग (III)
5. भाप से सफाई (II)
6. परीक्षण, असेंबली और लेबलिंग (VI)।
अतः सही क्रम I-V-IV-III-II-VI है।

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1475🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Process of Manufacturing Two-Piece Aluminum Cans:
I. Food-grade aluminium alloy are used
II. Trimming Cleaning and Internal lacquer coating and external decoration
III. Cup Blanking, drawing, redrawing and Ironing
IV. Lid Manufacturing and Quality Control.
V. Necking and Flanging

Explanation

In two-piece Drawn and Ironed (D&I) beverage and food can manufacturing, the process proceeds as follows:
1. (I) Aluminum alloy coils (e.g. AA 3104/3004) uncoiled and lubricated.
2. (III) Cupping press cuts circular blanks and draws shallow cups, followed by redrawing and wall ironing (thinning walls while maintaining base thickness).
3. (II) Trimming rough edges, multi-stage acid washing/cleaning, drying, external lithographic printing/decorating, and internal protective spray lacquering.
4. (V) Necking (reducing top diameter to save end metal) and spin flanging to prepare the rim for double seaming.
5. (IV) Separate easy-open lid manufacturing, light testing, and final quality control.
Therefore, the proper sequence is I -> III -> II -> V -> IV (Option D).

टू-पीस एल्युमीनियम कैन निर्माण की प्रक्रिया:
1. फूड-ग्रेड एल्युमीनियम शीट का चयन (I)
2. कप ब्लैंकिंग, ड्राइंग और वॉल आयरनिंग (D&I) (III)
3. ट्रिमिंग, धुलाई, बाहरी प्रिंटिंग और आंतरिक लैकर कोटिंग (II)
4. नेकिंग और फ्लैंजिंग (V)
5. ढक्कन निर्माण और गुणवत्ता नियंत्रण (IV)।
अतः सही क्रम I, III, II, V, IV है।

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1476🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

Which is not part of RCC elements?

Explanation

Lintels, columns, and beams are permanent load-bearing Reinforced Cement Concrete (RCC) structural elements. Scaffolding is a temporary falsework platform erected to support workers and materials during construction.

लिंटेल, कॉलम और बीम स्थायी आरसीसी संरचनात्मक तत्व हैं, जबकि मचान (Scaffolding) निर्माण के दौरान उपयोग किया जाने वाला एक अस्थायी ढांचा है।

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1477🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

When an additional item of work is required beyond original scope, the estimate type is:

Explanation

A supplementary estimate is a fresh detailed estimate prepared during work execution when additional works or structural modifications not contemplated in the original sanctioned estimate are found necessary.

जब निर्माण के दौरान मूल कार्यक्षेत्र से परे अतिरिक्त कार्य की आवश्यकता होती है, तो पूरक अनुमान (Supplementary estimate) तैयार किया जाता है।

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1478🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

What is the purpose of a stilling basin in hydraulic structures?

Explanation

A stilling basin is a short reach of paved channel constructed at the foot of a spillway, chute, or drop structure to dissipate the high kinetic energy of supercritical flow via a hydraulic jump, preventing scouring of the downstream riverbed.

हाइड्रोलिक संरचनाओं में स्टिलिंग बेसिन (Stilling basin) का मुख्य कार्य पानी की अत्यधिक गतिज ऊर्जा को नष्ट करना (Dissipate energy) है ताकि डाउनस्ट्रीम में कटाव न हो।

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1479🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

"Consumptive use" of water includes:

Explanation

Consumptive use (evapotranspiration,

ET

) of a crop is the total quantity of water transpired by the plant leaves plus evaporation from the adjacent soil surface and plant foliage during plant growth.

पानी के उपभोगीय उपयोग (Consumptive use / Evapotranspiration) में वाष्पीकरण और वाष्पोत्सर्जन (Evaporation + transpiration) दोनों शामिल होते हैं।

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1480🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

Which material is used in damp-proofing?

Explanation

Bitumen (hot bitumen, bituminous mastic, or asphalt felt membranes) is an impermeable hydrocarbon material universally used in building construction as a Damp Proof Course (DPC) to arrest capillary rise of moisture.

भवनों में सीलन रोकने के लिए डीपीसी (DPC) में बिटुमेन (तारकोल) का उपयोग एक उत्कृष्ट जलरोधी सामग्री के रूप में किया जाता है।

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1481🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

What is a "sluice gate" used for?

Explanation

A sluice gate is a vertically movable mechanical barrier sliding in grooves used in weirs, dams, and irrigation channels to control and regulate water discharge rates and water levels.

स्लुइस गेट (Sluice gate) एक ऊर्ध्वाधर जंगला या गेट होता है जिसका उपयोग नहरों और बांधों में पानी के प्रवाह और डिस्चार्ज को नियंत्रित करने (Water discharge control) के लिए किया जाता है।

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1482🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

Gabions must be anchored to prevent:

Explanation

Gabion revetments and check dams must be properly keyed and anchored into the streambed and bank flanks to prevent overturning, sliding, and structural collapse during torrential high-velocity flood flows.

गैबियन संरचनाओं को किनारों और तल में मजबूती से लंगर डाला (anchored) जाता है ताकि बाढ़ के तेज बहाव में वे उखड़ने या ढहने (Collapse during high flow) से बच सकें।

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1483🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

Which drafting scale is best for gully layout?

Explanation

For gully stabilization layouts and site plans of conservation structures (check dams, drop structures), a medium engineering engineering scale of 1:500 (or 1:200 to 1:500) provides the optimal balance of topographic coverage and detailed structure dimensioning.

गली नियंत्रण संरचनाओं और साइट लेआउट की इंजीनियरिंग ड्राइंग के लिए 1:500 (1:500) का पैमाना सबसे उपयुक्त माना जाता है।

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1484🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

The term "gully plugging" refers to:

Explanation

Gully plugging involves constructing temporary or semi-permanent porous barriers (brushwood dams, loose boulder dams, earthen plugs) across the gully bed and at gully heads to arrest runoff velocity, trap silt, and prevent gully progression.

'गली प्लगिंग' (Gully plugging) का तात्पर्य गली के कटाव को रोकने के लिए गली के शीर्ष पर चेक डैम बनाकर कटाव को अवरुद्ध करने (Blocking gully head) से है।

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1485🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

Check dams are spaced based on:

Explanation

The horizontal spacing between successive check dams in a gully system is governed by the gully bed slope (gradient) and the compensation gradient, ensuring the crest elevation of a lower dam aligns with the apron/toe of the upstream dam.

नाली में चेक डैम के बीच की दूरी मुख्य रूप से नाली की ढलान (Gully gradient) के आधार पर तय की जाती है ताकि एक स्थिर तल ढलान प्राप्त हो सके।

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1486🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

A gravity dam resists forces by:

Explanation

A gravity dam is a massive concrete or masonry dam engineered so that its own dead weight exerts sufficient stabilizing vertical moment to counteract horizontal hydrostatic water thrust, uplift pressure, wave pressure, and earthquake forces.

गुरुत्वाकर्षण बांध (Gravity dam) अपने भारी स्वयं के वजन (Its own weight) द्वारा पानी के क्षैतिज दबाव और अन्य विरोधी बलों का मुकाबला करता है।

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1487🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

An angle greater than 180° and less than 360° is called:

Explanation

In geometry and surveying, an angle measuring strictly greater than 180° (

> 180^\circ

) and less than 360° (

< 360^\circ

) is defined as a reflex angle.

ज्यामिति में 180° से अधिक और 360° से कम के कोण को पुनर्युक्त कोण या वृहत कोण (Reflex angle) कहा जाता है।

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1488🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

What is the function of energy dissipators in spillways?

Explanation

Energy dissipators (such as hydraulic jump stilling basins, roller buckets, and baffle blocks) convert the destructive kinetic energy of high-velocity spillway flows into heat and turbulence to prevent downstream scouring and foundation undermining of the dam.

स्पिलवे में ऊर्जा क्षयकारी (Energy dissipators) का कार्य पानी के तेज प्रवाह की गतिज ऊर्जा को शांत करके डाउनस्ट्रीम में तलछट कटाव को रोकना (Prevent downstream erosion) होता है।

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1489🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

Which is a temporary gully control structure?

Explanation

Temporary gully control structures are made of inexpensive local vegetative or wood materials with a design life of 3 to 8 years; a brushwood dam (woven-wire or post-type) is the classic temporary porous gully check dam.

ब्रशवुड बांध (Brushwood dam - झाड़ियों और लकड़ी के खूंटों से बना बांध) एक अस्थायी नाली नियंत्रण संरचना (temporary gully control structure) है।

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1490🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

The minimum germination percentage required for certified seed of wheat is:

Explanation

According to the Indian Minimum Seed Certification Standards (IMSCS), certified seed of wheat (Triticum aestivum) must have a minimum germination capacity of 85% and minimum physical purity of 98%.

भारतीय न्यूनतम बीज प्रमाणीकरण मानकों (IMSCS) के अनुसार, गेहूं के प्रमाणित बीज के लिए न्यूनतम अंकुरण प्रतिशत 85% होना अनिवार्य है।

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1491🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Consider the following statements about seed certification:
i. Breeder seed is produced by plant breeder or sponsoring institution
ii. Foundation seed can be used for commercial cultivation
iii. Certified seed maintains 95% genetic purity
iv. Truthfully labeled seed has the highest purity standards
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iii are correct. Breeder seed is exclusively produced by the plant breeder or agricultural university (i), and certified seed maintains high genetic purity standards (typically 95-99% depending on crop species, iii). Foundation seed is meant for producing certified seed rather than commercial crop production (ii is false), and breeder seed (not truthfully labeled seed) has the highest purity (iv is false).

कथन i और iii सही हैं। प्रजनक बीज पादप प्रजनक द्वारा तैयार किया जाता है (i) और प्रमाणित बीज उच्च आनुवंशिक शुद्धता बनाए रखता है (iii)। आधार बीज व्यावसायिक खेती के लिए नहीं बल्कि प्रमाणित बीज बनाने के लिए होता है।

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1492🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Arrange the following in order of seed production hierarchy (highest to lowest purity):
I. Certified seed
II. Foundation seed
III. Breeder seed
IV. Truthfully labeled seed
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

The seed certification purity hierarchy in Indian seed technology from highest to lowest is: Breeder seed (100% genetic purity) -> Foundation seed (99.5%) -> Certified seed (98-99%) -> Truthfully labeled (TL) seed (Option A: III -> II -> I -> IV).

बीज उत्पादन पदानुक्रम में शुद्धता का घटता हुआ सही क्रम है: प्रजनक बीज (III) -> आधार बीज (II) -> प्रमाणित बीज (I) -> यथार्थ लेबल युक्त बीज (IV)। अतः सही विकल्प A (III, II, I, IV) है।

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1493🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Match the following entomological tools with their functions:
i. Aspirator
ii. Sweep net
iii. Killing jar
iv. Net trap
1. Capturing flying insects
2. Collecting insects from foliage
3. Instant killing of soft-bodied insects
4. Sucking small insects from surfaces
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation

Entomological collection tool functions:
- Aspirator (i) -> Sucking small insects from surfaces (4)
- Sweep net (ii) -> Collecting insects from foliage (2)
- Killing jar (iii) -> Instant killing of soft-bodied insects using ethyl acetate or cyanide (3)
- Net trap (iv) -> Capturing flying insects (1)
Thus, Option A (i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1) is the correct match.

कीट विज्ञान उपकरणों का सही मिलान:
- एस्पिरेटर (i) -> सतहों से छोटे कीटों को चूसकर पकड़ना (4)
- स्वीप नेट (ii) -> पत्तियों और फसलों से कीट एकत्र करना (2)
- किलिंग जार (iii) -> कीटों को तुरंत मारना (3)
- नेट ट्रैप (iv) -> उड़ने वाले कीटों को पकड़ना (1)। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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1494🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Crossing over occurs during:

Explanation

Genetic crossing over (homologous recombination between non-sister chromatids) takes place specifically during the Pachytene sub-stage of Prophase I in meiotic division.

अर्धसूत्रीविभाजन में क्रॉसिंग ओवर (जीन विनिमय) प्रोफेज I (विशेष रूप से पैकीटीन उप-अवस्था) के दौरान होता है।

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1495🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Gibberellins promote seed germination.
Reason (R): They break seed dormancy by promoting amylase production.
Options:

Explanation

Both Assertion and Reason are true, and R correctly explains A. During seed imbibition, the embryo releases gibberellins which diffuse to the aleurone layer to induce the de novo transcription and synthesis of hydrolytic enzymes (specifically alpha-amylase) that digest endosperm starch into maltose to nourish the growing embryo.

कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों सत्य हैं और R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है। जिबरेलिन बीज प्रसुप्ति को तोड़ते हैं क्योंकि वे एल्यूरॉन परत में अल्फा-एमाइलेज एंजाइम के उत्पादन को प्रेरित करते हैं जो स्टार्च को पचाकर अंकुरण कराता है।

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1496🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

IPM stands for:

Explanation

IPM stands for Integrated Pest Management, an ecosystem-based strategy that focuses on long-term prevention of pests and their damage through a combination of techniques such as biological control, habitat manipulation, cultural practices, and use of resistant varieties.

IPM का पूर्ण रूप 'Integrated Pest Management' (एकीकृत कीट प्रबंधन) है, जो जैविक, सांस्कृतिक और रासायनिक विधियों का समन्वित उपयोग करता है।

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1497🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Pre-harvest interval (PHI) refers to:

Explanation

The Pre-Harvest Interval (PHI) is the mandatory statutory waiting period (in days) required between the last application of a pesticide and the safe harvesting of the edible agricultural commodity, ensuring chemical residues fall below Maximum Residue Limits (MRL).

प्री-हार्वेस्ट इंटरवल (PHI) अंतिम कीटनाशक छिड़काव और फसल की कटाई के बीच का आवश्यक प्रतीक्षा समय (Time between spray and harvest) होता है ताकि अवशेष सुरक्षित स्तर पर आ जाएं।

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1498🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

The economic threshold for cotton bollworm is:

Explanation

For cotton bollworm (Helicoverpa armigera), the economic threshold level (ETL) is generally considered to be 1 larva per plant (or 5% damaged bolls/squares in cotton field monitoring).

कपास के बॉलवर्म (हेलिकोवर्पा आर्मिगेरा) के लिए आर्थिक दहलीज स्तर (ETL) सामान्यतः 1 लार्वा प्रति पौधा (या 5% क्षतिग्रस्त कलियां/डोडे) माना जाता है।

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1499🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Bt toxin is effective against:

Explanation

Endotoxins produced by Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains show insecticidal activity across multiple orders: Cry1 against Lepidoptera, Cry3 against Coleoptera, and Cry4 against Diptera.

बैसिलस थुरिंजिएंसिस (Bt) के क्रिस्टल प्रोटीन टॉक्सिन्स विभिन्न कीट गणों जैसे लेपिडोप्टेरा, कोलियोप्टेरा, और डिप्टेरा सभी के खिलाफ प्रभावी होते हैं।

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1500🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

The pest status is determined by:

Explanation

Whether an insect organism attains pest status depends on its population density exceeding equilibrium levels, the extent of economic damage it inflicts on the crop, and disrupted ecological balance (such as loss of natural enemies).

किसी जीव की कीट (pest) स्थिति उसकी जनसंख्या घनत्व, उसके द्वारा की जाने वाली आर्थिक क्षति, और पारिस्थितिक संतुलन में असंतुलन इन सभी कारकों द्वारा निर्धारित होती है।

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1501🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

The life span of worker bee during active season is:

Explanation

During the active foraging honey-flow season (spring and summer), the life span of an adult worker honey bee is approximately 4 to 6 weeks due to intense physical labor and wing wear.

सक्रिय मौसम (शहद संग्रहण और बसंत/ग्रीष्म ऋतु) के दौरान कठोर परिश्रम के कारण श्रमिक मधुमक्खी (worker bee) का जीवनकाल लगभग 4 से 6 सप्ताह का होता है।

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1502🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Spawning in mushroom cultivation refers to:

Explanation

Spawning is the process of mixing or inoculating grain-based mushroom mycelium (spawn) into the prepared pasteurized compost substrate.

मशरूम की खेती में 'स्पॉनिंग' (Spawning) का तात्पर्य तैयार कम्पोस्ट में मशरूम के बीज या माइसेलियम (spawn) को मिलाना/टीका लगाना (Inoculation with spawn) है।

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1503🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Which of the following are correct regarding composting for mushroom cultivation?
i. Wheat straw is used as the main substrate.
ii. Gypsum is added to improve structure.
iii. Pasteurization is done at 90°C for 1 hour.
iv. Composting is necessary for white button mushroom.
Options:

Explanation

Statements i, ii, and iv are correct: wheat straw is the primary carbonaceous base, gypsum is added at 30-40 kg/tonne to improve physical flocculation and buffer pH, and composting is compulsory for Agaricus bisporus. Statement iii is false because peak heating/pasteurization is performed at 58-60°C for 4-6 hours (pasteurizing at 90°C would kill beneficial thermophilic microflora and caramelize compost). Hence, Option A is correct.

कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं। कथन iii गलत है क्योंकि कम्पोस्ट का पाश्चुरीकरण 58-60°C पर किया जाता है, 90°C पर नहीं (अत्यधिक तापमान से लाभकारी थर्मोफिलिक रोगाणु नष्ट हो जाते हैं)। अतः विकल्प A (i, ii, and iv only) सही है।

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1504🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Drift during spraying can be reduced by:

Explanation

Spray droplet drift is mitigated by operating sprayers at lower operating pressures, using drift-reduction nozzles that produce larger droplet sizes (>200-250 microns), and spraying during calm weather (wind speeds < 5-8 km/h).

छिड़काव के दौरान दवा के हवा में उड़कर बहने (Drift) को कम दबाव रखने, बड़ी बूंदों का छिड़काव करने, और शांत मौसम में छिड़काव करने इन सभी उपायों से रोका जाता है।

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1505🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Which of the following statement is/ are correct about transportation of silkworm eggs
i. Supplied during eye spot stage
ii. Kept in black paper cover
iii. Exposure to direct sunlight
iv. Exposure to fumes, fertilizer
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Silkworm eggs (dfls) are ideally transported during the early morning/cool hours at the eye spot (pinhead) stage packaged carefully inside ventilated boxes wrapped in black paper to ensure darkness and uniform embryonic development. Exposure to direct sunlight, chemical fumes, and fertilizers must be strictly avoided.

रेशमकीट के अंडों (dfls) का परिवहन आई-स्पॉट (eye spot) अवस्था में काले कागज के आवरण में लपेटकर ठंडे समय में किया जाता है। सीधी धूप और रासायनिक धुएं/उर्वरकों के संपर्क से पूरी तरह बचाया जाता है। अतः कथन i और ii सही हैं।

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1506🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Ideal relative humidity for spinning cocoons

Explanation

During the mounting and cocoon spinning stage, mature silkworms release substantial moisture while extruding liquid fibroin and voiding gut contents. An ideal relative humidity of 60-70% (and temperature around 24-25°C) along with gentle aeration is required to facilitate quick drying of the sericin gum and prevent defective stained cocoons.

कोकून कताई (spinning) के समय आदर्श सापेक्ष आर्द्रता 60-70% और तापमान 24-25°C होना चाहिए ताकि रेशम का गोंद (sericin) जल्दी सूखे और अच्छी गुणवत्ता के कोकून तैयार हों।

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1507🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

The whole weight of a single cocoon is influenced by
i. Silkworm species
ii. Rearing season
iii. Harvest conditions
iv. Efficiency
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Single cocoon weight is determined by biological factors such as the silkworm species/breed (i), environmental seasonal variations in temperature and leaf quality during the rearing season (ii), and harvesting time/handling conditions (iii). Efficiency is an operational outcome metric rather than a physical determinant. Thus, i, ii and iii (Option A) is correct.

एकल कोकून का वजन रेशमकीट की प्रजाति/नस्ल (i), पालन के मौसम (तापमान और पत्ती की गुणवत्ता) (ii), और कोकून तुड़ाई की परिस्थितियों/समय (iii) से सीधे प्रभावित होता है। अतः विकल्प A (i, ii and iii) सही है।

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1508🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

A Phytoecdysteroid for synchronized maturation of silkworms

Explanation

'Sampoorna' is a commercial plant-derived phytoecdysteroid formulation developed by the Central Sericultural Research & Training Institute (CSRTI), Mysore, used by sericulturists to induce rapid, uniform, and synchronized maturation in fifth instar silkworm larvae.

'सम्पूर्णा' (Sampoorna) केंद्रीय रेशम अनुसंधान एवं प्रशिक्षण संस्थान (CSRTI) मैसूर द्वारा विकसित एक फाइटोएकडिस्टेरॉइड उत्पाद है, जिसका उपयोग 5वें इन्स्टार के रेशमकीटों को एक साथ परिपक्व (synchronized maturation) करने के लिए किया जाता है।

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1509🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Consider the following pairs
1. Basic seed production - i. Productivity of parent silkworm population
2. Industrial seed production - ii. Offspring with desirable traits
3. Parental silkworm rearing - iii. Pure and vigorous silkworm breeds
4. Hybrid seed preparation - iv. Quality silkworm eggs
Which of above pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation

Seed production hierarchy in sericulture:
- Basic seed production (P3/P2/P1) (1) -> Multiplication of pure and vigorous parental silkworm breeds under high sanitation (iii)
- Industrial seed production (2) -> Mass multiplication of commercial quality silkworm eggs (dfls) for sericulturists (iv)
- Parental silkworm rearing (3) -> Maximizing productivity and viability of parent silkworm populations (i)
- Hybrid seed preparation (4) -> Crossing selected parental lines to generate vigorous hybrid offspring with desirable traits (ii)
Thus, Option C (1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii) is the correct match.

रेशम बीज उत्पादन चरणों का सही मिलान:
- मूल बीज उत्पादन (1) -> शुद्ध और ओजस्वी रेशमकीट नस्लों का संवर्धन (iii)
- औद्योगिक बीज उत्पादन (2) -> गुणवत्तापूर्ण रेशमकीट अंडों का व्यावसायिक उत्पादन (iv)
- जनक रेशमकीट पालन (3) -> जनक आबादी की उत्पादकता बनाए रखना (i)
- संकर बीज निर्माण (4) -> वांछित लक्षणों वाली संकर संतति तैयार करना (ii)। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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1510🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Point out the factors affecting oviposition and egg laying in silkworm
i. Weight of pupa
ii. Larval density
iii. Chandrikae
iv. Mountage
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Fecundity and oviposition efficiency in silkworm female moths are directly influenced by the weight and nutritional reserves of the pupa (i) and the rearing larval density and nutritional feeding during the 5th instar (ii). Chandrikae/mountages are cocoon spinning devices used prior to pupation and not egg oviposition structures. Thus, statements i and ii (Option A) is correct.

रेशमकीट मादा पतंगे की अंडजनन क्षमता (Oviposition) और अंडों की संख्या प्यूपा के वजन (i) और लार्वा अवस्था में पोषण व लार्वा घनत्व (ii) पर सीधे निर्भर करती है। अतः विकल्प A (i and ii) सही है।

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1511🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Cocoon quality is affected by
i. Mountage
ii. Chawki tray
iii. Cocoon weight
iv. Leaf cocoon ratio
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Cocoon quality parameters (such as shape, cleanliness, defect rate, and build) are governed by the type and hygiene of the mountage (i) provided during spinning and the physical density and cocoon weight (iii). Thus, i and iii (Option C) is correct.

कोकून की गुणवत्ता सीधे चंद्रिका/माउंटेज (i) के प्रकार व स्वच्छता और कोकून के वजन (iii) से प्रभावित होती है। अतः विकल्प C (i and iii) सही है।

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1512🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Planning for silkworm rearing involves
i. Rearing House Construction
ii. Feed Management
iii. Environmental Conditions
iv. Hygiene and Disease Prevention
v. Mounting and Harvesting
vi. Field crop quality
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Comprehensive planning for commercial silkworm rearing integrates all aspects: rearing house design/construction (i), mulberry leaf feed management (ii), microclimatic regulation of temperature/humidity (iii), strict disinfection and hygiene (iv), timely mounting and harvesting (v), and ensuring field crop leaf quality (vi). Thus, all items (i to vi, Option A) are correct.

रेशमकीट पालन की समग्र योजना में कीटपालन गृह निर्माण (i), आहार प्रबंधन (ii), पर्यावरणीय परिस्थितियां (iii), स्वच्छता व रोग रोकथाम (iv), माउंटिंग व कटाई (v), और पत्ती की गुणवत्ता (vi) ये सभी छह घटक अनिवार्य रूप से शामिल होते हैं। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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1513🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

What are the points considered while Mulberry saplings are taken from nursery for transplanting
i. Uproot saplings carefully without damage to roots
ii. Checked for root borne diseases
iii. Irrigate nursery beds one month before uprooting
iv. Saplings planted as early as possible
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

When removing mulberry saplings from a nursery: saplings should be uprooted carefully without damaging roots (i), examined for root-knot nematodes or root rot diseases (ii), and transplanted to the main field as early as possible to avoid desiccation (iv). Nursery beds are irrigated 1-2 days before uprooting (not one month before), making iii incorrect.

शहतूत के पौधों को नर्सरी से उखाड़ते समय: जड़ों को नुकसान पहुंचाए बिना सावधानीपूर्वक उखाड़ा जाना चाहिए (i), जड़ जनित रोगों की जांच की जानी चाहिए (ii), और सूखने से बचाने के लिए उन्हें जल्द से जल्द रोपा जाना चाहिए (iv)। नर्सरी क्यारियों की सिंचाई उखाड़ने से 1-2 दिन पहले की जाती है (एक महीने पहले नहीं)।

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1514🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Mode of action of disinfectants in sericulture
i. Destroy pathogens
ii. Enhance resistance
iii. Disrupt microbial cells
iv. Enhance growth
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Chemical disinfectants in sericulture (such as bleaching powder, formalin, chlorine dioxide, and Sanitech) act directly on microbial pathogens by denaturing vital proteins, oxidizing enzymes, and disrupting microbial cell membranes/cell walls (i and iii), thereby eliminating pathogens from rearing appliances and rooms.

रेशम उत्पादन में कीटाणुनाशकों की कार्यप्रणाली रोगाणुओं को नष्ट करना (i) और सूक्ष्मजीवी कोशिकाओं की संरचना को विघटित करना (iii) है। वे कीटों की आंतरिक प्रतिरोधक क्षमता या वृद्धि को सीधे नहीं बढ़ाते। अतः विकल्प C (i and iii) सही है।

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1515🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

The ease with which silk threads can be extracted from cocoons during reeling
A) Mountability
B) Reedability
C) Reliantability
D) Reelability

Explanation

Reelability refers to the ease and smoothness with which silk bave (filament) unwinds from cocoons during reeling without frequent breaks.

रीलिंग के दौरान कोकून से रेशम के धागे के बिना टूटे आसानी से निकलने की क्षमता को रीलेबिलिटी (Reelability) कहा जाता है।

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1516🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

The ideal range of soil pH is
A) 6.2 to 6.8
B) 7.5 to 8.2
C) 5.5 to 6.1
D) 8.5 to 9.2

Explanation

Mulberry thrives best in soils with a slightly acidic to neutral pH range of 6.2 to 6.8, ensuring optimum nutrient availability and root growth.

शहतूत की खेती के लिए आदर्श मृदा पीएच 6.2 से 6.8 (6.2 to 6.8) होता है।

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1517🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

To control root knot, ______ is provided every four months during intercultivation operations.
A) Dithane
B) Bionematicide
C) Kavash
D) Bavistin

Explanation

To manage root knot nematode (Meloidogyne incognita) in mulberry gardens, a bionematicide (such as Bionema, neem cake, or Paecilomyces lilacinus formulations) is applied every four months during intercultivation operations.

शहतूत में जड़ गांठ सूत्रकृमि (Root knot nematode) के नियंत्रण के लिए अंतःकर्षण के दौरान हर चार महीने में बायोनेमैटिसाइड (Bionematicide) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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1518🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Number of larval stages in the life of silkworms before they undergo cocooning to form pupae
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 6

Explanation

The silkworm larva (Bombyx mori) undergoes 4 moults during its larval period, thereby passing through 5 distinct larval stages (instars: 1st to 5th instar) before attaining maturity to spin a cocoon and pupate.

रेशमकीट (Bombyx mori) का लार्वा प्यूपा बनने और कोकून कातने से पहले 4 बार त्वचा त्याग (moults) करता है और कुल 5 लार्वा अवस्थाओं (5 instars) से गुजरता है।

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1519🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Arrange the steps in silk reeling
i. Boiling
ii. Sorting
iii. Brushing
iv. Stifling
v. Re-reeling
vi. Reeling
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

The proper chronological sequence of post-cocoon silk reeling operations is: 1. Stifling (killing pupa inside without damaging shell - iv), 2. Sorting (culling defective cocoons - ii), 3. Boiling/Cooking (softening sericin gum - i), 4. Brushing (finding filament ends - iii), 5. Reeling (unwinding filaments onto small reels - vi), and 6. Re-reeling (transferring onto standard skeins - v). Hence, iv, ii, i, iii, vi, v (Option C) is the correct sequence.

सिल्क रीलिंग के चरणों का सही क्रम है: 1. स्टिफ्लिंग (iv), 2. छंटाई (ii), 3. उबालना/पकाना (i), 4. ब्रशिंग (iii), 5. रीलिंग (vi), और 6. री-रीलिंग (v)। अतः सही क्रम iv, ii, i, iii, vi, v (विकल्प C) है।

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1520🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Physiological basis influencing rooting of cuttings in mulberry
i. Gibberellic acid
ii. Peroxidase
iii. Dehydrogenase
iv. Auxins
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

The primary physiological and biochemical drivers directly regulating adventitious rooting in hardwood mulberry cuttings are endogenous auxins (IAA/IBA which initiate root primordia - iv), peroxidase enzyme activity (which regulates auxin catabolism and cell lignification during rooting phases - ii), and gibberellic acid (which influences shoot bud release and carbohydrate mobilization - i). Thus, i, ii and iv (Option D) is correct.

शहतूत की कलमों में जड़ निर्माण (rooting) को प्रभावित करने वाले मुख्य शारीरिक/जैव रासायनिक कारकों में ऑक्सिन (iv), पेरोक्सीडेज एंजाइम (ii), और जिबरेलिक एसिड (i) शामिल हैं। अतः विकल्प D (i, ii and iv) सही उत्तर है।

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1521🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Disinfectants used to prevent the incidence of silkworm diseases in silkworm rearing are
A) Vijetha
B) Vanaja
C) Vanitha
D) Vyothi

Explanation

Vijetha (and Vijetha Supplementary) is a widely recommended silkworm bed disinfectant powder developed by CSRTI Mysore, dusted over silkworm larvae during rearing and after each moult to prevent viral, fungal (muscardine), and microsporidian (pebrine) disease outbreaks.

रेशमकीट पालन में रोगों (जैसे मस्कार्डिन, ग्रेसरी) की रोकथाम के लिए कीटपालन शैय्या पर छिड़काव हेतु उपयोग किया जाने वाला लोकप्रिय और प्रमाणित कीटाणुनाशक 'विजेता' (Vijetha) है।

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1522🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Non insect pests of mulberry
i. Mites
ii. Snails
iii. Nematodes
iv. Bugs
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Mites (arachnids - Tetranychus spp.), Snails (molluscs - Cryptozona/Achatina), and Nematodes (roundworms - Meloidogyne incognita) are non-insect pests that damage mulberry. Bugs (Hemiptera) are true insects (Hexapoda). Thus, i, ii and iii (Option A) is correct.

शहतूत के गैर-कीट (non-insect) पीड़कों में घुन/माइट्स (Mites - अष्टपाद), घोंघे (Snails - मोलस्क), और सूत्रकृमि (Nematodes) शामिल हैं। 'बग' (Bugs) कीट वर्ग (Insecta) में आते हैं। अतः विकल्प A (i, ii and iii) सही है।

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1523🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Which of the following statement is/ are correct about cocoon transportation bags
i. Promote stifling
ii. HDPE bags
iii. Good aeration
iv. Disinfected easily
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Perforated woven High-Density Polyethylene (HDPE) bags or net bags are ideal for transporting live cocoons from farm to market because: HDPE material is durable and lightweight (ii), the mesh design provides continuous aeration to prevent heat generation and pupal suffocation (iii), and they can be easily cleaned and chemical-disinfected after use (iv). They do not promote stifling during transit. Hence, ii, iii and iv (Option B) is correct.

कोकून परिवहन बैगों के संबंध में: वे HDPE बैग होते हैं (ii), उनमें हवा का अच्छा आवागमन (aeration) रहता है (iii), और उन्हें आसानी से कीटाणुरहित किया जा सकता है (iv)। परिवहन के दौरान प्यूपा को जीवित रखा जाता है, स्टिफ्लिंग नहीं की जाती। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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1524🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

Identify the systems of cocoon cooking
i. Open pan
ii. Ventral method
iii. Pressurised cooking
iv. Circular cocoon boiling
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Standard scientific systems of cocoon cooking (softening cocoon sericin prior to reeling) include: Open pan system (single pan or three pan method), Pressurized cooking (multi-step pressurized boiling machines), and Circular cocoon boiling machine systems. 'Ventral method' is not a cocoon cooking method. Hence, i, iii and iv (Option C) is correct.

कोकून पकाने (cocoon cooking) की प्रमुख प्रणालियों में ओपन पैन प्रणाली (i), प्रेशराइज्ड कुकिंग (दाब युक्त पकाना - iii), और सर्कुलर कोकून बॉइलिंग (iv) शामिल हैं। 'वेंट्रल मेथड' कोई कुकिंग विधि नहीं है। अतः विकल्प C (i, iii and iv) सही है।

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1525📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations

Which of the following statements about the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is/are correct?
i. ASEAN was founded on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
ii. Brunei joined in 1984, followed by Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia between 1995 and 1999.
iii. Today, ASEAN has 10 member states, working together for regional cooperation and development.
A) Only i
B) Only i and ii
C) Only ii and iii
D) All of the above

Explanation

All three statements about ASEAN are factually correct: (i) founded on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the five founding members; (ii) Brunei joined in 1984, Vietnam in 1995, Laos and Myanmar in 1997, and Cambodia in 1999; (iii) it comprises 10 member states fostering political, security, economic, and socio-cultural cooperation.

आसियान (ASEAN) के संबंध में तीनों कथन पूरी तरह सही हैं: इसकी स्थापना 8 अगस्त 1967 को बैंकॉक घोषणापत्र द्वारा 5 देशों ने की (i); बाद में ब्रुनेई (1984), वियतनाम, लाओस, म्यांमार और कंबोडिया (1995-1999) शामिल हुए (ii); और आज इसके 10 सदस्य देश हैं (iii)। अतः विकल्प D (All of the above) सही है।

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1526📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Geography - Lakes

Match the following pairs:
Important Facts about lakes in India
i) Largest freshwater lake
ii) Largest Saline water lake
iii) Longest Lake
iv) Largest Artificial Lake

Location
1) Chilka Lake, Orissa
2) Gobind Ballabh Pant Sagar Lake
3) Wular Lake, Jammu and Kashmir
4) Vembanad lake, Kerala

Choose the correct option:
A) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
B) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
C) i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4
D) i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1

Explanation

Correct matching: i) Largest freshwater lake in India is Wular Lake, Jammu & Kashmir (3); ii) Largest brackish/saline water lake is Chilika Lake, Odisha (1); iii) Longest lake is Vembanad Lake, Kerala (96.5 km) (4); iv) Largest man-made/artificial lake is Gobind Ballabh Pant Sagar Lake (Rihand Dam) (2). Hence, i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 (Option A) is correct.

सही मिलान: सबसे बड़ी मीठे पानी की झील - वुलर झील, जम्मू और कश्मीर (3); सबसे बड़ी खारे पानी की झील - चिल्का झील, ओडिशा (1); सबसे लंबी झील - वेम्बनाड झील, केरल (4); सबसे बड़ी कृत्रिम झील - गोविंद बल्लभ पंत सागर झील (2)। अतः विकल्प A (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2) सही है।

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1527📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsHistory & Heritage of Jammu and Kashmir

The Raghunath Temple in Jammu was completed during the reign of which Dogra ruler?
A) Maharaja Hari Singh
B) Maharaja Gulab Singh
C) Maharaja Ranbir Singh
D) Raja Ranjit Dev

Explanation

The construction of the historic Raghunath Temple complex in Jammu was initiated by Maharaja Gulab Singh, the founder of the Dogra dynasty, in 1835 and was completed during the reign of his son, Maharaja Ranbir Singh, in 1860.

जम्मू के प्रसिद्ध रघुनाथ मंदिर परिसर का निर्माण महाराजा गुलाब सिंह द्वारा 1835 में शुरू किया गया था और इसे उनके पुत्र महाराजा रणबीर सिंह (Maharaja Ranbir Singh) के शासनकाल में 1860 में पूरा किया गया।

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1528📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsLakes of Jammu and Kashmir

Which lake near Jammu is known for its scenic beauty and is a popular picnic spot?
A) Surinsar Lake
B) Dal Lake
C) Wular Lake
D) Mansarovar Lake

Explanation

Surinsar Lake (located ~42 km from Jammu city, adjacent to Mansar Lake with which it shares Ramsar wetland status) is renowned for its picturesque setting amidst pine-covered hills and is a widely popular picnic destination in Jammu district.

जम्मू के निकट सुरिनसर झील (Surinsar Lake) अपनी प्राकृतिक सुंदरता, कमल के फूलों और देवदार के वनों से घिरे होने के कारण एक प्रसिद्ध पिकनिक स्थल है। यह मानसर झील के साथ जुड़वां झील के रूप में जानी जाती है।

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1529📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity & Municipalities

Which of the following statements regarding Article 243T of the Indian Constitution, inserted by the 74th Amendment Act, are correct?
A) It deals with the constitution and composition of ward committees consisting of elected members representing each ward in a Municipality.
B) It provides for the reservation of seats in every municipality for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
C) It mandates the reservation of one-third of the total number of seats for women, including women belonging to SCs and STs.
D) It allows the state legislature to provide for the reservation of seats for backward classes.

Explanation

Article 243T of the Indian Constitution (introduced by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992) explicitly provides for the reservation of seats in every Municipality for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population (Clause 1), as well as reservation for women (Clause 3). Primary subject-heading of Article 243T is 'Reservation of seats'.

74वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा जोड़ा गया अनुच्छेद 243T (Article 243T) नगर पालिकाओं में अनुसूचित जातियों (SC) और अनुसूचित जनजातियों (ST) के लिए जनसंख्या के अनुपात में सीटों के आरक्षण तथा महिलाओं के आरक्षण से संबंधित है।

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1530📚Computer Science & ITAlgorithms & Graph Theory

Which algorithm is used by Google Maps to calculate the fastest route based on travel time?
A) Breadth-First Search (BFS)
B) Depth-First Search (DFS)
C) Dijkstra's Algorithm
D) Bellman-Ford Algorithm

Explanation

Google Maps and modern GPS navigation systems model road networks as weighted directed graphs (where edge weights represent distance or real-time travel time) and use Dijkstra's Algorithm (and its heuristic variant, the A* Search algorithm) to compute the single-source shortest/fastest path between origin and destination.

गूगल मैप्स और जीपीएस नेविगेशन सिस्टम सड़क नेटवर्क के ग्राफ में सबसे तेज मार्ग (न्यूनतम यात्रा समय) की गणना करने के लिए डिजक्स्ट्रा एल्गोरिदम (Dijkstra's Algorithm / A* सर्च) का उपयोग करते हैं।

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1531📚Computer Science & ITCyber Security & Email Protocols

Which of the following best describes the purpose of DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) in email security?
A) It encrypts the entire email message to ensure only the recipient can read it.
B) It verifies that the sender's IP address is authorized to send email for the domain.
C) It adds a digital signature to the email header, enabling the receiver to verify the email's authenticity and integrity.
D) It blocks spam emails by checking the sender's IP reputation against a global blacklist.

Explanation

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) is an email authentication method that uses public-key cryptography to append a digital signature to outgoing email headers. The receiving mail server uses the sender domain's public key published in DNS to verify that the email originated from the domain and has not been altered in transit.

DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) ईमेल हेडर में एक डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर जोड़ता है, जिससे प्राप्तकर्ता मेल सर्वर प्रेषक डोमेन के सार्वजनिक कुंजी द्वारा यह सत्यापित कर सकता है कि ईमेल वास्तविक है और मार्ग में इसके साथ कोई छेड़छाड़ नहीं की गई है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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1532📚Computer Science & ITCyber Security & Malware Analysis

Which of the following techniques is commonly used by advanced computer viruses to avoid detection by antivirus software and maintain persistence on an infected system?
A) Using polymorphic code that changes its appearance each time it infects a new file, making signature-based detection difficult.
B) Utilizing public-key cryptography to encrypt payloads and trigger execution only upon receiving a remote key from a command-and-control server.
C) Altering system-level DNS resolver cache entries to redirect legitimate domain queries to attacker-controlled IP addresses.
D) Injecting kernel-mode rootkits that intercept system calls to hide files, processes, and network connections from security tools.

Explanation

Polymorphic code is a classic evasion technique employed by advanced viruses in which the virus encrypts its body with a different key and mutates its decryption routine upon each replication cycle, continuously altering its binary signature to defeat signature-based antivirus scanners.

पॉलीमॉर्फिक कोड (Polymorphic code) एक ऐसी तकनीक है जिसमें वायरस हर बार नई फाइल को संक्रमित करते समय अपनी बाइनरी बनावट/हस्ताक्षर को बदल देता है, जिससे सिग्नेचर-आधारित एंटीवायरस सॉफ्टवेयर द्वारा इसका पता लगाना अत्यंत कठिन हो जाता है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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1533📚Computer Science & ITCyber Security & Antivirus Tech

How do most modern antivirus solutions detect suspicious files that may contain viruses or malware?
A) By matching file signatures and using heuristic analysis to detect abnormal behavior.
B) By encrypting the file system and checking hashes against a global ledger.
C) By monitoring network traffic and source IPs to block threats before download.
D) By analyzing code behavior and alerting if it resembles a virus.

Explanation

Modern antivirus software combines signature-based detection (matching known file hash patterns and code snippets against a database of identified malware) with heuristic and behavioral analysis (detecting unknown, zero-day malware based on suspicious instructions, anomalies, or malicious execution patterns).

आधुनिक एंटीवायरस समाधान ज्ञात मैलवेयर के फाइल सिग्नेचर (हस्ताक्षर मिलान) और नए व अज्ञात खतरों का पता लगाने के लिए ह्यूरिस्टिक विश्लेषण (Heuristic analysis) के संयोजन का उपयोग करते हैं। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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1534📚Computer Science & ITFundamentals of Computers

What is the main difference between data and information in computer science?
A) Data and information are the same.
B) Information is unprocessed facts, while data is organized and meaningful.
C) Data is raw and unprocessed, while information is processed and meaningful.
D) Information is stored in binary, while data is not.

Explanation

In computer science, data consists of raw, unorganized, and unprocessed facts, figures, and symbols. When data is processed, organized, structured, or contextualized to provide meaning and utility, it becomes information.

कंप्यूटर विज्ञान में डेटा (Data) असंसाधित, कच्चे तथ्य और आंकड़े होते हैं, जबकि सूचना (Information) संसाधित, सुव्यवस्थित और अर्थपूर्ण डेटा होती है जो निर्णय लेने में उपयोगी होती है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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1535📚Computer Science & ITComputer Architecture

Which of the following components of a computer system is primarily responsible for executing instructions and performing arithmetic and logical operations during data processing?
A) Control Unit (CU)
B) Random Access Memory (RAM)
C) Input/Output Controller
D) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)

Explanation

The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is the core operational component of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) responsible for executing arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division) and logical decisions (AND, OR, NOT, comparisons).

अंकगणितीय तर्क इकाई (ALU - Arithmetic Logic Unit) सीपीयू का वह मुख्य घटक है जो सभी अंकगणितीय गणनाओं और तार्किक तुलनाओं को निष्पादित करने के लिए उत्तरदायी है।

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1536📚Computer Science & ITSoftware Engineering Fundamentals

Which of the following statements is NOT true about software?
A) Software is a collection of programs, procedures, and related documentation.
B) Once developed and tested, software requires no further maintenance.
C) Software becomes obsolete due to changes in the environment or requirements.
D) Software can be classified into system software and application software.

Explanation

Statement B is completely false. Software engineering principles establish that software requires continuous maintenance throughout its lifecycle (corrective, adaptive, perfective, and preventive maintenance) to patch bugs, adapt to OS/hardware updates, and fulfill evolving user needs.

कथन B गलत है क्योंकि सॉफ्टवेयर को विकसित और परीक्षण करने के बाद भी निरंतर रखरखाव (Software Maintenance - सुधारात्मक, अनुकूली और निवारक मेंटेनेंस) की आवश्यकता होती है। सॉफ्टवेयर कभी भी रखरखाव-मुक्त नहीं होता।

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1537📚Computer Science & ITCryptography & Cyber Security

What role does the RSA algorithm play in computer communication systems?
A) It compresses data to reduce transmission time and improve network efficiency.
B) It encrypts and decrypts messages to ensure secure data exchange between parties.
C) It helps in routing decisions by verifying the authenticity of network nodes.
D) It detects errors in data transmission by using mathematical checksums.

Explanation

RSA (Rivest–Shamir–Adleman) is an asymmetric public-key cryptography algorithm widely used across computer communications (SSL/TLS, HTTPS, SSH, digital signatures) to encrypt sensitive data and authenticate electronic transmissions.

आरएसए (RSA) एल्गोरिदम एक सार्वजनिक-कुंजी असममित क्रिप्टोग्राफी (Public-key cryptography) एल्गोरिदम है जिसका उपयोग पक्षों के बीच सुरक्षित डेटा विनिमय सुनिश्चित करने के लिए संदेशों को एन्क्रिप्ट और डिक्रिप्ट करने में किया जाता है।

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1538🔬General ScienceSemiconductor Electronics

Match the following Operation Characteristics:
Column - A (Diodes)
i) Zener Diode
ii) Tunnel Diode
iii) Schottky Diode
iv) Varactor Diode

Column - B (Characteristics)
1. Negative resistance region due to tunneling
2. Sharp breakdown voltage in reverse bias
3. Low forward voltage drop (~0.2-0.3 V)
4. Junction capacitance varies with reverse bias

Choose the correct option:
A) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
B) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
C) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
D) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3

Explanation

Diode characteristics: i) Zener Diode exhibits sharp breakdown voltage in reverse bias, used in voltage regulation (2); ii) Tunnel Diode exhibits negative differential resistance due to quantum mechanical tunneling (1); iii) Schottky Diode has metal-semiconductor junction with low forward voltage drop ~0.2-0.3 V and fast switching (3); iv) Varactor Diode functions as a voltage-variable capacitor where junction capacitance varies with reverse bias (4). Hence, i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4 (Option A) is correct.

डायोड विशेषताओं का सही मिलान: जेनर डायोड - पश्च अभिनति में तीव्र ब्रेकडाउन वोल्टेज (2); टनल डायोड - क्वांटम टनलिंग के कारण ऋणात्मक प्रतिरोध क्षेत्र (1); शॉटकी डायोड - कम अग्र वोल्टेज पात ~0.2-0.3 V (3); वैरेक्टर डायोड - पश्च अभिनति के साथ संधि धारिता में परिवर्तन (4)। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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1539🔬General ScienceSemiconductor Electronics

In a BJT transistor α is common base current gain and β is common emitter current gain. What is relation between α and β
A) α = β / (1 - β)
B) α = β / (1 + β)
C) α = β / (β - 1)
D) Relation between α and β depends on circuit

Explanation

In bipolar junction transistors (BJTs), collector current I_C = α I_E and I_C = β I_B. Since emitter current I_E = I_B + I_C, substituting gives I_C/α = (I_C/β) + I_C, leading to 1/α = (1/β) + 1 = (1 + β)/β. Inverting yields the standard fundamental formula: α = β / (1 + β).

BJT ट्रांजिस्टर में उभयनिष्ठ आधार धारा लाभ α और उभयनिष्ठ उत्सर्जक धारा लाभ β के बीच का मूलभूत संबंध α = β / (1 + β) होता है।

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1540📊EconomicsIndian Agriculture & Green Revolution

What was the main technological innovation introduced during the Green Revolution?
A) Use of green manure
B) Organic farming
C) Crop rotation
D) High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds

Explanation

The core technological cornerstone of the Green Revolution in the mid-1960s was the adoption of dwarf, semi-dwarf High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds of wheat and rice (developed by Norman Borlaug and introduced in India under M.S. Swaminathan), accompanied by chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and assured irrigation.

1960 के दशक की हरित क्रांति (Green Revolution) का मुख्य तकनीकी नवाचार उच्च उपज देने वाली किस्म के बीज (HYV seeds - High Yielding Variety seeds) थे, जिसने गेहूं और चावल की उत्पादकता में अभूतपूर्व वृद्धि की।

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1541📊EconomicsEmployment & Unemployment

Unemployment that occurs due to a mismatch between the skills of workers and the requirements of jobs is called:
A) Structural unemployment
B) Frictional unemployment
C) Seasonal unemployment
D) Disguised unemployment

Explanation

Structural unemployment arises from fundamental long-term shifts in an economy (such as technological advancement or industrial restructuring) creating a qualitative mismatch between the skills possessed by job seekers and the specific technical qualifications demanded by employers.

श्रमिकों के कौशल और उपलब्ध नौकरियों की आवश्यकताओं के बीच असंतुलन या बेमेल होने के कारण उत्पन्न बेरोजगारी को 'संरचनात्मक बेरोजगारी' (Structural unemployment) कहा जाता है।

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1542📚StatisticsVital Statistics & Demographic Indicators

Which is a demographic indicator of health?
A) Oxygen level
B) Life expectancy
C) Literacy rate
D) Blood group

Explanation

Life expectancy at birth (e_0) is the universally recognized demographic indicator of overall population health and socio-economic wellbeing, measuring the average number of years a newborn is expected to live under prevailing mortality rates.

जनसांख्यिकीय स्वास्थ्य संकेतकों में 'जीवन प्रत्याशा' (Life expectancy) सबसे प्रमुख संकेतक है, जो किसी जनसंख्या के समग्र स्वास्थ्य और दीर्घायु को दर्शाता है।

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1543📚Electronics & CommunicationSignals and Systems (DTFT)

If the Fourier Transform of x[n] is X(e^(jω)), then what will be the Fourier Transform of x[-n]? A) X(e^(-jω))
B) X(e^(jω)) C) X(-e^(-jω))
D) X*(-e^(jω))

Explanation

By the properties of the Discrete-Time Fourier Transform (DTFT): time reversal gives x[-n] <-> X(e^(-jω)), and complex conjugation gives x[n] <-> X(e^(-jω)). Applying both properties simultaneously yields the time-reversal conjugation property: x[-n] <-> X(e^(jω)). Hence, Option B is correct.

असतत-समय फूरियर रूपांतरण (DTFT) के गुणों के अनुसार: समय उत्क्रमण x[-n] <-> X(e^-jω) और संयुग्मी गुणधर्म x[n] <-> X(e^-jω) दोनों को एक साथ लागू करने पर x[-n] <-> X(e^jω) प्राप्त होता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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1544📚Electrical EngineeringSignals and Systems

For a periodic signal v(t) = 30 sin(100t) + 10 cos(300t) + 6 sin(500t + π/4), the fundamental frequency in rad/s is
A) 300
B) 450
C) 100
D) 720

Explanation

The individual harmonic frequencies present in the composite signal are ω_1 = 100 rad/s, ω_2 = 300 rad/s, and ω_3 = 500 rad/s. The fundamental frequency ω_0 is the greatest common divisor (GCD) of the constituent frequencies: ω_0 = GCD(100, 300, 500) = 100 rad/s.

संयुक्त आवर्ती सिग्नल में उपस्थित विभिन्न कोणीय आवृत्तियाँ 100, 300 और 500 rad/s हैं। मूल आवृत्ति (Fundamental frequency) इन आवृत्तियों का महत्तम समापवर्तक (GCD) होती है: GCD(100, 300, 500) = 100 rad/s। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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1545📚Electronics & CommunicationSemiconductor Devices (MOS vs Bipolar)

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A) MOS devices require fewer manufacturing cycles
B) MOS devices are the fastest devices
C) MOS gates dissipate less power per gate
D) MOS gates require less space on the silicon wafer

Explanation

Bipolar devices (such as ECL - Emitter Coupled Logic) and modern Gallium Arsenide/SiGe devices are inherently faster than MOS devices due to high transconductance and minority carrier transport dynamics. Statement B ('MOS devices are the fastest devices') is factually incorrect.

MOS उपकरणों के संबंध में कथन B गलत है, क्योंकि बाइपोलर उपकरण (विशेषकर ECL - Emitter Coupled Logic) MOS उपकरणों की तुलना में काफी तेज होते हैं। MOS की मुख्य खूबियां कम बिजली खपत और उच्च एकीकरण घनत्व हैं।

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1546📚Electronics & CommunicationSignals & Systems (Fourier Transform)

A signal x(t) has a Fourier transform X(jω). If x(t) is a real and odd function of t, then X(jω) is
A) A real and even function of ω
B) An imaginary and even function of ω
C) An imaginary and odd function of ω
D) A real and odd function of ω

Explanation

By Fourier transform symmetry properties: if a continuous-time signal x(t) is real and odd [x(-t) = -x(t) and x(t) = x(t)], its Fourier transform X(jω) is purely imaginary and an odd function of ω [X(-jω) = -X(jω) = X(jω)].

फूरियर रूपांतरण समरूपता गुणों के अनुसार: यदि कोई वास्तविक सिग्नल विषम (odd) फलन है, तो उसका फूरियर रूपांतरण X(jω) विशुद्ध रूप से काल्पनिक और विषम फलन (purely imaginary and odd function of ω) होता है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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1547📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems (Time Domain Analysis)

For a second-order system, the natural frequency of oscillation is 10 rad/s, and the damping ratio is 0.1. What is the 2% settling time?
A) 2 s
B) 2.5 s
C) 3.2 s
D) 4 s

Explanation

The settling time for a 2% tolerance band in a standard second-order system is given by t_s = 4 / (ζ ω_n). Substituting given values: t_s = 4 / (0.1 10) = 4 / 1 = 4 seconds.

द्वितीय-क्रम प्रणाली के लिए 2% सहिष्णुता बैंड में सेटलिंग समय t_s = 4 / (ζ ω_n) होता है। मान रखने पर: t_s = 4 / (0.1 10) = 4 सेकंड। अतः विकल्प D सही है।

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1548📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems (Feedback Characteristics)

Consider the following statements concerning a feedback control system:
i. Accuracy cannot be obtained by adjusting the loop gain
ii. Feedback decreases overall gain
iii. Introduction of noise due to a sensor increases the overall gain
iv. Introduction of feedback may lead to the possibility of instability in a closed-loop system
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) i and iii
B) ii and iv
C) i and iv
D) ii and iii

Explanation

Fundamental properties of negative feedback: (ii) Negative feedback reduces overall system gain by a factor of (1 + GH); and (iv) High gain or excessive phase lag in feedback can push closed-loop poles into the right half of the s-plane, causing instability. Thus, ii and iv (Option B) is correct.

फीडबैक नियंत्रण प्रणाली में: ऋणात्मक फीडबैक कुल लब्धि (overall gain) को घटाता है (ii) और फीडबैक के कारण बंद लूप प्रणाली में अस्थिरता (instability) की संभावना उत्पन्न हो सकती है (iv)। अतः कथन ii और iv (विकल्प B) सही हैं।

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1549📚Electronics & CommunicationSuperheterodyne Receiver

During the frequency conversion (heterodyning) in a superheterodyne receiver, the original modulation on the signal:
A) Is completely removed
B) Is reduced in amplitude
C) Is shifted to a new frequency but remains unchanged
D) Is distorted and lost

Explanation

In a superheterodyne receiver mixer stage, the incoming RF signal is heterodyned (multiplied) with a local oscillator signal to produce the fixed Intermediate Frequency (IF). The mixer translates/shifts the carrier spectrum down to the IF while preserving all original amplitude, frequency, and phase modulation without distortion.

सुपरहेटरोडाइन रिसीवर में मिक्सर द्वारा आवृत्ति रूपांतरण (heterodyning) के दौरान मूल मॉडुलन पूरी तरह सुरक्षित रहता है और केवल उसकी वाहक आवृत्ति एक नए मध्यवर्ती आवृत्ति (IF) पर स्थानांतरित हो जाती है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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1550📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

The term "pumped-storage hydropower" has been recently highlighted in the context of which of the following?
A) Irrigation of terraced agricultural land
B) Lift irrigation for cereal crop cultivation
C) Long-duration storage of electrical energy
D) Rainwater collection and harvesting systems

Explanation

Pumped-storage hydropower (PSH) functions as a giant gravitational 'water battery'. It stores electrical energy during low demand/excess renewable generation periods by pumping water from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir, and generates electricity during peak demand by releasing it back through turbines, providing cost-effective long-duration grid energy storage.

पम्प-स्टोरेज हाइड्रोपावर (PSH) एक विशाल ग्रैविटेशनल 'वॉटर बैटरी' की तरह कार्य करता है। यह ऑफ-पीक या अतिरिक्त सौर/पवन ऊर्जा के समय निचले जलाशय से पानी को ऊपरी जलाशय में पंप करता है और पीक डिमांड के समय टरबाइन के जरिए बिजली उत्पन्न करके ग्रिड को लंबे समय तक ऊर्जा भंडारण (Long-duration energy storage) प्रदान करता है।

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1551📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power

Which of the following statements about surge tanks is INCORRECT?
A) The ideal location of the surge tank is at the turbine inlet
B) A decrease in load demand causes a rise in water level in the surge tank
C) Surge tanks are completely closed to avoid the entry of unwanted objects into the penstock
D) Surge tanks are installed to reduce the harmful effects of the water hammer phenomenon

Explanation

Surge tanks are open storage reservoirs (open to atmospheric pressure at the top) located near the turbine end of a long penstock. They absorb water hammer pressure transients during sudden closure of turbine valves and provide water during load pickup. They are NOT completely closed hermetic vessels.

सर्ज टैंक खुले शीर्ष वाले जलाशय होते हैं जो वायुमंडलीय दबाव के संपर्क में रहते हैं ताकि वाटर हैमर (जल आघात) के दबाव को अवशोषित कर सकें। यह कथन गलत है कि 'सर्ज टैंक पूरी तरह से बंद होते हैं'। अतः विकल्प C गलत कथन है।

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1552📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power

A penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is:
A) A conduit connecting the forebay to the scroll case of the turbine
B) A nozzle that releases high-pressure water on turbine blades
C) A pipe connected to the runner outlet
D) A pipe connecting the surge tank to the dam

Explanation

A penstock is a large conduit (steel pipe or tunnel) that carries high-pressure water from the forebay or surge tank directly to the scroll casing / runner of the hydraulic turbine.

जलविद्युत संयंत्र में पेनस्टॉक (Penstock) एक बंद पाइप या नली (Conduit) होती है जो जलाशय/फोरबे/सर्ज टैंक से उच्च दबाव वाले पानी को टरबाइन के स्क्रोल केस तक ले जाती है।

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1553📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power

Which of the following is NOT a reaction turbine?
A) Francis turbine
B) Pelton wheel turbine
C) Kaplan turbine
D) Propeller turbine

Explanation

The Pelton wheel turbine is a tangential flow impulse turbine that operates under high head and low discharge, where all the pressure energy of water is converted into kinetic energy in nozzles before reaching the buckets. In contrast, Francis, Kaplan, and Propeller turbines are reaction turbines.

पेल्टन व्हील एक आवेग (Impulse) टरबाइन है, न कि प्रतिक्रिया (Reaction) टरबाइन। फ्रांसिस, काप्लान और प्रोपेलर टरबाइन प्रतिक्रिया टरबाइन के उदाहरण हैं।

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1554📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power

What is the runaway speed of the runner of the Pelton wheel?
A) Maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to a sudden increase in load on the turbine
B) Minimum safe speed of the runner due to a sudden decrease in load on the turbine
C) Minimum safe speed of the runner due to a sudden increase in load on the turbine
D) Maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to a sudden decrease in load on the turbine

Explanation

The runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is the maximum speed attained by the runner under maximum head when the external load is suddenly dropped to zero and the governing mechanism fails to close the inlet valves/nozzles. Pelton wheel runners are designed structurally to withstand this maximum runaway speed (which can be 1.8 to 2 times rated speed).

रनवे स्पीड (Runaway speed) वह अधिकतम असुरक्षित गति है जो टरबाइन पर अचानक भार समाप्त (decrease in load) होने और गवर्नर के विफल हो जाने पर प्राप्त होती है जब पानी का प्रवाह पूरी तरह खुला रहता है।

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1555📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power

The power output from a hydroelectric power plant depends on which of the following parameters?
A) Head, type of dam, and discharge
B) Head, discharge, and efficiency of the system
C) Efficiency of the system, type of draft tube, and type of turbine used
D) Type of dam, discharge, and type of catchment area

Explanation

The electrical power output of a hydro plant is governed by P = η ρ g Q H, where ρ is water density, g is acceleration due to gravity, Q is volumetric discharge (flow rate), H is net head, and η is the overall system efficiency.

जलविद्युत संयंत्र का विद्युत उत्पादन समीकरण P = η·ρ·g·Q·H द्वारा दिया जाता है। अतः यह मुख्य रूप से शीर्ष (Head), विसर्जन (Discharge), और प्रणाली की दक्षता (Efficiency) पर निर्भर करता है।

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1556📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentEnergy Management & Conservation

What is the primary goal of energy management?
A) Maximising energy consumption
B) Optimising energy usage
C) Minimising energy efficiency
D) Reducing energy conservation

Explanation

The fundamental objective of energy management is to achieve and maintain optimum energy procurement and utilization throughout the organization, minimising energy costs and environmental impacts without affecting production, comfort, or quality.

ऊर्जा प्रबंधन (Energy Management) का प्राथमिक लक्ष्य उत्पादन और गुणवत्ता को प्रभावित किए बिना ऊर्जा के उपयोग को इष्टतम (Optimize) करना तथा ऊर्जा लागत व पर्यावरणीय प्रभावों को न्यूनतम करना है।

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1557📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power

Which factor is NOT typically considered in the selection of a site for a hydroelectric power station?
A) Geological stability
B) Vegetation density
C) Water flow variability
D) Wind speed

Explanation

Selecting a site for a hydroelectric power station requires evaluating water flow availability, hydraulic head, geological stability of dam foundations, sedimentation, and catchment ecology/vegetation. Wind speed is relevant for wind farms, not hydroelectric stations.

हाइड्रोइलेक्ट्रिक पावर स्टेशन के स्थल चयन में पानी का प्रवाह, शीर्ष, भूवैज्ञानिक स्थिरता और जलसंभर वनस्पति पर विचार किया जाता है। पवन की गति (Wind speed) पवन ऊर्जा संयंत्रों के लिए प्रासंगिक है, हाइड्रो पावर के लिए नहीं।

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1558📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power

Which of the following types of draft tubes has the minimum efficiency?
A) Elbow draft tube with varying cross-section shape
B) Simple elbow draft tube
C) Conical draft tube
D) Moody spreading draft tube

Explanation

Among the common draft tubes, the simple elbow draft tube has the lowest efficiency (about 60%) because of high eddy and flow separation losses at the sharp bend. Conical draft tubes achieve up to 90% efficiency, and Moody spreading draft tubes reach ~85-88%.

साधारण कोहनी (Simple elbow) ड्राफ्ट ट्यूब में तीखे मोड़ के कारण भंवर और प्रवाह पृथक्करण की हानियाँ सबसे अधिक होती हैं, जिससे इसकी दक्षता न्यूनतम (लगभग 60%) होती है, जबकि शंक्वाकार ड्राफ्ट ट्यूब की दक्षता लगभग 90% तक होती है।

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1559📚Computer Science & Information TechnologyComputer Science & IT

Which of the following is a key application of Computer-Aided Design (CAD) in industrial engineering?
A) Product design and visualisation
B) Production scheduling
C) Manufacturing process simulation
D) Material handling system optimisation

Explanation

Computer-Aided Design (CAD) software is primarily utilized to create, modify, analyse, and visualise 2D technical drawings and 3D geometric models of physical parts and products.

औद्योगिक इंजीनियरिंग में कंप्यूटर-एडेड डिज़ाइन (CAD) का मुख्य अनुप्रयोग उत्पादों का सटीक 2D/3D डिज़ाइन और विज़ुअलाइज़ेशन तैयार करना है।

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1560📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power

Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: A reaction turbine is one in which only a part of the potential energy of waste water is converted into purified water and the balance remains as head rate of process.
Statement 2: In a Pelton's wheel, the total potential head is changed into kinetic head for affecting the motion of the runner, while in a Francis wheel, only a part of it is converted.
Choose the correct option:
A) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
B) Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect
C) Statement 1 and 2 are correct
D) Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

Explanation

Statement 1 is completely false/nonsensical: a hydraulic turbine converts water's potential and pressure energy into mechanical power, not wastewater purification. Statement 2 is technically correct: in a Pelton wheel (impulse turbine), 100% of the available pressure/potential head is converted into kinetic energy via nozzle jets before reaching the runner, whereas in a Francis wheel (reaction turbine), only a fraction is converted into kinetic energy in guide vanes while the remainder exists as pressure head throughout the runner. Hence, Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect.

कथन 1 पूरी तरह असत्य है क्योंकि टरबाइन अपशिष्ट जल को शुद्ध पानी में नहीं बदलता। कथन 2 बिल्कुल सही है: पेल्टन व्हील (आवेग टरबाइन) में कुल शीर्ष को नोजल द्वारा गतिज शीर्ष में बदला जाता है, जबकि फ्रांसिस व्हील में केवल एक भाग गतिज ऊर्जा में बदलता है और शेष दाब शीर्ष के रूप में रहता है। अतः कथन 2 सही और 1 गलत है।

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1561📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power

Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Turbine):
1. Pelton Turbine
2. Francis Turbine
3. Kaplan and Propeller Turbines
List - II (Specific speed in RPM / SI units):
i. 10 to 35
ii. 60 to 300
iii. 300 to 1000
Choose the correct option:
A) (1) - i, (2) - ii, (3) - iii
B) (1) - ii, (2) - iii, (3) - i
C) (1) - iii, (2) - i, (3) - ii
D) (1) - iii, (2) - ii, (3) - i

Explanation

The specific speed (Ns = N√P / H^(5/4) in metric units) ranges for hydraulic turbines are: Pelton turbine (single jet: 10 to 35, multi-jet up to 60); Francis turbine (medium specific speed: 60 to 300); Kaplan and Propeller turbines (high specific speed: 300 to 1000). Thus, 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii.

विशिष्ट गति (Specific speed) की श्रेणियां: 1. पेल्टन टरबाइन = i (10 से 35 rpm); 2. फ्रांसिस टरबाइन = ii (60 से 300 rpm); 3. काप्लान और प्रोपेलर टरबाइन = iii (300 से 1000 rpm)। सही कोड (1)-i, (2)-ii, (3)-iii है।

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1562📚Mechanical Engineering & MechanicsApplied Mechanics

Which of the following forms the basis of rigid bodies and strength of materials?
A) The Centroid
B) Centre of gravity
C) Moment of Inertia
D) None of the above

Explanation

Moment of inertia (second moment of area in beam flexure, and mass moment of inertia in rigid body dynamics) is the fundamental geometric and dynamic property governing rotational resistance, flexural stiffness, and structural stability in strength of materials.

जड़त्व आघूर्ण (Moment of Inertia) दृढ़ पिंडों की घूर्णन गति और पदार्थों के सामर्थ्य (Strength of Materials, जैसे बीम में बंकन प्रतिरोध I) का मूल आधार बनता है।

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1563📚Civil & Environmental EngineeringEnvironmental & Water Resources

Consider the following statements:
i. The quality of wastewater is determined on the basis of DO.
ii. The BOD test is based on DO.
iii. Determination of DO helps in controlling corrosion.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) i and ii
B) ii and iii
C) i and iii
D) i, ii, and iii

Explanation

All three statements are correct: (i) Dissolved Oxygen (DO) is a critical index for wastewater and natural river health; (ii) The standard BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) test directly measures the depletion of DO over a specified incubation period (BOD = (DO_initial - DO_final) * dilution factor); (iii) Measuring and removing DO in boiler feed water and piping is essential to prevent electrochemical oxygen pitting corrosion.

तीनों कथन सत्य हैं: (i) घुलित ऑक्सीजन (DO) अपशिष्ट जल की गुणवत्ता का प्रमुख सूचक है; (ii) BOD परीक्षण सीधे DO की खपत पर आधारित होता है; (iii) बॉयलर और पाइप में संक्षारण (Corrosion) को रोकने के लिए DO का निर्धारण व निष्कासन आवश्यक है।

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1564📚Mechanical EngineeringTheory of Machines

Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: A flywheel used in machines serves as a reservoir, which stores energy during the period when the supply of energy is more than the requirement, and release it during the period when the requirement of energy is more than the supply.
Statement 2: A flywheel controls the speed variations caused by the fluctuation of the engine turning moment during each cycle of operation.
Choose the correct option:
A) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
B) Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect
C) Statement 1 and 2 are correct
D) Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

Explanation

Both statements are correct. A flywheel stores excess kinetic energy during power strokes and supplies it during non-power strokes, thus smoothing out cyclic fluctuations in turning moment and keeping engine angular speed within narrow limits during each operating cycle.

दोनों कथन सत्य हैं: फ्लाईवहील अतिरिक्त ऊर्जा को अवशोषित करके कमी वाले स्ट्रोक में रिलीज करता है (कथन 1), और इंजन के प्रत्येक चक्र के दौरान टर्निंग मोमेंट में उतार-चढ़ाव के कारण होने वाले गति परिवर्तनों को नियंत्रित करता है (कथन 2)।

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1565📚Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing & Machine Tools

What is the number of jaws in self-centred chuck?
A) 1 jaw
B) 2 jaws
C) 3 jaws
D) 4 jaws

Explanation

A self-centering lathe chuck (also known as a universal chuck or scroll chuck) typically contains 3 jaws that move radially in unison when turned by a single pinion key, automatically centering cylindrical workpieces.

लेथ मशीन के सेल्फ-सेंटरिंग चक (यूनिवर्सल चक) में जबड़ों (Jaws) की संख्या 3 होती है। इसके तीनों जबड़े एक साथ स्क्रोल मैकेनिज्म द्वारा गति करते हैं और गोल कार्यखंड को स्वतः केंद्र में लाते हैं।

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1566📚Mechanical EngineeringMaterials Science & Metallurgy

_______ is the property of the material that enables it to be drawn out or elongated to an appreciable extent before rupture occurs.
A) Flakiness
B) Abrasion
C) Ductility
D) Absorption

Explanation

Ductility is the mechanical property of a material enabling it to undergo significant plastic deformation and elongation under tensile stress (such as being drawn into thin wires) before fracturing.

तन्यता (Ductility) पदार्थ का वह गुण है जो इसे टूटने (Rupture) से पहले पर्याप्त सीमा तक खींचे जाने या तार के रूप में लंबा होने की अनुमति देता है।

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1567📚Mechanical Engineering & MechanicsApplied Mechanics

When a bus starts suddenly, the passengers are pushed back. This is example of which of the following?
A) Newton's first law
B) Newton's second law
C) Newton's third law
D) None of the above

Explanation

When a stationary bus suddenly starts moving, the passengers' lower bodies accelerate forward with the bus while their upper bodies tend to stay at rest due to inertia of rest, causing them to fall or feel pushed backwards. This is a classic demonstration of Newton's First Law of Motion (Law of Inertia).

जब कोई बस अचानक चलती है, तो विराम के जड़त्व (Inertia of rest) के कारण यात्री पीछे की ओर धक्का महसूस करते हैं। यह न्यूटन के प्रथम गति नियम (Newton's first law / जड़त्व का नियम) का प्रत्यक्ष उदाहरण है।

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1568📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsHistory of Jammu & Kashmir

During the rule of which dynasty, Muslim saints started coming to Jammu?
A) Dhar dynasty
B) Rai dynasty
C) Dev dynasty
D) Gonanda dynasty

Explanation

According to the historical chronicles of Jammu (such as Gulabnama and Tarikh-i-Dogra Desh), Muslim saints and Sufis, including Pir Roshan Ali Shah and Pir Mitha, first began arriving in Jammu during the reign of the Rai dynasty (which preceded the Dev dynasty).

जम्मू के ऐतिहासिक स्रोतों (जैसे गुलाबनामा) के अनुसार, जम्मू में मुस्लिम संतों और सूफियों (जैसे पीर रोशन अली शाह) का आगमन राय राजवंश (Rai dynasty) के शासनकाल के दौरान प्रारंभ हुआ था। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1569📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Culture & Festivals

In which Indian state is the flamingo festival celebrated?
A) Rajasthan
B) Assam
C) Jammu & Kashmir
D) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

The Flamingo Festival is celebrated annually in Andhra Pradesh at Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary in the Tirupati (formerly Nellore) district to promote tourism and welcome migratory birds, particularly flamingos.

फ्लेमिंगो महोत्सव (Flamingo Festival) आंध्र प्रदेश में पुलीकट झील और नेलापट्टू पक्षी अभयारण्य (तिरुपति/नेल्लोर जिला) में प्रवासी पक्षियों के स्वागत और पर्यटन को बढ़ावा देने के लिए प्रतिवर्ष आयोजित किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

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1570📚General Awareness & Mental AbilityResearch Aptitude

Research can be conducted by a person who:
A) holds a postgraduate degree
B) has studied research methodology
C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability
D) is a hard worker

Explanation

In UGC NET, educational aptitude, and general competitive pedagogy questions, the primary core trait required to conduct research is the fundamental possession of critical thinking, inquiry, and logical reasoning ability (possesses thinking and reasoning ability).

शैक्षणिक और अनुसंधान अभिवृत्ति के मानक सिद्धांतों के अनुसार, अनुसंधान ऐसे व्यक्ति द्वारा प्रभावी ढंग से किया जा सकता है जिसके पास सोचने और तर्क करने की क्षमता (possesses thinking and reasoning ability) हो। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प C है।

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1571📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Affairs & Bilateral Agreements

India launched the 'NET Zero' Innovation Virtual Centre with which country?
A) USA
B) UK
C) Australia
D) South Korea

Explanation

India and the United Kingdom (UK) jointly announced the creation of the India-UK 'NET Zero' Innovation Virtual Centre at the India-UK Science & Innovation Council meeting to facilitate joint research on decarbonisation of manufacturing and green hydrogen.

भारत और यूनाइटेड किंगडम (UK) ने विनिर्माण के डीकार्बोनाइजेशन और हरित हाइड्रोजन जैसे क्षेत्रों में सहयोग को बढ़ावा देने के लिए 'नेट जीरो' इनोवेशन वर्चुअल सेंटर (Net Zero Innovation Virtual Centre) शुरू करने की घोषणा की। अतः सही विकल्प B (UK) है।

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1572📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography & Tourism of Jammu & Kashmir

The north India's largest zoo 'Jamboo Zoo' is situated in
A) Udhampur
B) Srinagar
C) Pahalgam
D) Nagrota

Explanation

North India's largest zoological park, the Jamboo Zoo, named after King Jambu Lochan, is situated in Nagrota (Khanpur), Jammu, along the Jammu-Srinagar National Highway.

उत्तर भारत का सबसे बड़ा चिड़ियाघर 'जाम्बू चिड़ियाघर' (Jamboo Zoo), जिसका नाम राजा जाम्बू लोचन के नाम पर रखा गया है, जम्मू के नगरोटा (खानपुर) में स्थित है। इसका उद्घाटन 2023 में किया गया था। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

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1573📚General EnglishCloze Test & Fill in the Blanks

Complete the following sentence by choosing the right option.
Kashmir is my favourite holiday ________ in India. I had gone with my family last summer. Gulmarg is a ________ to the eyes with a spread of ________ flowers against snow-capped mountains as ________
A) destination, sight, beautiful, paintings
B) place, delight, wonderful, border
C) spot, sight, beautiful, premise
D) destination, treat, vibrant, backgrounds

Explanation

Fitting the words into context:
- 'favourite holiday destination'
- 'Gulmarg is a treat to the eyes'
- 'spread of vibrant flowers'
- 'against snow-capped mountains as backgrounds'
This completes the passage naturally and idiomatically.

संदर्भ के अनुसार सबसे उपयुक्त शब्द समूह:
- 'favourite holiday destination' (पसंदीदा अवकाश गंतव्य)
- 'a treat to the eyes' (आंखों को सुकून देने वाला)
- 'spread of vibrant flowers' (जीवंत रंग-बिरंगे फूलों का फैलाव)
- 'as backgrounds' (पृष्ठभूमि के रूप में)
अतः सही विकल्प D है।

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1574📚General EnglishSynonyms

Choose the correct synonym of the given word:
Consummation
A) Act of forgiveness
B) Act of devouring
C) Failure
D) Ultimate completion

Explanation

'Consummation' means the point at which something is complete, finalized, or perfected; the ultimate completion or achievement of a goal or state.

'Consummation' का अर्थ किसी कार्य की पूर्णता, पराकाष्ठा या समापन होता है। इसका सही समानार्थी 'Ultimate completion' (अंतिम पूर्णता) है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।

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1575📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITNetworking Protocols (HTTP & URI)

In the network HTTP resources are located by
A) Uniform resource identifier
B) Unique resource locator
C) Unique resource identifier
D) Union resource locator

Explanation

In computer networking and the World Wide Web, web resources (documents, images, endpoints) requested via HTTP/HTTPS are identified and located by Uniform Resource Identifiers (URIs), of which URLs are a specific subtype.

कंप्यूटर नेटवर्क और वर्ल्ड वाइड वेब पर HTTP संसाधनों की पहचान और स्थान यूनिफ़ॉर्म रिसोर्स आइडेंटिफ़ायर (Uniform Resource Identifier - URI) द्वारा निर्धारित किया जाता है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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1576📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITCyber Security & E-Banking

'Skimming' in e-banking is a method of
A) Converting Debit card into Credit card
B) Transferring cash from one account to another account
C) Stealing credit card information
D) Intimating the customer about his heavy withdrawals

Explanation

In electronic banking and cybersecurity, 'skimming' is an illegal technique of capturing and stealing magnetic stripe information and PIN data from credit/debit cards using unauthorized card reader devices attached to ATMs or point-of-sale terminals.

ई-बैंकिंग और साइबर सुरक्षा में 'स्किमिंग' (Skimming) एक प्रकार की धोखाधड़ी है जिसमें एटीएम या स्वाइप मशीनों में अवैध स्किमर डिवाइस लगाकर क्रेडिट या डेबिट कार्ड की गोपनीय जानकारी चुराई जाती है (Stealing credit card information)। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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1577📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityCoding-Decoding

If in a certain code language 'POPULAR' is written as 'QPQVMBS', then what word will be written for the code 'GBNPVT'?
A) FASOUM
B) FAMOUS
C) FAMOSU
D) FAMSUO

Explanation

In 'POPULAR' to 'QPQVMBS', each letter is shifted by +1: P(+1)=Q, O(+1)=P, P(+1)=Q, U(+1)=V, L(+1)=M, A(+1)=B, R(+1)=S. To find the original word for the code 'GBNPVT', shift each letter backward by -1: G(-1)=F, B(-1)=A, N(-1)=M, P(-1)=O, V(-1)=U, T(-1)=S. The original word is FAMOUS.

'POPULAR' से 'QPQVMBS' में प्रत्येक अक्षर में +1 जोड़ा गया है। अतः कोड 'GBNPVT' का मूल शब्द प्राप्त करने के लिए प्रत्येक अक्षर से -1 करेंगे: G-1=F, B-1=A, N-1=M, P-1=O, V-1=U, T-1=S => FAMOUS। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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1578📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian Heritage & Art Architecture

The famous Sun Temple of Konark is located in which state?
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Odisha
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Karnataka

Explanation

The 13th-century Konark Sun Temple (also known as the Black Pagoda), built by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, is situated in Puri district of Odisha and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

कोणार्क का प्रसिद्ध सूर्य मंदिर (ब्लैक पैगोडा), जिसे 13वीं शताब्दी में पूर्वी गंग वंश के राजा नरसिंहदेव प्रथम ने बनवाया था, ओडिशा के पुरी जिले में स्थित है और यह यूनेस्को विश्व धरोहर स्थल है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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1579📚General Awareness & ScienceFamous Books & Authors

Who wrote the book 'Discovery of India'?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Rabindranath Tagore
D) Sardar Patel

Explanation

'The Discovery of India' was written by India's first Prime Minister, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, during his imprisonment at Ahmednagar Fort (1942–1946) following the Quit India Movement.

'द डिस्कवरी ऑफ इंडिया' (भारत की खोज) पुस्तक भारत के प्रथम प्रधानमंत्री पंडित जवाहरलाल नेहरू द्वारा 1942-1946 में अहमदनगर किले में बंदी रहने के दौरान लिखी गई थी। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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1580📚General Awareness & ScienceMedieval Indian History

Which emperor was defeated in the Battle of Panipat (1526)?
A) Ibrahim Lodi
B) Sher Shah Suri
C) Humayun
D) Akbar

Explanation

The First Battle of Panipat took place on 21 April 1526 between the invading forces of Babur and the Lodi Empire. Babur defeated Sultan Ibrahim Lodi, marking the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the foundation of the Mughal Empire in India.

21 अप्रैल 1526 को पानीपत की पहली लड़ाई में बाबर ने दिल्ली सल्तनत के अंतिम सुल्तान इब्राहिम लोदी को पराजित किया था। इस विजय से भारत में मुगल साम्राज्य की नींव पड़ी। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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1581📚General Awareness & ScienceMedieval Indian History

Which ruler is credited with building the Grand Trunk Road?
A) Chandragupta Maurya
B) Sher Shah Suri
C) Iltutmish
D) Jaichand

Explanation

Sher Shah Suri (founder of the Sur Empire) renovated and extended the ancient royal highway into the 'Sadak-e-Azam' (later called the Grand Trunk Road by the British), connecting Sonargaon in Bengal with Peshawar.

सूरी वंश के संस्थापक शेरशाह सूरी ने प्राचीन मार्ग को पुनर्गठित कर 'सड़क-ए-आज़म' का निर्माण कराया था, जिसे बाद में ब्रिटिश काल में ग्रैंड ट्रंक रोड (GT Road) कहा गया। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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1582📚General Awareness & ScienceBasic Biology

What is the basic unit of life?
A) Atom
B) Cell
C) Molecule
D) Organ

Explanation

The cell is universally recognized as the fundamental structural, functional, and biological unit of all known living organisms.

कोशिका (Cell) जीवन की सबसे छोटी संरचनात्मक और कार्यात्मक जैविक इकाई (Basic unit of life) है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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1583📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KRivers and Springs of J&K

The famous Verinag Spring, source of the Jhelum River, is located in which district?
A) Rajouri
B) Pulwama
C) Anantnag
D) Poonch

Explanation

Verinag Spring, the historical source of the river Jhelum (known as Vyeth in Kashmiri), is situated at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in Anantnag district of South Kashmir. It was enclosed in an octagonal basin by Mughal Emperor Jahangir.

वेरीनाग जलस्रोत (Verinag Spring), जो झेलम नदी का उद्गम स्थल है, दक्षिण कश्मीर के अनंतनाग (Anantnag) जिले में पीर पंजाल की तलहटी में स्थित है। इसके चारों ओर अष्टकोणीय कुंड का निर्माण मुगल सम्राट जहाँगीर ने करवाया था। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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1584📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KTourism & Destinations in J&K

Gulmarg, a famous hill station and ski resort, is located in which district?
A) Kupwara
B) Baramulla
C) Srinagar
D) Ganderbal

Explanation

Gulmarg ('Meadow of Flowers'), world-famous for its alpine ski slopes and the Gulmarg Gondola, is situated in Baramulla district of Jammu and Kashmir at an altitude of approximately 2,650 meters.

प्रसिद्ध हिल स्टेशन और स्की रिसॉर्ट गुलमर्ग ('फूलों का मैदान') जम्मू-कश्मीर के बारामूला (Baramulla) जिले में लगभग 2,650 मीटर की ऊंचाई पर स्थित है। यहाँ विश्व प्रसिद्ध गुलमर्ग गोंडोला स्थित है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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1585📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KCulture & Traditional Attire of J&K

Which of the following is the traditional attire worn by both men and women in Kashmir?
A) Pheran
B) Sari
C) Sherwani
D) Kurta

Explanation

The Pheran is the iconic loose, long traditional woollen cloak worn by both Kashmiri men and women over their clothing to keep warm during the severe winter months.

फेरन (Pheran) कश्मीर का पारंपरिक ढीला और लंबा ऊनी वस्त्र है जिसे कड़ाके की ठंड से बचने के लिए पुरुष और महिला दोनों पहनते हैं। इसके नीचे प्रायः कांगड़ी रखी जाती है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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1586📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KFestivals and Culture of J&K

The popular Kashmiri festival Herath is associated with which religion?
A) Hinduism
B) Muslim
C) Buddhism
D) Jainism

Explanation

Herath (derived from the Sanskrit 'Hararatri' or night of Hara/Shiva) is the most prominent religious festival of Kashmiri Pandits (Hinduism), celebrated during Maha Shivratri over several days with elaborate rituals and walnut offerings (Doon Mavas).

हेरथ (Herath - हररात्रि) कश्मीरी पंडितों (हिंदू धर्म) का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और पवित्र त्योहार है, जो महाशिवरात्रि के पावन अवसर पर कई दिनों तक पारंपरिक रीति-रिवाजों और अखरोट (दून मावस) के प्रसाद के साथ मनाया जाता है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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1587📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KHistory of J&K - Ancient Period

Who was the author of Rajatarangini, a historical chronicle of early Kashmir?
A) Kalidasa
B) Kalhana
C) Bana
D) Panini

Explanation

Kalhana Pandit composed 'Rajatarangini' ('The River of Kings') in Sanskrit verse in 1148–1149 CE during the reign of King Jayasimha. It is celebrated as the earliest comprehensive historical chronicle of Kashmir.

कल्हण (Kalhana) ने 1148-1149 ईस्वी में राजा जयसिंह के शासनकाल में संस्कृत में 'राजतरंगिणी' ('राजाओं की नदी') की रचना की थी, जिसे कश्मीर का सबसे प्राचीन और प्रामाणिक ऐतिहासिक ग्रंथ माना जाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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1588📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KAncient Heritage & Monuments of J&K

The famous ancient university of Sharda Peeth was located in
A) Srinagar
B) Poonch
C) Gilgit
D) Neelum Valley (Now in PoK)

Explanation

Sharda Peeth was a renowned ancient Hindu temple and seat of learning (university) dedicated to the goddess Sharada (Saraswati). It is situated along the Neelum (Kishanganga) River in the Neelum Valley of Pakistan-administered Kashmir (PoK).

शारदा पीठ (Sharda Peeth) विद्या की देवी शारदा को समर्पित एक प्रसिद्ध प्राचीन मंदिर और विश्वविद्यालय केंद्र था। यह नीलम (किशनगंगा) नदी के किनारे नीलम घाटी (वर्तमान में पाकिस्तान अधिकृत कश्मीर - PoK) में स्थित है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।

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1589📚Civil EngineeringSurveying - Theodolite Operations

Which of the following set of terms does not relate to operation of a theodolite?
A) Transiting and inverting
B) Face left and face right
C) Right swing and left swing
D) Gauging and sounding

Explanation

Transiting (or plunging/inverting), face left/face right observations, and swinging the telescope (right or left swing) are all fundamental operations and terms associated with a transit theodolite. In contrast, 'gauging' (measuring stream flow or water stage) and 'sounding' (measuring the depth of a water body below its surface) are terms used in hydrographic surveying and river gauging, not in the operation of a theodolite.

ट्रांजिटिंग और इनवर्टिंग (उलटना), फेस लेफ्ट और फेस राइट, तथा राइट और लेफ्ट स्विंग - ये सभी थोडोलाइट के सामान्य संचालन और प्रेक्षण से संबंधित प्रमुख तकनीकी शब्द हैं। इसके विपरीत, 'गेजिंग' (नदी या जलधारा का प्रवाह मापना) और 'साउंडिंग' (पानी की गहराई मापना) हाइड्रोग्राफिक सर्वेक्षण से संबंधित शब्द हैं, जिनका संबंध थोडोलाइट के संचालन से नहीं है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प D है।

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1590📚Civil EngineeringSurveying - Contouring Characteristics

Consider the following statements about the characteristics of contours:
I. Closed contour lines with higher values inside show a lake
II. Contour is an imaginary line joining points of equal elevations
III. Closely spaced contours indicate steep slope
IV. Contour lines can cross each other in case of an overhanging cliff
Which of these statements are correct?
A) II, III and IV
B) I and II
C) I and IV
D) I, II and III

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because closed contours with higher values inside represent a hill or ridge (lower values inside represent a pond, lake, or depression). Statement II is correct by definition. Statement III is correct as close contours indicate a steep slope. Statement IV is correct because contour lines cross each other only in the exceptional case of an overhanging cliff. Thus, statements II, III, and IV are correct.

कथन I गलत है क्योंकि अंदर की ओर बढ़ते मान वाली बंद समोच्च रेखाएं पहाड़ी (Hill) को दर्शाती हैं, झील या गड्ढे को नहीं (झील में अंदर मान घटते हैं)। कथन II सही है (समोच्च रेखा समान ऊंचाई वाले बिंदुओं को जोड़ने वाली काल्पनिक रेखा है)। कथन III सही है (निकटवर्ती समोच्च रेखाएं तीव्र ढाल दर्शाती हैं)। कथन IV सही है (केवल ओवरहैंगिंग क्लिफ के मामले में समोच्च रेखाएं एक दूसरे को काट सकती हैं)। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A (II, III and IV) है।

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1591📚Civil EngineeringIrrigation Engineering - Land Drainage

A tile drainage system draining 12 hectares, flows at a design capacity for two days, following a storm. If the system is designed using a drainage coefficient of 1.25 cm, how many cubic meters of water will be removed during this period?
A) 1000 m³
B) 2000 m³
C) 3000 m³
D) 4000 m³

Explanation

Drainage coefficient is the depth of water removed from the drainage area in 24 hours (1 day). Drainage coefficient = 1.25 cm/day = 0.0125 m/day. Drainage area = 12 hectares = 12 10⁴ m² = 120,000 m². In 2 days, total depth removed = 2 0.0125 m = 0.025 m. Total volume of water removed = Area Depth = 120,000 m² 0.025 m = 3000 m³.

अपवाह गुणांक (Drainage coefficient) 24 घंटे (1 दिन) में हटाई जाने वाली जल की गहराई होती है = 1.25 cm/दिन = 0.0125 m/दिन।
क्षेत्रफल = 12 हेक्टेयर = 120,000 m²।
2 दिनों में हटाई गई कुल गहराई = 0.0125 2 = 0.025 मीटर। अतः हटाई गई जल की कुल मात्रा = 120,000 0.025 = 3000 m³। विकल्प C सही उत्तर है।

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1592📚Civil EngineeringIrrigation & Hydrology - Dams and Reservoirs

The lake of water which is formed upstream is often called a
A) creep
B) reservoir
C) side flanks
D) swift frinity

Explanation

A large artificial or natural body of water formed upstream of a dam, weir, or barrage constructed across a river or stream is called a reservoir (or storage reservoir).

किसी बांध, बैराज या वियर के अपस्ट्रीम (प्रवाह की उल्टी दिशा) में बनने वाले कृत्रिम या प्राकृतिक जल निकाय को जलाशय (Reservoir) कहा जाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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1593📚Civil EngineeringIrrigation Engineering - River Training Types

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Classification of River Training)
1. High water training
2. Low water training
3. Mean water training
List - II (Purpose)
i. Sediment (efficient disposal of suspended load and bed load)
ii. Discharge (flood control)
iii. Depth (provide sufficient water depth)
Choose the correct option:
A) (1) - i, (2) - ii, (3) - iii
B) (1) - ii, (2) - iii, (3) - i
C) (1) - iii, (2) - i, (3) - ii
D) (1) - iii, (2) - ii, (3) - i

Explanation

Classification of river training works by primary objective:
1. High water training (Training for Discharge): Aimed at flood disposal and flood control without causing overtopping -> (ii)
2. Low water training (Training for Depth): Aimed at maintaining navigable water depth during low-flow periods -> (iii)
3. Mean water training (Training for Sediment): Aimed at efficient movement and disposal of sediment/bed load to maintain channel stability -> (i)
Therefore, the correct match is (1)-ii, (2)-iii, (3)-i.

नदी प्रशिक्षण कार्यों (River Training) का वर्गीकरण:
1. उच्च जल प्रशिक्षण (High water training): बाढ़ नियंत्रण और अधिकतम विसर्जन (Discharge) के सुरक्षित निकास हेतु -> (ii)
2. निम्न जल प्रशिक्षण (Low water training): नौकायन के लिए शुष्क मौसम में पर्याप्त गहराई (Depth) प्रदान करने हेतु -> (iii)
3. मध्यम जल प्रशिक्षण (Mean water training): गाद और तलछट (Sediment) के कुशल निपटान हेतु -> (i)
अतः सही मिलान (1)-ii, (2)-iii, (3)-i है। विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।

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1594📚Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Noise Pollution Standards

As per Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000 of India, the day time noise limit for a residential zone, expressed in dB(A) L_eq, is
A) 45
B) 55
C) 65
D) 75

Explanation

According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 of India:
- Industrial Area: Day = 75 dB(A), Night = 70 dB(A)
- Commercial Area: Day = 65 dB(A), Night = 55 dB(A)
- Residential Area: Day = 55 dB(A), Night = 45 dB(A)
- Silence Zone: Day = 50 dB(A), Night = 40 dB(A)
Therefore, for residential zones during daytime, the limit is 55 dB(A).

ध्वनि प्रदूषण (विनियमन और नियंत्रण) नियम, 2000 के अनुसार:
- आवासीय क्षेत्र (Residential Area): दिन का समय = 55 dB(A), रात का समय = 45 dB(A)
- वाणिज्यिक क्षेत्र (Commercial Area): दिन का समय = 65 dB(A), रात = 55 dB(A)
- औद्योगिक क्षेत्र (Industrial Area): दिन = 75 dB(A), रात = 70 dB(A)
- शांत क्षेत्र (Silence Zone): दिन = 50 dB(A), रात = 40 dB(A)
अतः आवासीय क्षेत्र में दिन के समय ध्वनि की सीमा 55 dB(A) है। विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।

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1595📚Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Air Pollution Effects

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Materials and Air pollutants)
1. Materials: Metals; and Pollutants: SO₂
2. Materials: Paper; and Pollutants: SO₂
3. Materials: Textiles; and Pollutants: SO₂
List - II (Effects)
i. Embrittlement
ii. Reduction in tensile strength
iii. Tarnishing of surfaces
Choose the correct option:
A) (1) - i, (2) - ii, (3) - iii
B) (1) - ii, (2) - iii, (3) - i
C) (1) - iii, (2) - i, (3) - ii
D) (1) - iii, (2) - ii, (3) - i

Explanation

Air pollution effects of sulfur dioxide (SO₂) on engineering and everyday materials:
1. Metals exposed to SO₂ and moisture undergo corrosion, pitting, and tarnishing of surfaces -> (iii).
2. Paper absorbs SO₂ which oxidizes to sulfuric acid, causing acid degradation, yellowing, and embrittlement -> (i).
3. Textiles (fibers like cotton, nylon) undergo acid hydrolysis resulting in significant reduction in tensile strength -> (ii).
Therefore, the correct match is (1)-iii, (2)-i, (3)-ii.

सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड (SO₂) वायु प्रदूषक के विभिन्न सामग्रियों पर प्रभाव:
1. धातुएं (Metals): SO₂ और नमी के कारण संक्षारण और सतह का मलिन होना (Tarnishing of surfaces) -> (iii)
2. कागज (Paper): अम्ल बनने के कारण भुरभुरापन/दुर्बलता (Embrittlement) -> (i)
3. वस्त्र/कपड़े (Textiles): रेशों के क्षरण से तन्य सामर्थ्य में कमी (Reduction in tensile strength) -> (ii)
अतः सही संयोजन (1)-iii, (2)-i, (3)-ii है। विकल्प C सही उत्तर है।

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1596📚Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Water Treatment Methods

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Type of water impurity)
i. Hardness
ii. Brackish water from sea
iii. Residual MPN from filters
iv. Turbidity
List - II (Method of treatment)
1. Reverse Osmosis
2. Chlorination
3. Zeolite treatment
4. Coagulation, Flocculation and Filtration
Choose the correct option:
A) (i) - 1, (ii) - 4, (iii) - 3, (iv) - 2
B) (i) - 4, (ii) - 3, (iii) - 1, (iv) - 2
C) (i) - 2, (ii) - 1, (iii) - 4, (iv) - 3
D) (i) - 3, (ii) - 1, (iii) - 2, (iv) - 4

Explanation

Water treatment matching:
(i) Hardness: Removed by ion-exchange / Zeolite treatment -> 3.
(ii) Brackish water from sea: Desalinated using Reverse Osmosis (RO) -> 1.
(iii) Residual MPN (coliform bacteria) from filters: Disinfected using Chlorination -> 2.
(iv) Turbidity: Removed by Coagulation, Flocculation, and Filtration -> 4.
Thus, the correct match is (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-4.

जल की अशुद्धियों और उनकी उपचार विधियों का मिलान:
(i) कठोरता (Hardness): जियोलाइट उपचार (Zeolite treatment) द्वारा -> 3
(ii) समुद्र का खारा पानी (Brackish water): रिवर्स ऑस्मोसिस (RO) द्वारा -> 1
(iii) अवशिष्ट जीवाणु संख्या (Residual MPN): क्लोरीनीकरण (Chlorination) द्वारा -> 2
(iv) गंदलापन (Turbidity): स्कंदन, ऊर्णन और छनन (Coagulation, Flocculation and Filtration) द्वारा -> 4
अतः सही मिलान (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-4 है। विकल्प D सही उत्तर है।

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1597📚Civil EngineeringBuilding Materials - Lime

For construction of structure under water the type of lime used is
A) Hydraulic lime
B) Fat lime
C) Quick lime
D) Pure lime

Explanation

Hydraulic lime contains clay (silica and alumina, usually 5% to 30%) which enables it to set and harden through chemical hydration even under water and in thick damp masonry where air is absent. Fat lime or pure lime hardens only by absorbing carbon dioxide from air and cannot set under water.

पानी के नीचे निर्माण कार्य या नम स्थितियों में चिनाई के लिए हाइड्रोलिक चूना (Hydraulic lime) का उपयोग किया जाता है, क्योंकि इसमें मौजूद मिट्टी (सिलिका और एलुमिना) के कारण यह पानी के भीतर भी जमने और कठोर होने की क्षमता रखता है। वसा चूना (Fat lime) हवा के बिना पानी में नहीं जम सकता। अतः विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।

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1598📚Civil EngineeringConcrete Technology - Compaction and Defects

Inadequate compaction during concrete casting results in
A) Segregation
B) Rutting
C) Bleeding
D) Honey combing

Explanation

Insufficient or inadequate compaction leaves large entrapped air voids and pockets between coarse aggregate particles where cement paste fails to penetrate, creating a porous, hollow appearance known as 'honey combing' on the concrete surface.

कंक्रीट डालते समय अपर्याप्त संघनन (Inadequate compaction) के कारण बड़े हवा के बुलबुले और रिक्तियां अंदर रह जाती हैं, जिससे कंक्रीट में मधुमक्खी के छत्ते जैसी खोखली संरचना बन जाती है जिसे हनीकॉम्बिंग (Honey combing) कहा जाता है। अतः विकल्प D सही उत्तर है।

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1599📚Civil EngineeringFluid Mechanics - Venturimeter & Bernoulli Application

The following figure shows a venturimeter, through which water is flowing. The speed of water at "X" is 2 cm s⁻¹ and height difference between "X" and "Y" is 5.1 mm. Then the speed of water at "Y" is (taken, g = 1000 cm s⁻²)
A) 23 cm s⁻¹
B) 32 cm s⁻¹
C) 101 cm s⁻¹
D) 1024 cm s⁻¹

Explanation

Applying Bernoulli's equation between inlet section X and throat section Y: P_X / (ρ g) + v_X² / (2g) = P_Y / (ρ g) + v_Y² / (2g) => (P_X - P_Y) / (ρ g) = (v_Y² - v_X²) / (2g). The piezometric head difference h = (P_X - P_Y) / (ρ g) = 5.1 mm = 0.51 cm. Given g = 1000 cm/s² and v_X = 2 cm/s: v_Y² - v_X² = 2 g h = 2 1000 0.51 = 1020 cm²/s². Therefore, v_Y² = 1020 + v_X² = 1020 + 2² = 1020 + 4 = 1024 cm²/s². Speed v_Y = √1024 = 32 cm s⁻¹.

बर्नौली के समीकरण से: h = (v_Y² - v_X²) / (2g)।
यहाँ h = 5.1 mm = 0.51 cm, g = 1000 cm/s², तथा v_X = 2 cm/s।
v_Y² - v_X² = 2 1000 0.51 = 1020।
v_Y² = 1020 + 2² = 1020 + 4 = 1024 cm²/s²।
अतः v_Y = √1024 = 32 cm s⁻¹। विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।

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1600📚Civil EngineeringFluid Mechanics - Continuity Equation

The continuity equation is based on which of the following principle
A) Conservation of mass
B) Conservation of static energy
C) Conservation of kinetic energy
D) Conservation of momentum

Explanation

The continuity equation (A₁V₁ = A₂V₂ for incompressible flow, or ∂ρ/∂t + ∇·(ρV) = 0) is directly derived from the fundamental physical principle of Conservation of Mass.

सांतत्य समीकरण (Continuity equation, A₁V₁ = A₂V₂) द्रव्यमान संरक्षण के सिद्धांत (Conservation of mass) पर आधारित है, जिसके अनुसार किसी बंद प्रणाली में प्रवाहित द्रव का द्रव्यमान स्थिर रहता है। अतः विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।

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1601📚Civil EngineeringFluid Mechanics - Measuring Instruments

Consider the following pairs:
i. Pitot tube - 1. Flow and viscous property of fluid
ii. Rheometer - 2. Flowing fluid velocity at any point
iii. Hydrometer - 3. Pressure of the pipeline
iv. Manometer - 4. Specific gravity or density of a liquid
Which of the pair given below is correctly matched?
A) (i) - (1), (ii) - (2), (iii) - (3), (iv) - (4)
B) (i) - (1), (ii) - (4), (iii) - (3), (iv) - (2)
C) (i) - (2), (ii) - (1), (iii) - (4), (iv) - (3)
D) (i) - (4), (ii) - (3), (iii) - (2), (iv) - (1)

Explanation

Matching measuring instruments with their functions:
(i) Pitot tube: Measures flowing fluid velocity at a point -> 2
(ii) Rheometer: Measures flow and rheological/viscous properties of fluids -> 1
(iii) Hydrometer: Measures specific gravity or density of a liquid -> 4
(iv) Manometer: Measures pressure of fluid in a pipeline -> 3
Therefore, the correct matched combination is (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(3).

मापन उपकरणों और उनके कार्यों का सही मिलान:
(i) पिटोट ट्यूब (Pitot tube): किसी बिंदु पर तरल का वेग मापना -> 2
(ii) रियोमीटर (Rheometer): तरल की श्यानता और प्रवाह गुण मापना -> 1
(iii) हाइड्रोमीटर (Hydrometer): द्रव का आपेक्षिक घनत्व मापना -> 4
(iv) मैनोमीटर (Manometer): पाइपलाइन में दाब मापना -> 3
अतः सही मिलान (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(3) है। विकल्प C सही उत्तर है।

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1602📚Civil EngineeringHighway Engineering - Bituminous Materials Testing

The penetration test of bitumen is conducted at X, measuring the penetration of needle loaded with Y load for Z time. The correct values are
A) X = 20°C; Y = 50 g; Z = 10 sec
B) X = 25°C; Y = 100 g; Z = 5 sec
C) X = 27°C; Y = 100 g; Z = 60 sec
D) X = 30°C; Y = 150 g; Z = 10 sec

Explanation

According to IS 1203, the standard bitumen penetration test is conducted at a constant water bath temperature X = 25°C, with a total needle assembly load Y = 100 g, releasing the needle for a duration Z = 5 seconds. The depth of penetration is measured in tenths of a millimeter (1/10 mm).

IS 1203 के अनुसार कोलतार (Bitumen) का प्रवेश परीक्षण (Penetration Test) मानक परिस्थितियों में किया जाता है:
तापमान X = 25°C,
सुई पर कुल भार Y = 100 ग्राम,
तथा सुई छोड़ने की अवधि Z = 5 सेकंड।
प्रवेश को मिमी के दसवें भाग (1/10 mm) में मापा जाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।

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1603📚Civil EngineeringHighway Engineering - Pavement Maintenance

For carrying out bituminous patch work during rainy season, the most suitable binder is
A) Bitumen
B) Bituminous emulsion
C) Cutback bitumen
D) Road tar

Explanation

Bituminous emulsion contains microscopic droplets of bitumen suspended in water with an emulsifying agent. Because water is already its continuous carrier medium, it does not require heating and coats damp/wet aggregate surfaces exceptionally well, making it ideal for road maintenance and cold patch repair during wet and rainy weather.

बरसात के मौसम में या नम सतहों पर सड़कों के पैच वर्क (Patch work) और मरम्मत के लिए बिटुमिनस इमल्शन (Bituminous emulsion) सबसे उपयुक्त बाइंडर है, क्योंकि यह जलीय माध्यम में होता है और इसे गर्म किए बिना गीले पत्थरों पर भी आसानी से लगाया जा सकता है। अतः विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।

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1604📚Civil EngineeringHighway Engineering - Pavement Construction Sequence

Pick the right sequence of the different layers of a flexible pavement construction:
i. Base course construction
ii. Subbase course construction
iii. Surface course and seal coat application
iv. Natural subgrade and compacted subgrade construction
v. Prime coat, binder course and tack coat application
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
B) (i), (iii), (v), (ii), (iv)
C) (iv), (ii), (i), (v), (iii)
D) (iv), (v), (i), (ii), (iii)

Explanation

The bottom-up sequence of constructing a flexible pavement is:
1. Subgrade preparation: Natural and compacted subgrade -> (iv)
2. Subbase course: Granular subbase (GSB) -> (ii)
3. Base course: Water Bound Macadam (WBM) or Wet Mix Macadam (WMM) -> (i)
4. Intermediate coats and binder course: Prime coat, Dense Bituminous Macadam (DBM) binder course, and tack coat -> (v)
5. Surfacing: Bituminous concrete surface course and seal coat -> (iii)
Therefore, the correct sequence is (iv), (ii), (i), (v), (iii).

लचीले फुटपाथ (Flexible pavement) के निर्माण की विभिन्न परतों का नीचे से ऊपर सही अनुक्रम:
1. प्राकृतिक एवं संघनित सबग्रेड का निर्माण -> (iv)
2. सब-बेस कोर्स (GSB) का निर्माण -> (ii)
3. बेस कोर्स (WBM/WMM) का निर्माण -> (i)
4. प्राइम कोट, बाइंडर कोर्स (DBM) तथा टैक कोट लगाना -> (v)
5. सतह परत (Surface course) तथा सील कोट लगाना -> (iii)
अतः सही अनुक्रम (iv), (ii), (i), (v), (iii) है। विकल्प C सही उत्तर है।

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1605📚Civil EngineeringHighway Engineering - Pavement Failures

Alligator or map cracking is the most common type of failure in
A) Bituminous surfacing
B) Water Bound Macadam (WBM) surfacing
C) Wet Mix Macadam (WMM) surfacing
D) Telford and Macadam surfacing

Explanation

Alligator cracking (or crocodile/map cracking) is a fatigue failure characterized by interconnected cracks resembling the skin of an alligator. It is the most common distress in flexible pavement bituminous surfacing, caused by repeated tensile strain under traffic wheel loads due to inadequate structural support or fatigue of the asphalt layer.

एलिगेटर या मैप क्रैकिंग (Alligator or map cracking) लचीले फुटपाथ की कोलतार वाली सतह (Bituminous surfacing) में होने वाली सबसे आम थकान विफलता (fatigue failure) है, जिसमें दरारें मगरमच्छ की खाल की तरह आपस में जुड़ी होती हैं। अतः विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।

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1606📚Civil EngineeringHighway Engineering - Skid Resistance & Braking

A vehicle was stopped in 2 second by fully jamming the break and skid marks measured 20 m then average skid resistance is (consider g = 10 m/sec²)
A) 0.35
B) 0.50
C) 1.0
D) 2.2

Explanation

Under uniform deceleration 'a' to rest in time t = 2 s over skid distance s = 20 m: The average velocity during braking is v_avg = v / 2 = s / t => v / 2 = 20 / 2 = 10 m/s => initial velocity v = 20 m/s. Deceleration a = v / t = 20 / 2 = 10 m/s² (or s = (1/2) a t² => 20 = (1/2) a 2² => 20 = 2a => a = 10 m/s²). The skid resistance (coefficient of friction f) is given by: f = a / g = 10 / 10 = 1.0.

वाहन 2 सेकंड में ब्रेक लगाने पर 20 मीटर फिसलकर रुक जाता है। सूत्र s = (1/2) a t² से:
20 = (1/2) a (2)² = 2a => a = 10 m/s²।
औसत फिसलन प्रतिरोध (Skid resistance / घर्षण गुणांक f) = a / g = 10 / 10 = 1.0।
अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प C है।

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1607📚Civil EngineeringHighway Engineering - Traffic Flow Fundamentals

The fundamental relationship between space-mean speed (u), traffic density (k) and traffic flow (q) is
A) q = u k B) q = k / u C) q = u / k D) q = 1 / (u k)

Explanation

The fundamental equation of traffic flow theory is: q = u * k, where q is traffic flow or volume (vehicles/hour), u is space-mean speed (km/hour), and k is traffic density (vehicles/km).

यातायात प्रवाह सिद्धांत का मूल समीकरण q = u * k होता है, जहाँ q यातायात प्रवाह (वाहनों/घंटा), u स्थान-माध्य चाल (किमी/घंटा), तथा k यातायात घनत्व (वाहनों/किमी) है। अतः विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।

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1608📚Civil EngineeringRailway Engineering - Rail Wear

The wear of the rail is maximum at
A) Tunnel
B) Sharp curve
C) Coastal area
D) Square crossing

Explanation

Rail wear is greatest on sharp curves due to heavy lateral wheel flange thrust against the inner side of the outer rail head (side wear), slipping of wheel treads during traversing curves, and severe centrifugal forces.

रेल पटरियों का घिसाव (Wear of rail) तीखे मोड़ों (Sharp curve) पर सबसे अधिक होता है, क्योंकि बाहरी रेल के भीतरी किनारे पर पहियों के फ्लैंज का भारी पार्श्व दबाव (Side wear) और घर्षण कार्य करता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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1609📚Civil EngineeringEstimating and Costing - Units of Measurement (IS 1200)

The Damp Proof Course (D.P.C) is measured in
A) Cubic meter
B) Square meter
C) Meters
D) Rupees per meter

Explanation

According to IS 1200 (Method of Measurement of Building and Civil Engineering Works), Damp Proof Course (DPC) has a specified thin thickness (normally 2.5 cm to 4 cm) and is measured in area units of Square meters (sq m or m²).

IS 1200 के अनुसार नम-रोधी तह (Damp Proof Course - DPC) की मोटाई पूर्व-निर्धारित होती है (2.5 से 4 सेमी), इसलिए इसकी माप वर्ग मीटर (Square meter / m²) में की जाती है। अतः विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।

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1610📚Civil EngineeringEstimating and Costing - Contracts and Tenders

While submitting a tender the contractor is required to deposit some amount with the department, as guarantee of the tender, known as
A) Bank guarantee
B) Caution money
C) Security deposit
D) Earnest money

Explanation

Earnest Money Deposit (EMD, usually 1% to 2% of the estimated cost) is the monetary deposit required from contractors when submitting tenders to guarantee that the bidder is serious and will not back out of the bid if awarded. (Security deposit is deducted later from bills as performance security).

निविदा (टेंडर) जमा करते समय ठेकेदार द्वारा विभाग में गारंटी के रूप में जमा की जाने वाली अग्रिम राशि को बयाना राशि या अर्नेस्ट मनी (Earnest money deposit - EMD) कहा जाता है। (सुरक्षा जमा/सिक्योरिटी डिपॉजिट काम मिलने के बाद लिया जाता है)। अतः विकल्प D सही उत्तर है।

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1611📚Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering - Network Analysis Methods

While analyzing the circuits using mesh and node analysis, which of Kirchhoff's laws is/are used?
A) KVL in mesh analysis and KCL in node analysis
B) KCL in mesh analysis and KVL in node analysis
C) KVL is used both in mesh analysis and node analysis
D) KCL is used both in mesh analysis and node analysis

Explanation

Mesh analysis is fundamentally based on Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) applied along closed loops to write loop equations in terms of mesh currents. Node analysis (or nodal analysis) is fundamentally based on Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) applied at non-reference nodes to write node equations in terms of node voltages. Hence, KVL is used in mesh analysis and KCL in node analysis.

परिपथ विश्लेषण में मेश (लूप) विश्लेषण किरचॉफ के वोल्टेज नियम (KVL) पर आधारित होता है जिसमें लूप समीकरण लिखे जाते हैं, जबकि नोड विश्लेषण किरचॉफ के धारा नियम (KCL) पर आधारित होता है जिसमें विभिन्न नोड्स पर धाराओं का बीजगणितीय योग शून्य किया जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A है।

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1612📚Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering - AC Fundamentals

An alternating voltage is given by

v = 30\sin(314t)

. The time taken by the voltage to reach from 0 V at

t=0

to -30 V for the first time is _______?
A) 0.015 second
B) 0.02 second
C) 0.03 second
D) 0.1 second

Explanation

Given

v(t) = 30\sin(314t)

, angular frequency

\omega = 314\text{ rad/s} \approx 100\pi\text{ rad/s}

, corresponding to a frequency

f = 50\text{ Hz}

and time period

T = \frac{2\pi}{\omega} = \frac{1}{50} = 0.02\text{ s}

. The voltage reaches 0 V at

t=0

, positive peak (+30 V) at

t = T/4 = 0.005\text{ s}

, zero again at

t = T/2 = 0.01\text{ s}

, and its negative peak (-30 V) for the first time at

t = \frac{3T}{4} = \frac{3 \times 0.02}{4} = 0.015\text{ s}

. Mathematically:

\sin(314t) = -1 \implies 314t = \frac{3\pi}{2} \implies t = \frac{1.5\pi}{100\pi} = 0.015\text{ s}

.

प्रत्यावर्ती वोल्टेज

v(t) = 30\sin(314t)

के लिए कोणीय आवृत्ति

\omega = 314\text{ rad/s}

(

f = 50\text{ Hz}

) और आवर्तकाल

T = 0.02\text{ s}

है। वोल्टेज शून्य से शुरू होकर पहली बार अपने ऋणात्मक शिखर (-30 V) पर तीन-चौथाई आवर्तकाल (

t = \frac{3T}{4}

) पर पहुँचता है:

t = \frac{3 \times 0.02}{4} = 0.015\text{ सेकंड}

। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A है।

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1613📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems - Stability Improvement Techniques

The correct sequence of steps needed to improve system stability is
A) Insert derivation action, Use negative feedback and Reduce gain
B) Reduce gain, use negative feedback and insert derivation action
C) Reduce gain, insert derivation action and use negative feedback
D) Use negative feedback, reduce gain and insert derivation action

Explanation

In classical control system engineering, the logical hierarchical progression to improve the stability of a system begins with:
1. Employing negative feedback (which inherently stabilizes an open-loop unstable process and regulates tracking),
2. Reducing the open-loop gain (moving closed-loop poles farther into the left half-plane away from the imaginary axis, thereby increasing gain and phase margins),
3. Inserting derivative action / phase-lead compensation (adding a stabilizing zero in the left half plane to provide phase advance, damping, and improve transient response).
Thus, the standard engineering sequence is: 'Use negative feedback, reduce gain and insert derivation action'.

नियंत्रण प्रणालियों में स्थिरता (Stability) में सुधार के लिए तार्किक क्रम:
1. ऋणात्मक फीडबैक (Negative feedback) का उपयोग करना (जो प्रणाली को नियंत्रित करता है),
2. गेन कम करना (Reduce gain, जिससे गेन मार्जिन और फेज मार्जिन बढ़ जाता है),
3. अवकलज क्रिया (Derivative action / phase lead) जोड़ना (जो डैम्पिंग बढ़ाता है और फेज लीड प्रदान करता है)।
अतः सही क्रम विकल्प D है।

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1614📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems - Frequency Response & Bandwidth

Consider the following statements about the bandwidth of a closed-loop system:
I. In a system where the low-frequency magnitude is 0 dB on the Bode plot, the bandwidth is measured at the -3dB frequency
II. The bandwidth of the closed-loop control system is a measurement of the range of fidelity of response of the system
III. The speed of response to a step input is proportional to the bandwidth
IV. The system with the largest bandwidth provides a slower step response and a lower fidelity ramp response
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
A) I and IV
B) I, II and IV
C) I, II and III
D) I, III and IV

Explanation

Statements I, II, and III are correct fundamental properties of closed-loop control systems:
I: For normalized low-frequency gain (0 dB), bandwidth is standardly defined as the cutoff frequency where the magnitude drops by 3 dB (-3 dB frequency).
II: Bandwidth defines the frequency band over which input signals are faithfully reproduced without significant attenuation or distortion, serving as a direct measure of fidelity.
III: Rise time and settling time are inversely related to bandwidth (

t_r \approx \frac{0.35}{BW}

), meaning higher bandwidth yields faster response speed.
IV: This is false because larger bandwidth gives faster (not slower) step response and higher (not lower) fidelity ramp tracking. Hence, statements I, II, and III are correct (Option C).

कथन I, II और III सही हैं:
I: बोडे प्लॉट पर यदि निम्न-आवृत्ति परिमाण 0 dB है, तो बैंडविड्थ को -3 dB आवृत्ति पर मापा जाता है।
II: बंद-लूप प्रणाली की बैंडविड्थ संकेत पुनरुत्पादन की विश्वसनीयता (fidelity) की सीमा का माप है।
III: बैंडविड्थ अधिक होने पर स्टेप प्रतिक्रिया की गति तेज होती है (प्रतिक्रिया गति बैंडविड्थ के समानुपाती होती है)।
कथन IV गलत है क्योंकि अधिक बैंडविड्थ तीव्र (धीमी नहीं) प्रतिक्रिया देती है। अतः विकल्प C (I, II और III) सही है।

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1615📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Accuracy & Errors

Consider the following statements. In a Measuring instrument,
I. The accuracy of the instrument may be specified in terms of limits of error
II. Point accuracy gives precise information about the overall accuracy of the instrument
III. The best way to conceive the idea of accuracy is to specify it in terms of the true value of the quantity being measured
Which of the options is/are correct?
A) I, II and III
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I and II

Explanation

In electrical measurements and instrumentation:
- Statement I is correct: Accuracy is routinely specified in terms of limits of error (guaranteed accuracy / fiducial error limits, e.g.,

\pm 1\%

of full-scale value).
- Statement II is incorrect: 'Point accuracy' specifies accuracy only at one particular calibrated point on the scale and does NOT provide any information about the general accuracy throughout the rest of the scale.
- Statement III is correct: The most fundamental and ideal conception of accuracy is expressing it as a percentage of the true value of the quantity being measured.
Therefore, statements I and III are correct (Option B).

मापक यंत्रों में:
- कथन I सही है: किसी उपकरण की यथार्थता (Accuracy) को त्रुटि की सीमाओं (limits of error) के रूप में निर्दिष्ट किया जा सकता है।
- कथन II गलत है: बिंदु यथार्थता (Point accuracy) केवल एक विशिष्ट बिंदु पर यथार्थता बताती है और पूरे पैमाने की समग्र यथार्थता की जानकारी नहीं देती।
- कथन III सही है: यथार्थता की सर्वोत्तम अवधारणा मापे जाने वाले मान के वास्तविक मान (true value) के प्रतिशत के रूप में निर्दिष्ट करना है।
अतः केवल कथन I और III सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

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1616📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Digital Voltmeters

The technique of using a stair case ramp in a Digital Voltmeter is called _______?
A) Deflecting torque technique
B) Controlling torque technique
C) Detaching torque technique
D) Null balancing technique

Explanation

In a staircase-ramp type Digital Voltmeter (DVM), an internal digital-to-analog converter generates a stepwise staircase ramp voltage that is continuously compared against the unknown input analog voltage. When the staircase voltage matches the unknown input, the comparator triggers a null condition, halting the clock pulses to the counter. This method is fundamentally classified as a potentiometric 'Null balancing technique'.

डिजिटल वोल्टमीटर (DVM) में सीढ़ीदार रैंप (Staircase ramp) तकनीक में आंतरिक रूप से उत्पन्न रैंप वोल्टेज की तुलना अज्ञात इनपुट वोल्टेज से की जाती है और दोनों के बराबर होने पर तुलनात्मक परिपथ 'शून्य संतुलन' (Null condition) प्राप्त करता है। इस सिद्धांत को शून्य संतुलन तकनीक (Null balancing technique) कहा जाता है। सही उत्तर विकल्प D है।

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1617📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Ramp-Type DVM

In a digital voltmeter, the oscillator frequency is 400 kHz. The ramp voltage decreases from 8 V to 0 V in 20 ms. How many pulses are counted by the counter during this interval?
A) 8000
B) 8500
C) 3200
D) 1600

Explanation

The counter counts clock pulses produced by the oscillator during the time interval

\Delta t = 20\text{ ms} = 20 \times 10^{-3}\text{ s}

. Given the clock oscillator frequency

f = 400\text{ kHz} = 400 \times 10^3\text{ Hz}

, the total number of pulses counted is

N = f \times \Delta t = (400 \times 10^3\text{ pulses/s}) \times (20 \times 10^{-3}\text{ s}) = 8000\text{ pulses}

.

काउंटर द्वारा गिने जाने वाले पल्सों की संख्या ऑसिलेटर आवृत्ति और समय अंतराल के गुणनफल के बराबर होती है:

N = f \times t

। यहाँ

f = 400\text{ kHz} = 400 \times 10^3\text{ Hz}

तथा

t = 20\text{ ms} = 20 \times 10^{-3}\text{ s}

है। अतः

N = (400 \times 10^3) \times (20 \times 10^{-3}) = 8000\text{ पल्स}

। सही विकल्प A है।

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1618📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Q-Meter

Why is a Q-meter generally used at high frequencies?
A) To minimise electrical noise in the circuit
B) The Q-factor of coils and capacitors is more prominent
C) To obtain more accurate voltage measurements
D) To reduce the overall power consumption of the circuit

Explanation

A Q-meter operates on the principle of series resonance (

Q = \frac{\omega L}{R} = \frac{1}{\omega C R}

). At high frequencies (RF range), the inductive reactance

\omega L

dominates over coil resistance

R

, and high-frequency effects such as skin effect, proximity effect, dielectric losses, and distributed winding capacitance become significant and prominent. Thus, measuring the true quality factor (Q-factor) of RF tuning coils and capacitors is most meaningful and prominent at high frequencies.

Q-मीटर श्रेणी अनुनाद (Series resonance) के सिद्धांत पर कार्य करता है। उच्च आवृत्तियों (RF रेंज) पर प्रेरकत्व प्रतिघात

\omega L

का प्रभाव अधिक होता है तथा स्किन प्रभाव और परावैद्युत हानियां प्रमुख हो जाती हैं, जिससे कुंडलियों और संधारित्रों का Q-फैक्टर अधिक स्पष्ट और महत्वपूर्ण (prominent) हो जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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1619📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Temperature Transducers

Consider the following statements:
The cause of error in the measurement of temperature using a thermistor is/are
I. Self heating
II. Poor sensitivity
III. Non-linear characteristics
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A) I and II
B) I, II and III
C) II and III
D) I and III

Explanation

A thermistor is an extremely sensitive temperature transducer (having a very high negative temperature coefficient, typically -3% to -5% per °C, far more sensitive than RTDs or thermocouples). Therefore, statement II ('Poor sensitivity') is false. The two major sources of error and measurement difficulties in thermistors are: (I) Self-heating caused by the

I^2 R

dissipation of the measuring excitation current elevating the sensor temperature above ambient, and (III) Highly non-linear exponential resistance-temperature relationship (

R(T) = R_0 e^{\beta(1/T - 1/T_0)}

). Thus, statements I and III are correct (Option D).

थर्मिस्टर एक अत्यंत उच्च संवेदनशीलता (High sensitivity) वाला ट्रांसड्यूसर होता है, अतः कथन II ('कम संवेदनशीलता') गलत है। थर्मिस्टर से तापमान मापते समय त्रुटि के दो मुख्य कारण हैं:
I. स्व-तापन (Self-heating, मापन धारा के कारण

I^2 R

ऊष्मा उत्पन्न होना),
III. अत्यधिक अरैखिक विशेषताएँ (Non-linear exponential characteristics)।
अतः कथन I और III सही हैं (विकल्प D)।

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1620📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Thermocouples

Which one of the following thermocouples has the highest temperature measuring range?
A) Copper-Constantan
B) Platinum-Rhodium
C) Alumel Chromel
D) Iron Constantan

Explanation

Comparison of standard thermocouple temperature measuring ranges:
- Copper-Constantan (Type T): -200 °C to +350 °C
- Iron-Constantan (Type J): -40 °C to +750 °C
- Chromel-Alumel (Type K): -200 °C to +1250 °C
- Platinum-Rhodium (Type R / Type S / Type B): Noble metal thermocouples capable of continuous measurement up to 1600 °C - 1700 °C (and short-term up to 1800 °C).
Therefore, Platinum-Rhodium has the highest temperature measuring range.

थर्मोकपल्स की तापमान मापन सीमाओं की तुलना:
- कॉपर-कॉन्स्टेंटन (टाइप T): लगभग 350 °C तक
- आयरन-कॉन्स्टेंटन (टाइप J): लगभग 750 °C तक
- क्रोमेल-एल्यूमेल (टाइप K): लगभग 1250 °C तक
- प्लैटिनम-रोडियम (टाइप R / S / B): यह उत्कृष्ट धातु थर्मोकपल 1600 °C से 1750 °C तक के अत्यंत उच्च तापमान को मापने में सक्षम है।
अतः प्लैटिनम-रोडियम (विकल्प B) की तापमान मापन सीमा सर्वाधिक है।

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1621📚Electrical EngineeringElectronics - Field Effect Transistors (FET)

Consider the following statements related to the Field effect transistor.
I. Its operation depends upon the flow of the majority carriers only
II. It has a high input resistance
III. It is suitable for high frequency
IV. Its operation depends upon the flow of both majority and minority carriers
The correct statements is/are _______?
A) I and II only
B) I, II and III only
C) II and IV only
D) III and IV only

Explanation

Field Effect Transistors (FETs):
- Statement I is correct: A FET is a unipolar device whose conduction relies exclusively on the flow of majority charge carriers (electrons in n-channel, holes in p-channel).
- Statement II is correct: Due to reverse-biased gate junction (JFET) or insulated oxide gate dielectric (MOSFET), the input resistance is exceedingly high (

10^8\,\Omega

to

10^{14}\,\Omega

).
- Statement III is correct: Because there is no minority carrier storage time during switching, FETs exhibit fast switching speeds and are well suited for high-frequency applications.
- Statement IV is false (BJTs are bipolar, whereas FETs are strictly unipolar).
Thus, statements I, II, and III are correct (Option B).

फील्ड इफेक्ट ट्रांजिस्टर (FET) के संदर्भ में:
I. यह एक यूनीपोलर उपकरण है जिसका प्रचालन केवल बहुसंख्यक आवेश वाहकों (Majority carriers) के प्रवाह पर निर्भर करता है (सत्य)।
II. इसके गेट के कारण इसका इनपुट प्रतिरोध अत्यधिक उच्च होता है (

10^8 - 10^{14}\,\Omega

) (सत्य)।
III. अल्पसंख्यक वाहक भंडारण समय न होने के कारण यह उच्च आवृत्तियों (High frequency) के लिए उपयुक्त है (सत्य)।
IV. यह असत्य है क्योंकि यह बाइपोलर नहीं है।
अतः कथन I, II और III सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

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1622📚Electrical EngineeringElectronics - Feedback Amplifiers & Oscillators

Consider the following circuits:
I. Oscillator
II. Emitter follower
III. Power amplifier
Which of the above circuit(s) employ feedback?
A) I only
B) II and III
C) II only
D) I and II

Explanation

- Circuit I (Oscillator): Employs regenerative (positive) feedback to sustain oscillations without an external input signal.
- Circuit II (Emitter follower): An unbypassed emitter resistor provides 100% negative voltage-series feedback, resulting in unity voltage gain, high input impedance, and low output impedance.
- Circuit III (Power amplifier): Conventional basic power amplifiers (like Class A, B, or C stages) do not intrinsically rely on feedback for their basic amplification definition (unless feedback is intentionally added externally).
Thus, circuits that fundamentally employ feedback are I and II (Option D).

- दोलित्र (Oscillator - I): निरंतर दोलन बनाए रखने के लिए धनात्मक फीडबैक (Positive feedback) का उपयोग करता है।
- एमिटर फॉलोअर (Emitter follower - II): 100% ऋणात्मक वोल्टेज-सीरीज फीडबैक (Negative feedback) का उपयोग करता है, जिससे इसका इनपुट प्रतिबाधा उच्च और आउटपुट प्रतिबाधा निम्न हो जाती है।
- साधारण पावर एम्पलीफायर (III) स्वाभाविक रूप से फीडबैक संरचना पर निर्भर नहीं होते हैं।
अतः फीडबैक का उपयोग करने वाले परिपथ I और II हैं (विकल्प D)।

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1623📚Electrical EngineeringElectronics - Multivibrators

Consider the following statements:
I. Astable multivibrator can be used for generating a square wave
II. Bistable multivibrator can be used for storing binary information
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A) I and II
B) II only
C) I only
D) Neither I nor II

Explanation

Both statements are correct:
- Statement I: An astable multivibrator has no stable states and continuously alternates between two quasi-stable states, functioning as a free-running relaxation oscillator that produces a square or rectangular wave output.
- Statement II: A bistable multivibrator (flip-flop / latch) has two stable states and can remain indefinitely in either state until triggered, making it the fundamental memory element for storing one bit of binary data.

दोनों कथन सही हैं:
- कथन I: अस्टेबल मल्टीवाइब्रेटर (Astable multivibrator) की कोई स्थिर अवस्था नहीं होती और यह लगातार दो अर्ध-स्थिर अवस्थाओं के बीच स्विच करता है, जिससे यह वर्गाकार तरंग (Square wave) उत्पन्न करता है।
- कथन II: बाईस्टेबल मल्टीवाइब्रेटर (Bistable multivibrator / Flip-flop) में दो स्थिर अवस्थाएं होती हैं, जिसका उपयोग बाइनरी जानकारी (1 बिट डेटा) को संग्रहीत करने के लिए किया जाता है।
अतः सही विकल्प A (I और II) है।

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1624📚Electrical EngineeringMicroprocessors - 8085 Stack Operations

In the 8085 microprocessor, during the PUSH PSW operation, the stack pointer is:
A) Decremented by one
B) Incremented by one
C) Decremented by two
D) Incremented by two

Explanation

In the 8085 microprocessor, the stack grows downward in memory. The instruction PUSH PSW pushes the contents of the Program Status Word (the Accumulator and the Flag register) onto the stack. Since PSW is a 16-bit quantity (two 8-bit bytes: first Accumulator at

SP-1

, then Flags at

SP-2

), the 16-bit Stack Pointer (SP) register is decremented by two (

SP \leftarrow SP - 2

).

8085 माइक्रोप्रोसेसर में स्टैक मेमोरी में नीचे की ओर (उच्च से निम्न पते की ओर) बढ़ता है। 'PUSH PSW' निर्देश एक्युमुलेटर और फ्लैग रजिस्टर (कुल 2 बाइट / 16 बिट्स) की सामग्री को स्टैक में सुरक्षित करता है। प्रत्येक बाइट को पुश करने पर स्टैक पॉइंटर 1 घटता है, अतः 2 बाइट्स के लिए स्टैक पॉइंटर 2 कम हो जाता है (Decremented by two)। सही उत्तर विकल्प C है।

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1625📚Electrical EngineeringPower Electronics - Phase Controlled Converters

Consider the following statements:
Phase-controlled converters at small values of output voltage have
I. Large harmonics in the utility system
II. Poor power factor
III. High efficiency
IV. Notches in the line voltage waveform
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I and II
B) II, III and IV
C) I, II and IV
D) I and IV

Explanation

When phase-controlled converters operate at large firing angles

\alpha

(corresponding to small output DC voltage

V_{dc} = V_{do}\cos\alpha

):
- Statement I is correct: Current distortion increases, introducing substantial low-order harmonic currents into the utility AC source.
- Statement II is correct: Displacement power factor is

\cos\alpha

, which approaches zero as

\alpha \to 90^\circ

; combined with distortion factor, total power factor is extremely poor.
- Statement III is incorrect: Efficiency is low due to large reactive power and harmonic heating losses.
- Statement IV is correct: Commutation overlap (di/dt during thyristor commutation through source inductance) creates deep voltage notches in the supply line voltage waveform.
Thus, statements I, II, and IV are correct (Option C).

कम आउटपुट वोल्टेज (अर्थात बड़े फायरिंग कोण

\alpha

) पर कार्य करने वाले फेज-नियंत्रित कन्वर्टर्स में:
I. आपूर्ति प्रणाली में बड़े करंट हार्मोनिक्स उत्पन्न होते हैं (सत्य)।
II. विस्थापन कोण

\alpha

बढ़ने के कारण पावर फैक्टर बहुत खराब (Poor power factor) हो जाता है (सत्य)।
III. उच्च दक्षता नहीं होती (असत्य)।
IV. कम्यूटेशन ओवरलैप के कारण लाइन वोल्टेज तरंगरूप में वोल्टेज नॉचेस (Notches) उत्पन्न होते हैं (सत्य)।
अतः कथन I, II और IV सही हैं (विकल्प C)।

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1626📚Electrical EngineeringPower Electronics - Full-Bridge Inverters

For a 1-phase full-bridge inverter fed from 48 V DC and connected to a load resistance of 2.4 ohms, the rms value of the fundamental component of the output voltage is _______?
A) 20 V
B) 21.6 V
C) 43.2 V
D) 34.4 V

Explanation

For a single-phase full-bridge square-wave inverter fed from DC input

V_s = 48\text{ V}

, the peak amplitude of the fundamental harmonic of output voltage is

V_{o1,max} = \frac{4 V_s}{\pi}

. The RMS value of this fundamental component is

V_{o1,rms} = \frac{V_{o1,max}}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{4 V_s}{\pi \sqrt{2}} = \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{\pi} V_s \approx 0.9003 V_s

. Substituting

V_s = 48\text{ V}

:

V_{o1,rms} = \frac{2\sqrt{2} \times 48}{\pi} = \frac{96 \times 1.4142}{3.14159} = \frac{135.76}{3.14159} \approx 43.21\text{ V} \approx 43.2\text{ V}

.

सिंगल-फेज फुल-ब्रिज इनवर्टर के लिए, जहाँ DC इनपुट वोल्टेज

V_s = 48\text{ V}

है, आउटपुट वोल्टेज के मौलिक (Fundamental) घटक का RMS मान

V_{o1,rms} = \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{\pi} V_s \approx 0.9 V_s

होता है।

V_{o1,rms} = \frac{2\sqrt{2} \times 48}{\pi} \approx 43.2\text{ V}

। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प C (43.2 V) है।

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1627📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Transformer Equivalent Circuit & OC Test

Under what condition of the transformer will the equivalent circuit appear as shown below?
[Circuit description: An AC voltage source

V_1

connected across only the parallel exciting branch consisting of core-loss resistance

R_{01}

in parallel with magnetizing reactance

X_{01}

, with the series winding resistance and leakage reactance omitted/negligible and secondary open].
A) Short circuit
B) Open circuit
C) Under rated load
D) Under load and no load

Explanation

During the Open-Circuit (No-Load) test of a transformer, the secondary winding is left completely open-circuited (

I_2 = 0

). The current drawn by the primary is only the small no-load exciting current

I_0

(2% to 5% of rated current). Because

I_0

is so small, the voltage drop across the primary series winding resistance and leakage reactance (

R_1

and

X_1

) is negligible and ignored, leaving only the parallel magnetizing branch (

R_{01} \parallel X_{01}

) across the applied voltage

V_1

.

ट्रांसफॉर्मर के ओपन-सर्किट (नो-लोड) परीक्षण के दौरान, द्वितीयक वाइंडिंग खुली (Open circuit) रहती है। प्राथमिक वाइंडिंग केवल न्यूनतम नो-लोड धारा (

I_0

) खींचती है, जिसके कारण प्राथमिक वाइंडिंग के श्रेणी प्रतिरोध और लीकेज प्रतिघात में ड्रॉप नगण्य होता है। इसलिए समतुल्य परिपथ में केवल समानांतर उत्तेजक शाखा (

R_{01} \parallel X_{01}

) प्रदर्शित होती है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B (Open circuit) है।

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1628📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Parallel Operation of DC Generators

A pair of similar DC shunt generators operates in parallel and supplies to a common load. It is required to switch off Machine No. 1 and allow Machine No. 2 to supply the entire load. The following operations are to be used to achieve this:
I. Switch off the main switch of machine No. 1
II. Reduce the field current of machine No. 1
III. Increase the field current of machine No. 2
IV. Ensure that machine No. 1 just floats
The correct sequence of these operations is:
A) II, IV, III, I
B) II, III, IV, I
C) IV, III, II, I
D) III, II, IV, I

Explanation

To smoothly transfer load from Machine No. 1 to Machine No. 2 operating in parallel and then disconnect Machine 1 without sparking or disturbance to busbar voltage:
1. Gradually reduce the field current of Machine 1 (II) and simultaneously increase the field current of Machine 2 (III) to maintain constant busbar voltage while shifting load current to Machine 2.
2. Continue this adjustment until the ammeter of Machine 1 reads zero, i.e., ensuring Machine 1 just floats on the busbars (IV).
3. Open the circuit breaker / main switch of Machine 1 (I).
Hence, the correct operational sequence is II, III, IV, I (Option B).

समानांतर में चल रहे दो DC शंट जनरेटरों में से मशीन 1 को बंद करने और सारा लोड मशीन 2 पर स्थानांतरित करने का सही क्रम:
1. मशीन 1 की फील्ड धारा कम करना (II) तथा साथ-साथ बसबार वोल्टेज स्थिर रखने के लिए मशीन 2 की फील्ड धारा बढ़ाना (III),
2. यह प्रक्रिया तब तक जारी रखना जब तक कि मशीन 1 का एमीटर शून्य न हो जाए अर्थात मशीन 1 तैरने (just floats) न लगे (IV),
3. इसके बाद मशीन 1 के मुख्य स्विच को सुरक्षित रूप से बंद (Switch off) कर देना (I)।
अतः सही क्रम II, III, IV, I है (विकल्प B)।

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1629📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - DC Motor Armature Reaction

In a DC motor, what is the effect of armature reaction under load conditions?
A) Strengthens the main field flux
B) Reduces armature current
C) Shifts the neutral plane in the direction of rotation
D) Has no effect on commutation

Explanation

Note on standard DC machine theory: In a DC generator, armature reaction shifts the Magnetic Neutral Axis (MNA) forward in the direction of rotation. In a DC motor, the armature current direction is reversed with respect to rotation, so armature reaction shifts the MNA backward (opposite to rotation). However, among the four provided choices (A: Strengthens main flux [false], B: Reduces armature current [false], D: Has no effect [false]), C is the intended official answer based on the classic general neutral plane shift question phrasing in examination keys.

DC मशीनों में लोड की स्थिति में आर्मेचर रिएक्शन का प्रभाव मुख्य चुंबकीय क्षेत्र को विकृत करता है तथा चुंबकीय उदासीन अक्ष (Neutral plane / MNA) को स्थानांतरित करता है। दिए गए बहुविकल्पीय विकल्पों में से सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर विकल्प C (Shifts the neutral plane in the direction of rotation) है।

2025JKSSB

1630📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Synchronous Motor V-Curves

The V-curve of a synchronous motor shows the variation of:
A) Armature current and DC excitation at constant load
B) Supply voltage and field current at constant excitation
C) Power factor and supply voltage during shunting
D) Supply voltage and excitation current at constant load

Explanation

The V-curves of a synchronous motor are plots of armature current (

I_a

) versus field/excitation current (

I_f

) at constant real power loads. At under-excitation, the motor operates at a lagging power factor and draws high armature current; as excitation increases, power factor reaches unity where armature current is minimized; with over-excitation, power factor becomes leading and current increases again, creating a characteristic V-shaped curve.

तुल्यकालिक मोटर (Synchronous motor) का V-वक्र स्थिर भार (Constant load) पर आर्मेचर धारा (

I_a

) और DC उत्तेजना/फील्ड धारा (

I_f

) के बीच के संबंध को दर्शाता है। न्यूनतम आर्मेचर धारा इकाई शक्ति गुणांक (Unity power factor) पर प्राप्त होती है, जिससे यह वक्र 'V' अक्षर के आकार का बनता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A है।

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1631📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Two-Phase AC Servomotor

The torque speed characteristic of a two phase induction motor is largely affected by
A) Reactance-to-resistance ratio
B) Speed
C) Voltage
D) Supply voltage frequency

Explanation

In a two-phase AC servomotor (two-phase induction motor used in control systems), a linear drooping torque-speed characteristic with negative slope throughout the operational speed range is essential to prevent single-phasing and ensure positive damping. This desired characteristic is achieved by designing the rotor with a very high resistance, resulting in a low reactance-to-resistance ratio (

X/R

). Thus, the ratio of reactance to resistance (

X/R

) is the primary governing design parameter.

दो-फेज सर्वोमोटर (Two-phase induction motor) में स्थिर नियंत्रण और डैम्पिंग के लिए एक रेखीय ढलान वाली (Drooping) टॉर्क-स्पीड विशेषता की आवश्यकता होती है। यह विशेषता मुख्य रूप से रोटर के उच्च प्रतिरोध द्वारा निर्धारित होती है, जिससे इसका 'प्रतिघात और प्रतिरोध का अनुपात' (Reactance-to-resistance ratio,

X/R

) कम रखा जाता है। अतः यह अनुपात टॉर्क-स्पीड विशेषता को सर्वाधिक प्रभावित करता है (विकल्प A सही है)।

2025JKSSB

1632📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Single-Phase Induction Motors

A 230 V, 50 Hz, 4-pole, single-phase induction motor is rotating in a clockwise (forward) direction at a speed of 1425 rpm. If the rotor resistance at standstill is 7.8 ohms, then the effective rotor resistance in the backward branch of the equivalent circuit is _______?
A) 2.0 ohm
B) 4.0 ohm
C) 78 ohm
D) 156 ohm

Explanation

Synchronous speed

N_s = \frac{120 \times 50}{4} = 1500\text{ rpm}

.
Forward slip

s_f = \frac{1500 - 1425}{1500} = \frac{75}{1500} = 0.05

.
Backward slip

s_b = 2 - s_f = 2 - 0.05 = 1.95

.
In the double revolving field theory equivalent circuit, the rotor branch for backward field has effective resistance

\frac{0.5 r_2}{s_b}

(or total branch resistance

\frac{r_2}{s_b}

). With standstill rotor resistance

r_2 = 7.8\,\Omega

:

\frac{r_2}{s_b} = \frac{7.8}{1.95} = 4.0\,\Omega

, and per revolving half-field it is

\frac{0.5 r_2}{s_b} = \frac{0.5 \times 7.8}{1.95} = 2.0\,\Omega

. Therefore, the effective rotor resistance in the backward branch is

2.0\,\Omega

.

तुल्यकालिक गति

N_s = 1500\text{ rpm}

। अग्रगामी स्लिप

s_f = \frac{1500 - 1425}{1500} = 0.05

।
पश्चगामी स्लिप

s_b = 2 - s_f = 2 - 0.05 = 1.95

।
डबल रिवॉल्विंग फील्ड थ्योरी के समतुल्य परिपथ में, पश्चगामी शाखा में प्रभावी रोटर प्रतिरोध

\frac{0.5 r_2}{s_b} = \frac{0.5 \times 7.8}{1.95} = \frac{3.9}{1.95} = 2.0\,\Omega

होता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A (2.0 ohm) है।

2025JKSSB

1633📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Hydroelectric & Pumped Storage Power Plants

Consider the following statements regarding the pumped storage plants:
I. A pumped storage plant is a peak load plant
II. The starting time of a pumped storage plant is very long
III. Reversible turbines and pumps are very suitable for pumped storage plants
IV. Pumped storage plants can be used for load frequency control
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I and III
B) I and II
C) III and IV
D) I, III and IV

Explanation

Analyzing pumped storage hydro plants:
- Statement I is correct: Pumped storage plants operate as peak-load generating stations, discharging water during high-tariff peak demand hours and pumping it back during off-peak hours.
- Statement II is incorrect: Hydroelectric and pumped storage units have very quick start-up times (typically 1 to 3 minutes), not long start-up times.
- Statement III is correct: Reversible Francis pump-turbines coupled to motor-generators are standard, efficient, and cost-effective.
- Statement IV is correct: Due to rapid governor responsiveness and dispatchability, pumped storage plants provide excellent spinning reserve and automatic load-frequency control (LFC).
Thus, statements I, III, and IV are correct (Option D).

पम्प्ड स्टोरेज संयंत्रों के संदर्भ में:
I. यह पीक-लोड संयंत्र (Peak load plant) के रूप में कार्य करते हैं (सत्य)।
II. इनका स्टार्ट-अप समय बहुत कम (1 से 3 मिनट) होता है, लंबा नहीं (असत्य)।
III. प्रतिवर्ती टरबाइन और पंप (Reversible pump-turbines) इसके लिए अत्यंत उपयुक्त होते हैं (सत्य)।
IV. तीव्र प्रतिक्रिया समय के कारण इनका उपयोग लोड फ्रीक्वेंसी कंट्रोल (LFC) और ग्रिड स्थिरता के लिए किया जा सकता है (सत्य)।
अतः कथन I, III और IV सही हैं (विकल्प D)।

2025JKSSB

1634📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Nuclear Power Plant Instrumentation & Safety

A microprocessor-based safety control system installed in a nuclear power plant must be stress tested under which of the following conditions?
I. Ageing due to radiation
II. Thermal stresses
III. Seismic vibration
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I and III only
D) All of the above

Explanation

Safety-grade Instrumentation and Control (I&C) systems in nuclear facilities must undergo comprehensive Environmental Qualification (EQ) testing (per IEEE 323 and IEEE 344 standards). This qualification mandates rigorous testing for: (I) Radiation-induced ageing and total ionizing dose effects, (II) Harsh environmental thermal stresses and temperature/humidity cycling, and (III) Dynamic seismic shock and vibration shaking table tests to ensure fail-safe shutdown during earthquakes. Therefore, 'All of the above' is correct.

परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्रों में स्थापित माइक्रोप्रोसेसर-आधारित सुरक्षा नियंत्रण प्रणालियों को परमाणु सुरक्षा मानकों (IEEE 323/344) के तहत कठोर पर्यावरणीय योग्यता परीक्षणों से गुजरना पड़ता है। इनमें विकिरण के कारण होने वाली उम्र/क्षति (I), तापीय तनाव (II), तथा भूकंपीय कंपन और झटके (III) - ये सभी स्थितियां शामिल होती हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D (All of the above) है।

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1635📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Hydropower Engineering & Hydrology

With reference to a hydropower station, the graphical representation of the discharge as a function of time is known as:
A) Monograph
B) Load duration curve
C) Hydrograph
D) Waterfilling curve

Explanation

A Hydrograph is the fundamental graphical plot showing stream discharge / river water flow rate (

Q

in

\text{m}^3/\text{s}

) as a function of chronological time (hours, days, or months). In contrast, a Flow Duration Curve sorts discharges in descending order, and a Load Duration Curve plots electrical power demand against time.

जलविद्युत स्टेशन के संदर्भ में, समय के फलन के रूप में जल प्रवाह/निर्वहन (Discharge vs Time) के आलेखीय निरूपण को 'हाइड्रोग्राफ' (Hydrograph) कहा जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प C है।

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1636📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Hydroelectric Generation

Assuming 100% efficiency and taking the density of water as 1000 kg/m³, what is the power output of a hydroelectric generator unit operating with a head of 1.0 m and a discharge rate of 1.0 cubic meters per second?
A) 2.91 kW
B) 9.81 kW
C) 19.50 kW
D) 6.95 kW

Explanation

Theoretical water power output is given by

P = \rho \cdot g \cdot Q \cdot H \cdot \eta

. Given water density

\rho = 1000\text{ kg/m}^3

, gravitational acceleration

g = 9.81\text{ m/s}^2

, discharge

Q = 1.0\text{ m}^3/\text{s}

, head

H = 1.0\text{ m}

, and efficiency

\eta = 1.0

(100%):

P = 1000 \times 9.81 \times 1.0 \times 1.0 \times 1.0 = 9810\text{ W} = 9.81\text{ kW}

.

जलविद्युत शक्ति का सूत्र

P = \rho g Q H \eta

होता है।
यहाँ

\rho = 1000\text{ kg/m}^3

,

g = 9.81\text{ m/s}^2

,

Q = 1.0\text{ m}^3/\text{s}

,

H = 1.0\text{ m}

और

\eta = 100\% = 1.0

है।

P = 1000 \times 9.81 \times 1.0 \times 1.0 = 9810\text{ W} = 9.81\text{ kW}

। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B (9.81 kW) है।

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1637📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Transmission Line Performance & Tuned Lines

When the sending end voltage and current are numerically equal to the receiving end voltage and current, respectively, then the line is called _______?
A) A transposed line
B) A tuned line
C) A long line
D) A short line

Explanation

When the sending end voltage and current are numerically equal to the receiving end voltage and current, respectively, then the line is called _______? A transmission line whose distributed inductance and capacitance parameters (or auxiliary terminal reactive networks) are chosen such that

|V_s| = |V_r|

and

|I_s| = |I_r|

regardless of the line length or load is termed a 'Tuned power line'. In a tuned line, the natural propagation angle corresponds to an integer multiple of wavelengths (or quarter/half wave tuning), ensuring that voltage and current profiles at the receiving end are identically reproduced at the sending end.

जब ट्रांसमिशन लाइन के भेजने वाले सिरे (Sending end) का वोल्टेज और करंट संख्यात्मक रूप से प्राप्तकर्ता सिरे (Receiving end) के वोल्टेज और करंट के बराबर होते हैं (

|V_s| = |V_r|

तथा

|I_s| = |I_r|

), तो उस ट्रांसमिशन लाइन को 'ट्यून्ड लाइन' (A tuned line) कहा जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B है।

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1638📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Fault Analysis & Symmetrical Components

At the point of fault, the positive sequence voltage component becomes zero during which type of fault?
A) L-L-G fault
B) L-L-L fault
C) L-L fault
D) L-G fault

Explanation

During a symmetrical three-phase short-circuit fault (L-L-L or L-L-L-G fault) at the fault point, all three phase voltages collapse identically to zero (

V_a = V_b = V_c = 0

). By symmetrical component transformation, the positive sequence voltage is

V_{a1} = \frac{1}{3}(V_a + \alpha V_b + \alpha^2 V_c) = 0

. For all unsymmetrical faults (L-G, L-L, L-L-G), the positive sequence voltage at the fault point remains non-zero. Thus,

V_{a1} = 0

strictly occurs during a three-phase symmetrical (L-L-L) fault.

दोष बिंदु (Fault point) पर सममित तीन-फेज शॉर्ट-सर्किट (L-L-L दोष) के दौरान तीनों फेजों के वोल्टेज शून्य हो जाते हैं (

V_a = V_b = V_c = 0

)। सममित घटकों (Symmetrical components) के अनुसार, धनात्मक अनुक्रम वोल्टेज

V_{a1} = \frac{1}{3}(V_a + \alpha V_b + \alpha^2 V_c) = 0

हो जाता है। असममित दोषों (L-G, L-L, L-L-G) में धनात्मक अनुक्रम वोल्टेज शून्य नहीं होता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B (L-L-L fault) है।

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1639📚Forensic Chemistry & NarcoticsColor Presumptive Tests

Which color is observed in Mandelin's test for LSD?

Explanation

Mandelin's reagent (composed of ammonium vanadate dissolved in concentrated sulfuric acid) produces an orange to orange-brown color reaction when tested with LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide).

मेंडेलिन अभिकर्मक (सांद्र सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड में अमोनियम वैनेडेट) LSD (लाइसर्जिक एसिड डायथाइलैमाइड) के साथ नारंगी (Orange) से नारंगी-भूरा रंग उत्पन्न करता है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1640📚Forensic Chemistry & NarcoticsColor Presumptive Tests

Which of the following color of Mescaline is observed in Liberman's test?

Explanation

Liebermann's reagent (potassium nitrite in concentrated sulfuric acid) produces a distinct black color reaction in the presence of mescaline.

लिबरमैन अभिकर्मक (सांद्र सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड में पोटेशियम नाइट्राइट) मेस्कलाइन की उपस्थिति में गहरा काला (Black) रंग देता है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1641📚Forensic Physical Evidence & OpticsMicroscopy Fundamentals

Working distance of a microscope is defined as:

Explanation

Working distance is the linear distance between the front optical element of the objective lens and the top surface of the coverslip (or specimen) when the specimen is sharply in focus.

माइक्रोस्कोप की वर्किंग डिस्टेंस (कार्य दूरी) नमूने के फोकस में होने पर ऑब्जेक्टिव लेंस और कवर स्लिप (या नमूने की सतह) के बीच की दूरी होती है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1642📚Forensic Chemistry & NarcoticsPresumptive Narcotic Tests

What is the color observed for heroin with marquis reagent?

Explanation

Marquis reagent (formaldehyde in concentrated sulfuric acid) reacts with heroin (diacetylmorphine) and other opiates to yield a characteristic purple / violet color.

मार्क्विस अभिकर्मक (सांद्र सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड में फॉर्मलाडेहाइड) हेरोइन (डायएसिटाइलमॉर्फिन) के संपर्क में आने पर विशिष्ट बैंगनी/बैंगनी (Purple) रंग उत्पन्न करता है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1643📚Forensic Chemistry & InstrumentationChromatography Fundamentals

Chromatogram is:

Explanation

A chromatogram is a graphical plot of detector signal (which corresponds to solute concentration) as a function of elution time (or retention time).

क्रोमैटोग्राम इल्यूशन समय (elution time) के सापेक्ष विलेय की सांद्रता (solute concentration या डिटेक्टर प्रतिक्रिया) का एक ग्राफिकल प्लॉट होता है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1644📚Fingerprint Examination & BiometricsNinhydrin Reaction Chemistry

Ruheman's purple is byproduct of:

Explanation

Ruhemann's purple (diketohydrindylidene-diketohydrindamine) is the colored complex formed when ninhydrin reacts with primary amino acids present in latent fingerprint sweat residue.

रुहेमैन पर्पल वह रंगीन यौगिक है जो लेटेंट फिंगरप्रिंट में मौजूद पसीने के अमीनो एसिड और निनहाइड्रिन (Ninhydrin and amino acids in sweat) के बीच रासायनिक प्रतिक्रिया से बनता है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1645📚Forensic Chemistry & InstrumentationHPLC Drug Analysis

Which of the following techniques would be most useful to identify as well as quantify the presence of a known impurity in a drug substance?

Explanation

High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC), particularly coupled with UV/Vis or PDA detection, is the premier analytical technique widely employed for both qualitative identification (retention time) and rigorous quantitative assay of impurities in bulk drugs.

हाई-परफॉर्मेंस लिक्विड क्रोमैटोग्राफी (HPLC) औषधियों में ज्ञात अशुद्धियों की गुणात्मक पहचान और सटीक मात्रात्मक निर्धारण (quantification) दोनों के लिए सबसे उपयोगी और स्वीकृत मानक तकनीक है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1646📚Physical & Trace EvidenceForensic Hair Morphology

Lanugo hairs are:

Explanation

Lanugo hairs are the fine, soft, unpigmented, and non-medullated hairs that develop on a human fetus during the third trimester of pregnancy.

लानुगो बाल बहुत पतले और मुलायम (Thin and soft), गैर-मेडुलेटेड और रंगहीन बाल होते हैं जो गर्भावधि के दौरान भ्रूण के शरीर को ढकते हैं।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1647📚Forensic Chemistry & InstrumentationUV-Vis Spectroscopy

Which of the following techniques follow the Beer Lambert's Law?

Explanation

UV-Visible absorption spectroscopy is fundamentally governed by the Beer-Lambert Law (A = epsilon b c), which relates light absorbance directly to analyte concentration.

यूवी (पराबैंगनी) स्पेक्ट्रोस्कोपी बीयर-लैम्बर्ट के नियम (A = εbc) का सीधे पालन करती है, जो प्रकाश के अवशोषण को नमूने की सांद्रता से जोड़ता है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1648📚Forensic Biology, Serology & DNAMicrocrystalline Blood Tests

What is the color and shape of crystals formed during haemin crystal test?

Explanation

Teichmann's haemin crystal test produces dark brown, rhombic / prismatic crystals of haemin (ferriprotoporphyrin chloride) under microscopic examination, confirming the presence of blood.

टाइकमैन के हेमिन क्रिस्टल परीक्षण में माइक्रोस्कोप के नीचे गहरे भूरे, विषमकोण (Dark brown, rhombic) हेमिन क्रिस्टल बनते हैं, जो रक्त की उपस्थिति की पुष्टि करते हैं।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1649📚Cyber Forensics & Digital EvidenceCybercrime Principles

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:\nAssertion (A): Cybercrime is a crime conducted in which a computer was directly and significantly instrumental.\nReason (R): Cybercrime is directed by means of electronic operations, that target the security of computer systems and data processed by them.\nIn light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

Explanation

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) correctly delineate the standard forensic and legal definition of cybercrime where electronic operations targeting systems and data form the operational instrumentality.

साइबर अपराध में कंप्यूटर प्रणाली अपराध का माध्यम और लक्ष्य दोनों होती है। दोनों कथन सत्य हैं और कारण (R), अभिकथन (A) की सही व्याख्या करता है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

1650📚Cyber Forensics & Digital EvidenceMobile Operating System Security

Which of the following is the feature of IOS?

Explanation

Application Sandboxing is a foundational security architecture of Apple's iOS, which restricts each mobile application to its own designated container directory and prevents unauthorized access to other apps or system resources.

एप्लिकेशन सैंडबॉक्सिंग (Sandboxing) ऐप्पल के iOS की एक आधारभूत सुरक्षा विशेषता है, जो प्रत्येक ऐप को उसके अपने अलग कंटेनर तक सीमित करती है और अनधिकृत डेटा एक्सेस को रोकती है।

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1651📚Cyber Forensics & Digital EvidenceNetwork Attacks & Impersonation

Masquerading means:

Explanation

In cybersecurity and network forensics, masquerading is an attack where an unauthorized entity uses stolen credentials or forged identity tokens to impersonate a legitimate, authorized user and gain unauthorized access to resources.

मास्करेडिंग का अर्थ है किसी अधिकृत उपयोगकर्ता का रूप धारण करके (impersonating an authorized user) नेटवर्क या सूचना संसाधनों तक अनधिकृत पहुंच प्राप्त करना।

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1652📚Forensic Chemistry & NarcoticsMicrocrystalline Drug Identification

What is the shape of crystals formed when mercuric chloride reacts with heroin?

Explanation

In microcrystal forensic testing of illicit opiates, reacting heroin with mercuric chloride reagent yields characteristic clusters arranged as a rosette of needles under polarized light microscopy.

फोरेंसिक माइक्रोकॉकल परीक्षण में हेरोइन मर्क्यूरिक क्लोराइड अभिकर्मक के साथ प्रतिक्रिया करने पर सुइयों के गुच्छे (Rosette of needles) के आकार के विशिष्ट क्रिस्टल बनाती है।

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1653📚Crime Scene Management & ReconstructionLocard's Exchange Principle

Trace evidence follows which of the principle of forensic science?

Explanation

Trace evidence analysis is based fundamentally on Locard's Principle of Mutual Exchange: 'Every contact leaves a trace' — when two objects come into physical contact, there is a mutual exchange of material between them.

सूक्ष्म साक्ष्य (ट्रेस एविडेंस) लोकार्ड के पारस्परिक विनिमय के सिद्धांत (Principle of mutual exchange) पर आधारित है, जिसके अनुसार 'प्रत्येक संपर्क एक निशान छोड़ता है'।

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1654📚Forensic Quality Assurance & StandardsDNA Contamination Standards

Which document must be consulted to minimize DNA contamination risks during product manufacturing for labs?

Explanation

ISO 18385 is the international standard specifically establishing requirements for minimizing the risk of human DNA contamination in products used to collect, store, and analyze biological material for forensic DNA purposes.

ISO 18385 वह अंतरराष्ट्रीय मानक है जो फोरेंसिक डीएनए विश्लेषण में उपयोग किए जाने वाले उत्पादों के निर्माण के दौरान मानव डीएनए संदूषण के जोखिम को कम करने के लिए नियम निर्धारित करता है।

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1655📚Fingerprint Examination & BiometricsCyanoacrylate Fuming

Cyanoacrylate (superglue) is a:

Explanation

Cyanoacrylate is formulated as a liquid acrylic monomer (typically ethyl-2-cyanoacrylate) that readily polymerizes into a hard white polymer upon contact with moisture and fingerprint residue during fuming.

सायनोएक्रिलेट (सुपरग्लू) एक ऐक्रेलिक मोनोमर (Acrylic monomer) है, जो नमी के संपर्क में आने पर बहुलक (पॉलीमर) में परिवर्तित होकर फिंगरप्रिंट लकीरों पर जम जाता है।

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1656📚Forensic Quality Assurance & StandardsQuality Control vs Quality Assurance

Which of the following is an example of Quality Control (QC)?

Explanation

Quality Control (QC) refers to the operational laboratory activities undertaken during routine testing to ensure analytical precision and accuracy, such as running certified reference standards and control samples. Management reviews and training belong to Quality Assurance (QA).

गुणवत्ता नियंत्रण (QC) प्रयोगशाला परीक्षण की प्रक्रियात्मक सटीकता सुनिश्चित करने वाली दैनिक गतिविधियों को संदर्भित करता है, जैसे प्रमाणित संदर्भ सामग्री/मानक (Certified reference materials/standards) का परीक्षण करना।

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1657📚Crime Scene Management & Evidence HandlingFirst Responding Officer Duties

Which are the duties of the first responding officer?\nI. Write down the names of the witnesses and other persons who entered the crime scene.\nII. Note who was at the crime scene when the officer arrived.\nIII. Mark and document the whole scene.\nIV. Maintain chain of custody\nOptions:

Explanation

The primary responsibilities of the first officer arriving at a crime scene are preserving life, securing the scene boundary, logging individuals present upon arrival (II), and recording names of all witnesses and entering personnel (I). Comprehensive mapping (III) and evidence custodial packaging (IV) are duties of forensic investigators.

घटनास्थल पर पहुँचने वाले पहले पुलिस अधिकारी का मुख्य कर्तव्य जीवन रक्षा, क्षेत्र को सुरक्षित करना, पहुँचने पर मौजूद लोगों को नोट करना (II) और गवाहों व प्रवेश करने वालों के नाम दर्ज करना (I) होता है। अतः I और II सही हैं।

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1658📚Forensic Foundations & CriminalisticsFundamental Principles of Forensic Science

Match the following forensic laws with their proponents:\ni. Law of Mutual Exchange\nii. Law of Individuality\niii. Law of Probability\nProponents:\na. Edmond Locard\nb. Paul Kirk\nc. Prof. Simon Newcomb\nOptions:

Explanation

The Law of Mutual Exchange was stated by Edmond Locard (i-a); the fundamental Law of Individuality in forensic evidence was formalized by Paul L. Kirk (ii-b); and the Law of Probability in forensic identification was articulated by Simon Newcomb (iii-c). Thus, i-a, ii-b, iii-c.

पारस्परिक विनिमय का नियम एडमंड लोकार्ड द्वारा (i-a); वैयक्तिकता का नियम पॉल किर्क द्वारा (ii-b); और प्रायिकता का नियम साइमन न्यूकॉम्ब द्वारा (iii-c) प्रतिपादित किया गया था। अतः i-a, ii-b, iii-c सही है।

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1659📚Forensic Physics & MechanicsKinematics & Path Length

The actual path traversed by the object in the given time is known as:

Explanation

Path length (distance) is the total length of the actual trajectory traversed by an object during its motion. In contrast, displacement is the shortest directed vector between initial and final positions.

किसी दिए गए समय अंतराल में गतिमान वस्तु द्वारा तय किए गए वास्तविक मार्ग की कुल लंबाई को पथ लंबाई (Path length / दूरी) कहा जाता है।

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1660📚Forensic Optics & SpectroscopyElectromagnetic Radiation Biological Hazards

Which rays of electromagnetic spectrum may damage the retina of our eyes?

Explanation

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation (particularly UV-A and intense UV blue wavelengths) can penetrate ocular media to induce photochemical damage and macular photoretinitis in the retina.

पराबैंगनी (UV) किरणें आंखों के रेटिना में फोटोकेमिकल क्षति और रेटिनाइटिस पैदा कर सकती हैं, जिससे दृष्टि को गंभीर नुकसान पहुँचता है।

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1661📚Forensic Optics & SpectroscopyMolecular Vibrations & IR Activity

Consider the following statements regarding carbon dioxide molecule:\nI. Molecule of CO2 can vibrate in three independent modes of vibration.\nII. Those modes are symmetric stretch, bending, and asymmetric stretch modes.\nIII. These modes are not characterized by the definite frequency of vibration.\nWhich of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

CO2 is a linear molecule possessing three fundamental vibrational frequency modes: symmetric stretching, doubly degenerate bending, and asymmetric stretching (Statements I and II are correct). Statement III is false because each normal vibrational mode possesses an exact, well-defined characteristic quantum frequency.

CO₂ एक रैखिक अणु है जिसके तीन मूलभूत कंपन मोड होते हैं: सममित खिंचाव, बेंडिंग और असममित खिंचाव (I और II सत्य हैं)। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि प्रत्येक सामान्य कंपन मोड की एक निश्चित और विशिष्ट आवृत्ति होती है। अतः Both I and II सही हैं।

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1662📚Forensic Chemistry & InstrumentationVibrational Transition Types

Consider the following statements:\nI. Fundamental bands are the primary absorption bands.\nII. Overtone bands occur at multiples of fundamental bands.\nIII. Combination bands occur at wavelengths that are sum or difference of two or more fundamental bands.\nChoose the correct option:

Explanation

All three statements correctly describe vibrational transitions: Fundamental bands involve v=0 to v=1 (I); Overtones appear near integer multiples 2v, 3v (II); and Combination bands arise from simultaneous excitation of multiple vibrational modes (v1 + v2 or v1 - v2) (III).

तीनों कथन सत्य हैं: फंडामेंटल बैंड प्राथमिक संक्रमण हैं (I); ओवरटोन बैंड आवृत्तियों के गुणकों पर होते हैं (II); तथा संयोजन बैंड दो या अधिक मौलिक आवृत्तियों के योग या अंतर पर उत्पन्न होते हैं (III)। अतः I, II and III are correct सही है।

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1663📚Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlFundamentals of Statistics

Statistics deals with:

Explanation

Statistics is the science of collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data, encompassing both quantitative numerical data and qualitative categorical/attribute data.

सांख्यिकी मात्रात्मक (संख्यात्मक) और गुणात्मक (श्रेणीबद्ध) दोनों प्रकार की सूचनाओं (Both Qualitative and Quantitative information) के विश्लेषण और निष्कर्ष से संबंधित है।

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1664📚Questioned Documents & HandwritingHandwriting Comparison Principles

An opinion of non-authenticity is justified by:

Explanation

In questioned document examination, an opinion that a writing is non-authentic (non-genuine) requires the identification of persistent, repeated fundamental differences in writing habits between the questioned and standard writings that cannot be explained by natural variation or illness.

दस्तावेज परीक्षण में अप्रामाणिकता की राय स्थापित करने के लिए संदिग्ध और मानक लिखावट के बीच मूलभूत अंतरों (Fundamental differences) की उपस्थिति आवश्यक होती है, जिन्हें स्वाभाविक भिन्नता द्वारा समझाया नहीं जा सकता।

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1665📚Questioned Documents & HandwritingGuided Hand Signatures

Guided signature is devoid of:

Explanation

A guided signature (produced when an assistant physically directs the hand of an infirm or elderly writer) exhibits awkwardness, hesitation, and conflicting muscular movements, and is characteristically devoid of good line quality.

निर्देशित हस्ताक्षर (जब किसी कमजोर व्यक्ति के हाथ को दूसरा व्यक्ति पकड़कर लिखवाता है) में दोनों व्यक्तियों के विरोधाभासी गति के कारण झिझक होती है और यह अच्छी रेखा गुणवत्ता (Good line quality) से पूरी तरह रहित होता है।

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1666📚Questioned Documents & HandwritingFundamental Principles of Handwriting

Which statement is true for handwriting identification?\nI. A writer cannot exceed his/her writing skill and ability unless he/she makes serious efforts and practice.\nII. Handwriting does not exclusively depend upon the physical movement of hand or writing instrument used.\nIII. A writer can put 2 or more signatures exactly similar.\nIV. A person can adopt difference styles of writing at different times as to change one's normal style of writing.\nOptions:

Explanation

Statements I and II are foundational axioms of handwriting science: (I) a writer cannot write better than their neuromuscular ability without extensive training; (II) handwriting is 'brain writing' controlled by the central nervous system and not solely the physical hand. Statement III is false because no two natural signatures are ever identical.

हस्तलेखन के बुनियादी सिद्धांत: कोई भी लेखक अपने कौशल स्तर से बेहतर नहीं लिख सकता (कथन I सत्य) और लिखावट 'मस्तिष्क का लेखन' है जो केवल हाथ की गति पर निर्भर नहीं है (कथन II सत्य)। कोई भी व्यक्ति दो बिल्कुल समान हस्ताक्षर कभी नहीं कर सकता (III असत्य)। अतः Both I and II सही है।

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1667📚Questioned Documents & PaperPaper Manufacturing & Pulp Types

Match the following types of paper with their constituents:\ni. Writing paper\nii. Rice paper\niii. Tracing paper\niv. Tissue paper\na. Bisulphate pulp\nb. Chemical pulp with wet strength additive\nc. 25% rags\nd. Pith of Tetrapanax papyriferum\nOptions:

Explanation

High-grade writing paper often contains 25% rag fibers (i-c); traditional oriental rice paper is manufactured from the pith of the tree Tetrapanax papyriferum (ii-d); tracing paper is treated chemical pulp with wet strength resin (iii-b/a); and tissue paper is made of bisulphate chemical pulp (iv-a/b). Option A aligns i-c and ii-d.

लेखन कागज = 25% चीथड़े (i-c); राइस पेपर = टेट्रापैनेक्स पैपिरिफ़ेरम का गूदा (ii-d); ट्रेसिंग पेपर और टिशू पेपर रासायनिक लुगदी से बनते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b है।

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1668📚Questioned Documents & PaperPaper Sizing & Ink Resistance

Consider the following statements regarding paper manufacturing:\nI. Sizing agents include starch, gelatin, Al(OH)3, and synthetic polymers.\nII. It is used to stop feathering of ink in the paper.\nChoose the correct option:

Explanation

Both statements are correct: Sizing materials (rosin, starch, gelatin, aluminum salts) are added during papermaking to seal porous fiber capillaries, preventing ink feathering and penetration.

दोनों कथन सत्य हैं: साइजिंग सामग्री में स्टार्च, जिलेटिन और एल्यूमीनियम यौगिक शामिल होते हैं और इनका मुख्य उद्देश्य कागज पर लिखते समय स्याही के रेशों में फैलने (feathering) को रोकना होता है।

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1669📚Questioned Documents & Machine PrintingInkjet Security Printing Applications

Inkjet printing technology is used to print:

Explanation

Continuous or drop-on-demand inkjet printing is standardly used for high-speed serial variable numbering and personalization on lottery tickets and security packaging. Stamp papers and currency notes rely on intaglio and offset printing.

परिवर्तनीय डेटा, बारकोड और सीरियल नंबरों की तीव्र गति से छपाई के लिए लॉटरी टिकटों (Lottery tickets) पर इंकजेट प्रिंटिंग तकनीक का व्यापक उपयोग किया जाता है।

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1670📚Security Documents & PrintingSecurity Printing Processes (Intaglio)

Which Printing technology produces extremely fine lines and life like pictures?

Explanation

Intaglio printing (steel plate engraving) produces microscopic, razor-sharp fine lines and embossed relief with exceptional tonal fidelity, making it the premier process for banknotes and security portraits.

इंटेग्लियो प्रिंटिंग (उत्कीर्ण छपाई) अत्यंत महीन रेखाएं, उभरा हुआ स्पर्श और सजीव चित्रात्मक विवरण प्रस्तुत करती है, जिसका उपयोग बैंकनोट और सुरक्षा दस्तावेजों में किया जाता है।

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1671📚Questioned Documents & Machine PrintingInkjet Satellite Droplet Formation

In inkjet printed documents, satellite drops have which of the following characteristics?\nI. They are tiny drops of ink that separate from the main drop as the ink is being ejected.\nII. They do not gather at the edge of printed matter.\nIII. The satellite can be indicative of direction of the print.\nChoose the correct option:

Explanation

Satellite droplets are secondary micro-droplets formed when the trailing fluid ligament detaches from the primary ejected ink droplet during drop formation (Statement I is fundamentally true). In examination keys, statement I defines the intrinsic origin of satellite drops.

इंकजेट प्रिंटिंग में नोजल से स्याही निकलने पर मुख्य बूंद के पीछे छूटने वाली छोटी द्वितीयक बूंदों को उपग्रह बूंदें (Satellite drops) कहा जाता है (कथन I सत्य है)।

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1672📚Security Documents & PrintingGuilloche Patterns in Security Printing

Guilloche pattern is a scanty/rare feature of:

Explanation

Guilloche patterns (intricate geometric spirographic interlocking fine line designs) are prominent anti-counterfeiting security features on banknotes, passports, and identity cards, but are scanty / rarely utilized on commercial product labels.

गिलोश पैटर्न (जटिल ज्यामितीय महीन रेखा डिजाइन) करेंसी, पासपोर्ट और डेबिट कार्ड पर प्रमुख सुरक्षा विशेषता है, लेकिन सामान्य वाणिज्यिक लेबलों (Labels) पर बहुत कम या नगण्य रूप में पाया जाता है।

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1673📚Security Documents & PrintingHigh-Security Tax & Excise Stamps

Which of the following country has maximum security features in excise stamps?

Explanation

India has implemented some of the world's most sophisticated high-security excise tax stamps (for liquor and tobacco), integrating multi-layered overt holograms, covert taggants, microtext, UV fluorescence, and cryptographic QR track-and-trace systems.

भारत (India) ने शराब और तंबाकू के उत्पाद शुल्क टिकटों में दुनिया के सबसे उन्नत बहुस्तरीय सुरक्षा फीचर्स (होलोग्राम, यूवी फ्लोरोसेंस, सूक्ष्म मुद्रण और डिजिटल क्यूआर ट्रैकिंग) लागू किए हैं।

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1674📚Security Documents & PrintingIndian Banknote Security Features

Which of the following security feature is NOT present in Indian currency notes?\nI. Anti photocopying features\nII. IR features\nIII. Micro printing\nIV. Hologram\nOptions:

Explanation

Indian banknotes incorporate microprinting (III), infrared features (II), and Omron anti-copying rings, but do NOT feature an applied foil patch hologram (IV). Option C pairs this distinction.

भारतीय करेंसी नोटों में माइक्रो-प्रिंटिंग, IR फीचर्स और एंटी-कॉपी पैटर्न मौजूद हैं, लेकिन इन नोटों पर पैच होलोग्राम (Hologram) नहीं होता है। अतः I and IV सही विकल्प है।

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1675📚Security Documents & PrintingSecurity Printing Applications

Match the following security features with their primary document applications:\ni. Heat activated UV film\nii. Micro lettering\niii. OVI (Optically Variable Ink)\niv. Thermal ink\nDocuments:\na. Currency\nb. Anti counterfeiting labels\nc. Tickets\nd. Passports\nOptions:

Explanation

Heat-activated UV security films protect passport data pages (i-d); Micro lettering is prominent in currency notes (ii-a); OVI color-shifting inks secure anti-counterfeiting labels and documents (iii-b); and Thermal inks are used on tickets and boarding passes (iv-c). Thus, i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c.

हीट एक्टिवेटेड यूवी फिल्म = पासपोर्ट (i-d); माइक्रो लेटरिंग = करेंसी नोट (ii-a); OVI = जालसाजी-रोधी लेबल (iii-b); थर्मल स्याही = टिकट (iv-c)। अतः सही मिलान i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c है।

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1676📚Forensic ToxicologyHistorical Toxicology & Legal Medicine

Arthashastra primarily emphasized forensic practices related to:

Explanation

Kautilya's ancient treatise 'Arthashastra' contains detailed descriptions of poisons, toxicological detection, testing food for royal security, recognizing poison symptoms, and investigating suspicious or unnatural deaths.

कौटिल्य के प्राचीन ग्रंथ 'अर्थशास्त्र' में जहर (विष), विष विज्ञान (Toxicology), शाही सुरक्षा के लिए भोजन की जांच, विषाक्तता के लक्षणों की पहचान और संदिग्ध अप्राकृतिक मौतों की जांच (crime detection) का विस्तृत वर्णन मिलता है।

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1677📚Crime Scene InvestigationScene Security and Evidence Protocol

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion (A): Securing the crime scene is the first step in investigation.
Reason (R): Evidence should always be collected before securing the scene.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Explanation

Assertion (A) is True because securing and isolating the scene is the crucial initial step to preserve physical integrity. Reason (R) is completely False because collecting evidence before establishing perimeter security risks contamination, loss, or destruction of critical evidence.

अभिकथन (A) सत्य है क्योंकि अपराध स्थल को सुरक्षित और सील करना जांच का पहला अनिवार्य कदम है ताकि भौतिक साक्ष्य सुरक्षित रहें। कारण (R) असत्य है क्योंकि घटनास्थल को सुरक्षित किए बिना साक्ष्य एकत्र करने से साक्ष्यों का संदूषण (contamination), हेरफेर या नष्ट होने का गंभीर खतरा होता है।

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1678📚Crime Scene InvestigationFirst Responder Duties & Life Safety

What is the first priority of a police officer at the crime scene?

Explanation

The paramount initial priority of the first responder at any crime scene is the safety and medical assistance of all individuals present (preserving human life), followed by neutralizing active threats, and then securing the physical scene.

किसी भी अपराध स्थल पर पहले पहुंचने वाले पुलिस अधिकारी की सर्वोच्च प्राथमिकता घटनास्थल पर मौजूद सभी व्यक्तियों की सुरक्षा और चिकित्सा सहायता (मानव जीवन की रक्षा) सुनिश्चित करना है। इसके बाद खतरे को समाप्त करना और फिर घटनास्थल को सील करना होता है।

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1679📚Crime Scene InvestigationCrime Scene Reconstruction

Which of the following involves forming a hypothesis of the sequence of events from before the crime was committed through its commission?

Explanation

Crime scene reconstruction is defined as the scientific process of determining the sequence of events and formulating testable hypotheses regarding what transpired before, during, and after the commission of a crime based on physical evidence analysis.

क्राइम सीन रिकंस्ट्रक्शन (अपराध स्थल पुनर्निर्माण) वह वैज्ञानिक प्रक्रिया है जिसमें भौतिक साक्ष्यों के विश्लेषण के आधार पर अपराध होने से पूर्व, अपराध के दौरान और उसके बाद की घटनाओं के सटीक क्रम की परिकल्पना तैयार की जाती है।

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1680📚Forensic StatisticsChi-Squared Distribution & Hypothesis Testing

Which of the following distributions is used for hypothesis testing?

Explanation

The Chi-Squared (χ²) distribution is a fundamental sampling distribution widely used in non-parametric hypothesis testing, notably goodness-of-fit tests and tests of independence between categorical variables.

काई-वर्ग वितरण (Chi-Squared Distribution) का उपयोग गैर-पैरामीट्रिक परिकल्पना परीक्षणों में मुख्य रूप से अनुकूलता के परीक्षण (Goodness-of-fit) और स्वतंत्रता के परीक्षण (Test of independence) के लिए किया जाता है।

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1681📚Forensic ChemistryMarquis Color Reagent Reactions

Which of the following is correct in Marquis test?
I. Opium - Purple colour
II. Amphetamine - orange brown colour
III. Opium - Orange colour
IV. Amphetamine - bluish Purple colour
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Explanation

In the Marquis presumptive color test (formaldehyde in concentrated sulfuric acid), opiates (Opium/Morphine/Heroin) produce a distinct purple/violet coloration (I), whereas amphetamines produce an orange to orange-brown color (II). Therefore, statements I and II are correct.

मार्क्विस परीक्षण (सांद्र सल्फ्यूरिक अम्ल में फॉर्मल्डिहाइड) में अफीम/मॉर्फिन गहरा बैंगनी (Purple) रंग देता है (I) और एम्फेटामाइन नारंगी से नारंगी-भूरा (Orange-brown) रंग देता है (II)। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

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1682📚Forensic ChemistryColor Spot Tests - Psilocybin

Which of the following presumptive test give dull orange colour with psilocobin?

Explanation

In presumptive spot testing, the Marquis reagent (formaldehyde in concentrated sulfuric acid) reacts with psilocybin/psilocin extracts to produce a characteristic dull orange to yellow-orange coloration.

संभावित रंग परीक्षणों में, मार्क्विस अभिकर्मक (सांद्र सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड में फॉर्मल्डिहाइड) साइलोसाइबिन (Psilocybin) के साथ मंद नारंगी (dull orange) रंग की प्रतिक्रिया देता है।

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1683📚Forensic Explosives & Explosion DynamicsFactors Affecting Blast Damage

Why is it difficult to estimate the quantity of explosive used based solely on damage?

Explanation

Blast damage is determined not only by the explosive mass but heavily by the degree of physical confinement (tamping), standoff distance, atmospheric pressure, reflection of shock waves off walls, and structural shielding in the surrounding environment.

विस्फोट से होने वाली क्षति केवल विस्फोटक के द्रव्यमान पर निर्भर नहीं करती, बल्कि आवरण/प्रतिबंध की डिग्री (confinement), दीवार से तरंगों का परावर्तन, दूरी और आसपास के पर्यावरणीय ढाँचे पर अत्यधिक निर्भर करती है।

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1684📚Fire & Arson InvestigationPoint of Origin and Fire Damage

Where is the fire's greatest damage?

Explanation

Because fire burns for the longest duration at its point of origin (seat of fire), structural surfaces and furnishings at the origin typically suffer the greatest charring, consumption, and thermal destruction.

चूंकि आग अपने उत्पत्ति बिंदु (Point of Origin) पर सबसे अधिक समय तक जलती है, इसलिए संरचनात्मक सामग्री और वस्तुओं को सर्वाधिक क्षति वहीं होती है।

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1685📚Forensic ToxicologySpinal Poisons - Strychnine Fatal Dose

What is the fatal dose of strychnine?

Explanation

In medical jurisprudence and toxicology (Modi and Reddy), the fatal dose of strychnine for an adult human is approximately 50 to 100 mg (about 1 grain), producing violent spinal convulsions and death from asphyxia.

न्यायिक चिकित्सा विज्ञान और विष विज्ञान के अनुसार एक वयस्क मनुष्य के लिए स्ट्रिकनाइन की घातक खुराक लगभग 50 से 100 मिलीग्राम (लगभग 1 ग्रेन) होती है।

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1686📚Forensic ToxicologyCannabis Toxicology - Fatal Dose of Bhang

What is the fatal dose of bhang?

Explanation

According to Modi's Medical Jurisprudence and Toxicology, the fatal dose of Bhang (prepared from dried leaves of Cannabis sativa) is approximately 10 grams per kilogram of body weight, reflecting its low acute lethal toxicity compared to concentrated forms like Charas (2 g/kg).

मोदी के मेडिकल ज्यूरिस्प्रूडेंस एंड टॉक्सिकोलॉजी के अनुसार भांग की घातक खुराक लगभग 10 ग्राम प्रति किलोग्राम शरीर का वजन (10 gm/kg body weight) होती है।

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1687📚Mass Spectrometry & BioanalysisMatrix Effects - Ion Suppression / Enhancement

Matrix effects primarily compromise quantitative analysis by:

Explanation

In LC-MS/MS bioanalysis, matrix effects arise from co-eluting endogenous components that compete with the analyte during electrospray ionization, causing either ion suppression or ion enhancement, thereby drastically altering the ionization efficiency and compromising quantitation accuracy.

एलसी-एमएस (LC-MS/MS) में मैट्रिक्स प्रभाव सह-निकलने वाले घटकों के कारण होता है, जो आयन स्रोत में लक्षित पदार्थ की आयनीकरण दक्षता (Ionization efficiency) को दबाकर (ion suppression) या बढ़ाकर (ion enhancement) मात्रात्मक सटीकता को प्रभावित करते हैं।

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1688📚Forensic Medicine & ToxicologyAlcohol Intoxication - Saturday Night Palsy

Saturday night paralysis occurs due to

Explanation

'Saturday night palsy' (compression neuropathy of the radial nerve) classically occurs during severe acute alcohol intoxication/poisoning when an inebriated individual falls into a stuporous sleep with their arm draped over a hard chair back or edge, causing prolonged ischemic radial nerve compression.

'शनिवार की रात का पक्षाघात' (रेडियल नर्व पाल्सी) तीव्र शराब के नशे/विषाक्तता (Alcohol poisoning) के कारण होता है, जब अत्यधिक नशे में व्यक्ति कुर्सी की पीठ पर अपना हाथ लटकाकर गहरी नींद में सो जाता है जिससे रेडियल तंत्रिका दब जाती है।

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1689📚Biochemical ChromatographyAffinity Chromatography

Chromatographic methods in which the protein mixture to be purified is passed over a matrix to which specific ligands are attached known as

Explanation

Affinity chromatography separates biomolecules based on specific, reversible non-covalent biological binding interactions between the target protein and an immobilized ligand (e.g. antibody-antigen, enzyme-substrate analogue, or receptor-hormone) covalently bonded to the stationary phase matrix.

एफिनिटी क्रोमैटोग्राफी (Affinity chromatography) में एक स्थिर मैट्रिक्स से जुड़े विशिष्ट लिगैंड और लक्षित प्रोटीन के बीच होने वाले उच्च विशिष्ट जैविक बंध पर आधारित पृथक्करण किया जाता है।

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1690📚Inorganic & Physical ChemistryNon-aqueous Solvents - Protogenic Solvents

Which of the following is a protogenic solvent?

Explanation

Protogenic solvents are acidic solvents that possess a strong tendency to donate protons (H+). Examples include anhydrous liquid hydrogen fluoride (HF), anhydrous sulfuric acid, and glacial acetic acid. Liquid ammonia is protophilic (basic), while benzene and SO2 are aprotic.

प्रोटोजेनिक विलायक वे अम्लीय विलायक होते हैं जो आसानी से प्रोटॉन (H+) दान करते हैं। तरल हाइड्रोजन फ्लोराइड (Liquid HF) और सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड इसके प्रमुख उदाहरण हैं। तरल अमोनिया प्रोटोफिलिक (क्षारीय) विलायक है।

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1691📚Forensic Evidence CollectionBiological Fluid Preservation - Refrigeration

Which of the following is an appropriate method for collecting and preserving wet or liquid evidence such as blood or urine?

Explanation

Liquid biological specimens (whole blood in tubes containing sodium fluoride/potassium oxalate and liquid urine) must be kept refrigerated at approximately 4°C immediately following collection to prevent bacterial metabolism, enzyme degradation, and putrefaction.

तरल जैविक साक्ष्यों (जैसे ट्यूब में भरा रक्त या मूत्र) को एकत्र करने के तुरंत बाद प्रशीतन (Refrigeration / लगभग 4°C) में रखा जाना चाहिए ताकि बैक्टीरियल विकास और रासायनिक अपघटन को रोका जा सके।

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1692📚Forensic Ballistics & Evidence HandlingFirearm Evidence Packaging & Fingerprint Preservation

What is the primary consideration when packaging firearms collected as evidence?

Explanation

When securing and packaging a recovered firearm, the paramount forensic consideration is preserving latent friction ridge fingerprints and touch DNA. Firearms must be unloaded, rendered safe, and secured in rigid cardboard gun boxes using zip-ties, avoiding plastic bags which cause condensation that obliterates latent prints.

हथियार को सुरक्षित करने के बाद, पैकेजिंग का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य उस पर मौजूद गुप्त उंगलियों के निशान (fingerprints) और डीएनए की रक्षा करना होता है। इसे कठोर कार्डबोर्ड बॉक्स में ज़िप-टाई से बांधा जाता है और प्लास्टिक बैग से बचा जाता है।

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1693📚General EnglishHomophones and Vocabulary

Which of these homophone pairs can confuse in understanding policies?

Explanation

All three pairs are classic administrative homophones: 'council' (an administrative committee) vs 'counsel' (advice/lawyer); 'capital' (wealth/city) vs 'capitol' (legislative building); 'principal' (chief/head) vs 'principle' (fundamental rule). Hence, 'all of the above' is correct.

तीनों शब्द युग्म प्रशासनिक दस्तावेजों में भ्रमित करने वाले समान उच्चारण वाले शब्द (homophones) हैं: council/counsel, capital/capitol, और principal/principle। अतः 'all of the above' सही उत्तर है।

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

1694📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Awards and Honors

Who has received the 2025 World Leader for Peace and Security award?

Explanation

Global humanitarian leader and Art of Living founder Gurudev Sri Sri Ravi Shankar was conferred the prestigious 2025 World Leader for Peace and Security Award by the Boston Global Forum (BGF) and the AI World Society for his tireless efforts toward global conflict resolution and non-violence.

आर्ट ऑफ लिविंग के संस्थापक और वैश्विक मानवतावादी नेता गुरुदेव श्री श्री रवि शंकर को वैश्विक संघर्ष समाधान, मानवीय सद्भाव और शांति के प्रयासों के लिए बोस्टन ग्लोबल फोरम (BGF) द्वारा '2025 वर्ल्ड लीडर फॉर पीस एंड सिक्योरिटी' पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया।

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1695📚Geography of IndiaIndian Drainage System - Damodar River

Which river rises in Khamarpat hill in the Chhotanagpur plateau and is called the "river of sorrow"?

Explanation

The Damodar River originates from the Khamarpat hill in the Chota Nagpur plateau (Latehar/Palamu region of Jharkhand). Due to its historic catastrophic seasonal floods in the plains of West Bengal, it was known as the 'Sorrow of Bengal' (River of Sorrow).

दामोदर नदी छोटानागपुर पठार की खमरपत पहाड़ी (लातेहार, झारखंड) से निकलती है। पश्चिम बंगाल के मैदानी इलाकों में भयंकर बाढ़ लाने के कारण इसे 'बंगाल का शोक' (दुःख की नदी) कहा जाता था।

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1696📚Geography of IndiaDams and River Valley Projects in India

Match the following Dams with their associated Rivers
DAMS
i. Mettur
ii. Ukai
iii. Bisalpur
iv. Pilur
RIVERS
1. Kaveri
2. Tapti
3. Bhavani
4. Banas
Options:

Explanation

Mettur Dam is on the Kaveri River in Tamil Nadu (i-1). Ukai Dam is on the Tapti River in Gujarat (ii-2). Bisalpur Dam is on the Banas River in Rajasthan (iii-4). Pillur Dam is on the Bhavani River in Tamil Nadu (iv-3). Thus, i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3.

मेट्टूर बांध कावेरी नदी पर (1), उकाई बांध ताप्ती नदी पर (2), बीसलपुर बांध बनास नदी पर (4) और पिलूर बांध भवानी नदी पर (3) स्थित है। अतः सही मिलान i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3 है।

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1697📚Art and Culture of Jammu & KashmirTraditional Crafts - Rangrez & Namda

Which of the following statements correctly explains the historical-cultural significance of Kashmir's Rangrez and Namda traditions?

Explanation

In Kashmiri cultural heritage, 'Rangrez' refers to the hereditary master dyers whose fabric dyeing craft flourished under Mughal patronage, while 'Namda' is traditional felted sheep wool floor rugs ornamented with aari embroidery, culturally traced to Sufi saint patronage and Central Asian ties.

कश्मीर में 'रंगरेज़' पारंपरिक रंगाई करने वाला समुदाय था जिसे मुगल काल में विशेष संरक्षण प्राप्त था, और 'नमदा' भेड़ के ऊन को कूटकर (felted wool) बनाया जाने वाला फर्श का गलीचा है जिसका संबंध सूफी परंपराओं से रहा है।

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1698📚Culture of Jammu & KashmirFairs and Festivals - Purmandal and Jhiri Mela

Consider the following statements about the fairs and festivals of Jammu & Kashmir.
I. Purmandal Mela is organized on Shivaratri (February-March).
II. Jhiri mela (October-November) is held around the legend of Baba Jitu.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Both statements are correct. Purmandal Mela (Chhoti Kashi) is celebrated during Maha Shivaratri (February-March) along the sacred Devika river. The Jhiri Mela is held annually during Kartik Purnima (October-November) in Jhiri village to honor the peasant martyr Baba Jitu (Baba Jitto).

दोनों कथन सत्य हैं। पुरमंडल मेला महाशिवरात्रि (फरवरी-मार्च) के अवसर पर देविका नदी के तट पर आयोजित होता है। झीरी मेला कार्तिक पूर्णिमा (अक्टूबर-नवंबर) पर किसान शहीद बाबा जीतो के बलिदान की स्मृति में आयोजित किया जाता है।

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

1699📚Computer Science & ITOperating Systems Fundamentals

Operating System:
A) Links a program with subordinate interferences
B) Enables the programmer to draw a flowchart
C) Provides a layer, user friendly interface
D) All of these

Explanation

An Operating System (OS) is system software that acts as an intermediary layer between computer hardware and the user/applications, providing a user-friendly interface (GUI/CLI) and managing hardware resources.

ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम (OS) सिस्टम सॉफ्टवेयर है जो कंप्यूटर हार्डवेयर और यूजर के बीच एक मध्यवर्ती परत (layer) के रूप में कार्य करता है तथा एक यूजर-फ्रेंडली इंटरफेस प्रदान करता है।

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

1700📚Internet and Cyber SecurityEmail Security Protocols - SSL/TLS

Which of these protocols ensures secure email transmission?

Explanation

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS (Transport Layer Security) provide cryptographic encryption for email protocols (SMTPS, IMAPS, POP3S, STARTTLS), protecting email contents and credentials against eavesdropping and tampering.

एसएसएल/टीएलएस (SSL/TLS - Transport Layer Security) ईमेल प्रोटोकॉल को एन्क्रिप्ट करके इंटरनेट पर सुरक्षित ईमेल प्रसारण और डेटा गोपनीयता सुनिश्चित करता है।

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

1701📚Database Management & MS AccessSQL & Access Query Types - Select Query

Which type of query retrieves data based on a condition?

Explanation

A Select Query is the fundamental data retrieval query in databases (SQL / MS Access) used to select and display records from one or more tables that meet specified criteria (WHERE clause conditions) without altering the underlying data.

डेटाबेस (SQL / MS Access) में सेलेक्ट क्वेरी (Select Query) का उपयोग किसी दी गई शर्त या मापदंड के आधार पर तालिकाओं से डेटा देखने और पुनः प्राप्त करने के लिए किया जाता है।

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1702📚Basic MathematicsVariation and Proportions

A high-end jeweller manufactures gold bars where the price of a bar is directly proportional to the square of its weight. During transit, a bar of weight 5 units and worth Rs. 25,000 accidentally breaks into two pieces with weights in the ratio 2:3. What is the total reduction in the value of the gold due to this breakage?

Explanation

Price P = k × W². For the original bar: 25000 = k × (5²) => 25000 = 25k => k = 1000. The two broken pieces weigh 2 units and 3 units. Value of 1st piece = 1000 × (2²) = Rs. 4,000. Value of 2nd piece = 1000 × (3²) = Rs. 9,000. Total value of broken pieces = 4000 + 9000 = Rs. 13,000. Reduction in value = 25000 - 13000 = Rs. 12,000.

मूल्य P = k × W²। मूल छड़ के लिए: 25000 = k × 5² => k = 1000। टूटे हुए टुकड़ों का वजन 2 और 3 इकाई है। पहले टुकड़े का मूल्य = 1000 × 2² = 4,000 रु। दूसरे टुकड़े का मूल्य = 1000 × 3² = 9,000 रु। कुल मूल्य = 13,000 रु। मूल्य में कुल कमी = 25,000 - 13,000 = 12,000 रु।

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1703📚Basic ReasoningNumber Coding - Letter Position Sum

If RAM=16 and DAM=9, then DREAMS=?

Explanation

The pattern is: (Sum of alphabetical positions of letters) / 2. RAM: (18 + 1 + 13) / 2 = 32 / 2 = 16. DAM: (4 + 1 + 13) / 2 = 18 / 2 = 9. DREAMS: (4 + 18 + 5 + 1 + 13 + 19) / 2 = 60 / 2 = 30.

पैटर्न: (अक्षरों के स्थानीय मानों का योग) / 2। RAM = (18 + 1 + 13) / 2 = 16। DAM = (4 + 1 + 13) / 2 = 9। DREAMS = (4 + 18 + 5 + 1 + 13 + 19) / 2 = 60 / 2 = 30।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1704📚Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense (Shadow Concept)

A man walks 57 m, turns right and walks 76 m, then turns right again and walks 57 m. If at the time of sunset, his shadow is to his left, in which direction did he start?
A) South
B) East
C) West
D) North

Explanation

At sunset, the sun is in the West, so shadows are cast towards the East.
Given that his shadow is to his left, his left side must be facing East, which means he is currently facing South.
Now trace his movements backwards:
- He is currently facing South after taking two right turns (each 90° right = 180° reversal of direction).
- Two right turns reverse your facing direction by 180°.
- Since his final facing direction is South, his initial starting direction was 180° opposite, which is North.
Let's verify: Starting North -> turns right (faces East) -> turns right again (faces South). Facing South, East is to his left, where his shadow falls. Hence, he started walking North.

सूर्यास्त के समय सूर्य पश्चिम में होता है, अतः किसी भी वस्तु की परछाई पूर्व (East) दिशा में बनती है।
व्यक्ति की परछाई उसके बाईं ओर है, इसका अर्थ है कि उसकी बाईं दिशा पूर्व है, जिससे स्पष्ट है कि उसका मुख दक्षिण (South) की ओर है।
व्यक्ति ने चलते हुए दो बार दायें (Right) मोड़ लिए (दो बार दायें मुड़ने का अर्थ है दिशा 180° पलट जाना)।
चूंकि अंत में उसका मुख दक्षिण की ओर है, अतः उसने दक्षिण की विपरीत दिशा यानी उत्तर (North) में चलना प्रारंभ किया था।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1705📚General EnglishPrepositions & Phrasal Verbs

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions:
While the professor was _ the middle _ a lecture, a student broke _ with a question.
A) at, for, out
B) in, of, in
C) within, of, through
D) during, of, up

Explanation

- 'in the middle of' is the standard idiom meaning during the midst of.
- 'break in' is a phrasal verb meaning to interrupt a conversation or lecture.
Hence: 'in, of, in'.

- 'in the middle of' एक मुहावरेदार प्रयोग है जिसका अर्थ होता है 'के बीच में'।
- 'break in' एक phrasal verb है जिसका अर्थ होता है 'बीच में टोकना' या बाधा डालना।
अतः सही विकल्प 'in, of, in' है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1706📚General EnglishSynonyms

"The CEO's mercurial temperament made it difficult for the staff to predict how he would react to the news." Choose the SYNONYM for mercurial in this context:
A) steadfast
B) dependable
C) capricious
D) lethargic

Explanation

'Mercurial' means subject to sudden or unpredictable changes of mood or mind; volatile or erratic. 'Capricious' means given to sudden and unaccountable changes of mood or behavior, making it the exact synonym.

'Mercurial' का अर्थ होता है स्वभाव में अचानक और अप्रत्याशित रूप से परिवर्तनशील (अस्थिर/मनमौजी)। 'Capricious' का अर्थ भी चंचल या परिवर्तनशील स्वभाव वाला होता है। अतः 'capricious' सही पर्यायवाची है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1707📚General EnglishReading Comprehension

How does the author's description of the "five F's" serve the overall argument of the passage?
A) It provides a technical classification for botanical study.
B) It illustrates the shift from an industrial priority to a subsistence priority.
C) It highlights the economic profit potential for global timber markets.
D) It proves that social forestry is more expensive than traditional forestry.

Explanation

The author contrasts commercial forestry (which produces timber for industry) with social forestry (providing fuel, food, fodder, fibre, and fertilizer). This illustrates the fundamental shift from commercial/industrial exploitation to meeting local livelihood and subsistence needs.

लेखक व्यावसायिक वानिकी (उद्योगों के लिए लकड़ी) की तुलना सामाजिक वानिकी (ईंधन, भोजन, चारा आदि) से करता है, जिससे यह सिद्ध होता है कि प्राथमिकता औद्योगिक उत्पादन से हटकर ग्रामीण समुदाय की निर्वाह आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति पर केंद्रित हो गई है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1708📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports & J&K UT Affairs

Jammu and Kashmir clinched their maiden Ranji Trophy title by defeating which opposition team?
A) Maharashtra
B) Saurashtra
C) Haryana
D) Karnataka

Explanation

In the 2025-26 domestic season, Jammu and Kashmir created history by winning their maiden Ranji Trophy title, defeating 8-time champions Karnataka in the final held at Hubballi, Karnataka, securing victory on the basis of a massive 291-run first-innings lead.

घरेलू क्रिकेट सत्र 2025-26 में जम्मू-कश्मीर ने हुबली (कर्नाटक) में आयोजित फाइनल मुकाबले में 8 बार की चैंपियन टीम कर्नाटक को पहली पारी में 291 रनों की विशाल बढ़त के आधार पर हराकर अपना ऐतिहासिक पहला रणजी ट्रॉफी खिताब जीता।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1709📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsEarly Medieval Indian History

The 'Tripartite struggle' for control over the city of Kannauj was fought between which dynasties?
A) Palas, Senas, Pushyabhutis
B) Palas, Pratiharas, Chalukyas
C) Palas, Pratiharas, Reddis
D) Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas

Explanation

The Tripartite Struggle for control over Kannauj (the imperial symbol of Northern India in the 8th to 10th centuries CE) was fought for two centuries between three major powers: the Gurjara-Pratiharas of western India, the Palas of eastern India (Bengal/Bihar), and the Rashtrakutas of the Deccan.

8वीं से 10वीं शताब्दी के दौरान उत्तर भारत के सामरिक एवं राजनीतिक केंद्र 'कन्नौज' पर आधिपत्य स्थापित करने के लिए तीन प्रमुख शक्तियों - पश्चिमी भारत के गुर्जर-प्रतिहार, पूर्वी भारत के पाल और दक्कन के राष्ट्रकूटों के बीच लगभग दो शताब्दियों तक 'त्रिपक्षीय संघर्ष' चला।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1710📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity (High Courts of India)

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Description / Capitals:
I. Judicial Capital of Arunachal Pradesh - Itanagar
II. Judicial Capital of Goa - Panaji
III. Judicial Capital of Madhya Pradesh - Jabalpur
Choose the correct match:
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) III only
D) I and III only

Explanation

- Madhya Pradesh has its administrative capital at Bhopal, while its Principal Seat of High Court (Judicial Capital) is at Jabalpur. Hence, Pair III is correctly matched.
- Arunachal Pradesh does not have an independent High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court (Principal Seat in Guwahati, Assam; Itanagar is merely a permanent bench).
- Goa does not have its own High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court (Principal Seat in Mumbai, Maharashtra; Panaji is a bench).
Therefore, only III represents a true state Judicial Capital seat distinct from the state capital.

- मध्य प्रदेश की प्रशासनिक राजधानी भोपाल है, जबकि इसका उच्च न्यायालय का मुख्य पीठ (न्यायिक राजधानी) जबलपुर में स्थित है। अतः युग्म III सही सुमेलित है।
- अरुणाचल प्रदेश का अपना अलग उच्च न्यायालय नहीं है; यह गुवाहाटी उच्च न्यायालय (असम) के क्षेत्राधिकार में आता है (ईटानगर केवल एक खंडपीठ है)।
- गोवा भी बॉम्बे उच्च न्यायालय (मुंबई, महाराष्ट्र) के क्षेत्राधिकार में आता है (पणजी केवल एक खंडपीठ है)।
अतः केवल III सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1711📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography of Jammu & Kashmir (Mountain Passes)

If a group of tourists moves from Jammu to Srinagar by road, then most likely they will cross which mountain pass?
A) Fotu La
B) Bara Lacha La
C) Rohtang Pass
D) Banihal Pass

Explanation

The Jammu-Srinagar National Highway (NH 44) traverses the Pir Panjal Range via the Banihal Pass (traversed via the Jawahar Tunnel and the newer Banihal-Qazigund Road Tunnel/Navyug Tunnel), connecting the Jammu plains to the Kashmir Valley.
(Fotu La connects Kargil to Leh; Bara Lacha La connects Himachal to Ladakh; Rohtang Pass connects Kullu to Lahaul).

जम्मू-श्रीनगर राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग (NH 44) पीर पंजाल पर्वतमाला में स्थित बनिहाल दर्रे (जवाहर सुरंग और बनिहाल-काजीगुंड नवयुग सुरंग) से होकर गुजरता है, जो जम्मू को कश्मीर घाटी से जोड़ता है।
(फोतु ला कारगिल-लेह मार्ग पर है; बारा लाचा ला मनाली-लेह पर; रोहतांग दर्रा कुल्लू-लाहौल को जोड़ता है)।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1712🔬General ScienceFibre to Fabric (Wool Processing)

Arrange the following wool processing operations in correct sequential order:
I. Scouring
II. Sorting
III. Shearing
IV. Rolling
V. Cleaning
Choose the correct option:
A) I - III - II - IV - V
B) I - III - II - V - IV
C) III - I - II - V - IV
D) III - I - II - IV - V

Explanation

The standard sequence of wool processing from sheep fleece to yarn (as per NCERT Science Class 7, Chapter 'Fibre to Fabric'):
1. Step III: Shearing (fleece is shaved from sheep body).
2. Step I: Scouring (sheared hair washed thoroughly in tanks to remove grease, dust, and dirt).
3. Step II: Sorting (hairy skin sent to factory where hair of different textures is separated).
4. Step V: Cleaning of burrs (small fluffy fibres called burrs are picked out).
5. Step IV: Rolling / Dyeing & Spinning (fibres are straightened, combed, dyed, and rolled into yarn).
Hence, the correct sequence is III - I - II - V - IV.

भेड़ के बालों से ऊन तैयार करने के वैज्ञानिक चरण (NCERT विज्ञान कक्षा 7):
1. चरण III: ऊन की कटाई (Shearing) - भेड़ के शरीर से ऊन उतारना।
2. चरण I: अभिमार्जन (Scouring) - टंकियों में धोकर चिकनाई, धूल और गर्त निकालना।
3. चरण II: छंटाई (Sorting) - विभिन्न बनावट वाले बालों को अलग-अलग करना।
4. चरण V: बर्र की सफाई (Cleaning of burrs) - छोटे रोयेंदार तंतुओं (बर्र) को चुनना।
5. चरण IV: रंगाई व रोलिंग/लपेटना (Rolling into yarn) - रेशों को सीधा कर धागे के रूप में लपेटना।
अतः सही क्रम III - I - II - V - IV है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1713🔬General ScienceRespiration in Organisms

What are the by-products of anaerobic respiration?
I. Alcohol
II. Carbon dioxide
III. Water
IV. Energy
V. Lactic Acid
Choose the correct option:
A) All of the above
B) I, III, IV and V only
C) I, II and V only
D) I, II, IV and V only

Explanation

Anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of oxygen:
1. In yeast (alcoholic fermentation): Glucose -> Alcohol (Ethanol) + Carbon dioxide (CO₂) + Energy (ATP).
2. In human muscle cells during heavy exercise: Glucose -> Lactic Acid + Energy.
Notice that Water (H₂O) is produced ONLY during AEROBIC respiration (Glucose + O₂ -> CO₂ + H₂O + Energy). Water is never a by-product of anaerobic respiration.
Therefore, the by-products are I, II, IV, and V only.

ऑक्सीजन की अनुपस्थिति में अवायवीय श्वसन (Anaerobic respiration) दो प्रमुख मार्गों से होता है:
1. यीस्ट में (किण्वन): ग्लूकोज -> अल्कोहल + कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड (CO₂) + ऊर्जा।
2. मांसपेशियों में (तीव्र व्यायाम के समय): ग्लूकोज -> लैक्टिक अम्ल + ऊर्जा।
जल (H₂O) केवल 'वायवीय श्वसन' (Aerobic respiration) का उत्पाद है, अवायवीय श्वसन का नहीं।
अतः अवायवीय श्वसन के उत्पाद केवल I, II, IV और V हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1714📚General EnglishReading Comprehension

According to the passage on Normal Science and Scientific Revolutions, why do scientific revolutions represent a rupture rather than a continuation of prior science?
A) Because scientists abandon objectivity and turn to speculation.
B) Because competing paradigms redefine questions and methods, making continuity impossible.
C) Because new paradigms invalidate all previous findings.
D) Because scientists stop collecting empirical data.

Explanation

The passage explains that scientific revolutions occur when a new paradigm emerges, which is not merely an extension of the old framework but a fundamental reconceptualization of reality (akin to a gestalt switch), redefining the very questions, assumptions, and methods of science.

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट किया गया है कि वैज्ञानिक क्रांति पुराने ढांचे का मात्र विस्तार नहीं है, बल्कि वास्तविकता का एक मौलिक पुनर्गठन (gestalt switch) है, जो विज्ञान के प्रश्नों और पद्धतियों को नए सिरे से परिभाषित करता है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1715📚General EnglishVocabulary (Fill in the blanks)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:
Despite the _ challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to reach their destination.
A) formidable
B) negligible
C) trivial
D) insignificant

Explanation

'Formidable' means inspiring fear or respect through being impressively large, powerful, intense, or capable. The preposition 'Despite' signals a contrast between severe/daunting challenges and successful arrival.

'Formidable' का अर्थ होता है विकट, अत्यंत कठिन या दुर्जेय। 'Despite' (के बावजूद) शब्द कठिनाइयों और गंतव्य तक पहुँचने की सफलता के बीच विरोधाभास को दर्शाता है। अन्य सभी विकल्प (तुच्छ/नगण्य) संदर्भ के प्रतिकूल हैं।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1716📚General EnglishPronouns

Identify the correct type of pronoun in the following sentence:
"I enjoyed myself during the holidays."
Here, 'myself' is a _ pronoun.
A) demonstrative
B) possessive
C) distributive
D) reflexive

Explanation

When the action of the verb reflects back upon the subject itself (the subject and object refer to the same person), the pronoun ending in -self/-selves is a Reflexive pronoun.

जब क्रिया का प्रभाव कर्ता (Subject) पर ही पड़ता है (कर्ता और कर्म एक ही व्यक्ति होते हैं), तो '-self' वाले सर्वनाम को निजवाचक सर्वनाम (Reflexive pronoun) कहा जाता है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1717📚Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss

A shopkeeper bought 40 pieces of an article at a rate of Rs. 50 per item. He sold 35 pieces with 20% profit. The remaining 5 pieces were found to be damaged and he sold them with 10% loss. Find his overall profit percentage.
A) 30%
B) 10%
C) 16.25%
D) 32.5%

Explanation

Total Cost Price = 40 × 50 = Rs. 2000.
- Selling Price of 35 items at 20% profit = 35 × 50 × 1.20 = 35 × 60 = Rs. 2100.
- Selling Price of 5 items at 10% loss = 5 × 50 × 0.90 = 5 × 45 = Rs. 225.
Total Selling Price = 2100 + 225 = Rs. 2325.
Total Profit = 2325 - 2000 = Rs. 325.
Overall Profit % = (325 / 2000) × 100% = 16.25%.

कुल क्रय मूल्य = 40 × 50 = ₹2000।
- 20% लाभ पर 35 वस्तुओं का विक्रय मूल्य = 35 × 60 = ₹2100।
- 10% हानि पर 5 वस्तुओं का विक्रय मूल्य = 5 × 45 = ₹225।
कुल विक्रय मूल्य = 2100 + 225 = ₹2325।
कुल लाभ = 2325 - 2000 = ₹325।
कुल लाभ प्रतिशत = (325 / 2000) × 100% = 16.25%।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1718📚Mental Ability & ReasoningLetter Series

Complete the Letter Series:
Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
A) G
B) F
C) I
D) J

Explanation

Check alphabetical position shifts backwards with increasing step sizes (-2, -3, -4, -5, -6):
- Z (26) - 2 = X (24)
- X (24) - 3 = U (21)
- U (21) - 4 = Q (17)
- Q (17) - 5 = L (12)
- L (12) - 6 = F (6).
Hence, the next letter is F.

अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला में उल्टे क्रम में घटते मान (-2, -3, -4, -5, -6):
- Z(26) - 2 = X(24)
- X(24) - 3 = U(21)
- U(21) - 4 = Q(17)
- Q(17) - 5 = L(12)
- L(12) - 6 = F(6)।
अतः अगला अक्षर F है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1719📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsNuclear Energy Policy & Legislation

Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear energy policy and the SHANTI Act 2025:
(I) The SHANTI Act, 2025, allows private sector participation in nuclear power generation.
(II) India has set a target of achieving 100 GW of installed nuclear power capacity by the year 2030.
(III) The SHANTI Act, 2025 retains unlimited supplier liability for nuclear damage to ensure enhanced accountability.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III

Explanation

- Statement I is correct: Legislative reforms and the SHANTI Act facilitate private sector and domestic vendor investment in small modular reactors (SMRs) and nuclear energy generation.
- Statement II is incorrect: India's 100 GW nuclear capacity target is set for 2047 (the Viksit Bharat centenary year), not 2030.
- Statement III is incorrect: The reform clarifies and caps supplier liability to facilitate international and private vendor participation.
Hence, I only is correct.

- कथन I सही है: शांति अधिनियम 2025 परमाणु ऊर्जा क्षेत्र में निजी क्षेत्र और वाणिज्यिक भागीदारी (विशेष रूप से SMRs) को बढ़ावा देता है।
- कथन II गलत है: भारत का 100 GW परमाणु क्षमता का महत्वाकांक्षी लक्ष्य वर्ष 2047 के लिए है, न कि 2030 के लिए।
- कथन III गलत है: आपूर्तिकर्ता दायित्व को वैश्विक मानकों के अनुरूप सीमित/सुव्यवस्थित किया गया है ताकि निजी और विदेशी भागीदार आगे आ सकें।
अतः केवल कथन I सही है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1720📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations (United Nations)

Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council:
I. As per Article 23, the Security Council shall consist of fifteen Members of the United Nations.
II. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for a term of five years.
III. A retiring non-permanent member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) All of the above

Explanation

- Statement I is correct: Under Article 23(1) of the UN Charter, the Security Council consists of 15 members (5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members).
- Statement II is incorrect: Non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of TWO years, not five years.
- Statement III is correct: Article 23(2) explicitly provides that 'a retiring member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election'.
Therefore, statements I and III only are correct.

- कथन I सही है: संयुक्त राष्ट्र चार्टर के अनुच्छेद 23 के तहत सुरक्षा परिषद में 15 सदस्य (5 स्थायी और 10 गैर-स्थायी) होते हैं।
- कथन II गलत है: गैर-स्थायी सदस्यों का कार्यकाल दो वर्ष का होता है, पांच वर्ष का नहीं।
- कथन III सही है: अनुच्छेद 23(2) के अनुसार कार्यकाल समाप्त होने पर कोई भी गैर-स्थायी सदस्य तुरंत पुनः निर्वाचित नहीं हो सकता।
अतः केवल कथन I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1721📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (National Income & Development)

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): A rise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards.
Reason (R): Income levels are fundamental metrics of Economic development.
Which of the statements is/are correct:
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true

Explanation

- Assertion A is false: The word 'always' invalidates it. Per capita GNP is an aggregate average and does not account for income inequality, inflation, environmental degradation, or access to healthcare and education. A rise in per capita GNP concentrated among the wealthy does not improve living standards for the general populace.
- Reason R is true: National income and per capita income are standard fundamental baseline metrics used in economic development analysis.
Hence, A is false, R is true.

- अभिकथन A असत्य है: 'हमेशा' शब्द इसे गलत बनाता है। प्रति व्यक्ति आय केवल एक औसत है; यदि आय असमानता बढ़ती है या मुद्रास्फीति बढ़ती है, तो प्रति व्यक्ति जीएनपी बढ़ने पर भी आम लोगों का जीवन स्तर गिर सकता है।
- कारण R सत्य है: आय स्तर आर्थिक विकास का एक मूलभूत और प्राथमिक पैमाना होता है।
अतः A असत्य है, R सत्य है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1722🔬General ScienceThermal Physics & Physical Geography

Two places, X (terrestrial) and Y (marine), are at the same latitude. During summer, Place X records 42°C and Place Y records 32°C. During winter, Place X records 0°C and Place Y records 10°C. What is the most plausible explanation?
A) Variation in the altitudes of Place X and Y
B) Land has a higher specific heat capacity than oceans
C) Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans
D) Variation in thermal insulation at places X and Y

Explanation

Water has a very high specific heat capacity (~4184 J/kg·K) compared to dry soil and rock (~800 J/kg·K). Consequently, land heats up much faster and to higher temperatures in summer, and cools down much more rapidly and severely in winter (continentality effect), whereas maritime locations experience moderating marine influences.

जल की विशिष्ट ऊष्मा धारिता भूमि (मिट्टी व चट्टान) की तुलना में बहुत अधिक होती है। अतः भूमि की विशिष्ट ऊष्मा धारिता कम होने के कारण यह गर्मियों में तेजी से गर्म होकर 42°C तक पहुँच जाती है और सर्दियों में तेजी से ठंडी होकर 0°C तक गिर जाती है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1723📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsCulture & Heritage of Jammu & Kashmir

Which of the following statements about Rauf is/are correct?
I. Rauf is a traditional folk dance performed on typical folk songs in the Kashmir dialect.
II. It is typically a solo performance by a woman only.
III. Dancers wear traditional Kashmiri attire, including pherans (long, flowing gowns) and ornate jewelry.
Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III

Explanation

- Statement I is correct: Rauf is Kashmir's most celebrated traditional celebratory dance, performed during Eid and spring festivals (Navreh).
- Statement II is incorrect: Rauf is never a solo performance; it is performed by two facing rows of women who interlink arms and glide back and forth in rhythmic harmony.
- Statement III is correct: Women wear traditional embroidered Kashmiri pherans, kasaba headgear, and ornate silver jewelry.
Hence, statements I and III are correct.

- कथन I सही है: रऊफ कश्मीर का सबसे प्रसिद्ध पारंपरिक लोकनृत्य है जो ईद और वसंत ऋतु में हर्षोल्लास से गाया और नाचा जाता है।
- कथन II गलत है: रऊफ एकल (solo) नृत्य नहीं है; यह महिलाओं की दो आमने-सामने खड़ी पंक्तियों द्वारा एक-दूसरे की कमर में हाथ डालकर समूह में किया जाता है।
- कथन III सही है: नर्तकियां पारंपरिक फेरन, कसाबा और कश्मीरी आभूषण पहनती हैं।
अतः केवल कथन I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1724📚Basic SciencePhysics - Sources of Energy

Identify the correct source of energy based on the following statements:
I. It is a non-renewable but low-carbon energy source.
II. It is a reliable source of energy but poses challenges related to radioactive waste disposal and safety concerns.
III. A huge amount of energy is released through the fission process.
A) Compressed Natural Gas
B) Petroleum Products
C) Fossil Fuels
D) Nuclear Fuels

Explanation

Nuclear Fuels (such as Uranium-235, Plutonium-239) rely on mined finite mineral resources (non-renewable), release virtually no operational carbon emissions during electricity generation (low-carbon), pose radioactive waste containment challenges, and generate massive energy through controlled nuclear fission reactions.

परमाणु ईंधन (Nuclear Fuels) सीमित खनिज अयस्कों पर निर्भर होने के कारण अनवीकरणीय लेकिन कम कार्बन उत्सर्जन वाला ऊर्जा स्रोत है। यह विखंडन (fission) प्रक्रिया द्वारा भारी मात्रा में ऊर्जा उत्पन्न करता है और रेडियोधर्मी कचरे के निपटान की चुनौती प्रस्तुत करता है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1725📚Basic SciencePhysics - Ocean Energy

Which of the following statements is NOT related to Ocean Energy?
A) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and cold ocean water to drive a turbine
B) Tidal barrage systems are dam-like structures across ocean inlets that use tidal flow through turbines during high and low tides to generate electricity.
C) Tidal stream systems use underwater turbines placed in moving tidal currents to convert the kinetic energy of flowing water into electricity.
D) Wave energy systems convert the mechanical motion of ocean waves into electrical energy.

Explanation

Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) utilizes the temperature difference between warm ocean SURFACE WATER and cold DEEP OCEAN WATER (not air above the sea) to vaporize a working fluid with low boiling point and drive a turbine generator. Thus statement A is false and NOT related to how ocean energy works.

ओशन थर्मल एनर्जी कन्वर्जन (OTEC) समुद्र की सतह के गर्म पानी और गहरी परतों के ठंडे पानी के तापमान अंतर का उपयोग करता है, न कि समुद्र के ऊपर की गर्म हवा का। अतः कथन A गलत है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1726📚Basic Computer ApplicationsHardware Diagnostics & POST

A school computer lab has 20 identical computers. Recently, several systems started showing some issue: the computer powers on (fans spin and lights turn on), but nothing appears on the monitor and no startup sound is heard. The monitors and cables have been tested and are working fine. A technician swaps the operating system drive from a working computer into one of the faulty systems, but the problem still persists. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
A) The operating system is corrupted and needs to be reinstalled
B) The graphics driver is outdated and incompatible with the monitor
C) A hardware failure in a core internal component
D) The monitor resolution settings are unsupported by the operating system.

Explanation

Because fans and LEDs turn on but there is no display output, no BIOS splash, no POST beep, and swapping working storage drives has no effect, the failure occurs during the pre-boot hardware phase (POST failure), pointing directly to a core internal hardware component fault (such as RAM, motherboard, CPU, or power regulation rail).

सिस्टम चालू होने पर पंखे चलना लेकिन डिस्प्ले और स्टार्टअप साउंड न आना, तथा चालू हार्ड ड्राइव लगाने पर भी समस्या का ठीक न होना यह दर्शाता है कि POST (Power-On Self-Test) विफल हो रहा है। यह मुख्य आंतरिक हार्डवेयर (रैम, मदरबोर्ड या सीपीयू) की विफलता का संकेत है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1727📚Basic Computer ApplicationsOperating Systems - Linux

A cybersecurity researcher needs an operating system mainly for network testing, scripting, and advanced system customization, with strong command-line tools and open-source flexibility. Which operating system would be most suitable?
A) Windows
B) Linux
C) Mac OS
D) Standalone firmware OS

Explanation

Linux distributions (such as Kali Linux, Parrot Security OS, or Ubuntu) are open-source, offer powerful terminal environments (Bash shell), full control over networking stacks, and extensive native toolsets for network auditing, security testing, and scripting.

साइबर सुरक्षा शोधकर्ताओं के लिए लिनक्स (Linux) सबसे उपयुक्त प्रणाली है क्योंकि यह ओपन-सोर्स है, शक्तिशाली कमांड-लाइन इंटरफेस प्रदान करता है और नेटवर्क टेस्टिंग टूल्स से समृद्ध है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

1728📚General EnglishVocabulary - Homonyms

In which sentence is the word "bank" used as a homonym when compared to its use in the sentence below?
She deposited the cheque at the bank.
A) The pilot had to bank the aircraft sharply during the landing.
B) The children played on the bank of the river after school.
C) The bank approved the loan after a detailed review.
D) He works at a multinational bank in the city.

Explanation

In the prompt sentence, "bank" refers to a financial depository. In option B, "bank" is a homonym meaning the land alongside a body of water (riverbank) — sharing the identical spelling and pronunciation but having a completely unrelated etymology and meaning.

मूल वाक्य में 'bank' का अर्थ वित्तीय संस्थान (बैंक) है। विकल्प B में 'bank' का अर्थ नदी का किनारा (river bank) है, जो समान वर्तनी और उच्चारण वाला लेकिन पूर्णतः भिन्न अर्थ वाला शब्द (Homonym) है।

2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department

1729📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KIndian Geography - Channels & Straits

The Ten-degree channel separates which two regions?
A) Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
B) Minicoy and Lakshadweep
C) Nicobar and Indonesia
D) Andaman and Myanmar

Explanation

The Ten Degree Channel is a maritime channel in the Bay of Bengal that separates the Andaman Islands (specifically Little Andaman) to the north from the Nicobar Islands (specifically Car Nicobar) to the south along the 10° N parallel.

10-डिग्री चैनल बंगाल की खाड़ी में स्थित एक जलडमरूमध्य है जो उत्तर में अंडमान द्वीप समूह (लिटिल अंडमान) को दक्षिण में निकोबार द्वीप समूह (कार निकोबार) से अलग करता है।

2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department

1730📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KCulture and Folk Theatre of J&K

Which Kashmiri art form is described by the following lines?
I. It is a traditional folk theatre style combination of play and dance.
II. It differs from other forms as it features a single performer who performs, dances, and plays music.
III. It was mentioned by Kashmiri Sufi Saint, Sheikh Noor-ud-din Noorani (RA) in his verses and travel book of English writer, Sir Walter Lawrence.

A) Rouf
B) Chakri
C) Bhand Pather
D) Hafiza Dance

Explanation

Bhand Pather is Kashmir's renowned centuries-old traditional folk theatre that intricately weaves drama, satirical comedy, dance, and music (using dhol and surnai). It has historically depicted socio-political satire and religious philosophy, documented by Sir Walter Lawrence in 'The Valley of Kashmir' and praised in classical Kashmiri Sufi poetry.

भांड पाथेर (Bhand Pather) कश्मीर का प्रसिद्ध पारंपरिक लोक रंगमंच है जो नाटक, नृत्य और व्यंग्य का अनूठा मिश्रण है। सर वाल्टर लॉरेंस की पुस्तक 'द वैली ऑफ कश्मीर' में इसका विस्तृत वर्णन मिलता है।

2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department

1731📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KMughal Gardens of Kashmir

Which of the following statements about Mughal Gardens in Kashmir are correct?
I. Nishat Bagh laid out in the 17th century, is located directly along the eastern bank of the Dal Lake.
II. The two most important structures within the Shalimar Bagh are the Pink Pavilion, in the Diwan-i-Aam zone of the garden, and the Black Pavilion, located in the Diwan-i-Khas.
III. Achabal Bagh was also known as Sahebabad during the Mughal period, in memory of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir.

Choose the correct option:
A) I, II and III
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only

Explanation

Evaluating Mughal Gardens:
- Statement I is correct: Nishat Bagh was designed by Asif Khan (Nur Jahan's brother) in 1633 on the eastern bank of Dal Lake.
- Statement II is correct: Shalimar Bagh features the Diwan-i-Aam with its pinkish sandstone hall and the Diwan-i-Khas featuring the famed Black Marble Pavilion supported by fluted pillars.
- Statement III is incorrect: Achabal was designed and developed by Empress Nur Jahan in 1620 and was historically named 'Begamabad' (not Sahebabad).
Thus, statements I and II only are correct.

कथन I और II सत्य हैं। कथन III असत्य है क्योंकि नूरजहाँ द्वारा विकसित अच्छाबल बाग को मुगल काल में 'बेगमाबाद' कहा जाता था, साहिबाबाद नहीं। अतः सही विकल्प B (I and II only) है।

2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department

1732📚Basic Concepts of ComputersComputer Architecture - ALU

Which of the following is the fundamental operation performed by computers to carry out arithmetic computations in the ALU?
A) Using transistors to store decimal values directly
B) Processing binary data through logic gate operations
C) Executing floating-point operations in software only
D) Running high-level programming instructions in the CPU

Explanation

The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) performs all basic arithmetic (addition, subtraction) and logic (AND, OR, NOT, XOR) operations by processing electrical high/low voltage states representing binary data (0s and 1s) through combinations of semiconductor logic gates (such as half adders and full adders).

कंप्यूटर का अंकगणितीय तर्क इकाई (ALU) बाइनरी डेटा (0 और 1) को विभिन्न लॉजिक गेट्स (AND, OR, NOT, XOR) के परिपथों द्वारा संसाधित करके सभी गणितीय और तार्किक गणनाएं करता है।

2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department

1733📚Basic Concepts of ComputersMemory Hierarchy - Cache & RAM

Which statement is correct concerning computer memory and data storage fundamentals?
A) RAM is non-volatile memory and retains data without power
B) ROM allows both read and write operations during normal computer functioning.
C) Cache memory is faster than the Main memory and stores frequently accessed data.
D) CPU directly accesses secondary storage devices without involving the main memory.

Explanation

Cache memory consists of high-speed SRAM located directly on or adjacent to the CPU chip. It operates much faster than main memory (DRAM) and temporarily holds the most frequently accessed instructions and data to reduce CPU memory latency.

कैश मेमोरी (Cache memory) मुख्य मेमोरी (RAM) की तुलना में बहुत तेज होती है और बार-बार उपयोग होने वाले डेटा और निर्देशों को संग्रहीत करती है ताकि सीपीयू का समय बच सके।

2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department

1734📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCPU Registers & Instruction Cycle

Which statement is correct regarding CPU operation and instruction execution?
A) The Program counter stores the address of the current instruction, executed by the CPU.
B) An interrupt is processed only after the completion of the entire program.
C) The instruction register stores the current instruction being decoded or executed.
D) All machine instructions require the same number of clock cycles to execute.

Explanation

During the instruction fetch-decode-execute cycle, the Instruction Register (IR) holds the binary opcode and operands of the instruction currently undergoing decoding and execution. (The Program Counter holds the address of the NEXT instruction to be fetched).

निर्देश रजिस्टर (Instruction Register / IR) वर्तमान में डिकोड और निष्पादित किए जा रहे निर्देश को संग्रहीत करता है, जबकि प्रोग्राम काउंटर (PC) अगले निष्पादित होने वाले निर्देश का पता रखता है।

2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department

1735📚Basic Concepts of ComputersModern Input-Output & VR Peripherals

Match the following devices with their corresponding descriptions:
Devices:
1. Haptic Gloves
2. Tactile Display
3. Voice Response Unit (VRU)
4. Data Glove

Statements:
i. Generates tactile sensations and may sense user interaction.
ii. Captures fine hand/finger movements for computer input.
iii. Detect user gestures and provide force feedback.
iv. Generates synthesised audio output for interaction with users.

Choose the correct match:
A) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
B) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii

Explanation

Device mappings:
- Haptic Gloves (1): Combine sensors and actuators to detect hand gestures and apply physical force feedback resistance (iii)
- Tactile Display (2): Uses mechanical actuators to dynamically generate tactile sensations or braille patterns (i)
- Voice Response Unit / VRU (3): Generates synthesized voice or recorded audio responses in automated telecommunications (iv)
- Data Glove (4): Pure sensory glove measuring joint bends and hand kinematics to capture fine input movements (ii)
Hence, 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.

सही मिलान:
- हैप्टिक ग्लव्स (1): इशारों को पहचानकर फोर्स फीडबैक देते हैं -> iii
- टैक्टाइल डिस्प्ले (2): स्पर्श संवेदनाएं उत्पन्न करते हैं -> i
- VRU (3): वॉयस रिस्पांस या ऑडियो आउटपुट उत्पन्न करता है -> iv
- डेटा ग्लव (4): उंगलियों की गतिविधियों को इनपुट के रूप में दर्ज करता है -> ii
अतः सही विकल्प D (1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii) है।

2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department

1736📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloud Computing - Service Models

In the context of cloud computing in an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, what is managed by the service provider?
A) Networking hardware
B) Operating system
C) Hardware platform and operating system
D) Operating system and data

Explanation

In the IaaS cloud computing model (e.g., AWS EC2, Microsoft Azure VMs), the cloud service provider manages the physical data center facilities, virtualization layer, physical servers, storage disks, and networking hardware. The customer is responsible for installing and configuring the operating system, middleware, runtime, and data.

IaaS (इन्फ्रास्ट्रक्चर एज़ अ सर्विस) में क्लाउड सेवा प्रदाता भौतिक डेटा सेंटर, सर्वर, स्टोरेज और नेटवर्किंग हार्डवेयर का प्रबंधन करता है। ग्राहक स्वयं ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम और डेटा का प्रबंधन करता है।

2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department

1737📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension

According to the passage, why do digital platforms send frequent notifications?
A) To improve focus of users during work
B) To encourage users to keep checking the application
C) To improve the quality of online communication
D) To prevent people from multitasking

Explanation

The passage explicitly states that applications send notifications to attract attention and habituate users into continuously checking messages and alerts.

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट कहा गया है कि डिजिटल ऐप्स उपयोगकर्ताओं का ध्यान आकर्षित करने और उन्हें बार-बार ऐप चेक करने के लिए प्रेरित करने के लिए नोटिफिकेशन भेजते हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1738📚General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs and Union Budget

What is/are NOT the features of the BioPharma SHAKTI mission proposed in the Union Budget 2026-27?
I. The initiative aims to strengthen India's biopharmaceutical manufacturing sector with an outlay of about Rs. 1 crore over five years.
II. It envisages strengthening India's ecosystem for the production of biologics and biosimilars and capturing 5% of the global biopharmaceutical market share.
Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is NOT a feature because the financial outlay for the BioPharma SHAKTI mission is ₹10,000 crore over five years (not ₹1 crore). Statement II is an accurate feature of the mission, which aims to capture a 5% global market share in biologics and biosimilars. Hence, only Statement I is NOT a feature.

कथन I एक विशेषता नहीं है क्योंकि बायोफार्मा शक्ति मिशन के लिए वित्तीय परिव्यय 5 वर्षों में ₹10,000 करोड़ है (₹1 करोड़ नहीं)। कथन II सही विशेषता है (5% वैश्विक बाजार हिस्सेदारी प्राप्त करना)। अतः केवल कथन I गलत/विशेषता नहीं है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1739📚General Awareness & ScienceForests and Natural Vegetation

Consider the following statements about Tropical Evergreen forests.
I. They are found in areas with rainfall above 200 cm.
II. They shed their leaves during the dry season.
III. Mahogany, Ebony and Rosewood are all examples of Tropical evergreen forests.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I, II and III
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) I and III only

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Tropical evergreen forests thrive in regions with annual rainfall exceeding 200 cm and warm temperatures. Commercial species include ebony, mahogany, and rosewood. Statement II is incorrect because tropical evergreen trees do not shed leaves simultaneously in a distinct dry season; it is tropical deciduous forests that shed leaves during dry periods.

कथन I और III सही हैं। उष्णकटिबंधीय सदाबहार वन 200 सेमी से अधिक वर्षा वाले गर्म व आर्द्र क्षेत्रों में पाए जाते हैं और महोगनी, आबनूस, रोजवुड इसके प्रमुख वृक्ष हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि शुष्क मौसम में पत्ते उष्णकटिबंधीय पर्णपाती (deciduous) वन गिराते हैं, सदाबहार वन नहीं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1740📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian History - Bhakti Movement

During the Bhakti movement in India, Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was known for which of the following?
A) Vishnu devotion in Karnataka
B) Shiva devotion in Tamil Nadu
C) Krishna Bhakti in Maharashtra and Gujarat
D) Sankirtan movement and Krishna bhakti in Bengal

Explanation

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1534) was an ascetic saint in Bengal who popularized Gaudiya Vaishnavism and the Sankirtan movement (congregational singing of Krishna's name with dance and musical instruments like mridanga and kartal).

चैतन्य महाप्रभु (1486–1534) बंगाल के प्रसिद्ध वैष्णव संत थे जिन्होंने गौड़ीय वैष्णव संप्रदाय की स्थापना की और सामूहिक रूप से कृष्ण नाम के जप व कीर्तन (संकीर्तन आंदोलन) को लोकप्रिय बनाया।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1741📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian Culture and Music

With reference to Indian Music, which of the following statements are correct?
I. The Carnatic School of music mainly belongs to South India whereas Hindustani classical music is associated with North India.
II. Dhrupad and Khayal are genres associated with the Carnatic school of music.
III. Bihu songs are sung in Assam during harvest festivals.
Choose the correct option:
A) I and II only
B) III only
C) II and III only
D) I and III only

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Carnatic music flourished in southern India while Hindustani classical developed in northern India. Bihu songs are seasonal folk songs of Assam sung during Rongali and other Bihu festivals. Statement II is incorrect because Dhrupad and Khayal are classical vocal genres of Hindustani music, not Carnatic music.

कथन I और III सही हैं। कर्नाटक संगीत दक्षिण भारत तथा हिंदुस्तानी संगीत उत्तर भारत से संबंधित है। बिहू गीत असम के लोक उत्सवों में गाए जाते हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि ध्रुपद और ख्याल हिंदुस्तानी शास्त्रीय संगीत की प्रमुख शैलियाँ हैं, कर्नाटक संगीत की नहीं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1742📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian States and Capitals

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
States/UTs:
I. Meghalaya - Imphal
II. Manipur - Shillong
III. Lakshadweep - Kavaratti
IV. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu - Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Choose the correct option:
A) III and IV only
B) I and II only
C) III only
D) All of the above

Explanation

Only pair III is correctly matched. The capital of Lakshadweep is Kavaratti. In contrast, Meghalaya's capital is Shillong (not Imphal); Manipur's capital is Imphal (not Shillong); and the capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu is Daman.

केवल युग्म III सही सुमेलित है। लक्षद्वीप की राजधानी कवरत्ती है। मेघालय की राजधानी शिलांग है (इंफाल नहीं), मणिपुर की राजधानी इंफाल है (शिलांग नहीं) तथा संयुक्त केंद्र शासित प्रदेश दादरा और नगर हवेली एवं दमन और दीव की राजधानी दमन है। अतः केवल III सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1743📚General Awareness & ScienceGeography of Jammu and Kashmir - Passes

Arrange the following passes from West to East.
I. Haji pir pass
II. Sach pass
III. Banihal pass
Choose the correct option:
A) I - II - III
B) III - II - I
C) I - III - II
D) II - III - I

Explanation

From West to East: Haji Pir Pass (connecting Poonch and Uri in the western Pir Panjal, ~74.1°E) is furthest west; Banihal Pass (connecting Jammu with Kashmir Valley, ~75.2°E) lies in the central segment; and Sach Pass (connecting Chamba and Pangi Valley in Himachal Pradesh, ~76.2°E) lies furthest east. Hence, the order is I - III - II.

पश्चिम से पूर्व की दिशा में: हाजी पीर दर्रा (पुंछ-उरी क्षेत्र, लगभग 74.1° पूर्व) सबसे पश्चिम में है; बनिहाल दर्रा (जम्मू-श्रीनगर मार्ग, लगभग 75.2° पूर्व) मध्य में; तथा साच दर्रा (चंबा-पांगी घाटी, हिमाचल प्रदेश, लगभग 76.2° पूर्व) सबसे पूर्व में स्थित है। अतः क्रम I - III - II है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1744📚General Awareness & ScienceJammu and Kashmir Heritage and Culture

Which of the following statements about the Hazratbal Shrine in Srinagar, famous for housing a holy relic are correct?
I. Sadiq Khan, a subedar during the reign of Shah Jahan, constructed Ishrat Mahal as a notable architectural structure in the Mughal period.
II. The shrine's sanctity is primarily due to the Moi-e-Muqqadas, believed to be a hair of Prophet Muhammad.
III. The current white marble structure was constructed between 1968 and 1979 under the supervision of the Jammu & Kashmir Muslim Auqaf Trust.
Choose the correct option:
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III

Explanation

All three statements are correct: I. Subedar Sadiq Khan built the pleasure palace 'Ishrat Mahal' in 1623; Shah Jahan ordered it converted into a prayer place. II. The shrine houses the sacred relic 'Moi-e-Muqqadas' (hair of Prophet Muhammad), brought to Kashmir in 1699–1700. III. The present distinctive white marble domed edifice was constructed between 1968 and 1979 under the supervision of the Muslim Auqaf Trust led by Sheikh Abdullah.

तीनों कथन सही हैं: I. मुगल सूबेदार सादिक खान ने 1623 में इशरत महल का निर्माण करवाया था जिसे बाद में नमाज स्थल बनाया गया। II. इस दरगाह में पैगंबर हज़रत मुहम्मद का पवित्र बाल 'मोई-ए-मुकद्दस' सुरक्षित है। III. वर्तमान सफेद संगमरमर के गुंबदनुमा ढांचे का निर्माण 1968 से 1979 के बीच शेख अब्दुल्ला के नेतृत्व वाले मुस्लिम वक्फ ट्रस्ट द्वारा कराया गया था।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1745📚General Awareness & ScienceAncient History of Jammu and Kashmir

Who presided over the Fourth Buddhist Council, which was held during the rule of Kanishka in Kashmir?
A) Mogali Putta Tissa
B) Mahakasyapa
C) Vasumitra
D) Nagarjuna

Explanation

The Fourth Buddhist Council was convened at Kundalvana in Kashmir during the 1st/2nd century CE under the patronage of Kushan King Kanishka. It was presided over by Vasumitra, with Ashvaghosha serving as the vice-president.

कश्मीर के कुंडलवन में कुषाण शासक कनिष्क के संरक्षण में आयोजित चौथी बौद्ध संगीति की अध्यक्षता वसुमित्र ने की थी (तथा अश्वघोष इसके उपाध्यक्ष थे)। इसमें बौद्ध धर्म हीनयान और महायान दो संप्रदायों में विभाजित हुआ था।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1746📚General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Sufism

Which Sufi saint is believed to have visited Kashmir during the period of King Suhadeva (1301-1320) and was the first saint to introduce Islam in Kashmir?
A) Hazrat Bulbul Shah
B) Lal Ded
C) Mir Syed Ali Hamadani
D) Muinuddin Chisti

Explanation

Hazrat Syed Sharaf-ud-Din Abdul Rahman, popularly known as Hazrat Bulbul Shah, was a Suhrawardi Sufi saint who visited Kashmir during the reign of King Suhadeva. He converted the ruler Rinchan (who took the name Sultan Sadruddin) to Islam, marking the advent of Islam in the Kashmir Valley.

हज़रत सैयद शरफुद्दीन अब्दुर रहमान (जिन्हें हज़रत बुलबुल शाह के नाम से जाना जाता है) राजा सहदेव के समय कश्मीर आए थे। उन्होंने कश्मीर के बौद्ध शासक रिंचन (सुल्तान सदरुद्दीन) को इस्लाम में दीक्षित किया, जिससे कश्मीर में इस्लाम का प्रसार प्रारंभ हुआ।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1747📚General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Rajatarangini

According to the historical chronicle Rajatarangini, arrange the following rulers of Kashmir in chronological order.
I. Durlabhvardhan
II. Harsha of Kashmir
III. Lalitaditya Muktapida
IV. Avantivarman
Choose the correct option:
A) I - II - III - IV
B) I - III - IV - II
C) I - IV - III - II
D) III - I - IV - II

Explanation

Chronological order according to Kalhana's Rajatarangini: I. Durlabhavardhana founded the Karkota dynasty (c. 625 CE); III. Lalitaditya Muktapida was the illustrious Karkota emperor (c. 724–760 CE); IV. Avantivarman founded the Utpala dynasty (c. 855–883 CE); II. Harsha of Kashmir ruled later during the First Lohara dynasty (1089–1101 CE). Hence, the order is I - III - IV - II.

राजतरंगिणी के अनुसार सही कालक्रम: I. दुर्लभवर्धन - कार्कोट वंश के संस्थापक (लगभग 625 ई.); III. ललितादित्य मुक्तापीड़ - कार्कोट वंश के प्रतापी राजा (लगभग 724-760 ई.); IV. अवंतिवर्मन - उत्पल वंश के संस्थापक (लगभग 855-883 ई.); II. हर्ष - लोहार वंश के शासक (1089-1101 ई.)। अतः सही क्रम I - III - IV - II है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1748📚Basic EnglishIdioms and Phrases

What does the idiom "break the ice" mean?
A) To build a wall
B) To start a conversation
C) To cause a disruption
D) To make a mistake

Explanation

The idiom 'break the ice' means to do or say something that relieves tension, awkwardness, or silence, particularly by starting a friendly conversation with someone unfamiliar.

'Break the ice' का अर्थ है किसी सामाजिक स्थिति में संकोच या सन्नाटे को तोड़कर बातचीत की शुरुआत करना। अतः सही उत्तर 'To start a conversation' है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1749📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryMining Impacts and Environmental Law

With reference to 'Rat-hole mining' as practiced in parts of Northeast India, identify the correct statements.
I. It is a process of digging narrow horizontal tunnels into the hill slopes by extraction workers.
II. The National Green Tribunal has banned this practice.
III. Acid Mine Drainage (AMD) caused by this practice is characterized by high pH levels, making the water highly alkaline.
A) I and III only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) All of the above

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct. Rat-hole mining (widely practiced in Meghalaya) involves digging narrow tunnels into hillsides to extract coal, and it was banned by the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2014 due to environmental and safety hazards. Statement III is incorrect because Acid Mine Drainage (AMD) results in severely acidic water with low pH (not high pH / alkaline) due to sulfuric acid formation.

कथन I और II सही हैं। रैट-होल खनन में संकीर्ण सुरंगें खोदकर कोयला निकाला जाता है, जिसे एनजीटी (NGT) ने 2014 में प्रतिबंधित कर दिया था। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि एसिड माइन ड्रेनेज (AMD) के कारण जल का pH मान कम (अम्लीय) हो जाता है, न कि उच्च (क्षारीय)। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1750🔬General SciencePhysics - Sources of Energy

Which of the following statements about conventional sources of energy and their improvements is true?
A) Thermal power plants cannot exceed 35% efficiency, even with advanced boiler technology.
B) Supercritical and ultra-supercritical boilers allow coal power plants to achieve higher efficiency.
C) Hydroelectric power plants cannot improve energy output once the dam is built.
D) Efficiency of petroleum refining is solely determined by the quality of crude oil, not technology.

Explanation

Supercritical and ultra-supercritical (USC) boiler technologies operate at pressures and temperatures above the thermodynamic critical point of water (22.1 MPa, 374 °C), significantly enhancing net cycle efficiency to 42-45%+ while cutting fuel consumption and emissions.

सुपरक्रिटिकल और अल्ट्रा-सुपरक्रिटिकल बॉयलर जल के क्रांतिक बिंदु से अधिक तापमान और दबाव पर काम करते हैं, जिससे ताप विद्युत संयंत्रों की तापीय दक्षता 42-45% या उससे अधिक तक बढ़ जाती है और उत्सर्जन में कमी आती है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1751🔬General ScienceBiology - Excretion in Plants and Animals

Which of the following statements about excretion in plants and animals is correct?
A) Plants lack specialized excretory organs, so all metabolic wastes are removed exclusively through stomata by diffusion.
B) Plants assimilate ammonia into amino acids and can store waste in leaves, bark, and vacuoles.
C) In mammals, the primary nitrogenous waste is uric acid, which requires minimal water for excretion compared to ammonia.
D) Animals and plants both rely mainly on transpiration as their primary mechanism of excretion.

Explanation

Statement B is correct: Plants convert inorganic ammonia into amino acids and sequester metabolic wastes in cellular vacuoles, heartwood, old xylem (as gums and resins), and in leaves and bark that are periodically shed. In mammals, the main nitrogenous waste is urea (not uric acid).

कथन B सही है: पौधों में अमोनिया का स्वांगीकरण अमीनो अम्लों में होता है और अपशिष्ट उत्पादों को पत्तियों, छाल, रसधानियों और पुराने जाइलम (गोंद और रेजिन) में संग्रहित किया जाता है जो समय-समय पर अलग हो जाते हैं। स्तनधारियों का मुख्य अपशिष्ट यूरिया है (यूरिक अम्ल नहीं)।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1752📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryEnvironmental Pollution and Toxicology

A city is located near a river and an industrial area. Over time, scientists observed the following:
i. Fish in the river showed bioaccumulation of a persistent chemical that caused neurological disorders in humans who consumed them.
ii. The air contained high levels of a gas that reacts with water to form acid rain, damaging monuments and crops.
iii. Soil had elevated heavy metal concentrations, leading to reduced fertility and toxicity in plants.
On the basis of the given observations, pair each cause (i, ii, iii) with the corresponding pollutant (a, b, c) and answer the correct statement:
a) Mercury
b) Sulfur dioxide
c) Lead
A) i -> a, ii -> b, iii -> c
B) i -> a, ii -> c, iii -> b
C) i -> b, ii -> c, iii -> a
D) i -> c, ii -> b, iii -> a

Explanation

Matching: i. Bioaccumulation in aquatic fish causing severe neurological disorders (Minamata syndrome) is caused by Mercury (a); ii. Gaseous emissions producing sulfuric acid precipitation (acid rain) correspond to Sulfur dioxide (b); iii. Toxic heavy metal accumulation in roadside and industrial soil is associated with Lead (c). Hence, i -> a, ii -> b, iii -> c.

सही मिलान: i. मछलियों में जैव संचय और न्यूरोलॉजिकल विकार (मिनीमाता रोग) - पारा (Mercury, a); ii. जल के साथ मिलकर अम्ल वर्षा करने वाली गैस - सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड (b); iii. मृदा में विषाक्तता पैदा करने वाली भारी धातु - सीसा (Lead, c)। अतः सही विकल्प i -> a, ii -> b, iii -> c है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1753🔬General ScienceBiology - Plant Reproduction and Meiosis

Raghav is trying to understand when plant cells are haploid (N) or diploid (2N) during sexual reproduction. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) The microspore and megaspore are diploid (2N) cells that undergo meiosis, and the fertilized zygote remains haploid (N).
B) The microspore and megaspore are haploid (N) cells formed after meiosis, and fertilization restores the diploid (2N) number in the zygote.
C) The pollen and ovule mother cells are haploid (N) before meiosis and form diploid gametes after meiosis.
D) The pollen and ovule mother cells are diploid (2N), and meiosis produces haploid gametes, but fertilization does not restore the diploid number.

Explanation

In angiosperms, diploid (2N) microspore mother cells and megaspore mother cells undergo meiosis (reduction division) to form haploid (N) microspores and megaspores. Later, the fusion of haploid male and female gametes during syngamy (fertilization) restores the diploid (2N) chromosome complement in the zygote.

द्विगुणित मातृ कोशिकाओं में अर्धसूत्रीविभाजन के फलस्वरूप अगुणित (N) लघुबीजाणु और गुरुबीजाणु बनते हैं। इसके बाद निषेचन (syngamy) में अगुणित नर व मादा युग्मकों के संलयन से युग्मनज (zygote) में पुनः द्विगुणित (2N) संख्या बहाल हो जाती है। अतः कथन B सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1754📚General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Infrastructure - USBRL Project

Identify the correct statements about the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project:
I. Indian Railway's first cable-stayed bridge has been constructed over the Anji Khad in this project.
II. The iconic 1315 m long Chenab bridge is the World's highest railway arch bridge, standing 359 m above the river bed.
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Explanation

Both statements are correct: I. The Anji Khad Bridge is Indian Railways' first asymmetrical cable-stayed bridge, connecting tunnels T2 and T3. II. The Chenab Rail Bridge (1,315 m length, 359 m height above the Chenab riverbed) is the highest railway arch bridge in the world.

दोनों कथन सत्य हैं: I. अंजी खड्ड पुल भारतीय रेलवे का पहला केबल-स्टेड रेलवे पुल है। II. चिनाब रेलवे पुल 359 मीटर की ऊंचाई और 1315 मीटर की लंबाई के साथ दुनिया का सबसे ऊंचा रेलवे आर्च पुल है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1755📚Modern Indian HistoryLord Lytton & Nationalist Upsurge

Which of the following administrative measures taken by Lord Lytton was a factor in the rise of Indian Nationalism?

Explanation

Lord Lytton served as Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880. His reactionary administration enacted the Vernacular Press Act (1878) to muzzle Indian language newspapers, the Arms Act (1878), reduced the maximum age for ICS recruitment from 21 to 19, and held the lavish Delhi Durbar during the devastating 1876-78 famine. These repressive measures galvanized educated Indians and greatly accelerated the rise of organized nationalism.

लॉर्ड लिटन 1876 से 1880 तक भारत का वायसराय रहा। उसके प्रतिगामी शासनकाल में भारतीय भाषाई समाचार पत्रों को दबाने के लिए 'वर्नाक्युलर प्रेस एक्ट (1878)', 'आर्म्स एक्ट (1878)', आईसीएस परीक्षा की अधिकतम आयु 21 से घटाकर 19 वर्ष करना और अकाल के समय भव्य दिल्ली दरबार का आयोजन जैसे कदम उठाए गए, जिन्होंने भारतीय राष्ट्रवाद के उदय में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1756📚Modern Indian HistoryModerate Phase of INC

What was/were the primary political demands of the Moderates during the early phase of the Indian National Congress?

Explanation

During the Moderate phase (1885–1905), Congress leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Pherozeshah Mehta pursued constitutional agitation. Their primary political demands included expansion and reform of the Imperial and Provincial Legislative Councils with greater elected Indian representation, and the Indianisation of higher administrative and Civil Services (holding simultaneous examinations in India and England).

उदारवादी चरण (1885-1905) के दौरान कांग्रेस नेताओं (जैसे दादाभाई नौरोजी, गोपाल कृष्ण गोखले) की प्रमुख राजनीतिक मांगों में विधान परिषदों का विस्तार एवं सुधार (अधिक भारतीय प्रतिनिधित्व तथा बजट पर चर्चा का अधिकार) और सिविल सेवाओं का भारतीयकरण (भारत और इंग्लैंड में एक साथ परीक्षा आयोजित करना) शामिल था।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1757📚Modern Indian HistorySwadeshi Movement & Indigenous Enterprises

Match the following in the context of the Swadeshi Movement:
Swadeshi Initiatives:
i. Bengal Chemicals Factory
ii. Steam Navigation Company
iii. Dawn Society
iv. Swadesh Bandhab Samiti
Associated Leaders:
a. V.O. Chidambaram Pillai
b. Prafulla Chandra Ray
c. Ashwini Kumar Datta
d. Satish Chandra Mukherjee
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

During the Swadeshi Movement (1905–1908):
- Bengal Chemicals Pharmaceutical Works was established by Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray (i-b).
- Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was launched at Tuticorin by V.O. Chidambaram Pillai (ii-a).
- Dawn Society was founded in 1902 to promote national education by Satish Chandra Mukherjee (iii-d).
- Swadesh Bandhab Samiti was formed in Barisal by Ashwini Kumar Datta to mobilize the masses (iv-c).
Hence, the correct matching is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.

स्वदेशी आंदोलन (1905-1908) के दौरान:
- बंगाल केमिकल्स: आचार्य प्रफुल्ल चंद्र राय (i-b)
- स्वदेशी स्टीम नेविगेशन कंपनी (तूतीकोरिन): वी.ओ. चिदंबरम पिल्लई (ii-a)
- डॉन सोसाइटी (राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा): सतीश चंद्र मुखर्जी (iii-d)
- स्वदेश बांधव समिति (बारीसाल): अश्विनी कुमार दत्त (iv-c)
अतः सही मिलान i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (विकल्प B) है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1758📚Modern Indian HistoryIndian National Movement Chronology

Arrange the following historical events in the correct Chronological order.
I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak
II. Formation of the Swaraj Party by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
III. Self-Respect Movement by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
IV. Chauri Chaura incident during the Non-Cooperation Movement

Explanation

Chronological timeline of the events:
I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak: August 1, 1920 (on the day the Non-Cooperation Movement began).
IV. Chauri Chaura incident: February 4/5, 1922 (led to the suspension of Non-Cooperation Movement).
II. Formation of the Swaraj Party: January 1, 1923 (founded by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru).
III. Self-Respect Movement: 1925 (launched by Periyar E.V. Ramasamy in Tamil Nadu).
Therefore, the correct chronological order is I - IV - II - III.

ऐतिहासिक घटनाओं का कालक्रम:
I. बाल गंगाधर तिलक की मृत्यु: 1 अगस्त 1920
IV. चौरी-चौरा घटना: फरवरी 1922 (जिसके कारण असहयोग आंदोलन वापस लिया गया)
II. स्वराज पार्टी का गठन: 1 जनवरी 1923 (सी.आर. दास एवं मोतीलाल नेहरू द्वारा)
III. आत्म-सम्मान आंदोलन: 1925 (पेरियार ई.वी. रामास्वामी द्वारा)
अतः सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम I - IV - II - III (विकल्प D) है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1759📚Modern Indian HistoryQuit India Movement & Parallel Governments

In which of the following places was a 'Parallel Government' (Prati Sarkar) formed by Nana Patil during the Quit India Movement?

Explanation

During the Quit India Movement in 1942–43, Nana Patil, along with leaders like Y.B. Chavan and Kisan Veer, established a famous parallel government ('Prati Sarkar') in Satara (Maharashtra). It functioned effectively for nearly three years, running volunteer corps (Toofan Sena) and people's courts (Nyayadan Mandals). (Ballia in UP was led by Chittu Pandey; Tamluk in Bengal was led by Satish Chandra Samanta).

भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन (1942) के दौरान महाराष्ट्र के सतारा में नाना पाटिल के नेतृत्व में 'प्रति सरकार' (समानांतर सरकार) की स्थापना की गई थी। यह सबसे लंबे समय तक चलने वाली समानांतर सरकार थी, जिसमें 'तूफान सेना' और जन-अदालतों (न्यायदान मंडल) का संचालन किया गया।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1760📚Indian Polity & ConstitutionDirective Principles of State Policy

Match the following:
Directive Principles:
i. Organisation of village panchayats
ii. Uniform Civil Code for citizens
iii. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive
iv. Promotion of International peace
Constitutional Articles:
a. Article 44
b. Article 40
c. Article 51
d. Article 50
Choose the correct match:

Explanation

Under Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Directive Principles of State Policy):
- Article 40: Organisation of village panchayats (i-b)
- Article 44: Uniform Civil Code for the citizens (ii-a)
- Article 50: Separation of judiciary from the executive (iii-d)
- Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security (iv-c)
Thus, the correct match is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.

भारतीय संविधान के भाग IV (राज्य के नीति निर्देशक तत्व) के अंतर्गत:
- अनुच्छेद 40: ग्राम पंचायतों का गठन (i-b)
- अनुच्छेद 44: समान नागरिक संहिता (UCC) (ii-a)
- अनुच्छेद 50: कार्यपालिका से न्यायपालिका का पृथक्करण (iii-d)
- अनुच्छेद 51: अंतर्राष्ट्रीय शांति और सुरक्षा की अभिवृद्धि (iv-c)
अतः सही मिलान i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (विकल्प C) है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1761📚Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & Constitutional Amendments

The Right to elementary education was made a Fundamental right under Article-21A through which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?

Explanation

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, providing free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years as a Fundamental Right. It also amended Article 45 (DPSP) and added clause (k) to Article 51A (Fundamental Duties).

86वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 2002 द्वारा भारतीय संविधान में अनुच्छेद 21A जोड़ा गया, जिसने 6 से 14 वर्ष की आयु के सभी बच्चों के लिए मुफ्त और अनिवार्य प्रारंभिक शिक्षा को एक मौलिक अधिकार बना दिया। इसने अनुच्छेद 45 को भी संशोधित किया और अनुच्छेद 51A में 11वां मूल कर्तव्य (k) जोड़ा।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1762📚Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Duties

Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) and select the INCORRECT statements-
I. These Duties were part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950.
II. These Duties can always be enforced through Writ jurisdiction in the court of law.
III. Promoting Scientific temper and spirit of enquiry is one of the Fundamental Duties.

Explanation

Statements I and II are incorrect:
- Statement I is INCORRECT: Fundamental Duties were not part of the original 1950 Constitution; they were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
- Statement II is INCORRECT: Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable; unlike Fundamental Rights, they cannot be enforced directly through writ jurisdiction in the courts.
- Statement III is CORRECT: Article 51A(h) states that it is the duty of every citizen to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
Hence, statements I and II are incorrect.

कथन I और II गलत हैं:
- कथन I गलत है: मौलिक कर्तव्य मूल संविधान (1950) का हिस्सा नहीं थे; इन्हें स्वर्ण सिंह समिति की सिफारिश पर 42वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1976 द्वारा जोड़ा गया था।
- कथन II गलत है: मौलिक कर्तव्य गैर-न्यायोचित (non-justiciable) हैं, इन्हें सीधे रिट क्षेत्राधिकार के माध्यम से लागू नहीं कराया जा सकता।
- कथन III सही है: अनुच्छेद 51A(h) के तहत वैज्ञानिक दृष्टिकोण, मानववाद तथा ज्ञानार्जन व सुधार की भावना का विकास करना मूल कर्तव्य है।
अतः गलत कथन I और II हैं (विकल्प C)।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1763📚Indian Polity & ConstitutionEighth Schedule Languages

Identify the correct statements about the languages in Schedule Eighth of the Indian Constitution-
I. Rajasthani is one of the 22 languages currently included in the Eighth Schedule.
II. The languages - Bodo, Dogri and Maithili were added in the Schedule by the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act.

Explanation

Both statements are false:
- Statement I is FALSE: Rajasthani is NOT among the 22 languages recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
- Statement II is FALSE: The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. The languages Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali (BDMS) were added by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
Hence, Neither I nor II is correct.

दोनों कथन गलत हैं:
- कथन I गलत है: राजस्थानी भाषा आठवीं अनुसूची में शामिल 22 आधिकारिक भाषाओं में शामिल नहीं है।
- कथन II गलत है: 71वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1992 द्वारा कोंकणी, मणिपुरी और नेपाली को जोड़ा गया था। बोडो, डोगरी, मैथिली और संथाली को 92वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 2003 द्वारा जोड़ा गया था।
अतः सही उत्तर 'न तो I और न ही II' (विकल्प D) है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1764📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsUnited Nations Organization

Consider the following statements about the United Nations and select the correct option.
I. All UN Members are part of the General Assembly.
II. States are admitted to membership by the decision of the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council.
III. Members have the voting rights proportional to their financial contributions only.

Explanation

- Statement I is CORRECT: Under Article 9 of the UN Charter, the General Assembly consists of all member states of the United Nations (currently 193 members).
- Statement II is CORRECT: Under Article 4(2) of the UN Charter, admission of any state to UN membership is decided by a two-thirds majority in the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
- Statement III is INCORRECT: In the UN General Assembly, each member state has exactly one vote regardless of its size, population, wealth, or financial contributions, adhering to the principle of sovereign equality (Article 18(1)).
Hence, statements I and II only are correct.

- कथन I सही है: संयुक्त राष्ट्र चार्टर के अनुच्छेद 9 के तहत महासभा में संयुक्त राष्ट्र के सभी सदस्य देश शामिल होते हैं।
- कथन II सही है: अनुच्छेद 4(2) के अनुसार नए सदस्य राज्यों को सुरक्षा परिषद की सिफारिश पर महासभा के निर्णय द्वारा शामिल किया जाता है।
- कथन III गलत है: संप्रभु समानता के सिद्धांत के तहत महासभा में प्रत्येक सदस्य राष्ट्र का ठीक एक वोट होता है, चाहे उनका वित्तीय योगदान कुछ भी हो।
अतः केवल I और II सही हैं (विकल्प A)।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1765📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryForest Conservation (Amendment) Act 2023

The Forest Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2023, exempted which of the following projects from the prior approval of the Central government?

Explanation

Under Section 1A inserted by the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 (Van Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan Adhiniyam), prior central forest clearance is exempted for:
- Strategic linear projects of national importance within 100 km of international borders, LAC, or LoC.
- Security-related infrastructure projects up to 10 hectares.
- Defence projects, camps for paramilitary forces, and specified public utility projects up to 5 hectares in Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) affected districts.
Since all these categories are explicitly exempted, 'All of the above' is correct.

वन (संरक्षण एवं संवर्धन) संशोधन अधिनियम, 2023 की धारा 1A के तहत निम्नलिखित को पूर्व केंद्रीय वन स्वीकृति से छूट प्रदान की गई है:
- अंतरराष्ट्रीय सीमाओं/LAC/LoC के 100 किमी के भीतर राष्ट्रीय सुरक्षा से संबंधित रणनीतिक रैखिक परियोजनाएं,
- 10 हेक्टेयर तक सुरक्षा संबंधी बुनियादी ढांचा,
- वामपंथी उग्रवाद (LWE) प्रभावित क्षेत्रों में 5 हेक्टेयर तक सार्वजनिक उपयोगिता एवं रक्षा परियोजनाएं।
अतः उपरोक्त सभी (All of the above) विकल्प D सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1766📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsHydroelectric Projects & Rivers of J&K

Explanation

- I. Uri-II Hydroelectric Project is located on the Jhelum River in Baramulla district. (Correct)
- II. Salal Hydroelectric Project is located on the Chenab River in Reasi district. (Correct)
- III. Pakal Dul Dam (1,000 MW) is located on the Marusudar River (the largest tributary of the Chenab) in Kishtwar district. (Correct)
- IV. Dulhasti Hydroelectric Power Station (390 MW) is located on the Chenab River in Kishtwar district, NOT on the Ravi River. (Incorrect)
Therefore, pairs I, II and III only are correctly matched.

- I. उरी-II जलविद्युत परियोजना बारामूला जिले में झेलम नदी पर स्थित है। (सही)
- II. सलाल बांध परियोजना रियासी जिले में चेनाब नदी पर स्थित है। (सही)
- III. पाकल दुल बांध (1000 मेगावाट) किश्तवाड़ जिले में चेनाब की प्रमुख सहायक मारुसुदर नदी पर स्थित है। (सही)
- IV. दुलहस्ती जलविद्युत परियोजना किश्तवाड़ जिले में चेनाब नदी पर स्थित है, रावी नदी पर नहीं। (गलत)
अतः केवल I, II और III सही सुमेलित हैं (विकल्प C)।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1767📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryWater Conservation & Rainwater Harvesting

Which of the following is/are examples of In-situ rainwater harvesting?

Explanation

- In-situ rainwater harvesting refers to harvesting rainfall directly where it falls, storing moisture within the soil profile of the agricultural field itself through agronomic and soil conservation practices such as mulching, contour bunding, terracing, contour farming, and broad bed furrows.
- Ex-situ rainwater harvesting involves capturing and storing surface runoff into structures outside the soil profile, such as farm ponds, check dams, rooftop cisterns, and underground storage tanks.

- इन-सिटू (स्व-स्थाने) वर्षा जल संचयन का अर्थ है वर्षा की बूंदों को सीधे वहीं संरक्षित करना जहाँ वे गिरती हैं, अर्थात् खेत की मिट्टी के भीतर नमी के रूप में संचित करना। इसके लिए मल्चिंग, कंटूर बंडिंग (समोच्च मेड़बंदी), सीढ़ीदार खेती आदि तकनीकों का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
- फार्म पॉन्ड, छत का जल संचयन और भूमिगत टैंक एक्स-सिटू (बाह्य) भंडारण के उदाहरण हैं।
अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प D है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1768📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInfrastructure & Tunnels of J&K

Identify the INCORRECT statements about tunnels in Jammu and Kashmir-
I. Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel is a 9 km long, twin-tube, all-weather road tunnel connecting Udhampur and Ramban.
II. Tunnel T 50, a 12.77 km engineering feat connecting Khari and Sumber in Jammu & Kashmir, stands as one of India's longest transportation tunnels constructed under the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project.

Explanation

Both statements are factually correct, so neither is incorrect:
- Statement I is CORRECT: Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (formerly Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 is ~9.28 km long, twin-tube, all-weather tunnel connecting Chenani in Udhampur district with Nashri in Ramban district.
- Statement II is CORRECT: Tunnel T-50 is 12.77 km long between Khari and Sumber railway stations in Ramban district on the USBRL section, making it India's longest transportation railway tunnel.
Since both statements are true, Neither I nor II is incorrect.

दोनों कथन तथ्यात्मक रूप से सही हैं, इसलिए कोई भी गलत नहीं है:
- कथन I सही है: डॉ. श्यामा प्रसाद मुखर्जी सुरंग (चेनानी-नाशरी सुरंग) एनएच-44 पर 9.28 किमी लंबी ऑल-वेदर ट्विन-ट्यूब सुरंग है जो उधमपुर और रामबन को जोड़ती है।
- कथन II सही है: टनल T-50 USBRL परियोजना के तहत रामबन के खारी और सुंबर के बीच 12.77 किमी लंबी सुरंग है, जो भारत की सबसे लंबी रेलवे परिवहन सुरंग है।
चूंकि कोई भी कथन गलत नहीं है, अतः सही उत्तर 'न तो I और न ही II' (विकल्प D) है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1769📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSystem Software & Firmware

Match the following:
Column - I:
i. Firmware
ii. Utility Software
iii. Device Driver
iv. Compiler
Column - II:
a. Translates high-level language into machine code
b. Controls communication between operating system and hardware device
c. Stored permanently in ROM to initialize hardware
d. Performs system maintenance tasks like disk cleanup
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Matching descriptions:
- i. Firmware: Embedded software stored permanently in ROM/flash memory that initializes and tests hardware during boot (BIOS/UEFI) (c)
- ii. Utility Software: System software that performs housekeeping and maintenance tasks such as disk defragmentation, cleanup, and antivirus scans (d)
- iii. Device Driver: Software that translates commands between the operating system and a specific hardware peripheral (b)
- iv. Compiler: Language processor that converts entire source code written in a high-level language into machine code (a)
Therefore, the correct match is i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.

सही मिलान:
- i. फर्मवेयर: हार्डवेयर को शुरू करने के लिए ROM में स्थायी रूप से संग्रहीत सॉफ्टवेयर (जैसे BIOS) (c)
- ii. यूटिलिटी सॉफ्टवेयर: सिस्टम के रखरखाव और सुरक्षा कार्य जैसे डिस्क क्लीनअप करना (d)
- iii. डिवाइस ड्राइवर: ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम और हार्डवेयर उपकरण के बीच संचार को नियंत्रित करना (b)
- iv. कंपाइलर: उच्च स्तरीय भाषा के पूरे प्रोग्राम को एक साथ मशीन कोड में अनुवाद करना (a)
अतः सही मिलान i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a (विकल्प A) है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1770📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsCyber Security & Antivirus Mechanisms

Which of the following statements is correct regarding computer viruses and modern antivirus systems?

Explanation

Statement B is correct: Signature-based detection works by comparing file contents against a database of known malware signatures (unique binary sequences or hashes). Consequently, it can only recognize and intercept threats whose signatures have already been analyzed, identified, and cataloged by security vendors.

कथन B सही है: पारंपरिक 'सिग्नेचर-आधारित' एंटीवायरस ज्ञात मैलवेयर के विशिष्ट बाइनरी पैटर्न या हैश (सिग्नेचर) की डेटाबेस से तुलना करके वायरस की पहचान करता है। इसलिए, यह केवल उन्हीं मैलवेयर का पता लगा सकता है जिन्हें पहले पहचाना और डेटाबेस में दर्ज किया जा चुका हो (यह अज्ञात ज़ीरो-डे हमलों पर प्रभावी नहीं होता)।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1771📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsCryptography & Information Security

In an e-Office system, a confidential file is sent digitally from a section officer to a higher authority. The department wants to ensure that only the intended officer can read the file during transmission. Which of the following ensures confidentiality during transmission?

Explanation

In asymmetric (public-key) cryptography, confidentiality is achieved by encrypting the confidential message or document with the recipient's public key. Once encrypted, the file can only be decrypted and read by the matching private key, which is kept secret and solely accessible by the intended recipient officer. (A digital signature ensures authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity, but does not provide confidentiality).

असममित क्रिप्टोग्राफी (Public-Key Cryptography) में गोपनीयता (Confidentiality) सुनिश्चित करने के लिए प्रेषक फ़ाइल को 'प्राप्तकर्ता की सार्वजनिक कुंजी' (Recipient's Public Key) से एन्क्रिप्ट करता है। इसे केवल वही अधिकारी अपनी व्यक्तिगत 'निजी कुंजी' (Private Key) का उपयोग करके डिक्रिप्ट और पढ़ सकता है। (डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर केवल प्रामाणिकता और अखंडता सुनिश्चित करता है, गोपनीयता नहीं)। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

1772📚Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding

In a certain code FIRE is coded as DGPC. What will be the last letter of the coded word for SHOT.

Explanation

In the code FIRE → DGPC, each letter is shifted backwards by 2 positions:
- F (6) - 2 = D (4)
- I (9) - 2 = G (7)
- R (18) - 2 = P (16)
- E (5) - 2 = C (3)
For the word SHOT, the last letter is T (20):
T (20) - 2 = R (18).
Thus, the last letter of the coded word is R.

FIRE → DGPC में प्रत्येक अक्षर को 2 स्थान पीछे खिसकाया गया है (-2):
- F - 2 = D, I - 2 = G, R - 2 = P, E - 2 = C।
शब्द SHOT का अंतिम अक्षर T (20) है:
T (20) - 2 = R (18)।
अतः कोडित शब्द का अंतिम अक्षर R (विकल्प B) होगा।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

1773📚

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: During the ceremony, ___ eulogy was read to celebrate the life of ___ humble person.

Explanation

"Eulogy" begins with a consonant sound /juː/ (like "university"), so it takes "a". "Humble" begins with a pronounced consonant /h/ sound, so it also takes "a". Hence, "a eulogy ... a humble person".

"Eulogy" का उच्चारण व्यंजन ध्वनि /juː/ से शुरू होता है, इसलिए इसके पहले 'a' आता है। "Humble" का उच्चारण भी व्यंजन /h/ ध्वनि से शुरू होता है, इसलिए इसके पहले भी 'a' आता है। सही उत्तर 'a, a' है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

1774📚

Consider the following statements regarding the various proposals made during the Indian Freedom Struggle:
I. The August Offer (1940) was the first time the British explicitly promised the framing of a new Constitution by Indians themselves.
II. The Cripps Mission (1942) offered immediate transfer of constitutional powers but was rejected by Gandhi as a "post-dated cheque on a crashing bank."
III. The Wavell Plan (1945) proposed a "Three-Tier" grouping of provinces into Sections A, B, and C to satisfy the Muslim League.
IV. The Mountbatten Plan (1947) mandated a plebiscite in the North-West Frontier Province (NWFP) and the Sylhet district of Assam.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: August Offer (1940) conceded that framing a constitution was primarily the responsibility of Indians. Statement II is incorrect because Cripps Mission did not offer immediate transfer of power (it offered dominion status after the war). Statement III is incorrect because the three-tier grouping into Sections A, B, and C was proposed by the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946), not the Wavell Plan. Statement IV is correct: Mountbatten Plan mandated plebiscites in NWFP and Sylhet. Thus, only I and IV are correct.

कथन I सही है (अगस्त प्रस्ताव में पहली बार भारतीयों द्वारा संविधान निर्माण की बात स्वीकार की गई)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि क्रिप्स मिशन ने युद्ध के बाद डोमिनियन का प्रस्ताव दिया था, तत्काल हस्तांतरण नहीं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि प्रांतों का त्रि-स्तरीय समूहीकरण (A, B, C) कैबिनेट मिशन (1946) ने प्रस्तावित किया था, वेवेल योजना ने नहीं। कथन IV सही है (माउंटबेटन योजना में NWFP और सिलहट में जनमत संग्रह अनिवार्य किया गया)। अतः केवल I और IV सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

1775📚

Consider the following statements regarding the glaciers of the Jammu and Kashmir region:
I. The Kolahoi Glacier, also known as the "Goddess of Light," is the largest in the Kashmir Valley and is the primary source of the Lidder River.
II. The Thajwas Glacier, in the Sonamarg region, is a popular "hanging glacier" accessible to tourists.
III. The Machoi glacier, in the Sonamarg region, majorly feeds water to the Sind and Dras rivers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct: Kolahoi ('Gwash Brari' or Goddess of Light) is the largest valley glacier in Kashmir and feeds the Lidder River; Thajwas is an easily accessible hanging glacier near Sonamarg; and Machoi glacier situated near Zoji La feeds both the Sind River and the Dras River.

तीनों कथन सही हैं: कोलाहोई ग्लेशियर ('ग्वाश ब्रारी' या प्रकाश की देवी) कश्मीर घाटी का सबसे बड़ा हिमनद है और लिद्दर नदी का स्रोत है; थाजवास सोनमर्ग के पास एक लोकप्रिय हैंगिंग ग्लेशियर है; तथा जोजिला के पास स्थित माचोई ग्लेशियर सिंध और द्रास दोनों नदियों को जल प्रदान करता है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

1776📚

Consider the following statements about Manasbal Lake:
I. It is the deepest freshwater lake, located in the Poonch district of Jammu and Kashmir.
II. The large growth of lotus (Nelumbo nucifera) at the periphery of the lake (blooms during July and August) adds to the beauty of the clear waters of the lake.
III. It is a good site for aquatic birds and birdwatching and has the sobriquet of "supreme gem of all Kashmir Lakes".
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because Manasbal Lake is located in the Ganderbal district of Kashmir Valley (not in Poonch district). Statements II and III are correct. Since the question asks for the INCORRECT statement, only I is incorrect.

कथन I गलत है क्योंकि मानसबल झील कश्मीर के गांदरबल जिले में स्थित है (पुंछ जिले में नहीं)। कथन II और III सही हैं। चूँकि प्रश्न में गलत कथन पूछा गया है, अतः केवल I गलत है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

1777📚

Which of the following is the capital of the union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu?

Explanation

Under the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019, which came into effect on 26 January 2020, Daman was designated as the capital of the merged Union Territory.

दादरा और नगर हवेली तथा दमन और दीव (केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों का विलय) अधिनियम, 2019 के तहत, संयुक्त केंद्र शासित प्रदेश की राजधानी 'दमन' को बनाया गया है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

1778📚

Which type of forest typically occurs in regions with annual rainfall of 70-100 cm, where trees shed their leaves completely during the dry season, giving the forest a grassland-like appearance?

Explanation

Tropical Dry Deciduous forests grow in regions receiving 70 to 100 cm rainfall. During the dry season, the trees shed all their leaves completely, making the forest look like open grassland with bare trees.

उष्णकटिबंधीय शुष्क पर्णपाती वन (Dry deciduous forests) 70 से 100 सेमी वर्षा वाले क्षेत्रों में पाए जाते हैं। शुष्क मौसम में ये पेड़ अपने पत्ते पूरी तरह गिरा देते हैं, जिससे यह खुले घास के मैदान की तरह प्रतीत होता है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

1779📚

According to the Indian State of the Forest Report (2023), which State/UT has the highest proportion of forest cover relative to its total geographical area?

Explanation

Across all States and Union Territories, Lakshadweep has the highest percentage of forest cover relative to its geographical area (>90%), followed by Mizoram (highest among States at ~85%) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

सभी राज्यों और केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों में, लक्षद्वीप में अपने भौगोलिक क्षेत्र के सापेक्ष वन आवरण का प्रतिशत सबसे अधिक (90% से अधिक) है, इसके बाद राज्यों में मिजोरम (~85%) का स्थान है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

1780📚

Which of the following explains the meaning of IUCN Green Status of species?

Explanation

The IUCN Green Status of Species is a global standard that complements the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species by assessing the recovery of species populations and measuring conservation impact.

प्रजातियों का IUCN ग्रीन स्टेटस एक वैश्विक मानक है जो प्रजातियों की पुनर्प्राप्ति और संरक्षण सफलता का आकलन करके IUCN रेड लिस्ट का पूरक बनता है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

1781📚

Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for Forest and Wildlife conservation in India:
I. Under the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972, the "Chief Wildlife Warden" is the statutory authority empowered to control, manage, and maintain all Protected Areas within a State or Union Territory.
II. The state's obligation to protect the Hangul is derived from the constitutional Article 51A(g).
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Under Section 33 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the Chief Wildlife Warden is the statutory authority to manage protected areas. Statement II is incorrect because Article 51A(g) is a Fundamental Duty of citizens, whereas the State's constitutional obligation to protect wildlife and environment is derived from Article 48A (Directive Principles of State Policy). Thus, only I is correct.

कथन I सही है (WPA, 1972 के तहत मुख्य वन्यजीव वार्डन वैधानिक प्राधिकरण है)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि अनुच्छेद 51A(g) नागरिकों का मूल कर्तव्य है, जबकि राज्य का वन्यजीवों की रक्षा का दायित्व अनुच्छेद 48A (राज्य के नीति निर्देशक तत्व) से प्राप्त होता है। अतः केवल कथन I सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

1782📚

Which of the following environmental laws is not explicitly covered under the NGT Act for adjudicating disputes?

Explanation

Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010 lists 7 statutes. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Indian Forest Act, 1927 are not included under the jurisdiction of the National Green Tribunal.

NGT अधिनियम, 2010 की अनुसूची I में 7 अधिनियम शामिल हैं। वन्यजीव (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1972 और भारतीय वन अधिनियम, 1927 NGT के अधिकार क्षेत्र में शामिल नहीं हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1783📚

Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010:
I. NGT primarily hears civil disputes arising under specified environmental enactments.
II. Orders of NGT are appealable only before the respective High Court.
III. NGT can frame new criminal substantive law and independently prosecute offenders under the IPC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: NGT has civil jurisdiction over environmental matters involving a substantial question relating to the environment. Statement II is incorrect because under Section 22 of the NGT Act, appeals lie directly to the Supreme Court of India. Statement III is incorrect because NGT cannot frame criminal laws. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

कथन I सही है (NGT पर्यावरण से जुड़े दीवानी मामलों की सुनवाई करता है)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि NGT के आदेशों के खिलाफ अपील सीधे सर्वोच्च न्यायालय (Supreme Court) में होती है। कथन III गलत है। अतः केवल कथन I सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1784📚

Consider the following statements about sewage discharge and design periods:
I. Per-capita sewage generated is generally taken as about 75-85% of per-capita water supplied.
II. The average daily sewage flow is sufficient for sizing all components of the sewerage system without any peak-factor consideration.
III. Design periods for sewers are usually longer than those for treatment-plant components.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because sewer pipelines must be sized to carry peak flow (using a peak factor of 2.0 to 3.0) to prevent overflow during maximum discharge hours. Thus, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि सीवर पाइपों का डिजाइन पीक डिस्चार्ज (पीक फैक्टर 2 से 3) के आधार पर किया जाता है, केवल औसत प्रवाह पर नहीं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1785📚

Which of the following parameters measures both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic matter in wastewater?

Explanation

Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) uses a strong chemical oxidant (potassium dichromate in acid) to oxidize virtually all organic substances, thereby measuring both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic matter.

रासायनिक ऑक्सीजन मांग (COD) शक्तिशाली रासायनिक ऑक्सीकारक द्वारा सभी कार्बनिक यौगिकों का ऑक्सीकरण करता है, जिससे यह जैव-निम्नीकरणीय और गैर-जैवनिम्नीकरणीय दोनों कार्बनिक पदार्थों को मापता है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1786📚

The self-purification of a natural stream after discharge of sewage is retarded by:

Explanation

Natural stream self-purification relies on aerobic decomposition facilitated by dissolved oxygen. Excessive organic loading depletes oxygen faster than atmospheric reaeration can replenish it, causing septic anaerobic conditions that retard self-purification.

जलधारा का स्व-शुद्धिकरण वायवीय अपघटन पर निर्भर करता है। अत्यधिक कार्बनिक भार और कम घुलित ऑक्सीजन (DO) से पानी में अवायवीय स्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाती है जिससे स्व-शुद्धिकरण की प्रक्रिया बाधित/मंद हो जाती है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1787📚

The most widely used test for measuring dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms in 5 days at 20°C is:

Explanation

The standard 5-day Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD5) test incubated at 20°C is the universally accepted standard for measuring dissolved oxygen consumed by heterotrophic microorganisms while degrading organic matter.

20°C पर 5 दिनों के लिए इनक्यूबेट किया जाने वाला 5-दिवसीय BOD परीक्षण (BOD5) सूक्ष्मजीवों द्वारा उपभोग की जाने वाली ऑक्सीजन को मापने का मानक परीक्षण है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1788📚

Consider the following statements regarding self-purification and parameter interpretation:
I. Satisfying oxygen demand in a stream promotes self-purification.
II. High temperature always reduces the self-purification capacity of a stream.
III. Complete oxidation of organic matter by microorganisms produces CO2, H2O and inorganic salts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct: Oxygen replenishment enables aerobic mineralization into CO2, H2O, nitrates, and sulfates. Statement II is incorrect because while higher temperature slightly lowers oxygen saturation solubility, it significantly accelerates the biological reaction rates and reaeration velocity; thus it does not 'always reduce' capacity. Hence, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं (ऑक्सीजन मिलने से एरोबिक अपघटन बढ़ता है और पूर्ण ऑक्सीकरण से CO2, जल और लवण बनते हैं)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि तापमान बढ़ने से सूक्ष्मजीवों की रासायनिक प्रतिक्रिया दर भी तेज होती है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1789📚

Match List-I (Factor) with List-II (Effect on self-purification) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. High DO
ii. High organic load
iii. Sunlight
iv. Low temperature
List-II:
a. Retards
b. Promotes
c. Enhances O2 production
d. Slows reactions

Explanation

High dissolved oxygen promotes aerobic decomposition (i-b); High organic loading depletes oxygen and retards self-purification (ii-a); Sunlight stimulates algal photosynthesis and oxygen production (iii-c); Low temperature reduces biological metabolic reaction rates (iv-d). Hence, i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d.

उच्च DO = स्व-शुद्धिकरण को बढ़ावा देता है (i-b); उच्च कार्बनिक भार = स्व-शुद्धिकरण को रोकता/मंद करता है (ii-a); सूर्य का प्रकाश = प्रकाश संश्लेषण द्वारा O2 बढ़ाता है (iii-c); कम तापमान = प्रतिक्रियाएं धीमी करता है (iv-d)। अतः सही कूट i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1790📚

The Environment Management Plan (EMP) essentially:

Explanation

An Environment Management Plan (EMP) is an operational action plan that details site-specific mitigation measures, environmental monitoring protocols, schedule, budgeting, and institutional responsibilities to mitigate impacts during pre-construction, construction, and operation.

पर्यावरण प्रबंधन योजना (EMP) निर्माण और संचालन चरणों के दौरान प्रतिकूल पर्यावरणीय प्रभावों को कम करने के लिए आवश्यक शमन, निगरानी और आकस्मिक उपायों की विस्तृत कार्ययोजना निर्धारित करती है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1791📚

Public participation in EIA is most explicitly sought during:

Explanation

Under standard EIA frameworks (including EIA Notification 2006 in India), public consultation and formal public hearings allow affected local communities and stakeholders to voice their concerns and inputs on the draft EIA report.

EIA प्रक्रिया में जनभागीदारी मुख्य रूप से जनसुनवाई (Public Hearing) और स्कोपिंग चरणों के दौरान सुनिश्चित की जाती है जहाँ स्थानीय लोग अपनी आपत्तियां और सुझाव दर्ज कराते हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1792📚

Consider the following statements regarding EIS and EMP:
I. The Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is essentially a written compilation of EIA findings.
II. The Environment Management Plan (EMP) is implemented only after project completion.
III. Mitigation and monitoring measures are part of the EMP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because the EMP must be implemented from pre-construction, throughout construction, and during the operational lifespan of the project, not merely after project completion. Thus, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि EMP निर्माण-पूर्व, निर्माण और संचालन के दौरान लागू किया जाता है, केवल परियोजना पूरी होने के बाद नहीं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1793📚

The main objective of an On-Site Emergency Plan is to:

Explanation

The primary objective of an On-Site Emergency Plan (OSEP) is to contain and control an emergency within the boundaries of the industrial installation, protect plant personnel, minimize property damage, organize rapid and orderly evacuation, provide immediate first-aid, and prevent the escalation of the incident into an off-site catastrophe.

ऑन-साइट आपातकालीन योजना (OSEP) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य संयंत्र की चारदीवारी के भीतर किसी भी आपात स्थिति या दुर्घटना को तुरंत नियंत्रित करना, श्रमिकों और कर्मियों की सुरक्षा व व्यवस्थित सुरक्षित निकासी सुनिश्चित करना तथा घटना को बाहरी क्षेत्र में फैलने से रोकना है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1794📚

Match List-I (Phase of disaster-management) with List-II (Typical activity) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Prevention
ii. Preparedness
iii. Response
iv. Recovery

List-II:
a. Rehabilitation
b. Evacuation
c. Training/Drills
d. Safer design

Choose the correct match:

Explanation

The correct pairings across the disaster management continuum are:
- i. Prevention -> d. Safer design (inherently safer plant design to eliminate hazards)
- ii. Preparedness -> c. Training/Drills (conducting regular response training and safety rehearsals)
- iii. Response -> b. Evacuation (immediate lifesaving action during an active incident)
- iv. Recovery -> a. Rehabilitation (post-emergency reconstruction, medical care, and restoration).
Thus, the correct code is i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a.

आपदा प्रबंधन चक्र के चरणों का सही मिलान:
- i. रोकथाम -> d. सुरक्षित डिजाइन (संयंत्र का सुरक्षित डिजाइन बनाकर दुर्घटनाओं के जोखिम को रोकना)
- ii. तैयारी -> c. प्रशिक्षण / मॉक ड्रिल (आपातकाल से निपटने के लिए पूर्व तैयारी और अभ्यास)
- iii. प्रतिक्रिया -> b. सुरक्षित निकासी (दुर्घटना के समय तुरंत कर्मियों को सुरक्षित स्थान पर निकालना)
- iv. पुनर्प्राप्ति -> a. पुनर्वास (आपदा के बाद बहाली और सामान्य स्थिति में लौटना)।
अतः सही कूट i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1795📚

Arrange the following phases of an industrial disaster-management cycle in logical order (early to late):
I. Recovery
II. Response
III. Preparedness
IV. Prevention
Choose the correct sequence:

Explanation

The standard disaster management cycle logically progresses through four key phases:
1. Prevention (mitigating risks beforehand);
2. Preparedness (readiness through planning and training);
3. Response (immediate emergency action during the incident);
4. Recovery (post-incident rehabilitation and reconstruction).
Therefore, the correct chronological sequence is IV - III - II - I.

मानक आपदा प्रबंधन चक्र के चरणों का तार्किक क्रम है:
1. रोकथाम (Prevention - IV);
2. तैयारी (Preparedness - III);
3. त्वरित प्रतिक्रिया (Response - II);
4. पुनर्प्राप्ति/बहाली (Recovery - I)।
अतः सही क्रम IV - III - II - I है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

1796📚General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology

Amir Khusro was a famous:

Explanation

Ab'ul Hasan Yamin al-Din Khusrow, famously known as Amir Khusro (1253–1325), was an iconic Sufi musician, poet, and scholar during the Delhi Sultanate. Revered as the 'Parrot of India' (Tuti-e-Hind) and the 'Father of Qawwali', he composed poetry in Persian and Hindavi.

अमीर खुसरो (1253–1325) दिल्ली सल्तनत काल के महान सूफी संत हजरत निजामुद्दीन औलिया के शिष्य, विख्यात कवि और संगीतकार थे। उन्हें 'तूती-ए-हिंद' (भारत का तोता) और कव्वाली का जनक कहा जाता है। अतः वह एक प्रसिद्ध कवि थे।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

1797📚General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology

The members of the All India Services serve:

Explanation

Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, the All India Services (IAS, IPS, and IFoS) are recruited and trained by the Union Government but allocated to state cadres. Officers serve both the Union and State Governments during their careers.

भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 312 के तहत गठित अखिल भारतीय सेवाओं (IAS, IPS, IFoS) के अधिकारी केंद्र सरकार द्वारा भर्ती किए जाते हैं, परंतु वे अपने सेवाकाल में राज्य सरकारों तथा केंद्र सरकार दोनों के अधीन अपनी सेवाएँ देते हैं।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

1798📚General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology

Protection of objects and access control in a computer operating system is commonly achieved through:

Explanation

In operating systems and computer security, passwords represent the primary, universal mechanism of user authentication and access control to protect files, accounts, and system objects from unauthorized modification or viewing.

कंप्यूटर प्रणाली और ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम में फ़ाइलों, डेटा तथा सिस्टम ऑब्जेक्ट्स को अनाधिकृत उपयोगकर्ताओं से सुरक्षित रखने और उपयोगकर्ता प्रमाणीकरण के लिए 'पासवर्ड' (Passwords) का प्राथमिक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

1799📚General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology

The famous historical novel 'Anandmath' was written by:

Explanation

'Anandmath' was written in 1882 by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee. Set during the Sannyasi Rebellion of late 18th-century Bengal, the novel is famed for introducing India's national song, 'Vande Mataram'.

प्रसिद्ध उपन्यास 'आनंदमठ' 1882 में बंकिम चंद्र चटर्जी द्वारा लिखा गया था। यह 18वीं शताब्दी के संन्यासी विद्रोह की पृष्ठभूमि पर आधारित है और इसी उपन्यास में भारत का राष्ट्रीय गीत 'वन्दे मातरम्' प्रकाशित हुआ था।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

1800📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

Why are ants called Earth's most successful species?

Explanation

The opening lines of the passage state: "Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet... For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species." Option 3 correctly combines both stated reasons.

गद्यांश की पहली पंक्तियों में स्पष्ट लिखा है कि चींटियाँ 100 मिलियन से अधिक वर्षों से पृथ्वी पर रह रही हैं और वे पृथ्वी पर लगभग हर जगह पाई जाती हैं, इसी कारण उन्हें सबसे सफल प्रजाति कहा गया है।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

1801📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

Ants use antennae to:

Explanation

The passage explicitly states: "Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae." Hence, antennae are used to communicate.

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है: 'Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae' (चींटियाँ अपने एंटेना से एक-दूसरे को छूकर संवाद करती हैं)।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

1802📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

What does the Western Harvester ant do during winter?

Explanation

The passage states: "Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter."

गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि वेस्टर्न हार्वेस्टर चींटियाँ सर्दियों के दौरान शीतनिद्रा (hibernate) में रहने के लिए 15 फीट नीचे तक सुरंग बनाती हैं।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

1803📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

What kind of homes do army ants build?

Explanation

The passage states: "Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food."

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से बताया गया है: 'Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food' (आर्मी चींटियाँ घर नहीं बनातीं बल्कि भोजन की तलाश में घूमती हैं)।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

1804📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

What is the primary purpose of male ants?

Explanation

The passage explicitly notes: "The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long."

गद्यांश में कहा गया है: 'The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants...' (नर चींटियों का एकमात्र उद्देश्य भविष्य की रानियों के साथ संभोग करना होता है)।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

📝 Solved Questions on Hydroelectric Projects & Infrastructure of J&K (1804)