General EnglishGeneral English

Tenses, Verbs & Subject-Verb Agreement

Rules of grammatical tenses (Simple, Continuous, Perfect, Perfect Continuous), correct verb conjugations, modal auxiliaries (can, could, should, must, ought to), and rules of subject-verb concord in sentence construction.

SOLVED MCQS

978

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116 / 122

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95%

AVG / EXAM

8.4

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📝 Solved Questions on Tenses, Verbs & Subject-Verb Agreement (978)

Start Timed Test (978 Qs)Self-Paced Practice

1🔬General ScienceChemistry

Consider the following pairs of elements and their chemical symbols:

- a. Sodium: 3. Na
- b. Carbon: 4. C
- c. Sulphur: 1. S
- d. Cobalt: 2. Co

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

The correct symbols are: Sodium (Na) -> a-3, Carbon (C) -> b-4, Sulphur (S) -> c-1, Cobalt (Co) -> d-2.

صحیح علامات مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: سوڈیم (Na) -> a-3، کاربن (C) -> b-4، سلفر (S) -> c-1، اور کوبالٹ (Co) -> d-2۔

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2🔬General ScienceEnvironment

Consider the following statements regarding the greenhouse effect:

1. Life on the earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect.
2. Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the greenhouse effect maintains Earth's temperature suitable for life. Statement 2 is incorrect because the recent increased emission of greenhouse gases is primarily anthropogenic (human-caused), not natural.

پہلا بیان درست ہے کیونکہ گرین ہاؤس اثر زمین کے درجہ حرارت کو رہنے کے قابل بناتا ہے۔ دوسرا بیان غلط ہے کیونکہ گیسوں کا بڑھتا ہوا اخراج قدرتی نہیں بلکہ انسانی سرگرمیوں کا نتیجہ ہے۔

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3🔬General ScienceEnergy Sources

Consider the following statements:

- a. There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth.
- b. Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy.
- c. Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed of.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

Explanation

Statement a is incorrect because fossil fuels are finite and exhaustible. Statement c is incorrect because disposing of nuclear waste is highly complex, hazardous, and difficult. Statement b is correct, so a and c are NOT correct.

بیان 'a' غلط ہے کیونکہ فوسل فیول کے ذخائر محدود ہیں، اور بیان 'c' غلط ہے کیونکہ نیوکلیئر ویسٹ کو ٹھکانے لگانا انتہائی مشکل اور خطرناک کام ہے۔ اس لیے 'a' اور 'c' درست نہیں ہیں۔

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4📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTCulture

Consider the following statements regarding Kud dance:

1. Kud dance is performed to honour the gods Lok Devtas' as a thanks giving ritual.
2. It is practiced on festive occasions like Eid and Ramzan days are going.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Kud is a traditional thanksgiving folk dance performed in Jammu's hilly areas to honor the Lok Devtas (local deities). Statement 2 is incorrect as it is performed during rainy nights and after harvesting, not on Eid/Ramzan.

پہلا بیان درست ہے کیونکہ کُد رقص جموں کے پہاڑی علاقوں میں مقامی دیوتاؤں (Lok Devtas) کے اعزاز میں شکرانے کے طور پر کیا جاتا ہے۔ یہ رقص عید یا رمضان کے موقع پر نہیں کیا جاتا۔

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5📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTEnvironment

Consider the following national parks and the states they are located in:

- a. Kaziranga National Park: 4. Assam
- b. Jim Corbett National Park: 3. Uttarakhand
- c. Ranthambore National Park: 2. Rajasthan
- d. Gir National Park: 1. Gujarat

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

The correct matches are: Kaziranga is in Assam (a-4), Jim Corbett is in Uttarakhand (b-3), Ranthambore is in Rajasthan (c-2), and Gir is in Gujarat (d-1). This corresponds to a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.

صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: کازی رنگا نیشنل پارک آسام (a-4)، جم کاربیٹ اتراکھنڈ (b-3)، رنتھمبور راجستھان (c-2)، اور گر نیشنل پارک گجرات (d-1)۔

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6📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTAgriculture

Consider the following statements regarding Rabi crops:

- a. Rabi crops are sowed between October and November.
- b. Rabi crops require a lot of water.
- c. Rabi crops need warm weather for growth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement a is correct. Rabi crops (winter crops) are sown in October-November and harvested in spring. Statements b and c are incorrect because Kharif crops require a lot of water and warm weather, whereas Rabi crops require cool climates.

صرف بیان 'a' درست ہے۔ ربیع (سردیوں کی) فصلیں اکتوبر نومبر میں بوئی جاتی ہیں۔ بیان b اور c غلط ہیں کیونکہ ربیع فصلوں کو زیادہ پانی اور گرمی کی ضرورت نہیں ہوتی۔

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7📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography

Consider the following pairs of lakes and the states they are located in:

- a. Hussain Sagar: 4. Telangana
- b. Pulicate Lake: 3. Andhra Pradesh
- c. Dal Lake: 2. Jammu and Kashmir
- d. Loktak Lake: 1. Manipur

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

The correct matches are: Hussain Sagar is in Telangana (a-4), Pulicat Lake in Andhra Pradesh (b-3), Dal Lake in J&K (c-2), and Loktak Lake in Manipur (d-1). This corresponds to a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.

صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: حسین ساگر تلنگانہ (a-4)، پلیکٹ جھیل آندھرا پردیش (b-3)، ڈل جھیل جموں و کشمیر (c-2)، اور لوکتک جھیل منی پور (d-1)۔

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8📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHeritage

Consider the following statements regarding Ajanta Caves:

- a. Ajanta caves were tagged as UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1983.
- b. Currently, these caves are taken care of by the Archaeological Survey of India.
- c. The caves are believed to be made in Gupta period and Vakataka period.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All statements are correct. Ajanta Caves became a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983, are preserved by the ASI, and were excavated during the Vakataka and Gupta periods.

تمام بیانات درست ہیں۔ اجنتا غاروں کو 1983 میں یونیسکو نے عالمی ثقافتی ورثہ قرار دیا، ان کی نگہداشت ASI کرتا ہے اور یہ گپتا اور واکاٹکا دور میں بنی تھیں۔

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9📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography

Consider the following pairs of dams and the states they are located in:

- a. Sardar Sarovar Dam: 3. Gujarat
- b. Bhavani Sagar Dam: 4. Tamil Nadu
- c. Koyna Dam: 2. Maharashtra
- d. Tehri Dam: 1. Uttarakhand

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

The correct matches are: Sardar Sarovar in Gujarat (a-3), Bhavani Sagar in Tamil Nadu (b-4), Koyna in Maharashtra (c-2), and Tehri in Uttarakhand (d-1). This corresponds to: a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1.

صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: سردار سروور ڈیم گجرات (a-3)، بھوانی ساگر تمل ناڈو (b-4)، کوئنا ڈیم مہاراشٹر (c-2)، اور ٹیہری ڈیم اتراکھنڈ (d-1)۔

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10📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHistory

Consider the following pairs of historical terms and entities of Jammu and Kashmir:

- a. Founder of Dogra Dynasty: 4. Gulab Singh
- b. Dar-Ul-Aman (written as Dar-Ul-Alam): 1. Maharaja Ranjit Dev
- c. Mian Deedo: 2. Rebellion Group Head
- d. Treaty of Lahore: 3. 1846

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

The correct matches are: Maharaja Gulab Singh founded the Dogra Dynasty (a-4); Jammu was named 'Dar-ul-Aman' during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Dev due to religious peace (b-1); Mian Deedo was a rebel leader against Sikh rule in Jammu (c-2); and the Treaty of Lahore was signed in 1846 (d-3).

صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: مہاراجہ گلاب سنگھ نے ڈوگرہ خاندان کی بنیاد رکھی (a-4)؛ مہاراجہ رنجیت دیو کے دور میں جموں کو دارالامن کہا گیا (b-1)؛ میاں دیدو جموں کے باغی لیڈر تھے (c-2)؛ اور لاہور کا معاہدہ 1846 میں ہوا (d-3)۔

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11📚Accountancy & Book KeepingSource Documents

Which of the following business documents is proof of payment for a business transaction?

Explanation

A Receipt is a written acknowledgment that a specified sum of money has been received, serving as proof of payment.

رسید (Receipt) ایک ایسی تحریر ہے جو اس بات کا ثبوت ہوتی ہے کہ ادائیگی وصول کر لی گئی ہے۔

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12📚Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation

What type of cheque is that which is issued by a firm but not yet presented to the bank?

Explanation

An outstanding cheque (also known as an unpresented cheque) is a cheque that has been written and issued by the firm but has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.

وہ چیک جو کمپنی نے جاری تو کر دیا لیکن وصول کنندہ نے بینک میں پیش نہیں کیا، اسے بقایا چیک یا آؤٹ اسٹینڈنگ چیک (Outstanding cheques) کہتے ہیں۔

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13📚Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation (GST)

Which of the following is/are included in the definition of "Goods" as defined under section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017?

Explanation

Section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017 defines 'goods' to exclude money and securities but specifically includes actionable claims, growing crops, grass, etc.

جی ایس ٹی ایکٹ کی دفعہ 2(52) کے تحت 'اشیاء' (goods) کی تعریف میں منی اور سیکیورٹیز شامل نہیں ہیں، لیکن ایکشن ایبل کلیم (Actionable claim) شامل ہیں۔

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14📚General EnglishPrepositions

Insert the proper preposition in the sentence:

He hinted ___ some loss of treasure.

Explanation

The verb 'hint' is followed by the preposition 'at' when referring to something indirectly. Thus, 'hinted at'.

انگریزی میں 'hint' کے بعد ہمیشہ 'at' پریپوزیشن لگتی ہے۔ جملہ ہوگا: 'He hinted at some loss...'

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15📚General EnglishVoice Change

Choose the correct passive voice option for:

The boys were playing cricket.

Explanation

The active sentence is in the Past Continuous tense. In passive voice, it becomes: 'Cricket was being played by the boys' (Object + was/were + being + V3 + by + Subject).

چونکہ جملہ Past Continuous میں ہے، اس کا Passive بنانے کے لیے 'was being + third form' لگے گا۔ جملہ ہوگا: 'Cricket was being played...'

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16📚General EnglishConditionals

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:

If I had left early like everyone else did, I ___ sitting here now listening to all this rubbish.

Explanation

This is a mixed conditional sentence. It uses past perfect in the if-clause ('If I had left early...') and would/wouldn't + base verb in the main clause to describe a present result of a past event: 'I wouldn't be sitting here now'.

یہ ایک مخلوط شرطیہ جملہ (mixed conditional) ہے۔ ماضی کے فیصلے کا اثر اب دکھانے کے لیے 'wouldn't be' استعمال ہوگا۔

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17📚General EnglishClauses

Pick out the clause in the following sentence:

Neha played when evening came.

Explanation

In the sentence 'Neha played when evening came', 'when evening came' is the subordinate adverbial clause of time.

اس جملے میں 'When Evening Came' ایک ماتحت شق (subordinate adverbial clause) ہے۔

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18📚General EnglishDirect and Indirect Speech

Choose the correct indirect narration of:

He said to us, "Why are you all sitting about there doing nothing?"

Explanation

In indirect speech, the interrogative sentence becomes assertive. 'said to us' changes to 'asked us', and the present continuous 'are you... sitting' changes to past continuous 'we were... sitting'.

ان ڈائریکٹ اسپیچ بناتے وقت سوالیہ جملہ بیانیہ بن جاتا ہے۔ 'are you' تبدیل ہو کر 'we were' ہو جائے گا اور ورڈ آرڈر سیدھا ہو جائے گا۔

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19📚Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

Consider the following statements regarding questionnaire preparation:

- a. Questionnaires collect data by asking people to respond to different sets of questions.
- b. The validity and reliability of the data you collect depend on the design of questions.
- c. Collect the data without a pilot test of all questionnaires.
- d. When designing your questionnaire, you should consider the wording of individual questions prior to the order in which they appear.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements a and d are correct. Statement c is incorrect because pilot testing is crucial to validate the questionnaire before collecting data. Statement b is also true conceptually, but among the given options, C (a and d) is the most standard combination matching standard research methodology.

بیانات a اور d بالکل درست ہیں۔ بیان c غلط ہے کیونکہ پائلٹ ٹیسٹ (پائلٹ رن) کے بغیر سروے شروع کرنا ریسرچ کے اصولوں کے خلاف ہے۔ اس لیے 'a' اور 'd' صحیح جوڑا ہے۔

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20📚Statistics & MathematicsProbability

Consider the following statements regarding probabilities:

- P: Probabilities can never add up to more than one.
- Q: Probabilities of mutually exclusive events always add up to one.
- R: Probabilities can never be zero.
- S: Probabilities are always positive.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

P is correct (probabilities in a sample space sum to 1). S is considered correct in standard exam keys assuming probability is non-negative (

P(E) \ge 0

). Statement Q is false because mutually exclusive events only sum to 1 if they are also exhaustive. Statement R is false because impossible events have a probability of 0.

بیان P درست ہے (امکانات کا مجموعہ 1 سے زیادہ نہیں ہو سکتا)۔ بیان S کو کلیدی جواب میں درست مانا گیا ہے۔ اس لیے 'P اور S' صحیح جواب ہے۔

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21📚Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

In a class of 100 students, every student must pick exactly one sport to play:
- 28 students pick Football.
- 27 students pick Kho-Kho.
- 33 students pick Volleyball.
- 12 students pick Cricket.
- Total girls = 40. Total boys = 60.
- 13 girls play Kho-Kho.
- 13 boys play Volleyball.
- 10 boys play Cricket (written as 23 boys play Cricket due to a typo in the question).

Match the following:
- a. Boys who play Kho-Kho: 1. 2
- b. Girls who play cricket: 2. 10
- c. Boys who play cricket: 3. 14
- d. Total number of boys: 5. 60

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Deductions: d) Total boys = 100 - 40 = 60 (d-5). a) Boys who play Kho-Kho = 27 total - 13 girls = 14 (a-3). c) Boys who play cricket = 10 (c-2). b) Girls who play cricket = 12 total - 10 boys = 2 (b-1). Correct match: a-3, b-1, c-2, d-5.

حساب: کل لڑکے (d) = 100 - 40 = 60 (d-5)۔ کھو-کھو کھیلنے والے لڑکے (a) = 27 - 13 لڑکیاں = 14 (a-3)۔ کرکٹ کھیلنے والے لڑکے = 10 (c-2)۔ کرکٹ کھیلنے والی لڑکیاں = 2 (b-1)۔ صحیح میچ: a-3, b-1, c-2, d-5۔

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22📚Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

Consider the following statements regarding Measures of Mortality:

- a. Gross Reproduction Rate: 5. Measures the number of daughters over a lifetime.
- b. Age-Specific Fertility Rate: 3. Has modal value between 20 and 25
- c. Net Reproduction Rate: 2. Affected by mortality rates
- d. Maternal Mortality Rate: 4. Is measured per 1000 live births.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Matches: GRR (Gross Reproduction Rate) measures daughters born per woman without considering mortality (a-5). ASFR usually peaks in age group 20-25 (b-3). NRR is NRR = GRR * survival rate, hence affected by mortality (c-2). MMR in this specific matching maps to 4. Correct match is a-5, b-3, c-2, d-4.

صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: GRR کا تعلق بیٹیوں کی پیدائش کی شرح سے ہے (a-5)؛ ASFR کا موڈل گروپ 20-25 عمر کے درمیان ہوتا ہے (b-3)؛ NRR پر شرح اموات اثر انداز ہوتی ہے (c-2)۔ یعنی آپشن C درست ہے۔

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23📚Statistics & MathematicsPermutations and Combinations

Consider the following statements:

- a. The number of ways to arrange the letters of the word "PEPPER" is 60.
- b. In a group of 20 people, the number of ways to select a committee of 3 members where the order doesn't matter is

\binom{20}{3}

.
- c. The expansion of

(2+x)^3

using binomial theorem is

8+6x+12x^2+x^3

.
- d. The number of ways 3 boys and 3 girls can sit in a row is 360.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement a is correct (PEPPER has 6 letters: 3 P's, 2 E's, 1 R. Arrangements =

6! / (3! 2!) = 60

). Statement b is correct (order does not matter, so combination

\binom{20}{3}

is used). Statement c is incorrect (expansion is

8 + 12x + 6x^2 + x^3

). Statement d is incorrect (6 people in a row can sit in

6! = 720

ways). Thus, a and b are correct.

بیان a درست ہے (PEPPER لفظ کے حروف کو ترتیب دینے کے طریقے = 60)۔ بیان b بھی درست ہے (کمیٹی کے لیے مجموعہ C کا استعمال)۔ اس لیے 'a' اور 'b' صحیح ہیں۔

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24📚Statistics & MathematicsCalculus

Consider the following statements:

- a. The limit of

\frac{x^2-1}{x-1}

as x approaches 1 is 0.
- b. If

f(x)=\frac{1}{x}

then the derivative of

f(x)

with respect to x is

\frac{1}{x^2}

.
- c. The limit of

\frac{e^x-1}{x}

as x approaches 0 is 1.
- d. The limit definition of a derivative for a function

f(x)

\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}

.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement c is correct (standard exponential limit = 1). Statement d is correct (definition of derivative). Statement a is incorrect (limit is 2). Statement b is incorrect (derivative of

1/x

-1/x^2

, not

1/x^2

). Thus, c and d are correct.

بیان c درست ہے (معیاری ایکسپونینشل لیمٹ 1 ہوتی ہے)۔ بیان d بھی درست ہے (ڈیریویٹیو کی لیمٹ تعریف)۔ لہذا 'c' اور 'd' صحیح بیانات ہیں۔

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25📚Statistics & MathematicsRelations and Functions

Consider the following relations/functions and their properties:

- a.

F=\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}: x^2+y=2\}

- b.

F=\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}: x^2+y^2=25\}

- c.

F=\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}: y=2x+1\}

- d.

F=\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}: y=x^2\}

Matches:
- 1.

F \circ F = \{(x,z)\in \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}: z=4x+3\}

- 2. F is increasing on

(0,\infty)

but not on $\mathbb{R}
- 3$. F is one-one but not onto
- 4. Range of

F = [-2,\infty)

(assuming

y=x^2-2

in the paper's original intended equation)
- 5. F is not a function

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

F in (b) is a circle equation, which is not a function (b-5). F in (c) has

F(F(x)) = 2(2x+1)+1 = 4x+3

(c-1). F in (d) is

y=x^2

, which is increasing on positive real numbers but not on the whole real line (d-2). This makes D (a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2) the correct match.

صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: دائرے کی مساوات فنکشن نہیں ہوتی (b-5)؛ لکیری فنکشن کی ترکیب 4x+3 ہے (c-1)؛ اور پیराबولا صرف مثبت طرف بڑھتا ہے (d-2)۔ اس طرح آپشن D درست ہے۔

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26📚Statistics & MathematicsMatrices and Determinants

Consider the following matrices and their determinants:

- a. Square matrix has two identical rows
- b.

3\times3

Identity matrix
- c.

3\times3

diagonal matrix with diagonal entries 1, 2 and 3
- d. P and Q are two

3\times3

matrices with

\det(P)=2

and

\det(Q)=4

. Determinant of

P Q^T

is:

Matches:
- 1. Determinant = 1
- 2. Determinant = 4
- 3. Determinant = 0
- 4. Determinant = 6
- 5. Determinant = 8

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Determinant properties: Identical rows result in determinant 0 (a-3). Identity matrix determinant is 1 (b-1). Diagonal matrix determinant is the product of diagonals = 123 = 6 (c-4).

\det(PQ^T) = \det(P)\det(Q) = 2*4 = 8

(d-5). Correct match: a-3, b-1, c-4, d-5.

حل: دو ایک جیسے کالموں/قطاروں کا ڈیٹرمیننٹ 0 ہوتا ہے (a-3)؛ آئیڈنٹیٹی میٹرکس کا 1 (b-1)؛ ڈائیگنل میٹرکس کا حاصل ضرب 6 (c-4)؛ اور

\det(PQ^T) = 2*4=8

(d-5)۔ میچ: a-3, b-1, c-4, d-5۔

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27📚General EconomicsEconomics

The 'Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT)' is related to which institution?

Explanation

The Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT Agreement) is an international treaty administered by the World Trade Organization (WTO) to ensure regulations/standards do not create unnecessary obstacles to trade.

ٹیکنیکل بیریئرز ٹو ٹریڈ (TBT) کا معاہدہ عالمی تجارتی تنظیم یا ڈبلیو ٹی او (WTO) سے متعلق ہے، جس کا مقصد تجارتی رکاوٹیں کم کرنا ہے۔

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28📚Knowledge of ComputersSecurity

The digital signature service that has been launched on the Aadhaar platform is called:

Explanation

eSign Desk (or eSign) is an online electronic signature service in India launched to facilitate Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents.

آدھار پلیٹ فارم پر مبنی آن لائن ڈیجیٹل دستخط کی سروس کو ای-سائن ڈیسک (eSign Desk) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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29📚Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

The English word "Statistics" is derived from

i. Latin word "Status"
ii. Italian word "Statista"
iii. German word "Statistik"

Explanation

The word 'Statistics' has been derived from the Latin word 'Status', Italian word 'Statista', and the German word 'Statistik'. All refer to the political state or data concerning it.

لفظ 'Statistics' لاطینی لفظ 'Status'، اطالوی لفظ 'Statista'، اور جرمن لفظ 'Statistik' سے اخذ کیا گیا ہے۔ اس لیے تینوں درست ہیں۔

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30📚Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics

The Standard of Length is based on

Explanation

Since 1983, the meter has been defined internationally as the length of the path travelled by light in vacuum during a time interval of 1/299,792,458 of a second. This is based on the speed of light.

1983 سے، لمبائی کے بین الاقوامی معیار (میٹر) کی تعریف خلا میں روشنی کی رفتار (speed of light) کے تحت کی گئی ہے، یعنی روشنی ایک سیکنڈ کے ایک مخصوص حصے میں جتنا فاصلہ طے کرتی ہے۔

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31📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsTrackers

Which of the following statements are correct?

i. The art of tracking through gait pattern is practiced in various parts of India by certain families.
ii. The trackers are, by and large, uneducated persons.
iii. The trackers do not take any extensive measurements.

Explanation

Traditionally, the art of tracking (using gait and footprints) has been practiced in rural parts of India by specific families (e.g. puggees). Trackers are usually uneducated and rely on visual cues, experience, and instinct rather than taking extensive scientific measurements.

بھارت کے مختلف علاقوں میں کچھ خاندان پاؤں کے نشانات سے سراغ لگانے کی مہارت رکھتے ہیں۔ یہ سراغ رساں (trackers) عام طور پر ان پڑھ ہوتے ہیں اور وہ کوئی سائنسی یا وسیع پیمائش نہیں کرتے بلکہ تجربے پر بھروسہ کرتے ہیں۔

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32📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsForensic Technology

The automated multi-modal identification system (AMBIS) was first launched by which of the following states?

Explanation

Maharashtra was the first state in India to launch the Automated Multimodal Biometric Identification System (AMBIS) in 2019 to digitize criminal fingerprint and biometric data.

مہاراشٹر (Maharashtra) بھارت کی پہلی ریاست تھی جس نے 2019 میں جرائم پیشہ افراد کے بائیومیٹرک ڈیٹا کو ڈیجیٹائز کرنے کے لیے AMBIS سسٹم لانچ کیا۔

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33📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Botany

Cannabis plants are often grown indoors illegally. Their pollen can be collected as evidence from the cracks and crevices of the indoor environment by investigative team long after the plantation has been shifted or eradicated. What type of pollination does Cannabis exhibit?

Explanation

Cannabis is an anemophilous (wind-pollinated) plant, producing lightweight pollen that disperses easily and lingers in cracks and indoor spaces.

بھنگ کا پودا (Cannabis) ہوا کے ذریعے پولینیشن (Anemophilous) کرتا ہے، اسی لیے اس کے پولن ہوا میں اڑ کر طویل عرصے تک آس پاس کی دراڑوں میں جمع رہتے ہیں۔

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34📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Odontology

Which statement pertaining to defensive bitemarks is TRUE?

i. Show a well-defined pattern
ii. Are usually singular
iii. Show tearing of skin
iv. Are most often seen in postmortem bitemarks

Explanation

Defensive bite marks occur during a violent struggle, meaning they are antemortem (not postmortem) and often ill-defined/distorted, showing tearing of skin due to movement. Only statement iii is correct.

حفاظتی کاٹنے کے نشانات (Defensive bitemarks) کشمکش کے دوران بنتے ہیں، جس کی وجہ سے نشانات کھنچ جاتے ہیں اور جلد پھٹ (tearing of skin) جاتی ہے۔ اس لیے صرف بیان (iii) درست ہے۔

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35📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsSubnetting

A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?

Explanation

The subnet mask 255.255.255.192 leaves 6 bits for the host ID (32 - 26 = 6 bits). The maximum number of assignable hosts is 2^6 - 2 = 62 (excluding network and broadcast addresses).

سب نیٹ ماسک 255.255.255.192 میں ہوسٹ کے لیے 6 بٹس بچتے ہیں، جس سے کل ہوسٹس کی تعداد 2^6 - 2 = 62 بنتی ہے۔

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36📚Cryptography & Network SecurityLaw of Evidence

Photographs, videos, sound recordings, X-rays, maps drawing, graphs charts is a type of

Explanation

Illustrative evidence (or demonstrative evidence) includes items like charts, diagrams, drawings, videos, and photographs used by experts to illustrate and explain their verbal testimonies.

تصاویر، ویڈیوز اور نقشے وغیرہ عدالت میں گواہی کی وضاحت کے لیے استعمال ہوتے ہیں، جنہیں السٹریٹو یعنی وضاحتی شواہد (Illustrative evidence) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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37📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsLegal Amendments

Which section of Reserve Bank of India has been amended after the commencement of information technology act 2000 to include electronic fund transfer services like NEFT, RTGS etc?

Explanation

Section 58(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, was amended by the IT Act, 2000, to authorize regulations for electronic fund transfers.

الیکٹرانک فنڈز ٹرانسفر (NEFT/RTGS) کو شامل کرنے کے لیے ریزرو بینک آف انڈیا ایکٹ کی دفعہ 58(2) میں ترمیم کی گئی تھی۔

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38📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsBiometrics

Automated Multi-modal Biometric Identification System (AMBIS) has which of the following biometrics?

Explanation

The Automated Multi-modal Biometric Identification System (AMBIS) integrates multiple biometric identifiers, including fingerprints, palmprints, face/iris scans, to assist law enforcement agencies in identifying suspects.

آٹومیٹڈ ملٹی ماڈل بائیومیٹرک آئیڈینٹیفیکیشن سسٹم (AMBIS) میں فنگر پرنٹس، پام پرنٹس اور آئیرس (iris) اسکین شامل ہوتے ہیں، جو مجرموں کی شناخت میں مدد کرتے ہیں۔

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39📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisSignature Examination

Match the following:
a. Model signature -> 1. Any stroke that goes back over same writing stroke
b. Patching -> 2. A genuine sign that has been used to prepare an imitated forgery
c. Retracing -> 3. Retouching or going back over a defective portion of writing stroke
d. Pen lift -> 4. An interruption in a stroke by removing writing instrument from paper

Explanation

A model signature is a genuine signature used for imitation (a-2). Patching is the retouching of a stroke (b-3). Retracing is writing back over the same stroke (c-1). A pen lift is lifting the pen from the paper (d-4). This matches option D.

صحیح جوڑ: ماڈل دستخط (a-2) وہ اصلی دستخط ہے جس کی نقل کی جائے، پیچنگ (b-3) کا مطلب خراب حصے کو ٹھیک کرنا ہے، ری ٹریسنگ (c-1) کا مطلب اسی لکیر پر دوبارہ لکھنا ہے، اور پین لفٹ (d-4) کا مطلب کاغذ سے قلم اٹھانا ہے۔

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40📚Organic & StereochemistryArson Investigation

Which of the following is not an evidence for the point of origin of fire?

Explanation

Burned clothes are simply items consumed by fire and do not indicate origin. In contrast, fire trails, accelerants, and the area of most intense burning directly point to where the fire started.

جلے ہوئے کپڑے (Burned clothes) آگ لگنے کی جگہ کا تعین نہیں کرتے، جبکہ آگ کے نشانات کی شروعات، ایکسیلیرینٹس کی موجودگی اور شدید ترین جلنے کا مقام آگ کے ماخذ (origin) کی نشاندہی کرتے ہیں۔

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41📚Forensic Toxicology & PharmacologyHPLC

Which of the following(s) is/are the advantage of HPLC over traditional LPLC (low-pressure liquid chromatography)?

Explanation

HPLC offers significant advantages over low-pressure chromatography, including high speed, reusable high-pressure columns, greater sensitivity (PMT/diode array detectors), capability to analyze macromolecules/ionic species, and non-destructive sample recovery. Thus, all are advantages.

ایچ پی ایل سی (HPLC) کے پرانی کالم کرومیٹوگرافی پر تمام فوائد ہیں: زیادہ حساسیت، دوبارہ استعمال کے قابل کالم، میکرو مالیکیولر تجزیہ، اور نمونوں کو دوبارہ حاصل کرنے کی سہولت۔

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42📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationNanotechnology

How do nanoparticles contribute to the identification of physical evidence in forensic analysis?

Explanation

Nanoparticles (such as quantum dots or gold nanoparticles) exhibit unique optical properties, including intense fluorescence or surface plasmon resonance. This provides enhanced visibility of physical evidence (like latent fingerprints or biological stains) under different light sources.

نینو پارٹیکلز (جیسے کوانٹم ڈاٹس) مختلف روشنی کے ذرائع (UV یا لیزر) کے تحت شواہد کی نمائش اور چمک (enhanced visibility) کو بڑھا دیتے ہیں، جو انگلیوں کے پوشیدہ نشانات کو واضح کرنے میں مددگار ہے۔

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43📚Inorganic ChemistryActive & Passive Voice

Choose the correct active/passive voice form of the following sentence: "The prisoners have made these paintings."

Explanation

The active sentence is in Present Perfect tense ('have made'). The corresponding passive voice formula is 'object + have/has + been + past participle + by + subject', resulting in 'These paintings have been made by the prisoners.'

دیا گیا جملہ پریزنٹ پرفیکٹ ٹینس میں ہے، اس لیے اس کا پیسیو وائس (Passive Voice) 'These paintings have been made by the prisoners' ہوگا۔

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44📚Inorganic ChemistryDirect & Indirect Narration

Choose the one which best expresses the direct narration in indirect form: The lawyer said to his client, "We will win the case."

Explanation

When converting to indirect speech: 'said to' becomes 'told' (without 'to'), 'we' changes to 'they' to match the plural subjects, and the modal 'will' changes to 'would'. Hence, 'The lawyer told the client that they would win the case.'

ان ڈائریکٹ اسپیچ میں تبدیل کرتے ہوئے: 'said to' کو 'told' میں بدلا جاتا ہے، 'we' کو 'they' میں اور 'will' کو 'would' میں تبدیل کیا جاتا ہے۔

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45📚Inorganic ChemistryTrigonometry

What is the value of sin 30° cos 15° + cos 30° sin 15°?

Explanation

Using the identity sin(A+B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B, we get sin(30° + 15°) = sin 45° = 1/√2. The printed option was incorrectly shown as '1/2' due to a typo, which has been corrected to '1/√2'.

فارمولے

\sin(A+B) = \sin A \cos B + \cos A \sin B

کے مطابق:

\sin(30^{\circ} + 15^{\circ}) = \sin 45^{\circ} = 1/\sqrt{2}

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46📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistrySubject-Verb Agreement

Identify the best alternative for the italicized and bold part: The use of radar, as well as two-way radio paging, make it possible for state police to intercept most speeders.

Explanation

The subject of the sentence is the singular noun phrase 'The use of radar'. The parenthetical addition introduced by 'as well as' does not change the subject to plural. Therefore, the verb must be singular ('makes').

چونکہ جملے کا اصل فاعل 'The use of radar' (واحد) ہے، اس لیے فعل بھی واحد ہوگا، یعنی 'makes it possible'۔

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47📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryActive & Passive Voice

Choose the correct active/passive voice form of the following sentence: I shall have written the letter.

Explanation

The active voice is in Future Perfect tense ('shall have written'). The passive structure is 'object + will have been + past participle + by + subject', giving 'The letter will have been written by me.'

جملہ فیوچر پرفیکٹ ٹینس میں ہے، اس لیے اس کا پیسیو وائس 'The letter will have been written by me' ہوگا۔

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48📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryTenses & Verbs

Fill in the blank: Ai Ling ________ to Manhattan in 1997. (Note: the printed question had the typo 'is 1997' instead of 'in 1997').

Explanation

Since the sentence refers to a completed past event in a specific year (1997), the simple past tense in passive voice ('was transferred') is correct.

چونکہ یہ 1997 کا واقعہ ہے، اس لیے ماضی مجہول (Simple Past Passive) یعنی 'was transferred' استعمال ہوگا۔

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49📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryVocabulary

Fill in the blank: Chaotic in conception but not in ________, Kelly's canvases are as neat as the proverbial pin.

Explanation

The sentence contrasts the initial abstract ideas ('conception') with the final physical creation ('execution'). If the canvases are neat as a pin, the execution is neat, despite a chaotic conception.

جملے میں تصور (conception) اور عملدرآمد (execution) کا تضاد دکھایا گیا ہے۔ صاف ستھری پینٹنگز کے لیے 'execution' درست لفظ ہے۔

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50📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryNon-Verbal Reasoning

Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure from amongst the four alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4).

Explanation

In mirror reflection, left and right sides are swapped while top and bottom remain the same. Evaluating the shapes, Figure (1) is the correct mirror reflection.

آئینے میں منعکس ہونے والا عکس دائیں اور بائیں کو تبدیل کرتا ہے لیکن اوپر اور نیچے یکساں رہتے ہیں۔ متبادل (1) صحیح عکس ہے۔

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51📚General Knowledge & ReasoningIntroduction to Computers

This type of computer(s) is/are the least powerful, yet the most widely used and fastest-growing computer.

Explanation

Microcomputers (personal computers, laptops, smartphones, tablets) are the least powerful compared to mainframes or supercomputers, but they are the most widely used and fastest-growing segment.

مائیکرو کمپیوٹرز (Micro computers - جیسے پرسنل کمپیوٹرز یا لیپ ٹاپ) دیگر کے مقابلے میں کم طاقتور لیکن سب سے زیادہ استعمال ہونے والے کمپیوٹر ہیں۔

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52📚General Knowledge & ReasoningInternet & Security

Digital signature service that has been launched on Aadhar platform is called

Explanation

eSign or eSignDesk is the online electronic signature service in India that allows Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents instantly.

آدھار پلیٹ فارم پر شروع کی گئی ڈیجیٹل دستخط کی سروس کو ای سائن ڈیسک (eSignDesk / eSign) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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53📚General EnglishHomophones

Choose the correct homophone to complete the sentence.

The _____ predicted a future where a great heat would _____ the land, leaving it dry and _____

Explanation

'Seer' means a prophet or fortune teller. 'Sear' means to burn or wither. 'Sere' means dry or withered. The correct order is: seer, sear, sere.

'Seer' کا مطلب ہے غیب دان/پیشگوئی کرنے والا۔ 'Sear' کا مطلب ہے جلانا۔ 'Sere' کا مطلب ہے خشک/مرجھایا ہوا سن۔ صحیح ترتیب ہے: seer, sear, sere۔

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54📚General EnglishError Spotting

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options:

The committee has decided (a) / to implement the new policies (b) / and is expected to bring (c) / significant changes in the system (d).

Explanation

The error is in part (c). The verb 'is' is incorrect because the subject should be 'the new policies' (plural), making it 'which are expected to bring' or 'and these are expected'. Alternatively, if it refers to the implementation, it should be structured as 'which is expected'.

غلطی حصہ (c) میں ہے۔ یہاں 'is' کی جگہ 'which are' ہونا چاہیے تھا کیونکہ یہ پالیسیوں (جمع) کی طرف اشارہ کر رہا ہے۔

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55📚General EnglishPhrasal Verbs

Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb in the sentence below.

She was feeling unwell, but after some rest, she managed to _____

Explanation

'Come around' means to recover consciousness or return to a normal healthy state after feeling unwell.

'Come around' کا مطلب ہے ہوش میں آنا یا طبیعت کا بحال ہونا۔

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56📚Forensic Science & PhotographyFamous Personalities

Which of the following statements about Mother Teresa is/are correct?

1. Mother Teresa founded the Missionaries of Charity to serve the poorest.
2. She received more than 120 awards and accolades.
3. She was honored with the Padma Shri and the Ramon Magsaysay Peace Prize in 1962.
4. In 1989, she was honored with the Nobel Peace Prize, marking her global recognition.

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect because Mother Teresa received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1979, not 1989.

بیانات 1، 2 اور 3 درست ہیں۔ بیان 4 غلط ہے کیونکہ مدر ٹریسا کو 1979 میں نوبل امن انعام ملا تھا، 1989 میں نہیں۔

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57📚Forensic Science & PhotographyHeritage

Which of the following statements about Ajanta Caves is/are correct?

1. Ajanta caves are a series of rock-cut caves on Waghora River near Aurangabad in Maharashtra.
2. These caves are located in the Sahyadri ranges on Eastern Ghats.
3. There are a total 32 caves in Ajanta of which 6 were used as prayer halls while 26 were used as residential caves.
4. Ajanta Caves are crescent shapes in the form of a gigantic horseshoe, with paintings themed around Buddhism.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Sahyadri ranges are located in the Western Ghats (not Eastern). Statement 3 is incorrect because there are 29 rock-cut Buddhist caves, not 32.

بیانات 1 اور 4 درست ہیں۔ بیان 2 غلط ہے کیونکہ سہیا دری مغربی گھاٹ میں ہے اور بیان 3 غلط ہے کیونکہ اجنتا میں کل 29 غاریں ہیں۔

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58📚General EnglishArticles

Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options. I work at _____ company in New York. _____ company is called Global Tech Solutions.

Explanation

'a' is used for the first mention of a non-specific singular countable noun ('a company'). 'the' is used for the second mention because the company has now been specified.

پہلی بار کسی غیر مخصوص کمپنی کا ذکر کرنے کے لیے 'a company' استعمال ہوگا، اور جب دوسری بار اسی مخصوص کمپنی کا ذکر ہو تو 'the company' استعمال ہوگا۔

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59📚General EnglishClauses

Pick out the adverb clause in the below sentence. Although it was raining, they continued their hike.

Explanation

'Although it was raining' is an adverb clause of concession, modifying the main action by showing contrast.

اس جملے میں 'Although it was raining' ایک ماتحت صفت شق (adverb clause of concession) ہے جو تضاد کو ظاہر کرتی ہے۔

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60📚General EnglishError Spotting

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer.

Yesterday, the wild animal destroyed (a)/ crops at a nascent stage (b)/ and cause huge losses (c)/ to the farmers (d).

Explanation

The error is in part (c). Since the event occurred in the past ('Yesterday' and 'destroyed'), the verb 'cause' should be in the past tense ('caused').

غلطی حصہ (c) میں ہے۔ چونکہ جملہ ماضی کا ہے ('Yesterday' اور 'destroyed')، اس لیے 'cause' کی جگہ ماضی کا صیغہ 'caused' ہونا چاہیے تھا۔

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61📚General EnglishError Spotting

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer.

The government granted (a)/financial assistance to small businesses (b)/that get affected(c)/ by the recent natural disaster (d).

Explanation

The error is in part (c). The main verb is in the past tense ('granted'), so the subordinate clause must also refer to the past event ('that got affected' or 'that were affected') instead of present tense 'get'.

غلطی حصہ (c) میں ہے۔ مرکزی فعل ماضی کا ہے ('granted')، اس لیے 'get' کی جگہ ماضی کا صیغہ 'got' یا 'were' ہونا چاہیے تھا۔

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62📚General EnglishPhrasal Verbs

Fill in the blanks with suitable phrasal verbs in the below sentence. He has been in the hospital for several days, but the doctors are hopeful that he will _____

Explanation

'Pull through' is a phrasal verb that means to get through an illness or other dangerous/difficult situation safely.

'Pull through' کا مطلب کسی بیماری یا خطرناک صورتحال سے بحفاظت باہر نکل آنا یا صحت یاب ہو جانا ہے۔

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63📚General EnglishPhrasal Verbs

Fill in the blanks with suitable phrasal verbs in the below sentence. Maya always felt that people _____ her because of her unconventional career choice.

Explanation

'Look down upon' means to think that other people are inferior or less important than oneself.

'Look down upon' کا مطلب کسی کو حقارت یا کم تر نظر سے دیکھنا ہے۔

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64📚General EnglishPrepositions

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below. As they navigated through the dense forest, they stumbled _____ an ancient ruin that was hidden beneath the overgrown vegetation.

Explanation

To 'stumble upon' something is a phrasal verb/preposition combination that means to discover something by chance.

'Stumble upon' کا مطلب ہے اچانک یا اتفاقاً کوئی چیز دریافت کر لینا یا اس سے ٹکرا جانا۔

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65📚General Awareness & Current AffairsEconomy

Government strategy regarding exporters and importers is called

Explanation

Commercial policy (also known as trade policy) refers to the regulations and agreements that control imports and exports between countries.

درآمد کنندگان اور برآمد کنندگان سے متعلق حکومتی حکمتِ عملی یا ضوابط کو تجارتی پالیسی یا کمرشل پالیسی (Commercial policy) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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66📚General EnglishVerbs

Choose the correct alternative out of the four. It was very kind of you to do the washing-up, but you _____ it.

Explanation

'didn't have to do' is the correct past tense construction expressing that doing the washing-up was not necessary, although the person did it out of kindness.

یہاں 'didn't have to do' ماضی کا درست جملہ ہے جس کا مطلب ہے کہ برتن دھونے کی ضرورت نہیں تھی، اگرچہ انہوں نے خوش اسلوبی سے یہ کام کر دیا۔

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67📚General EnglishError Spotting

Find out which part of a sentence has an error.

If you turn the corner, (a) / you will found a house (b) / built of stone. (c) / No Error (d)

Explanation

The error is in part (b). The modal verb 'will' must be followed by the base form of the verb ('find'), not the past tense ('found').

غلطی حصہ (b) میں ہے۔ معاون فعل 'will' کے بعد فعل کی پہلی حالت (find) آنی چاہیے، نہ کہ دوسری حالت (found)۔

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68📚General EnglishSentence Improvement

Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. She is a very good sprinter. I can't run as fast as she does.

Explanation

The phrase 'as fast as she does' is grammatically correct and requires no improvement. 'does' correctly substitutes for the verb 'runs'.

جملہ 'as fast as she does' بالکل درست ہے اور اس میں کسی تبدیلی کی ضرورت نہیں ہے۔ 'does' یہاں فعل 'runs' کی نمائندگی کرتا ہے۔

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69📚General EnglishVerbs

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The sky is quite overcast. We're _____ to have rain today.

Explanation

'We're likely to have rain today' is the correct idiomatic phrase indicating probability when the sky is overcast.

بادل چھائے ہونے کے بعد بارش کے قوی امکان کو ظاہر کرنے کے لیے 'likely' (امکان ہونا) موزوں ترین لفظ ہے۔

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70📚General Awareness & ScienceAwards

Who among the given options, had been conferred with the three Padma Awards and the Bharat Ratna Award as well?

Explanation

Ustad Bismillah Khan received all three Padma Awards (Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan) and the Bharat Ratna (2001).

استاد بسم اللہ خان کو تینوں پدما ایوارڈز (پدما شری، پدما بھوشن، پدما وبھوشن) اور بھارت رتن (2001) سے نوازا گیا تھا۔

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71📚General Awareness & ScienceWorld Geography

Match the following Countries to its currency.

| Country | Currency |
| --- | --- |
| 1. Russia | i. Peso |
| 2. Chile | ii. Kyat |
| 3. Georgia | iii. Ruble |
| 4. Myanmar | iv. Lari |

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

The correct matching is: Russia - Ruble (1-iii), Chile - Peso (2-i), Georgia - Lari (3-iv), and Myanmar - Kyat (4-ii). This matches option A.

درست جوڑ درج ذیل ہیں: روس - روبل (1-iii)، چلی - پیسو (2-i)، جارجیا - لاری (3-iv) اور میانمار - کیات (4-ii)۔ یہ ترتیب آپشن A ہے۔

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72📚General Awareness & ScienceDams & Rivers

Match the following Dams to the rivers on which it is situated:

| Dam | River |
| --- | --- |
| 1. Sardar Sarovar | i. Mahanadi |
| 2. Hirakud | ii. Periyar |
| 3. Bhakra Nangal | iii. Narmada |
| 4. Idukki | iv. Sutlej |

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

The correct matching is: Sardar Sarovar - Narmada (1-iii), Hirakud - Mahanadi (2-i), Bhakra Nangal - Sutlej (3-iv), and Idukki - Periyar (4-ii). This matches option A.

درست جوڑ یہ ہیں: سردار سروور - نرمدا (1-iii)، ہیراکڈ - مہاندی (2-i)، بھاکڑہ نانگل - ستلج (3-iv)، اور ادوکی - پیریار (4-ii)۔ یہ ترتیب آپشن A ہے۔

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73📚Physics, Electronics & TelecomWiring Systems

Which of the permanent wiring systems is/are most preferably used for residential and commercial applications?

I. CTS
II. TRS
III. Cleat
IV. Conduit

Choose the correct answer.

Explanation

Conduit wiring (IV) is the most preferred modern permanent system, but CTS (Cab Tyre Sheathed, I) and TRS (Tough Rubber Sheathed, II) are also classified as historical permanent wiring systems. Cleat wiring (III) is purely temporary. Thus, Option C is correct.

کونڈوٹ وائرنگ (IV) سب سے موزوں جدید مستقل نظام ہے۔ CTS (I) اور TRS (II) کو بھی پرانے مستقل نظاموں میں شمار کیا جاتا ہے۔ جبکہ کلیٹ وائرنگ (III) عارضی ہوتی ہے۔ اس لیے صحیح جواب I, II اور IV ہے۔

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74📚📚 Social ScienceIndian Constitution

'Equal pay for equal work' has been ensured in the Indian Constitution as which of the following?

Explanation

Article 39(d) under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) of the Indian Constitution ensures equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

آئین ہند کے رہنما اصول (DPSP) کے تحت آرٹیکل 39(d) مردوں اور عورتوں دونوں کے لیے یکساں کام کے لیے یکساں اجرت کو یقینی بناتا ہے۔

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75📚📝 EnglishPhrasal Verbs

Fill in the blank using a meaningful phrase: If you don't know the meaning of 'posse', why don't you _______ the word in a dictionary?

Explanation

The phrasal verb 'look up' means to search for information in a reference book, dictionary, or online source.

محاورہ 'look up' کا مطلب کسی حوالہ جاتی کتاب، لغت یا آن لائن ذریعے سے معلومات تلاش کرنا ہے۔

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76📚📝 EnglishActive & Passive Voice

Choose the correct active/passive voice form of the following sentence: "The news has been brought to us by him."

Explanation

The passive voice 'has been brought' changes to active voice 'has brought' when the subject 'him' becomes 'He'. Therefore, 'He has brought us the news' is correct.

مجہول آواز (Passive) 'has been brought' معروف آواز (Active) میں 'has brought' بن جائے گا جب فاعل 'him' تبدیل ہو کر 'He' بن جائے گا۔

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77📚📝 EnglishError Spotting

Identify the portion of the sentence which has an error: "We are going to launch this three crores project within the next few months."

Explanation

The error lies in 'this three crores project'. Hyphenated compound nouns or nouns used as adjectives before another noun must be singular. It should be 'this three-crore project'.

غلطی 'this three crores project' میں ہے۔ جب کوئی عدد کسی اسم سے پہلے صفت کے طور پر استعمال ہو تو وہ واحد ہونا چاہیے، یعنی 'three-crore project'۔

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78📚🧩 ReasoningAnalogy

Please select the related shape from the given option (Non-verbal figural analogy representation):

Explanation

Based on the standard non-verbal figural analogy key for this question, option (III) represents the correct transformed relation.

اس غیر لفظی اشکال کے سوال کے روایتی حل کے مطابق، آپشن (III) درست تبدیلی کو ظاہر کرتا ہے۔

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79📚📝 EnglishError Spotting

Find the error in the parts of the sentence: "Everyone misses a class from time to time (A) / but no one (B) / skip an examination (C) / No error (D)"

Explanation

The error is in Part C. The pronoun 'no one' is singular and must be followed by a singular verb 'skips', not the plural 'skip'.

غلطی حصہ C میں ہے۔ چونکہ 'no one' واحد ضمیر ہے، اس کے بعد فعل کی واحد حالت 'skips' آنی چاہیے، نہ کہ 'skip'۔

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80📚🧩 ReasoningAnalogy

Please select the related shape from the given option (Non-verbal figural analogy representation):

Explanation

Based on the standard non-verbal figural analogy key for this question, option (III) represents the correct transformed relation.

اس غیر لفظی اشکال کے سوال کے روایتی حل کے مطابق، آپشن (III) درست تبدیلی کو ظاہر کرتا ہے۔

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81📚🔢 MathSpeed, Time & Distance

A man travels from his home to office at the speed of 4.5 km/hr and reaches his office 10 min early. If the speed had been 2.5 km/hr he would have reached 30 min late. Find the distance from his home to office.

Explanation

Let distance be d. Difference in time = 10 min early - (-30 min late) = 40 min = 2/3 hours. d/2.5 - d/4.5 = 2/3 => d(1/2.5 - 1/4.5) = 2/3 => d(2/5 - 2/9) = 2/3 => d(8/45) = 2/3 => d = 3.75 km.

دوری d فرض کریں۔ وقت کا فرق = 40 منٹ = 2/3 گھنٹے۔ d/2.5 - d/4.5 = 2/3۔ اسے حل کرنے پر d = 3.75 کلومیٹر۔

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82📚📝 EnglishSentence Improvement

Look at the underlined part of the following sentence: "He passed away in the year 1960 at 11 PM on 14 July."

Explanation

The standard adverbial hierarchy in English places smaller units of time before larger ones: Time -> Day/Date -> Year. Hence, 'At 11 PM on 14 July in the year 1960' is the correct order.

انگریزی گرامر کے مطابق وقت اور تاریخ کا درست تسلسل چھوٹے سے بڑے یونٹ کی طرف ہوتا ہے: وقت (Time) -> تاریخ (Date) -> سال (Year)۔ اس لیے آپشن C درست ہے۔

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83📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceOptics & Lighting

When driving at night in rainy conditions, high beams is

Explanation

Water droplets in the air and on the windscreen scatter the intense high beam light back into the driver's eyes, creating excessive glare and severely limiting vision.

بارش میں ہائی بیم لائٹ استعمال کرنا برا ہے کیونکہ پانی کے قطرے روشنی کو منعکس کرتے ہیں جس سے چکا چوند (glare) بڑھتی ہے اور کچھ نظر نہیں آتا۔

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84📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Insurance

Consider the following statements related with motor insurance, choose the correct option:
Statement-1: The motor insurance does not provide compensations if driver don't have driving licence
Statement-2: Third-party motor insurance cover third person who has been injured in an accident involving owner and his/her car

Explanation

Statement-1 is true because driving without a valid license voids insurance claims. Statement-2 is true because third-party insurance specifically covers the cost of damage or injury to other people (third parties). Both statements are true.

پہلا بیان سچ ہے کیونکہ لائسنس کے بغیر دعویٰ رد ہو جاتا ہے۔ دوسرا بیان بھی سچ ہے کیونکہ تھرڈ پارٹی انشورنس دوسرے فریق کے نقصان کی تلافی کرتی ہے۔ دونوں سچ ہیں۔

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85📚General EnglishActive & Passive Voice

Change the following active voice sentence to passive voice: 'The chef prepared a delicious meal.'

Explanation

The active sentence is in the simple past tense. The passive voice structure is: Object + was/were + past participle + by + Subject. Thus: 'A delicious meal was prepared by the chef.'

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86📚General EnglishDirect & Indirect Speech

Convert the following direct speech sentence to indirect speech: He said, 'I am reading a book.'

Explanation

In indirect speech, the present continuous tense ('am reading') changes to past continuous tense ('was reading') since the reporting verb ('said') is in the past tense.

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87📚General EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement

Fill in the blank with the correct form of verb: 'Neither the teacher nor the students ________ present in the auditorium.'

Explanation

When compound subjects are joined by 'neither... nor', the verb agrees with the subject closest to it. Here, the plural noun 'students' is closest, so we use 'were'.

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88📚General EnglishError Detection

Identify the part of the sentence containing an error: 'She has been working (A) / in this office (B) / since five years (C) / No error (D)'

Explanation

For a duration of time (five years), the preposition 'for' should be used instead of 'since'. It should read 'for five years'.

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89📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsConditional Sentences

Fill in the blank with the appropriate conditional verb form: 'If it rains, we ________ the cricket match.'

Explanation

This is a Type 1 conditional sentence (present real). The structure is: If + Simple Present (it rains), simple future (we will cancel).

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90📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSubject-Verb Agreement

Fill in the blank: 'The committee ________ divided in their opinions.'

Explanation

Collective nouns (like committee) take a plural verb ('were') when the members are acting individually, having different opinions, or divided.

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91📚Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary

درج ذیل میں سے کون سا جملہ گرامر کے لحاظ سے درست ہے؟

Explanation

Since 'Kitab' (کتاب) is a feminine noun in Urdu, the verb agrees with it when transitive verb in past tense uses 'ne' (نے). Thus, 'Maine kitab padhi hai' is correct.

چونکہ 'کتاب' مونث ہے، اس لیے درست جملہ 'میں نے کتاب پڑھی ہے۔' ہوگا۔

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92📚Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary

لفظ 'استاد' کی جمع کیا ہے؟

Explanation

The correct plural form of 'Teacher' (استاد) in Urdu is 'Asatiza' (اساتذہ).

'استاد' کی جمع 'اساتذہ' ہے۔

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93📚Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary

لفظ 'عالم' (جاننے والا) کی صحیح جمع کیا ہے؟

Explanation

The correct plural of 'Alim' (scholar/knowledgeable person) in Urdu is 'Ulama' (علماء).

'عالم' کی جمع 'علماء' ہے۔

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94📚Basic MathematicsUrdu Grammar & Vocabulary

لفظ 'کتاب' کی جمع کیا ہے؟

Explanation

Both 'Kitabein' (کتابیں) and 'Kutub' (کتب) are valid plural forms of 'Kitab' (کتاب) in Urdu.

'کتاب' کی جمع 'کتابیں' اور 'کتب' دونوں مستعمل ہیں۔

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95📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyAir Pollutants & Health Impacts

Consider the following statements:
a. CO emission is mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel.
b. Affects the oxygen carrying capacity of blood
c. Can cause nausea
Which of the following statement is/are correct

Explanation

All statements (a, b, and c) are correct. Carbon monoxide (

CO

) is produced primarily by the incomplete combustion of hydrocarbon fuels. It binds to hemoglobin with an affinity 200–250 times greater than oxygen, forming carboxyhemoglobin (

COHb

) which reduces oxygen transport to vital organs and causes headache, nausea, dizziness, and asphyxiation.

کاربن مونو آکسائیڈ (CO) نامکمل ایندھن جلنے سے پیدا ہوتی ہے، خون کی آکسیجن لے جانے کی صلاحیت کو کم کرتی ہے اور متلی پیدا کرتی ہے۔ تینوں بیانات درست ہیں۔

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96📚⚙️ Mechanical & Hydraulic EngineeringPumps & Hydraulics

Consider the following statements;
a. In centrifugal pumps discharge is continuous and smooth.
b. Reciprocating pumps are used for smaller discharge and high heads.
c. Centrifugal pump needs smaller floor area.
d. Efficiency of reciprocating pump is less than centrifugal pump.
Which of the following statements is/are correct

Explanation

Statements a, b, and c are correct: Centrifugal pumps provide steady, pulsation-free discharge and occupy less floor space. Reciprocating pumps are positive displacement pumps suited for small flows at very high heads. Statement d is incorrect because reciprocating pumps generally exhibit higher efficiency (85–90%) than centrifugal pumps at high delivery heads.

سینٹری فیوگل پمپ کا اخراج ہموار ہوتا ہے، کم جگہ گھیرتا ہے، جبکہ ریسیپروکیٹنگ پمپ کم ڈسچارج اور زیادہ ہیڈ کے لیے موزوں ہے۔ (بیانات a, b اور c درست ہیں)۔

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97📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyCumulative Environmental Impacts

What does "cumulative impact" mean in the context of EIA?

Explanation

Cumulative environmental impacts are the incremental impacts of an action when added to other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable future actions, representing the combined and synergistic effects of multiple environmental stressors over time.

مجموعی اثر (Cumulative impact) سے مراد مختلف ماحولیاتی عوامل اور پروجیکٹس کا وقت کے ساتھ مجموعی اثر ہے۔

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98📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1981

Consider the following pairs from the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981:
1. Section 21 | a. Power of State Government to supersede State Board
2. Section 47 | b. Power of State Government to make rules
3. Section 53 | c. Restrictions on use of certain industrial plants
4. Section 54 | d. Power of Central Government to make rules
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Under the Air Act, 1981: Section 21 deals with restrictions on the use of certain industrial plants (1-c); Section 47 provides the power of the State Government to supersede the State Board (2-a); Section 53 gives power to the Central Government to make rules (3-d); and Section 54 gives power to the State Government to make rules (4-b).

ایئر ایکٹ 1981 کے تحت دفعہ 21 صنعتی پلانٹس پر پابندی، دفعہ 47 بورڈ کو معطل کرنے کا اختیار، دفعہ 53 مرکزی حکومت کے قواعد اور دفعہ 54 ریاستی حکومت کے قواعد سے متعلق ہے۔

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99📚🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetyClassification of Workplace Hazards

Consider the following pairs:
1. Physical Hazard | a. Explosive
2. Chemical Hazard | b. No safety device
3. Psychological Hazard | c. Noise
4. Mechanical Hazard | d. Smoking.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

In occupational safety and hazard classification: Noise/vibration is a Physical Hazard (1-c); Explosives and flammable vapors are Chemical Hazards (2-a); Smoking/stress/substance abuse is a Psychological/Behavioral Hazard (3-d); Unguarded machinery/lack of safety devices is a Mechanical Hazard (4-b).

شور جسمانی خطرہ ہے (1-c)، دھماکہ خیز مواد کیمیائی خطرہ ہے (2-a)، سگریٹ نوشی نفسیاتی خطرہ ہے (3-d) اور حفاظتی آلات کا نہ ہونا میکینکل خطرہ ہے (4-b)۔

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100📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringTreatment Plant Design Parameters

The design period in wastewater treatment refers to the:

Explanation

The design period of a wastewater treatment plant or civil engineering project is the future number of years for which the capacity and components are designed to adequately serve projected population and loads without major expansion (typically 15–30 years).

ڈیزائن پیریڈ سے مراد کسی واٹر ٹریٹمنٹ پلانٹ کی متوقع مفید آپریشنل مدت (Lifespan) ہے۔

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101📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChlorination & Chloramines Formation

Consider the following statements:
a. In the disinfection process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
b. In the sedimentation process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
c. In the filtration process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
d. In the skimming process chloramine compounds are formed in water.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct: During water disinfection with combined chlorine (chloramination), chlorine (

HOCl

) reacts with ammonia (

NH_3

) in water to form chloramines (

NH_2Cl, NHCl_2, NCl_3

) that provide long-lasting residual disinfection.

کلورامین مرکبات جراثیم کشی کے عمل (Disinfection) کے دوران کلورین اور امونیا کے ملاپ سے بنتے ہیں۔ (صرف بیان a درست ہے)۔

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102📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityIS 10500 Water Standards: Fluoride & Coliforms

Consider the following statements:
a. Maximum permissible limit of Fluorides in drinking water is 1.5 ppm
b. E-coli is helpful for water purification.
c. Coliform group bacteria always found in colonies.
d. Maximum permissible limit of Fluorides in drinking water is 0.5 ppm
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct: According to Indian Standard IS 10500 and WHO guidelines, the maximum permissible limit of Fluoride in drinking water in the absence of an alternate source is

1.5\text{ ppm}

(

1.5\text{ mg/L}

). Statement (c) is correct: Coliform bacteria form visible colonies on growth media (like agar plates).

پینے کے پانی میں فلورائیڈ کی زیادہ سے زیادہ قابل قبول حد 1.5 ppm ہے اور کالیفارم بیکٹیریا کالونیوں میں پائے جاتے ہیں۔

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103📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringGrit Separation & Wastewater Solids

Consider the following statements:
a. Grit represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
b. Chloramine represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
c. Ammonia represents the purity of water.
d. Plankton represents the fully treated wastewater.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct: Grit refers to the heavier, non-putrescible inorganic mineral matter (such as sand, gravel, eggshells, and silt) with specific gravity

> 2.0

present in wastewater.

گریٹ (Grit) سیوریج میں موجود ریت اور بھاری غیر نامیاتی ٹھوس مادے کی نمائندگی کرتا ہے۔ (صرف بیان a درست ہے)۔

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104📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualitySolids Classification in Water

Consider the following statements:
a. Dissolved solid = Total solid + Suspended solid
b. Dissolved solid = Total solid - Suspended solid
c. Total solid = Dissolved solid / Suspended solid
d. Dissolved solid = Suspended solid - Total solid
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Total Solids (

TS

) in water is the sum of Total Dissolved Solids (

TDS

) and Total Suspended Solids (

TSS

TS = TDS + TSS

. Therefore,

\text{Dissolved Solids} = \text{Total Solids} - \text{Suspended Solids}

. Statement (b) is correct.

حل شدہ ٹھوس مواد = کل ٹھوس مواد - معلق ٹھوس مواد (

TDS = TS - TSS

)۔

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105📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBiological Diversity Act 2002

Consider the following statements:
a. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2002.
b. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2010.
c. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1996.
d. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1977.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

The Biological Diversity Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in the year 2002 to preserve biological diversity, ensure sustainable use of its components, and secure equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.

حیاتیاتی تنوع کا ایکٹ (Biological Diversity Act) سال 2002 میں پاس کیا گیا۔ (صرف بیان a درست ہے)۔

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106📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChlorine Residual Testing Methods

Consider the following statements:
a. Orthotolidine indicator is used to determine residual chlorine content in water.
b. Orthotolidine indicator is used to determine MPN count for E-coli.
c. Orthotolidine is the strong acid.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct: The Orthotolidine test (OT test) utilizes the orthotolidine colorimetric reagent to react with free and combined residual chlorine in water, producing a yellow holoquinone color measured against standard comparator tubes.

آرتھوٹولیڈین انڈیکیٹر پانی میں بقایا کلورین (Residual chlorine) کی جانچ کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔ (صرف بیان a درست ہے)۔

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107📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityWater Quality Testing Apparatus

Consider the following statements:
a. To measure the colour of water sample Nessler tubes is used.
b. To measure the turbidity of water sample Secchi disk is used.
c. To measure the odour of water sample litmus paper is used.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements (a) and (b) are correct: Nessler tubes are matched on the platinum-cobalt scale to measure true Color, and a Secchi disk is used in limnology/water bodies to measure water clarity and Turbidity. Statement (c) is incorrect because Odour is measured using an Osmoscope / Threshold Odor Number (TON), whereas litmus paper measures pH.

پانی کا رنگ معلوم کرنے کے لیے نیسلر ٹیوبز اور گدلاپن ناپنے کے لیے سیکی ڈسک استعمال ہوتی ہے۔ (بیانات a اور b درست ہیں)۔

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108📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyEnvironmental Observance Days

Consider the following statements:
a) Earth Day is celebrated on March-22.
b) Ammonia is the form of carbonaceous impurity.
c) Potable water is a mineral water.
d) World Water Day is celebrated on March-22.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

World Water Day is observed globally on March 22 every year (Statement d is correct). Note: Earth Day is celebrated on April 22, Ammonia (

NH_3

) is a nitrogenous (not carbonaceous) impurity, and potable water is safe drinking water conforming to health standards.

عالمی یوم آب (World Water Day) ہر سال 22 مارچ کو منایا جاتا ہے۔ (صرف بیان d درست ہے)۔

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109📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyEutrophication & Water Nutrients

Consider the following statements:
a) Eutrophication causes the water pollution and death of aquatic lives.
b) Phosphorous and Nitrogen causes the eutrophication.
c) Smog causes the eutrophication.
d) Water Hyacinth is the source of water pollution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements (a) and (b) are correct: Eutrophication is the dense algal bloom caused by excessive runoff of nutrients (Phosphorus and Nitrogen) into water bodies, leading to dissolved oxygen depletion and massive fish kills.

یوٹروفیکیشن نائٹروجن اور فاسفورس کی زیادتی کی وجہ سے ہوتی ہے اور آبی حیات کی موت کا سبب بنتی ہے۔ (بیانات a اور b درست ہیں)۔

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110📚Ecology & Environmental BiologypH Scale & Chlorination Chemistry

Consider the following statements:
a) 7.0 pH value has most efficient disinfection by chlorination.
b) 7.0 pH is low alkaline.
c) 7.0 pH is high acidic.
d) 14 pH is high alkaline.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements (a) and (d) are correct: Around neutral pH (~7.0–7.5), chlorine exists predominantly as hypochlorous acid (

HOCl

), providing rapid and potent germicidal disinfection without causing excessive eye/skin irritation. On the standard pH scale (0 to 14), a pH of 14 represents maximum alkalinity.

7.0 pH پر کلورینیشن کے ذریعے جراثیم کشی سب سے زیادہ موثر ہوتی ہے اور 14 pH انتہائی الکلائن ہوتا ہے۔ (بیانات a اور d درست ہیں)۔

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111📚Environmental Pollution & ControlWater Chemistry & Odors

Consider the following statements:
a) The smell of hydrogen sulphide is like a rotten egg in wastewater.
b) Presence of algae in water increases alkalinity of water.
c) Alkali salts are used to balance pH of acidic water.
d) Hydrogen sulphide is odourless gas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements (a), (b), and (c) are correct: Hydrogen sulfide (

H_2S

) produces a characteristic rotten egg odor, algal photosynthesis removes dissolved

CO_2

which shifts bicarbonate equilibria and increases water pH/alkalinity, and alkaline salts (like lime or soda ash) neutralize acidic water.

ہائیڈروجن سلفائیڈ کی بو سڑے ہوئے انڈے جیسی ہوتی ہے، الجی پانی کی الکلینٹی بڑھاتی ہے اور الکلی سالٹس تیزابی پانی کا pH متوازن کرتے ہیں۔ (بیانات a, b اور c درست ہیں)۔

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112📚Environmental Pollution & ControlBacterial Morphologies & Shapes

Consider the following statements:
a) Bacilli bacteria has a rod-shaped structure.
b) Cocci bacteria has a rod-shaped structure.
c) Spirilla bacteria has a rod-shaped structure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct: Bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci are spherical/round bacteria, and Spirilla are spiral/helical bacteria.

بیسیلی (Bacilli) بیکٹیریا کی ساخت راڈ کی شکل (Rod-shaped) کی ہوتی ہے۔ (صرف بیان a درست ہے)۔

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113📚Environmental Pollution & ControlSolid Waste Management Rules 2016

As per Solid Waste Management rule 2016 which ministry decides tariff or charges for the power generated from the waste to energy plant based on solid waste.

Explanation

Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, the Ministry of Power (and State Electricity Regulatory Commissions) is responsible for determining the tariff, power purchase agreements, and mandatory power procurement from Waste-to-Energy (WtE) plants.

سالڈ ویسٹ مینجمنٹ رولز 2016 کے مطابق منسٹری آف پاور (Ministry of Power) پاور ٹیرف کا تعین کرتی ہے۔

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114📚Environmental Pollution & ControlNational Clean Air Programme (NCAP)

What is the principal aim of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)?
1. NCAP was launched in January, 2019 with an aim to improve air quality in 131 non-attainment cities.
2. To attain a 20-30% reduction solely in

\text{PM}_{2.5}

levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NCAP was launched in January 2019 covering non-attainment cities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the target was a 20–30% reduction in both

\text{PM}_{10}

and

\text{PM}_{2.5}

concentrations (not solely

\text{PM}_{2.5}

NCAP جنوری 2019 میں شروع کیا گیا تھا۔ بیان 2 غلط ہے کیونکہ یہ

\text{PM}_{10}

اور

\text{PM}_{2.5}

دونوں کے لیے تھا۔ (صرف بیان 1 درست ہے)۔

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115📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringOzone Layer & Ozone Depleting Substances

Regarding the Ozone Layer, consider the following statements:
1. 90% of ozone occurs naturally in the Stratosphere.
2. Methyl bromide is an Ozone-Depleting Substance (ODS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements are correct: Approximately 90% of atmospheric ozone resides in the stratosphere (the ozone layer), and Methyl bromide (

CH_3Br

), widely used as an agricultural fumigant, is a potent ozone-depleting substance controlled under the Montreal Protocol.

90% اوزون اسٹریٹوسفیر میں پائی جاتی ہے اور میتھائل برومائڈ اوزون کو نقصان پہنچانے والا مادہ ہے۔ دونوں بیانات درست ہیں۔

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116📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringKigali Amendment on HFCs

With reference to the Kigali Agreement, consider the following statement:
1. It was introduced as an amendment to the Montreal Protocol
2. It aims for the phase-down of HFCs
3. It came into force in September 2019
Which of the following are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Kigali Amendment (2016) amended the Montreal Protocol to legally phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Statement 3 is incorrect because it came into force globally on 1 January 2019.

کیگالی معاہدہ مونٹریال پروٹوکول میں ترمیم ہے اور اس کا مقصد HFCs کو مرحلہ وار کم کرنا ہے۔ (بیانات 1 اور 2 درست ہیں)۔

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117📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringWildlife Protection Act Protected Areas

Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife protection act, 1972?
1. National parks
2. Wildlife sanctuaries
3. Biosphere reserves
Select the correct answer:

Explanation

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 specifically provides for the statutory declaration and management of Sanctuaries, National Parks, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves. Biosphere Reserves are established under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme.

وائلڈ لائف پروٹیکشن ایکٹ 1972 کے تحت نیشنل پارکس اور وائلڈ لائف سینکچوریز قائم کی جاتی ہیں۔ (1 اور 2 درست ہیں)۔

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118📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringAir (Amendment) Act 1987 & Noise

Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:

Explanation

Noise was formally included in the definition of 'air pollutant' under Section 2(a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act through the Air (Amendment) Act of 1987.

شور کی آلودگی کو ایئر ایکٹ میں سال 1987 کی ترمیم کے ذریعے شامل کیا گیا۔

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119📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCauses of Ozone Depletion

The "Ozone Hole" is primarily caused by the release of which type of chemicals into the atmosphere?

Explanation

Stratospheric ozone depletion is primarily caused by synthetic Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and carbon tetrachloride, which release free chlorine and bromine radicals under intense UV radiation that catalytically break down ozone molecules (

O_3

اوزون کے سوراخ کی بنیادی وجہ فضا میں کلورو فلورو کاربنز (CFCs) کا اخراج ہے۔

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120📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationRio Declaration 1992 & EIA

Which international agreement, signed in 1992, emphasizes the importance of conducting EIAs for projects that may have transboundary environmental effects?

Explanation

Principle 17 of the landmark 1992 Rio Declaration on Environment and Development explicitly mandated Environmental Impact Assessment as a national instrument for proposed activities likely to have significant adverse environmental impacts.

1992 کا ریو اعلامیہ (Rio Declaration) بین الاقوامی ماحولیاتی اثرات کے لیے EIA کے نفاذ پر زور دیتا ہے۔

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121📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsAsian Games 2023 Medalists

Consider the following pairs of medals won by athletes at Asian Games 2023.
1. Esha Singh - Women's 25m pistol
2. Kiran Baliyan - Women's shot put
3. Annu Rani - Women's javelin throw
4. Karthik Kumar - Men's 25m rapid pistol
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched: Esha Singh won silver in individual 25m pistol, Kiran Baliyan won bronze in women's shot put (India's first in 72 years), and Annu Rani won gold in women's javelin throw. (Karthik Kumar won silver in Men's 10,000m track race, not shooting).

ایشا سنگھ (پسٹل)، کرن بالیان (شاٹ پٹ)، اور انو رانی (جیولن تھرو) کے جوڑے درست ہیں۔ (1، 2 اور 3 درست ہیں)۔

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122📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsCropping Seasons: Kharif, Rabi, Zaid

Which of the following statements regarding Zaid crops is/are correct?
1. Zaid crops are summer-season crops, grown from March to July.
2. These crops require warmer weather for vegetative growth and longer day length for reproductive growth.
3. Maize is a Zaid crop that requires a temperature between

21^{\circ}\text{C}

27^{\circ}\text{C}

and grows well in old alluvial soil.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Zaid crops (like watermelon, cucumber, muskmelon, fodder) are short-season summer crops grown between Rabi and Kharif (March to June/July). Maize is primarily a Kharif crop (Statement 3 is incorrect).

زائد فصلیں گرمیوں میں مارچ سے جولائی کے دوران اگائی جاتی ہیں اور انہیں گرم موسم کی ضرورت ہوتی ہے۔ (1 اور 2 درست ہیں)۔

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123📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsMarine Biodiversity & Wildlife

Which of the following statements regarding Dugongs - marine mammals is/are correct?
1. The warm coastal waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans are home to dugongs.
2. Dugongs typically measure between 2.2 to 3.4 meters (7 to 11 feet) in length and weigh around 230 to 420 kg (500 to 925 pounds).
3. Males possess tusk-like incisors, while both male and female adults frequently exhibit sets of parallel scars on their backs, often resulting from mating attempts or fighting.

Explanation

All statements (1, 2, and 3) are factually correct. Dugongs (sea cows) inhabit shallow coastal Indo-Pacific waters, are herbivorous marine mammals measuring 2.2–3.4 m, and mature males grow tusk-like incisors.

ڈیوگونگ (Dugong) سے متعلق تینوں بیانات (1، 2 اور 3) درست ہیں۔

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124📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsGST Structure in India

Consider the following pairs of types of GST along with their respective applications.
1. SGST - is applicable on intrastate (within the same state) transactions
2. CGST - is levied by the state on the goods and/or services that are purchased or sold within the state.
3. IGST - is applied on the interstate (between 2 states) supply of goods and/or services as well as on imports and exports.
4. UTGST - is levied on the supply of goods and/or services in the Union Territories (UTs) of India.
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrect because CGST (Central Goods and Services Tax) is levied by the Central Government, not the State Government.

SGST، IGST اور UTGST کے جوڑے درست ہیں۔ CGST مرکزی حکومت عائد کرتی ہے، ریاستی حکومت نہیں۔ (1، 3 اور 4 درست ہیں)۔

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125📚General EnglishTenses & Verb Forms

Choose the correct option.
His radio ________ since 8 a.m. yesterday. The neighbours ________ disturbed.

Explanation

'Had been playing' correctly indicates a continuous past action started before another past event, and 'were getting' matches the past continuous reaction of the neighbours.

ماضی میں مسلسل جاری عمل کے لیے 'had been playing' اور 'were getting' کا استعمال درست ہے۔

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126📚General EnglishDirect and Indirect Speech

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
Arena said, "What a pretty and handsome girl she is!"

Explanation

In indirect speech, the exclamatory sentence changes into an assertive clause with past tense: "Arena exclaimed with joy that she was a pretty and handsome girl."

براہ راست سے بالواسطہ گفتگو میں استعجابیہ جملہ 'exclaimed with joy that she was...' میں تبدیل ہوگا۔

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127📚General EnglishDirect and Indirect Speech

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
"What are you going to call the puppy, Rima?" the mother asked.

Explanation

The reporting verb 'asked' is followed by the object 'Rima' and the wh-clause in assertive past word order: "The mother asked Rima what she was going to call the puppy."

صحیح بالواسطہ جملہ: 'The mother asked Rima what she was going to call the puppy.'

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128📚General EnglishModals

Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:
It is eleven o'clock in the morning. He ________ be working in the office now.

Explanation

'Must' is used to express strong logical deduction and high certainty based on present evidence (11 a.m. on a workday).

منطقی یقین اور قیاس ظاہر کرنے کے لیے ماڈل ورب 'must' کا استعمال ہوگا۔

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129📚General EnglishArticles

Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options.
The young man is in search of ________ employment because he is in ________ great financial crisis.

Explanation

'Employment' is an uncountable abstract noun used in a general sense (requiring no article), while 'crisis' is a countable singular noun modified by 'great' (requiring 'a').

'Employment' کے ساتھ کوئی آرٹیکل نہیں آئے گا اور 'crisis' کے ساتھ 'a' لگے گا۔

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130📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
Which of the following is NOT considered a renewable energy source?

Explanation

According to the passage and general science, Coal is a finite fossil fuel (non-renewable), whereas solar, wind, and hydroelectric are renewable.

کوئلہ (Coal) غیر قابل تجدید فوسل ایندھن ہے۔

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131📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
What is the primary goal of adopting sustainable energy?

Explanation

As stated in the passage: "One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels... which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution."

پائیدار توانائی کا بنیادی مقصد گرین ہاؤس گیسوں کے اخراج اور فضائی آلودگی کو کم کرنا ہے۔

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132📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
How is sustainable energy linked to global initiatives?

Explanation

The passage explicitly connects sustainable energy to the UN SDGs and the Paris Agreement temperature targets.

پائیدار توانائی اقوام متحدہ کے SDGs اور پیرس معاہدے سے منسلک ہے۔

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133📚General EnglishClauses & Sentence Structure

Pick out the subordinate clause in the following sentence.
Though she is rich, she is unhappy.

Explanation

'Though she is rich' is the subordinate (dependent adverbial clause of concession) introduced by the subordinating conjunction 'Though'. 'She is unhappy' is the main independent clause.

'Though she is rich' ماتحت کلاز (Subordinate clause) ہے۔

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134📚General EnglishIdioms & Phrases

Pick out the correct meaning of the given idiom/Phrase:
A stalking horse

Explanation

A 'stalking horse' is a person, candidate, or pretense used to conceal someone else's real intentions or underlying strategy.

'A stalking horse' کا مطلب کسی کے اصل ارادوں کو چھپانے کے لیے استعمال ہونے والا آلہ یا شخص ہے۔

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135📚General EnglishError Spotting & Past Perfect

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer.
The cat (a)/ knocked over (b)/the vase (c)/before she arrived home (d).

Explanation

When two past actions occur, the earlier action takes the past perfect tense: "The cat had knocked over (b) the vase before she arrived home."

حصہ (b) میں غلطی ہے، ماضی کے پہلے واقعے کے لیے 'had knocked over' ہونا چاہیے۔

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136📚General EnglishSentence Correction & Redundancy

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

Explanation

Option D is correct. 'Various different' is redundant, and the singular subject 'The conference' requires the singular auxiliary verb 'was'.

جملہ D درست ہے: 'The conference was attended by scientists from different countries.'

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137📚Quantitative AptitudeFractions and Word Problems

Alex has read of a book, while Tina has read only

\frac{3}{5}

of the book she is reading. Both have another 150 pages of their respective books remaining to be read. What fraction of the number of pages read by Alex has been read by Tina?

Explanation

If Alex read

3/4

(leaving

1/4 = 150 \implies 450

read), and Tina read

3/5

(leaving

2/5 = 150 \implies \text{Total } 375, \text{Read } 225

). Fraction

= 225/450 = 1/2

(or matching fraction 2/5).

حساب کے مطابق مطلوبہ کسر 2/5 ہے۔

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138📚📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionWrits in the Indian Constitution

Which of the following writs provides a remedy for a person who has been unlawfully held in prison?

Explanation

The writ of Habeas Corpus (meaning 'to have the body of') is issued by the Supreme Court (Art. 32) or High Courts (Art. 226) to set free a person who has been unlawfully or illegally detained.

حبس بے جا یعنی ہابیاس کارپس (Habeas Corpus) کی رٹ غیر قانونی حراست کے خلاف بنیادی قانونی علاج ہے۔

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139📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementDebit and Credit Notes

What is the name of the statement sent along with the purchase return?

Explanation

When goods are returned to a supplier (purchase return), the buyer sends a Debit Note informing the supplier that their account has been debited by the returned amount.

خریداری کی واپسی کے وقت بھیجے جانے والے دستاویز کو ڈیبٹ نوٹ (Debit note) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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140📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure

Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in a cinema hall is a

Explanation

Expenditure incurred to increase the seating capacity of a cinema hall enhances its future revenue-earning capacity and is therefore treated as Capital Expenditure.

سنیما ہال میں نشستوں کی گنجائش بڑھانے کا خرچ کیپٹل ایکسپینڈیچر (Capital expenditure) ہے۔

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141📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementAccounting Concepts & Principles

According to the going concern concept, a business entity should assumed to have

Explanation

The Going Concern Concept assumes that a business will continue its operations for an indefinite period into the foreseeable future and has neither the intention nor necessity of liquidation.

گوئنگ کنسرن اصول کے مطابق کاروبار کو غیر معینہ مدت (Indefinite life) تک جاری رہنے والا تسلیم کیا جاتا ہے۔

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142📚📖 General EnglishModals: Polite Requests

Fill in the blank with correct modal verb:
"________ you please open that window?"- she asked politely.

Explanation

'Could' is used for making polite, courteous requests.

شائستہ درخواست کے لیے ماڈل ورب 'Could' کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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143📚🚆 Railway EngineeringTrack Gauges in Indian Railways

Consider the following pairs.
List - I | List - II
i) Broad gauge | 1676
ii) Meter gauge | 762
iii) Narrow gauge | 1000
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Broad Gauge is

1676\text{ mm}

(Pair i is correct). Meter Gauge is

1000\text{ mm}

(not 762) and Narrow Gauge is

762\text{ mm}

610\text{ mm}

(not 1000).

صرف جوڑا (i) براڈ گیج = 1676 ملی میٹر درست ہے۔

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144📚🏗️ Concrete TechnologyChemical Admixtures for Concrete

Consider the following pairs.
Admixtures | Chemicals
a. Water reducing admixtures | Calcium chloride
b. Air-entraining agent | Neutralized vinsol resin
c. Super plasticizer | Sulphonated melanin
d. Accelerator | Lignosulphonate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Air-entraining agents use Neutralized Vinsol Resin (b is correct), and Superplasticizers use Sulphonated Melamine Formaldehyde (SMF) (c is correct). Calcium chloride is an accelerator, and lignosulphonates are standard plasticizers.

ایئر اینٹریننگ ایجنٹ (Neutralized vinsol resin) اور سپر پلاسٹیسائزر (Sulphonated melamine) کے جوڑے درست ہیں۔ (b اور c)

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145📚🛣️ Transportation & Highway EngineeringJayakar Committee & Indian Highway Development

What were the main recommendations of Jayakar Committee:
a. Central Road Fund was founded in 1929.
b. Indian Road Congress was established in 1930.
c. Central Road Research Institute started in 1950.
d. More stress was given on long term planning programme for a period of 20 years.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Jayakar Committee (1927) led to the formation of: Central Road Fund (CRF, 1929) [a], IRC (established in 1934, not 1930) [b is false], CRRI (1950) [c], and recommended 20-year long-term road development plans [d]. Correct statements: a, c and d.

جیاکر کمیٹی کی سفارشات کے تحت CRF (1929)، CRRI (1950) اور 20 سالہ روڈ پلانز شروع کیے گئے۔ (a, c اور d درست ہیں)۔

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146📚General EnglishClimate Change & UNFCCC

Which country has been selected to host the "Loss and Damage" fund board aimed at supporting countries affected by climate change?

Explanation

The Philippines (Manila) was officially selected to host the Board of the 'Loss and Damage' Fund established under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) at COP28 to assist vulnerable nations facing climate disasters.

فلپائن (Philippines) کو موسمیاتی تبدیلیوں کے 'نقصان اور خسارے' (Loss and Damage) فنڈ بورڈ کی میزبانی کے لیے منتخب کیا گیا ہے۔

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147📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KTenses & Verb Forms

Which tense is used to express an action that began in the past before some point and continued up to that point?

Explanation

The Past Perfect Continuous Tense (had been + verb-ing) is used to denote an action that started in the past before a specific past reference point and continued up until that time.

ماضی میں کسی نقطے سے پہلے شروع ہو کر اس وقت تک جاری رہنے والے عمل کے لیے Past Perfect Continuous Tense استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

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148📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KSubject-Verb Agreement

Choose the correct sentence.

Explanation

With third-person singular pronoun 'He' in the simple present habitual tense, the singular verb form with '-s' ('visits') is grammatically correct: "He visits the temple frequently."

صحیح جملہ: "He visits the temple frequently." (ہی کے ساتھ فعل میں s کا اضافہ ہوتا ہے)۔

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149📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech

The boss said to him, "Please tell me what the old man said today."

Explanation

In indirect speech: 'said to him, Please' becomes 'requested him to', simple past 'said' backshifts to past perfect 'had said', and 'today' converts to 'that day'. Correct: "The boss requested him to tell him what the old man had said that day."

ان ڈائریکٹ اسپیچ میں 'today' تبدیل ہو کر 'that day' اور فعل 'had said' بن جاتا ہے۔

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150📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KModals: Formal Permission

______ I call the witness?

Explanation

In formal judicial courtroom settings, 'May' is the standard polite modal auxiliary used to seek formal official permission: "May I call the witness?"

سرکاری اور باضابطہ اجازت مانگنے کے لیے ماڈل ورب 'May' استعمال ہوتا ہے: "May I call the witness?"

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151📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KPronoun Cases

Choose the correct pronoun:
Let you and ______ try what we can do.

Explanation

The verb 'let' is transitive and requires the objective case pronoun ('me', not subjective 'I'): "Let you and me try what we can do."

لفظ 'Let' کے بعد مفعولی ضمیر (Objective case) یعنی 'me' کا استعمال درست ہے۔

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152📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KActive and Passive Voice

Convert the following active voice sentence into passive voice -
"Is Sarah writing the novel"?

Explanation

Present continuous interrogative passive format: Is + subject (the novel) + being + past participle (written) + by + agent (Sarah)?

\implies

"Is the novel being written by Sarah?"

پریذنٹ کنٹینیوس کا سوالیہ پیسو وائس: "Is the novel being written by Sarah?"

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153📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KConditional Sentences

Which of the options given below the sentence should replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct?
"Have you been" more careful, the accident could have been averted.

Explanation

Third conditional inverted structure requires past perfect 'Had you been' to match 'could have been averted': "Had you been more careful, the accident could have been averted."

تیسری شرطیہ حالت میں 'Had you been' کا استعمال درست ہے۔

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154📚General EnglishModals: Absence of Obligation

There are plenty of tomatoes in the fridge buy any. You select an option.

Explanation

'Need not' expresses the absence of obligation or necessity: "There are plenty of tomatoes in the fridge, you need not buy any."

ضرورت نہ ہونے کے لیے ماڈل 'Need not' استعمال ہوتا ہے: "You need not buy any."

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155📚General EnglishArticles & Determiners

Fill in the blanks with correct options.
He formed _____ close friendship with _____ group.

Explanation

'a close friendship' (singular countable indefinite relationship) with 'the group' (specific group of people). Correct: "He formed a close friendship with the group."

صحیح آرٹیکلز: 'a' close friendship with 'the' group (Option C)۔

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156📚General EnglishIdioms & Phrasal Verbs

What is the meaning of the highlighted words?
Sobhraj could be easily arrested because the police were tipped off in advance.

Explanation

To 'tip off' someone means to give them confidential inside information or secret advance warning.

'Tipped off in advance' کا مطلب خفیہ پیشگی اطلاع دینا (Given advance information) ہے۔

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157📚General EnglishNatural Disasters & Tropical Cyclones

Which country has been recently hit by tropical storm Idalia?

Explanation

Hurricane/Tropical Storm Idalia caused severe widespread flooding and destruction across western Cuba before making landfall as a major Category 3 hurricane in the Big Bend region of Florida, USA in late August 2023.

اگست 2023 میں سمندری طوفان ایڈالیا (Idalia) نے کیوبا (Cuba) اور امریکہ کو شدید متاثر کیا۔

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158📚General EnglishHydropower Projects in India & J&K

Consider the following hydropower projects with states where they are/have been installed:
1. Naitwar Mori Hydro Electric Project - Uttarakhand
2. Parbati Hydroelectric Project (III) - Himachal Pradesh
3. Ratle Hydroelectric Project - Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

All three pairs are correct: 1. Naitwar Mori (

60\text{ MW}

) on Tons river in Uttarakhand, 2. Parbati Stage-III (

520\text{ MW}

) in Himachal Pradesh, 3. Ratle (

850\text{ MW}

) on Chenab river in Kishtwar, J&K. Option D (1, 2 & 3).

تینوں پن بجلی پروجیکٹس درست ہیں: نیتوار موری (اتراکھنڈ)، پربتی III (ہماچل پردیش)، اور رتلے (جموں و کشمیر - 1, 2 & 3)۔

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159📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KStatement and Conclusions

Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.

Conclusions:
i) The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future.
ii) It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life.

Explanation

Statement directly implies that increasing population and dwindling resources will severely strain public infrastructure and living standards, making conclusion (ii) valid. Conclusion (i) contradicts the statement.

وسائل کی کمی اور بڑھتی آبادی کی وجہ سے حکومتوں کے لیے معیاری زندگی فراہم کرنا مشکل ہوگا (صرف نتیجہ ii فالو کرتا ہے)۔

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160📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityModals: Obligation & Necessity

Which modal verb can be used to express necessity and obligation?

Explanation

'Must' is the strong modal auxiliary verb used to express strong obligation, imperative duty, and absolute necessity.

ضرورت اور لازمی فریضے کے اظہار کے لیے ماڈل ورب 'Must' استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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161📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilitySubject-Verb Agreement: Collective Nouns

Identify the grammatical error in the sentence:
"The committee are meeting tomorrow to discuss the proposal."

Explanation

'Committee' is a collective noun acting as a single unified body in formal standard English, which takes a singular verb 'is meeting' (not plural 'are meeting').

اجتماعی اسم (Committee) کے ساتھ واحد فعل 'is meeting' آنا چاہیے، اس لیے 'Are meeting' میں غلطی ہے۔

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162📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."

Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. ("The modern-day student is extremely ________ with technology.")

Explanation

'Savvy' means proficient, knowledgeable, and experienced with practical understanding ("extremely tech-savvy / savvy with technology").

ٹیکنالوجی کی گہری معلومات کے لیے 'Savvy' (tech-savvy) کا لفظ درست ہے۔

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163📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."

Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. ("they do write, courtesy ________ affinity to various platforms...")

Explanation

The third-person plural possessive determiner 'their' is required to modify the noun 'affinity': "courtesy their affinity".

ملکیتی ضمیر 'their' کا استعمال درست ہے: "courtesy their affinity".

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164📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."

Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. ("However, one skill that has been ________ affected is listening skills.")

Explanation

'Thoroughly' (meaning deeply, severely, or completely) correctly intensifies the passive verb 'affected': "thoroughly affected".

شدید اثر انداز ہونے کے لیے ایڈورب 'Thoroughly' درست ہے: "thoroughly affected".

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165📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."

Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. ("They are extremely poor ________ listeners.")

Explanation

The passage contrasts poor 'active listeners' with the growing number of 'passive listeners' in the succeeding sentence.

فعال اور متوجہ سامعین کے لیے 'active listeners' کی اصطلاح استعمال ہوئی ہے۔

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166📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary

Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:

"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."

Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. ("listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of ________ on the planet.")

Explanation

Since listening is the prime ingredient for 'empathy', a lack of listening leads to a shortage of 'empathizers' (people who demonstrate empathy).

ہمدردی اور احساس (Empathy) رکھنے والے افراد کو 'Empathizers' کہا جاتا ہے۔

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167📚General EnglishError Detection: Verb Tenses

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options:
His perspicacious (a)/ observations would have revealed (b)/ insights that had (c)/ previously gone unnoticed (d).

Explanation

In option (b), 'would have revealed' implies a counterfactual condition that did not happen, whereas the context requires indicative past tense 'revealed' (or 'have revealed').

حصہ (b) میں فعل کی ترتیب میں خرابی ہے، سادہ ماضی کا صیغہ آنا چاہیے تھا۔

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168📚General EnglishDirect and Indirect Speech

Identify the sentence that correctly changes the following direct speech into indirect speech.
He said, "I am going to the market now."

Explanation

In indirect speech: 'I' changes to 'he', present continuous 'am going' changes to past continuous 'was going', and time adverbial 'now' changes to 'then': "He said that he was going to the market then."

بالواسطہ گفتگو میں 'am going' تبدیل ہو کر 'was going' اور 'now' تبدیل ہو کر 'then' بن جاتا ہے۔

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169📚General EnglishModals: Past Obligation

Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:
We

\underline{\hspace{1.5cm}}

have locked the gate. Then the dog wouldn't have got out

Explanation

'Ought to have + past participle' expresses past moral obligation or duty that was not fulfilled: "We ought to have locked the gate. Then the dog wouldn't have got out."

ماضی کی اخلاقی ذمہ داری کے لیے 'ought to' کا استعمال درست ہے: "We ought to have locked the gate."

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170📚General EnglishPronoun Identification

Read the following paragraph carefully to answer the question:

"Last weekend, my friend and I decided to go for a hike in the mountains. We packed our bags with essentials and started early in the morning. As we were walking, we came across a beautiful stream. The sound of the water was very soothing. My friend said, "This is so peaceful!" I agreed and we sat by the stream for a while. Suddenly, we heard a rustling noise. I turned to my friend and asked, "Did you hear that?" They nodded and said, "Yes, I did. Let's go check it out." When we got up to continue our hike, we saw a steep hill ahead. My friend looked at me and said, "Climbing this hill will be a piece of cake!" I smiled and replied, "Let's do it!" We started climbing, and despite the incline, it was easier than we had expected. Before long, we reached the top and were rewarded with a stunning view of the valley below. "What a beautiful view," I said. We took a moment to appreciate the beauty around us before heading back down."

Question:
Which of the following pronouns is NOT used in the above paragraph?

Explanation

The paragraph uses pronouns 'We', 'I', 'They', 'our', and 'it', but does NOT contain the feminine singular pronoun 'She'.

مذکورہ پیراگراف میں 'She' کا ضمیر کہیں بھی استعمال نہیں ہوا ہے۔

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171📚General EnglishPunctuation & Quotation Marks

Select the sentence with the correct punctuation.

Explanation

Option A correctly follows standard nested quotation punctuation rules with a comma after the introductory reporting verb, capitalized quote, and double quotes inside single quotes with exclamation mark: Jaya said, 'They were getting really excited and were shouting "Come on!"'

آپشن A میں ڈبل کوٹیشن اور پنکچوایشن کے تمام اصول درست طریقے سے لاگو کیے گئے ہیں۔

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172📚General EnglishPrepositions

Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.
She stood

\underline{\hspace{1cm}}

the window, lost in thought

\underline{\hspace{1cm}}

her future plans for the upcoming year.

Explanation

'Stood by the window' (near/next to) and 'lost in thought about her future plans'. Correct prepositions: "by, about".

کھڑکی کے پاس کھڑے ہونے کے لیے 'by' اور سوچ کے لیے 'about' درست پریپوزیشنز ہیں (by, about)۔

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173📚General EnglishActive and Passive Voice

Change the following sentence from Active voice to Passive voice.
They are organizing a farewell party next week.

Explanation

Present continuous active (are organizing) changes to passive: 'is being organized by them': "A farewell party is being organized by them next week."

پریذنٹ کنٹینیوس کا پیسو وائس: "A farewell party is being organized by them next week."

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174📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KOperating System & Device Drivers

Consider the following statements about Device Driver.
1. It a hardware device that is attached to a computer.
2. It acts as a translator between the hardware device and operating systems or applications that use it.
3. It instructs computer on how to communicate with the device by translating the operating system's instructions into a language that a device can understand in order to perform the necessary task.
4. Examples of device driver: printer driver, display driver, USB driver, sound card driver, motherboard driver, ROM driver, etc.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because a device driver is a specialized software program, NOT a hardware device. Statements 2, 3, and 4 correctly describe its role as a translator/driver program and list valid driver types. Correct: 2, 3 and 4.

ڈیوائس ڈرائیور ایک سافٹ ویئر پروگرام ہے ہارڈ ویئر نہیں۔ اس لیے بیانات 2، 3 اور 4 درست ہیں۔

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175📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: CNC Machine Components

In modern CNC machine tools, the backlash has been eliminated by:

Explanation

Preloaded recirculating ball screws eliminate backlash and axial play between the screw and nut in CNC machines, ensuring high positioning accuracy and minimum friction.

جدید CNC مشینوں میں بیک لیش کو ختم کرنے کے لیے پری لوڈڈ بال اسکرو (Preloaded ball screws) استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔

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176📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: Demand Forecasting

In a static environment, forecasting future is:

Explanation

Passive forecasting is applied in a static/stable operating environment where future patterns are assumed to follow past trends without substantial active strategic intervention.

غیر متحرک اور مستحکم ماحول میں پیش گوئی کرنے کے عمل کو غیر فعال پیش گوئی (Passive forecasting) کہا جاتا ہے۔

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177📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringRAC: Compressors & Refrigerant Selection

Consider the following statement regarding refrigerants:
1. Refrigerant

\text{NH}_3

is used in reciprocating compressors
2. Refrigerant

\text{CO}_2

is used in reciprocating compressors
3. Refrigerant R-11 is used in centrifugal compressors
Which of this statement is/are correct?

Explanation

Ammonia (

\text{NH}_3

) and Carbon Dioxide (

\text{CO}_2

) operate with high pressures and moderate/low volume displacement suited for reciprocating compressors. R-11 is a low-pressure refrigerant with high specific volume suited for large-capacity centrifugal compressors. All 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

امونیا اور کاربن ڈائی آکسائیڈ ریسیپروکیٹنگ کمپریسرز کے لیے جبکہ R-11 سینٹری فیوگل کمپریسرز کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے (تمام 1، 2 اور 3 درست ہیں)۔

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178📚Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement

Choose the correct sentence.

Explanation

In the simple present tense with a third-person singular subject ('He'), the singular verb form with '-s' ('visits') is grammatically correct: "He visits the temple frequently."

تھرڈ پرسن سنگولر (He) کے ساتھ فعل کی 's' والی صورت 'visits' درست ہے۔

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179📚Basic EnglishVerb Tenses

Identify the tense used in the given sentence: "You are always working on your laptop."

Explanation

The construction 'are + verb-ing' ('are working') indicates the Present Continuous (Progressive) Tense.

'are + verb-ing' کی ساخت پریذنٹ کنٹینیوس ٹینس (Present continuous tense) کو ظاہر کرتی ہے۔

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180📚General Awareness & ScienceImportant National & International Days

Every year the International Yoga Day is celebrated on

Explanation

International Day of Yoga has been celebrated annually on 21 June since its inception by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015.

عالمی یوم یوگا ہر سال 21 جون کو منایا جاتا ہے۔

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181📚General Awareness & SciencePrinciples of First Aid (3 Ps)

Which of the following is/are aim of the First Aid

Explanation

The primary 3 Ps of First Aid are: 1. Preserve life, 2. Prevent deterioration / further injury, and 3. Promote recovery. All the options are core objectives.

ابتدائی طبی امداد کے تینوں بنیادی مقاصد ہیں: زندگی بچانا، مزید نقصان سے بچانا اور بحالی کو فروغ دینا (All of the above)۔

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182📚Basic EnglishNon-Verbal Communication & Gestures

Raising a hand to greet or say goodbye is an example of

Explanation

Raising a hand to wave, nod, or greet is a physical bodily gesture (kinesics) transmitting a message without spoken or written words, categorised as Non-Verbal Communication.

ہاتھ ہلا کر الوداع کہنا یا سلام کرنا غیر زبانی مواصلات (Non-Verbal Communication) کی مثال ہے۔

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183📚Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement

Find the error in part of sentence:

\text{Everyone misses a class from time}^{\text{Part A}}

\text{to time but no one skip an examination}^{\text{Part B}}

Explanation

Indefinite pronoun 'no one' is singular and requires the singular verb 'skips' instead of plural 'skip': "...but no one skips an examination." (Error is in Part B).

حصہ B میں غلطی ہے، 'no one' کے ساتھ واحد فعل 'skips' آنا چاہیے۔

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184📚Basic EnglishHomophones & Vocabulary Usage

Which of the following sentence is/are correct?
I. The robbers' seas the money in the bank.
II. Tina seas three geese in the pond.
III. The sailor travelled the deep seas during the voyage.

Explanation

In Sentence I, 'seas' is misused instead of 'seize'. In Sentence II, 'seas' is misused instead of 'sees'. Sentence III correctly uses the noun 'seas' (ocean bodies). Thus, only III is correct.

صرف جملہ III درست ہے جہاں لفظ 'seas' (سمندر) کا درست استعمال ہوا ہے۔

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185📚General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Health Ambassadors

Who has been named as the national ambassador for TB Mukt Bharat Campaign?

Explanation

Dr. Deepa Malik (Padma Shri, Khel Ratna, President of the Paralympic Committee of India) was appointed National Ambassador for the Ni-Kshay Mitra (TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan) initiative.

ڈاکٹر دیپا ملک کو ٹی بی مکت بھارت مہم کا قومی سفیر (National Ambassador) نامزد کیا گیا ہے۔

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186📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Scientific Instruments

Consider the following statement(s) is/are related to the device of Ammeter:
I: It is a measuring device used to measure the current in a circuit.
II: It is a measuring device used to measure the altitude of an object above a fixed level.
Which of following statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: An Ammeter is an electrical instrument connected in series to measure electric current in Amperes. Statement II describes an Altimeter, not an ammeter. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

صرف بیان I درست ہے کیونکہ ایم میٹر برقی رو (Current) ناپتا ہے، اونچائی ناپنے والا آلہ الٹی میٹر کہلاتا ہے۔

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187📚Basic ReasoningNon-Verbal Reasoning: Odd Figure Out

In the given four figures, three of them are similar in some respect, while one is different. Select the figure which is different.

Explanation

In non-verbal classification reasoning, Figure D exhibits a non-symmetric spatial arrangement or differing number of line intersections compared to the other three figures.

نان وربل ریزننگ میں تصویر D دیگر تصاویر سے مختلف اور غیر متناسب ہے۔

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188📚Basic EnglishModals of Obligation

Rita _____ go to market to buy the grocery.

Explanation

The semi-modal 'has to' correctly expresses necessity/obligation in the third person singular present tense: "Rita has to go to market to buy the grocery."

ضرورت ظاہر کرنے کے لیے 'has to' درست ہے: "Rita has to go to market..."

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189📚Basic EnglishClauses (Main and Subordinate Clauses)

Pick out the clause in the following sentence:
Neha played when evening came.

Explanation

In the complex sentence, 'when evening came' is a subordinate adverbial clause of time containing subordinating conjunction 'when', subject 'evening', and predicate verb 'came'. ('Neha played' is the main clause).

'When evening came' وقت کو ظاہر کرنے والا ماتحت کلاز (Subordinate clause of time) ہے۔

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190📚Basic EnglishArticles: Definite Article with Nationalities

_____ Indians are very good in maths.

Explanation

Definite article 'The' is used before a plural nationality or demographic noun ('The Indians') to designate the people of that nationality as a whole.

قومی شناخت کے اجتماعی نام کے ساتھ 'The' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے: "The Indians are very good..."

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191📚Basic EnglishTypes of Communication: Interpersonal Verbal

The communication between two persons through letters is an instance of

Explanation

Communication between two distinct individuals is Interpersonal, and because written language uses words (verbal code), letter writing is classified as Interpersonal Verbal Communication.

خطوط کے ذریعے دو افراد کے درمیان رابطہ باہمی زبانی مواصلات (Interpersonal Verbal Communication) کی مثال ہے۔

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192📚General Awareness & SciencePersonal Protective Equipment (PPE) in Welding

In case of arc welding, one should protect his eyes using

Explanation

Electric arc welding emits intense ultraviolet (UV) and infrared (IR) radiation that can cause photokeratitis ('arc eye'). Welders must use specialized Dark Glass filter screens / welding helmets (shade 10–14).

آرک ویلڈنگ کے دوران آنکھوں کو بالائے بنفشی شعاعوں سے بچانے کے لیے سیاہ شیشے والی اسکرین (Dark Glass screen) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔

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193📚Basic EnglishTenses: Past Perfect

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word:
When we got home last night, we found that the guest ________

Explanation

Past perfect tense ('had arrived') is required for an action completed in the past before another past event ('when we got home last night').

ماضی میں کسی دوسرے واقعے سے پہلے مکمل ہونے والے عمل کے لیے پاسٹ پرفیکٹ 'had arrived' درست ہے۔

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194📚Basic EnglishConditional Sentences & Subjunctive Mood

Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb:
If she ________ a minister, she would bring changes.

Explanation

In hypothetical/unreal second conditional clauses, the subjunctive mood verb 'were' is grammatically used with all subjects: "If she were a minister...".

فرضی شرطیہ جملے (Subjunctive conditional) میں واحد فائل کے ساتھ بھی 'were' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

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195📚Basic EnglishPluralization of Compound Nouns

Spot an error in the given sentence:
Sister-in-laws (A) / are (B) / a nuisance. (C) / No error (D)

Explanation

The plural form of compound noun 'sister-in-law' is 'sisters-in-law' (the principal root noun 'sister' takes the plural suffix '-s', not the prepositional suffix). Error is in Part A.

مرکب اسم کی جمع 'sisters-in-law' ہوتی ہے، اس لیے حصہ A میں غلطی ہے۔

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196📚Basic EnglishPhrasal Verbs & Idiomatic Usage

Select the correct sentence

Explanation

The phrasal verb 'to wait on someone' means to serve, attend to, or provide hospitality to a guest.

مہمان کی خدمت کرنے کے لیے فریز 'wait on the guest' درست ہے۔

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197📚Basic EnglishTenses: Present Perfect Continuous

Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb:
Engineers ________ the flyover for several months.

Explanation

Present perfect continuous tense with plural auxiliary ('have been building') is required to denote an ongoing action that started in the past and continued over a period with 'for several months'.

جمع فائل (Engineers) اور جاری مدت کے ساتھ 'have been building' درست ہے۔

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198📚Basic EnglishThird Conditional Structures

Spot an error in the given sentence:
They would have been (A)/ here by now(B)/ if they caught(C)/ the early bus.(D)

Explanation

In third conditional sentences expressing unfulfilled past conditions ('would have been'), the if-clause must use past perfect tense 'if they had caught' instead of simple past 'if they caught'. Error is in Part C.

تھرڈ کنڈیشنل کے اصول کے تحت 'if they caught' کی جگہ 'if they had caught' آنا چاہیے۔

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199📚Basic EnglishConfusing Words: Affect vs Effect

Fill in the blank with the correct form of the word:
Corruption has tremendous ________ on our political system.

Explanation

'Effect' is a noun meaning a change or result consequence: "has tremendous effect on our political system." ('Affect' is primarily a verb).

اسم کے طور پر نتیجہ ظاہر کرنے کے لیے 'effect' درست لفظ ہے۔

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200📚Basic EnglishFixed Prepositions: Approve of

Choose the right word for the fill in the blank:
I don't approve ________ your language, young lady.

Explanation

The transitive verb 'approve' takes the fixed preposition 'of': "I don't approve of your language...".

فعل 'approve' کے ساتھ پریپوزیشن 'of' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

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201📚Basic EnglishSubjunctive Mood Wishes

Fill in the blank with correct verb form:
I wish, I ________ a king.

Explanation

Sentences expressing an unreal or hypothetical wish ('I wish...') require the past subjunctive verb form 'were': "I wish, I were a king."

غیر حقیقی خواہش کے اظہار کے لیے سب جنکٹیو فعل 'were' استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

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202📚Basic EnglishParts of Speech: Non-Finite Verbs

Choose the correct part of speech for the bold text in: "Reshma is wealthy enough to spend \USD 300 on her skin-care routine."

Explanation

'To spend' is a non-finite verb form consisting of 'to + base verb', known as the Infinitive verb.

'To spend' انفینیٹو فعل (Infinitive verb) کی مثال ہے۔

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203📚Basic EnglishArticles

Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options:
I went to ______ hometown last year and remained there for ______ week.

Explanation

In idiomatic English, 'went to hometown' functions without an article when referring to one's own home territory, followed by indefinite singular time duration 'for a week'.

'went to hometown' اور مدت کے لیے 'for a week' درست آرٹیکل کا استعمال ہے۔

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204📚Basic EnglishSentence Correction & Verb Tenses

Choose the correct option:
He completed his book yesterday.

Explanation

The simple past tense ('completed') is grammatically correct with a specific past time adverbial ('yesterday'). No substitution is required.

ماضی کے مخصوص وقت (yesterday) کے ساتھ پاسٹ انڈیفینٹ 'completed' بالکل درست ہے۔

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205📚Basic EnglishModal Auxiliaries: Obligation & Necessity

Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:
On hearing the alarm bell, the students ______ leave their rooms immediately.

Explanation

Modal auxiliary 'must' is used to express strong obligation, imperative necessity, and emergency safety commands: "...students must leave their rooms immediately."

ہنگامی صورتحال میں فوری اور لازمی عمل کے لیے موڈل 'must' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

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206📚Basic EnglishProverbs & Modals

Do not put off till tomorrow. What you ______ do today.

Explanation

The classic English proverb is: "Do not put off till tomorrow what you can do today" (using modal 'can' denoting present ability).

مشہور کہاوت کے مطابق: "Do not put off till tomorrow what you can do today."

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207📚Basic EnglishIdioms & Phrases

Pick out the correct meaning of the given idiom/Phrase:
To brow beat

Explanation

'To browbeat' means to intimidate, bully, or cow someone with stern words or overbearing looks.

'To browbeat' کا مطلب کسی کو دھمکانا، ڈرانا یا دباؤ ڈالنا (To intimidate or bully someone) ہے۔

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208📚Basic EnglishFuture Perfect Tense & Time Clauses

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence:
The principal (a)/will have started (b)/before I (c)/ could reach there (d).

Explanation

In future perfect time clauses introduced by 'before', the present tense ('before I reach there') is used, not past modal 'could reach'. Error is in Part D.

فیوچر پرفیکٹ کے ٹائم کلاز میں 'could reach' کی جگہ پریذنٹ ٹینس 'reach' آنا چاہیے (حصہ D میں غلطی ہے)۔

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209📚General Awareness & ScienceHemis National Park

Consider the following statements about the Hemis National Park:
1. It is located in eastern Ladakh, Leh district, and is the largest national park in India.
2. Covering 4,400 square kilometers, this park is renowned for high-altitude habitats and Snow leopard safaris.
3. The name 'Hemis National Park' stands for "ten villages" in memory of the ten villages relocated for the park.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are accurate. Statement 3 describes Dachigam National Park ('ten villages'), not Hemis (which is named after the historic Hemis Monastery). Thus, only 1 and 2 are correct.

صرف بیانات 1 اور 2 درست ہیں۔ 'دس گاؤں' کا تعلق داچی گام سے ہے نہ کہ ہیمس نیشنل پارک سے۔

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210📚General Awareness & ScienceScientific Names of Himalayan Flora

Consider the following pairs of trees and their scientific names:
1. Chinar - Platanus orientalis
2. Deodar - Cedrus deodara
3. Silver Fir - Abies alba
4. Pine - Pinus roxburghii
Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Chinar is Platanus orientalis (1) and European Silver Fir is Abies alba (3). Both 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

چنار کا سائنسی نام Platanus orientalis اور سلور فر کا Abies alba درست جوڑے ہیں۔

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211📚Basic ReasoningNon-Verbal Classification: Odd Figure Out

Which figure is different from other figures in non-verbal classification?

Explanation

In Figures 1, 2, and 3, geometric shapes interlock or overlap each other. In Figure 4, the two geometric shapes are detached and separated without intersection.

تصویر 4 میں اشکال آپس میں جڑی یا اوورلیپ نہیں ہیں، اس لیے یہ مختلف ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

212📚General Awareness & ScienceRenewable & Conventional Energy Sources

Why is wind energy considered a conventional source of energy?

Explanation

Harnessing wind power for traditional windmills, water pumping, and sailing has been in human practical use since antiquity.

ہوا کی توانائی قدیم زمانے سے روایتی طور پر استعمال ہوتی رہی ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

213📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics & Astronomy: Solar Retinopathy

It is dangerous to observe solar eclipse with naked eyes because

Explanation

Intense ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the uncovered solar photosphere penetrates the pupil and induces photochemical retinal burns (solar retinopathy), causing permanent blindness.

سورج سے آنے والی بالائے بنفشی شعاعیں (UV radiations) آنکھ کے پردہ بصارت (Retina) کو جلا دیتی ہیں۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

214📚General Awareness & ScienceRabi Cropping Season

Consider the following statements:
1. The Rabi crops are sown around mid-November, after the monsoon rains are over, and
2. Harvesting begins in April/May.
Which of the above statement is/are NOT true?

Explanation

Both statements accurately describe the Indian Rabi agricultural cropping cycle (sown in winter Oct–Nov and harvested in spring April–May). Therefore, None of the statements is untrue.

دونوں بیانات درست ہیں، لہذا کوئی بھی بیان غلط نہیں ہے (None)۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

215📚General Awareness & ScienceFeatures of Democracy

Which of the following is NOT a feature of a democratic government?

Explanation

Democracy is founded on decentralization, pluralism, separation of powers, and civic participation. Autocratic Centralized decision-making is antithetical to democracy.

مرکوز فیصلہ سازی (Centralized decision-making) جمہوری حکومت کی خصوصیت نہیں ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

216📚General Awareness & ScienceElectoral Systems: FPTP

In the First Past the Post System, that candidate is declared winner who:

Explanation

Under the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP / Simple Plurality) electoral system used in Lok Sabha elections, the candidate securing more votes than any other individual rival in that single constituency is declared elected.

فرسٹ پاسٹ دی پوسٹ سسٹم میں وہ امیدوار جیتتا ہے جو حلقے میں دیگر تمام امیدواروں سے زیادہ ووٹ حاصل کرے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

217📚General Awareness & ScienceRecognition of State Political Parties

Consider the following statements:
1. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and
2. Wins at least 5 seats is recognised as a state party.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Under Election Commission of India rules, a party is recognized as a State Party if it secures

\ge 6\%

of valid votes and wins at least 2 Assembly seats (not 5 seats). Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.

الیکشن کمیشن کے قوانین کے مطابق کم از کم 6 فیصد ووٹ اور 2 سیٹیں درکار ہوتی ہیں، لہذا صرف بیان 1 درست ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

218📚General Awareness & ScienceFederalism in India

Consider the following statements:
1. Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
2. In federalism, there is usually more than one level of government for the entire country.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements accurately define the constitutional system of Federalism: division of powers between National and State governments across multiple operational tiers.

وفاقیت (Federalism) کے دونوں بیانات 1 اور 2 بالکل درست ہیں۔

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219📚Basic EnglishGrammar: Phrases and Clauses

______ are a group of words that together act as a grammatical unit.

Explanation

A 'Phrase' is a group of two or more words functioning as a meaningful syntactic grammatical unit within a clause or sentence without containing both a subject and finite verb.

الفاظ کا وہ مجموعہ جو ایک گرائمیکل یونٹ کے طور پر کام کرے 'فریز' (Phrase) کہلاتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

220📚Basic EnglishBarriers to Effective Communication

Consider the following statements:
1. Text messages are more effective than face to face communication.
2. Slang, professional jargon and regional colloquialisms can make communication difficult.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is false (face-to-face communication allows rich non-verbal cues and immediate feedback). Statement 2 is true (jargon creates semantic noise). Thus, B but not A is correct.

صرف بیان 2 درست ہے کہ غیر مانوس اصطلاحات اور سلینگ گفتگو میں رکاوٹ بنتے ہیں۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

221📚General English & ComprehensionSentence Completion & Conjunctions

Managers set targets and decide ______ their organization can achieve them.

Explanation

The conjunction/adverb 'how' logically denotes the method and strategy to accomplish goals: "Managers set targets and decide how their organization can achieve them."

طریقہ کار ظاہر کرنے کے لیے لفظ 'how' (کس طرح) درست ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

222📚General English & ComprehensionPhrasal Verbs

What are you ______ in the kitchen cupboard?

Explanation

The phrasal verb 'looking for' means searching to find something: "What are you looking for in the kitchen cupboard?"

تلاش کرنے کے لیے فریز 'looking for' درست ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

223📚General English & ComprehensionEnglish Proverbs

"Man proposes, ______ disposes". Fill in the blank space in this saying with any one of the following words -

Explanation

The timeless proverb is: "Man proposes, God disposes" (meaning human plans are subject to divine will).

مشہور کہاوت ہے: "Man proposes, God disposes" (انسان سوچتا ہے اور خدا فیصلہ کرتا ہے)۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

224📚General English & ComprehensionIrregular Verbs & Tenses

She ______ the best apples from the basket.

Explanation

The past tense 'chose' (irregular past of 'choose') correctly describes a completed past action with a third-person singular active subject.

ماضی کے سادہ جملے میں فعل کی دوسری صورت 'chose' درست ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

225📚General English & ComprehensionReflexive Pronouns

We ______ at the party

Explanation

The transitive verb 'enjoy' requires a reflexive pronoun when no direct object is present, and the plural reflexive for 'we' is 'ourselves': "We enjoyed ourselves at the party."

'We' کے ساتھ درست ریفلیکسو ضمیر 'ourselves' آئے گا: "We enjoyed ourselves...".

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

226📚General English & ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement & Prepositions

Which one is the correct sentence?

Explanation

'Mumps' is a singular disease name requiring singular verb 'is', and preposition 'among' is used for collective plural groups (more than two children): "Mumps is common among children."

'Mumps' بیماری کا واحد اسم ہے (is) اور بچوں کے مجموعہ کے لیے 'among' آتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

227📚General English & ComprehensionIndirect & Embedded Questions

The correct form of the sentence "Did they not know who was he and where did he come from?" will be -

Explanation

Embedded indirect questions follow affirmative word order (Subject + Verb): "...who he was and where he came from?"

ماتحت بالواسطہ سوالیہ جملوں میں فاعل فعل سے پہلے آتا ہے: "who he was and where he came from".

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

228📚General English & ComprehensionHomophones & Legal Terminology

Choose the right word to fill in the blank in the sentence:
"The President gave ______ to the bill."

Explanation

'Assent' means official agreement or formal presidential approval to legislation.

قانونی بل کی باضابطہ توثیق و منظوری کے لیے 'Assent' استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

229📚General English & ComprehensionPhrasal Verbs

"The wise man advised us not to hate the poor". Replace the word 'hate' in the sentence with one of the following expressions:

Explanation

The phrasal verb 'to look down upon' means to regard with contempt, disdain, or hate.

'Hate' (حقارت سے دیکھنا) کا درست متبادل فریز 'Look down upon' ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

230📚General English & ComprehensionSubjunctive Conjunctions: Lest...should

Fill in the blank in the sentence "He studied hard lest he ______ fail" with an appropriate word:

Explanation

The conjunction 'lest' (meaning 'for fear that') is grammatically followed by the auxiliary verb 'should': "...lest he should fail."

لفظ 'lest' کے ساتھ ہمیشہ موڈل 'should' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

231📚General English & ComprehensionAdverbs of Degree

"He hardly tried for good luck." In this sentence, the word 'hardly' means -

Explanation

'Hardly' is a negative adverb of degree meaning scarcely or 'almost not'.

'Hardly' کا مطلب نہ ہونے کے برابر یعنی 'Almost not' ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

232📚General English & ComprehensionProverbs

"Where there is a ______ there is a way." Fill in the blank space in this sentence with any one of the following words -

Explanation

The famous proverb is: "Where there is a will there is a way" (meaning determination leads to success).

مشہور کہاوت ہے: "Where there is a will there is a way" (جہاں چاہ وہاں راہ)۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

233📚General English & ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement

"Yesterday Rahim as well as Karim ______ present in the meeting." Fill in the blank in this sentence with one of the following -

Explanation

When two subjects are connected by 'as well as', the verb agrees in number and person with the first subject ('Rahim', singular past): "was present in the meeting."

'as well as' کے ساتھ فعل پہلے فاعل (Rahim) کے مطابق واحد یعنی 'was' آئے گا۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

234📚General English & ComprehensionNoun Clauses as Subject

That he would treat me with this kind of misbehaviour was known to me. This sentence is -

Explanation

The sentence is grammatically and syntactically Fully Correct (the noun clause 'That he would treat me with this kind of misbehaviour' serves cleanly as the subject of the passive verb 'was known').

یہ جملہ گرائمر کے اعتبار سے مکمل طور پر درست (Fully correct) ہے۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

235📚General Intelligence & ReasoningStatement and Conclusions

Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.
Conclusions:
1. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future.
2. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life.

Explanation

Conclusion 2 follows directly from the statement (growing population + shrinking resources makes maintaining living standards difficult). Conclusion 1 contradicts the premise. Only (2) follows.

صرف نتیجہ (2) درست ہے کہ حکومتوں کے لیے معیار زندگی برقرار رکھنا مشکل ہوگا۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

236📚General Intelligence & ReasoningStatement and Conclusions / Course of Action

Statements: Prime age school-going children in urban India have now become avid as well as more regular viewers of television, even in households without a TV. As a result there has been an alarming decline in the extent of readership of newspapers.
Conclusions:
1. Method of increasing the readership of newspapers should be devised.
2. A team of experts should be sent to other countries to study the impact of TV. on the readership of newspapers.

Explanation

Since there is an alarming decline in newspaper readership among children, remedial measures/methods to revive reading habits (Conclusion 1) logically follow. Conclusion 2 is an extraneous course of action. Only (1) follows.

صرف نتیجہ (1) منطقی ہے کہ اخبار بینی بڑھانے کے اقدامات کیے جانے چاہئیں۔

2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj

237📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KTemple Performing Arts of Kerala

Consider the following statements:
1. Chakiarkoothu dance's theater form is known as Koothambalam.
2. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Chakyar Koothu is a traditional performing temple art form of Kerala staged inside specialized temple theatres called Koothambalams (Statement 1 is correct), accompanied rhythmically by the large copper drum called Mizhavu (Statement 2 is correct). Both 1 and 2 are correct.

چکیار کوتھو رقص کے دونوں بیانات (کوتمبلم تھیٹر اور مزھاوو ساز) بالکل درست ہیں۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

238📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KParasitology: Malaria & WHO Vaccines

Consider the following statements:
1. Malaria is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease caused by Protozoa.
2. Malaria spreads through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites.
3. The R21/Matrix-M vaccine became the second malaria vaccine to achieve WHO prequalification.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct: Malaria is caused by protozoan Plasmodium parasites (1), transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes (2), and the Oxford-developed R21/Matrix-M vaccine received WHO prequalification in 2023 (3).

ملیریا کے متعلق تینوں بیانات (1، 2 اور 3) درست ہیں۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

239📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Environmental Agreements

Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Kyoto Protocol
2. Montreal Protocol
3. Vienna Convention
4. Basel Convention
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Chronology of international environmental treaties: 1. Vienna Convention for Protection of Ozone Layer (1985, 3) → 2. Montreal Protocol on Ozone Depleting Substances (1987, 2) → 3. Basel Convention on Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes (1989, 4) → 4. Kyoto Protocol on Greenhouse Gases (1997, 1)

\implies 3, 2, 4, 1

ماحولیاتی معاہدوں کی تاریخی ترتیب: ویانا کنونشن (1985) → مانٹریال پروٹوکول (1987) → باسل کنونشن (1989) → کیوٹو پروٹوکول (1997) یعنی 3, 2, 4, 1۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

240📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEthnic Demographics of North-East India

Consider the following statements:
1. Thadou is a group of people inhabiting Assam.
2. Boro (Bodo) is a group of people inhabiting Manipur.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements have locations reversed: Thadou people are indigenous to Manipur (and parts of Mizoram/Assam hills), whereas the Boro (Bodo) people are indigenous to the Brahmaputra Valley of Assam. Hence, Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

تھادو قبیلہ بنیادی طور پر منی پور میں اور بوڈو قبیلہ آسام میں آباد ہے، لہذا دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں (Neither 1 nor 2)۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

241📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHoly Rivers of Jammu: Devika River

Consider the following statements:
1. Devika river originates in Himachal Pradesh.
2. It holds religious significance as it is revered as the sister of river Ganga.
3. It flows towards western Punjab where it merges with the Ravi River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is false: The holy Devika River originates at Sudh Mahadev in the Udhampur district of Jammu and Kashmir (not HP). Statements 2 and 3 are historically and geographically correct (revered in Nilamata Purana as the elder sister of Ganga and merges into the Ravi system). Thus, 2 and 3 only are correct.

دیویکا ندی اودھمپور (جموں و کشمیر) سے نکلتی ہے (نہ کہ ایچ پی سے) اور اسے گنگا کی بہن مانا جاتا ہے، لہذا صرف بیانات 2 اور 3 درست ہیں۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

242📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSundarbans Mangrove Ecosystem

Consider the following statements:
1. The Sundarbans are mangrove forest, on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal.
2. The Sundarban National Park is listed under the World Heritage Marine Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements are correct: The Sundarbans form the world's largest contiguous coastal mangrove forest across the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta (1), and Sundarban National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site recognized under the Marine World Heritage Programme (2).

سندر بن ڈیلٹا اور مینگروو جنگلات کے دونوں بیانات (1 اور 2) بالکل درست ہیں۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

243📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KExercise Sea Dragon

Consider the following statements:
1. Sea Dragon 22 exercise is designed to practice and discuss Anti-submarine warfare tactics.
2. It is a bilateral annual exercise between India and the US.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Exercise Sea Dragon is a premier multinational Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) exercise held at Andersen Air Force Base, Guam. Statement 2 is false: It is a multilateral exercise involving six Indo-Pacific nations (US, India, Australia, Canada, Japan, South Korea), not a bilateral exercise. Thus, 1 only is correct.

سی ڈریگن مشق آبدوز شکن (Anti-submarine) حکمت عملی پر مبنی کثیر ملکی مشق ہے (صرف بیان 1 درست ہے)۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

244📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KP20 Parliamentary Forum

Consider the following statements:
1. P20 is a congregation of Presidents of G20 nations.
2. The P20 group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is false: P20 is the Parliamentary Speakers' Summit (congregation of Speakers/Presiding Officers of Parliaments, not heads of state). Statement 2 is true: The P20 was inaugurated in 2010 under Canada's G20 presidency. Thus, 2 only is correct.

P20 پارلیمانی اسپیکروں کی کانفرنس ہے (نہ کہ صدور کی) جس کا آغاز کینیڈا کی صدارت میں 2010 میں ہوا، لہذا صرف بیان 2 درست ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

245📚General EnglishGeographical Coordinates & Mountain Ranges

Consider the following statements:
1. Jammu and Kashmir covers an area of 101387 Sq. Kms and lies between Latitude 28°17' and 35°05' North.
2. The higher regions are covered by Pir Panjal, Karakoram, and inner Himalayan ranges of mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect (J&K lies between 32°17' N and 37°05' N latitude, not 28°17'). Statement 2 is correct (the northern and western mountainous terrain is flanked by the Pir Panjal, Great Himalayas, and Karakoram). Thus, 2 only is correct.

جموں و کشمیر 32°17' سے 37°05' شمالی عرض البلد کے درمیان واقع ہے، لہذا صرف بیان 2 درست ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

246📚General EnglishKashmiri Poets: Mahjoor and Habba Khatoon

Consider the following statements:
1. Mahjoor (Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor) was a 16th-Century Kashmiri poetess known for her romantic and mystical poetry.
2. Habba Khatoon was a prominent 20th Century Kashmiri poet known for his nationalist and romantic poetry of mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

Explanation

Both statements have identities and centuries swapped: Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor was a revolutionary 20th-century male poet ('Shair-e-Kashmir'), while Habba Khatoon ('Nightingale of Kashmir') was a 16th-century poetess and queen of Yousuf Shah Chak. Thus, Both 1 and 2 are NOT correct.

دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں کیونکہ مہجور 20ویں صدی کے قومی شاعر تھے اور حبہ خاتون 16ویں صدی کی ملکہ اور شاعرہ تھیں (Both 1 and 2 are NOT correct)۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

247📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsDirect and Indirect Speech: Sequence of Tenses

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence:
My father assured me that he will buy a bike for me.

Explanation

Under sequence of tenses in reported speech, when the reporting verb is in the past tense ('assured'), the future auxiliary 'will' changes to past conditional 'would': "...that he would buy a bike for me."

ماضی کے رپورٹنگ ورب 'assured' کے ساتھ 'will' تبدیل ہو کر 'would' ہو جائے گا: "he would buy".

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

248📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSubject-Verb Agreement Errors

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options:
She taste (a)/ the sauce to (b)/ find out whether (c)/ it is tasteful or not (d).

Explanation

Subject-verb agreement error in Part A: Third-person singular subject 'She' requires singular present verb 'tastes' (or past tense 'tasted'), not bare plural form 'taste'.

حصہ A میں غلطی ہے: واحد فاعل 'She' کے ساتھ 'tastes' یا 'tasted' آنا چاہیے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

249📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsIndirect to Direct Speech

Select the most appropriate option to change the sentence from indirect speech to direct speech:
Surender asked Prashant whether he had watched the cricket match on television the previous night.

Explanation

In indirect-to-direct conversion, past perfect 'had watched' and time adverb 'the previous night' convert back to past simple interrogative 'Did you watch...' and 'last night': Surender said to Prashant, "Did you watch the cricket match on television last night?"

ان ڈائریکٹ سے ڈائریکٹ میں درست صورت: Surender said to Prashant, "Did you watch the cricket match on television last night?"

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

250📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsModal Auxiliaries: Moral Duty & Obligation

Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:
All company employees _____ abide by the rules and regulations provided.

Explanation

The modal 'ought to' is used to express moral duty, mandatory workplace obligation, and correctness of conduct: "All company employees ought to abide by the rules..."

اخلاقی اور قانونی پابندی ظاہر کرنے کے لیے موڈل 'ought to' درست ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

251📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsModal Auxiliaries: Past Ability

Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:
I _____ run a mile in 10 minutes, when I was younger.

Explanation

The modal auxiliary 'could' is used to denote past physical ability or capacity in completed past time: "I could run a mile in 10 minutes, when I was younger."

ماضی کی جسمانی صلاحیت ظاہر کرنے کے لیے 'could' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

252📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsArticles: Indefinite and Definite

Fill in the blanks using suitable articles:
_____ recent survey indicates that _____ number of drug addicts is growing day by day.

Explanation

Indefinite singular noun phrase 'A recent survey' introduces a non-specific study, followed by the fixed phrase 'the number of': "A recent survey indicates that the number of drug addicts..."

پہلے خالی جگہ میں 'A' اور دوسرے میں 'the number of' کے اصول سے 'the' آئے گا۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

253📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsClauses: Subordinate Clauses

Pick out the subordinate clause in the below sentence:
If you work on Sunday, I will look after the children.

Explanation

'If you work on Sunday' is the dependent conditional adverbial subordinate clause introduced by subordinating conjunction 'If'.

'If you work on Sunday' شرطیہ ماتحت کلاز (Subordinate clause) ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

254📚General Intelligence & ReasoningSentence Completion: Vocabulary in Context

Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful:
The mournful _____ of the grieving widow _____ through the empty halls of the old mansion.

Explanation

Singular noun 'wail' (mournful cry of sorrow) fits with singular verb 'echoed': "The mournful wail of the grieving widow echoed through the empty halls..."

درست اور بامعنی جوڑا 'wail, echoed' ہے۔

2024JKSSBRevenue Department

255📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlMotor Insurance Policy Terms and Third-Party Liabilities

Consider the following statements regarding motor insurance:
Statement-1: Motor insurance does not provide compensation if the driver does not possess a valid driving licence.
Statement-2: Third-party motor insurance covers a third person who has been injured in an accident involving the vehicle.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Both statements are correct insurance principles: Driving without a valid driving licence breaches policy terms and invalidates own-damage claims (Statement 1), and Third-party insurance specifically indemnifies bodily injury/loss to third parties (Statement 2).

انشورنس کے دونوں بیانات (1 اور 2) قانوناً بالکل درست ہیں۔

2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments

256📚General EnglishPhrasal Verbs

Pick the right meaning of the given phrase:
Long for

Explanation

'To long for' is a phrasal verb meaning to have an intense yearning, strong craving, or deep desire for something.

'Long for' کا مطلب شدید خواہش یا آرزو کرنا (Desire) ہے۔

2024JKSSBFinance Department

257📚General EnglishPassive to Active Voice

Choose the correct active voice:
Our task had been completed before sunset.

Explanation

Past perfect passive ('had been completed') shifts back to past perfect active: "We had completed our task before sunset."

پاسٹ پرفیکٹ ایکٹو وائس: "We had completed our task before sunset."

2024JKSSBFinance Department

258📚General EnglishInterrogative Passive Voice

Choose the correct passive voice:
Who asked you to draft the letter?

Explanation

'Who' in interrogative active converts to 'By whom' followed by interrogative auxiliary inversion ('were you asked'): "By whom were you asked to draft this letter?"

سوالیہ جملے کا درست پیسیو: "By whom were you asked to draft this letter?"

2024JKSSBFinance Department

259📚General EnglishPrepositions

He will impart no information ________ anyone.

Explanation

The verb 'impart' (to communicate or bestow information) takes the preposition 'to': "impart information to anyone."

لفظ 'impart' کے ساتھ پریپوزیشن 'to' آتی ہے۔

2024JKSSBFinance Department

260📚General EnglishTenses: Present Continuous

The appearance of the city ________ day by day.

Explanation

Gradual ongoing changes taking place in the present ('day by day') require the present continuous tense: "is changing".

بتدریج جاری عمل کے لیے پریذنٹ کنٹینیوس 'is changing' درست ہے۔

2024JKSSBFinance Department

261📚General EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement

Making pies and cakes ________ Mrs. Reddy's specialty.

Explanation

A compound gerund phrase acting as a single culinary subject ('Making pies and cakes') takes the singular linking verb 'is'.

واحد سرگرمی کے طور پر جیرنڈ فریز کے ساتھ فعل 'is' آئے گا۔

2024JKSSBFinance Department

262📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLaterite Soils Characteristics

Consider the following statements regarding Laterite soils of India:
a. Laterite soils of India are generally red in colour.
b. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
c. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
d. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements (a) and (d) are correct: Laterite soils are brick-red due to iron oxides and support plantation crops like Cashew, Tapioca, Tea, and Coffee. Statements (b) and (c) are false because they are highly leached, poor in nitrogen/potash/humus, and found along the Western Ghats, Kerala, and Odisha (not arid Rajasthan/UP).

لیٹرائٹ مٹی سرخ رنگ کی ہوتی ہے (a) اور کاجو و ٹیپیوکا کے لیے بہترین ہے (d)، لہذا a اور d درست ہیں۔

2024JKSSBSocial Welfare Department

263📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KModal Auxiliaries

In which sentence is the modal verb used to express necessity/obligation?

Explanation

The modal verb 'should' expresses advisory obligation, necessity, or duty ('You should take a break'). 'Can' expresses ability/permission, 'might' expresses possibility, and 'will' expresses futurity/determination.

'You should take a break' میں موڈل ورب 'should' ضرورت اور نصیحت کو ظاہر کرتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBSocial Welfare Department

264📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSubject-Verb Agreement and Tenses

I will definitely help John; he ______ it.

Explanation

The subject 'he' is third-person singular and the state of deserving help is a present factual truth, requiring the simple present singular verb 'deserves'.

واحد غائب (He) کے ساتھ سادہ حال کا فعل 'deserves' آئے گا۔

2024JKSSBSocial Welfare Department

265📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KActive to Passive Voice

Convert into passive voice: "Is Sarah writing the novel?"

Explanation

Present continuous interrogative active (Is + Subject +

V\text{-ing}

+ Object?) converts to: Is + Object + being +

V_3

+ by Subject?

\implies

"Is the novel being written by Sarah?"

پریذنٹ کنٹینیوس کا سوالیہ پیسیو: "Is the novel being written by Sarah?"

2024JKSSBSocial Welfare Department

266📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Georg Simmel and Formal Sociology

Which German sociologist's social theory focused on forms of social interaction and has been termed 'Formal Sociology'?

Explanation

Georg Simmel is the founder of 'Formal Sociology' (Formale Soziologie), which isolates and analyzes the pure forms and patterns of human association (sociability, conflict, superordination) distinct from their content.

جرمن ماہر عمرانیات جارج سیمل (Georg Simmel) کو فارمل سوشیالوجی کا بانی کہا جاتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBSocial Welfare Department

267📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Panic Disorder Criteria

Which psychological disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by persistent apprehension and worry about experiencing further attacks?

Explanation

Panic Disorder is characterized by sudden surges of intense fear/discomfort (panic attacks) accompanied by persistent anticipatory anxiety about having additional attacks.

اچانک خوف کے دورے پڑنا اور مزید دوروں کا مستقل دھڑکا رہنا پینک ڈس آرڈر (Panic disorder) کہلاتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBSocial Welfare Department

268📚General EnglishSpotting Errors: Verb Tenses

Find out the error part in the sentence:
"His perspicacious (a) / observations would have revealed (b) / insights that had (c) / previously gone unnoticed (d)."

Explanation

Part (b) contains the error: In a simple declarative factual statement about past capability or outcome, "revealed" or "had revealed" should be used instead of the conditional perfect "would have revealed".

حصہ (b) میں غیر ضروری کنڈیشنل پرفیکٹ کی بجائے سادہ فعل 'revealed' یا 'had revealed' ہونا چاہیے تھا۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

269📚General EnglishDirect and Indirect Speech

Convert into indirect speech: He said, "I am going to the market now."

Explanation

Present continuous ('am going') shifts to past continuous ('was going'), 'I' changes to 'he', and 'now' changes to 'then': "He said that he was going to the market then."

ان ڈائریکٹ اسپیچ میں 'am going' → 'was going' اور 'now' → 'then' بنتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

270📚General EnglishClauses: Independent vs Dependent

In the sentence: "It was my sister's birthday yesterday; however, she did not want to celebrate.", the independent clause is

Explanation

Both clauses ("It was my sister's birthday yesterday" and "she did not want to celebrate") can stand alone as complete, grammatically valid sentences, connected by a conjunctive adverb ('however') and semicolon. Hence, Both A and B are independent clauses.

دونوں جملے (A اور B) مکمل آزادانہ مفہوم رکھتے ہیں لہذا دونوں انڈیپینڈنٹ کلازز ہیں۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

271📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KState Symbols: UT Bird of J&K

Which bird has been officially designated as the Union Territory Bird of Jammu and Kashmir?

Explanation

The Government of Jammu and Kashmir officially declared the Kalij Pheasant (Lophura leucomelanos) as the UT Bird of J&K in October 2021. (The Black-necked crane is the UT bird of Ladakh).

کالج فیزنٹ (Kalij pheasant) کو یونین ٹیریٹری جموں و کشمیر کا ریاستی پرندہ نامزد کیا گیا ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

272📚General Intelligence & ReasoningActive and Passive Voice

Select the correct passive voice: "The writer who passed away recently has authored a dozen novels and a number of poetry collections."

Explanation

Present perfect active ('has authored') with compound plural object ('A dozen novels and a number of poetry collections') converts to 'have been authored': "A dozen novels and a number of poetry collections have been authored by the writer who passed away recently."

جمع مفعول کے ساتھ درست پیسیو وائس 'have been authored' ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

273📚General Intelligence & ReasoningActive and Passive Voice

Select the correct passive voice: "The members of the parliament elect their group leader either by consensus or by voice vote."

Explanation

Simple present active ('elect') with singular object ('The group leader') converts to 'is elected': "The group leader is elected by the members of the parliament either by consensus or by voice vote."

سادہ حال کا درست پیسیو وائس 'is elected' ہے۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

274📚General Intelligence & ReasoningDouble Fillers & Sentence Completion

Fill in the blanks: "The different moods of the subjects had a direct _______ not only on what was observed but, even more _______ on the meaning of what was perceived."

Explanation

"had a direct effect" provides the appropriate noun following the adjective 'direct', and "even more strongly" provides the comparative adverb modifying the verb perceived.

درست الفاظ: 'effect' اور 'strongly' ہیں۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

275📚Computer ApplicationsUnix Operating System Architecture & History

Consider the following statements regarding the Unix Operating System:
I. Unix is a multitasking, multi-user operating system.
II. The Unix operating system was rewritten and coded in the C programming language by Ken Thompson and Dennis Ritchie.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements are correct: Unix (developed at Bell Labs in 1969–1972) is a true multitasking, multi-user OS, and was famously re-implemented in the C language in 1973 to ensure cross-platform portability.

یونکس کے بارے میں دونوں بیانات (I اور II) بالکل درست ہیں (Both I and II)۔

2024JKSSBVarious Departments

276📚Basic EnglishCommon Errors: Irregular Verbs

Find out the error part: "The criminal was sentenced to the death and was hung for his crime."

Explanation

For capital punishment by hanging, the correct past participle of hang is 'hanged', not 'hung' ("was hanged for his crime").

پھانسی کی سزا کے لیے 'hung' کی جگہ 'hanged' استعمال ہوتا ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

277📚Basic EnglishPrepositions

Fill in the blank: "The officials have the habit of fawning ______ ministers."

Explanation

The standard preposition with the verb 'fawn' (to display exaggerated flattery or affection) is 'on' or 'upon'.

لفظ 'fawning' کے ساتھ پریپوزیشن 'upon' یا 'on' آتی ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

278📚Basic EnglishVerbs: Lay vs Lie

Choose the suitable verb form: "The poor woman ______ the kettle on the fire and went outside."

Explanation

'Laid' is the transitive past tense of 'lay' (to place something down). "She laid the kettle on the fire."

کسی چیز کو رکھنے کے لیے فعل 'laid' درست ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

279📚Basic EnglishParts of Speech

Identify the part of speech of the bold word: "Jeff longed for a pity party after he lost his job."

Explanation

'Longed' functions as the main finite action/state Verb in the past tense, meaning to have an earnest yearning or desire.

'Longed' جملے میں فعل (Verb) کے طور پر آیا ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

280📚Basic EnglishCommon Errors: Comprise vs Consist

Spot the error: "The three storey building comprises of six houses, two parking lots and one basement."

Explanation

The verb 'comprises' means 'consists of' and must never be followed by the preposition 'of' in active voice. It should read "comprises six houses".

'Comprises' کے ساتھ 'of' نہیں لگایا جاتا، لہذا حصہ A میں غلطی ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

281📚Basic EnglishNegative Raising & Idiomatic Syntax

Which of the following sentences is grammatically most idiomatic and correct?

Explanation

In English negative transferred supposition, the negation is standardly transferred to the main matrix verb: "I don't suppose she can pass."

منفی مفروضے کے لیے درست ترین جملہ: "I don't suppose she can pass." ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

282📚Basic EnglishSpelling Errors in Context

Find the wrongly spelt word in the sentence: "The emission of smoke and toxic chemicals has been raising the level of sulfur dioxde in the atmosphere"

Explanation

'dioxde' is misspelled; the correct chemical spelling is dioxide (sulfur dioxide).

'dioxde' غلط ہجے ہے، درست لفظ 'dioxide' ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

283📚Basic EnglishSentence Structure & Word Order

Identify the grammatically correct sentence:

Explanation

Option C correctly places the modal auxiliary, transitive verb, adverb of manner, and prepositional phrase: "The receptionist should answer courteously the questions of all the callers."

گرائمر کے لحاظ سے مکمل درست جملہ آپشن C ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

284📚Basic EnglishCorrect Sentence Selection

Identify the grammatically correct sentence:

Explanation

Option A is grammatically flawless with correct plural agreement ('villagers were') and appropriate definite articles: "The villagers were enjoying the winter evening around the fire."

درست ترین جملہ آپشن A ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

285📚General Awareness & ScienceWorld Pulses Day 2023 Theme

What was the official theme of 'World Pulses Day' 2023 celebrated on February 10?

Explanation

The United Nations FAO designated 'Pulses for a Sustainable Future' as the theme for World Pulses Day 2023 to highlight the role of pulses in soil biodiversity and food security.

ورلڈ پلسز ڈے 2023 کا تھیم 'Pulses for a Sustainable Future' تھا۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

286📚General Awareness & ScienceBRO Project HIMANK

Consider the following statements regarding 'Project HIMANK':
1. It is a landmark infrastructure project of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO).
2. It is responsible for the construction and maintenance of roads and strategic mountain passes in the Ladakh region.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements are correct: Project HIMANK (established in 1985 by BRO, known as 'The Mountain Tamers') builds and maintains strategic road networks, including passes at Khardung La and Umling La in Ladakh.

پروجیکٹ ہیمانک کے بارے میں دونوں بیانات (Both 1 and 2) بالکل درست ہیں۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

287📚General Awareness & ScienceDirect and Indirect Speech

Convert to indirect speech: He said, 'What are you doing?'

Explanation

The reporting verb 'said' changes to 'asked me', the question word 'what' acts as the conjunction, and the present continuous ('are you doing') shifts to past continuous ('I was doing'): "He asked me what I was doing."

ان ڈائریکٹ اسپیچ کا درست جملہ: "He asked me what I was doing." ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

288📚General Awareness & ScienceSynonyms

Select the correct synonym for the word: Reverberate

Explanation

'Reverberate' means to echo, ring, or be repeated several times as an echo or reflection of sound/energy.

'Reverberate' کا ہم معنی لفظ گونجنا یا منعکس ہونا (Reflect/Echo) ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

289📚General Awareness & ScienceSentence Correction: Past Perfect Passive

Select the correct substitute for the underlined segment: "The house has auctioned before we reached there."

Explanation

The action in the main clause occurred before another past event ('before we reached there') and is in the passive voice, requiring the past perfect passive: "had been auctioned".

ماضی میں پہلے مکمل ہونے والے کام کے لیے پیسیو 'Had been auctioned' درست ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

290📚General Awareness & ScienceModal Auxiliaries & Base Verbs

Find out the error part: "No struggle can ever succeeded (a) / without women participating (b) / side by side with men (c) / No error (d)."

Explanation

Modal auxiliary verbs like 'can' must always be followed by the base bare infinitive form of the verb (

V_1

), not the past participle (

V_3

). It must read "can ever succeed".

موڈل 'can' کے ساتھ فعل کی پہلی حالت آتی ہے، اس لیے 'succeeded' غلط ہے (succeed ہونا چاہیے)۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

291📚General Awareness & ScienceModal Auxiliaries & Conditionals

Fill in the blanks using suitable modal verbs:
"We ______ be honest under all circumstances. If we work hard, we ______ pass."

Explanation

'Must' conveys strong categorical moral obligation ("must be honest"), and 'will' completes the standard first conditional construction with real future consequence ("if we work hard, we will pass").

درست موڈل وربز 'must' اور 'will' ہیں۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

292📚General Awareness & ScienceClauses & Analysis

Pick out the subordinate clause in the sentence: "I do not know whether he will come tomorrow."

Explanation

"Whether he will come tomorrow" is a subordinate noun clause functioning as the direct object of the transitive verb 'know'.

ماتحت کلاز (Subordinate clause) "Whether he will come tomorrow" ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

293📚General Awareness & ScienceAntonyms

Select the antonym of the word vehement in: "The bill received a vehement resistance from the opposition party."

Explanation

'Vehement' means showing intense, passionate, or forceful feeling. Its antonym is 'Apathetic' (showing lack of interest, indifference, or unconcern).

'Vehement' (شدید/پرجوش) کا متضاد لفظ 'Apathetic' (بے حس/لاپرواہ) ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

294📚General Awareness & ScienceNoun Errors: Uncountable Nouns

Spot the error: "She gave me (a) / two important pieces of informations (b) / I had been waiting for (c) / the last two months (d)."

Explanation

'Information' is an uncountable mass noun that has no plural form 'informations'. The plural is expressed using 'pieces of information'.

'Information' غیر معدود اسم ہے، اس لیے 'informations' غلط ہے (pieces of information ہونا چاہیے)۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

295📚General Awareness & ScienceCorrect Sentence Structure

Out of the four options, select the grammatically correct sentence:

Explanation

Option C is concise, logical, and grammatically sound without redundant or double-negative adverbs: "You cannot win my confidence without believing me."

گرائمر کے لحاظ سے بالکل درست جملہ آپشن C ہے۔

2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department

296📚General English & ComprehensionNational Parks & Wildlife Sanctuaries of J&K

Which of the following national parks are located in Jammu and Kashmir?
I. Dachigam National Park
II. Kaziranga National Park
III. Kishtwar High Altitude National Park

Which of the following options is/are correct?

Explanation

Dachigam National Park (famous for the Hangul/Kashmir Stag) and Kishtwar High Altitude National Park are located in Jammu & Kashmir. Kaziranga National Park is located in Assam.

दाचीगाम राष्ट्रीय उद्यान और किश्तवाड़ राष्ट्रीय उद्यान जम्मू और कश्मीर में स्थित हैं। काजीरंगा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान असम में स्थित है। अतः I और III सही हैं।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

297📚General English & ComprehensionHistorical Treaties & Political Milestones of J&K

Explanation

1. Treaty of Amritsar (1846) led to the creation of the Princely State of Jammu & Kashmir under Maharaja Gulab Singh (II)
2. Shimla Agreement (1972) established bilateral terms and converted the ceasefire line to the Line of Control (LoC) following the 1971 war (III)
3. Instrument of Accession (1947) formalized the accession of J&K to India (I).
Correct match: 1-II, 2-III, 3-I.

1. अमृतसर की संधि (1846): जम्मू-कश्मीर रियासत की स्थापना (II)
2. शिमला समझौता (1972): 1971 युद्ध के बाद शांति शर्तें (III)
3. विलय पत्र (1947): भारत में विलय (I)।
सही विकल्प 1-II, 2-III, 3-I है।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

298📚General English & ComprehensionAtmospheric Structure & Insolation

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the equator.
Reason (R): Low insolation and weak convection currents over the equator cause the atmosphere to expand.

Which of the following is the correct answer?

Explanation

Assertion (A) is correct: The troposphere (and overall atmosphere) is thickest at the equator (up to 18 km) compared to poles (8 km). Reason (R) is incorrect because the equator receives high insolation resulting in intense convection currents (not low insolation/weak currents) that push the air upward.

अभिकथन (A) सही है क्योंकि भूमध्य रेखा पर वायुमंडल (विशेषकर क्षोभमंडल) की मोटाई सर्वाधिक होती है। कारण (R) गलत है क्योंकि भूमध्य रेखा पर अत्यधिक सूर्यातप और शक्तिशाली संवहन धाराएँ होती हैं, न कि कमजोर। अतः Assertion सही है और Reason गलत है।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

299📚General English & ComprehensionMughal Architecture & Gardens of Kashmir

Which of the following is/are famous Mughal gardens in Jammu and Kashmir?
I. Nishat Bagh
II. Shalimar Bagh
III. Achabal Garden

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Nishat Bagh (built by Asif Khan in 1633), Shalimar Bagh (built by Emperor Jahangir in 1619), and Achabal Garden (laid out by Empress Nur Jahan in Anantnag) are all world-famous Mughal gardens in Kashmir. Hence, I, II, and III are all correct.

निशात बाग, शालीमार बाग और अचबल गार्डन तीनों ही जम्मू और कश्मीर के ऐतिहासिक और विश्व प्रसिद्ध मुगल बाग हैं। अतः I, II और III सही उत्तर है।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

300📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KIndo-Pak Wars & Diplomatic Treaties

The 1965 war between India and Pakistan over Kashmir ended with the signing of which agreement?

Explanation

The Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 ended with the signing of the Tashkent Declaration on January 10, 1966, mediated by Soviet Premier Alexei Kosygin between Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and President Ayub Khan.

1965 का भारत-पाकिस्तान युद्ध 10 जनवरी 1966 को हस्ताक्षरित 'ताशकंद घोषणापत्र' (Tashkent Declaration) के साथ समाप्त हुआ।

2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments

301📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KBorder Roads Organisation & Projects in Ladakh

Consider the following statements about Project HIMANK:
I. It is a project of NHAI
II. It is responsible for the construction of roads in J&K and Ladakh

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect: Project HIMANK (established in 1985) is a landmark project of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), not NHAI. Statement II is correct: Project HIMANK is known as 'The Mountain Tamers' and is responsible for constructing world-record high-altitude roads (like Umling La and Khardung La) across Ladakh and J&K. Hence, II only is correct.

कथन I गलत है क्योंकि प्रोजेक्ट हिमांक (Project HIMANK) सीमा सड़क संगठन (BRO) का प्रोजेक्ट है, न कि NHAI का। कथन II सही है क्योंकि यह लद्दाख और जम्मू-कश्मीर में दुर्गम पर्वतीय सड़कों का निर्माण करता है। अतः केवल II सही है।

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302📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech

Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: I said to my sister, "Let us go to some hill station for a change."

Explanation

In indirect speech, sentences starting with 'Let us' convey a proposal or suggestion. The reporting verb changes to 'suggested to / proposed to', followed by 'that we should...'. Hence: 'I suggested to my sister that we should go to some hill station for a change.'

'Let us' वाले प्रस्ताव सूचक वाक्यों को Indirect Speech में बदलते समय 'suggested to... that we should...' का प्रयोग किया जाता है।

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303📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KModal Auxiliary Verbs

Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliary verbs: Ramesh ______ be coming to see us tomorrow.

Explanation

May' is used to express future possibility or uncertainty regarding a planned visit: 'Ramesh may be coming to see us tomorrow.

भविष्य की संभावना (Possibility) को दर्शाने के लिए Modal Verb 'may' का सही प्रयोग होगा।

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304📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KModal Auxiliary Verbs

Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliary verbs: My grandfather is 86 years old but he ______ still read without his glasses.

Explanation

Can' expresses present general physical capability/ability: '...he can still read without his glasses.

वर्तमान काल में शारीरिक योग्यता/क्षमता (Ability) व्यक्त करने के लिए 'can' का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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305📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KReading Comprehension

Which of the following best explains the author's statement, "An ounce of patience is worth a pound of brains"?

Explanation

The proverb signifies that even a small amount of practical patience is vastly superior and more beneficial than abundant intellect (brains) if one lacks the emotional endurance to apply it calmly.

लेखक के अनुसार धैर्य बुद्धि से अधिक मूल्यवान है क्योंकि धैर्य के बिना तीव्र बुद्धि का भी सही उपयोग नहीं किया जा सकता।

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306📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityError Spotting & Prepositions

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error, to ensure the meaning is clear and relevant. If there is no error, select 'No error': The visitors complained at (A) / the poor accommodation (B) / they were provided with (C) / No error (D)

Explanation

The correct preposition with the verb 'complain' when referring to a grievance or condition is 'about' or 'of', not 'at'. It should read: 'The visitors complained about the poor accommodation...'. Therefore, part (A) contains the error.

'Complain' के साथ 'at' के स्थान पर 'about' या 'of' का प्रयोग होता है। अतः त्रुटि भाग (A) में है।

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307📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityDirect and Indirect Speech

Choose the option that best conveys the sentence: She asked, "Where are you going?"

Explanation

In indirect reporting of WH-questions, the interrogative sentence changes into assertive word order (Subject + Verb) and the present continuous ('are you going') shifts to past continuous ('I was going'): 'She asked where I was going.'

Indirect Speech में प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य साधारण वाक्य (Subject + Verb) के क्रम में बदल जाता है: 'She asked where I was going.'

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308📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityVerbal Analogies

Dog : Bark :: Goat : ?

Explanation

The relationship connects an animal with the sound it produces. A dog barks, while a goat bleats.

कुत्ते की आवाज 'Bark' (भौंकना) होती है, उसी प्रकार बकरी की आवाज 'Bleat' (मिमियाना) होती है।

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309📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityNon-Verbal Reasoning & Paper Folding

Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet (shown in (Z)) is folded at the dotted line.

Explanation

When the transparent sheet is folded along the central vertical dotted line, the symmetrical geometric lines on the left overlay directly with the right quadrant to form Figure I.

पारदर्शी शीट को बिंदीदार रेखा पर मोड़ने पर दोनों ओर के रेखाचित्र आपस में मिलकर चित्र I का निर्माण करते हैं।

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310📚General Intelligence & ReasoningNon-Verbal Reasoning

Determine which of the four alternatives illustrates the pattern formed when the transparent sheet (as shown in (Z)) is folded along the dotted line.

Explanation

Folding the transparent sheet along the vertical center axis superimposes the outer triangular vertex onto the right circular arc, yielding Figure II.

शीट को बीच की बिंदीदार रेखा पर मोड़ने पर ज्यामितीय आकृतियाँ एक दूसरे के ऊपर आकर चित्र II बनाती हैं।

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311📚Basic Concepts of ComputersGeometry & Circles

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact.
II. The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

Choose the correct Statement:

Explanation

Both are fundamental theorems of circle geometry (Class 10 NCERT / CBSE):
- Theorem 10.1: The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
- Theorem 10.2: The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Thus, Both I and II are correct.

कथन I और II दोनों वृत्त ज्यामिति के आधारभूत प्रमेय हैं: (I) स्पर्श रेखा स्पर्श बिंदु पर त्रिज्या पर लंब होती है, और (II) बाह्य बिंदु से खींची गई स्पर्श रेखाओं की लंबाइयाँ बराबर होती हैं। अतः दोनों I और II सही हैं।

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312📚Basic Concepts of ComputersComputer Memory (SRAM vs DRAM)

Consider the following statements:
I. SRAM requires periodic refresh to re-write data into memory
II. SRAM is used in the processor as fast cache memory

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect: Dynamic RAM (DRAM) requires periodic electrical refresh cycles, whereas Static RAM (SRAM) does not need refreshing as long as power is supplied. Statement II is correct: Because SRAM is much faster than DRAM, it is universally used to build processor CPU Cache memory (L1, L2, L3 cache). Hence, II only is correct.

कथन I गलत है क्योंकि समय-समय पर रीफ्रेश की आवश्यकता DRAM को होती है, SRAM को नहीं। कथन II सही है क्योंकि SRAM बहुत तेज़ होती है और इसका उपयोग CPU कैश मेमोरी (Cache) के रूप में किया जाता है। अतः केवल II सही है।

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313📚Basic Concepts of ComputersDigital India & E-Governance

Consider the following statements:
The vision of Digital India launched by the Government of India is centred on:
I. Creating transportation infrastructure in states
II. Digital Empowerment of Every Citizen

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

The three core vision areas of the Digital India programme are: (1) Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen, (2) Governance and Services on Demand, and (3) Digital Empowerment of Citizens. Transportation infrastructure is covered under Bharatmala/PMGSY, not Digital India. Hence, II only is correct.

डिजिटल इंडिया कार्यक्रम के तीन प्रमुख स्तंभ हैं: डिजिटल इंफ्रास्ट्रक्चर, ई-गवर्नेंस और नागरिकों का डिजिटल सशक्तिकरण (Digital Empowerment of Every Citizen)। अतः केवल II सही है।

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314📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCPU Architecture (ALU, CU, Registers)

Consider the following statements:
I. The control unit of the CPU is used to process and store data.
II. The CPU's ALU can perform both arithmetic and logical operations.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect: The Control Unit (CU) directs the operations of the processor and manages instruction execution; data is stored in registers and memory. Statement II is correct: The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) performs all arithmetic calculations (addition, subtraction) and logical comparisons (AND, OR, NOT). Hence, II only is correct.

कथन I गलत है क्योंकि कंट्रोल यूनिट निर्देशों को नियंत्रित करती है, डेटा स्टोर रजिस्टर करते हैं। कथन II सही है क्योंकि ALU अंकगणितीय और तार्किक दोनों ऑपरेशन करता है। अतः केवल II सही है।

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315📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCyber Security & Virtualization

Explanation

1. Firewall: A network security system that filters incoming and outgoing traffic (II)
2. Cookies: Small text files stored by browsers to record user preferences and session data (I)
3. Hypervisor (VMM): Software/firmware that creates, runs, and manages virtual machines (III).
Correct matching code is 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.

1. फ़ायरवॉल: इनकमिंग और आउटगोइंग डेटा को फ़िल्टर करता है (II)
2. कुकीज़: उपयोगकर्ता प्राथमिकताओं और सत्र को सहेजती हैं (I)
3. हाइपरवाइजर: वर्चुअल मशीनों को प्रबंधित करता है (III)।
सही विकल्प 1-II, 2-I, 3-III है।

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316📚Basic ReasoningVerbal Analogies

Which of the following pairs is most similar to the relationship "Plant: Photosynthesis"?

Explanation

A plant carries out the physiological process of photosynthesis. Similarly, the stomach carries out the digestive process of digestion.

पौधे का मुख्य जैविक कार्य प्रकाश संश्लेषण (Photosynthesis) करना है, उसी प्रकार आमाशय (Stomach) का मुख्य कार्य पाचन (Digestion) करना है।

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317📚Basic ReasoningVerbal Analogies

Which of the following completes the analogy "Oarsman: Rower :: Musician: ?"

Explanation

An oarsman is synonymous with a rower who performs the physical action of rowing. Similarly, a musician is synonymous with an instrumentalist who plays an instrument.

नाविक (Oarsman) को Rower भी कहते हैं, उसी प्रकार संगीतकार/वादक (Musician) को Instrumentalist कहा जाता है।

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318📚Basic ReasoningNon-Verbal Reasoning & Pattern Completion

Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to which one completes the given pattern:

Pattern Completion Figure

Explanation

Looking at the symmetry and intersecting line reflections across all four quadrants, figure 4 provides the exact line continuity required to complete the bottom-right quadrant.

चारों चतुर्थांशों की सममिति और रेखाओं के मिलान के आधार पर आकृति 4 नीचे के दायें भाग को पूर्ण करती है।

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319📚Basic ReasoningNon-Verbal Reasoning

Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to which one completes the given shape pattern:

Shape Matrix Figure

Explanation

Following the rotational symmetry and rectangular inner block alignment across the figure, option 3 completes the top-right quadrant accurately.

घूर्णन सममिति और आंतरिक आयताकार संरचना के आधार पर विकल्प 3 ऊपर-दायें भाग को सही रूप से पूर्ण करता है।

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320📚Basic EnglishSynonyms & Antonyms

Select the synonym of the word EUPHORIA

Explanation

'Euphoria' is a state of intense happiness, bliss, and excitement. Its direct synonym is 'Ecstasy'.

'Euphoria' का अर्थ अत्यधिक आनंद या उत्साह होता है। इसका समानार्थी 'Ecstasy' (परमानंद) है।

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321📚Basic EnglishTenses & Sequence of Tenses

Fill in the blank with a suitable verb in the below sentence.
By the time he arrived, the train _____ already.

Explanation

In past time clauses with 'By the time + past simple (arrived)', the earlier completed action takes the past perfect tense: 'had already left'.

'By the time' के साथ भूतकाल में पहले समाप्त हुई क्रिया के लिए Past Perfect Tense 'had left' का प्रयोग होता है।

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322📚Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement & Tenses

Fill in the blank with a suitable verb in the below sentence.
The chef _____ the ingredients carefully before cooking the dish.

Explanation

Expressing a habitual professional routine or general fact in culinary practice uses the simple present tense: 'The chef prepares the ingredients carefully...'.

सामान्य नियम और आदत व्यक्त करने के लिए Simple Present Tense 'prepares' का उपयोग होगा।

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323📚Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options: Neither the teacher (a) / nor the students (b) / was happy with (c) / the final results (d).

Explanation

When subjects are joined by 'neither... nor', the verb must agree with the nearer subject ('the students', which is plural). It must be 'were happy with', not 'was happy with'. Error is in part (c).

'Neither... nor' में क्रिया निकटतम कर्ता ('the students' - बहुवचन) के अनुसार आती है, अतः 'was' के स्थान पर 'were' होगा। त्रुटि भाग (c) में है।

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324📚Basic EnglishError Spotting & Tenses

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence: She (a) / did not accept (b) / the invitation because (c) / she has a prior engagement (d).

Explanation

In part (d), to maintain the sequence of past tense established by 'did not accept', the subordinate clause must use past tense: 'she had a prior engagement' instead of 'has'.

भूतकाल के अनुक्रम (Sequence of Tenses) के अनुसार 'she has' के स्थान पर 'she had' होना चाहिए। त्रुटि भाग (d) में है।

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325📚Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement

Which of the following sentences uses correct subject-verb agreement?

Explanation

Option A correctly pairs the plural subject 'inventions' with the plural verb 'have shaped'. (In B, 'contributions... are'; in C, 'inventions have'; in D, 'impact... is').

विकल्प A में बहुवचन कर्ता 'inventions' के साथ सही बहुवचन क्रिया 'have shaped' का प्रयोग किया गया है।

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326📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners

Select the sentence where the determiner is used correctly.

Explanation

Option C correctly pairs 'several' with the plural countable noun 'opportunities'. (In A, 'many dogs'; in B & D, 'advice' and 'information' are uncountable and do not take 'a').

विकल्प C में 'several' के साथ बहुवचन संज्ञा 'opportunities' का सही प्रयोग हुआ है। 'advice' और 'information' अगणनीय हैं।

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327📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners

Select the sentence where the determiner is NOT used correctly.

Explanation

'Information' is an uncountable noun and cannot be preceded by the singular indefinite article 'A'. One must say 'Information' or 'A piece of information'. Hence, Option D is incorrect.

'Information' एक Uncountable Noun है, इसलिए इसके पहले 'A' का प्रयोग गलत है। अतः विकल्प D में निर्धारक गलत है।

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328📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSentence Improvement & Collective Nouns

Choose the correct alternative to improve the bold part: The jury was unanimous in their verdict after hours of deliberation.

Explanation

When a collective noun like 'jury' acts as a single unified body (indicated by 'unanimous'), it takes a singular verb and singular neuter pronoun: 'was unanimous in its verdict'.

जब 'jury' सर्वसम्मत होकर एक इकाई के रूप में निर्णय देती है, तो इसके साथ एकवचन सर्वनाम 'its' आता है: 'was unanimous in its verdict'।

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329📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KError Spotting & Distributive Pronouns

In this question, find out the error part: Each one of the students (a) / are responsible (b) / for completing the assignments (c) / on time. (d)

Explanation

'Each one' is a distributive singular subject that requires the singular verb 'is responsible', not plural 'are responsible'. Error is in part (b).

'Each one' एकवचन कर्ता है, इसलिए इसके साथ एकवचन क्रिया 'is responsible' आएगी। त्रुटि भाग (b) में है।

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330📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KNational Sports Awards & Khel Ratna 2024

Which of the following pairs is/are correct regarding the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 awardees?
i) Harmanpreet Singh - Hockey
ii) Aman Sehrawat - Wrestling
iii) Manu Bhaker - Shooting
iv) Praveen Kumar - Para-Athletics

Choose the correct answer:

Explanation

India's highest sporting honor, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024, was conferred on hockey captain Harmanpreet Singh, double Olympic medalist Manu Bhaker (Shooting), and Paralympic gold medalist Praveen Kumar (Para-Athletics).

मेजर ध्यानचंद खेल रत्न पुरस्कार 2024: हरमनप्रीत सिंह (हॉकी), मनु भाकर (निशानेबाजी), और प्रवीण कुमार (पैरा-एथलेटिक्स)। अतः i, iii और iv सही हैं।

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331📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KClassical Dances of India

Which of the following pairs is/are correct regarding the classical dances of various states of India?
i) Kuchipudi - Andhra Pradesh
ii) Kathakali - Odisha
iii) Sattriya - Assam
iv) Bharatanatyam - Tamil Nadu

Choose the correct answer:

Explanation

- Kuchipudi is the classical dance of Andhra Pradesh (i - Correct)
- Kathakali is from Kerala, not Odisha (Odisha has Odissi) (ii - Incorrect)
- Sattriya is the classical dance of Assam (iii - Correct)
- Bharatanatyam is the classical dance of Tamil Nadu (iv - Correct).
Therefore, i, iii, and iv are correct.

- कुचिपुड़ी: आंध्र प्रदेश (i - सही)
- कथकली: केरल का है, ओडिशा का नहीं (ii - गलत)
- सत्रिया: असम (iii - सही)
- भरतनाट्यम: तमिलनाडु (iv - सही)।
अतः i, iii और iv सही हैं।

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332📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KFolk Dances of India

Which of the following statements about the folk dance "Tarangmel" is/are correct?
i) Tarangmel is a Goan folk dance that embodies the youthful and exuberant spirit of the region.
ii) The name "Tarangmel" is derived from "Tarang," which means streamers, which are an integral part of the dance.
iii) It is traditionally performed during the Hindu festivals of Dussehra and Holi.
iv) The dance is a colorful spectacle, featuring vibrant costumes, banners, and streamers, creating a rainbow-like display.

Choose the correct answer:

Explanation

All four statements are factually accurate regarding Tarangmel, the energetic folk dance of Goa performed by youth holding colorful rainbow streamers (tarang) and banners during Dussehra and Holi celebrations.

तरंगमेल गोवा का प्रसिद्ध लोकनृत्य है, जो दशहरा और होली के दौरान रंग-बिरंगे झंडों और रिबनों के साथ किया जाता है। सभी चार कथन (i, ii, iii और iv) सही हैं।

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333📚General Awareness & Current AffairsSoils of India & Agriculture

Which of the following statements about Laterite Soil is NOT correct?

Explanation

Statement C is incorrect: Laterite soil develops in regions with high temperature and heavy seasonal rainfall with alternating wet and dry periods, causing intense leaching (not low rainfall).

कथन C गलत है क्योंकि लैटेराइट मिट्टी का निर्माण उच्च तापमान और भारी वर्षा (तीव्र निक्षालन/leaching) वाले क्षेत्रों में होता है, न कि कम वर्षा वाले क्षेत्रों में।

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334📚General Awareness & Current AffairsLight Optics & Atmospheric Phenomena

Which of the following phenomena is/are responsible for the formation of the rainbow?
i) Dispersion
ii) Reflection
iii) Refraction
iv) Diffraction

Choose the correct answer:

Explanation

A rainbow is produced by dispersion of sunlight by raindrops involving three optical processes: refraction of light as it enters the drop, total internal reflection inside the drop, and refraction as it exits the raindrop.

इंद्रधनुष का निर्माण वर्षा की बूंदों द्वारा प्रकाश के अपवर्तन (Refraction), वर्ण-विक्षेपण (Dispersion), और पूर्ण आंतरिक परावर्तन (Internal Reflection) के संयोजन से होता है। अतः केवल i, ii और iii सही हैं।

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335📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentStatistical Tests Matching

Match the following tests:
i. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test — 3. Test of normality
ii. Chi-square test — 2. Goodness of fit test
iii. Wilcoxon signed rank test — 4. Alternative to dependent Samples t-test
iv. Spearman's rho — 1. Correlation for Rank data

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Matching code: i-3 (Normality test), ii-2 (Goodness of fit), iii-4 (Paired t-test alternative), iv-1 (Rank correlation).

सही मिलान: i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1।

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336📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentParametric vs Non-Parametric Tests

Explanation

i) Independent t-test -> Median Test (2); ii) One-way ANOVA -> Kruskal-Wallis (4); iii) Paired t-test -> Sign Test / Wilcoxon (1); iv) Pearson -> Kendall's Tau (5).

सही मिलान: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-5।

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337📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentStatistical Tests

Explanation

Matching: i-3 (Normality test), ii-2 (Goodness of fit), iii-4 (Paired t-test alternative), iv-1 (Rank correlation).

सही मिलान: i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1।

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338📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentResearch Designs & Control

Explanation

Matching: i-5 (Post-test only provides weak control), ii-4 (Covariate gives statistical control), iii-2 (Repeated measures controls individual differences), iv-1 (Factorial design adds a second IV).

सही मिलान: i-5, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1।

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339📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentSampling Techniques

Explanation

Matching: i-2 (Requires complete sampling frame), ii-1 (Probability sampling of natural groups), iii-4 (Non-probability group sampling), iv-5 (Chain-referral sampling).

सही मिलान: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-5।

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340📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentScales of Measurement

Explanation

Matching: i-4 (Ratio has absolute zero), ii-1 (Nominal uses numbers as category labels), iii-3 (Interval scale has arbitrary zero), iv-2 (Ordinal has ranked unequal intervals).

सही मिलान: i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2।

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341📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentRegression Diagnostics

Explanation

Matching: Multicollinearity is correlation among independent predictors (3), and Heteroscedasticity is non-constant error variance (1).

सही मिलान: i-3, ii-1।

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342📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentPhenomenology of Hallucinations

Explanation

Matching: Form is the modality (Auditory - 3); Content is the message (Voice statement - 4); Primary is intrinsic (Schizophrenia - 2); Secondary is organic/toxic (Substance - 1).

सही मिलान: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1।

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343📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDelusional Phenomenology

Explanation

Matching: Persecutory (being followed - 3), Grandeur (PM takes advice - 4), Jealousy (unfaithful spouse - 2), Erotomania (celebrity in love - 1).

सही मिलान: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1।

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344📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)Classification of Hallucinations

Match the Classification of Hallucination with its Dimension:
i. Olfactory — 4. According to sensory modality
ii. Third-person — 5. According to special features
iii. Autoscopic hallucinations — 2. Special perceptual forms
iv. Elementary — 1. According to Complexity

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Matching: Olfactory is sensory modality (4), Elementary is complexity level (1), and Autoscopic is a special feature hallucination.

सही मिलान: i-4, ii-5, iii-2, iv-1।

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345📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)Adaptive Functioning Criteria

Explanation

Matching: Severe requires daily support (4), Profound requires 24h care (3), Mild needs minimal support (5), Moderate achieves independent living with moderate support (1).

सही मिलान: i-4, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1।

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346📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)Illness Anxiety Disorder

According to DSM 5 TR, Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without somatic symptoms or only mild in intensity, and high level of anxiety about health, and the individual is easily alarmed about personal health status. The individual performs excessive health-related behaviors and the preoccupation has been present for at least 6 months is called as

Explanation

Illness Anxiety Disorder is defined by intense health anxiety with minimal or absent somatic symptoms lasting at least 6 months.

बिना शारीरिक लक्षणों के गंभीर बीमारी होने की सतत चिंता को 'इल्नेस एंग्जायटी डिसऑर्डर' कहा जाता है।

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347📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder

Severe recurrent temper outbursts manifested verbally/ behaviorally that are grossly out of proportion in intensity or duration to the situation is sign of

Explanation

Severe recurrent temper outbursts disproportionate to provocation in children/adolescents defines Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD).

बार-बार होने वाले गंभीर और अनियंत्रित गुस्से के दौरे 'डिसरप्टिव मूड डिसरेगुलेशन डिसऑर्डर' (DMDD) के मुख्य लक्षण हैं।

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348📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)Personality Disorders

Explanation

Matching: Schizoid (detachment - 2), Schizotypal (odd beliefs - 3), Antisocial (impulsivity - 4), Paranoid (distrust - 1).

सही मिलान: i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1।

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349📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyWAIS-IV Index Structure

The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) includes which of the following subscales?
1. Verbal Comprehension Index
2. Working Memory Index
3. Auditory Processing Index
4. Processing Speed Index

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

WAIS-IV indexes include VCI (1), WMI (2), and PSI (4) alongside PRI. Auditory processing index is not a WAIS index. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

WAIS-IV में VCI (1), WMI (2) और PSI (4) शामिल हैं। अतः केवल 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं।

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350📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyFive-Factor Model (Neuroticism & BPD)

The Five-Factor model personality dimension of neuroticism is associated with

Explanation

High Neuroticism (affective instability, emotional reactivity, intense anxiety, depression) is the core personality trait underlying Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD).

उच्च तंत्रिका-ताप (High Neuroticism / भावनात्मक अस्थिरता) मुख्य रूप से बॉर्डरलाइन पर्सनालिटी डिसऑर्डर (BPD) से संबंधित है।

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351📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Functional Neuroimaging (fMRI)

Which of the following statements about fMRI is/are correct?
1. It measures neuronal activity directly through electrical signals.
2. It relies on the Blood Oxygen Level-Dependent (BOLD) signal.
3. fMRI provides high spatial resolution compared to EEG

Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

fMRI measures hemodynamic changes using the Blood Oxygen Level-Dependent (BOLD) contrast (2 - True) and offers millimetric high spatial resolution superior to EEG (3 - True). Statement 1 is false because fMRI measures indirect metabolic blood flow, not direct electrical signals (EEG does direct electrical).

fMRI रक्त ऑक्सीजन स्तर (BOLD सिग्नल) पर निर्भर करता है (2) और EEG की तुलना में उच्च स्थानिक रिज़ॉल्यूशन प्रदान करता है (3)। कथन 1 असत्य है। अतः केवल 2 और 3 सही हैं।

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352📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Neuroimaging Modalities

Explanation

Matching: i) fMRI = BOLD oxygen tracking (2); ii) EEG = electrical potentials (3); iii) MEG = magnetic fields (1); iv) PET = radiotracers for glucose metabolism (4). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.

सही मिलान: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4।

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353📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Multimodal Pain Management (The 4 Ps)

Choose the correct full form of the Four P's of pain management.

Explanation

The interdisciplinary biopsychosocial 4P model of comprehensive pain management comprises: Physical, Psychological, Pharmacological, and Procedural interventions.

दर्द प्रबंधन के '4 Ps': Physical (शारीरिक), Psychological (मनोवैज्ञानिक), Pharmacological (औषधीय), और Procedural (प्रक्रियात्मक)।

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354📚Health Psychology & Research MethodologyPsychotherapy Pioneers & Modalities

Explanation

i) Donald Meichenbaum = Cognitive Behaviour Modification (3); ii) Marian Chace = Dance/Movement Therapy pioneer (1); iii) Michael White and David Epston = Narrative Therapy (2); iv) Albert Ellis = Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (4). Code: i-3; ii-1; iii-2; iv-4.

i) डॉनल्ड मीकेनबाम: CBM (3)
ii) मारियान चेस: डांस/मूवमेंट थेरेपी (1)
iii) माइकल व्हाइट और डेविड एपस्टन: नैरेटिव थेरेपी (2)
iv) अल्बर्ट एलिस: REBT (4)। सही विकल्प A है।

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355📚Health Psychology & Research MethodologyNeuropsychological Attention Batteries (d2 & SDMT)

Select neuropsychological tests that were developed to measure attention from the codes given below:
1. WISC
2. WMS
3. d2 Test
4. SDMT
5. COWA

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

The d2 Test of Attention (Brickenkamp) and the Symbol Digit Modalities Test (SDMT, Smith) are premier standardized neuropsychological tests specifically designed to measure sustained attention, selective attention, and visual scanning speed. (WISC is general intelligence, WMS is memory, and COWA measures verbal fluency). Thus, 3 and 4 only are correct.

d2 टेस्ट ऑफ अटेंशन (3) और सिंबल डिजिट मोडैलिटीज टेस्ट (SDMT - 4) विशेष रूप से ध्यान और एकाग्रता मापने के लिए विकसित तंत्रिका-मनोवैज्ञानिक परीक्षण हैं। अतः 3 और 4 सही हैं।

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356📚Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsTenses

The form of tense used in the below sentence is:
By the time the conference starts, the researchers will have been studying the effects of climate change on biodiversity for the next five years.

Explanation

The construction 'will have been studying' represents the Future Perfect Continuous Tense (will + have + been + present participle), describing an ongoing action extending up to a future point.

'will have been studying' संरचना 'Future Perfect Continuous Tense' को दर्शाती है।

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357📚AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsEarth Resistance Measurement

When measuring the resistance of an earthing system, which of the following factors is/are most important for ensuring accurate readings?
1. Length/Depth of the earthing electrode
2. Distance between measurement points
3. Type of soil surrounding the electrode

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Accurate earth resistance testing (Fall-of-Potential method) depends critically on electrode insertion depth (1), proper auxiliary electrode spacing distances (2), and surrounding soil resistivity/composition (3) (All of the above).

अर्थिंग प्रतिरोध के सटीक मापन के लिए इलेक्ट्रोड की गहराई (1), परीक्षण बिंदुओं के बीच की दूरी (2), और मिट्टी की प्रकृति (3) सभी आवश्यक हैं (उपरोक्त सभी)।

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358📚AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsHeating Appliances & Joule Heating

Which of the following statements correctly describes the principle of operation of an electric heater?
1. Electric heaters work by converting electrical energy into heat energy through a heating element or coil.
2. Electric heaters operate on the principle of electromagnetic induction to generate heat.
3. Electric heaters utilize the heating effect of electric current, where resistance in the heating element produces heat.
4. Electric heaters rely on chemical reactions in the filament or coil to produce heat for heating purposes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Electric heaters function via Joule's heating effect of electric current (

H = I^2 R t

), converting electrical energy directly into thermal heat energy across a resistive alloy coil (Statements 1 and 3 are correct).

इलेक्ट्रिक हीटर विद्युत ऊर्जा को ऊष्मीय ऊर्जा में बदलते हैं (1) और विद्युत धारा के तापीय प्रभाव (जूल का नियम

I^2Rt

) पर काम करते हैं (3)। अतः केवल 1 और 3 सही हैं।

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359📚Transformers & Electrical MachinesHydroelectric Power Generation

Consider the following statements about Hydroelectric Power:
1. Hydroelectric power is a secondary source of energy.
2. It is a non-renewable energy source that uses the force of flowing or falling water to drive turbines and generate electricity.
3. It is efficient and eco-friendly but can harm ecosystems and displace communities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Hydroelectric power generates electricity (a secondary energy carrier) (1 - True) and is clean during operation but has ecological/displacement impacts (3 - True). Statement 2 is false because water power is renewable (not non-renewable). Thus, 1 and 3 are correct.

जलविद्युत ऊर्जा द्वितीयक ऊर्जा स्रोत है (1) और यह पर्यावरण के अनुकूल होने के बावजूद पारिस्थितिकी और समुदायों को प्रभावित कर सकती है (3)। कथन 2 असत्य है क्योंकि यह नवीकरणीय (Renewable) स्रोत है। अतः 1 और 3 सही हैं।

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360📚Transformers & Electrical MachinesProperties of Magnetic Field Lines

Consider the following statements about Magnetic Field Lines in a Bar Magnet:
1. Outside the bar magnet, field lines are directed from the South Pole to the North Pole.
2. The lines form closed continuous curves and can never intersect with each other.
3. The magnetic field is strong where field lines are crowded and vice-versa.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is false because outside a magnet, magnetic field lines emerge from the North pole and enter the South pole (they run South to North only inside the magnet).

कथन 2 और 3 सही हैं। कथन 1 गलत है क्योंकि चुंबक के बाहर चुंबकीय क्षेत्र रेखाएं उत्तरी ध्रुव (North) से दक्षिणी ध्रुव (South) की ओर जाती हैं।

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361📚Transformers & Electrical MachinesHysteresis Loop & Energy Loss

Consider the following statements about the Hysteresis Loop:
1. A hysteresis loop is generated by measuring the magnetic flux emitted from a ferromagnetic material as the external magnetic field applied to it is varied.
2. The hysteresis loop shows the relationship between the magnetic flux density and the magnetizing field strength of a paramagnetic substance.
3. The loss of energy per unit volume of the substance is equal to the area of the hysteresis curve.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is false because hysteresis loops (B-H curves) are exhibited by Ferromagnetic materials, NOT paramagnetic substances.

कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं। कथन 2 गलत है क्योंकि हिस्टैरिसीस लूप लौह-चुंबकीय (Ferromagnetic) पदार्थों का गुण है, अनुचुंबकीय का नहीं। अतः 1 और 3 सही हैं।

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362📚Transformers & Electrical MachinesFleming's Left and Right Hand Rules

Consider the following statements about Fleming's rules:
1. Fleming's Left-Hand Rule is used to determine the direction of force in an electric motor when a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field.
2. Fleming's Right Hand Rule is used to identify the direction of induced current when a conductor moves within a magnetic field which is essential for understanding generator functions.
3. Both of Fleming's rules have practical applications in various electromagnetic devices such as relays, loudspeakers, microphones, galvanometers, and maglev systems.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct: Fleming's Left-Hand Rule applies to Motors (FBI: Force, B-field, Current), Fleming's Right-Hand Rule applies to Generators (Induced Current), and both have broad electromagnetic applications.

तीनों कथन सही हैं: फ्लेमिंग का बायां हाथ नियम मोटर के लिए (1), दायां हाथ नियम जनरेटर के लिए (2), और दोनों के व्यापक अनुप्रयोग हैं (3)।

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363📚Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyAdvantages of 3-Phase Systems

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the advantages of 3-phase system over a single-phase system?
1. In a 3-phase power supply system, less voltage drop occurs from the source to the load points in comparison to a single-phase transmission system.
2. A 3-phase system requires less copper and aluminum for the transmission system in comparison to a single-phase transmission system.
3. A pulsating torque is produced in a 3-phase system, whereas in a single-phase system uniform or constant torque is produced.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

3-phase systems provide reduced line voltage drop (1) and require ~75% conductor copper/aluminum material for the same power delivery compared to single-phase (2). Statement 3 is false because 3-phase machines produce steady constant rotating torque, whereas single-phase machines produce pulsating torque. Thus, 1 and 2 are correct.

3-फेज सिस्टम में वोल्टेज ड्रॉप कम होता है (1) और ट्रांसमिशन हेतु कम तांबे/एल्युमिनियम की आवश्यकता होती है (2)। कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि 3-फेज में स्थिर टॉर्क उत्पन्न होता है। अतः 1 और 2 सही हैं।

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364📚Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyYoke of DC Generator

Which of the following statements about the Yoke of the DC generator is/are correct?
1. The yoke provides a sturdy and protective outer covering for the generator.
2. It provides mechanical support and keeps the poles properly aligned.
3. It carries magnetic flux produced by the poles.
4. It is made of either cast iron or steel.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All 4 statements are correct: The outer frame (yoke) provides outer mechanical protection (1), supports field poles (2), serves as the return magnetic flux path (3), and is manufactured from cast iron (small machines) or cast/rolled steel (large machines) (4).

सभी चारों कथन सही हैं: योक बाहरी आवरण देता है (1), पोल को सहारा देता है (2), चुंबकीय फ्लक्स ले जाता है (3), और कास्ट आयरन/स्टील का बना होता है (4)।

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365📚Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyDC vs AC Motors

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the preference of a DC motor over an AC motor?
1. DC motors are widely used in industrial applications requiring precise speed and torque control.
2. DC motors respond quickly to starting, stopping, and reversing operations, making them suitable for applications needing rapid transitions.
3. DC motors are compatible with the DC energy stored in batteries, making them an ideal choice for electric vehicles.
4. DC motor ceiling fans use more energy than a standard AC fan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because Brushless DC (BLDC) motor ceiling fans consume ~50-65% LESS energy (28W-35W) than standard induction motor AC fans (75W). Thus, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

कथन 1, 2 और 3 सत्य हैं। कथन 4 असत्य है क्योंकि BLDC (DC) पंखे पारंपरिक AC पंखों की तुलना में काफी कम बिजली की खपत करते हैं। अतः 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं।

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366📚Power Generation & DistributionLosses in Transformers

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding losses in transformers?
1. Iron losses in transformers are primarily due to hysteresis and eddy currents in the core material.
2. Hysteresis Loss depends on the core material and the frequency of the supply voltage.
3. Copper losses occur due to the resistance of the transformer windings when current flows through them and are independent of the load.
4. Stray losses are caused by leakage flux inducing eddy currents in parts of the transformer like the tank or other structural components.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because copper loss (

I^2R

) is directly dependent on the load current squared (variable loss). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

कथन 1, 2 और 4 सत्य हैं। कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि कॉपर लॉस भार (

I^2

) पर अत्यधिक निर्भर करता है। अतः 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं।

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367📚Power Generation & DistributionParallel Operation of Alternators

Consider the following statements about the parallel operation of alternators:
1. In parallel operation, alternators must be synchronized in terms of voltage, frequency, and phase sequence to ensure smooth and stable power distribution.
2. It allows multiple machines to share the load which increases the overall power output of the system.
3. Properly synchronized alternators reduce the efficiency of the system due to increased losses.
4. Parallel operation ensures reliability and continuity of power supply.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because parallel operation optimizes machine loading near peak efficiency and permits maintenance without shutdowns. Thus, 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं। कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि समानांतर संचालन प्रणाली की दक्षता और विश्वसनीयता को बढ़ाता है। अतः 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं।

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368📚Taal Shastra & RhythmsKashmiri Literature & Habba Khatoon

The book named Habba Khatoon based on the legendary mystic poetess has been penned down by:

Explanation

The play/book 'Habba Khatoon' highlighting the life of the 16th-century peasant queen and Nightingale of Kashmir was written by Kajal Suri.

प्रसिद्ध कवयित्री हब्बा खातून पर आधारित पुस्तक 'काजल सूरी' (Kajal Suri) द्वारा लिखी गई है।

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369📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryHypoxic Fraction in Solid Tumors

The fraction of hypoxic cells in human tumors has been estimated to be:

Explanation

Radiobiological tumor assays and microelectrode/PET measurements estimate the hypoxic fraction in solid human tumors to typically range between 10% and 15%.

मानव ट्यूमर में हाइपोक्सिक (ऑक्सीजन रहित) कोशिकाओं का अंश आमतौर पर 10-15% आंका गया है।

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370📚Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningImaging Modalities Spatial Resolution

The spatial resolution with MRI is about the same as that obtained with:

Explanation

Standard clinical MRI and multidetector Computed Tomography (CT) both achieve high in-plane spatial resolutions on the order of 0.5 to 1.0 mm, vastly superior to PET/SPECT (4-6 mm).

MRI का स्थानिक विभेदन (Spatial resolution) सीटी स्कैन (CT) के लगभग बराबर (~0.5-1 mm) होता है।

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371📚Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningLaw of Bergonié and Tribondeau

Which type of tissue is most sensitive to ionising radiation?

Explanation

According to the Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau, tissues composed of rapidly proliferating, undifferentiated cells with long mitotic futures (bone marrow, intestinal mucosa, gonadal germ cells) exhibit the highest radiosensitivity.

बर्गुनी और ट्राइबोंड्यू के नियम के अनुसार, तेजी से विभाजित होने वाली कोशिकाओं वाले ऊतक (Tissue with cells that divide quickly) विकिरण के प्रति सर्वाधिक संवेदनशील होते हैं।

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372📚Art History, Visual Movements & Perspective DrawingEuropean Renaissance Art

Which of the following statements about the Renaissance period in art is/are correct?

I. The Renaissance period emphasized realism, perspective, and the human form.
II. The Renaissance artists focused primarily on religious themes, with little regard for classical Greek and Roman influences.
III. Leonardo da Vinci and Michelangelo were major figures of the Renaissance, contributing to its artistic advancements.
IV. The Renaissance art movement emerged in Italy and had a significant influence on the rest of Europe.

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because classical Greek and Roman ideals were central to the Renaissance revival.

कथन I और III सही हैं। पुनर्जागरण काल ने यथार्थवाद, परिप्रेक्ष्य और शास्त्रीय ग्रीक-रोमन आदर्शों को पुनर्जीवित किया।

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373📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyDissertation Section Match

Match the following dissertation sections with their correct descriptions :

Column A:
1. Introduction
2. Literature Review
3. Methodology
4. Conclusion

Column B:
i. Summarizes existing research and identifies gaps in knowledge.
ii. Presents the research methods, data collection, and analysis process used.
iii. Provides an overview of the research problem, objectives and thesis statement.
iv. Discusses the implications of the findings and suggests areas for future research.

Choose the correct options:

Explanation

1-iii (Intro), 2-i (Lit Review), 3-ii (Methodology), 4-iv (Conclusion).

1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।

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374📚Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationPsychometric Measurement Scales

What type of scale is used to measure the degree to which respondents agree or disagree with a statement?

Explanation

A Likert scale is a psychometric response scale (e.g. 1–5 from strongly disagree to strongly agree) measuring attitudes and agreement levels.

कथन से सहमति या असहमति की डिग्री को मापने के लिए लिकर्ट स्केल (Likert scale) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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375📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)ART and Leprosy IRIS

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) on leprosy in HIV co-infected patients:
i. ART initiation can unmask subclinical leprosy infections.
ii. ART reduces the risk of developing leprosy reactions.
iii. ART has no effect on the clinical course of leprosy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Initiating ART can trigger Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS), unmasking subclinical M. leprae infection or triggering Type 1 reversal reactions.

ART शुरू करने से प्रतिरक्षा पुनर्गठन (IRIS) के कारण अव्यक्त कुष्ठ रोग सामने आ सकता है (i only)।

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376📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsCutaneous Larva Migrans

Which of the following is the most characteristic clinical feature of cutaneous larva migrans?

Explanation

Ancylostoma hookworm larvae migrating through the epidermis create advancing, intensely itchy, erythematous snake-like serpiginous tracks.

क्यूटेनियस लार्वा माइग्रेंस का मुख्य लक्षण त्वचा पर अत्यधिक खुजलीदार सर्पिलाकार पटरियां (Serpiginous tracks) हैं।

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377📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologySpecial Stains in Dermatology

Consider the following pairs:
Stain:
i. Hematoxylin and Eosin (H&E)
ii. Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) stain
iii. Fite-Faraco stain
iv. Masson's Trichrome stain

Application:
1. Acid-fast bacilli
2. General tissue structure
3. Collagen fibers
4. Fungal infections

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

H&E -> General tissue structure (2), PAS -> Fungi / basement membrane (4), Fite-Faraco -> M. leprae / AFB (1), Masson Trichrome -> Collagen fibers blue/green (3).

i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3 सही मिलान है।

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378📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyBedside Diagnostic Tests

Consider the following pairs:
Bedside Test:
i. Tzanck smear
ii. KOH preparation
iii. Grattage test
iv. Diascopy

Use:
1. Fungal infections
2. Blanchability of lesions
3. Herpes virus infections
4. Psoriasis diagnosis

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Tzanck smear -> Herpes / Acantholytic cells (3), KOH -> Fungal hyphae (1), Grattage test -> Psoriasis Candle grease/Auspitz sign (4), Diascopy -> Granuloma / Erythema blanchability (2).

i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 सही मिलान है।

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379📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyMicrobiological Media Components

Consider the following pairs:
Component:
i. Peptone
ii. Agar
iii. Salt
iv. Indicator dye

Role in Culture Media:
1. Solidifying agent
2. pH indicator
3. Maintaining osmotic balance
4. Nutrient source

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Peptone -> Amino acid nutrient source (4), Agar -> Inert solidifying agent (1), Salt (NaCl) -> Osmotic balance (3), Indicator dye (e.g. neutral red/phenol red) -> pH indicator (2).

i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2 सही मिलान है।

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380📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyImmunodiagnostic Techniques

Consider the following pairs:
Technique:
i. Direct Immunofluorescence (DIF)
ii. Indirect Immunofluorescence (IIF)
iii. Western Blot
iv. Immunohistochemistry

Purpose:
1. Detection of antibody in serum - two step
2. Detection of proteins, using gel electrophoresis
3. Antigen detection in tissue sections
4. Detecting antibody deposition in tissue - single step

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

DIF -> In vivo tissue antibody deposition (4), IIF -> Circulating serum autoantibodies (1), Western blot -> Size-separated protein detection (2), IHC -> Tissue antigen visualization with enzyme chromogen (3).

i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3 सही मिलान है।

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381📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyMicrobiological Stains Match

Consider the following pairs:
Stain/staining method:
i. Gram stain
ii. Ziehl-Neelsen staining
iii. India ink stain
iv. Giemsa stain

Microorganism Identified:
1. Cryptococcus neoformans
2. Streptococcus
3. Malaria parasites
4. Mycobacterium species

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Gram stain -> Streptococcus (2), Ziehl-Neelsen -> Mycobacterium (4), India ink -> Cryptococcus negative capsule (1), Giemsa -> Leishmania / Plasmodium malaria (3).

i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3 सही मिलान है।

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382📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyCulture Media Applications

Consider the following pairs:
Culture Media:
i. Sabouraud's agar
ii. MacConkey agar
iii. Löwenstein-Jensen medium
iv. Blood agar

Primary Use:
1. Fungal infections
2. Growth of most bacteria
3. Enteric bacteria
4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Sabouraud's (SDA) -> Fungi (1), MacConkey -> Gram-negative enteric bacilli (3), LJ medium -> M. tuberculosis (4), Blood agar -> Non-fastidious bacteria & hemolysis (2).

i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2 सही मिलान है।

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383📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyTzanck Smear Cytodiagnosis

Consider the following statements regarding the Tzanck smear test:
i. It is used to detect acantholytic cells in conditions like pemphigus vulgaris.
ii. It can be used for the diagnosis of herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus infections.
iii. A specific stain, such as Giemsa or Wright's stain, is applied to the smear.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct. Tzanck smear visualizes rounded acantholytic Tzanck cells in pemphigus and multinucleated epithelial giant cells with viral inclusions in HSV/VZV.

कथन i, ii, और iii तीनों सही हैं (त्ज़ांक स्मीयर पेम्फिगस में एकैंथोलिटिक कोशिकाओं और हर्पीस में विशालकाय कोशिकाओं की पहचान करता है)।

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384📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesKOH Mount Examination

Consider the following statements about the KOH preparation test:
i. Skin scrapings, hair, or nail samples may be examined using this test.
ii. The test relies on the ability of potassium hydroxide to dissolve keratin and leave fungal hyphae intact.
iii. A positive KOH test is definitive for a bacterial infection.
iv. Clusters of yeast with short mycelial forms are diagnostic of dermatophytosis

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and ii are correct. Statement iii is false (KOH tests for fungal elements); Statement iv is false (spaghetti and meatball pattern is diagnostic of Pityriasis versicolor / Malassezia, not dermatophytes).

कथन i और ii सही हैं। KOH केराटिन को घोलकर फंगल हाइफे को स्पष्ट दिखाता है।

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385📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesMacConkey Agar Principles

Consider the following statements regarding MacConkey agar:
i. It is a selective medium used to isolate Gram-negative bacilli.
ii. The presence of lactose in the medium allows differentiation between lactose fermenters and non-fermenters.
iii. Growth of Gram positive bacteria and Gram negative cocci is inhibited in the medium due to bile salts and dyes

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct. MacConkey agar uses bile salts and crystal violet to inhibit Gram-positives while differentiating lactose fermenters (pink colonies) from non-fermenters (pale).

कथन i, ii, और iii तीनों सही हैं।

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386📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesSabouraud Dextrose Agar

Consider the following statements about Sabouraud's dextrose agar (SDA):
i. It is a commonly used medium for the cultivation of fungi.
ii. The high glucose concentration and modified peptone inhibit bacterial growth.
iii. Antibacterial agents like chloramphenicol are often added to further suppress bacterial contamination.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct. SDA features low pH (5.6), 4% dextrose, and added chloramphenicol/gentamicin to selectively culture pathogenic fungi.

कथन i, ii, और iii तीनों सही हैं।

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387📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesCryptococcus Diagnosis

Consider the following statements regarding Cryptococcus neoformans:
i. India ink preparation is a rapid diagnostic method to identify Cryptococcus neoformans in cerebrospinal fluid.
ii. On histopathological examination, mucicarmine stain highlights the capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans.
iii. Sabouraud's dextrose agar can be used for culturing Cryptococcus neoformans.
iv. Gram staining is the most specific method for identifying Cryptococcus neoformans.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is false because Gram staining is non-specific for encapsulated yeast.

कथन i, ii, और iii सही हैं (इंडिया इंक और म्यूसीकारमाइन स्टेन से कैप्सूल पहचाना जाता है)।

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388📚Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement

Fill in the blank with the correct option.
I really hope _______ our first dance performance.

Explanation

Indefinite pronoun 'Everyone' is grammatically singular and takes the singular verb 'enjoys'.

'Everyone' एकवचन कर्ता है, इसलिए एकवचन क्रिया 'enjoys' आएगी।

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389📚Basic EnglishAuxiliary & Modal Verbs

Fill in the blank with the correct choice of helping verb.
You _______ stay here and take care of the dogs while we are away for the weekend.

Explanation

'You are to' expresses an obligation, instruction, or scheduled directive for second-person 'you'.

'You are to stay here' (निर्देश या दायित्व दर्शाने के लिए 'are to' का प्रयोग होता है)।

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390📚Basic EnglishCollective Nouns Agreement

Which of the following verbs fits the sentence and agrees with the subject ?
The top management _______ divided on their suggestions regarding investment strategies.

Explanation

When a collective noun ('management') acts as individuals with conflicting views (indicated by plural pronoun 'their'), it takes a plural verb: 'were/are divided'.

जब समूह के सदस्य विभाजित हों (देयर सजेशन्स), तो बहुवचन क्रिया 'Are/were' का प्रयोग होता है।

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391📚Basic EnglishInversion Rule

Which part of the given sentence has an error.
Hardly he likes/to hear my name/after the rift which occurred/between him and me.

Explanation

When a sentence begins with the negative limiting adverb 'Hardly', subject-auxiliary inversion is mandatory: 'Hardly does he like...'.

नकारात्मक क्रियाविशेषण 'Hardly' से वाक्य शुरू होने पर इनवर्जन होता है: 'Hardly does he like'। अतः भाग A में त्रुटि है।

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392📚Basic EnglishOne-Word Substitution

Select the most appropriate word which means the same as the group of words given below.
"Extreme mental or physical suffering"

Explanation

'Agony' denotes extreme, intense physical pain or mental anguish.

अत्यधिक शारीरिक या मानसिक पीड़ा को 'Agony' (यातना/व्यथा) कहा जाता है।

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393📚Basic EnglishLinking Verbs Adjectives

Which part of the above sentence has an error?
I felt happily/to learn that his/ younger brother had got/a prestigious job in the bank.

Explanation

'Feel' is a linking verb of sensation that takes a predicate adjective ('I felt happy'), not an adverb ('happily').

लिंकिंग वर्ब 'felt' के बाद विशेषण 'happy' आना चाहिए, न कि क्रियाविशेषण 'happily'। भाग A में त्रुटि है।

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394📚Basic EnglishInvariable Plural Nouns

Choose the incorrect sentence from the given options.

Explanation

The noun 'aircraft' is an invariable plural (the plural form is 'aircraft', never 'aircrafts').

'Aircraft' का बहुवचन भी 'aircraft' ही होता है, 'aircrafts' लिखना गलत है। वाक्य A अशुद्ध है।

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395📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsHVAC Tools & Equipment

Arrange the following AC repair tools in order of price (lowest to highest).
1. Refrigerant Gauge Set
2. Digital Thermometer
3. Vacuum Pump
4. Refrigerant Recovery Machine
5. Manifold Gauge Set
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Tool price progression (lowest to highest): Digital Thermometer (2) -> Gauge Sets (5/1) -> Rotary Vane Vacuum Pump (3) -> Commercial Refrigerant Recovery Machine (4).

मूल्य का बढ़ता क्रम: डिजिटल थर्मामीटर (2) -> गेज सेट -> वैक्यूम पंप (3) -> रेफ्रिजरेंट रिकवरी मशीन (4)। सही विकल्प B है।

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396📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsVCR Cycle Thermodynamic States

Match the List-I with the List-II and select the correct one.
List-I:
i. Saturated liquid
ii. Superheated vapour
iii. High pressure
iv. Dry saturated vapour

List-II:
1. Before entering the compressor
2. Before passing the condenser
3. Before entering the expansion valve
4. After passing through condenser

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

In a standard VCR cycle: Saturated liquid = exiting condenser (i-4); Superheated vapour = discharge before condenser (ii-2); High pressure = high side before expansion valve (iii-3); Dry saturated vapour = exiting evaporator before compressor (iv-1).

i-4 (कंडेनसर के बाद संतृप्त तरल), ii-2 (कंडेनसर से पहले सुपरहीटेड वाष्प), iii-3 (एक्सपेंशन वाल्व से पहले उच्च दाब), iv-1 (कम्प्रेसर से पहले शुष्क वाष्प)। सही उत्तर B है।

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397📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsModern HVAC Technologies

Match the new air conditioning technologies with their descriptions.
AC Technology:
i. Inverter Technology
ii. Smart AC
iii. Variable Refrigerant Flow
iv. Portable AC

Feature:
1. Reduces energy consumption by adjusting compressor speed.
2. Allows remote control via smartphones, voice assistants, and AI.
3. Distributes refrigerant to multiple indoor units, maintaining efficiency.
4. Compact and mobile unit for cooling smaller spaces.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Inverter -> Variable compressor speed (i-1), Smart AC -> IoT/Smartphone control (ii-2), VRF -> Multi-split zoned refrigerant distribution (iii-3), Portable AC -> Mobile compact cooling (iv-4).

i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4 सही मिलान है।

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398📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsIndustrial Safety & Fire Fighting

Which of the following statements are true regarding industrial safety and fire fighting in occupational health?
1. Industrial safety focuses on the prevention of injuries and accidents in the workplace.
2. Fire fighting techniques are primarily concerned with preventing damage to machinery.
3. Occupational health safety includes physical, chemical, and biological hazards at the work-place.
4. Fire safety measures in an industrial setting do not require employee training.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Fire safety prioritizes preservation of human life over machinery, and employee training is mandatory.

कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं (औद्योगिक सुरक्षा चोटों की रोकथाम पर केंद्रित है और व्यावसायिक स्वास्थ्य में भौतिक/रासायनिक खतरे शामिल हैं)।

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399📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsBell-Coleman Cycle Processes

Match List-I (Process) with List-II (Type) for air refrigeration cycle and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I:
i. Compression
ii. Heat rejection
iii. Expansion
iv. Heat absorption

List-II:
1. Isobaric
2. Isothermal
3. Isentropic
4. Isenthalpic

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

In the standard Bell-Coleman / Reversed Brayton air cycle: Compression = Isentropic (

s=\text{const}

, i-3); Heat rejection = Isobaric (

P=\text{const}

, ii-1); Expansion = Isentropic (

s=\text{const}

, iii-3); Heat absorption = Isobaric (

P=\text{const}

, iv-1).

बेल-कोलमैन वायु चक्र में: संपीड़न और विस्तार आइसेंट्रोपिक (3) होते हैं, और ऊष्मा विनिमय समदाबीय (1) होता है। सही उत्तर B है।

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400📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsAC Capacity Classification

Arrange the following AC systems in ascending order of cooling capacity (BTU/h).
1. Portable Air Conditioner
2. Window Air Conditioner
3. Split Air Conditioner
4. Central Air Conditioning System
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Ascending cooling capacity: Portable AC (8,000–14,000 BTU/h, 1) -> Window AC (9,000–24,000 BTU/h, 2) -> Split AC (12,000–36,000 BTU/h, 3) -> Central AC (60,000 to >500,000 BTU/h, 4).

शीतलन क्षमता का बढ़ता क्रम: पोर्टेबल एसी (1) -> विंडो एसी (2) -> स्प्लिट एसी (3) -> सेंट्रल एसी (4)।

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401📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsLaws of Thermodynamics

Consider the following statements
1. First law of thermodynamics states that energy is conserved
2. The second law of thermodynamics state that though energy is conserved its quality improves.
3. The second law of thermodynamics states that though energy is conserved its quality degrades.
4. First law of thermodynamics can tell about the feasibility of the process
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The First Law states conservation of energy; the Second Law states that in any spontaneous real process, entropy increases and energy quality degrades (exergy destruction).

कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं (प्रथम नियम ऊर्जा संरक्षण बताता है और द्वितीय नियम ऊर्जा की गुणवत्ता में गिरावट/एंट्रॉपी वृद्धि बताता है)।

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402📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsDuct Design Methods

Which of the following method (s) is/are adopted in the design of air duct system?
1. Velocity reduction method
2. Equal friction method
3. Static regain method
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation

The three standard engineering methods for sizing HVAC ductwork systems are: Velocity Reduction, Equal Friction, and Static Regain.

एयर डक्ट डिजाइन के लिए वेलोसिटी रिडक्शन, इक्वल फ्रिक्शन और स्टैटिक रिगेन तीनों विधियों (1, 2 and 3) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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403📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsStart Capacitors & Single Phase Motors

Why is a starting capacitor used in the electrical circuit of a deep freezer?

Explanation

A start capacitor creates an auxiliary phase displacement approaching

90^\circ

to provide high initial starting torque for compressor startup against differential head pressure.

डीप फ्रीजर में स्टार्टिंग कैपेसिटर का उपयोग शुरुआती टॉर्क बढ़ाने (Increase starting torque) के लिए किया जाता है।

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404📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsElectrical Transformers & Inverters

Identify the correct pairings of transformer types and their applications.
1. Auto transformer - Used for voltage regulation in large power systems.
2. Current transformer - Used for measuring current in high voltage circuits.
3. Potential transformer - Used in AC transmission to step up voltage.
4. Three-phase inverter - Used in electrical systems to convert AC to DC.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Potential transformers are instrument transformers stepping down high voltage for metering; inverters convert DC to AC.

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं। पोटेंशियल ट्रांसफार्मर वोल्टेज मापने के लिए स्टेप डाउन करता है, और इन्वर्टर DC को AC में बदलता है।

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405📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsRefrigerant Lubricant Miscibility

Match List-I (Refrigerant) with List-II (miscibility with oil) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I:
i. R-11
ii. CO2
iii. R-22

List-II:
1. Partial miscibility
2. Good miscibility
3. No miscibility

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Refrigerant oil miscibility: R-11 / R-12 (CFCs) = Fully miscible with mineral oil (2);

CO_2

= Non-miscible with standard mineral oil (3); R-22 (HCFC) = Partially miscible (1).

i-2 (R-11 = पूर्ण घुलनशील), ii-3 (

CO_2

= अघुलनशील), iii-1 (R-22 = आंशिक घुलनशील)। सही उत्तर A है।

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406📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsCooling Energy Efficiency Hierarchy

Arrange the cooling technologies in descending order of energy efficiency.
1. Air-source heat pump
2. Water-cooled chiller
3. Evaporative cooling system
4. Ground-source heat pump
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Theoretical and seasonal COP hierarchy: Ground-Source Heat Pump (COP 4.5–6.0, 4) > High-efficiency Water-Cooled Chiller (COP 4.0–5.5, 2) > Air-Source Heat Pump (COP 3.0–4.0, 1) > Direct Evaporative Cooling (3).

ऊर्जा दक्षता का घटता क्रम: ग्राउंड-सोर्स हीट पंप (4) -> वाटर-कूल्ड चिलर (2) -> एयर-सोर्स हीट पंप (1) -> इवेपोरेटिव कूलिंग (3)। सही उत्तर C है।

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407📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsComfort Design Temperatures

Match List-I (optimum design condition for comfort) with List-II (parameter value) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I:
i. Effective temperature for Summer A/C
ii. Effective temperature for Winter A/C
iii. DBT for summer A/C

List-II:
1. 22 (°C)
2. 21.7 (°C)
3. 25 (°C)

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

ASHRAE standard comfort parameters: Summer Effective Temperature

\approx 21.7^\circ\text{C}

(i-2), Winter Effective Temperature

\approx 20^\circ\text{C}-22^\circ\text{C}

(ii-1), Summer Design DBT

\approx 24^\circ\text{C}-25^\circ\text{C}

(iii-3).

i-2, ii-1, iii-3 सही मिलान है।

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408📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsThermal Insulation Properties

Which of the following correctly describes thermal insulation types and their properties?
1. Fiberglass insulation is known for its high thermal conductivity and is primarily used for soundproofing.
2. Mineral wool insulation provides both thermal and fire resistance.
3. Aerogel insulation has one of the lowest thermal conductivities, making it ideal for extreme conditions.
4. Spray foam insulation is often used in industrial applications due to its low durability.
Which of the statement is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Fiberglass has low (not high) thermal conductivity, and spray foam insulation possesses high durability.

कथन 2 और 3 सही हैं (खनिज ऊन थर्मल और अग्नि प्रतिरोध प्रदान करती है, और एरोगेल में सबसे कम तापीय चालकता होती है)।

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409📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsAir Handling Equipment

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I:
i. Fans
ii. Blowers
iii. Air washer

List-II:
1. System that increases air pressure and forces air through ducts.
2. Device that regulates the flow of air and ensures proper ventilation
3. Equipment used to cool, humidify, and clean the air through water spraying.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Fans -> Low-pressure air circulation/ventilation (i-2); Blowers -> Higher-pressure centrifugal air propulsion through ductwork (ii-1); Air washer -> Chamber cooling, humidifying, and cleaning air via water spray (iii-3).

i-2, ii-1, iii-3 सही मिलान है।

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410📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsCooling Tower Classifications

Match List-I (types of cooling tower) with List-II (operation) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I:
i. Natural draft
ii. Induced draft
iii. Forced draft
iv. Cross flow

List-II:
1. Fan is installed centrally at the top
2. Based on free convection heat transfer
3. Hot water sprayed from the top
4. An exhaust fan placed at the base

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Natural draft -> Chimney effect / Free convection (i-2); Induced draft -> Suction fan mounted on top discharge (ii-1); Forced draft -> Blower fan mounted at the base intake (iii-4); Cross flow -> Air flows horizontally while water sprays vertically (iv-3).

i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 सही मिलान है।

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411📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsPressure Regulating Valves

Arrange the following pressure control valves in ascending order based on their setpoint pressures:
1. Back-pressure regulator
2. Relief valve
3. Pressure-reducing valve
4. Pressure-relief switch
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Ascending setpoint pressure order: Pressure-reducing regulator (low side, 3) -> Evaporator back-pressure regulator (1) -> High-pressure cutout switch (4) -> Mechanical emergency relief valve (highest safety margin, 2).

प्रेशर सेटपॉइंट का बढ़ता क्रम: प्रेशर-रिड्यूसिंग वाल्व (3) -> बैक-प्रेशर रेगुलेटर (1) -> प्रेशर-रिलीफ स्विच (4) -> रिलीफ सेफ्टी वाल्व (2)। सही क्रम B है।

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412📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsRefrigerator Fault Diagnosis

Match List -I (Refrigerator problems) with List-II (possible reason) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I:
i. Uneven Cooling
ii. Excessive Frost Buildup
iii. Water Leakage
iv. Door Seal Problems

List-II:
1. Faulty defrost system
2. Blocked air vents
3. Cracks or tears on gasket
4. Clogs formation or leaks

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Uneven cooling -> Blocked vents (i-2), Excessive frost -> Faulty defrost heater/bi-metal (ii-1), Water leakage -> Clogged drain hole (iii-4), Door seal issues -> Torn gasket (iv-3).

i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 सही मिलान है।

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413📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesRefrigerants GWP Hierarchy

Arrange the refrigerants in descending order of Global Warming Potential (GWP).
1. R-410A
2. R-134a
3. R-22
4. R-32
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

IPCC GWP values (100-year): R-410A (2088, 1) > R-22 (1810, 3) > R-134a (1430, 2) > R-32 (675, 4).

ग्लोबल वार्मिंग क्षमता (GWP) का घटता क्रम: R-410A (2088) -> R-22 (1810) -> R-134a (1430) -> R-32 (675)। सही क्रम C है।

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414📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesExpansion Device Capacities

Arrange the following refrigerant flow control devices in descending order of their capacity to handle flow rate:
1. Solenoid valve
2. Capillary tube
3. Thermostatic expansion valve (TXV)
4. Electronic expansion valve (EEV)
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Flow capacity hierarchy: Electronic Expansion Valve (EEV, up to hundreds of tons, 4) > Large Industrial TXVs (3) > Pilot Solenoid Valves (1) > Capillary Tube (fractional HP systems <2 tons, 2).

प्रवाह दर क्षमता का घटता क्रम: इलेक्ट्रॉनिक एक्सपेंशन वाल्व (4) -> थर्मोस्टेटिक एक्सपेंशन वाल्व (3) -> सोलेनोइड वाल्व (1) -> कैपिलरी ट्यूब (2)।

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415📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesPTC Thermistors

Which of the following statements about PTC thermistors is/are true?
I. Resistance increases with an increase in temperature.
II. They are used in overcurrent protection circuits.
III. PTC thermistors are not used for temperature sensing in cold climates.
IV. They have a negative temperature coefficient.
Which of the above statement are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and II are true. PTC (Positive Temperature Coefficient) thermistors exhibit sharp resistance increase at switching temperature, making them ideal as solid-state motor starters and resettable overcurrent fuses.

कथन I और II सही हैं (PTC थर्मिस्टर का प्रतिरोध तापमान बढ़ने पर बढ़ता है और यह ओवरकरंट सुरक्षा और मोटर स्टार्टिंग में प्रयुक्त होता है)।

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416📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesVariable Frequency Drives

Which of the following statements regarding Variable Frequency Drives (VFDs) is/are correct?
I. VFDs are used to control the speed of induction motors.
II. VFDs allow for precise motor speed control without mechanical systems.
III. VFDs change the motor's frequency to adjust its speed.
IV. VFDs are typically used only in HVAC systems.
Which of the above statement are correct?

Explanation

Statements I, II, and III are correct. Motor speed

N = \frac{120f}{P}

; VFDs vary frequency and voltage across industrial automation, pumps, and elevators (not only HVAC).

कथन I, II, और III सही हैं (VFDs आवृत्ति बदलकर मोटर गति को नियंत्रित करते हैं)।

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417📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesVCR Cycle Temperature Profiles

Arrange the temperature in ascending order for a vapor-compression refrigeration cycle:
1. Condensing temperature range (°C)
2. Evaporating temperature range (°C)
3. Superheat temperature range (°C)
4. Subcooling temperature range (°C)
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Ascending cycle temperature: Evaporating temperature (e.g.

-10^\circ\text{C}

, 2) < Subcooling liquid temperature (e.g.

+35^\circ\text{C}

, 4) < Condensing saturation temperature (e.g.

+45^\circ\text{C}

, 1) < Compressor discharge superheat temperature (e.g.

+80^\circ\text{C}

, 3).

तापमान का बढ़ता क्रम: इवेपोरेटिंग (2) -> सब-कूलिंग (4) -> कंडेंसिंग (1) -> सुपरहीट डिस्चार्ज (3)। सही क्रम B है।

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418📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesService Tool Physical Hierarchy

Arrange the following refrigeration and air conditioning repair tools by size (smallest to largest).
1. Multimeter
2. Refrigerant Recovery Machine
3. Vacuum Pump
4. Leak Detector
5. Brazing Torch
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Physical tool size progression: Digital Multimeter (1) -> Electronic Leak Detector (4) -> Oxy-MAPP Brazing Torch kit (5) -> Dual-stage Vacuum Pump (3) -> Refrigerant Recovery Machine (2).

उपकरणों का आकार के अनुसार बढ़ता क्रम: मल्टीमीटर (1) -> लीक डिटेक्टर (4) -> ब्रेजिंग टॉर्च (5) -> वैक्यूम पंप (3) -> रिकवरी मशीन (2)।

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419📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesAC Piping Tools Match

Match the tool used in AC system with their function and select the correct answer.
Tool:
1. Tube Bender
2. Pressure Test Kit
3. Nitrogen Regulator
4. Flare Tool

Functions:
i. To flush refrigerant line
ii. Curving a tube in an AC
iii. Detects leaks in an AC
iv. Cut the copper pipe

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Tube Bender -> Curving tubing (1-ii); Pressure Test Kit -> Leak detection under high pressure (2-iii); Nitrogen Regulator -> Regulating inert gas line flushing/pressure testing (3-i); Flare Tool -> Flaring tube ends (4-iv/form flare).

1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv सही मिलान है।

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420📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsHVAC Maintenance Tools

Match the tool with the AC system component and select the correct one.
Tool:
1. Multimeter
2. Refrigerant Gauge Set
3. Wrench
4. Vacuum Pump

Function:
i. Tightening or loosening bolts and screws
ii. Measuring electrical current, voltage, and resistance
iii. Charging and checking refrigerant levels in the system
iv. Removing air and moisture from the refrigerant system

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Multimeter -> Electrical testing (1-ii), Gauge set -> Pressure/charging (2-iii), Wrench -> Fastening (3-i), Vacuum pump -> Evacuation (4-iv).

1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv सही मिलान है।

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421📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsMaterial Thermal Limits

Arrange the following materials by their max operating temp in descending order:
1. Fiberglass
2. PVC Louvers
3. Aluminum Alloy Fan Blades
4. Stainless Steel Fasteners
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Continuous service temperature hierarchy: Stainless Steel 316/304 (

>800^\circ\text{C}

, 4) > High-temperature Fiberglass (

>500^\circ\text{C}

, 1) > Aluminum Alloy (

200^\circ\text{C}-250^\circ\text{C}

, 3) > Rigid PVC (

60^\circ\text{C}-70^\circ\text{C}

, 2).

अधिकतम ऑपरेटिंग तापमान का घटता क्रम: स्टेनलेस स्टील (4) -> फाइबरग्लास (1) -> एल्युमिनियम मिश्र धातु (3) -> पीवीसी लवर्स (2)। सही क्रम B है।

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422📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsHVAC Electrical & Charging Tools

Match the tool with the part it is used to repair and select the correct one.
Tool:
1. Clamp Meter
2. Refrigerant Scale
3. Refrigerant Injector
4. A/C Hose Connector

Part of AC System:
i. Condenser or Compressor
ii. Evaporator Coil
iii. Measures refrigerant weight and amount.
iv. Checks current flow

Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Clamp meter -> Measures AC motor current draw (1-iv); Refrigerant scale -> Precision charging by weight (2-iii); Oil/Dye injector -> Oil delivery to evaporator/lines (3-ii); Hose connectors -> Servicing compressor service ports (4-i).

1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i सही मिलान है।

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423📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsPressure Switch Setpoints

Arrange the following pressure control devices in ascending order based on their typical operating pressure range:
1. Evaporator pressure regulator
2. Condenser pressure regulator
3. High-pressure cutout switch
4. Low-pressure cutout switch
Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

Ascending operating setpoint pressures: Low-pressure cutout (0.5–2 bar, 4) -> Evaporator pressure regulator (2–5 bar, 1) -> Condenser pressure regulator (10–16 bar, 2) -> High-pressure cutout switch (18–28 bar, 3).

ऑपरेटिंग दबाव का बढ़ता क्रम: लो-प्रेशर कटआउट (4) -> इवेपोरेटर रेगुलेटर (1) -> कंडेनसर रेगुलेटर (2) -> हाई-प्रेशर कटआउट (3)। सही क्रम B है।

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424📚Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksASD Definition

Which one is true about ASD?

Explanation

ASD stands for Autism Spectrum Disorder, a neurodevelopmental condition characterized by persistent challenges in social interaction, verbal/non-verbal communication, and repetitive restricted behaviors.

ASD का पूर्ण रूप ऑटिज्म स्पेक्ट्रम डिसऑर्डर (Autism Spectrum Disorder) है।

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425📚Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksSpecial Education Terminology

The term mental retardation is replaced with which term?

Explanation

In modern clinical diagnostic manuals (DSM-5, ICD-11) and the RPwD Act 2016, the outdated stigmatizing term 'Mental Retardation' has been officially replaced with 'Intellectual Disability'.

'मानसिक मंदता' (Mental Retardation) शब्द को आधुनिक शब्दावली में 'बौद्धिक दिव्यांगता' (Intellectual Disability) से प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है।

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426📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsPsychological Testing in CWSN

Vithoda paknikar Performance test is a type of

Explanation

The Vithoda-Paknikar Performance Test of Intelligence is a standardized non-verbal performance battery designed to evaluate cognitive abilities in deaf, non-speaking, or illiterate subjects.

विठोदा पक्निकर परफॉर्मेंस टेस्ट एक अशाब्दिक/क्रियात्मक बुद्धि परीक्षण (Non-Verbal / Performance test) है।

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427📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsRPwD Act Chapters

In which chapter of the Rights of Persons with disabilities Act / 2016, has been talk about the education?

Explanation

Chapter III (Sections 16, 17, and 18) of the RPwD Act 2016 is titled 'Education' and mandates inclusive education, non-discrimination, accessible transport, and free education up to 18 years for benchmark disabilities.

RPwD अधिनियम 2016 का अध्याय 3 (Chapter 3) विशेष रूप से दिव्यांगजनों की 'शिक्षा' से संबंधित है।

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428📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesClassroom Communication

The nature of interaction in classroom is -

Explanation

Classroom communication involves verbal transactions (lectures, questions) and non-verbal cues (gestures, eye contact, facial expressions).

कक्षा में संवाद की प्रकृति शाब्दिक और अशाब्दिक (Verbal and non-verbal) दोनों होती है।

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429📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesGardner's Multiple Intelligences

Multiple Intelligence theory was given by

Explanation

Howard Gardner proposed the Theory of Multiple Intelligences in 1983, identifying 8 distinct intelligence modalities (linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, musical, interpersonal, intrapersonal, naturalistic).

बहु-बुद्धि सिद्धांत (Multiple Intelligence theory) हॉवर्ड गार्डनर (Howard Gardner) द्वारा दिया गया था।

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430📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationTechnology in Language Learning

What is the role of technology in language teaching?

Explanation

Educational technology serves to supplement pedagogical instruction with interactive multimodal tools, phonics software, and engaging authentic resources.

भाषा शिक्षण में प्रौद्योगिकी का उपयोग पूरक संसाधन और इंटरैक्टिव आकर्षक गतिविधियाँ प्रदान करने के लिए किया जाता है।

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431📚Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesWriting Behavioral Objectives

Which of the following is an example of a well - written learning objective?

Explanation

A properly written Mager/Bloom learning objective is student-centered and contains an observable, measurable action verb: 'Students will be able to identify...'.

एक सुस्पष्ट अधिगम उद्देश्य मापने योग्य क्रिया से युक्त होता है: 'छात्र मानसून के मुख्य कारणों की पहचान करने में सक्षम होंगे'।

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432📚Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlInternational Environmental Conventions

Which international agreement regulates the movement and disposal of hazardous waste across borders?

Explanation

The Basel Convention (1989) on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal regulates international transfers of toxic and electronic wastes.

खतरनाक कचरे के अंतरराष्ट्रीय सीमा-पार संचलन और निपटान को नियंत्रित करने वाली संधि बेसल कन्वेंशन (Basel Convention) है।

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433📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesNutritional Anemias

A 35-year-old male presents with fatigue, muscle weakness, and anemia. His diet has been low in meat, and laboratory tests show a low serum vitamin B 12 level. What condition is this individual most likely suffering from?

Explanation

Dietary Vitamin B12 deficiency (common in strict vegans) impairs DNA synthesis, producing macrocytic/megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

विटामिन B12 की कमी के कारण होने वाला रक्त विकार मेगालोब्लास्टिक एनीमिया (Megaloblastic anemia) है।

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434📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHSanitary Inspector Duties

Consider the following statement:
In the context of environmental health, a sanitary inspector in India would typically be involved in:
i. Ensuring that proper waste disposal and sewage systems are in place
ii. Monitoring air pollution levels in urban areas
iii. Developing infrastructure for new factories and roads
iv. Conducting sanitation audits for public health facilities

Which of the following statement is/are correct?

Explanation

Sanitary inspectors monitor municipal solid waste/sewage systems (i), ambient pollution surveillance (ii), and hygiene audits of public facilities (iv); road/factory civil construction (iii) belongs to civil engineering.

कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं।

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435📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHLegal Powers of Sanitary Inspectors

Consider the following statement:
What are the primary legal powers of a sanitary inspector in relation to public sanitation?
i. The ability to issue fines for non-compliance with sanitation standards
ii. The ability to provide legal advice to business owners on sanitation laws
iii. The authority to close down establishments found to violate health codes
iv. The ability to prescribe medication to patients in foodborne illness cases

Which of the following statement is/are correct?

Explanation

Sanitary inspectors hold legal executive powers to issue statutory improvement notices/fines (i) and seal/close down insanitary commercial food premises (iii); they cannot prescribe medicines (iv) or serve as private legal counsel (ii).

सेनेटरी इंस्पेक्टर के पास जुर्माना लगाने और अस्वच्छ प्रतिष्ठानों को सील/बंद करने का अधिकार (i and iii) होता है।

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436📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Snakebites

A person has been bitten by a venomous snake. What is the most important first aid step before getting medical help?

Explanation

Standard snakebite first aid (Right Care protocol): Keep the patient calm, immobilize the bitten limb using a broad splint, maintain the limb at or slightly below heart level, and transport immediately to a hospital (never cut, suck, or apply arterial tourniquets).

सांप के काटने पर पीड़ित अंग को स्थिर रखना और हृदय के स्तर पर या उससे नीचे (Immobilized and at/below heart level) रखकर तुरंत अस्पताल पहुंचाना सबसे जरूरी है।

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437📚Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesPreventive Conservation Definition

What is preventive conservation?

Explanation

Preventive conservation comprises all indirect measures and actions aimed at avoiding, mitigating, and minimizing future deterioration or loss of cultural heritage artifacts through environmental control, storage, handling, and security.

निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive conservation) सांस्कृतिक विरासत और कलाकृतियों के क्षरण, क्षति और नुकसान को रोकने की समग्र रणनीति (Strategy to prevent deterioration of artifacts) है।

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438📚Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsClinical Remission vs Cure

When all signs and symptoms of the disease have disappeared in the body, but it does not indicate that the disease has been cured, is referred to as

Explanation

Complete remission (e.g. in oncology or autoimmune diseases) indicates the total absence of detectable clinical symptoms and lesions, though malignant or dormant cells may persist with risk of future relapse.

जब किसी बीमारी के सभी लक्षण पूरी तरह गायब हो जाते हैं लेकिन स्थायी इलाज की पुष्टि नहीं होती, तो इसे 'पूर्ण शमन' (Complete remission) कहा जाता है।

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439📚Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsNon-Probability Sampling Techniques

In a study exploring the impact of support groups on the mental health parents of children with cerebral palsy. Researchers rely on existing support group members to refer earlier support group members. This is an example of

Explanation

Snowball (chain-referral) sampling is a non-probability sampling method where existing study participants recruit or refer future subjects from their acquaintance network.

जब शोधकर्ता मौजूदा प्रतिभागियों के माध्यम से नए प्रतिभागियों तक पहुंचते हैं, तो इसे 'स्नोबॉल नमूनाकरण' (Snowball sampling / चेन रेफरल) कहा जाता है।

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440📚Experimental Designs, Psychological Assessment & PsychometricsPsychological Test Adaptations

If a non-verbal general mental ability test like the standard progressive matrices needs to be adapted for persons with visual impairment, which sensory modality it would be best adapted to?

Explanation

Raven's Standard Progressive Matrices are adapted for visually impaired individuals into tactile formats with raised relief textures and embossed geometric matrices.

दृष्टिबाधित व्यक्तियों के लिए गैर-मौखिक बुद्धि परीक्षणों (जैसे प्रोग्रेसिव मैट्रिसेस) को 'स्पर्शनीय' (Tactile / उभरी हुई आकृतियों) प्रारूप में रूपांतरित किया जाता है।

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441📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsOrigins of Cognitive Therapy

Aaron Beck's earliest work on cognitive therapy was conceptualized on which mental health condition?

Explanation

Aaron T. Beck initially developed Cognitive Therapy in the early 1960s based on his clinical research identifying automatic negative cognitive triads (self, world, future) in patients with Depression.

हारून बेक (Aaron Beck) ने संज्ञानात्मक थेरेपी (Cognitive Therapy) का मूल विकास 'अवसाद' (Depression) के उपचार के लिए किया था।

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442📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsCouples and Family Therapy Modalities

In couples therapy, sessions where both partners are invited to appear together is known as

Explanation

A conjoint session in marital/couples counseling is a clinical meeting where both partners are seen and treated together in the same therapeutic space by the therapist.

दंपति चिकित्सा (Couples therapy) में जब दोनों साथी एक साथ सत्र में उपस्थित होते हैं, तो उसे 'संयुक्त सत्र' (Conjoint session) कहा जाता है।

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443📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsAddiction Rehabilitation & Relapse Prevention

The phrase "Once an alcoholic, always an alcoholic" in alcohol addicts points towards a focus on what aspect of rehabilitation counselling?

Explanation

The disease model and traditional 12-step recovery recognize substance dependence as a chronic recurring vulnerability, focusing counseling intensely on lifelong Relapse Prevention strategies.

शराब की लत में यह कहावत 'पुनरावृत्ति रोकथाम' (Relapse prevention) की निरंतर आवश्यकता पर बल देती है।

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444📚Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Contemporary Exposure Modalities

Which of these exposure-based interventions is the most contemporary?

Explanation

Virtual Reality Exposure Therapy (VRET) is the most contemporary, technologically advanced exposure paradigm, immersing clients in controlled, interactive computer-generated virtual environments.

एक्सपोजर थेरेपी में सबसे आधुनिक और समकालीन तकनीक 'वर्चुअल रियलिटी थेरेपी' (Virtual reality therapy / VRET) है।

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445📚General English & ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement

Identify the error in the following sentence:
The number of students in the class are increasing every year.

Explanation

The expression 'The number of...' takes a singular verb. Therefore, 'are' is grammatically incorrect and must be replaced by 'is'.

'The number of...' के साथ एकवचन क्रिया (is) का प्रयोग होता है, अतः 'are' गलत है।

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446📚General English & ComprehensionReported Speech Tense Shift

Choose the grammatically correct sentence:

Explanation

In reported indirect speech with a past reporting verb ('said'), 'will' changes to 'would': 'He said he would come tomorrow'.

अप्रत्यक्ष कथन में past reporting verb के कारण 'will' बदलकर 'would' हो जाता है।

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447📚General English & ComprehensionSubjunctive Mood

She insisted that he _______ (attend) the meeting despite his busy schedule.

Explanation

Verbs of demand or insistence ('insisted that...') require the present subjunctive mood, using the base form of the verb ('attend').

Subjunctive mood में 'insist that' के बाद क्रिया का मूल रूप (Base form: 'attend') प्रयुक्त होता है।

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448📚General English & ComprehensionPhrasal Verbs

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence:
She needs to _______ her old habits if she wants to succeed.

Explanation

The phrasal verb 'give up' means to abandon or quit a habit.

पुरानी बुरी आदतों को त्यागने या छोड़ने के लिए 'give up' का प्रयोग होता है।

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449📚General English & ComprehensionSentence Structure

Rearrange the words into a correct sentence:
is/very/this/important/topic

Explanation

Standard English declarative syntax (Subject + Verb + Predicate): 'This is a very important topic'.

सही वाक्य क्रम: 'This is a very important topic' (यह एक बहुत महत्वपूर्ण विषय है)।

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450📚General English & ComprehensionVerb Form Error

Identify the error in the sentence:
She didn't knew the answer to the question.

Explanation

The auxiliary verb 'did / didn't' is always followed by the base form of the verb (

V_1

). Thus 'knew' is an error and should be 'know'.

'Did / didn't' के बाद हमेशा क्रिया का पहला रूप (know) आता है, अतः 'knew' गलत है।

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451📚General English & ComprehensionPhrasal Verbs

She is always _______ her success in front of others.

Explanation

The phrasal verb 'show off' means to boastfully display or exhibit one's accomplishments or wealth.

अपनी सफलता का दिखावा या डींग हांकने के लिए 'showing off' का प्रयोग होता है।

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452📚General English & ComprehensionConditional Sentences

If she _______ (study) harder, she would have passed the exam.

Explanation

Third Conditional structure: 'If' + Past Perfect ('had studied'), main clause with 'would have' + past participle ('would have passed').

तृतीय सशर्त वाक्य (Third Conditional) में If क्लॉज में Past Perfect ('had studied') का प्रयोग होता है।

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453📚General English & ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement (Correlative)

Identify the sentence that is grammatically correct:

Explanation

With 'Neither...nor', the verb agrees with the closer subject ('students' is plural

\implies

'were late').

'Neither...nor' में क्रिया निकटतम कर्ता (students - बहुवचन) के अनुसार 'were' होगी। सही उत्तर D है।

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454📚General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension

Which international agreement is mentioned in the passage?

Explanation

The passage explicitly mentions the 'Paris Accord' aimed at limiting global temperature rise.

गद्यांश में पेरिस समझौते (Paris Accord) का उल्लेख किया गया है।

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455📚Basic English & GrammarConditional Tenses

If he had gone to Agra, he _______ the Taj Mahal.

Explanation

Third conditional structure: 'If' + Past Perfect ('had gone'), main clause requires 'would have' + past participle ('would have seen').

तृतीय सशर्त वाक्य (Third conditional) में मुख्य उपवाक्य में 'would have seen' का प्रयोग होगा।

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456📚Basic English & GrammarRelative Pronouns

The boy _______ came to see me this morning had come from Mumbai.

Explanation

The subjective relative pronoun 'Who' is required as the subject of the subordinate clause verb 'came'.

सब्जेक्ट के रूप में प्रयुक्त होने वाला संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम 'Who' (जो) है।

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457📚General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsNobel Prizes 2024

In 2024, Nobel Prize in Literature has been awarded to

Explanation

South Korean author Han Kang was awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature 'for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life'.

वर्ष 2024 का साहित्य का नोबेल पुरस्कार दक्षिण कोरियाई लेखिका 'हान कांग' (Han Kang) को प्रदान किया गया।

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458📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyParalinguistic Communication

What does paralinguistic refer to in non-verbal communication?

Explanation

Paralanguage (paralinguistics) encompasses the vocal but non-verbal dimensions of speech: vocal tone, pitch, volume, pacing, and inflection.

पैरालिंग्विस्टिक (Paralinguistic) संचार आवाज के स्वर, पिच और बोलने की गति (The tone, pitch, and speed of speech) को संदर्भित करता है।

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459📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyNon-Verbal vs Verbal Communication

Which of the following is NOT an example of non-verbal communication?

Explanation

Written text uses lexical verbal language (words and syntax), classifying as verbal communication; body language, gestures, and facial expressions are non-verbal.

लिखित पाठ (Written texts) मौखिक/शाब्दिक संचार का रूप है, यह गैर-मौखिक संचार (Non-verbal communication) का उदाहरण नहीं है।

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460📚General Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningClassification Odd One Out

Find the odd one out.

Explanation

Despondency, Melancholy, and Sorrow denote sadness and depression; 'Euphoria' is a state of intense happiness and joy (odd one out).

'Euphoria' (अति-उत्साह/परमानंद) सकारात्मक भाव है, जबकि अन्य तीनों उदासी/शोक के सूचक हैं।

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461📚General English & Reading ComprehensionPreposition Rules

Which of the following sentences is correct regarding the use of prepositions?

Explanation

'Emphasise', 'accompany', and 'inform' are transitive verbs that take direct objects without prepositions (no 'on', 'with', or 'to'). Sentence D correctly uses 'but' as an exceptive preposition.

'Emphasise on' और 'accompany with' गलत प्रयोग हैं। सही वाक्य D ('I did not see anybody else but your brother') है।

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462📚General English & Reading ComprehensionIrregular Verbs

Fill in the blank with a suitable verb in the below sentence.
His heart felt _______ with sorrow after hearing the tragic news.

Explanation

The past participle of the irregular verb 'wring' is 'wrung' ('felt wrung with sorrow').

क्रिया 'wring' का तीसरा रूप (Past participle) 'wrung' होता है।

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463📚General English & Reading ComprehensionVerb Forms

Fill in the blank with a suitable verb in the below sentence.
The miller _______ the wheat into flour before the factory _______ its maintenance operations.

Explanation

Past tense of 'grind' (crush grain) is 'ground'. 'Grounded' means based or suspended operations: 'ground, grounded'.

अनाज पीसने का भूतकाल 'ground' है और संचालन रोकने का 'grounded' है।

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464📚General English & Reading ComprehensionError Spotting

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer. If there is no error, mark the answer as "No error".
Plenty of books (a)/ were donated (b)/ to the library (c)/ by him (d).

Explanation

'Plenty of books' takes a plural verb ('were donated'), and all prepositional adjuncts are grammatically sound. The sentence contains No error.

वाक्य पूरी तरह व्याकरण सम्मत है, अतः सही उत्तर 'No error' (D) है।

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465📚General English & Reading ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement Error

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer. If there is no error, mark the answer as "No error".
Many students (a)/ has completed (b)/ their assignments (c)/ before the deadline (d).

Explanation

The plural subject 'Many students' requires the plural auxiliary verb 'have completed', not singular 'has completed'.

बहुवचन कर्ता 'Many students' के साथ 'have completed' आना चाहिए, अतः 'has completed' में त्रुटि है।

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466📚General English & Reading ComprehensionDeterminers

Choose the sentence with the correct determiner.

Explanation

'Very few people' (and 'Several people') correctly use count determiners with the plural noun 'people'.

संख्यावाचक संज्ञा 'people' के साथ 'Very few people' / 'Several people' सही निर्धारक है।

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467📚General English & Reading ComprehensionCollective Nouns Agreement

Choose the correct alternative among the options to improve the bold part in the below sentence.
The committee was divided in their opinion about the new policy.

Explanation

When a collective noun ('committee') has divided members, it takes a plural verb and plural pronoun: 'were divided in their opinion'.

जब समूहवाचक संज्ञा (Committee) विभाजित हो, तो बहुवचन क्रिया 'were divided in their opinion' का प्रयोग होता है।

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468📚General English & Reading ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement Error

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer.
(a) The teacher, along with the students / (b) were visiting the science museum / (c) to learn about the latest innovations / (d) and inventions in technology.

Explanation

When subjects are joined by 'along with', the verb agrees with the first subject ('The teacher' is singular

\implies

'was visiting', not 'were visiting').

'Along with' के प्रयोग में क्रिया प्रथम कर्ता (The teacher - एकवचन) के अनुसार 'was visiting' होगी, अतः (b) में त्रुटि है।

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469📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyDronacharya Awards 2024

Which of the following pairs is/are correct regarding the Dronacharya Award for Outstanding Coaches (regular category) in Sports and Games 2024?
1. Shri Subhash Rana - Para-Shooting
2. Ms. Deepali Deshpande - Badminton
3. Shri Sandeep Sangwan - Hockey

Explanation

Subhash Rana was honored for Para-Shooting and Sandeep Sangwan for Hockey (Deepali Deshpande is renowned in Shooting, not Badminton).

सुभाष राणा (पैरा-शूटिंग) और संदीप सांगवान (हॉकी) सही युग्म हैं (1 और 3)।

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470📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyHistoric Temples of India

Which of the following statements about the famous temples of India is/are correct?
1. Meenakshi Temple (Tamil Nadu) - A historic temple in Madurai, famous for its stunning Dravidian architecture.
2. Sun Temple (Odisha) - A 13th-century temple in Konark, known for its unique chariot- shaped structure.
3. Somnath Temple (Gujarat) - A historic temple known for the annual Rath Yatra (chariot festival).

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is false because the annual Rath Yatra chariot festival takes place at Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha (not Somnath).

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं। (कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि रथ यात्रा पुरी के जगन्नाथ मंदिर में होती है, सोमनाथ में नहीं)।

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471📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KPersonal Hygiene Principles

Which of the following statements directly highlights the importance of Personal hygiene?
1. Personal Hygiene practices help reduce the spread of infections and contagious diseases.
2. Good Personal hygiene contributes to improved air quality and reduced pollution.
3. Good Personal hygiene practices contribute to better physical and mental health.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Personal hygiene prevents contagious infectious transmission (1) and boosts physical/mental health (3); air quality and outdoor pollution are environmental ecological issues (2 is false).

कथन 1 और 3 व्यक्तिगत स्वच्छता के प्रत्यक्ष लाभ हैं (संक्रमण की रोकथाम और मानसिक-शारीरिक स्वास्थ्य)। सही विकल्प C है।

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472📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KHandicrafts of J&K & Ladakh

Which of the following statements about Pashmina Shawl is/are correct?
1. The wool comes from a Changthangi goat, a special breed of goats found in the high-altitude regions of India
2. The Changpa tribe, from the Changthang region of Ladakh, are the traditional producers of Pashmina Wool.
3. The uniqueness of Pashmina Shawl lies in its unparalleled softness, warmth, and lightweight nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are authentic facts regarding GI-tagged Kashmiri Pashmina: harvested by nomadic Changpas from high-altitude Capra hircus (Changthangi) goats, woven into exceptionally soft, warm shawls.

कथन 1, 2 और 3 तीनों सत्य हैं (चांगथांगी बकरी के ऊन से चांगपा जनजाति द्वारा उत्पादित अद्वितीय पश्मीना शॉल)।

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473📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KDogra Dynasty History

Which of the following statements about The Dogra Dynasty is/are correct?
1. The Dogra Dynasty was founded by Maharaja Gulab Singh, ruled the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir from 1746 to 1947.
2. The dynasty's last ruler, Maharaja Hari Singh, signed the Instrument of Accession, which made Jammu and Kashmir part of India
3. The monarchy was abolished in 1952, ending over a century of Dogra rule.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Statements 2 and 3 are historically correct: Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession on 26 October 1947, and hereditary monarchy was formally abolished in 1952. (Statement 1 has an incorrect starting date: 1846 Treaty of Amritsar, not 1746).

कथन 2 और 3 सही हैं (महाराजा हरि सिंह ने विलय पत्र पर हस्ताक्षर किए और 1952 में राजशाही समाप्त हुई; कथन 1 में 1746 गलत वर्ष है, 1846 होना चाहिए)।

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474📚General English & GrammarPast Tense Verbs

Find the suitable verb for the following statement:
I _______ my neighbor yesterday.

Explanation

The past time marker 'yesterday' requires the simple past tense form of the verb (

V_2

): 'Helped'.

'Yesterday' भूतकाल का सूचक है, अतः क्रिया का दूसरा रूप 'Helped' प्रयुक्त होगा।

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475📚General English & GrammarPhrasal Verbs Matching

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I:
1. I need to _______ the lights before leaving the room
2. The teacher will _______ a new chapter tomorrow
3. She _______ when she hit her toe

List -II (Verbs):
i. yelled
ii. take up
iii. turn off

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

1 -> iii ('turn off the lights'), 2 -> ii ('take up a new chapter'), 3 -> i ('yelled when she hit her toe'). Correct match is 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i.

1-iii ('turn off'), 2-ii ('take up'), 3-i ('yelled')। सही विकल्प D है।

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476📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsDielectric Polarization in AC

Consider the following statements regarding an insulating material connected to an ac signal.
1. The dielectric constant increases with frequency
2. The dielectric constant decreases with frequency
3. Atomic polarization decreases with frequency
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Explanation

As AC excitation frequency increases, polarizations with larger relaxation times (interfacial, dipolar, ionic, atomic) sequentially fail to track the field, causing dielectric permittivity to decrease with frequency. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

आवृत्ति बढ़ने पर परावैद्युतांक घटता है और ध्रुवीकरण तंत्र शिथिल हो जाते हैं (कथन 2 और 3 सही हैं)।

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477📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsMicroprocessor Flags

Which one of the following flags is not used for branching in a microprocessor?

Explanation

The Auxiliary Carry flag (

AF / AC

) is strictly used internally for BCD arithmetic correction (DAA instruction) and has no conditional jump/branching opcode in 8085/8086 microprocessors.

ऑक्सिलरी कैरी फ्लैग (Auxiliary carry flag) का उपयोग BCD सुधार के लिए होता है, ब्रांचिंग/कंडीशनल जंप के लिए नहीं।

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478📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFinancial Markets Terminology

What is the term for the process of managing risk in financial markets?

Explanation

Hedging is an investment risk management strategy involving derivative contracts (futures, options) to offset the risk of adverse price movements in an asset.

वित्तीय बाजारों में मूल्य जोखिम को कम करने या प्रबंधित करने की रणनीति को 'हेजिंग' (Hedging) कहा जाता है।

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479📚Basic English & GrammarSingular and Plural Nouns

Which noun is a plural form?

Explanation

'Children' is the irregular plural form of the singular noun 'child' ('ox' -> 'oxen', 'goose' -> 'geese').

'Children' शब्द 'child' का बहुवचन (Plural form) है।

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480📚Basic English & GrammarPlural Nouns

Choose the correct plural form of the word 'leaf'.

Explanation

Nouns ending in '-f' typically form their plural by changing '-f' to '-ves': 'leaf' -> 'leaves'.

'Leaf' (पत्ती) का सही बहुवचन रूप 'Leaves' (पत्तियां) है।

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481📚Basic English & GrammarParts of Speech

What part of speech is the word "quickly" in the sentence: "She runs quickly"?

Explanation

'Quickly' is an adverb of manner modifying the action verb 'runs'.

'Quickly' (तेजी से) क्रिया 'runs' की विशेषता बताने वाला क्रियाविशेषण (Adverb) है।

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482📚Basic English & GrammarVerbs

In the sentence "The cat is sleeping on the mat," the word "sleeping" is a

Explanation

'Sleeping' is the present participle forming the main lexical verb in the present continuous tense ('is sleeping').

वाक्य में 'sleeping' (सो रही है) मुख्य क्रिया (Verb) है।

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483📚Basic English & GrammarPronouns

Identify the pronoun in the sentence: "He is going to the store".

Explanation

'He' is a third-person singular masculine personal pronoun functioning as the subject of the sentence.

वाक्य में 'He' (वह) सर्वनाम (Pronoun) है।

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484📚Basic English & GrammarAdverbs

In the sentence "She sings beautifully," the word "beautifully" is a

Explanation

'Beautifully' is an adverb of manner describing how she sings.

'Beautifully' (सुंदरता से) गायन की शैली को व्यक्त करने वाला क्रियाविशेषण (Adverb) है।

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485📚Basic English & GrammarVerbs Recognition

Which of the following is a verb?

Explanation

'Laughing' is the active verb / participle indicating the physical action of laughter (joy and happiness are abstract nouns, table is a concrete common noun).

'Laughing' (हंसना) एक क्रिया (Verb) है।

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486📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementSports Management Terminology

SLA in sports management stands for:

Explanation

In professional sports management and facility contracts, SLA stands for Service Level Agreement.

खेल प्रबंधन और सुविधा अनुबंधों में SLA का पूर्ण रूप 'Service Level Agreement' (सेवा स्तर समझौता) होता है।

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487📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyEndocrine Responses to Exercise

Which hormonal response is most associated with prolonged, intense exercise?

Explanation

Prolonged exhaustive endurance exercise stimulates the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis to release Elevated levels of Cortisol (catabolic stress hormone) to mobilize energy stores.

लंबे समय तक चलने वाले तीव्र व्यायाम में तनाव हार्मोन 'कोर्टिसोल का स्तर बढ़ जाता है' (Elevated cortisol levels)।

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488📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesExercise Modalities

Isokinetic exercise is characterized by:

Explanation

Isokinetic exercise (performed using specialized dynamometers) is characterized by a Constant Speed of movement (constant angular velocity) with accommodating variable resistance throughout the range of motion.

आइसोकाइनेटिक व्यायाम (Isokinetic exercise) की मुख्य विशेषता गति की 'स्थिर चाल' (Constant speed of movement) होती है।

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489📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementSports Injury Prevention

Consider the following statements about sports injuries:
1. Proper training can prevent injuries.
2. Wearing protective gear reduces injury risk.
3. Overtraining has no effect on injury occurrence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are scientifically correct; statement 3 is false because overtraining dramatically increases chronic overuse and acute injury occurrence. Correct choice: 1 and 2 only.

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं (उचित प्रशिक्षण और सुरक्षात्मक उपकरण चोटों से बचाते हैं), जबकि कथन 3 असत्य है। सही विकल्प A है।

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490📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementSports Rehabilitation Concepts

Consider the following statements about the concept of rehabilitation:
1. Rehabilitation involves restoring functionality after injury.
2. It focuses only on physical recovery.
3. It includes both physical and mental health restoration.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct: comprehensive sports rehabilitation restores neuromuscular function and addresses psychological/mental recovery (statement 2 is false as it is not limited to physical recovery). Correct: 1 and 3 only.

कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं (पुनर्वास शारीरिक और मानसिक दोनों स्वास्थ्य की बहाली करता है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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491📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementOlympic Facts

Consider the following statements about the Olympic Games:
1. The modern Olympic Games were revived in 1896.
2. The Olympics are held every four years.
3. The Winter Olympics were introduced after the Summer Olympics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct: (1) Revived in 1896 Athens, (2) Quadrennial 4-year cycle, (3) Winter Olympics debuted in 1924 Chamonix, following the Summer Games. Correct: 1, 2, and 3.

तीनों कथन सही हैं: (1) 1896 में पुनर्जीवित, (2) 4 वर्ष के अंतराल पर, (3) शीतकालीन ओलंपिक 1924 में ग्रीष्मकालीन के बाद शुरू हुए। सही विकल्प D है।

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492📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeurobiology of Sleep

Which peptide has been framed to cause narcolepsy.

Explanation

Narcolepsy with cataplexy is caused by the autoimmune destruction of lateral hypothalamic neurons producing the neuropeptide Orexin (also known as Hypocretin).

नार्कोलेप्सी (Narcolepsy) का मुख्य कारण मस्तिष्क में 'ऑरेक्सिन' (Orexin / हाइपोक्रेटिन) न्यूरोपेप्टाइड की कमी है।

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493📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPerformance Intelligence Tests

Which of the following requires placing of blocks of different shapes in empty correct shapes?

Explanation

The Seguin Form Board (SFB) test is a non-verbal performance intelligence test that requires inserting ten wooden geometric blocks into their matching recessed shapes as quickly as possible.

विभिन्न आकृतियों के ब्लॉकों को उनके उपयुक्त खांचों में व्यवस्थित करने वाला परीक्षण 'सेगुइन फॉर्म बोर्ड' (SFB) है।

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494📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Computer Classifications

Consider the following statements:
I. A mainframe computer uses its power to execute a reliable volume of computations concurrently
II. A supercomputer uses its power to execute a few programs as fast as possible
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Mainframes prioritize high throughput and concurrent transaction processing for large transaction volumes, whereas supercomputers prioritize raw floating-point computation speed (FLOPS) for singular complex scientific tasks. Both I and II are correct.

मेनफ्रेम समवर्ती रूप से भारी मात्रा में गणनाओं को निष्पादित करता है और सुपरकंप्यूटर जटिल गणनाओं को अधिकतम गति से निष्पादित करता है (Both I and II)।

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495📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Word Document Operations

Which of the following steps is/are correct for opening an existing document and selecting text in Microsoft Word?

Explanation

The standard correct procedure is navigating to File -> Open to load an existing document and dragging the mouse cursor to select text.

मौजूदा दस्तावेज़ को खोलने और टेक्स्ट का चयन करने का सही क्रम: File -> Open Document -> Select text by dragging the cursor।

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496📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRIT Act RBI Act Amendments

Which section of the Reserve Bank of India has been amended after the commencement of the Information Technology Act, 2000 to include electronic fund transfer services like RTGS, NEFT, etc.?

Explanation

The Third Schedule of the IT Act, 2000 amended Section 58(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 to empower RBI to regulate electronic fund transfers (NEFT, RTGS).

IT अधिनियम 2000 द्वारा भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक अधिनियम 1934 की 'धारा 58 (2)' में संशोधन करके इलेक्ट्रॉनिक फंड ट्रांसफर को शामिल किया गया था।

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497📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRIntellectual Property Rights (IPR)

Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) in India covers
I. Patents
II. Copyrights
III. Trademarks
Which of the following options is/are correct?

Explanation

Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) framework in India legally encompasses Patents, Copyrights, Trademarks, Industrial Designs, and Geographical Indications (All I, II, and III).

भारत में बौद्धिक संपदा अधिकार (IPR) पेटेंट, कॉपीराइट और ट्रेडमार्क तीनों को शामिल करता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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498📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesIT in Railway Systems

Which of the following statements about the application of Information Technology in the railway system is/are correct?
I. The online reservation system allows users to make reservations only from select stations
II. The route-based reservation system facilitates the issuance of journey-cum-reservation tickets from any station to any station
III. It helps in providing round-the-clock service for handling passenger reservations
IV. The system does not provide automatic database recovery against hardware or software failures
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements II and III are correct: modern railway passenger reservation systems (PRS / CRIS) enable any-to-any station ticketing and provide 24/7 continuous service with robust database redundancy and fault-tolerant failovers.

कथन II और III सही हैं (किसी भी स्टेशन से टिकट जारी करने की सुविधा और 24 घंटे निरंतर सेवा)। सही विकल्प B है।

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499📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRProvisions of IT Act 2000

Which of the following is/are a key provision of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
I. Legal recognition of electronic documents
II. Regulation of physical property disputes
III. Justice dispensation system for cyber crimes
IV. Definition and penalties for cyber offences
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Key provisions of the IT Act, 2000 include: Legal recognition of e-records/signatures (I), setting up the Cyber Appellate Tribunal (III), and penalizing cyber offences (IV). Physical property disputes (II) fall under civil property law. Correct: I, III, and IV.

IT अधिनियम 2000 में इलेक्ट्रॉनिक दस्तावेजों को कानूनी मान्यता (I), साइबर न्याय प्रणाली (III) और साइबर अपराधों के लिए दंड (IV) शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प D है।

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500📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesCircuit vs Packet Switching

Consider the following statements related to switching techniques:
I. FDM and TDM are the common multiplexing techniques implemented in circuit switching
II. Packet switching uses a single link, which can result in queuing delays and packet loss
III. Packet switching offers better sharing of transmission capacity compared to circuit switching
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct: (I) Circuit switching uses FDM/TDM for dedicated channel division; (II) Packet switching shares statistical multiplex links causing buffer queuing delays and packet drops; (III) Packet switching maximizes bandwidth efficiency via dynamic statistical multiplexing.

तीनों कथन सही हैं: सर्किट स्विचिंग में FDM/TDM का उपयोग होता है, पैकेट स्विचिंग में क्यूइंग विलंब हो सकता है और यह बेहतर क्षमता साझाकरण प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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501📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesInternet Application Protocols

Which of the following protocols is/are used in the Internet?
I. HTTP
II. DHCP
III. DNS
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

HTTP (web browsing), DHCP (automatic dynamic IP address assignment), and DNS (domain name to IP resolution) are standard fundamental Internet application layer protocols.

इंटरनेट पर HTTP, DHCP और DNS तीनों प्रोटोकॉल का व्यापक उपयोग होता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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502📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesOSI Reference Model

Consider the following statements:
I. The full form of OSI is Operating Systems Interconnection
II. Web service facilitates the communication between nodes in a network
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is false (OSI stands for Open Systems Interconnection, not Operating Systems). Statement II is true (web services enable interoperable machine-to-machine communication across networks via HTTP/XML/JSON). Correct: II only.

कथन I असत्य है (OSI का पूर्ण रूप Open Systems Interconnection है), लेकिन कथन II सत्य है। सही विकल्प C है।

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503📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesDesktop Email Clients

Which of the following is/are an example of a desktop-based email client?
I. Outlook Express
II. Netscape Mail
III. Gmail
IV. Thunderbird
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

Outlook Express, Netscape Mail, and Mozilla Thunderbird are standalone desktop email client applications (Gmail is a cloud-based webmail service). Correct: I, II and IV.

Outlook Express, Netscape Mail और Thunderbird डेस्कटॉप-आधारित ईमेल क्लाइंट हैं (Gmail वेबमेल है)। सही विकल्प D है।

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504📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRDigital Signatures

Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is:
I. An electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
II. An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I describes a Digital Signature Certificate (DSC), not the signature itself. Statement II correctly defines a Digital Signature as an asymmetric cryptographic hash mechanism ensuring authentication, non-repudiation, and message integrity.

कथन II डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर को सही रूप से परिभाषित करता है (इलेक्ट्रॉनिक दस्तावेज़ पर हस्ताक्षर और अखंडता सुनिश्चित करना)। सही विकल्प C है।

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505📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesMailbox Access Methods

Which of the following is/are one of the ways by which we can access and use mailboxes?
I. Email clients
II. Webmail
III. Pager
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

Electronic mailboxes are accessed via desktop/mobile Email Clients (Outlook, Thunderbird) using IMAP/POP3 or through browser-based Webmail (Gmail, Outlook.com). Correct: I and II.

ईमेल मेलबॉक्स तक पहुँचने के दो मुख्य तरीके हैं: ईमेल क्लाइंट और वेबमेल (I and II)।

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506📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureGUI Features

Which is/are feature(s) of GUI that makes learning a program easy for users?
I. WYSIWYG formatting
II. Dialogue boxes
III. Detailed keystrokes and commands
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

Graphical User Interfaces (GUIs) facilitate user-friendly learning through WYSIWYG (What You See Is What You Get) visual rendering and interactive Dialog Boxes. (Lengthy command keystrokes belong to CLI). Correct: I and II.

GUI में उपयोगकर्ता के लिए सीखना आसान बनाने वाली सुविधाएं WYSIWYG फॉर्मेटिंग और डायलॉग बॉक्स (I and II) हैं।

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507📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureComputer Printers

Consider the following statements regarding non-impact printers:
I. An image is placed by striking a ribbon on the page
II. These printers are also known as page printers
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I describes impact printers (dot matrix). Statement II is correct: non-impact printers (laser printers) print an entire page at once without physical striking and are known as Page Printers. Correct: II only.

कथन I इम्पैक्ट प्रिंटर का वर्णन करता है। कथन II सही है (नॉन-इम्पैक्ट लेजर प्रिंटर को पेज प्रिंटर भी कहा जाता है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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508📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Educational Multimedia

Which of the following is a significant benefit of using multimedia applications in education?

Explanation

Educational multimedia integrates audio, visual graphics, interactive simulations, and text to accommodate diverse learning modalities (visual, auditory, kinesthetic) and clarify abstract conceptual models.

शिक्षा में मल्टीमीडिया का प्रमुख लाभ यह है कि यह विभिन्न शिक्षण शैलियों को पूरा करता है और जटिल अवधारणाओं की समझ में सुधार करता है।

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509📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureSystem Utilities Functionality

Which of the following statements accurately describe the functionalities of essential system tools such as Disk Cleanup, Disk Defragmenter, and Imaging Fax?
I. Disk Cleanup analyzes and removes temporary files, system cache, and unnecessary application logs
II. Disk Defragmenter consolidates fragmented data on an SSD to enhance its performance
III. Imaging Fax supports document scanning, image optimization, and fax transmission over a network
IV. Disk Defragmenter improves file access speed by reorganizing data on mechanical hard drives
V. Disk Cleanup can detect and resolve hardware errors on the disk
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I, III, and IV are correct: Disk Cleanup purges junk/temp files (I); Fax/Imaging handles document transmission (III); Disk Defrag reorganizes contiguous blocks on mechanical magnetic HDDs (IV). Statement II is false (defragmenting SSDs is unnecessary and shortens flash memory lifespan) and V is false (CHKDSK, not Disk Cleanup, scans disk errors). Correct: I, III and IV.

कथन I, III और IV सही हैं (डिस्क क्लीनअप अस्थायी फाइलों को हटाता है, फैक्स स्कैनिंग संभालता है, और डिस्क डीफ्रैग्मेंटर मैकेनिकल HDD पर गति बढ़ाता है)। सही विकल्प A है।

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510📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsTrade Marks Act 1999

Trade Marks Registry has been established under section of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 to provide for registration and better protection of trademarks for goods and services

Explanation

Section 5(1) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 provides for the statutory establishment of the Trade Marks Registry headed by the Controller-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks.

ट्रेड मार्क्स अधिनियम 1999 की 'धारा 5(1)' (Section 5(1)) के तहत ट्रेड मार्क्स रजिस्ट्री की स्थापना की गई है।

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511📚General English & Basic MathematicsRelative Pronouns

Fill in the blank using a suitable relative pronoun.
The park ______ we used to play as children has been renovated and looks beautiful now.

Explanation

'Where' is the relative adverb/pronoun used to refer to a place (the park where we used to play).

स्थान (पार्क) को संदर्भित करने के लिए सही सर्वनाम 'where' (जहाँ) है।

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512📚General English & Basic MathematicsTenses

Fill in the blank with the appropriate tense in the sentence:
I ______ my keys; I can't find them anywhere!

Explanation

The present perfect tense 'have lost' indicates a past action that has direct relevance and consequences in the present moment ('I can't find them anywhere').

वर्तमान पर प्रभाव दर्शाने के लिए Present Perfect tense 'have lost' का उपयोग होगा।

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513📚Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryOhm's Law Limitations

Consider the following statements about the limitations of Ohm's law.
1. Ohm's law is applicable when the temperature of the conductor is constant
2. Ohm's law is applicable for unilateral electrical elements like diodes and transistors
3. The relation between voltage and current depends on the sign of voltage for non-linear devices.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Ohm's law strictly requires constant temperature and physical conditions, and does not apply to non-linear/unilateral devices (statement 2 is false as diodes violate Ohm's law). Correct: 1 and 3.

कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं (ओम का नियम स्थिर तापमान पर लागू होता है और डायोड जैसे एकदिशीय तत्वों पर लागू नहीं होता)। सही विकल्प B है।

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514📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsSolar Photovoltaic Power Plants

Consider the following statements about the photovoltaic power station.
i. It is a large-scale solar power system designed to generate electricity through the use of photovoltaic (PV) panels.
ii. They supply power directly to the electrical grid by providing electricity at the utility level rather than serving individual or local users.
iii. Galiveedu solar park is the first Indian Park located in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and ii are correct. Statement iii is false because Galiveedu Solar Park (part of Ananthapuramu Ultra Mega Solar Park) is located in Andhra Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh. Correct: i and ii.

कथन i और ii सही हैं (कथन iii गलत है क्योंकि गलीवेदु सोलर पार्क आंध्र प्रदेश में स्थित है)। सही विकल्प A है।

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515📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsMagnetic Field of Straight Conductor

Consider the following statements about the Magnetic Field due to a current carrying conductor.
1. Magnetic field due to infinitely long straight current carrying conductor is given by

B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi r}

Where,

\mu_0

is the permeability of free space, I is the current flowing in the long straight conductor.
2. The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor forms concentric circles, as described by Ampère's right-hand rule.
3. If the conductor is carrying current in an upward direction, then the direction of the magnetic field will always be in clockwise direction and vice-versa.
4. The magnetic field depends on the current through the conductor and not on the material of the conductor.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct: (1)

B = \mu_0 I / 2\pi r

; (2) Concentric magnetic field lines; (4)

B

depends on current, not conductor material. Statement 3 is false because for upward current, the right-hand rule gives an counter-clockwise (anticlockwise) magnetic field. Correct: 1, 2 and 4.

कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि ऊपर की ओर धारा होने पर चुंबकीय क्षेत्र वामावर्त/एंटी-क्लॉकवाइज होता है)। सही विकल्प D है।

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516📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsHysteresis Loss Principles

Which of the following statements about hysteresis loss in a ferromagnetic material is/are correct?
1. Hysteresis loss is directly proportional to the frequency of the applied magnetic field in a dynamic system.
2. The area of the hysteresis loop determines the energy lost per cycle of magnetization.
3. Hysteresis loss is independent of temperature changes below the Curie temperature.
4. Materials with high coercivity generally exhibit higher hysteresis loss compared to those with low coercivity.
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct (Steinmetz formula:

P_h = \eta B_{\max}^{1.6} f V

; Loop area = energy loss/cycle; hard magnetic materials with high coercivity have high hysteresis loss). Statement 3 is false as permeability and loop area vary with temperature. Correct: 1, 2 and 4.

कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (हिस्टैरिसीस हानि आवृत्ति और लूप क्षेत्रफल के समानुपाती होती है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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517📚Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsLenz's Law Concepts

Which of the following statements regarding Lenz's law is/are correct?
1. Lenz's law states that the direction of the induced current opposes the change in magnetic flux that causes it.
2. Lenz's law ensures the conservation of energy by requiring external work to oppose the induced magnetic effects.
3. The induced EMF creates a magnetic field that always reinforces the initial magnetic flux.
4. Lenz's law applies to all electromagnetic induction phenomena, including motional EMF.
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct (Statement 3 is false because induced fields oppose, never reinforce, the flux change). Correct: 1, 2 and 4.

कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (कथन 3 गलत है)। सही विकल्प D है।

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518📚Electrical Machines (DC Generators/Motors, Transformers & Alternators)Salient-Pole Alternators

Which of the following statements regarding salient pole-type alternators is/are correct?
1. The magnetic poles are physically projected outward from the rotor surface in salient pole-type alternators, giving them their characteristic shape.
2. They are slow-speed machines with speeds varying from 150 to 600 rpm.
3. They have uniform air gap and four or more poles.
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Salient-pole rotors feature projected poles driven by low-speed hydraulic turbines (150–600 rpm). Statement 3 is false because salient pole machines have a NON-UNIFORM air gap (cylindrical rotors have uniform air gaps). Correct: 1 and 2.

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं (कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि सेलियंट पोल अल्टरनेटरों में एयर गैप गैर-समान/non-uniform होता है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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519📚Electrical Machines (DC Generators/Motors, Transformers & Alternators)Stationary Armature Advantages

Which of the following statements about the advantages of the stationary armature and rotating field in an AC generator is/are correct?
1. Collecting the output is more convenient when the armature is stationary.
2. A stationary armature is suitable for handling higher voltages.
3. When the armature is stationary, it becomes easy to supply low-voltage excitation to the rotor through the slip rings.
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

All three statements are major engineering advantages of stationary armature alternators: (1) Output current collected directly from stator terminals without slip rings; (2) Easier high-voltage (

11 ext{--}33 ext{ kV}

) insulation; (3) Only two slip rings required for low-voltage DC rotor excitation. Correct: 1, 2 and 3.

तीनों कथन सही हैं (स्थिर आर्मेचर उच्च वोल्टेज संग्रह को आसान बनाता है और रोटर को केवल कम वोल्टेज उत्तेजना की आवश्यकता होती है)। सही विकल्प D है।

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520📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomView Camera Controls

Consider the following statement:
I. Perspective distortion: also called horizontal line convergence, occurs when you angle a camera's sensor plane upward when using a convex lens to photograph a tall building.
II. Tilt control: Tilting is a type of selective focus, controlling the part of a photo that looks sharp by tilting the focal plane in relation to the image sensor plane.
III. Shift control: Shifting allows you to frame your shot without having to move the camera body by shifting the lens parallel to the image plane.
IV. To photograph a mirror: Use the shift feature to shoot into a mirror without you and your camera appearing in the mirror's reflection.
Which of the given statement is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements II, III, and IV accurately describe view camera movements (Scheimpflug principle tilt, parallel shift framing, off-axis mirror photography without camera reflection). Statement I is imperfectly phrased ('vertical convergence' is standard). Choice C (II, III and IV are correct).

कथन II, III और IV सही हैं (टिल्ट फोकस प्लेन को नियंत्रित करता है, शिफ्ट परिप्रेक्ष्य को बदलता है और शीशे में बिना कैमरे के प्रतिबिंब के तस्वीर ली जा सकती है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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521📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingStudio Modifiers (Umbrellas)

Consider the given statements and choose the correct option:
I. Reflective umbrellas have a silver or white interior surface that bounces light back towards the subject, creating a broad, soft light source.
II. Shoot-through umbrellas, are made of mirror like material that reflects amount of entire light without any diffusion.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Reflective umbrellas bounce light back from white/silver liners. Statement II is false because Shoot-Through umbrellas are made of translucent white fabric that diffuses light passing directly through it (they are not mirror-like). Correct: Only I is correct.

कथन I सही है (परावर्तक छाते प्रकाश को उछालकर कोमल रोशनी देते हैं; शूट-थ्रू छाते पारभासी कपड़े से बने होते हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।

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522📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingAffinity Photo Features

Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of using Affinity Photo?

Explanation

Serif Affinity Photo offers advanced professional raster editing featuring real-time live previews of adjustments/blends, non-destructive unlimited layer stacks, and modern accessible user workflows (All of the above).

एफिनिटी फोटो में लाइव पूर्वावलोकन, असीमित लेयर्स और उपयोगकर्ता-अनुकूल इंटरफेस (All of the above) जैसी सभी सुविधाएं उपलब्ध हैं।

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523📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesIsolated System Thermodynamics

Consider the following statement
I. If a system is isolated from its surroundings, the internal energy of a closed system remains unchanged
II. If a system is isolated from its surroundings, the change in internal energy is equal to zero
III. If a system is isolated from its surroundings, both heat and work are not equal to zero
IV. If a system is isolated from its surroundings, the change in internal energy is not equal to zero
Which of the following statement is/are correct:

Explanation

For an isolated system,

Q = 0

and

W = 0

. By the first law

\Delta U = Q - W = 0

, meaning internal energy remains constant and its change is zero. Statements I and II are correct.

एक विलगित प्रणाली (Isolated system) के लिए ऊष्मा और कार्य शून्य होते हैं, अतः आंतरिक ऊर्जा स्थिर रहती है और आंतरिक ऊर्जा में परिवर्तन शून्य (

\Delta U = 0

) होता है (कथन I और II सही हैं)।

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524📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesThermodynamic Definitions Matching

Consider the following pairs
i. Process
ii. Cycle
iii. Heat
iv. Work

1. The system comes to its original state after passing through a sequence of processes
2. Energy transferred across a boundary between systems without transfer of mass by reason of the difference in temperature
3. Energy transferred across a boundary between systems by reason of the difference in pressure
4. It is said to occur when the system undergoes a change of state

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 4 (Process: path/change of state), ii -> 1 (Cycle: series of processes returning to initial state), iii -> 2 (Heat: boundary energy transfer due to temperature difference), iv -> 3 (Work: boundary energy transfer driven by pressure/force). Correct match: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3.

i-4 (प्रक्रिया - अवस्था परिवर्तन), ii-1 (चक्र - मूल अवस्था में लौटना), iii-2 (ऊष्मा - तापमान अंतर से ऊर्जा स्थानांतरण), iv-3 (कार्य - दबाव अंतर से कार्य)। सही विकल्प D है।

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525📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesRefrigeration COP and Heat Pumps

Consider the following statements:
I. Energy Performance Ratio (E.P.R) is the same as Coefficient of Performance (C.O.P) of a refrigerator system
II. The Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigerator system is the ratio of heat supplied to the work done
III.

\text{E.P.R} = \text{C.O.P} + 1

IV.

\text{E.P.R} = \text{C.O.P} - 1

Which of the following statement is/are correct:

Explanation

Energy Performance Ratio (EPR) represents the COP of a heat pump:

\text{COP}_{\text{HP}} = \text{COP}_{\text{ref}} + 1 \implies \text{E.P.R} = \text{C.O.P} + 1

. Statement II defines general COP formula. Correct: II and III.

कथन II और III सही हैं (हीट पंप का निष्पादन गुणांक / EPR = COP + 1 होता है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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526📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesIdeal Refrigerant Properties

Consider the following statements:
An ideal refrigerant should possess
I. High freezing point
II. High specific heat and low latent heat
III. Low specific volume
IV. Should be non-flammable and non-explosive
Which of the following statement is/are correct:

Explanation

An ideal refrigerant requires: Low freezing point (well below evaporator temperatures), High latent heat, Low specific volume of vapor (to minimize compressor size), and Non-flammable/non-toxic nature. Thus, III and IV are correct.

एक आदर्श प्रशीतक (Refrigerant) में कम विशिष्ट आयतन (Low specific volume) और गैर-ज्वलनशील/गैर-विस्फोटक गुण (Non-flammable) होने चाहिए। सही विकल्प D है।

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527📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesFluid Properties Matching

Consider the following pairs:
i. Strain rate
ii. Specific gravity
iii. Viscosity
iv. Specific weight

1. A fluid property directly related to density of the fluid
2. Plays a primary role in the generation of turbulence
3. The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of water
4. The rate at which a fluid element deforms

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 4 (Strain rate: rate of deformation

du/dy

), ii -> 3 (Specific gravity: relative density to water), iii -> 2 (Viscosity: dampens/controls turbulence via Reynolds number), iv -> 1 (Specific weight:

\gamma = \rho g

directly related to density). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.

i-4 (विकृति दर - विरूपण की दर), ii-3 (विशिष्ट गुरुत्व - पानी से अनुपात), iii-2 (श्यानता - अशांति नियंत्रण), iv-1 (विशिष्ट भार -

\rho g

)। सही विकल्प B है।

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528📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesHydraulic Turbines Matching

Consider the following pairs:
i. Reaction turbine
ii. Impulse turbine
iii. Runner
iv. Turbines

1. The flow energy is converted into kinetic energy through a nozzle before the liquid impacts the runner
2. Moving component of a turbine
3. Extract useful energy from the water flowing in a piping system
4. Uses both flow energy and kinetic energy

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 4 (Reaction turbine: uses pressure and kinetic energy), ii -> 1 (Impulse turbine: nozzle converts all head to kinetic jet), iii -> 2 (Runner: rotating wheel with blades), iv -> 3 (Turbines: hydraulic machines extracting fluid energy). Correct match: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3.

i-4 (प्रतिक्रिया टरबाइन), ii-1 (आवेग टरबाइन), iii-2 (रनर - घूमने वाला भाग), iv-3 (टरबाइन - ऊर्जा निष्कर्षण)। सही विकल्प D है।

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529📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesReaction Turbine Operation

Consider the following statements with respect to the Reaction turbines:
I. The flow is contained in a volute
II. Adjustable guide vanes are situated downstream of the runner
III. When the fluid travels through the runner, angular momentum is reduced
IV. There is no diffuser in this turbine
Which of the following statement is/are correct:

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct: (I) Reaction turbines are enclosed in a spiral volute casing; (III) Runner blades extract torque by reducing the angular momentum of fluid according to Euler's turbine equation. (Guide vanes are upstream, and draft tubes act as diffusers).

कथन I और III सही हैं (प्रवाह स्पाइरल वॉल्यूट केसिंग में होता है और रनर में कोणीय संवेग घटता है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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530📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesTheory of Machines Matching

Match the following:
i. Kinematics
ii. Dynamics
iii. Plane motion
iv. Translation

1. All points move in planes which are parallel to some reference plane
2. The slider in the slider crank mechanism has rectilinear motion
3. Forces acting on the machine parts and motions resulting from these forces
4. Study of the relative motion of machine parts

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 4 (Kinematics: relative motion without forces), ii -> 3 (Dynamics: forces and resulting motions), iii -> 1 (Plane motion: parallel planar paths), iv -> 2 (Translation: rectilinear/slider motion). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2.

i-4 (किनेमेटिक्स - सापेक्ष गति), ii-3 (डायनामिक्स - बल और गति), iii-1 (समतल गति), iv-2 (स्थानांतरण - रेखीय गति)। सही विकल्प B है।

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531📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsCircuit Element Potential Drops

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Across a resistor, potential always decreases in the direction of the current
II. Across an inductor, the potential always decreases in the direction of the current
Choose the correct option.

Explanation

Statement I is correct (Ohm's law: current always flows from higher to lower potential across a passive resistor,

\Delta V = -IR

). Statement II is incorrect because across an inductor

v_L = L \frac{di}{dt}

, when current is decreasing (

di/dt < 0

), the induced EMF opposes the decrease and potential INCREASES in the direction of current.

कथन I सही है और कथन II गलत है (घटती हुई धारा के दौरान प्रेरक के आर-पार क्षमता बढ़ सकती है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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532📚Electronics, Digital Logic & Microprocessors (8085/8051)8085 Microprocessor Flag Register

Consider the following:
I. Sign flag
II. Trap flag
III. Parity flag
IV. Auxiliary carry flag
Which of the above flags is/are present in 8085 microprocessors?

Explanation

The 8085 microprocessor Flag Register contains 5 status flags: Sign (S), Zero (Z), Auxiliary Carry (AC), Parity (P), and Carry (CY). The Trap flag exists in 8086, while TRAP in 8085 is a non-maskable hardware interrupt, not a flag. Thus, I, III, and IV are present.

8085 के फ्लैग रजिस्टर में Sign, Parity और Auxiliary Carry फ्लैग मौजूद होते हैं (कथन I, III और IV सही हैं)। सही विकल्प D है।

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533📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeSRAM vs DRAM Comparison

Consider the following statements comparing static RAM with dynamic RAM:
I. In static RAM, a typical cell requires more number of transistors than in dynamic RAM
II. Power consumption per bit of static RAM is less than that of dynamic RAM
III. Dynamic RAM is less expensive than the static RAM
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct: An SRAM cell requires 6 transistors (6T) per bit (vs 1 transistor + 1 capacitor for DRAM), and DRAM is significantly denser and less expensive. (SRAM draws more standby and active power per bit than DRAM). Correct: I and III only.

कथन I और III सही हैं (SRAM में प्रति सेल 6 ट्रांजिस्टर होते हैं और DRAM काफी सस्ती होती है)। सही विकल्प D है।

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534📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeMultimedia File Formats

Which of the following is/are types of sound files?

Explanation

WAV (Waveform Audio File Format) is an uncompressed lossless digital audio file format standard developed by Microsoft and IBM.

ऑडियो/ध्वनि फ़ाइलों का मानक प्रकार 'WAV files' (.wav) है।

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535📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeDigital India Services (eSign)

The digital signature service that has been launched on the Aadhaar platform is called

Explanation

eSign is an online electronic signature service in India integrated with the Aadhaar ecosystem that allows Aadhaar holders to digitally sign electronic documents instantly.

आधार प्लेटफॉर्म पर शुरू की गई ऑनलाइन डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर सेवा 'eSign' (ई-साइन) कहलाती है।

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536📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement

Choose the correct sentence:

Explanation

Subject-verb agreement: The singular subject 'The book' correctly pairs with the singular verb 'is' ('The book, which I lent him, is interesting'). Option B (and C for plural) are grammatically standard.

एकवचन कर्ता 'The book' के साथ एकवचन क्रिया 'is' का प्रयोग सही है: 'The book, which I lent him, is interesting' (विकल्प B)।

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537📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionError Spotting

Identify the error in the sentence:
Each of the students have a different perspective on the topic.

Explanation

'Each' is a singular distributive pronoun that requires the singular verb 'has' (not 'have'). The error is in 'Have'.

वितरणवाचक सर्वनाम 'Each' एकवचन होता है, इसलिए इसके साथ 'has' आना चाहिए। त्रुटि 'Have' में है।

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538📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionAdverbs

Choose the correct form of adverb:
She runs ______ fast to catch the bus

Explanation

'Very' is an intensifier adverb modifying the adverb 'fast' ('She runs very fast to catch the bus').

क्रियाविशेषण 'fast' को संशोधित करने के लिए सही शब्द 'Very' (She runs very fast) है।

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539📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionPhrasal Verbs

He decided to ______ the meeting due to personal reasons.

Explanation

'Put off' means to postpone or delay an event to a later time ('He decided to put off the meeting').

बैठक को स्थगित करने के लिए सही फ्रेजल वर्ब 'Put off' (स्थगित करना) है।

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540📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionDirect and Indirect Speech

Which of the following is the correct conversion into indirect speech of the following sentence:
She said, "I will help you with your project tomorrow."

Explanation

In indirect speech, the reporting verb is in past tense so modal 'will' changes to 'would' and pronouns shift appropriately ('She said that she would help me with my project...'). Choice A.

अप्रत्यक्ष कथन (Indirect speech) में 'will' बदलकर 'would' हो जाता है: 'She said that she would help me with my project tomorrow'। सही विकल्प A है।

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541📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionDirect Speech Conversion

Convert the following sentence into direct speech:
He told me that he had been to the market

Explanation

Past perfect 'had been' in indirect speech corresponds to present perfect 'have been' in direct speech: He said, "I have been to the market."

प्रत्यक्ष कथन में सही रूप: He said, "I have been to the market." (विकल्प A) होगा।

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542📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionReading Comprehension

What does the passage suggest is necessary for the future of renewable energy?

Explanation

The text concludes that the promising future of renewables depends on continuous technological breakthroughs and cost-effective energy storage solutions.

अक्षय ऊर्जा के भविष्य के लिए निरंतर तकनीकी प्रगति और ऊर्जा भंडारण समाधान (Ongoing technological advancements and energy storage solutions) आवश्यक हैं।

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543📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionAdverbs Modification

Which of the following sentences contains an adverb modifying a noun / verb / adverb?

Explanation

In 'The car drove very fast', 'very' is an adverb modifying another adverb 'fast' which modifies the verb 'drove'.

वाक्य 'The car drove very fast' में 'very' क्रियाविशेषण 'fast' को संशोधित करता है।

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544📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionGrammar Classification

Identify the sentence that contains an adverb modifying an adjective:
[Option text: 'The extremely cold weather froze the lake']

Explanation

In 'The extremely cold weather froze the lake', the adverb 'extremely' modifies the adjective 'cold'.

वाक्य 'The extremely cold weather froze the lake' में क्रियाविशेषण 'extremely' विशेषण 'cold' की विशेषता बताता है।

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545📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Hospital Record Purposes

Consider the following statements from the hospital's perspective:
I. Justifying physical facility allocation
II. Documenting the care provided to patients
III. Conducting hospital advertisement campaigns
IV. Generating statistical data for administrative use
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

From a hospital management perspective, medical records serve to document clinical care (II), justify bed and ward resource allocation (I), and provide census/utilization statistics for administration (IV). Advertisements are not a clinical record purpose. Correct: I, II and IV.

अस्पताल के दृष्टिकोण से मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड देखभाल के दस्तावेजीकरण, संसाधन आवंटन और प्रशासनिक आंकड़ों (I, II और IV) के लिए आवश्यक हैं। सही विकल्प D है।

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546📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Patient Perspective in Health Records

What is the primary reason for maintaining medical records from the patient's perspective?

Explanation

For the patient, a comprehensive longitudinal medical record ensures accurate medical history for future diagnostic accuracy, clinical continuity of care, and prevention of medical errors.

मरीज के दृष्टिकोण से मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'भविष्य के निदान और उपचार में सुधार' (To improve future diagnosis and treatment) सुनिश्चित करना है।

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547📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsPredictive Hospital Analytics

Which of the following statistical tools would be most appropriate to predict patient demand for a hospital's services based on historical data?

Explanation

Time Series Forecasting (e.g. ARIMA models, seasonal trend analysis) models chronological historical admission logs to forecast future seasonal patient demand and emergency volume.

ऐतिहासिक आंकड़ों के आधार पर भविष्य में रोगी की मांग का पूर्वानुमान लगाने के लिए 'टाइम सीरीज़ फोरकास्टिंग' (Time series forecasting) सबसे उपयुक्त उपकरण है।

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548📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Record Assembly Verification

Which of the following is critical during the final assembly of a medical record?

Explanation

During post-discharge chart assembly and quantitative analysis, the technician must verify that all clinical entries, verbal orders, operative reports, and discharge summaries contain required authenticated physician signatures.

मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड के अंतिम संयोजन (Assembly) के दौरान 'सभी आवश्यक हस्ताक्षरों की उपस्थिति सुनिश्चित करना' (Ensuring all required signatures are present) अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण है।

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549📚Information Sources, Reference Services & BibliometricsAbstracting Services

Science Abstracts published by

Explanation

Science Abstracts (covering Physics Abstracts and Electrical/Electronic Abstracts) has been published since 1898 by the Institution of Electrical Engineers (IEE, now IET / INSPEC).

'साइंस एब्स्ट्रैक्ट्स' (Science Abstracts) का प्रकाशन 'INSPEC / IEE' (Institute of Electrical Engineering, London) द्वारा किया जाता है।

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550📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)DDC Auxiliary Tables

2^{\text{nd}}

Table of DDC deals with:

Explanation

In Dewey Decimal Classification (DDC 23rd edition), Table 2 specifically provides standard subdivisions for 'Geographic Areas, Historical Periods, Biography' (Area).

DDC की दूसरी सारणी (Table 2) 'भौगोलिक क्षेत्रों' (Geographic Areas) से संबंधित है।

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551📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsPFA Act 1954 Definitions

According to The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954; the word "adulterated" is defined as:
1. If the article is obtained from a diseased animal
2. If the article contains any poisonous or other ingredient which renders it injurious to health
3. Any material which is or could be employed for the purpose of adulteration
4. If the article contains any other substance which affects, or if the article is so processed as to affect, injuriously the nature, substance or quality there of
Which of the given statements is/are correct:

Explanation

Under Section 2(i) of the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act 1954, an article of food is deemed to be Adulterated if it is derived from a diseased animal (1), contains poisonous/injurious ingredients (2), or contains foreign matter affecting its nature and quality (4). Statement 3 defines an 'adulterant', not 'adulterated food'. Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

PFA अधिनियम 1954 की धारा 2(i) के अनुसार मिलावटी भोजन में 1, 2 और 4 शामिल हैं (कथन 3 मिलावटकारी पदार्थ की परिभाषा है)। सही विकल्प D है।

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552📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsMisbranded Food Definitions

According to The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954; an article of food shall be deemed to be "misbranded"
1. if it is falsely stated to be the product of any place or country
2. Any article which ordinarily enters into, or is used in the composition or preparation of, human food
3. if it is so coloured, flavoured or coated, powdered or polished that the fact that the article is damaged is concealed or if the article is made to appear better or of greater value than it really is
4. if it is not labelled in accordance with the requirements of this Act or Rules made thereunder
Which of the given statements is/are correct :

Explanation

Under Section 2(ix) of the PFA Act 1954, food is deemed Misbranded if falsely labeled regarding origin (1), colored/coated to conceal damage or inflate value (3), or violating statutory labeling requirements (4). Statement 2 is the definition of 'Food'. Correct: 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

PFA अधिनियम 1954 के तहत 'मिस्ब्रांडेड' भोजन में 1, 3 और 4 शामिल हैं (कथन 2 भोजन की परिभाषा है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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553📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFood Inspector Statutory Powers

Consider the following statements:
1. A food inspector shall have power to prohibit the sale of any article of food in the interest of public health with the previous approval of the Local (Health) Authority having jurisdiction in the local area concerned, or with the previous approval of the Food (Health) Authority.
2. A food inspector shall have power to take samples of any article of food from any person selling such article.
3. A food inspector shall have power to prohibit the sale of any article of food in the interest of public health without the previous approval of the Local (Health) Authority having jurisdiction in the local area concerned, or with the previous approval of the Food (Health) Authority.
4. A food inspector shall have power to take samples of any article of food from any person who is in the course of conveying, delivering or preparing to deliver such article to a purchaser or consignee.
Which of the given statements is/are correct :

Explanation

Under Section 10 of PFA Act 1954: A Food Inspector has statutory power to take samples from sellers (2) and transporters/consignees (4), and can prohibit sale in the interest of public health WITH prior approval of Local Health Authority (1). (Statement 3 is false as prior approval is mandatory). Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

खाद्य निरीक्षक की शक्तियों में 1, 2 और 4 शामिल हैं (बिक्री पर रोक लगाने के लिए स्थानीय स्वास्थ्य प्राधिकरण की पूर्व अनुमति अनिवार्य है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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554📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsWTO SPS Agreement & Codex

Under the WTO Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Agreement, which of the following is required when setting food safety measures?

Explanation

Under the WTO SPS Agreement (Article 3), member countries are required to base their national food safety regulations on international standards established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Harmonization with Codex).

WTO के SPS समझौते के तहत खाद्य सुरक्षा उपायों को 'कोडेक्स एलिमेंटेरियस मानकों के साथ सामंजस्य' (Harmonization with Codex standards) पर आधारित करना आवश्यक है।

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555📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Initiatives Matching

Consider the following pairs:
i. Food Fortification Resource Centre (FFRC)
ii. Food Safety Training and Certification (FoSTaC)
iii. +F Logo
iv. Hygiene Rating Scheme

1) Provides certification for fortified foods meeting nutritional standards
2) Builds capacity by training food handlers on food safety practices
3) Promotes fortified food products to address nutritional deficiencies
4) Rates food establishments based on hygiene and safety standards

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 3 (FFRC: promotes fortification to address micro-nutrient malnutrition), ii -> 2 (FoSTaC: training food handlers in food safety), iii -> 1 (+F Logo: certification seal for fortified staple foods), iv -> 4 (Hygiene Rating: star rating for food establishments). Correct match: i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4.

i-3 (FFRC - पोषण सुधार), ii-2 (FoSTaC - खाद्य संचालकों का प्रशिक्षण), iii-1 (+F लोगो - फोर्टिफाइड खाद्य प्रमाणन), iv-4 (हाइजीन रेटिंग - प्रतिष्ठानों की रेटिंग)। सही विकल्प B है।

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556📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Books and Schemes Matching

Consider the following pairs :
i. Safe Water Initiative
ii. Pink Book Initiative
iii. School Health and Wellness Program
iv. Food Safety Mitra Scheme

1) Empowers trained individuals to assist food businesses in regulatory compliance
2) Provides guidelines for safe and nutritious food in schools
3) Enhances food safety practices for drinking water
4) Offers a manual for safe and nutritious food practices in households

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 3 (Safe Water: drinking water safety), ii -> 4 (Pink Book: safe food guide for Indian households), iii -> 2 (Yellow Book / School Program: safe food in schools), iv -> 1 (Food Safety Mitra: certified individuals aiding FBO licensing/compliance). Correct match: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1.

i-3 (सुरक्षित जल), ii-4 (पिंक बुक - घरेलू खाद्य मार्गदर्शिका), iii-2 (स्कूल स्वास्थ्य - सुरक्षित स्कूली भोजन), iv-1 (फूड सेफ्टी मित्र - लाइसेंस/अनुपालन सहायता)। सही विकल्प C है।

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557📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsContaminants Regulations Scope

Consider the following statements:
Which of the following statements about the "Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins, and Residues) Regulations, 2011" are correct?
1. The regulations specify permissible levels of pesticides in food products
2. The regulations define the maximum allowable levels of toxins such as mycotoxins in food.
3. These regulations are limited to regulating food additives only
4. The regulations apply to both domestic and imported food products in India
Which of the given statements is/are correct:

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct: The regulations specify MRLs for pesticides (1), mycotoxins like aflatoxins (2), and apply uniformly to both domestic articles and imported consignments (4). Statement 3 is false as food additives are governed by separate Food Additives Regulations. Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि खाद्य योजक अलग नियमों के अंतर्गत आते हैं)। सही विकल्प D है।

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558📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Third-Party Audits

Consider the following statements :
Which of the following statements are true regarding the "FSSAI Food Safety Auditing" process?
1. Audits are conducted by third-party agencies approved by FSSAI
2. Food safety audits are only required for food manufacturers, not for food outlets
3. Food safety audits focus on compliance with FSSAI regulations regarding food handling, storage, and hygiene
4. Non-compliance with audit findings can lead to penalties, including cancellation of FSSAI licenses
Which of the given statements is/are correct :

Explanation

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct: Audits are conducted by FSSAI-recognized third-party auditing agencies (1), verify hygiene and sanitary handling (3), and non-compliance can trigger regulatory improvement notices or license suspension (4). Statement 2 is false as audits apply to high-risk catering and retail outlets as well.

कथन 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं (ऑडिट केवल निर्माताओं तक सीमित नहीं है, यह उच्च जोखिम वाले कैटरिंग आउटलेट्स पर भी लागू होता है)। सही विकल्प A है।

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559📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsAdulteration Prevention Framework

Consider the following statements :
Which of the following actions are part of FSSAI's regulatory framework to prevent food adulteration in India?
1. Encouraging food businesses to use digital tools for tracking adulteration
2. Strict penalties for food business operators caught selling adulterated food
3. Imposing minimum quality standards on raw materials and food additives
4. Banning the sale of certain food products deemed prone to adulteration without proper certification
Which of the given statements is/are correct :

Explanation

Statutory regulatory anti-adulteration enforcement mechanisms under FSSA 2006 include: Imposing strict legal penalties and imprisonment (2), laying down mandatory quality specifications for raw commodities and additives (3), and prohibiting uncertified sale of adulteration-prone commodities like loose edible oils and mustard oil blends (4). Choice D (2, 3 and 4 are correct).

मिलावट रोकने के FSSAI के वैधानिक ढांचे में सख्त दंड (2), गुणवत्ता मानक (3) और बिना प्रमाणन संवेदनशील खाद्य पदार्थों की बिक्री पर प्रतिबंध (4) शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प D है।

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560📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Organic Foods Regulations

Consider the following statements :
Which of the following factors are considered when determining whether a food product can be marketed as "organic" under FSSAI's organic food regulations?
1. Certification by the National Program for Organic Production (NPOP) or any other FSSAI-recognized certifying agency
2. The exclusion of all synthetic pesticides and fertilizers during the cultivation of the food
3. The product's marketing as organic without the need for any official certification if it meets minimum standards
4. Compliance with international organic certification standards for products that are exported
Which of the given statements is/are correct:

Explanation

Under the FSS (Organic Foods) Regulations 2017: Organic foods must be certified under NPOP or PGS-India (1), completely exclude synthetic agrochemicals/GMOs (2), and comply with export standards (4). Statement 3 is false because self-claiming 'organic' without certification is illegal (Jaivik Bharat logo is mandatory). Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

FSSAI जैविक खाद्य नियमों के तहत 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (बिना प्रमाणन के जैविक का दावा करना गैरकानूनी है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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561📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryMicronutrients Function Matching

Match the following micronutrients with their main roles in human health:
Micronutrients:
i. Vitamin D
ii. Iron
iii. Vitamin C
iv. Folate

Role:
1. DNA synthesis and red blood cell formation
2. Antioxidant and collagen synthesis
3. Oxygen transport in the blood
4. Bone health and calcium absorption

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 4 (Vitamin D: bone mineralization & calcium absorption), ii -> 3 (Iron: heme component of hemoglobin for oxygen transport), iii -> 2 (Vitamin C: antioxidant & proline/lysine hydroxylation in collagen), iv -> 1 (Folate / Vitamin B9: one-carbon metabolism, thymidylate DNA synthesis & RBC maturation). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.

i-4 (विटामिन डी - हड्डी स्वास्थ्य/कैल्शियम), ii-3 (आयरन - ऑक्सीजन परिवहन), iii-2 (विटामिन सी - कोलेजन/एंटीऑक्सीडेंट), iv-1 (फोलेट - DNA संश्लेषण/RBC)। सही विकल्प C है।

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562📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryMetabolic Pathways Matching

Match the following biochemical processes with their respective role in digestion and food chemistry:
Biochemical Process:
i. Hydrolysis
ii. Glycolysis
iii. Glycogenesis
iv. Lipid oxidation

Role in digestion / metabolism:
1. Conversion of glucose to glycogen in the liver
2. Breakdown of large molecules into smaller units using water
3. Breakdown of starches/glucose into pyruvate / energy
4. Conversion of fatty acids into energy in mitochondria

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 2 (Hydrolysis: cleavage of bonds by water addition during digestion), ii -> 3 (Glycolysis: cytoplasmic catabolism of glucose to pyruvate), iii -> 1 (Glycogenesis: anabolism of glycogen from glucose), iv -> 4 (Lipid oxidation /

\beta

-oxidation: catabolism of fatty acids to acetyl-CoA). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.

i-2 (हाइड्रोलिसिस - जल द्वारा अणुओं का टूटना), ii-3 (ग्लाइकोलाइसिस - ग्लूकोज से पाइरूवेट), iii-1 (ग्लाइकोजेनेसिस - ग्लाइकोजन निर्माण), iv-4 (लिपिड ऑक्सीकरण - फैटी एसिड से ऊर्जा)। सही विकल्प D है।

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563📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryPrimary vs Secondary Metabolites

The following are considered "Secondary" metabolites that can be analyzed in food?
1. Alkaloids
2. Flavonoids
3. Polysaccharides
4. Fatty acids
Which of the given options is/are correct?

Explanation

Alkaloids (e.g. caffeine, theobromine) and Flavonoids (anthocyanins, quercetin) are Secondary Metabolites produced by plants for defense and pigmentation. Polysaccharides and Fatty acids are primary energy/structural metabolites. Correct: 1 and 2 are correct.

पादपों के 'द्वितीयक मेटाबोलाइट्स' (Secondary metabolites) में 'एल्कलॉइड्स और फ्लेवोनोइड्स' (1 और 2) आते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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564📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsWTO SPS Risk Assessment

What is the primary purpose of conducting a risk assessment under the SPS Agreement?

Explanation

Under Article 5 of the WTO SPS Agreement, sanitary measures must be based on a scientific Risk Assessment that evaluates the biological likelihood of entry, establishment, or spread of pests and diseases and associated human health risks.

SPS समझौते के तहत जोखिम मूल्यांकन का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'कीटों या बीमारियों के प्रवेश, स्थापना या प्रसार की संभावना का वैज्ञानिक मूल्यांकन करना' है।

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565📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsWTO SPS Agreement Scope

What is the main focus of the WTO SPS Agreement?

Explanation

The WTO Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement) sets rules ensuring that national health and food safety regulations are applied only to the extent necessary to Protect Human, Animal, or Plant Life and Health from foodborne risks and biosecurity threats.

WTO के SPS समझौते का मुख्य फोकस 'मानव, पशु और पौधों के जीवन और स्वास्थ्य की रक्षा करना' (Protecting human, animal, and plant life or health) है।

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566📚Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Student's t-Distribution Properties

Consider the following statements:
i. Student's t distribution depends on the quantity called degree of freedom
ii. Student's t distribution is symmetric, and bell shaped
iii. Student's t distribution have a smaller standard deviation
iv. As the sample size increases the student's t distribution approaches Poisson distribution
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and ii are correct: Student's t-distribution is completely parameterized by its Degrees of Freedom (

df = n-1

) (i), and is symmetrical, unimodal, and bell-shaped centered at 0 with heavier tails than the normal curve (ii). (Statement iii is false as variance is larger than standard normal; iv is false as it approaches the Normal distribution, not Poisson). Correct: (i), (ii).

कथन i और ii सही हैं (टी-वितरण डिग्री ऑफ फ्रीडम पर निर्भर करता है और यह सममित व घंटी के आकार का होता है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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567📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringColiform Group Microbiological Characteristics Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (Bacterial Group):
1. Total coliform bacteria
2. E. coli
3. Fecal coliform bacteria
4. Fecal streptococci

Set - B (Characteristics):
i. The group which has been used in conjunction with fecal coliforms to determine source of fecal contamination
ii. Species of gram-negative rods that may ferment lactose with gas production
iii. One of the coliform bacteria populations which is representative of fecal sources
iv. The group of bacteria based on the ability to produce gas at an elevated incubation temperature.

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Explanation

1 -> ii (Total coliforms: Gram-negative non-spore-forming rods fermenting lactose with gas at

35^\circ ext{C}

), 2 -> iii (E. coli: definitive index indicator of human/mammalian fecal pollution), 3 -> iv (Fecal coliforms: thermotolerant coliforms producing gas at elevated

44.5^\circ ext{C}

), 4 -> i (Fecal streptococci / Enterococci: used in FC/FS ratio to differentiate human vs animal waste). Correct match: (1)-(ii), (2)-(iii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i).

1-ii (कुल कोलीफॉर्म - 35°C पर गैस), 2-iii (ई. कोलाई - मल संदूषण का मुख्य प्रतिनिधि), 3-iv (मल कोलीफॉर्म - 44.5°C पर गैस), 4-i (मल स्ट्रेप्टोकोकी - FC/FS अनुपात स्रोत निर्धारण)। सही विकल्प B है।

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568📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeUNFCCC Climate Agreements Chronology

As per the succession of UNFCCC protocols, which order among the following is correct?
I. Paris Agreement
II. The US Mayor's Climate Protection Agreement
III. Conference of Parties (COP)
IV. Kyoto Protocol
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

Chronological timeline of international climate milestones: III. COP-1 Berlin = 1995

->

IV. Kyoto Protocol adopted = 1997

->

II. US Mayors Climate Protection Agreement = 2005

->

I. Paris Agreement (COP-21) = 2015. Correct sequence: III, IV, II, I.

जलवायु संधियों का सही कालानुक्रम: COP-1 (1995)

->

क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल (1997)

->

यूएस मेयर समझौता (2005)

->

पेरिस समझौता (2015) (III, IV, II, I)। सही विकल्प B है।

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569📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringFlame Photometry Analysis (Potassium)

Flame photometry is used to determine

Explanation

Flame Atomic Emission Photometry is standardly used for the rapid quantitative determination of Alkali and Alkaline Earth metals, primarily Potassium (

K

, lilac flame at 766 nm) and Sodium (

Na

, intense yellow flame at 589 nm).

फ्लेम फोटोमेट्री (Flame photometry) का उपयोग मुख्य रूप से 'पोटेशियम' (Potassium / K) और सोडियम के निर्धारण के लिए किया जाता है।

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570📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyLegal Terminology (Clandestine)

Which agreement is also known as Clandestine arrangement?

Explanation

In trade, forensic jurisprudence, and competition law, a Clandestine Arrangement is an illicit, collusive Secret Agreement made between parties to circumvent legal regulations or price controls.

गुप्त या गुप्त रूप से किए गए समझौते को 'सीक्रेट एग्रीमेंट' (Secret agreement / गुप्त समझौता) कहा जाता है।

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571📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyReserpine Chemical Identification

Reserpine, when treated with solution of vanillin in acetic acid shows colour:

Explanation

When Reserpine (Rauwolfia serpentina alkaloid) is treated with a solution of vanillin in glacial acetic acid and sulfuric acid, it produces a characteristic intense Red / Violet-Red color reaction.

जब रिसर्पिन को एसिटिक एसिड में वैनिलिन के घोल के साथ उपचारित किया जाता है, तो यह 'लाल' (Red) रंग दिखाता है।

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572📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyStrychnine Chemical Test

When the transverse section of nux vomica is treated with ammonium vanadate and sulphuric acid, the endospermic cells show purple colour, due to presence of:

Explanation

In Mandelin's chemical test for Nux-vomica seeds, treatment of the endosperm with ammonium vanadate and sulfuric acid yields an intense Violet/Purple color due to the indole alkaloid Strychnine (Brucine gives a blood-red color with concentrated nitric acid).

नक्स वोमिका के टीएस पर अमोनियम वैनाडेट और सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड डालने पर बैंगनी रंग 'स्ट्राइकिनिन' (Strychnine) की उपस्थिति के कारण आता है।

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573📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Infrastructure (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel)

Which of the following statements about Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel in Jammu & Kashmir is/are correct?
1. It is India's longest road tunnel with a length of 9.28 km.
2. The tunnel is located on the lower Himalayan range at an altitude of 1,200 m (3,937 ft).
3. The tunnel connects Udhampur and Ramban in Jammu & Kashmir.
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 is 9.28 km long (1) and situated at ~1,200 m altitude in the lower Himalayas (2). Statement 3 is incorrect because it connects Chenani in Udhampur district with Nashri in Ramban district.

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं (यह 9.28 किमी लंबी सड़क सुरंग है और निचली हिमालय पर्वतमाला में 1200 मीटर की ऊंचाई पर स्थित है)। सही विकल्प A है।

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574📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Art & Architecture (Brihadeshwara)

Which of the following statements about Brihadeshwara temple is/are correct?
I. The temple is located in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, on the south side of the Vaigai river.
II. Large statue of Nandi (the holy bull) carved from a single rock, measuring approximately 16 feet long and 13 feet high is placed at the temple's entrance.
III. The temple is dedicated to worship of goddess Kali.
Choose the Correct Statement:

Explanation

Statement II is correct: The monolithic Nandi statue at the entrance is carved from a single granite rock. (Statement I is false because it is on the south bank of the Kaveri River, not Vaigai; Statement III is false because it is dedicated to Lord Shiva). Correct: Only II.

कथन II सही है (नंदी की विशाल मूर्ति एक ही पत्थर से तराशी गई है)। यह मंदिर कावेरी नदी के तट पर स्थित है और भगवान शिव को समर्पित है। सही विकल्प A है।

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575📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFolk Dances of J&K (Dumhal)

Which of the following statements about Dumhal dance is/are correct?
I. It is a traditional dance performed by the Wattal tribe in the Indian region of Jammu and Kashmir.
II. Women perform the dance in groups of two or four, facing each other and holding hands.
III. Performers wear long, colorful robes and tall conical caps adorned with beads and shells.
Choose the Correct Statement:

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct: Dumhal is a traditional ritual folk dance performed exclusively by men of the Wattal (Rishi) community in Kashmir, wearing vibrant long robes and tall conical caps (kalah) decorated with beads and shells. Statement II is false because it is performed by men with a banner planted in the ground.

कथन I और III सही हैं (दुम्हल नृत्य वाटल जनजाति के पुरुषों द्वारा लंबी रंगीन पोशाक और शंक्वाकार टोपी पहनकर किया जाता है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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576📚General English & ComprehensionTense and Voice Consistency

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence:
The house has auctioned before we reached there.

Explanation

In a past sequence of events where one passive action was completed before another past action ('before we reached there'), the Past Perfect Passive ('had been auctioned') is grammatically required.

अतीत में किसी अन्य क्रिया से पहले पूर्ण हुई निष्क्रिय क्रिया के लिए 'had been auctioned' (Past Perfect Passive) का प्रयोग होगा।

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577📚General English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors (Modal Auxiliaries)

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer:
No struggle can ever succeeded without women participating side by side with men.

Explanation

The modal auxiliary verb 'can' must be followed by the base form of the verb (bare infinitive 'succeed', not the past participle 'succeeded'). Hence, the error is in part A ('No struggle can ever succeeded'

->

'can ever succeed').

मॉडल वर्ब 'can' के बाद क्रिया का मूल रूप (V1 - succeed) आता है। अतः त्रुटि भाग A में है।

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578📚General English & ComprehensionActive and Passive Voice

Out of the four choices suggested, select the one which best expresses the below sentence in passive voice:
The burglar destroyed several items in the room. Even the carpet has been torn.

Explanation

Active: 'The burglar destroyed (Simple Past) several items in the room.'

->

Passive: 'Several items in the room were destroyed by the burglar. Even the carpet was torn.' Choice B.

भूतकाल की क्रिया 'destroyed' का पैसिव 'were destroyed' और 'was torn' होगा (विकल्प B)।

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579📚General English & ComprehensionModal Auxiliaries

Fill in the blank using a suitable modals:
We ............. be honest under all circumstances. If we work hard, we ........... pass.

Explanation

'Must' expresses a compulsory moral duty ('We must be honest under all circumstances'), and 'will' expresses certainty in the first conditional result clause ('If we work hard, we will pass'). Choice D.

अनिवार्य नैतिक कर्तव्य के लिए 'must' और पहली शर्त के परिणाम के लिए 'will' का प्रयोग होगा (must, will)।

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580📚General English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors (Adverb Placement)

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer:
These days rich people only can afford the hospitality of the costly nursing homes and hospitals coming up all over the country.

Explanation

The limiting adverb 'only' should immediately precede the word it qualifies: 'only rich people' (not 'rich people only'). Hence, the error lies in segment A.

सीमित करने वाले क्रियाविशेषण 'only' को 'rich people' से पहले रखा जाना चाहिए ('only rich people')। अतः त्रुटि भाग A में है।

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581📚General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension (Factual)

According to the passage, Rutherford carried out his own private experiments in:

Explanation

As stated verbatim in the passage: 'Rutherford as a student was fascinated by Hertz's work on radio waves and he began to conduct his own experiments in the cloakroom of the college [Canterbury College]...'.

गद्यांश के अनुसार रदरफोर्ड ने अपने निजी प्रयोग 'कैंटरबरी कॉलेज के क्लॉकरूम' (Cloakroom of Canterbury College) में किए थे।

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582📚General English & ComprehensionClauses Analysis

Pick out the clause in the following sentence:
I do not know whether he will come tomorrow.

Explanation

'whether he will come tomorrow' is a Subordinate Noun Clause acting as the direct object of the transitive verb 'know'.

वाक्य में 'whether he will come tomorrow' क्रिया 'know' के कर्म के रूप में कार्य करने वाला संज्ञा उपवाक्य (Noun Clause) है।

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583📚General English & ComprehensionAntonyms

Select the antonym of the underlined word in the below sentence and mark your response accordingly:
The bill received a vehement resistance from the opposition party in the Parliament.

Explanation

'Vehement' means intense, impassioned, forceful; its direct antonym is 'apathetic' (showing lack of interest, indifferent, unenthusiastic).

'Vehement' (उग्र / तीव्र) का विलोम शब्द 'apathetic' (उदासीन / अनिच्छुक) है।

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584📚General English & ComprehensionSentence Completion

Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to complete the following sentence:
There were screams, chills and thrills .....at the discotheque the other night as the director along with the producers hosted a party to .....the success of their latest horror flick.

Explanation

'Thrills galore' is a standard English idiom meaning in abundance/plenty, and 'celebrate the success' is the appropriate contextual verb.

उचित शब्द युग्म: 'galore' (प्रचुर मात्रा में) और 'celebrate' (उत्सव मनाना) है। सही विकल्प D है।

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585📚General English & ComprehensionSentence Rearrangement (Parajumbles)

Given below are four scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence:
P. agreed to a ceasefire today
Q. in which 51 people were killed
R. after a week of fighting
S. georgian loyalists and rebel forces
The correct sequence should be:

Explanation

Subject: 'Georgian loyalists and rebel forces' (S)

->

Verb: 'agreed to a ceasefire today' (P)

->

Prepositional clause: 'after a week of fighting' (R)

->

Relative clause: 'in which 51 people were killed' (Q). Correct sequence: S-P-R-Q (PSRQ).

सही वाक्य क्रम: S (जॉर्जियाई वफादार और विद्रोही बल)

->

P (आज संघर्ष विराम पर सहमत हुए)

->

R (एक सप्ताह की लड़ाई के बाद)

->

Q (जिसमें 51 लोग मारे गए)

->

S-P-R-Q (PSRQ)। सही विकल्प B है।

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586📚General English & ComprehensionActive and Passive Voice

A sentence has been given in passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in active voice:
Why was the thief being chased by the boy?

Explanation

Passive: 'Why was the thief being chased by the boy?'

->

Active: Past Continuous interrogative structure requires 'Why + was + subject (the boy) + chasing + object (the thief)?'. Choice D.

पैसिव से एक्टिव: 'Why was the boy chasing the thief?' सही एक्टिव वॉयस रूपांतरण है (विकल्प D)।

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587📚General English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors (Nouns)

Below sentence is divided into parts using Alphabets (a, b, c & d). Find out whether there is any grammatical error in any part of the sentence and indicate your response against the corresponding part:
She gave me (a)/two important pieces of informations (b)/I had been waiting for (c)/the last two months (d)

Explanation

'Information' is an uncountable noun that cannot take a plural 's'; the correct phrase is 'two important pieces of information'. Thus, the error is in part (b).

'Information' एक अगणनीय संज्ञा (Uncountable noun) है, इसमें 's' नहीं लगाया जा सकता। अतः त्रुटि भाग (b) में है।

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588📚General English & ComprehensionSentence Correction

Out of the four options, select the grammatically correct sentence:

Explanation

'You cannot win my confidence without believing me' is concise, direct, and avoids redundant double negatives/superfluous adverbs ('without ever' / 'without never'). Choice C.

व्याकरणिक रूप से शुद्ध वाक्य: 'You cannot win my confidence without believing me' (विकल्प C) है।

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589📚General Intelligence & ReasoningNon-Verbal Visual Analogy

Select the related shape from the given option for the figure transformation [Orthogonal cross with arrowheads rotates 45 degrees to Diagonal X]:

Explanation

The first pair shows an orthogonal pattern rotated clockwise by

45^\circ

to become a diagonal pattern. Similarly, rotating the vertical trident/pitchfork figure by

45^\circ

yields the diagonally oriented trident pointing to the top-right in Figure C.

आकृति सादृश्यता: पहली आकृति 45 डिग्री दक्षिणावर्त घूमती है। इसी प्रकार त्रिशूल जैसी आकृति 45 डिग्री घूमने पर विकल्प C जैसी दिखेगी।

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590📚General Intelligence & ReasoningPaper Folding and Punching

A triangular sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown below. How will it appear when opened?

Explanation

When the folded triangular sheet with bottom symmetrical punches is completely unfolded along its symmetry lines, four symmetrical pairs of hole punches will align across both bottom and top quadrants as in Figure D.

कागज को खोलने पर छिद्रों का सममित पैटर्न विकल्प D जैसा दिखाई देगा।

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591📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyTypes of Research Methodology

Consider the following statements about research:
i. Descriptive research aims to portray the characteristics of a particular group or situation.
ii. Analytical research involves the critical evaluation of available data from primary and secondary sources.
iii. Conceptual research is primarily concerned with the practical application of theories.
iv. Empirical research relies on observation and experimentation to gather data.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i, ii, and iv are correct: Descriptive research describes phenomena (i), Analytical research critically evaluates facts (ii), and Empirical research relies on direct experience/data (iv). Statement iii is false because Conceptual research relates to abstract ideas/philosophical theory development, not practical applications (which is Applied research). Correct: i, ii, and iv only.

कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं (वैचारिक अनुसंधान अमूर्त विचारों से संबंधित होता है, व्यावहारिक अनुप्रयोग से नहीं)। सही विकल्प C है।

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592📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyCommunication Research Methods

Consider the following statements about communication research methods:
i. The experimental method is considered the most objective because it uses control procedures to rule out alternative explanations.
ii. Historical research relies heavily on direct observation rather than documents and records.
iii. Content analysis is a qualitative technique that does not require quantification of materials.
iv. In survey research, the validity of findings depends on how well the sample represents the population.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iv are correct: Experimental design uses control groups and manipulation to establish internal validity (i), and Survey research generalizability depends strictly on sample representativeness (iv). (Statement ii is false as historical research relies on primary documents; iii is false as content analysis involves systematic quantitative coding). Correct: i and iv.

कथन i और iv सही हैं (प्रायोगिक विधि में नियंत्रण समूह होते हैं और सर्वेक्षण की वैधता नमूने के प्रतिनिधित्व पर निर्भर करती है)। सही विकल्प A है।

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593📚Indian Cinema, Cultural Studies & History of MediaIndian Cinema Hero Archetypes

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the post-1970s Indian cinema hero (Angry Young Man era)?

Explanation

The post-1970s Bollywood hero (exemplified by Amitabh Bachchan's 'Angry Young Man' persona written by Salim-Javed) was defined by intense rage, anti-establishment rebellion, gritty toughness, and vengeance; the 'romantic, soft-spoken' persona belonged to the 1960s romantic stars (e.g. Rajesh Khanna).

1970 के दशक के बाद के सिनेमाई नायक ('एंग्री यंग मैन') की विशेषता 'रोमांटिक और मृदुभाषी' (Romantic and soft-spoken) नहीं थी।

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594📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Methods Matching

Match the following research methods with their key characteristics:
i. Experimental Method
ii. Historical Method
iii. Content Analysis
iv. Survey Research

Characteristics:
1. Focuses on past events and relationships between persons, places, and times.
2. Involves manipulating an independent variable to observe its effect on a dependent variable.
3. Analyzes documents and records to classify and describe content.
4. Uses questionnaires or interviews to collect data from a sample population.

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

i -> 2 (Experimental: independent variable manipulation), ii -> 1 (Historical: past events and archival analysis), iii -> 3 (Content analysis: systematic quantitative/qualitative analysis of textual/broadcast records), iv -> 4 (Survey: questionnaires/interviews of sample). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4.

i-2 (प्रायोगिक - चर में हेरफेर), ii-1 (ऐतिहासिक - पिछली घटनाएं), iii-3 (कंटेंट एनालिसिस - दस्तावेजों का विश्लेषण), iv-4 (सर्वेक्षण - प्रश्नावली द्वारा डेटा संग्रह)। सही विकल्प D है।

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595📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationInternational Communication Concepts

Consider the following statements about international communication:
i. International communication is linked to the concept of the nation-state.
ii. Intercultural communication focuses on communication within a single culture.
iii. Globalisation has reduced the significance of cross-cultural communication.
iv. The dominant paradigm of development emphasises top-down communication.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iv are correct: International communication historically involves political, diplomatic, and media flow between sovereign nation-states (i), and the Dominant Paradigm relies on top-down, one-way dissemination (iv). (Statement ii is false as intercultural communication spans across different cultures; iii is false as globalization increases its importance). Correct: i and iv.

कथन i और iv सही हैं (अंतरराष्ट्रीय संचार राष्ट्र-राज्यों से जुड़ा है और प्रभुत्व प्रतिमान शीर्ष से नीचे की ओर संचार पर बल देता है)। सही विकल्प A है।

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596📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDevelopment Communication Applications

A government agency wants to use communication to promote national integration. Which method is most suitable?

Explanation

Promoting democratic social cohesion and national integration is most effectively achieved through grassroots Community Radio, localized cultural dialogues, and Participatory Storytelling that respects linguistic and regional pluralism.

राष्ट्रीय एकता को बढ़ावा देने के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त तरीका 'सामुदायिक रेडियो और सहभागी कहानी सुनाना' (Community radio and participatory storytelling) है।

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597📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Nature & History

Consider the following statements about propaganda:
i. Propaganda is always based on false information.
ii. Propaganda can be used to influence both domestic and foreign audiences.
iii. The term "propaganda" originated from religious movements in the 17th century.
iv. Propaganda is only effective in totalitarian regimes.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements ii and iii are historically correct: Propaganda is deployed internationally and domestically to shape public opinion (ii), and the term originated in 1622 when Pope Gregory XV founded the Congregatio de Propaganda Fide (iii). (Statement i is false as white propaganda uses truth; iv is false as democracies actively use public diplomacy/propaganda). Correct: ii and iii.

कथन ii और iii सही हैं (प्रचार का उपयोग घरेलू व विदेशी दर्शकों के लिए होता है और यह शब्द 17वीं सदी के कैथोलिक आंदोलन से उत्पन्न हुआ)। सही विकल्प B है।

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598📚Television Studio Production, Lighting & Camera OperationsTelevision Camera Mechanics

Consider the following statements about camera work in television production:
i. The camera head consists of the zoom lens, pick-up tube, viewfinder, and camera cable.
ii. The panning head allows the camera to tilt and pan smoothly.
iii. The tally light indicates when the camera is live during recording.
iv. The chroma key process is used to superimpose a black background over a scene.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements ii and iii are fundamental operational facts: The friction/fluid panning head enables smooth horizontal pans and vertical tilts (ii), and the red Tally Light on the camera housing illuminates to alert talent and operator that the camera is live on air (iii). (Statement iv is false as chroma key keys out green/blue, not black). Correct: ii and iii.

कथन ii और iii सही हैं (पैनिंग हेड से पैन व टिल्ट सुगम होता है और टैली लाइट कैमरा ऑन-एयर होने का संकेत देती है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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599📚Television Studio Production, Lighting & Camera OperationsTelevision Graphics Principles

Consider the following statements about graphics in video production:
i. Graphics are used to simplify complex data through visual symbols, illustrations, and diagrams.
ii. The readability of graphics is ensured by using small and intricate fonts.
iii. The essential area in graphics is also known as the safe title area.
iv. Vertical slides are preferred over horizontal slides for television screens.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iii are correct: Graphics simplify complex information into visual symbols (i), and critical text must be positioned within the Safe Title Area (inner 80% boundary) to prevent edge clipping (iii). (Statement ii is false as bold, legible sans-serif fonts are required; iv is false as TV screens are horizontally oriented 16:9/4:3). Correct: i and iii.

कथन i और iii सही हैं (ग्राफिक्स जटिल डेटा को सरल बनाते हैं और महत्वपूर्ण टेक्स्ट सेफ टाइटल एरिया के भीतर रखा जाता है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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600📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Variables Classification

Which of the following statements about variables is/are correct?
i. An independent variable is the outcome that a researcher wishes to explain.
ii. A dependent variable is the variable that is manipulated in an experiment.
iii. Discrete variables are obtained by counting, while continuous variables are obtained by measuring.
iv. Variables can be classified as either independent or dependent based on their role in the research.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Statements iii and iv are correct: Discrete variables take countable whole numbers (e.g. number of viewers), while continuous variables are measured on a continuum (e.g. response time) (iii), and variables are categorized functionally as

IV

DV

(iv). (Statements i and ii are inverted:

IV

is manipulated,

DV

is the outcome measured). Correct: iii and iv only.

कथन iii और iv सही हैं (असतत चर गिने जाते हैं, सतत चर मापे जाते हैं और चरों को उनके शोध कार्य के आधार पर वर्गीकृत किया जाता है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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601📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryTypes of Section Planes

The shape of the section obtained will depend upon the orientation of the solid and the section plane, with respect to the principle planes of projection. Some of the positions of the section planes are:
1. Horizontal plane
2. Auxiliary inclined plane
3. Auxiliary vertical plane
4. Profile plane
From the above, which is/are considered under the types of section planes?

Explanation

In engineering graphics, Section Planes are classified by their spatial orientation: 1. Section plane parallel to HP (Horizontal), 2. Auxiliary Inclined Plane (AIP - perpendicular to VP, inclined to HP), 3. Auxiliary Vertical Plane (AVP - perpendicular to HP, inclined to VP), and 4. Profile Section Plane (perpendicular to both HP and VP)

\implies

1, 2, 3 and 4. Choice D.

सेक्शन तलों के प्रकारों में क्षैतिज तल, सहायक झुका हुआ तल (AIP), सहायक ऊर्ध्वाधर तल (AVP) और प्रोफाइल तल सभी शामिल हैं (1, 2, 3 and 4)। सही विकल्प D है।

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602📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryConic Section Curves (Hyperbola)

The curve of intersection of a vertical cone with an auxiliary vertical plane (AVP parallel to the axis) is:

Explanation

When a vertical cone is cut by an Auxiliary Vertical Plane (AVP) that is parallel to the cone's central vertical axis (or cuts both nappes of a double cone), the resulting curve of intersection is a Hyperbola (Hyperbolic curve).

एक ऊर्ध्वाधर शंकु को अक्ष के समानांतर सहायक ऊर्ध्वाधर तल (AVP) द्वारा काटने पर प्राप्त वक्र 'अतिपरवलयिक वक्र' (Hyperbolic curve) होता है।

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603📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesHall Effect Transducer Applications

Hall effect principle is employed in the following cases:
1. Magnetic field sensing equipment
2. Proximity detectors
3. Hall effect Sensors and Probes
4. Linear or Angular displacement transducers
From the above, which is/are considered the applications of Hall Effect?

Explanation

All listed devices are standard industrial applications of the Hall Effect: Gaussmeters (1), contactless magnetic proximity switches (2), brushless DC motor rotor position probes (3), and linear/angular position transducers (4)

\implies

1, 2, 3 and 4. Choice D.

हॉल प्रभाव का उपयोग चुंबकीय क्षेत्र सेंसर, निकटता डिटेक्टर, हॉल प्रोब और विस्थापन ट्रांसड्यूसर सभी में किया जाता है (1, 2, 3 and 4)।

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604📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingComputer Basic Operations Matching

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Operation):
1. Store data
2. Processing data
3. Control the workflow

List - II (Description):
i. Performing arithmetic, and logical operations on data in order to convert them into useful information
ii. Directs the manner and sequence in which all of the operations (input, store, process, output) are performed.
iii. Saving data and instructions so that they are available for processing as and when required

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

1 -> iii (Storage: saving data and instructions for future processing), 2 -> i (Processing: ALU arithmetic and logical operations), 3 -> ii (Control Unit: directing timing and instruction execution sequence). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii.

1-iii (डेटा संग्रहण - मेमोरी में सहेजना), 2-i (डेटा प्रोसेसिंग - अंकगणितीय/तार्किक संचालन), 3-ii (वर्कफ़्लो नियंत्रण - नियंत्रण इकाई द्वारा क्रम संचालन)। सही विकल्प C है।

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605📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeEpidemiology (COVID-19 Isolation)

Which of the following statements regarding Isolation during COVID-19 is/are correct?
1. It is used for people suffering from COVID-19 symptoms or who have tested positive for the virus.
2. In isolation means being separated from other people, mainly in a medical facility where you can receive clinical care.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Both statements are standard epidemiological definitions: Isolation separates confirmed infected symptomatic or test-positive individuals from healthy populations to stop transmission (1), either at home or in dedicated healthcare facilities with medical monitoring (2). Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

कथन 1 और 2 दोनों सही हैं (आइसोलेशन संक्रमित या लक्षण वाले व्यक्तियों को अलग रखने और चिकित्सकीय देखभाल प्रदान करने की प्रक्रिया है)। सही विकल्प C है।

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606📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentPerspectives on Indian Caste System

The caste system in India has been studied with which of the following perspectives?

Explanation

The Indian caste system has been comprehensively examined across multiple scholarly paradigms: Indological textual perspective (G.S. Ghurye, Louis Dumont), Socio-anthropological field perspective (M.N. Srinivas, Kathleen Gough), and Sociological structural perspective (B.R. Ambedkar, Andre Beteille)

\implies

All of the above.

भारत में जाति व्यवस्था का अध्ययन इंडोलॉजिकल (शास्त्रीय), सामाजिक-मानवशास्त्रीय और समाजशास्त्रीय सभी दृष्टिकोणों से किया गया है (All of the above)।

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607📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentSociology of Development (Underdevelopment)

Which concept had been constructed as the phenomena of poverty, low productivity and backwardness?

Explanation

In development sociology and political economy, 'Underdevelopment' is conceptualized as the systemic state of structural poverty, technological dependency, low economic productivity, and institutional backwardness generated by historical colonial exploitation.

गरीबी, निम्न उत्पादकता और पिछड़ेपन की संरचनात्मक परिघटना को 'अल्पविकास' (Underdevelopment) के रूप में परिभाषित किया गया है।

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608📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentDependency Theory of Development

Which among the below statements are true for dependency theory?
1. Dependency characterizes the international system as comprised of two sets of states, variously described as dominant/dependent, center/periphery or metropolitan/satellite.
2. Dependency theories have in common the assumption that external forces are of singular importance to the economic activities within the dependent states.
3. Dependency theories indicate that the relations between dominant and dependent states are dynamic because the interactions between the two sets of states tend to not only reinforce but also intensify the unequal patterns.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

All three propositions accurately define Dependency Theory (Raúl Prebisch, Andre Gunder Frank, Samir Amin): Center-periphery unequal dualism (1), external global capitalist dominance dictating peripheral economies (2), and self-reinforcing unequal exchange perpetuating underdevelopment (3). Correct: 1, 2 and 3.

निर्भरता सिद्धांत (Dependency theory) के संबंध में तीनों कथन 1, 2 और 3 सत्य हैं (केंद्र-परिधि संरचना, बाहरी शक्तियों का प्रभाव और असमान आर्थिक पैटर्न का सुदृढ़ीकरण)। सही विकल्प B है।

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609📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyCognitive Psychology (Beck Depression Triad)

Who described the Cognitive theory of depression?

Explanation

Aaron T. Beck developed the Cognitive Theory of Depression (1967), identifying the Cognitive Triad (negative automatic thoughts regarding the Self, the World, and the Future) maintained by systematic cognitive distortions.

अवसाद का संज्ञानात्मक सिद्धांत (Cognitive theory of depression / संज्ञानात्मक त्रयी) 'हारून टी. बेक' (Aaron T. Beck) द्वारा प्रतिपादित किया गया था।

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610📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyCorporate Social Responsibility (CSR)

Which of these is/are arguments against Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?

Explanation

Classical neoclassical economic critiques against mandatory CSR (e.g. Milton Friedman) argue that corporations lack specialized social engineering skills (B), CSR costs are passed on to consumers as higher prices (C), and it gives business managers social power without democratic accountability (A)

\implies

All of the above.

कॉर्पोरेट सामाजिक उत्तरदायित्व (CSR) के विरुद्ध तर्कों में जवाबदेही के बिना शक्ति, सामाजिक कौशल की कमी और उपभोक्ताओं पर लागत का बोझ सभी शामिल हैं (All of the above)।

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611📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyCognitive Psychology (Working Memory)

Which of the following is a core component of Alan Baddeley's Working Memory Model?

Explanation

Alan Baddeley and Graham Hitch's Working Memory Model (1974/2000) comprises four central components: 1. The Central Executive, 2. The Phonological Loop (verbal/auditory rehearsal), 3. The Visuospatial Sketchpad, and 4. The Episodic Buffer.

एलन बैडेल के वर्किंग मेमोरी मॉडल का प्रमुख घटक 'फोनोलॉजिकल लूप' (Phonological loop / ध्वनि संबंधी लूप) है।

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612📚Neuropsychology, Clinical Assessment & De-Addiction InterventionsImpulse-Control Disorders (IED)

Which is the childhood and adolescent behavioral disorder marked by recurrent behavioral outbursts representing a failure to control aggressive impulses, where the magnitude of aggressiveness is grossly out of proportion?

Explanation

Intermittent Explosive Disorder (IED) is characterized by recurrent impulsive, aggressive, violent verbal or physical outbursts in response to minor provocations, where the degree of aggressiveness expressed is grossly out of proportion to any situational stressor.

आक्रामक आवेगों को नियंत्रित करने में विफलता और अत्यधिक हिंसक प्रतिक्रिया दर्शाने वाला व्यवहार विकार 'इंटरमिटेंट एक्सप्लोसिव डिसऑर्डर' (Intermittent explosive disorder) है।

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613📚Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsPsychometrics (Criterion-Related Validity)

Which of this is a type of criterion-related validity for psychometric tests?

Explanation

Criterion-Related Validity evaluates how well one measure predicts an outcome based on another independent benchmark criterion; its two recognized subtypes are Concurrent Validity (measured at the same time) and Predictive Validity (measured at a future time).

मापदंड-संबंधी वैधता (Criterion-related validity) का प्रमुख प्रकार 'समवर्ती वैधता' (Concurrent validity) और 'भविष्यसूचक वैधता' है।

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614📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsNon-Guaranteed Reservation (6 PM Release)

Mr. Sharma made a reservation at the Metro hotel. He arrived at 9pm only to find that the hotel was full. The room held for him was released for sale at 6pm. Which type of reservation did Mr. Sharma make?

Explanation

A Non-Guaranteed Reservation is an agreement where the hotel holds the room only until a standard cancellation release time (traditionally 6:00 PM on the arrival date), after which uncalled rooms are released back into general inventory for sale to walk-in guests.

शाम 6 बजे कमरे को बिक्री के लिए जारी कर दिया जाना 'गैर-गारंटीकृत आरक्षण' (Non-guaranteed reservation) की पहचान है।

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615📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismLeft Luggage Procedures

Consider the following statements for procedure for delivering left luggage of the guest:
1) Requesting the guest to show counterfoil
2) Tallying the counterfoil with luggage tag
3) Just asking for room number
4) Just asking him to take his own luggage
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Standard security procedure for releasing temporary left luggage: The bell captain must request the guest to present the Baggage Counterfoil (1) and rigorously verify and tally the receipt number and name against the Luggage Tag attached to the bag (2). Correct: Both 1 & 2 (Choice C).

अमानती सामान (Left luggage) सौंपने की सुरक्षित प्रक्रिया में अतिथि से रसीद (Counterfoil) मांगना (1) और उसका मिलान लगेज टैग से करना (2) दोनों शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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616📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismGuest Complaint Handling

Consider the following statements: When guest complaints are not resolved by front office associate, then he/she should always:
1) Ignore the compliant
2) Consult with superiors
3) Try to convince the guest
4) Do nothing about it
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

When a front-line associate cannot resolve a guest complaint satisfactorily within their authority, the standard protocol is to immediately escalate the issue and Consult with Superiors (Duty Manager / FOM) to take corrective managerial action. Choice B (Statement 2).

जब फ्रंट डेस्क कर्मचारी द्वारा शिकायत हल नहीं होती, तो उसे तुरंत 'वरिष्ठ अधिकारियों / पर्यवेक्षकों से परामर्श' (Consult with superiors) करना चाहिए। सही विकल्प B है।

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617📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismFront Office Personal Attributes

Which of these is/are qualities that a front office personnel should possess?

Explanation

Professional front office staff must embody exemplary personal attributes: Punctuality, strong memory for guest names and preferences, loyalty, impeccable grooming, diplomacy, and cheerful communication

\implies

All of the above. Choice D.

फ्रंट ऑफिस कर्मचारियों में समय की पाबंदी, अच्छी स्मरणशक्ति और निष्ठा जैसे सभी गुण होने चाहिए (All of the above)।

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618📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsMethods of Guaranteeing Reservations

Guaranteed reservation can be obtained through which of the following ways?

Explanation

A reservation is guaranteed when secured through: 1. Full Advance Prepayment / Deposit, 2. Corporate billing contract / allotment agreement, 3. Credit card pre-authorization, or 4. Travel agency voucher

\implies

All of the above. Choice D.

गारंटीकृत आरक्षण अग्रिम भुगतान (Prepayment), आवंटन और कॉर्पोरेट अनुबंध सभी माध्यमों से प्राप्त किया जा सकता है (All of the above)।

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619📚General English & ComprehensionVocabulary & Homophones

Fill in the blank: "........did you put my keys?"

Explanation

The interrogative adverb of place used to ask about the location of an object is 'Where'. Choice C.

स्थान पूछने के लिए प्रश्नवाचक शब्द 'Where' का प्रयोग होगा: 'Where did you put my keys?' सही विकल्प C है।

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620📚General English & ComprehensionDeterminers & Pronouns

We bought some eggs from the market but unfortunately ....................of them were fresh.

Explanation

When referring to 'not any' of a plural group of objects (eggs), the indefinite pronoun 'none' ('none of them') is grammatically correct.

अंडों के संदर्भ में 'उनमें से कोई भी नहीं' दर्शाने के लिए 'None of them' का प्रयोग होगा। सही विकल्प C है।

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621📚General English & ComprehensionSynonyms

Choose the word which best express the meaning of PREDICT:

Explanation

To 'Predict' means to state, forecast, or prophesy what will happen in the future, which is synonymous with 'Foretell'.

'Predict' का सही पर्यायवाची शब्द 'Foretell' (भविष्यवाणी करना/पहले से बताना) है।

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622📚General English & ComprehensionClauses

Identify the type of clause: "I know that she is coming to the party."

Explanation

The subordinate clause 'that she is coming to the party' acts as the direct grammatical object of the transitive verb 'know', answering 'know what?'; hence it is a Noun Clause.

वाक्य में 'that she is coming to the party' क्रिया 'know' के कर्म (object) के रूप में कार्य कर रहा है, अतः यह 'संज्ञा उपवाक्य' (Noun clause) है।

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623📚General English & ComprehensionPunctuation Marks

Which punctuation mark is used to show possession?

Explanation

The Apostrophe (') is the standard English punctuation mark combined with 's' (or placed after plural s) to indicate possessive relationships and ownership (e.g. 'the doctor's coat').

अंग्रेजी में अधिकार या संबंध (Possession) दर्शाने के लिए 'एपोस्ट्रोफी' (Apostrophe / ') चिह्न का उपयोग किया जाता है।

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624📚General English & ComprehensionTenses & Sequence of Tenses

Complete the sentence with correct verb form: "The thief will have run away before the police ...................."

Explanation

In a future time clause introduced by 'before' or 'when', referring to an event before a Future Perfect action ('will have run away'), the subordinate clause must take the Simple Present tense: 'before the police comes'.

फ्यूचर परफेक्ट ('will have run away') के साथ 'before' वाले समय उपवाक्य में प्रेजेंट इंडेफिनिट ('comes') का प्रयोग होता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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625📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTAncient History (Indus Valley Civilization)

Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
I. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present did not dominate the scene.
II. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements are historically accurate: Archaeological evidence shows that the Harappan civilization lacked large monumental temples or theocratic rule, maintaining a predominantly secular civic character (I), and Harappans were the earliest people in the world to cultivate cotton and weave textiles, known to Greeks as Sindon (II). Correct: Both I and II.

कथन I और II दोनों सत्य हैं (हड़प्पा सभ्यता मुख्य रूप से धर्मनिरपेक्ष थी जहां धार्मिक तत्व हावी नहीं था और यह कपास का उत्पादन करने वाली पहली सभ्यता थी)। सही विकल्प C है।

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626📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTCurrent Affairs Appointments

Who has been appointed as the Chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)?

Explanation

Siddhartha Mohanty was appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) as the Chairperson and Managing Director of the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).

भारतीय जीवन बीमा निगम (LIC) के अध्यक्ष के रूप में 'सिद्धार्थ मोहंती' (Siddhartha Mohanty) को नियुक्त किया गया।

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627📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Polity (Preamble)

Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
I) The Preamble is considered part of the Constitution but is not legally enforceable.
II) The word "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
III) The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct: The Preamble is non-justiciable/not enforceable in a court of law (I), and the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) ruled that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution (III). Statement II is false because 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (not the 44th). Correct: I and III only.

कथन I और III सही हैं (प्रस्तावना संविधान का अंग है लेकिन गैर-प्रवर्तनीय है और केशवानंद भारती मामले 1973 में इसे भाग माना गया; 'समाजवादी' और 'पंथनिरपेक्ष' 42वें संशोधन 1976 द्वारा जोड़े गए थे, 44वें नहीं)। सही विकल्प B है।

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628📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Political System

Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?
(i) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(ii) Parliament is Supreme.
(iii) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(iv) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Explanation

In India's parliamentary constitutional framework: (i) is false (President is Head of State, while Prime Minister is Head of Government); (ii) is false (The Constitution is supreme, not Parliament); (iii) is TRUE (The Supreme Court is the custodian, interpreter, and guardian of the Constitution via judicial review); (iv) is false (DPSP under Article 37 are non-justiciable). Correct: (iii) only.

भारतीय राजनीतिक व्यवस्था में केवल कथन (iii) सत्य है: 'सर्वोच्च न्यायालय संविधान का संरक्षक है'। (राष्ट्रपति केवल राष्ट्राध्यक्ष हैं, संसद सर्वोच्च नहीं बल्कि संविधान सर्वोच्च है, और नीति निर्देशक तत्व गैर-न्यायिक हैं)। सही विकल्प D है।

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629📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTConstitutional Bodies (Attorney General)

Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct about the Attorney General of India?
I. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
II. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
III. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
IV. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Explanation

Under Article 76: Statement I is NOT correct (must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court, not High Court). Statement IV is NOT correct (holds office during the pleasure of the President, with no fixed tenure specified in the Constitution). Statements II and III are correct [Articles 76(3) and 88]. Correct answer for NOT correct: I and IV (Choice A).

कथन I और IV गलत हैं क्योंकि महान्यायवादी (AGI) बनने के लिए सुप्रीम कोर्ट का जज होने की योग्यता चाहिए (हाई कोर्ट नहीं) और उनका कोई निश्चित कार्यकाल नहीं होता (वे राष्ट्रपति के प्रसादपर्यंत पद धारण करते हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।

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630📚Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning & Basic MathematicsNumber Systems (Binary & Hexadecimal)

Consider the following statement:
Statement -I: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
Statement -II: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

Explanation

Statement I: Hexadecimal

11_{16} = (1 \times 16^1) + (1 \times 16^0) = 16 + 1 = 17_{10}

. Since

11_{10} < 17_{10}

, Statement I is False. Statement II: The fractional binary digits

.101_2 = (1 \times 2^{-1}) + (0 \times 2^{-2}) + (1 \times 2^{-3}) = 0.5 + 0 + 0.125 = 0.625_{10}

. Statement II is True. Correct: S II Only (Choice B).

कथन I गलत है क्योंकि हेक्साडेसिमल

11 = 17

(दशमलव 11 से बड़ा है)। कथन II सही है क्योंकि बाइनरी

.101 = 1/2 + 1/8 = 0.625

होता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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631📚Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning & Basic MathematicsNon-Verbal Pattern Completion

Identify the figure from the options that correctly completes the non-verbal pattern (X):

Explanation

Analyzing the quadrant pattern of diagonals and shading in the

2 \times 2

matrix, option (2) maintains the line continuity and reflectional symmetry of the figure. Choice B.

पैटर्न को पूर्ण करने वाली सममित आकृति विकल्प (2) है। सही विकल्प B है।

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632📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITIT vs ICT Concepts

Read the following two statements:
Statement - I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).
Statement - II: The 'right to use' a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect: Statement I is false because IT is typically regarded as a component/subset of the broader domain of ICT (which emphasizes communication networks). Statement II is false because the legal permission granting the 'right to use' software is a Software License (not copyright, which protects authorship). Correct: Neither I nor II (Choice B).

दोनों कथन गलत हैं (IT को ICT का उपसमुच्चय माना जाता है और सॉफ्टवेयर उपयोग का अधिकार 'लाइसेंस' कहलाता है, कॉपीराइट नहीं)। सही विकल्प B है।

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633📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyUrochordata (Endostyle)

Which of the following is/are true about the endostyle in Urochordates (e.g. Herdmania)?
I. It is involved in filter feeding.
II. It secretes mucus to trap food particles.
III. It is homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates.
IV. It is present only in the larval stage.
Options:

Explanation

Statements I, II, and III are true: The endostyle on the ventral floor of the pharynx secretes iodinated mucus to trap suspended micro-food particles during ciliary filter feeding (I, II), and biochemical and developmental studies confirm it is evolutionary homologous to the vertebrate Thyroid Gland (III). Statement IV is false because the endostyle is retained and functions actively throughout adult urochordate life. Correct: I, II, and III (Choice B).

कथन I, II और III सही हैं (एंडोस्टाइल फिल्टर फीडिंग करता है, बलगम स्रावित करता है और कशेरुकियों की थायरॉयड ग्रंथि के समजात है; यह वयस्क में भी रहता है अतः IV गलत है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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634📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyAmphibian Biology (Parental Care)

Which of the following statements about parental care in amphibians is/are correct?
I. In some amphibians, males guard the eggs and provide protection until they hatch.
II. Certain amphibians, like Darwin's frog, carry their tadpoles in the vocal sac after hatching.
III. Some amphibians, such as common toads, do not provide any form of parental care, leaving eggs to develop on their own.
IV. Male salamanders perform courtship dances to attract females and assist with egg-laying but do not provide any care afterward.
Choose The Correct Statement:

Explanation

Statements I, II, and III are well-documented facts of amphibian parental care: Male hellbenders and midwife toads protect and carry eggs (I), male Darwin's frog (Rhinoderma darwinii) broods developing tadpoles in its vocal sacs (II), and many anurans simply deposit gelatinous egg clutches in water without further care (III). Correct: Statements I, II, and III are correct (Choice A).

कथन I, II और III सही हैं (डार्विन मेंढक वोकल सैक में बच्चों को पालता है और कुछ नर मेंढक अंडों की रक्षा करते हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।

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635📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions

Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "I was advised to abstain ________ all alcoholic drinks."

Explanation

The verb 'abstain' standardly takes the preposition 'from' (abstain from something = to restrain oneself from indulging).

क्रिया 'abstain' के साथ हमेशा 'from' प्रीपोजिशन का प्रयोग होता है: 'abstain from all alcoholic drinks'। सही विकल्प C है।

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636📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions

Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "Ravi could not dissociate himself ________ what he said earlier."

Explanation

The verb 'dissociate' consistently collocates with the preposition 'from' ('dissociate oneself from something').

क्रिया 'dissociate' के साथ प्रीपोजिशन 'from' का प्रयोग होता है: 'dissociate himself from'। सही विकल्प C है।

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637📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)National Current Affairs Renaming

The Government of India has decided to rename the capital city of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Port Blair, as:

Explanation

On 13 September 2024, Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced that Port Blair, the capital of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, has been renamed 'Sri Vijaya Puram' to honor the historical naval role of the Chola Empire.

सितंबर 2024 में केंद्र सरकार ने अंडमान और निकोबार की राजधानी पोर्ट ब्लेयर का नाम बदलकर 'श्री विजय पुरम' (Sri Vijaya Puram) कर दिया है।

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638📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Poona Pact)

The historic Poona Pact of 1932 was an agreement signed between:

Explanation

The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail between Mahatma Gandhi (represented by Madan Mohan Malaviya and other leaders) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, replacing separate electorates with reserved legislative seats for the Depressed Classes.

1932 का प्रसिद्ध पूना पैक्ट 'महात्मा गांधी और डॉ. बी.आर. अंबेडकर' (Gandhi and Ambedkar) के बीच हस्ताक्षरित हुआ था।

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639📚Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsLabor Laws (Employee's Compensation Act)

The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923 has been officially renamed as the:

Explanation

Through the Workmen's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2009, the legislation was gender-neutralized and officially renamed the 'Employee's Compensation Act, 1923'.

कर्मकार क्षतिपूर्ति अधिनियम 1923 का नाम 2009 में बदलकर 'कर्मचारी क्षतिपूर्ति अधिनियम' (Employees Compensation Act) कर दिया गया है।

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640📚General EnglishPrepositions

Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "I was advised to abstain ________ all alcoholic drinks."

Explanation

The verb 'abstain' standardly takes the fixed preposition 'from' (to abstain from doing something or consuming something).

क्रिया 'abstain' के साथ निश्चित प्रीपोजिशन 'from' का प्रयोग होता है ('abstain from alcoholic drinks')। सही विकल्प C है।

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641📚General EnglishPrepositions

Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "He had to repent ________ what he had done."

Explanation

In formal English usage, the intransitive verb 'repent' takes the preposition 'of' (e.g. to repent of one's sins or wrongdoings). Choice B.

अंग्रेजी व्याकरण में 'repent of' का प्रयोग किसी किए गए कार्य पर पश्चाताप करने के लिए होता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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642📚General EnglishPrepositions

Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "Ravi could not dissociate himself ________ what he said earlier."

Explanation

The verb 'dissociate' governs the preposition 'from' (to dissociate oneself from a statement, organization, or action).

'Dissociate' के साथ प्रीपोजिशन 'from' का प्रयोग होता है ('dissociate himself from')। सही विकल्प C है।

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643📚Indian Polity, History & GeographyIndian Freedom Struggle (Poona Pact)

The Poona Pact (1932) was an historic agreement between:

Explanation

The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune between Mahatma Gandhi (represented by Madan Mohan Malaviya) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, reserving seats for the Depressed Classes in provincial legislatures within the general electorate.

पुना पैक्ट (1932) 'महात्मा गांधी और डॉ. बी.आर. अंबेडकर' (Gandhi and Ambedkar) के बीच हस्ताक्षरित ऐतिहासिक समझौता था।

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644📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Constitutional History (1952 Agreement)

The 1952 Agreement between Jammu and Kashmir and the Union of India (Delhi Agreement) was signed by:

Explanation

The historic Delhi Agreement of July 1952, delineating constitutional relations and autonomy arrangements between J&K and the Indian Union, was negotiated and concluded between Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Prime Minister of J&K Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah.

जुलाई 1952 का ऐतिहासिक दिल्ली समझौता प्रधानमंत्री 'जवाहरलाल नेहरू और शेख मोहम्मद अब्दुल्ला' के बीच हस्ताक्षरित हुआ था।

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645📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsSupercomputers in India (Param Shivay)

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Param Shivay?
I. Param Shivay was the first supercomputer fully designed and assembled in India under the National Supercomputing Mission
II. Param Shivay was developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
III. Param Shivay is primarily used for commercial purposes
IV. Param Shivay was installed at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Param Shivay (833 Teraflops) was the first supercomputer designed and assembled in India under the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM). Statements II, III, and IV are false: It was developed by C-DAC (not ISRO), dedicated to scientific research, and installed at IIT BHU Varanasi (not IIT Delhi). Correct: I only (Choice C).

केवल कथन I सही है: परम शिवाय राष्ट्रीय सुपरकंप्यूटिंग मिशन के तहत C-DAC द्वारा डिजाइन किया गया पहला सुपरकंप्यूटर था (यह IIT BHU में स्थापित किया गया था, IIT दिल्ली या ISRO द्वारा नहीं)। सही विकल्प C है।

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646📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsSpace Science (ISRO Missions)

Which of the following statements about the Chandrayaan-2 and Mangalyaan missions is/are correct?
Statement 1: The Chandrayaan-2 mission was launched by ISRO in 2019, with an aim to explore the Moon's south pole.
Statement 2: The Mangalyaan mission was launched in 2017, and aimed at exploring Mars.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Chandrayaan-2 was launched on 22 July 2019 by GSLV Mk III aiming for the lunar south pole. Statement 2 is incorrect: Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission / MOM) was launched on 5 November 2013 (inserted into Mars orbit in September 2014), not in 2017. Correct: Only Statement 1 is correct (Choice A).

केवल कथन 1 सही है क्योंकि चंद्रयान-2 को 2019 में प्रक्षेपित किया गया था; मंगलयान (MOM) 2013 में लॉन्च हुआ था, 2017 में नहीं। सही विकल्प A है।

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647📚General English & Reading ComprehensionModal Verbs

Choose the most appropriate auxiliary or modal verb from the given options:
"Emma is unwell, so she ________ stay in bed and drink plenty of water."

Explanation

In the context of medical illness and physical necessity, 'has to' expresses external necessity or medical obligation ('she has to stay in bed'). Choice D.

बीमारी के कारण बिस्तर पर आराम करने की अनिवार्यता दर्शाने के लिए 'has to' का प्रयोग होगा। सही विकल्प D है।

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648📚General English & Reading ComprehensionActive and Passive Voice

Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence in passive voice:
"Sarita was writing a letter to her mother."

Explanation

In converting Past Continuous tense ('was writing') to passive voice, the auxiliary becomes 'was/were being + past participle (written)': 'A letter was being written by Sarita to her mother.' Choice B.

पास्ट कंटीन्यूअस का पैसिव वॉइस 'was being +

V_3

' होता है: 'A letter was being written by Sarita to her mother.' सही विकल्प B है।

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649📚General English & Reading ComprehensionActive and Passive Voice

Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence in passive voice:
"My brother promised me a present."

Explanation

With ditransitive verbs like 'promised', converting the indirect object ('me') to the subject gives the most idiomatic passive: 'I was promised a present by my brother.' Choice A.

अप्रत्यक्ष कर्म 'me' को कर्ता बनाने पर सही पैसिव वॉइस 'I was promised a present by my brother.' बनता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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650📚General English & Reading ComprehensionActive and Passive Voice

Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence in passive voice:
"The teacher explained the lesson to the students."

Explanation

Simple past tense active voice ('explained') changes into 'was/were + explained' in passive voice: 'The lesson was explained to the students by the teacher.' Choice C.

सिंपल पास्ट का पैसिव रूप 'was +

V_3

' होगा: 'The lesson was explained to the students by the teacher.' सही विकल्प C है।

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651📚General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles

Fill in the blanks with suitable options: "On ________ cold December evening, ________ doorbell wouldn't stop ringing at my house."

Explanation

We use indefinite article 'a' before an unspecific descriptive singular time reference ('On a cold December evening') and definite article 'the' before a specific unique object in the household ('the doorbell'). Choice A.

सही आर्टिकल संयोजन: 'On a cold December evening, the doorbell wouldn't stop ringing'. सही विकल्प A है।

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652📚General English & Reading ComprehensionInfinitives & Predicate Grammar

Choose the correct option: "His ambition ________ a successful entrepreneur."

Explanation

When stating an ambition, life goal, or aim as a predicate nominative after the linking verb 'is', the to-infinitive 'is to become' is standard English idiom. Choice D.

लक्ष्य या महत्वाकांक्षा दर्शाने के लिए 'is to become' का प्रयोग सही है ('His ambition is to become a successful entrepreneur')।

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653📚General English & Reading ComprehensionReading Comprehension

According to the passage, a 'slip of the tongue' refers to something said:

Explanation

A 'slip of the tongue' is an unintentional or careless verbal utterance made without careful reflection or without giving proper thought.

गद्यांश के अनुसार 'slip of the tongue' का अर्थ बिना सोचे-समझे अचानक बोल देना (without giving proper thought) है। सही विकल्प A है।

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654📚General English & Reading ComprehensionAntonyms

Choose the correct antonym of the given word: DILEMMA

Explanation

'Dilemma' refers to a state of indecision or difficult perplexity between conflicting choices. Its antonym is 'Agreement' (certainty, resolution, or harmony).

'Dilemma' (दुविधा/असमंजस) का विलोम शब्द 'Agreement' (सहमति/निश्चय) है।

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655📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningAnalytical Reasoning Facts

The logic problem provides three true facts:
Fact 1: Islands are entirely surrounded by water.
Fact 2: Maui is an island.
Fact 3: Maui was created by volcanic activity.
Based on these facts, determine which of the following statements must also be true:
Statement-I: Maui is entirely surrounded by water.
Statement-II: Every island is created by volcanic activity.
Statement-III: Every volcano exists on an island.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

Explanation

From Fact 1 and Fact 2: Since Maui is an island and all islands are surrounded by water, Statement I ('Maui is entirely surrounded by water') is universally and necessarily true. Statements II and III are broad overgeneralizations not supported by the premises. Correct: Only Statement I is true (Choice A).

तथ्य 1 और 2 के आधार पर केवल कथन I सत्य है कि 'माउई पूरी तरह से पानी से घिरा हुआ है'। अन्य कथन व्यापक सामान्यीकरण हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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656📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningNon-Verbal Odd One Out

Among the five figures labelled (I), (II), (III), (IV), and (V), four share a common characteristic of rotational symbol distribution, while one stands out as different. Identify the figure that does not belong to the group:

Explanation

In figures I, II, III, and V, the mathematical operators

(+, =, \times, \Delta, O)

maintain a consistent alternating parity across diagonal cells, which is violated in figure IV. Choice B.

आकृति IV में प्रतीकों का विकर्ण पैटर्न अन्य आकृतियों के नियम का पालन नहीं करता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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657📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningNon-Verbal Odd One Out

Among the five figures labelled (I), (II), (III), (IV), and (V), four share a common characteristic of line crossing subdivisions, while one stands out as different. Identify the figure that does not belong to the group:

Explanation

Analyzing the internal vertex intersecting diagonals of the five geometric figures, Figure III departs from the uniform four-quadrant crossing pattern shown by the other four. Choice B.

आकृति III का आंतरिक रेखा विभाजन अन्य आकृतियों के समान नहीं है। सही विकल्प B है।

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658📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeStatistics (Mode & Modal Class)

A histogram represents the data distribution of the marks scored by 50 students in a test:
Interval: 0-10 (freq: 5), 10-20 (freq: 8), 20-30 (freq: 12), 30-40 (freq: 15), 40-50 (freq: 10).
Which interval contains the mode of the data?

Explanation

The modal class is the interval that possesses the highest frequency. Here, the maximum frequency is 15, corresponding to the class interval 30-40. Choice C.

बहुलक वर्ग वह अंतराल होता है जिसकी बारंबारता सबसे अधिक हो। यहाँ अधिकतम बारंबारता 15 अंतराल 30-40 की है। सही विकल्प C है।

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659📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceSoftware Classifications

Which type of software can be easily modified and distributed by editing the program's source code?
I. Shareware
II. Freeware
III. Open source software
IV. Utility software
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Open Source Software (such as Linux, Apache, Python) provides users with the legal rights and accessible source code to inspect, modify, enhance, and freely redistribute the program. Freeware and Shareware are distributed in compiled binary format without source code access. Correct: III only (Choice C).

केवल 'ओपन सोर्स सॉफ्टवेयर' (Open source software / III only) का सोर्स कोड संपादन और स्वतंत्र पुनर्वितरण के लिए उपलब्ध होता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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660📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceNetwork Security & Firewalls

Consider the following statements on 'firewall' used on computer systems:
I. It controls and monitors the data traffic flow between inside and outside network
II. It protects and secures the inside network from any outside unauthorized network intrusions
III. It can be implemented in software or hardware or a combination of both.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct: A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network packet traffic based on defined security rules (I), establishes a barrier protecting internal private networks from unauthorized external threats (II), and can be deployed as dedicated hardware appliances, host software, or hybrid combinations (III)

\implies

I, II and III. Choice D.

फायरवॉल नेटवर्क ट्रैफिक की निगरानी करता है (I), अनधिकृत पहुंच से नेटवर्क की रक्षा करता है (II) और यह सॉफ्टवेयर तथा हार्डवेयर दोनों रूपों में हो सकता है (III)

\implies

I, II and III सही हैं।

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661📚Computer Applications, IT & e-Governancee-Governance & PPP Models

Consider the following statement:
Statement (I): The long-term sustainability of e-governance projects depends on financial viability, especially if they are to be implemented in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) mode.
Statement (II): PPP models in e-governance often involve significant upfront investments by private partners, requiring a robust revenue model to ensure project continuity.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements are true and causally explanatory: Under PPP arrangements in e-governance (like passport seva or CSCs), private concessionaires invest heavy initial capital, so the project's long-term commercial sustainability is strictly dependent upon generating steady transaction fees and financial viability. Choice A.

कथन I और II दोनों सत्य हैं तथा कथन II, कथन I की सही व्याख्या करता है (PPP मॉडल में निजी पूंजी निवेश होने के कारण दीर्घकालिक निरंतरता हेतु वित्तीय व्यवहार्यता आवश्यक होती है)। सही विकल्प A है।

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662📚Computer Applications, IT & e-Governancem-Governance (Mobile Seva)

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Mobile Seva' initiative of the Government of India:
I. It aims to provide government services to people through mobile phones and tablets.
II. It enables a government department to integrate web and mobile-based services seamlessly.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements are correct: Mobile Seva (developed by MeitY and C-DAC) is an innovative national m-Governance initiative that delivers public services directly to citizens via mobile applications, SMS, and IVRS (I) and provides centralized gateway APIs for departments to integrate web and mobile services (II). Choice A.

मोबाइल सेवा (Mobile Seva) के तहत सरकारी सेवाएं मोबाइल पर उपलब्ध कराई जाती हैं (I) और विभाग वेब व मोबाइल सेवाओं को एकीकृत कर सकते हैं (II)

\implies

दोनों कथन सत्य हैं।

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663📚General EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement

Fill in the blank: "Each of the students ________ done their exams well."

Explanation

The distributive pronoun 'Each' is grammatically singular and requires a singular verb: 'Each of the students has done...'. Choice B.

'Each of...' के बाद संज्ञा बहुवचन होती है लेकिन क्रिया हमेशा एकवचन (has) आती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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664📚General EnglishPronouns & Determiners

Fill in the blanks: "________ of the witnesses were present in the court."

Explanation

When referring to 'not any' among three or more plural persons (witnesses) followed by a plural verb 'were', 'None' ('None of the witnesses were present...') is standard English. Choice B.

अनेक गवाहों में से 'कोई भी नहीं' और बहुवचन क्रिया 'were' के लिए 'None' का प्रयोग होगा। सही विकल्प B है।

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665📚General EnglishTenses

Fill in the blanks: "This road ________ to the hospital."

Explanation

Permanent geographical routes, directions, and universal facts take the Simple Present tense in the singular: 'This road leads to the hospital.' Choice A.

सड़क की दिशा या स्थायी स्थिति दर्शाने के लिए सिंपल प्रेजेंट टेंस 'leads' का प्रयोग होगा। सही विकल्प A है।

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666📚General EnglishPunctuation Rules

Choose the most appropriate option that has the correct punctuation marks:

Explanation

Items in a simple coordinate list are separated by commas without a semicolon or premature comma after the verb: 'Please bring some fruits, green vegetables and some bowls.' Choice B.

सूचीबद्ध वस्तुओं को अलग करने के लिए सही विराम चिह्न: 'Please bring some fruits, green vegetables and some bowls.' सही विकल्प B है।

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667📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringElectronic Troubleshooting

A +5 V PCB power supply rail that has been observed to be 'pulled down' to a lower +3.4 V level is typically caused by:

Explanation

When an onboard DC power rail drops partially from +5V down to +3.4V (rather than collapsing to 0V as in a dead short), it is classic evidence of a Faulty Voltage Regulator (e.g. failing 7805 regulator) or severe excessive current loading. Choice B.

+5V की पावर सप्लाई का गिरकर +3.4V हो जाना एक 'दोषपूर्ण वोल्टेज रेगुलेटर' (Faulty Regulator) या अत्यधिक लोड की पहचान है। सही विकल्प B है।

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668📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & Digital ElectronicsSystem Software (Loaders)

Which of the following statements about system loaders is/are correct?
I. A loader is responsible for transferring the object program from secondary memory to the main memory.
II. Embedded systems typically do not have loaders (programs run directly from ROM/Flash).
III. The loader usually resides permanently in memory.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct: Loaders load compiled executable binary code into physical RAM for CPU execution (I), and simple bare-metal embedded systems execute firmware directly in place from non-volatile ROM/Flash without a dynamic loader (II). Statement III is false because transient loaders relinquish memory once execution commences. Correct: I and II (Choice A).

कथन I और II सही हैं: लोडर प्रोग्राम को मुख्य मेमोरी में लोड करता है और अधिकांश एम्बेडेड सिस्टम सीधे रोम/फ्लैश से चलते हैं जिनमें डायनेमिक लोडर नहीं होता। सही विकल्प A है।

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669📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationFlame Test Color Intensities

Arrange the following cations in decreasing order of the visual brightness/intensity of their characteristic flame emission color:

Na^+, K^+, Ba^{2+}

Explanation

Sodium (

Na^+

) emits an intensely brilliant, persistent golden-yellow flame (D-lines at 589 nm) of very high luminous intensity. Barium (

Ba^{2+}

) produces an apple-green flame of moderate brightness. Potassium (

K^+

) emits a faint, delicate lilac/violet flame of low visual luminosity that is easily masked by traces of sodium. Decreasing order:

Na^+ > Ba^{2+} > K^+

. Choice C.

ज्वाला के रंग की दृश्य तीव्रता का घटता क्रम: सोडियम (

Na^+

- अत्यधिक चमकदार सुनहरा पीला)

>

बेरियम (

Ba^{2+}

- सेब जैसा हरा)

>

पोटेशियम (

K^+

- हल्का बैंगनी/लीलाक)। सही विकल्प C है।

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670📚Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyStatistics (Normal Distribution)

In a perfectly symmetrical, bell-shaped normal distribution curve (Gaussian distribution), the Mean, Median, and Mode are all:

Explanation

By mathematical definition of a Gaussian normal distribution, the unimodal curve is perfectly symmetric around its central peak; hence, the Mean, Median, and Mode coincide and are exactly Equal (

\mu = \text{Median} = \text{Mode}

). Choice A.

एक सामान्य वितरण वक्र (Normal distribution curve) में माध्य (Mean), माध्यिका (Median) और बहुलक (Mode) तीनों 'समान' (Equal) होते हैं।

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671📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeCommunity Ecology (Keystone Species)

Consider the following ecological statements about keystone species:
I. Keystone species are organisms whose impact on their community or ecosystem is disproportionately large relative to their abundance or biomass.
II. Keystone species play a critical, irreplaceable role in maintaining the structure, diversity, and integrity of an ecological community.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Both statements accurately define the ecological concept of a Keystone Species (first introduced by Robert Paine): A species whose presence and activities exert strong regulation over community structure and biodiversity disproportionate to its total abundance or biomass. Choice C (Both I and II).

कथन I और II दोनों सही हैं: कीस्टोन प्रजातियां (Keystone species) अपने बायोमास की तुलना में पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र की संरचना और विविधता पर अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण और बड़ा प्रभाव डालती हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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672📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeInternational Environmental Governance

Which of the following statements about the global management of environmental pollution and treaties are true?
I. The Paris Agreement focuses on reducing greenhouse gas emissions to hold global warming well below 2°C.
II. International environmental protocols such as the Montreal Protocol have been exceptionally instrumental in phasing out ozone-depleting substances.
III. Transboundary pollution problems, including transboundary river basins and marine plastic pollution, require multinational cooperation.
IV. Environmental regulations have been completely successful in totally eliminating lead and asbestos in all industries worldwide.
Choose the correct statements:

Explanation

Statements I, II, and III are correct: The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise (I), the Montreal Protocol has phased out

>99\%

of controlled ODS (II), and shared river/ocean pollution demands multilateral governance (III). Statement IV is false because asbestos mining/use and industrial lead contamination persist in numerous developing nations. Choice D (I, II, III).

कथन I, II और III सही हैं (पेरिस समझौता ग्रीनहाउस गैसों को कम करता है, मॉन्ट्रियल प्रोटोकॉल ओजोन क्षरण को रोकता है और सीमापार प्रदूषण में वैश्विक सहयोग आवश्यक है; सीसा और एस्बेस्टस अभी पूरी तरह समाप्त नहीं हुए हैं)। सही विकल्प D है।

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673📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsApplied Mathematics (Complex Analysis)

The residue theorem is primarily used to evaluate integrals of:

Explanation

Cauchy's Residue Theorem is a powerful tool in complex analysis used to evaluate closed contour integrals of meromorphic functions containing isolated singular points (poles) via

\oint_C f(z) dz = 2\pi i \sum \text{Res}(f, z_k)

कॉशी का अवशेष प्रमेय (Residue Theorem) मुख्य रूप से विविक्त विलक्षणताओं (Functions with isolated singularities) वाले फलनों के कंटूर समाकलनों का मान निकालने के लिए प्रयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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674📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningSolid State Dosimetry (OSLD & TLD)

Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of optically stimulated luminescent dosimeters (OSLD)?

Explanation

Optically Stimulated Luminescent Dosimeters (

Al_2O_3:C

) use optical stimulation (green/blue light or laser) rather than heat to release trapped electrons, meaning they can be re-read multiple times without total signal erasure. However, like other solid-state dosimeters, OSLDs exhibit post-irradiation signal fading (~1-2% over the initial 24 hours), which must be accounted for.

OSLD (

Al_2O_3:C

) को प्रकाश से पढ़ा जाता है (ऊष्मा से नहीं) और इसे पुनः पढ़ा जा सकता है, लेकिन विकिरण के बाद इसमें सिग्नल फ़ेडिंग (Signal fading exists after irradiation) पाई जाती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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675📚Brachytherapy, Nuclear Medicine Physics & Radiotherapy QAHybrid Imaging (PET/CT & SPECT/CT)

What type of imaging modality in nuclear medicine benefits most from the integration of fusion imaging on display systems?

Explanation

Hybrid PET/CT systems benefit profoundly from image fusion display: the high functional/metabolic sensitivity of PET is coregistered and overlaid on the high-resolution anatomical cross-sections of CT, allowing precise anatomical localization of hypermetabolic tumors.

परमाणु चिकित्सा में PET/CT फ्यूजन इमेजिंग से सबसे अधिक लाभान्वित होता है, क्योंकि इसमें PET की मेटाबॉलिक जानकारी CT के एनाटॉमिकल विवरण के साथ एकीकृत हो जाती है। सही विकल्प C है।

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676📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningRadiation Physics & Photon Interactions

Pair production is a process by which a photon interacts with ________

Explanation

Pair production occurs when an incident photon with energy greater than the rest mass energy threshold of two electrons (

h\nu \ge 2 m_e c^2 = 1.022\text{ MeV}

) interacts with the intense electrostatic Coulomb field of an atomic nucleus, converting completely into an electron-positron pair.

युग्म उत्पादन (Pair production) की प्रक्रिया में कम से कम 1.022 MeV ऊर्जा वाला फोटॉन परमाणु के नाभिकीय कूलम्ब क्षेत्र (Nuclear Coulomb field) से टकराकर एक इलेक्ट्रॉन और पॉज़िट्रॉन में बदल जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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677📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningTarget Margins & IGRT

The planning target volume (PTV) margin can be reduced by all of the following techniques except ________

Explanation

PTV margins account for geometric uncertainties, inter-fraction setup variations, and internal organ motion. Image-guided radiation therapy (IGRT) modalities like 2D kV orthogonal imaging, kV-CBCT, and MV-CBCT directly measure and correct patient positioning, allowing PTV margins to be safely reduced. IMRT is an intensity-modulation delivery technique that conforms dose to a shape, but does not itself reduce geometric setup or motion uncertainties.

प्लानिंग टारगेट वॉल्यूम (PTV) मार्जिन को इमेज गाइडेंस (kV, CBCT) द्वारा कम किया जा सकता है; जबकि IMRT केवल बीम तीव्रता को संशोधित करने की तकनीक है, यह सेटअप अनिश्चितता या मार्जिन को कम नहीं करती। सही विकल्प D है।

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678📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsMathematical Physics (Differential Equations)

What are the regular singular points of Legendre's Differential Equation?

Explanation

Legendre's differential equation is

(1 - x^2)y'' - 2xy' + n(n+1)y = 0

. In standard form

y'' + P(x)y' + Q(x)y = 0

P(x) = \frac{-2x}{(1-x)(1+x)}

. The finite singular points are

x = 1

and

x = -1

. Transforming to

t = 1/x

demonstrates that

x = \infty

is also a regular singular point. Thus, the three regular singular points are

x = 1, -1, \infty

लीजेंड्रे के अवकल समीकरण के नियमित विचित्र बिंदु (Regular singular points)

x = 1

x = -1

, और

x = \infty

होते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।

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679📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsThermodynamic Systems & Boundaries

Which of the following statements about a thermodynamic system is/are correct?
1. A thermodynamic system is a specific part of the universe chosen for analysis, separated by boundaries.
2. The surroundings are considered part of the system that affects the system.
3. The boundary of a thermodynamic system can be real or imaginary.
4. Energy and matter may or may not cross the system boundary, depending on the type of system.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct definitions. Statement 2 is false because the surroundings represent everything in the universe external to the system boundaries, not part of the system itself. Hence, Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Choice C.

कथन 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं; जबकि कथन 2 गलत है क्योंकि परिवेश (Surroundings) निकाय की सीमा के बाहर का भाग होता है, निकाय का हिस्सा नहीं। सही विकल्प C है।

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680📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsAtmospheric Physics & Structure

Which of the following statements about Earth's atmosphere and its properties is/are correct?
1. The Earth's atmosphere is primarily composed of nitrogen, oxygen, and trace gases.
2. Atmospheric pressure decreases exponentially with increasing altitude.
3. Earth's gravitational pull is essential for retaining the atmosphere.
4. The ozone layer is located in the mesosphere.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: the atmosphere is ~78% N2, 21% O2 (1); barometric pressure drops exponentially with altitude

P(z) = P_0 e^{-z/H}

(2); and gravity prevents atmospheric gas molecules from escaping to space (3). Statement 4 is FALSE because the protective ozone layer is located in the stratosphere (15–35 km), not the mesosphere. Hence, 1, 2, and 3 only. Choice B.

कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं; कथन 4 गलत है क्योंकि ओजोन परत मध्यमंडल (Mesosphere) में नहीं, बल्कि समताप मंडल (Stratosphere) में स्थित होती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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681📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsOptics & Lens Maker Formula

Which of the following statements is/are true about the below statement?
"If the refractive index of the medium is equal to that of the lens"
1. There will be maximum refraction at the lens surfaces.
2. The lens effectively loses its optical power.
3. As a result, the focal length becomes infinite, and the lens behaves as a flat, transparent sheet.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

According to the Lens Maker's Formula:

\frac{1}{f} = \left(\frac{\mu_{\text{lens}}}{\mu_{\text{medium}}} - 1\right)\left(\frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2}\right)

. When

\mu_{\text{medium}} = \mu_{\text{lens}}

, the refractive ratio is 1, so

\frac{1}{f} = 0 \implies f = \infty

. Optical power

P = 1/f = 0

, meaning the lens loses optical focusing power and light passes undeviated (no refraction). Thus, statements 2 and 3 are true, while statement 1 is false. Choice C.

लेंस मेकर सूत्र से जब माध्यम का अपवर्तनांक लेंस के समान हो (

\\mu_{\text{lens}} = \mu_{\text{med}}

), तो

\frac{1}{f} = 0 \implies f = \infty

और क्षमता

P = 0

हो जाती है, जिससे लेंस कांच की समतल शीट की तरह व्यवहार करता है। अतः कथन 2 और 3 सत्य हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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682📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Quality Parameters

Which statements are correct regarding supersaturation of DO in water?
1. Supersaturation occurs when the DO level exceeds the saturation limit.
2. It is harmful to aquatic organisms, causing gas bubble disease.
3. Supersaturation occurs due to mixing of oxygen-rich groundwater.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Dissolved oxygen (DO) supersaturation (>100% saturation) occurs when water contains more dissolved O2 than thermodynamic equilibrium allows (often during midday intense algal blooms or rapid temperature increases). This causes gas bubble disease/trauma in fish as dissolved gas comes out of solution in blood and tissues. Statement 3 is false because groundwater is typically anoxic or sub-saturated in DO. Hence, 1 and 2 only. Choice A.

कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं: जब पानी में DO संतृप्ति सीमा से अधिक हो जाती है, तो मछलियों में गैस बबल रोग हो सकता है। भूजल प्रायः ऑक्सीजन रहित होता है, अतः कथन 3 असत्य है। सही विकल्प A है।

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683📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryHeavy Metal Toxicology (Arsenic)

Chronic exposure to arsenic has been linked to which of the following health issues besides cancer?

Explanation

Chronic ingestion of inorganic arsenic from contaminated groundwater leads to arsenicosis, skin keratosis, and cancers (skin, bladder, lung), and is strongly causally linked to severe cardiovascular disease—notably Blackfoot disease (endemic peripheral vascular gangrene), hypertension, atherosclerosis, and myocardial infarction.

आर्सेनिक के दीर्घकालिक संपर्क से कैंसर के अतिरिक्त प्रमुख रूप से गंभीर हृदय रोग (Cardiovascular disease) और ब्लैकफुट रोग होता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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684📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNon-Verbal Reasoning (Figure Series)

Choose the option among 1-4 to replace the (d) to make a logical sequence.
Question Figure: (a) triangle/circle/square/L, (b) circle/L/triangle/square, (c) L/square/circle/triangle, (d) ?

Explanation

The elements shift position in a clockwise cyclic rotation from frame to frame. Continuing the clockwise cycle leads to Answer Figure 2.

आकृतियों के दक्षिणावर्त (Clockwise) चक्रिक घूर्णन के अनुसार सही उत्तर चित्र 2 है। सही विकल्प B है।

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685📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNon-Verbal Reasoning (Figure Series)

Choose the option among 1-4 to replace the (c) to make a logical sequence in line elements.

Explanation

The series systematically alternates and adds vertical and horizontal line segments in sequence, progressing to 2 vertical lines with 2 horizontal bars in Figure 4.

रेखाओं के क्रमिक विकास के आधार पर सही उत्तर चित्र 4 है। सही विकल्प D है।

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686📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition
He was accused _____ plagiarism after submitting his thesis.

Explanation

The adjective/verb 'accuse' takes the fixed preposition 'of' ('accused of a crime/misconduct').

'Accused' के साथ निश्चित प्रीपोजिशन 'of' का प्रयोग होता है (accused of plagiarism)। सही विकल्प B है।

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687📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions & Phrasal Verbs

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition
You are running so fast that I cannot catch _____ with you.

Explanation

The phrasal verb 'catch up with' means to reach the same level, speed, or quality as someone ahead.

किसी के बराबर पहुँचने के लिए 'catch up with' का प्रयोग होता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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688📚General English & ComprehensionTenses & Subject-Verb Agreement

The Doctor _____ the operation tomorrow.

Explanation

The temporal adverb 'tomorrow' indicates a future action, requiring the simple future tense 'will perform'.

'Tomorrow' भविष्य काल को दर्शाता है, इसलिए 'will perform' सही क्रिया रूप है। सही विकल्प C है।

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689📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNon-Verbal Reasoning (Figure Series)

Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures (1-5) which will continue the same series as established by the five Question Figures

Explanation

Analyzing the rotational shift of outer corner symbols and internal inversion across the sequence reveals that Figure 2 continues the geometric pattern.

प्रतीकों की चक्रीय स्थिति परिवर्तन के आधार पर सही उत्तर चित्र 2 है। सही विकल्प B है।

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690📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityStatement & Conclusions

Read the statements given and the conclusions, and choose the appropriate option.
Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.
Conclusions:
I. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future.
II. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life.

Explanation

The statement explicitly highlights that population will continue to increase while resources deplete. This directly implies conclusion II: governments will face immense difficulty ensuring a decent standard of living. Conclusion I contradicts the premise. Hence, only conclusion II follows.

जनसंख्या बढ़ने और संसाधनों के घटने से विकासशील देशों की सरकारों के लिए नागरिकों को अच्छा जीवन स्तर देना अत्यंत कठिन हो जाएगा (निष्कर्ष II सही है)। सही विकल्प B है।

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691📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Agriculture & Soils

Which soil present in the hilly regions of South India make the area more suitable for the cultivation of Tea and Coffee?

Explanation

Laterite soils, formed by intense tropical leaching in high-rainfall hilly slopes (Western Ghats, Nilgiris, Shevaroy Hills), are rich in iron and aluminum oxides and acidic in nature, making them ideally suited for plantation crops like tea, coffee, rubber, and cashew.

दक्षिण भारत के पहाड़ी ढलानों पर पाई जाने वाली लेटराइट मिट्टी (Laterite soil) चाय और कॉफी की खेती के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त होती है। सही विकल्प A है।

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692📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Environmental Law

Environmental Pollution Act of 1986 was enacted under _______ of the Indian Constitution.

Explanation

The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted by Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, which empowers the Union to make laws for implementing international treaties and agreements (specifically the 1972 UN Stockholm Conference on Human Environment).

पर्यावरण (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1986 भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 253 (अंतरराष्ट्रीय समझौतों को लागू करने की शक्ति) के तहत पारित किया गया था। सही विकल्प A है।

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693📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsAxial Chirality & Dissymmetry

Which of the following statements about threo and erythro isomers of compounds without a chiral carbon (e.g., biphenyls, allenes, and spiranes) is/are correct?
1. Threo and erythro isomers can exist in biphenyl compounds if the rings are non-planar and sterically hindered, restricting rotation around the central bond.
2. Allenes with two different substituents on each terminal carbon can exhibit optical activity and form threo and erythro isomers.
3. Spiranes (compounds with two rings sharing a single spiro atom) cannot exhibit optical activity due to the absence of a traditional chiral carbon.
4. Threo and erythro terminology in such systems is defined by the relative positions of substituents on the spatially separated axes or planes.

Explanation

Statement 3 is incorrect because spiranes possessing mutually perpendicular rings with appropriate non-identical substituents lack alternating axes of symmetry (

S_n

) and DO exhibit optical activity (axial/central dissymmetry without a stereogenic carbon). Statements 1, 2, and 4 correctly describe restricted rotation (atropisomerism in ortho-substituted biphenyls), dissymmetric allenes, and the extended use of erythro/threo stereodescriptors.

कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि स्पाइरेन (spiranes) बिना पारंपरिक काइरल कार्बन के भी अपनी लंबवत वलय संरचना के कारण प्रकाशिक सक्रियता (optical activity) प्रदर्शित कर सकते हैं। कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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694📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsTopicity & Prochirality

Which of the following statements about enantiotropy and diastereotropy is/are correct?
1) Enantiotopic groups in a molecule are chemically equivalent but give rise to enantiomers when one group is replaced.
2) Diastereotopic atoms or groups are not chemically equivalent and produce diastereomers upon substitution.
3) Faces of a prochiral molecule that lead to the formation of enantiomers upon reaction are enantiotopic.
4) In NMR spectroscopy, diastereotopic hydrogens can exhibit different chemical shifts, while enantiotopic hydrogens do not.

Explanation

All four statements are standard definitions in stereochemistry:
1) Enantiotopic ligands are constitutionally and chemically equivalent in an achiral environment, but substitution of one creates an enantiomer.
2) Diastereotopic ligands reside in stereochemically distinct environments and substitution yields diastereomers.
3) Re/Si faces of prochiral carbonyls that yield enantiomeric products are enantiotopic faces.
4) Diastereotopic protons are anisochronous (different chemical shifts in NMR), whereas enantiotopic protons are isochronous in achiral solvents.

सभी 4 कथन सत्य हैं: इनैन्शियोटोपिक समूह अकाइरल माध्यम में समान रासायनिक व्यवहार करते हैं और प्रतिस्थापन पर इनैन्शियोमर बनाते हैं। डायस्टिरिओटोपिक समूह रासायनिक रूप से भिन्न होते हैं, डायस्टिरिओमर बनाते हैं तथा NMR स्पेक्ट्रोस्कोपी में भिन्न केमिकल शिफ्ट प्रदर्शित करते हैं। सही विकल्प D है।

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695📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsAsymmetric Synthesis & Chiral Auxiliaries

Which of the following statements about the stereoselective synthesis of ephedrine, epiandrosterone, and pheromones is/are correct?
1) The stereoselective synthesis of ephedrine involves the asymmetric reduction of a ketone group to introduce chirality.
2) Epiandrosterone synthesis relies on the stereospecific hydrogenation of an enone system to control the stereochemistry of the steroid nucleus.
3) Stereoselective synthesis of pheromones often employs chiral auxiliaries or catalysts to achieve enantiomerically pure compounds.
4) The use of enzymatic methods in pheromone synthesis is limited due to the difficulty in achieving high stereoselectivity.

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 3 accurately describe asymmetric synthesis: ephedrine synthesis utilizes asymmetric reduction of

\alpha

-aminoketones; steroid syntheses like epiandrosterone control ring junction stereochemistry via stereospecific enone hydrogenation; and chiral auxiliaries/catalysts are vital in pheromone synthesis where opposite enantiomers can be inactive or inhibitory. Statement 4 is FALSE because enzymatic methods (biocatalysis using lipases/esterases) are celebrated precisely for their exceptionally high stereoselectivity.

कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं। एंजाइमेटिक विधियाँ (बायोकैटालिसिस) फेरोमोन संश्लेषण में अत्यधिक उच्च स्टीरियोसेलेक्टिविटी प्रदान करने के लिए व्यापक रूप से उपयोग की जाती हैं, अतः कथन 4 गलत है। सही विकल्प B है।

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696📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsHelical Chirality & Biopolymers

Which of the following statements about chirality due to helical shape is/are correct?
1) Helical molecules are chiral because their left-handed (M-form) and right-handed (P-form) helices are non-superimposable mirror images.
2) Naturally occurring DNA exhibits chirality due to its right-handed helical structure.
3) Synthetic helices, such as polyacetylene derivatives, can exhibit chirality depending on their handedness.
4) Helical chirality does not require a chiral center to exhibit optical activity.

Explanation

All four statements are correct. Helicity is a form of stereogenic geometry (supramolecular/macromolecular chirality) where handedness alone breaks inversion and reflection symmetry. Right-handed (P) and left-handed (M) helices are enantiomeric, as demonstrated by B-DNA, helical polyacetylenes, and helicenes, none of which require a classical asymmetric carbon center to rotate plane-polarized light.

सभी चारों कथन सत्य हैं: हेलिकल अणु अपने अशून्य दर्पण प्रतिबिंबों (

P

और

M

) के कारण काइरल होते हैं। प्राकृतिक DNA दाहिने हाथ के हेलिक्स के रूप में काइरल होता है। पॉलीएसिटिलीन के हेलिक्स भी काइरालिटी दर्शाते हैं और इसके लिए किसी पारंपरिक काइरल केंद्र की आवश्यकता नहीं होती। सही विकल्प D है।

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697📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsAnnulenes & NMR Ring Currents

Which of the following statements correctly describe the relationship between NMR spectroscopy and aromaticity in annulenes?
1. Aromatic annulenes exhibit a characteristic ring current effect in NMR spectroscopy, leading to shielding of protons inside the ring and deshielding of protons outside the ring.
2. The [10]annulene system is aromatic because it has

4n+2

\pi

-electrons, and its NMR spectrum shows significant deshielding of external protons.
3. [4]annulene and [8]annulene exhibit antiaromaticity, as indicated by the absence of ring current effects in their NMR spectra.
4. The NMR spectrum of [14]annulene reveals both aromatic and non-aromatic behaviour due to its non-planar conformation in certain cases.

Explanation

Aromatic systems generate an induced diatropic ring current under an external magnetic field: peripheral protons are strongly deshielded downfield (

\delta 7-9

), while inner protons inside the cavity are intensely shielded upfield (often negative

\delta

, e.g., in [18]annulene

\delta -3.0

). In broader conceptual survey questions on annulene NMR spectra, all statements represent recognized experimental characteristics of annulene series.

एरोमैटिक एन्युलीन में वलय धारा (ring current) प्रभाव के कारण आंतरिक प्रोटॉन अत्यधिक परिरक्षित (shielded, अपफील्ड) और बाहरी प्रोटॉन वि-परिरक्षित (deshielded, डाउनफील्ड) होते हैं। 14-एन्युलीन और अन्य एन्युलीन में तापमान और समतलीयता के आधार पर यह प्रभाव देखा जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।

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698📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsOrganic Reaction Mechanisms Overview

Which of the following statements about reaction mechanisms is/are correct?
1) The SN2 reaction is a single-step bimolecular nucleophilic substitution where the nucleophile attacks the carbon opposite to the leaving group, resulting in inversion of configuration.
2) The E1 reaction involves a carbocation intermediate and follows a first-order kinetics, with the rate depending only on the concentration of the substrate.
3) The presence of a strong base is a requirement for the E2 reaction, which is a concerted elimination involving the anti-periplanar geometry of the leaving group and

\beta

-hydrogen.
4) In the Aldol condensation, the formation of the enolate ion is the rate-determining step, and the reaction is favoured in the presence of a strong acid.

Explanation

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are classic reaction mechanism principles: SN2 involves backside attack with Walden inversion; E1 forms a carbocation in a rate-determining first-order step; E2 is a concerted anti-periplanar elimination requiring a strong base. Statement 4 is FALSE because in base-catalyzed aldol reactions, the rate-determining step is typically the carbon-carbon bond forming step (enolate attack on carbonyl), and the reaction is primarily catalyzed by base. Thus, only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं:

S_N2

एक-चरणीय होती है जिसमें विन्यास का प्रतिलोमन (Walden inversion) होता है;

E1

प्रथम कोटि की होती है और कार्बधनायन के माध्यम से होती है;

E2

में एंटी-पेरीप्लेनर ज्यामिति और मजबूत क्षार आवश्यक होता है। एल्डोल में मुख्य रूप से क्षार उत्प्रेरण होता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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699📚Reaction Mechanisms, Kinetics & Physical Organic ChemistryDiazonium Coupling Mechanism

Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of diazonium coupling in the formation of azo compounds from aryl diazonium salts and aromatic compounds?

Explanation

Diazonium coupling is an electrophilic aromatic substitution where the arenediazonium cation (

Ar-N^+ \equiv N

) acts as a relatively weak electrophile. It attacks highly activated, electron-rich aromatic rings (phenols, naphthols, aromatic amines) at the position of highest electron density (para, or ortho if para is blocked), forming an intensely colored azo dye characterized by the conjugated chromophoric azo linkage (

-N=N-

). Statement C provides the complete, accurate mechanism.

डायज़ोनियम युग्मन (Diazonium coupling): एरिल डायज़ोनियम आयन (

ArN_2^+

) एक दुर्बल इलेक्ट्रॉनानुरागी के रूप में कार्य करता है और इलेक्ट्रॉन-धनी वलय (जैसे फिनोल या एनिलीन) पर आक्रमण करके ऑर्थो या पैरा स्थिति पर एक एजो आबंध (

-N=N-

) बनाता है, जिससे एजो रंजक (azo dyes) प्राप्त होते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।

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700📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageConservation Documentation Workflow

Which of the following is the correct order of steps for making a conservation report for an object in a museum or archive?
1) Assessment of Condition
2) Photographic Documentation
3) Restoration or Treatment Details
4) Conservation Recommendations
5) Background Information (Object History)
6) Materials and Techniques Used in Conservation
Choose the correct order of these steps:

Explanation

A formal conservation treatment report follows a standardized archival structure:
5) Background Information & Provenance (object history, accession data)
1) Physical Assessment of Condition (initial examination and diagnosis of damage)
2) Photographic Documentation (visual baseline records before treatment)
3) Restoration or Treatment Details (methodology executed)
6) Materials and Techniques Used in Conservation (exact chemicals, consolidants, adhesives applied)
4) Conservation Recommendations (preventive guidelines for future display, handling, and storage).
Correct sequence: 5 -> 1 -> 2 -> 3 -> 6 -> 4 (Option A).

संरक्षण रिपोर्ट (Conservation Report) का सही क्रम: 5) पृष्ठभूमि की जानकारी (वस्तु का इतिहास)

->

1) वस्तु की स्थिति का आकलन

->

2) फोटोग्राफिक दस्तावेजीकरण

->

3) उपचार व बहाली का विवरण

->

6) प्रयुक्त सामग्री व तकनीक

->

4) भविष्य के संरक्षण हेतु सिफारिशें। सही विकल्प A है।

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701📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageCondition Report Principles

Which of the following statements about a Condition Report is/are correct?
1) A condition report is created only once during the acquisition of an object and is never updated.
2) The condition report should include a detailed description of any visible damage, stains, or signs of deterioration.
3) It is not necessary to include photographs of the object in the condition report.
4) Condition reports are only useful for objects that are being repaired or restored.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Explanation

Statement 2 is entirely correct. Statements 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because:
- Condition reports are dynamic living records updated whenever an object is moved, loaned, exhibited, or surveyed.
- Photographic documentation is a mandatory, indispensable component.
- Condition reports are vital for collection inventory, risk management, and legal insurance, not solely for objects undergoing active restoration.
Thus, Statement 2 is correct, while 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect (Option C).

कथन 2 सही है: कंडीशन रिपोर्ट में सभी दृश्यमान क्षति, दाग और क्षरण के संकेतों का विस्तृत विवरण होना चाहिए। कथन 1, 3 और 4 गलत हैं क्योंकि रिपोर्ट समय-समय पर अपडेट की जाती है, इसमें तस्वीरें अनिवार्य हैं और यह सभी वस्तुओं के लिए आवश्यक है। सही विकल्प C है।

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702📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageCore Principles of Conservation

Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should always be reversible to avoid permanent changes to the original object.
2. Conservation treatments should only be applied if the object is in critical condition.
3. The use of materials for conservation should be as close as possible to the original material of the object.
4. It is not necessary to document conservation work as long as the object is preserved in good condition.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Explanation

Core conservation ethics (ICOM-CC / AIC Code of Ethics):
- Statement 1 is TRUE: Treatments must be reversible so that future conservators can undo interventions without harming the original substrate.
- Statement 2 is FALSE: Preventive conservation is actively performed on stable objects to prevent them from ever degrading into critical states.
- Statement 3 is TRUE: Materials must be compatible in physical, chemical, and mechanical properties with the original fabric.
- Statement 4 is FALSE: Rigorous documentation is an absolute, non-negotiable professional mandate.
Thus, 1 and 3 are correct; 2 and 4 are incorrect (Option B).

संरक्षण के बुनियादी सिद्धांत: 1) उपचार प्रतिवर्ती (reversible) होना चाहिए; 3) संरक्षण सामग्री मूल वस्तु के अनुकूल होनी चाहिए। कथन 2 और 4 गलत हैं क्योंकि निवारक संरक्षण हर वस्तु के लिए आवश्यक है और पूर्ण दस्तावेजीकरण अनिवार्य है। सही विकल्प B है।

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703📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMinimal Intervention & Reversibility

Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should prioritize minimal intervention, only applying treatments when absolutely necessary.
2. Preventive conservation measures should be applied only after significant damage has already occurred.
3. Reversibility of treatments is essential, ensuring that any intervention can be undone in the future if necessary.
4. Documentation is crucial in conservation to record all treatments and materials used for future reference.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Explanation

The three golden pillars of modern conservation are:
1. Minimal Intervention: Do only what is necessary to stabilize the artifact while preserving its historical integrity and patina.
3. Reversibility: All adhesives, consolidants, and fills must be readily removable in the future.
4. Comprehensive Documentation: Every step, technique, and substance must be permanently recorded.
Statement 2 is completely false because preventive conservation is by definition proactive and continuous, not reactive after destruction. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct; 2 is incorrect (Option B).

संरक्षण के तीन मुख्य स्तंभ: 1) न्यूनतम हस्तक्षेप (Minimal intervention); 3) प्रतिवर्तीयता (Reversibility); और 4) विस्तृत दस्तावेजीकरण (Documentation)। कथन 2 गलत है क्योंकि निवारक संरक्षण क्षति होने से पहले किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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704📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of Preventive Conservation

Which of the following best describes preventive conservation in the context of heritage and art conservation?

Explanation

As defined by ICOM-CC, Preventive Conservation comprises all indirect measures and actions aimed at avoiding and minimizing future deterioration or loss. These measures operate in the context or the surroundings of an item (climate control, lighting, pest control, security, storage furniture, and proper handling protocols) without direct physical or chemical intervention on the object itself.

निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive Conservation) का अर्थ कलाकृतियों पर सीधे हस्तक्षेप किए बिना, उनके पर्यावरण (तापमान, आर्द्रता, प्रकाश, कीट नियंत्रण, भंडारण और सुरक्षित हैंडलिंग) को नियंत्रित करके क्षति के जोखिम को कम करना है। सही विकल्प B है।

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705📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageInterdisciplinary Nature of Conservation

Which of the following combinations of statements about conservation in the context of cultural heritage is correct?

Explanation

Modern conservation is universally recognized as an interdisciplinary discipline that synthesizes chemistry, materials science, art history, archaeology, ethics, and legal frameworks to safeguard cultural heritage for future generations without compromising historical authenticity (Option A).

सांस्कृतिक विरासत का संरक्षण एक बहु-विषयक (interdisciplinary) क्षेत्र है जिसमें भौतिक संरक्षण के साथ-साथ नैतिक, कानूनी और ऐतिहासिक पहलू शामिल होते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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706📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleOptical Properties & Camera Components

Match the following and choose the correct option:
Column - I:
1) Is measured in line pair per millimetre
2) The distance between the lens's optical center and the camera's sensor
3) The eyepiece on a camera that you hold close to your eye, to allow you to see what's being photographed
4) Allow the camera to focus on near distances for large scales of reproduction

Column - II:
i) The Viewfinder
ii) Resolving power of a lens
iii) Focal length
iv) Supplementary close-up lenses

Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Matching:
- 1) Resolving power of a lens: the optical ability to separate fine detail, quantified in line pairs per millimetre (

lp/mm

)

ightarrow

ii.
- 2) Focal length: the optical distance from the lens's rear principal plane/center to the focal plane/sensor when focused at infinity

ightarrow

iii.
- 3) Viewfinder: the optical or electronic eyepiece through which the photographer frames the scene

ightarrow

i.
- 4) Supplementary close-up lenses (diopters): screw-on auxiliary lenses enabling closer minimum focus distances

ightarrow

iv.
Matching: 1 - ii, 2 - iii, 3 - i, 4 - iv (Option D).

लेंस की विभेदन क्षमता (Resolving power) को लाइन पेयर प्रति मिमी में मापा जाता है (1-ii); लेंस के केंद्र से सेंसर की दूरी को फोकल लेंथ कहते हैं (2-iii); व्यूफाइंडर आंख के पास रखकर फ्रेम देखने वाला भाग है (3-i); और सप्लीमेंट्री क्लोज-अप लेंस पास की वस्तुओं पर फोकस करने में मदद करते हैं (4-iv)। सही विकल्प D है।

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707📚Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & MicrocontrollersDigital Logic - Multiplexers & Demultiplexers

Which of the following statements about demultiplexers is/are correct?
I. 1-to-8 demultiplexer consists of eight NAND gates connected to a single data input
II. It takes a single input and distributes it to multiple outputs based on select lines
III. It functions as an "anti-clock demultiplexer" in synchronous data transmission and security systems
IV. It operates similarly to a multi-position switch, directing data to one of several output lines

Explanation

A demultiplexer (DEMUX / data distributor) receives data from a single input line and routes it to one of

2^n

output lines determined by

n

select lines, functioning as a single-pole multi-throw rotary switch (Statements II and IV are universally correct). In standard logic implementations, 1-to-8 DEMUXes utilize AND or NOR gates with inverters, making II and IV the solid factual pair.

डीमल्टीप्लेक्सर (DEMUX) एक एकल डेटा इनपुट को सेलेक्ट लाइनों के आधार पर कई आउटपुट लाइनों में से किसी एक पर निर्देशित करता है (II), और यह मल्टी-पोजिशन स्विच की तरह कार्य करता है (IV)। सही विकल्प C है।

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708📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsSemiconductor Doping

Consider the following statement:
n-type of silicon can be
I. Formed by adding impurity of phosphorus
II. Formed by adding the impurity of boron
III. Formed by adding the impurity of arsenic
IV. Formed by adding impurity of aluminium
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

Explanation

Doping group-IV silicon with pentavalent (Group V) donor atoms—such as Phosphorus (P), Arsenic (As), or Antimony (Sb)—provides extra conduction electrons, creating n-type silicon. Trivalent elements like Boron (II) and Aluminium (IV) create p-type silicon. Therefore, Statements I and III only are correct.

n-प्रकार का सिलिकॉन बनाने के लिए पंचसंयोजी अशुद्धियां जैसे फॉस्फोरस (I) और आर्सेनिक (III) मिलाई जाती हैं। बोरॉन और एल्यूमीनियम त्रिसंयोजी हैं जो p-प्रकार बनाते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।

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709📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsElectromagnetism - Fleming & Lenz Laws

Consider the following statements:
I. Fleming's rule is used when the induced EMF is due to flux cutting, i.e., in the case of motion of conductors through magnetic fields
II. Lenz's law is used when the induced EMF is due to a change in flux linkages
III. Lenz's law is indeed a direct consequence of the law of conservation of energy, as it ensures that the induced current opposes the change in flux that caused it
Which of the below statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct principles of electromagnetism:
- Fleming's Right-Hand Rule finds the direction of dynamically induced EMF (generator action / flux cutting, I).
- Lenz's Law determines the direction of statically induced EMF from changing flux linkages (II).
- Lenz's Law directly upholds the Law of Conservation of Energy by ensuring mechanical work must be done against electromagnetic opposition (III).

तीनों कथन सही हैं: फ्लेमिंग का नियम फ्लक्स-कटिंग (गतिज EMF) के लिए उपयोग होता है (I); लेंज का नियम फ्लक्स लिंकेज में परिवर्तन के लिए है (II); और लेंज का नियम ऊर्जा संरक्षण के नियम का प्रत्यक्ष परिणाम है (III)। सही विकल्प C है।

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710📚Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & Microcontrollers8085 Microprocessor Bus Architecture

Consider the following statements:
In the 8085 microprocessor, the data bus and address bus are multiplexed in order to
I. Increase the speed of the microprocessor
II. Reduce the number of chips
III. Connect more peripheral chips
Which of the below statements is/are correct?

Explanation

In the Intel 8085 microprocessor, the lower-order 8 address lines and 8 data lines are time-multiplexed (

AD_0 - AD_7

) solely to minimize the physical pin count of the IC package (fitting into an inexpensive 40-pin DIP package) and reduce motherboard chip count.

8085 माइक्रोप्रोसेसर में पिनों की संख्या 40 तक सीमित रखने और चिप्स की संख्या कम करने (Reduce the number of chips/pins) के लिए एड्रेस और डेटा बस (

AD_0-AD_7

) को मल्टीप्लेक्स किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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711📚Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & MicrocontrollersSemiconductor Memories - ROM

Consider the following statements:
I. The process of entering data is called burning in ROM
II. ROMs are used in microcontroller security systems
III. ROMs are volatile memories
Which of the below statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct: programming data into a ROM or PROM involves blowing microscopic fusible links or programming floating gates, colloquially termed 'burning'. ROMs store permanent firmware in microcontrollers. Statement III is completely FALSE because ROM is by definition non-volatile (retains data when power is removed).

ROM में डेटा लिखने की प्रक्रिया को 'बर्निंग' (burning) कहा जाता है (I), और यह माइक्रोकंट्रोलर फर्मवेयर में उपयोग होती है (II)। कथन III असत्य है क्योंकि ROM गैर-वाष्पशील (non-volatile) मेमोरी होती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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712📚Workshop Technology & Machine ToolsWorkshop Safety Equipment

Which of the following is used to protect the eyes in a smithy workshop?

Explanation

In a smithy/forging workshop, safety Goggles are worn by operators to protect the eyes from flying metal scales, red-hot sparks, and infrared radiant heat. Welding helmets and hand screens are used in electric arc welding to block harmful ultraviolet and intense radiation.

लोहारी कार्यशाला (Smithy workshop) में गर्म धातु के उड़ते हुए छिलकों (Scales) और चिंगारियों से आँखों की सुरक्षा के लिए 'सुरक्षा चश्मे' (Goggles) का उपयोग किया जाता है। आर्क वेल्डिंग में हेलमेट और हैंड स्क्रीन का प्रयोग होता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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713📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsAutoxidation Mechanism & Peroxide Formation

Which of the following statements about auto-oxidation is/are correct?
1. Auto-oxidation is a radical chain reaction initiated by heat, light, or peroxides.
2. Auto-oxidation typically involves molecular oxygen (O2) as the oxidant.
3. The process often results in the formation of hydroperoxides or peroxides as intermediates.
4. Auto-oxidation reactions are commonly observed in unsaturated fatty acids and ethers.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

All four statements accurately describe auto-oxidation (autoxidation): (1) It is a free-radical chain reaction initiated by light, trace heavy metal ions, or thermal peroxides; (2) Triplet ground-state molecular oxygen (

O_2

) serves as the core oxidant; (3) Propagation yields hydroperoxides (

ROOH

) and dialkyl peroxides; (4) It occurs readily at allylic positions of unsaturated fats (causing rancidity) and

\alpha

-hydrogens of ethers like diethyl ether and THF (forming shock-sensitive explosive peroxides). Thus, All 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

ऑटो-ऑक्सीकरण (Autoxidation): (1) यह प्रकाश या ऊष्मा से शुरू होने वाली मुक्त मूलक श्रृंखला अभिक्रिया है; (2) इसमें आणविक ऑक्सीजन (

O_2

) ऑक्सीकारक होती है; (3) इसमें मध्यवर्ती के रूप में हाइड्रोपरॉक्साइड (

ROOH

) बनते हैं; (4) यह असंतृप्त वसा (रैनसिडिटी) और ईथरों में विस्फोटक परॉक्साइड बनाने के लिए जानी जाती है। अतः सभी चारों कथन (1, 2, 3, and 4) सही हैं (विकल्प D)।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

714📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryMuseum Insect Pests (Silverfish)

Which of the following insect pests is most commonly associated with damage to organic museum artifacts like textiles, paper, and wood?
1. Silverfish (Lepisma saccharina)
2. Carpet beetles (Anthrenus verbasci)
3. Termites (Isoptera)
4. Cockroaches (Blattodea)
Options:

Explanation

Silverfish (Lepisma saccharina) is the most ubiquitous, destructive pest in museum archives, libraries, and mixed organic collections. Attracted to carbohydrates, starch sizes, dextrin pastes, and cellulose, silverfish cause widespread surface grazing and irregular holes in paper, book bindings, archival documents, photographs, and starched textiles. Thus, Only 1 is correct.

संग्रहालयों और अभिलेखागारों में जैविक कलाकृतियों (विशेष रूप से कागज, किताबों की जिल्दसाजी, वस्त्रों के स्टार्च) को नुकसान पहुंचाने वाला सबसे आम कीट 'सिल्वरफिश' (Lepisma saccharina) है। यह सेल्यूलोज और स्टार्च को खाकर पन्नों पर अनियमित छेद और खुरचने के निशान बनाता है। अतः विकल्प A (Only 1 is correct) सही है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

715📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryPest Severity Ranking

Arrange the following insect pests in the increasing order of damage intensity they typically cause to museum artifacts:
1. Silverfish (Lepisma saccharina)
2. Carpet Beetles (Anthrenus verbasci)
3. Powderpost Beetles (Lyctidae)
4. Termites (Isoptera)
Options:

Explanation

Damage severity progression: (1) Silverfish cause superficial grazing and thinning of paper sheets; (2) Carpet beetles inflict direct localized holes on organic fabrics and taxidermy; (3) Powderpost beetles excavate dense interior galleries in seasoned furniture and sculpture, reducing wood to powder; (4) Termites cause catastrophic structural collapse, completely hollowing out timber frameworks and entire library collections rapidly. Increasing severity sequence:

1 \to 2 \to 3 \to 4

हानि की तीव्रता का बढ़ता क्रम: सिल्वरफिश (1, कागज पर सतही खुरचन) < कार्पेट बीटल (2, वस्त्रों व फर में छेद) < पाउडर पोस्ट बीटल (3, लकड़ी के भीतर छिद्र व पाउडर बनाना) < दीमक (4, पूरी लकड़ी को भीतर से खोखला कर संरचनात्मक विनाश करना)। सही क्रम

1 \to 2 \to 3 \to 4

(विकल्प A) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

716📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Assessment Protocols

Consider the following statements regarding the process of creating a condition report for cultural heritage artifacts:
Statement I: The condition report should include only a general description of the object without any detailed examination of its condition.
Statement II: Photographic records should be taken at various stages of inspection, including close-up shots of damaged areas.
Statement III: The condition description should focus on the identification of deterioration and damage, including cracks, discoloration, and structural weaknesses.
Statement IV: The report must be completed after any conservation treatment has been performed on the object.
Statement V: Recommendations for treatment should be based solely on visual examination without considering historical context or material composition.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Condition report protocols: Statement I is false (reports require rigorous, detailed examination, not just general remarks). Statement II is true (photographic records must document overall views and close-up detail of damaged zones). Statement III is true (precise identification of cracks, losses, and weaknesses is the core purpose). Statement IV is false (condition reports are compiled BEFORE treatment begins to record baseline condition; post-treatment reports are separate). Statement V is false (treatments must consider material chemistry and historical integrity). Therefore, Statements II and III only are correct.

कंडीशन रिपोर्ट प्रक्रिया: कथन I गलत है (विस्तृत परीक्षण आवश्यक है)। कथन II सही है (क्षतिग्रस्त हिस्सों की क्लोज-अप तस्वीरों सहित विभिन्न चरणों की फोटोग्राफी होनी चाहिए)। कथन III सही है (दरारों, रंग उड़ने व कमजोरियों की पहचान पर ध्यान केंद्रित होता है)। कथन IV गलत है (रिपोर्ट उपचार से पूर्व बनाई जाती है)। कथन V गलत है। अतः केवल कथन II और III सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

717📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Report Principles

In the context of heritage conservation which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a condition report, and what key principle differentiates a high-quality condition report from a basic documentation record?
A) It serves as a legal document verifying an object's authenticity, with emphasis on provenance rather than physical state.
B) It provides a detailed assessment of an object's physical state at a specific moment, with emphasis on consistency and repeatability in observations.
C) It is primarily used for insurance valuation, focusing on an object's monetary worth rather than conservation needs
D) It documents routine handling procedure, prioritizing security measures over material analysis.

Explanation

The definitive purpose of a conservation condition report is to establish a rigorous, objective physical baseline of an artifact at an exact moment in time. The hallmark of a professional condition report is consistency, standardized vocabulary, and repeatability, enabling future conservators to detect micro-changes, monitor loan transit damage, and evaluate treatment efficacy.

कंडीशन रिपोर्ट का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य किसी विशिष्ट क्षण में वस्तु की भौतिक स्थिति का विस्तृत मूल्यांकन प्रदान करना है, जिसमें अवलोकनों की निरंतरता और दोहराव (Consistency and repeatability in observations) पर जोर दिया जाता है ताकि भविष्य में किसी भी नए क्षरण की तुरंत पहचान की जा सके। सही विकल्प B है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

718📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCore Ethical Principles of Conservation

Which of the following principles are considered essential while performing cultural heritage conservation?
Statement I: The principle of Minimal Intervention emphasizes avoiding unnecessary changes to the artifact during conservation.
Statement II: Reversibility Principle ensures that any treatment applied can be reversed without causing further damage.
Statement III: Conservation processes must prioritize aesthetic appeal over historical authenticity.
Statement IV: Documentation of every step taken during conservation is mandatory for transparency and future reference.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

Core ethics of conservation (Venice Charter, AIC, ICOM-CC): Statement I is true (Minimal Intervention: doing only what is necessary to stabilize the object). Statement II is true (Reversibility/Retreatability: introduced adhesives and consolidants must be removable without harming original fabric). Statement III is completely false (historical authenticity and original physical integrity must ALWAYS take precedence over cosmetic aesthetic appeal). Statement IV is true (complete documentation of materials and methods is an ethical mandate). Thus, Statements I, II, and IV only are correct.

संरक्षण के मूल सिद्धांत: कथन I सही है (न्यूनतम हस्तक्षेप - अनावश्यक परिवर्तनों से बचना)। कथन II सही है (उत्क्रमणीयता/Reversibility - किए गए उपचार को बिना नुकसान पहुंचाए हटाया जा सके)। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि ऐतिहासिक प्रामाणिकता हमेशा सौंदर्य से ऊपर होती है। कथन IV सही है (प्रत्येक चरण का प्रलेखन अनिवार्य है)। अतः I, II, and IV only सही हैं (विकल्प C)।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

719📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryConservation Ethics Matching

Match the following key principles of conservation with their correct descriptions:
Principles:
1. Minimal Intervention
2. Reversibility Principle
3. Documentation
4. Environmental Control
Descriptions:
i. Ensuring all conservation actions can be undone without damaging the object.
ii. Recording every step of conservation for future reference and transparency.
iii. Avoiding excessive treatments and preserving original materials as much as possible.
iv. Controlling temperature, humidity, and light exposure to prevent deterioration.
Options:

Explanation

Matching ethical principles: (1) Minimal Intervention avoids unnecessary chemical/physical treatments, conserving maximum original material (iii); (2) Reversibility Principle ensures introduced consolidants and adhesives can be safely undone in the future (i); (3) Documentation provides complete records of examination and treatment for transparency (ii); (4) Environmental Control regulates climate and illumination to arrest decay passively (iv). Match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv.

संरक्षण सिद्धांतों का मिलान: (1) न्यूनतम हस्तक्षेप - अत्यधिक उपचार से बचना और मूल सामग्री को संरक्षित रखना (iii); (2) उत्क्रमणीयता - सभी कार्यों को बिना क्षति पहुंचाए पूर्ववत किया जा सके (i); (3) प्रलेखन - पारदर्शिता हेतु प्रत्येक चरण का रिकॉर्ड रखना (ii); (4) पर्यावरण नियंत्रण - तापमान, नमी और प्रकाश को नियंत्रित करना (iv)। अतः सही विकल्प A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv) है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

720📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryDefinition of Preventive Conservation

Preventive conservation refers to:
A) The direct treatment of damaged artifacts to restore their appearance.
B) The study of historical techniques used in artifact creation.
C) Measures and actions aimed at avoiding or minimizing future deterioration of cultural heritage.
D) Complete reconstruction of lost cultural artifacts.

Explanation

By ICOM-CC definition: Preventive conservation comprises all indirect measures and actions aimed at avoiding and minimizing future deterioration or loss. They are carried out within the immediate environment of the cultural heritage item (through environmental control, storage, handling, transport, and integrated pest management) without directly altering the artifact's physical structure.

निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive conservation) का तात्पर्य उन सभी अप्रत्यक्ष उपायों और कार्यों से है जिनका उद्देश्य सांस्कृतिक विरासत के भविष्य में होने वाले क्षरण या नुकसान को रोकना या कम से कम करना है (जैसे तापमान, नमी, प्रकाश और कीटों का नियंत्रण)। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

721📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceDefinition & Purpose of Heritage Conservation

Which of the following best defines Conservation in the context of cultural heritage?
A) The complete replacement of damaged heritage artifacts with modern replicas.
B) The process of protecting, preserving, and managing cultural heritage to prevent decay and ensure its longevity.
C) The unrestricted public display of artifacts to increase tourism.
D) The commercial use of heritage sites for revenue generation.

Explanation

In cultural heritage discipline (ICOMOS/Venice Charter): Conservation encompasses all interdisciplinary processes of safeguarding, caring for, maintaining, and managing cultural property (tangible artifacts, monuments, and collections) to prevent decay, minimize risk of loss, and ensure its physical longevity and historical authenticity for future generations.

सांस्कृतिक विरासत के संदर्भ में संरक्षण (Conservation) का तात्पर्य सांस्कृतिक संपत्तियों की सुरक्षा, परिरक्षण और प्रबंधन करने की समग्र प्रक्रिया से है ताकि उनके क्षरण को रोका जा सके और आने वाली पीढ़ियों के लिए उनकी दीर्घायु व ऐतिहासिक प्रामाणिकता सुनिश्चित की जा सके। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B है।

2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)

722📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsRenewable Energy & State Energy Transition

Consider the following statements regarding the purpose of the ASSET platform launched by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy:
I. To promote the use of renewable energy in urban areas
II. To increase funding for private-sector renewable energy projects
III. To provide financial support to states for developing energy storage solutions
IV. To assist states in accelerating their green transition and formulate energy transition blueprints
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

The ASSET (Accelerated Sustainable State Energy Transition) platform was launched by NITI Aayog alongside the Ministry of Power, BEE, and MNRE with the specific mandate to assist Indian States and UTs in accelerating their green transition and formulating customized sub-national energy transition blueprints.

नीति आयोग द्वारा विद्युत मंत्रालय और नवीन एवं नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा मंत्रालय के सहयोग से शुरू किए गए ASSET (Accelerated Sustainable State Energy Transition) प्लेटफॉर्म का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य राज्यों को हरित ऊर्जा परिवर्तन में तेजी लाने और ऊर्जा परिवर्तन का खाका तैयार करने में सहायता करना है। इसलिए केवल IV सही है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

723📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndian Drainage System & River Origins

Consider the following statements:
I. Mahanadi river rises in Chhattisgarh
II. Godavari river rises in Maharashtra
III. Tapti River rises in Madhya Pradesh
IV. Cauvery river rises in Andhra Pradesh
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Mahanadi rises in the Sihawa range in Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh (Statement I is correct). Godavari rises near Trimbakeshwar in Nashik district of Maharashtra (Statement II is correct). Tapti rises in Multai, Betul district of Madhya Pradesh (Statement III is correct). Cauvery rises at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri range of Kodagu district in Karnataka, NOT Andhra Pradesh (Statement IV is incorrect). Hence, statements I, II, and III are correct.

महानदी छत्तीसगढ़ के धमतरी जिले के सिहावा पर्वत से निकलती है (I सही है)। गोदावरी महाराष्ट्र के नासिक जिले के त्र्यंबकेश्वर से निकलती है (II सही है)। ताप्ती मध्य प्रदेश के बैतूल जिले के मुल्ताई से निकलती है (III सही है)। कावेरी नदी कर्नाटक के कोडागु जिले में ब्रह्मगिरी पर्वतमाला के तालकावेरी से निकलती है, आंध्र प्रदेश से नहीं (IV गलत है)। अतः I, II और III सही हैं।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

724📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsCensus of India 2011

Consider the following statements based on the 2011 Census of India:
I. The literacy rate in India increased to over 74%
II. Uttar Pradesh has the highest population among Indian states
III. Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate among all states
IV. The sex ratio in India (females per 1000 males) improved to above 1000
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

According to Census 2011:
- The literacy rate in India increased to 74.04% (over 74%) - Statement I is correct.
- Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest population (19.98 crores) - Statement II is correct.
- Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate among all states at 94.00% - Statement III is correct.
- The sex ratio of India improved from 933 in 2001 to 943 females per 1000 males in 2011, which is well below 1000 - Statement IV is incorrect.

2011 की जनगणना के अनुसार:
I. भारत की साक्षरता दर बढ़कर 74.04% हो गई (74% से अधिक - सही)।
II. उत्तर प्रदेश भारत का सबसे अधिक जनसंख्या वाला राज्य है (सही)।
III. केरल ने सभी राज्यों में सर्वाधिक साक्षरता दर (94%) दर्ज की (सही)।
IV. भारत का लिंगानुपात 943 महिलाएं प्रति 1000 पुरुष था (1000 से ऊपर नहीं - गलत)।
अतः I, II और III सही हैं।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

725📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndian Climate & Monsoon Patterns

Consider the following statements:
I. The duration of monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India
II. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India increases from east to west
Which of the following statements above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: The southwest monsoon arrives first in southern India (Kerala coast by June 1) and withdraws last from the south, meaning the duration of the rainy season decreases progressively northward. Statement II is incorrect: As the Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon moves up the Gangetic plain from east to west, it progressively loses moisture, causing rainfall to decrease from east to west (e.g., Kolkata receives ~160 cm, Patna ~105 cm, Delhi ~65 cm).

कथन I सही है: दक्षिण भारत (केरल) में मानसून सबसे पहले आता है और सबसे अंत में लौटता है, इसलिए दक्षिण से उत्तर की ओर मानसून की अवधि घटती जाती है।
कथन II गलत है: उत्तर भारत के मैदानों में पूर्व से पश्चिम की ओर जाने पर मानसूनी पवनों में नमी कम हो जाती है, जिससे वर्षा की मात्रा पूर्व से पश्चिम की ओर घटती है (बढ़ती नहीं)। अतः केवल कथन I सही है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

726📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsEnvironmental Chemistry & Air Pollution

Which one of the following is/are the main contributors of Acid rain?

Explanation

Acid rain is caused by chemical reactions that begin when compounds like sulfur dioxide (

SO_2

) and nitrogen oxides (including nitrous oxide and nitric oxide,

NO_x

) are released into the air and react with water, oxygen, and other atmospheric oxidants to form sulfuric and nitric acids.

अम्लीय वर्षा (Acid Rain) के मुख्य कारक सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड (

SO_2

) और नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइड (जैसे नाइट्रस ऑक्साइड/नाइट्रिक ऑक्साइड,

NO_x

) हैं, जो वायुमंडलीय जलवाष्प से क्रिया करके सल्फ्यूरिक और नाइट्रिक अम्ल बनाते हैं।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

727📚General English & ComprehensionTenses & Verb Forms

Fill in the blanks: Mohan ______ overtime for the last three months.

Explanation

The phrase 'for the last three months' indicates an action that began in the past and has continued up to the present moment. This requires the Present Perfect Continuous tense: 'has been working'.

'for the last three months' (पिछले तीन महीनों से) समय की निरंतरता दर्शाता है जो भूतकाल में शुरू होकर वर्तमान में भी जारी है। इसके लिए Present Perfect Continuous Tense ('has been working') का प्रयोग होगा।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

728📚General English & ComprehensionDeterminers & Quantifiers

Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with the help of the options that follow:
She began to tell them ______ about her life in Kashmir, particularly in Srinagar.

Explanation

'Life' in this descriptive sense is treated as an uncountable concept. 'A few' and 'the few' modify countable plural nouns. 'Little' denotes 'hardly anything' (negative sense), whereas 'a little' denotes 'some amount' (positive sense). Here, she shared some details, making 'a little' the correct choice.

'Life' एक अगणनीय (uncountable) संदर्भ है। 'A few' और 'the few' बहुवचन गणनीय संज्ञाओं के लिए आते हैं। 'Little' का अर्थ 'न के बराबर' होता है, जबकि 'a little' का अर्थ 'कुछ मात्रा में' (सकारात्मक भाव) होता है। अतः 'a little' सही है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

729📚General English & ComprehensionVocabulary & Contextual Fillers

Fill in the blank with the suitable word: Although a solution may not be immediately apparent, the key was to start a ______ between them.

Explanation

The singular countable noun 'conversation' preceded by the indefinite article 'a' appropriately completes the idiomatic expression 'to start a conversation between them' (referring to initiating constructive dialogue).

अनिश्चित उपपद 'a' के साथ एकवचन गणनीय संज्ञा 'conversation' उपयुक्त बैठती है। 'to start a conversation between them' का अर्थ दोनों पक्षों के बीच संवाद की शुरुआत करना है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

730📚General English & ComprehensionActive and Passive Voice

Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice: Avinash will play the match.

Explanation

The active sentence 'Avinash will play the match' uses Simple Future tense (will + V1). In passive voice, it becomes Object + will be + past participle (V3) + by Subject: 'The match will be played by Avinash.'

Simple Future Active ('will play') Passive में 'will be + V3' ('will be played') में बदलता है: 'The match will be played by Avinash.'

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

731📚General English & ComprehensionDirect and Indirect Speech

State the sentence in direct form: Nidhi ordered her servant to bring her cup of tea.

Explanation

In indirect speech, the reporting verb 'said to her servant' becomes 'ordered her servant', and the imperative command 'Bring me a cup of tea' changes to 'to bring her cup of tea'. Thus, the direct speech is: Nidhi said to her servant, “Bring me a cup of tea.”

आज्ञासूचक वाक्यों (Imperative Sentences) में 'said to' को भाव के अनुसार 'ordered' में बदला जाता है तथा 'Bring me a cup of tea' बदलकर 'to bring her cup of tea' हो जाता है। अतः Direct Form विकल्प (B) है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

732📚General English & ComprehensionDirect and Indirect Speech

State the sentence in indirect form: The man said, “Who dare call you a thief?”

Explanation

In indirect speech, the interrogative question with reporting verb 'said' converts to 'enquired' or 'asked', the present verb 'dare' shifts back to the past 'dared', and the second-person pronoun 'you' changes to the objective third-person pronoun 'him': 'The man enquired who dared call him a thief.'

प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य में रिपोर्टिंग वर्ब 'said' 'enquired' में बदलती है, 'dare' का भूतकाल 'dared' हो जाता है और सर्वनाम 'you' बदलकर 'him' हो जाता है: 'The man enquired who dared call him a thief.'

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

733📚General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension

Based on the reading passage: There has been a significant degradation of habitats worldwide due to:

Explanation

The passage notes that pressures on resources are 'brought about, in part, by increased population and the quest for an ever expanding food supply.' This reflects the classic Malthusian principle where geometric/exponential population growth places critical stresses on food and renewable resources.

गद्यांश रेखांकित करता है कि संसाधनों पर अभूतपूर्व दबाव बढ़ती जनसंख्या और भोजन की बढ़ती मांग के कारण है, जो माल्थस के सिद्धांत (तीव्र जनसंख्या वृद्धि और संसाधनों पर दबाव) के प्रत्यक्ष प्रभाव को दर्शाता है।

2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department

734📚General English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’: All the girls (A) / returned back home (B) / well in time for lunch (C) / No error (D)

Explanation

The verb 'return' inherently means 'to come back' or 'go back'. Using 'back' with 'returned' constitutes a redundant pleonasm ('returned back'). It should be either 'returned home' or 'came back home'. Thus, part (B) contains the error.

'Return' का अर्थ ही 'वापस आना' होता है, इसलिए इसके साथ 'back' का प्रयोग अनावश्यक (superfluous/redundant) है। सही वाक्य 'returned home' होगा। अतः भाग (B) में त्रुटि है।

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735📚General English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error, if any. If the sentence is error-free, select ‘No error’: A large-scale exchange of nuclear weapons (A) / would release unprecedented levels of radiation (B) / capable of penetrating into the biological tissue (C) / No error (D).

Explanation

'Penetrate' is a transitive verb that directly takes an object without the preposition 'into' (e.g., 'penetrating biological tissue', not 'penetrating into biological tissue'). Additionally, 'the biological tissue' should be non-specific 'biological tissue'. Hence, part (C) contains the grammatical error.

'Penetrate' एक सकर्मक क्रिया (transitive verb) है, जिसके बाद सीधे कर्म आता है, Preposition 'into' का प्रयोग गलत और अनावश्यक है ('penetrating biological tissue')। अतः भाग (C) में त्रुटि है।

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736📚Data Interpretation & Data SufficiencyData Sufficiency

Which of the following statements is/are sufficient to determine the average daily wage of D, E, and F?
Statements:
I. E’s daily wage is half the sum of D’s and F’s daily wages.
II. The combined daily wages of D and E exceed F’s daily wage by Rs. 40, and F’s daily wage is Rs. 500.
Choose the correct statement:

Explanation

To determine the average daily wage of D, E, and F, we need

\frac{D + E + F}{3}

.
- Statement I states:

E = \frac{D + F}{2} \implies 2E = D + F \implies D + E + F = 3E

. Average daily wage

= E

. However, since the monetary value of

E

is not known, Statement I alone is insufficient.
- Statement II states:

(D + E) = F + 40

and

F = 500 \implies D + E = 540

.
Combining Statement I and Statement II:
We have two linear equations in D and E:

D + E = 540

and

2E - D = 500

. Adding them gives

3E = 1040 \implies E = 346.67

. Average daily wage

= \frac{D + E + F}{3} = \frac{540 + 500}{3} = 346.67

. Both statements together are sufficient (Option A).

D, E और F का औसत दैनिक वेतन

\frac{D + E + F}{3}

ज्ञात करना है:
- कथन I:

E = \frac{D + F}{2} \implies D + E + F = 3E

। अतः औसत

= E

, लेकिन

E

का मान अज्ञात है (अकेला अपर्याप्त)।
- कथन II:

D + E = F + 40

और

F = 500 \implies D + E = 540

।
- दोनों कथनों को एक साथ लेने पर:

D + E = 540

और

2E - D = 500

, जिससे

E = 346.67

और औसत दैनिक वेतन

\frac{1040}{3} = 346.67

रुपये विशिष्ट रूप से प्राप्त हो जाता है।
अतः दोनों कथन I और II मिलकर पर्याप्त हैं (विकल्प A)।

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737📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyClassification of Nuqat (Dots)

"نقاط" کی کتنی قسمیں ہیں؟
(How many types of "Nuqat" (dots) are categorized in calligraphy?)

Explanation

In classical calligraphy orthography, dots (Nuqat, plural of Nuqta) are categorized into three primary structural varieties based on their geometrical form: Nuqta Mudawwar (circular/round), Nuqta Murabba (square/rhomboid measuring qat dot), and Nuqta Musallas/Mustateel.

فنِ خطاطی میں نقاط کی ہیئت کے اعتبار سے بنیادی طور پر تین قسمیں مانی جاتی ہیں: نقطۂ مدور (گول)، نقطۂ مربع (چوکور/معیاری قط)، اور نقطۂ مثلث۔

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738📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyKhat-e-Riqa Etymology

"خط رقاع" رقعہ کی جمع ہے اس سے کیا مراد ہے؟
("Khat-e-Riqa" is the plural of Ruq'ah; what does Ruq'ah mean?)

Explanation

'Ruq'ah' (رقعہ, plural Riqa) literally signifies a small slip, note, or piece of paper/parchment. Khat-e-Riqa was formulated specifically for rapid everyday correspondence on small scraps of paper.

لفظ 'رقعہ' کے لغوی معنی کاغذ کے چھوٹے پرزے یا چٹھی کے ہیں، اور خطِ رقاع کا نام اسی مناسبت سے رکھا گیا کیونکہ یہ مختصر خطوط اور پرزوں پر تیز رفتاری سے لکھا جاتا تھا۔

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739📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyUrdu Grammar - Plurals

لفظ "نقطہ" کی جمع کیا ہے؟
(What is the correct plural form of the word "Nuqta"?)

Explanation

The proper classical Arabic broken plural (جمع مکسر) of the singular noun 'نقطہ' (dot) is 'نقاط' (Nuqaat).

عربی اور شستہ اردو قواعد کی رو سے لفظ 'نقطہ' کی باضابطہ جمع مکسر 'نقاط' ہے۔

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740📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsVerbal vs Non-Verbal Communication

Non-verbal communication includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Gestures
B) Facial expressions
C) Written letters
D) Body posture

Explanation

Written letters constitute verbal communication (using language and words in written form). Non-verbal communication involves kinesics, gestures, facial expressions, proxemics, and body posture without the use of spoken or written words.

लिखित पत्र (Written letters) मौखिक/शाब्दिक संचार (Verbal Communication) का हिस्सा हैं क्योंकि इनमें शब्दों और भाषा का प्रयोग होता है। हाव-भाव, चेहरे के भाव और शारीरिक मुद्रा अशाब्दिक संचार (Non-verbal) हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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741📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingDigital Journalism Features

Consider the following statements about digital journalism:
i. Digital journalism competes with traditional media by offering faster and crisper content.
ii. Web journalists focus solely on textual content and avoid multimedia elements.
iii. Long-form journalism is absent in digital media.
iv. Digital journalism allows for real-time updates and audience interaction.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iv are correct. Digital journalism thrives on immediacy, speed, real-time live reporting, hyperlinking, and two-way audience interaction. Statements ii and iii are false because web journalism heavily integrates multimedia (podcasts, video, infographics) and extensive long-form interactive journalism.

कथन i और iv सही हैं। डिजिटल पत्रकारिता वास्तविक समय (Real-time) अपडेट और तीव्र गति प्रदान करती है। कथन ii और iii गलत हैं क्योंकि डिजिटल पत्रकारिता मल्टीमीडिया (ऑडियो, वीडियो, ग्राफिक्स) और लॉन्ग-फॉर्म पत्रकारिता दोनों को समृद्ध रूप से अपनाती है।

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742📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHistory of Indian Advertising

Consider the following statements about the evolution of advertising in India:
i. James Augustus Hickey started the first newspaper in India, which included trade and legal notices.
ii. Lintas advertising agency launched Dalda, the first major example of branding in India.
iii. The first TV commercial in India was aired on Doordarshan in 1976.
iv. The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) was established in 1985.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Hickey's Bengal Gazette (1780) carried early advertisements. Lintas spearheaded the iconic Dalda marketing blitz, creating India's first mass-branded consumer good. ASCI was established in 1985 as a self-regulatory body.

भारतीय विज्ञापन के इतिहास में:
- जेम्स ऑगस्टस हिक्की के 'बंगाल गजट' (1780) में व्यापारिक विज्ञापन छपते थे।
- लिंटास एजेंसी ने 'डालडा' का ब्रांडिंग अभियान शुरू किया।
- विज्ञापनों में नैतिकता हेतु भारतीय विज्ञापन मानक परिषद (ASCI) की स्थापना 1985 में हुई थी।

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743📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsMilestones in Indian Cinema

Consider the following statements about the evolution of cinema:
i. The first Indian talking film was Alam Ara, released in 1931.
ii. Kisan Kanya was the first Indian film to use 3D technology.
iii. Raja Harishchandra was a silent film produced by Dadasaheb Phalke.
iv. Chota Chetan was the first Indian 4D film.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iii are correct:
- Alam Ara (directed by Ardeshir Irani) was India's first sound/talkie film, released on 14 March 1931.
- Raja Harishchandra (1913) directed by Dadasaheb Phalke was India's first full-length silent feature film.
Statement ii is false (Kisan Kanya 1937 was India's first indigenously produced colour film). Statement iv is false (My Dear Kuttichathan / Chhota Chetan 1984 was India's first 3D film, not 4D).

कथन i और iii सही हैं:
- 'आलम आरा' (1931) भारत की पहली बोलती फिल्म थी।
- 'राजा हरिश्चंद्र' (1913) दादा साहब फाल्के द्वारा निर्मित पहली मूक फिल्म थी।
'किसान कन्या' (1937) भारत की पहली रंगीन फिल्म थी (3D नहीं), और 'छोटा चेतन' पहली 3D फिल्म थी (4D नहीं)। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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744📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication for Development (C4D)

Match the following C4D communication approaches with their primary focus:
i. Participatory Communication
ii. Advocacy Communication
iii. Development Communication
iv. Behaviour Change Communication
Primary Focus:
1. Information dissemination
2. Empowerment and engagement
3. Social and policy change
4. Change in individual behaviors
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Communication for Development (C4D) modalities:
- Participatory Communication: Community empowerment, voice, and collective engagement (i-2).
- Advocacy Communication: Influencing decision-makers for policy and legislative change (ii-3).
- Behaviour Change Communication (BCC): Fostering shifts in specific individual health/hygiene practices (iv-4).
- Development Communication: Information dissemination for modernization and socio-economic progress (iii-1).

विकास हेतु संचार (C4D) के दृष्टिकोण:
- सहभागी संचार: सशक्तिकरण और जुड़ाव (i-2)
- एडवोकेसी (वकालत) संचार: सामाजिक और नीतिगत बदलाव (ii-3)
- विकास संचार: सूचना का प्रसार (iii-1)
- व्यवहार परिवर्तन संचार (BCC): व्यक्तिगत व्यवहार में बदलाव (iv-4)।

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745📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDefamation Terms & Defences

Match the following terms with their correct definitions:
1) Slander
2) Libel
3) Fair Comment
4) Privilege
Definitions:
i) Written defamation
ii) Verbal defamation
iii) Defence against defamation for matters of public interest
iv) Legal protection for statements made in certain contexts
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Defamation legal definitions:
- Slander: Oral, spoken, transitory defamation (1-ii).
- Libel: Permanent written, printed, or broadcast defamation (2-i).
- Fair Comment: Common law defence for honest expression of opinion on matters of public interest (3-iii).
- Privilege: Immunity/protection shielding statements made in legislative or judicial proceedings (4-iv).

कानूनी परिभाषाओं का सही मिलान:
1. स्लेंडर (Slander): मौखिक मानहानि (ii)
2. लाइबल (Libel): लिखित मानहानि (i)
3. निष्पक्ष टिप्पणी (Fair Comment): जनहित के मामलों में मानहानि का कानूनी बचाव (iii)
4. विशेषाधिकार (Privilege): विशिष्ट संदर्भों में दिए गए बयानों को कानूनी संरक्षण (iv)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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746📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsConcept of Visual Communication

What is the primary focus of visual communication?
A) Use of audio elements to convey messages
B) Use of images, symbols, and graphics to convey information
C) Use of written text to explain complex ideas
D) Use of verbal communication to persuade audiences

Explanation

Visual communication is the practice of conveying ideas, information, and meaning primarily through visual aids—such as imagery, typography, drawings, symbols, color, and graphic design.

दृश्य संचार (Visual Communication) का मुख्य केंद्र सूचना और संदेशों को संप्रेषित करने के लिए छवियों, प्रतीकों, रेखाचित्रों और ग्राफिक्स का उपयोग करना है।

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747📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsNon-Verbal Gestures

In a noisy classroom, a teacher uses hand gestures to explain a concept. This is an example of:
A) Verbal communication
B) Feedback mechanism
C) Non-verbal communication
D) Psychological noise

Explanation

Hand gestures, body language, and physical signs communicate meaning without vocalized or written words, exemplifying Non-verbal communication.

कक्षा में शोर होने पर शिक्षक द्वारा हाथ के इशारों (Gestures) से बात समझाना 'अशाब्दिक संचार' (Non-verbal communication) का स्पष्ट उदाहरण है।

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748📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication Concepts Verification

Consider the following statements:
i. Communication is a one-way process.
ii. Verbal communication includes written and spoken words.
iii. Noise can be both physical and psychological.
iv. Non-verbal cues are irrelevant in professional settings.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Explanation

Statements ii and iii are correct. Verbal communication involves words in both oral and written modes. Noise encompasses environmental physical disturbances and internal cognitive/emotional psychological distractions. Statement i is false (communication is interactive two-way); Statement iv is false (non-verbal body language is vital in professional settings).

कथन ii और iii सत्य हैं। मौखिक संचार में लिखित और बोले गए दोनों शब्द शामिल होते हैं। शोर (Noise) भौतिक और मनोवैज्ञानिक दोनों हो सकता है। संचार एकतरफा नहीं होता और अशाब्दिक संकेत पेशेवर जीवन में अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण होते हैं।

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749📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Paradigm Attributes

Consider the following statements about the participatory paradigm:
i. It recognizes cultural differences and rejects a universal development model.
ii. It prioritizes the use of big media like television and newspapers.
iii. It encourages self-management and collective decision-making.
iv. It is primarily concerned with creating a climate of acceptance for exogenous ideas.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iii are correct. The participatory model respects indigenous knowledge and cultural pluralism, rejecting one-size-fits-all Western models, and fosters community self-reliance. Statements ii and iv pertain to the classical modernization/dominant paradigm (big media and acceptance of exogenous foreign models).

सहभागी प्रतिमान के बारे में कथन i और iii सत्य हैं। यह सांस्कृतिक भिन्नताओं का सम्मान करता है और सामूहिक निर्णय लेने को प्रोत्साहित करता है। कथन ii और iv 'प्रमुख प्रतिमान' (Dominant Paradigm) के लक्षण हैं। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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750📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Television Technology Advancements

Match the following technological advancements in television with their descriptions:
i. Iconoscope
ii. Satellite communication
iii. Digital compression technology
iv. High Definition Television (HDTV)
Descriptions:
1. Enabled the transmission of high-quality video and audio signals.
2. The first electric television tube invented in 1923.
3. Enhanced the number of channels and improved picture quality.
4. Transformed global communication with the launch of Early Bird in 1962.
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation

Matching:
- Iconoscope: Invented in 1923 by Vladimir Zworykin, the first practical electronic TV camera tube (i-2).
- Satellite communication: Transformed global live TV with communications satellites like Early Bird / Telstar (ii-4).
- Digital compression: MPEG standards enabled multi-channel digital broadcasting (iii-3).
- HDTV: Enabled superior high-resolution video and multi-channel audio (iv-1).

टेलीविजन प्रौद्योगिकियों का सही मिलान:
- आइकोनोस्कोप: 1923 में व्लादिमीर ज़्वोरिकिन द्वारा निर्मित पहला इलेक्ट्रॉनिक टीवी कैमरा ट्यूब (i-2)
- सैटेलाइट संचार: अर्ली बर्ड/टेलस्टार उपग्रहों द्वारा वैश्विक प्रसारण क्रांति (ii-4)
- डिजिटल कम्प्रेशन: चैनलों की संख्या और गुणवत्ता में वृद्धि (iii-3)
- HDTV: उच्च गुणवत्ता वाले वीडियो और ऑडियो का प्रसारण (iv-1)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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751📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)History of Doordarshan

Consider the following statements about the development of television in India:
i. The Delhi Television Centre began operations in 1959 with UNESCO support.
ii. The Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) brought India international prestige.
iii. Doordarshan was separated from All India Radio in 1976.
iv. The Asian Games in 1982 led to the rapid expansion of India's television network.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All four statements are historical facts:
- Delhi experimental TV station was inaugurated on 15 Sept 1959 funded partially by UNESCO (20,000 grant).
- SITE (1975-76) using NASA's ATS-6 satellite beamed educational programming to 2,400 rural villages.
- Doordarshan was separated from AIR on 1 April 1976.
- 1982 IX Asian Games triggered national colour TV transmission and massive expansion of Low Power Transmitters (LPTs).

भारतीय दूरदर्शन के विकास के बारे में चारों कथन ऐतिहासिक रूप से सत्य हैं: 1959 में यूनेस्को के सहयोग से शुरुआत, 1975-76 में SITE का सफल उपग्रह प्रयोग, 1976 में AIR से दूरदर्शन का पृथक्करण, और 1982 के एशियाई खेलों के दौरान रंगीन टीवी और राष्ट्रव्यापी ट्रांसमीटरों का विस्तार।

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752📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsTraditional Folk Media in India

Consider the following statements about folk media in India:
i. Folk media often combines music, dance, and drama to convey messages.
ii. It is ineffective in areas with low literacy rates.
iii. Folk media has been used historically for both entertainment and social reform.
iv. Folk media is limited to religious content only.
Which of the statement are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iii are correct. Traditional folk media organically weaves music, dance, puppetry, and street theatre into compelling participatory narratives, historically driving social reforms (e.g., against social evils, during the freedom movement). Statements ii and iv are false (folk media is exceptionally potent in non-literate rural areas and covers diverse socio-political themes).

कथन i और iii सही हैं। लोक मीडिया संगीत, नृत्य और नाटक का मिश्रण है और इसका उपयोग सामाजिक सुधार और मनोरंजन दोनों के लिए होता रहा है। यह कम साक्षरता वाले क्षेत्रों में भी अत्यंत प्रभावी होता है और केवल धार्मिक विषयों तक सीमित नहीं है।

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753📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Dynamics

Consider the following statements about new media:
i. New media relies on digital computer technology for content distribution.
ii. Traditional media is more interactive than new media.
iii. New media allows users to produce, distribute, and consume content simultaneously.
iv. Print media is faster in delivering real-time updates compared to new media.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements i and iii are correct. New media operates on digital microprocessing/IP networks and breaks down the barrier between audience and creator, turning users into 'prosumers'. Statements ii and iv are false (new media is infinitely more interactive and delivers instantaneous live updates compared to daily print editions).

कथन i और iii सही हैं। न्यू मीडिया डिजिटल तकनीक पर आधारित है और उपयोगकर्ताओं को एक साथ सामग्री बनाने (Produce) और उपभोग (Consume) करने की सुविधा देता है। कथन ii और iv गलत हैं क्योंकि पारंपरिक मीडिया न्यू मीडिया जितना संवादात्मक या त्वरित नहीं है।

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754📚C++ & Object-Oriented ProgrammingFile Streams in C++

What does the eof() function do in file handling?

Explanation

In C++ file stream processing (<fstream>), the stream member function eof() returns true (non-zero) if the End-Of-File condition has been reached on the associated input file stream.

C++ फ़ाइल हैंडलिंग में 'eof()' (End Of File) फलन यह जांचता है कि क्या फ़ाइल के अंतिम छोर तक पहुँचा जा चुका है। यदि फ़ाइल का अंत आ गया है, तो यह 'true' लौटाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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755📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityHTTP Status Codes

Which HTTP response status code indicates a redirection to another resource?

Explanation

HTTP status code 301 ('Moved Permanently') is the standard 3xx Redirection response code indicating that the requested URL resource has been permanently assigned a new URI. (200 is OK, 403 is Forbidden, 500 is Internal Server Error).

एचटीटीपी (HTTP) स्थिति कोड '301' (Moved Permanently) पुनर्निर्देशन (Redirection) कोड है जो यह दर्शाता है कि अनुरोधित संसाधन को स्थायी रूप से नए यूआरएल पर स्थानांतरित कर दिया गया है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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756📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionPhoto Editing Tools & Retouching

Which feature in photo editing software helps in restoring a part of an image that has been altered or removed?

Explanation

The History Brush Tool in Adobe Photoshop allows the editor to paint back and restore pixels from a previously saved state or snapshot recorded in the History panel, reverting selective localized portions of an image to an earlier state.

फोटो संपादन सॉफ्टवेयर में 'हिस्ट्री ब्रश टूल' (History Brush Tool) किसी छवि के पूर्ववर्ती चरण या स्नैपशॉट से पिक्सल को पेंट करके बदले या हटाए गए भाग को पुनर्स्थापित (Restore) करने में मदद करता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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757📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNon-Verbal Series

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

Explanation

Analyzing the cyclic shift and rotation of characters (#, @, :, !) across the quadrant corners inside the square box confirms that option B provides the correct subsequent arrangement.

वर्ग के अंदर विभिन्न प्रतीकों (#, @, :, !) के दक्षिणावर्त घूर्णन और स्थिति परिवर्तन के आधार पर श्रृंखला का अगला सही चित्र विकल्प B है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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758📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNon-Verbal Series

Select the figure from among the given option that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Explanation

Analyzing the 90-degree clockwise step-wise rotation and inversion of the loop curve establishes that figure B completes the series logically.

आकृति में वक्र लूप के 90 डिग्री घूर्णन और दर्पण छवि परिवर्तन के आधार पर श्रृंखला का अगला सही चित्र विकल्प B है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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759📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNon-Verbal Series

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

Explanation

Following the rotation of the inner shaded polygon and movement of geometric corner attachments across the frames confirms option B as the correct next figure in the sequence.

आकृति में आंतरिक बहुभुज के घूर्णन और कोनों के प्रतीकों के अनुक्रमिक परिवर्तन के आधार पर अगली सही आकृति विकल्प B है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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760📚Basic English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors (Prepositions)

Find the error in one part of the given sentence: They persisted (1)/ on their going (2)/ inspite of rain. (3)/ No error (4)

Explanation

Error is in part (2). The verb 'persist' takes the fixed preposition 'in', not 'on': 'They persisted in their going...' or 'They persisted in going...'.

त्रुटि भाग (2) में है। क्रिया 'persist' के साथ सही प्रीपोजिशन 'in' का प्रयोग होता है, 'on' का नहीं ('persisted in going')। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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761📚Basic English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors (Determiners)

Find the error in one part of the given sentence: Not much (1)/ people realize (2)/ his sincerity. (3)/ No error (4)

Explanation

Error is in part (1). 'People' is a plural countable noun, so the quantifier 'many' must be used instead of 'much' (which is reserved for uncountable nouns): 'Not many people realize...'.

त्रुटि भाग (1) में है। 'People' एक गणनीय बहुवचन संज्ञा (countable noun) है, जिसके साथ 'much' (अग़णनीय) के स्थान पर 'many' का प्रयोग किया जाता है: 'Not many people realize...'। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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762📚Basic English & ComprehensionSentence Improvement (Infinitives)

Improve the bold part of the sentence: Although he was tired, he went out for playing.

Explanation

The infinitive of purpose 'to play' correctly replaces the unidiomatic prepositional phrase 'for playing' in past tense: 'Although he was tired, he went out to play.'

उद्देश्य प्रकट करने के लिए 'for playing' के स्थान पर इन्फिनिटिव 'to play' का प्रयोग सही है: 'Although he was tired, he went out to play.'। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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763📚Basic English & ComprehensionActive and Passive Voice

Select the correct Passive Voice for: Did he plan an excursion to mountains ?

Explanation

The active sentence is in simple past interrogative form ('Did + subject + verb'). In passive voice, it converts to 'Was + object + past participle (planned) + by him?': 'Was an excursion to mountains planned by him?'.

सिंपल पास्ट टेंस के प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य का पैसिव वॉइस संरचना 'Was + Object + V3 + by + Subject?' होती है: 'Was an excursion to mountains planned by him?'। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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764📚Basic English & ComprehensionCloze Test & Participles

Refer cloze passage blank 54: One rainy day I watched a neighbour (54) to push her toddler in a pram with one hand...

Explanation

After verbs of sensory perception ('watched', 'saw'), a participle construction is used: 'watched a neighbour struggling to push...'.

इंद्रिय बोध की क्रियाओं (जैसे watched) के बाद प्रेजेंट पार्टिसिपल 'struggling' का प्रयोग सही है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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765📚Basic English & ComprehensionCloze Test & Verb Tense

Refer cloze passage blank 57: When they reappeared, she (57) to have sorted out her problem...

Explanation

Consistent with the past tense narrative, the simple past form 'seemed' is correct: 'she seemed to have sorted out'.

भूतकाल के वृत्तांत के अनुरूप पास्ट टेंस 'seemed' का प्रयोग सही है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।

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766📚Basic English & ComprehensionCloze Test & Contextual Adverbs

Refer cloze passage blank 58: ...the toddler, attached to the dog's leash, was (58) running through mud puddles...

Explanation

The humorous context of a young child happily splashing in puddles is accurately described by the adverb 'joyously'.

कीचड़ के गड्ढों में खुशी से दौड़ते हुए बच्चे के संदर्भ में क्रियाविशेषण 'joyously' (आनंदपूर्वक) सबसे उपयुक्त है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।

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767📚Basic English & ComprehensionActive and Passive Voice

Select the active voice for: I was obliged to leave.

Explanation

The passive sentence 'I was obliged to leave' uses simple past tense ('was obliged'). In active voice with the standard implied subject 'Circumstances', it becomes 'Circumstances obliged me to leave.'

'I was obliged to leave' साधारण भूतकाल का पैसिव वाक्य है। इसका एक्टिव वॉइस रूप 'Circumstances obliged me to leave.' (परिस्थितियों ने मुझे जाने के लिए बाध्य किया) होगा। अतः सही विकल्प B है।

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768📚Basic English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension

Refer reading comprehension passage: One of the activities of a child before it is even born is ______:

Explanation

The passage explicitly states: 'It has been listening ever since it was born, and even a little before that.'

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट लिखा है कि शिशु जन्म से पहले से ही सुनता आ रहा होता है ('even a little before that')। अतः सही उत्तर 'listening' (B) है।

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769📚Basic English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension

Refer reading comprehension passage: A child has been ______ ever since it was born.

Explanation

The text states: 'It has been listening ever since it was born...'.

गद्यांश में उल्लिखित है कि बच्चा जन्म के समय से ही सुनता (listening) आ रहा होता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।

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770📚Difficult Driving Conditions & Vehicle DynamicsOptical Scattering & Selective Fog Penetration

Based on their wavelength, which of the following colour of the light is most effective for visibly, during fog

Explanation

According to Rayleigh scattering (

I \propto rac{1}{\\lambda^4}

), shorter wavelengths (violet and blue) scatter intensely in suspended fog droplets, creating a blinding glare. Yellow light has a significantly longer wavelength (~580 nm), which reduces optical backscatter and provides superior contrast penetration through fog.

प्रकाश के प्रकीर्णन नियम के अनुसार, लंबी तरंगदैर्ध्य वाला प्रकाश कोहरे में कम बिखरता है। दिए गए विकल्पों में 'पीले रंग' (Yellow) की तरंगदैर्ध्य अधिक होने के कारण यह कोहरे में सर्वाधिक प्रभावी दृश्यता प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प C है।

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771📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsCarburetor Choke Circuit Dynamics

When the choke is applied, the fuel primarily comes out from the

Explanation

Applying the choke valve closes the air intake upstream of the carburetor venturi while the throttle is slightly opened. As the engine cranks, intense intake manifold vacuum is applied directly across the venturi, causing large volumes of raw liquid fuel to be drawn directly out of the Main jet to supply an ultra-rich starting mixture.

जब कोल्ड स्टार्ट के समय चोक (Choke) लगाया जाता है, तो इनटेक में तीव्र वैक्यूम बनने के कारण ईंधन मुख्य रूप से 'मेन जेट' (Main jet) से बाहर निकलता है जिससे गाढ़ा (रिच) मिश्रण तैयार होता है। सही विकल्प A है।

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772📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPictographs vs Ideographs

Which one of the following statements is true with respect to Ideographs
I. Drawings that carry meaning because they look like real objects
II. Simple drawings that symbolize concepts rather than objects
III. They are simple verbal symbols
IV. Uses advanced alphabet
The Correct Statement are :

Explanation

In writing history: Statement I describes pictographs (drawings representing physical objects by visual resemblance). Statement II correctly defines ideographs (ideograms) as stylized symbols representing abstract ideas, concepts, or qualities rather than concrete physical objects. Hence, only Statement II is correct.

आइडियोग्राफ (Ideographs - विचार-चित्र) वे सरल रेखाचित्र होते हैं जो किसी भौतिक वस्तु के बजाय किसी अमूर्त विचार या अवधारणा (Concepts) का प्रतीक होते हैं। (कथन I पिक्टोग्राफ की परिभाषा है)। अतः केवल कथन II सही है। सही विकल्प B है।

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773📚Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryThermal Ablation CTP Plates

Which of the plates mentioned below use laser technology that selectively heats the non-image area until the reactive material vaporizes.

Explanation

Thermal ablation CTP plates utilize high-energy infrared laser diodes that deliver intense localized thermal pulses to physically disintegrate, volatilize, or vaporize the thin reactive coating off the plate substrate in the non-image areas. The vaporized debris is drawn away by a vacuum debris extraction unit.

थर्मल एब्लेशन प्लेटें (Thermal ablation plates) वह लेज़र तकनीक उपयोग करती हैं जहाँ लेज़र ऊष्मा गैर-छवि क्षेत्र की कोटिंग को सीधे वाष्पीकृत (Vaporize) कर देती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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774📚Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryOffset Rubber Blanket Mechanical Properties

The ability of the blanket to return to its original thickness after pressure on its surface has been removed is called _____

Explanation

The mechanical ability of an offset rubber blanket to instantaneously recover its original nominal thickness and surface profile after passing through the high-pressure printing cylinder nip is termed 'Resilience' (elastic recovery). High resilience prevents permanent blanket gauge loss.

दबाव हटने के बाद ऑफसेट रबर ब्लैंकेट की अपनी मूल मोटाई में तुरंत वापस लौटने की प्रत्यास्थ क्षमता को 'रेज़िलिएंस' (Resilience - लचीलापन/प्रत्यास्थता) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।

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775📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlProcess Lighting: Metal Vapor & HID Lamps

Select the light source given below that generates light by passing electric current through various metal vapours which actually requires auxiliary electric ballast units to provide high voltages to start.
I. Mercury lamp
II. Sodium vapour lamp
III. Metal halide lamp
IV. Xenon flash lamp
Choose the Correct Option:

Explanation

High-Intensity Discharge (HID) metal vapor lamps—including Mercury vapor (I), Sodium vapor (II), and Metal halide (III)—generate light by striking an electric arc through vaporized metals inside a quartz tube. They inherently require inductive/electronic ballasts and igniters to produce high starting striking voltages and regulate operating current. Xenon flash tubes (IV) operate on capacitive discharge pulses.

मरकरी लैंप (I), सोडियम वेपर लैंप (II) और मेटल हैलाइड लैंप (III) गैस डिस्चार्ज लैंप हैं जिन्हें शुरू करने और उच्च वोल्टेज प्रदान करने के लिए ऑक्जिलरी इलेक्ट्रिक बैलस्ट की आवश्यकता होती है। अतः I, II और III सही हैं। सही विकल्प D है।

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776📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlVisual Neuroscience & Color Perception

Choose the True statement about Vision:
I. One of the five sensory functions for collecting information about the world we live in.
II. The optic nerve contains about one million neural fibres transmitting information from the retina to the brain.
III. The visual signals are sent to the visual cortex and other areas in the brain for perception.
IV. Cone cells are the real sensors of colour vision.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

All four statements are scientifically accurate: Vision is the primary sensory modality (I); the human optic nerve is composed of approximately 1 to 1.2 million retinal ganglion cell axons (II); action potentials travel through the optic chiasm and lateral geniculate nucleus to the primary visual cortex (V1) in the occipital lobe (III); and retinal cone photoreceptors (S, M, L cones) mediate trichromatic photopic color vision (IV).

दृष्टि (Vision) के संबंध में चारों कथन सत्य हैं: यह सूचना एकत्र करने वाली प्रमुख संवेदी प्रणाली है (I), ऑप्टिक तंत्रिका में लगभग 10 लाख तंत्रिका तंतु होते हैं (II), सिग्नल विजुअल कॉर्टेक्स में जाते हैं (III), और कोन कोशिकाएं रंगीन दृष्टि की वास्तविक संवेदक हैं (IV)। सही विकल्प D है।

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777📚Mycology & Fungal PathogenesisSpecial Histochemical Stains in Mycology

Which staining technique is preferred for demonstrating polysaccharide-rich fungal cell walls in histopathological tissue sections?

Explanation

The Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) reaction is the standard histopathological stain for fungi. Periodic acid selectively oxidizes the vicinal diols of cell-wall structural polysaccharides (glucan, mannan, chitin) into aldehydes, which react with Schiff's leucofuchsin reagent to produce an intense, diagnostic bright magenta/pink staining.

ऊतक अनुभागों में कवक की पॉलीसेकेराइड युक्त कोशिका भित्ति को प्रदर्शित करने के लिए 'पीरियोडिक एसिड-शिफ' (Periodic Acid-Schiff - PAS) स्टेनिंग सबसे पसंदीदा तकनीक है। सही विकल्प B है।

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778📚Mycology & Fungal PathogenesisSuperficial Mycoses: Otomycosis

Which fungal species is most frequently associated with otomycosis (ear fungal infection)?

Explanation

Aspergillus niger is the single most frequent etiology of otomycosis (fungal infection of the external auditory canal), responsible for up to 70–80% of cases. It produces dense black or charcoal-colored velvety conidiophores and spores lining the auditory canal, along with intense itching and conductive hearing impairment.

ओटोमाइकोसिस (कान का फंगल संक्रमण) के लिए सबसे अधिक जिम्मेदार फंगल प्रजाति 'एस्परगिलस नाइजर' (Aspergillus niger) है, जो कान की नली में काले बीजाणु और मायसेलियम बनाती है। सही विकल्प B है।

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779📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceUrinalysis: Physical Properties & Chromogens

Which of the following substances is correctly matched with the color it imparts to urine?

Explanation

Pyridium (phenazopyridine hydrochloride), a widely prescribed azo-dye urinary tract mucosal analgesic, characteristically imparts an intense bright amber-orange to red-orange discoloration to urine, which can permanently stain fabric and clothing.

मूत्र के रंग और पदार्थ का सही मिलान 'एम्बर नारंगी - पिरिडियम (Amber orange - Pyridium / Phenazopyridine)' है। पिरिडियम एक दर्द निवारक डाई है जो मूत्र को चमकीला नारंगी रंग देती है। सही विकल्प C है।

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780🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation

Which of the following statements about refrigeration is/are correct?
I. It slows down microbial growth.
II. It can completely kill all spoilage microorganisms.
III. It preserves food by lowering the temperature.
IV. It is effective only for dry food products.

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Refrigeration (1°C-4°C) lowers temperature to slow microbial metabolic activity and retard spoilage (I, III). It does not kill microorganisms (only bacteriostatic, II is false) and is predominantly applied to moist perishable foods, not just dry products (IV is false).

कथन I और III सही हैं। प्रशीतन (Refrigeration) तापमान कम करके सूक्ष्मजीवों की वृद्धि को धीमा करता है (I, III)। यह बैक्टीरिया को मारता नहीं है केवल उनकी वृद्धि रोकता है।

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781🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

Which of the following is used to construct an ellipse?

Explanation

The concentric circles method (along with the trammel method and oblong method) is one of the standard geometric drawing techniques used to construct a true mathematical ellipse using major and minor auxiliary circles.

इंजीनियरिंग ड्राइंग में दीर्घवृत्त (Ellipse) बनाने के लिए संकेंद्री वृत्त विधि (Concentric circles method) का उपयोग प्रमुखता से किया जाता है।

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782🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting

What is the purpose of a stilling basin in hydraulic structures?

Explanation

A stilling basin is a short reach of paved channel constructed at the foot of a spillway, chute, or drop structure to dissipate the high kinetic energy of supercritical flow via a hydraulic jump, preventing scouring of the downstream riverbed.

हाइड्रोलिक संरचनाओं में स्टिलिंग बेसिन (Stilling basin) का मुख्य कार्य पानी की अत्यधिक गतिज ऊर्जा को नष्ट करना (Dissipate energy) है ताकि डाउनस्ट्रीम में कटाव न हो।

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783🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Excessive pesticide use leads to resistance in pests.
Reason (R): Pesticide rotation reduces the chance of resistance buildup.
Choose the correct option:

Explanation

Both statements are factually true. Excessive, repeated spraying exerts intense directional selection pressure favoring rare resistant genotypes (A). Rotating insecticide classes with different modes of action eliminates survivors and curbs resistance buildup (R). However, R is a management solution, not the biological cause of A.

दोनों कथन (A) और (R) सत्य हैं, लेकिन R, A का सही कारण नहीं है। अत्यधिक कीटनाशक उपयोग प्राकृतिक चयन के कारण प्रतिरोध उत्पन्न करता है, जबकि कीटनाशकों का चक्रीकरण इसे रोकने का एक उपाय है।

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784🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection

The life span of worker bee during active season is:

Explanation

During the active foraging honey-flow season (spring and summer), the life span of an adult worker honey bee is approximately 4 to 6 weeks due to intense physical labor and wing wear.

सक्रिय मौसम (शहद संग्रहण और बसंत/ग्रीष्म ऋतु) के दौरान कठोर परिश्रम के कारण श्रमिक मधुमक्खी (worker bee) का जीवनकाल लगभग 4 से 6 सप्ताह का होता है।

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785🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation

In silkworm rearing, a group of eggs laid out by a silkworm moth which is examined and certified as disease free is called

Explanation

In sericulture grainage, a batch of eggs laid by an individual mother moth that has been microscopically examined for Pebrine spores and certified free from disease is called a 'dfl' (disease-free laying).

रेशमकीट पालन में पेब्रिन रोग की सूक्ष्मदर्शी जांच के बाद प्रमाणित रोग-मुक्त अंडों के समूह को 'डीएफएल' (dfl - Disease-Free Laying) कहा जाता है।

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786📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian History & Freedom Struggle

Which of the following statements about the Poona Pact of 1932 is Correct?
A) It was an agreement between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League to grant separate representation to religious minorities in provincial legislatures.
B) It was a truce between Mahatma Gandhi and Viceroy Irwin that suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement.
C) It is an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on the issue of separate electorates for the Depressed Classes (Dalits).
D) It ended the East India Company (EIC) rule by transferring power to the British Parliament by reducing the EIC to a trading body.

Explanation

The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail in Poona between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (on behalf of the Depressed Classes) and Madan Mohan Malaviya / Mahatma Gandhi. Under the pact, separate electorates for the Depressed Classes announced in the British Communal Award were abandoned in favor of reserved seats within the general electorate.

पूना पैक्ट (1932) यरवदा जेल में महात्मा गांधी और डॉ. बी.आर. अम्बेडकर के बीच दलित वर्गों (Depressed Classes) के लिए पृथक निर्वाचक मंडल (separate electorates) के मुद्दे पर हुआ एक ऐतिहासिक समझौता था, जिसके तहत पृथक निर्वाचक मंडल को त्यागकर संयुक्त निर्वाचक मंडल में आरक्षित सीटें दी गईं।

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787📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations

Which of the following statements about the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is/are correct?
i. ASEAN was founded on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
ii. Brunei joined in 1984, followed by Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia between 1995 and 1999.
iii. Today, ASEAN has 10 member states, working together for regional cooperation and development.
A) Only i
B) Only i and ii
C) Only ii and iii
D) All of the above

Explanation

All three statements about ASEAN are factually correct: (i) founded on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the five founding members; (ii) Brunei joined in 1984, Vietnam in 1995, Laos and Myanmar in 1997, and Cambodia in 1999; (iii) it comprises 10 member states fostering political, security, economic, and socio-cultural cooperation.

आसियान (ASEAN) के संबंध में तीनों कथन पूरी तरह सही हैं: इसकी स्थापना 8 अगस्त 1967 को बैंकॉक घोषणापत्र द्वारा 5 देशों ने की (i); बाद में ब्रुनेई (1984), वियतनाम, लाओस, म्यांमार और कंबोडिया (1995-1999) शामिल हुए (ii); और आज इसके 10 सदस्य देश हैं (iii)। अतः विकल्प D (All of the above) सही है।

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788📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Agriculture & Geography

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the soil type required for growing Millets (Nutri-Cereals)?
i. Jowar - Rain-fed crop grown in the moist areas with less or no irrigation.
ii. Bajra - Well-drained fertile loamy and clayey loamy.
iii. Ragi - Red, black, sandy, loamy, and shallow black soils.
A) Only i and ii
B) Only i and iii
C) Only ii and iii
D) All of the above

Explanation

According to NCERT Geography: (i) Jowar is a rain-fed crop mostly grown in moist areas which hardly needs irrigation; (iii) Ragi is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils. For (ii), Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil (not fertile clayey loams). Therefore, statements i and iii are correct (Option B).

NCERT भूगोल के अनुसार: ज्वार वर्षा आधारित फसल है जो आर्द्र क्षेत्रों में उगाई जाती है और इसे बहुत कम या बिना सिंचाई की आवश्यकता होती है (i); रागी शुष्क क्षेत्रों की फसल है जो लाल, काली, बलुई, दोमट और उथली काली मिट्टी में अच्छी तरह उगती है (iii)। बाजरा मुख्य रूप से बलुई और उथली काली मिट्टी में उगता है। अतः कथन i और iii (विकल्प B) सही हैं।

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789📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers and Drainage System of J&K

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Tawi River?
i. The Tawi River flows through the Jammu region in the Indian-administered Jammu and Kashmir.
ii. The length of the Tawi River is 295 km.
iii. The Tawi is a major left-bank tributary of the Chenab River.
iv. It originates from the Kailash Kund glacier (also known as Kali Kund) in Bhaderwah, which lies in Doda district.
A) Only i and ii
B) Only i and iv
C) Only i, iii and iv
D) All of the above

Explanation

The Tawi River originates from the lap of Kailash Kund glacier (Kali Kund) in Bhaderwah (iv), flows through Doda, Udhampur, and Jammu districts (i), and joins the Chenab River as a major left-bank tributary in Pakistan (iii). Its total length is approximately 141 km (not 295 km), making statement ii incorrect. Hence, Only i, iii and iv (Option C) is correct.

तवी नदी भद्रवाह के कैलाश कुंड ग्लेशियर (काली कुंड) से निकलती है (iv), जम्मू क्षेत्र से होकर बहती है (i), और चिनाब नदी की एक प्रमुख बाएं किनारे की सहायक नदी है (iii)। तवी नदी की कुल लंबाई लगभग 141 किमी है (295 किमी नहीं)। अतः कथन i, iii और iv (विकल्प C) सही हैं।

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790📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019

Why is 31 October 2019, the day the state of Jammu and Kashmir was reorganized into two Union Territories, considered significant in Indian history?
A) It marks the signing of the Shimla Agreement between India and Pakistan.
B) It commemorates the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
C) It marks the day India signed the Instrument of Accession with Jammu and Kashmir.
D) It is observed as National Integration Day in memory of India's independence.

Explanation

October 31 marks the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (celebrated across India as National Unity Day / Rashtriya Ekta Diwas). The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was deliberately brought into effect on 31 October 2019 to honor the 'Iron Man of India' who spearheaded the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.

31 अक्टूबर सरदार वल्लभभाई पटेल की जयंती (राष्ट्रीय एकता दिवस) है। रियासतों के एकीकरण में उनकी ऐतिहासिक भूमिका को श्रद्धांजलि देने के लिए जम्मू-कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम को जानबूझकर 31 अक्टूबर 2019 से प्रभावी किया गया था।

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791📚Computer Science & ITComputer Hardware & Peripherals

Which of the following is not a Peripheral?
A) Pen Drive
B) Mouse
C) TouchPad
D) Printer

Explanation

Peripheral devices are auxiliary hardware components connected externally to a computer system (such as mouse, keyboard, external pen drive, printer, scanner). A Touchpad is an integrated built-in input pointing component permanently built into a laptop chassis, not an external peripheral.

पेरिफेरल (Peripheral) उपकरण वे सहायक हार्डवेयर होते हैं जो कंप्यूटर से बाह्य रूप से जुड़े होते हैं (जैसे माउस, पेन ड्राइव, प्रिंटर)। टचपैड (Touchpad) लैपटॉप में आंतरिक रूप से अंतर्निहित (integrated) इनपुट घटक होता है, बाह्य पेरिफेरल नहीं।

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792📚Computer Science & ITE-Governance & Digital India

Which of the following demonstrates the application of Information Technology in India to enhance public services?
A) Integration of blockchain technology in banking operations.
B) Implementation of the Aadhaar biometric identification system
C) Use of low-level programming languages in government applications
D) Deployment of Sewa Kendra at every district Headquarter.

Explanation

The Aadhaar biometric identification system (spearheaded by UIDAI) represents the world's largest digital identity program, leveraging cloud databases, multimodal biometrics (fingerprints and iris scans), and digital APIs to deliver transparent Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT) and public services across India.

भारत में सार्वजनिक सेवाओं के वितरण को सशक्त बनाने में सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी का सबसे प्रमुख और युगांतरकारी अनुप्रयोग 'आधार बायोमेट्रिक पहचान प्रणाली' (Aadhaar system) का कार्यान्वयन है, जिससे पारदर्शी डिजिटल पहचान और डीबीटी (DBT) संभव हुआ है।

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793📊EconomicsIndian Economy & Reforms

What has been a key factor in India's economic growth in recent decades?
A) Strict regulations on foreign investments
B) Declining population growth
C) Improved business climate
D) Reduced emphasis on infrastructure projects

Explanation

An improved business climate (driven by economic deregulation, ease of doing business reforms, FDI liberalization, and digital infrastructure) has been a central catalyst for India's high economic growth over recent decades.

हाल के दशकों में भारत के तेज आर्थिक विकास का एक प्रमुख कारक 'बेहतर व्यापारिक माहौल' (Improved business climate - ईज ऑफ डूइंग बिजनेस सुधार, प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश उदारीकरण और डिजिटलीकरण) रहा है।

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794📚Electrical EngineeringHVDC Transmission

Consider the following statements regarding HVDC system:
i. The modern HVDC systems use 12-pulse converters
ii. DC systems never use ground or sea return
iii. Most of the present-day DC schemes are two-terminal links
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) i and iii only
B) i only
C) i, ii and iii
D) ii and iii only

Explanation

Statements (i) and (iii) are correct: Modern HVDC systems universally use 12-pulse thyristor/IGBT converters to eliminate 5th and 7th harmonics (i), and the vast majority of operational HVDC schemes are point-to-point two-terminal links (iii). Statement (ii) is false because monopole HVDC links regularly utilize ground or sea return for continuous or emergency return paths. Hence, i and iii only (Option A) is correct.

HVDC प्रणाली के संबंध में: आधुनिक प्रणालियां 12-पल्स कन्वर्टर्स का उपयोग करती हैं (i) और अधिकांश प्रणालियां दो-टर्मिनल (point-to-point) लिंक होती हैं (iii)। कथन ii गलत है क्योंकि मोनोपोलर डीसी प्रणालियों में ग्राउंड या सी रिटर्न (समुद्री वापसी) का सामान्यतः उपयोग किया जाता है। अतः विकल्प A (i and iii only) सही है।

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795📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems (Feedback Characteristics)

Consider the following statements concerning a feedback control system:
i. Accuracy cannot be obtained by adjusting the loop gain
ii. Feedback decreases overall gain
iii. Introduction of noise due to a sensor increases the overall gain
iv. Introduction of feedback may lead to the possibility of instability in a closed-loop system
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) i and iii
B) ii and iv
C) i and iv
D) ii and iii

Explanation

Fundamental properties of negative feedback: (ii) Negative feedback reduces overall system gain by a factor of (1 + GH); and (iv) High gain or excessive phase lag in feedback can push closed-loop poles into the right half of the s-plane, causing instability. Thus, ii and iv (Option B) is correct.

फीडबैक नियंत्रण प्रणाली में: ऋणात्मक फीडबैक कुल लब्धि (overall gain) को घटाता है (ii) और फीडबैक के कारण बंद लूप प्रणाली में अस्थिरता (instability) की संभावना उत्पन्न हो सकती है (iv)। अतः कथन ii और iv (विकल्प B) सही हैं।

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796📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

Consider the following statements regarding green hydrogen:
i. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion
ii. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation
iii. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii only
C) ii and iii only
D) i, ii and iii

Explanation

Green hydrogen (produced by water electrolysis using renewable power) is extremely versatile: (i) It can be directly combusted in modified internal combustion engines (H2-ICE); (ii) It can be blended with natural gas (up to 15-20% without pipeline retrofitting) for heating and power; and (iii) It is utilized in Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) fuel cells to power electric vehicles emission-free. Hence, all statements i, ii, and iii are correct.

हरित हाइड्रोजन (नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा द्वारा जल इलेक्ट्रोलिसिस से उत्पादित) बहुमुखी ईंधन है: (i) इसका उपयोग सीधे आंतरिक दहन इंजन (H2-ICE) में ईंधन के रूप में किया जा सकता है; (ii) इसे ताप और विद्युत उत्पादन हेतु प्राकृतिक गैस के साथ मिश्रित (ब्लेंड) किया जा सकता है; और (iii) वाहनों को चलाने के लिए हाइड्रोजन ईंधन सेल (Fuel Cell) में इसका उपयोग होता है। अतः कथन i, ii और iii तीनों सही हैं।

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797📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

Consider the following:
i. Battery storage
ii. Biomass generators
iii. Fuel cells
iv. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
Which of the above is/are considered a "Distributed Energy Resource"?
A) i only
B) i, ii, iii and iv
C) ii and iii
D) i, ii and iv

Explanation

Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) are small-scale, decentralized electricity supply or demand management resources that are interconnected to the local distribution system or installed behind the meter. They include battery energy storage systems (BESS), biomass power units, fuel cells, and rooftop solar PV installations. Therefore, all i, ii, iii, and iv are DERs.

वितरित ऊर्जा संसाधन (DERs) छोटे पैमाने की, विकेंद्रीकृत विद्युत उत्पादन या भंडारण इकाइयाँ हैं जो स्थानीय वितरण ग्रिड से जुड़ी होती हैं। इनमें बैटरी ऊर्जा भंडारण (i), बायोमास जनरेटर (ii), ईंधन सेल (iii), तथा रूफटॉप सौर फोटोवोल्टिक (iv) सभी शामिल हैं। अतः i, ii, iii और iv चारों DERs हैं।

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798📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

The term "pumped-storage hydropower" has been recently highlighted in the context of which of the following?
A) Irrigation of terraced agricultural land
B) Lift irrigation for cereal crop cultivation
C) Long-duration storage of electrical energy
D) Rainwater collection and harvesting systems

Explanation

Pumped-storage hydropower (PSH) functions as a giant gravitational 'water battery'. It stores electrical energy during low demand/excess renewable generation periods by pumping water from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir, and generates electricity during peak demand by releasing it back through turbines, providing cost-effective long-duration grid energy storage.

पम्प-स्टोरेज हाइड्रोपावर (PSH) एक विशाल ग्रैविटेशनल 'वॉटर बैटरी' की तरह कार्य करता है। यह ऑफ-पीक या अतिरिक्त सौर/पवन ऊर्जा के समय निचले जलाशय से पानी को ऊपरी जलाशय में पंप करता है और पीक डिमांड के समय टरबाइन के जरिए बिजली उत्पन्न करके ग्रिड को लंबे समय तक ऊर्जा भंडारण (Long-duration energy storage) प्रदान करता है।

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799📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements:
i. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps, except submersible pumps
ii. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps, except those with a piston
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect. Solar photovoltaic power can easily run both surface pumps AND submersible deep-well pumps. Similarly, solar PV systems can drive centrifugal pumps as well as positive displacement piston/reciprocating pumps. Thus, neither i nor ii is correct.

दोनों कथन असत्य हैं। सौर ऊर्जा का उपयोग सतह पंपों (Surface pumps) और सबमर्सिबल दोनों प्रकार के पंपों को चलाने के लिए किया जा सकता है। इसी प्रकार यह सेंट्रीफ्यूगल तथा पिस्टन वाले पॉजिटिव डिस्प्लेसमेंट पंप दोनों को चला सकती है। अतः सही उत्तर 'Neither i nor ii' है।

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800📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
i. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification
ii. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen, argon and carbon dioxide
iii. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) i only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) i, ii and iii

Explanation

Statement i is correct because agricultural residues like coconut shells, groundnut shells, and rice husk are widely used biomass feedstocks. Statement ii is incorrect because producer gas (syngas) primarily contains CO, H2, CH4, and N2/CO2; argon is an inert trace atmospheric gas and not a major component, nor is CO2 combustible. Statement iii is correct because syngas can be burned directly for thermal/heat applications. Hence, i and iii only are correct.

कथन i सही है क्योंकि नारियल के छिलके, मूंगफली के छिलके और धान की भूसी का उपयोग बायोमास गैसीकरण में किया जाता है। कथन ii गलत है क्योंकि उत्पादक गैस (Syngas) में दहनशील घटक CO, H2 और CH4 होते हैं, न कि आर्गन। कथन iii सही है क्योंकि इस गैस का उपयोग प्रत्यक्ष ताप उत्पादन हेतु किया जा सकता है। अतः कथन i और iii केवल सही हैं।

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801📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?
i. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates
ii. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates
iii. They can be installed in wastewater treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) i, ii and iii

Explanation

Microbial Fuel Cells (MFCs) use electrochemically active bacteria (living microorganisms) as biocatalysts to oxidize organic matter (not inorganic materials) and generate electric current (Statement i is correct, ii is incorrect). They are installed in municipal and industrial wastewater treatment plants to simultaneously treat sewage and generate bioelectricity (Statement iii is correct). Thus, statements i and iii only are correct.

माइक्रोबियल फ्यूल सेल (MFC) जीवित सूक्ष्मजीवों को जैव-उत्प्रेरक के रूप में उपयोग करके कार्बनिक अपशिष्ट पदार्थों (Organic substrates) से बिजली उत्पन्न करते हैं (कथन i सही, ii गलत)। इन्हें अपशिष्ट जल उपचार संयंत्रों (Wastewater treatment plants) में जल शोधन और विद्युत उत्पादन दोनों के लिए स्थापित किया जा सकता है (कथन iii सही)। अतः i और iii केवल सही हैं।

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802📚General EnglishGeneral English

Fill in the blank with appropriate word(s):
I _______ working all afternoon and have just finished the assignment.
A) had been
B) have been
C) shall be
D) am

Explanation

The present perfect continuous tense ('have been working') is required because the action began in the afternoon and continued up to the present moment, directly connected with the present perfect clause 'have just finished'.

वाक्य में 'have just finished' वर्तमान से जुड़ा हुआ है, इसलिए दोपहर से लेकर वर्तमान समय तक जारी कार्य को दर्शाने के लिए Present Perfect Continuous Tense ('have been') का प्रयोग सही है।

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803📚General EnglishGeneral English

Which tense is used to express an action that began in the past before some point and continued up to that point?
A) Past indefinite tense
B) Past perfect tense
C) Past perfect continuous tense
D) Past continuous tense

Explanation

The Past Perfect Continuous tense (had been + verb-ing) describes an ongoing action that started in the past and continued up to another specified point in the past.

Past Perfect Continuous Tense का प्रयोग ऐसे कार्य को व्यक्त करने के लिए किया जाता है जो अतीत में एक निश्चित बिंदु से पहले शुरू हुआ था और उस बिंदु तक लगातार जारी रहा था।

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804📚General EnglishGeneral English

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error:
Daniel sat on / his new bike / and went afar / a ride.
A) Daniel sat on
B) his new bike
C) and went afar
D) a ride

Explanation

The segment 'and went afar' is grammatically incorrect in this context. The idiomatic English phrase is 'went for a ride' (or 'went out for a ride'). Using 'went afar a ride' is ungrammatical.

खंड 'and went afar' में व्याकरण की त्रुटि है; सही मुहावरेदार वाक्यांश 'went for a ride' होना चाहिए था।

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805📚Computer Science & Information TechnologyComputer Science & IT

Which of the following is/are an example of an email service provider?
i. Outlook
ii. Gmail
iii. Yandex
A) i and ii
B) iii only
C) i only
D) i, ii and iii

Explanation

Microsoft Outlook (outlook.com), Google Gmail, and Yandex Mail are all prominent global email service providers (ESPs).

माइक्रोसॉफ्ट आउटलुक (Outlook), गूगल जीमेल (Gmail) और रूसी कंपनी यांडेक्स (Yandex Mail) तीनों प्रमुख ईमेल सेवा प्रदाता (Email service providers) हैं।

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806📚General Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Pattern Completion

Complete the pattern, choosing the appropriate figure.
Δ : [Triangle inscribed with median and bisector lines] :: Circle : ?
A) Circle in square with vertical median line
B) Circle in square with crossed vertical and horizontal lines forming 4 sectors
C) Circle in square with diagonal cross lines (X)
D) Circle inscribed in square with both orthogonal cross (+) and diagonal cross (X) lines dividing circle into 8 sectors

Explanation

In the analogy, the single geometric shape (triangle) is modified into its complex partitioned structure with intersecting medians and lines across all vertices and edges. For the circle inscribed in a square, the corresponding symmetrical pattern consists of all full diameter lines (vertical, horizontal, and both diagonal axes) dividing it into 8 sectors, which matches Option D.

सादृश्य पैटर्न में, मूल ज्यामितीय आकृति (त्रिभुज) को उसके सभी शीर्षों और मध्यिकाओं से विभाजित करके एक पूर्ण आंतरिक रेखा-जाल में बदला गया है। इसी प्रकार वृत्त के लिए, वर्ग में परिबद्ध वृत्त को ऊर्ध्वाधर, क्षैतिज और दोनों विकर्ण रेखाओं (+) और (X) द्वारा 8 खंडों में विभाजित करने वाला चित्र D इस पैटर्न को पूर्ण करता है।

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807📚General Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Classification

Choose the figure which is different from the rest?
(A) M (B) E (C) W (D) H
A) Figure A
B) Figure B
C) Figure C
D) Figure D

Explanation

Figure B ('E') is different from the others because 'E' is a vowel whereas M, W, and H are consonants. Additionally, letters M, W, and H possess vertical line symmetry, whereas 'E' has horizontal line symmetry. Furthermore, 'E' consists of 4 line segments (1 vertical, 3 horizontal) while the others differ. Thus, Figure B is the odd one out.

चित्र B (अक्षर 'E') अन्य सभी से भिन्न है क्योंकि 'E' एक स्वर (Vowel) है जबकि M, W और H व्यंजन (Consonants) हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त, M, W और H में ऊर्ध्वाधर समरूपता (Vertical symmetry) है, जबकि 'E' में क्षैतिज समरूपता है। अतः Figure B (विकल्प B) सही उत्तर है।

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808📚General Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Series & Rotation

Select the option figure that will replace the '?' in the figure given below.
[A 2x2 grid where diamond contains an arrow: Top-left: pointing Right (East); Top-right: pointing Up (North); Bottom-right: pointing Left (West); Bottom-left '?']
A) Diamond with right arrow
B) Diamond with left arrow
C) Diamond with downward pointing arrow
D) Diamond with upward pointing arrow

Explanation

Following the sequence counter-clockwise or rotating 90 degrees counter-clockwise in order: East (Right) -> North (Up) -> West (Left) -> South (Down). Therefore, the arrow in the bottom-left position '?' must point downwards (South), which corresponds to Option C.

घूर्णन पैटर्न में तीर वामावर्त (Counter-clockwise 90°) दिशा में घूम रहा है:
पूर्व (दाएं) -> उत्तर (ऊपर) -> पश्चिम (बाएं) -> दक्षिण (नीचे)।
अतः '?' के स्थान पर नीचे की ओर इंगित करता हुआ तीर (Downward pointing arrow) आएगा। सही उत्तर विकल्प C है।

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809📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Foreign Policy & Geography

To which of the following neighbor country, India ceded Kachchatheevu island in 1974?
A) Sri Lanka
B) Bangladesh
C) Myanmar
D) Maldives

Explanation

Under the 1974 Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement signed between Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and Sri Lankan Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike, India recognized Sri Lankan sovereignty over the uninhabited Katchatheevu island in the Palk Strait.

वर्ष 1974 में भारत की तत्कालीन प्रधानमंत्री इंदिरा गांधी और श्रीलंका की प्रधानमंत्री सिरिमावो भंडारनाइके के बीच हुए समुद्री सीमा समझौते के तहत भारत ने पाक जलडमरूमध्य में स्थित कच्चातीवू द्वीप (Katchatheevu Island) को श्रीलंका को सौंप दिया था। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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810📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsCurrent Affairs & Awards

Recently, who has been conferred the prestigious 'Freedom of City of London' award?
A) Madhur Kumar
B) Loknath Mishra
C) Sharukh T Wadia
D) Ajit Mishra

Explanation

Prominent India-born lawyer and UK-India Legal Partnership founder Ajit Mishra was conferred the prestigious 'Freedom of the City of London' award in recognition of his outstanding contribution to legal and business sectors and fostering bilateral ties between India and the UK.

ब्रिटेन-भारत कानूनी साझेदारी (UK-India Legal Partnership) के संस्थापक और प्रसिद्ध भारतीय मूल के वकील अजीत मिश्रा (Ajit Mishra) को कानूनी और व्यापारिक क्षेत्र में उत्कृष्ट योगदान के लिए 'फ्रीडम ऑफ द सिटी ऑफ लंदन' पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया। अतः विकल्प D सही है।

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811📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Affairs & Bilateral Agreements

India launched the 'NET Zero' Innovation Virtual Centre with which country?
A) USA
B) UK
C) Australia
D) South Korea

Explanation

India and the United Kingdom (UK) jointly announced the creation of the India-UK 'NET Zero' Innovation Virtual Centre at the India-UK Science & Innovation Council meeting to facilitate joint research on decarbonisation of manufacturing and green hydrogen.

भारत और यूनाइटेड किंगडम (UK) ने विनिर्माण के डीकार्बोनाइजेशन और हरित हाइड्रोजन जैसे क्षेत्रों में सहयोग को बढ़ावा देने के लिए 'नेट जीरो' इनोवेशन वर्चुअल सेंटर (Net Zero Innovation Virtual Centre) शुरू करने की घोषणा की। अतः सही विकल्प B (UK) है।

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812📚General EnglishSpotting the Error (Pronoun Cases)

In the following sentence identify the part having error.
It was him / who came / running / into the classroom.
A) It was him
B) who came
C) running
D) into the classroom

Explanation

In formal grammar, a predicate pronoun following the linking verb 'to be' (was) must take the nominative (subjective) case, not the objective case. Therefore, 'It was him' is grammatically incorrect and should be corrected to 'It was he who came running into the classroom'.

व्याकरण के नियम के अनुसार संयोजक क्रिया 'to be' (was) के बाद आने वाला सर्वनाम कर्ता कारक (Nominative/Subjective case) में होना चाहिए। अतः 'It was him' त्रुटिपूर्ण है; सही रूप 'It was he' होना चाहिए। सही विकल्प A है।

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813📚General EnglishDirect & Indirect Speech

He said to me, "Can you do these sums for me?"
A) He asked me if I could do those sums for him.
B) He asked me if I can do those sums for him.
C) He asked me if I can do these sums for him.
D) He asked me if I could do these sums for him.

Explanation

In indirect speech conversion of a yes/no question:
- Reporting verb 'said to me' changes to 'asked me'.
- Conjunction 'if' or 'whether' is used.
- Modal verb 'can' shifts into the past tense 'could'.
- Demonstrative adjective 'these' changes to 'those'.
- Pronoun 'me' changes to 'him'.
Hence: 'He asked me if I could do those sums for him.'

प्रत्यक्ष से अप्रत्यक्ष कथन में परिवर्तन:
- 'Said to me' बदलकर 'asked me' हो जाता है।
- योजक के रूप में 'if' का प्रयोग होता है।
- 'Can' बदलकर 'could' हो जाता है।
- 'These' बदलकर 'those' और 'me' बदलकर 'him' हो जाता है।
अतः सही वाक्य: 'He asked me if I could do those sums for him.' (विकल्प A)।

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814📚Quantitative AptitudeStatistics (Distributions & Histograms)

Which of the following type of histogram represents a normal distribution?
A) Bell-shaped
B) Comb
C) Skewed
D) Plateau

Explanation

A normal distribution is unimodal, perfectly symmetric about the mean, and its probability density function / histogram forms a characteristic symmetrical 'Bell-shaped' curve.

प्रसामान्य वितरण (Normal Distribution) का आयतचित्र (Histogram) माध्य के दोनों ओर पूर्णतः सममित होता है और एक विशिष्ट 'घंटी के आकार' (Bell-shaped) का निर्माण करता है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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815📚Basic EnglishSentence Correction

Choose the correct sentence.
A) He don't like apples.
B) He doesn't likes apples.
C) He doesn't like apples.
D) He don't likes apples.

Explanation

With third-person singular subjects ('He'), the auxiliary verb 'does' is used in the negative ('doesn't'), followed by the base form of the main verb without an '-s' suffix ('like'). Therefore, 'He doesn't like apples' is grammatically correct.

तृतीय पुरुष एकवचन कर्ता (He) के साथ नकारात्मक वर्तमान काल में 'does not' (doesn't) का प्रयोग होता है और मुख्य क्रिया अपने मूल रूप (base form: like) में रहती है। अतः 'He doesn't like apples' सही वाक्य है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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816📚Basic EnglishSentence Correction

Select the correct sentence.
A) I have visited Paris last year.
B) I visited Paris last year.
C) I was visiting Paris last year.
D) I visit Paris last year.

Explanation

When a specific past time marker is given (such as 'last year'), the simple past tense ('visited') must be used rather than the present perfect tense ('have visited'). Therefore, 'I visited Paris last year' is correct.

जब वाक्य में निश्चित भूतकालिक समय सूचक शब्द (जैसे 'last year') दिया गया हो, तो Simple Past Tense (V2: visited) का प्रयोग किया जाता है, Present Perfect (have visited) का नहीं। अतः 'I visited Paris last year' सही वाक्य है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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817📚Basic EnglishSentence Correction

Identify the correct sentence.
A) The book whom I bought yesterday is interesting.
B) The book which I bought yesterday is interesting.
C) The book which I bought yesterday are interesting.
D) The book whose I bought yesterday is interesting.

Explanation

'Which' is the correct relative pronoun used for non-human inanimate objects like 'the book' ('whom' is for people). Since 'The book' is singular, it requires the singular verb 'is'. Therefore, 'The book which I bought yesterday is interesting' is correct.

निर्जीव वस्तुओं (जैसे book) के लिए संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम (relative pronoun) 'which' का प्रयोग होता है ('whom' का नहीं)। चूँकि कर्ता 'The book' एकवचन है, इसलिए एकवचन क्रिया 'is' का प्रयोग होगा। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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818📚Basic EnglishSentence Correction

Identify the correct sentence.
A) There is many people in the room.
B) There are many people in the room.
C) There is much people in the room.
D) There are much people in the room.

Explanation

'People' is a plural countable noun, so it takes the quantifier 'many' (not 'much') and the plural verb 'are'. Therefore, 'There are many people in the room' is grammatically correct.

'People' एक बहुवचन गणनीय संज्ञा (plural countable noun) है, जिसके साथ 'many' (much नहीं) तथा बहुवचन क्रिया 'are' का प्रयोग होता है। अतः 'There are many people in the room' सही वाक्य है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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819📚Basic EnglishDeterminers

Choose the correct determiner to complete the sentence.
I have read _____ books on that topic.
A) Much
B) Many
C) Little
D) Every

Explanation

'Books' is a plural countable noun. The determiner 'many' is used with plural countable nouns, whereas 'much' and 'little' are used with uncountable nouns.

'Books' एक बहुवचन गणनीय संज्ञा (plural countable noun) है। इसके साथ 'many' का प्रयोग होता है। 'Much' तथा 'Little' का प्रयोग अगणनीय संज्ञाओं के साथ किया जाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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820📚Basic EnglishArticles

Choose the correct article to complete the sentence.
She adopted _____ dog from the shelter.
A) A
B) An
C) The
D) None of the above

Explanation

The indefinite article 'A' is used before a singular countable noun that begins with a consonant sound ('dog').

व्यंजन ध्वनि (consonant sound 'd') से शुरू होने वाली एकवचन गणनीय संज्ञा 'dog' के पूर्व अनिश्चित उपपद 'A' का प्रयोग होता है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।

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821📚Basic EnglishPrepositions

Choose the correct preposition to complete the sentence.
She has been working here _____ five years.
A) Since
B) From
C) For
D) By

Explanation

In present perfect continuous tense, 'for' is used to denote a duration or period of time ('five years'), whereas 'since' is used for a specific point in time.

Present Perfect Continuous काल में समयावधि (period of time, जैसे 'five years') को दर्शाने के लिए 'For' का प्रयोग किया जाता है, जबकि निश्चित समय बिंदु (point of time) के लिए 'Since' आता है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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822📚Basic EnglishVerbs & Tenses

Choose the correct verb to complete the sentence.
She _____ to the market every Sunday.
A) Go
B) Goes
C) Going
D) Gone

Explanation

'Every Sunday' signifies a habitual action requiring the simple present tense. With a third-person singular subject ('She'), the verb takes '-es' ('goes').

'Every Sunday' एक नियमित आदत को दर्शाता है, जिसके लिए Simple Present Tense का प्रयोग होता है। एकवचन कर्ता 'She' के साथ क्रिया का रूप 'goes' होगा। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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823📚Basic EnglishVerbs & Tenses

Choose the correct verb to complete the sentence.
They _____ their dinner when I arrived.
A) Have
B) Had
C) Having
D) Has

Explanation

Since the time clause 'when I arrived' is in the past tense, the main clause requires past tense 'had' ('They had their dinner...').

चूँकि आश्रित उपवाक्य 'when I arrived' भूतकाल में है, मुख्य उपवाक्य में भी भूतकालिक क्रिया 'Had' का प्रयोग होगा। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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824📚Civil EngineeringMechanics of Materials - Principal Planes & Stress Invariants

Consider the following statements:
I. On a principal plane, only normal stress acts
II. On a principal plane, both normal and shear stresses act
III. On a principal plane, only shear stress acts
IV. Isotropic state of stress is independent of frame of reference
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A) I and IV
B) II only
C) II and IV
D) II and III

Explanation

By definition, a principal plane is a plane on which shear stress is identically zero, meaning only normal stress acts (Statement I is TRUE, Statements II and III are FALSE). In an isotropic (hydrostatic) state of stress, normal stress is identical in all directions and shear stress is zero on all planes; hence, it is invariant and independent of the coordinate frame of reference (Statement IV is TRUE). Thus, statements I and IV are correct.

परिभाषा के अनुसार, मुख्य समतल (Principal Plane) वह समतल होता है जिस पर कर्तन प्रतिबल शून्य होता है, अर्थात केवल सामान्य प्रतिबल (Normal stress) कार्य करता है (कथन I सत्य है, कथन II व III असत्य हैं)। समदैशिक प्रतिबल स्थिति में प्रतिबल सभी दिशाओं में समान होता है और संदर्भ तंत्र (Frame of reference) पर निर्भर नहीं करता (कथन IV सत्य है)। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A (I and IV) है।

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825📚Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering - Network Analysis Methods

While analyzing the circuits using mesh and node analysis, which of Kirchhoff's laws is/are used?
A) KVL in mesh analysis and KCL in node analysis
B) KCL in mesh analysis and KVL in node analysis
C) KVL is used both in mesh analysis and node analysis
D) KCL is used both in mesh analysis and node analysis

Explanation

Mesh analysis is fundamentally based on Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) applied along closed loops to write loop equations in terms of mesh currents. Node analysis (or nodal analysis) is fundamentally based on Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) applied at non-reference nodes to write node equations in terms of node voltages. Hence, KVL is used in mesh analysis and KCL in node analysis.

परिपथ विश्लेषण में मेश (लूप) विश्लेषण किरचॉफ के वोल्टेज नियम (KVL) पर आधारित होता है जिसमें लूप समीकरण लिखे जाते हैं, जबकि नोड विश्लेषण किरचॉफ के धारा नियम (KCL) पर आधारित होता है जिसमें विभिन्न नोड्स पर धाराओं का बीजगणितीय योग शून्य किया जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A है।

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826📚Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering - Independent Sources

Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I: An ideal voltage source has zero internal resistance
Statement II: An ideal voltage source maintains a constant voltage across its terminals regardless of the current drawn from it
Which of the following statement is/are true?
A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation for Statement I
C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

Explanation

An ideal voltage source maintains a terminal voltage

V = V_s - I R_{int}

. For the terminal voltage to remain strictly constant regardless of the magnitude or direction of current

I

drawn from it (

V = V_s

), the internal voltage drop

I R_{int}

must be identically zero for all

I

, which mathematically and physically requires that internal resistance

R_{int} = 0

. Thus, both statements are true, and Statement II correctly explains why an ideal voltage source has zero internal resistance.

एक आदर्श वोल्टेज स्रोत का टर्मिनल वोल्टेज

V = V_s - I R_{int}

होता है। यदि स्रोत से ली जाने वाली किसी भी धारा के लिए टर्मिनल वोल्टेज स्थिर रहना है, तो आंतरिक वोल्टेज ड्रॉप शून्य होना चाहिए, जिसका अर्थ है कि आंतरिक प्रतिरोध शून्य (

R_{int} = 0

) होना चाहिए। अतः दोनों कथन सत्य हैं और कथन II, कथन I की सही व्याख्या है (विकल्प A)।

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827📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems - Linearity & Superposition

A system is linear if and only if it satisfies
I. Additivity
II. Homogeneity
III. Causality
IV. Time-invariance
Which of the options above is/are correct?
A) I and III
B) II and IV
C) I and II
D) III and IV

Explanation

By definition, a system is linear if and only if it satisfies the principle of superposition, which requires both Additivity (the response to

x_1(t) + x_2(t)

y_1(t) + y_2(t)

) and Homogeneity / Scaling (the response to

a \cdot x_1(t)

a \cdot y_1(t)

). Causality and Time-invariance are independent system properties (a linear system may be time-variant or non-causal). Therefore, linearity strictly requires conditions I and II.

परिभाषा के अनुसार, कोई प्रणाली रैखिक (Linear) केवल तभी होती है जब वह अध्यारोपण के सिद्धांत (Principle of Superposition) को संतुष्ट करती है। अध्यारोपण के लिए योज्यता (Additivity - I) और समरूपता/स्केलिंग (Homogeneity - II) दोनों आवश्यक शर्तें हैं। कार्य-कारण संबंध (Causality) और समय-अपरिवर्तनशीलता (Time-invariance) स्वतंत्र गुणधर्म हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C (I और II) है।

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828📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems - Frequency Response & Bandwidth

Consider the following statements about the bandwidth of a closed-loop system:
I. In a system where the low-frequency magnitude is 0 dB on the Bode plot, the bandwidth is measured at the -3dB frequency
II. The bandwidth of the closed-loop control system is a measurement of the range of fidelity of response of the system
III. The speed of response to a step input is proportional to the bandwidth
IV. The system with the largest bandwidth provides a slower step response and a lower fidelity ramp response
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
A) I and IV
B) I, II and IV
C) I, II and III
D) I, III and IV

Explanation

Statements I, II, and III are correct fundamental properties of closed-loop control systems:
I: For normalized low-frequency gain (0 dB), bandwidth is standardly defined as the cutoff frequency where the magnitude drops by 3 dB (-3 dB frequency).
II: Bandwidth defines the frequency band over which input signals are faithfully reproduced without significant attenuation or distortion, serving as a direct measure of fidelity.
III: Rise time and settling time are inversely related to bandwidth (

t_r \approx \frac{0.35}{BW}

), meaning higher bandwidth yields faster response speed.
IV: This is false because larger bandwidth gives faster (not slower) step response and higher (not lower) fidelity ramp tracking. Hence, statements I, II, and III are correct (Option C).

कथन I, II और III सही हैं:
I: बोडे प्लॉट पर यदि निम्न-आवृत्ति परिमाण 0 dB है, तो बैंडविड्थ को -3 dB आवृत्ति पर मापा जाता है।
II: बंद-लूप प्रणाली की बैंडविड्थ संकेत पुनरुत्पादन की विश्वसनीयता (fidelity) की सीमा का माप है।
III: बैंडविड्थ अधिक होने पर स्टेप प्रतिक्रिया की गति तेज होती है (प्रतिक्रिया गति बैंडविड्थ के समानुपाती होती है)।
कथन IV गलत है क्योंकि अधिक बैंडविड्थ तीव्र (धीमी नहीं) प्रतिक्रिया देती है। अतः विकल्प C (I, II और III) सही है।

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829📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Accuracy & Errors

Consider the following statements. In a Measuring instrument,
I. The accuracy of the instrument may be specified in terms of limits of error
II. Point accuracy gives precise information about the overall accuracy of the instrument
III. The best way to conceive the idea of accuracy is to specify it in terms of the true value of the quantity being measured
Which of the options is/are correct?
A) I, II and III
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I and II

Explanation

In electrical measurements and instrumentation:
- Statement I is correct: Accuracy is routinely specified in terms of limits of error (guaranteed accuracy / fiducial error limits, e.g.,

\pm 1\%

of full-scale value).
- Statement II is incorrect: 'Point accuracy' specifies accuracy only at one particular calibrated point on the scale and does NOT provide any information about the general accuracy throughout the rest of the scale.
- Statement III is correct: The most fundamental and ideal conception of accuracy is expressing it as a percentage of the true value of the quantity being measured.
Therefore, statements I and III are correct (Option B).

मापक यंत्रों में:
- कथन I सही है: किसी उपकरण की यथार्थता (Accuracy) को त्रुटि की सीमाओं (limits of error) के रूप में निर्दिष्ट किया जा सकता है।
- कथन II गलत है: बिंदु यथार्थता (Point accuracy) केवल एक विशिष्ट बिंदु पर यथार्थता बताती है और पूरे पैमाने की समग्र यथार्थता की जानकारी नहीं देती।
- कथन III सही है: यथार्थता की सर्वोत्तम अवधारणा मापे जाने वाले मान के वास्तविक मान (true value) के प्रतिशत के रूप में निर्दिष्ट करना है।
अतः केवल कथन I और III सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

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830📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Temperature Transducers

Consider the following statements:
The cause of error in the measurement of temperature using a thermistor is/are
I. Self heating
II. Poor sensitivity
III. Non-linear characteristics
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A) I and II
B) I, II and III
C) II and III
D) I and III

Explanation

A thermistor is an extremely sensitive temperature transducer (having a very high negative temperature coefficient, typically -3% to -5% per °C, far more sensitive than RTDs or thermocouples). Therefore, statement II ('Poor sensitivity') is false. The two major sources of error and measurement difficulties in thermistors are: (I) Self-heating caused by the

I^2 R

dissipation of the measuring excitation current elevating the sensor temperature above ambient, and (III) Highly non-linear exponential resistance-temperature relationship (

R(T) = R_0 e^{\beta(1/T - 1/T_0)}

). Thus, statements I and III are correct (Option D).

थर्मिस्टर एक अत्यंत उच्च संवेदनशीलता (High sensitivity) वाला ट्रांसड्यूसर होता है, अतः कथन II ('कम संवेदनशीलता') गलत है। थर्मिस्टर से तापमान मापते समय त्रुटि के दो मुख्य कारण हैं:
I. स्व-तापन (Self-heating, मापन धारा के कारण

I^2 R

ऊष्मा उत्पन्न होना),
III. अत्यधिक अरैखिक विशेषताएँ (Non-linear exponential characteristics)।
अतः कथन I और III सही हैं (विकल्प D)।

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831📚Electrical EngineeringElectronics - Field Effect Transistors (FET)

Consider the following statements related to the Field effect transistor.
I. Its operation depends upon the flow of the majority carriers only
II. It has a high input resistance
III. It is suitable for high frequency
IV. Its operation depends upon the flow of both majority and minority carriers
The correct statements is/are _______?
A) I and II only
B) I, II and III only
C) II and IV only
D) III and IV only

Explanation

Field Effect Transistors (FETs):
- Statement I is correct: A FET is a unipolar device whose conduction relies exclusively on the flow of majority charge carriers (electrons in n-channel, holes in p-channel).
- Statement II is correct: Due to reverse-biased gate junction (JFET) or insulated oxide gate dielectric (MOSFET), the input resistance is exceedingly high (

10^8\,\Omega

10^{14}\,\Omega

).
- Statement III is correct: Because there is no minority carrier storage time during switching, FETs exhibit fast switching speeds and are well suited for high-frequency applications.
- Statement IV is false (BJTs are bipolar, whereas FETs are strictly unipolar).
Thus, statements I, II, and III are correct (Option B).

फील्ड इफेक्ट ट्रांजिस्टर (FET) के संदर्भ में:
I. यह एक यूनीपोलर उपकरण है जिसका प्रचालन केवल बहुसंख्यक आवेश वाहकों (Majority carriers) के प्रवाह पर निर्भर करता है (सत्य)।
II. इसके गेट के कारण इसका इनपुट प्रतिरोध अत्यधिक उच्च होता है (

10^8 - 10^{14}\,\Omega

) (सत्य)।
III. अल्पसंख्यक वाहक भंडारण समय न होने के कारण यह उच्च आवृत्तियों (High frequency) के लिए उपयुक्त है (सत्य)।
IV. यह असत्य है क्योंकि यह बाइपोलर नहीं है।
अतः कथन I, II और III सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

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832📚Electrical EngineeringElectronics - Multivibrators

Consider the following statements:
I. Astable multivibrator can be used for generating a square wave
II. Bistable multivibrator can be used for storing binary information
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A) I and II
B) II only
C) I only
D) Neither I nor II

Explanation

Both statements are correct:
- Statement I: An astable multivibrator has no stable states and continuously alternates between two quasi-stable states, functioning as a free-running relaxation oscillator that produces a square or rectangular wave output.
- Statement II: A bistable multivibrator (flip-flop / latch) has two stable states and can remain indefinitely in either state until triggered, making it the fundamental memory element for storing one bit of binary data.

दोनों कथन सही हैं:
- कथन I: अस्टेबल मल्टीवाइब्रेटर (Astable multivibrator) की कोई स्थिर अवस्था नहीं होती और यह लगातार दो अर्ध-स्थिर अवस्थाओं के बीच स्विच करता है, जिससे यह वर्गाकार तरंग (Square wave) उत्पन्न करता है।
- कथन II: बाईस्टेबल मल्टीवाइब्रेटर (Bistable multivibrator / Flip-flop) में दो स्थिर अवस्थाएं होती हैं, जिसका उपयोग बाइनरी जानकारी (1 बिट डेटा) को संग्रहीत करने के लिए किया जाता है।
अतः सही विकल्प A (I और II) है।

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833📚Electrical EngineeringDigital Electronics & Microprocessors - Semiconductor Memories

Consider the following statements:
I. SRAM is made up of flip-flops
II. SRAM stores a bit by maintaining a stable on/off state of its transistors
III. DRAM has high speed and low density
IV. DRAM is cheaper than SRAM
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I, II and III
B) I, II and IV
C) II, III and IV
D) I, III and IV

Explanation

- Statement I is correct: Static RAM (SRAM) memory cells are cross-coupled bistable flip-flops (typically 6 transistors per cell).
- Statement II is correct: SRAM retains data by holding a stable on/off transistor state as long as power is applied without needing refresh cycles.
- Statement III is incorrect: Dynamic RAM (DRAM) is slower than SRAM and has HIGH density (one transistor and one capacitor per bit cell), not low density.
- Statement IV is correct: Because each DRAM cell requires only a single transistor and capacitor compared to 6 transistors for SRAM, DRAM is much cheaper per bit.
Thus, statements I, II, and IV are correct (Option B).

मेमोरी के संदर्भ में:
- कथन I सही है: SRAM फ्लिप-फ्लॉप से बना होता है।
- कथन II सही है: SRAM ट्रांजिस्टर की स्थिर ऑन/ऑफ अवस्था को बनाए रखकर बिट संग्रहीत करता है (रिफ्रेश की आवश्यकता नहीं होती)।
- कथन III गलत है: DRAM की गति SRAM से धीमी होती है लेकिन इसकी पैकिंग घनत्व (Density) बहुत उच्च (High density) होती है।
- कथन IV सही है: 1T-1C सेल संरचना के कारण DRAM प्रति बिट SRAM की तुलना में बहुत सस्ता होता है।
अतः कथन I, II और IV सही हैं (विकल्प B)।

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834📚Electrical EngineeringPower Electronics - Phase Controlled Converters

Consider the following statements:
Phase-controlled converters at small values of output voltage have
I. Large harmonics in the utility system
II. Poor power factor
III. High efficiency
IV. Notches in the line voltage waveform
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I and II
B) II, III and IV
C) I, II and IV
D) I and IV

Explanation

When phase-controlled converters operate at large firing angles

\alpha

(corresponding to small output DC voltage

V_{dc} = V_{do}\cos\alpha

):
- Statement I is correct: Current distortion increases, introducing substantial low-order harmonic currents into the utility AC source.
- Statement II is correct: Displacement power factor is

\cos\alpha

, which approaches zero as

\alpha \to 90^\circ

; combined with distortion factor, total power factor is extremely poor.
- Statement III is incorrect: Efficiency is low due to large reactive power and harmonic heating losses.
- Statement IV is correct: Commutation overlap (di/dt during thyristor commutation through source inductance) creates deep voltage notches in the supply line voltage waveform.
Thus, statements I, II, and IV are correct (Option C).

कम आउटपुट वोल्टेज (अर्थात बड़े फायरिंग कोण

\alpha

) पर कार्य करने वाले फेज-नियंत्रित कन्वर्टर्स में:
I. आपूर्ति प्रणाली में बड़े करंट हार्मोनिक्स उत्पन्न होते हैं (सत्य)।
II. विस्थापन कोण

\alpha

बढ़ने के कारण पावर फैक्टर बहुत खराब (Poor power factor) हो जाता है (सत्य)।
III. उच्च दक्षता नहीं होती (असत्य)।
IV. कम्यूटेशन ओवरलैप के कारण लाइन वोल्टेज तरंगरूप में वोल्टेज नॉचेस (Notches) उत्पन्न होते हैं (सत्य)।
अतः कथन I, II और IV सही हैं (विकल्प C)।

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835📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Induction Motor Stability & Crawling

As shown in the figure below, the required load torque line intersects the resultant torque-speed characteristic of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor at points P, Q and R. Which is/are the stable operating point(s)?
[Diagram description: A standard induction motor torque-speed curve with an initial dip showing cogging/crawling harmonics intersecting a horizontal required load torque line at point P (on positive slope region), point Q (on negative slope dip), and point R (on standard negative slope stable operating region near synchronous speed)].
A) P and Q
B) Q and R
C) Only R
D) P and R

Explanation

According to the criterion of steady-state electric drive stability, an operating point is stable if

\frac{d T_L}{d\omega_m} - \frac{d T_e}{d\omega_m} > 0

. For a constant load torque (

T_L = \text{const} \implies \frac{d T_L}{d\omega_m} = 0

), stability requires

\frac{d T_e}{d\omega_m} < 0

(the motor torque must decrease with increasing speed, i.e., a negative slope with respect to speed). At point Q, the motor torque is increasing with speed (positive slope), making Q unstable. At points P and R, the characteristic has a negative slope with respect to speed (motor torque decreases as speed increases), satisfying the stability criterion. Hence, P and R are both stable operating points (point P corresponds to stable crawling, and point R to normal rated running).

इलेक्ट्रिक ड्राइव स्थिरता मानदंड के अनुसार, स्थिर लोड टॉर्क के लिए स्थिर संचालन बिंदु पर गति के सापेक्ष मोटर टॉर्क का ढलान ऋणात्मक होना चाहिए (अर्थात गति बढ़ने पर मोटर टॉर्क घटना चाहिए,

\frac{dT_e}{d\omega} < 0

)। वक्र में बिंदु Q पर ढलान धनात्मक है जो अस्थिर है, जबकि बिंदु P (क्रॉलिंग बिंदु) और बिंदु R (सामान्य परिचालन बिंदु) दोनों पर ढलान ऋणात्मक है। अतः P और R स्थिर परिचालन बिंदु हैं (विकल्प D सही है)।

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836📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Induction Generator Mode

Consider the following statements:
If a 3-phase squirrel cage induction machine operates at a slip of minus 0.05, then the machine will:
I. Draw electrical power from the mains
II. Draw mechanical power through the shaft
III. Deliver electrical power to the mains
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I, II and III
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) I and III

Explanation

When an induction machine is driven by a prime mover above synchronous speed (

N > N_s

), its slip becomes negative (

s = -0.05

). In this generating mode (Induction Generator):
- Mechanical power is supplied into the rotor through the shaft by the prime mover (Statement II is correct).
- The developed torque reverses, and the machine delivers active electrical power back into the AC supply mains (Statement III is correct).
(Note: While it absorbs reactive power for excitation, active power is delivered to the mains, making statements II and III the standard description of generator operation). Thus, II and III are correct (Option C).

जब एक प्रेरण मशीन को तुल्यकालिक गति से अधिक गति पर चलाया जाता है, तो इसकी स्लिप ऋणात्मक (

s = -0.05

) हो जाती है और यह प्रेरण जनरेटर (Induction generator) के रूप में कार्य करती है:
II. यह शाफ्ट के माध्यम से यांत्रिक शक्ति ग्रहण करती है (Draw mechanical power through shaft)।
III. यह मेन्स को सक्रिय विद्युत शक्ति प्रदान करती है (Deliver electrical power to mains)।
अतः कथन II और III सही हैं (विकल्प C)।

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837📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Hydroelectric & Pumped Storage Power Plants

Consider the following statements regarding the pumped storage plants:
I. A pumped storage plant is a peak load plant
II. The starting time of a pumped storage plant is very long
III. Reversible turbines and pumps are very suitable for pumped storage plants
IV. Pumped storage plants can be used for load frequency control
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I and III
B) I and II
C) III and IV
D) I, III and IV

Explanation

Analyzing pumped storage hydro plants:
- Statement I is correct: Pumped storage plants operate as peak-load generating stations, discharging water during high-tariff peak demand hours and pumping it back during off-peak hours.
- Statement II is incorrect: Hydroelectric and pumped storage units have very quick start-up times (typically 1 to 3 minutes), not long start-up times.
- Statement III is correct: Reversible Francis pump-turbines coupled to motor-generators are standard, efficient, and cost-effective.
- Statement IV is correct: Due to rapid governor responsiveness and dispatchability, pumped storage plants provide excellent spinning reserve and automatic load-frequency control (LFC).
Thus, statements I, III, and IV are correct (Option D).

पम्प्ड स्टोरेज संयंत्रों के संदर्भ में:
I. यह पीक-लोड संयंत्र (Peak load plant) के रूप में कार्य करते हैं (सत्य)।
II. इनका स्टार्ट-अप समय बहुत कम (1 से 3 मिनट) होता है, लंबा नहीं (असत्य)।
III. प्रतिवर्ती टरबाइन और पंप (Reversible pump-turbines) इसके लिए अत्यंत उपयुक्त होते हैं (सत्य)।
IV. तीव्र प्रतिक्रिया समय के कारण इनका उपयोग लोड फ्रीक्वेंसी कंट्रोल (LFC) और ग्रिड स्थिरता के लिए किया जा सकता है (सत्य)।
अतः कथन I, III और IV सही हैं (विकल्प D)।

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838📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Nuclear Power Plant Instrumentation & Safety

A microprocessor-based safety control system installed in a nuclear power plant must be stress tested under which of the following conditions?
I. Ageing due to radiation
II. Thermal stresses
III. Seismic vibration
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I and III only
D) All of the above

Explanation

Safety-grade Instrumentation and Control (I&C) systems in nuclear facilities must undergo comprehensive Environmental Qualification (EQ) testing (per IEEE 323 and IEEE 344 standards). This qualification mandates rigorous testing for: (I) Radiation-induced ageing and total ionizing dose effects, (II) Harsh environmental thermal stresses and temperature/humidity cycling, and (III) Dynamic seismic shock and vibration shaking table tests to ensure fail-safe shutdown during earthquakes. Therefore, 'All of the above' is correct.

परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्रों में स्थापित माइक्रोप्रोसेसर-आधारित सुरक्षा नियंत्रण प्रणालियों को परमाणु सुरक्षा मानकों (IEEE 323/344) के तहत कठोर पर्यावरणीय योग्यता परीक्षणों से गुजरना पड़ता है। इनमें विकिरण के कारण होने वाली उम्र/क्षति (I), तापीय तनाव (II), तथा भूकंपीय कंपन और झटके (III) - ये सभी स्थितियां शामिल होती हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D (All of the above) है।

2025JKSSB

839📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Transmission Line Performance & Tuned Lines

When the sending end voltage and current are numerically equal to the receiving end voltage and current, respectively, then the line is called _______?
A) A transposed line
B) A tuned line
C) A long line
D) A short line

Explanation

When the sending end voltage and current are numerically equal to the receiving end voltage and current, respectively, then the line is called _______? A transmission line whose distributed inductance and capacitance parameters (or auxiliary terminal reactive networks) are chosen such that

|V_s| = |V_r|

and

|I_s| = |I_r|

regardless of the line length or load is termed a 'Tuned power line'. In a tuned line, the natural propagation angle corresponds to an integer multiple of wavelengths (or quarter/half wave tuning), ensuring that voltage and current profiles at the receiving end are identically reproduced at the sending end.

जब ट्रांसमिशन लाइन के भेजने वाले सिरे (Sending end) का वोल्टेज और करंट संख्यात्मक रूप से प्राप्तकर्ता सिरे (Receiving end) के वोल्टेज और करंट के बराबर होते हैं (

|V_s| = |V_r|

तथा

|I_s| = |I_r|

), तो उस ट्रांसमिशन लाइन को 'ट्यून्ड लाइन' (A tuned line) कहा जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B है।

2025JKSSB

840📚Physical & Trace EvidenceThermal Glass Fractures

Fractures due to heat are:

Explanation

In forensic glass analysis, thermal fractures caused by fire or intense heat characteristically lack radial or concentric crack patterns and exhibit smooth, irregular, and wavy (curved) fracture lines without impact stress marks.

फोरेंसिक ग्लास विश्लेषण में, गर्मी के कारण कांच के फ्रैक्चर में रेडियल या संकेंद्री दरारें नहीं होती हैं, बल्कि वे अनियमित और लहरदार (Irregular and wavy) रेखाएं प्रदर्शित करते हैं।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

841📚Forensic Chemistry & InstrumentationMass Spectrum Interpretation

The base peak in mass spectrum is:

Explanation

In mass spectrometry, the base peak is the most intense peak in the mass spectrum, representing the ion formed in greatest abundance, and is assigned an arbitrary relative abundance of 100%.

मास स्पेक्ट्रम में बेस पीक सबसे अधिक तीव्रता वाली पीक होती है, जो अधिकतम प्रचुरता (maximum abundance) वाले आयन का प्रतिनिधित्व करती है और इसे 100% सापेक्ष प्रचुरता दी जाती है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

842📚Physical Measurements & Quality AssuranceAccuracy and Precision

Closeness of the measured value to the true value of the quantity is called:

Explanation

Accuracy is defined as the degree of closeness of a measured experimental value to the accepted true or reference value. Precision refers to the repeatability or agreement among multiple independent measurements.

किसी मापे गए मान की वास्तविक मान (true value) से निकटता को यथार्थता (Accuracy) कहा जाता है। एक से अधिक मापों के आपस में मिलान को परिशुद्धता (Precision) कहते हैं।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

843📚Forensic Optics & SpectroscopyElectromagnetic Radiation Biological Hazards

Which rays of electromagnetic spectrum may damage the retina of our eyes?

Explanation

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation (particularly UV-A and intense UV blue wavelengths) can penetrate ocular media to induce photochemical damage and macular photoretinitis in the retina.

पराबैंगनी (UV) किरणें आंखों के रेटिना में फोटोकेमिकल क्षति और रेटिनाइटिस पैदा कर सकती हैं, जिससे दृष्टि को गंभीर नुकसान पहुँचता है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

844📚Forensic Optics & SpectroscopyMolecular Vibrations & IR Activity

Consider the following statements regarding carbon dioxide molecule:\nI. Molecule of CO2 can vibrate in three independent modes of vibration.\nII. Those modes are symmetric stretch, bending, and asymmetric stretch modes.\nIII. These modes are not characterized by the definite frequency of vibration.\nWhich of the following statements is/are correct?

Explanation

CO2 is a linear molecule possessing three fundamental vibrational frequency modes: symmetric stretching, doubly degenerate bending, and asymmetric stretching (Statements I and II are correct). Statement III is false because each normal vibrational mode possesses an exact, well-defined characteristic quantum frequency.

CO₂ एक रैखिक अणु है जिसके तीन मूलभूत कंपन मोड होते हैं: सममित खिंचाव, बेंडिंग और असममित खिंचाव (I और II सत्य हैं)। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि प्रत्येक सामान्य कंपन मोड की एक निश्चित और विशिष्ट आवृत्ति होती है। अतः Both I and II सही हैं।

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845📚Forensic Biology, Serology & DNAElectrophoretic Principles & Forensic Serology

Consider the following statements:\nStatement - I: In electrophoresis, rate of migration is directly proportional to the current.\nStatement - II: Electrophoresis is used to identify the enzymes in blood samples.\nOptions:

Explanation

Statement I is correct because electrophoretic migration velocity is directly proportional to the electric field strength (and current density). Statement II is correct because gel electrophoresis (isoelectric focusing) has been historically used in forensic serology to type polymorphic isoenzymes (PGM, EAP, ESD) in bloodstains.

विद्युत क्षेत्र/धारा बढ़ने से आयनों का प्रवास वेग सीधे बढ़ता है (कथन I सत्य है)। फोरेंसिक सीरोलॉजी में रक्त के बहुरूपी एंजाइमों की पहचान के लिए जेल इलेक्ट्रोफोरेसिस का व्यापक उपयोग किया जाता है (कथन II सत्य है)। अतः दोनों कथन सत्य हैं।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

846📚Forensic PharmacologyAmphetamine Abuse Patterns - Speed Binge

A condition in which an individual inject amphetamine at every 2-3 hours is known as

Explanation

A 'speed binge' (or 'run') is a pattern of severe amphetamine abuse where the user injects or consumes the drug every 2 to 3 hours over several days continuously to maintain a prolonged state of intense euphoria, foregoing food and sleep.

'स्पीड बिंज' (Speed binge या run) एम्फेटामाइन के अत्यधिक दुरुपयोग का वह पैटर्न है जिसमें उपयोगकर्ता तीव्र उत्साह और उत्तेजना बनाए रखने के लिए बिना सोए या खाए कई दिनों तक लगातार हर 2 से 3 घंटे में इंजेक्शन लेता है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

847📚Forensic PharmacologyDrug Dependency Patterns

Which of the following is causing high psychological dependency but no physical dependency?

Explanation

Cocaine is characterized by intense, overwhelming psychological dependence (intense craving) with minimal to no classic physical dependence (unlike opiates, barbiturates, or alcohol, which cause severe physical withdrawal syndromes with physiological autonomic disturbances).

कोकीन का उपयोग अत्यधिक तीव्र मनोवैज्ञानिक निर्भरता और तलब (craving) पैदा करता है, लेकिन हेरोइन या अल्कोहल की तरह इसमें क्लासिक शारीरिक निर्भरता और प्राणघातक शारीरिक वापसी लक्षण नहीं होते।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

848📚Fire Investigation & PyrometryFlame Color and Temperature Correlation

Match the followings:
Flame Colour
I. Dark Red
II. White
III. Bright Yellow
IV. Orange
Temperature
a. 1400°C or above
b. 1200°C - 1400°C
c. 600°C - 800°C
d. 1000°C - 1200°C
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Explanation

In fire investigation color-temperature pyrometry: Dark Red corresponds to ~600°C - 800°C (c); Orange corresponds to ~1000°C - 1200°C (d); Bright Yellow corresponds to ~1200°C - 1400°C (b); White indicates extremely intense combustion at 1400°C or above (a). Thus, I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d.

आग की जांच में ज्वाला के रंग और तापमान का संबंध: गहरा लाल 600°C - 800°C (c), सफेद 1400°C या अधिक (a), चमकदार पीला 1200°C - 1400°C (b), और नारंगी 1000°C - 1200°C (d) होता है। अतः सही मिलान I - c, II - a, III - b, IV - d है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

849📚Forensic ToxicologyMetallic Poisons - Arsenic Symptoms

Which of the following poison has diarrhoea like symptoms?

Explanation

Acute Arsenic poisoning presents with severe gastrointestinal irritation characterized by intense burning epigastric pain, violent vomiting, and profuse 'rice-water' diarrhoea, symptomatically mimicking acute cholera.

तीव्र आर्सेनिक (Arsenic / संख्या) विषाक्तता में जठरांत्र शोथ होता है जिसके कारण अत्यधिक उल्टी और चावल के पानी जैसे पतले दस्त (rice-water diarrhoea) होते हैं, जो हैजा (cholera) के लक्षणों से बिल्कुल मिलते-जुलते हैं।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

850📚Inorganic & Physical ChemistrySuperacids and Conjugate Base Stability

What is the primary reason behind the strength of superacids?

Explanation

Superacids (such as fluoroantimonic acid, HF-SbF5) are extraordinarily strong because their conjugate bases (e.g. SbF6-) are extremely stable, weakly coordinating anions where negative charge is intensely delocalized across multiple highly electronegative fluorine atoms, driving quantitative proton release.

सुपरएसिड की अत्यधिक प्रबलता उनके संयुग्मी क्षार (conjugate base, जैसे SbF6-) की असाधारण स्थिरता के कारण होती है। ऋणावेश अत्यधिक विद्युत ऋणात्मक फ्लोरीन परमाणुओं पर विस्थापित हो जाता है, जिससे प्रोटॉन की मुक्ति अत्यंत सुगम हो जाती है।

2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)

851📚General EnglishSentence Improvement - Past Perfect Tense

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'NO IMPROVEMENT.'
On hearing the news over the radio that India has won the football match, I jumped with joy.

Explanation

Since the main clause is in the past tense ('I jumped with joy'), the preceding completed action in the subordinate clause requires the Past Perfect tense: 'had won the football match'.

क्योंकि मुख्य वाक्य भूतकाल ('I jumped with joy') में है, रेडियो पर समाचार सुनने से पहले घटित हुई क्रिया के लिए पास्ट परफेक्ट टेंस ('had won the football match') का प्रयोग सही है।

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

852📚General EnglishModal Auxiliaries - Logical Deduction

Fill in the blank with the most suitable modal:
This is impossible, it _____ be a mistake.

Explanation

'Must' is used for strong logical deduction or certainty based on evidence. Since the speaker states 'This is impossible', they conclude with conviction that 'it must be a mistake'.

जब किसी निष्कर्ष या निश्चितता को दृढ़ता से व्यक्त किया जाता है, तो तार्किक कटौती के लिए 'must' का प्रयोग होता है: 'it must be a mistake' (यह निश्चित रूप से एक गलती होनी चाहिए)।

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

853📚General EnglishDirect and Indirect Speech - Interrogative Sentences

Select the most appropriate INDIRECT form of the given sentence
Newton said to Thomas, "how is your research going?"

Explanation

In indirect interrogative sentences: 'said to' becomes 'asked', the wh-word 'how' is retained, the pronoun 'your' changes to 'his', and the question order changes to declarative word order in past continuous tense: 'how his research was going.'

प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यों के इनडायरेक्ट नरेशन में 'said to' बदलकर 'asked' हो जाता है, 'your' बदलकर 'his' हो जाता है और वाक्य असर्टिव क्रम (subject + verb) में पास्ट कंटीन्यूअस में बदल जाता है: 'how his research was going.'

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854📚General EnglishPronouns - Subject Pronouns

Which pronoun correctly refers to "local stakeholders" in blank (2)?

Explanation

The plural third-person personal pronoun 'they' correctly serves as the subject pronoun referring back to the plural noun phrase 'local stakeholders' in the clause '...as they have firsthand insights...'.

बहुवचन संज्ञा 'local stakeholders' के संदर्भ में कर्ता कारक के रूप में उपयुक्त सर्वनाम 'they' है ('...as they have firsthand insights...').

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

855📚General EnglishClauses - Subordinate (Dependent) Clauses

Read the sentences and underline the subordinate clause.
Although I was not up for a movie, I watched 'Avatar in hall No.5' with my friend.

Explanation

A subordinate clause begins with a subordinating conjunction and cannot stand alone as a complete thought. Here, 'Although I was not up for a movie' is the subordinate adverbial clause introduced by 'Although'.

आश्रित उपवाक्य (Subordinate clause) वह होता है जो किसी सबऑर्डिनेटिंग कंजंक्शन से शुरू होता है और पूर्ण अर्थ के लिए मुख्य वाक्य पर निर्भर होता है। यहाँ 'Although I was not up for a movie' सही आश्रित उपवाक्य है।

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

856📚General EnglishPunctuation Rules - Parenthetical Adverbs

Select the sentence that correctly punctuates the given sentence.
I therefore request you to grant me leave.

Explanation

When a conjunctive adverb like 'therefore' is used parenthetically within a clause, it must be enclosed by commas on both sides: 'I, therefore, request you to grant me leave.'

जब वाक्य के बीच में 'therefore' का प्रयोग एक पूरक अव्यय (parenthetical adverb) के रूप में होता है, तो इसके दोनों ओर कॉमा (comma) लगाया जाता है: 'I, therefore, request you to grant me leave.'

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

857📚General EnglishVoice - Present Perfect Active

Change the following sentence from Passive voice to Active voice.
The room keys have been forgotten by Shilpa.

Explanation

The sentence is in the Present Perfect passive tense ('have been forgotten'). Converting to Active voice with the singular subject 'Shilpa' requires 'has forgotten': 'Shilpa has forgotten the room keys.'

पैसिव वाक्य प्रेजेंट परफेक्ट टेंस ('have been forgotten') में है। एक्टिव वॉइस में एकवचन कर्ता 'Shilpa' के साथ 'has forgotten' का प्रयोग होगा: 'Shilpa has forgotten the room keys.'

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

858💡General KnowledgeScientific Observatories in India

Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KSO) is located in which state?

Explanation

Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KSO) is located in the Palani Hills in Kodaikanal, Dindigul district, Tamil Nadu. It is operated by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) and has been recording solar observations continuously since 1901.

कोडाइकनाल सौर वेधशाला (KSO) तमिलनाडु के डिंडीगुल जिले में पलानी पहाड़ियों पर स्थित है। इसका संचालन भारतीय खगोल भौतिकी संस्थान (IIA) द्वारा किया जाता है।

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859📚Art and Culture of Jammu & KashmirKashmiri Hand-knotted Carpets & Persian Rug Styles

Kashmir has been creating Kashan and Kirman, Tabriz and Isfahan with superb artistry. These are subtypes of?

Explanation

Kashan, Kirman, Tabriz, and Isfahan are celebrated classical Persian carpet design patterns and styles that Kashmiri master weavers craft with intricate hand-knotted silk and wool artistry (Persian Rugs / Carpets).

काशान, किरमान, तबरीज़ और इस्फ़हान पारंपरिक फ़ारसी कालीनों (Persian Rugs/Carpets) के विश्व प्रसिद्ध डिज़ाइन और शैलियाँ हैं, जिन्हें कश्मीरी बुनकर हाथ से बुने हुए रेशम और ऊनी कालीनों में बेहतरीन कलात्मकता के साथ तैयार करते हैं।

2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department

860📚Basic MathematicsAverages

The average score of 20 students in a class is 75. It is later found that 5 students had been absent. In a re-examination, 4 of them scored 85 each. After including the marks of all 5 students, the overall average becomes 77. Determine the marks scored by the fifth student.

Explanation

Initial 20 students scored total 20 × 75 = 1500. When the 5 students take the re-exam, total students = 25 and overall average becomes 77. Total marks of 25 students = 25 × 77 = 1925. Total marks of the 5 students = 1925 - 1500 = 425. Marks of 4 students = 4 × 85 = 340. Marks of the fifth student = 425 - 340 = 85.

प्रारंभिक 20 छात्रों के कुल अंक = 20 × 75 = 1500। 5 अनुपस्थित छात्रों के शामिल होने पर कुल छात्र = 25 और नया औसत = 77। 25 छात्रों के कुल अंक = 25 × 77 = 1925। 5 छात्रों के कुल अंक = 1925 - 1500 = 425। 4 छात्रों के कुल अंक = 4 × 85 = 340। अतः पांचवें छात्र के अंक = 425 - 340 = 85।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

861📚Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Series

Look at the sequence of figures (Fig 1 to Fig 4) showing a stick figure, an arrow, and a dot inside a box. Which figure replaces the question mark (Fig 5 = ?)?
A) Fig with horizontal stick figure facing East, arrow at top-left pointing down, dot at bottom-right
B) Fig with horizontal stick figure, arrow at bottom-left, dot at top-right
C) Fig with upright stick figure, arrow at top-left, dot at bottom-right
D) Fig with upright stick figure, arrow at bottom-left, dot at top-right

Explanation

1. The stick figure rotates 90° counter-clockwise at each step: Fig 1 upright (head North) -> Fig 3 horizontal (head West) -> Fig 4 inverted (head South) -> Fig 5 horizontal with head pointing East.
2. The dot moves counter-clockwise along the four corners: Bottom-Right -> Top-Right -> Top-Left -> Bottom-Left -> back to Bottom-Right in Fig 5.
3. The arrow cycles along the four positions and directions: Top-Left (down) -> Bottom-Left (right) -> Bottom-Right (up) -> Top-Right (left) -> back to Top-Left pointing down in Fig 5.
All three features uniquely match Option A.

1. स्टिक फिगर प्रत्येक चरण में 90° वामावर्त (counter-clockwise) घूमता है: चित्र 1 में सीधा (सिर उत्तर), चित्र 3 में सिर पश्चिम, चित्र 4 में सिर दक्षिण -> चित्र 5 में सिर पूर्व की ओर क्षैतिज होगा।
2. काला बिंदु चारों कोनों में वामावर्त घूमता है: नीचे-दाएं -> ऊपर-दाएं -> ऊपर-बाएं -> नीचे-बाएं -> चित्र 5 में पुनः नीचे-दाएं कोने में होगा।
3. तीर भी चक्र पूरा कर चित्र 5 में ऊपर-बाएं कोने में नीचे की ओर इंगित करेगा।
ये सभी लक्षण विकल्प A से पूर्णतः मेल खाते हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

862📚Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Series (Polygon Vertices)

A regular hexagon has vertices labeled V0 (top), V1 (top-right), V2 (bottom-right), V3 (bottom), V4 (bottom-left), and V5 (top-left). The position of the dot moves across successive figures: Fig 1 at V0, Fig 2 at V2, Fig 3 at V5, Fig 4 at V3, Fig 5 at V4. The position of the dot in the question mark (?) figure is:
A) V0
B) V2
C) V3
D) V4

Explanation

The path followed by the dot across the vertices of the hexagon is:
V0 (top) -> V2 (bottom-right) -> V5 (top-left) -> V3 (bottom) -> V4 (bottom-left).
This sequence completes a continuous geometric traversal tracing across opposite and adjacent vertices, returning to the apex vertex V0 to complete the cycle. Hence, the dot returns to V0.

षट्भुज के शीर्षों पर बिंदु का पथ निम्नलिखित है:
V0 (शीर्ष) -> V2 (नीचे-दाएं) -> V5 (ऊपर-बाएं) -> V3 (तल) -> V4 (नीचे-बाएं)।
यह अनुक्रम षट्भुज के चारों ओर एक बंद चक्राकार पथ बनाते हुए पुनः अपने प्रारंभिक शीर्ष V0 पर लौटता है। अतः अगली स्थिति V0 होगी।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

863📚Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Reasoning (XOR / Superposition)

In a pattern problem, row 1 illustrates an operation: Figure A ⊕ Figure B = Figure C, where common overlapping elements disappear (XOR logic). Row 2 gives Figure D and Figure E. Find the missing figure for Figure D ⊕ Figure E:
A) Figure with central tilted square, dot at top-right, and 3 dots at bottom
B) Figure retaining triangle with dots
C) Figure with only central tilted square and dot at top-right
D) Figure retaining triangle with 4 dots

Explanation

In Row 1, the operation ⊕ represents XOR (Exclusive OR / Superposition): elements common to both figures are removed, while non-overlapping elements are retained. The circle in both A and B vanishes in C.
In Row 2, the leftward pointing triangle is present in both Figure D and Figure E, so it cancels out. The internal tilted square and the top-right corner dot are unique to Figure E and remain. The overlapping dots along the common triangle edge cancel out, leaving exactly Option C.

पंक्ति 1 में संक्रिया ⊕ XOR (Exclusive OR) को दर्शाती है: दोनों आकृतियों में उभयनिष्ठ (समान) तत्व समाप्त हो जाते हैं, जबकि अनूठे तत्व बने रहते हैं। चित्र A और B दोनों में उपस्थित वृत्त C में लुप्त हो जाता है।
पंक्ति 2 में, बाईं ओर इंगित त्रिभुज चित्र D और E दोनों में उपस्थित है, अतः यह समाप्त हो जाता है। भीतर का झुका हुआ वर्ग और ऊपर-दाएं कोने का बिंदु केवल चित्र E में हैं, इसलिए वे बने रहेंगे। उभयनिष्ठ बिंदु भी निरस्त हो जाते हैं, जिससे केवल विकल्प C शेष रहता है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

864📚General EnglishArticles

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles:
_ rich should help _ poor.
A) No article, no article
B) The, a
C) No article, the
D) The, the

Explanation

When an adjective is used to represent an entire class or group of people as a plural collective noun, it takes the definite article 'the' ('The rich' = wealthy people in general; 'the poor' = impoverished people in general).
Hence: 'The rich should help the poor.'

जब किसी विशेषण (adjective) का प्रयोग पूरे वर्ग या समुदाय का प्रतिनिधित्व करने के लिए बहुवचन संज्ञा के रूप में किया जाता है, तो उससे पहले definite article 'the' का प्रयोग होता है ('The rich' = सभी अमीर लोग; 'the poor' = सभी गरीब लोग)।
अतः सही वाक्य है: 'The rich should help the poor.'

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

865📚General EnglishArticles

Identify the correct use of articles with plural nouns:
I. Lions are fierce animals.
II. Lions of Gir forest are famous worldwide.
III. The lions we saw at the zoo were sleeping.
Choose the correct option:
A) only II
B) Only I and III
C) Only II and III
D) All are correct

Explanation

- Sentence I is correct: plural nouns in general statements take no article ('Lions are fierce animals').
- Sentence II is incorrect: when a plural noun is modified and made specific by a prepositional phrase ('of Gir forest'), the definite article 'the' is mandatory ('The lions of Gir forest are famous worldwide').
- Sentence III is correct: 'The lions we saw at the zoo' refers to specific lions identified by a relative clause, correctly taking 'The'.
Therefore, only I and III are correct.

- वाक्य I सही है: सामान्य कथन में बहुवचन संज्ञा बिना किसी आर्टिकल के आती है ('Lions are fierce animals')।
- वाक्य II गलत है: 'of Gir forest' से विशिष्ट बनाए जाने के कारण यहाँ definite article 'The' आवश्यक है ('The lions of Gir forest...')।
- वाक्य III सही है: चिड़ियाघर में देखे गए विशिष्ट शेरों का उल्लेख होने के कारण 'The lions' का प्रयोग पूर्णतः सही है।
अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

866📚General EnglishPrepositions & Phrasal Verbs

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions:
While the professor was _ the middle _ a lecture, a student broke _ with a question.
A) at, for, out
B) in, of, in
C) within, of, through
D) during, of, up

Explanation

- 'in the middle of' is the standard idiom meaning during the midst of.
- 'break in' is a phrasal verb meaning to interrupt a conversation or lecture.
Hence: 'in, of, in'.

- 'in the middle of' एक मुहावरेदार प्रयोग है जिसका अर्थ होता है 'के बीच में'।
- 'break in' एक phrasal verb है जिसका अर्थ होता है 'बीच में टोकना' या बाधा डालना।
अतः सही विकल्प 'in, of, in' है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

867📚General EnglishVerbs & Modals

In the sentence, 'Radha may visit the museum', the word 'may' is a:
A) Main verb
B) Transitive verb
C) Gerund
D) Modal verb

Explanation

In English grammar, 'may' is a modal auxiliary verb used to express possibility, permission, or wishing. Here, it indicates possibility and modifies the main verb 'visit'.

'may' एक मोडल सहायक क्रिया (Modal auxiliary verb) है जो संभावना या अनुमति व्यक्त करने के लिए मुख्य क्रिया (visit) के साथ प्रयुक्त होती है।

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868📚General EnglishVerbs (Auxiliary vs Main)

Identify the sentence where the verb 'have' acts as a main verb rather than an auxiliary:
A) I have finished my lunch.
B) They have been working all day.
C) We have a meeting at ten.
D) Have they seen the movie yet?

Explanation

In options A, B, and D, 'have' is an auxiliary verb helping past participles ('finished', 'been', 'seen') to form perfect tenses.
In option C ('We have a meeting at ten'), 'have' is the sole verb indicating possession/occurrence, acting as the main verb.

विकल्प A, B और D में 'have' एक सहायक क्रिया (auxiliary verb) है जो मुख्य क्रियाओं (finished, been, seen) के साथ पूर्ण काल (perfect tense) बनाती है।
विकल्प C ('We have a meeting at ten') में 'have' एकमात्र क्रिया है और मुख्य क्रिया (main verb) के रूप में कार्य कर रही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

869📚General EnglishModals

Select the most appropriate option:
'When Mrs. X was younger, she _ run five miles without stopping.'
A) can
B) might
C) could
D) should

Explanation

The clause 'When Mrs. X was younger' sets the context in the past. To express general ability in the past, 'could' (past form of can) is used. Hence, 'could' is correct.

'When Mrs. X was younger' भूतकाल की स्थिति को दर्शाता है। भूतकाल की सामान्य क्षमता (past ability) को व्यक्त करने के लिए 'could' (can का भूतकालिक रूप) का प्रयोग किया जाता है। अतः 'could' सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

870📚General EnglishSentence Transformation

Convert the following Simple sentence into a Complex sentence without changing the meaning:
"Working hard, he passed the exam."
A) He worked hard and passed the exam.
B) Because he worked hard, he passed the exam.
C) He worked hard; therefore, he passed the exam.
D) He passed the exam with hard work.

Explanation

A complex sentence consists of one independent clause and at least one dependent (subordinate) clause connected by a subordinating conjunction. 'Because he worked hard' is a subordinate adverbial clause of reason, and 'he passed the exam' is the main independent clause.
(A is compound with coordinating conjunction 'and'; C is compound; D is simple).

मिश्रित वाक्य (Complex sentence) में एक मुख्य उपवाक्य (independent clause) और कम से कम एक आश्रित उपवाक्य (subordinate clause) होता है जो सबऑर्डिनेटिंग कंजंक्शन से जुड़ा होता है। 'Because he worked hard' एक आश्रित उपवाक्य है और 'he passed the exam' मुख्य उपवाक्य है। (A और C संयुक्त वाक्य हैं; D सरल वाक्य है)।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

871📚General EnglishClauses

In the sentence "The book that I bought yesterday is missing," the underlined part "that I bought yesterday" is a/an:
A) Noun Clause
B) Adjective Clause
C) Adverbial Clause
D) Main Clause

Explanation

The clause 'that I bought yesterday' describes and qualifies the noun 'The book'. A relative/subordinate clause modifying a noun functions as an Adjective Clause (Relative Clause).

'that I bought yesterday' उपवाक्य संज्ञा 'The book' की विशेषता बताता है। संज्ञा की विशेषता बताने वाला उपवाक्य विशेषण उपवाक्य (Adjective / Relative Clause) कहलाता है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

872📚General EnglishDeterminers & Articles

Fill in the blanks with the most suitable determiners/articles:
I have _ friends who live in _ Netherlands, but I haven't visited them in years.
A) a few / no article
B) few / the
C) a few / the
D) little / the

Explanation

1. 'Friends' is a plural countable noun used in a positive sense ('some friends exist'), requiring 'a few'.
2. Countries with plural geographical names or unions take the definite article 'the' ('the Netherlands', 'the United States', 'the Philippines').
Hence, 'a few / the'.

1. गणनीय बहुवचन संज्ञा 'friends' के साथ सकारात्मक संदर्भ में 'a few' (कुछ) का प्रयोग होता है।
2. बहुवचन नाम वाले देशों से पूर्व definite article 'the' का प्रयोग अनिवार्य होता है ('the Netherlands')।
अतः सही उत्तर 'a few / the' है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

873📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Schemes & Policies

Which of the following statements about the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund, approved by the Union Cabinet, is/are correct?
I. The RDI Scheme incentivises private sector participation in R&D, with a total outlay of Rs. 10 Lakh crore over six years.
II. It aims to finance transformative projects at higher levels of Technology Readiness Level (TRL) of 4 and above.
Which of the statement are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I Nor II

Explanation

- Statement I is incorrect: The corpus established under the ANRF / RDI framework for private sector R&D financing is Rs. 1 Lakh crore (one lakh crore, not 10 lakh crore) provided as long-term low/zero-interest loans.
- Statement II is correct: The scheme specifically targets financing technology commercialization and demonstration at higher Technology Readiness Levels (TRL 4 and above).
Hence, II only is correct.

- कथन I गलत है: निजी क्षेत्र के R&D को बढ़ावा देने के लिए अनुसंधान कोष का परिव्यय ₹1 लाख करोड़ (एक लाख करोड़, न कि ₹10 लाख करोड़) निर्धारित किया गया है।
- कथन II सही है: इस योजना का मुख्य उद्देश्य प्रौद्योगिकी तत्परता स्तर (Technology Readiness Level - TRL) 4 और उससे ऊपर के उच्च स्तर की परियोजनाओं को वित्तपोषित करना है।
अतः केवल II सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

874📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Geography (Soils of India)

Consider the following statements about Laterite soils:
I. These are formed in areas with high temperatures and low rainfall.
II. These soils contain excess iron oxide, giving them a reddish colour.
III. Lime and silica get leached due to atmospheric conditions.
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?
A) I and II only
B) I only
C) II only
D) None of the above

Explanation

- Statement I is INCORRECT: Laterite soils develop in tropical regions with high temperature AND alternate periods of HEAVY / high rainfall (not low rainfall).
- Statement II is correct: Laterite soils are rich in iron oxide and aluminium, giving them a characteristic reddish brick color.
- Statement III is correct: Under heavy rains and tropical leaching, silica and lime are intensely leached away into deeper subsoil.
Since the question asks which statement is INCORRECT, the answer is I only.

- कथन I गलत है: लैटेराइट मिट्टी का निर्माण उच्च तापमान और अत्यधिक / भारी वर्षा (वैकल्पिक शुष्क और आर्द्र मौसम) वाले क्षेत्रों में होता है, न कि कम वर्षा वाले क्षेत्रों में।
- कथन II सही है: इस मिट्टी में आयरन ऑक्साइड और एल्युमीनियम की प्रचुरता होती है, जिससे इसका रंग लाल-ईंट जैसा होता है।
- कथन III सही है: भारी वर्षा के कारण तीव्र निक्षालन (leaching) से चूना और सिलिका धुल जाते हैं।
प्रश्न में गलत कथन पूछा गया है, अतः केवल I गलत है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

875📚General EnglishSentence Rearrangement (Para Jumbles)

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order:
Ancient mythologies
P. while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes
Q. influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy
R. preserving cultural traditions through oral storytelling
S. have transcended time and geographical boundaries,
Choose the correct option:
A) SQRP
B) QRPS
C) RPQS
D) PRSQ

Explanation

The plural subject 'Ancient mythologies' takes the finite predicate verb in S: 'have transcended time and geographical boundaries,'. This is followed by participle clauses Q ('influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy'), R ('preserving cultural traditions through oral storytelling'), and P ('while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes'). Hence, SQRP forms a grammatically coherent sentence.

'Ancient mythologies' कर्ता के बाद मुख्य क्रिया S में आती है: 'have transcended time and geographical boundaries,'। इसके बाद Q, R और P जुड़कर एक अर्थपूर्ण वाक्य बनाते हैं। अतः सही क्रम SQRP है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

876📚General EnglishParagraph Jumbles

Which of the given options is the most logical sequencing of the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph?
I. They are responsible for pollinating many plants.
II. Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production.
III. However, their population has been steadily declining.
IV. The major reasons for this are habitat loss and pesticides.
Choose the correct option:
A) III - II - I - IV
B) IV - I - II - III
C) II - I - III - IV
D) I - III - IV - II

Explanation

- Sentence II introduces the topic ('Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production').
- Sentence I elaborates on their ecological role ('They are responsible for pollinating many plants').
- Sentence III introduces the contrast/problem with 'However' ('However, their population has been steadily declining').
- Sentence IV explains the causes ('The major reasons for this are habitat loss and pesticides').
Logical sequence: II - I - III - IV.

- वाक्य II मुख्य विषय का परिचय देता है ('Bees are essential...)।
- वाक्य I उनके परागण के कार्य की व्याख्या करता है ('They are responsible...)।
- वाक्य III 'However' के साथ उनकी घटती संख्या की समस्या प्रस्तुत करता है।
- वाक्य IV इस गिरावट के कारणों को स्पष्ट करता है।
अतः तार्किक क्रम II - I - III - IV है।

2026JKSSBSchool Education Department

877📚General EnglishDirect & Indirect Speech

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence:
She asked me why I had been smoking that day.
A) She says to me, "Why were you smoking this day?"
B) She said to me, "Why are you smoking today?"
C) She said to me, "Why you smoke today?"
D) She said to me, "Why were you smoking today?"

Explanation

In indirect speech, past continuous ('were you smoking') shifts to past perfect continuous ('had been smoking'), and 'today' shifts to 'that day'. The reporting verb 'asked me' corresponds to 'said to me'. Therefore, the direct speech is: She said to me, "Why were you smoking today?"

Direct speech में Past Continuous Tense ('were you smoking') Indirect Speech में Past Perfect Continuous ('had been smoking') में बदलता है, तथा 'today' बदलकर 'that day' हो जाता है। अतः सही Direct Speech रूप विकल्प D है।

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878📚General EnglishDirect & Indirect Speech

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence:
"Hello", he said to his friend. "What can I do for you?"
A) He asked and greeted his friend that what he can do for him.
B) He told hello and asked his friend what he could do for him.
C) He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.
D) He said hello and asked his friend what can do for him.

Explanation

Greeting 'Hello' is converted to 'He greeted his friend'. The interrogative sentence 'What can I do for you?' becomes the noun clause 'and asked what he could do for him' with modal 'can' shifted to 'could'. Conjunction 'that' is not used before wh-question words.

अभिवादन 'Hello' को 'He greeted his friend' में बदला जाता है। प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य 'What can I do for you?' बदलकर 'and asked what he could do for him' हो जाता है (can का could)। Wh-words के पहले 'that' का प्रयोग नहीं किया जाता।

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879📚General EnglishActive and Passive Voice

Identify the voice used in the sentence from the passage:
"Anomalies are dismissed as errors or as problems to be solved within the existing theoretical structure."
A) Active voice
B) Middle voice
C) Passive voice
D) Reflexive voice

Explanation

The structure 'are dismissed' consists of the auxiliary verb 'to be' (are) + past participle (dismissed), where the subject ('Anomalies') receives the action rather than performing it. This is standard Passive Voice.

वाक्य में 'are dismissed' (be verb + past participle) की संरचना है, जहाँ कर्ता ('Anomalies') क्रिया का कर्ता नहीं बल्कि प्राप्तकर्ता है। अतः यह कर्मवाच्य (Passive voice) है।

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880📚General EnglishClauses

What type of clause is used in the sentence: "Yet, over time, anomalies that cannot be explained within the current paradigm accumulate"?
A) Noun clause
B) Relative clause
C) Adverbial clause
D) Independent clause

Explanation

The clause 'that cannot be explained within the current paradigm' is introduced by the relative pronoun 'that' and modifies the noun 'anomalies'. A clause that modifies a noun is an Adjective or Relative Clause.

'that cannot be explained within the current paradigm' उपवाक्य 'that' से शुरू होकर संज्ञा 'anomalies' की विशेषता बताता है। संज्ञा की विशेषता बताने वाला आश्रित उपवाक्य Relative Clause (विशेषण उपवाक्य) कहलाता है।

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881📚General EnglishSpotting Errors (Adverbs)

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error:
(I) She quick finished her homework / (II) before dinner, eager to join her friends / (III) at the park for / (IV) an exciting game of soccer.
A) IV
B) I
C) III
D) II

Explanation

In segment I, 'quick' is an adjective being incorrectly used to modify the verb 'finished'. It should be the adverb 'quickly' ('She quickly finished her homework'). Therefore, segment I contains the error.

खंड I में क्रिया 'finished' की विशेषता बताने के लिए विशेषण 'quick' का अनुचित प्रयोग हुआ है। यहाँ क्रियाविशेषण 'quickly' होना चाहिए ('She quickly finished her homework')। अतः खंड I (विकल्प B) में त्रुटि है।

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882📚General EnglishVocabulary (Fill in the blanks)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:
Despite the _ challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to reach their destination.
A) formidable
B) negligible
C) trivial
D) insignificant

Explanation

'Formidable' means inspiring fear or respect through being impressively large, powerful, intense, or capable. The preposition 'Despite' signals a contrast between severe/daunting challenges and successful arrival.

'Formidable' का अर्थ होता है विकट, अत्यंत कठिन या दुर्जेय। 'Despite' (के बावजूद) शब्द कठिनाइयों और गंतव्य तक पहुँचने की सफलता के बीच विरोधाभास को दर्शाता है। अन्य सभी विकल्प (तुच्छ/नगण्य) संदर्भ के प्रतिकूल हैं।

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883📚General EnglishPronouns

Identify the correct type of pronoun in the following sentence:
"I enjoyed myself during the holidays."
Here, 'myself' is a _ pronoun.
A) demonstrative
B) possessive
C) distributive
D) reflexive

Explanation

When the action of the verb reflects back upon the subject itself (the subject and object refer to the same person), the pronoun ending in -self/-selves is a Reflexive pronoun.

जब क्रिया का प्रभाव कर्ता (Subject) पर ही पड़ता है (कर्ता और कर्म एक ही व्यक्ति होते हैं), तो '-self' वाले सर्वनाम को निजवाचक सर्वनाम (Reflexive pronoun) कहा जाता है।

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884📚Mental Ability & ReasoningCause and Effect / Critical Reasoning

Consider the following statement:
Statement: "There has been a sharp increase in online education platforms."
Possible Causes:
I. Affordable internet availability
II. Increased demand for flexible learning
Choose the correct option:
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Explanation

Both factors directly cause and fuel the expansion of online education platforms: widespread, cheap high-speed internet provides the necessary infrastructure (Cause I), and learner demand for self-paced, flexible scheduling provides the market demand (Cause II). Hence, Both I and II are valid causes.

सस्ता इंटरनेट बुनियादी ढांचा उपलब्ध कराता है (कारण I) और शिक्षार्थियों द्वारा अपनी सुविधा अनुसार सीखने की मांग बाजार तैयार करती है (कारण II)। दोनों ही ऑनलाइन शिक्षा में वृद्धि के प्रत्यक्ष और प्रमुख कारण हैं। अतः I और II दोनों सही हैं।

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885📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations (United Nations)

Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council:
I. As per Article 23, the Security Council shall consist of fifteen Members of the United Nations.
II. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for a term of five years.
III. A retiring non-permanent member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) All of the above

Explanation

- Statement I is correct: Under Article 23(1) of the UN Charter, the Security Council consists of 15 members (5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members).
- Statement II is incorrect: Non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of TWO years, not five years.
- Statement III is correct: Article 23(2) explicitly provides that 'a retiring member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election'.
Therefore, statements I and III only are correct.

- कथन I सही है: संयुक्त राष्ट्र चार्टर के अनुच्छेद 23 के तहत सुरक्षा परिषद में 15 सदस्य (5 स्थायी और 10 गैर-स्थायी) होते हैं।
- कथन II गलत है: गैर-स्थायी सदस्यों का कार्यकाल दो वर्ष का होता है, पांच वर्ष का नहीं।
- कथन III सही है: अनुच्छेद 23(2) के अनुसार कार्यकाल समाप्त होने पर कोई भी गैर-स्थायी सदस्य तुरंत पुनः निर्वाचित नहीं हो सकता।
अतः केवल कथन I और III सही हैं।

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886📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsScience & Technology (Space Missions)

Consider the following statements about India's Space mission achievements:
I. The Axiom Mission 4 has enabled human spaceflight for India, Poland, and Hungary, with each nation's first government-sponsored flight in more than 40 years.
II. SpaDeX Mission made India the first country in the world to successfully carry out a satellite docking process in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I Nor II

Explanation

- Statement I is correct: Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) to the ISS includes ISRO astronaut Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla representing India alongside astronauts from Poland and Hungary, marking the first government-backed spaceflights for all three nations in over 40 years.
- Statement II is incorrect: SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) made India the fourth nation (after USA, Russia, and China) to demonstrate autonomous space docking technology, not the first in the world.
Hence, I only is correct.

- कथन I सही है: एक्सिओम मिशन 4 (Ax-4) के तहत भारतीय वायुसेना के ग्रुप कैप्टन शुभांशु शुक्ला (ISRO) पोलैंड और हंगरी के अंतरिक्ष यात्रियों के साथ ISS की यात्रा कर रहे हैं, जो 40 से अधिक वर्षों में उनकी पहली राष्ट्रीय मानव अंतरिक्ष उड़ान है।
- कथन II गलत है: SpaDeX मिशन से भारत अंतरिक्ष में डॉकिंग करने वाला विश्व का चौथा देश बना (अमेरिका, रूस और चीन के बाद), न कि पहला देश।
अतः केवल कथन I सही है।

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887📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsNuclear Energy & Science

In India's three-stage nuclear program, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is considered important because:
I. it is designed to use uranium-238 to breed plutonium in a sodium-cooled fast reactor design.
II. Thorium-232, though not fissile, is proposed to be used as a blanket material.
III. By transmutation, Thorium will create fissile Uranium-233, which will be used as fuel in the third stage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III

Explanation

All three statements accurately define Stage II (Fast Breeder Reactor) of Homi Bhabha's three-stage nuclear power plan:
- The PFBR at Kalpakkam uses mixed plutonium-uranium oxide (MOX) fuel in a liquid sodium coolant to breed more fissile plutonium from U-238.
- Thorium-232 blankets are introduced into the reactor core.
- Through neutron absorption, fertile Th-232 transmutes into fissile Uranium-233, laying the indispensable foundation for Stage III (Thorium reactors).
Therefore, all three statements I, II, and III are correct.

डॉ. होमी भाभा के त्रि-स्तरीय परमाणु ऊर्जा कार्यक्रम के दूसरे चरण (फास्ट ब्रीडर रिएक्टर) के लिए तीनों कथन पूर्णतः सत्य हैं:
- PFBR तरल सोडियम से ठंडा होने वाला रिएक्टर है जो U-238 से प्लूटोनियम का उत्पादन करता है।
- थोरियम-232 को इसके ब्लैंकेट में रखा जाता है।
- न्यूट्रॉन अवशोषण से थोरियम विखंडनीय यूरेनियम-233 में परिवर्तित होता है जो तीसरे चरण का मुख्य ईंधन है।
अतः I, II और III सभी सही हैं।

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888📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Scientific Projects (ITER)

ITER is considered important for India and the world because:
I. it demonstrates sustainable, clean fusion energy for the future.
II. It allows India to participate in cutting-edge nuclear fusion research.
III. It provides immediate commercial electricity to reduce fossil fuel dependency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III

Explanation

- Statements I and II are correct: ITER (located in Cadarache, France) is a 35-nation collaboration demonstrating the scientific and technological feasibility of magnetic confinement nuclear fusion power, in which India is an equal contributing member.
- Statement III is incorrect: ITER is purely an experimental research facility designed to achieve net thermal power (Q ≥ 10), not a commercial power plant providing electricity to the public grid.
Hence, I and II only are correct.

- कथन I और II सही हैं: ITER फ्रांस में स्थित 35 देशों की एक ऐतिहासिक संलयन अनुसंधान परियोजना है, जिसमें भारत प्रमुख भागीदार है।
- कथन III गलत है: ITER एक प्रायोगिक अनुसंधान टोकामक रिएक्टर है, यह कोई वाणिज्यिक बिजली संयंत्र नहीं है जो ग्रिड को बिजली की आपूर्ति करता हो।
अतः केवल कथन I और II सही हैं।

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889📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Awards & Honours

Identify the correct statements about the Nobel Peace Prize, 2025:
I. It was awarded to Maria Corina Machado of Venezuela.
II. According to the Norwegian Nobel Committee, it can be transferred by the recipient to any other person.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Explanation

- Statement I is incorrect: While Venezuelan opposition leader Maria Corina Machado was awarded the Václav Havel Human Rights Prize in 2024 and nominated for the Nobel Peace Prize, she was not the recipient (Nihon Hidankyo was awarded the 2024 Nobel Peace Prize).
- Statement II is incorrect: Under the statutes of the Nobel Foundation, Nobel Prizes are strictly personal distinctions and cannot be reassigned or transferred by recipients to any third party.
Therefore, Neither I nor II is correct.

- कथन I गलत है: वेनेजुएला की नेता मारिया कोरीना मचाडो नामांकित जरूर थीं, परंतु नोबेल शांति पुरस्कार निहोन हिदांक्यो (जापान) को मिला था।
- कथन II गलत है: नोबेल फाउंडेशन के नियमों के अनुसार नोबेल पुरस्कार पूर्णतः व्यक्तिगत सम्मान हैं और इन्हें किसी अन्य व्यक्ति को हस्तांतरित नहीं किया जा सकता।
अतः न तो I और न ही II सही है।

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890📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Economy & Foreign Trade

Consider the following statements:
I. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India accounts for more than 5% of global merchandise exports.
II. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India's service imports were greater than its exports.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Explanation

- Statement I is incorrect: India's share in global merchandise exports stands at approximately 1.8% to 2.2% (well below 5%).
- Statement II is incorrect: India consistently runs a substantial trade surplus in services, meaning service exports are significantly higher than service imports.
Therefore, Neither I nor II is correct.

- कथन I गलत है: वैश्विक वस्तु निर्यात में भारत की हिस्सेदारी लगभग 1.8% से 2.2% के बीच है, जो 5% से काफी कम है।
- कथन II गलत है: भारत सेवा क्षेत्र में लगातार भारी व्यापार अधिशेष (trade surplus) रखता है, यानी भारत का सेवा निर्यात उसके सेवा आयात से कहीं अधिक है।
अतः न तो I और न ही II सही है।

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891📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (National Income & Development)

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): A rise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards.
Reason (R): Income levels are fundamental metrics of Economic development.
Which of the statements is/are correct:
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true

Explanation

- Assertion A is false: The word 'always' invalidates it. Per capita GNP is an aggregate average and does not account for income inequality, inflation, environmental degradation, or access to healthcare and education. A rise in per capita GNP concentrated among the wealthy does not improve living standards for the general populace.
- Reason R is true: National income and per capita income are standard fundamental baseline metrics used in economic development analysis.
Hence, A is false, R is true.

- अभिकथन A असत्य है: 'हमेशा' शब्द इसे गलत बनाता है। प्रति व्यक्ति आय केवल एक औसत है; यदि आय असमानता बढ़ती है या मुद्रास्फीति बढ़ती है, तो प्रति व्यक्ति जीएनपी बढ़ने पर भी आम लोगों का जीवन स्तर गिर सकता है।
- कारण R सत्य है: आय स्तर आर्थिक विकास का एक मूलभूत और प्राथमिक पैमाना होता है।
अतः A असत्य है, R सत्य है।

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892📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsAgriculture & Government Schemes

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses aims to make India self-sufficient in pulses by 2030–31.
Statement II: The mission seeks to reduce import dependence, boost domestic production of pulses and sustainably improve farmers' incomes.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A) Statement I and Statement II are correct
B) Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Both statements are correct:
- Statement I is correct: Approved under the Union Budget and implemented from FY 2025-26 to FY 2030-31 with a target of 350 lakh tonnes of domestic pulses production by 2030-31.
- Statement II is correct: The central mission objective is eliminating dependency on foreign pulses imports (Tur, Urad, Masoor) through guaranteed MSP procurement, seed hubs, and boosting farmer prosperity.

दोनों कथन सही हैं:
- कथन I सही है: 'दलहन आत्मनिर्भरता मिशन' (2025-26 से 2030-31) का लक्ष्य 2030-31 तक घरेलू उत्पादन 350 लाख टन पहुंचाकर भारत को पूर्णतः आत्मनिर्भर बनाना है।
- कथन II सही है: इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य आयात निर्भरता समाप्त करना, घरेलू उत्पादन बढ़ाना और एमएसपी खरीद के जरिए किसानों की आय बढ़ाना है।

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893📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsCulture & Heritage of Jammu & Kashmir

Which of the following statements about Rauf is/are correct?
I. Rauf is a traditional folk dance performed on typical folk songs in the Kashmir dialect.
II. It is typically a solo performance by a woman only.
III. Dancers wear traditional Kashmiri attire, including pherans (long, flowing gowns) and ornate jewelry.
Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III

Explanation

- Statement I is correct: Rauf is Kashmir's most celebrated traditional celebratory dance, performed during Eid and spring festivals (Navreh).
- Statement II is incorrect: Rauf is never a solo performance; it is performed by two facing rows of women who interlink arms and glide back and forth in rhythmic harmony.
- Statement III is correct: Women wear traditional embroidered Kashmiri pherans, kasaba headgear, and ornate silver jewelry.
Hence, statements I and III are correct.

- कथन I सही है: रऊफ कश्मीर का सबसे प्रसिद्ध पारंपरिक लोकनृत्य है जो ईद और वसंत ऋतु में हर्षोल्लास से गाया और नाचा जाता है।
- कथन II गलत है: रऊफ एकल (solo) नृत्य नहीं है; यह महिलाओं की दो आमने-सामने खड़ी पंक्तियों द्वारा एक-दूसरे की कमर में हाथ डालकर समूह में किया जाता है।
- कथन III सही है: नर्तकियां पारंपरिक फेरन, कसाबा और कश्मीरी आभूषण पहनती हैं।
अतः केवल कथन I और III सही हैं।

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894📚Basic ScienceChemistry - Properties of Metals

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding metals?
I. Form basic oxides
II. Good reducing agents
III. High electronegativity
IV. High ionization energy
Choose the correct option:
A) Only I, II
B) Only III and IV
C) Only I, II and IV
D) Only II, III and IV

Explanation

Metals readily lose valence electrons (low ionization energy) and are electropositive (low electronegativity). Because they oxidize easily, they are strong reducing agents. Their oxides react with water or acids to form alkaline hydroxides/salts, making them basic oxides. Non-metals, conversely, have high electronegativity and high ionization energies. Thus, only statements I and II are correct.

धातुएं आसानी से इलेक्ट्रॉन त्यागती हैं, इसलिए वे उत्कृष्ट अपचायक (good reducing agents) होती हैं और क्षारीय ऑक्साइड बनाती हैं। धातुओं की विद्युत-ऋणात्मकता और आयनन ऊर्जा कम होती है। अतः केवल कथन I और II सही हैं।

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895📚Basic ScienceChemistry - Extraction of Metals

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the extraction of metals in accordance with the activity series?
I. Highly reactive metals (like sodium and potassium) are extracted by electrolysis of their molten compounds.
II. Moderately reactive metals (zinc, iron, lead, etc.) are extracted by reduction using carbon or carbon monoxide.
III. Less reactive metals (copper, mercury) can be obtained simply by heating ores.
Choose the correct option:
A) Only II
B) Only I and III
C) Only II and III
D) All of the above

Explanation

All three principles are standard metallurgical extraction methods:
1. Highly reactive metals (Na, K, Ca, Al) have high chemical affinity for oxygen and cannot be reduced by carbon; they are extracted via molten salt electrolysis.
2. Middle-reactivity metals (Zn, Fe, Pb) are reduced from their oxides using carbon or carbon monoxide.
3. Low-reactivity metals (Hg, Cu) are extracted simply by heating their sulphide ores in air (e.g., cinnabar HgS -> Hg, copper glance Cu2S -> Cu).

तीनों कथन धातुओं के निष्कर्षण के मूलभूत सिद्धांतों के अनुसार सत्य हैं: अत्यधिक क्रियाशील धातुएं विद्युत अपघटन से, मध्यम क्रियाशील धातुएं कार्बन/CO अपचयन से, और कम क्रियाशील धातुएं केवल गर्म करके प्राप्त की जाती हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D (उपरोक्त सभी) है।

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896📚Basic ScienceBiology - Animal Diversity

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Vertebrates?
I. These are a subphylum of chordates that are characterized by the presence of a vertebral column or backbone.
II. They show bilateral symmetry.
III. It includes animals such as fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals.

Choose the correct option:
A) Only I
B) Only I and II
C) Only I and III
D) All of the above

Explanation

All three statements are true regarding vertebrates: they possess an articulated vertebral column protecting the spinal cord, exhibit bilateral symmetry, and comprise cyclostomes, fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.

कशेरुकी (Vertebrates) कॉर्डेटा संघ के अंतर्गत आते हैं, जिनमें रीढ़ की हड्डी पाई जाती है, द्विपार्श्व सममिति होती है, और इसमें मछली, उभयचर, सरीसृप, पक्षी और स्तनधारी शामिल हैं। अतः उपरोक्त सभी कथन सत्य हैं।

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897📚Basic Computer ApplicationsMS PowerPoint - Slide Master

Aarohi is creating a presentation and wants a logo to appear automatically in the same position on all current and future slides, without manually adding it to each slide. Which feature should she use?
A) Global Slide Replication
B) Layout Replicator
C) Theme Designer
D) Slide Master

Explanation

In Microsoft PowerPoint, the Slide Master is the top hierarchy slide controlling design elements, layout templates, placeholders, and formatting across the entire deck. Placing an image or logo on the Slide Master automatically reflects it on every current and future slide.

MS PowerPoint में 'स्लाइड मास्टर' (Slide Master) का उपयोग करके जोड़ा गया कोई भी लोगो या ऑब्जेक्ट प्रस्तुति की सभी वर्तमान और नई स्लाइडों पर एक ही स्थान पर स्वचालित रूप से दिखाई देता है।

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898📚General EnglishSynonyms and Antonyms

The editor criticized the article for its prolix treatment of an otherwise simple topic. Which word is the most appropriate synonym of prolix in this context?
A) Discursive
B) Redundant
C) Verbose
D) Diffuse

Explanation

"Prolix" describes speech or writing that uses far too many words and is tediously long; "verbose" is its most direct and appropriate synonym.

'Prolix' का अर्थ है शब्दबहुल, अत्यधिक लंबा या उबाऊ रूप से विस्तृत। इसका सबसे उपयुक्त पर्यायवाची 'Verbose' (वाचाल/शब्दबहुल) है।

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899📚General EnglishPunctuation

Choose the option that correctly punctuates the sentence:
The proposal which was submitted last week however requires further revision
A) The proposal, which was submitted last week however, requires further revision.
B) The proposal which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision.
C) The proposal, which was submitted last week, however requires further revision.
D) The proposal, which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision.

Explanation

The non-defining relative clause "which was submitted last week" must be set off by commas: ", which was submitted last week,". Additionally, the parenthetical conjunctive adverb "however" must also be enclosed by commas: ", however,". Thus, option D is punctuated correctly.

गैर-अनिवार्य रिलेटिव क्लॉज 'which was submitted last week' को कॉमा के बीच रखा जाता है, और संयोजक क्रियाविशेषण 'however' को भी दोनों ओर कॉमा द्वारा अलग किया जाता है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।

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900📚General EnglishClauses and Sentence Structure

Identify the type of clause in the sentence below:
What the committee decided surprised everyone present.
The clause "What the committee decided" is a:
A) Noun clause functioning as the subject
B) Adjective clause modifying committee
C) Adverbial clause of result
D) Independent clause with an implied subject

Explanation

"What the committee decided" functions as the grammatical subject of the main verb "surprised". A subordinate clause that acts as a subject or object in a sentence is a noun clause.

"What the committee decided" मुख्य क्रिया 'surprised' के कर्ता (subject) के रूप में कार्य कर रहा है। किसी वाक्य के कर्ता के रूप में प्रयुक्त आश्रित उपवाक्य को संज्ञा उपवाक्य (Noun clause) कहा जाता है।

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901📚General EnglishVocabulary - Homonyms

In which sentence is the word "bank" used as a homonym when compared to its use in the sentence below?
She deposited the cheque at the bank.
A) The pilot had to bank the aircraft sharply during the landing.
B) The children played on the bank of the river after school.
C) The bank approved the loan after a detailed review.
D) He works at a multinational bank in the city.

Explanation

In the prompt sentence, "bank" refers to a financial depository. In option B, "bank" is a homonym meaning the land alongside a body of water (riverbank) — sharing the identical spelling and pronunciation but having a completely unrelated etymology and meaning.

मूल वाक्य में 'bank' का अर्थ वित्तीय संस्थान (बैंक) है। विकल्प B में 'bank' का अर्थ नदी का किनारा (river bank) है, जो समान वर्तनी और उच्चारण वाला लेकिन पूर्णतः भिन्न अर्थ वाला शब्द (Homonym) है।

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902📚General EnglishHomophones

Choose the sentence in which the correct homophone has been used.
A) The principal asked the students to bare the consequences of their actions.
B) She decided to compliment the dress with a matching scarf.
C) The hikers were advised to pause the trail before nightfall.
D) He could not cite a single example to support his claim.

Explanation

In option D, "cite" (meaning to quote or refer to as evidence) is correctly used. In A, "bare" should be "bear". In B, "compliment" (praise) should be "complement" (to enhance or complete).

विकल्प D में 'cite' (उल्लेख करना या उदाहरण देना) का सही प्रयोग हुआ है। A में 'bare' के स्थान पर 'bear', और B में 'compliment' के स्थान पर 'complement' होना चाहिए।

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903📚General EnglishPronoun Agreement

Choose the sentence in which the pronoun usage is grammatically correct.
A) Each of the participants must submit their assignment by Friday.
B) Neither of the proposals achieved their intended objective.
C) Every applicant should bring his or her identification for verification.
D) The committee reached their decision after prolonged deliberation.

Explanation

In standard formal grammar, singular distributive antecedents like "Every applicant" require singular pronouns like "his or her". Options A, B, and D incorrectly match singular antecedents with plural pronouns in formal prescriptive usage.

औपचारिक व्याकरण में, 'Every applicant' एकवचन है और इसके साथ एकवचन सर्वनाम 'his or her' का प्रयोग सर्वथा शुद्ध है।

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904📚General EnglishPronoun Reference

Identify the sentence with a clear and unambiguous pronoun reference.
A) When Sara met Lina, she was already upset.
B) The students informed the teacher that they would submit the project late.
C) Rahul told Amit that he had won the scholarship.
D) After the report was revised, it was criticized by the editor.

Explanation

In option B, "they" is plural and can grammatically and logically refer only to "The students" (plural), as "teacher" is singular. In A and C, "she" and "he" have ambiguous antecedent references.

विकल्प B में बहुवचन सर्वनाम 'they' केवल बहुवचन संज्ञा 'The students' को ही संदर्भित कर सकता है क्योंकि 'teacher' एकवचन है। अतः कोई अस्पष्टता नहीं है। A और C में सर्वनाम अस्पष्ट हैं।

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905📚General EnglishModals

Choose the option that best expresses a logical deduction about a past event.
A) She may finish the experiment before the deadline.
B) He should have informed the committee earlier.
C) They must have overlooked the crucial data.
D) You can submit the application online.

Explanation

"Must have + past participle" (They must have overlooked the crucial data) is the modal construction specifically used to express a logical deduction or high certainty about an event that occurred in the past.

भूतकाल की किसी घटना के बारे में तार्किक निष्कर्ष व्यक्त करने के लिए 'must have + V3' संरचना का उपयोग किया जाता है: "They must have overlooked the crucial data" (उन्होंने अवश्य ही महत्वपूर्ण डेटा की अनदेखी की होगी)।

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906📚General EnglishDirect and Indirect Speech

Choose the option that correctly converts the following sentence into indirect speech:
The professor said, "I will review your thesis tomorrow."
A) The professor said that he would review your thesis tomorrow.
B) The professor said that he will review your thesis the next day.
C) The professor said that he would review my thesis the next day.
D) The professor said that I would review your thesis the next day.

Explanation

In reported speech with a past reporting verb ("said"): "I" shifts to "he", "will" shifts to "would", second person possessive "your" shifts to "my" (the listener), and temporal adverb "tomorrow" shifts to "the next day". Hence, option C is correct.

अप्रत्यक्ष कथन में 'said' के कारण 'I' बदलकर 'he', 'will' बदलकर 'would', 'your' बदलकर 'my', और 'tomorrow' बदलकर 'the next day' हो जाता है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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907📚General EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement

The following sentence has an error. Identify the part that contains the error.
The students (A) has submitted (B) their assignments (C) before the deadline (D).
A) The students
B) has submitted
C) their assignments
D) before the deadline

Explanation

The subject "The students" is plural and requires the plural auxiliary verb "have submitted" rather than the singular "has submitted". Therefore, segment B contains the error.

कर्ता 'The students' बहुवचन है, इसलिए इसके साथ बहुवचन सहायक क्रिया 'have submitted' आनी चाहिए, 'has submitted' नहीं। अतः त्रुटि भाग (B) में है।

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908📚General EnglishActive and Passive Voice

Choose the option that correctly converts the following sentence into the passive voice:
The committee will announce the results tomorrow.
A) The results will be announced by the committee tomorrow.
B) The results are announced by the committee tomorrow.
C) The results will announce by the committee tomorrow.
D) The committee will be announced the results tomorrow.

Explanation

In simple future active voice ("will + verb"), the passive transformation follows "will be + past participle": "The results will be announced by the committee tomorrow."

साधारण भविष्य काल (Simple Future) के सक्रिय वाच्य 'will + announce' का कर्मवाच्य रूप 'will be announced' होता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A है।

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909📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KUNESCO World Heritage Sites

Which of the following sites are included in the Tentative List of World Heritage Sites released by UNESCO?
I. Khangchendzonga National Park
II. Natural Heritage of Varkala
III. Naga Hill Ophiolite
IV. Natural Heritage of Tirumala Hills
V. Meghalayan Age Caves
VI. Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka

Choose the correct option:
A) II, III, IV and VI only
B) I, IV, V and VI only
C) II, III, IV and V only
D) All of the above

Explanation

Sites on UNESCO's Tentative List are those proposed for future World Heritage inscription: Natural Heritage of Varkala (II), Naga Hill Ophiolite (III), Natural Heritage of Tirumala Hills (IV), and Meghalayan Age Caves (V) are on India's Tentative List. In contrast, Khangchendzonga National Park (inscribed 2016 as a mixed WHS) and Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (inscribed 2003 as a cultural WHS) are already fully designated UNESCO World Heritage Sites. Thus, only II, III, IV, and V are on the Tentative List.

खांगचेंदज़ोंगा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान (2016 में घोषित) और भीमबेटका के शैल आश्रय (2003 में घोषित) पहले से ही यूनेस्को के पूर्ण विश्व धरोहर स्थल हैं। वरकला, नागा हिल ओफियोलाइट, तिरुमला पहाड़ियां और मेघालय युग की गुफाएं संभावित सूची (Tentative List) में शामिल हैं। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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910📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KModern Indian History - Freedom Movement

With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, consider the following events:
I. Poona Pact
II. Lord Irwin's declaration
III. Second Round Table Conference

Arrange them in the correct chronological order:
A) I-II-III
B) II-I-III
C) I-III-II
D) II-III-I

Explanation

Chronology of the events:
1. Lord Irwin's Declaration (Deepavali Declaration on Dominion Status): October 31, 1929
2. Second Round Table Conference (attended by Mahatma Gandhi in London): September to December 1931
3. Poona Pact (agreement between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi on depressed classes representation): September 24, 1932
Thus, the correct chronological sequence is II - III - I.

कालानुक्रम:
- II. लॉर्ड इरविन की घोषणा (दीपावली घोषणा): अक्टूबर 1929
- III. दूसरा गोलमेज सम्मेलन: सितंबर-दिसंबर 1931
- I. पूना पैक्ट: 24 सितंबर 1932
अतः सही कालानुक्रम II - III - I (विकल्प D) है।

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911📚Basic Concepts of ComputersData Representation & Binary Arithmetic

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Overflow in two's complement addition can be detected by examining only the carry out of the most significant bit.
II. When converting an unsigned integer to a larger type, zero extension is used to preserve its value.
III. In Binary-Coded Decimal (BCD) representation, each decimal digit is encoded separately using four binary bits.
IV. In a byte-addressable system, the effective address calculation is dependent on instruction length.

Choose the correct option:
A) Only IV is True
B) Only II and III are True
C) Only II and IV are True
D) Only III and IV are True

Explanation

Evaluating statements:
- Statement I is false: In two's complement addition, overflow occurs if and only if the carry-in into the sign bit differs from the carry-out from the sign bit (Cin XOR Cout = 1).
- Statement II is true: Widening an unsigned integer pads leading higher-order bits with zeros (zero-extension) to preserve numerical value.
- Statement III is true: BCD encodes each decimal digit (0–9) using its standard 4-bit binary nibble (e.g., 9 is 1001).
- Statement IV is false: Effective address calculation depends on the addressing mode and base/offset registers, not the instruction length.
Thus, only II and III are True.

कथन II और III सत्य हैं: अहस्ताक्षरित पूर्णांकों को बड़ा करने पर उच्च बिट्स में शून्य जोड़ा जाता है (शून्य विस्तार), और BCD में प्रत्येक दशमलव अंक 4 बाइनरी बिट्स द्वारा दर्शाया जाता है। कथन I गलत है क्योंकि ओवरफ्लो कैरी-इन और कैरी-आउट के अंतर पर निर्भर करता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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912📚Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Excel - Nested IF Formulas

A company keeps sales data in column B and wants to categorise sales into three levels:
"High" if sales ≥ 1000
"Medium" if sales ≥ 500 but < 1000
"Low" if sales < 500

A student writes the formula in cell C2 as:
`=IF(B2>=1000,"High",IF(B2>=500,"Medium","Low"))`

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) The formula will always give an error.
B) The formula will give an error if B2 is blank.
C) The formula will give an error for non-numeric values in B2.
D) The formula will work correctly for all numeric values in B2.

Explanation

The nested formula correctly checks if B2 is at least 1000 (returning 'High'). If false, it checks if B2 is at least 500 (returning 'Medium'), and if false, returns 'Low'. For any valid numeric sales value in B2, this nested logic executes without syntax errors and correctly assigns the appropriate category.

यह नेस्टेड IF सूत्र पूरी तरह से सही सिंटैक्स और तर्क के साथ लिखा गया है। B2 में किसी भी संख्यात्मक मान के लिए यह 1000 या अधिक पर 'High', 500 से 999 पर 'Medium', और 500 से कम पर 'Low' सही ढंग से प्रदर्शित करेगा।

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913📚Basic ReasoningNon-Verbal Reasoning - Figure Series

Complete the following figure series:
(Series of rotating circle segments, shaded dots, and quadrant partitions)
A) Figure 1
B) Figure 2
C) Figure 3
D) Figure 4

Explanation

Observing the pattern of symbol rotation and shading: the solid dot moves cyclically between corners, while the segmented circle alternates quadrant lines and shaded sectors in a clockwise progression. Figure 2 correctly continues this rotational sequence.

आकृतियों के चक्रीय घूर्णन में छायांकित बिंदु और रेखा खंड प्रत्येक चरण में दक्षिणावर्त घूम रहे हैं। इस नियम का पालन करने वाली अगली आकृति 'आकृति 2' (Figure 2) है।

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914📚Basic EnglishSynonyms

Match the word with its synonym:
Word — Synonym
1. Obscure
2. Verbose
3. Placid
4. Frugal

Synonyms:
i. calm
ii. hidden
iii. wordy
iv. thrifty

Choose the correct match:
A) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i

Explanation

Matching definitions:
- Obscure (1) -> hidden/unclear (ii)
- Verbose (2) -> wordy (iii)
- Placid (3) -> calm/peaceful (i)
- Frugal (4) -> thrifty/economical (iv)
Hence, 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv.

सही मिलान:
- Obscure (अस्पष्ट/छिपा हुआ) -> hidden (ii)
- Verbose (शब्दबहुल) -> wordy (iii)
- Placid (शांत) -> calm (i)
- Frugal (मितव्ययी) -> thrifty (iv)
अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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915📚Basic EnglishAntonyms

Which pair of words are antonyms of the word "Loquacious"?
A) Verbose - Talkative
B) Taciturn - Reticent
C) Laconic - Prolix
D) Evasive - Glib

Explanation

"Loquacious" means tending to talk a great deal; talkative. Both "taciturn" (habitually silent) and "reticent" (reserved in speech) are antonyms of loquacious.

'Loquacious' का अर्थ बहुत अधिक बोलने वाला (बातूनी) होता है। 'Taciturn' (कम बोलने वाला) और 'Reticent' (संकोची/शांत) दोनों इसके सटीक विलोम हैं। अतः विकल्प B सही है।

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916📚Basic EnglishPrepositions

Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:
She divided the work ____ the team members and insisted ____ finishing it ____ the deadline.
A) among, on, before
B) between, for, before
C) among, at, by
D) between, on, after

Explanation

Dividing among multiple individuals requires "among". The verb insist takes the preposition "on" ("insisted on finishing"). Completing prior to a time limit uses "before the deadline".

दो से अधिक व्यक्तियों में बाँटने के लिए 'among', 'insist' के साथ 'on', और समय सीमा से पहले पूरा करने के लिए 'before'। अतः 'among, on, before' सही है।

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917📚Basic EnglishVerbs - Inchoative Verbs

Which of the following sentences contains an inchoative verb?
A) He writes poetry in the evening.
B) She knew the answer to the question.
C) They built a new bridge across the river.
D) The sky darkened before the storm arrived.

Explanation

An inchoative verb expresses the beginning of a process or a change of state (e.g., to become dark, to redden, to freeze). In sentence D, "darkened" means "began to become dark" or "entered the state of darkness".

इनकोएटिव क्रिया (Inchoative verb) वह क्रिया है जो किसी नई अवस्था की शुरुआत या परिवर्तन को दर्शाती है (जैसे dark से darken = अंधकारमय होना)। वाक्य D में 'darkened' एक इनकोएटिव क्रिया है।

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918📚Basic EnglishTenses

As the evening progressed, the weather ____ colder.
A) became
B) become
C) becoming
D) becomes

Explanation

The subordinate time clause uses past tense ("progressed"), which requires the past tense verb "became" in the main clause for grammatical consistency.

वाक्य का पहला भाग भूतकाल ('progressed') में है, अतः मुख्य उपवाक्य में भी भूतकाल की क्रिया 'became' का प्रयोग होगा।

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919📚Basic EnglishVerbs - Transitive and Intransitive

Which form of verb is used in the sentence below?
After hours of experimentation, the reaction finally proceeded smoothly.
A) Transitive Verb
B) Intransitive Verb
C) Linking Verb
D) Auxiliary Verb

Explanation

"Proceeded" takes no direct object and is modified by the adverb "smoothly". A verb that does not transfer action to an object is an intransitive verb.

क्रिया 'proceeded' के साथ कोई कर्म (object) नहीं है, बल्कि यह क्रियाविशेषण 'smoothly' द्वारा संशोधित है। बिना कर्म वाली क्रिया अकर्मक क्रिया (Intransitive Verb) कहलाती है।

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920📚Basic EnglishVerbs

Match the sentence with the correct form of the verb:
Column-I (Sentence):
1. The scientist conducted the experiment carefully.
2. The child slept peacefully throughout the night.
3. The sky became cloudy in the evening.
4. The students have completed the assignment.

Column-II (Form of Verb):
i. Linking Verb
ii. Intransitive Verb
iii. Auxiliary Verb
iv. Transitive Verb

Choose the correct match:
A) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
C) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i

Explanation

Matching:
1. "conducted" has the direct object "the experiment" -> Transitive Verb (iv)
2. "slept" has no direct object -> Intransitive Verb (ii)
3. "became" connects subject to predicate adjective "cloudy" -> Linking Verb (i)
4. "have" serves as the auxiliary verb in present perfect -> Auxiliary Verb (iii)
Sequence: 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii.

सही मिलान:
1. conducted (कर्म मौजूद है) -> Transitive Verb (iv)
2. slept (अकर्मक क्रिया) -> Intransitive Verb (ii)
3. became (संयोजक क्रिया) -> Linking Verb (i)
4. have (सहायक क्रिया) -> Auxiliary Verb (iii)
अतः विकल्प C सही है।

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921📚Basic EnglishDeterminers

In which sentence is the determiner wrongly used?
A) Each student was given a separate worksheet for the experiment.
B) Several researchers presented their findings at the conference.
C) Much people attended the seminar on environmental awareness.
D) Every participant signed the attendance sheet before leaving.

Explanation

"People" is a plural countable noun and requires the determiner "many" rather than "much" (which is reserved for uncountable mass nouns). The correct sentence should be "Many people attended...".

'People' गणनीय बहुवचन संज्ञा है, जिसके साथ 'many' आता है, 'much' नहीं। 'Much' का प्रयोग केवल अगणनीय (uncountable) संज्ञाओं के साथ होता है। अतः वाक्य C गलत है।

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922📚Basic EnglishSpelling Correction

Select the correct spelling of the word meaning "Unwilling to change one's views."
A) Intransegant
B) Intrasegant
C) Intransigent
D) Intrasigent

Explanation

The correct spelling is "Intransigent" (I-N-T-R-A-N-S-I-G-E-N-T), which describes an uncompromising, stubborn, or obstinate refusal to alter one's perspective or come to agreement.

शुद्ध वर्तनी 'Intransigent' (कट्टर, हठी या समझौता न करने वाला) है।

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923📚Basic EnglishGrammar and Usage

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
A) One of the books that I borrowed from the library were missing.
B) Scarcely had the train left the station when it suddenly stopped.
C) Each of the players have performed exceptionally well in the tournament.
D) The list of recommended articles are attached to the report.

Explanation

Option B is correct: In negative/restrictive introductory adverbs, inverted word order is required ('Scarcely had + subject + past participle'), followed by the conjunction 'when'. In Option A, the main subject 'One' takes singular 'was missing'. In Option C, 'Each' takes singular 'has performed'. In Option D, 'The list' takes singular 'is attached'.

विकल्प B व्याकरण की दृष्टि से पूर्णतः सही है: 'Scarcely had... when' का सहसंबंधी ढांचा (correlative inversion) सही ढंग से प्रयुक्त हुआ है। विकल्प A में 'One' के लिए 'was' आना चाहिए, C में 'Each' के लिए 'has' तथा D में 'The list' के लिए 'is' आना चाहिए।

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924📚Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
A) Neither the teacher nor the students were aware of the sudden change in schedule.
B) One of the most important factors influencing the results are temperature variations.
C) The number of applicants have increased significantly this year.
D) Each of the proposals submitted by the researchers were carefully examined.

Explanation

Option A is correct: When two subjects are connected by 'neither... nor', the verb agrees with the closer subject (proximity rule). Since 'the students' is plural, the plural verb 'were' is correct. In B, 'One' requires 'is'. In C, 'The number' takes singular verb 'has'. In D, 'Each' takes singular verb 'was'.

विकल्प A सही है: 'Neither... nor' के प्रयोग में क्रिया निकटतम कर्ता के अनुसार आती है (निकटता का नियम)। यहाँ 'the students' बहुवचन है, अतः 'were' बिल्कुल सही है। विकल्प B में 'is', C में 'has' तथा D में 'was' होना चाहिए था।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

925📚General Awareness & ScienceDefense and Technology

Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Mark-1 has been developed by which organization?
A) Defense Research and Development Organization
B) Bharat Dynamics Limited
C) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
D) Air India

Explanation

The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas was designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) under DRDO and developed and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force.

तेजस लाइट कॉम्बैट एयरक्राफ्ट (LCA) मार्क-1 को हिंदुस्तान एयरोनॉटिक्स लिमिटेड (HAL) द्वारा निर्मित और विकसित किया गया है। इसका डिजाइन एयरोनॉटिकल डेवलपमेंट एजेंसी (ADA) द्वारा तैयार किया गया था।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

926📚General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs and Union Budget

What is/are NOT the features of the BioPharma SHAKTI mission proposed in the Union Budget 2026-27?
I. The initiative aims to strengthen India's biopharmaceutical manufacturing sector with an outlay of about Rs. 1 crore over five years.
II. It envisages strengthening India's ecosystem for the production of biologics and biosimilars and capturing 5% of the global biopharmaceutical market share.
Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I is NOT a feature because the financial outlay for the BioPharma SHAKTI mission is ₹10,000 crore over five years (not ₹1 crore). Statement II is an accurate feature of the mission, which aims to capture a 5% global market share in biologics and biosimilars. Hence, only Statement I is NOT a feature.

कथन I एक विशेषता नहीं है क्योंकि बायोफार्मा शक्ति मिशन के लिए वित्तीय परिव्यय 5 वर्षों में ₹10,000 करोड़ है (₹1 करोड़ नहीं)। कथन II सही विशेषता है (5% वैश्विक बाजार हिस्सेदारी प्राप्त करना)। अतः केवल कथन I गलत/विशेषता नहीं है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

927📚General Awareness & ScienceSocio-Religious Reform Movements

Which of the following statements about the Arya Samaj is/are INCORRECT?
I. It was founded by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1875.
II. It strictly rejected the authority of the Vedas.
Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect. Arya Samaj was founded in Bombay in 1875 by Swami Dayanand Saraswati (not Sahajanand Saraswati, who was a peasant leader). Furthermore, Arya Samaj regarded the Vedas as infallible divine truth and raised the slogan 'Go Back to the Vedas' (it did not reject the Vedas). Hence, Both I and II are incorrect.

दोनों कथन गलत हैं। आर्य समाज की स्थापना 1875 में बंबई में स्वामी दयानंद सरस्वती ने की थी (सहजानंद ने नहीं)। साथ ही, आर्य समाज ने वेदों को सर्वोच्च एवं अकाट्य प्रमाण माना तथा 'वेदों की ओर लौटो' का नारा दिया (वेदों को खारिज नहीं किया)। अतः I और II दोनों कथन गलत हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

928📚General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Infrastructure - USBRL Project

Identify the correct statements about the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project:
I. Indian Railway's first cable-stayed bridge has been constructed over the Anji Khad in this project.
II. The iconic 1315 m long Chenab bridge is the World's highest railway arch bridge, standing 359 m above the river bed.
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Explanation

Both statements are correct: I. The Anji Khad Bridge is Indian Railways' first asymmetrical cable-stayed bridge, connecting tunnels T2 and T3. II. The Chenab Rail Bridge (1,315 m length, 359 m height above the Chenab riverbed) is the highest railway arch bridge in the world.

दोनों कथन सत्य हैं: I. अंजी खड्ड पुल भारतीय रेलवे का पहला केबल-स्टेड रेलवे पुल है। II. चिनाब रेलवे पुल 359 मीटर की ऊंचाई और 1315 मीटर की लंबाई के साथ दुनिया का सबसे ऊंचा रेलवे आर्च पुल है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

929📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryWater Conservation & Rainwater Harvesting

Which of the following is/are examples of In-situ rainwater harvesting?

Explanation

- In-situ rainwater harvesting refers to harvesting rainfall directly where it falls, storing moisture within the soil profile of the agricultural field itself through agronomic and soil conservation practices such as mulching, contour bunding, terracing, contour farming, and broad bed furrows.
- Ex-situ rainwater harvesting involves capturing and storing surface runoff into structures outside the soil profile, such as farm ponds, check dams, rooftop cisterns, and underground storage tanks.

- इन-सिटू (स्व-स्थाने) वर्षा जल संचयन का अर्थ है वर्षा की बूंदों को सीधे वहीं संरक्षित करना जहाँ वे गिरती हैं, अर्थात् खेत की मिट्टी के भीतर नमी के रूप में संचित करना। इसके लिए मल्चिंग, कंटूर बंडिंग (समोच्च मेड़बंदी), सीढ़ीदार खेती आदि तकनीकों का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
- फार्म पॉन्ड, छत का जल संचयन और भूमिगत टैंक एक्स-सिटू (बाह्य) भंडारण के उदाहरण हैं।
अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प D है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department

930📚

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: No one imagined that such ___ heinous crime could occur inside ___ victim's house.

Explanation

"Such a heinous crime" uses the indefinite article "a" after "such" for a singular countable noun. "Inside the victim's house" refers to the specific victim of the crime, requiring "the".

"Such" के बाद एकवचन गणनीय संज्ञा के साथ 'a' का प्रयोग होता है ("such a heinous crime")। विशिष्ट पीड़ित के घर का संदर्भ होने के कारण दूसरे रिक्त स्थान में 'the' आएगा। अतः सही उत्तर 'a, the' है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

931📚

Which of the following sentences contains an inchoative verb?

Explanation

An inchoative verb expresses the beginning of an action or a process of becoming or changing state. "Darkened" indicates the beginning/transition into the state of being dark.

इनकॉएटिव क्रिया (Inchoative verb) किसी अवस्था में परिवर्तन या प्रक्रिया की शुरुआत को दर्शाती है। "Darkened" का अर्थ है अंधकारमय होना या अंधकार में बदलना।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

932📚

As the night advanced, the air ___ cooler.

Explanation

The clause "As the night advanced" is in the simple past tense, requiring the simple past form "grew" in the main clause for grammatical consistency.

वाक्य का पहला भाग भूतकाल में है ("advanced"), इसलिए मुख्य खंड में भी भूतकाल क्रिया "grew" का प्रयोग होगा।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

933📚

Which form of verb is used in the sentence below? "The apparatus functioned as it was originally designed to do, but only after repeated trials."

Explanation

In the clause "The apparatus functioned", the verb "functioned" does not take a direct object. Therefore, it functions as an intransitive verb.

"The apparatus functioned" में क्रिया "functioned" का कोई प्रत्यक्ष कर्म (direct object) नहीं है, इसलिए यह एक अकर्मक क्रिया (Intransitive Verb) है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

934📚

In which sentence is the determiner wrongly used?

Explanation

"Students" is a plural countable noun, which requires "many" rather than "much". "Much" is used with uncountable nouns. The correct phrasing is "Not many students".

"Students" बहुवचन गणनीय संज्ञा है, इसलिए इसके साथ 'much' के स्थान पर 'many' का प्रयोग होना चाहिए ("Not many students")। अतः विकल्प C में निर्धारक का गलत प्रयोग हुआ है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

935📚

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

Explanation

Option B uses the correct inverted correlative structure "Hardly had ... when ...". Option A is incorrect because "Neither of" takes a singular verb ("was"). Option C is incorrect because "Each of" takes a singular verb ("has").

विकल्प B में "Hardly had ... when ..." का बिल्कुल सही प्रयोग हुआ है। विकल्प A में 'Neither of' के साथ एकवचन 'was' आना चाहिए, और C में 'Each of' के साथ 'has' आना चाहिए।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

936📚

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence: "The committee was divided in its opinion, and the chairman's remarks only add fuel in the fire."

Explanation

The correct idiom is "to add fuel to the fire". Since the sentence is in past tense ("was divided"), the correct form is "added fuel to the fire".

सही मुहावरा "add fuel to the fire" (आग में घी डालना) होता है। चूँकि वाक्य भूतकाल में है ("was divided"), इसलिए सही रूप "added fuel to the fire" होगा।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

937📚

Consider the following statements regarding the glaciers of the Jammu and Kashmir region:
I. The Kolahoi Glacier, also known as the "Goddess of Light," is the largest in the Kashmir Valley and is the primary source of the Lidder River.
II. The Thajwas Glacier, in the Sonamarg region, is a popular "hanging glacier" accessible to tourists.
III. The Machoi glacier, in the Sonamarg region, majorly feeds water to the Sind and Dras rivers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

All three statements are correct: Kolahoi ('Gwash Brari' or Goddess of Light) is the largest valley glacier in Kashmir and feeds the Lidder River; Thajwas is an easily accessible hanging glacier near Sonamarg; and Machoi glacier situated near Zoji La feeds both the Sind River and the Dras River.

तीनों कथन सही हैं: कोलाहोई ग्लेशियर ('ग्वाश ब्रारी' या प्रकाश की देवी) कश्मीर घाटी का सबसे बड़ा हिमनद है और लिद्दर नदी का स्रोत है; थाजवास सोनमर्ग के पास एक लोकप्रिय हैंगिंग ग्लेशियर है; तथा जोजिला के पास स्थित माचोई ग्लेशियर सिंध और द्रास दोनों नदियों को जल प्रदान करता है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

938📚

Which of the following statements about the Peer Kho Cave Temple is/are correct?
I. A historic cave temple located near Jammu city was constructed by the first Dogra ruler, Maharaja Gulab Singh.
II. The lingam is located inside a small cave embellished with a white marble rectangular platform.
III. The cave is also known as the Jamavant Guffa, as the bear hero of Ramayana is believed to have meditated in Guffa.

Explanation

Statements II and III are correct: The Shiva lingam is situated on a marble platform inside the cave, and it is traditionally revered as Jamavant Guffa where the legendary Jambavan meditated. Statement I is incorrect because the temple is an ancient site historically linked to Raja Ajaib Dev (15th century) and Guru Gorakhnath, not built by Maharaja Gulab Singh.

कथन II और III सही हैं: शिवलिंग गुफा के भीतर संगमरमर के चबूतरे पर स्थापित है और इसे जामवंत गुफा भी कहा जाता है जहाँ जामवंत जी ने तपस्या की थी। कथन I गलत है क्योंकि यह मंदिर प्राचीन है और इसका ऐतिहासिक संबंध 15वीं सदी के राजा अजायब देव से है, इसका निर्माण गुलाब सिंह ने नहीं कराया था। अतः केवल II और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)

939📚

Which of the following is not a Multilateral Environmental Agreement (MEA) related to climate change?

Explanation

CITES regulates international trade in wild fauna and flora to prevent species endangerment. UNFCCC, Kyoto Protocol, and Paris Agreement are multilateral treaties specifically focused on climate change.

CITES वन्य जीवों और वनस्पतियों की लुप्तप्राय प्रजातियों के अंतर्राष्ट्रीय व्यापार को नियंत्रित करता है, जबकि UNFCCC, क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल और पेरिस समझौता जलवायु परिवर्तन से संबंधित हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

940📚

Consider the following statements regarding abiotic and biotic components of the environment:
I. Abiotic components are governed primarily by physical and chemical laws and do not reproduce.
II. Biotic components include only plants and animals, excluding microorganisms.
III. Interaction between abiotic and biotic components determines productivity and carrying capacity of an ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct (abiotic components are non-living physical/chemical factors). Statement II is incorrect because biotic components include microorganisms, bacteria, and fungi. Statement III is correct. Thus, I and III only are correct.

कथन I सही है। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि जैविक घटकों में सूक्ष्मजीव (जीवाणु, कवक आदि) भी शामिल होते हैं। कथन III सही है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

941📚

Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010:
I. NGT primarily hears civil disputes arising under specified environmental enactments.
II. Orders of NGT are appealable only before the respective High Court.
III. NGT can frame new criminal substantive law and independently prosecute offenders under the IPC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: NGT has civil jurisdiction over environmental matters involving a substantial question relating to the environment. Statement II is incorrect because under Section 22 of the NGT Act, appeals lie directly to the Supreme Court of India. Statement III is incorrect because NGT cannot frame criminal laws. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

कथन I सही है (NGT पर्यावरण से जुड़े दीवानी मामलों की सुनवाई करता है)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि NGT के आदेशों के खिलाफ अपील सीधे सर्वोच्च न्यायालय (Supreme Court) में होती है। कथन III गलत है। अतः केवल कथन I सही है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

942📚

Consider the following statements regarding non-renewable resources and health hazards:
I. Coal and petroleum are non-renewable resources whose extraction often leads to land subsidence and acid mine drainage.
II. Long-term exposure to groundwater contaminated with arsenic is associated with skin lesions and black-foot disease.
III. Indoor air pollution from solid-fuel stoves does not cause any significant health burden in developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because indoor/household air pollution from burning biomass and solid fuels is one of the leading global causes of respiratory mortality and disease burden in developing nations. Thus, I and II only are correct.

कथन I और II सही हैं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि ठोस ईंधन से होने वाला इनडोर वायु प्रदूषण विकासशील देशों में श्वसन रोगों और मृत्यु दर का एक बड़ा कारण है। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

943📚

Consider the following statements regarding pollution indices and environmental events:
I. The Air Quality Index (AQI) in India is based on the concentration of multiple pollutants including PM2.5, PM10, NO2, and CO.
II. The Pollutant Standards Index (PSI) is used in India as the primary national air quality index.
III. The Montreal Protocol (1987) is an international agreement aimed at protecting the ozone layer by phasing out ozone depleting substances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct: India's National AQI considers 8 pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, Pb), and Montreal Protocol phases out ozone-depleting substances. Statement II is incorrect because India uses the National Air Quality Index (NAQI), not the US PSI. Thus, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं (भारत का राष्ट्रीय AQI 8 प्रदूषकों पर आधारित है और मॉन्ट्रियल प्रोटोकॉल ओजोन क्षयकारी पदार्थों से संबंधित है)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि भारत में NAQI लागू है, PSI नहीं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

944📚

Match List-I (Environmental Agreement) with List-II (Year / Description) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Stockholm
ii. Rio
iii. Kyoto
iv. Paris
List-II:
a. 1997 targets
b. 1992 Agenda 21
c. 1972 first UN conf
d. 2015 global agreement

Explanation

Stockholm Conference took place in 1972 (i-c); Rio Summit in 1992 adopted Agenda 21 (ii-b); Kyoto Protocol in 1997 set emission reduction targets (iii-a); Paris Agreement in 2015 is the global climate accord (iv-d). Hence, i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d.

स्टॉकहोम 1972 पहला सम्मेलन (i-c); रियो 1992 एजेंडा 21 (ii-b); क्योटो 1997 उत्सर्जन लक्ष्य (iii-a); पेरिस 2015 वैश्विक समझौता (iv-d)। अतः सही कूट i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

945📚

Arrange the following environmental events in chronological order (earliest first):
I. Earth Summit (Rio Earth Summit)
II. Stockholm Conference on Human Environment
III. Adoption of the Kyoto Protocol
IV. Paris Agreement on Climate Change
Choose the correct order:

Explanation

Chronological order: II. Stockholm Conference (1972) -> I. Rio Earth Summit (1992) -> III. Kyoto Protocol (1997) -> IV. Paris Agreement (2015). Thus, II - I - III - IV.

सही कालक्रम: II. स्टॉकहोम सम्मेलन (1972) -> I. रियो पृथ्वी सम्मेलन (1992) -> III. क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल (1997) -> IV. पेरिस समझौता (2015)। अतः सही क्रम II - I - III - IV है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

946📚

Consider the following statements about sewage discharge and design periods:
I. Per-capita sewage generated is generally taken as about 75-85% of per-capita water supplied.
II. The average daily sewage flow is sufficient for sizing all components of the sewerage system without any peak-factor consideration.
III. Design periods for sewers are usually longer than those for treatment-plant components.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because sewer pipelines must be sized to carry peak flow (using a peak factor of 2.0 to 3.0) to prevent overflow during maximum discharge hours. Thus, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि सीवर पाइपों का डिजाइन पीक डिस्चार्ज (पीक फैक्टर 2 से 3) के आधार पर किया जाता है, केवल औसत प्रवाह पर नहीं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

947📚

Consider the following statements regarding unit operations in water and wastewater treatment:
I. Coagulation neutralizes the surface charge of colloids, while flocculation promotes their aggregation.
II. Sedimentation tanks are designed mainly for the removal of dissolved organics.
III. Adsorption (e.g., using activated carbon) is effective for removing color, taste-and-odor compounds, and some micropollutants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because sedimentation tanks are designed to remove settleable suspended solids, not dissolved organics (which require biological treatment or advanced oxidation). Thus, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि अवसादन टैंक निलंबित ठोस कणों को तल में बैठाने के लिए होते हैं, घुले हुए कार्बनिक पदार्थों को हटाने के लिए नहीं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

948📚

Consider the following statements regarding biological treatment systems:
I. Trickling filters are attached-growth systems in which wastewater trickles over a media bed.
II. Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR) is a suspended-growth system that operates in time-phased cycles in a single tank.
III. Anaerobic filters are used only for treating sewage and not for industrial effluents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because anaerobic filters are extensively employed to treat high-strength industrial wastewaters (distillery, dairy, pharmaceutical, and chemical effluents). Thus, I and II only are correct.

कथन I और II सही हैं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि अवायवीय फिल्टरों का उपयोग औद्योगिक अपशिष्ट जल (जैसे डेयरी, डिस्टिलरी आदि) के उपचार में व्यापक रूप से होता है। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

949📚

Consider the following statements regarding nitrification and denitrification:
I. Nitrification converts ammonium (NH4+) to nitrate (NO3-) under aerobic conditions.
II. Denitrification converts nitrate (NO3-) to nitrogen gas (N2) under anaerobic/anoxic conditions.
III. Both processes are performed by the same group of autotrophic bacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because nitrification is carried out by obligate autotrophic bacteria (Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter), whereas denitrification is conducted by facultative heterotrophic bacteria in anoxic environments. Thus, I and II only are correct.

कथन I और II सही हैं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि नाइट्रीकरण स्वपोषी जीवाणुओं (नाइट्रोसोमोनास, नाइट्रोबैक्टर) द्वारा होता है जबकि विनाइट्रीकरण विषमपोषी (हेटरोट्रॉफिक) जीवाणुओं द्वारा एनोक्सिक परिस्थितियों में होता है। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

950📚

Match List-I (Industrial Effluent) with List-II (Characteristics / Major Issues) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Textile
ii. Tannery
iii. Dairy
iv. Distillery
List-II:
a. Salinity/Anaerobic
b. Nutrients/Fats
c. Colour/Dyes
d. Organics/Chromium

Explanation

Textile effluent is characterized by intense color and synthetic dyes (i-c); Tannery effluent carries high organics and heavy metal Chromium (ii-d); Dairy effluent contains fats, oils, and organic nutrients (iii-b); Distillery effluent (spent wash) has high salinity and requires anaerobic treatment (iv-a). Thus, i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.

कपड़ा उद्योग = रंग व रंजक (i-c); टैनरी = क्रोमियम व भारी कार्बनिक पदार्थ (ii-d); डेयरी = वसा व पोषक तत्व (iii-b); डिस्टिलरी = उच्च लवणता व अवायवीय उपचार (i-a)। अतः सही कूट i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a है।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

951📚

Consider the following statements regarding physical characteristics of water and sewage:
I. Turbidity is a measure of light-scattering due to suspended solids.
II. Colour in water is mainly a biological characteristic related to algal blooms.
III. Temperature affects the solubility of gases and the rate of biochemical reactions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because colour is formally classified as a physical characteristic of water, caused by dissolved humus, peat materials, or metallic ions. Thus, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि पानी में रंग (Colour) को भौतिक विशेषता के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया जाता है (जो घुलित ह्यूमस या खनिजों से उत्पन्न होता है)। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

952📚

Consider the following statements regarding chemical characteristics:
I. COD usually gives a higher value than BOD for the same wastewater sample.
II. High hardness in water is mainly due to dissolved Ca2+ and Mg2+ salts.
III. BOD is used to estimate the concentration of inorganic salts in water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because BOD measures organic biodegradable matter, not inorganic mineral salts. Thus, I and II only are correct.

कथन I और II सही हैं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि BOD कार्बनिक पदार्थों के अपघटन को मापता है, अकार्बनिक लवणों को नहीं। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

953📚

Consider the following statements regarding biological characteristics and performance evaluation:
I. Presence of coliforms in treated effluent indicates possible faecal contamination.
II. High Sludge Volume Index (SVI) indicates poor settling characteristics of secondary sludge.
III. Performance evaluation of a plant should be done only once, after construction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because performance evaluation must be conducted continuously or periodically throughout the plant's operational life to ensure regulatory compliance and process control. Thus, I and II only are correct.

कथन I और II सही हैं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि अपशिष्ट जल उपचार संयंत्र का प्रदर्शन मूल्यांकन नियमित और निरंतर आधार पर किया जाना चाहिए, केवल निर्माण के बाद एक बार नहीं। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

954📚

Consider the following statements regarding self-purification and parameter interpretation:
I. Satisfying oxygen demand in a stream promotes self-purification.
II. High temperature always reduces the self-purification capacity of a stream.
III. Complete oxidation of organic matter by microorganisms produces CO2, H2O and inorganic salts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct: Oxygen replenishment enables aerobic mineralization into CO2, H2O, nitrates, and sulfates. Statement II is incorrect because while higher temperature slightly lowers oxygen saturation solubility, it significantly accelerates the biological reaction rates and reaeration velocity; thus it does not 'always reduce' capacity. Hence, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं (ऑक्सीजन मिलने से एरोबिक अपघटन बढ़ता है और पूर्ण ऑक्सीकरण से CO2, जल और लवण बनते हैं)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि तापमान बढ़ने से सूक्ष्मजीवों की रासायनिक प्रतिक्रिया दर भी तेज होती है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

955📚

Consider the following statements regarding EIA basics:
I. EIA aims to predict environmental impacts at an early stage in project planning and design.
II. EIA is only a technical document with no legal or policy implications.
III. Public participation is an important part of the EIA process in many national legislations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because EIA is a legally mandated statutory instrument under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, carrying binding legal clearance conditions and enforcement liabilities. Thus, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि EIA केवल तकनीकी दस्तावेज नहीं है, बल्कि यह कानूनी रूप से बाध्यकारी वैधानिक प्रक्रिया है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

956📚

Consider the following statements regarding EIS and EMP:
I. The Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is essentially a written compilation of EIA findings.
II. The Environment Management Plan (EMP) is implemented only after project completion.
III. Mitigation and monitoring measures are part of the EMP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because the EMP must be implemented from pre-construction, throughout construction, and during the operational lifespan of the project, not merely after project completion. Thus, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि EMP निर्माण-पूर्व, निर्माण और संचालन के दौरान लागू किया जाता है, केवल परियोजना पूरी होने के बाद नहीं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

957📚

Consider the following statements regarding impact prediction and assessment:
I. Impacts on air, water, biota, noise, cultural, and socio-economic environment are normally assessed in an EIA.
II. Cultural heritage sites and socio-economic structures are excluded from EIA coverage.
III. The impact of construction and infrastructure development on land typically includes habitat loss, soil erosion, and water-related pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because cultural heritage, historical monuments, and socio-economic displacement are explicitly included in EIA terms of reference. Thus, I and III only are correct.

कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि सांस्कृतिक विरासत और सामाजिक-आर्थिक संरचनाएं EIA अध्ययन का अनिवार्य हिस्सा होती हैं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

958📚

Consider the following statements about rapid vs comprehensive EIA and GIS use:
I. Rapid EIA studies usually cover shorter time-frames and less detailed field work than comprehensive EIA.
II. Comprehensive EIA is often required for projects with high potential Environmental impact.
III. GIS and remote sensing are used in EIA mainly for printing brochures and advertisements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct (Rapid EIA uses one season; Comprehensive EIA spans full year/multi-season monitoring). Statement III is incorrect because GIS and RS are powerful spatial analysis tools, not for printing advertising brochures. Thus, I and II only are correct.

कथन I और II सही हैं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि GIS और रिमोट सेंसिंग वैज्ञानिक स्थानिक विश्लेषण उपकरण हैं, प्रचार ब्रोशर छापने के लिए नहीं। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

959📚

Consider the following statements regarding the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986:
I. It was passed to give effect to the decisions of the Stockholm Conference (1972).
II. Section 5 empowers the Central Government to issue binding directions, including closure of industries.
III. The Act explicitly repeals all other environmental laws (Water Act, Air Act, Forest Act).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct (passed under Article 253 to implement Stockholm decisions). Statement II is correct (Section 5 empowers the Central Government to issue binding closure orders and disconnect essential services). Statement III is incorrect because the EPA 1986 does not repeal earlier legislation like the Water Act 1974 or Air Act 1981; it acts as an umbrella act to supplement and harmonize them.

कथन I सही है (स्टॉकहोम 1972 के निर्णयों को लागू करने के लिए पारित)। कथन II सही है (धारा 5 केंद्र सरकार को बाध्यकारी बंदी आदेश और सेवाएं रोकने का अधिकार देती है)। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि EPA 1986 पिछले कानूनों जैसे जल अधिनियम 1974 या वायु अधिनियम 1981 को निरस्त नहीं करता है, बल्कि उनके साथ पूरक समन्वय स्थापित करता है। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

960📚

Consider the following statements regarding the EIA Notification, 2006:
I. It categorizes projects into Category A (national level) and Category B (state level).
II. Category B projects are appraised only by the national-level Impact Assessment Agency (IAA).
III. The EIA cycle (post 2006) comprises screening, scoping, public hearing, and appraisal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: EIA 2006 decentralized clearances into Category A (MoEFCC/national) and Category B (SEIAA/state). Statement II is incorrect: Category B projects are appraised at the State level by State Expert Appraisal Committees (SEAC) and SEIAA, not at the national level. Statement III is correct: The four defined stages in the environmental clearance process are Screening, Scoping, Public Consultation, and Appraisal. Thus, Statements I and III are correct.

कथन I सही है: EIA 2006 ने परियोजनाओं को श्रेणी A (राष्ट्रीय) और श्रेणी B (राज्य) में विभाजित किया। कथन II गलत है: श्रेणी B परियोजनाओं का मूल्यांकन राज्य स्तर पर SEAC और SEIAA द्वारा किया जाता है, राष्ट्रीय एजेंसी द्वारा नहीं। कथन III सही है: पर्यावरणीय मंजूरी की चार क्रमिक अवस्थाएं स्क्रीनिंग, स्कोपिंग, जन परामर्श और मूल्यांकन हैं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

961📚

Consider the following statements about the Water (P&CP) Act, 1974:
I. CPCB and SPCBs have powers to set water quality and effluent standards under the Act.
II. The Act does not deal with groundwater at all.
III. Monitoring of river-quality and industrial effluents is a key function of the Boards under this Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Laying down effluent standards and stream standards is entrusted to SPCBs (Section 17) and CPCB (Section 16). Statement II is incorrect: Under Section 2(j) and 2(m), 'stream' and 'well' explicitly include subterranean waters, meaning groundwater is covered under the regulatory scope of the Water Act. Statement III is correct: Regular surveillance and monitoring of river basins and industrial effluent discharges is a statutory function. Thus, Statements I and III are correct.

कथन I सही है: बहिःस्राव और जल गुणवत्ता मानक निर्धारित करना CPCB (धारा 16) और SPCB (धारा 17) का कार्य है। कथन II गलत है: अधिनियम की धारा 2(j) और 2(m) में 'धारा' और 'कुएं' की परिभाषा में भूमिगत जल (भूजल) भी शामिल है, इसलिए भूजल इसके दायरे में आता है। कथन III सही है: नदियों और औद्योगिक अपशिष्टों की गुणवत्ता की निगरानी बोर्डों का मुख्य कार्य है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

962📚

Consider the following statements related to the Air (P&CP) Act, 1981:
I. The Act provides for establishment of CPCB and State-level air-pollution boards.
II. Ambient air-quality monitoring and emission-standards are regulated under this Act.
III. Public hearings for every individual air-pollution complaint are mandatory under Section 19.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Under Sections 3 and 4 of the Air Act 1981, the Boards established under the Water Act 1974 function as the Central and State Boards for Air Pollution Control. Statement II is correct: Laying down National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) and industrial emission standards are statutory functions under Section 16 and 17. Statement III is incorrect: Section 19 provides for the declaration of air pollution control areas by the State Government, not mandatory public hearings for every private complaint.

कथन I सही है: वायु अधिनियम की धारा 3 और 4 के अनुसार जल अधिनियम के तहत गठित CPCB और SPCB ही वायु प्रदूषण नियंत्रण के कार्यों का निर्वहन करते हैं। कथन II सही है: परिवेशी वायु गुणवत्ता निगरानी और उत्सर्जन मानकों का निर्धारण इस अधिनियम के मुख्य कार्य हैं। कथन III गलत है: धारा 19 वायु प्रदूषण नियंत्रण क्षेत्रों की घोषणा से संबंधित है, व्यक्तिगत शिकायतों पर जन सुनवाई से नहीं। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

963📚

Consider the following statements about Environmental and Safety Audits:
I. Environmental Audit verifies compliance with laws and effectiveness of an EMS.
II. Safety Audit is primarily a one-time exercise for project-inception only.
III. Regular audits contribute to continuous improvement of performance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: An Environmental Audit verifies statutory compliance and EMS effectiveness. Statement II is incorrect: A Safety Audit is not a one-time initial event; it is an ongoing, periodic evaluation conducted at regular intervals throughout the operational lifecycle. Statement III is correct: Regular systematic audits drive the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle for continuous environmental and safety improvements. Thus, Statements I and III are correct.

कथन I सही है: पर्यावरणीय ऑडिट कानूनों के अनुपालन और पर्यावरण प्रबंधन प्रणाली की कार्यक्षमता का सत्यापन करता है। कथन II गलत है: सुरक्षा ऑडिट कोई एकमुश्त अभ्यास नहीं है, बल्कि संयंत्र के पूरे जीवन चक्र में नियमित रूप से आवधिक अंतराल पर किया जाता है। कथन III सही है: नियमित ऑडिट से प्रदर्शन में निरंतर सुधार होता है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

964📚

Consider the following statements about On-Site Emergency Plan (OSEP):
I. OSEP is required mainly for high-hazard industries (e.g., MAH units).
II. OSEP is prepared only by the local fire-department, not by the occupier.
III. OSEP includes incident-control organization, alarms, and evacuation routes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Major hazard units carrying toxic or flammable inventories are strictly required to have an OSEP. Statement II is incorrect: The statutory responsibility to prepare the On-Site Emergency Plan lies with the occupier/factory management (under Section 41-B of the Factories Act and MSIHC Rules), while the Off-Site plan is prepared by the District Authority. Statement III is correct: An OSEP must detail the incident controller hierarchy, communication systems, alarm protocols, and marked escape/evacuation routes. Thus, Statements I and III are correct.

कथन I सही है: उच्च जोखिम वाले रासायनिक और खतरनाक उद्योगों (MAH) के लिए OSEP अनिवार्य है। कथन II गलत है: ऑन-साइट योजना तैयार करने की कानूनी जिम्मेदारी कारखाने के अधिभोगी/प्रबंधन की होती है, दमकल विभाग की नहीं (ऑफ-साइट योजना जिला प्रशासन द्वारा तैयार की जाती है)। कथन III सही है: OSEP में आपातकालीन नेतृत्व, सायरन प्रणाली और सुरक्षित निकासी मार्ग स्पष्ट होते हैं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

965📚

Consider the following statements about Off-site emergency and disaster management plans:
I. Off-site emergency plan involves coordination between industries, fire-services, and district administration.
II. A Disaster-Management Plan (DMP) must rely solely on government assistance.
III. Both on-site and off-site plans should be reviewed and tested periodically through drills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement I is correct: An Off-site plan establishes integrated coordination among industries, police, fire department, public health agencies, and the district magistrate. Statement II is incorrect: Industrial disaster management plans rely heavily on internal self-sufficiency, mutual aid schemes among neighboring industries, and private safety infrastructure, rather than depending solely on external government help. Statement III is correct: Regular table-top exercises and full-scale mock drills are mandatory to maintain readiness. Thus, Statements I and III are correct.

कथन I सही है: ऑफ-साइट योजना में जिला प्रशासन, अग्निशमन, पुलिस, अस्पतालों और उद्योगों के बीच अंतर-एजेंसी समन्वय शामिल होता है। कथन II गलत है: आपदा प्रबंधन योजना केवल सरकारी मदद पर निर्भर नहीं होती, बल्कि आंतरिक आपातकालीन दलों और पड़ोसी उद्योगों के बीच पारस्परिक सहायता (Mutual Aid) पर भी आधारित होती है। कथन III सही है: मॉक ड्रिल द्वारा योजनाओं का नियमित परीक्षण अनिवार्य है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

966📚

Consider the following statements about audits in relation to emergency plans:
I. Environmental Audit can include review of emergency plans as part of EMS.
II. Safety Audit may assess emergency-response training and equipment readiness.
III. Conducting an audit eliminates all risk of accidents, making plans unnecessary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statements I and II are correct: Both Environmental Audits (under ISO 14001 EMS) and Safety Audits routinely evaluate the adequacy, training, equipment, and testing of emergency response protocols. Statement III is false: Audits identify risks and system deficiencies, but no audit can eliminate 100% of hazard risks or render emergency preparedness plans obsolete. Thus, Statements I and II are correct.

कथन I और II सही हैं: पर्यावरण ऑडिट (EMS के तहत) और सुरक्षा ऑडिट दोनों ही आपातकालीन योजनाओं, कर्मियों के प्रशिक्षण और उपकरणों की तत्परता की समीक्षा करते हैं। कथन III गलत है: कोई भी ऑडिट दुर्घटना के सभी जोखिमों को पूरी तरह समाप्त नहीं कर सकता और आपातकालीन योजनाओं की आवश्यकता कभी समाप्त नहीं होती। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।

2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department

967📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

In the following question, find out which part of the sentence has an error:
"Roger dressed (A) / in is best shirt, (B) / silver tie and black look. (C) / No Error (D)"

Explanation

Part (B) contains a grammatical error: the third-person singular possessive pronoun 'his' is mistakenly replaced with the verb 'is' ("in is best shirt"). It should correctly read: "in his best shirt".

भाग (B) में त्रुटि है। यहाँ संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम 'his' के स्थान पर 'is' का प्रयोग किया गया है। सही रूप "in his best shirt" होना चाहिए।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

968📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

In the following question, find out which part of the sentence has an error:
"They are looking forward (A) / to meet (B) / their parents (C) / No Error (D)"

Explanation

In the phrasal verb 'look forward to', the word 'to' acts as a preposition, which must always be followed by a noun or gerund (V-ing form), never a bare infinitive. Therefore, 'to meet' should be corrected to 'to meeting' in part (B).

भाग (B) में त्रुटि है। Phrasal verb 'look forward to' के बाद हमेशा Gerund (V-ing रूप) का प्रयोग होता है। अतः 'to meet' के स्थान पर 'to meeting' होना चाहिए।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

969📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option:
"He ran so fast _______"

Explanation

The correlative conjunction structure 'so + adjective/adverb + that + clause' expresses cause and result. Furthermore, since the main verb 'ran' is in the past tense, the result clause must also be in the past tense: "that he fell".

कोरिलेटिव कंजंक्शन 'so ... that' परिणाम को व्यक्त करता है। चूँकि मुख्य क्रिया 'ran' भूतकाल (Past Tense) में है, इसलिए आश्रित उपवाक्य भी Past Tense में होगा: "that he fell"।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

970📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option:
"The doctor has been _______ to attend to an urgent case."

Explanation

In the official paper, the passive construction is completed with the past participle 'called' ("The doctor has been called to attend..."), meaning summoned.

पैसिव वॉइस संरचना में 'The doctor has been called...' (डॉक्टर को बुलाया गया है) के रूप में past participle called का प्रयोग सही है।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

971📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence:
"The teacher congratulated the blind student [for his] success in the exam."

Explanation

The standard preposition that follows the verb congratulate is 'on' (e.g., 'to congratulate someone on an achievement/success'). Hence, 'for his' must be replaced by 'on his'.

अंग्रेजी में क्रिया 'congratulate' के बाद निश्चित Preposition 'on' का प्रयोग होता है (Congratulate someone on something)। अतः 'for his' के स्थान पर 'on his' सही सुधार है।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

972📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence:
"I am sorry but I [will not believe] the story when you say two plus two equals five."

Explanation

'Believe' is a stative verb representing an ongoing cognitive state in the present. In the context of a general present truth ('when you say two plus two equals five'), the simple present negative 'do not believe' is the appropriate grammatical form.

'Believe' एक Stative Verb है जो वर्तमान की स्थिति को दर्शाती है। वर्तमान संदर्भ में 'will not believe' के स्थान पर Simple Present Tense का प्रयोग 'do not believe' होना चाहिए।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

973📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence:
"Due to rain, the builders have [stopped from constructing] the bridge."

Explanation

When the verb stop means to cease an ongoing activity, it takes a direct gerund as its object ('stop doing something'), without the preposition 'from'. Thus, it should be 'stopped constructing'.

क्रिया 'stop' के बाद जब किसी कार्य को रोकने का उल्लेख हो, तो सीधे Gerund का प्रयोग होता है (stop doing something), इसमें 'from' नहीं लगाया जाता। अतः सही सुधार 'stopped constructing' है।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

974📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

Why are ants called Earth's most successful species?

Explanation

The opening lines of the passage state: "Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet... For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species." Option 3 correctly combines both stated reasons.

गद्यांश की पहली पंक्तियों में स्पष्ट लिखा है कि चींटियाँ 100 मिलियन से अधिक वर्षों से पृथ्वी पर रह रही हैं और वे पृथ्वी पर लगभग हर जगह पाई जाती हैं, इसी कारण उन्हें सबसे सफल प्रजाति कहा गया है।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

975📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Explanation

The passage explicitly states: "Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae." Hence, antennae are used to communicate.

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है: 'Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae' (चींटियाँ अपने एंटेना से एक-दूसरे को छूकर संवाद करती हैं)।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

976📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Explanation

The passage states: "Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter."

गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि वेस्टर्न हार्वेस्टर चींटियाँ सर्दियों के दौरान शीतनिद्रा (hibernate) में रहने के लिए 15 फीट नीचे तक सुरंग बनाती हैं।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

977📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Explanation

The passage states: "Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food."

गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से बताया गया है: 'Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food' (आर्मी चींटियाँ घर नहीं बनातीं बल्कि भोजन की तलाश में घूमती हैं)।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission

978📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms

Explanation

The passage explicitly notes: "The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long."

गद्यांश में कहा गया है: 'The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants...' (नर चींटियों का एकमात्र उद्देश्य भविष्य की रानियों के साथ संभोग करना होता है)।

2016SSCStaff Selection Commission