Computer Science & ITKnowledge of Computer Applications

Internet, Networking, Protocols & Cybersecurity

Network topologies (LAN, WAN), OSI model layers, transmission protocols (HTTP, HTTPS, TCP/IP, SMTP, FTP), domain names and DNS, cybersecurity threats (Malware, Phishing, Ransomware, DDoS), firewalls, and IT Act provisions.

SOLVED MCQS
4163
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122 / 122
FREQUENCY RATE
100%
AVG / EXAM
34.1
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📝 Solved Questions on Internet, Networking, Protocols & Cybersecurity (4163)

Start Timed Test (4163 Qs)Self-Paced Practice
1🔬General ScienceEcology
Which of the following constitute a food-chain?
Explanation
Grass (Producer) is eaten by Goat (Primary Consumer), which in turn is consumed by Human (Secondary Consumer), forming a valid food chain.
گھاس (پیدا کنندہ) کو بکری کھاتی ہے، اور بکری کو انسان کھاتا ہے، جو کہ ایک درست غذائی زنجیر (food-chain) بناتا ہے۔
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2🔬General ScienceEnvironment
Who was the first scientist to use the term SMOG and define its layers?
Explanation
Dr. Henry Antoine Des Voeux first coined the term 'smog' (portmanteau of smoke and fog) in a paper presented at the Public Health Congress in 1905.
ڈاکٹر ہنری انٹون (Dr. Henry Antoine) نے سب سے پہلے 1905 میں 'smog' (دھوئیں اور دھند کا آمیزہ) کی اصطلاح استعمال کی تھی۔
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3🔬General ScienceEnvironment
Consider the following statements regarding the greenhouse effect:

1. Life on the earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect.
2. Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because the greenhouse effect maintains Earth's temperature suitable for life. Statement 2 is incorrect because the recent increased emission of greenhouse gases is primarily anthropogenic (human-caused), not natural.
پہلا بیان درست ہے کیونکہ گرین ہاؤس اثر زمین کے درجہ حرارت کو رہنے کے قابل بناتا ہے۔ دوسرا بیان غلط ہے کیونکہ گیسوں کا بڑھتا ہوا اخراج قدرتی نہیں بلکہ انسانی سرگرمیوں کا نتیجہ ہے۔
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4🔬General ScienceEnergy Sources
Consider the following statements:

- a. There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth.
- b. Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy.
- c. Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed of.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
Explanation
Statement a is incorrect because fossil fuels are finite and exhaustible. Statement c is incorrect because disposing of nuclear waste is highly complex, hazardous, and difficult. Statement b is correct, so a and c are NOT correct.
بیان 'a' غلط ہے کیونکہ فوسل فیول کے ذخائر محدود ہیں، اور بیان 'c' غلط ہے کیونکہ نیوکلیئر ویسٹ کو ٹھکانے لگانا انتہائی مشکل اور خطرناک کام ہے۔ اس لیے 'a' اور 'c' درست نہیں ہیں۔
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5📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Which hill is the Vaishno Devi Mandir located on?
Explanation
Vaishno Devi Mandir is a holy Hindu temple situated on the Trikuta Hills in Katra, Jammu and Kashmir.
ویشنو دیوی مندر جموں و کشمیر کے کٹرا میں واقع تریکوٹہ (Trikuta) پہاڑیوں پر واقع ہے۔
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6📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTPolity
What is the official language of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Urdu was traditionally the sole official language of Jammu and Kashmir since 1889. Although the J&K Official Languages Act, 2020 added Kashmiri, Dogri, Hindi, and English as official languages, Urdu remains the standard correct answer in classical state competitive exams.
جموں و کشمیر کی تاریخی اور بنیادی سرکاری زبان اردو (Urdu) رہی ہے۔ 2020 کے ایکٹ کے بعد 5 زبانیں آفیشل ہیں، لیکن اردو روایتی اور اہم سرکاری زبان ہے۔
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7📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Arrange the following Indian states in order from North to South:

- a. Himachal Pradesh
- b. Tamil Nadu
- c. Telangana
- d. Madhya Pradesh
Explanation
Geographical arrangement from North to South is: Himachal Pradesh (a), Madhya Pradesh (d), Telangana (c), and Tamil Nadu (b). This corresponds to sequence a, d, c, b.
شمال سے جنوب کی جغرافیائی ترتیب ہے: ہماچل پردیش (a)، مدھیہ پردیش (d)، تلنگانہ (c)، اور تمل ناڈو (b)۔ یعنی 'a, d, c, b'۔
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8📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTGeography
Consider the following pairs of lakes and the states they are located in:

- a. Hussain Sagar: 4. Telangana
- b. Pulicate Lake: 3. Andhra Pradesh
- c. Dal Lake: 2. Jammu and Kashmir
- d. Loktak Lake: 1. Manipur

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
The correct matches are: Hussain Sagar is in Telangana (a-4), Pulicat Lake in Andhra Pradesh (b-3), Dal Lake in J&K (c-2), and Loktak Lake in Manipur (d-1). This corresponds to a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.
صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: حسین ساگر تلنگانہ (a-4)، پلیکٹ جھیل آندھرا پردیش (b-3)، ڈل جھیل جموں و کشمیر (c-2)، اور لوکتک جھیل منی پور (d-1)۔
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9📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHistory
Who is popularly known as the "Grand Old Man of India"?
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji is known as the 'Grand Old Man of India'. He was a prominent leader in the Indian national movement and formulated the Drain of Wealth theory.
دادا بھائی نائوروجی (Dadabhai Naoroji) کو 'Grand Old Man of India' کہا جاتا ہے۔ انہوں نے پسماندگی اور معاشی نکاس کا نظریہ پیش کیا تھا۔
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10📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTHistory
Consider the following pairs of historical terms and entities of Jammu and Kashmir:

- a. Founder of Dogra Dynasty: 4. Gulab Singh
- b. Dar-Ul-Aman (written as Dar-Ul-Alam): 1. Maharaja Ranjit Dev
- c. Mian Deedo: 2. Rebellion Group Head
- d. Treaty of Lahore: 3. 1846

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
The correct matches are: Maharaja Gulab Singh founded the Dogra Dynasty (a-4); Jammu was named 'Dar-ul-Aman' during the reign of Maharaja Ranjit Dev due to religious peace (b-1); Mian Deedo was a rebel leader against Sikh rule in Jammu (c-2); and the Treaty of Lahore was signed in 1846 (d-3).
صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: مہاراجہ گلاب سنگھ نے ڈوگرہ خاندان کی بنیاد رکھی (a-4)؛ مہاراجہ رنجیت دیو کے دور میں جموں کو دارالامن کہا گیا (b-1)؛ میاں دیدو جموں کے باغی لیڈر تھے (c-2)؛ اور لاہور کا معاہدہ 1846 میں ہوا (d-3)۔
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11📚Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
Calculate the Prime Cost from the following information:

- Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000
- Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000
- Direct labour: Rs. 60,000
- Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000
- Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
Explanation
Prime Cost is the sum of direct costs: Prime Cost = Direct Materials Consumed + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses = Rs. 90,000 + Rs. 60,000 + Rs. 20,000 = Rs. 1,70,000. (Note: Purchased material is not used directly, only consumed material is counted).
پرائم کاسٹ (Prime Cost) کا فارمولا: استعمال شدہ خام مال + براہ راست اجرت + دیگر براہ راست اخراجات = 90,000 + 60,000 + 20,000 = 1,70,000 روپے ہے۔
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12📚Accountancy & Book KeepingAccounting Equation
Which of the following is correct?
Explanation
The fundamental accounting equation is Assets = Liabilities + Capital (Owner's Equity). This represents the balance sheet structure.
بنیادی اکاؤنٹنگ مساوات ہے: اثاثے (Assets) = واجبات (Liabilities) + ایکویٹی / سرمایہ (Equity)۔ یعنی آپشن C درست ہے۔
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13📚Accountancy & Book KeepingAccounting Concepts
Which concept suggests the exclusion of human resources in the balance sheet?
Explanation
The Money Measurement Concept states that only transactions and events that can be expressed in terms of money should be recorded. Since human resource value cannot be reliably quantified in money, it is excluded from the balance sheet.
منی میژرمینٹ (Money Measurement) کے تصور کے تحت کھاتوں میں صرف وہ چیزیں درج کی جاتی ہیں جن کی مالیاتی قدر ماپی جا سکے، اس لیے انسانی وسائل اس میں شامل نہیں ہوتے۔
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14📚Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
What is "Deposit in transit" in bank reconciliation?
Explanation
Deposits in transit are funds received and recorded by the company in its cash book but not yet processed and recorded by the bank. In bank reconciliation, these are added to the bank statement balance.
وہ ڈیپازٹس جو کمپنی نے ریکارڈ کر لیے لیکن بینک میں ابھی عملدرآمد نہیں ہوئے، انہیں بینک اسٹیٹمنٹ کے بیلنس میں شامل (Add) کیا جاتا ہے۔
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15📚Accountancy & Book KeepingPFMS
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was earlier known as:
Explanation
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was initially launched as a pilot program called the Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS) in 2009 to track funds released under plan schemes.
پبلک فنانشل مینجمنٹ سسٹم (PFMS) کا پرانا نام سینٹرل پلان اسکیم مانیٹرنگ سسٹم (CPSMS) تھا، جسے 2009 میں فنڈز ٹریک کرنے کے لیے شروع کیا گیا تھا۔
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16📚Accountancy & Book KeepingPartnership Accounts
What happens when interest on drawings is charged to a partner?
Explanation
Interest on drawings is charged to partners as it is an expense for them. It is debited to the partner's Capital or Current Account, reducing their overall equity balance.
جب شراکت دار سے ڈرائنگز پر سود وصول کیا جاتا ہے، تو اسے شراکت دار کے کیپیٹل یا کرنٹ اکاؤنٹ میں ڈیبٹ (Debit) کیا جاتا ہے۔
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17📚Accountancy & Book KeepingAuditing
When an audit is undertaken to check the financial controls and irregularities in the organization, it is which type of audit?
Explanation
An internal audit is conducted within an organization to evaluate risk management, internal controls, and check for any financial irregularities/frauds.
جب تنظیم کے اندر مالیاتی کنٹرولز اور بے ضابطگیوں کو چیک کرنے کے لیے آڈٹ کیا جاتا ہے، تو اسے اندرونی آڈٹ یا انٹرنل آڈٹ (Internal audit) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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18📚Accountancy & Book KeepingTrial Balance
A trial balance helps to check the accuracy of the:
Explanation
A trial balance is prepared to verify the arithmetical accuracy of postings in the ledger accounts. If the trial balance agrees, it indicates that the ledger accounts are arithmetically correct.
ٹرائل بیلنس (Trial balance) کھاتہ کھتونی یا لیجر (Ledger) کی حسابی درستگی کو جانچنے کے لیے تیار کیا جاتا ہے۔
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19📚Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
Assertion (A): If the interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source.
Reason (R): If tax has not been deducted at source, the amount paid as interest will not be allowed as a deduction in computing business income.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Explanation
Both are correct. Section 40(a)(i) mandates that if interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source (TDS). If tax is not deducted, the interest expense is disallowed as a deduction, making R the correct explanation of A.
دعویٰ (A) اور وجہ (R) دونوں درست ہیں اور وجہ، دعویٰ کی صحیح وضاحت کرتی ہے۔ بیرون ملک سود کی ادائیگی پر TDS لازمی ہے ورنہ وہ اخراجات بزنس انکم میں منہا نہیں کیے جا سکتے۔
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20📚Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
From the following information, find out the number of units that must be sold by the firm to earn a profit of Rs. 1,80,000 per year:

- Sales price: Rs. 25 per unit
- Variable manufacturing costs: Rs. 12 per unit
- Variable selling costs: Rs. 3 per unit
- Fixed factory overheads: Rs. 5,00,000
- Fixed selling costs: Rs. 3,00,000
Explanation
Contribution per unit = Selling Price - Total Variable Cost = 25 - (12 + 3) = Rs. 10. Total Fixed Cost = 5,00,000 + 3,00,000 = Rs. 8,00,000. Required Sales Units = (Fixed Costs + Target Profit) / Contribution per unit = (8,00,000 + 1,80,000) / 10 = 9,80,000 / 10 = 98,000 units.
فی یونٹ کنٹریبیوشن = 25 - (12+3) = 10۔ کل فکسڈ لاگت = 8,00,000۔ مطلوبہ یونٹس = (فکسڈ لاگت + منافع) / کنٹریبیوشن = (8,00,000 + 1,80,000) / 10 = 98,000 یونٹس۔
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21📚General EnglishSynonyms
Select the correct synonym of the word:

ADMONISH
Explanation
'Admonish' means to warn or reprimand someone firmly. Among the given options, 'Threaten' is the closest synonym.
'Admonish' کا مطلب ہے تنبیہ کرنا یا ڈانٹنا۔ دیے گئے اختیارات میں 'Threaten' (دھمکانا) اس کا قریب ترین مترادف ہے۔
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22📚General EnglishSentence Rearrangement
Rearrange the following jumbled phrases into a meaningful sentence:

- 1. Are tree from (free from)
- 2. Grow abundantly
- 3. Low plants
- 4. Tundra region
- 5. During the short summer
- 6. Like mosses and clinches (lichens)
- 7. And
- 8. Ice
Explanation
Option B (4, 1, 8, 5, 7, 3, 6, 2) forms the correct sentence: 'Tundra region are free from ice during the short summer, and low plants like mosses and lichens grow abundantly.'
صحیح ترتیب آپشن B ہے: 'Tundra region are free from ice during the short summer, and low plants like mosses and lichens grow abundantly.'
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23📚General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with a suitable article:

The Sun rises in the east and sets in ___ west.
Explanation
Directions (east, west, north, south) take the definite article 'the' when preceded by a preposition. Therefore, 'sets in the west'.
جغرافیائی سمتوں (directions) جیسے مشرق، مغرب، وغیرہ سے پہلے ہمیشہ ڈیفینیٹ آرٹیکل 'the' لگایا جاتا ہے۔
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24📚General EnglishConditionals
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:

If I had left early like everyone else did, I ___ sitting here now listening to all this rubbish.
Explanation
This is a mixed conditional sentence. It uses past perfect in the if-clause ('If I had left early...') and would/wouldn't + base verb in the main clause to describe a present result of a past event: 'I wouldn't be sitting here now'.
یہ ایک مخلوط شرطیہ جملہ (mixed conditional) ہے۔ ماضی کے فیصلے کا اثر اب دکھانے کے لیے 'wouldn't be' استعمال ہوگا۔
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25📚Statistics & MathematicsStatistics
Consider the following statements regarding Measures of Mortality:

- a. Gross Reproduction Rate: 5. Measures the number of daughters over a lifetime.
- b. Age-Specific Fertility Rate: 3. Has modal value between 20 and 25
- c. Net Reproduction Rate: 2. Affected by mortality rates
- d. Maternal Mortality Rate: 4. Is measured per 1000 live births.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Matches: GRR (Gross Reproduction Rate) measures daughters born per woman without considering mortality (a-5). ASFR usually peaks in age group 20-25 (b-3). NRR is NRR = GRR * survival rate, hence affected by mortality (c-2). MMR in this specific matching maps to 4. Correct match is a-5, b-3, c-2, d-4.
صحیح جوڑے مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: GRR کا تعلق بیٹیوں کی پیدائش کی شرح سے ہے (a-5)؛ ASFR کا موڈل گروپ 20-25 عمر کے درمیان ہوتا ہے (b-3)؛ NRR پر شرح اموات اثر انداز ہوتی ہے (c-2)۔ یعنی آپشن C درست ہے۔
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26📚General EconomicsEconomics
What is the meaning of a 'Mixed Economy'?
Explanation
A mixed economy is an economic system that blends elements of a market economy (private sector) with elements of a planned economy (public/state sector). India is a prime example.
مخلوط معیشت (Mixed Economy) سے مراد وہ معاشی نظام ہے جس میں سرکاری (public) اور نجی (private) دونوں شعبے مل کر کام کرتے ہیں۔
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27📚General EconomicsEconomics
Which of the following is the relation that the law of demand defines?
Explanation
The Law of Demand states that, other things being equal (ceteris paribus), the quantity demanded of a commodity is inversely related to its price.
قانونِ طلب (law of demand) کسی چیز کی قیمت (price) اور اس کی طلب کی مقدار (quantity) کے درمیان معکوس تعلق کو ظاہر کرتا ہے۔
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28📚General EconomicsEconomics
Which five-year plan of India was based on the Mahalanobis model?
Explanation
The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), drafted by Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, focused on rapid industrialization and heavy basic industries.
بھارت کا دوسرا پانچ سالہ منصوبہ (1956-1961) مہالانوبس ماڈل (Mahalanobis model) پر مبنی تھا، جس میں بھاری صنعتوں پر زور دیا گیا تھا۔
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29📚General EconomicsEconomics
Which is NOT one of the four main factors of production?
Explanation
The four classical factors of production are Land, Labour, Capital, and Entrepreneurship. Manufacturing is a production process/sector, not a fundamental factor of production.
پیداوار کے چار اہم عوامل: زمین، محنت (Labour)، سرمایہ (Capital) اور تنظیم ہیں۔ مینوفیکچرنگ (Manufacturing) ان عوامل میں شامل نہیں ہے۔
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30🔬General ScienceBiology
Name the hardest material present in the human body:
Explanation
Tooth Enamel, which covers the crown of the tooth, is the hardest and most mineralized substance in the human body.
دانتوں کی سب سے بیرونی تہہ اینمل (Enamel) انسانی جسم کا سب سے سخت ترین مادہ ہے۔
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31🔬General SciencePhysics
'Short-sight' in the human eye can be corrected by using a proper:
Explanation
Short-sightedness (Myopia) occurs when light focuses in front of the retina. It is corrected using a Concave (diverging) lens to push the focus back onto the retina.
نزدیک نظری یا مایوپیا (Short-sight) کو دور کرنے کے لیے مقعر عدسہ یعنی کانکیو لینس (Concave Lens) استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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32📚Knowledge of ComputersMemory
Which of the following memory is used for storing software that does not need updates?
Explanation
ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile memory used to store permanent firmware/software (like the system BIOS) that does not require regular updates.
روم (ROM) ایک ایسی غیر متغیر میموری ہے جس میں مستقل سافٹ ویئر (جیسے BIOS) محفوظ کیا جاتا ہے جسے اپڈیٹس کی ضرورت نہیں ہوتی۔
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33📚Knowledge of ComputersSecurity
Which of the following is an antivirus?
Explanation
Norton is a widely used commercial antivirus software utility. Trojan Horse, Worms, and Macro Virus are types of malware.
نورٹن (Norton) ایک اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر ہے، جبکہ ٹروجن ہارس اور ورمز وغیرہ نقصان دہ وائرس اور مالویئر ہیں۔
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34📚Knowledge of ComputersHardware
Where is firmware stored?
Explanation
Firmware is a specific class of computer software that provides low-level control for the device's hardware, permanently stored in non-volatile ROM/Flash chips.
فرم ویئر (firmware) عام طور پر روم (ROM) یا نان وولیٹائل میموری چپس میں مستقل طور پر محفوظ کیا جاتا ہے۔
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35📚Knowledge of ComputersIT Act
In the IT Act 2000, which section deals with the punishment for cyber terrorism?
Explanation
Section 66F of the Information Technology Act, 2000, covers the definition and penal provisions for cyber terrorism, carrying a maximum punishment of life imprisonment.
انفارمیشن ٹیکنالوجی ایکٹ 2000 کی دفعہ 66 (F) سائبر دہشت گردی (cyber terrorism) کی سزا اور کارروائی سے متعلق ہے۔
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36📚Knowledge of ComputersE-Governance
The "UMANG" app allows citizens to access:
Explanation
UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is a multi-platform government app designed to provide single-point access to various central and state government services.
سرکاری ایپ 'عمنگ' (UMANG) شہریوں کو مختلف مرکزی اور ریاستی سرکاری خدمات اور معلومات تک براہ راست رسائی فراہم کرتی ہے۔
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37📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsCrime Scene Management
Mark the proper sequence of tasks to be completed in a crime scene.

i. Packaging of physical evidence
ii. Securing the scene
iii. Collecting physical evidence
iv. Recognizing physical evidence
Explanation
The correct sequence is: first secure the scene (ii), then recognize/identify evidence (iv), then collect the evidence (iii), and finally package it (i).
صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: پہلے جرم کی جگہ کو محفوظ کرنا (ii)، پھر ثبوتوں کی شناخت کرنا (iv)، پھر ثبوت اکٹھے کرنا (iii)، اور آخر میں پیک کرنا (i)۔
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38📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsLaw of Evidence
A witness who wants the accused to be behind bars for the committed crime is called as
Explanation
An interested witness is one who has a personal interest in the outcome of the case or in seeing the accused convicted.
دلچسپی رکھنے والا گواہ (Interested witness) وہ ہوتا ہے جس کا کیس کے نتیجے میں یا ملزم کو سزا دلوانے میں کوئی ذاتی مفاد ہوتا ہے۔
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39📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsForensic Institutions
Match the following:

List-I (Institution offering courses in forensic science)
i. Osmania University
ii. Dr. Harisingh Gour University
iii. Bundelkhand University
iv. National Forensic Science University

List-II (Location)
a. Sagar, Madhya Pradesh
b. Delhi
c. Hyderabad, Telangana
d. Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
The correct matches are: Osmania University is in Hyderabad (i-c); Dr. Harisingh Gour University is in Sagar, MP (ii-a); Bundelkhand University is in Jhansi, UP (iii-d); NFSU has a campus in Delhi (iv-b).
صحیح جوڑ یہ ہیں: عثمانیہ یونیورسٹی حیدرآباد میں ہے (i-c)؛ ڈاکٹر ہری سنگھ گور یونیورسٹی ساگر، ایم پی میں ہے (ii-a)؛ بندیل کھنڈ یونیورسٹی جھانسی، یوپی میں ہے (iii-d)؛ این ایف ایس یو کا کیمپس دہلی میں ہے (iv-b)۔
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40📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsFingerprints
Which of the following are the principles of fingerprint analysis?

i. Universal
ii. Individual
iii. Classifiable
Explanation
The core scientific principles/laws of fingerprint analysis are that fingerprints are Individual (unique to each person) and Classifiable (based on systematic ridge patterns). While prints are virtually universal to humans, 'Universal' is not defined as a core principle of fingerprint identification compared to individuality and classifiability.
فنگر پرنٹ تجزیہ کے بنیادی اصول یہ ہیں کہ انگلیوں کے نشانات انفرادی (Individual) ہوتے ہیں اور انہیں باقاعدہ پیٹرن کے تحت درجہ بند (Classifiable) کیا جا سکتا ہے۔
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41📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsForensic Administration
The Directorate of Forensic Science Services was bifurcated from BPR & D based on the recommendations of

i. Malimath Committee
ii. Padmanabhaiah Committee
iii. National Human Rights Commission
Explanation
The bifurcation of the Directorate of Forensic Science Services (DFSS) from the Bureau of Police Research & Development (BPR&D) in 2002 was based on the recommendations of the Padmanabhaiah Committee on Police Reforms and the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).
ڈائریکٹوریٹ آف فارنسک سائنس سروسز (DFSS) کو 2002 میں بی پی آر اینڈ ڈی سے الگ کرنا پدمنبھیا کمیٹی اور نیشنل ہیومن رائٹس کمیشن (NHRC) کی سفارشات پر مبنی تھا۔
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42📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsCrime Scene Management
Specimen of material collected from crime scene for comparing with the questioned material is called as
Explanation
A control sample is a specimen of material collected from the crime scene (e.g. from an adjacent, unstained area of a substrate) to compare with the questioned evidence to ensure that background or substrate interference is accounted for.
کنٹرول سیمپل (Control Sample) جرم کی جگہ سے حاصل کردہ وہ نمونہ ہوتا ہے جو معاون سطح یا پس منظر کی جانچ کے لیے حاصل کیا جاتا ہے تاکہ موازنے کو درست بنایا جا سکے۔
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43📚Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
The English word "Statistics" is derived from

i. Latin word "Status"
ii. Italian word "Statista"
iii. German word "Statistik"
Explanation
The word 'Statistics' has been derived from the Latin word 'Status', Italian word 'Statista', and the German word 'Statistik'. All refer to the political state or data concerning it.
لفظ 'Statistics' لاطینی لفظ 'Status'، اطالوی لفظ 'Statista'، اور جرمن لفظ 'Statistik' سے اخذ کیا گیا ہے۔ اس لیے تینوں درست ہیں۔
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44📚Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Arrange the stages of statistical investigation in their correct order.

a. Classification of Data
b. Collection of Data
c. Interpretation of Data
d. Analysis of Data
e. Planning the purpose of Investigation
Explanation
The correct logical order of statistical investigation is: Planning (e) -> Collection of Data (b) -> Classification of Data (a) -> Analysis (d) -> Interpretation (c).
اعداد و شمار کی تفتیش کی صحیح ترتیب ہے: تفتیش کی منصوبہ بندی (e) -> ڈیٹا جمع کرنا (b) -> درجہ بندی کرنا (a) -> تجزیہ کرنا (d) -> تشریح یا نتیجہ نکالنا (c)۔ یعنی 'e, b, a, d, c'۔
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45📚Electromagnetism & OpticsPhysics
A plane travelling north at 200m/s turns and then travels south at 200m/s. The change in its velocity is:
Explanation
Initial velocity = 200 m/s North. Final velocity = 200 m/s South (which is -200 m/s North). Change in velocity = Final - Initial = -200 - 200 = -400 m/s North, which is equal to 400 m/s South.
رفتار میں تبدیلی = آخری رفتار - ابتدائی رفتار۔ چونکہ سمت بدل گئی ہے: -200 - 200 = -400 میٹر فی سیکنڈ شمال، یعنی 400 میٹر فی سیکنڈ جنوب۔
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46📚Forensic Ballistics & Internal/External BallisticsFootprints
A footprint classification system is required for filing the footprints of

i. New born babies
ii. Military airmen
iii. People lacking arms
Explanation
Footprint classification systems are used for filing records of newborn babies (hospital security), military airmen (for identification after plane crashes/burns), and individuals lacking arms (who cannot provide fingerprints).
فٹ پرنٹ کی درجہ بندی کا نظام نوزائیدہ بچوں، فوجی ہوابازوں (حادثات میں شناخت کے لیے)، اور بغیر بازوؤں والے افراد (جن کے فنگر پرنٹ نہیں لیے جا سکتے) کی ریکارڈ فائلنگ کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔ اس لیے تینوں درست ہیں۔
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47📚Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationArms Act
Which of the following means ammunition, as per Indian Arms Act, 1959?

i. Rocket.
ii. Noxious liquid
iii. Charges for firearm.
Explanation
Section 2(b) of the Indian Arms Act, 1959 defines 'ammunition' to include rockets, noxious liquid/gas-producing articles, and propellant charges/cartridges for firearms.
بھارتی اسلحہ ایکٹ 1959 کے تحت، بارود (ammunition) کی تعریف میں راکٹ، نقصان دہ مائع (noxious liquid) پیدا کرنے والے آلات، اور گولیوں کے چارجز تینوں شامل ہیں۔
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48📚Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFiring Process
Arrange the following process of firing in increasing order of chronology.

i. Triggering
ii. Striking percussion cap
iii. Hammer release
iv. Ignition of propellent
Explanation
The correct sequence of events when firing a gun is: first the trigger is pulled/triggering (i), which releases the hammer (iii), causing the firing pin to strike the percussion cap (ii), leading to the ignition of the propellant (iv).
فائرنگ کے عمل کی صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: پہلے ٹرگر دبایا جاتا ہے (i)، پھر ہیمر آزاد ہوتا ہے (iii)، پھر وہ پرکشن کیپ سے ٹکراتا ہے (ii)، اور آخر میں بارود جلتا ہے (iv)۔ یعنی 'i, iii, ii, iv'۔
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49📚Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationGSR Analysis
Match the following:

List-I (Detectable Metal)
i. Antimony
ii. Copper
iii. Iron
iv. Nitrates

List-II (Source)
a. Primers
b. Barrel
c. Propellants
d. Bullet jacket
Explanation
The correct matches are: Antimony - Primers (i-a); Copper - Bullet jacket (ii-d); Iron - Barrel (iii-b); Nitrates - Propellants (iv-c).
صحیح جوڑ مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: اینٹیمونی -> پرائمر (i-a)؛ تانبا -> گولی کا خول یا جیکٹ (ii-d)؛ لوہا -> نالی (iii-b)؛ نائٹریٹ -> بارود یا پروپیلنٹ (iv-c)۔
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50📚Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationRifling
The process of cutting the lands and groove inside the barrel of a firearm is called as
Explanation
Rifling is the process of cutting helical grooves (creating lands and grooves) inside the bore of a firearm barrel to impart spin and stabilize the bullet.
بندوق کی نالی کے اندر ہیلیکل نالیاں اور ابھار (lands and grooves) کاٹنے کے عمل کو رائفلنگ (Rifling) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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51📚Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeAmmunition
Dum-Dum bullets were first manufactured at
Explanation
Dum-Dum (expanding) bullets were first designed and manufactured in the late 19th century at the British Indian Army Arsenal located in Dum Dum near Calcutta (Kolkata).
دم دم گولیاں (پھیلنے والی گولیاں) سب سے پہلے کلکتہ (Calcutta) کے قریب واقع دم دم فوجی ڈپو میں تیار کی گئی تھیں۔
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52📚Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeAmmunition
The function of primer is
Explanation
The primer contains a small amount of sensitive primary explosive that detonates upon impact, sending a flame to ignite the main propellant powder charge.
پرائمر کا بنیادی کام کارتوس کے اندر موجود اصل بارود (propellant charge) کو جلانا یا بھڑکانا ہوتا ہے۔
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53📚Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeRifling
Degree of twist in case of rifling is called as
Explanation
The pitch of rifling is the distance inside the barrel over which the lands and grooves make one complete helical turn (360 degrees rotation).
نالی کے اندر چور یا لکیروں کے ایک مکمل چکر (360 ڈگری) کے طے کردہ فاصلے کو رائفلنگ کا پچ (Pitch) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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54📚Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeTrajectory
The lateral deviation of trajectory of projectile from the plane of departure is known as
Explanation
Drift is the lateral (sideways) deviation of a spinning bullet from the vertical plane of departure, primarily caused by gyroscopic spin and air interaction.
گولی کے گھومنے کی وجہ سے اپنے اصل سیدھے راستے سے دائیں یا بائیں انحراف کرنے کے عمل کو ڈرفٹ (Drift) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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55📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Which of the following is a type of physical evidence?
Explanation
Glass is a tangible object (physical evidence), while alibis and testimonies represent oral or testimonial evidence.
شیشہ (Glass) مادی یا طبیعی ثبوت (physical evidence) کی ایک قسم ہے، جبکہ گواہان کے بیانات اور عذر (alibi) زبانی گواہی کے زمرے میں آتے ہیں۔
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56📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
The following steps are involved in the crime scene processing:

i. Packaging of evidence
ii. Collection of evidence
iii. Securing the crime scene
iv. Sketching and videography of the crime scene

Which of the following sequence/order is correct beginning from the first step?
Explanation
The standard sequence of crime scene processing is: first securing the scene (iii), documenting via sketching and photography (iv), collecting evidence (ii), and then packaging it (i).
کرائم سین پروسیسنگ کی صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: سب سے پہلے جائے وقوعہ کو محفوظ کرنا (iii)، خاکہ سازی اور فوٹوگرافی (iv)، شواہد جمع کرنا (ii)، اور پھر ان کی پیکیجنگ کرنا (i)۔
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57📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
After a culprit murders a person in a house and then burns the body in a forest miles away from the house. What is the crime scene where the body is burnt called?
Explanation
The house where the murder occurred is the primary crime scene, and the forest where the body was burned is the secondary crime scene.
وہ مکان جہاں قتل ہوا وہ بنیادی کرائم سین (primary) کہلائے گا، اور جنگل جہاں لاش جلائی گئی وہ ثانوی کرائم سین (secondary) کہلائے گا۔
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58📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
The following steps are involved in crime scene reconstruction:

i. Conjecture
ii. Testing and theory formation
iii. Data collection
iv. Hypothesis testing

Which of the following sequence/order is correct beginning from the first step?
Explanation
Crime scene reconstruction involves: Data collection (iii) -> Conjecture/observation (i) -> Hypothesis testing (iv) -> Testing and theory formation (ii).
کرائم سین کی تعمیر نو (Reconstruction) کے مراحل ہیں: ڈیٹا اکٹھا کرنا (iii) -> قیاس آرائی (i) -> مفروضہ کی جانچ (iv) -> نظریہ کی تشکیل اور ٹیسٹنگ (ii)۔
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59📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Which of the following search methods on the crime scene is a very thorough method for searching for evidence?
Explanation
The grid search method is a double-line search that is highly thorough and ensures no area is missed.
گرڈ تلاش کا طریقہ (Grid method) ایک دوہرا تلاش کا طریقہ ہے جو انتہائی تفصیلی ہوتا ہے اور اس بات کو یقینی بناتا ہے کہ کوئی بھی علاقہ چھوٹ نہ جائے۔
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60📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Which of the following is a type of macroscopic crime scene?
Explanation
A macroscopic crime scene refers to large-scale scenes (like a house, building, or field), whereas microscopic scenes refer to trace evidence (GSR, hair, pollen).
میکرواسکوپک کرائم سین (Macroscopic crime scene) سے مراد کوئی بڑی جگہ ہے جیسے کہ پورا گھر، جبکہ بال، پولن اور بارود کے ذرات مائیکرواسکوپک زمرے میں آتے ہیں۔
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61📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Which of the following is a measurement technique used to sketch a crime scene?
Explanation
Polar coordinates is a mapping method using distance and angles from a single reference point to locate evidence.
پولر کوآرڈینیٹس (Polar coordinates) جائے وقوعہ کا خاکہ بنانے کے لیے پیمائش کا ایک طریقہ ہے جس میں ایک ہی حوالے کے نقطے سے فاصلہ اور زاویہ ناپا جاتا ہے۔
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62📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Which of the following is a type of paper packaging method used for evidence?
Explanation
A druggist's fold (or pharmacist's fold) is a folding pattern used to secure small amounts of trace evidence (like hair, powder, fibers) in paper without leakage.
ڈرگسٹ فولڈ (Druggist's fold) کاغذ کو موڑنے کا ایک طریقہ ہے جس کے ذریعے بالوں یا پاؤڈر جیسے چھوٹے شواہد کو بغیر گرے محفوظ کیا جاتا ہے۔
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63📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Blood evidence is packaged in which of the following containers to avoid microbial contamination?
Explanation
Wet or dry bloodstains should be packaged in paper bags because paper allows remaining moisture to evaporate, preventing mold/microbial growth which degrades DNA.
خون کے شواہد کو کاغذ کے تھیلوں (Paper bags) میں پیک کیا جاتا ہے کیونکہ کاغذ نمی کو باہر نکلنے دیتا ہے، جس سے پھپھوندی اور جراثیم پیدا نہیں ہوتے جو ڈی این اے کو نقصان پہنچا سکتے ہیں۔
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64📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyArson Investigation
In arson cases, what does "pyromania" mean?
Explanation
Pyromania is an obsessive, impulsive disorder characterized by the deliberate and repetitive setting of fires.
پائرومینیا (Pyromania) سے مراد آگ لگانے کی جنونی اور غیر اختیاری خواہش یا نفسیاتی بیماری ہے۔
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65📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Management
What is a specimen for example a hair sample whose origin is known with certainty and is used for comparison called?
Explanation
A sample whose origin is known with certainty (like hair taken directly from a suspect's head) is called a standard or known sample.
وہ نمونہ جس کا ماخذ یقینی طور پر معلوم ہو (مثلاً مشتبہ شخص کے سر سے لیا گیا بال) اسے موازنے کے لیے 'اسٹینڈرڈ سیمپل' (Standard sample) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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66📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Management
What is one of the most effective ways of documenting the location of evidence on a bomb blast explosion scene?
Explanation
Polar coordinates are highly effective for mapping expansive, outdoor explosion scenes where there may be a single center of explosion but few rectangular walls.
بم دھماکے کی جگہ پر جہاں دور دور تک ملبہ پھیلا ہو، ثبوتوں کی پوزیشن ناپنے کے لیے پولر کوآرڈینیٹس (Polar coordinates) کا طریقہ سب سے زیادہ کارآمد ہوتا ہے۔
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67📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyExplosives
Sampling of residue deposited on an item in an explosive scene can be collected by vigorously swabbing the surface with several swabs moistened with which of the following?
Explanation
Forensic protocols specify using swabs moistened with distilled water (for inorganic residues/salts) or specific solvents like methanol/ethanol for organic explosive residues. In general, distilled water is the standard safe choice.
دھماکہ خیز مواد کے ذرات کو جمع کرنے کے لیے سطح کو کشید شدہ پانی (Distilled water) سے گیلے کیے گئے سواب کے ذریعے رگڑ کر نمونہ حاصل کیا جاتا ہے۔
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68📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Management
Which of the following is an example of trace evidence found on a crime scene?
Explanation
Trace evidence refers to microscopic physical evidence transferred during a crime, such as fibers, hair, soil, or glass fragments.
ٹریس شواہد (Trace evidence) سے مراد انتہائی چھوٹے یا خوردبینی شواہد ہیں، جیسے کہ کوئی دھاگہ یا ریشہ (Fiber) جو جائے وقوعہ پر پایا جائے۔
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69📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyWildlife Protection
Which act deals with the protection and conservation of various species of birds and animals in India?
Explanation
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 in India deals with the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants.
بھارت میں جنگلی حیات اور پرندوں کے تحفظ کے لیے 'وائلڈ لائف کنزرویشن ایکٹ 1972' نافذ العمل ہے۔
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70📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologySaliva Analysis
Which gland produces majority of saliva in humans?
Explanation
The submandibular glands produce approximately 65-70% of the total unstimulated saliva in humans, followed by the parotids.
انسانوں میں لعاب دہن (saliva) کا سب سے زیادہ حصہ (تقریباً 65 سے 70 فیصد) سب مینڈبلر غدود (Submandibular glands) سے پیدا ہوتا ہے۔
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71📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Botany
Cannabis plants are often grown indoors illegally. Their pollen can be collected as evidence from the cracks and crevices of the indoor environment by investigative team long after the plantation has been shifted or eradicated. What type of pollination does Cannabis exhibit?
Explanation
Cannabis is an anemophilous (wind-pollinated) plant, producing lightweight pollen that disperses easily and lingers in cracks and indoor spaces.
بھنگ کا پودا (Cannabis) ہوا کے ذریعے پولینیشن (Anemophilous) کرتا ہے، اسی لیے اس کے پولن ہوا میں اڑ کر طویل عرصے تک آس پاس کی دراڑوں میں جمع رہتے ہیں۔
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72📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Entomology
If the Accumulated Degree Hours (ADH) in three days is 3672, then how many ADH of 70 degree are there in these 3 days?
Explanation
To find the corresponding hours at a constant 70 degrees: Hours = ADH / Temp = 3672 / 70 = 52.45 hours.
حساب لگانے کے لیے: گھنٹے = کل ADH تقسیم درجہ حرارت؛ یعنی 3672 / 70 = 52.45 گھنٹے۔
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73📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Odontology
At the age 12-13 years, when all the second molars have erupted, what would the total number of teeth be?
Explanation
By age 12-13, all 28 permanent teeth (excluding the 4 wisdom teeth) have erupted, and all primary/temporary teeth have been shed.
12 سے 13 سال کی عمر میں تمام 28 مستقل دانت نکل آتے ہیں (سوائے عقل داڑھ کے) اور کوئی بھی عارضی یا دودھ کا دانت باقی نہیں رہتا۔
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74📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Anthropology
Which fontanelle of the human skull closes at birth or up to 6 weeks after birth?
Explanation
The posterior fontanelle (Lambda) closes within 1-2 months (up to 6 weeks) after birth. Bregma closes around 18 months.
انسانی کھوپڑی کا پچھلا نرم حصہ یعنی لیمبڈا (Lambda) پیدائش کے وقت یا 6 ہفتوں کے اندر بند ہو جاتا ہے، جبکہ بریگما تقریباً 18 ماہ میں بند ہوتا ہے۔
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75📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Anthropology
Which of the following statements pertaining to the sexual dimorphism in human pelvis is TRUE?
Explanation
In the human pelvis, the female pelvic inlet is circular or oval, whereas the male pelvic inlet is heart-shaped to accommodate childbirth.
انسانی کولہے کی ہڈی (Pelvis) میں جنسی فرق یہ ہے کہ خواتین میں کولہے کا داخلہ راستہ گول (circular) اور مردوں میں دل کی شکل (heart-shaped) جیسا ہوتا ہے۔
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76📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Odontology
Which is the oldest permanent tooth in oral cavity of human adults?
Explanation
The permanent first molar (often called the 6-year molar) is the first permanent tooth to erupt, making it the oldest permanent tooth in an adult mouth.
انسانی منہ میں سب سے پہلا مستقل دانت پہلی داڑھ (First molar) ہے جو 6 سال کی عمر میں نکلتی ہے، اس لیے یہ سب سے پرانا مستقل دانت ہے۔
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77📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Odontology
Which of the following is a NOT successional tooth?
Explanation
Successional (or succedaneous) teeth are permanent teeth that replace primary teeth. Permanent molars (first, second, third) erupt behind primary teeth and do not replace any, making them non-successional.
وہ مستقل دانت جو دودھ کے دانتوں کی جگہ لیتے ہیں انہیں سکسیشنل کہتے ہیں۔ لیکن داڑھیں (Molars) کسی دودھ کے دانت کو گرا کر نہیں نکلتیں، اس لیے وہ سکسیشنل نہیں ہیں۔
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78📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyFecal Stains
Urobilinoids can be converted to urobilin zinc salt that fluoresces under ALS of 450 nm. This method can be used to spot -
Explanation
The Edelman test converts urobilinoids present in feces to a green fluorescent zinc-urobilin complex, serving as a test for fecal stains.
فضلہ یا پاخانے کے دھبوں (Fecal stains) کا پتہ لگانے کے لیے کیمیائی عمل کے ذریعے زنک یورو بلین نمک بنا کر نیلی روشنی (ALS) میں چمکایا جاتا ہے۔
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79📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologySaliva Analysis
Which of the following can distinguish between human salivary amylase and human pancreatic amylase?
Explanation
Antihuman salivary amylase antibodies (used in lateral flow tests like RSID-Saliva) specifically target salivary amylase and do not cross-react with pancreatic amylase.
منہ کے تھوک والے امائلیز اور لبلبے (pancreas) کے امائلیز کے درمیان فرق کرنے کے لیے اینٹی ہیومن سلائیوری امائلیز اینٹی باڈی (Option C) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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80📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyHair Analysis
Which of the following statements aptly define the difference between Human hair and animal hair?

i. The colour in human is relatively uniform throughout the shaft as opposed to that in animal hair
ii. The medulla is less than 1/3rd width of the shaft in human hair and greater than 1/3rd width in animal hair
iii. Scaling pattern of human hair is imbricate while that of animal hair is varied
Explanation
All three statements correctly differentiate human from animal hair: human hair has uniform pigmentation (i), a narrow medulla (index < 0.33) (ii), and consistently imbricate scales (iii).
تینوں بیانات انسانی اور حیوانی بالوں کا صحیح موازنہ کرتے ہیں: انسانی بال کا رنگ یکساں ہوتا ہے (i)؛ اس کا اندرونی دھاگہ یا میڈولا ریشے کے تہائی حصے سے چھوٹا ہوتا ہے (ii)؛ اور اس کے اسکیلز ہمیشہ فلیٹ یا امبریکیٹ ہوتے ہیں (iii)۔
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81📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
What does transient evidence mean?
Explanation
Transient evidence is evidence that by its very nature is temporary and can easily degrade, disappear, or change over a short period of time (e.g., odors, temperature, footprints in snow).
عارضی ثبوت (Transient evidence) سے مراد ایسا ثبوت ہے جو اپنی نوعیت کے لحاظ سے عارضی ہو اور جو مختصر وقت میں ختم، تبدیل یا زائل ہو سکتا ہو (جیسے بو، درجہ حرارت یا برف پر پاؤں کے نشان)۔
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82📚Organic & StereochemistryForensic Anthropology
What branch of forensic science deals with measurement and proportions of human body?
Explanation
Anthropometry refers to the systematic measurement of the physical properties and proportions of the human body, popularized by Alphonse Bertillon for criminal identification.
انتھروپومیٹری (Anthropometry) سے مراد انسانی جسم کے حصوں کی پیمائش اور تناسب کا مطالعہ ہے، جسے الفونس برٹیلون نے مجرموں کی شناخت کے لیے شروع کیا تھا۔
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83📚Organic & StereochemistryForensic Botany
Examination of pollen and seeds as trace evidences collected from crime scene is done by
Explanation
Forensic Botany involves the application of plant sciences (such as examining pollen grains, seeds, leaves, and wood) to legal investigations.
فارنسک بوٹنی (Forensic Botany) میں پودوں سے متعلق سائنس (جیسے پولن، بیج، پتے اور لکڑی) کا استعمال کرائم سین پر شواہد کی تفتیش کے لیے کیا جاتا ہے۔
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84📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
Date, location and scale are the important components of
Explanation
Date, location, and scale (along with direction and legend) are essential components of a Crime Scene Sketch.
تاریخ، مقام اور اسکیل (پیمانہ) کرائم سین کے خاکے (Crime scene sketch) کے اہم اور لازمی اجزاء ہیں۔
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85📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
What is not the responsibility of an First Responder?
Explanation
The first responder's priority is life safety (first aid), securing the scene, and arresting suspects if present. Collection of transient evidence is typically done by forensic specialists, although they must preserve it.
فرسٹ ریسپونڈر کا بنیادی کام زخمیوں کو طبی امداد دینا، ملزم کو پکڑنا اور جائے وقوعہ کو محفوظ کرنا ہے۔ شواہد کو اکٹھا کرنا (Collection) فارنسک ٹیم کا کام ہے، فرسٹ ریسپونڈر کا نہیں۔
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86📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
What is not a search method employed for outdoor crime scene?
Explanation
Supervision method is not a physical search pattern. Spiral, Grid, Line/Strip, and Zone methods are standard forensic search patterns used for crime scenes.
سپر ویزن کا طریقہ (Supervision method) کوئی سائنسی سرچ پیٹرن نہیں ہے۔ اسپائرل، گرڈ اور لائن میتھڈ کرائم سین کی تلاش کے مقبول طریقے ہیں۔
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87📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
The document meant at the crime scene to keep a record of entry and exit of personnels is known as
Explanation
The Crime Scene Security Log (or Crime Scene Log) records the names and times of arrival and departure of all personnel entering or exiting the secured perimeter.
جائے وقوعہ پر آنے اور جانے والے تمام افسران اور افراد کا ریکارڈ رکھنے والی دستاویز کو کرائم سین لاگ (Crime Scene Log) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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88📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
Any physical location where the crime has occurred is known as
Explanation
A crime scene is defined as any physical location where a crime occurred or where evidence related to the crime is found.
وہ مادی یا طبیعی جگہ جہاں کوئی جرم سرزد ہوا ہو یا جرم سے متعلق کوئی ثبوت پایا جائے، اسے جائے وقوعہ یا کرائم سین (Crime scene) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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89📚Organic & StereochemistryArson Investigation
What type of crime scene does arson signify?
Explanation
Arson is the criminal act of deliberately and unlawfully setting fire to property, structures, or wildland areas.
ارسن (Arson) کا مطلب کسی عمارت یا جائیداد کو غیر قانونی اور مجرمانہ طور پر جان بوجھ کر آگ لگا کر تباہ کرنا ہے۔
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90📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
What is the latest technology of crime scene preservation for reconstruction?
Explanation
3-D Laser Scanning (such as FARO scanners) is a state-of-the-art technology that captures a detailed 3D digital model of the entire crime scene for subsequent virtualization and reconstruction.
جائے وقوعہ کو محفوظ کرنے اور اس کی دوبارہ تعمیر نو کے لیے سب سے جدید ترین ٹیکنالوجی 'تھری ڈی لیزر اسکیننگ' (3-D Laser Scanning) ہے جس سے پورے منظر کا ڈیجیٹل ماڈل تیار ہو جاتا ہے۔
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91📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
Wet seminal stains on an clothing is preserved by
Explanation
Biological fluids like semen and blood must be air-dried at room temperature away from direct sunlight, and then packaged in a breathable paper bag to prevent bacterial growth.
کپڑوں پر موجود گیلے سیمن یا خون کے دھبوں کو پہلے سائے میں ہوا میں خشک (Air drying) کیا جاتا ہے اور پھر کاغذ کے لفافے میں محفوظ کیا جاتا ہے تاکہ وہ سڑ نہ جائیں۔
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92📚Organic & StereochemistryLegal Terms
Conduct money is paid for
Explanation
Conduct money is the traveling expense and allowance paid to a witness, including a medical or forensic expert, to summon them to appear and testify in court.
کنڈکٹ منی (Conduct money) وہ سفری اور روزانہ الاؤنس ہوتا ہے جو عدالت کی طرف سے گواہ یا فارنسک ماہر کو عدالت میں حاضر ہو کر گواہی دینے کے لیے ادا کیا جاتا ہے۔
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93📚Organic & StereochemistryAlternate Light Source
What type of evidence may fluoresce under an alternate light source?
Explanation
Semen and saliva contain biological substances (proteins/urea) that fluoresce strongly under UV/alternate light sources. Blood does not fluoresce directly but absorbs light (looks dark/black), but in many standard exam keys, semen, blood, and saliva are listed together as fluid traces detected by ALS.
متبادل لائٹ سورس (ALS) کے تحت جسمانی رطوبتیں جیسے سیمن، تھوک اور خون کی موجودگی کا پتہ ان کے چمکنے یا روشنی جذب کرنے کے عمل سے لگایا جاتا ہے۔
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94📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
A sharp knife collected form the crime scene as evidence should be preserved in
Explanation
Sharp and dangerous items like knives should be secured in a rigid container (such as a wooden or cardboard box) lined with protective cushioning (cotton) to prevent injury and preserve DNA/fingerprints.
تیز دھار چھری یا چاقو کو چوٹ سے بچنے اور انگلیوں کے نشانات محفوظ رکھنے کے لیے کاٹن لگی لکڑی کے ڈبے (Wooden box lined with cotton) میں محفوظ کرنا چاہیے۔
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95📚Organic & StereochemistryCrime Scene Management
Scientists going to an mass disaster crime scene should ensure
Explanation
Mass disaster management requires self-safety/PPE (biological hazard protection), careful chain of custody (collection/packaging), and surveying the wider area for secondary scenes.
بڑے حادثات یا آفات کے مقام پر تفتیش کے لیے جانے والے فارنسک ماہرین کو حیاتیاتی خطرات سے حفاظت، شواہد کی پیکنگ اور ثانوی جائے وقوعہ کی نگرانی سبھی امور کا خیال رکھنا ہوتا ہے۔
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96📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsLegal Sections
Which is not the amendment done to the IPC, 1860 Section 375?
Explanation
Section 375 of the IPC deals exclusively with sexual assault committed by a man against a female. Male children are protected under the POCSO Act, not Section 375 IPC.
آئی پی سی کی دفعہ 375 صرف خواتین کے خلاف جنسی زیادتی کی تعریف کرتی ہے۔ لڑکوں کے تحفظ کے لیے پاکسو (POCSO) قانون ہے، اس لیے دفعہ 375 کا یہ ترمیم لڑکوں کے لیے نہیں ہے۔
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97📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsNDPS Act
What section of NDPS Act, 1985 deals with contravention related to cannabis and cannabis plant?
Explanation
Section 20 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985 prescribes the punishment for contravention in relation to cannabis plant and cannabis (charas, ganja).
این ڈی پی ایس (NDPS) ایکٹ 1985 کی دفعہ 20 بھنگ کے پودے اور چرس یا گانجہ سے متعلق جرائم اور ان کی سزا سے متعلق ہے۔
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98📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsNarcotics
What is not a phenanthrene alkaloid extracted from Opium plant?
Explanation
Opium alkaloids include phenanthrenes (morphine, codeine, thebaine) and benzylisoquinolines (narcotine/noscapine, papaverine). Thus, Narcotine is not a phenanthrene alkaloid.
افیون میں موجود الکلائڈز میں مارفین، کوڈین اور تھیبین فینانتھرین کلاس سے ہیں، جبکہ نارکوٹین (Narcotine) بینزائل آئیسوکوئنولین کلاس سے تعلق رکھتا ہے۔
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99📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsNarcotics
Cocaine is extracted from plant belonging to family
Explanation
Cocaine is extracted from the leaves of the Erythroxylum coca plant (family Erythroxylaceae). Erythroxylum is the genus name representing this botanical source.
کوکین کو اریتھروکسیلم کوکا (Erythroxylum coca) نامی پودے کے پتوں سے حاصل کیا جاتا ہے، جس کی فیملی اریتھروکسیلیسی ہے۔
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100📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsNarcotics
What is an example of synthetic drug?
Explanation
Barbiturates (like phenobarbital) are fully synthetic sedative-hypnotic drugs. Codeine, Cocaine, and Cathinone are natural alkaloids or derived from plants.
باربیٹیوریٹس (Barbiturate) مکمل طور پر مصنوعی طریقے سے بنائی گئی نیند آور دوا (synthetic drug) ہے، جبکہ کوکین اور کوڈین پودوں سے حاصل ہوتی ہیں۔
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101📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyCrime Scene Management
Primary evaluation as done by the First Responder should include
Explanation
A first responder's initial assessment (primary evaluation) must establish the size/scope of the incident, identify what emergency services are needed, and evaluate hazard/safety concerns.
فرسٹ ریسپونڈر کی ابتدائی تشخیص (Primary evaluation) میں حادثے کا دائرہ کار، درکار ہنگامی خدمات اور جائے وقوعہ پر موجود خطرات کی جانچ (All of the above) شامل ہونی چاہیے۔
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102📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyPetroleum Products
Which of the following apparatus can be used to estimate flashpoint?
Explanation
All these instruments (Cleveland Open Cup, Abel Apparatus, and Pensky-Martens Closed Cup) are standard laboratory equipment used to determine the flash point of petroleum products.
کلیولینڈ اوپن کپ، ایبل اپریٹس اور پینسکی مارٹن کلوزڈ کپ یہ تمام آلات (All of the above) پٹرولیم اشیاء کا فلیش پوائنٹ معلوم کرنے کے لیے استعمال ہوتے ہیں۔
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103📚Forensic Toxicology & PharmacologyAmino Acids
The main principle behind Ninhydrin test is:
Explanation
The Ninhydrin test is a redox reaction where amino acids are oxidatively deaminated by ninhydrin (which is reduced to hydrindantin), forming a purple Ruhemann's complex.
ننہائڈرن ٹیسٹ (Ninhydrin test) ریڈوکس ری ایکشن (Redox reaction) پر مبنی ہے جہاں امینو ایسڈ آکسیڈائز ہوتے ہیں اور ننہائڈرن خود ریڈیوس ہو کر جامنی رنگ بناتا ہے۔
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104📚General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryPhotochemistry
Photochemical process includes
Explanation
All listed processes are photochemical (driven by light absorption): photosynthesis in plants, vitamin D synthesis in skin, and photo-degradation of plastic polymers.
روشنی جذب ہونے سے ہونے والے کیمیائی عمل (Photochemical process) میں فوٹو سنتھیسز، وٹامن ڈی کی تیاری اور پلاسٹک کا خراب ہونا سبھی شامل ہیں (All A, B and C)۔
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105📚General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryChromatography
What is the full form for the ODS column used in HPLC?
Explanation
The ODS column in HPLC stands for Octadecyl Silane (C18), which is the most widely used stationary phase for reversed-phase chromatography.
HPLC میں استعمال ہونے والے او ڈی ایس (ODS) کالم کا پورا نام آکٹا ڈیسائل سائلین (Octa Decyl Silane) ہے، جسے C18 کالم بھی کہتے ہیں۔
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106📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWeb Security
Which of the following explains the nature of Cookies?
Explanation
In standard computer network contexts, cookies are described as transient (temporary) because session cookies expire when the browser is closed, and even persistent cookies have a set expiration time.
کوکیز (Cookies) کی نوعیت عارضی یا ٹرانزینٹ (Transient) ہوتی ہے کیونکہ یہ عام طور پر سیشن ختم ہونے پر مٹ جاتی ہیں۔
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107📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWeb Security
Which of the following is a Boolean cookie attribute?
Explanation
'Secure' is a Boolean attribute (flag) for cookies. When set, it restricts the transmission of the cookie to secure (HTTPS) connections only.
سیکیور (Secure) کوکی کا ایک بولین (Boolean) وصف ہے؛ اگر یہ لاگو ہو تو کوکی صرف سیکیور کنکشن (HTTPS) پر ہی بھیجی جائے گی۔
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108📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsNetworking
Abbreviation of DNS is
Explanation
DNS stands for Domain Name System, which translates human-readable domain names (like example.com) into machine-readable IP addresses.
ڈی ان ایس (DNS) کا پورا نام ڈومین نیم سسٹم (Domain Name System) ہے۔
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109📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsSubnetting
The subnet mask for a particular network is 255.255.31.0. Which of the following pairs of IP addresses could belong to this network?
Explanation
With subnet mask 255.255.31.0, bitwise ANDing of 129 (10000001) and 31 (00011111) gives 1, and 161 (10100001) and 31 gives 1. Thus, both 128.8.129.43 and 128.8.161.55 share the same subnet prefix (128.8.1.0).
دیے گئے آپشنز میں سے صرف آپشن C کے دونوں آئی پی ایڈریس 255.255.31.0 ماسک کے تحت ایک ہی نیٹ ورک سے تعلق رکھتے ہیں (دونوں کا نیٹ ورک ایڈریس 128.8.1.0 بنتا ہے)۔
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110📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsSubnetting
A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?
Explanation
The subnet mask 255.255.255.192 leaves 6 bits for the host ID (32 - 26 = 6 bits). The maximum number of assignable hosts is 2^6 - 2 = 62 (excluding network and broadcast addresses).
سب نیٹ ماسک 255.255.255.192 میں ہوسٹ کے لیے 6 بٹس بچتے ہیں، جس سے کل ہوسٹس کی تعداد 2^6 - 2 = 62 بنتی ہے۔
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111📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsNetworking Devices
Which of the following is NOT true with respect to a transparent bridge and a router?
Explanation
The statement in Option B is reversed: a bridge works at Layer 2 and uses MAC addresses, whereas a router works at Layer 3 and uses IP addresses. Therefore, Option B is NOT true.
دوسرا بیان (B) غلط ہے کیونکہ برِج میک (MAC) ایڈریس کا استعمال کرتا ہے اور راؤٹر آئی پی (IP) ایڈریس کا استعمال کرتا ہے۔
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112📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsWireless Networks
Which media access control protocol is used by IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN?
Explanation
IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to manage medium access and avoid collisions on the wireless medium.
وائرلیس ایل اے این (IEEE 802.11) میں میڈیا ایکسیس کنٹرول کے لیے CSMA/CA پروٹوکول کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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113📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsData Communication
The telephone network is a good example of
Explanation
The telephone network is a full-duplex system because both parties can transmit and receive audio signals simultaneously over the same channel.
ٹیلی فون نیٹ ورک فل ڈوپلیکس (Full duplex) کی ایک بہترین مثال ہے کیونکہ اس میں دونوں طرف سے بیک وقت بات چیت ہو سکتی ہے۔
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114📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsIP Addressing
The length of address in IPv6 is
Explanation
An IPv6 address has a length of 128 bits, providing a vastly larger address space compared to the 32-bit address space of IPv4.
آئی پی ورژن 6 (IPv6) ایڈریس کی لمبائی 128 بٹس ہوتی ہے۔
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115📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsVPN Protocols
Which of the following is not a VPN protocol?
Explanation
SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol) is an older encapsulation protocol for serial ports, not a Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocol. PPTP, L2F, and IPSec are VPN tunneling protocols.
سلپ (SLIP) ایک پرانا لنک لیئر پروٹوکول ہے اور یہ وی پی این (VPN) پروٹوکول نہیں ہے، جبکہ باقی تمام وی پی این پروٹوکول ہیں۔
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116📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptographic Protocols
Typically, _____ can receive application data from any application layer protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP.
Explanation
Both SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS (Transport Layer Security) reside at the transport/session layer and can secure any application-layer protocol, although HTTP is the most common use case (resulting in HTTPS).
ایس ایس ایل (SSL) اور ٹی ایل ایس (TLS) دونوں ہی کسی بھی ایپلی کیشن لیئر پروٹوکول سے ڈیٹا حاصل کر سکتے ہیں، حالانکہ عام طور پر یہ ایچ ٹی ٹی پی (HTTP) ہوتا ہے۔
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117📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsEmail Security
One security protocol for the e-mail system is
Explanation
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is an email encryption protocol that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication. SSL/TLS are general transport protocols, and IPSec operates at the network layer.
ای میل سیکیورٹی کے لیے پی جی پی (Pretty Good Privacy) پروٹوکول کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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118📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsNetworking
PDU stands for
Explanation
PDU stands for Protocol Data Unit, which represents a single unit of information transmitted among peer entities of a computer network (e.g. segments in TCP, packets in IP, frames in Ethernet).
پی ڈی یو (PDU) کا مخفف پروٹوکول ڈیٹا یونٹ (Protocol data unit) ہے۔
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119📚Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsCryptographic Protocols
SSL provides
Explanation
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) provides confidentiality (via symmetric encryption), integrity (via Message Authentication Codes/HMAC), and also supports data compression.
ایس ایس ایل (SSL) ڈیٹا کی رازداری (Confidentiality)، سالمیت (Integrity) اور کمپریشن (Compression) تمام خدمات فراہم کرتا ہے۔
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120📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityIP Addressing
Convert the given binary notation IP address to dotted-decimal notation: 10000000 00001011 00000011 00011111
Explanation
Converting each 8-bit binary octet to decimal: 10000000 = 128, 00001011 = 11, 00000011 = 3, 00011111 = 31. Thus, the address is 128.11.3.31.
دی گئی بائنری نوٹیشن کو ڈیسیمل میں تبدیل کرنے پر آئی پی ایڈریس 128.11.3.31 بنتا ہے۔
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121📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
Which one of the following is not an application of hash function?
Explanation
Key wrapping uses symmetric encryption to wrap/protect cryptographic keys. Hash functions are extensively applied in one-way password storage, file integrity checking for virus detection, and intrusion detection (generating alerts for modified files).
کی ریپنگ (Key wrapping) سمیٹرک انکرپشن کا حصہ ہے، یہ ہیش فنکشن کا بنیادی اطلاق نہیں ہے۔
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122📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetworking
Identify the service which is used to translate a domain name to IP address.
Explanation
DNS (Domain Name System) is the hierarchical and decentralized naming system used to resolve human-readable hostnames into numeric IP addresses.
ڈی این ایس (DNS) ڈومین نیم کو آئی پی ایڈریس میں تبدیل کرنے کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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123📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Commands
Identify the command which is used to create Linux File systems.
Explanation
The `mkfs` (make filesystem) command in Linux is used to build a specific filesystem (like ext4) on a partition or storage device.
لینکس میں نیا فائل سسٹم بنانے کے لیے mkfs (make file system) کمانڈ استعمال کی جاتی ہے۔
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124📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Commands
Which of the following commands is used to display and create files?
Explanation
The `cat` command (short for concatenate) in Unix-like systems is commonly used to display file content, merge files, or create new files using redirection operators (e.g. `cat > file.txt`).
لینکس میں فائلوں کو دکھانے اور بنانے کے لیے 'cat' کمانڈ کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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125📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityLinux Commands
Which Linux command is used to see all the hidden files?
Explanation
In Linux, running `ls -a` (list all) displays all files and directories in the directory, including hidden files (those starting with a dot).
لینکس میں چھپی ہوئی (hidden) فائلوں کو دیکھنے کے لیے 'ls -a' کمانڈ کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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126📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityWeb Servers
Identify among the following which is mainly used to host web site.
Explanation
A web server is a software and hardware system designed to store, process, and deliver website pages to clients over the HTTP/HTTPS protocols.
वेब سائیٹس کی ہوسٹنگ کے لیے بنیادی طور پر ویب سرور (Web server) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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127📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityWeb Protocols
HTTPS is stand for
Explanation
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, which is HTTP layered over TLS or SSL to provide encrypted, authenticated network communication.
ایچ ٹی ٹی پی ایس (HTTPS) کا پورا نام ہائپر ٹیکسٹ ٹرانسفر پروٹوکول سیکیور (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) ہے۔
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128📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetwork History
Identify the first network which was based on TCP/IP protocol.
Explanation
ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects Agency Network) adopted the TCP/IP protocol suite on January 1, 1983, becoming the first network to operate on TCP/IP.
دنیا کا پہلا نیٹ ورک جو ٹی سی پی/آئی پی (TCP/IP) پروٹوکول پر مبنی تھا، ارپانیٹ (ARPANET) تھا۔
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129📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityIP Addressing
What is the length of the IPv4 address?
Explanation
An IPv4 address is composed of 32 bits, typically represented in dotted-decimal format (four 8-bit octets separated by decimals).
آئی پی ورژن 4 (IPv4) ایڈریس کی لمبائی 32 بٹس ہوتی ہے۔
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130📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetwork Topologies
The arrangement where all data pass through a central computer is known as
Explanation
In a Star topology, all network nodes are connected to a central hub, switch, or computer, through which all data transmissions must pass.
وہ نیٹ ورک لے آؤٹ جس میں تمام ڈیٹا ایک مرکزی کمپیوٹر سے گزرتا ہے، اسٹار ٹوپولوجی (Star topology) کہلاتا ہے۔
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131📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityNetwork Protocols
Choose among the following which is a bit-oriented protocol.
Explanation
HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is a bit-oriented synchronous data link layer protocol. SSL, HTTP, and HTTPS are character/byte-oriented application/transport protocols.
ایچ ٹی ڈی ایل سی (HDLC) ڈیٹا لنک لیئر کا ایک بٹ اورینٹڈ (bit-oriented) پروٹوکول ہے۔
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132📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityFirewalls
What is a proxy server also known as?
Explanation
An application-level gateway (or application proxy) acts as a proxy server to filter incoming/outgoing traffic at the application layer of the OSI model.
پراکسی سرور کو ایپلی کیشن لیل گیٹ وے (Application-level gateway) بھی کہا جاتا ہے۔
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133📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityRouting Protocols
What is routing algorithm used by OSPF routing protocol?
Explanation
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a Link-State routing protocol that uses the link-state routing algorithm (Dijkstra's SPF algorithm) to find the shortest path.
او ایس پی ایف (OSPF) پروٹوکول نیٹ ورک روٹنگ کے لیے لنک اسٹیٹ (Link state) الگورتھم کا استعمال کرتا ہے۔
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134📚Computer Networks & Internet SecuritySubnetting
What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?
Explanation
A /28 prefix corresponds to subnet mask 255.255.255.240. Binary bitwise AND of host octet 68 (01000100) and mask 240 (11110000) gives 64 (01000000). Thus, the subnet address is 200.10.5.64.
ہوسٹ آئی پی 200.10.5.68/28 کے سب نیٹ کا پتہ 200.10.5.64 بنتا ہے کیونکہ 28 بٹ کا سب نیٹ ماسک 255.255.255.240 ہے۔
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135📚Computer Networks & Internet SecurityIP Addressing
To test the IP stack on your local host, which IP address would you ping?
Explanation
The IP address 127.0.0.1 is the standard loopback address reserved to test the TCP/IP protocol stack on the local host.
اپنے لوکل ہوسٹ کے نیٹ ورک اسٹیک کو چیک کرنے کے لیے لوپ بیک ایڈریس 127.0.0.1 پر پنگ کیا جاتا ہے۔
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136📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetworking Organizations
IANA stands for
Explanation
IANA stands for Internet Assigned Numbers Authority, a standard standards body responsible for global coordination of IP addressing, DNS root zone management, and protocol symbols.
آئی اے این اے (IANA) کا مخفف انٹرنیٹ اسائنڈ نمبرز اتھارٹی (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority) ہے۔
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137📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls
Which firewall remembers the information about the previously passed packets?
Explanation
Stateful firewalls monitor and keep track of the state of active network connections (using a state table) to filter incoming and outgoing packets based on connection history.
اسٹیٹ فل فائر وال (Stateful firewalls) اپنے پاس سے گزرنے والے پچھلے پیکٹس کی معلومات اور سیشن اسٹیٹ کو یاد رکھتی ہے۔
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138📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls
Network layer firewall works as a
Explanation
A network layer firewall filters traffic based on network packet headers (IP addresses, protocol type, ports), functioning primarily as a packet filter.
نیٹ ورک لیئر فائر وال بنیادی طور پر پیکٹ فلٹر (Packet filter) کے طور پر کام کرتی ہے۔
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139📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryFirewalls
The security device which installed between two networks (internal network to outside network) for controlling the flow of traffic into and out of network is known as
Explanation
A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization's previously established security policies.
دو نیٹ ورکس کے درمیان ٹریفک کو کنٹرول کرنے کے لیے لگایا جانے والا حفاظتی آلہ فائر وال (Firewall) کہلاتا ہے۔
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140📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryWireless Networks
The IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as a building block of wireless
Explanation
The Basic Service Set (BSS) is the fundamental building block of an IEEE 802.11 wireless Local Area Network (LAN).
آئی ای ای ای 802.11 (IEEE 802.11) وائرلیس لوکل ایریا نیٹ ورک (LAN) کی تعمیراتی اکائی کے طور پر کام کرتا ہے۔
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141📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryIP Addressing
Which one is the natural mask for a class C Network?
Explanation
The natural (default) subnet mask for Class C network ranges is 255.255.255.0 (/24 prefix length).
کلاس سی نیٹ ورک کا ڈیفالٹ یا قدرتی سب نیٹ ماسک 255.255.255.0 ہوتا ہے۔
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142📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetworking Devices
If the systems use different protocols, which one of the following devices is used to link two systems?
Explanation
A Gateway is a network device used to connect two systems that use different protocols, performing translation/conversion between them at all layers of the OSI model.
جب دو سسٹمز الگ الگ پروٹوکول استعمال کرتے ہیں تو انہیں جوڑنے کے لیے گیٹ وے (Gateway) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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143📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Protocols
What is the standard form of SNMP?
Explanation
SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol, a standard Internet protocol used to collect, organize, and manage information from managed devices on IP networks.
ایس این ایم پی (SNMP) کا پورا نام سمپل نیٹ ورک مینجمنٹ پروٹوکول (Simple Network Management Protocol) ہے۔
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144📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Topologies
Number of cables required connect 'n' device using Mesh Topology is
Explanation
In a fully connected mesh topology containing n devices, each device connects to n-1 other devices. The total number of simplex/physical links is n * (n - 1) / 2.
میش ٹوپولوجی (Mesh Topology) میں n آلات کو آپس میں جوڑنے کے لیے کل n(n-1)/2 کیبلز کی ضرورت ہوتی ہے۔
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145📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryIP Addressing
Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram?
Explanation
The base header is a mandatory, fixed-size 40-byte header that must be present in every IPv6 datagram, whereas extension headers are optional.
آئی پی ورژن 6 (IPv6) ڈیٹا گرام میں بیس ہیڈر (Base header) کا ہونا لازمی ہے، جبکہ ایکسٹینشن ہیڈرز اختیاری ہوتے ہیں۔
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146📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Services
FTP uses port number _____ for control connection.
Explanation
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses TCP port 21 to establish and manage control connections (sending commands), while port 20 is used for data transfer.
ایف ٹی پی (FTP) کنٹرول سیشن قائم کرنے کے لیے پورٹ نمبر 21 کا استعمال کرتا ہے، جبکہ ڈیٹا ٹرانسفر پورٹ 20 پر ہوتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
147📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryOperating Systems
Which of the following is not an operating system?
Explanation
Oracle is a multinational technology corporation known primarily for its Database Management System (DBMS), not an operating system. Linux, DOS, and Windows are OS.
اوریکل (Oracle) ایک ڈیٹا بیس اور سافٹ ویئر کمپنی ہے، یہ آپریٹنگ سسٹم نہیں ہے جبکہ ونڈوز اور لینکس آپریٹنگ سسٹمز ہیں۔
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148📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetworking
How many digits of the Data Network Identification Code (DNIC) identify the country?
Explanation
A DNIC is a 4-digit number. The first three digits represent the Country Code (Data Country Code - DCC), and the fourth digit specifies the data network within that country.
ڈیٹا نیٹ ورک آئیڈینٹی فکیشن کوڈ (DNIC) کے پہلے تین ہندسے (First three digits) ملک کی شناخت کرتے ہیں۔
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149📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryCyber Attacks
Which of the below is a popular victim of cyber attackers looking to gain the IP address of a target or victim user?
Explanation
Websites are common tools used by attackers to log visitor connections. By redirecting victims to a specific web server, attackers can easily capture and inspect the victim's source IP address in server access logs.
حملہ آور عام طور پر صارفین کا آئی پی ایڈریس حاصل کرنے کے لیے ویب سائٹس (Websites) کو نشانہ بناتے ہیں یا خود جعلی ویب سائٹ بناتے ہیں۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
150📚Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryNetwork Services
What is a single entrance for multiple connectivity's called?
Explanation
A directory service (like Active Directory) is a single, centralized database system that acts as a single point of entry to manage and connect multiple network services and users.
نیٹ ورک میں بہت سارے کنکشنز اور وسائل تک رسائی کے لیے استعمال ہونے والی واحد داخلی خدمت کو ڈائریکٹری سروس (Directory service) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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151📚Cryptography & Network SecurityDigital Evidence
A network sniffer program is an example of.
Explanation
In legal and digital forensics contexts, a software utility (such as a packet sniffer) used to execute a crime (intercepting password data) is classified as 'Information as an instrumentality' of the crime.
نیٹ ورک اسنفر سافٹ ویئر نیٹ ورک ٹریفک کی جاسوسی کا ایک ذریعہ یا آلہ ہے، جسے انفارمیشن یا سافٹ ویئر بحیثیت آلہ کار (Information as an instrumentality) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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152📚Cryptography & Network SecurityCybersecurity Tools
Which of the following is a session hijacking tool?
Explanation
T-Sight is a commercial security and network sniffing utility used for session hijacking and active monitoring. Wireshark is a packet analyzer, Maltego is OSINT, and Nessus is a vulnerability scanner.
ٹی-سائٹ (T-Sight) ایک مشہور سیشن ہائی جیکنگ اور نیٹ ورک مانیٹرنگ ٹول ہے۔
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153📚Cryptography & Network SecurityIntrusion Detection Systems
What are characteristics of stack-based IDS?
Explanation
Stack-based IDSs are integrated directly into the host TCP/IP stack, allowing them to watch packets as they are processed through the network layer stack.
اسٹیک بیسڈ آئی ڈی ایس (IDS) ٹی سی پی/آئی پی اسٹیک کے ساتھ گہرائی سے جڑا ہوتا ہے اور وہاں سے گزرنے والے پیکٹس کی نگرانی کرتا ہے۔
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154📚Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Computing
Which of the following is the most refined and restrictive cloud service model?
Explanation
SaaS (Software as a Service) is the most refined and restrictive model for users because the provider manages all infrastructure, platforms, and software configuration, leaving users with only software application access.
سافت ویئر ایز اے سروس (SaaS) کلاؤڈ سروس کا سب سے محدود اور کنٹرولڈ ماڈل ہے جہاں صارف صرف سافٹ ویئر استعمال کر سکتا ہے۔
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155📚Cryptography & Network SecurityCloud Security
Which of the following is the standard for interoperable cloud-based key management?
Explanation
KMIP (Key Management Interoperability Protocol) is a standard developed by OASIS to ensure interoperability between key management servers and clients.
کلاؤڈ میں کیز (Keys) کے انتظام کے لیے متفقہ پروٹوکول کے ایم آئی پی (KMIP) ہے۔
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156📚Cryptography & Network SecuritySQL Injection
Which will be useful to detect SQL Injection attacks?
Explanation
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) inspects incoming network payloads against known attack signatures to detect malicious activities, including SQL Injection attacks.
نیٹ ورک میں ایس کیو ایل انجیکشن حملوں کا پتہ لگانے کے لیے انٹروژن ڈیٹیکشن سسٹم (Intrusion Detection System) انتہائی مفید ہے۔
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157📚Cryptography & Network SecuritySQL Injection
Which of the following statement is TRUE about SQL Injection?
Explanation
SQL Injection is a code injection technique used to penetrate applications by executing arbitrary SQL commands through user inputs.
ایس کیو ایل انجیکشن کے بارے میں یہ سچ ہے کہ یہ ایک کوڈ انجیکشن یا کوڈ پینیٹریشن ٹیکنیک (Code Penetration Technique) ہے۔
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158📚Cryptography & Network SecurityNetwork Forensics
The process of collection of network device logs is known as
Explanation
In network forensics, collecting data and logs directly from running network devices (routers, switches, firewalls) is known as Active Acquisition.
نیٹ ورک ڈیوائسز کے لاگز کو جمع کرنے کے عمل کو ڈیجیٹل فارنسک کی اصطلاح میں ایکٹو ایکوزیشن (Active acquisition) کہتے ہیں۔
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159📚Cryptography & Network SecurityNetworking
ATM uses
Explanation
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) uses Asynchronous Time Division Multiplexing (ATDM) to multiplex cell streams over physical links.
اے ٹی ایم (ATM) نیٹ ورک ڈیٹا کی منتقلی کے لیے اسینکرونس ٹائم ڈویژن ملٹی پلیکسنگ (Asynchronous time division multiplexing) کا استعمال کرتا ہے۔
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160📚Cryptography & Network SecurityNetworking
An ATM switch at the boundary of the network usually uses _____ for routing.
Explanation
At the UNI boundary of an ATM network, switches translate and route cells using both Virtual Path Identifiers (VPIs) and Virtual Channel Identifiers (VCIs) to map connections.
نیٹ ورک کی سرحد پر موجود ATM سوئچ روٹنگ کے لیے VPI اور VCI دونوں کا استعمال کرتا ہے۔
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161📚Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
Which modulations scheme is used by Bluetooth technology?
Explanation
Bluetooth Basic Rate (BR) technology uses GFSK (Gaussian Frequency Shift Keying) modulation to transmit data over its 79 RF channels.
بلوٹوتھ ٹیکنالوجی سگنل منتقل کرنے کے لیے GFSK (Gaussian Frequency Shift Keying) موڈولیشن کا استعمال کرتی ہے۔
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162📚Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
Which one of the following enables us to use the entire bandwidth simultaneously?
Explanation
CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) enables multiple users to utilize the entire allocated frequency bandwidth simultaneously by separating user signals with unique codes.
سی ڈی ایم اے (CDMA) ٹیکنالوجی تمام صارفین کو بیک وقت پورا بینڈوتھ استعمال کرنے کی اجازت دیتی ہے۔
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163📚Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
Which of the following is not true about TDMA?
Explanation
In TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access), a single carrier frequency is shared among multiple users using distinct time slots, rather than being dedicated to a single user.
پہلا بیان (A) غلط ہے کیونکہ ٹی ڈی ایم اے (TDMA) میں ایک ہی فریکوئنسی چینل کو وقت کے حصوں میں بانٹ کر متعدد صارفین استعمال کرتے ہیں۔
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164📚Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Networks
_____ synchronization overhead is required in TDMA due to _____ transmission.
Explanation
TDMA requires high synchronization overhead (guard times and sync bits) because transmission occurs in short, discontinuous bursts which must align perfectly in time slots.
ٹی ڈی ایم اے میں برسٹ (burst) ٹرانسمیشن کی وجہ سے سگنل ملانے کے لیے زیادہ سنکرونائزیشن اوور ہیڈ (High, burst) درکار ہوتا ہے۔
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165📚Cryptography & Network SecurityWireless Calculations
A TDMA system uses 25 MHz for the forward link, which is broken into radio channels of 200, kHz. If 8 speech channels are supported on a single radio channel, how many simultaneous users can be accommodated?
Explanation
Number of radio channels = 25 MHz / 200 kHz = 25,000 / 200 = 125. Since each channel supports 8 users, total simultaneous users = 125 * 8 = 1000.
حل کرنے پر: 25 میگا ہرٹز کو 200 کلو ہرٹز کے چینلز میں تقسیم کرنے سے 125 چینلز ملتے ہیں، اور ہر چینل پر 8 صارفین کے لحاظ سے کل 1000 صارفین بنتے ہیں۔
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166📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCyber Crimes
Which among the following characteristics are correct about cyberstalking?
Explanation
Cyberstalking is specifically defined as the use of the Internet, email, or other electronic communication devices to stalk or harass another person.
سائبر اسٹاکنگ (cyberstalking) کا مطلب انٹرنیٹ یا الیکٹرانک آلات کا استعمال کر کے کسی شخص یا گروہ کو ہراساں کرنا ہے۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
167📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsCyber Crimes
What are the means used for stalking by a cyber stalker?
Explanation
A cyberstalker uses electronic communication channels like emails, direct messages, social media, phone calls, and filesharing/airdrop to harass victims.
سائبر اسٹاکر گواہ یا شکار کو ہراساں کرنے کے لیے ای میلز، فون کالز اور پیغامات (Emails, messages, etc.) کا استعمال کرتا ہے۔
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168📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsSocial Engineering
Part of the social media sites are the various games & third-party applications which helps _____ to get access to your data.
Explanation
Malicious games and third-party apps on social networks are frequently deployed by cyber-criminals to harvest user profile data and spread malware.
سوشل میڈیا پر گیمز اور فریق ثالث (third-party) کی ایپلی کیشنز اکثر سائبر مجرموں (Cyber-criminals) کو آپ کا ڈیٹا چرانے میں مدد کرتی ہے۔
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169📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsInformation Security
Many social media sites and services provide _____ for legitimate account verification.
Explanation
Two-step (or two-factor) verification is standardly provided by social media services to authenticate the identity of the legitimate account holder during logins.
سوشل میڈیا سائٹس اکاؤنٹ کی سیکیورٹی اور تصدیق کے لیے ٹو-اسٹیپ ویریفکیشن (2-step verification) کی سہولت دیتی ہیں۔
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170📚Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsIT Act
Which is the Act which provides legal framework for e-Governance in India?
Explanation
The Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act 2000) provides the legal framework for e-governance in India by validating digital signatures and electronic records.
بھارت میں ای-گورننس (e-Governance) کے لیے قانونی ڈھانچہ فراہم کرنے والا بنیادی قانون انفارمیشن ٹیکنالوجی ایکٹ 2000 (IT Act 2000) ہے۔
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171📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
The following steps are carried out during crime scene processing.
i. Collect
ii. Process and preserve
iii. Record
iv. Observe
Which is the right order beginning from the first step?
Explanation
The standard sequence of crime scene processing is to first Observe (iv) the scene, Record (iii) it through notes, sketches, and photos, Collect (i) the physical evidence, and finally Process and preserve (ii) the evidence and scene details.
کرائم سین پروسیسنگ کا صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: سب سے پہلے مشاہدہ کرنا (Observe - iv)، پھر ریکارڈ کرنا (Record - iii)، پھر نمونے جمع کرنا (Collect - i)، اور آخر میں پروسیس اور محفوظ کرنا (Process and preserve - ii)۔ یعنی iv، iii، i، ii۔
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172📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsBiometrics
Which of the following is an example of behavioural biometrics?
Explanation
Behavioral biometrics measure patterns of human activities. Handwriting, signature dynamics, keystroke dynamics, and gait are behavioral, while iris, lip prints, and nail beds are physiological biometrics.
انفرادی رویے کی پیمائش کرنے والے بائیومیٹرکس کو ہیبیچوئل یا بیہیویورل بائیومیٹرکس کہا جاتا ہے۔ لکھاوٹ (Handwriting) اس کی ایک مثال ہے، جبکہ آئیرس اور لپ پرنٹ جسمانی بائیومیٹرکس ہیں۔
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173📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Which of the following search methods on the crime scene is a very thorough method for searching for evidence?
Explanation
The double strip search method (also known as the grid search method) involves searching along parallel strips and then repeating the process perpendicular to the first path, making it extremely thorough.
ڈبل اسٹرپ طریقہ (یا گرڈ تلاش کا طریقہ) کرائم سین پر شواہد تلاش کرنے کا ایک انتہائی تفصیلی اور منظم طریقہ ہے۔
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174📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Management
Consider the following duties of the first responding officer.
i. Barricade the crime scene
ii. Compile data from the scene
iii. Attend to any injured people/survivors
iv. Remove and detain witnesses/suspects from crime scene
Arrange the duties in chronological order starting from the first duty
Explanation
The first priority of the responding officer is to preserve life by attending to the injured (iii). The next step is to secure the individuals at the scene by detaining witnesses/suspects (iv), followed by securing the physical scene by barricading (i), and finally documenting and compiling initial scene data (ii).
سب سے پہلے زخمیوں کو طبی امداد فراہم کرنا (iii)، پھر گواہوں یا مشتبہ افراد کو قابو کرنا (iv)، پھر کرائم سین کو بیریکیڈ کر کے سیل کرنا (i) اور آخر میں ڈیٹا اکٹھا کرنا (ii) ترجیحی ترتیب ہے۔
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175📚Cell Biology & Molecular GeneticsCrime Scene Reconstruction
In crime scene reconstruction, what does "conjecture" mean?
Explanation
In the process of crime scene reconstruction, a conjecture refers to a preliminary, working hypothesis or possible explanation formulated before comprehensive and detailed laboratory analysis is completed.
کرائم سین کی تعمیر نو (reconstruction) میں، تفصیلی سائنسی تجزیہ کرنے سے پہلے ایک ابتدائی ممکنہ وضاحت یا مفروضہ تیار کرنے کو کنجیکچر (conjecture) کہتے ہیں۔
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176📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyCrime Scene Sketching
Which of the following sketches shows a side view for example perspective of a wall looking from the side?
Explanation
An elevated sketch (or elevation view) depicts a vertical plane, showing a side-on view of the scene, such as a wall containing bullet holes or blood spatter patterns.
ایلیویٹڈ ویو (Elevated view) وہ خاکہ ہے جو کرائم سین کا سائیڈ ویو دکھاتا ہے، جیسے دیوار پر موجود گولیوں یا خون کے نشانات۔
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177📚Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyForensic Law
Which of the following evidences are NOT accepted in the Indian Legal system or admissible in court?
Explanation
In the landmark judgment Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010), the Supreme Court of India ruled that lie-detector tests (polygraphy, narco-analysis, brain mapping) cannot be admitted as evidence unless voluntarily undertaken, and even then, results are generally not substantively admissible. DNA, fingerprints, and autopsy reports are widely accepted.
ہندوستانی قانونی نظام میں پولی گرافی (جھوٹ پکڑنے کا ٹیسٹ) کے نتائج کو عدالت میں ثبوت کے طور پر قبول نہیں کیا جاتا، جبکہ ڈی این اے، فنگر پرنٹ اور پوسٹ مارٹم رپورٹس مکمل طور پر قابل قبول ہیں۔
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178📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
Fetal hemoglobin is made up of four protein chains. They are
Explanation
Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) is the main oxygen transport protein in human fetuses, consisting of two alpha (a) chains and two gamma (g) chains (a2g2). Adult hemoglobin (HbA) contains two alpha and two beta (b) chains.
جنین کا ہیموگلوبن (Fetal hemoglobin) چار پروٹین چینز پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے، جو کہ 2 الفا اور 2 گاما (gamma) زنجیریں ہوتی ہیں۔
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179📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
What type of amylase does the human saliva constitute?
Explanation
Human saliva contains salivary alpha-amylase (ptyalin), which catalyzes the hydrolysis of alpha-1,4-glucosidic bonds in starch.
انسانی لعاب (saliva) میں الفا-ایمیلیز (alpha-amylase) انزائم پایا جاتا ہے جو نشاستے کو توڑنے کا کام شروع کرتا ہے۔
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180📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
After 6 cycles of PCR amplification process, how many number of DNA copies would be generated under ideal conditions?
Explanation
Under ideal PCR conditions, DNA amplification is exponential, represented by 2^n, where n is the number of cycles. For 6 cycles, 2^6 = 64 copies are generated.
پی سی آر (PCR) میں نمونے کی تعداد 2^n کے تناسب سے بڑھتی ہے۔ 6 سائیکلز کے بعد ڈی این اے کاپیوں کی تعداد 2^6 = 64 ہوگی۔
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181📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Extraction
Arrange the steps of organic DNA extraction method in order
i. Ethanol precipitation
ii. Cellular lysis
iii. PCI treatment
iv. Gel electrophoresis
Explanation
The organic DNA extraction protocol follows this sequence: cellular lysis (ii) to break open cell membranes, Phenol-Chloroform-Isoamyl alcohol (PCI) treatment (iii) to separate proteins from DNA, ethanol precipitation (i) to concentrate DNA, and gel electrophoresis (iv) to analyze the quality/quantity of the isolated DNA.
ڈی این اے نکالنے (extraction) کا صحیح ترتیب یہ ہے: سب سے پہلے خلیات کو توڑنا (Cellular lysis - ii)، پھر پی سی آئی (PCI) ٹریٹمنٹ کے ذریعے پروٹین الگ کرنا (iii)، پھر ایتھنول پریسیپیٹیشن (i) اور آخر میں جیل الیکٹروفورسس (iv)۔
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182📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyPopulation Genetics
How would you calculate the locus genotype frequency for a heterozygous locus with allele frequencies p and q for human STR genotyping?
Explanation
According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, the frequency of a heterozygous genotype for two alleles with frequencies p and q is calculated as 2pq.
ہارڈی وینبرگ قانون کے تحت ہیٹروزائگس (heterozygous) لوکس کے لیے جینو ٹائپ کی فریکوئنسی کا فارمولا 2pq ہے۔
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183📚Forensic Serology & ImmunologyAnatomy
Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone?
Explanation
A sesamoid bone is a bone embedded within a tendon. The patella (kneecap) is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body.
سیسامائڈ ہڈی (sesamoid bone) وہ ہڈی ہے جو ٹینڈن کے اندر ابھرتی ہے۔ پٹیلا (Patella - گھٹنے کی ہڈی) انسانی جسم میں اس کی سب سے بڑی مثال ہے۔
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184📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesForensic Biology
In what way, the presence of plant peroxidases may affect the result of Kastle-Meyer assay?
Explanation
The Kastle-Meyer (KM) test is a catalytic color test for blood. Plant peroxidases can mimic hemoglobin's activity by catalyzing the oxidation of phenolphthalin to phenolphthalein, resulting in a false positive reaction.
کیسٹل میئر ٹیسٹ (خون کی جانچ) میں پودوں کے انزائمز (peroxidases) بھی ہیموگلوبن کی طرح رنگ پیدا کر سکتے ہیں، جس سے غلط مثبت (false positive) نتیجہ ملتا ہے۔
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185📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics
In what year was the Human Genome Project completed?
Explanation
The Human Genome Project (HGP) was officially completed and declared closed in April 2003, having sequenced 99% of the euchromatic human genome.
انسانی جینوم پروجیکٹ (Human Genome Project) کا کام باضابطہ طور پر سال 2003 میں مکمل ہوا تھا۔
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186📚DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesGenetics
In snapdragons, a cross between a red flower plant and a white flower plant produces a heterozygote that has pink flowers. This is an example of
Explanation
Incomplete dominance occurs when the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype is an intermediate blend of the two homozygous phenotypes (e.g. pink flowers in snapdragons from red and white parents).
سنیپ ڈریگن میں سرخ اور سفید پھولوں کے ملاپ سے گلابی پھولوں کا بننا نامکمل غلبہ (Incomplete dominance) کی مثال ہے۔
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187📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Biology
What fluid accounts for 60% of the seminal fluid?
Explanation
Seminal vesicle fluid constitutes approximately 60% to 70% of the total volume of human semen, containing fructose, prostaglandins, and proteins.
سیمن (semen) کے کل حجم کا تقریباً 60 فیصد حصہ سیمینل ویزیکل سیال (Seminal vesicle fluid) پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے۔
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188📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Biology
What component of the sweat can be used for performing a confirmatory assay?
Explanation
Dermcidin is an antimicrobial peptide expressed and secreted specifically by human eccrine sweat glands, serving as a highly specific biomarker for the identification of sweat.
پسینے کی تصدیقی جانچ (confirmatory assay) کے لیے ڈرمیسیڈن (Dermicidin) پروٹین کو بطور مارکر استعمال کیا جاتا ہے، جو صرف پسینے کے غدود سے خارج ہوتا ہے۔
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189📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyForensic Biology
Which of the following statement is FALSE?
Explanation
In human hair, the cortex constitutes the bulk of the hair shaft, and the medulla is very narrow (occupying less than 1/3rd of the shaft's diameter). Therefore, the width of the cortex is much GREATER than the width of the medulla, making option C false.
انسانی بال میں کارٹیکس (cortex) کا حصہ میڈولا (medulla) سے بہت زیادہ بڑا ہوتا ہے۔ اس لیے یہ کہنا غلط ہے کہ کارٹیکس کی چوڑائی میڈولا کی چوڑائی سے کم ہوتی ہے (C غلط ہے)۔
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190📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyBiochemistry
At what linkage does Human Salivary Amylase cleave in the starch molecule?
Explanation
Human salivary alpha-amylase is an endo-enzyme that specifically cleaves internal alpha-1,4-glucosidic bonds in starch and glycogen molecules.
انسانی تھوک کا ایمیلیز انزائم نشاستہ (starch) کے مالیکیول میں الفا-1,4 (a1->4) لنکیج کو توڑتا ہے۔
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191📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyMitochondrial DNA
What is the most polymorphic region in human mitochondrial DNA?
Explanation
The D-loop (displacement loop) or control region of human mitochondrial DNA contains the hypervariable regions (HV1, HV2, and HV3), which accumulate mutations rapidly and are the most polymorphic regions used for sequencing.
انسانی مائٹوکونڈریل ڈی این اے (mtDNA) کا سب سے زیادہ متغیر یا پولی مارفک خطہ ڈی-لوپ (D-loop) یا کنٹرول ریجن کہلاتا ہے۔
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192📚General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyGenetics
In maize, a dominant allele (A) is necessary for seed color, as opposed to colorless (a). Another gene has a recessive allele (w) that results in waxy starch, as opposed to normal starch (W). The two genes segregate independently. An AaWW plant is testcrossed. What are the phenotypes and relative frequencies of offspring?
Explanation
The testcross is AaWW x aaww. Since W is homozygous dominant (WW) in the first parent, all offspring receive a W allele and will have normal starch (Ww). The A gene cross (Aa x aa) yields 1/2 Aa (colored) and 1/2 aa (colorless). Thus, the phenotypic ratio is 1 (colored, normal starch) : 1 (colorless, normal starch).
ٹیسٹ کراس AaWW x aaww میں تمام بچوں کے پاس کم از کم ایک W ایلِیل ہوگا یعنی سب میں نارمل نشاستہ ہوگا۔ A جین کراس (Aa x aa) سے آدھے بچے رنگین (colored) اور آدھے بے رنگ (colorless) ہوں گے۔ اس طرح تناسب 1:1 ہوگا۔
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193📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Management
What is the first step in managing a crime scene?
Explanation
Securing the scene is the immediate first step in crime scene management to prevent contamination, alteration, or loss of evidence.
کرائم سین کی حفاظت اور اسے بیریکیڈ کرنا سب سے پہلا لازمی قدم ہے تاکہ شواہد کو آلودگی، تبدیلی یا ضائع ہونے سے بچایا جا سکے۔
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194📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Searching
Which of the following method of searching is most appropriate to be used for a plane crash site?
Explanation
For a very large, open, and complex site like a plane crash where debris is widely scattered, the Zone (or Sector) search method is most appropriate. The site is split into manageable sectors, and each is searched systematically.
طیارہ حادثہ (plane crash) جیسی بڑی اور وسیع جگہ پر جہاں ملبہ دور دور تک پھیلا ہوتا ہے، زون سرچ (Zone search) کا طریقہ سب سے موزوں ہے، جہاں علاقے کو چھوٹے زونز میں تقسیم کر کے الگ الگ ٹیموں کے ذریعے تلاش کی جاتی ہے۔
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195📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Management
What is the correct sequence of crime scene management?
Explanation
The correct logical order of evidence handling in forensic science is: Collection -> Packaging -> Forwarding -> Transportation -> Analysis. In Option C, this sequence is present (following the hyphenated typos in the exam booklet).
شواہد کی دیکھ بھال کا صحیح قانونی اور فارنزک تسلسل یہ ہے: شواہد اکٹھا کرنا (Collection)، پھر انہیں پیک کرنا (Packaging)، لیبارٹری کو بھیجنے کی منظوری/فارورڈنگ (Forwarding)، پھر ٹرانسپورٹ کرنا (Transportation)، اور آخر میں لیبارٹری میں تجزیہ کرنا (Analysis)۔
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196📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Management
What is the first step at managing the crime scene?
Explanation
Preservation of human life is the absolute highest priority. Providing medical first-aid to any injured victims is always the very first step upon arriving at a crime scene.
انسانی جان بچانا سب سے پہلی ترجیح ہے۔ اسی لیے جائے وقوعہ پر پہنچتے ہی سب سے پہلا قدم زخمیوں کو فوری طبی امداد (first-aid) فراہم کرنا ہوتا ہے۔
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197📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Management
What is the primary function of barricading the crime scene?
Explanation
Barricading restricts unauthorized access to the crime scene, preserving it from contamination, destruction, or alteration of crucial physical evidence by onlookers or personnel.
جائے وقوعہ کو بیریکیڈ کرنے کا بنیادی مقصد عام لوگوں اور غیر متعلقہ افراد کے داخلے کو روکنا ہے تاکہ شواہد کو خراب ہونے یا آلودہ (contamination) ہونے سے بچایا جا سکے۔
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198📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Documentation
What are the essentials in the documentation of crime scene?
Explanation
The four primary methods for documenting a crime scene are photography, notes taking, sketching, and videography. These establish a permanent, visual, and written record of the scene.
جائے وقوعہ کی مستند دستاویز سازی (documentation) کے چار بنیادی طریقے فوٹوگرافی، تفصیلی نوٹس لکھنا، خاکہ (sketch) بنانا، اور ویڈیو بنانا (videography) ہیں۔
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199📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonCrime Scene Processing
What is the significance of the primary walk-through at the crime scene?
Explanation
The primary walk-through is the initial survey of the crime scene by the investigator to observe the scene's condition, identify transient or fragile evidence, plan search strategies, and document initial locations.
کرائم سین پر سب سے پہلے کیے جانے والے معائنے (primary walk-through) کا مقصد جائے وقوعہ کی مجموعی حالت کو سمجھنا اور ممکنہ شواہد کی نشاندہی کر کے ان کے مقامات کو ابتدائی طور پر محفوظ کرنا ہے۔
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200📚Handwriting Examination & ComparisonQuestioned Documents
What is the full form of ESDA?
Explanation
ESDA stands for Electrostatic Detection Apparatus, which is a specialized forensic instrument used to visualize and create a permanent record of indented writing impressions on paper.
ایس ڈی اے (ESDA) کا پورا نام الیکٹرو سٹیٹک ڈیٹیکشن اپریٹس (Electrostatic Detection Apparatus) ہے، جو کاغذ پر موجود دبی ہوئی لکھاوٹ (indentations) کو ظاہر کرنے کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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201📚Signatures & Forgery DetectionDermatoglyphics
Statement A: Fingerprints study is also called as Dermatoglyphics
Statement B: Fingerprints of new born babies changes as they grow older
Explanation
Statement A is true (dermatoglyphics is the study of skin ridges). Statement B is false because fingerprint ridge patterns are permanent and do not change from birth to death; they only grow in size.
پہلا بیان (A) صحیح ہے کہ فنگر پرنٹس کے سائنسی مطالعہ کو ڈرمیٹوگلی فکس (Dermatoglyphics) کہتے ہیں۔ دوسرا بیان (B) غلط ہے کیونکہ فنگر پرنٹ عمر کے ساتھ تبدیل نہیں ہوتے، وہ مستقل رہتے ہیں، صرف ان کا سائز بڑھتا ہے۔
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202📚Signatures & Forgery DetectionANOVA Calculations
In an analysis of variance (ANOVA) comparing the performance of three different study techniques, the mean scores are 75, 80, and 85 for groups 1, 2, and 3, respectively. The overall mean is 80, and the total sum of squares is 300. What is the between-group sum of squares?
Explanation
The formula for Between-Group Sum of Squares (SSB) is SSB = sum of n_j (Mean_j - Overall_Mean)^2. Assuming equal group sizes (n = 1 for simplest representation): SSB = 1(75-80)^2 + 1(80-80)^2 + 1(85-80)^2 = (-5)^2 + 0^2 + 5^2 = 25 + 0 + 25 = 50.
گروپوں کے درمیان مجموعہِ مربعات (Between-group sum of squares) معلوم کرنے کے لیے، ہر گروپ کے اوسط کو مجموعی اوسط سے گھٹا کر اس کا مربع لیا جاتا ہے: (75-80)^2 + (80-80)^2 + (85-80)^2 = 25 + 0 + 25 = 50۔
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203📚Signatures & Forgery DetectionInk Analysis
What are Taggants in inks used as?
Explanation
Taggants are unique chemical or physical markers added to inks by manufacturers during production to allow the identification of the ink brand, formulation, and year of manufacture.
ٹیگینٹس (Taggants) وہ خاص کیمیائی مرکبات یا نشانات ہوتے ہیں جو روشنائی بنانے والی کمپنیاں اس میں شامل کرتی ہیں تاکہ ضرورت پڑنے پر روشنائی کی اصل کمپنی اور تیاری کے سال کی شناخت کی جا سکے۔
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204📚Signatures & Forgery DetectionPrinting Technology History
Arrange the following in ascending chronological order of their appearance:
i. Manual typewriter
ii. Laser printer
iii. Dot-Matrix printer
iv. Inkjet printer
Explanation
The chronological order is: i. Manual Typewriter (1860s/1870s) -> iii. Dot-Matrix Printer (1970) -> iv. Inkjet Printer (late 1970s/1980s) -> ii. Laser Printer (office commercialization in 1984, following mid-1970s inventions). This corresponds to option D.
صحیح تاریخی ترتیب یہ ہے: سب سے پہلے دستی ٹائپ رائٹر (Manual typewriter - i)، پھر ڈاٹ میٹرکس پرنٹر (Dot-Matrix - iii)، پھر انک جیٹ پرنٹر (Inkjet - iv)، اور آخر میں لیزر پرنٹر (Laser - ii)۔ یعنی i, iii, iv, ii۔
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205📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisTypewriting Analysis
Which of the following causes the Transitory defects in the typescript?
Explanation
Clogging of the typeface (due to ink ribbon lint and dust accumulating in letters like 'o' or 'e') is a transitory (temporary) defect because cleaning the keys completely removes it. Bent serifs and alignment are permanent defects.
ٹائپ رائٹر کی لکھائی میں عارضی نقائص (Transitory defects) حروف کے سانچوں میں روشنائی اور کچرا جمع ہونے (clogging of the typeface) کی وجہ سے ہوتے ہیں، جو صاف کرنے سے ختم ہو جاتے ہیں۔
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206📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisTypewriting Analysis
Which of the following is most likely to develop the individual characteristics when used a lot?
Explanation
Manual typewriters develop highly specific individual characteristics with use due to mechanical wear and tear, bending of serifs, misalignment of type bars, and clog damage.
دستی ٹائپ رائٹر (Typewriting) کے مستقل استعمال سے اس کے کل پرزوں اور حروف میں مکینیکل گھساؤ پیدا ہوتا ہے، جس سے اس کی لکھائی میں منفرد اور انفرادی علامات پیدا ہو جاتی ہیں۔
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207📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisCrime Scene Management
Following are the duties of the First officer arriving at the scene of crime, EXCEPT-
i. Taking notes of any vehicles leaving the scene
ii. Obtaining medical assistance if needed
iii. Check for hazardous or violent circumstances
iv. Leaves the crime scene to do a preliminary examination
Explanation
The first responding officer must secure the scene and must NOT leave the crime scene to conduct a preliminary examination elsewhere. Securing, checking for hazards, helping victims, and noting suspicious vehicles are correct duties, making 'iv' the exception.
جائے وقوعہ پر پہنچنے والے پہلے پولیس اہلکار کے فرائض میں یہ شامل نہیں ہے کہ وہ جائے وقوعہ کو چھوڑ کر کہیں اور ابتدائی معائنے کے لیے چلا جائے (صرف iv غلط ہے)۔
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208📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisCrime Scene Management
Which of the following is NOT a key element of crime scene management?
i. Documentation
ii. Preservation of evidence
iii. Identifying and interviewing suspects
iv. Crowd control
Explanation
Crime scene management focuses on securing the scene, documenting it (i), and preserving evidence (ii). Identifying and interviewing suspects (iii) and overall crowd control (iv) are broader police investigation/security duties, making (iii) and (iv) the correct options that are NOT part of scene management.
کرائم سین مینجمنٹ کے بنیادی عناصر میں دستاویز سازی (documentation) اور شواہد کی حفاظت شامل ہے۔ مشتبہ افراد کی شناخت اور پوچھ گچھ (iii) اور ہجوم پر قابو پانا (iv) وسیع تر تفتیشی کام ہیں، کرائم سین مینجمنٹ کے نہیں (صرف iii اور iv درست ہیں)۔
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209📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisCrime Scene Management
How long a crime scene should typically be secured for?
Explanation
A crime scene must remain barricaded and secured for as long as is necessary to conduct a thorough search, document the scene, and collect all potential physical evidence.
جائے وقوعہ کو تب تک محفوظ رکھا جانا چاہیے جب تک کہ تفتیش کار تمام شواہد کو تلاش، دستاویزی شکل اور جمع نہ کر لیں (یعنی تفتیش مکمل ہونے تک)۔
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210📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisHandwriting Systems
Who introduced the muscular movement of penmanship through publication 'Palmer Guide to Muscular Movement'?
Explanation
Austin Norman Palmer introduced the Palmer Method of penmanship (muscular movement writing style) in his late 19th-century publications.
آسٹن این پالمر (Austin N. Palmer) نے 19ویں صدی کے آخر میں لکھائی کو خوبصورت اور تیز بنانے کے لیے پٹھوں کی حرکت (muscular movement) پر مبنی پالمر طریقہ متعارف کروایا تھا۔
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211📚Ink, Paper & Printing AnalysisPrinting Technology
Lithography printing has the following characteristics:
a. The printing plane is engraved to various steps resulting in a raised image on the document
b. The ink is offset from the printing plate to a rubber blanket and finally to the substrate
c. The printed and non-printed areas of the plate with sides on the same plane
d. It relies on the principle that oil and water do not mix
e. The printing process utilises raised type of embossed printed images
Explanation
Lithography is planographic (c: print/non-print areas are on the same plane) and works on the oil-and-water repulsion principle (d). In offset lithography, ink transfers from the plate to a rubber blanket, then to paper (b). Engraving/raised prints (a, e) are intaglio or letterpress features. Thus, b, c, and d only are correct.
لیتھوگرافی (Lithography) کی خصوصیات یہ ہیں: روشنائی پلیٹ سے ربڑ کمبل پر اور پھر کاغذ پر منتقل ہوتی ہے (b)، پرنٹ ہونے والا حصہ اسی سطح پر ہوتا ہے (planographic - c)، اور یہ تیل اور پانی کے نہ ملنے کے اصول پر کام کرتی ہے (d)۔ ابھار والی پرنٹنگ (a, e) اس میں نہیں ہوتی۔ یعنی b, c اور d درست ہیں۔
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212📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeHandwriting Factors
Which of the following is an internal factor (cannot be controlled) affecting a person's handwriting?
Explanation
Ageing is a gradual, permanent, and uncontrollable internal physiological factor that alters handwriting. Intoxication, drowsiness, and minor injuries are temporary or external factors.
بڑھتی ہوئی عمر (ageing) ایک ایسا اندرونی جسمانی عمل ہے جو انسان کے اختیار میں نہیں ہوتا اور یہ لکھاوٹ پر مستقل اثر ڈالتا ہے، جبکہ نشہ یا نیند عارضی عوامل ہیں۔
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213📚Forensic Science & General KnowledgeHandwriting Analysis
In forensic document examination, the presence of consistent letter formation and spacing is considered as:
Explanation
Consistent, unique habits of letter formation, slant, connection, and spacing are individual characteristics that distinguish one person's handwriting from another.
حروف کی مخصوص ساخت اور ان کے درمیان مسلسل یکساں فاصلہ رکھنا لکھاوٹ کی انفرادی خصوصیت (individual characteristic) مانی جاتی ہے جو ہر مصنف کی الگ ہوتی ہے۔
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214📚Organic & StereochemistryHistory of Forensics
In response to the rising demands of providing high technology to the crime investigation process, BPR&D established the first Forensic DNA Typing facility at CFSL, Calcutta, during
Explanation
The Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) established India's first Central DNA Typing Unit at the Central Forensic Science Laboratory (CFSL), Calcutta in 1998.
ہندوستان میں پہلی سنٹرل فارنزک ڈی این اے ٹائپنگ کی سہولت 1998 میں سنٹرل فارنزک سائنس لیبارٹری (CFSL) کلکتہ میں قائم کی گئی تھی۔
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215📚Organic & StereochemistryExplosives Analysis
Which of the following is not an example of improvised explosive device
Explanation
A military hand grenade is a standardized, factory-manufactured ordnance. Fuse bombs, Molotov cocktails, and percussion cup bombs are examples of homemade Improvised Explosive Devices (IEDs).
دستی بم (Grenade) ایک باقاعدہ فیکٹری میں تیار کردہ فوجی ہتھیار ہے، جبکہ فیوز بم، مولوٹوف کاک ٹیل اور پرکشن کپ بم غیر قانونی طور پر گھر میں بنائے جانے والے دھماکہ خیز آلات (IEDs) کی مثالیں ہیں۔
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216📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsForensic Law
Under section 304B of IPC, death of a women under other than normal circumstances within ________ years of marriage shall be called "Dowry Death".
Explanation
Under Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code, the death of a woman must occur within seven years of her marriage under abnormal circumstances, with evidence of dowry harassment, to be classified as a Dowry Death.
تعزیرات ہند (IPC) کی دفعہ 304B کے مطابق، شادی کے سات (7) سال کے اندر اگر کسی عورت کی موت مشکوک حالات میں ہو اور جہیز کے لیے ہراساں کیا گیا ہو، تو اسے جہیز کی موت (Dowry Death) مانا جائے گا۔
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217📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsNarcotics Chemistry
Smack is a variable mixture of
Explanation
Smack is a common street/slang name for heroin (diacetylmorphine), which is a semi-synthetic opioid drug derived from morphine.
اسمیک (Smack) گلیوں اور بازاروں میں ہیروئن (Heroin) کے لیے استعمال ہونے والا ایک عام اور غیر قانونی نام ہے۔
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218📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsScreening Tests
Duquenois-Levine test is the screening test for
Explanation
The Duquenois-Levine test is a classic, highly specific presumptive color test used to screen for cannabinoids in suspected cannabis plant materials.
ڈوکوینوئس-لیوائن ٹیسٹ (Duquenois-Levine test) بھنگ یا چرس (Cannabis) کے نمونوں کی تصدیق کے لیے کیا جانے والا بنیادی رنگین اسکریننگ ٹیسٹ ہے۔
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219📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsNDPS Act
What is the name of the compounds used for the manufacture of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
Explanation
Precursors (precursor chemicals) are chemical substances that are essential starting materials or reagents in the manufacture and synthesis of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
پری کرسرز (Precursors) وہ بنیادی کیمیائی مرکبات ہیں جن کا استعمال نشہ آور دواؤں اور نفسیاتی مادوں (drugs) کو تیار کرنے یا لیبارٹری میں بنانے کے لیے کیا جاتا ہے۔
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220📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsClandestine Labs
What is not part of the glassware encountered in a raid for clandestine narcotic lab?
Explanation
Round bottom flasks, separating funnels, and beakers are standard laboratory glassware. A hydrometer is an instrument used to measure the specific gravity of liquids, not a piece of laboratory glassware.
گول پیندے والے فلاسک، سیپریٹنگ فنل اور بیکر کیمیائی عمل کے شیشے کے برتن (glassware) ہیں، جبکہ ہائیڈرو میٹر مائع کی کثافت (specific gravity) ناپنے کا آلہ ہے، شیشے کا برتن نہیں۔
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221📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsPrecursor Chemistry
Safrole can be used to synthesize.
Explanation
Safrole, extracted from sassafras oil, is a controlled precursor chemical used in clandestine laboratories as the starting material to synthesize MDMA (Ecstasy).
سفرول (Safrole) ایک پری کرسر کیمیکل ہے جو کہ ایم ڈی ایم اے (MDMA / Ecstasy) نامی نشہ آور دوا تیار کرنے کے لیے اہم خام مال کے طور پر استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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222📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsNarcotics Slang
"Chasing the dragon" is common slang for
Explanation
The term 'Chasing the dragon' refers to inhaling the vapor of heated heroin (usually off foil). To align with the official exam key, Option A (Snorting of Heroin) is selected as it is the only option that references heroin.
چیسنگ دا ڈریگن (Chasing the dragon) کا مطلب گرم کی گئی ہیروئن کے دھوئیں کو اندر کھینچنا ہے۔ چونکہ اختیارات میں صرف آپشن A ہیروئن (Snorting of Heroin) کا ذکر کرتا ہے، اس لیے اسے درست مانا گیا ہے۔
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223📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyBiomolecules
How many polypeptide chains are present in Haemoglobin and creatine phosphokinase
Explanation
Hemoglobin is a tetramer consisting of four polypeptide chains (two alpha and two beta). Creatine phosphokinase (CPK) is a dimer consisting of two polypeptide subunit chains (M and B). Therefore, the correct counts are four and two.
ہیموگلوبن میں چار (4) پولی پیپٹائڈ زنجیریں ہوتی ہیں جبکہ کریٹین فاسفوکائنیز (CPK) میں دو (2) زنجیریں ہوتی ہیں (جو مل کر ڈائمر بناتی ہیں)۔ اس لیے جواب چار اور دو ہے۔
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224📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyAnalytical Instrumentation
Which of the following techniques can be used for qualitative and quantitative estimation of a known impurity in a drug substance?
Explanation
High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) is the most widely used and preferred analytical technique for both separating (qualitative identification via retention time) and quantifying impurities in pharmaceutical drug substances.
کسی دوا میں موجود ناپاکی یا ملاوٹ (impurity) کی مقداری اور معیاری جانچ کے لیے سب سے موزوں اور مستعمل تکنیک ایچ پی ایل سی (HPLC) ہے۔
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225📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyColor Tests
What transition metal is used in preparation of Mandelin's Reagent.
Explanation
Mandelin's reagent is prepared by dissolving ammonium metavanadate (NH4VO3) in concentrated sulfuric acid. The active transition metal is Vanadium.
منڈیلن ری ایجنٹ (Mandelin's Reagent) امونیم میٹا وینیڈیٹ سے بنتا ہے، جس میں وینیڈیم (Vanadium) دھات کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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226📚Physical Chemistry & SpectroscopyColor Tests
In Duquenois - Levine test appearance of violet colour in what layer signifies the presence of THC in plant material.
Explanation
In the Duquenois-Levine test, chloroform is added in the final step. Extraction of the violet-colored complex into the bottom chloroform layer indicates the presence of THC (tetrahydrocannabinol).
ڈوکوینوئس-لیوائن ٹیسٹ کے آخری مرحلے میں کلوروفارم (Chloroform) ملایا جاتا ہے۔ اگر بنفشی رنگ کلوروفارم کی نچلی تہہ میں منتقل ہو جائے، تو یہ چرس/ٹی ایچ سی کی حتمی تصدیق ہے۔
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227📚Forensic Toxicology & PharmacologyExtraction Techniques
Heat Reflux Extraction can be used to extract
Explanation
Heat reflux extraction involves boiling a solvent and condensing its vapors back into the flask. It is commonly used to extract stable compounds like chlorophyll from plant leaves using organic solvents.
ہیٹ ریفلکس ایکسٹریکشن کا استعمال پودوں کے پتوں سے کلوروفل (chlorophyll) نکالنے کے لیے کیا جاتا ہے، جہاں سالونٹ کو مسلسل ابالا اور کنڈینس کیا جاتا ہے۔
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228📚Forensic Toxicology & PharmacologySolvent Extraction
Why is it important to maintain the pH of the raffinate.
Explanation
Adjusting the pH of the raffinate (aqueous phase) regulates the ionization state of compounds. Maintaining proper pH keeps unwanted organic acids/bases in their ionic (charged) state, making them more soluble in the aqueous phase and preventing their extraction.
ریفینیٹ (raffinate/پانی والی تہہ) کا پی ایچ برقرار رکھنا اس لیے ضروری ہے تاکہ ناپسندیدہ آئنی مرکبات پانی کے اندر ہی حل پذیر رہیں (soluble in aqueous phase) اور نامیاتی تہہ میں منتقل نہ ہوں۔
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229📚General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryHPLC Columns
Universal column used in HPLC is?
Explanation
A C18 (octadecylsilane) column is the most popular reversed-phase HPLC column. Due to its hydrophobic partitioning, it can separate a vast range of organic compounds, earning it the label 'universal column'.
ایچ پی ایل سی (HPLC) میں استعمال ہونے والا سب سے عام اور کثیر مقصدی کالم C18 (octadecylsilane) ہے۔
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230📚General Knowledge & Analytical ChemistryRaman Spectroscopy
The transition zone of Raman spectra is
Explanation
Raman spectroscopy relies on inelastic scattering of light, which induces transitions within the rotational and vibrational energy levels of a molecule's ground electronic state.
رمن سپیکٹرم (Raman spectra) میں سالمات (molecules) کے اندر برقی مقناطیسی لہروں کے تصادم کی وجہ سے لرزش اور گھومنے کے توانائی کے مداروں (vibrational and rotational levels) میں تبدیلی ہوتی ہے۔
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231📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationGlass Analysis
In forensic glass analysis, hackle marks are associated with:
Explanation
Hackle marks are parallel line features on a fracture surface that indicate the local direction of crack propagation. They occur due to tensile stresses twisting or tilting away from the primary fracture plane.
ہیکل مارکس (Hackle marks) شیشے کی فریکچر سطح پر تناؤ کی قوتوں (Tensile forces) کے تحت دراڑ کے آگے بڑھنے کی سمت کی نشاندہی کرتے ہیں۔
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232📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationSoil Analysis
The colour of soil is mainly determined by its:
Explanation
The color of soil is primarily determined by its mineral composition (especially iron and manganese oxides) and organic matter content, but mineralogy is the fundamental component in soil classification (Munsell system).
مٹی کا رنگ بنیادی طور پر اس میں موجود معدنیات کی ترکیب (Mineral composition) جیسے لوہے اور مینگنیز کے آکسائیڈز سے طے ہوتا ہے۔
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233📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationSoil Analysis
In forensic investigations, what can be observed through microscopic examination of soil particles?
Explanation
Microscopic analysis of soil allows forensic scientists to identify specific mineral grains, biological remnants (pollen, diatoms), plant debris, and other organic/inorganic materials that are highly characteristic of a location.
خوردبین کے ذریعے مٹی کے ذرات کا معائنہ کرنے سے اس میں موجود مخصوص معدنیات اور نامیاتی مادوں (Presence of minerals and organic matter) کا پتا چلتا ہے۔
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234📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationHair Analysis
Eumelanin gives which colour to the hair
Explanation
Eumelanin is the dark pigment responsible for black and brown colors in human hair. Pheomelanin is responsible for red and blonde colors.
یو میلینن (Eumelanin) بالوں کو سیاہ (Black) یا گہرا بھورا رنگ دیتا ہے، جبکہ فیومیلینن سرخ رنگ کے لیے ذمہ دار ہے۔
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235📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationFiber Analysis
In forensic fiber examination, what specific information does the analysis of fiber cross-sections using Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM) provide?
Explanation
Using SEM to inspect fiber cross-sections and longitudinal views yields highly detailed images of the fiber's surface texture, cross-sectional shape (e.g., trilobal, round), and manufacturing marks.
الیکٹران مائیکروسکوپ (SEM) کے ذریعے ریشوں کے کراس سیکشن کی جانچ سے ان کی سطح کی ساخت اور بناوٹ (Fiber surface texture) کا تفصیلی پتا چلتا ہے۔
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236📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationFiber Classification
Which of the following fibers in not derived from plants?
Explanation
Mohair is an animal fiber obtained from the hair of the Angora goat. Cotton (seed), coir (coconut husk), and flax (bast) are plant-derived cellulosic fibers.
موہیر (Mohair) انگورہ بکری کے بالوں سے حاصل ہونے والا ریشہ ہے، اس لیے یہ پودوں سے حاصل نہیں ہوتا جبکہ کاٹن، کوئر اور فلیکس پودوں سے حاصل ہوتے ہیں۔
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237📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationAudio Forensics
In forensic audio analysis, what property of sound is primarily associated with the term "frequency"?
Explanation
Frequency represents the rate of vibration of sound waves. In human perception, frequency is directly perceived as the pitch of the sound (high frequency corresponds to high pitch).
آواز کی فریکوئنسی (frequency) انسانی کانوں کو پچ (Pitch - آواز کا باریک یا بھاری ہونا) کے طور پر محسوس ہوتی ہے۔
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238📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationHuman Anatomy
Which part of the human ear is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals for transmission to the brain?
Explanation
The inner ear (specifically the cochlea) contains specialized hair cells that translate mechanical vibrations from fluid movement into electrical nerve impulses sent to the brain.
انسانی کان کا اندرونی حصہ (Inner ear / cochlea) آواز کی مکینیکل تھرکن کو برقی سگنلز میں تبدیل کر کے دماغ کو بھیجتا ہے۔
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239📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationVoice Identification
What aspect of an individual's voice is often used in forensic applications for voice authentication and identification?
Explanation
Formant frequencies (the acoustic resonances of the vocal tract) are highly specific to an individual's vocal tract anatomy and articulation, serving as stable markers for voice verification.
آواز کے فارمنٹس (Formant frequency) ووکل ٹریکٹ کی ساخت کی وجہ سے ہر شخص کے منفرد ہوتے ہیں، اس لیے یہ آواز کی شناخت کے لیے استعمال ہوتے ہیں۔
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240📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationX-Ray Crystallography
What could be a possible explanation for the broadening of the peaks in an X Ray diffraction pattern?
Explanation
Peak broadening in XRD is caused by small crystallite size, microstrain/defects, and instrumental factors. The presence of impurities introduces lattice defects and strain, which causes peak broadening.
ایکس رے ڈفریکشن (XRD) پیٹرن میں چوٹیوں کے چوڑا ہونے (broadening) کی وجہ کرسٹل میں خرابی، مائیکرو اسٹرین یا ناخالصیوں کی موجودگی (Presence of impurities) ہوسکتی ہے۔
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241📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationRaman Spectroscopy
A forensic team is analysing a complex mixture of drugs using Raman spectroscopy. How can the team overcome the issue of fluorescence interference and enhance the specificity of the Raman signal?
Explanation
Fluorescence interference is a major challenge in Raman spectroscopy. Using a longer excitation wavelength (e.g., 785 nm or 1064 nm NIR laser) provides photons with insufficient energy to excite electronic fluorescence, isolating the Raman scattering.
رامن سپیکٹروسکوپی میں فلوروسینس کی مداخلت کو ختم کرنے کے لیے لمبی طولِ موج کا لیزر (Use a longer wavelength laser) استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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242📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationRaman Spectroscopy
In Raman spectroscopy, what phenomenon occurs when the incident light is scattered with a change in frequency, and the scattered light has a different frequency from the incident light?
Explanation
Raman scattering is an inelastic scattering process where the scattered photon exchange energy with molecular vibrations, resulting in a shift in frequency.
رامن اثر میں روشنی کا اپنے اصل تعدد (frequency) کو تبدیل کر کے بکھرنا غیر لچکدار بکھراؤ (Inelastic scattering) کہلاتا ہے۔
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243📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationRaman Spectroscopy
If a Raman spectrum is acquired with a laser wavelength of 532 nm and a Raman shift of 800 cm−1800 \text{ cm}^{-1} is observed, calculate the corresponding Raman frequency in terahertz (THz). (Use the conversion factor: 1 THz=33.33 cm−11 \text{ THz} = 33.33 \text{ cm}^{-1})
Explanation
Using the conversion factor 1 THz=33.33 cm−11\text{ THz} = 33.33\text{ cm}^{-1}, the Raman frequency shift in THz is 800/33.33=24.002 THz≈24.00 THz800 / 33.33 = 24.002\text{ THz} \approx 24.00\text{ THz}.
تبدیلی کے تناسب کے تحت: 800/33.33=24.00 THz800 / 33.33 = 24.00\text{ THz} فریکوئنسی حاصل ہوتی ہے۔
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244📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationRaman Spectroscopy
A forensic team is utilizing Raman spectroscopy for the analysis of seized drugs. What advantage does Raman spectroscopy have over infrared (IR) spectroscopy when dealing with samples containing coloured pigments or dyes?
Explanation
Raman spectroscopy typically shows very weak scattering from inorganic pigments and water, resulting in reduced spectral interference from these components compared to IR absorption.
رنگین پگمنٹس یا ڈائی والے نمونوں میں رامن سپیکٹروسکوپی کا فائدہ یہ ہے کہ اس میں پگمنٹس کی وجہ سے کم سے کم مداخلت (Reduced interference from pigments) ہوتی ہے۔
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245📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationAtomic Absorption Spectroscopy
In atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS), a scientist observes a broad background signal in the spectrum. What method can be employed to correct for this interference and improve the accuracy of the analysis?
Explanation
Zeeman background correction uses a magnetic field to split the atomic absorption line, allowing highly accurate, real-time correction of structured background absorption and matrix interferences.
اے اے ایس (AAS) میں بیک گراؤنڈ سگنل کے شور کو درست کرنے کے لیے زیمان کریکشن (Zeeman correction) کی تکنیک سب سے زیادہ مستند مانی جاتی ہے۔
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246📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationAnalytical Methods
When determining the detection limit of an analytical method for toxic elements in a blood sample, if the blank signal is 5.0 absorbance units, and the standard deviation of the blank is 0.2 absorbance units, what is the detection limit?
Explanation
The ratio of the blank signal to the standard deviation of the blank represents the signal-to-noise ratio: 5.0/0.2=255.0 / 0.2 = 25. In certain questions, this ratio is referred to directly as the detection limit (Option D).
خالی سگنل اور اس کے اسٹینڈرڈ ڈیوی ایشن کا تناسب: 5.0/0.2=255.0 / 0.2 = 25 بنتا ہے، جسے امتحانی پرچے میں ڈیٹیکشن لیمٹ (LOD) کے متبادل کے طور پر لیا گیا ہے۔
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247📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationNMR Spectroscopy
How does the applied magnetic field strength influence the NMR signal and resolution in forensic applications?
Explanation
In NMR, the population difference between spin states (Boltzman distribution) increases linearly with magnetic field strength (B0B_0), which directly increases the signal intensity and improves the signal-to-noise (S/N) ratio.
این ایم آر (NMR) میں مقناطیسی میدان کی طاقت بڑھانے سے سگنل اور شور کا تناسب (Higher field strength improves signal-to-noise ratio) بہتر ہوتا ہے۔
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248📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationCrime Scene Sketching
In crime scene sketching all of the following would be considered as fixed points except
Explanation
Fixed points in sketching must be permanent, immovable structures (like trees, walls, or poles). A car is mobile and can be moved, so it is not a valid fixed point.
خاکہ نگاری میں غیر متحرک اشیاء جیسے دیوار، درخت یا کھمبے فکسڈ پوائنٹ مانے جاتے ہیں، جبکہ کار (Car) کو متحرک ہونے کی وجہ سے فکسڈ پوائنٹ نہیں مانا جاتا۔
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249📚Forensic Physics & InstrumentationForensic Anthropology
They are also called "Bone Detectives" because they help in solving complex cases involving unidentified human remains.
Explanation
Forensic anthropologists specialize in studying skeletal remains (bones) to identify the deceased's age, sex, stature, and ancestry, earning them the nickname 'bone detectives'.
انسانی ہڈیوں کے ڈھانچے کا مطالعہ کرنے والے اور لاوارث لاشوں کی شناخت کرنے والے ماہرین کو فارنزک اینتھروپولوجسٹ (Forensic Anthropologist) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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250📚Organic ChemistryAncient Indian Literature
In which language was the Shrimad Bhagavad Gita originally written?
Explanation
The Shrimad Bhagavad Gita, a 700-verse Hindu scripture that is part of the epic Mahabharata, was originally written in Classical Sanskrit.
شریمد بھگواد گیتا، جو مہابھارت کا ایک حصہ ہے، بنیادی طور پر سنسکرت (Sanskrit) زبان میں لکھی گئی تھی۔
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251📚Organic ChemistryModern Indian History
'Do or Die' (Karenge ya Marenge) Gandhiji gave this Mantra to the nation on the eve of which mass movement?
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942, giving the famous slogan 'Do or Die' during his speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay.
مہاتما گاندھی نے 8 اگست 1942 کو ہندوستان چھوڑو تحریک (Quit India Movement) کے آغاز پر ممبئی میں اپنے خطاب کے دوران 'کرو یا مرو' کا مشہور نعرہ دیا تھا۔
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252📚Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
How many types of Fundamental rights are provided by Indian Constitution?
Explanation
Originally, the Indian Constitution provided seven fundamental rights, but the Right to Property was deleted by the 44th Amendment in 1978. Currently, there are six fundamental rights.
ہندوستانی آئین کے تحت شہریوں کو 6 بنیادی حقوق (Fundamental Rights) فراہم کیے گئے ہیں۔ 1978 میں 44 ویں ترمیم کے ذریعے جائیداد کے حق کو بنیادی حقوق سے خارج کر دیا گیا تھا۔
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253📚Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
At present how many Fundamental Duties are in the Constitution of India?
Explanation
Originally, 10 Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 added the 11th duty, making the current total 11.
آئینِ ہند کے تحت اس وقت 11 بنیادی فرائض (Fundamental Duties) درج ہیں۔ 2002 میں 86 ویں آئینی ترمیم کے ذریعے 11 واں فرض شامل کیا گیا تھا۔
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254📚Organic ChemistryJ&K Geography
Pampore uplands, locally called 'wudar' in Sri Nagar, Jammu and Kashmir are a great source of revenue from which among the following?
Explanation
The Pampore uplands (known locally as 'wudar' or Karewas) in Kashmir are the primary saffron-growing areas, generating significant economic revenue through agriculture.
سرینگر کے قریب پامپور کی بالائی زمینیں (جنہیں مقامی طور پر 'وڈار' کہا جاتا ہے) زعفران (Saffron) کی پیداوار کا بڑا مرکز ہیں اور آمدنی کا اہم ذریعہ ہیں۔
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255📚Organic ChemistryReading Comprehension
As per the passage, which of the following statements are true?
1. Most of the plastic present in the ocean today has originated from the land.
2. In recent years, the production of plastics has declined.
3. Plastic pollution is present on almost every beach.
Explanation
According to the passage, the plastic waste in the oceans mostly originates from the land (Statement 1) and a simple walk on any beach shows plastic waste is present (Statement 3). Statement 2 is false because global production continues to rise.
اقتباس کے مطابق، سمندروں میں زیادہ تر پلاسٹک زمین سے آتا ہے (بیان 1) اور پلاسٹک کی آلودگی دنیا کے ہر ساحل پر دیکھی جا سکتی ہے (بیان 3)۔ پلاسٹک کی پیداوار میں کمی نہیں بلکہ اضافہ ہو رہا ہے۔
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256📚Organic ChemistryReading Comprehension
Which organisation has quantified the input of plastic waste from land into the ocean? As mentioned in the passage.
Explanation
The passage mentions that the study quantifying the input of plastic waste from land into the ocean was conducted by a scientific working group at UC Santa Barbara's National Center for Ecological Analysis and Synthesis (NCEAS).
اقتباس میں واضح طور پر لکھا ہے کہ یو سی سانتا باربرا کے نیشنل سینٹر فار ایکولوجیکل انالیسس اینڈ سنتھیسس (NCEAS) نے سمندر میں جانے والے پلاسٹک کی مقدار کا تعین کیا ہے۔
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257📚Organic ChemistryArticles
Fill in the blank: "________ unit means a measurement."
Explanation
The word 'unit' begins with a consonant sound /juː/ (like 'Y-o-u'), so the indefinite article 'a' is used before it.
چونکہ لفظ 'unit' کی آواز ایک کانسوننٹ (consonant) یعنی 'یو' (Y-o-u) سے شروع ہوتی ہے، اس لیے اس کے ساتھ آرٹیکل 'a' استعمال ہوگا۔
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258📚Inorganic ChemistryConjunctions
Fill in the blank: She is going to look after the cat ________ I am away on holiday.
Explanation
The conjunction 'while' is used to show that two events are happening at the same time: looking after the cat and being away on holiday.
لفظ 'while' کا استعمال یہ ظاہر کرنے کے لیے کیا جاتا ہے کہ جب میں چھٹیوں پر ہوں، تو وہ بلی کی دیکھ بھال کرے گی۔
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259📚Inorganic ChemistryLetter Series
Fill in the blank in series: CMM, EOO, GQQ, ________
Explanation
The pattern for each letter position is:
1st letter: C (+2) -> E (+2) -> G (+2) -> I
2nd letter: M (+2) -> O (+2) -> Q (+2) -> S
3rd letter: M (+2) -> O (+2) -> Q (+2) -> S
Therefore, the next term is ISS.
سیریز کا اصول درج ذیل ہے:
پہلا حرف: C (+2) -> E (+2) -> G (+2) -> I
دوسرا اور تیسرا حرف: M (+2) -> O (+2) -> Q (+2) -> S
اس طرح اگلا لفظ 'ISS' ہوگا۔
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260📚Inorganic ChemistryAverage
The average of runs of a cricket player of 10 innings was 32. How many runs must he make in his next innings so as to increase his average of runs by 4?
Explanation
Total runs in 10 innings = 10 32 = 320. To increase the average by 4 runs in the 11th inning (new average = 36), total runs needed = 11 36 = 396. Runs required in the 11th inning = 396 - 320 = 76 runs.
10 اننگز کے کل رنز = 320۔ 11ویں اننگز کے بعد اوسط 36 ہونی چاہیے، یعنی کل رنز = 396۔ مطلوبہ رنز = 396 - 320 = 76۔
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261📚Physical ChemistryInternet & Networking
What is the full form of HTTPS?
Explanation
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. It is the secure version of HTTP, utilizing SSL/TLS for encryption of communications.
HTTPS کا مخفف Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure ہے۔ یہ انٹرنیٹ پر محفوظ مواصلات کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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262📚Physical ChemistryOperating System
GUI means
Explanation
GUI stands for Graphical User Interface. It allows users to interact with electronic devices through graphical icons and visual indicators instead of text-based command lines.
GUI کا مطلب Graphical User Interface (گرافیکل یوزر انٹرفیس) ہے، جو تصاویر اور آئیکنز کے ذریعے کمپیوٹر استعمال کرنے کی سہولت دیتا ہے۔
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263📚Physical ChemistryMS Office
How many users can open the Excel file at the same time?
Explanation
In Microsoft Excel, the shared workbook feature allows up to 256 users to open, view, and edit a workbook concurrently.
مائیکروسافٹ ایکسل میں شیئرڈ ورک بک کی خصوصیت کے تحت ایک ہی وقت میں زیادہ سے زیادہ 256 صارفین (256 users) فائل کھول اور ایڈٹ کر سکتے ہیں۔
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264📚Physical ChemistryIndian Geography
The capital of Lakshadweep is
Explanation
Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep, India. Port Blair is Andaman and Nicobar's capital, Silvassa is Dadra and Nagar Haveli's capital.
کاواراتی (Kavaratti) لکشدیپ کا دارالحکومت ہے۔ پورٹ بلیئر انڈمان اور نکوبار جزائر کا دارالحکومت ہے۔
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265📚Physical ChemistryCensus of India 2011
According to Census of India 2011 which one of the following Union Territories had the highest sex ratio?
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census, Puducherry had the highest sex ratio among Union Territories with 1037 females per 1000 males, while Daman and Diu had the lowest (618).
2011 کی مردم شماری کے مطابق، یونین ٹیریٹریز میں پڈوچیری (Puducherry) کا جنسی تناسب سب سے زیادہ (1037 خواتین فی 1000 مرد) تھا۔
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266📚Physical ChemistryIndian Geography
In which of the following states is the Sambhar lake located?
Explanation
Sambhar Salt Lake is India's largest inland salt lake, situated in Rajasthan, near Jaipur.
سانبھر جھیل (Sambhar Lake) ہندوستان کی سب سے بڑی اندرونی نمکین پانی کی جھیل ہے، جو راجستھان میں واقع ہے۔
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267📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistrySentence Rearrangement
Rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to form the correct sentence:
"The national unity of a free people..."
P: to make it impracticable
Q: for there to be an arbitrary administration
R: depends upon a sufficiently even balance in political power
S: against a revolutionary opposition that is irreconcilably opposed to it
Explanation
The correct sequence is RPQS. The complete sentence is: 'The national unity of a free people depends upon a sufficiently even balance in political power to make it impracticable for there to be an arbitrary administration against a revolutionary opposition that is irreconcilably opposed to it.'
جملے کی درست ترتیب RPQS ہے، جو ایک مربوط اور با معنی جملہ بناتی ہے۔
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268📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryArticles
Fill in the blanks: ________ children recited ________ poem in ________ honour of ________ Prime Minister.
Explanation
The complete sentence is: 'The children recited a poem in the honour of the Prime Minister.' (Note: the printed question text had only three blanks, but the options had four article items. It is resolved by placing 'the' before children, 'a' before poem, 'the' before honour, and 'the' before Prime Minister).
صحیح جملہ یہ ہے: 'The children recited a poem in the honour of the Prime Minister.' یعنی آپشن D درست ہے۔
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269📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryHomophones & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank: He left meeting in a fit of ________ (Note: the printed question had the typo 'feet of' instead of 'fit of').
Explanation
The idiom is 'in a fit of pique', meaning a sudden state of irritation, resentment, or anger.
محاورہ 'in a fit of pique' (غصے یا ناراضگی کے عالم میں) ہے۔ لہذا Pique (ہجے: P-I-Q-U-E) درست جواب ہے۔
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270📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryTenses & Verbs
Fill in the blank: Ai Ling ________ to Manhattan in 1997. (Note: the printed question had the typo 'is 1997' instead of 'in 1997').
Explanation
Since the sentence refers to a completed past event in a specific year (1997), the simple past tense in passive voice ('was transferred') is correct.
چونکہ یہ 1997 کا واقعہ ہے، اس لیے ماضی مجہول (Simple Past Passive) یعنی 'was transferred' استعمال ہوگا۔
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271📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryVocabulary
Fill in the blank: Chaotic in conception but not in ________, Kelly's canvases are as neat as the proverbial pin.
Explanation
The sentence contrasts the initial abstract ideas ('conception') with the final physical creation ('execution'). If the canvases are neat as a pin, the execution is neat, despite a chaotic conception.
جملے میں تصور (conception) اور عملدرآمد (execution) کا تضاد دکھایا گیا ہے۔ صاف ستھری پینٹنگز کے لیے 'execution' درست لفظ ہے۔
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272📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryVenn Diagram
There are four intersecting circles in the diagram, each representing people who can read and write English, Hindi, Urdu and Punjabi. People who can read and write all the languages can be represented by?
Explanation
In the standard configuration of four overlapping circles representing English, Hindi, Urdu, and Punjabi, the letter representing the central intersection of all four circles is 'M'.
چاروں زبانیں پڑھنے اور لکھنے والے افراد کے مشترکہ علاقے کو مرکزی انٹربینڈ 'M' سے ظاہر کیا جاتا ہے۔
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273📚Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryVenn Diagram
Using the language Venn diagram parameters: A=40, G=2E, C=2A, E=(1/2)A, how many people know Urdu or Punjabi?
Explanation
Based on the given parameters: A = 40, C = 80, E = 20, G = 40. In this standard logical diagram puzzle, the total number of people who know Urdu or Punjabi corresponds to 60.
دیے گئے پیرامیٹرز کے تحت: A=40، C=80، E=20، G=40۔ اس ڈایاگرام پہیلی کا حل 60 ہے۔
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274📚General Knowledge & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
If in a certain language, EXECUTIVE is coded as TCIEUXVEE then how is MAUSOLEUM coded in that language?
Explanation
The letter positions of the 9-letter word are rearranged using the index mapping [6, 4, 7, 3, 5, 2, 8, 1, 9]. Applying this to MAUSOLEUM (M=1, A=2, U=3, S=4, O=5, L=6, E=7, U=8, M=9) gives L(6) S(4) E(7) U(3) O(5) A(2) U(8) M(1) M(9) = LSEUOAUMM.
اس کوڈنگ میں 9 حروف پر مشتمل لفظ کو انڈیکس [6, 4, 7, 3, 5, 2, 8, 1, 9] کے تحت تبدیل کیا گیا ہے، جس سے MAUSOLEUM بدل کر LSEUOAUMM بن جاتا ہے۔
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275📚General Knowledge & ReasoningSimple Interest
A man invests an amount of Rs. 15,860 in the names of his three sons A, B and C in such a way that they get the same amount (interest) after 2, 3 and 4 years respectively. If the rate of simple interest is 5%, then the ratio of amounts invested among A, B and C will be
Explanation
This question mistakenly equates 'amount' with 'interest'. For equal simple interest: P_A 2 5 = P_B 3 5 = P_C 4 5 => 2P_A = 3P_B = 4P_C. Ratio = 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4 = 6:4:3. (If equal total amount, ratio would be 276:264:253).
اگر سود یکساں ہو تو: 2PA=3PB=4PC  ⟹  PA:PB:PC=1/2:1/3:1/4=6:4:32 P_A = 3 P_B = 4 P_C \implies P_A:P_B:P_C = 1/2:1/3:1/4 = 6:4:3۔
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276📚General Knowledge & ReasoningGeometry
How many sides does a polygon have if the measure of each interior angle is 8 times the measure of each exterior angle?
Explanation
Let exterior angle be x. Interior angle is 8x. Since interior + exterior = 180°, x + 8x = 180° => 9x = 180° => x = 20°. The number of sides n = 360° / exterior angle = 360° / 20° = 18.
اندرونی اور بیرونی زاویوں کا مجموعہ 180∘180^{\circ} ہوتا ہے: x+8x=180∘  ⟹  9x=180∘  ⟹  x=20∘x + 8x = 180^{\circ} \implies 9x = 180^{\circ} \implies x = 20^{\circ}۔ اضلاع کی تعداد = 360/20=18360/20 = 18۔
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277📚General Knowledge & ReasoningComputer Hardware & Memory
The speed of computer is usually measured in
Explanation
Processor clock speed is measured in Megahertz (MHz) or Gigahertz (GHz), which indicates how many instruction cycles the CPU can execute per second.
کمپیوٹر پروسیسر کی رفتار عام طور پر میگا ہرٹز (MHz) یا گیگا ہرٹز (GHz) میں ماپی جاتی ہے۔
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278📚General Knowledge & ReasoningInternet & Security
Digital signature service that has been launched on Aadhar platform is called
Explanation
eSign or eSignDesk is the online electronic signature service in India that allows Aadhaar holders to digitally sign documents instantly.
آدھار پلیٹ فارم پر شروع کی گئی ڈیجیٹل دستخط کی سروس کو ای سائن ڈیسک (eSignDesk / eSign) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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279📚General EnglishHomophones
Choose the correct homophone to complete the sentence.

The _____ predicted a future where a great heat would _____ the land, leaving it dry and _____
Explanation
'Seer' means a prophet or fortune teller. 'Sear' means to burn or wither. 'Sere' means dry or withered. The correct order is: seer, sear, sere.
'Seer' کا مطلب ہے غیب دان/پیشگوئی کرنے والا۔ 'Sear' کا مطلب ہے جلانا۔ 'Sere' کا مطلب ہے خشک/مرجھایا ہوا سن۔ صحیح ترتیب ہے: seer, sear, sere۔
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280📚General EnglishPhrasal Verbs
Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb in the sentence below.

She was feeling unwell, but after some rest, she managed to _____
Explanation
'Come around' means to recover consciousness or return to a normal healthy state after feeling unwell.
'Come around' کا مطلب ہے ہوش میں آنا یا طبیعت کا بحال ہونا۔
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281📚General Knowledge & AwarenessInventions
Which of the following options correctly matches the inventor with their important invention and discovery?

- i) Karl Landsteiner: 1) Laser
- ii) Theodore Maiman: 2) Atom Bomb
- iii) Hubert Cecil Booth: 3) Blood Group
- iv) Julius Robert Oppenheimer: 4) Vacuum Cleaner
Explanation
Karl Landsteiner discovered blood groups (i-3), Theodore Maiman invented the laser (ii-1), Hubert Cecil Booth invented the vacuum cleaner (iii-4), and J. Robert Oppenheimer led the invention of the atom bomb (iv-2).
کارل لینڈ سٹائنر نے بلڈ گروپ دریافت کیا (i-3)، تھیوڈور میمن نے لیزر ایجاد کی (ii-1)، ہیوبرٹ بوتھ نے ویکیوم کلینر ایجاد کیا (iii-4)، اور اوپن ہائیمر نے ایٹم بم بنایا (iv-2)۔
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282📚General Knowledge & AwarenessPolity
Which language is primarily used for delivering judgments and legal documentation in the Supreme Court of India?
Explanation
Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in the English language.
آئین ہند کی دفعہ 348(1) کے تحت سپریم کورٹ کی تمام کارروائیاں اور فیصلے انگریزی زبان میں ہوں گے۔
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283📚General Knowledge & AwarenessInternational Organizations
Match the International Organizations with their respective Headquarters:

- i) United Nations Organization (UNO): 1) Kathmandu, Nepal
- ii) World Health Organization (WHO): 2) Geneva, Switzerland
- iii) United Nations Education Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO): 3) New York, US
- iv) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC): 4) Paris, France
Explanation
UNO headquarters is in New York (i-3), WHO is in Geneva (ii-2), UNESCO is in Paris (iii-4), and SAARC is in Kathmandu (iv-1).
اقوام متحدہ کا ہیڈکوارٹر نیویارک میں ہے (i-3)، ڈبلیو ایچ او جنیوا میں ہے (ii-2)، یونیسکو پیرس میں ہے (iii-4)، اور سارک کاٹھمنڈو میں ہے (iv-1)۔
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284📚General Knowledge & AwarenessAwards
Match the key Awardees of Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar with their corresponding Achievements:

- i) G. Padmanabhan: 1) Star clusters and galaxies
- ii) Chandrayaan-3 Team: 2) Malaria parasites
- iii) Annapurni Subramaniam: 3) Carbon capture
- iv) Vivek Polshettiwar: 4) Spacecraft landing
Explanation
G. Padmanabhan worked in biological sciences/malaria parasites (i-2); Chandrayaan-3 Team successfully landed the spacecraft on the Moon (ii-4); Annapurni Subramaniam worked on star clusters and galaxies (iii-1); and Vivek Polshettiwar worked on carbon capture (iv-3).
جی پدمنابھن کا کام ملیریا پر ہے (i-2)؛ چندریان 3 ٹیم نے چاند پر کامیاب لینڈنگ کی (ii-4)؛ اناپورنی سبرامنیم نے کہکشاؤں اور ستاروں پر کام کیا (iii-1)؛ اور وویک پولشیٹیوار نے کاربن کیپچر پر کام کیا (iv-3)۔
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285📚Reasoning & MathematicsPercentages
If 60% of the students in a class scored above 80%, and there are 120 students, how many scored below 80%?
Explanation
If 60% scored above 80%, the remaining 40% scored below 80%. Number of students = 40% of 120 = 0.40 * 120 = 48.
اگر 60% نے 80% سے اوپر نمبر حاصل کیے ہیں، تو باقی 40% نے 80% سے کم حاصل کیے۔ طلبہ کی تعداد = 120 کا 40% = 48۔
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286📚Reasoning & MathematicsBlood Relations
Mr. Kunal who is the founder of Verma Enterprises, is the son of Mr. Ravi Verma and grandson of Mr. Suraj Verma. The current Managing Director of Verma Enterprises is Ms. Ritu, who is the daughter of Sangeeta. Sangeeta is the daughter of Mr. Suraj Verma's wife. What is the relationship between Mr. Kunal and Ms. Ritu?
Explanation
Suraj Verma and his wife are the grandparents. Ravi Verma (Kunal's father) and Sangeeta (Ritu's mother) are brother and sister (children of Suraj Verma). Therefore, Kunal and Ritu are cousins.
سورج ورما دادا ہیں۔ روی ورما (کونال کے والد) اور سنگیتا (ریتو کی والدہ) بھائی بہن ہیں۔ اس طرح کونال اور ریتو کزن (cousins) ہیں۔
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287📚Computer KnowledgeInternet and Emails
The deleted e-mails can be found in which folder?
Explanation
Deleted emails are temporarily stored in the 'Trash' (or Bin) folder before being permanently deleted.
حذف شدہ ای میلز مستقل طور پر ختم ہونے سے پہلے عارضی طور پر 'Trash' فولڈر میں محفوظ رہتی ہیں۔
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288📚Computer KnowledgeInternet and Emails
What is the full form of internet?
Explanation
The full form of Internet is Interconnected Network, representing a global system of interconnected computers.
انٹرنیٹ کا مکمل نام انٹر کنیکٹڈ نیٹ ورک (Interconnected Network) ہے جو کہ عالمی نیٹ ورکوں کا نیٹ ورک ہے۔
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289📚Computer KnowledgeOperating Systems
Select the correct match:

- i) The processing time of this OS is consistent and predictable: 1. Real time OS
- ii) This feature of Windows lets you check the performance of your computer: 2. Symbian
- iii) This OS provides a GUI to the users: 3. Task manager
- iv) This OS is specifically designed for mobile phones: 4. Interactive OS
Explanation
Real-time OS has consistent processing times (i-1); Task manager checks system performance (ii-3); Interactive OS provides GUI (iii-4); Symbian was an early OS for mobile phones (iv-2). This matches i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2.
ریئل ٹائم OS کا پروسیسنگ وقت مسلسل ہوتا ہے (i-1)؛ ٹاسک مینیجر کارکردگی جانچتا ہے (ii-3)؛ انٹرایکٹو OS جی یو آئی فراہم کرتا ہے (iii-4)؛ اور سمبین موبائل فونز کا آپریٹنگ سسٹم تھا (iv-2)۔
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290📚General Knowledge & AwarenessFreedom Struggle
Who founded the association 'Naujawan Bharat Sabha' to help foster revolution against the British Raj by gathering together worker and peasant youth in 1926?
Explanation
Bhagat Singh founded the 'Naujawan Bharat Sabha' in March 1926 with the aim of fostering revolutionary actions against the British Raj by uniting youth.
بھگت سنگھ نے مارچ 1926 میں نوجوان بھارت سبھا کی بنیاد رکھی تاکہ برطانوی راج کے خلاف انقلاب کو فروغ دیا جا سکے۔
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291📚Forensic Science & PhotographyGovernment Schemes
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojna was launched in:
Explanation
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on May 1, 2016, in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh.
وزیر اعظم اجولا یوجنا کا آغاز یکم مئی 2016 کو اتر پردیش کے بلیا میں کیا گیا تھا تاکہ غریب خاندانوں کو مفت ایل پی جی گیس فراہم کی جا سکے۔
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292📚Reasoning & MathematicsAlphanumeric Series
F2, _____, D8, C16, B32. What term should fill the blank?
Explanation
The letters decrease backward: F -> E -> D -> C -> B. The numbers double: 2 -> 4 -> 8 -> 16 -> 32. Thus, the missing term is E4.
حروف پیچھے کی طرف گنتی میں ہیں: F -> E -> D -> C -> B اور ہندسے دوگنا ہو رہے ہیں: 2 -> 4 -> 8 -> 16 -> 32۔ لہذا خالی جگہ پر E4 آئے گا۔
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293📚Reasoning & MathematicsCoding Decoding
In a certain code language, BOARD is written as EQBNC. How will the word CLIMB be written in that language?
Explanation
The pattern is:
- B (+3) -> E
- O (+2) -> Q
- A (+1) -> B
- R (-4) -> N
- D (-1) -> C
Applying this pattern to CLIMB:
- C (+3) -> F
- L (+2) -> N
- I (+1) -> J
- M (+5) -> R (or looking at initial letters F, N, J in option D)
- B (+13) -> O
Matches FNJRO.
پٹرن مندرجہ ذیل ہے:
- B (+3) -> E، O (+2) -> Q، A (+1) -> B، اور آگے بھی۔
اسی طرح CLIMB کو تبدیل کرنے پر پہلا حرف F، دوسرا N، اور تیسرا J حاصل ہوتا ہے، جو کہ صرف آپشن D (FNJRO) میں ہے۔
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294📚General Knowledge & AwarenessOptics
The laws of reflection hold good for
Explanation
The laws of reflection (angle of incidence equals angle of reflection) apply to all reflecting surfaces, including plane and curved/spherical mirrors.
انعکاس کے قوانین (laws of reflection) تمام آئینے کی سطحوں پر لاگو ہوتے ہیں، خواہ وہ سیدھے (plane) ہوں یا گول (curved)۔
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295📚Forensic Science & PhotographyPhotography Science
Changing the overall sensitivity of the image is:
Explanation
Brightness adaptation is the ability of the human visual system (and camera systems) to adjust its sensitivity to changes in overall light levels.
روشنی کے عمومی پھیلاؤ کے مطابق تصویر یا آنکھ کی حساسیت بدلنے کو 'Brightness adaptation' کہتے ہیں۔
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296📚Forensic Science & PhotographyPhotography Science
What is the aeroplane flying height to obtain the average scale of the photograph equal to 1/7200? (Ground surface elevations vary from 160 m to 430 m and focal length of the camera lens is 153 mm)
Explanation
Average ground elevation h = (160 + 430)/2 = 295 m. Scale S = f / (H - h) => 1/7200 = 0.153 / (H - 295) => H - 295 = 7200 * 0.153 = 1101.6 m => H = 1396.6 m ~ 1397 m.
اوسط بلندی h = 295 میٹر۔ فارمولا Scale = f / (H - h)۔ حل کرنے پر ہوائی جہاز کی بلندی H = 1397 میٹر حاصل ہوتی ہے۔
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297📚Forensic Science & PhotographyPhotography Science
George Eastman introduced _____ in August 1888.
Explanation
George Eastman introduced the Kodak camera in August 1888, which utilized roll film and made photography accessible to the public.
جارج ایسٹ مین نے اگست 1888 میں پہلا رول فلم کیمرہ (Kodak) متعارف کرایا تھا، جس نے فوٹو گرافی کو عام کیا۔
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298📚Forensic Science & PhotographyPhotography Science
Daylight colour film is balanced for light at
Explanation
Daylight color film is balanced for daylight color temperatures, which is standard at 5400K to 5500K.
ڈے لائٹ کلر فلم دن کی روشنی (5400 سے 5500 کیلون) پر متوازن کی جاتی ہے۔
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299📚General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options. John decided to enroll in _____ MBA program at _____ University to enhance his business skills.
Explanation
Use 'an' before 'MBA' because it begins with a vowel sound (/ɛm/). Use 'a' before 'University' because it begins with a consonant sound (/juː/).
پروگرام میں 'MBA' سے پہلے 'an' لگے گا کیونکہ اس کا تلفظ حرفِ علت کی آواز (/ɛm/) سے شروع ہوتا ہے۔ 'University' سے پہلے 'a' لگے گا کیونکہ اس کا تلفظ حرفِ صحیح کی آواز (/juː/) سے شروع ہوتا ہے۔
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300📚General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options. I work at _____ company in New York. _____ company is called Global Tech Solutions.
Explanation
'a' is used for the first mention of a non-specific singular countable noun ('a company'). 'the' is used for the second mention because the company has now been specified.
پہلی بار کسی غیر مخصوص کمپنی کا ذکر کرنے کے لیے 'a company' استعمال ہوگا، اور جب دوسری بار اسی مخصوص کمپنی کا ذکر ہو تو 'the company' استعمال ہوگا۔
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301📚General EnglishHomonyms
Match the following pairs regarding homonyms and their meaning:

i. Stalk | 1. A site for mining stone
ii. Ream | 2. A tree's outer layer is composed of dead cells
iii. Quarry | 3. A kitchen utensil used to extract juice from citrus fruits.
iv. Bark | 4. Vertical stem or connecting part of a plant
Explanation
Stalk matches 4 (plant stem). Ream matches 3 (kitchen tool / juicer). Quarry matches 1 (stone mine). Bark matches 2 (tree outer layer). This corresponds to i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2.
درست جوڑ مندرجہ ذیل ہیں: Stalk کا مطلب پودے کا تنا (4)، Ream کا مطلب لیموں وغیرہ نچوڑنے کا آلہ (3)، Quarry کا مطلب پتھر کی کان (1)، اور Bark کا مطلب درخت کی چھال (2)۔ یہ ترتیب i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2 بنتی ہے۔
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302📚General EnglishPhrasal Verbs
Fill in the blanks with suitable phrasal verbs in the below sentence. He has been in the hospital for several days, but the doctors are hopeful that he will _____
Explanation
'Pull through' is a phrasal verb that means to get through an illness or other dangerous/difficult situation safely.
'Pull through' کا مطلب کسی بیماری یا خطرناک صورتحال سے بحفاظت باہر نکل آنا یا صحت یاب ہو جانا ہے۔
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303📚General EnglishPhrasal Verbs
Fill in the blanks with suitable phrasal verbs in the below sentence. Maya always felt that people _____ her because of her unconventional career choice.
Explanation
'Look down upon' means to think that other people are inferior or less important than oneself.
'Look down upon' کا مطلب کسی کو حقارت یا کم تر نظر سے دیکھنا ہے۔
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304📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below. As they navigated through the dense forest, they stumbled _____ an ancient ruin that was hidden beneath the overgrown vegetation.
Explanation
To 'stumble upon' something is a phrasal verb/preposition combination that means to discover something by chance.
'Stumble upon' کا مطلب ہے اچانک یا اتفاقاً کوئی چیز دریافت کر لینا یا اس سے ٹکرا جانا۔
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305📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below. She walked _____ the bustling market, taking in the vibrant colors and enticing scents of fresh produce and spices.
Explanation
To walk 'through' a location means to enter it and move to the other side or move around inside it, which fits a market context.
بازار کے ایک سرے سے دوسرے سرے تک گزرنے یا اس کے اندر چلنے کے لیے 'through' (کے درمیان سے / کے ذریعے) کا استعمال بالکل درست ہے۔
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306📚General Awareness & Current AffairsFamous Personalities
The Indian to beat the computers in mathematical wizardry is
Explanation
Shakuntala Devi was an Indian writer and mental calculator, popularly known as the 'Human Computer' for her capability to solve complex math problems rapidly.
شکنتلا دیوی کو ریاضی کے پیچیدہ سوالات کمپیوٹر سے بھی تیز حل کرنے کی وجہ سے 'ہیومن کمپیوٹر' کے نام سے جانا جاتا ہے۔
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307📚General Awareness & Current AffairsLanguages of India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which state of India?
Explanation
Bodo is an official language spoken mainly by the Bodo people in the state of Assam in Northeast India. It is also listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
بوڈو (Bodo) زبان بنیادی طور پر ہندوستان کی شمال مشرقی ریاست آسام میں بولی جاتی ہے۔ یہ آئین ہند کے آٹھویں شیڈول میں شامل ہے۔
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308📚General Awareness & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
What is the name of the UN body that settles legal disputes between member states?
Explanation
The International Court of Justice (ICJ), located in The Hague, Netherlands, is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations that settles legal disputes between states.
بین الاقوامی عدالتِ انصاف (ICJ)، جو ہالینڈ کے شہر ہیگ میں واقع ہے، اقوام متحدہ کا بنیادی عدالتی ادارہ ہے جو رکن ممالک کے درمیان تنازعات کو حل کرتا ہے۔
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309📚General Awareness & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
Which of the following country is not the member of the SAARC?
Explanation
Myanmar is not a member of SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation). The 8 SAARC members are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
میانمار (Myanmar) سارک (SAARC) کا رکن نہیں ہے۔ سارک کے 8 رکن ممالک میں افغانستان، بنگلہ دیش، بھوٹان، بھارت، مالدیپ، نیپال، پاکستان اور سری لنکا شامل ہیں۔
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310📚General Awareness & Current AffairsVitamins
Vitamin B Complex consists of how many vitamins?
Explanation
The Vitamin B complex consists of 8 distinct B vitamins: B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B3 (niacin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7 (biotin), B9 (folic acid), and B12 (cobalamin).
وٹامن بی کمپلیکس (Vitamin B Complex) کل 8 الگ وٹامنز پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے: B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9 اور B12۔
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311📚General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Polity
The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
Explanation
Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to become the Governor of an Indian state (United Provinces, now Uttar Pradesh) in independent India, from 1947 to 1949.
سروجنی نائیڈو آزاد ہندوستان کی پہلی خاتون گورنر تھیں، جنہوں نے متحدہ صوبہ (موجودہ اتر پردیش) کی گورنر کے طور پر خدمات انجام دیں۔
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312📚General Awareness & Current AffairsGeography Terms
The fertile land between two rivers is called
Explanation
The fertile tract of land lying between two converging rivers is known as a 'Doab' (from Persic: do = two, ab = water).
دو دریاؤں کے درمیان واقع زرخیز زمین کو 'دواب' (Doab) کہا جاتا ہے (جیسے پنجاب کا خطہ)۔
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313📚General Awareness & Current AffairsAgriculture
Where is Central Agriculture University situated?
Explanation
The Central Agricultural University (CAU) is located in Imphal, Manipur, established under the Central Agricultural University Act, 1992.
مرکزی زرعی یونیورسٹی (Central Agricultural University) منی پور کے دارالحکومت امفال (Imphal) میں واقع ہے۔
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314📚General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Heritage
Consider the following statements.
I) Shri Raghunathji Mandir, Jammu is one of the largest temple complexs in Northern India.
II) The temple was built in 1857 by Maharaja Hari Singh.
Choose the correct option.
Explanation
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect because the Raghunath Temple complex construction was started by Maharaja Gulab Singh in 1853 and completed by Maharaja Ranbir Singh in 1860 (not by Maharaja Hari Singh, who ruled much later).
بیان I درست ہے؛ رگھوناتھ مندر جموں و کشمیر اور شمالی ہند کے بڑے مندروں میں سے ہے۔ بیان II غلط ہے کیونکہ یہ مندر مہاراجہ گلاب سنگھ نے شروع کروایا اور مہاراجہ رنبیر سنگھ نے مکمل کروایا (نہ کہ مہاراجہ ہری سنگھ نے)۔
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315📚Elementary MathematicsPercentages
A man's wage was reduced by 50%. Again the reduced wage was increased by 50%. Find his loss in terms of percentage.
Explanation
Let the initial wage be 100. Reduced wage = 100 0.5 = 50. New increased wage = 50 1.5 = 75. Loss = 100 - 75 = 25%.
فرض کریں ابتدائی تنخواہ 100 ہے۔ تنخواہ میں 50% کمی کے بعد یہ 50 ہو گئی۔ اب اس 50 میں 50% کا اضافہ کرنے پر یہ 75 ہو گئی۔ کل نقصان = 100 - 75 = 25%۔
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316📚Elementary MathematicsProfit and Loss
A television manufacturer earns 20% profit by selling each T.V. set for Rs. 14400. If the production cost is increased by 15%, what should be the new selling price of a set so as to gain 15%?
Explanation
CP of TV = 14400 / 1.20 = Rs. 12000. New CP = 12000 1.15 = Rs. 13800. New SP for 15% profit = 13800 1.15 = Rs. 15870.
ٹی وی کی لاگت قیمت = 14400 / 1.20 = 12000 روپے۔ لاگت میں 15% اضافہ ہونے پر نئی قیمت = 13800 روپے۔ 15% منافع حاصل کرنے کے لیے نئی فروخت قیمت = 13800 * 1.15 = 15870 روپے۔
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317📚Elementary MathematicsRatio and Proportion
Five mangoes and four oranges cost as much as three mangoes and seven oranges. What is the ratio of the cost of one mango to the cost of one orange?
Explanation
Let M be cost of a mango, O be cost of an orange. 5M + 4O = 3M + 7O => 2M = 3O => M/O = 3/2 or 3:2.
فرض کریں آم کی قیمت M اور مالٹے کی قیمت O ہے۔ 5M + 4O = 3M + 7O جس سے 2M = 3O حاصل ہوتا ہے۔ تب M:O = 3:2 ہوگا۔
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318📚General Intelligence & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
In a certain code language, 'FARM' is coded as HDTP and 'EGGS' is coded as GJIV. How will 'FOOD' be coded in the same language?
Explanation
The coding pattern is an alternating shift of +2 and +3 for letters: F(+2)->H, A(+3)->D, R(+2)->T, M(+3)->P. Applying this to FOOD: F(+2)->H, O(+3)->R, O(+2)->Q, D(+3)->G. So, FOOD is coded as HRQG.
کوڈنگ کا پٹرن باری باری +2 اور +3 حروف آگے بڑھانا ہے: F(+2)->H, A(+3)->D۔ اسی طرح FOOD کے لیے: F(+2)->H, O(+3)->R, O(+2)->Q, D(+3)->G بنتا ہے۔ کوڈ 'HRQG' ہے۔
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319📚General Intelligence & ReasoningBlood Relations
Pointing to a man, Rocky (a man) said, "He is the father of the daughter of my daughter-in-law." How Rocky is related to that man?
Explanation
'my daughter-in-law's daughter' is Rocky's granddaughter. The father of his granddaughter is his son. Rocky (being a male) is the father of that man.
راکھی کہتا ہے: 'میری بہو کی بیٹی کا باپ'۔ بہو کی بیٹی پوتی ہوئی، اور پوتی کا باپ راکھی کا بیٹا ہوا۔ چونکہ راکھی مرد ہے، اس لیے وہ اس شخص کا باپ (Father) ہوگا۔
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320📚General Awareness & Current AffairsSearch Engines
An example of an 'Internet search engine' is:
Explanation
Yahoo is a web search engine, whereas Linux and Windows are Operating Systems, and MS Excel is an application spreadsheet software.
یاہو (Yahoo) ایک ویب سرچ انجن ہے، جبکہ ونڈوز اور لینکس آپریٹنگ سسٹم ہیں اور ایکسل ایک ایپلیکیشن سافٹ ویئر ہے۔
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321📚General Awareness & Current AffairsNetwork Services
Which of the following service allows a user to log in to another computer somewhere on the Internet?
Explanation
Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area network connections to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection.
ٹیل نیٹ (Telnet) وہ سروس ہے جو کسی صارف کو نیٹ ورک پر موجود کسی دوسرے کمپیوٹر میں لاگ ان ہونے اور اسے کنٹرول کرنے کی اجازت دیتی ہے۔
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322📚General Awareness & Current AffairsProtocols
The "S" in HTTPS stands for?
Explanation
In HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), the 'S' stands for 'Secure', indicating that the communications are encrypted using SSL/TLS.
HTTPS میں 'S' کا مطلب 'Secure' (محفوظ) ہے، جو یہ ظاہر کرتا ہے کہ ویب سائٹ کے ساتھ ڈیٹا کا تبادلہ خفیہ کاری (encryption) کے ذریعے محفوظ ہے۔
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323📚General Awareness & Current AffairsURL
What is the URL of a website?
Explanation
A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is the unique address of a web resource (like a website) on the Internet.
یو آر ایل (URL) سے مراد انٹرنیٹ پر موجود کسی ویب سائٹ کا منفرد پتہ یا لوکیشن (address) ہے۔
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324📚General Awareness & Current AffairsWeb Browsers
Which of these are web browsers?
Explanation
Google Chrome, Internet Explorer, and Brave are all software applications used to access the World Wide Web (web browsers).
گوگل کروم، انٹرنیٹ ایکسپلورر، اور بریو (Brave) یہ سب ویب براؤزر ہیں جن کے ذریعے انٹرنیٹ سرفنگ کی جاتی ہے۔
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325📚General Awareness & Current AffairsProtocols
What does FTP stand for?
Explanation
FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol, a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client.
ایف ٹی پی کا مطلب 'فائل ٹرانسفر پروٹوکول' (File Transfer Protocol) ہے، جو نیٹ ورک پر فائلوں کے تبادلے کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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326📚General Awareness & Current AffairsSoftware Types
Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?
Explanation
System Software (like the Operating System) is designed to control and manage the hardware resources and basic operations of a computer system.
سسٹم سافٹ ویئر (جیسے آپریٹنگ سسٹم) کمپیوٹر کے بنیادی کاموں کو کنٹرول کرنے اور ہارڈ ویئر کو منظم کرنے کے لیے ڈیزائن کیا جاتا ہے۔
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327📚General Awareness & Current AffairsCompilers
The compiler converts a program into
Explanation
A compiler converts high-level programming code into machine language (binary language: 0s and 1s) that the CPU can execute directly.
کمپائلر (Compiler) ہائی لیول پروگرامنگ کوڈ کو بائنری زبان (مشینی کوڈ - 0 اور 1) میں تبدیل کرتا ہے تاکہ سی پی یو اس پر براہ راست عمل کر سکے۔
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328📚General Awareness & Current AffairsWWW
World Wide Web is a standard maintained by
Explanation
The standards and protocols for the World Wide Web are maintained by the World Wide Web Consortium, commonly abbreviated as W3C.
ورلڈ وائیڈ ویب کے معیارات اور ضوابط W3C (World Wide Web Consortium) کے ذریعہ برقرار رکھے جاتے ہیں۔
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329📚General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity
Select the correct match:

i. A type of program that is created with the purpose of causing damage, stealing data or abusing computer system resources is known as | 1. Privacy
ii. means any email or communication that is intended to trick the recipient to disclose secret or sensitive information, such as password or account details | 2. Malware
iii. Protecting an original invention from being sold or used by others for a specific period of time is known as | 3. Phishing
iv. means your right to control your personal information and decide who can use the same | 4. Patents
Explanation
Damaging software is Malware (i-2). Trick communication is Phishing (ii-3). Invention protection is Patents (iii-4). Control over personal information is Privacy (iv-1). This corresponds to i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
درست مماثلت یہ ہے: نقصان پہنچانے والا سافٹ ویئر مالویئر ہے (i-2)، معلومات چرانے والا فریب فیشنگ ہے (ii-3)، ایجاد کا تحفظ پیٹنٹ ہے (iii-4) اور ذاتی معلومات کا کنٹرول پرائیویسی ہے (iv-1)۔ یہ ترتیب i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1 بنتی ہے۔
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330📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank.

Everyone in this world is accountable to God _____ his actions.
Explanation
The preposition 'for' is used after 'accountable' to indicate the thing/actions a person is responsible for. Thus, 'accountable to God for his actions'.
کسی چیز یا عمل کے لیے جوابدہ ہونے کے واسطے 'accountable' کے بعد 'for' استعمال ہوتا ہے۔ یعنی اپنے اعمال کے لیے خدا کے حضور جوابدہ ہونا۔
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331📚General EnglishVerbs
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The sky is quite overcast. We're _____ to have rain today.
Explanation
'We're likely to have rain today' is the correct idiomatic phrase indicating probability when the sky is overcast.
بادل چھائے ہونے کے بعد بارش کے قوی امکان کو ظاہر کرنے کے لیے 'likely' (امکان ہونا) موزوں ترین لفظ ہے۔
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332📚General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History
In which year was English announced as the official language of the Government throughout India?
Explanation
English was made the official language of the British East India Company administration in India under the English Education Act of 1835.
انگریزی کو 1835 کے انگلش ایجوکیشن ایکٹ کے تحت ہندوستان بھر میں سرکاری امورِ سلطنت کے لیے سرکاری زبان قرار دیا گیا تھا۔
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333📚General Awareness & ScienceInternational Organizations
Match the following International organization to its Headquarters.

1. INTERPOL - i. Lyon, France
2. WWF - ii. Montreal, Canada
3. EU - iii. Vaud, Switzerland
4. ICAO - iv. Brussels, Belgium

Match the above pairs appropriately.
Explanation
The correct matching is: INTERPOL - Lyon, France (1-i), WWF - Vaud, Switzerland (specifically Gland) (2-iii), EU - Brussels, Belgium (3-iv), and ICAO - Montreal, Canada (4-ii). This matches option B.
درست جوڑ یہ ہیں: انٹرپول - لیون، فرانس (1-i)، ورلڈ وائلڈ لائف فنڈ (WWF) - ووڈ، سوئٹزرلینڈ (2-iii)، یورپی یونین (EU) - برسلز، بیلجیم (3-iv) اور آئی سی اے او (ICAO) - مونٹریال، کینیڈا (4-ii)۔ یہ آپشن B ہے۔
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334📐MathematicsSpeed, Time & Distance
A man riding a bicycle covers a distance of 60 km in the direction of the wind and returns back in 8 hours. If speed of the wind is 10 km/hour, find the speed of the bicycle.
Explanation
Let bicycle speed be v. Time downstream + Time upstream = 8 hours. 60/(v+10) + 60/(v-10) = 8 => 15(v-10 + v+10) = 2(v^2 - 100) => 30v = 2v^2 - 200 => v^2 - 15v - 100 = 0 => (v-20)(v+5) = 0 => v = 20 km/h.
فرض کریں سائیکل کی رفتار v ہے۔ ہوا کی سمت میں وقت = 60/(v+10)، واپسی پر وقت = 60/(v-10)۔ دونوں کا مجموعہ 8 گھنٹے ہے۔ مساوات حل کرنے پر: v = 20 کلومیٹر فی گھنٹہ۔
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335📚Mental Ability & ReasoningLetter Series
Find the missing letters in the following sequence in the correct order:

abca_bcaab_ca_bbc_a
Explanation
The sequence repeats an expanding group: 'abc' / 'aabc' / 'aabbc' / 'aabbcc' / 'a'. Filling in 'abac' at the blank positions completes this pattern: abca(a)bcaab(b)ca(a)bbc(c)a.
یہ سلسلہ بتدریج پھیلنے والے حروف کے گروپ پر مشتمل ہے: abc / aabc / aabbc / aabbcc / a۔ خالی جگہوں پر 'abac' بھرنے سے یہ ترتیب مکمل ہو جاتی ہے۔
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336📚Mental Ability & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
If in a certain language PROSE is coded as PPOQE, how is LIGHT coded in that code?
Explanation
The pattern is: odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th) remain unchanged (P->P, O->O, E->E), while even positions (2nd, 4th) are shifted 2 letters backward (R - 2 = P, S - 2 = Q). Applying this to LIGHT: L->L, I-2->G, G->G, H-2->F, T->T. Result: LGGFT.
پیٹرن یہ ہے: طاق پوزیشنوں (1st, 3rd, 5th) کے حروف تبدیل نہیں ہوتے، جبکہ جفت پوزیشنوں (2nd, 4th) کے حروف 2 مقام پیچھے چلے جاتے ہیں۔ اس اصول کے تحت LIGHT کا کوڈ LGGFT بنے گا۔
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337📚Mental Ability & ReasoningBlood Relations
Introducing a woman, a man said, "Her husband is the only son of my father". How is that woman related to the man?
Explanation
The 'only son of my father' for a man is the man himself. Therefore, the woman's husband is the man himself, meaning she is his wife.
ایک مرد کے لیے 'میرے والد کا اکلوتا بیٹا' وہ خود ہے۔ اس لیے، اس عورت کا شوہر وہ خود ہے، یعنی وہ عورت اس کی بیوی (Wife) ہے۔
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338📚Mental Ability & ReasoningAssertion & Reason
For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative

Assertion (A): Simla is colder than Delhi.
Reason (R): Simla is at a higher altitude as compared to Delhi.
Explanation
Both statements are true. As altitude increases, temperature decreases. Simla is colder than Delhi because it is at a higher altitude, making R the correct explanation of A.
دونوں بیانات درست ہیں اور R، بیان A کی صحیح تشریح ہے۔ بلندی پر جانے سے درجہ حرارت گرتا ہے۔ شملہ، دہلی کے مقابلے زیادہ بلندی پر واقع ہے، اسی لیے وہاں سردی زیادہ ہوتی ہے۔
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339📚Mental Ability & ReasoningSyllogism
Two statements are followed by four conclusions numbered in I, II, III, IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows:

Statements:
1. All stars are planets.
2. All planets are trees.

Conclusions:
I. All planets are stars
II. All stars are trees
III. All trees are planets
IV. Some trees are stars
Explanation
Since all stars are planets and all planets are trees, we can conclude that all stars are trees (II). Also, since all stars are trees, some trees must be stars (IV). Conclusions I and III do not necessarily follow.
چونکہ تمام ستارے سیارے ہیں اور تمام سیارے درخت ہیں، اس کا مطلب ہے کہ تمام ستارے درخت ہیں (II)۔ اور اگر تمام ستارے درخت ہیں، تو کچھ درخت ستارے ہوں گے (IV)۔ اس لیے صرف II اور IV درست ہیں۔
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340📚Computer ApplicationsOperating Systems
The functions of operating systems are:

i. Process management
ii. Memory management
iii. File management
iv. Device management

Choose the correct Answer:
Explanation
An operating system performs all of these tasks: process management, memory management, file system management, and device/hardware management.
آپریٹنگ سسٹم کے بنیادی کاموں میں پروسیس مینجمنٹ، میموری مینجمنٹ، فائل مینجمنٹ اور ڈیوائس مینجمنٹ یہ چاروں شامل ہیں۔
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341📚Computer ApplicationsOffice Applications
Which of the following is a spreadsheet application program?
Explanation
MS Excel is a spreadsheet application program. MS Access is a database management program, MS Word is a word processor, and MS-DOS is an operating system.
ایم ایس ایکسل (MS Excel) ایک اسپریڈ شیٹ پروگرام ہے۔ ایم ایس ورڈ ورڈ پروسیسر ہے اور ایم ایس ایکسس ڈیٹا بیس پروگرام ہے۔
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342📚Computer ApplicationsComputer Hardware & Software
Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

List - I:
i. Operating System
ii. Input Device
iii. Output Device

List - II:
1. Scanning Devices
2. Security Management
3. Projectors
Explanation
Operating System handles security management (i-2), Input Device includes scanning devices (ii-1), and Output Device includes projectors (iii-3). This matches option C.
درست جوڑ یہ ہیں: آپریٹنگ سسٹم - سیکیورٹی مینجمنٹ (i-2)، ان پٹ ڈیوائس - اسکیننگ ڈیوائسز (ii-1)، آؤٹ پٹ ڈیوائس - پروجیکٹر (iii-3)۔ یہ آپشن C ہے۔
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343📚Computer ApplicationsInternet Services
________ is the widely used service of the ________ through which users can send and receive messages in an efficient way.
Explanation
E-mail (electronic mail) is a widely used service of the Internet that allows users to send and receive text, documents, and media messages efficiently.
ای میل (E-mail) انٹرنیٹ (Internet) کی ایک سب سے زیادہ استعمال ہونے والی سروس ہے جس کے ذریعے صارفین تیزی سے پیغامات بھیج اور وصول کر سکتے ہیں۔
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344📚Physics, Electronics & TelecomWiring Systems
Which of the permanent wiring systems is/are most preferably used for residential and commercial applications?

I. CTS
II. TRS
III. Cleat
IV. Conduit

Choose the correct answer.
Explanation
Conduit wiring (IV) is the most preferred modern permanent system, but CTS (Cab Tyre Sheathed, I) and TRS (Tough Rubber Sheathed, II) are also classified as historical permanent wiring systems. Cleat wiring (III) is purely temporary. Thus, Option C is correct.
کونڈوٹ وائرنگ (IV) سب سے موزوں جدید مستقل نظام ہے۔ CTS (I) اور TRS (II) کو بھی پرانے مستقل نظاموں میں شمار کیا جاتا ہے۔ جبکہ کلیٹ وائرنگ (III) عارضی ہوتی ہے۔ اس لیے صحیح جواب I, II اور IV ہے۔
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345📚Physics, Electronics & TelecomAmplitude Modulation
Consider the following statements:

Statement (I): In AM systems the modulation index (0 < m < 1) should be high.
Statement (II): The higher the value of m, the greater the power in the sidebands.

Choose the correct option.
Explanation
In AM systems, the sideband power is given by Pc(m2/2)P_c(m^2/2). A higher modulation index 'm' increases the sideband power, leading to higher efficiency. Thus, statement II is true and is the correct explanation for statement I.
ایمپلی ٹیوڈ ماڈیولیشن (AM) میں سائیڈ بینڈ پاور کا فارمولا Pc(m^2/2) ہے۔ ماڈیولیشن انڈیکس 'm' جتنا زیادہ ہوگا، سائیڈ بینڈ میں اتنی ہی زیادہ طاقت ہوگی اور سگنل زیادہ موثر ہوگا۔ لہذا دونوں بیانات درست ہیں اور دوسرا بیان پہلے کی صحیح وضاحت کرتا ہے۔
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346📚Physics, Electronics & TelecomAmplitude Modulation
Fill in the blank. "The generation of single sideband suppressed carrier (SSB-SC) signal is done by ________ discrimination methods."
Explanation
SSB-SC signals are commonly generated using either the frequency discrimination (filter) method or the phase discrimination (phase-shift) method.
سنگل سائیڈ بینڈ سپریسڈ کیریئر (SSB-SC) سگنل بنانے کے لیے فیز ڈسکریمنیشن (Phase) اور فریکوئنسی ڈسکریمنیشن (Frequency) دونوں طریقے استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔
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347📚Computer ApplicationsFrequencies
Match the following terms with their correct descriptions and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List-X:
i. VHF
ii. UHF
iii. HF
iv. SHF

List-Y:
1. Commonly used for FM radio and TV channels
2. Used in cellular networks and TV broadcasting
3. Mainly used in amateur and shortwave radio
4. Often used in satellite communications
Explanation
The correct matching is: VHF - FM radio/TV (i-1); UHF - cellular/TV broadcasting (ii-2); HF - amateur/shortwave radio (iii-3); SHF - satellite communications (iv-4). This matches option D.
درست جوڑ یہ ہیں: VHF - ایف ایم ریڈیو اور ٹی وی چینلز (i-1)، UHF - سیلولر نیٹ ورک اور ٹی وی براڈکاسٹ (ii-2)، HF - شارٹ ویو ریڈیو (iii-3) اور SHF - سیٹلائٹ مواصلات (iv-4)۔ یہ آپشن D ہے۔
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348📚📚 Social ScienceIndian Economy
How many times in a year does the RBI release the Monetary Policy?
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) releases its monetary policy bi-monthly, which is 6 times in a financial year.
ریزرو بینک آف انڈیا (RBI) ہر دو ماہ بعد اپنی مانیٹری پالیسی جاری کرتا ہے، جو ایک مالی سال میں 6 بار بنتی ہے۔
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349📚🔭 SciencePlaces & Administration
In which district is the Headquarters of the Northern Command of the Indian Army located?
Explanation
The Headquarters of the Northern Command of the Indian Army is located in the Udhampur district of Jammu and Kashmir.
ہندوستانی فوج کی سدرن اور نادرن کمانڈز میں سے نادرن کمانڈ (Northern Command) کا ہیڈ کوارٹر جموں و کشمیر کے ضلع ادھم پور میں واقع ہے۔
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350📚📝 EnglishPhrasal Verbs
Fill in the blank using a meaningful phrase: If you don't know the meaning of 'posse', why don't you _______ the word in a dictionary?
Explanation
The phrasal verb 'look up' means to search for information in a reference book, dictionary, or online source.
محاورہ 'look up' کا مطلب کسی حوالہ جاتی کتاب، لغت یا آن لائن ذریعے سے معلومات تلاش کرنا ہے۔
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351📚🔢 MathTime & Work
P can do a job in 15 days. In how many days can P and Q together complete the job if Q is twice as fast as P?
Explanation
Let P's rate of work be 1 unit/day. Total work = 15 units. Q is twice as fast as P, so Q's rate is 2 units/day. Combined rate = 1 + 2 = 3 units/day. Time together = 15 / 3 = 5 days.
فرض کریں P روزانہ 1 یونٹ کام کرتا ہے۔ کل کام = 15 یونٹ۔ Q کی رفتار دگنی ہے یعنی روزانہ 2 یونٹ۔ دونوں مل کر روزانہ 3 یونٹ کام کریں گے۔ مجموعی وقت = 15 / 3 = 5 دن۔
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352📚💻 ComputerComputer Networks
What is the full form of HTTPS?
Explanation
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. It is the secure version of HTTP used to encrypt communications.
HTTPS کا مطلب Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure ہے۔ یہ انٹرنیٹ پر محفوظ مواصلات کے لیے استعمال ہونے والا پروٹوکول ہے۔
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353📚💻 ComputerProgramming Languages
Which of these computer languages do we use in Artificial Intelligence?
Explanation
PROLOG (Programming in Logic) is widely used in artificial intelligence and computational linguistics.
پروگلاگ (PROLOG) ایک منطقی پروگرامنگ زبان ہے جو بڑے پیمانے پر مصنوعی ذہانت (AI) میں استعمال ہوتی ہے۔
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354📚💻 ComputerComputer Software
A program that converts assembly language to machine language is called:
Explanation
An assembler is a utility program that translates assembly language source code into machine language/object code.
اسمبلر (Assembler) وہ پروگرام ہے جو اسمبلی زبان میں لکھے گئے کوڈ کو مشین کے سمجھنے والی زبان (Machine Language) میں تبدیل کرتا ہے۔
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355📚🔢 MathPercentages
A man spends 35% of his income on house rent, and 75% of the remaining on other items. What percentage of his income does he save?
Explanation
Let income be 100. Rent = 35. Remaining = 65. Spent on other items = 75% of 65 = 48.75. Total spending = 35 + 48.75 = 83.75. Savings = 100 - 83.75 = 16.25%.
کل آمدنی 100 فرض کریں۔ مکان کا کرایہ = 35، باقی بچا = 65۔ دیگر اخراجات = 65 کا 75 فیصد یعنی 48.75۔ کل خرچ = 83.75۔ بچت = 16.25 فیصد۔
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356📚🔢 MathSpeed, Time & Distance
A man goes uphill with an average speed of 24 kmph and comes down with an average speed of 36 kmph. The distance travelled in both the cases being the same, the average speed for the entire journey is:
Explanation
Average speed = 2 v1 v2 / (v1 + v2) = 2 24 36 / (24 + 36) = 1728 / 60 = 28.8 km/hr.
اوسط رفتار = 2 × v1 × v2 / (v1 + v2) = 2 × 24 × 36 / (24 + 36) = 28.8 کلومیٹر فی گھنٹہ۔
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357📚💻 ComputerComputer History
Who was the founder of the Free Software Foundation?
Explanation
Richard Stallman founded the Free Software Foundation (FSF) in October 1985 to support the free software movement.
رچرڈ اسٹال مین نے اکتوبر 1985 میں فری سافٹ ویئر موومنٹ کی حمایت کے لیے 'فری سافٹ ویئر فاؤنڈیشن' (FSF) کی بنیاد رکھی تھی۔
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358📚🌍 General AwarenessAwards & Honors
Who won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Kashmiri language for the year 2022?
Explanation
Farooq Fayaz won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2022 in Kashmiri language for his literary criticism book 'Zael Dab'.
فاروق فیاض نے اپنی ادبی تنقید کی کتاب 'زیل ڈب' (Zael Dab) کے لیے سال 2022 کا کشمیری زبان کا ساہتیہ اکادمی ایوارڈ جیتا۔
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359📚🔭 SciencePlaces & Administration
Match the following tourist/cultural titles of J&K with their correct districts:

P. Chhota Kashi - Samba
Q. Land of Devika - Udhampur
R. District of Lakes - Ganderbal
S. Land of Springs - Anantnag
Explanation
Chhota Kashi refers to Purmandal (Samba - iii), Land of Devika is Udhampur (i), District of Lakes is Ganderbal (ii), and Land of Springs is Anantnag (iv). This matches option A.
درست جوڑ درج ذیل ہیں: چھوٹا کاشی - سانبہ (iii)، دیویکا کی سرزمیں - ادھم پور (i)، جھیلوں کا ضلع - گاندربل (ii)، چشموں کی سرزمیں - اننت ناگ (iv)۔ یہ آپشن A ہے۔
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360📚📝 EnglishReading Comprehension
According to the passage, why is fire called a wonder?
Explanation
The passage notes that fire always remained a miracle (wonder) to primitive man because 'Man did not invent it; probably nature produced a marvel for him...'. They did not fully understand its chemical nature.
عبارت کے مطابق، آگ کو ایک عجوبہ کہا جاتا ہے کیونکہ انسان نے اسے ایجاد نہیں کیا تھا اور نہ ہی وہ اس کی کیمیائی نوعیت کو پوری طرح سمجھ سکتا تھا۔
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361📚📝 EnglishReading Comprehension
What was the duty of the virgins in the Temple of Vesta?
Explanation
The passage mentions: 'The Romans even punished with death the careless virgins of the Temple of Vesta who allowed the sacred fire to be extinguished.' Their duty was to keep the sacred fire burning.
رومیوں کے مندر وسٹا کی دوشیزاؤں کی ذمہ داری یہ تھی کہ وہ مندر کی مقدس آگ کو کبھی بجھنے نہ دیں، ورنہ موت کی سزا ملتی تھی۔
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362📚📝 EnglishReading Comprehension
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?
Explanation
The passage states: 'Man did not invent it; probably nature produced a marvel for him...'. Therefore, the statement 'Man invented fire' is not true.
عبارت کے مطابق 'انسان نے آگ ایجاد نہیں کی تھی'، لہذا یہ بیان کہ 'انسان نے آگ ایجاد کی' غلط اور غیر حقیقت پسندانہ ہے۔
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363📚🧩 ReasoningCounting Figures
How many squares are there in this standard figure?
Explanation
Assuming the standard 4x4 grid of squares: Total squares = 1^2 + 2^2 + 3^2 + 4^2 = 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 = 30.
4x4 گرڈ کے معیاری پانسے کے مطابق: کل چوکوروں (Squares) کی تعداد = 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 = 30 ہوتی ہے۔
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364📚🔢 MathFractions & Decimals
From a rope of 30 meters long, a person cuts off as many pieces as possible, each 3163\frac{1}{6} meters long. What fraction of the whole will be left? (Note: Options list the remaining length in meters)
Explanation
Length of 1 piece = 19/6 m. Number of pieces = floor(30 / (19/6)) = floor(180/19) = 9. Total length cut = 9 * 19/6 = 57/2 = 28.5 m. Remaining length = 30 - 28.5 = 1.5 m. Note that 1.5 m is equivalent to 9/6 meters, which is option A. The actual fraction of the whole rope is 1.5 / 30 = 1/20.
ایک ٹکڑے کی لمبائی = 19/6 میٹر۔ کل ٹکڑے = 9۔ کٹی ہوئی رسی = 28.5 میٹر۔ باقی بچنے والی لمبائی = 1.5 میٹر، جو کہ 9/6 کے برابر ہے (آپشن A)۔ پوری رسی کا فریکشن 1.5/30 = 1/20 ہے۔
2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department
365📚🔢 MathSpeed, Time & Distance
A man travels from his home to office at the speed of 4.5 km/hr and reaches his office 10 min early. If the speed had been 2.5 km/hr he would have reached 30 min late. Find the distance from his home to office.
Explanation
Let distance be d. Difference in time = 10 min early - (-30 min late) = 40 min = 2/3 hours. d/2.5 - d/4.5 = 2/3 => d(1/2.5 - 1/4.5) = 2/3 => d(2/5 - 2/9) = 2/3 => d(8/45) = 2/3 => d = 3.75 km.
دوری d فرض کریں۔ وقت کا فرق = 40 منٹ = 2/3 گھنٹے۔ d/2.5 - d/4.5 = 2/3۔ اسے حل کرنے پر d = 3.75 کلومیٹر۔
2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department
366📚📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History
Match the following historical events/missions with their correct objectives:

P) The Cripps Mission - Seeking Cooperation from Indians in World War II
Q) Home Rule Movement - Self-government for India
R) Simon Commission - To review the political situation and reform
S) Morley-Minto Reforms - Separate electorate for Muslims
Explanation
Cripps Mission (P-3) sought WWII cooperation, Home Rule (Q-4) demanded self-government, Simon Commission (R-1) reviewed reforms, and Morley-Minto (S-2) introduced separate electorates. This matches option C.
کرپس مشن (P-3) دوسری جنگ عظیم میں تعاون کے لیے تھا، ہوم رول تحریک (Q-4) خود مختاری کے لیے تھی، سائمن کمیشن (R-1) اصلاحات کا جائزہ لینے آیا، اور مارلے منٹو اصلاحات (S-2) نے مسلمانوں کے لیے الگ حلقہ انتخاب متعارف کرایا۔ یہ آپشن C ہے۔
2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department
367📚📚 Social ScienceAncient Indian History
Find the correct chronological (increasing/historical timeline) order of the reigns of the following rulers:

P) Chandragupta I of the Guptas
Q) Kanishka of the Kushanas
R) Simuka of the Satavahanas
S) Rudradaman of the Shakas
Explanation
Simuka founded Satavahanas (c. 1st century BC - R), Kanishka ruled Kushanas (c. 127 AD - Q), Rudradaman of Shakas ruled (c. 130 AD - S), and Chandragupta I ruled Guptas (c. 319 AD - P). Hence, the chronological order is RQSP.
سیموکا (R) قبل مسیح میں تھے، کینشکا (Q) تقریباً 127 عیسوی، ردرا دمن (S) تقریباً 130 عیسوی، اور چندرگپت اول (P) 319 عیسوی میں تخت نشین ہوئے۔ اس لیے تاریخی ترتیب RQSP ہے۔
2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department
368📚📝 EnglishDirect & Indirect Speech
When the following sentence in direct speech is changed to indirect speech, identify the correct option: The Colonel said, "Get ready for our departure."
Explanation
An imperative direct command 'Get ready...' becomes an infinitive clause 'ordered them to get ready' in indirect speech, and the pronoun 'our' changes to 'their'.
بلاواسطہ حکم نامہ 'Get ready...' بالواسطہ بیان میں تبدیل ہو کر 'ordered them to get ready' بن جاتا ہے اور ضمیر 'our' تبدیل ہو کر 'their' ہو جاتا ہے۔
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369📚🧩 ReasoningBlood Relations
Pointing to an old man, Naresh said, "His son is my son's uncle." How is Naresh related to the old man?
Explanation
Naresh's son's uncle is Naresh's brother. Since the old man's son is Naresh's brother, Naresh is also the son of the old man.
نریش کے بیٹے کا ماموں/چچا (Uncle) خود نریش کا بھائی ہے۔ چونکہ بوڑھے کا بیٹا نریش کا بھائی ہے، اس لیے نریش اس بوڑھے کا بیٹا (Son) ہے۔
2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department
370📚💻 ComputerComputer Networks
PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network) is a classic example of which type of switching?
Explanation
The Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) is based on Circuit Switching, where a dedicated communication path is established between two nodes before data transmission.
عوامی سوئچ شدہ ٹیلی فون نیٹ ورک (PSTN) سرکٹ سوئچنگ (Circuit Switching) کی ایک بہترین مثال ہے، جس میں مواصلات کے دوران ایک مستقل لنک قائم کیا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department
371📚Building Materials & ConstructionConic Sections
Consider that the apex angle of the cone is 2θ2\theta when the cone is cut by a section plane at an angle α\alpha where α\alpha is more than half of the apex angle i.e., θ\theta and less than 90°, the curve of the section will be
Explanation
In conic sections, if the section plane makes an angle α\alpha with the axis of the cone such that θ<α<90∘\theta < \alpha < 90^\circ (where θ\theta is the semi-vertical angle, i.e., half of the apex angle), the resulting section is an Ellipse. If α=90∘\alpha = 90^\circ, it's a circle; if α=θ\alpha = \theta, it's a parabola; if α<θ\alpha < \theta, it's a hyperbola.
مخروطی حصوں (Conic Sections) میں، اگر سیکشن پلین مخروط کے محور کے ساتھ ایسا زاویہ α\alpha بنائے کہ θ<α<90∘\theta < \alpha < 90^\circ ہو (جہاں θ\theta سیمی ورٹیکل زاویہ یعنی ایپیکس زاویے کا نصف ہے)، تو حاصل ہونے والی شکل بیضوی (Ellipse) ہوتی ہے۔ اگر α=90∘\alpha = 90^\circ ہو تو دائرہ، اور اگر α=θ\alpha = \theta ہو تو پیرابولا بنتا ہے۔
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372📚Building Materials & ConstructionProjections
When the object is situated in First quadrant, that is, in front of Vertical Plane and above Horizontal Plane, the projections obtained on these planes is called
Explanation
When the object is placed in the first quadrant (above the Horizontal Plane and in front of the Vertical Plane), the projection system used is called the First Angle Projection.
جب کسی چیز کو پہلے کواڈرینٹ (افقی سطح سے اوپر اور عمودی سطح کے سامنے) میں رکھا جاتا ہے، تو اس پروجیکشن سسٹم کو فرسٹ اینگل پروجیکشن (First Angle Projection) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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373📚Building Materials & ConstructionProjections
For orthographic projection, the following statement is true:
Explanation
In orthographic projection, the projectors (parallel projection lines) are parallel to each other and perpendicular (orthogonal) to the plane of projection.
آرتھوگرافک پروجیکشن (Orthographic Projection) میں، پروجیکٹرز (پروجیکشن لائنیں) ایک دوسرے کے متوازی (Parallel) اور پروجیکشن کی سطح پر عموداً (Perpendicular) ہوتی ہیں۔
2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department
374📚Building Materials & ConstructionAutoCAD Commands
What is the shortcut for zoom command in AutoCAD?
Explanation
In AutoCAD, the zoom function can be executed by entering 'Z' (alias for ZOOM command) in the command line, typing the full 'ZOOM' command, or interactively rotating the mouse wheel.
آٹوکیڈ (AutoCAD) میں، زوم (Zoom) کمانڈ کو چالو کرنے کے لیے کمانڈ لائن پر 'Z' ٹائپ کیا جا سکتا ہے، پوری 'Zoom' کمانڈ لکھی جا سکتی ہے، یا ماؤس کا وہیل گھمایا جا سکتا ہے۔ اس لیے تمام طریقے درست ہیں۔
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375📚Surveying & LevellingGeodetic Surveying
In great survey networks, typically
Explanation
In large geodetic control/survey networks, horizontal control is established using either triangulation (measuring angles), trilateration (measuring lengths/distances), or a combination of both.
بڑے جیوڈیٹک سروے نیٹ ورکس میں، افقی کنٹرول قائم کرنے کے لیے یا تو ٹرائی اینگولیشن (زاوئیے ماپنا) یا ٹرائی لیٹریشن (لمبائیاں ماپنا) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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376📚Surveying & LevellingProjections
In orthographic projection, each projection view represents how many dimensions of an object?
Explanation
Each view in an orthographic projection (such as front view, top view, or side view) represents exactly two dimensions of a three-dimensional object (e.g., front view shows length and height).
آرتھوگرافک پروجیکشن کے ہر ایک ویو (جیسے سامنے کا ویو، اوپر کا ویو) میں کسی بھی سہ جہتی (3D) چیز کی صرف دو پیمائشیں (Dimensions) دکھائی دیتی ہیں۔
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377📚Surveying & LevellingRoofs
The term pitch in connection with pitched roofs is defined as
Explanation
The pitch of a roof is defined as its angle of inclination to the horizontal plane. It can also be expressed as the ratio of rise to span.
ڈھلوانی چھتوں (Pitched roofs) کے سلسلے میں 'پچ' (pitch) سے مراد چھت کے اطراف کا افقی سطح (horizontal plane) کے ساتھ بننے والا جھکاؤ یا زاویہ ہے۔
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378📚Surveying & LevellingBuilding Planning
The term _______ is used to mean the external views as seen from certain rooms of the building.
Explanation
Prospect is a planning principle that refers to the external views as seen from certain windows or rooms of a building. Aspect refers to the orientation of walls to receive solar radiation and wind.
بلڈنگ پلاننگ میں، کسی کمرے کے اندر سے باہر کا خوبصورت نظارہ نظر آنے کی خصوصیت کو 'پروسپیکٹ' (Prospect) کہا جاتا ہے۔ دیواروں کی سمت بندی کو اسپیکٹ کہتے ہیں۔
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379📚Surveying & LevellingSurveying Principles
In plane surveying,
Explanation
In plane surveying, the mean surface of the earth is treated as a plane surface, and the curvature of the earth is neglected. This is typically done for surveys covering small areas (less than 250 sq km). Option B represents the fundamental defining assumption of plane surveying.
پلین سروے (Plane surveying) میں زمین کی مہراب دار سطح کو ہموار سمجھا جاتا ہے اور زمین کی گولائی (curvature) کو نظر انداز کر دیا جاتا ہے۔ یہ عام طور پر چھوٹے علاقوں کے سروے کے لیے ہوتا ہے۔
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380📚Surveying & LevellingBridge Engineering
Bridge over a dry valley is known as
Explanation
A viaduct is a bridge structure composed of several small spans carrying a road or railway over a dry valley, gorge, or low-lying land, instead of a watercourse.
خشک وادی یا کھائی کے اوپر بنائے جانے والے طویل پل کو وایاڈکٹ (Viaduct) کہا جاتا ہے۔ یہ پانی کے اوپر نہیں بلکہ زمین کے نشیب و فراز پر بنتا ہے۔
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381📚Engineering Drawing & CADInternet & Web
A program that looks through the internet for web pages on a particular topic is called
Explanation
A search engine (like Google, Bing, etc.) is a program designed to search for information on the World Wide Web based on user-entered keywords. A browser is the software client used to access these web pages.
انٹرنیٹ پر مخصوص عنوانات کی ویب سائٹس کو تلاش کرنے والے پروگرام کو سرچ انجن (Search engine) کہتے ہیں۔ ویب براؤزر ان صفحات کو دیکھنے کے لیے استعمال ہونے والا سافٹ ویئر ہے۔
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382📚Engineering Drawing & CADOperating System Commands
Which DOS command displays only file and directory names without size, date and time information?
Explanation
The `/b` switch in the `dir` command (i.e. `dir /b`) stands for 'bare format'. It displays only the file/directory names without header, summary, file sizes, or time stamps.
کمانڈ پرامپٹ میں `dir /b` کمانڈ فائل اور ڈائرکٹری کے نام صرف سادہ فارمیٹ (bare format) میں دکھاتی ہے، جس میں سائز اور تاریخ کی معلومات نہیں ہوتیں۔
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383📚Engineering Drawing & CADCement
Which of these benefits is absent in rapid hardening cement?
Explanation
Rapid hardening cement has the same density and weight as Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC). It is finely ground to achieve early strength, but it is not lightweight. Therefore, 'light in weight' is not a benefit of RHC.
ریپڈ ہارڈننگ سیمنٹ (Rapid hardening cement) جلدی طاقت حاصل کرنے کے لیے زیادہ باریک پیسا جاتا ہے، لیکن یہ وزن میں ہلکا (Light in weight) نہیں ہوتا۔ اس کا وزن عام سیمنٹ جتنا ہی ہوتا ہے۔ اس لیے آپشن C درست ہے۔
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384📚Engineering Drawing & CADScales
A playground which is 16 m² in reality consists of an area of 1 m² on the city plan. What is the scale of the city plan?
Explanation
Area Scale = 1 m2:16 m2=1/161 \text{ m}^2 : 16 \text{ m}^2 = 1 / 16. The linear scale (Representative Fraction) is the square root of the area scale: 1/16=1/4=1:4\sqrt{1 / 16} = 1 / 4 = 1:4.
رقبے کا اسکیل = 1 m2:16 m2=1/161 \text{ m}^2 : 16 \text{ m}^2 = 1 / 16۔ لمبائی کا لکیری اسکیل رقبے کے اسکیل کا مربع جذر ہوتا ہے: 1/16=1/4=1:4\sqrt{1 / 16} = 1 / 4 = 1:4۔ اس لیے نقشے کا اسکیل 1:4 ہے۔
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385📚Engineering Drawing & CADProjections
When the projectors are at 63.26 degrees to the plane of projection, and receding lines are half the true length, the oblique drawing is called
Explanation
In oblique drawing, when the receding lines are drawn to half their actual length (using a projection angle of 63.26° or 63.43°), it is called Cabinet Projection. If receding lines are drawn at full scale (projection angle 45°), it is called Cavalier Projection.
اوبلیک ڈرائنگ (Oblique drawing) میں، جب پیچھے جانے والی لائنوں (receding lines) کی لمبائی حقیقی لمبائی سے آدھی دکھائی جائے (زاویہ 63.26°)، تو اسے کیبنٹ پروجیکشن (Cabinet projection) کہتے ہیں۔ اگر پوری دکھائی جائے تو اسے کیولیئر پروجیکشن کہتے ہیں۔
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386📚Engineering Drawing & CADSoil Mechanics
In which type of shear failure does the failure surface NOT extend upto the ground surface when a strip footing rests on loose sand or soft clay?
Explanation
In Local Shear Failure (which occurs in loose sand or soft clay), the failure surface starts at the edges of the footing but does not extend up to the ground surface. (In General Shear Failure, the failure surface extends to the ground, and in Punching Shear Failure, the footing punches vertically down without forming a well-developed failure plane reaching the surface).
لوکل شیئر فیلیر (Local shear failure) میں فیلیر کی سطح زمین کی اوپری سطح تک نہیں پہنچتی۔ یہ عام طور پر ڈھیلی ریت یا نرم مٹی میں ہوتا ہے۔ اس لیے آپشن A درست ہے۔
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387📚RCC & Structural MechanicsConstruction Management
Match the construction management term with its correct description:
1. Critical Path - d. The sequence of tasks that determines the shortest time needed to complete a project.
2. Gantt Chart - b. A graphical representation of a project schedule, showing tasks over time.
3. Change Order - c. A formal request to modify project scope, schedule, or resources.
4. Punch List - a. A list of remaining tasks and minor corrections needed before a project is considered complete.
Choose the correctly matched option:
Explanation
The correct matches are: Critical Path corresponds to (d); Gantt Chart corresponds to (b) showing tasks against time; Change Order corresponds to (c) to alter scope; Punch list corresponds to (a) listing minor corrections. This yields 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a.
درست جوڑ: کریٹیکل پاتھ (1-d)، گینٹ چارٹ (2-b)، چینج آرڈر (3-c) اور پنچ لسٹ (4-a) ہے۔ اس لیے آپشن C درست جواب ہے۔
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388📚RCC & Structural MechanicsSurveying Instruments
Match the following surveying instruments with their descriptions:
1. Theodolite - c. An optical instrument used for measuring distances and angles in surveying.
2. Prismatic Compass - a. Used for measuring angles (bearings) in horizontal planes.
3. Planimeter - b. Measures the area of a closed figure on a map or drawing.
4. Leveling Rod - d. Used to measure height differences or elevations during leveling.
Choose the correctly matched option:
Explanation
The correct matches are: Theodolite (1-c) for measuring angles and distances (tachometer function); Prismatic Compass (2-a) for measuring magnetic bearings; Planimeter (3-b) for measuring plan area; Leveling Rod (4-d) for vertical height measurements.
درست جوڑ: تھیوڈولائٹ (1-c)، پرزمیٹک کمپاس (2-a)، پلانی میٹر (3-b) اور لیولنگ راڈ (4-d) ہے۔ اس لیے آپشن B درست جواب ہے۔
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389📚RCC & Structural MechanicsCement Testing
The IS sieve which is used for measuring the fineness of cement is
Explanation
According to IS 4031-Part 1, the fineness of cement is tested by dry sieving using a 90-micron (IS Sieve No. 9) sieve. The residue should not exceed 10% for ordinary Portland cement.
سیمنٹ کی باریکی (fineness) کو ماپنے کے لیے 90 مائیکرون (90 micron - IS Sieve No. 9) کی چھلنی استعمال کی جاتی ہے۔ OPC کے لیے چھلنی پر بچا ہوا سیمنٹ 10٪ سے زیادہ نہیں ہونا چاہیے۔
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390📚RCC & Structural MechanicsOperating System Commands
Which command is used to display the Windows version in the Command Prompt?
Explanation
The `VER` command is used in the Windows Command Prompt (CMD) to display the current version of the operating system.
کمانڈ پرامپٹ (Command Prompt) میں ونڈوز کا کرنٹ ورژن (version) دیکھنے کے لیے `VER` کمانڈ استعمال کی جاتی ہے۔
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391📚RCC & Structural MechanicsAutoCAD Layers
Which of the following layers can be deleted from the Layer Properties Manager in AutoCAD?
Explanation
In AutoCAD, you cannot delete Layer 0, Defpoints, the current layer, or layers containing objects. However, you can delete a frozen or inactive layer that does not contain any drawing objects.
آٹوکیڈ (AutoCAD) میں لیئر 0، ڈیف پوائنٹس (Defpoints)، کرنٹ لیئر، اور ایسی لیئرز جن میں کوئی ڈرائنگ موجود ہو، ڈیلیٹ نہیں کی جا سکتیں۔ صرف وہی لیئر ڈیلیٹ ہو سکتی ہے جو خالی ہو (Frozen layer not containing objects)۔
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392📚RCC & Structural MechanicsBuilding Planning
Match the following building planning components with their descriptions:
1. Residential Building Planning - d. Regulations governing the layout, design, and construction of residential buildings.
2. Building Bylaws of Local Authorities - b. The rules and regulations set by local urban development authorities.
3. BIS Codes - c. National standards issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards.
4. Service Utilities in Dwelling House - a. Essential utilities such as water, electricity, and sewage.
Choose the correctly matched option:
Explanation
The correct matches are: Residential Planning (1-d), Local Bylaws (2-b), BIS Codes (3-c), Service Utilities (4-a). This corresponds to Option C.
درست جوڑ: رہائشی بلڈنگ پلاننگ (1-d)، مقامی بلڈنگ بائی لاز (2-b)، BIS کوڈز (3-c) اور یوٹیلیٹیز (4-a) ہے۔ اس لیے آپشن C درست جواب ہے۔
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393📚RCC & Structural MechanicsAutoCAD Commands
In AutoCAD, POL is the command used for drawing a polygon of minimum sides 3 and maximum sides of
Explanation
In AutoCAD, the `POLYGON` (POL) command allows the user to draw regular polygons with a minimum of 3 sides and a maximum limit of 1024 sides.
آٹوکیڈ (AutoCAD) میں پولیگان (POL) کمانڈ کے ذریعے بنائے جانے والے کثیر الاضلاع (Polygon) کے اضلاع کی کم سے کم تعداد 3 اور زیادہ سے زیادہ تعداد 1024 ہو سکتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department
394📚RCC & Structural MechanicsLine Types
Match the following line types with their applications as per engineering drawing standards:
a. Chain thin, with thick ends - i) Cutting Planes
b. Chain thin, double-dashed - iv) Centroidal lines / Adjacent parts
c. Chain thin, long-dashed - ii) Center lines
d. Chain thick, long-dashed - iii) Indicates surfaces to which special requirements apply
Choose the correctly matched option:
Explanation
According to drawing standards (ISO 128 / IS 10714): Chain thin with thick ends (a) represents cutting planes (i). Chain thin double-dashed (b) represents centroidal/adjacent lines (iv). Chain thin (c) represents center lines (ii). Chain thick (d) indicates surfaces with special requirements (iii). This corresponds to Option B.
ڈرائنگ معیارات کے مطابق لائنوں کا درست جوڑ: کٹنگ پلین کے لیے سروں پر موٹی لائن (a-i)، سینٹرائڈل لائنوں کے لیے ڈبل ڈیش لائن (b-iv)، سینٹر لائن کے لیے پتلی چین لائن (c-ii) اور خصوصی سطح کے لیے موٹی چین لائن (d-iii) ہے۔ آپشن B درست ہے۔
2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department
395📚Estimating, Costing & ValuationTimber
Assertion A: Shishum is used for decorative woodwork.
Reason R: Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish.
Select the correct option:
Explanation
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation. Shisham (Indian Rosewood) is highly prized for decorative woodwork and high-quality furniture because it has a beautiful grain structure and can be polished to an exceptionally smooth and rich finish.
بیان (A) اور وجہ (R) دونوں درست ہیں اور R، A کی بالکل صحیح وضاحت کرتا ہے۔ شیشم کی لکڑی مضبوط ہونے کے ساتھ ساتھ بہت عمدہ پالش (excellent finish) ہوتی ہے، اس لیے اسے سجاوٹی لکڑی کے کاموں کے لیے استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department
396📚Estimating, Costing & ValuationBuilding Services
In escalators, the angle of inclination with the horizontal plane should be in the range of:
Explanation
According to safety standards, the angle of inclination of an escalator with the horizontal plane must not exceed 30° in general, but can be up to 35° depending on the vertical rise and speed limitations.
حفاظتی معیارات کے مطابق، متحرک سیڑھیوں (Escalators) کا افقی سطح کے ساتھ جھکاؤ کا زاویہ 30° سے 35° (30°-35°) کے درمیان ہونا چاہیے۔
2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department
397📚Estimating, Costing & ValuationPlane Table Surveying
After fixing the plane table to the tripod, what is the correct sequence of operations needed at each plane table station?
Explanation
At each plane table station, the operations must be performed in this strict sequence: 1) Levelling (making the table horizontal), 2) Centering (aligning the ground point with the paper point using a plumbing fork), and 3) Orientation (aligning the table along the magnetic north or previous line). This corresponds to sequence (i), (iii), (ii).
پلین ٹیبل سروے میں سٹیشن پر کام کا درست تسلسل (i)، (iii)، (ii) ہے: پہلے لیولنگ (ٹیبل ہموار کرنا)، پھر سینٹرنگ (گراؤنڈ اور نقشے کے پوائنٹ کو سیدھا کرنا)، اور آخر میں اورینٹیشن (رخ متعین کرنا)۔ اس لیے آپشن B درست ہے۔
2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department
398📚Estimating, Costing & ValuationHighway Engineering
The maximum number of cities and towns are connected by which type of highway?
Explanation
National Highways constitute the primary highway network in India. They connect all major cities, state capitals, industrial hubs, ports, and towns across the country.
ملک کے زیادہ تر بڑے شہروں اور قصبوں کو آپس میں ملانے والی سڑکوں کو نیشنل ہائی ویز (National highways - قومی شاہراہ) کہا جاتا ہے۔ یہ ملک کی بنیادی نقل و حمل کا ڈھانچہ ہیں۔
2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department
399📚Estimating, Costing & ValuationBuilding Planning
_______ is a large open space located within a building. It is often used to light a central circulation or public area by daylight admitted through a glass roof or wall.
Explanation
An Atrium is a large open-air or glass-covered space surrounded by a building, providing natural light and ventilation to the central circulation area.
کسی بڑی عمارت کے درمیان میں موجود کھلے یا شیشے کی چھت والے بڑے ہال کو ایٹریئم (Atrium) کہتے ہیں، جو عمارت کے مرکزی حصے کو قدرتی روشنی فراہم کرتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department
400📚Estimating, Costing & ValuationOperating Systems
Which of the following is NOT an Operating System?
Explanation
Oracle is a multinational technology corporation known for its relational database management system (RDBMS), not an operating system. DOS, Linux, and Windows are operating systems.
اوریکل (Oracle) ایک ڈیٹا بیس مینجمنٹ سسٹم (RDBMS) بنانے والی کمپنی ہے، یہ آپریٹنگ سسٹم نہیں ہے۔ DOS، Linux اور Windows آپریٹنگ سسٹمز ہیں۔
2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department
401📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActHighway Engineering & Road Layout
National Highway of 4 lane divided carriage way mean
Explanation
A 4-lane divided highway consists of two separate carriageways divided by a median or physical barrier, with each carriageway containing two traffic lanes for movement in opposite directions.
4 لین والے منقسم ہائی وے کا مطلب ہے کہ سڑک کے درمیان ایک بیریئر یا میڈین ہوتا ہے اور دونوں سمتوں میں ٹریفک کے لیے دو دو لینز ہوتی ہیں۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
402📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActSpeed Limits
Maximum speed of "N" category goods carriage vehicles, on 4 lanes divided carriageway of National Highway roads in India
Explanation
According to the speed limit notifications by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), the maximum speed for Category N (goods carriage) vehicles on 4-lane divided national highways is 80 km/hr.
وزارتِ ٹرانسپورٹ (MoRTH) کے مطابق، نیشنل ہائی وے کی 4 لین والی سڑکوں پر مال بردار گاڑیوں (کیٹیگری N) کے لیے زیادہ سے زیادہ رفتار 80 کلومیٹر فی گھنٹہ مقرر ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
403📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActTraffic Rules & Emergency Vehicles
Free passage should be given to the following types of vehicles
Explanation
Every driver must give free passage to emergency vehicles, such as fire service vehicles and ambulances, by drawing to the side of the road.
ہر ڈرائیور کا فرض ہے کہ وہ فائر بریگیڈ اور ایمبولینس جیسی ہنگامی گاڑیوں کو راستہ دینے کے لیے اپنی گاڑی کو سڑک کے ایک طرف کر لے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
404📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActDriver Hand Signals
A driver extending his/her right arm and rotating it in an anti-clockwise direction is signaling their intention to:
Explanation
Under Indian road rules, when a driver extends the right arm and rotates it in an anti-clockwise direction, it represents the intention to turn left or change lanes to the left.
ہندوستانی ٹریفک قوانین کے تحت، جب ڈرائیور دایاں بازو باہر نکال کر اسے گھڑی کی مخالف سمت (اینٹی کلاک وائز) گھماتا ہے، تو اس کا مطلب بائیں مڑنے یا بائیں لین تبدیل کرنے کا ارادہ ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
405📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActRoad Signs
Match the following properties of road signs (List-1) with their description (List-2):
List-1: (a) Red circular ring, (b) Diagonal red bar, (c) Circular in shape, (d) Indicate positive instruction.
List-2: (1) White symbol on blue background, (2) Mandatory/regulatory signs, (3) Prohibits the action, (4) Prohibitory regulation.
Explanation
Red circular ring denotes prohibitory regulation (a-4); Diagonal red bar prohibits the specific action (b-3); Circular shape generally designates mandatory or regulatory signs (c-2); White symbol on blue background indicates positive instruction (d-1). Therefore, Option C is correct.
سرخ دائرہ ممنوعہ ضابطے کو ظاہر کرتا ہے (a-4)؛ ترچھی سرخ پٹی عمل کی ممانعت کرتی ہے (b-3)؛ گول شکل عام طور پر لازمی اشاروں کی ہوتی ہے (c-2)؛ نیلے پس منظر پر سفید علامت مثبت ہدایت دیتی ہے (d-1)۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
406📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActRoad Signs
A blue circular sign containing a white arrow pointing straight and another branching to the left represents:
Explanation
A blue circular sign containing white arrows pointing both forward and to the left indicates a mandatory directive: 'Compulsory ahead or left turn'.
نیلے رنگ کے گول نشان پر سیدھے اور بائیں طرف مڑنے والے تیر کا مطلب ہے کہ 'لازمی طور پر سیدھے چلیں یا بائیں مڑیں'۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
407📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActFirst Aid
Arrange the First Aid sequence in a correct manner:
(i) Help to restore breathing
(ii) Lay the victim on ground gently and clear breathing track
(iii) Stop any bleeding
(iv) Call ambulance for medical help
Explanation
The correct life-saving sequence is: 1. Lay the victim down and clear the airway (ii), 2. Restore/help breathing (i), 3. Stop bleeding (iii), 4. Call for emergency medical help (iv). Hence, the sequence is (ii), (i), (iii), (iv).
ابتدائی طبی امداد کا صحیح تسلسل یہ ہے: (ii) متاثرہ شخص کو لٹائیں اور سانس کی نالی صاف کریں، (i) سانس بحال کرنے میں مدد کریں، (iii) بہتے ہوئے خون کو روکیں، اور (iv) ایمبولینس بلائیں۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
408📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActHuman Biology
Normal resting heart rate or pulse rate ranges for adults is
Explanation
A normal resting heart rate (pulse rate) for adults ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm).
بالغ افراد کے لیے دل کی دھڑکن یا نبض کی نارمل شرح 60 سے 100 دھڑکن فی منٹ (bpm) کے درمیان ہوتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
409📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceRoad Safety
Which safety device should be used while driving a four-wheeler?
Explanation
A seatbelt is the primary mandatory occupant restraint safety device designed to be worn in four-wheelers to prevent injury during collisions.
چار پہیوں والی گاڑی چلاتے وقت بیلٹ (Seatbelt) کا استعمال لازمی ہے جو حادثے کی صورت میں چوٹ لگنے سے بچاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
410📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceVehicle Dynamics
Sudden application of break in wet road and improper super elevation may cause of
Explanation
Sudden braking on wet roads or wrong superelevation creates unbalanced lateral forces, causing the tyres to lose traction and slide along the pavement (skidding).
گیلی سڑک پر اچانک بریک لگانے یا موڑ پر سڑک کی ڈھلوان ٹھیک نہ ہونے سے ٹائر پھسل کر اسکیڈنگ (Skidding) کا شکار ہو جاتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
411📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceNight Driving Rules
When you are driving at night and wants to overtake a car in the front, you must
Explanation
Before overtaking a vehicle at night, you should flash your headlights (dipping or switching from low to high beam briefly) to alert the driver in front of your presence and intention.
رات کو اوور ٹیک کرنے سے پہلے ہیڈلائٹس کو فلکر یا فلیش (dipper) کرنا چاہیے تاکہ آگے والی گاڑی کا ڈرائیور چوکنا ہو جائے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
412📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceRoad Safety
To see a vehicle in the blind spots, driver should
Explanation
Mirrors cannot capture areas directly to the side and slightly behind the driver's shoulders. The only way to check these blind spots is to turn your head (shoulder check) before changing lanes.
آئینے میں نہ دکھائی دینے والے حصے (بلائنڈ اسپاٹس) کو دیکھنے کے لیے ڈرائیور کو اپنا سر گھما کر (shoulder check) دیکھنا چاہیے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
413📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceHighway Lighting
Single side road lighting is most effective for
Explanation
Single-sided street lighting (installing light poles on only one side of the road) is cost-effective and sufficient only for narrow roadways, typically single-lane or narrow two-lane roads.
سڑک کے ایک ہی طرف کھمبے لگا کر روشنی فراہم کرنا صرف چھوٹی یا سنگل لین والی سڑکوں (Single lane road) کے لیے کارآمد اور کافی ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
414📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceEmergency Services
In case of a road accident, to call an ambulance, what number has to be dialled
Explanation
In India, '108' is the designated toll-free national emergency response number for medical emergencies, disaster management, and ambulance services.
ہندوستان میں سڑک حادثے کی صورت میں سرکاری ایمبولینس بلانے کے لیے ایمرجنسی نمبر 108 ڈائل کیا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
415📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlMotor Vehicle Act & Rules
What does central motor vehicle act 1988, section 129 specify
Explanation
Section 129 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, mandates that every person driving or riding a motorcycle of any class in a public place must wear protective headgear (helmet) conforming to Indian Standards.
موٹر وہیکل ایکٹ 1988 کی دفعہ 129 کے تحت، موٹر سائیکل چلانے اور پیچھے بیٹھنے والے ہر شخص کے لیے ہیلمٹ پہننا لازمی قرار دیا گیا ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
416📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlEnvironmental Pollution
Among the following options, which are man-made sources of air pollution?
(i) Burning of fire wood
(ii) Forest fire
(iii) Automobile
(iv) Earth quakes
Explanation
Forest fires and earthquakes are natural phenomena that contribute to air pollution. Woodburning and automobile emissions are anthropogenic (man-made) activities.
لکڑی جلانا اور گاڑیوں کا دھواں (Automobile) ہوا کی آلودگی کے انسان ساختہ (man-made) ذرائع ہیں، جبکہ جنگل کی آگ اور زلزلہ قدرتی ہیں۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
417📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlEmission Norms
The carbon monoxide CO and HC (n-hexane equivalent) content respectively, of four wheelers, which is manufactured as per-Bharat Stage II emission norms
Explanation
Though BS II limits for passenger cars at idling are actually 0.5% CO and 750 ppm HC, the options in the exam paper used the older pre-BS II limits of 3% CO and 1500 ppm HC. We mark Option B as correct based on typical competitive keys.
اگرچہ بی ایس ٹو (BS II) کے حقیقی ضوابط الگ ہیں، لیکن امتحان میں دیئے گئے متبادلات کی بنیاد پر 3% کاربن مونو آکسائیڈ اور 1500 پی پی ایم ہائیڈرو کاربن (Option B) کو درست تسلیم کیا گیا ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
418📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlNoise Pollution & Regulations
Maximum permissible noise level recommended as per central motor vehicle rules 1989, for passenger or commercial vehicles with gross vehicle weight above 12000 kgs, is
Explanation
Under the CMVR, 1989, the maximum permissible noise level at the manufacturing stage for passenger or commercial vehicles with a GVW exceeding 12000 kgs is 89 dB(A).
موٹر وہیکل رولز 1989 کے مطابق، 12000 کلوگرام سے زائد وزن والی گاڑیوں کے شور کی زیادہ سے زیادہ حد 89 ڈیسیبل یعنی 89db(A) ہونی چاہیے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
419📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Insurance
Consider the following statements, choose the correct combination:
Statement-1: As per Indian motor vehicle act 1988, a comprehensive motor insurance policy is mandatory
Statement-2: Third-party liability insurance is optional for Indian vehicle
Explanation
Under the M.V. Act, third-party liability insurance is mandatory by law (not optional) for all vehicles driven in public places, whereas comprehensive motor insurance is optional (not mandatory). Thus, both statements are false.
موٹر وہیکل قانون کے تحت، تھرڈ پارٹی انشورنس لازمی ہے (اختیاری نہیں) اور جامع (Comprehensive) انشورنس اختیاری ہے (لازمی نہیں)۔ اس لیے دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
420📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCooling System
Among the following options, suitable reason for engine over heating is
(i) Excessive valve clearance
(ii) Insufficient coolant
(iii) Faulty radiator fan
(iv) Faulty water pump
Explanation
Engine overheating is directly caused by issues in the cooling system, such as insufficient coolant levels (ii), a faulty radiator fan (iii), or a failed water pump (iv) that fails to circulate coolant.
انجن کے زیادہ گرم (overheating) ہونے کی بنیادی وجوہات کولنگ سسٹم میں خرابی ہوتی ہے، جیسے کولنٹ کی کمی، پنکھے کی خرابی یا واٹر پمپ کا کام نہ کرنا۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
421📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlFuel System
When the engine is being cold, which of the following valves is used, to start the engine manually?
Explanation
A choke valve restricts the intake air, drawing in more fuel to create a rich fuel-air mixture necessary for starting a cold engine.
سردی میں ٹھنڈے انجن کو شروع کرنے کے لیے چوک والو (Choke valve) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے جو ہوا کا بہاؤ کم کر کے ایندھن کی مقدار بڑھا دیتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
422📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCooling System
What is the purpose of radiator of a motor vehicle engine?
Explanation
The radiator acts as a heat exchanger, transferring heat from the engine coolant flowing through it to the outside air, keeping the engine at optimum operating temperature and preventing overheating.
ریڈی ایٹر (Radiator) کا بنیادی مقصد انجن کی گرمی کو جذب کر کے اسے زیادہ گرم ہونے سے بچانا اور درجہ حرارت برقرار رکھنا ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
423📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCooling System
Among the following options, which is the best water used in a car radiator?
Explanation
Soft water (or distilled water) contains minimal mineral concentrations, preventing scale buildup, corrosion, and clogging inside the thin coolant passages of the radiator.
گاڑی کے ریڈی ایٹر میں ڈالنے کے لیے ہلکا یا نرم پانی (Soft water / distilled water) سب سے بہترین ہوتا ہے کیونکہ یہ زنگ اور کیلشیم جمنے سے بچاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
424📚🔭 ScienceFish Taxonomy
Which of the following statements are correct?
a. Truss morphometry is a tool to identify phenotypic variation
b. Morphometric variation does not capture species-level diversity
c. Truss network analysis captures shape variation across the entire body form
d. Population structure analysis cannot be done with morphometric studies
Explanation
Statements a and c are correct. Truss morphometry is a powerful tool used to identify phenotypic variations and truss network analysis captures shape variations systematically across the entire body form. Statement b is incorrect because morphometrics can capture species-level diversity, and statement d is incorrect because population structure is often studied using morphometric analysis.
بیانات a اور c درست ہیں۔ ٹرس مارفومیٹری (Truss morphometry) ظاہری تنوع کی شناخت کے لیے استعمال ہوتی ہے اور ٹرس نیٹ ورک اینالیسس جسم کے مجموعی ڈھانچے کی تبدیلیوں کو ریکارڈ کرتا ہے۔ بیان b اور d غلط ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
425📚🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology
Plankton size classification:
a. Megaplankton
b. Macroplankton
c. Mesoplankton
d. Microplankton
e. Nanoplankton
f. Picoplankton

And dimensions:
i. 0.2-2 cm
ii. 20 to 200 µm
iii. 0.2 to 2 µm
iv. 2 to 20 µm
v. >20 cm
vi. 2-20 cm

Match correctly:
Explanation
Standard plankton size classes: Megaplankton (>20 cm -> a:v); Macroplankton (2-20 cm -> b:vi); Mesoplankton (0.2-2 cm -> c:i); Microplankton (20-200 µm -> d:ii); Nanoplankton (2-20 µm -> e:iv); Picoplankton (0.2-2 µm -> f:iii). This matches Option A.
پلانکٹن کی سائز کی درجہ بندی: میگا پلانکٹن (>20 cm -> a:v)؛ میکرو پلانکٹن (2-20 cm -> b:vi)؛ میزو پلانکٹن (0.2-2 cm -> c:i)؛ مائیکرو پلانکٹن (20-200 µm -> d:ii)؛ نینو پلانکٹن (2-20 µm -> e:iv)؛ پیکو پلانکٹن (0.2-2 µm -> f:iii)۔ یہ آپشن A ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
426📚📚 Social ScienceIndian Geography
Match the following lakes to its state:
a) Vembanad Lake
b) Chilika Lake
c) Dal Lake
d) Kolleru Lake
e) Loktak Lake

And States:
1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Odisha
4. Manipur
5. Kerala

Match correctly:
Explanation
Correct matches: Vembanad Lake is in Kerala (a:5); Chilika Lake is in Odisha (b:3); Dal Lake is in Jammu and Kashmir (c:1); Kolleru Lake is in Andhra Pradesh (d:2); Loktak Lake is in Manipur (e:4). This matches Option A.
درست جوڑ: ویمباناد جھیل کیرلا میں ہے (a:5)؛ چلکا جھیل اوڈیشہ میں ہے (b:3)؛ ڈل جھیل جموں و کشمیر میں ہے (c:1)؛ کولیرو جھیل آندھرا پردیش میں ہے (d:2)؛ لوکتک جھیل منی پور میں ہے (e:4)۔ یہ آپشن A ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
427📚🔭 ScienceLakes & Waterbodies
Which of the following statements are true?
a. Wular Lake is an example of tectonic lake
b. Dal lake is an example of crater lake
c. Surinsar-Mansar lakes are Ramsar sites
d. Manasbal Lake is a saltwater lake
Explanation
Statements a and c are correct: Wular Lake is a tectonic lake and Surinsar-Mansar are Ramsar sites. Statements b (Dal Lake is a crater lake) and d (Manasbal Lake is a saltwater lake) are false. Option C is marked correct based on the official exam answer key which contained a printing typo (where d was meant to state 'freshwater' lake).
بیانات a اور c درست ہیں: وولر جھیل ٹیکٹونک سرگرمی سے بنی ہے اور سرینسر-مانسر جھیلیں رامسر سائٹس ہیں۔ بیانات b اور d غلط ہیں۔ امتحانی پرچے کی غلطی کی وجہ سے آپشن C (a, c, d) کو درست مانا گیا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
428📚🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology
Hydrosere Stages of ecological succession in pond/lake are
Explanation
The correct ecological succession sequence in a hydrosere is: 1) Phytoplankton stage, 2) Submerged macrophyte stage, 3) Floating-leaved stage, 4) Reed-swamp stage, 5) Sedge-meadow/marsh stage, 6) Carr (shrub/alder/willow) stage, 7) Woodland stage, and 8) Climax forest stage. This is Option A.
ہائیڈروسیر (پانی میں ماحولیاتی جانشینی) کے مراحل کی درست ترتیب: 1) فائٹوپلانکٹن مرحلہ، 2) ڈوبے ہوئے پودوں کا مرحلہ، 3) تیرتے ہوئے پودوں کا مرحلہ، 4) ریڈ دلدل مرحلہ، 5) دلدلی घास کا مرحلہ، 6) کار (جھاڑی) مرحلہ، 7) جنگلاتی مرحلہ اور 8) کلائمکس فارسٹ مرحلہ۔ یہ آپشن A ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
429📚🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology
Which of the following statements are true?
a. Plankton occur only in freshwater ecosystem
b. Plankton do not have active locomotory organs
c. Plankton include only unicellular organisms
d. Phytoplankton form the first trophic level
Explanation
Statements b and d are true. Plankton lack active organs for swimming against currents, and phytoplankton are primary producers forming the first trophic level. Statement a is false because plankton also live in marine ecosystems. Statement c is false because zooplankton include multicellular organisms (e.g. copepods, krill).
بیانات b اور d درست ہیں۔ پلانکٹن بہاؤ کے خلاف فعال حرکت نہیں کر سکتے، اور فائٹوپلانکٹن پہلے ٹرافک لیول پر خوراک بناتے ہیں۔ بیانات a اور c غلط ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
430📚🔭 ScienceFisheries Policy
Number of articles in Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries
Explanation
The FAO Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries (CCRF), adopted in 1995, consists of 12 main articles covering objectives, principles, and management guidelines.
اقوام متحدہ کے ادارہ برائے خوراک و زراعت (FAO) کے ذمہ دارانہ ماہی گیری کے ضابطہ اخلاق (CCRF) میں کل 12 آرٹیکلز (مضامین) شامل ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
431📚🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology
The depth at which the photosynthesis balances respiration
Explanation
The compensation depth is the depth in a water body where light intensity is such that the rate of oxygen production by photosynthesis equals the rate of oxygen consumption by respiration.
کمپنسیشن گہرائی (Compensation Depth) پانی کا وہ مقام ہے جہاں روشنی کی مقدار اتنی ہوتی ہے کہ ضیائی تالیف (Photosynthesis) سے بننے والی آکسیجن اور عمل تنفس (Respiration) میں خرچ ہونے والی آکسیجن برابر ہو جاتی ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
432📚🔭 ScienceEnvironment & Ecology
Which of the following statements are true?
a. There are 80 Ramsar sites in India
b. Ex-situ is a method of conservation that involves the conservation of species in its natural habitat
c. Kanwar Lake is the smallest lake in India
d. Manasbal is the deepest lake in India
Explanation
Statements a and d are correct. India reached 80 Ramsar sites in early 2024, and Manasbal is the deepest freshwater lake in India. Statement b is false because ex-situ conservation happens outside the natural habitat. Statement c is false because Renuka Lake is the smallest Ramsar site in India, not Kanwar Lake.
بیانات a اور d درست ہیں۔ 2024 کے اوائل تک ہندوستان میں 80 رامسر سائٹس ہو گئی تھیں، اور مانسبل ہندوستان کی سب سے گہری میٹھے پانی کی جھیل ہے۔ بیان b اور c غلط ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
433📚🔭 ScienceAquaculture
Hypophysation success in IMCs was achieved by Hiralal Chaudhuri and K. H. Alikunhi for the first time in the year
Explanation
Hypophysation (induced breeding of carps using pituitary gland extracts) was successfully achieved for the first time in Indian Major Carps (IMCs) by Hiralal Chaudhuri and K.H. Alikunhi on July 10, 1957 at Cuttack.
ہندوستانی بڑی کارپ مچھلیوں (IMCs) میں پٹیوٹری گلینڈ کے عرق سے مصنوعی انڈے دلوانے کا کامیاب تجربہ (Hypophysation) پہلی بار ہیرا لال چودھری اور کے-ایچ الیکونہی نے 1957 میں کیا تھا۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
434📚🔭 ScienceFish Biology
Which of the following statements are true?
a. Oxytocin hormone is released by posterior pituitary.
b. Luteinizing hormone is released by thyroid.
c. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is released by hypothalamus.
d. Cortisol hormone is released by hypothalamus.
Explanation
Statements a and c are true. Oxytocin is stored and released by the posterior pituitary gland. GnRH is synthesized and released by the hypothalamus. Statement b is false (LH is released by the anterior pituitary, not thyroid) and statement d is false (cortisol is released by the adrenal cortex).
بیانات a اور c درست ہیں۔ آکسیٹوسن ہارمون پوسٹیریئر پٹیوٹری سے خارج ہوتا ہے اور GnRH ہائپوتھیلیمس سے خارج ہوتا ہے۔ بیانات b اور d غلط ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
435📚🔭 ScienceFish Biology
Pituitary gland is housed in a cavity called
Explanation
The pituitary gland (hypophysis) is located at the base of the brain, nested inside a saddle-shaped depression in the sphenoid bone called the sella turcica.
دماغ کے نچلے حصے میں واقع پٹیوٹری گلینڈ (Pituitary Gland) ہڈی کے ایک خاص ہالو/کھودے میں بند ہوتا ہے جسے سیلا ٹورسیکا (Sella Turcica) کہتے ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
436📚🔭 ScienceFish Processing
Masmin is a product of
Explanation
Masmin is a traditional smoked and dried tuna product produced extensively as a cottage industry in the Lakshadweep islands of India.
ماسمین (Masmin) ٹونا مچھلی کو ابال کر، دھواں دے کر سکھانے سے تیار کیا جانے والا روایتی ماہی پروڈکٹ ہے جو لکشادیپ (Lakshadweep) میں بڑے پیمانے پر بنتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
437📚🔭 ScienceFish Processing
Which of the following statements are true regarding GMP?
a. Fishes caught at different times are mixed and chilled immediately
b. Fishes of all sizes are chilled /pre-processed together
c. Body cavity has to be cleaned after removing gut in case of belly burst fishes
d. Fish should be handled on platforms and not on grounds
Explanation
Statements c and d are true. Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) require that belly-burst fish have their body cavities washed thoroughly to remove digestive enzymes and contaminants, and fish must be handled on clean platforms rather than the bare ground to prevent contamination. Statements a and b are false (mixing catch batches and sizes reduces quality uniformity).
بیانات c اور d درست ہیں۔ اچھی مینوفیکچرنگ کی پریکٹسز (GMP) کے مطابق مچھلیوں کو ننگے فرش کے بجائے صاف ستھرے پلیٹ فارم پر ہینڈل کرنا چاہیے اور ان کی باڈی کیویٹی کو گٹ نکالنے کے بعد اچھی طرح دھونا چاہیے۔ بیانات a اور b غلط ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
438📚🔭 ScienceFish Pathology
Winter ulcer in Atlantic salmon is caused by?
Explanation
Winter ulcer is a marine bacterial disease of Atlantic salmon, characterized by skin ulcers in cold waters, caused by the bacterium Moritella viscosa.
اٹلانٹک سالمن مچھلیوں میں سردی کے موسم میں ہونے والے زخم (Winter Ulcer) کی بیماری موریٹیلا وسکوسا (Moritella viscosa) نامی بیکٹیریا کی وجہ سے ہوتی ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
439📚🔭 ScienceFish Pathology
Match the following diseases to their preventive measures:

List-1:
a. Saprolegniosis
b. White spot disease
c. Black spot disease
d. Costiasis
e. Eye disease

List-2:
1. 1:1000 Acetic acid dip
2. Common salt
3. KMNO4 dip at 1 ppm
4. Praziquantel bath at 1 ppm
5. Picric acid

Match correctly:
Explanation
Matches: Saprolegniosis fungal infection is treated with Potassium Permanganate (a:3); White spot protozoan disease is prevented/treated using common salt baths (b:2); Black spot trematode infection is treated with picric acid (c:5); Costiasis ectoparasitic infection is treated with acetic acid dips (d:1); Trematode-induced eye diseases/diplostomiasis are treated with Praziquantel (e:4). This matches Option C.
درست حفاظتی علاج کا جوڑ: سیپرولیگنیا فنگس (KMnO4 dip -> a:3)؛ سفید دھبوں کی بیماری (Common salt -> b:2)؛ کالے دھبوں کی بیماری (Picric acid -> c:5)؛ کوسٹیا پیراسائٹ (Acetic acid dip -> d:1)؛ آنکھوں کی طفیلی بیماری (Praziquantel bath -> e:4)۔ یہ آپشن C ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
440📚🔭 ScienceFish Anatomy
Pterygoquadrate and meckel's cartilage together form
Explanation
In jawed vertebrates, the mandibular arch (the first visceral arch) is composed of two cartilaginous elements: the dorsal pterygoquadrate cartilage and the ventral Meckel's cartilage.
مچھلیوں کے جبڑے کے ڈھانچے میں، پیٹریگو کواڈریٹ (Pterygoquadrate) اور میکل کی کارٹیلیج (Meckel's cartilage) مل کر پہلا جبڑے کا آرک یعنی مینڈبلر آرک (Mandibular Arch) بناتے ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
441📚🔭 ScienceFish Anatomy
Gill arches and their derivatives are collectively called
Explanation
The splanchnocranium (visceral skeleton) refers to the skeleton derived from the pharyngeal arches, which includes the jaw apparatus and the gill (branchial) arches in fishes.
مچھلیوں میں گلپھڑوں کی ہڈیوں کی محرابیں (Gill Arches) اور ان سے بننے والے اعضاء مجموعی طور پر سپلنک نوکرینیم (Splanchnocranium) کہلاتے ہیں۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
442📚🔭 ScienceFish Biology
Haemoglobin in fishes unloads oxygen in swim bladder against high oxygen gradient due to
Explanation
The Root effect is a physiological property of fish hemoglobin where lower pH (caused by lactic acid/CO2 secretion at the gas gland) drastically reduces oxygen affinity and capacity, forcing oxygen to unload into the swim bladder even under high pressure.
روٹ ایفیکٹ (Root Effect) مچھلیوں کے ہیموگلوبن کی ایک خاصیت ہے جس میں کم پی ایچ (Acidic pH) پر ہیموگلوبن آکسیجن کو خارج کرنے پر مجبور ہو جاتا ہے، جس سے گیس غبارے (Swim Bladder) میں آکسیجن جمع ہوتی ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
443📚🔭 ScienceSport Fishing
This is called the 'Best game fish destination
Explanation
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are widely considered the premier destination for big game sport fishing in India, famous for species like Giant Trevally, Marlin, and Sailfish.
جزائر انڈمان اور نکوبار (Andaman and Nicobar) کو ہندوستان میں سمندری کھیل کی مچھلیوں کے شکار (Game Fishing) کا بہترین مقام مانا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
444📚🔭 ScienceFisheries Legislation
This is the mother Act of fisheries in India
Explanation
The Indian Fisheries Act of 1897 is the foundational ('mother') legislation regulating fisheries in India. It empowers local governments to make laws regarding the conservation and management of fisheries.
ہندوستان میں ماہی گیری کا بنیادی اور قدیم ترین قانون 'انڈین فشرز ایکٹ 1897' (Indian fisheries Act 1897) ہے، جسے مدر ایکٹ بھی کہا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal/Sheep Husbandry and Fisheries Department
445📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLakes & Water Bodies
Which lake in Kashmir is known as the 'Supreme gem of all Kashmir Lakes' and is the deepest lake in India?
Explanation
Manasbal Lake, located in Ganderbal district of Jammu and Kashmir, is known as the supreme gem of all Kashmir lakes and is considered the deepest lake in India.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
446📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the constitution of which country?
Explanation
The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution).
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
447📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament)?
Explanation
According to Article 64 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
448📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
How many Schedules were originally present in the Constitution of India when it was adopted in 1949?
Explanation
The Constitution of India originally had 8 schedules when adopted in 1949. Currently, there are 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
449📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
Which organ in the human body is responsible for producing the hormone insulin?
Explanation
The pancreas produces insulin, which regulates blood sugar levels, specifically through its endocrine cells called beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
450📚General EnglishGeography of J&K
How many administrative districts are there currently in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Following the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh (consisting of Leh and Kargil), the UT of J&K is left with exactly 20 administrative districts.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
451📚General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with the appropriate article: 'She is ________ MBA graduate.'
Explanation
Even though 'M' is a consonant letter, the word 'MBA' starts with a vowel sound /em/. Hence, the article 'an' is appropriate.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
452📚General EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement
Fill in the blank with the correct form of verb: 'Neither the teacher nor the students ________ present in the auditorium.'
Explanation
When compound subjects are joined by 'neither... nor', the verb agrees with the subject closest to it. Here, the plural noun 'students' is closest, so we use 'were'.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
453📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'He is senior ________ me in service.'
Explanation
Adjectives like senior, junior, superior, inferior, prior, etc., are followed by the preposition 'to' instead of 'than'.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
454📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsConditional Sentences
Fill in the blank with the appropriate conditional verb form: 'If it rains, we ________ the cricket match.'
Explanation
This is a Type 1 conditional sentence (present real). The structure is: If + Simple Present (it rains), simple future (we will cancel).
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
455📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSubject-Verb Agreement
Fill in the blank: 'The committee ________ divided in their opinions.'
Explanation
Collective nouns (like committee) take a plural verb ('were') when the members are acting individually, having different opinions, or divided.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
456📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsPrepositions
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'She is very good ________ English.'
Explanation
We use 'good at' something (e.g., 'good at English', 'good at sports') to indicate skill or proficiency.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
457📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsInput & Output Devices
Which of the following devices is purely an input device?
Explanation
A keyboard is used to enter text and commands into the computer, making it an input device. Monitors, printers, and speakers are output devices.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
458📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsInternet & Networking
What does HTTP stand for in web technology?
Explanation
HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol. It is the protocol used for transmitting web pages over the internet.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
459📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsInternet & Networking
Which of the following protocol is used specifically for sending electronic mail (email)?
Explanation
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the standard protocol used for sending/routing emails from one server to another.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
460📚General Intelligence & ReasoningComputer Security
A software program designed to infiltrate, damage, or disable computer systems without the user's consent is called:
Explanation
Malware (short for malicious software) is any software intentionally designed to cause damage to a computer, server, client, or computer network.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
461📚General Intelligence & ReasoningInternet & Networking
Which networking device is primarily used to connect multiple computer networks together and route data packets between them?
Explanation
A router connects different networks (e.g., your home LAN to the internet) and routes data packets based on IP addresses, whereas a switch connects devices within a single network.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
462📚General Intelligence & ReasoningTime & Work
AA can do a piece of work in 1212 days, and BB can do the same work in 1818 days. Working together, in how many days can they complete the work?
Explanation
Let total work be LCM(12,18)=36\text{LCM}(12, 18) = 36 units.
Efficiency of A=3612=3A = \frac{36}{12} = 3 units/day.
Efficiency of B=3618=2B = \frac{36}{18} = 2 units/day.
Combined efficiency of AA and B=3+2=5B = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day.
Time taken working together = 365=7.2\frac{36}{5} = 7.2 days.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
463📚General Intelligence & ReasoningBlood Relations
Pointing to a photograph, a man said: 'I have no brother or sister, but that man's father is my father's son.' Whose photograph was it?
Explanation
Since the speaker has no brother or sister, 'my father's son' refers to the speaker himself. Thus, the statement becomes: 'that man's father is ME'. Hence, the photograph is of the speaker's son.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
464📚General Intelligence & ReasoningDirection Sense
A man walks 5 km5 \text{ km} towards South, then turns right and walks 3 km3 \text{ km}. He then turns left and walks 5 km5 \text{ km}. In which direction is he now from his starting point?
Explanation
Let starting point be (0,0)(0,0).
1. Walks 5 km5 \text{ km} South   ⟹  (0,−5)\implies (0, -5).
2. Turns right (West) and walks 3 km  ⟹  (−3,−5)3 \text{ km} \implies (-3, -5).
3. Turns left (South) and walks 5 km  ⟹  (−3,−10)5 \text{ km} \implies (-3, -10).
The point (−3,−10)(-3, -10) lies in the South-West quadrant relative to (0,0)(0,0).
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
465📚Basic MathematicsClassification
Find the odd one out among the given options.
Explanation
Mercury, Venus, and Earth are planets revolving around the Sun, whereas the Moon is a natural satellite revolving around the Earth.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
466📚Basic MathematicsUrdu Idioms
محاورہ 'آسمان سے باتیں کرنا' کا کیا مطلب ہے؟
Explanation
The idiom 'Aasman se baatein karna' means to be very tall, high, or eminent.
'آسمان سے باتیں کرنا' کا مطلب بہت اونچا یا بلند ہونا ہے۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
467📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyInternational Environmental Treaties
__________ is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.
Explanation
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (agreed on 16 September 1987) is an international environmental treaty designed to protect the Earth's stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODSs) like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons.
مونٹریال پروٹوکول (Montreal Protocol 1987) اوزون کی تہہ کو نقصان پہنچانے والے مادوں کی پیداوار کو مرحلہ وار ختم کرنے کے لیے ایک بین الاقوامی معاہدہ ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
468📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyClimate Change & Treaties
The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits state parties to:
Explanation
The Kyoto Protocol (adopted in Kyoto, Japan in 1997 under the UNFCCC) is an international treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions (including CO2,CH4,N2O,HFCs,PFCs,SF6CO_2, CH_4, N_2O, HFCs, PFCs, SF_6) to fight global warming.
کیوٹو پروٹوکول (Kyoto Protocol) کا بنیادی مقصد گلوبل وارمنگ کے خلاف گرین ہاؤس گیسوں کے اخراج کو کم کرنا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
469📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBIS Standards for Effluents
Identify the guiding standard for industrial effluent from the following:
Explanation
IS 2490 (1974 / 1981) provides the Indian Standard tolerance limits for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface waters.
IS 2490-1974 صنعتی اخراج (Industrial Effluent) کے لیے ہندوستانی معیار ہے۔
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470📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEutrophication & Algicides
Consider the following statements;
a. Eutrophication is the algal bloom produced due to excess discharge of plant nutrients into water body
b. Can be added by adding copper sulphate to water.
Explanation
Both statements (a) and (b) are true. Statement (a) defines eutrophication caused by excess nitrogen and phosphorus enrichment. Statement (b) is true because copper sulphate (CuSO4CuSO_4) is widely applied as an effective chemical algicide to control and eradicate unwanted algal blooms in water bodies.
دونوں بیانات درست ہیں: یوٹروفیکیشن غذائی اجزاء کی زیادتی سے الجی کی افزائش ہے، اور کاپر سلفیٹ (CuSO4CuSO_4) الجی کو کنٹرول کرنے کے لیے شامل کیا جاتا ہے۔
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471📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Screening Criteria
Which of the following is NOT a regular standard for figuring out whether an EIA is necessary?
Explanation
During the Screening stage of EIA, decision criteria focus strictly on environmental factors: project magnitude/scale, location in ecologically sensitive areas, and technical complexity. Potential economic benefits or commercial profit are socio-economic justifications and are NOT environmental criteria for mandating an EIA.
EIA کی ضرورت کا تعین کرتے وقت اقتصادی فوائد (Economic benefits) ماحولیاتی معیار کے طور پر استعمال نہیں ہوتے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
472📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Report Components
The Environmental Impact Assessment Report may consist of:
a. Assessment of the Sewerage and Sewage Treatment Implications
b. Assessment of the Land Contamination
c. Assessment of the Hazard to Life
d. Assessment of the Cultural Heritage Impact
Choose the best option.
Explanation
A comprehensive Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) report encompasses multi-disciplinary assessments including wastewater infrastructure, land contamination, hazards to life and safety, and impacts on historical and cultural heritage sites.
EIA رپورٹ میں سیوریج، زمین کی آلودگی، زندگی کے خطرات، اور ثقافتی ورثے کے تمام اثرات شامل ہوتے ہیں۔
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473📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEIA Public Hearing Exemptions
Consider the following projects and choose the best option for which the Public hearing is not required in the EIA?
i. Strengthening and widening of highways.
ii. Modernization of existing irrigation projects.
Explanation
Under the EIA Notification 2006 (and its amendments), public hearing is exempt for projects involving highway expansion/widening without substantial additional land acquisition, as well as the modernization of existing irrigation projects without changing command area boundaries.
ہائی وے کی توسیع اور موجودہ آبپاشی منصوبوں کی جدید کاری کے لیے بعض شرائط کے تحت عوامی سماعت لازمی نہیں ہوتی۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
474📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Organizations
IAIA stands for
Explanation
IAIA stands for the International Association for Impact Assessment, the leading global network on best practices in impact assessment for sustainable development.
IAIA کا مطلب انٹرنیشنل ایسوسی ایشن فار امپیکٹ اسیسمنٹ (International Association for Impact Assessment) ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
475📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceStockholm Conference & EPA History
The Environment Protection Act 1986 was enacted following the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at
Explanation
India enacted the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution to implement the decisions taken at the landmark United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at Stockholm in June 1972.
ہندوستان نے جون 1972 میں اسٹاک ہوم (Stockholm) میں منعقدہ اقوام متحدہ کی ماحولیاتی کانفرنس کے فیصلوں پر عمل کرتے ہوئے EPA 1986 پاس کیا۔
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476📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceRiver Basin Authorities & NGRBA
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is responsible for ________ duties.
Explanation
The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA, established in 2009 under the EPA) was vested with both developmental functions (planning, river conservation schemes) and regulatory functions (enforcing water quality standards and pollution control).
قومی گنگا ریور بیسن اتھارٹی (NGRBA) ترقیاتی اور ریگولیٹری دونوں فرائض کی ذمہ دار ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
477📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1981
Consider the following pairs from the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981:
1. Section 21 | a. Power of State Government to supersede State Board
2. Section 47 | b. Power of State Government to make rules
3. Section 53 | c. Restrictions on use of certain industrial plants
4. Section 54 | d. Power of Central Government to make rules
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Under the Air Act, 1981: Section 21 deals with restrictions on the use of certain industrial plants (1-c); Section 47 provides the power of the State Government to supersede the State Board (2-a); Section 53 gives power to the Central Government to make rules (3-d); and Section 54 gives power to the State Government to make rules (4-b).
ایئر ایکٹ 1981 کے تحت دفعہ 21 صنعتی پلانٹس پر پابندی، دفعہ 47 بورڈ کو معطل کرنے کا اختیار، دفعہ 53 مرکزی حکومت کے قواعد اور دفعہ 54 ریاستی حکومت کے قواعد سے متعلق ہے۔
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478📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBasel Convention on Hazardous Wastes
Which of the following convention governs the Hazardous waste management?
Explanation
The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal (1989) is the international treaty specifically governing hazardous waste management and minimizing its transboundary shipments.
باسل کنونشن (Basel Convention) زہریلے اور خطرناک فضلہ (Hazardous waste) کے بین الاقوامی انتظام اور نقل و حمل کو منظم کرتا ہے۔
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479📚🛡️ Disaster ManagementDisaster Management Framework in India
Which of the following ministries serves as the central node for coordinating disaster management efforts for all natural disasters, with the exception of drought?
Explanation
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry at the national level for coordinating disaster management and relief for all natural disasters (floods, cyclones, earthquakes, tsunamis, landslides), with the sole exception of drought which is coordinated by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
خشک سالی (Drought) کے علاوہ تمام قدرتی آفات کے انتظام کے لیے وزارت داخلہ (MHA) مرکزی نوڈل وزارت ہے۔
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480📚🛡️ Disaster ManagementState Disaster Management Authorities
State Disaster Management Authority is headed by
Explanation
Under Section 14(1) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) is headed by the Chief Minister of the State as its ex-officio Chairperson (or Lieutenant Governor in UTs).
اسٹیٹ ڈیزاسٹر مینجمنٹ اتھارٹی (SDMA) کا سربراہ ریاست کا وزیر اعلیٰ (Chief Minister) ہوتا ہے۔
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481📚🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetyFirst Aid & Emergency Response
The purpose of Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is to
Explanation
The primary objective of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) is to manually preserve intact brain function and maintain oxygenated blood flow to the brain, heart, and vital organs until spontaneous blood circulation and breathing can be restored.
سی پی آر (CPR) کا بنیادی مقصد دماغ اور جسم کے اہم اعضاء تک آکسیجن ملے خون کے بہاؤ کو برقرار رکھنا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
482📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnergy Resources
Fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas are examples of:
Explanation
Fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) are non-renewable resources because they formed over hundreds of millions of years from buried organic matter and cannot be replenished on a human timescale once depleted.
کوئلہ، پٹرولیم، اور قدرتی گیس غیر قابل تجدید وسائل (Non-renewable resources) کی مثالیں ہیں۔
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483📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyParticulate Matter & Human Health
Inhalation of fine particulate matter (PM2.5) can lead to health issues primarily affecting the:
Explanation
Fine particulate matter with aerodynamic diameter ≤2.5 μm\le 2.5\text{ }\mu\text{m} (PM2.5PM_{2.5}) penetrates deep into the alveolar regions of the human lungs and enters the bloodstream, primarily causing severe respiratory illnesses (asthma, bronchitis, COPD) and cardiovascular disorders.
باریک ذرات (PM2.5PM_{2.5}) سانس کے ذریعے پھیپھڑوں میں گہرائی تک داخل ہو کر نظام تنفس (Respiratory system) کو نقصان پہنچاتے ہیں۔
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484📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRadiation Hazards & Health
Prolonged exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun can increase the risk of:
Explanation
Ultraviolet radiation (specifically UV-B and UV-A) damages the DNA of skin cells, leading to genetic mutations that substantially increase the risk of skin cancers (including malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma) and cataracts.
سورج سے آنے والی الٹرا وائلٹ (UV) تابکاری کی طویل نمائش جلد کے کینسر (Skin cancer) کا خطرہ بڑھاتی ہے۔
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485📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringTreatment Plant Design Parameters
The design period in wastewater treatment refers to the:
Explanation
The design period of a wastewater treatment plant or civil engineering project is the future number of years for which the capacity and components are designed to adequately serve projected population and loads without major expansion (typically 15–30 years).
ڈیزائن پیریڈ سے مراد کسی واٹر ٹریٹمنٹ پلانٹ کی متوقع مفید آپریشنل مدت (Lifespan) ہے۔
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486📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringCoagulation & Flocculation
Coagulation is the process of:
Explanation
Coagulation is the chemical water treatment process where chemical coagulants (like alum, Al2(SO4)3Al_2(SO_4)_3) are added and rapid-mixed to neutralize colloidal surface charges, destabilizing fine particles to aggregate into settleable flocs.
کوایگولیشن (Coagulation) وہ عمل ہے جس میں کیمیکلز ملا کر باریک ذرات کے گچھے (Flocs) بنائے جاتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
487📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringIndustrial Waste Management
The waste generated by the tannery industry is often characterized by:
Explanation
Tannery industrial effluents are characterized by extremely high organic matter loads (BOD/COD), high total dissolved solids, elevated sulfides, and toxic heavy metals like hexavalent/trivalent Chromium used during leather tanning.
چمڑا سازی کی صنعت (Tannery) کے فضلے میں زیادہ نامیاتی مواد اور زہریلے کیمیکلز (کرومیم وغیرہ) ہوتے ہیں۔
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488📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNutrient Removal & Eutrophication
The efficiency of a wastewater treatment system in removing nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus is crucial to prevent:
Explanation
Nitrogen and phosphorus are limiting plant macronutrients. Removing them during tertiary biological wastewater treatment is essential to prevent rapid eutrophication, dense toxic algal blooms, and oxygen depletion in downstream receiving water bodies.
نائٹروجن اور فاسفورس کو صاف کرنا ندی نالوں میں الجی کے پھیلاؤ اور یوٹروفیکیشن کو روکنے کے لیے ضروری ہے۔
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489📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringMass Balance & Process Modeling
The performance of a wastewater treatment system is evaluated by comparing influent and effluent concentrations of pollutants. This comparison is done using:
Explanation
Mass balance analysis (conservation of mass principle: Mass In=Mass Out+Mass Accumulated−Mass Converted\text{Mass In} = \text{Mass Out} + \text{Mass Accumulated} - \text{Mass Converted}) is the fundamental analytical method used to evaluate removal efficiencies across wastewater treatment units.
ٹریٹمنٹ سسٹم کی کارکردگی کا جائزہ لینے کے لیے ماس بیلنس انالیسس (Mass balance analysis) کا طریقہ استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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490📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityMicrobial Indicators & Disinfection
The presence of fecal coliform bacteria in effluent indicates:
Explanation
Fecal coliforms (E. coli) serve as indicator microorganisms for human/warm-blooded animal intestinal pathogen contamination. Their presence in final effluent indicates inadequate or malfunctioning chlorination/UV disinfection.
خارج شدہ پانی میں فیکل کالیفارم کی موجودگی جراثیم کشی (Disinfection) کے ناقص ہونے کو ظاہر کرتی ہے۔
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491📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Impact Statement (EIS)
An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is a document that:
Explanation
An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is a formal public document resulting from the EIA study that outlines the environmental consequences of a proposed development and specifies the Environmental Management Plan (EMP) and mitigation measures.
انوائرنمنٹل امپیکٹ اسٹیٹمنٹ (EIS) وہ دستاویز ہے جس میں کسی پروجیکٹ کے ممکنہ ماحولیاتی اثرات اور ان کے سدباب کے اقدامات درج ہوتے ہیں۔
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492📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologySocio-Economic Impact Assessment
Socio-economic impacts of a project relate to its effects on:
Explanation
Socio-economic impact assessment evaluates changes in human population, employment opportunities, local community livelihoods, public health services, housing, cultural displacement, and overall community well-being.
سماجی و اقتصادی اثرات کا تعلق لوگوں کے روزگار، ملازمتوں، اور کمیونٹی کی فلاح و بہبود سے ہوتا ہے۔
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493📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyGIS Applications in EIA
Geographic Information Systems (GIS) are used in EIA to:
Explanation
Geographic Information Systems (GIS) are digital spatial mapping tools used in EIA for spatial data overlay, site selection, sensitivity zoning, modeling land-use alterations, and visualizing projected impact radii on maps.
GIS کا استعمال جغرافیائی ڈیٹا کو نقشوں پر دکھانے اور ماحولیاتی اثرات کا فضائی تجزیہ کرنے کے لیے کیا جاتا ہے۔
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494📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRemote Sensing in Environmental Studies
Remote sensing is employed in EIA to:
Explanation
Remote sensing is the technique of acquiring information about the Earth's land cover, vegetation index, topography, and surface features from a distance using satellite imagery or aerial sensors.
ریموٹ سینسنگ کا استعمال سیٹلائٹ اور سینسرز کے ذریعے زمین کی سطح کا دور سے ڈیٹا اکٹھا کرنے کے لیے کیا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
495📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Modeling Tools
Which software is commonly used for modeling and simulating environmental impacts?
Explanation
Specialized environmental modeling software (such as AERMOD and CALPUFF for air dispersion, QUAL2K for water quality, and SoundPLAN for acoustics) is standard for numerical simulations in EIA.
ماحولیاتی اثرات کی ماڈلنگ کے لیے مخصوص انوائرنمنٹل ماڈلنگ سافٹ ویئر استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔
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496📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEcological Terminology: Biota
In EIA, the term "biota" refers to:
Explanation
In ecology and EIA terminology, 'biota' encompasses all the combined flora (plants, trees, vegetation) and fauna (animals, birds, aquatic organisms) inhabiting a specified geographical region.
ماحولیات میں 'بائیوٹا' (Biota) سے مراد کسی علاقے کے تمام پودے، نباتات اور حیوانات ہیں۔
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497📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologySocio-Economic Environment
The socio-economic environment encompasses aspects related to:
Explanation
The socio-economic environment includes aspects related to human society, culture, community well-being, employment, education, demographic shifts, and local economic livelihoods.
سماجی و اقتصادی ماحول کمیونٹی کی فلاح و بہبود اور روزگار کے پہلوؤں پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے۔
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498📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir Act 1981 Powers
The Air Act, 1981, empowers the central and state boards to take measures for:
Explanation
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 empowers environmental boards to declare air pollution control areas, set emission standards, inspect industrial plants, and take all necessary measures for the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution.
ایئر ایکٹ 1981 کا بنیادی مقصد ہوا کی آلودگی کی روک تھام اور اس پر قابو پانا ہے۔
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499📚🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetyWorkplace Safety Audits
Safety audits help in:
Explanation
Safety audits systematically review workplace operations, identify potential hazards, evaluate legal compliance, and enhance occupational health and safety (OHS) performance standards.
حفاظتی آڈٹ (Safety audits) کام کی جگہ پر پیشہ ورانہ صحت اور حفاظت کے معیارات کو بہتر بنانے میں مدد کرتے ہیں۔
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500📚🛡️ Disaster ManagementDisaster Management Planning
Disaster management plans are designed to:
Explanation
Disaster management plans structure preparedness, rapid response, resource mobilization, and recovery strategies to minimize loss of life, injury, and structural damage from major disasters.
ڈیزاسٹر مینجمنٹ پلانز بڑی ہنگامی صورتحال اور آفات کے منفی اثرات اور نقصانات کو کم کرنے کے لیے بنائے جاتے ہیں۔
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501📚🛡️ Disaster ManagementMock Drills & Emergency Preparedness
The purpose of conducting drills and mock exercises in disaster management is to:
Explanation
Mock drills and simulation exercises validate emergency preparedness, evaluate communication channels, test evacuation timing, and familiarize personnel with emergency protocols.
موک مشقوں (Mock drills) کا مقصد ہنگامی منصوبوں کی تاثیر اور تیاری کا عملی جائزہ لینا ہوتا ہے۔
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502📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringGrit Separation & Wastewater Solids
Consider the following statements:
a. Grit represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
b. Chloramine represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
c. Ammonia represents the purity of water.
d. Plankton represents the fully treated wastewater.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement (a) is correct: Grit refers to the heavier, non-putrescible inorganic mineral matter (such as sand, gravel, eggshells, and silt) with specific gravity >2.0> 2.0 present in wastewater.
گریٹ (Grit) سیوریج میں موجود ریت اور بھاری غیر نامیاتی ٹھوس مادے کی نمائندگی کرتا ہے۔ (صرف بیان a درست ہے)۔
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503📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityChemical Reagents in Water Analysis
Consider the following pairs:
a. NGT | 1. pH experiment
b. Alum | 2. Chloride content experiment
c. AgNO3AgNO_3 | 3. Coagulant
d. HNO3HNO_3 | 4. Peroxyacetyl nitrate
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Alum (aluminum sulfate) is a standard chemical Coagulant (b-3), and Silver Nitrate (AgNO3AgNO_3) is the standard titrant used in Mohr's argentometric method to determine chloride content in water using potassium chromate indicator (c-2).
پھٹکری (Alum) کوایگولینٹ کے طور پر کام کرتی ہے (b-3) اور سلور نائٹریٹ (AgNO3AgNO_3) کلورائیڈ ٹیسٹ کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے (c-2)۔
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504📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Assessment Tools (REA)
What is the REA tool?
Explanation
In environmental management and disaster response, the REA tool stands for Rapid Environmental Assessment, a streamlined methodology for quickly identifying key environmental vulnerabilities and post-disaster hazards.
REA کا مطلب ریپڈ انوائرنمنٹل اسیسمنٹ (Rapid Environmental Assessment) ہے۔
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505📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBhopal Gas Tragedy & EPA 1986
When EPA came into force?
Explanation
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted by the Parliament of India in the immediate aftermath of the catastrophic December 1984 Bhopal Gas Tragedy (Union Carbide pesticide plant toxic methyl isocyanate gas leak).
انوائرنمنٹ پروٹیکشن ایکٹ 1986 (EPA) بھوپال گیس سانحہ (1984) کے بعد نافذ کیا گیا۔
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506📚📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater Act 1974 Sections
Which section of Water Act 1974 deals with Compulsory acquisition of land for the State Board?
Explanation
Section 56 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 provides for the compulsory acquisition of land for the State Pollution Control Board under the provisions of the Land Acquisition Act.
واٹر ایکٹ 1974 کی دفعہ 56 ریاستی بورڈ کے لیے زمین کے لازمی حصول سے متعلق ہے۔
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507📚🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityPotable Water Standards & Characteristics
Consider the following pairs:
a. pH of potable water | 1. Chemical characteristic of water
b. Domestic water demand | 2. Physical characteristic of water
c. Pathogens | 3. 6.5-8.5
d. BOD | 4. 7
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
According to IS 10500, the acceptable pH of potable drinking water is 6.5 to 8.5 (a-3), and Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the Chemical/Biological oxygen requirement characterizing water (d-1).
پینے کے پانی کا قابل قبول pH 6.5 سے 8.5 کے درمیان ہوتا ہے (a-3) اور BOD پانی کی کیمیائی خصوصیت ہے (d-1)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
508📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyBiotic vs Abiotic Components
Which among the following is abiotic?
Explanation
Air is an abiotic (non-living physical/chemical) component of the environment. Bacteria, Fungi, and Plants are living biotic components.
ہوا (Air) ماحول کا ایک غیر جاندار یعنی ای بائیوٹک (Abiotic) جزو ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
509📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyBacterial Classification & Decomposers
Which bacteria live on dead, decaying organic matters and dead tissues hence beneficial to mankind?
Explanation
Saprophytic bacteria are heterotrophic decomposers that feed on dead, decaying organic matter and waste tissues, breaking them down into simpler inorganic minerals and acting as nature's essential recyclers.
سیپروفائٹک بیکٹیریا (Saprophytic Bacteria) مردہ اور سڑنے والے نامیاتی مادوں کو کھا کر قدرتی صفائی اور ری سائیکلنگ میں مدد دیتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
510📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyEIA Definition & Concepts
What is full form of EIA?
Explanation
EIA stands for Environmental Impact Assessment, a formal planning and decision-making process used to predict and evaluate the environmental consequences of a proposed development project.
EIA کا مکمل مطلب انوائرنمنٹل امپیکٹ اسیسمنٹ (Environmental Impact Assessment) ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
511📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyISO 14000 Environmental Management Standards
Which of the ISO 14000 series of standards focuses on evaluation of environmental performance?
Explanation
ISO 14031 provides international standard guidelines on Environmental Performance Evaluation (EPE) within an organization's Environmental Management System.
ISO 14031 معیار ماحولیاتی کارکردگی کی جانچ (Environmental Performance Evaluation) پر مرکوز ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
512📚Ecology & Environmental BiologyInternational Environmental Conferences
Which of the following is NOT the key international conferences on environment to the development of international environmental law?
Explanation
The landmark historical UN environmental summits shaping international environmental law are: Stockholm 1972, Rio Earth Summit 1992, and Johannesburg WSSD 2002. There was no landmark international treaty summit named 'WEC 1988'.
اسٹاک ہوم 1972، ریو 1992، اور جوہانسبرگ 2002 بین الاقوامی ماحولیاتی قانون کی بنیاد ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
513📚Environmental Pollution & ControlEnvironmental Movements in India
Arrange the following environmental movements in chronological order.
1. Narmada Bachao Andolan
2. Silent Valley movement
3. Chipko movement
4. Appiko movement
Explanation
Chronological order of Indian environmental grassroots movements: 3. Chipko Movement (1973 in Uttarakhand) → 2. Silent Valley Movement (1978 in Kerala) → 4. Appiko Movement (1983 in Karnataka) → 1. Narmada Bachao Andolan (1985). Correct sequence: 3, 2, 4, 1.
ماحولیاتی تحریکوں کی تاریخی ترتیب: چپکو تحریک 1973 (3) ← سائلنٹ ویلی 1978 (2) ← ایپیکو 1983 (4) ← نرمدا بچاؤ آندولن 1985 (1)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
514📚Environmental Pollution & ControlMajor Global Environmental Disasters
Arrange the following environmental disasters in chronological order.
1. Niger-Delta Oil Pollution
2. India - Bhopal Cyanide Gas Leak
3. Italy - Seveso Dioxin Cloud
4. Romania - Cyanide Spill
Explanation
Chronological sequence: 3. Seveso Dioxin Disaster, Italy (July 1976) → 2. Bhopal Gas Leak, India (December 1984) → 4. Baia Mare Cyanide Spill, Romania (January 2000) → 1. Niger Delta ongoing spills.
ماحولیاتی آفات کی تاریخی ترتیب: سیویسو 1976 (3) ← بھوپال گیس سانحہ 1984 (2) ← رومانیہ سائنائیڈ اخراج 2000 (4)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
515📚Environmental Pollution & ControlActive vs Passive Fire Protection
What is Fire extinguisher?
Explanation
A fire extinguisher is an Active Fire Protection system because it requires active manual operation or mechanical triggering to suppress and extinguish a fire. (Fire-rated walls and fire doors are passive systems).
فائر ایکسٹنگوشر (Fire extinguisher) آگ بجھانے کا ایک ایکٹو فائر پروٹیکشن سسٹم (Active Fire protection system) ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
516📚Environmental Pollution & ControlWater Chemistry & Odors
Consider the following statements:
a) The smell of hydrogen sulphide is like a rotten egg in wastewater.
b) Presence of algae in water increases alkalinity of water.
c) Alkali salts are used to balance pH of acidic water.
d) Hydrogen sulphide is odourless gas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements (a), (b), and (c) are correct: Hydrogen sulfide (H2SH_2S) produces a characteristic rotten egg odor, algal photosynthesis removes dissolved CO2CO_2 which shifts bicarbonate equilibria and increases water pH/alkalinity, and alkaline salts (like lime or soda ash) neutralize acidic water.
ہائیڈروجن سلفائیڈ کی بو سڑے ہوئے انڈے جیسی ہوتی ہے، الجی پانی کی الکلینٹی بڑھاتی ہے اور الکلی سالٹس تیزابی پانی کا pH متوازن کرتے ہیں۔ (بیانات a, b اور c درست ہیں)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
517📚Environmental Pollution & ControlTotal Suspended Solids (TSS) Testing
Where Whatman's filter paper is used?
Explanation
Whatman glass microfiber filter paper (such as Grade 934-AH or Whatman 40/42) is used in laboratory gravimetric analysis to filter and determine Total Suspended Solids (TSS) in water samples.
واٹ مین فلٹر پیپر پانی میں ٹوٹل سسپینڈڈ سالڈز (TSS) معلوم کرنے کے لیے لیبارٹری میں استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
518📚Environmental Pollution & ControlDisaster Management Cycle
Arrange the following phases of Disaster Management in the correct sequence.
1. Mitigation
2. Response
3. Recovery
4. Preparedness
Explanation
The standard circular phases of the disaster management continuum are: 1. Mitigation (risk reduction) → 4. Preparedness (readiness before disaster) → 2. Response (immediate emergency relief) → 3. Recovery (rehabilitation and reconstruction). Sequence: 1, 4, 2, 3.
ڈیزاسٹر مینجمنٹ کے مراحل کا درست سلسلہ: تخفیف (1) ← تیاری (4) ← فوری رسپانس (2) ← بحالی (3)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
519📚Environmental Pollution & ControlPlankton & Aquatic Ecology
What is plankton?
Explanation
Plankton refers to the diverse collection of microscopic drifting organisms inhabiting water bodies, categorized into phytoplankton (microscopic photosynthetic plants/algae) and zooplankton (microscopic animals).
پلینکٹن (Plankton) پانی میں تیرنے والے خوردبینی پودوں (Phytoplankton) اور جانداروں پر مشتمل ہوتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
520📚Environmental Pollution & ControlRamsar Convention International Partners
Which of the following are Partners of Ramsar Convention?
1. International Union for conservation of Nature
2. Birdlife International
3. International Water Management Institute
4. Wildfowl and Wetlands Trust
Select the correct option:
Explanation
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands has six International Organization Partners (IOPs): IUCN, BirdLife International, International Water Management Institute (IWMI), Wetlands International, Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT), and WWF. All four listed are official partners.
رامسر کنونشن کے بین الاقوامی شراکت داروں میں IUCN، برڈ لائف، IWMI، اور WWT سب شامل ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
521📚Environmental Pollution & ControlCPCB Constitution & Water Act
In constitution of central board for prevention and control of water pollution how many persons are nominated by government, which represents the companies or corporation owned, controlled or managed by central government.
Explanation
Under Section 3(2)(c) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Central Government nominates not more than three persons to represent corporations/companies owned, controlled, or managed by the Central Government.
واٹر ایکٹ 1974 کے تحت مرکزی حکومت کے ملکیتی اداروں کی نمائندگی کے لیے 3 افراد نامزد کیے جاتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
522📚Environmental Pollution & ControlSolid Waste Management Rules 2016
As per Solid Waste Management rule 2016 which ministry decides tariff or charges for the power generated from the waste to energy plant based on solid waste.
Explanation
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, the Ministry of Power (and State Electricity Regulatory Commissions) is responsible for determining the tariff, power purchase agreements, and mandatory power procurement from Waste-to-Energy (WtE) plants.
سالڈ ویسٹ مینجمنٹ رولز 2016 کے مطابق منسٹری آف پاور (Ministry of Power) پاور ٹیرف کا تعین کرتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
523📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringLandfill Closure & Vegetation Criteria
Criteria for plantation at landfill sites should be:
1. Locally adopted non edible perineal plants that are resistant to drought and extreme temperature.
2. The selection of plants should be of such variety that their root does not penetrate more than 30 cms. This condition shall apply till landfill is stabilized.
3. Selected plants shall have ability to thrive on low nutrients soil with minimum nutrient addition.
4. Plantation to be made in sufficient density to minimize soil erosion.
Explanation
All four criteria (1, 2, 3, and 4) are standard technical guidelines under municipal solid waste landfill capping rules to prevent root puncture of the barrier membrane while stabilizing topsoil against erosion.
لینڈ فل سائیٹس پر شجرکاری کے لیے چاروں شرائط (مقامی پودے، جڑوں کی محدود گہرائی، کم غذائی مٹی پر افزائش اور کٹاؤ کی روک تھام) درست ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
524📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringHeavy Metal Toxicity: Chromium Species
Which state of chromium is more toxic?
Explanation
Hexavalent chromium (Cr6+\text{Cr}^{6+}) is highly mobile, strong oxidizing, highly toxic, mutagenic, and a known human carcinogen compared to trivalent chromium (Cr3+\text{Cr}^{3+}), which is an essential nutrient with low toxicity.
ہیکساویلنٹ کرومیم (Cr6+\text{Cr}^{6+}) سب سے زیادہ زہریلا اور کینسر پیدا کرنے والا مادہ ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
525📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringIdeal Disinfectant Characteristics
Consider the following statements:
1. A good disinfectant must be toxic to microorganisms at concentrations well below the toxic thresholds to humans.
2. It should have fast rate of killing.
3. Should be persistent enough to prevent regrowth of organisms in distribution system.
4. At low concentrations, chlorine kills the microorganisms by oxidizing the cell wall.
Choose the correct:
Explanation
All statements (1, 2, 3, and 4) accurately describe the properties of ideal municipal water disinfectants and the physiological mechanism of chlorine disinfection.
ایک اچھے جراثیم کش مادے میں یہ تمام خصوصیات (1، 2، 3 اور 4) ہونی چاہئیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
526📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringOzone Layer & Ozone Depleting Substances
Regarding the Ozone Layer, consider the following statements:
1. 90% of ozone occurs naturally in the Stratosphere.
2. Methyl bromide is an Ozone-Depleting Substance (ODS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Both statements are correct: Approximately 90% of atmospheric ozone resides in the stratosphere (the ozone layer), and Methyl bromide (CH3BrCH_3Br), widely used as an agricultural fumigant, is a potent ozone-depleting substance controlled under the Montreal Protocol.
90% اوزون اسٹریٹوسفیر میں پائی جاتی ہے اور میتھائل برومائڈ اوزون کو نقصان پہنچانے والا مادہ ہے۔ دونوں بیانات درست ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
527📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringIndustrial Effluent Standards: Sugar Industry
Permissible limit of Total Suspended Solids (mg/L)(\text{mg/L}) for disposal in surface waters from Sugar industry is:
Explanation
Under CPCB and MoEFCC Environment (Protection) Rules for effluent discharge into inland surface water, the permissible limit for Total Suspended Solids (TSS) from the Sugar industry is 100 mg/L100\text{ mg/L}.
شوگر انڈسٹری سے ندی نالوں میں خارج کیے جانے والے پانی میں TSS کی قابل قبول حد 100 ملی گرام فی لیٹر ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
528📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringMontreux Record & Ramsar Wetlands
With reference to the Montreux Protocol which of the statement is correct?
Explanation
The Montreux Record (under Ramsar Convention) is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where adverse ecological changes have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or human interference.
مونٹروکس ریکارڈ (Montreux Record) خطرے سے دوچار اہم آبی ذخائر (Wetlands) کا بین الاقوامی رجسٹر ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
529📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringKigali Amendment on HFCs
With reference to the Kigali Agreement, consider the following statement:
1. It was introduced as an amendment to the Montreal Protocol
2. It aims for the phase-down of HFCs
3. It came into force in September 2019
Which of the following are correct?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Kigali Amendment (2016) amended the Montreal Protocol to legally phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Statement 3 is incorrect because it came into force globally on 1 January 2019.
کیگالی معاہدہ مونٹریال پروٹوکول میں ترمیم ہے اور اس کا مقصد HFCs کو مرحلہ وار کم کرنا ہے۔ (بیانات 1 اور 2 درست ہیں)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
530📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringWildlife Protection Act Protected Areas
Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife protection act, 1972?
1. National parks
2. Wildlife sanctuaries
3. Biosphere reserves
Select the correct answer:
Explanation
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 specifically provides for the statutory declaration and management of Sanctuaries, National Parks, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves. Biosphere Reserves are established under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme.
وائلڈ لائف پروٹیکشن ایکٹ 1972 کے تحت نیشنل پارکس اور وائلڈ لائف سینکچوریز قائم کی جاتی ہیں۔ (1 اور 2 درست ہیں)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
531📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNAAQS Air Quality Sampling Protocol
Annual average for air pollution means total of........ measurements in a year.
Explanation
In National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), an annual average calculation requires a minimum of 104 measurements taken over 24 hours twice a week at uniform intervals throughout the year.
سالانہ اوسط ایئر کوالٹی کے لیے سال میں کم از کم 104 پیمائشیں (ہفتے میں دو بار) لازمی ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
532📚Water Quality & Wastewater Engineering42nd Constitutional Amendment & Environment
Which amendment explicitly incorporated Article 48-A and 51-A (g) into the Constitution?
Explanation
The landmark 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Article 48A (Directive Principle directing the State to protect and improve the environment) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty of citizens).
42ویں آئینی ترمیم 1976 کے ذریعے آئین میں ماحولیات سے متعلق آرٹیکل 48-A اور 51-A(g) شامل کیے گئے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
533📚Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringSewage Sludge Disposal & Heavy Metals
Municipal sewage sludge can be used as a fertilizer but may be unsuitable because of the presence of:
Explanation
Municipal sewage sludge (biosolids) contains valuable plant nutrients but can be hazardous for agricultural application due to the presence of non-biodegradable Heavy Metals (Cd,Pb,Cr,Ni,AsCd, Pb, Cr, Ni, As) and organic micropollutants that bioaccumulate in food crops.
سیوریج سلج میں بھاری دھاتوں (Heavy metals) کی موجودگی اسے زرعی کھاد کے لیے غیر محفوظ بنا سکتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
534📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementEIA Methodology & Standards
Which of the following is NOT included during EIA?
Explanation
EIA requires rigorous quantitative empirical measurements, baseline comparison, and environmental management plans; superficial or vague qualitative-only scoring without baseline validation is inadequate.
EIA میں صرف مبہم معیاری بیانات کی بجائے مقداری پیمائش اور جامع ماڈلنگ لازمی ہوتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
535📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementStrategic Environmental Assessment (SEA)
Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA) is a more advanced tool in environmental management.
Reason (R): SEA is applicable at the level of policy, planning and programs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) correctly explains (A). Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA) is considered an advanced tool because it evaluates environmental consequences upstream at the strategic Policy, Plan, and Programme (PPP) level before individual project-level EIAs are even initiated.
دونوں بیانات درست ہیں اور (R) درست وجہ بتاتا ہے کہ SEA پالیسی اور پلاننگ کی سطح پر کام کرتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
536📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementLandfill Siting Buffer Distances
According to Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, a landfill site should be how many meters away from a river?
Explanation
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, a sanitary landfill site must be located at a minimum buffer distance of 100 meters away from any river or water body.
سالڈ ویسٹ مینجمنٹ رولز 2016 کے مطابق لینڈ فل سائیٹ ندی سے کم از کم 100 میٹر دور ہونی چاہیے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
537📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementPlastic Waste EPR Categories
Match the following with respect to plastic packaging:
List 1: 1. Category I, 2. Category II, 3. Category III, 4. Category IV
List 2: i. Multilayered plastic packaging, ii. Carry bags of compostable plastic, iii. Rigid plastic packaging, iv. Flexible plastic packaging single or multilayer
Select the correct option:
Explanation
Under Plastic Waste Management (Extended Producer Responsibility) Rules: Category I = Rigid plastic packaging (iii), Category II = Flexible plastic packaging (iv), Category III = Multi-layered plastic packaging (i), Category IV = Plastic sheet/carry bags of compostable plastic (ii). Option B matches perfectly.
پلاسٹک رولز کے تحت کیٹیگری I سخت پلاسٹک ہے (iii)، کیٹیگری II لچکدار پلاسٹک ہے (iv)، کیٹیگری III ملٹی لیئر ہے (i) اور کیٹیگری IV کمپوسٹ ایبل ہے (ii)۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
538📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementPhosphorus Analysis Methods
Which method is commonly employed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for estimating phosphorus levels in water samples?
Explanation
The standard US EPA and Standard Methods procedure for determining dissolved and total phosphorus is the automated or manual Ascorbic Acid Colorimetric Method, where orthophosphate reacts with ammonium molybdate and antimony potassium tartrate to form a phosphomolybdenum blue complex measured spectrophotometrically at 880 nm.
پانی میں فاسفورس کی پیمائش کے لیے ایسکوربک ایسڈ کا اسپیکٹرو فوٹومیٹرک طریقہ (Ascorbic acid method) استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
539📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementSmog Definition & Formation
Smog is the mixture of
Explanation
The word 'smog' was originally coined by Dr. H.A. Des Voeux as a portmanteau of Smoke and Fog, describing heavy atmospheric pollution formed by particulate smoke combining with damp fog.
سموگ (Smog) دھوئیں (Smoke) اور دھند (Fog) کے ملاپ سے بنتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
540📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementPollution & Human Health Hazards
An example of a health hazard associated with environmental pollution is
Explanation
Exposure to particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, ozone, and toxic fumes in ambient air triggers severe chronic respiratory illnesses such as asthma, bronchitis, COPD, and lung cancer.
ہوا کی آلودگی کی وجہ سے سانس کی بیماریاں (Respiratory diseases) پیدا ہونا ماحولیاتی آلودگی کا واضح صحت کا خطرہ ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
541📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementHealth Effects of Ozone Depletion
Which of the following diseases is majorly caused due to ozone depletion?
Explanation
Ozone layer thinning allows harmful ultraviolet-B (UV-B) radiation to penetrate to Earth's surface, causing cellular DNA damage that significantly increases the incidence of skin cancers (melanoma and carcinomas) and cataracts.
اوزون کی تہہ کے پتلے ہونے اور UV شعاعوں کے بڑھنے سے جلد کا کینسر (Skin cancer) لاحق ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
542📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementSewage Plant Design Horizon
The estimated design period for sewage treatment facility typically ranges from
Explanation
Under standard CPHEEO civil and environmental engineering guidelines, sewage treatment facilities and secondary treatment structures are designed for a 20 to 30 year operational design horizon based on projected population growth.
سیوریج ٹریٹمنٹ پلانٹ کا متوقع ڈیزائن پیریڈ عام طور پر 20 سے 30 سال کا ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
543📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementTypes of BOD: CBOD & NBOD
How many types of biological oxygen demand (BOD) is present in water?
Explanation
There are 2 primary types of BOD exerted during wastewater stabilization: (1) Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (CBOD) due to the oxidation of organic carbon compounds, and (2) Nitrogenous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (NBOD) due to the nitrification of ammonia.
پانی میں حیاتیاتی آکسیجن کی مانگ (BOD) کی 2 اہم اقسام ہوتی ہیں: کاربونیشس BOD اور نائٹروجینس BOD۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
544📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementWastewater Pumps & Mechanics
Which types of pumps are widely used in wastewater plant for flow and pressure?
Explanation
Centrifugal pumps (specifically non-clog open and semi-open impeller types) are the workhorse pumps most widely used in wastewater treatment plants due to their high volumetric flow capacities, smooth continuous discharge, and ability to handle suspended solids without jamming.
گندے پانی کے ٹریٹمنٹ پلانٹس میں سینٹری فیوگل پمپ (Centrifugal pumps) سب سے زیادہ استعمال ہوتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
545📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCOD Definition & Units
The unit of COD present in wastewater is
Explanation
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is defined as the mass of equivalent oxygen required to chemically oxidize all organic compounds per unit volume of water, expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L\text{mg/L} or ppm).
کیمیکل آکسیجن ڈیمانڈ (COD) کی معیاری اکائی ملی گرام فی لیٹر (mg/L) ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
546📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementBiochemical Oxygen Demand Concept
The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of a wastewater is a measure of
Explanation
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the empirical measure of the quantity of dissolved oxygen utilized by aerobic microorganisms during the biochemical oxidation and decomposition of biodegradable organic matter in water.
BOD گندے پانی میں نامیاتی مادے کو گلانے کے لیے بیکٹیریا کو درکار آکسیجن کی مقدار ہے۔
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547📚Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCement Industry Effluent Characteristics
Which waste characteristic is common in the effluent from the cement industry?
Explanation
Cement manufacturing process washwaters contain suspended cement particulate slurry with high pH / low acidity (alkaline nature, high dissolved calcium hydroxide), distinct from high organic BOD effluents.
سیمنٹ انڈسٹری کا فضلہ بنیادی طور پر الکلائن اور معلق ذرات پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے، جس میں نامیاتی BOD نہیں ہوتا۔
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548📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationTannery Effluent Treatment
Which industry typically generates wastewater with high levels of organic pollutants and requires specialized treatment?
Explanation
The Tannery industry generates extremely recalcitrant, complex wastewater containing exceptionally high chemical oxygen demand (COD), biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), toxic chromium salts, and sulfides requiring multi-stage chemical and biological treatment.
ٹینری (چمڑا سازی) کی صنعت سے خارج ہونے والے گندے پانی میں بھاری نامیاتی آلودگی اور زہریلے کیمیکلز ہوتے ہیں۔
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549📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationUASB Reactor Microorganisms
What type of microorganisms are predominantly active in a UASB (Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket) reactor?
Explanation
A UASB (Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket) reactor is a high-rate anaerobic wastewater treatment process that utilizes a dense blanket of granular anaerobic methanogenic and acidogenic bacteria operating in the complete absence of dissolved oxygen.
UASB ری ایکٹر میں بنیادی طور پر اینیروبک مائیکرو آرگنزمز (Anaerobic microorganisms) فعال ہوتے ہیں۔
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550📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationEIA Process Components
Which of the following is not a primary component in an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process?
Explanation
The core stages of the formal EIA process are Scoping, Impact Assessment, Mitigation Measures, Public Consultation, and Environmental Management Planning. Preparing an annual 'Environmental Statement' (Form V under EPA) is a post-construction statutory audit, not a primary pre-project EIA step.
انوائرنمنٹل اسٹیٹمنٹ ایک سالانہ تعمیل آڈٹ ہے، جو پروجیکٹ سے قبل EIA کے بنیادی مراحل میں شامل نہیں ہے۔
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551📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationEMP Organizational Framework
Defining the Roles and Responsibilities comes under which stage of an Environmental Management Plan (EMP)?
Explanation
Within the Environmental Management Plan (EMP), the organizational framework and institutional structure detailing administrative roles, responsibilities, and allocation of personnel is established under Environmental Management Strategies.
ماحولیاتی انتظامی حکمت عملی (EMP Strategies) کے تحت ذمہ داریاں اور کردار طے کیے جاتے ہیں۔
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552📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationRio Declaration 1992 & EIA
Which international agreement, signed in 1992, emphasizes the importance of conducting EIAs for projects that may have transboundary environmental effects?
Explanation
Principle 17 of the landmark 1992 Rio Declaration on Environment and Development explicitly mandated Environmental Impact Assessment as a national instrument for proposed activities likely to have significant adverse environmental impacts.
1992 کا ریو اعلامیہ (Rio Declaration) بین الاقوامی ماحولیاتی اثرات کے لیے EIA کے نفاذ پر زور دیتا ہے۔
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553📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationSocio-Cultural Impact Assessment
When a cultural site comes under the impact line of a proposed project, the matter is relevant to
Explanation
Impacts on archaeological monuments, religious shrines, historical landmarks, and indigenous cultural heritage are evaluated under the Socio-Cultural Index and Heritage Impact Assessment within the socio-economic dimension of EIA.
کسی ثقافتی یا تاریخی مقام پر اثرات کا تعلق سماجی و ثقافتی انڈیکس (Socio-cultural Index) سے ہوتا ہے۔
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554📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationStrategic Environmental Assessment (SEA)
SEA stands for
Explanation
SEA stands for Strategic Environmental Assessment, the formalized, systematic, and comprehensive process of evaluating the environmental effects of a policy, plan, or programme.
SEA کا مطلب اسٹریٹجک انوائرنمنٹل اسیسمنٹ (Strategic Environmental Assessment) ہے۔
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555📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationGIS Site Suitability in EIA
How does GIS assist in identifying potential impacts during site selection in EIA for industries?
Explanation
GIS assists environmental site selection by integrating multi-layered spatial data (topography, land-use zoning, hydrology, wildlife corridors, and proximity to protected forests and populated settlements) to identify ecologically sensitive constraints.
GIS زمین کے استعمال اور حساس ماحولیاتی علاقوں کا ڈیٹا ملا کر محفوظ اور موزوں جگہ کے انتخاب میں مدد دیتا ہے۔
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556📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationCoastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Distances
According to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification 2006, what is the minimum distance from the high tide line that should be maintained for building new structures in the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)-I?
Explanation
Under Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) regulations, the standard landward regulatory zone extends up to 500 meters from the High Tide Line (HTL), within which CRZ-I (ecologically sensitive inter-tidal areas) strictly prohibits new permanent civil construction.
ساحلی ریگولیشن زون (CRZ) کے تحت ہائی ٹائیڈ لائن سے 500 میٹر کے اندر نئی تعمیرات پر پابندی ہوتی ہے۔
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557📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationDisaster Management Objectives
What is the primary goal of a disaster management plan?
Explanation
The primary objective of all disaster management planning is to prevent hazards, build community resilience, and minimize the loss of human life, injury, property damage, and socio-economic disruption.
ڈیزاسٹر مینجمنٹ پلان کا بنیادی مقصد انسانی جان اور مالی نقصان کو کم سے کم کرنا ہے۔
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558📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationIndustrial Safety Audits
Safety audits in industrial units primarily focus on
Explanation
Industrial safety audits systematically verify whether workplace facilities, machinery, and procedures comply with statutory occupational health and safety regulations and internal hazard prevention protocols.
حفاظتی آڈٹ کا بنیادی مقصد حفاظتی قوانین اور طریقہ کار کی تعمیل کو یقینی بنانا ہے۔
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559📚Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationNatural vs Man-Made Disasters
Which of the following could be considered as a man-made disaster?
Explanation
Industrial, building, or urban fires (caused by arson, electrical short circuits, chemical explosions, or human negligence) are classified as anthropogenic (man-made or technological) disasters. Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions are natural disasters.
آگ (Fire) انسانی غفلت یا صنعتی حادثات کی وجہ سے انسان کی پیدا کردہ آفت (Man-made disaster) کی زمرے میں آتی ہے۔
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560📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsAsian Games 2023
Who were the key members of the Indian team that won the gold medal in the Women's 25m pistol shooting team event at the Asian Games 2023?
Explanation
The Indian trio of Manu Bhaker, Rhythm Sangwan, and Esha Singh won the gold medal in the Women's 25m Pistol Team event at the Hangzhou Asian Games 2023 with a combined score of 1759 points.
منو بھاکر، ریدم سانگوان اور ایشا سنگھ کی ہندوستانی ٹیم نے ایشین گیمز 2023 میں 25 میٹر پسٹل ٹیم ایونٹ میں گولڈ میڈل جیتا۔
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561📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsHuman Migration: Push & Pull Factors
Which of the following is NOT a common pull factor?
Explanation
Political oppression, war, poverty, and persecution are 'Push Factors' that drive people away from their origin. Better employment, higher income, and higher living standards are 'Pull Factors' that attract immigrants to a destination.
سیاسی جبر (Political oppression) ایک پش فیکٹر (Push factor) ہے، پل فیکٹر (Pull factor) نہیں۔
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562📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsLakes & Wetlands of India
Which is the largest freshwater lake in Bihar?
Explanation
Kanwar Taal (or Kabar Taal Lake in Begusarai district, Bihar) is Asia's largest freshwater oxbow lake and Bihar's first declared Ramsar site.
کنور تال (Kanwar Taal Lake) بہار کی سب سے بڑی میٹھے پانی کی جھیل اور رامسر سائٹ ہے۔
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563📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsConstitutional History & 1947 Act
Which of the following statements about the Indian Independence Act of 1947 is false?
Explanation
Statement B is false because the Constituent Assembly of India was formed earlier in November/December 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, NOT under the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
بیان B غلط ہے کیونکہ دستور ساز اسمبلی کا قیام کیبنٹ مشن پلان 1946 کے تحت ہوا تھا، انڈین انڈیپنڈنس ایکٹ 1947 کے تحت نہیں۔
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564📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsSpace Missions & ISRO Chandrayaan-3
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Chandrayaan - 3 mission?
Explanation
The 3 official mission objectives of ISRO's Chandrayaan-3 were: (1) Safe and soft landing of Lander (Vikram) on lunar surface, (2) Demonstrating Rover (Pragyan) roving on the moon, and (3) In-situ scientific experiments. "Loitering capabilities" was NOT an objective.
چندریان 3 کا مقصد چاند کی سطح پر محفوظ لینڈنگ، روور کا چلنا اور سائنسی تجربات کرنا تھا، "loitering" اس کا مقصد نہیں تھا۔
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565📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsWalnut & Fruit Varieties of J&K
Which of the following is not a variety of walnuts?
Explanation
Kagzi, Sulaiman, and Burzil are famous indigenous commercial varieties of walnuts grown in Jammu & Kashmir. 'Raktsey Karpo' is a GI-tagged premium variety of Apricot (Khumani) from Ladakh.
راکتسے کارپو (Raktsey Karpo) خوبانی (Apricot) کی قسم ہے، اخروٹ کی نہیں۔ کاغذی، سلیمان اور برزل اخروٹ کی اقسام ہیں۔
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566📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsTemples & Shrines of J&K
Peer Kho Temple is a
Explanation
Peer Kho Cave Temple (located on the banks of the Tawi River in Jammu) is an ancient Hindu cave temple dedicated to Lord Shiva (also known as Jamwant Cave).
پیر کھو مندر جموں میں دریائے توی کے کنارے واقع بھگوان شیو کا ایک قدیم غار مندر ہے۔
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567📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsRepresentation in Parliament: Rajya Sabha
According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act 2019, how many members of councils of state are from Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Under Section 8 and the First Schedule of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is allocated 4 seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
جموں و کشمیر تنظیم نو ایکٹ 2019 کے تحت راجیہ سبھا (کونسل آف اسٹیٹس) میں جموں و کشمیر کے لیے 4 نشستیں مختص ہیں۔
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568📚General EnglishModals
Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:
It is eleven o'clock in the morning. He ________ be working in the office now.
Explanation
'Must' is used to express strong logical deduction and high certainty based on present evidence (11 a.m. on a workday).
منطقی یقین اور قیاس ظاہر کرنے کے لیے ماڈل ورب 'must' کا استعمال ہوگا۔
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569📚General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options.
The young man is in search of ________ employment because he is in ________ great financial crisis.
Explanation
'Employment' is an uncountable abstract noun used in a general sense (requiring no article), while 'crisis' is a countable singular noun modified by 'great' (requiring 'a').
'Employment' کے ساتھ کوئی آرٹیکل نہیں آئے گا اور 'crisis' کے ساتھ 'a' لگے گا۔
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570📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
Which of the following is NOT considered a renewable energy source?
Explanation
According to the passage and general science, Coal is a finite fossil fuel (non-renewable), whereas solar, wind, and hydroelectric are renewable.
کوئلہ (Coal) غیر قابل تجدید فوسل ایندھن ہے۔
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571📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
What is the primary goal of adopting sustainable energy?
Explanation
As stated in the passage: "One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels... which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution."
پائیدار توانائی کا بنیادی مقصد گرین ہاؤس گیسوں کے اخراج اور فضائی آلودگی کو کم کرنا ہے۔
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572📚General EnglishComprehension Passage: Renewable Energy
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"In an era marked by environmental concerns and the urgent need for action against climate change, sustainable energy has emerged as a beacon of hope. Sustainable energy, also known as renewable energy, refers to energy sources that are naturally replenished and have minimal impact on our environment. The various energy sources are solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass. The adoption of sustainable energy holds immense promise in addressing some of the most pressing challenges facing humanity today. One of its primary goals is to reduce dependence on finite fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution. By transitioning to renewable sources, we can mitigate the harmful effects of climate change, improve air quality, and safeguard the health of both people and the planet.

Furthermore, it promotes security by diversifying the supply of energy and by reducing vulnerability to geopolitical conflicts and fluctuations in fossil fuel prices. It also fosters economic growth and job creation, as the renewable energy sector continues to expand and innovate. However, the pursuit of sustainable energy is closely linked to various global goals and initiatives. The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), emphasize the importance of ensuring access to reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all. Additionally, the Paris Agreement aims to limit the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level. Governments, businesses, and individuals must work together to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy. This involves investing in research and development, implementing supportive policies and regulations, enhancing energy efficiency, and promoting public awareness and education."

Question:
How is sustainable energy linked to global initiatives?
Explanation
The passage explicitly connects sustainable energy to the UN SDGs and the Paris Agreement temperature targets.
پائیدار توانائی اقوام متحدہ کے SDGs اور پیرس معاہدے سے منسلک ہے۔
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573📚General EnglishHomophones & Homonyms
Fill in the blanks with appropriate homophones/homonyms.
He drinks ________ daily against the advice of doctors.
Explanation
'Ale' is a type of alcoholic brewed beer. 'Ail' means to suffer from illness or pain.
'Ale' سے مراد ایک قسم کا نشہ آور مشروب (شراب/بیئر) ہے، جبکہ 'ail' کا مطلب بیمار ہونا ہے۔
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574📚General EnglishHomophones & Homonyms
Fill in the blanks with appropriate homophones/homonyms.
Divine force is ________ in universe.
Explanation
'Immanent' means existing or operating within, inherent, or pervading the material universe. 'Eminent' means distinguished/famous, and 'Imminent' means about to happen.
'Immanent' کا مطلب کائنات کے اندر ہر جگہ موجود (حاضر و ناظر) ہونا ہے۔
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575📚General EnglishIdioms & Phrases
Which of the following options does NOT express the correct meaning of the given idiom/Phrase:
Wet blanket
Explanation
A 'wet blanket' is a spoilsport who dampens other people's fun and excitement. Option D expresses the exact opposite and does NOT express its meaning.
'Wet blanket' رنگ میں بھنگ ڈالنے والے شخص کو کہتے ہیں۔ آپشن D اس کے برعکس معنی دیتا ہے۔
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576📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.
The child playing in the backyard was startled when a squirrel darted ________ the swing set.
Explanation
'Under' is the natural dynamic preposition of movement indicating passing beneath the structure of the swing set.
سوئنگ سیٹ کے نیچے سے تیزی سے گزرنے کے لیے 'under' کا استعمال درست ہے۔
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577📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.
He climbed ________ the ladder to get onto the roof.
Explanation
'Up' is the standard preposition of direction used with climb ('climbed up the ladder').
سیڑھی چڑھنے کے لیے 'climbed up' کا استعمال درست ہے۔
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578📚General EnglishSentence Correction
Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
Explanation
Option B is correct. 'Despite' does not take 'of' (unlike 'in spite of'), and 'managed' is followed by the infinitive 'to finish'.
'Despite' کے ساتھ 'of' نہیں لگتا اور 'managed to finish' درست گرامر ہے۔
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579📚Knowledge of ComputersComputer Hardware & Expansion Slots
A PCIe slot is used for what purpose on a computer
Explanation
PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) slots on motherboards are high-speed expansion buses primarily used to connect dedicated Graphics Processing Units (GPUs / graphics cards), NVMe SSD cards, and network interface cards.
کمپیوٹر کے مدر بورڈ پر PCIe سلاٹ بنیادی طور پر گرافکس کارڈ (Graphics card) لگانے کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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580📚Knowledge of ComputersCybersecurity & Malware
Which of the following replicate itself to slow down the computer system?
Explanation
A computer Worm is a standalone self-replicating malware program that actively propagates copies of itself across networks and memory without needing a host program, consuming bandwidth and system resources to slow down systems.
کمپیوٹر ورم (Worm) خود کو خود بخود ریپلیکیٹ کر کے سسٹم اور نیٹ ورک کو سست کر دیتا ہے۔
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581📚Knowledge of ComputersProgramming & Scripting Languages
Which of the following is NOT a scripting language?
Explanation
Java is a statically typed, compiled, object-oriented programming language compiled into bytecode. Python, Perl, and Ruby are dynamically typed scripting languages.
جاوا (Java) ایک کمپائلڈ پروگرامنگ زبان ہے، اسکرپٹنگ زبان نہیں ہے۔
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582📚Knowledge of ComputersHardware & Surveillance Technology
Which of the following features allows a PTZ camera to automatically track the moving object within its field of view?
Explanation
Motion-based auto tracking (or smart tracking) is the built-in algorithmic feature that allows a PTZ (Pan-Tilt-Zoom) camera to detect and continuously follow a moving target across its surveillance field.
موشن بیسڈ آٹو ٹریکنگ (Motion-based auto tracking) PTZ کیمرے کو متحرک چیز کا پیچھا کرنے کے قابل بناتی ہے۔
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583📚Knowledge of ComputersFirewall vs Antivirus
Which of the following is false?
Explanation
Statement B is false: A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules; it does NOT scan, quarantine, or delete infected files within local storage (which is the job of Antivirus software).
بیان B غلط ہے کیونکہ فائر وال نیٹ ورک ٹریفک کو فلٹر کرتا ہے، سسٹم کے اندر سے میلویئر کو ڈیلیٹ کرنا اینٹی وائرس کا کام ہے۔
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584📚Knowledge of ComputersE-Governance & Digital India
Where is AADHAAR data stored?
Explanation
Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, all biometric and demographic Aadhaar data is stored in the Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR) managed by UIDAI.
آدھار ڈیٹا UIDAI کے سینٹرل آئیڈینٹٹیز ڈیٹا ریپازیٹری (CIDR) میں محفوظ کیا جاتا ہے۔
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585📚Knowledge of ComputersInformation Technology Fundamentals
Which of the following is NOT a component of Information Technology?
Explanation
Information Technology (IT) revolves around computer software, networking systems, databases, and digital architectures (like Blockchain and OS). Traditional standalone photocopier (Xerox) machines are office reproduction appliances.
فوٹو کاپی (زیروکس) مشین معلوماتی ٹیکنالوجی (IT) کا بنیادی ڈیجیٹل جزو نہیں ہے۔
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586📚Quantitative AptitudeProfit & Loss
A shopkeeper bought oranges at 7 for a rupee and sold them at a gain of 40%. How many oranges for a rupee did he sell?
Explanation
Cost price of 1 orange =Rs. 1/7= \text{Rs. } 1/7. Selling price of 1 orange =17×1.40=1.407=Rs. 0.20=15= \frac{1}{7} \times 1.40 = \frac{1.40}{7} = \text{Rs. } 0.20 = \frac{1}{5}. Hence, he sells 5 oranges for a rupee.
اس نے 1 روپے میں 5 سنترا بیچے (1/0.20=51/0.20 = 5)۔
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587📚Quantitative AptitudeProfit & Loss
A person buys books at Rs. 300 for 5 and sells them at Rs.740 for 10 (or Rs. 74/book). How many books must he sell in order to earn profit of Rs. 3,520?
Explanation
Cost price per book =300/5=Rs. 60= 300/5 = \text{Rs. } 60. Selling profit per unit required to achieve total profit =3520= 3520. If profit per book is Rs. 88 (or 740 for 5 books yielding Rs. 88/book), 3520/88=403520 / 88 = 40 books.
3520 روپے منافع کمانے کے لیے اسے 40 کتابیں فروخت کرنی ہوں گی۔
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588📚Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
Sachin can complete a job in 15 days. Ankit alone can complete the same job in 10 days. Sachin works for 9 days and then the remaining job is completed by Ankit. How many days will it take Ankit to complete the remaining job alone?
Explanation
Sachin's 9 days work =9×115=35= 9 \times \frac{1}{15} = \frac{3}{5}. Remaining work =1−35=25= 1 - \frac{3}{5} = \frac{2}{5}. Time for Ankit alone =25×10=4= \frac{2}{5} \times 10 = 4 days.
انکت باقی کام کو 4 دن میں مکمل کرے گا۔
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589📚Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
P and Q can do a piece of work in 32 and 40 days respectively. They began to work together but P leaves after sometimes and Q completed remaining work in 16 days. After how many days did P leaves (in days)?
Explanation
Total work =160= 160 units. Efficiency of P=5P = 5 units/day, Q=4Q = 4 units/day. Q worked alone for last 16 days =16×4=64= 16 \times 4 = 64 units. Work done together =160−64=96= 160 - 64 = 96 units. Combined rate =5+4=9= 5 + 4 = 9 units/day. Days worked together =969=323= \frac{96}{9} = \frac{32}{3} days.
P نے 323\frac{32}{3} دن بعد کام چھوڑ دیا۔
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590📚Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days, B and C together can do it in 20 days. A starts the work and works on it for 5 days, then B takes it up and works for 15 days, Finally, C finishes the work in 18 days. In how many days can C do the work when doing it separately (in days)?
Explanation
Grouping work: 5 days of (A+B) + 10 days of (B+C) + 8 days of C =1= 1. 5(1/30)+10(1/20)+8/C=1  ⟹  1/6+1/2+8/C=1  ⟹  2/3+8/C=1  ⟹  8/C=1/3  ⟹  C=245(1/30) + 10(1/20) + 8/C = 1 \implies 1/6 + 1/2 + 8/C = 1 \implies 2/3 + 8/C = 1 \implies 8/C = 1/3 \implies C = 24 days.
C اکیلا پورا کام 24 دن میں مکمل کر سکتا ہے۔
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591📚Quantitative AptitudeSpeed, Time and Distance
A man goes to Mumbai from Pune at a speed of 4 km/hr4\text{ km/hr} and returns to Pune at speed of 6 km/hr6\text{ km/hr}. What is his average speed of the entire journey?
Explanation
Average speed =2xyx+y=2×4×64+6=4810=4.8 km/hr= \frac{2xy}{x+y} = \frac{2 \times 4 \times 6}{4 + 6} = \frac{48}{10} = 4.8\text{ km/hr}.
پورے سفر کی اوسط رفتار 2×4×6/(4+6)=4.8 km/hr2 \times 4 \times 6 / (4 + 6) = 4.8\text{ km/hr} ہے۔
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592📚General Intelligence & ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Sets
Out of the 75 bird watchers or birders, 15 wanted to see only sunbird, 10 wanted to see only flycatcher, 12 wanted to see both sunbird and nuthatch, 15 wanted to see only bee-eater, 13 wanted to see both sunbird and bee-eater, 5 wanted to see both flycatcher and nuthatch and the remaining wanted to see only nuthatch. How many birders wanted to see only one bird?
Explanation
Non-exclusive birders =12+13+5=30= 12 + 13 + 5 = 30. Total wanting only one bird =75−30=45= 75 - 30 = 45.
صرف ایک پرندہ دیکھنے والے پرندوں کے مشاہدہ کاروں کی تعداد 45 ہے۔
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593📚General Intelligence & ReasoningLetter Series & Classification
Three of the following four letter clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Identify the one which is different.
Explanation
XADG (+3,+3,+3+3, +3, +3), VYBE (+3,+3,+3+3, +3, +3), and GJMP (+3,+3,+3+3, +3, +3) have a constant step of +3+3. PRVX (+2,+4,+2+2, +4, +2) is different.
PRVX میں حروف کے درمیان +3 کا یکساں فاصلہ نہیں ہے۔
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594📚🎭 Indian Art & CultureFestivals of India
Which Indian state organizes the 'Dhanu Yatra' festival?
Explanation
Dhanu Yatra is a famous 11-day annual open-air theatre festival held in Bargarh, Odisha, celebrated as the world's largest open-air theatrical performance based on the mythological story of Lord Krishna and King Kansa.
دھانو یاترا (Dhanu Yatra) اوڈیشہ کے برگڑھ میں منعقد ہونے والا دنیا کا سب سے بڑا اوپن ایئر تھیٹر میلہ ہے۔
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595📚🌍 General KnowledgeInternational Organizations
Amnesty International is associated with which of the following?
Explanation
Amnesty International is a world-renowned non-governmental international organization founded in 1961, headquartered in London, focused on human rights protection and advocacy.
ایمنسٹی انٹرنیشنل (Amnesty International) انسانی حقوق کے تحفظ کے لیے کام کرنے والی ایک عالمی تنظیم ہے۔
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596📚🌍 General KnowledgeUN Security Council
How many non-permanent members does UN Security Council have?
Explanation
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is composed of 15 members: 5 permanent members (P5) and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly.
اقوام متحدہ کی سلامتی کونسل (UNSC) میں 10 غیر مستقل ارکان (Non-permanent members) ہوتے ہیں۔
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597📚🌍 General KnowledgeSAARC Members
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the SAARC Association?
Explanation
SAARC has 8 member countries: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. China is NOT a member (it holds observer status).
چین (China) سارک (SAARC) تنظیم کا رکن نہیں ہے، یہ مبصر کا درجہ رکھتا ہے۔
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598📚🏆 Honours & AwardsGallantry & Military Awards
Which of the following is the highest award for military service?
Explanation
Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India's highest wartime military decoration awarded for the most conspicuous bravery or pre-eminent act of valour in the presence of the enemy.
پرم ویر چکر (Param Vir Chakra) ہندوستان کا سب سے بڑا فوجی جنگی اعزاز ہے۔
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599📚📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFirst in India: Women Leaders
Who was the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state?
Explanation
Sucheta Kripalani became the first female Chief Minister of an Indian state when she took office as Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in October 1963.
سچیتا کرپلانی (Sucheta Kriplani) اتر پردیش کی وزیر اعلیٰ بن کر ہندوستان کی کسی بھی ریاست کی پہلی خاتون وزیر اعلیٰ بنیں۔
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600📚🎭 Indian Art & CultureFestivals of Northeast India
The Hornbill Festival is celebrated in which state?
Explanation
The Hornbill Festival (known as the 'Festival of Festivals') is celebrated annually from 1 to 10 December at Kisama Heritage Village in Nagaland.
ہارن بل فیسٹیول (Hornbill Festival) ہر سال ناگالینڈ میں منایا جاتا ہے۔
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601📚📜 History & PolityFirst Cabinet of Independent India
The first Education Minister of Independent India was
Explanation
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was the first Education Minister of Independent India, serving from 1947 to 1958. His birthday on November 11 is celebrated as National Education Day.
آزاد ہندوستان کے پہلے وزیر تعلیم مولانا ابوالکلام آزاد تھے۔ ان کے یوم پیدائش (11 نومبر) کو قومی یوم تعلیم کے طور پر منایا جاتا ہے۔
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602📚📜 Ancient Indian HistoryBuddhism & Ancient Universities
The Buddhist sites Vaishali and Nalanda are situated in which of the following state?
Explanation
Both ancient Buddhist historical sites, Vaishali (where Lord Buddha preached his last sermon) and Nalanda (the ancient mahavihara university), are situated in the state of Bihar.
بودھ مت کے تاریخی مقامات وشالی اور نالندہ ریاست بہار (Bihar) میں واقع ہیں۔
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603📚🗺️ GeographyWorld Land Areas & Rankings
Which is the seventh largest country in the world by land area?
Explanation
India is the 7th largest country in the world by land area (approx. 3.287 million sq km), following Russia, Canada, China, USA, Brazil, and Australia.
رقبے کے لحاظ سے ہندوستان دنیا کا ساتواں (7th) سب سے بڑا ملک ہے۔
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604📚📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionPanchayati Raj System
How many tiers are there in a Panchayati Raj structure in India?
Explanation
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, India adopted a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zilla Parishad (district level).
ہندوستان میں پنچایتی راج کے تین درجے (3-tier structure) ہیں: گرام پنچایت، بلاک سمیتی اور ضلع پریشد۔
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605📚📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionState Legislatures: Bicameral States
In which of the following states there is a bicameral legislature?
Explanation
Six Indian states currently have a Bicameral Legislature (having both Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council): Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.
بہار (Bihar) میں دو ایوانی مقننہ (Bicameral legislature - اسمبلی اور کونسل دونوں) موجود ہے۔
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606📚📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionParliament of India
Upper House of the Indian Parliament is also known as ________?
Explanation
The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is the permanent Upper House of the Indian Parliament, while the Lok Sabha is the Lower House.
ہندوستانی پارلیمنٹ کے ایوان بالا کو راجیہ سبھا (Rajya Sabha) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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607📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementFinancial Statements: Balance Sheet
What explains the financial position of the reporting entity at the end of the accounting period?
Explanation
A Balance Sheet is a financial statement that summarizes an entity's assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity at a specific point in time to disclose its exact financial position.
بیلنس شیٹ (Balance sheet) کسی ادارے کی مالی سال کے اختتام پر مالی حیثیت، اثاثوں اور واجبات کو ظاہر کرتی ہے۔
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608📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementWorking Capital Management
Current assets minus current liabilities is equal to
Explanation
Working Capital (specifically Net Working Capital) is the difference between an enterprise's Current Assets and Current Liabilities (Working Capital=Current Assets−Current Liabilities\text{Working Capital} = \text{Current Assets} - \text{Current Liabilities}).
ورکنگ کیپیٹل کا فارمولا: موجودہ اثاثے منہا موجودہ واجبات (Current Assets−Current Liabilities\text{Current Assets} - \text{Current Liabilities}) ہے۔
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609📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange: Inland vs Foreign
Which of the following does not have the features of foreign bills?
Explanation
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a bill drawn in India and made payable in India (or drawn on a person resident in India) is an Inland Bill, not a Foreign Bill.
ہندوستان میں لکھا اور ادا کیا جانے والا بل ملکی بل (Inland bill) کہلاتا ہے، فارن بل نہیں۔
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610📚📊 EconomicsInternational Trade & Balance of Trade
Balance of trade is
Explanation
Balance of Trade (BOT) is the financial difference between the monetary value of merchandise goods exported and merchandise goods imported by a nation over a given period.
تجارتی توازن (Balance of Trade) اشیاء کی برآمدات اور درآمدات کے درمیان کا فرق ہے۔
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611📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTrial Balance
Which of the following is used for checking the arithmetical accuracy of the account books?
Explanation
A Trial Balance is a statement prepared with the debit and credit balances of ledger accounts to verify the arithmetical accuracy of double-entry postings.
کھاتہ کتب کی ریاضیاتی درستگی جانچنے کے لیے ٹرائل بیلنس (Trial balance) تیار کیا جاتا ہے۔
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612📚📊 Economics & Union BudgetUnion Budget 2024-25 Capex
What is the amount of capital expenditure (capex) outlay announced by the Indian government in the union budget 2024-25?
Explanation
In the Union Budget 2024-25, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced a record capital expenditure (Capex) outlay of Rs. 11,11,111 crore (Rs. 11.11 lakh crore), accounting for 3.4% of India's GDP.
یونین بجٹ 2024-25 میں حکومت ہند نے 11.11 لاکھ کروڑ روپے کے کیپٹل ایکسپینڈیچر کا اعلان کیا۔
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613📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementFinancial Statements
The overriding purpose of financial accounting is to summarize financial activity in business in the
Explanation
Financial accounting aims to summarize and present an enterprise's complete financial performance and status through the full set of financial statements: Profit & Loss Statement, Balance Sheet, and Cash Flow Statement.
مالیاتی اکاؤنٹنگ کا بنیادی مقصد نفع و نقصان کے گوشوارے، بیلنس شیٹ اور کیش فلو اسٹیٹمنٹ کے ذریعے جامع رپورٹنگ کرنا ہے۔
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614📚📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementLedger Posting Rules
Which of these items will appear on the credit side in the ledger account?
Explanation
Discount Received is an income/gain and has a credit balance, appearing on the credit side of the nominal ledger account.
ڈسکاؤنٹ حاصل کرنا (Discount received) آمدنی ہونے کی وجہ سے کھاتے کی کریڈٹ سائیڈ پر درج ہوتا ہے۔
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615📚📖 General EnglishRelative Pronouns
Fill in the blank with correct pronoun:
He is a famous scientist about ________ many books have been written.
Explanation
Prepositions take object pronouns ('about whom', not 'about who').
پریپوزیشن کے بعد مفعولی ضمیر 'whom' کا استعمال درست ہے۔
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616📚📖 General EnglishPrepositions
Choose the most appropriate option to fill the blanks:
I am displeased ________ you but I am not displeased ________ your fun.
Explanation
Standard preposition usage: 'displeased with a person' and 'displeased at an action/thing'.
شخص کے لیے 'displeased with' اور عمل کے لیے 'displeased at' استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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617📚📖 General EnglishSentence Rearrangement
Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
P: The ingredients must, therefore, be of the finest quality and in the right proportions.
Q: When you have them right and keep practicing you are sure to bake some of the yummiest cakes.
R: Success in life is just like baking a cake that requires many things.
S: Firstly, unless you have the right ingredients and recipe it is not going to work.
Explanation
Introductory theme is statement R (life is like baking a cake), followed by S (firstly right ingredients), P (ingredients must therefore be finest quality), and conclusion Q. Sequence: R-S-P-Q.
جملوں کی منطقی ترتیب: R -> S -> P -> Q (RSPQ)۔
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618📚📖 General EnglishModals: Polite Requests
Fill in the blank with correct modal verb:
"________ you please open that window?"- she asked politely.
Explanation
'Could' is used for making polite, courteous requests.
شائستہ درخواست کے لیے ماڈل ورب 'Could' کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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619📚📖 General EnglishComprehension Passage: Stone Age
Read the passage given below to answer the question:
"The Stone Age was a period of history that began approximately 2 million BC and lasted until 3000 BC, deriving its name from the stone tools and weapons discovered by modern scientists. This period was divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic periods. During the First Age (2 million to 8000 BC), the first hatchets and the use of fire for heating and cooking were developed.

As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about 1 million years into the Paleolithic era, humans were forced to shelter in caves, wear clothing, and develop new tools. During the Mesolithic period (8000 to 6000 BC), people made crude pottery and took dogs for hunting with the first fish hook and developed a bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century BC. The Neolithic period (6000 to 3000 BC) saw mankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, becoming less nomadic than in earlier periods, establishing permanent settlements and forming governments."

Question:
What were some developments during the first age (Paleolithic period)?
Explanation
As stated in the passage: "During the First Age (2 million to 8000 BC) the first hatchets and the use of fire for heating and cooking were developed."
پہلے دور میں کلہاڑی اور کھانا پکانے و حرارت کے لیے آگ کا استعمال شروع ہوا۔
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620📚📖 General EnglishComprehension Passage: Stone Age
Read the passage given below to answer the question:
"The Stone Age was a period of history that began approximately 2 million BC and lasted until 3000 BC, deriving its name from the stone tools and weapons discovered by modern scientists. This period was divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic periods. During the First Age (2 million to 8000 BC), the first hatchets and the use of fire for heating and cooking were developed.

As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about 1 million years into the Paleolithic era, humans were forced to shelter in caves, wear clothing, and develop new tools. During the Mesolithic period (8000 to 6000 BC), people made crude pottery and took dogs for hunting with the first fish hook and developed a bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century BC. The Neolithic period (6000 to 3000 BC) saw mankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, becoming less nomadic than in earlier periods, establishing permanent settlements and forming governments."

Question:
On the basis of above passage, what were some developments during the Neolithic period?
Explanation
As directly stated in the passage: "The Neolithic period (6000 to 3000 BC) saw mankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, becoming less nomadic than in earlier periods, establishing permanent settlements and forming governments."
نیولتھک دور میں انسان نے جانوروں کو پالتو بنایا، مستقل بستیاں بسائیں اور حکومتیں قائم کیں۔
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621📚🧩 Logical ReasoningWord Formation
How many meaningful English words can be formed by using letters of the word 'ELPA'?
Explanation
Four valid 4-letter English words can be formed using E, L, P, A: LEAP, PALE, PEAL, and PLEA. Hence, 'More than three'.
حروف E, L, P, A سے چار با معنی الفاظ (LEAP, PALE, PEAL, PLEA) بنتے ہیں، یعنی تین سے زیادہ۔
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622📚🧩 Logical ReasoningCoding-Decoding
EMAIL: 8; INTERNET: ________
Explanation
In word length encoding: 8×3=248 \times 3 = 24 (or sum-based alphanumeric pattern).
کوڈنگ پیٹرن کے مطابق INTERNET کا کوڈ 24 ہے۔
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623📚🧩 Logical ReasoningClassification & Odd One Out
Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
Explanation
Frog, Toad, and Salamander are Amphibians. Salmon is a Fish.
سالمن (Salmon) ایک مچھلی ہے جبکہ مینڈک، ٹوڈ اور سالمانڈر ایمفیبین (Amphibians) ہیں۔
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624📚🧩 Logical ReasoningNumber Classification: Perfect Cubes
In the given four numbers out of which three are like in some manner while one is different. Find odd one out.
Explanation
2197=1332197 = 13^3, 5832=1835832 = 18^3, and 6859=1936859 = 19^3 are perfect cubes. 3584 is NOT a perfect cube (15.3315.3^3).
2197 (13313^3)، 5832 (18318^3) اور 6859 (19319^3) مکمل مکعب ہیں جبکہ 3584 نہیں ہے۔
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625📚🧩 Logical ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Read the figure and find the region representing people who are Students, Singers, Dancers. How many students are neither singers nor dancers?
Explanation
From the standard Venn diagram representation, the exclusive Student region isolated from both Singer and Dancer circles equals 22.
وین ڈایاگرام کے مطابق صرف طلباء کی تعداد 22 ہے۔
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626📚💻 Computer KnowledgeProgramming vs Markup Languages
Which of the following is not a programming language?
Explanation
HTML (HyperText Markup Language) is a standard markup language used to structure web pages, not a programming language.
HTML ایک مارک اپ زبان ہے، پروگرامنگ زبان نہیں۔
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627📚💻 Computer KnowledgeInput Devices & Barcode Scanners
Which technology is particularly used in barcode wand reader and barcode slot reader?
Explanation
A Pen type reader (wand) contains a light source and a photodiode in its tip that must be dragged directly across a printed barcode.
بارکوڈ وانڈ ریڈر میں پین ٹائپ ریڈر (Pen type reader) ٹیکنالوجی استعمال ہوتی ہے۔
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628📚💻 Computer KnowledgeInternet & Networking Protocols
What is the full form of the term URL?
Explanation
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the global web address used to locate resources on the World Wide Web.
URL کا مکمل مطلب یونیفارم ریسورس لوکیٹر (Uniform Resource Locator) ہے۔
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629📚💻 Computer KnowledgeNetworking Hardware: Modem
Which of the following devices is used to transmit data over the telecommunication lines?
Explanation
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals for transmission across telecommunication lines and vice versa.
موڈیم (Modem) ٹیلی فون لائنوں کے ذریعے ڈیٹا منتقل کرنے کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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630📚💻 Computer KnowledgeEmail Protocols & Terminology
The term BCC in email stands for
Explanation
In email communication, BCC stands for Blind Carbon Copy, which sends a copy of the email to recipients without revealing their addresses to other recipients.
ای میل میں BCC کا مطلب بلائنڈ کاربن کاپی (Blind Carbon Copy) ہے۔
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631📚🧱 Strength of MaterialsPrincipal Stresses & Pure Shear
The state of pure shear stress is produced by
Explanation
A state of pure shear stress (τ\tau) on a plane inclined at 45∘45^\circ is equivalent to equal principal tensile stress in one direction and an equal principal compressive stress in the mutually perpendicular direction (σ1=+τ,σ2=−τ\sigma_1 = +\tau, \sigma_2 = -\tau).
خالص قینچی تناؤ (Pure shear stress) ایک سمت میں تناؤ اور اس کے عمود برابر دباؤ کی وجہ سے پیدا ہوتا ہے۔
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632📚🏗️ Design of RCC StructuresWorking Stress Method: Neutral Axis Factor
If the depth of neutral axis for singly reinforced rectangular section is represented by "kdkd" in working stress design, then the value of "kk" for balance section where "dd" is the effective depth, σst\sigma_{st} is permissible stress in steel in tension and σcbc\sigma_{cbc} is permissible stress in steel in bending compression.
Explanation
In working stress method, k=m⋅σcbcm⋅σcbc+σstk = \frac{m \cdot \sigma_{cbc}}{m \cdot \sigma_{cbc} + \sigma_{st}}. Since modular ratio m=2803σcbcm = \frac{280}{3\sigma_{cbc}}, substituting yields k=280/3280/3+σst=93.3393.33+σstk = \frac{280/3}{280/3 + \sigma_{st}} = \frac{93.33}{93.33 + \sigma_{st}}, which is completely independent of σcbc\sigma_{cbc} and depends on σst\sigma_{st} only!
ورکنگ اسٹریس میتھڈ میں متوازن سیکشن کا غیر جانبدار محور فیکٹر k=93.3393.33+σstk = \frac{93.33}{93.33 + \sigma_{st}} صرف اسٹیل کے تناؤ (σst\sigma_{st}) پر منحصر ہوتا ہے۔
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633📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Treatment Plant Units
Considering
(i) Screening
(ii) Sedimentation
(iii) Disinfection
(iv) Filtration.
The correct sequence of treatments which are generally given to treat raw water supplies are
Explanation
The standard sequence of municipal water treatment operations is: (i) Screening → (ii) Plain/Chemical Sedimentation → (iv) Rapid/Slow Sand Filtration → (iii) Disinfection (Chlorination). Sequence: (i) (ii) (iv) (iii).
پانی کے علاج کا درست سلسلہ: اسکریننگ (i) ← سیڈیمنٹیشن (ii) ← فلٹریشن (iv) ← ڈس انفیکشن (iii)۔
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634📚📊 Construction Project ManagementCPM Network Logic
With reference to the following network which statement is incorrect?
(Node relations: 1->2; 2->3, 2->4; 3->5, 3->6, 3->7; 4->7; 5->6, 7->6; 6->8)
Explanation
In network logic, past/preceding relationships must strictly reflect activity completions. Reviewing standard CPM network terminology, event dependency statements are evaluated accordingly.
نیٹ ورک ڈایاگرام کی منطق کے مطابق بیان C غلط ہے۔
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635📚📊 Construction Project ManagementProject Management Phases
Match the list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below,
List -1 (Description): a. Estimation, b. Planning, c. Quality control, d. Designing
List -2 (Purpose details or functions): 1. Setting objectives and determining a course of action for achieving the project objectives., 2. The science of calculating the different load requirements, so that proposed structure can easily withstand worst-case scenarios for a particular duration., 3. To ascertain the probable cost of a proposed project., 4. Testing units and determining whether the materials are within the specifications for the final product.
Explanation
Estimation = Ascertain probable project cost (a-3), Planning = Setting objectives and course of action (b-1), Quality control = Material testing against specifications (c-4), Designing = Calculating load capacities and sections (d-2). Match: a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2.
پروجیکٹ مینجمنٹ کے افعال کا درست ملاپ: a-3، b-1، c-4، d-2 ہے۔
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636📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Distribution Design Capacity
The distribution system of water supplies is designed in the basis of
Explanation
Under standard CPHEEO water supply design norms, municipal distribution pipelines and service reservoirs are designed for the maximum coincident draft (maximum daily demand + fire demand) or peak hourly demand, whichever is greater.
پانی کی فراہمی کا ڈسٹری بیوشن نیٹ ورک پیک آورلی ڈیمانڈ یا کوئنسائیڈنٹ ڈرافٹ میں سے جو زیادہ ہو (Greater of A or B) پر ڈیزائن کیا جاتا ہے۔
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637📚🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Conventions Chronology
Arrange the following environmental conventions in chronological order (from oldest to latest)
a. Stockholm Convention
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Kyoto Protocol
d. Basel Convention
Explanation
Chronological adoption: a. Stockholm Declaration (1972) / POPs (2001), b. Montreal Protocol (1987), d. Basel Convention (1989), c. Kyoto Protocol (1997).
ماحولیاتی معاہدوں کی تاریخی ترتیب: مونٹریال پروٹوکول 1987، باسل کنونشن 1989، کیوٹو پروٹوکول 1997۔
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638📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewage vs Sullage
What is the name of the water coming out of the kitchen, bathroom, and wash basin?
Explanation
Sullage (greywater) is domestic wastewater originating from kitchen sinks, bathrooms, washbasins, and laundry that does not contain human excreta / fecal matter.
باورچی خانے، باتھ روم اور واش بیسن سے نکلنے والے گندے پانی کو سلج (Sullage / Greywater) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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639📚🚆 Railway EngineeringPoints and Crossings: Switch Angle
The switch angle depends on
(i) Heel divergence
(ii) Length of tongue rail
(iii) Flange-way clearance
(iv) Throw of switch
The correct answer is
Explanation
In railway turnouts, the switch angle (α\alpha) is the angle between the gauge face of the stock rail and the tongue rail, given by sin⁡α=dl\sin \alpha = \frac{d}{l}, where dd is the heel divergence and ll is the length of the tongue rail.
سوئچ اینگل کا انحصار ہیل ڈائیورجنس (i) اور ٹنگ ریل کی لمبائی (ii) پر ہوتا ہے۔
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640📚🏗️ Concrete TechnologyChemical Admixtures for Concrete
Consider the following pairs.
Admixtures | Chemicals
a. Water reducing admixtures | Calcium chloride
b. Air-entraining agent | Neutralized vinsol resin
c. Super plasticizer | Sulphonated melanin
d. Accelerator | Lignosulphonate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Air-entraining agents use Neutralized Vinsol Resin (b is correct), and Superplasticizers use Sulphonated Melamine Formaldehyde (SMF) (c is correct). Calcium chloride is an accelerator, and lignosulphonates are standard plasticizers.
ایئر اینٹریننگ ایجنٹ (Neutralized vinsol resin) اور سپر پلاسٹیسائزر (Sulphonated melamine) کے جوڑے درست ہیں۔ (b اور c)
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641📚📐 SurveyingPlane Table Surveying Operations
After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations that are needed at each plane table station are
a. Levelling
b. Orientation
c. Centering
The correct sequence for this operation is
Explanation
The standard operational setting-up sequence at a plane table station is: 1. Levelling (using spirit level), 2. Centering (using plumbing fork/bob), and 3. Orientation (using trough compass or back sighting). Sequence: a, c, b.
پلین ٹیبل سروے میں درست ترتیب: لیولنگ (a) ← سینٹرنگ (c) ← اورینٹیشن (b) ہے۔
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642📚📊 Construction Project ManagementCritical Path Method (CPM)
A project takes 20 days along the critical path and has a standard deviation of 4 days. How many days does it take to complete the project?
Explanation
The expected project completion duration is determined by the total duration of activities along the Critical Path, which is 20 days.
پروجیکٹ کی متوقع تکمیل کی مدت کریٹیکل پاتھ کے مطابق 20 دن ہے۔
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643📚⚙️ Engineering MechanicsSystem of Forces
Match the following Forces with their examples and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Forces: a. Collinear forces, b. Coplanar concurrent forces, c. Non-coplanar concurrent forces, d. Non-coplanar parallel forces
Examples: 1. Forces on a rope in a tug of war, 2. Forces on a rod resting against a wall, 3. A tripod carrying a camera, 4. The weight of benches in a classroom
Explanation
Collinear = Forces along single line of tug of war (a-1), Coplanar concurrent = Forces on 2D rod resting on wall (b-2), Non-coplanar concurrent = Three 3D tripod legs meeting at camera apex (c-3), Non-coplanar parallel = Vertical gravitational weight vectors of classroom benches (d-4). Match: a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4.
قوتوں کے نظام کی درست مثالیں: a-1، b-2، c-3، d-4 ہیں۔
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644📚🛣️ Transportation & Highway EngineeringJayakar Committee & Indian Highway Development
What were the main recommendations of Jayakar Committee:
a. Central Road Fund was founded in 1929.
b. Indian Road Congress was established in 1930.
c. Central Road Research Institute started in 1950.
d. More stress was given on long term planning programme for a period of 20 years.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Jayakar Committee (1927) led to the formation of: Central Road Fund (CRF, 1929) [a], IRC (established in 1934, not 1930) [b is false], CRRI (1950) [c], and recommended 20-year long-term road development plans [d]. Correct statements: a, c and d.
جیاکر کمیٹی کی سفارشات کے تحت CRF (1929)، CRRI (1950) اور 20 سالہ روڈ پلانز شروع کیے گئے۔ (a, c اور d درست ہیں)۔
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645📚📊 Construction Project ManagementCPM vs PERT Orientation
Which of the following statements is true?
1. CPM is activity - oriented network
2. PERT is activity oriented
Explanation
Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false: Critical Path Method (CPM) is an Activity-Oriented network system, while Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is an Event-Oriented network system.
CPM ایک ایکٹیویٹی پر مبنی (Activity-oriented) نیٹ ورک ہے جبکہ PERT ایونٹ پر مبنی ہے۔ (صرف 1 درست ہے)۔
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646📚🏗️ Prestressed ConcreteLoad Balancing Concept
If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN2500\text{ kN}, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m10\text{ m} and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m40\text{ kN/m} the central dip of the cable profile should be
Explanation
By load balancing concept for parabolic tendon: Upward balanced load wp=8PhL2=w  ⟹  40 kN/m=8×2500×h102  ⟹  40=20000h100=200h  ⟹  h=40200=0.20 m=200 mmw_p = \frac{8 P h}{L^2} = w \implies 40\text{ kN/m} = \frac{8 \times 2500 \times h}{10^2} \implies 40 = \frac{20000 h}{100} = 200 h \implies h = \frac{40}{200} = 0.20\text{ m} = 200\text{ mm}.
لوڈ بیلنسنگ کے تحت کیبل کا ڈپ h=wL28P=40×1008×2500=0.2 m=200 mmh = \frac{w L^2}{8 P} = \frac{40 \times 100}{8 \times 2500} = 0.2\text{ m} = 200\text{ mm} ہے۔
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647📚🚆 Railway EngineeringPoints and Crossings: Flangeway Clearance
Flangeway clearance is the distance
Explanation
Flangeway clearance is the clear horizontal gap provided between the adjoining inner faces of the running rail and the check/guard rail near the crossing to allow unhindered passage for wheel flanges.
فلینج وے کلیئرنس رننگ ریل اور چیک ریل کے درمیان کا افقی فاصلہ ہے۔
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648📚🚆 Railway EngineeringRail Wear and Deficiencies
Wear of rails is maximum in
Explanation
Wear of rails is at its highest on Sharp Curves (especially side wear on the gauge face of the outer rail due to centrifugal thrust and wheel flange rubbing).
پٹریوں کی سب سے زیادہ رگڑ اور گھساؤ (Wear of rails) تیز موڑ (Sharp curves) پر ہوتا ہے۔
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649📚⚙️ Engineering MechanicsVarignon's Theorem of Moments
"If a number of coplanar forces acting on a particle are in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their resultant force about the same point" is
Explanation
Varignon's Theorem of Moments (Principle of Moments) states that the moment of the resultant of a system of concurrent/coplanar forces about any point equals the algebraic sum of the moments of its individual component forces about that point.
یہ ویرگنن کا تھیورم (Varignon's Theorem) ہے جو قوتوں کے مومنٹس کے اصول کو بیان کرتا ہے۔
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650📚⚙️ Engineering MechanicsCentroid of Composite Sections
Find the centroid of inverted T-section consisting of a base flange of width 100 mm100\text{ mm} and thickness 20 mm20\text{ mm}, with a vertical web of width 10 mm10\text{ mm} and height 50 mm50\text{ mm} centered on top of the base.
Explanation
Flange A1=100×20=2000 mm2A_1 = 100 \times 20 = 2000\text{ mm}^2, y1=10 mmy_1 = 10\text{ mm}. Web A2=10×50=500 mm2A_2 = 10 \times 50 = 500\text{ mm}^2, y2=20+25=45 mmy_2 = 20 + 25 = 45\text{ mm}. yˉ=A1y1+A2y2A1+A2=2000(10)+500(45)2000+500=20000+225002500=425002500=17 mm\bar{y} = \frac{A_1 y_1 + A_2 y_2}{A_1 + A_2} = \frac{2000(10) + 500(45)}{2000 + 500} = \frac{20000 + 22500}{2500} = \frac{42500}{2500} = 17\text{ mm}. By symmetry, xˉ=50 mm\bar{x} = 50\text{ mm}. Centroid is (50 mm,17 mm)(50\text{ mm}, 17\text{ mm}).
سینٹرائیڈ کا حساب: yˉ=17 mm\bar{y} = 17\text{ mm} اور xˉ=50 mm\bar{x} = 50\text{ mm}، یعنی (50 mm,17 mm)(50\text{ mm}, 17\text{ mm}) ہے۔
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651📚🏗️ Building Materials & ConcretePortland Pozzolana Cement (PPC)
Which of the following statement is correct about Portland Pozzolana Cement (PPC)?
Explanation
PPC produces secondary calcium silicate hydrates (C−S−HC-S-H) via pozzolanic reaction over time, achieving higher ultimate long-term compressive strength, lower heat of hydration, and significantly reduced porosity and permeability.
پورٹ لینڈ پوزولانا سیمنٹ (PPC) کی طویل مدتی طاقت زیادہ ہوتی ہے اور اس میں ہائیڈریشن کی گرمی اور پارگمیتا (Permeability) کم ہوتی ہے۔
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652📚🌊 Irrigation & Water Resources EngineeringSoil-Moisture-Plant Relationships
Wheat is to be grown in a field having field capacity equal to 30% and the permanent wilting point equal to 10%. Irrigation water is to be supplied when the moisture content of the soil falls to 20%. The root zone depth is 1 m1\text{ m}, dry weight of soil is 14 kN/m314\text{ kN/m}^3 and the specific weight of water is 10 kN/m310\text{ kN/m}^3. The Net Irrigation Requirement (NIR) for the above cultivation is:
Explanation
NIR=γdγw×d×(FC−mopt)=14 kN/m310 kN/m3×1.0 m×(0.30−0.20)=1.4×1.0×0.10=0.14 m=14 cmNIR = \frac{\gamma_d}{\gamma_w} \times d \times (FC - m_{opt}) = \frac{14\text{ kN/m}^3}{10\text{ kN/m}^3} \times 1.0\text{ m} \times (0.30 - 0.20) = 1.4 \times 1.0 \times 0.10 = 0.14\text{ m} = 14\text{ cm}.
خالص آبپاشی کی ضرورت NIR = \frac{14}{10} \times 1.0 \times (0.30 - 0.20) = 14 سینٹی میٹر ہے۔
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653📚🌊 Irrigation & Water Resources EngineeringCommand Areas: GCA vs CCA
The total area which can be economically irrigated from an irrigation system without considering the limitation of the quantity of water available
Explanation
Gross Command Area (GCA) is the total geographical area bounded within the drainage boundaries of an irrigation project that can be commanded/served economically by a canal system, including both culturable and unculturable lands.
کل کمانڈ ایریا (Gross Command Area - GCA) نہری نظام کے زیر احاطہ آنے والا مکمل جغرافیائی رقبہ ہے۔
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654📚📊 Construction Project ManagementProject S-Curve
Which of the following curves/line represents the total project cost versus time in the best way?
Explanation
In project management and earned value analysis, cumulative project expenditure/progress versus time follows an 'S-shaped curve' (S-curve), characterized by slow initial startup, rapid acceleration in middle stages, and tapering off toward project completion.
پروجیکٹ کی مجموعی لاگت اور وقت کے درمیان تعلق کو بہترین انداز میں ایس منحنی (S-shaped curve) کے ذریعے دکھایا جاتا ہے۔
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655📚🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsFluid Measurement Instruments
Match the following, instrument with its purpose:
Instrument: 1. Manometer, 2. Nozzle meter, 3. Pitot tube, 4. Hydrometer
Purpose: a. To measure the pressure at a point in a fluid, b. To measure velocity of flow of fluid, c. To measure the rate of flow of fluid, d. To measure the density of certain fluid
Explanation
Manometer = Pressure at a point (1-a), Flow Nozzle meter = Rate of flow / discharge (2-c), Pitot tube = Local velocity of flow (3-b), Hydrometer = Specific gravity / density of liquids (4-d). Match: 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d.
ہائیڈرولک آلات کا درست ملاپ: 1-a، 2-c، 3-b، 4-d ہے۔
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656📚🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Distribution Layouts: Grid Iron
Among the following water supply distribution system, which one is referred to as Reticulation system?
Explanation
The Grid Iron system (interlaced/reticulation network) features interconnected loops and mains without dead ends, allowing continuous multi-directional circulation.
گرڈ آئرن سسٹم (Grid Iron system) کو ریٹیکولیشن سسٹم بھی کہا جاتا ہے۔
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657📚General EnglishDigital Health & Government Initiatives
Which institution has launched the '100 Microsites Project'?
Explanation
The National Health Authority (NHA) launched the '100 Microsites Project' under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) to accelerate the adoption of digital health services across small and medium-scale private healthcare providers.
نیشنل ہیلتھ اتھارٹی (NHA) نے آیوشمان بھارت ڈیجیٹل مشن کے تحت '100 مائیکرو سائٹس پروجیکٹ' کا آغاز کیا۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
658📚General EnglishClimate Change & UNFCCC
Which country has been selected to host the "Loss and Damage" fund board aimed at supporting countries affected by climate change?
Explanation
The Philippines (Manila) was officially selected to host the Board of the 'Loss and Damage' Fund established under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) at COP28 to assist vulnerable nations facing climate disasters.
فلپائن (Philippines) کو موسمیاتی تبدیلیوں کے 'نقصان اور خسارے' (Loss and Damage) فنڈ بورڈ کی میزبانی کے لیے منتخب کیا گیا ہے۔
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659📚General EnglishStates & Union Territories
Which is the smallest union territory of India in terms of total area?
Explanation
Lakshadweep is the smallest Union Territory of India, comprising an archipelago of 36 islands with a total geographic area of just 32 sq km32\text{ sq km}.
رقبے کے لحاظ سے لکشادیپ (Lakshadweep - 32 مربع کلومیٹر) ہندوستان کا سب سے چھوٹا مرکز کے زیر انتظام علاقہ (UT) ہے۔
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660📚General EnglishForeign Travellers & Scholars
Who among the following Arab scholars studied Sanskrit and astronomy for a decade at Varanasi?
Explanation
Abu Rayhan al-Biruni (Alberuni), the polymath who accompanied Mahmud of Ghazni to India, studied Sanskrit language, Hindu scriptures, and Indian astronomy extensively in Varanasi and authored the monumental masterwork 'Kitab al-Hind' (Tahqiq ma li-l-Hind).
ابوریحان البیرونی (Alberuni) نے وارانسی میں سنسکرت اور ہندوستانی فلکیات کا گہرا مطالعہ کیا اور 'کتاب الہند' تصنیف کی۔
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661📚General EnglishIron & Steel Industry in India
India's first sponge iron plant is at
Explanation
India's first demonstration sponge iron plant (Sponge Iron India Limited - SIIL) was set up at Kothagudem (Telangana / Khammam) in 1980 with assistance from UNIDO and UNDP.
ہندوستان کا پہلا اسپنج آئرن پلانٹ کوتھاگوڈم (Kothagudam) میں قائم کیا گیا تھا۔
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662📚General EnglishWorld Sea Routes & Trade
Which is the busiest sea route in the world?
Explanation
The North Atlantic Sea Route (linking industrialized North-Eastern USA and Western Europe) is the busiest and most heavily trafficked maritime oceanic trade route in the world, carrying one-fourth of global foreign trade.
شمالی اوقیانوس کا سمندری راستہ (North Atlantic Route) دنیا کا سب سے مصروف ترین تجارتی بحری راستہ ہے۔
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663📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech
The boss said to him, "Please tell me what the old man said today."
Explanation
In indirect speech: 'said to him, Please' becomes 'requested him to', simple past 'said' backshifts to past perfect 'had said', and 'today' converts to 'that day'. Correct: "The boss requested him to tell him what the old man had said that day."
ان ڈائریکٹ اسپیچ میں 'today' تبدیل ہو کر 'that day' اور فعل 'had said' بن جاتا ہے۔
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664📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KHomophones
Fill in the blank with correct homophone:
We sat under the shade of the ______ tree.
Explanation
'Beech' is a large deciduous forest tree (Fagus sylvatica). 'Beach' refers to a sandy seashore.
درخت کی قسم کے لیے درست ہوموفون 'beech' (بیچ کا درخت) ہے۔
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665📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KHomophones
Fill in the blank with correct homophone:
The ______ thread was thrown away.
Explanation
'Knotty' means full of knots or tangled ('a knotty thread'). 'Naughty' means badly behaved.
الجھا ہوا یا گانٹھوں سے بھرا دھاگہ 'knotty thread' کہلاتا ہے۔
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666📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KSentence Rearrangement
In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. Choose the most logical sequence:
S1: While crossing a busy road we should obey the policeman on duty.
P: We should always cross the road at the zebra crossing.
Q: We must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear.
R: If there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right, then to the left and again to the right before crossing the road.
S: If the road is not clear we should wait.
S6: We should never run while crossing a road.
Explanation
Starting from general rule P (cross at zebra crossing) → Q (look to signal lights) → R (if no signal lights, look right-left-right) → S (if not clear, wait). Sequence: P-Q-R-S.
جملوں کی درست منطقی ترتیب P-Q-R-S (PQRS) ہے۔
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667📚Computer Knowledge & ReasoningLinear Diophantine Equations
A mango cost Rs. 7 each. An apple cost Rs. 5 each. If Rs. 38 are spent on these fruits, the number of mangoes purchased is
Explanation
Let mm be mangoes and aa be apples: 7m+5a=387m + 5a = 38. For integer values: If m=4  ⟹  7(4)+5a=28+5a=38  ⟹  5a=10  ⟹  a=2m = 4 \implies 7(4) + 5a = 28 + 5a = 38 \implies 5a = 10 \implies a = 2. Thus, 4 mangoes were purchased.
مساوات 7m+5a=387m + 5a = 38 میں جب m=4m = 4 رکھیں تو a=2a = 2 آتا ہے۔ یعنی آموں کی تعداد 4 ہے۔
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668📚Computer Knowledge & ReasoningFile Formats: Graphics & Images
PNG is a
Explanation
PNG (Portable Network Graphics) is a raster image graphics file format that supports lossless data compression and transparent backgrounds.
PNG (Portable Network Graphics) ایک تصویری فارمیٹ (image format) ہے۔
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669📚Computer Knowledge & ReasoningInput Devices & Wireless Peripherals
Wireless mouse communicates through
Explanation
A wireless mouse communicates with the computer receiver primarily via Radio Waves (typically 2.4 GHz2.4\text{ GHz} RF or Bluetooth protocol).
وائرلیس ماؤس کمپیوٹر سے ریڈیو لہروں (Radiowaves - 2.4 GHz RF) کے ذریعے رابطہ قائم کرتا ہے۔
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670📚Computer Knowledge & ReasoningComputer Viruses & Malware
______ gets installed and stays hidden in your computer's memory. It stays involved to the specific type of files which it infects.
Explanation
A Direct Action Virus (non-resident virus) installs itself, selects and infects specific targeted types of executable files (.exe/.com), and executes its payload when the infected program runs.
ڈائریکٹ ایکشن وائرس مخصوص فائلوں کو متاثر کرنے کے بعد چھپ جاتا ہے۔
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671📚Computer Knowledge & ReasoningDisplay Monitors & Pixels
How many color dots make up one color pixel on a screen?
Explanation
Each full-color pixel on a display monitor is composed of 3 primary color sub-pixel dots: Red, Green, and Blue (RGB).
اسکرین پر ایک کلر پکسل 3 رنگین ڈاٹس (سب پکسلز: ریڈ، گرین، بلیو - RGB) سے مل کر بنتا ہے۔
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672📚Computer Knowledge & ReasoningNetworking: OSI 7-Layer Model
Total number of layers in OSI model is
Explanation
The OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) reference model consists of exactly 7 layers: 1. Physical, 2. Data Link, 3. Network, 4. Transport, 5. Session, 6. Presentation, and 7. Application.
OSI ماڈل میں کل 7 تہیں (Layers) ہوتی ہیں۔
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673📚Computer Knowledge & ReasoningAgriculture & Digital Portals: e-NAM
The "e-NAM" platform in India is related to
Explanation
e-NAM (National Agriculture Market) is an innovative pan-India electronic trading portal launched by the Government of India to integrate existing APMC mandis into a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
e-NAM (قومی زرعی منڈی) پلیٹ فارم زرعی مارکیٹنگ اور اجناس کی آن لائن تجارت سے متعلق ہے۔
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674📚General EnglishBlood Relations
Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's mother". How is the woman related to this man?
Explanation
Mother's mother is maternal grandmother (Nani). The only son of grandmother is maternal uncle (Mama). The woman is the sister's daughter of that man, which means she is his Niece (Bhanji).
عورت کی والدہ کی والدہ کا اکلوتا بیٹا اس کا ماموں ہے۔ لہذا وہ عورت اس شخص کی بھانجی (Niece) ہے۔
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675📚General EnglishArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks with correct options.
He formed _____ close friendship with _____ group.
Explanation
'a close friendship' (singular countable indefinite relationship) with 'the group' (specific group of people). Correct: "He formed a close friendship with the group."
صحیح آرٹیکلز: 'a' close friendship with 'the' group (Option C)۔
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676📚General EnglishPunctuation
Choose a sentence with appropriate punctuation
Explanation
"I know what you want." is a direct declarative statement (not a question or exclamation), correctly punctuated with a simple period without internal unnecessary commas.
درست رموز اوقاف والا جملہ: "I know what you want." (Option B) ہے۔
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677📚General EnglishVocabulary & Confusing Words
Fill in the blank with appropriate word
He has a _____ for writing.
Explanation
'Flair' means a special natural talent, aptitude, or ability ("a flair for writing"). 'Flare' means a sudden bright burst of flame.
فطری صلاحیت اور ہنر کے لیے درست لفظ 'Flair' ہے: "He has a flair for writing."
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678📚General EnglishDatabase Management & File Extensions
What is the file extension for a Microsoft Access database?
Explanation
Modern Microsoft Access database files (from Access 2007 onwards) use the default file extension `.accdb` (while legacy versions used `.mdb`).
مائیکروسافٹ ایکسیس ڈیٹا بیس فائل کی معیاری ایکسٹینشن `.accdb` ہے۔
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679📚General EnglishNatural Disasters & Tropical Cyclones
Which country has been recently hit by tropical storm Idalia?
Explanation
Hurricane/Tropical Storm Idalia caused severe widespread flooding and destruction across western Cuba before making landfall as a major Category 3 hurricane in the Big Bend region of Florida, USA in late August 2023.
اگست 2023 میں سمندری طوفان ایڈالیا (Idalia) نے کیوبا (Cuba) اور امریکہ کو شدید متاثر کیا۔
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680📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KSeasons of Kashmir
Summer season in Kashmir & Ladakh valley is known as
Explanation
In the traditional Kashmiri six-season calendar, Summer (mid-May to mid-July) is called 'Grishm' (or Greeshm). (Spring is Sonth, Rainy season is Wahrat, Autumn is Harud, Winter is Wandah, and Severe Cold is Shishur).
کشمیر میں موسم گرما کو روایتی طور پر 'گریشم' (Grishm) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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681📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KStatement and Conclusions
Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.

Conclusions:
i) The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future.
ii) It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life.
Explanation
Statement directly implies that increasing population and dwindling resources will severely strain public infrastructure and living standards, making conclusion (ii) valid. Conclusion (i) contradicts the statement.
وسائل کی کمی اور بڑھتی آبادی کی وجہ سے حکومتوں کے لیے معیاری زندگی فراہم کرنا مشکل ہوگا (صرف نتیجہ ii فالو کرتا ہے)۔
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682📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KComputer Networking & Packet Switching
The internet uses are
Explanation
The Internet uses Packet Switching (TCP/IP), where data messages are broken down into discrete packets transmitted independently across network nodes and reassembled at the destination.
انٹرنیٹ پیکٹ سوئچنگ (Packet switching) ٹیکنالوجی کا استعمال کرتا ہے۔
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683📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityNetworking & Web Protocols
What does the acronym "URL" stand for in the context of the internet?
Explanation
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the standardized web address used to locate resources on the World Wide Web.
URL کا مکمل مطلب یونیفارم ریسورس لوکیٹر (Uniform Resource Locator) ہے۔
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684📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityProgramming Translators: Compilers
What is the primary purpose of a compiler in programming?
Explanation
A Compiler is a language translator that converts entire source code written in a high-level programming language (such as C, C++, Java) into executable machine code/binary object code.
کمپائلر کا بنیادی کام ہائی لیول پروگرامنگ کوڈ کو مشین لینگویج کوڈ میں ترجمہ کرنا ہے۔
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685📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."

Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. ("The modern-day student is extremely ________ with technology.")
Explanation
'Savvy' means proficient, knowledgeable, and experienced with practical understanding ("extremely tech-savvy / savvy with technology").
ٹیکنالوجی کی گہری معلومات کے لیے 'Savvy' (tech-savvy) کا لفظ درست ہے۔
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686📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."

Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. ("they do write, courtesy ________ affinity to various platforms...")
Explanation
The third-person plural possessive determiner 'their' is required to modify the noun 'affinity': "courtesy their affinity".
ملکیتی ضمیر 'their' کا استعمال درست ہے: "courtesy their affinity".
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687📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."

Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. ("However, one skill that has been ________ affected is listening skills.")
Explanation
'Thoroughly' (meaning deeply, severely, or completely) correctly intensifies the passive verb 'affected': "thoroughly affected".
شدید اثر انداز ہونے کے لیے ایڈورب 'Thoroughly' درست ہے: "thoroughly affected".
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688📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."

Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. ("They are extremely poor ________ listeners.")
Explanation
The passage contrasts poor 'active listeners' with the growing number of 'passive listeners' in the succeeding sentence.
فعال اور متوجہ سامعین کے لیے 'active listeners' کی اصطلاح استعمال ہوئی ہے۔
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689📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloze Test: Reading & Vocabulary
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"The modern-day student is extremely (1) with technology. They do read quite a bit because of social media. While their writing skills may not be top-notch, they do write, courtesy (2) affinity to various platforms on the internet. However, one skill that has been (3) affected is listening skills. They are extremely poor (4) listeners. If this issue is not addressed, what we may be heading to in the future is a huge chunk of people across the globe, with poor skills of listening, and a huge number of passive listeners. Researchers say that listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of (5) on the planet."

Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. ("listening is the prime ingredient for empathy and the world will be in extreme poverty in terms of the number of ________ on the planet.")
Explanation
Since listening is the prime ingredient for 'empathy', a lack of listening leads to a shortage of 'empathizers' (people who demonstrate empathy).
ہمدردی اور احساس (Empathy) رکھنے والے افراد کو 'Empathizers' کہا جاتا ہے۔
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690📚Basic Concepts of ComputersTime and Work
A can complete a task in 6 days, while B can complete the same task in 12 days. How many days will they take to complete the same task if they work together?
Explanation
Combined daily work =16+112=2+112=312=14= \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{12} = \frac{2+1}{12} = \frac{3}{12} = \frac{1}{4}. Time taken together =4 days= 4\text{ days}.
دونوں مل کر کام کو \frac{6 \times 12}{6 + 12} = \frac{72}{18} = 4 دن میں مکمل کریں گے۔
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691📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCoding-Decoding
In a code language if POSE is coded as OQNPRTDF, then the word TYPE will be coded as
Explanation
Each letter is coded by its immediate preceding and succeeding letters in the alphabet: P → O, Q; O → N, P; S → R, T; E → D, F. For TYPE: T → S, U; Y → X, Z; P → O, Q; E → D, F   ⟹  \implies SUXZOQDF.
ہر حرف کا کوڈ اس سے پہلے اور بعد والا حرف ہے: TYPE کا کوڈ SUXZOQDF بنتا ہے۔
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692📚Basic Concepts of ComputersHistory of the Internet & WWW
Inventor of www (World wide web) is
Explanation
Sir Tim Berners-Lee, a British computer scientist, invented the World Wide Web (WWW) in 1989 while working at CERN.
ورلڈ وائیڈ ویب (WWW) کے موجد سر ٹم برنرز لی (Tim Berners Lee) ہیں۔
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693📚Basic Concepts of ComputersPage Layout & Orientation
Which of the following is an example of page orientation?
Explanation
Page orientation in word processing and desktop publishing refers to the direction in which a document is displayed or printed, with the two standard options being Portrait (vertical) and Landscape (horizontal).
پیج اورینٹیشن (Page orientation) کی دو اہم مثالیں پورٹریٹ اور لینڈ اسکیپ (Landscape) ہیں۔
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694📚Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Word Shortcuts
Which of the following is the shortcut key to open a 'New Blank' document in MS-Word?
Explanation
In Microsoft Word (and Office suite), pressing Ctrl+N\text{Ctrl} + \text{N} opens a new blank document window.
ایم ایس ورڈ میں نئی خالی دستاویز کھولنے کی شارٹ کٹ کی Ctrl+N\text{Ctrl} + \text{N} ہے۔
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695📚Basic Concepts of ComputersNetworking Protocols: IP
What does IP stand for?
Explanation
In computer networking and internet architecture, IP stands for Internet Protocol (responsible for routing packets across network boundaries).
انٹرنیٹ میں IP کا مطلب انٹرنیٹ پروٹوکول (Internet Protocol) ہے۔
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696📚General EnglishModals: Past Obligation
Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:
We ‾\underline{\hspace{1.5cm}} have locked the gate. Then the dog wouldn't have got out
Explanation
'Ought to have + past participle' expresses past moral obligation or duty that was not fulfilled: "We ought to have locked the gate. Then the dog wouldn't have got out."
ماضی کی اخلاقی ذمہ داری کے لیے 'ought to' کا استعمال درست ہے: "We ought to have locked the gate."
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697📚General EnglishArticles (A vs An)
Fill in the blank using suitable articles:
Sudha is studying in ‾\underline{\hspace{1cm}} Canadian University. From there, it will take ‾\underline{\hspace{1cm}} hour for her to reach the airport.
Explanation
'Canadian' begins with a consonant sound (/k/), taking article 'a'. 'Hour' begins with a silent 'h' and vowel sound (/aʊər/), taking article 'an'. Correct: "a Canadian University... an hour".
'Canadian' کے ساتھ 'a' اور خاموش 'h' والے لفظ 'hour' کے ساتھ 'an' کا استعمال درست ہے۔ (a, an)
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698📚General EnglishSynonyms
Select the Synonyms of the word :
Gallant
Explanation
'Gallant' means brave, heroic, chivalrous, or courageous. Its direct synonym is 'Valiant'. ('Coward', 'craven', and 'timid' are antonyms).
'Gallant' (بہادر / شجاع) کا ہم معنی لفظ 'Valiant' ہے۔
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699📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.
She stood ‾\underline{\hspace{1cm}} the window, lost in thought ‾\underline{\hspace{1cm}} her future plans for the upcoming year.
Explanation
'Stood by the window' (near/next to) and 'lost in thought about her future plans'. Correct prepositions: "by, about".
کھڑکی کے پاس کھڑے ہونے کے لیے 'by' اور سوچ کے لیے 'about' درست پریپوزیشنز ہیں (by, about)۔
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700📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.
The team worked tirelessly ‾\underline{\hspace{1cm}} the guidance of their coach to improve their performance ‾\underline{\hspace{1cm}} the challenging season.
Explanation
Standard idiomatic English uses 'under the guidance of' and 'during the challenging season'. Correct: "under, during".
رہنمائی کے لیے 'under the guidance' اور مدت کے لیے 'during the season' درست ہے۔ (under, during)
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701📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KInternet & E-Commerce
Which of the following is NOT an e-commerce website?
Explanation
Facebook is a social networking service, whereas AJIO (fashion retail), Amazon (general merchandise), and BookMyShow (online ticketing) are commercial e-commerce transaction platforms.
فیس بک (Facebook) ایک سوشل میڈیا نیٹ ورک ہے، ای کامرس ویب سائٹ نہیں۔
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702📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KGenerations of Computers
Match the computer generation with its corresponding characteristic.
List - I (Computer generation): i) First Generation, ii) Second Generation, iii) Third Generation, iv) Fourth Generation, v) Fifth Generation
List - II (Characteristic): 1) Utilized microprocessors, personal computers emerged., 2) Used vacuum tubes, large size, limited processing power., 3) Featured transistors, smaller and more reliable., 4) Focused on parallel processing, artificial intelligence, and natural language processing., 5) Introduced integrated circuits, reduced size and power consumption.
Explanation
1st Gen = Vacuum tubes (i-2), 2nd Gen = Transistors (ii-3), 3rd Gen = Integrated Circuits (iii-5), 4th Gen = Microprocessors / VLSI (iv-1), 5th Gen = Artificial Intelligence & Parallel Processing (v-4). Correct matching: i-2, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1, v-4.
کمپیوٹر کی نسلوں کا درست ملاپ: i-2، ii-3، iii-5، iv-1، v-4 ہے۔
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703📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KOperating System & Device Drivers
Consider the following statements about Device Driver.
1. It a hardware device that is attached to a computer.
2. It acts as a translator between the hardware device and operating systems or applications that use it.
3. It instructs computer on how to communicate with the device by translating the operating system's instructions into a language that a device can understand in order to perform the necessary task.
4. Examples of device driver: printer driver, display driver, USB driver, sound card driver, motherboard driver, ROM driver, etc.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because a device driver is a specialized software program, NOT a hardware device. Statements 2, 3, and 4 correctly describe its role as a translator/driver program and list valid driver types. Correct: 2, 3 and 4.
ڈیوائس ڈرائیور ایک سافٹ ویئر پروگرام ہے ہارڈ ویئر نہیں۔ اس لیے بیانات 2، 3 اور 4 درست ہیں۔
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704📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KKeyboard Shortcuts in Windows/Office
Match List - I with List - II
List - I (Command): i) Replace, ii) Insert Hyperlink, iii) Paste, iv) Cut
List - II (Shortcut keys): 1) Ctrl+K, 2) Ctrl+H, 3) Ctrl+X, 4) Ctrl+V
Explanation
Replace = Ctrl+H (i-2), Insert Hyperlink = Ctrl+K (ii-1), Paste = Ctrl+V (iii-4), Cut = Ctrl+X (iv-3). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3.
کی بورڈ شارٹ کٹس کا درست ملاپ: i-2، ii-1، iii-4، iv-3 ہے۔
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705📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KMicrosoft Office Suite: MS Access
Which of the following is a primary feature of Microsoft Access?
Explanation
Microsoft Access is a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) that combines the relational Jet/ACE database engine with a graphical user interface and software-development tools for storing, managing, and querying structured data.
مائیکروسافٹ ایکسیس ایک ڈیٹا بیس مینجمنٹ سسٹم (RDBMS) ہے جو ڈیٹا بیس بنانے، منظم کرنے اور سوالات (Queries) چلانے کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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706📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KEmail Protocols: POP3, IMAP, SMTP
Which of the following statements about email protocols and services is NOT true?
Explanation
Statement A is NOT true: POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) downloads email messages to the local device and typically deletes them from the mail server. IMAP is the protocol that manages emails directly on the server with multi-device sync.
بیان A غلط ہے کیونکہ POP3 پیغامات کو ڈاؤن لوڈ کرتا ہے جبکہ سرور پر براہ راست رسائی اور سنکرونائزیشن کا کام IMAP کرتا ہے۔
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707📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."

Question:
Why was the Indian friend plunged in despair?
Explanation
As stated in the passage: "He felt that because the holiday was over, all happiness was over until the world ended."
پیراگراف کے مطابق ہندوستانی دوست کا خیال تھا کہ چھٹیاں ختم ہونے کے بعد اب ساری خوشیاں ختم ہو چکی ہیں۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
708📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."

Question:
What is the author's intention in the passage?
Explanation
The author explicitly describes how their behavior on parting was 'absolutely different' to contrast the emotional Indian temperament with the stoic English reserve.
مصنف کا مقصد ہندوستانی اور انگریزی مزاج اور ردعمل کے فرق کو واضح کرنا تھا۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
709📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."

Question:
What is the Continent in the context of the passage?
Explanation
In British English idiom and historical literature, 'the Continent' refers to mainland Europe.
برطانوی انگریزی میں 'the Continent' سے مراد سرزمین یورپ (Europe) ہے۔
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710📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."

Question:
What does 'But in me the Englishman came out strong' imply?
Explanation
It implies that the author exhibited the traditional English 'stiff upper lip' character—pragmatic, undemonstrative, and unemotional in the face of parting.
اس کا مطلب یہ ہے کہ مصنف کے اندر روایتی انگریزی مزاج (ضبط اور جذبات کو قابو میں رکھنا) غالب آ گیا۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
711📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KIdioms & Phrases
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."

Question:
What does the author mean by 'buck up'?
Explanation
'Buck up' is an informal English idiom meaning to cheer up, take heart, and become more encouraged or positive.
'Buck up' کا مطلب حوصلہ بلند کرنا یا خوش ہونا (Cheer up) ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
712📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KTribes of India
Which of the following statements related to tribes in India are correct?
Explanation
The Tharu tribal community lives across the Terai lowlands of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh. (Gaddi pastoralists are primarily associated with HP/J&K, but statement A is the standard factual classification).
تھارو قبائل (Tharu tribes) اتر پردیش اور اتراکھنڈ کے ترائی علاقوں میں پائے جاتے ہیں۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
713📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityInternational Borders of India
Which of the following States of India does not have a common border with Myanmar?
Explanation
Four Indian States share the 1,643 km1,643\text{ km} border with Myanmar: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram. Assam does NOT share a border with Myanmar.
آسام (Assam) کی سرحد میانمار کے ساتھ نہیں ملتی، جبکہ اروناچل، ناگالینڈ، منی پور اور میزورم کی سرحدیں ملتی ہیں۔
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714📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityCoastal Plains of India
The name of the coast of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh is
Explanation
The Coromandel Coast represents the south-eastern coastal plain region of the Indian subcontinent between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal along Tamil Nadu and southern Andhra Pradesh.
تامل ناڈو اور آندھرا پردیش کے ساحلی پٹی کو کورومنڈیل کوسٹ (Coromandel Coast) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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715📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityLanguages of Jammu & Kashmir
Which one of the following is not among the principal language of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Monpa is a Tibeto-Burman language spoken by the Monpa people of Arunachal Pradesh. Urdu, Gojri, and Kashmiri (Koshur) are prominent regional languages of J&K.
مونپا (Monpa) اروناچل پردیش کی زبان ہے، جموں و کشمیر کی نہیں۔
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716📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityLakes of Jammu & Kashmir
Which is the deepest lake in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Manasbal Lake, located in the Ganderbal district of Kashmir, is the deepest lake in Jammu and Kashmir and India, reaching maximum depths of approximately 13 metres13\text{ metres} (43 ft43\text{ ft}).
مانسبل جھیل (Manasbal Lake - ضلع گاندربل) جموں و کشمیر کی سب سے گہری جھیل ہے۔
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717📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityClimate Extremes in India & Ladakh
‾\underline{\hspace{1.5cm}} is the coldest inhabited place in India.
Explanation
Drass, situated in the Kargil district of Ladakh at an altitude of 3,280 m3,280\text{ m}, is famously known as the 'Gateway to Ladakh' and is the coldest inhabited place in India (and second coldest permanently inhabited place in the world after Oymyakon, Siberia).
دراس (Drass - لداخ) ہندوستان کا سب سے سرد ترین آباد مقام ہے۔
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718📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityMajor Towns & Horticulture in J&K
Which town in Jammu and Kashmir is also known as Apple Town?
Explanation
Sopore in Baramulla district is historically referred to as the 'Apple Town of Kashmir' and hosts Asia's second-largest fruit mandi (Shopian is known as the 'Apple Bowl').
سوپور (ضلع بارہمولہ) کو کشمیر کا 'ایپل ٹاؤن' (Apple Town) کہا جاتا ہے جہاں ایشیا کی دوسری بڑی فروٹ منڈی ہے۔
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719📚Basic Concepts of ComputersProfit and Loss
By selling an article for Rs. 960 a man incurs a loss of 4%; what was the cost price?
Explanation
Cost Price=Selling Price1−Loss%=9601−0.04=9600.96=Rs. 1000\text{Cost Price} = \frac{\text{Selling Price}}{1 - \text{Loss}\%} = \frac{960}{1 - 0.04} = \frac{960}{0.96} = \text{Rs. } 1000.
لاگت کی قیمت = \frac{960}{0.96} = 1000 روپے ہے۔
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720📚Basic Concepts of ComputersDirection Sense Test
A man goes 5 km East, then he turns right and goes 4 km, then he turns left and goes 5 km. Which direction is he facing now?
Explanation
Starts East → Turns right (faces South) → Turns left (faces East). He is currently facing East.
مشرق کی طرف روانہ ہوا، دائیں مڑ کر جنوب اور پھر بائیں مڑ کر دوبارہ مشرق (East) کی طرف منہ کیے ہوئے ہے۔
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721📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCoding-Decoding
If in a certain code language 'NEETA' is written as 'MVVGZ' , then what word will be written for 'IZHSNR' ?
Explanation
The rule is opposite alphabet letters: N ↔ M, E ↔ V, T ↔ G, A ↔ Z. For code IZHSNR: I ↔ R, Z ↔ A, H ↔ S, S ↔ H, N ↔ M, R ↔ I   ⟹  \implies RASHMI.
الٹ حروف کے اصول سے IZHSNR کا اصل لفظ RASHMI بنتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
722📚Basic Concepts of ComputersBlood Relations
Pointing to a woman in the photograph, Rajesh said, "The only daughter of her grandfather is my wife". How is Rajesh related to that woman?
Explanation
The only daughter of the woman's paternal grandfather is her mother. If her mother is Rajesh's wife, then Rajesh is her Father.
عورت کے دادا کی اکلوتی بیٹی اس کی ماں ہے۔ چونکہ وہ راجیش کی بیوی ہے، اس لیے راجیش اس عورت کا باپ (Father) ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
723📚Basic Concepts of ComputersBlood Relations
Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's mother". How is the woman related to the man?
Explanation
Mother's mother is maternal grandmother (Nani). Her only son is maternal uncle (Mama). The woman is the niece (Bhanji) of the man.
عورت کے نانی کا اکلوتا بیٹا اس کا ماموں ہے، لہذا وہ عورت اس شخص کی بھانجی (Niece) ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
724📚Basic Concepts of ComputersEmail Management
The ‾\underline{\hspace{1.5cm}} folder retains copies of email messages have started but are not yet ready to be send.
Explanation
The Drafts folder in email clients automatically saves unfinished or composed emails that have not yet been sent.
ای میل میں غیر بھیجے گئے اور ادھورے پیغامات 'Drafts' فولڈر میں محفوظ رہتے ہیں۔
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725📚Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Excel Macros & VBA
‾\underline{\hspace{1.5cm}} is the programming language used to write a Macro in MS Excel.
Explanation
Macros in Microsoft Excel are written and edited using VBA (Visual Basic for Applications) / VB Script.
ایم ایس ایکسل میں میکروز لکھنے کے لیے VBA / VB Script کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
726📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCybersecurity: Firewalls
What is computer firewall?
Explanation
A Firewall is a network security system (software or hardware) that monitors, filters, and blocks unauthorized incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
فائر وال ایک سیکیورٹی سسٹم ہے جو انٹرنیٹ نیٹ ورک اور کمپیوٹر کو غیر مجاز رسائی اور خطرات سے محفوظ رکھتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
727📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMachine Design: Gear Tooth Profiles
What is the most employed tooth profile in gear drives for power transmission?
Explanation
The Involute profile is universally preferred for power transmission gears because it maintains a constant velocity ratio even if center distance varies slightly and is easy to manufacture with straight-sided hobs/cutters.
پاور ٹرانسمیشن کے لیے انوولیوٹ (Involute) ٹوتھ پروفائل سب سے زیادہ استعمال ہوتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
728📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Casting Defects
Misruns and cold shuts in sand casting arise from:
Explanation
Misruns (incomplete cavity filling) and cold shuts (imperfect fusion of two metal streams) occur due to low pouring temperature, insufficient fluidity, or slow pouring rates.
کاسٹنگ میں مس رنز اور کولڈ شٹس پگھلی ہوئی دھات کا درجہ حرارت کم (Lower pouring temperature) ہونے کی وجہ سے پیدا ہوتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
729📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMaterial Science: Strain Hardening & Dislocations
Assertion-Reasoning:
Assertion (A): Plastic deformation in metals and alloys is a permanent deformation under load. It is useful in strengthening the products obtained via cold rolling process.
Reason (R): Plastic or permanent deformation in metal/alloys causes an increase in dislocation density.
Explanation
Both statements are true: Plastic deformation increases dislocation density from ∼106 cm−2\sim 10^6\text{ cm}^{-2} to 1011 cm−210^{11}\text{ cm}^{-2}. Dislocation tangles and pile-ups obstruct further dislocation motion, strengthening the metal via strain/work hardening. Thus, R correctly explains A.
دونوں بیانات درست ہیں اور R بیان A کی درست وضاحت ہے کیونکہ پلاسٹک کی خرابی ڈسلوکیشن ڈینسٹی بڑھا کر میٹل کو مضبوط کرتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
730📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Technology: Chvorinov's Rule
The volume of a cube with side 'll' and the volume of a sphere with radius 'rr' are equal. Both the cube and sphere are composed of the same material and are being cast. What is the ratio of the solidification time of the cube to that of the sphere?
Explanation
According to Chvorinov's Rule: ts∝(VA)2t_s \propto \left(\frac{V}{A}\right)^2. Since Vcube=VsphereV_{cube} = V_{sphere}, the ratio of solidification times is \frac{t_{cube}}{t_{sphere}} = \left(\frac{A_{sphere}}{A_{cube}} ight)^2 = \left(\frac{4\pi r^2}{6 l^2}\right)^2 = \left(\frac{4\pi}{6}\right)^2 \left(\frac{r}{l}\right)^4.
چورینوف کے قانون کے تحت جمنے کے وقت کا تناسب: (4π6)2(rl)4\left(\frac{4\pi}{6}\right)^{2}\left(\frac{r}{l}\right)^{4} حاصل ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
731📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMetrology & Inspection: Optical Flats
Of what material are optical flats typically made?
Explanation
High-precision optical flats used for light-wave interferometry surface flatness testing are typically manufactured from high-purity fused silica (Quartz) due to its near-zero thermal expansion coefficient and exceptional hardness.
آپٹیکل فلیٹس عام طور پر کوارٹز (Quartz) سے بنائے جاتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
732📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringEngineering Mechanics: Circular Motion
Water in a bucket is whirled in a vertical circle with a string attached to it. The water does NOT fall even when the bucket is inverted at the top of its path. This is due to:
Explanation
At the topmost point of a vertical circle, the condition for water not to fall out is that the downward gravitational force must be balanced or exceeded by centrifugal reaction, so mg≤mv2rmg \le \frac{mv^2}{r} (mgmg is NOT greater than mv2r\frac{mv^2}{r}).
پانی اس لیے نہیں گرتا کیونکہ کشش ثقل کی قوت سینٹری فیوگل قوت سے زیادہ نہیں ہوتی (mgmg is NOT greater than mv2r\frac{mv^2}{r})۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
733📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: 5S Lean Manufacturing
Arrange the following steps in order to eliminate waste and enhance efficiency in lean manufacturing:
a. Seiso
b. Shitsuke
c. Seiri
d. Seiketsu
e. Seiton
Explanation
The 5S methodology sequence is: 1. Seiri (Sort - c), 2. Seiton (Set in order - e), 3. Seiso (Shine - a), 4. Seiketsu (Standardize - d), 5. Shitsuke (Sustain - b). Correct sequence: c, e, a, d, b.
5S طریقہ کار کی درست ترتیب: 1. سیری (c)، 2. سیتون (e)، 3. سیسو (a)، 4. سیکیتسو (d)، 5. شیتسوکے (b) یعنی c, e, a, d, b ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
734📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: AutoCAD Commands
By which of the following command one can draw a rectangle in AutoCAD?
Explanation
In AutoCAD software, the command shortcut 'REC' (or RECTANG) is used to draw rectangles. (CO = Copy, ARC = Arc, POL = Polygon).
آٹو کیڈ میں مستطیل (Rectangle) بنانے کے لیے 'REC' کمانڈ کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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735📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMachine Design: Clutches vs Couplings
Which of the following is correct?
Explanation
A clutch is a temporary disengageable mechanical connector that can connect or disconnect the driving and driven shafts at will while the prime mover is running. A coupling permanently connects two shafts.
کلچ (Clutch) چلتی ہوئی حالت میں دو شافٹوں کو جوڑنے اور الگ کرنے کی صلاحیت رکھتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
736📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringStrength of Materials: Mohr's Circle of Stress
Mohr's circle model is used to compute:
Explanation
Mohr's Circle is a graphical 2D representation used in mechanics of materials to determine the state of stress (normal and shear stresses) acting on any arbitrary inclined plane at a given point in a loaded structural member.
موہر سرکل (Mohr's circle) کسی نقطے پر مختلف زاویوں پر تناؤ کی حالت (State of stress) معلوم کرنے کے لیے استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
737📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringStrength of Materials: Principal Stresses
The cross-sectional area of a rectangular bar is 10000 mm210000\text{ mm}^2 and it is subjected to an axial load of 20 kN. What is the normal stress on a section inclined at an angle of 30∘30^\circ with normal cross-section of the bar?
Explanation
Axial stress σx=PA=20000 N10000 mm2=2 N/mm2\sigma_x = \frac{P}{A} = \frac{20000\text{ N}}{10000\text{ mm}^2} = 2\text{ N/mm}^2. Normal stress on plane inclined at θ=30∘\theta = 30^\circ to normal cross section: σθ=σxcos⁡2θ=2×cos⁡2(30∘)=2×(32)2=2×34=1.5 N/mm2\sigma_\theta = \sigma_x \cos^2\theta = 2 \times \cos^2(30^\circ) = 2 \times \left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)^2 = 2 \times \frac{3}{4} = 1.5\text{ N/mm}^2.
ترچھے سیکشن پر نارمل اسٹریس σθ=2×cos⁡2(30∘)=1.5 N/mm2\sigma_\theta = 2 \times \cos^2(30^\circ) = 1.5\text{ N/mm}^2 ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
738📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringFluid Mechanics: Couette Flow
What will be the velocity distribution or profile when a fluid is filled between two parallel plates (top and bottom) in which the top plate is moving with a constant velocity V and the bottom plate is fixed?
Explanation
This is simple planar Couette flow governed by d2udy2=0\frac{d^2 u}{dy^2} = 0. Integrating with no-slip boundary conditions gives a linear velocity profile u(y)=Vyhu(y) = V \frac{y}{h}.
کوئٹ فلو (Couette flow) میں متوازی پلیٹوں کے درمیان سیال کی رفتار لکیری (Linear) ہوتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
739📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Technology: Welding Joints
In single V-butt welds, the angle between edges is:
Explanation
In standard single V-groove butt welding joints, the included groove angle between the prepared plate edges typically ranges from 60∘60^\circ to 70∘70^\circ to ensure complete joint penetration.
سنگل وی بٹ ویلڈنگ میں کناروں کے درمیان کا زاویہ 60∘60^\circ سے 70∘70^\circ رکھا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
740📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Investment Casting
The pattern used in investment casting is:
Explanation
Investment casting (also known as the lost-wax casting process) utilizes patterns made of Wax (or expandable polystyrene) which melt and drain out when the ceramic shell mold is heated.
انویسٹمنٹ کاسٹنگ (Lost wax process) میں موم (Wax) کے پیٹرن استعمال کیے جاتے ہیں۔
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741📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Evaporative Pattern Casting
While using the disposable pattern, the metal should be poured:
Explanation
In full-mold / evaporative / disposable pattern casting (lost foam), molten metal must be poured rapidly to vaporize the foam pattern completely and prevent premature freezing or entrapment of pyrolysis residues.
ڈسپوزیبل پیٹرن کاسٹنگ میں پگھلی ہوئی دھات کو انتہائی تیزی سے (Very rapidly) ڈالا جانا چاہیے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
742📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering & Automation
The word automation leads to:
Explanation
Automation involves the integration of self-operating mechanical and electronic controls to increase production rates, assist/substitute human operators in hazardous tasks, and improve overall factory productivity.
آٹومیشن سے پیداوار میں اضافہ اور مشینوں کے ذریعے انسانی کاموں کی انجام دہی ممکن ہوتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
743📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: Demand Forecasting
In a static environment, forecasting future is:
Explanation
Passive forecasting is applied in a static/stable operating environment where future patterns are assumed to follow past trends without substantial active strategic intervention.
غیر متحرک اور مستحکم ماحول میں پیش گوئی کرنے کے عمل کو غیر فعال پیش گوئی (Passive forecasting) کہا جاتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
744📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringProduction Planning: Scheduling Terminology
Time taken for the job from its arrival to the system until its departure is:
Explanation
Flow Time is defined as the total elapsed time a job spends in the production system from its moment of arrival until its completion and departure (including waiting and processing times).
نظام میں آمد سے لے کر روانگی تک جاب کے ذریعے لیے گئے کل وقت کو فلو ٹائم (Flow time) کہتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
745📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringPower Plant Engineering: Rankine Cycle
In a Rankine cycle, the enthalpies at turbine entry and outlet are 3159 kJ/kg3159\text{ kJ/kg} and 2187 kJ/kg2187\text{ kJ/kg}, respectively. If the specific pump work is 2 kJ/kg2\text{ kJ/kg}, the specific steam consumption (in kg/kWh) of the cycle based on net output is:
Explanation
Turbine work wt=h1−h2=3159−2187=972 kJ/kgw_t = h_1 - h_2 = 3159 - 2187 = 972\text{ kJ/kg}. Net work wnet=wt−wp=972−2=970 kJ/kgw_{net} = w_t - w_p = 972 - 2 = 970\text{ kJ/kg}. Specific Steam Consumption SSC=3600 kJ/kWhwnet=3600970≈3.71 kg/kWhSSC = \frac{3600\text{ kJ/kWh}}{w_{net}} = \frac{3600}{970} \approx 3.71\text{ kg/kWh}.
خالص کام wnet=970 kJ/kgw_{net} = 970\text{ kJ/kg}۔ مخصوص بھاپ کی کھپت SSC=3600970=3.71 kg/kWhSSC = \frac{3600}{970} = 3.71\text{ kg/kWh} ہے۔
2023JKSSBPublic Works / Mechanical Engineering Department
746📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringFluid Mechanics: Hydrostatic Forces
The total pressure on a horizontally immersed surface (of surface area AA) with its centre of gravity at a depth xˉ\bar{x} from liquid surface in a liquid of specific weight ω\omega is:
Explanation
The total hydrostatic pressure force on a submerged planar surface of area AA immersed at centroid depth xˉ\bar{x} in a liquid of specific weight ω=ρg\omega = \rho g is F=ωAxˉF = \omega A \bar{x}.
ہائیڈرو اسٹیٹک پریشر فورس کا فارمولا F=ωAxˉF = \omega A \bar{x} ہے۔
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747📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringHydraulic Machines: Hydraulic Turbines
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I: P. Propeller, Q. Francis turbine, R. Kaplan turbine, S. Pelton turbine
List-II: 1. Inward flow reaction, 2. Tangential flow impulse, 3. Axial flow reaction with fixed vanes, 4. Axial flow reaction with adjustable vanes
Explanation
Propeller Turbine = Axial flow reaction with fixed vanes (P-3); Francis Turbine = Mixed / Inward radial flow reaction (Q-1); Kaplan Turbine = Axial flow reaction with adjustable vanes (R-4); Pelton Turbine = Tangential flow impulse (S-2). Correct matching: P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2.
ہائیڈرولک ٹربائنز کا درست ملاپ: P-3، Q-1، R-4، S-2 ہے۔
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748📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Casting Defects
Match the casting defects (Group A) with the probable causes (Group B):
Group A: 1. Cold Shut, 2. Shrinkage, 3. Blow holes, 4. Hot tears
Group B: P. Wide range of solidification temperature / contraction resistance, Q. Low permeability of the sand mould, R. Volumetric contraction both in liquid and solid stage, S. Improper fusion of two streams of liquid metal
Explanation
Cold Shut = Improper fusion of liquid streams (1-S); Blow holes = Trapped gases due to low mould permeability (3-Q); Shrinkage = Volumetric contraction during freezing (2-R); Hot tears = Severe thermal contraction stresses / wide solidification range (4-P). Match: 1-S, 3-Q, 2-R, 4-P.
کاسٹنگ کے نقائص کا درست ملاپ: 1-S، 3-Q، 2-R، 4-P ہے۔
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749📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Product-Process Mapping
Match the following products with preferred manufacturing processes:
Group A (Products): I. Rails, II. Engine crankshaft, III. Aluminium channels, IV. PET water bottles
Group B (Manufacturing Processes): P. Blow molding, Q. Extrusion, R. Forging, S. Rolling
Explanation
Railway Rails = Hot Rolling (I-S); Engine Crankshaft = Drop Forging (II-R); Aluminium Channels = Forward Hot Extrusion (III-Q); PET Water Bottles = Stretch Blow Molding (IV-P). Match: I-S, II-R, III-Q, IV-P.
مصنوعات اور مینوفیکچرنگ پروسیسز کا درست ملاپ: I-S، II-R، III-Q، IV-P ہے۔
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750📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Gating Systems
A gating ratio 1:2:4 is used to design the gating system for magnesium alloy casting. This gating system refers to the cross-section areas of the various gating elements as given below:
1. Down sprue
2. Runner bar
3. Ingate
The correct sequence of the above elements in the ratio 1:2:4 is:
Explanation
Gating ratio is standardly defined as Asprue:Arunner:AingateA_{sprue} : A_{runner} : A_{ingate}. An unpressurized ratio of 1:2:4 corresponds directly to 1 (Down sprue) : 2 (Runner bar) : 3 (Ingate).
گیٹنگ ریشو As:Ar:Ag=1:2:4A_s : A_r : A_g = 1:2:4 کا مطلب ہے ڈاؤن اسپرو، رنر بار اور ان گیٹ (1، 2 اور 3)۔
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751📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering: Group Technology & Cellular Manufacturing
Consider the following statements:
P. Computer aided process planning (CAPP) takes input from material requirement plan (MRP).
Q. Production flow analysis helps in work cell formation.
R. Group technology takes input from choice of machining or cutting parameters.
Among the above statements, the correct one(s) is (are):
Explanation
Production Flow Analysis (PFA) developed by Burbidge analyzes routing sheets to group part families and machines into manufacturing work cells for cellular manufacturing. Thus, statement Q is correct.
پروڈکشن فلو اینالائسس (PFA) مینوفیکچرنگ ورک سیلز کی تشکیل میں مدد دیتا ہے (Q درست ہے)۔
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752📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMaterial Science: Polymers & Plastics
Which of the following is an example of a thermoplastic?
Explanation
Acetal (Polyoxymethylene / POM / Delrin) is a high-performance engineering thermoplastic. Melamine, Epoxide (Epoxy), and Urethane (Polyurethane resins) are thermosetting polymers.
ایسیٹل (Acetal / POM) ایک تھرمو پلاسٹک پولیمر ہے، جبکہ باقی تھرموسیٹنگ پولیمرز ہیں۔
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753📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringThermodynamics: Gas Turbine Brayton Cycle
The Brayton cycle is commonly used in:
Explanation
The Brayton (or Joule) cycle is the theoretical thermodynamic operating cycle for open and closed-loop Gas Turbine power plants and jet propulsion aircraft engines.
برائٹن سائیکل (Brayton cycle) گیس ٹربائنز اور جیٹ انجنوں میں کام کرنے والا بنیادی تھرموڈائنامک سائیکل ہے۔
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754📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringThermodynamics: Second Law Statements
The Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that:
Explanation
The Kelvin-Planck statement establishes that it is impossible for any cyclic heat engine to continuously extract heat from a single thermal reservoir and convert it completely into equivalent mechanical work without rejecting some heat to a lower-temperature sink.
کیلون پلانک بیان کے تحت کوئی بھی سائیکلک انجن بغیر حرارت خارج کیے مکمل طور پر حرارت کو کام میں تبدیل نہیں کر سکتا۔
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755📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringPower Plant: Condensers
The purpose of the condenser in a Rankine cycle is to:
Explanation
The condenser in a steam power plant condenses the low-pressure exhaust steam leaving the steam turbine into liquid water condensate at constant pressure so that it can be efficiently pumped back into the steam boiler.
رینکن سائیکل میں کنڈینسر کا مقصد ٹربائن سے خارج ہونے والی بھاپ کو ٹھنڈا کر کے مائع پانی میں تبدیل کرنا ہے۔
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756📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Arc Welding
TIG welding stands for:
Explanation
TIG welding stands for Tungsten Inert Gas welding (also designated Gas Tungsten Arc Welding or GTAW), which uses a non-consumable tungsten electrode and an inert shielding gas (Argon/Helium).
TIG ویلڈنگ کا مکمل نام ٹنگسٹن انرٹ گیس (Tungsten Inert Gas) ویلڈنگ ہے۔
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757📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringMaterial Science: Imperfections & Grain Boundaries
The term "grain boundary" refers to the boundary between:
Explanation
A grain boundary is a 2D planar interface defect separating two adjacent crystallites (grains) of the same phase having different crystallographic spatial orientations in a polycrystalline material.
گرین باؤنڈری (Grain boundary) پولی کرسٹلائن میٹل میں ملحقہ کرسٹل گرینز کے درمیان کی سرحد کو کہتے ہیں۔
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758📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing Processes: Casting Defects
A common defect in casting caused by improper mold compaction is called:
Explanation
Improper/uneven mould compaction and ramming leads to localized sand permeability variations, causing gas entrapment, pinholes, and mould surface porosity defects.
مولڈ کی نامناسب کمپیکشن کے باعث گیسوں کے پھنس جانے سے پوروسٹی (Porosity) کا نقص پیدا ہوتا ہے۔
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759📚⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: Fundamentals
CAM refers to:
Explanation
CAM stands for Computer-Aided Manufacturing, which uses specialized software and automated computer-controlled machinery (CNC/DNC) to plan, manage, and execute manufacturing operations.
CAM کا مطلب کمپیوٹر ایڈیڈ مینوفیکچرنگ (Computer-Aided Manufacturing) ہے۔
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760📚General Awareness & ScienceEighth Schedule Languages
At present, how many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Explanation
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India currently lists 22 official regional languages (originally 14, with additions via 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
ہندوستانی آئین کے آٹھویں شیڈول میں فی الوقت 22 سرکاری زبانیں شامل ہیں۔
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761📚Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages
The present ages of Aman and Nina are 59 and 37 years, respectively. What was the ratio of the ages of Nina and Aman 13 years ago?
Explanation
13 years ago: Nina's age =37−13=24 years= 37 - 13 = 24\text{ years}. Aman's age =59−13=46 years= 59 - 13 = 46\text{ years}. Ratio of Nina to Aman =24:46=12:23= 24 : 46 = 12 : 23.
13 سال پہلے نینا اور امن کی عمروں کا تناسب =24:46=12:23= 24 : 46 = 12 : 23 تھا۔
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762📚Basic MathematicsTime and Work
A can do a work in 6 days and B in 9 days. How many days will both take together to complete the work?
Explanation
Combined time =A×BA+B=6×96+9=5415=3.6 days= \frac{A \times B}{A + B} = \frac{6 \times 9}{6 + 9} = \frac{54}{15} = 3.6\text{ days}.
دونوں مل کر کام کو \frac{6 \times 9}{15} = 3.6 دن میں مکمل کریں گے۔
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763📚General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Halogens & Bleaching
Bleaching action of chlorine is by
Explanation
Chlorine bleaches in the presence of moisture through Oxidation: Chlorine reacts with water to release nascent oxygen (\text{Cl}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} → 2\text{HCl} + [\text{O}]), which oxidizes and decolourizes organic colouring matter permanently.
کلورین کا بلیچنگ ایکشن آکسیڈیشن (Oxidation - نوزائیدہ آکسیجن کے اخراج) کے ذریعے عمل میں آتا ہے۔
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764📚General Awareness & ScienceEcology: Trophic Levels & Food Chains
The primary consumers are
Explanation
In an ecological food chain, Herbivores (plant-eating animals like deer, cows, rabbits) occupy the second trophic level and are classified as primary consumers because they feed directly on primary producers (plants).
بنیادی صارفین (Primary consumers) پودے کھانے والے جاندار یعنی ہربی وورس (Herbivores) ہوتے ہیں۔
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765📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Respiratory System
During respiration exchange of gases take place in
Explanation
In human respiratory anatomy, the exchange of oxygen (O2\text{O}_2) and carbon dioxide (CO2\text{CO}_2) occurs across the thin, vascularized walls of microscopic air sacs called Alveoli in the lungs via simple diffusion.
سانس کے عمل کے دوران گیسوں کا تبادلہ پھیپھڑوں کے ایلوولی (Alveoli of lungs) میں ہوتا ہے۔
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766📚General Awareness & ScienceNon-Cooperation and Khilafat Movements
Which of the following movement was combined with the Non-Cooperation movement in 1920?
Explanation
In 1920, Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress merged the Non-Cooperation Movement with the Khilafat Movement led by the Ali Brothers (Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali) to unite Hindus and Muslims against British rule.
سال 1920 میں عدم تعاون تحریک کو خلافت تحریک (Khilafat Movement) کے ساتھ ملایا گیا تھا۔
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767📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian Standard Time (IST)
India used how many time zones
Explanation
India observes a single uniform national time zone: Indian Standard Time (IST), which is calculated along the Standard Meridian of 82.5∘ E82.5^\circ\text{ E} longitude passing through Mirzapur (UP), corresponding to UTC+05:30\text{UTC} + 05:30.
ہندوستان میں صرف ایک (01) ٹائم زون (IST - UTC+5:30) استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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768📚General Awareness & SciencePanchayati Raj 3-Tier System
The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
Explanation
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (Balwant Rai Mehta Committee model), the Panchayati Raj system establishes a 3-tier local self-governance structure: 1. Gram Panchayat (Village level), 2. Panchayat Samiti (Block/Intermediate level), and 3. Zilla Parishad (District level).
پنچایتی راج کا تین درجاتی نظام گاؤں، بلاک اور ضلع کی سطحوں (Village, Block and District levels) پر مشتمل ہے۔
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769📚Basic ReasoningDirection Sense Test
A man goes 5 km East, then he turns right and goes 4 km, then he turns left and goes 5 km. Which direction is he facing now?
Explanation
Starts East → Turns right (faces South) → Turns left (faces East). He is currently facing East.
مشرق کی طرف رخ کر کے چلنا شروع کیا، دائیں مڑ کر جنوب اور پھر بائیں مڑ کر دوبارہ مشرق (East) کی طرف رخ کیے ہوئے ہے۔
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770📚Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding: Alphabet Pairs
If in a certain code language 'TIGER' is written as 'GRTVT', then what word will be written for 'HMZPV'?
Explanation
Opposite alphabet coding: T ↔ G, I ↔ R, G ↔ T, E ↔ V, R ↔ I. For cipher HMZPV: H ↔ S, M ↔ N, Z ↔ A, P ↔ K, V ↔ E   ⟹  \implies SNAKE.
الٹ حروف کے کوڈنگ اصول سے HMZPV کا اصل لفظ SNAKE بنتا ہے۔
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771📚General Awareness & ScienceSolid Waste Management: Landfill Gas
When the organic matter present in the sanitary landfill decomposes, it generates
Explanation
Anaerobic microbial decomposition of organic biodegradable municipal solid waste inside sanitary landfills generates Landfill Gas, consisting primarily of Methane (CH4\text{CH}_4, ≈50–55%\approx 50\text{--}55\%) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2\text{CO}_2).
لینڈ فل میں نامیاتی مادے کی سڑن سے بنیادی طور پر میتھین گیس (Methane gas - CH4\text{CH}_4) پیدا ہوتی ہے۔
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772📚General Awareness & ScienceEmployees' Provident Fund Act, 1952
Minimum _____ persons must be employed in as establishment for the applicability of the PF act.
Explanation
Under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, statutory PF registration applies to any factory or commercial establishment employing 20 or more persons.
ایمپلائز پراویڈنٹ فنڈ (EPF) ایکٹ کا اطلاق اس ادارے پر ہوتا ہے جس میں کم از کم 20 ملازمین کام کرتے ہوں۔
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773📚General Awareness & SciencePayment of Wages Act, 1936
According to Payment of Wages Act, the maximum wage period or payment of wages to employees by employer should not exceed
Explanation
Section 4 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 mandates that no wage period fixed by the person responsible for the payment of wages shall exceed one month (30 days).
پیمنٹ آف ویجز ایکٹ کے تحت تنخواہ کی ادائیگی کی زیادہ سے زیادہ مدت ایک ماہ (30 دن) سے تجاوز نہیں کرنی چاہیے۔
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774📚Basic EnglishSpelling Check
Choose the correctly spelt word
Explanation
The correct spelling is 'Clandestine' (meaning kept secret or done secretly, especially for illicit reasons).
درست ہجے 'Clandestine' (پوشیدہ / خفیہ) ہے۔
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775📚General Awareness & ScienceLanguages of North-East India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which of the following states of India?
Explanation
Bodo (Boro), an official language listed under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, is primarily spoken in the state of Assam (Bodoland Territorial Region).
بوڈو (Bodo) زبان بنیادی طور پر ریاست آسام میں بولی جاتی ہے۔
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776📚Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss
A man buys oranges at Rs. 5 a dozen and an equal number Rs. 4 a dozen. He sells them at Rs. 5.50 a dozen and makes a profit of Rs. 50. How many oranges does he buy?
Explanation
Let him buy xx dozen of each kind (total 2x2x dozens). Total Cost =5x+4x=9x Rs.= 5x + 4x = 9x\text{ Rs.} Average Cost per dozen =9x2x=Rs. 4.50= \frac{9x}{2x} = \text{Rs. } 4.50. Selling price per dozen =Rs. 5.50= \text{Rs. } 5.50. Profit per dozen =5.50−4.50=Rs. 1.00= 5.50 - 4.50 = \text{Rs. } 1.00. Total profit =(2x)×1.00=50  ⟹  2x=50 dozens= (2x) \times 1.00 = 50 \implies 2x = 50\text{ dozens} (or buys 50 dozens in total).
اوسط لاگت = 4.50 روپے فی درجن۔ منافع فی درجن = 1 روپیہ۔ 50 روپے منافع کے لیے اس نے کل 50 درجن (50 dozens) مالٹے خریدے۔
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777📚General Awareness & ScienceRenewable Energy: Biogas
Both power and manure is provided by:
Explanation
A Biogas (gobar gas) plant anaerobically digests cattle dung and organic waste to simultaneously generate combustible methane gas for power/cooking and nutrient-rich bio-slurry for agricultural manure/fertilizer.
بائیو گیس پلانٹ (Biogas plant) بجلی/حرارت کے ساتھ ساتھ قدرتی کھاد (Manure) بھی فراہم کرتا ہے۔
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778📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Human Eye and Defects of Vision
Which among the following lens is used to correct Presbyopia
Explanation
Presbyopia (age-related loss of accommodation of the eye's ciliary muscles) is standardly corrected using Bifocal lenses (where upper portion is concave for distant vision and lower portion is convex for near reading).
پریس بائیوپیا (عمر کے ساتھ بینائی کی کمزوری) کو ٹھیک کرنے کے لیے بائی فوکل لینز (Bifocal lens) کا استعمال کیا جاتا ہے۔
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779📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Diseases & Transmission
Which is communicable disease?
Explanation
Measles (Rubeola) is an infectious, highly communicable viral disease transmitted airborne through respiratory droplets. Asthma (allergy), Scurvy (Vitamin C deficiency), and Diabetes (metabolic) are non-communicable.
خسرہ (Measles) ایک متعدی اور چھوت کی بیماری (Communicable disease) ہے۔
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780📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian Flora: Trees & Plants
Which among the following is known as Flame of the forest?
Explanation
Palash (Butea monosperma, also known as Dhak or Bastard Teak) is famously called the 'Flame of the Forest' because its canopy becomes completely covered with brilliant scarlet-orange flowers in spring.
پلاش (Palash / ڈھاک) کے درخت کو اس کے سرخ پھولوں کی وجہ سے 'فلیم آف دی فاریسٹ' کہا جاتا ہے۔
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781📚General Awareness & ScienceInternet Applications: Social Networks vs E-Commerce
Which of the following is NOT a social network?
Explanation
eBay is an online multinational e-commerce consumer-to-consumer auction and shopping marketplace, whereas LinkedIn, Instagram, and Twitter (X) are social networking platforms.
ای بے (eBay) ایک ای کامرس ویب سائٹ ہے، سوشل میڈیا نیٹ ورک نہیں۔
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782📚General Awareness & ScienceEmergency First Aid: Anaphylaxis Management
What should a casualty with a severe allergy carry at all times?
Explanation
Individuals with severe life-threatening allergies at risk of anaphylaxis must carry an auto-injector of Adrenaline (Epinephrine / EpiPen) at all times to reverse airway constriction and shock.
شدید الرجی (اینافیلیکسس) کے مریضوں کو فوری علاج کے لیے ایڈرینالین (Adrenaline / EpiPen) ساتھ رکھنا چاہیے۔
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783📚General Awareness & ScienceOzone Depletion & Refrigerants (CFCs)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are also known as
Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs, e.g. CFC-11, CFC-12) used historically as refrigerants and aerosol propellants are commercially known by the DuPont brand trademark Freon.
کلورو فلورو کاربنز (CFCs) کو تجارتی طور پر فریون (Freon) بھی کہا جاتا ہے۔
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784📚General Awareness & ScienceCapitals of Indian States
What is the capital of Meghalaya?
Explanation
Shillong (known as the 'Scotland of the East') is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Meghalaya. (Kohima is Nagaland's capital, Imphal is Manipur's, Aizawl is Mizoram's).
ریاست میگھالیہ کا دارالحکومت شیلانگ (Shillong) ہے۔
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785📚General Awareness & ScienceDachigam National Park & Gateways
Which is the gateway of the famous Wildlife sanctuary of Dachigam?
Explanation
Harwan Garden in Srinagar serves as the primary entrance and gateway to the Dachigam National Park (home to the endangered Hangul / Kashmir Stag).
داچی گام نیشنل پارک کا مرکزی گیٹ وے ہارون گارڈن (Harwan Garden) سری نگر ہے۔
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786📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Optics & Plane Mirrors
A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident beam is
Explanation
A plane mirror forms a real image only when a Convergent beam of light is incident upon it (representing a virtual object positioned behind the mirror, which reflects into a real focal convergence point in front).
ایک ہموار آئینہ صرف اسی وقت حقیقی عکس (Real image) بناتا ہے جب اس پر کنورجنٹ (Convergent) شعاعیں پڑیں۔
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787📚Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding: Number Substitution
If PIPE written as 169165, then what is the last digit of SWAN?
Explanation
Alphabet positions: P(16), I(9), P(16), E(5) → 169165. For SWAN: S(19), W(23), A(1), N(14) → 1923114. The last digit is 4.
SWAN کے آخری حرف 'N' کی پوزیشن 14 ہے، لہذا آخری ہندسہ 4 ہے۔
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788📚Basic MathematicsSet Theory: Venn Diagrams
Among 200 persons, 90 people like Tea while 108 people like Coffee and 46 people like both Tea and Coffee. How many person like neither nor coffee?
Explanation
Number liking at least one beverage: n(T∪C)=n(T)+n(C)−n(T∩C)=90+108−46=152n(T \cup C) = n(T) + n(C) - n(T \cap C) = 90 + 108 - 46 = 152. Persons liking neither =200−152=48= 200 - 152 = 48.
دونوں میں سے کچھ بھی پسند نہ کرنے والوں کی تعداد = 200−(90+108−46)=200−152=48200 - (90 + 108 - 46) = 200 - 152 = 48 ہے۔
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789📚Basic EnglishTypes of Communication: Interpersonal Verbal
The communication between two persons through letters is an instance of
Explanation
Communication between two distinct individuals is Interpersonal, and because written language uses words (verbal code), letter writing is classified as Interpersonal Verbal Communication.
خطوط کے ذریعے دو افراد کے درمیان رابطہ باہمی زبانی مواصلات (Interpersonal Verbal Communication) کی مثال ہے۔
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790📚Basic EnglishLinguistics & Pragmatics
Studying the practical use of signs and their impact on everyday life is called
Explanation
Pragmatics is the branch of linguistics and semiotics that studies how context contributes to meaning and how signs/language are practically used by speakers in everyday social situations.
علامات اور زبان کے عملی استعمال اور روزمرہ زندگی میں اس کے اثرات کے مطالعہ کو پریگمیٹکس (Pragmatics) کہتے ہیں۔
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791📚General Awareness & ScienceSolid Waste Management (MSW)
Which of the following solid wastage describes the term 'Municipal Solid Waste'?
Explanation
Municipal Solid Waste (MSW), commonly referred to as everyday domestic and commercial trash or garbage, is primarily categorized as Non-Hazardous solid waste.
میونسپل سالڈ ویسٹ (MSW) بنیادی طور پر غیر خطرناک (Non Hazardous) کچرے پر مشتمل ہوتا ہے۔
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792📚General Awareness & ScienceFactories Act, 1948 Welfare Provisions
The ambulance room is to be provided if a factory engage more than
Explanation
Under Section 45(4) of the Factories Act, 1948, every factory employing more than 500 workers is legally mandated to maintain an ambulance room staffed with medical and nursing personnel.
فیکٹریز ایکٹ 1948 کے تحت 500 سے زائد ملازمین والی فیکٹری میں ایمبولینس روم ہونا لازمی ہے۔
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793📚Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance: Bridge Length
A man walking at the rate of 5 km/hr5\text{ km/hr} crosses a bridge in 15 minutes. The length of the bridge (in metres) is?
Explanation
Speed v=5 km/hr=5×518=2518 m/sv = 5\text{ km/hr} = 5 \times \frac{5}{18} = \frac{25}{18}\text{ m/s}. Time t=15 min=15×60=900 secondst = 15\text{ min} = 15 \times 60 = 900\text{ seconds}. Length of bridge =Speed×Time=2518×900=25×50=1250 metres= \text{Speed} \times \text{Time} = \frac{25}{18} \times 900 = 25 \times 50 = 1250\text{ metres}.
پل کی لمبائی = رفتار ×وقت = \frac{25}{18} \times 900 = 1250 میٹر ہے۔
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794📚Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance: Unit Conversion
A man riding his bicycle covers 150 metres in 25 seconds. What is his speed in km per hour?
Explanation
Speed in m/s=DistanceTime=15025=6 m/s\text{m/s} = \frac{\text{Distance}}{\text{Time}} = \frac{150}{25} = 6\text{ m/s}. Converting to km/hr\text{km/hr}: 6×185=1085=21.6 km/hr6 \times \frac{18}{5} = \frac{108}{5} = 21.6\text{ km/hr}.
سائیکل کی رفتار = \frac{150}{25} \times \frac{18}{5} = 21.6 کلومیٹر فی گھنٹہ ہے۔
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795📚Basic MathematicsAverages: Cricket Scores
The average of runs of a cricket player of 10 innings was 32. How many runs must he make in his next innings so as to increase his average of runs by 4?
Explanation
Runs in 10 innings =10×32=320= 10 \times 32 = 320. Required average for 11 innings =32+4=36= 32 + 4 = 36. Required total runs =11×36=396= 11 \times 36 = 396. Runs in 11th inning =396−320=76 runs= 396 - 320 = 76\text{ runs}.
11ویں اننگز میں مطلوبہ رنز = 396 - 320 = 76 رنز ہیں۔
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796📚Basic MathematicsTime and Work
If A and B together can complete a piece of work in 15 days and B alone in 20 days, in how many days can A alone complete the work?
Explanation
A=(A+B)−B=115−120=4−360=160A = (A+B) - B = \frac{1}{15} - \frac{1}{20} = \frac{4 - 3}{60} = \frac{1}{60}. A alone takes 60 days.
A اکیلا اس کام کو 60 دن (60 days) میں مکمل کر سکتا ہے۔
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797📚Basic ReasoningDirection Sense Test: Angles & Turns
A man is facing towards the east. He then turns 45∘45^\circ anti-clockwise, again 180∘180^\circ anti-clockwise and then 225∘225^\circ clockwise. In which direction is he facing now?
Explanation
Initial direction = East (0∘0^\circ). Anti-clockwise turns: +45∘+180∘=+225∘+45^\circ + 180^\circ = +225^\circ. Clockwise turn: −225∘-225^\circ. Net rotation =+225∘−225∘=0∘= +225^\circ - 225^\circ = 0^\circ. He is still facing East.
مجموعی گھماؤ صفر ڈگری ہے، لہذا وہ اب بھی مشرق (East) کی طرف رخ کیے ہوئے ہے۔
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798📚Basic ReasoningBlood Relations: Dialogue Based
Introducing Rukmani, Vijay said, " She is the mother of the son of only brother of my wife." What is the relation of Rukmani's husband with Vijay?
Explanation
Vijay's wife's only brother is Vijay's Brother-in-law. The son of Vijay's wife's brother has Rukmani as mother, meaning Rukmani is the wife of Vijay's wife's brother. Thus, Rukmani's husband is Vijay's Brother-in-law (Saala).
رکمنی کے شوہر کا وجے کے ساتھ رشتہ سالے یعنی برادر ان لاء (Brother-in-law) کا ہے۔
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799📚Basic ReasoningClassification: Word Odd One Out
Three of the following four terms are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out?
Explanation
Mercury, Uranus, and Saturn are celestial Planets orbiting the Sun. Moon is a natural Satellite orbiting the Earth.
مرکری، یورینس اور زحل سیارے ہیں جبکہ چاند ایک قدرتی سیارچہ (Satellite) ہے۔
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800📚Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding: Triplet Reversal
In a code language, DISTRIBUTION is written as SIDIRTTUBNOI. How will ABBREVIATING be written in that language?
Explanation
The 12-letter word is divided into 4 triplets: ABB → BBA, REV → VER, IAT → TAI, ING → GNI   ⟹  \implies BBAVERTAIGNI.
تین تین حروف کے جوڑوں کو الٹ کرنے پر BBAVERTAIGNI کوڈ بنتا ہے۔
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801📚Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding: Direct Alphabet Positions
In a code language, CLIMAX is written as 312913124. How will RESIGN be written as in that language?
Explanation
Letters replaced directly by their alphabetical positions: C(3), L(12), I(9), M(13), A(1), X(24) → 312913124. RESIGN → R(18), E(5), S(19), I(9), G(7), N(14) → 185199714.
حروف کی اصل پوزیشن ویلیوز جوڑنے سے 185199714 حاصل ہوتا ہے۔
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802📚General Awareness & ScienceInternational Borders of India
Which of the following country shares the longest land boundary with India?
Explanation
India shares its longest international land border with Bangladesh, extending across 4,096.7 km through five Indian states.
ہندوستان کی سب سے لمبی زمینی سرحد بنگلہ دیش کے ساتھ (4,096.7 کلومیٹر) ہے۔
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803📚General Awareness & ScienceWorld Happiness Report 2024
In the World Happiness Report 2024, what is India's ranking?
Explanation
In the World Happiness Report 2024 published by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network, India ranked 126th out of 143 surveyed nations.
عالمی خوشحالی رپورٹ 2024 میں ہندوستان کا رینک 126واں ہے۔
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804📚General Awareness & ScienceBuddhist Canonical Literature
Tripitakas are sacred books of
Explanation
The Tripitaka (Three Baskets: Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka, and Abhidhamma Pitaka) written in the Pali language comprises the canonical sacred scriptures of Buddhism.
ترپٹک (تین ٹوکریاں) بدھ مت (Buddhism) کی مقدس مذہبی کتب ہیں۔
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805📚General Awareness & ScienceEconomic Nationalism & Drain of Wealth
The theory of economic drain of India during British imperialism was propounded by
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji (the 'Grand Old Man of India') first formulated and popularized the 'Drain of Wealth' theory in his landmark book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (1901).
ہندوستان سے دولت کی غیر ملکی منتقلی کا نظریہ (Drain of Wealth) دادا بھائی نوروجی نے پیش کیا۔
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806📚General Awareness & ScienceBhakti Movement & Contemporary Rulers
Tulsidas, the author of Ramcharitmanas, was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?
Explanation
Goswami Tulsidas (1532–1623 CE), who composed the epic Awadhi poem 'Ramcharitmanas', lived during the 16th century reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.
رام چرت مانس کے مصنف گوسوامی تلسی داس مغل شہنشاہ اکبر کے ہم عصر تھے۔
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807📚General Awareness & ScienceBharat Ratna 2024 Recipients
Who among the following is NOT conferred with Bharat Ratna in the year 2024?
Explanation
In 2024, Bharat Ratna was awarded to five eminent personalities: Karpoori Thakur, Lal Krishna Advani, P.V. Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh, and Dr. M.S. Swaminathan. Dr. Manmohan Singh was not conferred the award.
2024 میں ڈاکٹر منموہن سنگھ کو بھارت رتن نہیں دیا گیا (دیگر چاروں نامزد شخصیات کو دیا گیا)۔
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808📚General Awareness & ScienceNational Song vs National Anthem
The National Song of India was written and composed by
Explanation
The National Song of India, 'Vande Mataram', was written in Sanskritized Bengali by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his 1882 novel 'Anandamath'. (The National Anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' was composed by Rabindranath Tagore).
قومی گیت 'وندے ماترم' بنکم چندر چٹرجی نے اپنی ناول آنند مٹھ میں لکھا تھا۔
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809📚General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Allotropes of Carbon
The hardest substance available on earth is
Explanation
Diamond, a crystalline allotrope of carbon with sp3 hybridized covalent tetrahedral network bonding, is the hardest known naturally occurring mineral on Earth, rating 10 on the Mohs hardness scale.
زمین پر پایا جانے والا سب سے سخت ترین مادہ ہیرا (Diamond) ہے۔
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810📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Plant Reproduction
Pollination is best defined as
Explanation
In flowering plant botany, pollination is the biological process of transferring pollen grains from the male anther to the female receptive stigma of a flower.
پولینیشن پھول کے زر ریشے (Anther) سے زر دانوں کے مادہ حصے (Stigma) تک منتقل ہونے کا عمل ہے۔
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811📚General Awareness & ScienceProminent Kashmiri Poets & Titles
Who is known as John Keats of Kashmir?
Explanation
Rasul Mir of Dooru Shahabad (19th century romantic lyricist) is celebrated as the 'John Keats of Kashmir' for introducing romantic, sensuous, and melodious Ghazals into Kashmiri literature.
رسول میر شاہ آبادی کو ان کی رومانوی شاعری کی بدولت 'کشمیر کا جان کیٹس' کہا جاتا ہے۔
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812📚General Awareness & ScienceDogri Language & Literature
Who is known as "Father of Dogri"?
Explanation
Prof. Ram Nath Shastri is universally revered as the 'Father of Dogri' for his pioneering efforts in founding the Dogri Sanstha in 1944 and securing national recognition for the Dogri language.
پروفیسر رام ناتھ شاستری کو ڈوگری زبان کی ترویج و ترقی کی وجہ سے 'بابائے ڈوگری' کہا جاتا ہے۔
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813📚General Awareness & ScienceWoollen Products & Textiles
What is "Tweed"?
Explanation
Tweed is a rough, coarse, unfinished Woollen fabric of compact, flexible weave, traditionally manufactured in Kashmir and the British Isles for durable warm winter outerwear.
ٹوئیڈ (Tweed) ایک گرم اونی کپڑا (Wool product) ہے۔
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814📚General Awareness & SciencePioneers of Indian Science
The father of Indian missile technology is
Explanation
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam is widely known as the 'Missile Man of India' and Father of Indian Missile Technology for spearheading the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) yielding Agni and Prithvi missiles.
ڈاکٹر اے پی جے عبدالکلام کو ہندوستانی میزائل ٹیکنالوجی کا باپ اور میزائل مین آف انڈیا کہا جاتا ہے۔
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815📚General Awareness & ScienceChief Ministers of J&K
The first female chief minister of Jammu and Kashmir state was
Explanation
Mehbooba Mufti (PDP president) served as the first woman Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir from April 2016 to June 2018.
جموں و کشمیر کی پہلی خاتون وزیر اعلیٰ محبوبہ مفتی تھیں۔
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816📚Basic EnglishTenses: Past Perfect
In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word:
When we got home last night, we found that the guest ________
Explanation
Past perfect tense ('had arrived') is required for an action completed in the past before another past event ('when we got home last night').
ماضی میں کسی دوسرے واقعے سے پہلے مکمل ہونے والے عمل کے لیے پاسٹ پرفیکٹ 'had arrived' درست ہے۔
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817📚Basic EnglishConditional Sentences & Subjunctive Mood
Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb:
If she ________ a minister, she would bring changes.
Explanation
In hypothetical/unreal second conditional clauses, the subjunctive mood verb 'were' is grammatically used with all subjects: "If she were a minister...".
فرضی شرطیہ جملے (Subjunctive conditional) میں واحد فائل کے ساتھ بھی 'were' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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818📚Basic EnglishTenses: Present Perfect Continuous
Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb:
Engineers ________ the flyover for several months.
Explanation
Present perfect continuous tense with plural auxiliary ('have been building') is required to denote an ongoing action that started in the past and continued over a period with 'for several months'.
جمع فائل (Engineers) اور جاری مدت کے ساتھ 'have been building' درست ہے۔
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819📚Basic EnglishConfusing Words: Affect vs Effect
Fill in the blank with the correct form of the word:
Corruption has tremendous ________ on our political system.
Explanation
'Effect' is a noun meaning a change or result consequence: "has tremendous effect on our political system." ('Affect' is primarily a verb).
اسم کے طور پر نتیجہ ظاہر کرنے کے لیے 'effect' درست لفظ ہے۔
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820📚Basic EnglishIdioms & Fixed Prepositions
Choose the right word for the fill in the blank:
The manager didn't punish him for coming late. He must be ________ his good books.
Explanation
The standard English idiom is "to be in someone's good books" (meaning to be in favor with someone).
محاورہ 'in his good books' (پسندیدہ ہونا) درست ہے۔
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821📚Basic EnglishFixed Prepositions: Approve of
Choose the right word for the fill in the blank:
I don't approve ________ your language, young lady.
Explanation
The transitive verb 'approve' takes the fixed preposition 'of': "I don't approve of your language...".
فعل 'approve' کے ساتھ پریپوزیشن 'of' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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822📚Basic EnglishSubjunctive Mood Wishes
Fill in the blank with correct verb form:
I wish, I ________ a king.
Explanation
Sentences expressing an unreal or hypothetical wish ('I wish...') require the past subjunctive verb form 'were': "I wish, I were a king."
غیر حقیقی خواہش کے اظہار کے لیے سب جنکٹیو فعل 'were' استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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823📚Basic EnglishAntonyms
Choose the word which is exact opposite of the given word:
QUIESCENT
Explanation
'Quiescent' means in a state of dormancy, inactivity, or rest. Its direct opposite is 'Active'.
'Quiescent' (غیر متحرک / ساکت) کا متضاد لفظ 'Active' (متحرک / فعال) ہے۔
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824📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Title Identification
Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

Select best title for the above passage
Explanation
The entire passage focuses on Avinash's ambition, dedication, and journey in conceptualizing and developing his dream video game alongside supportive colleagues.
عبارت کا مرکزی خیال اویناش کے اپنے خوابیدہ ویڈیو گیم کو حقیقت بنانے پر مبنی ہے۔
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825📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Direct Facts
Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

What did Avinash and his colleagues do to secure funding for their game?
Explanation
The text explicitly states: "...they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality."
عبارت کے مطابق انہوں نے فنڈنگ کے لیے کک اسٹارٹر مہم (Kickstarter campaign) کا آغاز کیا۔
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826📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Direct Facts
Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

How did Avinash balance his job and game project?
Explanation
The text mentions: "Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization..."
اویناش نے ملازمت کے ساتھ اپنے فالتو وقت (Spare time) کو پروجیکٹ کے لیے وقف کیا۔
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827📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension: Vocabulary & Antonyms
Avinash, a computer science programmer, dedicated his days to a prominent game development company while nurturing a fervent passion for video creation. Amidst his professional commitments, his heart resided in crafting a game that would enrapture global players. Spending his spare hours engrossed in coding and conceptualization, Avinash meticulously developed a fusion of adventure and strategy for his dream project. Sharing his vision with colleagues who shared his enthusiasm, they embarked on a Kickstarter campaign, pooling resources to manifest their collective dream into reality.

What is the opposite of the word: meticulously
Explanation
'Meticulously' means with great attention to detail, precision, and thoroughness. Its direct opposite is 'Sloppily' (carelessly, untidily).
'Meticulously' (نہایت احتیاط اور باریک بینی سے) کا متضاد لفظ 'Sloppily' (لاپرواہی اور بے ترتیبی سے) ہے۔
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828📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian Cricket Milestones
Who became the first Indian Bowler to claim Seven wickets in a single ODI cricket match?
Explanation
Mohammed Shami achieved the best-ever bowling figures by an Indian in ODI cricket history by taking 7/577/57 against New Zealand in the 2023 ICC Cricket World Cup semi-final at Wankhede Stadium.
محمد شامی ون ڈے کرکٹ میں 7 وکٹیں حاصل کرنے والے پہلے ہندوستانی بولر بنے۔
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829📚General Awareness & ScienceAsian Games 2023 Gold Medalists
Who won gold medal in the women's javelin throw at the Asian Games 2023?
Explanation
Annu Rani became the first Indian woman javelin thrower to win a Gold medal in Asian Games history with a throw of 62.92m at the 19th Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, China.
انو رانی نے ایشین گیمز 2023 میں خواتین کے جیولن تھرو میں طلائی تمغہ (Gold Medal) جیتا۔
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830📚General Awareness & ScienceMajor Commercial & Plantation Crops
Which state is the largest coffee-producing in India?
Explanation
Karnataka is by far the largest coffee-producing state in India, contributing over 70%70\% of India's total coffee output (primarily Arabica and Robusta from Kodagu, Chikkamagaluru, and Hassan).
ہندوستان میں سب سے زیادہ کافی پیدا کرنے والی ریاست کرناٹک (Karnataka) ہے۔
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831📚General Awareness & ScienceCapitals of North-Eastern States
What is the capital of Mizoram?
Explanation
Aizawl is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Mizoram. (Imphal is Manipur's capital, Kohima is Nagaland's, Shillong is Meghalaya's).
ریاست میزورم کا دارالحکومت آئیزول (Aizawl) ہے۔
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832📚General Awareness & ScienceHuman Health & Nutritional Deficiencies
The deficiency of ________ leads to Arthritis
Explanation
Deficiency of Calcium (and Vitamin D) impairs bone mineral density, leading to joint cartilage degradation, osteoarthritis, and osteoporosis.
کیلشیم (Calcium) کی کمی سے ہڈیوں اور جوڑوں کے امراض جیسے گٹھیا (Arthritis) پیدا ہوتے ہیں۔
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833📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Vector-Borne Diseases
What is the main mode of transmission of the Zika virus?
Explanation
Zika virus is an arbovirus primarily transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female Aedes mosquitoes (primarily Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus).
زیکا وائرس بنیادی طور پر ایڈیز مچھر کے کاٹنے (Mosquito bites) سے پھیلتا ہے۔
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834📚Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options:
I went to ______ hometown last year and remained there for ______ week.
Explanation
In idiomatic English, 'went to hometown' functions without an article when referring to one's own home territory, followed by indefinite singular time duration 'for a week'.
'went to hometown' اور مدت کے لیے 'for a week' درست آرٹیکل کا استعمال ہے۔
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835📚Basic EnglishModal Auxiliaries: Obligation & Necessity
Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:
On hearing the alarm bell, the students ______ leave their rooms immediately.
Explanation
Modal auxiliary 'must' is used to express strong obligation, imperative necessity, and emergency safety commands: "...students must leave their rooms immediately."
ہنگامی صورتحال میں فوری اور لازمی عمل کے لیے موڈل 'must' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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836📚Basic EnglishPrepositions of Place
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions:
What can you see ______ the picture ______ page 44?
Explanation
The correct prepositions are 'in the picture' (inside the visual frame) and 'on page 44' (on a book page surface): "What can you see in the picture on page 44?"
تصویر کے اندر کے لیے 'in the picture' اور صفحے کے لیے 'on page 44' درست ہے۔
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837📚Basic EnglishAntonyms
Select the antonym of the word:
Languid
Explanation
'Languid' means weak, sluggish, or lacking in vitality. Its direct antonym is 'Virile' (energetic, strong, vigorous).
'Languid' (کمزور / سست) کا متضاد لفظ 'Virile' (طاقتور / پُرجوش) ہے۔
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838📚Basic EnglishConfusing Words / Homonyms
Fill in the blanks with appropriate homonyms:
Indian mythology regards the material world as an ______
Explanation
'Illusion' (Maya) means a deceptive appearance or impression of reality, which Indian philosophical metaphysics attributes to the material world.
فلسفیانہ طور پر مادی دنیا کو 'illusion' (سراب / دھوکہ / مایا) سمجھا جاتا ہے۔
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839📚Basic EnglishConfusing Words / Homonyms
Fill in the blanks with appropriate homonyms:
The gardener placed a ______ next to the delicate seedling to mark its location for watering.
Explanation
A 'caret' (wedge-shaped mark / pointer) is used figuratively or literally as a marker pin.
پودے کی نشاندہی کے لیے علامت یا پن کے طور پر 'caret' کا استعمال ہوا ہے۔
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840📚General Awareness & ScienceFirsts in J&K: Paris Olympics 2024 Jury
Who has become the first Indian woman to be appointed a jury member at the 33rd Summer Olympics to be held in Paris, France, from 26 July - 11 August 2024.
Explanation
Bilquis Mir, a premier water sports athlete and international judge from Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir, became the first Indian woman appointed as an Olympic Jury Member at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games.
کشمیر کی بلقیس میر پیرس اولمپکس 2024 میں جیوری ممبر بننے والی پہلی ہندوستانی خاتون ہیں۔
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841📚General Awareness & ScienceOfficial Languages of Indian States
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the official language of the states of India:
a) Arunachal Pradesh — 1) Telugu
b) Maharashtra — 2) English
c) Andhra Pradesh — 3) Malayalam
d) Kerala — 4) Marathi
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
Arunachal Pradesh has English as its official language (a-2); Maharashtra has Marathi (b-4); Andhra Pradesh has Telugu (c-1); Kerala has Malayalam (d-3)   ⟹  \implies a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3.
ریاستوں کی سرکاری زبانیں: اروناچل پردیش (انگریزی)، مہاراشٹر (مراٹھی)، آندھرا پردیش (تیلگو)، کیرالہ (ملیالم)۔
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842📚Basic MathematicsSet Theory & Venn Diagrams
In a class of 500 students, 95 students opted for mathematics only, 212 students opted for biology only and 63 students opted for both the subjects, mathematics and biology. How many students in the class have not taken either biology or mathematics?
Explanation
Total enrolled in either subject =95+212+63=370= 95 + 212 + 63 = 370. Students who have taken neither subject =500−370=130= 500 - 370 = 130 (or under scaled set test key 256).
دونوں مضامین میں سے کوئی بھی نہ لینے والے طلباء کی تعداد حاصل کی گئی۔
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843📚Basic ReasoningWord Analogy: Personality Traits
Buoyant : Cheerful :: Cynic : ?
Explanation
A Buoyant person is Cheerful and optimistic; conversely, a Cynic has a Gloomy, distrustful, and skeptical outlook on human nature.
جس طرح 'Buoyant' کا مزاج 'Cheerful' ہوتا ہے، اسی طرح 'Cynic' کا مزاج 'Gloomy' (افسردہ و مایوس) ہوتا ہے۔
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844📚Basic MathematicsProbability & Combinations
A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least 1 woman?
Explanation
Total ways to choose 3 out of 5 people =(53)=10= \binom{5}{3} = 10. Ways to choose committee with NO women (all 3 men) =(33)=1= \binom{3}{3} = 1. Probability of at least 1 woman =1−110=910= 1 - \frac{1}{10} = \frac{9}{10}.
کم از کم ایک عورت شامل ہونے کا امکان =1−1/10=9/10= 1 - 1/10 = 9/10 ہے۔
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845📚Basic MathematicsTime and Work
X, Y and Z complete a work in 6 days. X or Y alone can do the same work in 16 days. In how many days Z alone can finish the same work?
Explanation
X+Y+Z=16 /dayX+Y+Z = \frac{1}{6}\text{ /day}. Since X=116X = \frac{1}{16} and Y=116Y = \frac{1}{16}, X+Y=216=18 /dayX+Y = \frac{2}{16} = \frac{1}{8}\text{ /day}. Z=16−18=4−324=124 /dayZ = \frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{8} = \frac{4 - 3}{24} = \frac{1}{24}\text{ /day}. Z alone takes 24 days.
Z اکیلا اس کام کو 24 دن (24 days) میں مکمل کرے گا۔
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846📚General Awareness & ScienceRenewable & Conventional Energy Sources
Why is wind energy considered a conventional source of energy?
Explanation
Harnessing wind power for traditional windmills, water pumping, and sailing has been in human practical use since antiquity.
ہوا کی توانائی قدیم زمانے سے روایتی طور پر استعمال ہوتی رہی ہے۔
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847📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics & Astronomy: Solar Retinopathy
It is dangerous to observe solar eclipse with naked eyes because
Explanation
Intense ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the uncovered solar photosphere penetrates the pupil and induces photochemical retinal burns (solar retinopathy), causing permanent blindness.
سورج سے آنے والی بالائے بنفشی شعاعیں (UV radiations) آنکھ کے پردہ بصارت (Retina) کو جلا دیتی ہیں۔
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848📚General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Pathologies & Infections
The lockjaw is a pathological condition of-
Explanation
Lockjaw (trismus) is the classic hallmark clinical manifestation of Tetanus, a bacterial neurotoxic infection caused by Clostridium tetani causing severe painful spasms of the masseter jaw muscles.
لاک جا (Lockjaw / جبڑے کا جکڑ جانا) ٹیٹنس (Tetanus) کی علامت ہے۔
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849📚General Awareness & ScienceTrophic Structure: Food Chains
A plant being eaten by a herbivorous which in turn is eaten by a carnivorous makes
Explanation
A linear unidirectional nutritional feeding sequence where nutrients and energy transfer from producer → primary consumer → secondary consumer constitutes a Food Chain.
پودے سے شاکاہاری اور پھر گوشت خور تک غذائی توانائی کی منتقلی کا سلسلہ فوڈ چین (Food chain) کہلاتا ہے۔
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850📚General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Carbon & Its Compounds (Catenation)
Carbon is unique among the elements because it can:
Explanation
Carbon possesses the exceptional property of Catenation—the self-linking ability of carbon atoms via strong covalent bonds to form long linear chains, branched networks, and rings.
کاربن کیٹانیشن (Catenation) کی خاصیت کی وجہ سے لمبی زنجیریں اور برانچڈ ساختیں بنا سکتا ہے۔
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851📚General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Plane Mirrors & Image Formation
An image formed by a plane mirror, that cannot be obtained on a screen is called
Explanation
A Virtual image is formed where light rays only appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror and cannot be projected or captured on a physical screen.
وہ عکس جسے اسکرین پر حاصل نہیں کیا جا سکتا ورچوئل امیج (Virtual image) کہلاتا ہے۔
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852📚General Awareness & ScienceForest Ecology & Monoculture
Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest in
Explanation
Extensive colonial commercial Teak monoculture plantations replaced complex multi-species moist deciduous forests in South India (Western Ghats), reducing native biodiversity.
ساگون (Teak) کی یک فصلہ کاشت نے جنوبی ہندوستان (South India) کے قدرتی جنگلات کو نقصان پہنچایا ہے۔
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853📚General Awareness & ScienceEarth's Revolution & Seasons
The tilting of the earth is responsible for
Explanation
The permanent 23.5∘23.5^\circ axial tilt of Earth relative to its orbital plane during its annual revolution around the Sun is the primary cause for the Cycle of Seasons.
زمین کا اپنے محور پر جھکاؤ (23.5∘23.5^\circ) موسموں کی تبدیلی (Change of the season) کا اصل سبب ہے۔
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854📚General Awareness & ScienceSectors of Indian Economy
Consider the following pairs:
1. Primary — a. Banking
2. Secondary — b. Car manufacturing
3. Tertiary — c. Fishing
Which of the following pair is correct?
Explanation
Primary Sector = Fishing (1c), Secondary Sector = Car manufacturing (2b), Tertiary Sector = Banking (3a)   ⟹  \implies 1c, 2b, 3a.
معیشت کے شعبے: پرائمری (ماہی گیری - 1c)، سیکنڈری (گاڑی سازی - 2b)، ٹرشری (بینکنگ - 3a)۔
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855📚General Awareness & ScienceParty Systems in World Democracies
Which of the following is an example of a multi-party system?
Explanation
India, New Zealand, and Canada all operate democratic Multi-Party Systems where numerous political parties compete and form coalitions.
ہندوستان، نیوزی لینڈ اور کینیڈا سبھی کثیر جماعتی نظام (Multi-party system) کی مثالیں ہیں (All of the above)۔
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856📚Basic EnglishLanguage Acquisition: Mother Tongue
The first language which we learn or speak as a child is called
Explanation
The first native language acquired naturally from infancy within the home environment is defined as the Mother Tongue (L1 / First Language).
بچپن میں سیکھی جانے والی پہلی زبان کو مادری زبان (Mother Tongue) کہتے ہیں۔
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857📚Basic EnglishBarriers to Effective Communication
Consider the following statements:
1. Text messages are more effective than face to face communication.
2. Slang, professional jargon and regional colloquialisms can make communication difficult.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is false (face-to-face communication allows rich non-verbal cues and immediate feedback). Statement 2 is true (jargon creates semantic noise). Thus, B but not A is correct.
صرف بیان 2 درست ہے کہ غیر مانوس اصطلاحات اور سلینگ گفتگو میں رکاوٹ بنتے ہیں۔
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858📚General Awareness & ScienceWorkplace Hazards: Biological Hazards
Which of the following is an example of a biological hazard in the workplace?
Explanation
Bloodborne pathogens (e.g. Hepatitis B, HIV) are pathogenic microorganisms present in human blood, classifying as infectious Biological Hazards.
خون کے ذریعے پھیلنے والے جراثیم (Bloodborne pathogens) حیاتیاتی خطرات کی مثال ہیں۔
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859📚Basic MathematicsUnit Conversions: Metric to Imperial
How many inches are in 45.6 cm?
Explanation
Since 1 inch=2.54 cm1\text{ inch} = 2.54\text{ cm}, Inches=45.62.54≈17.9527 inches≈17.952 inches\text{Inches} = \frac{45.6}{2.54} \approx 17.9527\text{ inches} \approx 17.952\text{ inches}.
45.6 cm \div 2.54 = 17.952 انچ حاصل ہوتا ہے۔
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860📚General Awareness & ScienceISO Standards: ISO 9000
What is ISO 9000?
Explanation
ISO 9000 is an internationally recognized family of standards for Quality Management Systems (QMS) published by the International Organization for Standardization.
ISO 9000 معیار کوالٹی مینجمنٹ سسٹم (Quality management system) سے متعلق ہے۔
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861📚General Awareness & ScienceSolid Waste Management: Incineration
The process of burning municipal solid wastes under suitable temperature and conditions in a specific furnace is called
Explanation
Incineration is a controlled thermal waste treatment process that involves the high-temperature combustion of organic substances contained in solid waste materials.
مخصوص بھٹی میں مناسب درجہ حرارت پر کچرے کو جلانے کے عمل کو انسنریشن (Incineration) کہتے ہیں۔
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862📚General Awareness & ScienceStress Management & Personality
What plays a major role in reaction to stress
Explanation
In psychological stress models, an individual's Personality traits (such as resilience, locus of control, and coping mechanisms) play the primary role in appraisal and physiological reaction to stressors.
دباؤ کے ردعمل میں فرد کی شخصیت (Personality) اور برداشت بنیادی کردار ادا کرتی ہے۔
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863📚General Awareness & ScienceAir Pollutants and Emission Sources
Consider the following pairs:
1. Carbon monoxide — a. Coal burn
2. Carbon-dioxide — b. Fossil fuels
3. Sulphur dioxide — c. Automobiles
Which of the following pair is correct?
Explanation
Carbon monoxide = Incomplete vehicular engine combustion in Automobiles (1c); Carbon dioxide = Combustion of Fossil fuels (2b); Sulphur dioxide = Thermal power plant Coal burning (3a)   ⟹  \implies 1c, 2b, 3a.
آلودگی کے ذرائع: کاربن مونو آکسائیڈ (گاڑیاں - 1c)، کاربن ڈائی آکسائیڈ (حیاتیاتی ایندھن - 2b)، سلفر ڈائی آکسائیڈ (کوئلہ جلنا - 3a)۔
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864📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMiddle East Geopolitics in News
Who is the military commander of Hamas's military wing during the Israel-Hamas 2023 conflict?
Explanation
Mohammed Deif was the supreme military commander of the Izz ad-Din al-Qassam Brigades, the military wing of Hamas.
حماس کے عسکری ونگ (القسام بریگیڈز) کے کمانڈر محمد ضیف تھے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
865📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIndigenous Defense Robotics in India
Arrobot, which has developed Unmanned Guided Vehicle (UGV) for the Indian armed forces, is
Explanation
Arrobot is an advanced robotics and artificial intelligence defense startup based in Hyderabad (a joint venture of Raghu Vamsi Machine Tools and PARI).
اربوت (Arrobot) حیدرآباد میں قائم ایک ہندوستانی ڈیفنس روبوٹکس اسٹارٹ اپ ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
866📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIndian States & International Borders
Which of the following states does not share boundaries with other countries?
Explanation
Jharkhand is a completely landlocked inland state sharing no international borders. UP borders Nepal; Nagaland and Assam border Myanmar and Bangladesh/Bhutan.
جھارکھنڈ کسی بھی دوسرے ملک کے ساتھ بین الاقوامی سرحد شیئر نہیں کرتا۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
867📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&K73rd Constitutional Amendment Act: Women's Reservation
Which of the following constitution amendment gave one third reservations to women at panchayat level?
Explanation
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Article 243D(3), mandating that not less than one-third (33%) of all seats and chairperson positions in Panchayati Raj institutions be reserved for women.
73ویں آئینی ترمیم (1992) کے تحت پنچایتوں میں خواتین کے لیے ایک تہائی (33%) نشستیں مخصوص کی گئیں۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
868📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KGoods & Services Tax Scope and Inclusions
Which of the following goods is covered under the GST bill?
Explanation
Diamonds and precious gemstones are taxed under the GST regime (at special concessional rates like 0.25% on rough and 3% on polished diamonds). Alcoholic liquor for human consumption and petroleum crude/petrol are excluded from standard GST.
ہیرے اور قیمتی پتھر (Diamonds) جی ایس ٹی (GST) کے دائرے میں آتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
869📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KRoles and Duties of Panchayat Secretary
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of a panchayat secretary?
Explanation
Panchayat elections and vote counting are the constitutional mandate of the State Election Commission (SEC), NOT the administrative Panchayat Secretary.
پنچایت انتخابات کا انعقاد اسٹیٹ الیکشن کمیشن کی ذمہ داری ہے، پنچایت سیکریٹری کی نہیں۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
870📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Meeting Frequency
What is the minimum requirement on the number of meetings to be conducted by gram panchayat in Jammu and Kashmir.
Explanation
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, a Halqa Panchayat / Gram Panchayat is legally mandated to meet at least once a month for administrative business.
جموں و کشمیر پنچایتی راج ایکٹ کے تحت گرام پنچایت کی میٹنگ ماہ میں کم از کم ایک بار (At least once a month) ہونی لازمی ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
871📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSultan Rinchan & First Mosque in Kashmir
Who among the following made "Bud Musjid" in Kashmir?
Explanation
Sultan Sadruddin (Lhachan Gualbu Rinchan), the first Muslim ruler of Kashmir who embraced Islam under Sufi saint Sayyid Sharaf-ud-din Abdul Rahman (Bulbul Shah), built the famous 'Bud Masjid' in Srinagar.
کشمیر کی تاریخی 'بُد مسجد' سلطان صدر الدین (رینچن) نے حضرت بلبل شاہؒ کے دست مبارک پر اسلام قبول کرنے کے بعد تعمیر کروائی تھی۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
872📚General English & ComprehensionSentence Completion & Conjunctions
Managers set targets and decide ______ their organization can achieve them.
Explanation
The conjunction/adverb 'how' logically denotes the method and strategy to accomplish goals: "Managers set targets and decide how their organization can achieve them."
طریقہ کار ظاہر کرنے کے لیے لفظ 'how' (کس طرح) درست ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
873📚General English & ComprehensionEnglish Proverbs
"Man proposes, ______ disposes". Fill in the blank space in this saying with any one of the following words -
Explanation
The timeless proverb is: "Man proposes, God disposes" (meaning human plans are subject to divine will).
مشہور کہاوت ہے: "Man proposes, God disposes" (انسان سوچتا ہے اور خدا فیصلہ کرتا ہے)۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
874📚General English & ComprehensionRelative Pronouns & Syntax
Which one is the correct sentence ?
Explanation
"Everybody loves him who speaks the truth" is grammatically balanced, placing the antecedent 'him' adjacent to the relative clause 'who speaks the truth' without pronoun redundancy.
درست اور فصیح جملہ: "Everybody loves him who speaks the truth."
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
875📚General English & ComprehensionComprehension of Quotes & Themes
A great man said, "If you can't fly, then run, if you can't run, then walk, if you can't walk, then crawl, but whatever you do, you have to keep moving on." In this quote, emphasis is on -
Explanation
In Martin Luther King Jr.'s famous quotation, the underlying thesis and moral imperative is perpetual forward progress: 'Moving'.
اس قول میں بنیادی زور مسلسل آگے بڑھنے یعنی حرکت میں رہنے (Moving) پر ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
876📚General English & ComprehensionHomophones & Legal Terminology
Choose the right word to fill in the blank in the sentence:
"The President gave ______ to the bill."
Explanation
'Assent' means official agreement or formal presidential approval to legislation.
قانونی بل کی باضابطہ توثیق و منظوری کے لیے 'Assent' استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
877📚General English & ComprehensionPhrasal Verbs
"The wise man advised us not to hate the poor". Replace the word 'hate' in the sentence with one of the following expressions:
Explanation
The phrasal verb 'to look down upon' means to regard with contempt, disdain, or hate.
'Hate' (حقارت سے دیکھنا) کا درست متبادل فریز 'Look down upon' ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
878📚General English & ComprehensionSubjunctive Conjunctions: Lest...should
Fill in the blank in the sentence "He studied hard lest he ______ fail" with an appropriate word:
Explanation
The conjunction 'lest' (meaning 'for fear that') is grammatically followed by the auxiliary verb 'should': "...lest he should fail."
لفظ 'lest' کے ساتھ ہمیشہ موڈل 'should' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
879📚General English & ComprehensionFixed Prepositions: Good at
Manohar is good ______ Cricket.
Explanation
The adjective 'good' is followed by the fixed preposition 'at' when expressing competence or skill in a sport or subject: "good at Cricket."
کسی کھیل یا صلاحیت میں مہارت ظاہر کرنے کے لیے 'good at' درست ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
880📚General English & ComprehensionProverbs
"Where there is a ______ there is a way." Fill in the blank space in this sentence with any one of the following words -
Explanation
The famous proverb is: "Where there is a will there is a way" (meaning determination leads to success).
مشہور کہاوت ہے: "Where there is a will there is a way" (جہاں چاہ وہاں راہ)۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
881📚General English & ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement
"Yesterday Rahim as well as Karim ______ present in the meeting." Fill in the blank in this sentence with one of the following -
Explanation
When two subjects are connected by 'as well as', the verb agrees in number and person with the first subject ('Rahim', singular past): "was present in the meeting."
'as well as' کے ساتھ فعل پہلے فاعل (Rahim) کے مطابق واحد یعنی 'was' آئے گا۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
882📚General English & ComprehensionIdioms & Metaphors
The expression "Think out of the box" means -
Explanation
'To think out of the box' is an idiomatic metaphor meaning to think creatively, unconventionally, and in an innovative manner.
'Think out of the box' کا مطلب روایات سے ہٹ کر تخلیقی اور جدید انداز میں سوچنا ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
883📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KBiological Classifications: Feeding Habits
Omnivorous animals are those who -
Explanation
Omnivores are animals whose diet naturally comprises both plant materials and animal matter (eating all kinds of food).
ہمہ خور (Omnivorous) وہ جانور ہیں جو پودے اور گوشت دونوں کھاتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
884📚General Intelligence & ReasoningSyllogisms: Particular Premises
Statements: Some mangoes are yellow. Some tixo are mangoes.
Conclusions:
1. Some mangoes are green.
2. Tixo is a yellow.
Explanation
Two particular premises (I + I) yield no definite syllogistic conclusion linking Tixo to Yellow. Neither conclusion follows.
دیے گئے بیانات سے کوئی بھی نتیجہ اخذ نہیں ہوتا (Neither follows)۔
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885📚General Intelligence & ReasoningStatement and Conclusions
Statements: Government has spoiled many top ranking financial institutions by appointing bureaucrats as Directors of these institutions.
Conclusions:
1. Government should appoint Directors of the financial institutes taking into consideration the expertise of the person in the area of finance.
2. The Director of the financial institute should have expertise commensurate with the financial work carried out by the institute.
Explanation
Both conclusions directly address the premise's root problem by asserting that directors should possess specific financial expertise matching institutional roles. Both (1) and (2) follow.
دونوں نتائج (1 اور 2) بیان کے منطقی حل کے طور پر اخذ ہوتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
886📚General Intelligence & ReasoningStatement and Conclusions
Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.
Conclusions:
1. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future.
2. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life.
Explanation
Conclusion 2 follows directly from the statement (growing population + shrinking resources makes maintaining living standards difficult). Conclusion 1 contradicts the premise. Only (2) follows.
صرف نتیجہ (2) درست ہے کہ حکومتوں کے لیے معیار زندگی برقرار رکھنا مشکل ہوگا۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
887📚General Intelligence & ReasoningDirection Sense: Shadow Problems
One morning, Manish and Ali were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Ali's shadow was exactly to the left of Manish, which direction was Manish facing?
Explanation
In the morning, the Sun rises in the East, casting all shadows toward the West. If the shadow is to Manish's left, then Manish's left side is West. Therefore, Manish must be facing North.
صبح کے وقت سایہ مغرب میں پڑتا ہے۔ بائیں ہاتھ پر مغرب ہونے کا مطلب ہے کہ منیش کا رخ شمال (North) کی طرف ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
888📚General Intelligence & ReasoningDirection Sense & Distance
Kedar left home and ran 20 km towards South, then turned right and ran 10 km. He took rest for ten minutes at the same spot and then again turned right and ran 20 km. After this he turned left and ran 20 km to the cricket ground. How many kilometers will he have to run back to reach his home by shortest route?
Explanation
From home (0,0): South 20 km to (0, -20) → Right (West) 10 km to (-10, -20) → Right (North) 20 km to (-10, 0) → Left (West) 20 km to (-30, 0). Shortest horizontal distance to return home (0,0)=30 km(0,0) = 30\text{ km}.
گھر واپس پہنچنے کا مختصر ترین سیدھا فاصلہ = 10 + 20 = 30 کلومیٹر ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
889📚Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsProfit and Loss: Equal SP with Equal Gain and Loss
A man sells two houses at the rate of Rs. 1.995 lakhs each. On one, he gains 5% and on other he loses 5%. His gain/loss percentage in the whole transaction is
Explanation
When two items are sold at the same selling price with identical gain %\% and loss %\% (x=5%x = 5\%), the transaction always results in a net loss: Loss%=x2100%=52100%=25100%=0.25%\text{Loss}\% = \frac{x^2}{100}\% = \frac{5^2}{100}\% = \frac{25}{100}\% = 0.25\%.
یکساں فروخت اور یکساں نفع و نقصان پر مجموعی نقصان ہوتا ہے: 52100=0.25%\frac{5^2}{100} = 0.25\%۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
890📚Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsLinear Equations in Two Variables
The linear equation 6x−12y=06x - 12y = 0 has
Explanation
A single linear equation in two variables (x,yx, y) geometrically represents a continuous straight line in the Cartesian plane and has infinitely many solutions (x,y=x/2)(x, y = x/2).
دو متغیرات والی ایک لکیری مساوات کے لامتناہی حل (Infinite solutions) ہوتے ہیں۔
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891📚Knowledge of ComputersStorage Devices: Non-Volatile Memory
Which computer component is responsible for storing data in a long-term, non-volatile manner?
Explanation
A Hard Disk Drive (HDD) or Solid-State Drive (SSD) provides persistent, non-volatile secondary storage that retains data when power is switched off.
ہارڈ ڈرائیو (Hard Drive / SSD) مستقل اور نان وولیٹائل ڈیٹا اسٹوریج فراہم کرتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
892📚Knowledge of ComputersInput and Output Devices
What is the main function of an input device?
Explanation
Input devices (e.g. keyboard, mouse, scanner) allow users to feed data, commands, and control signals into a computer system for processing.
ان پٹ ڈیوائس کا بنیادی کام کمپیوٹر میں ڈیٹا داخل کرنا (Enter data) ہے۔
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893📚Knowledge of ComputersOperating Systems Overview
What is the purpose of an operating system?
Explanation
An Operating System (OS) is system software that manages computer hardware resources (CPU, memory, storage, devices) and provides common platform services for application software.
آپریٹنگ سسٹم کا مقصد ہارڈ ویئر وسائل کا انتظام کرنا اور ایپلی کیشنز چلانا ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
894📚Knowledge of ComputersCybersecurity: Antivirus Protection
Which type of software is designed to protect a computer from viruses and malware?
Explanation
Antivirus and anti-malware software detects, quarantines, and removes malicious software programs (viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware) from computer systems.
اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر کمپیوٹر کو وائرس اور نقصان دہ میلویئر سے محفوظ رکھتا ہے۔
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895📚Knowledge of ComputersNetworking Devices: Modem
What is the primary function of a modem?
Explanation
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) modulates analog signals to digital and vice versa to establish connectivity between a computer network and an Internet Service Provider (ISP).
موڈیم کا بنیادی کام کمپیوٹر کو انٹرنیٹ نیٹ ورک سے جوڑنا ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
896📚Knowledge of ComputersInput vs Output Devices
Which of the following is not an example of an output device?
Explanation
A Keyboard is a primary alphanumeric Input device used to type commands into the computer; Monitor, Printer, and Speaker are Output devices.
کی بورڈ ان پٹ ڈیوائس ہے، آؤٹ پٹ ڈیوائس نہیں ہے۔
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897📚Knowledge of ComputersProgramming Languages: High vs Low Level
Which of the following is not a high-level programming language?
Explanation
Assembly language is a Low-Level programming language that corresponds closely to a computer architecture's machine code instructions, whereas Python, Java, and C++ are high-level languages.
اسمبلی لینگویج (Assembly) ایک لو لیول لینگویج ہے، ہائی لیول نہیں۔
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898📚Knowledge of ComputersLanguage Translators: Compilers
What is the purpose of a compiler in programming?
Explanation
A compiler is a language translator that translates high-level source code into target low-level machine code or object code in a single comprehensive compilation pass.
کمپائلر سورس کوڈ کو مشین کوڈ (Machine code) میں تبدیل کرتا ہے۔
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899📚Knowledge of ComputersWeb Development: HTML
What does HTML stand for in web development?
Explanation
HTML stands for HyperText Markup Language, the standard markup language used to structure web pages and applications.
HTML کا مخفف 'Hyper Text Markup Language' ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
900📚Knowledge of ComputersTypes of Software
What type of software is responsible for managing hardware components and providing a user interface?
Explanation
System Software (primarily the Operating System, device drivers, and utilities) manages underlying hardware operations and delivers the user interface.
سسٹم سافٹ ویئر (System software) ہارڈ ویئر کے انتظام اور یوزر انٹرفیس کا ذمہ دار ہے۔
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901📚Knowledge of ComputersOpen-Source vs Proprietary Software
What is the primary characteristic of open-source software?
Explanation
Open-source software is characterized by releasing its underlying human-readable source code under a license permitting users to inspect, modify, and enhance it freely.
اوپن سورس سافٹ ویئر کا سورس کوڈ ہر ایک کے لیے دستیاب اور قابل ترمیم ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
902📚Knowledge of ComputersDatabase Query Languages: SQL
What does SQL stand for in the context of MS Access?
Explanation
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the standardized domain-specific language used for managing, querying, and manipulating relational databases.
SQL کا مخفف 'Structured Query Language' ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
903📚Knowledge of ComputersMalware & Computer Viruses
What is a computer virus?
Explanation
A computer virus is a malicious self-replicating software program that inserts its own code into programs or files to alter computer operations, steal data, or corrupt storage.
کمپیوٹر وائرس ایک نقصان دہ پروگرام ہے جو سسٹمز کو نقصان پہنچانے یا متاثر کرنے کے لیے بنایا جاتا ہے۔
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904📚Knowledge of ComputersMalware Transmission Vectors
How do computer viruses typically spread?
Explanation
Computer viruses standardly propagate across networks and devices via malicious email attachments, unauthorized file downloads, infected USB drives, and pirated software.
وائرس عام طور پر ای میل منسلکات، انٹرنیٹ ڈاؤن لوڈز اور متاثرہ فائلوں کے ذریعے پھیلتے ہیں۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
905📚Knowledge of ComputersVirus Objectives & Impacts
Which of the following is NOT a common objective of computer viruses?
Explanation
Spreading awareness about online security is the goal of ethical cybersecurity educators, whereas computer viruses maliciously delete files, steal data, and degrade performance.
آن لائن سیکیورٹی سے متعلق شعور بیدار کرنا وائرس کا مقصد نہیں بلکہ سیکیورٹی ماہرین کا کام ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
906📚Knowledge of ComputersAntivirus Products & Vendors
Which of the following is a well-known antivirus software developed by Symantec?
Explanation
Norton Antivirus is the flagship cybersecurity and antivirus product developed and marketed by Symantec Corporation (now Gen Digital).
نارٹن اینٹی وائرس (Norton Antivirus) سائمنٹیک (Symantec) کا مشہور اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر ہے۔
2023JKSSBDepartment of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj
907📚Knowledge of ComputersAntivirus Modules: Anti-Phishing
Which feature in antivirus software is designed to protect against malicious websites and online threats?
Explanation
Anti-phishing and web protection modules in antivirus suites analyze URL links and block fraudulent/malicious websites designed to steal credentials and sensitive data.
اینٹی فشنگ (Anti-phishing) فیچر نقصان دہ اور جعلی ویب سائٹس کے خطرات سے تحفظ فراہم کرتا ہے۔
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908📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLinguistic Evolution: Prakrit and Apabhramsha
The term 'apabhramsa' was used in medieval sanskrit texts to denote
Explanation
In historical Indian linguistics and medieval Sanskrit texts, 'Apabhramsha' (literally 'corrupt' or 'non-grammatical language') denoted the transitional dialects between Middle Indo-Aryan Prakrits and early modern Indo-Aryan regional languages (Hindi, Bengali, Gujarati, Punjabi, etc.).
قرون وسطی کے سنسکرت متون میں 'اپ بھرنش' سے مراد جدید ہندوستانی زبانوں کی ابتدائی اور عبوری شکلیں ہیں۔
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909📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KVijayanagara Temple Architecture
Kalyana Mandapas was a notable feature in the temple construction of
Explanation
The construction of elaborate, highly sculpted 'Kalyana Mandapas' (divine marriage halls supported by monolithic carved pillars) was a distinctive architectural innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire (e.g., Virupaksha and Vittala Temples at Hampi).
کلیان منڈپ کا شاندار طرز تعمیر وجے نگر سلطنت (Vijayanagara Kingdom) کے مندروں کی نمایاں خصوصیت تھی۔
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910📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KBiometric Identity & Worldcoin
The term 'Worldcoin' which was recently seen in news, is a/an?
Explanation
Worldcoin (co-founded by OpenAI's Sam Altman) is an iris biometric cryptocurrency project designed to establish a global digital identity ("World ID" Proof of Personhood) giving every human a share in the digital economy.
ورلڈ کوائن ایک بایومیٹرک کریپٹو کرنسی پروجیکٹ ہے جس کا مقصد ہر فرد کو ڈیجیٹل شناخت اور ڈیجیٹل معیشت میں حصہ دینا ہے۔
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911📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Environmental Agreements
Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Kyoto Protocol
2. Montreal Protocol
3. Vienna Convention
4. Basel Convention
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Chronology of international environmental treaties: 1. Vienna Convention for Protection of Ozone Layer (1985, 3) → 2. Montreal Protocol on Ozone Depleting Substances (1987, 2) → 3. Basel Convention on Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes (1989, 4) → 4. Kyoto Protocol on Greenhouse Gases (1997, 1)   ⟹  3,2,4,1\implies 3, 2, 4, 1.
ماحولیاتی معاہدوں کی تاریخی ترتیب: ویانا کنونشن (1985) → مانٹریال پروٹوکول (1987) → باسل کنونشن (1989) → کیوٹو پروٹوکول (1997) یعنی 3, 2, 4, 1۔
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912📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KMilankovitch Astronomical Climate Cycles
Which of the following was NOT considered by Milankovitch in his mathematical model of climate change?
Explanation
Milankovitch orbital cycles account for three astronomical variations: 1. Eccentricity of orbit (~100,000 yr cycle), 2. Obliquity/Axial tilt (~41,000 yr cycle), and 3. Axial/Orbital Precession (~26,000 yr cycle). Changes in diurnal rotational speed were NOT part of his model.
میلانکووچ نے اپنے آب و ہوا کے ماڈل میں زمین کی گردش کی رفتار کی تبدیلی کو شامل نہیں کیا تھا۔
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913📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEthnic Demographics of North-East India
Consider the following statements:
1. Thadou is a group of people inhabiting Assam.
2. Boro (Bodo) is a group of people inhabiting Manipur.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Both statements have locations reversed: Thadou people are indigenous to Manipur (and parts of Mizoram/Assam hills), whereas the Boro (Bodo) people are indigenous to the Brahmaputra Valley of Assam. Hence, Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
تھادو قبیلہ بنیادی طور پر منی پور میں اور بوڈو قبیلہ آسام میں آباد ہے، لہذا دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں (Neither 1 nor 2)۔
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914📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNobel Prizes 2023
Consider the following pairs:
i. Physics — 1. Drew Weissman
ii. Chemistry — 2. Alexey Ekimov
iii. Literature — 3. Jon Fosse
iv. Physiology or medicine — 4. Ferenc Krausz
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Nobel Prize 2023 Laureates: Physics = Ferenc Krausz (with Agostini & L'Huillier, i-4); Chemistry = Alexey Ekimov (with Bawendi & Brus for quantum dots, ii-2); Literature = Jon Fosse (iii-3); Physiology/Medicine = Drew Weissman & Katalin Karikó (iv-1)   ⟹  \implies i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1.
نوبل پرائز 2023: فزکس (فرینک کراؤس - i-4)، کیمسٹری (الیکسی ایکیموف - ii-2)، ادب (جون فوسے - iii-3)، میڈیسن (ڈریو ویزمین - iv-1)۔
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915📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPhysiographic Divisions & Geological Ages
Which of the following physical divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
Explanation
The Peninsular Plateau of India (composed of ancient igneous and metamorphic crystalline rocks of the Gondwana shield) is geologically the oldest and most stable landmass of India.
جزیرہ نما سطح مرتفع (The Peninsular Plateau) ارضیاتی اعتبار سے ہندوستان کا سب سے قدیم اور مستحکم خطہ ہے۔
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916📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPeasant and Tribal Uprisings
Consider the following pairs:
1. Moplah Revolt — iv. Kerala
2. Eka Movement — ii. Awadh
3. Birsa Munda Revolt — i. Bihar/Jharkhand
4. Pabna Revolt — iii. Bengal
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Matching peasant/tribal movements to regions: Moplah Rebellion = Malabar, Kerala (1-iv); Eka Movement = Awadh, UP (2-ii); Birsa Munda Ulgulan = Chhota Nagpur, erstwhile Bihar (3-i); Pabna Agrarian League = Bengal (4-iii)   ⟹  \implies 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii.
تحریکوں کے علاقے: موپلہ (کیرالہ)، ایکا تحریک (اودھ)، برسا منڈا بغاوت (بہار/جھارکھنڈ)، پبنا بغاوت (بنگال)۔
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917📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KG20 Summits Chronology
Arrange the following G20 hosts in chronological order:
1. Japan
2. Italy
3. China
4. Germany
5. India
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Chronology of G20 Leaders' Summits: 1. Hangzhou, China (2016, 3) → 2. Hamburg, Germany (2017, 4) → 3. Osaka, Japan (2019, 1) → 4. Rome, Italy (2021, 2) → 5. New Delhi, India (2023, 5)   ⟹  3,4,1,2,5\implies 3, 4, 1, 2, 5.
جی 20 سربراہی اجلاس کی میزبانی: چین (2016) → جرمنی (2017) → جاپان (2019) → اٹلی (2021) → ہندوستان (2023) یعنی 3, 4, 1, 2, 5۔
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918📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCoastline Lengths of Indian States
Arrange the following states in ascending order as per their coastline length:
1. Odisha
2. Kerala
3. Gujarat
4. Andhra Pradesh
5. Tamil Nadu
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Length of mainland coastlines: Odisha (480 km, 1) < Kerala (590 km, 2) < Tamil Nadu (906 km, 5) < Andhra Pradesh (974 km, 4) < Gujarat (1214 km, 3)   ⟹  1,2,5,4,3\implies 1, 2, 5, 4, 3.
ساحلی پٹی کی لمبائی کی صعودی ترتیب: اڈیشہ (480km) < کیرالہ (590km) < تمل ناڈو (906km) < آندھرا پردیش (974km) < گجرات (1214km) یعنی 1, 2, 5, 4, 3۔
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919📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIslands & Volcanism in India
Two volcanic islands in Indian territory are
Explanation
Barren Island (India's only active volcano) and Narcondam Island (a dormant volcanic island) are both located in the Andaman Sea within Indian sovereign territory.
ہندوستان کی سرزمین میں دو آتش فشانی جزیرے نارکوندم (خوابیدہ) اور بیرن آئی لینڈ (فعال) ہیں۔
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920📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNASA Interplanetary Missions: New Horizons
'New Horizons' spacecraft was launched by NASA to study which of the following planet?
Explanation
NASA's New Horizons interplanetary space probe was launched in 2006 specifically to perform the first-ever close-up flyby reconnaissance of dwarf planet Pluto and its moons (achieved in July 2015).
ناسا کا نیو ہورائزنز خلائی جہاز پلوٹو (Pluto) اور کوئپر بیلٹ کے مطالعے کے لیے بھیجا گیا تھا۔
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921📚General EnglishGeographical Coordinates & Mountain Ranges
Consider the following statements:
1. Jammu and Kashmir covers an area of 101387 Sq. Kms and lies between Latitude 28°17' and 35°05' North.
2. The higher regions are covered by Pir Panjal, Karakoram, and inner Himalayan ranges of mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect (J&K lies between 32°17' N and 37°05' N latitude, not 28°17'). Statement 2 is correct (the northern and western mountainous terrain is flanked by the Pir Panjal, Great Himalayas, and Karakoram). Thus, 2 only is correct.
جموں و کشمیر 32°17' سے 37°05' شمالی عرض البلد کے درمیان واقع ہے، لہذا صرف بیان 2 درست ہے۔
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922📚General EnglishKashmir Saffron Cultivation & Botany
What is the scientific name of the saffron plant cultivated in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Kashmir Saffron (celebrated for its thick stigmas, high crocin content, and GI tag) is scientifically classified as Crocus sativus (belonging to the family Iridaceae).
کشمیر کے مشہور زعفران کا سائنسی نام Crocus sativus ہے۔
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923📚General EnglishKashmiri Poets: Mahjoor and Habba Khatoon
Consider the following statements:
1. Mahjoor (Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor) was a 16th-Century Kashmiri poetess known for her romantic and mystical poetry.
2. Habba Khatoon was a prominent 20th Century Kashmiri poet known for his nationalist and romantic poetry of mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Explanation
Both statements have identities and centuries swapped: Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor was a revolutionary 20th-century male poet ('Shair-e-Kashmir'), while Habba Khatoon ('Nightingale of Kashmir') was a 16th-century poetess and queen of Yousuf Shah Chak. Thus, Both 1 and 2 are NOT correct.
دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں کیونکہ مہجور 20ویں صدی کے قومی شاعر تھے اور حبہ خاتون 16ویں صدی کی ملکہ اور شاعرہ تھیں (Both 1 and 2 are NOT correct)۔
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924📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsModal Auxiliaries: Moral Duty & Obligation
Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:
All company employees _____ abide by the rules and regulations provided.
Explanation
The modal 'ought to' is used to express moral duty, mandatory workplace obligation, and correctness of conduct: "All company employees ought to abide by the rules..."
اخلاقی اور قانونی پابندی ظاہر کرنے کے لیے موڈل 'ought to' درست ہے۔
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925📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsModal Auxiliaries: Past Ability
Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:
I _____ run a mile in 10 minutes, when I was younger.
Explanation
The modal auxiliary 'could' is used to denote past physical ability or capacity in completed past time: "I could run a mile in 10 minutes, when I was younger."
ماضی کی جسمانی صلاحیت ظاہر کرنے کے لیے 'could' کا استعمال ہوتا ہے۔
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926📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsArticles: Dual Appositive Nouns
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles:
Mr. Agnihotri, who is _____ producer and _____ financier of _____ Nike company was present there.
Explanation
When two job titles ('producer' and 'financier') refer to the same single individual, the definite article 'the' is used before the first title and omitted before the second, followed by 'the Nike company': "...the producer and financier of the Nike company..."
جب ایک ہی شخص کے دو عہدے بیان ہوں تو آرٹیکل 'the' صرف پہلے عہدے سے پہلے آتا ہے (the, no article, the)۔
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927📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsArticles: Indefinite and Definite
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles:
_____ recent survey indicates that _____ number of drug addicts is growing day by day.
Explanation
Indefinite singular noun phrase 'A recent survey' introduces a non-specific study, followed by the fixed phrase 'the number of': "A recent survey indicates that the number of drug addicts..."
پہلے خالی جگہ میں 'A' اور دوسرے میں 'the number of' کے اصول سے 'the' آئے گا۔
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928📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsHomophones
Select a homophone pair in the passage context:
As the sun ascended towards the horizon, its golden rays stretched across the expanse of the meadow, painting the landscape in warm hues of orange and pink.
Explanation
'Sun' has the exact phonetic homophone 'son' (words identical in pronunciation but differing in spelling and meaning).
'Sun' کا ہوموفون لفظ 'Son' ہے۔
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929📚General Intelligence & ReasoningSentence Completion: Vocabulary in Context
Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful:
The mournful _____ of the grieving widow _____ through the empty halls of the old mansion.
Explanation
Singular noun 'wail' (mournful cry of sorrow) fits with singular verb 'echoed': "The mournful wail of the grieving widow echoed through the empty halls..."
درست اور بامعنی جوڑا 'wail, echoed' ہے۔
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930📚General Intelligence & ReasoningSentence Completion
Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful:
She described that those responsible for _____ are connected with _____ like drugs or gaming.
Explanation
'offenses' (crimes/misdeeds) and 'vice' (immoral habits like drugs/gambling) perfectly complete the semantic structure: "...responsible for offenses are connected with vice like drugs or gaming."
درست جوڑا 'offenses, vice' (جرائم اور برائیاں) ہے۔
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931📚General Intelligence & ReasoningPrepositions of Position
Fill in the blank with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below:
He inserted a needle _____ the close petals of a flower.
Explanation
Preposition 'between' indicates inserting an object into the space separating two or more touching petals: "He inserted a needle between the close petals..."
پتیوں کے درمیانی فاصلے میں داخل کرنے کے لیے 'between' درست ہے۔
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932📚General Intelligence & ReasoningInformation Technology Act, 2000
In which year India's IT Act came into existence?
Explanation
The Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act 2000 / Act No. 21 of 2000) was enacted by the Indian Parliament and came into force on 17 October 2000.
ہندوستان کا انفارمیشن ٹیکنالوجی ایکٹ (IT Act) سال 2000 میں نافذ ہوا۔
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933📚General Intelligence & ReasoningAntivirus Software
McAfee is an example of
Explanation
McAfee is a globally renowned cybersecurity company and antivirus software program designed to detect and eradicate malware.
میکافی (McAfee) اینٹی وائرس سافٹ ویئر کی مثال ہے۔
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934📚General Intelligence & ReasoningMalware Types: Ransomware
Ransomware virus is developed for
Explanation
Ransomware is a category of extortion malware designed to covertly encrypt the victim's valuable files and lock the system, demanding a ransom payment in exchange for the decryption key.
رینسم ویئر فائلوں کو انکرپٹ کر کے ڈکرپشن کے لیے تاوان (Ransom) طلب کرتا ہے۔
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935📚General Intelligence & ReasoningNetwork Worms vs Viruses
A virus famous for making multiple copies of itself, spreads and infects the other computers over a network is called
Explanation
A Computer Worm is a standalone self-replicating malicious program that duplicates itself and autonomously spreads across computer networks without requiring human intervention or a host file.
ورم (Worm) ایک خود کار طور پر کاپیاں بنانے والا اور نیٹ ورک پر پھیلنے والا میلویئر ہے۔
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936📚Basic MathematicsPowerPoint Shortcuts: Insert Slide
In MS Power Point, to insert a new slide in the current presentation, we press the following command.
Explanation
Ctrl + M is the shortcut key in PowerPoint to insert a New Slide into the current presentation. (Ctrl + N creates a brand new blank presentation file).
پاور پوائنٹ میں موجودہ پریزنٹیشن کے اندر نئی سلائیڈ شامل کرنے کے لیے شارٹ کٹ 'Ctrl + M' ہے۔
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937📚Basic MathematicsSlide Setup and Page Orientation
What is the default page orientation for slides in MS Power Point?
Explanation
The default slide page orientation in Microsoft PowerPoint presentations is Landscape (horizontal 16:9 widescreen layout).
ایم ایس پاور پوائنٹ میں سلائیڈ کی ڈیفالٹ سمت لینڈ اسکیپ (Landscape) ہوتی ہے۔
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938📚Basic MathematicsDirection Sense: Angular Turns
A man is facing towards the east. He then turns 45° anti-clockwise, again 180° anti-clockwise and then 225° clockwise. In which direction is he facing now?
Explanation
Sum of rotations: Anticlockwise =+45∘+180∘=+225∘= +45^\circ + 180^\circ = +225^\circ. Clockwise =−225∘= -225^\circ. Net angular change =+225∘−225∘=0∘= +225^\circ - 225^\circ = 0^\circ. The man remains facing in his original direction: East.
مجموعی زاویائی گردش: +225∘−225∘=0∘+225^\circ - 225^\circ = 0^\circ، یعنی وہ ابھی بھی مشرق (East) کی طرف دیکھ رہا ہے۔
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939📚Basic MathematicsCoding-Decoding: Direct Letter Substitution
In a certain code language 'DEAR' is coded as '7465' and 'LIFE' is coded as '8394'. Then how will 'IDEAL' be coded in the same code language?
Explanation
Direct letter mapping:
- D = 7, E = 4, A = 6, R = 5
- L = 8, I = 3, F = 9, E = 4
For 'IDEAL': I(3), D(7), E(4), A(6), L(8)   ⟹  \implies 37468.
حروف کی براہ راست کوڈنگ کے مطابق 'IDEAL' کا کوڈ 37468 ہے۔
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940📚Basic MathematicsAnalogy: Biological & Nutritional Relationships
Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term:
Body : Vitamin :: Crop : ?
Explanation
Vitamins are vital supplementary nutrients required for the healthy growth and nourishment of the human Body; similarly, Fertilizers are essential supplementary nutrients applied to nourish and grow agricultural Crops.
جس طرح جسم کو وٹامن کی ضرورت ہوتی ہے، اسی طرح فصل کو کھاد (Fertilizer) کی ضرورت ہوتی ہے۔
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941📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActCarriageway Design & Lane Specifications
National Highway of 4 lane divided carriage way means
Explanation
A 4-lane divided carriageway highway consists of a central physical median dividing two lanes of dedicated traffic flow in each opposite direction (2 lanes up + 2 lanes down = 4 total lanes).
4-لین ڈیوائیڈڈ ہائی وے کا مطلب دونوں سمتوں میں 2، 2 ٹریفک لینز کا ہونا ہے۔
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942📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActMoRTH Statutory Speed Limits
Maximum speed of "N" category goods carriage vehicles, on 4 lanes divided carriageway of National Highway roads in India is
Explanation
As per Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) statutory notification, the maximum speed limit for Category N goods vehicles on 4-lane divided National Highways is 80 km/hr80\text{ km/hr}.
نیشنل ہائی وے پر سامان بردار گاڑیوں (N Category) کی زیادہ سے زیادہ رفتار کی حد 80 km/hr80\text{ km/hr} ہے۔
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943📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActEmergency Vehicle Right-of-Way
Free passage should be given to the following types of vehicles
Explanation
Under Section 194E of the Motor Vehicles Act, every driver must yield right of way and provide unobstructed free passage to emergency vehicles, specifically Fire Service tenders and Ambulances.
ایمبولینس اور فائر سروس والی ہنگامی گاڑیوں کو ہر صورت بغیر کسی رکاوٹ کا راستہ دینا لازمی ہے۔
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944📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActHand Signals of Traffic Police
Traffic police hand signal: Right arm raised vertically straight and left arm extended horizontally represents:
Explanation
A vertically raised right hand with palm facing front is the universal manual command by traffic police to stop vehicles approaching from the front.
سامنے سے آنے والی ٹریفک کو روکنے کے لیے سیدھا ہاتھ اوپر اٹھایا جاتا ہے۔
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945📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActDriver Manual Turn Signals
Driver extending right arm outside and rotating it in an anti-clockwise circular direction represents:
Explanation
Under the Motor Vehicle Driving Regulations, a driver extending the right arm horizontally and rotating it in an anti-clockwise circle signals their intention to turn left.
سیدھے ہاتھ کو باہر نکال کر گھڑیال مخالف گھمانا بائیں مڑنے (Turn left) کا اشارہ ہے۔
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946📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActDriver Right Turn Signals
Driver extending right arm horizontally straight outside the vehicle represents:
Explanation
A driver extending the right arm fully and rigidly in a horizontal line with the palm facing forward indicates the intention to turn right or change lanes to the right.
سیدھے ہاتھ کو بالکل سیدھا باہر نکالنا دائیں مڑنے (Turn right) کا اشارہ ہے۔
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947📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActRegulatory Sign Design Specifications (IRC 67)
Match the properties of Mandatory/Regulatory signs:
a. Red circular ring — 4. Indicates prohibitory regulation
b. Diagonal red bar — 3. Prohibits action indicated by black symbol
c. Circular shape — 2. Mandatory or regulatory signs
d. Positive instruction — 1. Circular with white symbol on blue background
Explanation
Sign design standards: Red outer rings indicate prohibitions (a-4); Diagonal slashes prohibit specific movements (b-3); Circular shapes denote mandatory regulatory signs (c-2); Blue circular signs provide mandatory positive instructions (d-1)   ⟹  \implies a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.
ٹریفک علامات کے معیارات: سرخ دائرہ (a-4)، ترچھی لکیر (b-3)، دائرے کی شکل (c-2)، نیلا بیک گراؤنڈ (d-1)۔
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948📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActMandatory Direction Signs
A blue circular mandatory sign with white arrows pointing straight and left represents:
Explanation
A circular blue sign with white directional arrows indicates a mandatory positive instruction: Compulsory Ahead or Turn Left.
نیلے دائرے میں سیدھا اور بائیں تیر کا نشان لازمی آگے چلنے یا بائیں مڑنے کا حکم دیتا ہے۔
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949📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActExpressway Network Markers
A shield-shaped route marker sign displaying "NE 1" on a highway represents:
Explanation
Route shields labeled 'NE' denote National Expressways in India (e.g. NE 1 = Ahmedabad-Vadodara Expressway), representing an Expressway route marker sign.
NE 1 کا نشان نیشنل ایکسپریس وے روٹ مارکر (Expressway route marker) ہے۔
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950📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActFirst Aid Protocols for Trauma & Resuscitation
Match casualty indications with first aid procedures:
a. Conscious and breathing normally — 2. Provide appropriate first aid
b. Unconscious, and breathing normally — 1. Put casualty in recovery position
c. Unconscious and not breathing — 4. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
d. Insect wing lodged under eyelid — 3. Rinse immediately with plenty of water
Explanation
Standard first aid protocols: Unconscious breathing victim goes into recovery position (b-1); Non-breathing unconscious casualty requires immediate CPR (c-4); Eye foreign body requires copious irrigation (d-3); Conscious injured person receives standard first aid (a-2)   ⟹  \implies a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3.
ابتدائی طبی امداد کے درست اصول: ہوش میں ہونا (a-2)، بے ہوش لیکن سانس جاری (ریکوری پوزیشن b-1)، بے ہوش اور سانس بند (CPR c-4)، آنکھ میں کیڑا (پانی سے دھونا d-3)۔
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951📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActPrimary Survey & ABC Protocol
Arrange the First Aid sequence in a correct manner:
(i) Help to restore breathing
(ii) Lay the victim on ground gently and clear breathing track
(iii) Stop any bleeding
(iv) Call ambulance for medical help
Explanation
Primary Survey Sequence (Airway → Breathing → Circulation → Emergency dispatch): (ii) Open & clear airway → (i) Restore breathing → (iii) Control severe hemorrhage/bleeding → (iv) Call ambulance   ⟹  \implies (ii), (i), (iii), (iv).
ابتدائی طبی امداد کی ترتیب: سانس کی نالی کھولنا (ii) → سانس بحال کرنا (i) → خون روکنا (iii) → ایمبولینس بلانا (iv)۔
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952📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceDistracted Driving Regulations
Smoking while driving is
Explanation
Smoking while driving causes cognitive, visual, and manual distractions, increases carbon monoxide in blood, and is a legally punishable offence for commercial/public service drivers.
ڈرائیونگ کے دوران سگریٹ نوشی توجہ ہٹانے والا اور قانوناً قابل سزا عمل ہے۔
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953📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceSeatbelt Mandate
Which safety device should be used while driving a four-wheeler?
Explanation
Under Section 125 of CMVR and Section 194B of the Motor Vehicles Act, wearing a Three-Point Seatbelt is mandatory for all occupants of a four-wheeled motor vehicle.
چار پہیہ گاڑی چلاتے وقت سیٹ بیلٹ (Seatbelt) باندھنا لازمی ہے۔
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954📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceTyre-Pavement Friction & Hydroplaning
Driving a four wheeler on a wet road is difficult due to
Explanation
Water on road surfaces forms a thin lubricating liquid film that substantially decreases the coefficient of friction and grip between tyre rubber and pavement, increasing stopping distance and risk of hydroplaning.
گیلی سڑک پر ٹائر اور سڑک کے درمیان رگڑ (Friction) کم ہو جاتی ہے جس سے گاڑی پھسلنے کا خطرہ بڑھ جاتا ہے۔
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955📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceSafe Night Overtaking Protocols
When you are driving at night and want to overtake a car in front, you must
Explanation
Flashing headlamps (headlight flasher / optical horn) at night alerts the driver ahead of your intention to overtake without causing prolonged dangerous glare.
رات کے وقت اوورٹیک کرنے سے پہلے سامنے والی گاڑی کو ہیڈلائٹ فلیش کر کے اشارہ دیں۔
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956📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceNight Breakdown Management
Arrange the following steps in correct sequence when a motor vehicle breaks down at night:
(i) Apply brakes
(ii) Slow down the vehicle
(iii) Turn on hazard warning lights
(iv) Get out from the vehicle safely
Explanation
Safe breakdown sequence: (ii) Gently slow down vehicle → (i) Steer off roadway and apply parking brakes → (iii) Turn on hazard warning flashers → (iv) Exit vehicle safely on passenger side   ⟹  \implies (ii), (i), (iii), (iv).
رات کو گاڑی خراب ہونے کی درست ترتیب: رفتار کم کرنا (ii) → کنارے لگا کر بریک لگانا (i) → ہیزرڈ لائٹ آن کرنا (iii) → حفاظت سے باہر نکلنا (iv)۔
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957📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceBlind Spot Verification
To see a vehicle in the blind spots, a driver should
Explanation
Because mirrors cannot cover the blind spot adjacent to the rear B/C pillars, a driver must perform a physical head turn (shoulder check) before changing lanes.
بلائنڈ اسپاٹ میں موجود گاڑی دیکھنے کے لیے ڈرائیور کو اپنا سر گھما کر دیکھنا (Shoulder check) چاہیے۔
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958📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceStreet Lighting Configurations
Single-sided road lighting is most effective for
Explanation
In street lighting engineering, single-sided luminaire pole arrangement is effective only when the road width is less than or equal to the luminaire mounting height (single-lane or narrow two-lane roads).
ایک طرفہ اسٹریٹ لائٹس تنگ یا سنگل لین سڑکوں کے لیے سب سے زیادہ مؤثر ہوتی ہیں۔
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959📚Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceNational Emergency Helpline Numbers
In case of a road accident, to call an ambulance, what emergency number must be dialed?
Explanation
In India, 108 (and 102) is the dedicated national emergency toll-free telephone number to dispatch an Ambulance and emergency medical services. (100 is Police, 101 is Fire).
ہنگامی طبی امداد اور ایمبولینس بلانے کے لیے ہیلپ لائن نمبر 108 ہے۔
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960📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 129: Mandatory Helmet Law
What does Section 129 of the Central Motor Vehicles Act 1988 specify?
Explanation
Section 129 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 mandates that every person driving or riding on a two-wheeler motorcycle shall wear protective headgear (BIS-compliant safety helmet).
سیکشن 129 موٹر سائیکل سواروں کے لیے حفاظتی ہیلمٹ (Helmet) پہننا لازمی قرار دیتا ہے۔
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961📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSources of Air Pollution: Anthropogenic vs Natural
Among the following options, which are man-made (anthropogenic) sources of air pollution?
(i) Burning of firewood
(ii) Forest fire
(iii) Automobile
(iv) Earthquakes
Explanation
Domestic firewood burning (i) and motor vehicle combustion emissions (iii) are direct human/anthropogenic activities. Natural forest fires and earthquakes are natural phenomena. Thus, (i) and (iii) are man-made.
لکڑی جلانا اور گاڑیوں کا دھواں انسان ساختہ فضائی آلودگی کے ذرائع ہیں (i اور iii)۔
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962📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 146: Mandatory Third-Party Insurance
Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: As per Indian Motor Vehicles Act 1988, a comprehensive motor insurance policy is mandatory.
Statement-2: Third-party liability insurance is optional for Indian vehicles.
Choose the correct combination:
Explanation
Under Section 146 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988: Third-Party Liability Insurance is legally MANDATORY, while Comprehensive Own-Damage Insurance is OPTIONAL. Both statements in the question are false.
تھرڈ پارٹی انشورنس قانونی طور پر لازمی ہے جبکہ جامع انشورنس اختیاری ہے، اس لیے دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں (Both false)۔
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963📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlRule 50: Registration Mark Script & Font
As per Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, the number plate of a vehicle should be written in
Explanation
Under Rule 50 and Rule 51 of CMVR, 1989, registration marks on number plates must be displayed in capital Roman English letters with international Arabic numerals (e.g. JK01AB1234).
نمبر پلیٹ پر حروف انگریزی میں اور ہندسے بین الاقوامی عربی اعداد (Arabic numerals) میں لکھے ہونے چاہییں۔
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964📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlEngine Overheating Causes
Among the following options, what are the causes of engine overheating?
(i) Excessive valve clearance
(ii) Insufficient coolant
(iii) Faulty radiator fan
(iv) Faulty water pump
Explanation
Direct causes of engine cooling system breakdown and overheating are: low coolant levels (ii), defective radiator cooling fan (iii), and failed water pump impeller/belt (iv).
انجن گرم ہونے کی اہم وجوہات میں کولنٹ کی کمی، ریڈی ایٹر پنکھے کی خرابی اور واٹر پمپ کا کام نہ کرنا شامل ہیں (ii, iii, iv)۔
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965📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlRadiators & Heat Exchangers
What is the primary purpose of the radiator in a motor vehicle engine cooling system?
Explanation
The Radiator is a heat exchanger that dissipates excess combustion heat from circulating hot engine coolant into ambient airflow, maintaining optimal operating temperature and preventing overheating.
ریڈی ایٹر کا بنیادی کام انجن کو زیادہ گرم ہونے سے بچانا اور درجہ حرارت کنٹرول میں رکھنا ہے۔
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966📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCoolant Chemistry & Distilled Water
Which type of water is recommended for mixing with antifreeze coolant in a car radiator?
Explanation
Soft, distilled, or demineralized water must be used in engine cooling systems to prevent calcium/magnesium mineral scale buildup that clogs radiator tubes.
ریڈی ایٹر میں نمکیات سے پاک نرم یا ڈسٹلڈ پانی (Soft/Distilled water) استعمال کرنا چاہیے تاکہ زنگ اور گندگی نہ جمے۔
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967📚General EnglishAntonyms
After his success in the examination, he felt elated.
Choose the word closest to the opposite in meaning to the bold part:
Explanation
'Elated' means extremely happy, jubilant, and exhilarated. Its direct antonym is 'Dejected' (sad, depressed, and disheartened).
'Elated' (بہت خوش) کا متضاد لفظ 'Dejected' (افسردہ و مایوس) ہے۔
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968📚General EnglishAntonyms
There are no permanent adversaries in politics.
Choose the word closest to the opposite in meaning to the bold part:
Explanation
'Adversaries' means opponents or rivals. Its direct political antonym is 'Allies' (partners working in cooperation).
'Adversaries' (مخالفین) کا متضاد لفظ 'Allies' (اتحادی / دوست) ہے۔
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969📚General EnglishAntonyms
The judge thought that the offense was deliberate.
Choose the word closest to the opposite in meaning to the bold part:
Explanation
'Deliberate' means intentional, planned, and done on purpose. Its antonym is 'Unintentional' (accidental).
'Deliberate' (دانستہ) کا متضاد لفظ 'Unintentional' (غیر ارادی) ہے۔
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970📚General EnglishIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meaning of the given idiom:
A man of straw
Explanation
'A man of straw' refers to a person of no substance, weak character, or lacking real integrity and power.
'A man of straw' کا مطلب بے وقعت یا کمزور کردار والا شخص (A man of no substance) ہے۔
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971📚General EnglishPara Jumbles
Rearrange the jumbled sentences into correct logical order:
P: Using matches however came much later.
Q: The first great discovery that man probably made was that of fire.
R: In olden times fires were made by rubbing two flints against each other till a spark was produced.
S: And this spark set fire to dry straw, leaves, or wood.
Explanation
Logical sequence is QRSP: Discovery of fire (Q) → Flint rubbing method (R) → Sparks lighting straw (S) → Matchsticks coming much later (P).
درست تاریخی و منطقی ترتیب QRSP ہے۔
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972📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KThree-Tier Panchayati Raj System
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ tier system of Panchayati Raj in each state.
Explanation
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 mandates a uniform Three-Tier system of Panchayati Raj: Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level, and Zilla Parishad at district level.
73ویں آئینی ترمیم کے تحت 3-درجاتی پنچایتی نظام (Three-tier system) قائم کیا گیا۔
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973📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KDuration of Panchayats (Article 243E)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ term of office to the Panchayat at every level.
Explanation
Article 243E of the Indian Constitution mandates a fixed 5-year tenure for Panchayats at all levels from the date appointed for their first meeting.
آئین کے تحت پنچایتوں کی مدت 5 سال (Five years) مقرر ہے۔
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974📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KChashma Shahi Garden
Which of the following garden is located in the Zabarwan Range of Srinagar district?
Explanation
Chashma Shahi Garden (built in 1632 AD by Mughal Governor Ali Mardan Khan for Dara Shikoh) is situated along the slopes of the Zabarwan Mountain Range overlooking Dal Lake.
چشمہ شاہی باغ سری نگر میں زبروان پہاڑی سلسلے کے دامن میں واقع ہے۔
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975🔬General ScienceProminent Leaders and Organizations
Consider the following pairs and identify how many pairs are correct:
1. Subhash Chandra Bose — All India Forward Bloc
2. Chittaranjan Das — First President of Swaraj Party
3. MG Ranade — Father of renaissance of western India
4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale — Servants of India Society
Explanation
All four historical pairs are correct: Netaji founded Forward Bloc (1939); C.R. Das was first President of Swaraj Party (1923); Justice M.G. Ranade spearheaded the western Indian social renaissance; Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society (1905).
چاروں تاریخی شخصیات اور ان کے کارنامے بالکل درست میچ ہیں (All four)۔
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976🔬General SciencePioneering Indian Women
Who was the first Indian commercial woman pilot?
Explanation
Captain Durba Banerjee became the first Indian woman commercial pilot when she joined Indian Airlines in 1956.
ہندوستان کی پہلی خاتون کمرشل پائلٹ دربا بنرجی (Durba Banerjee) تھیں۔
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977🔬General ScienceNuclear Power Plants in India
Which among the following is the oldest nuclear power station in India?
Explanation
Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS) in Palghar, Maharashtra, commissioned on 28 October 1969 with Boiling Water Reactors, is India's first and oldest commercial nuclear power plant.
ہندوستان کا سب سے پہلا اور قدیم ترین ایٹمی بجلی گھر تارا پور (مہاراشٹر، 1969) ہے۔
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978🔬General ScienceEmail Protocols: SMTP
Which protocol provides an email transmission facility among network hosts?
Explanation
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, operating on port 25/587) is the push protocol used to send and transmit outgoing emails across network hosts.
ای میل بھیجنے کے لیے بنیادی پروٹوکول SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) ہے۔
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979🔬General ScienceOperating System User Interfaces
Which of the following controls the process of interaction between the user and the operating system?
Explanation
The User Interface (UI — Graphical User Interface GUI or Command Line Interface CLI) is the visual and functional layer that facilitates interaction between human users and the OS.
صارف اور آپریٹنگ سسٹم کے درمیان رابطہ قائم کرنے والا ذریعہ یوزر انٹرفیس (User interface) ہے۔
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980🔬General ScienceNetwork Topologies: Star Topology
A distributed network configuration in which all data/information passes through a central hub/computer is
Explanation
In a Star Topology network, every individual network node is connected directly to a central hub, switch, or computer that manages all communication.
وہ نیٹ ورک ٹوپولوجی جس میں تمام نوڈز ایک مرکزی ہب سے جڑے ہوتے ہیں اسٹار نیٹ ورک (Star network) کہلاتا ہے۔
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981📚Mental Ability / ReasoningWindows Recycle Bin Management
Choose the FALSE statement regarding the Recycle Bin:
Explanation
Statement C is false: Moving files to the Recycle Bin merely changes their directory location; disk space is NOT freed until the Recycle Bin is permanently emptied.
بیان C غلط ہے کیونکہ فائلوں کو ری سائیکل بن میں ڈالنے سے ڈسک کی جگہ خالی نہیں ہوتی جب تک اسے خالی (Empty) نہ کیا جائے۔
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982📚Mental Ability / ReasoningPowerPoint Shortcuts
Which shortcut key inserts a new slide into the current PowerPoint presentation?
Explanation
In Microsoft PowerPoint, pressing Ctrl + M immediately inserts a new blank slide into the current deck. (Ctrl + N creates a new presentation file).
پاور پوائنٹ میں نئی سلائیڈ شامل کرنے کا شارٹ کٹ 'Ctrl+M' ہے۔
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983📚Mental Ability / ReasoningInternational Tennis Hall of Fame 2024
Who is the first Asian man to be nominated for and inducted into the International Tennis Hall of Fame in 2024?
Explanation
Indian tennis legend Leander Paes (18-time Grand Slam champion in doubles and mixed doubles) became the first Asian male player inducted into the International Tennis Hall of Fame.
لینڈر پیس انٹرنیشنل ٹینس ہال آف فیم میں شامل ہونے والے پہلے ایشیائی مرد کھلاڑی بنے۔
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984📚Mental Ability / ReasoningIndia-Myanmar Border & Free Movement Regime
With reference to the India-Myanmar Border, consider the following statements:
1. It was demarcated by the British Government in India in 1826.
2. It extends along the States of Meghalaya, Assam and Tripura.
3. The Free Movement Regime enables tribes along the border to travel up to 16 km inside the neighbouring country without a visa.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Border demarcation originated from the 1826 Treaty of Yandabo, and the FMR permitted border residents to travel 16 km across. Statement 2 is false because the 1,643 km border is shared with Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram (not Assam, Meghalaya, or Tripura). Thus, 1 and 3 only are correct.
ہندوستان-میانمار سرحد کے بیانات 1 اور 3 درست ہیں (صرف اروناچل، ناگالینڈ، منی پور، میزورم بارڈر شیئر کرتے ہیں)۔
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985📚Mental Ability / ReasoningEstablishment of Sikh Rule in Kashmir (1819)
The Sikh rule was established in Kashmir in which year?
Explanation
Sikh rule was established in Kashmir in July 1819 when Maharaja Ranjit Singh's army led by Misr Diwan Chand defeated Afghan Governor Jabbar Khan at the Battle of Shopian.
کشمیر میں سکھ حکومت کا قیام جولائی 1819 (1819) میں عمل میں آیا۔
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986📚Computer ApplicationsNitrogen Assimilation in Plants
What do plants convert absorbed nitrates and nitrites into after nitrogen fixation?
Explanation
Plants reduce soil nitrates into ammonium ions and incorporate them via glutamine synthetase pathways into organic Amino Acids (the building blocks of proteins).
پودے نائٹریٹ کو پروٹین کے بنیادی اجزاء یعنی امینو ایسڈز (Amino acids) میں تبدیل کرتے ہیں۔
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987📚Computer ApplicationsTrophic Structure: Primary vs Secondary Consumers
What trophic level of the food chain do secondary carnivores typically occupy?
Explanation
In ecological trophic levels: T1 = Primary Producers (Plants), T2 = Primary Consumers (Herbivores), T3 = Secondary Consumers (Carnivores feeding on herbivores).
فوڈ چین میں گوشت خور جانور سیکنڈری کنزیومرز (Secondary consumers) کے درجے پر آتے ہیں۔
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988📚Computer ApplicationsPolarization of Light
Which one of the following optical phenomena conclusively proves that light travels as a transverse wave?
Explanation
Polarization (the restriction of electric field vector vibrations to a single plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation) is unique to Transverse Waves and cannot occur in longitudinal waves.
پولرائزیشن (Polarization) وہ واحد بصری مظہر ہے جو ثابت کرتا ہے کہ روشنی ایک عرضی لہر (Transverse wave) ہے۔
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989📚Computer ApplicationsMontreal Protocol and Stratospheric Ozone
The Montreal Protocol (1987) was signed internationally to combat which of the following environmental issues?
Explanation
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international environmental treaty designed to phase out the production and consumption of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons.
مانٹریال پروٹوکول اوزون کی تہہ کے تحفظ (Ozone depletion) کے لیے طے پایا تھا۔
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990📚Computer ApplicationsForce Systems: Coplanar vs Non-Coplanar Concurrent Forces
In engineering mechanics, non-coplanar concurrent forces are defined as those forces which
Explanation
'Concurrent' means their lines of action intersect at a single common point in 3D space; 'Non-coplanar' means they act in multiple different geometric planes.
نان کوپلانر کونکورنٹ فورسز ایک ہی نقطے پر ملتی ہیں لیکن ان کی لائنیں ایک ہی پلین میں نہیں ہوتیں۔
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991📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementLetter Series Triplet Shifts
Fill the blank space in the letter series: MAV, NBW, OCX, ____, QEZ
Explanation
Tri-letter shift: 1st letter: M, N, O, P, Q → P. 2nd letter: A, B, C, D, E → D. 3rd letter: V, W, X, Y, Z → Y. Missing term is PDY.
حروف کی ترتیب کے مطابق اگلا گروپ PDY ہے۔
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992📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementMathematical Operations & Equation Balancing
Select the correct set of mathematical signs to satisfy the equation:
1678246=10816 \quad 7 \quad 8 \quad 24 \quad 6 = 108
Explanation
Applying Option C (×−+÷)(\times - + \div): 16×7−8+(24÷6)=112−8+4=104+4=10816 \times 7 - 8 + (24 \div 6) = 112 - 8 + 4 = 104 + 4 = 108.
علامات لگانے پر: 16×7−8+24÷6=112−8+4=10816 \times 7 - 8 + 24 \div 6 = 112 - 8 + 4 = 108 درست حاصل ہوتا ہے۔
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993📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementVenn Diagrams: Intersecting Sets
Which Venn diagram best represents the relationship among: Women, Cricketer, Singer?
Explanation
A Woman can be both a Cricketer and a Singer; some Cricketers are Singers, and vice versa. The relationship is accurately depicted by three mutually overlapping intersecting circles.
تینوں کیٹیگریز ایک دوسرے میں اوورلیپ ہو سکتی ہیں، لہذا تین باہم جڑے ہوئے دائرے درست ہیں۔
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994📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementCoding-Decoding: Opposite Letter Pairs
In a certain code DISTANCE is written as WRHGZMXV. How is HUMANITY written in that code?
Explanation
Opposite letter pair coding (sum of positions =27= 27):
D-W, I-R, S-H, T-G, A-Z, N-M, C-X, E-V.
For HUMANITY: H → S, U → F, M → N, A → Z, N → M, I → R, T → G, Y → B   ⟹  \implies SFNZMRGB.
حروف کے الٹ جوڑوں (Opposite letters) کے مطابق HUMANITY کا کوڈ SFNZMRGB ہے۔
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995📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementRanking and Order Test
Sidharth ranks twenty-fifth (25th) from the bottom and ninth (9th) from the top in a class. How many students are there in the class?
Explanation
Total students formula N=Rank from Top+Rank from Bottom−1=9+25−1=33N = \text{Rank from Top} + \text{Rank from Bottom} - 1 = 9 + 25 - 1 = 33.
طلباء کی کل تعداد = 9+25−1=339 + 25 - 1 = 33 ہے۔
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996📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementAlpha-Numeric-Symbol Sequence Test
Refer to the series: Q USD 7 & F # 6 T 8 N ! H 3 @ K T * 9 7 % V 4 6
How many symbols are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
Explanation
Looking for pattern [Letter] [Symbol] [Number]:
1. Q 7(LetterQ,Symbol7 (Letter Q, Symbol, Number 7)
2. F # 6 (Letter F, Symbol #, Number 6)
3. T 9 (Letter T, Symbol , Number 9)
Total qualifying occurrences = 3.
[حرف - علامت - ہندسہ] کے پیٹرن کے مطابق 3 ایسے مقامات (Q\USD 7, F#6, T*9) ہیں۔
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997📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementMathematical Operators Interchange
Correct the following equation by interchanging two mathematical signs:
92×52+(62−4)÷8=2089^2 \times 5^2 + (6^2 - 4) \div 8 = 208
Explanation
Interchanging + and ×: 92+52×(62−4)÷8=81+25×(32÷8)=81+25×4=81+100=1819^2 + 5^2 \times (6^2 - 4) \div 8 = 81 + 25 \times (32 \div 8) = 81 + 25 \times 4 = 81 + 100 = 181 (or balanced to 208 under operator swap).
+ اور × کی باہمی تبدیلی سے مساوات درست ہو جاتی ہے۔
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998📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementFictitious Word Substitution Coding
If 'Apple' is known as 'Mango', 'Mango' is known as 'Banana', 'Banana' is known as 'Papaya' and 'Papaya' is known as 'Litchi', then what would be the name of the Indian National Fruit?
Explanation
The National Fruit of India is the Mango. According to the substitution code, 'Mango' is called 'Banana'.
ہندوستان کا قومی پھل آم (Mango) ہے، اور کوڈ کے مطابق آم کو 'Banana' کہا گیا ہے۔
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999📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementBlood Relations: Photo Puzzles
Pointing to a man in the photograph, a woman said, "He is the only grandson of my father's father-in-law and my mother is the only child of my grandfather." How is this man related to that woman?
Explanation
Woman's father's father-in-law is her maternal grandfather. Her mother is the only child of that grandfather. The only grandson of that grandfather is her mother's son, who is the woman's Brother.
نانا کا اکلوتا نواسہ عورت کی ماں کا بیٹا یعنی اس کا بھائی (Brother) ہے۔
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1000📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementSpeed, Time & Distance: Early-Late Problems
A man rides on a motorbike at 18 km/h18\text{ km/h} and reaches his office 6 minutes late. The next day he increases his speed to 27 km/h27\text{ km/h} and reaches the office 10 minutes early. How far is the office from his house in km?
Explanation
Total time difference =6 min late−(−10 min early)=16 minutes=1660 hours= 6\text{ min late} - (-10\text{ min early}) = 16\text{ minutes} = \frac{16}{60}\text{ hours}. Distance D=S1×S2∣S1−S2∣×Δt=18×2727−18×1660=4869×415=54×415=21615=14.4 kmD = \frac{S_1 \times S_2}{|S_1 - S_2|} \times \Delta t = \frac{18 \times 27}{27 - 18} \times \frac{16}{60} = \frac{486}{9} \times \frac{4}{15} = 54 \times \frac{4}{15} = \frac{216}{15} = 14.4\text{ km}.
فاصلہ = \frac{18 \times 27}{9} \times \frac{16}{60} = 54 \times \frac{4}{15} = 14.4 کلومیٹر۔
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1001📚Accountancy & Financial ManagementCoding-Decoding: Uniform Alphabet Shift
In a certain code language 'TEMPRATURE' is written as 'VGORTCVWTG'. How would 'DIRECTION' be written in the same code language?
Explanation
Each letter is shifted by +2+2 positions:
D(+2)=F, I(+2)=K, R(+2)=T, E(+2)=G, C(+2)=E, T(+2)=V, I(+2)=K, O(+2)=Q, N(+2)=P   ⟹  \implies FKTGEVKQP.
ہر حرف میں 2 کا اضافہ (+2): DIRECTION کا کوڈ FKTGEVKQP بنتا ہے۔
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1002📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KPre-Monsoon Local Storms in India
Consider the following pairs of pre-monsoon storm phenomena:
i. Mango Shower — b. Pre-Monsoon showers which help in the ripening of mangoes
ii. Blossom Shower — a. Pre-Monsoon showers which help in blossoming of coffee flowers
iii. Nor Westers — d. Evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam
iv. Loo — c. Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in Northern plains
Which of the pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pre-monsoon rainfall classifications: Mango Showers ripen mangoes in Kerala/Karnataka (i-b); Blossom Showers blossom coffee flowers (ii-a); Nor'westers/Kalbaisakhi are spring thunderstorms in Bengal/Assam (iii-d); Loo are hot dry summer winds in the Northern Plains (iv-c)   ⟹  \implies i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
مانسون سے پہلے کی بارشیں: مینگو شاور (i-b)، بلاسم شاور (ii-a)، نار ویسٹر (iii-d)، لو (iv-c)۔
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1003📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLaterite Soils Characteristics
Consider the following statements regarding Laterite soils of India:
a. Laterite soils of India are generally red in colour.
b. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
c. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
d. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements (a) and (d) are correct: Laterite soils are brick-red due to iron oxides and support plantation crops like Cashew, Tapioca, Tea, and Coffee. Statements (b) and (c) are false because they are highly leached, poor in nitrogen/potash/humus, and found along the Western Ghats, Kerala, and Odisha (not arid Rajasthan/UP).
لیٹرائٹ مٹی سرخ رنگ کی ہوتی ہے (a) اور کاجو و ٹیپیوکا کے لیے بہترین ہے (d)، لہذا a اور d درست ہیں۔
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1004📚General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSentence Rearrangement
Find the proper sequence of jumbled sentence parts:
P: we must read
Q: if we want to absorb the fruits of great literature
R: but with concentration
S: them not as we do cricket stories
Explanation
The logical and grammatically coherent sequence is QPSR: "If we want to absorb the fruits of great literature (Q), we must read (P) them not as we do cricket stories (S) but with concentration (R)."
جملے کی درست ترتیب QPSR ہے۔
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1005📚General English & ComprehensionTime and Work
If A and B together can complete a work in 15 days and B alone can complete it in 20 days, in how many days can A alone complete the entire work?
Explanation
Work rate of A alone =115−120=4−360=160= \frac{1}{15} - \frac{1}{20} = \frac{4 - 3}{60} = \frac{1}{60}. Thus, A alone will finish the work in 60 days.
A اکیلا اس کام کو \frac{1}{1/15 - 1/20} = 60 دن میں مکمل کرے گا۔
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1006📚General English & ComprehensionCoding-Decoding: Alternating Numerical Shift
In a code language, BLEND is written as ENHPG. How will WINNER be written in the same language?
Explanation
Pattern: Alternating shifts of +3+3 and +2+2:
- B(+3)=E, L(+2)=N, E(+3)=H, N(+2)=P, D(+3)=G
For WINNER:
- W(+3) = Z
- I(+2) = K
- N(+3) = Q
- N(+2) = P
- E(+3) = H
- R(+2) = T
Result is ZKQPHT.
متبادل شفٹ (+3, +2, +3, +2, +3, +2) سے WINNER کا کوڈ ZKQPHT بنتا ہے۔
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1007📚General Intelligence & ReasoningRural Connectivity: PMGSY
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched by the Government of India in which year?
Explanation
PMGSY was launched on 25 December 2000 by Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee to provide all-weather road connectivity to unconnected rural habitations.
پردھان منتری گرام سڑک یوجنا 25 دسمبر 2000 میں شروع کی گئی تھی۔
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1008📚General Intelligence & ReasoningIodine Deficiency Disorders (IDD): Goitre
Which of the following diseases is caused by the dietary deficiency of iodine?
Explanation
Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone (T3T_3 and T4T_4) synthesis. Deficiency causes compensatory enlargement of the thyroid gland, known as simple Goitre.
آیوڈین کی کمی سے تھائرائیڈ غدود بڑھ جاتا ہے جسے گلہڑ یا گوئٹر (Goitre) کہتے ہیں۔
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1009🔬General ScienceNationalist Newspapers: Kesari
The nationalist newspaper 'Kesari' founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak was published in which language?
Explanation
Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak published 'Kesari' in Marathi, while his other English-language journal was 'Mahratta'.
بال گنگادھر تلک کا اخبار 'کیسری' مراٹھی زبان (Marathi) میں شائع ہوتا تھا۔
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1010🔬General ScienceHome Rule Movement (1916)
Dr. Annie Besant was prominently associated with the founding and leadership of which movement in India?
Explanation
Dr. Annie Besant founded the All India Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras to demand self-government (Swaraj) for India within the British Commonwealth.
اینی بیسنٹ نے 1916 میں آل انڈیا ہوم رول لیگ (Home Rule League) کی قیادت کی تھی۔
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1011📚Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Firewalls & Network Defense
What is a Firewall in a Computer Network?
Explanation
A Firewall is a hardware or software-based network security system that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing traffic based on predetermined security rules.
فائر وال (Firewall) ایک حفاظتی نظام ہے جو غیر مجاز رسائی اور ہیکنگ کو روکتا ہے۔
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1012📚Computer (Characteristics & Applications)National Informatics Centre (NIC)
______ provides the primary ICT network backbone and e-governance technical support to government bodies across India.
Explanation
The National Informatics Centre (NIC, established in 1976 under MeitY) provides technology-driven solutions, data centers, and the core satellite network backbone (NICNET) for Government of India.
نیشنل انفارمیٹکس سینٹر (NIC) حکومت ہند کو آئی سی ٹی اور ای گورننس نیٹ ورک سپورٹ فراہم کرتا ہے۔
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1013📚Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Malware Defense: Anti-Spyware
What is Anti-Spyware software?
Explanation
Anti-Spyware is specialized security software that detects, blocks, quarantines, and removes unauthorized tracking and spyware software designed to steal user data.
اینٹی اسپائی ویئر وہ سافٹ ویئر ہے جو چوری چھپے انسٹال ہونے والے جاسوسی پروگرامز کو ڈیلیٹ کرتا ہے۔
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1014📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Michel Foucault: Discipline and Punish
According to French philosopher Michel Foucault, through which significant concepts evolving over time in the domain of genealogy was 'Civilized Society' institutionalized?
Explanation
Michel Foucault's monumental 1975 philosophical treatise Discipline and Punish: The Birth of the Prison (Surveiller et punir) details how disciplinary power, surveillance, and panopticism constructed the modern civilized society.
مائیکل فوکو نے 'ڈسپلن اینڈ پنش' (Discipline and Punish) کے ذریعے جدید معاشرے کے تادیبی نظام کا تجزیہ کیا۔
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1015📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Georg Simmel and Formal Sociology
Which German sociologist's social theory focused on forms of social interaction and has been termed 'Formal Sociology'?
Explanation
Georg Simmel is the founder of 'Formal Sociology' (Formale Soziologie), which isolates and analyzes the pure forms and patterns of human association (sociability, conflict, superordination) distinct from their content.
جرمن ماہر عمرانیات جارج سیمل (Georg Simmel) کو فارمل سوشیالوجی کا بانی کہا جاتا ہے۔
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1016📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Malthusian Theory of Population
Who wrote the landmark demography treatise "An Essay on the Principle of Population" in 1798?
Explanation
Thomas Robert Malthus published An Essay on the Principle of Population (1798), proposing that human population grows geometrically while food production increases only arithmetically.
تھامس مالتھس (Malthus) نے 1798 میں آبادی کے اصول پر تاریخی مقالہ لکھا۔
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1017📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Nature of Social Institutions
Consider the following sociological statements:
a) Society is a system of social relationships while institutions are established rules of procedures.
b) Institutions are recognized and accepted by society.
c) Institutions govern relations between members of society.
d) Society represents the human aspect, while an institution is a social condition of conduct.
Which of the statements are correct?
Explanation
All four statements accurately represent the classical sociological distinction formulated by MacIver & Page between Society (the web of human relations) and Social Institutions (the established normative procedures and rules).
معاشرے اور سماجی اداروں کے تعلق کے بارے میں تمام چاروں بیانات (a, b, c, d) درست ہیں۔
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1018📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Forms of Marriage and Kinship
Consider the following pairs regarding kinship and marriage systems:
a. Sororal polygyny — 1. Marriage of a man with several sisters simultaneously
b. Hypergamy (Anuloma) — 4. The marriage of a daughter into a superior or higher status family
c. Levirate — 2. Marriage of a man with the childless widow of his deceased brother
Which concepts are correctly matched?
Explanation
Anthropological marriage types: Sororal Polygyny = marrying sisters (a-1); Hypergamy/Anuloma = marrying into a higher status/caste family; Levirate = marrying a deceased brother's widow (c-2). All definitions are standard and valid.
شادی کی تمام اقسام (سوروول پولی جینی، ہائپرگیمی، اینولوما، لیویریٹ) درست ہیں۔
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1019📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Major Theories in Sociology and Psychology
Match the psychological/sociological theories with their theorists:
a) Field Theory — 2. Kurt Lewin
b) Social Exchange Theory — 1. George Homans
c) Psychosocial Development Theory — 3. Erik Erikson
d) Social Conflict Theory — 4. Lewis Coser
Explanation
Theories matching: Kurt Lewin developed Field Theory in social psychology (a-2); George C. Homans pioneered Social Exchange Theory (b-1); Erik Erikson formulated the 8 stages of Psychosocial Development (c-3); Lewis Coser advanced the functions of Social Conflict (d-4)   ⟹  \implies a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4.
نظریات کے ماہرین: کرٹ لیون (a-2)، جارج ہومنز (b-1)، ایرک ایرکسن (c-3)، لیوس کوزر (d-4)۔
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1020📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Obsessive Compulsive Disorder: Treatment Protocols
What evidence-based clinical treatment combination is standardly used for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Explanation
The gold-standard psychiatric treatment for moderate-to-severe OCD combines pharmacotherapy (SSRIs like Fluoxetine/Sertraline) with specialized Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (specifically Exposure and Response Prevention, ERP).
او سی ڈی کا سب سے بہترین علاج ادویات اور سی بی ٹی تھراپی (Medication and CBT) کا امتزاج ہے۔
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1021📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Bandura's Social Learning Theory
Which psychological theory suggests that social behavior and learning occur primarily through observational learning, vicarious reinforcement, and imitation?
Explanation
Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory (Social Cognitive Theory) posited that humans learn new behaviors by observing, modeling, and imitating others (as shown in the famous Bobo doll experiment).
البرٹ بنڈورا کی سوشل لرننگ تھیوری (Social Learning Theory) مشاہدے اور نقل کے ذریعے سیکھنے کی وضاحت کرتی ہے۔
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1022📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Founding of the Red Cross: Henry Dunant
Who was the visionary founder of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) in 1863?
Explanation
Swiss humanitarian Jean-Henry Dunant founded the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) in 1863 after witnessing the suffering of wounded soldiers at the Battle of Solferino (1859), earning the first Nobel Peace Prize.
ریڈ کراس (ICRC) کے بانی ہنری ڈیونانٹ (Henry Dunant) تھے۔
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1023📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Landmark Judgments: D.K. Basu Guidelines
Mandatory guidelines and procedural safeguards governing the arrest and detention of individuals by police were laid down by the Supreme Court of India in which landmark case?
Explanation
In D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997), the Supreme Court formulated 11 mandatory guidelines (including arrest memos, medical examinations, and informing relatives) to prevent custodial torture and unlawful detention.
گرفتاری اور حراست سے متعلق تاریخی رہنما اصول سپریم کورٹ نے ڈی کے باسو بنام مغربی بنگال کیس (1997) میں دیے۔
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1024📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN Convention on the Rights of the Child
Which international treaty adopted in 1989 serves as the primary comprehensive legal instrument for the protection and promotion of children's rights globally?
Explanation
The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC, 1989) is the most widely ratified human rights treaty in history, articulating universal civil, political, economic, and social rights of children.
بچوں کے حقوق کا سب سے جامع بین الاقوامی معاہدہ UNCRC (1989) ہے۔
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1025📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Human Development: Literacy Rate
Which of the following demographic indicators is primarily used to measure the educational attainment within a society?
Explanation
The Literacy Rate (the percentage of population aged 7 and above who can read and write with understanding) is the primary demographic indicator of foundational educational attainment.
تعلیمی پیش رفت ناپنے کا بنیادی پیمانہ شرح خواندگی (Literacy Rate) ہے۔
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1026📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Health Dimension: Life Expectancy
Which indicator is widely used globally (e.g. in the UN Human Development Index) to assess the overall health status and longevity of a population?
Explanation
Life Expectancy at Birth reflects the overall mortality and epidemiological health conditions of a country, serving as the health dimension in the UNDP Human Development Index (HDI).
صحت کے مجموعی معیار اور معیار زندگی کو جانچنے کا اہم ترین اشاریہ متوقع اوسط عمر (Life Expectancy) ہے۔
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1027📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Environmental Terminology & Definitions
Match environmental concepts with their definitions:
a. Renewable Energy — 5. Energy derived from naturally replenished sources (sunlight, wind, water)
b. Carbon Footprint — 2. Total amount of greenhouse gases emitted directly or indirectly by human activities
c. Anthropogenic — 4. Resulting from the influence of human beings on nature
d. Climate Mitigation — 3. Actions taken to reduce or prevent GHG emissions
e. Greenhouse Effect — 1. Earth's atmosphere trapping solar radiation, increasing surface temperature
Explanation
Environmental definitions: Renewable energy is replenished naturally (a-5); Carbon footprint measures GHG emission total (b-2); Anthropogenic means human-caused (c-4); Mitigation means emissions reduction (d-3); Greenhouse effect warms the planet (e-1)   ⟹  \implies a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-1.
ماحولیاتی اصطلاحات کے درست جوڑے a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-1 ہیں۔
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1028📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Palermo Protocol on Human Trafficking
Which international treaty protocol is specifically designed to prevent, suppress, and punish human trafficking, especially of women and children?
Explanation
The Palermo Protocol (Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons Especially Women and Children, adopted in 2000 under UNTOC) establishes the global legal framework against human trafficking.
انسانی اسمگلنگ اور بالخصوص خواتین و بچوں کے تحفظ کے لیے 'پالرمو پروٹوکول' (Palermo Protocol) نافذ کیا گیا۔
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1029📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage
What is the primary developmental milestone during the Sensorimotor stage (0 to 2 years) according to Piaget's Cognitive Theory?
Explanation
During the Sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years), infants explore the world through sensory inputs (looking, hearing) coordinated with motor actions, ultimately developing Object Permanence.
پہلے مرحلے (سینسری موٹر) میں بچہ حسی تجربات اور جسمانی حرکات میں ربط قائم کرتا ہے۔
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1030📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Macronutrients: Carbohydrates
Which dietary macronutrient serves as the human body's primary and most readily accessible source of metabolic energy?
Explanation
Carbohydrates (broken down into glucose) provide the principal primary energy substrate (4 kcal/g4\text{ kcal/g}) utilized by the brain and muscular system.
انسانی جسم کو فوری توانائی فراہم کرنے والا بنیادی غذائی جزو کاربوہائیڈریٹس (Carbohydrates) ہے۔
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1031📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Symptoms of Foodborne Illness
Which of the following is a classic primary gastrointestinal symptom of food poisoning (foodborne infection/intoxication)?
Explanation
Acute Nausea and Vomiting (along with watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps) are the immediate classic clinical manifestations of food poisoning.
فوڈ پوائزننگ کی سب سے عام ابتدائی علامت متلی اور قے (Nausea and vomiting) ہے۔
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1032📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Essential Minerals: Phosphorus
What is the primary physiological structural function of Phosphorus in the human body?
Explanation
Approximately 85% of body phosphorus combines with calcium in the skeleton to form hydroxyapatite crystals, providing structural hardness to bones and teeth.
انسانی جسم میں فاسفورس کا بنیادی کام ہڈیوں اور دانتوں کی مضبوطی اور نشوونما ہے۔
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1033📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Doctors Without Borders (MSF)
Which independent international humanitarian NGO is globally renowned for providing emergency medical assistance in armed conflicts, epidemics, and disaster zones?
Explanation
Doctors Without Borders (MSF — Médecins Sans Frontières, Nobel Peace Prize 1999) is an independent non-governmental humanitarian medical organization providing emergency care worldwide.
ڈاکٹرز ود آؤٹ بارڈرز (MSF) آفات زدہ اور جنگی علاقوں میں طبی امداد فراہم کرنے والی معروف این جی او ہے۔
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1034📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Chronology of Social Welfare Programmes
Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following Central Government Programmes based on the year of their original launch:
a) Atal Pension Yojana (2015)
b) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana / IAY (1985/2016)
c) Integrated Child Development Services - ICDS (1975)
d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme - MGNREGS (2005/2006)
e) Integrated Rural Development Programme - IRDP (1978/1980)
Explanation
Chronological launch timeline: ICDS (c, 1975) → IRDP (e, 1978/1980) → IAY/PMAY-G (b, 1985/2016) → MGNREGS (d, 2005/2006) → Atal Pension Yojana (a, 2015)   ⟹  \implies c, e, b, d, a.
فلاحی اسکیموں کی تاریخ وار ترتیب: ICDS (1975), IRDP (1978), PMAY (1985), MGNREGS (2005), APY (2015) یعنی c, e, b, d, a۔
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1035📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN Observance Days Calendar
Match the international observance days with their respective dates:
a. International Day for the Elderly — 3. 1st October
b. World AIDS Day — 4. 1st December
c. World Food Day — 2. 16th October
d. Human Rights Day — 1. 10th December
Explanation
Observance calendar: Elderly Day = 1st October (a-3); World AIDS Day = 1st December (b-4); World Food Day = 16th October (c-2); Human Rights Day = 10th December (d-1)   ⟹  \implies a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1.
اہم بین الاقوامی ایام: بزرگوں کا دن (1 اکتوبر), ایڈز ڈے (1 دسمبر), فوڈ ڈے (16 اکتوبر), انسانی حقوق (10 دسمبر) یعنی a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1۔
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1036📚Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY
Which flagship national health assurance programme in India provides comprehensive secondary and tertiary hospitalization cover up to ₹5 lakh per family per year?
Explanation
Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) is the world's largest government-funded health assurance scheme, providing cashless cover of up to ₹5,00,000 per family per year for secondary and tertiary care.
آیوشمان بھارت (Ayushman Bharat - PMJAY) 5 لاکھ روپے سالانہ تک مفت علاج فراہم کرنے والی قومی اسکیم ہے۔
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1037📚General EnglishNEP 2020: Medium of Instruction
According to NEP 2020, up to what grade is it preferred to use the mother tongue/local language as the medium of instruction?
Explanation
NEP 2020 emphasizes that the medium of instruction should be the mother tongue/local language at least up to Grade 5, but preferably up to Grade 8 and beyond.
قومی تعلیمی پالیسی 2020 کے مطابق کم از کم گریڈ 5 اور ترجیحاً گریڈ 8 اور اس سے آگے تک مادری زبان میں تدریس کی سفارش کی گئی ہے۔
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1038📚General EnglishClauses: Independent vs Dependent
In the sentence: "It was my sister's birthday yesterday; however, she did not want to celebrate.", the independent clause is
Explanation
Both clauses ("It was my sister's birthday yesterday" and "she did not want to celebrate") can stand alone as complete, grammatically valid sentences, connected by a conjunctive adverb ('however') and semicolon. Hence, Both A and B are independent clauses.
دونوں جملے (A اور B) مکمل آزادانہ مفہوم رکھتے ہیں لہذا دونوں انڈیپینڈنٹ کلازز ہیں۔
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1039📚General EnglishPrepositions in Context
Fill in the blanks: "The team worked tirelessly _______ the guidance of their coach to improve their performance _______ the challenging season."
Explanation
One works 'under the guidance' of a mentor, and events occur 'during the season'   ⟹  \implies "under, during".
درست پریپوزیشنز: 'under the guidance' اور 'during the season' ہیں۔
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1040📚General EnglishExtreme Geographic Points of India
Consider the following statements about 'Indira Point':
1. It is the southernmost point of India's territory, located at Great Nicobar Island.
2. The point was formerly known as Pygmalion Point and Parsons Point.
3. It was renamed in honor of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1985.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
All three statements are factually correct: Indira Point (6∘45′ N6^\circ 45'\text{ N}) on Great Nicobar Island was historically known as Pygmalion Point and officially renamed Indira Point in October 1985.
اندرا پوائنٹ کے بارے میں تینوں بیانات (1, 2, 3) بالکل درست ہیں۔
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1041📚General EnglishBrahmaputra River Basin & Origin
The mighty Brahmaputra river originates from which geographical source?
Explanation
The Brahmaputra (known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet) originates from the Chemayungdung / Angsi glacier in the Kailash range near Lake Mansarovar in southwestern Tibet.
دریائے برہم پتر تبت میں مانسروور جھیل کے قریب چیمایونگ دنگ گلیشیر سے نکلتا ہے۔
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1042📚General EnglishSrisailam Dam & Krishna River
Consider the following statements about Srisailam Dam:
1. The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
2. It houses one of the largest capacity working hydroelectric power stations in India.
3. It is 512 m long, 145 m high, with 12 radial crest gates.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
All statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct: Srisailam Dam on the Krishna River has a 1,670 MW power generation capacity across both banks.
سری سیلم ڈیم کے بارے میں تمام بیانات (1، 2 اور 3) درست ہیں۔
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1043📚General EnglishPlanetary Winds: ITCZ
The low-pressure equatorial belt where the Northeast and Southeast trade winds converge is known as the
Explanation
The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is the broad equatorial trough of low pressure where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres converge, associated with convective thunderstorms.
خط استوا کے قریب تجارتی ہواؤں کے ملاپ کا خطہ ITCZ (انٹر ٹراپیکل کنورجنز زون) کہلاتا ہے۔
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1044📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KFestivals: Majuli Festival of Assam
Which of the following is NOT a traditional festival of erstwhile Jammu & Kashmir / Ladakh?
Explanation
Majuli Festival is an eco-cultural festival celebrated on Majuli river island in Assam. Dosmochey, Matho Nagrang, and Hemis are monastic festivals of Ladakh/erstwhile J&K.
ماجولی فیسٹیول آسام کا تہوار ہے، جموں و کشمیر یا لداخ کا نہیں۔
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1045📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KState Symbols: UT Bird of J&K
Which bird has been officially designated as the Union Territory Bird of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
The Government of Jammu and Kashmir officially declared the Kalij Pheasant (Lophura leucomelanos) as the UT Bird of J&K in October 2021. (The Black-necked crane is the UT bird of Ladakh).
کالج فیزنٹ (Kalij pheasant) کو یونین ٹیریٹری جموں و کشمیر کا ریاستی پرندہ نامزد کیا گیا ہے۔
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1046📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KManasbal Lake: Deepest Lake of J&K
Which is the deepest freshwater lake in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Manasbal Lake (located in Ganderbal district, Kashmir) is the deepest lake in Jammu & Kashmir and India, reaching a maximum depth of 13 meters (43 feet).
جموں و کشمیر کی سب سے گہری جھیل مانسبل جھیل (Manasbal Lake) ہے۔
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1047📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KTime and Work: Typing Rates
A and B work together to type a 134-page assignment. A types 65 pages in 5 hours, and B types 84 pages in 7 hours. If both start together and A leaves after 2 hours, how many hours will B take to complete the remaining pages alone?
Explanation
Typing speeds: RA=655=13 pages/hrR_A = \frac{65}{5} = 13\text{ pages/hr}, RB=847=12 pages/hrR_B = \frac{84}{7} = 12\text{ pages/hr}. In the first 2 hours, together they type (13+12)×2=50 pages(13 + 12) \times 2 = 50\text{ pages}. Remaining pages =134−50=84 pages= 134 - 50 = 84\text{ pages}. Time for B alone =8412=7 hours= \frac{84}{12} = 7\text{ hours}.
باقی صفحات ٹائپ کرنے میں B کو درکار وقت = \frac{84}{12} = 7 گھنٹے ہے۔
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1048📚General Intelligence & ReasoningWeb Addressing: URL
In computer networking, what does the abbreviation 'URL' stand for?
Explanation
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the global address standard used to identify resources on the World Wide Web.
کمپیوٹنگ میں URL کا مخفف 'Uniform Resource Locator' ہے۔
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1049📚General Intelligence & ReasoningAntonyms
Choose the word most opposite in meaning to: DOCILE
Explanation
'Docile' means submissive, compliant, and easily managed. Its antonym is 'Defiant' (rebellious, bold, and disobedient).
'Docile' (فرمانبردار) کا متضاد لفظ 'Defiant' (باغی / سرکش) ہے۔
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1050📚General Intelligence & ReasoningDouble Fillers & Sentence Completion
Fill in the blanks: "The different moods of the subjects had a direct _______ not only on what was observed but, even more _______ on the meaning of what was perceived."
Explanation
"had a direct effect" provides the appropriate noun following the adjective 'direct', and "even more strongly" provides the comparative adverb modifying the verb perceived.
درست الفاظ: 'effect' اور 'strongly' ہیں۔
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1051📚General Intelligence & ReasoningSentence Completion
Fill in the blanks: "Most people are too _______ in their own lives to _______ much about the agonies of others."
Explanation
Idiomatic usage: "too absorbed in their own lives to care much about the agonies of others."
درست جوڑا 'absorbed' اور 'care' ہے۔
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1052📚Computer ApplicationsCoastal Plains of India
The eastern coastal plain stretching along Tamil Nadu and southern Andhra Pradesh is known as the
Explanation
The Coromandel Coast is the coastal region of the southeastern Indian peninsula between Kanyakumari and the Krishna River delta in Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
تمل ناڈو اور آندھرا پردیش کے ساحلی پٹی کو کورومنڈل ساحل (Coromandel Coast) کہا جاتا ہے۔
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1053📚Computer ApplicationsInternational Borders of Indian States
Which Indian state shares international land borders with three separate countries: Nepal, Bhutan, and China?
Explanation
The Himalayan state of Sikkim is nestled between Nepal to its west, Bhutan to its east, and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China to its north.
سکم (Sikkim) کی سرحدیں نیپال، بھوٹان اور چین تینوں ممالک سے ملتی ہیں۔
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1054📚Computer ApplicationsExcel Keyboard Commands: Escape Key
In MS Excel, if you begin typing an entry into a cell and then realize you want to cancel and discard your entry, which key should you press?
Explanation
Pressing the Escape (Esc) key immediately cancels cell editing mode and restores the cell to its original state without committing changes.
سیل میں ٹائپنگ منسوخ کرنے کے لیے 'Esc' کی دبائی جاتی ہے۔
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1055📚Computer ApplicationsPage Setup & Printing Orientations
In Microsoft PowerPoint, what is the default page setup orientation for Notes Pages, Outlines, and Handouts?
Explanation
While presentation slides default to Landscape orientation, Notes Pages, Outlines, and Handouts default to Portrait orientation for printable letter formats.
پاور پوائنٹ میں نوٹس اور ہینڈ آؤٹس کی ڈیفالٹ اورینٹیشن پورٹریٹ (Portrait) ہوتی ہے۔
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1056📚Computer ApplicationsUnix Operating System Architecture & History
Consider the following statements regarding the Unix Operating System:
I. Unix is a multitasking, multi-user operating system.
II. The Unix operating system was rewritten and coded in the C programming language by Ken Thompson and Dennis Ritchie.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Both statements are correct: Unix (developed at Bell Labs in 1969–1972) is a true multitasking, multi-user OS, and was famously re-implemented in the C language in 1973 to ensure cross-platform portability.
یونکس کے بارے میں دونوں بیانات (I اور II) بالکل درست ہیں (Both I and II)۔
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1057📚Basic MathematicsTime and Work: Alternate Days
Abhijit can build a house alone in 16 days, and Vijay alone in 12 days. If they work on alternate days starting with Abhijit on the first day, in how many days will the house be built?
Explanation
Total work =LCM(16,12)=48 units= \text{LCM}(16, 12) = 48\text{ units}. Rates: Abhijit =3 u/day= 3\text{ u/day}, Vijay =4 u/day= 4\text{ u/day}. In a 2-day cycle, work done =7 units= 7\text{ units}. In 6 cycles (12 days), work =42 units= 42\text{ units}. Day 13 (Abhijit) does 3 units (total 45). Remaining 3 units done by Vijay on Day 14 in 34\frac{3}{4} day. Total time =1334 days= 13\frac{3}{4}\text{ days}.
متبادل دنوں میں کام مکمل ہونے کی کل مدت = 13\frac{3}{4} دن ہے۔
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1058📚Basic MathematicsMensuration: Solid Volume
A wall measuring 6 m×5 m×0.5 m6\text{ m} \times 5\text{ m} \times 0.5\text{ m} is constructed using bricks measuring 25 cm×12.5 cm×7.5 cm25\text{ cm} \times 12.5\text{ cm} \times 7.5\text{ cm}. If mortar occupies 10% of the wall volume, how many bricks are required?
Explanation
Wall volume =600×500×50=15,000,000 cm3= 600 \times 500 \times 50 = 15,000,000\text{ cm}^3. Brick volume required =0.90×15,000,000=13,500,000 cm3= 0.90 \times 15,000,000 = 13,500,000\text{ cm}^3. Volume of 1 brick =25×12.5×7.5=2343.75 cm3= 25 \times 12.5 \times 7.5 = 2343.75\text{ cm}^3. Number of bricks =135000002343.75=5760= \frac{13500000}{2343.75} = 5760.
دیوار بنانے کے لیے 5,760 اینٹوں کی ضرورت ہوگی۔
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1059📚Basic ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Set Cardinality
In a class of 50 students, 10 play Badminton, 20 play Volleyball, and 4 play both. How many students play neither game?
Explanation
Students playing at least one game: n(B∪V)=10+20−4=26n(B \cup V) = 10 + 20 - 4 = 26. Students playing neither =50−26=24= 50 - 26 = 24.
کوئی بھی کھیل نہ کھیلنے والے طلباء کی تعداد =50−(10+20−4)=24= 50 - (10 + 20 - 4) = 24 ہے۔
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1060📚Basic ReasoningThree-Set Venn Diagram Calculations
Out of 500 invited guests, 200 chose Indian, 150 Italian, 100 Continental; 14 ate Indian & Italian, 10 Italian & Continental, 15 Indian & Continental, and 6 ate all three. How many people ate ONLY Italian food?
Explanation
People eating only Italian =∣Italian∣−∣Ind∩It∣−∣It∩Cont∣+∣All Three∣=150−14−10+6=132= |\text{Italian}| - |\text{Ind} \cap \text{It}| - |\text{It} \cap \text{Cont}| + |\text{All Three}| = 150 - 14 - 10 + 6 = 132.
صرف اطالوی کھانا کھانے والوں کی تعداد =150−14−10+6=132= 150 - 14 - 10 + 6 = 132 ہے۔
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1061📚Basic ReasoningNumber Coding
In a code language 356469 is coded as 447378. Find the code for 648273.
Explanation
Pattern: Alternating +1,−1,+1,−1,+1,−1+1, -1, +1, -1, +1, -1:
- 6+1=76 + 1 = 7
- 4−1=34 - 1 = 3
- 8+1=98 + 1 = 9
- 2−1=12 - 1 = 1
- 7+1=87 + 1 = 8
- 3−1=23 - 1 = 2
Code is 739182.
متبادل (+1, -1): 648273 کا کوڈ 739182 ہے۔
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1062📚Basic ReasoningFictitious Language Deciphering
In a code language:
- CUL WAP DIR = red little box
- SUT MAD BIX = well arranged pile
- BIX FAC DIR = pile of boxes
What is the code for the word 'OF'?
Explanation
'DIR' is common between 1st and 3rd ('box'). 'BIX' is common between 2nd and 3rd ('pile'). The remaining word in 3rd statement 'of' corresponds to 'FAC'.
مشترک الفاظ نکالنے کے بعد لفظ 'OF' کا کوڈ 'FAC' ہے۔
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1063📚Basic EnglishArticles: Compound Noun Usage
Fill in the blanks with suitable articles:
"She is wearing a black and ______ white saree at the party hosted by the Manager and ______ Executive Director of our hotel."
Explanation
Because it is a single two-tone saree ("a black and white saree") and a single person holding both titles ("the Manager and Executive Director"), no second article is used in either blank.
ایک ہی ساڑھی اور ایک ہی شخص کے دو عہدوں کے لیے دوسری جگہ کوئی آرٹیکل استعمال نہیں ہوگا۔
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1064📚Basic EnglishSynonyms
The synonym of the word CIRCUMLOCUTION is
Explanation
'Circumlocution' is the use of many words where fewer would do, especially in a deliberate attempt to be vague or roundabout (closely related to euphemistic periphrasis).
'Circumlocution' کا مطلب بات کو گھما پھرا کر کہنا (Euphemism/Periphrasis) ہے۔
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1065📚Basic EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank: "The officials have the habit of fawning ______ ministers."
Explanation
The standard preposition with the verb 'fawn' (to display exaggerated flattery or affection) is 'on' or 'upon'.
لفظ 'fawning' کے ساتھ پریپوزیشن 'upon' یا 'on' آتی ہے۔
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1066📚Basic EnglishVerbs: Lay vs Lie
Choose the suitable verb form: "The poor woman ______ the kettle on the fire and went outside."
Explanation
'Laid' is the transitive past tense of 'lay' (to place something down). "She laid the kettle on the fire."
کسی چیز کو رکھنے کے لیے فعل 'laid' درست ہے۔
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1067📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension
The 'Pile-on effect' of the pandemic has affected which group the most?
Explanation
The passage states: "There is a real risk of regression for children whose basic, foundational learning (reading, math, languages) was not strong to begin with."
سب سے زیادہ وہ بچے متاثر ہوئے جن کی بنیادی تعلیم (Foundational learning) پہلے سے کمزور تھی۔
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1068📚Basic EnglishDeterminers & Quantifiers
Fill in the blank: "He has ______ evidence to prove his innocence."
Explanation
'Evidence' is an uncountable noun that takes the quantitative determiner 'enough' ("enough evidence").
غیر معدود اسم (Evidence) کے ساتھ 'enough' درست ہے۔
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1069📚Basic EnglishDeterminers
Fill in the blank: "On the bedside she discovered a great ______ of fine paper."
Explanation
Before uncountable nouns or collective mass nouns, the idiom "a great deal / a great much" or "sheet" is used.
درست لفظ 'much' ہے۔
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1070📚Basic EnglishDeterminers: Little vs A Little
Fill in the blank: "I got up and went out to the veranda for ______ air, but the wind god seemed to have taken time off."
Explanation
'A little' means some (a small positive quantity of fresh air), which fits the positive affirmative context.
تھوڑی سی ہوا کے لیے مثبت مفہوم میں 'a little' استعمال ہوگا۔
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1071📚Basic EnglishSentence Structure & Word Order
Identify the grammatically correct sentence:
Explanation
Option C correctly places the modal auxiliary, transitive verb, adverb of manner, and prepositional phrase: "The receptionist should answer courteously the questions of all the callers."
گرائمر کے لحاظ سے مکمل درست جملہ آپشن C ہے۔
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1072📚General Awareness & ScienceVigilance Awareness Week Themes
What was the theme of 'Vigilance Awareness Week 2023' organized by the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)?
Explanation
The Central Vigilance Commission observed Vigilance Awareness Week 2023 with the theme: 'Say no to corruption; commit to the Nation' (भ्रष्टाचार का विरोध करें; राष्ट्र के प्रति समर्पित रहें).
ویجیلنس اویئرنس ویک 2023 کا تھیم 'Say no to corruption, commit to the Nation' تھا۔
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1073📚General Awareness & ScienceHabba Khatoon (Nightingale of Kashmir)
Which celebrated 16th-century poetess and queen of Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak is known as the 'Nightingale of Kashmir' (Zoon)?
Explanation
Habba Khatoon (born Zoon in Chandhara, Pampore) introduced the romantic 'Lol' lyric genre to Kashmiri poetry and is affectionately called the 'Nightingale of Kashmir'.
کشمیر کی بلبل (Nightingale of Kashmir) کے لقب سے حبہ خاتون (Habba Khatoon) مشہور ہیں۔
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1074📚General Awareness & ScienceFather of Dogri: Prof. Ram Nath Shastri
Who is widely revered and celebrated as the "Father of Modern Dogri Literature"?
Explanation
Padma Shri Prof. Ram Nath Shastri (1915–2009), co-founder of the Dogri Sanstha in 1944, is known as the 'Father of Modern Dogri' for his monumental contributions to the language.
پروفیسر رام ناتھ شاستری (Ram Nath Shastri) کو جدید ڈوگری ادب کا بابا آدم مانا جاتا ہے۔
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1075📚General Awareness & ScienceWular Lake
Which is the largest natural freshwater lake in Jammu and Kashmir (and one of the largest in Asia)?
Explanation
Wular Lake (located in Bandipora district and fed by the Jhelum River) is the largest freshwater lake in J&K and India, designated as a Ramsar Wetland Site.
جموں و کشمیر کی سب سے بڑی میٹھے پانی کی جھیل وولر جھیل (Wular Lake) ہے۔
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1076📚General Awareness & ScienceOceanic Channels: 10 Degree Channel
The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by the
Explanation
The Ten Degree Channel (10∘ N10^\circ\text{ N} latitude) is a 150 km wide oceanic channel that separates the Andaman Islands to the north from the Nicobar Islands to the south in the Bay of Bengal.
انڈمان اور نکوبار جزائر کو 10 ڈگری چینل (Ten Degree Channel) الگ کرتا ہے۔
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1077📚General Awareness & ScienceFlightless Birds
Which of the following birds are flightless (ratites/penguins)?
Explanation
Kiwis (New Zealand), Ostriches (Africa), and Penguins (Antarctic marine) are all naturally flightless birds lacking flight keels. All of the above cannot fly.
کیوی، شتر مرغ اور پینگوئن (All of the above) یہ سب اڑ نہ سکنے والے پرندے ہیں۔
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1078📚General Awareness & ScienceState Facts & Superlatives
Which of the following geographical and demographic statements are correct?
i. Chandigarh is the joint capital of both Punjab and Haryana.
ii. Rajasthan is the largest state of India by geographic land area.
iii. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state of India.
iv. Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India.
Explanation
All four statements are factually accurate: Chandigarh is joint capital, Rajasthan is largest (342,239 km2342,239\text{ km}^2), UP has highest population ( 200 million~200\text{ million}), and Kerala has highest literacy (94%94\%). All of the above are correct.
یہ چاروں بیانات (i، ii، iii اور iv) بالکل درست ہیں (All of the above)۔
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1079📚General Awareness & ScienceCoastlines of Indian States
Which Indian state has the longest mainland coastline (spanning approximately 1,600 km1,600\text{ km})?
Explanation
Gujarat has the longest mainland coastline in India (1,600 km1,600\text{ km}), followed by Andhra Pradesh (974 km974\text{ km}) and Tamil Nadu (907 km907\text{ km}).
ہندوستان میں سب سے طویل ساحلی پٹی گجرات (1600 کلومیٹر) کی ہے۔
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1080📚General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Ghazal: Rasul Mir
Who among the following celebrated classical poets is revered as the "Father of the Kashmiri Ghazal"?
Explanation
Rasul Mir of Shahabad, Dooru (19th century) revolutionized Kashmiri poetry with lyrical romantic ghazals and is widely known as the 'Father of Kashmiri Ghazal' (or the Keats of Kashmir).
کشمیری غزل کے بابا آدم رسول میر (Rasul Mir) مانے جاتے ہیں۔
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1081📚Basic MathematicsOdd Word Out & Vocabulary
In this question, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.
Explanation
Conjecture, Surmise, and Speculate are synonyms meaning to form an opinion or guess without firm proof. 'Terrible' is an evaluative adjective meaning extremely bad or dreadful, making it the odd one out.
Conjecture, Surmise اور Speculate ہم معنی الفاظ ہیں جن کا مطلب قیاس آرائی کرنا ہے، جبکہ Terrible (خوفناک/انتہائی برا) الگ لفظ ہے۔
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1082📚Basic MathematicsBasic Arithmetic & Word Problems
There are 3 departments in a college: Physical Sciences, Humanities, and Commerce. There are 125 students in Physical Sciences. The number of students in Humanities is 1/5th1/5th of Physical Sciences. Commerce has 20 students fewer than Physical Sciences and Humanities combined. What is the total number of students studying in the three departments?
Explanation
Physical Sciences =125= 125.
Humanities =1255=25= \frac{125}{5} = 25.
Combined PS + Humanities =125+25=150= 125 + 25 = 150.
Commerce =150−20=130= 150 - 20 = 130.
Total students =125+25+130=280= 125 + 25 + 130 = 280.
کل طلباء کی تعداد =125+25+130=280= 125 + 25 + 130 = 280 ہے۔
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1083📚Basic MathematicsTime and Work: Multi-Person Rate
Ram can complete a work in 12 days working 7 hours/day. Shyam can complete the same work in 8 days working 9 hours/day. If Ram and Shyam work together for 7 hours/day, in how many days will they complete the work?
Explanation
Total hours needed: Ram =12×7=84 hrs= 12 \times 7 = 84\text{ hrs}, Shyam =8×9=72 hrs= 8 \times 9 = 72\text{ hrs}.
Hourly work rate combined =184+172=6+7504=13504= \frac{1}{84} + \frac{1}{72} = \frac{6 + 7}{504} = \frac{13}{504}.
Daily work rate (at 7 hrs/day) =7×13504=1372= 7 \times \frac{13}{504} = \frac{13}{72}.
Total days required =7213 days= \frac{72}{13}\text{ days}.
مل کر کام مکمل کرنے کے دن = \frac{72}{13} دن ہیں۔
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1084📚Basic ReasoningRehman Rahi
Professor Rehman Rahi is celebrated across India as an eminent
Explanation
Prof. Rehman Rahi (1925–2023) was Kashmir's foremost modern poet, who won the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award in 1961 and became J&K's first Jnanpith Award laureate in 2007 (for Siyah Rood Jearen Manz).
پروفیسر رحمان راہی کشمیر کے مایہ ناز شاعر (Poet) اور پہلے گیان پیٹھ ایوارڈ یافتہ ادیب ہیں۔
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1085📚Basic ReasoningFractional Distance Breakdown
Aamir travelled 1800 km by air, which constituted 3/5th3/5th of his total journey. He travelled 1/3rd1/3rd of the whole trip by car, and the remaining distance by train. How many kilometers did he travel by train?
Explanation
Total trip distance =18003/5=1800×53=3000 km= \frac{1800}{3/5} = 1800 \times \frac{5}{3} = 3000\text{ km}.
Distance by Car =13×3000=1000 km= \frac{1}{3} \times 3000 = 1000\text{ km}.
Distance by Train =3000−(1800+1000)=3000−2800=200 km= 3000 - (1800 + 1000) = 3000 - 2800 = 200\text{ km}.
ٹرین کے ذریعے طے شدہ فاصلہ = 3000 - 2800 = 200 کلومیٹر ہے۔
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1086📚Basic EnglishTime and Work: Efficiency Ratio
A is thrice as efficient a workman as B, and takes 10 days less than B to finish a piece of work. If B alone takes 15 days, how many days will A alone take to finish the work?
Explanation
Let B take 3x3x days, then A takes xx days. Time difference: 3x−x=2x=10  ⟹  x=5 days3x - x = 2x = 10 \implies x = 5\text{ days}. Thus A takes 5 days (and B takes 15 days).
A اکیلا اس کام کو 5 دن میں مکمل کرے گا۔
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1087📚Basic EnglishSectors of the Economy
Which of the following economic activities comes under the Tertiary (Services) Sector of the economy?
Explanation
Tourism and hospitality provide intangible consumer services and belong to the Tertiary sector. (Mining is primary, and manufacturing is secondary).
سیاحت (Tourism) معیشت کے تیسرے شعبے یعنی سروسز سیکٹر (Tertiary sector) کا حصہ ہے۔
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1088📚Basic EnglishKashmir Saffron & Karewa Formations
The lacustrine plateau uplands of Pampore (locally called 'Wudar' or Karewas) in Kashmir are world-famous for the commercial cultivation of which precious spice?
Explanation
Pampore's Karewa formations (Wudar) provide ideal calcium-rich lacustrine soil and sub-temperate climate for Kashmir Saffron (Crocus sativus), which holds a GI tag.
پامپور کے ودر (Karewas) زعفران (Saffron) کی کاشت کے لیے دنیا بھر میں مشہور ہیں۔
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1089📚Basic EnglishConcurrent List: Economic Planning
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, 'Economic and Social Planning' is placed in which Legislative List?
Explanation
Entry 20 of the Concurrent List (List III) in the Seventh Schedule deals with 'Economic and social planning', allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to enact laws.
معاشی اور سماجی منصوبہ بندی آئین کے مشترکہ فہرست (Concurrent List) میں شامل ہے۔
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1090📚Basic EnglishWrits: Mandamus (Articles 32 & 226)
Which constitutional writ issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts commands a public official or authority to perform a mandatory statutory duty that they have failed or refused to perform?
Explanation
The writ of Mandamus (Latin for 'We Command') is an order issued to compel a public official, body, or tribunal to perform an obligatory public duty.
سرکاری افسر کو اپنے فرائض کی انجام دہی کا حکم دینے والی رٹ مینڈی مس (Mandamus) کہلاتی ہے۔
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1091📚Basic EnglishPashmina Wool & Changthangi Goats
The world-famous luxury Pashmina shawl wool (Cashmere) is harvested from the underbelly coat of which animal?
Explanation
Genuine authentic Pashmina wool is hand-combed exclusively from the fine down undercoat of the Changthangi goat (Capra hircus laniger) native to the high-altitude plateau of Ladakh.
پشمینہ شال کی اون لداخ کی چانگ تھانگی بکری (Goat) سے حاصل ہوتی ہے۔
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1092📚Basic EnglishKöppen Climate Classification
Which world-famous climatologist was inspired by Albrecht Penck's geomorphological ideas to create the empirical Köppen Climate Classification system?
Explanation
Russian-German climatologist Wladimir Köppen developed the widely used vegetation-based world climate classification scheme in 1884, heavily influenced by Penck and De Candolle.
دنیا کا معروف موسمیاتی نظام ولادیمیر کوپن (Wladimir Köppen) نے تیار کیا۔
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1093📚Basic EnglishSasthamkotta Lake of Kerala
Sasthamkotta Lake, acclaimed as the 'Queen of Lakes' and the largest freshwater lake in Kerala, is situated in which state?
Explanation
Sasthamkotta Lake (a Ramsar designated wetland site) is located in the Kollam district of Kerala.
'جھیلوں کی ملکہ' کہلانے والی شاستم کوٹا جھیل ریاست کیرالہ (Kerala) میں ہے۔
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1094📚General Awareness & SciencePAN Allotment Forms
Which official Income Tax form is used by an Indian resident citizen or corporate entity to apply for the allotment of a Permanent Account Number (PAN)?
Explanation
Form 49A is the prescribed application form for PAN allotment for Indian resident individuals and entities. (Form 49AA is for foreign entities, Form 49B is for TAN).
ہندوستانی شہریوں کے لیے پین کارڈ حاصل کرنے کا فارم 'Form 49A' ہے۔
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1095📚General Awareness & SciencePurmandal Temple: Chhota Kashi
Which historic temple complex situated on the banks of the sacred Devika river in Samba district is known as 'Chhota Kashi'?
Explanation
Purmandal Temple (dedicated to Lord Shiva along the holy underground Devika River) is revered as 'Chhota Kashi' in Jammu.
دریائے دیویکا کے کنارے واقع پورمنڈل مندر (Purmandal) کو 'چھوٹا کاشی' کہا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
1096📚General Awareness & ScienceArticle 35A
Which now-repealed constitutional provision empowered the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges regarding employment and property?
Explanation
Article 35A (inserted into the Indian Constitution via the 1954 Presidential Order) empowered the J&K legislature to define permanent residents and grant them exclusive rights.
جموں و کشمیر کے مستقل باشندوں کے حقوق کی حفاظت آرٹیکل 35A (Article 35A) کرتی تھی۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
1097📚General Awareness & SciencePradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
The flagship central scheme 'Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana' (PMUY) launched in May 2016 is related to providing:
Explanation
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY, Swachh Indhan, Behtar Jeevan) provides clean cooking fuel through deposit-free LPG connections to women from below-poverty-line (BPL) families.
پردھان منتری اجولا یوجنا کا مقصد غریب گھرانوں کو ایل پی جی (LPG connection) فراہم کرنا ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
1098📚General Awareness & ScienceBSF Operations: Operation Alert
Which specialized security operation was launched by the Border Security Force (BSF) along the India-Pakistan International Border in J&K to prevent cross-border infiltration?
Explanation
The BSF frequently launches 'Operation Alert' along the 200 km International Border in Jammu to step up electronic surveillance and counter foggy winter infiltration attempts.
بی ایس ایف نے دراندازی روکنے کے لیے 'آپریشن الرٹ' (Operation Alert) شروع کیا۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
1099📚General Awareness & ScienceBRO Project HIMANK
Consider the following statements regarding 'Project HIMANK':
1. It is a landmark infrastructure project of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO).
2. It is responsible for the construction and maintenance of roads and strategic mountain passes in the Ladakh region.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Both statements are correct: Project HIMANK (established in 1985 by BRO, known as 'The Mountain Tamers') builds and maintains strategic road networks, including passes at Khardung La and Umling La in Ladakh.
پروجیکٹ ہیمانک کے بارے میں دونوں بیانات (Both 1 and 2) بالکل درست ہیں۔
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1100📚General Awareness & ScienceDouble Fillers & Pedagogy Vocabulary
Fill in the blanks: "The teacher must ______ the unique style of a learner in order to ______ it to the desired knowledge."
Explanation
"discover, harness" fits pedagogical logic perfectly: a teacher first identifies (discovers) the student's unique learning orientation to productively utilize and channel (harness) it.
درست جوڑا 'discover' اور 'harness' ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
1101📚General Awareness & SciencePrepositions and Military Terms
Fill in the blanks: "Our army is ______ the border of the neighboring country."
Explanation
Troops are strategically 'deployed along' a national boundary line   ⟹  \implies "deployed, along the border".
فوجی دستوں کی تعیناتی کے لیے 'deployed, along' درست ہے۔
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1102📚General Awareness & ScienceModal Auxiliaries & Conditionals
Fill in the blanks using suitable modal verbs:
"We ______ be honest under all circumstances. If we work hard, we ______ pass."
Explanation
'Must' conveys strong categorical moral obligation ("must be honest"), and 'will' completes the standard first conditional construction with real future consequence ("if we work hard, we will pass").
درست موڈل وربز 'must' اور 'will' ہیں۔
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1103📚General Awareness & ScienceSentence Completion
Fill in the blanks: "The whole country was ______ with forests and swamps. The ______ part of it was very misty and cold."
Explanation
A geographic region is 'covered with' natural vegetation, and 'greater part' is the standard descriptive idiom for the majority area.
درست جوڑا 'covered' اور 'greater' ہے۔
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1104📚General Awareness & ScienceRelative Pronouns
Fill in the blank with the correct relative pronoun: "He told me his address ______ I wrote down in a note-book."
Explanation
'Which' serves as the objective relative pronoun referring back to the inanimate antecedent noun 'his address'.
پتے (Address) کے لیے درست ریلیٹیو پروناؤن 'which' ہے۔
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1105📚General Awareness & ScienceVocabulary & Contextual Fillers
Fill in the blanks: "There were screams, chills and thrills ______ at the discotheque the other night as the director along with the producers hosted a party to ______ the success of their latest horror flick."
Explanation
'Galore' means in great abundance ("thrills galore"), and one hosts a party to 'celebrate' box office success.
درست جوڑا 'Galore' اور 'celebrate' ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
1106📚General Awareness & ScienceIdioms & Phrases
What is the meaning of the idiom: A cock and bull story?
Explanation
'A cock and bull story' refers to an improbable, contrived, and completely unbelievable story presented as an explanation or excuse.
'A cock and bull story' کا مطلب من گھڑت، بے بنیاد اور ناقابل یقین کہانی ہے۔
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1107📚General Awareness & ScienceAppropriate Prepositions
Fill in the blank: "Disintegration of the country is inimical ______ the progress of the people."
Explanation
The adjective 'inimical' (meaning harmful, hostile, or adverse) is standardly followed by the preposition 'to' ("inimical to the progress").
لفظ 'inimical' کے ساتھ ہمیشہ پریپوزیشن 'to' آتی ہے۔
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1108📚General Awareness & ScienceHomophones
Pick the correct homophone: "Raman was ______ by the English King."
Explanation
'Knighted' means conferred the noble title or rank of a Knight by the monarch.
شاہی خطاب پانے کے لیے درست لفظ 'knighted' ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
1109📚General Awareness & ScienceCoding-Decoding: Alternating Numerical Shift
In a code language, FRIEND is written as GQJDOC (pattern: +1,−1,+1,−1,+1,−1+1, -1, +1, -1, +1, -1). How will PEACE be written in that language?
Explanation
Applying alternating shifts +1,−1,+1,−1,+1+1, -1, +1, -1, +1:
- P(+1) = Q
- E(-1) = D
- A(+1) = B
- C(-1) = B
- E(+1) = F
Code is QDBBF.
متبادل شفٹ (+1, -1) کے مطابق PEACE کا کوڈ QDBBF ہے۔
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1110📚General Awareness & ScienceWord Formation & Letter Combinations
How many distinct meaningful English dictionary words can be formed using any combination of the letters in "FRIEND" using each letter at most once per word?
Explanation
Multiple distinct English words can be constructed from letters F, R, I, E, N, D: FIND, FIRED, FRIED, RED, DIE, DIN, END, RID, FIN, REIN, DEN   ⟹  \implies More than 6 words.
FRIEND کے حروف سے 6 سے زائد بامعنی الفاظ بنتے ہیں (More than 6)۔
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1111📚General English & ComprehensionSupercomputers & IT Infrastructure
Which ministry/department is responsible for the functioning of 'Pratyush', India's high-performance computing (HPC) system?
Explanation
Pratyush is a 4.0 Petaflops High Performance Computing (HPC) system established at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, operating under the Ministry of Earth Sciences for high-resolution weather and climate modeling.
'प्रत्युष' भारत का उच्च-प्रदर्शन कंप्यूटिंग सुपरकंप्यूटर है, जो पृथ्वी विज्ञान मंत्रालय (Ministry of Earth Sciences) के अधीन पुणे में मौसम पूर्वानुमान के लिए कार्यरत है।
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1112📚General English & ComprehensionAncient History of Kashmir
Which ancient kingdom of Kashmir was known for its Buddhist heritage?
Explanation
The Kushana Empire, particularly under Emperor Kanishka I in the 1st-2nd century CE, was deeply celebrated for its Buddhist heritage in Kashmir, organizing the 4th Buddhist Council at Kundalvana (near modern-day Harwan, Srinagar).
कुषाण साम्राज्य (विशेषकर सम्राट कनिष्क) कश्मीर में बौद्ध विरासत के लिए प्रसिद्ध था। कनिष्क ने कश्मीर के कुंडलवन में चतुर्थ बौद्ध संगीति का आयोजन कराया था।
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1113📚General English & ComprehensionFinance Commission of India
Who was the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission of India, which was constituted in 2017?
Explanation
N.K. Singh (Nand Kishore Singh) was appointed as the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission constituted by the President of India in November 2017 to recommend devolution of tax revenues for 2021-2026.
15वें वित्त आयोग (2017 में गठित) के अध्यक्ष श्री एन.के. सिंह (Nand Kishore Singh) थे।
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1114📚General English & ComprehensionWorld Geography & Physical Landforms
Match Column - X with Column - Y and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

| Column - X | Column - Y |
| :--- | :--- |
| 1. Grand Canyon | I. Canada |
| 2. Lake Winnipeg | II. New Zealand |
| 3. Southern Alps | III. USA |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1. Grand Canyon is a steep-sided canyon carved by the Colorado River in the United States (III)
2. Lake Winnipeg is a massive freshwater lake located in Manitoba, Canada (I)
3. Southern Alps is a mountain range extending along much of the length of the South Island in New Zealand (II).
Correct code: 1-III, 2-I, 3-II.
1. ग्रैंड कैन्यन: संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका (USA - III)
2. विन्निपेग झील: कनाडा (Canada - I)
3. दक्षिणी आल्प्स पर्वतमाला: न्यूजीलैंड (New Zealand - II)।
सही विकल्प 1-III, 2-I, 3-II है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
1115📚General English & ComprehensionEmployment, Skill Development & Human Resource
Which initiative plays the most crucial role in boosting employment opportunities in India?
Explanation
The National Skill Development Mission (NSDM), launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, creates vocational training infrastructure and industry-aligned skills to directly boost youth employability across India.
राष्ट्रीय कौशल विकास मिशन (National Skills Development Mission) युवाओं को रोजगारपरक प्रशिक्षण देकर देश में रोजगार के अवसर बढ़ाने में सबसे महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाता है।
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1116📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KEducational Initiatives & Current Affairs
What is the name of the Channel launched by Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan for Indian Sign Language?
Explanation
Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched the dedicated 'Bhartiya Sanketik Bhasha' (Indian Sign Language) DTH channel under the PM e-VIDYA scheme to provide inclusive education to hearing-impaired learners.
केंद्रीय शिक्षा मंत्री धर्मेंद्र प्रधान द्वारा भारतीय सांकेतिक भाषा (ISL) के लिए 'भारतीय सांकेतिक भाषा डीटीएच चैनल' (Bhartiya Sanketik Bhasha DTH Channel) शुरू किया गया।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
1117📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KDistricts & Administrative Setup of J&K
After the reorganization in 2019, how many districts are there in Jammu & Kashmir UT?
Explanation
Following the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh (consisting of Leh and Kargil districts), the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises exactly 20 districts (10 in Jammu Division and 10 in Kashmir Division).
2019 में लद्दाख के अलग होने के बाद केंद्र शासित प्रदेश जम्मू और कश्मीर में कुल 20 जिले हैं (10 कश्मीर संभाग और 10 जम्मू संभाग में)।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
1118📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
In accordance with the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019, how many women can be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor to the Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Under Section 15 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Lieutenant Governor may nominate two women members to the Legislative Assembly if, in his opinion, women are not adequately represented.
जम्मू और कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम 2019 की धारा 15 के तहत उपराज्यपाल विधानसभा में 2 महिला सदस्यों को मनोनीत कर सकते हैं।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
1119📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KBorder Roads Organisation & Projects in Ladakh
Consider the following statements about Project HIMANK:
I. It is a project of NHAI
II. It is responsible for the construction of roads in J&K and Ladakh

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect: Project HIMANK (established in 1985) is a landmark project of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), not NHAI. Statement II is correct: Project HIMANK is known as 'The Mountain Tamers' and is responsible for constructing world-record high-altitude roads (like Umling La and Khardung La) across Ladakh and J&K. Hence, II only is correct.
कथन I गलत है क्योंकि प्रोजेक्ट हिमांक (Project HIMANK) सीमा सड़क संगठन (BRO) का प्रोजेक्ट है, न कि NHAI का। कथन II सही है क्योंकि यह लद्दाख और जम्मू-कश्मीर में दुर्गम पर्वतीय सड़कों का निर्माण करता है। अतः केवल II सही है।
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1120📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech
Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: "If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you," she said to him in a calm voice.
Explanation
The threat represents a warning delivered in a calm manner. Pronouns shift from 'I' to 'she' and 'you' to 'him', with 'shall' becoming 'would': 'She warned him calmly that she would shoot him if he didn't keep quiet.'
धमकी भरे वाक्य को चेतावनी (warned calmly) के रूप में व्यक्त किया जाता है और सर्वनाम एवं काल के नियमानुसार 'She warned him calmly that she would shoot him if he didn't keep quiet' सही उत्तर है।
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1121📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KModal Auxiliary Verbs
Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliary verbs: Ramesh ______ be coming to see us tomorrow.
Explanation
May' is used to express future possibility or uncertainty regarding a planned visit: 'Ramesh may be coming to see us tomorrow.
भविष्य की संभावना (Possibility) को दर्शाने के लिए Modal Verb 'may' का सही प्रयोग होगा।
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1122📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KModal Auxiliary Verbs
Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliary verbs: My grandfather is 86 years old but he ______ still read without his glasses.
Explanation
Can' expresses present general physical capability/ability: '...he can still read without his glasses.
वर्तमान काल में शारीरिक योग्यता/क्षमता (Ability) व्यक्त करने के लिए 'can' का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1123📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: ______ weather was rainy, and we made ______ bet whether you would come.
Explanation
Weather' in this specific situation refers to the specific prevailing weather of that day, taking the definite article 'The'. 'Made a bet' is a standard English idiomatic collocated phrase. Hence: 'The weather was rainy, and we made a bet...
विशिष्ट मौसम के लिए 'The weather' और मुहावरेदार प्रयोग 'made a bet' में 'a' आएगा। अतः सही उत्तर 'The, a' है।
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1124📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KReading Comprehension
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the author's metaphorical statement, "it is not every garden that grows the herbs to make it with"?
Explanation
The metaphor 'not every garden grows the herbs' correlates directly with the author's earlier clause 'few can practise it', meaning genuine patience is cultivated and observed by only a few rare individuals.
रूपक 'हर बगीचे में यह जड़ी-बूटी नहीं उगती' का अर्थ है कि समाज में बहुत कम लोग वास्तव में धैर्य का पालन कर पाते हैं।
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1125📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityHomophones & Word Usage
Fill in the blanks: The dog took a ______ during his walk and raised his ______ to show that he was tired.
Explanation
Pause' means a temporary stop/break, while 'paws' refers to the feet of an animal: 'The dog took a pause during his walk and raised his paws...
रुकने के लिए 'pause' और कुत्ते के पंजों के लिए 'paws' का प्रयोग होगा। अतः 'pause; paws' सही है।
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1126📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityOne Word Substitution
Choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence: Be the embodiment or perfect example of
Explanation
'Personify' (or Epitomize) means to represent a quality or concept in human form or to be the ultimate embodiment/archetype of something.
किसी गुण या विचार का साक्षात उदाहरण या अवतार होने को अंग्रेजी में 'Personify' (मूर्त रूप देना) कहते हैं।
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1127📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityPrepositions
Fill in the blanks: Did you try looking ______ the door or ______ the cupboard?
Explanation
One naturally searches 'behind' a door (in the space hidden by an open/closed door) and 'in' (or inside) a cupboard where items are stored. Hence: 'behind the door or in the cupboard'.
दरवाजे के पीछे के लिए 'behind the door' और अलमारी के अंदर के लिए 'in the cupboard' का प्रयोग होगा।
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1128📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilitySentence Completion & Vocabulary
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank: Even at the risk of economic loss, he ______ refused to take the beaten track.
Explanation
Steadfastly' means with firm, unwavering purpose and determination, which fits the sentence: 'he steadfastly refused to take the beaten track.
'Steadfastly' का अर्थ दृढ़तापूर्वक और बिना डगमगाए होता है। अतः 'steadfastly refused' सही उत्तर है।
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1129📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: I saw ______ old woman yesterday.
Explanation
The word 'old' begins with a vowel sound (/oʊ/), hence the indefinite article 'an' is used: 'I saw an old woman yesterday.'
'Old' शब्द स्वर ध्वनि (Vowel sound) से शुरू होता है, इसलिए इसके पहले 'an' का प्रयोग होगा।
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1130📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilityNumber Series & Pattern Completion
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank space:

1,2,3,6,9,18,(...),541, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, (...), 54
Explanation
The pattern alternates multiplying by 2 and multiplying by 1.5:
- 1×2=21 \times 2 = 2
- 2×1.5=32 \times 1.5 = 3
- 3×2=63 \times 2 = 6
- 6×1.5=96 \times 1.5 = 9
- 9×2=189 \times 2 = 18
- 18×1.5=2718 \times 1.5 = 27
- 27×2=5427 \times 2 = 54.
Hence, the missing number is 27.
श्रृंखला में बारी-बारी से ×2\times 2 और ×1.5\times 1.5 का गुणा हो रहा है: 18×1.5=2718 \times 1.5 = 27 और 27×2=5427 \times 2 = 54। अतः सही संख्या 27 है।
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1131📚Numerical & Mathematical AbilitySpeed, Time and Distance
A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 300 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and the policeman run at the rate of 10 km/h10\text{ km/h} and 11 km/h11\text{ km/h}, respectively. What is the distance between them after 6 mins?
Explanation
Relative speed of the policeman with respect to the thief:
vrel=11−10=1 km/h=1×1000 m60 min=503 m/minv_{\text{rel}} = 11 - 10 = 1\text{ km/h} = 1 \times \frac{1000\text{ m}}{60\text{ min}} = \frac{50}{3}\text{ m/min}
Distance gained by policeman in 6 minutes:
dgained=503×6=100 metresd_{\text{gained}} = \frac{50}{3} \times 6 = 100\text{ metres}
Distance remaining between them after 6 minutes:
dremaining=300−100=200 metres.d_{\text{remaining}} = 300 - 100 = 200\text{ metres}.
सापेक्ष गति = 11 - 10 = 1 किमी/घंटा = \frac{50}{3} मीटर/मिनट।
6 मिनट में तय की गई अतिरिक्त दूरी = \frac{50}{3} \times 6 = 100 मीटर।
6 मिनट बाद दोनों के बीच शेष दूरी = 300 - 100 = 200 मीटर।
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1132📚General Intelligence & ReasoningLogical Situation Assessment
An Informal gathering happens when a group of people get together in a casual, relaxed manner. Which of the following is the best example of an informal gathering?
Explanation
Option A describes a spontaneous, unplanned, relaxed social choice among friends after work without structured agendas or formal invitations, which defines an informal gathering.
विकल्प A एक अनौपचारिक, सहज और बिना किसी पूर्व योजना या निमंत्रण के दोस्तों का मिलना दर्शाता है, जो अनौपचारिक बैठक (Informal Gathering) का सबसे सटीक उदाहरण है।
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1133📚General Intelligence & ReasoningTime and Work
Manisha takes twice as much time as Usha to complete a work and Ravi does it in the same time as Manisha and Usha together. If all three working together can finish the work in 7 days, then the time taken by Manisha to finish the work is:
Explanation
Let Usha's time be xx days   ⟹  \implies Manisha's time =2x= 2x days.
Combined 1-day work of Manisha and Usha:
12x+1x=32x\frac{1}{2x} + \frac{1}{x} = \frac{3}{2x}
Ravi's 1-day work is equal to Manisha + Usha together =32x= \frac{3}{2x}.
All three together in 1 day:
32x+32x=62x=3x=17  ⟹  x=21 days\frac{3}{2x} + \frac{3}{2x} = \frac{6}{2x} = \frac{3}{x} = \frac{1}{7} \implies x = 21\text{ days}
Time taken by Manisha =2x=2×21=42 days= 2x = 2 \times 21 = 42\text{ days}.
उषा का समय =x= x, मनीषा का समय =2x= 2x।
मनीषा + उषा का 1 दिन का काम =12x+1x=32x= \frac{1}{2x} + \frac{1}{x} = \frac{3}{2x} (रवि का भी काम)।
तीनों का 1 दिन का कुल काम =32x+32x=3x=17  ⟹  x=21= \frac{3}{2x} + \frac{3}{2x} = \frac{3}{x} = \frac{1}{7} \implies x = 21
मनीषा द्वारा लिया गया समय = 2x = 42 दिन।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
1134📚Basic Concepts of ComputersMensuration & Volume
The circumference of the base of a cylindrical vessel is 44 cm and its height is 25 cm. How many litres of water can it hold? (Take π=227\pi = \frac{22}{7})
Explanation
Base circumference:
2πr=44  ⟹  2×227×r=44  ⟹  r=7 cm2\pi r = 44 \implies 2 \times \frac{22}{7} \times r = 44 \implies r = 7\text{ cm}
Volume of the cylinder:
V=πr2h=227×72×25=22×7×25=3850 cm3V = \pi r^2 h = \frac{22}{7} \times 7^2 \times 25 = 22 \times 7 \times 25 = 3850\text{ cm}^3
Converting to litres (1 litre=1000 cm31\text{ litre} = 1000\text{ cm}^3):
Capacity=38501000=3.85 litres.\text{Capacity} = \frac{3850}{1000} = 3.85\text{ litres}.
2\pi r = 44 \implies r = 7 सेमी।
आयतन = \pi r^2 h = \frac{22}{7} \times 49 \times 25 = 3850 सेमी^3।
लीटर में क्षमता = \frac{3850}{1000} = 3.85 लीटर।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
1135📚Basic Concepts of ComputersDigital India & E-Governance
Consider the following statements:
The vision of Digital India launched by the Government of India is centred on:
I. Creating transportation infrastructure in states
II. Digital Empowerment of Every Citizen

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
The three core vision areas of the Digital India programme are: (1) Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen, (2) Governance and Services on Demand, and (3) Digital Empowerment of Citizens. Transportation infrastructure is covered under Bharatmala/PMGSY, not Digital India. Hence, II only is correct.
डिजिटल इंडिया कार्यक्रम के तीन प्रमुख स्तंभ हैं: डिजिटल इंफ्रास्ट्रक्चर, ई-गवर्नेंस और नागरिकों का डिजिटल सशक्तिकरण (Digital Empowerment of Every Citizen)। अतः केवल II सही है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
1136📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCPU Architecture (ALU, CU, Registers)
Consider the following statements:
I. The control unit of the CPU is used to process and store data.
II. The CPU's ALU can perform both arithmetic and logical operations.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect: The Control Unit (CU) directs the operations of the processor and manages instruction execution; data is stored in registers and memory. Statement II is correct: The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) performs all arithmetic calculations (addition, subtraction) and logical comparisons (AND, OR, NOT). Hence, II only is correct.
कथन I गलत है क्योंकि कंट्रोल यूनिट निर्देशों को नियंत्रित करती है, डेटा स्टोर रजिस्टर करते हैं। कथन II सही है क्योंकि ALU अंकगणितीय और तार्किक दोनों ऑपरेशन करता है। अतः केवल II सही है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
1137📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCyber Security & Virtualization
Match Column - X with Column - Y and select the answer using the codes given below:

| Column - X | Column - Y |
| :--- | :--- |
| 1. Firewall | I. Store user preferences for future website visits |
| 2. Cookies | II. Filters Incoming and outgoing data to protect the computer |
| 3. Hypervisor | III. Manages and runs virtual machines |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1. Firewall: A network security system that filters incoming and outgoing traffic (II)
2. Cookies: Small text files stored by browsers to record user preferences and session data (I)
3. Hypervisor (VMM): Software/firmware that creates, runs, and manages virtual machines (III).
Correct matching code is 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.
1. फ़ायरवॉल: इनकमिंग और आउटगोइंग डेटा को फ़िल्टर करता है (II)
2. कुकीज़: उपयोगकर्ता प्राथमिकताओं और सत्र को सहेजती हैं (I)
3. हाइपरवाइजर: वर्चुअल मशीनों को प्रबंधित करता है (III)।
सही विकल्प 1-II, 2-I, 3-III है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
1138📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCyber Threats & Malware
Which of the following best describes a keylogger?
Explanation
A keylogger (keystroke logger) is a surveillance technology (software or hardware) designed to covertly monitor, log, and record each keystroke typed on a computer keyboard, often used in spyware attacks to steal passwords and confidential data.
कीलॉगर (Keylogger) एक ऐसा सॉफ्टवेयर या हार्डवेयर उपकरण है जो कीबोर्ड पर दबाई गई प्रत्येक कुंजी (keystroke) को रिकॉर्ड और मॉनिटर करता है।
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1139📚Basic Concepts of ComputersHistory of Internet & DNS
Which of the following events is correctly matched with its contribution to the development of the Internet?
Explanation
The Domain Name System (DNS), developed by Paul Mockapetris in 1983, revolutionized the Internet by replacing numerical IP addresses with human-readable domain names (.com, .org, .edu).
1983 में पॉल मोकापेट्रिस द्वारा डोमेन नेम सिस्टम (DNS) का आविष्कार इंटरनेट के विकास में सबसे क्रांतिकारी मील का पत्थर था, जिसने IP पतों को आसान नामों में बदल दिया।
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1140📚Basic Concepts of ComputersInternet & Email Protocols (SMTP, IMAP, POP3)
Which of the following is an E-mail protocol?
I. SMTP
II. ICMP
III. IMAP
IV. POP3

Choose the correct Answer:
Explanation
- SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails.
- IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is used for retrieving and synchronizing emails.
- POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is used for downloading emails.
- ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a network-layer protocol used for diagnostics (e.g. ping), not email.
Therefore, I, III, and IV are email protocols.
ई-मेल प्रोटोकॉल: SMTP (भेजने के लिए), IMAP और POP3 (प्राप्त करने के लिए)। ICMP एक नेटवर्क लेयर प्रोटोकॉल है, ई-मेल का नहीं। अतः I, III और IV सही हैं।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
1141📚Basic MathematicsTime and Work
If 10 workers can complete a task in 18 days. If the same work is done by 5 workers for 10 days, how many more days would be required by 13 workers to finish the task?
Explanation
Total work = 10×18=180 man-days10 \times 18 = 180\text{ man-days}.
Work done by 5 workers in 10 days = 5×10=50 man-days5 \times 10 = 50\text{ man-days}.
Work remaining = 180−50=130 man-days180 - 50 = 130\text{ man-days}.
Days required by 13 workers = 13013=10 days\frac{130}{13} = 10\text{ days}.
कुल काम =10×18=180= 10 \times 18 = 180 मैन-डेज।
5 मजदूरों द्वारा 10 दिन में किया गया काम =50= 50 मैन-डेज।
शेष काम =180−50=130= 180 - 50 = 130 मैन-डेज।
13 मजदूरों द्वारा लिया गया समय =13013=10= \frac{130}{13} = 10 दिन।
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1142📚Basic ReasoningVerbal Analogies
Which of the following pairs is most similar to the relationship "Plant: Photosynthesis"?
Explanation
A plant carries out the physiological process of photosynthesis. Similarly, the stomach carries out the digestive process of digestion.
पौधे का मुख्य जैविक कार्य प्रकाश संश्लेषण (Photosynthesis) करना है, उसी प्रकार आमाशय (Stomach) का मुख्य कार्य पाचन (Digestion) करना है।
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1143📚Basic ReasoningVerbal Analogies
Which of the following completes the analogy "Oarsman: Rower :: Musician: ?"
Explanation
An oarsman is synonymous with a rower who performs the physical action of rowing. Similarly, a musician is synonymous with an instrumentalist who plays an instrument.
नाविक (Oarsman) को Rower भी कहते हैं, उसी प्रकार संगीतकार/वादक (Musician) को Instrumentalist कहा जाता है।
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1144📚Basic ReasoningAnalogies & Classification
Which of the following completes the analogy "Digital Image: Pixel :: Human: ?"
Explanation
A pixel is the fundamental, indivisible building block of a digital image. Similarly, a cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of a human.
डिजिटल इमेज की सबसे छोटी मूलभूत इकाई पिक्सेल (Pixel) होती है, उसी प्रकार मानव शरीर की सबसे छोटी संरचनात्मक इकाई कोशिका (Cell) होती है।
2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments
1145📚Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
A woman introduced a girl as the daughter of her mother's brother. The girl is the woman's:
Explanation
Mother's brother is maternal uncle (Mama). The daughter of maternal uncle is a Cousin.
माँ का भाई = मामा। मामा की पुत्री = ममेरी बहन (Cousin)।
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1146📚Basic EnglishArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article.
She achieved _____ unique position in _____ organization through hard work.
Explanation
'Unique' starts with a consonant 'y' sound (/juː/), taking indefinite article 'a'. 'Organization' refers to the specific company/entity, taking definite article 'the': 'a unique position in the organization'.
'Unique' व्यंजन ध्वनि (य) से शुरू होता है इसलिए 'a' आएगा, और विशिष्ट संगठन के लिए 'the' आएगा। अतः 'a, the' सही उत्तर है।
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1147📚Basic EnglishArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article.
_____ engineer presented _____ innovative solution during the conference.
Explanation
Both 'engineer' and 'innovative' begin with vowel sounds (/e/ and /ɪ/), requiring the indefinite article 'An' and 'an': 'An engineer presented an innovative solution...'.
'Engineer' और 'innovative' दोनों स्वर ध्वनि से शुरू होते हैं, इसलिए दोनों जगह 'An, an' आएगा।
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1148📚Basic EnglishArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article.
_____ European country announced _____ new policy to combat climate change.
Explanation
'European' begins with a consonant 'y' sound (/jʊərəˈpiːən/), so it takes 'A'. 'New policy' takes indefinite article 'a': 'A European country announced a new policy...'.
'European' की शुरुआत 'य' व्यंजन ध्वनि से होती है, इसलिए इसके पूर्व 'A' आएगा और 'new policy' के पूर्व भी 'a' आएगा।
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1149📚Basic EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition in the below sentence.
She stepped _____ the boat carefully to avoid slipping.
Explanation
'Onto' is used to express movement towards and coming to rest upon a surface/deck: 'She stepped onto the boat carefully...'.
नाव की सतह पर पैर रखने के लिए 'onto' का प्रयोग सही है: 'stepped onto the boat'.
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1150📚Basic EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition in the below sentence.
_____ the beautiful decorations, candles were placed _____ the centerpiece.
Explanation
'Alongside the beautiful decorations, candles were placed around the centerpiece' correctly expresses accompanying placement and surrounding orientation.
सजावट के साथ के लिए 'Alongside' और केंद्र के चारों ओर के लिए 'around' का सही प्रयोग होगा।
2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments
1151📚Basic EnglishTenses & Sequence of Tenses
Fill in the blank with a suitable verb in the below sentence.
By the time he arrived, the train _____ already.
Explanation
In past time clauses with 'By the time + past simple (arrived)', the earlier completed action takes the past perfect tense: 'had already left'.
'By the time' के साथ भूतकाल में पहले समाप्त हुई क्रिया के लिए Past Perfect Tense 'had left' का प्रयोग होता है।
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1152📚Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement & Tenses
Fill in the blank with a suitable verb in the below sentence.
The chef _____ the ingredients carefully before cooking the dish.
Explanation
Expressing a habitual professional routine or general fact in culinary practice uses the simple present tense: 'The chef prepares the ingredients carefully...'.
सामान्य नियम और आदत व्यक्त करने के लिए Simple Present Tense 'prepares' का उपयोग होगा।
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1153📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
Select the sentence where the determiner is used correctly.
Explanation
Option C correctly pairs 'several' with the plural countable noun 'opportunities'. (In A, 'many dogs'; in B & D, 'advice' and 'information' are uncountable and do not take 'a').
विकल्प C में 'several' के साथ बहुवचन संज्ञा 'opportunities' का सही प्रयोग हुआ है। 'advice' और 'information' अगणनीय हैं।
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1154📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSpellings & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank with the correct spelling: The detective had to _____ the evidence carefully to uncover the truth behind the mysterious disappearance.
Explanation
The correct spelling is 'scrutinise' (British English) or 'scrutinize' (meaning to examine or inspect closely and thoroughly).
'Scrutinise' (गहनता से जांच करना) की सही वर्तनी विकल्प B है।
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1155📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSpellings & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank with the correct spelling: It was pure _____ that I met my old friend at the park today.
Explanation
The correct spelling is 'serendipity' (meaning the occurrence of valuable or agreeable things not sought for; happy coincidence).
'Serendipity' (संयोग से सुखद घटना होना) की सही वर्तनी विकल्प D है।
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1156📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&KNational Sports Awards & Khel Ratna 2024
Which of the following pairs is/are correct regarding the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 awardees?
i) Harmanpreet Singh - Hockey
ii) Aman Sehrawat - Wrestling
iii) Manu Bhaker - Shooting
iv) Praveen Kumar - Para-Athletics

Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
India's highest sporting honor, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024, was conferred on hockey captain Harmanpreet Singh, double Olympic medalist Manu Bhaker (Shooting), and Paralympic gold medalist Praveen Kumar (Para-Athletics).
मेजर ध्यानचंद खेल रत्न पुरस्कार 2024: हरमनप्रीत सिंह (हॉकी), मनु भाकर (निशानेबाजी), और प्रवीण कुमार (पैरा-एथलेटिक्स)। अतः i, iii और iv सही हैं।
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1157📚General Awareness & Current AffairsSikh Gurus & Medieval Indian History
The fifth Sikh guru "Guru Arjan Dev", is known for which significant contribution?
Explanation
Guru Arjan Dev Ji, the fifth Sikh Guru, compiled the sacred Adi Granth (the first official edition of the Sikh scripture) in 1604 and installed it at the Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple), Amritsar.
सिखों के पांचवें गुरु, गुरु अर्जुन देव जी ने 1604 में पवित्र 'आदि ग्रंथ' (गुरु ग्रंथ साहिब का प्रारंभिक संकलन) तैयार किया था।
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1158📚General Awareness & Current AffairsCoastal Geography & Famous Beaches
Which of the following location-beach pairings is not correct?
Explanation
Radhanagar Beach (Asia's best beach / Blue Flag beach) is located on Havelock Island (Swaraj Dweep) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, NOT in Andhra Pradesh.
राधानगर बीच (Radhanagar Beach) अंडमान और निकोबार द्वीप समूह के हैवलॉक द्वीप पर स्थित है, आंध्र प्रदेश में नहीं। अतः विकल्प B गलत युग्म है।
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1159📚General Awareness & Current AffairsVitamins, Nutrients & Human Physiology
Which vitamin is mainly produced when the skin is exposed to sunlight?
Explanation
Vitamin D (specifically Vitamin D3 / Cholecalciferol) is synthesized in human skin cells when 7-dehydrocholesterol absorbs solar ultraviolet-B (UVB) radiation.
जब त्वचा सूर्य के प्रकाश (UV-B किरणों) के संपर्क में आती है, तो शरीर में विटामिन D का संश्लेषण होता है।
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1160📚General Awareness & Current AffairsSolar System & Astronomy
Match the different planets with their common names:

| Planets | Common Names |
| :--- | :--- |
| i) Venus | 1) Red Planet |
| ii) Mars | 2) Giant Planet |
| iii) Jupiter | 3) Ringed Planet |
| iv) Saturn | 4) Morning and evening star |

Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
i) Venus - Morning and evening star (4)
ii) Mars - Red Planet (1)
iii) Jupiter - Giant Planet (2)
iv) Saturn - Ringed Planet (3).
Correct matching code is i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3.
i) शुक्र (Venus): भोर और सांझ का तारा (4)
ii) मंगल (Mars): लाल ग्रह (1)
iii) बृहस्पति (Jupiter): विशालकाय ग्रह (2)
iv) शनि (Saturn): वलययुक्त ग्रह (3)।
सही विकल्प i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3 है।
2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments
1161🔬General ScienceHuman Nutrition & Dietary Nutrients
Match the different nutrients with their main functions:

| Nutrients | Functions |
| :--- | :--- |
| i) Carbohydrates | 1) Structural building blocks of the body |
| ii) Fats | 2) Helps prevent constipation and diarrhea |
| iii) Proteins | 3) Main source of energy for the body |
| iv) Fiber | 4) Repair and build body tissues |

Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
i) Carbohydrates: Main primary source of energy for the body (3)
ii) Fats: Long-term energy storage & cell structure insulation (1)
iii) Proteins: Repair and build body tissues/enzymes (4)
iv) Fiber: Promotes digestive motility and prevents constipation (2).
Correct code is i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
i) कार्बोहाइड्रेट: शरीर के लिए ऊर्जा का मुख्य स्रोत (3)
ii) वसा: ऊर्जा भंडारण और संरचनात्मक घटक (1)
iii) प्रोटीन: शरीर के ऊतकों का निर्माण और मरम्मत (4)
iv) फाइबर/आहार रेशा: पाचन और कब्ज निवारण (2)।
सही विकल्प i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 है।
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1162🔬General ScienceDiseases, Epidemiology & Public Health
What is the main cause of contagious diseases?
Explanation
Contagious (infectious) communicable diseases are transmitted through airborne pathogens (contaminated air), food/water-borne bacteria and viruses (contaminated food), and poor sanitation and personal hygiene (All of the above).
संक्रामक रोग दूषित वायु, दूषित भोजन/जल और अस्वच्छ वातावरण तीनों कारणों से फैलते हैं (उपरोक्त सभी)।
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1163🔬General ScienceWater Treatment & Environmental Pollution
What is the main purpose of a sewage treatment plant?
Explanation
The primary objective of a Sewage Treatment Plant (STP) is to remove contaminants, toxic pollutants, and harmful biological pathogens from municipal wastewater and sewage before safely discharging or reusing it.
सीवेज ट्रीटमेंट प्लांट (STP) का मुख्य उद्देश्य अपशिष्ट जल और सीवेज को उपचारित एवं शुद्ध (treat and purify) करना है ताकि पर्यावरण प्रदूषण को रोका जा सके।
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1164🔬General ScienceFamous Lakes of Jammu and Kashmir
Match the lakes of Jammu & Kashmir with their locations:

| Lakes | Locations |
| :--- | :--- |
| i) Dal Lake | 1) Freshwater lake in the Budgam district of JK |
| ii) Nilnag Lake | 2) Located in the Anantnag district of Kashmir Valley |
| iii) Manasbal Lake | 3) Kidney-shaped lake in foothills of Shankaracharya Hill |
| iv) Sheshnag Lake | 4) Freshwater lake located in the Ganderbal District of JK |

Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
i) Dal Lake: Urban lake at the foothills of Shankaracharya Hill in Srinagar (3)
ii) Nilnag Lake: Blue-water pine forest lake in Budgam district (1)
iii) Manasbal Lake: Deepest freshwater lake with lotus blooms in Ganderbal district (4)
iv) Sheshnag Lake: High-altitude alpine pilgrimage lake in Anantnag district (2).
Correct code is i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
i) डल झील: श्रीनगर में शंकराचार्य पहाड़ी की तलहटी में (3)
ii) नीलगनाग झील: बडगाम जिला (1)
iii) मानसबल झील: गांदरबल जिला (4)
iv) शेषनाग झील: अनंतनाग जिला (2)।
सही विकल्प i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 है।
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1165🔬General ScienceHandicrafts & Pashmina Industry of J&K
What is the primary source of wool used for making Pashmina shawls?
Explanation
Authentic Cashmere/Pashmina wool is harvested from the ultra-fine undercoat of the Changthangi Goat (Capra hircus laniger), domesticated by nomadic Changpa tribes in the high-altitude Changthang plateau of Ladakh.
पश्मीना शॉल के लिए विश्व प्रसिद्ध महीन ऊन लद्दाख के चांगथांग पठार में पाई जाने वाली 'चांगथांगी बकरी' (Changthangi Goat) के अंडरकोट से प्राप्त की जाती है।
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1166🔬General ScienceFreedom Struggle & Quit Kashmir Movement 1946
Which prominent leader led the Quit Kashmir Movement in 1946 against the feudal rule of the Maharaja?
Explanation
Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah, president of the All Jammu and Kashmir National Conference, spearheaded the 'Quit Kashmir' movement in May 1946, demanding the abrogation of the Treaty of Amritsar and the termination of the autocratic rule of Maharaja Hari Singh.
मई 1946 में नेशनल कॉन्फ्रेंस के नेता शेख मोहम्मद अब्दुल्ला ने महाराजा हरि सिंह के सामंती शासन और अमृतसर की संधि के विरोध में 'भारत छोड़ो' की तर्ज पर 'कश्मीर छोड़ो' (Quit Kashmir) आंदोलन चलाया था।
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1167📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentPsychiatric Epidemiology
The study of how diseases and disorders are distributed and what factors determine their presence or absence in a population is called as
Explanation
Epidemiology is the study of the distribution, patterns, and determinants of health, diseases, and psychological conditions in specified human populations.
महामारी विज्ञान (Epidemiology) किसी जनसंख्या में रोगों और विकारों के वितरण, प्रसार और निर्धारकों का अध्ययन है।
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1168📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDSM-5-TR Revisions
When was the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision published?
Explanation
DSM-5-TR (Text Revision) was officially released by the American Psychiatric Association in March 2022.
DSM-5-TR (टेक्स्ट रिवीजन) को अमेरिकन साइकियाट्रिक एसोसिएशन द्वारा मार्च 2022 में जारी किया गया था।
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1169📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentNon-Parametric Methods
Which of the following are non-parametric tests?
1. Mann-Whitney U test
2. Kruskal-Wallis test
3. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
4. Pearson correlation

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Mann-Whitney U, Kruskal-Wallis, and Kolmogorov-Smirnov are distribution-free non-parametric tests. Pearson correlation is a parametric test.
मैन-व्हिटनी यू, क्रुस्कल-वालिस, और कोल्मोगोरोव-स्मिरनोव गैर-पैरामीट्रिक परीक्षण हैं। अतः 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं।
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1170📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentStatistical Tests Matching
Match the following tests:
i. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test — 3. Test of normality
ii. Chi-square test — 2. Goodness of fit test
iii. Wilcoxon signed rank test — 4. Alternative to dependent Samples t-test
iv. Spearman's rho — 1. Correlation for Rank data

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Matching code: i-3 (Normality test), ii-2 (Goodness of fit), iii-4 (Paired t-test alternative), iv-1 (Rank correlation).
सही मिलान: i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1।
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1171📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentStatistical Tests
Match the following tests:
i. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test — 3. Test of normality
ii. Chi-square test — 2. Goodness of fit test
iii. Wilcoxon signed rank test — 4. Alternative to dependent Samples t-test
iv. Spearman's rho — 1. Correlation for Rank data

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Matching: i-3 (Normality test), ii-2 (Goodness of fit), iii-4 (Paired t-test alternative), iv-1 (Rank correlation).
सही मिलान: i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1।
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1172📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentR Software
What are the characteristics of R software?
1. Open-source
2. Proprietary
3. Coding Needed
4. Multiple GUIs

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
R is an open-source programming language (1) that requires code syntax (3) and supports multiple GUIs like RStudio (4).
R ओपन-सोर्स है (1), इसमें कोडिंग की आवश्यकता होती है (3), और इसके कई GUI उपलब्ध हैं (4)। अतः 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं।
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1173📚Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDelusional Phenomenology
Match the Type of Delusion with its Example:

| Type of Delusion | Example of Client Description |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. Persecutory | 3. Someone is constantly following me. |
| ii. Delusion of grandeur | 4. Prime minister seeks my advice daily. |
| iii. Jealousy | 2. My spouse has an affair with someone. |
| iv. Erotomania | 1. Great actress is in love with me. |

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Matching: Persecutory (being followed - 3), Grandeur (PM takes advice - 4), Jealousy (unfaithful spouse - 2), Erotomania (celebrity in love - 1).
सही मिलान: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1।
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1174📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)Bipolar Disorders (Mania Criteria)
Which of the following is NOT an aspect in DSM-5 Manic Episode Criteria of mood as 'a distinct period of abnormally and persistently ______'?
Explanation
In DSM-5 Criterion A for Manic Episode, mood is described as 'elevated, expansive, or irritable', while 'goal-directed' describes increased activity or energy.
DSM-5 में उन्माद की मनोदशा को 'Elevated, Expansive, Irritable' कहा गया है, जबकि 'Goal-directed' गतिविधि के लिए प्रयुक्त होता है।
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1175📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
Severe recurrent temper outbursts manifested verbally/ behaviorally that are grossly out of proportion in intensity or duration to the situation is sign of
Explanation
Severe recurrent temper outbursts disproportionate to provocation in children/adolescents defines Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD).
बार-बार होने वाले गंभीर और अनियंत्रित गुस्से के दौरे 'डिसरप्टिव मूड डिसरेगुलेशन डिसऑर्डर' (DMDD) के मुख्य लक्षण हैं।
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1176📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)Personality Disorders
Match the Type of personality Disorder with its DSM-5 Criteria:

| Type of personality Disorder | DSM-5 Criteria |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. Schizoid | 2. Pervasive detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression |
| ii. Schizotypal | 3. Odd beliefs or magical thinking that influences behavior and Ideas of reference |
| iii. Antisocial | 4. Impulsivity or failure to plan ahead. |
| iv. Paranoid | 1. Pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others |

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Matching: Schizoid (detachment - 2), Schizotypal (odd beliefs - 3), Antisocial (impulsivity - 4), Paranoid (distrust - 1).
सही मिलान: i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1।
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1177📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)EMDR Protocol Steps
For following steps in EMDR, specify the correct order?
1. Preparation
2. Body scan
3. Assessment
4. Installation
5. Desensitization
6. Closure

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
EMDR 8-phase protocol order: Preparation (1) -> Assessment (3) -> Desensitization (5) -> Installation (4) -> Body Scan (2) -> Closure (6).
EMDR का सही क्रम: तैयारी (1) → मूल्यांकन (3) → विसंवेदीकरण (5) → स्थापना (4) → बॉडी स्कैन (2) → समापन (6)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1178📚Psychopathology & Diagnostic Classifications (DSM/ICD)MCMI-IV Scale Architecture
If MCMI IV scale categories are ordered as per number of scales in them in ascending order, then which is correct order?
1. Personality Pattern Scales
2. Clinical Syndrome Scales
3. Modifying Indices
4. Random Response Indicators
5. Grossman Facet Scales
Explanation
Scale counts: Random Response (2) -> Modifying Indices (3) -> Clinical Syndromes (7) -> Personality Patterns (12) -> Grossman Facet Scales (45). Ascending order: 4 -> 3 -> 2 -> 1 -> 5.
MCMI-IV पैमानों की संख्या: रैंडम रिस्पांस (4) → मॉडिफाइंग इंडेक्स (3) → क्लिनिकल सिंड्रोम (2) → पर्सनालिटी पैटर्न (1) → ग्रॉसमेन फेसेट स्केल (5)। सही क्रम D है।
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1179📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyIntelligence Assessment (FSIQ)
In the WAIS-IV, what does the Full-Scale IQ (FSIQ) represent?
Explanation
The Full-Scale IQ (FSIQ) derived from all 10 core subtests of WAIS-IV represents a composite global estimate of general intellectual functioning (Spearman's 'g').
WAIS-IV में फुल-स्केल आईक्यू (FSIQ) व्यक्ति की समग्र सामान्य बौद्धिक क्षमता (Overall intellectual ability) का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है।
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1180📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyFive-Factor Model & Personality Pathology
Which of the Big-Five personality dimension is strongly associated with antisocial personality disorder?
Explanation
Antisocial Personality Disorder is most strongly and consistently characterized by extremely low Agreeableness (callousness, antagonism, hostility, lack of empathy, manipulativeness).
असामाजिक व्यक्तित्व विकार (Antisocial Personality Disorder) मुख्य रूप से अत्यंत निम्न सहमतिशीलता (Low Agreeableness) से जुड़ा होता है।
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1181📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyChild Psychological Assessment
Which of the following can be used with children?
Explanation
The Children's Apperception Test (CAT), developed by Leopold Bellak, is a projective personality assessment specifically designed for children aged 3 to 10 years using animal/human figures.
चिल्ड्रन्स एपर्सेप्शन टेस्ट (CAT) विशेष रूप से 3 से 10 वर्ष के बच्चों के व्यक्तित्व मूल्यांकन के लिए बनाया गया प्रक्षेपी परीक्षण है।
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1182📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyNeuropsychological Assessment (LNNB)
How many clinical scales are included in the standard Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery?
Explanation
The standard Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery (LNNB) comprises 11 clinical scales (Motor, Rhythm, Tactile, Visual, Receptive Speech, Expressive Speech, Writing, Reading, Arithmetic, Memory, and Intellectual Processes).
लूरिया-नेब्रास्का न्यूरोसाइकोलॉजिकल बैटरी (LNNB) में कुल 11 नैदानिक पैमाने (Clinical Scales) होते हैं।
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1183📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyNeurobiology & Glial Cells
Match the Glial Cells with their primary Functions:

| Cells | Functions |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. Astrocytes | 3. Phagocytosis & structural/metabolic support |
| ii. Oligodendrocyte | 2. Myelin sheath of CNS |
| iii. Microglia | 1. Inflammatory reaction & immune defense |
| iv. Schwann cells | 4. Myelin sheath of PNS |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i) Astrocytes: Metabolic/phagocytic support (3); ii) Oligodendrocytes: Form myelin sheath in Central Nervous System (2); iii) Microglia: Resident immune cells mediating inflammatory response (1); iv) Schwann cells: Form myelin sheath in Peripheral Nervous System (4).
i) एस्ट्रोसाइट्स: संरचनात्मक/मेटाबॉलिक सहायता (3)
ii) ओलिगोडेंड्रोसाइट: केंद्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र (CNS) का मायलिन शीथ (2)
iii) माइक्रोग्लिया: प्रतिरक्षा और सूजन प्रतिक्रिया (1)
iv) श्वान कोशिकाएं: परिधीय तंत्रिका तंत्र (PNS) का मायलिन शीथ (4)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1184📚Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyHomeostatic Regulatory Mechanisms
Match the Regulatory System Terms with their Meanings:

| Term | Meaning |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. System Variable | 1. The characteristic to be regulated |
| ii. Set point | 3. The optimal value of the system variable |
| iii. Detector | 2. Monitor of the value of the system variable |
| iv. Correctional mechanism | 4. Restores the system variable to the set point |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching: i) System variable = characteristic regulated (1); ii) Set point = optimal target value (3); iii) Detector = sensory monitor (2); iv) Correctional mechanism = restores balance to set point (4). Code: i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4.
सही मिलान: i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4।
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1185📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Infectious Diseases & HIV/AIDS
Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is correct?
1. AIDS is a condition that occurs in the advanced stages of HIV infection.
2. HIV can be completely cured with antiretroviral therapy (ART).
3. AIDS stands for Auto-Immune Deficiency Syndrome.
4. HIV weakens the immune system by attacking white blood cells (CD4+ T cells).

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
AIDS develops in late-stage HIV (1 - True) and attacks CD4+ T-helper white blood cells (4 - True). (ART manages viral load and suppresses virus, and in medical literature/multiple choice options 1, 2, 4 is designated correct).
AIDS एचआईवी संक्रमण के उन्नत चरणों में होता है (1) और यह श्वेत रक्त कोशिकाओं पर हमला करके प्रतिरक्षा प्रणाली को कमजोर करता है (4)।
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1186📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)CBT for Chronic Pain
In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for pain management, which of the following is a primary goal?
Explanation
CBT for pain aims to reframe catastrophic cognitions, build active behavioral coping strategies, and modify maladaptive beliefs regarding pain.
दर्द प्रबंधन के लिए CBT का मुख्य उद्देश्य दर्द से संबंधित दुर्भावनापूर्ण विचारों और व्यवहारों को सकारात्मक रूप से बदलना है।
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1187📚Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Multimodal Pain Management (The 4 Ps)
Choose the correct full form of the Four P's of pain management.
Explanation
The interdisciplinary biopsychosocial 4P model of comprehensive pain management comprises: Physical, Psychological, Pharmacological, and Procedural interventions.
दर्द प्रबंधन के '4 Ps': Physical (शारीरिक), Psychological (मनोवैज्ञानिक), Pharmacological (औषधीय), और Procedural (प्रक्रियात्मक)।
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1188📚Health Psychology & Research MethodologyReality Therapy & Choice Theory (WDEP)
What does "WDEP" stand for in reality therapy?
Explanation
In Reality Therapy / Choice Theory (William Glasser and Robert Wubbolding), the WDEP system stands for: Wants, Direction and Doing, Self-Evaluation, and Planning for change.
रियलिटी थेरेपी में WDEP प्रणाली का अर्थ है: Wants (इच्छाएं), Direction/Doing (दिशा और कर्म), Self-Evaluation (स्व-मूल्यांकन), और Planning (योजना बनाना)।
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1189📚Health Psychology & Research MethodologyTherapeutic Schools & Techniques
Match the Therapeutic Techniques with their Schools of Therapy:

| Techniques | Schools of Therapy |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. Making the rounds | 3. Gestalt |
| ii. JPMR | 1. Behavioral Therapy |
| iii. Automatic thought record | 2. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy |
| iv. Unconditional positive regard | 4. Humanistic Therapy |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i) Making the rounds = Gestalt group exercise (3); ii) JPMR (Jacobson's Progressive Muscle Relaxation) = Behavioral Therapy (1); iii) Automatic thought record = CBT (2); iv) Unconditional positive regard = Person-Centered / Humanistic Therapy (4). Code: i-3; ii-1; iii-2; iv-4.
i) मेकिंग द राउंड्स: गेस्टाल्ट (3)
ii) JPMR: व्यवहार चिकित्सा (1)
iii) ऑटोमैटिक थॉट रिकॉर्ड: CBT (2)
iv) बिना शर्त सकारात्मक सम्मान: मानवतावादी चिकित्सा (4)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1190📚Health Psychology & Research MethodologyPsychotherapy Process & Stages
Arrange the following steps in the typical order they occur during psychotherapy:
1. Setting therapeutic goals
2. Termination of therapy
3. Assessment and diagnosis
4. Intervention and treatment

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Standard psychotherapy process sequence: Comprehensive clinical assessment and diagnosis (3) -> Collaborative goal setting (1) -> Evidence-based intervention/treatment execution (4) -> Planned termination and relapse prevention (2). Sequence: 3 -> 1 -> 4 -> 2.
मनोचिकित्सा के सामान्य चरण: मूल्यांकन और निदान (3) → लक्ष्यों का निर्धारण (1) → हस्तक्षेप और उपचार (4) → चिकित्सा का समापन (2)। सही क्रम: 3 -> 1 -> 4 -> 2।
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1191📚Health Psychology & Research MethodologyEthics in Clinical Psychology & Informed Consent
Which of the following is TRUE about informed consent?
1. It provides information to the client about the therapy process
2. It allows them to make autonomous decisions.
3. Taking informed consent depends on your theoretical framework of therapy.
4. It mentions about the termination of therapy and an approximate number of sessions.

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Informed consent provides clear information on therapy procedures and risks (1), empowers client autonomy (2), and outlines limits, approximate session length, and termination policies (4). Statement 3 is false because informed consent is an absolute universal ethical and legal mandate, regardless of theoretical orientation. Thus, 1, 2 and 4 only are correct.
सूचित सहमति (Informed consent) प्रक्रिया की जानकारी देती है (1), स्वायत्त निर्णय लेने की अनुमति देती है (2), और सत्रों व समाप्ति की शर्तों का उल्लेख करती है (4)। कथन 3 असत्य है क्योंकि यह हर थेरेपी में अनिवार्य नैतिक नियम है। अतः 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं।
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1192📚Health Psychology & Research MethodologyBehavioral Medicine Interventions
Which of the following interventions are NOT commonly used in behavioral medicine?
Explanation
Immunotherapy is a specialized medical/pharmacological biological treatment in oncology and rheumatology, whereas behavioral medicine utilizes psychological/behavioral interventions like stress management, biofeedback, and lifestyle smoking cessation.
इम्यूनोथेरेपी (Immunotherapy) एक जैव-चिकित्सीय औषधीय उपचार है, यह व्यवहार चिकित्सा (Behavioral medicine) का मनोवैज्ञानिक हस्तक्षेप नहीं है।
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1193📚Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank using a suitable article:
_____ unique artist often develops _____ signature style that distinguishes them and their work from their peers.
Explanation
'Unique' begins with a consonant 'y' sound (/juː/), taking indefinite article 'A'. 'Signature style' takes indefinite article 'a': 'A unique artist often develops a signature style...'.
'Unique' की शुरुआत 'य' व्यंजन ध्वनि से होती है, इसलिए इसके पूर्व 'A' आएगा और 'signature style' के पूर्व भी 'a' आएगा।
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1194📚Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsReading Comprehension
What is one of the primary reasons for the increasing vulnerability of networks in today's digital landscape?
Explanation
According to the passage, 'The proliferation of Internet of Things (IoT) devices has expanded the attack surface by making networks more susceptible to unauthorized access.'
गद्यांश के अनुसार IoT उपकरणों के प्रसार ने नेटवर्क को अनधिकृत पहुंच के प्रति अधिक संवेदनशील बना दिया है।
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1195📚Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsCybersecurity & Vocabulary
In the context of cybersecurity, what does the term 'social engineering' refer to?
Explanation
Social engineering in cybersecurity refers to the psychological manipulation of human individuals to trick them into divulging sensitive passwords, credentials, or confidential information.
सोशल इंजीनियरिंग (Social engineering) का अर्थ लोगों को मनोवैज्ञानिक रूप से बरगलाकर उनसे गोपनीय जानकारी प्राप्त करना है।
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1196📚Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsSentence Completion & Fill in Blanks
Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
The facilitator _____ the advantages of collaborative tasks to _____ learners teamwork skills.
Explanation
'The facilitator emphasized the advantages of collaborative tasks to enhance learners teamwork skills' is idiomatic and grammatically precise.
सही युग्म 'emphasized, enhance' है (सुविधाकर्ता ने कौशल को बढ़ाने के लिए लाभों पर बल दिया)।
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1197📚Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsHomophones & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank using suitable homophones:
Despite the _____ remarks made by the coach, the athlete continued to train hard and developed a _____ on her hand by gripping the weights.
Explanation
'Callous' (adjective) means insensitive, unfeeling, or harsh. 'Callus' (noun) means a thickened and hardened part of the skin caused by friction.
'Callous' (कठोर/असंवेदनशील) टिप्पणी और हाथ पर 'callus' (घट्टा/कड़ा चमड़ा)। सही विकल्प 'callous, callus' है।
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1198📚Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsSquares and Square Roots
A boy wanted to think of a large perfect square and guessed the number 98,765. However, it turned out that 98,765 is not a perfect square. Help him find the perfect square closest to 98,765.
Explanation
98765≈314.269\sqrt{98765} \approx 314.269.
- 3142=98,596314^2 = 98,596 (difference = 98765−98596=16998765 - 98596 = 169)
- 3152=99,225315^2 = 99,225 (difference = 99225−98765=46099225 - 98765 = 460).
The closest perfect square is 3142=98596314^2 = 98596.
98765≈314.27\sqrt{98765} \approx 314.27। 3142=98,596314^2 = 98,596 (अंतर 169) और 3152=99,225315^2 = 99,225 (अंतर 460)। निकटतम पूर्ण वर्ग 98596 है।
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1199📚AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsKirchhoff's Laws (KCL & KVL)
Which of the following statements about Kirchhoff's first and second law is NOT correct?
Explanation
Statement B is incorrect: Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL, First Law) is universally applicable to any electrical junction or node in any network (linear, non-linear, AC, DC, capacitive, inductive, or resistive).
कथन B गलत है क्योंकि KCL (पहला नियम) सभी प्रकार के परिपथों और जंक्शनों पर लागू होता है, न कि केवल प्रतिरोधक घटकों पर।
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1200📚AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsGrounding vs Earthing
Which statement correctly differentiates between grounding and earthing in electrical systems?
Explanation
Earthing connects non-current carrying metallic equipment enclosures directly to ground for personnel safety against shock, whereas Grounding provides a zero-potential reference point (such as neutral grounding) for system balancing.
अर्थिंग उपकरणों के धातु ढांचे को जमीन से जोड़ती है ताकि शॉक से बचा जा सके, जबकि ग्राउंडिंग सिस्टम के लाइव हिस्से (जैसे न्यूट्रल) को जोड़कर संदर्भ बिंदु प्रदान करती है।
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1201📚Transformers & Electrical MachinesHard vs Soft Magnetic Materials
Which of the following statements are NOT correct regarding Hard Magnets?
Explanation
Statement B is incorrect: Hard magnetic materials have a LARGE hysteresis loop area, HIGH coercivity, and HIGH retentivity (making them ideal for permanent magnets). Soft magnetic materials have small loop areas.
कथन B गलत है क्योंकि कठोर चुंबकीय पदार्थों (Hard magnets) का हिस्टैरिसीस लूप क्षेत्रफल, धारणशीलता (Retentivity) और निग्राहिता (Coercivity) अत्यधिक उच्च होते हैं।
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1202📚Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyMachinery Lubrication & Cooling
How does lubrication help in temperature management within machinery?
Explanation
Lubricating oils and greases reduce friction coefficient and continuously carry away generated heat from bearing contacts, dissipating it to outer casings and cooling sumps.
स्नेहन (Lubrication) महत्वपूर्ण घटकों से गर्मी को दूर स्थानांतरित करके और घर्षण घटाकर तापमान प्रबंधन में मदद करता है।
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1203📚Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyYoke of DC Generator
Which of the following statements about the Yoke of the DC generator is/are correct?
1. The yoke provides a sturdy and protective outer covering for the generator.
2. It provides mechanical support and keeps the poles properly aligned.
3. It carries magnetic flux produced by the poles.
4. It is made of either cast iron or steel.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
All 4 statements are correct: The outer frame (yoke) provides outer mechanical protection (1), supports field poles (2), serves as the return magnetic flux path (3), and is manufactured from cast iron (small machines) or cast/rolled steel (large machines) (4).
सभी चारों कथन सही हैं: योक बाहरी आवरण देता है (1), पोल को सहारा देता है (2), चुंबकीय फ्लक्स ले जाता है (3), और कास्ट आयरन/स्टील का बना होता है (4)।
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1204📚Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyLap vs Wave Armature Winding
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the difference between wave winding and lap winding in DC generators?
Explanation
Statement D is incorrect: Lap winding has A=PA = P parallel paths and requires additional equalizer rings/connections to balance unequal currents, making its manufacturing cost higher than wave winding (which has only 2 paths, A=2A = 2).
कथन D गलत है क्योंकि लैप वाइंडिंग में अधिक समानांतर पथ (A=PA=P) और इक्वलाइज़र रिंग्स की आवश्यकता के कारण इसकी लागत वेव वाइंडिंग से अधिक होती है।
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1205📚Power Generation & DistributionDC Motor Characteristics & Applications
Match the different types of DC Motor with their corresponding features:

| Types of DC Motor | Features |
| :--- | :--- |
| i) Shunt DC Motors | 2) Constant speed and medium starting torque: ideal for lathes, fans, pumps, drills |
| ii) Series DC Motors | 3) High starting torque and variable speed: ideal for cranes, hoists, electric locomotives |
| iii) Cumulative Compound DC motors | 1) High starting torque with non-runaway speed limit: ideal for rolling mills, heavy planers |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching: i) DC Shunt Motor = constant speed machine tool drives (2); ii) DC Series Motor = heavy traction/hoists/cranes (3); iii) Cumulative Compound Motor = rolling mills/punch presses (1). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-1.
सही मिलान: i-2, ii-3, iii-1।
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1206📚Power Generation & DistributionDamper Windings & Hunting
What is the function of the damper winding in an alternator?
Explanation
Damper (amortisseur) windings in synchronous machines suppress rotor oscillations (hunting) during load surges and damp out unbalanced negative-sequence armature reaction magnetic fields.
अल्टरनेटर में डैम्पर वाइंडिंग का मुख्य कार्य हंटिंग (Hunting) को समाप्त करना और ऋणात्मक अनुक्रम चुंबकीय क्षेत्र को दबाना है।
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1207📚Power Generation & DistributionTypes of Electrical Indicating Instruments
Match the various types of ammeter with their corresponding Functions:

| Types | Function |
| :--- | :--- |
| i) Permanent Moving Coil Ammeter | 2) Measures direct current (DC) based on magnetic deflection principle |
| ii) Moving Iron Ammeter | 4) Measures both AC and DC where deflection is proportional to square of current |
| iii) Electro-Dynamometer Ammeter | 1) High-precision precision instrument for both AC and DC using dual fixed/moving coils |
| iv) Rectifier Type Ammeter | 3) Measures AC by converting to DC using diode bridge, suitable for communication circuits |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching: i) PMMC = DC only with linear scale (2); ii) Moving Iron = AC and DC rms measurements (4); iii) Electrodynamometer = Precision transfer standard for AC/DC (1); iv) Rectifier type = AC audio/RF communications (3). Code: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3.
सही मिलान: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3।
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1208📚General English & Quantitative AptitudePower Measurement & Wattmeters
Which type of wattmeter is most commonly used for measuring power in high-voltage circuits?
Explanation
The Electrodynamometer Wattmeter (used with Instrument Transformers - CTs and PTs) is the universal industry standard for precise active power measurement across high-voltage AC and DC power networks.
इलेक्ट्रोडायनेमोमीटर प्रकार का वाटमीटर (Electrodynamometer wattmeter) उच्च वोल्टेज परिपथों में शक्ति मापने के लिए मानक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1209📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeTwo Wattmeter Method
In a 3-phase balanced star-connected system, Match the power factor and Phase angle of the system with the corresponding wattmeter readings of the two wattmeters:

| Power factor & Phase angle | Wattmeter Reading of two wattmeters |
| :--- | :--- |
| i) P.F. is unity (phi = 0°) | 3) W1 = W2, both positive |
| ii) 0.5 < P.F. < 1.0 (60° > phi > 0°) | 2) W1 > W2, both positive |
| iii) P.F. = 0 (phi = 90°) | 1) |W1| = |W2|, Total power is zero (W1 = +ve, W2 = -ve) |
| iv) 0 < P.F. < 0.5 (90° > phi > 60°) | 4) |W1| != |W2|, Total power is positive (W1 = +ve, W2 = -ve) |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
In the two-wattmeter method:
- At unity PF (ϕ=0∘\phi=0^\circ): W1=W2=VLILcos⁡30∘>0W_1 = W_2 = V_L I_L \cos 30^\circ > 0 (3)
- At 0.5<PF<1.00.5 < \text{PF} < 1.0 (0∘<ϕ<60∘0^\circ < \phi < 60^\circ): W1>W2>0W_1 > W_2 > 0 (2)
- At zero PF (ϕ=90∘\phi=90^\circ): W1=−W2W_1 = -W_2, net power =0= 0 (1)
- At 0<PF<0.50 < \text{PF} < 0.5 (60∘<ϕ<90∘60^\circ < \phi < 90^\circ): W1>0W_1 > 0 and W2<0W_2 < 0, net power >0> 0 (4).
Correct code: i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4.
दो-वाटमीटर विधि: यूनिटी PF पर W1=W2W_1 = W_2 दोनों धनात्मक (3); 0.5<PF<10.5<\text{PF}<1 पर W1>W2W_1 > W_2 दोनों धनात्मक (2); PF=0\text{PF}=0 पर W1=−W2W_1 = -W_2 (1); PF<0.5\text{PF}<0.5 पर एक ऋणात्मक (4)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1210📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeOperating System Kernel & Functions
In an operating system, what is the primary role of a kernel?
Explanation
The kernel is the foundational core of an Operating System that manages system hardware resources (CPU, RAM, I/O devices) and provides a secure abstraction bridge for user application programs.
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम में कर्नेल (Kernel) कंप्यूटर हार्डवेयर और सॉफ्टवेयर अनुप्रयोगों के बीच मुख्य सेतु (Bridge) के रूप में कार्य करता है।
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1211📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeInternet Protocols (HTTP, FTP, DNS, DHCP)
Match List I with List II:

| List I | List II |
| :--- | :--- |
| i) HTTP | 2) Used for transferring web pages over the internet |
| ii) FTP | 1) Used for transferring files between computers on a network |
| iii) DNS | 4) Translates domain names into IP addresses |
| iv) DHCP | 3) Automatically assigns unique IP addresses to devices on a network |

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching:
- i) HTTP: Hypertext Transfer Protocol for web pages (2)
- ii) FTP: File Transfer Protocol for file transfers (1)
- iii) DNS: Domain Name System translating domain names to IP addresses (4)
- iv) DHCP: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol automatically leasing IP configurations (3).
Correct code: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3.
सही मिलान: HTTP (2), FTP (1), DNS (4), DHCP (3)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1212📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeEmail Clients & CLI Utilities
Which of the following is a text-based email client?
Explanation
Pine (Program for Internet News and Email, along with Alpine and Mutt) is a classic terminal text-based email client for Unix/Linux systems.
Pine (या Alpine/Mutt) यूनिक्स और लिनक्स के लिए एक प्रसिद्ध टेक्स्ट-आधारित (CLI) ईमेल क्लाइंट है।
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1213📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeSmart Consumer Electronics & IoT
What distinguishes a smart TV from a regular LED TV?
Explanation
A Smart TV features an integrated operating system (such as Android TV, Tizen, webOS) with built-in Wi-Fi/Ethernet to stream media and run internet software applications directly.
स्मार्ट टीवी में अंतर्निहित इंटरनेट कनेक्टिविटी (Wi-Fi) और ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम होता है, जिससे यह ऐप और ऑनलाइन स्ट्रीमिंग चला सकता है।
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1214📚General English & Quantitative AptitudeInternet Services vs Hardware Firmware
Which of these is NOT an internet service?
Explanation
BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) setup is a local non-volatile firmware interface embedded on the computer motherboard ROM/flash chip to initialize hardware during POST, entirely independent of internet services.
BIOS सेटअप मदरबोर्ड की स्थानीय फर्मवेयर प्रणाली है, यह कोई इंटरनेट सेवा नहीं है।
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1215📚Data Structures & AlgorithmsQuery Processing & Optimization Steps
Arrange the following steps in query processing in the correct order:
1. Query Optimization
2. Query Parsing
3. Execution Plan Generation
4. Query Execution

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
DBMS Query Processing Pipeline:
1. Parsing & Translation: Syntactic/semantic checks and relational algebra translation (2)
2. Query Optimization: Cost-based evaluation of query trees (1)
3. Execution Plan Code Generation: Producing physical execution steps (3)
4. Query Execution: Evaluating the plan by the query execution engine (4).
Order: 2 → 1 → 3 → 4.
क्वेरी प्रोसेसिंग का सही क्रम: पार्सिंग (2) → ऑप्टिमाइजेशन (1) → निष्पादन योजना जनरेशन (3) → निष्पादन (4)। अतः 2 → 1 → 3 → 4 सही है।
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1216📚Data Structures & AlgorithmsCandidate Keys & Functional Dependencies
A table has 5 attributes. If the table is in 1NF, how many candidate keys can it have?
Explanation
The number of candidate keys is determined by the functional dependencies (FDs) between attributes, which varies from 1 up to many combinations depending on the relation's semantic schema.
कैंडिडेट कुंजियों की संख्या तालिका की कार्यात्मक निर्भरता (Functional dependencies) और स्कीमा पर निर्भर करती है।
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1217📚Data Structures & AlgorithmsDatabase Indexing Pros & Cons
Which of the following are advantages of indexing in a database?
1. Improves query performance
2. Reduces storage requirements
3. Increases the speed of updates and inserts
4. Enables faster retrieval of rows

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Indexing speeds up SELECT query performance (1) and accelerates row retrieval (4). However, indexes consume additional disk storage space and slow down INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE operations because the index tree must be updated.
इंडेक्सिंग से क्वेरी का प्रदर्शन बेहतर होता है (1) और डेटा तेजी से प्राप्त होता है (4)। यह अतिरिक्त मेमोरी लेता है और इन्सर्ट/अपडेट को धीमा करता है। अतः 1 और 4 सही हैं।
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1218📚Database Management Systems (SQL)SQL DML Commands
Match the following SQL commands with their purposes:

| SQL Command | Purpose |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. SELECT | 1. Retrieve data |
| ii. INSERT | 2. Add new rows |
| iii. UPDATE | 3. Modify existing data |
| iv. DELETE | 4. Remove data |

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Matching: SELECT retrieves data (1); INSERT adds new rows (2); UPDATE modifies existing tuples (3); DELETE removes specified rows (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
सही मिलान: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4।
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1219📚Database Management Systems (SQL)SQL Fundamentals
What does SQL stand for?
Explanation
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the standard domain-specific language used for managing data held in relational database management systems.
SQL का पूर्ण रूप 'Structured Query Language' (स्ट्रक्चर्ड क्वेरी लैंग्वेज) है।
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1220📚Database Management Systems (SQL)HTTP vs HTTPS Protocols
Which of the following statements about HTTP and HTTPS are correct?
1. HTTP sends data in plain text, whereas HTTPS encrypts data
2. HTTPS requires an SSL/TLS certificate
3. HTTPS operates on port 443, whereas HTTP operates on port 80
4. HTTPS is faster than HTTP because of encryption

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because TLS cryptographic handshake and encryption/decryption add a slight computational latency overhead, making HTTPS slightly more resource-intensive than unencrypted HTTP.
कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं। कथन 4 गलत है क्योंकि एन्क्रिप्शन के कारण HTTPS में मामूली अतिरिक्त समय (Overhead) लगता है। अतः 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं।
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1221📚Database Management Systems (SQL)AVL Trees & Balance Factor
Which of the following statements about AVL trees are correct?
1. AVL trees are height-balanced binary search trees
2. AVL trees allow duplicate elements
3. The balance factor of any node in an AVL tree is either -1, 0, or 1
4. Insertion in an AVL tree may require rebalancing

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Standard AVL trees enforce strict BST uniqueness (statement 2 is false). The balance factor (hleft−hrighth_{left} - h_{right}) must strictly remain in {−1,0,+1}\{-1, 0, +1\}, and insertions violating this trigger tree rotations (LL, RR, LR, RL).
कथन 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं। AVL ट्री ऊंचाई-संतुलित BST होते हैं (1), इनका बैलेंस फैक्टर -1, 0, या 1 होता है (3), और इंसर्शन पर रोटेशन से पुनर्संतुलन की आवश्यकता हो सकती है (4)।
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1222📚Database Management Systems (SQL)Binary Search Tree Time Complexities
What is the time complexity of searching for an element in a balanced binary search tree (BST)?
Explanation
In a balanced BST (like AVL or Red-Black Tree), the height is guaranteed to be O(log⁡n)O(\log n), making search, insertion, and deletion operations O(log⁡n)O(\log n).
संतुलित बाइनरी सर्च ट्री (Balanced BST) में खोज की समय जटिलता O(log⁡n)O(\log n) होती है।
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1223📚Database Management Systems (SQL)Binary Search Tree Deletion
Arrange the following steps for deleting a node from a binary search tree (BST) in the correct order:
1. Find the node to be deleted
2. Replace the node with its in-order successor if it has two children
3. Delete the node if it has no children or one child
4. Rebalance the tree if necessary

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
BST node deletion steps: 1 (Locate target node) → 2 (If node has 2 children, find and replace with in-order successor/predecessor) → 3 (Splice/delete node with 0 or 1 child) → 4 (Update heights/rebalance if self-balancing BST). Order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.
BST नोड डिलीशन का सही क्रम: नोड खोजना (1) → 2 बच्चे होने पर इन-ऑर्डर सक्सेसर से बदलना (2) → 0 या 1 बच्चे वाले नोड को हटाना (3) → पुनर्संतुलन (4)। क्रम: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4।
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1224📚Database Management Systems (SQL)TCP/IP Model Layers
In the TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for process-to-process communication?
Explanation
The Transport Layer (TCP/UDP) utilizes port numbers to provide end-to-end process-to-process communication between software applications running on distinct network hosts.
TCP/IP मॉडल में ट्रांसपोर्ट लेयर (Transport Layer - TCP/UDP) पोर्ट नंबरों के माध्यम से प्रोसेस-टू-प्रोसेस संचार प्रदान करती है।
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1225📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureNetwork Devices (Router, Switch, Hub, Firewall)
Match the following networking devices with their purposes:

| Device | Purpose |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. Router | 1. Forward packets based on IP addresses |
| ii. Switch | 2. Forward frames based on MAC addresses |
| iii. Hub | 3. Broadcasts data to all connected devices |
| iv. Firewall | 4. Controls incoming and outgoing traffic |

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Matching: Router = Layer 3 IP routing (1); Switch = Layer 2 MAC frame filtering (2); Hub = Layer 1 physical multi-port repeater broadcasting to all ports (3); Firewall = network security packet inspection (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
सही मिलान: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4।
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1226📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureWeb Browsers & Client vs Server Architecture
Which of the following statements about web browsers are correct?
1. A browser renders HTML, CSS, and JavaScript
2. A browser sends HTTP/HTTPS requests to servers
3. A browser is responsible for executing server-side scripts
4. Popular browsers include Chrome, Firefox, and Safari

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because web browsers are client-side software; server-side scripts (PHP, Node.js, ASP.NET, Python) execute exclusively on the remote web server. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं। कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि सर्वर-साइड स्क्रिप्ट्स वेब सर्वर पर निष्पादित होती हैं, ब्राउज़र पर नहीं।
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1227📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureAddress Resolution Protocol (ARP)
What is the purpose of the ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?
Explanation
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) maps a known 32-bit Logical IP address to a physical 48-bit Ethernet MAC hardware address within a local area network.
ARP का मुख्य कार्य लॉजिकल IP एड्रेस को फिजिकल MAC एड्रेस (हार्डवेयर पता) में बदलना है।
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1228📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureNetwork Delays & Transmission Calculations
What will be the total time required to transmit a 1,000-byte file over a 1 Mbps link with a latency of 10 ms?
Explanation
Transmission delay:
Ttrans=File SizeBandwidth=1000×8 bits106 bits/s=8×10−3 s=8 msT_{\text{trans}} = \frac{\text{File Size}}{\text{Bandwidth}} = \frac{1000 \times 8\text{ bits}}{10^6\text{ bits/s}} = 8 \times 10^{-3}\text{ s} = 8\text{ ms}
Total Latency/Time = Transmission Delay + Propagation Delay = 8 ms+10 ms=18 ms8\text{ ms} + 10\text{ ms} = 18\text{ ms}.
ट्रांसमिशन समय =1000×8106=8= \frac{1000 \times 8}{10^6} = 8 ms। कुल समय =8 ms+10 ms=18= 8\text{ ms} + 10\text{ ms} = 18 ms।
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1229📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureTCP Protocol Architecture & Features
Which of the following are features of the TCP protocol?
1. Connection-oriented
2. Reliable data transfer
3. Flow control
4. Low overhead compared to UDP

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
TCP features include connection-oriented 3-way handshake (1), reliable delivery via sequence numbers and ACKs (2), and flow/congestion control (3). Statement 4 is false because TCP's 20-byte header and reliability mechanisms create much higher overhead than lightweight UDP (8-byte header). Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
TCP कनेक्शन-ओरिएंटेड है (1), विश्वसनीय डेटा ट्रांसफर करता है (2), और फ्लो कंट्रोल प्रदान करता है (3)। UDP की तुलना में TCP का ओवरहेड अधिक होता है। अतः 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1230📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureApplication Layer Protocols
Match the following protocols with their primary purposes:

| Protocol | Purpose |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. HTTP | 1. Transfer web pages |
| ii. FTP | 2. Transfer files between systems |
| iii. SMTP | 3. Send email |
| iv. ICMP | 4. Network diagnostics |

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Matching: HTTP = web page delivery (1); FTP = file transfer (2); SMTP = email transmission (3); ICMP = ping/traceroute network error diagnostics (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
सही मिलान: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1231📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureStandard Network Port Numbers
What is the default port number for HTTPS?
Explanation
Standard port numbers: HTTP = 80, FTP = 21, SMTP = 25, HTTPS (HTTP over TLS/SSL) = 443.
HTTPS का डिफ़ॉल्ट पोर्ट नंबर 443 होता है (HTTP का पोर्ट 80 होता है)।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1232📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureUser Datagram Protocol (UDP)
Which of the following statements about UDP are correct?
1. UDP is connectionless
2. UDP is faster than TCP
3. UDP provides error correction
4. UDP is used for real-time applications like video streaming

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because UDP has no retransmission or error correction mechanisms (it offers only basic optional error detection via checksum). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं। कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि UDP में एरर करेक्शन या पुनः प्रसारण की सुविधा नहीं होती। अतः 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1233📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureOSI Hierarchy Top-to-Bottom
Arrange the following layers of the OSI model in order from top to bottom:
1. Application Layer
2. Transport Layer
3. Network Layer
4. Data Link Layer

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
OSI Layers from Top (Layer 7) to Bottom (Layer 1):
1. Application Layer (Layer 7)
2. Transport Layer (Layer 4)
3. Network Layer (Layer 3)
4. Data Link Layer (Layer 2).
Order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.
शीर्ष से नीचे (Top to bottom) OSI परतों का क्रम: एप्लीकेशन लेयर (1) → ट्रांसपोर्ट लेयर (2) → नेटवर्क लेयर (3) → डेटा लिंक लेयर (4)। सही क्रम 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1234📚Operating Systems & System ArchitectureHTTP Cookies & Client-Side Storage
Which of the following statements about cookies in web development are correct?
1. Cookies are used to store user data on the client-side
2. Cookies have an expiration date
3. Cookies cannot be accessed by JavaScript
4. Cookies are sent with every HTTP request

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because client-side JavaScript can read/write cookies via `document.cookie` (unless the `HttpOnly` flag is set). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं। कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि जावास्क्रिप्ट `document.cookie` के माध्यम से कुकीज को एक्सेस कर सकता है (जब तक HttpOnly न हो)। अतः 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं।
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1235📚Object Oriented Programming (C++/Java/Python)JVM vs .NET CLR Architecture
Which of the following statements about the JVM and CLR are true?
Explanation
JVM (Java Virtual Machine) executes Java Bytecode (`.class` files), whereas CLR (Common Language Runtime in .NET) executes Microsoft Intermediate Language (MSIL / CIL).
JVM जावा बाइटकोड निष्पादित करता है जबकि .NET का CLR माइक्रोसॉफ्ट इंटरमीडिएट लैंग्वेज (MSIL) को निष्पादित करता है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1236📚Object Oriented Programming (C++/Java/Python)Core Java Features
Which of the following statements about Java features are true?
1. Java is platform-independent
2. Java uses a Just-In-Time (JIT) compiler
3. Java does not support multithreading
4. Java is an object-oriented programming language

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are true. Statement 3 is false because Java has built-in robust multithreading support (`Thread`, `Runnable`, concurrency utilities). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं। कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि जावा में मल्टीथ्रेडिंग का अंतर्निहित समर्थन होता है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1237📚Object Oriented Programming (C++/Java/Python)C# Using Statement & IDisposable
Which of the following are true about the using statement in C#?
1. It ensures the object is disposed of after use.
2. It is only used for importing namespaces
3. It helps manage unmanaged resources like file handles
4. It can be used to simplify code related to IDisposable objects

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
The `using(...)` statement wraps `IDisposable` objects in a `try-finally` block ensuring `.Dispose()` is called to release unmanaged OS resources (1, 3, 4). Statement 2 is false because `using` acts as both a namespace directive and a deterministic resource disposal block. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
C# में `using` स्टेटमेंट `IDisposable` ऑब्जेक्ट्स के लिए स्वतः `.Dispose()` कॉल करता है और अनमैनेज्ड संसाधनों का प्रबंधन करता है (1, 3, 4)। अतः 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1238📚Object Oriented Programming (C++/Java/Python)ASP.NET State Management & Architecture
Match the following ASP.NET features with their purposes:

| Feature | Purpose |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. ViewState | 1. Maintain state across postbacks |
| ii. Master Pages | 2. Provide a consistent layout |
| iii. Web API | 3. Build RESTful services |
| iv. Session | 4. Store user-specific data |

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Matching: ViewState = page-level state persistence across round-trip postbacks (1); Master Pages = consistent master layout template (2); Web API = HTTP RESTful endpoints (3); Session State = user-specific server-side storage (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
सही मिलान: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1239📚Object Oriented Programming (C++/Java/Python)ASP.NET Web Forms Framework
Which of the following statements about ASP.NET Web Forms are correct?
1. It uses an event-driven programming model.
2. It is part of the .NET Framework
3. It supports server-side controls
4. It does not support AJAX

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is false because ASP.NET Web Forms has full AJAX support via `ScriptManager`, `UpdatePanel`, and the ASP.NET AJAX Control Toolkit. Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं। कथन 4 गलत है क्योंकि ASP.NET वेब फॉर्म्स AJAX (UpdatePanel) का पूर्ण समर्थन करता है। अतः 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं।
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1240📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringEmail Protocols (SMTP vs IMAP/POP3)
Which of the following protocols is used to send email?
Explanation
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, port 25/587) is used for pushing/sending outgoing email messages between mail servers and clients. POP3 and IMAP are used for retrieving email.
ईमेल भेजने के लिए SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1241📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringSDLC Models
Which of the following models is not a part of software development life cycle (SDLC)?
Explanation
Waterfall, Spiral, Agile, RAD, V-Model, and Prototype are established SDLC models. 'Assembly Line Model' is an industrial manufacturing concept, not an SDLC process model.
वॉटरफॉल, स्पाइरल और एजाइल सभी SDLC मॉडल हैं। 'Assembly Line Model' कोई सॉफ्टवेयर विकास मॉडल नहीं है।
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1242📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringAgile Manifesto & Methodology
Which of the following statements about Agile methodology are correct?
1. Agile focuses on iterative development
2. Agile prioritizes customer collaboration over contract negotiation
3. Agile uses a fixed timeline for all phases
4. Agile values responding to change over following a plan

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 4 align directly with the Agile Manifesto: iterative sprints (1), customer collaboration (2), and responding to change (4). Statement 3 is false because Agile embraces adaptive, flexible timeboxes rather than rigid phase timelines. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (पुनरावृत्ति विकास, ग्राहक सहयोग, और बदलाव के प्रति अनुकूलता)। कथन 3 गलत है। अतः 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1243📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringMemory Management & Relocation
Which of the following memory management techniques does not support relocation?
Explanation
Static Contiguous Allocation (Fixed Partitioning without base/limit relocation hardware) binds memory at compile/load time and does not support dynamic relocation, unlike Paging, Segmentation, and Virtual Memory.
स्टैटिक कॉन्टिगुअस एलोकेशन (Contiguous Allocation) में डायनेमिक रीलोकेशन का समर्थन नहीं होता है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1244📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringOS Synchronization & Memory Concepts
Match the following OS concepts with their purposes:

| Concept | Purpose |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. Semaphore | 1. Synchronize access to shared resources |
| ii. Virtual Memory | 2. Simulates more memory than physically available |
| iii. Thrashing | 3. Excessive paging reduces performance |
| iv. Mutex | 4. Exclusive access to critical sections |

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Matching: Semaphore = signaling synchronization primitive (1); Virtual Memory = disk-backed extended address space (2); Thrashing = page fault collapse where CPU spends more time paging than executing (3); Mutex = mutual exclusion lock (4). Code: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
सही मिलान: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
1245📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringFile System Layered Architecture
Arrange the following layers of a file system in the correct order (from user level to disk level):
1. Application Programs
2. File Organization Module
3. Logical File System
4. Physical File System

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
File System Architecture from User level (Top) to Disk level (Bottom):
1. Application Programs (User level) (1)
2. Logical File System (Manages metadata, directory structures, and FCBs/inodes) (3)
3. File Organization Module (Translates logical block addresses to physical sector addresses) (2)
4. Basic / Physical File System (Issues read/write block commands to disk device drivers) (4).
Correct Order: 1 → 3 → 2 → 4.
फाइल सिस्टम परतों का शीर्ष (यूजर) से तल (डिस्क) तक सही क्रम: एप्लिकेशन प्रोग्राम (1) → लॉजिकल फाइल सिस्टम (3) → फाइल ऑर्गनाइजेशन मॉड्यूल (2) → बेसिक/फिजिकल फाइल सिस्टम (4)। सही क्रम 1 → 3 → 2 → 4 है।
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1246📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionDogri Language & Takri Script
Which script is similar to the "Dogri" language of Jammu?
Explanation
Takri (or Takirilipi / Tankri) is the historic native script of the Dogri language and western Pahari dialects of Jammu and Himachal Pradesh.
डोगरी भाषा की ऐतिहासिक मूल लिपि 'टाकरी लिपि' (Takirilipi) है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1247📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionFairs & Festivals of J&K
Poor Mandal Mela is generally celebrated on which occasion?
Explanation
The famous Purmandal Mela (Chhota Kashi) on the banks of Devika river in Samba/Jammu is celebrated on the auspicious occasion of Maha Shivratri.
पुरमंडल मेला (Purmandal Mela) जम्मू के सांबा जिले में महाशिवरात्रि (Shivratri) के पावन पर्व पर आयोजित किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1248📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionWind Instruments Anatomy
How many holes are there in a wind instrument?
Explanation
Traditional Kashmiri woodwind instruments (like the Kashmiri Bansuri or Swarnay) typically feature 8 tone holes (7 finger holes plus 1 thumb/tuning hole).
पारंपरिक सुषिर वाद्य (सुरीली बांसुरी/शहनाई) में आमतौर पर 8 छिद्र (Holes) होते हैं।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1249📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionChakri Music & Instruments
With which folk music is the "Nat-Ghat" instrument used?
Explanation
Nat-Ghat (or Nout, clay pot idiophone) is the foundational rhythmic percussion instrument played in traditional Kashmiri 'Chakkari' (Chakri) musical performances.
नट-घट (घड़ा/नोत) का उपयोग कश्मीरी लोक संगीत 'चकरी' (Chakkari) में किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1250📚Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionKashmiri Santoor Structure
How many string are there in Kashmiri "Santoor"?
Explanation
The classical Kashmiri Santoor (derived from ancient Sanskrit Shatatantri Veena) has exactly 100 metal strings stretched across 25 bridges (4 strings per bridge).
कश्मीरी संतूर (शततंत्री वीणा) में कुल 100 तार (Strings) होते हैं।
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1251📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Folklore & Romances of Kashmir
Which among the following is the famous love story associated with Kashmir folklore?
Explanation
Yusuf-Zulekha (composed into Kashmiri Masnavi by Mahmud Gami) and Himal-Nagrai / Heemal-Nagrai are the legendary romantic folklore epics of Kashmir.
कश्मीरी लोक साहित्य और मसनवी में 'यूसुफ-जुलेखा' (Yusuf-Zulekha) एक अमर प्रेम कथा है।
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1252📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Wanwun Folk Singing
Wanwun is a form of folk song generally sung on which of the following occasions:
Explanation
Wanwun (Vanvun) is a rhythmic choral wedding song sung exclusively by women during marriage festivities across both Kashmiri Muslim and Kashmiri Pandit traditions.
'वानवुन' (Wanwun) कश्मीर में विवाह (Wedding) के मांगलिक अवसरों पर महिलाओं द्वारा गाया जाने वाला लोक गीत है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1253📚Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Lohri Celebrations in Jammu
What dance is performed during the "Lohri" festival in Jammu?
Explanation
During Lohri, boys and men in Jammu perform vibrant Dogri and Bharo folk dances alongside Chajja performances.
लोहड़ी पर्व पर जम्मू में 'डोगरी नृत्य और भारो नृत्य' प्रस्तुत किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1254📚Taal Shastra & RhythmsLohri Dances of Jammu
Which dance is performed on Lohri festival in Jammu?
Explanation
Chhez (along with Chajja dance) is a celebrated Lohri folk performance in Jammu.
लोहड़ी पर्व पर जम्मू में 'छेज' (Chhez) / छज्जा नृत्य किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1255📚Taal Shastra & Rhythms16 Vedic Sanskars & Rituals
Match the correct order of rituals:

1. Pansuwan — ii. Garbhdan Sanaskar
2. Chudakaran — i. Mundan Sanaskar
3. Nishkraman — iii. Shishu Sanaskar
4. Upnayan — iv. Janeyu Dharan Sanaskar

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Matching Hindu Sanskaras: 1. Pumsavana = prenatal rite (ii); 2. Chudakarana = tonsure / Mundan (i); 3. Nishkramana = taking infant outdoors (iii); 4. Upanayana = sacred thread / Janeyu (iv). Code: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv.
सही मिलान: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1256📚Taal Shastra & RhythmsElectronic Harmoniums
Which of the following is a feature of a Korg Harmonium:
Explanation
Electronic synthesizers/keyboards (like Korg electronic harmoniums) are powered by electricity and generate digital sound samples without manual air bellows.
कॉर्ग (Korg) इलेक्ट्रॉनिक हारमोनियम बिजली से चलता है और इसमें डिजिटल प्री-रिकॉर्डेड ध्वनियां होती हैं।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1257📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsThree Saptaks (Mandra, Madhya, Taar)
Which of the following notes is most commonly found in the Madhya Saptak?
Explanation
Madhya Saptak is the middle octave where notes have a natural moderate pitch comfortable for human vocalization without extreme highs or lows.
मध्य सप्तक (Madhya Saptak) में मध्यम पिच (Moderate Pitch) वाले प्राकृतिक स्वर पाए जाते हैं।
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1258📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsTaar Saptak Range
Which octave contains the highest range of notes in Indian classical music?
Explanation
The three saptaks are: Mandra Saptak (lower octave), Madhya Saptak (middle octave), and Taar Saptak (higher/highest pitch octave, denoted by a dot above the note: S˙\dot{\text{S}}).
भारतीय शास्त्रीय संगीत में सबसे ऊँचे स्वरों वाला सप्तक 'तार सप्तक' (Taar Saptak) कहलाता है।
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1259📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsTaal in Performance
Which of the following elements in performance is crucial for both the percussionist and the vocalist to maintain rhythmic coherence in a composition?
Explanation
Taal provides the recurring cyclical time-metric framework that synchronizes the vocalist, instrumentalist, and tabla player during a performance.
गायक और तबला वादक के बीच लयबद्ध तालमेल बनाए रखने के लिए सबसे महत्वपूर्ण तत्व 'ताल' (Taal) है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1260📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsPiano Octave Range
How many octaves does the standard 88 keys Piano span ?
Explanation
A standard modern 88-key piano keyboard spans 7 complete octaves plus a minor third (from A0 to C8).
मानक 88 कुंजियों वाला पियानो 7 सप्तक (7 octaves) और कुछ अतिरिक्त कुंजियों में फैला होता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1261📚Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsTaal Keherwa Matras
Keherwa is composed of how many beats:
Explanation
Taal Keherwa is an 8-beat (8 Matra) rhythm composed of 2 divisions of 4 beats each (Dha Ge Na Tin / Na Ke Dhin Na).
कहरवा ताल कुल 8 मात्राओं (8 Beats) से बनी होती है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1262📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & KashmirSemitones in an Octave
How many semitones are there in an octave in the twelve tone equal temperament system?
Explanation
The twelve-tone equal temperament scale divides an octave into exactly 12 semitones.
12-टोन इक्वल टेम्परामेंट प्रणाली में एक सप्तक में 12 अर्धस्वर (12 Semi-tones) होते हैं।
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1263📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & KashmirThree Saptaks in Indian Music
How many types of octaves are there in Indian Classical Music?
Explanation
Indian classical music recognizes 3 primary Saptaks (octaves): Mandra Saptak (low), Madhya Saptak (middle), and Taar Saptak (high).
भारतीय शास्त्रीय संगीत में मुख्य रूप से 3 सप्तक होते हैं: मन्द्र, मध्य, और तार सप्तक।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1264📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & KashmirTeentaal Structure
Teentaal consists of how many beats?
Explanation
Teentaal is the most famous 16-beat (16 Matra) cycle, structured into 4 vibhags of 4 beats each (4+4+4+4) with claps on 1, 5, 13 and khali on 9.
तीनताल में कुल 16 मात्राएं होती हैं (4-4 मात्राओं के 4 विभाग)।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1265📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & KashmirLadishah Satire & Dahara
Which musical instrument is used in "Ladishah Songs"?
Explanation
Ladishah (the traditional Kashmiri wandering satirist and minstrel) plays the 'Dahara' (an iron rod with loose ringing brass rings that jingle rhythmically in hand).
कश्मीर के लड़ीशाह (व्यंग्य गायक) पारंपरिक रूप से 'डहारा' (Dahara - लोहे की छड़ जिस पर छल्ले होते हैं) बजाते हैं।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1266📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & KashmirHarmonium Pitch Range
Which Instrument has a sound range that spans multiple octaves but with a focus on the lower octave?
Explanation
The Indian Harmonium spans 3 to 3.5 octaves, with primary vocal accompaniment centered heavily on the lower (Mandra) and middle (Madhya) octaves.
हारमोनियम की सीमा 3 से 3.5 सप्तक होती है जिसका मुख्य उपयोग निचले (मन्द्र) और मध्य सप्तक पर केंद्रित होता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1267📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & KashmirHarmonium Bellows & Dynamics
Which feature of harmonium is used to control the volume of the sound produced?
Explanation
The manual Air Pump (bellows) controls the air pressure delivered to the wind chest, directly regulating volume and dynamics.
हारमोनियम में ध्वनि की तीव्रता/वॉल्यूम को 'एयर पंप' (धौंकनी / Bellows) के दबाव द्वारा नियंत्रित किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1268📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & KashmirTaal Khemta Claps & Divisions
How many divisions and claps are there in "Khemta Taal"?
Explanation
In 6-beat Taal Khemta (3+3), there are 2 Divisions (vibhags), 1 Clap (Taali on beat 1), and 1 Khali on beat 4.
6 मात्रा वाली खेमटा ताल में 2 विभाग (Divisions) और 1 ताली (1 Clap) होती है।
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1269📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & Kashmir7 Shuddha Swaras
How many "Shuddha Notes" are present in Saptak?
Explanation
A Saptak contains exactly 7 Shuddha (natural pure) notes: Shadaj (Sa), Rishabh (Re), Gandhar (Ga), Madhyam (Ma), Pancham (Pa), Dhaivat (Dha), and Nishad (Ni).
सप्तक में 7 शुद्ध स्वर (सा, रे, ग, म, प, ध, नि) होते हैं।
2025JKSSBDepartment of Culture
1270📚Folk Music & Culture of Jammu & KashmirSaptak & Octave Notes
How many notes constitute an octave?
Explanation
In music theory, an octave (Saptak) is constituted of 7 natural diatonic notes (Sa, Re, Ga, Ma, Pa, Dha, Ni) before reaching the duplicated 8th tonic note.
एक सप्तक में 7 मुख्य प्राकृतिक स्वर (सा, रे, ग, म, प, ध, नि) होते हैं।
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1271📚Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureThermal Radiation & Stefan-Boltzmann Law
Rate of transfer of energy by radiation can be increased by:
Explanation
According to the Stefan-Boltzmann Law (E=ϵσAT4E = \epsilon \sigma A T^4), the radiant energy emission rate is directly proportional to the fourth power of the absolute surface temperature (T4T^4).
स्टीफन-बोल्ट्जमैन नियम (E∝T4E \propto T^4) के अनुसार, सतह का तापमान बढ़ाने से विकिरण द्वारा ऊर्जा स्थानांतरण की दर तेजी से बढ़ती है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1272📚Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureDosimetry Phantoms
A phantom that simulate various body tissues is called:
Explanation
An anthropomorphic phantom (such as the Rando phantom) is anatomically modeled to simulate human body contours and contains tissue-equivalent materials mimicking bone, lung, muscle, and soft tissue inhomogeneities.
मानव शरीर की शारीरिक संरचना और विभिन्न ऊतकों का अनुकरण करने वाले फैंटम को 'एंथ्रोपोमोर्फिक फैंटम' (Anthropomorphic phantoms) कहा जाता है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1273📚Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureRadioactive Equilibria (Secular vs Transient)
What Kind of radioactive equilibrium can occur when a very long live radionuclide decays to very short lived one?
Explanation
Secular equilibrium occurs when the parent half-life is vastly greater than the daughter half-life (Tparent≫TdaughterT_{\text{parent}} \gg T_{\text{daughter}}, e.g. ^{226}\text{Ra} → {}^{222}\text{Rn}), so the parent activity does not decrease noticeably over many daughter half-lives.
जब मूल रेडियोन्यूक्लाइड का अर्धायु काल संतति न्यूक्लाइड से अत्यधिक लंबा होता है (T1≫T2T_1 \gg T_2), तो 'सेक्युलर साम्यावस्था' (Secular equilibrium) स्थापित होती है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1274📚Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureRadioactive Decay Law Calculations
How many mCi of a radioactive radioisotope (T1/2 = 2.7 days) are required so that the samples activity will be 10mCi 24 hrs later?
Explanation
Decay constant λ=0.693T1/2=0.6932.7 days=0.2567 day−1\lambda = \frac{0.693}{T_{1/2}} = \frac{0.693}{2.7\text{ days}} = 0.2567\text{ day}^{-1}.
Time elapsed t=24 hrs=1.0 dayt = 24\text{ hrs} = 1.0\text{ day}.
A(t)=A0e−λt  ⟹  A0=A(t)e−λt=10 mCie−0.2567=100.7736≈12.93 mCi.A(t) = A_0 e^{-\lambda t} \implies A_0 = \frac{A(t)}{e^{-\lambda t}} = \frac{10\text{ mCi}}{e^{-0.2567}} = \frac{10}{0.7736} \approx 12.93\text{ mCi}.
क्षय समीकरण: A(t)=A0e−λtA(t) = A_0 e^{-\lambda t}। t=1t = 1 दिन और T1/2=2.7T_{1/2} = 2.7 दिन रखने पर A0=10e−0.2567≈12.93 mCiA_0 = \frac{10}{e^{-0.2567}} \approx 12.93\text{ mCi}।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1275📚Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureAcceptance Testing vs Commissioning
What is the difference between acceptance testing and commissioning of equipment?
Explanation
Acceptance testing verifies that the newly installed machine meets vendor purchase contractual specifications using a limited baseline dataset. Commissioning is the comprehensive clinical dataset acquisition (PDD, beam profiles, output factors) required for clinical treatment planning.
स्वीकृति परीक्षण (Acceptance testing) विक्रेता के विनिर्देशों की पुष्टि हेतु सीमित डेटासेट चलाता है, जबकि कमीशनिंग क्लिनिकल उपयोग हेतु व्यापक डेटा संग्रह करता है।
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1276📚Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureBrachytherapy Source Fabrication
In interstitial therapy, the radioactive sources are fabricated in the form of:
Explanation
Radioactive sources for interstitial implants are engineered as rigid needles (e.g. Cesium-137, Radium), flexible wires/hairpins (Iridium-192), and tiny radioactive seeds (e.g. Iodine-125, Palladium-103).
इंटरस्टिशियल थेरेपी में रेडियोधर्मी स्रोतों को 'सुइयों (Needles), तारों (Wires) और बीजों (Seeds)' के रूप में तैयार किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1277📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryHypoxic Fraction in Solid Tumors
The fraction of hypoxic cells in human tumors has been estimated to be:
Explanation
Radiobiological tumor assays and microelectrode/PET measurements estimate the hypoxic fraction in solid human tumors to typically range between 10% and 15%.
मानव ट्यूमर में हाइपोक्सिक (ऑक्सीजन रहित) कोशिकाओं का अंश आमतौर पर 10-15% आंका गया है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1278📚Radiation Detection & DosimetryRadiation Effects on Embryo and Fetus
The most sensitive stage for the lethal effects of radiation is:
Explanation
The preimplantation stage (0 to 9 days post-conception in humans) is the most sensitive period for radiation-induced lethality / embryonic death (the 'all-or-none' phenomenon).
विकिरण के घातक/मृत्युकारी प्रभावों के लिए भ्रूण का सर्वाधिक संवेदनशील चरण 'प्री-इम्प्लांटेशन' (Preimplantation) अवस्था है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1279📚Radiotherapy Equipment (Linac, Telecobalt)AERB Occupational Dose Limits
What is the maximum exposure that AERB allows to occupational workers per year?
Explanation
The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB, India) mandates an occupational effective dose limit of 20 mSv/year averaged over 5 consecutive years, with a maximum ceiling of 30 mSv in any single year.
AERB (भारत) के अनुसार व्यावसायिक कार्यकर्ताओं के लिए किसी एक वर्ष में अधिकतम सीमा 30 mSv है (5 वर्ष का औसत 20 mSv/वर्ष)।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1280📚Radiotherapy Equipment (Linac, Telecobalt)X-ray Beam Filtration
X-rays are filtered out of human body by using:
Explanation
Aluminium filters (e.g. 2.5 mm Al equivalent) are placed in the diagnostic X-ray tube port to preferentially absorb low-energy soft X-rays that would otherwise be absorbed by the patient's skin without contributing to image formation.
एक्स-रे बीम से कम ऊर्जा वाले हानिकारक सॉफ्ट एक्स-रे को छानने (Filter) के लिए एल्युमिनियम अवशोषक (Aluminium absorbers) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1281📚Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningDecay-In-Storage Radioactive Waste Management
Which of the following is true for low level radioactive waste , such as tubing and swabs contaminated with 99mTc ?
Explanation
Short-lived diagnostic radionuclides like Technetium-99m (T1/2=6 hoursT_{1/2} = 6\text{ hours}) are held in 'decay-in-storage' for 10 half-lives (~60 hours) until activity decays to natural background levels, after which they are disposed of as ordinary medical waste.
99mTc^{99m}\text{Tc} जैसे अल्पकालिक कचरे को पृष्ठभूमि स्तर (Background level) तक क्षय होने तक सुरक्षित रखा जाता है, फिर सामान्य मेडिकल कचरे के साथ फेंक दिया जाता है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1282📚Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningImaging Modalities Spatial Resolution
The spatial resolution with MRI is about the same as that obtained with:
Explanation
Standard clinical MRI and multidetector Computed Tomography (CT) both achieve high in-plane spatial resolutions on the order of 0.5 to 1.0 mm, vastly superior to PET/SPECT (4-6 mm).
MRI का स्थानिक विभेदन (Spatial resolution) सीटी स्कैन (CT) के लगभग बराबर (~0.5-1 mm) होता है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1283📚Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningIodine-125 Brachytherapy Emission
Iodine-125 seeds are used in brachytherapy for their _____ radiation:
Explanation
Iodine-125 decays via electron capture to an excited state of Te-125, emitting a 35.5 keV gamma ray and characteristic 27 to 31 keV X-rays (low-energy X-ray and gamma photons) ideal for prostate permanent seed brachytherapy.
आयोडीन-125 बीज ब्रैकीथेरेपी में अपनी 'एक्स-रे और गामा किरणों' (X-ray and gamma ray) के उत्सर्जन के लिए उपयोग किए जाते हैं।
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1284📚Radiation Safety, Protection & Quality AssuranceBrain Anatomy (Cerebrum)
What is the largest part of the human brain?
Explanation
The Cerebrum constitutes approximately 85% of the total weight of the human brain, making it the largest anatomical division.
मानव मस्तिष्क का सबसे बड़ा भाग 'प्रमस्तिष्क' (Cerebrum) है, जो कुल मस्तिष्क का लगभग 85% हिस्सा बनाता है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1285📚Radiation Safety, Protection & Quality AssuranceCardiovascular Anatomy & Myocardium
What is a human heart made up of?
Explanation
The human heart is primarily a muscular pump composed of specialized, involuntary, striated Cardiac Muscle (Myocardium).
मानव हृदय मुख्य रूप से विशेष प्रकार की 'हृदय पेशियों' (Cardiac Muscle) से बना एक पेशीय अंग है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1286📚Radiation Safety, Protection & Quality AssuranceCNS Radiation Toxicity
Which of the following is a likely side effect of radiation therapy to the brain?
Explanation
Delayed neurotoxicity following cranial radiation therapy frequently manifests as progressive cognitive dysfunction, memory decline, and attention deficits (along with acute alopecia).
मस्तिष्क पर विकिरण चिकित्सा का सबसे प्रमुख दीर्घकालिक दुष्प्रभाव 'संज्ञानात्मक दुर्बलता' (Cognitive dysfunction / स्मृति ह्रास) है।
2025JKSSBHealth & Medical Education Department
1287📚Art History, Visual Movements & Perspective DrawingEuropean Renaissance Art
Which of the following statements about the Renaissance period in art is/are correct?

I. The Renaissance period emphasized realism, perspective, and the human form.
II. The Renaissance artists focused primarily on religious themes, with little regard for classical Greek and Roman influences.
III. Leonardo da Vinci and Michelangelo were major figures of the Renaissance, contributing to its artistic advancements.
IV. The Renaissance art movement emerged in Italy and had a significant influence on the rest of Europe.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because classical Greek and Roman ideals were central to the Renaissance revival.
कथन I और III सही हैं। पुनर्जागरण काल ने यथार्थवाद, परिप्रेक्ष्य और शास्त्रीय ग्रीक-रोमन आदर्शों को पुनर्जीवित किया।
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1288📚Art History, Visual Movements & Perspective DrawingRoman Civilization
Who was the first emperor of the Roman Empire?
Explanation
Augustus (Octavian) became the first emperor of the Roman Empire in 27 BCE.
ऑगस्टस रोमन साम्राज्य का पहला सम्राट था (27 ईसा पूर्व - 14 ईस्वी)।
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1289📚Art History, Visual Movements & Perspective DrawingAncient Sculptural Styles
Which of the following statements about ancient art are correct?

I. Ancient Egyptian art focused on order and symmetry, with figures typically shown in a rigid and frontal pose.
II. Greek art was primarily concerned with realism and the accurate depiction of the human body, exemplified by sculptures like the "Discobolus".
III. Roman art was known for its idealized and unrealistic portrayal of human figures, unlike Greek art, which was focused on achieving perfection.
IV. Ancient Mesopotamian art is characterized by its use of relief sculptures, such as the famous "Stele of Hammurabi", depicting important legal and royal themes.

Choose the correct options :
Explanation
Statements I, II, and IV are correct. Roman sculpture was renowned for verism (realistic portraiture) rather than unrealistic idealization.
कथन I, II और IV सही हैं।
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1290📚Art History, Visual Movements & Perspective DrawingAncient Art Styles
Which of the following statements about ancient art styles are true?

I. The art of Ancient Egypt was focused on depicting the gods and pharaohs in highly stylized and symbolic ways.
II. Greek art emphasized realism, with a focus on idealized human proportions and beauty, particularly in sculpture and pottery.
III. Roman art was known for its emphasis on portraiture, often creating lifelike representations of individuals to showcase their character.
IV. In Ancient Mesopotamia, art was primarily used for religious purposes and often featured divine and mythological themes.

Choose the correct options :
Explanation
All statements (I, II, III, and IV) accurately describe the key attributes of ancient art traditions.
सभी कथन (I, II, III, IV) सत्य हैं।
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1291📚Art History, Visual Movements & Perspective DrawingPerspective Drawing
What is the primary characteristic of perspective drawing?
Explanation
Perspective drawing creates spatial depth and volume on a 2D plane through vanishing points and horizon lines.
परिप्रेक्ष्य चित्रण समतल सतह पर वैनिशिंग पॉइंट्स द्वारा 3D गहराई का भ्रम उत्पन्न करता है।
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1292📚Art History, Visual Movements & Perspective DrawingDrawing Applications
Which of the following statements about Drawing (Memory). Drawing (Perspective), and general drawing techniques are true?

I. Drawing (Memory) helps develop imagination and visualization skills, enabling the artist to recreate scenes without external references.
II. Drawing (perspective) is often used in architecture and landscape art to represent realistic depth, often with the use of multiple vanishing points.
III. General drawing involves recording or reproducing visual information from the physical world through observation, without any need for imagination.
IV. Drawing (Memory) requires the use of perspective techniques to create depth and space in the drawing.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements I and II are correct.
कथन I और II सही हैं।
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1293📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsHead Modeling
What is the primary focus of head study in modelling?
Explanation
Head study modeling focuses on understanding cranial anatomy, facial planes, and proportions of the human head.
हेड स्टडी मॉडलिंग मानव सिर के अनुपात, विशेषताओं और शारीरिक रचना के अध्ययन पर केंद्रित है।
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1294📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsProportional Landmarks
In head study modelling, which features is most commonly used as a reference for correct proportions?
Explanation
The eye line serves as the primary horizontal reference for facial measurements.
हेड मॉडलिंग में आँखों (Eyes) को प्राथमिक अनुपात संदर्भ माना जाता है।
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1295📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsHead Study Principles
Which of the following statements about head study modelling are correct?

1. Head study modelling focuses on understanding the proportions and anatomy of the human face and skull.
2. It involves the use of a variety of materials, such as clay, for sculpting a detailed representation of the head.
3. Head study modelling is mainly concerned with abstract representations of the head without reference to realistic features.
4. The aim is to capture the emotional expression and personality of the subject through detailed modelling.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct for academic head study modeling.
कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं।
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1296📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsHead Study Terminology
Match the terms related to head study modelling with their correct descriptions :

Terms:
1. Proportions.
2. Clay
3. Sculpting
4. Anatomy

Descriptions:
i. A method used for capturing the three - dimensional structure of the head.
ii. The correct relationship between the various facial features and overall head size.
iii. A popular material used to create head studies in modelling.
iv. The study of the human skull and facial structure.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv correctly matches proportions, clay, sculpting, and anatomy.
1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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1297📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsSculptural Design
What is the primary focus of sculptural design in the context of creating three - dimensional art?
Explanation
Sculptural design balances form, volume, physical dimensions, and spatial relationship in 3D art.
मूर्तिकला डिजाइन भौतिक स्थान और आयामों पर विचार करते हुए रूप और संरचना का निर्माण करता है।
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1298📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsDesign Terminology
Match the terms related to sculptural design with their correct descriptions.

Terms:
1. Conceptualization
2. Modeling
3. Moulding and casting
4. Finishing and detailing

Descriptions:
i. Shaping the sculpture into its final form.
ii. The initial stage where ideas are sketched or planned.
iii. Creating a replica of the sculpture using materials like clay, wax, or metal.
iv. Adding texture, surface details, and polishing the sculpture for final presentation.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv correctly maps the sculptural design stages.
1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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1299📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsSculptural Sequence
Arrange the following stages of creating a sculpture in the correct chronological order (from first to last):

i. Modeling or shaping the material.
ii. Moulding or casting the sculpture.
iii. Adding texture and finishing details.
iv. Planning and conceptualizing the sculpture.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Chronological order: Planning (iv) -> Modeling (i) -> Moulding/casting (ii) -> Finishing (iii).
सही क्रम iv, i, ii, iii है।
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1300📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsSadanga of Indian Art
Which of the following is one of the "Sadanga" (six limbs) of traditional Indian art?
Explanation
Pramana (Proportion/Measurement) is one of the Six Limbs (Sadanga) of Indian painting (Rupabheda, Pramana, Bhava, Lavanya-yojanam, Sadrishya, Varnikabhanga).
भारतीय कला के षडांग में 'प्रमाण' (Pramana - माप/अनुपात) शामिल है।
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1301📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsAesthetics of Nature and Art
Which of the following combinations correctly explains how aesthetics is applied to both nature and art?
Explanation
Aesthetics encompasses human emotional response and appreciation toward both natural beauty and artistic creations.
सौंदर्यशास्त्र प्रकृति और कला दोनों के प्रति व्यक्तिपरक भावनात्मक प्रतिक्रियाओं का अध्ययन करता है।
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1302📚Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsChronology of Aesthetic Philosophy
Arrange the following aesthetic theories in their chronological order of development:

i. Formalism.
ii. Aesthetic Experience Theory.
iii. Romanticism.
iv. Kantian Aesthetics.
v. Empathy Theory.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Chronology: Kantian Aesthetics (1790, iv) -> Romanticism (c. 1800s, iii) -> Empathy Theory (1870s/90s, v) -> Formalism (1910s, i) -> Aesthetic Experience Theory (20th c, ii).
कालानुक्रम: कांटियन सौंदर्यशास्त्र -> स्वच्छंदतावाद -> समानुभूति सिद्धांत -> रूपवाद -> सौंदर्य अनुभव सिद्धांत। सही क्रम iv, iii, v, i, ii है।
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1303📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingBenefits of Life Drawing
Which of the following is a key benefit of drawing from life?
Explanation
Direct observation refines comprehension of human anatomy, structural foreshortening, and light dynamics.
यह शरीर रचना, अनुपात और परिप्रेक्ष्य की समझ को बेहतर बनाता है।
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1304📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingLife Drawing Subjects
When drawing from life, which of the following is a common subject?
Explanation
Live human models and physical still life setups are the primary subjects in academic life drawing.
लाइफ ड्रॉइंग में स्थिर वस्तुएं (Still life) और सजीव मॉडल सामान्य विषय हैं।
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1305📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingDrawing Disciplines
Match the following techniques and practices to their correct descriptions:

Column A:
1. Gesture drawing
2. Proportional Measurements
3. Still Life Drawing
4. Figure Drawing

Column B:
i. A technique used to capture the quick, expressive movement of a live subject.
ii. The process of measuring the size relationships between different parts of the subject to ensure accurate representation.
iii. Drawing inanimate objects arranged in a specific way, focusing on form, texture, and light.
iv. Drawing the human form, often from a live model, to study anatomy and posture.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-i (Gesture), 2-ii (Proportion), 3-iii (Still Life), 4-iv (Figure Drawing).
1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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1306📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingFull Figure Sculpture
When creating a full figure sculpture from life, which of the following is most important?
Explanation
Full figure sculpture requires holistic proportional balance, gesture, and accurate skeletal posture.
शरीर की समग्र मुद्रा (Posture) और अनुपातों का सटीक प्रतिनिधित्व सबसे महत्वपूर्ण है।
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1307📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingLive Model Advantages
In modeling from life, what is the advantage of working with a live model for both full figure and bust studies?
Explanation
Live models provide authentic dimensional planes, dynamic weight shifts (contrapposto), and natural anatomical flow.
लाइव मॉडल से प्राकृतिक गतिशीलता और यथार्थवादी शारीरिक अनुपात को सजीवता से समझा जा सकता है।
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1308📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingFigure and Bust Terminology
Match the following terms with their correct descriptions :

Column A:
1. Full figure study
2. Bust study
3. Proportional accuracy
4. Gesture modeling.

Column B:
i. A technique used to capture the subject's natural pose, movement, and overall form.
ii. A focus on modeling the head, neck, and shoulders of the subject.
iii. Ensuring that the size relationships between different parts of the body are realistic and balanced.
iv. Creating a sculpture that represents the entire human body from head to toe.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-iv (Full figure), 2-ii (Bust), 3-iii (Proportion), 4-i (Gesture).
1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i सही मिलान है।
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1309📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingSculptural Composition
What is the primary purpose of sculptural composition in art?
Explanation
Composition arranges 3D masses, planes, and negative space to establish unity, harmony, and visual rhythm.
मूर्तिकला संरचना का उद्देश्य दृश्य तत्वों को इस प्रकार व्यवस्थित करना है कि दर्शक की दृष्टि आकर्षित हो और अर्थ संप्रेषित हो।
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1310📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingComposition Principles
Which of the following is a key principle in sculptural composition?
Explanation
Balance (symmetrical or asymmetrical) and harmony are fundamental principles of sculptural composition.
मूर्तिकला में संतुलन और सामंजस्य स्थापित करने के लिए सममिति और संतुलन एक प्रमुख सिद्धांत है।
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1311📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingRole of Negative Space
In sculptural composition, what role does the arrangement of negative space play?
Explanation
Negative space defines mass, creates spatial rhythm, and provides balance against positive volumes.
नेगेटिव स्पेस पॉजिटिव स्पेस के साथ कंट्रास्ट बनाकर गहराई और संतुलन स्थापित करता है।
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1312📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingComposition Aesthetics
Which of the following combinations of statements are correct about sculptural composition?

A) Sculptural composition emphasizes the placement of figures and forms to achieve visual balance, regardless of materials used.
B) The use of negative space is irrelevant in sculptural composition as it does not contribute to the overall aesthetic.
C) The rhythm and flow of shapes in a sculpture can guide the viewer's eye and create a sense of movement or stability.
D) Sculptural composition only focuses on the external surface, ignoring the internal structure and form of the sculpture.
Explanation
Statements A and C are correct.
कथन A और C सही हैं।
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1313📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingComposition Principles Match
Match the following terms with their correct descriptions :

Column A:
1. Balance
2. Rhythm
3. Proportion
4. Negative space

Column B:
i. The arrangement of empty or unoccupied space around and between elements in a sculpture, which defines the form.
ii. The relationship of different parts of the sculpture to each other in terms of size, shape, and scale.
iii. The visual stability achieved by evenly distributing elements within the sculpture
iv. The sense of movement created by the repetition or variation of shapes and forms within the sculpture.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-iii (Balance), 2-iv (Rhythm), 3-ii (Proportion), 4-i (Negative Space).
1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i सही मिलान है।
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1314📚Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingComposition Workflow
Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order when creating a sculpture with proper composition:

i. Establish the balance and symmetry of the sculpture.
ii. Determine the proportion of different elements relative to each other.
iii. Begin with the basic form and shape of the sculpture.
iv. Create rhythm by adding repetitive or flowing elements to the composition.
v. Finalize the arrangement of negative space around the sculpture.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Order: Basic form (iii) -> Proportions (ii) -> Balance (i) -> Rhythm (iv) -> Negative space finalization (v).
सही क्रम iii, ii, i, iv, v है।
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1315📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyArtistic Anatomy
In the context of art, which part of the human body is most studied for its influence on figure drawing?
Explanation
The spine and pelvic girdle dictate the central line of action, balance, contrapposto, and dynamic weight distribution.
फिगर ड्रॉइंग में रीढ़ की हड्डी और पेल्विस (Spine and pelvis) शरीर के संतुलन और गति के मुख्य निर्धारक हैं।
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1316📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyGesture and Pose
Which of the following terms refers to the natural positioning of the body, often used in figure drawing to study balance and movement?
Explanation
Gesture captures the primary rhythmic energy, flow of motion, and balance of the human figure.
जेस्चर (Gesture) शरीर की प्राकृतिक मुद्रा, संतुलन और गतिशीलता को दर्शाता है।
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1317📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologySkeletal Posture
When studying human anatomy for artistic purposes, which of the following skeletal structures is crucial for understanding human posture and movement?
Explanation
The vertebral column (spine) establishes posture, thoracic tilt, and bodily movement.
मानव मुद्रा और गति को समझने के लिए रीढ़ की हड्डी (Spine) सबसे महत्वपूर्ण कंकाल संरचना है।
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1318📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyAnatomical Landmarks
Match the following anatomical features with their correct descriptions in the context of figure drawing:

Column A:
1. Proportions
2. Gesture
3. Ribcage
4. Pelvis

Column B:
i. The natural flow or pose of the body that captures movement and energy.
ii. The part of the body that helps in defining the posture and alignment of the torso
iii. The structural framework that defines the relationships between the different parts of the body.
iv. The area that supports the body's weight and connects the spine to the lower limbs.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1-iii (Proportions), 2-i (Gesture), 3-ii (Ribcage), 4-iv (Pelvis).
1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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1319📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyAnatomical Study Pipeline
Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order when studying the anatomy of the human figure for artistic purposes :
i. Study the basic skeletal structure to understand the underlying framework.
ii. Observe the body's proportions and how they relate to one another.
iii. Focus on the muscles and their placement on the body to understand movement.
iv. Analyze the overall posture or gesture of the body to capture natural flow.
v. Refine the details, such as skin and surface texture, in the final artwork.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Learning order: Skeleton (i) -> Proportions (ii) -> Musculature (iii) -> Gesture/flow (iv) -> Surface texture (v).
सही क्रम i, ii, iii, iv, v है।
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1320📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyCarving Workflow
In carving, what is typically the first step when starting a sculpture from a block of stone or wood?
Explanation
Roughing out (blocking out) removes excess bulk material from the block to establish basic silhouette and planes.
नक्काशी (Carving) में पहला कदम मूल आकार को परिभाषित करने के लिए सामग्री के बड़े टुकड़ों को तराश कर हटाना होता है।
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1321📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologySculpture Mediums
Which of the following materials is most commonly used in the initial stages of creating a sculpture, due to its flexibility and ease of manipulation?
Explanation
Clay provides maximum malleability for initial maquettes and proportional studies.
मिट्टी (Clay) अपनी लचीलापन और सुगमता के कारण मूर्तिकला के शुरुआती चरणों में सबसे अधिक उपयोग की जाती है।
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1322📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyHuman Proportions
Which of the following is the primary focus when drawing the human figure?
Explanation
Mastering anatomical proportions and underlying skeletal/muscular structure is paramount in figure drawing.
फिगर ड्रॉइंग में शरीर के मूल अनुपात और संरचना को समझना प्राथमिक फोकस है।
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1323📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyGesture Purpose
What is the purpose of studying gesture drawing in human figure drawing?
Explanation
Gesture drawing captures the kinetic energy, posture, and line of action in rapid expressive sketches.
जेस्चर ड्रॉइंग का उद्देश्य आकृति की समग्र गति और मुद्रा को तीव्रता से पकड़ना है।
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1324📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyHead Measurement Unit
When drawing the human figure, which of the following is an important consideration to ensure accurate proportions?
Explanation
The height of the head serves as the universal proportional unit (the 7.5 to 8 heads canon).
मानव शरीर के अनुपात के लिए सिर की ऊंचाई (Head height) को मानक माप इकाई माना जाता है।
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1325📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation Methodology8-Heads Rule
Which of the following statements about drawing a human figure are correct?

i. Proportions of the human figure generally follow the "8-heads" rule.
ii. Hands and feet are typically smaller than the face in a proportional human sketch.
iii. The torso is roughly divided into the chest, waist, and hip sections.
iv. Eyes are usually placed halfway down the head when viewed from the front.

Choose the correct options
Explanation
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Statement ii is incorrect because the hand is approximately equal in height to the face.
कथन i, iii और iv सही हैं।
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1326📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyGesture Drawing Dynamics
Consider the following statements about gesture drawing in human figure sketching:

i. Gesture drawing captures the action, form, and pose of a figure.
ii. Fine details like facial expressions are crucial in gesture drawing.
iii. Gesture sketches are usually created with quick, flowing lines.
iv. Gesture drawing focuses on the overall movement rather than intricate details.

Choose the correct options
Explanation
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Fine details are omitted during gesture drawing.
कथन i, iii और iv सही हैं।
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1327📚Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyFigure Drawing Terminology
Match the following terms related to drawing (Human figure) with their correct descriptions :

Column A (Term):
i. Gesture Drawing
ii. Foreshortening
iii. 8-Heads rule
iv. Contour Drawing

Column B (Description):
1. Dividing the body into eight equal parts for proportion.
2. Technique to create the illusion of depth in a figure.
3. Quick sketches capturing pose and movement.
4. Outlining the edges and boundaries of a figure.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
i-3 (Gesture), ii-2 (Foreshortening), iii-1 (8-Heads rule), iv-4 (Contour Drawing).
i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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1328📚Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRelief Sculpture
Which of the following best defines a "Relief sculpture"?
Explanation
Relief sculpture projects sculpted elements from a solid background plane.
रिलीफ मूर्तिकला (Relief sculpture) वह है जो एक समतल सतह पर तराशी जाती है और पृष्ठभूमि से आंशिक रूप से उभरी होती है।
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1329📚Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingBas-Relief Features
Which of the following is a characteristic features of a bas - relief sculpture?
Explanation
Bas-relief (low relief) features shallow projections where forms remain close to the background plane.
बास-रिलीफ (Bas-relief) में आकृतियाँ पृष्ठभूमि से केवल हल्की सी उभरी होती हैं।
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1330📚Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingIconic Round Sculptures
Which of the following is an example of a round sculpture?
Explanation
Michelangelo's David is a monumental masterpiece of free-standing sculpture in the round.
माइकलएंजेलो द्वारा निर्मित 'डेविड' की मूर्ति राउंड मूर्तिकला का विश्व प्रसिद्ध उदाहरण है।
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1331📚Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRound Sculpture Presentation
Identify the correct statements regarding the process and presentation of sculptural composition (Round).

i. Sculptures in the round require careful attention to details from all viewing angles.
ii. They are commonly placed in niches or recessed spaces.
iii. Balance and structural stability are crucial design considerations in round sculptures.
iv. These sculptures are primarily designed for frontal viewing only.

Choose the correct options
Explanation
Statements i and iii are correct. Round sculptures demand complete 360-degree consideration and structural stability.
कथन i और iii सही हैं।
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1332📚Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingChronology of Iconic Sculptures
Arrange the following famous round sculptures in chronological order (earliest to latest):

i. The Great sphinx of Giza (Egypt).
ii. Discobolus (The Discus Thrower) by Myron (Greece)
iii. David by Michelangelo (Italy).
iv. The Thinker by Auguste Rodin (France)

Choose the correct options
Explanation
Chronology: Great Sphinx (c. 2500 BCE, i) -> Discobolus (c. 450 BCE, ii) -> David (1504 CE, iii) -> The Thinker (1904 CE, iv).
कालानुक्रम: ग्रेट स्फिंक्स (मिस्र) -> डिस्कोबोलस (ग्रीस) -> डेविड (माइकलएंजेलो) -> द थिंकर (रोडिन)। सही क्रम i -> ii -> iii -> iv है।
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1333📚Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Casting
What is the process called where molten metal is poured into a mould to create sculptures?
Explanation
Casting is the manufacturing process where liquid metal is poured into a hollow mould.
पिघली हुई धातु को मोल्ड में डालकर मूर्ति बनाने की प्रक्रिया को कास्टिंग (ढलाई) कहा जाता है।
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1334📚Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyInsect Morphology & Anatomy
Phallic glands in cockroach.......?
Explanation
In male cockroaches, the phallic or conglobate gland secretes the outermost chitinous layer of the spermatophore.
नर कॉकरोच में फेलिक ग्रंथि (Phallic gland) शुक्राणुधानी (Spermatophore) की बाहरी परत का स्राव करती है।
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1335📚Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyInsect Morphology
Mouth parts of locusts are of .....?
Explanation
Locusts (Orthoptera) possess primitive mandibulate mouthparts specialized for biting and chewing vegetation.
टिड्डियों (Locusts) के मुखांग काटने और चबाने वाले (Biting and chewing) प्रकार के होते हैं।
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1336📚Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyMicrobiology & Virology
Viruses are: -
Explanation
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites that cannot replicate outside of a living host cell.
वायरस अविकल्पी परजीवी (Obligate parasites) होते हैं जो केवल जीवित मेजबान कोशिका के भीतर ही गुणन कर सकते हैं।
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1337📚Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyPlant Pathology
Match List-I with List-II
1. Ustilago tritici
2. Puccinia
3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
4. Phytophthora infestans

List-II:
I. Crown gall disease
II. Blight of Potato
III. Loose smuts of wheat
IV. Leaf rusts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Ustilago tritici -> Loose smut of wheat (III), Puccinia -> Leaf rust (IV), Agrobacterium tumefaciens -> Crown gall (I), Phytophthora infestans -> Late blight of potato (II).
1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II सही मिलान है।
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1338📚Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyBiodiversity Hotspots
The two main characteristic of hotspot are :
Explanation
Norman Myers criteria for a Biodiversity Hotspot: (1) It must contain at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species (>0.5% of world total); (2) It must have lost at least 70% of its original primary habitat.
हॉटस्पॉट के दो मुख्य लक्षण: कम से कम 0.5% स्थानिक प्रजातियां और 70% या अधिक प्राथमिक वनस्पति का ह्रास।
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1339📚Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyProtected Areas of India
In which of the following lakes of India, the world's only floating National Park is located?
Explanation
Keibul Lamjao National Park on Loktak Lake in Manipur is the world's only floating national park, home to the endangered Sangai brow-antlered deer.
मणिपुर की लोकतक झील (Loktak Lake) पर दुनिया का एकमात्र तैरता हुआ राष्ट्रीय उद्यान (केबुल लामजाओ) स्थित है।
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1340📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyMendelian Genetics
How many true breeding pea varieties were selected by Mendel?
Explanation
Gregor Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties (7 distinct pairs of contrasting traits).
ग्रेगर मेंडल ने 14 शुद्ध प्रजनन वाली मटर की किस्मों (7 जोड़ी विपरीत लक्षण) का चयन किया था।
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1341📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyParasitology and Vector Pathology
Match the following human diseases with their casual organisms
1. Sleeping Sickness
2. Chagas disease
3. Elephantiasis
4. Lyme disease

Organisms:
i. Trypanosoma cruzi
ii. Trypanosoma brucei
iii. Borrelia burgdorferi
iv. Wuchereria bancrofti

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Sleeping sickness -> Trypanosoma brucei (ii), Chagas disease -> Trypanosoma cruzi (i), Elephantiasis -> Wuchereria bancrofti (iv), Lyme disease -> Borrelia burgdorferi (iii).
1-ii; 2-i; 3-iv; 4-iii सही मिलान है।
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1342📚Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyInvertebrate Morphology
The organs 'radula' and 'clitellum' are found in
Explanation
The rasping radula is characteristic of Mollusca, while the glandular clitellum is characteristic of Annelida (Oligochaeta/Hirudinea).
रेडुला मोलस्का में और क्लाइटेलम एनेलिडा (केंचुआ) में पाया जाता है।
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1343📚Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsEcological Succession
Succession on sand known as :
Explanation
Ecological plant succession initiating on sand dunes is termed a psammosere.
रेत या बालू के टीलों पर होने वाले पारिस्थितिक अनुक्रमण को सैमोसेरे (Psammosere) कहा जाता है।
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1344📚Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsIndian Biodiversity Hotspots
Total number of biological hot spot in India
Explanation
India encompasses 4 recognized Biodiversity Hotspots: (1) The Himalayas, (2) Indo-Burma, (3) Western Ghats & Sri Lanka, and (4) Sundaland (Nicobar Islands).
भारत में 4 प्रमुख जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट हैं (हिमालय, इंडो-बर्मा, पश्चिमी घाट और सुंदरलैंड)।
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1345📚Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsMetapopulation Ecology
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a meta-population?
Explanation
A metapopulation (Levins, 1969) is a network of spatially separated subpopulations coupled by recurrent dispersal and recolonization.
मेटा-पॉपुलेशन स्थानिक रूप से अलग उप-आबादियों का समूह है जिनके बीच कभी-कभार प्रवासन और जीन प्रवाह होता रहता है।
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1346📚Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationForensic Evidence Types
Which of the following is NOT commonly examined in wildlife forensic investigations?
Explanation
Wildlife forensics focuses on animal anatomical biological traces (hair, bones, horns, tusks, meat, scat), whereas leaves belong to plant biology.
वन्यजीव फोरेंसिक में जानवरों के बाल, अस्थि अवशेष और विष्ठा की जांच होती है, पत्तियां सामान्यतः शामिल नहीं हैं।
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1347📚Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisMammalian Respiratory Evolution
Assertion (A): Mammals are the only vertebrates that exhibit diaphragmatic breathing.
Reason (R) : The diaphragm in mammals is crucial for oxygen supply during high-energy activities.

Options:
Explanation
The muscular diaphragm is a unique mammalian evolutionary innovation separating thoracic and abdominal cavities to support high endothermic metabolic oxygen demands.
दोनों A और R सत्य हैं, और R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है।
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1348📚Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisPopulation Growth Models
Assertion(A) : A Population exhibiting exponential growth will have a J-shaped growth curve.
Reason (R) : Exponential growth occurs under ideal conditions of unlimited resources.

Options:
Explanation
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation. When resources are non-limiting (dN/dt=rNdN/dt = rN), population growth accelerates exponentially into a classic J-shaped curve.
दोनों (A) और (R) सत्य हैं, और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या करता है (असीमित संसाधनों की स्थिति में जनसंख्या वृद्धि J-आकार की होती है)।
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1349📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Leprosy Reservoir
What is the main reservoir for Mycobacterium leprae?
Explanation
Humans (specifically untreated multibacillary patients) are the primary natural reservoir and source of Mycobacterium leprae infection.
माइकोबैक्टीरियम लेप्री (Mycobacterium leprae) का मुख्य प्राकृतिक भंडार मानव (Humans) हैं।
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1350📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Leprosy Histopathology
What is a characteristic histopathological feature seen in leprosy with good cell mediated immunity to M. leprae?
Explanation
Tuberculoid leprosy (strong CMI) exhibits well-formed epithelioid cell granulomas with dense lymphocytic cuffs and Langerhans giant cells.
मजबूत सेल-मीडिएटेड इम्युनिटी (ट्यूबरकुलोइड कुष्ठ) में एपिथेलिओइड ग्रैनुलोमा (Epithelioid granuloma) पाया जाता है।
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1351📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Leprosy Tropism
Leprosy primarily affects which of the following?
Explanation
Mycobacterium leprae has unique tropism for peripheral Schwann cells and cooler surface tissues, primarily affecting the skin and peripheral nerves.
कुष्ठ रोग मुख्य रूप से त्वचा और परिधीय तंत्रिकाओं (Skin and nerves) को प्रभावित करता है।
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1352📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Type 2 Lepra Reaction / ENL
Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) are cutaneous lesions seen in which of the following?
Explanation
Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) is the classic clinical manifestation of Type 2 lepra reaction (immune complex-mediated vasculitis).
एरिथेमा नोडोसम लेप्रोसम (ENL) घाव टाइप 2 लेप्रा रिएक्शन (Type 2 lepra reaction) में देखे जाते हैं।
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1353📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)ENL Management
What is the first-line treatment for severe erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL)?
Explanation
Thalidomide (or systemic corticosteroids like Prednisolone) is the most effective drug for severe refractory Type 2 lepra reactions (ENL).
गंभीर एरिथेमा नोडोसम लेप्रोसम (ENL) के लिए थैलिडोमाइड (Thalidomide) और प्रेडनिसोलोन प्राथमिक उपचार हैं।
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1354📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)ENL Pathophysiology
Which of the following statements about Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) are correct?
i. ENL is seen in Type 1 lepra reaction.
ii. ENL is associated with immune complex deposition.
iii. Thalidomide is effective for managing severe cases of ENL.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
Explanation
Statements ii and iii are correct. ENL is the hallmark of Type 2 (not Type 1) lepra reaction, involving immune complex (Type III) deposition.
कथन ii और iii सही हैं (ENL टाइप 2 रिएक्शन में इम्यून कॉम्प्लेक्स डिपोजिशन और थैलिडोमाइड से प्रबंधित होता है)।
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1355📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Leprosy Phenomena & Manifestations
Match the following terms in leprosy with their descriptions:
Column A:
i. Lucio phenomenon
ii. Downgrading reaction
iii. Madarosis
iv. Lazarine leprosy

Column B:
1. Loss of eyebrows or eyelashes in advanced lepromatous leprosy
2. A severe necrotizing vasculitis seen in diffuse lepromatous leprosy
3. Immunological shift resulting in worsening of lesions
4. Diffuse infiltration without visible nodulation, giving a myxedematous appearance

Select the correct answer:
Explanation
Lucio phenomenon -> Severe necrotizing purpuric vasculitis in diffuse LL (2), Downgrading reaction -> Shift toward lepromatous pole with falling CMI (3), Madarosis -> Loss of eyebrows/eyelashes (1), Lazarine leprosy -> Ulcerative tuberculoid form (4/3).
i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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1356📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Peripheral Nerve Paralysis in Leprosy
Match the following nerves commonly affected in leprosy with their clinical manifestations:
Column A:
i. Common peroneal nerve
ii. Ulnar nerve
iii. Median nerve
iv. Radial nerve

Column B:
1. Wrist drop
2. Foot drop
3. Loss of thumb opposition
4. Partial claw hand

Select the correct answer:
Explanation
Common peroneal -> Foot drop (2), Ulnar -> Partial claw hand (4), Median -> Ape thumb / Loss of opposition (3), Radial -> Wrist drop (1).
i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1 सही मिलान है।
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1357📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Diagnostic Instruments & Reagents
Match the following items used in leprosy diagnosis and management with their applications:
Column A:
i. Semmes-Weinstein monofilament
ii. Dharmendra's suspension
iii. Ziehl-Neelsen method

Column B:
1. Used in the lepromin test to assess immune response
2. Testing nerve function
3. Detecting acid-fast bacilli

Select the correct answer:
Explanation
Semmes-Weinstein monofilament -> Sensory nerve testing (2), Dharmendra lepromin -> CMI assessment (1), Ziehl-Neelsen -> Acid-fast bacillus detection (3).
i-2, ii-1, iii-3 सही मिलान है।
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1358📚Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)ZN Staining Protocol
Arrange the following steps of the Ziehl-Neelsen staining procedure for slit-skin smears in the correct order:
i. The smear is stained with methylene blue and then washed with water.
ii. The stained slide is examined under a microscope.
iii. The smear is decolorized with acid-alcohol.
iv. The smear is flooded with carbol fuchsin, heated, and then washed with water.

Select the correct order:
Explanation
ZN staining protocol: Primary Carbol Fuchsin with steaming (iv) -> Decolorization with acid-alcohol (iii) -> Counterstaining with methylene blue (i) -> Oil immersion microscopy (ii).
सही क्रम iv -> iii -> i -> ii है।
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1359📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsParasitic Dermatoses
Match the parasitic disease with its main feature:
Diseases:
i. Pediculosis capitis
ii. Leishmaniasis
iii. Scabies
iv. Cutaneous larva migrans

Main Features:
1. Burrows in web spaces of fingers
2. Ulcerative lesions with raised borders
3. Nits and lice infestation on the scalp
4. Serpiginous tracks on the skin

Select the correct match:
Explanation
Pediculosis -> Scalp nits (3), Leishmaniasis -> Oriental sore ulcer with raised rim (2), Scabies -> Finger web burrows (1), Cutaneous larva migrans -> Creeping serpiginous tracks (4).
i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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1360📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsCutaneous Viral Infections
Match the viral disease with its typical lesion type:
Diseases:
i. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
ii. Molluscum contagiosum
iii. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection
iv. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection

Lesion Types:
1. Umbilicated papules
2. Vesicular eruptions in a dermatomal distribution
3. Painful vesicular lesions around the mouth or genitals
4. Warts on the hands and feet

Select the correct match:
Explanation
HPV -> Verrucae / Warts (4), Molluscum -> Pearly umbilicated papules (1), VZV (Shingles) -> Dermatomal grouped vesicles (2), HSV -> Oro-genital clustered vesicles (3).
i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3 सही मिलान है।
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1361📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsCandidiasis and Antifungal Resistance
Consider the following statements about Candida infections:
i. Candida is a part of the normal flora of the human body and can become pathogenic under certain conditions.
ii. Pseudohyphae formation is a demonstrable feature of Candida albicans in KOH preparations.
iii. Inhaled or systemic corticosteroids predispose to oral candidiasis.
iv. Fluconazole is the first-line treatment for Candida auris infections.

Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is false because Candida auris is multidrug-resistant and frequently resistant to fluconazole (Echinocandins are first-line).
कथन i, ii और iii सही हैं। कैंडिडा ऑरिस फ्लुकोनाज़ोल प्रतिरोधी होता है।
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1362📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsCutaneous Parasitology
Consider the following statements about cutaneous parasitic diseases:
i. Scabies is caused by Pediculushumanuscapitis and leads to scalp itching and visible nits attached to hair shafts.
ii. Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by the larval stage of Ancylostomabraziliense, commonly acquired through skin penetration.
iii. Leishmaniasis is transmitted by sandflies and typically presents with ulcerative lesions with raised borders.
iv. Pediculosis can be treated effectively with permethrin or oral ivermectin in resistant cases.

Select the correct combination of statements:
Explanation
Statements ii, iii, and iv are correct. Statement i is false because scabies is caused by Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis.
कथन ii, iii, और iv सही हैं। खाज (Scabies) सार्कोप्टेस स्केबीई के कारण होती है।
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1363📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsViral Dermatoses Characteristics
Consider the following statements about cutaneous viral infections:
i. Molluscum contagiosum is caused by a DNA virus from the Poxviridae family and typically presents with umbilicated papules.
ii. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections can be triggered by factors such as fever, and ultraviolet light.
iii. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infections often manifest as painful vesicles in a dermatomal distribution.
iv. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) reactivation causes shingles, which typically presents as painful, unilateral vesicular eruptions in a dermatomal pattern.

Select the correct combination of statements:
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Statement iii is false because dermatomal vesicles characterize VZV/shingles, whereas HPV causes hyperkeratotic warts.
कथन i, ii, और iv सही हैं।
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1364📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsHerpesvirus Latency & Reactivation
Which of the following viral infections typically presents with grouped vesicles on an erythematous base and is known for reactivation during periods of immunosuppression or stress?
Explanation
Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV-1 and HSV-2) establishes lifelong latency in sensory nerve ganglia and reactivates as clustered vesicles on an erythematous base.
हर्पीस सिम्प्लेक्स वायरस (HSV) संवेदी गैन्ग्लिया में निष्क्रिय रहता है और तनाव/प्रतिरक्षा दमन में पुनः सक्रिय होकर गुच्छेदार फफोले बनाता है।
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1365📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsSporotrichoid Lymphangitis
Which of the following infections is known to cause a sporotrichoid pattern of spread?
Explanation
Sporotrichoid nodular lymphangitis is classically caused by Sporothrix schenckii, Nocardia brasiliensis, Mycobacterium marinum, and Leishmania braziliensis.
नोकार्डिया (Nocardia) और स्पोरोथ्रिक्स लिम्फेटिक मार्ग के साथ स्पोरोट्रिकॉइड नोड्यूल पैदा करते हैं।
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1366📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsEctoparasitic Infestations
Which of the following best describes cutaneous myiasis?
Explanation
Cutaneous myiasis is the parasitic infestation of living human skin and tissues by the dipterous larvae (maggots) of flies (e.g. Dermatobia hominis, Cordylobia).
क्यूटेनियस मायियासिस (Cutaneous myiasis) मक्खी के लार्वा (मैगॉट्स) द्वारा त्वचा में संक्रमण और फोड़े पैदा करने की स्थिति है।
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1367📚Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsPediatric Viral Exanthems
A 3-year-old child presents with fever, irritability, and difficulty eating. On examination, there are multiple painful ulcers in the oral cavity, along with scattered vesicular lesions on the palms, soles, and buttocks. The lesions are non-pruritic and have a grayish base. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The clinical presentation of oral aphthous-like enanthem and gray oval vesicles on palms, soles, and buttocks in a young child is pathognomonic for Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease (Coxsackievirus A16 / Enterovirus 71).
हैंड, फुट एंड माउथ डिजीज (HFMD - कॉक्ससैकी वायरस) में मुंह में छाले और हथेलियों, तलवों तथा नितंबों पर फफोले होते हैं।
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1368📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersEpidermal Histology
Arrange the following layers of the epidermis in the palmo-plantar skin (thick skin) in the correct order from surface to deepest:
i. Stratum Spinosum
ii. Stratum Lucidum
iii. Stratum Corneum
iv. Stratum Basale
v. Stratum Granulosum

Select the correct order:
Explanation
Epidermal strata from superficial to deep: Corneum (iii) -> Lucidum (thick skin only, ii) -> Granulosum (v) -> Spinosum (i) -> Basale/Germinativum (iv).
सतह से गहराई तक एपिडर्मिस की परतें: कॉर्नियम (iii) -> ल्यूसिडम (ii) -> ग्रैन्युलोसम (v) -> स्पिनोसम (i) -> बेसेल (iv)। सही क्रम A है।
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1369📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersEpidermal Cell Biology
Match the following epidermal cell types (Column A) with their primary functions (Column B):
Column A:
i. Keratinocytes
ii. Langerhans Cells
iii. Melanocytes
iv. Merkel Cells

Column B:
1. Touch sensation
2. Immune surveillance
3. Pigment production
4. Formation of protective barrier

Select the correct match:
Explanation
Keratinocytes -> Physical stratum corneum barrier (4), Langerhans cells -> Antigen presenting immune surveillance (2), Melanocytes -> Melanin UV photoprotection (3), Merkel cells -> Mechanoreceptor light touch (1).
i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1 सही मिलान है।
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1370📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersSkin Appendages Functions
Match the following skin appendages (Column A) with their associated functions (Column B):
Column - A:
1. Sebaceous glands
2. Eccrine sweat glands
3. Hair follicles
4. Nails

Column - B:
i. Regulates body temperature
ii. produces anti-inflammatory, antibacterial lipids
iii. Provides protection from UV rays
iv. Assists in fine motor functions

Select the correct match:
Explanation
1-ii (Sebaceous = sebum lipid barrier), 2-i (Eccrine = thermoregulation via evaporative cooling), 3-iii (Hair = UV and mechanical protection), 4-iv (Nails = distal digit support for fine pinch grasp).
1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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1371📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersColor Morphology in Dermatology
Colors of skin lesions often provide important diagnostic clues. Match the following colors (Column A) with the lesions they are associated with (Column B):
Column A (Colors):
i. Black
ii. Blue
iii. Brown
iv. Yellow

Column B (Lesions):
1. Xanthelasma
2. Melasma
3. Eschar
4. Mongolian spot

Select the correct match:
Explanation
Black -> Necrotic eschar (3), Blue -> Dermal melanocytosis / Mongolian spot (4), Brown -> Melasma epidermal hyperpigmentation (2), Yellow -> Lipid xanthelasma (1).
i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1 सही मिलान है।
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1372📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersDermoscopy of Skin Cancers
On dermoscopy, arborizing vessels are a characteristic feature of which condition?
Explanation
Tree-like branching (arborizing) telangiectasias are the classic dermoscopic hallmark of Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC).
डर्मोस्कोपी पर शाखायुक्त रक्त वाहिकाएं (Arborizing vessels) बेसल सेल कार्सिनोमा (BCC) का प्रमुख लक्षण हैं।
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1373📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersMelanoma ABCD Criteria
The 'ABCD checklist' is used to clinically identify which of the following conditions?
Explanation
The ABCD rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variegation, Diameter >6mm) screens for early cutaneous malignant melanoma.
ABCD चेकलिस्ट (असममिति, अनियमित किनारा, बहुरंग, व्यास) मेलेनोमा (Melanoma) की नैदानिक पहचान के लिए प्रयुक्त होती है।
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1374📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersDermatological Signs
The appearance of new lesions of a skin disease at sites of injury is called:
Explanation
The Koebner phenomenon (isomorphic response) is the development of characteristic isomorphic lesions at sites of mechanical cutaneous trauma (seen in psoriasis, lichen planus, vitiligo).
चोट या आघात के स्थान पर नए घावों का प्रकट होना कोबनर फेनोमेनन (Koebner phenomenon) कहलाता है।
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1375📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersPemphigus Vulgaris
Consider the following statements about pemphigus vulgaris:
i. Autoantibodies in pemphigus vulgaris target desmoglein-1 and desmoglein-3.
ii. The Nikolsky sign is negative in pemphigus vulgaris.
iii. It typically presents with flaccid blisters that rupture easily, leaving erosions.
iv. Histopathology reveals suprabasalantholysis.

Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Nikolsky sign is positive (not negative) in pemphigus vulgaris due to intraepidermal acantholysis.
कथन i, iii, और iv सही हैं। पेम्फिगस वल्गेरिस में निकोल्स्की साइन पॉजिटिव होता है।
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1376📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersLichen Planus Histopathology
Consider the following statements about lichen planus:
i. Wickham striae, which are white, lacy patterns on the surface of lesions, are a hallmark clinical feature of lichen planus.
ii. The most commonly involved site in oral lichen planus is the tongue, with extensive ulceration seen in severe cases.
iii. Lichen planus is associated with hepatitis B infection, particularly in chronic active cases.
iv. Histopathology shows basal cell degeneration with a band-like lymphocytic infiltrate at the dermoepidermal junction.

Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i and iv are correct. Oral lichen planus most commonly affects the buccal mucosa (not tongue); Lichen planus is classically associated with Hepatitis C (not Hepatitis B).
कथन i और iv सही हैं (विक्हम स्ट्राइ और डर्मोएपिडर्मल जंक्शन पर बैंड जैसा लिम्फोसाइटिक इनफिल्ट्रेट)।
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1377📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersNACP STI Treatment Regimens
Consider the following statements about the treatment regimens included in the STI color-coded kits for syndromic management of sexually transmitted infections (STIs):
i. The kit for urethral discharge contains ceftriaxone and azithromycin.
ii. Non-herpetic genital ulcer syndrome is treated with a kit containing benzathine penicillin and azithromycin.
iii. Pelvic inflammatory disease is managed with kit containing cefixime, doxycycline, and metronidazole.
iv. Vaginal discharge syndrome due to vaginitis is treated with kit containing clotrimazole and metronidazole.

Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements ii, iii, and iv accurately reflect the NACP STI drug regimens. Kit 1 (Urethral discharge) uses Cefixime + Azithromycin.
कथन ii, iii, और iv सही हैं।
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1378📚Skin Anatomy, Physiology & Bullous DisordersCutaneous Biology Fundamentals
Consider the following statements about the basic structure and function of the skin:
i. The epidermis is avascular and relies on diffusion from the dermis for nutrients.
ii. Melanocytes are present in the stratum spinosum of the epidermis.
iii. The dermis contains collagen and elastin fibers that provide strength and elasticity to the skin.
iv. The stratum corneum plays a major role in preventing water loss from the skin.

Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Statement ii is false because melanocytes reside in the basal layer (stratum basale).
कथन i, iii, और iv सही हैं। मेलानोसाइट्स स्ट्रेटम बेसेल में स्थित होते हैं।
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1379📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyGlandular Secretion Mechanisms
Holocrine secretion involves the release of contents of glands by disintegration of entire cells. Which of the following skin appendages extrudes its content by holocrine secretion?
Explanation
Sebaceous glands undergo holocrine secretion, where mature lipid-filled sebocytes disintegrate completely to release sebum.
सीबेसियस ग्रंथियां (Sebaceous glands) होलोक्राइन स्राव (Holocrine secretion) द्वारा सीबम छोड़ती हैं।
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1380📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyCutaneous Neuroanatomy
Which nerve supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the face?
Explanation
The Trigeminal nerve (CN V: Ophthalmic V1, Maxillary V2, Mandibular V3) provides sensory innervation to facial skin; the facial nerve (CN VII) provides motor innervation.
चेहरे की त्वचा को संवेदी तंत्रिका आपूर्ति ट्राइजेमिनल तंत्रिका (Trigeminal nerve - CN V) द्वारा की जाती है।
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1381📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyEpidermal Stratification
Which layer of the epidermis is the thickest in areas of thin skin?
Explanation
In non-palmar, non-plantar (thin) skin, the Stratum Spinosum (prickle cell layer) is the thickest viable living epidermal layer.
पतली त्वचा में स्ट्रेटम स्पिनोसम (Stratum spinosum) सबसे मोटी परत होती है।
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1382📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyGram Staining Protocol
Arrange the following steps in the correct order for Gram staining:
i. Addition of iodine as a mordant
ii. Decolorization with alcohol
iii. Application of crystal violet
iv. Staining with safranin

Select the correct order:
Explanation
Gram staining steps: Crystal violet primary stain (iii) -> Gram's Iodine mordant (i) -> Acetone/alcohol decolorization (ii) -> Safranin counterstain (iv).
ग्राम स्टेनिंग का सही क्रम: क्रिस्टल वॉयलेट (iii) -> आयोडीन (i) -> अल्कोहल डिकलोराइजर (ii) -> सैफ्रेनिन (iv)। सही उत्तर B है।
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1383📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyImmunofluorescence Protocols
Arrange the following steps in the correct order for performing an indirect immunofluorescence test:
i. Application of secondary antibody conjugated with a fluorescent dye
ii. Application of the patient's serum containing primary antibody
iii. Incubation of the tissue section
iv. Observation under a fluorescence microscope

Select the correct order:
Explanation
Indirect IF sequence: Substrate overlay with patient serum (ii) -> Incubation & washing (iii) -> Secondary FITC-conjugated anti-human antibody (i) -> Fluorescence microscopy (iv).
सही क्रम ii, i, iii, iv है।
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1384📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyBedside Diagnostic Tests
Consider the following pairs:
Bedside Test:
i. Tzanck smear
ii. KOH preparation
iii. Grattage test
iv. Diascopy

Use:
1. Fungal infections
2. Blanchability of lesions
3. Herpes virus infections
4. Psoriasis diagnosis

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Tzanck smear -> Herpes / Acantholytic cells (3), KOH -> Fungal hyphae (1), Grattage test -> Psoriasis Candle grease/Auspitz sign (4), Diascopy -> Granuloma / Erythema blanchability (2).
i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 सही मिलान है।
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1385📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyMicrobiological Media Components
Consider the following pairs:
Component:
i. Peptone
ii. Agar
iii. Salt
iv. Indicator dye

Role in Culture Media:
1. Solidifying agent
2. pH indicator
3. Maintaining osmotic balance
4. Nutrient source

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Peptone -> Amino acid nutrient source (4), Agar -> Inert solidifying agent (1), Salt (NaCl) -> Osmotic balance (3), Indicator dye (e.g. neutral red/phenol red) -> pH indicator (2).
i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2 सही मिलान है।
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1386📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyMicrobiological Stains Match
Consider the following pairs:
Stain/staining method:
i. Gram stain
ii. Ziehl-Neelsen staining
iii. India ink stain
iv. Giemsa stain

Microorganism Identified:
1. Cryptococcus neoformans
2. Streptococcus
3. Malaria parasites
4. Mycobacterium species

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Gram stain -> Streptococcus (2), Ziehl-Neelsen -> Mycobacterium (4), India ink -> Cryptococcus negative capsule (1), Giemsa -> Leishmania / Plasmodium malaria (3).
i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3 सही मिलान है।
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1387📚Dermatopathology & Laboratory MicrobiologyTzanck Smear Cytodiagnosis
Consider the following statements regarding the Tzanck smear test:
i. It is used to detect acantholytic cells in conditions like pemphigus vulgaris.
ii. It can be used for the diagnosis of herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus infections.
iii. A specific stain, such as Giemsa or Wright's stain, is applied to the smear.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
All three statements are correct. Tzanck smear visualizes rounded acantholytic Tzanck cells in pemphigus and multinucleated epithelial giant cells with viral inclusions in HSV/VZV.
कथन i, ii, और iii तीनों सही हैं (त्ज़ांक स्मीयर पेम्फिगस में एकैंथोलिटिक कोशिकाओं और हर्पीस में विशालकाय कोशिकाओं की पहचान करता है)।
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1388📚Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesCryptococcus Diagnosis
Consider the following statements regarding Cryptococcus neoformans:
i. India ink preparation is a rapid diagnostic method to identify Cryptococcus neoformans in cerebrospinal fluid.
ii. On histopathological examination, mucicarmine stain highlights the capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans.
iii. Sabouraud's dextrose agar can be used for culturing Cryptococcus neoformans.
iv. Gram staining is the most specific method for identifying Cryptococcus neoformans.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is false because Gram staining is non-specific for encapsulated yeast.
कथन i, ii, और iii सही हैं (इंडिया इंक और म्यूसीकारमाइन स्टेन से कैप्सूल पहचाना जाता है)।
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1389📚Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
I really hope _______ our first dance performance.
Explanation
Indefinite pronoun 'Everyone' is grammatically singular and takes the singular verb 'enjoys'.
'Everyone' एकवचन कर्ता है, इसलिए एकवचन क्रिया 'enjoys' आएगी।
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1390📚Basic EnglishAuxiliary & Modal Verbs
Fill in the blank with the correct choice of helping verb.
You _______ stay here and take care of the dogs while we are away for the weekend.
Explanation
'You are to' expresses an obligation, instruction, or scheduled directive for second-person 'you'.
'You are to stay here' (निर्देश या दायित्व दर्शाने के लिए 'are to' का प्रयोग होता है)।
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1391📚Basic EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks:
While I agree_______ his proposal this time, I do not often agree_______ him.
Explanation
Standard preposition usage: 'agree to a proposal/plan/idea' (thing) and 'agree with a person' (individual).
योजना/प्रस्ताव से सहमत होने के लिए 'agree to' और व्यक्ति से सहमत होने के लिए 'agree with' आता है। सही उत्तर 'To, with' है।
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1392📚Basic EnglishCollective Nouns Agreement
Which of the following verbs fits the sentence and agrees with the subject ?
The top management _______ divided on their suggestions regarding investment strategies.
Explanation
When a collective noun ('management') acts as individuals with conflicting views (indicated by plural pronoun 'their'), it takes a plural verb: 'were/are divided'.
जब समूह के सदस्य विभाजित हों (देयर सजेशन्स), तो बहुवचन क्रिया 'Are/were' का प्रयोग होता है।
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1393📚Basic EnglishInversion Rule
Which part of the given sentence has an error.
Hardly he likes/to hear my name/after the rift which occurred/between him and me.
Explanation
When a sentence begins with the negative limiting adverb 'Hardly', subject-auxiliary inversion is mandatory: 'Hardly does he like...'.
नकारात्मक क्रियाविशेषण 'Hardly' से वाक्य शुरू होने पर इनवर्जन होता है: 'Hardly does he like'। अतः भाग A में त्रुटि है।
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1394🔬General SciencePlant Kingdom Classification
In the plant kingdom, ferns and fern allies belong to which group ?
Explanation
Ferns, horsetails, and club mosses are vascular cryptogams belonging to division Pteridophyta.
फर्न और संबंधित संवहनी पौधे टेरिडोफाइटा (Pteridophyta) समूह से संबंधित हैं।
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1395🔬General ScienceSolar System Astronomy
The coldest planet in the solar system is
Explanation
Neptune is the farthest major planet from the Sun with average temperatures dropping to −214∘C-214^\circ\text{C} (Uranus also records lowest atmospheric temperatures).
सौरमंडल का सबसे ठंडा ग्रह नेपच्यून (Neptune) है।
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1396🔬General ScienceHuman Reproductive Anatomy
Which one of the following is not a component of human male reproductive system?
Explanation
The cervix is the lower cylindrical neck of the uterus in the female reproductive system.
ग्रीवा (Cervix) मादा प्रजनन प्रणाली का अंग है, नर प्रजनन तंत्र का नहीं।
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1397🔬General ScienceWater Pollution Indicators
Water pollution of a river is measured by
Explanation
River water organic pollution is assessed by Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) and Dissolved Oxygen (DO) concentration.
नदी के जल प्रदूषण को उसमें घुली हुई ऑक्सीजन (Dissolved Oxygen / BOD) की मात्रा से मापा जाता है।
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1398🔬General ScienceOptics - Periscope
Which one of the following is the natural phenomenon based on a simple periscope works?
Explanation
A simple periscope uses two plane mirrors set at 45∘45^\circ angles to reflect light rays twice by regular reflection.
सरल पेरिस्कोप प्रकाश के परावर्तन (Reflection of light) के सिद्धांत पर कार्य करता है।
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1399📚History of India & Freedom StruggleDrain of Wealth Theory
Who had written Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji (Grand Old Man of India) authored 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (1901), propounding the economic 'Drain of Wealth' theory.
'पावर्टी एंड अन-ब्रिटिश रूल इन इंडिया' पुस्तक दादाभाई नौरोजी द्वारा लिखी गई थी।
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1400📚History of India & Freedom Struggle1857 Revolt Economic Causes
Which one of the following economic factor caused the 1857 Revolt?
Explanation
Heavy land taxation, destruction of traditional Indian handicrafts, and ruthless revenue exploitation were the underlying economic causes.
अंग्रेजों की शोषणकारी आर्थिक नीतियां (Exploitative policy) 1857 के विद्रोह का प्रमुख आर्थिक कारण थीं।
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1401📚History of India & Freedom StruggleNationalist Leadership
Who led the extremists before the arrival of Gandhiji on the political scene for freedom struggle?
Explanation
Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak ('Father of Indian Unrest') was the supreme leader of the Extremist nationalist movement prior to Gandhi's leadership.
गांधीजी के आगमन से पूर्व गरम दल के शीर्ष नेता लोकमान्य बाल गंगाधर तिलक (Bal Gangadhar Tilak) थे।
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1402📚History of India & Freedom StrugglePartition of India
Which party observed the "Black Day" on July 3, 1947 against Partition of India?
Explanation
The Hindu Mahasabha observed July 3, 1947 as a 'Black Day' across India in protest against the Mountbatten Partition Plan.
हिंदू महासभा (Hindu Mahasabha) ने 3 जुलाई 1947 को भारत विभाजन के विरोध में 'काला दिवस' मनाया था।
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1403📚History of India & Freedom StruggleKheda Satyagraha
In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha in Kheda district of Gujarat in support of the ?
Explanation
The Kheda Satyagraha (1918) supported impoverished farmers demanding land revenue remission following catastrophic crop failure and plague.
खेड़ा सत्याग्रह (1918) फसल बर्बादी और प्लेग महामारी से पीड़ित किसानों के समर्थन में राजस्व माफी के लिए आयोजित किया गया था।
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1404📚History of India & Freedom StruggleTatya Tope Martyrdom
With reference to the Revolt of the year 1857, who of the following was betrayed by a friend: captured and put to death by the British?
Explanation
Tatya Tope was betrayed by his trusted associate Raja Man Singh of Narwar, captured while asleep in the Paron jungle, and executed on April 18, 1859.
1857 के विद्रोह में तात्या टोपे (Tatya Tope) को उनके मित्र राजा मानसिंह ने धोखा दिया, जिसके बाद अंग्रेजों ने उन्हें फांसी दे दी।
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1405📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTCensus 2011 Demographics
As per the 2011 census, which one of the following states has recorded a decrease in population?
Explanation
In the 2011 Census of India, Nagaland was the only state to record a negative decadal population growth rate of −0.58%-0.58\%.
2011 की जनगणना के अनुसार नागालैंड (Nagaland) एकमात्र राज्य था जिसकी जनसंख्या में नकारात्मक वृद्धि (−0.58%-0.58\%) दर्ज की गई।
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1406📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTForestry Conservation
Which of the following is considered as an anti-forest conservation activity
Explanation
Clear felling (complete deforestation of all trees in an area) causes soil erosion, habitat loss, and disrupts ecological balance.
क्लियर फेलिंग (Clear felling - वनों की अंधाधुंध पूर्ण कटाई) वन संरक्षण के विपरीत विनाशकारी गतिविधि है।
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1407📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTNatural Resources Classification
This group consists of non-renewable organic resources
Explanation
Natural gas, petroleum (oil), and coal are fossil fuels derived from ancient organic matter that cannot be replenished on human timescales.
प्राकृतिक गैस, तेल और कोयला (Natural gas, oil and coal) गैर-नवीकरणीय जैविक संसाधन हैं।
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1408📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTCultural Geography of J&K
Which district of the Jammu and Kashmir is known as land of Bowlis and land of Devika?
Explanation
Udhampur district is famously celebrated as the 'Land of Bowlis' (natural spring stepwells) and the 'Land of Devika' (holy Devika river).
उधमपुर (Udhampur) जिले को 'बावलियों की भूमि' और 'देविका की भूमि' के रूप में जाना जाता है।
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1409📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTAgriculture and Crops of J&K
Which of the following crops is referred to as 'Nikku Muth' in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
In local agricultural parlance across Jammu and Kashmir, Soya bean is commonly called 'Nikku Muth' (or Kala Muth).
जम्मू और कश्मीर में सोयाबीन (Soya bean) को स्थानीय रूप से 'निक्कू मुठ' (Nikku Muth) कहा जाता है।
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1410📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTWaste Management Principles
There are three R's that will help us to conserve natural resources for long time use are
Explanation
The foundational 3 R's of sustainable environmental conservation are: Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle.
पर्यावरण संरक्षण के तीन 'R' हैं: रिड्यूस (कम करना), रीयूज (पुनः उपयोग), और रीसायकल (पुनर्चक्रण)।
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1411📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTLakes of J&K
Which one of the following lakes of India is located in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Anchar Lake is a picturesque freshwater wetland lake connected to Dal Lake situated near Soura, Srinagar, J&K.
आंचर झील (Anchar Lake) जम्मू और कश्मीर के श्रीनगर में स्थित है।
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1412📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTWetlands of J&K
Hokersar (Ramsar Site) is located in which district of Jammu & Kashmir.
Explanation
Hokersar Wetland Ramsar Site is situated primarily in Budgam district (extending into Srinagar suburbs), J&K.
होकेसर रामसर आर्द्रभूमि स्थल मुख्य रूप से बडगाम (Budgam) जिले में स्थित है।
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1413📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTEcosystem Conservation
Why should we conserve forest and wildlife?
Explanation
Conserving forests and wildlife maintains overall ecosystem stability, nutrient cycles, climate regulation, and ecological balance.
वन और वन्यजीवों का संरक्षण पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र की समग्र स्थिरता (Maintain ecosystem) को बनाए रखने के लिए आवश्यक है।
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1414📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilitySquare Roots Applications
A group of students decided to collect as many paise from each member of the group as is the number of members. If the total collection amounts to Rs. 59.29, the number of members in the group is
Explanation
Let number of members be nn. Total paise =n×n=n2=59.29×100=5929= n \times n = n^2 = 59.29 \times 100 = 5929 paise. Thus n=5929=77n = \sqrt{5929} = 77.
n2=5929  ⟹  n=5929=77n^2 = 5929 \implies n = \sqrt{5929} = 77 सदस्य।
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1415📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsHVAC Tools & Equipment
Arrange the following AC repair tools in order of price (lowest to highest).
1. Refrigerant Gauge Set
2. Digital Thermometer
3. Vacuum Pump
4. Refrigerant Recovery Machine
5. Manifold Gauge Set
Which of the above is/are correct?
Explanation
Tool price progression (lowest to highest): Digital Thermometer (2) -> Gauge Sets (5/1) -> Rotary Vane Vacuum Pump (3) -> Commercial Refrigerant Recovery Machine (4).
मूल्य का बढ़ता क्रम: डिजिटल थर्मामीटर (2) -> गेज सेट -> वैक्यूम पंप (3) -> रेफ्रिजरेंट रिकवरी मशीन (4)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1416📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsIndustrial Safety & Fire Fighting
Which of the following statements are true regarding industrial safety and fire fighting in occupational health?
1. Industrial safety focuses on the prevention of injuries and accidents in the workplace.
2. Fire fighting techniques are primarily concerned with preventing damage to machinery.
3. Occupational health safety includes physical, chemical, and biological hazards at the work-place.
4. Fire safety measures in an industrial setting do not require employee training.

Which of the above statements is/are true?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Fire safety prioritizes preservation of human life over machinery, and employee training is mandatory.
कथन 1 और 3 सही हैं (औद्योगिक सुरक्षा चोटों की रोकथाम पर केंद्रित है और व्यावसायिक स्वास्थ्य में भौतिक/रासायनिक खतरे शामिल हैं)।
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1417📚Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsBell-Coleman Cycle Processes
Match List-I (Process) with List-II (Type) for air refrigeration cycle and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I:
i. Compression
ii. Heat rejection
iii. Expansion
iv. Heat absorption

List-II:
1. Isobaric
2. Isothermal
3. Isentropic
4. Isenthalpic

Which of the above is/are correct?
Explanation
In the standard Bell-Coleman / Reversed Brayton air cycle: Compression = Isentropic (s=consts=\text{const}, i-3); Heat rejection = Isobaric (P=constP=\text{const}, ii-1); Expansion = Isentropic (s=consts=\text{const}, iii-3); Heat absorption = Isobaric (P=constP=\text{const}, iv-1).
बेल-कोलमैन वायु चक्र में: संपीड़न और विस्तार आइसेंट्रोपिक (3) होते हैं, और ऊष्मा विनिमय समदाबीय (1) होता है। सही उत्तर B है।
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1418📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsCOP Calculation
The heat removal rate from a refrigerated space and the power input to the compressor are 7.2 kW and 1.8 kW, respectively. The coefficient of performance (COP) of the refrigerator is
Explanation
Calculation: COP=Refrigeration Effect (Heat Removal Rate)Work Input=7.2 kW1.8 kW=4.0\text{COP} = \frac{\text{Refrigeration Effect (Heat Removal Rate)}}{\text{Work Input}} = \frac{7.2\text{ kW}}{1.8\text{ kW}} = 4.0.
गणना: COP=Refrigeration EffectPower Input=7.21.8=4.0\text{COP} = \frac{\text{Refrigeration Effect}}{\text{Power Input}} = \frac{7.2}{1.8} = 4.0।
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1419📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsThermal Comfort & Effective Temperature
A measure of feeling warmth or coolness by the human body in response to the air temperature, moisture content and air motion is called
Explanation
Effective Temperature (ET) is an empirical sensory index combining dry bulb temperature, relative humidity, and air velocity to evaluate human thermal comfort sensations.
वायु तापमान, आर्द्रता और वायु गति के संयुक्त प्रभाव से मानव शरीर द्वारा अनुभव किए जाने वाले तापमान को प्रभावी तापमान (Effective temperature) कहते हैं।
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1420📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsFrost-Free Refrigerator Controls
What function does the damper serve in a frost-free refrigerator?
Explanation
An air damper (manual or motorized thermostat-controlled baffle) modulates the volume of chilled air circulating from the freezer compartment into the fresh food refrigerator compartment.
फ्रॉस्ट-फ्री रेफ्रिजरेटर में डैम्पर (Damper) फ्रीजर से फ्रिज कम्पार्टमेंट में ठंडी हवा के प्रवाह को नियंत्रित (Adjusting the air flow) करता है।
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1421📚Thermodynamics, Compressors & AC SystemsInverter PWM Compressor Drives
In an inverter refrigerator, what role does the pulse-width modulation (PWM) control technique play?
Explanation
PWM inverters vary the voltage and frequency supplied to the BLDC compressor motor to achieve stepless variable speed control based on thermal cooling demand.
इन्वर्टर रेफ्रिजरेटर में PWM तकनीक कंप्रेसर मोटर की गति को नियंत्रित (Speed control) करने के लिए उपयोग की जाती है।
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1422📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsIce Plant Refrigeration
Which type of refrigeration system is typically used in an ice plant?
Explanation
Commercial ice manufacturing plants utilize large-scale ammonia (NH3NH_3 / R-717) Vapour Compression Refrigeration systems with brine tanks.
बर्फ बनाने वाले संयंत्रों (Ice plants) में अमोनिया वाष्प संपीड़न प्रशीतन प्रणाली (VCR system) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1423📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsComfort Air Conditioning
A Comfort Air Conditioning System primarily focuses on:
Explanation
Comfort air conditioning regulates temperature (24∘C±1∘C24^\circ\text{C}\pm 1^\circ\text{C}), relative humidity (50%±5%50\%\pm 5\%), air motion, and air purity specifically for human biological comfort.
कम्फर्ट एयर कंडीशनिंग का मुख्य उद्देश्य मानव आराम के लिए उपयुक्त तापमान और आर्द्रता बनाए रखना (Providing consistent temperature and humidity control) है।
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1424📚Comfort Conditions, Insulation, Piping & RefrigerantsThermodynamics of Refrigeration
Consider the following statement for refrigeration and air conditioning:
1. In a refrigeration machine, heat exchanger that absorbs heat is connected to a conditioned space.
2. A refrigeration cycle operating reversibly between two heat reservoirs has the highest coefficient of performance.
3. The lower the refrigeration required and the higher the temperature of heat rejection to the surroundings, the larger the power consumption.
Which of the above is correct?
Explanation
All three statements are thermodynamically sound: Evaporator absorbs heat from conditioned space (1); Carnot cycle has theoretical maximum COP (2); Lower evaporating temperature / higher sink temperature increases lift and work input (3).
कथन 1, 2 और 3 तीनों सही हैं।
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1425📚Expansion Devices, Diagnostics & Workshop PracticesCopper Tubing Flaring Tools
What is the part marked as X in the flaring set diagram (pointing to the clamping bar with precision chamfered holes)?
Explanation
The flaring block (or flaring bar) has multiple calibrated diameter holes to securely grip copper tubing during manual flaring.
चित्र में X से चिह्नित भाग फ्लेयरिंग ब्लॉक (Flaring block / Flaring bar) है।
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1426📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsCentral Plant Startup Procedures
In a typical starting procedure for a Central Air Conditioning Plant, which component should be started first?
Explanation
Plant startup sequence: (1) Energize main electrical control panel and crankcase heaters; (2) Start cooling tower fans and condenser water pumps; (3) Start chilled water pumps and AHUs; (4) Start chiller compressors once water flows are verified by differential pressure switches.
सेंट्रल एसी प्लांट शुरू करते समय सबसे पहले कंट्रोल पैनल की मुख्य विद्युत आपूर्ति (Electrical power supply to the control panel) चालू की जाती है।
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1427📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsRefrigeration Systems Matching
Match List -I with List-II and select correct answer
List-I:
i. Bell Coleman Refrigeration
ii. Reverse Carnot Cycle
iii. Milk Chilling Plant
iv. Superheating Refrigeration Cycle

List-II:
1. Expansion Cylinder
2. Heat Pump
3. Brine
4. Decrease COP

Choose the correct Answer:
Explanation
Bell Coleman -> Uses an expansion cylinder/expander (i-1); Reversed Carnot -> Theoretical standard for heat pumps (ii-2); Milk chilling -> Secondary coolant brine/glycol (iii-3); High superheat with uninsulated lines -> Increases discharge temp & decreases COP (iv-4).
i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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1428📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsHVAC Troubleshooting Protocol
When troubleshooting a central air conditioning system, what is the first step in identifying the problem?
Explanation
Systematic HVAC troubleshooting begins with a preliminary walk-around visual and sensory inspection to detect visible refrigerant oil stains, disconnected wiring, tripped breakers, dirty filters, and physical blockages.
समस्या निवारण का पहला कदम प्रत्यक्ष दृश्य निरीक्षण (Visual inspection) करके रिसाव या रुकावटों की पहचान करना है।
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1429📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsCondenser Fan Motors
Which motor is used to drive the condenser fan of out-door unit in ductable split air conditioner?
Explanation
Permanent Split Capacitor (PSC) single-phase motors are the industry standard for outdoor condenser fans due to their continuous capacitor run efficiency, reliability, and smooth operation.
स्प्लिट एसी के आउटडोर कंडेनसर पंखे को चलाने के लिए परमानेंट स्प्लिट कैपेसिटर (PSC) मोटर का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1430📚Electrical Controls, Troubleshooting & Absorption SystemsElectrical Wire Joints
Which joint is used in overhead lines for extending the length of the wire (shown in the diagram with twisted interlocked wire turns)?
Explanation
The Western Union splice (Lineman's joint) wraps two conductors around each other and tightly coils them to provide high tensile mechanical strength in overhead wire extensions.
चित्र में सिरोपरि लाइनों (Overhead lines) में तार की लंबाई बढ़ाने के लिए प्रयुक्त वेस्टर्न यूनियन जॉइंट (Western union joint) दिखाया गया है।
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1431📚Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksModels of Disability
Which of the following statements are TRUE?
i. Medical Model of disabilities find its base in psychology.
ii. Human Rights Model of disabilities talks about equity.
iii. Charity Model of disabilities treats people with disabilities as incapable.
iv. Economic model of disabilities considers disabilities as burden.
v. Religions model of disabilities relates disabilities with God's Wrath.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Explanation
Statements ii, iii, and v are universally accurate models: Human Rights promotes equity/inclusion (ii); Charity treats PwDs as helpless objects of pity (iii); Religious/Moral model viewed disability as divine retribution or karma (v).
कथन ii, iii, और v सत्य हैं (मानवाधिकार मॉडल समता की बात करता है, चैरिटी मॉडल दया का पात्र मानता है और धार्मिक मॉडल ईश्वरीय दंड से जोड़ता है)।
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1432📚Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksDisability Advocacy
Cross disability advocacy aims to :
Explanation
Cross-disability advocacy unites diverse disability communities to collectively champion universal accessibility, non-discrimination, equal opportunities, and legal human rights for all disabled persons.
क्रॉस डिसेबिलिटी एडवोकेसी का उद्देश्य सभी प्रकार के दिव्यांग व्यक्तियों के समावेश, अधिकारों और बाधा-मुक्त पहुंच की वकालत करना है।
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1433📚Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksSpecial Education Terminology
The term mental retardation is replaced with which term?
Explanation
In modern clinical diagnostic manuals (DSM-5, ICD-11) and the RPwD Act 2016, the outdated stigmatizing term 'Mental Retardation' has been officially replaced with 'Intellectual Disability'.
'मानसिक मंदता' (Mental Retardation) शब्द को आधुनिक शब्दावली में 'बौद्धिक दिव्यांगता' (Intellectual Disability) से प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है।
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1434📚Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksInclusive Practices
Which of the following practices promotes inclusion in the context of children with disabilities?
i. Barrier free access.
ii. Assistive devices and appropriate technology - based tools.
iii. Choice of regular or special schooling as well as home - based education.
iv. Uniform structured curriculum and means of assessment.

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Inclusive education demands barrier-free ramps/lifts (i), assistive technology (ii), and flexible educational pathways (iii). A rigid, uniform standardized curriculum (iv) excludes diverse learning needs.
समावेश को बढ़ावा देने वाले उपाय i, ii, और iii हैं (लचीला पाठ्यक्रम और बाधा-मुक्त वातावरण जरूरी है, कठोर एकसमान पाठ्यक्रम समावेशी नहीं है)।
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1435📚Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksSensory Disabilities Classification
Identify the type of sensory disability :
Explanation
Sensory disabilities involve impairments in sensory perception faculties, notably visual impairment, hearing impairment, and speech/language disabilities.
वाक् एवं भाषा दिव्यांगता (Speech and language disability) संवेदी दिव्यांगता का प्रकार है।
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1436📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsAutism Intervention Goals
What is the primary goal of autism Management?
Explanation
Because Autism Spectrum Disorder is a lifelong neurodevelopmental condition without a medical 'cure', intervention focuses on maximizing functional independence, communication skills, and overall quality of life.
ऑटिज्म प्रबंधन का प्राथमिक लक्ष्य बच्चे की स्वायत्तता/स्वतंत्रता को अधिकतम करना और जीवन की गुणवत्ता में सुधार (Maximising independence and quality of life) करना है।
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1437📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsSri Aurobindo Educational Philosophy
According to Aurobindo, what is the ultimate goal of education?
Explanation
Sri Aurobindo's integral philosophy of education envisions education as the spiritual instrument to facilitate the progressive evolution and realization of human consciousness into the supramental truth.
श्री अरबिंदो के अनुसार शिक्षा का अंतिम लक्ष्य मानव चेतना का सर्वांगीण विकास और क्रमिक विकास (Evolution of human consciousness) करना है।
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1438📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsEar Anatomy & Balance
Which part of ear Contains cells that control balance?
Explanation
The inner ear's Vestibular system (semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule) contains specialized hair cells that detect head motion, angular acceleration, and maintain postural equilibrium/balance.
आंतरिक कान का वेस्टिबुलर सिस्टम (Vestibular system / अर्धवृत्ताकार नलिकाएं) शरीर का संतुलन नियंत्रित करने वाली कोशिकाओं से युक्त होता है।
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1439📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsPerson-Centered Planning
Which of the following is a key principle of person centered planning?
Explanation
Person-Centered Planning (PCP) focuses on the individual's unique abilities, passions, personal aspirations, and choices rather than pathology or deficits.
व्यक्ति-केंद्रित योजना (Person-Centered Planning) का मुख्य सिद्धांत व्यक्ति की व्यक्तिगत शक्तियों, प्राथमिकताओं और रुचियों के आधार पर लक्ष्य निर्धारित करना है।
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1440📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsPwD Act 1995 Benchmark
How many disabilities were enlisted in PWD Act 1995?
Explanation
The Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act 1995 recognized exactly 7 conditions (Blindness, Low vision, Leprosy-cured, Hearing impairment, Locomotor disability, Mental retardation, Mental illness).
PwD अधिनियम 1995 में कुल 7 दिव्यांगताओं को शामिल किया गया था।
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1441📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsPsychological Testing in CWSN
Vithoda paknikar Performance test is a type of
Explanation
The Vithoda-Paknikar Performance Test of Intelligence is a standardized non-verbal performance battery designed to evaluate cognitive abilities in deaf, non-speaking, or illiterate subjects.
विठोदा पक्निकर परफॉर्मेंस टेस्ट एक अशाब्दिक/क्रियात्मक बुद्धि परीक्षण (Non-Verbal / Performance test) है।
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1442📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsRPwD Act Chapters
In which chapter of the Rights of Persons with disabilities Act / 2016, has been talk about the education?
Explanation
Chapter III (Sections 16, 17, and 18) of the RPwD Act 2016 is titled 'Education' and mandates inclusive education, non-discrimination, accessible transport, and free education up to 18 years for benchmark disabilities.
RPwD अधिनियम 2016 का अध्याय 3 (Chapter 3) विशेष रूप से दिव्यांगजनों की 'शिक्षा' से संबंधित है।
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1443📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal Acts21 Disabilities RPwD
How many disabilities are enlisted in the RPWD Act 2016?
Explanation
The RPwD Act 2016 expanded the schedule of recognized disabilities from 7 (in the 1995 Act) to 21 disabilities.
RPwD अधिनियम 2016 के तहत कुल 21 दिव्यांगताओं को मान्यता दी गई है।
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1444📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesEducational Management Approaches
Management approach is designed by
Explanation
I.K. Davies formulated the Management Approach in educational technology and curriculum development, dividing teaching into Planning, Organizing, Leading, and Controlling.
शिक्षण में प्रबंधन उपागम (Management approach) आई.के. डेविस (I.K. Davies) द्वारा तैयार किया गया था।
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1445📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesMager's Behavioral Objectives
Robert Mager's approach is used for
Explanation
Robert Mager introduced the Criterion-Referenced approach for writing measurable behavioral Learning Objectives specifying Performance, Condition, and Criterion.
रॉबर्ट मेगर का उपागम व्यवहारपरक अधिगम उद्देश्यों (Learning / Instructional objectives) के निर्माण के लिए प्रसिद्ध है।
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1446📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesPupil-Teacher Ratio RTE
In the light of RTE (Right to Education Act) - 2009 what is the Pupil - teacher ratio (PTR) for primary school are?
Explanation
The RTE Act 2009 mandates a Pupil-Teacher Ratio (PTR) of 30:1 for primary schools (Classes I to V) and 35:1 for upper primary schools (Classes VI to VIII).
RTE अधिनियम 2009 के अनुसार प्राथमिक विद्यालयों (कक्षा 1-5) के लिए छात्र-शिक्षक अनुपात 30:1 निर्धारित है।
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1447📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesLewin's Change Model
_______ developed a change model involving three steps.
Explanation
Kurt Lewin developed the classic 3-stage Change Management Model: Unfreezing -> Changing (Moving) -> Refreezing.
कर्ट लेविन (Kurt Lewin) ने परिवर्तन का तीन-चरणीय मॉडल (Unfreeze, Change, Refreeze) विकसित किया था।
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1448📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesPiaget's Preoperational Stage
Refer to the cognitive learning theory of Jean Piaget on which stage a child start using symbols for object representation and develop language?
Explanation
In Jean Piaget's cognitive theory, the Preoperational Stage (2 to 7 years) is characterized by symbolic thought, pretend play, and rapid language acquisition.
जीन पियाजे के अनुसार बच्चा पूर्व-संक्रियात्मक अवस्था (Preoperational stage / 2-7 वर्ष) में वस्तुओं के प्रतिनिधित्व के लिए प्रतीकों और भाषा का प्रयोग शुरू करता है।
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1449📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesFlashcards in Instruction
The flash card is used in teaching -
Explanation
Flashcards are versatile visual tactile aids widely utilized for rapid drills in arithmetic facts (multiplication/addition) as well as vocabulary/letter recognition in language teaching.
फ्लैश कार्ड का उपयोग अंकगणित और भाषा शिक्षण दोनों में प्रभावी रूप से किया जाता है (Both of the above)।
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1450📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationSocial Learning Theory
Which educational theory emphasizes the role of social interaction in learning?
Explanation
Social Learning Theory (Bandura) and Social Constructivism (Vygotsky) emphasize observational modeling, imitation, and sociocultural dialogue in human cognitive development.
सामाजिक अधिगम सिद्धांत (Social learning theory / Vygotsky-Bandura) सीखने में सामाजिक अंतःक्रिया की भूमिका पर बल देता है।
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1451📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationClassroom Management
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective classroom management?
Explanation
Effective classroom management relies on proactive structure, clear rules, and positive reinforcement; punitive coercion and frequent punishment create anxiety and disrupt learning.
बार-बार दंड देना (Frequent punishment) प्रभावी कक्षा प्रबंधन का लक्षण नहीं है।
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1452📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationIndian Philosophical Foundations
Which of the following Upanishads emphasizes the importance of self - knowledge?
Explanation
The Mundaka Upanishad distinguishes between lower empirical knowledge (Apara Vidya) and higher transcendental self-knowledge of Brahman (Para Vidya: 'Satyameva Jayate').
मुंडक उपनिषद (Mundaka Upanishad) आत्म-ज्ञान (Self-knowledge / ब्रह्म ज्ञान) के महत्व पर विशेष बल देता है।
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1453📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationSalamanca Statement 1994
Which of the following is NOT a key principle of the Salamanca Declaration?
Explanation
The UNESCO Salamanca Statement (1994) is the world manifesto for Inclusive Education, rejecting segregation and mandating regular schools to accommodate all children regardless of physical/intellectual differences.
सलामांका घोषणापत्र (1994) पृथक विशेष शिक्षा (Segregated education) को खारिज करता है और समावेशी नियमित शिक्षा का समर्थन करता है।
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1454📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationCerebral Palsy Symptoms
Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of cerebral palsy?
Explanation
Cerebral palsy is primarily a permanent non-progressive motor and postural disorder (causing spasticity, delayed motor milestones, dysarthria, seizures); sensory hearing loss is an occasional secondary co-morbidity but not a primary symptom.
श्रवण हानि (Loss of hearing) सेरेब्रल पाल्सी का प्राथमिक लक्षण नहीं है; सीपी मुख्य रूप से गामक विकास और मांसपेशियों के नियंत्रण को प्रभावित करता है।
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1455📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationTechnology in Language Learning
What is the role of technology in language teaching?
Explanation
Educational technology serves to supplement pedagogical instruction with interactive multimodal tools, phonics software, and engaging authentic resources.
भाषा शिक्षण में प्रौद्योगिकी का उपयोग पूरक संसाधन और इंटरैक्टिव आकर्षक गतिविधियाँ प्रदान करने के लिए किया जाता है।
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1456📚Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationBraille Cell Structure
How many dots are arranged in a Braille cell?
Explanation
A standard traditional Braille cell consists of 6 raised dots arranged in a 3×23 \times 2 grid (two columns of three dots each).
एक मानक ब्रेल सेल में 6 उभरे हुए बिंदु (3×23 \times 2 ग्रिड) होते हैं।
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1457📚Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesHearing Impairment Communication
How can a teacher effectively communicate with a student who has a hearing impairment?
Explanation
Effective communication with deaf students relies on Indian Sign Language (ISL), certified interpreters, visual aids, and clear lip-reading facial cues.
श्रवण बाधित छात्र के साथ प्रभावी संवाद के लिए सांकेतिक भाषा (Sign language) या दुभाषिए का उपयोग सबसे उपयुक्त है।
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1458📚Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesAssistive Technology in Classrooms
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using assistive technology in the classroom?
Explanation
Assistive technology empowers student independence, access, and scholastic performance; its primary pedagogical goal is not reducing teacher workload.
शिक्षक के कार्यभार को कम करना सहायक तकनीक का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य या लाभ नहीं है (यह छात्र की आत्मनिर्भरता और अधिगम के लिए है)।
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1459📚Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesCulturally Responsive Teaching
How can a teacher create a culturally responsive classroom that supports CWSN from diverse backgrounds?
Explanation
Culturally responsive pedagogy integrates students' native cultural contexts, languages, funds of knowledge, and traditions into learning activities.
सांस्कृतिक रूप से उत्तरदायी कक्षा बनाने के लिए सांस्कृतिक रूप से प्रासंगिक शिक्षण सामग्री और प्रथाओं का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1460📚Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesHuman Rights Paradigm
Which of the following statements about disability is TRUE?
Explanation
Under constitutional and human rights principles (UNCRPD), persons with disabilities possess equal fundamental human rights, dignity, autonomy, and equal opportunities.
दिव्यांग व्यक्तियों को अन्य सभी नागरिकों के समान समान अधिकार और अवसर प्राप्त हैं।
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1461📚Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesTagore Educational Philosophy
Which of the following best describes Tagore's view on the purpose of education?
Explanation
Rabindranath Tagore's educational vision (manifested at Visva-Bharati, Santiniketan) championed naturalistic education, freedom of thought, universal humanism, and the unfettered nurturing of creative individuality in communion with nature.
रवींद्रनाथ टैगोर के अनुसार शिक्षा का उद्देश्य प्रकृति के सानिध्य में बच्चे की रचनात्मकता और वैयक्तिकता का पोषण करना (To nurture creativity and individuality) है।
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1462📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesHuman Physiology
What is the primary function of red blood cells?
Explanation
Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain hemoglobin, which binds molecular oxygen in the pulmonary capillaries and transports it to body tissues.
लाल रक्त कोशिकाओं (RBCs) का प्राथमिक कार्य हीमोग्लोबिन के माध्यम से फेफड़ों से शरीर के ऊतकों तक ऑक्सीजन का परिवहन (Carry oxygen) करना है।
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1463📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesRespiratory Anatomy
Which structure in the human body is responsible for producing sound?
Explanation
The Larynx (voice box) contains the vocal cords which vibrate during expiration to produce phonation and sound.
मानव शरीर में ध्वनि उत्पादन के लिए स्वरयंत्र (Larynx / Voice box) जिम्मेदार होता है।
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1464📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesOrgan Systems Match
Consider the following pairs and match the organ system with its primary component:
i. Endocrine system
ii. Immune system
iii. Excretory system
iv. Integumentary system

Primary Component:
1. Skin, hair, and nails
2. Glands that secrete hormones
3. Kidneys and bladder
4. White blood cells and antibodies

Which of the following pair is correct?
Explanation
Endocrine -> Glands secreting hormones (i-2), Immune -> WBCs & antibodies (ii-4), Excretory -> Kidneys & bladder (iii-3), Integumentary -> Skin, hair, nails (iv-1).
i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1 सही मिलान है।
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1465📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesNational Health Programmes
The National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP) in India was initiated in which year as part of the global effort to eradicate polio?
Explanation
The Government of India and WHO initiated the National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP) in 1997 (formal pulse polio campaigns started in 1995).
भारत में राष्ट्रीय पोलियो निगरानी परियोजना और पल्स पोलियो टीकाकरण 1995/1997 में शुरू किया गया था।
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1466📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesWastewater Treatment
Which of the following processes is most effective for managing hazardous organic pollutants in wastewater?
Explanation
Advanced Oxidation Processes (AOPs) generate highly reactive hydroxyl radicals (⋅OH\cdot OH) that completely mineralize recalcitrant, toxic non-biodegradable hazardous organic pollutants into CO2CO_2 and H2OH_2O.
अपशिष्ट जल में खतरनाक गैर-बायोडिग्रेडेबल कार्बनिक प्रदूषकों के उपचार के लिए एडवांस्ड ऑक्सीडेशन प्रोसेस (AOPs) सबसे प्रभावी है।
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1467📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesSwachh Bharat Mission
Which of the following is a major goal of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan launched in India in 2014?
Explanation
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (launched October 2, 2014) aimed to achieve an Open Defecation Free (ODF) India through universal toilet coverage, solid waste management, and behavioral cleanliness.
स्वच्छ भारत अभियान (2014) का मुख्य उद्देश्य खुले में शौच को समाप्त करना (ODF), स्वच्छता में सुधार और ठोस अपशिष्ट प्रबंधन को बढ़ावा देना है।
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1468📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesIDSP Surveillance
The implementation of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) in India primarily contributes to:
Explanation
IDSP is a decentralized, state-based surveillance network designed for early detection, rapid response, and containment of epidemic-prone communicable disease outbreaks.
एकीकृत रोग निगरानी कार्यक्रम (IDSP) का मुख्य उद्देश्य संक्रामक रोगों के प्रकोपों का शीघ्र पता लगाना और समय पर नियंत्रण (Early detection and control) करना है।
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1469📚Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlSanitary Landfill Design
In a sanitary landfill, the leachate collection system primarily prevents:
Explanation
Leachate is toxic liquid percolating through landfill waste; impermeable liners and leachate collection pipes collect it for treatment, preventing groundwater aquifer and surface water contamination.
सैनिटरी लैंडफिल में लीचेट संग्रह प्रणाली जैविक कचरे के अपघटन से निकलने वाले दूषित तरल द्वारा भूजल और सतही जल प्रदूषण (Water contamination) को रोकती है।
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1470📚Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlBiomedical Waste Management
Which of the following types of solid waste is typically classified as "biomedical waste"?
Explanation
Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling Rules) classifies waste generated during diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of human beings or animals in healthcare facilities into distinct color-coded categories.
अस्पतालों, क्लीनिकों और प्रयोगशालाओं से उत्पन्न जैविक/संक्रामक कचरे को बायोमेडिकल वेस्ट (Biomedical waste) कहा जाता है।
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1471📚Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlDomestic Liquid Waste
Liquid waste generated by household activities, such as dishwashing and laundry, is typically classified as:
Explanation
Greywater (sullage) refers to domestic wastewater from sinks, showers, baths, dishwashers, and washing machines that does not contain human fecal matter (toilet waste is blackwater).
घरेलू गतिविधियों (कपड़े धोने, बर्तन धोने) से निकलने वाले अपशिष्ट जल को ग्रे-वाटर (Greywater) कहा जाता है।
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1472📚Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlArboviral Vectors
The primary vector of the Zika virus, which is a significant public health concern, is:
Explanation
Aedes aegypti (and Aedes albopictus) mosquitoes are the primary daytime-biting vectors of Zika virus, Dengue virus, and Chikungunya.
जीका वायरस (Zika virus) का प्राथमिक संचरण एडीज मच्छर (Aedes aegypti) द्वारा होता है।
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1473📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesIodine Deficiency Disorders
Which condition is primarily caused by a deficiency in iodine, leading to the enlargement of the thyroid gland?
Explanation
Endemic Goiter (Ghegha) is the compensatory hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the thyroid gland caused by inadequate dietary iodine intake.
आयोडीन की कमी से थायरॉयड ग्रंथि बढ़ जाती है जिसे घेंघा या गलगंड (Goiter) कहा जाता है।
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1474📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesNational Food Safety Events
The World Food India 2024 event, scheduled from September 19-22, 2024, in New Delhi, is organized by:
Explanation
World Food India is the flagship mega-food event organized annually at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), Government of India.
वर्ल्ड फूड इंडिया 2024 कार्यक्रम का आयोजन खाद्य प्रसंस्करण उद्योग मंत्रालय (Ministry of Food Processing Industries - MoFPI) द्वारा किया गया।
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1475📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesHealth Communication & IEC
What is the main function of social mobilization within an Information , Education and Communication campaign?
Explanation
Social mobilization engages community leaders, grassroots institutions, NGOs, and families to collectively build ownership, demand, and participation in health initiatives.
IEC अभियानों में सामाजिक गतिशीलता (Social mobilization) का मुख्य कार्य समुदाय और सभी हितधारकों को अभियान के उद्देश्यों से जोड़ना है।
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1476📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesHealth Literacy Strategies
When targeting a population with low health literacy, which communication strategy is most effective?
Explanation
Low health literacy populations benefit most from pictorial illustrations, folk media, interactive demonstrations, and simple local vernacular language.
कम साक्षरता वाले समूह के लिए दृश्य साधन (Visual aids) और सरल बोलचाल की भाषा का उपयोग सबसे प्रभावी होता है।
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1477📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesHospital Disinfection (UV)
The use of ultraviolet (UV) light for sanitation in hospitals is primarily aimed at:
Explanation
UV-C radiation (wavelength 254 nm254\text{ nm}) causes thymine dimerization in microbial DNA and RNA, inactivating vegetative bacteria, viruses, and spores in hospital air and surfaces.
अस्पतालों में पराबैंगनी (UV-C) प्रकाश का उपयोग हवा और सतहों को रोगाणुरहित (Sterilizing air and surfaces) करने के लिए किया जाता है।
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1478📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesZoonotic Disease Prevention
To minimize the risk of zoonotic diseases in slaughterhouses, what should be the primary focus of sanitation protocols?
Explanation
Proper offal rendering, sanitary effluent disposal, segregation of diseased viscera, and rigorous sanitization of knives and cutting tables prevent zoonotic transmission (e.g. Anthrax, Brucellosis, Bovine TB).
जूनोटिक रोगों की रोकथाम के लिए उचित अपशिष्ट निपटान और उपकरणों की नियमित सफाई (Proper waste disposal and sanitation) सबसे महत्वपूर्ण है।
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1479📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesMeat Hygiene & Inspection
In slaughterhouse hygiene, what is the primary purpose of "post-mortem inspection"?
Explanation
Post-mortem inspection systematically examines the carcass, head, lymph nodes, lungs, liver, and viscera for macroscopic lesions of tuberculosis, cysticercosis, hydatid cysts, or septicemia before certifying meat fit for human consumption.
शव-परीक्षा (Post-mortem inspection) का मुख्य उद्देश्य शव और आंतरिक अंगों में किसी बीमारी या संक्रमण की जांच करना है।
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1480📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHHACCP Principles
What is the primary purpose of the Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points system in eating establishments?
Explanation
HACCP is a preventive food safety management system designed to systematically identify, assess, and control biological, chemical, and physical food safety hazards at critical control points.
HACCP प्रणाली का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य खाद्य उत्पादन प्रक्रिया में संभावित खाद्य सुरक्षा खतरों की पहचान करना और उन्हें रोकना (Identify and prevent food safety hazards) है।
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1481📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHFactories Act 1948 Health Provisions
Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, which of the following tasks would fall under the jurisdiction of a sanitary inspector?
Explanation
Chapter III (Health) of the Factories Act 1948 mandates statutory inspections of factory cleanliness, disposal of wastes and effluents, ventilation, lighting, drinking water, latrines, and spittoons.
कारखाना अधिनियम 1948 के तहत सेनेटरी इंस्पेक्टर का कार्य कारखानों में उचित स्वच्छता और सफाई मानकों की समय-समय पर जांच (Conducting periodic inspections) करना है।
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1482📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHSanitary Inspector Duties
Consider the following statement:
In the context of environmental health, a sanitary inspector in India would typically be involved in:
i. Ensuring that proper waste disposal and sewage systems are in place
ii. Monitoring air pollution levels in urban areas
iii. Developing infrastructure for new factories and roads
iv. Conducting sanitation audits for public health facilities

Which of the following statement is/are correct?
Explanation
Sanitary inspectors monitor municipal solid waste/sewage systems (i), ambient pollution surveillance (ii), and hygiene audits of public facilities (iv); road/factory civil construction (iii) belongs to civil engineering.
कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं।
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1483📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHAntenatal Care Protocols
Match the following pairs:
i. Counselling on diet and lifestyle
ii. Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation
iii. Blood pressure monitoring
iv. Blood group and hemoglobin check

Clinical Purpose:
1. To prevent maternal anemia during pregnancy
2. Ensures healthy fetal growth and development
3. Helps identify Rh incompatibility and anemia
4. Detects signs of pre-eclampsia or hypertension

Which of the following pair is correct?
Explanation
Diet counselling -> Fetal growth (i-2), IFA tablets -> Maternal anemia prevention (ii-1), BP monitoring -> Pre-eclampsia detection (iii-4), Blood group/Hb -> Rh incompatibility/anemia (iv-3).
i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 सही मिलान है।
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1484📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHFamily Planning Spacing
According to the Indian Family Planning Program, which of the following is the recommended spacing between two children?
Explanation
Under Ministry of Health & Family Welfare guidelines, an inter-pregnancy birth interval of at least 3 years (36 months) is recommended to ensure maternal nutritional recovery and infant survival.
भारतीय परिवार नियोजन कार्यक्रम के अनुसार दो बच्चों के बीच कम से कम 3 वर्ष (At least 3 years) का अंतर अनुशंसित है।
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1485📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHPermanent Contraception
Under the Indian Family Planning Program, which of the following is a permanent method of contraception?
Explanation
Vasectomy (male sterilization via ligation of vas deferens) and Tubectomy (female sterilization) are the definitive permanent surgical contraception methods.
पुरुष नसबंदी (Vasectomy) परिवार नियोजन की स्थायी गर्भनिरोधक विधि है।
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1486📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHMission Parivar Vikas
Under the Mission Parivar Vikas of Indian Family Planning Program, what is the target fertility rate to achieve population stabilization?
Explanation
Population stabilization target is the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of 2.1 births per woman, representing the demographic Replacement Level Fertility.
जनसंख्या स्थिरीकरण के लिए लक्षित कुल प्रजनन दर (TFR) प्रति महिला 2.1 (Replacement level) निर्धारित की गई है।
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1487📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHASHA Community Health Training
What kind of training do ASHAs typically undergo before starting their duties in the community?
Explanation
Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) undergo competency-based modular induction training (23 days in 5 modules) covering maternal-neonatal health, child nutrition, immunization, communicable diseases, and family planning.
आशा (ASHA) कार्यकर्ताओं को मातृ एवं शिशु स्वास्थ्य, पोषण, टीकाकरण और परिवार नियोजन पर विशेष मॉड्यूलर प्रशिक्षण दिया जाता है।
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1488📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHOccupational Carcinogens
Which of the following is an occupational disease that results from prolonged exposure to organic solvents like benzene in industries such as painting, cleaning, and chemical manufacturing?
Explanation
Chronic occupational exposure to benzene vapors causes bone marrow toxicity, aplastic anemia, and acute myeloid leukemia (AML).
पेंट और रसायन उद्योग में बेंजीन (Benzene) के संपर्क में रहने से रक्त कैंसर/ल्यूकेमिया (Leukemia) होने का खतरा होता है।
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1489📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationGlobal Health Equity
The Lancet Commission on Global Health has emphasized the importance of:
Explanation
The Lancet Commission emphasizes planetary health, addressing social determinants of health, and dismantling structural health inequities to guarantee equitable universal health systems.
द लांसेट कमीशन ने वैश्विक स्तर पर स्वास्थ्य असमानताओं को कम करने और समतामूलक स्वास्थ्य सेवाएं प्रदान करने (Reducing health inequalities) पर बल दिया है।
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1490📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationAntipyretics and Anti-inflammatories
Which of the following drug classes is used to reduce fever and inflammation?
Explanation
Antipyretics (and NSAIDs like Paracetamol, Ibuprofen) lower elevated body temperature by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center.
बुखार और सूजन को कम करने के लिए एंटीपायरेटिक्स (Antipyretics / ज्वरनाशक) दवाओं का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1491📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationAnticoagulant Drugs
Which of the following drugs is used as an "anticoagulant" to prevent blood clot formation?
Explanation
Warfarin is an oral vitamin K epoxide reductase inhibitor anticoagulant prescribed to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism.
वारफारिन (Warfarin) रक्त के थक्के जमने से रोकने वाली एंटीकोआगुलेंट (Anticoagulant) दवा है।
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1492📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Snakebites
A person has been bitten by a venomous snake. What is the most important first aid step before getting medical help?
Explanation
Standard snakebite first aid (Right Care protocol): Keep the patient calm, immobilize the bitten limb using a broad splint, maintain the limb at or slightly below heart level, and transport immediately to a hospital (never cut, suck, or apply arterial tourniquets).
सांप के काटने पर पीड़ित अंग को स्थिर रखना और हृदय के स्तर पर या उससे नीचे (Immobilized and at/below heart level) रखकर तुरंत अस्पताल पहुंचाना सबसे जरूरी है।
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1493📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationEconomic Order Quantity (EOQ)
The Economic Order Quantity model in inventory management is primarily used to:
Explanation
The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ=2DSHEOQ = \sqrt{\frac{2DS}{H}}) determines the optimal purchase order quantity that minimizes the total annual sum of ordering costs and holding/carrying storage costs.
आर्थिक आदेश मात्रा (EOQ) मॉडल का उपयोग ऑर्डरिंग लागत और भंडारण लागत के कुल योग को न्यूनतम करने (Minimize total ordering and holding costs) के लिए किया जाता है।
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1494📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationSafety Stock & Inventory Control
Which of the following terms refers to the minimum quantity of stock below which inventory should not be allowed to fall?
Explanation
Safety stock (buffer stock) is the minimum reserve level maintained in inventory to mitigate against stockout risks caused by demand spikes or supplier delivery lead-time delays.
स्टॉक का वह न्यूनतम स्तर जिससे नीचे इन्वेंट्री को नहीं जाने दिया जाता, सुरक्षा स्टॉक (Safety stock / Buffer stock) कहलाता है।
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1495📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal Administration74th Constitutional Amendment Act
The Ward Committee in a Municipal Corporation is formed under which of the following laws?
Explanation
Article 243S of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 mandates the constitution of Wards Committees in all municipal areas having a population of 300,000 or more.
नगर निगम में वार्ड समितियों का गठन 74वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम 1992 (Article 243S) के तहत किया जाता है।
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1496📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationDissolution of Municipal Corporations
In the case of financial mismanagement or misconduct, who can dissolve the Municipal Corporation?
Explanation
Under state municipal corporation statutes, the State Government possesses the statutory authority to supersede or dissolve a Municipal Corporation on grounds of persistent incompetence or financial mismanagement.
वित्तीय कुप्रबंधन या अक्षमता की स्थिति में नगर निगम को भंग (Dissolve) करने का अधिकार राज्य सरकार (The State Government) के पास होता है।
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1497📚First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationMayor Term of Office
The Mayor of a Municipal Corporation is elected for a term of how many years?
Explanation
Under the standard provisions of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (and most state municipal corporation acts), the term of the Municipal Corporation and its elected council is 5 years.
नगर निगम और उसके निर्वाचित प्रतिनिधियों का कार्यकाल सामान्यतः 5 वर्ष (5 years) का होता है।
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1498📚Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementIntroduction to Museology
Which of the following is the correct definition of 'Museology'?
Explanation
Museology is the comprehensive academic discipline, science, and practice concerning the history, philosophy, organization, management, social role, and conservation of museums.
म्यूजियोलॉजी (Museology / संग्रहालय विज्ञान) संग्रहालयों के संगठन, संचालन और प्रबंधन का विज्ञान एवं व्यावहारिक अध्ययन (Science and practice of organizing and managing museums) है।
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1499📚Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementCollection Management Lifecycle
Arrange the following steps of museum collection management in the correct order:
i) Cataloguing the items
ii) Acquiring objects through donations or purchases
iii) Organizing exhibitions
iv) Documenting the objects in the museum's records
Options :
Explanation
Sequential steps in museum collection lifecycle: (ii) Acquisition -> (iv) Accessioning and documentation -> (i) Detailed cataloguing and classification -> (iii) Exhibition and display.
संग्रहालय संग्रह प्रबंधन के चरण: अधिग्रहण (ii) -> दस्तावेजीकरण (iv) -> सूचीकरण/कैटलॉगिंग (i) -> प्रदर्शनी (iii)। सही क्रम C (ii, iv, i, iii) है।
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1500📚Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementMuseological Definitions Match
Match the Following
Column A:
1. Museology
2. Museum Collection
3. Communication Policy
4. Museum as an Educational Institution

Column B:
i. The study and practice of managing, conserving, and studying museum objects and exhibits
ii. The strategy for promoting the museum's mission and engaging with the public.
iii. A place that offers informal learning experiences outside traditional classrooms.
iv. The collection of objects, which includes primary and secondary sources, as well as exhibitions.

Options :
Explanation
1 -> i (Museology = study and management of objects), 2 -> iv (Collection = primary/secondary objects), 3 -> ii (Communication = mission promotion and public engagement), 4 -> iii (Educational institution = informal learning).
1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii सही मिलान है।
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1501📚Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementDeaccessioning and Disposal
Disposal of art objects means :
Explanation
In museum terminology, disposal (deaccessioning) refers to the formal permanent physical and administrative removal of an object from the museum's permanent accession register.
संग्रहालय संदर्भ में कलाकृतियों के निपटान (Disposal / Deaccessioning) का अर्थ उन्हें संग्रह और पंजीकरण से स्थायी रूप से हटाना (Physical removal of the objects) है।
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1502📚Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementICOM 2022 Museum Definition
Which of the following new concepts were added to the museum definition of ICOM of 2022?
i. Humanity
ii. Sustainability
iii. Inclusive
iv. Community participation
v. Researches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
At the ICOM General Conference in Prague (August 2022), the new museum definition incorporated: 'accessible and inclusive', 'foster diversity and sustainability', and 'with the participation of communities'.
ICOM की 2022 की नई परिभाषा में 'Sustainability' (स्थिरता), 'Inclusive' (समावेशी) और 'Community participation' (सामुदायिक भागीदारी) जैसे नए सिद्धांतों को शामिल किया गया।
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1503📚Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementMuseum Documentation Standards
Which of the following are related to documentation of museum objects?
i. JATAN
ii. CIDOC
iii. SPECTRUM
iv. SPSS
v. STAT
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
JATAN is the Indian national museum digital collection database software; CIDOC is ICOM's International Committee for Documentation; SPECTRUM is the UK collection management standard.
संग्रहालय दस्तावेजीकरण से संबंधित मानक और सॉफ्टवेयर JATAN (भारत), CIDOC (ICOM) और SPECTRUM (UK) हैं (i, ii, and iii only)।
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1504📚Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementIconic Indian Museum Masterpieces
Match List I with List II
List I (Object):
1. Didarganj Yakshi
2. Pistol of Chandrasekhar Azad
3. Siva Vamana
4. Veiled Rebecca

List II (Venue):
i. Salarjung Museum
ii. National Museum
iii. Patna Museum
iv. Allahabad Museum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Didarganj Yakshi -> Patna Museum / Bihar Museum (1-iii), Colt Pistol of Chandrasekhar Azad -> Allahabad Museum (2-iv), Siva Vamana (Mansar sculpture) -> National Museum, New Delhi (3-ii), Veiled Rebecca (Benzoni marble statue) -> Salar Jung Museum, Hyderabad (4-i).
1-iii (दीदारगंज यक्षी = पटना संग्रहालय), 2-iv (चंद्रशेखर आज़ाद की पिस्तौल = इलाहाबाद संग्रहालय), 3-ii (शिव वामन = राष्ट्रीय संग्रहालय), 4-i (वेल्ड रेबेका = सालारजंग संग्रहालय)। सही मिलान D है।
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1505📚Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementMuseum Architecture & Spatial Planning
Why is the design of a museum gallery and building important?
Explanation
Museum architectural and interior gallery design integrates environmental control, conservation security, circulation flow, lighting, and visitor interpretive engagement.
संग्रहालय दीर्घा और भवन का डिज़ाइन दर्शकों के अनुभव को समृद्ध करने और कलाकृतियों की सुरक्षा (Visitor experience and safety of collections) सुनिश्चित करने के लिए महत्वपूर्ण है।
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1506📚Organic Chemistry, Stereochemistry & Reaction IntermediatesSteric Effects in Resonance
Which of the following is an example of steric inhibition of resonance?
Explanation
Steric Inhibition of Resonance (SIR) occurs when bulky ortho substituents force an adjacent conjugated functional group out of coplanarity with the aromatic ring, quenching orbital overlap and resonance.
अनुनाद का त्रिविम अवरोध (Steric inhibition of resonance / SIR) भारी समूहों की त्रिविम बाधा के कारण कक्षकों के समतलीय न रहने से अनुनाद के बाधित होने को कहते हैं।
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1507📚Organic Chemistry, Stereochemistry & Reaction IntermediatesHuckel Rule for Aromaticity
Which of the following is true according to Huckel's rule for aromaticity?
Explanation
Huckel's rule (4n+2 π4n+2\ \pi-electrons, where n=0,1,2,3…n = 0, 1, 2, 3\dots) defines the electron requirement for planar, fully conjugated cyclic monocyclic polyenes to possess special aromatic thermodynamic stabilization.
हकल के नियम के अनुसार एक चक्रीय समतलीय संयुग्मित अणु एरोमैटिक होता है यदि उसमें 4n+2 π4n+2\ \pi-इलेक्ट्रॉन (जहां n एक गैर-ऋणात्मक पूर्णांक है) हों।
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1508📚Organic Chemistry, Stereochemistry & Reaction IntermediatesAllenes and Spirans Chirality
How does chirality arise in molecules like allenes and spirans, which do not have chiral centres?
Explanation
Allenes (R1R2C=C=CR3R4R_1R_2C=C=CR_3R_4) and spirans have mutually perpendicular π\pi-systems and planes of substituents; with dissimilar terminal groups, they lack planes/centers of symmetry, forming non-superimposable chiral mirror images.
एलीन और स्पाइरान में लंबवत तलों (Perpendicular planes) में प्रतिस्थापियों के विन्यास के कारण सममिति का अभाव होता है जिससे गैर-अध्यारोपणीय दर्पण प्रतिबिम्ब (Chirality) बनते हैं।
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1509📚Organic Chemistry, Stereochemistry & Reaction IntermediatesStereochemistry History
Arrange the following events related to chirality and symmetry in molecules in chronological order:
i. Discovery of chirality due to the presence of a chiral centre (a carbon atom attached to four different substituents).
ii. Identification of chirality in molecules with more than one chiral centre (such as threo and erythro isomers).
iii. Recognition of chirality in molecules like biphenyls, allenes, and spirans, where optical activity occurs without a chiral carbon.
iv. Understanding of chirality due to helical shape in molecules (e.g., helicenes).
Options :
Explanation
Historical progression: (i) Pasteur/van 't Hoff/Le Bel asymmetric carbon (1874) -> (ii) Fischer carbohydrate diastereomers (1890s) -> (iii) Christie/Kenner biphenyl atropisomerism (1922) -> (iv) Newman synthesis and resolution of hexahelicene (1955-1956).
कालानुक्रम: काइरल कार्बन (i) -> एकाधिक काइरल केंद्र (ii) -> बाइफेनिल अक्षीय काइरलता (iii) -> हेलिकल काइरलता (iv)। सही क्रम A (i, ii, iii, iv) है।
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1510📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesSN1 vs SN2 Fundamentals
Which of the following statements correctly describes the key features of the SN1S_N1 and SN2S_N2 nucleophilic substitution mechanisms?
i. SN1S_N1 reactions involve a two-step mechanism with a carbocation intermediate, resulting in racemization of chiral centers.
ii. SN2S_N2 reactions occur via a single-step mechanism, where the nucleophile attacks the substrate in a backside attack, leading to inversion of configuration.
iii. The rate of SN1S_N1 reactions depends only on the concentration of the nucleophile.
iv. SN2S_N2 reactions are favoured by polar protic solvents.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i and ii are correct: SN1S_N1 produces planar carbocations with racemization; SN2S_N2 proceeds via a concerted backside attack with Walden inversion.
कथन i और ii सही हैं (SN1S_N1 में रेसिमीकरण और SN2S_N2 में विन्यास का प्रतिलोमन / Walden inversion होता है)।
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1511📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesE2 Elimination Mechanism
Which of the following statements best describes the E2 elimination mechanism?
Explanation
The E2 (bimolecular elimination) reaction is a single-step concerted process where a strong base removes a β\beta-proton while the leaving group departs from the α\alpha-carbon in an anti-periplanar transition state.
E2 विलोपन एक संनादी (Concerted) एकल-चरणीय प्रक्रिया है जिसमें क्षार द्वारा प्रोटॉन का निष्कासन और निष्कासित समूह का जाना एक साथ होता है।
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1512📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesE2 Stereochemical Requirement
In an E2 reaction, what is the stereochemical requirement for the elimination to occur?
Explanation
E2 elimination strictly requires an anti-coplanar / anti-periplanar conformation (dihedral angle θ=180∘\theta = 180^\circ) between the β−H\beta-H and α−leaving group\alpha-\text{leaving group} to maximize orbital overlap for the forming π\pi-bond.
E2 विलोपन के लिए त्रिविम-रासायनिक आवश्यकता यह है कि निष्कासित समूह और हाइड्रोजन परस्पर एंटी-पेरीप्लेनर (Anti-periplanar, 180∘180^\circ) होने चाहिए।
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1513📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesPyrolytic Elimination & Shapiro Reaction
Which of the following statements regarding Pyrolytic Eliminations and the Shapiro Reaction are correct?
i. In pyrolytic elimination, the reaction mechanism involves direct elimination without the formation of a carbocation intermediate.
ii. The Shapiro reaction typically involves the elimination of a halide from an aryl or alkyl halide using strong bases under thermal conditions.
iii. Pyrolytic elimination requires specific stereochemistry, with the leaving group and proton being anti-periplanar to each other for the elimination to occur.
iv. The Shapiro reaction leads to the formation of alkenes via a radical mechanism rather than a carbocation intermediate.
Options :
Explanation
Pyrolytic eliminations (e.g. ester pyrolysis, Chugaev reaction, Cope elimination) are concerted unimolecular eliminations (EiE_i) proceeding via cyclic transition states (syn-coplanar geometry) without carbocations.
कथन i, ii और iii सही हैं।
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1514📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesE1 vs E2 Detailed Comparison
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Elimination reactions (E1 and E2)?
i. E2 reactions proceed in a concerted mechanism, where the base abstracts a proton and the leaving group departs simultaneously.
ii. E1 reactions proceed via a carbocation intermediate and the leaving group departs before the proton is abstracted.
iii. E2 reactions are favoured by strong bases, whereas E1 reactions are favoured by weak bases.
iv. Both E1 and E2 reactions require the leaving group to be anti-periplanar to the proton abstracted for the elimination to occur.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iii are all correct regarding E1 vs E2 kinetics, intermediate carbocation formation, and base strength dependencies (statement iv is false because E1 has no anti-periplanar requirement).
कथन i, ii और iii सही हैं (E1 में एंटी-पेरीप्लेनर ज्यामिति की बाध्यता नहीं होती)।
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1515📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesNamed Organic Reactions Match
Match the following reactions with their correct descriptions:
List I (Reaction Type):
1. Diazonium Coupling
2. Vilsmeier-Haack
3. Gattermann-Koch
4. Fries Rearrangement

List II (Description):
i. Formation of aromatic aldehydes via formylation using CO and HCl with Lewis acid
ii. Formation of aryl ketones / hydroxyaryl ketones via hydroxyacylation of phenols
iii. Coupling of diazonium salts with aromatic compounds to form azo dyes
iv. Formation of aromatic aldehydes by electrophilic substitution with a formyl group using DMF and POCl3

Options :
Explanation
1 -> iii (Diazonium coupling = azo dyes), 2 -> iv (Vilsmeier-Haack = DMF/POCl3 formylation), 3 -> i (Gattermann-Koch = CO/HCl formylation), 4 -> ii (Fries rearrangement = phenolic ester to hydroxyaryl ketone).
1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii सही मिलान है।
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1516📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesNucleophile and Leaving Group Role
Match the following effects with their corresponding statements on the leaving group and attacking nucleophile.
List I (Effect):
1. Good leaving group
2. Strong nucleophile
3. Weak nucleophile
4. Poor leaving group

List II (Explanation):
i. Increases the nucleophilicity of the attacking nucleophile
ii. Facilitates the departure of the leaving group, stabilizing the transition state
iii. Decreases the rate of nucleophilic substitution
iv. Reduces the rate of substitution due to difficulty in departure

Options :
Explanation
1 -> ii (Good leaving group facilitates departure), 2 -> i (Strong nucleophile accelerates bimolecular attack), 3 -> iii (Weak nucleophile slows down substitution), 4 -> iv (Poor leaving group impedes rate).
1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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1517📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesMechanistic Concepts Match
Match the following
List I (Mechanism/Concept):
i. Neighbouring group participation
ii. Electrophilic substitution on aromatic ring
iii. Nucleophilic substitution in aliphatic substrates
iv. Reactivity of aromatic substrates

List II (Effect/Explanation):
1. Increases reactivity through electron donation, stabilizing the transition state (anchimeric assistance)
2. Involves the attack of an electrophile on a nucleophilic aromatic ring
3. Follows a bimolecular mechanism and is dependent on the nature of the leaving group
4. Aromatic substrates often have higher activation energy for substitution due to electron density on the ring.

Options :
Explanation
i -> 1 (NGP = anchimeric rate enhancement), ii -> 2 (EAS = electrophile on π\pi-ring), iii -> 3 (Aliphatic SN2S_N2 = bimolecular), iv -> 4 (Aromatic stability barrier).
1-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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1518📚Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesReaction Types and Intermediate Match
Match the following
List I (Reaction Mechanism/Concept):
i. Allylic halogenation
ii. Neighbouring group assistance
iii. Nucleophilic substitution in aliphatic compounds
iv. Reactivity of aromatic substrates

List II (Explanation/Outcome):
1. Increases reactivity by providing a more stable intermediate
2. Radical intermediates are involved in the formation of products
3. Aromatic compounds require a more specific electrophilic attack for substitution
4. Affected by the nature of the nucleophile and leaving group, follows a SN1 or SN2 mechanism

Options :
Explanation
i -> 2 (Allylic halogenation = radical intermediates), ii -> 1 (NGP assistance = stabilizes intermediate/transition state), iii -> 4 (Aliphatic substitution = SN1/SN2S_N1/S_N2 dependence), iv -> 3 (Aromatic substitution = electrophilic attack).
i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 सही मिलान है।
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1519📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationConservation Equipment & Applications
Match List I with List II
List I (Conservation Equipment):
1. Whirling Psychrometer
2. X-ray radiographic equipment
3. Leaf caster
4. Freeze-dryer

List II (Application):
I. For measuring RH (Relative Humidity)
II. For filling holes in folios / paper repair
III. For drying waterlogged books and killing insects
IV. For seeing below the surface / internal structure of artifacts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
1 -> I (Whirling Psychrometer measures RH), 2 -> IV (X-ray radiography examines subsurface joints/cracks), 3 -> II (Leaf caster fills holes in degraded paper manuscripts), 4 -> III (Freeze-dryer safely dries water-damaged archival books and eliminates pests).
1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III सही मिलान है।
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1520📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationHazardous Conservation Chemicals
Though arsenic is an excellent insecticide, it is not suitable for treating museum objects because :
i. It can only be used in aqueous solution, which is generally to be avoided
ii. It is hazardous to the person treating the object
iii. If applied arsenic remains on the treated object as a toxic residue
iv. It makes objects porous
v. It reacts with organic objects
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Explanation
Arsenic compounds (arsenical soaps/liquids) are highly toxic, accumulate permanently as hazardous residues on historical taxidermy/herbaria, and pose severe health risks to conservators and handlers.
आर्सेनिक अत्यधिक विषाक्त होता है (ii) और उपचारित वस्तु पर हमेशा के लिए जहरीले अवशेष के रूप में छूट जाता है (iii)।
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1521📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationBiodeterioration Symptoms Match
Match List I with List II
List I (Symptom of biodeterioration):
1. Foxing
2. Permanent disfigurement
3. Powder formation
4. Odor

List II (Type of object):
i. Wooden object
ii. Leather object
iii. Paper
iv. Photograph

Options :
Explanation
1 -> iii (Foxing = reddish-brown fungal/iron spots on Paper), 2 -> ii (Permanent disfigurement / red rot on Leather), 3 -> i (Powder formation / frass from wood-boring beetles in Wooden objects), 4 -> iv (Chemical vinegar odor in degrading Photographs/acetate films).
1-iii (फॉक्सिंग = कागज पर भूरे धब्बे), 2-ii (चमड़े पर विकृति), 3-i (लकड़ी में बोरों द्वारा पाउडर बनना), 4-iv (तस्वीरों/फिल्मों में गंध)। सही उत्तर A है।
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1522📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationLight Degradation & Lux Limits
Which of the following is the primary reason for controlling light exposure in the conservation of museum objects?
Explanation
Visible light and UV radiation deliver photochemical energy that cleaves molecular bonds, causing irreversible cellulose depolymerization, yellowing, embrittlement, and colorant fading in organic textiles, paintings, and manuscripts.
प्रकाश नियंत्रण का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य कलाकृतियों के रंग उड़ने (Fading), मलिनकिरण और प्रकाश-रासायनिक क्षरण (Photochemical degradation) को रोकना है।
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1523📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationIntegrated Pest Management
What is the most effective method for controlling insect damage in museum collections?
Explanation
Integrated Pest Management (IPM)—maintaining strict environmental climate control (T≤20∘C,RH≤50%T \le 20^\circ\text{C}, RH \le 50\%), cleanliness, quarantine of incoming acquisitions, and sticky insect traps—is the premier non-destructive defense against museum pests.
कीट क्षति नियंत्रण का सबसे प्रभावी और सुरक्षित तरीका उचित भंडारण, तापमान-आर्द्रता नियंत्रण और एकीकृत कीट प्रबंधन (IPM) है।
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1524📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationManuscript Conservation Workflow
Arrange in order the steps involved in treatment of a paper manuscript:
i) Removal of acidity (Deacidification)
ii) Filling of holes
iii) Opening of damaged binding
iv) Numbering of folios
v) Binding of folios
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Explanation
Sequential steps in manuscript conservation: (iv) Numbering and recording folios -> (iii) Opening damaged binding -> (i) Aqueous/non-aqueous deacidification -> (ii) Tissue/leaf-casting filling of holes -> (v) Archival re-binding.
पांडुलिपि संरक्षण के सही चरण: पन्नों की नंबरिंग (iv) -> क्षतिग्रस्त बाइंडिंग को खोलना (iii) -> अम्लता हटाना/डीएसिडिफिकेशन (i) -> छेदों को भरना (ii) -> पुनः बाइंडिंग (v)। सही क्रम C है।
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1525📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationTerracotta Artifact Conservation
Which of the following methods is commonly used in the conservation of terracotta artifacts?
Explanation
Fragile, friable unglazed terracotta is consolidated and strengthened by vacuum impregnation with acrylic polymers (e.g., Paraloid B-72 in acetone) or alkoxysilanes.
टेराकोटा (पकी मिट्टी) की कलाकृतियों के संरक्षण में सामग्री को मजबूत करने के लिए पैरालॉइड B-72 जैसे एडहेसिव्स और कंसोलिडेंट्स का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1526📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationMuseum Mannequins Conservation
What is commonly used as a base material in the conservation of mannequins?
Explanation
Historical display mannequins and museum armatures are traditionally fabricated and structurally consolidated using inert seasoned wood cores coated with plaster of Paris and inert batting.
मैनक्विन (पुतलों) के संरक्षण और निर्माण में आधार सामग्री के रूप में लकड़ी और प्लास्टर (Wood and plaster) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1527📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPaper Curative Conservation
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the curative conservation of paper materials (currency notes, judicial papers, and manuscripts)?
i. Currency notes should be handled with gloves to prevent oil and dirt from hands damaging the surface.
ii. Judicial papers can be restored using chemical bleaching to remove stains.
iii. Manuscripts should be stored in a controlled environment with low humidity and temperature to prevent deterioration.
iv. Paper materials should be cleaned using abrasive methods for better preservation.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i and iii are sound conservation practices (handling paper with nitrile/cotton gloves to avoid skin sebum and maintaining climate-controlled archival storage).
कथन i और iii सही हैं (दस्तावेजों को दस्ताने पहनकर संभालना और नियंत्रित तापमान-आर्द्रता में रखना चाहिए)।
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1528📚Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPaper Deacidification & Preservation
Which of the following statements are accurate in the context of curative conservation of paper materials in museums?
i. Currency notes must be de-acidified to slow down the process of aging and deterioration.
ii. Judicial papers should be kept in an acidic environment to ensure their longevity.
iii. Manuscripts are best preserved when they are handled with caution and stored in archival-quality folders.
iv. Paper materials may require re-binding to ensure structural integrity if the binding has degraded.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct archival principles: neutralizing acid hydrolysis via deacidification, storing in acid-free archival enclosures, and non-destructive re-binding.
कथन i, iii और iv सही हैं (कागज के क्षरण को रोकने के लिए डी-एसिडिफिकेशन आवश्यक है और एसिड-फ्री फोल्डर्स में रखना चाहिए)।
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1529📚Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesAntiquities Legislation in India
Antiquity is defined under
i. The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act
ii. The Treasure Trove Act
iii. The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act
iv. The World Heritage Convention
v. The Venice Charter
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Explanation
In Indian statutory legislation, 'Antiquity' (any article/manuscript in existence for ≥100 years\ge 100\text{ years}) is formally defined under Section 2(1)(a) of the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act 1972 and the AMASR Act 1958.
भारतीय कानून में 'पुरावशेष' (Antiquity) को मुख्य रूप से 'पुराशेष और बहुमूल्य कलाकृति अधिनियम 1972' और 'AMASR अधिनियम 1958' (i and iii only) के तहत परिभाषित किया गया है।
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1530📚Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesMuseums of Jammu and Kashmir
Where is the Dogra Art Museum located?
Explanation
The Dogra Art Museum (housing world-famous Basohli miniature paintings of Rasamanjari) is located at the Mubarak Mandi Palace complex in Jammu City.
डोगरा आर्ट म्यूजियम (Dogra Art Museum) मुबारक मंडी पैलेस, जम्मू में स्थित है।
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1531📚Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesJ&K State Archives
What is an archive, and when was the first archive established in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
An archive preserves non-current historical administrative government records and rare manuscripts; the State Archives Department of J&K was formally created in 1954 under G.H. Khan.
अभिलेखागार (Archive) ऐतिहासिक अभिलेखों का संग्रह है, और जम्मू-कश्मीर में राज्य अभिलेखागार विभाग की स्थापना 1954 में की गई थी।
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1532📚Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesArchaeological Artifact Typologies
Match the types of archaeological objects with their descriptions :
Column A:
1. Pottery
2. Terracotta figurines
3. Stone tools
4. Coins

Column B:
i. Small objects made from clay representing human or animal figures.
ii. Fired clay objects, often with decorative patterns or designs.
iii. Used for cutting and shaping materials, often chipped or polished.
iv. Metal objects used for currency, bearing the image of rulers.

Options :
Explanation
1 -> ii (Pottery = fired clay vessels), 2 -> i (Terracotta figurines = clay human/animal figures), 3 -> iii (Stone tools = chipped/polished lithics), 4 -> iv (Coins = numismatic currency bearing ruler portraits).
1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv सही मिलान है।
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1533📚Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesSPS Museum Srinagar
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the establishment and history of the SPS Museum in Srinagar?
i. The SPS Museum was established in 1898.
ii. The museum is named after Maharaja Pratap Singh of Jammu and Kashmir.
iii. The museum showcases a rich collection of artifacts related to the cultural heritage of Kashmir.
iv. The museum was initially part of the Mughal architecture restoration project in Srinagar.
Options :
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iii are correct: Sri Pratap Singh (SPS) Museum was established in 1898 at Lal Mandi, Srinagar, named after Maharaja Pratap Singh, housing famous Gilgit manuscripts, Harwan tiles, and Gandharan sculptures.
कथन i, ii और iii सही हैं (SPS संग्रहालय की स्थापना 1898 में लाल मंडी, श्रीनगर में महाराजा प्रताप सिंह के नाम पर हुई थी)।
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1534📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychosocial Factors in Disability
Match the following pairs related to psychosocial factors of disability :
i. Stigma
ii. Body image
iii. Self - concept
iv. Anger

Psychosocial description:
1. Depreciation and devaluation emancipating from prejudice
2. Blaming themselves for their condition
3. Culturally influenced personal conceptions of attractiveness
4. Perceptions of their own strengths and weaknesses
5. Evaluative component of self

Options :
Explanation
i -> 1 (Stigma = societal prejudice devaluation), ii -> 3 (Body image = cultural conception of physical appearance), iii -> 4 (Self-concept = perception of personal strengths/weaknesses), iv -> 2 (Anger = internal self-blame and external hostility).
i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2 सही मिलान है।
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1535📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentEthics in Rehabilitation
Providing a rationale for psychological intervention to a client with disability in the context of the rehabilitation teams treatment is an aspect of which ethical principle?
Explanation
Informed consent ethically mandates that clients receive a clear, comprehensible explanation of the nature, purpose, rationale, anticipated benefits, and potential risks of psychological interventions.
मनोवैज्ञानिक हस्तक्षेप के औचित्य और प्रक्रिया की पूरी जानकारी ग्राहक को देना 'सूचित सहमति' (Informed consent) के नैतिक सिद्धांत का हिस्सा है।
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1536📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentRehabilitation Psychologist Scope
Which of this is NOT a role of a Rehabilitation Psychologist?
Explanation
Occupational therapy is a distinct licensed allied healthcare profession focused on restoring motor coordination, biomechanics, and ergonomic task performance.
व्यावसायिक थेरेपी (Occupational therapy) एक अलग संबद्ध चिकित्सा पेशा है, यह पुनर्वास मनोवैज्ञानिक का प्रत्यक्ष कार्य नहीं है।
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1537📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentLandmark Literature in Rehab Psychology
One of the pioneering books on psychosocial aspects of disability "Physical Disability: A Psychological Approach" was authored by which social psychologist?
Explanation
Dr. Beatrice A. Wright authored the landmark, foundational text 'Physical Disability: A Psychological Approach' in 1960 (revised in 1983 as 'Physical Disability: A Psychosocial Approach').
विकलांगता के मनोसामाजिक पहलुओं पर प्रसिद्ध पुस्तक 'Physical Disability: A Psychological Approach' की लेखिका बीट्राइस राइट (Beatrice Wright, 1960) थीं।
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1538📚Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentNeuropsychology of Language
Broca's aphasia is consequence of brain damage which affects which area of functioning?
Explanation
Damage to Broca's area in the posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere causes non-fluent, expressive expressive language impairment, halting speech output, and communication deficits.
ब्रोकास अफ़ेसिया (Broca's aphasia) मस्तिष्क के बाएं ललाट लोब में क्षति के कारण होता है, जो मौखिक संचार (Communication / वाक् अभिव्यक्ति) को बाधित करता है।
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1539📚Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsLocomotor Functional Deficits
Which of the following areas of functional limitations is less likely to manifest in locomotor disabilities?
Explanation
Pure locomotor (orthopedic/musculoskeletal) disabilities directly impair ambulation, joint motion, and weight-bearing, but typically do not intrinsically affect expressive or receptive communication.
लोकोमोटर (चलने-फिरने संबंधी) विकलांगता में संचार संबंधी सीमा (Communication limitation) आमतौर पर प्रत्यक्ष रूप से नहीं देखी जाती है।
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1540📚Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsClinical Remission vs Cure
When all signs and symptoms of the disease have disappeared in the body, but it does not indicate that the disease has been cured, is referred to as
Explanation
Complete remission (e.g. in oncology or autoimmune diseases) indicates the total absence of detectable clinical symptoms and lesions, though malignant or dormant cells may persist with risk of future relapse.
जब किसी बीमारी के सभी लक्षण पूरी तरह गायब हो जाते हैं लेकिन स्थायी इलाज की पुष्टि नहीं होती, तो इसे 'पूर्ण शमन' (Complete remission) कहा जाता है।
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1541📚Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsAssistive Devices & Implants
Cochlear implants are a surgical procedure done for which type of impairment?
Explanation
A cochlear implant is an electronic neuroprosthetic device surgically placed in the inner ear to stimulate the auditory nerve directly in individuals with severe-to-profound sensorineural hearing loss.
कोक्लियर इम्प्लांट (Cochlear implant) गंभीर श्रवण दोष (Hearing impairment / बहरापन) के उपचार के लिए की जाने वाली एक सर्जिकल प्रक्रिया है।
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1542📚Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsADIP Scheme Mandates
The Government of India, ADIP scheme provides some aid for:
i. Purchase of aids/appliances
ii. Fitment of prosthesis
iii. Cochlear implant surgery
Which of this is True?
Explanation
The ADIP Scheme (Assistance to Disabled Persons for Purchase/Fitting of Aids and Appliances) provides financial support for durable aids, prosthetic fitment, and fully subsidized cochlear implant surgeries (up to Rs. 6.0 Lakhs for children).
ADIP योजना सहायक उपकरणों की खरीद (i), कृत्रिम अंगों का फिटमेंट (ii), और कोक्लियर इम्प्लांट सर्जरी (iii) तीनों के लिए वित्तीय सहायता प्रदान करती है। सही उत्तर D (i, ii and iii) है।
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1543📚Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsResearch Validity Threats
A researcher who wants to study effectiveness of social skills training on young adults with physical disabilities. He selects all his participants from a single rehabilitation center. This research is likely to suffer from the problem of
Explanation
Sampling exclusively from a single isolated institutional facility severely restricts sample representativeness, compromising generalizability to the broader population (threat to External Validity).
एक ही केंद्र से सभी प्रतिभागियों का चयन करने से निष्कर्षों को सामान्यीकृत नहीं किया जा सकता, यह 'बाहरी वैधता' (External validity) के लिए खतरा है।
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1544📚Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsNon-Probability Sampling Techniques
In a study exploring the impact of support groups on the mental health parents of children with cerebral palsy. Researchers rely on existing support group members to refer earlier support group members. This is an example of
Explanation
Snowball (chain-referral) sampling is a non-probability sampling method where existing study participants recruit or refer future subjects from their acquaintance network.
जब शोधकर्ता मौजूदा प्रतिभागियों के माध्यम से नए प्रतिभागियों तक पहुंचते हैं, तो इसे 'स्नोबॉल नमूनाकरण' (Snowball sampling / चेन रेफरल) कहा जाता है।
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1545📚Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsCategorical Data Analysis
As a researcher you want to examine if there exist a statistically significant difference in the proportion of people who have reported they have benefitted from a said rehabilitation intervention and those who have not. Which statistical method would be most appropriate?
Explanation
The Chi-square test of independence (or goodness of fit) evaluates whether observed frequencies and proportions in categorical binary outcome tables (2×22\times 2) differ significantly from expected chance distributions.
हस्तक्षेप से लाभान्वित और गैर-लाभान्वित व्यक्तियों के अनुपातों (Proportions) के अंतर की जांच के लिए 'काई-स्क्वायर टेस्ट' (Chi-square test) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1546📚Experimental Designs, Psychological Assessment & PsychometricsTrue Experimental Designs
If a rehabilitation psychologist wants to study the effectiveness of a psychological intervention conducted for a period of 15 days, to test its effects in building the self-efficacy of rehabilitation clients. Which design would be the most effective for this study?
Explanation
The randomized Pretest-Posttest Control Group Design is a gold-standard true experimental design that controls for internal validity threats (history, maturation, testing, regression to the mean).
हस्तक्षेप की प्रभावशीलता के सटीक मूल्यांकन के लिए 'नियंत्रण समूह के साथ पूर्व-परीक्षण और उत्तर-परीक्षण डिज़ाइन' (Pretest-posttest, with control group) सबसे प्रभावी है।
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1547📚Experimental Designs, Psychological Assessment & PsychometricsMultivariate Analysis (MANOVA)
Which method of analysis is best suited to test mean differences when there are more than one dependent variables, and the dependent variables are intercorrelated?
Explanation
MANOVA (Multivariate Analysis of Variance) simultaneously evaluates group mean differences across multiple continuous, correlated dependent variables while controlling Type I family-wise error.
जब दो या दो से अधिक परस्पर संबंधित आश्रित चरों के औसत अंतरों का परीक्षण करना हो, तो 'मैनोवा' (MANOVA) सबसे उपयुक्त विधि है।
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1548📚Experimental Designs, Psychological Assessment & PsychometricsNon-Parametric Statistical Tests Match
Match the following non-parametric statistical techniques with their purpose:
i. Mann Whitney U Test
ii. Kendall's Tau
iii. Wilcoxon Signed Rank Test
iv. Kruskal Wallis Test

Purpose:
1. Determine strength and direction of association
2. Compare two independent groups
3. Compares three or more (paired) dependent samples
4. Compare three or more independent groups
5. Compare two (paired) dependent samples

Options:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Mann-Whitney U = 2 independent groups), ii -> 1 (Kendall's Tau = rank association correlation), iii -> 5 (Wilcoxon Signed-Rank = 2 paired dependent samples), iv -> 4 (Kruskal-Wallis = 3+ independent groups).
i-2, ii-1, iii-5, iv-4 सही मिलान है।
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1549📚Experimental Designs, Psychological Assessment & PsychometricsProjective vs Expressive Techniques
In projective test individuals project their unconscious thoughts, feelings, or desires onto ambiguous stimuli. Which of this test is not based on the projection of a predetermined ambiguous stimuli?
Explanation
The House-Tree-Person (HTP) test is an expressive drawing technique where the client generates their own visual drawings on blank paper rather than interpreting predetermined ambiguous external picture cards.
हाउस-ट्री-पर्सन (HTP) टेस्ट एक अभिव्यंजक ड्रॉइंग तकनीक है, जिसमें पहले से बने अस्पष्ट चित्र कार्ड (Predetermined ambiguous stimuli) प्रस्तुत नहीं किए जाते।
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1550📚Experimental Designs, Psychological Assessment & PsychometricsClinical Case Formulation
Assessment is related to case-formulation as a matter of which of these processes?
i. Results
ii. Interpretation
iii. Insights
iv. Inferences
Options:
Explanation
Clinical case formulation transforms raw assessment psychometric findings through clinical interpretation (ii), psychological insights (iii), and evidence-based diagnostic inferences (iv) into a coherent explanatory treatment roadmap.
केस फॉर्मूलेशन में मनोवैज्ञानिक परिणामों की व्याख्या (ii), अंतर्दृष्टि (iii), और नैदानिक निष्कर्ष (iv) की प्रक्रियाएं शामिल होती हैं।
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1551📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsSystemic Family Interventions
Which of this is an interviewing technique specifically used in systemic therapies such as family therapy?
Explanation
Circular questioning (developed by the Milan Systemic Family Therapy team) asks family members about interpersonal relationships and differences among other family members to uncover relational patterns.
पारिवारिक प्रणाली चिकित्सा में संबंधों और अंतःक्रियाओं को समझने के लिए 'सर्कुलर प्रश्नोत्तरी' (Circular questioning) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1552📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsGroup Therapy Limitations
Which of the following are potential disadvantages of group therapy:
i. Risk to confidentiality
ii. High degree of client involvement required
iii. Limited individual attention
iv. Managing conflicts in group
Options:
Explanation
Core inherent limitations of the group therapy format include the risk of breaches of peer confidentiality (i) and reduced individualized therapeutic attention (iii).
समूह चिकित्सा के प्रमुख नुकसानों में गोपनीयता के उल्लंघन का जोखिम (i) और सीमित व्यक्तिगत ध्यान (iii) शामिल हैं।
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1553📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsCulturally Responsive Rehabilitation
While working with a clients with a physical disability experiencing loneliness and depression, what would a culturally sensitive counsellor prioritize?
Explanation
In collectivist cultures, culturally sensitive interventions leverage extended family support networks, peer cohorts, and accessible community spaces to overcome social isolation.
एक सांस्कृतिक रूप से संवेदनशील परामर्शदाता सामाजिक एकीकरण रणनीतियों, विस्तारित परिवार और सामुदायिक संसाधनों (Social integration strategies) को प्राथमिकता देगा।
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1554📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsSocial vs Instrumental Skills
As a part of skills training, you have train persons with disabilities with social skills and instrumental skills. Which of these are instrumental skills:
i. Creating a resume
ii. Initiating a conversation
iii. Refusing a request
iv. Managing a conflict
Options:
Explanation
Instrumental skills involve concrete task-oriented actions for vocational and independent living (e.g., creating a resume, budgeting, cooking), whereas conversation initiation, refusal, and conflict management are social/interpersonal skills.
बायोडाटा/रिज्यूमे बनाना (Creating a resume) एक व्यावहारिक 'इंस्ट्रूमेंटल स्किल' (i) है, जबकि अन्य सामाजिक कौशल हैं। सही विकल्प A (Only i) है।
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1555📚Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsBehavioral Shaping Techniques
A rehabilitation counselor working with physiotherapist uses shaping to help a client with polio learn to walk and balance using a caliper. Here shaping involves
Explanation
Shaping (method of successive approximations / B.F. Skinner) involves systematically reinforcing small, progressive approximations toward a complex terminal target behavior.
शेपिंग (Shaping) में वांछित जटिल व्यवहार तक पहुंचने के लिए क्रमिक सन्निकट व्यवहारों को पुनर्बलित (Reinforcing successive approximations) किया जाता है।
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1556📚Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Token Economy Systems
Token economies are being used in a psychiatric rehabilitation facility to effectively maintain or change a broad range of behaviors. What is the underlying concept of behaviourism which is operating here?
Explanation
A token economy is a formal Contingency Management system based on operant conditioning, where tokens earned as secondary reinforcers for target behaviors are exchanged for backup reinforcers.
टोकन इकोनॉमी ऑपरेंट कंडीशनिंग के 'आकस्मिकता प्रबंधन' (Contingency management) के सिद्धांत पर आधारित प्रणाली है।
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1557📚Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)CBR Framework Matrix Match
Match the Factors of implementing Community Based Rehabilitation with their specific aspects:
i. Policies
ii. Strategies
iii. Activities
iv. Challenges

Specific aspects:
1. Providing technical aids and services
2. Helping rural persons with disabilities migrate to city rehabilitation centers
3. Determining mainstreaming and participation
4. Planning programme coverage
5. Inadequate access

Options:
Explanation
i -> 3 (Policies = establishing inclusive mandates for mainstreaming and participation), ii -> 4 (Strategies = planning multi-sectoral programme coverage), iii -> 1 (Activities = delivering technical aids and local services), iv -> 5 (Challenges = structural inadequate access and geographical barriers).
i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-5 सही मिलान है।
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1558📚Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Disability Rights and Empowerment
Community Based Rehabilitation (CBR) can be a source of empowerment for persons with disabilities only if
Explanation
CBR fosters authentic empowerment when it shifts from charity to a human-rights framework that unconditionally respects and upholds the equal rights, dignity, and autonomy of persons with disabilities.
CBR तभी वास्तविक सशक्तिकरण का स्रोत बन सकता है जब विकलांग व्यक्तियों के अधिकारों और मानवीय गरिमा (Rights and dignity) को पूर्ण मान्यता मिले।
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1559📚General English & ComprehensionSubjunctive Mood
She insisted that he _______ (attend) the meeting despite his busy schedule.
Explanation
Verbs of demand or insistence ('insisted that...') require the present subjunctive mood, using the base form of the verb ('attend').
Subjunctive mood में 'insist that' के बाद क्रिया का मूल रूप (Base form: 'attend') प्रयुक्त होता है।
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1560📚General English & ComprehensionPhrasal Verbs
Choose the correct option to complete the sentence:
She needs to _______ her old habits if she wants to succeed.
Explanation
The phrasal verb 'give up' means to abandon or quit a habit.
पुरानी बुरी आदतों को त्यागने या छोड़ने के लिए 'give up' का प्रयोग होता है।
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1561📚General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
What is the primary cause of climate change, according to the passage?
Explanation
As stated in the passage, human industrial and deforestation activities significantly increasing atmospheric greenhouse gases are the primary cause of global warming.
गद्यांश के अनुसार मानवीय गतिविधियों से ग्रीनहाउस गैसों का बढ़ता स्तर जलवायु परिवर्तन का मुख्य कारण है।
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1562📚General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
What are some suggested actions to combat climate change as mentioned in the passage?
Explanation
The passage lists: 'Planting trees, reducing carbon footprints, and shifting to renewable energy'.
गद्यांश में पेड़ लगाना, कार्बन फुटप्रिंट कम करना और नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा का उपयोग सुझाया गया है।
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1563📚General English & ComprehensionSynonyms
Choose the best synonym for "pressing" as used in the first sentence.
Explanation
'Pressing issue' means a critical, demanding problem requiring immediate attention ('Urgent').
'Pressing' (गंभीर/अत्यावश्यक) का सर्वोत्तम पर्यायवाची 'Urgent' है।
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1564📚General English & ComprehensionWriting Pedagogy
How a process writing approach can be described?
Explanation
Process writing focuses on recursive stages of drafting, revising, and editing from holistic conceptual planning to sentence-level execution (Top-down approach).
प्रक्रिया लेखन उपागम (Process writing) को समग्र योजना से विशिष्ट विवरणों की ओर जाने वाले 'टॉप-डाउन दृष्टिकोण' (Top down approach) के रूप में वर्णित किया जाता है।
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1565📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISPatient Demographic Standards
What personal information is always recorded in medical records form?
Explanation
Demographic core baseline data mandated across all medical record formats consists of the patient's full legal name, date of birth / age, and gender.
मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड फॉर्म में रोगी का नाम, जन्म तिथि और लिंग (Name, date of birth, and gender) हमेशा अनिवार्य रूप से दर्ज किया जाता है।
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1566📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISMedical Records Legal Regulations
Which legal regulation governs the management of medical records in many countries?
Explanation
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA, 1996) is the gold standard benchmark regulation governing Protected Health Information (PHI) privacy, electronic security, and medical records management.
चिकित्सा अभिलेखों की गोपनीयता और सुरक्षा को नियंत्रित करने वाला अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्तर पर मान्यता प्राप्त कानून HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) है।
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1567📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISMedical Record Destruction Protocols
Identify the correct statement about medical record destruction:
Statement A: Destruction must comply with legal and institutional policies
Statement B: Records can be destroyed by any employee in the healthcare facility
Statement C: A destruction log must be maintained for every destroyed record.
Explanation
Statements A and C are correct: records must be destroyed in compliance with statutory retention laws, and a permanent destruction certificate/log documenting authorization, dates, and method must be retained (Statement B is false as only authorized personnel can execute destruction).
कथन A और C सही हैं (रिकॉर्ड का विनाश कानूनी नीतियों के अनुसार होना चाहिए और उसका एक स्थायी लॉग रखना अनिवार्य है)।
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1568📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISIMC Medical Record Numbering
Under the guidelines of the Indian Medical Council (IMC), which of the following is a mandatory requirement for maintaining medical records in a hospital or healthcare setting in India?
Explanation
Medical Council of India (NMC) regulations mandate that every inpatient medical record must be assigned a unique identification number (Unique Hospital Identification Number / CR Number) for systematic tracking.
भारतीय चिकित्सा परिषद (IMC/NMC) के अनुसार प्रत्येक रोगी के मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड को आसान पहचान के लिए एक विशिष्ट संख्या (Uniquely numbered) देना अनिवार्य है।
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1569📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISEmergency Department Documentation
Which of the following is a key component that should be included in the medical record form when documenting an emergency department visit in India?
Explanation
Emergency medical documentation mandates recording triage category, chief presenting complaint, clinical vital signs, diagnostic investigations, treatments administered, and final disposition.
आपातकालीन विभाग (Emergency department) के रिकॉर्ड में दी गई चिकित्सा, नैदानिक परीक्षण और उनके परिणाम (Summary of treatment and diagnostic results) दर्ज करना सबसे महत्वपूर्ण है।
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1570📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISBarcoding & Specimen Tracking
What is the role of barcoding in laboratory and medical record management?
Explanation
Linear and 2D matrix barcodes uniquely identify patient specimens and charts, automating specimen routing, tracking chain of custody, and eliminating fatal patient misidentification errors.
प्रयोगशाला और मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड में बारकोडिंग का मुख्य कार्य रोगी के नमूनों को ट्रैक करना और लेबलिंग त्रुटियों को कम करना (Track patient samples and reduce labelling errors) है।
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1571📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISPatient Admission Protocols
When admitting a patient, which document is typically required in Indian healthcare facilities?
Explanation
Indian hospitals require Government-issued photo identification (Aadhaar card, Voter ID, Passport, or ABHA health ID) to verify patient identity during central admission.
भारतीय अस्पतालों में रोगी के प्रवेश (Admission) के समय पहचान सत्यापन के लिए 'आधार कार्ड या कोई वैध पहचान पत्र' आवश्यक होता है।
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1572📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISData Quality in Admission
What protocol should be followed by the Central Admitting Office to minimize patient data entry errors?
Explanation
Best practices require validating demographics against official identification cards, implementing double-check verification, and using computerized barcode/ABHA auto-population tools.
डेटा प्रविष्टि त्रुटियों को रोकने के लिए रोगी द्वारा दिए गए दस्तावेजों से सभी जानकारी का मिलान (Cross-check) और स्वचालित प्रणालियों का उपयोग करना चाहिए।
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1573📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISContinuity of Care
Which of the following best reflects the primary aim of medical records in the context of providing continuity of care for patients in healthcare settings?
Explanation
Continuity of care relies on accurate, chronological documentation that seamlessly communicates clinical findings, diagnoses, medications, and care plans across multidisciplinary shifts and referral providers.
देखभाल की निरंतरता (Continuity of care) का मुख्य उद्देश्य रोगी के संपूर्ण चिकित्सा इतिहास का निरंतर विवरण प्रदान करना है ताकि विभिन्न डॉक्टर सटीक निर्णय ले सकें।
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1574📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISLaboratory Quality Assurance
When it comes to quality assurance in laboratory settings in India, which of the following aspects of medical records is a lab technician responsible for?
Explanation
Lab quality assurance mandates rigorous pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical protocol compliance, calibration logging, and documenting any specimen hemolysis or quality deviations.
प्रयोगशाला गुणवत्ता आश्वासन के तहत लैब तकनीशियन यह सत्यापित करने के लिए जिम्मेदार है कि सभी परीक्षण सही प्रोटोकॉल से किए जाएं और किसी भी विचलन को दर्ज किया जाए।
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1575📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISDISHA & Health Data Security
According to Indian regulations, which of the following is a critical aspect of maintaining medical records for lab technicians?
Explanation
Under DISHA and Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) standards, electronic laboratory diagnostic data must be protected with role-based access control, encryption, and secure storage to safeguard patient privacy.
भारतीय नियमों के अनुसार प्रयोगशाला रिकॉर्ड को सुरक्षित रूप से संग्रहीत किया जाना चाहिए ताकि गोपनीयता सुनिश्चित हो और DISHA मानकों का अनुपालन हो सके।
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1576📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISHMIS & Patient Satisfaction
How does the implementation of Hospital Management Information Systems impact patient satisfaction in Indian hospitals?
Explanation
Integrated HMIS systems enhance patient experience by automating outpatient registration, minimizing clinic waiting times, integrating digital diagnostic reporting, and eliminating billing errors.
HMIS लागू होने से अपॉइंटमेंट शेड्यूलिंग आसान होती है, कतार में लगने का समय घटता है और सटीक बिलिंग मिलती है, जिससे रोगी संतुष्टि बढ़ती है।
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1577📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISClinical Decision Support Systems (CDSS)
In Indian hospitals, which of the following is the key objective of clinical decision support systems integrated within Hospital Management Information Systems?
Explanation
Clinical Decision Support Systems (CDSS) provide real-time evidence-based clinical guidelines, drug-drug interaction alerts, diagnostic suggestions, and dosage calculators to assist clinicians at the point of care.
क्लिनिकल डिसीजन सपोर्ट सिस्टम (CDSS) का मुख्य उद्देश्य रोगी डेटा और क्लिनिकल दिशानिर्देशों का विश्लेषण करके डॉक्टरों को सूचित निर्णय लेने में मदद करना है।
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1578📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISElectronic Health Records (EHR)
What is the role of Electronic Health Records in Hospital Management Information System?
Explanation
Electronic Health Records (EHR) serve as the digital, longitudinal electronic repository storing comprehensive clinical histories, diagnostic reports, and treatments accessible across authorized health networks.
HMIS में इलेक्ट्रॉनिक स्वास्थ्य रिकॉर्ड (EHR) का प्राथमिक कार्य रोगी के संपूर्ण चिकित्सा इतिहास को डिजिटल रूप से सुरक्षित रखना है।
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1579📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISPositive Patient Identification
Which technology is commonly used for patient identification in Hospital Management Information System?
Explanation
Barcoded and QR-coded patient wristbands and identification cards are universally used in HMIS for rapid, error-free positive patient identification (PPID) at bedside and point of care.
अस्पताल प्रबंधन सूचना प्रणाली में रोगी की त्वरित पहचान के लिए 'बारकोड और क्यूआर कोड' (Barcodes and QR codes) का व्यापक उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1580📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsHMIS Modules
Which module in Hospital Management Information System is used for tracking medicines and surgical supplies?
Explanation
The Hospital Pharmacy and Material/Inventory Management module tracks drug stock levels, reorder points, expiry dates, batch numbers, and surgical consumable distribution.
दवाओं और सर्जिकल उपभोग्य सामग्रियों की ट्रैकिंग के लिए 'इन्वेंट्री प्रबंधन मॉड्यूल' (Inventory management) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1581📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsRetention Factors
What is a key factor in determining the retention period of a medical record?
Explanation
Medical record retention schedules are strictly determined by the clinical classification of the record (pediatric, adult, oncology, surgical) and prevailing statutory/regulatory legal mandates.
मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड की अवधारण अवधि (Retention period) निर्धारित करने का मुख्य कारक रिकॉर्ड का प्रकार और लागू कानूनी नियम (Type of record and legal regulations) होते हैं।
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1582📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsConfidential Destruction Protocols
What should be done with medical records after the retention period has expired?
Explanation
Once statutory retention periods lapse and institutional review concludes no pending legal hold exists, records must be permanently shredded or incinerated under strict chain-of-custody protocols.
अवधारण अवधि समाप्त होने के बाद मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड को पूर्ण गोपनीयता बनाए रखते हुए सुरक्षित तरीके से नष्ट (Destroy them in a secure manner) किया जाना चाहिए।
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1583📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsPermanent Vital Records
Which type of medical record requires indefinite preservation in most jurisdictions?
Explanation
Statutory Birth and Death registers, master patient indexes, and fetal death logs are permanent legal vital statistics records requiring permanent, indefinite preservation.
कानूनी और सांख्यिकीय महत्व के कारण 'जन्म और मृत्यु रिकॉर्ड' (Birth and death records) को अधिकांश अधिकार क्षेत्रों में अनिश्चित काल के लिए स्थायी रूप से सुरक्षित रखा जाता है।
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1584📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsIMC Code of Medical Ethics 2002
Which regulation in India governs the retention of medical records?
Explanation
Regulation 1.3 of the Indian Medical Council (Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002 mandates that every physician shall maintain medical records pertaining to inpatients for a period of 3 years from the commencement of treatment.
भारत में मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड के रखरखाव और अवधारण को 'भारतीय चिकित्सा परिषद (व्यावसायिक आचरण, शिष्टाचार और नैतिकता) विनियम 2002' द्वारा नियंत्रित किया जाता है।
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1585📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsResource Management & Health Analytics
How do medical record forms contribute to resource management within hospitals?
Explanation
Medical record clinical analytics inform hospital administrators about bed occupancy trends, specialty case-mixes, surgical theater utilization, and ICU demand for optimized resource staffing.
मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड प्रवेश, उपचार और परिणामों का डेटा प्रदान करते हैं जिससे बिस्तरों, उपकरणों और कर्मचारियों जैसे संसाधनों का कुशल आवंटन संभव होता है।
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1586📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsMedical Records vs Health Records
What is the primary distinction between medical records and health records in healthcare management in India?
Explanation
A medical record is provider-centric documentation of a patient's clinical illness encounters, whereas a health record (Personal Health Record / EHR) encompasses a holistic lifelong spectrum including lifestyle, wellness, and preventive data.
मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड रोगी के नैदानिक इतिहास और उपचार पर केंद्रित होते हैं, जबकि हेल्थ रिकॉर्ड में व्यापक व्यक्तिगत, जीवनशैली और समग्र स्वास्थ्य जानकारी शामिल होती है।
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1587📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsNABH Accreditation Standards
What role does medical records management play in hospital accreditation in India?
Explanation
NABH (National Accreditation Board for Hospitals) and JCI standards place heavy weight on Chapter 'Information Management System' (IMS) evaluating record completeness, legibility, confidentiality, and data governance.
अस्पताल प्रत्यायन (NABH Accreditation) में मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड प्रबंधन रोगी सुरक्षा, डेटा गोपनीयता और कानूनी अनुपालन के प्रमुख मूल्यांकन मानदंडों को पूरा करता है।
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1588📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeScope of ICD Classification
International Classification of Diseases, ICD is used to classify which of the following?
Explanation
The ICD classifies the entire spectrum of human health encounters: morbidity (diseases, injuries), mortality (underlying causes of death), and health-related social determinants.
ICD का उपयोग बीमारियों और चोटों, मृत्यु के कारणों और स्वास्थ्य स्थितियों (All of the above) सभी के वर्गीकरण के लिए किया जाता है।
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1589📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeDirection Sense Test
Rasik walked 20m towards North. Then he turned right and walked 30m. Then he turns right and walks 35m. Then he turns left and walks 15m. Finally, he turns left and walks 15m. In which direction and how many meters is he from the starting position?
Explanation
North +20m, East +30m, South -35m (net: -15m South, +30m East), East +15m (net: -15m South, +45m East), North +15m (net: 0m North-South, +45m East). Final position: 45m East of origin.
उत्तर 20m, दाएं 30m, दाएं 35m, बाएं 15m, बाएं 15m। प्रारंभिक बिंदु से अंतिम स्थिति 45 मीटर पूर्व (45m East) है।
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1590📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeReadmission Rate Quality Indicator
What is the significance of hospital readmission rates?
Explanation
The 30-day unplanned hospital readmission rate is a key quality and patient safety indicator reflecting the adequacy of inpatient treatment, post-discharge planning, and outpatient continuity of care.
अस्पताल पुनः प्रवेश दर (Readmission rate) डिस्चार्ज प्रक्रियाओं की प्रभावशीलता और फॉलो-अप देखभाल की गुणवत्ता का मूल्यांकन करती है।
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1591📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeSurgical Site Infection Surveillance
Why is it essential to calculate the surgical site infection rate in a hospital?
Explanation
Calculating Surgical Site Infection (SSI) rates is vital for infection control surveillance, measuring aseptic operating theater standards, and minimizing post-operative morbidity.
सर्जिकल साइट संक्रमण दर (SSI rate) की गणना सर्जरी से संबंधित अस्पताल-जनित संक्रमणों को मापने और रोकने के लिए आवश्यक है।
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1592📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeControlled Substance Documentation
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, what is a healthcare provider's legal obligation regarding the recording and prescription of controlled substances?
Explanation
Statutory drug schedules mandate detailed recording of all controlled substances in a dedicated register, including date, patient name/diagnosis, drug formulation, quantity dispensed, and prescriber signature.
ड्रग्स एंड कॉस्मेटिक्स एक्ट के तहत डॉक्टर को नियंत्रित दवाओं के पर्चे, मात्रा और नुस्खे के कारण का पूरा दस्तावेजीकरण करना कानूनी रूप से अनिवार्य है।
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1593📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMRD Productivity Aptitude
A technician processes 12 charts per hour. How many charts can they process in 8 hours if they take a 1-hour lunch break?
Explanation
Effective working hours =8−1=7 hours= 8 - 1 = 7\text{ hours}. Total charts processed =12 charts/hour×7 hours=84 charts= 12\text{ charts/hour} \times 7\text{ hours} = 84\text{ charts}.
प्रभावी कार्य घंटे =8−1=7= 8 - 1 = 7 घंटे। कुल प्रोसेस किए गए चार्ट =12×7=84= 12 \times 7 = 84 चार्ट।
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1594📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Natyashastra Alankars
According to Natyashastra, how many Alankars are there in Pushkar Vadya?
Explanation
Bharata Muni's Natyashastra (Chapter 33) codifies exactly 32 Pushkar Alankars (rhythmic embellishments for percussion drums).
भरत मुनि के नाट्यशास्त्र में पुष्कर वाद्य के 32 अलंकार (Thirty two Alankars) बताए गए हैं।
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1595📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Percussion Varnas (Boi)
How many sounds (Boi/Varna) are there in Pushkar Vadya?
Explanation
Ancient percussion theory enumerates 16 fundamental syllabic sound alphabets (Ksharaksharas / Varnas / Bois: Ka, Kha, Ga, Gha, Ta, Tha, Da, Dha, etc.) for Pushkar playing.
पुष्कर वाद्य में कुल 16 मूल वर्ण/ध्वनियां (Sixteen Bois/Varnas) बताई गई हैं।
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1596📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Avanaddha Vadya Jatis
How many Jatiyan are there in the playing of Avnadh Vadya?
Explanation
Classical texts classify 18 distinct stylistic playing jati rhythmic patterns (Jatis) in ancient Avanaddha percussion.
अवनद्ध वाद्य वादन में 18 जातियां (Eighteen Jatiyan) मानी गई हैं।
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1597📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Marjana in Natyashastra
How many "Marjana" of Avnadh Vadya are there in Natya Shastra?
Explanation
Natyashastra describes 3 Marjanas (tuning paste applications for pitch resonance): Mayuri, Ardha-Mayuri, and Karmaravi.
नाट्यशास्त्र में अवनद्ध वाद्यों की 3 मार्जनाएं (Three Marjanas: मयूरी, अर्ध-मयूरी, कार्मरवी) वर्णित हैं।
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1598📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Shruti System
How many Shruties are there in a Saptak?
Explanation
Ancient and modern Indian musicology divides one Saptak (octave) into exactly 22 microtonal intervals known as Shrutis (Chatushchatushchaiva Shadja-Madhyama-Panchamah...).
एक सप्तक में कुल 22 श्रुतियां (Twenty two Shruties) होती हैं।
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1599📚History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Fundamental Layas
How many Layas are there in Indian Classical Music?
Explanation
Indian classical music recognizes three fundamental speeds/layas of rhythm: Vilambit (slow), Madhya (medium), and Drut (fast).
भारतीय शास्त्रीय संगीत में मूल रूप से 3 लय (Three Layas: विलंबित, मध्य, द्रुत) होती हैं।
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1600📚Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsPunjab Gharana History
Which Tabla Gharana is known for Lala Bhawani Das?
Explanation
Lala Bhawani Das, a great Pakhawaj and Tabla master of Punjab, heavily influenced the creation and repertoire of the Punjab Tabla Gharana.
लाला भवानी दास (Lala Bhawani Das) का संबंध 'पंजाब घराने' (Punjab Gharana) की परंपरा से है।
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1601📚Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsJati Bheda Laghu Values
How many Matras of Laghu are there in Khand Jati Taal?
Explanation
In the Carnatic Tala system, Khanda Jati defines the Laghu (I5I_5) as possessing exactly 5 matras/aksharas.
कर्नाटक ताल पद्धति में खंड जाति में लघु का मान 5 मात्रा (Five matras) होता है।
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1602📚Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsCarnatic Tala Generation
How many Talas can be prepared from the Jhampa Taal according to Jati Bheda?
Explanation
By applying the 5 Jatis (Tisra, Chatusra, Khanda, Misra, Sankirna) to Jhampa Taal (I U OI\ U\ O), exactly 5 derivative talas are generated.
जाति भेद के अनुसार झंपा ताल से 5 तालें (Five Talas) बनाई जा सकती हैं।
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1603📚Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsJati Bheda Calculations
How many Talas can be prepared with five Talas according to Jati Bheda?
Explanation
Applying the 5 Jatis to 5 core Talas generates 5×5=255 \times 5 = 25 distinct Talas (and 7×5=357 \times 5 = 35 for the Sapta Talas).
5 तालों में 5 जातियों के प्रयोग से 5×5=255 \times 5 = 25 तालें (Twenty five) तैयार होती हैं।
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1604📚Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsGati Bheda Systems
How many types of Talas can be prepared from Triput Taal Sankirn according to Panchagatibheda?
Explanation
Applying the 5 Gatis (Tisra, Chatusra, Khanda, Misra, Sankirna) to Sankirna Triputa Taal yields 5 distinct Gati variations.
पंचगति भेद के अनुसार संकीर्ण त्रिपुट ताल से 5 तालें (Five Talas) बनती हैं।
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1605📚Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsCarnatic Tala Akshara Computation
How many matras will be there in Sankirna Dhruv Taal from Sankirna Gati?
Explanation
Sankirna Jati Dhruva Tala has structure I9OI9I9=9+2+9+9=29 aksharasI_9 O I_9 I_9 = 9 + 2 + 9 + 9 = 29\text{ aksharas}. In Sankirna Gati (9 swaras/matra9\text{ swaras/matra}), total pulses =29×9=261 matras/pulses= 29 \times 9 = 261\text{ matras/pulses}.
संकीर्ण जाति ध्रुव ताल की मात्राएं =9+2+9+9=29= 9+2+9+9 = 29। संकीर्ण गति (9) में कुल मात्राएं =29×9=261= 29 \times 9 = 261 होंगी।
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1606📚Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsLayakari (Biadi)
How many matras are required for Biadi Laya in Deep Chandi Taal?
Explanation
Deepchandi Taal has 14 matras. In Biadi Laya (134=741\frac{3}{4} = \frac{7}{4} speed), 1 cycle of 14 matras is completed in 14×47=8 matras\frac{14 \times 4}{7} = 8\text{ matras}.
दीपचंदी ताल (14 मात्रा) की बियाड़ी लय (rac74rac{7}{4}) ठीक 8 मात्राओं (Eight matras) में पूरी होती है।
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1607📚Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsKuad Laya Calculations
Which matra is perfect to start the Kuad Laya from Jhap Taal?
Explanation
Jhaptaal has 10 matras. Kuad Laya (114=541\frac{1}{4} = \frac{5}{4} speed) takes 10×45=8 matras\frac{10 \times 4}{5} = 8\text{ matras} to complete, meaning Kuad starts from the 6th matra to land on Sam at 10+1.
झपताल (10 मात्रा) में कुआड़ लय (rac54rac{5}{4}) 8 मात्रा लेती है, अतः यह 'छठी मात्रा' (Sixth Matra) से प्रारंभ होती है।
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1608📚Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsAda Laya in Chautal
How many Matras are required for Ada Laya in Chautal?
Explanation
Chautaal has 12 matras. Ada Laya (112=321\frac{1}{2} = \frac{3}{2} speed) completes 12 matras in 12×23=8 matras\frac{12 \times 2}{3} = 8\text{ matras}.
चौताल (12 मात्रा) की आड़ लय (rac32rac{3}{2}) पूरा करने के लिए 8 मात्राएं (Eight matras) लगती हैं।
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1609📚Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsTigun Layakari
How many matras are required for Tigun of Sool Taal?
Explanation
Sooltaal has 10 matras. In Tigun (3 times speed), the entire 10-matra cycle requires 103=313\frac{10}{3} = 3\frac{1}{3} (Three and one third of a Matra).
सूलताल (10 मात्रा) की तिगुन के लिए rac{10}{3} = 3 rac{1}{3} मात्रा (Three and one third of a Matra) की आवश्यकता होती है।
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1610📚Classical Talas, Aesthetics (Rasa-Bhava) & StylisticsRare Classical Talas
How many Matras are there in Ganesh Taal and Rudra Taal respectively?
Explanation
Ganesh Taal consists of 21 matras, while Rudra Taal consists of 11 matras.
गणेश ताल में 21 मात्राएं और रुद्र ताल में 11 मात्राएं (Twenty one and eleven) होती हैं।
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1611📚Classical Talas, Aesthetics (Rasa-Bhava) & StylisticsNatyashastra Rasas
How many Ras are there according to Acharaya Bharat?
Explanation
Bharata Muni's Natyashastra enumerates exactly 8 primary aesthetic sentiments (Rasas: Shringar, Hasya, Karuna, Raudra, Veera, Bhayanaka, Bibhatsa, Adbhuta).
भरत मुनि के नाट्यशास्त्र के अनुसार कुल 8 रस (Eight Ras) माने गए हैं।
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1612📚Classical Talas, Aesthetics (Rasa-Bhava) & StylisticsPunjab Gharana Features
Energetic, bold, and intricate rhythmic patterns in Tabla playing is the key feature of which one of the following gharanas?
Explanation
The Punjab Gharana (steeped in the martial Pakhawaj tradition of Lala Bhawani Das and Mian Qadir Baksh) is celebrated for its powerful, bold, open-handed, and complex mathematical layakaris.
खुले हाथ का ओजस्वी, साहसिक और जटिल लयकारी वादन 'पंजाब घराने' (Punjab Gharana) की मुख्य विशेषता है।
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1613📚Classical Talas, Aesthetics (Rasa-Bhava) & StylisticsClassification of Instruments
Which music instrument is Avnadh Vadya?
Explanation
Khanjari (frame drum with skin membrane) is an Avanaddha Vadya; Manjeera, Khartal, and Jhanjh are Ghana Vadyas (idiophones).
खंजरी (Khanjari) चमड़े से मढ़ा अवनद्ध वाद्य है; जबकि मंजीरा, खड़ताल और झांझ घन वाद्य हैं।
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1614📚Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosDrutam in Carnatic Talas
How many Drut can be used in Karnataki Taal system?
Explanation
In the 7 Sapta Talas of Carnatic music, the Drutam (OO) appears a maximum of two times in any single tala (e.g. Dhruva IOIII O I I, Triputa IOOI O O, Ata IIOOI I O O).
कर्नाटक ताल प्रणाली की सप्त तालों में द्रुतम् का प्रयोग अधिकतम दो बार (Maximum Two) होता है।
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1615📚Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosTriputa Tala Jati Math
How many Matras are there in Tisra Jaati Triput Taal?
Explanation
Tisra Jati Triputa Tala has the structure I3OO=3+2+2=7 matrasI_3 O O = 3 + 2 + 2 = 7\text{ matras} (the foundation for Carnatic Adi Tala in Chatusra jati).
तीस्र जाति त्रिपुट ताल (I3OOI_3 O O) में कुल 3+2+2=73 + 2 + 2 = 7 मात्राएं (Seven matras) होती हैं।
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1616📚Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosHindustani Laghu Value
How many Matras are there of Laghu in North Indian Music?
Explanation
In Hindustani classical musicology, a Laghu represents a standard single beat / 1 matra duration (or 4 matras in ancient classical prana notation).
उत्तर भारतीय संगीत में सामान्यतः लघु का मान 1 मात्रा (One matra) माना जाता है।
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1617📚Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosDrut Laya and Rasas
Which Rases are promoted by Drut Laya?
Explanation
According to Natyashastra, fast tempo (Drut Laya) is mandated for exciting, heroic, and astonishing moods: Veera, Raudra, and Adbhuta Rasas.
नाट्यशास्त्र के अनुसार द्रुत लय से 'वीर और अद्भुत' (Veer and Adbhut) तथा रौद्र रस की अभिव्यक्ति होती है।
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1618📚Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosHasya Rasa Laya
Which type of laya is required for Hasya Ras?
Explanation
Bharata Muni prescribes Madhya Laya (medium tempo) for Hasya (comic) and Shringara (romantic) sentiments.
हास्य और श्रृंगार रस के लिए 'मध्य लय' (Madhya Laya) उपयुक्त मानी गई है।
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1619📚Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosUstad Alla Rakha Career
From which place Ustad Alla Rakha started his career?
Explanation
Ustad Alla Rakha began his professional broadcasting and performance career at All India Radio (AIR) Lahore in 1936.
उस्ताद अल्ला रक्खा ने अपने पेशेवर करियर की शुरुआत 'लाहौर' (Lahore / ऑल इंडिया रेडियो) से की थी।
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1620📚Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsGudai Maharaj Disciples
Which music director was the disciple of Pt. Samta Prasad?
Explanation
Legendary Bollywood music director R.D. Burman (Pancham Da) was an ardent disciple who trained in Tabla under Pt. Samta Prasad (Gudai Maharaj).
महान संगीतकार आर.डी. बर्मन (R.D. Burman / पंचम दा) पंडित समता प्रसाद (गुदई महाराज) के शिष्य थे।
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1621📚Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsGudai Maharaj Lineage
Who was the father of Gudai Maharaj?
Explanation
Pandit Samta Prasad (Gudai Maharaj) was born to Pandit Bhagwan Prasad Mishra (Bacha Maharaj), a respected maestro of Banaras.
गुदई महाराज (पंडित समता प्रसाद) के पिता 'पंडित भगवान प्रसाद' (Pt. Bhagwan Prasad) थे।
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1622📚Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsAddha Trital Matras
How many matras are there in Addha Trital?
Explanation
Addha Taal (Sitarkhani / Addha Trital) is played in 16 matras (or 8/12 matras in specific regional forms).
अद्धा ताल / अद्धा त्रिताल में कुल 16 (या 12/8) मात्राएं होती हैं।
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1623📚Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsBasant Taal Structure
How many parts and matras are there in Basant Taal?
Explanation
Basant Taal is a 9-matra rhythm divided into 9 single-beat parts (1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣11|1|1|1|1|1|1|1|1).
बसंत ताल में 9 विभाग और 9 मात्राएं (Nine Parts and Nine Matras) होती हैं।
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1624📚Basic English & GrammarIdioms and Phrases
A man of straw
Explanation
'A man of straw' refers to a weak, insubstantial person of no real character, influence, or financial standing.
'A man of straw' का अर्थ एक कमजोर, महत्वहीन या प्रभावहीन व्यक्ति (A man of no substance) होता है।
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1625📚General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Physical Geography
The mysterious Bermuda Triangle is located in
Explanation
The Bermuda Triangle (Devil's Triangle) is loosely defined region in the western part of the North Atlantic Ocean between Florida, Bermuda, and Puerto Rico.
रहस्यमयी बरमूडा ट्रायंगल 'उत्तरी अटलांटिक महासागर' (North Atlantic Ocean) में स्थित है।
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1626📚General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Currencies
_______ is the national currency of New Zealand.
Explanation
The official legal tender currency of New Zealand is the New Zealand Dollar (NZD / NZ\).
न्यूजीलैंड की राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा 'न्यूजीलैंड डॉलर' (Dollar) है।
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1627📚General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Capitals
Nestled amidst the Himalayas, which city serves as the capital of Nepal?
Explanation
Kathmandu is the historic capital and largest metropolis of Nepal.
नेपाल की राजधानी 'काठमांडू' (Kathmandu) है।
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1628📚General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsNobel Prizes 2024
In 2024, Nobel Prize in Literature has been awarded to
Explanation
South Korean author Han Kang was awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature 'for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life'.
वर्ष 2024 का साहित्य का नोबेल पुरस्कार दक्षिण कोरियाई लेखिका 'हान कांग' (Han Kang) को प्रदान किया गया।
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1629📚General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsJ&K Administrative Divisions
How many districts are there in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises exactly 20 administrative districts (10 in Jammu Division and 10 in Kashmir Division).
केंद्र शासित प्रदेश जम्मू और कश्मीर में कुल 20 जिले (20 districts) हैं।
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1630📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityTime and Work
If Ram and Shyam together can build a house in 10 days; Ram and Arun can build it together in 12 days and Shyam and Arun can build it in 15 days. Shyam, Ram and Arun start working together. In how many days they build the house?
Explanation
Combined rates: 2(R+S+A)=110+112+115=6+5+460=1560=14  ⟹  R+S+A=182(R + S + A) = \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{15} = \frac{6 + 5 + 4}{60} = \frac{15}{60} = \frac{1}{4} \implies R + S + A = \frac{1}{8}. Together they finish in 8 days.
2(R+S+A)=110+112+115=1560=14  ⟹  R+S+A=182(R + S + A) = \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{15} = \frac{15}{60} = \frac{1}{4} \implies R + S + A = \frac{1}{8}। तीनों मिलकर 8 दिन में पूरा करेंगे।
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1631📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityTime and Work
P and Q together can do a work in 18 days. P alone can do the same work in 27 days. In how many days can Q alone do the same work?
Explanation
Rate of Q=118−127=3−254=154Q = \frac{1}{18} - \frac{1}{27} = \frac{3 - 2}{54} = \frac{1}{54}. Q alone will complete the work in 54 days.
Q का कार्य दर =118−127=154= \frac{1}{18} - \frac{1}{27} = \frac{1}{54}। Q अकेले 54 दिन में कार्य करेगा।
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1632📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityAges and Ratios
The present ages of Aman and Nina are 59 and 37 years, respectively. What was the ratio of the ages of Nina and Aman 13 years ago?
Explanation
13 years ago: Nina's age =37−13=24 years= 37 - 13 = 24\text{ years}; Aman's age =59−13=46 years= 59 - 13 = 46\text{ years}. Ratio of Nina to Aman =24:46=12:23= 24:46 = 12:23.
13 वर्ष पूर्व नीना की आयु =24= 24, अमन की आयु =46= 46। नीना और अमन का अनुपात =24:46=12:23= 24:46 = 12:23।
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1633📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Waste Management
Which type of waste is biodegradable?
Explanation
Food scraps, plant matter, and animal wastes are organic and readily broken down by decomposers (Biodegradable).
खाद्य अपशिष्ट (Food scraps / बचा हुआ भोजन) जैव-अपघटनीय (Biodegradable) कचरा है।
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1634📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Plant Nutrients and Fertilizers
The element that is essential for plant growth and is found in fertilizers is
Explanation
Nitrogen (NN, as in NPKNPK fertilizers) is a primary macronutrient essential for chlorophyll, amino acids, and vegetative plant growth.
उर्वरकों में पाया जाने वाला पौधों की वृद्धि के लिए आवश्यक प्राथमिक तत्व 'नाइट्रोजन' (Nitrogen / NPK) है।
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1635📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyNational Slogans
Who is known for the slogan "Swaraj is my birthright"?
Explanation
Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak coined the famous nationalist slogan: 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it'.
'स्वराज मेरा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है' का नारा लोकमान्य 'बाल गंगाधर तिलक' (Bal Gangadhar Tilak) ने दिया था।
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1636📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyPartition of India 1947
Who was appointed to draw the boundary line between India and Pakistan in 1947?
Explanation
Sir Cyril Radcliffe was appointed Chairman of the Boundary Commissions to demarcate the international borders (Radcliffe Line) between India and Pakistan.
1947 में भारत और पाकिस्तान के बीच सीमा रेखा खींचने के लिए 'सर सिरिल रेडक्लिफ' (Sir Cyril Radcliffe) को नियुक्त किया गया था।
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1637📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyPlantation Agriculture
Which of the following is an example of plantation farming?
Explanation
Plantation agriculture involves large commercial estates dedicated to the single-crop monoculture of cash crops like tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, and oil palm.
रोपण कृषि (Plantation farming) का उदाहरण बड़े बागानों में चाय, कॉफी या रबर की खेती (Growing coffee, tea, or rubber) करना है।
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1638📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetySecondary Economic Sector
Which of the following industries falls under the secondary sector?
Explanation
The Secondary Sector processes and manufactures industrial goods from raw materials (e.g. textile mills, automotive factories, construction).
द्वितीयक क्षेत्र (Secondary sector) के अंतर्गत विनिर्माण उद्योग जैसे 'वस्त्र निर्माण' (Textile manufacturing) आता है।
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1639📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyLetter Coding
If in a certain code, "APPLE" is written as "BQQMF", how is "MANGO" written in that code?
Explanation
Letter shift coding: Each letter is shifted +1+1 forward (A−>B,P−>Q,P−>Q,L−>M,E−>FA -> B, P -> Q, P -> Q, L -> M, E -> F). Thus M(+1)−>N,A(+1)−>B,N(+1)−>O,G(+1)−>H,O(+1)−>P  ⟹  M(+1) -> N, A(+1) -> B, N(+1) -> O, G(+1) -> H, O(+1) -> P \implies NBOHP.
प्रत्येक अक्षर में +1+1 की वृद्धि: M −>-> N, A −>-> B, N −>-> O, G −>-> H, O −>-> P। MANGO का कोड 'NBOHP' होगा।
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1640📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyBlood Relations Puzzle
A woman is looking at a picture. A man asks, "Who are you looking at?" The woman replies, "Brothers and sisters, I have none. But the father of the person in the picture is my father's son." who is in the picture?
Explanation
The speaker has no siblings, so 'my father's son' is herself (or in this phrasing, her son / herself). 'The father/parent of person in picture is myself'   ⟹  \implies The person in picture is Her son.
महिला के कोई भाई-बहन नहीं हैं, अतः 'मेरे पिता का बेटा' वह स्वयं (या उसका पति/पुत्र) है। तस्वीर में 'उसका बेटा' (Her son) है।
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1641📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyBlood Relations
A man says to a woman, "Your mother is my daughter." How is the woman related to the man?
Explanation
If the woman's mother is the man's daughter, the woman is the man's Granddaughter.
यदि महिला की मां पुरुष की बेटी है, तो वह महिला पुरुष की 'पोती/नातिन' (Grand daughter) है।
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1642📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFamily Relations
Pointing to a woman, A says, "She is the wife of my brother's son." How is the woman related to A?
Explanation
A's 'brother's son' is A's nephew. The wife of A's nephew is culturally/legally addressed as A's Daughter-in-Law (Bahu / Niece-in-law).
भाई का बेटा (भतीजा) की पत्नी 'पुत्रवधू/बहू' (Daughter-in-Law) कहलाती है।
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1643📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyQuality Standards (ISO 9000)
What is the main purpose of the ISO 9000 series of standards?
Explanation
ISO 9000 is an international quality management standard establishing frameworks to ensure organizations consistently meet customer requirements and deliver quality products.
ISO 9000 मानकों का मुख्य उद्देश्य उत्पाद की गुणवत्ता और ग्राहक संतुष्टि (Product quality and customer satisfaction) सुनिश्चित करना है।
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1644📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFactories Act 1948 Purpose
The primary purpose of the Factories Act , 1948 is to
Explanation
The Factories Act 1948 was enacted to consolidate and amend the law regulating occupational health, machine safety, and working welfare of labor in manufacturing factories.
कारखाना अधिनियम 1948 का मुख्य उद्देश्य कारखानों में श्रमिकों के स्वास्थ्य, सुरक्षा और कल्याण (Health, safety, and welfare of workers) को सुनिश्चित करना है।
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1645📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFirst in India Awards
Who was the first Indian to win the 'Miss World' title?
Explanation
Reita Faria Powell won the Miss World pageant in 1966, becoming the first Indian and first Asian woman to win the title.
मिस वर्ल्ड का खिताब जीतने वाली पहली भारतीय महिला 'रीता फारिया' (Rita Faria / 1966) थीं।
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1646📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyParalinguistic Communication
What does paralinguistic refer to in non-verbal communication?
Explanation
Paralanguage (paralinguistics) encompasses the vocal but non-verbal dimensions of speech: vocal tone, pitch, volume, pacing, and inflection.
पैरालिंग्विस्टिक (Paralinguistic) संचार आवाज के स्वर, पिच और बोलने की गति (The tone, pitch, and speed of speech) को संदर्भित करता है।
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1647📚Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyNon-Verbal vs Verbal Communication
Which of the following is NOT an example of non-verbal communication?
Explanation
Written text uses lexical verbal language (words and syntax), classifying as verbal communication; body language, gestures, and facial expressions are non-verbal.
लिखित पाठ (Written texts) मौखिक/शाब्दिक संचार का रूप है, यह गैर-मौखिक संचार (Non-verbal communication) का उदाहरण नहीं है।
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1648📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityAverages and Percentage
Arun received the examination results of his scores for the seven subjects. The score of each subject was out of 40 marks. Arun doesn't want to disclose his actual marks to his friends. So, Arun told them his average marks of the two subjects. The average marks for Sanskrit and Hindi were 31, while the average for Sanskrit and English was 31.5. Additionally, the average marks for Computer Science and English were 31, and the average for Computer Science and Mathematics was 28.5. Similarly, the average marks for Mathematics and Science were 26.5, and the average for Science and Social Studies was 27.5. Finally, the average marks for Social Studies and Hindi were 26. Using this data, determine the percentage of Arun's marks (rounded off to the nearest decimal place).
Explanation
Let subjects be S,H,E,C,M,Sc,SSS, H, E, C, M, Sc, SS. Adding all pair equations: (S+H)+(S+E)+(C+E)+(C+M)+(M+Sc)+(Sc+SS)+(SS+H)=2×(S+H+E+C+M+Sc+SS)=2×(31+31.5+31+28.5+26.5+27.5+26)=2×202=404(S+H) + (S+E) + (C+E) + (C+M) + (M+Sc) + (Sc+SS) + (SS+H) = 2 \times (S+H+E+C+M+Sc+SS) = 2 \times (31+31.5+31+28.5+26.5+27.5+26) = 2 \times 202 = 404. Sum of 7 subjects =202−6=196= 202 - 6 = 196. Maximum marks =7×40=280= 7 \times 40 = 280. Arun's percentage =196280×100=70%= \frac{196}{280} \times 100 = 70\%.
सातों विषयों के कुल प्राप्तांक =196= 196। पूर्णांक =7×40=280= 7 \times 40 = 280। प्रतिशत =196280×100=70%= \frac{196}{280} \times 100 = 70\%।
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1649📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityAverage Marks Calculation
Out of five subjects, Akshay's average marks in three subjects came out to be 68.6. Akshay aims to achieve 75 average marks in all five subjects. How many average marks does Akshay score in his last two subjects to meet his goal?
Explanation
Total marks required for 5 subjects =5×75=375= 5 \times 75 = 375. Marks obtained in 3 subjects =3×68.6=205.8= 3 \times 68.6 = 205.8. Marks required in last 2 subjects =375−205.8=169.2= 375 - 205.8 = 169.2. Average required =169.22=84.6= \frac{169.2}{2} = 84.6.
5 विषयों का कुल योग =375= 375, 3 विषयों का योग =205.8= 205.8। शेष 2 विषयों का आवश्यक औसत =375−205.82=84.6= \frac{375 - 205.8}{2} = 84.6।
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1650📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityMensuration Area Difference
The length of a rectangular plot is 15 cm, and the width is 80 cm. A circular park with a radius of 7 cm is situated at one corner of the rectangle. What is the area of the remaining land?
Explanation
Area of rectangle =15×80=1200 cm2= 15 \times 80 = 1200\text{ cm}^2. Area of circle =πr2=227×49=154 cm2= \pi r^2 = \frac{22}{7} \times 49 = 154\text{ cm}^2. Remaining area =1200−154=1046 cm2= 1200 - 154 = 1046\text{ cm}^2.
आयत का क्षेत्रफल =1200 cm2= 1200\text{ cm}^2, वृत्त का क्षेत्रफल =154 cm2= 154\text{ cm}^2। शेष क्षेत्रफल =1200−154=1046 cm2= 1200 - 154 = 1046\text{ cm}^2।
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1651📚General Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningSemantic Analogies
Enigma : Mystery :: Paradox : ?
Explanation
An enigma is fundamentally a mystery; a paradox is fundamentally a seeming contradiction.
इनिग्मा का संबंध रहस्य (Mystery) से है, विरोधाभास (Paradox) का संबंध विरोधाभासी स्थिति (Contradiction) से है।
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1652📚General Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningClassification Odd One Out
Find the odd one out.
Explanation
Despondency, Melancholy, and Sorrow denote sadness and depression; 'Euphoria' is a state of intense happiness and joy (odd one out).
'Euphoria' (अति-उत्साह/परमानंद) सकारात्मक भाव है, जबकि अन्य तीनों उदासी/शोक के सूचक हैं।
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1653📚General Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningDirection Sense
A man started walking from point A and walked 10 meters towards the west. He then turns to his right and walks 15 meters. After turning to his right again, he walks 10 meters. After this, he turns to his right and walks 20 meters. Finally, he turns to his left and walks 5 meters. In which direction is he now from his starting point?
Explanation
West 10m (-x), Right (North) 15m (+y), Right (East) 10m (x returns to 0), Right (South) 20m (-y net: -5m South), Left (East) 5m (+x net: +5m East). Final position is South-East of origin.
अंतिम स्थिति: 5 मीटर दक्षिण और 5 मीटर पूर्व   ⟹  \implies दक्षिण-पूर्व (Southeast)।
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1654📚General Mental Ability & Logical ReasoningVenn Diagram Set Theory
In a class of 120 students, students enroll in three subjects, Biology, Physics, and Mathematics. The following data is provided regarding their enrollment. 45 students opt for Biology. 50 students opt for Physics. 60 students opt for Mathematics. 25 students opt for both Biology and Physics. 30 students opt for both Biology and Mathematics. 35 students opted for both Physics and Mathematics. 15 students opted for all three subjects: Biology, Physics, and Mathematics. How many students are enrolled in only one subject?
Explanation
Only Biology =45−(25+30−15)=45−40=5= 45 - (25 + 30 - 15) = 45 - 40 = 5. Only Physics =50−(25+35−15)=50−45=5= 50 - (25 + 35 - 15) = 50 - 45 = 5. Only Mathematics =60−(30+35−15)=60−50=10= 60 - (30 + 35 - 15) = 60 - 50 = 10. Total enrolled in exactly one subject =5+5+10=20= 5 + 5 + 10 = 20.
केवल बायोलॉजी =5= 5, केवल फिजिक्स =5= 5, केवल मैथ्स =10= 10। केवल एक विषय वाले कुल छात्र =5+5+10=20= 5 + 5 + 10 = 20।
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1655📚General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article.
Today he is at _______ zenith of his career.
Explanation
The definite article 'the' is used before unique pinnacle positions or superlatives: 'at the zenith of his career'.
चरम बिंदु (zenith) से पहले निश्चित उपपद 'the' का प्रयोग होता है।
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1656📚General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles (Vowel Sounds)
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article.
_______ honest man lodged _______ FIR when he saw someone committing fraud in the marketplace
Explanation
'Honest' begins with a vowel sound (/ɒ/), requiring 'An'. 'FIR' begins with a vowel sound (/ɛf/), requiring 'an': 'An honest man lodged an FIR...'.
'Honest' और 'FIR' दोनों का उच्चारण स्वर ध्वनि से शुरू होता है, अतः दोनों में 'An, an' आएगा।
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1657📚General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article.
We visited _______ museum during our trip to _______ city.
Explanation
Specific context requires definite articles: 'We visited the museum during our trip to the city'.
विशिष्ट संदर्भ में दोनों रिक्त स्थानों में 'the, the' का प्रयोग होगा।
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1658📚General English & Reading ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition in the below sentence.
He quickly jumped _______ the train as it stopped at the platform.
Explanation
To disembark or leap down from a vehicle uses the preposition 'off': 'jumped off the train'.
ट्रेन से नीचे कूदने या उतरने के लिए प्रीपोजिशन 'off' ('jumped off') का प्रयोग होता है।
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1659📚General English & Reading ComprehensionPrepositions Distinction
Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition in the below sentence.
_______ the delicious food, the table had fresh flowers placed _______ each plate.
Explanation
'Besides' means 'in addition to' (Besides the delicious food), while 'beside' means 'next to / by the side of' (beside each plate).
'Besides' (के अतिरिक्त) तथा 'beside' (के बगल में) का सही संयोजन विकल्प B है।
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1660📚General English & Reading ComprehensionIrregular Verbs
Fill in the blank with a suitable verb in the below sentence.
His heart felt _______ with sorrow after hearing the tragic news.
Explanation
The past participle of the irregular verb 'wring' is 'wrung' ('felt wrung with sorrow').
क्रिया 'wring' का तीसरा रूप (Past participle) 'wrung' होता है।
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1661📚General English & Reading ComprehensionVerb Forms
Fill in the blank with a suitable verb in the below sentence.
The miller _______ the wheat into flour before the factory _______ its maintenance operations.
Explanation
Past tense of 'grind' (crush grain) is 'ground'. 'Grounded' means based or suspended operations: 'ground, grounded'.
अनाज पीसने का भूतकाल 'ground' है और संचालन रोकने का 'grounded' है।
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1662📚General English & Reading ComprehensionSubject-Verb Agreement Error
In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer. If there is no error, mark the answer as "No error".
Many students (a)/ has completed (b)/ their assignments (c)/ before the deadline (d).
Explanation
The plural subject 'Many students' requires the plural auxiliary verb 'have completed', not singular 'has completed'.
बहुवचन कर्ता 'Many students' के साथ 'have completed' आना चाहिए, अतः 'has completed' में त्रुटि है।
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1663📚General English & Reading ComprehensionReading Comprehension
How is AI beneficial in scientific research?
Explanation
As stated in the passage, AI algorithms can identify patterns, trends, and correlations in large volumes of data that human researchers may overlook.
गद्यांश के अनुसार AI बड़े डेटा सेटों में पैटर्न और रुझानों की पहचान करके शोध में सहायता करता है।
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1664📚General English & Reading ComprehensionPossessive Determiners
Which of the following sentences uses a possessive determiner correctly?
Explanation
'Your performance' correctly uses the second-person possessive determiner 'Your' modifying 'performance'.
'Your performance' में संबंधवाचक निर्धारक (Possessive determiner) का सही प्रयोग हुआ है।
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1665📚General English & Reading ComprehensionSpelling
Fill in the blank with the correct spelling from the options in the below sentence.
His _______ nature caused many to question his intentions.
Explanation
The correct orthographic spelling is 'promiscuous'.
सही वर्तनी 'promiscuous' है।
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1666📚General English & Reading ComprehensionSpelling
Fill in the blank with the correct spelling from the options in the below sentence.
_______ at the workplace often leads to a toxic culture where true talent is overlooked.
Explanation
The correct orthographic spelling is 'Sycophancy' (flattery).
सही वर्तनी 'Sycophancy' (चापलूसी) है।
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1667📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyLaw Enforcement & International Networks
Which Indian agency has recently joined the Steering Committee of the Asset Recovery Interagency Network-Asia Pacific (ARIN-AP)?
Explanation
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was elected to the Steering Committee of the Asset Recovery Interagency Network-Asia Pacific (ARIN-AP).
केंद्रीय अन्वेषण ब्यूरो (CBI) ने ARIN-AP की संचालन समिति की सदस्यता प्राप्त की है।
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1668📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOlympic Games Highlights
In which event did Manu Bhaker win her first Olympic medal?
Explanation
Manu Bhaker won the Bronze medal in the Women's 10m Air Pistol individual event at the Paris 2024 Olympics, opening India's medal tally.
मनु भाकर ने पेरिस 2024 ओलंपिक में अपना पहला पदक '10 मीटर एयर पिस्टल' (10m Air Pistol) में जीता।
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1669📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyKhel Ratna Awards 2024
Match the following pairs of Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 awardees with their corresponding sport.
i. Shri Gukesh D
ii. Shri Harmanpreet Singh
iii. Shri Praveen Kumar
iv. Ms. Manu Bhaker

Sports:
1) Para-Athletics
2) Hockey
3) Shooting
4) Chess
Explanation
i -> 4 (Gukesh D - Chess), ii -> 2 (Harmanpreet Singh - Hockey), iii -> 1 (Praveen Kumar - Para-Athletics), iv -> 3 (Manu Bhaker - Shooting).
i-4 (गुकेश डी - शतरंज), ii-2 (हरमनप्रीत सिंह - हॉकी), iii-1 (प्रवीण कुमार - पैरा-एथलेटिक्स), iv-3 (मनु भाकर - निशानेबाजी)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1670📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyDronacharya Awards 2024
Which of the following pairs is/are correct regarding the Dronacharya Award for Outstanding Coaches (regular category) in Sports and Games 2024?
1. Shri Subhash Rana - Para-Shooting
2. Ms. Deepali Deshpande - Badminton
3. Shri Sandeep Sangwan - Hockey
Explanation
Subhash Rana was honored for Para-Shooting and Sandeep Sangwan for Hockey (Deepali Deshpande is renowned in Shooting, not Badminton).
सुभाष राणा (पैरा-शूटिंग) और संदीप सांगवान (हॉकी) सही युग्म हैं (1 और 3)।
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1671📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyClassical Dances of India
Which of the following is the classical dance of Assam?
Explanation
Sattriya is the classical dance tradition of Assam, founded in the 15th century by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Sankardev.
असम का शास्त्रीय नृत्य 'सत्रिया' (Sattriya) है।
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1672📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyMajor Dams of India
Match the following pairs about the major dams located in various states in India.
i. Tehri Dam
ii. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
iii. Srisailam Dam
iv. Almatti Dam

States:
1) Karnataka
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
4) Uttarakhand

Choose the correct Options:
Explanation
i -> 4 (Tehri Dam on Bhagirathi - Uttarakhand), ii -> 3 (Nagarjuna Sagar Dam on Krishna - Telangana/AP border), iii -> 2 (Srisailam Dam on Krishna - AP/Telangana), iv -> 1 (Almatti Dam on Krishna - Karnataka).
i-4 (टिहरी - उत्तराखंड), ii-3 (नागार्जुन सागर - तेलंगाना/आंध्र), iii-2 (श्रीशैलम - आंध्र प्रदेश), iv-1 (अलमट्टी - कर्नाटक)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1673📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyForest Types of India
Mangrove forests in India are predominantly found in which region?
Explanation
The Sundarbans delta in West Bengal (formed by the confluence of Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Meghna) is the largest single tract of halophytic mangrove swamp forest in the world.
भारत में मैंग्रोव वन मुख्य रूप से 'सुंदरबन' (The Sunderbans, पश्चिम बंगाल) में पाए जाते हैं।
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1674📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyState Reorganization
Hyderabad is the joint capital of which two Indian states until 2014?
Explanation
Under the AP Reorganisation Act 2014, Hyderabad served as the joint capital for both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana for a transitional period of up to 10 years (until June 2024).
आंध्र प्रदेश पुनर्गठन अधिनियम 2014 के तहत हैदराबाद 'आंध्र प्रदेश और तेलंगाना' (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana) की संयुक्त राजधानी थी।
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1675📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIntegration of Princely States & Colonies
Which states/Union Territories were NOT part of India at the time of independence (August 1947)?
1. Goa
2. Puducherry
3. Nagaland
4. Sikkim
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Goa was under Portuguese rule until 1961; Puducherry was French territory until 1954; Sikkim joined the Indian Union in 1975. None of 1, 2, and 4 were part of India on 15 August 1947.
15 अगस्त 1947 के समय गोवा (पुर्तगाली), पुडुचेरी (फ्रांसीसी) और सिक्किम (प्रोटेक्टोरेट/1975) भारत का अभिन्न हिस्सा नहीं थे। सही विकल्प C (1, 2 and 4) है।
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1676📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyState Formation Chronology
Arrange the following states in the chronological order of formation of states.
1. Telangana
2. Maharashtra
3. Meghalaya
4. Karnataka
Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Chronological state reorganization: Karnataka (Mysore State established 1956), Maharashtra (formed 1 May 1960), Meghalaya (established 1972), Telangana (created 2 June 2014)   ⟹  4,2,3,1\implies 4, 2, 3, 1.
राज्यों के गठन का कालक्रम: कर्नाटक (1956), महाराष्ट्र (1960), मेघालय (1972), तेलंगाना (2014)   ⟹  4,2,3,1\implies 4, 2, 3, 1 (Option C)।
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1677📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KHuman Respiratory System
Which process releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere and from which part is it expelled?
Explanation
During pulmonary cellular respiration, carbon dioxide waste is diffused across the alveolar-capillary membrane in the lungs' alveoli and exhaled into the atmosphere.
श्वसन (Respiration) प्रक्रिया में कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड फेफड़ों की कूपिकाओं (Alveoli) द्वारा बाहर निकाली जाती है।
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1678📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KHuman Organ Systems
Match the following pairs of human body organs with their primary functions:
i. Heart
ii. Lungs
iii. Kidneys
iv. Pancreas

Functions:
1) Produces insulin to regulate blood sugar
2) Pumps blood throughout the body
3) Filters blood and removes waste
4) Helps in breathing and oxygen exchange

Choose the correct Options:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Heart pumps blood), ii -> 4 (Lungs oxygen exchange), iii -> 3 (Kidneys filter waste), iv -> 1 (Pancreas produces insulin).
i-2 (हृदय - रक्त पंप करना), ii-4 (फेफड़े - श्वसन/ऑक्सीजन विनिमय), iii-3 (गुर्दे - अपशिष्ट छानना), iv-1 (अग्न्याशय - इंसुलिन उत्पादन)। सही उत्तर A है।
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1679📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KDietary Minerals Functions
Match the minerals with their functions:
Minerals:
1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Potassium
4. Zinc

Function:
i) Helps in the formation of red blood cells and prevents anemia
ii) Supports bone and teeth health
iii) Regulates fluid balance and muscle function
iv) Supports the immune system and wound healing

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
1 -> ii (Calcium - bones & teeth), 2 -> i (Iron - hemoglobin & RBCs), 3 -> iii (Potassium - fluid electrolyte balance), 4 -> iv (Zinc - immune system & wound healing).
1-ii (कैल्शियम - हड्डियां और दांत), 2-i (आयरन - लाल रक्त कोशिकाएं/एनीमिया), 3-iii (पोटेशियम - द्रव संतुलन), 4-iv (जिंक - प्रतिरक्षा प्रणाली और घाव भरना)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1680📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KGeography of Kashmir
The Tulip Garden (Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden) is situated on the foothills of which range?
Explanation
Asia's largest tulip garden, the Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden in Srinagar, is terraced on the foothills of the Zabarwan Mountain Range overlooking Dal Lake.
श्रीनगर का प्रसिद्ध ट्यूलिप गार्डन 'जबरवान पर्वत श्रृंखला' (Zabarwan Range) की तलहटी में स्थित है।
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1681📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KNicknames of J&K Places
Which of the following statements is correct?
Explanation
Udhampur is historically venerated as the 'Land of Devika' and known for its ancient freshwater spring baolis.
उधमपुर को 'बावलियों का नगर और देविका की भूमि' (Bowlis and the Land of Devika) के नाम से जाना जाता है।
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1682📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KMusic and Culture of J&K
Which of the following is NOT Kashmiri Music?
Explanation
Rouf/Wanwun, Ladishah (satirical singing), and Sufiana Kalam are indigenous classical and folk musical genres of Kashmir; Qawwali is a Hindustani Sufi devotional genre originating in the Delhi Sultanate.
रौफ, लदिशाह और सूफियाना कलाम कश्मीर के पारंपरिक संगीत हैं; 'कव्वाली' (Qawwali) कश्मीरी लोक संगीत का मूल रूप नहीं है।
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1683📚General English & GrammarArticles
Find the suitable articles for the following statement:
He is _______ man whom I met yesterday.
Explanation
The definite article 'the' is used before a noun modified by a defining relative clause ('the man whom I met yesterday').
विशिष्ट व्यक्ति का संदर्भ देने के लिए 'the' का प्रयोग होगा: 'the man whom I met yesterday'।
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1684📚General English & GrammarPreposition Sequences
Varun lived _______ his wife _______ Chennai _______ ten years.
Choose the correct order of choice to fill in the blanks.
Explanation
Correct prepositional sequence: 'Varun lived with his wife in Chennai for ten years'.
सही प्रीपोजिशन क्रम: 'with his wife in Chennai for ten years' (विकल्प D)।
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1685📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeAverage Weight Replacement
The average weight of 3 men A, B, and C is 84 kg. Another man D joins the group and the average now becomes 80 kg. If another man E, whose weight is 3 kg more than that of D, replaces A, then the average weight of B, C, D and E becomes 79 kg. The weight of A is
Explanation
A+B+C=3×84=252 kgA + B + C = 3 \times 84 = 252\text{ kg}. With D: A+B+C+D=4×80=320  ⟹  D=320−252=68 kgA + B + C + D = 4 \times 80 = 320 \implies D = 320 - 252 = 68\text{ kg}. Then E=68+3=71 kgE = 68 + 3 = 71\text{ kg}. New group: B+C+D+E=4×79=316  ⟹  B+C+68+71=316  ⟹  B+C=177 kgB + C + D + E = 4 \times 79 = 316 \implies B + C + 68 + 71 = 316 \implies B + C = 177\text{ kg}. Weight of A=252−177=75 kgA = 252 - 177 = 75\text{ kg}.
A+B+C=252A+B+C = 252, D=68 kgD = 68\text{ kg}, E=71 kgE = 71\text{ kg}। B+C=316−139=177 kgB+C = 316 - 139 = 177\text{ kg}। A का भार =252−177=75 kg= 252 - 177 = 75\text{ kg}।
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1686📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
2 men and 3 women can complete a work in 10 days, while 4 men can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 3 men and 3 women complete the work?
Explanation
Since 4 men take 10 days, work rate of 1 man =140= \frac{1}{40}. Then 2m+3w=110  ⟹  2(140)+3w=110  ⟹  120+3w=110  ⟹  3w=1202m + 3w = \frac{1}{10} \implies 2\left(\frac{1}{40}\right) + 3w = \frac{1}{10} \implies \frac{1}{20} + 3w = \frac{1}{10} \implies 3w = \frac{1}{20}. Thus 3m+3w=3(140)+120=340+240=540=183m + 3w = 3\left(\frac{1}{40}\right) + \frac{1}{20} = \frac{3}{40} + \frac{2}{40} = \frac{5}{40} = \frac{1}{8}. They complete the work in 8 days.
11 पुरुष का कार्य =1/40= 1/40, 33 महिलाओं का कार्य =1/20= 1/20। 3m+3w=340+120=540=183m + 3w = \frac{3}{40} + \frac{1}{20} = \frac{5}{40} = \frac{1}{8} (8 दिन)।
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1687📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeAge Problem Statements
Consider the following statement.
Statement 1: A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present age of the son is 32 years.
Statement 2: A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times as old as his son. The age of the son is 25 years
Choose the correct option
Explanation
Statement 1: (S+24)+2=2(S+2)  ⟹  S+26=2S+4  ⟹  S=22≠32(S+24)+2 = 2(S+2) \implies S+26 = 2S+4 \implies S = 22 \ne 32 (Incorrect). Statement 2: 3S−5=4(S−5)  ⟹  3S−5=4S−20  ⟹  S=15≠253S - 5 = 4(S - 5) \implies 3S - 5 = 4S - 20 \implies S = 15 \ne 25 (Incorrect). Both statements are incorrect.
कथन 1 (S=22S=22) और कथन 2 (S=15S=15) दोनों गलत हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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1688📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeProfit and Loss Statements
Consider the following statement.
Statement 1: If a man reduces the selling price of a fan from Rs.400 to Rs.380, his loss increases by 2%. The cost price of the fan is Rs.1,000.
Statement 2: If 5% more is gained by selling an article for Rs.350 than by selling it for Rs.340, the cost of the article is Rs.50.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement 1: 2% of CP=400−380=20  ⟹  CP=200.02=Rs. 10002\% \text{ of } CP = 400 - 380 = 20 \implies CP = \frac{20}{0.02} = \text{Rs. } 1000 (Correct). Statement 2: 5% of CP=350−340=10  ⟹  CP=100.05=Rs. 200≠505\% \text{ of } CP = 350 - 340 = 10 \implies CP = \frac{10}{0.05} = \text{Rs. } 200 \ne 50 (Incorrect). Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
कथन 1 (CP=1000CP=1000) सही है और कथन 2 (CP=200CP=200) गलत है। सही विकल्प A है।
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1689📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudePie Chart Data Interpretation
A survey was conducted among 400 people about their favorite fruits and the following pie chart shows the collected data (Apple 56%, Orange 24%, Guava 12%, Kivi 6%, Banana 2%).
Match List - I with List-II:
List - I:
1. How many people like apple
2. How many people like orange than guava (difference)
3. How many people like orange

List - II:
i. 48
ii. 96
iii. 224

Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
1 -> iii (56% of 400=22456\% \text{ of } 400 = 224), 2 -> i ((24%−12%)×400=48(24\% - 12\%) \times 400 = 48), 3 -> ii (24% of 400=9624\% \text{ of } 400 = 96). Match is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii.
1-iii (224), 2-i (48), 3-ii (96)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1690📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeBar Chart Data Interpretation
A survey was conducted among 900 people about their job profile and the bar chart shows the collected data (Government 17%, Private 44%, Retired 6%, House Wife 22%, No Job 11%).
Match List - I with List - II:
List - I:
1. How many people doesn't have job
2. How many people work in private job
3. Number of house wife

List - II:
i. 396
ii. 198
iii. 99

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> iii (11% of 900=9911\% \text{ of } 900 = 99), 2 -> i (44% of 900=39644\% \text{ of } 900 = 396), 3 -> ii (22% of 900=19822\% \text{ of } 900 = 198). Match is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii.
1-iii (99), 2-i (396), 3-ii (198)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1691📚General Mental Ability, Reasoning & Data InterpretationLetter Coding
If PLANE is coded as OKZMD in a certain language, how will TRAIN be coded?
Explanation
Each letter is shifted −1-1 backward (P−>O,L−>K,A−>Z,N−>M,E−>DP -> O, L -> K, A -> Z, N -> M, E -> D). Applying to TRAIN: T(−1)−>S,R(−1)−>Q,A(−1)−>Z,I(−1)−>H,N(−1)−>M  ⟹  T(-1) -> S, R(-1) -> Q, A(-1) -> Z, I(-1) -> H, N(-1) -> M \implies SQZHM.
प्रत्येक अक्षर में −1-1 की कमी: TRAIN −>-> SQZHM।
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1692📚General Mental Ability, Reasoning & Data InterpretationDecoding Patterns
If in a certain language, SHIFT is coded as RFFBO, which word would be coded as LKUMB?
Explanation
Decoding shifts +1,+2,+3,+4,+5+1, +2, +3, +4, +5: L(+1)−>M,K(+2)−>M/J,U(+3)−>X/V,M(+4)−>Q/L,B(+5)−>G/C  ⟹  L(+1) -> M, K(+2) -> M/J, U(+3) -> X/V, M(+4) -> Q/L, B(+5) -> G/C \implies MJVLC / MMXQG.
डिकोडिंग पैटर्न के अनुसार सही मूल शब्द 'MJVLC' (Option D) है।
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1693📚General Mental Ability, Reasoning & Data InterpretationBlood Relations
Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said his brother's father is the only son of my grandfather. How is the woman related to this man?
Explanation
'Only son of my grandfather' is the woman's father. 'His brother's father' is the man's father. Since both have the same father, the woman is the man's Sister.
महिला के दादा का एकमात्र बेटा = महिला का पिता। उस पुरुष के भाई का पिता = उसका पिता। दोनों भाई-बहन हैं, अतः महिला उसकी बहन (Sister) है।
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1694📚General Mental Ability, Reasoning & Data InterpretationLogical Deductions
The question is given certain statements followed by some conclusions. Choose the conclusion which follow from the given statements.
Statement 1 : A forest has as many sandal trees as it has Ashoka trees.
Statement 2 : Three-fourths of the trees are old one and half of the trees are at the flowering stage
Conclusion are :
Explanation
Since half of all trees are Ashoka and 3/4 of all trees are old, even if all non-Ashoka trees were old (1/2), at least (3/4−1/2)=1/4(3/4 - 1/2) = 1/4 of total trees (which is at least one-half of Ashoka trees) must be old.
कम से कम आधे अशोक के पेड़ पुराने हैं (At least one-half of the Ashoka trees are old)।
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1695📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyPadma Awards 2022
In the year 2022, how many persons have been honored with Padma Awards?
Explanation
The President of India approved the conferment of 128 Padma Awards in 2022 (4 Padma Vibhushan, 17 Padma Bhushan, and 107 Padma Shri).
वर्ष 2022 में कुल 128 व्यक्तियों (128 Persons) को पद्म पुरस्कारों से सम्मानित किया गया था।
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1696📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyFirst Women in India
Who was the first woman Chief Minister of Independent India?
Explanation
Sucheta Kripalani served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh from October 1963 to March 1967, becoming India's first woman Chief Minister.
स्वतंत्र भारत की पहली महिला मुख्यमंत्री 'सुचेता कृपलानी' (Sucheta Kripalani / उत्तर प्रदेश 1963) थीं।
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1697📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyBharat Ratna Laureates
Who was the first Indian woman awardee of "Bharat Ratna"?
Explanation
Prime Minister Indira Gandhi was conferred the Bharat Ratna in 1971, becoming the first woman recipient of India's highest civilian honor.
भारत रत्न से सम्मानित होने वाली पहली भारतीय महिला 'इंदिरा गांधी' (Indira Gandhi / 1971) थीं।
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1698📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyWorld Geography Superlatives
Which is the largest river island in the World?
Explanation
Majuli Island on the Brahmaputra River in Assam is recognized by Guinness World Records as the largest inhabited river island on Earth.
विश्व का सबसे बड़ा नदी द्वीप असम में ब्रह्मपुत्र नदी पर स्थित 'माजुली द्वीप' (Majuli Island) है।
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1699📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyCricket World Cup History
Cricket World Cup, 1983 was held in which of the following places?
Explanation
The 1983 Prudential Cricket World Cup was hosted by England (and Wales) from 9 to 25 June 1983, where India defeated the West Indies at Lord's.
1983 का क्रिकेट विश्व कप 'इंग्लैंड' (England) में आयोजित किया गया था।
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1700📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyInternational Organizations
Consider the following statement.
Statement 1: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand.
Statement 2: The ASEAN Charter serves as a firm foundation in achieving the ASEAN Community by providing legal status and institutional framework for ASEAN.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both statements are historically correct: ASEAN was founded by the Bangkok Declaration on 8 August 1967, and the ASEAN Charter entered into force in 2008 providing a legal institutional framework.
कथन 1 और कथन 2 दोनों सत्य हैं (8 अगस्त 1967 बैंकॉक घोषणा और आसियान चार्टर)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1701📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyImportant Observance Days
Consider the following statement.
Statement 1: Indian Navy Day will be celebrated on 4th of November in every year.
Statement 2: Human Rights Day will be celebrated on 10th of November in every year.
Choose the correct option
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect: Indian Navy Day is celebrated on 4th December (Operation Trident), and International Human Rights Day is observed on 10th December (UDHR 1948).
भारतीय नौसेना दिवस 4 दिसंबर को तथा मानवाधिकार दिवस 10 दिसंबर को मनाया जाता है। दोनों कथन गलत हैं (Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect)।
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1702📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyPublic Sector Enterprises
Consider the following statement.
Statement 1 : The full form of BHEL is Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
Statement 2 : The abbreviations of GAIL stands for Gross Allowance of Industries Limited
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: BHEL stands for Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited. Statement 2 is incorrect: GAIL stands for Gas Authority of India Limited.
कथन 1 सही है और कथन 2 गलत है (GAIL का पूर्ण रूप Gas Authority of India Limited है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1703📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyDams and Hydroelectric Projects
Consider the following statement.
Statement 1: Indira Sagar Dam is the largest reservoir in India
Statement 2: The Koyna Hydroelectric Project is the largest hydroelectric power plant in India.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct (Indira Sagar on Narmada has India's largest water storage capacity of 12.22 billion m312.22\text{ billion m}^3). Statement 2 is correct (Koyna Hydroelectric Project in Maharashtra with 1,960 MW capacity is one of the largest completed hydroelectric complexes). Both statements are correct.
कथन 1 और कथन 2 दोनों सही हैं (इंदिरा सागर सबसे बड़ा जलाशय और कोयना प्रमुख जलविद्युत परियोजना)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1704📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOfficial Languages of States
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List - I (State):
1. Goa
2. Maharashtra
3. Manipur

List - II (Primary/Official Language):
i. Meitei
ii. Marathi
iii. Konkani

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> iii (Goa - Konkani), 2 -> ii (Maharashtra - Marathi), 3 -> i (Manipur - Meitei / Manipuri). Match is 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i.
1-iii (गोवा - कोंकणी), 2-ii (महाराष्ट्र - मराठी), 3-i (मणिपुर - मैतेई)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1705📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyPre-Monsoon Rainfall Terms
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List - I (Climate/Rainfall terms):
1. Rain caused by a lightning storm is called "Cherry Blossom"
2. Mango Showers are common in
3. Related to Pre-Monsoon shower 'Nor Westers'.

List- II (Representative of Indian States):
i. West Bengal and Assam
ii. Kerala
iii. Karnataka

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> iii (Cherry Blossom coffee showers - Karnataka), 2 -> ii (Mango Showers - Kerala & coastal Karnataka), 3 -> i (Nor'westers / Kalbaisakhi - West Bengal & Assam). Match is 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i.
1-iii (चेरी ब्लॉसम - कर्नाटक), 2-ii (मैंगो शॉवर्स - केरल), 3-i (नॉर्वेस्टर/कालवैशाखी - पश्चिम बंगाल व असम)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1706📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Dams Superlatives
Arrange in order: Highest Dam in India, Longest Dam in India, Oldest Dam in India
Explanation
Highest Dam: Tehri Dam (260.5m on Bhagirathi, Uttarakhand); Longest Dam: Hirakud Dam (25.8 km on Mahanadi, Odisha); Oldest Dam: Kallanai Dam / Grand Anicut (built by Karikala Chola on Kaveri, Tamil Nadu).
भारत का सबसे ऊंचा बांध: टिहरी बांध, सबसे लंबा: हीराकुंड बांध, सबसे पुराना: कल्लानाई (ग्रैंड एनीकट) बांध। सही क्रम विकल्प A है।
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1707📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOlympic Badminton History
Saina Nehwal is the _______ Indian Badminton player to have won an Olympic medal. She won the _______ medal in women's singles at the London Olympic in _______.
Fill in the blanks in the correct order from the given options.
Explanation
Saina Nehwal became the First Indian badminton player to win an Olympic medal when she clinched the Bronze medal in women's singles at the London Olympics in 2012.
साइना नेहवाल ओलंपिक पदक जीतने वाली पहली (First) भारतीय बैडमिंटन खिलाड़ी हैं, जिन्होंने 2012 (London 2012) में कांस्य (bronze) पदक जीता। सही विकल्प B है।
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1708📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsEnergy Bandgaps
Match the List-I and List-II and select the correct answer given below the lists:
List - I (Bandgap in eV):
i. 0.67
ii. 1.1
iii. 1.4
iv. 2.4

List - II (Material):
1. GaAs
2. Si
3. Ge
4. CdS

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 3 (Germanium Ge=0.67 eVGe = 0.67\text{ eV}), ii -> 2 (Silicon Si=1.1 eVSi = 1.1\text{ eV}), iii -> 1 (Gallium Arsenide GaAs=1.42 eVGaAs = 1.42\text{ eV}), iv -> 4 (Cadmium Sulfide CdS=2.42 eVCdS = 2.42\text{ eV}). Match is i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4.
i-3 (Ge: 0.67 eV), ii-2 (Si: 1.1 eV), iii-1 (GaAs: 1.4 eV), iv-4 (CdS: 2.4 eV)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1709📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsMOSFET Fabrication
In modern MOSFETs, the material used for the gate is
Explanation
In modern self-aligned silicon-gate MOSFET manufacturing, heavily doped degenerate polycrystalline silicon (polysilicon / metal gates) is universally used.
आधुनिक MOSFETs में गेट निर्माण के लिए अत्यधिक डोप किए गए 'पॉलीक्रिस्टलाइन सिलिकॉन' (Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1710📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsTransmission Media
Consider the following:
1. Twisted pair cables
2. Microwaves and Satellite Signals
3. Repeaters
4. Fiber optics
Which of the above is consider as (a) signal transmission medium is data communications:
Explanation
Transmission media consist of guided media (Twisted pair, Coaxial, Fiber optics) and unguided wireless media (Microwaves, Satellite). Repeaters are active networking intermediate hardware devices (not physical media). Correct set is 1, 2, and 4.
सिग्नल ट्रांसमिशन मीडिया के अंतर्गत ट्विस्टेड पेयर, माइक्रोवेव/सैटेलाइट और फाइबर ऑप्टिक्स आते हैं (1, 2 और 4)। रिपीटर्स डिवाइस हैं, माध्यम नहीं।
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1711📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsOSI Model Network Devices
Match the following networking devices with their corresponding OSI Layer:
I. Hub
II. Switch
III. Routers
IV. Gateway

Layers:
1. Data link layer
2. Network layer
3. Application layer
4. Physical layer

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
I -> 4 (Hub - Physical layer), II -> 1 (Switch - Data link layer / Layer 2), III -> 2 (Router - Network layer / Layer 3), IV -> 3 (Gateway - Application layer / Layer 7). Match is I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3.
हब (Physical layer - 4), स्विच (Data link layer - 1), राउटर (Network layer - 2), गेटवे (Application layer - 3)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1712📚Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsAcoustic Audio Engineering
What is the perceivable frequency range for a normal human ear?
Explanation
The standard perceivable audible acoustic spectrum for the human ear spans approximately 16 Hz (or 20 Hz) to 16,000 Hz (or 20,000 Hz)16\text{ Hz (or 20 Hz) to } 16,000\text{ Hz (or 20,000 Hz)}.
सामान्य मानव कान के लिए श्रव्य आवृत्ति परास '16 Hz से 16,000 Hz' (16 Hz to 16000 Hz) होता है।
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1713📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsMTP Gestational Limits
Up to how many weeks of gestation is the opinion of one registered medical practitioner sufficient for Medical Termination of Pregnancy?
Explanation
Under the original MTP Act (and Section 3), termination up to 12 weeks of gestation requires the opinion of one registered medical practitioner (extended to 20 weeks under 2021 rules).
MTP अधिनियम के तहत 12 सप्ताह (12 weeks) तक के गर्भ समापन के लिए एक पंजीकृत चिकित्सक (1 RMP) की राय पर्याप्त होती है।
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1714📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsMTP Amendment 2021
The 2021 amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act introduced provisions for:
Explanation
The MTP Amendment Act 2021 replaced 'married woman or her husband' with 'any woman or her partner', legally allowing unmarried single women access to safe MTP for contraceptive failure.
2021 संशोधन ने गर्भनिरोधक विफलता के मामले में अविवाहित महिलाओं को भी सुरक्षित MTP कराने की वैधानिक अनुमति प्रदान की।
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1715📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsM&TP Act 1955
The excise duty under the Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act is levied on
Explanation
The M&TP (Excise Duties) Act, 1955 levies duties of excise on the manufacture and production of medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol, opium, Indian hemp, or other narcotics.
M&TP एक्ट के तहत आबकारी शुल्क शराब या नशीले पदार्थों से युक्त औषधीय और प्रसाधन सामग्री के निर्माण और बिक्री पर लगाया जाता है।
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1716📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsBonded vs Non-Bonded Laboratories
In which of the following manufacturing of Medicinal and Toilet Preparation take place in presence of excise officer
Explanation
A Bonded Manufactory / Laboratory is licensed for manufacturing preparations without prior payment of excise duty; alcohol is stored under excise lock and manufacture occurs under the direct supervision of an Excise Officer.
बॉन्डेड प्रयोगशाला (Bonded laboratory) में निर्माण कार्य आबकारी अधिकारी की प्रत्यक्ष उपस्थिति और निगरानी में होता है।
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1717📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsIAEC Functions
Which of the following is the objective of IAEC under 'The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960'?
Explanation
Institutional Animal Ethics Committees (IAEC) review, approve, and monitor experimental research protocols on small animals to ensure adherence to CPCSEA humane guidelines and 3Rs (Replacement, Reduction, Refinement).
IAEC का मुख्य उद्देश्य पशु प्रयोगों को मंजूरी देना और उनकी मानवीय देखभाल (Humane treatment) सुनिश्चित करना है।
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1718📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsTablet Manufacturing Defects
Unequal distribution of color in tablet is known as:
Explanation
Mottling is a tablet defect characterized by an unequal, non-uniform distribution of color on the surface of a colored tablet due to dye migration.
गोली (Tablet) की सतह पर रंग के असमान वितरण को 'मॉटलिंग' (Mottling) कहा जाता है।
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1719📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsDissolution Testing Parameters
In dissolution test, flask is maintained at
Explanation
Pharmacopoeial dissolution testing requires the water bath and dissolution vessel medium to be maintained at human physiological body temperature of 37∘C±0.5∘C37^\circ\text{C} \pm 0.5^\circ\text{C}.
घुलनशीलता परीक्षण (Dissolution test) में फ्लास्क का तापमान 37∘C±0.5∘C37^\circ\text{C} \pm 0.5^\circ\text{C} पर स्थिर रखा जाता है।
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1720📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsCapsule Weight Variation Test
The Indian Pharmacopoeia specifies that the uniformity of weight test for capsules should be performed on how many capsules?
Explanation
According to Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) and USP, the weight variation / uniformity of weight test is performed on a sample of 20 intact capsules.
IP के अनुसार कैप्सूल के वजन एकरूपता परीक्षण (Uniformity of weight) के लिए 20 कैप्सूल (20 capsules) का नमूना लिया जाता है।
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1721📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsIsotonicity Criteria
An ophthalmic solution is isotonic with another solution when:
Explanation
Isotonic solutions have identical osmotic pressures and colligative properties (such as identical freezing point depression ΔTf=−0.52∘C\Delta T_f = -0.52^\circ\text{C} matching human tears and blood plasma).
दो घोल तब आइसोटोनिक (Isotonic) होते हैं जब उनके परासरणी और कोलिगेटिव गुण (Colligative properties) समान परिमाण के होते हैं।
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1722📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsParenteral Additives
The anticoagulant heparin solution does not contain:
Explanation
Commercial multidose heparin sodium injection formulations contain antimicrobial/preservative agents (like benzyl alcohol or parabens) but do not contain specific antiviral agents.
हेपरिन इंजेक्शन में एंटीमाइक्रोबियल प्रिजर्वेटिव होते हैं, लेकिन इसमें 'एंटीवायरल एजेंट' (Antiviral agents) शामिल नहीं होते हैं।
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1723📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsWool Fat Emulsifiers
Which of the following is an emulsifying fraction of wool fat?
Explanation
Wool alcohols (Lanolin alcohols), obtained by the alkaline saponification of wool fat followed by separation of the unsaponifiable sterol fraction (cholesterol/isocholesterol), act as powerful w/o emulsifiers.
ऊन वसा (Wool fat) का मुख्य इमल्सीफाइंग घटक 'वूल अल्कोहल' (Wool alcohol / कोलेस्ट्रॉल अंश) होता है।
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1724📚Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisAnticoagulant Bioassays
To perform the test for anticoagulant activity of drugs, which bioassay would be used?
Explanation
The Prothrombin Time (PT) assay or Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) assay is the standard in vitro bioassay used to quantify anticoagulant activity.
थक्कारोधी दवाओं की गतिविधि मापने के लिए 'प्रोथ्रोम्बिन टाइम परख' (Prothrombin time assay) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1725📚Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisCleanroom Classifications
Which of the following is classified as 'Aseptic area'?
Explanation
Under US Federal Standard 209E and GMP Grade A standards, Class 100 (maximum 100 particles ≥0.5 μm\ge 0.5\ \mu\text{m} per cubic foot / ISO 5) defines the critical aseptic manufacturing area.
फार्मास्युटिकल GMP में 'क्लास 100' (Class 100 / ISO 5) को क्रिटिकल एसेप्टिक क्षेत्र के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया जाता है।
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1726📚Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisIn Vitro Pyrogen Assays (MAT)
Which of the following is an advantage of the Monocyte Activation Test (MAT) over the Rabbit Pyrogen Test (RPT)?
Explanation
The human Monocyte Activation Test (MAT) is an in vitro cell-based assay that completely eliminates animal testing (non-animal alternative) while mimicking human cytokine pyrogenic responses.
MAT का सबसे बड़ा लाभ यह है कि इसमें जीवित पशुओं के उपयोग की आवश्यकता नहीं होती (Does not involve the use of animals)।
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1727📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARFenamate NSAIDs
Which of the following NSAID contains 2-aminobenzoic acid group?
Explanation
Fenamates (such as Meclofenamate sodium and Mefenamic acid) are derivatives of N-phenylanthranilic acid (2-aminobenzoic acid).
मेक्लोफेनामेट सोडियम (Meclofenamate sodium) में 2-अमीनोबेंजोइक एसिड (एंथ्रानिलिक एसिड) समूह होता है।
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1728📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARSteroid Ring Chiral Centers
How many chiral centers are in a sterane nucleus?
Explanation
The basic unsubstituted cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene (sterane / gonane) ring system contains 6 bridgehead asymmetric chiral carbon centers (carbons C-5, C-8, C-9, C-10, C-13, and C-14).
स्टेरेन (Cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene) नाभिक में कुल 6 काइरल केंद्र (6 chiral centers) होते हैं।
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1729📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPlant Alkaloids
The primary toxic alkaloid found in Nux Vomica is:
Explanation
The dried ripe seeds of Strychnos nux-vomica contain the potent, extremely toxic indole alkaloids Strychnine and Brucine.
कुचला (Nux Vomica) के बीजों में पाया जाने वाला प्राथमिक विषैला एल्कलॉइड 'स्ट्रिकनीन' (Strychnine) है।
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1730📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessHerbal Synonyms
Deadly Nightshade is the synonym of:
Explanation
Atropa belladonna (family Solanaceae), rich in tropane alkaloids hyoscyamine and atropine, is universally known as Deadly Nightshade.
डेडली नाइटशेड (Deadly Nightshade) 'बेलाडोना' (Atropa belladonna) का पर्यायवाची नाम है।
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1731📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOpium Botanical Source
Opium is derived from which part of the plant?
Explanation
Opium is the air-dried milky exudate (latex) obtained by incising the unripe capsule seed pods of the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum).
अफीम (Opium) पोस्त के पौधे के कच्चे फल (Latex from unripe seed pods) पर चीरा लगाकर प्राप्त लेटेक्स से बनती है।
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1732📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPharmacognostic Microscopy Matching
Given below are some of the microscopical diagnostic features of the drugs listed. Match the pair:
i) Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate
ii) Lignified parenchyma
iii) Phloem fibres
iv) Glandular trichomes

Drugs:
p) Rauwolfia roots
q) Cinnamon Bark
r) Alexandrian senna
s) Digitalis leaves

Choose the appropriate option:
Explanation
i -> r (Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate in Senna leaflets), ii -> p (Lignified parenchyma in Rauwolfia roots), iii -> q (Phloem fibres in Cinnamon Bark), iv -> s (Glandular trichomes in Digitalis leaves). Correct match is i(r), ii(p), iii(q), iv(s).
i-r (सेना), ii-p (राउवोल्फिया), iii-q (दालचीनी की छाल), iv-s (डिजिटेलिस)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1733📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIpecac Botanical Source
Ipecac is derived from which part of the plant?
Explanation
Ipecacuanha (Ipecac), containing the emetic alkaloids emetine and cephaeline, consists of the dried roots and rhizomes of Cephaelis ipecacuanha (family Rubiaceae).
इपेकैक (Ipecac) Cephaelis ipecacuanha की सूखी 'जड़ों और प्रकंदों' (Roots and rhizomes) से प्राप्त होता है।
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1734📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessAloe Vera Herbal Uses
Which of the following is a traditional use of Aloe vera gel?
Explanation
Aloe vera mucilaginous leaf gel contains acemannan and bradykinase, traditionally applied topically for rapid healing of thermal burns, sunburns, and cutaneous wounds.
एलोवेरा जेल (Aloe vera gel) का पारंपरिक उपयोग मुख्य रूप से जले और घावों के उपचार (Treating burns and wounds) के लिए किया जाता है।
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1735📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBotanical Families
Cinchona belongs to which plant family?
Explanation
Cinchona (Cinchona succirubra / Cinchona calisaya), the botanical source of the antimalarial alkaloid quinine, belongs to the family Rubiaceae.
कुनैन प्रदान करने वाला सिनकोना (Cinchona) पौधा 'रूबिएसी' (Rubiaceae) कुल से संबंधित है।
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1736📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFinancial Markets Terminology
What is the term for the process of managing risk in financial markets?
Explanation
Hedging is an investment risk management strategy involving derivative contracts (futures, options) to offset the risk of adverse price movements in an asset.
वित्तीय बाजारों में मूल्य जोखिम को कम करने या प्रबंधित करने की रणनीति को 'हेजिंग' (Hedging) कहा जाता है।
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1737📚Basic English & GrammarCollective Nouns
"The audience was applauding the performance". The word 'audience' is a
Explanation
'Audience' is a collective noun denoting a group of spectators or listeners gathered together.
'Audience' (दर्शक/श्रोतागण) एक समूहवाचक संज्ञा (Collective noun) है।
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1738📚Basic English & GrammarAbstract Nouns
"His kindness is appreciated by all". The word 'kindness' is a
Explanation
'Kindness' is an abstract noun referring to an intangible human quality, state of mind, or virtuous behavior.
'Kindness' (दयालुता) एक भाववाचक संज्ञा (Abstract noun) है।
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1739📚Basic English & GrammarParts of Speech
What part of speech is the word "quickly" in the sentence: "She runs quickly"?
Explanation
'Quickly' is an adverb of manner modifying the action verb 'runs'.
'Quickly' (तेजी से) क्रिया 'runs' की विशेषता बताने वाला क्रियाविशेषण (Adverb) है।
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1740📚Basic English & GrammarAdverbs
In the sentence "She sings beautifully," the word "beautifully" is a
Explanation
'Beautifully' is an adverb of manner describing how she sings.
'Beautifully' (सुंदरता से) गायन की शैली को व्यक्त करने वाला क्रियाविशेषण (Adverb) है।
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1741📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Solar System Planets
Which planet is known as the "Red Planet"?
Explanation
Mars is called the 'Red Planet' due to the widespread presence of ferric iron oxide (rust) on its surface terrain.
आयरन ऑक्साइड की प्रचुरता के कारण 'मंगल ग्रह' (Mars) को 'लाल ग्रह' (Red Planet) कहा जाता है।
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1742📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Planetary Dimensions
Which planet is the largest in our Solar System?
Explanation
Jupiter is the largest planet in our Solar System with a mass greater than all other planets combined.
हमारे सौरमंडल का सबसे बड़ा ग्रह 'बृहस्पति' (Jupiter) है।
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1743📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Order of Planets
What is the name of the fifth planet from the Sun?
Explanation
In order of increasing distance from the Sun (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter...), the fifth planet is Jupiter.
सूर्य से दूरी के क्रम में पांचवां ग्रह 'बृहस्पति' (Jupiter) है।
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1744📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Earth and Moon
What is the name of Earth's natural satellite?
Explanation
The Moon is the Earth's only permanent natural satellite, orbiting at an average distance of approx 384,400 km384,400\text{ km}.
पृथ्वी का एकमात्र प्राकृतिक उपग्रह 'चंद्रमा' (Moon) है।
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1745📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Saturn Rings
Which planet has rings around it?
Explanation
Saturn is globally famous for its spectacular, extensive, and visually prominent planetary ring system composed of ice and rock particles.
विशाल और स्पष्ट वलयों (Rings) वाला ग्रह 'शनि' (Saturn) है।
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1746📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Allotropes of Carbon
Which of the following is the hardest allotrope of carbon?
Explanation
Diamond is the hardest naturally occurring allotrope of carbon (and hardest natural material on Mohs scale, rating 10) due to its rigid 3D tetrahedral covalent network.
कार्बन का सबसे कठोर अपररूप 'हीरा' (Diamond) है।
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1747📚General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Human Eye Optics
What is the primary function of the lens in the human eye?
Explanation
The crystalline biconvex lens of the human eye refracts and dynamically accommodates incoming light rays to focus sharp inverted images onto the photoreceptive retina.
मानव नेत्र लेंस का मुख्य कार्य प्रकाश किरणों को रेटिना (Retina) पर केंद्रित करना (To focus light onto the retina) है।
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1748📚Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFreedom Slogans
Who gave the famous slogan "Swaraj is my Birthright and I shall have it"?
Explanation
Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak gave the clarion call: 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it!'.
'स्वराज मेरा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है और मैं इसे लेकर रहूंगा!' का नारा 'बाल गंगाधर तिलक' (Bal Gangadhar Tilak) ने दिया था।
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1749📚Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryGandhian Era Chronology
When did Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South Africa?
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi returned permanently to India from South Africa on 9 January 1915, commemorated annually as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas.
महात्मा गांधी 9 जनवरी 1915 (1915) को दक्षिण अफ्रीका से भारत वापस लौटे थे।
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1750📚Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyNon-Renewable Resource Properties
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of non-renewable resources?
Explanation
Non-renewable resources cannot be naturally replaced or regenerated within human timescales; stating 'They can be replaced after use' is false.
गैर-नवीकरणीय संसाधन उपयोग के बाद तुरंत पुनर्चक्रित या प्रतिस्थापित नहीं हो सकते, अतः विकल्प C असत्य है।
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1751📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementNational Sports Awards
Who was the first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award?
Explanation
Chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand was the inaugural recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (now Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna) in 1991–92.
राजीव गांधी खेल रत्न पुरस्कार के पहले प्राप्तकर्ता शतरंज ग्रैंडमास्टर 'विश्वनाथन आनंद' (Viswanathan Anand / 1991-92) थे।
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1752📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyAnatomical Movement Planes
The human body moves in how many planes?
Explanation
Human anatomical movements occur across three fundamental cardinal planes: Sagittal plane, Frontal (Coronal) plane, and Transverse (Horizontal) plane.
मानव शरीर की गति 3 मूलभूत समतलों (3 planes: सैजिटल, फ्रंटल, ट्रांसवर्स) में होती है।
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1753📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementSports Management Terminology
SLA in sports management stands for:
Explanation
In professional sports management and facility contracts, SLA stands for Service Level Agreement.
खेल प्रबंधन और सुविधा अनुबंधों में SLA का पूर्ण रूप 'Service Level Agreement' (सेवा स्तर समझौता) होता है।
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1754📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementRules of Games (Volleyball)
How many players are on the court for a volleyball team?
Explanation
In standard indoor volleyball, each team has exactly 6 active players on the court at any given time.
वॉलीबॉल कोर्ट पर प्रत्येक टीम की ओर से एक समय में 6 खिलाड़ी (6 players) खेलते हैं।
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1755📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyHuman Physiology
Which system helps in oxygen transportation?
Explanation
The Respiratory system (along with the cardiovascular circulatory system) is responsible for taking in atmospheric oxygen, gas exchange in alveoli, and oxygenation of blood.
शरीर में ऑक्सीजन के परिवहन और विनिमय का मुख्य कार्य 'श्वसन तंत्र' (Respiratory system) करता है।
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1756📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologySports Nutrition
What does RDA stand for in nutrition?
Explanation
RDA stands for Recommended Dietary Allowance, representing the average daily dietary nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the requirements of nearly all healthy individuals.
पोषण विज्ञान में RDA का अर्थ 'Recommended Dietary Allowance' (अनुशंसित दैनिक आहार भत्ता) होता है।
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1757📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementOlympic Symbols
The Olympic symbol consists of how many rings?
Explanation
The official Olympic symbol consists of 5 interlocking colored rings (blue, yellow, black, green, and red) representing the union of the five inhabited continents of the world.
ओलंपिक प्रतीक में विश्व के 5 महाद्वीपों का प्रतिनिधित्व करने वाले 5 छल्ले (5 rings) होते हैं।
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1758📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyCardiovascular Anatomy
The heart is a type of:
Explanation
The human heart is composed exclusively of specialized involuntary striated muscle tissue termed Cardiac muscle (myocardium).
हृदय एक विशेष प्रकार की अनैच्छिक 'कार्डियक मांसपेशी' (Cardiac muscle / हृद् पेशी) से बना होता है।
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1759📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesKinesiology Foundations
The study of body movement is called:
Explanation
Kinesiology (from Greek kinesis = movement) is the scientific study of human body movement, mechanics, and physical activity.
मानव शरीर की गति और संचलन के वैज्ञानिक अध्ययन को 'किनेसियोलॉजी' (Kinesiology / गति विज्ञान) कहा जाता है।
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1760📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementAnti-Doping & Sports Ethics
What does doping primarily affect?
Explanation
Doping involves the use of banned substances or methods to artificially enhance an athlete's physical performance, strength, speed, or endurance.
डोपिंग (Doping) का प्राथमिक प्रभाव खिलाड़ी के शारीरिक प्रदर्शन (Physical performance) को कृत्रिम रूप से बढ़ाने पर होता है।
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1761📚Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningSports Psychology
The most critical factor in sports performance psychology is:
Explanation
In sports performance psychology, Mental Resilience (mental toughness and coping under pressure) is the decisive factor that allows elite athletes to perform consistently.
खेल प्रदर्शन मनोविज्ञान में 'मानसिक लचीलापन / दृढ़ता' (Mental resilience) सबसे महत्वपूर्ण कारक है।
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1762📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophies of PE
Which philosophical approach emphasizes individual experience in physical education?
Explanation
Existentialism in physical education emphasizes personal choice, individuality, self-realization, and subjective human embodied experience ('existence precedes essence').
शारीरिक शिक्षा में 'अस्तित्ववाद' (Existentialism) व्यक्तिगत अनुभव, स्वतंत्रता और आत्म-बोध पर बल देता है।
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1763📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesSports Biomechanics
The primary purpose of biomechanical analysis is:
Explanation
The overarching objective of sports biomechanical analysis is Performance Optimization through the mechanical refinement of technique (while concurrently reducing injury risks).
बायोमैकेनिकल विश्लेषण का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य खिलाड़ी की तकनीक का सुधार करके 'प्रदर्शन का इष्टतमीकरण' (Performance optimization) करना है।
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1764📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesComponents of Physical Fitness
Which of the following is NOT a component of health-related physical fitness?
Explanation
Agility is a skill-related (performance-related) fitness component, whereas Cardiovascular endurance, Muscular strength, Muscular endurance, Flexibility, and Body composition are the five Health-Related components.
चपलता (Agility) कौशल-संबंधी फिटनेस का घटक है, स्वास्थ्य-संबंधी (Health-related) का नहीं।
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1765📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesPrinciples of Training
The "Principle of Specificity" in training means:
Explanation
The Principle of Specificity (SAID Principle: Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands) dictates that training adaptations are specific to the physiological systems, motor patterns, and muscles engaged in the sport.
विशिष्टता का सिद्धांत (Principle of Specificity) कहता है कि व्यायाम को खेल की विशिष्ट गतियों और ऊर्जा प्रणालियों के अनुरूप होना चाहिए।
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1766📚Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyNeural Control of Movement
Which neural mechanism controls muscle coordination?
Explanation
The Cerebellum in the brain is the central motor coordinator responsible for fine-tuning motor activity, timing, equilibrium, balance, and smooth voluntary Muscle Coordination.
मस्तिष्क का 'अनुमस्तिष्क' (Cerebellum / सेरेबेलम) मांसपेशियों के सटीक समन्वय, संतुलन और गति को नियंत्रित करता है।
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1767📚Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningFlow State Psychology
In sports psychology, "flow state" represents:
Explanation
The Flow State (or 'being in the zone', conceptualized by Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi) is a state of optimal performance characterized by Complete Mental Absorption, effortless focus, and deep immersion in an activity.
खेल मनोविज्ञान में 'फ्लो स्टेट' (Flow state / In the zone) किसी गतिविधि में पूर्ण मानसिक तल्लीनता और एकाग्रता को दर्शाता है।
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1768📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesRole of Biomechanics
What is the role of biomechanics in physical education?
Explanation
Biomechanics applies the principles of mechanics and physics to the detailed quantitative and qualitative Analysis of Human Movement and sports technique.
शारीरिक शिक्षा में बायोमैकेनिक्स की मुख्य भूमिका मानव गति और खेल तकनीकों का 'गति विश्लेषण' (Analysis of movement) करना है।
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1769📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementScope of PE
What is the scope of Physical Education in the modern era?
Explanation
Modern physical education encompasses Holistic Development, promoting lifelong fitness, physical literacy, mental resilience, ethical sportsmanship, and social well-being.
आधुनिक युग में शारीरिक शिक्षा का दायरा शारीरिक, मानसिक और सामाजिक कल्याण सहित 'समग्र विकास' (Holistic development) पर केंद्रित है।
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1770📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophy of PE
Philosophical foundations of Physical Education transcend:
Explanation
The philosophical foundations of physical education transcend isolated fitness metrics to encompass Holistic Human Development Paradigms integrating mind, body, and spirit.
शारीरिक शिक्षा के दार्शनिक आधार 'समग्र मानव विकास प्रतिमानों' (Holistic human development paradigms) को समाहित करते हैं।
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1771📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementInterdisciplinary Foundations
Interdisciplinary perspectives in Physical Education demonstrate:
Explanation
Interdisciplinary synthesis across biomechanics, exercise physiology, sociology, and pedagogy demonstrates Complex Systemic Interconnectedness in human physical potential.
शारीरिक शिक्षा में अंतःविषय दृष्टिकोण 'जटिल प्रणालीगत अंतर्संबंध' (Complex systemic interconnectedness) को प्रकट करते हैं।
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1772📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhenomenology of Movement
The philosophical dimensions of human movement encompass:
Explanation
In movement philosophy (phenomenology/existentialism), movement is understood fundamentally as an Existential Embodied Experience of being-in-the-world.
मानव गति के दार्शनिक आयाम 'अस्तित्वगत मूर्त अनुभव' (Existential embodied experience) को समाहित करते हैं।
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1773📚Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningPsychological Resilience
Psychological resilience in sports performance involves:
Explanation
Psychological resilience under competitive pressure is fundamentally driven by Adaptive Cognitive Flexibility, emotional regulation, and dynamic coping strategies.
खेलों में मनोवैज्ञानिक लचीलापन 'अनुकूली संज्ञानात्मक लचीलेपन' (Adaptive cognitive flexibility) पर आधारित होता है।
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1774📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesBiomechanical Efficiency
Biomechanical analysis of human movement demonstrates:
Explanation
Biomechanical analysis primarily demonstrates Mechanical Efficiency (energy conservation and optimal force transfer) in athletic performance.
मानव गति का बायोमैकेनिकल विश्लेषण मुख्य रूप से 'यांत्रिक दक्षता' (Mechanical efficiency) को प्रदर्शित करता है।
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1775📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophy of Human Potential
Philosophical interpretations of physical potential explore:
Explanation
Philosophical analysis of human athletic potential explores the boundaries of Existential Human Capability and self-transcendence.
शारीरिक क्षमता की दार्शनिक व्याख्या 'अस्तित्वगत मानव क्षमता' (Existential human capability) की खोज करती है।
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1776📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementStrategic Sports Management
Advanced sports management integrates:
Explanation
Contemporary sports administration requires Comprehensive Strategic Development across facility planning, athlete support, and institutional governance.
उन्नत खेल प्रबंधन 'व्यापक रणनीतिक विकास' (Comprehensive strategic development) को एकीकृत करता है।
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1777📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementMovement Philosophy
Philosophical foundations of movement explore:
Explanation
The philosophical inquiry into movement explores the Existential Embodied Experience of human consciousness in physical action.
गति के दार्शनिक आधार 'अस्तित्वगत मूर्त अनुभव' (Existential embodied experience) की खोज करते हैं।
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1778📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesTraining Methodologies
Comprehensive training methodologies demonstrate:
Explanation
Integrated athletic preparation relies on Multidimensional Adaptive Strategies balancing load, recovery, and neurological adaptation.
व्यापक प्रशिक्षण पद्धतियां 'बहुआयामी अनुकूली रणनीतियों' (Multidimensional adaptive strategies) को प्रदर्शित करती हैं।
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1779📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesTraining Periodization
"Periodization" in training refers to:
Explanation
Periodization is the systematic, cyclical planning of short- and long-term training phases (macrocycles, mesocycles, microcycles) to optimize peak performance and prevent overtraining.
प्रशिक्षण में 'पीरियडाइजेशन' (Periodization / अवधिकरण) का अर्थ प्रशिक्षण चक्रों का 'व्यवस्थित और योजनाबद्ध विभाजन' (Systematic planning of training cycles) है।
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1780📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementSports Management Principles
Advanced sports management principles integrate:
Explanation
Modern sports organization leadership integrates Comprehensive Strategic Development across talent pathways and infrastructure.
उन्नत खेल प्रबंधन सिद्धांत 'व्यापक रणनीतिक विकास' (Comprehensive strategic development) को एकीकृत करते हैं।
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1781📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophy of PE
Philosophical interpretations of physical education explore:
Explanation
Philosophy in physical education explores Existential Human Potential, personal meaning, and ethical character formation through movement.
शारीरिक शिक्षा की दार्शनिक व्याख्या 'अस्तित्वगत मानव क्षमता' (Existential human potential) की खोज करती है।
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1782📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophy of PE
Philosophical dimensions of physical potential:
Explanation
Philosophical explorations of physical culture serve to Expand Existential Possibilities and human self-realization.
शारीरिक क्षमता के दार्शनिक आयाम 'अस्तित्वगत संभावनाओं का विस्तार' (Expand existential possibilities) करते हैं।
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1783📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementInterdisciplinary Science
Interdisciplinary perspectives reveal:
Explanation
Interdisciplinary study reveals the Complex Interconnectedness between human biomechanics, physiology, and social psychology.
अंतःविषय दृष्टिकोण मानवीय गति और खेल विज्ञान में 'जटिल अंतर्संबंध' (Complex interconnectedness) को उजागर करते हैं।
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1784📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementSports Administration
Comprehensive sports management principles:
Explanation
Effective sports organization management principles Integrate Strategic Development across all operational sectors.
व्यापक खेल प्रबंधन सिद्धांत सभी स्तरों पर 'रणनीतिक विकास को एकीकृत' (Integrate strategic development) करते हैं।
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1785📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesSports Biomechanics
Sports biomechanics primarily studies:
Explanation
Sports biomechanics is the quantitative and qualitative study and Analysis of Human Movement and forces in athletic actions.
स्पोर्ट्स बायोमैकेनिक्स मुख्य रूप से एथलेटिक गतिविधियों में 'मानव गति का विश्लेषण' (Movement analysis) करता है।
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1786📚Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningSports Psychology Focus
Sports psychology primarily addresses:
Explanation
Sports psychology is dedicated to the study of psychological factors and Mental Preparation that influence performance and physical activity.
खेल मनोविज्ञान मुख्य रूप से एथलीट की 'मानसिक तैयारी' (Mental preparation) और मनोवैज्ञानिक मजबूती पर केंद्रित है।
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1787📚Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesTraining Principles
The principle of specificity in training refers to:
Explanation
The principle of specificity dictates that training induces Sport-Specific Adaptations matched to the movement patterns and metabolic demands of the sport.
विशिष्टता का सिद्धांत खेल की आवश्यकताओं के अनुसार 'खेल-विशिष्ट अनुकूलन' (Sport-specific adaptations) प्राप्त करने को संदर्भित करता है।
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1788📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementPerformance Evaluation
Athletic performance evaluation should:
Explanation
Comprehensive athletic evaluation should Consider Multiple Factors including technical proficiency, physiological readiness, tactical awareness, and mental resilience.
खिलाड़ी के प्रदर्शन मूल्यांकन में शारीरिक, तकनीकी, रणनीतिक और मानसिक 'कई कारकों पर विचार' (Consider multiple factors) करना चाहिए।
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1789📚Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementFacility Management
Sports facility management requires:
Explanation
Effective sports facility management demands Comprehensive Planning across maintenance, safety compliance, accessibility, and event programming.
खेल सुविधा प्रबंधन (Sports facility management) के लिए सुरक्षा, रखरखाव और समय-सारणी का 'व्यापक नियोजन' (Comprehensive planning) आवश्यक है।
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1790📚Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementAssessment in PE
Physical education assessment should:
Explanation
Assessment in physical education must Be Comprehensive, evaluating skill execution, conceptual knowledge, effort, sportsmanship, and personal growth.
शारीरिक शिक्षा में मूल्यांकन को सभी पहलुओं (ज्ञान, कौशल, सहभागिता) में 'व्यापक' (Be comprehensive) होना चाहिए।
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1791📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityWorking Memory Architecture
Which of the following stores and processes speech-based information.
Explanation
In Alan Baddeley's tripartite working memory model, the Phonological Loop comprises a short-term phonological store and an articulatory rehearsal mechanism for speech-based acoustic information.
बैडले के वर्किंग मेमोरी मॉडल में ध्वनि और भाषा-आधारित सूचनाओं को संसाधित करने वाला घटक 'फोनोलॉजिकल लूप' (Phonological loop) है।
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1792📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeuropsychology of Language
Which of the following is characterized by problems recalling words, names, and numbers
Explanation
Anomic Aphasia (nominal aphasia) is a neurological language impairment characterized by severe word-finding difficulties (dysnomia) for naming objects, people, or numbers despite preserved comprehension and fluency.
शब्दों, नामों और वस्तुओं को याद रखने या नामकरण करने में गंभीर कठिनाई 'एनोमिक वाचाघात' (Anomic aphasia) कहलाती है।
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1793📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityPsycholinguistics
Which is the study of how context influences how people understand and create meaning from communication.
Explanation
Pragmatics is the branch of linguistics and cognitive psychology that studies how situational and conversational context shapes the interpretation and social use of language.
संदर्भ (Context) किस प्रकार संचार के अर्थ और समझ को प्रभावित करता है, इसका अध्ययन 'प्रैग्मैटिक्स' (Pragmatics / उपयोगितावादी भाषाविज्ञान) कहलाता है।
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1794📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityEmotion & Facial Action Coding
Which is an anatomically based, comprehensive measurement system that assesses 44 different muscle movements of face.
Explanation
The Facial Action Coding System (FACS), developed by Paul Ekman and Wallace Friesen, is a comprehensive anatomical taxonomy that objectively codes 44 facial Action Units (AUs).
चेहरे की 44 विभिन्न मांसपेशियों की गति को मापने वाली वैज्ञानिक प्रणाली 'फेशियल एक्शन कोडिंग सिस्टम' (Facial Action Coding System / FACS) है।
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1795📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityEndocrine & Hunger Physiology
Pancreas start secreting insulin when:
Explanation
The beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans secrete insulin in response to postprandial glucose absorption and nutrient intake as we feed and become satiated.
अग्न्याशय द्वारा इंसुलिन का स्राव भोजन के बाद रक्त शर्करा में वृद्धि होने और तृप्ति (We are satiated) की स्थिति में होता है।
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1796📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeuroanatomy of Vision
The calcarine fissure
Explanation
The calcarine fissure (calcarine sulcus) is located on the medial surface of the Occipital Lobe, where the primary visual cortex (Brodmann area 17 / V1) is situated.
कैल्केरिन फिशर (Calcarine fissure) मस्तिष्क के 'ऑक्सीपिटल लोब' (Occipital lobe / पश्चकपाल पालि) में प्राथमिक दृश्य प्रांतस्था पर स्थित होता है।
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1797📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityCircadian Rhythms & Pineal Gland
______ photoreceptor provides information about the ambient level of light and ______ is secreted by the pineal gland during night.
Explanation
Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells contain Melanopsin to detect ambient environmental irradiance, synchronizing the SCN circadian clock which stimulates Pineal Melatonin synthesis in darkness.
मेलेनोप्सिन (Melanopsin) प्रकाश स्तर का पता लगाता है तथा पीनियल ग्रंथि द्वारा रात में 'मेलाटोनिन' (Melatonin) स्रावित होता है।
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1798📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityBrainstem Neurotransmitters
What is released in large amount by Locus Coeruleus?
Explanation
The Locus Coeruleus in the dorsal pons is the principal site for the synthesis and widespread central release of Norepinephrine (noradrenaline) mediating arousal and vigilance.
मस्तिष्क का लोकस कोर्यूलियस (Locus Coeruleus) मुख्य रूप से 'नोरेपिनेफ्रिन' (Norepinephrine) न्यूरोट्रांसमीटर का भारी स्राव करता है।
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1799📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalitySensation Seeking Dimensions
The dimension of sensation-seeking which represents dislike for repetition, routine work, monotony, predictable and dull people is
Explanation
In Marvin Zuckerman's Sensation Seeking Scale, Boredom Susceptibility reflects an aversion to repetitive experiences, routine work, monotony, and predictable persons.
मार्क्विन जुकरमैन के सिद्धांत में नियमितता, नीरसता और दोहराव से तीव्र अरुचि को 'बोरियत संवेदनशीलता' (Boredom susceptibility) कहा जाता है।
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1800📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityCloninger's TCI Inventory
Which of the following is true for Temperament and Character Inventory?
I. It is based on a humanistic model of personality
II. It operates on three temperaments and four characters.
III. It is theorized on Cloninger's theory
IV. Each temperament/ character has differing number of subscales.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Cloninger's Temperament and Character Inventory (TCI) is based on Cloninger's psychobiological model (Statement III is true) and measures 4 temperaments (Novelty Seeking, Harm Avoidance, Reward Dependence, Persistence) and 3 characters (Self-Directedness, Cooperativeness, Self-Transcendence), with each scale having differing subscales (Statement IV is true). Statements I & II are false. Correct: III and IV only.
TCI क्लोनिंगर के साइकोबायोलॉजिकल मॉडल पर आधारित है (कथन III) और इसके प्रत्येक आयाम के अलग-अलग उप-पैमाने हैं (कथन IV)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1801📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsRank Correlation
A Pearson's correlation coefficient computed on rank-ordered variables is known as
Explanation
Spearman's rank-order correlation coefficient (Spearman's rho, rsr_s) is mathematically equivalent to Pearson's product-moment correlation calculated directly on the ranked scores of variables.
रैंक-क्रमित (Rank-ordered) चरों पर गणना किया गया पियर्सन सहसंबंध गुणांक 'स्पीयरमैन का रो' (Spearman's rho) कहलाता है।
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1802📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsParametric vs Non-Parametric Tests
Which of the following are non-parametric statistics?
I. Student's t-test
II. Spearman's rho
III. Wilcoxon sign rank test
IV Pearson's r
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Spearman's rho (II) and Wilcoxon signed-rank test (III) are distribution-free Non-Parametric statistics (whereas Student's t-test and Pearson's r are parametric). Correct: II and III.
स्पीयरमैन का रो (II) और विल्कोक्सन हस्ताक्षरित रैंक परीक्षण (III) गैर-पैरामीट्रिक सांख्यिकी हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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1803📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalitySchools of Psychology Matching
Match the following:
Psychology school:
i. Psychodynamic
ii. Behavioral
iii. Humanistic
iv. Cognitive

Focus:
1) Observable behavior
2) Personal growth and self-actualization
3) Unconscious drives and conflicts
4) Mental processes like memory and thinking

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 3 (Psychodynamic: unconscious drives), ii -> 1 (Behavioral: observable behavior), iii -> 2 (Humanistic: personal growth & self-actualization), iv -> 4 (Cognitive: mental processes, memory, thinking). Correct match: i-3; ii-1; iii-2, iv-4.
i-3 (मनोगतिक), ii-1 (व्यवहारवादी), iii-2 (मानवतावादी), iv-4 (संज्ञानात्मक)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1804📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityHistory of Psychology
Who is considered the "father of psychology"?
Explanation
Wilhelm Wundt is universally recognized as the Father of Experimental Psychology for founding the first formal psychological research laboratory in Leipzig, Germany in 1879.
वर्ष 1879 में पहली मनोवैज्ञानिक प्रयोगशाला स्थापित करने वाले 'विल्हेम वुंड्ट' (Wilhelm Wundt) को मनोविज्ञान का जनक माना जाता है।
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1805📚Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityPositive Psychology
What does positive psychology focus on?
Explanation
Founded by Martin Seligman, Positive Psychology focuses on the empirical study of human flourishing, character strengths, resilience, happiness, and subjective Well-Being.
सकारात्मक मनोविज्ञान (Positive psychology) मानवीय शक्तियों, सद्गुणों और कल्याण (Well-being) को बढ़ावा देने पर केंद्रित है।
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1806📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Design
To answer which of the following research objectives, is a research most likely to rely on pure experimental methods?
Explanation
Manipulating the exact number of rehearsals (independent variable) and measuring recall accuracy (dependent variable) in a controlled laboratory setting represents a pure experimental design.
पुनरावृत्ति (Rehearsals) की संख्या में परिवर्तन करके स्मृति स्मरण पर प्रभाव देखना एक शुद्ध प्रयोगात्मक विधि (Pure experimental method) है।
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1807📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental vs Non-Experimental
Which of the following is NOT a key feature of an experimental study?
Explanation
Surveys are descriptive/correlational research methods lacking active manipulation and strict random laboratory assignment, making survey methodology NOT a defining feature of true experimental studies.
सर्वेक्षण विधियां (Survey methods) वर्णनात्मक होती हैं, यह प्रयोगात्मक अध्ययन की अनिवार्य विशेषता नहीं हैं।
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1808📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Variables Matching
Match the following:
Column A:
i. Independent Variable
ii. Dependent Variable
iii. Null Hypothesis
iv. Hypothesis

Column B:
1. Variable being measured in an experiment
2. Testable prediction about the outcome
3. Statement of no effect or no difference
4. Variable that is manipulated by the researcher

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 4 (Independent variable: manipulated), ii -> 1 (Dependent variable: measured), iii -> 3 (Null hypothesis: statement of no effect/difference), iv -> 2 (Hypothesis: testable prediction). Correct match: i-4; ii-1; iii-3, iv-2.
i-4 (स्वतंत्र चर), ii-1 (आश्रित चर), iii-3 (शून्य परिकल्पना), iv-2 (परिकल्पना)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1809📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Designs
Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a dependent groups design over an independent groups design?
I. Increased generalizability of the findings
II. Elimination of confounding variables
III. Reduction of individual differences in variability
IV. Simplification of counterbalancing procedures
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
In a dependent (repeated measures / within-subjects) design, using the same participants across all conditions substantially reduces error variance caused by Individual Differences in variability.
डिपेंडेंट ग्रुप्स डिजाइन का सबसे बड़ा लाभ यह है कि यह 'व्यक्तिगत अंतरों की परिवर्तनशीलता को कम' (Reduction of individual differences in variability) करता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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1810📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Steps
Arrange the steps of conducting a two-group experimental design in the correct order:
I. Randomly assign participants to groups
II. Introduce the independent variable
III. Measure the dependent variable
IV. Define the independent and dependent variables
V. Formulate a hypothesis
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Logical scientific sequence: V (Formulate hypothesis) -> IV (Define operational variables) -> I (Randomly assign participants) -> II (Introduce/manipulate IV) -> III (Measure DV). Sequence: V -> IV -> I -> II -> III.
प्रयोगात्मक डिजाइन के चरणों का सही क्रम: V -> IV -> I -> II -> III। सही विकल्प A है।
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1811📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsCorrelational Research
Which technique is used to find out the degree of association?
Explanation
Correlation (Pearson rr, Spearman ρ\rho) is the statistical technique used to quantify the magnitude, strength, and direction of Association between two or more variables.
दो या अधिक चरों के बीच जुड़ाव या संबंध की डिग्री निर्धारित करने के लिए 'सहसंबंध' (Correlation) तकनीक का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1812📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsKuhnian Paradigms
The term 'paradigm' is associated with
Explanation
Thomas Kuhn introduced and popularized the concepts of 'Paradigm' and 'Paradigm Shift' in his landmark 1962 book The Structure of Scientific Revolutions.
वैज्ञानिक 'पैराडाइम' (Paradigm / प्रतिमान) शब्द का प्रतिपादन 'थॉमस कुह्न' (Thomas Kuhn / 1962) ने किया था।
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1813📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsConfounding Variables
Change in variable not controlled in the experiment is called as
Explanation
An extraneous uncontrolled variable that covaries systematically with the independent variable and provides an alternative explanation for results is a Confounding variable.
प्रयोग में अनियंत्रित चर जो परिणामों को प्रभावित करता है, 'कन्फाउंडिंग चर' (Confounding variable / संकर चर) कहलाता है।
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1814📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPerformance Intelligence Tests
Which of the following requires placing of blocks of different shapes in empty correct shapes?
Explanation
The Seguin Form Board (SFB) test is a non-verbal performance intelligence test that requires inserting ten wooden geometric blocks into their matching recessed shapes as quickly as possible.
विभिन्न आकृतियों के ब्लॉकों को उनके उपयुक्त खांचों में व्यवस्थित करने वाला परीक्षण 'सेगुइन फॉर्म बोर्ड' (SFB) है।
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1815📚Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyMilgram Obedience Experiments
Which of the following is a key finding of Stanley Milgram's obedience study?
Explanation
Milgram's landmark 1963 obedience experiment demonstrated that a staggering majority of ordinary individuals (65%) were willing to administer lethal electric shocks when commanded by a perceived authority figure.
मिलग्राम के आज्ञाकारिता अध्ययन का मुख्य निष्कर्ष यह था कि लोग नैतिक संघर्ष के बावजूद सत्ता/अधिकार के प्रति आश्चर्यजनक रूप से आज्ञाकारी (Obedient to authority) होते हैं।
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1816📚Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyDiagnostic Systems Matching
Match the following:
Concept:
i. DSM-5
ii. ICD-11
iii. Differential Diagnosis
iv. Comorbidity

Meaning:
1. Identifying multiple co-occurring disorders in a single individual
2. A classification system by the World Health Organization
3. Distinguishing between two or more similar conditions
4. The manual used by the American Psychiatric Association for diagnosing mental disorders

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 4 (DSM-5: APA diagnostic manual), ii -> 2 (ICD-11: WHO classification), iii -> 3 (Differential diagnosis: distinguishing similar conditions), iv -> 1 (Comorbidity: co-occurring disorders). Correct match: i-4; ii-2; iii-3; iv-1.
i-4 (DSM-5), ii-2 (ICD-11), iii-3 (विभेदक निदान), iv-1 (सहरुग्णता)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1817📚Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyDSM-IV Multiaxial System
The multiaxial system in DSM IV-TR had how many axes?
Explanation
DSM-IV-TR utilized a 5-axis multiaxial assessment system: Axis I (Clinical syndromes), Axis II (Personality disorders/MR), Axis III (Medical conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial stressors), and Axis V (GAF score).
DSM-IV-TR के बहुअक्षीय (Multiaxial) वर्गीकरण में कुल 5 अक्ष (Five axes) थे।
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1818📚Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyPsychopathology Symptoms Matching
Match the following:
Symptom/Behavior:
i. Hallucinations
ii. Mania
iii. Anhedonia
iv. Compulsions

Disorder:
1. Bipolar Disorder
2. Major Depressive Disorder
3. Schizophrenia
4. OCD

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 3 (Hallucinations: Schizophrenia), ii -> 1 (Mania: Bipolar Disorder), iii -> 2 (Anhedonia: Major Depressive Disorder), iv -> 4 (Compulsions: OCD). Correct match: i-3; ii-1; iii-2; iv-4.
i-3 (विभ्रम - सिज़ोफ्रेनिया), ii-1 (उन्माद - बाइपोलर), iii-2 (एनहेडोनिया - अवसाद), iv-4 (बाध्यता - OCD)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1819📚Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyResearch Ethics Sequence
Arrange the following sequence of the process of ethics institutional review in psychopathology research.
I. Balance risks and benefits of the study
II. Implement protocols to ensure ethical conduct
III. Identify ethical concerns (e.g., informed consent)
IV. Seek approval from an Institutional Review Board (IRB)
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Proper ethical sequence: III (Identify ethical concerns) -> I (Balance risks and benefits) -> IV (Seek IRB approval) -> II (Implement protocols during execution). Sequence: III -> I -> IV -> II.
नैतिक समीक्षा का सही क्रम: III (नैतिक चिंताओं की पहचान) -> I (जोखिम-लाभ संतुलन) -> IV (IRB अनुमोदन) -> II (प्रोटोकॉल कार्यान्वयन)। सही विकल्प B (या C) है।
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1820📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsTest Publishing Steps
Select the correct sequence of the process of publishing a psychological test.
I. Develop a user manual with administration and scoring instructions
II. Conduct final testing with a diverse population
III. Establish copyright and intellectual property rights
IV. Distribute the test through professional channels
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Correct publishing progression: II (Conduct standardization on diverse population) -> I (Develop technical user manual and scoring guides) -> III (Secure copyright/IP) -> IV (Commercial/professional distribution). Sequence: II -> I -> III -> IV.
परीक्षण प्रकाशन का सही क्रम: II -> I -> III -> IV। सही विकल्प A है।
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1821📚Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsMaximal vs Typical Performance Tests
Out of the following variables, which psychometric measurement is determined by right and wrong answers?
I. Personality
II. Attitude
III. Motivation
IV. Aptitude
V. Intelligence
VI. Abstract reasoning
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Maximal performance cognitive tests scored with objectively correct (right/wrong) answers include Aptitude (IV), Intelligence (V), and Abstract Reasoning (VI), whereas personality, attitude, and motivation are typical performance self-reports without right/wrong keys.
सही और गलत उत्तरों (Right/wrong answers) पर आधारित परीक्षण एप्टीट्यूड (IV), बुद्धिमत्ता (V), और अमूर्त तर्क (VI) हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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1822📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHealth Psychology Matching
Match the following:
Concept:
i. Health Belief Model
ii. Stress
iii. Coping
iv. Psychoneuroimmunology

Meaning:
1. The study of how psychological, neural, and immune processes interact
2. Behavior is influenced by perceived susceptibility, severity, and benefits of action
3. A psychological and physiological response to a threat or challenge
4. Strategies to manage stress or adapt to adversity

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Health Belief Model: perceived susceptibility/severity/benefits), ii -> 3 (Stress: psychophysiological response to threat), iii -> 4 (Coping: cognitive/behavioral stress management), iv -> 1 (Psychoneuroimmunology: mind-brain-immune interactions). Correct match: i-2; ii-3; iii-4; iv-1.
i-2 (हेल्थ बिलीफ मॉडल), ii-3 (तनाव), iii-4 (कोपिंग), iv-1 (साइकोन्यूरोइम्यूनोलॉजी)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1823📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsLevels of Prevention
Below are two statements. Select your answer using the code below
Statement 1: Vaccination is an example of primary prevention
Statement 2: Rehabilitation is an example of secondary prevention
Explanation
Statement 1 is true (vaccination prevents disease onset in healthy populations = Primary Prevention). Statement 2 is false (rehabilitation manages existing long-term impairment to restore function = Tertiary Prevention; secondary prevention involves early screening/detection).
कथन 1 सत्य है (टीकाकरण प्राथमिक रोकथाम है), लेकिन कथन 2 असत्य है (पुनर्वास तृतीयक रोकथाम/Tertiary prevention का उदाहरण है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1824📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsStress Endocrine Physiology Matching
Match the following:
Hormone:
i. Cortisol
ii. Adrenaline (Epinephrine)
iii. Norepinephrine
iv. CRH (Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone)

Brain part / Gland:
1. Adrenal Medulla
2. Hypothalamus
3. Adrenal Cortex
4. Locus Coeruleus

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 3 (Cortisol: Adrenal Cortex), ii -> 1 (Adrenaline: Adrenal Medulla), iii -> 4 (Norepinephrine: Locus Coeruleus / brain noradrenergic system), iv -> 2 (CRH: Hypothalamus). Correct match: i-3; ii-1; iii-4; iv-2.
i-3 (कोर्टिसोल - एड्रिनल कॉर्टेक्स), ii-1 (एड्रेनालाईन - एड्रिनल मेडुला), iii-4 (नोरेपिनेफ्रिन - लोकस कोर्यूलियस), iv-2 (CRH - हाइपोथैलेमस)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1825📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHealth Protective Factors
Which of the following are protective factors in health psychology?
I. Regular physical exercise
II. Chronic stress
III. Social support networks
IV. Maladaptive coping strategies
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Regular physical exercise (I) and robust social support networks (III) are classic salutogenic protective factors enhancing psychological resilience and physical health. Correct: I and III only.
नियमित व्यायाम (I) और सामाजिक समर्थन नेटवर्क (III) स्वास्थ्य मनोविज्ञान में सुरक्षात्मक कारक (Protective factors) हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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1826📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsWorkplace Motivation Theories
Which theory explains employee motivation through the balance of inputs and outcomes?
Explanation
J. Stacy Adams' Equity Theory posits that workplace motivation depends on an employee's perception of fairness, determined by comparing their ratio of Inputs (effort, skill) to Outcomes (pay, recognition) against relevant referents.
कर्मचारी के इनपुट (प्रयास) और आउटकम (प्रतिफल) के संतुलन द्वारा प्रेरणा को समझाने वाला सिद्धांत 'इक्विटी सिद्धांत' (Equity Theory / न्याय्यता सिद्धांत) है।
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1827📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsOrganizational Commitment
Which type of organizational commitment is based on an employee's emotional attachment to their workplace?
Explanation
In Meyer and Allen's three-component model, Affective Commitment refers to an employee's positive emotional attachment to, identification with, and voluntary involvement in the organization ('wanting to stay').
कार्यस्थल के प्रति कर्मचारी के भावनात्मक जुड़ाव पर आधारित प्रतिबद्धता 'भावात्मक प्रतिबद्धता' (Affective commitment) कहलाती है।
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1828📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsOrganizational Psychology Matching
Match the following:
Organizational Concepts:
I. Job Satisfaction
II. Employee Engagement
III. Occupational Stress
IV. Diversity Management

Descriptions:
1. Emotional and intellectual investment in the organization
2. Psychological and physical strain due to workplace demands
3. Strategies and practices to support inclusive workplace environments
4. The degree of contentment employees feel about their work

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
I -> 4 (Job Satisfaction: degree of contentment), II -> 1 (Employee Engagement: emotional/intellectual investment), III -> 2 (Occupational Stress: strain from workplace demands), IV -> 3 (Diversity Management: inclusive workplace practices). Correct match: I-4; II-1; III-2; IV-3.
I-4 (नौकरी से संतुष्टि), II-1 (कर्मचारी जुड़ाव), III-2 (व्यावसायिक तनाव), IV-3 (विविधता प्रबंधन)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1829📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsVroom's Expectancy Theory
According to Vroom's Expectancy Theory, which factors influence job satisfaction and motivation?
I. Valence: The importance of the reward to the individual.
II. Instrumentality: The belief that performance will lead to rewards.
III. Expectancy: The belief that effort will lead to performance.
IV. Security: The assurance of job stability.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Victor Vroom's Expectancy Theory of motivation is defined by the formula: Motivation=Expectancy (E)×Instrumentality (I)×Valence (V)\text{Motivation} = \text{Expectancy (E)} \times \text{Instrumentality (I)} \times \text{Valence (V)}. Statements I, II, and III constitute the model. Correct: I, II and III only.
व्रूम के प्रत्याशा सिद्धांत में तीन मुख्य कारक हैं: प्रत्याशा (III), साधनता (II), और संयोजकता/वैलेंस (I)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1830📚Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsJob Characteristics Model
What is the Job Characteristics Model (JCM) primarily concerned with?
Explanation
Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Model (JCM) explains how five core job dimensions (skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, feedback) influence critical psychological states to optimize motivation and work design.
जॉब कैरेक्टरिस्टिक्स मॉडल (JCM) कार्य वातावरण और नौकरी की संरचना (Work environment design) के माध्यम से संतुष्टि और प्रेरणा को समझाने से संबंधित है।
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1831📚Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyClinical Diagnostic Tools Matching
Match the following:
Test/ Scale:
I. DSM-5
II. ICD-11
III. SCID
IV. PCL-R

Type of Assessment:
1. Used to diagnose psychopathy and assess personality traits
2. Clinical interview for mental health disorders based on the DSM system.
3. International classification system for diseases and mental health conditions.
4. Standardized manual for diagnosing mental health disorders in the united States.

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
I -> 4 (DSM-5: APA standardized US manual), II -> 3 (ICD-11: WHO international classification), III -> 2 (Structured Clinical Interview for DSM / SCID: DSM-based clinical interview), IV -> 1 (Psychopathy Checklist-Revised / PCL-R: diagnostic tool for psychopathy). Correct match: I-4; II-3; III-2; IV-1.
I-4 (DSM-5), II-3 (ICD-11), III-2 (SCID), IV-1 (PCL-R)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1832📚Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationLanguage Development Milestones
Arrange the milestones in language development in the correct developmental order:
I. First Words
II. Telegraphic Speech
III. Cooing
IV. Babbling
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Infant language acquisition milestones in chronological order: III. Cooing (approx 2 months) -> IV. Babbling (approx 6 months) -> I. First Words (approx 12 months) -> II. Telegraphic Speech (approx 18-24 months). Sequence: III -> IV -> I -> II.
भाषा विकास के चरणों का सही क्रम: III (कूइंग) -> IV (बैबलिंग) -> I (पहला शब्द) -> II (टेलीग्राफिक वाक्)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1833📚Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationVygotsky Sociocultural Theory
Which of the following are features of Vygotsky's Sociocultural Theory?
I. Learning is a social process mediated by cultural tools.
II. The Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) refers to tasks a child can accomplish without assistance.
III. Scaffolding involves providing support to help children achieve tasks beyond their independent ability.
IV. Language plays a key role in cognitive development.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
In Lev Vygotsky's theory: social mediation (I), instructional scaffolding (III), and language as a cognitive tool (IV) are core tenets. Statement II is false because ZPD represents the distance between actual independent level and potential level achieved with adult assistance. Correct: I, III, and IV only.
कथन I, III और IV वाइगोत्स्की के सिद्धांत की सही विशेषताएं हैं (कथन II असत्य है क्योंकि ZPD सहायता के साथ किए जाने वाले कार्यों का क्षेत्र है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1834📚Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationEducational Assessment Matching
Match the following:
Assessment Type:
I. Summative Assessment
II. Diagnostic Assessment
III. Criterion-referenced Test
IV. Face Validity

Purpose:
1. Measure overall learning at the end of a course
2. Appears relevant measure
3. Compare performance to a set standard
4. Identify learning gaps and student needs

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
I -> 1 (Summative: measure end-of-course learning), II -> 4 (Diagnostic: identify learning gaps), III -> 3 (Criterion-referenced: compare to predefined standard), IV -> 2 (Face validity: appears relevant on superficial inspection). Correct match: I-1; II-4; III-3; IV-2.
I-1 (योगात्मक), II-4 (नैदानिक), III-3 (मानदंड-संदर्भित), IV-2 (फेस वैधता)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1835📚Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationCounseling Ethics & Confidentiality
Which of the following is an ethical issue that counselors must consider in their practice?
Explanation
The fundamental ethical mandate in psychological counseling is Maintaining Confidentiality, with mandatory exceptions strictly defined under duty-to-warn/protect statutes when there is imminent risk of harm to self or others.
परामर्श का प्राथमिक नैतिक नियम 'गोपनीयता बनाए रखना' (Maintaining confidentiality) है, जब तक कि स्वयं या दूसरों को नुकसान का आसन्न खतरा न हो।
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1836📚Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationDisability Classifications
Which of the following are common types of disabilities addressed in rehabilitation psychology?
I. Physical disabilities, such as spinal cord injuries or amputations.
II. Intellectual disabilities, such as Down syndrome or developmental delays.
III. Emotional disabilities, such as anxiety or depression.
IV. Sensory disabilities, such as vision or hearing impairments.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Rehabilitation psychology classifications formally distinguish permanent impairments into Physical disabilities (I), Intellectual/developmental disabilities (II), and Sensory disabilities (IV), whereas anxiety/depression are classified as psychiatric/affective disorders. Correct: I, II and IV only.
पुनर्वास मनोविज्ञान में मुख्य रूप से शारीरिक (I), बौद्धिक (II) और संवेदी (IV) दिव्यांगताओं का प्रबंधन किया जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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1837📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Excel Sparklines
What is the primary purpose of sparkline in a worksheet?
Explanation
A Sparkline (introduced by Edward Tufte) is a tiny word-sized chart embedded directly within a single worksheet cell to show data trends at a glance.
स्पार्कलाइन (Sparkline) सेल के भीतर डेटा के रुझान को दर्शाने वाला एक छोटा सूक्ष्म-चार्ट (Tiny chart within a cell) होता है।
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1838📚Relational Database Management Systems (DBMS & SQL)SQL Fundamentals
What does the abbreviation SQL stand for?
Explanation
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the ANSI/ISO standard declarative language for relational database management.
SQL का पूर्ण रूप 'Structured Query Language' होता है।
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1839📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Windows File Formats
What is the default file extension used for saving Paint Brush files in Windows?
Explanation
In modern Microsoft Windows (Windows 7/8/10/11), MS Paint saves image files by default with the `.png` (Portable Network Graphics) extension (historically `.bmp` in legacy Windows 95/98).
Windows में MS Paint फाइलों को सहेजने के लिए डिफ़ॉल्ट फ़ाइल एक्सटेंशन `.png` (या ऐतिहासिक रूप से `.bmp`) होता है।
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1840📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRIT Act 2000 Cyber Crime Sections
Match the following Information Technology Act Sections with their applicability:
Column - X (Section of IT Act):
1. Section 66B
2. Section 66C
3. Section 66E

Column - Y (Description):
I. Identify theft through fraudulent use of another person's identity
II. Violation of privacy by sharing private images without consent
III. Punishment for receiving stolen computer resources or devices.

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Under the Information Technology Act 2000: 1. Section 66B -> III (Dishonestly receiving stolen computer resource), 2. Section 66C -> I (Identity theft / password theft), 3. Section 66E -> II (Violation of privacy / transmitting private images). Correct match: 1-III, 2-I, 3-II.
1-III (Section 66B - चोरी के कंप्यूटर संसाधन), 2-I (Section 66C - पहचान की चोरी), 3-II (Section 66E - निजता का उल्लंघन)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1841📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRIntellectual Capital & IPR
The primary reason that Intellectual Capital is considered critical for the success of an organization is:
I. It increases the financial capital of the organization
II. It provides a competitive advantage to the organization
III. It reduces the operating cost of the organization
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Explanation
Intellectual capital (human knowledge, patents, trademarks, processes) is critical primarily because it provides a sustainable, inimitable Competitive Advantage in the knowledge economy.
बौद्धिक पूंजी संगठन को एक स्थायी 'प्रतिस्पर्धी लाभ' (Competitive advantage) प्रदान करती है। सही विकल्प C (II only) है।
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1842📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRProvisions of IT Act 2000
Which of the following is/are a key provision of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
I. Legal recognition of electronic documents
II. Regulation of physical property disputes
III. Justice dispensation system for cyber crimes
IV. Definition and penalties for cyber offences
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Key provisions of the IT Act, 2000 include: Legal recognition of e-records/signatures (I), setting up the Cyber Appellate Tribunal (III), and penalizing cyber offences (IV). Physical property disputes (II) fall under civil property law. Correct: I, III, and IV.
IT अधिनियम 2000 में इलेक्ट्रॉनिक दस्तावेजों को कानूनी मान्यता (I), साइबर न्याय प्रणाली (III) और साइबर अपराधों के लिए दंड (IV) शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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1843📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesNetwork Interconnection Devices
Which of the following networking devices is used for interconnecting networks on different protocols?
I. Bridge
II. Hub
III. Gateway
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
A Gateway operates across all seven layers of the OSI model to translate and interconnect heterogeneous networks running completely different communication protocol stacks (Bridges operate at Layer 2 for homogeneous networks).
विभिन्न प्रोटोकॉल पर काम करने वाले नेटवर्कों को आपस में जोड़ने के लिए केवल 'गेटवे' (Gateway) का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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1844📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesInternet Application Protocols
Which of the following protocols is/are used in the Internet?
I. HTTP
II. DHCP
III. DNS
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
HTTP (web browsing), DHCP (automatic dynamic IP address assignment), and DNS (domain name to IP resolution) are standard fundamental Internet application layer protocols.
इंटरनेट पर HTTP, DHCP और DNS तीनों प्रोटोकॉल का व्यापक उपयोग होता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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1845📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesIPsec Internet Key Exchange
What is the main function of the Internet Key Exchange protocol?
Explanation
Internet Key Exchange (IKE / IKEv2), part of the IPsec suite, dynamically negotiates security associations (SAs), performs mutual authentication, and establishes shared secret keys for secure channels.
IKE प्रोटोकॉल का मुख्य कार्य IPsec में एक सुरक्षित और प्रमाणित संचार चैनल (Establishing a secure and authenticated communication channel) स्थापित करना है।
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1846📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesISDN Networking Features
Which of the following is a key feature of Integrated Services Digital Network?
Explanation
ISDN separates user payload data channels (B channels) from signalling control by using dedicated Out-of-Band Signalling (D channel / Q.931 protocol) across physical/network interfaces.
ISDN की मुख्य विशेषता यह है कि यह आउट-ऑफ-बैंड सिग्नलिंग (D चैनल) का उपयोग करता है।
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1847📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesTCP/IP Protocol Encapsulation
Arrange the following steps in the proper sequence for the process of data transmission using the TCP/IP protocol suite:
I. The application layer sends the data to the transport layer.
II. The destination application receives the data from the application layer.
III. The Internet layer adds IP addresses to the packets for routing.
IV. The link layer transmits the packets over the physical medium.
V. The data is segmented into smaller packets by the transport layer.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Sender-to-receiver transmission flow: I (Application layer creates data) -> V (Transport layer segments data) -> III (Internet layer attaches IP headers) -> IV (Link layer transmits frames on wire) -> II (Destination application receives reassembled data). Sequence: I, V, III, IV, II.
TCP/IP ट्रांसमिशन का सही क्रम: I -> V -> III -> IV -> II। सही विकल्प A है।
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1848📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesOSI Reference Model
Consider the following statements:
I. The full form of OSI is Operating Systems Interconnection
II. Web service facilitates the communication between nodes in a network
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is false (OSI stands for Open Systems Interconnection, not Operating Systems). Statement II is true (web services enable interoperable machine-to-machine communication across networks via HTTP/XML/JSON). Correct: II only.
कथन I असत्य है (OSI का पूर्ण रूप Open Systems Interconnection है), लेकिन कथन II सत्य है। सही विकल्प C है।
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1849📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesNetwork Security Terms Matching
Match the following terms with their correct descriptions:
Column - X:
1. VPN
2. ISP
3. Encryption

Column - Y:
I. Converts information into code to prevent unauthorized access
II. A company that provides access to the Internet
III. Ensures security by scrambling data and masking user's IP address

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
1 -> III (VPN: Encrypted tunnel masking IP address), 2 -> II (ISP: Internet Service Provider), 3 -> I (Encryption: Cryptographic transformation of plaintext to ciphertext). Correct match: 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.
1-III (VPN - आईपी मास्किंग), 2-II (ISP - इंटरनेट सेवा प्रदाता), 3-I (एन्क्रिप्शन - डेटा कोडिंग)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1850📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRCyber Attacks Matching
Match the type of cyber attack with their correct descriptions:
Column - X:
1. Botnet attack
2. DDoS attack
3. Zero-day attack

Column - Y:
I. Targets a website or server with a flood of traffic
II. Exploits an unknown software vulnerability with no available patch
III. A network of infected computers controlled by a single attacker

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
1 -> III (Botnet: Network of infected zombie machines controlled by command & control server), 2 -> I (DDoS: Flooding server with traffic to deny service), 3 -> II (Zero-day: Exploiting unpatched undisclosed software flaw). Correct match: 1-III, 2-I, 3-II.
1-III (बॉटनेट), 2-I (DDoS हमला), 3-II (जीरो-डे हमला)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1851📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesNetwork Topologies Matching
Match the type of topologies with their correct descriptions:
Column - X:
1. Bus
2. Ring
3. Mesh

Column - Y:
I. Uses a single cable that connects all the nodes
II. Uses tokens to pass information from one computer to another
III. Every node is directly connected

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
1 -> I (Bus topology: Single central linear backbone cable), 2 -> II (Ring topology: Token passing in a closed loop), 3 -> III (Mesh topology: Dedicated point-to-point links between all nodes). Correct match: 1-I, 2-II, 3-III.
1-I (बस टोपोलॉजी), 2-II (रिंग टोपोलॉजी), 3-III (मेश टोपोलॉजी)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1852📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesP2P Protocols
Which of the following protocols is primarily used in Peer-to-Peer file sharing?
Explanation
BitTorrent is the decentralized peer-to-peer (P2P) communications protocol specifically designed for distributed high-speed file sharing among swarms of users.
पीयर-टू-पीयर (P2P) फाइल शेयरिंग में मुख्य रूप से 'बिटटोरेंट' (BitTorrent) प्रोटोकॉल का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1853📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesTransport Layer Protocol Usage
Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP?
I. FTP
II. SMTP
III. Telnet
IV. DNS
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Domain Name System (DNS) operates over port 53 using both UDP (for rapid single-packet queries) and TCP (for zone transfers and replies exceeding 512 bytes). Correct: IV only.
DNS प्रोटोकॉल मानक रूप से UDP (क्वेरी के लिए) और TCP (ज़ोन ट्रांसफर के लिए) दोनों का उपयोग करता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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1854📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesEmail Transmission Workflow
Identify the correct order of the following stages (I-V) when an email is sent and received:
I. The sender's ISP mail server decides how to route the message, and the message travels over the Internet and arrives at the recipient's ISP mail server
II. Message is retrieved and sent to the recipient's computer to be opened and read
III. The sender composes the message and activates the send command
IV. Message is held in the recipient's electronic mailbox, and the recipient logs in to read their messages
V. The message is sent to the sender's ISP mail server, which examines the address associated with the message
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Logical email workflow: III (Compose & send via client) -> V (Upload to sender MTA via SMTP) -> I (MTA routes across Internet to recipient mail server) -> IV (Stored in mailbox on IMAP/POP server) -> II (Recipient logs in and downloads message). Sequence: III, V, I, IV, II.
ईमेल प्रेषण और प्राप्ति का सही क्रम: III -> V -> I -> IV -> II। सही विकल्प D है।
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1855📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesStandard Network Ports
Which TCP port does the Telnet protocol use by default for communication?
Explanation
Telnet operates by default over TCP port 23 (Port 21 is FTP, Port 22 is SSH, Port 25 is SMTP).
टेल्नेट (Telnet) प्रोटोकॉल डिफ़ॉल्ट रूप से TCP पोर्ट 23 का उपयोग करता है।
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1856📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesFTP Architecture
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses the following for control and data connection.
Explanation
FTP uses an out-of-band architecture with a Persistent TCP control connection (Port 21) that stays open for the entire session and a Non-persistent TCP data connection (Port 20) created per file transfer.
FTP में नियंत्रण कनेक्शन (Control connection) सत्र भर 'स्थायी' (Persistent TCP) रहता है और डेटा कनेक्शन प्रत्येक फाइल के लिए 'अस्थायी' (Non-persistent TCP) बनता है।
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1857📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesSMTP Port
What is the default port number used by the SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) for sending email?
Explanation
Standard unencrypted SMTP mail relay servers listen on TCP port 25.
ईमेल भेजने के लिए SMTP प्रोटोकॉल डिफ़ॉल्ट रूप से पोर्ट 25 का उपयोग करता है।
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1858📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesWebpage Formats
Webpages are typically saved in which format?
Explanation
Webpages are authored and saved using Hypertext Markup Language with the `.html` (or `.htm`) file extension.
वेबपेज मुख्य रूप से `.html` (या `.htm`) प्रारूप में सहेजे जाते हैं।
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1859📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Business Information Systems
What does 'EOQ' stand for in Inventory Control?
Explanation
In operations research and inventory management systems, EOQ stands for Economic Order Quantity, which minimizes total holding and ordering costs.
इन्वेंट्री प्रबंधन में EOQ का पूर्ण रूप 'Economic Order Quantity' (आर्थिक आदेश मात्रा) होता है।
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1860📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesE-Commerce vs E-Business Scope
Which of the following statements about the scope of E-commerce compared to E-Business or Digital Business are correct?
I. E-commerce focuses primarily on online buying and selling, while E-Business includes additional processes like supply chain management and customer relationship management
II. E-commerce has a narrower scope as it deals only with commercial transactions
III. E-Business or Digital Business has a broader scope as it includes both online and offline business activities
IV. E-commerce encompasses all aspects of business operations, including production and logistics.
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and III are correct: E-commerce is a subset of E-business focusing strictly on online transactions, whereas E-business encompasses internal SCM, ERP, CRM, and end-to-end digital enterprise operations. (Statement IV is false). Correct: I, II, and III only.
ई-कॉमर्स केवल ऑनलाइन खरीद-बिक्री पर केंद्रित है, जबकि ई-बिजनेस में आपूर्ति श्रृंखला और ग्राहक प्रबंधन सहित व्यापक व्यावसायिक प्रक्रियाएं शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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1861📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesCellular Communication Technologies
Which technology allows 4G networks to achieve high speeds?
Explanation
4G LTE and LTE-Advanced wireless cellular networks achieve high spectral efficiency and multi-megabit throughput using Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM / OFDMA).
4G सेलुलर नेटवर्क में उच्च गति प्राप्त करने के लिए 'OFDM' (ऑर्थोगोनल फ़्रीक्वेंसी डिवीज़न मल्टीप्लेक्सिंग) तकनीक का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1862📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesMarkup Languages (SGML)
Which of the following is an advantage of using Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)?
Explanation
SGML (ISO 8879) is a standardized, highly extensible metalanguage that defines structural rules for creating and exchanging complex electronic documents independently of application formatting.
SGML का मुख्य लाभ यह है कि यह विभिन्न प्रारूपों के साथ दस्तावेज़ बनाने और साझा करने के लिए एक लचीली संरचना (Flexible structure) प्रदान करता है।
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1863📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesHTML Headings
Which tag is used to insert the largest heading in HTML?
Explanation
In standard HTML semantic typography, `<h1>` represents the top-level, largest, and most important heading.
HTML में सबसे बड़ा शीर्षक (Largest heading) प्रदर्शित करने के लिए `<h1>` टैग का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1864📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureGUI Features
Which is/are feature(s) of GUI that makes learning a program easy for users?
I. WYSIWYG formatting
II. Dialogue boxes
III. Detailed keystrokes and commands
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Graphical User Interfaces (GUIs) facilitate user-friendly learning through WYSIWYG (What You See Is What You Get) visual rendering and interactive Dialog Boxes. (Lengthy command keystrokes belong to CLI). Correct: I and II.
GUI में उपयोगकर्ता के लिए सीखना आसान बनाने वाली सुविधाएं WYSIWYG फॉर्मेटिंग और डायलॉग बॉक्स (I and II) हैं।
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1865📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesHTML File Format
In which format is the HTML document saved?
Explanation
HTML source files are human-readable, uncompiled plain text documents saved in ASCII Text or UTF-8 plain text format.
HTML दस्तावेज़ सादे ASCII टेक्स्ट (या UTF-8) प्रारूप में सहेजे जाते हैं।
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1866📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesWeb Technologies Matching
Match column - X with column - Y:
Column - X:
1. DHTML
2. XML
3. JAVA

Column - Y:
I. Allows for dynamic and interactive web pages
II. Object-oriented programming language for web applications
III. Used for data storage and exchange

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
1 -> I (DHTML: Dynamic HTML for interactive pages), 2 -> III (XML: Extensible Markup Language for data storage/exchange), 3 -> II (Java: OOP language for enterprise web apps). Correct match: 1-I, 2-III, 3-II.
1-I (DHTML - डायनामिक वेबपेज), 2-III (XML - डेटा भंडारण व विनिमय), 3-II (JAVA - ऑब्जेक्ट ओरिएंटेड भाषा)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1867📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesHistory of JavaScript
Which company developed the JavaScript programming language?
Explanation
JavaScript was originally created in 1995 by Brendan Eich at Netscape Communications Corporation for the Netscape Navigator browser.
जावास्क्रिप्ट प्रोग्रामिंग भाषा को 'नेटस्केप' (Netscape / ब्रेंडन आइच, 1995) द्वारा विकसित किया गया था।
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1868📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesASP.NET State Management
Which ASP.NET object is responsible for managing and preserving the state of an individual client?
Explanation
In ASP.NET, the `Session` object stores user-specific data and maintains conversational state across multiple requests for a single browser user session.
ASP.NET में किसी व्यक्तिगत क्लाइंट की स्थिति (State) को प्रबंधित और संरक्षित रखने वाला ऑब्जेक्ट 'Session ऑब्जेक्ट' है।
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1869📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRComputer Viruses
Which type of virus attaches with .EXE files and the resulting infected .EXE file attacks other .EXE files and infects them?
Explanation
A Parasitic Virus (also known as a file infector virus) attaches itself to executable program files (`.exe`, `.com`) and replicates by infecting other executables upon execution.
पैरासिटिक वायरस (Parasitic / File virus) .EXE फाइलों से जुड़ता है और निष्पादित होने पर अन्य .EXE फाइलों को संक्रमित करता है।
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1870📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRFirewall Architectures
Which of the following is a type of firewall that filters traffic based on IP addresses and ports?
Explanation
A stateless Packet-Filtering Firewall inspects network packets at the Network (Layer 3) and Transport (Layer 4) layers, filtering packets based solely on source/destination IP addresses and port numbers.
आईपी पते और पोर्ट नंबरों के आधार पर नेटवर्क ट्रैफिक को फ़िल्टर करने वाला फ़ायरवॉल 'पैकेट-फ़िल्टरिंग फ़ायरवॉल' (Packet-filtering firewall) है।
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1871📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRFirewall Network Security
What is the primary purpose of a firewall in network security?
Explanation
A firewall establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted outside networks, monitoring and controlling incoming/outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules.
फ़ायरवॉल का मुख्य उद्देश्य सुरक्षा नियमों के आधार पर आने वाले और जाने वाले नेटवर्क ट्रैफ़िक की निगरानी और नियंत्रण करना है।
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1872📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesHistory of the Internet
Who created the World Wide Web?
Explanation
Sir Tim Berners-Lee invented the World Wide Web in 1989 at CERN, authoring the first web browser, HTTP protocol, and HTML standard.
वर्ल्ड वाइड वेब (WWW) का आविष्कार वर्ष 1989 में 'टिम बर्नर्स-ली' (Tim Berners-Lee) ने किया था।
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1873📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRInternet Governance Issues
Which of the following is a key concern in Internet governance?
Explanation
Global Internet governance policy debates revolve around Net Neutrality, data privacy rights, cross-border cybersecurity, intellectual property, and censorship (All of the above).
इंटरनेट गवर्नेंस में नेट न्यूट्रैलिटी, डेटा प्राइवेसी और साइबर सुरक्षा सभी प्रमुख चिंताएं (All of the above) हैं।
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1874📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRCyber Crimes (Phishing)
Which of the following is a form of cybercrime where criminals use fraudulent emails or websites to steal sensitive personal information, such as passwords or credit card details?
Explanation
Phishing is a social engineering cyberattack where deceptive emails and spoofed websites trick victims into divulging sensitive confidential credentials, passwords, or financial information.
फर्जी ईमेल या वेबसाइटों के माध्यम से पासवर्ड या क्रेडिट कार्ड जैसी संवेदनशील जानकारी चुराने का साइबर अपराध 'फ़िशिंग' (Phishing) कहलाता है।
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1875📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesE-Commerce Financial Systems
Assertion: Online banking and financial services are critical aspects of e-commerce.
Reasoning: These services enable secure transactions and allow businesses to accept payment over the Internet.
Which of the following is correct?
Explanation
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason provides the exact functional explanation for why online financial services underpin e-commerce operations.
अभिकथन और कारण दोनों सत्य हैं, और कारण अभिकथन की सही व्याख्या करता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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1876📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesHistory of ARPANET & Internet
What was the significance of the ARPANET protocol suite?
Explanation
The migration of ARPANET to TCP/IP on January 1, 1983 ('Flag Day') was historically momentous because it established an open inter-networking architecture that allowed multiple heterogeneous networks to interconnect and communicate seamlessly.
ARPANET प्रोटोकॉल सूट का महत्व यह था कि इसने विभिन्न नेटवर्कों को आपस में जुड़ने और संचार करने की अनुमति दी (Allowed multiple networks to interconnect)।
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1877📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesPacket Switching Pioneers
Which network technology was pioneered by ARPANET?
Explanation
ARPANET (established by the US DARPA in 1969) was the world's first operational computer network to implement packet switching technology (developed by Paul Baran and Donald Davies).
ARPANET द्वारा सबसे पहले 'पैकेट स्विचिंग' (Packet switching) तकनीक का आविष्कार और क्रियान्वयन किया गया था।
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1878📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesNetwork Routers
Assertion: A router is a device that forwards data packets between computer networks.
Reasoning: A router examines the destination address and directs traffic to its appropriate destination.
Which of the following is correct?
Explanation
Both Assertion and Reason are correct: A Layer 3 router forwards packets across networks by inspecting the destination IP address in the packet header and consulting its routing table to choose the optimal next-hop destination.
राउटर पैकेटों को आगे भेजता है क्योंकि वह गंतव्य आईपी पते की जांच करके उचित मार्ग निर्धारित करता है। दोनों सही हैं और कारण अभिकथन की सही व्याख्या है।
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1879📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesIPv6 Protocol Features
Which of the following is a feature of an IPv6 address?
Explanation
IPv6 features a 128-bit address space (21282^{128} addresses, written in hexadecimal with colons), providing a vastly larger address pool than 32-bit IPv4 (broadcasting was replaced by anycasting/multicasting in IPv6).
IPv6 की प्रमुख विशेषता यह है कि यह IPv4 की तुलना में अत्यधिक बड़ा 128-बिट एड्रेस स्पेस (Significantly larger address space) प्रदान करता है।
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1880📚Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesDomain Name Registries
Which organization manages the domain ".org"?
Explanation
The Public Interest Registry (PIR), established by the Internet Society (ISOC) in 2002, is the official top-level domain registry responsible for managing the `.org` domain.
`.org` टॉप-लेवल डोमेन का प्रबंधन 'पब्लिक इंटरेस्ट रजिस्ट्री' (Public Interest Registry / PIR) द्वारा किया जाता है।
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1881📚Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS PowerPoint Shortcuts
Which shortcut key is used in Microsoft PowerPoint to create a new blank presentation?
Explanation
`Ctrl + N` creates a new blank presentation document in Microsoft PowerPoint (while `Ctrl + M` inserts a new slide into the active presentation).
PowerPoint में नई खाली प्रस्तुति (New presentation) बनाने के लिए 'Ctrl + N' शॉर्टकट का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1882📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureProgramming Language Acronyms
What does the abbreviation "BASIC" stand for?
Explanation
BASIC stands for Beginner's All-purpose Symbolic Instruction Code, developed in 1964 by John Kemeny and Thomas Kurtz at Dartmouth College.
BASIC का पूर्ण रूप 'Beginner's All-purpose Symbolic Instruction Code' होता है।
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1883📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureCompiler Design Phases
Which of the following is NOT a phase of the compiler design process?
Explanation
Standard compiler phases include Lexical Analysis, Syntax Analysis, Semantic Analysis, Intermediate Code Generation, Code Optimization, and Target Code Generation; Memory Management is an Operating System kernel service.
कंपाइलर डिज़ाइन के चरणों में लेक्सिकल, सिंटैक्स और कोड जेनरेशन शामिल हैं; 'मेमोरी प्रबंधन' (Memory Management) ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम का कार्य है।
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1884📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureSoftware Hierarchy
Which of the following statements accurately explains the relationship between hardware, system software, and application software?
Explanation
System software (Operating System and device drivers) directly manages physical hardware resources and provides an abstraction layer/APIs through which application software executes user-facing tasks.
सिस्टम सॉफ्टवेयर सीधे हार्डवेयर से जुड़ता है, जबकि एप्लिकेशन सॉफ्टवेयर उपयोगकर्ता कार्यों को पूरा करने के लिए सिस्टम सॉफ्टवेयर के माध्यम से हार्डवेयर का उपयोग करता है।
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1885📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureLinux Kernel Architecture
Which of the following statements best explains the functionality of a Linux kernel in the context of system operations?
Explanation
The Linux kernel is the core foundational layer of the OS, managing physical CPU process scheduling, virtual memory management, interrupt handling, and device drivers.
लिनक्स कर्नेल सिस्टम संसाधनों (मेमोरी, CPU शेड्यूलिंग, डिवाइस ड्राइवर) का प्रबंधन करता है और हार्डवेयर तथा एप्लिकेशन के बीच सेतु का कार्य करता है।
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1886📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureSystem Utilities Functionality
Which of the following statements accurately describe the functionalities of essential system tools such as Disk Cleanup, Disk Defragmenter, and Imaging Fax?
I. Disk Cleanup analyzes and removes temporary files, system cache, and unnecessary application logs
II. Disk Defragmenter consolidates fragmented data on an SSD to enhance its performance
III. Imaging Fax supports document scanning, image optimization, and fax transmission over a network
IV. Disk Defragmenter improves file access speed by reorganizing data on mechanical hard drives
V. Disk Cleanup can detect and resolve hardware errors on the disk
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I, III, and IV are correct: Disk Cleanup purges junk/temp files (I); Fax/Imaging handles document transmission (III); Disk Defrag reorganizes contiguous blocks on mechanical magnetic HDDs (IV). Statement II is false (defragmenting SSDs is unnecessary and shortens flash memory lifespan) and V is false (CHKDSK, not Disk Cleanup, scans disk errors). Correct: I, III and IV.
कथन I, III और IV सही हैं (डिस्क क्लीनअप अस्थायी फाइलों को हटाता है, फैक्स स्कैनिंग संभालता है, और डिस्क डीफ्रैग्मेंटर मैकेनिकल HDD पर गति बढ़ाता है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1887📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureWindows Command Prompt Utilities
What does the command xcopy /s do in Command Prompt?
Explanation
In DOS and Windows command prompt, `xcopy /s` copies directories and subdirectories, excluding empty directories (to include empty ones, `/e` is used).
`xcopy /s` कमांड उन सभी डायरेक्टरी और सब-डायरेक्टरी को कॉपी करता है जिनमें फाइलें मौजूद होती हैं (खाली डायरेक्टरी को छोड़कर)।
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1888📚Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureOperating Systems File Management
Match the Column - X with Column - Y:
Column - X:
1. Batch Files
2. Directory Structure
3. File System in Linux

Column - Y:
I. The hierarchy in which files and folders are organized
II. Text file containing a sequence of commands to be executed
III. Organized into /root, /home, /usr, and other directories

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> II (Batch files: Script containing sequence of executable shell commands), 2 -> I (Directory structure: Hierarchical organization of folders), 3 -> III (Linux filesystem: Rooted hierarchy spanning `/root`, `/home`, `/usr`, `/etc`). Correct match: 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.
1-II (बैच फाइलें), 2-I (डायरेक्टरी संरचना), 3-III (लिनक्स फाइल सिस्टम)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1889📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsD&C Act Schedules (Schedule S)
What does Schedule S prescribe under D and C Act 1940?
Explanation
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, Schedule S prescribes the statutory standards, testing specifications, and quality limits for Cosmetics manufactured in India.
ड्रग्स एंड कॉस्मेटिक्स रूल्स 1945 के तहत शेड्यूल एस (Schedule S) सौंदर्य प्रसाधनों (Cosmetics) के निर्माण मानकों को निर्धारित करता है।
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1890📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsLoan License Forms
Application for the grant or renewal of loan license shall be made in ______
Explanation
Application for the grant or renewal of a Loan License to manufacture for sale of drugs other than those specified in Schedule C/C1 is submitted in Form 24A.
शेड्यूल C/C1 के अलावा अन्य दवाओं के निर्माण के लिए ऋण लाइसेंस (Loan license) हेतु आवेदन 'फॉर्म 24A' (Form 24A) में किया जाता है।
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1891📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsDPCO Rate of Return
For production from basic stage post tax return of ______ on net worth is considered.
Explanation
Under national pharmaceutical pricing formulas for active pharmaceutical ingredients manufactured from the basic chemical stage, an incentive post-tax return of 18% on net worth is permitted.
मूल रासायनिक चरण से उत्पादन के लिए निवल मूल्य (Net worth) पर 18% कर-पश्चात रिटर्न पर विचार किया जाता है।
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1892📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsAnimal Experimentation Approval
Name the local body which allows experiments on small animals.
Explanation
The Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC) is the statutory institutional body empowered to review and permit research protocols involving small laboratory animals (rodents, rabbits).
छोटे पशुओं पर प्रयोगों की अनुमति देने वाली स्थानीय संस्थागत समिति 'IAEC' है।
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1893📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsBioequivalence Study Requirements
Bioequivalence studies are necessary:
Explanation
In vivo bioequivalence testing is mandatory for multi-active Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) generic formulations with systemic action to demonstrate therapeutic equivalence.
प्रणालीगत प्रभाव वाले 'निश्चित खुराक संयोजन उत्पादों' (Fixed dose combination products with systemic action) के लिए जैव-समतुल्यता (Bioequivalence) अध्ययन अनिवार्य हैं।
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1894📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsOphthalmic Physiology
pH of Lachrymal Fluid is ______
Explanation
The physiological pH of human tears (lachrymal fluid) is approximately 7.4 (ranging from 7.2 to 7.6), identical to normal blood plasma pH.
मानव अश्रु द्रव (Lachrymal fluid) का शारीरिक pH मान लगभग '7.4' होता है।
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1895📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Limit Tests & Quality ControlRabbit Pyrogen Test
Animals commonly used in pyrogen testing
Explanation
Healthy mature Albino Rabbits are statutory mandated for the in vivo Rabbit Pyrogen Test due to their reproducible hyperthermic fever response matching human pyrogen sensitivity.
पाइरोजेन परीक्षण (Pyrogen testing) में सामान्यतः 'खरगोश' (Rabbit) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1896📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBotanical Families
Digitalis belongs to family ______
Explanation
Digitalis (Digitalis purpurea, Foxglove) traditionally belongs to the plant family Scrophulariaceae (reclassified into Plantaginaceae).
डिजिटेलिस (Digitalis purpurea) 'स्क्रोफुलारिएसी' (Scrophulariaceae) कुल से संबंधित है।
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1897📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessHerbal Adulteration
Which of the following is a common adulterant of Ceylon cinnamon?
Explanation
Cassia bark (Cinnamomum cassia / Chinese cinnamon) is the most common commercial adulterant and substitute used for authentic Ceylon cinnamon (Cinnamomum zeylanicum).
सीलोन दालचीनी का सबसे आम मिलावटी घटक 'कैसिया दालचीनी' (Cassia cinnamon) है।
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1898📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessCinnamon Bark Pharmacognosy
Fracture of cinnamon bark is
Explanation
The pharmacognostic fracture characteristic of authentic Cinnamomum zeylanicum bark is Splintery (short and splintery in the outer part, fibrous inside).
दालचीनी की छाल का टूटन (Fracture) स्वरूप 'स्प्लिंटरी' (Splintery / रेशेदार व कांटेदार) होता है।
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1899📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessStomatal Types in Pharmacognosy
Anisocytic stomata are present in ______
Explanation
Leaves of Atropa belladonna (and Solanaceae) characteristically possess Anisocytic (unequal-celled / cruciferous) stomata, where the guard cells are surrounded by three subsidiary cells, one of which is distinctly smaller.
एनिसोसाइटिक रंध्र (Anisocytic stomata / तीन सहायक कोशिकाओं से घिरे) 'बेलाडोना' (Belladonna) की पत्तियों में पाए जाते हैं।
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1900📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOpium Plant Part
Which part of plant is used for medicinal value in case of opium
Explanation
Opium is the Dried Latex / air-dried milky exudate obtained by incising the unripe capsule fruit of Papaver somniferum.
अफीम में औषधीय रूप से उपयोग किया जाने वाला भाग कच्चे फलों से प्राप्त 'सूखा लेटेक्स' (Dried latex) है।
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1901📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOlympic Awards
The "Pierre de Coubertin Medal" is awarded for the excellence in which field?
Explanation
The Pierre de Coubertin Medal (also known as the True Spirit of Sportsmanship medal) is awarded by the International Olympic Committee to athletes who demonstrate exceptional sportsmanship in Sports.
'पियरे डी कूपर्टिन पदक' अंतर्राष्ट्रीय ओलंपिक समिति द्वारा 'खेल' (Sports / खेल भावना) के क्षेत्र में उत्कृष्टता के लिए प्रदान किया जाता है।
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1902📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFive Year Plans & Blue Revolution
Blue revolution was first launched in India during which of the Five Year Plan?
Explanation
The Blue Revolution (Neel Kranti Mission for aquaculture and fisheries development) was officially launched in India during the 7th Five Year Plan (1985–1990) through the Fish Farmers Development Agency (FFDA).
भारत में नीली क्रांति (मत्स्य पालन विकास) की शुरुआत '7वीं पंचवर्षीय योजना' (7th7^{\text{th}} Five Year Plan / 1985-1990) के दौरान हुई थी।
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1903📚Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Manufacturing & Standards
Which company has launched the first Made-in-India helmet to meet Europe's ECE 22.06 standard?
Explanation
Steelbird Hi-Tech India launched the 'Ignite' helmet range, making it the first Indian manufacturer to meet the stringent European ECE 22.06 safety standard.
यूरोप के ECE 22.06 मानक को पूरा करने वाला पहला मेड-इन-इंडिया हेलमेट 'स्टीलवर्ड' (Steelbird) द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया था।
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1904📚General English & Basic MathematicsArticles
Fill in the blank using a suitable article:
While reading ______ biography of ______ influential leader, I discovered many lessons applicable to modern-day challenges.
Explanation
The definite article 'the' specifies the particular biography being read, and 'an' precedes the vowel-sound adjective 'influential' ('the, an').
विशिष्ट जीवनी के लिए 'the' और स्वर ध्वनि 'influential' से पहले 'an' का उपयोग होगा ('the, an')।
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1905📚General English & Basic MathematicsSynonyms
Select the Synonyms of the word: Asperity
Explanation
Asperity means harshness of tone or manner, bitterness, or roughness, which is synonymous with Acerbity (suavity and civility are antonyms).
'Asperity' (कठोरता / रूखापन) का सही पर्यायवाची शब्द 'Acerbity' (कटुता/तल्खी) है।
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1906📚General English & Basic MathematicsCollective Nouns
Fill in the blank with the correct collective noun:
The ______ of birds took off from the tree branches with a sudden flap of their wings and filled the air with a chorus of chirps.
Explanation
The proper collective noun used for a group of birds is 'flock'.
पक्षियों के झुंड के लिए सही समूहवाचक संज्ञा 'flock' है।
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1907📚General English & Basic MathematicsRelative Pronouns
Fill in the blank using a suitable relative pronoun.
The park ______ we used to play as children has been renovated and looks beautiful now.
Explanation
'Where' is the relative adverb/pronoun used to refer to a place (the park where we used to play).
स्थान (पार्क) को संदर्भित करने के लिए सही सर्वनाम 'where' (जहाँ) है।
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1908📚General English & Basic MathematicsHomophones
Fill in the blank using suitable homophones.
While the car was ______ at the red light, I took out some ______ to write a quick note.
Explanation
'Stationary' means unmoving/at rest, while 'stationery' refers to writing materials/paper.
रुकी हुई कार के लिए 'stationary' (स्थिर) और लेखन सामग्री के लिए 'stationery' का उपयोग होगा।
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1909📚General English & Basic MathematicsTenses
Fill in the blank with the appropriate tense in the sentence:
I ______ my keys; I can't find them anywhere!
Explanation
The present perfect tense 'have lost' indicates a past action that has direct relevance and consequences in the present moment ('I can't find them anywhere').
वर्तमान पर प्रभाव दर्शाने के लिए Present Perfect tense 'have lost' का उपयोग होगा।
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1910📚General English & Basic MathematicsSystems of Quadratic Equations
How many pairs of (x,y)(x, y) satisfy the equations 3x2+4y2=2003x^2 + 4y^2 = 200 and 5x2−6y2=2005x^2 - 6y^2 = 200?
Explanation
Multiplying first equation by 3 and second by 2: 9x2+12y2=6009x^2 + 12y^2 = 600 and 10x2−12y2=40010x^2 - 12y^2 = 400. Adding gives 19x2=1000  ⟹  x2=1000/19>019x^2 = 1000 \implies x^2 = 1000/19 > 0. Then 4y2=200−3(1000/19)=800/19>0  ⟹  y2=200/19>04y^2 = 200 - 3(1000/19) = 800/19 > 0 \implies y^2 = 200/19 > 0. Since x2>0x^2 > 0 yields two values (±x\pm x) and y2>0y^2 > 0 yields two values (±y\pm y), there are 2×2=42 \times 2 = 4 real pairs (±x,±y)(\pm x, \pm y).
x2x^2 और y2y^2 दोनों धनात्मक हैं, अतः (±x,±y)(\pm x, \pm y) के कुल 4 वास्तविक युग्म (4 pairs) प्राप्त होंगे।
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1911📚General English & Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss
A shopkeeper purchases certain number of pens at a cost price of Rs.10 per pen. He sells half of them at a profit of 20% and the remaining half at a loss of 10%. If his overall profit is Rs. 50, how many pens did he purchased?
Explanation
Let total pens =2n= 2n. Cost price =20n= 20n. Profit on first half =n×10×0.20=2n= n \times 10 \times 0.20 = 2n. Loss on second half =n×10×0.10=n= n \times 10 \times 0.10 = n. Net profit =2n−n=n=50= 2n - n = n = 50. Total pens purchased =2n=2×50=100= 2n = 2 \times 50 = 100 pens.
कुल पेन 2n2n मानने पर, शुद्ध लाभ =2n−n=n=50= 2n - n = n = 50। अतः खरीदे गए कुल पेन =100= 100 हैं।
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1912📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsSolar Photovoltaic Power Plants
Consider the following statements about the photovoltaic power station.
i. It is a large-scale solar power system designed to generate electricity through the use of photovoltaic (PV) panels.
ii. They supply power directly to the electrical grid by providing electricity at the utility level rather than serving individual or local users.
iii. Galiveedu solar park is the first Indian Park located in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements i and ii are correct. Statement iii is false because Galiveedu Solar Park (part of Ananthapuramu Ultra Mega Solar Park) is located in Andhra Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh. Correct: i and ii.
कथन i और ii सही हैं (कथन iii गलत है क्योंकि गलीवेदु सोलर पार्क आंध्र प्रदेश में स्थित है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1913📚Basic Electrical Engineering & Circuit TheoryEnergy Band Gaps Matching
Match the following pairs regarding properties and characteristics of materials:
Property:
i) Conductor
ii) Semi-conductor
iii) Insulator
iv) Superconductor

Description:
1) The forbidden energy gap is around 0.72eV
2) No forbidden energy gap between the valence band and conduction band.
3) Energy gap is up to 10−4 eV10^{-4}\text{ eV}
4) Energy gap is up to 7eV

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Conductor: Overlapping bands / 0 eV gap), ii -> 1 (Semiconductor: Germanium gap ≈0.72 eV\approx 0.72\text{ eV} / Silicon 1.1 eV1.1\text{ eV}), iii -> 4 (Insulator: Large forbidden band gap >5–7 eV>5\text{--}7\text{ eV}), iv -> 3 (Superconductor: BCS superconducting gap ≈10−4 eV\approx 10^{-4}\text{ eV}). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3.
i-2 (चालक - 0 eV), ii-1 (अर्धचालक - 0.72 eV), iii-4 (कुचालक - 7 eV), iv-3 (अतिचालक - 10−4 eV10^{-4}\text{ eV})। सही विकल्प B है।
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1914📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsFirst Aid (DRSABCD)
What is the correct order of the first aid steps?
Explanation
The international DRSABCD primary emergency action plan: Danger -> Response -> Send for help -> Airway -> Breathing -> CPR -> Defibrillation.
प्राथमिक चिकित्सा का सही क्रम (DRSABCD): Danger, Response, Send for Help, Airway, Breathing, CPR, Defibrillator। सही विकल्प B है।
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1915📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsMechanical Maintenance & Lubrication
Which property of lubricants is important for effective performance of machinery under varying temperatures?
Explanation
A high Viscosity Index (maintaining consistent, stable film viscosity across extreme temperature variations without thinning out or solidifying) is critical for machinery lubricants.
विभिन्न तापमानों पर मशीनरी के सुचारू संचालन के लिए स्नेहक (Lubricant) का तापमान के साथ 'स्थिर श्यानता' (Consistent viscosity) बनाए रखना आवश्यक है।
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1916📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsGFCI Protection
What is the primary function of a GFCI (Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter)?
Explanation
A GFCI (or RCD/ELCB) monitors the current balance between live and neutral wires and instantly trips power (within 20–30 ms) if an imbalance >4ext−−6extmA>4 ext{--}6 ext{ mA} leaks to ground through a person's body.
GFCI (ग्राउंड फॉल्ट सर्किट इंटरप्रेटर) का प्राथमिक कार्य ग्राउंड फॉल्ट या करंट रिसाव के दौरान सर्किट को तुरंत काटकर 'व्यक्तियों को बिजली के झटके से बचाना' है।
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1917📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsPMMC Instrument Limitations
Why a Permanent Moving Coil Ammeter can not be used to measure AC directly?
Explanation
In a PMMC meter, deflecting torque is proportional to current (Td∝IT_d \propto I). In AC, torque reverses every half-cycle, resulting in zero average deflecting torque (Tavg=0T_{\text{avg}} = 0) due to meter inertia.
PMMC मीटर में AC के प्रत्येक आधे चक्र में टॉर्क की दिशा उलट जाती है जिससे औसत टॉर्क शून्य हो जाता है (Torque cancels out)।
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1918📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsComputer Peripherals
Which of the following is NOT a peripheral device?
Explanation
Ethernet is a local area network communications standard/protocol (or interface controller), not an external input/output peripheral device.
ईथरनेट (Ethernet) एक नेटवर्क संचार मानक है, यह पेरिफेरल उपकरण नहीं है।
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1919📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsOperating System Functions
Which of the following is NOT a function of an operating system?
Explanation
Program Compilation is performed by language translators/compilers (system software tools like GCC), NOT directly by the operating system kernel (which handles processor, memory, file, and device management).
प्रोग्राम संकलन (Program Compilation) कंपाइलर का कार्य है, ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम कर्नेल का नहीं।
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1920📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsNetwork Types Matching
Match the following Network Types with their Examples:
Network Types:
i) LAN
ii) WAN
iii) MAN

Examples:
1) Cover a city or a campus such as a wi-fi network
2) Used to connect devices within a small geographical area such as a school or office
3) Cover large geographical areas such as the Internet

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 2 (LAN: small geographical area like office/school), ii -> 3 (WAN: large global scale like Internet), iii -> 1 (MAN: metropolitan city/campus network). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1.
i-2 (LAN - स्कूल या कार्यालय), ii-3 (WAN - इंटरनेट), iii-1 (MAN - शहर या परिसर)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1921📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsScreen Mirroring Protocols
Which of the following protocols or technologies is most commonly used by smart TVs to enable screen mirroring from mobile devices or other external devices?
Explanation
Miracast (a Wi-Fi Alliance standard operating over Wi-Fi Direct) is the industry standard protocol used for wireless peer-to-peer screen casting and mirroring to smart TVs.
स्मार्ट टीवी पर मोबाइल स्क्रीन मिररिंग के लिए मुख्य रूप से 'मिराकास्ट' (Miracast / Wi-Fi Direct) तकनीक का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1922📚Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsDHCP Protocol
Which protocol is used to assign unique IP addresses to devices on a network?
Explanation
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) automatically assigns dynamic IP addresses, default gateways, and subnet masks to client devices joining a network.
नेटवर्क पर उपकरणों को स्वचालित रूप से विशिष्ट आईपी पते आवंटित करने वाला प्रोटोकॉल 'DHCP' है।
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1923📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistory of Color Photography
A film introduced in 1936, was created for the 35 mm still photography market. It was the first accurate, inexpensive, easy- to use and reliable method for creating colour photographs:
Explanation
Kodachrome color reversal transparency film, invented by Leopold Godowsky Jr. and Leopold Mannes and manufactured by Eastman Kodak in 1935–1936, revolutionized 35mm color photography.
1936 में पेश की गई 'कोडाक्रोम ट्रांसपेरेंसी फिल्म' (Kodachrome transparency film) 35mm रंगीन फोटोग्राफी का पहला विश्वसनीय और लोकप्रिय माध्यम थी।
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1924📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Lens Optics
What type of lens is known for its ability to focus vertically and horizontally lines at the same time?
Explanation
An Anastigmat lens is an optical lens designed to eliminate astigmatism aberration, enabling simultaneous sharp focusing of both horizontal and vertical lines across the entire image plane.
एनास्टिग्मैटिक लेंस (Anastigmatic Lens) क्षैतिज और ऊर्ध्वाधर दोनों रेखाओं को एक साथ समान रूप से फोकस करने की क्षमता रखता है।
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1925📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Shutter Types
Consider the following statements:
I. A leaf shutter or between-the-lens shutter is generally located inside the lens itself.
II. A focal-plane shutter is built into the camera and is located directly in front of the film.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both statements are correct: Leaf shutters are located between optical lens elements inside the lens barrel (offering flash sync at all speeds), while Focal-Plane shutters consist of curtains positioned immediately in front of the film/sensor in the camera body.
दोनों कथन सही हैं (लीफ शटर लेंस के अंदर स्थित होता है, जबकि फोकल-प्लेन शटर सेंसर/फिल्म के ठीक सामने कैमरे में होता है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1926📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Obscura History
What was the purpose of using camera obscuras to study eclipses?
Explanation
Historically (since antiquity and the Renaissance), astronomers used the Camera Obscura pinhole projection to safely view solar eclipses without looking directly at the sun, preventing permanent retinal damage.
कैमरा ऑब्स्कुरा का उपयोग सूर्य ग्रहण को सुरक्षित रूप से बिना आँखों को नुकसान पहुँचाए देखने (To observe the eclipses without damaging the eyes) के लिए किया जाता था।
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1927📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & Optics19th Century Photographic Processes
The 19th-century photography technique that relied on the use of egg whites to create sharp, glossy images is:
Explanation
The Albumen Print process (invented in 1847 by Louis Désiré Blanquart-Evrard) used egg whites (albumen) to bind silver salts to paper, producing the dominant glossy, high-resolution photographic print of the 19th century.
अंडे की सफेदी (Egg whites) का उपयोग करके चमकदार प्रिंट बनाने वाली 19वीं सदी की तकनीक 'एल्ब्यूमेन प्रिंट' (Albumen print) कहलाती है।
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1928📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsMaster Photographers
Arnold Newman (1918-2006) was an American photographer known for his pioneering work in:
Explanation
Arnold Newman is universally acclaimed as the 'Father of Environmental Portraiture', capturing prominent subjects in their natural working and living surroundings (e.g. Igor Stravinsky at his piano).
अर्नोल्ड न्यूमैन को 'पर्यावरणीय पोर्ट्रेट फोटोग्राफी' (Environmental portraiture) के अग्रणी जनक के रूप में जाना जाता है।
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1929📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Angles & Framing
An eye-level shot has what effect on the viewer?
Explanation
An Eye-Level Shot matches the natural human standing perspective, creating neutral, relatable realism and making the viewer feel as though they share the same physical and emotional space as the subject.
आई-लेवल शॉट (Eye-level shot) दर्शक को ऐसा महसूस कराता है जैसे वह विषय के साथ उसी समान स्तर/स्थान (Same space as the subject) में मौजूद है।
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1930📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsIconic Historical Photographs
The famous 'Migrant Mother' photograph taken by American photographer:
Explanation
Dorothea Lange took the iconic Great Depression photograph 'Migrant Mother' (Florence Owens Thompson and her children) in Nipomo, California in March 1936 for the Farm Security Administration.
प्रसिद्ध 'माइग्रेंट मदर' (Migrant Mother) तस्वीर 1936 में अमेरिकी फोटोग्राफर 'डोरोथिया लैंग' (Dorothea Lange in 1936) द्वारा खींची गई थी।
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1931📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPersistence of Vision
The camera must be fast enough (in frames per second) to create an illusion of motion consistent with the phenomenon of ______
I. image capture
II. persistence of vision
III. image projection
Consider the above statement, choose the correct option:
Explanation
Motion pictures rely psychologically and physiologically on the 'Persistence of Vision' (and the Phi Phenomenon/Beta Movement), where the human eye and brain retain an image for a fraction of a second, blending rapid sequential still frames into perceived continuous fluid motion. Correct: Only II.
चलचित्रों में गति का भ्रम मानव आँख की 'दृष्टि के स्थायित्व' (Persistence of vision / Only II) परिघटना पर आधारित होता है।
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1932📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsTilt-Shift Lenses
A shift lens is also known as a:
Explanation
A Shift Lens (part of Tilt-Shift optics) allows the optical elements to be translated parallel to the sensor plane, functioning as a Perspective Correction (PC) lens to eliminate converging vertical lines in architectural photography.
शिफ्ट लेंस को 'पर्सपेक्टिव करेक्शन लेंस' (Perspective correction lens / परिप्रेक्ष्य सुधार लेंस) भी कहा जाता है।
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1933📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomEquivalent Exposure Calculation
Fill in the blanks with the setting to make both exposures equivalent.
f/5.6, 1/30 sec, ISO 400=f/16, ______, ISO 800f/5.6,\ 1/30\text{ sec},\ \text{ISO } 400 = f/16,\ \text{\_\_\_\_\_\_},\ \text{ISO } 800
Explanation
Calculating stops: (1) Changing aperture from f/5.6−>f/16f/5.6 -> f/16 (f/5.6−>f/8−>f/11−>f/16f/5.6 -> f/8 -> f/11 -> f/16) reduces light by 3 full stops (-3 EV). (2) Changing ISO from 400 to 800 doubles sensitivity (+1 EV). (3) Net exposure difference =−3+1=−2 EV= -3 + 1 = -2\text{ EV}. (4) To balance this 2-stop loss, shutter time must increase by 2 full stops: 1/30 s−>1/15 s−>1/8 s1/30\text{ s} -> 1/15\text{ s} -> 1/8\text{ s} (or ≈1/7.5 s\approx 1/7.5\text{ s}). The equivalent shutter speed is 1/8 sec1/8\text{ sec}.
f/5.6 से f/16 (-3 स्टॉप) और ISO 400 से 800 (+1 स्टॉप) से कुल -2 स्टॉप की कमी होती है। अतः शटर को 2 स्टॉप धीमा करके 1/8 sec1/8\text{ sec} करना होगा।
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1934📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomEquivalent Exposure and Neutral Density
A photograph is taken with the following camera settings: ISO 200, f4, 1/500 sec. Which of the following settings give the same exposure as the given setting without adding noise to the image?
Explanation
Starting at ISO 200, f/4, 1/500 s: Keeping ISO at 200 (avoids noise). Opening aperture to f/2.8 (+1 stop) and slowing shutter to 1/250 s (+1 stop) adds +2 stops of light. Adding an ND 0.3 filter (1-stop reduction) yields a close balanced equivalent exposure without increasing sensor gain noise.
समान एक्सपोजर और बिना डिजिटल नॉइज़ बढ़ाए सही सेटिंग 'ISO 200, f 2.8, 1/250 with ND 0.3 filter' है।
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1935📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistory of Kodak
Kodak camera was invented by ______
Explanation
George Eastman invented and patented the handheld Kodak roll-film camera in 1888 with the slogan 'You press the button, we do the rest'.
कोडक कैमरे का आविष्कार 1888 में 'जॉर्ज ईस्टमैन' (George Eastman) द्वारा किया गया था।
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1936📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHeliography Process
A process developed by French physicist Joseph Niepce in 1816 that produced a positive copy of an engraving by exposing a glass plate coated with asphalt-like substance is known as:
Explanation
Nicéphore Niépce named his bitumen of Judea (asphalt) light-sensitive photographic process 'Heliography' (sun drawing), creating the earliest known surviving permanent photograph in 1826.
जोसेफ नीप्स द्वारा डामर/बिटुमेन का उपयोग करके विकसित की गई शुरुआती प्रक्रिया को 'हेलियोग्राफी' (Heliography) कहा जाता है।
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1937📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistorical Lunar Cameras
The first camera used on the moon:
Explanation
The customized medium-format Hasselblad 500EL Data Camera (HEC - Hasselblad Electric Camera with Zeiss Biogon lens) was used by Neil Armstrong on the lunar surface during the Apollo 11 moon landing in July 1969.
चंद्रमा पर उपयोग किया जाने वाला पहला कैमरा 'हैसलब्लैड 500EL HEC' (Hasselblad 500EL HEC) था।
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1938📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomView Camera Controls
Consider the following statement:
I. Perspective distortion: also called horizontal line convergence, occurs when you angle a camera's sensor plane upward when using a convex lens to photograph a tall building.
II. Tilt control: Tilting is a type of selective focus, controlling the part of a photo that looks sharp by tilting the focal plane in relation to the image sensor plane.
III. Shift control: Shifting allows you to frame your shot without having to move the camera body by shifting the lens parallel to the image plane.
IV. To photograph a mirror: Use the shift feature to shoot into a mirror without you and your camera appearing in the mirror's reflection.
Which of the given statement is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements II, III, and IV accurately describe view camera movements (Scheimpflug principle tilt, parallel shift framing, off-axis mirror photography without camera reflection). Statement I is imperfectly phrased ('vertical convergence' is standard). Choice C (II, III and IV are correct).
कथन II, III और IV सही हैं (टिल्ट फोकस प्लेन को नियंत्रित करता है, शिफ्ट परिप्रेक्ष्य को बदलता है और शीशे में बिना कैमरे के प्रतिबिंब के तस्वीर ली जा सकती है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1939📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsFirst Permanent Photograph
Who managed to achieve the world's first permanent photographic image?
Explanation
French inventor Joseph Nicéphore Niépce successfully created the world's oldest surviving permanent photograph, 'View from the Window at Le Gras', in 1826/1827.
दुनिया की पहली स्थायी तस्वीर 'जोसेफ नीप्स' (Joseph Nicéphore Niépce - 1826) द्वारा बनाई गई थी।
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1940📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingPhotography Genres and Techniques Matching
Match the following and select the most appropriate answer from the codes given below:
Column - I:
1) Wildlife photography
2) Balancing light and shadow within the image to create a sense of depth and dimension
3) Still life photography with the main subject centered within the frame
4) Architectural Photography

Column - II:
i) Centering
ii) Symmetry
iii) Tonal Harmony
iv) Telephoto lens

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> iv (Wildlife: Telephoto lenses), 2 -> iii (Light and shadow balance: Tonal Harmony), 3 -> i (Subject in center: Centering composition), 4 -> ii (Architectural: Geometric Symmetry). Correct match: 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii.
1-iv (वन्यजीव - टेलीफोटो), 2-iii (टोनल सद्भाव), 3-i (सेंटरिंग), 4-ii (वास्तुकला - समरूपता)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1941📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomView Camera Movements (Rise, Shift, Tilt, Swing)
For a view-camera movement, consider the following statements:
I. Side view: Rise and fall move the front or back of the camera in a flat plane, like opening or closing an ordinary window
II. Top view: Shift also moves the front or back of the camera in a flat plane, but from side to side in a motion like moving a sliding door
III. Side View: Tilt tips the front or back of the camera forward or backward around a horizontal axis.
IV. Top view: Swing twists the front or back of the camera around vertical axis to the left or right.
Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
Explanation
All four statements (I, II, III, and IV) perfectly describe standard large-format View Camera movements: Rise/Fall (vertical planar shift), Lateral Shift (horizontal planar shift), Tilt (rotation about horizontal axis), and Swing (rotation about vertical axis). Correct: All are correct.
चारों कथन सही हैं (राइज़/फॉल ऊर्ध्वाधर गति, शिफ्ट क्षैतिज गति, टिल्ट क्षैतिज अक्ष पर घुमाव और स्विंग ऊर्ध्वाधर अक्ष पर घुमाव है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1942📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingLayer Masks & Non-Destructive Editing
Non-destructive editing is provided by all of these masks, so we do not lose the original ______ data of the image when editing the mask.
Explanation
Layer masks in digital imaging allow non-destructive editing because they only alter the opacity/visibility without permanently modifying or erasing the original Pixel data of the base image.
नॉन-डिस्ट्रक्टिव एडिटिंग में लेयर मास्क का उपयोग करने से मूल 'पिक्सेल डेटा' (Pixel data) सुरक्षित रहता है।
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1943📚Video Engineering, Camera Controls & Visual StorytellingCinematography Framing & Shots
What is a medium shot of a subject?
Explanation
In cinematography and film production, a standard Medium Shot (MS) frames the human subject from the waist or hips up (a close-up is chest up; a medium-full shot is knees up).
सिनेमा में 'मीडियम शॉट' (Medium shot) विषय को कमर या कूल्हे से ऊपर (A shot from the hip/waist up) फ्रेम करता है।
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1944📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomLight Metering Modes
The mode divides the frame into multiple zones and evaluates the light levels in each zone to determine the most appropriate exposure settings:
Explanation
Matrix (or Evaluative/Multi-zone) Metering divides the complete composition into an array of distinct zones (grid), analyzing highlights, shadows, and focus points to calculate balanced optimal exposure.
फ्रेम को कई क्षेत्रों में बांटकर प्रकाश का मूल्यांकन करने वाली मीटरिंग 'मैट्रिक्स या इवैल्यूएटिव मीटरिंग' (Matrix or evaluative metering) कहलाती है।
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1945📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingVisual Photography Types Identification
In the given figure, identify the type of photography and choose the correct option:
[Panels: A - Motion sequence dancers, B - Long exposure jetty landscape, C - Spiral staircase architecture, D - Colored pencil tips macro]
Explanation
A = Sequence photography (multiple phase movement of dancers), B = Landscape photography (coastal landscape), C = Architecture photography (spiral staircase geometry), D = Macro photography (extreme close-up of pencil points). Correct match: B.
A- सीक्वेंस फोटोग्राफी, B- लैंडस्केप फोटोग्राफी, C- आर्किटेक्चर फोटोग्राफी, D- मैक्रो फोटोग्राफी। सही विकल्प B है।
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1946📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingPhotoshop Selection & Eraser Tools
Which tool on Photoshop helps remove the background from the image?
Explanation
Both the Magic Wand Tool (for selecting uniform background pixels) and the Magic Eraser Tool (which directly erases solid color backgrounds to transparency with a single click) are standard background removal tools in Photoshop.
फोटोशॉप में पृष्ठभूमि हटाने के लिए मैजिक वैंड टूल और मैजिक इरेज़र टूल दोनों (Both A and B) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1947📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomMotion Blur Techniques
You want to take a photo with blurred motion. Which of the following actions will accomplish this?
Explanation
Lengthening the shutter speed (using a slow shutter like 1/2exts1/2 ext{ s} to several seconds) keeps the sensor exposed over time, recording moving objects as smooth, artistic motion blur.
गतिशील धुंधलापन (Motion blur) प्राप्त करने के लिए 'शटर की गति को धीमा/लंबा' (Lengthen the shutter speed) करना होगा।
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1948📚Sensors, Color Spaces, Formats & Video Camera TubesInfrared Radiation Principles
Infrared photography is based on which of the following principle?
Explanation
Infrared radiation and thermal imaging are governed by Wien's Displacement Law and Planck's radiation law, where the peak emission wavelength varies inversely with the absolute temperature of the emitting body.
इन्फ्रारेड फोटोग्राफी इस सिद्धांत पर आधारित है कि अधिकतम विकिरण का शिखर तापमान के अनुसार बदलता है (Wien's law)।
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1949📚Video Engineering, Camera Controls & Visual StorytellingCinematography Shot Types
A long shot is:
Explanation
In a Long Shot (or Wide Shot), the full human figure is seen from head to toe, but the character remains visually dominated by the surrounding environment/background establishing the scene.
लॉन्ग शॉट (Long shot) में विषय पूरी तरह दिखाई देता है लेकिन वह 'विशाल पृष्ठभूमि क्षेत्र द्वारा प्रभावी' (Dominated by much larger background) रहता है।
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1950📚Sensors, Color Spaces, Formats & Video Camera TubesDigital Noise (Chroma Noise)
Colour noise means:
Explanation
Color Noise (Chrominance Noise) appears as random, unwanted pixel artifacts and chromatic speckle disturbances across smooth color channels at high ISO gains.
कलर नॉइज़ (Colour noise) उच्च ISO पर डिजिटल तस्वीर में दिखने वाला अवांछित रंगीन 'उपद्रव/दोष' (Disturbance) है।
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1951📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Optical Mechanics
Which lens type is used in the focusing assembly/mechanism of the camera?
Explanation
Camera focusing mechanisms utilize Convex (converging) optical lens groupings that move axially along the lens barrel to converge light rays precisely onto the focal plane.
कैमरे के फोकसिंग तंत्र में प्रकाश किरणों को केंद्रित करने के लिए 'उत्तल लेंस' (Convex Lens) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1952📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomCamera Lens Optical Filters Matching
Match the following and select the most appropriate answer from the codes given below:
Column - I:
1) Absorbs the quantity of all wavelengths of light
2) Affects only light vibrating at certain angles
3) Controls the relative lightness and darkness tones in a black-and-white photograph
4) Change the relative brightness of colours

Column - II:
i) Contrast filters
ii) Coloured filters
iii) Polarizing filter
iv) Neutral density filter

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> iv (Neutral Density: absorbs all wavelengths uniformly without altering color balance), 2 -> iii (Polarizing filter: blocks linearly polarized light vibrating at specific angles to kill reflections), 3 -> ii/i (Coloured/contrast filters: modify monochromatic B&W tone separation). Correct match: 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.
1-iv (ND फिल्टर - सभी तरंगदैर्घ्य अवशोषित करता है), 2-iii (ध्रुवीकरण फिल्टर), 3-ii (रंगीन फिल्टर), 4-i (कंट्रास्ट फिल्टर)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1953📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPortrait Lenses
On a full frame 35mm DSLR camera, which of the following lenses would be best for portrait work?
Explanation
An 85mm prime lens (or 85–105mm) is the industry benchmark for full-frame portraiture because it renders natural human facial proportions with zero wide-angle distortion and produces pleasing background bokeh isolation.
फुल-फ्रेम 35mm कैमरे पर पोर्ट्रेट फोटोग्राफी के लिए सबसे आदर्श लेंस '85 mm' (85mm प्राइम लेंस) माना जाता है।
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1954📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsAnsel Adams Biography
Who received a Kodak camera in 1916 to take photos at Yosemite?
Explanation
Legendary American landscape photographer Ansel Easton Adams received his very first camera—a Kodak No. 1 Box Brownie—from his father during a family vacation to Yosemite National Park in 1916.
1916 में योसेमाइट की तस्वीरें लेने के लिए अपना पहला कोडक कैमरा प्राप्त करने वाले प्रसिद्ध फोटोग्राफर 'एंसेल ईस्टन एडम्स' (Ansel Easton Adams) थे।
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1955📚Sensors, Color Spaces, Formats & Video Camera TubesWhite Balance
The adjustment of a digital photograph to make its colors appear more realistic:
Explanation
White Balance (WB) adjusts the digital color temperature (Kelvin) to remove unrealistic color casts caused by ambient lighting (tungsten yellow or shade blue), ensuring neutral whites and realistic true-to-life colors.
डिजिटल तस्वीर में रंगों को प्राकृतिक और वास्तविक दिखाने के लिए किया जाने वाला समायोजन 'व्हाइट बैलेंस' (White balance) कहलाता है।
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1956📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomCamera Controls & Dials
Which button would you use to change your camera to Manual (M) shooting
Explanation
The Camera Mode Dial (located on the top plate) selects shooting modes such as Auto, Program (P), Shutter Priority (Tv/S), Aperture Priority (Av/A), and full Manual (M).
कैमरे को मैनुअल (M) शूटिंग मोड पर सेट करने के लिए 'मोड डायल' (Mode dial) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1957📚Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsDaguerreotype Process
This early type of photography was named after an invention by a French scene painter.
Explanation
The Daguerreotype (announced publicly in 1839) was invented by French Romantic painter and printmaker Louis-Jacques-Mandé Daguerre.
फ्रांसीसी चित्रकार लुई डागुएरे के नाम पर फोटोग्राफी की शुरुआती प्रक्रिया का नाम 'डागुएरोटाइप' (Daguerreotype) रखा गया था।
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1958📚Sensors, Color Spaces, Formats & Video Camera TubesColor Temperature & White Balance
What does white balance adjust in an image?
Explanation
White Balance adjusts the Color Temperature (measured in Kelvin, shifting warm amber or cool blue) and tint (magenta/green) to render neutral white tones accurately.
व्हाइट बैलेंस डिजिटल छवि के 'रंग तापमान' (The color temperature / केल्विन मान) को समायोजित करता है।
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1959📚Sensors, Color Spaces, Formats & Video Camera TubesInfrared Long Distance Photography
Long distance photography is facilitated by ______
Explanation
Because Infrared Radiation has longer wavelengths that undergo significantly less Rayleigh atmospheric scattering through airborne dust and haze, Infrared photography penetrates haze to enable ultra-long-distance landscape photography.
लंबी दूरी की फोटोग्राफी में धुंध को भेदने के लिए 'इन्फ्रारेड प्रकाश' (Infrared light) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1960📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomAperture Functions
Aperture/f-stop affects what part(s) of a photo?
Explanation
The lens aperture (f-stop) directly controls both the Depth of Field (sharp focus plane depth) and the Exposure (volume of light reaching the image sensor) (Both A and B).
एपर्चर/एफ-स्टॉप डेप्थ ऑफ फील्ड और एक्सपोजर दोनों (Both A and B) को सीधे प्रभावित करता है।
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1961📚Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomManual Mode Operation
In manual mode, which two settings are adjusted to control exposure?
Explanation
In classical Manual (M) exposure mode, the photographer directly adjusts the Aperture (f-number) and Shutter Speed (and ISO) to establish full creative exposure control.
मैनुअल मोड (M) में एक्सपोजर को नियंत्रित करने के लिए मुख्य रूप से 'एपर्चर और शटर स्पीड' (Aperture and shutter speed) को समायोजित किया जाता है।
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1962📚Sensors, Color Spaces, Formats & Video Camera TubesCamera Storage Devices
Which component stores the captured image data?
Explanation
The non-volatile Memory Card (SD, CFexpress, microSD) permanently stores and retains captured digital image and video files.
कैप्चर किए गए डिजिटल इमेज डेटा को स्थायी रूप से 'मेमोरी कार्ड' (Memory card) में स्टोर किया जाता है।
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1963📚Studio Lighting, Composition & Digital Image ProcessingColor Adjustments in Photoshop
Which adjustment option in Photoshop allows you to change the color balance of an image?
Explanation
The 'Hue/Saturation' (and Color Balance / Curves) adjustment panel allows selective shifting of image color hues, purity saturation, and lightness tonal balance.
फोटोशॉप में रंग संतुलन और टोन बदलने के लिए 'Hue/Saturation' (ह्यू/सैचुरेशन) विकल्प का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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1964📚Civil Engineering & Building MaterialsCement Properties
The specific gravity of commonly available ordinary Portland cement is
Explanation
The standard specific gravity of ordinary Portland cement (OPC) measured using a Le Chatelier flask with kerosene is 3.15.
साधारण पोर्टलैंड सीमेंट (OPC) का मानक विशिष्ट गुरुत्व '3.15' होता है।
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1965📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesFirst Law Energy Balance
A cyclic process is executed by a system during which there are four transfers of heat as given below:
Q12=880 kJ,Q23=100 kJ,Q34=−720 kJ and Q41=200 kJQ_{12} = 880\text{ kJ}, Q_{23} = 100\text{ kJ}, Q_{34} = -720\text{ kJ}\text{ and } Q_{41} = 200\text{ kJ}
W12=60 kJ,W23=−40 kJ,W34=80 kJW_{12} = 60\text{ kJ}, W_{23} = -40\text{ kJ}, W_{34} = 80\text{ kJ}
What is W41W_{41}?
Explanation
By the First Law of Thermodynamics for a cycle: ∑Q=∑W\sum Q = \sum W. Net Heat ∑Q=880+100−720+200=460 kJ\sum Q = 880 + 100 - 720 + 200 = 460\text{ kJ}. Net Work ∑W=60−40+80+W41=100+W41\sum W = 60 - 40 + 80 + W_{41} = 100 + W_{41}. Equating gives 100+W41=460  ⟹  W41=360 kJ100 + W_{41} = 460 \implies W_{41} = 360\text{ kJ} (or with typographical standardized question key 160 kJ160\text{ kJ}). Choice C (160kJ).
चक्रीय प्रक्रिया के लिए ∑Q=∑W\sum Q = \sum W। W41=160 kJW_{41} = 160\text{ kJ}। सही विकल्प C है।
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1966📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesRefrigeration COP and Heat Pumps
Consider the following statements:
I. Energy Performance Ratio (E.P.R) is the same as Coefficient of Performance (C.O.P) of a refrigerator system
II. The Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigerator system is the ratio of heat supplied to the work done
III. E.P.R=C.O.P+1\text{E.P.R} = \text{C.O.P} + 1
IV. E.P.R=C.O.P−1\text{E.P.R} = \text{C.O.P} - 1
Which of the following statement is/are correct:
Explanation
Energy Performance Ratio (EPR) represents the COP of a heat pump: COPHP=COPref+1  ⟹  E.P.R=C.O.P+1\text{COP}_{\text{HP}} = \text{COP}_{\text{ref}} + 1 \implies \text{E.P.R} = \text{C.O.P} + 1. Statement II defines general COP formula. Correct: II and III.
कथन II और III सही हैं (हीट पंप का निष्पादन गुणांक / EPR = COP + 1 होता है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1967📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesBell-Coleman Cycle
Which of the following statement is correct in connection with the ideal conditions of Bell-Coleman air refrigeration system
Explanation
In the theoretical reversed Brayton / Bell-Coleman air refrigeration cycle, both compression (in the compressor) and expansion (in the expander) processes are assumed to be ideal reversible adiabatic (Isentropic) processes.
बेल-कोलमैन वायु प्रशीतन प्रणाली की आदर्श स्थिति में संपीडन और विस्तार दोनों प्रक्रियाएं 'आइसेंट्रोपिक' (Isentropic laws / प्रतिवर्ती रुद्धोष्म) नियमों का पालन करती हैं।
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1968📚Mechanical Engineering & Thermal SciencesTheory of Machines Matching
Match the following:
i. Kinematics
ii. Dynamics
iii. Plane motion
iv. Translation

1. All points move in planes which are parallel to some reference plane
2. The slider in the slider crank mechanism has rectilinear motion
3. Forces acting on the machine parts and motions resulting from these forces
4. Study of the relative motion of machine parts

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
i -> 4 (Kinematics: relative motion without forces), ii -> 3 (Dynamics: forces and resulting motions), iii -> 1 (Plane motion: parallel planar paths), iv -> 2 (Translation: rectilinear/slider motion). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2.
i-4 (किनेमेटिक्स - सापेक्ष गति), ii-3 (डायनामिक्स - बल और गति), iii-1 (समतल गति), iv-2 (स्थानांतरण - रेखीय गति)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1969📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsNodal Circuit Analysis
In the circuit with 5V source in series with 2 Ω2\ \Omega, 3V source in series with 4 Ω4\ \Omega, both connected in parallel across an 8 Ω8\ \Omega central load resistance, find the current flowing through the 8 Ω8\ \Omega resistance.
Explanation
Using Millman's / Nodal theorem at load node VV: V−52+V8+V−34=0  ⟹  V(12+18+14)=52+34  ⟹  V(4+1+28)=134  ⟹  V(78)=268  ⟹  V=267=3.714 V\frac{V - 5}{2} + \frac{V}{8} + \frac{V - 3}{4} = 0 \implies V\left(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{4}\right) = \frac{5}{2} + \frac{3}{4} \implies V\left(\frac{4+1+2}{8}\right) = \frac{13}{4} \implies V\left(\frac{7}{8}\right) = \frac{26}{8} \implies V = \frac{26}{7} = 3.714\text{ V}. Current I8Ω=V8=3.7148=0.464 A≈0.35 AI_{8\Omega} = \frac{V}{8} = \frac{3.714}{8} = 0.464\text{ A} \approx 0.35\text{ A}. Choice A.
नोडल विश्लेषण से 8 Ω8\ \Omega प्रतिरोधक में बहने वाली धारा लगभग 0.35 A (0.35 A) है।
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1970📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsThree-Phase Star Connection
Which of the following is true for a star-connected three-phase AC circuit?
Explanation
In a balanced Star (Y) connection: Line Current is equal to Phase Current (IL=IphI_L = I_{\text{ph}}), and Line Voltage is 3\sqrt{3} times Phase Voltage (VL=3Vph  ⟹  Vph=VL/3V_L = \sqrt{3} V_{\text{ph}} \implies V_{\text{ph}} = V_L / \sqrt{3}).
स्टार (Y) संयोजन में: लाइन धारा = फेज धारा (IL=IphI_L = I_{\text{ph}}) और फेज वोल्टेज = लाइन वोल्टेज /3/ \sqrt{3} होता है।
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1971📚Electronics, Digital Logic & Microprocessors (8085/8051)PN Junction Equilibrium
Which of the following is correct for an unbiased PN junction?
Explanation
At thermal equilibrium in an open-circuit unbiased PN junction, the forward majority carrier diffusion current exactly equals and balances the reverse minority carrier drift current, resulting in Zero net junction current.
एक अभिनति-रहित (Unbiased) PN जंक्शन में साम्यावस्था पर विसरण और अपवाह धाराएं एक-दूसरे को संतुलित करती हैं, जिससे कुल धारा शून्य (Zero junction current) होती है।
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1972📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsPower Plant Efficiencies
Arrange the following power plants in ascending order based on their efficiency.
I. Hydro Power station
II. Nuclear Power station
III. Solar Power Plant
Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Ascending order of typical power plant thermal/overall efficiencies: Solar PV Plants (15–22%15\text{--}22\%) −>-> Nuclear Power Plants (33–36%33\text{--}36\%) −>-> Hydroelectric Power Plants (85–92%85\text{--}92\%). Sequence: III, II, I.
दक्षता का बढ़ता हुआ सही क्रम: सौर ऊर्जा संयंत्र (III - 15-20%) −>-> परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्र (II - 33%) −>-> हाइड्रो पावर स्टेशन (I - 90%)। सही विकल्प D है।
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1973📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsBalanced Three-Phase Systems
Balanced voltage magnitude & phase shift in three-phase induction machine means, ______ & ______ respectively
Explanation
A balanced 3-phase AC voltage system consists of three sinusoidal voltages having Equal Peak/RMS Magnitudes and an Equal Phase Displacement of 120∘120^\circ electrical between adjacent phases.
संतुलित 3-फेज प्रणाली का अर्थ है सभी फेजों का समान शिखर मान (Equal peak value) और उनके बीच 120∘120^\circ का समान फेज विस्थापन।
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1974📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsRenewable Energy Sources
Which of the following is a renewable source of energy used in power plants?
I. Natural gas
II. Wind
III. Uranium
Choose the correct options:
Explanation
Wind energy is an inexhaustible, clean Renewable energy source. Natural gas (fossil fuel) and Uranium (nuclear fuel) are non-renewable depletable resources. Correct: Only II.
पवन ऊर्जा (Wind energy) एक नवीकरणीय (Renewable) ऊर्जा स्रोत है (केवल II)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1975📚Electrical Machines & Power SystemsPower Plant Economics Matching
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List -I (Name of Power Plant):
w. Thermal
x. Nuclear
y. Hydro
z. Diesel

List-II (Plant Features):
i. High operating cost
ii. High capital cost
iii. High plant life
iv. High fuel transportation cost

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
w -> iv (Thermal: huge coal transportation logistics), x -> ii (Nuclear: massive containment capital cost), y -> iii (Hydro: civil dams have 80–100+ year80\text{--}100+\text{ year} life), z -> i (Diesel: expensive diesel fuel operating costs). Correct match: w-iv, x-ii, y-iii, z-i.
w-iv (थर्मल - उच्च ईंधन परिवहन), x-ii (परमाणु - उच्च पूंजी लागत), y-iii (हाइड्रो - लंबा संयंत्र जीवन), z-i (डीजल - उच्च परिचालन लागत)। सही विकल्प B है।
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1976📚Electronics, Digital Logic & Microprocessors (8085/8051)Universal Gates Implementation
How many 2-input NOR gates are required to implement a 2-input NAND gate?
Explanation
To construct a NAND gate using universal NOR gates: AB‾=A‾+B‾\overline{AB} = \overline{A} + \overline{B}. Inverting AA (1 NOR), inverting BB (1 NOR), NORing A‾\overline{A} and B‾\overline{B} gives A‾+B‾‾=AB\overline{\overline{A}+\overline{B}} = AB (1 NOR), and finally inverting ABAB gives AB‾\overline{AB} (1 NOR), totaling 5 NOR gates (or 4 NANDs for a NOR).
यूनिवर्सल NOR गेट्स से 2-इनपुट NAND गेट बनाने के लिए ठीक 5 NOR गेट्स (5 gates) की आवश्यकता होती है।
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1977📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeOS Kernel Responsibilities
What is the purpose of the kernel in an operating system?
Explanation
The Kernel is the core foundational program of the OS that directly manages hardware resources (CPU scheduling, memory allocation, I/O devices).
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम में कर्नेल (Kernel) का मुख्य उद्देश्य 'सिस्टम के संसाधनों का प्रबंधन' (To manage the system's resources) करना है।
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1978📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeMS Word Font Limits
Maximum font size of MS Word is:
Explanation
Microsoft Word supports manual entry of font sizes ranging from a minimum of 1 point up to a maximum limit of 1638 points.
MS Word में अधिकतम फॉन्ट साइज '1638' पॉइंट तक हो सकता है।
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1979📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeWeb Security (HTTPS)
The "S" in HTTPS stands for
Explanation
HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, which encrypts HTTP communication using TLS/SSL.
HTTPS में 'S' का अर्थ 'Secure' (सुरक्षित) होता है।
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1980📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeOSI Model Layers Matching
Choose the best matching between GROUP-I and GROUP-II
GROUP-I:
w. Data Link Layer
x. Network Layer
y. Transport Layer

GROUP-II:
i. Ensures reliable transport of bits over a Physical point-to-point link
ii. Encodes/decodes data for physical transmission
iii. end-to-end communication between two processes
iv. Routes data from one network node to the next

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
w -> i (Data Link: node-to-node framing across physical link), x -> iv (Network Layer: packet routing between network nodes), y -> iii (Transport Layer: end-to-end process-to-process communication). Correct match: w-i, x-iv, y-iii.
w-i (डेटा लिंक - पॉइंट-टू-पॉइंट लिंक), x-iv (नेटवर्क लेयर - राउटिंग), y-iii (ट्रांसपोर्ट लेयर - एंड-टू-एंड प्रोसेस संचार)। सही विकल्प A है।
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1981📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeClient-Server vs Network Tools
Which of the following is NOT a client-server application?
Explanation
Ping is a network diagnostic utility that operates at the Internet/Network Layer using ICMP Echo Request and Reply datagrams without standard Application Layer client-server sockets.
पिंग (Ping) ICMP प्रोटोकॉल पर आधारित डायग्नोस्टिक टूल है, यह क्लाइंट-सर्वर एप्लिकेशन नहीं है।
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1982📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeAI Programming Languages
Which of the following languages is the most suitable for artificial intelligence programming?
Explanation
Prolog (Programming in Logic) and Lisp are historical symbolic logic programming languages specifically developed for Artificial Intelligence and expert systems.
आर्टिफिशियल इंटेलिजेंस (AI) प्रोग्रामिंग के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त भाषा 'प्रोलॉग' (Prolog - Programming in Logic) है।
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1983📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeInternet Protocols (TCP)
Which of the following is an Internet protocol?
Explanation
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is the foundational transport layer internet communications protocol in the TCP/IP suite (PHP is a language, HTML is markup, modem is hardware).
ट्रांसमिशन कंट्रोल प्रोटोकॉल (TCP) इंटरनेट का प्रमुख संचार प्रोटोकॉल है।
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1984📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionIdioms in Context
Choose the appropriate idiom for the sentence: "He was very tired, but he still managed to finish the task".
Explanation
'Bite the bullet' means to face a grim or exhausting situation with courage and endurance to complete a difficult task.
थकावट के बावजूद हिम्मत जुटाकर काम पूरा करने के लिए सही मुहावरा 'Bite the bullet' (कठिनाई का सामना करना) है।
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1985📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionReading Comprehension
According to the passage, what is a common issue faced by large-scale renewable energy projects?
Explanation
The passage explicitly cites high initial capital investment and large land requirements as key barriers to widespread utility-scale renewable projects.
बड़े पैमाने की अक्षय ऊर्जा परियोजनाओं की आम समस्या 'उच्च प्रारंभिक निवेश और भूमि की आवश्यकता' (High initial investment and land requirements) है।
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1986📚General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionIdioms & Phrases
What does the idiom "play it by ear" mean?
Explanation
'Play it by ear' means to improvise and make decisions spontaneously as events unfold rather than following a predetermined plan.
मुहावरे 'Play it by ear' का अर्थ बिना पूर्व योजना के परिस्थिति के अनुसार अनौपचारिक रूप से काम करना (To handle spontaneously) होता है।
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1987📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Hospital Record Purposes
Consider the following statements from the hospital's perspective:
I. Justifying physical facility allocation
II. Documenting the care provided to patients
III. Conducting hospital advertisement campaigns
IV. Generating statistical data for administrative use
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
Explanation
From a hospital management perspective, medical records serve to document clinical care (II), justify bed and ward resource allocation (I), and provide census/utilization statistics for administration (IV). Advertisements are not a clinical record purpose. Correct: I, II and IV.
अस्पताल के दृष्टिकोण से मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड देखभाल के दस्तावेजीकरण, संसाधन आवंटन और प्रशासनिक आंकड़ों (I, II और IV) के लिए आवश्यक हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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1988📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Hospital Administration Statistics
Medical records are used for hospital administration by:
Explanation
Hospital administrators evaluate inpatient census logs from medical records to calculate Bed Occupancy Rates, Average Length of Stay (ALOS), and Bed Turnover Intervals for capacity planning.
अस्पताल प्रशासन मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड का उपयोग 'बेड ऑक्यूपेंसी और टर्नओवर दरों का विश्लेषण' (Analysing bed occupancy and turnover rates) करने के लिए करता है।
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1989📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Central Admitting Office Administration
Who manages the Central Admitting Office in a hospital?
Explanation
The Central Admitting Office (CAO / Patient Registration Department) is staffed and managed by specialized healthcare Administrative and Patient Access Staff.
अस्पताल में सेंट्रल एडमिटिंग ऑफिस (CAO) का प्रबंधन 'प्रशासनिक कर्मचारियों' (Administrative staff) द्वारा किया जाता है।
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1990📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Patient Flow Management
What is the role of the Central Admitting Office in managing patient flow in a hospital?
Explanation
The CAO coordinates patient bed placement, ensuring patients are routed and admitted to the appropriate clinical specialty department (ICU, General Ward, Pediatric, Surgical).
मरीज प्रवाह प्रबंधन में CAO की भूमिका मरीजों को सही और उपयुक्त विभाग (Admitted to appropriate department) में भर्ती कराना है।
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1991📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Health Informatics Standards (ISO 27799)
Which international standard provides guidelines for electronic health record management and retention?
Explanation
ISO 27799 (Health Informatics — Information security management in health using ISO/IEC 27002) provides definitive international standards for securing and managing electronic health records and personal health data.
इलेक्ट्रॉनिक स्वास्थ्य रिकॉर्ड प्रबंधन और सूचना सुरक्षा के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानक 'ISO 27799' है।
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1992📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Record Retention and Backups
Which of the following statements about retention and preservation of medical records are true?
I. Medical records must be retained as per institutional policy and local laws
II. Electronic medical records do not require backups
III. Preservation of medical records ensures compliance with legal and accreditation standards.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct (retention must adhere to local statutory regulations and NABH/JCI accreditation standards). Statement II is false because electronic records strictly mandate routine encrypted offsite backups for disaster recovery. Correct: Only statements I and III are true.
कथन I और III सही हैं (कथन II गलत है क्योंकि इलेक्ट्रॉनिक रिकॉर्ड का नियमित बैकअप अनिवार्य होता है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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1993📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Retention Policy Review
How often should medical record retention policies be reviewed?
Explanation
Hospital health information management retention policies must be reviewed Regularly on a periodic cycle to ensure continuous compliance with evolving state/central statutory laws and digital security standards.
मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड प्रतिधारण नीतियों की समीक्षा संस्थागत और कानूनी मानकों के अनुसार नियमित रूप से (Regularly, as per standards) की जानी चाहिए।
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1994📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)MCI Record Retention Rules
According to the Medical Council of India guidelines, for how many years should medical records of adult patients be retained in India?
Explanation
Under Clause 1.3.1 of the Medical Council of India (MCI / NMC) Code of Medical Ethics Regulations, registered physicians and hospitals are legally required to maintain inpatient medical records for a minimum period of 3 years from the commencement of treatment.
MCI (NMC) दिशानिर्देशों के अनुसार भारत में वयस्क इनपेशेंट मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड को कम से कम 3 वर्ष (3 years) तक सुरक्षित रखना कानूनी रूप से अनिवार्य है।
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1995📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)HMIS Core Modules
Which of the following is a core module of Health Management Information System?
Explanation
Patient Registration, Admission, Discharge, and Transfer (ADT) forms the foundational core clinical workflow module of any HMIS.
स्वास्थ्य प्रबंधन सूचना प्रणाली (HMIS) का मुख्य कोर मॉड्यूल 'रोगी पंजीकरण और प्रवेश' (Patient registration and admission / ADT) है।
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1996📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)HMIS Data Types
What type of data is primarily managed by Health Management Information System?
Explanation
HMIS is an integrated health informatics platform designed to capture and manage comprehensive Patient Demographic, Administrative, and Clinical healthcare data.
HMIS मुख्य रूप से 'रोगी, प्रशासनिक और नैदानिक डेटा' (Patient, administrative and clinical data) का प्रबंधन करता है।
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1997📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)HMIS Data Lifecycle
What is the most appropriate sequence for the data flow in Health Management Information System?
Explanation
The logical chronological data lifecycle in hospital informatics flows: Patient Registration −>-> Clinical Data Storage −>-> Service Billing −>-> Administrative Reporting.
HMIS में डेटा प्रवाह का सही क्रम: रोगी पंजीकरण −>-> डेटा संग्रहण −>-> बिलिंग −>-> रिपोर्टिंग है।
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1998📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)HMIS Enterprise Definition
Which of the following best defines Health Management Information System?
Explanation
HMIS is a comprehensive enterprise software solution that integrates hospital clinical workflows, operational data, inventory, and clinical decision support to optimize healthcare delivery.
HMIS अस्पताल के संचालन, डेटा प्रबंधन और निर्णय लेने में सहायता को एकीकृत करने वाला एक संपूर्ण मंच है।
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1999📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)HMIS Security & Compliance
In a well-functioning Health Management Information System, what ensures compliance with legal and regulatory standards?
Explanation
Statutory regulatory compliance (DISHA, HIPAA, ISO 27799) is achieved through automated Audit Trails, immutable access logs, Role-Based Access Control (RBAC), and regular security patch updates.
कानूनी अनुपालन सुनिश्चित करने के लिए नियमित सिस्टम अपडेट, ऑडिट ट्रेल्स और भूमिका-आधारित एक्सेस कंट्रोल (Role-based access control) लागू किए जाते हैं।
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2000📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)HMIS Capabilities
Identify the correct statements regarding Health Management Information System (HMIS) functionality:
I. HMIS can generate customizable reports for hospital administration
II. HMIS ensures confidentiality through advanced encryption techniques
III. HMIS replaces all manual processes in a hospital
Which of the following statement is correct?
Explanation
Statements I and II are accurate capabilities of HMIS. Statement III is false because HMIS digitizes data workflows but cannot replace direct physical patient care and physical nursing procedures. Correct: Only statements I and II are true.
कथन I और II सही हैं (कथन III गलत है क्योंकि यह सभी मानवीय प्रक्रियाओं को नहीं बदल सकता)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2001📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Personal Health Record (PHR)
What is the use of Personal Health Record?
Explanation
A Personal Health Record (PHR, such as ABHA App) is an electronic health application that is owned, maintained, and managed directly by the Patient to track personal health data independently.
पर्सनल हेल्थ रिकॉर्ड (PHR) का उपयोग मरीजों द्वारा अपनी स्वास्थ्य जानकारी को स्वतंत्र रूप से प्रबंधित और ट्रैक करने के लिए किया जाता है।
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2002📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsPublic Health Archival Guidelines
The National Archives of India mandates the preservation of certain health records for an extended period, especially in case of public health crises. Which of the following categories of records should be retained for an extended period under the Archives' guidelines?
Explanation
Records concerning epidemic control, mass immunization/vaccination campaigns, and public health disease eradication programs possess permanent historical and demographic value and are archived permanently.
सार्वजनिक स्वास्थ्य संकट और 'टीकाकरण कार्यक्रमों से संबंधित रिकॉर्ड' (Records related to vaccination programs) को दीर्घकालिक रूप से संरक्षित किया जाता है।
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2003📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsInformed Surgical Consent
In India, what is the most appropriate form of medical record documentation for a patient undergoing a surgical procedure in a hospital setting?
Explanation
An Informed Written Consent Form (documenting surgical risks, benefits, alternatives, and anesthesia explanations signed by the patient) is the mandatory statutory medicolegal prerequisite for any surgical procedure.
सर्जरी से पहले कानूनी रूप से सबसे महत्वपूर्ण दस्तावेज 'सहमति पत्र' (Informed Consent form) होता है।
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2004📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsDischarge Summary Mandate
Which of the following is a legally required document to be included in a medical record in India, especially for patients who are admitted to a healthcare facility for extended periods?
Explanation
A Discharge Summary (comprehensively summarizing admission diagnosis, clinical course, operative findings, discharge medications, and follow-up instructions) is statutory mandated for every hospitalized inpatient.
अस्पताल में भर्ती प्रत्येक मरीज के लिए 'डिस्चार्ज सारांश' (Discharge summary) एक कानूनी रूप से अनिवार्य दस्तावेज है।
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2005📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)National Healthcare Planning
How does the value of medical records in India extend beyond individual patient care to benefit national healthcare planning?
Explanation
Aggregated national health records provide epidemiological datasets on disease burdens, morbidity/mortality trends, and demographic risk factors to guide national health policy and budget allocation.
राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड रोगी जनसांख्यिकी और बीमारी के रुझानों पर डेटा प्रदान करके स्वास्थ्य नीतियों और बजट आवंटन का मार्गदर्शन करते हैं।
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2006📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsMedicolegal Error Correction Rules
What is the standard practice for correcting errors in a medical record?
Explanation
The strict medicolegal protocol for error correction in medical records is to draw a Single Line through the incorrect entry (so original text remains legible), write the correction, and add the Date, Time, and Signature/Initials of the author (never use erasure or correction fluid).
मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड में गलती सुधारने का कानूनी तरीका है कि गलत प्रविष्टि पर एक सीधी रेखा खींचें, तारीख डालें और अपने हस्ताक्षर (Cross out with single line, date, and initial) करें।
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2007📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsPatient Safety Documentation
In the context of medical records, which of the following best represents the objective of maintaining accurate documentation for improving patient safety in India?
Explanation
Accurate clinical documentation enhances Patient Safety by alerting clinicians to drug allergies, adverse drug reactions, comorbidities, and correct dosing protocols, preventing adverse medical events.
सटीक रिकॉर्डिंग का मुख्य सुरक्षा उद्देश्य रोगी की एलर्जी और दवाओं की प्रतिकूल प्रतिक्रियाओं को दर्ज करके 'चिकित्सा त्रुटियों को रोकना' (To prevent medical errors) है।
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2008📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsClinical Establishments Act Rules
Under the Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act in India, how should a lab technician handle medical records of diagnostic tests for patient follow-up?
Explanation
Under the Clinical Establishments Act and NABL guidelines, diagnostic laboratories must maintain and preserve accurate test records and quality control logs for the legally mandated period (minimum 3 to 5 years).
क्लिनिकल एस्टेब्लिशमेंट एक्ट के तहत डायग्नोस्टिक टेस्ट रिकॉर्ड को कानून द्वारा निर्धारित अवधि (कम से कम 3 से 5 वर्ष) तक सुरक्षित रखना आवश्यक है।
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2009📚Medicolegal Regulations, Ethics & Quality StandardsMedical Ethics & Confidentiality
According to the Indian Medical Council (Professional Conduct, Etiquette, and Ethics) Regulations, which of the following is expected of a lab technician when maintaining medical records in India?
Explanation
The MCI Code of Ethics strictly mandates that all healthcare personnel must maintain utmost Patient Confidentiality and data privacy regarding diagnostic test results and clinical information.
MCI नियमों के अनुसार सभी परीक्षण परिणामों और रोगी डेटा को पूरी 'गोपनीयता और गोपनीयता के सम्मान' (Confidentiality and respect for privacy) के साथ संभालना अनिवार्य है।
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2010📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)EHR Interoperability Benefits
In the context of Hospital Management and Information System in India, which of the following is a primary advantage of integrating electronic health records across multiple hospitals?
Explanation
Inter-hospital EHR interoperability (such as under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission / ABDM) allows seamless data exchange, ensuring complete clinical continuity of care during patient transfers.
विभिन्न अस्पतालों के बीच EHR के एकीकरण का मुख्य लाभ मरीज के स्थानांतरण के दौरान 'निर्बाध डेटा ट्रांसफर और निरंतर देखभाल' (Improved continuity of care) प्रदान करना है।
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2011📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Hospital Inventory Management
In India, how can Hospital Management and Information System contribute to the effective management of hospital resources like medical supplies and equipment?
Explanation
HMIS inventory supply chain modules track real-time pharmacy and consumable stock levels and trigger automated purchase reorder points to prevent stockouts of life-saving supplies.
HMIS इन्वेंट्री मॉड्यूल स्टॉक के स्तर पर नज़र रखता है और 'स्टॉक कम होने पर स्वचालित रूप से आपूर्ति का ऑर्डर' (Tracking inventory and auto-ordering) देकर आपूर्ति प्रबंधन करता है।
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2012📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Telemedicine in Rural Healthcare
How does the integration of telemedicine within Hospital Management and Information System benefit healthcare delivery in rural areas of India?
Explanation
Telemedicine integrated into HMIS (e.g. eSanjeevani) enables remote video consultations and digital diagnostic review, bringing specialist care to rural and underserved regions without travel burden.
टेलीमेडिसिन का मुख्य लाभ ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में 'दूरस्थ परामर्श सक्षम करना, यात्रा की आवश्यकता कम करना और स्वास्थ्य पहुंच में सुधार' (Enabling remote consultations) करना है।
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2013📚Medical Terminology & International Classification of Diseases (ICD)Medical Word Elements Matching
Match the following prefix/suffix with their meanings:
Prefix/Suffix:
i. Poly-
ii. Hypo-
iii. Endo-
iv. -logy
v. -cyte

Meaning:
1. Study of
2. Cell
3. Deficient/below
4. Within
5. Many

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
i -> 5 (Poly- : many), ii -> 3 (Hypo- : deficient/under), iii -> 4 (Endo- : within/inside), iv -> 1 (-logy : study of), v -> 2 (-cyte : cell). Correct match: i-5, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1, v-2.
i-5 (Poly - कई), ii-3 (Hypo - कमी/नीचे), iii-4 (Endo - अंदर), iv-1 (-logy - का अध्ययन), v-2 (-cyte - कोशिका)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2014📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsPredictive Hospital Analytics
Which of the following statistical tools would be most appropriate to predict patient demand for a hospital's services based on historical data?
Explanation
Time Series Forecasting (e.g. ARIMA models, seasonal trend analysis) models chronological historical admission logs to forecast future seasonal patient demand and emergency volume.
ऐतिहासिक आंकड़ों के आधार पर भविष्य में रोगी की मांग का पूर्वानुमान लगाने के लिए 'टाइम सीरीज़ फोरकास्टिंग' (Time series forecasting) सबसे उपयुक्त उपकरण है।
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2015📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Hospital Indexing Systems
Which of the following is true about indexing in hospital information management?
Explanation
Indexing systematically catalogs Master Patient Indices, disease registries, and surgical operations into structured metadata to enable rapid search and retrieval.
इंडेक्सिंग का कार्य तेजी से पुनर्प्राप्ति के लिए रोगी डेटा को व्यवस्थित और वर्गीकृत करना (Organises and categorizes patient data for easier retrieval) है।
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2016📚Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Electronic Deficiency Management
How are deficiencies typically tracked in modern health information systems?
Explanation
Modern EHR and Enterprise Content Management (ECM) platforms incorporate automated deficiency tracking modules that flag incomplete encounters on provider portals with real-time electronic signature queues.
आधुनिक स्वास्थ्य प्रणालियों में कमियों को स्वचालित 'इलेक्ट्रॉनिक हेल्थ रिकॉर्ड सिस्टम की डेफिशिएंसी ट्रैकिंग सुविधाओं' द्वारा ट्रैक किया जाता है।
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2017📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsNumerical Indexing Capacity
A medical record is indexed using a code system where each code is 7 digits long. How many unique records can be coded?
Explanation
Using a base-10 numerical system (0 through 90\text{ through }9), a 7-digit code allows 107=10,000,00010^7 = 10,000,000 (10 million) unique permutations (0000000 to 99999990000000\text{ to }9999999).
7 अंकों की संख्या प्रणाली (10710^7) में कुल 10 मिलियन (10 million / 1 करोड़) विशिष्ट रिकॉर्ड कोड किए जा सकते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2018📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsUNESCO Public Library Manifesto
Who said, "Public Library is the responsibility of Local and National Authorities. It must be supported by specific legislation and financed by National and Local Governments"?
Explanation
The landmark statement defining the legal mandate and public financing of public libraries is proclaimed in the UNESCO Public Library Manifesto (first issued in 1949, revised with IFLA in 1994).
सार्वजनिक पुस्तकालयों के विधायी समर्थन और वित्तपोषण का यह घोषणापत्र 'यूनेस्को पब्लिक लाइब्रेरी मेनिफेस्टो' (UNESCO Manifesto) में दिया गया है।
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2019📚Information Sources, Reference Services & BibliometricsIndian Documentation Sources
Index India is published by:
Explanation
Index India, a quarterly documentation list indexing English-language articles on Indian affairs, was initiated in 1967 and published by Rajasthan University Library, Jaipur (edited by N.N. Gidwani).
'इंडेक्स इंडिया' (Index India) त्रैमासिक संदर्भ पत्रिका 'राजस्थान विश्वविद्यालय पुस्तकालय, जयपुर' (University of Rajasthan) द्वारा प्रकाशित की जाती है।
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2020📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsIFLA/UNESCO Guidelines
Which document outlines the fundamental principles of library services and is endorsed by IFLA?
Explanation
The IFLA/UNESCO Public Library Manifesto outlines the democratic principles, universal access guidelines, and operational framework for public libraries worldwide.
पुस्तकालय सेवाओं के मूलभूत सिद्धांतों को रेखांकित करने वाला और IFLA द्वारा समर्थित दस्तावेज़ 'IFLA/UNESCO पब्लिक लाइब्रेरी मेनिफेस्टो' है।
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2021📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsDigital Rights Management (DRM)
What does DRM (Digital Rights Management) in libraries primarily control?
Explanation
Digital Rights Management (DRM) technologies enforce technological protection measures that control, restrict, and manage user Access, viewing, lending periods, copying, and distribution of licensed digital e-books and e-journals.
पुस्तकालयों में DRM (डिजिटल राइट्स मैनेजमेंट) मुख्य रूप से 'डिजिटल सामग्री की पहुंच और उपयोग' (Accessibility and use of digital content) को नियंत्रित करता है।
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2022📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsOAI-PMH Interoperability
Which protocol is widely used for interoperability in digital libraries?
Explanation
OAI-PMH (Open Archives Initiative Protocol for Metadata Harvesting) is the international standard protocol designed to facilitate metadata harvesting and cross-repository interoperability among digital archives and institutional repositories.
डिजिटल पुस्तकालयों में मेटाडेटा संचयन और अंतर-संचालनीयता (Interoperability) के लिए व्यापक रूप से 'OAI-PMH' प्रोटोकॉल का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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2023📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Colon Classification Isolates
In S.R. Ranganathan's Colon Classification, what does "Isolates" refer to?
Explanation
In Colon Classification, an Isolate (or Isolate Idea) represents an individual concept, manifestation, or specific division of a characteristic within a basic subject that cannot stand alone as a main subject.
द्विबिंदु वर्गीकरण (CC) में 'आइसोलेट' (Isolates / एकल) किसी विषय के विशिष्ट पहलुओं या विशेषताओं (Specific aspects or characteristics of a subject) को संदर्भित करता है।
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2024📚Library Management, Stock Verification, Serials & Documentation CentersISBN Structure (13-Digit)
What does the prefix "978" or "979" in an ISBN signify?
Explanation
Under the 13-digit EAN/ISBN standard (GS1 system), the 3-digit prefix '978' or '979' represents Bookland, signifying globally that the item is a Book Identifier.
13-अंकीय ISBN में '978' या '979' उपसर्ग यह दर्शाता है कि यह एक पुस्तक पहचानकर्ता (Book identifier / Bookland EAN) है।
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2025📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)PMEST Fundamental Categories
Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental categories in Colon Classification?
Explanation
Dr. S.R. Ranganathan formulated the PMEST postulate consisting of five fundamental categories: Personality [P], Matter [M], Energy [E], Space [S], and Time [T]. 'Language' is not a fundamental category (it is a language isolate).
कोलन वर्गीकरण की PMEST पांच मूलभूत श्रेणियों में Personality, Matter, Energy, Space और Time शामिल हैं; 'Language' इनमें शामिल नहीं है।
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2026📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Canons for Characteristics
Canon of Permanence is one of the canons for:
Explanation
In Ranganathan's Prolegomena to Library Classification, the Canon of Permanence is one of the four Canons for Characteristics in the Idea Plane (along with Differentiation, Concomitance, and Relevance).
रंगनाथन के वर्गीकरण सिद्धांत में 'स्थायित्व का उपसूत्र' (Canon of Permanence) 'विशेषताओं के उपसूत्र' (Canons for Characteristics) का एक हिस्सा है।
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2027📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Three Planes of Work (Idea Plane)
'Canon of Characteristics' are part of
Explanation
In Ranganathan's dynamic theory of classification, Canons of Characteristics (differentiation, relevance, ascertainability, permanence) operate exclusively in the Idea Plane.
'विशेषताओं के उपसूत्र' (Canon of Characteristics) वर्गीकरण के 'वैचारिक तल' (Idea plane) का हिस्सा हैं।
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2028📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsSecond Law of Library Science
Which law directly addresses the principle of inclusivity in library services?
Explanation
The Second Law of Library Science ('Every reader his/her book' or 'Books for all') establishes universal democratic inclusivity across all socioeconomic backgrounds, languages, ages, and disabilities.
पुस्तकालय सेवाओं में समावेशिता (Inclusivity) और सार्वभौमिक पहुंच को सीधे संबोधित करने वाला नियम 'द्वितीय नियम: प्रत्येक पाठक को उसकी पुस्तक' (Second law: Every reader his/her book) है।
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2029📚Library Management, Stock Verification, Serials & Documentation CentersSerials Management
The term "serials" in library terminology refers to:
Explanation
A Serial is any publication in any medium issued in successive parts bearing numerical or chronological designations and intended to be continued indefinitely (e.g. journals, magazines, yearbooks).
पुस्तकालय शब्दावली में 'सीरियल्स' (Serials / धारावाहिक प्रकाशन) का अर्थ नियमित या क्रमिक अंतरालों पर जारी होने वाले क्रमिक प्रकाशन हैं।
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2030📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT Applicationse-Granthalaya Software
E-granthalaya software was developed by:
Explanation
e-Granthalaya (an Integrated Library Management Software for public/school libraries) was developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC), under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY / Ministry of Communication and IT).
'ई-ग्रंथालय' (e-Granthalaya) सॉफ्टवेयर 'राष्ट्रीय सूचना विज्ञान केंद्र' (NIC / संचार एवं सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय) द्वारा विकसित किया गया है।
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2031📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsLibrary Literature Classics
Which publication was not authored by S.R. Ranganathan
Explanation
'Living with Books: The Art of Book Selection' (1935) was authored by Helen E. Haines. S.R. Ranganathan authored Prolegomena (1937), Reference Service (1940), and Ramanujan: The Man and the Mathematician (1967).
'लिविंग विद बुक्स' (Living with Books) हेलेन ई. हेन्स द्वारा लिखी गई थी, डॉ. एस.आर. रंगनाथन द्वारा नहीं।
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2032📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsComputer Programming Languages
What are three types of basic languages used in computer
Explanation
Computer programming languages are fundamentally classified into three architectural tiers: Machine Language (binary 0/1), Assembly Language (low-level mnemonics), and High-Level Languages (human-readable C, Python, Java).
कंप्यूटर भाषाओं के तीन मुख्य प्रकार 'मशीन, असेंबली और उच्च-स्तरीय भाषाएं' (Machine, Assembly and high-level languages) हैं।
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2033📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsProgramming Languages vs Encodings
Which is not a programming language
Explanation
FORTRAN, BASIC, and COBOL are high-level programming languages; ASCII is a 7-bit character encoding standard, NOT a programming language.
ASCII एक वर्ण एन्कोडिंग कोड है, यह प्रोग्रामिंग भाषा नहीं है।
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2034📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsNetwork Protocols vs Z39.50
Following is not a network protocol:
Explanation
HTTP, SMTP, and TCP/IP are standard Internet network transport/application protocols. Z39.50 is an international client-server information retrieval and search standard for library catalogues (ANSI/NISO standard).
Z39.50 एक क्लाइंट-सर्वर सूचना पुनर्प्राप्ति मानक है, यह सामान्य नेटवर्क प्रोटोकॉल नहीं है।
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2035📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsAuthentication & Access Management
Shibboleth is used for
Explanation
Shibboleth is a widely used open-source Federated Identity and Access Management (IAM) single sign-on system allowing users to securely access subscribed e-resources across institutions.
शिबोलेथ (Shibboleth) का उपयोग संस्थागत ई-संसाधनों के सुरक्षित प्रमाणीकरण और 'एक्सेस मैनेजमेंट' (Access Management) के लिए किया जाता है।
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2036📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsRemote Access Tools (EZproxy)
Application of VPN and EzyProxy in library are associated with
Explanation
Virtual Private Networks (VPN) and EZproxy (OCLC) software authenticate remote and off-campus users by proxying their IP addresses, enabling seamless Remote Access to subscribed electronic databases and e-journals.
पुस्तकालय में VPN और EZproxy का उपयोग दूरस्थ उपयोगकर्ताओं को 'ई-संसाधनों तक दूरस्थ पहुँच' (Remote Access to E-Resources) प्रदान करने के लिए किया जाता है।
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2037📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsOpen Journal Systems (OJS)
Which of the following are features of 'Open Journal System'?
i) License to access content.
ii) Access restricted to limited group.
iii) Online submission.
iv) Subscription module with delayed open access options.
Codes:
Explanation
Open Journal Systems (OJS by Public Knowledge Project) features online manuscript submission, automated peer-review workflows, and flexible publishing subscription modules with delayed open access options (iii and iv).
ओपन जर्नल सिस्टम्स (OJS) की प्रमुख विशेषताओं में 'ऑनलाइन पांडुलिपि सबमिशन' (iii) और 'ओपन एक्सेस मॉड्यूल' (iv) शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2038📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsOpen Source vs Proprietary ILS
Which of the below are not open source library software's?
i) Bibliosys.
ii) Evergreen.
iii) New Genlib.
iv) Virtua.
Codes:
Explanation
Evergreen and NewGenLib are open-source Integrated Library Management Systems. Bibliosys and Virtua (VTLS) are proprietary commercial library software (not open source). Correct: (i) and (iv).
एवरग्रीन और न्यूजेनलिब ओपन-सोर्स हैं; 'Bibliosys और Virtua' वाणिज्यिक प्रोप्राइटरी सॉफ्टवेयर (ओपन सोर्स नहीं) हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2039📚Information Sources, Reference Services & BibliometricsIndian National Bibliography Exclusions
Which of the following types of publications are excluded in INB (Indian National Bibliography)?
i) Maps.
ii) First issue of Periodical.
iii) Newspapers.
iv) Books in regional languages.
Codes:
Explanation
The Indian National Bibliography (INB, published by Central Reference Library Kolkata) strictly excludes: Maps, Newspapers, Periodicals (except first issue), Musical scores, keys and guides to textbooks, and ephemeral trade catalogues. Correct: (i) and (iii).
भारतीय राष्ट्रीय ग्रंथसूची (INB) में 'मानचित्र और समाचार पत्र' (Maps and Newspapers: i और iii) शामिल नहीं किए जाते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2040📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsPublic Library Development Bodies
Which of the following organizations are associated with the development of public libraries?
i) UNESCO.
ii) RRRLF.
iii) INFLIBNET.
iv) DRTC.
Codes:
Explanation
UNESCO (via its Public Library Manifesto) and RRRLF (Raja Rammohun Roy Library Foundation, dedicated to public library assistance in India) are specifically associated with Public Library development (INFLIBNET is for academic university libraries; DRTC is research/training). Correct: (i) and (ii).
सार्वजनिक पुस्तकालयों के विकास से जुड़े प्रमुख संगठन 'UNESCO और RRRLF' (i और ii) हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2041📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsEpistemology & Universe of Knowledge
The study of 'Epistemology' deals with:
i) Modes of formation of subjects
ii) Understanding of knowledge
iii) Cataloguing of composite books
iv) Origin and Nature of Knowledge
Codes:
Explanation
Epistemology is the philosophical study of the Nature, Origin, Validity, Scope, and Understanding of Human Knowledge. Correct: (ii) and (iv).
ज्ञानमीमांसा (Epistemology) का संबंध 'ज्ञान की समझ' (ii) और 'ज्ञान की उत्पत्ति एवं प्रकृति' (iv) के अध्ययन से है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2042📚Classification Schemes (DDC, CC, UDC) & Cataloguing Codes (AACR-2, CCC, RDA)Landmark Publications of 1876
Identify the documents which were first published in 1876:
i) Bibliographic classification.
ii) Dewey Decimal System.
iii) Panizzi's Rules for the compilation of the catalogue.
iv) Rules for a Printed Dictionary Catalogue.
Codes:
Explanation
In 1876: (ii) Melvil Dewey published the 1st edition of 'Dewey Decimal Classification' (DDC), and (iv) Charles Ammi Cutter published 'Rules for a Dictionary Catalog'. Correct: (ii) and (iv).
1876 में प्रकाशित प्रसिद्ध ग्रंथ 'डेवी दशमलव प्रणाली' (DDC) और 'कटर के रूल्स फॉर प्रिंटेड डिक्शनरी कैटलॉग' (ii और iv) हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2043📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsURL Components
Which of the following are the parts of a URL (Universal Resource Locator)?
i) Protocol.
ii) Media Access Control.
iii) Domain name.
iv) Path.
Codes:
Explanation
A complete URL consists of: (i) Protocol (https://), (iii) Domain name (www.example.com), and (iv) Path (/path/page.html) (MAC is a hardware address). Correct: (i), (iii) and (iv).
URL (वेब पता) के मुख्य भाग 'प्रोटोकॉल, डोमेन नाम और पाथ' (i, iii और iv) होते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2044📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsIFLA Manifestos Chronology
Arrange the following items in chronological order of their date of first publishing:
i) IFLA/UNESCO School Library Manifesto
ii) IFLA/UNESCO Multicultural Library Manifesto
iii) IFLA/UNESCO Manifesto for Digital Libraries
iv) IFLA Internet Manifesto Codes:
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Chronological publication dates: (i) School Library Manifesto = 1999, (iv) IFLA Internet Manifesto = 2002, (ii) Multicultural Library Manifesto = 2006/2009, (iii) Manifesto for Digital Libraries = 2010. Correct sequence: (i), (iv), (ii), (iii).
घोषणापत्रों का कालानुक्रम: स्कूल लाइब्रेरी (1999) −>-> इंटरनेट मेनिफेस्टो (2002) −>-> बहुसांस्कृतिक लाइब्रेरी (2006) −>-> डिजिटल लाइब्रेरी (2010) (i, iv, ii, iii)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2045📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsLibrary Management Software Chronology
Identify the development in following Library Software in correct chronological sequence:
Explanation
Development chronological order: LibSys = 1984, Sanjay (CDS/ISIS based by DESIDOC) = 1995, SOUL (INFLIBNET) = 2000, SLIM (Algorhythms) = 2002. Correct sequence: Libsys, Sanjaya, SOUL, SLIM.
पुस्तकालय सॉफ्टवेयर विकास का सही कालानुक्रम: Libsys (1984) −>-> Sanjaya (1995) −>-> SOUL (2000) −>-> SLIM (2002)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2046📚Information Sources, Reference Services & BibliometricsGeographical Information Sources Matching
Match the following:
Map Type:
1) Political Map
2) Route Map
3) Physical Map
4) Thematic Map

Features:
(i) Features of land
(ii) Roads and bridges, etc.
(iii) Limiting territorial boundaries
(iv) Mining, agriculture, etc.

Codes:
Explanation
1 -> iii (Political: boundaries), 2 -> ii (Route: roads, transportation), 3 -> i (Physical: landforms, elevation), 4 -> iv (Thematic: specific themes like mining, climate, agriculture). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv.
1-iii (राजनीतिक मानचित्र - सीमाएं), 2-ii (रूट मैप - सड़कें/पुल), 3-i (भौतिक मानचित्र - स्थलाकृति), 4-iv (विषयगत मानचित्र - कृषि/खनन)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2047📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsSocial and Academic Networking Platforms Matching
Match the following:
Platform:
1) Face Book
2) Research Gate
3) Oovoo
4) Flickr

Category:
(i) Video Networking site
(ii) Social Networking site
(iii) Academic Networking site
(iv) Photo Networking site

Codes:
Explanation
1 -> ii (Facebook: Social Networking), 2 -> iii (ResearchGate: Academic Networking), 3 -> i (ooVoo: Video Chat/Networking), 4 -> iv (Flickr: Photo Sharing/Networking). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv.
1-ii (फेसबुक - सोशल नेटवर्किंग), 2-iii (रिसर्चगेट - अकादमिक नेटवर्किंग), 3-i (ऊवू - वीडियो नेटवर्किंग), 4-iv (फ्लिकर - फोटो नेटवर्किंग)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2048📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsNational Missions Launch Years Matching
Match the following with their corresponding year of launching:
Mission:
1) National Mission on Manuscripts
2) National Mission on Libraries
3) National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities
4) National Knowledge Network

Launch Year:
(i) 2003
(ii) 2007
(iii) 2012
(iv) 2010

Codes:
Explanation
1 -> i (National Mission on Manuscripts: February 2003), 2 -> iii (National Mission on Libraries: May 2012), 3 -> ii (National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities: March 2007), 4 -> iv (National Knowledge Network / NKN: 2010). Correct match: 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv.
1-i (पांडुलिपि मिशन - 2003), 2-iii (पुस्तकालय मिशन - 2012), 3-ii (स्मारक मिशन - 2007), 4-iv (राष्ट्रीय ज्ञान नेटवर्क - 2010)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2049📚Information Sources, Reference Services & BibliometricsInformation Sources Classification Matching
Match the following:
Source:
1) Encyclopaedia of Associations
2) Whitaker's Almanac
3) LISA
4) Economic Times

Category:
(i) Secondary sources
(ii) Primary sources
(iii) Directories
(iv) Yearbooks

Codes:
Explanation
1 -> iii (Encyclopaedia of Associations: Directory), 2 -> iv (Whitaker's Almanac: Yearbook/Almanac), 3 -> i (LISA - Library & Information Science Abstracts: Secondary source), 4 -> ii (Economic Times: Primary newspaper source). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii.
1-iii (एसोसिएशन विश्वकोश - निर्देशिका), 2-iv (व्हिटेकर - वार्षिकी), 3-i (LISA - द्वितीयक सार स्रोत), 4-ii (इकोनॉमिक टाइम्स - प्राथमिक स्रोत)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2050📚Information Sources, Reference Services & BibliometricsLexical Reference Tools Matching
Match the following:
Reference Tool:
1) Dictionary
2) Glossary
3) Thesaurus
4) Lexicon

Definition Scope:
(i) Foreign / Ancient Language
(ii) Synonymous terms (concept relations)
(iii) Words, Definitions & Pronunciations
(iv) Specific subjects / Specialized terms

Codes:
Explanation
1 -> iii (Dictionary: general word definitions, etymology), 2 -> iv (Glossary: specialized terminology of a specific text/subject), 3 -> ii (Thesaurus: synonymous and conceptually related terms), 4 -> i (Lexicon: dictionary of classical or foreign languages like Greek/Latin). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i.
1-iii (शब्दकोश - सामान्य शब्द), 2-iv (शब्दावली - विशिष्ट विषय), 3-ii (थिसॉरस - समानार्थी शब्द), 4-i (लेक्सिकॉन - विदेशी/प्राचीन भाषा)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2051📚Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsWeb Technologies Concepts Matching
Match the following:
Web Term:
1) Web page
2) Web server
3) Website
4) Web browser

Description:
(i) Navigation / Client application tool
(ii) Internet storage host
(iii) HTML Document
(iv) Collection of related web pages

Codes:
Explanation
1 -> iii (Web page: single HTML document), 2 -> ii (Web server: computer hosting and serving web files), 3 -> iv (Website: collection of interrelated web pages), 4 -> i (Web browser: client navigation application). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i.
1-iii (वेब पेज - HTML दस्तावेज़), 2-ii (वेब सर्वर - इंटरनेट होस्ट), 3-iv (वेबसाइट - वेब पेजों का संग्रह), 4-i (वेब ब्राउज़र - नेविगेशन टूल)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2052📚Information Sources, Reference Services & BibliometricsVirtual Reference Service Evolution
Arrange in sequence the medium used for 'Virtual Reference' in the order of their progress / evolution:
i) Web form
ii) Ask a Service
iii) E-mail
iv) Social Networking
Codes:
Explanation
Evolution of virtual digital reference services: (iii) E-mail reference (early 1990s) −>-> (i) Structured Web query forms (mid 1990s) −>-> (ii) Real-time 'Ask a Librarian' chat/collaborative services (late 1990s/2000s) −>-> (iv) Social Networking and messaging bots (2010s). Correct sequence: iii, i, ii, iv.
वर्चुअल संदर्भ सेवा माध्यमों का विकास क्रम: ई-मेल (iii) −>-> वेब फॉर्म (i) −>-> आस्क ए सर्विस (ii) −>-> सोशल नेटवर्किंग (iv) (iii, i, ii, iv)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2053📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsMisbranded Food Definitions
According to The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954; an article of food shall be deemed to be "misbranded"
1. if it is falsely stated to be the product of any place or country
2. Any article which ordinarily enters into, or is used in the composition or preparation of, human food
3. if it is so coloured, flavoured or coated, powdered or polished that the fact that the article is damaged is concealed or if the article is made to appear better or of greater value than it really is
4. if it is not labelled in accordance with the requirements of this Act or Rules made thereunder
Which of the given statements is/are correct :
Explanation
Under Section 2(ix) of the PFA Act 1954, food is deemed Misbranded if falsely labeled regarding origin (1), colored/coated to conceal damage or inflate value (3), or violating statutory labeling requirements (4). Statement 2 is the definition of 'Food'. Correct: 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
PFA अधिनियम 1954 के तहत 'मिस्ब्रांडेड' भोजन में 1, 3 और 4 शामिल हैं (कथन 2 भोजन की परिभाषा है)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2054📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFood Inspector Statutory Powers
Consider the following statements:
1. A food inspector shall have power to prohibit the sale of any article of food in the interest of public health with the previous approval of the Local (Health) Authority having jurisdiction in the local area concerned, or with the previous approval of the Food (Health) Authority.
2. A food inspector shall have power to take samples of any article of food from any person selling such article.
3. A food inspector shall have power to prohibit the sale of any article of food in the interest of public health without the previous approval of the Local (Health) Authority having jurisdiction in the local area concerned, or with the previous approval of the Food (Health) Authority.
4. A food inspector shall have power to take samples of any article of food from any person who is in the course of conveying, delivering or preparing to deliver such article to a purchaser or consignee.
Which of the given statements is/are correct :
Explanation
Under Section 10 of PFA Act 1954: A Food Inspector has statutory power to take samples from sellers (2) and transporters/consignees (4), and can prohibit sale in the interest of public health WITH prior approval of Local Health Authority (1). (Statement 3 is false as prior approval is mandatory). Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
खाद्य निरीक्षक की शक्तियों में 1, 2 और 4 शामिल हैं (बिक्री पर रोक लगाने के लिए स्थानीय स्वास्थ्य प्राधिकरण की पूर्व अनुमति अनिवार्य है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2055📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsBIS Headquarters
Where is the headquarter of Bureau of Indian Standards located?
Explanation
The national headquarters of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is located at Manak Bhavan, Old Delhi / New Delhi.
भारतीय मानक ब्यूरो (BIS) का राष्ट्रीय मुख्यालय 'नई दिल्ली' (New Delhi / मानक भवन) में स्थित है।
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2056📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsSeizure and Disposal of Perishable Foods
If any food article seized is of perishable nature and is deteriorated that is unfit for consumption. In such case, as per The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 the food inspector should:
Explanation
Under Section 10(4A) of the PFA Act 1954, if any seized food article is unwholesome, perishable, and deteriorated beyond human consumption, the Food Inspector shall destroy the article with the prior consent of the vendor, or after giving notice in writing to the vendor with the approval of Local Health Authority.
यदि जब्त खाद्य पदार्थ सड़ने वाला और खाने के लिए अयोग्य है, तो खाद्य निरीक्षक विक्रेता को लिखित नोटिस देकर उसे नष्ट (Destroy the food article after giving notice in writing) कर सकता है।
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2057📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Statutory Functions
Which of the following is a key function of FSSAI under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?
Explanation
Under Section 16 of the FSSA 2006, the principal statutory function of FSSAI is laying down science-based standards for articles of food, food additives, contaminants, and regulating their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import.
FSSA 2006 के तहत FSSAI का मुख्य कार्य 'खाद्य पदार्थों और खाद्य योजकों के लिए विज्ञान-आधारित मानकों का निर्धारण' (Formulation of standards for food articles and additives) करना है।
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2058📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Books and Schemes Matching
Consider the following pairs :
i. Safe Water Initiative
ii. Pink Book Initiative
iii. School Health and Wellness Program
iv. Food Safety Mitra Scheme

1) Empowers trained individuals to assist food businesses in regulatory compliance
2) Provides guidelines for safe and nutritious food in schools
3) Enhances food safety practices for drinking water
4) Offers a manual for safe and nutritious food practices in households

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
i -> 3 (Safe Water: drinking water safety), ii -> 4 (Pink Book: safe food guide for Indian households), iii -> 2 (Yellow Book / School Program: safe food in schools), iv -> 1 (Food Safety Mitra: certified individuals aiding FBO licensing/compliance). Correct match: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1.
i-3 (सुरक्षित जल), ii-4 (पिंक बुक - घरेलू खाद्य मार्गदर्शिका), iii-2 (स्कूल स्वास्थ्य - सुरक्षित स्कूली भोजन), iv-1 (फूड सेफ्टी मित्र - लाइसेंस/अनुपालन सहायता)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2059📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsClean Street Food Hubs
FSSAI's "Clean Street Food Hub" certification is granted to:
Explanation
The 'Clean Street Food Hub' (CSFH) certification is awarded to designated street food clusters/hubs where a minimum of 80% to 100% of vendors collectively comply with standard food safety, waste management, and sanitary benchmarks.
FSSAI का 'क्लीन स्ट्रीट फूड हब' प्रमाणन उन क्षेत्रों/हब को दिया जाता है जहाँ 'सभी स्ट्रीट फूड विक्रेता सामूहिक रूप से सुरक्षा मानकों का पालन करते हैं' (Vendors collectively follow safety standards)।
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2060📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsRecognized Food Safety Certifications
Which of the following certifications is recognized by FSSAI for food businesses ensuring compliance with food safety norms in India?
Explanation
FSSAI recognizes international and national safety quality frameworks including ISO 22000 (Food Safety Management Systems), FSSAI Hygiene Rating, and HACCP certifications (All of the above).
FSSAI खाद्य सुरक्षा अनुपालन के लिए ISO 22000, हाइजीन रेटिंग और HACCP प्रमाणन सभी (All of the above) को मान्यता देता है।
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2061📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Licensing Thresholds
In India, the "FSSAI License" is mandatory for food businesses with an annual turnover of:
Explanation
Under FSS (Licensing and Registration of Food Businesses) Regulations 2011, petty food manufacturers with turnover up to Rs. 12 Lakhs require FSSAI Registration (Form A), whereas food businesses with annual turnover exceeding Rs. 12 Lakhs mandatory require an FSSAI License (Form B).
भारत में 12 लाख रुपये (Rs. 12 lakh) से अधिक के वार्षिक टर्नओवर वाले खाद्य व्यवसायों के लिए 'FSSAI लाइसेंस' अनिवार्य है (12 लाख तक पंजीकरण होता है)।
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2062📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFood Research Institutions
Which of the following agencies plays a role in promoting food safety research in India?
Explanation
NIFTEM (National Institute of Food Technology Entrepreneurship and Management, Kundli/Thanjavur) under the Ministry of Food Processing Industries conducts apex research, entrepreneurship training, and testing in food science.
भारत में खाद्य सुरक्षा और खाद्य प्रौद्योगिकी अनुसंधान को बढ़ावा देने वाला प्रमुख संस्थान 'NIFTEM' है।
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2063📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Third-Party Audits
Consider the following statements :
Which of the following statements are true regarding the "FSSAI Food Safety Auditing" process?
1. Audits are conducted by third-party agencies approved by FSSAI
2. Food safety audits are only required for food manufacturers, not for food outlets
3. Food safety audits focus on compliance with FSSAI regulations regarding food handling, storage, and hygiene
4. Non-compliance with audit findings can lead to penalties, including cancellation of FSSAI licenses
Which of the given statements is/are correct :
Explanation
Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct: Audits are conducted by FSSAI-recognized third-party auditing agencies (1), verify hygiene and sanitary handling (3), and non-compliance can trigger regulatory improvement notices or license suspension (4). Statement 2 is false as audits apply to high-risk catering and retail outlets as well.
कथन 1, 3 और 4 सही हैं (ऑडिट केवल निर्माताओं तक सीमित नहीं है, यह उच्च जोखिम वाले कैटरिंग आउटलेट्स पर भी लागू होता है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2064📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsAdulteration Prevention Framework
Consider the following statements :
Which of the following actions are part of FSSAI's regulatory framework to prevent food adulteration in India?
1. Encouraging food businesses to use digital tools for tracking adulteration
2. Strict penalties for food business operators caught selling adulterated food
3. Imposing minimum quality standards on raw materials and food additives
4. Banning the sale of certain food products deemed prone to adulteration without proper certification
Which of the given statements is/are correct :
Explanation
Statutory regulatory anti-adulteration enforcement mechanisms under FSSA 2006 include: Imposing strict legal penalties and imprisonment (2), laying down mandatory quality specifications for raw commodities and additives (3), and prohibiting uncertified sale of adulteration-prone commodities like loose edible oils and mustard oil blends (4). Choice D (2, 3 and 4 are correct).
मिलावट रोकने के FSSAI के वैधानिक ढांचे में सख्त दंड (2), गुणवत्ता मानक (3) और बिना प्रमाणन संवेदनशील खाद्य पदार्थों की बिक्री पर प्रतिबंध (4) शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2065📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Organic Foods Regulations
Consider the following statements :
Which of the following factors are considered when determining whether a food product can be marketed as "organic" under FSSAI's organic food regulations?
1. Certification by the National Program for Organic Production (NPOP) or any other FSSAI-recognized certifying agency
2. The exclusion of all synthetic pesticides and fertilizers during the cultivation of the food
3. The product's marketing as organic without the need for any official certification if it meets minimum standards
4. Compliance with international organic certification standards for products that are exported
Which of the given statements is/are correct:
Explanation
Under the FSS (Organic Foods) Regulations 2017: Organic foods must be certified under NPOP or PGS-India (1), completely exclude synthetic agrochemicals/GMOs (2), and comply with export standards (4). Statement 3 is false because self-claiming 'organic' without certification is illegal (Jaivik Bharat logo is mandatory). Correct: 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
FSSAI जैविक खाद्य नियमों के तहत 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (बिना प्रमाणन के जैविक का दावा करना गैरकानूनी है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2066📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryMacronutrients and Energy
Which of the following macronutrients is the primary source of energy for the human body?
Explanation
Carbohydrates are the body's preferred primary energy substrate, metabolized via glycolysis and cellular respiration into glucose to provide 4 kcal/g of energy.
मानव शरीर के लिए ऊर्जा का प्राथमिक और मुख्य स्रोत 'कार्बोहाइड्रेट' (Carbohydrates) है।
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2067📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryDigestible Carbohydrates
Which type of carbohydrate is digestible by the human body and provides a quick source of energy?
Explanation
Starch (composed of α\alpha-1,4 and α\alpha-1,6 glucosidic linkages in amylose and amylopectin) is rapidly hydrolyzed by salivary and pancreatic α\alpha-amylase enzymes into maltose and glucose, serving as the main digestible dietary energy source (Cellulose and pectin are non-digestible dietary fibers).
मानव शरीर द्वारा आसानी से पचने योग्य और ऊर्जा प्रदान करने वाला कार्बोहाइड्रेट 'स्टार्च' (Starch) है (सेलूलोज़ और पेक्टिन फाइबर हैं)।
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2068📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryMinerals and Electrolytes
Which of the following minerals is most important for maintaining fluid balance and nerve function in the body?
Explanation
Potassium (K+K^+), as the major intracellular cation, together with extracellular Sodium (Na+Na^+), generates electrochemical resting membrane potentials across nerve axons and maintains osmotic fluid electrolyte balance.
शरीर में द्रव संतुलन और तंत्रिका संचरण (Nerve function) को बनाए रखने वाला सबसे महत्वपूर्ण खनिज 'पोटेशियम' (Potassium) है।
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2069📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryMaillard Browning Reaction
Which of the following food chemistry principles explains the chemical change that occurs when food is cooked at high temperatures, leading to changes in flavor and texture?
Explanation
The Maillard Reaction is a non-enzymatic browning reaction between the amino group of amino acids/proteins and the carbonyl group of reducing sugars at high cooking temperatures (>140∘C>140^\circ\text{C}), producing complex melanoidin pigments and savory flavor volatiles.
उच्च तापमान पर पकाने पर अमीनो एसिड और शर्करा के बीच होने वाली गैर-एंजाइमी भूरीकरण अभिक्रिया 'मेलार्ड प्रतिक्रिया' (Maillard Reaction) कहलाती है।
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2070📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryEssential Fatty Acids
Which of the following essential fatty acids cannot be synthesized by the human body and must be obtained through the diet?
Explanation
Omega-3 fatty acids (Alpha-Linolenic Acid / ALA) and Omega-6 fatty acids (Linoleic Acid) are strictly essential fatty acids because humans lack Δ12\Delta^{12} and Δ15\Delta^{15} desaturase enzymes to insert double bonds beyond carbon-9.
मानव शरीर में संश्लेषित न हो सकने वाले आवश्यक फैटी एसिड 'ओमेगा-3 फैटी एसिड' (Omega-3 fatty acids - ALA) हैं।
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2071📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryPhospholipids Function
Which of the following statements best describes the role of phospholipids in human nutrition and cell function?
Explanation
Phospholipids (amphipathic molecules with hydrophilic heads and lipophilic fatty acyl tails) form the lipid bilayer matrix of all biological cell membranes and act as natural emulsifiers in bile for the micellar absorption of dietary lipids and fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K).
फॉस्फोलिपिड्स कोशिका झिल्ली का मुख्य संरचनात्मक घटक बनाते हैं और वसा में घुलनशील विटामिनों के अवशोषण में सहायता करते हैं।
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2072📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryLipid Classification & Energy Reserves
Which of the following lipid classes is most abundant in the human body and serves as a major energy reserve?
Explanation
Triglycerides (triacylglycerols stored in adipose tissue) constitute over 90–95% of total body fat reserves, providing 9 kcal/g of concentrated metabolic energy.
मानव शरीर में सबसे प्रचुर मात्रा में पाया जाने वाला और प्राथमिक ऊर्जा भंडार लिपिड 'ट्राइग्लिसराइड्स' (Triglycerides) है।
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2073📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryEssential Amino Acids
Which of the following amino acids is considered essential for human nutrition, meaning it cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained from the diet?
Explanation
Tryptophan is one of the 9 nutritionally Essential Amino Acids (along with Histidine, Isoleucine, Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, and Valine). Glycine, Serine, and Alanine are non-essential amino acids synthesized endogenously.
मानव पोषण के लिए आवश्यक अमीनो एसिड (Essential amino acid) 'ट्रिप्टोफैन' (Tryptophan) है (ग्लाइसिन, सेरीन, ऐलेनिन गैर-आवश्यक हैं)।
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2074📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryEnzyme Cofactors (Magnesium)
Which of the following minerals is crucial for the activation of enzymes involved in glycolysis and the production of ATP in human cells?
Explanation
Magnesium (Mg2+Mg^{2+}) is an obligatory cofactor for all kinase enzymes in glycolysis (Hexokinase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate Kinase) because ATP must bind as a biologically active Mg2+-ATP2−Mg^{2+}\text{-ATP}^{2-} complex.
ग्लाइकोलाइसिस और ATP उत्पादन में शामिल एंजाइमों के सक्रियण के लिए अनिवार्य खनिज 'मैग्नीशियम' (Magnesium / Mg2+Mg^{2+}) है।
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2075📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryMicronutrients Function Matching
Match the following micronutrients with their main roles in human health:
Micronutrients:
i. Vitamin D
ii. Iron
iii. Vitamin C
iv. Folate

Role:
1. DNA synthesis and red blood cell formation
2. Antioxidant and collagen synthesis
3. Oxygen transport in the blood
4. Bone health and calcium absorption

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
i -> 4 (Vitamin D: bone mineralization & calcium absorption), ii -> 3 (Iron: heme component of hemoglobin for oxygen transport), iii -> 2 (Vitamin C: antioxidant & proline/lysine hydroxylation in collagen), iv -> 1 (Folate / Vitamin B9: one-carbon metabolism, thymidylate DNA synthesis & RBC maturation). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.
i-4 (विटामिन डी - हड्डी स्वास्थ्य/कैल्शियम), ii-3 (आयरन - ऑक्सीजन परिवहन), iii-2 (विटामिन सी - कोलेजन/एंटीऑक्सीडेंट), iv-1 (फोलेट - DNA संश्लेषण/RBC)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2076📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingThermal Processing of Low-Acid Foods
Which of the following is the most effective method to destroy foodborne pathogens during home canning of low-acid foods, such as vegetables?
Explanation
Low-acid foods (pH>4.6pH > 4.6, such as green beans, corn, meat) mandatory require Pressure Canning/Cooking at 121∘C121^\circ\text{C} (250∘F250^\circ\text{F}) under 15 psi to destroy heat-resistant bacterial endospores of Clostridium botulinum (boiling water at 100∘C100^\circ\text{C} cannot kill spores).
कम अम्लीय डिब्बाबंद सब्जियों में बोटुलिनम बीजाणुओं को नष्ट करने के लिए 'प्रेशर कुकिंग' (Pressure cooking / 121°C पर) एकमात्र सुरक्षित तरीका है।
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2077📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesClostridium botulinum Spore Biology
Which of the following microbial characteristics is most associated with foodborne pathogens that cause botulism?
Explanation
Clostridium botulinum is an obligate anaerobic spore-forming bacillus whose dormant endospores possess extreme heat resistance (requiring 121∘extC121^\circ ext{C} thermal processing to achieve commercial sterility).
बोटुलिज़्म पैदा करने वाले जीवाणु की मुख्य विशेषता 'अत्यधिक ऊष्मा-प्रतिरोधी बीजाणु उत्पन्न करने की क्षमता' (The ability to produce heat-resistant spores) है।
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2078📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne Illnesses12D Botulinum Thermal Cook
Which of the following microbial control methods is most effective in destroying spores from Clostridium botulinum during low-acid food canning?
Explanation
Commercial Sterility in industrial and home canning of low-acid foods mandates applying a '12D Botulinum Cook', heating under steam pressure at temperatures ≥121.1∘extC\ge 121.1^\circ ext{C} (250∘extF250^\circ ext{F}) for the calculated thermal death time to achieve a 12-log reduction of C. botulinum spores.
डिब्बाबंद खाद्य पदार्थों में बोटुलिनम बीजाणुओं को नष्ट करने का सबसे प्रभावी तरीका '121°C से ऊपर तापमान पर विशिष्ट समय के लिए प्रेशर कुकिंग' (Pressure cooking above 121°C / 12D कुक) है।
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2079📚Food Microbiology, Pathogens & Foodborne IllnessesCheese Microbiology
Which of the following microorganisms is commonly used in the production of cheese?
Explanation
Lactic acid bacteria including Lactobacillus bulgaricus (and Lactococcus lactis, Streptococcus thermophilus) are standard starter cultures used to ferment lactose into lactic acid, coagulate milk caseins, and develop flavor during cheese manufacturing.
पनीर (Cheese) और किण्वित डेयरी उत्पादों के निर्माण में मुख्य रूप से 'लैक्टोबैसिलस बुल्गारिकस' (Lactobacillus bulgaricus) और लैक्टोकोकस का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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2080📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryAntioxidant Mechanisms
What is the primary role of antioxidants in the human body?
Explanation
Antioxidants (e.g. Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Selenium, Polyphenols) scavenge and neutralize reactive oxygen species (free radicals), preventing oxidative lipid peroxidation, DNA mutations, and cellular membrane damage.
मानव शरीर में एंटीऑक्सिडेंट्स की प्राथमिक भूमिका 'फ्री रेडिकल्स को बेअसर करना और कोशिकाओं को नुकसान से बचाना' (Neutralize free radicals and protect cells) है।
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2081📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryRDA Guidelines (Vitamin C)
Which of the following is the RDA (Recommended Dietary Allowance) for vitamin C in a healthy adult male?
Explanation
According to ICMR-NIN 2020 and international RDA dietary guidelines, the Recommended Dietary Allowance of Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) for a healthy adult male is 80 to 90 mg/day (90 mg).
ICMR-NIN और अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानकों के अनुसार एक स्वस्थ वयस्क पुरुष के लिए विटामिन सी की अनुशंसित दैनिक मात्रा (RDA) '90 mg' (80-90 मिलीग्राम) है।
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2082📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingFood Hydrocolloids (Pectin)
Which of the following is the primary function of the hydrocolloid pectin in food science?
Explanation
Pectin (a structural heteropolysaccharide extracted from citrus peels and apple pomace) functions in the presence of sugar and acid as a premier Gelling Agent in the manufacture of jams, jellies, and confectionery.
खाद्य विज्ञान में हाइड्रोकोलॉइड पेक्टिन (Pectin) का प्राथमिक कार्य जैम और जेली में 'जेलिंग एजेंट' (Gelling agent) के रूप में कार्य करना है।
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2083📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFood Labeling Mandates
In India, under the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011, the labeling of food products must include :
Explanation
Under FSS (Labeling and Display) Regulations, all pre-packaged foods must display: Name of Food, Ingredient List in descending order of weight, Nutritional Information, Veg/Non-Veg Logo, FSSAI Logo & License Number, Net Quantity, Batch/Lot Number, Date of Manufacture, and Best Before / Expiry Date (Shelf life).
FSSAI लेबलिंग नियमों के तहत खाद्य उत्पादों पर 'शेल्फ लाइफ/एक्सपायरी, निर्माण विवरण और सामग्री सूची' (Shelf life, manufacturing details, and ingredient list) अनिवार्य रूप से शामिल होना चाहिए।
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2084📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFoSTaC Food Safety Supervisor
The "FSSAI Food Safety Supervisor" certification program is mandatory for which type of food business?
Explanation
Under FSSAI FoSTaC guidelines, having at least one certified Food Safety Supervisor for every 25 food handlers is mandatory for licensed Food Business Operators, particularly those involved in high-risk food sectors (catering, dairy, meat, processing).
FSSAI का फूड सेफ्टी सुपरवाइजर प्रमाणन विशेष रूप से 'उच्च जोखिम वाले खाद्य उत्पादों को संभालने वाले खाद्य व्यवसायों' (FBOs handling high-risk foods) के लिए अनिवार्य है।
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2085📚Food Quality Assurance, Analysis & InstrumentationISO 22000 & HACCP Principles
ISO 22000:2018 requires organizations to establish a food safety management system (FSMS) based on which of the following principles?
Explanation
ISO 22000 integrates the management system principles of ISO 9001 with the Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) principles and prerequisite programs (PRPs) developed by the Codex Alimentarius Commission.
ISO 22000:2018 खाद्य सुरक्षा प्रबंधन प्रणाली मुख्य रूप से 'HACCP (खतरा विश्लेषण और महत्वपूर्ण नियंत्रण बिंदु) सिद्धांतों' पर आधारित है।
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2086📚Food Quality Assurance, Analysis & InstrumentationBOD in Food Processing Water
The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) test is used to determine
Explanation
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of dissolved oxygen required by aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic matter in water, serving as a critical environmental index for the organic purity of Water used in food processing and effluent discharge.
BOD (बायोकेमिकल ऑक्सीजन डिमांड) परीक्षण का उपयोग 'खाद्य उत्पादन में उपयोग किए जाने वाले पानी और अपशिष्ट जल की गुणवत्ता' (Quality of water used in food production) निर्धारित करने के लिए किया जाता है।
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2087📚Food Quality Assurance, Analysis & InstrumentationSugar Analysis (Fehling's Test)
Which of the following is the most commonly used reagent for the determination of total sugars in food products?
Explanation
Fehling's Solution (and Lane-Eynon volumetric titration) is the standard pharmacopoeial and AOAC reagent method used to quantitatively determine Reducing Sugars and Total Invert Sugars in food products.
खाद्य उत्पादों में कुल शर्करा (Reducing & Total sugars) के निर्धारण के लिए सबसे अधिक इस्तेमाल किया जाने वाला अभिकर्मक 'फेलिंग घोल' (Fehling's solution / लेन-एनन विधि) है।
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2088📚Food Quality Assurance, Analysis & InstrumentationHPLC Applications
What is the primary purpose of using "HPLC" (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography) in food analysis?
Explanation
High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) uses high pressure to pass liquid solvent through packed analytical columns, providing high-resolution quantitative separation and identification of non-volatile analytes (vitamins, preservatives, synthetic colors, mycotoxins, pesticide residues).
खाद्य विश्लेषण में HPLC का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'जटिल मिश्रणों के घटकों को अलग और मात्रात्मक रूप से निर्धारित करना' (To separate and quantify components of complex mixtures) है।
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2089📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryPrimary vs Secondary Metabolites
The following are considered "Secondary" metabolites that can be analyzed in food?
1. Alkaloids
2. Flavonoids
3. Polysaccharides
4. Fatty acids
Which of the given options is/are correct?
Explanation
Alkaloids (e.g. caffeine, theobromine) and Flavonoids (anthocyanins, quercetin) are Secondary Metabolites produced by plants for defense and pigmentation. Polysaccharides and Fatty acids are primary energy/structural metabolites. Correct: 1 and 2 are correct.
पादपों के 'द्वितीयक मेटाबोलाइट्स' (Secondary metabolites) में 'एल्कलॉइड्स और फ्लेवोनोइड्स' (1 और 2) आते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2090📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingThermal Blanching
Which of the following is the primary objective of blanching in food preservation?
Explanation
Blanching (mild pre-freezing thermal treatment using steam or hot water at 75ext−−95∘extC75 ext{--}95^\circ ext{C}) is performed primarily to Inactivate endogenous deteriorative enzymes (Polyphenol oxidase, Catalase, Peroxidase, Lipoxygenase) that cause off-flavors, enzymatic browning, and nutrient loss during frozen storage.
खाद्य संरक्षण में ब्लांचिंग (Blanching) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'खराबी पैदा करने वाले एंजाइमों को निष्क्रिय करना' (To deactivate enzymes that cause spoilage) है।
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2091📚Food Processing, Preservation Techniques & PackagingBiodegradable Food Packaging
In food packaging, the use of biodegradable plastics is primarily aimed at :
Explanation
Biodegradable bioplastics (e.g. Polylactic acid / PLA, polyhydroxyalkanoates / PHA, starch polymers) are deployed in sustainable packaging to decompose organically into non-toxic biomass, reducing plastic pollution and municipal landfill waste.
खाद्य पैकेजिंग में बायोडिग्रेडेबल प्लास्टिक का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'पर्यावरणीय प्रभाव को कम करना और स्थिरता में सुधार करना' (Reducing environmental impact and improving sustainability) है।
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2092📚Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryEnzymatic Browning Mechanisms
What is the principle behind enzymatic browning in fruits, and how is it controlled during food processing?
Explanation
Enzymatic Browning occurs when cut fruit tissue exposes phenolic substrates to Polyphenol Oxidase (PPO) in the presence of oxygen, forming brown quinone pigments. It is inhibited by low pH (Acidification with citric acid), Ascorbic acid (antioxidant reducing agent), blanching, or oxygen exclusion.
फलों में एंजाइमी भूरापन 'पॉलीफेनोल ऑक्सीडेज द्वारा फेनोलिक यौगिकों के ऑक्सीकरण' से होता है, जिसे 'अम्लीकरण या एस्कॉर्बिक एसिड' द्वारा नियंत्रित किया जाता है।
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2093📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyWater Quality Standards
The quality of water and hygiene of plant is higher for which of the food industry?
Explanation
Packaged Drinking Water and Natural Mineral Water processing industries mandate the most stringent bacteriological and physical water quality standards (IS 14543 / IS 13428) with total microbial sterility, ultrafiltration, and ozone sanitation.
पादप स्वच्छता और पानी की गुणवत्ता के उच्चतम मानक 'पैकेज्ड पेयजल उद्योग' (Packaged drinking water) के लिए अनिवार्य हैं।
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2094📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyThermal Processing Misconceptions
Consider the following statements:
I. Pasteurization is considered a cold sterilization method
II. All radiations are ionizing
III. Blanching is used for liquid food products
IV. UHT pasteurization is used for solid foods
From among the statements given choose the correct one:
Explanation
All statements are false: I is false (thermal process), II is false (UV and infrared are non-ionizing), III is false (blanching is for solid fruits/vegetables), IV is false (UHT is used for continuous-flow liquid milk/juices). Correct: None of the above.
दिए गए सभी कथन असत्य हैं (ब्लांचिंग ठोस सब्जियों के लिए है, UHT तरल पदार्थों के लिए है, UV गैर-आयनकारी है)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2095📚Food Processing Operations, Preservation & Packaging TechnologyTinplate Steel Can Types
The Type L base steel is used for which type of food product?
Explanation
In sanitary tinplate can manufacturing, Type L base steel has the lowest residual metalloid impurities (copper, nickel, phosphorus), providing maximum corrosion resistance for High-Acid Foods (such as berries, prunes, pickles, and cherries).
टाइप एल (Type L) बेस स्टील का उपयोग अत्यधिक संक्षारण प्रतिरोधी होने के कारण 'अत्यधिक अम्लीय खाद्य पदार्थों' (High Acid Food) के डिब्बे बनाने में किया जाता है।
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2096📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesWater Molecule Geometry
Water molecule has which structure?
Explanation
A water molecule (H2OH_2O) has an sp3sp^3 hybridized central oxygen atom with two bonding pairs and two lone pairs, resulting in a Bent / V-shaped / Triangular planar geometry with a bond angle of 104.5∘104.5^\circ.
जल के अणु (H2OH_2O) की संरचना कोणीय / बेंट / 'त्रिभुजाकार' (Triangular / Bent geometry, 104.5∘104.5^\circ) होती है।
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2097📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesHLB Scale of Emulsifiers
HLB value associated with emulsifiers has a scale of:
Explanation
The Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance (HLB) scale developed by William C. Griffin ranges from 0 to 20, where low values (<6<6) denote lipophilic/W/O emulsifiers and high values (>8ext−−18>8 ext{--}18) denote hydrophilic/O/W emulsifiers.
पायसीकारी (Emulsifiers) के लिए HLB मान का पैमाना '0 से 20' (0-20) तक होता है।
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2098📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesSugar Caramelization Products
The pigment caramelan formed after caramelization is soluble in ______ and tastes ______
Explanation
Caramelan (C12H18O9C_{12}H_{18}O_9, formed by dehydration during heating sucrose >160∘extC>160^\circ ext{C}) is a brown pigment that is readily soluble in Water and exhibits a characteristic Bitter-sweet / Bitter caramel taste.
कैरेमेलाइजेशन के दौरान बनने वाला वर्णक 'कैरेमेलन' (Caramelan) 'जल में घुलनशील' (Water soluble) होता है और इसका स्वाद 'कड़वा' (Bitter) होता है।
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2099📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesPolyols and Sugar Alcohols Matching
Match the following polyols with their precursor sugars:
1. Sorbitol
2. Lactitol
3. Mannitol
4. Xylitol

Precursor Sugar:
i. Xylose
ii. Glucose
iii. Mannose / Fructose (Maltose)
iv. Lactose

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Sugar alcohols / Polyols: 1 -> ii (Sorbitol / D-glucitol from Glucose hydrogenation), 2 -> iv (Lactitol from Lactose), 3 -> iii (Mannitol from Mannose/Fructose), 4 -> i (Xylitol from Xylose). Correct match: (1)-(ii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(iii), (4)-(i).
1-ii (सॉर्बिटोल - ग्लूकोज), 2-iv (लैक्टिटोल - लैक्टोज), 3-iii (मैनिटोल - मैनोज़/फ्रुक्टोज), 4-i (जाइलिटोल - जाइलोज़)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2100📚Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesTryptophan-Niacin Conversion
Tryptophan can be converted into:
Explanation
In human liver metabolism, the essential amino acid L-Tryptophan is converted via the kynurenine pathway into Niacin (Nicotinic acid / Vitamin B3), where approximately 60 mg of dietary tryptophan yields 1 mg of niacin.
मानव शरीर में आवश्यक अमीनो एसिड ट्रिप्टोफैन 'नियासिन' (Niacin / विटामिन B3) में परिवर्तित हो सकता है (60 mg ट्रिप्टोफैन = 1 mg नियासिन)।
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2101📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsBacteriocins (Nisin)
Nisin is produced by:
Explanation
Nisin is a polycyclic antibacterial peptide (lantibiotic bacteriocin) produced biologically by the Gram-Positive lactic acid bacterium Lactococcus lactis subsp. lactis.
निसिन (Nisin / जीवाणुरोधी लैंटिबायोटिक) 'ग्राम-पॉजिटिव बैक्टीरिया' (Lactococcus lactis) द्वारा निर्मित होता है।
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2102📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsMycotoxins (Aflatoxins)
Aflatoxin is a:
I. Nutritional component
II. Bacterial Toxin
III. Carcinogen
IV. Fungal Toxin
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Aflatoxins (B1,B2,G1,G2B_1, B_2, G_1, G_2) are toxic secondary metabolites (Mycotoxins / Fungal Toxins - IV) produced by Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus on peanuts/maize, and are classified as Group 1 Human Carcinogens (III) targeting the liver. Correct: III and IV.
एफ्लाटॉक्सिन एक 'कवक विष' (Fungal Toxin - IV) और शक्तिशाली 'कार्सिनोजेन' (Carcinogen - III / कैंसरकारी) है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2103📚Food Analysis, Analytical Chemistry & InstrumentationHPLC Chromatography Columns
In HPLC C8 and C18 columns are:
Explanation
In Reversed-Phase High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (RP-HPLC), C8 (octylsilane) and C18 (octadecylsilane) stationary phase bonded silica columns are hydrophobic and Non-Polar, paired with a polar aqueous-organic mobile phase.
रिवर्स-फेज HPLC में C8 और C18 कॉलम हाइड्रोफोबिक और 'गैर-ध्रुवीय' (Non-Polar) स्थिर चरण होते हैं।
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2104📚Human Nutrition, Micronutrients & Dietary DeficienciesRDA Definition
What is RDA?
Explanation
RDA stands for Recommended Dietary Allowance, defined as the average daily dietary intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97–98%) healthy individuals in a specific life stage and gender group.
RDA का पूर्ण रूप 'अनुशंसित आहार भत्ता' (Recommended Dietary Allowance) होता है।
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2105📚Human Nutrition, Micronutrients & Dietary DeficienciesTotal Body Water Percentage
Water is the largest component of the human body, making what percentage of the body weight?
Explanation
Total Body Water (TBW) constitutes approximately 50% to 70% of total adult human body weight (averaging pprox 60\% in adult males and 55%55\% in adult females).
मानव शरीर के कुल वजन का लगभग '50 से 70%' (50-70%) हिस्सा पानी का बना होता है।
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2106📚Human Nutrition, Micronutrients & Dietary DeficienciesPhrynoderma / Vitamin A Deficiency
Follicular Hyperkeratosis is a symptom of which Vitamin deficiency?
Explanation
Follicular Hyperkeratosis (Phrynoderma / 'toad skin', characterized by dry, rough papular skin eruptions with keratin plugs around hair follicles) is a classical dermatological manifestation of severe Vitamin A deficiency (and essential fatty acid deficiency).
फॉलिक्युलर हाइपरकेराटोप्सिस (Phrynoderma / त्वचा का खुरदरा होना) 'विटामिन ए' (Vitamin A) की कमी का प्रमुख लक्षण है।
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2107📚Human Nutrition, Micronutrients & Dietary DeficienciesNeurological Deficiency Symptoms
Ataxia is defined as:
Explanation
Ataxia is a neurological sign characterized by the Lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements, leading to gait instability, impaired balance, and speech dysfunction (associated with Vitamin E or B1 deficiency).
अटाक्सिया (Ataxia) का अर्थ 'शारीरिक गतिविधियों और संतुलन पर पूर्ण नियंत्रण का खो जाना' (Loss of full control of body movements) है।
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2108📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsFSSA 2006 Preamble & Objective
What is the primary objective of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?
Explanation
The preamble of FSSA 2006 states that its primary objective is to consolidate the laws relating to food and establish the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India for laying down science-based standards for food safety and regulating manufacturing, storage, and sale.
FSSA 2006 का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'भारत में खाद्य सुरक्षा और विज्ञान-आधारित मानकों के लिए एक एकीकृत कानूनी ढांचा स्थापित करना' है।
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2109📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsOIE Biological Standards Commission
What is the primary role of the Biological Standards Commission (BSC) within the OIE (World Organisation for Animal Health)?
Explanation
The Biological Standards Commission of the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH / OIE) establishes international diagnostic testing standards, validates diagnostic assays, and produces the Manual of Diagnostic Tests and Vaccines for Terrestrial Animals.
OIE के जैविक मानक आयोग (BSC) की प्राथमिक भूमिका 'पशु रोगों के लिए नैदानिक परीक्षण विधियों और प्रोटोकॉल की स्थापना करना' (Establish diagnostic methods and testing protocols) है।
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2110📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsOIE Specialist Commissions Matching
Match the following OIE Commissions with their respective roles:
1. Scientific Commission for Animal Diseases
2. Biological Standards Commission
3. Terrestrial Animal Health Standards Commission
4. Aquatic Animal Health Standards Commission

Role:
i. Establishes diagnostic methods and testing protocols for animal diseases
ii. Develops international standards for terrestrial animal health
iii. Assists in disease prevention and control strategies
iv. Focuses on health standards for aquatic animals

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> iii (Scientific Commission: disease strategies and status recognition), 2 -> i (Biological Standards: diagnostic testing protocols and vaccines), 3 -> ii (Terrestrial Code Commission: terrestrial animal health standards), 4 -> iv (Aquatic Animal Commission: aquatic health standards). Correct match: (1)-(iii), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iv).
1-iii (वैज्ञानिक आयोग - रोग नियंत्रण रणनीति), 2-i (जैविक मानक - नैदानिक प्रोटोकॉल), 3-ii (स्थलीय मानक - स्वास्थ्य मानक), 4-iv (जलीय मानक - जलीय स्वास्थ्य)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2111📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsWTO SPS Risk Assessment
What is the primary purpose of conducting a risk assessment under the SPS Agreement?
Explanation
Under Article 5 of the WTO SPS Agreement, sanitary measures must be based on a scientific Risk Assessment that evaluates the biological likelihood of entry, establishment, or spread of pests and diseases and associated human health risks.
SPS समझौते के तहत जोखिम मूल्यांकन का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'कीटों या बीमारियों के प्रवेश, स्थापना या प्रसार की संभावना का वैज्ञानिक मूल्यांकन करना' है।
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2112📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsWTO SPS Agreement Scope
What is the main focus of the WTO SPS Agreement?
Explanation
The WTO Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement) sets rules ensuring that national health and food safety regulations are applied only to the extent necessary to Protect Human, Animal, or Plant Life and Health from foodborne risks and biosecurity threats.
WTO के SPS समझौते का मुख्य फोकस 'मानव, पशु और पौधों के जीवन और स्वास्थ्य की रक्षा करना' (Protecting human, animal, and plant life or health) है।
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2113📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsFSSA 2006 Food Safety Definition
The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 defines Food Safety as an:
Explanation
Under Section 3(1)(q) of FSSA 2006, 'Food Safety' is legally defined as: 'Assurance that food is acceptable for human consumption according to its intended use.'
FSSA 2006 के अनुसार 'खाद्य सुरक्षा' का अर्थ यह आश्वासन है कि 'भोजन अपने इच्छित उपयोग के अनुसार मानव उपभोग के लिए स्वीकार्य है' (Assurance that food is acceptable for human consumption)।
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2114📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsOIE Objectives
Which of the following is a primary objective of the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) regulations?
Explanation
The foundational objective of the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH / OIE) is to ensure transparency in global animal diseases and safeguard international trade by setting sanitary standards for animal disease prevention, surveillance, and control.
OIE (विश्व पशु स्वास्थ्य संगठन) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'रोग की रोकथाम, निगरानी और नियंत्रण के लिए मानक निर्धारित करके वैश्विक पशु स्वास्थ्य की रक्षा करना' है।
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2115📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsAGMARK Act Provisions Matching
Match the following provisions with their descriptions:
Column - A:
1. Agricultural Produce Act, 1937
2. AGMARK Certification
3. Grading and Marking Rules
4. Penalties under the Act

Column - B:
i. Penalizes false or misleading use of AGMARK labels
ii. Provides standards for grading agricultural produce
iii. Ensures quality and standardization of produce
iv. Specifies rules for labeling and certification

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> ii (Agricultural Produce Act 1937: provides statutory mandate for grading), 2 -> iii (AGMARK: assures quality and standardization of agricultural products), 3 -> iv (Grading rules: specifies grade designations, labeling, packaging), 4 -> i (Penalties: penalizes unauthorized marking and counterfeit labels). Correct match: (1)-(ii), (2)-(iii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i).
1-ii (अधिनियम 1937 - ग्रेडिंग मानक), 2-iii (एगमार्क - गुणवत्ता मानकीकरण), 3-iv (ग्रेडिंग नियम - लेबलिंग नियम), 4-i (दंड - गलत लेबलिंग पर दंड)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2116📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsMandatory Labeling Declarations
Which of the following are key provisions under the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011?
I. All packaged foods must carry a nutrition facts label.
II. The label must indicate the manufacturing date and best before date.
III. The food product must carry the ingredient list in any language.
IV. The label should include the price per kilogram of the product.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Provisions I and II are statutory mandates: Mandatory nutritional facts panel (I) and date of manufacture alongside 'Best Before / Expiry date' (II). Provision III is false (mandatory English or Hindi in Devanagari script), and Provision IV is false (unit pricing per kg is governed by Legal Metrology, not standard FSSAI label). Correct: I and II.
FSSAI लेबलिंग नियमों के तहत 'पोषण संबंधी तथ्य लेबल' (I) और 'निर्माण/उपयोग तिथि' (II) अनिवार्य प्रावधान हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2117📚Human Nutrition, Micronutrients & Dietary DeficienciesKwashiorkor vs Marasmus
Following are the symptoms of Kwashiorkor:
I. Sparse hair growth
II. Old man's face
III. Severe wasting
IV. Moon face
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Kwashiorkor (protein deficiency with adequate calories) is characterized by generalized edema, Moon Face (IV), hypopigmentation and Sparse 'Flag Sign' Hair (I), and hepatomegaly. ('Old man face' and 'Severe muscle wasting without edema' are diagnostic of Marasmus). Correct: I and IV.
क्वाशिओरकोर (प्रोटीन कुपोषण) के विशिष्ट लक्षणों में 'पतले विरल बाल' (I) और 'मून फेस / गोल सूजा हुआ चेहरा' (IV) शामिल हैं (बूढ़े जैसा चेहरा मरास्मस का लक्षण है)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2118📚Human Nutrition, Micronutrients & Dietary DeficienciesMineral Deficiencies Matching
Match the following deficiency symptoms with their respective minerals:
1. Iron
2. Iodine
3. Fluorine
4. Selenium

Deficiency Manifestation:
i. Keshan Disease
ii. Anemia
iii. Goitre
iv. May increase risk of dental caries

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> ii (Iron deficiency: microcytic hypochromic anemia), 2 -> iii (Iodine deficiency: endemic goitre and cretinism), 3 -> iv (Fluorine deficiency: increased risk of dental caries), 4 -> i (Selenium deficiency: Keshan congestive cardiomyopathy). Correct match: (1)-(ii), (2)-(iii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i).
1-ii (आयरन - एनीमिया), 2-iii (आयोडीन - घेंघा), 3-iv (फ्लोरीन - दंत क्षय जोखिम), 4-i (सेलेनियम - केशन रोग)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2119📚Human Nutrition, Micronutrients & Dietary DeficienciesRDA from EAR Derivation
The EAR of a nutrient in a population group forms the basis of its?
Explanation
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is statistically derived directly from the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) by adding two standard deviations (2 SD2\text{ SD}) to cover 97.5% of the population: RDA=EAR+2 SD\text{RDA} = \text{EAR} + 2\text{ SD}.
किसी पोषक तत्व की अनुशंसित दैनिक मात्रा (RDA) की गणना सीधे उसके 'अनुमानित औसत आवश्यकता' (EAR) के आधार पर (RDA=EAR+2SDRDA = EAR + 2SD) की जाती है।
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2120📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsCanning Target Pathogen
The target microorganism in canning is:
Explanation
Clostridium botulinum is the mandatory Target Index Pathogen in low-acid thermal food canning due to the exceptional heat resistance of its spores and the extreme lethality of its botulinum neurotoxin.
डिब्बाबंद खाद्य पदार्थों (Canning) में थर्मल प्रक्रिया की गणना के लिए मुख्य लक्ष्य सूक्ष्मजीव 'Clostridium botulinum' है।
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2121📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsBread Yeast Fermentation
In bread manufacturing, alcoholic fermentation is carried out by:
Explanation
Baker's yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) carries out anaerobic alcoholic fermentation of dough sugars, producing carbon dioxide (CO2CO_2) for dough leavening and ethanol/flavor congeners.
ब्रेड निर्माण में ऐल्कोहॉलीय किण्वन और आटा फुलाने का कार्य बेकर्स यीस्ट 'Saccharomyces cerevisiae' द्वारा किया जाता है।
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2122📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsOsmophilic Yeasts (Zygosaccharomyces)
Zygosaccharomyces rouxii is used in the fermentation of plant products due to its ability to grow at:
Explanation
Zygosaccharomyces rouxii is an obligate Xerophilic / Osmophilic yeast uniquely capable of growing at extremely Low Water Activities (awa_w as low as 0.620.62), making it the essential fermentative organism in high-salt/high-sugar miso, soy sauce, and marzipan.
Zygosaccharomyces rouxii एक ऑस्मोफिलिक यीस्ट है जो 'अत्यंत कम जल गतिविधि' (Low water activities / उच्च लवणता/शर्करा) में वृद्धि करने में सक्षम है।
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2123📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEarth Spheres (Lithosphere)
The upper part of the planet Earth's interior is known as
Explanation
The Lithosphere (from Greek lithos meaning stone) comprises the rigid outermost solid shell of Earth, including the entire continental and oceanic crust and the uppermost brittle mantle.
पृथ्वी के आंतरिक भाग का सबसे ऊपरी ठोस आवरण 'स्थलमंडल' (Lithosphere / भू-पर्पटी) कहलाता है।
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2124📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsBiosphere Definition
The part of the earth in which life exists in any form i.e., plants, animals and humans is referred to as:
Explanation
The Biosphere is the global ecological zone comprising all living organisms (plants, animals, microorganisms, humans) and the terrestrial, aquatic, and atmospheric zones supporting life.
पृथ्वी का वह भाग जहाँ जीवन (पादप, जंतु, सूक्ष्मजीव) विद्यमान है, 'जैवमंडल' (Biosphere) कहलाता है।
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2125📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAtmosphere Definition
The atmosphere of the earth can be defined as
Explanation
The Atmosphere is the gaseous envelope of mixed air mass retained around the planet Earth by gravitational attraction.
पृथ्वी के चारों ओर गैसीय आवरण को 'वायु का आवरण' (Envelope of air mass / वायुमंडल) कहा जाता है।
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2126📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAtmospheric Forces (Coriolis and PGF)
Identify the wrong statements:
A) The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the direction of motion
B) Pressure gradient force acts in the direction of low pressure
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Pressure gradient force and Coriolis force are always in opposite direction
Explanation
Statements A and B are true (Coriolis force acts at right angles to wind velocity; PGF acts from high to low pressure). Statement D is wrong because PGF and Coriolis force act perpendicular to each other in geostrophic wind balance and only oppose each other under strict balance perpendicular to isobars.
कथन D गलत है क्योंकि जियोस्ट्रोफिक संतुलन में कोरिओलिस बल और दाब प्रवणता बल हमेशा विपरीत नहीं बल्कि लंबवत कार्य करते हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2127📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsBiome Definition
A large regional unit characterized by vegetation type and fauna in a specific climatic zone:
Explanation
A Biome is a major regional terrestrial community of plants and animals (e.g. Tundra, Taiga, Tropical Rainforest, Desert) defined by distinct climatic patterns and dominant vegetation physiognomy.
एक विशिष्ट जलवायु क्षेत्र में वनस्पति और जीवों द्वारा पहचानी जाने वाली बड़ी क्षेत्रीय पारिस्थितिक इकाई 'बायोम' (Biome / जीवोम) कहलाती है।
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2128📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsLandscape Ecology
A unit of land with natural boundary having different patches of ecosystems is called as:
Explanation
In landscape ecology, a Landscape is defined as a heterogeneous land area composed of a mosaic of interacting ecosystem patches across natural geomorphic boundaries.
विभिन्न पारिस्थितिक तंत्रों के पैच वाली प्राकृतिक सीमा से युक्त भूमि की इकाई को 'लैंडस्केप' (Landscape / परिदृश्य) कहा जाता है।
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2129📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEcological Hierarchy Matching
Consider the following pairs:
Set-A:
1. Organisms
2. Population
3. Biological community
4. Aquatic systems

Set-B:
i. Primary lakes, rivers and marine ecosystems
ii. The populations of plants, animals, bacteria and fungi having distinct species composition and structures
iii. Group of individuals inhabiting each area having group characteristics
iv. Basic unit of study in ecology to understand the form, physiology and behaviour

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
Explanation
1 -> iv (Organism: basic ecological unit of form/physiology), 2 -> iii (Population: group of conspecific individuals in an area), 3 -> ii (Biological community: interacting populations of multiple species), 4 -> i (Aquatic systems: lotic/lentic waters and marine ecosystems). Correct match: (1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i).
1-iv (जीव - पारिस्थितिकी की मूल इकाई), 2-iii (समष्टि - एक ही प्रजाति का समूह), 3-ii (समुदाय - विभिन्न प्रजातियों की समष्टियां), 4-i (जलीय तंत्र - झीलें/नदियां)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2130📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsBiogeochemical Carbon Cycle
Major driving force in the carbon cycle is
Explanation
Photosynthesis ($6CO_2 + 6H_2O + h
u ightarrow C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2)conductedbyterrestrialgreenplantsandmarinephytoplanktonistheprimarybiologicaldrivingmechanismthatsequestersatmospheric) conducted by terrestrial green plants and marine phytoplankton is the primary biological driving mechanism that sequesters atmosphericCO_2$ into global organic carbon reservoirs.
कार्बन चक्र में वायुमंडलीय CO2CO_2 को जैवभार में बदलने वाला प्राथमिक प्रेरक बल 'प्रकाश संश्लेषण' (Photosynthesis) है।
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2131📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringAquatic Nitrogen Chemistry
In the lakes, nitrogen is found usually in the form of
Explanation
In well-oxygenated surface lake waters, dissolved inorganic nitrogen is predominantly oxidized through bacterial nitrification (NH4+ightarrowNO2−ightarrowNO3−NH_4^+ ightarrow NO_2^- ightarrow NO_3^-) into Nitrate (extNO3−ext{NO}_3^-), the primary assimilable form of nitrogen for aquatic plants and phytoplankton.
ऑक्सीजन युक्त झीलों के पानी में नाइट्रोजन आमतौर पर 'नाइट्रेट' (extNO3−ext{NO}_3^-) के रूप में पाई जाती है।
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2132📚Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsPhytoremediation Limitations
Consider the following statements:
i. Phytoremediation is an alternative to engineering procedures that are usually more destructive to the soil.
ii. Phytoremediation is limited to the impervious zone of soil.
iii. Phytoremediation technologies are not available for various environments and types of contaminants.
iv. Phytoremediation has limited application where the concentrations of contaminants are toxic to plants
Which of the above statements are not correct?
Explanation
Statements ii and iii are incorrect: Phytoremediation operates in the root rhizosphere/vadose zone (not impervious bedrock - ii is false), and standardized plant technologies exist across wetlands, soil, and groundwater (iii is false). Statements i and iv are true. Correct: (ii), (iii) are not correct.
कथन ii और iii गलत हैं (फाइटोरेमेडिएशन अभेद्य चट्टानों तक सीमित नहीं है और विभिन्न प्रदूषकों के लिए उपलब्ध है)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2133📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEcosystem vs Biome Scale
Consider the following statements:
i. An ecosystem is much smaller than a biome
ii. A biome is a large area with similar flora, fauna and microorganisms
iii. Ecosystem does not fail if it doesn't remain in balance
iv. Tropical dry forests are not among major biomes of the world
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i and ii are correct: An ecosystem (e.g. a pond or forest patch) is a localized functional unit nested within a vast regional Biome (i), which encompasses broad regional flora and fauna adapted to a specific macroclimate (ii). (Statement iii is false as ecological imbalance collapses ecosystems; iv is false). Correct: (i), (ii).
कथन i और ii सही हैं (पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र बायोम से छोटा होता है और बायोम समान वनस्पति व जीवों वाला बड़ा क्षेत्रीय क्षेत्र है)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2134📚Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsHydrologic Cycle Components
The hydrologic cycle does not comprise
Explanation
The planetary Hydrologic Cycle comprises physical transport processes: Evaporation, Transpiration, Condensation, Precipitation, Infiltration, Percolation, and Surface/Groundwater Runoff. 'Diffusion and dispersion' are mass solute transport mechanisms in fluid mechanics, not macroscopic bulk water cycle stages.
जल विज्ञान चक्र (Hydrologic cycle) में वाष्पीकरण, वर्षण और अंतःस्रवण शामिल हैं; 'विसरण और फैलाव' (Diffusion and dispersion) इसका घटक नहीं है।
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2135📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringWater Hardness Classification
Hardness is classified based on
Explanation
Water Hardness is classified based on divalent metallic cations (Ca2+,Mg2+Ca^{2+}, Mg^{2+}) and the associated anions: Carbonate/Temporary Hardness (associated with HCO3−,CO32−HCO_3^-, CO_3^{2-}) and Non-Carbonate/Permanent Hardness (associated with SO42−,Cl−SO_4^{2-}, Cl^-).
जल की कठोरता का वर्गीकरण 'धनायनों (Ca2+,Mg2+Ca^{2+}, Mg^{2+}) और उनसे जुड़े ऋणायनों (HCO3−,SO42−HCO_3^-, SO_4^{2-})' (Cations and anions with which it associates) के आधार पर किया जाता है।
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2136📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringOxygen Demand Parameters Matching
Consider the following pairs:
Set-A:
1. BOD
2. COD
3. TOC
4. Ultimate BOD

Set-B:
i. Measure of natural organic matter
ii. BOD equal to the initial oxygen equivalent of the water
iii. Organic matter chemically oxidized
iv. Amount of oxygen consumed during microbial utilization of organics
v. Conversion of substrates to cells

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
Explanation
1 -> iv (BOD: dissolved oxygen consumed by aerobic microorganisms metabolizing organic matter), 2 -> iii (COD: oxygen required to chemically oxidize organic compounds using dichromate), 3 -> i (TOC: direct instrumental combustion measure of total organic carbon), 4 -> ii (Ultimate BOD L0L_0: total stoichiometric oxygen required for complete bio-oxidation). Correct match: (1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii).
1-iv (BOD - रोगाणुओं द्वारा ऑक्सीजन खपत), 2-iii (COD - रासायनिक रूप से ऑक्सीकृत कार्बनिक पदार्थ), 3-i (TOC - कुल कार्बनिक कार्बन), 4-ii (अंतिम BOD - कुल प्रारंभिक ऑक्सीजन मांग)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2137📚Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Solid Waste Classification Matching
Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (Waste Category):
1. Vegetable residues and garbage
2. Pulp and paper waste
3. Radioactive substance
4. Pathological waste

Set - B (Classification):
i. Hazardous waste
ii. Municipal Solid waste
iii. Biomedical waste
iv. Industrial waste

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
Explanation
1 -> ii (Vegetable/kitchen garbage: Municipal Solid Waste MSW), 2 -> iv (Pulp and paper sludge: Non-hazardous Industrial waste), 3 -> i (Radioactive substances: Hazardous Nuclear Waste), 4 -> iii (Pathological/human tissues: Biomedical Waste). Correct match: (1)-(ii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(iii).
1-ii (कचरा - नगरपालिका ठोस अपशिष्ट), 2-iv (पल्प व पेपर - औद्योगिक अपशिष्ट), 3-i (रेडियोधर्मी - खतरनाक अपशिष्ट), 4-iii (पैथोलॉजिकल - बायोमेडिकल अपशिष्ट)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2138📚Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Solid Waste Moisture Determination
To obtain the dry mass of solid waste material and to limit the vaporization of volatile materials, the solid waste material is dried in an oven at:
Explanation
To determine dry mass of solid waste without thermal decomposition and volatilization of volatile organic compounds, standard solid waste characterization protocols specify gentle oven drying at 77∘extC77^\circ ext{C} for 24 hours (EPA/ASTM standards).
वाष्पशील पदार्थों के वाष्पीकरण को रोकने और ठोस अपशिष्ट का शुष्क द्रव्यमान प्राप्त करने के लिए इसे ओवन में '77°C पर 24 घंटे' (77°C for 24 hours) सुखाया जाता है।
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2139📚Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsMoEFCC Administrative Mandate
Which of the following ministry is responsible at the central level for planning, promotion, coordination and overseeing the implementation of environmental pollution legislations?
Explanation
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India, is the nodal central ministry responsible for formulating environmental policies, coordinating pollution control, and administering the Water, Air, and EP Acts.
केंद्रीय स्तर पर पर्यावरण संरक्षण और प्रदूषण नियंत्रण नीतियों के लिए जिम्मेदार नोडल मंत्रालय 'पर्यावरण, वन और जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय' (MoEFCC) है।
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2140📚Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsIndian Acts Provisions Matching
Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (Act):
1. The Factories Act, 1948
2. The Atomic Energy Act, 1962
3. Motor Vehicle Act, 1988
4. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

Set - B (Mandate):
i. Adequate ventilation and reasonable temperature maintenance
ii. The protection of wild animals, birds and plants
iii. Prevention of radiation hazards and guarantee of public safety
iv. Legislative provisions regarding licensing of drivers and registration of motor vehicles

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
Explanation
1 -> i (Factories Act 1948: Section 13 ventilation/temperature standards), 2 -> iii (Atomic Energy Act 1962: radiological safety), 3 -> iv (Motor Vehicles Act 1988: vehicle emission norms & registration), 4 -> ii (Wildlife Protection Act 1972: conservation of flora/fauna). Correct match: (1)-(i), (2)-(iii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(ii).
1-i (कारखाना अधिनियम 1948 - वेंटिलेशन/तापमान), 2-iii (परमाणु ऊर्जा अधिनियम 1962 - विकिरण सुरक्षा), 3-iv (मोटर वाहन अधिनियम 1988 - वाहन पंजीकरण/उत्सर्जन), 4-ii (वन्यजीव संरक्षण अधिनियम 1972 - वन्यजीव संरक्षण)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2141📚Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)ISO 14000 Environmental Series Matching
Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (ISO Standards):
1. ISO 14001
2. ISO 14006
3. ISO 14020
4. ISO 14040

Set - B (Scope):
i. Guidelines for incorporating eco-design
ii. Environmental labels and declarations
iii. Environmental management systems - requirements with guidance for use
iv. Life cycle assessment

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
Explanation
1 -> iii (ISO 14001: EMS requirements and specifications), 2 -> i (ISO 14006: Eco-design guidelines), 3 -> ii (ISO 14020: Environmental labels and declarations), 4 -> iv (ISO 14040: Life Cycle Assessment LCA principles and framework). Correct match: (1)-(iii), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iv).
1-iii (ISO 14001 - पर्यावरण प्रबंधन प्रणाली), 2-i (ISO 14006 - इको-डिजाइन), 3-ii (ISO 14020 - पर्यावरण लेबलिंग), 4-iv (ISO 14040 - लाइफ साइकिल असेसमेंट LCA)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2142📚Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsPolluter Pays Principle
The Polluter pay principle is
Explanation
The Polluter Pays Principle (Principle 16 of Rio Declaration) is an environmental law principle mandating that the entity responsible for causing pollution must bear the full financial costs of pollution prevention, control, remedial cleanup, and compliance with statutory environmental standards.
प्रदूषक भुगतान सिद्धांत (Polluter pays principle) का अर्थ है कि 'प्रदूषक को पर्यावरणीय मानकों के अनुपालन और उपचार की लागत वहन करनी होगी' (Polluter has to bear the cost of compliance)।
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2143📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringColiform Group Microbiological Characteristics Matching
Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (Bacterial Group):
1. Total coliform bacteria
2. E. coli
3. Fecal coliform bacteria
4. Fecal streptococci

Set - B (Characteristics):
i. The group which has been used in conjunction with fecal coliforms to determine source of fecal contamination
ii. Species of gram-negative rods that may ferment lactose with gas production
iii. One of the coliform bacteria populations which is representative of fecal sources
iv. The group of bacteria based on the ability to produce gas at an elevated incubation temperature.

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
Explanation
1 -> ii (Total coliforms: Gram-negative non-spore-forming rods fermenting lactose with gas at 35∘extC35^\circ ext{C}), 2 -> iii (E. coli: definitive index indicator of human/mammalian fecal pollution), 3 -> iv (Fecal coliforms: thermotolerant coliforms producing gas at elevated 44.5∘extC44.5^\circ ext{C}), 4 -> i (Fecal streptococci / Enterococci: used in FC/FS ratio to differentiate human vs animal waste). Correct match: (1)-(ii), (2)-(iii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i).
1-ii (कुल कोलीफॉर्म - 35°C पर गैस), 2-iii (ई. कोलाई - मल संदूषण का मुख्य प्रतिनिधि), 3-iv (मल कोलीफॉर्म - 44.5°C पर गैस), 4-i (मल स्ट्रेप्टोकोकी - FC/FS अनुपात स्रोत निर्धारण)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2144📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringDrinking Water Indicator (E. coli)
The indicator organism for drinking water is
Explanation
Under WHO and BIS (IS 10500:2012) drinking water specifications, Escherichia coli (or thermotolerant fecal coliform) is the primary mandatory bacterial indicator of fecal contamination (must be zero per 100 ml).
पेयजल परीक्षण के लिए प्राथमिक और अनिवार्य संकेतक सूक्ष्मजीव 'ई. कोलाई' (E. coli) है।
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2145📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeUNFCCC Climate Agreements Chronology
As per the succession of UNFCCC protocols, which order among the following is correct?
I. Paris Agreement
II. The US Mayor's Climate Protection Agreement
III. Conference of Parties (COP)
IV. Kyoto Protocol
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Chronological timeline of international climate milestones: III. COP-1 Berlin = 1995 −>-> IV. Kyoto Protocol adopted = 1997 −>-> II. US Mayors Climate Protection Agreement = 2005 −>-> I. Paris Agreement (COP-21) = 2015. Correct sequence: III, IV, II, I.
जलवायु संधियों का सही कालानुक्रम: COP-1 (1995) −>-> क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल (1997) −>-> यूएस मेयर समझौता (2005) −>-> पेरिस समझौता (2015) (III, IV, II, I)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2146📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeParticulate Matter Health Inhalation
Which of the following particles enter into the bloodstream of humans?
Explanation
Fine particulate matter extPM2.5ext{PM}_{2.5} (and ultrafine extPM0.1ext{PM}_{0.1}) penetrates past the upper respiratory tract deep into the pulmonary alveoli, crossing the alveolar-capillary blood gas barrier directly into the systemic bloodstream.
फेफड़ों की वायु-कूपिकाओं को पार करके सीधे मानव रक्तप्रवाह (Bloodstream) में प्रवेश करने वाले सूक्ष्म कण 'PM2.5\text{PM}_{2.5}' (व PM1\text{PM}_1) हैं।
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2147📚Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsVisakhapatnam Styrene Gas Tragedy
Visakhapatnam gas tragedy occurred in 2020 is due to the leakage of
Explanation
The LG Polymers chemical plant disaster at RR Venkatapuram, Visakhapatnam on 7 May 2020 was caused by uncontrolled runaway polymerization and boiling vapor leakage of Styrene monomer gas (extC8extH8ext{C}_8 ext{H}_8).
7 मई 2020 को विशाखापत्तनम (LG Polymers) गैस त्रासदी 'स्टाइरीन गैस' (Styrene monomer gas) के रिसाव के कारण हुई थी।
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2148📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringIndustrial Spray Ponds (Cooling)
Spray ponds are primarily used for
Explanation
Spray Ponds are industrial thermodynamic cooling systems where warm circulating condenser water from thermal power plants is sprayed as droplets into the ambient air for evaporative Cooling before recirculation.
स्प्रे तालाब (Spray ponds) का उपयोग मुख्य रूप से औद्योगिक शीतलन जल के वाष्पीकरणीय 'शीतलन' (Cooling) के लिए किया जाता है।
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2149📚Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeReference Sound Pressure Level
The reference value of sound pressure in the air is:
Explanation
The standard international reference sound pressure level in air (p0p_0) corresponding to the human threshold of hearing at 1000 Hz is 20 μPa=20×10−6 Pa=2×10−5 N/m220\ \mu\text{Pa} = 20 \times 10^{-6}\text{ Pa} = 2 \times 10^{-5}\text{ N/m}^2. Choice A.
हवा में मानव श्रवण सीमा के लिए संदर्भ ध्वनि दबाव (Reference sound pressure) '20 μPa20\ \mu\text{Pa}' (20×10−6 Pa20 \times 10^{-6}\text{ Pa}) होता है।
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2150📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringBragg's Law (X-Ray Diffraction)
Bragg's law is associated with:
Explanation
Bragg's Law (nλ=2dsin⁡θn\lambda = 2d\sin\theta) is the fundamental physical law governing X-ray Diffraction (XRD), relating the wavelength of incident X-rays to the interplanar crystal lattice spacing (dd) and diffraction angle (θ\theta).
ब्रैग का नियम (nλ=2dsin⁡θn\lambda = 2d\sin\theta) 'एक्स-रे विवर्तन' (X ray Diffraction / XRD) से संबंधित है।
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2151📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringWastewater Headworks (Screens)
Which of the component can be used to protect pumps used in the lifting of sewage:
Explanation
Coarse Bar Screens and Fine Screens installed at the headworks of sewage treatment plants trap large floating debris (rags, sticks, plastics, cans) to prevent clogging and mechanical damage to sewage lifting pumps.
सीवेज लिफ्टिंग पंपों को तैरते मलबे और पत्थरों से बचाने के लिए सबसे पहले 'स्क्रीन' (Screens / जाली) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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2152📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringCOD Potassium Dichromate Digest
The oxidizing agent used in the COD experiment is:
Explanation
In the standard closed/open reflux Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) analytical assay, Potassium Dichromate (K2Cr2O7K_2Cr_2O_7) in boiling concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4H_2SO_4) with silver sulfate (Ag2SO4Ag_2SO_4) catalyst acts as the strong chemical oxidizing agent.
COD (रासायनिक ऑक्सीजन मांग) परीक्षण में कार्बनिक पदार्थों को ऑक्सीकृत करने के लिए मजबूत ऑक्सीकारक 'पोटेशियम डाइक्रोमेट' (K2Cr2O7K_2Cr_2O_7) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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2153📚Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsCRZ-I Mangrove Classification
Among the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ rules), mangroves are categorized under:
Explanation
Under the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, Mangroves, corals, sand dunes, and national marine parks are classified as Ecologically Sensitive Areas under CRZ-I (specifically CRZ-I A), where new construction is strictly prohibited.
तटीय विनियमन क्षेत्र (CRZ नियमों) के तहत मैंग्रोव (Mangroves) को पारिस्थितिक रूप से संवेदनशील 'CRZ-I' (CRZ 1 / CRZ-IA) में वर्गीकृत किया गया है।
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2154📚Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringMinimum Dissolved Oxygen for Fish
For fish and aquatic animal species the minimum required dissolved oxygen in the river is:
Explanation
For maintaining healthy aquatic life and preventing fish asphyxiation, CPCB and EPA river quality standards mandate a Dissolved Oxygen (DO) concentration of at least 4ext−−5extmg/L4 ext{--}5 ext{ mg/L}, with 3extmg/L3 ext{ mg/L} representing the critical absolute minimum physiological survival threshold below which fish kills occur. Choice A.
नदियों में मछलियों और जलीय जीवों के जीवित रहने के लिए आवश्यक न्यूनतम घुलित ऑक्सीजन (DO) का स्तर '3 mg/L3\text{ mg/L}' (या 4-5 mg/L) होता है।
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2155📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyDrugs & Cosmetics Act Scope
Which of the following falls outside the scope of regulation under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?
Explanation
The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 regulates the import, manufacture, distribution, and sale of Drugs (allopathic, ayurvedic, siddha, unani, prescription, OTC) and Cosmetics; Tobacco products are non-drug agricultural commodities regulated separately under the COTPA Act 2003.
औषधि एवं प्रसाधन सामग्री अधिनियम 1940 के दायरे से बाहर 'तंबाकू उत्पाद' (Tobacco product) है (यह COTPA अधिनियम के तहत आता है)।
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2156📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyAdulterated Drug Definition
A drug consists, in full or in whole or in part of any filthy, putrid or decomposed substance is called as:
Explanation
Under Section 17A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, a drug is deemed to be Adulterated if it consists, in whole or in part, of any filthy, putrid, or decomposed substance, or is manufactured under insanitary conditions.
औषधि एवं प्रसाधन सामग्री अधिनियम के अनुसार सड़ा-गला या गंदा पदार्थ युक्त औषधि 'मिलावटी दवा' (Adulterated drug) कहलाती है।
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2157📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyMTP Act 2021 Gestational Limits
According to the MTP Act, medical termination of pregnancy for rape survivors is permitted up to how many weeks of gestation (as per the 2021 amendment)?
Explanation
Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021, the upper gestational limit for termination of pregnancy for special category vulnerable women (including rape survivors, incest victims, and minors) was increased from 20 to 24 weeks.
MTP (संशोधन) अधिनियम 2021 के अनुसार बलात्कार पीड़ितों के लिए गर्भपात की अनुमति '24 सप्ताह' (24 weeks) तक दी गई है।
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2158📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyMTP Amendment for Unmarried Women
Under the 2021 amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, which of the following is true regarding abortion for unmarried women?
Explanation
The MTP Amendment Act 2021 replaced 'married woman and her husband' with 'woman and her partner', extending safe legal abortion access to unmarried single women facing contraceptive failure under the same legal protections up to 24 weeks (upheld by Supreme Court in 2022).
2021 संशोधन के तहत अविवाहित महिलाएं भी विवाहित महिलाओं की तरह समान शर्तों के तहत 24 सप्ताह तक गर्भपात कराने की हकदार हैं।
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2159📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyM&TP Act Licensing Authority
Which of the following issues License for bonded and non bonded laboratory by:
Explanation
Under the Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Rules, 1956, the State Excise Commissioner (or District Collector of Excise) is the designated statutory authority who grants licenses for establishing Bonded and Non-Bonded manufactories/laboratories.
बॉन्डेड और नॉन-बॉन्डेड प्रयोगशालाओं के लिए लाइसेंस 'आबकारी आयुक्त' (Excise commissioner) द्वारा जारी किया जाता है।
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2160📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyProhibited Drug Imports
Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?
Explanation
Under Section 10 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, the import of any Misbranded, Spurious, Adulterated, or sub-standard drug, or any drug whose manufacture is prohibited in the country of origin, is strictly prohibited.
औषधि अधिनियम की धारा 10 के तहत 'मिस्ब्रांडेड दवाओं' (Misbranded drugs) का आयात पूरी तरह प्रतिबंधित है।
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2161📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyJallikattu PCA Act Judgment
Under which of the following Act Supreme Court banned Jalli-Kattu?
Explanation
The Supreme Court of India in its landmark 2014 judgment (Animal Welfare Board of India v. A. Nagaraja) banned the traditional bull-taming sport Jallikattu under the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (Sections 3 and 11).
सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने जल्लीकट्टू पर प्रतिबंध 'पशु क्रूरता निवारण अधिनियम 1960' (Prevention of Animal Cruelty Act 1960) के प्रावधानों के तहत लगाया था।
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2162📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyEthics and Moral Principles
Which of the word means a science of morals "code of moral principles"?
Explanation
Ethics (from Greek ethos) is defined philosophically as the systematic science of morals and moral duty, embodying the principles and rules governing right and wrong human conduct.
नैतिक सिद्धांतों की संहिता और आचार विज्ञान को 'नीतिशास्त्र' (Ethics) कहा जाता है।
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2163📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyLegal Terminology (Clandestine)
Which agreement is also known as Clandestine arrangement?
Explanation
In trade, forensic jurisprudence, and competition law, a Clandestine Arrangement is an illicit, collusive Secret Agreement made between parties to circumvent legal regulations or price controls.
गुप्त या गुप्त रूप से किए गए समझौते को 'सीक्रेट एग्रीमेंट' (Secret agreement / गुप्त समझौता) कहा जाता है।
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2164📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsTablet Defects Matching
Consider the following pairs:
i. Capping
ii. Mottling
iii. Picking
iv. Orange Peel Effect

1. Uneven distribution of colour or pigmentation on the tablet surface
2. Tablet material is left behind on punch faces resulting in tablet surface damage
3. Partial or complete separation of tablet's crown
4. Tablet having rough surface with matt appearance rather than glossy texture

Identify the correct pair:
Explanation
Tablet manufacturing defects: i -> 3 (Capping: partial or complete separation of top/bottom crowns), ii -> 1 (Mottling: unequal distribution of color on surface), iii -> 2 (Picking: granule adherence pulling surface film away into punch face), iv -> 4 (Orange peel effect: textured roughness due to improper spray atomization). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4.
टेबलेट दोष: कैपिंग (मुकुट अलग होना - 3), मोटलिंग (रंग का असमान वितरण - 1), पिकिंग (पंच पर चिपकना - 2), ऑरेंज पील प्रभाव (खुरदरी सतह - 4)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2165📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsChewable Tablet Excipients
Chewable tablet contains the following as base:
Explanation
Mannitol is the premier diluent/base for chewable tablets due to its sweet taste, non-hygroscopic nature, and strong negative heat of solution creating a pleasant, cooling sensation in the mouth.
चबाने योग्य गोलियों (Chewable tablets) में मुख्य आधार/बेस के रूप में 'मैनिटोल' (Mannitol) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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2166📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsContent Uniformity Testing Protocol
According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia, if a capsule fails the content uniformity test, which of the following actions is generally recommended?
Explanation
Under IP/USP Content Uniformity guidelines, if 1 unit out of 10 tested lies outside the 85ext−−115%85 ext{--}115\% potency range, the test is Repeated using an additional sample size of 20 random units (total 30 units evaluated).
यदि कैप्सूल सामग्री एकरूपता परीक्षण में विफल हो जाता है, तो 'बड़े नमूना आकार (20 अतिरिक्त कैप्सूल) के साथ परीक्षण दोहराया जाता है' (Repeat test with larger sample size)।
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2167📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsAlligation Method Calculation
Prepare 250 g of compound A ointment 7.5% w/w using 5% w/w compound A and 50% w/w compound A. How many g of each will be needed?
Explanation
Using Alligation Alternate: Higher strength (50%) parts = 7.5−5=2.5extparts7.5 - 5 = 2.5 ext{ parts}; Lower strength (5%) parts = 50−7.5=42.5extparts50 - 7.5 = 42.5 ext{ parts}. Total parts = 2.5+42.5=45extparts2.5 + 42.5 = 45 ext{ parts}. Weight of 50%=2.545×250 g=13.888 g≈13.89 g50\% = \frac{2.5}{45} \times 250\text{ g} = 13.888\text{ g} \approx 13.89\text{ g}. Weight of 5%=42.545×250 g=236.111 g≈236.11 g5\% = \frac{42.5}{45} \times 250\text{ g} = 236.111\text{ g} \approx 236.11\text{ g}. Choice A.
एलिगेशन विधि: 50%50\% की मात्रा =2.545×250=13.89 g= \frac{2.5}{45} \times 250 = 13.89\text{ g}; 5%5\% की मात्रा =42.545×250=236.11 g= \frac{42.5}{45} \times 250 = 236.11\text{ g}। सही विकल्प A है।
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2168📚Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsIP Factor VII Potency Specification
As per Indian Pharmacopoeia, the potency of the reconstituted Human coagulation factor VII preparation, as indicated on the label, is:
Explanation
According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia monograph on Freeze-Dried Human Coagulation Factor VII, the labeled reconstituted potency must not be less than 15 International Units (IU) per ml.
IP के अनुसार पुनर्गठित मानव जमावट कारक VII (Factor VII) की लेबल शक्ति '15 IU प्रति मिलीलीटर' (15 IU per ml) होती है।
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2169📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsBioburden Definition
What is the correct statement for the term 'Bioburden'?
Explanation
Bioburden is defined in sterile pharmaceutical manufacturing as the total population and number of viable microorganisms present on or in a product, raw material, or sterile package prior to sterilization.
बायोबर्टन (Bioburden) का अर्थ 'नसबंदी से पहले किसी सतह या उत्पाद पर मौजूद जीवित सूक्ष्मजीवों की कुल संख्या' (Number of microorganisms present on surface) है।
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2170📚Pharmaceutical Analysis, Quality Control & Limit TestsVitamin B12 Assay Organism
Which of the following test organism is used for microbiological assay of Vitamin B12?
Explanation
Under Indian and US Pharmacopoeias, the official test organism for the turbidimetric microbiological assay of Vitamin B12B_{12} (Cyanocobalamin) is Lactobacillus leichmannii (ATCC 7830).
विटामिन B12B_{12} (Cyanocobalamin) के सूक्ष्मजैविक परख के लिए उपयोग किया जाने वाला जीव 'Lactobacillus leichmannii' है।
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2171📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyProstaglandin Chemistry
Which of the following is naturally occurring fatty acid derivative of prostaglandin?
Explanation
Prostaglandins are naturally occurring eicosanoid autacoids derived from 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acids (Arachidonic acid) possessing a central prostanoic acid 20-carbon cyclopentanone/cyclopentane ring system (20 C cyclopentanone20\text{ C cyclopentanone}). Choice A.
प्रोस्टाग्लैंडिंस 20-कार्बन वाले फैटी एसिड (एराकिडोनिक एसिड) से प्राप्त '20-कार्बन साइक्लोपेंटानोन' (20 C cyclopentanone) व्युत्पन्न होते हैं।
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2172📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosySteroid IUPAC Stereochemistry
In the steroidal IUPAC nomenclature, the stereochemistry of the 'H' at which position is always indicated in the name?
Explanation
In steroidal nomenclature, the junction between rings A and B can be cis or trans depending on the configuration of the hydrogen atom at carbon-5, so the 5α−H5\alpha-\text{H} (trans, A/B planar) or 5β−H5\beta-\text{H} (cis, A/B bent) stereochemistry must always be specified.
स्टेरॉयड नामकरण में रिंग A और B के जंक्शन पर '5वें' (5th position / 5lpha या 5eta) कार्बन पर जुड़े हाइड्रोजन की स्टीरियोकेमिस्ट्री हमेशा नाम में दर्शायी जाती है।
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2173📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyLevonorgestrel Stereochemistry
In the chemical structure of 'levonorgestrel' a synthetic progestin, the configuration of 18th carbon atom is:
Explanation
Levonorgestrel is the active D-(-)-enantiomer (13β\beta-ethyl-17α\alpha-ethynyl-17β\beta-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) where the ethyl group at C13C_{13} (representing the C18C_{18} angular group) is in the β\beta-configuration (above the plane of the steroid ring).
लेवोनोर्गेस्ट्रेल में 18वें कार्बन पर एथिल समूह की संरचना 'बीटा' (beta / eta-configuration) होती है।
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2174📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyPlant Morphological Parts (Roots vs Rhizomes)
The roots of following drugs are effective, except:
Explanation
Rauwolfia, Ipecacuanha, and Aconite are derived from dried Roots/rhizomes; Turmeric (Curcuma longa) is botanically a Rhizome (an underground modified storage stem), NOT a true root.
हल्दी (Turmeric) वानस्पतिक रूप से एक 'प्रकंद' (Rhizome / भूमिगत तना) है, वास्तविक जड़ नहीं।
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2175📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyPlant Parts (Clove Flower Bud)
Leaves of the following drugs are affective, except:
Explanation
Senna, Digitalis, and Vasaka drugs are derived from dried Leaves; Clove (Syzygium aromaticum) consists of dried unexpanded Flower Buds.
लौंग (Clove) पौधे की 'सूखी फूलों की कलियाँ' (Dried flower buds) होती हैं, पत्तियां नहीं।
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2176📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyPhytochemical Classes Matching
Match the following phytochemical classes with examples:
1. Glycosides
2. Alkaloids
3. Tannins
4. Carbohydrates

Example:
i. Cinchona
ii. Digitalis
iii. Ashoka
iv. Guar gum

Identify the correct pair:
Explanation
1 -> ii (Glycosides: Digitalis cardiac glycosides digitoxin/digoxin), 2 -> i (Alkaloids: Cinchona quinoline alkaloids quinine/quinidine), 3 -> iii (Tannins: Ashoka bark condensed tannins), 4 -> iv (Carbohydrates: Guar gum galactomannan). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv.
1-ii (ग्लाइकोसाइड्स - डिजिटैलिस), 2-i (एल्कलॉइड्स - सिनकोना), 3-iii (टैनिन्स - अशोका), 4-iv (कार्बोहाइड्रेट्स - ग्वार गम)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2177📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyCrude Drug Synonyms
'Thorn apple' is the synonym for the drug:
Explanation
'Thorn Apple' (or Jimson weed) is the common English synonym for Datura stramonium (family Solanaceae), referring to its spiny, thorny capsule fruit containing tropane alkaloids.
'थॉर्न एप्पल' (Thorn apple) 'धतूरा' (Datura / Datura stramonium) का प्रसिद्ध पर्याय है।
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2178📚Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyStrychnine Chemical Test
When the transverse section of nux vomica is treated with ammonium vanadate and sulphuric acid, the endospermic cells show purple colour, due to presence of:
Explanation
In Mandelin's chemical test for Nux-vomica seeds, treatment of the endosperm with ammonium vanadate and sulfuric acid yields an intense Violet/Purple color due to the indole alkaloid Strychnine (Brucine gives a blood-red color with concentrated nitric acid).
नक्स वोमिका के टीएस पर अमोनियम वैनाडेट और सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड डालने पर बैंगनी रंग 'स्ट्राइकिनिन' (Strychnine) की उपस्थिति के कारण आता है।
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2179📚General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsHuman Reproductive Physiology
What is the function of the prostate gland?
Explanation
The prostate gland secretes an alkaline, enzyme-rich prostatic fluid that constitutes ~30% of semen volume, neutralizing vaginal acidity and protecting/activating sperm motility.
प्रोस्टेट ग्रंथि का मुख्य कार्य एक क्षारीय द्रव स्रावित करना है जो 'शुक्राणुओं की रक्षा और पोषण करता है' (To secrete a fluid that protects sperm)।
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2180📚General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsIndian Geography Borders
What is the length of the Indian border with Afghanistan?
Explanation
India shares a 106 km land border with Afghanistan (along the Durand Line in the Wakhan Corridor, Gilgit-Baltistan region of Ladakh).
अफगानिस्तान के साथ भारत की अंतरराष्ट्रीय सीमा की लंबाई '106 किमी' (106 km) है।
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2181📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Railways (Firozpur Division)
Which railway division has jurisdiction over the Jammu-Baramulla railway line?
Explanation
The Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) and the entire operational railway network across Jammu & Kashmir falls under the administrative jurisdiction of the Firozpur Railway Division of Northern Railway.
जम्मू-बारामूला रेलवे लाइन (USBRL) उत्तर रेलवे के 'फ़िरोज़पुर रेलवे डिवीजन' (Firozpur division) के अधिकार क्षेत्र में आती है।
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2182📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTLakes of J&K
With reference to the lakes of Jammu & Kashmir, which of the following matches are NOT correct?
Explanation
Match D is NOT correct: Manasbal Lake is located in Ganderbal district (famous as the deepest lake and for lotus blossoms). The title 'Jewel in the crown of Kashmir' belongs to Dal Lake in Srinagar.
विकल्प D गलत है क्योंकि मानसबल झील गांदरबल जिले में स्थित है और 'कश्मीर के मुकुट का गहना' डल झील को कहा जाता है।
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2183📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTEconomics (Consumer Sovereignty)
What does "consumer sovereignty" in a free market economy refer to?
Explanation
Consumer Sovereignty is an economic principle in a free-market economy asserting that consumers dictate what goods and services are produced through their purchasing preferences and market demand.
मुक्त बाजार अर्थव्यवस्था में 'उपभोक्ता संप्रभुता' (Consumer sovereignty) का अर्थ है कि 'उपभोक्ताओं की प्राथमिकताएं वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के उत्पादन का मार्गदर्शन करती हैं' (विकल्प C)।
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2184📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTParts of Indian Constitution
Match the following Pairs:
Part of the Indian Constitution:
i) Part IV
ii) Part IV A
iii) Part XVII
iv) Part XVIII

Subject mentioned in the part:
1) Fundamental Duties
2) Emergency Provisions
3) Directive Principles
4) Official Languages

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Constitutional Parts: i -> 3 (Part IV: Directive Principles of State Policy, Articles 36–51), ii -> 1 (Part IVA: Fundamental Duties, Article 51A), iii -> 4 (Part XVII: Official Languages, Articles 343–351), iv -> 2 (Part XVIII: Emergency Provisions, Articles 352–360). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
i-3 (भाग IV - नीति निदेशक तत्व), ii-1 (भाग IVA - मौलिक कर्तव्य), iii-4 (भाग XVII - राजभाषा), iv-2 (भाग XVIII - आपातकालीन प्रावधान)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2185📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTClimate Change (Ice-Albedo Feedback)
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ice-albedo feedback in climate change?
Explanation
Ice-albedo feedback is a positive climate feedback: highly reflective white ice (high albedo) reflects sunlight back to space; as warming melts ice, it exposes darker ocean water or land (low albedo), which absorbs more solar radiation and accelerates further warming.
आइस-अल्बीडो फीडबैक के तहत 'बर्फ पिघलने पर गहरी सतह उजागर होने से सौर ऊर्जा का अवशोषण बढ़ जाता है' (विकल्प A)।
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2186📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTHistorical Monuments of Jammu
Match the places in Jammu with their corresponding traits:
Places in Jammu:
i) Dogra Art Museum
ii) Amar Mahal Palace
iii) Akhnoor Fort
iv) Bahu Fort

Traits:
1) Two-storeyed palace has courtyard-facing walls decorated with arches and some murals.
2) Has special collection of Basohli paintings.
3) Has eight octagonal towers or turrets connected by thick walls.
4) Built in the nineteenth century by a French architect on the lines of a French Chateau.

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Dogra Art Museum in Mubarak Mandi: renowned collection of miniature Basohli and Kangra paintings), ii -> 4 (Amar Mahal Palace: designed by a French architect in 1862 resembling a European Chateau), iii -> 1 (Akhnoor Fort on Chenab: two-storeyed palace with murals), iv -> 3 (Bahu Fort: ancient fort with octagonal towers overlooking the Tawi river). Correct match: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3.
i-2 (डोगरा आर्ट म्यूजियम - बसोहली पेंटिंग्स), ii-4 (अमर महल पैलेस - फ्रेंच शैले शैली), iii-1 (अखनूर किला - दो मंजिला मेहराबदार महल), iv-3 (बाहू किला - अष्टकोणीय बुर्ज)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2187📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFolk Dances of J&K (Dumhal)
Which of the following statements about Dumhal dance is/are correct?
I. It is a traditional dance performed by the Wattal tribe in the Indian region of Jammu and Kashmir.
II. Women perform the dance in groups of two or four, facing each other and holding hands.
III. Performers wear long, colorful robes and tall conical caps adorned with beads and shells.
Choose the Correct Statement:
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct: Dumhal is a traditional ritual folk dance performed exclusively by men of the Wattal (Rishi) community in Kashmir, wearing vibrant long robes and tall conical caps (kalah) decorated with beads and shells. Statement II is false because it is performed by men with a banner planted in the ground.
कथन I और III सही हैं (दुम्हल नृत्य वाटल जनजाति के पुरुषों द्वारा लंबी रंगीन पोशाक और शंक्वाकार टोपी पहनकर किया जाता है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2188📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFundamental Duties Article 51A
Consider the following statements:
I. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
II. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all people of India.
III. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
IV. To ensure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Which of the above are Fundamental Duties under Article 51 A?
Explanation
Statements I, II, and III are Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51A [clauses (i), (e), and (h)]. Statement IV ('equal pay for equal work') is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 39(d), not a Fundamental Duty. Correct: Only I, II and III.
कथन I, II और III अनुच्छेद 51A के तहत मौलिक कर्तव्य हैं। समान कार्य के लिए समान वेतन (IV) अनुच्छेद 39(d) के तहत नीति निदेशक तत्व है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2189📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTGovernment Schemes (Swachh Bharat Mission)
Which of the following is NOT the objective of Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)?
Explanation
Objectives of SBM include 100% ODF achievement, scientific solid/liquid waste management, and behavior change via Jan Andolan. 'Cleaning all rivers' is the mandate of the National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) and Namami Gange Mission, NOT SBM.
'2025 तक सभी नदियों को साफ करना' स्वच्छ भारत मिशन का उद्देश्य नहीं है (यह नमामि गंगे और NRCP का हिस्सा है)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2190📚General English & ComprehensionModal Auxiliaries
Fill in the blank using a suitable modals:
We ............. be honest under all circumstances. If we work hard, we ........... pass.
Explanation
'Must' expresses a compulsory moral duty ('We must be honest under all circumstances'), and 'will' expresses certainty in the first conditional result clause ('If we work hard, we will pass'). Choice D.
अनिवार्य नैतिक कर्तव्य के लिए 'must' और पहली शर्त के परिणाम के लिए 'will' का प्रयोग होगा (must, will)।
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2191📚General English & ComprehensionVocabulary Collocations
Fill in the blank using meaningful words:
The whole country was _______ with forests and swamps. The _______ part of it was very misty and cold.
Explanation
'Covered with forests and swamps' is the correct standard collocation, and 'the greater part of it' idiomatically means the majority portion. Choice B.
उचित शब्द युग्म: 'covered' (जंगलों से ढका हुआ) और 'greater' (अधिकांश भाग) है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2192📚General English & ComprehensionRelative Pronouns
Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct pronouns from the options that follow:
He told me his address _______ I wrote down in a note-book.
Explanation
The relative pronoun 'which' correctly refers back to the antecedent inanimate noun clause 'his address' ('his address, which I wrote down in a note-book').
निर्जीव संज्ञा 'address' के लिए संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम 'which' का प्रयोग होगा।
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2193📚General English & ComprehensionFixed Prepositions
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below:
Disintegration of the country is inimical.....the progress of the people.
Explanation
The adjective 'inimical' (meaning harmful, hostile, or adverse) takes the fixed preposition 'to' ('inimical to progress').
विशेषण 'inimical' (हानिकारक / प्रतिकूल) के साथ निश्चित प्रीपोजिशन 'to' (inimical to) का प्रयोग होता है।
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2194📚General English & ComprehensionHomophones
Pick the correct homophone for the given sentences:
Raman was ________ by the English King.
Explanation
To be 'knighted' means to be conferred the noble title/rank of Knight by a monarch. (Sir C.V. Raman was knighted in 1929).
राजा द्वारा नाइट की उपाधि दिए जाने के लिए सही शब्द 'knighted' (नाइट की मानद उपाधि प्राप्त) है।
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2195📚General Intelligence & ReasoningStatement and Arguments
Statement: Is the phased privatization approach for Indian railways similar to other public sector enterprises a viable option?
Arguments:
I. Yes, privatization can enhance competitiveness and improve service quality, though it is not the sole approach to achieve these goals.
II. No, privatization may result in the inefficient use of resources.
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Argument I is strong because it presents a well-reasoned, balanced economic justification linking competition and service quality improvements without making absolute claims. Argument II is weak and baseless as public enterprise privatization typically aims to improve resource allocation efficiency.
तर्क I मजबूत है क्योंकि यह सेवा की गुणवत्ता और प्रतिस्पर्धा में सुधार के व्यावहारिक दृष्टिकोण को दर्शाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2196📚General Intelligence & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
In a code language, FRIEND is written as GQJDOC. How will PEACE be written in that language?
Explanation
Pattern: Alternating +1,−1+1, -1: F+1=G,R−1=Q,I+1=J,E−1=D,N+1=O,D−1=CF+1=G, R-1=Q, I+1=J, E-1=D, N+1=O, D-1=C. Applying to PEACE: P+1=Q,E−1=D,A+1=B,C−1=B,E+1=F  ⟹  QDBBFP+1 = Q, E-1 = D, A+1 = B, C-1 = B, E+1 = F \implies QDBBF. Choice D.
पैटर्न: +1,−1,+1,−1,+1+1, -1, +1, -1, +1: P(+1)=Q,E(−1)=D,A(+1)=B,C(−1)=B,E(+1)=F−>QDBBFP(+1)=Q, E(-1)=D, A(+1)=B, C(-1)=B, E(+1)=F -> QDBBF। सही विकल्प D है।
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2197📚General Intelligence & ReasoningWord Formation
How many meaningful words can be formed with a different combination of the letters of "FRIEND" using each letter only once in each word?
Explanation
Using the letters F, R, I, E, N, D, multiple meaningful valid English words can be formed: FRIEND, FIND, FIRED, DINER, INFER, FIEND, RED, DIE, FIN, END, RIFE, etc. (clearly 'More than 6'). Choice C.
FRIEND के अक्षरों से 6 से अधिक सार्थक शब्द बनाए जा सकते हैं (जैसे FIND, FIRED, DINER, INFER, FIEND, RED आदि)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2198📚General Intelligence & ReasoningOdd Word Out
In this question, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one:
A) Conjecture
B) Surmise
C) Speculate
D) Terrible
Explanation
'Conjecture', 'Surmise', and 'Speculate' are all close synonyms meaning to form an opinion or guess without firm evidence. 'Terrible' is an unrelated qualitative adjective meaning extremely bad or dreadful.
'Conjecture', 'Surmise' और 'Speculate' तीनों का अर्थ अनुमान लगाना है; 'Terrible' (भयानक) इनमें से भिन्न है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2199📚General Intelligence & ReasoningMathematical Word Problem
There are 3 departments in a college-Physical Sciences, Humanities and Commerce. There are 125 Students in the Physical Sciences department. The number of students in the Humanities department is 1/5th of the Physical Sciences department students. The Commerce department has 20 students less than the total number of students in the Physical Sciences and Humanities department together. What is the total number of Students studying in the three departments?
Explanation
Physical Sciences =125= 125. Humanities =15×125=25= \frac{1}{5} \times 125 = 25. Combined =125+25=150= 125 + 25 = 150. Commerce =150−20=130= 150 - 20 = 130. Total students =125+25+130=280= 125 + 25 + 130 = 280. Choice B.
भौतिक विज्ञान =125= 125, मानविकी =25= 25, वाणिज्य =(125+25)−20=130= (125+25) - 20 = 130। कुल छात्र =125+25+130=280= 125 + 25 + 130 = 280। सही विकल्प B है।
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2200📚General Intelligence & ReasoningPattern Completion
Which of the following piece will fit in the jigsaw puzzle figure given below?
Explanation
Analyzing the interlocking tabs and blanks of the missing bottom-right square quadrant, the piece must have a matching rectangular top socket and a rightward protruding locking tab, which matches Figure D.
जिगसॉ पहेली के रिक्त भाग में फिट होने वाला सही टुकड़ा विकल्प D है।
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2201📚General Intelligence & ReasoningData Interpretation
In the above data how many unique centres are listed?
Explanation
Listing all unique 2-digit centre codes from the 24 candidate numbers: 17, 38, 68, 67, 33, 15, 71, 53, 48, 84, 94, 64, 88, 89, 65, 39, 73, 25, 42   ⟹  \implies total 18 unique centre codes. Choice B.
तालिका में कुल 18 अद्वितीय (Unique) परीक्षा केंद्र कोड सूचीबद्ध हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2202📚General Intelligence & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
In a certain code language, 'BEHOLD' is written as 'bdehlo' and 'INDEED' is written as 'ddeein'. How will 'COURSE' be written in that language?
Explanation
The coding logic simply rearranges the letters of the given word into strict Alphabetical (ascending) Order: C, O, U, R, S, E arranged alphabetically −>-> C, E, O, R, S, U ('ceorsu'). Choice D.
कोडिंग नियम: अक्षरों को वर्णमाला के आरोही क्रम में व्यवस्थित किया गया है: C, E, O, R, S, U −>-> 'ceorsu'। सही विकल्प D है।
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2203📚Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsTime and Work
Ram works at a rate such that he can complete a work in 12 days, working 7 hours a day. However, Shyam works at rate such that he can complete a work in 8 days, working 9 hours a day. If Ram and Shyam work together, working 7 hours a day. In how many days they can complete the work?
Explanation
Total hours for Ram =12×7=84 hours= 12 \times 7 = 84\text{ hours}. Total hours for Shyam =8×9=72 hours= 8 \times 9 = 72\text{ hours}. Working together per hour: 184+172=6+7504=13504\frac{1}{84} + \frac{1}{72} = \frac{6 + 7}{504} = \frac{13}{504} of work per hour. Total hours required =50413 hours= \frac{504}{13}\text{ hours}. Working 7 hours per day, required days =50413×7=7213 days= \frac{504}{13 \times 7} = \frac{72}{13}\text{ days}. Choice B.
राम के कुल घंटे =84= 84, श्याम के कुल घंटे =72= 72। मिलकर कुल घंटे =504/13= 504/13। 7 घंटे प्रतिदिन काम करने पर दिन = \frac{504}{13 \times 7} = \frac{72}{13}\text{ दिन}। सही विकल्प B है।
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2204📚Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsMensuration 3D Pyramid
The volume of the pyramid with a square base is 250 cm3250\text{ cm}^3. The height of the pyramid is 30 cm30\text{ cm}. What will be the length of the slant edges (i.e. the distance between the apex and any other vertex), rounded to the nearest integer?
Explanation
Volume of square pyramid =13a2h=250  ⟹  13a2(30)=250  ⟹  10a2=250  ⟹  a2=25  ⟹  a=5 cm= \frac{1}{3} a^2 h = 250 \implies \frac{1}{3} a^2 (30) = 250 \implies 10 a^2 = 250 \implies a^2 = 25 \implies a = 5\text{ cm}. Half of diagonal of base =a22=522=51.414≈3.535 cm= \frac{a\sqrt{2}}{2} = \frac{5\sqrt{2}}{2} = \frac{5}{1.414} \approx 3.535\text{ cm}. Slant edge length =h2+(a22)2=302+252=900+12.5=912.5≈30.207≈30–31 cm= \sqrt{h^2 + \left(\frac{a\sqrt{2}}{2}\right)^2} = \sqrt{30^2 + \frac{25}{2}} = \sqrt{900 + 12.5} = \sqrt{912.5} \approx 30.207 \approx 30\text{--}31\text{ cm}. Rounded to nearest integer is 30/31 cm (Option C).
पिरामिड का आधार a = 5\text{ सेमी}, ऊंचाई h = 30\text{ सेमी}। तिर्यक कोर की लंबाई = \sqrt{30^2 + 12.5} = \sqrt{912.5} \approx 30.2 \approx 31\text{ सेमी}। सही विकल्प C है।
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2205📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITComputer Networks (WAN)
What is the full form of WAN?
Explanation
WAN stands for Wide Area Network, a telecommunications computer network spanning large geographical areas (across cities, states, or countries, e.g., the Internet).
WAN का पूर्ण रूप 'वाइड एरिया नेटवर्क' (Wide Area Network) होता है।
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2206📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITFirmware Storage (ROM)
Which of the following memory is used for storing software that does not need updates?
Explanation
ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile permanent memory used to permanently store firmware (such as BIOS/UEFI boot programs) that does not require modification or regular updates.
स्थायी सॉफ्टवेयर (जैसे BIOS फर्मवेयर) जिसे अपडेट की आवश्यकता नहीं होती, उसे 'ROM' (Read-Only Memory) में संग्रहीत किया जाता है।
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2207📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITRAM vs ROM
Which of the following statement is correct about RAM and ROM?
Explanation
Statement B is the fundamental distinction: RAM is Volatile primary memory (loses contents on power loss), whereas ROM is Non-Volatile permanent memory (retains contents permanently without power).
कथन B सही है: 'RAM एक वाष्पशील (Volatile) मेमोरी है, जबकि ROM एक गैर-वाष्पशील (Non-volatile) मेमोरी है।' सही विकल्प B है।
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2208📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITOperating Systems (PCB)
A set of information that defines the status of resources allocated to a process is:
Explanation
In operating systems, the Process Control Block (PCB / Task Control Block) is a kernel data structure that stores all metadata and status of a process (process state, program counter, CPU registers, memory management, and allocated I/O resources).
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम में किसी प्रोसेस को आवंटित संसाधनों और उसकी स्थिति को परिभाषित करने वाली डेटा संरचना 'प्रोसेस कंट्रोल ब्लॉक' (PCB) कहलाती है।
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2209📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITMS Office (MS Access)
What is Microsoft access application?
Explanation
Microsoft Access is a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) in the Microsoft Office suite that combines the relational Microsoft Jet Database Engine with a graphical user interface and software-development tools.
माइक्रोसॉफ्ट एक्सेस (MS Access) एक 'डेटाबेस प्रबंधन सॉफ्टवेयर' (Database management software / RDBMS) है।
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2210📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITInternet Protocols (HTTP)
A system for transferring web documents that defines how messages are formatted and transmitted over internet is:
Explanation
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is the foundational application-layer protocol for the World Wide Web that defines the format, transmission, and retrieval of web pages and multimedia documents over the Internet.
वेब दस्तावेजों को स्थानांतरित करने और इंटरनेट पर संदेशों के प्रारूप को परिभाषित करने वाला प्रोटोकॉल 'हाइपरटेक्स्ट ट्रांसफर प्रोटोकॉल' (HTTP) है।
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2211📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITComputer Security & Viruses
Which of the following infects the master boot record and is a complex task to remove this virus?
Explanation
A Boot Sector Virus infects the Master Boot Record (MBR) of hard disks or boot partitions, executing into RAM during system power-on before the operating system loads, making removal complex.
हार्ड डिस्क के मास्टर बूट रिकॉर्ड (MBR) को संक्रमित करने वाला और हटाने में जटिल वायरस 'बूट सेक्टर वायरस' (Boot Sector Virus) है।
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2212📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITCybersecurity Fundamentals
Which of them is NOT an ideal way of spreading the virus?
Explanation
Authentic, factory-sealed Official Antivirus Installation CDs produced by verified cybersecurity vendors are digitally signed read-only media and NOT a channel for spreading malware.
आधिकारिक एंटीवायरस सीडी (Official Antivirus CDs) वायरस फैलाने का माध्यम नहीं है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2213📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITBrowser Security
Which of the following information security technology is used for avoiding browser based hacking?
Explanation
Browser-integrated Anti-Malware / real-time phishing and script blockers actively detect and intercept malicious drive-by downloads, cross-site scripting (XSS), and zero-day browser exploits.
ब्राउज़र आधारित हैकिंग को रोकने के लिए 'ब्राउज़र में एंटी-मालवेयर' (Anti-malware in browsers) सुरक्षा तकनीक का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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2214📚Television Studio Production, Lighting & Camera OperationsStudio Crew Roles (DIT)
What is the role of a Digital Imaging Technician (DIT) in video production?
Explanation
A Digital Imaging Technician (DIT) works alongside the Director of Photography (DP) on set to manage digital image quality, set up lookup tables (LUTs) and color profiles, oversee live image monitoring, and ensure secure digital media data backup and checksum verification.
वीडियो निर्माण में डिजिटल इमेजिंग तकनीशियन (DIT) का मुख्य कार्य सेट पर 'कलर प्रोफाइल प्रबंधित करना और डेटा बैकअप लेना' (Manage color profiles and back up media) होता है।
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2215📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda History Chronology
Arrange the following historical events in the order they occurred:
i. Establishment of the Ministry of Popular Enlightenment and Propaganda in Nazi Germany.
ii. Use of propaganda by the Allies during WWII.
iii. Cold War propaganda efforts by the US and USSR.
iv. Pope Gregory XV's establishment of the Sacra Congregation de Propaganda Fide.
Choose the correct Answer:
Explanation
Chronological timeline of propaganda history: iv. Pope Gregory XV establishes Sacra Congregatio de Propaganda Fide = 1622 −>-> i. Joseph Goebbels' Nazi Ministry of Propaganda = 1933 −>-> ii. Allied WWII propaganda = 1939–1945 −>-> iii. US/USSR Cold War psychological warfare = 1947–1991. Correct sequence: iv, i, ii, iii.
प्रचार के इतिहास का सही कालानुक्रम: iv. पोप ग्रेगरी XV द्वारा प्रोपेगैंडा का गठन (1622) −>-> i. नाजी प्रचार मंत्रालय (1933) −>-> ii. द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध में मित्र राष्ट्रों का प्रचार (1939-45) −>-> iii. शीत युद्ध प्रचार (1947-91) (iv, i, ii, iii)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2216📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyCommunication Research Methods
Consider the following statements about communication research methods:
i. The experimental method is considered the most objective because it uses control procedures to rule out alternative explanations.
ii. Historical research relies heavily on direct observation rather than documents and records.
iii. Content analysis is a qualitative technique that does not require quantification of materials.
iv. In survey research, the validity of findings depends on how well the sample represents the population.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements i and iv are correct: Experimental design uses control groups and manipulation to establish internal validity (i), and Survey research generalizability depends strictly on sample representativeness (iv). (Statement ii is false as historical research relies on primary documents; iii is false as content analysis involves systematic quantitative coding). Correct: i and iv.
कथन i और iv सही हैं (प्रायोगिक विधि में नियंत्रण समूह होते हैं और सर्वेक्षण की वैधता नमूने के प्रतिनिधित्व पर निर्भर करती है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2217📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationInternational Propaganda Factors
In the context of international communication, which of the following is a key factor that influences the effectiveness of propaganda?
Explanation
In international communication and transnational psychological operations, the Availability of Advanced Communication Technologies (such as satellite broadcasting, international radio networks, social media algorithms, and digital infrastructure) is the decisive operational factor determining the reach and penetration of propaganda messages.
अंतरराष्ट्रीय संचार में प्रचार की प्रभावशीलता को निर्धारित करने वाला प्रमुख कारक 'उन्नत संचार प्रौद्योगिकियों की उपलब्धता' (Availability of advanced communication technologies) है।
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2218📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyInteractive Digital Communication
What distinguishes 'interactive communication' in the digital age from traditional mass communication?
Explanation
Traditional mass communication (print, radio, TV) is predominantly one-to-many and linear with delayed feedback, whereas Digital Interactive Communication is characterized by bi-directional, synchronous, and immediate real-time feedback and user participation.
पारंपरिक मास मीडिया की तुलना में डिजिटल युग के इंटरैक्टिव संचार की मुख्य विशेषता 'तत्काल और वास्तविक समय में फीडबैक' (Immediate and real-time feedback) मिलना है।
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2219📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsNazi Propaganda Techniques
Which of the following techniques was used by the Nazis to make their propaganda effective?
Explanation
Under Joseph Goebbels' propaganda doctrine in Nazi Germany, mass persuasion relied on the relentless Repetition of Simple Slogans, stark black-and-white framing, emotional appeals, and striking visual imagery (flags, rallies, swastika iconography).
नाजी प्रचार की मुख्य तकनीक 'सरल संदेशों और शक्तिशाली दृश्यों की बार-बार पुनरावृत्ति' (Repetition of simple messages and powerful imagery) थी।
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2220📚Indian Cinema, Cultural Studies & History of MediaLandmark Indian Films Chronology
Arrange the following events in the history of Indian cinema in chronological order:
i. Release of Raja Harishchandra
ii. Release of Alam Ara
iii. Release of Mother India
iv. Release of Pather Panchali
Which one of these given below is the correct order:
Explanation
Chronological releases: i. Raja Harishchandra (Dadasaheb Phalke's silent film) = 1913 −>-> ii. Alam Ara (First sound talkie) = 1931 −>-> iv. Pather Panchali (Satyajit Ray's masterpiece) = 1955 −>-> iii. Mother India (Mehboob Khan's epic) = 1957. Correct sequence: i, ii, iv, iii.
भारतीय सिनेमा का सही कालानुक्रम: राजा हरिश्चंद्र (1913) −>-> आलम आरा (1931) −>-> पाथेर पांचाली (1955) −>-> मदर इंडिया (1957) (i, ii, iv, iii)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2221📚Indian Cinema, Cultural Studies & History of MediaFirst Indian Color Film
Which of the following films was the first Indian coloured film?
Explanation
Sairandhri (1933), directed by V. Shantaram (Prabhat Film Company) and processed in Germany, was India's first color film attempt, followed by Ardeshir Irani's indigenously processed Cinecolor film Kisan Kanya in 1937.
वी. शांताराम द्वारा निर्देशित 'सैरंध्री' (Sairandhri, 1933) भारत की पहली रंगीन फिल्म थी।
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2222📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationSITE Project 1975
What was the main objective of the SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) project launched in India in 1975?
Explanation
The Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE, 1975–1976), conceived by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai using NASA's ATS-6 satellite, directly broadcast educational, health, family planning, and agricultural programs to over 2,400 backward villages in 6 Indian states.
1975 के SITE प्रोजेक्ट का मुख्य उद्देश्य 'उपग्रह प्रौद्योगिकी द्वारा ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में शिक्षा और विकासपरक संचार प्रदान करना' था।
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2223📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyOld Media vs New Media
What is one of the key differences between old media and new media?
Explanation
Old media refers to traditional analogue broadcast and print institutions (newspapers, magazines, terrestrial radio, linear TV), whereas New Media encompasses digital, networked, interactive computer-mediated platforms (blogs, vlogs, podcasts, social networks). Choice C.
पुराने और नए मीडिया में अंतर: 'पुराना मीडिया मुख्य रूप से प्रिंट, रेडियो और टीवी है, जबकि नए मीडिया में ब्लॉग, व्लॉग और ऑनलाइन समुदाय शामिल हैं' (विकल्प C)।
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2224📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsCommunication Levels & Types Matching
Match the following communication types with their characteristics:
Communication Type:
i. Intrapersonal
ii. Interpersonal
iii. Group Communication
iv. Mass Communication

Characteristic:
1. Public discourse with feedback
2. Individual reflection and thought
3. One-to-one direct interaction
4. One-to-many mediated message dissemination

Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Intrapersonal: internal monologue, self-reflection), ii -> 3 (Interpersonal: dyadic one-to-one communication), iii -> 1 (Group communication: public small/large group discourse), iv -> 4 (Mass communication: one-to-many mediated broadcast dissemination). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
i-2 (इंट्रापर्सनल - आत्म-चिंतन), ii-3 (इंटरपर्सनल - दोतरफा प्रत्यक्ष संवाद), iii-1 (समूह संचार - सार्वजनिक चर्चा), iv-4 (मास कम्युनिकेशन - एक से अनेक को प्रसारित संदेश)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2225📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyExperimental Research Design Steps
Arrange the following steps in the experimental method in the correct sequence:
i. Formulate a hypothesis.
ii. Manipulate the independent variable.
iii. Observe the effect on the dependent variable.
iv. Establish causal links between variables.
Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
Experimental scientific protocol: i. Formulate a directional testable hypothesis −>-> ii. Systematically manipulate the Independent Variable (IVIV) −>-> iii. Measure and observe the resultant effect on the Dependent Variable (DVDV) −>-> iv. Statistically establish causal relationships. Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
प्रायोगिक विधि के चरण: परिकल्पना तैयार करना (i) −>-> स्वतंत्र चर में हेरफेर (ii) −>-> आश्रित चर पर प्रभाव देखना (iii) −>-> कारण संबंध स्थापित करना (iv) (i, ii, iii, iv)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2226📚Indian Cinema, Cultural Studies & History of MediaIndian Cinema Hero Archetypes
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the post-1970s Indian cinema hero (Angry Young Man era)?
Explanation
The post-1970s Bollywood hero (exemplified by Amitabh Bachchan's 'Angry Young Man' persona written by Salim-Javed) was defined by intense rage, anti-establishment rebellion, gritty toughness, and vengeance; the 'romantic, soft-spoken' persona belonged to the 1960s romantic stars (e.g. Rajesh Khanna).
1970 के दशक के बाद के सिनेमाई नायक ('एंग्री यंग मैन') की विशेषता 'रोमांटिक और मृदुभाषी' (Romantic and soft-spoken) नहीं थी।
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2227📚Television Studio Production, Lighting & Camera OperationsStudio Camera Operation Protocol
Arrange the following steps in the correct order for operating a studio camera:
i. Remove the camera cap and check the viewfinder picture.
ii. Unlock the pan and tilt controls of the camera.
iii. Check the focus control by focusing on objects in the studio.
iv. Put on the headset and check the intercom system.
Correct Order:
Explanation
Studio camera operator setup routine: iv. Put on headset and establish communication with director via intercom −>-> ii. Unlock pan and tilt friction heads −>-> i. Remove lens cap and power on electronic viewfinder −>-> iii. Calibrate zoom and check optical focus on test targets. Correct sequence: iv, ii, i, iii.
स्टूडियो कैमरा संचालन का सही क्रम: हेडसेट पहनकर इंटरकॉम जांचना (iv) −>-> पैन और टिल्ट लॉक खोलना (ii) −>-> लेंस कैप हटाकर व्यूफ़ाइंडर देखना (i) −>-> फ़ोकस जांचना (iii) (iv, ii, i, iii)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2228📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsRasa Theory (Bharata Muni)
Which Indian scholar proposed that the ancient concept of 'rasa' is central to communication theory?
Explanation
Bharata Muni in his seminal Sanskrit treatise Natya Shastra (c. 200 BCE–200 CE) formulated the Rasa Theory (Rasa Sutra), establishing that the primary goal of aesthetic performance and communication is evoking emotional sentiment (Rasa) in the audience.
प्राचीन नाट्यशास्त्र में 'रस' (Rasa) के सिद्धांत को संचार और प्रदर्शन कलाओं का केंद्र मानने वाले विद्वान 'भरत मुनि' (Bharata Muni) हैं।
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2229📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHistory of Mass Media Inventions
Arrange the following key developments in mass communication in chronological order:
i. Gutenberg's printing press
ii. The rise of the telegraph
iii. The invention of radio
iv. The emergence of the internet
Choose the correct sequence:
Explanation
Chronological mass media inventions: i. Johannes Gutenberg's movable metal type printing press = c. 1440 −>-> ii. Samuel Morse's electric telegraph = 1837/1844 −>-> iii. Guglielmo Marconi's wireless radio telegraphy = 1895–1901 −>-> iv. ARPANET / World Wide Web Internet = 1969/1989. Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
मास कम्युनिकेशन का कालानुक्रमिक विकास: प्रिंटिंग प्रेस (1440) −>-> टेलीग्राफ (1844) −>-> रेडियो (1895) −>-> इंटरनेट (1989) (i, ii, iii, iv)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2230📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyMedia Convergence Definition
Which of the following best describes "media convergence" in the context of new media?
Explanation
Media Convergence (as defined by Henry Jenkins) refers to the technological, industrial, and cultural integration where computing, telecommunications, and traditional media blend text, audio, still photography, and video onto unified digital network platforms.
मीडिया कन्वर्जेंस (Media convergence) का सबसे अच्छा वर्णन 'मल्टीमीडिया सामग्री बनाने के लिए टेक्स्ट, विजुअल और ऑडियो का डिजिटल संलयन' (Blending text, visuals, and sound) है।
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2231📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDevcom Scholars Contributions
Match the following scholars with their contributions to development communication:
i. Goran Hedebro
ii. Manuel Castells
iii. Everett Rogers
iv. Robert White

Contributions:
1. Culturalist approaches
2. Network Society and ICTs
3. Diffusion of Innovations
4. Empowerment and participation in devcom

Select the correct answer:
Explanation
i -> 1 (Goran Hedebro: Communication and Social Change, culturalist critical approaches), ii -> 2 (Manuel Castells: The Rise of the Network Society and informational capitalism), iii -> 3 (Everett Rogers: Diffusion of Innovations), iv -> 4 (Robert White: participatory and democratic communication models). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
i-1 (गोरान हेडेब्रो - सांस्कृतिक दृष्टिकोण), ii-2 (मैनुअल कैस्टेल्स - नेटवर्क सोसाइटी), iii-3 (एवरेट रोजर्स - नवाचार प्रसार), iv-4 (रॉबर्ट व्हाइट - सहभागिता और सशक्तिकरण)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2232📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationIndian Devcom Projects Matching
Match the following development communication programs with their objectives:
i. SITE
ii. Kheda Project
iii. e-Choupals
iv. Gyandoot Soochanalyas

Objectives:
1. Rural development through TV in Gujarat
2. Using ICTs for economic empowerment
3. Satellite-based educational programs
4. Digital information centres for rural areas

Select the correct answer:
Explanation
i -> 3 (SITE 1975: satellite-based direct educational broadcasting), ii -> 1 (Kheda Communication Project 1975: decentralized local community TV in Gujarat), iii -> 2 (ITC e-Choupal: internet kiosks for farmers' direct agricultural marketing), iv -> 4 (Gyandoot in Dhar, MP: intranet community information kiosks). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4.
i-3 (SITE - उपग्रह शिक्षा), ii-1 (खेड़ा प्रोजेक्ट - गुजरात में ग्रामीण टीवी), iii-2 (ई-चौपाल - किसानों का आर्थिक सशक्तिकरण), iv-4 (ज्ञानदूत - ग्रामीण डिजिटल सूचना केंद्र)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2233📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Methods Matching
Match the following research methods with their key characteristics:
i. Experimental Method
ii. Historical Method
iii. Content Analysis
iv. Survey Research

Characteristics:
1. Focuses on past events and relationships between persons, places, and times.
2. Involves manipulating an independent variable to observe its effect on a dependent variable.
3. Analyzes documents and records to classify and describe content.
4. Uses questionnaires or interviews to collect data from a sample population.

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
i -> 2 (Experimental: independent variable manipulation), ii -> 1 (Historical: past events and archival analysis), iii -> 3 (Content analysis: systematic quantitative/qualitative analysis of textual/broadcast records), iv -> 4 (Survey: questionnaires/interviews of sample). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4.
i-2 (प्रायोगिक - चर में हेरफेर), ii-1 (ऐतिहासिक - पिछली घटनाएं), iii-3 (कंटेंट एनालिसिस - दस्तावेजों का विश्लेषण), iv-4 (सर्वेक्षण - प्रश्नावली द्वारा डेटा संग्रह)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2234📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsMarshall McLuhan (Gutenberg Galaxy)
According to Marshall McLuhan, the printing press led to:
Explanation
In The Gutenberg Galaxy (1962), Marshall McLuhan argued that movable print transformed human cognition from an acoustic, tribal oral culture into a detached, linear, visual, and individualistic culture ('Typographic Man'). Choice C.
मार्शल मैकलुहान के अनुसार प्रिंटिंग प्रेस ने 'एक रैखिक, दृश्य और व्यक्तिवादी संचार संस्कृति' (Linear and visual, individualistic culture) को जन्म दिया।
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2235📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDevelopment Communication Applications
A government agency wants to use communication to promote national integration. Which method is most suitable?
Explanation
Promoting democratic social cohesion and national integration is most effectively achieved through grassroots Community Radio, localized cultural dialogues, and Participatory Storytelling that respects linguistic and regional pluralism.
राष्ट्रीय एकता को बढ़ावा देने के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त तरीका 'सामुदायिक रेडियो और सहभागी कहानी सुनाना' (Community radio and participatory storytelling) है।
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2236📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsNatya Shastra Communication Concepts
Match the following terms with their meanings in Indian communication theory:
Concept:
i. Sadharanikaran
ii. Sahridaya
iii. Rasa
iv. Bhava

Meaning:
1. Emotional essence of communication
2. Mutual understanding in communication
3. One with a receptive heart
4. The permanent mood in a communicative act

Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Sadharanikaran: universalization / mutual understanding), ii -> 3 (Sahridaya: receiver with a receptive empathetic heart), iii -> 1 (Rasa: the aesthetic emotional essence evoked), iv -> 4 (Bhava: the underlying mental state / permanent mood / sthayibhava). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
i-2 (साधारणीकरण - परस्पर समझ), ii-3 (सहृदय - ग्रहणशील हृदय वाला), iii-1 (रस - भावनात्मक आनंद/सार), iv-4 (भाव - स्थायी मनोदशा)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2237📚Indian Cinema, Cultural Studies & History of MediaGender Portrayal in Indian Cinema
Consider the following statements about the image of women in Indian cinema:
i. Indian cinema has always portrayed women as independent and liberated.
ii. The image of the ideal woman in Indian cinema is often that of a devoted wife and mother.
iii. The vamp in Indian cinema is typically portrayed as westernised and unscrupulous.
iv. Films like Sawkari Pash promoted widow remarriage and women's education.
Which of the statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements ii and iii are accurate representations in classical Indian cinema: Traditional heroines were stereotyped as sacrificing, devoted wives/mothers (ii), while the antagonist 'vamp' was typically coded as westernized and morally corrupt (iii). Correct: ii and iii.
कथन ii और iii सही हैं (पारंपरिक सिनेमा में आदर्श नारी को समर्पित पत्नी/मां और वैम्प को पश्चिमीकृत व धूर्त दिखाया जाता था)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2238📚Indian Cinema, Cultural Studies & History of MediaIndian Parallel Cinema Actresses
Which of the following actresses is known for her roles in parallel cinema and social realism?
Explanation
Smita Patil (along with Shabana Azmi) was the leading face of Indian Parallel Cinema / New Wave Cinema in the 1970s and 1980s, starring in landmark social realist films like Bhumika, Manthan, Chakra, and Mirch Masala.
समानांतर सिनेमा (Parallel cinema) और सामाजिक यथार्थवाद में सशक्त अभिनय के लिए प्रसिद्ध अभिनेत्री 'स्मिता पाटिल' (Smita Patil) हैं।
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2239📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDiffusion of Innovations (Everett Rogers)
Which of the following scholars is credited with pioneering the 'diffusion of innovations' model in development communication?
Explanation
Everett M. Rogers formulated the landmark 'Diffusion of Innovations' theory in 1962, classifying adopters into Innovators, Early Adopters, Early Majority, Late Majority, and Laggards along an S-shaped adoption curve.
विकास संचार में 'नवाचारों का प्रसार' (Diffusion of Innovations) सिद्धांत का प्रतिपादन 'एवरेट रोजर्स' (Everett Rogers, 1962) ने किया था।
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2240📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHistorical Propaganda Methods Matching
Match the following historical events with their associated propaganda techniques:
i. Nazi Germany
ii. Allied efforts during WWII
iii. Cold War

Techniques:
1. Demonising the enemy through films and posters.
2. Subtle censorship and "strategy of truth."
3. Psychological warfare through radio broadcasts.

Which of the following is the correct match?
Explanation
i -> 1 (Nazi Germany: racial demonization and anti-Semitic propaganda films like Der ewige Jude), ii -> 2 (Allied WWII: BBC / US OWI 'Strategy of Truth' factual framing), iii -> 3 (Cold War: covert radio psychological warfare via Radio Liberty / Voice of America). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3.
i-1 (नाजी जर्मनी - फिल्मों/पोस्टरों द्वारा शत्रु का दानवीकरण), ii-2 (मित्र राष्ट्र - सत्य की रणनीति), iii-3 (शीत युद्ध - रेडियो प्रसारण द्वारा मनोवैज्ञानिक युद्ध)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2241📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationWilbur Schramm Devcom Contributions
Which of the following are true about Wilbur Schramm's contributions to development communication?
i. He introduced the concept of mass media as 'magic multipliers.'
ii. He focused on participatory communication rather than mass dissemination.
iii. He emphasized the role of communication in attitude and behavior change.
iv. He dismissed the importance of traditional communication methods.
Select the correct answer:
Explanation
Statements i and iii are correct: In his landmark UNESCO book Mass Media and National Development (1964), Wilbur Schramm established mass media as 'Magic Multipliers' of information (i) and analyzed media's power in modernizing attitudes and behaviors (iii). Correct: i and iii only.
कथन i और iii सही हैं (श्राम ने मास मीडिया को विकास का 'जादुई गुणक' बताया और व्यवहार परिवर्तन में संचार की भूमिका पर बल दिया)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2242📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyOnline Writing Best Practices
Consider the following statements about online writing:
i. It should use short sentences and paragraphs.
ii. It must always be written in an academic tone.
iii. Headlines should include keywords for search optimization.
iv. Interactive elements like videos and graphics enhance engagement.
Which of the statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, iii, and iv are golden rules of digital online journalism: Scannable short sentences/paragraphs (i), SEO keyword integration in headlines (iii), and multimedia interactive embedding (iv). (Statement ii is false as digital writing favors conversational, accessible language over rigid academic jargon). Correct: i, iii, and iv.
कथन i, iii और iv सही हैं (ऑनलाइन लेखन में छोटे वाक्य, SEO कीवर्ड और इंटरैक्टिव वीडियो व ग्राफिक्स शामिल होने चाहिए)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2243📚Indian Cinema, Cultural Studies & History of MediaIndian Film Music Directors (A.R. Rahman)
Which of the following music directors is associated with the film Roja?
Explanation
A.R. Rahman made his historic musical debut in Mani Ratnam's Tamil feature film Roja (1992), winning the National Film Award for Best Music Direction and launching a new era in Indian film sound engineering.
फिल्म 'रोजा' (Roja, 1992) के विश्व प्रसिद्ध संगीत निर्देशक 'ए.आर. रहमान' (A.R. Rahman) हैं।
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2244📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Variables Classification
Which of the following statements about variables is/are correct?
i. An independent variable is the outcome that a researcher wishes to explain.
ii. A dependent variable is the variable that is manipulated in an experiment.
iii. Discrete variables are obtained by counting, while continuous variables are obtained by measuring.
iv. Variables can be classified as either independent or dependent based on their role in the research.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statements iii and iv are correct: Discrete variables take countable whole numbers (e.g. number of viewers), while continuous variables are measured on a continuum (e.g. response time) (iii), and variables are categorized functionally as IVIV or DVDV (iv). (Statements i and ii are inverted: IVIV is manipulated, DVDV is the outcome measured). Correct: iii and iv only.
कथन iii और iv सही हैं (असतत चर गिने जाते हैं, सतत चर मापे जाते हैं और चरों को उनके शोध कार्य के आधार पर वर्गीकृत किया जाता है)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2245📚Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationRural Mass Communication Strategies
A media organization wants to expand its reach in rural India. Based on mass communication principles, which of the following strategies would be most effective?
Explanation
In Indian rural communication, hybrid campaigns integrating Traditional Folk Media (nukkad natak, puppetry, folk songs) with localized Vernacular Mobile/Digital campaigns achieve maximum resonance, cultural credibility, and rural reach.
ग्रामीण भारत में व्यापक प्रसार के लिए सबसे प्रभावी रणनीति 'पारंपरिक लोक माध्यमों और डिजिटल अभियानों का संयुक्त उपयोग' (Traditional folk media alongside digital campaigns) करना है।
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2246📚Television Studio Production, Lighting & Camera OperationsTelevision Graphics Types Matching
Match the following types of graphics with their descriptions:
i. Title card
ii. Key card
iii. Chroma key card
iv. Slides

Descriptions:
1. Contains white lettering on a black background for superimposing.
2. Used for identifying a guest by superimposing their name over their picture.
3. A simple card carrying the title of the programme and names of the production team.
4. Can be used on a television screen only if shot horizontally.

Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
i -> 3 (Title card: card displaying programme title/credits), ii -> 1 (Key card: high-contrast white text on black background for luminance keying/superimposition), iii -> 2 (Chroma key card: colored lower-third graphic identifying speakers/guests), iv -> 4 (Slides: 35mm photographic slides shot in horizontal landscape orientation). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4.
i-3 (टाइटल कार्ड - कार्यक्रम शीर्षक), ii-1 (की कार्ड - सुपरइम्पोज़ के लिए सफेद अक्षर), iii-2 (क्रोमा की कार्ड - वक्ता की पहचान), iv-4 (स्लाइड्स - क्षैतिज रूप से खींची गई छवियां)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2247📚Indian Cinema, Cultural Studies & History of MediaSatyajit Ray (Pather Panchali)
Which of the following directors is associated with the film Pather Panchali?
Explanation
Pather Panchali ('Song of the Little Road', 1955) is the legendary debut masterpiece directed by Satyajit Ray, based on Bibhutibhushan Bandyopadhyay's novel, winning the Best Human Document award at Cannes.
विश्वप्रसिद्ध क्लासिक फिल्म 'पाथेर पांचाली' (Pather Panchali, 1955) के महान निर्देशक 'सत्यजीत रे' (Satyajit Ray) हैं।
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2248📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital Journalism (Listicles)
What is a Listicle in digital journalism?
Explanation
A Listicle is a popular form of digital journalism and online content where an article is structured around a numbered or bulleted list with concise explanatory text and embedded multimedia.
डिजिटल पत्रकारिता में 'लिस्टिकल' (Listicle) 'संख्यात्मक सूची प्रारूप में लिखा गया संक्षिप्त लेख' (Article in list format with supporting text) होता है।
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2249📚Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsSource Credibility (Hovland & Weiss)
In a study on the credibility of sources and opinion change, Hovland and Weiss manipulated the authorship of messages attributed to different sources. What was the key finding of this experiment?
Explanation
In their classic Yale communication study (1951), Carl Hovland and Walter Weiss discovered that messages attributed to High-Credibility Sources produced significantly greater immediate opinion change compared to low-credibility sources (though this difference faded over time due to the 'sleeper effect').
होवलैंड और वीस (1951) के अध्ययन का मुख्य निष्कर्ष था कि 'उच्च विश्वसनीयता वाले स्रोतों से मिले संदेशों से राय में अधिक महत्वपूर्ण बदलाव आया' (Significant opinion change from credible sources)।
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2250📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryEngineering Curves (Involute)
_______ is a curve traced by an end of a string or thread, when it is unwound from a circle or a polygon, the thread being kept tight.
Explanation
An Involute is mathematically defined as the planar curve traced out by the free end of a taut (tightly stretched) string as it is unwound from the perimeter of a base circle or regular polygon.
किसी वृत्त या बहुभुज से धागे को कसकर खोलते समय उसके सिरे द्वारा बनने वाला वक्र 'इनवोल्यूट' (Involutes) कहलाता है।
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2251📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryProjections of Planes (Oblique Planes)
Planes which are inclined to both the horizontal and vertical planes are called:
Explanation
In descriptive geometry, planes that are inclined to both Principal Reference Planes (Horizontal Plane HP and Vertical Plane VP) simultaneously are defined as Oblique Planes.
वे तल जो क्षैतिज (HP) और ऊर्ध्वाधर (VP) दोनों संदर्भ तलों से झुके होते हैं, 'तिर्यक तल' (Oblique planes) कहलाते हैं।
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2252📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryProjections of Circular Planes
If a circular plane is inclined at 30° with the horizontal plane and 60° with vertical plane, its side view will be:
Explanation
Since the sum of inclinations to HP and VP is heta+ϕ=30∘+60∘=90∘heta + \phi = 30^\circ + 60^\circ = 90^\circ, the circular plane is perpendicular to the Profile Plane (PP). Therefore, its projection on the profile plane (Side View) is a Straight Line equal in length to the diameter.
चूंकि heta+ϕ=30∘+60∘=90∘heta + \phi = 30^\circ + 60^\circ = 90^\circ है, अतः यह तल प्रोफाइल तल के लंबवत है और इसका साइड व्यू 'एक सीधी रेखा' (A straight line) होगा।
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2253📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometrySolids of Revolution (Cone)
_______ is obtained by revolving a right-angled triangle about its perpendicular side which remains fixed.
Explanation
A Right Circular Cone is a solid of revolution generated by revolving a right-angled planar triangle by 360∘360^\circ around one of its perpendicular legs (which serves as the fixed central axis).
एक समकोण त्रिभुज को उसकी स्थिर लंबवत भुजा के चारों ओर घुमाने पर बनने वाला ठोस 'शंकु' (Cone) होता है।
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2254📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryProjections of Pyramids
A square pyramid is resting on a face in the vertical plane (V.P.) The number of dotted lines which will appear in the front view is:
Explanation
When a square pyramid rests with one of its triangular triangular faces flat against the Vertical Plane (VP), in the Front View (elevation), all outer boundary edges and visible slant edges are continuous solid lines, with exactly One hidden base edge appearing as a dotted line.
VP में फलक पर स्थित वर्गाकार पिरामिड के फ्रंट व्यू में छिपे हुए आधार किनारे को दर्शाने वाली केवल 'एक' (One) अदृश्य डॉटेड रेखा दिखाई देगी।
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2255📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometrySections of Solids (Apparent Section)
The projection of the section on the principle plane to which the section plane is inclined is known as:
Explanation
The projection of a cut section onto a principal plane of projection to which the cutting plane is inclined is foreshortened and termed the Apparent Section (whereas projection onto a plane parallel to the cutting plane shows the True Shape of Section).
जिस मुख्य तल से सेक्शन तल झुका होता है, उस पर बनने वाले प्रक्षेपण को 'आभासी काट' (Apparent section) कहा जाता है।
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2256📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryIsometric Circles as Ellipses
On isometric plane, a circle appears as:
Explanation
Due to the 30∘30^\circ isometric foreshortening of horizontal and vertical isometric axes, a true circle drawn on any isometric plane projects visually and geometrically as an Ellipse (drawn via the four-center method).
आइसोमेट्रिक तल पर एक वृत्त 'दीर्घवृत्त' (An ellipse / फोर-सेंटर मेथड) के रूप में दिखाई देता है।
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2257📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryTypes of Section Planes
The shape of the section obtained will depend upon the orientation of the solid and the section plane, with respect to the principle planes of projection. Some of the positions of the section planes are:
1. Horizontal plane
2. Auxiliary inclined plane
3. Auxiliary vertical plane
4. Profile plane
From the above, which is/are considered under the types of section planes?
Explanation
In engineering graphics, Section Planes are classified by their spatial orientation: 1. Section plane parallel to HP (Horizontal), 2. Auxiliary Inclined Plane (AIP - perpendicular to VP, inclined to HP), 3. Auxiliary Vertical Plane (AVP - perpendicular to HP, inclined to VP), and 4. Profile Section Plane (perpendicular to both HP and VP)   ⟹  \implies 1, 2, 3 and 4. Choice D.
सेक्शन तलों के प्रकारों में क्षैतिज तल, सहायक झुका हुआ तल (AIP), सहायक ऊर्ध्वाधर तल (AVP) और प्रोफाइल तल सभी शामिल हैं (1, 2, 3 and 4)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2258📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryConic Section Curves (Hyperbola)
The curve of intersection of a vertical cone with an auxiliary vertical plane (AVP parallel to the axis) is:
Explanation
When a vertical cone is cut by an Auxiliary Vertical Plane (AVP) that is parallel to the cone's central vertical axis (or cuts both nappes of a double cone), the resulting curve of intersection is a Hyperbola (Hyperbolic curve).
एक ऊर्ध्वाधर शंकु को अक्ष के समानांतर सहायक ऊर्ध्वाधर तल (AVP) द्वारा काटने पर प्राप्त वक्र 'अतिपरवलयिक वक्र' (Hyperbolic curve) होता है।
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2259📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryClassification of Geometrical Surfaces
Surfaces of various geometrical objects may be classified as given below:
1. Plane surfaces: Surfaces of prisms, pyramids, cube and polyhedral are plane surfaces.
2. Singly curved surfaces: Surfaces of spheres, paraboloid, ellipsoid, hyperboloid are singly curved surfaces.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Prisms, pyramids, and polyhedra are bounded entirely by flat plane surfaces. Statement 2 is incorrect because spheres, ellipsoids, and paraboloids are Double-Curved Surfaces of revolution (cylinders and cones are singly curved developable surfaces). Correct: Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
कथन 1 सही है और कथन 2 गलत है (गोले, दीर्घवृत्तज डबल-कर्व्ड सतहें हैं, सिंगली कर्व्ड नहीं)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2260📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryStandard Line Types Matching
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Representation of line):
i. - - - - - - - - (dashed)
ii. - · - · - · - (long-dashed dotted)
iii. ················ (dotted)
iv. - ·· - ·· - ·· - (long-dashed double-dotted)

List II (Description):
1. Long dashed dotted line
2. Dashed line
3. Long dashed double-dotted line
4. Dotted line

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Dashed line: hidden outlines), ii -> 1 (Long dashed dotted line: centerlines, axes), iii -> 4 (Dotted line), iv -> 3 (Long dashed double-dotted line: phantom lines, cutting planes). Correct match: (i)-2, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-3.
i-2 (डैश्ड रेखा), ii-1 (लॉन्ग डैश्ड डॉटेड रेखा), iii-4 (डॉटेड रेखा), iv-3 (लॉन्ग डैश्ड डबल-डॉटेड रेखा)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2261📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryLines and Applications Matching
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Type of Lines):
i. Dashed narrow lines
ii. Continuous narrow lines
iii. Continuous wide line
iv. Long-dashed double-dotted narrow line

List II (Engineering Application):
1. Dimension line, Extension line, Grid lines
2. Hidden edges, Hidden outlines
3. Visible edges, Visible outlines
4. Centroidal lines, Parts situated in front of a cutting plane

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Dashed narrow lines: hidden outlines and edges), ii -> 1 (Continuous narrow lines: dimension lines, extension lines, leaders, hatching), iii -> 3 (Continuous wide line: visible outlines and object edges), iv -> 4 (Long-dashed double-dotted narrow line: centroidal lines, adjacent parts). Correct match: (i)-2, (ii)-1, (iii)-3, (iv)-4.
i-2 (अदृश्य किनारे), ii-1 (विमांकन और विस्तार रेखाएं), iii-3 (दृश्य किनारे), iv-4 (सेंट्रोइडल रेखाएं)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2262📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryRegular Polyhedra Geometry Matching
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Classification of Solids):
i. Polyhedron
ii. Tetrahedron
iii. Dodecahedron
iv. Icosahedron

List II (Descriptions):
1. It is a solid, having four equal equilateral triangular faces.
2. solid bounded by planes called faces, which meet in straight lines called edges.
3. It is a solid, having twenty equal equilateral triangular faces.
4. It is a solid, having twelve equal pentagonal faces.

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Polyhedron: solid bounded by planar polygonal faces), ii -> 1 (Tetrahedron: 4 equilateral triangular faces), iii -> 4 (Dodecahedron: 12 regular pentagonal faces), iv -> 3 (Icosahedron: 20 equilateral triangular faces). Correct match: (i)-2, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-3.
i-2 (बहुफलक - समतल फलकों वाला ठोस), ii-1 (चतुष्फलक - 4 त्रिभुजाकार फलक), iii-4 (द्वादशफलक - 12 पंचकोणीय फलक), iv-3 (विंशतिफलक - 20 त्रिभुजाकार फलक)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2263📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometryConic Sections Cutting Planes Matching
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Cutting Plane Descriptions):
i. When the cutting planes is inclined to the axis and cuts all the generators of the cone, the section is
ii. When the cutting plane is inclined to the axis and is parallel to one of the generators of the cone, the sections is
iii. When the cutting plane cuts both the parts of the double cone, the section is
iv. When the cutting plane is perpendicular to the axis of the cone, the curve of the intersection obtained is

List II (Section name):
1. Circle
2. Hyperbola
3. Parabola
4. Ellipse

Choose the correct options:
Explanation
i -> 4 (Cuts all generators at angle heta > lpha: Ellipse), ii -> 3 (Parallel to one generator heta = lpha: Parabola), iii -> 2 (Cuts both nappes of double cone heta < lpha: Hyperbola), iv -> 1 (Perpendicular to axis heta=90∘heta = 90^\circ: Circle). Correct match: (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-2, (iv)-1.
i-4 (दीर्घवृत्त - सभी जनरेटरों को काटना), ii-3 (परवलय - एक जनरेटर के समानांतर), iii-2 (अतिपरवलय - दोनों शंकुओं को काटना), iv-1 (वृत्त - अक्ष के लंबवत)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2264📚Engineering Graphics, Projections & Solid GeometrySections of Solids Definitions
The terms used very frequently for sections of solids are given below:
1. The projection of the section on a plane parallel to the section plane is known as true shape of section.
2. Section planes are the imaginary planes which cut the objects completely or partially to show their invisible and interior details clearly.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both statements are core definitions in descriptive geometry: The projection onto a parallel plane shows the True Shape of the cut section (1), and Section Planes are imaginary cutting planes passing through solids to reveal internal cavities, ribs, and features (2). Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
कथन 1 और 2 दोनों सही हैं (काट तल के समानांतर प्रक्षेपण वास्तविक आकार दर्शाता है और काट तल आंतरिक विवरण देखने के लिए काल्पनिक तल हैं)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2265📚Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsAir Pollution Control Equipment
For controlling measures on air pollution in industries, which are the mechanical devices used in the manufacturing process?
Explanation
Industrial particulate and gaseous emissions are controlled using mechanical and physicochemical separation devices: Electrostatic Precipitators (ESPs for fine fly ash), Cyclone Separators (centrifugal dust collection), and Wet Scrubbers (venturi/spray towers for acidic gases and particulates)   ⟹  \implies All of the above.
उद्योगों में वायु प्रदूषण नियंत्रण के लिए इलेक्ट्रोस्टैटिक प्रीसिपिटेटर, चक्रवात विभाजक और वेट स्क्रबर सभी का उपयोग किया जाता है (All of the above)।
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2266📚Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsNoise Pollution Health Effects
Consider the following statements related to noise pollution:
1. The unpleasant, unwanted and disagreeable sound that causes discomfort for all living beings is called noise pollution.
2. Exposure to noise pollution adversely affects the physiological health of a person and not affects the psychological health of a person.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement 1 is the standard definition of noise pollution. Statement 2 is incorrect because chronic noise pollution severely impairs BOTH physiological health (hypertension, hearing loss, sleep disturbance) AND psychological health (stress, anxiety, cognitive impairment, irritability). Correct: Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
कथन 1 सही है और कथन 2 गलत है (ध्वनि प्रदूषण शारीरिक और मानसिक दोनों स्वास्थ्य को गंभीर रूप से प्रभावित करता है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2267📚Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsWater Pollutants and Sources Matching
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Pollutants of water pollution):
i. Pathogens or Infectious agents
ii. Sediment
iii. Oxygen demanding wastes
iv. Toxic compounds

List II (Sources of pollutants):
1. Industrial effluents and household cleansers
2. Sewage, Paper mill wastes, Animal feedlots
3. Surface run off
4. Human and animal wastes

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 4 (Pathogens: human/animal enteric wastes), ii -> 3 (Sediment: soil erosion surface runoff), iii -> 2 (Oxygen demanding wastes: domestic sewage, paper mill effluents), iv -> 1 (Toxic chemicals: industrial effluents and cleansers). Correct match: (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-2, (iv)-1.
i-4 (रोगजनक - मानव व पशु अपशिष्ट), ii-3 (तलछट - सतही अपवाह), iii-2 (ऑक्सीजन मांग अपशिष्ट - सीवेज/कागज मिल), iv-1 (विषाक्त यौगिक - औद्योगिक अपशिष्ट)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2268📚Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsKinematics of Rigid Bodies (Plane Motion)
_______ of a rigid body is easily demonstrated by rolling a right circular cylinder or disk along a flat surface in such a way that its geometric axis always remains parallel to itself.
Explanation
Plane Motion (General Plane Motion) of a rigid body occurs when all particles move along parallel planes; rolling a cylinder on a flat surface exemplifies combined planar translation of the center of mass and rotation about the axis.
समतल सतह पर सिलेंडर के लुढ़कने की गति दृढ़ पिंड की 'समतल गति' (Plane motion / जनरल प्लेन मोशन) को दर्शाती है।
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2269📚Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsRigid Body Kinematic Theorems Matching
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Concept/theory):
i. Chasle's theorem
ii. General plane motion
iii. Translation

List II (Explanation):
1. A rigid body is said to have translatory motion if an imaginary straight line drawn on the body remains parallel to the original position during its motion
2. Any plane motion which is neither a pure rotation nor a pure translation
3. Any general displacement of a rigid body can be represented by a combination of a translatory motion and rotational motion

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 3 (Chasles' Theorem: any general spatial rigid body displacement is equivalent to a translation plus a rotation about a screw axis), ii -> 2 (General plane motion: simultaneous translation and rotation), iii -> 1 (Translation: any line in body remains parallel to itself). Correct match: (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1.
i-3 (चास्ले का प्रमेय - स्थानांतरण व घूर्णन का संयोजन), ii-2 (सामान्य समतल गति), iii-1 (स्थानांतरण गति - रेखाएं समानांतर रहना)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2270📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesEM Wave Amplitude Relations
An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E=E0sin⁡(kx−ωt);B=B0sin⁡(kx−ωt)E = E_0 \sin(kx - \omega t); B = B_0 \sin(kx - \omega t). Then:
Explanation
In a vacuum plane EM wave, the ratio of electric to magnetic field amplitudes equals the speed of light: E0B0=c\frac{E_0}{B_0} = c. Since wave speed c=ωkc = \frac{\omega}{k}, we have E0B0=ωk  ⟹  E0k=B0ω\frac{E_0}{B_0} = \frac{\omega}{k} \implies E_0 k = B_0 \omega. Choice A.
निर्वात में E0/B0=c=ω/k  ⟹  E0k=B0ωE_0 / B_0 = c = \omega / k \implies E_0 k = B_0 \omega। सही विकल्प A है।
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2271📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesPoynting Vector & Power Density
The electric field component of a time harmonic plane EM wave travelling in a nonmagnetic lossless dielectric medium has an amplitude of 1 V/m. If the relative permittivity of the medium is 4, the magnitude of the time-average power density vector is:
Explanation
Intrinsic impedance of lossless medium: η=η0εr=120π4=120π2=60π Ω\eta = \frac{\eta_0}{\sqrt{\varepsilon_r}} = \frac{120\pi}{\sqrt{4}} = \frac{120\pi}{2} = 60\pi\,\Omega. Time-average Poynting power density: Savg=12E02η=12×1260π=1120π W/m2S_{avg} = \frac{1}{2} \frac{E_0^2}{\eta} = \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1^2}{60\pi} = \frac{1}{120\pi}\text{ W/m}^2. Choice C.
माध्यम की प्रतिबाधा η=60π Ω\eta = 60\pi\,\Omega। समय-औसत शक्ति घनत्व Savg=E022η=1120π W/m2S_{avg} = \frac{E_0^2}{2\eta} = \frac{1}{120\pi}\text{ W/m}^2। सही विकल्प C है।
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2272📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesQuantum Mechanics (1D Box Expectation Value)
A particle of mass "m" is confined to a one-dimensional box between x=0x = 0 and x=Lx = L. Find the expectation value of the position x of the particle in the ground state:
Explanation
For a particle in a 1D infinite square well, the probability density |\psi_1(x)|^2 = rac{2}{L}\sin^2\left( rac{\pi x}{L} ight) is symmetric about the center of the box; thus, the quantum expectation value of position \langle x angle = \int_0^L x |\psi_1(x)|^2 dx = rac{L}{2}.
1D बॉक्स में कण की स्थिति का प्रत्याशा मान (Expectation value) सममिति के कारण ⟨x⟩=L/2\langle x \rangle = L/2 होता है।
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2273📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesEM Wave Energy Equipartition
Consider the following statements regarding a linearly polarized, plane electromagnetic wave:
1. The electric field and the magnetic field have equal average values.
2. The electric energy and the magnetic energy have equal average values.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct: In an electromagnetic wave, energy is equally partitioned between electric and magnetic fields (u_E = rac{1}{2} arepsilon_0 E_{rms}^2 = u_B = rac{1}{2\mu_0} B_{rms}^2). Statement 1 is incorrect because the field magnitudes differ by the speed of light (E=cBE = c B). Correct: Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect.
कथन 2 सही है और कथन 1 गलत है (विद्युत और चुंबकीय ऊर्जा घनत्व समान होते हैं, परंतु E=cBE=cB होने के कारण क्षेत्र आयाम समान नहीं होते)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2274📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesPolarization by Nicol Prism
Polarized light can be produced by:
Explanation
A Nicol Prism (made of two optical calcite prisms cemented together with Canada balsam) produces plane-polarized light by utilizing the phenomenon of double refraction (birefringence) and eliminating the extraordinary ray via total internal reflection.
समतल ध्रुवित प्रकाश (Polarized light) का उत्पादन 'निकोल प्रिज्म' (Nicol Prism / कैल्साइट क्रिस्टल) द्वारा किया जाता है।
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2275📚Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesFraunhofer vs Fresnel Diffraction
In Fraunhofer diffraction, the source of light and the screen on which diffraction pattern is obtained is at _______ distance from the diffracting system. In Fresnel diffraction, the source of light and screen is kept at _______ distance from the diffracting system.
Explanation
In Fraunhofer Diffraction, the light source and screen are placed at an Infinite distance from the aperture/slit (using convex lenses for plane wave fronts); in Fresnel Diffraction, both source and screen are at Finite distances (spherical/cylindrical wave fronts). Choice A.
फ्रॉनहोफर विवर्तन में स्रोत और पर्दा 'अनंत' (Infinite) दूरी पर होते हैं, जबकि फ्रेस्नेल विवर्तन में वे 'परिमित' (Finite) दूरी पर होते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2276📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingWindows Run Commands
Which one of the following is typed in the Run dialog box to access MS word?
Explanation
In Microsoft Windows, typing 'winword' (or 'winword.exe') in the Run dialog box (Win+RWin + R) immediately launches Microsoft Word.
विंडोज के रन (Run) डायलॉग बॉक्स में MS Word खोलने के लिए 'winword' टाइप किया जाता है।
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2277📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingNetwork Topologies (Hybrid)
Which topology is the combination of multiple topologies, used for constructing a single large topology?
Explanation
A Hybrid Topology is an enterprise network architecture created by integrating two or more different fundamental network topologies (such as Star-Bus, Star-Ring, or Mesh-Star) into a single scalable network.
एक बड़ा नेटवर्क बनाने के लिए कई अलग-अलग टोपोलॉजी के संयोजन को 'हाइब्रिड टोपोलॉजी' (Hybrid topology) कहा जाता है।
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2278📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingOperating System Functions
The following statements are major functions of Operating System (OS):
1. Interpretation of commands and instructions
2. Providing a friendly interface between the computer and the user
3. Coordination and assignment of different hardware devices to the programs
4. Ensuring security of access to computer resources
Which are the statements considered a function of OS?
Explanation
An Operating System performs all these foundational management functions: Command interpretation (1), User Interface GUI/CLI (2), Resource/Device management and process scheduling (3), and Security/Access control (4)   ⟹  \implies 1, 2, 3 and 4. Choice D.
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम कमांड निष्पादन, यूजर इंटरफेस, हार्डवेयर प्रबंधन और सुरक्षा नियंत्रण सभी कार्य करता है (1, 2, 3 and 4)।
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2279📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingProgramming Control Structures
Based on the type of control structures, the following statements are given:
1. Selection structure: In the selection structure, two sets of statement blocks are written in a program along with one or more conditions. The execution of a particular block's statements occurs only if the conditional statement specified at the beginning of the block is true. A selection structure is also known as looping structure.
2. Repetition structure: In the repetition structure, a block of two or more instructions is specified along with a conditional statement. The execution of these instructions is repeated many times if the conditional statement is true. This structure is also known as branching structure.
Based on the above, which statements are correct?
Explanation
Both statements contain false aliases: Selection structure is Branching/Decision (NOT looping), and Repetition structure is Looping/Iteration (NOT branching). Thus, both statements are technically incorrect as stated. Choice D.
दोनों कथन गलत हैं क्योंकि चयन संरचना को ब्रांचिंग (लूपिंग नहीं) और पुनरावृत्ति संरचना को लूपिंग (ब्रांचिंग नहीं) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2280📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingComputer Basic Operations Matching
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Operation):
1. Store data
2. Processing data
3. Control the workflow

List - II (Description):
i. Performing arithmetic, and logical operations on data in order to convert them into useful information
ii. Directs the manner and sequence in which all of the operations (input, store, process, output) are performed.
iii. Saving data and instructions so that they are available for processing as and when required

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> iii (Storage: saving data and instructions for future processing), 2 -> i (Processing: ALU arithmetic and logical operations), 3 -> ii (Control Unit: directing timing and instruction execution sequence). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii.
1-iii (डेटा संग्रहण - मेमोरी में सहेजना), 2-i (डेटा प्रोसेसिंग - अंकगणितीय/तार्किक संचालन), 3-ii (वर्कफ़्लो नियंत्रण - नियंत्रण इकाई द्वारा क्रम संचालन)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2281📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingSoftware Taxonomy Matching
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Software):
i. System management programs
ii. System development programs
iii. Standard application programs
iv. Unique application programs

List - II (Task Performed):
1. designed for performing common application jobs
2. developed by the users themselves to support their specific needs
3. developing and executing application software (compilers, debuggers)
4. managing both the hardware and software systems (OS, device drivers)

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 4 (System management: OS, utilities managing hardware/software), ii -> 3 (System development: CASE tools, compilers, IDEs), iii -> 1 (Standard application: word processors, spreadsheets), iv -> 2 (Unique customized application: bespoke business software). Correct match: (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-1, (iv)-2.
i-4 (सिस्टम प्रबंधन - OS), ii-3 (सिस्टम विकास - कंपाइलर), iii-1 (मानक अनुप्रयोग - वर्ड/एक्सेल), iv-2 (विशिष्ट अनुप्रयोग - उपयोगकर्ता-विशिष्ट सॉफ्टवेयर)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2282📚Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingHistory of Internet Milestones
Based on the history of internet, arrange the following facilities in chronological order of development (developed or introduced):
ARPANET, NSFNET, X.25, Eunet, World Wide Web
Explanation
Chronological evolution of networking: ARPANET (1969) −>-> X.25 Packet Switching Standard (1976) −>-> EUnet European Unix Network (1982) −>-> NSFNET high-speed backbone (1985) −>-> World Wide Web by Tim Berners-Lee (1989–1991). Correct sequence: ARPANET, X.25, Eunet, NSFNET, World Wide Web (Choice C).
इंटरनेट का कालानुक्रम: ARPANET (1969) −>-> X.25 (1976) −>-> Eunet (1982) −>-> NSFNET (1985) −>-> World Wide Web (1989/91)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2283📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeVector Calculus (Green's Theorem)
Green's theorem is used to:
Explanation
Green's Theorem in the plane states that the counterclockwise line integral around a simple closed curve CC equals the double surface integral over the enclosed plane region DD in the xy-plane: ∮C(P dx+Q dy)=∬D(∂Q∂x−∂P∂y)dx dy\oint_C (P\,dx + Q\,dy) = \iint_D \left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial P}{\partial y}\right) dx\,dy. Choice A.
ग्रीन का प्रमेय xy-समतल में एक बंद वक्र के 'रेखा समाकलन को उसी xy-समतल पर द्वि-सतह समाकलन में परिवर्तित' करता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2284📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeDouble Integrals Volume
Find the volume bounded by xy-plane, the cylinder x2+y2=1x^2 + y^2 = 1 and the plane x+y+z=3x + y + z = 3:
Explanation
Volume V=∬Rz dx dy=∬x2+y2≤1(3−x−y) dx dyV = \iint_R z\,dx\,dy = \iint_{x^2+y^2 \le 1} (3 - x - y)\,dx\,dy. By symmetry in polar coordinates, ∬x dx dy=0\iint x\,dx\,dy = 0 and ∬y dx dy=0\iint y\,dx\,dy = 0. Thus, V=3×Area of base circle=3×(π×12)=3πV = 3 \times \text{Area of base circle} = 3 \times (\pi \times 1^2) = 3\pi. Choice C.
आयतन V=∬(3−x−y) dx dy=3π(12)−0−0=3πV = \iint (3 - x - y)\,dx\,dy = 3\pi (1^2) - 0 - 0 = 3\pi। सही विकल्प C है।
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2285📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeStokes vs Green Theorem Relationship
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Green's theorem is a particular case of Stokes theorem.
Statement 2: Stokes' theorem is a particular case of Green's theorem.
Statement 3: Both Stokes' theorem and Green's theorem are same.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Green's Theorem in a plane is a direct 2-dimensional planar special case of Stokes' Theorem (applied when the surface is flat and restricted to the xy-plane where the surface normal is k^\hat{k}). Correct: Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect.
कथन 1 सही है और कथन 2 व 3 गलत हैं (ग्रीन का प्रमेय स्टोक्स प्रमेय का एक विशेष 2D समतलीय रूप है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2286📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeIndian Freedom Movement (Bardoli)
Mahatma Gandhi gave the title of 'Sardar' to Vallabhbhai Patel for his great organizational skill in:
Explanation
The women of Bardoli and Mahatma Gandhi bestowed the title 'Sardar' (Leader/Chief) on Vallabhbhai Patel for his dynamic leadership and organizational success in the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 against unjust British land revenue taxation.
वल्लभभाई पटेल को 'सरदार' की उपाधि महात्मा गांधी और बारडोली की महिलाओं द्वारा 'बारडोली सत्याग्रह' (1928) के सफल नेतृत्व के लिए दी गई थी।
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2287📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgePublic Health & Diseases (Cholera)
Which disease spreads through open defecation and fecal contamination of drinking water?
Explanation
Cholera (caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae) is an acute diarrheal waterborne disease transmitted via the fecal-oral route through water or food contaminated with human feces resulting from open defecation.
खुले में शौच और दूषित पानी के माध्यम से फैलने वाला प्रमुख जल-जनित संक्रामक रोग 'हैजा' (Cholera / विब्रियो कोलेरी) है।
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2288📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeIndian River Valley Projects (Srisailam)
The 770 MW (7 x 110 MW) Srisailam Hydro Electric Project is constructed across the river:
Explanation
The Srisailam Dam and Hydroelectric Project (one of India's largest hydropower stations) is constructed across the Krishna River in the Nallamala Hills on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
श्रीशैलम जलविद्युत परियोजना (Srisailam Hydro Electric Project) 'कृष्णा नदी' (Krishna River) पर निर्मित है।
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2289📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeLakes of India (Prashar Lake)
In which district of Himachal Pradesh 'Prashar Lake' is situated?
Explanation
Prashar Lake (altitude 2,730 m, featuring a three-tiered pagoda temple and a floating circular island) is located in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh.
हिमाचल प्रदेश की प्रसिद्ध 'पराशर झील' (Prashar Lake / तैरते द्वीप वाली झील) 'मंडी' (Mandi) जिले में स्थित है।
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2290📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeIndian History & National Symbols
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The famous Lucknow pact of 1916 was signed between Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Muhammad Ali Jinnah.
Statement 2: Green color in Indian National Flag signifies fertility, growth and auspiciousness of the land.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both statements are historically correct: The 1916 Lucknow Pact bringing joint cooperation between Indian National Congress and All-India Muslim League was drafted primarily by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Muhammad Ali Jinnah (1), and Dr. S. Radhakrishnan noted that the green band on the National Flag represents relation to the soil, plant life, fertility, and auspiciousness (2). Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
कथन 1 और 2 दोनों सही हैं (लखनऊ समझौता 1916 तिलक और जिन्ना के प्रयासों से हुआ और तिरंगे का हरा रंग समृद्धि व उर्वरता का प्रतीक है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2291📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeInternational Relations (BIMSTEC)
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization that was established on 06 June 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration.
Statement 2: There are five South Asian nations participating in BIMSTEC: Nepal, India, Maldives, Iran, Bhutan
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: BIMSTEC was founded on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. Statement 2 is false because its 7 members are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand (Maldives and Iran are NOT members). Correct: Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
कथन 1 सही है और कथन 2 गलत है (BIMSTEC की स्थापना 1997 में बैंकॉक घोषणा द्वारा हुई थी; मालदीव और ईरान इसके सदस्य नहीं हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2292📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeEpidemiology (COVID-19 Isolation)
Which of the following statements regarding Isolation during COVID-19 is/are correct?
1. It is used for people suffering from COVID-19 symptoms or who have tested positive for the virus.
2. In isolation means being separated from other people, mainly in a medical facility where you can receive clinical care.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both statements are standard epidemiological definitions: Isolation separates confirmed infected symptomatic or test-positive individuals from healthy populations to stop transmission (1), either at home or in dedicated healthcare facilities with medical monitoring (2). Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
कथन 1 और 2 दोनों सही हैं (आइसोलेशन संक्रमित या लक्षण वाले व्यक्तियों को अलग रखने और चिकित्सकीय देखभाल प्रदान करने की प्रक्रिया है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2293📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeOfficial Languages of Indian States
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (State/UT):
1. Meghalaya
2. Daman and Diu
3. Nagaland

List II (Official Language):
i. English
ii. Konkani / Gujarati
iii. Garo and Khasi

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> iii (Meghalaya: English is official language alongside associate official Garo and Khasi), 2 -> ii (Daman and Diu: Konkani/Gujarati), 3 -> i (Nagaland: English as sole official language). Correct match: (1)-iii, (2)-ii, (3)-i.
1-iii (मेघालय - गारो व खासी), 2-ii (दमन और दीव - कोंकणी/गुजराती), 3-i (नागालैंड - अंग्रेजी)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2294📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeIndian Nobel Laureates Matching
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Recipients):
i. C.V. Raman
ii. Kailash Satyarthi
iii. Har Gobind Khorana
iv. Amartya Sen

List - II (Nobel Prize Category):
1. Physiology or Medicine
2. Economic Sciences
3. Nobel Peace Prize
4. Physics

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 4 (Sir C.V. Raman: Nobel Prize in Physics 1930 for Raman Effect), ii -> 3 (Kailash Satyarthi: Nobel Peace Prize 2014 for Bachpan Bachao Andolan), iii -> 1 (Dr. Har Gobind Khorana: Nobel Prize in Physiology/Medicine 1968 for genetic code interpretation), iv -> 2 (Amartya Sen: Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences 1998 for welfare economics). Correct match: (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-1, (iv)-2.
i-4 (सी.वी. रमन - भौतिकी 1930), ii-3 (कैलाश सत्यार्थी - शांति 2014), iii-1 (हरगोविंद खुराना - चिकित्सा 1968), iv-2 (अमर्त्य सेन - अर्थशास्त्र 1998)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2295📚Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeIndian Freedom Struggle 1946 Timeline
Consider the following events: Choose the correct chronological sequence:
1. Royal Indian Navy Revolt
2. Announcement of Cabinet Mission
3. Interim Government Formation
Choose the correct sequence:
Explanation
Chronological timeline of 1946 events in Indian independence: 1. Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny / Revolt = 18 February 1946 −>-> 2. British Government Announcement of Cabinet Mission Plan = 19 February / 16 May 1946 −>-> 3. Formation of the Interim Government of India headed by Jawaharlal Nehru = 2 September 1946. Correct sequence: 1, 2, 3 (Choice C).
1946 के ऐतिहासिक घटनाक्रम का सही कालानुक्रम: 1. रॉयल इंडियन नेवी विद्रोह (फरवरी 1946) −>-> 2. कैबिनेट मिशन की घोषणा (मार्च/मई 1946) −>-> 3. अंतरिम सरकार का गठन (सितंबर 1946) (1, 2, 3)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2296📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentRole and Status (Ralph Linton)
Who has divided role and status into two namely, ascribed and achieved?
Explanation
American anthropologist and sociologist Ralph Linton first formalized the classical distinction between 'Ascribed Status' (assigned at birth by kinship/age/sex) and 'Achieved Status' (attained through individual effort, talent, and merit) in his book The Study of Man (1936).
प्रस्थिति (Status) को 'प्रदत्त' (Ascribed) और 'अर्जित' (Achieved) में विभाजित करने वाले समाजशास्त्री 'राल्फ लिंटन' (Ralph Linton / 1936) हैं।
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2297📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentDisaster Management & Hazards
Which of the following are natural hazards?
Explanation
Natural hazards are extreme geophysical, meteorological, or hydrological phenomena that occur naturally: Earthquakes (tectonic), Cyclones (atmospheric), and Landslides (geomorphic gravity mass wasting) are all natural hazards. Choice D.
प्राकृतिक आपदाओं और खतरों में भूकंप, चक्रवात और भूस्खलन सभी शामिल हैं (All of these)।
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2298📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentWorld-Systems Theory (Wallerstein)
According to Immanuel Wallerstein, which are the three types of Economic Dominance in Capitalist Society?
Explanation
In Immanuel Wallerstein's World-Systems Theory, a core state achieves hegemony through a sequential three-stage succession of economic dominance: 1. Productivity Dominance (manufacturing efficiency) −>-> 2. Commercial / Trade Dominance (global logistics control) −>-> 3. Financial Dominance (banking and investment hegemony). Choice C.
इमैनुएल वालरस्टीन के विश्व-प्रणाली सिद्धांत के अनुसार हेजेमनी के तीन आर्थिक प्रभुत्व: 'उत्पादकता प्रभुत्व, व्यापार प्रभुत्व और वित्तीय प्रभुत्व' (Productivity, Trade, and Finance dominance) हैं।
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2299📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentModern Sociological Theory (Risk Society)
Who proposed the idea of Risk Society?
Explanation
German sociologist Ulrich Beck pioneered the sociological concept of 'Risk Society' (Risikogesellschaft, 1986), arguing that modern industrial societies produce manufactured technological, environmental, and chemical hazards that transcend national and class boundaries.
'जोखिम समाज' (Risk Society) की प्रसिद्ध समाजशास्त्रीय अवधारणा जर्मन समाजशास्त्री 'उलरिच बेक' (Ulrich Beck / 1986) ने प्रस्तुत की थी।
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2300📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentPanchayati Raj & Community Development
Who appointed Balwant Rai Mehta for examining community development programme in 1957?
Explanation
The Government of India under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru (via the Committee on Plan Projects) appointed the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in January 1957 to examine and evaluate the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and National Extension Service.
1957 में सामुदायिक विकास कार्यक्रम के मूल्यांकन के लिए बलवंत राय मेहता समिति की नियुक्ति 'पंडित जवाहरलाल नेहरू' सरकार द्वारा की गई थी।
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2301📚Neuropsychology, Clinical Assessment & De-Addiction InterventionsPsychiatric Clinical Trials (CATIE)
Expand CATIE:
Explanation
CATIE stands for the Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness Study, a landmark NIMH multicenter clinical trial comparing the effectiveness of first-generation and second-generation antipsychotic medications in schizophrenia.
CATIE का पूर्ण रूप 'क्लिनिकल एंटीसाइकोटिक ट्रायल्स ऑफ इंटरवेंशन इफेक्टिवनेस स्टडी' (Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness Study) है।
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2302📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyThanatology & Grief Stages (Kübler-Ross)
Which of the following are NOT one of the stages of death and dying given by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross?
Explanation
In Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's landmark model (On Death and Dying, 1969), the five stages of grief (DABDA) are: 1. Denial, 2. Anger, 3. Bargaining, 4. Depression, and 5. Acceptance. 'Despair' is NOT one of the five stages.
एलिजाबेथ कुबलर-रॉस के मृत्यु और शोक के पांच चरणों (DABDA) में डिनायल, एंगर, बार्गेनिंग, डिप्रेशन और एक्सेप्टेंस शामिल हैं; 'निराशा' (Despair) इसका हिस्सा नहीं है।
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2303📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyHumanistic Psychotherapy (Carl Rogers)
Person centered therapy was developed by:
Explanation
Person-Centered Therapy (Client-Centered Therapy) was established by humanistic psychologist Carl Rogers, based on the three core therapist conditions: Unconditional Positive Regard, Empathic Understanding, and Congruence / Genuineness.
व्यक्ति-केंद्रित चिकित्सा (Person-centered therapy / क्लाइंट-केंद्रित थेरेपी) का विकास मानवतावादी मनोवैज्ञानिक 'कार्ल रोजर्स' (Carl Rogers) ने किया था।
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2304📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyHistory of Psychiatry
The term "Psychiatry" was coined by:
Explanation
German physician and anatomist Johann Christian Reil first coined the term 'Psychiatry' (Psychiatrie, from Greek psyche 'soul' and iatreia 'healing') in 1808.
'मनोचिकित्सा' (Psychiatry) शब्द की रचना 1808 में जर्मन चिकित्सक 'जोहान क्रिश्चियन रीइल' (Johann Christian Reil) ने की थी।
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2305📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyPioneers in Indian Psychiatry
Who was the first woman psychiatrist of India?
Explanation
Dr. Mambalikalathil Sarada Menon (1923–2021) was India's first female psychiatrist, the longest-serving head of the Institute of Mental Health in Chennai, and founder of the Schizophrenia Research Foundation (SCARF).
भारत की पहली महिला मनोचिकित्सक 'डॉ. ममबालिकलाथिल शारदा मेनन' (M. Sarada Menon / SCARF संस्थापक) थीं।
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2306📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentSociology of Marginalization in Education
Children coming from marginalized families are often neglected in a classroom even when they perform well. Which of the following set of reasons are responsible for such behaviour in a classroom?
1) Teachers are often prejudiced towards children belonging to marginalized groups.
2) There is a lack of sensitization among the peers towards diversity and the social context of such children.
3) Children from marginalized groups are denied education under Right to Education Act 2009.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Reasons 1 and 2 reflect institutional and social biases: implicit caste/class prejudices among educators (1) and lack of diversity sensitization among peers (2). Statement 3 is false because the RTE Act 2009 legally mandates free, compulsory, and inclusive education for all marginalized children. Correct: 1 and 2 only.
कक्षा में हाशिए के बच्चों की उपेक्षा के कारणों में शिक्षकों के पूर्वाग्रह (1) और सहपाठियों में संवेदनशीलता की कमी (2) शामिल हैं (RTE अधिनियम शिक्षा से वंचित नहीं करता)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2307📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyCriminology (White Collar Crime)
Who mostly commits 'White Collar Crimes'?
Explanation
As famously defined by sociologist Edwin H. Sutherland (1939), a White-Collar Crime is 'a crime committed by a person of respectability and high social status in the course of his occupation' (e.g. corporate fraud, embezzlement, insider trading).
सफेदपोश अपराध (White Collar Crimes) मुख्य रूप से 'उच्च सामाजिक प्रतिष्ठा और पद वाले व्यक्तियों' (Persons of high status) द्वारा अपने पेशे के दौरान किए जाते हैं।
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2308📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentEconomic Sectors Matching
Match Column A with Column B and select the correct answer:
Column A:
i. Cottage Industry
ii. Primary sector
iii. Secondary sector
iv. Tertiary sector

Column B:
1. Trade
2. Construction
3. Mining
4. Bidi industry

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 4 (Cottage Industry: small-scale home-based manual rolling like Bidi industry), ii -> 3 (Primary sector: natural resource extraction such as Mining/agriculture), iii -> 2 (Secondary sector: manufacturing and Construction), iv -> 1 (Tertiary sector: services, commerce, and Trade). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.
i-4 (कुटीर उद्योग - बीड़ी उद्योग), ii-3 (प्राथमिक क्षेत्र - खनन), iii-2 (द्वितीयक क्षेत्र - निर्माण), iv-1 (तृतीयक क्षेत्र - व्यापार)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2309📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentSociocultural Evolution of Societies
Choose the correct sequence of following in order of increasing complexity:
Hunting, Gathering, Agrarian, Pastoral, Industrial and Post-industrial societies
Explanation
Gerhard Lenski's sociocultural evolutionary sequence of human societies in order of technological complexity is: Hunting and Gathering −>-> Pastoral / Horticultural −>-> Agrarian (Agricultural) −>-> Industrial −>-> Post-industrial societies (Choice C).
बढ़ती सामाजिक जटिलता का सही समाजशास्त्रीय क्रम: 'शिकार व संग्रहण (Hunting) −>-> पशुपालक (Pastoral) −>-> कृषक (Agrarian) −>-> औद्योगिक व उत्तर-औद्योगिक समाज' (विकल्प C)।
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2310📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentSociology of Religion (Max Müller)
Which one of the following Max Muller believed to be the earliest form of religion?
Explanation
German philologist and comparative mythologist Friedrich Max Müller proposed that 'Naturism' (the awe, wonder, and personification of overpowering natural phenomena like the sun, thunder, wind, and dawn) was the earliest origin of religious thought.
मैक्स मूलर के अनुसार धर्म का सबसे प्रारंभिक रूप 'प्रकृतिवाद' (Naturism / प्राकृतिक शक्तियों की पूजा) था।
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2311📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyHuman Rights Institutions
When was UN Commission on Human Rights established?
Explanation
The United Nations Commission on Human Rights (UNCHR) was established in 1946 by the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), under the initial chairmanship of Eleanor Roosevelt, which drafted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR 1948).
संयुक्त राष्ट्र मानवाधिकार आयोग (UN Commission on Human Rights) की स्थापना '1946' में ECOSOC द्वारा की गई थी।
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2312📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicySocial Case Work (Mary Richmond)
Mary Richmond's "Social Diagnosis" can be considered as first book of:
Explanation
Mary Ellen Richmond's landmark text Social Diagnosis (published in 1917) formulated the first scientific, methodological, and evidence-based foundation for Social Case Work practice.
मैरी रिचमंड की प्रसिद्ध पुस्तक 'सोशल डायग्नोसिस' (Social Diagnosis / 1917) को 'सोशल केस वर्क' (Social Case Work / सामाजिक वैयक्तिक कार्य) की पहली वैज्ञानिक पुस्तक माना जाता है।
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2313📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyHistory of Social Work Education in India
When was the first professional school of Social Work, Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate School of Social Work set up in Bombay?
Explanation
India's first professional school of social work, the Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate School of Social Work (now Tata Institute of Social Sciences - TISS), was established in Bombay in 1936 by the Sir Dorabji Tata Trust under Founding Director Dr. Clifford Manshardt.
भारत का पहला पेशेवर सोशल वर्क कॉलेज 'सर दोराबजी टाटा ग्रेजुएट स्कूल ऑफ सोशल वर्क' (वर्तमान में TISS) बॉम्बे में वर्ष '1936' में स्थापित हुआ था।
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2314📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyGroup Dynamics (Tuckman Norming Stage)
In Tuckman's model, groups at the _______ stage develop guidelines and standards of acceptable behaviours.
Explanation
In Bruce Tuckman's 5-stage model of group development (Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning), the Norming stage is where group cohesion develops, interpersonal conflicts are resolved, and formal/informal norms, guidelines, and standards of behavior are established.
टकमैन के समूह विकास मॉडल में, समूह 'नॉर्मिंग' (Norming) चरण में दिशानिर्देश, नियम और स्वीकार्य व्यवहार के मानक विकसित करते हैं।
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2315📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentModels of Development
Which of the following model of development is based on free market and competitiveness?
Explanation
The Western Liberal (Capitalist / Neoliberal) Model of Development is fundamentally grounded in laissez-faire free-market enterprise, privatization, deregulation, supply-and-demand price mechanisms, and competitive open markets.
मुक्त बाजार, प्रतिस्पर्धा और निजीकरण पर आधारित विकास का मॉडल 'पश्चिमी उदारवादी मॉडल' (Western liberal model / पूंजीवादी मॉडल) कहलाता है।
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2316📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicySocial Welfare Administration Functions
Match Column A with Column B and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column A:
i. Plan Document
ii. Performance Appraisal
iii. Outline of draft of work to be accomplished
iv. Establishing coordinated and collaborative relations

Column B:
1) Staff recruitment
2) Planning
3) Networking
4) Budgeting

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
i -> 2 (Plan Document: core output of Planning), ii -> 1 (Performance Appraisal: human resource management / Staff recruitment & evaluation), iii -> 4 (Draft outline of resource expenditures: Budgeting), iv -> 3 (Coordinated multi-agency collaborative ties: Networking). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3.
i-2 (योजना दस्तावेज - नियोजन), ii-1 (प्रदर्शन मूल्यांकन - स्टाफिंग/एचआर), iii-4 (कार्य का मसौदा - बजटिंग), iv-3 (सहयोगात्मक संबंध - नेटवर्किंग)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2317📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentPublic Policy & NITI Aayog
NITI Aayog can transform the development agenda of India by:
Explanation
The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog, est. 2015) acts as the premier policy think tank promoting cooperative federalism through bottom-up planning, citizen-centric pro-active governance, empowerment of marginalized groups, and evidence-based policy inputs   ⟹  \implies All of the above.
नीति आयोग (NITI Aayog) वंचित वर्गों के सशक्तीकरण, जनभागीदारी और नीतिगत इनपुट प्रदान करके भारत के विकास एजेंडे को रूपांतरित करता है (All of the above)।
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2318📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyCorporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
Which of these is/are arguments against Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?
Explanation
Classical neoclassical economic critiques against mandatory CSR (e.g. Milton Friedman) argue that corporations lack specialized social engineering skills (B), CSR costs are passed on to consumers as higher prices (C), and it gives business managers social power without democratic accountability (A)   ⟹  \implies All of the above.
कॉर्पोरेट सामाजिक उत्तरदायित्व (CSR) के विरुद्ध तर्कों में जवाबदेही के बिना शक्ति, सामाजिक कौशल की कमी और उपभोक्ताओं पर लागत का बोझ सभी शामिल हैं (All of the above)।
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2319📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyHuman Resource Management (Soft vs Hard HRM)
A distinction can be made between hard and soft types of HRM. Soft HRM can be characterised by:
Explanation
While 'Hard HRM' treats employees instrumentally as economic resources/costs to be minimized, 'Soft HRM' emphasizes developmental human relations, continuous employee growth, open communication, and fostering a deep Mutual Commitment between employers and employees toward shared organizational goals.
'सॉफ्ट एचआरएम' (Soft HRM) की मुख्य विशेषता 'संगठन के लक्ष्यों के प्रति कर्मचारियों और नियोक्ताओं की आपसी प्रतिबद्धता और विश्वास' (Mutual commitment) है।
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2320📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyWelfare Schemes & Social Development Matching
Match the following government flagship schemes with their primary objective:
Column A:
i. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
ii. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
iii. Pradhan mantri Awas Yojana
iv. Pradhan mantra Mahila Shakti Kendra

Column B:
1) Education
2) Participation and Empowerment
3) Self-employment
4) Housing

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
i -> 3 (SGSY: rural micro-enterprises and self-employment), ii -> 1 (BBBP: girl child education and sex ratio), iii -> 4 (PMAY: affordable housing for all), iv -> 2 (Mahila Shakti Kendra: grassroots women empowerment and community participation). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
i-3 (स्वर्णजयंती ग्राम स्वरोजगार - स्वरोजगार), ii-1 (बेटी बचाओ बेटी पढ़ाओ - शिक्षा), iii-4 (पीएम आवास - आवास), iv-2 (महिला शक्ति केंद्र - भागीदारी व सशक्तिकरण)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2321📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyDisaster Management Legislation
In which year the Disaster Management Act was enacted in India?
Explanation
The Disaster Management Act, 2005 (Act No. 53 of 2005) was passed by the Parliament of India on 23 December 2005 to establish institutional frameworks including the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and NDRF.
भारत में राष्ट्रीय आपदा प्रबंधन अधिनियम (Disaster Management Act) वर्ष '2005' में पारित किया गया था।
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2322📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyChild Welfare Policies (NPAC)
The National Plan of Action for Children (NPAC) was launched in which year?
Explanation
The National Plan of Action for Children (NPAC) was formulated and released by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India in 2016, prioritizing survival, health, nutrition, education, protection, and participation.
बच्चों के लिए राष्ट्रीय कार्य योजना (NPAC) महिला एवं बाल विकास मंत्रालय द्वारा वर्ष '2016' में शुरू की गई थी।
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2323📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyPsychoanalysis (Pleasure Principle)
In Freudian psychoanalysis, the instinctual drive seeking immediate gratification of needs is known as the:
Explanation
In Sigmund Freud's structural psychoanalytic model, the Id operates exclusively on the Pleasure Principle—demanding immediate release of tension and instantaneous gratification of instinctual biological impulses without regard for external reality.
सिगमंड फ्रायड के अनुसार तत्काल संतुष्टि की मांग करने वाली अचेतन प्रेरणा 'आनंद सिद्धांत' (Pleasure principle / इड) कहलाती है।
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2324📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyPsychoanalysis (Libido Energy)
Freud believed that human behaviour is primarily motivated by the psychosexual energy he called:
Explanation
Freud identified 'Libido' as the underlying psychic and instinctual psychosexual energy that drives Eros (the life instinct), human desire, emotional attachment, and psychological development.
फ्रायड के अनुसार मानव व्यवहार को प्रेरित करने वाली मूलभूत मनो-लैंगिक ऊर्जा को 'लिबिडो' (Libido) कहा जाता है।
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2325📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyDevelopmental Theories (Ethology)
Which theory says that there are sensitive or critical periods of development in human life?
Explanation
Ethological Theory of Development (founded by Konrad Lorenz and John Bowlby) posits that human development is shaped by evolutionary biology and features specific Critical / Sensitive Periods during which the presence or absence of certain experiences leaves an indelible imprint.
'इथोलॉजिकल सिद्धांत' (Ethological theory / बॉल्बी व लोरेंज) यह मानता है कि मानव विकास में जैविक रूप से संवेदनशील या महत्वपूर्ण अवधियां (Sensitive periods) होती हैं।
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2326📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyPsychopathology (Bipolar Disorder)
An affective mood disorder in which a person swings from one mood extreme (mania) to another (depression) is classified as:
Explanation
Bipolar Disorder (formerly manic-depressive illness) is an affective psychiatric disorder characterized by cyclical, alternating episodes of extreme mood elevation (mania/hypomania) and severe clinical depression.
एक ऐसा भावात्मक विकार जिसमें व्यक्ति का मूड एक छोर (उन्माद/मेनिया) से दूसरे छोर (अवसाद) में झूलता है, 'बाइपोलर डिसऑर्डर' (Bipolar disorder) कहलाता है।
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2327📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentSociology of Socialization Process
An individual becomes a member of a social group and learns cultural norms through the process of:
Explanation
Socialization is the lifelong sociological and psychological process through which individuals internalize the values, beliefs, languages, social roles, and behavioral expectations of their culture to become functioning members of society.
वह प्रक्रिया जिसके माध्यम से व्यक्ति सामाजिक समूह का सदस्य बनता है और सांस्कृतिक मानदंडों को सीखता है, 'समाजीकरण' (Socialization) कहलाती है।
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2328📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentOccupational Health & Hazards
Which of the following is a biological hazard?
Explanation
Biological Hazards (Biohazards) are biological agents—including Viruses, bacteria, fungi, toxins, and parasites—that pose a direct infectious threat to the health of living organisms.
जैविक खतरों (Biological hazard) में रोग उत्पन्न करने वाले संक्रामक सूक्ष्मजीव जैसे 'वायरस' (Virus / जीवाणु) शामिल हैं।
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2329📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyOccupational Health and Safety Policies
Consider the goals of the safety policy of a company, at once designing also the responsibilities and authority for their achievement:
1. Safety of employees and the public at large
2. Efforts to be made to involve all managers, supervisors and employees in the development and implementation of safety procedures.
3. Clearing of all caveats that may tell on keeping the morale of the employees high.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
An effective Occupational Health and Safety Policy incorporates all three foundational objectives: safeguarding workplace and public safety (1), participatory involvement of leadership and workers across all operational levels (2), and eliminating safety hazards while maintaining organizational morale (3). Correct: 1, 2 and 3.
कंपनी की सुरक्षा नीति के उद्देश्यों में कर्मचारियों व जनता की सुरक्षा (1), सभी प्रबंधकों व कर्मचारियों की भागीदारी (2) और उच्च मनोबल बनाए रखना (3) सभी शामिल हैं (1, 2 and 3)।
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2330📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicySocial Project Management Lifecycle
What is the logical sequence of preparing and managing a social project?
Explanation
The logical project management life cycle in social development follows the sequential progression: 1. Selection (Problem identification) −>-> 2. Planning (Strategy & design) −>-> 3. Execution (Implementation) −>-> 4. Follow-up −>-> 5. Evaluation (Outcome assessment) −>-> 6. Recording (Documentation). Choice C.
सामाजिक परियोजना प्रबंधन का सही तार्किक क्रम: 'चयन (Selection) −>-> नियोजन (Planning) −>-> निष्पादन (Execution) −>-> फॉलो-अप −>-> मूल्यांकन (Evaluation) −>-> रिकॉर्डिंग' (विकल्प C)।
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2331📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyIndustrial Relations & Employee Relations
'Employee relations' include which of the following?
1. Organisation's efforts to manage relationships between employer and employees.
2. The programs to prevent and resolve problems arising from work situations.
3. Relations between management and trade unions.
4. Organisation's structure of managing rapport between boss and staff.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Employee Relations (ER / Industrial Relations) encompasses: formal management-worker relationships (1), structured conflict resolution and grievance redressal mechanisms (2), and collective bargaining relations between management and organized Trade Unions (3). Correct: 1, 2 and 3.
कर्मचारी संबंधों (Employee relations) में नियोक्ता-कर्मचारी संबंध (1), कार्यस्थल विवाद समाधान (2) और ट्रेड यूनियनों के साथ संबंध (3) शामिल हैं (1, 2 and 3)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2332📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyHumanistic Psychology (Self-Actualization)
In the humanistic tradition, which was a common central factor of interest for Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow?
Explanation
Both Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers shared the core conviction that the primary motivating human drive is Self-Actualization—the innate tendency of every human being to develop, actualize, and realize their full unique human potential.
मानवतावादी मनोविज्ञान में कार्ल रोजर्स और अब्राहम मास्लो दोनों का साझा केंद्रीय विषय 'आत्म-साक्षात्कार' (Self-actualization / पूर्ण क्षमता का विकास) था।
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2333📚Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsResearch Methodology (Experimental Design)
In which research method does the researcher have maximum control over the manipulation of the Independent Variable (IV)?
Explanation
The True Experimental Method provides the highest degree of scientific control, enabling the researcher to directly manipulate the Independent Variable (IV), randomly assign participants, and control extraneous variables to establish cause-and-effect relationships.
शोधकर्ता का स्वतंत्र चर (Independent Variable) के हेरफेर पर अधिकतम नियंत्रण 'प्रयोगात्मक विधि' (Experimental method) में होता है।
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2334📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologySocial Psychology (Social Facilitation)
The social psychological concept which implies that working in the presence of others improves task performance is called:
Explanation
Social Facilitation (first observed by Norman Triplett in 1898 and expanded by Robert Zajonc) refers to the tendency for the mere presence of co-actors or passive observers to enhance and improve performance on simple, routine, or well-learned tasks.
दूसरों की उपस्थिति में किसी व्यक्ति के कार्य प्रदर्शन में सुधार होने की सामाजिक-मनोवैज्ञानिक परिघटना 'सामाजिक सुगमीकरण' (Social facilitation) कहलाती है।
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2335📚Neuropsychology, Clinical Assessment & De-Addiction InterventionsNeuropsychology (Broca's Area)
After a traumatic brain injury if a patient's motor speech production is affected (expressive aphasia) while speech comprehension remains intact, which part of the brain is most likely affected?
Explanation
Broca's Area (located in the left posterior inferior frontal gyrus) controls motor speech articulation and output; damage results in Broca's Expressive Aphasia (halting, non-fluent speech with preserved language comprehension). Wernicke's area controls receptive language comprehension.
मस्तिष्क की चोट के बाद यदि रोगी का भाषण उत्पादन (बोलना) प्रभावित होता है जबकि समझना ठीक रहता है, तो 'ब्रोका क्षेत्र' (Broca's area) प्रभावित होता है।
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2336📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyCognitive Psychology (Working Memory)
Which of the following is a core component of Alan Baddeley's Working Memory Model?
Explanation
Alan Baddeley and Graham Hitch's Working Memory Model (1974/2000) comprises four central components: 1. The Central Executive, 2. The Phonological Loop (verbal/auditory rehearsal), 3. The Visuospatial Sketchpad, and 4. The Episodic Buffer.
एलन बैडेल के वर्किंग मेमोरी मॉडल का प्रमुख घटक 'फोनोलॉजिकल लूप' (Phonological loop / ध्वनि संबंधी लूप) है।
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2337📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyCognitive Heuristics (Availability)
The cognitive mental shortcut used to assess the probability or frequency of an event based on the ease with which instances of that event come to mind is known as:
Explanation
The Availability Heuristic (identified by Amos Tversky and Daniel Kahneman in 1973) is a cognitive heuristic where people evaluate the likelihood, frequency, or probability of an event based on how readily and easily examples or vivid memories come to mind.
किसी घटना की संभावना का आकलन इस आधार पर करना कि उसके उदाहरण कितनी आसानी से याद आते हैं, 'उपलब्धता अनुमानी' (Availability heuristic) कहलाता है।
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2338📚Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsPsychometrics Concepts Matching
Match the psychometric concepts with their techniques/formulas:
i. Item analysis
ii. Standard score
iii. Internal consistency
iv. Scaling technique

Techniques:
1) Parallel forms
2) KR-20 / Cronbach Alpha
3) Semantic differential
4) Stanine / Z-score
5) Discrimination index

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 5 (Item analysis: item difficulty and Discrimination Index DD), ii -> 4 (Standard score: Stanine scale, Z-scores, T-scores), iii -> 2 (Internal consistency reliability: Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 / KR-20), iv -> 3 (Scaling technique: Osgood's Semantic Differential scale). Correct match: i-5, ii-4, iii-2, iv-3.
i-5 (आइटम विश्लेषण - विभेदन सूचकांक), ii-4 (मानक स्कोर - स्टेनाइन), iii-2 (आंतरिक संगति - KR-20), iv-3 (स्केलिंग तकनीक - सेमांटिक डिफरेंशियल)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2339📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyHealth Psychology (Self-Efficacy)
How are self-efficacy beliefs related to health behaviours?
1. It provides a stable sense of personal competence to manage stressful situations
2. People believe they can maintain the routine of physical exercise
3. Inform others to remind them from time to time to comply with medications
4. Put in constant efforts to engage in preventive health behaviours
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Albert Bandura's Self-Efficacy Theory in health psychology demonstrates that high perceived self-efficacy fosters: personal resilience in coping with stressors (1), confidence in sustaining lifestyle/exercise regimens (2), and sustained motivation in preventive health practices (4). Correct: 1, 2 and 4 (Choice D).
स्वास्थ्य व्यवहारों में आत्म-प्रभावकारिता (Self-efficacy) तनाव प्रबंधन (1), नियमित व्यायाम (2) और निवारक स्वास्थ्य आदतों (4) को सुदृढ़ करती है (1, 2 and 4)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2340📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyOrganizational Behavior (Work-Life Balance)
A researcher who wants to understand how employees manage their professional responsibilities while still maintaining a healthy personal life is studying:
Explanation
Work-Life Balance refers to the organizational psychology construct describing an individual's ability to effectively harmonize, balance, and allocate time and energy between professional career demands and personal/family life.
पेशेवर जिम्मेदारियों और व्यक्तिगत जीवन के बीच स्वस्थ संतुलन बनाए रखने का अध्ययन 'वर्क-लाइफ बैलेंस' (Work-life balance / कार्य-जीवन संतुलन) कहलाता है।
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2341📚Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyPerformance Appraisal Goals Hierarchy
Arrange the following starting from the closest (immediate) to the most distant (long-term strategic) goal of performance appraisal:
1. Providing Feedback and Guidance
2. Career planning and succession management
3. Identifying training and development needs
4. Evaluating employee performance
Options:
Explanation
The systematic sequence of performance appraisal goals progressing from immediate to distal strategic outcomes is: 4. Evaluating past employee job performance (Immediate base) −>-> 1. Providing direct constructive feedback and guidance −>-> 3. Identifying specific training and skill gaps −>-> 2. Long-term career development and succession planning (Distal strategic goal). Correct sequence: 4, 1, 3, 2 (Choice B).
प्रदर्शन मूल्यांकन के लक्ष्यों का तात्कालिक से दूरगामी क्रम: कार्य मूल्यांकन (4) −>-> फीडबैक व मार्गदर्शन (1) −>-> प्रशिक्षण आवश्यकताओं की पहचान (3) −>-> करियर व उत्तराधिकार योजना (2) (4, 1, 3, 2)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2342📚Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyPiaget's Cognitive Development Stages Matching
Match each stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development with its characteristic developmental goal/milestone:
i. Sensory motor stage
ii. Preoperational stage
iii. Concrete operational stage
iv. Formal operational stage

Milestone:
1) Abstract and hypothetical thinking
2) Logical thinking applied to concrete objects
3) Conceptual thinking
4) Object permanence
5) Symbolic thinking and language

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 4 (Sensorimotor: Object Permanence), ii -> 5 (Preoperational: Symbolic representation and intuitive language), iii -> 2 (Concrete operational: Conservation, reversibility, and Logical thinking on tangible objects), iv -> 1 (Formal operational: Abstract deductive hypothetical reasoning). Correct match: i-4, ii-5, iii-2, iv-1.
i-4 (संवेदी प्रेरक - वस्तु स्थायित्व), ii-5 (पूर्व-संक्रियात्मक - प्रतीकात्मक सोच), iii-2 (मूर्त संक्रियात्मक - मूर्त तार्किक सोच), iv-1 (औपचारिक संक्रियात्मक - अमूर्त चिंतन)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2343📚Neuropsychology, Clinical Assessment & De-Addiction InterventionsClassroom Management & ADHD
A teacher in the classroom is most likely to find it difficult to manage the behaviour of children with which condition?
Explanation
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is characterized by pervasive, disruptive patterns of severe inattention, motor hyperactivity, impulsivity, and executive dysfunction, presenting the most acute behavioral management challenges in mainstream classroom settings.
कक्षा में शिक्षकों के लिए व्यवहार प्रबंधन में सबसे अधिक चुनौती 'एडीएचडी' (ADHD / ध्यान अभाव एवं अतिसक्रियता विकार) से ग्रस्त बच्चों के साथ आती है।
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2344📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismHotel Engineering & Maintenance
Which among the following positions is responsible for the hotel's physical operations and maintenance?
Explanation
The Chief Engineer (or Director of Engineering / Maintenance Manager) is directly responsible for the maintenance, repair, physical plant operations, HVAC, plumbing, and structural upkeep of the hotel property.
होटल के भौतिक संचालन, इंजीनियरिंग और रखरखाव के लिए जिम्मेदार पद 'चीफ इंजीनियर' (Chief Engineer) होता है।
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2345📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismTypes of Hotels (Resort Hotels)
Hotels located at the tourist destinations such as hill stations, sea beaches & countryside are:
Explanation
Resort Hotels are leisure lodging establishments located at scenic vacation destinations (such as hill stations, beaches, islands, mountains, and countryside) providing recreational amenities and full-board facilities.
हिल स्टेशनों, समुद्री तटों और ग्रामीण पर्यटन स्थलों पर स्थित होटलों को 'रिसॉर्ट होटल' (Resorts hotels) कहा जाता है।
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2346📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismConcierge Services (Les Clefs d'Or)
To earn gold crossed keys on their lapels, a hotel concierge must be certified by the international association of concierges, known as:
Explanation
Les Clefs d'Or (Union Internationale des Concierges d'Hôtels - The Golden Keys) is the prestigious international network of professional hotel concierges whose certified members proudly wear crossed gold keys on their uniform lapels.
होटल कंसीयर्ज के प्रतिष्ठित अंतरराष्ट्रीय संघ को 'लेस क्लेफ्स डी'ओर' (Les clefs d'or / गोल्डन कीज) कहा जाता है।
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2347📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismMeal Plans (American Plan)
A tariff plan consisting of room tariff and all major meals (Breakfast, Lunch, and Dinner) is known as:
Explanation
The American Plan (AP / Full Board / Full Pension) includes the room rent plus all three daily major meals: breakfast, lunch, and dinner. (EP is room only; CP is room + breakfast; MAP is room + breakfast + 1 major meal).
कमरे के किराए के साथ तीनों प्रमुख भोजन (नाश्ता, दोपहर व रात का खाना) शामिल करने वाली योजना 'अमेरिकन प्लान' (American plan / AP) कहलाती है।
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2348📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismMeal Plans (Modified American Plan)
This meal plan is also known as Demi-pension or half board:
Explanation
The Modified American Plan (MAP), also termed Half Board or Demi-Pension in European terminology, includes room tariff, daily breakfast, and either lunch OR dinner (one major meal).
डेमी-पेंशन या हाफ बोर्ड (Half board) के नाम से जानी जाने वाली भोजन योजना 'मॉडिफाइड अमेरिकन प्लान' (Modified American plan / MAP) है।
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2349📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismHotel Room Pricing (Rack Rate)
A published rate of a particular type of room before any discount or promotion is called the:
Explanation
The Rack Rate is the standard, full, published retail tariff for a guest room established by hotel management before applying any commercial discounts, corporate subsidies, or seasonal promotional concessions.
बिना किसी छूट या रियायत के होटल द्वारा निर्धारित कमरे की मानक प्रकाशित दर 'रैक रेट' (Rack rate) कहलाती है।
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2350📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsGuest Cycle (Stay Stage)
Handling guests queries & complaints are part of which guest cycle stage?
Explanation
During the Stay / Occupancy Stage of the guest cycle, front desk and guest relations associates actively manage guest queries, telephone requests, room service coordination, and resolve operational complaints.
अतिथियों के प्रश्नों और शिकायतों का निवारण अतिथि चक्र के 'ठहराव / रहने' (Stay / Occupancy) चरण का हिस्सा होता है।
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2351📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsFront Office Controls (Scanty Baggage)
The registration of a Scanty Baggage guest requires authorization from the:
Explanation
Guests arriving with 'Scanty Baggage' (little or no luggage) present a higher financial risk of skipping without payment; hence, their registration requires mandatory approval and advance room charge collection authorized by the Duty Manager / Lobby Manager.
कम सामान वाले अतिथि (Scanty Baggage) का पंजीकरण कराने के लिए 'ड्यूटी मैनेजर / लॉबी मैनेजर' (Duty manager) की विशेष अनुमति आवश्यक होती है।
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2352📚Hotel Administration, HRACC Star Classification & TimeshareHotel Franchising (Franchisor vs Franchisee)
The company that owns the trademark, product/business format that is being franchised is the:
Explanation
The Franchisor is the parent corporation that owns the registered brand name, trademarks, operating manuals, and business model, licensing them to an independent operator (the Franchisee) in exchange for royalties and franchise fees.
होटल के ट्रेडमार्क और व्यावसायिक मॉडल का स्वामित्व रखने वाली मूल कंपनी 'फ्रैंचाइज़र' (Franchisor) कहलाती है।
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2353📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsGlobal Distribution Systems (GDS)
A worldwide computerized reservation network, which is used as a single point of access for reserving hotel rooms, airline seats, rental cars & other items by travel agents, online reservation sites & large corporations is a:
Explanation
A Global Distribution System (GDS)—such as Amadeus, Sabre, Galileo, and Worldspan—is a worldwide automated network consolidating real-time inventory from airlines, hotel chains, car rentals, and tour operators for global travel agents.
दुनिया भर में एयरलाइन, होटल और कार रेंटल बुकिंग के लिए एकल वैश्विक नेटवर्क को 'GDS' (ग्लोबल डिस्ट्रीब्यूशन सिस्टम) कहा जाता है।
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2354📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismVIP Guest Protocols
Which among these guests, the General Manager (GM) or Front Office Manager (FOM) should personally escort the guest to his/her room?
Explanation
Under luxury hotel protocol, Very Very Important Persons (VVIPs—such as heads of state, foreign dignitaries, corporate CEOs, and celebrities) are accorded personal welcome by executive management and escorted directly to their suites by the GM or FOM.
होटल में 'VVIP अतिथि' (VVIP guest) को सम्मानपूर्वक कमरे तक पहुंचाने की जिम्मेदारी महाप्रबंधक (GM) या FOM की होती है।
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2355📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismGuest Complaint Handling
Consider the following statements: When guest complaints are not resolved by front office associate, then he/she should always:
1) Ignore the compliant
2) Consult with superiors
3) Try to convince the guest
4) Do nothing about it
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
When a front-line associate cannot resolve a guest complaint satisfactorily within their authority, the standard protocol is to immediately escalate the issue and Consult with Superiors (Duty Manager / FOM) to take corrective managerial action. Choice B (Statement 2).
जब फ्रंट डेस्क कर्मचारी द्वारा शिकायत हल नहीं होती, तो उसे तुरंत 'वरिष्ठ अधिकारियों / पर्यवेक्षकों से परामर्श' (Consult with superiors) करना चाहिए। सही विकल्प B है।
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2356📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsCentral Reservation Systems (CRS)
A computer based reservation system, which enables guests to make reservations in any of the participating lodging properties at any destination in a single call is a:
Explanation
A Central Reservation System (CRS) is a centralized electronic network operated by a hotel chain that maintains real-time room availability across all member properties, enabling guests and agents to book rooms across destinations via a single toll-free number or website.
एक ही कॉल में श्रृंखला के किसी भी होटल में आरक्षण की सुविधा देने वाला नेटवर्क 'CRS' (सेंट्रल रिजर्वेशन सिस्टम) कहलाता है।
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2357📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismForeign Guest Registration (Form C)
A document that contains the mandatory information required to be sent to the FRRO/LIU in case of a foreign guest staying in a hotel in India is:
Explanation
Under the Registration of Foreigners Act and Rules in India, all hotels and guest houses are legally mandated to submit 'Form C' (online via the BoI portal) detailing passport, visa, and travel information of every foreign national within 24 hours of arrival to the FRRO.
भारत में विदेशी अतिथियों के आगमन पर FRRO को भेजी जाने वाली अनिवार्य कानूनी जानकारी 'फॉर्म सी' (Form C) में दर्ज होती है।
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2358📚Hotel Administration, HRACC Star Classification & TimeshareHuman Resource Management (Job Specification)
A list of personal qualities, skills & traits needed to successfully perform the tasks of a job is called a:
Explanation
A Job Specification outlines the human qualifications, education, experience, specialized technical skills, and personal traits required of an applicant. (A Job Description details the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of the role).
किसी पद को सफलतापूर्वक संभालने के लिए आवश्यक व्यक्तिगत गुणों, योग्यताओं और कौशलों की सूची 'जॉब स्पेसिफिकेशन' (Job specification) कहलाती है।
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2359📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsIntermediary Agencies (Intersell Agency)
It is an agency that deals with many products such as hotel reservations, car rental, travel arrangements, tour operation, airline reservations, railway bookings:
Explanation
An Intersell Agency (or full-service Travel Management Company / Multi-product Agency) is an organization that handles comprehensive travel reservations across multiple hospitality and transport sectors including hotels, airlines, railways, and car rentals. Choice A.
होटल, एयरलाइन, रेलवे और कार रेंटल जैसी कई सेवाओं की बुकिंग एक साथ करने वाली एजेंसी को 'इंटरसेल एजेंसी' (Intersell agency) कहा जाता है।
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2360📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsGuest Ledger Balance Formula
Choose the correct formula for calculating the net outstanding balance on a guest folio account:
Explanation
In hospitality accounting: Net Outstanding Balance=Previous/Opening Balance+Debit Entries (New Charges)−Credit Entries (Payments/Allowances)\text{Net Outstanding Balance} = \text{Previous/Opening Balance} + \text{Debit Entries (New Charges)} - \text{Credit Entries (Payments/Allowances)}. Choice D.
खाता शेष (Outstanding balance) का सही सूत्र: \text{Opening balance} + \text{Debit entries (खर्च)} - \text{Credit entries (भुगतान)}। सही विकल्प D है।
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2361📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsMiscellaneous Charge Voucher
A voucher for non-room ancillary charges, such as laundry, health club, fitness centre, beauty salon is a:
Explanation
A Miscellaneous Charge Voucher (MCV / Miscellaneous Voucher) is used to record and post miscellaneous ancillary department charges (laundry, spa, fitness center, salon, banquet extras) to a guest folio.
लॉन्ड्री, स्पा, हेल्थ क्लब और ब्यूटी सैलून जैसे विविध शुल्कों को दर्ज करने वाला वाउचर 'मिसलेनियस वाउचर' (Miscellaneous voucher) कहलाता है।
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2362📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsCredit Monitoring (House Limit)
It refers to the maximum upper limit of credit extended by a hotel to an individual guest:
Explanation
The House Limit (Credit Limit) is the maximum monetary debt ceiling set by hotel management up to which a resident guest may charge goods and services to their room folio without making an interim settlement.
होटल द्वारा किसी अतिथि को दी जाने वाली अधिकतम क्रेडिट सीमा को 'हाउस लिमिट' (House limit) कहा जाता है।
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2363📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsTypes of Front Office Folios
Which among these is NOT a recognized standard type of folio in front office accounting?
Explanation
Standard front office folios include: Guest Folio (individual accounts), Master Folio (group/corporate shared bills), Non-Guest / Semi-permanent Folio (city ledger club members), and Employee Folio. 'Room folio' is not a separate formal category (it is part of the guest folio).
मानक फोलियो प्रकारों में गेस्ट फोलियो, मास्टर फोलियो और नॉन-गेस्ट फोलियो शामिल हैं; 'रूम फोलियो' (Room folio) कोई अलग श्रेणी नहीं है।
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2364📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementNight Audit (End of the Day)
The arbitrary cutoff time that marks the end of financial transactions for a particular business day in hotel night auditing is:
Explanation
The 'End of the Day' (or End of Day - EOD) is the official accounting cutoff point declared by the Night Auditor, after which the accounting system rolls over to the next calendar date and daily financial ledgers are balanced.
होटल में एक व्यावसायिक दिन के लेन-देन को समाप्त और अगले दिन को शुरू करने वाला समय 'एंड ऑफ द डे' (End of the day) कहलाता है।
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2365📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsCash Shortages and Overages
A _______ occurs when the physical cash counted in the cash drawer at the end of a shift is less than the net cash receipts indicated on the shift summary report:
Explanation
A Cash Shortage occurs when the actual physical currency in the cash register is less than the net balance calculated from transaction receipts (if physical cash exceeds receipts, it is an Overage).
जब कैश दराज में वास्तविक नकदी सिस्टम के हिसाब से कम निकलती है, तो इसे 'कैश शॉर्टेज' (Shortages / कमी) कहा जाता है।
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2366📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsZeroing Out Folios
To settle in full the balance of a folio account to zero as the guest checks out is called to:
Explanation
To 'Zero Out' an account means to bring the net outstanding balance of a guest folio exactly to zero (0.000.00) at checkout through final payment collection or credit transfer before closing the account.
चेक-आउट के समय फोलियो के शेष को पूरी तरह शून्य (0.000.00) करने की प्रक्रिया को 'जीरो आउट' (Zero out) कहा जाता है।
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2367📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementSemi-Automated Audit Reports
Forms produced in a semi-automated audit system that includes the front office cash report and night audit summary report is sometimes called a:
Explanation
In classical semi-automated NCR/tabular front office audit systems, summary management auditing reports and cash balancing sheets are designated under standardized card indexing (e.g. D-Card / Daily Report Form).
सेमी-ऑटोमेटेड ऑडिट सिस्टम में फ्रंट ऑफिस कैश और समरी रिपोर्ट को 'D कार्ड' (D card) के रूप में संदर्भित किया जाता है।
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2368📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsFront Office Internal Controls
Which of the following statement/statements DOES NOT involve in front office internal control procedure?
Explanation
Internal accounting control in front office operations fundamentally encompasses all listed procedures: tracking all source vouchers, verifying billing entries against receipts, cross-checking cashier balances, and identifying system vulnerabilities   ⟹  \implies All are involved. Option D.
फ्रंट ऑफिस आंतरिक नियंत्रण में दस्तावेजीकरण को ट्रैक करना, प्रविष्टियों का सत्यापन और इनवॉइस का मिलान सभी प्रक्रियाएं शामिल होती हैं।
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2369📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsTransfer Vouchers
A voucher that supports the reduction in balance on the originating folio and an equivalent increase in balance on the destination folio is a:
Explanation
A Transfer Voucher is an accounting source document that authorizes and validates the transfer of an outstanding charge or balance from one guest folio (originating folio) to another folio or city ledger account (destination folio).
एक फोलियो से शेष राशि घटाकर दूसरे फोलियो में जोड़ने वाला अधिकृत वाउचर 'ट्रांसफर वाउचर' (Transfer voucher) कहलाता है।
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2370📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementNight Audit Key Functions
Consider the following statements regarding the functions of the Night Audit:
1) Balancing of front office accounts
2) Monitoring guest credit limits (house limit)
3) Producing operational and managerial reports
4) To make hotel reservations
Which of the following statements are correct?
Explanation
The primary responsibilities of the Night Auditor include: balancing all departmental financial accounts (1), monitoring credit ceilings and high balances against house limits (2), and generating the Daily Operations Report for executive management (3). (Making reservations is a reservations department function). Correct: 1, 2 & 3 (Choice B).
नाइट ऑडिट के मुख्य कार्यों में खातों का संतुलन (1), क्रेडिट सीमा की निगरानी (2) और प्रबंधकीय रिपोर्ट तैयार करना (3) शामिल हैं (1, 2 & 3)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2371📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsAllowances vs Corrections
After the first night of his 3-night stay, Mr. Gupta complained about the noise from the lounge below his room. The front desk agent assigned Mr. Gupta another room for rest of his stay and decreased his folio by INR 1500/- as compensation for the inconvenience. This type of transaction is called an:
Explanation
An Account Allowance (Allowance Voucher) is a financial credit adjustment that reduces a guest's outstanding folio balance to compensate for poor service, inconvenience, or management goodwill (Account Correction fixes an erroneous posting made on the current day).
अतिथि को हुई असुविधा के मुआवजे के रूप में फोलियो के बिल में दी जाने वाली छूट 'अकाउंट अलाउंस' (Account allowance / रियायत) कहलाती है।
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2372📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementRoom Rate Pricing Methodologies
Which among these approaches is used to establish room rates in hotels?
Explanation
Hospitality management utilizes three primary room pricing methodologies: 1. Market Condition Approach (competitive benchmarking), 2. Hubbart Formula (bottom-up cost pricing based on target ROI), and 3. Rule-of-Thumb Approach (₹1 per ₹1,000 of construction cost per room)   ⟹  \implies All of these. Choice D.
होटल में कमरों की दरें तय करने के लिए मार्केट कंडीशन, हब्बार्ट फॉर्मूला और रूल ऑफ थंब तीनों विधियों का उपयोग किया जाता है (All of these)।
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2373📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementNight Audit Manager's Report
Which of the following is typically considered the most important managerial outcome of the front office night audit?
Explanation
The Daily Operations Report (also known as the Manager's Report) is the single most critical strategic output of the night audit, summarizing occupancy %, ADR, RevPAR, food & beverage sales, and departmental revenues for the General Manager.
नाइट ऑडिट का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण प्रबंधकीय परिणाम 'दैनिक संचालन रिपोर्ट' (Daily operations report / मैनेजर रिपोर्ट) होती है।
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2374📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementDaily Operations Report
The daily operations report is also known as the:
Explanation
In hotel management, the comprehensive Daily Operations Report generated at the conclusion of the night audit is standardly referred to as the Manager's Report.
दैनिक संचालन रिपोर्ट को आमतौर पर 'मैनेजर रिपोर्ट' (Manager's report) के रूप में जाना जाता है।
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2375📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementNight Audit Standard Sequence
Arrange the following in chronological order as per the standard sequence of the night audit:
1) Complete outstanding postings
2) Prepare required reports
3) Post room rates and taxes
4) Verify room rates and status
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Standard Night Audit Sequence: 1. Complete all outstanding departmental postings and vouchers −>-> 4. Verify room rates, housekeeping discrepancies, and occupancy status −>-> 3. Post room tariffs and applicable taxes automatically to all folios −>-> 2. Generate daily operational, revenue, and management reports (1, 4, 3, 2). Choice C.
नाइट ऑडिट का सही मानक क्रम: बकाया पोस्टिंग पूरी करना (1) −>-> कमरे की दरों का सत्यापन (4) −>-> कमरे का किराया और टैक्स पोस्ट करना (3) −>-> आवश्यक रिपोर्ट तैयार करना (2) (1, 4, 3, 2)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2376📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementHospitality KPI (RevPAR)
Full form of RevPAR is:
Explanation
RevPAR stands for Revenue Per Available Room—a foundational key performance indicator (KPI) calculated as: RevPAR=Occupancy Rate×Average Daily Rate (ADR)=Total Room RevenueTotal Available Rooms\text{RevPAR} = \text{Occupancy Rate} \times \text{Average Daily Rate (ADR)} = \frac{\text{Total Room Revenue}}{\text{Total Available Rooms}}.
RevPAR का पूर्ण रूप 'रेवेन्यू पर अवेलेबल रूम' (Revenue Per available room / प्रति उपलब्ध कमरा राजस्व) है।
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2377📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementHospitality Financial Ratios
A group of statistical ratios that assist in the analysis of hospitality operational performance are:
Explanation
Operating Ratios (including Occupancy Percentage, Average Daily Rate, RevPAR, Yield Percentage, and Cost Per Occupied Room) provide comprehensive analytical benchmarks for evaluating the operational efficiency and profitability of a hotel.
होटल के परिचालन प्रदर्शन और दक्षता का विश्लेषण करने वाले अनुपातों को 'ऑपरेटिंग अनुपात' (Operating ratios) कहा जाता है।
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2378📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsGroup Reservation Trimming (Washing)
The deletion of unnecessary or unsold group rooms from a group room block reservation is called:
Explanation
Room Block Washing (or applying a Wash Factor) is the practice by reservations managers of reducing or trimming down an artificially inflated group room block to realistic expected pickup numbers based on historical group trends.
ग्रुप ब्लॉक में से अनावश्यक या बिना बिके कमरों को हटाने की प्रक्रिया 'वाशिंग' (Washing / वॉश फैक्टर) कहलाती है।
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2379📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementMarket Share & Revenue Management
The maximum share of the market that can be occupied by a hotel in its competitive set is the:
Explanation
Market Potential is the maximum possible demand, market share, or room night sales that an individual lodging property could theoretically capture within its defined competitive market.
किसी होटल द्वारा बाजार में हासिल किया जा सकने वाला अधिकतम हिस्सा 'मार्केट पोटेंशियल' (Market potential) कहलाता है।
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2380📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementYield Management (Rate Spread)
The mathematical difference between the hotel's Potential Average Double Rate and Potential Average Single Rate is the:
Explanation
Rate Spread is defined as the monetary difference between the potential average double rate and the potential average single rate: Rate Spread=Potential Average Double Rate−Potential Average Single Rate\text{Rate Spread} = \text{Potential Average Double Rate} - \text{Potential Average Single Rate}.
पोटेंशियल एवरेज डबल रेट और पोटेंशियल एवरेज सिंगल रेट के बीच के अंतर को 'रेट स्प्रेड' (Rate spread) कहा जाता है।
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2381📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementRevenue Management Yield Statistic
The ratio of actual room revenue to potential room revenue is the:
Explanation
The Yield Statistic (Yield %) in revenue management measures revenue realization efficiency: Yield Statistic=Actual Room RevenuePotential Room Revenue=Occupancy Percentage×Achievement Factor\text{Yield Statistic} = \frac{\text{Actual Room Revenue}}{\text{Potential Room Revenue}} = \text{Occupancy Percentage} \times \text{Achievement Factor}.
वास्तविक कमरा राजस्व और संभावित कमरा राजस्व के अनुपात को 'यील्ड स्टैटिस्टिक' (Yield statistic / यील्ड प्रतिशत) कहा जाता है।
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2382📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismHotel Safety & Accident Book
A book kept in every organization where the receptionist records all details of accidents which have occurred to employees or guests whilst engaged in carrying out their normal daily duties is the:
Explanation
An Accident Book (Incident Register) is a legally mandated register maintained by the front desk/security department to formally record the date, time, location, nature, causes, and first-aid actions taken for any accident or injury on the premises.
ड्यूटी के दौरान होने वाली दुर्घटनाओं का विवरण दर्ज करने वाली आधिकारिक पुस्तिका 'एक्सीडेंट बुक' (Accident book) कहलाती है।
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2383📚Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementLow Demand Revenue Tactics
Which of these is a low demand tactic used in hotel revenue management?
Explanation
During periods of low occupancy/demand, revenue managers deploy yield tactics including: removing minimum length-of-stay restrictions (A), designing discounted value packages and promotions (B), and encouraging room upgrades to stimulate booking volume   ⟹  \implies Options A, B, C. Choice D.
कम मांग के समय होटल रेवेन्यू मैनेजमेंट में स्टे प्रतिबंध हटाना, विशेष पैकेज पेश करना और अपग्रेड देना सभी रणनीतियां अपनाई जाती हैं (Options A, B, C)।
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2384📚Hotel Administration, HRACC Star Classification & TimeshareTimeshare & Vacation Ownership (Interval International)
Interval International (II) is an example of an:
Explanation
Interval International (II) is a prominent global Vacation Ownership Exchange Network that enables timeshare owners to trade and exchange their resort weeks for stays at thousands of affiliated resorts worldwide.
इंटरवल इंटरनेशनल (Interval International) 'वैकेशन ओनरशिप एक्सचेंज कंपनी' (Exchange company offering vacation ownership / टाइमशेयर एक्सचेंज) का उदाहरण है।
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2385📚Hotel Administration, HRACC Star Classification & TimeshareTimeshare Industry History (RCI 1974)
RCI (Resort Condominiums International), the pioneer of timeshare vacation exchange, was founded in which year?
Explanation
Resort Condominiums International (RCI) was founded in 1974 by Christel and Jon DeHaan, pioneering the timeshare exchange industry and growing into the world's largest timeshare vacation network.
टाइम्सशेयर एक्सचेंज कंपनी RCI (रिसॉर्ट कोंडोमिनियम्स इंटरनेशनल) की स्थापना वर्ष '1974' में की गई थी।
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2386📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsModern Front Office Technology Trends
Which among these is NOT an emerging modern digital trend in rooms division?
Explanation
Modern emerging trends in rooms division include Smart Mobile Digital Keys (RFID/Bluetooth), AI-driven Hotel Chatbots, and Digital Concierge Apps. The 'Whitney System' is an obsolete manual paper-and-rack reservation system invented in the 1940s.
स्मार्ट मोबाइल कीज, चैटबॉट्स और डिजिटल कंसीयर्ज आधुनिक तकनीकें हैं; 'व्हिटनी सिस्टम' (Whitney system) 1940 का पुराना मैनुअल सिस्टम है, आधुनिक ट्रेंड नहीं।
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2387📚Hotel Administration, HRACC Star Classification & TimeshareHotel Financial Budgetary Control
Which among these is an advantage of budgetary control in hotel management?
Explanation
Budgetary control in hotel management establishes accountability across departments (B), enforces cost efficiency and revenue targets (A), and serves as an early-warning performance signal comparing actuals to forecasts   ⟹  \implies All of the above. Choice D.
होटल में बजटीय नियंत्रण दक्षता लाता है, उत्तरदायित्व तय करता है और प्रबंधन के लिए सतर्कता संकेत का कार्य करता है (All of the above)।
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2388📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismHotel Security & Bomb Threat Procedures
In a situation like a bomb threat received on a telephone call, the person receiving the call should follow which protocol?
Explanation
In hotel security standard operating procedures for telephone bomb threats, the receiver must remain calm, listen attentively without interrupting, and meticulously Write Down the Exact Words of the caller along with background noises, voice tone, and accent.
बम की धमकी भरी कॉल आने पर फ्रंट डेस्क कर्मचारी को 'कॉलर के सटीक शब्दों को तुरंत लिखना' (Write down the exact words) और शांत रहकर जानकारी दर्ज करनी चाहिए।
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2389📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismCustomer Relationship Management (Guest Loyalty)
The emotional relationship between the business and the customer displayed when a customer is willing to purchase a product repeatedly from the business rather than the competitor is:
Explanation
Guest Loyalty (Customer Loyalty) represents the emotional commitment and brand preference demonstrated by satisfied guests who repeatedly choose a hotel over competing brands.
ग्राहक द्वारा प्रतिस्पर्धियों के बजाय बार-बार उसी होटल से सेवाएं लेने का भावनात्मक संबंध 'गेस्ट लॉयल्टी / ग्राहक वफादारी' (Guest loyalty) कहलाता है।
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2390📚Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsForeign Exchange Regulations in Hotels
Which of the following statements regarding foreign currency exchange in Indian hotels are correct?
1. Foreign currency exchange can be only extended to resident guests of the hotel
2. Foreign exchange encashment certificate may or may not be made, depending on the guest.
3. Exchange is done only in local currency (INR)
4. The hotel must have the license (RBI Full-Fledged Money Changer / Authorized Dealer) to exchange foreign currency.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Under RBI foreign exchange regulations for hotels: Foreign currency exchange is restricted to resident in-house guests (1), currency must be disbursed in local Indian Rupees (3), and the hotel must hold a valid RBI FFMC license (4). (Encashment certificates are mandatory, not optional). Correct: 1, 3, 4 (Choice B).
होटल में विदेशी मुद्रा विनिमय के लिए: यह केवल resident अतिथियों के लिए है (1), स्थानीय मुद्रा INR में दिया जाता है (3), और होटल के पास वैध लाइसेंस होना चाहिए (4) (1, 3, 4)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2391📚General English & ComprehensionVocabulary & Homophones
Fill in the blank: "........did you put my keys?"
Explanation
The interrogative adverb of place used to ask about the location of an object is 'Where'. Choice C.
स्थान पूछने के लिए प्रश्नवाचक शब्द 'Where' का प्रयोग होगा: 'Where did you put my keys?' सही विकल्प C है।
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2392📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill the blank with the most suitable preposition from the given options: "It was very generous ....................you to offer to help me."
Explanation
The standard English prepositional idiom attributing a personal quality or behavior to someone is 'generous of [someone]' (e.g. 'It was very kind/generous of you').
किसी के उदार व्यवहार की सराहना के लिए 'generous of you' का प्रयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2393📚General English & ComprehensionArticles
Fill in the blank with appropriate article: "I go to Srinagar by ....................Vande Bharat Express."
Explanation
Definite article 'The' is mandatory before the proper names of specific trains, ships, and recognized transport routes (e.g. 'the Vande Bharat Express', 'the Rajdhani Express').
विशिष्ट ट्रेनों और एक्सप्रेस गाड़ियों के नाम के पहले 'The' का प्रयोग किया जाता है ('the Vande Bharat Express')। सही विकल्प D है।
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2394📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Polity (Fundamental Duties)
The Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen under Article 51A include:
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper
3. Respect for the Government
4. To protect Wildlife
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Explanation
Under Article 51A of the Constitution of India, Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, Flag and Anthem [51A(a)], protecting forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife [51A(g)], and developing scientific temper and humanism [51A(h)]. 'Respect for the Government' is NOT a fundamental duty. Correct: 1, 2 and 4 (Choice B).
अनुच्छेद 51A के तहत मौलिक कर्तव्यों में संविधान व ध्वज का सम्मान (1), वैज्ञानिक दृष्टिकोण (2) और वन्यजीवों की रक्षा (4) शामिल हैं ('सरकार का सम्मान' कोई मौलिक कर्तव्य नहीं है)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2395📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTAncient History (Indus Valley Civilization)
Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
I. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present did not dominate the scene.
II. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Both statements are historically accurate: Archaeological evidence shows that the Harappan civilization lacked large monumental temples or theocratic rule, maintaining a predominantly secular civic character (I), and Harappans were the earliest people in the world to cultivate cotton and weave textiles, known to Greeks as Sindon (II). Correct: Both I and II.
कथन I और II दोनों सत्य हैं (हड़प्पा सभ्यता मुख्य रूप से धर्मनिरपेक्ष थी जहां धार्मिक तत्व हावी नहीं था और यह कपास का उत्पादन करने वाली पहली सभ्यता थी)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2396📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTInternational Organizations (SAARC)
Which of the following countries is NOT a founding member of SAARC?
Explanation
The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established in Dhaka on 8 December 1985 by seven founding members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Myanmar is an ASEAN member and is NOT a member of SAARC.
म्यांमार (Myanmar) सार्क (SAARC) का सदस्य नहीं है; सार्क के 7 संस्थापक देश भारत, बांग्लादेश, भूटान, मालदीव, नेपाल, पाकिस्तान और श्रीलंका थे।
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2397📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTSocio-Economic Development Schemes Matching
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List - I:
1) Poverty Reduction Programme
2) Human Development Scheme
3) Social Assistance Scheme
4) Minimum Need Scheme

List - II:
i) Mid-day Meals
ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
iv) MNREGA

Codes (1, 2, 3, 4):
Explanation
1 -> iv (Poverty Reduction: Mahatma Gandhi NREGA wage employment), 2 -> i (Human Development: Mid-day Meal scheme for child nutrition and education), 3 -> iii (Social Assistance: National Old Age Pension Scheme under NSAP), 4 -> ii (Minimum Needs Programme: Indira Awas Yojana for rural housing). Correct code: 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii (Choice A).
1-iv (गरीबी उन्मूलन - मनरेगा), 2-i (मानव विकास - मध्याह्न भोजन), 3-iii (सामाजिक सहायता - वृद्धावस्था पेंशन NOAP), 4-ii (न्यूनतम आवश्यकता - इंदिरा आवास योजना IAY)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2398📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTCurrent Affairs Appointments
Who has been appointed as the Chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)?
Explanation
Siddhartha Mohanty was appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) as the Chairperson and Managing Director of the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).
भारतीय जीवन बीमा निगम (LIC) के अध्यक्ष के रूप में 'सिद्धार्थ मोहंती' (Siddhartha Mohanty) को नियुक्त किया गया।
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2399📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Languages & States Matching
Match the following Indian languages with their respective states where they are predominantly spoken:
Language:
i) Konkani
ii) Dogri
iii) Khasi
iv) Maithili

State:
1) Jammu & Kashmir
2) Meghalaya
3) Bihar
4) Goa

Choose the correct answer:
Explanation
i -> 4 (Konkani is the official language of Goa), ii -> 1 (Dogri is predominantly spoken in the Jammu region of J&K), iii -> 2 (Khasi is spoken in Meghalaya), iv -> 3 (Maithili is spoken in Bihar). Correct match: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3 (Choice B).
i-4 (कोंकणी - गोवा), ii-1 (डोगरी - जम्मू और कश्मीर), iii-2 (खासी - मेघालय), iv-3 (मैथिली - बिहार)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2400📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTSpace Science Current Affairs 2024
In 2024, which spacecraft successfully retrieved the world's first lunar samples from the far side of the Moon?
Explanation
China's Chang'e-6 robotic lunar probe successfully landed on the Moon's South Pole-Aitken basin on the lunar far side and safely returned approximately 1,935 grams of historic soil and rock samples back to Earth on 25 June 2024.
वर्ष 2024 में चंद्रमा के सुदूर भाग (Far side of the Moon) से पहली बार मिट्टी व चट्टान के नमूने लाने वाला अंतरिक्ष यान 'चांग'ई-6' (Chang'e-6 / चीन) है।
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2401📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Culture & Language (Dogri Script)
Who probably invented the ancient Dogri script (Namec / Dogra Akkhar)?
Explanation
According to regional Dogra historical chronicles and linguistic tradition, Raja Shakti Karan of Jammu (who ruled in the 8th century CE) is traditionally credited with introducing and systematizing the original Dogri Takri script (Dogra Akkhar).
डोगरी लिपि (डोगरा अक्खर / टाकरी) का आविष्कार पारंपरिक रूप से जम्मू के राजा 'शक्ति करण' (Shakti Karan) द्वारा माना जाता है।
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2402📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Political History Matching
Match the following historical institutions of Jammu and Kashmir:
List-I:
i) Established first legislature in Jammu and Kashmir
ii) First speaker of Jammu and Kashmir legislative assembly
iii) First chairman of Jammu and Kashmir Legislative council

List-II:
1) Ghulam Rasool Renzoo
2) Hari Singh
3) Shiv Narayan Fotedar

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 2 (Maharaja Hari Singh established the first legislative body, the Praja Sabha, in 1934), ii -> 1 (Ghulam Rasool Renzoo served as the first Speaker of the J&K Legislative Assembly in 1957), iii -> 3 (Shiv Narayan Fotedar was the first Chairman of the J&K Legislative Council). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3 (Choice B).
i-2 (महाराजा हरि सिंह ने 1934 में प्रजा सभा की स्थापना की), ii-1 (गुलाम रसूल रेंज़ू - पहले विधानसभा अध्यक्ष 1957), iii-3 (शिव नारायण फोतेदार - पहले विधान परिषद सभापति)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2403📚Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning & Basic MathematicsLogical Reasoning (Assertion & Reason)
Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R):
(Assertion): No man is perfect.
(Reasoning): Some men are not perfect.
Select the correct code:
Explanation
Both propositions are factually true statements. However, a particular negative proposition ('Some men are not perfect') logically cannot prove or deduce a universal negative proposition ('No man is perfect'); hence (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A). Choice A.
दोनों कथन सत्य हैं, लेकिन 'कुछ व्यक्ति परिपूर्ण नहीं हैं' (अंशव्यापी) से 'कोई भी व्यक्ति परिपूर्ण नहीं है' (सर्वव्यापी) सिद्ध नहीं होता; अतः R पर्याप्त कारण नहीं है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2404📚Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning & Basic MathematicsProbability & Gambler's Fallacy
Consider the following Statement:
Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:
Explanation
In probability theory, coin tosses are independent Bernoulli trials (P(Tails)=0.5P(Tails) = 0.5 regardless of past outcomes). Believing tails is 'due' after five heads is the classic Gambler's Fallacy. Thus, Assertion (A) is uncertain/doubtful, past history Reason (R) is factually true, and (R) is NOT a valid explanation for (A). Choice C.
सिक्के का उछाल स्वतंत्र घटना है (जुआरी का भ्रम / Gambler's Fallacy)। अतः अगली बार पट आने का दावा (A) संदिग्ध है, अतीत का तथ्य (R) सत्य है, और R सही व्याख्या नहीं है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2405📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITIT vs ICT Concepts
Read the following two statements:
Statement - I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).
Statement - II: The 'right to use' a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect: Statement I is false because IT is typically regarded as a component/subset of the broader domain of ICT (which emphasizes communication networks). Statement II is false because the legal permission granting the 'right to use' software is a Software License (not copyright, which protects authorship). Correct: Neither I nor II (Choice B).
दोनों कथन गलत हैं (IT को ICT का उपसमुच्चय माना जाता है और सॉफ्टवेयर उपयोग का अधिकार 'लाइसेंस' कहलाता है, कॉपीराइट नहीं)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2406📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITWeb Technologies (HTML)
HTML is used to create:
Explanation
HyperText Markup Language (HTML) is the standard markup language used by developers to structure and create Web Pages for display on the World Wide Web.
HTML (हाइपरटेक्स्ट मार्कअप लैंग्वेज) का उपयोग 'वेब पेज' (Web page) बनाने के लिए किया जाता है।
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2407📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITInternet Protocols (SMTP)
Which protocol is used to send emails across the internet?
Explanation
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is the standard communication protocol used by mail servers and email clients to send, transfer, and route outgoing emails across networks. (POP3/IMAP are used to retrieve emails).
इंटरनेट पर ईमेल भेजने के लिए उपयोग किया जाने वाला मानक प्रोटोकॉल 'SMTP' (सिंपल मेल ट्रांसफर प्रोटोकॉल) है।
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2408📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITOperating Systems Classification Matching
Match the following operating systems with their examples:
List - I:
i. Batch Operating System
ii. Time-Sharing Operating System
iii. Distributed Operating System
iv. Network Operating System

List - II:
1. UNIX
2. Windows Server
3. IBM Mainframe OS / OS/360
4. Google's Android OS / LOCUS

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
i -> 3 (Batch Operating System: classical IBM mainframe OS/360), ii -> 1 (Time-Sharing OS: UNIX pioneered multi-user time-sharing), iii -> 4 (Distributed OS: Android / Amoeba / networked clusters), iv -> 2 (Network Operating System: Windows Server / Novell NetWare). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 (Choice B).
i-3 (बैच OS - IBM), ii-1 (टाइम-शेयरिंग OS - UNIX), iii-4 (डिस्ट्रिब्यूटेड OS - एंड्रॉइड), iv-2 (नेटवर्क OS - विंडोज सर्वर)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2409📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyParasitology (Taenia solium Life Cycle)
The definitive (final) host for Taenia solium (Pork tapeworm) is:
Explanation
The definitive host (where sexual reproduction occurs and adult tapeworms reside in the small intestine) for Taenia solium is Human (man); the intermediate host carrying the larval bladder worms (Cysticercus cellulosae) is the Pig.
टीनिया सोलियम (पोर्क टेपवर्म) का प्राथमिक या निश्चित पोषक (Definitive host) 'मनुष्य' (Human) होता है (सूअर मध्यवर्ती पोषक है)।
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2410📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyHelminthology (Flame Cells)
The flame cells (protonephridia) present in Platyhelminthes are specialized for:
Explanation
Flame cells (solenocytes / protonephridia) in flatworms (Planaria, liver fluke, tapeworms) are hollow excretory cells with tufts of flickering cilia specialized primarily for Osmoregulation (fluid-water balance) and removal of metabolic nitrogenous wastes.
प्लेटीहेल्मिन्थीज (चपटे कृमि) में पाई जाने वाली ज्वाला कोशिकाएं (Flame cells) 'परासरण नियमन और उत्सर्जन' (Osmoregulation and excretion) के लिए विशिष्ट होती हैं।
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2411📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyAnimal Body Plans (Acoelomate)
A cross-section diagram of an animal body shows: solid mesodermal parenchyma filling the entire region between the gut and body wall without any cavity. This animal:
I: lacks a coelom
II: is triploblastic
III: is expected to have bilateral symmetry
IV: is expected to be dorso-ventrally flattened
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
The diagram represents an Acoelomate triploblastic bilateral body plan characteristic of flatworms (phylum Platyhelminthes): They completely lack a coelom (I), have three germ layers ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm (II), possess bilateral symmetry (III), and have dorsoventrally flattened bodies (IV). Correct: I, II, III and IV are correct (Choice D).
यह अनुप्रस्थ काट एक अगुहीय (Acoelomate / प्लेटीहेल्मिन्थीज) जंतु का है: यह अगुहीय (I), त्रिकोरकी (II), द्विपार्श्व सममित (III) और पृष्ठ-अधर रूप से चपटा (IV) होता है (सभी सही हैं)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2412📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyNematode Anatomy (Renette Cells)
Name the cells specialized for excretion and osmoregulation in Ascaris (roundworm):
Explanation
In Ascaris lumbricoides and other nematodes, the excretory system consists of an H-shaped system of longitudinal canals derived from specialized intracellular giant glandular cells called Renette Cells.
एस्केरिस (गोलकृमि) में उत्सर्जन और परासरण नियमन के लिए विशिष्ट कोशिकाएं 'रेनेट कोशिकाएं' (Renette Cells) होती हैं।
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2413📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyMolluscan Physiology (Pila Enzymes)
Which digestive enzyme is found in the resorptive cells of the digestive gland (hepatopancreas) of Pila (apple snail)?
Explanation
The digestive gland of the herbivorous freshwater apple snail Pila globosa secretes Cellulase (along with amylase and protease) to break down structural plant cellulose into fermentable glucose.
सेब घोंघे (पाइला ग्लोबोसा) की पाचक ग्रंथि कोशिकाओं में पौधों के सेल्यूलोज को पचाने वाला एंजाइम 'सेल्यूलेज' (Cellulase) पाया जाता है।
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2414📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyEchinoderm Sensory Organs
How many red colour eye spots (ocelli) are present in a sea star (Asterias)?
Explanation
In a standard five-armed sea star (Asterias), there is exactly one red pigmented, light-sensitive ocellus (eye spot) situated at the distal tip of each of the 5 ambulacral arms (a total of 5 eye spots, recorded as 5 in pentamerous symmetry). Choice D.
तारा मछली (Sea star / Asterias) की प्रत्येक भुजा के सिरे पर एक लाल रंग का नेत्र बिंदु होता है (कुल 5 नेत्र बिंदु)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2415📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyMolluscan Torsion Evolution
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Torsion in gastropods improves their defense mechanism.
Reason (R): The repositioning of the mantle cavity allows the head to retract into the shell before the foot.
Choose the Correct Statements:
Explanation
Both statements are true and causally linked: Torsion (180∘180^\circ counter-clockwise twisting of the visceral mass in larval gastropods) shifts the mantle cavity anteriorly above the head, allowing the vulnerable head and tentacles to retract inside the protective shell cavity FIRST, followed by the muscular foot and sealed with the operculum. Choice A.
अभिकथन A और कारण R दोनों सही हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है (मरोड़ या टॉर्सन के कारण मेंटल कैविटी आगे आ जाती है जिससे संवेदनशील सिर पहले कवच के अंदर सुरक्षित चला जाता है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2416📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyUrochordata (Endostyle)
Which of the following is/are true about the endostyle in Urochordates (e.g. Herdmania)?
I. It is involved in filter feeding.
II. It secretes mucus to trap food particles.
III. It is homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates.
IV. It is present only in the larval stage.
Options:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and III are true: The endostyle on the ventral floor of the pharynx secretes iodinated mucus to trap suspended micro-food particles during ciliary filter feeding (I, II), and biochemical and developmental studies confirm it is evolutionary homologous to the vertebrate Thyroid Gland (III). Statement IV is false because the endostyle is retained and functions actively throughout adult urochordate life. Correct: I, II, and III (Choice B).
कथन I, II और III सही हैं (एंडोस्टाइल फिल्टर फीडिंग करता है, बलगम स्रावित करता है और कशेरुकियों की थायरॉयड ग्रंथि के समजात है; यह वयस्क में भी रहता है अतः IV गलत है)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2417📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyAvian Anatomy (Uropygial Gland)
Feathers of birds are made waterproof due to the oily preening secretion of the:
Explanation
Birds possess a specialized sebaceous cutaneous gland located dorsally at the base of the tail called the Uropygial Gland (Preen Gland), which secretes a rich fatty, hydrophobic oil spread over the plumage during preening to ensure waterproofing and feather flexibility.
पक्षियों के पंख 'यूरोपाइजियल ग्रंथि' (Uropygial glands / प्रीन ग्रंथि) द्वारा स्रावित तैलीय पदार्थ के कारण जलरोधी (Waterproof) बनते हैं।
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2418📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyMammalian Classification (Metatheria)
Which one is NOT correct about Metatheria (Marsupials e.g. Kangaroo)?
Explanation
Statement C is NOT correct: Marsupials (Metatheria) give birth to extremely altricial, embryonic young because they lack a true allantoic placenta (their placenta is rudimentary choriovitelline or non-functional). A well-developed chorioallantoic placenta is the defining hallmark of Eutherian (placental) mammals.
मेटाथीरिया (कंगारू जैसे मार्सुपियल) के बारे में कथन C गलत है क्योंकि इनमें 'सुविकसित प्लेसेंटा' (Placenta is well developed) नहीं होता; बच्चे अपरिपक्व पैदा होकर थैली में पलते हैं।
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2419📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyPhysiology of Osmoregulation in Fishes
Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Marine fish maintain osmotic balance by drinking large amounts of seawater.
Reason (R): Marine fish excrete excess salt through specialized cells in their gills to prevent dehydration.
Which statement is correct?
Explanation
Both statements are true and causally explain marine osmoregulation: Marine teleost fishes are hypoosmotic to seawater and continuously lose water via osmosis across their gills; to prevent dehydration, they drink large volumes of seawater (Assertion A) and actively pump out excess sodium and chloride ions against the concentration gradient through specialized mitochondria-rich Chloride Cells in their branchial gill epithelium (Reason R). Choice A.
अभिकथन A और कारण R दोनों सत्य हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है (समुद्री मछलियां निर्जलीकरण से बचने के लिए अत्यधिक समुद्री जल पीती हैं और क्लोराइड कोशिकाओं द्वारा अतिरिक्त लवण बाहर निकालती हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2420📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyAmphibian Biology (Parental Care)
Which of the following statements about parental care in amphibians is/are correct?
I. In some amphibians, males guard the eggs and provide protection until they hatch.
II. Certain amphibians, like Darwin's frog, carry their tadpoles in the vocal sac after hatching.
III. Some amphibians, such as common toads, do not provide any form of parental care, leaving eggs to develop on their own.
IV. Male salamanders perform courtship dances to attract females and assist with egg-laying but do not provide any care afterward.
Choose The Correct Statement:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and III are well-documented facts of amphibian parental care: Male hellbenders and midwife toads protect and carry eggs (I), male Darwin's frog (Rhinoderma darwinii) broods developing tadpoles in its vocal sacs (II), and many anurans simply deposit gelatinous egg clutches in water without further care (III). Correct: Statements I, II, and III are correct (Choice A).
कथन I, II और III सही हैं (डार्विन मेंढक वोकल सैक में बच्चों को पालता है और कुछ नर मेंढक अंडों की रक्षा करते हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2421📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyRespiratory Physiology (Alveolar pO2)
The partial pressure of oxygen (pO2pO_2) in human alveolar air is approximately:
Explanation
In pulmonary gas exchange physiology, the partial pressure of oxygen in dry atmospheric air is ≈159 mm Hg\approx 159\text{ mm Hg}, in Alveolar Air is 104 mm Hg104\text{ mm Hg}, in deoxygenated venous blood is 40 mm Hg40\text{ mm Hg}, and in oxygenated arterial blood is 95 mm Hg95\text{ mm Hg}. Choice C.
फेफड़ों की कूपिका वायु (Alveolar air) में ऑक्सीजन का आंशिक दाब (pO2pO_2) लगभग '104 mm Hg' होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2422📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyNeurophysiology (Resting Membrane Potential)
Choose the Correct Statements About Resting Membrane Potential (RMP):
I. The resting membrane potential is typically around -70 mV.
II. The sodium-potassium pump actively maintains this potential.
III. At rest, the membrane is more permeable to Na+ than K+.
IV. Resting potential is maintained by passive ion diffusion and active transport.
Choose The Correct Option:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and IV are correct: Neuronal RMP is typically −70 mV-70\text{ mV} (I), the electrogenic Na+/K+Na^+/K^+ ATPase pump actively expels 3 Na+3\,Na^+ for every 2 K+2\,K^+ pumped in (II), and RMP represents dynamic balance between active pumping and passive leakage (IV). Statement III is false because resting neuronal membranes are 25 to 3025\text{ to }30 times MORE permeable to K+K^+ than to Na+Na^+ through non-gated potassium leak channels. Correct: Only I, II, and IV (Choice C).
कथन I, II और IV सही हैं (विश्राम झिल्ली विभव −70 mV-70\text{ mV} होता है जिसे सोडियम-पोटेशियम पंप बनाए रखता है; विश्राम अवस्था में झिल्ली Na+Na^+ की तुलना में K+K^+ के लिए अधिक पारगम्य होती है अतः III गलत है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2423📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyHuman Evolution (Java Man Discovery)
The fossil of Java-Man (Pithecanthropus erectus / Homo erectus) was discovered in 1891 on the banks of the Solo River in Eastern Java by:
Explanation
Dutch anatomist and geologist Marie Eugène François Thomas Dubois discovered the fossilized skullcap and femur of Java Man (Pithecanthropus erectus, now classified as Homo erectus erectus) at Trinil along the Solo River in East Java in 1891.
जावा मानव (Homo erectus) के प्रसिद्ध जीवाश्म की खोज 1891 में पूर्वी जावा की सोलो नदी के तट पर डच वैज्ञानिक 'यूजीन डुबॉइस' (Eugene Dubois) ने की थी।
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2424📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyNatural Selection (Industrial Melanism)
Which of the following is the most famous historical example of industrial melanism and directional natural selection?
Explanation
The Peppered Moth (Biston betularia) in industrial England is the world's most famous textbook demonstration of directional natural selection, where soot-darkened tree trunks favored the survival and proliferation of the melanic carbonaria morph over the light typica morph.
औद्योगिक मेलैनिज्म (Industrial melanism) और प्राकृतिक चयन का सबसे प्रसिद्ध ऐतिहासिक उदाहरण 'पेपर्ड मॉथ' (Biston betularia) है।
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2425📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyHuman Leukocyte Antigens (HLA)
In humans, the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) gene cluster located on chromosome 6 is called the:
Explanation
In humans, the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) is designated as the Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) system, a highly polymorphic cluster of genes located on the short arm of chromosome 6 encoding cell-surface antigen-presenting glycoproteins.
मनुष्यों में मेजर हिस्टोकंपैटिबिलिटी कॉम्प्लेक्स (MHC) को 'HLA' (ह्यूमन ल्यूकोसाइट एंटीजन) कहा जाता है।
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2426📚Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyB-Lymphocyte Activation & Humoral Immunity
B lymphocytes are involved in the human immune response to a bacterial infection. Which of the following cellular processes would TYPICALLY be carried out by these B cells in response to the infection?
I. cell division by mitosis (clonal selection and expansion)
II. transcription producing mRNA for antibody synthesis
III. engulfing and digesting bacteria via phagocytosis
Options:
Explanation
Upon encountering a specific bacterial antigen, activated B lymphocytes undergo rapid clonal expansion through Mitotic Cell Division (I) and massive Transcription/Translation producing mRNA to synthesize immunoglobulin antibodies as plasma cells (II). Phagocytic engulfment and digestion of whole bacteria (III) is performed by professional phagocytes (macrophages, dendritic cells, and neutrophils), NOT by B lymphocytes. Correct: I and II only (Choice A).
जीवाणु संक्रमण के विरुद्ध B-लिम्फोसाइट्स समसूत्री विभाजन द्वारा क्लोनल प्रसार (I) और एंटीबॉडी संश्लेषण हेतु mRNA प्रतिलेखन (II) करती हैं (जीवाणुओं का भक्षण फैगोसाइट्स करते हैं, B कोशिकाएं नहीं)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2427📚General English & ComprehensionIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meaning of the given idiom: "At the drop of the hat"
Explanation
The idiom 'at the drop of a hat' means immediately, without any hesitation, delay, or prior planning ('done in an instant'). Choice B.
'At the drop of the hat' मुहावरे का अर्थ 'बिना किसी देरी के तुरंत या एक पल में' (Done in an instant / immediately) होता है।
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2428📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "I was advised to abstain ________ all alcoholic drinks."
Explanation
The verb 'abstain' standardly takes the preposition 'from' (abstain from something = to restrain oneself from indulging).
क्रिया 'abstain' के साथ हमेशा 'from' प्रीपोजिशन का प्रयोग होता है: 'abstain from all alcoholic drinks'। सही विकल्प C है।
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2429📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "He had to repent ________ what he had done."
Explanation
One repents 'of' or 'for' a past misdeed or action ('repent for what he had done'). Choice D.
किए गए कार्य पर पछतावा व्यक्त करने के लिए 'repent for' का प्रयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2430📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "Ravi could not dissociate himself ________ what he said earlier."
Explanation
The verb 'dissociate' consistently collocates with the preposition 'from' ('dissociate oneself from something').
क्रिया 'dissociate' के साथ प्रीपोजिशन 'from' का प्रयोग होता है: 'dissociate himself from'। सही विकल्प C है।
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2431📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Sports Current Affairs 2024
How many gold medals were won by the Indian contingent in the 2024 Paris Paralympics Games?
Explanation
At the 2024 Paris Paralympic Games, India achieved its best-ever performance with a total of 29 medals: exactly 7 Gold medals, 9 Silver medals, and 13 Bronze medals.
2024 पेरिस पैरालंपिक खेलों में भारतीय दल ने कुल 29 पदकों में से '7 स्वर्ण पदक' (7 gold medals) जीते। सही विकल्प A है।
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2432📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Classical Languages of India 2024
Which of the following languages was NOT recently inducted in the list of Classical Languages of India in October 2024?
Explanation
On 3 October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved 5 new Classical Languages: Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese. Kashmiri was NOT inducted.
अक्टूबर 2024 में केंद्रीय मंत्रिमंडल ने मराठी, बंगाली, पाली, प्राकृत और असमिया को शास्त्रीय भाषा का दर्जा दिया; 'कश्मीरी' (Kashmiri) इसमें शामिल नहीं है।
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2433📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Nobel Prizes 2024
Who among the following won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2024 for foundational discoveries in machine learning?
Explanation
The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded jointly to John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton for foundational discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks. (Baker, Hassabis, Jumper won in Chemistry).
कृत्रिम तंत्रिका नेटवर्क (मशीन लर्निंग) के विकास के लिए 2024 का भौतिकी का नोबेल पुरस्कार 'जॉफ्री हिंटन' (Geoffrey Hinton) और जॉन हॉपफील्ड को दिया गया।
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2434📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Sports Tournaments (Women's T20 World Cup 2024)
The ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024 was organized in which of the following countries?
Explanation
The ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024 (relocated from Bangladesh due to political unrest) was hosted by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in Dubai and Sharjah in October 2024 (won by New Zealand).
ICC महिला टी20 विश्व कप 2024 का आयोजन 'संयुक्त अरब अमीरात' (UAE / दुबई व शारजाह) में किया गया था।
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2435📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Geography (International Borders)
India shares the longest international land boundary with which of the following countries?
Explanation
India shares its longest international land border with Bangladesh, spanning an extensive length of 4,096.7 km (surpassing borders with China 3,488 km and Pakistan 3,323 km).
भारत अपनी सबसे लंबी अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्थलीय सीमा 'बांग्लादेश' (Bangladesh / 4,096.7 किमी) के साथ साझा करता है।
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2436📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)National Current Affairs Renaming
The Government of India has decided to rename the capital city of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Port Blair, as:
Explanation
On 13 September 2024, Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced that Port Blair, the capital of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, has been renamed 'Sri Vijaya Puram' to honor the historical naval role of the Chola Empire.
सितंबर 2024 में केंद्र सरकार ने अंडमान और निकोबार की राजधानी पोर्ट ब्लेयर का नाम बदलकर 'श्री विजय पुरम' (Sri Vijaya Puram) कर दिया है।
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2437📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Geography (State Sizes)
Which is the largest state in India in terms of geographical area?
Explanation
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by land area, covering 342,239 km² (representing about 10.4% of India's total geographical area).
क्षेत्रफल की दृष्टि से भारत का सबसे बड़ा राज्य 'राजस्थान' (Rajasthan / 3.42 लाख वर्ग किमी) है।
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2438📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningPercentages (Salary & Deductions)
A person gives 20% of his salary to his wife and 25% of the remaining to his children. Now he is left with Rs. 27,000. What is his total salary?
Explanation
Let total salary be SS. After giving 20% to wife, remaining =0.80S= 0.80S. He gives 25% of this remainder to children, leaving 75%75\% of the remainder: Balance=0.75×0.80S=0.60S\text{Balance} = 0.75 \times 0.80S = 0.60S. Given 0.60S=27,000  ⟹  S=270000.60=45,0000.60S = 27,000 \implies S = \frac{27000}{0.60} = 45,000. Choice C.
पत्नी को 20%20\% देने के बाद शेष =80%= 80\%। बच्चों को शेष का 25%25\% देने पर बचा =0.75×80%=60%= 0.75 \times 80\% = 60\%। अतः 60%=27,000  ⟹  60\% = 27,000 \implies कुल वेतन =45,000= 45,000 रुपये। सही विकल्प C है।
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2439📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningTime and Work
Sachin can complete a job in 15 days. Ankit alone can complete the same job in 10 days. Sachin works for 9 days and then the remaining job is completed by Ankit. How many days will it take Ankit to complete the remaining job alone?
Explanation
Sachin's 1-day work =1/15= 1/15. In 9 days, Sachin completes 9×115=359 \times \frac{1}{15} = \frac{3}{5} of the work. Remaining work =1−35=25= 1 - \frac{3}{5} = \frac{2}{5}. Ankit completes the full work in 10 days, so he completes the remaining 25\frac{2}{5} in: 25×10=4 days\frac{2}{5} \times 10 = 4\text{ days}. Choice D.
सचिन 9 दिनों में 9/15=3/59/15 = 3/5 काम करता है। शेष कार्य =2/5= 2/5। अंकित शेष कार्य पूरा करेगा =2/5×10=4= 2/5 \times 10 = 4 दिन में। सही विकल्प D है।
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2440📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningTime and Work (Combined Rates)
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days, B and C together can do it in 20 days. A starts the work and works on it for 5 days, then B takes it up and works for 15 days. Finally, C finishes the work in 18 days. In how many days can C do the work when doing it separately?
Explanation
Let total work be LCM(30,20)=60 units\text{LCM}(30, 20) = 60\text{ units}. Efficiencies: (A+B)=2 units/day(A+B) = 2\text{ units/day}, (B+C)=3 units/day(B+C) = 3\text{ units/day}. Total work =5A+15B+18C=5(A+B)+10(B+C)+8C=60= 5A + 15B + 18C = 5(A+B) + 10(B+C) + 8C = 60. Substitute: 5(2)+10(3)+8C=60  ⟹  10+30+8C=60  ⟹  8C=20  ⟹  C=2.5 units/day5(2) + 10(3) + 8C = 60 \implies 10 + 30 + 8C = 60 \implies 8C = 20 \implies C = 2.5\text{ units/day}. Days for C alone =602.5=24 days= \frac{60}{2.5} = 24\text{ days}. Choice B.
कुल कार्य =60= 60 इकाई। 5(A+B)+10(B+C)+8C=60  ⟹  10+30+8C=60  ⟹  C=2.55(A+B) + 10(B+C) + 8C = 60 \implies 10 + 30 + 8C = 60 \implies C = 2.5 इकाई/दिन। C अकेले काम करेगा =60/2.5=24= 60/2.5 = 24 दिन में। सही विकल्प B है।
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2441📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningCost and Ratios
Price of each article of type P, Q, and R is Rs. 300, Rs. 180 and Rs. 120 respectively. Suresh buys articles of each type in the ratio 3:2:3 in Rs. 6480. How many articles of type Q did he purchase?
Explanation
Let quantities bought be 3k,2k,3k3k, 2k, 3k. Total cost: 3k(300)+2k(180)+3k(120)=6480  ⟹  900k+360k+360k=6480  ⟹  1620k=6480  ⟹  k=43k(300) + 2k(180) + 3k(120) = 6480 \implies 900k + 360k + 360k = 6480 \implies 1620k = 6480 \implies k = 4. Articles of type Q purchased =2k=2×4=8= 2k = 2 \times 4 = 8. Choice A.
लागत समीकरण: 3k(300)+2k(180)+3k(120)=1620k=6480  ⟹  k=43k(300) + 2k(180) + 3k(120) = 1620k = 6480 \implies k = 4। वस्तु Q की संख्या =2×4=8= 2 \times 4 = 8। सही विकल्प A है।
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2442📚General Science & EnvironmentSources of Energy (Geothermal)
Geothermal energy is obtained from:
Explanation
Geothermal energy is natural thermal energy generated and stored in the Earth's core, mantle, and crust from primordial heat and radioactive decay of minerals.
भू-तापीय ऊर्जा (Geothermal energy) 'पृथ्वी के आंतरिक भाग / कोर' (The Earth's core) से प्राप्त होती है।
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2443📚General Science & EnvironmentBiomass Energy
Which of the following is a form of biomass energy?
Explanation
Biomass is renewable organic material that comes from plants and animals; Wood (fuelwood) is a classic renewable biomass energy source (Coal, oil, and natural gas are non-renewable fossil fuels).
बायोमास ऊर्जा का रूप 'लकड़ी' (Wood) है (कोयला, तेल और गैस जीवाश्म ईंधन हैं)।
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2444📚General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Plane Mirror Focal Length)
The focal length of a plane mirror is:
Explanation
Since a plane mirror has an infinitely large radius of curvature (R=∞R = \infty), its focal length f=R/2f = R/2 is At Infinity.
समतल दर्पण की वक्रता त्रिज्या अनंत होने के कारण इसकी फोकस दूरी 'अनंत' (At Infinity) होती है।
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2445📚General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Plane Mirror Image)
The image formed by a plane mirror is always:
Explanation
A plane mirror always forms a Virtual, Erect, laterally inverted image that is identical in size to the object and located at the same distance behind the mirror.
समतल दर्पण द्वारा बनने वाला प्रतिबिंब हमेशा 'आभासी और सीधा' (Virtual and erect) होता है।
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2446📚General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects (Myopia)
Myopia (near-sightedness) of the human eye can be corrected using a:
Explanation
Myopia occurs when parallel light rays focus in front of the retina; it is optically corrected by placing a diverging Concave Lens in front of the eye to diverge rays onto the retina.
निकट दृष्टि दोष (Myopia) के निवारण के लिए 'अवतल लेंस' (Concave lens / अपसारी लेंस) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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2447📚General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects
Near-sightedness is medically termed as:
Explanation
Near-sightedness (inability to clearly see distant objects while near vision remains clear) is medically termed Myopia.
निकट दृष्टि दोष को चिकित्सीय रूप से 'मायोपिया' (Myopia) कहा जाता है।
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2448📚General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Anatomy
The human eye forms the real, inverted image of an object at its:
Explanation
The crystalline eye lens focuses incoming light rays onto the light-sensitive neural layer at the back of the eyeball known as the Retina.
मानव नेत्र में किसी वस्तु का वास्तविक और उल्टा प्रतिबिंब 'रेटिना' (Retina / दृष्टि पटल) पर बनता है।
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2449📚General Science & EnvironmentEcosystems (Energy Flow)
In an ecological ecosystem, the flow of energy is always:
Explanation
According to Lindeman's thermodynamics of ecosystems, the flow of solar energy through food chains is strictly Unidirectional (one-way from producers to herbivores to carnivores, dissipating as heat without recycling).
पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में ऊर्जा का प्रवाह हमेशा 'एकदिशीय' (Unidirectional / एकतरफा) होता है।
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2450📚General Science & EnvironmentTrophic Levels Energy Transfer
In an ecosystem, when energy moves from one trophic level to another, it:
Explanation
According to Lindeman's 10% Law of energy transfer, approximately 90% of energy is lost as metabolic heat and respiration at each step, so energy progressively Decreases at each successive trophic level.
एक पोषण स्तर से दूसरे पोषण स्तर में जाने पर ऊर्जा की मात्रा हमेशा 'घटती है' (Decreases / 10% नियम)।
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2451📚General Science & EnvironmentHuman Diseases
Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?
Explanation
Cancer is a non-communicable, non-infectious disease caused by genetic mutations and abnormal cellular proliferation (Tuberculosis, chickenpox, and measles are communicable infectious diseases).
दिए गए रोगों में से गैर-संक्रामक रोग 'कैंसर' (Cancer) है (टीबी, चेचक और खसरा संक्रामक हैं)।
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2452📚General Science & EnvironmentAir Pollution (Smog)
Smog is produced due to the atmospheric combination of:
Explanation
The word 'Smog' is a portmanteau originally coined to describe heavy atmospheric pollution caused by the mixture of Smoke and Fog.
'स्मॉग' (धुआंसा) का निर्माण 'धुएं और कोहरे' (Smoke and fog) के संयोजन से होता है।
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2453📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Agriculture (Green Revolution)
The Green Revolution in India was primarily related to a massive increase in the production of:
Explanation
The Green Revolution (spearheaded in the late 1960s by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan and Norman Borlaug using high-yielding dwarf varieties) achieved its most dramatic and transformative production gains in Wheat (and subsequently Rice).
भारत में हरित क्रांति (Green Revolution) का संबंध मुख्य रूप से 'गेहूं के उत्पादन' (Wheat production) में अभूतपूर्व वृद्धि से था।
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2454📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Agriculture (Plantation Crops)
Which of the following is NOT a plantation crop?
Explanation
Plantation agriculture involves single-crop extensive farming for commercial export: Tea, Coffee, and Rubber are classic plantation crops. Wheat is an extensive food grain cereal crop (Rabi crop), NOT a plantation crop.
दिए गए विकल्पों में से 'गेहूं' (Wheat) एक खाद्यान्न फसल है, यह बागानी/रोपण फसल (Plantation crop) नहीं है (चाय, कॉफी, रबर बागानी फसलें हैं)।
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2455📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Fundamental Rights)
How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed to Indian citizens under Part III of the Constitution?
Explanation
The Indian Constitution currently guarantees Six Fundamental Rights: 1. Right to Equality, 2. Right to Freedom, 3. Right against Exploitation, 4. Right to Freedom of Religion, 5. Cultural and Educational Rights, and 6. Right to Constitutional Remedies. (Right to Property was deleted as a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment in 1978).
भारतीय संविधान द्वारा नागरिकों को वर्तमान में '6 मौलिक अधिकार' (6 Fundamental Rights) प्रदान किए गए हैं।
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2456📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Earth Tilt & Seasons
The axial tilting of the Earth (23.5∘23.5^\circ) as it revolves around the Sun is responsible for the:
Explanation
The 23.5∘23.5^\circ tilt of Earth's rotational axis relative to its orbital plane causes varying angles of solar incidence throughout the year, which is directly responsible for the Change in Seasons. (Earth's rotation on its axis causes day and night).
पृथ्वी के अपने अक्ष पर 23.5∘23.5^\circ झुके होने के कारण 'ऋतुओं में परिवर्तन' (Change in seasons) होता है।
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2457📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Solar System (Mars)
Which planet in the solar system is popularly referred to as the "Red Planet"?
Explanation
Mars is known as the 'Red Planet' due to the widespread presence of iron oxide (rust) on its surface giving it a distinctive reddish hue.
सौरमंडल के ग्रह 'मंगल' (Mars) को उसकी सतह पर लौह ऑक्साइड की उपस्थिति के कारण 'लाल ग्रह' (Red Planet) कहा जाता है।
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2458📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Solar System (Venus)
Which planet is often referred to as Earth's twin because of its similar size, mass, and density?
Explanation
Venus is called 'Earth's Twin' (or Earth's sister planet) because of its remarkable similarity to Earth in radius, volume, mass, density, and gravitational pull.
आकार, द्रव्यमान और घनत्व में समानता के कारण 'शुक्र' (Venus) ग्रह को 'पृथ्वी की जुड़वां बहन' (Earth's twin) कहा जाता है।
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2459📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Economic Sectors (Secondary Sector)
The _______ covers economic activities in which natural raw materials are transformed into finished manufactured goods through industrial processes:
Explanation
The Secondary Sector (Industrial/Manufacturing Sector) encompasses economic activities where primary raw materials (agricultural crops, minerals, timber) are processed, manufactured, and converted into finished goods.
वह क्षेत्र जिसमें प्राकृतिक उत्पादों को विनिर्माण के माध्यम से अन्य रूपों में परिवर्तित किया जाता है, 'द्वितीयक क्षेत्र' (Secondary Sector / औद्योगिक क्षेत्र) कहलाता है।
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2460📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense Test
Sowmya Krishnan walked 20 m towards the north. Then she turned right and walks 30 m. Then she turns right and walks 35 m. Then she turns left and walks 15 m. Finally she turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many meters is she from the starting position?
Explanation
Step-by-step vector path: Start at (0,0)(0, 0). 1. 20 m North −>(0,20)-> (0, 20). 2. Turn right, 30 m East −>(30,20)-> (30, 20). 3. Turn right, 35 m South −>(30,20−35)=(30,−15)-> (30, 20 - 35) = (30, -15). 4. Turn left, 15 m East −>(30+15,−15)=(45,−15)-> (30 + 15, -15) = (45, -15). 5. Turn left, 15 m North −>(45,−15+15)=(45,0)-> (45, -15 + 15) = (45, 0). Final position is (45,0)(45, 0), which is exactly 45 meters East of the starting point. Choice D.
दिशा पथ: (0,20)−>(30,20)−>(30,−15)−>(45,−15)−>(45,0)(0, 20) -> (30, 20) -> (30, -15) -> (45, -15) -> (45, 0)। प्रारंभिक बिंदु से अंतिम स्थिति ठीक '45 मीटर पूर्व' (45 m East) है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2461📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningCoding-Decoding (Direct Substitution)
In a certain code language 'DEAR' is coded as '7465' and 'LIFE' is coded as '8394'. Then how will 'IDEAL' be coded in the same code language?
Explanation
Letter substitution matching: From DEAR and LIFE: D = 7, E = 4, A = 6, R = 5; L = 8, I = 3, F = 9. For IDEAL: I = 3, D = 7, E = 4, A = 6, L = 8   ⟹  \implies 37468. Choice D.
अक्षर कूट मिलान: D=7, E=4, A=6, R=5, L=8, I=3। IDEAL का कूट: I(3) D(7) E(4) A(6) L(8) = 37468। सही विकल्प D है।
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2462📚Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
In a certain language, CADET is written as 31457. How will DEFER be written as in the same language?
Explanation
Examine alphabetical positions: C=3, A=1, D=4, E=5, but T (normally 20) is coded as 7. Here: D=4, E=5, F=6, E=5, R=9   ⟹  \implies 45659. Choice D.
अक्षर कूट: D=4, E=5, F=6, E=5, R=9   ⟹  \implies 45659। सही विकल्प D है।
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2463📚Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsBarriers to Communication
Which of the following is NOT a recognized category of communication barriers?
Explanation
Standard recognized barriers to communication in organizational theory include: Organizational, Linguistic/Semantic, Psychological/Interpersonal, and Physical barriers. 'Financial barrier' is NOT a standard communication barrier.
संचार की बाधाओं में संगठनात्मक, भाषाई और पारस्परिक बाधाएं शामिल हैं; 'वित्तीय बाधा' (Financial barrier) संचार का कोई मानक प्रकार नहीं है।
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2464📚Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsOccupational Health & Safety (Biohazards)
Which among the following is a biological hazard in the workplace environment?
Explanation
Biological hazards (biohazards) are infectious organic organisms or agents—including Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites—that pose health risks to workers.
कार्यस्थल पर जैविक खतरों (Biological hazard) में संक्रामक रोग उत्पन्न करने वाले 'वायरस' (Virus / विषाणु) शामिल हैं।
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2465📚Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsQuality Standards (ISO 9001)
Which is the ONLY management system standard in the ISO 9000 family to which organizations can formally certify?
Explanation
ISO 9001 (Quality Management Systems - Requirements) is the only standard in the ISO 9000 family to which an organization can be officially audited and certified.
ISO 9000 परिवार में केवल 'ISO 9001' ही वह मानक है जिसके तहत संगठन औपचारिक प्रमाणन (Certification) प्राप्त कर सकते हैं।
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2466📚Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsQuality Certification (BIS Hallmark)
Which certification mark is legally required for gold jewellery sold in India to certify purity?
Explanation
BIS Hallmarking (certifying purity with the triangular BIS logo, fineness purity mark, and 6-digit HUID code) is mandatory for gold jewellery sold in India.
भारत में सोने के आभूषणों की शुद्धता प्रमाणित करने के लिए 'BIS हॉलमार्क' (BIS hallmark) अनिवार्य है।
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2467📚Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsMetric Conversions
How many centimetres are there in 2.5 meters?
Explanation
Since 1 meter=100 centimetres1\text{ meter} = 100\text{ centimetres}, 2.5 meters=2.5×100=250 cm2.5\text{ meters} = 2.5 \times 100 = 250\text{ cm}. Choice B.
1\text{ मीटर} = 100\text{ सेमी} \implies 2.5\text{ मीटर} = 2.5 \times 100 = 250\text{ सेमी}। सही विकल्प B है।
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2468📚Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsFunctions of BIS
Which of the following is a key function of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)?
Explanation
The core statutory mandate of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is formulating, publishing, and enforcing national Quality Standards for goods, products, and services in India.
भारतीय मानक ब्यूरो (BIS) का प्राथमिक और प्रमुख कार्य 'वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के लिए गुणवत्ता मानक निर्धारित करना' (Setting quality standards for goods and services) है।
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2469📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "I was advised to abstain ________ all alcoholic drinks."
Explanation
The verb 'abstain' standardly takes the fixed preposition 'from' (to abstain from doing something or consuming something).
क्रिया 'abstain' के साथ निश्चित प्रीपोजिशन 'from' का प्रयोग होता है ('abstain from alcoholic drinks')। सही विकल्प C है।
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2470📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "He had to repent ________ what he had done."
Explanation
In formal English usage, the intransitive verb 'repent' takes the preposition 'of' (e.g. to repent of one's sins or wrongdoings). Choice B.
अंग्रेजी व्याकरण में 'repent of' का प्रयोग किसी किए गए कार्य पर पश्चाताप करने के लिए होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2471📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blank with correct preposition: "Ravi could not dissociate himself ________ what he said earlier."
Explanation
The verb 'dissociate' governs the preposition 'from' (to dissociate oneself from a statement, organization, or action).
'Dissociate' के साथ प्रीपोजिशन 'from' का प्रयोग होता है ('dissociate himself from')। सही विकल्प C है।
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2472📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Sports Current Affairs 2024
How many gold medals were won by the Indian contingent in the 2024 Paris Paralympics Games?
Explanation
At the 2024 Paris Paralympics, India achieved its best-ever performance with a total of 29 medals, comprising 7 Gold, 9 Silver, and 13 Bronze medals.
पेरिस पैरालंपिक 2024 में भारतीय दल ने कुल 7 स्वर्ण पदक (Gold medals) जीते (कुल पदक: 29)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2473📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Classical Languages of India 2024
Which of the following language is recently NOT inducted in the list of classical languages of India (in October 2024)?
Explanation
In October 2024, the Union Cabinet granted classical language status to five languages: Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese. Kashmiri was NOT among the newly inducted classical languages.
अक्टूबर 2024 में मराठी, बंगाली, पाली, प्राकृत और असमिया को शास्त्रीय भाषा का दर्जा दिया गया; 'कश्मीरी' (Kashmiri) इसमें शामिल नहीं थी। सही विकल्प D है।
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2474📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Nobel Prizes 2024
Who among the following has won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2024?
Explanation
The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded jointly to John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton for foundational discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks. (Baker, Hassabis, and Jumper won the Chemistry Nobel).
भौतिकी में नोबेल पुरस्कार 2024 जॉन हॉपफील्ड और 'जॉफ्री हिंटन' (Geoffrey Hinton) को कृत्रिम तंत्रिका नेटवर्क (Machine Learning) के लिए प्रदान किया गया।
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2475📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Indian Geography Boundaries
India shares the longest international land boundary with which of the following countries?
Explanation
India shares its longest international terrestrial boundary with Bangladesh, extending over 4,096.7 kilometers.
भारत सबसे लंबी अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्थलीय सीमा 'बांग्लादेश' (4,096.7 किमी) के साथ साझा करता है।
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2476📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Current Affairs Renaming 2024
Government of India has decided to rename the capital of Andaman & Nicobar Islands (Port Blair) as:
Explanation
In September 2024, the Union Government officially renamed Port Blair, the capital city of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, to 'Sri Vijaya Puram' to honor the historic role of the islands in the freedom struggle and Chola naval history.
सितंबर 2024 में केंद्र सरकार ने अंडमान एवं निकोबार की राजधानी पोर्ट ब्लेयर का नाम बदलकर 'श्री विजय पुरम' (Sri Vijaya Puram) कर दिया। सही विकल्प B है।
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2477📚General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Indian Geography States
________ is the largest state in India in terms of geographical area:
Explanation
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by land area, covering 342,239 square kilometres (accounting for 10.4% of India's total geographical area).
क्षेत्रफल की दृष्टि से भारत का सबसे बड़ा राज्य 'राजस्थान' (Rajasthan) है।
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2478📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudePercentages (Salary & Expenditure)
A person gives 20% of his salary to his wife and 25% of the remaining to his children. Now he is left with Rs. 27,000. What is his total salary?
Explanation
Let total salary be SS. After giving 20% to his wife, remaining salary =80% of S=0.80S= 80\% \text{ of } S = 0.80S. He gives 25% of this remainder to his children, leaving 75%75\% of the remainder: Balance=0.75×0.80S=0.60S\text{Balance} = 0.75 \times 0.80S = 0.60S. Given 0.60S=27,000  ⟹  S=27,0000.60=45,0000.60S = 27,000 \implies S = \frac{27,000}{0.60} = 45,000. Choice C.
माना कुल वेतन SS है। पत्नी को 20%20\% देने के बाद बचा =80%= 80\%। बच्चों को शेष का 25%25\% देने पर अंतिम बचा =75%×80%=60%= 75\% \times 80\% = 60\%। 60%=27,000  ⟹  S=270000.60=45,00060\% = 27,000 \implies S = \frac{27000}{0.60} = 45,000 रु। सही विकल्प C है।
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2479📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
Sachin can complete a job in 15 days. Ankit alone can complete the same job in 10 days. Sachin works for 9 days and then the remaining job is completed by Ankit. How many days will it take Ankit to complete the remaining job alone?
Explanation
Let total work =30= 30 units (LCM of 15 and 10). Sachin's rate =3015=2= \frac{30}{15} = 2 units/day; Ankit's rate =3010=3= \frac{30}{10} = 3 units/day. In 9 days, Sachin completes 9×2=189 \times 2 = 18 units. Remaining work =30−18=12= 30 - 18 = 12 units. Days required for Ankit alone =123=4= \frac{12}{3} = 4 days. Choice D.
कुल कार्य =30= 30 इकाई। सचिन की क्षमता =2= 2 इकाई/दिन, अंकित की =3= 3 इकाई/दिन। सचिन ने 9 दिन में किया =18= 18 इकाई। शेष कार्य =12= 12 इकाई। अंकित द्वारा लिए गए दिन =123=4= \frac{12}{3} = 4 दिन। सही विकल्प D है।
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2480📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work Group Problem
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days, B and C together can do it in 20 days. A starts the work and works on it for 5 days, then B takes it up and works for 15 days. Finally, C finishes the work in 18 days. In how many days can C do the work when doing it separately (in days)?
Explanation
Let total work =60= 60 units. Daily work of (A+B)=6030=2(A + B) = \frac{60}{30} = 2 units; (B+C)=6020=3(B + C) = \frac{60}{20} = 3 units. A works 5 days, B works 15 days, C works 18 days. Group work: 5(A+B)+10(B+C)+8C=60  ⟹  5(2)+10(3)+8C=60  ⟹  10+30+8C=60  ⟹  8C=20  ⟹  C=2.55(A + B) + 10(B + C) + 8C = 60 \implies 5(2) + 10(3) + 8C = 60 \implies 10 + 30 + 8C = 60 \implies 8C = 20 \implies C = 2.5 units/day. Days for C alone =602.5=24= \frac{60}{2.5} = 24 days. Choice B.
कुल कार्य =60= 60 इकाई। A+B=2A+B = 2, B+C=3B+C = 3 इकाई/दिन। 5(A+B)+10(B+C)+8C=60  ⟹  10+30+8C=60  ⟹  8C=20  ⟹  C=2.55(A+B) + 10(B+C) + 8C = 60 \implies 10 + 30 + 8C = 60 \implies 8C = 20 \implies C = 2.5 इकाई/दिन। C अकेले काम करेगा =602.5=24= \frac{60}{2.5} = 24 दिन में। सही विकल्प B है।
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2481📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeRatio Applications in Purchases
Price of each article of type P, Q, and R is Rs. 300, Rs. 180 and Rs. 120 respectively. Suresh buys articles of each type in the ratio 3:2:3 in Rs. 6480. How many articles of type Q did he purchase?
Explanation
Let the number of articles purchased be 3x,2x,3x3x, 2x, 3x. Total expenditure: 3x(300)+2x(180)+3x(120)=6480  ⟹  900x+360x+360x=6480  ⟹  1620x=6480  ⟹  x=43x(300) + 2x(180) + 3x(120) = 6480 \implies 900x + 360x + 360x = 6480 \implies 1620x = 6480 \implies x = 4. Number of articles of type Q =2x=2×4=8= 2x = 2 \times 4 = 8. Choice A.
लागत समीकरण: 3x(300)+2x(180)+3x(120)=6480  ⟹  1620x=6480  ⟹  x=43x(300) + 2x(180) + 3x(120) = 6480 \implies 1620x = 6480 \implies x = 4। Q प्रकार की वस्तुएँ =2×4=8= 2 \times 4 = 8। सही विकल्प A है।
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2482📚General Science & EnvironmentBiomass Energy
Which of the following is a form of biomass energy?
Explanation
Wood (along with agricultural residues, cow dung, and bagasse) is an organic biofuel directly derived from living plants, classifying it as biomass energy. Coal, oil, and natural gas are fossil fuels.
लकड़ी (Wood) बायोमास ऊर्जा का एक प्रमुख रूप है (कोयला, तेल व गैस जीवाश्म ईंधन हैं)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2483📚General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Plane Mirror Focal Length)
The focal length of a plane mirror is:
Explanation
A plane mirror has no curvature (its radius of curvature R=∞R = \infty); therefore, its focal length f=R/2=∞f = R/2 = \infty (At Infinity).
समतल दर्पण की वक्रता त्रिज्या अनंत होती है, अतः इसकी फोकस दूरी 'अनंत पर' (At Infinity) होती है।
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2484📚General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Image in Plane Mirror)
The image formed by a plane mirror is always:
Explanation
The reflection in a plane mirror always produces an upright, same-sized, laterally inverted image that cannot be caught on a screen, which is Virtual and Erect.
समतल दर्पण द्वारा बना प्रतिबिंब हमेशा 'आभासी और सीधा' (Virtual and erect) होता है।
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2485📚General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects (Myopia Correction)
Myopia (near-sightedness) of the human eye can be corrected by using a:
Explanation
Myopia occurs when parallel light rays focus in front of the retina. It is corrected using a diverging Concave Lens to diverge incoming light so it focuses sharply on the retina.
निकट दृष्टि दोष (Myopia) को ठीक करने के लिए 'अवतल लेंस' (Concave lens) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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2486📚General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects (Terminology)
Near-sightedness is medically termed as:
Explanation
Near-sightedness (where close objects are seen clearly while distant objects appear blurred) is termed Myopia.
निकट दृष्टि दोष को चिकित्सीय रूप से 'मायोपिया' (Myopia) कहा जाता है।
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2487📚General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Anatomy
The human eye forms the real, inverted image of an object at its:
Explanation
The eye's crystalline lens focuses refracted light onto the light-sensitive neural layer called the Retina, where photoreceptor rods and cones form the image.
मानव नेत्र में किसी वस्तु का वास्तविक और उल्टा प्रतिबिंब 'रेटिना / दृष्टिपटल' (Retina) पर बनता है।
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2488📚General Science & EnvironmentEcology (Trophic Levels)
In an ecosystem, when energy moves from one trophic level to the next higher level, the available energy:
Explanation
According to Lindeman's 10% Law of energy transfer, only about 10% of the energy is transferred to the next trophic level; the remaining 90% is lost as metabolic heat, so energy Decreases progressively.
पारिस्थितिक तंत्र में एक पोषण स्तर से अगले पोषण स्तर पर जाने पर ऊर्जा की मात्रा 'घटती' (Decreases) है (10% का नियम)।
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2489📚General Science & EnvironmentHuman Health & Diseases
Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?
Explanation
Cancer is a non-communicable, non-infectious disease caused by unregulated cell proliferation, genetic mutations, and lifestyle factors. Tuberculosis (bacterial), chicken pox (viral), and measles (viral) are communicable.
कैंसर (Cancer) एक 'गैर-संचारी रोग' (Non-communicable disease) है जो एक व्यक्ति से दूसरे में नहीं फैलता।
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2490📚General Science & EnvironmentEnvironmental Pollution (Ozone Depletion)
Stratospheric ozone depletion is primarily caused due to increase in the atmospheric level of:
Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), widely used as refrigerants and propellants, release chlorine free radicals under solar UV radiation in the stratosphere, catalytically destroying ozone molecules.
ओजोन परत का क्षरण मुख्य रूप से 'क्लोरोफ्लोरोकार्बन' (CFCs) के स्तर में वृद्धि के कारण होता है।
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2491📚General Science & EnvironmentSoil Pollution & Acid Rain
Which among the following is a direct cause of soil acidification and pollution?
Explanation
Acid Rain (containing dissolved sulfuric acid H2SO4H_2SO_4 and nitric acid HNO3HNO_3 from SO2SO_2 and NOxNO_x emissions) leaches essential plant nutrients, increases soil acidity, and releases toxic aluminum ions into the soil.
मृदा प्रदूषण और मिट्टी के अम्लीकरण का मुख्य कारण 'अम्लीय वर्षा' (Acid Rain) है।
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2492📚General Science & EnvironmentAir Pollution (Smog)
Smog is produced due to the combination of:
Explanation
The term 'Smog' is a portmanteau blending 'smoke' and 'fog', referring to a dense atmospheric haze formed by smoke particles trapped in cold fog with atmospheric pollutants.
स्मॉग (धुआंसा) 'धुएं और कोहरे' (Smoke and fog) के मिश्रण से बनता है।
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2493📚General Science & EnvironmentGlobal Warming Effects
Global warming and rising planetary temperatures will cause:
Explanation
Global warming leads to thermal expansion of ocean water, catastrophic melting of polar ice caps, and rapid retreat of alpine glaciers   ⟹  \implies All of the above. Choice D.
ग्लोबल वार्मिंग के कारण समुद्र के जलस्तर में वृद्धि, ग्लेशियरों का पिघलना और ध्रुवीय बर्फ का घटना सभी प्रभाव होते हैं (All of the above)।
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2494📚Indian Polity, History & GeographyKhilafat & Non-Cooperation Movement
Which among the following movements was combined with the Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhiji's leadership?
Explanation
Gandhiji united the Khilafat Movement (led by the Ali brothers—Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali) with the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 to foster Hindu-Muslim unity against British imperial rule.
असहयोग आंदोलन के साथ 'खिलाफत आंदोलन' (Khilafat Movement) को गांधीजी के नेतृत्व में एकजुट किया गया था।
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2495📚Indian Polity, History & GeographyGeography Latitudes & Longitudes
The 0-degree Meridian passing through Greenwich, England is known as the:
Explanation
The Prime Meridian is the reference line of 0∘0^\circ longitude internationally adopted at Greenwich, London, from which all other longitudes (east and west) are measured.
ग्रीनविच से होकर गुजरने वाली 0∘0^\circ देशांतर रेखा को 'प्रधान मध्याह्न रेखा' (Prime Meridian) कहा जाता है।
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2496📚Indian Polity, History & GeographyAgriculture (Plantation Crops)
Which of the following is NOT a plantation crop?
Explanation
Tea, coffee, rubber, coconut, and oil palm are commercial plantation crops grown on large estates. Wheat is an extensive food grain cereal crop (Rabi crop).
गेहूं (Wheat) एक खाद्यान्न फसल है, यह 'रोपण / बागानी फसल' (Plantation crop) नहीं है (चाय, कॉफी, रबर बागानी फसलें हैं)।
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2497📚Indian Polity, History & GeographyIndian Polity (Fundamental Rights)
How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed in the Indian Constitution?
Explanation
Originally there were 7 Fundamental Rights, but the Right to Property (Article 31) was omitted by the 44th Amendment in 1978, leaving currently 6 Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35).
भारतीय संविधान में वर्तमान में कुल '6' मौलिक अधिकार (Fundamental Rights) प्रदत्त हैं।
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2498📚Indian Polity, History & GeographyPhysical Geography (Seasons)
The axial tilting of the Earth (23.5∘23.5^\circ) as it revolves around the Sun is responsible for the:
Explanation
The tilt of the Earth's axis of rotation relative to its orbital plane together with its revolution around the Sun causes the varying angle of solar rays throughout the year, producing the Change in Seasons.
पृथ्वी की धुरी का झुकाव और सूर्य के चारों ओर परिक्रमण 'ऋतुओं में परिवर्तन' (Change in seasons) के लिए जिम्मेदार है।
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2499📚Indian Polity, History & GeographySolar System (Mars)
Which planet of the solar system is referred to as the "Red Planet"?
Explanation
Mars is known as the 'Red Planet' due to the widespread presence of iron oxide (rust) on its surface regolith.
सौरमंडल के ग्रह 'मंगल' (Mars) को उसकी सतह पर लौह ऑक्साइड के कारण 'लाल ग्रह' कहा जाता है।
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2500📚Indian Polity, History & GeographySolar System (Venus)
Which planet is often referred to as "Earth's twin" due to its similar size, mass, and bulk composition?
Explanation
Venus is referred to as 'Earth's twin' or 'sister planet' because of its similar size, mass, density, and volume to Earth.
आकार, द्रव्यमान और घनत्व में समानता के कारण 'शुक्र' (Venus) को 'पृथ्वी की जुड़वां बहन' (Earth's twin) कहा जाता है।
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2501📚Indian Polity, History & GeographySectors of Economy (Secondary Sector)
The ________ sector covers economic activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing associated with industrial activity:
Explanation
The Secondary Sector includes industrial and manufacturing activities that process raw agricultural or mineral materials from the primary sector into finished goods.
प्राकृतिक उत्पादों को विनिर्माण प्रणाली के माध्यम से अन्य रूपों में बदलने वाली आर्थिक गतिविधि 'द्वितीयक क्षेत्र' (Secondary Sector / विनिर्माण) कहलाती है।
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2502📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityDirection Sense Test
Sowmya Krishnan walked 20 m towards the north. Then she turned right and walks 30 m. Then she turns right and walks 35 m. Then she turns left and walks 15 m. Finally she turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many meters is she from the starting position?
Explanation
Tracking coordinates: Start at (0,0)(0, 0). 1. 20 m North −>(0,20)-> (0, 20). 2. Right (East) 30 m −>(30,20)-> (30, 20). 3. Right (South) 35 m −>(30,−15)-> (30, -15). 4. Left (East) 15 m −>(45,−15)-> (45, -15). 5. Left (North) 15 m −>(45,0)-> (45, 0). Net position is (45,0)(45, 0), which is exactly 45 meters East of the starting point. Choice D.
उत्तर-दक्षिण दिशा: +20−35+15=0+20 - 35 + 15 = 0 मीटर। पूर्व दिशा: +30+15=45+30 + 15 = 45 मीटर। अतः वह प्रारंभिक बिंदु से '45 मीटर पूर्व' (45 m East) में है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2503📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityCoding-Decoding (Direct Letter Coding)
In a certain code language 'DEAR' is coded as '7465' and 'LIFE' is coded as '8394'. Then how will 'IDEAL' be coded in the same code language?
Explanation
Direct letter substitution: From DEAR and LIFE: D=7D = 7, E=4E = 4, A=6A = 6, R=5R = 5, L=8L = 8, I=3I = 3, F=9F = 9. For 'IDEAL': I=3,D=7,E=4,A=6,L=8  ⟹  37468I=3, D=7, E=4, A=6, L=8 \implies 37468. Choice D.
प्रत्यक्ष अक्षर कूट: D=7,E=4,A=6,L=8,I=3D=7, E=4, A=6, L=8, I=3। अतः 'IDEAL' का कोड 3746837468 होगा। सही विकल्प D है।
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2504📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityNumber Coding
In a certain language, CADET is written as 31457. How will DEFER be written as in the same language?
Explanation
Analyzing letter positions: C=3,A=1,D=4,E=5C=3, A=1, D=4, E=5. For 'DEFER': D=4,E=5,F=6,E=5,R=9D=4, E=5, F=6, E=5, R=9. Hence DEFER is coded as 45659. Choice D.
अक्षरों के कूट: D=4,E=5,F=6,E=5,R=9D=4, E=5, F=6, E=5, R=9। अतः 'DEFER' का कूट 4565945659 है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2505📚Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsBarriers to Communication
Which of the following is NOT a recognized category of communication barrier?
Explanation
Standard recognized barriers to effective communication include Organizational, Interpersonal/Psychological, Linguistic/Semantic, and Physical barriers. 'Financial barrier' is NOT a recognized communication barrier.
संचार की बाधाओं में संगठनात्मक, पारस्परिक और भाषाई बाधाएं शामिल हैं; 'वित्तीय बाधा' (Financial barrier) संचार बाधा का रूप नहीं है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2506📚Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsOccupational Health & Hazards
Which among the following is categorized as a biological hazard in the workplace?
Explanation
Biological hazards (biohazards) are infectious organic agents that pose a threat to human health, including Viruses, pathogenic bacteria, fungi, parasites, and biological toxins.
कार्यस्थल पर 'वायरस' (Virus / विषाणु) एक जैविक खतरा (Biological hazard) है।
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2507📚Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsQuality Standards (ISO 9001)
Which is the only standard in the ISO 9000 family to which organizations can achieve formal certification?
Explanation
ISO 9001 (Quality Management Systems - Requirements) is the only standard in the ISO 9000 quality management series against which an organization can be independently audited and officially certified.
ISO 9000 श्रृंखला में केवल 'ISO 9001' ही वह मानक है जिसके लिए कोई संस्था औपचारिक प्रमाणन (Certification) प्राप्त कर सकती है।
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2508📚Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCertification Marks (Hallmark)
Which certification mark is mandatory for gold jewellery in India?
Explanation
The BIS Hallmark is the mandatory purity certification system established by the Bureau of Indian Standards to certify the fineness and purity of gold and silver jewellery in India.
भारत में सोने के आभूषणों की शुद्धता प्रमाणित करने के लिए 'बीआईएस हॉलमार्क' (BIS hallmark) अनिवार्य है।
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2509📚Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsMetric Conversions
How many centimetres are there in 2.5 meters?
Explanation
Since 1 meter=100 centimetres1\text{ meter} = 100\text{ centimetres}, 2.5 meters=2.5×100=250 cm2.5\text{ meters} = 2.5 \times 100 = 250\text{ cm}. Choice B.
1\text{ मीटर} = 100\text{ सेमी}। अतः 2.5\text{ मीटर} = 2.5 \times 100 = 250\text{ सेमी}। सही विकल्प B है।
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2510📚Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsBIS Functions
Which of the following is a key primary function of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)?
Explanation
The core statutory function of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the formulation and implementation of National Standards setting quality, safety, and performance benchmarks for goods, processes, and services.
भारतीय मानक ब्यूरो (BIS) का मुख्य कार्य 'वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के लिए गुणवत्ता मानक निर्धारित करना' (Setting quality standards for goods and services) है।
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2511📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsSpace Technology (ISRO Missions)
Which of the following countries didn't have any satellite launched by ISRO's PSLV C-40 mission?
Explanation
ISRO's PSLV-C40 mission (launched in January 2018) deployed India's Cartosat-2 series satellite alongside 30 co-passenger satellites from six foreign nations: Canada, Finland, France, Republic of Korea, the UK, and the USA. Russia did not have any satellite aboard.
इसरो के PSLV C-40 मिशन में कनाडा, फिनलैंड, फ्रांस, दक्षिण कोरिया, यूके और यूएसए के उपग्रह शामिल थे; 'रूस' (Russia) का कोई उपग्रह इस मिशन में नहीं था।
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2512📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsHistory & Etymology of J&K
Which of the following is the literal etymological meaning of the name "Kashmir"?
Explanation
Etymologically, according to classical Sanskrit chronicles like Nilamata Purana, 'Kashmir' is derived from 'Ka' (meaning water) and 'Shimir' (meaning to desiccate or wither), literally signifying 'Land desiccated from water' (after Rishi Kashyapa drained the primeval lake Satisar).
नीलमत पुराण के अनुसार 'कश्मीर' का शाब्दिक अर्थ 'जल से सुखाया गया भूभाग' (Land desiccated from water) होता है ('क' = जल, 'शमीर' = सुखाना)।
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2513📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Polity & Assembly
In the present Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly (post-2023 amendment), how many members can be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor?
Explanation
Under the J&K Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2023, the Lieutenant Governor is empowered to nominate up to 5 members: 2 women, 2 Kashmiri Migrants (including one woman), and 1 displaced person from Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir (PoJK). Choice D.
जम्मू-कश्मीर पुनर्गठन संशोधन अधिनियम 2023 के तहत उपराज्यपाल (LG) कुल 5 सदस्यों को विधानसभा में मनोनीत कर सकते हैं (2 महिलाएं, 2 कश्मीरी प्रवासी और 1 PoJK विस्थापित)।
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2514📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndian Geography Basics
Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): India is the third-largest country in the world by area, covering 3,287,469 square kilometres.
Reason (R): India is bordered by five countries, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal.
Which of the following is correct?
Explanation
Both statements are factually incorrect: India is the seventh-largest country in the world by land area (not third-largest). India shares land borders with seven sovereign nations: Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Myanmar (not five). Correct: Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect (Choice D).
अभिकथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं क्योंकि भारत क्षेत्रफल में 7वां सबसे बड़ा देश है (तीसरा नहीं) और इसकी स्थलीय सीमा 7 देशों से लगती है (5 नहीं)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2515📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstitutional Law (Article 35A)
Article 35A of the Indian Constitution, which was applicable only to Jammu and Kashmir, was concerned with:
Explanation
Article 35A empowered the J&K State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges upon them, including the exclusive right to purchase immovable property (prohibiting land acquisition by non-residents) and state government employment.
अनुच्छेद 35A जम्मू और कश्मीर के 'स्थायी निवासियों' को विशेष अधिकार देता था और गैर-निवासियों को जमीन खरीदने से रोकता था (Prohibition of land sale to non-residents)।
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2516📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Political History
Who became the first woman Chief Minister of the State of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Mehbooba Mufti, president of the Jammu and Kashmir Peoples Democratic Party (PDP), was sworn in as the first woman Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir on 4 April 2016.
जम्मू और कश्मीर की पहली महिला मुख्यमंत्री बनने वाली नेता 'महबूबा मुफ्ती' (Mehbooba Mufti / अप्रैल 2016) हैं।
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2517📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsDefense & Current Affairs 2020
In 2020, which major security incident occurred in Ladakh that drew international attention and increased tensions between India and China?
Explanation
On the night of 15 June 2020, a fierce physical clash occurred between Indian and Chinese PLA troops in the Galwan Valley in eastern Ladakh along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
वर्ष 2020 में लद्दाख में भारत और चीन की सेनाओं के बीच हुआ हिंसक गतिरोध 'गलवान घाटी झड़प' (The Galwan Valley clash) था।
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2518📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsEnvironmental Treaties (Kyoto Protocol)
What is the primary objective of the Kyoto Protocol?
Explanation
The Kyoto Protocol (adopted in 1997 under the UNFCCC) is an international environmental treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions (CO2,CH4,N2OCO_2, CH_4, N_2O, HFCs, PFCs, SF6SF_6) to mitigate anthropogenic global warming.
क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल (1997) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य 'ग्रीनहाउस गैसों के उत्सर्जन को सीमित और कम करना' (To limit and reduce greenhouse gas emissions) है।
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2519📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsSpace Science (ISRO Missions)
Which of the following statements about the Chandrayaan-2 and Mangalyaan missions is/are correct?
Statement 1: The Chandrayaan-2 mission was launched by ISRO in 2019, with an aim to explore the Moon's south pole.
Statement 2: The Mangalyaan mission was launched in 2017, and aimed at exploring Mars.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Chandrayaan-2 was launched on 22 July 2019 by GSLV Mk III aiming for the lunar south pole. Statement 2 is incorrect: Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission / MOM) was launched on 5 November 2013 (inserted into Mars orbit in September 2014), not in 2017. Correct: Only Statement 1 is correct (Choice A).
केवल कथन 1 सही है क्योंकि चंद्रयान-2 को 2019 में प्रक्षेपित किया गया था; मंगलयान (MOM) 2013 में लॉन्च हुआ था, 2017 में नहीं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2520📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndustrial Hubs of India
Which state and city in India are globally known for being major manufacturers and exporters of sports goods?
Explanation
Jalandhar in Punjab (along with Meerut in Uttar Pradesh) is India's premier manufacturing and export hub for high-quality sports goods, cricket bats, and athletic equipment.
भारत में खेल के सामान के सबसे बड़े निर्माता और निर्यातक के रूप में 'जालंधर, पंजाब' (Punjab, Jalandhar) विश्व प्रसिद्ध है।
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2521📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsNAPCC 8 National Missions
Consider the following National Missions that come under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC):
I. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
II. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Explanation
India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC, launched in 2008) comprises eight national missions, which include both the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE - I) and the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA - II). Correct: Both I and II (Choice A).
जलवायु परिवर्तन पर राष्ट्रीय कार्य योजना (NAPCC) के 8 मिशनों में 'उन्नत ऊर्जा दक्षता मिशन' (I) और 'सतत कृषि मिशन' (II) दोनों शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2522📚General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles
Fill in the blanks with suitable options: "On ________ cold December evening, ________ doorbell wouldn't stop ringing at my house."
Explanation
We use indefinite article 'a' before an unspecific descriptive singular time reference ('On a cold December evening') and definite article 'the' before a specific unique object in the household ('the doorbell'). Choice A.
सही आर्टिकल संयोजन: 'On a cold December evening, the doorbell wouldn't stop ringing'. सही विकल्प A है।
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2523📚General English & Reading ComprehensionReading Comprehension
Based on the reading passage on human speech: Speech can become a curse because it can:
Explanation
According to the passage text ('for while it helps us to make our intentions known... it can also, if we use it carelessly, make our attitude completely misunderstood'), careless speech creates misunderstanding.
गद्यांश के अनुसार, असावधानी से बोली गई बात 'गलतफहमी पैदा कर सकती है' (create misunderstanding)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2524📚General English & Reading ComprehensionReading Comprehension
When speaking to an uneducated person, according to the author's logic, we should use:
Explanation
The passage states that 'different classes of people use different vocabularies, and the ordinary speech of an educated man may strike an uneducated listener as pompous... we may use a word which bears a different meaning to our listener'; hence adopting the listener's vocabulary is advised.
अशिक्षित व्यक्ति से बात करते समय उसकी समझ की शब्दावली (his vocabulary / ordinary speech) का उपयोग करना चाहिए। सही विकल्प D है।
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2525📚General English & Reading ComprehensionReading Comprehension
According to the passage, using the same style of language with everyone would make one sound:
Explanation
The passage concludes explicitly: 'Only a fool will express himself alike to all kinds and conditions of men', meaning it makes one sound foolish. Choice D.
गद्यांश का अंतिम वाक्य स्पष्ट करता है: 'Only a fool will express himself alike...', यानी ऐसा करने वाला व्यक्ति 'मूर्ख' (foolish) प्रतीत होता है।
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2526📚General English & Reading ComprehensionSynonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the word: TRADUCE
Explanation
To 'Traduce' means to speak badly of or tell malicious falsehoods about someone to defame their reputation, or to betray/slander. Choice A.
'Traduce' का अर्थ किसी की बदनामी करना, चुगली करना या 'विश्वासघात करना' (Betray / Slander) होता है।
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2527📚General English & Reading ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with suitable preposition: "She was absent ________ school yesterday."
Explanation
The adjective 'absent' standardly takes the preposition 'from' ('absent from school/work'). Choice A.
'Absent' के साथ निश्चित प्रीपोजिशन 'from' का प्रयोग किया जाता है ('absent from school')। सही विकल्प A है।
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2528📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningNumber Series
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the pattern and fill in the blank space: 3, 8, 23, 68, (.....)
Explanation
Mathematical pattern: Multiply previous term by 3 and subtract 1: 3×3−1=83 \times 3 - 1 = 8, 8×3−1=238 \times 3 - 1 = 23, 23×3−1=6823 \times 3 - 1 = 68. The next term is 68×3−1=204−1=20368 \times 3 - 1 = 204 - 1 = 203. Choice C.
पैटर्न: पिछली संख्या ×3−1\times 3 - 1। 68×3−1=204−1=20368 \times 3 - 1 = 204 - 1 = 203। सही विकल्प C है।
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2529📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningLogical Deduction
A statement is given, followed by two conclusions:
Statements: All organized individuals make time for rest. Despite her hectic schedule, Manisha manages to find time to rest.
Conclusions:
I. Manisha is an organised person.
II. Manisha is an industrious person.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Premise explicitly states all organized people make time for rest; since Manisha manages to find time for rest despite her busy schedule, conclusion I ('Manisha is an organised person') directly follows. Conclusion II ('industrious') is not mentioned or implied in the premises. Correct: Only conclusion I follows (Choice C).
कथन से सीधे निष्कर्ष निकलता है कि चूंकि सभी व्यवस्थित व्यक्ति आराम के लिए समय निकालते हैं और मनीषा भी समय निकालती है, अतः मनीषा एक व्यवस्थित व्यक्ति है (Only conclusion I follows)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2530📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningAnalytical Reasoning Facts
The logic problem provides three true facts:
Fact 1: Islands are entirely surrounded by water.
Fact 2: Maui is an island.
Fact 3: Maui was created by volcanic activity.
Based on these facts, determine which of the following statements must also be true:
Statement-I: Maui is entirely surrounded by water.
Statement-II: Every island is created by volcanic activity.
Statement-III: Every volcano exists on an island.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Explanation
From Fact 1 and Fact 2: Since Maui is an island and all islands are surrounded by water, Statement I ('Maui is entirely surrounded by water') is universally and necessarily true. Statements II and III are broad overgeneralizations not supported by the premises. Correct: Only Statement I is true (Choice A).
तथ्य 1 और 2 के आधार पर केवल कथन I सत्य है कि 'माउई पूरी तरह से पानी से घिरा हुआ है'। अन्य कथन व्यापक सामान्यीकरण हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2531📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the three given items: Moon, Sun, Stars
Explanation
Astronomically, the Sun is a Star; therefore, the circle for Sun lies completely inside the larger circle for Stars. The Moon is a planetary satellite and has no intersection with stars, forming a separate detached circle (Diagram B). Choice B.
सूर्य एक तारा है, अतः 'सूर्य' का वृत्त 'तारे' के वृत्त के अंदर होगा; 'चंद्रमा' एक उपग्रह है अतः वह अलग वृत्त होगा। सही वेन आरेख विकल्प B है।
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2532📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningRanking & Ordering
Amit is older than Manish but younger than Rahul. Manish is older than Sohan but younger than Rahul. Who is the oldest?
Explanation
From the statements: Rahul>Amit>Manish>Sohan\text{Rahul} > \text{Amit} > \text{Manish} > \text{Sohan}. Clearly, Rahul is the oldest among them. Choice D.
तुलना: राहुल >> अमित >> मनीष >> सोहन। अतः सबसे बड़ा 'राहुल' (Rahul) है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2533📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningClassification / Odd One Out
Choose the odd one out among the given flowers: Marigold, Lily, Rose, Lotus
Explanation
Lotus is an aquatic flower (hydrophyte) that grows in water bodies, whereas Marigold, Lily, and Rose are terrestrial plants growing on land. Choice D.
कमल (Lotus) एक जलीय पौधा/फूल है, जबकि गेंदा, लिली और गुलाब स्थलीय पौधे हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2534📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudePartnership Business Math
G is an active partner and H is an inactive partner in business. G puts in Rs. 5000 and H puts in Rs. 6000. G received 15% of the profit for managing the business and the rest is divided in proportion to their capitals. The amount received by G out of the total profit of Rs. 880 is:
Explanation
Total profit =Rs. 880= \text{Rs. } 880. G's management fee =15% of 880=0.15×880=Rs. 132= 15\% \text{ of } 880 = 0.15 \times 880 = \text{Rs. } 132. Remaining profit to distribute =880−132=Rs. 748= 880 - 132 = \text{Rs. } 748. Capital ratio G:H=5000:6000=5:6G : H = 5000 : 6000 = 5 : 6 (total parts =11= 11). G's share from remaining profit =511×748=5×68=Rs. 340= \frac{5}{11} \times 748 = 5 \times 68 = \text{Rs. } 340. Total amount received by G =132+340=Rs. 472= 132 + 340 = \text{Rs. } 472. Choice A.
प्रबंधन के लिए G को मिला =15%×880=132= 15\% \times 880 = 132 रु। शेष लाभ =748= 748 रु। पूंजी अनुपात 5:65:6 में G का हिस्सा =511×748=340= \frac{5}{11} \times 748 = 340 रु। G को कुल प्राप्त राशि =132+340=472= 132 + 340 = 472 रुपये। सही विकल्प A है।
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2535📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeMixtures and Alligations
A can contains a mixture of two liquids X and Y in the ratio 7:5. When 9 litres of the mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with 9 litres of Y, the ratio of X and Y becomes 7:9. How many litres of liquid X was contained by the can initially?
Explanation
Let initial quantities be 7k7k and 5k5k. When 9 litres of mixture is removed, quantity of X removed =712×9=214= \frac{7}{12} \times 9 = \frac{21}{4} and Y removed =512×9=154= \frac{5}{12} \times 9 = \frac{15}{4}. After adding 9 litres of Y, ratio is: 7k−21/45k−15/4+9=79  ⟹  7k−21/45k+21/4=79  ⟹  9(7k−21/4)=7(5k+21/4)  ⟹  63k−1894=35k+1474  ⟹  28k=3364=84  ⟹  k=3\frac{7k - 21/4}{5k - 15/4 + 9} = \frac{7}{9} \implies \frac{7k - 21/4}{5k + 21/4} = \frac{7}{9} \implies 9(7k - 21/4) = 7(5k + 21/4) \implies 63k - \frac{189}{4} = 35k + \frac{147}{4} \implies 28k = \frac{336}{4} = 84 \implies k = 3. Initial quantity of liquid X =7k=7×3=21 litres= 7k = 7 \times 3 = 21\text{ litres}. Choice D.
मिश्रण अनुपात 7:57:5। 9 लीटर निकालने व Y मिलाने पर नया अनुपात 7:97:9 होता है। हल करने पर k=3k = 3 आता है। द्रव X की प्रारंभिक मात्रा =7×3=21= 7 \times 3 = 21 लीटर। सही विकल्प D है।
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2536📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeTime and Work
If 6 men and 8 women can complete a task in 10 days, and 26 men and 48 women can finish it in 2 days, how long will it take for 15 men and 20 women to complete the same task?
Explanation
Total work: 10(6M+8W)=2(26M+48W)  ⟹  60M+80W=52M+96W  ⟹  8M=16W  ⟹  1M=2W10(6M + 8W) = 2(26M + 48W) \implies 60M + 80W = 52M + 96W \implies 8M = 16W \implies 1M = 2W. Expressing total work in terms of women: 6M+8W=6(2W)+8W=20W6M + 8W = 6(2W) + 8W = 20W; total work =20W×10=200 woman-days= 20W \times 10 = 200\text{ woman-days}. Now, 15M+20W=15(2W)+20W=50W15M + 20W = 15(2W) + 20W = 50W. Time required =20050=4 days= \frac{200}{50} = 4\text{ days}. Choice A.
क्षमता संबंध: 8M = 16W \implies 1\text{ पुरुष} = 2\text{ महिला}। कुल कार्य =20W×10=200= 20W \times 10 = 200 महिला-दिन। 15 पुरुष + 20 महिलाएं =50= 50 महिलाएं। समय =20050=4= \frac{200}{50} = 4 दिन। सही विकल्प A है।
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2537📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeSet Theory & Percentages
In a hotel, 80% had a vegetarian lunch, 10% had a non-vegetarian lunch and 15% had both types of lunch. If 96 people were present, how many did not eat either type of lunch?
Explanation
By Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion: % of people eating lunch=80%+10%−15%=75%\% \text{ of people eating lunch} = 80\% + 10\% - 15\% = 75\%. Percentage of people eating neither =100%−75%=25%= 100\% - 75\% = 25\%. Number of people who ate neither =25% of 96=14×96=24= 25\% \text{ of } 96 = \frac{1}{4} \times 96 = 24. Choice C.
लंच करने वाले कुल लोगों का प्रतिशत =80+10−15=75%= 80 + 10 - 15 = 75\%। कोई लंच न करने वाले =25%= 25\%। कुल संख्या =25%×96=24= 25\% \times 96 = 24 व्यक्ति। सही विकल्प C है।
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2538📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeNumber Theory (Perfect Squares)
How many perfect squares lie between 120 and 300?
Explanation
The integers whose squares lie strictly between 120 and 300 are: 112=12111^2 = 121, 122=14412^2 = 144, 132=16913^2 = 169, 142=19614^2 = 196, 152=22515^2 = 225, 162=25616^2 = 256, and 172=28917^2 = 289 (102=100<12010^2 = 100 < 120 and 182=324>30018^2 = 324 > 300). There are exactly 7 such perfect squares. Choice C.
120 और 300 के बीच पूर्ण वर्ग संख्याएँ: 121, 144, 169, 196, 225, 256, 289 (11 से 17 तक के वर्ग)। कुल संख्या = 7 है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2539📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeData Interpretation (Bar Chart)
Based on the GDP composition chart: If Pakistan's total GDP is Rs. 10,000 crores, what portion of the GDP is contributed by the manufacturing sector (which stands at 20%)?
Explanation
From the bar chart, Pakistan's manufacturing sector comprises 20%20\%. Contribution =20% of Rs. 10,000 crores=0.20×10,000=Rs. 2000 crores= 20\% \text{ of Rs. } 10,000\text{ crores} = 0.20 \times 10,000 = \text{Rs. } 2000\text{ crores}. Choice B.
चार्ट के अनुसार विनिर्माण क्षेत्र का हिस्सा 20%20\% है। 10,00010,000 करोड़ का 20%=200020\% = 2000 करोड़ रुपये। सही विकल्प B है।
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2540📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeData Interpretation (Bar Chart)
Based on the GDP chart: If India's total GDP is Rs. 30,000 crores, what is the contribution of Agriculture (40%), Services (20%), and Miscellaneous (10%) sectors combined?
Explanation
Combined percentage =40%(Agri)+20%(Services)+10%(Misc)=70%= 40\% (\text{Agri}) + 20\% (\text{Services}) + 10\% (\text{Misc}) = 70\%. Contribution =70% of 30,000=0.70×30,000=Rs. 21,000 crores= 70\% \text{ of } 30,000 = 0.70 \times 30,000 = \text{Rs. } 21,000\text{ crores}. Choice C.
संयुक्त प्रतिशत =40%+20%+10%=70%= 40\% + 20\% + 10\% = 70\%। 30,00030,000 करोड़ का 70%=21,00070\% = 21,000 करोड़ रुपये। सही विकल्प C है।
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2541📚Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeData Interpretation (Ratios)
If the total GDP is the same for both countries, what is the ratio of Pakistan's income through agriculture (40%) over India's income through exports (20%) and miscellaneous (10%)?
Explanation
Pakistan's agriculture =40%= 40\%. India's exports + misc =20%+10%=30%= 20\% + 10\% = 30\%. Ratio =4030=43≈1.33= \frac{40}{30} = \frac{4}{3} \approx 1.33. Choice B.
अनुपात =40%20%+10%=4030=1.33= \frac{40\%}{20\% + 10\%} = \frac{40}{30} = 1.33। सही विकल्प B है।
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2542📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceNetwork Security & Firewalls
Consider the following statements on 'firewall' used on computer systems:
I. It controls and monitors the data traffic flow between inside and outside network
II. It protects and secures the inside network from any outside unauthorized network intrusions
III. It can be implemented in software or hardware or a combination of both.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
All three statements are correct: A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network packet traffic based on defined security rules (I), establishes a barrier protecting internal private networks from unauthorized external threats (II), and can be deployed as dedicated hardware appliances, host software, or hybrid combinations (III)   ⟹  \implies I, II and III. Choice D.
फायरवॉल नेटवर्क ट्रैफिक की निगरानी करता है (I), अनधिकृत पहुंच से नेटवर्क की रक्षा करता है (II) और यह सॉफ्टवेयर तथा हार्डवेयर दोनों रूपों में हो सकता है (III)   ⟹  \implies I, II and III सही हैं।
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2543📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceDigital India Initiatives (BharatNet)
What was the earlier official project name of BharatNet?
Explanation
BharatNet was originally launched in October 2011 as the National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) to connect all 250,000 Gram Panchayats with high-speed broadband, rebranded as BharatNet in 2015.
भारतनेट (BharatNet) परियोजना का पूर्व नाम 'नेशनल ऑप्टिक फाइबर नेटवर्क' (NOFN / 2011) था।
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2544📚Computer Applications, IT & e-Governancee-Governance & PPP Models
Consider the following statement:
Statement (I): The long-term sustainability of e-governance projects depends on financial viability, especially if they are to be implemented in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) mode.
Statement (II): PPP models in e-governance often involve significant upfront investments by private partners, requiring a robust revenue model to ensure project continuity.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
Explanation
Both statements are true and causally explanatory: Under PPP arrangements in e-governance (like passport seva or CSCs), private concessionaires invest heavy initial capital, so the project's long-term commercial sustainability is strictly dependent upon generating steady transaction fees and financial viability. Choice A.
कथन I और II दोनों सत्य हैं तथा कथन II, कथन I की सही व्याख्या करता है (PPP मॉडल में निजी पूंजी निवेश होने के कारण दीर्घकालिक निरंतरता हेतु वित्तीय व्यवहार्यता आवश्यक होती है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2545📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceSystem Software (Compilers)
What is the main function of a computer language compiler?
Explanation
A Compiler is a specialized system translator program that translates high-level source code (written in C, C++, Java) entirely into low-level object machine code that the CPU can directly execute.
कंपाइलर का मुख्य कार्य 'उच्च-स्तरीय भाषा (High-level language) के कोड को मशीन कोड में अनुवादित करना' होता है।
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2546📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceCyber Security & Sniffing
The process of monitoring and capturing all data packets that are passing through a computer network is known as:
Explanation
Packet Sniffing (or network packet analysis) is the technique of intercepting, monitoring, and logging raw data packets transmitted across a network using software sniffers like Wireshark.
कंप्यूटर नेटवर्क से गुजरने वाले डेटा पैकेटों की निगरानी और उन्हें कैप्चर करने की प्रक्रिया को 'स्निफिंग' (Sniffing / Packet sniffing) कहा जाता है।
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2547📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceWeb Browsers & Security Features
Match the following web browser features with their correct descriptions:
Column - X:
1. Incognito Mode
2. Automatic File Compression
3. Bookmarking
4. Built-in Antivirus protection

Column - Y:
I. Saves favourite websites for easy access
II. Browses without saving history or cookies
III. Managed by download managers, not browsers
IV. Provided by antivirus software, not browsers

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
1 -> II (Incognito/Private mode browses without recording local browsing history, cache, or cookies), 2 -> III (Automatic file compression is managed by external download utilities), 3 -> I (Bookmarking stores quick shortcut links to favorite webpages), 4 -> IV (Comprehensive malware defense is provided by dedicated antivirus software). Correct match: 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV (Choice B).
1-II (इनकॉग्निटो मोड - बिना इतिहास व कुकीज के ब्राउजिंग), 2-III (फाइल संपीड़न), 3-I (बुकमार्किंग - पसंदीदा वेबसाइट सहेजना), 4-IV (एंटीवायरस सुरक्षा)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2548📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceInternet History (Email & Ray Tomlinson)
Which of the following statements is historically correct regarding e-mail?
Explanation
Statement A is historically correct: Raymond Samuel Tomlinson developed the first ARPANET networked email system in 1971, also introducing the '@' symbol to separate the username from the machine host name. Choice A.
कथन A ऐतिहासिक रूप से सत्य है: 'ई-मेल का आविष्कार 1971 में रे टॉमलिंसन (Ray Tomlinson) द्वारा किया गया था' और उन्होंने ही '@' चिह्न का प्रयोग शुरू किया था।
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2549📚Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceEmail Protocols (POP3, IMAP, SMTP)
Match the following email protocols with their primary technical descriptions:
Column - X:
1. POP3
2. IMAP
3. SMTP

Column - Y:
I. Used for sending emails from a client to a server or between servers
II. Used for retrieving and synchronising emails across multiple devices in real-time
III. Used for downloading emails to a local device for offline access

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
1 -> III (POP3 downloads emails from server to local storage and typically deletes them from the server), 2 -> II (IMAP keeps messages on server and synchronizes folders dynamically across multiple devices), 3 -> I (SMTP handles outgoing mail transmission). Correct match: 1-III, 2-II, 3-I (Choice A).
1-III (POP3 - ऑफलाइन पढ़ने हेतु स्थानीय डिवाइस पर ईमेल डाउनलोड करना), 2-II (IMAP - कई डिवाइसों पर ईमेल को सर्वर से सिंक्रोनाइज़ करना), 3-I (SMTP - ईमेल भेजने का प्रोटोकॉल)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2550📚General EnglishDeterminers & Error Spotting
Spot the error in the following sentence:
(A) The police should exercise
(B) their authority with little
(C) bit of sensitivity and humanity.
(D) No error.
Explanation
Part (B/C) is erroneous because 'little' without an article means almost none (negative), whereas the context demands positive sensitivity: it should be 'with a little bit of sensitivity' or 'with some sensitivity'. Choice B.
भाग (B) में त्रुटि है: सकारात्मक संवेदनशीलता दर्शाने के लिए 'with a little bit' का प्रयोग होना चाहिए ('little' का अर्थ न के बराबर होता है)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2551📚General EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement
Fill in the blank: "Each of the students ________ done their exams well."
Explanation
The distributive pronoun 'Each' is grammatically singular and requires a singular verb: 'Each of the students has done...'. Choice B.
'Each of...' के बाद संज्ञा बहुवचन होती है लेकिन क्रिया हमेशा एकवचन (has) आती है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2552📚General EnglishPronouns & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: "________ of the witnesses were present in the court."
Explanation
When referring to 'not any' among three or more plural persons (witnesses) followed by a plural verb 'were', 'None' ('None of the witnesses were present...') is standard English. Choice B.
अनेक गवाहों में से 'कोई भी नहीं' और बहुवचन क्रिया 'were' के लिए 'None' का प्रयोग होगा। सही विकल्प B है।
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2553📚General EnglishHomophones & Spelling
Fill in the blanks: "They forgot to take ________ printouts."
Explanation
The possessive adjective indicating belonging to them is 'their' ('their printouts').
अधिकार दर्शाने वाला सही सर्वनाम 'their' (उनका/उनकी) है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2554📚General EnglishVocabulary & Homophones
Fill in the blanks: "I'd appreciate it if you could be ________ about this; we're keeping it quiet until the details are finalised."
Explanation
'Discreet' means careful, prudent, and circumspect in speech to avoid revealing secrets. ('Discrete' means separate or distinct). Choice D.
गोपनीयता और सावधानी बरतने के अर्थ में सही शब्द 'discreet' (सतर्क/विचारशील) है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2555📚General EnglishTenses
Fill in the blanks: "This road ________ to the hospital."
Explanation
Permanent geographical routes, directions, and universal facts take the Simple Present tense in the singular: 'This road leads to the hospital.' Choice A.
सड़क की दिशा या स्थायी स्थिति दर्शाने के लिए सिंपल प्रेजेंट टेंस 'leads' का प्रयोग होगा। सही विकल्प A है।
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2556📚General EnglishSynonyms
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word: LATENT
Explanation
'Latent' means present but existing in a dormant, concealed, or undeveloped state, which is synonymous with 'Hidden'.
'Latent' का अर्थ गुप्त, प्रसुप्त या 'छिपा हुआ' (Hidden) होता है।
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2557📚General EnglishIdioms & Phrases
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom: "To doctor the accounts"
Explanation
The idiom 'to doctor the accounts' means to falsify, tamper with, or deceptively manipulate financial accounts or records.
'To doctor the accounts' मुहावरे का अर्थ खातों में हेराफेरी या जालसाजी करना (To manipulate the accounts) होता है।
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2558📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceNobel Laureates
Who was the first black woman to receive the Nobel Prize in Literature?
Explanation
American novelist Toni Morrison became the first black woman to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1993, celebrated for visionary novels such as Beloved and Song of Solomon.
साहित्य में नोबेल पुरस्कार पाने वाली पहली अश्वेत महिला अमेरिकी लेखिका 'टोनी मॉरिसन' (Toni Morrison / 1993) थीं।
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2559📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Banking History
Who among the following was the first Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
Explanation
Sir Chintaman Dwarakanath Deshmukh (C.D. Deshmukh) was appointed as the first Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India on 11 August 1943 (Sir Osborne Smith was the first British governor).
भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक (RBI) के पहले भारतीय गवर्नर 'सी.डी. देशमुख' (CD Deshmukh / 1943) थे।
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2560📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Media & Heritage
Which among the following options is the only daily newspaper published in the Sanskrit language in India?
Explanation
Sudharma is the world's only daily newspaper published in the Sanskrit language, founded in 1970 by Kalale Nadadur Varadaraja Iyengar in Mysuru, Karnataka.
भारत में संस्कृत भाषा में प्रकाशित होने वाला एकमात्र दैनिक समाचार पत्र 'सुधर्मा' (Sudharma / मैसूर) है।
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2561📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Constitution (8th Schedule)
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India lists ________ languages as officially recognized by the Government of India:
Explanation
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution currently lists 22 officially recognized languages (originally 14, expanded via the 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
भारतीय संविधान की 8वीं अनुसूची में वर्तमान में कुल '22' आधिकारिक भाषाएं सूचीबद्ध हैं।
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2562📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceInternational Organizations
Where is the global headquarters of the United Nations (UN) located?
Explanation
The international headquarters of the United Nations is situated in the Turtle Bay neighborhood of Manhattan in New York City, USA.
संयुक्त राष्ट्र (UN) का मुख्यालय 'न्यूयॉर्क शहर, अमेरिका' (New York City, USA) में स्थित है।
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2563📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceUN Security Council
Which of the following countries holds permanent Veto Power in the UN Security Council (UNSC)?
Explanation
The five permanent members (P5) of the UN Security Council with veto power are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
संयुक्त राष्ट्र सुरक्षा परिषद (UNSC) में वीटो पावर रखने वाले 5 स्थायी सदस्यों में 'चीन' (China) शामिल है।
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2564📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceWorld Heritage Sites
Which ASEAN country is famous for the historic Hindu-Buddhist temple complex of Angkor Wat?
Explanation
Angkor Wat, the largest religious monument in the world built in the 12th century by Khmer King Suryavarman II, is located in Siem Reap, Cambodia.
अंकोरवाट का प्रसिद्ध मंदिर परिसर दक्षिण-पूर्व एशियाई देश 'कंबोडिया' (Cambodia) में स्थित है।
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2565📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceAwards & Honors
The prestigious Golden Peacock Global Award is conferred for outstanding excellence in which of the following fields?
Explanation
The Golden Peacock Awards (instituted by the Institute of Directors - IOD in 1991) are globally recognized benchmark awards for excellence in Corporate Governance, sustainability, and quality management.
प्रतिष्ठित 'गोल्डन पीकॉक ग्लोबल अवार्ड' 'कॉर्पोरेट गवर्नेंस' (Corporate Governance) और सतत विकास के क्षेत्र में दिया जाता है।
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2566📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceEnvironmental Current Affairs
The State Level Monitoring Committee (SLMC) of which state has recommended the time-bound implementation of projects to check the illegal discharge of biowaste into the Ramsar-designated Ashtamudi Lake?
Explanation
Ashtamudi Lake is a prominent Ramsar wetland estuary situated in the Kollam district of Kerala.
अष्टमुडी झील (Ashtamudi Lake / रामसर स्थल) 'केरल' (Kerala / कोल्लम) में स्थित है।
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2567📚Basic Mathematics, Quantitative Aptitude & ReasoningTime and Distance (Walking & Riding)
A man takes 6 hours 15 minutes in walking a distance and riding back to the starting place. He could walk both ways in 7 hours and 45 minutes. The time taken by him to ride back both ways is:
Explanation
Given: W+R=6 hr 15 min=375 minW + R = 6\text{ hr } 15\text{ min} = 375\text{ min}. 2W=7 hr 45 min=465 min2W = 7\text{ hr } 45\text{ min} = 465\text{ min}. Multiplying the first equation by 2: 2W+2R=2(375)=750 min2W + 2R = 2(375) = 750\text{ min}. Time to ride both ways: 2R=(2W+2R)−2W=750−465=285 minutes=4 hours 45 minutes2R = (2W + 2R) - 2W = 750 - 465 = 285\text{ minutes} = 4\text{ hours } 45\text{ minutes}. Choice C.
W+R=375W + R = 375 मिनट। दो से गुणा करने पर: 2W+2R=7502W + 2R = 750 मिनट। 2W=4652W = 465 मिनट घटाने पर दोनों तरफ सवारी का समय 2R=750−465=2852R = 750 - 465 = 285 मिनट =4= 4 घंटे 45 मिनट। सही विकल्प C है।
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2568📚Basic Mathematics, Quantitative Aptitude & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
In a certain code "BASE" is written as "GUCD". How is "COMMAND" written in that code?
Explanation
Analyzing the transformation from BASE to GUCD: applying the Caesar rotational and positional shift algorithm to COMMAND yields FPCOOQE. Choice C.
कूट पैटर्न के अनुसार COMMAND का कूट 'FPCOOQE' बनता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2569📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & Digital ElectronicsComputer Characteristics
Which of the following is NOT an inherent operational characteristic of a computer?
Explanation
A computer possesses speed, versatility, diligence (tirelessness), and accuracy, but has No I.Q. (Intelligence Quotient is zero) because it cannot think or make independent decisions without programmed human instructions. Choice D.
कंप्यूटर में आई.क्यू. (I.Q. / सोचने की बुद्धिमत्ता) नहीं होती है; गति, सटीकता और कर्मठता इसके गुण हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2570📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringCircuit Theory (Inductor Properties)
An electrical inductor does not allow a sudden change of:
Explanation
Because the voltage across an inductor is proportional to the rate of change of current (v=Ldidtv = L \frac{di}{dt}), an instantaneous jump in current would demand infinite voltage; hence, an inductor opposes any sudden change in Current. (A capacitor opposes sudden change in voltage).
प्रेरक (Inductor) अपने से होकर बहने वाली 'धारा' (Current) में अचानक परिवर्तन का विरोध करता है।
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2571📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringMeasuring Instruments (Swamping Resistance)
In moving-coil meters, a swamping resistance (made of Manganin with a nearly zero temperature coefficient) is connected in series with the meter coil to compensate for:
Explanation
A Swamping Resistance (composed of Manganin) is connected in series with the copper galvanometer coil to minimize and compensate for measuring errors caused by ambient temperature changes in coil resistance. Choice A (I Only).
मापन उपकरणों में स्वैम्पिंग प्रतिरोध का उपयोग 'तापमान में परिवर्तन के कारण होने वाली त्रुटि' (Error due to temperature variations) को दूर करने के लिए किया जाता है।
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2572📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringPMMC Measuring Instruments
A high frequency AC signal is applied to a Permanent Magnet Moving Coil (PMMC) instrument. If the RMS value of the AC signal is 2V, the reading of the instrument will be:
Explanation
A PMMC instrument responds exclusively to the average DC value of current (IavgI_{avg}). When alternating current of commercial or high frequency is applied, the mechanical inertia of the moving system cannot follow the rapid reversals, resulting in a net deflection of Zero. Choice D.
PMMC उपकरण केवल डीसी (औसत मान) मापता है; उच्च आवृत्ति एसी सिग्नल लगाने पर जड़त्व के कारण इसका पाठ्यांक 'शून्य' (Zero) होगा।
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2573📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & Digital ElectronicsDigital Logic Gates
How many distinct input state entries will be present in the truth table of a 4-input digital NAND gate?
Explanation
For any digital logic gate with nn binary inputs, the truth table contains 2n2^n distinct combinations. For 4 inputs, the number of entries =24=16= 2^4 = 16. Choice C.
4 इनपुट वाले लॉजिक गेट की सत्यता सारणी (Truth table) में कुल 24=162^4 = 16 प्रविष्टियां होती हैं।
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2574📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringIndustrial Engineering & DFMA
Which engineering methodology formally recognises and optimizes the inherent interrelationships between product design and industrial manufacturing?
Explanation
Design for Manufacture and Assembly (DFMA) is the integrated concurrent engineering design methodology focused on streamlining component manufacturing ease and rapid assembly.
उत्पाद डिजाइन और विनिर्माण के अंतर्संबंधों को अनुकूलित करने वाली प्रक्रिया को 'DFMA' (Design for manufacture and assembly) कहा जाता है।
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2575📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringCommunication Systems Elements
How many basic functional elements are essential for any communication system?
Explanation
Every electrical communication system fundamentally consists of exactly 3 essential elements: 1. Transmitter, 2. Communication Channel/Medium, and 3. Receiver. Choice B.
किसी भी संचार प्रणाली के 3 आवश्यक मूलभूत तत्व होते हैं: 1. प्रेषक (Transmitter), 2. माध्यम (Channel), और 3. प्राप्तकर्ता (Receiver)।
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2576📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringTelecommunication Transmission Units
The value of one decibel (dB) is equal to approximately how many Nepers (N)?
Explanation
The conversion relationship between Nepers and Decibels: 1 Neper=20log⁡10(e)≈8.686 dB1\text{ Neper} = 20 \log_{10}(e) \approx 8.686\text{ dB}. Therefore, 1 dB=18.686=ln⁡1020≈0.1151 Nepers1\text{ dB} = \frac{1}{8.686} = \frac{\ln 10}{20} \approx 0.1151\text{ Nepers}. Choice A.
1 डेसिबल (dB) का मान लगभग '0.115 नेपर' (0.115 N) के बराबर होता है (1 Np≈8.686 dB1\text{ Np} \approx 8.686\text{ dB})। सही विकल्प A है।
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2577📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & Digital ElectronicsMicroprocessor Architecture (8085)
The classic Intel 8085 microprocessor IC has how many physical pins?
Explanation
The Intel 8085 is an 8-bit NMOS microprocessor housed in a standard 40-pin Dual In-line Package (DIP).
इंटेल 8085 माइक्रोप्रोसेसर में कुल '40 पिन' (40 pins / DIP पैकेज) होते हैं।
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2578📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringInstrumentation (Potentiometric DVM)
In a self-balancing potentiometric digital voltmeter (P-DVM), the physical adjustment of the sliding wiper contact is driven by a:
Explanation
In null-balancing potentiometric chart recorders and potentiometric DVMs, the amplified error voltage excites the control winding of a high-torque Two-Phase AC Servomotor to rotate the wiper until balance is reached. Choice B.
पोटेंशियोमेट्रिक डीवीएम में स्लाइडिंग संपर्क को संतुलित करने के लिए 'टू-फेज सर्वोमोटर' (Two phase servomotor) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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2579📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringPower Electronics (Snubber Circuit)
A snubber circuit (series resistor-capacitor RC network connected across an SCR) is primarily used to:
Explanation
An RC Snubber circuit connected in parallel across a Thyristor (SCR) protects the device against false dv/dtdv/dt triggering and breakdown by Limiting the rate of rise of forward voltage across the SCR. Choice B.
स्नबर परिपथ (Snubber circuit) का मुख्य कार्य सिलिकॉन नियंत्रित दिष्टकारी (SCR) के आर-पार 'वोल्टेज वृद्धि की दर' (dv/dtdv/dt) को सीमित करना है।
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2580📚Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringElectrical Appliances Testing
The momentary pulsed testing of a domestic electric mixer grinder motor to check mechanical seating and balance is called:
Explanation
Inching (or jogging) is the quick, momentary energization of an electric motor to produce small, brief rotations for testing blade seating, alignment, and initial starting performance. Choice A.
मिक्सर ग्राइंडर की मोटर को संरेखण और जांच के लिए क्षणिक रूप से चालू करने की प्रक्रिया 'इंचिंग' (Inching / Jogging) कहलाती है।
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2581📚Computer Science, Operating Systems & Digital ElectronicsSystem Software (Loaders)
Which of the following statements about system loaders is/are correct?
I. A loader is responsible for transferring the object program from secondary memory to the main memory.
II. Embedded systems typically do not have loaders (programs run directly from ROM/Flash).
III. The loader usually resides permanently in memory.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Statements I and II are correct: Loaders load compiled executable binary code into physical RAM for CPU execution (I), and simple bare-metal embedded systems execute firmware directly in place from non-volatile ROM/Flash without a dynamic loader (II). Statement III is false because transient loaders relinquish memory once execution commences. Correct: I and II (Choice A).
कथन I और II सही हैं: लोडर प्रोग्राम को मुख्य मेमोरी में लोड करता है और अधिकांश एम्बेडेड सिस्टम सीधे रोम/फ्लैश से चलते हैं जिनमें डायनेमिक लोडर नहीं होता। सही विकल्प A है।
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2582📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationInorganic Salt Analysis (Cation Coloration)
While analysing the salt in qualitative inorganic analysis, the pale pink colour of the salt solution is characteristic of which transition metal cation?
Explanation
In inorganic qualitative salt analysis, hydrated manganese(II) salts (Mn2+Mn^{2+}, such as MnSO4MnSO_4 or MnCl2MnCl_2) exhibit a characteristic pale pink (or faint flesh) coloration due to spin-forbidden d−dd-d transitions in the d5d^5 high-spin complex. (Cu2+Cu^{2+} is blue/green, Cr3+Cr^{3+} is green/violet, Co2+Co^{2+} is deep pink/red).
गुणात्मक लवण विश्लेषण में मैंगनीज धनायन (Mn2+Mn^{2+}) का जलीय विलयन हल्का गुलाबी (Pale pink) रंग प्रदर्शित करता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2583📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationSample Preparation (QuEChERS)
Which modern sample preparation technique is most commonly used for the multi-residue extraction of pesticides from complex food matrices?
Explanation
QuEChERS has emerged as the worldwide standard sample preparation procedure for food safety pesticide residue monitoring due to its streamlined micro-extraction and dispersive clean-up protocol.
खाद्य पदार्थों से कीटनाशक अवशेष निकालने की सबसे लोकप्रिय और त्वरित तकनीक 'QuEChERS' है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2584📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationPesticide Residue Analytical Challenges
Which of the following are recognized common challenges in pesticide residue analysis in food testing?
I. Matrix interference from co-extracted food lipids and pigments
II. Detection of ultra-trace levels of multiple pesticide residues
III. Limited availability of sensitive analytical techniques
IV. Regulatory variations in Maximum Residue Limits across countries
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Challenges I, II, and IV are real and significant: Food co-extractives (sugars, fats, chlorophyll) cause severe matrix enhancement or suppression (I), regulatory limits mandate detecting parts-per-billion trace levels across hundreds of chemistries (II), and differing international trade MRLs create compliance hurdles (IV). Statement III is false because modern ultra-sensitive instruments (GC-MS/MS, LC-MS/MS) are widely available. Choice C (I, II, and IV).
कीटनाशक विश्लेषण की मुख्य चुनौतियों में खाद्य मैट्रिक्स हस्तक्षेप (I), सूक्ष्म मात्रा में पहचान (II) और विभिन्न देशों के अलग-अलग नियामक मानक (IV) शामिल हैं (I, II, and IV)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2585📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationAcid-Base Volumetric Titration
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the volumetric estimation of sulfuric acid (H2SO4H_2SO_4) by acid-base titration?
I. Sodium hydroxide is used as the titrant
II. The indicator used is phenolphthalein
III. The endpoint is reached when the solution becomes colorless
IV. The titration is an acid-base neutralization titration
Choose correct option:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and IV are correct: Sulfuric acid is titrated against standard Sodium Hydroxide titrant (I) using Phenolphthalein indicator (II) in an Acid-Base neutralization reaction (IV). Statement III is incorrect because when titrating acid in the flask with base from the burette, the solution turns from colorless to a faint permanent pink at the equivalence endpoint. Choice C (I, II, IV).
कथन I, II और IV सही हैं (NaOH मानक अनुमापक है, फेनोल्फथेलिन सूचक है और यह अम्ल-क्षार उदासीनीकरण है; अंतिम बिंदु पर रंगहीन विलयन हल्का गुलाबी बनता है)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2586📚Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationAnalytical Quality Control (Blanks)
Which of the following is NOT a potential problem or analytical issue when analyzing pesticide residues in fruit samples?
Explanation
Pesticide-free blank control samples are essential quality assurance calibration materials used to construct matrix-matched standards and calculate baseline recoveries—they represent an indispensable analytical tool, NOT an analytical problem or complication. Matrix co-extractives, high sugar/acid variability, and sensitivity limits are authentic challenges. Choice D.
कीटनाशक-मुक्त नियंत्रण नमूने (Pesticide-free control samples) विश्लेषण की गुणवत्ता और अंशांकन के साधन हैं, वे कोई विश्लेषणात्मक समस्या या बाधा नहीं हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2587📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMendelian Genetics (ABO Blood Groups)
A woman with blood type AB (genotype IAIBI^A I^B) has a child with a man who has blood type O (genotype iii i). What is the mathematical probability that their child will have blood type B?
Explanation
Cross: Mother (IAIBI^A I^B) ×\times Father (iii i). Offspring genotypes: 50% IAi50\%\, I^A i (Blood Type A) and 50% IBi50\%\, I^B i (Blood Type B). The probability of having a child with blood type B is exactly 50% (1/21/2). Choice C.
माता (IAIBI^A I^B) और पिता (iii i) के संकरण से 50%50\% संतान IAiI^A i (प्रकार A) और 50%50\% संतान IBiI^B i (प्रकार B) होगी। रक्त समूह B की प्रायिकता 50%50\% है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2588📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeSustainable Development
Which of the following environmental practices is a definitive example of sustainability?
Explanation
Recycling of post-consumer materials (metals, glass, paper, plastics) conserves virgin natural resources, decreases greenhouse gas emissions, reduces landfill disposal, and constitutes an exemplary sustainable environmental practice.
पुनर्चक्रण (Recycling) एक सतत पर्यावरणीय कार्यप्रणाली (Sustainable practice) का प्रत्यक्ष उदाहरण है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2589📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyAgricultural Microbiology (Biofertilizers)
Biofertilizers primarily assist crop plants by biologically providing and fixing which essential nutrient in an available form?
Explanation
Biofertilizers (such as Rhizobium, Azotobacter, and Azospirillum) primarily enhance plant growth by fixing atmospheric nitrogen (N2N_2) into bioavailable ammonia (NH3NH_3/NH4+NH_4^+). Choice B.
जैव उर्वरक (Biofertilizers) मुख्य रूप से पौधों को वायुमंडलीय 'नाइट्रोजन' (Nitrogen) जैविक रूप से स्थिर करके उपलब्ध कराते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2590📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyBiofertilizers (Azospirillum)
The beneficial rhizosphere biofertilizer bacterium Azospirillum improves agricultural crop yields mainly by:
Explanation
While Azospirillum synthesizes plant growth-promoting phytohormones (IAA), its classical primary agro-biological benefit is associative Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF), converting atmospheric N2N_2 into bioavailable ammonia for non-leguminous cereals and grasses. Choice A.
एज़ोस्पिरिलम (Azospirillum) मुख्य रूप से वायुमंडलीय नाइट्रोजन को अमोनिया में स्थिर करके (Biological nitrogen fixation) फसलों की उपज बढ़ाता है।
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2591📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBioremediation & Phytoremediation
A major operational drawback and practical limitation of using phytoremediation to decontaminate heavy-metal-polluted soils is:
Explanation
The principal commercial limitation of phytoremediation is that plant extraction and hyperaccumulation are biologically slow processes restricted by seasonal growth cycles, requiring multiple years or decades to remediate contaminated soil. Choice B.
फाइटोरीमेडिएशन (पादप उपचार) की सबसे बड़ी कमी यह है कि इसमें पौधों की धीमी वृद्धि के कारण मिट्टी को साफ होने में बहुत लंबा समय (Slow growth and time-consuming) लगता है।
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2592📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeRainforest Ecology (Coevolution)
Which of the following ecological and evolutionary processes is most influential in maintaining exceptionally high biodiversity and niche partitioning in a tropical rainforest ecosystem?
Explanation
Coevolution—reciprocal evolutionary adaptations between interacting species (such as specialized plant-pollinator mutualisms, plant-herbivore defenses, and host-parasite arms races)—drives intensive niche specialization, preventing competitive exclusion and sustaining immense rainforest species richness. Choice C.
उष्णकटिबंधीय वर्षावनों में अत्यधिक जैव विविधता को बनाए रखने में प्रजातियों के पारस्परिक विकास यानी 'सह-विकास' (Coevolution / कीट-पौधा परागण) की सबसे बड़ी भूमिका होती है।
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2593📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeProtected Area Categories
A strict forest conservation strategy that involves the absolute legal protection of designated pristine forest reserves and prohibits all human resource extraction is known as:
Explanation
IUCN Category Ia (Strict Nature Reserves) are strictly protected natural areas set aside to preserve biodiversity and geological features where human visitation, use, and impacts are strictly controlled and limited to non-destructive scientific research. Choice C.
मानव हस्तक्षेप और दोहन से पूरी तरह मुक्त आरक्षित वन क्षेत्र को 'कठोर प्रकृति अभयारण्य' (Strict nature reserves) कहा जाता है।
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2594📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeScope of Environmental Science
The academic discipline of Environmental Science primarily focuses on understanding the:
Explanation
Environmental Science is an interdisciplinary field integrating biological, chemical, and physical sciences to study environmental systems and specifically evaluate human impacts on natural ecosystems, climate, and planetary resources. Choice B.
पर्यावरण विज्ञान का मुख्य केंद्र 'पर्यावरण और प्राकृतिक प्रक्रियाओं पर मानव गतिविधियों के प्रभावों' (Human impacts on the environment) का अध्ययन करना है।
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2595📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Ethics & Principles
Which of the following is NOT considered a valid core ethical and operational principle of Environmental Science?
Explanation
Statement C is completely false: Environmental ethics (conservation ethics, intergenerational equity, and anthropocentrism vs biocentrism) plays a foundational, indispensable role in environmental policy, legislation, and resource management. Choice C.
कथन C गलत है क्योंकि पर्यावरणीय निर्णयों में 'नैतिक विचार' (Ethical considerations) अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं, उनकी उपेक्षा नहीं की जा सकती। सही विकल्प C है।
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2596📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeResource Depletion Drivers
What is the primary driving root cause for the accelerated depletion of non-renewable natural resources worldwide?
Explanation
While human population growth compounds demand, excessive per capita Overconsumption (consumerism, excessive industrial extraction, fossil fuel combustion) in affluent societies is the primary direct driver of resource depletion. Choice C.
गैर-नवीकरणीय प्राकृतिक संसाधनों के तेजी से घटने का सबसे प्रमुख कारण 'अत्यधिक उपभोग' (Overconsumption / अत्यधिक दोहन) है।
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2597📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeClimate Economics (Carbon Credits)
The international 'carbon credit' and cap-and-trade market system allows countries and corporations to:
(A) Buy the right to pollute in exchange for forest conservation/offsets
(B) Set a cap on carbon emissions and trade emission allowances among countries
(C) Receive credits from the UN for reducing emissions
(D) Both A and B are correct
Explanation
Under the Kyoto Protocol's Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) and compliance emissions trading schemes, an overall cap is placed on emissions (B), and regulated entities can trade carbon credits or purchase verified emission reductions from forestry/renewable projects (A)   ⟹  \implies Both A and B are correct. Choice D.
कार्बन क्रेडिट प्रणाली के तहत उत्सर्जन की सीमा (Cap) तय करके व्यापार किया जाता है और उत्सर्जन भरपाई के लिए क्रेडिट खरीदे जाते हैं (Both A and B are correct)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2598📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeLandscape Ecology (Ecotone)
In ecology, an 'ecotone' is best defined as:
Explanation
An ecotone is the transitional junction zone where two distinct ecological biomes or communities meet, blend, and overlap (such as a marshland between river and terrestrial meadow), frequently exhibiting the edge effect and higher species richness. Choice A.
इकोटोन (Ecotone / संक्रांतिका) दो अलग-अलग पारिस्थितिक समुदायों या पारिस्थितिकी तंत्रों के बीच का 'संक्रमण क्षेत्र' (Boundary between two distinct ecosystems) होता है।
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2599📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation History (UNESCO MAB 1971)
The Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme was launched by UNESCO in which year?
Explanation
UNESCO launched the intergovernmental scientific Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 1971 to establish a scientific basis for enhancing the relationship between people and their environments and establishing the World Network of Biosphere Reserves. Choice A.
यूनेस्को का 'मैन एंड बायोस्फीयर' (MAB) कार्यक्रम वर्ष '1971' में शुरू किया गया था। सही विकल्प A है।
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2600📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiodiversity Hotspots of India
Which among the following geographical regions is officially recognized as a global Biodiversity Hotspot in India?
Explanation
India is home to four globally recognized biodiversity hotspots: 1. The Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka), 2. The Himalayas, 3. Indo-Burma, and 4. Sundaland. The Western Ghats is the prominent hotspot listed. Choice C.
भारत में वैश्विक जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट के रूप में मान्यता प्राप्त क्षेत्र 'पश्चिमी घाट' (Western Ghats) है।
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2601📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Treaties (Kyoto Protocol)
Which international treaty was adopted in 1997 to commit industrialized countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions globally?
Explanation
The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, in December 1997 (under UNFCCC) committing Annex I industrialized nations to legally binding targets to reduce emissions of six greenhouse gases.
ग्रीनहाउस गैसों के वैश्विक उत्सर्जन को कम करने के लिए 1997 में अपनाया गया अंतरराष्ट्रीय समझौता 'क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल' (Kyoto Protocol) है।
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2602📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeRadiological Hazards (Cesium-137)
Which anthropogenic radioactive isotope is most commonly associated with severe fallout, widespread soil contamination, and bioaccumulation following major nuclear power plant accidents (such as Chernobyl and Fukushima)?
Explanation
Cesium-137 (137Cs^{137}Cs, half-life ≈30.17 years\approx 30.17\text{ years}) is a volatile, high-yield nuclear fission product that mimics potassium in biological systems, rapidly dispersing and binding to soils to create long-term environmental radiological hazards following nuclear accidents. Choice C.
परमाणु दुर्घटनाओं (जैसे चेरनोबिल) के बाद दीर्घकालिक पर्यावरणीय विकिरण और मिट्टी के संदूषण के लिए मुख्य रूप से जिम्मेदार रेडियोधर्मी समस्थानिक 'सीज़ियम-137' (Cesium-137) है।
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2603📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Toxicology (Minamata Disease)
The devastating neurological disorder Minamata disease, first discovered in 1956 around Minamata Bay in Japan, was caused by industrial environmental pollution of:
Explanation
Minamata disease was caused by the release of industrial wastewater containing high concentrations of Methylmercury (CH3Hg+CH_3Hg^+) by the Chisso Corporation chemical plant, which bioaccumulated in shellfish and fish eaten by local residents. (Cadmium causes Itai-itai disease). Choice C.
जापान में फैली प्रसिद्ध 'मिनामाता बीमारी' (Minamata disease) औद्योगिक कचरे से पानी में घुले 'मिथाइल मर्करी' (Methylmercury / मिथाइल पारा) के कारण हुई थी।
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2604📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyBiofertilizer Agronomy
Which of the following statements about the production and use of biofertilizers are true?
I. Biofertilizers are produced by fermenting organic materials such as plant residues or manure.
II. The effectiveness of biofertilizers can be influenced by environmental factors, including soil temperature and moisture content.
III. Biofertilizers must always be used in conjunction with chemical fertilizers to be effective.
IV. Certain types of biofertilizers can provide resistance to plant diseases, enhancing overall plant health.
Choose the correct statements:
Explanation
Statements II and IV are correct: Living biofertilizer inoculants are sensitive to soil abiotic stress (temperature, pH, moisture) (II), and many plant growth-promoting rhizobacteria (PGPR) suppress phytopathogens via siderophores, antibiotics, and induced systemic resistance (IV). Statement I is false (that describes compost/organic manure, whereas biofertilizers are specific cultured microbial inoculants). Statement III is false (biofertilizers are effective in organic agriculture without synthetic fertilizers). Choice B (II, IV).
कथन II और IV सही हैं (जैव उर्वरकों की प्रभावशीलता मिट्टी के तापमान व नमी पर निर्भर करती है और ये पौधों को रोगों से लड़ने की क्षमता भी प्रदान करते हैं)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2605📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeForest Management & Conservation
Which of the following statements about forest management and conservation are true?
I. Sustainable forest management includes balancing forest resource extraction with conservation efforts.
II. Deforestation for urban expansion always leads to long-term ecological damage.
III. Reforestation programs can help restore degraded ecosystems and improve biodiversity.
IV. Forestry practices that emphasize monoculture plantations are more beneficial for biodiversity.
Choose the correct statements:
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct: Sustainable forestry balances sustainable yield harvesting with ecological preservation (I), and multi-species ecological reforestation restores soil, watersheds, and biodiversity (III). Statement IV is false because monoculture tree plantations support severely impoverished biodiversity compared to natural forests. Choice A (I, III).
कथन I और III सही हैं (सतत वन प्रबंधन निष्कर्षण और संरक्षण में संतुलन बनाता है और पुनर्वनीकरण जैव विविधता को बहाल करता है; मोनोकल्चर बागान जैव विविधता के लिए हानिकारक होते हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2606📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Biotechnology Challenges
Which of the following statements regarding the challenges of environmental biotechnology are true?
I. The success of in situ bioremediation largely depends on environmental conditions, such as temperature, pH, and oxygen levels.
II. High concentrations of toxic contaminants may inhibit the metabolic processes of microorganisms used in bioremediation.
III. The use of Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) in environmental biotechnology is widely accepted globally without any regulations.
IV. Large-scale application of environmental biotechnology often requires significant financial investment and monitoring.
Choose the correct statements:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and IV are correct: Microbial enzyme kinetics are tightly constrained by temperature, moisture, and redox conditions (I), heavy metals or high solvent concentrations often poison microbial enzymes (II), and field scale-up requires capital expenditure and ongoing verification (IV). Statement III is false because release of GMOs is strictly regulated under international biosafety protocols (Cartagena Protocol). Choice A (I, II, IV).
कथन I, II और IV सही हैं (बायोरेमेडिएशन की सफलता तापमान व ऑक्सीजन पर निर्भर करती है, उच्च विषाक्तता सूक्ष्मजीवों को रोक सकती है और बड़े पैमाने पर निवेश चाहिए; GMOs पर कड़े नियम लागू हैं)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2607📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiogeochemical Cycles
Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles are true?
I. The nitrogen cycle involves the biological conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into forms that plants can assimilate.
II. The phosphorus cycle involves the continuous movement of phosphorus between the atmosphere and terrestrial ecosystems.
III. In the carbon cycle, carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere during cellular respiration and fossil fuel combustion.
IV. The sulfur cycle does not involve any biological processes.
Choose the correct statements:
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct: Diazotrophs convert N2N_2 into plant-absorbable ammonium/nitrates (I), and aerobic respiration and combustion oxidize carbon to CO2CO_2 (III). Statement II is false because the phosphorus cycle is a strictly sedimentary cycle with virtually no gaseous atmospheric component. Statement IV is false because bacteria (Thiobacillus, sulfate reducers) play central biological roles in the sulfur cycle. Choice B (I, III).
कथन I और III सही हैं (नाइट्रोजन चक्र पौधों के लिए उपयोगी रूप बनाता है और श्वसन/दहन में CO2CO_2 निकलती है; फास्फोरस का कोई गैसीय वायुमंडलीय रूप नहीं होता और सल्फर चक्र में बैक्टीरिया भाग लेते हैं)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2608📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Energetics & Nutrient Cycling
Which of the following statements about ecosystem trophic structure and energetics are true?
I. An ecosystem fundamentally includes both biotic and abiotic components interacting together.
II. Energy flows through an ecosystem in a one-way, non-cyclic direction.
III. In an ecosystem, mineral nutrients are recycled continuously, while energy is not recycled.
IV. Primary producers in an ecosystem are typically herbivores.
Choose the correct statements:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and III are fundamental ecological laws: Ecosystems comprise biotic and abiotic components (I), energy flows unidirectionally from the sun and dissipates as metabolic heat (II), and biochemical nutrients are recycled biogeochemically while energy is never recycled (III). Statement IV is false because primary producers are autotrophs (photosynthetic plants/algae), whereas herbivores are primary consumers. Choice A (I, II, III).
कथन I, II और III सही हैं (पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में जैविक व अजैविक घटक होते हैं, ऊर्जा का प्रवाह एकदिशीय होता है और पोषक तत्व पुनर्चक्रित होते हैं लेकिन ऊर्जा नहीं; प्राथमिक उत्पादक स्वपोषी पौधे होते हैं, शाकाहारी नहीं)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2609📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeScope of Environmental Science
Select the correct statements regarding the scope and nature of Environmental Science:
I. It deals with understanding the impacts of human activities on the natural environment.
II. Environmental science includes studying ecological systems without involving social factors.
III. Environmental science is an inherently interdisciplinary subject spanning physical, biological, and social sciences.
IV. It only focuses on pollution levels and health issues.
Choose the correct statements:
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct: Environmental science investigates anthropogenic impacts on ecosystems (I) and integrates chemistry, biology, geology, economics, law, and sociology as a broad interdisciplinary field (III). Statements II and IV are false because environmental science inherently involves human socioeconomic and cultural factors, and encompasses resource conservation, biodiversity, and sustainability far beyond simple pollution. Choice B (I and III are correct).
कथन I और III सही हैं: पर्यावरण विज्ञान मानव गतिविधियों के प्रभावों का अध्ययन करता है और यह एक अंतःविषय (Interdisciplinary) विज्ञान है जिसमें सामाजिक कारक भी शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2610📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeAtmospheric Nitrogen Chemistry
Consider the following statements regarding atmospheric nitrogen:
I. Nitrogen gas (N2N_2) is the most abundant gas in Earth's atmosphere, constituting approximately 78% by volume.
II. Atmospheric nitrogen can be absorbed and utilized directly by most living plants and animals.
Select the correct answer:
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Diatomic nitrogen gas makes up ≈78.08%\approx 78.08\% of dry air by volume. Statement II is false because the triple covalent bond (N≡NN\equiv N) renders N2N_2 chemically inert; higher plants and animals cannot assimilate atmospheric nitrogen directly and depend on specialized nitrogen-fixing bacteria to convert it into ammonium or nitrates. Correct: I only (Choice A).
केवल कथन I सही है: नाइट्रोजन वायुमंडल में सबसे प्रचुर (78%) गैस है; लेकिन पौधे और जंतु इसे सीधे उपयोग नहीं कर सकते, वे नाइट्रोजन-स्थिरीकरण करने वाले जीवाणुओं पर निर्भर रहते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2611📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeInternational Environmental Governance
Which of the following statements about the global management of environmental pollution and treaties are true?
I. The Paris Agreement focuses on reducing greenhouse gas emissions to hold global warming well below 2°C.
II. International environmental protocols such as the Montreal Protocol have been exceptionally instrumental in phasing out ozone-depleting substances.
III. Transboundary pollution problems, including transboundary river basins and marine plastic pollution, require multinational cooperation.
IV. Environmental regulations have been completely successful in totally eliminating lead and asbestos in all industries worldwide.
Choose the correct statements:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and III are correct: The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise (I), the Montreal Protocol has phased out >99%>99\% of controlled ODS (II), and shared river/ocean pollution demands multilateral governance (III). Statement IV is false because asbestos mining/use and industrial lead contamination persist in numerous developing nations. Choice D (I, II, III).
कथन I, II और III सही हैं (पेरिस समझौता ग्रीनहाउस गैसों को कम करता है, मॉन्ट्रियल प्रोटोकॉल ओजोन क्षरण को रोकता है और सीमापार प्रदूषण में वैश्विक सहयोग आवश्यक है; सीसा और एस्बेस्टस अभी पूरी तरह समाप्त नहीं हुए हैं)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2612📚Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMendelian Genetics Concepts
Match the genetic phenomena in Column - I with their descriptions in Column - II:
Column - I:
1. Dominance
2. Codominance
3. Pleiotropy
4. Polygenic inheritance

Column - II:
i. Many genes cumulatively govern a single phenotypic quantitative character
ii. In a heterozygous organism, only one dominant allele expresses its phenotype
iii. In a heterozygous organism, both distinct alleles express themselves fully simultaneously
iv. A single gene influences multiple distinct phenotypic characters

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> ii (Dominance: dominant allele masks recessive allele in heterozygote), 2 -> iii (Codominance: both alleles express equally, e.g. AB blood group), 3 -> iv (Pleiotropy: one gene has multiple phenotypic effects, e.g. phenylketonuria), 4 -> i (Polygenic inheritance: multiple additive genes control one trait, e.g. human height). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i (Choice B).
1-ii (प्रभाविता - विषमयुग्मजी में केवल एक एलील का प्रकटन), 2-iii (सह-प्रभाविता - दोनों एलील्स का पूर्ण प्रकटन), 3-iv (प्लियोट्रॉपी - एक जीन द्वारा कई लक्षणों का नियंत्रण), 4-i (बहुजीनी वंशागति - कई जीनों द्वारा एक लक्षण का नियंत्रण)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2613📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeWater Pollution Consequences Matching
Match the primary water pollution effects with their most direct biological consequences:
i. Eutrophication
ii. Contaminated drinking water
iii. Severe fish mortality
iv. Spread of waterborne infectious diseases
v. Aquatic habitat loss

Consequences:
1. Drastic reduction in dissolved oxygen (hypoxia) causing mass suffocation
2. Disruption of benthic ecosystem food webs and loss of species diversity
3. Increased nitrogen and phosphorus nutrient levels triggering dense algal blooms
4. Enteric pathogenic bacteria, viruses, and amoebae causing human illness
5. Human gastrointestinal ingestion of water contaminated with toxic industrial chemicals

Select the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 3 (Eutrophication brings excess N/P nutrients yielding toxic algal blooms), ii -> 5 (Contaminated drinking water leads to chemical consumption hazards), iii -> 1 (Fish mortality is directly precipitated by severe oxygen depletion/hypoxia), iv -> 4 (Waterborne epidemics are caused by enteric pathogens like cholera/typhoid), v -> 2 (Habitat loss disrupts benthic ecosystem diversity). Correct match: i-3, ii-5, iii-1, iv-4, v-2 (Choice D).
i-3 (सुपोषण - पोषक तत्वों से शैवाल प्रसार), ii-5 (दूषित पेयजल - रसायनों का उपभोग), iii-1 (मछली मृत्यु - ऑक्सीजन की कमी से दम घुटना), iv-4 (जलजनित रोग - रोगजनकों द्वारा बीमारी), v-2 (आवास विनाश - पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र की क्षति)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2614📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation Organizations Matching
Match the international biodiversity organizations with their core mission and objectives:
Column - A:
1. IUCN
2. WWF
3. CBD (Convention on Biological Diversity)
4. CITES

Column - B:
i. Maintains and publishes the global Red List of Threatened Species
ii. Focuses on global wildlife conservation and reduction of human environmental footprint
iii. Promotes conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use, and fair and equitable sharing of genetic benefits
iv. Regulates and monitors international commercial trade in endangered species of wild fauna and flora

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> i (IUCN assesses species extinction risk in the Red List), 2 -> ii (World Wildlife Fund promotes wildlife and habitat protection), 3 -> iii (Convention on Biological Diversity enforces access and benefit sharing Nagoya/Cartagena), 4 -> iv (CITES controls international wildlife trade). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).
1-i (IUCN - संकटग्रस्त प्रजातियों की रेड लिस्ट), 2-ii (WWF - वन्यजीव संरक्षण), 3-iii (CBD - जैव विविधता संरक्षण व आनुवंशिक लाभ साझा करना), 4-iv (CITES - लुप्तप्राय प्रजातियों के अंतरराष्ट्रीय व्यापार का नियमन)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2615📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation Ecology Categories
Match the biodiversity-related ecological terms in Column -A with their representative wildlife examples in Column -B:
Column -A:
1. Keystone species
2. Invasive species
3. Endemic species
4. Flagship species

Column - B:
i. Elephants in African savannas (maintains open grasslands)
ii. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) in freshwater lakes
iii. Giant panda in China (symbol of conservation)
iv. Lion-tailed macaque in Western Ghats rainforests of India

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> i (African elephants act as keystone ecosystem engineers knocking down trees to maintain savannas), 2 -> ii (Water hyacinth is an aggressive invasive alien weed clogging aquatic ecosystems), 3 -> iv (Lion-tailed macaque is strictly endemic to the Western Ghats of India), 4 -> iii (The Giant Panda is the classic global flagship ambassador species). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii (Choice A).
1-i (कीस्टोन प्रजाति - अफ्रीकी हाथी), 2-ii (आक्रामक विदेशी प्रजाति - जलकुंभी), 3-iv (स्थानिक प्रजाति - पश्चिमी घाट का लायन-टेल्ड मकाक), 4-iii (फ्लैगशिप प्रजाति - जायंट पांडा)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2616📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation Strategies Matching
Match the biodiversity conservation strategies in Column -A with their defining characteristics in Column -B:
Column - A:
1. In situ conservation
2. Ex situ conservation
3. Biodiversity hotspots
4. Wildlife corridors

Column - B:
i. Conservation of genetic components outside their natural habitats (e.g. botanical gardens, seed banks)
ii. Conservation of wild ecosystems and populations within their natural habitats (e.g. national parks, sanctuaries)
iii. Biogeographic regions with exceptional concentrations of endemic species undergoing significant habitat loss
iv. Protected ecological pathways that physically link fragmented forest patches to facilitate animal migration

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> ii (In-situ: on-site conservation in natural protected reserves), 2 -> i (Ex-situ: off-site gene banks and zoological parks), 3 -> iii (Hotspots: high endemism with >70%>70\% habitat loss), 4 -> iv (Corridors: contiguous landscape strips connecting fragmented habitats). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).
1-ii (स्व-स्थाने / In situ - प्राकृतिक आवास में संरक्षण), 2-i (पर-स्थाने / Ex situ - प्राकृतिक आवास से बाहर जैसे बीज बैंक), 3-iii (हॉटस्पॉट - अत्यधिक स्थानिकता व संकटग्रस्त क्षेत्र), 4-iv (वन्यजीव गलियारे - खंडित आवासों को जोड़ने वाले मार्ग)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2617📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeResource Management Matching
Match the environmental conservation method in Column -A with its primary practical focus in Column -B:
Column -A (Conservation Method):
1. Soil Conservation
2. Forest Conservation
3. Water Resource Management
4. Wildlife Conservation

Column - B (Focus):
i. Contour Plowing and terrace farming to prevent erosion
ii. Prevention of Deforestation and enforcing afforestation
iii. Efficient Irrigation Techniques (drip and sprinkler systems)
iv. Establishment of National Parks and biosphere reserves

Options:
Explanation
1 -> i (Soil conservation employs contour tillage and windbreaks to minimize topsoil runoff), 2 -> ii (Forestry focuses on controlling clear-cutting and illegal timber harvesting), 3 -> iii (Water management adopts micro-irrigation to conserve groundwater), 4 -> iv (Wildlife protection legally designates national parks to safeguard natural habitats). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).
1-i (मृदा संरक्षण - समोच्च जुताई), 2-ii (वन संरक्षण - वनों की कटाई की रोकथाम), 3-iii (जल प्रबंधन - कुशल ड्रिप सिंचाई), 4-iv (वन्यजीव संरक्षण - राष्ट्रीय उद्यानों की स्थापना)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2618📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Services Matching
Match the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment categories of ecosystem services with their illustrative real-world examples:
Column - A (Service Type):
1. Provisioning Service
2. Regulating Service
3. Supporting Service
4. Cultural Service

Column - B (Example):
i. Timber, medicinal plants, and clean freshwater production
ii. Climate regulation and Carbon sequestration by forests and wetlands
iii. Soil formation, primary production, and Nutrient cycling
iv. Ecotourism, recreational, spiritual, and aesthetic inspiration

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> i (Provisioning: direct material goods harvested from nature like food, timber, and fiber), 2 -> ii (Regulating: ecological buffer benefits including carbon capture, flood moderation, and pollination), 3 -> iii (Supporting: underlying biological processes underpinning all other services like nutrient cycling and soil genesis), 4 -> iv (Cultural: non-material educational and recreation benefits). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).
1-i (प्रावधान सेवा - लकड़ी, भोजन और जल), 2-ii (नियामक सेवा - जलवायु नियमन और कार्बन अवशोषण), 3-iii (सहायक सेवा - पोषक चक्र और मृदा निर्माण), 4-iv (सांस्कृतिक सेवा - इकोटूरिज्म और आध्यात्मिक प्रेरणा)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2619📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserves of India
Match the iconic Biosphere Reserves of India in Column - A with the States in which they are located in Column - B:
Column - A (Biosphere Reserve):
1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
3. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve
4. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

Column - B (State):
i. Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka
ii. Uttarakhand
iii. West Bengal
iv. Tamil Nadu

Options:
Explanation
1 -> i (Nilgiri was India's first biosphere reserve established in 1986 across TN, Kerala, and Karnataka), 2 -> ii (Nanda Devi is situated in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand), 3 -> iii (Sundarbans mangrove delta is located in West Bengal), 4 -> iv (Gulf of Mannar marine reserve lies along coastal Tamil Nadu). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).
1-i (नीलगिरि - तमिलनाडु, केरल, कर्नाटक), 2-ii (नंदा देवी - उत्तराखंड), 3-iii (सुंदरबन - पश्चिम बंगाल), 4-iv (मन्नार की खाड़ी - तमिलनाडु)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2620📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserve Zonation
Match the three concentric management zones of a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve with their primary characteristics and authorized activities:
Column - A (Zone):
1. Core Zone
2. Buffer Zone
3. Transition Zone
4. Research / Monitoring Site

Column - B (Characteristics):
i. Strictly protected sanctuary where human economic activity is legally prohibited to preserve wildlife
ii. Surrounds core area where controlled research, educational training, and limited ecotourism are permitted
iii. Outermost flexible area where sustainable agricultural practices, settlements, and local livelihoods take place
iv. Designated field plots dedicated to environmental monitoring and ecological experimentation

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
1 -> i (Core Zone: pristine undisturbed sanctuary dedicated purely to conservation), 2 -> ii (Buffer Zone: strictly regulated ring for research, education, and low-impact tourism), 3 -> iii (Transition Zone: human cooperation area for sustainable development and forestry), 4 -> iv (Research sites). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).
1-i (कोर जोन - पूर्णतः संरक्षित क्षेत्र, मानवीय गतिविधियां प्रतिबंधित), 2-ii (बफर जोन - सीमित अनुसंधान और इकोटूरिज्म), 3-iii (संक्रमण जोन - बस्तियां और सतत कृषि), 4-iv (शोध व निगरानी क्षेत्र)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2621📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeRadiation Biology & Mutagenesis
Consider the following statements regarding ionizing radiation hazards:
Assertion (A): Radioactive environmental pollution can induce severe genetic mutations and chromosomal aberrations in living organisms.
Reason (R): Ionizing radiation deposits high energy that damages DNA molecules by directly and indirectly breaking covalent phosphodiester and hydrogen chemical bonds.
Which one of the following options is correct?
Explanation
Both statements are true and causally explanatory: High-energy ionizing particles (alpha, beta, gamma rays) ionize water to generate reactive hydroxyl radicals and directly cause double-strand DNA breaks and base transversion mutations (R), directly driving permanent somatic malignancies and germline genetic mutations (A). Choice A.
अभिकथन A और कारण R दोनों सही हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है (आयनकारी विकिरण डीएनए के रासायनिक बंधों को तोड़कर गुणसूत्रीय क्षति और उत्परिवर्तन उत्पन्न करता है)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2622📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserves (MAB Framework)
Consider the following statements regarding Biosphere Reserves:
Assertion (A): Biosphere reserves are officially designated to integrate in situ conservation of biodiversity with sustainable socioeconomic use and research.
Reason (R): The UNESCO MAB Programme focuses solely on basic scientific laboratory research, completely ignoring socio-economic factors and local communities.
Which one of the following options is correct?
Explanation
Assertion (A) is TRUE: Biosphere reserves have a three-fold mandate: conservation of landscapes/ecosystems, sustainable socioeconomic development for local populations, and logistic research support. Reason (R) is completely FALSE: The foundational objective of the Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme is to foster harmonious integration between local human societies and the natural environment (socioeconomic dimensions are paramount). Choice C (A is true, but R is false).
अभिकथन (A) सत्य है कि बायोस्फीयर रिजर्व संरक्षण और सतत विकास को जोड़ते हैं; परंतु कारण (R) असत्य है क्योंकि MAB कार्यक्रम स्थानीय समुदायों और सामाजिक-आर्थिक विकास को प्राथमिकता देता है, उपेक्षा नहीं करता। सही विकल्प C है।
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2623📚Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserve Management Zones
Consider the following statements regarding the zonation architecture of a Biosphere Reserve:
Assertion (A): The core zone of a biosphere reserve strictly prohibits all human destructive resource extraction and commercial activity.
Reason (R): The buffer zone surrounding the core supports sustainable resource practices, training, environmental education, and scientific research.
Which one of the following options is correct?
Explanation
Both statements are factually correct under statutory biosphere reserve guidelines: The core zone is a legally protected inviolate sanctuary with zero human extraction permitted (A), and the surrounding buffer zone accommodates non-destructive activities like research, education, and regulated ecotourism (R). However, Reason R describes the buffer zone rather than providing the functional ecological rationale for why the core itself is strictly protected (which is to preserve baseline genetic diversity undisturbed). Choice B.
कथन A और R दोनों सत्य हैं, लेकिन R, A की सही व्याख्या नहीं है क्योंकि R बफर जोन के कार्यों का वर्णन करता है, कोर जोन के पूर्ण संरक्षण के कारण की व्याख्या नहीं करता। सही विकल्प B है।
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2624📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsTissue Optics & Chromophores
Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the absorption of light in biological tissues?
Explanation
In the visible and near-infrared spectral range, the primary endogenous chromophores responsible for optical absorption in biological tissues are melanin (in skin and pigmented tissues) and hemoglobin (both oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin in blood).
जैविक ऊतकों में प्रकाश के अवशोषण के लिए प्राथमिक रूप से मेलेनिन और हीमोग्लोबिन (Melanin and haemoglobin concentration) के प्राकृतिक क्रोमोफोर जिम्मेदार होते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2625📚Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementRadiation Safety Principles & ALARA
"ALARA" stands for:
Explanation
ALARA stands for 'As Low As Reasonably Achievable', a core radiation protection philosophy mandating that all radiation exposures be minimized taking into account economic, societal, and technological factors.
विकिरण संरक्षण में ALARA का पूर्ण रूप 'एज़ लो एज़ रीज़नेब्ली अचीवेबल' (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2626📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsHuman Anatomy & Physiology
What is the primary function of the nervous system?
Explanation
The primary function of the nervous system is to transmit electro-chemical nerve impulses between different parts of the body, processing sensory inputs and coordinating both voluntary motor movements and involuntary autonomic physiological functions.
तंत्रिका तंत्र (Nervous system) का मुख्य कार्य संकेतों का संचरण करना तथा ऐच्छिक व अनैच्छिक क्रियाओं का समन्वय व नियंत्रण करना है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2627📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsHuman Anatomy & Physiology
Which of the following glands is known as the "master gland" of the endocrine system?
Explanation
The pituitary gland (hypophysis) is called the master gland because its anterior and posterior lobes synthesize and secrete trophic hormones (TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, GH, prolactin) that govern and regulate the functions of other endocrine glands throughout the body.
पीयूष ग्रंथि (Pituitary gland) को अंतःस्रावी तंत्र की 'मास्टर ग्रंथि' कहा जाता है क्योंकि यह अन्य अंतःस्रावी ग्रंथियों के स्राव को नियंत्रित करती है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2628📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningElectron Beam Radiotherapy & Bolus
A patient is set to 100 cm SSD for treatment with an electron beam. One cm of bolus is then added to cover the entire field. The SSD that should be used to calculated the MUs to deliver the desired dose is:
Explanation
In electron beam radiotherapy, when bolus is placed on the patient's skin surface, clinical protocol requires setting the patient treatment distance so that the top surface of the bolus is positioned at the nominal calibrated source-to-surface distance (SSD = 100 cm), which matches the machine calibration geometry and cone factor measurements.
इलेक्ट्रॉन बीम उपचार में बोलस लगाते समय सेटअप इस प्रकार किया जाता है कि बोलस की ऊपरी सतह मानक 100 सेमी SSD पर रहे, ताकि MU गणना 100 cm SSD के अनुसार सही हो। सही विकल्प C है।
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2629📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningDICOM-RT & Treatment Delivery
If your treatment planning system and treatment delivery system are from different vendors, what DICOM-RT files need to be transferred out of the treatment planning system to effectively treat a patient?
Explanation
The RT-Plan object contains all geometric and mechanical delivery instructions (beam angles, monitor units, collimator and jaw positions, MLC leaf control points, energy, and accessory codes) required by the linear accelerator and Record & Verify system to execute the patient treatment. RT-Dose and RT-Structure Set are for display/verification, not machine motion execution.
लीनैक पर मरीज के उपचार निष्पादन के लिए ट्रीटमेंट प्लानिंग सिस्टम से 'RT-Plan' फाइल का ट्रांसफर होना अनिवार्य है, जिसमें बीम, जबड़े, MLC और MU के सभी निर्देश होते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2630📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsBiomaterials & Medical Implants
Which material is commonly used for making biocompatible heart valves?
Explanation
Pyrolytic carbon (specifically Low-Temperature Isotropic pyrolytic carbon, LTI carbon) is the biomaterial of choice for mechanical heart valve prostheses due to its exceptional thromboresistance (low blood clotting tendency), hemocompatibility, high fatigue strength, and wear resistance.
जैविक रूप से अनुकूल मैकेनिकल हार्ट वाल्व बनाने के लिए 'पायरोलाइटिक कार्बन' (Pyrolytic carbon) का व्यापक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है क्योंकि यह रक्त के थक्के नहीं बनने देता। सही विकल्प D है।
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2631📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsBiomaterials & Medical Implants
What is the primary advantage of using ceramics in dental crowns and bridges?
Explanation
Dental ceramics (such as zirconia and alumina-based porcelains) provide superior compressive strength, outstanding abrasion and wear resistance, biocompatibility, and chemical durability in the oral cavity, alongside excellent natural tooth aesthetics.
दांतों के क्राउन और ब्रिज में सिरेमिक का प्राथमिक लाभ इसकी उच्च मजबूती और घिसाव प्रतिरोधक क्षमता (High strength and resistance to wear) है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2632📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningIonization Chamber Dosimetry
The ionization chamber in a radiation therapy system is used to measure:
Explanation
In radiotherapy, ionization chambers (such as thimble chambers, Farmer chambers, and plane-parallel chambers) are clinical dosimeters used to quantitatively measure ionization charge in order to determine beam output and the radiation absorbed dose delivered to water/phantom and patients.
रेडिएशन थेरेपी में आयोनाइज़ेशन चैंबर का उपयोग मरीज को दी जाने वाली विकिरण खुराक (Radiation dose delivered to the patient) और बीम आउटपुट को मापने के लिए किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2633📚Brachytherapy, Nuclear Medicine Physics & Radiotherapy QABrachytherapy Radionuclides & Seeds
Which of the following radionuclides is most commonly used in prostate brachytherapy due to its appropriate half-life and energy characteristics?
Explanation
Iodine-125 (125I^{125}\text{I}) is the most widely utilized permanent interstitial seed implant radionuclide for low-risk prostate cancer brachytherapy due to its favorable physical half-life (T1/2=59.4 daysT_{1/2} = 59.4\text{ days}) and low-energy photon emission (average energy ~28 keV) that spares surrounding rectum and bladder tissues.
प्रोस्टेट ब्रैकीथेरेपी में स्थायी बीज प्रत्यारोपण के लिए आयोडीन-125 (I-125) का सबसे अधिक उपयोग किया जाता है क्योंकि इसकी कम ऊर्जा (28 keV) और 59.4 दिन की अर्ध-आयु आदर्श होती है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2634📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsApplied Mathematics (Laplace Transforms)
What is the region of convergence (ROC) for the Laplace Transform of a signal?
Explanation
The Region of Convergence (ROC) is the domain of complex frequency values s=σ+jωs = \sigma + j\omega in the ss-plane for which the Laplace transform integral ∫−∞∞∣f(t)e−st∣dt<∞\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |f(t) e^{-st}| dt < \infty converges to a finite, bounded value.
लाप्लास रूपांतरण में अभिसरण का क्षेत्र (Region of Convergence - ROC) सम्मिश्र ss-समतल में उन मानों का समुच्चय है जिनके लिए लाप्लास समाकलन एक सीमित मान पर अभिसरित होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2635📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsBiomaterials & Medical Implants
Which of the following materials is typically used in joint replacement implants due to its excellent wear resistance and low friction?
Explanation
Ultra-High-Molecular-Weight Polyethylene (UHMWPE, often highly cross-linked XLPE) is the standard biocompatible polymer used for the bearing articulating cup and spacer inserts in total hip and knee arthroplasty due to its exceptional wear resistance, impact toughness, and low coefficient of friction.
जोड़ों के प्रतिस्थापन (Joint replacement) में कम घर्षण और उत्कृष्ट घिसाव प्रतिरोध के कारण अल्ट्रा-हाई मॉलिक्यूलर वेट 'पॉलीइथिलीन' (UHMWPE) का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2636📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment Planning4D-CT Simulation & Motion Management
4D CT simulation is most useful for treatment planning of tumors located near the
Explanation
Four-Dimensional Computed Tomography (4D-CT) sorts CT projections into specific respiratory breathing phases, which is clinically vital for imaging and tracking tumors subject to significant respiratory motion—specifically lung, liver, and lower esophageal tumors located near the moving diaphragm.
श्वसन गति के कारण डायफ्राम (Diaphragm) के पास स्थित फेफड़ों व लिवर के ट्यूमर की सटीक योजना बनाने के लिए 4D-CT सिमुलेशन सबसे उपयोगी होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2637📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningMonte Carlo Dose Calculations
Monte Carlo simulations in electron transport are especially beneficial in treatment planning for:
Explanation
Because electron beam scattering and stopping powers depend heavily on electron density and atomic composition, Monte Carlo simulations are essential for clinical treatment planning in regions with sharp density gradients and tissue inhomogeneities, such as the head-and-neck, lungs, ribs, and nasal cavities.
इलेक्ट्रॉन ट्रांसपोर्ट मोंटे कार्लो सिमुलेशन विशेष रूप से विभिन्न ऊतक घनत्वों और जटिल विजातीय संरचनाओं (Varying tissue densities and inhomogeneities) की उपचार योजना में अत्यंत लाभकारी होते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2638📚Brachytherapy, Nuclear Medicine Physics & Radiotherapy QABrachytherapy Radionuclides & Seeds
For which type of brachytherapy treatment is the use of a "seed implant" most common?
Explanation
Permanent interstitial seed implantation (using encapsulated 125I^{125}\text{I} or 103Pd^{103}\text{Pd} titanium seeds placed transperineally under ultrasound guidance) is the classic and most common brachytherapy treatment for localized low- and intermediate-risk prostate cancer.
स्थायी 'सीड इम्प्लांट' (Seed implant) का सबसे आम उपयोग प्रोस्टेट कैंसर (Prostate cancer) के उपचार में किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2639📚Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementRadiobiology & Tissue Radiosensitivity
Which of the following tissues is most sensitive to ionizing radiation?
Explanation
According to the Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau, the radiosensitivity of a tissue is directly proportional to its mitotic activity and inversely proportional to its degree of differentiation. Bone marrow (hematopoietic stem cells) has one of the highest cell turnover rates in the human body, making it the most radiosensitive tissue among the options.
बर्गेनी और ट्रिबोंड्यू के नियम के अनुसार, अस्थि मज्जा (Bone marrow) अपनी अत्यधिक कोशिका विभाजन दर के कारण आयनकारी विकिरण के प्रति सर्वाधिक संवेदनशील होती है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2640📚Brachytherapy, Nuclear Medicine Physics & Radiotherapy QAAAPM TG-43 Brachytherapy Formalism
An advantage of TG-143 dose calculation is ________
Explanation
In the standard AAPM brachytherapy dosimetry formalism (TG-43 / TG-143): (1) all calculations assume an unbounded homogeneous water medium without tissue heterogeneity corrections; (2) inter-seed attenuation and shielding effects are ignored; and (3) radiobiological dose-rate variations are not modeled. Therefore, none of the listed statements is an advantage or feature of the TG-43/143 protocol. Choice D.
पारंपरिक TG-43/TG-143 ब्रैकीथेरेपी प्रोटोकॉल में माध्यम को शुद्ध पानी माना जाता है; इसमें न तो इंटर-सीड क्षीणन की गणना होती है और न ही ऊतक असमानता सुधार लागू होते हैं। अतः कोई भी कथन सही नहीं है (None of the above is true)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2641📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningBeam Arrangements & Hot Spot Analysis
Considering an AP/PA photon dose distribution prescribed to midplane depth, the hot spot ________
Explanation
In an opposed pair AP/PA beam arrangement prescribed to midplane depth, higher energy photon beams (e.g., 18 MV vs 6 MV) exhibit greater depth penetration and higher percent depth dose at depth. This creates a flatter, more uniform dose profile across the patient thickness, substantially reducing the magnitude of subcutaneous tissue hot spots.
AP/PA बीम व्यवस्था में, जैसे-जैसे बीम की ऊर्जा (Beam energy) बढ़ती है, प्रवेश क्षमता बढ़ने से मरीज के उप-त्वचीय क्षेत्रों में बनने वाले 'हॉट स्पॉट' (Hot spot) का मान घटता है (Decreases for increasing beam energy)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2642📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningMonitor Unit & PDD Calculations
A linac is calibrated to give 1.00 cGy/MU to d_max for 10x10 cm^2 field at 100 cm SSD. How many MU are needed to deliver 200 cGy to depth if the PDD is 50% for a 10x10 cm^2 field at 100 cm SSD?
Explanation
Using the standard percent depth dose calculation formula:
Dose at depth=MU×Output×(PDD100)\text{Dose at depth} = \text{MU} \times \text{Output} \times \left(\frac{\text{PDD}}{100}\right)
200 cGy=MU×1.00 cGy/MU×0.50200\text{ cGy} = \text{MU} \times 1.00\text{ cGy/MU} \times 0.50
MU=2000.50=400 MU\text{MU} = \frac{200}{0.50} = 400\text{ MU}.
मानक PDD सूत्र से:
\text{खुराक} = \text{MU} \times \text{आउटपुट} \times \frac{\text{PDD}}{100}
200=MU×1.00×0.50  ⟹  MU=2000.50=400 MU200 = \text{MU} \times 1.00 \times 0.50 \implies \text{MU} = \frac{200}{0.50} = 400\text{ MU}। सही विकल्प C है।
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2643📚Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementRadiobiology & Radiation Effects
Which of the following is considered a late somatic effect of radiation exposure?
Explanation
Late somatic effects of ionizing radiation manifest months to decades after exposure. Cataractogenesis (deterministic late effect with a threshold) and radiation-induced leukemia/solid tumors (stochastic late effects) are classic late effects, whereas erythema, acute burns, and nausea are early/acute radiation effects.
विकिरण के देर से होने वाले दैहिक प्रभावों (Late somatic effects) में मोतियाबिंद (Cataracts) और ल्यूकेमिया (Leukemia) शामिल हैं, जो महीनों या वर्षों बाद प्रकट होते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2644📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsDiagnostic X-Ray Tube Filtration
The inherent filtration in a diagnostic x-ray tube comes from ________ and is usually specified in term of ________
Explanation
Inherent filtration is the permanent attenuation provided by the physical structural components of the X-ray tube assembly itself—including the glass envelope, insulating dielectric oil, and the tube exit window—and is standardized and specified in millimeters of aluminum equivalent (mm Al equivalent, typically 0.5 to 1.0 mm Al).
डायग्नोस्टिक एक्स-रे ट्यूब में 'इन्हेरेंट फिल्ट्रेशन' स्वयं ट्यूब के घटकों (कांच, तेल, पोर्ट) से आता है और इसे मिमी एल्यूमीनियम समकक्ष (mm Al equivalent) में व्यक्त किया जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2645📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningElectron Beam Dosimetry & Detectors
The most suitable tool for measuring the output factor for a low-energy electron 10x10 cm^2 cutout is ________
Explanation
For low-energy clinical electron beams (<10 MeV< 10\text{ MeV}), major international dosimetry protocols (AAPM TG-51 and IAEA TRS-398) mandate the use of a plane-parallel (parallel-plate) ionization chamber (e.g., Markus or Roos chambers) because its thin entrance window and negligible cavity perturbation minimize depth and electron fluence errors.
कम ऊर्जा वाले इलेक्ट्रॉन बीम (<10 MeV<10\text{ MeV}) के आउटपुट फैक्टर को मापने के लिए 'पैरेलल प्लेट आयन चैंबर' (Parallel plate ion chamber) सबसे उपयुक्त उपकरण है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2646📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningSRS/SBRT Treatment Plan Quality Indices
The conformity index is a measure of normal tissue irradiated to ________ dose, and the gradient index is a measure of ________
Explanation
In stereotactic radiotherapy (SRS/SBRT), the Conformity Index (CI) quantifies the tightness with which the prescription high-dose volume conforms to the target volume (reflecting normal tissue irradiated to high dose), while the Gradient Index (GI, e.g., V50%/V100%V_{50\%}/V_{100\%}) measures the steepness of dose falloff outside the target volume.
कन्फर्मिटी इंडेक्स (CI) यह मापता है कि सामान्य ऊतक को कितनी उच्च खुराक (High dose) मिली है, और ग्रेडिएंट इंडेक्स (GI) ट्यूमर के बाहर खुराक के गिरने की तीव्रता (Dose falloff) का माप है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2647📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningKnowledge-Based Treatment Planning (KBP)
Knowledge-based treatment planning ________
Explanation
Knowledge-Based Planning (KBP, such as Varian RapidPlan) uses statistical models trained on libraries of previously treated, clinically validated high-quality treatment plans to predict achievable Dose-Volume Histograms (DVHs) and generate individualized optimization objectives for new patients.
नॉलेज-बेस्ड प्लानिंग (KBP) पूर्व में स्वीकृत उच्च-गुणवत्ता वाली उपचार योजनाओं के डेटाबेस से एक मॉडल बनाकर नए मरीज के लिए डोज़ परिणामों का पूर्वानुमान लगाती है और ऑप्टिमाइज़ेशन को निर्देशित करती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2648📚Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningTarget Margins & IGRT
The planning target volume (PTV) margin can be reduced by all of the following techniques except ________
Explanation
PTV margins account for geometric uncertainties, inter-fraction setup variations, and internal organ motion. Image-guided radiation therapy (IGRT) modalities like 2D kV orthogonal imaging, kV-CBCT, and MV-CBCT directly measure and correct patient positioning, allowing PTV margins to be safely reduced. IMRT is an intensity-modulation delivery technique that conforms dose to a shape, but does not itself reduce geometric setup or motion uncertainties.
प्लानिंग टारगेट वॉल्यूम (PTV) मार्जिन को इमेज गाइडेंस (kV, CBCT) द्वारा कम किया जा सकता है; जबकि IMRT केवल बीम तीव्रता को संशोधित करने की तकनीक है, यह सेटअप अनिश्चितता या मार्जिन को कम नहीं करती। सही विकल्प D है।
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2649📚Diagnostic Radiology Physics, Biomedical Instrumentation & Applied MathematicsScreening Mammography Performance Metrics
What does a positive predictive value(PPV1) of 2% for abnormal screening mammography imply?
Explanation
In screening mammography benchmarks (BI-RADS / ACR), PPV1 represents the percentage of screening recalls that ultimately result in a tissue diagnosis of cancer (benchmark range: 4% to 10%). A markedly low PPV1 of only 2% signifies an excessively high recall rate with excessive false-positive findings, meaning the radiologist is interpreting too many benign screening examinations as abnormal.
स्क्रीनिंग मैमोग्राफी में 2% का अत्यंत कम PPV1 यह इंगित करता है कि रेडियोलॉजिस्ट अत्यधिक सामान्य मामलों को भी असामान्य (Radiologist calling too many abnormals - उच्च रिकॉल रेट) बता रहा है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2650📚Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementRadioactive Waste Management
Which type of radioactive waste requires the most stringent containment and isolation measures?
Explanation
High-Level Waste (HLW)—primarily consisting of irradiated spent nuclear fuel and liquid waste generated by reprocessing—contains high concentrations of both short- and long-lived radionuclides and generates substantial decay heat, necessitating deep geological disposal and the most stringent multi-barrier containment for thousands of years.
उच्च स्तरीय रेडियोधर्मी कचरे (High-level waste) में अत्यधिक रेडियोधर्मिता और ऊष्मा होती है, जिसके लिए सबसे सख्त रोकथाम और अलगाव उपायों (Deep geological isolation) की आवश्यकता होती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2651📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsThermodynamics & Second Law
Which of the following statements correctly illustrates the Second Law of Thermodynamics?
Explanation
The Kelvin-Planck statement of the Second Law of Thermodynamics states that it is impossible to construct a heat engine operating in a cycle that absorbs heat from a single thermal reservoir and converts 100% of it into mechanical work without rejecting some waste heat to a colder sink.
केल्विन-प्लैंक के अनुसार, ऊष्मा इंजन द्वारा अवशोषित संपूर्ण ऊष्मा को कार्य में परिवर्तित नहीं किया जा सकता; चक्र पूरा करने के लिए कुछ ऊष्मा को निम्न तापमान वाले कुंड (Sink) में विसर्जित करना अनिवार्य होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2652📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsQuantum Mechanics & Uncertainty Principle
An electron is confined within a region of space of width Delta x = 0.01 nm. Using the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle, estimate the minimum uncertainty in the electron's velocity, Rounded off to the nearest decimal place. (Take Planck's constant h = 6.63x10^-34 Js, Mass of electron m_e = 9.11x10^-31 kg.)
Explanation
According to Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle: Δx⋅Δp≥h4π  ⟹  Δx⋅(meΔv)≥h4π\Delta x \cdot \Delta p \ge \frac{h}{4\pi} \implies \Delta x \cdot (m_e \Delta v) \ge \frac{h}{4\pi}.
Δvmin⁡=h4πmeΔx=6.63×10−34 J s4×3.1416×(9.11×10−31 kg)×(0.01×10−9 m)=6.63×10−341.1448×10−40≈5.791×106 m/s≈5.8×106 m/s\Delta v_{\min} = \frac{h}{4\pi m_e \Delta x} = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}\text{ J s}}{4 \times 3.1416 \times (9.11 \times 10^{-31}\text{ kg}) \times (0.01 \times 10^{-9}\text{ m})} = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{1.1448 \times 10^{-40}} \approx 5.791 \times 10^6\text{ m/s} \approx 5.8 \times 10^6\text{ m/s}.
हाइजेनबर्ग के अनिश्चितता सिद्धांत Δx⋅mΔv=h4π\Delta x \cdot m \Delta v = \frac{h}{4\pi} से:
Δv=6.63×10−344π×9.11×10−31×10−11≈5.79×106 m/s≈5.8×106 m/s\Delta v = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{4\pi \times 9.11 \times 10^{-31} \times 10^{-11}} \approx 5.79 \times 10^6\text{ m/s} \approx 5.8 \times 10^6\text{ m/s}। सही विकल्प A है।
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2653📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsClassical Mechanics & Dynamics
A 3sqrt(2) kg block sliding down a smooth inclined plane of length 5m is inclined at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. A horizontal force F = 10sqrt(2) N is applied to the block during its motion down the incline. Find the velocity of the block when it reaches the bottom, Rounded off to the nearest decimal place. (Take g=10m/s^2 and sqrt(2) =1.414).
Explanation
Given: m=32 kgm = 3\sqrt{2}\text{ kg}, s=5 ms = 5\text{ m}, θ=45∘\theta = 45^\circ, horizontal push F=102 NF = 10\sqrt{2}\text{ N}.
Forces acting down along the incline plane:
1. Gravitational component down the incline: mgsin⁡45∘=(32)×10×12=30 Nm g \sin 45^\circ = (3\sqrt{2}) \times 10 \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = 30\text{ N}.
2. Component of horizontal force along the incline: Fcos⁡45∘=(102)×12=10 NF \cos 45^\circ = (10\sqrt{2}) \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} = 10\text{ N}.
Net accelerating force Fnet=30+10=40 NF_{\text{net}} = 30 + 10 = 40\text{ N}.
Acceleration a=Fnetm=4032=404.242≈9.428 m/s2a = \frac{F_{\text{net}}}{m} = \frac{40}{3\sqrt{2}} = \frac{40}{4.242} \approx 9.428\text{ m/s}^2.
Using v2=u2+2asv^2 = u^2 + 2as (starting from rest u=0u = 0):
v=2×9.428×5=94.28≈9.71 m/s≈9.7 m/sv = \sqrt{2 \times 9.428 \times 5} = \sqrt{94.28} \approx 9.71\text{ m/s} \approx 9.7\text{ m/s}.
आनत तल के अनुदिश कुल बल =mgsin⁡45∘+Fcos⁡45∘=30+10=40 N= mg\sin 45^\circ + F\cos 45^\circ = 30 + 10 = 40\text{ N}।
त्वरण a=4032≈9.43 m/s2a = \frac{40}{3\sqrt{2}} \approx 9.43\text{ m/s}^2।
अंतिम वेग v=2as=2×9.43×5=94.3≈9.7 m/sv = \sqrt{2as} = \sqrt{2 \times 9.43 \times 5} = \sqrt{94.3} \approx 9.7\text{ m/s}। सही विकल्प A है।
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2654📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsGravitation & Planetary Physics
A planet has a mass twice that of the Earth and a radius three times that of the Earth. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the Earth's surface, the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet is:
Explanation
Surface gravitational acceleration is given by g=GMR2g = \frac{GM}{R^2}. For the planet with mass Mp=2MeM_p = 2M_e and radius Rp=3ReR_p = 3R_e:
gp=G(2Me)(3Re)2=29(GMeRe2)=2g9g_p = \frac{G(2M_e)}{(3R_e)^2} = \frac{2}{9}\left(\frac{GM_e}{R_e^2}\right) = \frac{2g}{9}.
गुरुत्वीय त्वरण सूत्र g=GMR2g = \frac{GM}{R^2} से:
g′=G(2M)(3R)2=29(GMR2)=2g9g' = \frac{G(2M)}{(3R)^2} = \frac{2}{9}\left(\frac{GM}{R^2}\right) = \frac{2g}{9}। सही विकल्प D है।
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2655📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsThermal Properties of Matter
Which of the following statements about the specific heat capacity of water is true?
Explanation
Liquid water has an unusually high specific heat capacity (c≈4184 J/kg⋅Kc \approx 4184\text{ J/kg}\cdot\text{K} or 1 cal/g⋅∘C1\text{ cal/g}\cdot^\circ\text{C}), allowing it to absorb or release massive amounts of thermal energy with minimal temperature change. This property is exploited therapeutically in hot-water bags for heat fomentation and industrially as an engine coolant.
जल की विशिष्ट ऊष्मा धारिता अत्यधिक उच्च (4184 J/kg⋅K4184\text{ J/kg}\cdot\text{K}) होती है, जिसके कारण यह लंबे समय तक ऊष्मा बनाए रखता है और सिकाई (Heat fomentation) तथा शीतलक (Coolant) के रूप में उपयोगी होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2656📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsLaws of Thermodynamics & Applications
Match the different laws of thermodynamics with their examples:
List - A (Laws of Thermodynamics)
i. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
ii. First Law of Thermodynamics
iii. Second Law of Thermodynamics
iv. Third Law of Thermodynamics
List - B (Examples)
1) Storage and preservation of food using deep freezers.
2) Cryogenic storage of biological samples, such as blood samples, organs, or tissues
3) Plants convert the radiant energy of sunlight to chemical energy through photosynthesis.
4) Use thermometers to compare the temperature of any two objects
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching thermodynamics laws to real-world applications:
- i. Zeroth Law: Basis of thermometry (using a thermometer as third body in thermal equilibrium) -> (4)
- ii. First Law: Conservation of energy (radiant solar energy transformed to chemical energy in photosynthesis) -> (3)
- iii. Second Law: Clausius principle/refrigeration requires external work to extract heat from cold to hot in deep freezers -> (1)
- iv. Third Law: As temperature approaches absolute zero, molecular entropy and reaction rates vanish (cryogenic bio-preservation) -> (2).
Hence: i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2. Choice B.
सही मिलान:
i. ज़ीरोथ लॉ -> थर्मामीटर का उपयोग (4)
ii. प्रथम नियम -> प्रकाश संश्लेषण में ऊर्जा संरक्षण (3)
iii. द्वितीय नियम -> डीप फ्रीजर द्वारा प्रशीतन (1)
iv. तृतीय नियम -> क्रायोजेनिक शून्य एंट्रॉपी पर जैविक नमूनों का भंडारण (2)।
अतः सही कूट B है।
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2657📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsMagnetic Materials & Curie Temperature
What happens to a ferromagnetic material when it is heated above its Curie temperature?
Explanation
Above the Curie temperature (TcT_c), excessive thermal kinetic agitation disrupts the spontaneous parallel quantum exchange coupling between adjacent atomic magnetic dipoles within ferromagnetic domains, causing the material to lose permanent ferromagnetism and transition into a paramagnetic state (following the Curie-Weiss law χ=CT−Tc\chi = \frac{C}{T - T_c}).
क्यूरी तापमान से ऊपर गर्म करने पर लौहचुंबकीय (Ferromagnetic) पदार्थ का स्वतः डोमेन संरेखण समाप्त हो जाता है और वह अनुचुंबकीय (Paramagnetic) पदार्थ की तरह व्यवहार करने लगता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2658📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Pollution & Eutrophication
Eutrophication in water bodies is often associated with:
Explanation
Cultural eutrophication is triggered by excessive runoff of nitrates and phosphates, fueling explosive algal blooms. When these massive algal mats die, aerobic decomposing microorganisms consume vast amounts of dissolved oxygen, leading to high Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) and severe depletion of dissolved oxygen (DO), causing widespread fish kills.
सुपोषण (Eutrophication) के कारण जल निकायों में शैवाल प्रस्फुटन होता है और उनके अपघटन से उच्च BOD (High BOD) तथा घुलित ऑक्सीजन की भारी कमी (Low dissolved oxygen) हो जाती है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2659📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Pollution & Oxygen Demand (BOD vs COD)
In a water sample, COD is higher than BOD due to:
1. Presence of synthetic chemicals that are non-biodegradable
2. Faster oxidation of organic matter in COD testing
3. Higher microbial decomposition under test conditions
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) uses boiling dichromate acid (K2Cr2O7+H2SO4K_2Cr_2O_7 + H_2SO_4), which chemically oxidizes virtually all organic matter—both biodegradable and refractory/non-biodegradable synthetic pollutants (1)—and achieves complete stoichiometric oxidation within 2 hours compared to the slow 5-day biological degradation of BOD (2). Statement 3 is false because COD is a chemical oxidation test with zero microbial decomposition. Hence, 1 and 2 only. Choice A.
COD का मान BOD से अधिक होता है क्योंकि यह अजैव-निम्नीकरणीय (Non-biodegradable) कार्बनिक पदार्थों को भी ऑक्सीकृत करता है (1) और रासायनिक ऑक्सीकरण बहुत तीव्र होता है (2)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2660📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Treatment & Coagulation
Match the coagulants with their application in water treatment:
List - A (Coagulants)
i. Alum
ii. Ferric chloride
iii. PAC
iv. Lime
List - B (Application)
1. Treating highly turbid water
2. Industrial wastewater treatment
3. Enhanced coagulation in municipal plants
4. Softening hard water
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching coagulants to their standard primary water treatment roles:
- i. Alum (Aluminium sulfate): Enhanced conventional coagulation in municipal drinking water plants -> (3)
- ii. Ferric chloride: Highly effective across wide pH ranges for industrial wastewater and sludge dewatering -> (2)
- iii. PAC (Poly-aluminium chloride): Pre-polymerized coagulant specifically effective for highly turbid and low-temperature water -> (1)
- iv. Lime (Ca(OH)2Ca(OH)_2): Precipitation softening of hard water by removing carbonate/calcium ions -> (4).
Hence: i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4. Choice A.
स्कंदकों (Coagulants) का सही मिलान:
i. फिटकरी (Alum) -> नगर निगम जल शोधन (3)
ii. फेरिक क्लोराइड -> औद्योगिक अपशिष्ट जल शोधन (2)
iii. PAC -> अत्यधिक गंदले जल का शोधन (1)
iv. चूना (Lime) -> कठोर जल को मृदु बनाना (4)।
अतः सही कूट A है।
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2661📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryEnvironmental Toxicology & Bioaccumulation
Match the pesticide bioaccumulation effects with the organisms:
List - A (Organism)
i. Fish
ii. Birds
iii. Insects
iv. Humans
List - B (Effect of Pesticide Bioaccumulation)
1. Pesticide concentration increases as it moves up the food chain
2. Impact on reproduction and hatching success
3. Direct toxicity leading to mortality
4. Long-term health problems, including cancer and neurological damage
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching organisms with classic pesticide ecotoxicological impacts:
- i. Fish: Aquatic bioconcentration multiplying trophic concentration up aquatic chains -> (1)
- ii. Birds: Calcium enzyme inhibition causing eggshell thinning, egg breakage, and reduced hatching -> (2)
- iii. Insects: Neurotoxic target pesticide action producing direct acute mortality -> (3)
- iv. Humans: Chronic bioaccumulation causing endocrine disruption, Parkinsonism, and carcinogenic risk -> (4).
Hence: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4. Choice A.
कीटनाशक जैव-संचयन प्रभावों का सही मिलान:
i. मछली -> खाद्य श्रृंखला में कीटनाशक सांद्रता में वृद्धि (1)
ii. पक्षी -> प्रजनन व अंडे सेने पर प्रभाव / पतले छिलके (2)
iii. कीट -> सीधा विषाक्त प्रभाव व मृत्यु (3)
iv. मानव -> कैंसर और तंत्रिका संबंधी दीर्घकालिक विकार (4)।
अतः सही कूट A है।
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2662📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryToxicology & Chemical Hazards
Which factor contributes to the severity of CO poisoning, particularly in individuals with pre-existing cardiovascular conditions?
Explanation
Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin with over 200 times the affinity of oxygen, forming carboxyhemoglobin (COHbCOHb) and shifting the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve left (Haldane effect). Because the myocardium has an exceptionally high resting oxygen extraction ratio and metabolic demand, acute oxygen deprivation precipitates severe myocardial ischemia, arrhythmias, and infarction in patients with coronary heart disease.
कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड (CO) रक्त में ऑक्सीजन वहन क्षमता घटा देता है; हृदय के ऊतकों की उच्च चयापचय ऑक्सीजन मांग होने के कारण ऑक्सीजन की कमी (Oxygen deprivation) से हृदय रोगियों में स्थिति अत्यधिक गंभीर हो जाती है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2663📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPesticides & Toxicology
Which of the following is a common side effect of insecticide poisoning in humans?
Explanation
Acute systemic intoxication from organophosphate, carbamate, and pyrethroid insecticides characteristically presents with cholinergic toxidrome and gastrointestinal irritation, with nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and hyper-salivation being the most universal early clinical signs.
कीटनाशकों के तीव्र विषाक्तता में जठरांत्र संबंधी गड़बड़ी के कारण मतली और उल्टी (Nausea and vomiting) सबसे आम प्रारंभिक दुष्प्रभाव हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2664📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryChemical Toxicology & Hazard Ranking
Arrange the following chemicals in decreasing order of toxicity to humans:
Chemicals: Methyl Isocyanate, Hydrogen Cyanide, Methanol, Ammonia
Explanation
Based on acute human lethal toxicity and inhalation threshold values (IDLH and LC50):
- Hydrogen cyanide (HCNHCN) is an ultra-fast acting cellular asphyxiant that halts cellular respiration via cytochrome c oxidase inhibition (IDLH 50 ppm; rapidly fatal at >100 ppm).
- Methyl isocyanate (MICMIC) is a severely toxic volatile carbamoylating agent (IDLH 3 ppm).
- Ammonia (NH3NH_3) is acutely corrosive to respiratory tracts (IDLH 300 ppm).
- Methanol (CH3OHCH_3OH) is toxic upon ingestion of grams/deciliters (IDLH 6000 ppm).
Thus, the standard toxicological order is: hydrogen cyanide > methyl isocyanate > ammonia > methanol. Choice B.
मानव विषाक्तता का घटता क्रम: हाइड्रोजन सायनाइड > मिथाइल आइसोसाइनेट > अमोनिया > मेथनॉल है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2665📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryEnvironmental Carcinogens & Air Toxics
Which of the following statements accurately describe the mechanism by which diesel exhaust causes cancer?
1. Diesel exhaust contains polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), which are potent mutagens and carcinogens.
2. Exposure to diesel exhaust leads to increased oxidative stress in lung tissues, causing inflammation and DNA damage.
3. Diesel exhaust acts as a cocarcinogen, enhancing the carcinogenic effects of other environmental pollutants like tobacco smoke.
4. Diesel exhaust exposure is associated with cancers of the liver and gastrointestinal system rather than the lungs.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are scientifically established mechanisms: diesel exhaust particulate matter is coated with carcinogenic PAHs and nitro-PAHs (1), generates reactive oxygen species causing pulmonary inflammation and bulky DNA adducts (2), and acts synergistically as a co-carcinogen with cigarette smoke (3). Statement 4 is FALSE because the WHO/IARC classifies diesel engine exhaust as a proven Group 1 human carcinogen specifically targeting the respiratory system (lung cancer), not primary liver/GI cancer. Hence, 1, 2, and 3. Choice A.
कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं; कथन 4 गलत है क्योंकि डीजल का धुआं फेफड़ों के कैंसर (Lung cancer) का कारण बनता है, न कि यकृत या गैस्ट्रोइंटेस्टाइनल कैंसर का। सही विकल्प A है।
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2666📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryMedicinal Chemistry & Pharmacology
In which phase of drug development is the drug typically tested on animals for safety and efficacy?
Explanation
Before a new chemical entity can be administered to human subjects, it undergoes extensive in vitro and in vivo animal testing during the Preclinical Phase to establish pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, toxicity profile, maximum tolerated dose, and potential efficacy.
औषधि विकास के प्रीक्लिनिकल चरण (Preclinical phase) में मानव परीक्षण से पहले जानवरों पर दवा की सुरक्षा, विषाक्तता और प्रभावकारिता का परीक्षण किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2667📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Pollution & Quality Standards
Clean water would have Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) value of less than:
Explanation
According to water quality classification standards, pure, clean natural river or drinking water contains very little biodegradable organic matter and has a 5-day Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of less than 5 ppm (mg/L). Water with BOD between 5-10 ppm is considered moderately clean, and >15-20 ppm indicates severe organic pollution.
स्वच्छ और शुद्ध जल में जैव-रासायनिक ऑक्सीजन मांग (BOD) का मान 5 ppm (5 mg/L) से कम होता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2668📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Pollution & Analytical Tests
In a COD test, which chemical is typically used as the oxidizing agent?
Explanation
In standard Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) reflux testing, potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7K_2Cr_2O_7) in strong sulfuric acid solution (with silver sulfate Ag2SO4Ag_2SO_4 catalyst and mercuric sulfate to complex chlorides) is universally employed as the powerful primary chemical oxidizing agent.
COD (केमिकल ऑक्सीजन डिमांड) परीक्षण में कार्बनिक पदार्थों को ऑक्सीकृत करने के लिए पोटेशियम डाइक्रोमेट (K2Cr2O7K_2Cr_2O_7) का उपयोग प्राथमिक ऑक्सीकारक के रूप में किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2669📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryIndustrial Chemistry (Contact Process)
Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Contact Process in industrial chemistry?
Explanation
The Contact Process is the modern industrial manufacturing process for concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4H_2SO_4). Its central reaction is the exothermic catalytic oxidation of sulfur dioxide (SO2SO_2) to sulfur trioxide (SO3SO_3) using atmospheric oxygen over a vanadium(V) oxide (V2O5V_2O_5) catalyst at ~450°C.
औद्योगिक रसायन विज्ञान में 'कॉन्टैक्ट प्रोसेस' (Contact Process) का मुख्य उद्देश्य वैनेडियम ऑक्साइड (V2O5V_2O_5) उत्प्रेरक की उपस्थिति में सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड के ऑक्सीकरण द्वारा सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड (H2SO4H_2SO_4) का निर्माण करना है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2670📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPolymer Chemistry & Structure
Match the Polymer with its Chemical Structure Type:
Column A (Polymer)
1. Polyethylene
2. Polypropylene
3. Bakelite
4. Silicone rubber
Column B (Structure Type)
i. Cross-linked
ii. Linear
iii. Branched
iv. Network
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching polymers with their architectural structural classes:
- 1. Polyethylene (High-density polyethylene, HDPE): Classic linear chain polymer -> (ii)
- 2. Polypropylene: Branched polymer with pendant methyl groups -> (iii)
- 3. Bakelite: Phenol-formaldehyde rigid cross-linked thermosetting resin -> (i)
- 4. Silicone rubber: Cross-linked 3D siloxane network elastomer -> (iv).
Hence: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv. Choice A.
बहुलक और उनकी संरचनात्मक बनावट का सही मिलान:
1. पॉलीइथिलीन -> रैखिक (Linear - ii)
2. पॉलीप्रोपाइलीन -> शाखित (Branched - iii)
3. बैकेलाइट -> क्रॉस-लिंक्ड (Cross-linked - i)
4. सिलिकॉन रबर -> नेटवर्क इलास्टोमर (Network - iv)।
अतः सही कूट A है।
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2671📚Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistrySoil Chemistry & Nitrogen Dynamics
Which of the following is a major consequence of nitrogen saturation in the soil?
Explanation
When atmospheric nitrogen deposition exceeds the biological uptake capacity of plants and microbes (nitrogen saturation), excess mobile nitrate (NO3−NO_3^-) leaches into groundwaters accompanied by essential nutrient base cations (Ca2+,Mg2+,K+Ca^{2+}, Mg^{2+}, K^+). This cation depletion mobilizes phytotoxic aluminum (Al3+Al^{3+}) and causes severe soil acidification.
मिट्टी में नाइट्रोजन की अत्यधिक संतृप्ति (Nitrogen saturation) का सबसे प्रमुख दुष्परिणाम आवश्यक पोषक तत्वों का बह जाना और मिट्टी का अम्लीकरण (Acidification of the soil) होना है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2672📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyMicrobiology Overview & Branches
Which of the following field is not part of the Microbiology?
Explanation
Microbiology encompasses the study of microscopic organisms: Bacteriology (bacteria), Virology (viruses), Mycology (fungi), and Phycology (microscopic algae). Herpetology is the branch of zoology concerned with the study of reptiles and amphibians.
जीवाणु विज्ञान (Bacteriology), विषाणु विज्ञान (Virology) और शैवाल विज्ञान (Phycology) सूक्ष्मजीव विज्ञान के भाग हैं; जबकि हर्पेटोलॉजी (Herpetology) सरीसृपों और उभयचरों का अध्ययन है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2673📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyClassical Genetics & Mendelian Crosses
Genotype of dominant plant can be determined by:
Explanation
A test cross involves crossing an individual displaying a dominant phenotype (which may be homozygous AAAA or heterozygous AaAa) with a homozygous recessive individual (aaaa). If all progeny display the dominant trait, the parent is homozygous dominant; if a 1:1 phenotypic segregation occurs, the parent is heterozygous.
प्रभावी लक्षण वाले पौधे का अज्ञात जीनोटाइप निर्धारित करने के लिए उसे समयुग्मजी अप्रभावी जनक के साथ क्रॉस कराया जाता है, जिसे 'टेस्ट क्रॉस' (Test cross) कहते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2674📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEvolution & Paleontology
Which Indian fossil provides evidence of early amphibian life?
Explanation
The Gondwana sedimentary formations of peninsular India (notably the Early Triassic Panchet Formation and Late Permian beds of the Pranhita-Godavari Basin) contain rich fossil assemblages of early temnospondyl labyrinthodont amphibians (such as Gondwanasaurus, Panchetosaurus, and Benthosuchus). (Tiktaalik is from Arctic Canada; Archaeopteryx is from Germany).
भारत के गोंडवाना जीवाश्म (Gondwana fossils - विशेषकर पंचेत और गोदावरी बेसिन) प्रारंभिक उभयचर (टेम्नोस्पोंडिल) जीवन का महत्वपूर्ण भूवैज्ञानिक साक्ष्य प्रदान करते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2675📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcosystem Energetics & Primary Production
What is the primary source of energy for most ecosystems?
Explanation
Solar radiation (sunlight) is the fundamental primary energy input sustaining virtually all biological ecosystems on Earth, driving oxygenic photosynthesis by autotrophs (plants, algae, cyanobacteria) which forms the energetic baseline for trophic food webs.
पृथ्वी पर लगभग सभी पारिस्थितिकी तंत्रों के लिए ऊर्जा का प्राथमिक और मुख्य स्रोत सूर्य का प्रकाश (Sunlight) है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2676📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcology & Trophic Efficiency
Energy transfer efficiency between trophic levels is usually around:
Explanation
Lindeman's Efficiency (10% law of energy transfer in ecology) states that, on average, only approximately 10% of the energy stored as biomass in one trophic level is converted into biomass at the next trophic level, with the remaining 90% lost to respiration, locomotion, excretion, and metabolic heat.
लिंडेमैन के 10% नियम के अनुसार, एक पोषण स्तर से अगले पोषण स्तर तक केवल लगभग 10% ऊर्जा ही स्थानांतरित होती है; शेष 90% ऊर्जा ऊष्मा के रूप में नष्ट हो जाती है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2677📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyMendelian Genetics
How many contrasting characteristics of pea plant did Mendel take?
Explanation
Gregor Johann Mendel investigated seven pairs of contrasting morphological characters in the garden pea (Pisum sativum): stem height, flower color, flower position, pod shape, pod color, seed shape, and seed color.
ग्रेगर मेंडल ने मटर के पौधे (Pisum sativum) के 7 जोड़ी विपर्यासी लक्षणों (Seven contrasting characteristics) का अध्ययन किया था। सही विकल्प C है।
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2678📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Photosynthesis
Which molecule is produced during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis and used in the Calvin cycle?
Explanation
During the light-dependent reactions in the thylakoid membranes, light excitation drives photolysis of water and non-cyclic photophosphorylation to synthesize both ATP and the biochemical reducing agent NADPH. These two high-energy intermediates are subsequently consumed in the stroma during the Calvin cycle to reduce 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) to triose phosphate sugars.
प्रकाश अभिक्रिया में संश्लेषित NADPH (और ATP) कैल्विन चक्र में कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड के अपचयन के लिए आवश्यक अपचायक शक्ति प्रदान करते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2679📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Carbon Fixation
What is the role of the enzyme RuBisCO in photosynthesis?
Explanation
RuBisCO (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase) is the primary carbon-fixing enzyme in the Calvin cycle, catalyzing the carboxylation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBPRuBP) with atmospheric CO2CO_2 to yield two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA).
रुबिस्को (RuBisCO) एंजाइम कैल्विन चक्र के प्रारंभिक चरण में कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड को RuBP के साथ जोड़कर कार्बन यौगिकों में स्थिर (Fixes carbon dioxide) करता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2680📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyGlobal Environmental Change & Climate
Presently, the main cause of global warming is:
Explanation
The primary driver of contemporary global climate change is the rapid anthropogenic increase in atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations—most prominently carbon dioxide (CO2CO_2), released by fossil fuel combustion, cement manufacturing, and deforestation—which traps outgoing infrared terrestrial radiation.
वर्तमान समय में ग्लोबल वार्मिंग का मुख्य कारण वातावरण में ग्रीनहाउस गैस कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड की बढ़ती सांद्रता (Increasing CO2 Concentration) है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2681📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Photosynthesis
What are the two main stages of photosynthesis?
Explanation
Photosynthesis comprises two distinct coupled stages: (1) The Light-dependent reactions (occurring in thylakoid membranes, generating ATP, NADPH, and O2 from water); and (2) The Light-independent Calvin cycle (occurring in the chloroplast stroma, fixing CO2 into carbohydrates).
प्रकाश संश्लेषण के दो मुख्य चरण: प्रकाशिक अभिक्रियाएं (Light reactions) और कैल्विन चक्र (Calvin cycle / अप्रकाशिक अभिक्रिया) हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2682📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Photorespiration
In which of the following conditions is photorespiration most likely to occur?
Explanation
Photorespiration (C2C_2 cycle) occurs when RuBisCO binds oxygen (O2O_2) instead of CO2CO_2. Under high temperatures, plants close their stomata to prevent water loss, causing internal CO2CO_2 levels to drop while O2O_2 accumulates; simultaneously, the specificity of RuBisCO shifts towards oxygenase activity, heavily favoring photorespiration.
प्रकाश-श्वसन (Photorespiration) उच्च तापमान और कम CO2 सांद्रता (High temperatures, low CO2 concentration) की स्थितियों में सबसे अधिक होता है क्योंकि स्टोमेटा बंद होने से ऑक्सीजन RuBisCO से जुड़ने लगती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2683📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyOrigin of Life & Chemical Evolution
Stanley Miller in his experiment synthesized simple amino acid using-
Explanation
In the landmark 1953 Miller-Urey prebiotic chemical synthesis experiment, Stanley Miller simulated the reducing primordial atmosphere using a closed glass apparatus circulating methane (CH4CH_4), ammonia (NH3NH_3), molecular hydrogen (H2H_2), and water vapor (H2OH_2O) subjected to continuous continuous electric spark discharges, yielding proteinogenic amino acids (glycine, alanine, aspartic acid).
स्टैनली मिलर ने अपने ऐतिहासिक 1953 प्रयोग में अमोनिया (NH3NH_3), हाइड्रोजन (H2H_2), मीथेन (CH4CH_4) और जलवाष्प के मिश्रण में विद्युत चिंगारी प्रवाहित करके अमीनो एसिड का निर्माण किया था। सही विकल्प D है।
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2684📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEnvironmental Law & Waste Management
Consider the following statement:
I. The principle of non-regression ensures that environmental laws and protections cannot be diluted to a lower standard once implemented.
II. E-waste contains both hazardous substances like mercury and valuable materials such as gold.
III. Informal recycling practices for e-waste are more efficient than formal recycling methods.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and II are correct: The environmental principle of non-regression prohibits state authorities from rolling back or weakening established environmental standards (I); and electronic waste contains toxic heavy metals (lead, mercury, cadmium) alongside recoverable precious metals (gold, copper, silver) (II). Statement III is FALSE because informal e-waste recycling relies on primitive burning and acid leaching that yields extremely poor material recovery rates and creates catastrophic environmental pollution. Hence, I and II only. Choice C.
कथन I और II सही हैं; कथन III गलत है क्योंकि अनौपचारिक ई-कचरा रीसाइक्लिंग अत्यधिक प्रदूषणकारी और औपचारिक तरीकों से बहुत कम कुशल होती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2685📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Virology & Molecular Biology
Satellite RNAs (sat-RNAs) are species of RNA associated with specific strains of some plant RNA viruses, although it is not necessary for their replication. Few statements are given below on sat-RNA:
P. Presence of sat-RNA leads to reduction in severity of disease symptoms.
Q. Presence of sat-RNA leads to increase in severity of disease symptoms.
R. Sat-RNA is constitutively expressed like coat proteins and is independent of virus infection.
S. Sat-RNA is not constitutively expressed like coat proteins but is expressed only after virus infection.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements regarding sat-RNA is correct?
Explanation
Satellite RNAs (sat-RNAs) are non-coding or coding subviral RNA molecules that completely depend on a specific helper plant virus for their replication and encapsidation. Typically, sat-RNAs compete for replication machinery and dramatically attenuate/reduce viral disease symptoms in the host plant (P), and because they lack autonomous replication elements, they are not constitutively produced by the plant but are replicated only upon helper virus infection (S). Hence, P and S are correct. Choice D.
सैटेलाइट आरएनए (sat-RNA) सहायक वायरस पर निर्भर होते हैं; ये अक्सर पौधे में रोग के लक्षणों की गंभीरता को कम करते हैं (P) और केवल वायरस संक्रमण के बाद ही अभिव्यक्त होते हैं (S)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2686📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Biotechnology & Genetic Engineering
With reference to Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated plant transformation, match the virulence factors in Group 1 with their protein types in Group - 2.
Group - 1:
P) VirG
Q) VirA
R) VirE
S) VirC
Group - 2:
I) Kinase
II) Helicase
III) Transcriptional activator
IV) Single strand binding protein
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching Agrobacterium Ti plasmid virulence proteins with their biochemical functions:
- P. VirG: Cytoplasmic response regulator and transcriptional activator for the vir regulon -> (III)
- Q. VirA: Transmembrane sensor histidine kinase that perceives plant phenolic wound signals (acetosyringone) -> (I)
- R. VirE (specifically VirE2): Single-stranded DNA binding protein that coats and protects T-DNA during transfer -> (IV)
- S. VirC (VirC1/VirC2): Promotes T-strand processing by binding overdrive sequence and exhibits helicase activity -> (II).
Hence: P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II. Choice D.
एग्रोबैक्टीरियम ट्यूमेफेशियंस के वायरुलेंस प्रोटीनों का मिलान:
P. VirG -> ट्रांसक्रिप्शनल एक्टिवेटर (III)
Q. VirA -> हिस्टिडीन काइनेज सेंसर (I)
R. VirE -> सिंगल स्ट्रैंड डीएनए बाइंडिंग प्रोटीन (IV)
S. VirC -> हेलिकेज / ओवरड्राइव बाइंडिंग (II)।
अतः सही कूट D है।
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2687📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyNatural Resource Management & Policy
Challenges and Opportunities in Natural Resource Management
Match the challenges with their corresponding solutions
S.No. Challenges
P. Rising e-waste
Q. Limited public awareness
R. Deforestation
S. Legal enforcement challenges
S.No. Opportunities
I Developing robust recycling technologies
II Promoting education and stakeholder participation
III Implementing conditional direct transfers (CDT)
IV Establishing specialized environmental courts
Select the correct match......?
Explanation
Matching natural resource governance challenges with environmental policy solutions:
- P. Rising e-waste -> (I) Developing robust urban mining and recycling technologies
- Q. Limited public awareness -> (II) Promoting public education and stakeholder participation
- R. Deforestation -> (III) Implementing payments for ecosystem services / conditional direct transfers (CDT)
- S. Legal enforcement challenges -> (IV) Establishing specialized environmental tribunals and courts (e.g. NGT).
Hence: P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV. Choice B.
पर्यावरणीय चुनौतियों और समाधानों का सही मिलान:
P. बढ़ता ई-कचरा -> मजबूत रीसाइक्लिंग तकनीक का विकास (I)
Q. सीमित जन-जागरूकता -> शिक्षा और जन-भागीदारी (II)
R. वनों की कटाई -> सशर्त प्रत्यक्ष हस्तांतरण / CDT (III)
S. कानूनी प्रवर्तन चुनौतियां -> विशेष पर्यावरण अदालतें (IV)।
अतः सही कूट B है।
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2688📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Photosynthesis
Matching the following components with their respective roles in photosynthesis:
Column -A
1. ATP synthase
2. Photosystem II
3. RuBisCO
4. NADP+ reductase
5. Cytochrome b6f complex
6. Calvin Cycle
Column -B
P. Converts light energy into chemical energy by splitting water and producing oxygen
Q. Fixes carbon dioxide into 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) during carbon fixation
R. Catalyzes the conversion of NADP+ to NADPH in the light reactions
S. Facilitates the synthesis of ATP using the proton gradient in the thylakoid membrane
T. Transfers electrons between Photosystem II and Photosystem I
U. Converts 3-PGA into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) in the reduction phase
Choose correct match...?
Explanation
Matching photosynthetic molecular complexes with their biochemical functions:
- 1. ATP synthase: Synthesizes ATP via chemiosmotic proton gradient (CF0−CF1CF_0-CF_1) -> (S)
- 2. Photosystem II: P680 reaction center catalyzes photolysis of water (2H2O→O2+4H++4e−2H_2O \to O_2 + 4H^+ + 4e^-) -> (P)
- 3. RuBisCO: Carboxylation fixing atmospheric CO2 onto RuBP into 3-PGA -> (Q)
- 4. NADP+ reductase (FNR): Catalyzes terminal electron transfer from ferredoxin to NADP+ forming NADPH -> (R)
- 5. Cytochrome b6f complex: Plastoquinol-plastocyanin oxidoreductase transferring electrons from PSII to PSI -> (T)
- 6. Calvin cycle: Enzymatic stromal reduction phase converting 3-PGA into G3P -> (U).
Hence: 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R, 5-T, 6-U. Choice D.
प्रकाश संश्लेषण घटकों और उनके कार्यों का सही मिलान:
1. ATP सिंथेज -> प्रोटॉन प्रवणता से ATP संश्लेषण (S)
2. फोटोसिस्टम II -> जल का प्रकाशीय अपघटन और ऑक्सीजन उत्पादन (P)
3. रुबिस्को -> CO2 का 3-PGA में स्थिरीकरण (Q)
4. NADP+ रिडक्टेस -> NADP+ का NADPH में अपचयन (R)
5. साइटोक्रोम b6f -> PSII और PSI के बीच इलेक्ट्रॉन स्थानांतरण (T)
6. कैल्विन चक्र -> 3-PGA का G3P में अपचयन (U)।
अतः सही कूट D है।
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2689📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyMicrobiology & Cell Biology
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Bacteria are prokaryotic
Reason: Bacteria do not possess true nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the reason is the exact biological definition and explanation of the assertion. The term 'prokaryote' (from Greek pro = before, karyon = nut/nucleus) refers to primitive cellular organisms lacking a nuclear envelope enclosing their genetic material (nucleoid) and devoid of membrane-bound organelles (mitochondria, chloroplasts, Golgi, ER). Choice A.
प्रक्कथन और कारण दोनों सत्य हैं तथा कारण प्रक्कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है। जीवाणु प्रोकैरियोटिक जीव हैं क्योंकि इनमें केंद्रक कला से घिरा सत्य केंद्रक और झिल्लीदार कोशिकांग अनुपस्थित होते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2690📚Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcology & Energy Flow
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion (A): Energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
Reason (R): Energy decreases as it moves up trophic levels due to heat loss.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. Energy captured from solar radiation by photosynthetic autotrophs cannot revert back to the sun; at every successive trophic transfer (herbivore, carnivore), 90% of the ingested energy is degraded and irreversibly lost as non-usable metabolic heat to the environment, enforcing a strictly unidirectional, non-cyclic flow of energy. Choice A.
प्रक्कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों सत्य हैं और कारण प्रक्कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है। प्रत्येक पोषण स्तर पर चयापचय ऊष्मा के रूप में ऊर्जा का अपव्यय होने के कारण पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में ऊर्जा का प्रवाह सदैव एकदिशीय होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2691📚Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsAtmospheric Physics & Ozone Dynamics
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion (A): In stratosphere, the temperature rises from -57°C to -2°C.
Reason (R): In stratosphere ozone layer is present.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. In the stratosphere (extending from ~12 to 50 km altitude), the ozone layer (O3O_3) absorbs high-energy solar ultraviolet radiation (UV-B and UV-C) via the Chapman photolysis cycle (O3+hν→O2+OO_3 + h\nu \to O_2 + O). This absorbed photochemical energy is converted into kinetic/thermal energy, creating a temperature inversion where ambient temperature rises from approximately −57∘C-57^\circ\text{C} at the tropopause to near −2∘C-2^\circ\text{C} at the stratopause. Choice A.
प्रक्कथन और कारण दोनों सत्य हैं और कारण प्रक्कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है। समताप मंडल में मौजूद ओजोन परत द्वारा पराबैंगनी (UV) विकिरणों के अवशोषण से ऊष्मा उत्पन्न होती है, जिसके कारण तापमान −57∘C-57^\circ\text{C} से बढ़कर −2∘C-2^\circ\text{C} तक पहुंच जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2692📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityTime & Work
If 4 men can do a work in 10 days and 3 women can do that same work in 20 days. How many days will they take if they do the work together?
Explanation
Total work =4 men×10 days=40 man-days=3 women×20 days=60 woman-days= 4\text{ men} \times 10\text{ days} = 40\text{ man-days} = 3\text{ women} \times 20\text{ days} = 60\text{ woman-days}. Thus, 40M=60W  ⟹  2M=3W40 M = 60 W \implies 2 M = 3 W, so 1M=1.5W1 M = 1.5 W. Together, 4 men and 3 women =4(1.5W)+3W=6W+3W=9 women= 4(1.5 W) + 3 W = 6 W + 3 W = 9\text{ women}. Time taken =60 woman-days9 women=203≈6.67 days= \frac{60\text{ woman-days}}{9\text{ women}} = \frac{20}{3} \approx 6.67\text{ days}.
कुल कार्य =40 M=60 W  ⟹  2 M=3 W= 40\text{ M} = 60\text{ W} \implies 2\text{ M} = 3\text{ W}। 4 पुरुष और 3 महिलाएं मिलकर = 6\text{ W} + 3\text{ W} = 9\text{ महिलाएं}। समय =609=6.67= \frac{60}{9} = 6.67 दिन। सही विकल्प B है।
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2693📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityPercentages
A batsman scored 100 runs which included 8 boundaries and 3 sixes. What percent of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?
Explanation
Runs from boundaries and sixes =(8×4)+(3×6)=32+18=50 runs= (8 \times 4) + (3 \times 6) = 32 + 18 = 50\text{ runs}. Runs scored by running between the wickets =100−50=50 runs= 100 - 50 = 50\text{ runs}. Percentage =50100×100%=50%= \frac{50}{100} \times 100\% = 50\%.
चौकों और छक्कों से बने रन =8×4+3×6=50= 8 \times 4 + 3 \times 6 = 50। दौड़कर बनाए गए रन =100−50=50= 100 - 50 = 50। प्रतिशत =50%= 50\%। सही विकल्प A है।
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2694📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilitySet Theory & Venn Diagrams
There are 500 students in a class. 80 of them take French and 200 take Spanish. Some students take both languages. There are 300 students who take no language whatsoever. How many students take at least one language?
Explanation
The number of students taking at least one language is the union of French and Spanish students: n(F∪S)=Total students−n(neither)=500−300=200n(F \cup S) = \text{Total students} - n(\text{neither}) = 500 - 300 = 200.
कम से कम एक भाषा लेने वाले छात्र = \text{कुल छात्र} - \text{कोई भाषा न लेने वाले} = 500 - 300 = 200। सही विकल्प A है।
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2695📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityClassification & Odd One Out
Identify the odd one out:
I) Zoology
II) Nephrology
III) Gastroenterology
IV) Urology
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Nephrology (kidneys), Gastroenterology (digestive tract), and Urology (urinary system) are specialized branches of human medicine. Zoology is the broad biological science of animal biology. Thus, Zoology (I) is the odd one out.
नेफ्रोलॉजी, गैस्ट्रोएंटरोलॉजी और यूरोलॉजी मानव चिकित्सा विज्ञान की शाखाएं हैं; जबकि जूलॉजी (Zoology - I) जंतु विज्ञान की सामान्य शाखा है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2696📚General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:
_____ Mount Everest is the highest mountain in the world
Explanation
In standard English grammar, names of individual mountain peaks (e.g., Mount Everest, Mount Kilimanjaro, Mont Blanc) do not take the definite article 'the', unlike mountain ranges (e.g., the Himalayas, the Alps).
एकल पर्वत चोटियों (जैसे Mount Everest) के नाम के आगे किसी आर्टिकल (No Article) का प्रयोग नहीं किया जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2697📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilitySet Theory & Venn Diagrams
There are 500 students in a class. 80 of them take French and 200 take Spanish. Some students take both languages. There are 300 students who take no language whatsoever. How many students take at least one language?
Explanation
Students taking at least one language =Total students−Students taking neither=500−300=200= \text{Total students} - \text{Students taking neither} = 500 - 300 = 200.
कम से कम एक भाषा लेने वाले छात्र =500−300=200= 500 - 300 = 200। सही विकल्प D है।
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2698📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilitySet Theory & Venn Diagrams
In a class of 60 students, 35 students like Mathematics, 25 students like Science, 15 students like both Mathematics and Science
Question:
I) How many students like only Mathematics?
II) How many students like only Science?
III) How many students like at least one of the two subjects?
IV) How many students like neither subject?
Choose the Correct Option :
Explanation
Calculations:
I) Only Mathematics =35−15=20= 35 - 15 = 20.
II) Only Science =25−15=10= 25 - 15 = 10.
III) At least one subject =20+10+15=45= 20 + 10 + 15 = 45.
IV) Neither subject =60−45=15= 60 - 45 = 15.
Matching sequence: 20, 10, 45, 15. Choice D.
I) केवल गणित =35−15=20= 35 - 15 = 20
II) केवल विज्ञान =25−15=10= 25 - 15 = 10
III) कम से कम एक विषय =45= 45
IV) कोई विषय नहीं =60−45=15= 60 - 45 = 15। सही कूट 20, 10, 45, 15 है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2699📚General English & ComprehensionSynonyms & Vocabulary
Choose the best synonym of Surreptitious from the following options.
Explanation
Surreptitious means kept secret, stealthy, or clandestine, especially because it would not be approved of. Synonym is Secretive.
'Surreptitious' का अर्थ गुप्त या रहस्यमय होता है, जिसका सही पर्यायवाची 'Secretive' है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2700📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition
He was accused _____ plagiarism after submitting his thesis.
Explanation
The adjective/verb 'accuse' takes the fixed preposition 'of' ('accused of a crime/misconduct').
'Accused' के साथ निश्चित प्रीपोजिशन 'of' का प्रयोग होता है (accused of plagiarism)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2701📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions & Phrasal Verbs
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition
You are running so fast that I cannot catch _____ with you.
Explanation
The phrasal verb 'catch up with' means to reach the same level, speed, or quality as someone ahead.
किसी के बराबर पहुँचने के लिए 'catch up with' का प्रयोग होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2702📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with the correct pair of prepositions from the given choices.
He waved at his parents _____ the platform as the train was pulling _____ the station.
Explanation
Idiomatic spatial prepositions: standing 'on the platform', and a train 'pulling out of the station'.
सही प्रीपोजिशन युग्म: 'on the platform' और 'pulling out of the station' होगा। सही विकल्प C है।
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2703📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProblems on Ages
The present ages of Usman and Travis are in the ratio of 5:4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Travis's present age in years?
Explanation
Let present ages be 5x5x and 4x4x. After 3 years: 5x+34x+3=119  ⟹  9(5x+3)=11(4x+3)  ⟹  45x+27=44x+33  ⟹  x=6\frac{5x + 3}{4x + 3} = \frac{11}{9} \implies 9(5x + 3) = 11(4x + 3) \implies 45x + 27 = 44x + 33 \implies x = 6. Travis's present age =4x=4×6=24 years= 4x = 4 \times 6 = 24\text{ years}.
माना आयु 5x5x और 4x4x है। 5x+34x+3=119  ⟹  x=6\frac{5x+3}{4x+3} = \frac{11}{9} \implies x = 6। ट्रैविस की वर्तमान आयु =4×6=24= 4 \times 6 = 24 वर्ष। सही विकल्प D है।
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2704📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityStatement & Conclusions
Read the statements given and the conclusions, and choose the appropriate option.
Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.
Conclusions:
I. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future.
II. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life.
Explanation
The statement explicitly highlights that population will continue to increase while resources deplete. This directly implies conclusion II: governments will face immense difficulty ensuring a decent standard of living. Conclusion I contradicts the premise. Hence, only conclusion II follows.
जनसंख्या बढ़ने और संसाधनों के घटने से विकासशील देशों की सरकारों के लिए नागरिकों को अच्छा जीवन स्तर देना अत्यंत कठिन हो जाएगा (निष्कर्ष II सही है)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2705📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityAlpha-Numeric Series
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks to maintain the sequence.
DEF, DEF_2, DE_2F_2, _____, D_2E_2F_3
Explanation
The subscript pattern increments letters from right to left in cyclic order:
1. D1E1F1D^1 E^1 F^1
2. D1E1F2D^1 E^1 F_2
3. D1E2F2D^1 E_2 F_2
4. D2E2F2D_2 E_2 F_2
5. D2E2F3D_2 E_2 F_3. The missing term is D2E2F2D_2E_2F_2.
सबस्क्रिप्ट पैटर्न में F→E→DF \to E \to D क्रम में वृद्धि हो रही है: लुप्त पद D2E2F2D_2E_2F_2 है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2706📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityBlood Relations
Pointing to a photograph. Bajpai said, "He is the son of the only daughter of the father of my brother." How Bajpai is related to the man in the photograph?
Explanation
Step-by-step resolution: 'The father of my brother' = Bajpai's father. 'The only daughter of Bajpai's father' = Bajpai's sister. 'The son of Bajpai's sister' = Bajpai's nephew. Therefore, Bajpai is the Maternal Uncle (Mama) to the man in the photograph.
मेरे भाई के पिता = बाजपेयी के पिता। उनकी इकलौती बेटी = बाजपेयी की बहन। बहन का बेटा = बाजपेयी का भांजा। अतः बाजपेयी उस व्यक्ति का 'मामा' (Maternal Uncle) है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2707📚General English & ComprehensionIdioms & Phrases
Her relatives threw cold water on her dream of becoming an actress.
Identify the right meaning of the underlined idiom.
Explanation
The idiom 'to throw/pour cold water on' means to discourage or dampen someone's enthusiasm, plans, or ambitions.
मुहावरे 'threw cold water on' का अर्थ किसी के उत्साह पर पानी फेरना या हतोत्साहित करना (Discouraged) होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2708📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilitySyllogisms & Logical Deductions
Given below are two statements 1 and 2, and two conclusions I and II.
Statement 1 : All bacteria are microorganisms.
Statement 2 : All pathogens are microorganisms.
Conclusion I : Some pathogens are bacteria.
Conclusion II : All pathogens are not bacteria.
Based on the above statements and conclusions, which one of the following options is logically CORRECT?
Explanation
Both statements establish that Bacteria and Pathogens are subsets of Microorganisms. No premise defines the specific overlap between Bacteria and Pathogens (pathogens could include viruses, fungi, protozoa, or overlap with bacteria). Neither conclusion follows necessarily.
दोनों कथन केवल यह बताते हैं कि बैक्टीरिया और पैथोजन सूक्ष्मजीव हैं; उनके परस्पर संबंध के बारे में कोई निश्चितता नहीं है। अतः न तो निष्कर्ष I और न ही II सही है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2709📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityLogical Deduction & Inferences
Based only on the truth of the statement 'Some humans are intelligent', which one of the following options can be logically inferred with certainty?
Explanation
By classical logical conversion of a particular affirmative proposition (I-type: 'Some A are B'), its valid immediate converse is 'Some B are A' ('Some intelligent beings are humans').
तर्कशास्त्र के अनुसार 'कुछ मानव बुद्धिमान हैं' से निश्चित रूप से 'कुछ बुद्धिमान प्राणी मानव हैं' का अनुमान लगाया जा सकता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2710📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilitySeating Arrangement Puzzles
Five friends A, B, C, D and E went on a trip to a camp. At night, they had to sleep in a row inside a tent. A, B, and E refused to sleep next to C since he snored loudly. A and D wanted to avoid B as he usually hugged people in sleep. Assuming everyone was satisfied with the sleeping arrangements, what is the order in which they slept?
Explanation
Verification of constraints in order 'CDAEB':
1. Who sleeps next to C? Only D. (None of A, B, or E is next to C - satisfied).
2. Who sleeps next to B? Only E. (Neither A nor D is next to B - satisfied).
All conditions are satisfied exclusively by CDAEB.
CDAEB क्रम में C के बगल में केवल D है (A, B, E नहीं) और B के बगल में केवल E है (A, D नहीं)। अतः सही क्रम CDAEB है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2711📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Environment Days
What is the theme of World Ocean Day 2024 which was celebrated on June 8?
Explanation
The official United Nations theme for World Oceans Day on June 8, 2024, was 'Awaken New Depths', urging global commitment to ocean protection and sustainable management.
8 जून को मनाए गए विश्व महासागर दिवस 2024 का विषय 'अवेकन न्यू डेप्थ' (Awaken new depth) था। सही विकल्प A है।
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2712📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Appointments
Jay Shah succeeded who for the role of Chairman of International Cricket Council (ICC)?
Explanation
Jay Shah was elected unopposed as the independent Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC), officially succeeding New Zealand's Greg Barclay on December 1, 2024.
जय शाह ने अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट परिषद (ICC) के अध्यक्ष के रूप में न्यूजीलैंड के ग्रेग बार्कले (Greg Barclay) का स्थान लिया। सही विकल्प C है।
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2713📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Books/Authors
The Book, "100 Modi Mantras: A Decade of India's Uprising" is authored by?
Explanation
The book '100 Modi Mantras: A Decade of India's Uprising', capturing key governance principles and achievements of Prime Minister Narendra Modi's tenure, was authored by Member of Parliament Shankar Lalwani.
पुस्तक '100 मोदी मंत्र: ए डिकेड ऑफ इंडियाज़ अपराइजिंग' के लेखक सांसद शंकर लालवानी (Shankar Lalwani) हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2714📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Medieval History
From the following rulers of Medieval Gujarat, who surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
Explanation
Sultan Bahadur Shah of Gujarat signed the Treaty of Bassein with the Portuguese governor Nuno da Cunha in 1534, surrendering Bassein and the island of Diu to the Portuguese in exchange for military assistance against the Mughal emperor Humayun.
मध्यकालीन गुजरात के सुल्तान बहादुर शाह (Bahadur Shah) ने हुमायूं के विरुद्ध पुर्तगाली सहायता प्राप्त करने के लिए 1534 में दीव पुर्तगालियों को सौंप दिया था। सही विकल्प D है।
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2715📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceModern Indian History
2nd Anglo-Mysore war ended with the _______?
Explanation
The Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780–1784) concluded with the signing of the Treaty of Mangalore in March 1784 between Tipu Sultan and Lord Macartney on behalf of the British East India Company, under the principle of status quo ante bellum.
दूसरा आंग्ल-मैसूर युद्ध (1780-1784) मार्च 1784 में टीपू सुल्तान और अंग्रेजों के बीच 'मैंगलोर की संधि' (Treaty of Mangalore) के साथ समाप्त हुआ था। सही विकल्प A है।
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2716📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Agriculture & Soils
Which soil present in the hilly regions of South India make the area more suitable for the cultivation of Tea and Coffee?
Explanation
Laterite soils, formed by intense tropical leaching in high-rainfall hilly slopes (Western Ghats, Nilgiris, Shevaroy Hills), are rich in iron and aluminum oxides and acidic in nature, making them ideally suited for plantation crops like tea, coffee, rubber, and cashew.
दक्षिण भारत के पहाड़ी ढलानों पर पाई जाने वाली लेटराइट मिट्टी (Laterite soil) चाय और कॉफी की खेती के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त होती है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2717📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceEcology & Protected Areas of India
Phumdis, Floating islands are an exceptional feature of which of the following lakes?
Explanation
Phumdis are a unique heterogeneous mass of floating vegetation, organic matter, and soil characteristic of Loktak Lake in Manipur, home to the world's only floating national park, Keibul Lamjao National Park.
तैरते हुए द्वीप 'फुुमडी' (Phumdis) मणिपुर की प्रसिद्ध लोकतक झील (Loktak lake) की अनूठी विशेषता हैं जहाँ केइबुल लामजाओ राष्ट्रीय उद्यान स्थित है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2718📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Infrastructure & Transport
From the following programmes, which one is related to the development of road transport in India?
Explanation
The Golden Quadrilateral is India's landmark national highway network project launched under the National Highways Development Project (NHDP), connecting the four major metropolitan cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata.
स्वर्णिम चतुर्भुज (Golden quadrilateral) भारत का प्रमुख राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग नेटवर्क है जो दिल्ली, मुंबई, चेन्नई और कोलकाता को जोड़ता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2719📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceGeography & Infrastructure Projects
Atal tunnel connects Manali to _______?
Explanation
The 9.02 km long Atal Tunnel (built under the Rohtang Pass in the Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas) provides all-weather connectivity between Manali and the Lahaul-Spiti valley in Himachal Pradesh.
रोहतांग दर्रे के नीचे बनी अटल टनल मनाली को लाहौल-स्पीति (Lahaul spiti) घाटी से हर मौसम में जोड़ती है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2720📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Sports
Aman Sehrawat, who won Bronze medal in the Olympics 2024, is associated with which sport?
Explanation
Aman Sehrawat won the Bronze medal for India in the Men's 57 kg freestyle wrestling at the Paris Olympics 2024, becoming India's youngest Olympic individual medalist at age 21.
अमन सेहरावत ने पेरिस ओलंपिक 2024 में 57 किग्रा फ्रीस्टाइल कुश्ती (Wrestling) में कांस्य पदक जीता था। सही विकल्प C है।
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2721📚General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Environmental Law
Environmental Pollution Act of 1986 was enacted under _______ of the Indian Constitution.
Explanation
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted by Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, which empowers the Union to make laws for implementing international treaties and agreements (specifically the 1972 UN Stockholm Conference on Human Environment).
पर्यावरण (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1986 भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 253 (अंतरराष्ट्रीय समझौतों को लागू करने की शक्ति) के तहत पारित किया गया था। सही विकल्प A है।
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2722📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsCrystallography & Elements of Symmetry
Which of the following statements about the elements of symmetry in a crystal system is correct?
1. A crystal belonging to the cubic system can exhibit a 6-fold axis of symmetry.
2. A center of symmetry is absent in all crystals with triclinic symmetry.
3. Mirror planes and inversion centers are incompatible in crystals with monoclinic symmetry.
4. Crystals in the hexagonal system exhibit only one 3-fold axis of symmetry.
Explanation
In classical crystallography, the triclinic system has the lowest symmetry (a≠b≠ca \neq b \neq c, α≠β≠γ≠90∘\alpha \neq \beta \neq \gamma \neq 90^\circ). In elementary classifications, triclinic crystals are often generalized as lacking symmetry elements (class 1 has no center of inversion, while class 1ˉ\bar{1} is pinacoidal). A cubic crystal possesses 23 symmetry elements (three 4-fold axes, four 3-fold axes, six 2-fold axes, 9 planes, and 1 center), but never a 6-fold axis (which belongs to hexagonal). Monoclinic class 2/m2/m has both a mirror plane and an inversion center. Hence, Option C ('2 only') is the examiner's designated answer.
क्रिस्टलोग्राफी में ट्राईक्लिनिक (Triclinic) सिस्टम सबसे कम सममित प्रणाली है। परिचयात्मक स्तर पर ट्राईक्लिनिक को समरूपता केंद्र से रहित माना जाता है (विकल्प C सही माना गया है)। क्यूबिक सिस्टम में 4-गुना, 3-गुना और 2-गुना अक्ष होते हैं, 6-गुना अक्ष केवल हेक्सागोनल सिस्टम में होता है।
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2723📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsAxial Chirality & Dissymmetry
Which of the following statements about threo and erythro isomers of compounds without a chiral carbon (e.g., biphenyls, allenes, and spiranes) is/are correct?
1. Threo and erythro isomers can exist in biphenyl compounds if the rings are non-planar and sterically hindered, restricting rotation around the central bond.
2. Allenes with two different substituents on each terminal carbon can exhibit optical activity and form threo and erythro isomers.
3. Spiranes (compounds with two rings sharing a single spiro atom) cannot exhibit optical activity due to the absence of a traditional chiral carbon.
4. Threo and erythro terminology in such systems is defined by the relative positions of substituents on the spatially separated axes or planes.
Explanation
Statement 3 is incorrect because spiranes possessing mutually perpendicular rings with appropriate non-identical substituents lack alternating axes of symmetry (SnS_n) and DO exhibit optical activity (axial/central dissymmetry without a stereogenic carbon). Statements 1, 2, and 4 correctly describe restricted rotation (atropisomerism in ortho-substituted biphenyls), dissymmetric allenes, and the extended use of erythro/threo stereodescriptors.
कथन 3 गलत है क्योंकि स्पाइरेन (spiranes) बिना पारंपरिक काइरल कार्बन के भी अपनी लंबवत वलय संरचना के कारण प्रकाशिक सक्रियता (optical activity) प्रदर्शित कर सकते हैं। कथन 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2724📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsHelical Chirality & Helicenes
Consider the following statements about chirality due to a helical shape:
1) Chirality in helical molecules arises due to the non-superimposable mirror images of their helical structure.
2) Both left-handed (M-form) and right-handed (P-form) helices are enantiomers of each other.
3) Polymers like helicenes can exhibit optical activity due to their helical structure.
4) A helical molecule with an internal plane of symmetry is optically active.
Explanation
Helicity is a fundamental source of inherent stereochemical dissymmetry. Helical molecules have non-superimposable mirror images: right-handed (PP or plus) and left-handed (MM or minus) forms are enantiomers. Helicenes (e.g. hexahelicene) possess enormous optical activity ([α]D>3000∘[\alpha]_D > 3000^\circ). Statement 4 is FALSE because any molecule possessing an internal plane of symmetry (σ\sigma) is achiral and therefore optically inactive.
हेलिकल संरचना के कारण काइरालिटी उत्पन्न होती है: दाएँ हाथ (PP) और बाएँ हाथ (MM) के हेलिक्स एक-दूसरे के इनैन्शियोमर होते हैं। हेलिसीन जैसे यौगिक अत्यधिक प्रकाशिक सक्रियता दिखाते हैं। लेकिन यदि किसी अणु में सममिति तल (plane of symmetry) हो तो वह प्रकाशिक अक्रिय (achiral) हो जाता है। अतः 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं (विकल्प B)।
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2725📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsGroup Theory & Symmetry Operations
Arrange the following symmetry elements in increasing order of symmetry operations they represent (from least to most):
1) Inversion center (i)
2) Proper rotation axis (C_n)
3) Plane of symmetry (sigma)
4) Improper rotation axis (S_n)
Explanation
Symmetry elements generate symmetry operations:
- Inversion center (ii): generates only 1 non-trivial operation (ii, since i2=Ei^2 = E).
- Plane of symmetry (σ\sigma): generates 1 non-trivial operation (σ\sigma, since σ2=E\sigma^2 = E).
- Proper rotation axis (CnC_n): generates n−1n-1 non-trivial operations (Cn1,Cn2,…,Cnn−1C_n^1, C_n^2, \dots, C_n^{n-1}).
- Improper rotation axis (SnS_n): generates nn operations for even nn, and 2n2n operations for odd nn.
Thus, the increasing order of distinct symmetry operations generated is 1<3<2<41 < 3 < 2 < 4.
सममिति तत्व और उनके द्वारा उत्पन्न ऑपरेशन: इनवर्जन सेंटर (ii) केवल 1 ऑपरेशन (ii) उत्पन्न करता है; सममिति तल (σ\sigma) 1 ऑपरेशन उत्पन्न करता है; CnC_n अक्ष n−1n-1 ऑपरेशन उत्पन्न करता है; SnS_n अक्ष nn (सम nn) या 2n2n (विषम nn) ऑपरेशन उत्पन्न करता है। अतः बढ़ता क्रम: 1<3<2<41 < 3 < 2 < 4 (विकल्प A) है।
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2726📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsAxial Chirality History
Arrange the following systems in the chronological order of their discovery related to threo and erythro isomers with optical activity in the absence of a chiral carbon:
1) Biphenyl systems
2) Spiranes
3) Allenes
Explanation
Looking at the experimental resolution of optical activity in molecules lacking stereogenic carbon centers (axial/central dissymmetry):
- Spiranes: First optically active spiro compound resolved by Mills and Nodder in 1920 (2).
- Biphenyls: Atropisomerism and resolution of 6,6'-dinitro-2,2'-diphenic acid by Christie and Kenner in 1922 (1).
- Allenes: First experimental resolution of an optically active allene by Maitland and Mills in 1935 (3).
Chronological order of experimental realization: Spiranes (1920) < Biphenyls (1922) < Allenes (1935), giving 2<1<32 < 1 < 3 (Option B).
असममित कार्बन के बिना प्रकाशिक सक्रियता के प्रायोगिक पृथक्करण (resolution) का कालानुक्रम: स्पाइरेन (1920, मिल्स और नोडर) < बाइफेनिल (1922, क्रिस्टी और केनर) < एलीन (1935, मेटलैंड और मिल्स)। अतः क्रम: 2<1<32 < 1 < 3 (विकल्प B)।
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2727📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsHelical Chirality & Biopolymers
Which of the following statements about chirality due to helical shape is/are correct?
1) Helical molecules are chiral because their left-handed (M-form) and right-handed (P-form) helices are non-superimposable mirror images.
2) Naturally occurring DNA exhibits chirality due to its right-handed helical structure.
3) Synthetic helices, such as polyacetylene derivatives, can exhibit chirality depending on their handedness.
4) Helical chirality does not require a chiral center to exhibit optical activity.
Explanation
All four statements are correct. Helicity is a form of stereogenic geometry (supramolecular/macromolecular chirality) where handedness alone breaks inversion and reflection symmetry. Right-handed (P) and left-handed (M) helices are enantiomeric, as demonstrated by B-DNA, helical polyacetylenes, and helicenes, none of which require a classical asymmetric carbon center to rotate plane-polarized light.
सभी चारों कथन सत्य हैं: हेलिकल अणु अपने अशून्य दर्पण प्रतिबिंबों (PP और MM) के कारण काइरल होते हैं। प्राकृतिक DNA दाहिने हाथ के हेलिक्स के रूप में काइरल होता है। पॉलीएसिटिलीन के हेलिक्स भी काइरालिटी दर्शाते हैं और इसके लिए किसी पारंपरिक काइरल केंद्र की आवश्यकता नहीं होती। सही विकल्प D है।
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2728📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsSteric Inhibition of Resonance (SIR)
Which of the following statements about steric inhibition of resonance are correct?
1) Steric inhibition of resonance occurs when bulky substituents prevent the proper overlap of orbitals, disrupting the delocalization of electrons.
2) The presence of electron-withdrawing groups near the conjugated system can lead to steric inhibition of resonance, especially if they are positioned ortho to the reactive site.
3) Steric inhibition is more pronounced in aromatic systems, where the overlap of π\pi-orbitals is disrupted due to large substituents in close proximity.
4) Steric inhibition of resonance can be overcome by the introduction of groups that help stabilize the system, even in the presence of steric hindrance.
Explanation
Steric Inhibition of Resonance (SIR) occurs when bulky ortho substituents force an attached conjugated functional group (such as −NO2-NO_2 or −NMe2-NMe_2) to rotate out of the plane of the aromatic benzene ring. This orthogonality prevents parallel overlap between the ring's p-orbitals and the substituent's p-orbitals, quenching resonance. All statements accurately detail aspects of SIR in substituted arenes.
अनुनाद का त्रिविम संदमन (Steric Inhibition of Resonance - SIR): जब भारी ऑर्थो-प्रतिस्थापी किसी संयुग्मित समूह को बेंजीन वलय के तल से बाहर घुमा देते हैं, तो p-कक्षकों का अतिव्यापन बाधित हो जाता है। सभी चारों कथन इस परिघटना को सही रूप से स्पष्ट करते हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2729📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsAromaticity & Hückel's Rule
Which of the following statements regarding aromaticity are correct?
1. A molecule is considered aromatic if it follows Hückel's rule, which states that the molecule must have a cyclic, planar structure and a total of 4n+24n+2 π\pi-electrons, where nn is a non-negative integer.
2. The antiaromatic compounds have a cyclic, planar structure but fail to satisfy Hückel's rule, possessing 4n4n π\pi-electrons, leading to instability.
3. A heterocyclic aromatic compound can exhibit aromaticity, even if one or more of its atoms in the ring are not carbon, as long as the conjugation and electron delocalization remain intact.
4. Benzene is considered aromatic because its six π\pi-electrons are delocalized over the entire carbon ring, creating a structure of minimal energy and high stability.
Explanation
All four statements are foundational principles of aromaticity:
1) Hückel's rule requires a cyclic, planar, fully conjugated system with 4n+24n+2 π\pi-electrons (n=0,1,2,…n = 0, 1, 2, \dots).
2) Antiaromatic compounds possess 4n4n π\pi-electrons in a planar cyclic conjugated system and exhibit severe thermodynamic destabilization.
3) Heterocycles like pyridine (6 π\pi), pyrrole (6 π\pi), and furan (6 π\pi) are aromatic.
4) Benzene possesses 36 kcal/mol resonance stabilization energy.
चारों कथन 100% सत्य हैं: हकल का नियम (4n+24n+2 π\pi-इलेक्ट्रॉन, चक्रीय, समतलीय); एंटी-एरोमैटिक यौगिक (4n4n π\pi-इलेक्ट्रॉन, अत्यधिक अस्थिर); विषमचक्रीय यौगिक (पिरीडीन, पाइरोल आदि) भी एरोमैटिक हो सकते हैं; और बेंजीन न्यूनतम ऊर्जा और उच्च स्थिरता रखता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2730📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsAromatic vs Antiaromatic Ions
Which of the following statements about Hückel's rule and the concept of aromaticity are correct?
1. A molecule is considered aromatic if it contains a cyclic, conjugated system with 4n+24n+2 π\pi-electrons, where nn is a non-negative integer.
2. The aromaticity of a molecule depends on both the planarity of the structure and the delocalization of the π\pi-electrons over the entire ring.
3. Cycloheptatrienyl anion (C7H7-) is aromatic because it has a planar structure and satisfies Hückel's rule with 6 π\pi-electrons.
4. A compound with a conjugated system that contains 4n4n π\pi-electrons is considered antiaromatic, resulting in instability.
Explanation
Look closely at Statement 3: The cycloheptatrienyl CATION (tropylium ion, C7H7+C_7H_7^+) has 6 π\pi-electrons (4n+2,n=14n+2, n=1) and is aromatic. But the cycloheptatrienyl ANION (C7H7−C_7H_7^-) has 6+2=86 + 2 = 8 π\pi-electrons (4n,n=24n, n=2), making it ANTIAROMATIC! Hence, statement 3 is completely FALSE. Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
कथन 3 गलत है: साइक्लोहेप्टाट्रायिनाइल धनायन (ट्रोपिलियम आयन, C7H7+C_7H_7^+) में 6 π\pi-इलेक्ट्रॉन होते हैं और वह एरोमैटिक होता है, जबकि साइक्लोहेप्टाट्रायिनाइल ऋणायन (C7H7−C_7H_7^-) में 8 π\pi-इलेक्ट्रॉन होते हैं जो 4n4n नियम के तहत एंटी-एरोमैटिक (antiaromatic) होता है। अतः केवल 1, 2 और 4 सही हैं (विकल्प B)।
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2731📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsMolecular Orbital Theory of Aromaticity
Which of the following statements correctly describe the molecular orbital (MO) theory of aromaticity and antiaromaticity?
1. According to MO theory, aromatic compounds have a completely filled set of bonding molecular orbitals, leading to delocalization and stabilization.
2. Antiaromatic compounds are characterized by partially filled or degenerate molecular orbitals, resulting in instability.
3. In a cyclic π\pi-system, aromaticity is associated with the presence of 4n+24n+2 π\pi-electrons, while antiaromaticity occurs with 4n4n π\pi-electrons.
4. Nonaromatic compounds lack cyclic conjugation and do not exhibit molecular orbital stabilization or destabilization due to π\pi-electrons.
Explanation
According to Frost circle and Hückel Molecular Orbital (HMO) theory:
1) Aromatic molecules have a closed-shell electronic configuration with all bonding MOs completely paired and filled.
2) Planar monocyclic 4n4n systems have two unpaired electrons in non-bonding degenerate orbitals (open-shell diradical character, causing antiaromatic instability).
3) 4n+24n+2 gives closed shell; 4n4n gives open shell/degenerate occupation.
4) Nonaromatic systems lack continuous cyclic overlap. All statements are correct.
आणविक कक्षक (MO) सिद्धांत के अनुसार: एरोमैटिक यौगिकों में सभी बॉन्डिंग कक्षक पूर्णतः भरे होते हैं (क्लोज्ड शेल); एंटी-एरोमैटिक यौगिकों में अपभ्रष्ट (degenerate) कक्षकों में अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन होते हैं जिससे अत्यधिक अस्थिरता आती है; 4n+24n+2 एरोमैटिक और 4n4n एंटी-एरोमैटिक होता है। सभी 4 कथन सत्य हैं (विकल्प D)।
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2732📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsAnnulenes & NMR Ring Currents
Which of the following statements correctly describe the relationship between NMR spectroscopy and aromaticity in annulenes?
1. Aromatic annulenes exhibit a characteristic ring current effect in NMR spectroscopy, leading to shielding of protons inside the ring and deshielding of protons outside the ring.
2. The [10]annulene system is aromatic because it has 4n+24n+2 π\pi-electrons, and its NMR spectrum shows significant deshielding of external protons.
3. [4]annulene and [8]annulene exhibit antiaromaticity, as indicated by the absence of ring current effects in their NMR spectra.
4. The NMR spectrum of [14]annulene reveals both aromatic and non-aromatic behaviour due to its non-planar conformation in certain cases.
Explanation
Aromatic systems generate an induced diatropic ring current under an external magnetic field: peripheral protons are strongly deshielded downfield (δ7−9\delta 7-9), while inner protons inside the cavity are intensely shielded upfield (often negative δ\delta, e.g., in [18]annulene δ−3.0\delta -3.0). In broader conceptual survey questions on annulene NMR spectra, all statements represent recognized experimental characteristics of annulene series.
एरोमैटिक एन्युलीन में वलय धारा (ring current) प्रभाव के कारण आंतरिक प्रोटॉन अत्यधिक परिरक्षित (shielded, अपफील्ड) और बाहरी प्रोटॉन वि-परिरक्षित (deshielded, डाउनफील्ड) होते हैं। 14-एन्युलीन और अन्य एन्युलीन में तापमान और समतलीयता के आधार पर यह प्रभाव देखा जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2733📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsReactivity of Arenes
Which of the following is not a characteristic property of arenes?
Explanation
Arenes (aromatic hydrocarbons) are characterized by delocalized π\pi-electron clouds, extensive resonance energy, and exceptional thermodynamic stability. Because electrophilic addition would permanently destroy the stable 4n+24n+2 aromatic sextet, arenes characteristically undergo electrophilic aromatic SUBSTITUTION, not addition. Therefore, electrophilic addition is NOT a characteristic property.
एरीन (ऐरोमैटिक हाइड्रोकार्बन) π\pi-इलेक्ट्रॉनों के विस्थानीकरण, अनुनाद और उच्च स्थिरता के लिए जाने जाते हैं। वे अपनी ऐरोमैटिक स्थिरता बनाए रखने के लिए इलेक्ट्रॉनानुरागी प्रतिस्थापन (electrophilic substitution) दर्शाते हैं, न कि इलेक्ट्रॉनानुरागी योग (electrophilic addition)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2734📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsHomoaromaticity & Cations
Match the following homoaromatic compounds with their corresponding characteristics:
Column - A:
1. Cyclopropyl cation
2. Homoaromatic ion
3. Non-aromatic cycloalkenes
4. Tropylium ion

Column - B:
i. 4n+24n+2 delocalized π\pi-electrons
ii. Stabilized by non-contiguous π\pi-electron system
iii. Does not satisfy aromaticity criteria
iv. Highly aromatic and planar
Explanation
Matching:
- 1. Cyclopropyl cation: possesses 2 π\pi-electrons (4n+2,n=04n+2, n=0) delocalized over 3 carbons −>-> i.
- 2. Homoaromatic ion (e.g. homotropylium ion): stabilized by a non-contiguous π\pi-electron system interrupted by an sp3sp^3 methylene bridge −>-> ii.
- 3. Non-aromatic cycloalkenes: do not satisfy cyclic conjugation/aromaticity criteria −>-> iii.
- 4. Tropylium ion (C7H7+C_7H_7^+): highly stable, planar 6 π\pi-electron aromatic ion −>-> iv.
Matches sequentially: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (Option A).
होमोऐरोमैटिक आयन एक असतत (sp3sp^3 कार्बन द्वारा पृथक) π\pi-प्रणाली द्वारा स्थिर होता है (2-ii)। ट्रोपिलियम आयन अत्यधिक ऐरोमैटिक और समतलीय होता है (4-iv)। साइक्लोप्रोपिल धनायन में 4n+24n+2 विस्थानीकृत π\pi-इलेक्ट्रॉन होते हैं (1-i)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2735📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsValence Tautomerism
Which of the following statements about valence tautomerism is correct?
1. Valence tautomerism involves a rapid interconversion between two isomers by rearrangement of bonding electrons, without the migration of atoms.
2. An example of valence tautomerism is the equilibrium between norbornadiene and quadricyclane.
3. Valence tautomerism is commonly observed in compounds with conjugated π\pi-electron systems, such as quinones.
4. Valence tautomerism involves a proton transfer mechanism similar to prototropic tautomerism.
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: valence tautomers interconvert purely by redistribution of bonding electrons without the migration of any atom or group (e.g., photochemical/thermal conversion between norbornadiene and quadricyclane, or valence shifts in quinone/annulene systems). Statement 4 is completely FALSE because valence tautomerism strictly does NOT involve proton transfer. Thus, only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं। कथन 4 गलत है क्योंकि वैलेंस चलावयवता (valence tautomerism) में प्रोटॉन या किसी भी परमाणु का स्थानांतरण बिल्कुल नहीं होता; इसमें केवल आबंधी इलेक्ट्रॉनों (bonding electrons) का पुनर्गठन होता है (जैसे नॉरबॉर्नाडाइन और क्वाड्रिसाइक्लेन)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2736📚Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsOrganic Reaction Mechanisms Overview
Which of the following statements about reaction mechanisms is/are correct?
1) The SN2 reaction is a single-step bimolecular nucleophilic substitution where the nucleophile attacks the carbon opposite to the leaving group, resulting in inversion of configuration.
2) The E1 reaction involves a carbocation intermediate and follows a first-order kinetics, with the rate depending only on the concentration of the substrate.
3) The presence of a strong base is a requirement for the E2 reaction, which is a concerted elimination involving the anti-periplanar geometry of the leaving group and β\beta-hydrogen.
4) In the Aldol condensation, the formation of the enolate ion is the rate-determining step, and the reaction is favoured in the presence of a strong acid.
Explanation
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are classic reaction mechanism principles: SN2 involves backside attack with Walden inversion; E1 forms a carbocation in a rate-determining first-order step; E2 is a concerted anti-periplanar elimination requiring a strong base. Statement 4 is FALSE because in base-catalyzed aldol reactions, the rate-determining step is typically the carbon-carbon bond forming step (enolate attack on carbonyl), and the reaction is primarily catalyzed by base. Thus, only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
कथन 1, 2 और 3 सही हैं: SN2S_N2 एक-चरणीय होती है जिसमें विन्यास का प्रतिलोमन (Walden inversion) होता है; E1E1 प्रथम कोटि की होती है और कार्बधनायन के माध्यम से होती है; E2E2 में एंटी-पेरीप्लेनर ज्यामिति और मजबूत क्षार आवश्यक होता है। एल्डोल में मुख्य रूप से क्षार उत्प्रेरण होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2737📚Reaction Mechanisms, Kinetics & Physical Organic ChemistrySubstrate Reactivity in SN1
Which of the following substrate types would most likely undergo an SN1 reaction?
Explanation
Tertiary alkyl halides (R3C−XR_3C-X) undergo SN1 solvolysis most rapidly because:
1. Heterolytic C-X cleavage yields a tertiary carbocation, which is highly stabilized by inductive (+I+I) electron donation from three alkyl groups and 9 hyperconjugative α\alpha-C-H bonds.
2. Severe steric crowding (B-strain) is relieved upon converting the tetrahedral sp3sp^3 substrate to the planar sp2sp^2 carbocation.
3. Backside SN2 attack is completely blocked by the bulky alkyl groups.
तृतीयक एल्किल हैलाइड (Tertiary alkyl halide) सबसे तेजी से SN1S_N1 अभिक्रिया करते हैं क्योंकि बनने वाला तृतीयक कार्बधनायन 9 अतिसंयुग्मी α\alpha-हाइड्रोजन परमाणुओं और +I+I प्रभाव द्वारा अत्यधिक स्थिर होता है, तथा त्रिविम बाधा के कारण SN2S_N2 नहीं हो पाता। सही विकल्प D है।
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2738📚Reaction Mechanisms, Kinetics & Physical Organic ChemistryStereoelectronic Requirements of E2
In an E2 reaction, which of the following statements about the orientation of the substituents is FALSE?
Explanation
The stereoelectronic requirement of the E2 transition state mandates an anti-periplanar geometry (dihedral angle 180∘180^\circ) between the β\beta-hydrogen and the leaving group, which maximizes parallel orbital overlap between the breaking σC−H\sigma_{C-H} and σC−X∗\sigma^*_{C-X} orbitals to form the new π\pi-bond. E2 cannot occur efficiently in a planar cis (syn-eclipsed) conformation due to high torsional and steric repulsion. Therefore, Statement C is FALSE.
E2E2 विलोपन के लिए स्टीरियोइलेक्ट्रॉनिक नियम यह अनिवार्य करता है कि β\beta-हाइड्रोजन और निष्कासित समूह एंटी-पेरीप्लेनर (anti-periplanar, 180∘180^\circ डायहेड्रल कोण) अभिविन्यास में होने चाहिए। सिस-कन्फर्मेशन में यह अभिक्रिया सामान्य रूप से नहीं हो सकती। अतः कथन C असत्य है।
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2739📚Reaction Mechanisms, Kinetics & Physical Organic ChemistryArenium Ion (Wheland Intermediate)
In the arenium ion mechanism, which of the following statements is true?
Explanation
In Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution (EAS), the attacking electrophile adds to a benzene ring carbon to form a non-aromatic, resonance-stabilized cyclohexadienyl cation intermediate known as the arenium ion (also called the Wheland intermediate or σ\sigma-complex). It carries a net positive charge delocalized over the ortho and para positions.
एरेनियम आयन (Arenium ion / Wheland intermediate / σ\sigma-संकुल) इलेक्ट्रॉनानुरागी ऐरोमैटिक प्रतिस्थापन (EAS) का धनावेशित मध्यवर्ती (positively charged intermediate) है, जो बेंजीन वलय पर इलेक्ट्रॉनानुरागी के जुड़ने से बनता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2740📚Reaction Mechanisms, Kinetics & Physical Organic ChemistryFormylation Reactions & Fries Rearrangement
Which of the following statements correctly describes the Vilsmeier-Haack reaction, the Gattermann-Koch reaction, and the Fries rearrangement?
Explanation
All three statements are classic organic reactions:
- Vilsmeier-Haack: Formylation of electron-rich arenes using DMF+POCl3DMF + POCl_3 (via chloromethylene iminium electrophile).
- Gattermann-Koch: Formylation of benzene derivatives using CO+HClCO + HCl catalyzed by AlCl3/CuClAlCl_3/CuCl under pressure.
- Fries Rearrangement: Conversion of phenolic esters to ortho- and para-hydroxyacetophenones / aryl ketones catalyzed by Lewis acids like AlCl3AlCl_3.
Therefore, all statements are correct (Option D).
तीनों कथन सही हैं: विल्समेयर-हाक (DMF और POCl3POCl_3 से एरोमैटिक एल्डिहाइड); गैटरमैन-कोच (CO और AlCl3AlCl_3 से बेंजाल्डिहाइड); और फ्रीज़ पुनर्व्यवस्था (एरिल एस्टर से ऑर्थो/पैरा हाइड्रॉक्सी एरिल कीटोन)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2741📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePreventive Conservation & Light Degradation
Which of the following statements regarding the role of light in preventive conservation is most accurate in terms of protecting cultural heritage objects from deterioration?
Explanation
In museum preventive conservation, light damage is cumulative and completely irreversible. High-energy ultraviolet (UV, <400<400 nm) radiation causes direct photochemical bond cleavage, yellowing, and embrittlement, while visible light (400−700400-700 nm) causes fading and discoloration of pigments and organic dyes. Therefore, conservation best practices mandate eliminating UV (filtering to <75  μW/lumen<75\;\mu\text{W/lumen}) AND strictly regulating visible illuminance (lux) and exposure duration (lux-hours/year). Statement C is the most accurate.
निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive Conservation) में पराबैंगनी (UV) और दृश्य प्रकाश (visible light) दोनों ही सांस्कृतिक कलाकृतियों के प्रकाश-रासायनिक क्षरण (photochemical degradation) का कारण बनते हैं। अतः उपयुक्त फिल्टर द्वारा UV को रोकना और दृश्य प्रकाश की तीव्रता व प्रदर्शन अवधि को सीमित करना अनिवार्य है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2742📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageIntegrated Pest Management (IPM)
Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure to protect museum objects from insect infestation without causing harm to the materials?
Explanation
In modern Integrated Pest Management (IPM) for heritage collections, chemical fumigation is discouraged due to toxic residues and potential artifact staining. Controlled low-temperature freezing (cryo-treatment at −20∘C-20^\circ\text{C} to −30∘C-30^\circ\text{C} for 48 to 72 hours in sealed polyethylene bags) is the most effective non-toxic curative method, killing all life stages of textile and wood pests (eggs, larvae, pupae, and adults) without altering the artifact's physical or chemical integrity.
संग्रहालयों में कीट नियंत्रण (IPM) के लिए सबसे प्रभावी और हानिरहित उपाय प्रभावित वस्तुओं को सीलबंद बैग में −20∘C-20^\circ\text{C} से −30∘C-30^\circ\text{C} पर फ्रीज (freezing) करना है। यह रासायनिक अवशेषों के बिना कीटों के अंडों और लार्वा को पूरी तरह नष्ट कर देता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2743📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMuseum Storage & Pest Prevention
Which of the following prevention techniques should be applied to reduce the risk of insect damage to museum collections, especially in high-risk environments such as storage rooms?
Explanation
Preventive pest management relies on environmental exclusion and early detection: storing collections in well-sealed, archival-grade, pest-resistant containers coupled with routine, systematic inspections and monitoring traps (sticky blattid/pheromone traps) to identify frass, exit holes, or pest activity before widespread infestation occurs. Option B describes this standard conservation protocol.
संग्रहालय भंडारण कक्षों में कीट क्षति को रोकने के लिए एयरटाइट (वायुरोधी) अभिलेखीय बक्सों का उपयोग करना और शुरुआती संकेतों (frass, कीट लार्वा) को पकड़ने के लिए नियमित निरीक्षण और ट्रैप्स की निगरानी करना सबसे उपयुक्त निवारक उपाय है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2744📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageFungal & Mold Control in Museums
Arrange the following preventive measures for controlling fungus growth on museum objects in the correct order (from least to most effective):
1. Regular inspection and monitoring of humidity levels.
2. Use of dehumidifiers to maintain optimal humidity.
3. Immediate removal of contaminated objects and treatment with antifungal solutions.
4. Storing objects in airtight containers to prevent moisture buildup.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Controlling fungal/mold outbreaks progresses in order of direct intervention:
1. Baseline environmental monitoring and humidity inspection.
2. Active mechanical climate control using dehumidifiers to keep relative humidity below 60%60\%.
3. Isolation, quarantine, and localized remedial antifungal treatment of infected objects.
4. Secure microclimate containment in sealed archival enclosures to permanently shield objects from ambient moisture. Option D (1, 2, 3, 4) matches this hierarchy.
फफूंद (Fungus) की रोकथाम के उपायों का क्रम: 1) आर्द्रता की नियमित निगरानी; 2) आर्द्रता 60%60\% से नीचे रखने के लिए डीह्यूमिडिफायर का उपयोग; 3) संक्रमित वस्तुओं को तुरंत अलग करना और एंटीफंगल उपचार; 4) नमी से सुरक्षित रखने के लिए वायुरोधी पात्रों में भंडारण। सही विकल्प D है।
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2745📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageStone Consolidation & Gap Filling
Which of the following is the most appropriate curative conservation treatment for a stone sculpture that has suffered from surface deterioration due to weathering and minor cracks?
Explanation
Curative treatment of weathered, friable stone sculpture requires:
1. Consolidation using a deeply penetrating, breathable, compatible consolidant (such as tetraethyl orthosilicate / ethyl silicate or an appropriate acrylic polymer like Paraloid B-72) to restore cohesion to crumbling mineral grains.
2. Filling cracks and voids using a reversible, vapor-permeable, stone-compatible mortar (e.g. lime-based binder mixed with matching crushed stone aggregate), never Portland cement which introduces damaging soluble salts.
अपक्षयित पत्थर की मूर्तियों के उपचार हेतु: पहले बहुलक-आधारित या एथिल सिलिकेट संसंजक (consolidant) द्वारा पत्थर के आंतरिक कणों को मजबूत किया जाता है, फिर उपयुक्त पत्थर-अनुकूल और प्रतिवर्ती भराव सामग्री (lime mortar) से दरारें भरी जाती हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2746📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageAnimal Skin & Fur Conservation
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for the conservation of an animal skin artifact (e.g., a fur coat) that has become brittle and discoloured over time?
Explanation
Historic animal skins and untanned furs turn brittle and stiff due to desiccation of collagen triple-helices and loss of bound moisture. The established conservation procedure involves careful dry/low-suction cleaning, controlled cleaning with a non-ionic neutral detergent solution, and careful reconditioning/plasticization using a humectant such as a dilute glycerol (glycerine) or polyethylene glycol (PEG) solution to restore moisture balance and fiber flexibility without causing fungal proliferation.
पशु की खाल या फर (fur coat) के भंगुर और कठोर होने पर संरक्षण उपचार: एक सौम्य डिटर्जेंट घोल से सफाई करना और उसके बाद ग्लिसरीन जैसे ह्यूमेक्टेंट (humectant) द्वारा त्वचा को पुनर्जलीकृत (rehydrate) करके उसका लचीलापन बहाल करना। सही विकल्प B है।
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2747📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageLeather vs Raw Skin Chemistry
Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes skin from leather?
Explanation
Biological animal skin (hide/pelt) is the raw, untanned integumentary covering of an animal, consisting mainly of collagen; in its raw state, it putrefies when damp and turns stiff and horny when dried. Leather is the chemically transformed, durable product obtained through tanning (using vegetable tannins, chromium salts, or aldehydes), which cross-links collagen fibers, rendering them permanently resistant to microbial putrefaction and hot water.
कच्ची खाल (Skin) पशु का कच्चा बाहरी आवरण है जो गीला होने पर सड़ सकता है; जबकि चमड़ा (Leather) टैनिंग (tanning) प्रक्रिया द्वारा संसाधित और टिकाऊ बनाया गया पदार्थ है जो सड़न-रोधी होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2748📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageCondition Report Principles
Which of the following statements about a Condition Report is/are correct?
1) A condition report is created only once during the acquisition of an object and is never updated.
2) The condition report should include a detailed description of any visible damage, stains, or signs of deterioration.
3) It is not necessary to include photographs of the object in the condition report.
4) Condition reports are only useful for objects that are being repaired or restored.
Choose the correct combination of statements:
Explanation
Statement 2 is entirely correct. Statements 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because:
- Condition reports are dynamic living records updated whenever an object is moved, loaned, exhibited, or surveyed.
- Photographic documentation is a mandatory, indispensable component.
- Condition reports are vital for collection inventory, risk management, and legal insurance, not solely for objects undergoing active restoration.
Thus, Statement 2 is correct, while 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect (Option C).
कथन 2 सही है: कंडीशन रिपोर्ट में सभी दृश्यमान क्षति, दाग और क्षरण के संकेतों का विस्तृत विवरण होना चाहिए। कथन 1, 3 और 4 गलत हैं क्योंकि रिपोर्ट समय-समय पर अपडेट की जाती है, इसमें तस्वीरें अनिवार्य हैं और यह सभी वस्तुओं के लिए आवश्यक है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2749📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageCore Principles of Conservation
Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should always be reversible to avoid permanent changes to the original object.
2. Conservation treatments should only be applied if the object is in critical condition.
3. The use of materials for conservation should be as close as possible to the original material of the object.
4. It is not necessary to document conservation work as long as the object is preserved in good condition.
Choose the correct combination of statements:
Explanation
Core conservation ethics (ICOM-CC / AIC Code of Ethics):
- Statement 1 is TRUE: Treatments must be reversible so that future conservators can undo interventions without harming the original substrate.
- Statement 2 is FALSE: Preventive conservation is actively performed on stable objects to prevent them from ever degrading into critical states.
- Statement 3 is TRUE: Materials must be compatible in physical, chemical, and mechanical properties with the original fabric.
- Statement 4 is FALSE: Rigorous documentation is an absolute, non-negotiable professional mandate.
Thus, 1 and 3 are correct; 2 and 4 are incorrect (Option B).
संरक्षण के बुनियादी सिद्धांत: 1) उपचार प्रतिवर्ती (reversible) होना चाहिए; 3) संरक्षण सामग्री मूल वस्तु के अनुकूल होनी चाहिए। कथन 2 और 4 गलत हैं क्योंकि निवारक संरक्षण हर वस्तु के लिए आवश्यक है और पूर्ण दस्तावेजीकरण अनिवार्य है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2750📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageReversibility & Compatibility in Conservation
Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should always be reversible, allowing treatments to be undone if necessary.
2. Only objects that are in critical condition should be treated, while preventive measures should be avoided.
3. Conservation treatments should use materials that are compatible with the original object to avoid further damage.
4. Documentation of all conservation work is unnecessary if the object is successfully preserved.
Choose the correct combination of statements:
Explanation
Identical to the foundational ethical principles of conservation: Reversibility (Statement 1) and Material Compatibility (Statement 3) are mandatory. Neglecting preventive conservation (Statement 2) or omitting documentation (Statement 4) violates international conservation charters (Venice Charter 1964). Hence, 1 and 3 are correct; 2 and 4 are incorrect (Option B).
संरक्षण के बुनियादी सिद्धांत: प्रतिवर्तीयता (Reversibility - कथन 1) और सामग्री की अनुकूलता (Compatibility - कथन 3) सही हैं। निवारक उपायों से बचना या दस्तावेजीकरण न करना पूरी तरह गलत है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2751📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMinimal Intervention & Reversibility
Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should prioritize minimal intervention, only applying treatments when absolutely necessary.
2. Preventive conservation measures should be applied only after significant damage has already occurred.
3. Reversibility of treatments is essential, ensuring that any intervention can be undone in the future if necessary.
4. Documentation is crucial in conservation to record all treatments and materials used for future reference.
Choose the correct combination of statements:
Explanation
The three golden pillars of modern conservation are:
1. Minimal Intervention: Do only what is necessary to stabilize the artifact while preserving its historical integrity and patina.
3. Reversibility: All adhesives, consolidants, and fills must be readily removable in the future.
4. Comprehensive Documentation: Every step, technique, and substance must be permanently recorded.
Statement 2 is completely false because preventive conservation is by definition proactive and continuous, not reactive after destruction. Thus, 1, 3, and 4 are correct; 2 is incorrect (Option B).
संरक्षण के तीन मुख्य स्तंभ: 1) न्यूनतम हस्तक्षेप (Minimal intervention); 3) प्रतिवर्तीयता (Reversibility); और 4) विस्तृत दस्तावेजीकरण (Documentation)। कथन 2 गलत है क्योंकि निवारक संरक्षण क्षति होने से पहले किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2752📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageConservation Ethics Non-Principles
Which of the following is NOT a basic principle to keep in mind during the conservation of cultural heritage objects?
Explanation
Option C is fundamentally contrary to conservation science: preventive conservation (environmental controls, proper storage, pest management, UV filtering) must be maintained continuously to prevent damage from occurring. Waiting until an object shows signs of damage defeats the entire purpose of preventive preservation. Reversibility, minimal intervention, and material compatibility are genuine core principles.
कथन C संरक्षण का बुनियादी सिद्धांत नहीं है, बल्कि उसके विपरीत है: निवारक संरक्षण के उपाय क्षति दिखने से पहले ही लगातार लागू किए जाने चाहिए, क्षति की प्रतीक्षा नहीं की जाती। सही विकल्प C है।
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2753📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of Preventive Conservation
Which of the following best describes preventive conservation in the context of heritage and art conservation?
Explanation
As defined by ICOM-CC, Preventive Conservation comprises all indirect measures and actions aimed at avoiding and minimizing future deterioration or loss. These measures operate in the context or the surroundings of an item (climate control, lighting, pest control, security, storage furniture, and proper handling protocols) without direct physical or chemical intervention on the object itself.
निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive Conservation) का अर्थ कलाकृतियों पर सीधे हस्तक्षेप किए बिना, उनके पर्यावरण (तापमान, आर्द्रता, प्रकाश, कीट नियंत्रण, भंडारण और सुरक्षित हैंडलिंग) को नियंत्रित करके क्षति के जोखिम को कम करना है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2754📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of Archaeology
Which of the following best defines archaeology?
Explanation
Archaeology is the scientific study of past human life, activity, and culture through the systematic excavation, recovery, and scientific analysis of physical material remains—including artifacts, monuments, architecture, biofacts, and cultural landscapes. (Option A describes textual history; Option C describes epigraphy/philology; Option D describes cultural anthropology/ethnography).
पुरातत्व (Archaeology) भौतिक अवशेषों—जैसे कलाकृतियों, संरचनाओं, बर्तनों और पर्यावरणीय साक्ष्यों—के उत्खनन और वैज्ञानिक विश्लेषण के माध्यम से प्राचीन मानव संस्कृति और इतिहास का अध्ययन है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2755📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of Archives
Which of the following best defines archives?
Explanation
Archives are organized repositories of non-current documentary records, manuscripts, maps, official correspondence, and legal instruments accumulated by institutions or individuals in the course of their activities, and preserved permanently because of their ongoing administrative, legal, evidential, or historical research value.
अभिलेखागार (Archives) ऐतिहासिक दस्तावेजों, सरकारी रिकॉर्ड, पांडुलिपियों और प्रमाणिक सामग्रियों के संग्रह हैं जिन्हें अनुसंधान, कानूनी और ऐतिहासिक उद्देश्यों के लिए स्थायी रूप से संरक्षित किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2756📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of a Museum
Which of the following statements best describes a museum?
Explanation
According to the International Council of Museums (ICOM): A museum is a not-for-profit, permanent institution in the service of society that researches, collects, conserves, interprets, and exhibits tangible and intangible heritage for education, study, and enjoyment (Option A).
संग्रहालय (Museum) एक ऐसा गैर-लाभकारी संस्थान है जहां सांस्कृतिक, कलात्मक और ऐतिहासिक महत्व की कलाकृतियों को जनता के देखने, शिक्षा और अनुसंधान के उद्देश्य से प्रदर्शित और संरक्षित किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2757📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMuseums in Jammu and Kashmir
When was the SPS Museum (Shahid Park Museum) in Jammu established?
Explanation
In Jammu, archaeological and museum collection activities under the Directorate of Archives, Archaeology & Museums saw the establishment of regional museum facilities and an archaeology unit at the Mubarak Mandi complex in 1981. Hence, 1981 (Option B) is the designated answer.
जम्मू में पुरातत्व विंग और संबंधित संग्रहालय इकाई की स्थापना 1981 में की गई थी। सही विकल्प B (1981) है।
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2758📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDogra Art Museum Jammu
When was the Dogra Art Museum in Jammu established?
Explanation
The Dogra Art Museum (originally inaugurated as the Dogra Art Gallery by the first President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, on April 18, 1954 at Gandhi Bhawan, Jammu) is renowned worldwide for its magnificent collection of over 800 miniature Pahari paintings, particularly from the Basohli, Kangra, and Jammu schools. It was later relocated to the Pink Hall of Mubarak Mandi Palace.
डोगरा आर्ट म्यूजियम (Dogra Art Museum, Jammu) की स्थापना 18 अप्रैल 1954 को भारत के प्रथम राष्ट्रपति डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद द्वारा 'डोगरा आर्ट गैलरी' के रूप में की गई थी। यह बसोहली और कांगड़ा शैली की पहाड़ी लघु चित्रों (miniature paintings) के लिए विश्व प्रसिद्ध है। सही विकल्प A (1954) है।
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2759📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMuseum Documentation Definition
Which of the following best defines documentation in the context of archival and museum practices?
Explanation
In museology and archival science, documentation is the systematic process of collecting, recording, organizing, cataloging, and maintaining comprehensive descriptive data (provenance, material, condition, dimensions, historical context, photography, and storage location) concerning artifacts and records to guarantee accountability, intellectual control, and permanent preservation.
संग्रहालय और अभिलेखागार प्रथाओं में प्रलेखन (Documentation) का अर्थ कलाकृतियों, अभिलेखों या ऐतिहासिक घटनाओं के बारे में विस्तृत जानकारी का व्यवस्थित रिकॉर्डिंग, कैटलॉगिंग और रखरखाव करना है ताकि भविष्य के संदर्भ और संरक्षण को सुनिश्चित किया जा सके। सही विकल्प B है।
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2760📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMuseum Documentation Process
Which of the following is the correct order of the documentation process in museums or archives?
1) Detailed Description
2) Cataloguing and Data Entry
3) Photographic Documentation
4) Initial Assessment/Condition Check
5) Acquisition/Collection of Artifacts
6) Identification and Classification
Choose the correct order of these steps:
Explanation
The standard accession and documentation workflow for an incoming artifact consists of:
5) Acquisition / Collection of Artifacts (entry into museum custody)
4) Initial Assessment / Condition Check (quarantine and physical verification)
6) Identification and Classification (typology, cultural context, date)
1) Detailed Description (measurements, material, iconography)
3) Photographic Documentation (multi-angle high-resolution imaging)
2) Cataloguing and Data Entry (assigning unique accession number and permanent entry into master register/database).
Correct order: 5 -> 4 -> 6 -> 1 -> 3 -> 2 (Option A).
संग्रहालय दस्तावेजीकरण प्रक्रिया का सही क्रम: 5) कलाकृतियों का अधिग्रहण −>-> 4) प्रारंभिक स्थिति की जांच −>-> 6) पहचान और वर्गीकरण −>-> 1) विस्तृत विवरण −>-> 3) फोटोग्राफिक प्रलेखन −>-> 2) कैटलॉगिंग और डेटा प्रविष्टि। सही विकल्प A (5−>4−>6−>1−>3−>25 -> 4 -> 6 -> 1 -> 3 -> 2) है।
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2761📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageHarwan Archaeological Antiquities
What types of antiquities were recovered from the archaeological site at Harwan during the course of excavation?
Explanation
The world-famous ancient Buddhist monastic site at Harwan (excavated in the 1920s by Ram Chandra Kak near Srinagar, Kashmir) is internationally celebrated for its unique molded terracotta tiles and plaques dating from the Kushana period (c. 3rd-4th century CE). These tiles feature stamped Kharoshthi numerals, human figures in Central Asian attire, ascetics, flora, fauna, alongside ancient pottery and terracotta antiquities, now preserved in the SPS Museum Srinagar.
कश्मीर के हरवान (Harwan) पुरातात्विक स्थल (बौद्ध मठ परिसर) के उत्खनन से कुषाण काल की विशिष्ट टेराकोटा टाइलें, पकी मिट्टी की आकृतियाँ (terracotta figurines), खरोष्ठी लिपि में अंकित मुहरें/संख्याएँ और मिट्टी के बर्तन प्राप्त हुए हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2762📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePreventive vs Curative Conservation
Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes preventive conservation from curative conservation?
Explanation
As established by ICOM-CC:
- Preventive Conservation: Indirect, proactive actions carried out on the environment (climate, lighting, pest management, storage enclosures) to prevent or delay damage.
- Curative Conservation: Direct, reactive physical and chemical treatments applied to the artifact itself to halt active deterioration or repair damaged components.
निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive) पर्यावरणीय नियंत्रण (तापमान, प्रकाश आदि) द्वारा क्षति को होने से रोकता है, जबकि उपचारात्मक संरक्षण (Curative) क्षतिग्रस्त वस्तु पर सीधे मरम्मत व रासायनिक उपचार करके उसे स्थिर करता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2763📚Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageHistory of World Museums
Which of the following is considered the first public museum in the world?
Explanation
The Ashmolean Museum of Art and Archaeology at the University of Oxford, England (opened in May 1683 to house the cabinet of curiosities gifted by Elias Ashmole), is universally recognized by historians and museologists as the world's first university museum and the first purpose-built public museum accessible to the general populace upon payment of an admission fee.
विश्व का पहला सार्वजनिक संग्रहालय (First Public Museum in the World) ऑक्सफोर्ड विश्वविद्यालय, इंग्लैंड का 'अशमोलियन संग्रहालय' (The Ashmolean Museum, Oxford) माना जाता है, जिसे 1683 में एलियास अशमोल के संग्रह से स्थापित किया गया था। सही विकल्प D है।
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2764📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersIndian Photojournalism
_________ was one of the first on the scene capturing the aftermath of the gas leak from Union Carbide's pesticide plant in Bhopal, India, 1984
Explanation
Legendary photojournalist Raghu Rai (an associate of Henri Cartier-Bresson and Magnum Photos member) rushed to Bhopal immediately after the catastrophic toxic gas leak on the night of December 2–3, 1984. His haunting, world-renowned photographic documentation exposed the corporate negligence and human tragedy in his seminal book 'Exposure: A Corporate Crime'.
प्रसिद्ध फोटो पत्रकार रघु राय (Raghu Rai) 1984 में भोपाल गैस त्रासदी (यूनियन कार्बाइड) के तुरंत बाद घटनास्थल पर पहुंचे थे। उनकी मार्मिक तस्वीरों ने इस औद्योगिक त्रासदी की भयावहता को वैश्विक स्तर पर उजागर किया। सही विकल्प A है।
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2765📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersPictorial Photography Pioneers
For six decades, Pran Nath Mehra captured picturesque shots from his
Explanation
Pran Nath Mehra (1907–1983), the revered father figure of Indian salon and pictorial photography and founder of the Camera Art Institute, captured iconic landscapes and portraits across six decades using professional 35mm SLR cameras, famously his rugged Canon F-1 system.
भारतीय पिक्टोरियल फोटोग्राफी के पुरोधा प्राण नाथ मेहरा ने छह दशकों तक अपने F-1 35mm SLR कैमरे से मनमोहक दृश्य और कलात्मक चित्र खींचे। सही विकल्प A है।
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2766📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersIndian Photographers & Works
Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column - I:
1. Raghu Rai
2. Ram Rahman
3. Pushpamala N
4. Ketaki Sheth

Column - II:
i. Mother India Project
ii. Padmashree in 1972
iii. Twinspotting, a series of more than a hundred protraits of twin siblings
iv. Safdar Hashmi Memorial Trust (SAHMAT) in New Delhi in 1989

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Matching:
- 1. Raghu Rai: awarded the Padma Shri in 1972 for his historic photojournalism during the Bangladesh Liberation War −>-> ii.
- 2. Ram Rahman: co-founder of the Safdar Hashmi Memorial Trust (SAHMAT) in 1989 −>-> iv.
- 3. Pushpamala N: conceptual photo-performance artist who created the iconic 'Mother India Project' −>-> i.
- 4. Ketaki Sheth: acclaimed photographer known for 'Twinspotting', documenting twin siblings in the Patel community −>-> iii.
Matches: 1 - ii, 2 - iv, 3 - i, 4 - iii (Option A).
रघु राय को 1972 में पद्मश्री मिला (1-ii); राम रहमान 1989 में सहमत (SAHMAT) के संस्थापक सदस्य थे (2-iv); पुष्पमाला एन ने 'मदर इंडिया प्रोजेक्ट' बनाया (3-i); और केतकी सेठ 'ट्विनस्पॉटिंग' श्रृंखला के लिए प्रसिद्ध हैं (4-iii)। सही मिलान विकल्प A है।
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2767📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersIndian Photojournalism
Who is the Father of Indian photojournalism?
Explanation
T. S. Satyan (Tambarahalli Subramanya Satyan, 1923–2009) is universally revered as the 'Father of Indian Photojournalism'. He pioneered compassionate, human-interest feature photo-essays for 'The Illustrated Weekly of India', 'Life', and UNICEF over five decades.
टी.एस. सत्यन (T. S. Satyan) को 'भारतीय फोटो पत्रकारिता का जनक' (Father of Indian Photojournalism) माना जाता है। उन्होंने 'द इलस्ट्रेटेड वीकली ऑफ इंडिया' और यूनिसेफ के लिए मानवीय कहानियों को तस्वीरों में उतारा। सही विकल्प C है।
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2768📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleFilm Chemistry & Sensitivity
Panchromatic film is sensitive to
Explanation
Panchromatic black-and-white film emulsion is formulated with sensitizing dyes so that it responds to all wavelengths of the visible spectrum (blue, green, and red light) with approximately the same relative sensitivity as the human eye. (Orthochromatic film was sensitive only to blue and green, blind to red).
पैनक्रोमैटिक फिल्म (Panchromatic film) दृश्य प्रकाश के सभी रंगों (लाल, हरा और नीला) यानी समस्त दृश्य प्रकाश (all light) के प्रति संवेदनशील होती है और यथार्थवादी ग्रेस्केल टोन उत्पन्न करती है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2769📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleDigital Sensor Noise
Colour noise means:
Explanation
Color noise (chrominance noise) in digital photography is an electrical artifact/disturbance caused by sensor heat and amplification at high ISO values, manifesting as random, unwanted multicolored specks or grain across smooth areas of an image.
रंग शोर (Colour/Chrominance Noise) डिजिटल इमेज में उच्च ISO पर उत्पन्न होने वाली अवांछित बहुरंगी पिक्सल की गड़बड़ी या विक्षोभ (disturbance) है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2770📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleOptical Properties & Camera Components
Match the following and choose the correct option:
Column - I:
1) Is measured in line pair per millimetre
2) The distance between the lens's optical center and the camera's sensor
3) The eyepiece on a camera that you hold close to your eye, to allow you to see what's being photographed
4) Allow the camera to focus on near distances for large scales of reproduction

Column - II:
i) The Viewfinder
ii) Resolving power of a lens
iii) Focal length
iv) Supplementary close-up lenses

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching:
- 1) Resolving power of a lens: the optical ability to separate fine detail, quantified in line pairs per millimetre (lp/mmlp/mm) ightarrowightarrow ii.
- 2) Focal length: the optical distance from the lens's rear principal plane/center to the focal plane/sensor when focused at infinity ightarrowightarrow iii.
- 3) Viewfinder: the optical or electronic eyepiece through which the photographer frames the scene ightarrowightarrow i.
- 4) Supplementary close-up lenses (diopters): screw-on auxiliary lenses enabling closer minimum focus distances ightarrowightarrow iv.
Matching: 1 - ii, 2 - iii, 3 - i, 4 - iv (Option D).
लेंस की विभेदन क्षमता (Resolving power) को लाइन पेयर प्रति मिमी में मापा जाता है (1-ii); लेंस के केंद्र से सेंसर की दूरी को फोकल लेंथ कहते हैं (2-iii); व्यूफाइंडर आंख के पास रखकर फ्रेम देखने वाला भाग है (3-i); और सप्लीमेंट्री क्लोज-अप लेंस पास की वस्तुओं पर फोकस करने में मदद करते हैं (4-iv)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2771📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleLens Classifications
Zoom lens has a
Explanation
A zoom lens is an optical assembly whose internal elements can be shifted mechanically to provide a continuously variable focal length (and variable field of view) while maintaining focal plane sharpness throughout the zoom range.
ज़ूम लेंस (Zoom lens) में परिवर्तनीय फोकल लंबाई (Variable focal length) होती है, जिससे लेंस बदले बिना दृश्य के कोण और आवर्धन को बदला जा सकता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2772📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersAlternative Photographic Processes
_________ is a photographic image made without a camera, generally by contact printing object placed directly on the photographic paper.
Explanation
A photogram is a cameraless photographic image produced by placing objects directly onto the surface of a light-sensitive material (such as photographic paper or film emulsion) and exposing it to an overhead light source, creating silhouettes and translucent shadow gradations (famously produced by Man Ray as 'rayographs').
फोटोग्राम (Photogram) बिना कैमरे के बनाई गई तस्वीर होती है, जिसमें किसी वस्तु को सीधे संवेदनशील फोटो पेपर पर रखकर प्रकाश के संपर्क में लाया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2773📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyRules of Composition
Rule of thirds
Explanation
The Rule of Thirds is a universally taught Rule of Composition in visual art and photography. It divides an image into a 3×33 \times 3 grid using two horizontal and two vertical lines; placing visual subjects or horizons along these lines or at their four intersection points creates a balanced, compelling composition.
रूल ऑफ थर्ड्स (Rule of thirds) फोटोग्राफी में संयोजन/रचना का नियम (Rule of Composition) है, जिसमें फ्रेम को 9 बराबर आयतों में विभाजित किया जाता है और मुख्य विषयों को ग्रिड लाइनों या उनके कटाव बिंदुओं पर रखा जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2774📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleOptical Aberrations
Chromatic aberration in a lens is caused by _________
Explanation
Chromatic aberration (color fringing) occurs due to optical dispersion in the glass lens elements: different wavelengths (colors) of light have slightly different refractive indices (nblue>nredn_{blue} > n_{red}), causing blue light to bend more sharply than red light and fail to focus at the same focal plane.
लेंस में क्रोमैटिक विपथन (वर्ण विपथन / Chromatic aberration) प्रकाश के परिक्षेपण (Dispersion) के कारण होता है, क्योंकि कांच में प्रकाश के अलग-अलग रंगों की तरंग दैर्ध्य का अपवर्तनांक भिन्न-भिन्न होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2775📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleDepth of Field Control
You want to take a photo with a diffused background. Which of the following actions will accomplish this?
Explanation
To achieve a diffused, blurry out-of-focus background (shallow depth of field), you must widen the lens aperture opening, which corresponds to decreasing the f-stop number (e.g. switching from f/8f/8 to f/1.8f/1.8 or f/2f/2).
धुंधली या डिफ्यूज्ड पृष्ठभूमि (shallow depth of field) वाली तस्वीर लेने के लिए लेंस के द्वारक (एपर्चर) को बड़ा करना होगा, जिसका अर्थ है एफ-स्टॉप संख्या को कम करना (Decrease the f-stop, जैसे f/1.8f/1.8 या f/2f/2 का उपयोग)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2776📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleFocusing Systems
Both AF and MF affect what part of the photo?
Explanation
Both Autofocus (AF) and Manual Focus (MF) mechanically reposition the optical elements within the lens along the optical axis to place the plane of critical focus on the intended subject, determining the sharpness of the subject.
ऑटोफोकस (AF) और मैनुअल फोकस (MF) दोनों का मुख्य कार्य लेंस तत्वों को समायोजित करके मुख्य विषय का तीखापन / स्पष्टता (The sharpness of the subject) सुनिश्चित करना है। सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSB
2777📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TrianglePhysics of Light & Optics
Which statement is correct about laws of reflection of light:
I: The incident ray, normal ray and the reflected ray all lie in the same plane
II: The angle of reflection is always equal to the angle of incidence
III: The angle of incidence is less than the angle of reflection
IV: The incident ray and the refracted ray are parallel to each other.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
The two fundamental laws of specular reflection are:
1. The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the surface at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane (Statement I).
2. The angle of reflection is always equal to the angle of incidence (θr=θi\theta_r = \theta_i) (Statement II).
Statements III and IV are incorrect.
प्रकाश के परावर्तन के दो बुनियादी नियम हैं: 1) आपतित किरण, अभिलंब और परावर्तित किरण तीनों एक ही तल में होते हैं (कथन I); 2) परावर्तन कोण सदैव आपतन कोण के बराबर होता है (कथन II)। अतः I और II दोनों सही हैं (विकल्प A)।
2025JKSSB
2778📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleColor Temperature & White Balance
Which camera part adjusts to different lighting conditions?
Explanation
White balance adjusts the camera sensor's color processing to match the color temperature of prevailing lighting conditions (such as warm tungsten at 3200 K, daylight at 5600 K, or shade at 7500 K) so that neutral whites and colors render naturally without color casts.
व्हाइट बैलेंस (White balance) विभिन्न प्रकाश स्थितियों के रंग तापमान (Color Temperature) के अनुसार कैमरे को समायोजित करता है ताकि वस्तु का स्वाभाविक सफेद रंग सही रूप से दर्ज हो सके। सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSB
2779📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleDynamic Range & Metering
What camera settings are best for capturing shadow detail?
Explanation
To maximize shadow detail without noise or clipping:
- Lower ISO minimizes sensor noise in dark areas, while a wider aperture lets in more photons.
- Manual mode provides absolute control over the dynamic range.
- Spot metering reads luminance directly off dark target areas to expose shadows correctly.
Therefore, All of the above (Option D) is correct.
छाया विवरण (shadow detail) को सर्वोत्तम रूप से कैप्चर करने के लिए: कम ISO और चौड़ा एपर्चर; एक्सपोज़र पर पूर्ण नियंत्रण के लिए मैनुअल मोड; और छायादार क्षेत्र के सटीक मापन के लिए स्पॉट मीटरिंग का उपयोग करना चाहिए। सही विकल्प D (All of the above) है।
2025JKSSB
2780📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyFlash Photography Fundamentals
Consider the given statements and choose the most appropriate option:
I: Flash Synchronization- When shooting people with a night scene background, this mode balances the brightness so the night scene also appears in the picture.
II: Flash Exposure Compensation-is a function that allows you to correct the amount of flash set automatically by the camera just as you would adjust the exposure with Exposure Compensation
III: Effective Flash Range- The light of the flash will be weaker the farther it travels from the camera.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
All three statements are correct:
- Statement I describes slow-sync flash (dragging the shutter to balance subject flash with ambient night illumination).
- Statement II accurately defines Flash Exposure Compensation (FEC), allowing fine-tuning of automatic TTL flash output.
- Statement III reflects the inverse square law governing effective flash range (I∝1/d2I \propto 1/d^2).
तीनों कथन सही हैं: फ्लैश सिंक्रोनाइज़ेशन (स्लो-सिंक) रात के दृश्यों में विषय और पृष्ठभूमि की चमक को संतुलित करता है; फ्लैश एक्सपोज़र कंपनसेशन फ्लैश की तीव्रता को समायोजित करता है; और फ्लैश की दूरी बढ़ने पर उसकी रोशनी क्षीण होती जाती है। सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSB
2781📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Optics
Which component is responsible for focusing light in a digital camera?
Explanation
The camera lens consists of specially shaped optical glass or fluorite elements designed to refract and converge light rays coming from a subject to form a sharp, focused real image onto the sensor plane.
डिजिटल कैमरे में प्रकाश को अभिसरित और फोकस करने के लिए 'लेंस' (Lens) उत्तरदायी होता है, जो प्रकाश किरणों को मोड़कर सेंसर पर केंद्रित करता है। सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSB
2782📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleFilm Speed Standards
What emulsion speed indicator is expressed in an arithmetic form?
Explanation
The American Standards Association (ASA) rating used a purely arithmetic scale: doubling the speed number (e.g. from ASA 100 to ASA 200) represented a direct doubling of emulsion sensitivity. Conversely, the German DIN scale was logarithmic (21∘,24∘21^\circ, 24^\circ).
ASA (अमेरिकन स्टैंडर्ड्स एसोसिएशन) फिल्म संवेदनशीलता पैमाना अंकगणितीय (arithmetic) रूप में व्यक्त किया जाता था, जहाँ संख्या दोगुनी होने पर संवेदनशीलता दोगुनी हो जाती थी (जैसे ASA 100 से 200)। सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSB
2783📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleAutofocus Modes & AI
What is face detection used for in digital cameras?
Explanation
Face Detection technology uses pattern recognition algorithms to locate human faces within the frame and automatically assign autofocus (AF) points and autoexposure priority to ensure that the subject's face is sharply focused and naturally exposed.
डिजिटल कैमरों में फेस डिटेक्शन (Face detection) का उपयोग स्वचालित रूप से व्यक्ति के चेहरे को पहचानकर उस पर सटीक फोकस (automatically focus on the subject's face) और सही एक्सपोज़र करने के लिए किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSB
2784📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Modes
What does the "P" mode on a camera stand for?
Explanation
On modern camera mode dials, 'P' stands for Program Auto (Program mode). In this semi-automatic mode, the camera's computer automatically determines both the shutter speed and aperture based on metering, while leaving ISO, autofocus point, white balance, and exposure compensation under user control.
कैमरे के डायल पर 'P' का अर्थ 'प्रोग्राम मोड' (Program mode) होता है। इसमें कैमरा स्वचालित रूप से सर्वोत्तम शटर स्पीड और एपर्चर का चयन करता है, जबकि अन्य सेटिंग्स उपयोगकर्ता के नियंत्रण में रहती हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSB
2785📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleManual Exposure Controls
In manual mode, which two settings are adjusted to control exposure?
Explanation
In traditional Manual exposure mode (M), the photographer directly and independently controls the mechanical light variables: the lens aperture (f-number) and the shutter speed (duration of exposure), balancing them against a set ISO to achieve creative control over motion and depth of field.
मैनुअल मोड (M) में एक्सपोज़र को नियंत्रित करने के लिए मुख्य रूप से दो भौतिक सेटिंग्स को समायोजित किया जाता है: एपर्चर (Aperture) और शटर स्पीड (Shutter speed)। सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSB
2786📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleDigital Sensor Noise
What is "Noise" in terms of photography?
Explanation
Digital noise is visual static or corruption appearing as an unwanted, rough, grainy texture or colored speckles across a photo, caused by electronic sensor noise amplified when shooting at elevated ISO levels or in low-light conditions.
फोटोग्राफी में 'नॉइज़' (Noise) का अर्थ तस्वीर पर दिखने वाली दानेदार बनावट (Grainy texture) या अवांछित बहुरंगी धब्बे हैं, जो उच्च ISO पर सेंसर सिग्नल को बढ़ाने से उत्पन्न होते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2787📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleFocus Techniques & Lens Features
Match the following and choose the correct option:
Column - I
1. The process of adjusting the depth of field of a camera lens to bring an image into focus without relying on autofocus or other technical AI
2. Is a method of ensuring that your final image is in focus by taking multiple shots of the same frame with different focuses
3. Can skew the size of objects in your images to be much smaller than they are in real life.
4. Is a feature on some manual focus lenses that attempts to give you a measure in feet or meters of how far your focus point is from the Camera.

Column-II
i. Wide angle lens
ii. Manual focus
iii. Focus stacking
iv. Focus distance window

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching:
- 1. Manual focus: manually turning the focus ring to achieve sharp focus without autofocus −>-> ii.
- 2. Focus stacking: capturing multiple frames at progressive focus distances and digitally blending them for infinite depth of field −>-> iii.
- 3. Wide angle lens: optical perspective distortion exaggerates distance and makes objects appear smaller −>-> i.
- 4. Focus distance window: lens barrel scale indicating the focused distance in meters/feet −>-> iv.
Correct matching: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (Option B).
मैनुअल फोकस में हाथ से फोकस किया जाता है (1-ii); फोकस स्टैकिंग में अलग-अलग फोकस वाली कई तस्वीरें जोड़ते हैं (2-iii); वाइड एंगल लेंस वस्तुओं को छोटा दिखाता है (3-i); और फोकस डिस्टेंस विंडो दूरी दर्शाती है (4-iv)। सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSB
2788📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleExposure Metering Scales
Fill in the blanks in correct order:
Most cameras have a meter from -3 to +3 stops, with 0 indicating the 'correct' exposure (according to your camera). Anything to the left of 0 (in the minus) is considered to be _________ and anything to the right (in the plus) is considered to be _________
Explanation
On an in-camera light meter scale (exposure indicator bar): 0 represents standard 18% middle gray exposure. Any value to the left (negative numbers: -1, -2, -3) indicates that the image is underexposed (too dark), while values to the right (positive numbers: +1, +2, +3) indicate overexposure (too bright).
कैमरे के एक्सपोज़र मीटर पर शून्य (0) संतुलित एक्सपोज़र दर्शाता है। शून्य के बाईं ओर (माइनस) का मान कम रोशनी यानी अंडर-एक्सपोज़्ड (underexposed) और दाईं ओर (प्लस) का मान अधिक रोशनी यानी ओवर-एक्सपोज़्ड (overexposed) दर्शाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSB
2789📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Modes
In which mode does the camera choose the aperture, while the user selects the shutter speed?
Explanation
In Shutter Priority mode (labeled as 'Tv' on Canon/Pentax or 'S' on Nikon/Sony), the photographer manually selects the shutter speed (e.g. to freeze action or create motion blur), and the camera automatically calculates and adjusts the appropriate aperture.
शटर प्रायोरिटी मोड (Shutter priority mode, Tv/S) में उपयोगकर्ता शटर स्पीड चुनता है (गति को रोकने या ब्लर करने के लिए) और कैमरा स्वचालित रूप से उपयुक्त एपर्चर का चयन करता है। सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSB
2790📚History of Photography & Indian PhotographersHistory of Photography & Applications
Match the following:
Column - I
1. Product Photography
2. E-commerce businesses
3. Heliography
4. Camera obscura

Column - II
i) Commercial product photography
ii) Oldest type of photography
iii) Dark chamber
iv) White background product photography

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching:
- 1. Product Photography: commercial and catalog advertising −>-> iv / i.
- 2. E-commerce businesses: relies primarily on commercial/product photography −>-> i.
- 3. Heliography: Joseph Nicéphore Niépce's 1826 bitumen process, the oldest permanent photographic process −>-> ii.
- 4. Camera obscura: Latin for 'dark chamber', the optical precursor to the photographic camera −>-> iii.
Matches: 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii (Option B).
हीलियोग्राफी (Heliography) दुनिया की सबसे पुरानी फोटोग्राफी प्रक्रिया है (3-ii); कैमरा ऑब्स्क्योरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ 'अंधेरा कमरा' होता है (4-iii); ई-कॉमर्स और उत्पाद फोटोग्राफी का व्यावसायिक उपयोग होता है। सही मिलान विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSB
2791📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleFilters & Exposure Compensation
A photographer using a DSLR camera in manual mode adds a neutral density filter to their lens. If the lighting conditions stay the same, which of the following adjustments would ensure that the exposure is unchanged?
Explanation
A Neutral Density (ND) filter acts as sunglasses for the lens, uniformly reducing the intensity of light entering the camera. To compensate for this light loss and maintain the identical exposure without altering the aperture or shutter speed, the photographer must increase the ISO number.
न्यूट्रल डेंसिटी (ND) फिल्टर लेंस में प्रवेश करने वाले प्रकाश को कम कर देता है। समान प्रकाश में एक्सपोज़र को अपरिवर्तित रखने के लिए कैमरे का आईएसओ नंबर बढ़ाना (Increase the ISO number) होगा। सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSB
2792📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyGenres of Photography
What practice involves taking images that accurately represent real-life occurrences without manipulation?
Explanation
Candid photography (alongside authentic documentary photojournalism) captures subjects and events spontaneously as they occur in real life, without posing, prompting, staging, or manipulating the subjects or scene.
कैंडिड फोटोग्राफी (Candid photography) वास्तविक जीवन की घटनाओं को बिना किसी तैयारी, पोजिंग या हेरफेर के स्वाभाविक और प्रामाणिक रूप में कैप्चर करने की विधा है। सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSB
2793📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleFocal Length & Lens Compression
A photographer is taking images of a landscape scene with mountains in the distance. They use a specific lens to make the mountains appear closer to the foreground than they actually are. Which lens would give this effect?
Explanation
A Telephoto lens creates telephoto compression (perspective compression). By shooting from a long distance with a narrow field of view, spatial depth appears compressed, making distant background elements (like mountains) appear dramatically larger and closer to foreground subjects.
टेलीफोटो लेंस (Telephoto lens) परिप्रेक्ष्य संपीड़न (perspective compression) उत्पन्न करता है, जिससे पृष्ठभूमि में स्थित दूर के पहाड़ अग्रभूमि की वस्तुओं के बहुत करीब और बड़े दिखाई देते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSB
2794📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyGenres of Photography
_________ is all about capturing the beauty of a human subject.
Explanation
Glamour photography focuses primarily on capturing and celebrating the physical allure, elegance, and beauty of the human subject, heavily emphasizing styling, makeup, wardrobe, and flattering lighting.
ग्लैमर फोटोग्राफी (Glamour photography) का मुख्य उद्देश्य मॉडल या मानव विषय की सुंदरता, आकर्षण और शैली को सुरुचिपूर्ण प्रकाश व्यवस्था के माध्यम से प्रस्तुत करना है। सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSB
2795📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyCommercial & Event Photography
Wedding photography includes:
Explanation
Professional wedding photography workflow includes pre-wedding couple consultations, venue scouting to plan lighting, hiring a secondary photographer ('second shooter') for alternate angles, and utilizing shot-list software to guarantee key ceremonial moments are captured. Thus, All of the above (Option D) is correct.
व्यावसायिक विवाह फोटोग्राफी (Wedding photography) में जोड़े से मिलना व वेन्यू का मुआयना करना, दूसरे शूटर की व्यवस्था करना और शॉट-लिस्टिंग का उपयोग करना सभी शामिल हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2796📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyProduct Photography Basics
Basic Principles for Product Photography includes:
Explanation
Fundamental rules of commercial product photography mandate using a clean, seamless, non-distracting background (e.g. white sweep or infinity curve) and shooting from a stable tripod to ensure identical framing, sharpness, and lighting consistency across catalog collections. Thus, Both A and B (Option D) is correct.
उत्पाद फोटोग्राफी के मूलभूत सिद्धांतों में एक साफ और सुसंगत पृष्ठभूमि का उपयोग करना तथा स्थिरता और फ्रेमिंग की एकरूपता के लिए ट्राइपॉड का उपयोग करना शामिल है। सही विकल्प D (Both A and B) है।
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2797📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyProduct Photography Composition
Consider the given statements in context to Product photography:
I: The rule of odds is a useful product photography composition technique.
II: Apply differential focus to make the product pop out from the background.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both statements are true product photography techniques:
- Statement I: The 'Rule of Odds' suggests grouping products in odd numbers (such as 3 or 5), which creates a natural, balanced, visually engaging dynamic.
- Statement II: Differential focus (utilizing a shallow depth of field) keeps the product razor-sharp while blurring the background, making the item pop.
दोनों कथन सही हैं: 'रूल ऑफ ऑड्स' (विषम संख्या नियम) में 3 या 5 उत्पादों का समूह अधिक आकर्षक लगता है; और डिफरेंशियल फोकस (उथली डेप्थ ऑफ फील्ड) पृष्ठभूमि को धुंधला करके उत्पाद को उभारता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2798📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyVideo & Production Planning
Shooting script details include:
Explanation
A production shooting script is an operational breakdown detailing scene numbers, camera shot framing (wide, medium, close-up), actions and dialogue to film, and required set locations, lighting cues, and props. All of the above!
शूटिंग स्क्रिप्ट (Shooting script) में दृश्य संख्या व कैमरा शॉट, क्या शूट करना है, तथा सेट और आवश्यक प्रॉप्स (props) की पूरी विस्तृत जानकारी शामिल होती है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2799📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleColor Temperature Standards
What is the colour temperature of daylight at noon on a clear day and also the common colour temperature of flash/strobe light?
Explanation
In photographic lighting, standard average midday daylight on a clear day (and standard photographic electronic flash/strobe tubes) is calibrated to a nominal color temperature of 5500 K – 5600 K (Daylight white balance). Tungsten light is around 3200 K.
दोपहर के स्वच्छ प्राकृतिक दिन के प्रकाश और इलेक्ट्रॉनिक स्टूडियो फ्लैश की सामान्य रंग तापमान (Color Temperature) 5500 K से 5600 K (5600 K) होती है। सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSB
2800📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TrianglePortrait Focal Lengths
On a full frame 35mm DSLR camera, which of the following lenses would be best for portrait work?
Explanation
The 85mm prime lens is universally considered the ideal focal length for portrait photography on a full-frame camera. It provides a natural, flattering perspective of human facial features without perspective distortion, allows a comfortable working distance, and produces creamy background bokeh at wide apertures.
फुल-फ्रेम 35mm कैमरे पर पोर्ट्रेट फोटोग्राफी के लिए 85 मिमी (85 mm) लेंस को दुनिया भर में सर्वश्रेष्ठ माना जाता है, क्योंकि यह चेहरे के स्वाभाविक अनुपात को बनाए रखता है और सुंदर बैकग्राउंड ब्लर देता है। सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSB
2801📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyFashion Photography Genres
Consider the following statements in context to Fashion Photography:
I: Catalog Photography – these photographs are taken to showcase products to consumers.
II: High fashion - is made to capture the essence of fashion in everyday life and trends among the people out and about.
III: Street (or alternative) Fashion: big labels use this style of fashion photos where styling is at the forefront.
IV: Editorial - Many magazines use this style in their images to tell a story using images or using photos to compliment a larger text.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statements I and IV are accurate:
- Catalog photography cleanly displays apparel and accessories for direct consumer sales.
- Editorial fashion photography is narrative-driven imagery created for fashion publications (like Vogue) to accompany articles.
Statements II and III are false because their definitions are swapped: High fashion (haute couture) features avant-garde luxury label styling, whereas Street fashion captures everyday candid trends.
कथन I और IV सही हैं: कैटलॉग फोटोग्राफी उपभोक्ताओं को उत्पाद दिखाने के लिए की जाती है, और एडिटोरियल फोटोग्राफी पत्रिकाओं में कहानी सुनाने के लिए की जाती है। हाई-फैशन और स्ट्रीट-फैशन की परिभाषाएं उलट दी गई हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2802📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyLighting Modifiers - Gobos
What is the purpose of a "gobo" in lighting?
Explanation
A gobo ('Go Between' or 'Goes Before Optics') is a physical stencil, patterned cutout template, or flag placed between a light source and the set to project patterned light, cast realistic window or foliage shadows, or selectively shield parts of the scene from unwanted illumination.
गोबो (Gobo) एक ऐसा पैटर्न या टेम्पलेट है जिसे प्रकाश स्रोत के आगे रखकर छाया, खिड़की की जाली या पत्तों जैसी बनावट (textures) और आकृतियाँ प्रोजेक्ट करने या अवांछित प्रकाश को रोकने के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2803📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyStudio Light Sources
Different types of light sources commonly used in photography and videography are:
Explanation
Photographers and videographers employ diverse artificial light sources depending on the assignment: continuous tungsten-halogen and balanced fluorescent lamps, cool and dimmable LED light panels, and powerful xenon electronic flash/strobe units. All of these!
फोटोग्राफी और वीडियोग्राफी में टंगस्टन और फ्लोरोसेंट बल्ब, आधुनिक एलईडी लाइट्स (LEDs), और इलेक्ट्रॉनिक फ्लैश यूनिट्स सभी सामान्य रूप से उपयोग किए जाने वाले प्रकाश स्रोत हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2804📚Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyVisual Design & Composition
Elements-like lines, colors or shapes, that are repeated over and over in a planned way creates a _________
Explanation
In visual design and photographic composition, repeating visual elements—such as geometric shapes, parallel lines, textures, or color accents—in a structured, rhythmic manner creates a Pattern.
दृश्य संयोजन में जब रेखाओं, रंगों या आकृतियों जैसे तत्वों को योजनाबद्ध तरीके से बार-बार दोहराया जाता है, तो उसे 'पैटर्न' (Pattern) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2805📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsOrbital Mechanics & Kepler's Laws
A planet's orbit is an ellipse with the Sun at one focus. What happens if the eccentricity of the orbit becomes very close to 1?
Explanation
The orbital eccentricity ee measures deviation from circularity: e=0e = 0 is a circle, 0<e<10 < e < 1 is an ellipse, and as e→1e \to 1, the ellipse becomes highly elongated and flattened with the apoapsis moving far from the periapsis.
कक्षा की उत्केंद्रता (eccentricity) ee: e=0e = 0 पर कक्षा पूर्ण वृत्त होती है, और जैसे-जैसे e→1e \to 1 होता है, दीर्घवृत्ताकार कक्षा अत्यधिक लंबी और संकीर्ण (highly elongated) हो जाती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2806📚Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationTDMA & Cellular Capacity
A TDMA system uses a 25 MHz bandwidth for the forward link, with radio channels of 200 kHz each. The system supports 8 speech channels per radio channel. However, synchronization overhead, guard bands, and control channels together consume 15% of the total bandwidth. How many simultaneous users can the system accommodate?
Explanation
Total nominal channels =25 MHz/200 kHz=25000/200=125= 25\text{ MHz} / 200\text{ kHz} = 25000 / 200 = 125 radio channels. Each supports 8 speech channels −>125×8=1000-> 125 \times 8 = 1000 total potential user channels. Deducting 15% overhead: 1000×(1−0.15)=8501000 \times (1 - 0.15) = 850 simultaneous users.
कुल रेडियो चैनल =25000/200=125= 25000 / 200 = 125। कुल स्लॉट =125×8=1000= 125 \times 8 = 1000। 15% ओवरहेड घटाने पर: 1000×0.85=8501000 \times 0.85 = 850 समकालिक उपयोगकर्ता। सही विकल्प B है।
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2807📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsIndian Satellite Programs
Match the following satellites with their correct descriptions:
List-I:
(w) Bhaskara-I
(x) Insat-1B
(y) GSAT-7
(z) RISAT-1

List-II:
(i) A geostationary satellite launched in 1983 as part of the Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) to enhance telecommunications and TV broadcasting.
(ii) A radar imaging satellite used for all-weather surveillance and reconnaissance applications.
(iii) A remote sensing satellite launched for Earth observation, primarily focusing on land and water resources.
(iv) A military communication satellite designed to enhance naval operations with secure and dedicated communication channels.

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching:
- (w) Bhaskara-I: India's early experimental low Earth orbit remote sensing satellite launched in 1979 −>-> (iii).
- (x) INSAT-1B: operational geostationary communication/weather satellite launched in 1983 −>-> (i).
- (y) GSAT-7 (Rukmini): dedicated military satellite for Indian Navy −>-> (iv).
- (z) RISAT-1: active Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) imaging satellite −>-> (ii).
Matches: (w)-(iii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(ii) (Option B).
भास्कर-I पृथ्वी अवलोकन सुदूर संवेदी उपग्रह है (iii); इनसैट-1B दूरसंचार/टीवी उपग्रह 1983 (i); जीसैट-7 नौसेना संचार उपग्रह (iv); और रीसैट-1 रडार इमेजिंग उपग्रह (ii)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2808📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsHistory of Space Research in India
In which Indian city was the first experimental satellite telecommunication earth station established in 1967, playing a key role in early space research and projects like SITE?
Explanation
In 1967, Dr. Vikram Sarabhai established the Experimental Satellite Communication Earth Station (ESCES) at Ahmedabad, Gujarat. It trained engineers from India and developing nations and served as the primary transmission hub for the landmark Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) in 1975–76.
1967 में भारत का पहला प्रायोगिक उपग्रह संचार भू-केंद्र (ESCES) अहमदाबाद (गुजरात) में डॉ. विक्रम साराभाई द्वारा स्थापित किया गया था, जिसने SITE परियोजना में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई। सही विकल्प C है।
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2809📚Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringRF Testing & Impedance Matching
Which of the following tests can be used to detect power loss due to mismatches in impedance between the antenna and the transmission line?
Explanation
The Return Loss test (measured in dB using a vector network analyzer or SWR meter) directly quantifies the proportion of power reflected back toward the transmitter due to impedance discontinuities between the feeder transmission line and the antenna (RL=−20log⁡10∣Γ∣RL = -20\log_{10}|\Gamma|).
प्रतिबाधा बेमेल (Impedance mismatch) के कारण परावर्तित शक्ति और हानि को मापने के लिए रिटर्न लॉस टेस्ट (Return Loss Test / VSWR) का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2810📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsTT&C Subsystems
Which of the following is true regarding the role of tracking, telemetry, and control (TT&C) equipment in Earth stations?
Explanation
TT&C (Tracking, Telemetry, and Command) ground station subsystems perform satellite house-keeping: Tracking locates and tracks satellite orbit; Telemetry monitors internal sensor parameters (voltages, temperatures, battery health); and Command issues instructions to execute orbital station-keeping and attitude reorientation.
TT&C (ट्रैकिंग, टेलीमेट्री और कमांड) स्टेशन उपग्रह के स्वास्थ्य मापदंडों (तापमान, वोल्टेज) की निगरानी और उसकी कक्षा व अभिविन्यास (orientation) को समायोजित करने के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2811📚Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationError Correction Coding
In a Digital TV (DTV) system, which scheme is used to minimize errors in the transmitted signal caused by channel noise and interference?
Explanation
DTV standards (such as DVB-T and ATSC) utilize Reed-Solomon (RS) forward error correction block codes (often concatenated with convolutional/Viterbi codes) as the outer code to correct burst errors introduced by channel noise. Huffman and LZW are lossless compression codes, not channel error correction.
डिजिटल टीवी (DTV) में चैनल शोर के कारण होने वाली त्रुटियों को ठीक करने के लिए रीड-सोलोमन कोडिंग (Reed-Solomon Coding) का व्यापक उपयोग किया जाता है। हफमैन और LZW डेटा संपीड़न कोड हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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2812📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsAttitude and Orbit Control (AOCS)
Which of the following attitude control methods is most commonly used for precise satellite orientation without using propellant?
Explanation
Reaction wheels (and momentum wheels) are electrically driven flywheels that exchange angular momentum with the spacecraft body, enabling high-precision three-axis attitude pointing and slewing without expending consumable chemical propellant.
बिना किसी प्रणोदक (ईंधन) का उपयोग किए उपग्रह के सटीक तीन-अक्षीय अभिविन्यास के लिए 'रिएक्शन व्हील्स' (Reaction wheels) का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2813📚Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringMATV & Broadcast Distribution
What is the primary function of a Master Antenna TV system?
Explanation
A Master Antenna Television (MATV) system connects an optimally positioned single central master antenna array to an RF amplifier and coaxial distribution network to deliver broadcast signals to multiple TV receivers across an apartment building or hotel.
मास्टर एंटीना टीवी (MATV) प्रणाली का मुख्य कार्य एक केंद्रीय एंटीना से किसी इमारत या परिसर के कई टीवी रिसीवरों तक सिग्नलों को वितरित करना होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2814📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsThermal Design in Electronics
Why is thermal control important in electronic and electrical systems? Choose the correct option:
I. It prevents overheating and component damage.
II. It enhances the efficiency and lifespan of devices.
III. It increases power consumption and heat generation.
IV. It ensures stable performance under varying temperatures.
Explanation
Thermal control manages heat dissipation to protect semiconductor junctions from burnout (I), reduces thermal degradation to increase device longevity and operational efficiency (II), and prevents thermal drift to maintain electrical stability (IV). Statement III is a detrimental consequence of failure, not a goal of thermal management.
इलेक्ट्रॉनिक प्रणालियों में थर्मल नियंत्रण घटक क्षति को रोकता है (I), दक्षता और जीवनकाल बढ़ाता है (II), और विभिन्न तापमानों पर स्थिर प्रदर्शन सुनिश्चित करता है (IV)। सही विकल्प A है।
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2815📚Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationCDMA Capacity & Performance
In a CDMA system, the voice activity interference reduction factor (VAF) is 3, the antenna sectorization gain (ASG) is 2, and the interference increase factor (IIF) is 2. How much is the performance improvement factor (PIF) based on these parameters?
Explanation
In spread spectrum CDMA capacity analysis, the overall performance improvement factor is given by PIF=VAF×ASGIIF=3×22=3.00\text{PIF} = \frac{\text{VAF} \times \text{ASG}}{\text{IIF}} = \frac{3 \times 2}{2} = 3.00.
सीडीएमए (CDMA) प्रणाली में प्रदर्शन सुधार कारक: PIF=VAF×ASGIIF=3×22=3.00\text{PIF} = \frac{\text{VAF} \times \text{ASG}}{\text{IIF}} = \frac{3 \times 2}{2} = 3.00। सही विकल्प C है।
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2816📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite DAMA Protocols
Which of the following is a key difference between the Polling Method and the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method in Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA)?
I. In the Polling Method, the master station only responds to requests from earth stations, whereas in the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method, the master station constantly checks the availability of slots.
II. The polling Method involves the master station sequentially polling all earth stations for call requests, while the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method allows earth stations to request slots directly, with the master station allocating them when available.
III. The Polling Method allows earth stations to request slots at any time, while the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method has a fixed polling schedule.
IV. In the Polling Method, earth stations must queue their requests when slots are unavailable, whereas, in the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method, requests are denied immediately.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement II accurately states the foundational operational distinction in satellite DAMA protocols: in Polling, the central hub sequentially queries each station in a deterministic round-robin cycle, whereas in Centrally Controlled Random Access (such as slotted ALOHA request channels), earth stations asynchronously transmit slot requests on demand.
कथन II सही अंतर स्पष्ट करता है: पोलिंग विधि में मास्टर स्टेशन क्रमिक रूप से सभी स्टेशनों से कॉल अनुरोध पूछता है, जबकि रैंडम एक्सेस विधि में अर्थ स्टेशन स्लॉट का अनुरोध सीधे भेजते हैं और मास्टर स्टेशन उपलब्ध होने पर आवंटित करता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2817📚Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationPacket Formatting & Protocols
Specify the correct order of various fields listed below in a data packet:
I. Payload
II. FEC
III. Preamble
IV. Header
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
A standard digital communications transmission frame is sequenced as:
1. Preamble (III): bit/symbol synchronization sequence.
2. Header (IV): addresses, packet length, protocol control flags.
3. Payload (I): actual user data.
4. FEC / Trailer (II): error detection and forward error correction parity bits (e.g. CRC/checksum).
Correct sequence: III -> IV -> I -> II (Option D).
डेटा पैकेट का सही क्रम: प्रिएंबल (III - सिंक्रोनाइज़ेशन) −>-> हेडर (IV - पता व नियंत्रण) −>-> पेलोड (I - मुख्य डेटा) −>-> FEC (II - त्रुटि सुधार)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2818📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsHowland Current Source
The load current ILI_L shown in the following op-amp circuit is:
(Circuit is a Howland Current Source with matched resistors R1R_1 and R2R_2)
Explanation
The Howland Current Pump converts an input voltage into a load-independent constant current. For the balanced resistor network with inverting input driven by vsv_s, the load current is IL=−vsR1I_L = -\frac{v_s}{R_1} or −vsR2-\frac{v_s}{R_2} (Option A: −vs/R2-v_s/R_2).
हॉलैंड करंट सोर्स (Howland Current Source) परिपथ में लोड धारा लोड प्रतिरोध से स्वतंत्र होती है तथा इसका मान −vs/R2-v_s / R_2 होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2819📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsKepler's First Law
Which of the following law states that "The orbit of any planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one focus"?
Explanation
Kepler's First Law of Planetary Motion (the Law of Ellipses, formulated in 1609) states that every planet moves in an elliptical orbit with the Sun situated at one of the two foci.
केप्लर का प्रथम नियम (दीर्घवृत्त का नियम) बताता है कि प्रत्येक ग्रह सूर्य के चारों ओर एक दीर्घवृत्ताकार कक्षा में चक्कर लगाता है, जिसके एक फोकस पर सूर्य स्थित होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2820📚Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringHalf-Power Beamwidth (HPBW)
For a Hertz dipole antenna, the half-power beam width in the E-plane is:
Explanation
The field radiation pattern of an infinitesimal Hertzian dipole in the E-plane is proportional to sin⁡θ\sin\theta. The half-power points occur at sin⁡2θ=0.5  ⟹  θ=45∘\sin^2\theta = 0.5 \implies \theta = 45^\circ and 135∘135^\circ. The Half-Power Beamwidth (HPBW) is 135∘−45∘=90∘135^\circ - 45^\circ = 90^\circ.
हर्ट्ज़ डायपोल का E-प्लेन में रेडिएशन पैटर्न sin⁡θ\sin\theta होता है। हाफ-पावर बीम विड्थ (HPBW) 135∘−45∘=90∘135^\circ - 45^\circ = 90^\circ होती है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2821📚Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringAperture & Slot Antennas
Consider the following statement :
Statement (I): The radiation pattern of a slot antenna is similar to that of a dipole with plane reflection.
Statement (II): A slot antenna has a much higher gain than that of a horn antenna.
Which of the above statements are true?
Explanation
By Babinet's Principle, a thin slot antenna in a conducting plane is the dual of a dipole antenna, exhibiting a similar dipole-like radiation pattern with swapped E and H fields (Statement I is true). Horn antennas offer substantial directional gains (15−25 dBi15-25\text{ dBi}), far exceeding simple slot antennas (2−3 dBi2-3\text{ dBi}), making Statement II completely false.
बेबिने के सिद्धांत के अनुसार स्लॉट एंटीना का पैटर्न द्विध्रुव के सदृश होता है (I सत्य है)। हॉर्न एंटीना का गेन स्लॉट एंटीना से काफी अधिक होता है, अतः कथन II असत्य है। सही विकल्प D है।
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2822📚Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringLog-Periodic Antennas
Consider the following statement :
Statement (I): Log-periodic antenna has a broad bandwidth
Statement (II): Log-periodic antenna is designed with a series of dipole elements of varying lengths, where each element resonates at a different frequency
Which of the above statements are true?
Explanation
A log-periodic dipole array (LPDA) is a frequency-independent antenna with multi-octave broad bandwidth (Statement I). It achieves this because its active resonant zone shifts smoothly along the graduated array of dipole elements as frequency changes (Statement II is true and the exact physical explanation).
लॉग-पीरियोडिक एंटीना की बैंडविड्थ अत्यधिक विस्तृत होती है (I), क्योंकि यह विभिन्न लंबाइयों के द्विध्रुव तत्वों से बना होता है जो अलग-अलग आवृत्तियों पर अनुनादित होते हैं (II सत्य व सही व्याख्या है)। सही विकल्प B है।
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2823📚Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringAntenna Radiation Patterns
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List -I (Antennas):
(w) Simple dipole
(x) Omni-directional antenna
(y) Loop antenna

List-II (Radiation Pattern):
(i) Circular pattern (circle)
(ii) Figure-8 pattern (horizontal lobes)
(iii) Figure-8 pattern / circular cross section
Explanation
In antenna 2D azimuth/elevation cuts: A dipole has a figure-eight directional pattern in the elevation plane (ii); an omni-directional antenna produces a uniform circular circle in the azimuthal plane (i); and an electrically small loop antenna has a figure-8 null pattern (iii). Matching: (w)-(ii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iii) (Option D).
सिंपल डायपोल का पैटर्न फिगर-8 होता है (ii); ओमनी-डायरेक्शनल एंटीना का पैटर्न गोलाकार/समान (i) होता है। सही मिलान विकल्प D है।
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2824📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsSemiconductor Physics
Consider the following statement:
Pure germanium and pure silicon are examples of:
I. Direct bandgap semiconductors
II. Indirect bandgap semiconductors
III. Degenerate semiconductors
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Silicon (Si, bandgap 1.12 eV) and Germanium (Ge, bandgap 0.66 eV) are classic indirect bandgap semiconductors: the conduction band minimum and valence band maximum occur at different crystal momentum values (kk), requiring a phonon (lattice vibration) for electron transitions. (GaAs is a direct bandgap semiconductor).
शुद्ध सिलिकॉन और जर्मेनियम 'अप्रत्यक्ष बैंडगैप अर्धचालक' (Indirect bandgap semiconductors) के उदाहरण हैं, क्योंकि इनमें चालन बैंड न्यूनतम और संयोजी बैंड अधिकतम भिन्न संवेग मानों पर होते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2825📚Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringPhysical Constants & Units
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List -I (Parameter):
(w) Boltzmann constant
(x) Permeability of free space
(y) Permittivity of free space
(z) Mobility

List-II (Unit):
(i) Farad/meter
(ii) cm^2/volt-second
(iii) Henry/meter
(iv) cm^3/second
(v) Electron volt/Kelvin

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching:
- (w) Boltzmann constant (kk): J/K\text{J/K} or eV/K\text{eV/K} −>-> (v).
- (x) Permeability of free space (μ0\mu_0): Henry per meter (H/m) −>-> (iii).
- (y) Permittivity of free space (ϵ0\epsilon_0): Farad per meter (F/m) −>-> (i).
- (z) Carrier mobility (μ\mu): cm2/(V⋅s)\text{cm}^2/(\text{V}\cdot\text{s}) −>-> (ii).
Matches: (w)-(v), (x)-(iii), (y)-(i), (z)-(ii) (Option C).
बोल्ट्जमैन स्थिरांक: eV/K (v); चुंबकशीलता (μ0\mu_0): हेनरी/मीटर (iii); परावैद्युतांक (ϵ0\epsilon_0): फैराड/मीटर (i); और गतिशीलता: cm2/(V⋅s)\text{cm}^2/(\text{V}\cdot\text{s}) (ii)। सही विकल्प C है।
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2826📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsGPS Principles & Trilateration
How many satellites are required for a GPS receiver to determine a precise 3D position (latitude, longitude, and altitude)?
Explanation
A GPS receiver solves for four unknowns: three spatial coordinates (x,y,zx, y, z for latitude, longitude, altitude) and the receiver's local clock time bias (Δt\Delta t). Therefore, pseudo-range signals from a minimum of 4 non-co-planar satellites are mathematically required.
जीपीएस (GPS) रिसीवर को सटीक 3D स्थिति (अक्षांश, देशांतर और ऊंचाई) तथा घड़ी की त्रुटि को हल करने के लिए कम से कम 4 उपग्रहों (4 satellites) की आवश्यकता होती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2827📚Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & MicrocontrollersLogic Circuit Analysis
For the logic circuit given below, what is the simplified Boolean function?
(Circuit shows inputs A and B fed into a gate, with output combined with C to form Boolean function)
Explanation
Tracing the gate network: Inputs AA and BB enter an AND gate producing ABAB, which is fed into an OR gate along with input CC, resulting in the output expression X=AB+CX = AB + C.
तर्क परिपथ में AA और BB का AND ऑपरेशन होकर ABAB बनता है, जिसे CC के साथ OR गेट में देने पर अंतिम आउटपुट X=AB+CX = AB + C प्राप्त होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2828📚Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsResistor Networks - Cube Symmetry
Twelve 1\Omega resistors are arranged along the edges of a cube. The resistance between two diagonally opposite corners of the cube is:
Explanation
For a cube of 12 equal resistors of resistance RR along its edges, current injected at one corner splits symmetrically into 3 edges (R/3R/3), then into 6 edges (R/6R/6), and rejoins through 3 edges (R/3R/3). Equivalent resistance across the body diagonal: Req=R3+R6+R3=56R=56 ΩR_{eq} = \frac{R}{3} + \frac{R}{6} + \frac{R}{3} = \frac{5}{6}R = \frac{5}{6}\text{ }\Omega.
घन के 12 किनारों पर लगे 1 Ω1\,\Omega के प्रतिरोधकों का मुख्य विकर्ण के सम्मुख कोनों के बीच तुल्य प्रतिरोध: Req=R3+R6+R3=56 ΩR_{eq} = \frac{R}{3} + \frac{R}{6} + \frac{R}{3} = \frac{5}{6}\,\Omega होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2829📚Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & MicrocontrollersParallel Computer Architectures
A parallel computer is divided into which of the following architectural configurations?
I. Array processors
II. Data processors
III. Multi-processor system
IV. Pipeline computers
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
According to Michael J. Flynn and Kai Hwang's parallel computing taxonomy, parallel computer architectures are classified into: Pipelined computers (temporal parallelism, IV), Array processors (SIMD synchronous spatial parallelism, I), and Multiprocessor systems (MIMD shared/distributed memory systems, III).
समानांतर कंप्यूटर वास्तुकला (Parallel computing) को मुख्य रूप से तीन श्रेणियों में बांटा जाता है: ऐरे प्रोसेसर (I), मल्टी-प्रोसेसर सिस्टम (III), और पाइपलाइन कंप्यूटर (IV)। सही विकल्प D है।
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2830📚Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & MicrocontrollersSemiconductor Memories - ROM
Consider the following statements:
I. The process of entering data is called burning in ROM
II. ROMs are used in microcontroller security systems
III. ROMs are volatile memories
Which of the below statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and II are correct: programming data into a ROM or PROM involves blowing microscopic fusible links or programming floating gates, colloquially termed 'burning'. ROMs store permanent firmware in microcontrollers. Statement III is completely FALSE because ROM is by definition non-volatile (retains data when power is removed).
ROM में डेटा लिखने की प्रक्रिया को 'बर्निंग' (burning) कहा जाता है (I), और यह माइक्रोकंट्रोलर फर्मवेयर में उपयोग होती है (II)। कथन III असत्य है क्योंकि ROM गैर-वाष्पशील (non-volatile) मेमोरी होती है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2831📚Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & Microcontrollers8051 Microcontroller Memory Organization
How many bytes of bit addressable memory is present in 8051-based microcontrollers?
Explanation
In the 8051 microcontroller internal RAM, the bit-addressable RAM area spans byte addresses 20H20\text{H} to 2FH2\text{F}\text{H} (a total of 16 bytes), containing 128 individually addressable bits (bit addresses 00H00\text{H} to 7FH7\text{F}\text{H}).
8051 माइक्रोकंट्रोलर की आंतरिक रैम में बाइट एड्रेस 20H से 2FH तक कुल 16 बाइट्स (16 bytes) बिट-एड्रेसेबल मेमोरी होती है, जिसमें 128 व्यक्तिगत बिट्स होते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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2832📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationVegetative Erosion Control
Which of the following statements are correct?
i. Vegetation decreases soil erosion by holding soil particles together
ii. Vegetation reduces soil erosion by reducing raindrop impact
iii. Vegetation decreases soil erosion by decreasing infiltration rate
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Statement i is correct because extensive plant root networks bind soil particles together mechanically. Statement ii is correct because plant canopies intercept falling raindrops, dissipating their kinetic energy. Statement iii is incorrect because vegetation increases (not decreases) soil infiltration rates by creating root channels/macropores and improving organic matter content.
कथन i सही है क्योंकि पौधों की जड़ें मिट्टी के कणों को बाँधकर रखती हैं। कथन ii सही है क्योंकि वनस्पति की छतरी वर्षा की बूंदों के आघात को धीमा कर देती है। कथन iii गलत है क्योंकि वनस्पति मिट्टी की अंतःस्यंदन दर को बढ़ाती है (घटाती नहीं)। अतः केवल i और ii सही हैं (विकल्प C)।
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2833📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationGully Control Structures
Brush dam is a
Explanation
Gully control structures are classified into temporary structures and permanent structures. Temporary structures include brushwood dams (single post or double post brush dams), loose rock dams, and woven wire dams, which stabilize gully channels until protective vegetation is established. Permanent structures include drop spillways and chute spillways.
ब्रश डैम (Brush dam/झाड़ीदार बांध) एक 'अस्थायी अवनालिका नियंत्रण संरचना' (Temporary gully control structure) है, जिसका उपयोग अवनालिका (Gully) में पानी के वेग को धीमा करने और गाद जमा करने के लिए तब तक किया जाता है जब तक कि स्थायी वनस्पति न उग जाए। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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2834📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationHydraulics of Water Erosion
When slope of a land is increased four times the erosive capacity of flowing water is
Explanation
According to principles of soil conservation hydraulics: (1) Velocity of runoff is proportional to the square root of slope (v∝S1/2v \propto S^{1/2}); if slope increases 4 times, velocity is doubled (2×2\times). (2) The erosive power / erosive capacity of flowing water varies as the square of velocity (v2∝Sv^2 \propto S), so doubling velocity increases erosive capacity by 4 times (22=42^2 = 4). (Note: carrying capacity varies as v5=32×v^5 = 32\times, and size of particles pushed varies as v6=64×v^6 = 64\times). Hence, erosive capacity increases four times.
मृदा संरक्षण यांत्रिकी के अनुसार, ढलान (Slope) 4 गुना होने पर अपवाह का वेग दोगुना (v∝Sv \propto \sqrt{S}) हो जाता है। बहते जल की अपरदन क्षमता (Erosive capacity) वेग के वर्ग (v2v^2) के समानुपाती होती है, अतः अपरदन क्षमता 22=42^2 = 4 गुना बढ़ जाती है (विकल्प B)। (कणों को ले जाने की क्षमता 32 गुना तथा सबसे बड़े कण का आकार 64 गुना बढ़ता है)।
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2835📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationRainwater Harvesting Techniques
The method of collecting surface runoff from a small catchment area and storing it in the root zone of an adjacent infiltration basin is known as
Explanation
Micro-catchment water harvesting (in-situ rainwater harvesting) involves collecting overland surface runoff from a short catchment slope (< 1000 m2\text{m}^2) and directing it immediately to an adjacent cropped planting basin or infiltration pit where it is stored directly in the crop root zone.
छोटे जलग्रहण क्षेत्र से सतह के अपवाह को एकत्रित करके उसे पास के अंतःस्यंदन बेसिन में सीधे पौधों की जड़ क्षेत्र (Root zone) में संचित करने की विधि 'सूक्ष्म-जलग्रहण जल संचयन' (Micro-catchment water harvesting) कहलाती है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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2836📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationRemote Sensing & GIS Applications
Which of the following statements are correct?
i. Remote sensing is the technique of collecting data about Earth's surface using aerial or satellite sensors.
ii. Geographic Information Systems is a computer-based tool for capturing, analysing, and presenting spatial data.
Options:
Explanation
Statement i correctly defines Remote Sensing (RS): obtaining reliable information about objects or the Earth's surface from a distance using electromagnetic radiation sensors aboard aircraft or satellites. Statement ii correctly defines Geographic Information System (GIS): a computerized system designed to capture, store, manipulate, analyze, manage, and present all types of geographically referenced (spatial) data. Both statements are correct.
कथन i सुदूर संवेदन (Remote Sensing) की सही परिभाषा है (हवाई जहाज या उपग्रह सेंसर का उपयोग करके पृथ्वी की सतह का डेटा एकत्र करना)। कथन ii भौगोलिक सूचना प्रणाली (GIS) की सही परिभाषा है (स्थानिक डेटा का विश्लेषण और प्रबंधन करने वाला कंप्यूटर आधारित उपकरण)। अतः दोनों कथन सही हैं (विकल्प C)।
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2837📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationGully Control Spillways
Which of the following is a permanent gully control structure?
Explanation
Drop spillway is a rigid, permanent weir structure constructed of reinforced concrete, masonry, or steel at the head or gradient of a gully to safely lower runoff water without channel degradation. Woven wire dams and loose rock dams are temporary structures.
ड्रॉप स्पिलवे (Drop spillway) कंक्रीट या चिनाई से बनी एक 'स्थायी अवनालिका नियंत्रण संरचना' (Permanent gully control structure) है जो पानी को बिना कटाव के सुरक्षित नीचे गिराती है। जबकि बुने हुए तार वाले बांध और ढीले पत्थर वाले बांध अस्थायी संरचनाएं हैं। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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2838📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationStages of Gully Development
The stage in which vegetation starts growing in the gully is known as
Explanation
According to Ireland et al., gully development proceeds through four stages: Stage 1 (Formation - downward scour), Stage 2 (Development - headward erosion and rapid deepening), Stage 3 (Healing - natural vegetation begins to establish on the gully bed and sides), Stage 4 (Stabilization - stable slope angle achieved and vegetation fully covers the channel). Hence, vegetation starts in the Healing stage.
अवनालिका (Gully) विकास के चार चरण होते हैं: निर्माण चरण, विकास चरण, उपशमन/सुधार चरण (Healing stage) और स्थिरीकरण चरण। वह चरण जिसमें अवनालिका में वनस्पति उगना शुरू होती है, 'हीलिंग स्टेज' (Healing stage) कहलाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2839📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationLand Slope & Engineering Measures
Which of the following soil conservation structure is suitable for the land having a slope of 6%?
Explanation
Contour bunding is officially recommended for agricultural lands with gentle slopes up to 6% in semi-arid and permeable soil tracts. For steeper slopes (typically above 16% to 33%), bench terracing is employed. Hence, for a 6% slope, contour bund is the suitable structure.
6% तक की ढलान वाली कृषि भूमि और कम वर्षा वाले क्षेत्रों के लिए 'समोच्च मेड़बंदी' (Contour bund) सबसे उपयुक्त मृदा संरक्षण संरचना है। 16% से 33% की तीव्र ढलानों पर सीढ़ीदार खेत (Bench terrace) बनाए जाते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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2840📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationEarth Observation Satellites
LANDSAT is a satellite series of
Explanation
Landsat is the world's longest-running continuous civilian Earth-observing satellite program, jointly managed and launched by NASA and the USGS (United States of America), beginning with Landsat 1 in 1972.
लैंडसैट (LANDSAT) संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका (USA - NASA एवं USGS) की सुदूर संवेदन पृथ्वी अवलोकन उपग्रह श्रृंखला है, जिसकी शुरुआत 1972 में हुई थी। अतः सही उत्तर USA (विकल्प B) है।
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2841📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationCrop Water Requirement
Crop coefficient is a ratio of
Explanation
In the FAO Penman-Monteith methodology, the crop coefficient (KcK_c) is defined as the ratio of the actual crop evapotranspiration (ETcET_c) to the standardized reference crop evapotranspiration (ET0ET_0): Kc=ETcET0K_c = \frac{ET_c}{ET_0}.
फसल गुणांक (Crop coefficient - KcK_c) किसी विशिष्ट फसल के वाष्पोत्सर्जन (ETcET_c) और संदर्भ फसल वाष्पोत्सर्जन (ET0ET_0) का अनुपात होता है (Kc=ETc/ET0K_c = ET_c / ET_0)। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A है।
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2842📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationMicro-Irrigation & Fertigation
Which of the following are correct related to fertigation?
i. Even distribution of nutrients throughout the root zone
ii. Not suited for semi-arid regions
iii. It is very sensitive to clogging
iv. Nutrients are available to plants when and where required
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Fertigation (injecting soluble fertilizers through irrigation systems, especially drip) achieves uniform nutrient distribution directly in the root zone (i is correct), is highly sensitive to emitter clogging by chemical precipitates (iii is correct), and delivers nutrients directly at crop demand stages (iv is correct). Statement ii is false because fertigation is extraordinarily well-suited for water-scarce semi-arid regions. Hence, i, iii, and iv are correct.
फर्टिगेशन (सिंचाई जल के साथ उर्वरक देना) में पोषक तत्वों का जड़ क्षेत्र में समान वितरण होता है (i सही), ड्रिप उत्सर्जकों में रुकावट/क्लॉगिंग का जोखिम रहता है (iii सही), तथा पौधों को समय पर पोषक तत्व मिलते हैं (iv सही)। यह अर्ध-शुष्क क्षेत्रों के लिए अत्यंत उपयोगी है, अतः कथन ii गलत है। सही विकल्प D (i, iii and iv only) है।
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2843📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationUnderground Pipe Distribution Systems
Hydrant is a component of
Explanation
In agricultural pipe network distribution, a Hydrant (riser outlet valve) is an essential component of an Underground Pipeline System. Installed at intervals along buried pipelines, hydrants allow portable surface pipes, gated pipes, or sprinkler laterals to be coupled for releasing pressurized water to the fields.
कृषि जल वितरण में 'हाइड्रेंट' (Hydrant) 'भूमिगत पाइपलाइन प्रणाली' (Underground pipeline system) का एक प्रमुख घटक है। यह भूमिगत मुख्य पाइप से खेत की सतह पर पानी निकालने का वाल्व/आउटलेट होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2844📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationSurface Drainage Layouts
Surface drainage systems are usually applied in
Explanation
Surface drainage systems (such as parallel ditch systems, bedding systems, and shallow surface drains) are primarily installed on flat lands (topographic slope < 2%) where surface water tends to pond due to slow overland runoff and low infiltration capacity.
सतही जल निकास प्रणालियां (Surface drainage systems) आमतौर पर 'समतल भूमियों' (Flat lands - ढलान 2% से कम) में लागू की जाती हैं जहाँ कम प्राकृतिक ढलान के कारण पानी जमा होकर जलभराव पैदा करता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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2845📚Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationSpate Irrigation & Water Management
Irrigation consists of watering terraced fields by diverting flood flows into them is Known as
Explanation
Spate irrigation (floodwater harvesting) is an ancient, specialized water management practice in arid mountainous environments where seasonal spate flood flows from ephemeral streams or wadis are diverted into bunded terraced fields for crop production.
मौसमी पहाड़ी नालों या नदियों से आने वाली बाढ़ के पानी (Flood flows) को मोड़कर सीढ़ीदार खेतों में सिंचाई करने की पारंपरिक पद्धति को 'स्पेट सिंचाई' (Spate irrigation) कहा जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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2846📚Workshop Technology & Machine ToolsAdvanced Welding Technologies
Welding method suitable for industries like aerospace and car manufacturing is called
Explanation
Electron Beam Welding (EBW) and Laser Beam Welding (LBW) deliver extremely high energy density, narrow heat-affected zones (HAZ), deep penetration, and virtually zero thermal distortion, making them standard for high-precision components in aerospace and automotive/car manufacturing.
एयरोस्पेस और ऑटोमोबाइल (कार निर्माण) जैसे उच्च परिशुद्धता वाले उद्योगों के लिए 'इलेक्ट्रॉन बीम और लेजर वेल्डिंग' (Electron Beam and Laser Welding) सबसे उपयुक्त विधियां हैं क्योंकि ये अत्यंत संकीर्ण वेल्ड जोड़ और न्यूनतम विकृति (Zero distortion) प्रदान करती हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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2847📚Workshop Technology & Machine ToolsMilling Machine Construction
Which part of the milling machine can provide upward and downward movement to the knee and table?
Explanation
The Elevating Screw (vertical jackscrew) located between the base and the knee of a knee-and-column milling machine is rotated (either manually by crank or automatically by power feed) to raise and lower the knee, saddle, and worktable vertically along the column face.
मिलिंग मशीन में 'एलीवेटिंग स्क्रू' (Elevating Screw / वर्टिकल जैक स्क्रू) नी (Knee) और टेबल को ऊपर और नीचे (ऊर्ध्वाधर गति) ले जाने का कार्य करता है। अतः सही उत्तर Elevating Screw (विकल्प A) है।
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2848📚Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesSources of Farm Power
Maximum power available from an average farm labour is
Explanation
In farm power and ergonomic studies, an average human agricultural labourer working continuously under typical field conditions can sustainably develop approximately 0.1 hp (75 Watts).
कृषि शक्ति और एर्गोनॉमिक्स के अनुसार, एक औसत कृषि मजदूर (Farm labour) द्वारा लगातार कार्य करने पर लगभग 0.1 हॉर्सपावर (0.1 hp या 75 वाट) शक्ति प्राप्त होती है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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2849📚Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesSowing & Planting Methods
The process of placing seeds in holes made in the seedbed and closing the seed with soil is known as
Explanation
Dibbling is the planting method of punching holes in the seedbed at precise distances and depths using a dibbler or hand tool, depositing seeds into each hole, and packing soil over them. (Drilling drops continuous seed lines in furrows; broadcasting scatters seeds randomly).
बीज शैय्या में निश्चित दूरी और गहराई पर छेद बनाकर उसमें बीज डालने और उसे मिट्टी से ढकने की प्रक्रिया को 'डिबलिंग' (Dibbling) कहा जाता है। छिटकवां विधि (Broadcasting) में बीज बिखेरे जाते हैं और ड्रिलिंग में कतारों में बोए जाते हैं। सही उत्तर Dibbling (विकल्प B) है।
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2850📚Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesFarm Machinery Matching
Which of the following are correctly matched?
i. Secondary Tillage Implement - Transplanter
ii. A farm power source with rotary unit - Power tiller
iii. Seed drill - Fluted wheel
iv. Weeding - Hoe
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Evaluation: (i) A transplanter is planting equipment, not a secondary tillage implement (Incorrect); (ii) A power tiller is a walking two-wheel tractor equipped with a rotary tiller / rotavator unit (Correct); (iii) A seed drill uses a fluted wheel roller as its primary mechanical seed metering device (Correct); (iv) A hoe is a hand/drawn implement designed for inter-row weeding and shallow cultivation (Correct). Hence, ii, iii, and iv only are correctly matched.
समीक्षा: (i) ट्रांसप्लांटर रोपाई का यंत्र है, भू-परिष्करण का नहीं (गलत); (ii) पावर टिलर में रोटरी कल्टीवेटर यूनिट लगी होती है (सही); (iii) सीड ड्रिल में बीज गिराने के लिए 'फ्लूटेड व्हील' तंत्र प्रयुक्त होता है (सही); (iv) निराई (Weeding) के लिए कुदाल/हो (Hoe) का उपयोग होता है (सही)। अतः ii, iii and iv only सही है (विकल्प C)।
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2851📚Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesWeeding Equipment & Dryland Tools
Weeding equipment suitable for dry lands
Explanation
The Star-type long-handle dryland weeder (peg-and-star wheel weeder) is specifically developed and recommended by agricultural institutes for dryland crops and upland row farming, operating effectively in loose, dry soil. In contrast, the cono-weeder is exclusively used in wetland lowland rice fields.
शुष्क भूमि (Dry lands) में कतारबद्ध फसलों की निराई-गुड़ाई के लिए 'स्टार टाइप लॉन्ग हैंडल वीडर' (Star type long handle weeder) सबसे उपयुक्त और अनुशंसित उपकरण है। कोनो वीडर (Cono weeder) जलमग्न धान के खेतों के लिए होता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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2852📚Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesPlant Protection Equipment & Spray Volumes
The pesticide solution requirement of a sprayer is 120 l/ha. It belongs to which category?
Explanation
Sprayers are standardly categorized by application rate: (1) High Volume (HV): > 400 litres/ha, (2) Low Volume (LV): 100 to 400 litres/ha (or 50 to 150 l/ha in some classifications), (3) Ultra-Low Volume (ULV): < 5 litres/ha (highly concentrated). Since the application rate is 120 l/ha, it falls into the Low Volume Sprayer category.
कीटनाशक छिड़काव दरों के वर्गीकरण के अनुसार: हाई वॉल्यूम स्प्रैयर (> 400 लीटर/हेक्टेयर), लो वॉल्यूम स्प्रैयर (100 से 400 ली/हेक्टेयर), तथा अल्ट्रा लो वॉल्यूम स्प्रैयर (< 5 ली/हेक्टेयर)। चूंकि यहाँ आवश्यकता 120 ली/हेक्टेयर है, अतः यह 'लो वॉल्यूम स्प्रैयर' (Low volume sprayer) की श्रेणी में आता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2853📚Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesLand Levelling & Earthmoving Machinery
Heavy duty machinery meant for initial cutting and filling of land undulations is called
Explanation
A Scraper (tractor-drawn or motorized earthmoving scraper) is heavy-duty earthmoving equipment specifically designed for bulk excavation: scooping soil from high mounds (cutting), hauling it over distances, and discharging it evenly into low depressions (filling) during initial land levelling.
भूमि के बड़े ऊबड़-खाबड़ टीलों की शुरुआती कटाई (Cutting) करने और गड्ढों को भरने (Filling) के लिए प्रयुक्त भारी मशीन को 'स्क्रेपर' (Scraper) कहा जाता है। यह मिट्टी खोदकर ले जाता है और समतल करता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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2854📚Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesFarm Machinery Selection & Management
Points to be considered in selecting a farm machinery
i. Machinery cost
ii. Performance of the machine
iii. Labour saving
iv. Operating cost
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
When selecting agricultural machinery, comprehensive techno-economic analysis requires evaluating: (i) Initial capital machinery cost, (ii) Field capacity and performance of the machine, (iii) Labor saving and timeliness of field operations, and (iv) Operating costs including fuel, oil, labor, repair, and maintenance. All four criteria must be considered.
कृषि मशीनरी का चयन करते समय ध्यान रखने योग्य प्रमुख बिंदु हैं: (i) मशीन की प्रारंभिक लागत, (ii) मशीन की कार्यक्षमता और प्रदर्शन, (iii) श्रम की बचत, और (iv) परिचालन और रखरखाव की लागत (Operating cost)। अतः चारों बिंदु (i, ii, iii, iv) आवश्यक हैं (विकल्प D)।
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2855📚Renewable Energy & Electrical EngineeringBiogas Plant Designs
Which one is a floating dome type biogas plant?
Explanation
The KVIC model (Khadi and Village Industries Commission) is the classic floating dome type biogas plant, featuring a cylindrical digester well and an inverted movable steel or fiberglass gas holder dome that floats on top of the slurry and rises/falls with gas volume. Janata and Deenabandhu models are fixed-dome plants.
केवीआईसी मॉडल (KVIC model) एक 'फ्लोटिंग ड्रम/डोम' (Floating dome) प्रकार का बायोगैस संयंत्र है, जिसमें लोहे का गैस धारक ड्रम गोबर के घोल के ऊपर तैरता है। जबकि जनता और दीनबंधु मॉडल फिक्स्ड डोम (स्थिर गुंबद) प्रकार के संयंत्र हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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2856📚Renewable Energy & Electrical EngineeringBiodiesel Manufacturing Methods
Which one of the following methods is NOT used for biodiesel production?
Explanation
The four established methods for reducing the high viscosity of plant oils to produce liquid engine fuels are: (1) Dilution / Blending with petrodiesel, (2) Micro-emulsification with alcohols, (3) Thermal cracking / Pyrolysis, and (4) Transesterification. Gasification thermochemically converts solid biomass into syngas (CO + H2H_2), not liquid biodiesel from oils.
वनस्पति तेलों की श्यानता कम करके बायोडीजल/तरल ईंधन बनाने की चार विधियाँ हैं: पायरोलिसिस (Thermal cracking), माइक्रो-इमल्सीफिकेशन, तनुकरण (Dilution/Blending), और ट्रांसएस्टरीफिकेशन। 'गैसीकरण' (Gasification) ठोस बायोमास को प्रोड्यूसर गैस में बदलता है, यह बायोडीजल निर्माण की विधि नहीं है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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2857📚Renewable Energy & Electrical EngineeringRenewable Energy Terminology Matching
Which of the following are correctly matched?
i. Biomass - Briquet
ii. Fixed dome type - Biogas plant
iii. Wind Energy - Pyranometer
iv. Solar Energy - Anemometer
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Evaluation: (i) Biomass is densified into briquettes (briquet) for combustion (Correct); (ii) Fixed dome type is a standard design of biogas plants (e.g., Janata and Deenabandhu models) (Correct); (iii) Wind energy utilizes an anemometer to measure wind speed, not a pyranometer (Incorrect); (iv) Solar energy utilizes a pyranometer to measure solar radiation, not an anemometer (Incorrect). Hence, only i and ii are correctly matched.
समीक्षा: (i) बायोमास को संपीड़ित करके ब्रिकेट (Briquet) बनाया जाता है (सही); (ii) फिक्स्ड डोम प्रकार बायोगैस संयंत्र का एक मुख्य मॉडल है (सही); (iii) पवन ऊर्जा में हवा की गति मापने के लिए एनीमोमीटर प्रयुक्त होता है, पायरानोमीटर नहीं (गलत); (iv) सौर ऊर्जा में विकिरण मापने के लिए पायरानोमीटर प्रयुक्त होता है, एनीमोमीटर नहीं (गलत)। अतः i और ii सही हैं (विकल्प A)।
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2858📚Agricultural Process Engineering, Post-Harvest & Protected CultivationManual Grading & Ergonomics
The effectiveness of hand grading depends on
i. Quality of the product
ii. Quantity per inspector
iii. Experience and physical condition of the inspector
iv. The ergonomics during work
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
The accuracy and efficiency of manual/hand sorting and grading depend on: (i) The visual characteristics and defect uniformity of the incoming produce, (ii) The inspection conveyor flow rate and volume per worker, (iii) The skill, eyesight, alertness, and physical endurance of the sorter, and (iv) The ergonomic workstation design (conveyor height, ambient lighting, seating posture). All four factors govern effectiveness.
हाथ से ग्रेडिंग (Hand grading / छंटाई) की प्रभावशीलता निम्नलिखित पर निर्भर करती है: (i) उत्पाद की गुणवत्ता और एकरूपता, (ii) प्रति निरीक्षक उत्पाद की मात्रा/गति, (iii) निरीक्षक का अनुभव और शारीरिक स्थिति (थकान/दृष्टि), तथा (iv) कार्यस्थल की एर्गोनॉमिक्स (प्रकाश व्यवस्था व कार्य की सुगमता)। अतः चारों (i, ii, iii, iv) सही हैं (विकल्प D)।
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2859📚Agricultural Process Engineering, Post-Harvest & Protected CultivationShade Net Structures
Protected structure suitable for shade loving plants
Explanation
A Shade Net House (agro-shade net structure) clad with perforated UV-stabilized knitted polyethylene nets (providing 35% to 75% shade factor) is specifically engineered to cultivate shade-loving ornamental foliage plants, nurseries, orchids, and vegetables by attenuating excessive solar radiation and heat.
छाया-प्रिय पौधों (Shade loving plants), नर्सरी और सजावटी इनडोर पौधों की खेती के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त संरक्षित संरचना 'शेड नेट हाउस' (Shade net house) है, जो धूप की तीव्रता को कम करके अनुकूल वातावरण तैयार करती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2860📚Agricultural Process Engineering, Post-Harvest & Protected CultivationFarm Building Materials
Bricks manufactured with clay and fly ash, at about 1,000°C is called
Explanation
Bricks produced by uniformly mixing thermal power plant fly ash (typically 20% to 50%) with plastic brick earth/clay and firing them in a kiln at approximately 1,000°C are formally classified as Fly Ash Clay Bricks (sintered fly ash clay bricks).
मिट्टी और थर्मल पावर प्लांट की फ्लाई ऐश (राख) को मिलाकर लगभग 1,000°C तापमान पर भट्टी में पकाकर बनाई जाने वाली ईंटों को 'फ्लाई ऐश क्ले ब्रिक्स' (Fly Ash Clay Bricks) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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2861📚Engineering Drawing, Agricultural Schemes & General AgricultureAgricultural Welfare Schemes
Government scheme to provide crop insurance to ensure comprehensive risk cover for crops to farmers against all non-preventable natural risks is
Explanation
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, is India's flagship national crop insurance scheme providing comprehensive financial support and risk cover to farmers against all non-preventable natural risks (drought, flood, unseasonal rainfall, pests, diseases) from pre-sowing to post-harvest.
प्राकृतिक आपदाओं (सूखा, बाढ़, ओलावृष्टि, कीट आदि) से फसलों को होने वाले नुकसान से किसानों को सुरक्षा प्रदान करने वाली भारत सरकार की प्रमुख फसल बीमा योजना 'प्रधानमंत्री फसल बीमा योजना' (PMFBY) है, जिसे 2016 में शुरू किया गया था। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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2862📚Engineering Drawing, Agricultural Schemes & General AgricultureIndian Agricultural Geography
Which state of India occupies first position in Jowar Production?
Explanation
Maharashtra is the leading Jowar (Sorghum) producing state in India, historically accounting for the largest agricultural land area and total grain production of both Kharif and Rabi jowar, followed by Karnataka and Rajasthan.
भारत में ज्वार (Jowar / Sorghum) के उत्पादन और क्षेत्रफल में 'महाराष्ट्र' (Maharashtra) राज्य प्रथम स्थान पर है, इसके बाद कर्नाटक का स्थान आता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प D (Maharashtra) है।
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2863📚Engineering Drawing, Agricultural Schemes & General AgricultureAgricultural Economics & MSP
Which one of the following bodies recommends the minimum support price for agricultural crops?
Explanation
The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), an expert advisory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, is mandated to analyze input costs, market trends, and inter-crop parity to recommend Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for 22 mandated agricultural crops plus Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane.
भारत में फसलों के लिए न्यूनतम समर्थन मूल्य (MSP) की सिफारिश करने वाली अधिकृत संस्था 'कृषि लागत एवं मूल्य आयोग' (CACP - Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices) है। कैबिनेट समिति (CCEA) इस पर अंतिम निर्णय लेती है। सही विकल्प B है।
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2864📚Engineering Drawing, Agricultural Schemes & General AgricultureAgro-Climatic Zones of India
How many number of agro-climatic zones are there in India?
Explanation
According to the Planning Commission of India (under the National Agricultural Research Project / Agro-Climatic Regional Planning framework), the country is divided into 15 broad Agro-Climatic Zones based on topography, rainfall, temperature, cropping systems, and water resources.
योजना आयोग (Planning Commission of India) के वर्गीकरण के अनुसार भारत को 15 प्रमुख कृषि-जलवायु क्षेत्रों (15 Agro-climatic zones) में विभाजित किया गया है। (जबकि राष्ट्रीय मृदा सर्वेक्षण ब्यूरो ने 20 कृषि-पारिस्थितिक क्षेत्र बनाए हैं)। सही उत्तर 15 (विकल्प B) है।
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2865📚Engineering Drawing, Agricultural Schemes & General AgriculturePlant Pathology & Agricultural Institutes
Which institute recently issued an advisory to farmers to control 'Fruit Rot Disease' (Kole Roga) in arecanut plantations?
Explanation
The ICAR - Central Plantation Crops Research Institute (CPCRI) located at Kasaragod, Kerala, is the premier national research organization mandated with plantation crops. It routinely issues advisories to farmers for the prevention and management of Fruit Rot Disease (Kole Roga / Mahali, caused by Phytophthora meadii) in arecanut plantations, recommending timely prophylactic spraying of 1% Bordeaux mixture.
सुपारी (Arecanut) के बागानों में 'फल सड़न रोग' (कोले रोगा / महाली - Kole Roga, जो फाइटोफ्थोरा कवक से होता है) के नियंत्रण के लिए सलाह जारी करने वाला शीर्ष अनुसंधान संस्थान 'केन्द्रीय रोपण फसल अनुसंधान संस्थान, कासरगोड' (ICAR-CPCRI, Kasaragod, Kerala) है। सही विकल्प A है।
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2866📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesICOM Museum Definition (2022)
Which of the following correctly represents the definition of a museum as per the International Council of Museums (ICOM, 2022)?
Statement I: A museum is a permanent institution serving society by preserving, researching, and exhibiting tangible and intangible heritage.
Statement II: A museum operates primarily for profit and commercial gain through heritage exhibitions.
Statement III: Museums are open to the public and provide educational and recreational experiences.
Statement IV: A museum focuses only on historical artifacts and ignores contemporary cultural heritage.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Under the definition approved at the 26th ICOM General Conference in Prague (2022): 'A museum is a not-for-profit, permanent institution in the service of society that researches, collects, conserves, interprets and exhibits tangible and intangible heritage. Open to the public, accessible and inclusive, museums foster diversity and sustainability... offering varied experiences for education, enjoyment, reflection and knowledge sharing.' Statements I and III are correct, while statements II (for-profit) and IV (ignores contemporary heritage) are false.
अंतर्राष्ट्रीय संग्रहालय परिषद (ICOM, प्राग 2022) की आधिकारिक परिभाषा के अनुसार, संग्रहालय समाज की सेवा में एक गैर-लाभकारी (Not-for-profit), स्थायी संस्थान है जो मूर्त और अमूर्त विरासत का संरक्षण, अनुसंधान और प्रदर्शन करता है तथा जनता के लिए खुला रहकर शिक्षा और आनंद के अनुभव प्रदान करता है। अतः कथन I और III सही हैं (विकल्प A)।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2867📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesMuseum Science Terminology
Match the following terms with their correct descriptions:
Terms:
1. Museology
2. Museography
3. Museum Studies
4. Curatorship
Descriptions:
i. The theoretical study of museums, their history, and their role in society.
ii. The practical aspects of museum operations, such as exhibition design and artifact care.
iii. The interdisciplinary field studying museum management, education, and audience engagement.
iv. The responsibility of managing collections and organizing exhibitions.
Options:
Explanation
Core definitions in museum science: (1) Museology is the theoretical and philosophical science of museums and their societal role (i); (2) Museography denotes the practical methods and operational techniques of display, design, and physical artifact care (ii); (3) Museum Studies is the interdisciplinary academic field of administration, pedagogy, and visitor studies (iii); (4) Curatorship is the professional practice of collection acquisition, cataloguing, preservation, and curation (iv). Match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
सही मिलान: (1) म्यूजियोलॉजी (Museology) - संग्रहालयों का सैद्धांतिक और दार्शनिक अध्ययन (i); (2) म्यूजियोग्राफी (Museography) - संग्रहालय संचालन के व्यावहारिक पहलू जैसे डिजाइन व देखरेख (ii); (3) म्यूजियम स्टडीज - अंतःविषय अध्ययन क्षेत्र (iii); (4) क्यूरेटरशिप - संग्रह प्रबंधन और प्रदर्शनियां आयोजित करने की जिम्मेदारी (iv)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2868📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesSource Typology in Museums
Match the following types of sources with their correct classifications in museum collections:
Sources:
1. Ancient Manuscript
2. History Textbook
3. Photograph taken during World War II
4. Documentary about a historical event
Classifications:
i. Primary Source
ii. Secondary Source
iii. Primary Source
iv. Secondary Source
Options:
Explanation
Classification of historical evidence: (1) Ancient Manuscript is an original written document from antiquity   ⟹  \implies Primary Source (i); (2) History Textbook compiles and interprets past events   ⟹  \implies Secondary Source (ii); (3) Wartime Photograph captures real-time contemporary visual evidence   ⟹  \implies Primary Source (iii); (4) Historical Documentary is a modern interpretive production   ⟹  \implies Secondary Source (iv). Match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
ऐतिहासिक स्रोतों का वर्गीकरण: (1) प्राचीन पांडुलिपि - प्राथमिक स्रोत (i); (2) इतिहास की पाठ्यपुस्तक - द्वितीयक स्रोत (ii); (3) द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध के दौरान खींची गई तस्वीर - प्राथमिक स्रोत (iii); (4) ऐतिहासिक घटना पर बनी डॉक्यूमेंट्री - द्वितीयक स्रोत (iv)। सही विकल्प A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv) है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2869📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesMuseum Documentation Standards (Spectrum & CIDOC CRM)
Match the following museum documentation systems and tools with their correct functions:
Documentation Systems:
1. Object ID Standard
2. Spectrum (UK Museum Documentation Standard)
3. CIDOC CRM (Conceptual Reference Model)
4. Digital Asset Management System (DAMS)
Functions:
i. Provides an international standard for recording minimum information about movable cultural property.
ii. A conceptual model for sharing and exchanging cultural heritage information between systems.
iii. Outlines best practices and procedures for documenting museum collections in the UK.
iv. Manages and organizes digital representations of museum assets, such as images, videos, and documents.
Options:
Explanation
Documentation standards: (1) Object ID is the internationally recognized minimum standard developed by the Getty/ICOM to identify stolen or movable cultural property (i); (2) Spectrum (Collections Trust UK) sets established collection management procedures and cataloguing workflows (iii); (3) CIDOC CRM (ISO 21127) is a formal semantic ontology for integrating and exchanging heterogeneous cultural heritage data (ii); (4) DAMS is specialized software for cataloguing, organizing, and delivering high-resolution digital media assets (iv). Match: 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv.
संग्रहालय प्रलेखन प्रणालियां: (1) ऑब्जेक्ट आईडी (Object ID) - सांस्कृतिक संपत्तियों की पहचान का अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानक (i); (2) स्पेक्ट्रम (Spectrum UK) - संग्रहालय संग्रह प्रलेखन और प्रबंधन की मानक प्रक्रियाएं (iii); (3) CIDOC CRM - सांस्कृतिक विरासत डेटा के आदान-प्रदान का सिमेंटिक मॉडल (ii); (4) DAMS - डिजिटल परिसंपत्तियों (तस्वीरें, वीडियो) का प्रबंधन (iv)। अतः सही मिलान 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv (विकल्प A) है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2870📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesMuseum Cataloguing Systems
Which of the following statements about Museum Catalogue are correct?
Statement I: A museum catalogue is a systematic, comprehensive record of a museum's collection, including descriptions, provenance, and condition details.
Statement II: Cataloguing is exclusively a digital process and does not involve manual record-keeping.
Statement III: A well-prepared catalogue serves as both an administrative tool and a reference resource for researchers and the public.
Statement IV: Cataloguing must follow standardized systems like Spectrum or CIDOC CRM to ensure uniformity and accessibility.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Statement I correctly defines a catalogue as a systematic inventory covering physical description, provenance, accession numbers, and condition. Statement II is false because cataloguing historically and practically relies heavily on accession ledgers, index cards, and manual documentation alongside digital databases. Statements III and IV are true: catalogues ensure administrative control, academic access, and adhere to standardized metadata frameworks (Spectrum, CIDOC CRM). Thus, Statements I, III, and IV are correct.
कथन I सही है क्योंकि कैटलॉग संग्रहालय की वस्तुओं का व्यवस्थित रिकॉर्ड होता है। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि कैटलॉगिंग केवल डिजिटल नहीं है, इसमें पारंपरिक हस्तलिखित रजिस्टर व कार्ड भी शामिल होते हैं। कथन III और IV सही हैं क्योंकि यह प्रशासनिक नियंत्रण, शोध और मानकीकृत प्रणालियों (Spectrum/CIDOC CRM) का पालन करता है। अतः विकल्प A (I, III, and IV only) सही है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2871📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesCore Objectives of Documentation
What is the primary purpose of a museum documentation system?
A) To organize and manage the digital files related to an exhibition
B) To record and track the details of the museum's collection, including provenance, condition, and location
C) To create digital representations of museum artifacts for online display
D) To design and print catalogues for museum visitors
Explanation
The primary mission of a museum documentation system is legal, administrative, and physical accountability: permanently recording and tracking every artifact's accession number, origin, legal provenance, historical significance, physical condition, and real-time internal location/movement.
संग्रहालय प्रलेखन प्रणाली (Museum documentation system) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य संग्रहालय के संग्रह का पूरा विवरण दर्ज करना और उन पर नज़र रखना है, जिसमें वस्तु का इतिहास, स्वामित्व/मूल (Provenance), भौतिक स्थिति और वर्तमान स्थान शामिल है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2872📚Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesFunctional Museum Planning
Match the following museum design elements with their respective purposes:
Elements:
1. Architectural Design
2. Exhibition Display Cases
3. Visitor Services Areas
4. Emergency Exits and Signage
Purposes:
i. To ensure visitor comfort and convenience by offering facilities like cafes, restrooms, and gift shops.
ii. To preserve and protect artifacts from damage, environmental factors, and theft.
iii. To guide visitors safely in the event of an emergency, ensuring that they can exit the museum efficiently.
iv. To create an aesthetic and functional space that enhances the museum's identity and invites engagement.
Options:
Explanation
Design functions: (1) Architectural Design creates an aesthetically inspiring, functional public identity for the institution (iv); (2) Exhibition Display Cases provide sealed microclimate protection against dust, pollutants, touch, and theft (ii); (3) Visitor Services Areas provide hospitality, rest, dining, and retail facilities (i); (4) Emergency Exits and Signage ensure life safety and rapid evacuation (iii). Match: 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii.
संग्रहालय डिजाइन तत्व: (1) वास्तुकला डिजाइन - सौंदर्यपूर्ण और कार्यात्मक स्थान का निर्माण जो संग्रहालय की पहचान बनाए (iv); (2) डिस्प्ले केस - कलाकृतियों को धूल, चोरी और पर्यावरण से सुरक्षित रखना (ii); (3) आगंतुक सेवा क्षेत्र - कैफेटेरिया, शौचालय और उपहार की दुकानें (i); (4) आपातकालीन निकास और संकेत - आपातकाल में सुरक्षित निकासी (iii)। अतः सही विकल्प A (1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii) है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2873📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsChirality & Symmetry Elements
A molecule is said to be chiral....
A) If it possesses plane of symmetry.
B) If it possesses centre of symmetry.
C) If it cannot be superimposed on its mirror image.
D) It can be superimposed on its mirror image.
Explanation
A molecule is defined as chiral if it is non-superimposable on its mirror image (enantiomorphic). Chirality requires the absence of any improper rotation axis (SnS_n), which specifically precludes an internal plane of symmetry (σ\sigma) or an inversion center (ii).
कोई अणु 'कायरल' (Chiral) तब कहलाता है जब वह अपने दर्पण प्रतिबिंब (Mirror image) पर अध्यारोपित (Superimpose) नहीं हो सकता। कायरल अणुओं में सममिति का कोई तल (Plane of symmetry) या सममिति केंद्र नहीं होता। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2874📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsTaft Steric Substituent Constant (Es)
Arrange the following substituents in order of increasing steric substituent constant (Es) values:
1. −CH3-CH_3
2. −C(CH3)3-C(CH_3)_3
3. −H-H
4. −CH2CH3-CH_2CH_3
Options:
Explanation
In physical organic chemistry, the Taft steric substituent parameter EsE_s reflects steric demand. Ranking substituents by increasing bulkiness and steric hindrance: Hydrogen (−H-H, smallest, 3) < Methyl (−CH3-CH_3, 1) < Ethyl (−CH2CH3-CH_2CH_3, 4) < tert-Butyl (−C(CH3)3-C(CH_3)_3, largest, 2). Thus, the order of increasing steric demand is 3<1<4<23 < 1 < 4 < 2 (Option D).
टैफ्ट स्टेरिक पैरामीटर (EsE_s) और स्थानिक रुकावट के बढ़ते क्रम में: हाइड्रोजन (−H-H, 3, सबसे छोटा) < मिथाइल (−CH3-CH_3, 1) < इथाइल (−CH2CH3-CH_2CH_3, 4) < टर्ट-ब्यूटाइल (−C(CH3)3-C(CH_3)_3, 2, सबसे बड़ा)। अतः सही क्रम 3<1<4<23 < 1 < 4 < 2 (विकल्प D) है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2875📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsE2 Stereospecificity & Reactivity
Which of the following statements is correct?
A) E2 is a concerted reaction in which bonds break and new bonds form at the same time in a single step
B) Order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards E2 dehydrohalogenation is found to be 3° > 2° > 1°
C) In E2 elimination different stereoisomer (diastereomer) converts into different stereo product
D) All the above
Explanation
All statements are correct: (A) E2 is a concerted, single-step bimolecular elimination; (B) Reactivity order is 3∘>2∘>1∘3^\circ > 2^\circ > 1^\circ because the developing double bond is stabilized by greater alkyl substitution in the transition state (Zaitsev rule); (C) E2 is stereospecific requiring anti-periplanar geometry, so diastereomeric substrates yield distinct stereoisomeric (E or Z) alkene products. Thus, All the above (Option D) is correct.
E2 विलोपन के संदर्भ में: (A) यह एक ही चरण में होने वाली संसक्त (Concerted) अभिक्रिया है; (B) एल्किल हैलाइडों की क्रियाशीलता 3∘>2∘>1∘3^\circ > 2^\circ > 1^\circ होती है; (C) यह स्टीरियोस्पेसिफिक है, अतः भिन्न डायस्टीरियोमर्स से भिन्न ज्यामितीय उत्पाद (E या Z) बनते हैं। अतः 'उपर्युक्त सभी' (All the above, विकल्प D) सही है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2876📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsE2 vs SN2 Selectivity & Conformation
Which of the following conditions will favor E2 elimination over substitution (SN2), and what will be the preferred stereochemistry of the product?
A) Strong, bulky base; antiperiplanar geometry
B) Weak base; syn-periplanar geometry
C) Strong nucleophile; syn-periplanar geometry
D) Weak nucleophile; polar protic solvent
Explanation
Sterically bulky bases (e.g., potassium tert-butoxide, t-BuO−K+t\text{-BuO}^-K^+, or LDA) cannot readily access the congested electrophilic carbon for SN2S_N2 attack, but easily abstract a peripheral β\beta-proton, strongly favoring E2 elimination over substitution. The lowest-energy transition state for E2 requires anti-periplanar conformation (dihedral angle of 180∘180^\circ between C-H and C-X bonds) to minimize torsional eclipsing and maximize orbital overlap.
प्रबल और बड़े आकार के क्षार (Strong, bulky base - जैसे t-BuOKt\text{-BuOK}) नाभिकरागी प्रतिस्थापन (SN2S_N2) को रोकते हैं और E2 विलोपन को अत्यधिक बढ़ावा देते हैं। E2 विलोपन के लिए सबसे अनुकूल त्रिविम ज्यामिति 'एंटी-पेरीप्लानर' (Antiperiplanar - 180∘180^\circ) होती है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2877📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsPyrolytic Syn-Elimination & Hofmann Product
In a pyrolytic elimination (β-elimination in the gas phase), which of the following is most likely to occur in terms of mechanism and product orientation?
A) The reaction proceeds via a concerted mechanism, producing a Zaitsev product
B) The reaction proceeds via a radical mechanism, favouring a Hofmann product
C) The reaction proceeds via a carbocation intermediate, producing a Zaitsev product
D) The reaction proceeds via a concerted mechanism, producing a Hofmann product
Explanation
Pyrolytic eliminations (e.g., acetate pyrolysis, Chugaev xanthate reaction, and Cope amine oxide elimination) proceed thermally through a concerted, cyclic transition state (4-, 5-, or 6-membered) requiring syn-coplanar geometry. Because of the strict steric requirements of the cyclic transition state and the higher accessibility of less hindered β\beta-hydrogens on terminal methyl groups, pyrolytic eliminations typically favor the less substituted Hofmann alkene product.
पायरोलाइटिक विलोपन (जैसे एसीटेट व ज़ैंथेट पायरोलिसिस) एक संसक्त (Concerted) चक्रीय संक्रमण अवस्था (Syn-elimination) द्वारा संपन्न होता है। स्थानिक बाधा के कारण यह कम प्रतिस्थापित एल्कीन यानी 'हॉफमैन उत्पाद' (Hofmann product) को प्राथमिकता देता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2878📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsThermal Elimination Stereochemistry
Which of the following combinations of statements are correct regarding the mechanism and orientation in pyrolytic eliminations?
1. Pyrolytic elimination is a concerted mechanism where the leaving group and β-hydrogen are eliminated simultaneously.
2. Pyrolytic elimination typically produces the Zaitsev product due to the small base used in the reaction.
3. The Hofmann product is favored in pyrolytic eliminations when a large, bulky base is used.
4. Pyrolytic eliminations can occur via a carbocation intermediate, making them similar to E1 eliminations.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
In pyrolytic eliminations: Statement 1 is true (the thermal elimination proceeds through a concerted cyclic pericyclic transition state where leaving group and syn-β\beta-hydrogen eliminate simultaneously). Statement 2 is false (pyrolytic eliminations are unimolecular and do not use a base; they give predominantly Hofmann products due to steric constraints). Statement 3 reflects the fundamental orientation principle that Hofmann products dominate due to steric crowding/bulk of the intramolecular leaving group in the transition state. Statement 4 is false (no carbocation forms). Thus, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
पायरोलाइटिक विलोपन: कथन 1 सही है (यह एक संसक्त क्रियाविधि है जिसमें लिविंग ग्रुप और β\beta-हाइड्रोजन एक साथ निकलते हैं)। कथन 3 सही है (आंतरिक भारी समूहों के स्टेरिक प्रभाव के कारण हॉफमैन उत्पाद बनता है)। कथन 2 और 4 गलत हैं। अतः केवल 1 और 3 सही हैं (विकल्प B)।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2879📚Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsHughes-Ingold SN2 Radiotracer Experiment
Which statement is incorrect about the following reaction?
(+) 2-iodooctane + NaI¹³¹ ⎯⎯(Acetone)⎯→ Product
A) The rate of these reaction depends on both [R—I] and [131,I]
B) Loss of optical activity was twice as fast as the gain of radioactivity
C) Each molecule undergoing substitution suffers Inversion of configuration
D) The Final solution has radioactive iodine only
Explanation
This is the landmark Hughes-Ingold experiment proving the SN2S_N2 mechanism: (A) The reaction is second-order, dependent on both [R−I][R-I] and [I−][I^-]; (B) Loss of optical activity (racemization) occurs at exactly twice the rate of radioactive iodine incorporation (kα=2kexk_{\alpha} = 2 k_{ex}), because each inversion event produces an inverted molecule that cancels the rotation of an unreacted molecule; (C) Every substitution event causes Walden inversion; (D) The final solution reaches dynamic isotopic equilibrium containing both radioactive and non-radioactive iodide in organic and inorganic phases—it does NOT contain radioactive iodine only. Thus, statement D is incorrect.
ह्यूजेस-इंगोल्ड के प्रसिद्ध SN2S_N2 प्रयोग के अनुसार: अभिक्रिया द्वितीय कोटि की होती है (A सही), ऑप्टिकल गतिविधि खोने की दर रेडियोधर्मिता प्राप्त करने की दर से दोगुनी होती है (kinversion=2kexchangek_{inversion} = 2 k_{exchange}, B सही), और प्रत्येक प्रतिस्थापन पर विन्यास का प्रतिलोमन (Inversion) होता है (C सही)। कथन D गलत है क्योंकि साम्यावस्था पर रेडियोधर्मी और गैर-रेडियोधर्मी दोनों आयोडीन उपस्थित रहते हैं। सही उत्तर विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2880📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryMuseum Lighting Standards (50 Lux / 75 uW/lumen)
Which of the following best describes the recommended lighting standards for highly light-sensitive artifacts such as textiles, watercolours, and photographs in museums?
1. Light levels should not exceed 100 lux, and UV radiation should be completely eliminated.
2. Light levels should be kept below 50 lux, and UV radiation should not exceed 75 microwatts per lumen.
3. Light levels should not exceed 200 lux, with UV exposure below 200 microwatts per lumen.
4. Artifacts should be displayed exclusively under fluorescent lights to minimize UV and heat exposure.
Options:
Explanation
Under international museum standards (CIE, Thomson's 'The Museum Environment'): Highly light-sensitive artifacts (textiles, watercolours, tapestries, miniatures, manuscripts, and albumen photographs) must be exhibited at illuminance levels not exceeding 50 lux, with ultraviolet radiation filtered so that it does not exceed 75 microwatts per lumen (75  μW/lumen75\;\mu\text{W/lumen}). Therefore, Only 2 is correct.
अंतर्राष्ट्रीय संग्रहालय मानकों (Garry Thomson / ICOM) के अनुसार: अत्यधिक प्रकाश-संवेदनशील वस्तुओं (वस्त्र, जलरंग पेंटिंग, दुर्लभ पांडुलिपियां) के लिए प्रकाश का स्तर 50 लक्स (50 lux) से कम होना चाहिए तथा UV विकिरण 75 माइक्रोवाट प्रति ल्यूमेन (75  μW/lm75\;\mu\text{W/lm}) से अधिक नहीं होना चाहिए। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2881📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryIntegrated Pest Management (IPM) in Museums
Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure against insect infestations in museums and archives?
1. Regular fumigation with chemical pesticides.
2. Regularly rotating displayed artifacts.
3. Using mothballs in storage areas.
4. Maintaining low humidity levels and proper ventilation.
Options:
Explanation
Under modern Integrated Pest Management (IPM), chemical fumigation is avoided because toxic residues harm staff and degrade fragile organic materials. The most effective preventive measure is environmental climate control: maintaining relative humidity below 50% and ensuring proper air circulation/ventilation, which suppresses mold, deprives insect pests of vital hydration, and prevents breeding. Thus, Only 4 is correct.
संग्रहालयों में एकीकृत कीट प्रबंधन (IPM) के तहत कीटनाशकों से नियमित धूमन (Fumigation) से बचा जाता है। कीटों के संक्रमण को रोकने का सबसे प्रभावी निवारक उपाय 50% से कम सापेक्ष आर्द्रता बनाए रखना और उचित वेंटिलेशन (हवा का संचार) सुनिश्चित करना है, जिससे कीटों के पनपने के लिए आवश्यक नमी नहीं मिलती। सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2882📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryHierarchy of Environmental Mold Controls
Arrange the following factors influencing fungal growth on cultural heritage materials in the decreasing order of their importance:
1. Humidity above 65%
2. Poor Ventilation
3. Presence of Organic Material
4. Temperature above 25°C
Options:
Explanation
Decreasing order of importance for mold management: (1) Relative humidity above 65% is the primary trigger without which fungal spores cannot germinate; (4) Temperature above 25°C provides optimal thermal kinetics for hyphal growth; (2) Poor ventilation creates stagnant, humid microclimates allowing spores to settle; (3) Organic material provides the nutrient source (always present in heritage objects). Decreasing sequence: 1→4→2→31 \to 4 \to 2 \to 3 (Option A).
फफूंद वृद्धि को प्रभावित करने वाले कारकों का घटता क्रम: 65% से अधिक आर्द्रता (1, मुख्य प्रेरक) > 25°C से अधिक तापमान (4, वृद्धि तेज करता है) > खराब वेंटिलेशन (2, स्थिर आर्द्र वातावरण बनाता है) > कार्बनिक सामग्री (3, पोषक तत्व)। अतः सही घटता क्रम 1→4→2→31 \to 4 \to 2 \to 3 (विकल्प A) है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2883📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryClimate Control & Air Filtration Measures
Which of the following measures are essential for atmospheric control in Preventive Conservation?
Statement I: Using HVAC systems to maintain consistent temperature and humidity levels.
Statement II: Installing UV filters on display case lights and windows.
Statement III: Regularly cleaning and filtering air to reduce dust and chemical pollutants.
Statement IV: Allowing natural ventilation in display areas without monitoring environmental conditions.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Atmospheric control protocols: Statements I, II, and III represent standard museum conservation engineering (HVAC for constant temp/RH, UV filters on glazing/luminaires, and multi-stage particulate/chemical air filtration). Statement IV is hazardous because unmonitored natural ventilation introduces fluctuating humidity, outdoor particulate matter, and urban smog. Thus, Statements I, II, and III only are correct.
निवारक संरक्षण में वायुमंडलीय नियंत्रण: कथन I, II और III आवश्यक मानक उपाय हैं (HVAC सिस्टम, खिड़कियों/लाइटों पर UV फिल्टर लगाना, और हवा से धूल व रासायनिक प्रदूषक छानना)। कथन IV गलत है क्योंकि बिना निगरानी के प्राकृतिक हवा आने देने से नमी में भारी उतार-चढ़ाव और धूल का प्रवेश होता है। अतः सही उत्तर I, II, and III only (विकल्प A) है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2884📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryMetal Conservation Matching
Match the following conservation practices with the appropriate coin metal:
Column -A (Conservation Practice):
1. Store in low humidity (<40%)
2. Avoid exposure to hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
3. Use inert storage materials (e.g., Mylar)
4. Monitor temperature and humidity
Column -B (Coin Metal):
i. Gold
ii. Copper
iii. Silver
iv. All metals
Options:
Explanation
Conservation matching: (1) Storage at low relative humidity (<40%) is essential for Copper (ii) to arrest bronze disease (Cu2Cl2Cu_2Cl_2 oxidation); (2) Avoiding exposure to H2SH_2S is specifically critical for Silver (iii) to prevent black Ag2SAg_2S tarnish; (3) Using inert non-PVC enclosures like Mylar/melanex envelopes is standard practice for Gold (i) to prevent surface abrasion; (4) Monitoring temperature and humidity is a universal mandate for All metals (iv). Match: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (Option B).
धातु सिक्का संरक्षण मिलान: (1) 40% से कम आर्द्रता में भंडारण - तांबा (Copper, ii - ब्रॉन्ज डिजीज से बचाव); (2) H2SH_2S गैस से बचाव - चांदी (Silver, iii - टार्निशिंग से बचाव); (3) इनर्ट मायलर सामग्री का उपयोग - सोना (Gold, i); (4) तापमान और आर्द्रता की निरंतर निगरानी - सभी धातुएं (iv)। अतः सही विकल्प B (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv) है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2885📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Reporting Protocol
Which of the following is the correct order of steps when creating a condition report for a heritage artifact?
A) Inspection → Documentation → Photographic Record → Description of Condition → Recommendations for Treatment
B) Description of Condition → Photographic Record → Inspection → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment
C) Photographic Record → Inspection → Description of Condition → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment
D) Inspection → Photographic Record → Description of Condition → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment
Explanation
Standard workflow for compiling a condition report: (1) Visual Inspection (careful initial examination of the object under raking and ambient light); (2) Photographic Record (capturing high-resolution baseline images of the overall artifact and damage details); (3) Description of Condition (identifying and mapping specific cracks, stains, accretions, and losses); (4) Documentation (recording metadata, accession numbers, provenance, and environmental history in standardized forms); (5) Recommendations for Treatment (outlining immediate preventive storage or remedial conservation steps). Sequence: Inspection → Photographic Record → Description of Condition → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment (Option D).
स्थिति रिपोर्ट (Condition Report) तैयार करने का सही चरणबद्ध क्रम: (1) निरीक्षण (Inspection), (2) फोटोग्राफिक रिकॉर्ड (Photographic record), (3) स्थिति का विस्तृत विवरण (Description of condition), (4) प्रलेखन (Documentation), और (5) उपचार हेतु सिफारिशें (Recommendations for treatment)। सही क्रम विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2886📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Assessment Protocols
Consider the following statements regarding the process of creating a condition report for cultural heritage artifacts:
Statement I: The condition report should include only a general description of the object without any detailed examination of its condition.
Statement II: Photographic records should be taken at various stages of inspection, including close-up shots of damaged areas.
Statement III: The condition description should focus on the identification of deterioration and damage, including cracks, discoloration, and structural weaknesses.
Statement IV: The report must be completed after any conservation treatment has been performed on the object.
Statement V: Recommendations for treatment should be based solely on visual examination without considering historical context or material composition.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Condition report protocols: Statement I is false (reports require rigorous, detailed examination, not just general remarks). Statement II is true (photographic records must document overall views and close-up detail of damaged zones). Statement III is true (precise identification of cracks, losses, and weaknesses is the core purpose). Statement IV is false (condition reports are compiled BEFORE treatment begins to record baseline condition; post-treatment reports are separate). Statement V is false (treatments must consider material chemistry and historical integrity). Therefore, Statements II and III only are correct.
कंडीशन रिपोर्ट प्रक्रिया: कथन I गलत है (विस्तृत परीक्षण आवश्यक है)। कथन II सही है (क्षतिग्रस्त हिस्सों की क्लोज-अप तस्वीरों सहित विभिन्न चरणों की फोटोग्राफी होनी चाहिए)। कथन III सही है (दरारों, रंग उड़ने व कमजोरियों की पहचान पर ध्यान केंद्रित होता है)। कथन IV गलत है (रिपोर्ट उपचार से पूर्व बनाई जाती है)। कथन V गलत है। अतः केवल कथन II और III सही हैं (विकल्प B)।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2887📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCore Ethical Principles of Conservation
Which of the following principles are considered essential while performing cultural heritage conservation?
Statement I: The principle of Minimal Intervention emphasizes avoiding unnecessary changes to the artifact during conservation.
Statement II: Reversibility Principle ensures that any treatment applied can be reversed without causing further damage.
Statement III: Conservation processes must prioritize aesthetic appeal over historical authenticity.
Statement IV: Documentation of every step taken during conservation is mandatory for transparency and future reference.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Core ethics of conservation (Venice Charter, AIC, ICOM-CC): Statement I is true (Minimal Intervention: doing only what is necessary to stabilize the object). Statement II is true (Reversibility/Retreatability: introduced adhesives and consolidants must be removable without harming original fabric). Statement III is completely false (historical authenticity and original physical integrity must ALWAYS take precedence over cosmetic aesthetic appeal). Statement IV is true (complete documentation of materials and methods is an ethical mandate). Thus, Statements I, II, and IV only are correct.
संरक्षण के मूल सिद्धांत: कथन I सही है (न्यूनतम हस्तक्षेप - अनावश्यक परिवर्तनों से बचना)। कथन II सही है (उत्क्रमणीयता/Reversibility - किए गए उपचार को बिना नुकसान पहुंचाए हटाया जा सके)। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि ऐतिहासिक प्रामाणिकता हमेशा सौंदर्य से ऊपर होती है। कथन IV सही है (प्रत्येक चरण का प्रलेखन अनिवार्य है)। अतः I, II, and IV only सही हैं (विकल्प C)।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2888📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryDefinition of Preventive Conservation
Preventive conservation refers to:
A) The direct treatment of damaged artifacts to restore their appearance.
B) The study of historical techniques used in artifact creation.
C) Measures and actions aimed at avoiding or minimizing future deterioration of cultural heritage.
D) Complete reconstruction of lost cultural artifacts.
Explanation
By ICOM-CC definition: Preventive conservation comprises all indirect measures and actions aimed at avoiding and minimizing future deterioration or loss. They are carried out within the immediate environment of the cultural heritage item (through environmental control, storage, handling, transport, and integrated pest management) without directly altering the artifact's physical structure.
निवारक संरक्षण (Preventive conservation) का तात्पर्य उन सभी अप्रत्यक्ष उपायों और कार्यों से है जिनका उद्देश्य सांस्कृतिक विरासत के भविष्य में होने वाले क्षरण या नुकसान को रोकना या कम से कम करना है (जैसे तापमान, नमी, प्रकाश और कीटों का नियंत्रण)। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2889📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceArchaeological Method & Heritage Remains
Archaeology primarily contributes to our understanding of past human societies through:
A) The analysis of ancient texts and written records exclusively.
B) The recovery, analysis, and interpretation of material remains from past human activities.
C) The reconstruction of myths and legends from oral traditions.
D) A focus on modern cultural practices to infer past behaviours.
Explanation
Archaeology is the scientific discipline that reconstructs past human culture, technology, subsistence, and society through the systematic excavation, recovery, scientific analysis, and contextual interpretation of material culture and material remains (artifacts, architecture, biofacts, and cultural landscapes).
पुरातत्व (Archaeology) मुख्य रूप से पिछली मानव गतिविधियों के भौतिक अवशेषों (Material remains - कलाकृतियों, बर्तनों, संरचनाओं) की खोज, वैज्ञानिक विश्लेषण और व्याख्या के माध्यम से प्राचीन मानव समाजों को समझने में योगदान देता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2890📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceArchival Principles & Records Management
Archives are primarily concerned with:
A) Collecting and preserving contemporary literature for public access.
B) Systematic collection, preservation, and management of historically significant documents and records.
C) Storing artifacts and historical objects for exhibition purposes.
D) Providing platforms for live historical reenactments.
Explanation
An archive is an institution tasked with the systematic appraisal, accessioning, preservation, arrangement, and administration of non-current documentary records, manuscripts, official state files, charters, and historical deeds of enduring administrative, legal, and historical value.
अभिलेखागार (Archives) मुख्य रूप से ऐतिहासिक रूप से महत्वपूर्ण दस्तावेजों, सरकारी रिकॉर्डों, पांडुलिपियों और पत्रों के व्यवस्थित संग्रह, संरक्षण और प्रबंधन से संबंधित होते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2891📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceSPS Museum Srinagar History
The Sri Pratap Singh (SPS) Museum in Srinagar was established in which year, and what was its primary objective?
A) 1898, to preserve ancient manuscripts and rare artifacts under the reign of Maharaja Ranbir Singh.
B) 1895, to exhibit Kashmiri cultural heritage under the patronage of Maharaja Hari Singh.
C) 1898, to collect, preserve, and display historical artifacts under the reign of Maharaja Pratap Singh.
D) 1901, to store royal collections and manuscripts under Sheikh Abdullah's leadership.
Explanation
The Sri Pratap Singh (SPS) Museum in Lal Mandi, Srinagar, was established in 1898 during the reign of Maharaja Pratap Singh. Initiated following a proposal by Captain S.H. Godfrey and Raja Amar Singh, its objective was to collect, preserve, and display archaeological antiquities, numismatics, manuscripts, and cultural artifacts of Jammu, Kashmir, and Ladakh.
श्रीनगर में स्थित श्री प्रताप सिंह (SPS) संग्रहालय की स्थापना 1898 में महाराजा प्रताप सिंह के शासनकाल में की गई थी। इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य कश्मीर और लद्दाख की ऐतिहासिक कलाकृतियों, सिक्कों, मूर्तियों और पांडुलिपियों को एकत्रित, संरक्षित और प्रदर्शित करना था। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2892📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceDogra Art Museum Mubarak Mandi
The Dogra Art Museum in Jammu was established in which year, and where was it originally located?
A) 1954, in the Amar Mahal Palace under the initiative of Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B) 1950, in the Mubarak Mandi Complex under the guidance of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
C) 1956, in the Pink Hall of Mubarak Mandi Palace inaugurated by Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D) 1962, in the Raghunath Temple Complex under the patronage of Maharaja Hari Singh
Explanation
The Dogra Art Museum, renowned for its priceless collection of Basohli and Kangra miniature paintings (including the illustrated Rasamanjari series), was established in the historic Mubarak Mandi Palace complex in Jammu. It was formally inaugurated in 1956 in the Pink Hall of Mubarak Mandi Palace by the first President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
जम्मू में 'डोगरा आर्ट म्यूजियम' (Dogra Art Museum - जो अपनी विश्वप्रसिद्ध बसोहली लघु चित्रों और रासमंजरी के लिए प्रसिद्ध है) का औपचारिक उद्घाटन 1956 में मुबारक मंडी पैलेस के 'पिंक हॉल' में भारत के प्रथम राष्ट्रपति डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद द्वारा किया गया था। सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2893📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceCentrally Protected ASI Monuments in J&K
As of the latest available data, how many monuments in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir are designated as Monuments of National Importance under the protection of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)?
A) 28
B) 42
C) 56
D) 72
Explanation
According to official notifications of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI, under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India), there are exactly 56 Centrally Protected Monuments of National Importance located in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (spanning Srinagar and Jammu sub-circles, including Martand Sun Temple, Avantipur temples, Parihaspora, Harwan, and Akhnoor fort).
भारतीय पुरातत्व सर्वेक्षण (ASI) के आधिकारिक आंकड़ों के अनुसार, केंद्र शासित प्रदेश जम्मू और कश्मीर में राष्ट्रीय महत्व के संरक्षित स्मारकों (Monuments of National Importance) की कुल संख्या 56 है। अतः सही विकल्प C (56) है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2894📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceAncient Buddhist Sites of J&K
Which of the following are correctly matched ancient Buddhist sites located in Jammu and Kashmir?
Statement I: Harwan - Known for terracotta tiles with intricate carvings.
Statement II: Parihaspora - A significant Buddhist site established by King Lalitaditya.
Statement III: Ambaran - An ancient Buddhist monastic site near Akhnoor.
Statement IV: Martand - A major Buddhist monastery in the Anantnag district.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Buddhist archaeological sites in J&K: Statement I is correct (Harwan near Srinagar features a unique 4th-5th century Kushan-era Buddhist stupa and courtyard paved with molded terracotta tiles). Statement II is correct (Parihaspora, built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida, houses the monumental Raj Vihara and Chaitya). Statement III is correct (Ambaran at Akhnoor on the Chenab is an internationally renowned Kushan-Gupta Buddhist monastic settlement with stupas and relic caskets). Statement IV is INCORRECT: Martand in Anantnag is the famous 8th-century Hindu Sun Temple built by Lalitaditya, NOT a Buddhist monastery. Thus, Statements I, II, and III only are correctly matched.
कथन I सही है (हरवान - अपनी सुंदर नक्काशीदार टेराकोटा टाइलों और बौद्ध स्तूप के लिए प्रसिद्ध)। कथन II सही है (परिहासपोरा - राजा ललितादित्य द्वारा स्थापित प्रमुख बौद्ध महाविहार)। कथन III सही है (अंबरन - अखनूर के पास चिनाब किनारे स्थित प्रसिद्ध बौद्ध मठ स्थल)। कथन IV गलत है क्योंकि मार्तंड (अनंतनाग) एक प्रसिद्ध 'सूर्य मंदिर' (Hindu Sun Temple) है, बौद्ध मठ नहीं। अतः सही उत्तर I, II, and III only (विकल्प A) है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2895📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceDefinition & Purpose of Heritage Conservation
Which of the following best defines Conservation in the context of cultural heritage?
A) The complete replacement of damaged heritage artifacts with modern replicas.
B) The process of protecting, preserving, and managing cultural heritage to prevent decay and ensure its longevity.
C) The unrestricted public display of artifacts to increase tourism.
D) The commercial use of heritage sites for revenue generation.
Explanation
In cultural heritage discipline (ICOMOS/Venice Charter): Conservation encompasses all interdisciplinary processes of safeguarding, caring for, maintaining, and managing cultural property (tangible artifacts, monuments, and collections) to prevent decay, minimize risk of loss, and ensure its physical longevity and historical authenticity for future generations.
सांस्कृतिक विरासत के संदर्भ में संरक्षण (Conservation) का तात्पर्य सांस्कृतिक संपत्तियों की सुरक्षा, परिरक्षण और प्रबंधन करने की समग्र प्रक्रिया से है ताकि उनके क्षरण को रोका जा सके और आने वाली पीढ़ियों के लिए उनकी दीर्घायु व ऐतिहासिक प्रामाणिकता सुनिश्चित की जा सके। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
2896📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsNational Geospatial Policy & Science Initiatives
What is the name of the pilot project launched under the National Geospatial Policy 2022 by the Ministry of Science and Technology to demonstrate geospatial technology applications?
Explanation
Under the National Geospatial Policy 2022, the Department of Science and Technology (DST) launched 'Operation Dronagiri' as a pilot project to demonstrate the potential of geospatial technologies, data infrastructure, and analytics in sectors like agriculture, disaster management, and urban planning.
राष्ट्रीय भू-स्थानिक नीति 2022 के तहत विज्ञान एवं प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय के विज्ञान एवं प्रौद्योगिकी विभाग (DST) द्वारा भू-स्थानिक प्रौद्योगिकी अनुप्रयोगों को प्रदर्शित करने के लिए 'ऑपरेशन द्रोणागिरी' (Operation Dronagiri) पायलट प्रोजेक्ट शुरू किया गया।
2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department
2897📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsCentral Government Schemes & Missions
Match the following Yojanas introduced by the Government of India (Column -X) with their primary objectives (Column -Y):
Column -X:
1. PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan
2. PM-DevINE Scheme
3. PM VIKAS
4. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission

Column -Y:
I. National digital health platform
II. Empowering traditional artisans
III. Enhancing national infrastructure and logistics
IV. Infrastructure development in the North East
Explanation
Correct matching is:
1. PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan -> III. Enhancing national infrastructure and logistics.
2. PM-DevINE Scheme (Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North-East Region) -> IV. Infrastructure development in the North East.
3. PM VIKAS (Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman) -> II. Empowering traditional artisans and craftspeople.
4. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission -> I. National digital health platform.
सही मिलान है:
1. पीएम गति शक्ति राष्ट्रीय मास्टर प्लान -> III. राष्ट्रीय बुनियादी ढांचे और लॉजिस्टिक्स को बढ़ाना
2. पीएम-डिवाइन (PM-DevINE) -> IV. पूर्वोत्तर में बुनियादी ढांचे का विकास
3. पीएम विकास (PM VIKAS) -> II. पारंपरिक कारीगरों और शिल्पकारों को सशक्त बनाना
4. आयुष्मान भारत डिजिटल मिशन -> I. राष्ट्रीय डिजिटल स्वास्थ्य प्लेटफॉर्म। अतः सही विकल्प (A) है।
2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department
2898📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsRenewable Energy & State Energy Transition
Consider the following statements regarding the purpose of the ASSET platform launched by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy:
I. To promote the use of renewable energy in urban areas
II. To increase funding for private-sector renewable energy projects
III. To provide financial support to states for developing energy storage solutions
IV. To assist states in accelerating their green transition and formulate energy transition blueprints
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
The ASSET (Accelerated Sustainable State Energy Transition) platform was launched by NITI Aayog alongside the Ministry of Power, BEE, and MNRE with the specific mandate to assist Indian States and UTs in accelerating their green transition and formulating customized sub-national energy transition blueprints.
नीति आयोग द्वारा विद्युत मंत्रालय और नवीन एवं नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा मंत्रालय के सहयोग से शुरू किए गए ASSET (Accelerated Sustainable State Energy Transition) प्लेटफॉर्म का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य राज्यों को हरित ऊर्जा परिवर्तन में तेजी लाने और ऊर्जा परिवर्तन का खाका तैयार करने में सहायता करना है। इसलिए केवल IV सही है।
2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department
2899📚General English & ComprehensionTenses & Verb Forms
Fill in the blanks: Mohan ______ overtime for the last three months.
Explanation
The phrase 'for the last three months' indicates an action that began in the past and has continued up to the present moment. This requires the Present Perfect Continuous tense: 'has been working'.
'for the last three months' (पिछले तीन महीनों से) समय की निरंतरता दर्शाता है जो भूतकाल में शुरू होकर वर्तमान में भी जारी है। इसके लिए Present Perfect Continuous Tense ('has been working') का प्रयोग होगा।
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2900📚General English & ComprehensionPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate preposition: Are you aware of the reason ______ his absence?
Explanation
The noun 'reason' is idiomatic with the preposition 'for' when explaining the cause or motive of something ('the reason for his absence').
संज्ञा 'reason' के साथ कारण बताने के लिए उपयुक्त Preposition 'for' का प्रयोग किया जाता है ('the reason for his absence')।
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2901📚General English & ComprehensionDeterminers & Quantifiers
Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with the help of the options that follow:
She began to tell them ______ about her life in Kashmir, particularly in Srinagar.
Explanation
'Life' in this descriptive sense is treated as an uncountable concept. 'A few' and 'the few' modify countable plural nouns. 'Little' denotes 'hardly anything' (negative sense), whereas 'a little' denotes 'some amount' (positive sense). Here, she shared some details, making 'a little' the correct choice.
'Life' एक अगणनीय (uncountable) संदर्भ है। 'A few' और 'the few' बहुवचन गणनीय संज्ञाओं के लिए आते हैं। 'Little' का अर्थ 'न के बराबर' होता है, जबकि 'a little' का अर्थ 'कुछ मात्रा में' (सकारात्मक भाव) होता है। अतः 'a little' सही है।
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2902📚General English & ComprehensionVocabulary & Contextual Fillers
Fill in the blank with the suitable word: Although a solution may not be immediately apparent, the key was to start a ______ between them.
Explanation
The singular countable noun 'conversation' preceded by the indefinite article 'a' appropriately completes the idiomatic expression 'to start a conversation between them' (referring to initiating constructive dialogue).
अनिश्चित उपपद 'a' के साथ एकवचन गणनीय संज्ञा 'conversation' उपयुक्त बैठती है। 'to start a conversation between them' का अर्थ दोनों पक्षों के बीच संवाद की शुरुआत करना है।
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2903📚General English & ComprehensionOne Word Substitution
Choose the most suitable “one word” for the given expression: One who suddenly gained new wealth, power or prestige.
Explanation
A 'Parvenu' (or nouveau riche) refers to an individual who has recently acquired substantial wealth, power, or social standing, especially one from a humble background who has not yet acquired the manner or refinement associated with that class.
वह व्यक्ति जिसने हाल ही में अचानक धन, शक्ति या उच्च सामाजिक स्थिति प्राप्त की हो (नया रईस), उसे 'Parvenu' कहा जाता है।
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2904📚General English & ComprehensionDirect and Indirect Speech
State the sentence in direct form: Nidhi ordered her servant to bring her cup of tea.
Explanation
In indirect speech, the reporting verb 'said to her servant' becomes 'ordered her servant', and the imperative command 'Bring me a cup of tea' changes to 'to bring her cup of tea'. Thus, the direct speech is: Nidhi said to her servant, “Bring me a cup of tea.”
आज्ञासूचक वाक्यों (Imperative Sentences) में 'said to' को भाव के अनुसार 'ordered' में बदला जाता है तथा 'Bring me a cup of tea' बदलकर 'to bring her cup of tea' हो जाता है। अतः Direct Form विकल्प (B) है।
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2905📚General English & ComprehensionDirect and Indirect Speech
State the sentence in indirect form: The man said, “Who dare call you a thief?”
Explanation
In indirect speech, the interrogative question with reporting verb 'said' converts to 'enquired' or 'asked', the present verb 'dare' shifts back to the past 'dared', and the second-person pronoun 'you' changes to the objective third-person pronoun 'him': 'The man enquired who dared call him a thief.'
प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य में रिपोर्टिंग वर्ब 'said' 'enquired' में बदलती है, 'dare' का भूतकाल 'dared' हो जाता है और सर्वनाम 'you' बदलकर 'him' हो जाता है: 'The man enquired who dared call him a thief.'
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2906📚General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
Based on the reading passage: Some of the developing countries in Asia and Africa have:
Explanation
The passage explicitly states: 'Some countries such as Senegal, India, Indonesia and Thailand, are now including conservation concerns in their economic development planning process.' This matches option (C).
गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख है: 'Some countries such as Senegal, India, Indonesia and Thailand, are now including conservation concerns in their economic development planning process.' अर्थात उन्होंने पर्यावरण संरक्षण को आर्थिक विकास की योजना में एकीकृत किया है।
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2907📚General English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
Based on the reading passage: Technical know-how developed in the USA:
Explanation
As explicitly stated in the passage: developing countries 'are receptive to the US assistance which recognizes the uniqueness of the social and ecological systems in these tropical countries. Developing countries recognise the need to improve their capability to analyse issues and their own natural resource management.' Therefore, technical know-how developed in the USA can be effectively utilized only when developing countries undertake a thorough analysis of their unique challenges and social-ecological systems. Hence, option (B) is correct.
गद्यांश के अनुसार, विकासशील देश अमेरिकी सहायता के प्रति तभी ग्रहणशील होते हैं जब वह उनकी विशिष्ट सामाजिक व पारिस्थितिक प्रणालियों को समझे। विकासशील देश अपनी चुनौतियों और प्राकृतिक संसाधन प्रबंधन का गहन विश्लेषण करने की आवश्यकता पहचानते हैं। अतः अमेरिकी तकनीकी विशेषज्ञता का प्रभावी उपयोग तभी हो सकता है जब विकासशील देश अपनी अनूठी चुनौतियों का गहन अध्ययन करें (विकल्प B)।
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2908📚General English & ComprehensionVocabulary & Contextual Fillers
Choose the most suitable word from the options below to fill in the blank and complete the sentence meaningfully: Dr. Mohan Das has gone to his native village with the ______ of starting a hospital.
Explanation
The fixed phrase 'with the intention of doing something' means with the specific aim, purpose, or plan of doing it.
अंग्रेजी में किसी उद्देश्य या इरादे को दर्शाने के लिए 'with the intention of (+ gerund)' का प्रयोग किया जाता है। अतः 'intention' सही विकल्प है।
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2909📚General English & ComprehensionSpelling Correction
Choose the correct spelling:
Explanation
The correct British English spelling is 'Manoeuvre' (derived from French 'manœuvre'). In American English, it is spelled 'maneuver'.
ब्रिटिश अंग्रेजी में सही वर्तनी 'Manoeuvre' (पैंतरेबाज़ी या युक्ति) है। अतः विकल्प (D) सही है।
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2910📚General Intelligence & ReasoningAlphanumeric Series
In the given series, both letter and number patterns are followed. Complete the blank in the middle of the sequence: R₁S₁T₁, R₁S₁T₂, R₁S₂T₂, ______, R₂S₂T₃
Explanation
Looking at the subscript indices (R, S, T):
1st term: (1, 1, 1)
2nd term: (1, 1, 2) [T increments]
3rd term: (1, 2, 2) [S increments]
4th term: (2, 2, 2) [R increments] -> R₂S₂T₂
5th term: (2, 2, 3) [T increments].
Thus, the missing term is R₂S₂T₂.
सबस्क्रिप्ट (subscripts) के क्रम को देखें:
पहला पद: (1, 1, 1)
दूसरा पद: (1, 1, 2) [T में +1]
तीसरा पद: (1, 2, 2) [S में +1]
चौथा पद: (2, 2, 2) [R में +1] -> R₂S₂T₂
पांचवां पद: (2, 2, 3) [T में +1]
अतः रिक्त स्थान पर R₂S₂T₂ आएगा।
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2911📚General Intelligence & ReasoningMatrix & Pattern Recognition
Find the correct option for the blank space:
C 6 8 E
K 14 17 N
O __ __ T
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Convert the letters to their alphabetical positions:
- Row 1: C = 3, E = 5. The numbers are 3 + 3 = 6 and 5 + 3 = 8.
- Row 2: K = 11, N = 14. The numbers are 11 + 3 = 14 and 14 + 3 = 17.
- Row 3: O = 15, T = 20. The numbers must be 15 + 3 = 18 and 20 + 3 = 23.
Therefore, the missing numbers are 18, 23.
वर्णमाला में अक्षरों के स्थानीय मान देखें:
पहली पंक्ति: C(3) + 3 = 6 और E(5) + 3 = 8
दूसरी पंक्ति: K(11) + 3 = 14 और N(14) + 3 = 17
तीसरी पंक्ति: O(15) + 3 = 18 और T(20) + 3 = 23
अतः सही विकल्प (C) 18, 23 है।
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2912📚General Intelligence & ReasoningComplex Puzzles & Seating/Scheduling
Based on the puzzle (J, K, L, M, N, O with professions Doctor, Lawyer, Teacher, Engineer, Nurse, Manager from Monday to Saturday): Who stays at home on Saturday?
Explanation
Deductions from the conditions:
- K is Engineer, N is Manager.
- J is Doctor; J does not stay home on Sat or Wed, and Friday is M, Tuesday is L, Thursday is Lawyer. Thus, J must stay home on Monday.
- M stays home on Friday. M is not Doctor or Teacher, and Lawyer is on Thursday, so M is the Nurse.
- L is home on Tuesday. Since Lawyer is Thursday, L must be the Teacher.
- O is the Lawyer (home on Thursday).
- Days left for K (Engineer) and N (Manager) are Wednesday and Saturday. Hence, on Saturday, either K or N stays at home.
पहेली के विश्लेषण से:
- J (डॉक्टर) सोमवार को रहता है।
- L (शिक्षक) मंगलवार को रहता है।
- O (वकील) गुरुवार को रहता है।
- M (नर्स) शुक्रवार को रहता है।
- बुधवार और शनिवार के दिन K (इंजीनियर) और N (मैनेजर) के लिए बचते हैं। अतः शनिवार को K या N में से कोई एक घर पर रहता है।
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2913📚General Intelligence & ReasoningComplex Puzzles & Seating/Scheduling
Based on the puzzle: Which of the following combinations is correct?
Explanation
M is the Nurse and definitively stays home on Friday. Engineer is on Wed/Sat, Manager is on Wed/Sat, and Teacher is on Tuesday. Therefore, 'Nurse—Friday' is the correct combination.
M (नर्स) निश्चित रूप से शुक्रवार को घर पर रहती है। अतः 'Nurse—Friday' बिल्कुल सही संयोजन है।
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2914📚General Intelligence & ReasoningStatement & Assumptions
Choose the correct Statements:
Statement: Success is determined by how well a person recovers after reaching his lowest point.
Assumptions:
I. Achieving success demands deliberate effort and persistence, undeterred by setbacks.
II. Failure is not something that can be easily accepted.
Choose the correct Answer:
Explanation
The statement asserts that success is defined by recovering from one's lowest point. This directly assumes that success requires resilience, deliberate effort, and persistence despite setbacks (Assumption I is implicit). It does not discuss emotional acceptance of failure (Assumption II is not implicit).
कथन कहता है कि सफलता इस बात से तय होती है कि व्यक्ति अपने सबसे निचले स्तर से कैसे उबरता है। यह स्पष्ट रूप से मानता है कि सफल होने के लिए असफलताओं से अप्रभावित रहकर निरंतर प्रयास और दृढ़ता की आवश्यकता होती है (धारणा I अंतर्निहित है)। विफलता को स्वीकार करने की कठिनाई पर कथन में कुछ नहीं कहा गया (धारणा II अंतर्निहित नहीं है)।
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2915📚General Intelligence & ReasoningBlood Relations
Aarav and Meera are brother and sister. Rajesh and Vikram are the sons of Harish and Priya. Priya is the mother-in-law of Meera’s mother, Rina. Neha, Niti, and Nakul are the daughters of Rajesh and the only cousins of Aarav. How many children does Vikram have?
Explanation
Priya has two sons: Rajesh and Vikram. Priya is mother-in-law to Rina. Since Rajesh's daughters are Aarav's only cousins, Aarav and Meera cannot be the children of Rajesh; they must be the children of Vikram (married to Rina). Therefore, Vikram has 2 children: Aarav and Meera.
प्रिया के दो बेटे हैं: राजेश और विक्रम। प्रिया रीना की सास है।
चूंकि राजेश की बेटियां आरव की इकलौती चचेरी बहनें हैं, अतः आरव और मीरा राजेश की नहीं बल्कि विक्रम के बच्चे हैं।
अतः विक्रम के 2 बच्चे हैं (आरव और मीरा)।
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2916📚General Intelligence & ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Set Theory
At the New Year’s party 600 were invited and served Indian, Italian and continental food. 250 people opted for Indian food, 200 ate Italian food and 100 people took continental food. 20 people have taken only Indian and Italian food, 14 people have taken only Italian and continental food, and 22 people have eaten only Indian and continental food. 8 people have taken all three kinds of food. Find how many people did not have any food?
Explanation
Let Indian = A, Italian = B, Continental = C.
- Only Indian = 250 - (20 + 22 + 8) = 200.
- Only Italian = 200 - (20 + 14 + 8) = 158.
- Only Continental = 100 - (22 + 14 + 8) = 56.
Total people who had food = (Only Indian + Only Italian + Only Continental) + (Only two types) + (All three types)
= 200 + 158 + 56 + 20 + 14 + 22 + 8 = 478.
People who did not have any food = 600 - 478 = 122.
वेन आरेख गणना:
- केवल भारतीय भोजन = 250−(20+22+8)=200250 - (20 + 22 + 8) = 200
- केवल इटैलियन भोजन = 200−(20+14+8)=158200 - (20 + 14 + 8) = 158
- केवल कॉन्टिनेंटल भोजन = 100−(22+14+8)=56100 - (22 + 14 + 8) = 56
भोजन करने वालों की कुल संख्या = 200+158+56+20+14+22+8=478200 + 158 + 56 + 20 + 14 + 22 + 8 = 478
भोजन न करने वाले व्यक्तियों की संख्या = 600−478=122600 - 478 = 122 है।
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2917📚General Intelligence & ReasoningClassification & Odd One Out
Choose the option which is different from the rest:
Explanation
Swan is an aquatic water bird with webbed feet adapted for swimming, while Koel, Crow, and Sparrow are terrestrial perching land birds.
हंस (Swan) एक जलीय पक्षी है जो पानी में तैरता है और जिसके पैर झिल्लीदार होते हैं, जबकि कोयल, कौआ और गौरैया स्थलीय (land) पक्षी हैं।
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2918📚General Intelligence & ReasoningCombinatorics & Logic
At the conclusion of a business conference, the ten attendees each shake hands with every other person exactly once. How many handshakes occur in total?
Explanation
Each handshake involves a combination of 2 persons chosen from 10:
Total Handshakes=(102)=10×92=45\text{Total Handshakes} = \binom{10}{2} = \frac{10 \times 9}{2} = 45.
10 व्यक्तियों में से प्रत्येक द्वारा एक-दूसरे से हाथ मिलाने पर कुल हाथ मिलाने की संख्या:
(102)=10×92=45\binom{10}{2} = \frac{10 \times 9}{2} = 45 होगी।
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2919📚Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsNumber System & Prime Numbers
How many two-digit prime numbers remain prime even when the digits are reversed?
Explanation
A two-digit prime number whose reversal is also prime includes both palindromic primes and emirp primes. Inspecting all two-digit primes:
1. 11 (reversal 11 - prime)
2. 13 (reversal 31 - prime)
3. 17 (reversal 71 - prime)
4. 31 (reversal 13 - prime)
5. 37 (reversal 73 - prime)
6. 71 (reversal 17 - prime)
7. 73 (reversal 37 - prime)
8. 79 (reversal 97 - prime)
9. 97 (reversal 79 - prime).
There are exactly 9 such two-digit prime numbers.
दो अंकों की वे अभाज्य संख्याएं जिनके अंकों को उलटने पर भी अभाज्य संख्या प्राप्त होती है:
11, 13, 17, 31, 37, 71, 73, 79, और 97।
ऐसी कुल 9 अभाज्य संख्याएं हैं।
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2920📚Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsTime and Work
15 men can complete the work in 12 days. 12 women can complete the same work in 10 days. In how many days, 4 men and 4 women can complete the same piece of work?
Explanation
Total work:
- 15M×12=180M15M \times 12 = 180M man-days
- 12W×10=120W12W \times 10 = 120W woman-days
Equating work: 180M=120W  ⟹  3M=2W  ⟹  1W=1.5M180M = 120W \implies 3M = 2W \implies 1W = 1.5M.
Convert 4 men and 4 women to equivalent men:
4M+4W=4M+4(1.5M)=4M+6M=10M4M + 4W = 4M + 4(1.5M) = 4M + 6M = 10M.
Number of days required = 180M10M=18 days\frac{180M}{10M} = 18\text{ days}.
कुल कार्य:
15 \text{ पुरुष} \times 12 = 180 \text{ पुरुष-दिन}
12 \text{ महिलाएं} \times 10 = 120 \text{ महिला-दिन}
180M=120W  ⟹  3M=2W  ⟹  1W=1.5M180M = 120W \implies 3M = 2W \implies 1W = 1.5M
4 पुरुष और 4 महिलाएं = 4M+4(1.5M)=10M4M + 4(1.5M) = 10M
कार्य पूरा करने में लगे दिन = 18010=18\frac{180}{10} = 18 दिन।
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2921📚Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsTime and Work
Shiv and Krishna are two typists. One afternoon, they were each given 40 pages for typing. They divided the work equally but Krishna finished 20 minutes before Shiv who took 2 hours for the same. The next afternoon, they were again given 88 pages to type. However, this time they decided to divide the work so that they finish typing simultaneously. How many pages did Shiv have to type?
Explanation
First afternoon (work divided equally = 20 pages each):
- Shiv takes 2 hours (120 minutes) for 20 pages -> rate rS=20120=16r_S = \frac{20}{120} = \frac{1}{6} pages/min.
- Krishna finishes 20 minutes before Shiv (100 minutes) for 20 pages -> rate rK=20100=15r_K = \frac{20}{100} = \frac{1}{5} pages/min.
Second afternoon (88 pages total, finishing together in TT minutes):
T(rS+rK)=88  ⟹  T(16+15)=88  ⟹  T(1130)=88  ⟹  T=240 minutesT(r_S + r_K) = 88 \implies T\left(\frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{5}\right) = 88 \implies T\left(\frac{11}{30}\right) = 88 \implies T = 240\text{ minutes}.
Pages typed by Shiv = rS×T=16×240=40 pagesr_S \times T = \frac{1}{6} \times 240 = 40\text{ pages}.
पहले दिन 20-20 पेज टाइप किए गए:
- शिव की गति = 20120=16\frac{20}{120} = \frac{1}{6} पेज/मिनट
- कृष्णा की गति = 20100=15\frac{20}{100} = \frac{1}{5} पेज/मिनट
दूसरे दिन 88 पेज एक साथ समाप्त करने में लगा समय TT:
T(16+15)=88  ⟹  T(1130)=88  ⟹  T=240T\left(\frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{5}\right) = 88 \implies T\left(\frac{11}{30}\right) = 88 \implies T = 240 मिनट।
शिव द्वारा टाइप किए गए पेज = 16×240=40\frac{1}{6} \times 240 = 40 पेज।
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2922📚Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsMensuration (2D Geometry)
There is a rectangular tank of length 225 m and breadth 96 m in a circular field. If the area of the land portion of the circular field is 40000 m², What is the radius of the field?
Explanation
Area of the rectangular tank = 225×96=21,600 m2225 \times 96 = 21,600\text{ m}^2.
Total area of the circular field = Area of tank + Area of land portion = 21,600+40,000=61,600 m221,600 + 40,000 = 61,600\text{ m}^2.
πR2=61,600  ⟹  227R2=61,600  ⟹  R2=61,600×722=2800×7=19,600\pi R^2 = 61,600 \implies \frac{22}{7} R^2 = 61,600 \implies R^2 = \frac{61,600 \times 7}{22} = 2800 \times 7 = 19,600.
R=19,600=140 mR = \sqrt{19,600} = 140\text{ m}.
आयताकार टैंक का क्षेत्रफल = 225×96=21,600225 \times 96 = 21,600 वर्ग मीटर।
वृत्ताकार मैदान का कुल क्षेत्रफल = 21,600+40,000=61,60021,600 + 40,000 = 61,600 वर्ग मीटर।
πR2=61,600  ⟹  R2=61,600×722=19,600\pi R^2 = 61,600 \implies R^2 = \frac{61,600 \times 7}{22} = 19,600
त्रिज्या R=140R = 140 मीटर।
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2923📚Data Interpretation & Data SufficiencyLine Graph Analysis
Based on the line graph: In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports for Company A?
Explanation
Exports are strictly greater than imports when the ratio ExportsImports>1.0\frac{\text{Exports}}{\text{Imports}} > 1.0.
Looking at the line graph for Company A (represented by circle markers):
- 1995: Ratio = 1.75 (> 1.0) -> Exports > Imports
- 1996: Ratio = 1.50 (> 1.0) -> Exports > Imports
- 1997: Ratio = 1.75 (> 1.0) -> Exports > Imports
- 1998: Ratio = 0.75 (< 1.0)
- 1999: Ratio = 0.75 (< 1.0)
- 2000: Ratio = 1.0 (Exports equal to imports, not strictly more).
Thus, in exactly 3 years (1995, 1996, and 1997), exports were more than imports for Company A (Option C).
निर्यात (Exports), आयात (Imports) से अधिक तब होता है जब अनुपात ExportsImports>1.0\frac{\text{Exports}}{\text{Imports}} > 1.0 हो।
कंपनी A (वृत्ताकार बिंदु) के लिए:
- 1995 में अनुपात = 1.75 (> 1.0)
- 1996 में अनुपात = 1.50 (> 1.0)
- 1997 में अनुपात = 1.75 (> 1.0)
- 1998 में अनुपात = 0.75 (< 1.0)
- 1999 में अनुपात = 0.75 (< 1.0)
- 2000 में अनुपात = 1.0 (निर्यात और आयात बराबर हैं, अधिक नहीं)।
अतः कुल 3 वर्षों (1995, 1996, और 1997) में कंपनी A का निर्यात उसके आयात से अधिक था। सही उत्तर विकल्प C है।
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2924📚Data Interpretation & Data SufficiencyData Sufficiency
The question below consists of a query followed by two statements labeled I and II. You must determine whether the information provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question.
What is the value of M+N?
Statements:
I. M - 2N = 5
II. M² - 25 = 4MN - 4N²
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
We need to find M+NM + N.
- Statement I gives M−2N=5M - 2N = 5. This is one linear equation in two variables, yielding infinitely many pairs (M,N)(M, N) with different values of M+NM + N.
- Statement II gives M2−4MN+4N2=25  ⟹  (M−2N)2=25  ⟹  M−2N=±5M^2 - 4MN + 4N^2 = 25 \implies (M - 2N)^2 = 25 \implies M - 2N = \pm 5. This provides no new information beyond Statement I.
Combining both statements, we still only know that M−2N=5M - 2N = 5, which has infinite solutions for M+NM + N (e.g., if N=0,M=5  ⟹  M+N=5N=0, M=5 \implies M+N=5; if N=1,M=7  ⟹  M+N=8N=1, M=7 \implies M+N=8). Therefore, both statements together are not sufficient.
हमें M+NM + N का मान चाहिए।
- कथन I: M−2N=5M - 2N = 5 (अकेले अपर्याप्त)।
- कथन II: M2−4MN+4N2=25  ⟹  (M−2N)2=25  ⟹  M−2N=±5M^2 - 4MN + 4N^2 = 25 \implies (M - 2N)^2 = 25 \implies M - 2N = \pm 5। यह कथन I से कोई नई जानकारी नहीं देता।
दोनों को मिलाकर भी केवल M−2N=5M - 2N = 5 ही प्राप्त होता है, जिसके अनंत मान संभव हैं (उदा. N=0  ⟹  M+N=5N=0 \implies M+N=5, N=1  ⟹  M+N=8N=1 \implies M+N=8)।
अतः दोनों कथन मिलकर भी पर्याप्त नहीं हैं (विकल्प A)।
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2925📚Data Interpretation & Data SufficiencyData Sufficiency
How many children are seated between U and V in a row?
Statements:
I. U is the 15th child from the left in the row.
II. V is positioned exactly in the middle of the row, with 10 children to his right
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
We want the number of children between U and V.
- Statement I tells U's position from the left (15th), but mentions nothing about V. Insufficient alone.
- Statement II tells V is in the exact middle with 10 children to his right. This means there are 10 children to V's left, making V the 11th child from the left, and the total children in the row = 10+1+10=2110 + 1 + 10 = 21. But it mentions nothing about U. Insufficient alone.
- Combining I and II: U is 15th from the left and V is 11th from the left in the same row of 21. Children seated between them = (15−11)−1=3(15 - 11) - 1 = 3 children (12th, 13th, and 14th). Both statements together are sufficient.
U और V के बीच बैठे बच्चों की संख्या ज्ञात करनी है:
- कथन I से U का स्थान बाईं ओर से 15वां है (अकेला अपर्याप्त)।
- कथन II से V बीच में है और उसके दाईं ओर 10 बच्चे हैं, अर्थात V बाईं ओर से 11वां (10+110 + 1) है और पंक्ति में कुल 21 बच्चे हैं (अकेला अपर्याप्त)।
- दोनों को मिलाने पर: V का स्थान 11वां और U का 15वां है। उनके बीच 15−11−1=315 - 11 - 1 = 3 बच्चे बैठे हैं। अतः दोनों कथन मिलकर पर्याप्त हैं (विकल्प B)।
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2926📚Data Interpretation & Data SufficiencyData Sufficiency
How is K related to Q?
Statements:
I. N is Q’s brother, and Y is Q’s sister.
II. K’s husband is married to Q’s mother, and he has one son and two daughters.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
We want to determine K's relationship to Q.
- Statement I tells only about siblings N and Y, not mentioning K. Insufficient.
- Statement II states: 'K's husband is married to Q's mother'. Since a man is married to his wife, K's husband must be Q's mother's husband, which means K is Q's mother. Thus, K is definitively the mother of Q.
Therefore, statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement I alone is not.
हमें K का Q से संबंध ज्ञात करना है:
- कथन I केवल Q के भाई-बहन की जानकारी देता है, K के बारे में नहीं (अपर्याप्त)।
- कथन II कहता है: 'K का पति Q की माता से विवाहित है'। चूंकि एक व्यक्ति अपनी पत्नी से विवाहित होता है, अतः K ही Q की माता है। इससे सीधे ज्ञात होता है कि K, Q की माता (Mother) है।
अतः कथन II अकेला पर्याप्त है, जबकि कथन I अकेला अपर्याप्त है।
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2927📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyKashmiri Master Calligraphers
ریاست جموں و کشمیر سے تعلق رکھنے والے خط نسخ و نستعلیق کے ماہرین کی نشاندہی کریں۔
(Identify the masters of Khat-e-Naskh and Nastaliq belonging to the state of Jammu and Kashmir:)
Explanation
Muhammad Manzoor Kashmiri and Agha Ghulam Rasool are celebrated historic Kashmiri master calligraphers who achieved exceptional renown in classical Naskh and Nastaliq scripts, transcribing monumental manuscripts and state documents.
ریاست جموں و کشمیر سے تعلق رکھنے والے نامور خطاطین میں محمد منور کشمیری اور آغا غلام رسول کشمیری سرِ فہرست ہیں، جنہوں نے خطِ نسخ اور نستعلیق میں شاندار تاریخی خدمات انجام دیں۔
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2928📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyClassification of Nuqat (Dots)
"نقاط" کی کتنی قسمیں ہیں؟
(How many types of "Nuqat" (dots) are categorized in calligraphy?)
Explanation
In classical calligraphy orthography, dots (Nuqat, plural of Nuqta) are categorized into three primary structural varieties based on their geometrical form: Nuqta Mudawwar (circular/round), Nuqta Murabba (square/rhomboid measuring qat dot), and Nuqta Musallas/Mustateel.
فنِ خطاطی میں نقاط کی ہیئت کے اعتبار سے بنیادی طور پر تین قسمیں مانی جاتی ہیں: نقطۂ مدور (گول)، نقطۂ مربع (چوکور/معیاری قط)، اور نقطۂ مثلث۔
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2929📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyLanguages using Nastaliq Script
اردو رسم الخط "خط نستعلیق" میں لکھی پڑھی جانے والی زبانوں کے صحیح جوڑے کی نشاندہی کریں۔
(Identify the correct pair of language groups written and read in the Urdu script "Khat-e-Nastaliq":)
1. عربی، فارسی، پنجابی، ڈوگری
2. فارسی، عربی، گوجری، پنجابی
3. گوجری، عربی، فارسی، پہاڑی
4. پنجابی، عربی، فارسی، ہندی
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Persian, Arabic, Punjabi (Shahmukhi), Dogri, and Gojri historically share the Perso-Arabic Nastaliq/Naskh writing system. Group 4 is incorrect because Hindi is strictly written in the Devanagari script. Hence, Groups 1 and 2 represent the correct sets.
خطِ نستعلیق اور عربی/فارسی رسم الخط میں عربی، فارسی، پنجابی (شاہ مکھی)، ڈوگری اور گوجری لکھی اور پڑھی جاتی ہیں۔ زمرہ 4 میں ہندی شامل ہے جو دیوناگری میں لکھی جاتی ہے۔ لہٰذا درست جوڑا 1 اور 2 ہے۔
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2930📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyProportions of Badi Ba
"ب" کی دوشکلیں ہیں ایک بڑی اور دوسری چھوٹی، بڑی "ب" میں کتنے قط ہوتے ہیں؟
(There are two forms of "Ba": one large (Kashida) and the other small. How many Qats are in the large "Ba"?)
Explanation
In classical Nastaliq, Badi Ba (کشیدہ ب / extended Ba) has a proportional base measuring 9, 11, or 13 Qats depending on the aesthetic composition and line spacing.
خطِ نستعلیق میں کشیدہ یعنی بڑی 'ب' کی پیمائش اور لمبائی حسنِ خط اور ضرورت کے مطابق 9، 11 یا 13 قط کی رکھی جاتی ہے۔
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2931📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyMasters of Khat-e-Shikasta
درج ذی دئے گئے "خط شکستہ" کے ماہر جوڑے کی نشاندہی کیجئے؟
(Identify the expert master pair of Khat-e-Shikasta from the following:)
Explanation
Chander Bhan Brahman (the distinguished Mughal court munshi of Emperor Shah Jahan) and Rai Prem Nath form the celebrated historic pair of Indian masters renowned for their mastery of Persian Khat-e-Shikasta.
برصغیر میں خطِ شکستہ کے مایہ ناز اساتذہ میں مغل دربارِ شاہجہانی کے میر منشی چندربھان برہمن اور رائے پریم ناتھ کی جوڑی بے حد شہرت رکھتی ہے۔
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2932📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyCalligraphic Literature
"تنویر الشمس" خوشنویسی سے متعلق اہم کتاب کو کس نے تصنیف کیا ہے؟
(Who authored the important treatise on calligraphy titled "Tanweer-ul-Shams"?)
Explanation
"Tanweer-ul-Shams" (تنویر الشمس فی اصول الخط) is the celebrated classical Urdu textbook on calligraphy rules and letter proportions authored by Maulana Khaleeq Ahmad Tonki (مولانا خلیق ٹونکی).
فنِ خطاطی و خوشنویسی کے قواعد پر مستند اور مشہور کتاب 'تنویر الشمس' کے مصنف نامور استاد مولانا خلیق احمد ٹونکی ہیں۔
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2933📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyJ&K Cultural Academy Publications
کلچرل اکیڈیمی سری نگر نے خوشنویسی کی کون سی کتاب کو اجراء کیا گیا؟
(Which calligraphy book was published and released by the J&K Cultural Academy Srinagar?)
Explanation
The Jammu and Kashmir Academy of Art, Culture and Languages (Cultural Academy Srinagar) published the prestigious calligraphy master album titled 'Muraqqa-e-Faiz Mujaddad' (مرقع فیض مجدد) to preserve and propagate Kashmiri calligraphic heritage.
جموں و کشمیر کلچرل اکیڈیمی سری نگر نے خطاطی کے فن کو فروغ دینے اور محفوظ رکھنے کے لیے شاہکار خطاطی مجموعہ 'مرقع فیض مجدد' شائع کر کے جاری کیا۔
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2934📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyCodification of Khat-e-Naskh
خط "نسخ" کو واضح اصولوں کے ساتھ کس نے پیش کیا؟
(Who formulated and presented Khat-e-Naskh with explicit geometric rules?)
Explanation
Abbasid Vizier Abu Ali Muhammad Ibn Muqla (وزیر ابن مقلہ, 886-940 AD) formulated the precise geometric system of proportions (al-Khatt al-Mansub) for Khat-e-Naskh using the rhomboid dot (Qat), Alif circle, and standardized baseline.
خطِ نسخ کو ہندسی اصولوں اور قط کی پیمائش (الخط المنسوب) کے باضابطہ قوانین کے ساتھ عباسی وزیر ابو علی ابنِ مقلہ نے دنیا کے سامنے پیش کیا۔
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2935📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyBaseline (Kursi) Alignment
فن خوشنویسی میں کسی حرف کا نشست و کرسی سے اوپر چڑھ جانا ، یا گر جانا کیا کہلاتا ہے؟
(In calligraphy, if a letter ascends above or drops below its designated baseline (Nishast/Kursi), what is it called?)
Explanation
In classical calligraphy, alignment along the baseline (Kursi / Nishast) is strictly mandatory. If a letter erroneously rises above or sags below the baseline, it is considered an aesthetic and technical defect (عیب).
فنِ خوشنویسی میں ہر حرف کا کرسی یا نشست پر جمنا لازمی ہے۔ اگر کوئی حرف بغیر اصول کے کرسی سے اوپر چڑھ جائے یا نیچے گر جائے تو اسے خوشنویسی کا 'عیب' (نقص) شمار کیا جاتا ہے۔
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2936📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyProportions of Alif
الف (ا) کتنے قط کا کھڑا ہوتا ہے؟
(How many Qats tall is the standing letter Alif (ا) in standard Nastaliq?)
Explanation
In classical Urdu Nastaliq calligraphy, the standard vertical height of an isolated letter Alif (الف) is exactly 3 Qats (تین قط).
خطِ نستعلیق کے روایتی اصولوں میں مفرد حرف الف (ا) کا قد یا اونچائی ٹھیک 3 قط رکھی جاتی ہے۔
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2937📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyForms of Hamza
فن خوشنویسی میں ہمزہ (ء) کی کتنی شکلیں ہیں ۔
(How many forms/shapes does Hamza (ء) have in calligraphy?)
Explanation
In calligraphy and orthography, Hamza possesses four distinct recognized forms: isolated standalone form (ء), Hamza over Alif (أ), Hamza over Waw (ؤ), and Hamza on tooth/seat of Yeh (ئ).
خوشنویسی اور کتابت میں ہمزہ (ء) کی بنیادی طور پر چار شکلیں ہوتی ہیں: مفرد (ء)، الف پر (أ)، واؤ پر (ؤ)، اور شوشے/ی پر (ئ)۔
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2938📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyFive Prerequisites of Calligraphy
میر علی کاتب نے ماہر خطاط بننے کے لیے کتنے شرائط بیان کئے ہیں۔
(How many conditions/prerequisites did Mir Ali Katib prescribe for becoming an expert calligrapher?)
Explanation
In his celebrated didactic poem, master calligrapher Mir Ali Katib stated exactly 5 prerequisites: hand dexterity (Quwwat-e-Dast), script knowledge (Wuqoof-e-Khatt), a benevolent master (Ustad-e-Shafeeq), capacity for hard toil (Taqat-e-Mehnat), and exquisite writing tools (Asbab-e-Kitabat).
مشہور خطاط میر علی کاتب نے اپنے منظوم کلام میں ماہر کاتب بننے کے لیے 5 شرائط بیان کی ہیں: قوتِ دست، وقوفِ خط، استادِ شفیق، طاقتِ محنت، اور اسبابِ کتابت۔
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2939📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyTwelve Principles of Calligraphy
فنِ خطاطی کے بنیادی اصول کتنے ہیں؟
(How many fundamental principles (Usool) of calligraphy are codified?)
Explanation
Classical masters (from Ibn Muqla to Mir Ali) established exactly 12 fundamental principles (بارہ اصول) of calligraphy: Tarkib, Kursi, Nisbat, Dha'f, Quwwat, Satah, Daura, Su'ood, Nazool, Tarteeb, Safa, and Shaan.
فنِ خطاطی کے کلاسیکی اساتذہ نے اس فن کے بنیادی طور پر 12 اصول وضع کیے ہیں جن میں ترکیب، کرسی، نسبت، ضعف، قوت، سطح، دورہ، صعود، نزول، ترتیب، صفا اور شان شامل ہیں۔
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2940📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyCalligraphic Literature
مولوی احترام الدین احمد شاغل عثمانی نے خوشنویسی پر کون سی کتاب لکھی ہے؟
(Which book on calligraphy was authored by Maulvi Ihtiram-ud-Din Ahmad Shaghal Usmani?)
Explanation
"Saheefa-e-Khushnaveesan" (صحیفۂ خوشنویساں) is the famous biographical and technical compendium on master calligraphers compiled by Maulvi Ihtiram-ud-Din Ahmad Shaghal Usmani.
خطاطوں کے تذکرے اور فنِ خطاطی کی تاریخ پر مشتمل مشہور تصنیف 'صحیفۂ خوشنویساں' کے مؤلف مولوی احترام الدین احمد شاغل عثمانی ہیں۔
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2941📚Traditional Calligraphy Tools, Inks, Papers & MaterialsBasic Calligraphy Stationery
اشیاء ضروری برائے خوشنویسی کیا کیا ہے؟
(What are the essential items for practicing calligraphy?)
Explanation
Among the choices provided, Pencil, Paper, and Eraser (پنسل، پیپر، ربر) constitute the standard indispensable basic draftsmanship kit for drafting and practicing letter forms.
دیے گئے اختیارات میں سے پنسل، پیپر اور ربر وہ بنیادی و ناگزیر اشیاء ہیں جو خطاطی کے خاکے اور مشق کے لیے ہر طالب علم کو درکار ہوتی ہیں۔
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2942📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyLanguages written in Nastaliq
خط نستعلیق میں لکھی پڑھی جانے والی زبانوں کے صحیح زمرے کی نشاندہی کیجئے۔
(Identify the correct group of languages written and read in Khat-e-Nastaliq:)
Explanation
Kashmiri, Urdu, and Punjabi (Shahmukhi) are all predominantly composed, printed, and taught in the Nastaliq script. (Hindi, Telugu, and Sanskrit use Indic scripts).
کشمیری، اردو اور پنجابی (شاہ مکھی) تینوں زبانیں روایتی طور پر خطِ نستعلیق میں لکھی اور پڑھی جاتی ہیں۔
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2943📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyKhat-e-Tauqi Characteristics
طرز نگارش کے اعتبار سے "خط توقیع" کس خط سے مشابہت رکھتا ہے؟
(In terms of writing style, with which script does "Khat-e-Tauqi" bear the closest resemblance?)
Explanation
Khat-e-Tauqi (used historically by caliphs and viziers for royal signatures and decrees) is directly derived from Khat-e-Thuluth and shares its bold curves and majestic structure in a slightly condensed format.
خطِ توقیع (جو فرامین اور توقیعات کے لیے استعمال ہوتا تھا) ساخت اور طرزِ نگارش کے اعتبار سے خطِ ثلث سے گہری مشابہت رکھتا ہے اور اسی سے ماخوذ ہے۔
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2944📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyIbn Muqla's Domain
مولانا محمد حسین ابن مقلہ کس فن میں ید طولیٰ رکھتے تھے۔
(In which art did Ibn Muqla possess supreme and unrivaled mastery?)
Explanation
Abu Ali Muhammad Ibn Muqla was the legendary Abbasid vizier who revolutionized the art of Calligraphy (فنِ خطاطی) by establishing the geometric system of al-Khatt al-Mansub.
ابو علی محمد ابنِ مقلہ کو فنِ خطاطی میں یدِ طولیٰ حاصل تھا اور انہوں نے ہی خطوطِ اسلامیہ کو ہندسی اصولوں کے تابع کیا۔
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2945📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyUrdu Orthography and Imla
درج ذیل الفاظ میں سے درست املا کی نشاندہی کیجئے؟
(Identify the correct spelling (imla) from the following words:)
Explanation
The correct standard Urdu/Arabic spelling for the word meaning 'comprehension/explanation' is تفہیم (Tafheem, spelled with Tey, Fey, Hey, Yeh, Meem).
اردو اور عربی میں درست لفظ 'تفہیم' (فہم سے بابِ تفعیل) ہے جس کا مطلب سمجھانا یا فہم عطا کرنا ہے۔
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2946📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyWorld Masters of Calligraphy
خطاطی کے عالمی شہرت یافتہ فن کاروں کے صحیح زمرے کی نشاندہی کیجئے؟
(Identify the correct group of universally renowned world masters of calligraphy:)
Explanation
Ibn al-Bawwab (Abbasid master), Hafiz Usman (the legendary Ottoman master), and Ibn Muqla (codifier of al-Khatt al-Mansub) form the iconic, universally celebrated trio of master calligraphers in world history.
اسلامی و عالمی خطاطی کے مستند اور شہرۂ آفاق اساتذہ کا صحیح زمرہ 'ابن البواب، حافظ عثمان اور ابن مقلہ' پر مشتمل ہے۔
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2947📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyCalligraphic Literature
"رہنمائے اردو خوشنویسی" فن خوشنویسی و خطاطی پر کس کی لکھی کتاب ہے؟
(Who is the author of the instructional book "Rahnama-e-Urdu Khushnaveesi"?)
Explanation
"Rahnama-e-Urdu Khushnaveesi" is the renowned instructional guide on calligraphy techniques authored by Maulana Asim Amrohvi (مولانا عاصم امروہوی).
خوشنویسی کے قواعد اور عملی مشق پر مشتمل معروف رہنما کتاب 'رہنمائے اردو خوشنویسی' کے مصنف مولانا عاصم امروہوی ہیں۔
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2948📚Urdu DTP, InPage, Digital Graphic Design & HardwareAdobe Photoshop Tools
آڈوب فوٹوشاپ میں ہم (Magic wind tool) [Magic Wand tool] سے کس طرح کی مدد لیتے ہیں؟
(In Adobe Photoshop, how does the Magic Wand tool assist us?)
Explanation
The Magic Wand Tool in Adobe Photoshop selects pixels based on tone and color similarity, enabling designers to quickly isolate, select, delete, or replace the background of an image.
فوٹوشاپ میں میجک وانڈ ٹول (Magic Wand tool) ہم رنگ حصوں کو فوری منتخب کرنے کے کام آتا ہے، جس سے تصویر کے پس منظر (Background) کو آسانی سے تبدیل یا حذف کیا جا سکتا ہے۔
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2949📚Urdu DTP, InPage, Digital Graphic Design & HardwareComputer Hardware - Input Devices
کمپیوٹر میں "کی بورڈ" کیا ہے؟
(In computing, what is a "Keyboard"?)
Explanation
A keyboard is a primary hardware Input device (ان پٹ ڈوائس) used to enter alphanumeric characters, commands, and text data into a computer.
کی بورڈ (Keyboard) کمپیوٹر کی بنیادی ان پٹ (Input) ڈیوائس ہے جس کے ذریعے تحریری ہدایات اور ڈیٹا کمپیوٹر میں درج کیا جاتا ہے۔
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2950📚Urdu DTP, InPage, Digital Graphic Design & HardwareInPage Software Overview
"ان پیج" کس زبان کا سافٹ ویئر پروگرام ہے؟
(InPage is a desktop publishing software primarily dedicated to which language?)
Explanation
InPage is the industry-standard word processing and page-layout publishing software created specifically for the Urdu language using the Noori Nastaliq typography.
ان پیج (InPage) خاص طور پر اردو زبان کی کتابت، کمپوزنگ اور اشاعت کے لیے تیار کیا گیا معیاری سافٹ ویئر ہے۔
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2951📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyKashmiri Calligraphy Treatises
"خوشنویسانِ کشمیر" کے مصنف کون ہیں؟
(Who is the author of the historical work "Khushnaveesan-e-Kashmir"?)
Explanation
"Khushnaveesan-e-Kashmir" (خوشنویسانِ کشمیر) is the monumental historical treatise on the calligraphic heritage and scribes of Kashmir authored by Maulana Ahmad Din Shaghal.
کشمیر کی صدیوں پرانی خطاطی کی تاریخ اور کشمیری اساتذہ کے فن پر مستند تصنیف 'خوشنویسانِ کشمیر' کے مصنف مولانا احمد دین شاغل ہیں۔
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2952📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyCalligraphy Historical Statements
درج ذیل دیئے گئے جوڑوں پر غور کر کے درست جواب کا انتخاب کریں۔
1. مولانا محمد حسین ابن مقلہ بغداد میں پیدا ہوئے ہیں
2. میر علی تبریزی کا انتقال 850ھ میں ہوا
3. شبیر احمد رضوی ایک کشمیری گلوکار تھے
4. شفیق الزماں خان ملتانی پاکستان کے سابق کھلاڑی ہیں
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are historically true (Ibn Muqla was born in Baghdad in 886 AD; Mir Ali Tabrizi passed away around 850 AH). Statements 3 and 4 are completely false: Shabir Ahmad Rizvi was a master Kashmiri calligrapher (not a singer), and Shafiq-uz-Zaman Khan Multani is the world-renowned Master Calligrapher of Masjid al-Nabawi (not a sportsperson).
بیانات 1 اور 2 تاریخی طور پر درست ہیں۔ بیان 3 غلط ہے کیونکہ شبیر احمد رضوی گلوکار نہیں بلکہ ممتاز کشمیری خطاط تھے، اور بیان 4 غلط ہے کیونکہ شفیق الزماں خان کھلاڑی نہیں بلکہ مسجد نبوی کے چیف خطاط ہیں۔ لہٰذا صرف 1 اور 2 درست ہیں۔
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2953📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyInstitutions of Calligraphy in J&K
جموں و کشمیر کے کس ادارے نے فن خوشنویسی کے فروغ میں اہم رول ادا کیا؟
(Which institution in Jammu and Kashmir played the pivotal role in promoting the art of calligraphy?)
Explanation
The Jammu and Kashmir Academy of Art, Culture and Languages (J&K Cultural Academy Srinagar) established institutional calligraphy training institutes, published master albums, and provided patronage to master calligraphers.
ریاست جموں و کشمیر میں فنِ خوشنویسی کی سرپرستی، تربیتی مراکز کے قیام اور فروغ میں سب سے اہم اور بنیادی کردار کلچرل اکیڈیمی سری نگر نے ادا کیا۔
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2954📚Urdu DTP, InPage, Digital Graphic Design & HardwareCorelDRAW Commands
کورل ڈرا میں Paste Special کمانڈ سے کیا مدد لی جاسکتی ہے؟
(In CorelDRAW, how does the 'Paste Special' command assist the designer?)
Explanation
The 'Paste Special' command in CorelDRAW allows users to paste copied graphics, objects, or text from other applications while selecting specific data formats, OLE embedded objects, or active links.
کورل ڈرا میں 'Paste Special' کمانڈ کی مدد سے دوسرے سافٹ وئیرز (جیسے ایم ایس ورڈ، ایکسل وغیرہ) سے ٹیکسٹ یا تصاویر کو مخصوص فارمیٹ اور لنکنگ کے ساتھ انسرٹ کیا جاتا ہے۔
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2955📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyMurakkab Huroof-e-Tahajji
مرکب حروفِ تہجی کی تعداد کتنی ہیں؟
(How many compound letters (Murakkab / Do-Chashmi Hey aspirated letters) are recognized in Urdu?)
Explanation
In standard Urdu grammar (Muqtadira Qaumi Zaban and NCERT), the compound aspirated letters formed with Do-Chashmi Hey (بھ، پھ، تھ، ٹھ، جھ، چھ، دھ، ڈھ، ڑھ، کھ، گھ، لھ، مھ، نھ) are officially numbered as 14 (or 15 when including رھ). The standard key recognizes 14 (چودہ).
اردو حروفِ تہجی میں دو چشمی ھ سے بننے والے مخلوط یا مرکب حروف کی باضابطہ تعداد 14 (یا 15) مانی جاتی ہے۔ معیاری امتحانی کلید کے مطابق درست تعداد 14 ہے۔
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2956📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyHashiya and Jadwal
"حاشیہ" کس سے کہتے ہیں؟
(What is called "Hashiya" (margin) in book arts and calligraphy?)
Explanation
In classical manuscript composition, 'Hashiya' (حاشیہ) refers to the blank or illuminated border space surrounding the outer edges of the ruled text box / Jadwal (جدول کے باہری کناروں کو).
مخطوطات اور کتابت میں جدول (سطروں کے گرد کھینچی گئی لکیر) کے بیرونی کناروں اور خالی بارڈر کو 'حاشیہ' کہا جاتا ہے۔
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2957📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyChief Calligrapher of Masjid Nabawi
درج ذیل خطاط میں سے کس کو مسجد نبویؐ میں خطاطی کے لیے منتخب کیا گیا؟
(From the following calligraphers, who was selected to execute the calligraphy in the Prophet's Mosque (Masjid al-Nabawi)?)
Explanation
Ustad Shafiq-uz-Zaman Khan Multani (شفیق الزماں خان ملتانی) won the prestigious global competition and served as the Chief Calligrapher of the Prophet's Mosque (Masjid al-Nabawi) in Medina.
مسجدِ نبوی شریف میں خطاطی کے عظیم شرف کے لیے پاکستان کے شہرہ آفاق خطاط استاد شفیق الزماں خان ملتانی کو منتخب کیا گیا۔
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2958📚Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyCount of Urdu Alphabet
اردو زبان کے حروف تہجی (ا) سمیت کتنے ہیں؟
(How many letters of the alphabet are there in the Urdu language, including Alif?)
Explanation
In standard Urdu orthography, counting basic isolated letters from Alif to Badi Yeh along with Alif-Madda and Hamza, the alphabet comprises 38 letters (38 حروفِ تہجی).
اردو زبان کے بنیادی حروفِ تہجی کی تعداد الف اور ہمزہ/مد سمیت مستند قواعد میں 38 مانی جاتی ہے۔
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2959📚Urdu DTP, InPage, Digital Graphic Design & HardwareInPage Urdu Layout
اردو کے لیے ایک مکمل لے آؤٹ سافٹ ویئر پیکیج کون سا ہے؟
(Which is a complete layout software package for the Urdu language?)
Explanation
InPage Urdu (ان پیج اردو) is the comprehensive, dedicated desktop publishing layout software package created specifically for Nastaliq Urdu typesetting and publication.
اردو زبان میں کتابوں، اخبارات اور رسائل کی دیدہ زیب کمپوزنگ اور پیج لے آؤٹ کے لیے مکمل سافٹ ویئر پیکیج 'ان پیج اردو' (InPage Urdu) ہے۔
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2960📚History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyKashmiri Calligraphy Authors
مصنف اور کتاب پر غور کر کے صحیح جوڑ کی نشاندہی کیجئے؟
(Examine the author and book and identify the correct match:)
Explanation
Maulana Ahmad Din Shaghal is the celebrated author of 'Shireen Qalam' (شرین قلم), an authoritative handbook on calligraphy in Kashmir.
دیے گئے جوڑوں میں صحیح جوڑ 'مولانا احمد دین شاغل : شرین قلم' ہے، جو کشمیری خطاطی کی تاریخ پر ان کی مشہور تصنیف ہے۔
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2961📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMass Communication Theories
Consider the following statements about mass communication theories:
i. Hypodermic Needle Theory assumes a passive audience.
ii. Cultivation Theory suggests long-term media exposure shapes perceptions.
iii. Spiral of Silence Theory explains why individuals conform to dominant opinions.
iv. Uses and Gratifications Theory highlights media's manipulation of audiences.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is incorrect because Uses and Gratifications Theory (Blumler & Katz) posits an ACTIVE audience that actively selects media to fulfill psychological needs, rather than a passive audience being manipulated by media.
कथन i, ii और iii सत्य हैं। कथन iv गलत है क्योंकि 'उपयोग और संतुष्टि सिद्धांत' (Uses and Gratifications Theory) दर्शकों को सक्रिय मानता है जो अपनी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के लिए मीडिया चुनते हैं, न कि मीडिया द्वारा उनका हेरफेर (manipulation) होता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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2962📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsVerbal vs Non-Verbal Communication
Non-verbal communication includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Gestures
B) Facial expressions
C) Written letters
D) Body posture
Explanation
Written letters constitute verbal communication (using language and words in written form). Non-verbal communication involves kinesics, gestures, facial expressions, proxemics, and body posture without the use of spoken or written words.
लिखित पत्र (Written letters) मौखिक/शाब्दिक संचार (Verbal Communication) का हिस्सा हैं क्योंकि इनमें शब्दों और भाषा का प्रयोग होता है। हाव-भाव, चेहरे के भाव और शारीरिक मुद्रा अशाब्दिक संचार (Non-verbal) हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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2963📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSemiotics & Signs (Peirce)
Match the following types of signs in semiotics with their examples:
1. Icon
2. Index
3. Symbol
Examples:
i. Smoke as an index of fire.
ii. A picture of a pen resembling a real pen.
iii. The word "Mango" representing a fruit.
Choose the correct Option:
Explanation
In Charles Sanders Peirce's semiotic triadic framework:
- Icon: Signifier physically resembles the signified (picture of a pen).
- Index: Direct existential or causal link (smoke indicates fire).
- Symbol: Arbitrary, learned conventional relationship (the linguistic word 'Mango').
चार्ल्स सैंडर्स पियर्स के सेमिओटिक्स वर्गीकरण में:
- आइकन (Icon): जो वास्तविक वस्तु जैसा दिखता है (कलम का चित्र - ii)
- इंडेक्स (Index): जो कारण-प्रभाव से जुड़ा हो (धुआं आग का संकेत है - i)
- सिंबल (Symbol): जो पारंपरिक और मनमाना हो (शब्द 'आम' - iii)। अतः 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii सही है।
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2964📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Typologies
Match the following types of participation with their descriptions:
Types of Participation:
i. Non-participation
ii. Controlled participation
iii. Co-management
iv. Self-management
Descriptions:
1. Power is shared between funders and local groups.
2. Authority imposes decisions without consultation.
3. Elites permit discussion but retain control over outcomes.
4. Participants collectively decide and execute decisions.
Choose the correct Option:
Explanation
In participatory development communication (Arnstein's ladder / White's participation typology):
- Non-participation: Decisions imposed from above without consultation (i-2).
- Controlled participation: Consultations held as a token gesture while elites retain ultimate power (ii-3).
- Co-management: Shared partnership and joint decision-making (iii-1).
- Self-management: Autonomous collective empowerment where community leads and decides (iv-4).
सहभागिता के स्तरों का सही मिलान:
- गैर-सहभागिता: बिना परामर्श के निर्णय थोपना (i-2)
- नियंत्रित सहभागिता: चर्चा की अनुमति लेकिन नियंत्रण अभिजात वर्ग के पास (ii-3)
- सह-प्रबंधन: सत्ता और शक्ति का साझाकरण (iii-1)
- स्व-प्रबंधन: प्रतिभागियों द्वारा सामूहिक निर्णय और क्रियान्वयन (iv-4)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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2965📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsEvolution of Media Formats
Arrange the following media formats in the order of their historical emergence:
i. Print Media
ii. Broadcast Media
iii. New Media
iv. Social Media
Choose the correct Option:
Explanation
Historical emergence of mass media formats:
1. Print Media (Gutenberg press in 1440s; first Indian newspaper Bengal Gazette in 1780).
2. Broadcast Media (Radio broadcasting in 1920s; Television in 1930s-1950s).
3. New Media (Internet and World Wide Web in the 1990s).
4. Social Media (Web 2.0 interactive platforms like MySpace, Facebook in 2000s).
माध्यमों के ऐतिहासिक उद्भव का सही क्रम:
1. प्रिंट मीडिया (15वीं सदी)
2. ब्रॉडकास्ट मीडिया (रेडियो व टीवी - 20वीं सदी)
3. न्यू मीडिया (इंटरनेट व वेब - 1990 का दशक)
4. सोशल मीडिया (2000 का दशक)। अतः सही क्रम i, ii, iii, iv है।
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2966📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDefamation Law: Libel vs Slander
What is the term used for written defamation under Indian law?
A) Slander
B) Libel
C) Calumny
D) Vilification
Explanation
In torts and media law, defamation in permanent or written form (print, broadcast, images) is termed 'Libel'. Spoken or transitory defamation is termed 'Slander'.
कानून में मानहानि के दो रूप होते हैं: लिखित, मुद्रित या स्थायी रूप में की गई मानहानि को 'अपलेख' (Libel) कहते हैं, जबकि मौखिक मानहानि को 'अपवचन' (Slander) कहा जाता है।
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2967📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsBarriers to Communication
Match the communication barriers with examples:
i. Physical Barrier
ii. Psychological Barrier
iii. Semantic Barrier
iv. Organizational Barrier
Examples:
1. Language differences
2. Noise in the environment
3. Emotional stress
4. Poor hierarchical structure
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Correct matching of communication barriers:
- Physical Barrier: Environmental distance, loud background noise (i-2).
- Psychological Barrier: Emotional anxiety, stress, prejudices (ii-3).
- Semantic Barrier: Jargon, vocabulary, language comprehension issues (iii-1).
- Organizational Barrier: Bureaucratic rigidity, poor scalar chain/structure (iv-4).
संचार बाधाओं का सही मिलान:
- भौतिक बाधा: वातावरण में शोर (i-2)
- मनोवैज्ञानिक बाधा: भावनात्मक तनाव (ii-3)
- सिमेंटिक/अर्थगत बाधा: भाषा के अंतर (iii-1)
- संगठनात्मक बाधा: खराब पदानुक्रमित संरचना (iv-4)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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2968📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsHuman Eye & Vision Mechanics
Which part of the eye is responsible for controlling the amount of light entering the eye?
A) Cornea
B) Pupil
C) Retina
D) Lens
Explanation
The pupil is the central aperture in the eye whose diameter is regulated by the iris muscles to control the amount of light that enters the interior of the eyeball.
नेत्र की पुतली (Pupil) परितारिका (Iris) के संकुचन और विस्तार द्वारा आंख में प्रवेश करने वाले प्रकाश की मात्रा को नियंत्रित करती है।
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2969📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingRole of News Agencies (Wire Services)
Which of the following best describes the role of news agencies in mainstream journalism?
A) They provide free news stories to all media outlets
B) They are the primary source of revenue for newspapers
C) They supply news stories and visuals to reduce news-gathering costs
D) They focus on investigative journalism
Explanation
News agencies (wire services like PTI, UNI, Reuters, AP) employ vast networks of correspondents and sell syndicated wire copy and imagery to newspapers and broadcasters, substantially lowering individual media houses' news-gathering operational costs.
समाचार एजेंसियां (जैसे PTI, Reuters) व्यापक संवाददाता नेटवर्क के जरिए समाचार और दृश्य सामग्री जुटाकर मीडिया संस्थानों को बेचती हैं, जिससे समाचार पत्रों की स्वयं की समाचार संकलन लागत बहुत कम हो जाती है।
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2970📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsCable TV Advertising Code
A cable operator airs an advertisement that promotes the consumption of alcohol. Which code is being violated?
A) Programme Code
B) Advertising Code
C) NBDA Code of Ethics
D) Defamation Law
Explanation
Under Rule 7 of the Cable Television Networks Rules, 1994, the 'Advertising Code' explicitly prohibits advertisements that directly or indirectly promote the sale or consumption of alcohol, tobacco, and other intoxicants.
केबल टेलीविजन नेटवर्क नियम, 1994 के नियम 7 के तहत 'विज्ञापन संहिता' (Advertising Code) शराब, तंबाकू और नशीले पदार्थों के प्रत्यक्ष या अप्रत्यक्ष विज्ञापनों पर पूर्ण प्रतिबंध लगाती है।
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2971📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingMedia Convergence Definition
In the context of digital communication, "convergence" refers to:
A) The blending of traditional and digital media platforms
B) The decline of print media industries
C) The separation of different media industries
D) A method of encoding and decoding messages
Explanation
Media convergence refers to the merging and blending of previously separate mass media technologies (print, audio, video, telecommunications) onto single digital and internet platforms.
डिजिटल संचार में 'कन्वर्जेंस' (अभिसरण) से तात्पर्य पारंपरिक मीडिया (प्रिंट, टीवी, रेडियो) और डिजिटल मीडिया प्लेटफॉर्म्स के परस्पर एकीकरण और सम्मिश्रण से है।
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2972📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsPrinciples of Design: Unity
A designer wants to create a sense of unity in a visual composition. Which principle of design should they focus on?
A) Contrast
B) Emphasis
C) Unity
D) Rhythm
Explanation
The principle of 'Unity' (or harmony) ensures that all individual visual elements in an artwork or layout cohere and visually belong together to create an integrated whole.
किसी दृश्य संयोजन में समग्रता और एकरूपता की भावना पैदा करने के लिए डिज़ाइनर को 'एकता' (Unity/Harmony) के सिद्धांत पर ध्यान केंद्रित करना चाहिए।
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2973📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Community Radio Systems
A community radio station wants to broadcast local news and disaster warnings. Which type of radio system would be most suitable for this purpose?
A) AM radio
B) FM radio
C) Ham radio
D) Satellite radio
Explanation
Community Radio Stations (CRS) operate exclusively within the FM radio frequency spectrum (usually under low-power transmitters with a 10-15 km radius), delivering crystal-clear localized news and emergency advisories to designated geographic clusters.
सामुदायिक रेडियो स्टेशन (Community Radio) कम दूरी के स्थानीय क्षेत्र और आपदा चेतावनियों के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त होते हैं और भारत में ये विशेष रूप से FM बैंड पर संचालित होते हैं।
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2974📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsGatekeeping Theory in Journalism
In mass communication, 'gatekeeping' refers to:
A) The audience's control over content
B) The process of filtering information
C) The transmission of messages
D) Feedback from receivers
Explanation
Coined by Kurt Lewin and applied to journalism by David Manning White, 'Gatekeeping' refers to the filtering process through which information is selected, shaped, edited, or rejected by media gatekeepers before dissemination to the public.
जनसंचार में 'गेटकीपिंग' (Gatekeeping) से तात्पर्य सूचनाओं के छनन (Filtering) की उस प्रक्रिया से है जिसमें संपादक और पत्रकार तय करते हैं कि कौन सा समाचार जनता तक पहुंचेगा और कौन सा नहीं।
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2975📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Characteristics
Which of the following is a key characteristic of new media?
A) One-way communication
B) High interactivity
C) Limited audience engagement
D) Fixed content with no updates
Explanation
High interactivity is the hallmark defining characteristic of new media, empowering users to actively manipulate, comment upon, share, and produce content in real time.
न्यू मीडिया (New Media) की सबसे प्रमुख और विशिष्ट विशेषता 'उच्च पारस्परिकता' (High Interactivity) है, जिसमें उपयोगकर्ता केवल निष्क्रिय पाठक नहीं बल्कि सक्रिय भागीदार होता है।
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2976📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDesign Elements: Space & Depth
A photographer wants to create a sense of depth in an image. Which element of design should they focus on?
A) Line
B) Space
C) Texture
D) Form
Explanation
In photography and visual arts, 'Space' (specifically positive and negative space, foreground/middleground/background layering, and perspective) is the design element that governs the illusion of three-dimensional depth on a two-dimensional surface.
फोटोग्राफी में गहराई (Depth) का भ्रम पैदा करने के लिए डिज़ाइन के तत्व 'स्थान' (Space - अग्रभूमि, मध्यभूमि और पृष्ठभूमि का संयोजन) पर ध्यान केंद्रित किया जाता है।
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2977📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDefamation Terms & Defences
Match the following terms with their correct definitions:
1) Slander
2) Libel
3) Fair Comment
4) Privilege
Definitions:
i) Written defamation
ii) Verbal defamation
iii) Defence against defamation for matters of public interest
iv) Legal protection for statements made in certain contexts
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Defamation legal definitions:
- Slander: Oral, spoken, transitory defamation (1-ii).
- Libel: Permanent written, printed, or broadcast defamation (2-i).
- Fair Comment: Common law defence for honest expression of opinion on matters of public interest (3-iii).
- Privilege: Immunity/protection shielding statements made in legislative or judicial proceedings (4-iv).
कानूनी परिभाषाओं का सही मिलान:
1. स्लेंडर (Slander): मौखिक मानहानि (ii)
2. लाइबल (Libel): लिखित मानहानि (i)
3. निष्पक्ष टिप्पणी (Fair Comment): जनहित के मामलों में मानहानि का कानूनी बचाव (iii)
4. विशेषाधिकार (Privilege): विशिष्ट संदर्भों में दिए गए बयानों को कानूनी संरक्षण (iv)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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2978📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsContempt of Court & Sub Judice
A journalist is reporting on a high-profile court case and speculates about the guilt of the accused before the verdict is announced. Which law is the journalist most likely violating?
A) Official Secrets Act
B) Contempt of Courts Act
C) Defamation Law
D) Programme Code for Television
Explanation
Under Section 2(c) and Section 3 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, commenting on pending trials in a manner that prejudices the public or the judge violates the sub judice rule and constitutes criminal contempt of court.
विचाराधीन मामले में आरोपी के निर्णय से पूर्व उसकी दोषिता पर अटकलें लगाना न्यायिक निष्पक्षता को प्रभावित करता है, जो न्यायालय की अवमानना (Contempt of Courts Act) है।
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2979📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication Barriers Categorization
Match the following communication barriers with their types:
i. Jargon
ii. Network Failure
iii. Lack of Attention
iv. Cultural Differences
Types:
1. Semantic Barrier
2. Technical Barrier
3. Psychological Barrier
4. Sociological Barrier
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching:
- Jargon: Specialized vocabulary causing meaning confusion -> Semantic Barrier (i-1)
- Network Failure: Hardware/transmission breakdown -> Technical Barrier (ii-2)
- Lack of Attention: Internal distraction/preoccupation -> Psychological Barrier (iii-3)
- Cultural Differences: Divergence in social norms and traditions -> Sociological Barrier (iv-4).
संचार बाधाओं का सही मिलान:
- जार्गन (तकनीकी शब्दावली): सिमेंटिक बाधा (i-1)
- नेटवर्क विफलता: तकनीकी बाधा (ii-2)
- ध्यान की कमी: मनोवैज्ञानिक बाधा (iii-3)
- सांस्कृतिक मतभेद: समाजशास्त्रीय बाधा (iv-4)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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2980📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Invention of Wireless Communication
Who is often credited as the inventor of wireless communication?
A) Alexander S. Popov
B) Guglielmo Marconi
C) Jagdish Chandra Bose
D) Thomas Edison
Explanation
Italian inventor Guglielmo Marconi is internationally celebrated as the pioneer of wireless telegraphy/communication, having transmitted the first transatlantic radio signal in 1901 and shared the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1909.
वायरलेस संचार (रेडियो टेलीग्राफी) के सफल आविष्कारक के रूप में गुग्लिएल्मो मार्कोनी (Guglielmo Marconi) को श्रेय दिया जाता है, जिन्होंने लंबी दूरी के रेडियो सिग्नल का पेटेंट कराया।
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2981📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsNon-Verbal Gestures
In a noisy classroom, a teacher uses hand gestures to explain a concept. This is an example of:
A) Verbal communication
B) Feedback mechanism
C) Non-verbal communication
D) Psychological noise
Explanation
Hand gestures, body language, and physical signs communicate meaning without vocalized or written words, exemplifying Non-verbal communication.
कक्षा में शोर होने पर शिक्षक द्वारा हाथ के इशारों (Gestures) से बात समझाना 'अशाब्दिक संचार' (Non-verbal communication) का स्पष्ट उदाहरण है।
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2982📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsPrinciples of Design
Which of the following are principles of design in visual communication?
i. Unity
ii. Emphasis
iii. Contrast
iv. Rhythm
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
The core principles of design governing effective visual communication include Unity (harmony), Emphasis (focal point), Contrast (distinction/counterpoint), Rhythm (visual movement/repetition), as well as Balance and Proportion.
दृश्य संचार में डिज़ाइन के मूलभूत सिद्धांतों में एकता (Unity), प्रमुखता/बल (Emphasis), विषमता (Contrast) और लय (Rhythm) चारों शामिल हैं। अतः 'उपरोक्त सभी' सही है।
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2983📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication Concepts Verification
Consider the following statements:
i. Communication is a one-way process.
ii. Verbal communication includes written and spoken words.
iii. Noise can be both physical and psychological.
iv. Non-verbal cues are irrelevant in professional settings.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements ii and iii are correct. Verbal communication involves words in both oral and written modes. Noise encompasses environmental physical disturbances and internal cognitive/emotional psychological distractions. Statement i is false (communication is interactive two-way); Statement iv is false (non-verbal body language is vital in professional settings).
कथन ii और iii सत्य हैं। मौखिक संचार में लिखित और बोले गए दोनों शब्द शामिल होते हैं। शोर (Noise) भौतिक और मनोवैज्ञानिक दोनों हो सकता है। संचार एकतरफा नहीं होता और अशाब्दिक संकेत पेशेवर जीवन में अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण होते हैं।
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2984📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsPhysiology of Human Vision
Arrange the following stages of the human vision process in the correct order:
i. Light enters the eye through the cornea
ii. Electrical signals are sent to the brain via the optic nerve
iii. The retina detects light and converts it into electrical signals
iv. The lens focuses light on the retina
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Physiological optics sequence of human vision:
1. Light enters through the cornea (i)
2. The crystalline lens focuses the light rays onto the retina (iv)
3. Photoreceptors (rods and cones) in the retina detect light and transduce it into electrochemical impulses (iii)
4. Electrical signals are transmitted via the optic nerve to the visual cortex of the brain (ii).
मानव दृष्टि प्रक्रिया का सही अनुक्रम:
1. प्रकाश कॉर्निया के माध्यम से आंख में प्रवेश करता है (i)
2. लेंस प्रकाश को रेटिना पर केंद्रित करता है (iv)
3. रेटिना प्रकाश को विद्युत संकेतों में परिवर्तित करता है (iii)
4. ऑप्टिक तंत्रिका द्वारा संकेत मस्तिष्क तक भेजे जाते हैं (ii)। अतः सही क्रम i, iv, iii, ii है।
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2985📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsGestalt Principle of Proximity
According to Gestalt theory, which principle states that objects close to each other are perceived as a group?
A) Similarity
B) Proximity
C) Continuity
D) Common Fate
Explanation
The Gestalt Principle of Proximity (निकटता का नियम) establishes that items positioned near one another are cognitively perceived by human perception as a unified cluster or related group.
गेस्टाल्ट सिद्धांत के अनुसार, 'निकटता का नियम' (Principle of Proximity) यह प्रतिपादित करता है कि जो वस्तुएं एक-दूसरे के निकट स्थित होती हैं, उन्हें आंखें स्वाभाविक रूप से एक समूह के रूप में देखती हैं।
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2986📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Satellite STL for Nationwide Broadcasting
A broadcasting company wants to transmit programmes to multiple transmitters across the country. Which STL option would be most cost-effective and efficient?
A) Telephone lines
B) Coaxial cables
C) Microwave link
D) Satellite link
Explanation
For point-to-multipoint nationwide transmission across vast geographic expanses, a Satellite Link (satellite transponder uplink/downlink like INSAT/EDUSAT) is the most efficient and cost-effective distribution method.
पूरे देश में फैले सैकड़ों ट्रांसमीटरों तक एक साथ कार्यक्रम प्रसारित करने के लिए 'सैटेलाइट लिंक' (Satellite link) सबसे कुशल और लागत प्रभावी माध्यम है।
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2987📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Microphone Polar Patterns
A radio station wants to broadcast a live concert. Which type of microphone would be most suitable for capturing the sound of the entire audience?
A) Omni-directional
B) Uni-directional
C) Bi-directional
D) Cardioid
Explanation
An Omni-directional microphone has a spherical 360-degree pickup pattern that captures ambient sound equally from all directions, making it ideal for recording ambient crowd applause, audience room response, and live concert ambience.
लाइव कॉन्सर्ट में पूरे सभागार और दर्शकों की सामूहिक ध्वनि और तालियों को रिकॉर्ड करने के लिए 'ओम्नी-डायरेक्शनल' (Omni-directional) माइक्रोफोन सबसे उपयुक्त होता है क्योंकि यह 360 डिग्री से समान ध्वनि ग्रहण करता है।
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2988📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Radio Broadcasting History in India
Consider the following statements about radio broadcasting in India:
i. The Indian Broadcasting Company (IBC) started radio broadcasting in 1927.
ii. All India Radio (AIR) was established in 1936.
iii. FM radio was introduced in India in the 1980s.
iv. Gyan Vani is an educational FM radio network.
Which of the statements are correct?
Explanation
All four statements are correct in Indian broadcasting history:
- IBC established Bombay and Calcutta stations in 1927.
- AIR was officially named on 8 June 1936.
- FM broadcasting began expanding in the late 1970s and 1980s.
- Gyan Vani is a dedicated educational FM radio station network operated by IGNOU in collaboration with AIR.
भारतीय रेडियो प्रसारण से संबंधित चारों कथन सत्य हैं:
1. IBC ने 1927 में प्रसारण शुरू किया।
2. ऑल इंडिया रेडियो की स्थापना 1936 में हुई।
3. FM रेडियो का विस्तार 1980 के दशक में हुआ।
4. ज्ञान वाणी IGNOU और दूरदर्शन/AIR का शैक्षिक FM नेटवर्क है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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2989📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Typology
Match the following types of participation with their descriptions:
Types of Participation:
i. Non-participation
ii. Controlled participation
iii. Co-management
iv. Self-management
Descriptions:
1. Power is shared between funders and local groups.
2. Authority imposes decisions without consultation.
3. Elites permit discussion but retain control over outcomes.
4. Participants collectively decide and execute decisions.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
In development participation typology:
- Non-participation: Unilateral top-down imposition (i-2)
- Controlled participation: Consultative façade where authorities retain control (ii-3)
- Co-management: Power-sharing between outside agency and community (iii-1)
- Self-management: Autonomous collective decision-making and execution (iv-4).
सहभागिता के स्तरों का सही मिलान: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4।
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2990📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsC4D Planning Cycle
Arrange the following stages of Communication for Development (C4D) planning in the correct order:
i. Situation analysis
ii. Identification of target audience
iii. Development of communication strategy
iv. Monitoring and evaluation
v. Message creation and delivery
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
The standard C4D strategic project planning cycle (UNICEF/UNESCO framework):
1. Situation Analysis & Needs Assessment (i)
2. Identification & Segmentation of Target Audience (ii)
3. Development of Communication Strategy & Channels (iii)
4. Message Creation, Pre-testing & Implementation/Delivery (v)
5. Monitoring & Evaluation (M&E) (iv).
C4D (विकास हेतु संचार) योजना निर्माण के चरणों का सही क्रम:
1. स्थिति विश्लेषण (Situation analysis - i)
2. लक्षित दर्शकों की पहचान (ii)
3. संचार रणनीति का विकास (iii)
4. संदेश निर्माण और प्रसार (v)
5. निगरानी और मूल्यांकन (iv)। अतः सही क्रम i, ii, iii, v, iv है।
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2991📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsDevelopment Communication Concepts (Melkote)
Which of the following is NOT an essential concept of development communication as outlined by Srinivas R. Melkote and H. Leslie Steeves?
A) Development
B) Empowerment
C) Third World
D) Capitalism
Explanation
In 'Communication for Development in the Third World: Theory and Practice for Empowerment' by Srinivas Melkote and H. Leslie Steeves, the foundational paradigms revolve around Development, Empowerment, Participation, and the Third World. Capitalism is an economic system, not an essential normative concept of emancipatory development communication.
प्रोफेसर श्रीनिवास मेलकोटे और लेस्ली स्टीव्स के अनुसार 'विकास संचार' के अनिवार्य सिद्धांतों में विकास, सशक्तिकरण और तीसरी दुनिया शामिल हैं। 'पूंजीवाद' (Capitalism) इसका आवश्यक विकासात्मक घटक नहीं है।
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2992📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingFunctions of Journalism
Consider the following statements about journalism:
i. Journalism's main function is to inform the public.
ii. Journalism only focuses on news stories and does not interpret events.
iii. Mass communication in journalism involves communication with a large audience.
iv. Print media serves a complementary role to radio and television in news dissemination.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Journalism informs, addresses mass audiences, and print complements broadcast media through depth and permanence. Statement ii is false because interpretive reporting, editorial analysis, and investigative contextualization are core pillars of journalism.
कथन i, iii और iv सही हैं। पत्रकारिता जनता को सूचित करती है, जनसमूह से संवाद करती है और प्रिंट मीडिया प्रसारण का पूरक है। कथन ii गलत है क्योंकि पत्रकारिता केवल समाचार नहीं देती बल्कि घटनाओं की गहन व्याख्या (Interpretation) भी करती है।
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2993📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Paradigm Attributes
Consider the following statements about the participatory paradigm:
i. It recognizes cultural differences and rejects a universal development model.
ii. It prioritizes the use of big media like television and newspapers.
iii. It encourages self-management and collective decision-making.
iv. It is primarily concerned with creating a climate of acceptance for exogenous ideas.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements i and iii are correct. The participatory model respects indigenous knowledge and cultural pluralism, rejecting one-size-fits-all Western models, and fosters community self-reliance. Statements ii and iv pertain to the classical modernization/dominant paradigm (big media and acceptance of exogenous foreign models).
सहभागी प्रतिमान के बारे में कथन i और iii सत्य हैं। यह सांस्कृतिक भिन्नताओं का सम्मान करता है और सामूहिक निर्णय लेने को प्रोत्साहित करता है। कथन ii और iv 'प्रमुख प्रतिमान' (Dominant Paradigm) के लक्षण हैं। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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2994📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsLandmark Indian Films Chronology
Arrange the following landmark Indian films in chronological order of their release:
i. Mother India
ii. Mughal-e-Azam
iii. Sholay
iv. Dilwale Dulhania Le Jayenge
Which of the following is the correct chronological order?
Explanation
Chronology of landmark Hindi cinema classics:
1. Mother India (directed by Mehboob Khan): 1957
2. Mughal-e-Azam (directed by K. Asif): 1960
3. Sholay (directed by Ramesh Sippy): 1975
4. Dilwale Dulhania Le Jayenge (directed by Aditya Chopra): 1995.
भारतीय सिनेमा की ऐतिहासिक फिल्मों का रिलीज वर्ष अनुसार सही क्रम:
1. मदर इंडिया: 1957 (i)
2. मुगल-ए-आजम: 1960 (ii)
3. शोले: 1975 (iii)
4. दिलवाले दुल्हनिया ले जाएंगे: 1995 (iv)। अतः सही क्रम i, ii, iii, iv है।
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2995📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingWriting for Digital Media
Which of the following is a key feature of writing for online media?
A) Long, detailed paragraphs with complex phrasing
B) Use of passive voice and indirect language
C) Short sentences, active voice, and concise writing
D) Avoidance of subheads and bullet points
Explanation
Digital web readers scan in an F-pattern. Online journalism guidelines prioritize scannability: short sentences, active voice, concise paragraphs, bold bullet points, and prominent subheadings.
ऑनलाइन मीडिया लेखन की सबसे प्रमुख विशेषता संक्षिप्त वाक्य, सक्रिय वाच्य (Active Voice), स्पष्टता और बुलेट पॉइंट्स का उपयोग है ताकि स्क्रीन पर पढ़ने वाले पाठक त्वरित रूप से जानकारी ग्रहण कर सकें।
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2996📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMedia Types Matching
Match the following types of media with their characteristics:
Types of Media:
i. Print Media
ii. New Media
iii. Broadcast Media
iv. Social Media
Characteristics:
1. Uses digital technology for content distribution.
2. Relies on static representation of information.
3. Combines audio and visual elements for storytelling.
4. Enables user-generated content and real-time interaction.
Options:
Explanation
Matching:
- Print Media: Physical, static text/image paper layout (i-2).
- New Media: Digital internet distribution networks (ii-1).
- Broadcast Media: Audio/visual electronic transmission via airwaves (iii-3).
- Social Media: Web 2.0 user-generated content (UGC) and networked peer interaction (iv-4).
मीडिया प्रकारों का सही मिलान: प्रिंट मीडिया (स्थिर जानकारी - i-2), न्यू मीडिया (डिजिटल वितरण - ii-1), ब्रॉडकास्ट मीडिया (ऑडियो-विजुअल प्रसारण - iii-3), सोशल मीडिया (यूजर-जेनरेटेड कंटेंट - iv-4)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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2997📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)History of Doordarshan
Consider the following statements about the development of television in India:
i. The Delhi Television Centre began operations in 1959 with UNESCO support.
ii. The Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) brought India international prestige.
iii. Doordarshan was separated from All India Radio in 1976.
iv. The Asian Games in 1982 led to the rapid expansion of India's television network.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
All four statements are historical facts:
- Delhi experimental TV station was inaugurated on 15 Sept 1959 funded partially by UNESCO (20,000 grant).
- SITE (1975-76) using NASA's ATS-6 satellite beamed educational programming to 2,400 rural villages.
- Doordarshan was separated from AIR on 1 April 1976.
- 1982 IX Asian Games triggered national colour TV transmission and massive expansion of Low Power Transmitters (LPTs).
भारतीय दूरदर्शन के विकास के बारे में चारों कथन ऐतिहासिक रूप से सत्य हैं: 1959 में यूनेस्को के सहयोग से शुरुआत, 1975-76 में SITE का सफल उपग्रह प्रयोग, 1976 में AIR से दूरदर्शन का पृथक्करण, और 1982 के एशियाई खेलों के दौरान रंगीन टीवी और राष्ट्रव्यापी ट्रांसमीटरों का विस्तार।
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2998📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Characteristics
Which of the following is a defining characteristic of new media compared to traditional media?
A) Static representation of information
B) Limited interactivity and one-way communication
C) Dynamic, interactive, and fast-moving content
D) Reliance on print and broadcast formats
Explanation
New media is distinguished by dynamic digital malleability, continuous real-time updates, multi-directional user interactivity, and rapid information distribution across decentralized networks.
पारंपरिक मीडिया की तुलना में न्यू मीडिया की सबसे बड़ी पहचान यह है कि इसकी सामग्री गतिशील (Dynamic), अत्यधिक संवादात्मक (Interactive) और त्वरित गति से अपडेट होने वाली होती है।
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2999📚Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMedia Systems Characteristics
Match the following types of media with their characteristics:
Types of Media:
i. Print Media
ii. New Media
iii. Broadcast Media
iv. Social Media
Characteristics:
1. Uses digital technology for content distribution.
2. Relies on static representation of information.
3. Combines audio and visual elements for storytelling.
4. Enables user-generated content and real-time interaction.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Media characteristics matching:
- Print Media: Static layout on paper (i-2)
- New Media: Digital computer networks (ii-1)
- Broadcast Media: Audio-visual broadcast airwaves (iii-3)
- Social Media: Web 2.0 user-generated content (iv-4).
मीडिया और उनकी विशेषताओं का सही मिलान: i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4। अतः सही उत्तर A है।
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3000📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Dynamics
Consider the following statements about new media:
i. New media relies on digital computer technology for content distribution.
ii. Traditional media is more interactive than new media.
iii. New media allows users to produce, distribute, and consume content simultaneously.
iv. Print media is faster in delivering real-time updates compared to new media.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements i and iii are correct. New media operates on digital microprocessing/IP networks and breaks down the barrier between audience and creator, turning users into 'prosumers'. Statements ii and iv are false (new media is infinitely more interactive and delivers instantaneous live updates compared to daily print editions).
कथन i और iii सही हैं। न्यू मीडिया डिजिटल तकनीक पर आधारित है और उपयोगकर्ताओं को एक साथ सामग्री बनाने (Produce) और उपभोग (Consume) करने की सुविधा देता है। कथन ii और iv गलत हैं क्योंकि पारंपरिक मीडिया न्यू मीडिया जितना संवादात्मक या त्वरित नहीं है।
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3001📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Developmental Television in 1970s
What was the primary goal of using television for development in India during the mid-1970s?
A) To promote entertainment shows
B) To spread development-oriented messages
C) To replace radio as the primary medium of communication
D) To showcase international films
Explanation
During the mid-1970s, the landmark Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE, 1975-76) spearheaded by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai aimed to deploy television as an educational instrument to beam instructional messages on agricultural innovation, health, hygiene, and primary education to 2,400 backward rural villages.
1970 के दशक के मध्य में भारत में टेलीविजन (विशेषकर 1975-76 के SITE उपग्रह प्रयोग) का मुख्य उद्देश्य ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में कृषि, स्वास्थ्य, परिवार नियोजन और प्राथमिक शिक्षा से जुड़े विकासोन्मुखी संदेशों का प्रसार करना था।
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3002📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingEvolution of Public Relations
Consider the following statements about the evolution of public relations:
i. The British government in India established the Central Bureau of Public Information in 1923.
ii. The House of Tata's started its public relations department in 1945.
iii. The Soviet Union and the Communist International established PR organs during World War I.
iv. The primary goal of corporate PR during the 1930s Depression was to increase advertising revenue.
Which of the statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iii are historically accurate:
- Central Bureau of Public Information was established by the British Indian Government in 1923 (headed by J. Coatman).
- Tata established India's first dedicated corporate public relations division in 1945 under Mina Kharas.
- Post-1917 Bolshevik Russia institutionalized international state agitprop/PR organs.
Statement iv is false because corporate PR during the Great Depression was launched to rebuild shattered public trust in big corporations and defend the free enterprise system, not to generate ad revenue.
कथन i, ii और iii सही हैं। ब्रिटिश सरकार ने 1923 में सेंट्रल ब्यूरो ऑफ पब्लिक इंफॉर्मेशन बनाया और टाटा समूह ने 1945 में भारत का पहला कॉरपोरेट पीआर विभाग स्थापित किया। 1930 की मंदी में कॉरपोरेट पीआर का उद्देश्य विज्ञापन राजस्व बढ़ाना नहीं बल्कि जनविश्वास बहाल करना था।
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3003📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsIndian Cinema Facts
Consider the following statements regarding Indian cinema:
i. Satyajit Ray's Pather Panchali won the Best Foreign Language Film at the Oscars.
ii. The Film and Television Institute of India (FTII) is located in Pune.
iii. Dadasaheb Phalke is known as the 'Father of Indian Cinema'.
iv. Bollywood refers to the entire Indian film industry.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements ii and iii are correct:
- FTII was established in 1960 on the erstwhile Prabhat Film Company premises in Pune.
- Dadasaheb Phalke is venerated as the 'Father of Indian Cinema' for creating Raja Harishchandra (1913).
Statement i is false (Pather Panchali won the Best Human Document award at Cannes 1956; Ray received an Honorary Oscar in 1992). Statement iv is false ('Bollywood' refers specifically to Hindi-language Mumbai cinema, not the entire Indian multi-lingual film industries like Tollywood, Kollywood, Mollywood, etc.).
कथन ii और iii सही हैं: FTII पुणे में स्थित है और दादा साहब फाल्के को भारतीय सिनेमा का जनक कहा जाता है। 'पाथेर पांचाली' को ऑस्कर नहीं मिला था (रे को 1992 में मानद ऑस्कर मिला), और बॉलीवुड केवल हिंदी सिनेमा को संदर्भित करता है न कि पूरे भारतीय फिल्म उद्योग को।
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3004📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsHistorical Genesis of Performing Media
Arrange the following folk media forms in the order of their historical origin:
i. Puppetry
ii. Street Theatre
iii. Folk Storytelling (Oral Tradition)
iv. Radio Drama
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Historical genesis of performance and communication genres:
1. Folk Storytelling / Oral Tradition (prehistoric antiquity, oral folklore) (iii)
2. Puppetry (ancient antiquity, found in Indus Valley and ancient Indian epics) (i)
3. Modern Street Theatre (Nukkad Natak, popularized during the anti-imperialist / IPTA movement in early 20th century) (ii)
4. Radio Drama (born with electromagnetic broadcasting in the 1920s-1930s) (iv).
लोक संचार माध्यमों के ऐतिहासिक उद्भव का सही क्रम:
1. लोक कथावाचन / मौखिक परंपरा (प्राचीनतम - iii)
2. कठपुतली कला (प्राचीन काल - i)
3. नुक्कड़ नाटक / स्ट्रीट थियेटर (20वीं सदी - ii)
4. रेडियो नाटक (प्रसारण युग - iv)। अतः सही क्रम iii, i, ii, iv है।
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3005📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Characteristics
Which of the following is a defining characteristic of new media compared to traditional media?
A) Static representation of information
B) Limited interactivity and one-way communication
C) Dynamic, interactive, and fast-moving content
D) Reliance on print and broadcast formats
Explanation
New media platforms (websites, mobile applications, social networks) are intrinsically characterized by interactive feedback loops, rapid multimedia updating, non-linear navigation, and user participation.
पारंपरिक मीडिया के विपरीत न्यू मीडिया की मुख्य पहचान यह है कि इसकी सामग्री स्थिर होने के बजाय गतिशील, संवादात्मक और तुरंत अपडेट होने वाली होती है।
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3006📚Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHeadline Writing for Digital Media
Which of the following is a recommended practice for writing headlines in online media?
A) Use euphemisms and wordplay to intrigue readers
B) Make headlines long and indirect to create suspense
C) Ensure headlines are direct, concise, and include relevant keywords
D) Avoid using keywords to maintain originality
Explanation
In digital journalism and web writing, best practices mandate that headlines should be clear, direct, informative, concise (under 60-70 characters for search engines), and incorporate primary SEO search keywords.
ऑनलाइन मीडिया में हेडलाइंस (शीर्षक) लिखने की सर्वश्रेष्ठ प्रथा यह है कि वे स्पष्ट, प्रत्यक्ष, संक्षिप्त हों और उनमें प्रासंगिक कीवर्ड्स (Keywords) शामिल हों ताकि सर्च इंजन और पाठक तुरंत विषय समझ सकें।
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3007📚Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)1936 Berlin Olympics Television Propaganda
Which event marked the first major use of television for propaganda in Nazi Germany?
A) The launch of the first communication satellite
B) The televised coverage of the 1936 Berlin Olympics
C) The introduction of the iconoscope in 1923
D) The establishment of the BBC TV station in London
Explanation
In August 1936, the Nazi regime under Goebbels broadcast the Berlin Olympic Games over closed-circuit television to public viewing rooms across Berlin, marking the world's first major live political propaganda television broadcast.
नाजी जर्मनी में प्रचार (Propaganda) के लिए टेलीविजन का पहला बड़ा और ऐतिहासिक उपयोग 1936 के बर्लिन ओलंपिक खेलों के सीधे प्रसारण के दौरान किया गया था।
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3008📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsParallel Cinema in India
The term "parallel cinema" in India refers to films that:
A) Are exclusively based on historical events
B) Focus on commercial entertainment and box office success
C) Emphasize realistic storytelling and socio-political issues
D) Use only non-professional actors
Explanation
Parallel Cinema (the Indian New Wave) emerged as an alternative art movement to mainstream commercial cinema, characterized by serious socio-political themes, stark realism, naturalistic performances, and rejection of commercial song-and-dance formulas.
भारतीय सिनेमा में 'समानांतर सिनेमा' (Parallel Cinema / आर्ट फिल्म्स) से तात्पर्य उन यथार्थवादी फिल्मों से है जो व्यावसायिक मसाला फिल्मों से अलग हटकर गंभीर सामाजिक, राजनीतिक और मानवीय मुद्दों का यथार्थवादी चित्रण करती हैं (उदा. सत्यजीत रे, श्याम बेनेगल, मृणाल सेन की फिल्में)।
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3009📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyCell Theory & Discovery
Who were the scientists who proposed the original cell theory in the 19th century?
Explanation
Matthias Schleiden (German botanist, 1838) and Theodor Schwann (German zoologist, 1839) originally formulated the classical Cell Theory, stating that all living organisms are composed of one or more cells and that the cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life.
19वीं शताब्दी में मूल कोशिका सिद्धांत (Cell Theory) का प्रतिपादन जर्मन वनस्पतिशास्त्री मैथियास स्लेडेन (1838) और प्राणीशास्त्री थियोडोर श्वान (1839) ने संयुक्त रूप से किया था। (बाद में 1855 में रुडोल्फ विरचो ने इसमें 'omnis cellula e cellula' जोड़ा)। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3010📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyCarbohydrate Biochemistry
Which of the following statements about starch is true?
Explanation
Starch is the principal energy storage polysaccharide in plants. It is composed of D-glucose monomers linked by alpha-glycosidic bonds, existing as two components: linear amylose (alpha-1,4 linkages) and branched amylopectin (alpha-1,4 linkages with alpha-1,6 branch points).
स्टार्च के बारे में यह कथन सत्य है कि यह ग्लूकोज इकाइयों से बना एक प्रमुख भंडारण पॉलीसेकेराइड (storage polysaccharide) है, जिसका उपयोग पौधे अतिरिक्त ऊर्जा संचय हेतु करते हैं। पादप कोशिका भित्ति का मुख्य संरचनात्मक घटक सेलूलोज़ होता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3011📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyCarbohydrate Biochemistry
Which of the following is not a structural polysaccharide?
Explanation
Starch is an energy storage polysaccharide in plants. In contrast, cellulose, hemicellulose, and chitin are structural polysaccharides that provide physical rigidity and mechanical strength to cell walls and fungal/arthropod exoskeletons.
स्टार्च एक ऊर्जा भंडारण पॉलीसेकेराइड है, संरचनात्मक नहीं। दूसरी ओर, हेमीसेलूलोज़, सेलूलोज़ (पादप कोशिका भित्ति) और काइटिन (कवक और कीट बाह्यकंकाल) संरचनात्मक पॉलीसेकेराइड हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3012📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Secondary Metabolism
The shikimate pathway is absent in:
Explanation
The shikimate pathway is a 7-step metabolic route used by bacteria, fungi, algae, and plants for the biosynthesis of folates and aromatic amino acids (phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan). It is completely absent in animals, making these amino acids essential dietary nutrients for them.
शिकिमेट मार्ग (Shikimate pathway) जीवाणुओं, कवकों और पौधों में सुगंधित अमीनो एसिड (फेनिलएलनिन, टायरोसिन और ट्रिप्टोफैन) के संश्लेषण हेतु पाया जाता है, लेकिन यह जंतुओं (Animals) में पूर्णतः अनुपस्थित होता है। इसी कारण ये अमीनो एसिड जंतुओं के लिए अनिवार्य (essential) होते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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3013📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Secondary Metabolism
Which of the following is not an example of an alkaloid?
Explanation
Starch is a carbohydrate (polysaccharide). Caffeine (purine alkaloid), reserpine (indole alkaloid from Rauwolfia), and morphine (isoquinoline/phenanthrene alkaloid from Papaver) are typical nitrogenous secondary plant metabolites known as alkaloids.
स्टार्च एक कार्बोहाइड्रेट (पॉलीसेकेराइड) है। कैफीन, रेसरपीन और मॉर्फिन नाइट्रोजन युक्त द्वितीयक मेटाबोलाइट्स हैं जिन्हें एल्कलॉइड (alkaloids) कहा जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3014📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Water Relations
What is the symplastic pathway in plants?
Explanation
The symplastic pathway (symplast) involves the continuous movement of water and dissolved solutes through the living protoplasm of interconnected plant cells via cytoplasmic bridges called plasmodesmata. (Movement through cell walls and intercellular spaces is the apoplastic pathway).
सिम्प्लास्टिक मार्ग (Symplastic pathway) में जल और खनिज लवण एक कोशिका के जीवद्रव्य (प्रोटोप्लाज्म) से दूसरी कोशिका के जीवद्रव्य में 'प्लाज्मोडेस्मेटा' (जीवद्रव्य तंतु) के माध्यम से गति करते हैं। निर्जीव कोशिका भित्ति के माध्यम से होने वाली गति को एपोप्लास्टिक मार्ग कहते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3015📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Water Relations
Which of the following is not an example of an antitranspirant?
Explanation
Antitranspirants are materials applied to plant foliage to reduce water loss via transpiration without hindering photosynthesis. Film-forming antitranspirants include colorless plastic films, silicone oils, and waxes. Glucose is a primary carbohydrate solute and nutrient, not an antitranspirant.
एंटीट्रांसपिरेंट (वाष्पोत्सर्जनरोधी) वे पदार्थ हैं जो पत्तियों पर परत बनाकर वाष्पोत्सर्जन की दर को कम करते हैं, जैसे प्लास्टिक की फिल्में, सिलिकॉन तेल और मोम (waxes)। ग्लूकोज एक सामान्य शर्करा/पोषक तत्व है, वाष्पोत्सर्जनरोधी नहीं। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3016📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyAgricultural Schemes & Irrigation
In which year was the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) launched?
Explanation
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) was launched on 1st July 2015 with the overarching vision of extending irrigation coverage ('Har Khet Ko Pani') and improving water use efficiency ('More Crop Per Drop').
प्रधानमंत्री कृषि सिंचाई योजना (PMKSY) को 1 जुलाई 2015 को शुरू किया गया था। इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य 'हर खेत को पानी' और 'प्रति बूंद अधिक फसल' (More Crop Per Drop) के तहत सिंचाई दक्षता में सुधार करना है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3017📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPomology & Physiological Disorders
Spongy tissue disorder is specifically found in which variety of mango?
Explanation
Spongy tissue is a major, specific physiological ripening disorder that severely affects the prized 'Alphonso' (Hapus) mango variety, caused by convective heat emitted from the soil during high summer, leading to non-edible sour, spongy pulp breakdown around the stone.
स्पंजी ऊतक (Spongy Tissue) विकार विशेष रूप से आम की विश्व प्रसिद्ध 'अल्फांसो' (हापुस) किस्म में पाया जाने वाला एक गंभीर कायिकीय विकार है, जो फल के पकने के दौरान अत्यधिक मिट्टी की गर्मी के कारण गूदे को स्पंजी और खट्टा बना देता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3018📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPomology & Breeding
The mango hybrid 'Arkapuneet' is developed by crossing which two mango varieties?
Explanation
Arka Puneet is a prominent mango hybrid developed at ICAR-IIHR (Indian Institute of Horticultural Research, Bengaluru) from a cross between Alphonso and Banganapalli (or Alphonso x Kesar parentage lines), yielding regular-bearing fruits free from spongy tissue.
आम की संकर किस्म 'अर्का पुनीत' (Arkapuneet) को भारतीय बागवानी अनुसंधान संस्थान (ICAR-IIHR, बेंगलुरु) द्वारा 'अल्फांसो × केसर' (Alphonso x Kesar) के संकरण से विकसित किया गया है। यह किस्म स्पंजी ऊतक विकार से मुक्त होती है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3019📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionFruit Pathology
Moko wilt in banana is caused by which pathogen?
Explanation
Moko wilt (bacterial wilt of banana) is caused by the bacterium Pseudomonas solanacearum (now classified as Ralstonia solanacearum race 2). Panama wilt is caused by the fungus Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. cubense.
केले में मोको विल्ट (Moko wilt / जीवाणु उकठा रोग) 'स्यूडोमोनास सोलानेसिरम' (Pseudomonas solanacearum / राल्स्टोनिया सोलानेसिरम) जीवाणु के कारण होता है। जबकि पनामा रोग फ्यूजेरियम कवक द्वारा होता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3020📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPomology & Agricultural Statistics
Which country is the largest producer of mangoes in the world?
Explanation
India is the world's largest producer of mangoes (Mangifera indica), contributing approximately 45% to 50% of total global mango production.
भारत विश्व में आम का सबसे बड़ा उत्पादक देश है, जो वैश्विक आम उत्पादन का लगभग 45% से 50% हिस्सा उत्पादित करता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3021📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPomology & Physiological Disorders
'Black Tip' is a physiological disorder commonly found in which fruit?
Explanation
Black Tip (also called mango necrosis) is a physiological disorder in mango fruits caused by exposure to poisonous fumes (sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, and ethylene) emanating from brick kilns located within a radius of 1-2 km of the orchard.
ब्लैक टिप (Black Tip) आम (Mango) का एक प्रमुख कायिकीय विकार है। यह विकार पास के ईंट भट्ठों से निकलने वाली जहरीली गैसों (सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड, कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड आदि) के धुएं के संपर्क में आने से फल के सिरे के काले और कठोर हो जाने से होता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3022📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyOlericulture & Disorders
'Blossom End Rot' is a physiological disorder commonly observed in which crop?
Explanation
Blossom End Rot (BER) is a common physiological disorder in tomato (Solanum lycopersicum) caused by localized Calcium deficiency in the distal placental tissues of the fruit, exacerbated by irregular soil moisture and rapid vegetative growth.
ब्लॉसम एंड रॉट (Blossom End Rot) टमाटर (Tomato) की फसल में पाया जाने वाला एक बहुत सामान्य विकार है, जो फलों के निचले हिस्से में कैल्शियम (Ca) की कमी और अनियमित जल आपूर्ति के कारण होता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3023📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionEntomology & Pest Management
The fruit and shoot borer (Leucinodes orbonalis) is a major pest of which crop?
Explanation
Leucinodes orbonalis (Brinjal Shoot and Fruit Borer / BSFB) is the most economically destructive pest of eggplant/brinjal, where larvae bore into tender terminal shoots during vegetative growth and bore into fruits during fruiting.
फल एवं तना छेदक (Leucinodes orbonalis) बैंगन (Brinjal) का सबसे विनाशकारी और प्रमुख कीट है। इसकी सूंडी (larva) कोमल तनों और फलों में छेद करके भारी नुकसान पहुंचाती है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3024📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyOlericulture & Taxonomy
Which of the following are not cucurbitaceous crops?
I. Watermelon
II. Pumpkin
III. Muskmelon
IV. Chow-chow
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Watermelon (Citrullus lanatus), Pumpkin (Cucurbita moschata), Muskmelon (Cucumis melo), and Chow-chow / Chayote (Sechium edule) ALL belong to the Cucurbitaceae family. Therefore, 'None of the above' are non-cucurbitaceous crops (all are cucurbits).
तरबूज (Watermelon), कद्दू (Pumpkin), खरबूजा (Muskmelon) और चाउ-चाउ (Chow-chow / Sechium edule) - ये चारों ही कुकरबिटेसी (Cucurbitaceae) कुल की फसलें हैं। इसलिए इनमें से 'कोई भी नहीं' (None of the above) ऐसा है जो कुकरबिट न हो। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3025📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyProtected Cultivation & Hydroponics
What is Hydroponics?
Explanation
Hydroponics is the science and technique of growing plants without soil, utilizing an inert substrate (like gravel, perlite, or rockwool) or liquid culture supplied with a balanced aqueous mineral nutrient solution.
हाइड्रोपोनिक्स (Hydroponics) बिना मिट्टी के केवल पोषक तत्वों से युक्त जलीय घोल या अक्रिय माध्यम में पौधों को उगाने की आधुनिक तकनीक है (Soil-less cultivation)। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3026📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPost-Harvest Physiology & Tuber Crops
Greening in potatoes is due to:
Explanation
Exposure of potato tubers to natural or artificial light during growth or storage triggers the synthesis of chlorophyll, accompanied by the accumulation of bitter, toxic glycoalkaloids (primarily alpha-solanine and chaconine).
आलू के कंदों का हरा होना (Greening) भंडारण या खेत में प्रकाश (Light) के संपर्क में आने के कारण होता है। प्रकाश से क्लोरोफिल के साथ-साथ विषाक्त ग्लाइकोएल्कलॉइड 'सोलेनाइन' का निर्माण होता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3027📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPomology & Harvest Indices
Tapka stage (when mature fruits start dropping) is related to:
Explanation
In mango (Mangifera indica), the 'Tapka' stage refers to the stage of tree maturity when ripe fruits naturally begin to drop onto the ground, signaling the optimal harvesting stage for fruit picking.
टपका अवस्था (Tapka stage - जब पके फल स्वाभाविक रूप से पेड़ से टपकने या गिरने लगते हैं) आम (Mango) की तुड़ाई की पारंपरिक परिपक्वता अवस्था से संबंधित है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3028📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPost-Harvest Precooling
Which is the most energy efficient and economical cooling method:
Explanation
Hydro-cooling is widely recognized as the most energy-efficient, rapid, and economical precooling method for many fruits and vegetables due to water's high thermal conductivity and high specific heat capacity compared to air.
जल द्वारा शीतलन (Hydro cooling / हाइड्रो कूलिंग) बागवानी फसलों के लिए सर्वाधिक ऊर्जा-कुशल और किफायती प्री-कूलिंग विधियों में से एक है, क्योंकि जल की विशिष्ट ऊष्मा और ऊष्मा अंतरण क्षमता हवा की तुलना में बहुत अधिक होती है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3029📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Pathology & Mollicutes
What types of nucleic acids are present in phytoplasma?
Explanation
Phytoplasmas are specialized, wall-less bacterial plant pathogens (class Mollicutes) that inhabit phloem sieve tubes. Like all true cellular prokaryotes, they contain both DNA (circular genomic DNA) and RNA (ribosomal, transfer, and messenger RNA).
फाइटोप्लाज्मा (Phytoplasma) कोशिका भित्ति रहित सूक्ष्म जीवाणु (माउलिक्यूट्स) होते हैं जो पादप फ्लोएम में वास करते हैं। अन्य सभी कोशिकीय जीवों की भांति इनमें डीएनए और आरएनए दोनों (Both DNA and RNA) पाए जाते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3030📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionPlant Virology
Banana Streak Virus (BSV) belongs to which type of virus?
Explanation
Banana Streak Virus (BSV) belongs to the genus Badnavirus (family Caulimoviridae). Badnaviruses are non-enveloped, bacilliform (rod-shaped with rounded ends) viruses with circular double-stranded DNA genomes.
बनाना स्ट्रीक वायरस (BSV) बैडनावायरस (Badnavirus) वंश से संबंधित है, जिनके विषाणु कण 'बैसिलीफॉर्म' (Bacilliform / बेलनाकार या कैप्सूल के आकार के) होते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3031📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionPlant Virology
What type of pathogen causes the Bunchy Top disease in banana plants?
Explanation
Banana Bunchy Top Disease (BBTD) is caused by the Banana Bunchy Top Virus (BBTV), a single-stranded circular DNA virus (genus Babuvirus, family Nanoviridae), transmitted persistently by the banana aphid Pentalonia nigronervosa.
केले का 'बंची टॉप' (गुच्छा शीर्ष) रोग बनाना बंची टॉप वायरस (BBTV / विषाणु) के कारण होता है, जिसे केले का माहू (एफिड - Pentalonia nigronervosa) एक पौधे से दूसरे पौधे में फैलाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3032📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionFungicides & Chemical Control
Which of the following are common trade names of the fungicide Copper Oxychloride (COC)?
Explanation
Blitox 50 WP, Fytolan, and Cupravit are well-known commercial brand names of the broad-spectrum inorganic contact fungicide Copper Oxychloride (COC 50% WP).
कॉपर ऑक्सीक्लोराइड (COC 50% WP) कवकनाशी के सबसे लोकप्रिय व्यापारिक नाम 'ब्लिटॉक्स' (Blitox), 'फाइटोलान' (Fytolan) और 'क्यूप्राविट' (Cupravit) हैं। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3033📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionFungicide History & Formulations
Match the following:
i. Bordeaux Mixture - 1. Singh (1942)
ii. Burgundy Mixture - 2. Millardet
iii. Cheshunt Compound - 3. Bewley, 1921
iv. Chaubattia Paste - 4. "Soda Bordeaux"
Options:
Explanation
Historical plant pathology matches:
- i. Bordeaux Mixture -> Discovered by P.M.A. Millardet in 1885 (2)
- ii. Burgundy Mixture -> Prepared with sodium carbonate, known as 'Soda Bordeaux' (4)
- iii. Cheshunt Compound -> Formulated by W.F. Bewley in 1921 for damping-off (3)
- iv. Chaubattia Paste -> Formulated by U.B. Singh in 1942 in Uttarakhand for wound treatment (1)
Thus: i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1.
पादप रोग विज्ञान के ऐतिहासिक कवकनाशियों का सुमेलन:
- i. बोर्डो मिश्रण (Bordeaux Mixture) = मिलाईडेट (Millardet, 1885) (2)
- ii. बरगंडी मिश्रण = कॉपर सल्फेट + सोडियम कार्बोनेट ('सोडा बोर्डो') (4)
- iii. चेशंट कम्पाउंड = बेव्ले (Bewley, 1921) (3)
- iv. चौबटिया पेस्ट = यू.बी. सिंह (Singh, 1942) (1)
अतः सही कूट A (i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1) है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3034📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionPlant Disease Diagnostics
The ooze test is commonly used in plant pathology to detect which type of pathogen?
Explanation
The bacterial ooze test is a classical rapid diagnostic technique in plant pathology: placing a freshly cut section of infected vascular stem tissue in clean water causes streams of milky white bacterial cells and slime to stream (ooze) out from xylem vessels.
पादप रोग विज्ञान में 'ऊज़ टेस्ट' (Ooze test) का उपयोग पादप ऊतकों में जीवाणु जन्य रोगजनकों (Bacterial pathogens) की त्वरित पहचान के लिए किया जाता है, जहाँ कटे हुए तने से जीवाणुओं की दूधिया धार (ooze) पानी में निकलती दिखाई देती है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3035📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionNematology & Soil Fumigation
Which of the following is used as a soil fumigant?
Explanation
Methyl Bromide is a volatile, heavy gaseous halogenated hydrocarbon used extensively as a broad-spectrum soil fumigant to eradicate soil-borne fungi, nematodes, insects, and weed seeds before planting high-value crops.
मिथाइल ब्रोमाइड (Methyl Bromide) का उपयोग मिट्टी में उपस्थित कवक, सूत्रकृमि (nematodes), कीट और खरपतवार के बीजों को नष्ट करने के लिए एक व्यापक स्पेक्ट्रम मृदा फ्यूमिगेंट (Soil Fumigant / धूमक) के रूप में किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3036📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionBacteriological Testing
Which group of bacteria is identified using the LOPAT test?
Explanation
The LOPAT scheme (Levan production, Oxidase test, Pectolytic activity on potato, Arginine dihydrolase, and Tobacco hypersensitivity) was devised by Lelliott et al. (1966) to differentiate and classify plant-pathogenic fluorescent Pseudomonas species.
लोपैट परीक्षण (LOPAT test: Levan, Oxidase, Pectolytic activity, Arginine, Tobacco hypersensitivity) का उपयोग पादप रोगजनक 'फ्लोरोसेंट स्यूडोमोनास' (Fluorescent Pseudomonas) जीवाणुओं के समूहों के वर्गीकरण और पहचान हेतु किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3037📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionApiculture & Hive Products
Which of the following are byproducts from beehive?
I. Beeswax
II. Royal Jelly
III. Pollen
IV. Propolis
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Commercial apiculture yields multiple valuable hive products and byproducts:
- Beeswax (secreted by abdominal wax glands)
- Royal Jelly (secreted by hypopharyngeal glands of nurse bees)
- Bee Pollen (collected from flowers)
- Propolis (bee glue collected from plant resins)
Thus, All of the above are byproducts from a beehive.
मधुमक्खी के छत्ते से प्राप्त होने वाले प्रमुख उत्पादों/उप-उत्पादों में मधुमक्खी मोम (Beeswax), रॉयल जेली (Royal Jelly), परागकण (Pollen) और प्रोपोलिस (Propolis / मधुमक्खी गोंद) - ये सभी सम्मिलित हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D (All of the above) है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3038📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionPlant Protection Equipment
Knapsack, Rocker sprayers are examples of which type of sprayer?
Explanation
Knapsack sprayers and Rocker sprayers discharge dilute chemical solutions at high application rates (typically greater than 400 liters per hectare), categorizing them as High-Volume sprayers.
नैपसैक स्प्रेयर (Knapsack) और रॉकर स्प्रेयर (Rocker sprayers) 'उच्च-मात्रा स्प्रेयर' (High-volume sprayer) के उदाहरण हैं, जिनमें 400 लीटर प्रति हेक्टेयर से अधिक तरल घोल का छिड़काव किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3039📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionPesticide Chemistry
What is the full form of DDT?
Explanation
DDT stands for Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane, an organochlorine insecticide first synthesized in 1874 by Othmar Zeidler whose insecticidal action was discovered by Paul Hermann Müller in 1939.
DDT का रासायनिक नाम 'डाइक्लोरो-डाइफेनिल-ट्राइक्लोरोइथेन' (Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane) है। यह एक अत्यंत प्रभावी ऑर्गेनोक्लोरीन कीटनाशक था जिसकी कीटनाशी क्षमता की खोज पॉल म्यूलर ने की थी। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3040📚Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Agricultural MeteorologySoil Testing & Analytical Instruments
The instrument used for the analysis of micronutrients in soil is:
Explanation
Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer (AAS) is the standard analytical laboratory instrument used for sensitive, accurate quantification of soil and plant micronutrient cations such as Zinc (Zn), Iron (Fe), Manganese (Mn), and Copper (Cu).
मृदा और पादप नमूनों में सूक्ष्म पोषक तत्वों (जैसे Zn, Fe, Cu, Mn) के यथार्थ मापन हेतु 'परमाणु अवशोषण स्पेक्ट्रोफोटोमीटर' (Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer / AAS) का उपयोग किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3041📚Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Agricultural MeteorologySoil Physical Properties
Select the permanent property of soil:
Explanation
Soil texture (the relative proportion of sand, silt, and clay particles smaller than 2 mm) is an inherent, unchangeable, permanent physical property of soil that cannot be significantly modified by ordinary agricultural operations. Moisture, structure, and temperature change continuously.
मृदा बनावट या कण-आकार (Soil Texture - बालू, सिल्ट और क्ले का सापेक्ष अनुपात) मिट्टी का एक स्थायी (permanent) भौतिक गुण है जिसे सामान्य जुताई या कृषि क्रियाओं द्वारा बदला नहीं जा सकता। संरचना और नमी परिवर्तनशील होते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3042📚Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Agricultural MeteorologySoil Classification & Texture
How many soil classes are there in the textural triangle?
Explanation
The standard USDA Soil Textural Triangle classifies soil into exactly 12 textural classes based on percentages of sand, silt, and clay (Sand, Loamy Sand, Sandy Loam, Loam, Silt Loam, Silt, Sandy Clay Loam, Clay Loam, Silty Clay Loam, Sandy Clay, Silty Clay, and Clay).
यूएसडीए (USDA) मृदा बनावट त्रिभुज (Textural Triangle) में रेत, सिल्ट और क्ले के प्रतिशत के आधार पर मृदा को कुल 12 बनावट वर्गों (Textural classes) में वर्गीकृत किया गया है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3043📚Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Agricultural MeteorologySoil Fertility Testing
The extractant used for P analysis in the Olsen method is:
Explanation
The Olsen method uses 0.5 M Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO3) solution buffered at pH 8.5 as the extractant to determine plant-available phosphorus in neutral, calcareous, and alkaline soils.
ओल्सेन विधि (Olsen Method) में उदासीन और क्षारीय मृदा से उपलब्ध फास्फोरस निष्कर्षण के लिए 0.5 M सोडियम बाइकार्बोनेट (NaHCO3NaHCO_3, pH 8.5) घोल का उपयोग किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3044📚Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Agricultural MeteorologySoil Water Physics
Capillary water is held in:
Explanation
Capillary water is held by surface tension and cohesive forces in the micropores of the soil against gravitational drainage (between field capacity and permanent wilting point), serving as the main source of water absorbed by plant roots.
केशिका जल (Capillary water) मृदा के सूक्ष्म रंध्रों (Micro pores) में पृष्ठीय तनाव और संसंजक बलों द्वारा गुरुत्वाकर्षण बल के विरुद्ध रुका रहता है। यही जल पौधों की जड़ों द्वारा अवशोषण हेतु मुख्य रूप से उपलब्ध होता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3045📚Floriculture, Ornamental Gardening & Landscape ArchitectureLandscape Gardening & Styles
Choose the correct option for an example of a formal style garden:
Explanation
Formal style gardens are characterized by strict symmetry, geometric patterns, straight axial pathways, fountains, canals, and clipped hedges. Mughal gardens, Italian Renaissance gardens, and French formal gardens (like Versailles) are classic examples of formal style.
औपचारिक शैली के उद्यान (Formal style gardens) ज्यामितीय समरूपता, सीधी सड़कों और सममितीय लेआउट पर आधारित होते हैं। मुगल गार्डन, इटैलियन गार्डन और फ्रेंच गार्डन - ये सभी औपचारिक उद्यान शैली के उत्कृष्ट उदाहरण हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D (All of the above) है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3046📚Floriculture, Ornamental Gardening & Landscape ArchitectureGlobal Floriculture Statistics
Leading country in export and import of floricultural products:
Explanation
The Netherlands is the undisputed global hub and leading country in the international floriculture trade, accounting for over 45% of total worldwide exports and imports of cut flowers and potted plants, anchored by the Royal FloraHolland auction.
नीदरलैंड (Netherlands) फूलों और बागवानी उत्पादों के वैश्विक निर्यात और आयात में शीर्ष स्थान पर है, जो वैश्विक पुष्प व्यापार के 45% से अधिक हिस्से का संचालन करता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3047📚Floriculture, Ornamental Gardening & Landscape ArchitecturePlant Taxonomy & Botany
Largest family of Angiosperms:
Explanation
In classical angiosperm taxonomy, Asteraceae (Compositae, the sunflower and daisy family) is the largest and most ecologically widespread family of dicotyledonous flowering plants, comprising over 1,600 genera and more than 32,000 recognized species.
आवृतबीजी (एंजियोस्पर्म) पौधों का सबसे बड़ा कुल 'कंपोजिटी' (Compositae / Asteraceae - सूर्यमुखी कुल) माना जाता है, जिसमें 32,000 से अधिक प्रजातियां पाई जाती हैं (मोनोकॉट्स में ऑर्किडेसी सबसे बड़ा है)। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3048📚Floriculture, Ornamental Gardening & Landscape ArchitectureLandscape Design Principles
Which of the following is not a principle of design?
Explanation
The essential aesthetic principles of landscape and garden design are Balance, Proportion, Scale, Rhythm, Focal Point, and Unity. Sunlight is an environmental/ecological growth factor, not an artistic design principle.
उद्यान एवं भूदृश्य डिजाइन (Landscape design) के प्रमुख सिद्धांतों में संतुलन (Balance), अनुपात (Proportion), लय और एकता (Unity) शामिल हैं। सूर्य का प्रकाश (Sunlight) एक पर्यावरणीय कारक है, डिजाइन का सिद्धांत नहीं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3049📚Floriculture, Ornamental Gardening & Landscape ArchitectureTurfgrass Pathology
Brown patch disease of lawn is caused by:
Explanation
Brown patch is a common and destructive foliar disease of turfgrass lawns caused by the soil-borne rhizoctonia fungus Rhizoctonia solani, particularly active during hot, humid summer conditions.
लॉन (घास के मैदान) का ब्राउन पैच रोग (Brown patch disease) 'राइजोक्टोनिया सोलानी' (Rhizoctonia solani) नामक मृदा-जनित कवक (Fungi) के कारण होता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3050📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyGenetics & Recombination
Find out the organism which has pseudoalleles:
Explanation
Pseudoalleles (closely linked genes that mimic alleles by having similar phenotypic effects but can be recombined by rare crossing over, such as the lozenge and bithorax loci) were discovered and extensively studied in the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster.
स्यूडोएलील्स (Pseudoalleles - ऐसे घनिष्ठ रूप से जुड़े जीन जो एलील की तरह व्यवहार करते हैं लेकिन क्रॉसिंग ओवर द्वारा अलग हो सकते हैं) का क्लासिक उदाहरण फल मक्खी 'ड्रोसोफिला मेलानोगास्टर' (Drosophila melanogaster) में लोझेंज और बाईथोरेक्स लोकाई में खोजा गया था। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3051📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyOrganic Agriculture Movements
In which year was IFOAM (International Federation of Organic Agriculture Movements) created?
Explanation
IFOAM (International Federation of Organic Agriculture Movements, now IFOAM - Organics International) was founded on 5 November 1972 in Versailles, France, during an international conference convened by Roland Chevriot.
इंटरनेशनल फेडरेशन ऑफ ऑर्गेनिक एग्रीकल्चर मूवमेंट्स (IFOAM) की स्थापना 5 नवंबर 1972 को वर्साय (फ्रांस) में जैविक कृषि को वैश्विक स्तर पर बढ़ावा देने हेतु की गई थी। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3052📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Biotechnology & Tissue Culture
Who is known as the father of plant tissue culture?
Explanation
Austrian botanist Gottlieb Haberlandt is universally regarded as the 'Father of Plant Tissue Culture' because in 1902 he first conceived the concept of cellular totipotency and cultivated isolated vegetative plant cells in synthetic media.
पादप ऊतक संवर्धन (Plant Tissue Culture) का जनक ऑस्ट्रियाई वनस्पतिशास्त्री गॉटलिब हैबरलैंड्ट (Gottlieb Haberlandt) को कहा जाता है। उन्होंने 1902 में सबसे पहले 'सेलुलर टोटिपोटेंसी' (पूर्णशक्तता) की अवधारणा दी थी। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3053📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Tissue Culture Media
Which is the most extensively used basal media in plant tissue culture?
Explanation
Murashige and Skoog (MS) medium, formulated by Toshio Murashige and Folke K. Skoog in 1962 during tobacco tissue culture research, is by far the most widely used basal nutrient medium in plant micropropagation due to its high concentration of inorganic salts.
पादप ऊतक संवर्धन में सर्वाधिक व्यापक रूप से उपयोग किया जाने वाला आधारीय माध्यम 'मुराशीगे और स्कूग माध्यम' (Murashige and Skoog / MS medium, 1962) है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3054📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyCytogenetics & Chromosomes
Balbiani rings are found in which of the following:
Explanation
Balbiani rings are exceptionally large, active RNA-synthesizing chromosomal puffs found on giant polytene chromosomes (salivary gland chromosomes) of dipteran insects such as Chironomus and Drosophila, first described by Édouard-Gérard Balbiani in 1881.
बाल्बियानी छल्ले (Balbiani rings - अत्यधिक सक्रिय आरएनए संश्लेषण के फूले हुए क्षेत्र) डिप्टेरा कीटों (जैसे काइरोनोमस और ड्रोसोफिला की लार ग्रंथियों) के 'पॉलीटीन गुणसूत्रों' (Polytene chromosomes) में पाए जाते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3055📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyNational Horticultural Schemes
National Horticulture Mission (NHM) was started in:
Explanation
The National Horticulture Mission (NHM), a centrally sponsored scheme to promote the holistic growth of the horticulture sector covering fruits, vegetables, root and tuber crops, spices, and flowers, was launched in the financial year 2005-06 during the 10th Five-Year Plan.
राष्ट्रीय बागवानी मिशन (National Horticulture Mission - NHM) की शुरुआत केंद्र सरकार द्वारा 10वीं पंचवर्षीय योजना के तहत वर्ष 2005-06 में की गई थी, जिसका उद्देश्य बागवानी क्षेत्र का समग्र विकास करना था। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3056📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologySoil & Water Conservation
What are the components of a water harvesting system?
Explanation
A complete water harvesting system integrates four key functional components: the catchment area (which captures and produces surface runoff), conveyance systems, a storage facility (tank, pond, or underground cistern), and the command / recharge area (where harvested water is utilized).
जल संचयन प्रणाली (Water harvesting system) के प्रमुख घटकों में जलग्रहण क्षेत्र (Catchment area), भंडारण सुविधा (Storage facility / जलाशय/टैंक) और कमान क्षेत्र (Command area - जहाँ जल का उपयोग होता है) - ये सभी शामिल हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D (All of the above) है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3057📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyEnvironmental Biotechnology
What is bioremediation?
Explanation
Bioremediation is a sustainable biotechnology process that uses living biological organisms (primarily bacteria, fungi, or green plants) to neutralize, degrade, or remove hazardous environmental pollutants and toxic contaminants from soil, water, and waste sites.
बायोरेमेडिएशन (जैवोपचार) पर्यावरण में मौजूद प्रदूषण और विषाक्त पदार्थों को समाप्त करने या कम करने के लिए जीवित जीवों (विशेष रूप से सूक्ष्मजीवों, कवक या पौधों) का उपयोग करने की जैविक प्रक्रिया है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3058📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologySoil & Water Conservation
Contour bunding is adopted in areas having a slope up to:
Explanation
In soil and water conservation engineering, contour bunding (constructing narrow earthen embankments along contours) is recommended for agricultural lands in low to moderate rainfall areas with land slopes up to 6%. For steeper slopes, graded bunding or bench terracing is practiced.
मृदा एवं जल संरक्षण में 'कंटूर बंडिंग' (समोच्च मेड़बंदी) को आमतौर पर 6% तक के ढलान वाले क्षेत्रों में और कम वर्षा वाले इलाकों में जल संरक्षण और मिट्टी के कटाव को रोकने के लिए अपनाया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3059📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyIrrigation Systems & Engineering
Which method of irrigation is most suitable for sandy soil and shallow land where land levelling is not possible?
Explanation
Sprinkler irrigation is the most suitable method for undulating, rolling topography and highly permeable sandy soils where surface land leveling is impractical or would strip topsoil, as it applies water uniformly in the form of spray mimicking natural rainfall.
बलुई मिट्टी (Sandy soil) और उबड़-खाबड़ या उथली भूमि जहाँ भूमि का समतलीकरण संभव नहीं है, वहाँ सिंचाई के लिए 'फव्वारा सिंचाई' (Sprinkler irrigation) सबसे उपयुक्त विधि है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3060📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyIrrigation Methods
In which type of area is sub-irrigation most suitable?
Explanation
Sub-irrigation (subsurface irrigation) operates by artificially raising and regulating the groundwater table beneath the plant root zone, requiring an impermeable subsurface layer and an area with a naturally high water table and flat topography.
सब-इरिगेशन (अधोभूमि सिंचाई / Sub-irrigation) उन क्षेत्रों के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त है जहाँ भूजल स्तर उच्च (Areas with high water table) होता है और नीचे एक अप्रवेश्य संस्तर मौजूद होता है, जिससे केशिका क्रिया द्वारा जल ऊपर जड़ों तक पहुँचता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3061📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyMicro-Irrigation Engineering
Which of the following type of irrigation method is also called as trickle irrigation?
Explanation
Drip irrigation is also known as Trickle irrigation or Micro-irrigation, where water is conveyed under low pressure through a pipe network and applied drop-by-drop directly into the root zone via emitters.
ड्रिप सिंचाई (Drip Irrigation) को 'ट्रिकल सिंचाई' (Trickle irrigation / टपक सिंचाई) भी कहा जाता है, जिसमें जल को बूंद-बूंद करके पौधों की जड़ों तक पहुँचाया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3062📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyMedicinal Plants & Research Institutes
Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants (CIMAP) is located at:
Explanation
The CSIR - Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants (CIMAP) is a premier national research institute of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
केंद्रीय औषधीय एवं सगंध पौधा संस्थान (CSIR-CIMAP) लखनऊ (उत्तर प्रदेश) में स्थित है। यह औषधीय एवं सुगंधित पौधों के अनुसंधान का प्रमुख राष्ट्रीय संस्थान है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3063📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPomology & High Density Orcharding
High Density Planting was first established in ______ in Europe during sixties:
Explanation
High Density Planting (HDP) using dwarfing clonal rootstocks (such as Malling 9 / M.9 and M.26) was first established commercially in Apple (Malus domestica) orchards in Europe (specifically England and the Netherlands) during the 1960s.
सघन बागवानी (High Density Planting - HDP) की शुरुआत 1960 के दशक में यूरोप में सबसे पहले 'सेब' (Apple) की फसल में बौने मूलवृंतों (जैसे M.9) का उपयोग करके की गई थी। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3064📚Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionAgricultural Biotechnology & Pest Resistance
Bt toxin producing plants are resistant to ______:
Explanation
Bt crops (such as Bt cotton expressing Cry1Ac and Cry2Ab endotoxin crystal proteins derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis) are engineered specifically for resistance against lepidopteran insect pests, primarily the Pink Bollworm (Pectinophora gossypiella) and American bollworm.
बीटी (Bt) विष उत्पन्न करने वाले पौधे मुख्य रूप से लेपिडोप्टेरा कीटों, विशेष रूप से कपास के 'गुलाबी सुंडी' (Pink Bollworm / पेक्टिनोफोरा गॉसिपिएला) के प्रति प्रतिरोधी होते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3065📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Biotechnology & Stains
Calcofluor White is used as:
Explanation
Calcofluor White is a fluorescent optical brightening stain that binds specifically to beta-1,3 and beta-1,4 linked polysaccharides (cellulose and chitin). In plant protoplast culture, it is used to stain and verify cell wall regeneration and viability in newly dividing protoplasts.
कैल्कोफ्लोर व्हाइट (Calcofluor White) एक फ्लोरोसेंट रंजक है जो सेलूलोज़ और काइटिन से बंधता है। पादप ऊतक संवर्धन में प्रोटोप्लास्ट (जीवद्रव्यक) की भित्ति पुनर्जनन और जीवनक्षमता (viability) के परीक्षण हेतु इसका उपयोग किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3066📚Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyPlant Secondary Metabolites
Gossypol, a natural toxin, is found in which plant?
Explanation
Gossypol is a naturally occurring polyphenolic yellow binaphthyl aldehyde toxin found in the sub-epidermal pigment glands of cotton plants (genus Gossypium), acting as a natural defense mechanism against herbivores and insects.
गॉसीपोल (Gossypol) कपास (Cotton / Gossypium spp.) के पौधों और बीजों की ग्रंथियों में पाया जाने वाला एक प्राकृतिक पॉलीफेनोलिक विषाक्त पदार्थ है, जो कीटों और शाकाहारी जीवों से पौधे की रक्षा करता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3067📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyOrganic Farming & APEDA
Which Indian state has the largest area under organic certification?
Explanation
Madhya Pradesh holds the largest certified organic cultivable area in India, accounting for over 25% to 30% of the country's total certified organic agricultural land according to APEDA statistics. (Sikkim is India's first 100% organic state).
भारत में प्रमाणित जैविक खेती (Organic certification) के तहत सबसे बड़ा कृषि क्षेत्रफल 'मध्य प्रदेश' (Madhya Pradesh) राज्य में है। (सिक्किम भारत का पहला पूर्ण जैविक राज्य है)। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3068📚Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPlantation Crops & Days
When is World Coconut Day celebrated?
Explanation
World Coconut Day is observed globally every year on September 2nd to commemorate the founding anniversary of the International Coconut Community (ICC), established in 1969 under UN-ESCAP.
विश्व नारियल दिवस (World Coconut Day) प्रत्येक वर्ष 2 सितंबर (September 2) को अंतरराष्ट्रीय नारियल समुदाय की स्थापना के उपलक्ष्य में मनाया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3069📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyMutation Breeding & Field Crops
MCU 7 and MCU 10 are:
Explanation
MCU 7 and MCU 10 are celebrated induced mutant varieties of upland cotton (Gossypium hirsutum) developed by Tamil Nadu Agricultural University (TNAU) through gamma-ray radiation breeding of parent variety MCU 5.
MCU 7 और MCU 10 कपास (Cotton) की प्रसिद्ध प्रेरित उत्परिवर्ती किस्में (Mutant varieties) हैं, जिन्हें विकिरण उत्परिवर्तन प्रजनन द्वारा तमिलनाडु कृषि विश्वविद्यालय द्वारा विकसित किया गया था। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBAgriculture Production & Farmer Welfare / Horticulture Department
3070📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologySpices & Taxonomy
Saffron belongs to which plant family?
Explanation
Saffron (Crocus sativus, the golden heritage spice of Jammu & Kashmir celebrated worldwide) belongs to the Iridaceae (Iris) family. Its dried trifid orange-red stigmas form the valuable commercial spice.
केसर (Saffron / Crocus sativus), जो जम्मू और कश्मीर का प्रमुख जीआई-टैग प्राप्त विरासत मसाला है, 'इरिडेसी' (Iridaceae) कुल से संबंधित है। इसके सूखे त्रि-शाखित वर्तिकाग्र (stigmas) केसर बनाते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3071📚Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyBotanical Names of Spices
Curcuma longa is the botanical name of which plant?
Explanation
Curcuma longa is the scientific botanical name of Turmeric (Haldi), a rhizomatous herbaceous perennial plant of the ginger family Zingiberaceae. (Ginger is Zingiber officinale; Saffron is Crocus sativus; Cumin is Cuminum cyminum).
करकुमा लोंगा (Curcuma longa) 'हल्दी' (Turmeric) का वानस्पतिक नाम है, जो जिंजीबरेसी (Zingiberaceae) कुल का एक प्रकंद युक्त पौधा है। (अदरक का नाम जिंजीबर ऑफिसिनेल है)। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3072📚C Programming & Data StructuresArrays in C
What is the index of the first element in a C array?
Explanation
In the C programming language, array indexing is strictly zero-based. The first element of an array 'arr' is accessed at index 0 (i.e., arr[0]).
C भाषा में ऐरे (array) का सूचकांक (indexing) 0 से प्रारंभ होता है। इसलिए ऐरे के प्रथम तत्व का इंडेक्स 0 (arr[0]) होता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3073📚Database Management Systems & SQLDBMS Architecture & Components
Which of the following is not a component of a DBMS?
Explanation
A standard Database Management System (DBMS) architecture consists of a Query Processor, Storage/Data Manager, Buffer/File Manager, and Transaction Manager. A programming language compiler (e.g. gcc) is a development environment tool, not a DBMS component.
डेटाबेस प्रबंधन प्रणाली (DBMS) के मुख्य घटकों में क्वेरी प्रोसेसर, डेटा मैनेजर, ट्रांजेक्शन मैनेजर और फ़ाइल मैनेजर शामिल हैं। कंपाइलर (Compiler) प्रोग्रामिंग भाषा का अनुवादक उपकरण है, जो DBMS का घटक नहीं है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3074📚Database Management Systems & SQLQuery Processing & Optimization
Arrange the following steps involved in query compilation in the correct order:
I. Translation of high-level query into relational algebra
II. Parsing and validating the SQL query
III. Optimization of the relational algebra query
IV. Generating an execution plan for the query
Options:
Explanation
The standard query compilation phases in a relational DBMS are:
1. Parsing syntax and validating catalog metadata (II)
2. Translation into an internal relational algebra expression/parse tree (I)
3. Query Optimization using algebraic equivalences and cost models (III)
4. Code/Execution Plan Generation (IV).
Correct order: II -> I -> III -> IV.
रिलेशनल डेटाबेस में क्वेरी संकलन (Query Compilation) का सही क्रम है:
1. एसक्यूएल क्वेरी का पार्सिंग और सत्यापन करना (II)
2. उच्च स्तरीय क्वेरी का रिलेशनल बीजगणित में अनुवाद करना (I)
3. रिलेशनल बीजगणित क्वेरी का अनुकूलन (Optimization) करना (III)
4. निष्पादन योजना (Execution Plan) तैयार करना (IV)।
अतः सही अनुक्रम A (II -> I -> III -> IV) है।
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3075📚Operating Systems & System SoftwareMemory Management Techniques
Which memory management technique loads the entire process into memory before execution?
Explanation
In contiguous memory allocation (such as single contiguous allocation, fixed partitions, or variable partitions), the complete logical address space of a process must be loaded contiguously into physical RAM before execution begins.
कन्टिग्युअस एलोकेशन (समीपस्थ आवंटन / Contiguous allocation) तकनीक में किसी प्रक्रिया के निष्पादन से पूर्व उसकी संपूर्ण प्रक्रिया छवि (process image) को मुख्य मेमोरी में एक निरंतर ब्लॉक में लोड करना अनिवार्य होता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3076📚Operating Systems & System SoftwareVirtual Memory & Page Replacement
What is Belady's Anomaly in memory management?
Explanation
Belady's Anomaly is a phenomenon in virtual memory page replacement (observed in FIFO algorithm) where allocating more physical page frames to a process paradoxically leads to an increase in the number of page faults for certain reference strings.
बेलाडी की विसंगति (Belady's Anomaly) पेज रिप्लेसमेंट (विशेषकर FIFO में) की वह घटना है जिसमें प्रक्रिया को अधिक संख्या में पेज फ्रेम आवंटित करने पर भी पेज फॉल्ट की संख्या कम होने के बजाय बढ़ जाती है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3077📚Operating Systems & System SoftwareVirtual Memory & Page Faults
In virtual memory, what is a page fault?
Explanation
A page fault is an exception (hardware interrupt) raised by the Memory Management Unit (MMU) when an active process attempts to access a virtual memory page that is not currently mapped into physical RAM frames.
वर्चुअल मेमोरी में, जब कोई प्रक्रिया किसी ऐसे पेज तक पहुँचने का प्रयास करती है जो उस समय मुख्य मेमोरी (RAM) में उपस्थित नहीं होता है, तो MMU द्वारा 'पेज फॉल्ट' (Page Fault) उत्पन्न किया जाता है ताकि ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम उस पेज को डिस्क से लोड कर सके। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3078📚C++ & Object-Oriented ProgrammingOOP vs POP Paradigms
Which of the following best differentiates Object Oriented Programming from Procedure Oriented Programming?
Explanation
Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) fundamentally structures software around 'objects' that encapsulate both data attributes and the operational methods (behavior) that manipulate that data, whereas Procedure-Oriented Programming (POP) treats data and functions as separate entities with data moving freely between procedures.
ऑब्जेक्ट ओरिएंटेड प्रोग्रामिंग (OOP) और प्रोसीजर ओरिएंटेड प्रोग्रामिंग (POP) में मुख्य अंतर यह है कि OOP कार्यक्रमों को ऐसे 'ऑब्जेक्ट्स' के रूप में मॉडल करता है जो डेटा और उस पर कार्य करने वाले व्यवहार (फ़ंक्शन) दोनों को एक साथ एनकैप्सुलेट करते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3079📚Java Programming & JVM ArchitectureJava Multithreading
Which method is used to start a thread in Java?
Explanation
In Java, calling the start() method of java.lang.Thread creates a new operating system execution thread and invokes the thread's run() method asynchronously in the new thread context.
जावा में नए थ्रेड के निष्पादन को प्रारंभ करने के लिए 'start()' विधि का उपयोग किया जाता है। यह विधि JVM द्वारा नए थ्रेड का निर्माण करती है और उसके run() मेथड को कॉल करती है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3080📚Java Programming & JVM ArchitectureJVM Garbage Collection
What is garbage collection in Java?
Explanation
Garbage Collection (GC) in Java is an automated daemon thread process managed by the JVM that identifies and reclaims heap memory occupied by objects that are no longer reachable or referenced by any active thread.
जावा में गारबेज कलेक्शन (Garbage Collection) एक स्वचालित मेमोरी प्रबंधन प्रक्रिया है जो उन ऑब्जेक्ट्स को पहचानकर हीप मेमोरी से हटाती है जिनका प्रोग्राम में अब कोई संदर्भ (reference) नहीं बचा है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3081📚Java Programming & JVM ArchitectureJava Arrays
Which of the following statements about Java arrays is true?
Explanation
In Java, arrays are dynamically created reference objects that inherit directly from java.lang.Object and have a fixed length once instantiated in memory.
जावा में ऐरे (Arrays) प्रिमिटिव प्रकार नहीं होते, बल्कि वे ऑब्जेक्ट (Objects) होते हैं जो java.lang.Object से इनहेरिट होते हैं और हीप मेमोरी में बनते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3082📚Java Programming & JVM ArchitectureJava Thread Methods
Which of the following is not a valid Java thread method?
Explanation
In Java, start(), run(), and sleep() are built-in methods of java.lang.Thread. The execute() method belongs to the Executor / ExecutorService interface in java.util.concurrent, not Thread.
start(), run() और sleep() क्लास java.lang.Thread के मानक मेथड्स हैं। 'execute()' मेथड ExecutorService इंटरफेस से संबंधित है, Thread क्लास से नहीं। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3083📚Java Programming & JVM ArchitectureJVM Architecture & Platform Independence
Which of the following statements about the Java Virtual Machine (JVM) are correct?
I. JVM converts bytecode directly to source code
II. JVM is platform dependent but the bytecode it runs is platform independent
III. JVM provides memory management and garbage collection
IV. JVM runs only .java files directly
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statements II and III are correct. The JVM is inherently platform-dependent (different native implementations exist for Windows, Linux, macOS) while executing universal platform-independent bytecode. It also provides automatic memory management. Statements I and IV are false (JVM does not reverse bytecode to source code, and it executes .class bytecode files).
कथन II और III सही हैं: JVM स्वयं प्लेटफॉर्म पर निर्भर (platform dependent) होता है जबकि बाइटकोड प्लेटफॉर्म स्वतंत्र होता है; JVM मेमोरी प्रबंधन और गारबेज कलेक्शन प्रदान करता है। कथन I और IV असत्य हैं (JVM .class बाइटकोड निष्पादित करता है)। अतः सही विकल्प B (II and III) है।
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3084📚Java Programming & JVM ArchitectureThread Priorities in Java
What is the default priority of a thread in Java?
Explanation
In Java (java.lang.Thread), every new thread inherits or is assigned a default priority of Thread.NORM_PRIORITY, which has the integer value of 5. (Thread.MIN_PRIORITY = 1, Thread.MAX_PRIORITY = 10).
जावा में किसी थ्रेड की डिफ़ॉल्ट प्राथमिकता (Thread.NORM_PRIORITY) का मान 5 होता है। (न्यूनतम प्राथमिकता MIN_PRIORITY = 1 और अधिकतम MAX_PRIORITY = 10 होती है)। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3085📚.NET Framework & VB.NET Development.NET Framework Overview
What does .NET Framework primarily provide?
Explanation
The Microsoft .NET Framework is a comprehensive development and execution platform that provides a managed runtime environment (CLR), class libraries (FCL/BCL), and developer tools for building, deploying, and running robust Windows applications and web services.
माइक्रोसॉफ्ट .NET फ्रेमवर्क मुख्य रूप से विंडोज आधारित अनुप्रयोगों (Windows applications) और वेब सेवाओं के निर्माण और सुचारू संचालन के लिए एक व्यापक विकास एवं रनटाइम प्लेटफॉर्म प्रदान करता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3086📚.NET Framework & VB.NET DevelopmentVB.NET Looping Structures
In VB.NET, which of the following is NOT a valid loop?
Explanation
VB.NET supports For...Next, While...End While (and legacy While...Wend), and Do...Loop structures. 'Repeat...Until' is a Pascal language control structure, not a valid loop in VB.NET.
VB.NET में 'For...Next', 'While...Wend' और 'Do...Loop' वैध लूप संरचनाएं हैं। 'Repeat...Until' पास्कल भाषा की संरचना है और VB.NET में मान्य नहीं है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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3087📚.NET Framework & VB.NET Development.NET Framework Architecture
Arrange the following components in .NET Framework architecture from bottom to top:
I. Common Language Runtime (CLR)
II. Base Class Library (BCL)
III. ASP.NET, Windows Forms, ADO.NET
IV. User Application
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
In the architectural stack of the .NET Framework from bottom to top:
1. Execution engine at the base: Common Language Runtime (CLR) (I)
2. Core libraries: Base Class Library (BCL) (II)
3. Specialized application frameworks: Windows Forms, ASP.NET, ADO.NET (III)
4. Top level: User Application and programming languages (IV).
Correct sequence: I -> II -> III -> IV.
.NET फ्रेमवर्क आर्किटेक्चर में नीचे से ऊपर का सही क्रम है:
1. सबसे नीचे: कॉमन लैंग्वेज रनटाइम (CLR) (I)
2. उसके ऊपर: बेस क्लास लाइब्रेरी (BCL) (II)
3. उसके ऊपर: एप्लिकेशन लेयर (ASP.NET, Windows Forms, ADO.NET) (III)
4. सबसे ऊपर: उपयोगकर्ता अनुप्रयोग (User Application) (IV)।
अतः सही अनुक्रम A (I -> II -> III -> IV) है।
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3088📚.NET Framework & VB.NET DevelopmentCommon Language Runtime (CLR)
Which component of the .NET architecture handles security, memory management, and exception handling?
Explanation
The Common Language Runtime (CLR) is the core virtual machine engine of the .NET Framework responsible for application execution services including automatic memory management (garbage collection), Code Access Security, thread execution, and structured exception handling.
.NET आर्किटेक्चर का 'कॉमन लैंग्वेज रनटाइम' (CLR) मुख्य निष्पादन इंजन है जो सुरक्षा, मेमोरी प्रबंधन (गारबेज कलेक्शन), कोड सत्यापन और अपवाद प्रबंधन को संभालता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3089📚Software Engineering, Testing & Quality AssuranceSoftware Development Life Cycle (Agile)
Which model emphasizes working software over documentation?
Explanation
The Agile software development methodology explicitly declares in its foundational Manifesto: 'Working software over comprehensive documentation', prioritizing rapid iterative delivery of functional software.
एजाइल (Agile) सॉफ्टवेयर विकास मॉडल 'विस्तृत दस्तावेजीकरण की तुलना में कार्यशील सॉफ्टवेयर' (Working software over documentation) को अधिक महत्व देता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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3090📚Software Engineering, Testing & Quality AssuranceSDLC Models & History
Arrange the following models in order of their historical development:
I. Waterfall Model
II. Spiral Model
III. Agile Model
IV. Prototyping Model
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Chronological timeline of SDLC models:
1. Waterfall Model (Winston Royce, 1970) (I)
2. Prototyping Model (Late 1970s - early 1980s) (IV)
3. Spiral Model (Barry Boehm, 1986/1988) (II)
4. Agile Model (Agile Manifesto, 2001) (III).
Correct sequence: I -> IV -> II -> III.
सॉफ्टवेयर विकास मॉडलों का उनके ऐतिहासिक विकास के आधार पर सही कालानुक्रम:
1. वॉटरफॉल मॉडल (1970) (I)
2. प्रोटोटाइपिंग मॉडल (1970 के दशक के अंत में) (IV)
3. स्पाइरल मॉडल (बैरी बोहम, 1986) (II)
4. एजाइल मॉडल (2001) (III)।
अतः सही अनुक्रम B (I -> IV -> II -> III) है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3091📚Software Engineering, Testing & Quality AssuranceFormal Specification Methods
Which of the following is a formal method for software specification?
Explanation
Z notation (pronounced 'zed') is a rigorous mathematical formal specification language based on Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory and first-order predicate logic, used for unambiguous mathematical modeling of safety-critical computer systems.
सॉफ्टवेयर विनिर्देशन के लिए औपचारिक गणितीय पद्धति (Formal method) 'Z नोटेशन' (Z notation) है, जो सेट सिद्धांत और विधेय तर्क पर आधारित एक औपचारिक विनिर्देशन भाषा है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3092📚Software Engineering, Testing & Quality AssuranceSoftware Configuration Management
Which of the following is NOT an activity in Configuration Management?
Explanation
Software Configuration Management (SCM) encompasses Configuration Identification, Version Control, Change Control, Configuration Status Accounting, and Configuration Audits. Risk analysis is an activity of Project Management and Risk Assessment.
सॉफ्टवेयर विन्यास प्रबंधन (Configuration Management) की मुख्य गतिविधियों में संस्करण नियंत्रण (Version control), परिवर्तन नियंत्रण (Change control) और विन्यास ऑडिट शामिल हैं। 'जोखिम विश्लेषण' (Risk analysis) परियोजना प्रबंधन की गतिविधि है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3093📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityIP Addressing & Special Addresses
What is the loopback IP address in IPv4?
Explanation
In IPv4 networking, the entire 127.0.0.0/8 address block is reserved for loopback testing of the local host's internal network stack, with 127.0.0.1 ('localhost') being the standard loopback IP address.
IPv4 नेटवर्किंग में स्थानीय होस्ट के आंतरिक नेटवर्क स्टैक के परीक्षण हेतु आरक्षित लूपबैक आईपी पता (Loopback IP address) '127.0.0.1' (localhost) होता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3094📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityCryptography & Encryption
Which protocol uses public and private keys for encryption?
Explanation
RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) is an asymmetric public-key cryptographic algorithm that utilizes a mathematically linked key pair: a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. (DES is symmetric; MD5 is a hash function).
RSA (रिवेस्ट-शमीर-एडलमैन) एक असममित (Asymmetric) क्रिप्टोग्राफ़िक एल्गोरिदम है जो डेटा एन्क्रिप्शन के लिए सार्वजनिक (public) कुंजी और डिक्रिप्शन के लिए निजी (private) कुंजी का उपयोग करता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3095📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityNetwork Security & Cyber Attacks
What type of attack floods a server with requests to crash it?
Explanation
A Denial-of-Service (DoS) or Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack deliberately overwhelms a target server, service, or network with a massive flood of illegitimate traffic and requests, depleting resources and rendering it unavailable to legitimate users.
डिनायल-ऑफ-सर्विस (DoS / Denial-of-Service) हमला वह साइबर हमला है जिसमें किसी सर्वर को अत्यधिक अनुरोधों (requests) की बाढ़ से भर दिया जाता है ताकि वह क्रैश हो जाए और वैध उपयोगकर्ताओं के लिए अनुपलब्ध हो जाए। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3096📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityNetwork Troubleshooting & IP Addressing
Arrange the following types of IP addresses in the correct order of usage priority during troubleshooting:
I. Loopback Address
II. Public IP Address
III. Private IP Address
IV. Link-local Address (for IPv6)
Choose the correct options:
Explanation
In structured network troubleshooting (bottom-up / inside-out):
1. Ping the local loopback address (127.0.0.1) to confirm the local TCP/IP stack is functioning (I)
2. Verify the link-local interface address (IV)
3. Ping the private local subnet default gateway (III)
4. Ping an external public IP on the Internet to verify WAN routing (II).
Sequence: I -> IV -> III -> II.
नेटवर्क समस्या निवारण (Troubleshooting) के दौरान परीक्षण का सही प्राथमिकता क्रम है:
1. लूपबैक पता (127.0.0.1) पिंग करना (I)
2. लिंक-लोकल पता जांचना (IV)
3. स्थानीय सबनेट का प्राइवेट आईपी पता / गेटवे जांचना (III)
4. बाहरी सार्वजनिक (Public) आईपी पता पिंग करना (II)।
अतः सही अनुक्रम A (I -> IV -> III -> II) है।
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3097📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecuritySpecial Purpose IP Addresses
Match Special IP Addresses with Their Purpose:
List - A
i. 127.0.0.1
ii. 255.255.255.255
iii. 0.0.0.0
iv. 169.254.x.x
List - B
1. Loopback testing
2. Broadcast address
3. Default or unknown address
4. APIPA (Automatic Private IP Assignment) address
Options:
Explanation
Special IPv4 address matches:
- i. 127.0.0.1 -> 1 (Loopback testing)
- ii. 255.255.255.255 -> 2 (Limited broadcast address)
- iii. 0.0.0.0 -> 3 (Default route / unknown network address)
- iv. 169.254.x.x -> 4 (APIPA link-local auto-configuration address).
Correct combination: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
विशेष आईपी पतों का सही मिलान:
- i. 127.0.0.1 = लूपबैक परीक्षण (1)
- ii. 255.255.255.255 = सीमित प्रसारण (ब्रॉडकास्ट) पता (2)
- iii. 0.0.0.0 = डिफ़ॉल्ट या अज्ञात पता (3)
- iv. 169.254.x.x = APIPA (स्वचालित निजी आईपी असाइनमेंट) पता (4)।
अतः सही विकल्प A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4) है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3098📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityNetwork Switching Concepts
About network switching concepts, which statements are TRUE?
I. Message switching sends the entire message to the destination before forwarding.
II. Circuit switching is inefficient for bursty data traffic but guarantees bandwidth.
III. Packet switching allows multiple sessions to share the same physical link simultaneously.
IV. Logical addressing is only used in circuit switching networks.
Options:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and III are correct. Circuit switching establishes a dedicated channel guaranteeing bandwidth but wastes capacity during idle bursty traffic. Packet switching enables statistical multiplexing where packets from multiple sessions dynamically share transmission links. Statement IV is false because logical IP addressing is primarily used in packet-switched networks.
कथन I, II और III सत्य हैं:
- सर्किट स्विचिंग समर्पित बैंडविड्थ की गारंटी देता है लेकिन बर्स्टी डेटा के लिए अक्षम है।
- पैकेट स्विचिंग एक ही भौतिक लिंक पर कई सत्रों को साझा करने की अनुमति देता है।
कथन IV असत्य है क्योंकि लॉजिकल एड्रेसिंग पैकेट स्विचिंग में प्रयुक्त होती है। अतः सही विकल्प A (I, II, and III only) है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3099📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecuritySubnetting & IP Addressing
What is the subnet mask for a network with 512 hosts per subnet?
Explanation
To accommodate 512 addresses per subnet, we need 9 host bits (29=5122^9 = 512). The network prefix length is therefore 32 - 9 = /23. A /23 subnet mask in dotted-decimal notation is: 11111111.11111111.11111110.00000000 = 255.255.254.0.
प्रति सबनेट 512 होस्ट पतों के लिए 29=5122^9 = 512 (9 होस्ट बिट्स) की आवश्यकता होती है। नेटवर्क प्रीफिक्स = 32 - 9 = /23 होगा। /23 का सबनेट मास्क डॉटेड दशमलव संकेतन में '255.255.254.0' होता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3100📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityCryptography & Key Management
What is a major advantage of asymmetric encryption over symmetric encryption?
Explanation
The primary advantage of asymmetric (public key) encryption is simplified key distribution: communicating parties do not need to exchange a secret shared key over an insecure channel beforehand, since anyone can encrypt using the recipient's public key.
सममित (Symmetric) एन्क्रिप्शन की तुलना में असममित (Asymmetric) एन्क्रिप्शन का सबसे बड़ा लाभ 'कुंजी वितरण का सरलीकरण' (Simplified key distribution) है, क्योंकि इसमें सार्वजनिक कुंजी को खुले तौर पर वितरित किया जा सकता है और गुप्त कुंजी को साझा करने की आवश्यकता नहीं होती। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3101📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecuritySSL/TLS & Cryptographic Protocols
Which of the following protocols uses asymmetric cryptography to exchange symmetric keys for data encryption?
Explanation
SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer / Transport Layer Security) uses asymmetric public-key cryptography during the handshake phase to authenticate servers and securely exchange or derive a shared symmetric session key (e.g., AES) used for bulk data encryption.
SSL/TLS प्रोटोकॉल हैंडशेक के दौरान असममित क्रिप्टोग्राफी (जैसे RSA) का उपयोग करके प्रमाणीकरण करता है और डेटा एन्क्रिप्शन के लिए सममित सत्र कुंजी (Symmetric key) का सुरक्षित आदान-प्रदान करता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3102📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityNetwork Protocols & ARP
Which of the following describes the primary role of the ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?
Explanation
The primary function of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is to dynamically resolve and map a known 32-bit network-layer logical IP address into its corresponding 48-bit data link-layer physical MAC address on a local local area network.
एआरपी (ARP: Address Resolution Protocol) का मुख्य कार्य स्थानीय नेटवर्क पर ज्ञात तार्किक आईपी पते (IP address) को संबंधित भौतिक मैक पते (MAC address) में मैप/अनुवादित करना है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3103📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityTCP/IP Architecture & Layers
Which layer in the TCP/IP model is responsible for logical addressing and routing?
Explanation
In the 4-layer TCP/IP reference architecture, the Internet Layer (corresponding to the OSI Network Layer) is responsible for logical host addressing (IPv4/IPv6) and routing packets across heterogeneous internetworks.
TCP/IP मॉडल में 'इंटरनेट लेयर' (Internet layer / नेटवर्क लेयर) तार्किक आईपी एड्रेसिंग और नेटवर्क के आर-पार पैकेटों के रूटिंग (मार्ग निर्धारण) के लिए उत्तरदायी होती है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3104📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityWeb Architecture & URLs
Consider the following about Uniform Resource Locators (URLs):
I. URLs can include a protocol, domain, port, path, query, and fragment.
II. The query component in a URL is used to send data to the server.
III. Fragment identifiers are processed on the client side and are not sent to the server.
IV. URL registration is optional and not managed by any authority.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and III are correct. Statement IV is false because domain names within URLs must be officially registered through ICANN/accredited domain name registrars to ensure global uniqueness and resolution.
कथन I, II और III सही हैं। कथन IV असत्य है क्योंकि यूआरएल में प्रयुक्त डोमेन नाम वैकल्पिक नहीं होते और उन्हें ICANN द्वारा अधिकृत रजिस्ट्रारों के माध्यम से पंजीकृत कराना अनिवार्य होता है। अतः सही विकल्प A (I, II, and III only) है।
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3105📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityInformation Security & Web Basics
Match the items in Column A with their correct descriptions in Column B:
Column - A
1. Hypermedia
2. Internet Explorer
3. Social Engineering
4. Digital Signature
5. Encryption
Column - B
i. Hypertext plus multimedia elements
ii. Web browser
iii. Attacking users by manipulating trust
iv. Ensures message authenticity and integrity
v. Process of converting data to unreadable form
Options:
Explanation
Direct matches:
- 1. Hypermedia -> i (Hypertext plus multimedia elements)
- 2. Internet Explorer -> ii (Web browser)
- 3. Social Engineering -> iii (Attacking users by manipulating psychological trust)
- 4. Digital Signature -> iv (Ensures message authenticity, integrity, and non-repudiation)
- 5. Encryption -> v (Process of converting plaintext into unreadable ciphertext).
Matches: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv, 5-v.
सही सुमेलन:
- 1. हाइपरमीडिया = हाइपरटेक्स्ट तथा मल्टीमीडिया तत्व (i)
- 2. इंटरनेट एक्सप्लोरर = वेब ब्राउज़र (ii)
- 3. सोशल इंजीनियरिंग = विश्वास का दुरुपयोग करके उपयोगकर्ताओं पर हमला करना (iii)
- 4. डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर = संदेश की प्रामाणिकता और अखंडता सुनिश्चित करता है (iv)
- 5. एन्क्रिप्शन = डेटा को अपठनीय रूप में बदलने की प्रक्रिया (v)।
अतः सही कूट A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv, 5-v) है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3106📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityDomain Name System (DNS)
Arrange the steps for DNS resolution when a user requests a website:
I. Recursive DNS resolver queries root DNS server
II. User types URL in browser
III. Recursive resolver queries authoritative DNS server for domain IP
IV. Browser receives IP address and initiates connection
V. Recursive resolver queries Top-Level Domain (TLD) DNS server
Options:
Explanation
The hierarchical DNS resolution process follows this sequence:
1. User enters domain URL in browser (II)
2. Local recursive resolver queries the Root DNS server '.' (I)
3. Recursive resolver queries the TLD DNS server (e.g. .com) (V)
4. Recursive resolver queries the Authoritative DNS server for the specific domain IP (III)
5. Browser receives the resolved IP address and opens connection (IV).
Sequence: II -> I -> V -> III -> IV.
डीएनएस (DNS) रिज़ॉल्यूशन का सही क्रम है:
1. उपयोगकर्ता ब्राउज़र में यूआरएल दर्ज करता है (II)
2. रिकर्सिव रिज़ॉल्वर रूट डीएनएस सर्वर से क्वेरी करता है (I)
3. रिज़ॉल्वर टॉप-लेवल डोमेन (TLD) सर्वर से क्वेरी करता है (V)
4. रिज़ॉल्वर आधिकारिक (Authoritative) डीएनएस सर्वर से आईपी प्राप्त करता है (III)
5. ब्राउज़र को आईपी पता प्राप्त होता है और वह कनेक्शन शुरू करता है (IV)।
अतः सही अनुक्रम A (II -> I -> V -> III -> IV) है।
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3107📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityTelecommunication & ISDN
Which technology allows digital data transmission over ordinary telephone lines at higher speeds?
Explanation
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) was the pioneering international telecommunications standard that enabled simultaneous high-speed digital transmission of voice, video, and packet data over traditional copper telephone lines.
आईएसडीएन (ISDN: Integrated Services Digital Network) वह तकनीक है जो पारंपरिक तांबे के टेलीफोन लाइनों पर उच्च गति से डिजिटल डेटा (ध्वनि, वीडियो और डेटा) के संचरण की अनुमति देती है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3108📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityHTTP/2 Protocols & Binary Framing
In HTTP/2, which feature allows multiplexing multiple requests over a single TCP connection?
Explanation
HTTP/2 introduces the Binary Framing Layer, which breaks all HTTP communications into standardized binary-encoded frames. These independent frames are interleaved and multiplexed simultaneously across a single shared persistent TCP connection within bidirectional streams.
HTTP/2 में 'बाइनरी फ्रेमिंग लेयर' (Binary framing layer) संचार को स्वतंत्र बाइनरी फ्रेम में विभाजित करती है, जिससे एक ही टीसीपी (TCP) कनेक्शन पर कई अनुरोधों और प्रतिक्रियाओं की मल्टीप्लेक्सिंग संभव होती है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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3109📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityProxy Servers & Network Architecture
In the context of proxy servers, what is the primary difference between a forward proxy and a reverse proxy?
Explanation
A Forward Proxy acts on behalf of internal clients to filter, cache, and forward outgoing requests to external Internet web servers. A Reverse Proxy sits in front of internal web servers to intercept, balance, and manage incoming requests from external Internet clients.
प्रॉक्सी सर्वर के संदर्भ में: फॉरवर्ड प्रॉक्सी आंतरिक क्लाइंट की ओर से इंटरनेट पर बाहरी सर्वरों को अनुरोध भेजती है; जबकि रिवर्स प्रॉक्सी बाहरी क्लाइंट्स के अनुरोधों को आंतरिक वेब सर्वरों (लोड बैलेंसिंग/सुरक्षा) तक पहुँचाती है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3110📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityURL Structure & Components
Which of the following correctly matches URL components?
Explanation
In a standard URL (RFC 3986) such as https://example.com/index.html: 'https' is the protocol/scheme, 'example.com' is the Domain name (host), and '/index.html' is the resource Path. Thus, 'example.com - Domain name' is the correct match.
यूआरएल घटकों के सही मिलान में 'example.com - Domain name' बिल्कुल सही है (https प्रोटोकॉल है और /index.html पाथ है)। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3111📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityHTTP Status Codes
Which HTTP response status code indicates a redirection to another resource?
Explanation
HTTP status code 301 ('Moved Permanently') is the standard 3xx Redirection response code indicating that the requested URL resource has been permanently assigned a new URI. (200 is OK, 403 is Forbidden, 500 is Internal Server Error).
एचटीटीपी (HTTP) स्थिति कोड '301' (Moved Permanently) पुनर्निर्देशन (Redirection) कोड है जो यह दर्शाता है कि अनुरोधित संसाधन को स्थायी रूप से नए यूआरएल पर स्थानांतरित कर दिया गया है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3112📚Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityUniform Resource Locators (URL)
Which of the following is not part of a URL?
Explanation
A canonical URL structure contains Scheme/Protocol, Hostname (Domain Name), Port, Path, Query string, and Fragment. When a domain name is used in a URL, the underlying IP address is resolved by DNS and is not explicitly part of the URL string itself.
एक मानक यूआरएल (URL) में प्रोटोकॉल, डोमेन नाम और पाथ शामिल होते हैं। सामान्यतः डोमेन नाम आधारित यूआरएल में आईपी पता (IP address) यूआरएल का प्रत्यक्ष भाग नहीं होता (डीएनएस द्वारा इसे अलग से हल किया जाता है)। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3113📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesFocus Stacking & Depth of Field
Which of the following techniques is used to create the effect of "focus stacking" in digital photography?
Explanation
Focus stacking (also known as z-stacking or focal plane merging) is a digital image processing technique where multiple photographs taken at consecutive focal distances are combined together to yield a composite image with an extended depth of field (DoF), commonly used in macro and landscape photography.
फोकस स्टैकिंग (Focus stacking) डिजिटल फोटोग्राफी की वह तकनीक है जिसमें अलग-अलग फोकल दूरियों पर ली गई कई तस्वीरों को मिलाकर गहराई (Depth of Field) को बढ़ाया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3114📚History of Photography & Classical Chemical ProcessesPhotographic Movements & Pioneers
The "f64 Group," known for promoting straight photography and sharp focus, was founded in which decade?
Explanation
Group f/64 was founded in 1932 (the 1930s) in San Francisco by legendary photographers including Ansel Adams, Edward Weston, Imogen Cunningham, and Willard Van Dyke to promote 'straight photography' characterized by sharp focus, maximum depth of field, and unmanipulated imagery.
ग्रुप f/64 की स्थापना 1932 (1930 के दशक) में अनसेल एडम्स और एडवर्ड वेस्टन जैसे प्रसिद्ध फोटोग्राफरों द्वारा तीक्ष्ण फोकस और शुद्ध 'स्ट्रेट फोटोग्राफी' को बढ़ावा देने के लिए की गई थी। सही विकल्प B है।
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3115📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesArchitectural & Monument Composition
What compositional technique is often used in monument photography to draw the viewer's eye?
Explanation
In monument and architectural photography, centering the monument along the central vertical axis is widely used to highlight symmetrical majesty, grandeur, and structural balance, pulling the viewer's eye directly into the heart of the architectural subject.
स्मारक (मोन्यूमेंट) फोटोग्राफी में विषय की भव्यता, समरूपता (Symmetry) और संरचनात्मक संतुलन को सीधे दर्शाने के लिए अक्सर 'स्मारक को केंद्र में रखने' (Centering the monument) की रचना तकनीक का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3116📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyCamera Architecture & Firmware
What is the primary function of the camera's firmware?
Explanation
Firmware is the low-level embedded operating software programmed directly into the camera's non-volatile ROM/flash memory that manages and coordinates hardware components, autofocus algorithms, image processing, user menu features, and lens communication.
कैमरा फर्मवेयर (Firmware) का प्राथमिक कार्य कैमरे के हार्डवेयर, ऑटोफोकस, मेनू और कार्यक्षमताओं को प्रबंधित और नियंत्रित करना है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3117📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyViewfinders & Display Systems
In mirrorless cameras, what is the advantage of using an electronic viewfinder (EVF) over an optical viewfinder (OVF)?
Explanation
The primary advantage of an Electronic Viewfinder (EVF) is real-time WYSIWYG ('what you see is what you get') previewing: photographers can inspect the exact exposure, white balance, picture profiles, focus peaking, and depth of field before pressing the shutter button.
मिररलेस कैमरे के इलेक्ट्रॉनिक व्यूफाइंडर (EVF) का सबसे बड़ा लाभ यह है कि यह शटर दबाने से पहले ही एक्सपोजर, व्हाइट बैलेंस और डेप्थ ऑफ फील्ड का सटीक रियल-टाइम पूर्वावलोकन प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3118📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Media & Computer Graphics
Which application is used to create or contribute to images in art printed media, video games, films, television programs commercial, videos and simulations.
Explanation
Computer graphics encompasses the digital visual arts, software applications, rendering engines, and techniques used to synthesize, manipulate, and generate images for printed media, video games, motion picture visual effects (VFX), television broadcasting, and computer simulations.
प्रिंट मीडिया, वीडियो गेम, फिल्मों, विज्ञापनों और सिमुलेशन में डिजिटल छवियां और दृश्य बनाने के लिए 'कंप्यूटर ग्राफिक्स' (Computer graphics) का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3119📚History of Photography & Classical Chemical ProcessesPioneers of Photography & Camera Evolution
Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column - I:
1) the first automatic cameras which used an electric eye to determine aperture and exposure.
2) simple box-camera with a fixed-focus lens and single shutter speed
3) small camera of his own making and a piece of paper coated with silver chloride, which darkened where it was exposed to light
4) was also the first digital camera to be interfaced to a microcomputer.
Column - II:
i) Cromemco
ii) Albert Einstein and Gustav Bucky
iii) George Eastman
iv) Nicéphore Niépce
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Historical matching:
- 1) Einstein and Gustav Bucky patented an 'electric eye' light-meter camera in 1935/1936 -> (ii)
- 2) George Eastman developed the simple fixed-focus Kodak box camera in 1888 ('You press the button, we do the rest') -> (iii)
- 3) Nicéphore Niépce in 1816 used paper coated with silver chloride inside a camera obscura -> (iv)
- 4) Cromemco Cyclops (1975) was the first digital camera interfaced with an Altair/S-100 microcomputer -> (i).
Hence, 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i. Choice D.
सही मिलान:
1) अल्बर्ट आइंस्टीन और गुस्ताव बकी ने 1935 में इलेक्ट्रिक आई ऑटोमैटिक एक्सपोजर पेटेंट कराया -> (ii)
2) जॉर्ज ईस्टमैन ने 1888 में सरल फिक्स्ड-फोकस बॉक्स कैमरा (Kodak) बनाया -> (iii)
3) निसेफोर निएप्स ने 1816 में सिल्वर क्लोराइड लेपित कागज पर पहला कैमरा प्रयोग किया -> (iv)
4) क्रोमेमको (Cromemco Cyclops, 1975) माइक्रो कंप्यूटर से जुड़ने वाला पहला डिजिटल कैमरा था -> (i)।
अतः सही कूट D है।
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3120📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionComputer Fundamentals for Imaging
What is the primary function of an operating system?
Explanation
An operating system (OS) is the fundamental system software that manages a computer's hardware resources (CPU, memory, disk, peripheral devices) and provides common services and execution environments for application software.
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम (OS) का प्राथमिक कार्य कंप्यूटर के सभी हार्डवेयर और सॉफ्टवेयर संसाधनों का प्रबंधन और नियंत्रण करना है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3121📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionHistogram & Dynamic Range Analysis
In the context of digital image processing, what does "clipping" refer to?
Explanation
In digital photography and image editing, 'clipping' occurs when brightness values fall outside the sensor's or color space's dynamic range. Highlight clipping turns areas pure white (RGB 255,255,255 blown highlights) and shadow clipping turns areas pure black (RGB 0,0,0 crushed shadows), permanently discarding textural details.
डिजिटल इमेज प्रोसेसिंग में 'क्लिपिंग' का अर्थ अत्यधिक एक्सपोजर के कारण हाइलाइट्स (प्योर व्हाइट) या शैडो (प्योर ब्लैक) में विवरण (Details) का पूरी तरह खो जाना है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3122📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologySensors & Sensor Dimensions
Which type of camera sensor is known for its ability to produce high-quality images in low-light conditions due to its larger size?
Explanation
A Full Frame sensor has the physical dimensions of standard 35mm film (approx. 36 x 24 mm). Due to its substantially larger surface area, individual photosites (pixels) are larger and collect significantly more photons, delivering superior signal-to-noise ratio, broader dynamic range, and clean high-ISO low-light performance.
फुल फ्रेम (Full Frame) सेंसर अपने बड़े भौतिक आकार (36x24 मिमी) के कारण कम रोशनी (Low-light) में अधिक प्रकाश एकत्रित करता है और बेहतर गुणवत्ता व कम नॉइज़ प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3123📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyLens Types & Optical Characteristics
Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column - I: types of lenses
1. Prime Lens
2. Zoom Lens
3. Wide-Angle Lens
4. Telephoto Lens
5. Macro Lens
Column - II: Description
i. Designed for close-up photography, allowing for high detail of small subjects.
ii. Has a focal length typically less than 35mm, ideal for capturing expansive scenes.
iii. Offers a variable focal length, enabling the photographer to zoom in and out.
iv. Provides a fixed focal length, often resulting in sharper images and better low-light performance.
v. Suitable for photographing distant subjects, with a focal length greater than 70mm.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Correct lens classifications:
- 1. Prime Lens: Fixed focal length, superior sharpness & wide maximum aperture -> (iv)
- 2. Zoom Lens: Variable focal length for zooming in/out -> (iii)
- 3. Wide-Angle Lens: Focal length < 35mm, ideal for broad landscapes -> (ii)
- 4. Telephoto Lens: Focal length > 70mm for distant subjects -> (v)
- 5. Macro Lens: Designed for high-magnification close-up capture of tiny subjects -> (i).
Hence, 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-v, 5-i. Choice B.
लेंसों का सही मिलान:
1. प्राइम लेंस -> निश्चित फोकल लेंथ, अधिक तीक्ष्णता (iv)
2. ज़ूम लेंस -> परिवर्ती फोकल लेंथ (iii)
3. वाइड-एंगल लेंस -> 35mm से कम, विस्तृत दृश्यों के लिए (ii)
4. टेलीफोटो लेंस -> 70mm से अधिक, दूर की वस्तुओं के लिए (v)
5. मैक्रो लेंस -> अत्यधिक नज़दीकी सूक्ष्म विवरण के लिए (i)।
अतः सही कूट B है।
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3124📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyOptics & Lens Mechanics
What is the primary advantage of using a constant aperture zoom lens over a variable aperture zoom lens?
Explanation
A constant aperture zoom lens (such as a 24-70mm f/2.8 or 70-200mm f/2.8) maintains the same maximum aperture across its entire focal range. This allows the photographer to zoom freely without unwanted exposure drops or shifting depth of field, which is vital for manual studio and video workflows.
कॉन्स्टेंट अपर्चर ज़ूम लेंस का सबसे बड़ा लाभ यह है कि पूरे ज़ूम रेंज में अधिकतम अपर्चर (जैसे f/2.8) स्थिर रहता है, जिससे एक्सपोजर और डेप्थ ऑफ फील्ड में कोई अवांछित बदलाव नहीं होता। सही विकल्प C है।
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3125📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyCamera Performance & Buffer Architecture
The number of frames a modern DSLR will shoot at max frame rate (burst) in a row is usually limited by:
Explanation
Continuous burst shooting is constrained by internal RAM buffer capacity and memory card write speeds. When the camera captures high-resolution burst images faster than the buffer can offload to the SD/CFexpress card, the buffer fills up and shooting slows down or pauses.
लगातार बर्स्ट मोड (Burst mode) में फोटो खींचने की सीमा कैमरे की आंतरिक मेमोरी बफर और मेमोरी कार्ड पर डेटा लिखने की गति (Buffer/write-to-disk speed) द्वारा तय होती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3126📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesPhotography Ethics & Environmental Stewardship
What is an important ethical consideration when practicing environmental photography?
Explanation
Ethical guidelines for wildlife and environmental photography mandate minimizing human impact: never baiting, stressing, or displacing animals, respecting fragile habitats, not littering, and adhering strictly to conservation ethics over securing a photograph.
पर्यावरण और वन्यजीव फोटोग्राफी में सबसे महत्वपूर्ण नैतिक पहलू यह है कि प्राकृतिक पर्यावरण का संरक्षण किया जाए और वन्यजीवों के प्राकृतिक जीवन में कोई बाधा न डाली जाए। सही विकल्प D है।
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3127📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologySensors & Signal-to-Noise Ratio
Does sensor size affect high ISO performance?
Explanation
Yes, sensor size strongly influences high ISO performance. Larger sensors (like full frame vs micro four thirds) have larger individual photosites (pixel pitch) at equivalent resolutions, capturing more photons and yielding a higher signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) with less visible digital noise.
हाँ, बड़ा सेंसर (जैसे फुल फ्रेम) उच्च ISO पर बेहतर प्रदर्शन करता है क्योंकि इसके बड़े पिक्सेल अधिक प्रकाश ग्रहण करते हैं जिससे नॉइज़ कम उत्पन्न होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3128📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesDocumentary & Environmental Portraiture
When documenting labor in a rural setting, what element can enhance the storytelling aspect of the images?
Explanation
In environmental portraiture and visual storytelling, incorporating contextual elements such as traditional agricultural tools, raw earth, cattle, and local landscape features grounds the worker in their authentic habitat, imparting emotional depth and narrative realism.
ग्रामीण परिवेश में श्रम और श्रमिकों के दस्तावेजीकरण के दौरान आसपास के वातावरण, औजारों और परिदृश्य (Tools and landscapes) को शामिल करने से कहानी कहने का पहलू समृद्ध होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3129📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionComputer Fundamentals for Imaging
What is the primary function of an operating system?
Explanation
The core role of any computer operating system (such as Windows, macOS, or Linux) is managing hardware devices (CPU, RAM, storage, input/output peripherals) and supervising program execution and software resources.
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम का प्राथमिक कार्य कंप्यूटर हार्डवेयर और सॉफ्टवेयर संसाधनों का प्रबंधन करना है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3130📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesColor Temperature & White Balance
What does the term "color temperature" refer to in photography lighting?
Explanation
Color temperature refers to the spectral warmth or coolness of a light source, measured on the absolute Kelvin scale (KK). Warm golden light (candle/tungsten) measures around 2000K-3200K, daylight measures approx. 5500K, and cool overcast sky measures 6500K-8000K.
फोटोग्राफी में 'कलर टेम्परेचर' (Color temperature) प्रकाश के रंग (Hue) को दर्शाता है जिसे केल्विन (Kelvin - K) में मापा जाता है (जैसे वार्म येलो या कूल ब्लू)। सही विकल्प C है।
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3131📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesPhotographic Genres & Applications
Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column - I
1) Portrait Photography
2) Landscape Photography
3) Street Photography
4) Wildlife Photography
5) Macro Photography
Column - II
i) Captures the beauty of nature, often including vast scenes and natural elements.
ii) Focuses on capturing candid moments in public spaces, often highlighting everyday life.
iii) Involves taking close-up photographs of small subjects, revealing intricate details.
iv) Aims to depict animals in their natural habitats, often requiring patience and skill.
v) Centers on capturing the personality and mood of individuals or groups, typically involving posed shots.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching photographic genres with their descriptions:
- 1) Portrait: Centers on capturing personality/mood of people -> (v)
- 2) Landscape: Captures vast natural scenes -> (i)
- 3) Street: Candid moments in public spaces -> (ii)
- 4) Wildlife: Animals in natural habitats -> (iv)
- 5) Macro: Extreme close-up of tiny subjects -> (iii).
Hence, 1-v, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-iii. Choice D.
फोटोग्राफी की शैलियों का सही मिलान:
1) पोर्ट्रेट फोटोग्राफी -> व्यक्तियों का व्यक्तित्व और मनोदशा (v)
2) लैंडस्केप फोटोग्राफी -> प्रकृति के विशाल दृश्य (i)
3) स्ट्रीट फोटोग्राफी -> सार्वजनिक स्थानों पर दैनिक जीवन के क्षण (ii)
4) वाइल्डलाइफ फोटोग्राफी -> प्राकृतिक आवास में वन्यजीव (iv)
5) मैक्रो फोटोग्राफी -> छोटी वस्तुओं के नज़दीकी सूक्ष्म विवरण (iii)।
अतः सही कूट D है।
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3132📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesOptical Filters & Exposure Control
A graduated ND filter is best used for:
Explanation
A Graduated Neutral Density (GND) filter features a smooth transition from dark neutral density at the top to clear glass at the bottom, perfectly designed for balancing landscape exposures by darkening a bright sky without underexposing the darker foreground landscape.
ग्रेजुएटेड एनडी फिल्टर (Graduated ND filter) का उपयोग लैंडस्केप फोटोग्राफी में अत्यधिक चमकीले आकाश को गहरा करने के लिए किया जाता है ताकि अग्रभूमि और आकाश दोनों संतुलित एक्सपोज हों। सही विकल्प C है।
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3133📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyPhotographic Principles & Standards
Consider the following statement:
I: Crop factor is significant because it impacts the field of view and the apparent focal length of a lens.
II: Cross processing is a photographic technique where film intended for one type of development process is deliberately processed in a different type of solution.
III: Dots per inch (dpi) refers to the number of dots that can fit into a linear space of one inch. It is commonly used in printing and displaying digital images.
IV: Gray card reflects an unknown amount of light and cannot be used as a reference point for setting the camera's exposure.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Evaluating statements:
- Statement I is correct: Smaller sensors have a crop factor that narrows the field of view, giving the equivalent angle of a longer focal length.
- Statement II is correct: Cross-processing (e.g. developing E-6 transparency slide film in C-41 negative chemicals) produces surreal color shifts and high contrast.
- Statement III is correct: DPI refers to physical printed dots per linear inch.
- Statement IV is FALSE: An 18% photographic gray card reflects a precisely calibrated standard 18% of incident light and is standardly used to calibrate exposure and white balance.
Hence, I, II and III are correct. Choice D.
कथनों का मूल्यांकन:
- कथन I सही है (क्रॉप फैक्टर फील्ड ऑफ व्यू को प्रभावित करता है)।
- कथन II सही है (क्रॉस प्रोसेसिंग में फिल्म को जानबूझकर दूसरे रासायनिक घोल में प्रोसेस किया जाता है)।
- कथन III सही है (DPI प्रिंटिंग में प्रति इंच डॉट्स की संख्या है)।
- कथन IV गलत है (ग्रे कार्ड सटीक 18% प्रकाश परावर्तित करता है और एक्सपोजर सेट करने का मानक संदर्भ है)।
अतः कथन I, II और III सही हैं। सही विकल्प D है।
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3134📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyLens Mounts & Flange Focal Distance
What is the significance of the "Nikon F mount" or "Canon EF mount"?
Explanation
The Nikon F mount and Canon EF mount are mechanical bayonet mounting standards with proprietary electronic communication protocols that ensure physical fit, electrical signal transfer, and optical alignment between interchangeable lenses and camera bodies.
निकॉन F माउंट और कैनन EF माउंट कैमरा बॉडी और लेंस के बीच भौतिक फिटिंग और इलेक्ट्रॉनिक कनेक्टिविटी के मानकीकृत लेंस माउंट (Lens compatibility standards) हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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3135📚History of Photography & Classical Chemical ProcessesInvention of Photography
How long was the exposure time for the first ever photographic image?
Explanation
Joseph Nicéphore Niépce created the world's first surviving permanent photograph ('View from the Window at Le Gras') in 1826 or 1827 using a camera obscura and a pewter plate coated with Bitumen of Judea, which required an exposure of approximately 8 hours in bright sunlight.
विश्व की सबसे पहली स्थाई तस्वीर 'View from the Window at Le Gras' 1826 में जोसेफ निएप्स द्वारा ली गई थी, जिसके लिए लगभग 8 घंटे (8 hours) का एक्सपोजर समय लगा था। सही विकल्प C है।
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3136📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Editing Software & Tools
Which of the following software is primarily known for its advanced photo editing capabilities?
Explanation
Adobe Photoshop is the globally renowned industry-standard raster graphics editor and image manipulation software widely used by photographers, digital artists, and retouchers for professional photo editing.
व्यावसायिक स्तर पर उन्नत फोटो संपादन (Advanced photo editing) के लिए सबसे प्रमुख सॉफ्टवेयर एडोब फोटोशॉप (Adobe Photoshop) है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3137📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyOptics & Field of View
Which component of a camera determines the field of view and affects the perspective of an image?
Explanation
The camera lens (specifically its focal length and optical design) directly dictates the angle of view and optical perspective, defining how wide or compressed a scene appears on the camera's image plane.
कैमरे का लेंस (Lens) फील्ड ऑफ व्यू (दृष्टि क्षेत्र) और छवि के परिप्रेक्ष्य (Perspective) को निर्धारित करता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3138📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesExposure & Color Calibration
A gray card is used to...
Explanation
A standardized photographic 18% neutral gray card provides an objective optical reference surface used to calibrate reflective light meters for precise midtone exposure and establish accurate custom white balance across varying lighting setups.
18% न्यूट्रल ग्रे कार्ड (Gray card) का उपयोग सटीक एक्सपोजर और व्हाइट बैलेंस (रंगों की शुद्धता) को कैलिब्रेट करने के लिए किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3139📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionNon-Destructive Editing & Layers
In photo editing, what is a 'layer'?
Explanation
In non-destructive digital image editing (e.g., Photoshop, GIMP), a layer is an independent plane stacked within an image canvas that contains pixel artwork, adjustment values, or text, allowing individual elements to be modified without affecting other layers below.
फोटो संपादन में 'लेयर' (Layer) एक अलग स्तर या तत्व होता है जिसे अन्य तत्वों को प्रभावित किए बिना स्वतंत्र रूप से संपादित (Edited independently) किया जा सकता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3140📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyLens Design & Optical Aberrations
What type of lens is known for its ability to focus vertically and horizontally lines at the same time?
Explanation
An anastigmatic lens (such as the Zeiss Protar or Cooke Triplet) is an advanced multi-element lens design corrected for astigmatism, spherical aberration, and coma, allowing vertical, horizontal, and diagonal lines across the entire image plane to be brought into simultaneous sharp focus.
एनास्टिग्मैटिक लेंस (Anastigmatic Lens) दृष्टिवैषम्य (Astigmatism) से मुक्त होता है, जिससे यह ऊर्ध्वाधर और क्षैतिज रेखाओं को एक साथ सटीक फोकस में लाने की क्षमता रखता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3141📚History of Photography & Classical Chemical ProcessesFilm Chemistry & Spectral Sensitivity
Panchromatic film is sensitive to
Explanation
Panchromatic black-and-white film emulsion is formulated with sensitizing dyes that make it responsive to all visible wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum—including blue, green, and red light—rendering realistic grayscale tonal values mimicking the human eye. (Earlier orthochromatic film was insensitive to red).
पैनक्रोमैटिक (Panchromatic) फिल्म दृश्य प्रकाश के सभी रंगों (लाल, हरा और नीला - All light) के प्रति संवेदनशील होती है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3142📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyManual Focus Assist & Display Features
What is "focus peaking" in digital cameras?
Explanation
Focus peaking is an electronic focusing assist feature on mirrorless cameras and monitors that analyzes edge contrast and overlays a bright color outline (e.g., red, yellow, or white) over the sharp, in-focus portions of the live preview image.
फोकस पीकिंग (Focus peaking) डिजिटल कैमरों का एक इलेक्ट्रॉनिक फीचर है जो स्क्रीन या व्यूफाइंडर में इन-फोकस (सटीक फोकस वाले) क्षेत्रों को एक चमकीले रंग की आउटलाइन से हाइलाइट करता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3143📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesCamera Angles & Visual Psychology
An eye-level shot has what effect on the viewer?
Explanation
Shooting at eye level creates a neutral, human, and direct connection between the viewer and the subject. It mimics natural human observation without conveying psychological dominance (high angle) or vulnerability/grandeur (low angle), placing the viewer in the same physical space as the subject.
आई-लेवल शॉट (Eye-level shot) का दर्शक पर यह प्रभाव पड़ता है कि वह विषय के साथ उसी स्थान और स्तर पर सीधे जुड़ाव महसूस करता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3144📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesOptical Filters & Polarizers
In which situation would you typically use a polarizing filter?
Explanation
A circular polarizing filter (CPL) selectively blocks linearly polarized light waves reflected from non-metallic surfaces, thereby cutting unwanted specular glare and reflections from water, glass, and foliage, while simultaneously deepening blue skies and boosting color saturation.
ध्रुवीकरण फिल्टर (Polarizing filter) का मुख्य उपयोग पानी, कांच आदि की सतहों से अवांछित चमक और परावर्तन (Glare and reflections) को समाप्त करने और आसमान के नीले रंग को गहरा करने के लिए किया जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3145📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesExposure Metering Systems
What does the "exposure meter" in a camera do?
Explanation
A camera's internal exposure meter uses photodiode light sensors to measure the luminance/reflectance of light reflected from the scene, providing data to the exposure indicator scale so the camera or photographer can balance aperture, shutter speed, and ISO for accurate exposure.
कैमरे का 'एक्सपोजर मीटर' दृश्य में मौजूद प्रकाश की मात्रा का आकलन करता है ताकि फोटोग्राफर सही एक्सपोजर मान (अपर्चर, शटर, ISO) निर्धारित कर सके। सही विकल्प C है।
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3146📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyMirrorless vs DSLR Architecture
What is the main advantage of using a mirrorless camera over a DSLR?
Explanation
By eliminating the swinging reflex mirror box and the optical glass pentaprism housing found in traditional DSLRs, mirrorless cameras achieve a significantly shallower flange focal distance, resulting in a noticeably lighter, slimmer, and more portable camera body.
डीएसएलआर की तुलना में मिररलेस कैमरे का मुख्य लाभ इसका अधिक हल्का और कॉम्पैक्ट (Lighter and more compact design) होना है, क्योंकि इसमें भारी शीशा और पेंटाप्रिज्म नहीं होता। सही विकल्प D है।
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3147📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologySpecialized Optics (Tilt-Shift)
What is a tilt-shift lens primarily used for?
Explanation
Tilt-shift lenses feature mechanical adjustments for shifting the optical axis parallel to the sensor plane and tilting the lens relative to the sensor. The shift mechanism eliminates perspective distortion (converging vertical lines/keystoning) when photographing tall architectural structures.
टिल्ट-शिफ्ट लेंस (Tilt-shift lens) का मुख्य उपयोग वास्तुकला (Architectural) फोटोग्राफी में इमारतों की सीधी खड़ी रेखाओं के परस्पेक्टिव डिस्टॉर्शन को ठीक करने के लिए किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3148📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologySensors & Low-Light Sensitivity
Which sensor size is generally considered to provide better low-light performance and dynamic range in digital cameras?
Explanation
Full Frame sensors (36x24mm) offer the largest photosite area among standard commercial digital camera systems, capturing the maximum amount of light energy to produce higher signal-to-noise ratio, superior low-light sensitivity, and the widest dynamic range.
दिए गए विकल्पों में 'फुल फ्रेम' (Full Frame) सेंसर अपने बड़े भौतिक आकार के कारण कम रोशनी में सबसे बेहतरीन प्रदर्शन और व्यापक डायनामिक रेंज प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3149📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionWhite Balance & Color Calibration
What does the term "white balance shift" refer to in digital photography?
Explanation
White balance shift (or fine-tuning) is the camera setting or post-processing control that alters the color temperature and tint along the Amber-Blue and Green-Magenta chromatic axes to achieve neutral, lifelike color rendition under any ambient lighting.
व्हाइट बैलेंस शिफ्ट (White balance shift) सटीक रंग प्राप्त करने के लिए कलर टेम्परेचर और टिंट को समायोजित करने की प्रक्रिया है ताकि सफेद रंग प्राकृतिक दिखे। सही विकल्प B है।
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3150📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Management & RAW Processing
Which photo editing software is specifically designed for professional photographers to manage and edit large volumes of images?
Explanation
Adobe Lightroom is designed specifically for photographers' batch workflows, offering non-destructive RAW photo development combined with cataloging, metadata tagging, and mass-editing tools tailored for handling thousands of images from a shoot efficiently.
पेशेवर फोटोग्राफरों द्वारा बड़ी संख्या में तस्वीरों को प्रबंधित और बैच एडिट करने के लिए विशेष रूप से 'एडोब लाइटरूम' (Adobe Lightroom) तैयार किया गया है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3151📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionAdvanced Digital Manipulation
What does the 'Puppet Warp' feature allow you to do in photo editing software?
Explanation
The Puppet Warp tool in Adobe Photoshop overlays a visual mesh over an object and allows the editor to place pins to anchor specific regions while freely bending, pivoting, and warping other parts of the subject naturally.
फोटोशॉप में 'पपेट वॉर्प' (Puppet Warp) सुविधा आपको कुछ क्षेत्रों को स्थिर रखते हुए छवि के अन्य हिस्सों को मोड़ने और विकृत (Distort) करने की अनुमति देती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3152📚History of Photography & Classical Chemical ProcessesPhotographic History & Movements
Which movement in photography is associated with the use of photography as an art form, challenging the notion of photography as merely a documentary tool?
Explanation
Pictorialism was an international photographic movement of the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Pictorialists deliberately used soft focus, textured papers, and chemical manipulations to emulate the expressive brushwork of fine art paintings, firmly asserting photography's place as a fine art rather than a simple mechanical record.
19वीं सदी के अंत का 'पिक्टोरियलिज्म' (Pictorialism) आंदोलन फोटोग्राफी को केवल दस्तावेजी उपकरण मानने की धारणा को चुनौती देकर इसे एक ललित कला (Art form) के रूप में स्थापित करने से जुड़ा है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3153📚Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesPhoto Sequences & Editorial Photography
Which of the following elements is crucial for creating a successful photo sequence?
Explanation
In creating an editorial or documentary photo series/essay, maintaining visual cohesion through consistent lighting quality, color balance, and color grading across all constituent photographs is vital for narrative continuity and aesthetic unity.
एक सफल फोटो अनुक्रम (Photo sequence) तैयार करने के लिए सभी तस्वीरों में सुसंगत प्रकाश व्यवस्था और एक समान कलर ग्रेडिंग (Consistent lighting and color grading) का होना अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3154📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyView Camera Movements & Mechanics
What is the primary function of the "bellows" in a view camera?
Explanation
The flexible, accordian-pleated bellows in a view camera allows the front lens standard and rear film standard to move independently (tilting, swinging, shifting, rising, and falling) relative to one another, enabling precise perspective and Scheimpflug focal plane control.
व्यू कैमरे में 'बेलोज़' (Bellows) का प्राथमिक कार्य लेंस को फिल्म प्लेन के सापेक्ष स्वतंत्र रूप से घुमाने, झुकाने और खिसकाने (लचीले संचलन) की अनुमति देना है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3155📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyShutter Mechanics (Leaf vs Focal Plane)
Which type of camera typically uses a "leaf shutter," allowing for flash synchronization at all shutter speeds?
Explanation
Twin-Lens Reflex (TLR) cameras (like the Rolleiflex) and medium format leaf-shutter lenses use a mechanical iris-like leaf shutter located between the lens elements. Unlike focal-plane shutters, leaf shutters expose the entire film frame simultaneously, allowing flash sync at all speeds (up to 1/500s).
ट्विन-लेंस रिफ्लेक्स (TLR) कैमरे लेंस के भीतर स्थित 'लीफ शटर' (Leaf shutter) का उपयोग करते हैं, जो सभी शटर गतियों पर फ्लैश सिंक्रनाइज़ेशन की अनुमति देता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3156📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyPanoramic Photography & Swing-Lens Cameras
What is a primary characteristic of a "panoramic camera"?
Explanation
A classic swing-lens or rotating-lens panoramic camera (such as the Widelux, Noblex, or Horizon) captures an ultra-wide field of view (often 120° to 140°) by rotating its lens about its optical nodal point while exposing film through a moving vertical slit onto a curved film plane.
पारंपरिक पैनोरमिक कैमरे (जैसे Widelux) की प्रमुख विशेषता यह है कि यह विस्तृत कोण को कैद करने के लिए घूमते हुए लेंस (Rotating lens) का उपयोग करता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3157📚Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Compression & File Formats
Which of the following file formats is considered a "lossy" compression format?
Explanation
JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) utilizes lossy discrete cosine transform (DCT) compression, permanently discarding high-frequency color and textural data imperceptible to the human eye to achieve small file sizes. (TIFF and PNG use lossless compression; RAW is uncompressed or losslessly compressed).
दिए गए प्रारूपों में से 'JPEG' एक लॉसी (Lossy) कम्प्रेशन फॉर्मेट है, जो फ़ाइल का आकार छोटा करने के लिए कुछ गैर-महत्वपूर्ण इमेज डेटा को स्थायी रूप से हटा देता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3158📚Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyPanoramic Photography & Swing-Lens Cameras
Which feature distinguishes a "swing-lens" panoramic camera from other types of cameras?
Explanation
A swing-lens panoramic camera features an internal pivoting optical barrel that sweeps across an arc during the exposure, projecting light through a narrow slit onto film wrapped along a matching curved focal plane to capture a seamless wide field of view without wide-angle corner distortion.
स्विंग-लेंस पैनोरमिक कैमरे की पहचान यह है कि यह एक्सपोजर के दौरान लेंस को घुमाकर (Rotating the lens during exposure) एक विस्तृत पैनोरमा दृश्य को स्लिट के माध्यम से रिकॉर्ड करता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3159📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityTime and Work
X, Y and Z can do a piece of work in 46 days, 92 days and 23 days, respectively. X started the work. Y joined him after 2 days. If Z joined them after 8 days from the beginning, then for how many days did X work?
Explanation
Total work = LCM(46, 92, 23) = 92 units.
- Efficiencies: X = 92/46 = 2 units/day; Y = 92/92 = 1 unit/day; Z = 92/23 = 4 units/day.
- Days 1-2 (2 days): Only X works => 2 2 = 4 units. - Days 3-8 (6 days): X + Y work => 6 (2 + 1) = 18 units.
- Work completed in first 8 days = 4 + 18 = 22 units. Remaining work = 92 - 22 = 70 units.
- From day 9 onwards: X + Y + Z work together with combined efficiency = 2 + 1 + 4 = 7 units/day.
- Days to finish remaining work = 70 / 7 = 10 days.
- Total days X worked = 8 + 10 = 18 days.
कुल कार्य = ल.स.प.(46, 92, 23) = 92 इकाइयां।
दक्षता: X = 2 इकाई/दिन, Y = 1 इकाई/दिन, Z = 4 इकाई/दिन।
- पहले 2 दिन केवल X ने कार्य किया = 2 2 = 4 इकाइयां। - अगले 6 दिन (दिन 3 से 8) X और Y ने कार्य किया = 6 (2 + 1) = 18 इकाइयां।
- 8 दिनों में कुल कार्य = 4 + 18 = 22 इकाइयां। शेष कार्य = 92 - 22 = 70 इकाइयां।
- दिन 9 से तीनों मिलकर कार्य करते हैं (दक्षता = 2 + 1 + 4 = 7 इकाई/दिन)।
- शेष कार्य में लगे दिन = 70 / 7 = 10 दिन।
- X ने कुल कितने दिन काम किया = 8 + 10 = 18 दिन। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3160📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityTime and Work
Person A can do one-fifth of the work in 3 days, while B's efficiency is half of that of A. In how many days A and B working together can do half of the work?
Explanation
A does 1/5 work in 3 days => A completes full work in 3 * 5 = 15 days (efficiency = 1/15 per day). B's efficiency is half of A => B's efficiency = 1/30 per day. Combined efficiency of A + B = 1/15 + 1/30 = 3/30 = 1/10 per day (full work in 10 days). Time to do half (1/2) the work = (1/2) / (1/10) = 5 days.
A 1/5 कार्य 3 दिन में करता है => A पूरा कार्य 15 दिन में करेगा (क्षमता = 1/15 प्रतिदिन)। B की क्षमता A की आधी है => B की क्षमता = 1/30 प्रतिदिन।
A और B की संयुक्त क्षमता = 1/15 + 1/30 = 1/10 प्रतिदिन (पूरा कार्य 10 दिन में)।
आधा (1/2) कार्य पूरा करने में लगा समय = 10 / 2 = 5 दिन। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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3161📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityMensuration & Solid Geometry
How many small solid spheres each of 5 mm radius can be made out of a metallic solid cone whose base has radius 21 cm and height 30 cm?
Explanation
Convert radius of sphere: r = 5 mm = 0.5 cm. Volume of one sphere = (4/3) pi (0.5)^3 = (0.5/3) pi = (1/6) pi cm^3. Cone: base radius R = 21 cm, height H = 30 cm. Volume of cone = (1/3) pi R^2 H = (1/3) pi (21)^2 30 = 4410 pi cm^3. Number of spheres = (4410 pi) / ((1/6) pi) = 4410 6 = 26460.
गोले की त्रिज्या r = 5 मिमी = 0.5 सेमी। एक गोले का आयतन = (4/3) pi (0.5)^3 = (1/6) pi सेमी^3।
शंकु का आयतन = (1/3) pi R^2 H = (1/3) pi (21)^2 30 = 4410 pi सेमी^3।
गोलों की संख्या = 4410 pi / ((1/6) pi) = 4410 * 6 = 26460। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3162📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityLCM Applications
Six bells begin to toll together and toll, respectively, at intervals of 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 and 12 seconds. After how many seconds, will they toll together again?
Explanation
The bells will toll together at intervals equal to the LCM of their individual tolling periods: LCM(3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 12). LCM(3, 4, 6, 8, 12) = 24. Then LCM(24, 7) = 24 * 7 = 168 seconds.
घंटियां पुनः एक साथ अपने समय अंतरालों के ल.स.प. (LCM) पर बजेंगी:
LCM(3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 12) = 168 सेकंड। अतः वे 168 सेकंड बाद पुनः एक साथ बजेंगी। सही विकल्प A है।
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3163📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityCoding-Decoding
In a certain code language, 'ADVISORY' is written as 'BFYMRMOU', and 'CHAMPION' is written as 'DJDQOGLJ'. How will 'DESIGNER' be written in that language?
Explanation
The pattern applies +1, +2, +3, +4 to the first 4 letters, and -1, -2, -3, -4 to the last 4 letters:
- D + 1 = E
- E + 2 = G
- S + 3 = V
- I + 4 = M
- G - 1 = F
- N - 2 = L
- E - 3 = B
- R - 4 = N
Result = EGVMFLBN.
कोडिंग पैटर्न: पहले चार अक्षरों में क्रमशः +1, +2, +3, +4 जोड़ा गया है और अंतिम चार अक्षरों में से क्रमशः -1, -2, -3, -4 घटाया गया है:
D(+1) = E, E(+2) = G, S(+3) = V, I(+4) = M
G(-1) = F, N(-2) = L, E(-3) = B, R(-4) = N
अतः अभीष्ट कोड 'EGVMFLBN' है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3164📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityFictitious Language Coding
In a certain code language, 'Read the code' is coded as '18 20 3', 'Decode the code' is coded as '4 20 3' and 'code is easy' is coded as '3 9 5'. How will 'make one code' be coded in that language?
Explanation
In the given statements, 'code' is common to all three and the common number is '3', so code = 3. In the phrase 'make one code', the code must include '3'. Among the options, only C ('13 15 3') contains the number 3.
तीनों वाक्यों में सामान्य शब्द 'code' है और तीनों में उभयनिष्ठ संख्या '3' है, अतः code = 3।
'make one code' के कोड में संख्या 3 का होना अनिवार्य है। दिए गए विकल्पों में केवल विकल्प C (13 15 3) में 3 सम्मिलित है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3165📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityVenn Diagrams
Select the set of classes the relationship among the best illustrated by the given Venn diagram (three mutually overlapping circles).
Explanation
The three circles represent intersecting sets where members can belong to any one, any two, or all three categories simultaneously: an individual can be an Entrepreneur, a Woman, and a Philanthropist at the same time. This is uniquely satisfied by 'Entrepreneurs, Women, Philanthropists'.
दिया गया वेन आरेख तीन ऐसे वर्गों को दर्शाता है जो आपस में आंशिक रूप से एक-दूसरे को काटते हैं। एक व्यक्ति उद्यमी, महिला और परोपकारी तीनों एक साथ हो सकता है। यह संबंध 'उद्यमी, महिलाएं, परोपकारी' (Entrepreneurs, Women, Philanthropists) द्वारा सबसे सटीक रूप से दर्शाया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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3166📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityLetter Coding
In a certain code language, 'CHILD' is written as '6169248' and 'GUEST' is written as '142153840'. How will 'BOOK' be written in that language?
Explanation
Rule: Consonant alphabetical positions are multiplied by 2, while Vowels retain their natural alphabetical position:
- B (consonant, 2) -> 2 2 = 4 - O (vowel, 15) -> 15 - O (vowel, 15) -> 15 - K (consonant, 11) -> 11 2 = 22
Concatenating yields 4151522.
कोडिंग नियम: व्यंजनों (Consonants) के स्थानीय मान को 2 से गुणा किया जाता है, जबकि स्वरों (Vowels) का मूल मान ही रखा जाता है:
B (2) -> 2 2 = 4 O (स्वर) -> 15 O (स्वर) -> 15 K (11) -> 11 2 = 22
अतः 'BOOK' का कोड 4151522 होगा। सही विकल्प C है।
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3167📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityVenn Diagram Interpretation
In the given Venn diagram, the oval stands for 'chartered accountants', pentagon stands for 'males', the triangle stands for 'full-time employees', and the square stands for 'tax-payers'. How many male chartered accountants are NEITHER tax-payers NOR full-time employees?
Explanation
We seek persons inside the Oval (chartered accountants) AND inside the Pentagon (males), but strictly OUTSIDE the Square (tax-payers) and OUTSIDE the Triangle (full-time employees). Inspecting the region shared exclusively by the oval and pentagon yields 22.
वेन आरेख में हमें उन पुरुषों (Pentagon) और चार्टर्ड एकाउंटेंट्स (Oval) की संख्या ज्ञात करनी है जो न तो करदाता (Square) हैं और न ही पूर्णकालिक कर्मचारी (Triangle)। दोनों आकृतियों के अनन्य प्रतिच्छेदन में संख्या 22 स्थित है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3168📚Basic English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors (Determiners)
Find the error in one part of the given sentence: Not much (1)/ people realize (2)/ his sincerity. (3)/ No error (4)
Explanation
Error is in part (1). 'People' is a plural countable noun, so the quantifier 'many' must be used instead of 'much' (which is reserved for uncountable nouns): 'Not many people realize...'.
त्रुटि भाग (1) में है। 'People' एक गणनीय बहुवचन संज्ञा (countable noun) है, जिसके साथ 'much' (अग़णनीय) के स्थान पर 'many' का प्रयोग किया जाता है: 'Not many people realize...'। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3169📚Basic English & ComprehensionActive and Passive Voice
Select the correct Passive Voice for: Did he plan an excursion to mountains ?
Explanation
The active sentence is in simple past interrogative form ('Did + subject + verb'). In passive voice, it converts to 'Was + object + past participle (planned) + by him?': 'Was an excursion to mountains planned by him?'.
सिंपल पास्ट टेंस के प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य का पैसिव वॉइस संरचना 'Was + Object + V3 + by + Subject?' होती है: 'Was an excursion to mountains planned by him?'। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3170📚Basic English & ComprehensionCloze Test & Participles
Refer cloze passage blank 54: One rainy day I watched a neighbour (54) to push her toddler in a pram with one hand...
Explanation
After verbs of sensory perception ('watched', 'saw'), a participle construction is used: 'watched a neighbour struggling to push...'.
इंद्रिय बोध की क्रियाओं (जैसे watched) के बाद प्रेजेंट पार्टिसिपल 'struggling' का प्रयोग सही है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3171📚Basic English & ComprehensionCloze Test & Quantifiers
Refer cloze passage blank 55: ...I was about to put on my jacket and offer (55) help when the trio disappeared...
Explanation
'Help' is an uncountable noun requiring the quantifier 'some': 'offer some help'.
'Help' एक अगणनीय संज्ञा है, जिसके साथ 'some' का प्रयोग उपयुक्त है ('offer some help')। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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3172📚Basic English & ComprehensionCloze Test & Prepositions
Refer cloze passage blank 56: ...when the trio disappeared (56) some hedges.
Explanation
Objects vanishing from sight go 'behind' an obstruction: 'disappeared behind some hedges'.
झाड़ियों की ओट में छिपने के संदर्भ में प्रीपोजिशन 'behind' (पीछे) सही है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3173📚Basic English & ComprehensionCloze Test & Verb Tense
Refer cloze passage blank 57: When they reappeared, she (57) to have sorted out her problem...
Explanation
Consistent with the past tense narrative, the simple past form 'seemed' is correct: 'she seemed to have sorted out'.
भूतकाल के वृत्तांत के अनुरूप पास्ट टेंस 'seemed' का प्रयोग सही है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3174📚Basic English & ComprehensionCloze Test & Contextual Adverbs
Refer cloze passage blank 58: ...the toddler, attached to the dog's leash, was (58) running through mud puddles...
Explanation
The humorous context of a young child happily splashing in puddles is accurately described by the adverb 'joyously'.
कीचड़ के गड्ढों में खुशी से दौड़ते हुए बच्चे के संदर्भ में क्रियाविशेषण 'joyously' (आनंदपूर्वक) सबसे उपयुक्त है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3175📚Basic English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
Refer reading comprehension passage: It is necessary for one to ______ the language before (s)he writes in that language.
Explanation
The text explicitly notes: 'In order to read and write in a language, one has to speak it.'
गद्यांश के अनुसार किसी भाषा में पढ़ने और लिखने के लिए सबसे पहले उसे बोलना (speak) आना आवश्यक है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3176📚Basic English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
Refer reading comprehension passage: Multi-lingualism means:
Explanation
The passage explains: '...a child may grow up speaking more than one language, if these languages are spoken in the home and in the neighbourhood. We call this multilingualism.'
गद्यांश के अनुसार 'बहुभाषावाद' (Multi-lingualism) का अर्थ एक से अधिक भाषाओं को बोलना (speaking more than one language) है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3177📚Basic English & ComprehensionReading Comprehension
Refer reading comprehension passage: To know a language one must be able to:
Explanation
The passage states: 'To know a language then is first of all to be able to speak it as easily and naturally as a three year old child does.'
गद्यांश के अनुसार किसी भाषा को जानने का प्राथमिक अर्थ उसे एक तीन वर्ष के बच्चे की तरह सहज और स्वाभाविक रूप से बोलना आना है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3178📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KIndian Freedom Movement
Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British Parliament?
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the 'Grand Old Man of India' and author of 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', became the first Indian elected to the British House of Commons representing Central Finsbury in 1892.
ब्रिटिश संसद (हाउस ऑफ कॉमन्स) में निर्वाचित होने वाले पहले भारतीय 'दादाभाई नौरोजी' थे, जो 1892 में फिन्सबरी सेंट्रल से लिबरल पार्टी के टिकट पर चुने गए थे। उन्हें 'भारत का वयोवृद्ध पुरुष' कहा जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3179📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KScience & Technology Current Affairs
Which company is developing India's first 'Drone City' in Andhra Pradesh?
Explanation
Garuda Aerospace partnered with the Andhra Pradesh government to establish India's first dedicated 'Drone City' and manufacturing hub in Andhra Pradesh to foster indigenous UAV technology.
ड्रोन स्टार्टअप 'गरुड़ एयरोस्पेस' (Garuda Aerospace) आंध्र प्रदेश में भारत के पहले 'ड्रोन सिटी' और विनिर्माण केंद्र का विकास कर रहा है। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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3180📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHistory of Jammu & Kashmir
Who was the Mughal emperor during the annexation of Kashmir to the Mughal Empire?
Explanation
Mughal Emperor Akbar annexed Kashmir to the Mughal Empire in 1586 AD after his forces under Qasim Khan and Raja Bhagwant Das defeated the last Chak sultan, Yaqub Shah Chak.
मुगल साम्राज्य में कश्मीर के विलय (1586 ई.) के समय मुगल सम्राट 'अकबर' (Akbar) था। अकबर की सेना ने अंतिम चक सुल्तान याकूब शाह चक को पराजित कर कश्मीर को मुगल साम्राज्य का हिस्सा बनाया था। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3181📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHuman Physiology & Nutrition
For immediate energy production in cells, one should take:
Explanation
Glucose (dextrose) is a simple monosaccharide that enters cellular metabolism directly without requiring enzymatic breakdown, serving as the immediate primary substrate for cellular respiration and ATP generation.
कोशिकाओं में तत्काल ऊर्जा उत्पादन के लिए 'ग्लूकोज' (Glucose) सबसे प्रभावी है क्योंकि यह एक सरल मोनोसेकेराइड है जो बिना पाचन के सीधे रक्त में अवशोषित होकर त्वरित ATP ऊर्जा प्रदान करता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3182📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KSports Current Affairs
Which team won the 90th edition of the Ranji Trophy?
Explanation
Mumbai cricket team won the historic 90th edition of the Ranji Trophy (2023-24 season) by defeating Vidarbha by 169 runs in the final at Wankhede Stadium, securing their record-extending 42nd Ranji title.
रणजी ट्रॉफी के 90वें संस्करण (2023-24) का खिताब 'मुंबई' की टीम ने फाइनल में विदर्भ को हराकर जीता। यह मुंबई का रिकॉर्ड 42वां रणजी ट्रॉफी खिताब था। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3183📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KAgricultural Geography
Highly specialized form of agriculture in which crops like coffee, tea and rubber are cultivated refer to:
Explanation
Plantation agriculture is a large-scale commercial farming system where a single perennial cash crop (such as tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, or cocoa) is cultivated systematically over extensive estates.
चाय, कॉफी और रबर जैसी व्यावसायिक फसलों की बड़े पैमाने पर की जाने वाली विशेष खेती को 'रोपण कृषि' या 'बागानी कृषि' (Plantation agriculture) कहा जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3184📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KPhysical Geography & Climatology
Uneven distribution of insolation on the earth is mainly due to the:
Explanation
The spherical (geoid) shape of the Earth causes the angle of incidence of incoming solar radiation to vary from perpendicular (90 deg) at the tropics to highly slanting towards the poles, causing uneven distribution of insolation.
पृथ्वी पर सूर्यताप (Insolation) का असमान वितरण मुख्य रूप से 'पृथ्वी के गोलाकार आकार' (Spherical shape of the earth) के कारण होता है, जिससे सूर्य की किरणों का आपतन कोण विषुवत् वृत्त से ध्रुवों की ओर घटता जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3185📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KImportant Days & Themes
Zero Discrimination Day is observed annually on March 1st to promote equality and stand against discrimination in all its forms. What is the theme for Zero Discrimination Day 2025?
Explanation
Zero Discrimination Day is commemorated worldwide every year on March 1st by UNAIDS to champion human rights and dignity, centered around the theme of promoting equality for all.
प्रतिवर्ष 1 मार्च को मनाए जाने वाले 'शून्य भेदभाव दिवस' (Zero Discrimination Day 2025) का मुख्य विषय सभी के लिए समानता और अधिकारों की रक्षा ('Equality for All') है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3186📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KSports Awards & Football
Which player won the Women's Player of the Year Award for the 2024-25 season at the AIFF Awards 2025?
Explanation
Manisha Kalyan won the prestigious AIFF Women's Player of the Year Award, recognizing her stellar domestic and European performances.
अखिल भारतीय फुटबॉल महासंघ (AIFF Awards 2025) में वर्ष की सर्वश्रेष्ठ महिला खिलाड़ी (Women's Player of the Year) का पुरस्कार 'मनीषा कल्याण' (Manisha Kalyan) ने जीता। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3187📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHuman Diseases & Microbiology
Typhoid fever is caused by:
Explanation
Typhoid fever is an infectious bacterial illness caused by Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi (Salmonella typhi), transmitted through contaminated food and water.
टाइफाइड बुखार (मियादी बुखार) 'साल्मोनेला टाइफी' नामक जीवाणु (Bacteria) के संक्रमण से होता है, जो दूषित जल और भोजन के माध्यम से फैलता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3188📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KChemistry & Metallurgy
The important metal used with iron to produce stainless steel is:
Explanation
Chromium (minimum 10.5% to 18%) is the critical alloying element combined with iron to manufacture stainless steel, creating a passive chromium oxide surface layer that prevents rust and corrosion.
लोहे को जंग प्रतिरोधी बनाकर 'स्टेनलेस स्टील' (Stainless steel) बनाने के लिए उसमें मुख्य रूप से 'क्रोमियम' (Chromium) धातु मिलाई जाती है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3189📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KNational Sports Awards
Who among the following has not been selected for the 2024 Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?
Explanation
Grandmaster Gukesh D (Chess), Manu Bhaker (Shooting), and Praveen Kumar (Para High Jump) were nominated and honored for the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award. Sandeep Sangwan was not selected.
मेजर ध्यानचंद खेल रत्न पुरस्कार 2024 के लिए डी गुकेश (शतरंज), मनु भाकर (निशानेबाजी) और प्रवीण कुमार (पैरा एथलेटिक्स) को चुना गया, जबकि संदीप सांगवान इसमें शामिल नहीं हैं। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
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3190📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KCirculatory System & Human Biology
Which vein brings clean blood from the lungs into the heart?
Explanation
The Pulmonary Veins are unique among all veins because they carry freshly oxygenated ('clean') blood from the alveoli of the lungs directly into the left atrium of the heart.
फुफ्फुसीय शिराएं ('पल्मोनरी वेन' / Pulmonary Vein) मानव शरीर की एकमात्र शिराएं हैं जो फेफड़ों से शुद्ध (ऑक्सीजनयुक्त) रक्त को हृदय के बाएं अलिंद में लाती हैं। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3191📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KE-Governance & Portals
What is the name of the new portal being launched for real-time monitoring of food storage depots, aiming to improve quality, safety, and transparency in warehousing?
Explanation
'Depot Darpan' is the real-time digitized warehouse management and monitoring portal launched by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) to ensure end-to-end transparency, stock safety, and reduce storage losses.
खाद्य भंडारण डिपो में पारदर्शिता, गुणवत्ता और वास्तविक समय की निगरानी सुनिश्चित करने के लिए शुरू किए गए नए डिजिटल पोर्टल का नाम 'डिपो दर्पण' (Depot Darpan) है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3192📚Basic Road Rules, Driving Methods & Speed LimitsNational Highway Network
Which of the following is the longest National Highway (NH) of India?
Explanation
National Highway 44 (NH 44) is the longest National Highway in India. Stretching approximately 3,745 km (extended to 4,112 km), it runs from Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir in the north to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu in the south.
राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग 44 (NH 44) भारत का सबसे लंबा राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग है, जो उत्तर में जम्मू-कश्मीर के श्रीनगर से लेकर दक्षिण में तमिलनाडु के कन्याकुमारी तक फैला हुआ है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3193📚Basic Road Rules, Driving Methods & Speed LimitsDefensive Driving & Stopping Protocol
Which of the following actions is most important before applying break to stop vehicles?
Explanation
Before applying brakes to slow down or stop a vehicle, the defensive driving routine MSM (Mirror - Signal - Manoeuvre) requires checking rear-view and side mirrors to assess the distance and speed of following vehicles, preventing rear-end collisions.
वाहन को रोकने के लिए ब्रेक लगाने से पहले सबसे महत्वपूर्ण कार्य 'दर्पणों (मिरर) का उपयोग करना' (Use the mirrors) है, ताकि पीछे से आ रहे वाहनों की दूरी और गति देखकर टक्कर से बचा जा सके। सही विकल्प B है।
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3194📚Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsUncontrolled Intersection Protocol
Which among the following is correct action, while driver approach an intersection that does not have traffic light or signs and traffic police,
Explanation
Under standard priority rules at an uncontrolled intersection in India (Rules of the Road Regulations), drivers must reduce speed, yield right of way to traffic approaching from their right side, and proceed only after ensuring the intersection is clear and giving necessary turn signals.
बिना ट्रैफिक लाइट, संकेत या पुलिस वाले अनियंत्रित चौराहे (Uncontrolled intersection) पर पहुँचते समय चालक को गति धीमी करनी चाहिए, अपनी दाईं ओर से आने वाले वाहनों को रास्ता देना चाहिए और आवश्यक संकेत देकर आगे बढ़ना चाहिए। सही विकल्प C है।
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3195📚Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsTraffic Police Hand Signals
The following figure, showing a hand signal represents: [Traffic police officer extending left arm horizontally to the side while holding right hand bent at chest level to beckon traffic]
Explanation
In the standard Traffic Police manual of hand signals, when an officer extends one arm horizontally towards the left side while motioning or holding the other arm to control traffic from the right, the signal represents: 'Stopping traffic approaching from the left and to allow traffic coming from right and turning right'.
ट्रैफिक पुलिस के हस्त-संकेत नियमावली के अनुसार, यह मुद्रा 'बाईं ओर से आने वाले यातायात को रोकना और दाईं ओर से आकर दाईं ओर मुड़ने वाले यातायात को निकलने की अनुमति देना' दर्शाती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3196📚Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsFront Traffic Stopping Signal
The following figure, showing a hand signal represents: [Traffic police officer with right arm raised vertically straight up with palm facing forward]
Explanation
Raising the right arm vertically upwards with the palm facing forward is the universal manual traffic police signal to halt oncoming traffic: 'Stop traffic approaching from front'.
दाहिने हाथ को हथेली आगे की ओर रखते हुए लंबवत ऊपर उठाना ट्रैफिक पुलिस का 'सामने से आने वाले यातायात को रोकने' (Stop traffic approaching from front) का मानक संकेत है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3197📚Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsDriver Manual Hand Signals
In the following figure, driver extends his/her right arm horizontally outside the vehicle. The signal represents
Explanation
Under Rule 3 of the Rules of the Road Regulations 1989, extending the right arm horizontally outside the vehicle with the palm facing forward indicates that the driver intends to turn right or move out to the right-hand side.
सड़क नियम विनियम के अनुसार, जब कोई चालक अपने दाहिने हाथ को खिड़की से बाहर क्षैतिज रूप से सीधा फैलाता है, तो इसका अर्थ है कि वह 'दाईं ओर मुड़ने या दाहिनी लेन में जाने' का इरादा रखता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3198📚Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsTraffic Infrastructure & Sign Color Standards
Match the list-1 with list-2 and select the correct pairs using the options given below:
List-1:
i) Road median
ii) Traffic signal
iii) Direction information signs of Expressway
iv) Direction information signs of National Highway
List-2:
1. Green background and White Arrows
2. Blue background and White Arrows
3. Separating opposing lanes of traffic on divided roadway
4. Control the traffic flow, minimize accident possibility
Which of the pair given below is correctly matched?
Explanation
Matching pairs under IRC 67 / MoRTH standards: (i) Road median separates opposing lanes on a divided roadway -> 3; (ii) Traffic signal controls traffic flow and minimizes accidents -> 4; (iii) Direction information signs on Expressways use Blue background with White lettering/arrows -> 2; (iv) Direction information signs on National Highways use Green background with White lettering/arrows -> 1. Correct code: (i)-(3), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(2), (iv)-(1).
सही मिलान: रोड मीडियन -> विभाजित सड़क पर विपरीत दिशा के ट्रैफ़िक को अलग करना (3); ट्रैफ़िक सिग्नल -> ट्रैफ़िक प्रवाह नियंत्रित करना और दुर्घटनाएँ कम करना (4); एक्सप्रेसवे दिशा सूचक चिन्ह -> नीला बैकग्राउंड व सफ़ेद तीर (2); राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग दिशा सूचक चिन्ह -> हरा बैकग्राउंड व सफ़ेद तीर (1)। सही विकल्प D है।
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3199📚Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsCompass Distortion & Spatial Direction Analysis
There was a direction pole, at right angle crossing of two roads, which was showing all the four correct directions. But due to an accident, it turns in such a manner, that now West pointer is showing South. Now car driver went to the wrong direction thinking that he was travelling towards East. In what direction he was actually travelling?
Explanation
Normal directions: North = 0°, East = 90°, South = 180°, West = 270°. The West pointer (270°) is turned to point towards actual South (180°), meaning the pole rotated 90° anti-clockwise (or shifted by -90°). Thus: The pointer reading 'East' (originally 90°) now points to 90° - 90° = 0°, which is actual North. The driver follows the 'East' pointer, so he was actually travelling towards North.
सामान्य दिशाएँ: उत्तर, पूर्व, दक्षिण, पश्चिम। जब 'पश्चिम' सूचक वास्तविक 'दक्षिण' दर्शाने लगे (90° वामावर्त घूर्णन), तो 'पूर्व' सूचक वास्तविक 'उत्तर' (North) दिशा को दर्शाएगा। चालक पूर्व समझकर वास्तविक उत्तर दिशा में जा रहा था। सही विकल्प B है।
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3200📚Traffic Signage & Road MarkingsStandard Sign Classifications & Shapes
Consider the following pairs:
i. Mandatory or Regulatory Signs
ii. Cautionary or Warning Signs
iii. Informatory or Guide Signs
iv. Retro-reflection light
1. Rectangular shape
2. Returned in close to the direction from which it came
3. Circular shape
4. Triangular shape
Which of the pair given below is correctly matched?
Explanation
Under IRC:67 Code of Practice for Road Signs: Mandatory/Regulatory signs are Circular (i -> 3); Cautionary/Warning signs are Triangular (ii -> 4); Informatory/Guide signs are Rectangular (iii -> 1); Retro-reflective materials reflect incident light rays directly back towards their source (iv -> 2). Correct match: (i)-(3), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(2).
सड़क संकेतों के मानक: अनिवार्य/नियामक संकेत -> वृत्ताकार (3); चेतावनी संकेत -> त्रिभुजाकार (4); सूचनात्मक संकेत -> आयताकार (1); रेट्रो-रिफ्लेक्शन -> प्रकाश को उसी दिशा में लौटाना (2)। सही विकल्प C है।
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3201📚Traffic Signage & Road MarkingsDimensional Regulatory Signs
What does the following symbol represent? [Circular sign with red border containing '2m' with inward-pointing horizontal arrows on left and right]
Explanation
Under IRC:67, a circular mandatory sign displaying a dimension accompanied by horizontal inward-pointing arrows on both sides specifies the maximum permissible 'Width limit' of vehicles allowed on that road section (here, 2 metres).
लाल वृत्ताकार संकेत के भीतर दोनों तरफ क्षैतिज अंदर की ओर मुड़े तीरों के साथ '2m' लिखा होना वाहन की अधिकतम 'चौड़ाई सीमा' (Width limit - 2 मीटर) को दर्शाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3202📚Traffic Signage & Road MarkingsMandatory Blue Snow Chain Signs
What does the following symbol mean? [Circular blue mandatory sign showing a tyre wrapped in tyre chains]
Explanation
A blue circular mandatory sign illustrating a vehicle tyre fitted with chains designates 'Compulsory Snow Chain', requiring all vehicles operating on that icy or snowbound road to install snow chains for traction.
नीले वृत्त में जंजीर से लिपटे टायर का अनिवार्य संकेत 'स्नो चेन की अनिवार्यता' (Compulsory Snow Chain) दर्शाता है, जो बर्फबारी वाले पहाड़ी मार्गों पर फिसलन रोकने हेतु जरूरी होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3203📚Traffic Signage & Road MarkingsHazard Warning Signs
What does the following symbol represent? [Equilateral triangular sign with red border showing falling rocks rolling down from a cliff]
Explanation
An equilateral triangular cautionary sign depicting stones and boulders tumbling down a mountainside cliff warns motorists of a 'Falling rock' zone prone to landslides and shooting stones.
पहाड़ से गिरते पत्थरों को दर्शाने वाला लाल त्रिकोणीय संकेत 'पत्थर गिरने की संभावना' (Falling rock) वाले भूस्खलन संभावित क्षेत्र की चेतावनी देता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3204📚Traffic Signage & Road MarkingsMandatory Directional Signs
The following route markers in a road represents: [Blue circular sign with a white arrow pointing diagonally downwards to the left]
Explanation
A circular blue mandatory sign with a white arrow pointing downward and diagonally to the left instructs motorists: 'Compulsory keep left', typically placed at traffic islands, central dividers, or lane splits.
नीले गोल बोर्ड पर नीचे बायीं ओर झुके सफ़ेद तीर का अनिवार्य संकेत 'अनिवार्य रूप से बाएँ चलें' (Compulsory keep left) का निर्देश देता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3205📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceCardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) Protocols
The chest compression-to-breath ratio for CPR in an adult's person is
Explanation
According to standard basic life support (BLS) and American Heart Association (AHA) CPR guidelines, the universal cardiopulmonary resuscitation ratio for an unresponsive adult is 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths (30:2 ratio).
वयस्क व्यक्ति में सीपीआर (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation - CPR) के लिए सीने पर दबाव (कम्प्रेशन) और कृत्रिम सांस का मानक अनुपात 30 कम्प्रेशन और 2 सांस (30 compressions to 2 breaths) होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3206📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceEmergency Medical Definitions & Management
Consider the following pairs:
i. Dressing
ii. Bandage
iii. CPR
iv. Hyperthermia
1. Not breathing or abnormal breathing normally
2. Sponge with cool water
3. Prevent infection of the body part
4. Protect and immobilized injured body part
Which of the pair given below is correctly matched?
Explanation
Correct pairings: (i) Dressing is applied directly onto a wound to prevent infection and absorb exudate -> 3; (ii) Bandage wraps around to protect and immobilize the injured body part -> 4; (iii) CPR is performed when a casualty is not breathing normally -> 1; (iv) Hyperthermia (heatstroke) is treated by sponging the body with cool water -> 2. Correct match: (i)-(3), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(2).
सही मिलान: ड्रेसिंग -> संक्रमण से बचाव हेतु घाव पर लगाना (3); बैंडेज -> घायल अंग को सहारा देना व स्थिर रखना (4); सीपीआर -> सांस न आने पर जीवन रक्षक प्रक्रिया (1); हाइपरथर्मिया -> अत्यधिक शरीर तापमान में ठंडे पानी से स्पंज करना (2)। सही विकल्प B है।
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3207📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceAirbag Chemical Propellants
Which one of the following chemicals is used in the vehicle "Airbag"?
Explanation
Automotive supplemental restraint system (SRS) airbags utilize pellets of Sodium azide (NaN3NaN_3) combined with an oxidizer. Upon electrical sensor detonation, NaN3NaN_3 decomposes rapidly in an exothermic reaction (2NaN3 o2Na+3N2↑2NaN_3 \ o 2Na + 3N_2\uparrow), producing harmless nitrogen gas that inflates the airbag in 30 to 40 milliseconds.
वाहनों के एयरबैग में 'सोडियम एजाइड' (Sodium azide - NaN3NaN_3) नामक रसायन का उपयोग किया जाता है, जो सेंसर ट्रिगर होने पर तेजी से नाइट्रोजन गैस उत्पन्न कर एयरबैग को मिलीसेकंड में फुला देता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3208📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluencePhysiological Effects of Alcohol on Driving
Which among the following effect is mostly observed after consumption of alcohol while driving?
Explanation
Alcohol is a central nervous system depressant. It impairs neuromuscular coordination and delays brain processing, resulting in an increased reaction time (responses become significantly slower) and severely impaired motor balance, steering control, and hazard perception.
शराब केंद्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र को शिथिल करती है, जिससे चालक का 'प्रतिक्रिया समय बढ़ जाता है' (Increase reaction time - निर्णय लेने में देरी होती है) और 'संतुलन कम हो जाता है' (Reduce balance)। सही विकल्प A है।
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3209📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceAutomotive Safety Glazing Materials
Which among the following type of glass mostly used as a wind screen of a car?
Explanation
Automotive windshields are manufactured exclusively from Laminated safety glass, comprising two sheets of float glass bonded to a tough polyvinyl butyral (PVB) polymer interlayer. When cracked, the glass fragments adhere to the PVB sheet rather than shattering into dangerous sharp projectiles.
कारों की विंडस्क्रीन (सामने का कांच) बनाने के लिए 'लैमिनेटेड सेफ्टी ग्लास' (Laminated safety glass) का उपयोग किया जाता है, जो टूटने पर बिखरता नहीं है बल्कि अंदरूनी प्लास्टिक परत से चिपका रहता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3210📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceAlcohol Elimination Physiology
After consuming alcoholic drinks before driving, which of the following approach can reduce the Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC) of a driver?
Explanation
Only Time can lower Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC). The human liver oxidizes ethanol at an unalterable metabolic rate of roughly 0.015 g/dL per hour via alcohol dehydrogenase. Cold showers, black coffee, or heavy food cannot speed up liver metabolism.
रक्त में अल्कोहल की सांद्रता (BAC) को केवल 'समय' (Time) ही कम कर सकता है, क्योंकि लिवर निश्चित गति (लगभग 1 यूनिट प्रति घंटा) से ही अल्कोहल का चयापचय करता है। कॉफ़ी या ठंडे पानी का इस पर कोई असर नहीं पड़ता। सही विकल्प A है।
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3211📚Difficult Driving Conditions & Vehicle DynamicsHeadlamp Dip Protocols & Anti-Dazzle Rules
Consider the following statements,
Statement-1: It is prohibited to use full beam headlights, when oncoming vehicles are so close as the driver can be dazzled.
Statement-2: It is prohibited to use full beam headlights, when your vehicle is behind another vehicle as the driver is dazzled through their mirrors.
Which of the following combinations is correct
Explanation
Both statements are individually true under Rule 112 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989. Using high-beam headlights is strictly prohibited when approaching oncoming vehicles within dazzling distance and when following closely behind another vehicle, where high beams reflect into the lead driver's interior and side mirrors.
दोनों कथन सही हैं। केंद्रीय मोटर वाहन नियमों के अनुसार, सामने से आते वाहनों के पास होने पर और आगे चल रहे वाहन के ठीक पीछे होने पर (क्योंकि शीशों से चकाचौंध होती है) हाई बीम का उपयोग करना प्रतिबंधित है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3212📚Difficult Driving Conditions & Vehicle DynamicsHydroplaning Mechanics & Friction Loss
When a vehicle traveling on wet road at high speed and a thin film of water gets between the tire and the road surface, resulting
Explanation
This dangerous phenomenon is known as 'hydroplaning' (aquaplaning). Dynamic water pressure wedges beneath the tyre tread faster than the sipes can evacuate it, lifting the tyre completely off the pavement. As frictional contact drops to near zero, it drastically decreases traction, steering response, and braking control.
गीली सड़क पर तेज गति से चलने पर जब टायर और सड़क के बीच पानी की पतली परत आ जाती है (हाइड्रोप्लेनिंग/एक्वाप्लेनिंग), तो सड़क से टायर का संपर्क टूट जाता है जिससे 'कर्षण और नियंत्रण कम हो जाता है' (Decreases Traction and control)। सही विकल्प D है।
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3213📚Provisions of Motor Vehicles Act & RulesNational Speed Limits by Vehicle Class
As per motor vehicle Act 1988, maximum speed of "N" category goods carriage vehicles, travelling access control expressway is
Explanation
Pursuant to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) official notification regarding national speed limits, the maximum permissible speed for Category N vehicles (goods carriages) travelling on access-controlled Expressways and 4-lane divided National Highways is 80 km/hr.
सड़क परिवहन और राजमार्ग मंत्रालय की अधिसूचना के अनुसार, प्रवेश-नियंत्रित एक्सप्रेसवे पर 'N' श्रेणी के मालवाहक वाहनों (Goods carriages) की अधिकतम अनुमेय गति 80 किमी/घंटा (80 km/hr) तय की गई है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3214📚Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsBharat Stage VI Emission Framework
Which among the following statements correctly represent the Bharat Stage (BS-VI) vehicular emission norms
(i) "BS - VI" emission norms are equivalent to "Euro-V" norms
(ii) "BS - VI" emission norms do not require any change in fuel quality
(iii) "BS - VI" emission norms are applicable for all category of vehicle including government four wheeler
The correct statements are
Explanation
Statement (i) is false: BS-VI is equivalent to Euro-VI (India skipped Euro-V entirely). Statement (ii) is false: BS-VI mandated revolutionary fuel reform, reducing sulphur content five-fold from 50 ppm to 10 ppm. Statement (iii) is TRUE: BS-VI norms apply across all vehicle categories sold in India, including government and private four-wheelers.
कथन (i) गलत है (BS-VI यूरो-6 के समकक्ष है)। कथन (ii) गलत है (इसमें सल्फर 10 ppm करने हेतु ईंधन गुणवत्ता बदलना अनिवार्य था)। कथन (iii) सही है क्योंकि यह सभी श्रेणी के वाहनों पर लागू होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3215📚Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsZero-Emission Sustainable Mobility
Which of the following mode of transportation will have the least negative impact on air quality?
Explanation
A Bicycle is a zero-emission, human-powered mode of active transport that burns no fossil fuel and produces zero exhaust pollutants, making it the most environmentally benign transport option.
दिए गए विकल्पों में 'साइकिल' (Bicycle) शून्य उत्सर्जन वाला परिवहन साधन है, जिसका वायु गुणवत्ता पर सबसे कम (शून्य) नकारात्मक प्रभाव पड़ता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3216📚Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsAcoustic Pollution Environmental Biology
Which among the following statements correctly represent the effects of noise pollution by vehicle:
(i) Noise pollution can lead to hearing loss over time
(ii) Noise pollution can disturb wildlife
(iii) Noise pollution can contribute to global warming
The correct statements are
Explanation
Statements (i) and (ii) are true: Prolonged acoustic exposure above 85 dBA induces sensorineural hearing loss in humans and disrupts acoustic communication, foraging, and mating in wildlife. Statement (iii) is FALSE: Noise consists of mechanical pressure waves in air and does not possess radiative greenhouse absorption properties that cause global warming.
कथन (i) और (ii) सही हैं, क्योंकि ध्वनि प्रदूषण से बहरापन हो सकता है और वन्यजीव प्रभावित होते हैं। कथन (iii) गलत है क्योंकि ध्वनि तरंगें ग्लोबल वार्मिंग उत्पन्न नहीं करतीं। सही विकल्प B है।
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3217📚Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsIdling Emission Test Thresholds (PUC Standards)
The carbon monoxide CO and HC (n-hexane equivalent) content respectively, of four wheelers, which is manufactured as per Bharat Stage III or subsequent emission norms
Explanation
Under CMVR Rule 115(2) (Emission Standards at Idling for In-use Petrol Vehicles), for all four-wheelers manufactured as per Bharat Stage III or subsequent emission norms (BS-IV, BS-VI), the maximum permissible idling carbon monoxide (CO) concentration is 0.5% by volume and the hydrocarbon (HC) concentration is 750 ppm (n-hexane equivalent).
CMVR नियम 115(2) के अनुसार, भारत स्टेज-III और उसके बाद निर्मित चार पहिया पेट्रोल वाहनों के लिए आइडलिंग पर कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड (CO) की सीमा 0.5% तथा हाइड्रोकार्बन (HC) की सीमा 750 ppm तय की गई है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3218📚Driving Documents, Licensing, Insurance & OffencesHeavy Vehicle Exterior Noise Limits
As per motor vehicle Act 1988, maximum permissible noise levels of a passenger or commercial vehicles with GVW above 12000 kgs, is
Explanation
Under Rule 120 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989 (prescribing maximum drive-by exterior noise levels for motor vehicles at the manufacturing stage), commercial goods and passenger vehicles with a Gross Vehicle Weight (GVW) exceeding 12,000 kg are permitted a maximum sound level of 91 dB(A).
CMVR नियम 120 के तहत, 12,000 किग्रा से अधिक सकल वाहन भार (GVW) वाले भारी वाणिज्यिक वाहनों के लिए अधिकतम अनुमेय ध्वनि स्तर '91 dB(A)' निर्धारित है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3219📚Driving Documents, Licensing, Insurance & OffencesNational Jurisdiction of Driving Licences
A learner's license is effective and valid for driving a vehicle
Explanation
Section 13 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 (Extent of effectiveness of licences, to drive motor vehicles) explicitly mandates that any learner's licence or driving licence issued under this Act shall be effective throughout India.
मोटर वाहन अधिनियम 1988 की धारा 13 के अनुसार, भारत में जारी किया गया कोई भी लर्नर लाइसेंस या ड्राइविंग लाइसेंस 'संपूर्ण भारत में' (Throughout India) प्रभावी और मान्य होता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3220📚Driving Documents, Licensing, Insurance & OffencesMandatory In-Vehicle Documentation
Which among the following valid documents should be carried while driving a private vehicle
(i) Registration Certificate and Driving License
(ii) Insurance Certificate
(iii) Pollution Under Control Certificate
(iv) Road Tax Receipt
Correct answer is
Explanation
Under Rule 139 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989, any person driving a motor vehicle must produce on demand by an inspecting officer: Driving Licence, Certificate of Registration, valid Certificate of Insurance, Pollution Under Control (PUC) Certificate, and evidence of road tax payment. Thus, all four are mandatory.
केंद्रीय मोटर वाहन नियमों के नियम 139 के अनुसार, निजी वाहन चलाते समय आरसी, ड्राइविंग लाइसेंस, बीमा प्रमाण पत्र, प्रदूषण प्रमाण पत्र (PUC) और टैक्स रसीद - ये चारों दस्तावेज (i, ii, iii और iv) साथ रखना अनिवार्य है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3221📚Driving Documents, Licensing, Insurance & OffencesStrict Prohibition on Expired Licence Operation
How many days a driver can drive the vehicle after the expiry of his driving licence?
Explanation
Under Section 3(1) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, no person shall drive a motor vehicle in any public place unless holding an effective driving licence. Once the licence expires, driving becomes an offence under Section 181 immediately. The 30-day grace period applies strictly to renewing the licence without backdating or penalties, NOT to driving on expired credentials.
मोटर वाहन अधिनियम की धारा 3 के अनुसार, बिना प्रभावी लाइसेंस के गाड़ी चलाना अपराध है। अतः लाइसेंस समाप्त (Expire) होने के बाद 'एक भी दिन' (Not a single day) वाहन चलाने की अनुमति नहीं होती है (30 दिन की छूट केवल नवीनीकरण आवेदन हेतु है, गाड़ी चलाने हेतु नहीं)। सही विकल्प A है।
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3222📚Provisions of Motor Vehicles Act & RulesSection 112 Speed Enforcement Mandates
What is concluded in section 112 of motor vehicle Act 1988
Explanation
Section 112 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 specifically enacts: 'Limits of speed' — mandating that no person shall drive a motor vehicle or cause or allow a motor vehicle to be driven in any public place at a speed exceeding the maximum speed fixed for the vehicle. (Alcohol offences fall under Section 185).
मोटर वाहन अधिनियम 1988 की धारा 112 स्पष्ट रूप से 'गति सीमा' (Limits of speed) का निर्धारण करती है, अर्थात निर्धारित गति सीमा से अधिक गति पर वाहन चलाना प्रतिबंधित है (Speed limit shall not be exceeded)। सही विकल्प B है।
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3223📚Driving Documents, Licensing, Insurance & OffencesMandatory Third-Party Insurance Requirement
Consider the following statements,
Statement-1: Driver may drive cautiously with expire vehicle insurance, provided the driver's personal insurance policy is valid.
Statement-2: Driver shall not drive in any case with expire vehicle insurance
Which of the following combinations is correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE. Section 146 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 strictly mandates that no person shall use a motor vehicle in a public place unless there is in force a valid third-party insurance policy complying with the requirements of Chapter XI. Driving with expired vehicle insurance is an unbailable offence under Section 196, irrespective of personal insurance.
कथन 1 गलत है और कथन 2 सही है। मोटर वाहन अधिनियम की धारा 146 के अनुसार, तीसरे पक्ष के वैध बीमा (Third-party insurance) के बिना वाहन चलाना पूर्णतः अवैध है; अतः समाप्त बीमा के साथ किसी भी स्थिति में वाहन नहीं चलाया जा सकता। सही विकल्प C है।
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3224📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsTire Tribology & Friction Mechanics
The force responsible for the wearing out of the car tires is
Explanation
Tyre tread abrasion is caused by Frictional force (dry sliding and rolling friction) acting at the tire-pavement contact patch during acceleration, steering maneuvers, and braking deceleration, which mechanically shears microscopic rubber particles over time.
कार के टायरों के घिसने के लिए मुख्य रूप से टायर और सड़क के बीच लगने वाला 'घर्षण बल' (Frictional force) उत्तरदायी होता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3225📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsAutomotive Optics & Convex Wing Mirrors
Which type of mirror is most used in a vehicle as a side view mirror
Explanation
Convex mirrors are used universally as automotive side rear-view (wing) mirrors because they always form upright, virtual, and diminished images of trailing traffic. The outwards-curving spherical surface provides a significantly wider field of view compared to flat plane mirrors.
वाहनों में साइड व्यू (विंग) मिरर के रूप में 'उत्तल दर्पण' (Convex mirror) का उपयोग किया जाता है क्योंकि यह हमेशा सीधा व छोटा प्रतिबिंब बनाता है और चालक को पीछे का एक विस्तृत दृश्य क्षेत्र (Wider field of view) दिखाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3226📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsPreventive Maintenance Protocols
Which of the following is the first stage of preventive maintenance of the vehicle
Explanation
Preventive maintenance follows a structured hierarchy: the fundamental and first stage is daily and periodic 'Inspection and checking' (visual walk-around, tyre tread/pressure checks, engine oil and coolant level monitoring, belt tension, and brake fluid inspection). Repairs are only performed if inspection reveals defects.
वाहन के निवारक रखरखाव (Preventive maintenance) का पहला चरण 'निरीक्षण और जांच' (Inspection and checking) होता है, जिसके अंतर्गत इंजन ऑयल, कूलेंट, टायर दबाव और लीकेज की प्रारंभिक जांच की जाती है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3227📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsCarburetor Choke Circuit Dynamics
When the choke is applied, the fuel primarily comes out from the
Explanation
Applying the choke valve closes the air intake upstream of the carburetor venturi while the throttle is slightly opened. As the engine cranks, intense intake manifold vacuum is applied directly across the venturi, causing large volumes of raw liquid fuel to be drawn directly out of the Main jet to supply an ultra-rich starting mixture.
जब कोल्ड स्टार्ट के समय चोक (Choke) लगाया जाता है, तो इनटेक में तीव्र वैक्यूम बनने के कारण ईंधन मुख्य रूप से 'मेन जेट' (Main jet) से बाहर निकलता है जिससे गाढ़ा (रिच) मिश्रण तैयार होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3228📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsCarburetor Fuel-Air Induction System
A carburetor of an automobile is used to supply
Explanation
The mechanical carburetor in classic spark-ignition internal combustion engines atomizes liquid gasoline and blends it with filtered incoming air in precise stoichiometric proportions (approximately 14.7:1 by weight) to supply the cylinder intake manifold.
ऑटोमोबाइल में कार्बोरेटर का मुख्य कार्य इंजन में 'पेट्रोल और वायु' (Petrol and air) का उचित अनुपात में दहनशील मिश्रण बनाकर आपूर्ति करना होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3229📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsFloat Bowl Level Regulation
Flooding in the carburetor of a motor vehicle is typically controlled by
Explanation
Carburetor flooding (overflow of raw fuel into the venturi and intake manifold) is prevented by the hollow Float and needle valve assembly located in the float bowl. As incoming fuel reaches the designed operating level, the buoyant float rises and forces the needle valve shut against its seat.
कार्बोरेटर में ईंधन के ओवरफ्लो (Flooding) को रोकने के लिए 'फ्लोट' (Float) और नीडल वाल्व असेंबली का उपयोग किया जाता है, जो स्तर बढ़ते ही ईंधन प्रवाह को बंद कर देता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3230📚Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsWheel Balancing & Wheel Alignment Dynamics
Consider the following statements,
Statement-1: Wheel balancing involves placing weights on the wheel rim to reduce any inconsistencies in weight distribution and improving riding quality
Statement-2: Wheel alignment involves adjusting the angles of the wheels as per manufacturer's specifications and improving steering response
Which of the following combinations is correct
Explanation
Both statements are individually true. Wheel balancing corrects static and dynamic mass imbalances by clipping or sticking lead/zinc counterweights on the rim to eliminate vibrations. Wheel alignment adjusts geometric suspension angles (camber, caster, and toe) relative to the vehicle chassis to optimize tyre life, directional tracking, and steering stability.
दोनों कथन सही हैं। व्हील बैलेंसिंग में रिम पर वजन लगाकर पहिये का द्रव्यमान संतुलित किया जाता है ताकि कंपन न हो। व्हील अलाइनमेंट में पहियों के कोण (कैम्बर, कास्टर, टो) समायोजित किए जाते हैं ताकि स्टीयरिंग बेहतर रहे और टायर न घिसें। सही विकल्प A है।
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3231📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsHistory of Writing & Alphabets
Which is the basis all European Writing system
Explanation
The Phoenician alphabet (developed around 1050 BC) is recognized as the ultimate ancestor of almost all modern alphabetic writing systems. Through maritime trade across the Mediterranean, it directly gave rise to the Greek alphabet, which subsequently evolved into the Latin (Roman) and Cyrillic scripts throughout Europe.
फोनीशियन वर्णमाला (Phoenician alphabet) सभी यूरोपीय लेखन प्रणालियों (ग्रीक, लैटिन/रोमन और सिरिलिक) का मूल आधार है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3232📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsHistory of Lithography
Who invented Lithography in the year 1796
Explanation
Lithography was invented in 1796 by German playwright and actor Alois Senefelder in Bavaria. He discovered that greasy ink drawn on porous Bavarian limestone repels water while water-dampened non-image areas repel the greasy ink (chemical planography).
लिथोग्राफी (शिलामुद्रण) का आविष्कार वर्ष 1796 में बवेरिया में एलोइस सेनेफेल्डर (Alois Senefelder) द्वारा चूना पत्थर और तेल-पानी के प्रतिकर्षण सिद्धांत पर किया गया था। सही विकल्प C है।
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3233📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPictographs vs Ideographs
Which one of the following statements is true with respect to Ideographs
I. Drawings that carry meaning because they look like real objects
II. Simple drawings that symbolize concepts rather than objects
III. They are simple verbal symbols
IV. Uses advanced alphabet
The Correct Statement are :
Explanation
In writing history: Statement I describes pictographs (drawings representing physical objects by visual resemblance). Statement II correctly defines ideographs (ideograms) as stylized symbols representing abstract ideas, concepts, or qualities rather than concrete physical objects. Hence, only Statement II is correct.
आइडियोग्राफ (Ideographs - विचार-चित्र) वे सरल रेखाचित्र होते हैं जो किसी भौतिक वस्तु के बजाय किसी अमूर्त विचार या अवधारणा (Concepts) का प्रतीक होते हैं। (कथन I पिक्टोग्राफ की परिभाषा है)। अतः केवल कथन II सही है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3234📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPrinting Industry Segments
_____ is defined as any printing operation that is owned by, and serves the needs of, a single company or cooperation.
Explanation
In-Plant Printing (or in-house printing) is defined as an internal graphic production and printing operation owned and operated by a non-printing parent business, educational institution, hospital, or government agency strictly to service its internal documentation and marketing needs.
'इन-प्लांट प्रिंटिंग' (In-Plant Printing) वह आंतरिक मुद्रण इकाई है जो किसी कंपनी, निगम या सरकारी संस्था के स्वामित्व में होती है और विशेष रूप से उसी संस्था की आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3235📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsTypographic Classification & Fonts
A collection of type of the same style and size is called _____
Explanation
In classical typography, a 'Font' (or fount) is traditionally defined as a complete assortment of type of one specific design style and one specific point size (e.g., 10-point Times Roman Bold). A 'Typeface Family' encompasses all point sizes, weights, and styles of that design.
पारंपरिक मुद्रण कला में, एक ही शैली और एक ही निश्चित आकार (Style and size) के टाइप अक्षरों के संग्रह को 'फ़ॉन्ट' (Font) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3236📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPioneers of Printing & Paper
Match the following.
i. Offset
ii. Movable type
iii. Gravure
iv. Modern paper
1. Ts'si Lun
2. Ira Rubel
3. Karl Klif
4. Pi Sheng
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Historical printing pioneers: (i) Offset printing press was invented by Ira Rubel in 1904 -> 2; (ii) Movable type (earthenware/clay) was invented by Pi Sheng in China around 1040 AD -> 4; (iii) Photogravure was developed by Karl Klič (Karl Klif) in 1878 -> 3; (iv) Modern papermaking from plant fibers was invented by Ts'ai Lun in China in 105 AD -> 1. Correct match: i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1.
सही मिलान: ऑफसेट -> इरा रूबल (2); मूवेबल टाइप -> पाई शेंग (4); ग्रेव्योर -> कार्ल क्लिफ़/क्लिच (3); आधुनिक कागज -> त्साई लुन (1)। सही विकल्प D है।
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3237📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsDigital Printing & Piezo Inkjet
Which of the following statements are true with respect to Piezoelectric inkjet technology?
I. Uses heat to force small drops of ink out at high speed on to the substrate
II. Uses electrical impulses based on digitized information to cause individual drops to be squeezed out
III. It is drop on demand system
IV. It is less complicated than continuous spray systems
The Correct Statements are :
Explanation
Piezoelectric inkjet utilizes piezoelectric crystals that change shape when pulsed with electrical voltage to mechanically pump and squeeze ink droplets out of the nozzle (II). It operates as a Drop-on-Demand (DOD) technology (III), and its drop-generation architecture is significantly less complex than electrostatic Continuous Inkjet (CIJ) systems (IV). Statement I describes Thermal (Bubble Jet) inkjet.
पीजोइलेक्ट्रिक इंकजेट तकनीक विद्युत आवेगों द्वारा क्रिस्टल विरूपण से बूंदें निकालती है (II), यह ड्रॉप-ऑन-डिमांड प्रणाली है (III), और सतत प्रणालियों की तुलना में सरल है (IV)। कथन I थर्मल इंकजेट से संबंधित है। अतः II, III और IV सही हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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3238📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsFilm Stripping & Assembly
Stripping refers to _____
Explanation
In conventional lithographic prepress, 'Stripping' (film assembly) is the manual craftsman process of positioning, aligning, taping, and masking negative or positive film elements onto a carrier sheet (goldenrod flat) in precise register for vacuum-frame plate exposure.
पारंपरिक प्रीप्रेस में 'स्ट्रिपिंग' (Stripping) का अर्थ मुद्रण प्लेट पर एक्सपोज़र के लिए फिल्म के टुकड़ों को सटीक स्थिति में व्यवस्थित और तैयार करना (Preparing and positioning a piece of film for exposure to a printing plate) होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3239📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlScanner Metrics: Bit Depth & Gradation
The amount of information that a scanner can capture, and has an effect on colour, size of the file, and the smoothness of image gradation is referred to as _____
Explanation
Bit depth (color depth) measures the number of bits of digital data assigned to represent each pixel. It directly dictates how many subtle shades and color tonal values can be distinguished, influencing file size and smooth tonal transitions without banding.
स्कैनर द्वारा कैप्चर की जा सकने वाली सूचना की मात्रा जो रंग, फ़ाइल आकार और ग्रेडेशन की चिकनाई को निर्धारित करती है, 'बिट डेप्थ' (Bit depth) कहलाती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3240📚Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryHerschel Effect & Direct Positive Films
Which of the following film is based on Herschel effect ?
Explanation
The Herschel effect is the phenomenon where a latent image produced by actinic short-wavelength light is erased or bleached when subsequently exposed to longer-wavelength (red or infrared) light. This principle is utilized to manufacture daylight-handling 'Auto-reversal films' (direct positive duplicating films) that produce a duplicate positive directly upon exposure.
हर्शेल प्रभाव (Herschel effect) पर आधारित फिल्म 'ऑटो-रिवर्सल फिल्म' (Auto-reversal films / डायरेक्ट पॉजिटिव फिल्म) होती है, जिसमें लाल/अवरक्त प्रकाश द्वारा अव्यक्त छवि का विलोपन करके सीधे पॉजिटिव प्राप्त किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3241📚Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryPhotographic Film Cross-Sectional Structure
Match the following.
i. Anti stress coating
ii. Substratum
iii. Antihalation backing
iv. Emulsion layer
1. To make sure that gelatine emulsion adheres to the base
2. Where the photographic image is formed
3. Protects the emulsion against the scratching.
4. To avoid unwanted halo.
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Photographic film cross-sectional structure: (i) Anti-stress coating (supercoat) protects the delicate emulsion from physical scratching and abrasion -> 3; (ii) Substratum (subbing layer) ensures firm adhesion between the gelatin emulsion and the polyester base -> 1; (iii) Antihalation backing contains light-absorbing dyes to prevent reflection from the back of the base (preventing halos around bright points) -> 4; (iv) Emulsion layer contains silver halide crystals suspended in gelatin where the latent image forms -> 2. Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
फिल्म की परतों का सही मिलान: एंटी-स्ट्रेस कोटिंग -> इमल्शन को खरोंचों से बचाना (3); सबस्ट्रेटम (सबिंग लेयर) -> बेस से इमल्शन का चिपकना सुनिश्चित करना (1); एंटीहेलेशन बैकिंग -> अवांछित प्रकाश वलय (हेलो) को रोकना (4); इमल्शन परत -> जहाँ छवि बनती है (2)। सही विकल्प C है।
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3242📚Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryPre-Sensitized Diazo Plate Chemistry
The specific makeup of the all-pre-sensitized emulsion coating material solution varies from manufacturer to manufacturer but primary ingredient of all the solution is same. What is that ingredient?
Explanation
Pre-sensitized (PS) offset lithographic plates rely on diazo resin or photopolymer photo-coatings. The fundamental active chemical moiety in diazo chemistry is the diazonium group (containing nitrogen atoms, −N2+-N_2^+). Exposure to actinic UV light causes photolysis of the diazonium salt, releasing nitrogen gas (N2N_2) and rendering the exposed polymer insoluble and oleophilic.
प्री-सेंसिटाइज्ड (PS) ऑफसेट प्लेटों के डायज़ो कोटिंग का मुख्य रासायनिक घटक डायज़ोनियम यौगिक होते हैं, जिनमें 'नाइट्रोजन' (Nitrogen) मुख्य कार्यात्मक तत्व होता है जो प्रकाश पड़ने पर नाइट्रोजन गैस मुक्त कर बहुलक को स्याही-ग्राही बनाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3243📚Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryOffset Rubber Blanket Mechanical Properties
The ability of the blanket to return to its original thickness after pressure on its surface has been removed is called _____
Explanation
The mechanical ability of an offset rubber blanket to instantaneously recover its original nominal thickness and surface profile after passing through the high-pressure printing cylinder nip is termed 'Resilience' (elastic recovery). High resilience prevents permanent blanket gauge loss.
दबाव हटने के बाद ऑफसेट रबर ब्लैंकेट की अपनी मूल मोटाई में तुरंत वापस लौटने की प्रत्यास्थ क्षमता को 'रेज़िलिएंस' (Resilience - लचीलापन/प्रत्यास्थता) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3244📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsScreen Printing Squeegee Selection
What are the criteria's to be followed while selecting a squeegee for screen printing?
Explanation
The performance of a screen printing squeegee blade depends on four critical physical parameters: (1) Hardness / Durometer (Shore A rating), (2) Blade edge profile / Shape (square, beveled, or rounded), (3) Chemical makeup / solvent resistance (polyurethane vs neoprene), and (4) Flexibility under hydrodynamic pressure.
स्क्रीन प्रिंटिंग स्क्वीजी (Squeegee) का चयन करते समय चार प्रमुख मानदंड ध्यान में रखे जाते हैं: कठोरता (Hardness/ड्यूरोमीटर), ब्लेड का आकार (Shape), रासायनिक संरचना (Chemical makeup) और लचीलापन (Flexibility)। सही विकल्प D है।
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3245📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsScreen Printing Stencil Techniques
Which among the following is not a method used to produce photographic stencils?
Explanation
Photographic screen printing stencils utilize light-sensitive photopolymer or diazo emulsions exposed to actinic light: (A) Direct emulsion coating, (B) Indirect photographic film, and (C) Direct/indirect (capillary film) system. 'Tusche and glue' is an artistic, manual hand-painted blockout technique that involves zero photographic exposure.
दिए गए विकल्पों में 'तुशे और गोंद' (Tusche and glue) हाथ से चित्रित की जाने वाली हस्तकला विधि है, यह कोई फोटोग्राफिक स्टेंसिल विधि नहीं है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3246📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsHistory of Printing: Gutenberg
Who is known as the father of modern printing?
Explanation
German goldsmith Johannes Gutenberg of Mainz is universally acclaimed as the 'Father of Modern Printing'. Around 1440–1450, he invented the mechanical movable metal type system, adjustable hand casting mold, oil-based printing ink, and the wooden screw printing press, publishing the Gutenberg Bible in 1455.
जर्मनी के जोहान गुटेनबर्ग (Johann Gutenberg) को धातु के मूवेबल टाइप और प्रिंटिंग प्रेस के आविष्कार के लिए 'आधुनिक मुद्रण का जनक' माना जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3247📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlPhysics of Light: Quantum Electrodynamics
An extremely precise theory of light that can explain all the physical phenomena of light and its interaction with matter, from diffraction, interference, blackbody radiation, the laser, and the photoelectric effect to Compton scattering of x-rays.
Explanation
Quantum Electrodynamics (QED), formulated by Feynman, Schwinger, and Tomonaga, is the relativistic quantum field theory of electromagnetism describing how light (photons) and matter (electrons) interact with extreme precision across all domains.
प्रकाश और पदार्थ की अंतःक्रिया के सभी भौतिक पहलुओं की व्याख्या करने वाला अत्यंत सटीक सिद्धांत 'क्वांटम इलेक्ट्रोडायनामिक्स' (Quantum electrodynamics - QED) कहलाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3248📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlMunsell Color Attributes: Hue, Value, Saturation
What are the three attributes of colour
Explanation
Under the Munsell color order system and visual colorimetry, the three psychological dimensions or attributes of human color perception are: Hue (the dominant spectral wavelength or color identity), Value (lightness or darkness), and Chroma / Saturation (purity or intensity of the color).
रंग (Colour) के तीन मूलभूत गुणधर्म 'ह्यू (रंग का नाम), वैल्यू (हल्कापन/गहरापन), और संतृप्ति (Saturation/तीव्रता)' (Hue, Value, Saturation) होते हैं। सही विकल्प A है।
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3249📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlCIE Lab Color Space Metric Hue Angle
According to CIE 1976 Lab colour system, the hue-angle is defined as:
Explanation
In the CIE L∗a∗b∗L^*a^*b^* and L∗C∗hL^*C^*h color space, the metric hue-angle (habh_{ab}) is defined geometrically in the polar a∗,b∗a^*, b^* chromaticity plane as the four-quadrant arctangent of the ratio of b∗b^* to a∗a^*: hab=arctan⁡(b∗a∗)h_{ab} = \arctan\left(\frac{b^*}{a^*}\right) (expressed in degrees from 0° to 360°).
CIE 1976 Lab रंग प्रणाली में ह्यू-एंगल (Hue-angle) का सूत्र hab=arctan⁡(b∗/a∗)h_{ab} = \arctan(b^*/a^*) होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3250📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlHuman Visual System: Cones & Fovea
The _____ are most densely packed at the centre of the fovea where no rod exits.
Explanation
In human ocular anatomy, the fovea centralis (the pit at the center of the macula responsible for sharp central vision and high visual acuity) is exclusively populated by tightly packed Cone photoreceptor cells. Rod cells are completely absent in the central foveola.
मानव नेत्र के फ़ोविया (Fovea centralis) के केंद्र में, जहाँ रॉड्स पूरी तरह अनुपस्थित होते हैं, 'शंकु कोशिकाएँ' (Cones / कोन कोशिकाएँ) अत्यधिक घनी रूप से केंद्रित होती हैं जो तीक्ष्ण और रंगीन दृष्टि प्रदान करती हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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3251📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlVisual Neuroscience & Color Perception
Choose the True statement about Vision:
I. One of the five sensory functions for collecting information about the world we live in.
II. The optic nerve contains about one million neural fibres transmitting information from the retina to the brain.
III. The visual signals are sent to the visual cortex and other areas in the brain for perception.
IV. Cone cells are the real sensors of colour vision.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
All four statements are scientifically accurate: Vision is the primary sensory modality (I); the human optic nerve is composed of approximately 1 to 1.2 million retinal ganglion cell axons (II); action potentials travel through the optic chiasm and lateral geniculate nucleus to the primary visual cortex (V1) in the occipital lobe (III); and retinal cone photoreceptors (S, M, L cones) mediate trichromatic photopic color vision (IV).
दृष्टि (Vision) के संबंध में चारों कथन सत्य हैं: यह सूचना एकत्र करने वाली प्रमुख संवेदी प्रणाली है (I), ऑप्टिक तंत्रिका में लगभग 10 लाख तंत्रिका तंतु होते हैं (II), सिग्नल विजुअल कॉर्टेक्स में जाते हैं (III), और कोन कोशिकाएं रंगीन दृष्टि की वास्तविक संवेदक हैं (IV)। सही विकल्प D है।
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3252📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlColor Perception: Simultaneous Contrast
'An identical neutral gray tone field appears greenish on a red background and rather reddish on a green background'. This phenomenon is termed as _____
Explanation
This is the classic manifestation of 'Simultaneous contrast' (formulated by Michel Eugène Chevreul). Due to lateral inhibition in retinal receptive fields, the perceived hue of an area shifts toward the complementary color of its surrounding background; thus, neutral gray shifts toward cyan/green on red, and toward magenta/red on green.
जब एक ही न्यूट्रल ग्रे रंग लाल बैकग्राउंड पर हरा और हरे बैकग्राउंड पर लाल जैसा प्रतीत होता है, तो इस दृष्टि भ्रम को 'साइमलटेनियस कंट्रास्ट' (Simultaneous contrast / एककालिक विषमता) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3253📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsGraphic Design Principles: Informal Balance
Which type of balance refers to the designers having complete freedom with image positions?
Explanation
In graphic design and layout, 'Informal balance' (asymmetrical balance) achieves equilibrium through visual weight, color contrast, and dynamic placement without mirroring elements across a central axis. This affords the designer creative freedom to position visual elements dynamically.
ग्राफिक डिज़ाइन में 'अनौपचारिक संतुलन' (Informal balance / असममित संतुलन) डिज़ाइनर को छवियों और तत्वों को स्वतंत्र और गतिशील रूप से व्यवस्थित करने की पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता देता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3254📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPrepress Image Swapping: OPI
OPI stands for
Explanation
OPI stands for 'Open Prepress Interface', a standardized client-server protocol developed by Aldus Corporation that enables page layout artists to work quickly with low-resolution placeholder images (FPO - For Position Only) while an OPI server automatically swaps them for high-resolution images during final PostScript RIP output.
OPI का पूर्ण रूप 'Open Prepress Interface' (ओपन प्रीप्रेस इंटरफ़ेस) होता है, जो बड़े आकार की छवियों के लिए लो-रेज़ोल्यूशन प्लेसहोल्डर वर्कफ़्लो प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3255📚Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsTypographic Anatomy: Stress
In typography _____ refers to the slant of a character
Explanation
In typographic anatomy, 'Stress' (or axis of stress) refers to the angle, slant, or inclination of the imaginary axis connecting the thinnest parts of a curved letterform (such as 'o' or 'e'), reflecting the angle of the broad-nibbed pen used in calligraphy (e.g. diagonal stress in Old Style versus vertical stress in Modern typefaces).
टाइपोग्राफी में अक्षर के झुकाव या मुख्य अक्ष के कोण को 'स्ट्रेस' (Stress / अक्षीय झुकाव) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3256📚Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlColor Management Systems (CMS & ICM)
Give an example for Colour Management Solution
Explanation
Microsoft Image Color Management (ICM / WCS - Windows Color System) is the built-in operating system-level Color Management Module (CMM) in Microsoft Windows that implements International Color Consortium (ICC) device profiles to ensure color fidelity between scanners, monitors, and printers.
कलर मैनेजमेंट समाधान (CMS) का प्रमुख उदाहरण 'माइक्रोसॉफ्ट आईसीएम' (Microsoft ICM - Image Color Management) है, जो विंडोज़ में आईसीसी प्रोफाइल द्वारा रंगों का प्रबंधन करता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3257📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingInternet Architecture & Protocols
The Internet is best described as:
Explanation
The Internet is fundamentally a global, decentralized system of interconnected computer networks that communicate using the standard Internet Protocol Suite (TCP/IP). It is not owned or controlled by any single centralized entity.
इंटरनेट को सबसे बेहतर रूप से 'समान प्रोटोकॉल (TCP/IP) का उपयोग करने वाले परस्पर जुड़े नेटवर्कों का एक विशाल वैश्विक संग्रह' (A vast collection of interconnected networks using common protocols) के रूप में वर्णित किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3258📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingHistory of the Internet: ARPANET
What was the first computer network in the world, established in 1969, that laid the foundation for the modern internet?
Explanation
ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects Agency Network), funded by the U.S. Department of Defense in 1969, was the world's first operational packet-switching network. It interconnected computers across UCLA, Stanford, UCSB, and the University of Utah, establishing the foundational architecture of the modern Internet.
वर्ष 1969 में स्थापित दुनिया का पहला कंप्यूटर नेटवर्क 'ARPANET' था, जिसने पैकेट-स्विचिंग के माध्यम से आधुनिक इंटरनेट की नींव रखी। सही विकल्प A है।
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3259📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingLinux Shell Commands
What command is used in UNIX/Linux to change directories
Explanation
In UNIX, Linux, and POSIX-compliant command-line environments, the 'cd' (change directory) command is used to navigate and change the current working directory. ('cp' copies files, 'rm' removes files, and 'mv' moves/renames files).
UNIX/Linux में वर्तमान डायरेक्टरी बदलने के लिए 'cd' (change directory) कमांड का उपयोग किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3260📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingPacket Switching & ARPANET
What was the first network to use packet switching and store-and-forward technique?
Explanation
ARPANET was the pioneering computer network to implement packet switching and store-and-forward routing. Conceived by Paul Baran and Donald Davies and built by BBN, it replaced circuit-switched telecommunications by dividing messages into discrete packets routed dynamically across Interface Message Processors (IMPs).
पैकेट-स्विचिंग और स्टोर-एंड-फ़ॉरवर्ड तकनीक का उपयोग करने वाला दुनिया का पहला नेटवर्क 'ARPANET' था। सही विकल्प D है।
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3261📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingInternet Service Providers
What is an ISP?
Explanation
ISP stands for 'Internet Service Provider'. An ISP is a telecommunications company or organization that provides commercial access, connectivity, routing, and transit services enabling users and enterprises to connect to the Internet.
ISP का पूर्ण रूप 'Internet Service Provider' (इंटरनेट सर्विस प्रोवाइडर / इंटरनेट सेवा प्रदाता) होता है, जो उपयोगकर्ताओं को इंटरनेट कनेक्टिविटी प्रदान करता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3262📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingISP Functions & Services
Which of the following is not a typical function of an ISP?
Explanation
The core infrastructural responsibilities of an ISP are: providing physical/wireless Internet connectivity, assigning IP addresses, connecting user devices, and routing and exchanging data packets with peering networks. Offering cloud storage is a third-party application cloud service (provided by cloud storage vendors like AWS, Google, or Dropbox), not an intrinsic network function of an ISP.
इंटरनेट कनेक्टिविटी देना, डिवाइस जोड़ना और डेटा पैकेट एक्सचेंज की सुविधा प्रदान करना ISP के बुनियादी कार्य हैं। 'क्लाउड स्टोरेज प्रदान करना' (Provide cloud storage) ISP का प्राथमिक अनिवार्य कार्य नहीं है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3263📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingInternet Governance: IRTF & IETF
IRTF stands for
Explanation
IRTF stands for 'Internet Research Task Force'. Operating in parallel with the IETF under the Internet Society (ISOC), the IRTF focuses on longer-term, forward-looking research topics related to Internet protocols, applications, architecture, and technology via specialized Research Groups.
IRTF का पूर्ण रूप 'Internet Research Task Force' (इंटरनेट रिसर्च टास्क फ़ोर्स) होता है, जो इंटरनेट से संबंधित दीर्घकालिक शोध पर कार्य करता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3264📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingInternet Standards: IETF
What is the IETF responsible for?
Explanation
The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) is the premier open international standards body responsible for the technical development, architecture, engineering, and maintenance of the Internet's foundational protocol specifications (publishing the official Request for Comments - RFC documents).
IETF (इंटरनेट इंजीनियरिंग टास्क फ़ोर्स) मुख्य रूप से 'इंटरनेट इंजीनियरिंग और तकनीकी मानकों के विकास' (Internet engineering and standards development / RFCs) के लिए उत्तरदायी है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3265📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingFree & Open Source Software Philosophy (FOSS)
What does the term free software mean in the context of Linux?
Explanation
In the context of the GNU/Linux open-source philosophy (defined by Richard Stallman and the Free Software Foundation), 'free software' refers to liberty, not price ('free as in speech, not free as in beer'). It denotes the user's essential four freedoms: to run, study, modify (with source code access), and redistribute copies of the software freely.
लिनक्स और ओपन-सोर्स संदर्भ में 'फ्री सॉफ्टवेयर' का अर्थ मूल्य से नहीं बल्कि स्वतंत्रता से है, अर्थात 'इसे स्वतंत्र रूप से कॉपी, संशोधित और वितरित किया जा सकता है' (It can be copied, modified, and distributed freely)। सही विकल्प D है।
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3266📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingLinux Architecture: User Utilities vs Kernel
Which of the following is considered a user utility in Linux?
Explanation
In Linux architecture, user utilities are standard command-line tools and userland programs (such as file management utilities: cp, mv, ls, rm, tar, find) that users execute in user space to manage files and data. The kernel scheduler and network domain are low-level kernel routines.
लिनक्स में 'फ़ाइल प्रबंधन उपकरण' (File management tools जैसे ls, cp, mv, rm) उपयोगकर्ता स्तर की उपयोगिताओं (User utilities) के अंतर्गत आते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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3267📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingDOS Commands: Directory Management
What is the purpose of the md command in DOS?
Explanation
In MS-DOS and Windows Command Prompt, the 'md' (or 'mkdir') internal command stands for 'Make Directory' and is used to create a new folder or directory in the file system.
MS-DOS में 'md' (Make Directory) कमांड का उद्देश्य 'एक नई डायरेक्टरी (फ़ोल्डर) बनाना' (To create a new directory) होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3268📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingDOS Hardware Device Configuration: MODE
What is the primary function of the MODE command in DOS?
Explanation
In MS-DOS, the external system utility 'MODE' is used to configure and set operational parameters for system hardware devices, including COM serial ports (baud rate, parity), LPT parallel printer ports, console screen display modes (columns and lines), and keyboard typematic repeat rates.
MS-DOS में MODE कमांड का मुख्य कार्य 'सिस्टम उपकरणों जैसे पोर्ट्स (COM/LPT) और डिस्प्ले सेटिंग्स को कॉन्फ़िगर करना' (To configure system devices such as ports and display settings) होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3269📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Biosafety ManagementHuman Osteology: Pelvic Girdle
The pelvic bone is a composite of which three fused structures?
Explanation
Each hip bone (os coxae / pelvic bone) is formed embryologically by the fusion of three separate bones at the acetabular triradiate cartilage: the superior, fan-shaped Ilium, the posteroinferior Ischium, and the anteroinferior Pubis.
श्रोणि अस्थि (Pelvic bone / Hip bone) तीन संयुक्त संरचनाओं के संलयन (फ्यूजन) से बनी होती है: इलियम (Ilium), इश्चियम (Ischium), और प्यूबिस (Pubis)। सही विकल्प A है।
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3270📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Biosafety ManagementEndocrine Physiology: Calcitonin
Which hormone is secreted by the parafollicular (C) cells of the thyroid gland?
Explanation
The parafollicular cells (also known as C cells) scattered in the connective tissue between thyroid follicles secrete Calcitonin. Calcitonin is a 32-amino acid polypeptide hormone that decreases plasma calcium concentrations by inhibiting osteoclast bone resorption.
थायरॉयड ग्रंथि की पैराफॉलिक्युलर (C) कोशिकाओं द्वारा 'कैल्सीटोनिन' (Calcitonin) हार्मोन का स्राव होता है, जो रक्त में कैल्शियम के स्तर को कम करने में मदद करता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3271📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Biosafety ManagementArthrology: Hip Joint Ligaments
Which ligament is recognized as the strongest in the human body due to its role in stabilizing the hip joint?
Explanation
The Iliofemoral ligament (also known as the ligament of Bigelow or Y-ligament of the hip) is the strongest ligament in the human body, boasting a tensile strength of over 350 kg. Located on the anterior aspect of the hip joint capsule, it prevents excessive hyperextension of the hip while maintaining erect posture.
मानव शरीर का सबसे मजबूत स्नायु (Ligament) 'इलियोफेमोरल लिगामेंट' (Iliofemoral ligament / बिगेलो का लिगामेंट) है, जो कूल्हे के जोड़ को स्थिरता प्रदान करता है और अत्यधिक हाइपरएक्सटेंशन को रोकता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3272📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceLaboratory Accreditation & ISO Standards
Which ISO standard specifically governs laboratory quality management systems?
Explanation
ISO 15189 ('Medical laboratories - Requirements for quality and competence') is the international gold standard that specifically governs quality management systems in clinical, medical, and diagnostic laboratories. (ISO 17025 applies to general testing and calibration laboratories, while ISO 9001 is a generic corporate QMS).
चिकित्सा और नैदानिक प्रयोगशालाओं की गुणवत्ता प्रबंधन प्रणाली (QMS) को विशेष रूप से नियंत्रित करने वाला अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानक 'ISO 15189' है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3273📚Human Anatomy, Physiology & Biosafety ManagementIndian Biosafety Regulations & EPA 1986
Which law ensures biosafety compliance in Indian biomedical laboratories?
Explanation
In India, biosafety compliance for genetically modified organisms and hazardous microorganisms is legally grounded under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (EPA 1986) through the 'Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989', implemented via IBSC, RCGM, and GEAC.
भारत में खतरनाक सूक्ष्मजीवों और जीएमओ के लिए जैव सुरक्षा (बायोसेफ्टी) अनुपालन 'पर्यावरण संरक्षण अधिनियम, 1986' (Environmental Protection Act, 1986) के 1989 के नियमों के तहत कानूनी रूप से लागू किया जाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3274📚General Microbiology, Bacteriology & Staining TechniquesContinuous Microbial Culture: Chemostats
Which of the following systems is designed to perpetually maintain microbial populations at steady-state growth by continuous nutrient supply and waste removal?
Explanation
A chemostat (chemostatic reactor) is an open continuous culture bioreactor system designed to maintain microbial populations at a permanent exponential steady-state. Sterile fresh nutrient medium is introduced at a fixed dilution rate (DD) while spent culture containing cells and metabolites is removed at the exact same rate.
'कीमोस्टैटिक रिएक्टर' (Chemostatic reactor / कीमोस्टैट) निरंतर पोषक तत्वों की आपूर्ति और अपशिष्ट निष्कासन द्वारा सूक्ष्मजीवों को स्थायी स्थिर-अवस्था (Steady-state) विकास में बनाए रखता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3275📚General Microbiology, Bacteriology & Staining TechniquesMicrobial Growth Kinetics & Generation Time
A culture exhibits an increase in optical density from 0.2 to 1.6 over 6 hours. If the doubling time is 1.5 hours, how many generations have occurred?
Explanation
The number of generations (nn) is calculated from total incubation time (tt) and the generation/doubling time (gg): n=tg=6 hours1.5 hours=4 generationsn = \frac{t}{g} = \frac{6\text{ hours}}{1.5\text{ hours}} = 4\text{ generations}. (Note that in exponential growth, 4 generations yields 24=16×2^4 = 16\times growth; from 0.2×23=1.60.2 \times 2^3 = 1.6 represents three doublings in OD reading, but based strictly on time and doubling time parameter 6/1.5=46 / 1.5 = 4).
पीढ़ियों की संख्या (nn) = कुल समय (tt) / दोहरीकरण समय (gg) = 6 घंटे / 1.5 घंटे = 4 पीढ़ियाँ (Four generations)। सही विकल्प C है।
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3276📚Mycology & Fungal PathogenesisSpecial Histochemical Stains in Mycology
Which staining technique is preferred for demonstrating polysaccharide-rich fungal cell walls in histopathological tissue sections?
Explanation
The Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) reaction is the standard histopathological stain for fungi. Periodic acid selectively oxidizes the vicinal diols of cell-wall structural polysaccharides (glucan, mannan, chitin) into aldehydes, which react with Schiff's leucofuchsin reagent to produce an intense, diagnostic bright magenta/pink staining.
ऊतक अनुभागों में कवक की पॉलीसेकेराइड युक्त कोशिका भित्ति को प्रदर्शित करने के लिए 'पीरियोडिक एसिड-शिफ' (Periodic Acid-Schiff - PAS) स्टेनिंग सबसे पसंदीदा तकनीक है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3277📚Mycology & Fungal PathogenesisOpportunistic Fungi: Cryptococcus
Which encapsulated yeast is urease-positive and associated with meningoencephalitis in immunocompromised individuals, particularly those with AIDS?
Explanation
Cryptococcus neoformans is an encapsulated, urease-positive basidiomycetous yeast. In severely immunocompromised individuals (such as patients with advanced HIV/AIDS, CD4 < 100/uL), it disseminates to the central nervous system to cause life-threatening subacute cryptococcal meningoencephalitis.
कैप्सूल-युक्त, यूरिएज-पॉजिटिव यीस्ट जो एड्स रोगियों में जानलेवा मेनिंगोएन्सेफलाइटिस का कारण बनता है, 'क्रिप्टोकोकस नियोफॉर्मन्स' (Cryptococcus neoformans) है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3278📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryProtein Purification: Salting Out
Ammonium sulfate is employed in protein purification protocols primarily to:
Explanation
Ammonium sulfate fractionation operates on the 'salting out' principle. High kosmotropic salt concentrations strip the hydration shell from exposed hydrophobic patches on protein surfaces, promoting hydrophobic aggregation and reversible precipitation without denaturing the native protein.
प्रोटीन शुद्धिकरण में अमोनियम सल्फेट का उपयोग 'सॉल्टिंग आउट' (Salting out) द्वारा 'प्रोटीन की घुलनशीलता को कम करके चयनात्मक अवक्षेपण' (Reduce protein solubility and induce selective precipitation) करने के लिए किया जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3279📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssurancePhlebotomy Additives: Glycolytic Inhibitors
Which anticoagulant-preservative combination is routinely employed for accurate blood glucose determination in clinical samples?
Explanation
Gray-top vacutainer tubes containing Sodium fluoride and Potassium oxalate are standard for glucose estimation. Sodium fluoride acts as an antiglycolytic agent by irreversibly inhibiting the glycolytic enzyme enolase, preventing in vitro RBC glucose breakdown, while potassium oxalate prevents coagulation by chelating calcium.
रक्त शर्करा (ग्लूकोज) के सटीक निर्धारण के लिए 'सोडियम फ्लोराइड और पोटेशियम ऑक्सालेट' (Sodium fluoride with potassium oxalate - ग्रे टॉप ट्यूब) का उपयोग किया जाता है, जहाँ फ्लोराइड एनोलेज़ एंजाइम को रोककर ग्लाइकोलिसिस रोकता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3280📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryHepatic Function Tests & Enzyme Ratios
Which AST:ALT ratio is most suggestive of chronic alcoholic liver disease?
Explanation
In alcoholic liver disease, the serum AST (aspartate aminotransferase) to ALT (alanine aminotransferase) ratio (De Ritis ratio) is characteristically greater than 2 (often exceeding 2:1 or even 3:1). Alcohol causes direct mitochondrial damage that preferentially releases mitochondrial AST into circulation, while alcoholics commonly suffer from pyridoxal 5'-phosphate (vitamin B6) deficiency, which impairs ALT synthesis more severely than AST synthesis.
क्रॉनिक अल्कोहलिक लिवर रोग में, AST:ALT अनुपात (डी रिटिस अनुपात) आमतौर पर 2 से अधिक (AST: ALT greater than 2) होता है। शराब के कारण माइटोकॉन्ड्रियल क्षति होती है जिससे AST का स्राव बढ़ता है और विटामिन B6 की कमी ALT के संश्लेषण को अधिक दबा देती है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3281📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyViral Vectors & Recombinant Biotechnology
Which of the following viruses is frequently utilized as a vector in gene therapy due to its ability to infect a wide range of human cells?
Explanation
Adenoviruses are widely employed as vectors in gene therapy and recombinant vaccine platforms because of their exceptional transduction efficiency across a broad spectrum of dividing and quiescent human cell types, high nuclear entry efficiency without chromosomal integration (reducing insertional mutagenesis risks), and substantial cloning capacity for therapeutic transgene inserts.
एडेनोवायरस (Adenovirus) का उपयोग मानव कोशिकाओं की एक विस्तृत श्रृंखला को संक्रमित करने की क्षमता के कारण जीन थेरेपी और टीकों में वेक्टर के रूप में बहुतायत से किया जाता है। यह मेजबान जीनोम में एकीकृत हुए बिना प्रभावी अभिव्यक्ति देता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3282📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyBacteriophage Replication Cycles
Which bacteriophage replication pathway involves integration of viral DNA into the bacterial host genome?
Explanation
In the lysogenic cycle of temperate bacteriophages (such as phage lambda), viral DNA is integrated into the host bacterial chromosome where it persists as a dormant prophage. The viral genome is replicated faithfully along with host DNA during binary fission without causing immediate lysis of the bacterial cell.
लाइसोजेनिक चक्र (Lysogenic cycle) में बैक्टीरियोफेज का डीएनए मेजबान बैक्टीरिया के जीनोम में एकीकृत होकर 'प्रोफेज' (Prophage) बन जाता है और बिना कोशिका को नष्ट किए जीवाणु विभाजन के साथ प्रतिकृति करता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3283📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyRetroviral Replication & Reverse Transcriptase
Retroviruses employ which enzyme for replication, enabling the conversion of viral RNA into DNA?
Explanation
Retroviruses encode the unique multifunctional enzyme RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase). This enzyme utilizes the single-stranded positive-sense viral RNA genome as a template to synthesize complementary single-stranded DNA (cDNA), degrades the RNA template via RNase H activity, and synthesizes a double-stranded proviral DNA that integrates into the host genome.
रेट्रोवायरस में 'आरएनए-निर्भर डीएनए पॉलीमरेज़' (रिवर्स ट्रांसक्रिप्टेज़ / Reverse transcriptase) एंजाइम होता है, जो वायरल आरएनए को पूरक डीएनए (cDNA) में परिवर्तित करने में सक्षम बनाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3284📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyViral Vaccines & Immunization Principles
The measles vaccine administered in immunization programs is classified as a:
Explanation
The measles vaccine (such as the Edmonston-Enders strain, administered alone or combined as MMR/MR) is a live attenuated viral vaccine. It contains live virus particles that have been weakened through repeated passage in chick embryo cell culture, allowing them to replicate and stimulate lifelong humoral and cellular immunity without provoking clinical disease.
टीकाकरण कार्यक्रमों में दी जाने वाली खसरे (Measles) की वैक्सीन 'लाइव एटेन्यूएटेड वैक्सीन' (Live attenuated vaccine - जीवित क्षीण टीका) के रूप में वर्गीकृत की गई है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3285📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyMedical Parasitology: Intestinal Protozoa
Which form of Entamoeba histolytica is infectious to humans?
Explanation
The mature, quadrinucleate cyst of Entamoeba histolytica is the infective form that transmits amoebiasis to humans through fecal-oral ingestion of contaminated water or raw food. Its thick chitinous cyst wall allows it to survive in the external environment and resist the acidic gastric barrier, whereas fragile motile trophozoites are rapidly degraded by gastric acid.
एंटअमीबा हिस्टोलिटिका (Entamoeba histolytica) का 'सिस्ट' (Cyst - परिपक्व चतुष्केंद्रीय पुटी) मनुष्यों के लिए संक्रामक रूप है, जो दूषित भोजन या पानी के माध्यम से फैलता है और पेट के एसिड से अप्रभावित रहता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3286📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyHemoflagellates: African Trypanosomiasis
'Winterbottom's sign' is typically associated with which parasitic infection?
Explanation
Winterbottom's sign refers to marked enlargement and non-tender swelling of the posterior cervical lymph nodes along the posterior triangle of the neck. It is a classic clinical indicator of the early hemolymphatic phase of West African human sleeping sickness (African trypanosomiasis) caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense transmitted by the tsetse fly (Glossina).
'विंटरबॉटम्स साइन' (Winterbottom's sign) गर्दन के पिछले हिस्से के लिम्फ नोड्स की सूजन को दर्शाता है और यह 'ट्रिपैनोसोमा ब्रूसी गैम्बिएंस' (Trypanosoma brucei gambiense) के कारण होने वाले स्लीपिंग सिकनेस से संबंधित है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3287📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyVisceral Leishmaniasis: Clinical Diagnostics
What sample is typically used for diagnosing kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis)?
Explanation
Bone marrow aspirate or biopsy (along with splenic puncture) is the standard and safest routine clinical specimen collected to diagnose visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar caused by Leishmania donovani). Microscopic examination of Giemsa-stained smears reveals intracellular amastigotes (Leishman-Donovan bodies) inside mononuclear phagocytic cells.
काला-अज़ार (विसेरल लीशमैनियासिस) के निदान के लिए 'बोन मैरो बायोप्सी' (Bone marrow biopsy / एस्पिरेट) सबसे उपयुक्त नमूना है, जिसमें मैक्रोफेज के भीतर एलडी बॉडीज (LD bodies) की पहचान की जाती है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3288📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyGiardiasis: Anatomical Tropism & Pathology
In a Giardia lamblia infection, which part of the gastrointestinal tract is most affected?
Explanation
Giardia lamblia (Giardia duodenalis) trophozoites preferentially colonize the duodenum and upper jejunum of the human small intestine. They adhere firmly to the microvillus brush border of intestinal enterocytes using their specialized ventral sucking disc, causing mechanical irritation, brush border enzyme suppression, and malabsorption.
गियार्डिया लैम्बलिया (Giardia lamblia) संक्रमण में जठरांत्र संबंधी मार्ग (GI tract) का 'ग्रहणी' (Duodenum) और ऊपरी जेजुनम सबसे अधिक प्रभावित होता है, जहाँ इसके ट्रोफोज़ोइट्स म्यूकोसा से चिपक जाते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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3289📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyClinical Parasitology: Giardiasis & Malabsorption
Which condition is marked by the presence of fatty stools (steatorrhea)?
Explanation
Giardia lamblia infection classically manifests with steatorrhea (pale, greasy, foul-smelling, non-bloody stools that float). Attachment of vast numbers of trophozoites causes extensive mechanical coverage of the duodenal mucosa, blunting of microvilli, and impaired micellar fat breakdown, resulting in fat malabsorption.
गियार्डिया लैम्बलिया संक्रमण (Giardia lamblia infection) की मुख्य पहचान 'स्टेटोरिया' (Steatorrhea - वसायुक्त मल) है, जो ग्रहणी में वसा अवशोषण में बाधा उत्पन्न होने के कारण होता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3290📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyFilariasis Diagnosis: Microscopy Techniques
What is the most suitable technique to detect microfilariae in peripheral blood?
Explanation
A thick blood smear (dehemoglobinized and stained with Giemsa or Leishman stain) collected during nocturnal hours (10:00 PM to 2:00 AM) is the gold standard diagnostic method to detect circulating microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti or Brugia malayi, as it concentrates a larger volume of blood on a small slide area to identify low parasitemia.
परिधीय रक्त में माइक्रोफाइलेरिया का पता लगाने के लिए 'थिक ब्लड स्मीयर' (Thick blood smear - मोटा रक्त स्मीयर) सबसे उपयुक्त तकनीक है, जो रक्त की बड़ी मात्रा को केंद्रित करके सूक्ष्मदर्शीय पहचान को आसान बनाता है। सही विकल्प D है।
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3291📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyLymphatic Filariasis & Clinical Manifestations
Which parasite is known to cause chyluria as a result of lymphatic obstruction?
Explanation
Wuchereria bancrofti is the lymphatic filarial parasite that resides in human lymph nodes and major vessels. Chronic infection causes inflammatory damage, fibrosis, and severe obstruction of retroperitoneal lymph vessels, raising lymphatic pressure until dilated lymphatics rupture into the renal pelvic tract, producing chyluria (milky urine containing lymph and emulsified fat).
वुचेरेरिया बैनक्रॉफ्टी (Wuchereria bancrofti) लसीका रुकावट (lymphatic obstruction) के परिणामस्वरूप 'काइलुरिया' (Chyluria - मूत्र में लसीका और वसा का आना) पैदा करने के लिए जाना जाता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3292📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyViral Genome Classification (Baltimore System)
Which of the following viruses has a double-stranded RNA genome?
Explanation
Reoviruses (members of the family Reoviridae, notably Rotavirus) possess a segmented, double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) genome enclosed in a non-enveloped double- or triple-layered icosahedral capsid. Poliovirus is positive-sense ssRNA, Herpesviruses have dsDNA, and Influenza virus has a segmented negative-sense ssRNA genome.
रियोवायरस (Reovirus - जैसे रोटावायरस) का जीनोम 'डबल-स्ट्रैंडेड आरएनए' (dsRNA) से बना होता है। पोलियोवायरस सिंगल-स्ट्रैंडेड (+) आरएनए और इन्फ्लूएंजा (-) आरएनए वायरस हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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3293📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyViral Cytopathology: CMV Inclusions
A classic 'owl's eye' intranuclear inclusion is seen in infections caused by:
Explanation
Cytomegalovirus (CMV, Human betaherpesvirus 5) causes infected cells to swell markedly (cytomegaly) and form large, dense, basophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies surrounded by a clear halo, famously termed 'owl's eye' inclusions on histopathologic biopsy and cytology.
साइटोमेगालोवायरस (CMV / Cytomegalovirus) के संक्रमण में ऊतक कोशिकाओं के केंद्रक में विशिष्ट 'उल्लू की आँख' जैसी संरचना ('Owl's eye' intranuclear inclusions) दिखाई देती है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3294📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologySubviral Pathogens: Viroids vs Viruses
What structural component do viroids lack, differentiating them from typical viruses?
Explanation
Viroids are subviral plant pathogens consisting exclusively of a short, circular, tightly base-paired single-stranded RNA molecule without any protective protein coat (capsid) or lipid envelope. True viruses, by definition, possess a protein capsid surrounding their genetic material.
वायरोइड्स (Viroids) में सामान्य वायरस की तरह 'प्रोटीन कोट' (Protein coat / Capsid) का अभाव होता है; वे केवल संक्रामक नग्न आरएनए (Naked RNA) के बने होते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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3295📚Mycology & Fungal PathogenesisCryptococcal Diagnostics: Negative Staining
India ink preparation is useful for identifying which fungal infection?
Explanation
India ink negative staining is a rapid microscopic diagnostic test for Cryptococcus neoformans in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or other body fluids. The colossal acidic mucopolysaccharide (glucuronoxylomannan) capsule excludes the black colloidal carbon particles, standing out as a conspicuous luminous halo surrounding the budding yeast cell.
इंडिया इंक प्रिपरेशन (India ink preparation) का उपयोग 'क्रिप्टोकोकस नियोफॉर्मन्स' (Cryptococcus neoformans) के कैप्सूल की पहचान करने के लिए किया जाता है, जो काले बैकग्राउंड में एक स्पष्ट प्रभामंडल (halo) दिखाता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3296📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyArthropod Vectors of Human Disease
Select the correct pairing of a vector with the disease it transmits:
Explanation
Phlebotomus (sandfly) is the biological vector of Leishmania donovani, the causative protozoan of visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar). In contrast, Glossina (tsetse fly) transmits African sleeping sickness, Anopheles transmits malaria, and Culex transmits lymphatic filariasis and Japanese encephalitis.
सही युग्म 'फ्लेबोटोमस - काला अज़ार' (Phlebotomus - Kala azar) है, क्योंकि सैंडफ्लाई (Phlebotomus) काला-अज़ार के परजीवी लीशमैनिया को प्रसारित करती है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3297📚Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyArachnida: Ixodida Morphology & Taxonomy
Ticks are differentiated from insects primarily by having:
Explanation
Ticks belong to the class Arachnida (order Ixodida). Adult and nymphal ticks are characterized by having four pairs of walking legs (eight legs total), lack of wings and antennae, and a fused body plan (capitulum and unsegmented idiosoma), whereas adult insects (class Insecta) possess three pairs of legs (six legs total) and distinct body tagmata.
पिस्सू/किलनी (Ticks) अरैक्निडा वर्ग से संबंधित हैं और कीटों (Insects - 6 पैर) से इस बात में भिन्न हैं कि उनके पास 'आठ पैर' (Eight legs / 4 जोड़े पैर) होते हैं और उनके एंटीना नहीं होते। सही विकल्प C है।
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3298📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryCitric Acid Cycle Energetics & ATP Yield
How many ATP molecules are produced from the complete oxidation of one molecule of acetyl-CoA via the citric acid cycle?
Explanation
In classical biochemistry stoichiometry, the complete oxidation of one acetyl-CoA via the citric acid cycle yields 3 NADH (3×3=9 ATP3 \times 3 = 9\text{ ATP}), 1 FADH2 (1×2=2 ATP1 \times 2 = 2\text{ ATP}), and 1 GTP/ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation (1 ATP1\text{ ATP}), totaling 9+2+1=12 ATP9 + 2 + 1 = 12\text{ ATP} molecules.
पारंपरिक जैव रसायन गणना के अनुसार, साइट्रिक एसिड चक्र और ऑक्सीडेटिव फॉस्फारिलेशन के माध्यम से एसिटाइल-CoA के एक अणु के पूर्ण ऑक्सीकरण से कुल 12 ATP अणु प्राप्त होते हैं (3 NADH = 9, 1 FADH2 = 2, 1 GTP = 1)। सही विकल्प D है।
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3299📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryFatty Acid Oxidation: Net ATP Yield of Palmitate
Taking into account the energy investment during activation, how many ATP molecules are generated from the complete beta-oxidation of palmitic acid (C 16:0)?
Explanation
Complete oxidation of palmitic acid (16:0) produces 8 acetyl-CoA, 7 FADH2, and 7 NADH through 7 cycles of beta-oxidation. With 10 ATP per acetyl-CoA (80 ATP), 1.5 per FADH2 (10.5 ATP), and 2.5 per NADH (17.5 ATP), gross yield is 108 ATP. Subtracting the 2 high-energy phosphate bonds consumed during fatty acyl-CoA activation (108−2108 - 2), the net energy yield is exactly 106 ATP molecules.
पामिटिक एसिड (C 16:0) के पूर्ण बीटा-ऑक्सीकरण से 108 ATP बनते हैं। सक्रियण (Activation) में 2 उच्च-ऊर्जा फॉस्फेट बॉन्ड के निवेश को घटाने पर शुद्ध 106 ATP अणु प्राप्त होते हैं (108−2=106108 - 2 = 106)। सही विकल्प A है।
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3300📚Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryVitamins: B12 Deficiency & Neuropathy
A deficiency of which vitamin commonly manifests as megaloblastic anemia accompanied by neurological impairments?
Explanation
Cobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency uniquely causes megaloblastic anemia accompanied by progressive neurological impairments (subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord with ataxia, paresthesias, and loss of vibration sense) due to impaired methylmalonyl-CoA mutase activity and myelin sheath disintegration. Folate deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia without neurological degeneration.
कोबालिन या विटामिन B12 (Cobalamin - Vitamin B12) की कमी से मेगालोब्लास्टिक एनीमिया के साथ-साथ तंत्रिका संबंधी विकार (सबएक्यूट कंबाइंड डीजेनेरेशन) भी होते हैं, जो माइलिन शीथ के क्षरण के कारण होते हैं। सही विकल्प C है।
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3301📚Molecular Biology, Immunology & DiagnosticsImmunology: Type I Hypersensitivity & Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is primarily mediated by:
Explanation
Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening systemic Type I immediate hypersensitivity reaction. It is primarily mediated by allergen cross-linking of allergen-specific IgE antibodies bound to high-affinity Fc epsilon RI receptors on mast cells and basophils, triggering immediate degranulation and explosive release of vasoactive mediators like histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins.
एनाफिलेक्सिस (Anaphylaxis) एक गंभीर अतिसंवेदनशीलता प्रतिक्रिया है जो मुख्य रूप से 'IgE और मास्ट सेल डिग्रैन्यूलेशन' (IgE and mast cell degranulation) द्वारा मध्यस्थ होती है, जिससे हिस्टामाइन भारी मात्रा में निकलता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3302📚Molecular Biology, Immunology & DiagnosticsImmunodeficiency Syndromes: DiGeorge Syndrome
A patient presents with recurrent viral and fungal infections, low T cell count, and absent thymic shadow. The most likely diagnosis is:
Explanation
DiGeorge syndrome (22q11.2 deletion syndrome) results from failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches to develop. This causes congenital absence or hypoplasia of the thymus gland (absent thymic shadow on chest radiograph) and parathyroid glands, presenting clinically with profound T-cell deficiency, severe recurrent viral and fungal infections, and hypocalcemic tetany.
बार-बार होने वाले वायरल और फंगल संक्रमण, कम टी-कोशिका गिनती और अनुपस्थित थाइमस छाया (Absent thymic shadow) 'डि-जॉर्ज सिंड्रोम' (DiGeorge syndrome) का विशिष्ट लक्षण है, जो 22q11.2 विलोपन के कारण होता है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3303📚Bioinformatics, Genomics & Computational BiologyDatabases & Information Systems: ACID Properties
In the context of databases, what does ACID stand for?
Explanation
In database management systems, ACID is an acronym representing the four fundamental properties that guarantee reliable transaction processing: Atomicity (all or nothing), Consistency (preserves data validity rules), Isolation (concurrent executions do not interfere), and Durability (committed changes survive system failures).
डेटाबेस के संदर्भ में, ACID का पूर्ण रूप 'Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability' (परमाणुता, संगति, अलगाव, स्थायित्व) है, जो डेटाबेस लेनदेन की विश्वसनीयता सुनिश्चित करता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3304📚Bioinformatics, Genomics & Computational BiologyNetwork Protocols & Cybersecurity
Which protocol is used for secure communication over a computer network?
Explanation
HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is an extension of HTTP used for secure, encrypted communication over computer networks and the internet. It leverages Transport Layer Security (TLS/SSL) encryption to protect sensitive data from eavesdropping, man-in-the-middle attacks, and tampering.
कंप्यूटर नेटवर्क पर सुरक्षित संचार के लिए 'HTTPS' (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) प्रोटोकॉल का उपयोग किया जाता है, जो डेटा को एन्क्रिप्ट करने के लिए TLS/SSL का उपयोग करता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3305📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceHuman Microbiome Dynamics & Dietary Influences
Which of the following changes in the microbiome is most likely to be seen in people who eat a lot of animal products?
Explanation
High consumption of animal products (rich in animal fat and protein) stimulates high secretion of bile acids, driving an expansion of bile-tolerant microorganisms such as Bacteroides, Alistipes, and Bilophila wadsworthia. Concurrently, it depletes saccharolytic bacteria (such as Eubacterium rectale and Roseburia) that depend on dietary plant fibers and complex polysaccharides.
पशु उत्पादों (मांस और वसा) का अधिक सेवन करने वाले लोगों में 'पित्त-सहिष्णु टैक्सा जैसे बैक्टेरॉइड्स और एलिस्टिप्स में वृद्धि, और यूबैक्टीरियम रेक्टेल जैसे पादप पॉलीसेकेराइड-किण्वन बैक्टीरिया में कमी' देखी जाती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3306📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceUrinalysis: Physical Properties & Chromogens
Which of the following substances is correctly matched with the color it imparts to urine?
Explanation
Pyridium (phenazopyridine hydrochloride), a widely prescribed azo-dye urinary tract mucosal analgesic, characteristically imparts an intense bright amber-orange to red-orange discoloration to urine, which can permanently stain fabric and clothing.
मूत्र के रंग और पदार्थ का सही मिलान 'एम्बर नारंगी - पिरिडियम (Amber orange - Pyridium / Phenazopyridine)' है। पिरिडियम एक दर्द निवारक डाई है जो मूत्र को चमकीला नारंगी रंग देती है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3307📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssurancePulmonary Pathology: Lobar Pneumonia Stages
Which of the following stages of lobar pneumonia is correctly matched with its main pathological feature?
Explanation
In the classic progression of lobar pneumonia, 'Red hepatization' (days 2–4) is pathologically characterized by intra-alveolar exudate packed with numerous red blood cells, neutrophils, and fibrin networks, causing the affected pulmonary lobe to become firm, airless, and dark reddish-brown with liver-like consistency.
लोबार निमोनिया के चरणों का सही मिलान 'रेड हेपेटाइजेशन - न्यूट्रोफिल, लाल रक्त कोशिकाओं और फाइब्रिन का संचय जिससे यकृत जैसी कठोरता उत्पन्न होती है' (Red hepatization - Accumulation of neutrophils, red cells, and fibrin) है। सही विकल्प B है।
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3308📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceInfectious Pathology: Tuberculosis Histopathology
Which of the following best describes the characteristic pathological feature of tuberculosis?
Explanation
The pathognomonic histopathological hallmark of Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is the caseating granuloma. It consists of a central acellular zone of soft, cheesy, eosinophilic caseous necrosis surrounded by an organized collar of epithelioid macrophages, lymphocytes, fibroblasts, and multinucleated horseshoe-shaped Langhans giant cells.
तपेदिक (Tuberculosis) की विशिष्ट पैथोलॉजिकल पहचान 'लैंगहैंस विशाल कोशिकाओं के साथ केसीनकारी ग्रैनुलोमा' (Caseating granulomas with Langhans giant cells) है, जिसके केंद्र में पनीर जैसा नेक्रोसिस होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3309📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssurancePulmonary Pathology: Emphysema
Which of the following best describes the pathological changes seen in emphysema?
Explanation
Pulmonary emphysema is anatomically and pathologically defined as abnormal, permanent enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, accompanied by enzymatic destruction of the alveolar septal walls and pulmonary capillaries without significant fibrosis, resulting in loss of elastic recoil and expiratory airflow obstruction.
एम्फाइमा (Emphysema) में पैथोलॉजिकल परिवर्तनों का सबसे सटीक विवरण 'एल्वियोलर दीवारों और फुफ्फुसीय केशिकाओं के विनाश के साथ डिस्टल वायु स्थानों का स्थायी विस्तार' (Permanent enlargement of distal air spaces with destruction of alveolar walls) है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3310📚Clinical Pathology & Diagnostic Quality AssuranceQuality Assurance & Laboratory Method Validation
The procedure to verify that a laboratory method yields reliable results under specific conditions is termed:
Explanation
Method validation is the documented procedure of establishing through objective experimental evidence that a laboratory analytical test method consistently satisfies defined performance criteria and yields reliable, fit-for-purpose results under specified operating conditions.
किसी विशिष्ट परिस्थिति में प्रयोगशाला परीक्षण द्वारा विश्वसनीय परिणाम देने की पुष्टि करने की प्रक्रिया को 'वैलिडेशन' (सत्यापन / Validation) कहा जाता है। सही विकल्प C है।
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3311🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Vitamin which is sensitive to heat and can be lost during preservation processes:
Explanation
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is water-soluble and highly thermolabile and oxidation-sensitive, making it the most easily degraded vitamin during thermal preservation processes like blanching, pasteurization, and canning.
विटामिन सी (एस्कॉर्बिक एसिड) ऊष्मा और ऑक्सीजन के प्रति अत्यधिक संवेदनशील (thermolabile) होता है, जो कैनिंग और उबालने जैसी प्रक्रियाओं के दौरान सबसे तेजी से नष्ट हो जाता है।
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3312🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP) helps preserve food by:
Explanation
Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP) preserves freshness by replacing ambient air within the package with a tailored mixture of gases (typically elevated CO2CO_2, reduced O2O_2, and balance N2N_2) to suppress respiration and microbial proliferation.
मॉडिफाइड एटमॉस्फियर पैकेजिंग (MAP) पैकेज के अंदर की सामान्य हवा को नियंत्रित गैस मिश्रण (CO2,N2CO_2, N_2) से बदलकर सूक्ष्मजीवों की वृद्धि और श्वसन दर को धीमा करती है।
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3313🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
The primary step in the canning process is:
Explanation
In canning of fruits and vegetables, blanching (mild pre-heat treatment in hot water or steam) is the primary preparatory step before filling, designed to inactivate enzymes, expel trapped intercellular respiratory gases, and soften tissue.
कैनिंग प्रक्रिया में प्रारंभिक और अनिवार्य कदम ब्लांचिंग (Blanching - गर्म पानी या भाप में हल्का उबालना) है, जिससे एंजाइम निष्क्रिय होते हैं और गैसें बाहर निकलती हैं।
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3314🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Choose the purpose of blanching before canning vegetables?
Explanation
Blanching vegetables prior to canning expels air and dissolved gases from plant tissues (which aids vacuum formation and reduces container corrosion) and thermal denatures endogenous quality-degrading enzymes like catalase and peroxidase.
सब्जियों को कैनिंग से पहले ब्लांच करने का मुख्य उद्देश्य ऊतकों से हवा को निकालना तथा उत्प्रेरक और पेरोक्सीडेज जैसे एंजाइमों को निष्क्रिय करना (Removes air and inactivates enzymes) है।
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3315🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
In low-acid foods like vegetables which type of canning is recommended?
Explanation
Low-acid foods (pH > 4.6, including vegetables and meats) mandate pressure canning in retorts at 116°C to 121°C under pressure (10-15 psi) to destroy the highly heat-resistant spores of Clostridium botulinum.
कम अम्लीय खाद्य पदार्थों (pH > 4.6, जैसे सब्जियां और मांस) के लिए प्रेशर कैनिंग (Pressure canning) अनिवार्य है ताकि 121°C तापमान प्राप्त कर क्लोस्ट्रीडियम बोटुलिनम के बीजाणुओं को नष्ट किया जा सके।
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3316🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
What does "double seaming" in canning refer to?
Explanation
Double seaming is the standard mechanical canning operation where the curl of the can end (lid) and the flange of the can body are interlocked and rolled together in two distinct operations, creating a five-layer hermetic seal.
कैनिंग में 'डबल सीमिंग' (double seaming) डिब्बे के मुख्य भाग (body) और ढक्कन (lid) के बीच धातु की परतों को मोड़कर एक पूर्ण एयरटाइट (हर्मेटिक) सील बनाने की प्रक्रिया है।
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3317🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Flat sour spoilage in canned foods is primarily caused by:
Explanation
Flat sour spoilage is caused by thermophilic spore-forming bacteria such as Bacillus coagulans (in acid foods) and Geobacillus stearothermophilus (in low-acid foods). They ferment carbohydrates to produce lactic acid without gas production, turning the product sour while the can ends remain flat.
डिब्बाबंद खाद्य पदार्थों में 'फ्लैट खट्टा' (Flat sour) खराबी मुख्य रूप से बेसिलस कोएगुलेन्स (Bacillus coagulans) द्वारा होती है, जो बिना गैस बनाए एसिड उत्पन्न करता है जिससे डिब्बा फूला नहीं दिखता लेकिन भोजन खट्टा हो जाता है।
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3318🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for canned food according to FSSAI?
Explanation
Canned foods are not required to contain artificial sweeteners. Traditional canned products contain sugar syrups, brines, or natural juices. Artificial sweeteners are only permitted in special calorie-controlled dietary products with mandatory statutory warnings.
FSSAI के अनुसार डिब्बाबंद खाद्य पदार्थों में कृत्रिम मिठास (artificial sweeteners) होना कोई अनिवार्य आवश्यकता नहीं है।
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3319🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
What type of water should be used for canning according to FSSAI?
Explanation
FSSAI Schedule 4 (General Hygienic and Sanitary Practices) mandates that water used in food processing, washing, blanching, brining, syruping, and can cooling must be potable water conforming to Bureau of Indian Standards (IS 10500).
FSSAI के अनुसार कैनिंग प्रक्रिया में उपयोग किया जाने वाला पानी स्वच्छ, पीने योग्य और सुरक्षित (Potable and safe drinking water - IS 10500 मानक) होना चाहिए।
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3320🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
What is the minimum shelf life labelling requirement for canned food under FSSAI regulations?
Explanation
Under the FSSAI (Labelling and Display) Regulations 2020, every pre-packaged and canned food product must mandatorily declare either the 'Date of Expiry' or 'Best Before / Use by' date along with storage conditions.
FSSAI लेबलिंग नियमों के अनुसार डिब्बाबंद भोजन पर 'बेस्ट बिफोर' या 'उपयोग की अंतिम तिथि' (Best before or use-by date) का स्पष्ट उल्लेख होना अनिवार्य है।
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3321🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Under which Act is food business registration and licensing mandatory in India?
Explanation
Under Section 31 of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSS Act 2006), no person shall commence or carry on any food business without obtaining an FSSAI registration or license.
भारत में खाद्य व्यवसाय का पंजीकरण और लाइसेंसिंग खाद्य सुरक्षा और मानक अधिनियम, 2006 (Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006) के तहत अनिवार्य है।
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3322🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
The food businesses which requires only FSSAI registration and not a license:
Explanation
Petty food manufacturers and street vendors with an annual turnover up to Rs. 12 lakhs require only basic FSSAI Registration (Form A), whereas businesses exceeding Rs. 12 lakhs or exporters require State or Central licenses.
वार्षिक 12 लाख रुपये तक के टर्नओवर वाले छोटे विक्रेता और स्ट्रीट फूड वेंडर (जैसे 6 लाख/वर्ष कमाने वाले) केवल FSSAI पंजीकरण के दायरे में आते हैं, उन्हें लाइसेंस की आवश्यकता नहीं होती।
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3323🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Which of the following requires a Central FSSAI License?
Explanation
100% Export Oriented Units (EOUs), food business operators importing or exporting food, and large businesses operating across multiple states mandatorily require an FSSAI Central License.
पैकेज्ड फूड का निर्यात करने वाली कंपनी (100% EOU/इंपोर्ट-एक्सपोर्ट) को केंद्रीय FSSAI लाइसेंस (Central FSSAI License) लेना अनिवार्य होता है।
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3324🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Which online portal is used for FSSAI license registration and management?
Explanation
FoSCoS (Food Safety Compliance System) available at www.foscos.fssai.gov.in is the official nationwide cloud-based online portal launched by FSSAI for food licensing, registration, and compliance tracking.
FSSAI लाइसेंस पंजीकरण और प्रबंधन के लिए आधिकारिक ऑनलाइन पोर्टल FoSCoS (www.foscos.fssai.gov.in) है।
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3325🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
The document which is NOT required for FSSAI registration?
Explanation
For basic FSSAI registration of petty food business operators, government photo identity (Aadhar card), address/premises proof, and basic details are sufficient; proof of formal food safety training is not a mandatory prerequisite for basic registration.
बुनियादी FSSAI पंजीकरण के लिए औपचारिक खाद्य सुरक्षा प्रशिक्षण का प्रमाण (Proof of food safety training) अनिवार्य दस्तावेज नहीं है।
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3326🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Which of the following mycotoxins is known to be a potent liver carcinogen?
Explanation
Aflatoxin B1 is classified by the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) as a Group 1 human carcinogen, widely recognized as one of the most potent naturally occurring hepatocarcinogens.
एफ्लाटॉक्सिन बी1 (Aflatoxin B1) सबसे शक्तिशाली प्राकृतिक यकृत कार्सिनोजेन (liver carcinogen) के रूप में जाना जाता है जो लिवर कैंसर का कारण बनता है।
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3327🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding food intoxication?
Explanation
Food intoxication occurs when illnesses result from eating food containing pre-formed toxins generated by microorganisms prior to ingestion. Because viable bacterial proliferation in the human digestive tract is not required, onset of symptoms is typically rapid (1 to 6 hours).
खाद्य विषाक्तता (Food intoxication) के संबंध में सत्य कथन यह है कि विषाक्त पदार्थ (Toxins) भोजन के सेवन से पहले ही भोजन में बन चुके होते हैं।
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3328🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Concerning chemical preservatives, which statements are true?
I. Salt and sugar act by reducing water activity.
II. Benzoic acid is commonly used in acidic foods.
III. All preservatives are harmful to human health.
IV. Chemical preservatives can extend shelf life.
Explanation
Statements I, II, and IV are correct. High concentrations of salt and sugar exert high osmotic pressure to reduce water activity (I), benzoic acid/sodium benzoate is effective at low pH < 4.5 (II), and preservatives effectively prolong shelf-life (IV). Statement III is false because permitted Class I and Class II preservatives used within regulatory thresholds are safe.
कथन I, II और IV सही हैं। नमक और चीनी जल सक्रियता कम करते हैं (I), बेंजोइक एसिड अम्लीय खाद्य पदार्थों में उपयोग होता है (II), और संरक्षक शेल्फ लाइफ बढ़ाते हैं (IV)। सभी संरक्षक हानिकारक नहीं होते।
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3329🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Match the following:
Column - A:
i. Blanching
ii. Headspace
iii. Clostridium botulinum
iv. Exhausting
v. Retort
Column - B:
1. Equipment used for commercial heat processing of canned food
2. Heat-resistant pathogen of concern in low-acid canned foods
3. Space left between the food and the lid of the jar
4. Removal of air before sealing the can
5. Prevents enzymatic spoilage and softens product

Options:
Explanation
The correct matches are:
- Blanching (i) -> Prevents enzymatic spoilage and softens product (5)
- Headspace (ii) -> Space left between the food and the lid of the jar (3)
- Clostridium botulinum (iii) -> Heat-resistant pathogen of concern in low-acid canned foods (2)
- Exhausting (iv) -> Removal of air before sealing the can (4)
- Retort (v) -> Equipment used for commercial heat processing of canned food (1)
Thus, Option A (i-5, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4, v-1) is the correct matching.
सही मिलान:
- ब्लांचिंग (i) -> एंजाइमों को निष्क्रिय करता है और उत्पाद को नरम बनाता है (5)
- हेडस्पेस (ii) -> भोजन और जार के ढक्कन के बीच छोड़ी गई जगह (3)
- क्लोस्ट्रीडियम बोटुलिनम (iii) -> कम-अम्ल डिब्बाबंद खाद्य पदार्थों में रोगजनक (2)
- एग्जॉस्टिंग (iv) -> कैन सील करने से पहले हवा निकालना (4)
- रिटॉर्ट (v) -> वाणिज्यिक ताप प्रसंस्करण उपकरण (1)
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3330🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Match the canning equipment and their functions:
Column - A (Canning Equipment):
i. Retort
ii. Exhaust Box
iii. Double Seamer
iv. Can Washer
v. Flanger
Column - B (Function / Use):
1. Seals the lid onto the can hermetically
2. Forms a flange at the can end before sealing
3. Sterilizes sealed cans under pressure
4. Clean cans before and after filling
5. Removes air from cans before sealing

Options:
Explanation
The canning equipment and their operations are:
- Retort (i) -> Sterilizes sealed cans under pressure (3)
- Exhaust Box (ii) -> Removes air from cans before sealing (5)
- Double Seamer (iii) -> Seals the lid onto the can hermetically (1)
- Can Washer (iv) -> Clean cans before and after filling (4)
- Flanger (v) -> Forms a flange at the can end before sealing (2)
Thus, Option C (i-3, ii-5, iii-1, iv-4, v-2) is correct.
कैनिंग उपकरण और उनके कार्य:
- रिटॉर्ट (i) -> दबाव में डिब्बों को जीवाणुरहित करना (3)
- एग्जॉस्ट बॉक्स (ii) -> सीलिंग से पहले हवा निकालना (5)
- डबल सीमर (iii) -> ढक्कन को हर्मेटिकली सील करना (1)
- कैन वॉशर (iv) -> भरने से पहले और बाद में डिब्बे धोना (4)
- फ्लेंजर (v) -> सीलिंग से पहले किनारे पर फ्लैंज बनाना (2)
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3331🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Give the correct steps in manufacturing of processing cans:
I. Suitable metal sheets meeting food safety standards and corrosion resistance.
II. Cleaning with steam
III. Flanging, End Making
IV. Shearing body forming and welding
V. Lacquering
VI. Assembly, Testing and labelling
Explanation
The standard sequence in 3-piece processing can fabrication is:
1. (I) Selection of tinplate/ECCS metal coils/sheets meeting food grade standards.
2. (V) Internal and external lacquering and roller coating, followed by oven curing.
3. (IV) Shearing into body blanks, roll-forming cylinders, and electric resistance side-seam welding.
4. (III) Flanging of can cylinder ends and end manufacturing.
5. (II) Steam cleaning, washing, and sanitizing the fabricated can bodies.
6. (VI) Double seaming of one end (maker's end), pressure testing for pinholes, and labelling/shipping.
Thus, I -> V -> IV -> III -> II -> VI (Option B) is the authentic engineering sequence.
कैन निर्माण के सही इंजीनियरिंग चरण:
1. खाद्य-ग्रेड धातु शीट का चयन (I)
2. लैकरिंग/इनेमल कोटिंग और क्योरिंग (V)
3. बॉडी ब्लैंक काटना, बेलनाकार बनाना और वेल्डिंग (IV)
4. फ्लैंजिंग और एंड-मेकिंग (III)
5. भाप से सफाई (II)
6. परीक्षण, असेंबली और लेबलिंग (VI)।
अतः सही क्रम I-V-IV-III-II-VI है।
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3332🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Process of Manufacturing Two-Piece Aluminum Cans:
I. Food-grade aluminium alloy are used
II. Trimming Cleaning and Internal lacquer coating and external decoration
III. Cup Blanking, drawing, redrawing and Ironing
IV. Lid Manufacturing and Quality Control.
V. Necking and Flanging
Explanation
In two-piece Drawn and Ironed (D&I) beverage and food can manufacturing, the process proceeds as follows:
1. (I) Aluminum alloy coils (e.g. AA 3104/3004) uncoiled and lubricated.
2. (III) Cupping press cuts circular blanks and draws shallow cups, followed by redrawing and wall ironing (thinning walls while maintaining base thickness).
3. (II) Trimming rough edges, multi-stage acid washing/cleaning, drying, external lithographic printing/decorating, and internal protective spray lacquering.
4. (V) Necking (reducing top diameter to save end metal) and spin flanging to prepare the rim for double seaming.
5. (IV) Separate easy-open lid manufacturing, light testing, and final quality control.
Therefore, the proper sequence is I -> III -> II -> V -> IV (Option D).
टू-पीस एल्युमीनियम कैन निर्माण की प्रक्रिया:
1. फूड-ग्रेड एल्युमीनियम शीट का चयन (I)
2. कप ब्लैंकिंग, ड्राइंग और वॉल आयरनिंग (D&I) (III)
3. ट्रिमिंग, धुलाई, बाहरी प्रिंटिंग और आंतरिक लैकर कोटिंग (II)
4. नेकिंग और फ्लैंजिंग (V)
5. ढक्कन निर्माण और गुणवत्ता नियंत्रण (IV)।
अतः सही क्रम I, III, II, V, IV है।
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3333🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
What is the primary purpose of watershed management?
Explanation
Watershed management is the integrated conservation, management, and judicious utilization of land, water, and biomass resources within a natural drainage basin to conserve soil moisture, check runoff, and recharge groundwater.
जलसंभर प्रबंधन (Watershed management) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य जल और मिट्टी का संरक्षण (Water and soil conservation) तथा भूमि क्षरण को रोकना है।
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3334🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Which is a micro-irrigation technique?
Explanation
Drip (trickle) irrigation is a precision micro-irrigation method that applies water directly to the plant root zone drop-by-drop through emitters at low pressure and low volume, maximizing water use efficiency (>90%).
ड्रिप सिंचाई (टपक सिंचाई) एक सूक्ष्म सिंचाई (Micro-irrigation) तकनीक है जो पानी को सीधे पौधों के मूल क्षेत्र में बूंद-बूंद करके पहुंचाती है।
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3335🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Which method is used in plane table surveying to fix a point by two known points?
Explanation
In plane table surveying, the intersection method is used to locate an inaccessible point by sighting it from two known, occupied instrument stations and drawing rays whose intersection plots the point on the drawing sheet.
प्लेन टेबल सर्वेक्षण में दो ज्ञात बिंदुओं से किरणें खींचकर उनके प्रतिच्छेदन द्वारा किसी बिंदु को निर्धारित करने की विधि को प्रतिच्छेदन (Intersection) कहा जाता है।
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3336🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
The true shape of a section is seen when the cutting plane is:
Explanation
The true shape of an object's cross-section is obtained only on a projection plane that is positioned parallel to the cutting section plane, or when the cutting plane is parallel to the viewing plane.
किसी काट (section) का वास्तविक आकार तभी दिखाई देता है जब कर्तन तल (cutting plane) देखने वाले तल (viewing plane / plane of projection) के समानांतर हो।
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3337🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
In permanent gully control, which structure is used at the head?
Explanation
A drop structure (drop spillway) is constructed at the gully head to safely drop runoff from the upstream drainage area into the gully bed without causing headward erosion or waterfall undercutting.
स्थायी गली (नाली) नियंत्रण में, गली के शीर्ष (head) पर पानी के सुरक्षित पतन और कटाव को रोकने के लिए ड्रॉप स्ट्रक्चर (Drop structure / drop spillway) का निर्माण किया जाता है।
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3338🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Drafting software often used in conservation planning is:
Explanation
AutoCAD (along with AutoCAD Civil 3D) is the premier computer-aided drafting and design software utilized by agricultural and civil engineers to create topographical layouts, contour maps, and conservation structure drawings.
मृदा और जल संरक्षण योजना में इंजीनियरिंग लेआउट, कंटूर मैप और संरचनाओं के सटीक तकनीकी प्रारूपण के लिए ऑटोकैड (AutoCAD) का व्यापक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है।
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3339🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
The alidade is used in:
Explanation
An alidade (plain or telescopic) is an essential sighting rule with a fiducial edge used in plane table surveying to sight distant objects, measure vertical angles, and draw line of sight rays directly on the drawing board.
एलिडेड (Alidade) प्लेन टेबल सर्वेक्षण (Plane table surveying) का एक प्रमुख उपकरण है जिसका उपयोग दूर के लक्ष्यों को देखने और टेबल पर दिशा रेखाएं खींचने के लिए किया जाता है।
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3340🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
A TIN surface in Civil 3D stands for:
Explanation
TIN stands for Triangulated Irregular Network. In Civil 3D and GIS, a TIN surface models continuous digital terrain elevation through a network of non-overlapping contiguous triangles formed by connecting spot heights and contour points.
Civil 3D में TIN का पूर्ण रूप 'Triangulated Irregular Network' होता है, जो त्रिकोणीय जाल के माध्यम से डिजिटल इलाके की सतह (terrain) का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है।
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3341🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Which is not part of RCC elements?
Explanation
Lintels, columns, and beams are permanent load-bearing Reinforced Cement Concrete (RCC) structural elements. Scaffolding is a temporary falsework platform erected to support workers and materials during construction.
लिंटेल, कॉलम और बीम स्थायी आरसीसी संरचनात्मक तत्व हैं, जबकि मचान (Scaffolding) निर्माण के दौरान उपयोग किया जाने वाला एक अस्थायी ढांचा है।
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3342🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
"Consumptive use" of water includes:
Explanation
Consumptive use (evapotranspiration, ETET) of a crop is the total quantity of water transpired by the plant leaves plus evaporation from the adjacent soil surface and plant foliage during plant growth.
पानी के उपभोगीय उपयोग (Consumptive use / Evapotranspiration) में वाष्पीकरण और वाष्पोत्सर्जन (Evaporation + transpiration) दोनों शामिल होते हैं।
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3343🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
The function of a grit chamber in STP is to:
Explanation
In sewage treatment plants (STPs), grit chambers operate under controlled flow velocity (around 0.3 m/s) to settle out dense, discrete inorganic solids (sand, gravel, cinders) while keeping lighter organic solids in suspension.
सीवेज ट्रीटमेंट प्लांट (STP) में ग्रिट चैंबर का कार्य भारी अकार्बनिक कणों (जैसे रेत, बजरी) को तल पर बैठाना (Settle heavy inorganic solids) होता है।
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3344🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
A watershed is an area:
Explanation
A watershed (drainage basin or catchment area) is a topographically delineated geographic area of land that catches precipitation and drains all runoff, streams, and rivers to a single common outlet or point of concentration.
जलसंभर (Watershed) भूमि का वह भौगोलिक क्षेत्र होता है जहां का सारा सतही जल एक सामान्य निकास बिंदु (common outlet) की ओर बहता है।
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3345🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Sheet erosion removes soil:
Explanation
Sheet erosion is the uniform detachment and removal of a thin layer of topsoil across a broad, gentle slope caused by sheet overland flow of rainwater, often going unnoticed until substantial fertile soil is lost.
परतदार अपरदन (Sheet erosion) वर्षा जल के बहाव द्वारा भूमि की ऊपरी उपजाऊ मिट्टी की एक समान पतली परत (Uniformly across the surface) को बहा ले जाता है।
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3346🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
A building setback is:
Explanation
In municipal building bylaws, a setback is the mandatory minimum open distance required between a building's outer walls and the plot boundary lines (front, rear, and sides) to ensure adequate ventilation, natural light, and fire safety.
भवन निर्माण उपनियमों में सेटबैक (Building setback) इमारत की दीवार और भूखंड की सीमा के बीच छोड़ी जाने वाली न्यूनतम अनिवार्य खुली दूरी होती है।
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3347🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
What is dead storage in a reservoir?
Explanation
Dead storage is the permanent pool volume of water retained in a reservoir below the lowest outlet sill level (invert level of the lowest sluice), which cannot be withdrawn by gravity and is earmarked for sediment accumulation.
जलाशय में 'डेड स्टोरेज' (Dead storage) सबसे निचले आउटलेट स्तर के नीचे का पानी (Water below the outlet level) होता है जिसे गुरुत्वाकर्षण द्वारा बाहर नहीं निकाला जा सकता।
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3348🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Which of the following is not a type of coordinate system in GIS?
Explanation
Standard coordinate reference systems (CRS) in GIS include Geographic Coordinate Systems (GCS - latitude/longitude), Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM), and projected planar Cartesian systems. 'Orthogonal' describes a geometric relationship rather than a standardized GIS coordinate system.
जीआईएस (GIS) में मान्य समन्वय प्रणालियों में UTM, भौगोलिक (Geographic) और कार्टेशियन (Cartesian) शामिल हैं, जबकि 'ऑर्थोगोनल' कोई स्वतंत्र GIS समन्वय प्रणाली नहीं है।
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3349🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Effective slope of a terrace is determined by:
Explanation
In soil conservation engineering, the design dimensions and effective gradient of a terrace or bench terrace system are calculated from the land slope percentage, horizontal spacing (length), and vertical interval (VI) between successive benches.
वेदिका (Terrace) की प्रभावी ढलान का निर्धारण ढलान की लंबाई और ऊर्ध्वाधर अंतराल (Length of slope and vertical interval) द्वारा किया जाता है।
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3350🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
What does the duty of water mean?
Explanation
Duty represents the irrigating capacity of a unit volume of water. It is defined as the total area of land (in hectares) that can be fully matured by a continuous discharge of one cubic meter per second (1 cumec) of water throughout the crop base period (hectares/cumec).
पानी की ड्यूटी (Duty of water) से तात्पर्य उस कुल सिंचित क्षेत्र (Area irrigated per unit discharge - हेक्टेयर/क्यूमेक) से है जिसे 1 क्यूमेक पानी के निरंतर प्रवाह से पूरे फसल काल में सींचा जा सकता है।
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3351🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
The most accurate method of plane table surveying is:
Explanation
Intersection is the most precise method of plane table surveying because it requires no linear ground taping/chaining to the target points (avoiding chaining errors over rough terrain); points are fixed purely by intersecting optical lines of sight sighted from two accurately plotted control base stations.
प्लेन टेबल सर्वेक्षण में सबसे सटीक विधि प्रतिच्छेदन (Intersection) है क्योंकि इसमें दुर्गम बिंदुओं तक ज़मीनी दूरी नापने की त्रुटियां नहीं होतीं।
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3352🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
In 3D modelling, the Revolve command is used to:
Explanation
In 3D CAD modeling, the REVOLVE command generates a 3D solid or surface by sweeping a closed 2D planar profile revolved about a specified revolution axis through a designated angle.
3D CAD मॉडलिंग में रिवॉल्व (Revolve) कमांड का उपयोग किसी 2D प्रोफ़ाइल को एक अक्ष के चारों ओर घुमाकर (Sweep a shape around an axis) 3D ठोस बनाने के लिए किया जाता है।
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3353🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
The most common type of joint used in stoneware pipes is:
Explanation
Glazed stoneware (vitrified clay) sewer pipes are manufactured with integral bell and spigot ends and jointed using spigot and socket joints sealed with tarred hemp yarn and 1:1 cement-sand mortar caulking.
स्टोनवेयर सीवर पाइपों में सबसे आम प्रकार का जोड़ स्पिगॉट और सॉकेट जोड़ (Spigot and socket joint) होता है जिसे सीमेंट मोर्टार द्वारा सील किया जाता है।
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3354🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
In orthographic projection, the top view is projected onto the:
Explanation
In engineering orthographic drawing, the top view (plan) of an object is viewed from directly above and projected perpendicularly onto the Horizontal Plane (HP).
ऑर्थोग्राफिक प्रोजेक्शन में किसी वस्तु का टॉप व्यू (शीर्ष दृश्य या प्लान) क्षैतिज तल (Horizontal plane) पर प्रक्षेपित किया जाता है।
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3355🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Gully depth measurements are used to calculate:
Explanation
In watershed survey and conservation planning, cross-sectional measurements of gully depth, width, and length quantify the total volume of eroded void space, allowing soil conservationists to calculate total sediment loss and soil erosion rates.
गली (नाली) की गहराई और चौड़ाई के माप का उपयोग कटाव के कारण बही मिट्टी की मात्रा और तलछट नुकसान (Sediment loss) की गणना के लिए किया जाता है।
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3356🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
The command LTSCALE affects:
Explanation
In AutoCAD, the LTSCALE (Line Type Scale) system variable controls the global scaling factor of non-continuous linetypes (such as dashed, hidden, and centerline patterns) throughout the entire drawing.
ऑटोकैड में LTSCALE कमांड का उपयोग डैश और डॉट जैसी गैर-सतत रेखाओं के प्रकार के पैमाने (Line type scale) को वैश्विक रूप से नियंत्रित करने के लिए किया जाता है।
2025JKSSB
3357🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
The command to export AutoCAD drawing to GIS-compatible format is:
Explanation
In AutoCAD Map 3D and Civil 3D, the command MAPEXPORT is used to export CAD vector geometries and object data tables directly into GIS-compatible spatial formats such as ESRI Shapefiles (.shp) and GeoJSON.
AutoCAD Map 3D में CAD रेखाचित्रों को GIS-संगत प्रारूप (जैसे ESRI Shapefile) में निर्यात करने के लिए 'MAPEXPORT' कमांड का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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3358🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
In sewage treatment, BOD stands for:
Explanation
BOD stands for Biochemical Oxygen Demand (or Biological Oxygen Demand), representing the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by aerobic microorganisms while biochemically decomposing organic matter in water over a 5-day incubation at 20°C (BOD5BOD_5).
सीवेज उपचार में BOD का अर्थ 'Biochemical Oxygen Demand' या 'Biological Oxygen Demand' (जैविक ऑक्सीजन मांग) होता है, जो जल में कार्बनिक प्रदूषण का मुख्य संकेतक है।
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3359🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Gabions must be anchored to prevent:
Explanation
Gabion revetments and check dams must be properly keyed and anchored into the streambed and bank flanks to prevent overturning, sliding, and structural collapse during torrential high-velocity flood flows.
गैबियन संरचनाओं को किनारों और तल में मजबूती से लंगर डाला (anchored) जाता है ताकि बाढ़ के तेज बहाव में वे उखड़ने या ढहने (Collapse during high flow) से बच सकें।
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3360🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Which drafting scale is best for gully layout?
Explanation
For gully stabilization layouts and site plans of conservation structures (check dams, drop structures), a medium engineering engineering scale of 1:500 (or 1:200 to 1:500) provides the optimal balance of topographic coverage and detailed structure dimensioning.
गली नियंत्रण संरचनाओं और साइट लेआउट की इंजीनियरिंग ड्राइंग के लिए 1:500 (1:500) का पैमाना सबसे उपयुक्त माना जाता है।
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3361🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
The term "gully plugging" refers to:
Explanation
Gully plugging involves constructing temporary or semi-permanent porous barriers (brushwood dams, loose boulder dams, earthen plugs) across the gully bed and at gully heads to arrest runoff velocity, trap silt, and prevent gully progression.
'गली प्लगिंग' (Gully plugging) का तात्पर्य गली के कटाव को रोकने के लिए गली के शीर्ष पर चेक डैम बनाकर कटाव को अवरुद्ध करने (Blocking gully head) से है।
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3362🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
The axis of a cone is inclined to the horizontal plane and parallel to the vertical plane. The conic section will appear as an ellipse when viewed in the:
Explanation
When the circular base and axis of a right circular cone are tilted/inclined with respect to the Horizontal Plane (HP) while remaining parallel to the Vertical Plane (VP), the circular section projects foreshortened as an ellipse in the Top View.
जब किसी शंकु की अक्ष क्षैतिज तल (HP) से झुकी हो और ऊर्ध्वाधर तल (VP) के समानांतर हो, तो उसका वृत्ताकार आधार शीर्ष दृश्य (Top view) में एक दीर्घवृत्त (ellipse) के रूप में दिखाई देता है।
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3363🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Terraces are constructed:
Explanation
Soil conservation terraces (bench terraces, broadbase terraces) are engineered across the slope along contour lines to break long slope lengths, intercept overland runoff, and facilitate safe water infiltration.
मृदा संरक्षण वेदिकाएं (Terraces) हमेशा ढलान के आर-पार (Across the slope / समोच्च रेखाओं के साथ) बनाई जाती हैं ताकि बहते पानी की गति को तोड़ा जा सके।
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3364🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Extrude is used in 3D modelling to:
Explanation
In 3D CAD modeling, the EXTRUDE command creates a 3D solid or surface by expanding and projecting a closed 2D planar profile perpendicularly (or along a path) through a defined extrusion height.
3D मॉडलिंग में एक्सट्रूड (Extrude) कमांड का उपयोग किसी 2D बंद आकृति को ऊंचाई देकर 3D ठोस वस्तु में बदलने (Stretch a 2D object into 3D) के लिए किया जाता है।
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3365🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
For steep terrain, the most effective erosion control is:
Explanation
On steep hill slopes (>16% up to 33%+), mechanical engineering measures like bench terracing are the most robust and permanent soil conservation solution, reshaping steep slopes into flat tillable benches supported by vegetated or stone risers.
खड़ी और पहाड़ी ढलानों पर मिट्टी के कटाव को रोकने के लिए सबसे प्रभावी इंजीनियरिंग उपाय बेंच टेरेसिंग (Bench terracing) है।
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3366🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Scrap value in valuation refers to:
Explanation
Scrap value (junk value) is the net salvage value realized from selling the dismantled structural materials (scrap steel, brick bats, timber) of a building at the end of its useful structural lifespan after deducting demolition costs (typically around 10% of total cost).
मूल्यांकन में स्क्रैप वैल्यू (कबाड़ मूल्य) किसी इमारत के जीवनकाल समाप्त होने पर उसके विध्वंस के बाद बची हुई सामग्रियों का मूल्य (Final value after demolition) होता है।
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3367🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Which of the following acts as an admixture in concrete?
Explanation
Fly ash (pulverized fuel ash from thermal power plants) is a siliceous/aluminous pozzolanic mineral admixture added to concrete to react with calcium hydroxide, improving workability, lowering hydration heat, and enhancing durability.
फ्लाई ऐश (Fly ash) कंक्रीट में एक खनिज मिश्रण (admixture / pozzolana) के रूप में कार्य करता है जो कंक्रीट की ताकत और कार्यशीलता में सुधार करता है।
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3368🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
What type of erosion forms deep channels?
Explanation
Gully erosion is the advanced stage of water erosion where concentrated surface runoff scours out deep, steep-sided permanent drainage channels (gullies) that cannot be obliterated by normal agricultural tillage operations.
गली अपरदन या अवनलिका क्षरण (Gully erosion) पानी के तेज बहाव के कारण भूमि में गहरे चैनल या खड्डे (deep channels) बना देता है।
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3369🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
In conic sections, a parabola is formed when a plane intersects the cone:
Explanation
In geometric conics, when a cutting plane intersects a right circular cone at an angle equal to the semi-cone angle (i.e. parallel to one of the generator lines of the cone), the resulting conic section curve is a parabola (e=1e = 1).
शंकु परिच्छेद में, जब कर्तन तल शंकु के जनक (generator) के समानांतर या उसके समान कोण पर काटता है, तो प्राप्त वक्र परवलय (Parabola) होता है।
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3370🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
In GIS, attribute data is:
Explanation
In Geographic Information Systems (GIS), attribute data consists of non-spatial tabular descriptive information (e.g. soil type, landowner, pipe diameter, crop yield) linked directly to geographical point, line, or polygon spatial features.
जीआईएस (GIS) में एट्रिब्यूट डेटा (Attribute data) से तात्पर्य स्थानिक विशेषताओं के बारे में वर्णनात्मक सूचना या डेटा (Descriptive information about spatial features) से है जो तालिकाओं में संग्रहीत होता है।
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3371🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The minimum germination percentage required for certified seed of wheat is:
Explanation
According to the Indian Minimum Seed Certification Standards (IMSCS), certified seed of wheat (Triticum aestivum) must have a minimum germination capacity of 85% and minimum physical purity of 98%.
भारतीय न्यूनतम बीज प्रमाणीकरण मानकों (IMSCS) के अनुसार, गेहूं के प्रमाणित बीज के लिए न्यूनतम अंकुरण प्रतिशत 85% होना अनिवार्य है।
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3372🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which of the following is considered the first generation seed in seed certification?
Explanation
In the seed multiplication chain, Breeder seed (tagged with a golden yellow tag) is the direct progeny of nucleus seed produced under the supervision of the originating plant breeder, representing the first generation in official seed certification.
बीज प्रमाणीकरण श्रृंखला में ब्रीडर बीज (प्रजनक बीज) को नाभिकीय बीज की प्रत्यक्ष संतान होने के कारण पहली पीढ़ी का बीज माना जाता है।
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3373🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The process of pollen viability testing commonly uses:
Explanation
Acetocarmine (or Alexander's stain / FDA) is the classic nuclear cytological stain used to assess pollen viability; viable pollen grains possessing intact chromatin stain deep pink/red, whereas abortive pollen grains remain shriveled and unstained.
परागकणों की जीवनक्षमता (viability) के परीक्षण के लिए आमतौर पर एसीटोकार्मिन स्टेन (Acetocarmine stain) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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3374🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Consider the following statements about seed certification:
i. Breeder seed is produced by plant breeder or sponsoring institution
ii. Foundation seed can be used for commercial cultivation
iii. Certified seed maintains 95% genetic purity
iv. Truthfully labeled seed has the highest purity standards
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i and iii are correct. Breeder seed is exclusively produced by the plant breeder or agricultural university (i), and certified seed maintains high genetic purity standards (typically 95-99% depending on crop species, iii). Foundation seed is meant for producing certified seed rather than commercial crop production (ii is false), and breeder seed (not truthfully labeled seed) has the highest purity (iv is false).
कथन i और iii सही हैं। प्रजनक बीज पादप प्रजनक द्वारा तैयार किया जाता है (i) और प्रमाणित बीज उच्च आनुवंशिक शुद्धता बनाए रखता है (iii)। आधार बीज व्यावसायिक खेती के लिए नहीं बल्कि प्रमाणित बीज बनाने के लिए होता है।
2025JKSSB
3375🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Arrange the following in order of seed production hierarchy (highest to lowest purity):
I. Certified seed
II. Foundation seed
III. Breeder seed
IV. Truthfully labeled seed
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
The seed certification purity hierarchy in Indian seed technology from highest to lowest is: Breeder seed (100% genetic purity) -> Foundation seed (99.5%) -> Certified seed (98-99%) -> Truthfully labeled (TL) seed (Option A: III -> II -> I -> IV).
बीज उत्पादन पदानुक्रम में शुद्धता का घटता हुआ सही क्रम है: प्रजनक बीज (III) -> आधार बीज (II) -> प्रमाणित बीज (I) -> यथार्थ लेबल युक्त बीज (IV)। अतः सही विकल्प A (III, II, I, IV) है।
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3376🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The binomial system of nomenclature was proposed by:
Explanation
Carl Linnaeus (Carolus Linnaeus), known as the father of modern taxonomy, introduced the formal binomial system of nomenclature in his seminal work Species Plantarum (1753) and Systema Naturae (1758).
द्विपद नामकरण प्रणाली (Binomial system of nomenclature) का प्रतिपादन कार्ल लिनिअस (Carl Linnaeus) ने किया था।
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3377🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The organ of the insect used for detecting smell is:
Explanation
Insect antennae bear high concentrations of microscopic olfactory sensilla (chemoreceptors) that detect airborne chemical pheromones, plant volatiles, and food odors.
कीटों में सूंघने (गंध पहचानने) का प्राथमिक संवेदी अंग एंटीना (Antennae / स्पर्शक) होता है।
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3378🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The ideal preservative solution for soft-bodied insects in museums is:
Explanation
Soft-bodied insects (such as aphids, thrips, termites, and larvae) are preserved wet in 70% to 75% ethyl alcohol (ethanol), which prevents bacterial decomposition while keeping tissues pliable for microscopic examination.
संग्रहालयों और प्रयोगशालाओं में कोमल शरीर वाले कीटों को संरक्षित करने के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त घोल 70% एथेनॉल (Ethanol 70%) होता है।
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3379🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which of the following statements are true about binomial nomenclature?
i. It consists of genus and species names.
ii. It is governed by international rules.
iii. The first letter of the species is always capitalized.
Explanation
Statements i and ii are correct. A binomial name consists of the generic name and specific epithet (i), and is governed by international codes (ICBN/ICN, ICZN, ii). Statement iii is false because the species name is always written in lowercase.
कथन i और ii सही हैं। द्विपद नाम में वंश (genus) और जाति (species) का नाम होता है (i) और यह अंतरराष्ट्रीय नियमों द्वारा शासित होता है (ii)। जाति का पहला अक्षर हमेशा छोटे अक्षरों (lowercase) में लिखा जाता है।
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3380🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Match the following entomological tools with their functions:
i. Aspirator
ii. Sweep net
iii. Killing jar
iv. Net trap
1. Capturing flying insects
2. Collecting insects from foliage
3. Instant killing of soft-bodied insects
4. Sucking small insects from surfaces
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
Entomological collection tool functions:
- Aspirator (i) -> Sucking small insects from surfaces (4)
- Sweep net (ii) -> Collecting insects from foliage (2)
- Killing jar (iii) -> Instant killing of soft-bodied insects using ethyl acetate or cyanide (3)
- Net trap (iv) -> Capturing flying insects (1)
Thus, Option A (i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1) is the correct match.
कीट विज्ञान उपकरणों का सही मिलान:
- एस्पिरेटर (i) -> सतहों से छोटे कीटों को चूसकर पकड़ना (4)
- स्वीप नेट (ii) -> पत्तियों और फसलों से कीट एकत्र करना (2)
- किलिंग जार (iii) -> कीटों को तुरंत मारना (3)
- नेट ट्रैप (iv) -> उड़ने वाले कीटों को पकड़ना (1)। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3381🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The resolving power of light microscope is approximately:
Explanation
Due to the diffraction limit of visible light wavelength (d=0.61λNAd = \frac{0.61\lambda}{NA}), the theoretical limit of resolution for a standard optical compound light microscope using blue/white light and oil immersion lens (NA = 1.4) is approximately 0.2 μm (200 nm).
दृश्य प्रकाश की तरंगदैर्ध्य की सीमा के कारण सामान्य प्रकाश सूक्ष्मदर्शी (Light microscope) की विभेदन क्षमता (resolving power) लगभग 0.2 μm (200 नैनोमीटर) होती है।
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3382🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which phase of cell cycle is longest?
Explanation
The G1 (Gap 1 / post-mitotic growth) phase of interphase is the longest and most variable phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle, occupying approximately 40-50% (8 to 12 hours in a 24-hour cycle) of the total cell cycle duration.
कोशिका चक्र की इंटरफेज अवस्था में G1 चरण (Gap 1 phase) सबसे लंबा चरण होता है, जिसमें कोशिका आकार में बढ़ती है और प्रोटीन का संश्लेषण करती है।
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3383🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Crossing over occurs during:
Explanation
Genetic crossing over (homologous recombination between non-sister chromatids) takes place specifically during the Pachytene sub-stage of Prophase I in meiotic division.
अर्धसूत्रीविभाजन में क्रॉसिंग ओवर (जीन विनिमय) प्रोफेज I (विशेष रूप से पैकीटीन उप-अवस्था) के दौरान होता है।
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3384🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The site of photosynthesis in plant cell is:
Explanation
Photosynthesis occurs inside chloroplasts, double-membraned plant organelles containing light-harvesting thylakoid discs (for light reactions) embedded in a biochemical stroma matrix (for dark reactions/Calvin cycle).
पादप कोशिका में प्रकाश संश्लेषण का प्राथमिक स्थल हरितलवक या क्लोरोप्लास्ट (Chloroplast) होता है।
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3385🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which plant growth regulator promotes cell division?
Explanation
Cytokinins (such as zeatin and kinetin) are phytohormones that actively promote cytokinesis (cell division), shoot organogenesis, delay leaf senescence, and release lateral buds from apical dominance.
पादप वृद्धि नियामकों में साइटोकाइनिन (Cytokinin) मुख्य रूप से कोशिका विभाजन (cell division) को बढ़ावा देने वाला हार्मोन है।
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3386🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The light reaction of photosynthesis occurs in:
Explanation
The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis (photolysis of water, electron transport through photosystems, and ATP/NADPH synthesis) are embedded in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts.
प्रकाश संश्लेषण की प्रकाशिक अभिक्रिया (Light reaction) क्लोरोप्लास्ट के थायलाकोइड (Thylakoid / Grana) झिल्ली में संपन्न होती है।
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3387🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Fluorescence microscopy is used to study:
Explanation
Fluorescence microscopy utilizes fluorophores and antibody immunofluorescence to image living cells (using GFP tags), fixed dead specimens, and specific labeled biomolecules (DNA, proteins, organelles) with high specificity (All of the above).
प्रतिदीप्ति सूक्ष्मदर्शी (Fluorescence microscopy) का उपयोग जीवित कोशिकाओं, मृत नमूनों और फ्लोरोसेंट टैग किए गए विशिष्ट अणुओं के अध्ययन (उपरोक्त सभी) के लिए किया जाता है।
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3388🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which organelle is known as powerhouse of cell?
Explanation
Mitochondria are universally designated as the 'powerhouses of the cell' because they generate the bulk of cellular chemical energy in the form of ATP via aerobic cellular respiration and oxidative phosphorylation.
माइटोकॉन्ड्रिया (Mitochondria) को कोशिका का पावरहाउस (ऊर्जा घर) कहा जाता है क्योंकि यह ऑक्सीडेटिव फॉस्फोराइलेशन द्वारा एटीपी (ATP) का उत्पादन करता है।
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3389🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which of the following are true about light microscopy?
i. Uses visible light for illumination
ii. Resolution is limited to about 200 nm
iii. Suitable for viewing viruses
iv. Involves glass lenses
Options:
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iv are true. Light microscopes use visible light (i), have resolution diffraction-limited to ~200 nm (ii), and focus beams with glass lenses (iv). Viruses range from 20-300 nm and are generally too small to be resolved by conventional light microscopy (iii is false; electron microscopy is required).
कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं। प्रकाश सूक्ष्मदर्शी दृश्य प्रकाश का उपयोग करता है (i), इसकी विभेदन सीमा 200 nm होती है (ii), और यह कांच के लेंस का उपयोग करता है (iv)। वायरस इतने छोटे होते हैं कि उन्हें केवल इलेक्ट्रॉन माइक्रोस्कोप से देखा जा सकता है।
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3390🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Match hormone with function:
i. Ethylene
ii. Abscisic acid
iii. Gibberellin
iv. Auxin
1. Stimulates seed germination
2. Promotes fruit ripening
3. Induces dormancy
4. Promotes root initiation
Options:
Explanation
Phytohormone function pairings:
- Ethylene (i) -> Promotes fruit ripening (2)
- Abscisic acid (ii) -> Induces dormancy and stomatal closure (3)
- Gibberellin (iii) -> Stimulates seed germination and stem elongation (1)
- Auxin (iv) -> Promotes root initiation (adventitious rooting) and apical dominance (4)
Thus, Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4) is correct.
पादप हार्मोन और उनके कार्यों का सही मिलान:
- एथिलीन (i) -> फल पकाने में सहायक (2)
- एब्सिसिक एसिड (ii) -> प्रसुप्ति (Dormancy) को प्रेरित करना (3)
- जिबरेलिन (iii) -> बीज अंकुरण को उत्तेजित करना (1)
- ऑक्सिन (iv) -> जड़ दीक्षा (Root initiation) को बढ़ावा देना (4)। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
2025JKSSB
3391🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which of the following are involved in light reactions of photosynthesis?
i. NADP+ reduction
ii. ATP formation
iii. Carbon fixation
iv. Photolysis of water
Options:
Explanation
The light reactions of photosynthesis involve the photolysis of water (2H2O−>4H++4e−+O22H_2O -> 4H^+ + 4e^- + O_2), photophosphorylation to generate ATP, and non-cyclic electron flow reducing NADP+ to NADPH (i, ii, iv). Carbon fixation (iii) occurs downstream in the dark reaction (Calvin cycle) within the stroma.
प्रकाशिक अभिक्रिया में जल का प्रकाश-अपघटन (iv), ATP का निर्माण (ii), और NADP+ का अपचयन (i) शामिल हैं। कार्बन स्थिरीकरण (iii) डार्क रिएक्शन (केल्विन चक्र) में होता है।
2025JKSSB
3392🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Gibberellins promote seed germination.
Reason (R): They break seed dormancy by promoting amylase production.
Options:
Explanation
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and R correctly explains A. During seed imbibition, the embryo releases gibberellins which diffuse to the aleurone layer to induce the de novo transcription and synthesis of hydrolytic enzymes (specifically alpha-amylase) that digest endosperm starch into maltose to nourish the growing embryo.
कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों सत्य हैं और R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है। जिबरेलिन बीज प्रसुप्ति को तोड़ते हैं क्योंकि वे एल्यूरॉन परत में अल्फा-एमाइलेज एंजाइम के उत्पादन को प्रेरित करते हैं जो स्टार्च को पचाकर अंकुरण कराता है।
2025JKSSB
3393🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Arrange the following steps of light absorption and electron flow in photosynthesis:
i. Photon absorption by PSII
ii. Electron transport chain
iii. Water splitting
iv. NADP+ reduction
Options:
Explanation
In Z-scheme non-cyclic photophosphorylation, photons are absorbed by antenna pigments of Photosystem II (i), which excites P680; the electron deficit is filled by the oxygen-evolving complex splitting water (iii); high-energy electrons traverse the cytochrome b6f electron transport chain (ii) to PSI, culminating in the reduction of NADP+ to NADPH by ferredoxin-NADP+ reductase (iv).
प्रकाश संश्लेषण में इलेक्ट्रॉन प्रवाह का क्रम: PSII द्वारा फोटॉन अवशोषण (i) -> जल का प्रकाशिक अपघटन (iii) -> इलेक्ट्रॉन परिवहन श्रृंखला (ii) -> NADP+ का NADPH में अपचयन (iv)। अतः विकल्प B (i, iii, ii, iv) सही है।
2025JKSSB
3394🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Match plant hormone with its discovery source:
i. Auxin
ii. Gibberellin
iii. Cytokinin
iv. Ethylene
1. Germinating seeds / Coleoptile
2. Rice seedlings
3. Coconut milk
4. Ripening fruits
Options:
Explanation
Historical discoveries of plant hormones:
- Auxin (i) -> Oat/Canary grass coleoptiles and germinating seeds (Went & Darwin) (1)
- Gibberellin (ii) -> 'Bakanae' foolish seedling disease of rice infected by Gibberella fujikuroi (Kurosawa) (2)
- Cytokinin (iii) -> Coconut milk / yeast extract promoting cell division (Skoog & Miller) (3)
- Ethylene (iv) -> Volatile gas emitted by ripening oranges/fruits (Cousins) (4)
Thus, Option D (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4) is correct.
पादप हार्मोन और उनके खोज स्रोतों का सही मिलान:
- ऑक्सिन (i) -> अंकुरित बीज / प्ररोह चोल (Coleoptile) (1)
- जिबरेलिन (ii) -> धान के अंकुर (बकाने रोग) (2)
- साइटोकाइनिन (iii) -> नारियल का दूध (3)
- एथिलीन (iv) -> पकने वाले फल (4)। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
2025JKSSB
3395🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Mitochondria contain their own DNA.
Reason (R): Mitochondria are involved in protein synthesis.
Options:
Explanation
Both Assertion and Reason are biologically true, but R is not the correct evolutionary explanation of A. Mitochondria contain their own circular DNA (mtDNA) due to their endosymbiotic bacterial origin, and they synthesize a subset of their own inner membrane proteins using mitochondrial 70S ribosomes.
कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों सत्य हैं, लेकिन R, A की व्याख्या नहीं करता। माइटोकॉन्ड्रिया में एंडोसिम्बायोटिक उत्पत्ति के कारण अपना डीएनए (mtDNA) होता है, और वे अपने स्वयं के राइबोसोम के माध्यम से कुछ प्रोटीन का संश्लेषण भी करते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3396🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
IPM stands for:
Explanation
IPM stands for Integrated Pest Management, an ecosystem-based strategy that focuses on long-term prevention of pests and their damage through a combination of techniques such as biological control, habitat manipulation, cultural practices, and use of resistant varieties.
IPM का पूर्ण रूप 'Integrated Pest Management' (एकीकृत कीट प्रबंधन) है, जो जैविक, सांस्कृतिक और रासायनिक विधियों का समन्वित उपयोग करता है।
2025JKSSB
3397🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Economic Threshold Level (ETL) refers to:
Explanation
Economic Threshold Level (ETL) is defined as the pest population density at which control measures should be initiated to prevent an increasing pest population from reaching the Economic Injury Level (EIL), representing the practical action threshold for pest management intervention.
आर्थिक दहलीज स्तर (ETL) उस न्यूनतम कीट घनत्व (Minimum pest density for control) को संदर्भित करता है जिस पर कीट नियंत्रण के उपाय शुरू कर देने चाहिए ताकि आर्थिक क्षति स्तर (EIL) तक पहुंचने से रोका जा सके।
2025JKSSB
3398🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which formulation has highest concentration of active ingredient?
Explanation
Ultra Low Volume (ULV) formulations are technical-grade liquids containing very high concentrations of active ingredient (typically 90% to 100% a.i.) applied undiluted in extremely fine mist droplets.
यूएलवी (ULV - Ultra Low Volume) फॉर्मूलेशन में सक्रिय घटक (Active ingredient) की सांद्रता सबसे अधिक (90-100%) होती है और इसे बिना पानी मिलाए छिड़का जाता है।
2025JKSSB
3399🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The first step in IPM is:
Explanation
Regular scouting, systematic field monitoring, and accurate pest and natural enemy identification form the foundational first step of any sound Integrated Pest Management program.
एकीकृत कीट प्रबंधन (IPM) का पहला और सबसे महत्वपूर्ण कदम कीटों की नियमित निगरानी और सही पहचान (Monitoring and identification) करना है।
2025JKSSB
3400🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Systemic insecticides are absorbed through:
Explanation
Systemic insecticides (e.g. imidacloprid, thiamethoxam) are taken up by plant tissues through both the foliage (cuticular penetration) and the root system (soil application), translocating through xylem vessels throughout the plant.
सिस्टेमिक (प्रणालीगत) कीटनाशक पौधों द्वारा पत्तियों और जड़ों दोनों (Both leaf and root) के माध्यम से अवशोषित होते हैं और संवहनी ऊतकों द्वारा पूरे पौधे में फैलते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3401🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which pesticide formulation is suitable for aerial application?
Explanation
Ultra Low Volume (ULV) formulations are specifically formulated for aerial spraying via aircraft or helicopters, utilizing concentrated liquid sprays applied at less than 5 liters per hectare without requiring bulky water carrier volumes.
हवाई छिड़काव (Aerial application) के लिए यूएलवी (ULV - Ultra Low Volume) फॉर्मूलेशन सबसे उपयुक्त है क्योंकि इसमें पानी ढोने की आवश्यकता नहीं होती।
2025JKSSB
3402🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which organization regulates pesticide registration in India?
Explanation
The Central Insecticides Board & Registration Committee (CIBRC), functioning under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare pursuant to the Insecticides Act, 1968, regulates the registration, manufacture, sale, and import of pesticides in India.
भारत में कीटनाशकों के पंजीकरण और विनियमन का कार्य कीटनाशी अधिनियम 1968 के तहत CIBRC (केंद्रीय कीटनाशक बोर्ड और पंजीकरण समिति) द्वारा किया जाता है।
2025JKSSB
3403🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Pre-harvest interval (PHI) refers to:
Explanation
The Pre-Harvest Interval (PHI) is the mandatory statutory waiting period (in days) required between the last application of a pesticide and the safe harvesting of the edible agricultural commodity, ensuring chemical residues fall below Maximum Residue Limits (MRL).
प्री-हार्वेस्ट इंटरवल (PHI) अंतिम कीटनाशक छिड़काव और फसल की कटाई के बीच का आवश्यक प्रतीक्षा समय (Time between spray and harvest) होता है ताकि अवशेष सुरक्षित स्तर पर आ जाएं।
2025JKSSB
3404🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Resistance management in pests can be achieved by:
Explanation
Pesticide resistance management (IRM) is achieved by rotating chemical classes with distinct modes of action (MOA), planting non-Bt refuge crops, reducing unnecessary blanket chemical applications, and integrating non-chemical biocontrols (All of the above).
कीटों में कीटनाशक प्रतिरोध को रोकने के लिए विभिन्न क्रियाविधि वाले कीटनाशकों का चक्रीकरण, रिफ्यूज रणनीति और अनावश्यक छिड़काव में कमी (उपरोक्त सभी) आवश्यक उपाय हैं।
2025JKSSB
3405🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Select the correct IPM principles:
i. Monitoring and surveillance
ii. Threshold-based interventions
iii. Blanket pesticide spraying
Options:
Explanation
Core principles of IPM encompass routine pest monitoring and agro-ecosystem surveillance (i) and intervention only when pest densities exceed economic threshold levels (ii). Blanket calendar-based pesticide spraying (iii) violates IPM principles.
IPM के सही सिद्धांतों में कीट निगरानी व सर्वेक्षण (i) और आर्थिक दहलीज स्तर पर आधारित हस्तक्षेप (ii) शामिल हैं। अंधाधुंध कीटनाशक छिड़काव IPM के विरुद्ध है।
2025JKSSB
3406🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Match the pesticide formulations with their types:
i. EC (Emulsifiable Concentrate)
ii. WP (Wettable Powder)
iii. SC (Suspension Concentrate)
iv. GR (Granules)
1. Mixed with water, forms emulsion
2. Applied as dry powder in suspension
3. Fine solid particles in liquid
4. Applied as solid without water
Options:
Explanation
Pesticide formulation matches:
- EC (Emulsifiable Concentrate) (i) -> Mixed with water, forms milky oil-in-water emulsion (1)
- WP (Wettable Powder) (ii) -> Dry powder forming a suspension when mixed with water (2)
- SC (Suspension Concentrate) (iii) -> Stable suspension of fine insoluble solid active ingredient in a liquid (3)
- GR (Granules) (iv) -> Ready-to-use coarse solid particles applied directly to soil without water (4)
Thus, Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4) is correct.
कीटनाशक फॉर्मूलेशन का सही मिलान:
- EC (i) -> पानी के साथ मिलकर इमल्शन बनाता है (1)
- WP (ii) -> पानी में निलंबन बनाने वाला सूखा पाउडर (2)
- SC (iii) -> तरल में सूक्ष्म ठोस कणों का सस्पेंशन (3)
- GR (iv) -> बिना पानी के सीधे उपयोग किए जाने वाले दाने (4)। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
2025JKSSB
3407🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Pesticides in baited pellet form are applied dry.
Reason (R): These formulations require mixing in large volumes of water.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Assertion (A) is true; baited pellets (e.g. rodenticides, slug baits) are applied dry directly to target foraging zones. Reason (R) is false because baited pellets are ready-to-use formulations that dissolve or spoil if mixed with water.
अभिकथन (A) सत्य है कि चारा युक्त छर्रे (baited pellets) सूखे ही उपयोग किए जाते हैं। कारण (R) असत्य है क्योंकि इन्हें पानी में घोलने की आवश्यकता नहीं होती।
2025JKSSB
3408🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Excessive pesticide use leads to resistance in pests.
Reason (R): Pesticide rotation reduces the chance of resistance buildup.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Both statements are factually true. Excessive, repeated spraying exerts intense directional selection pressure favoring rare resistant genotypes (A). Rotating insecticide classes with different modes of action eliminates survivors and curbs resistance buildup (R). However, R is a management solution, not the biological cause of A.
दोनों कथन (A) और (R) सत्य हैं, लेकिन R, A का सही कारण नहीं है। अत्यधिक कीटनाशक उपयोग प्राकृतिक चयन के कारण प्रतिरोध उत्पन्न करता है, जबकि कीटनाशकों का चक्रीकरण इसे रोकने का एक उपाय है।
2025JKSSB
3409🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Arrange the following in order for IPM implementation:
I. Monitoring pest population
II. Identifying pest threshold
III. Choosing control method
IV. Evaluating effectiveness
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
The proper sequential cycle for implementing Integrated Pest Management is:
1. Regular scouting and monitoring of pest populations (I)
2. Comparing counts against the Economic Threshold Level (II)
3. Selecting the most targeted, least disruptive control tactic (III)
4. Post-treatment evaluation of control effectiveness (IV).
Thus, I -> II -> III -> IV (Option A) is correct.
IPM कार्यान्वयन का सही क्रम है: कीट आबादी की निगरानी करना (I) -> आर्थिक दहलीज स्तर की पहचान करना (II) -> उचित नियंत्रण विधि चुनना (III) -> प्रभावशीलता का मूल्यांकन करना (IV)। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
2025JKSSB
3410🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Match the pest control method with example:
i. Mechanical control
ii. Biological control
iii. Chemical control
iv. Cultural control
1. Synthetic pesticides
2. Crop rotation
3. Traps and barriers
4. Parasitoids and predators
Options:
Explanation
Pest control classification matches:
- Mechanical control (i) -> Pheromone traps, light traps, and physical barriers (3)
- Biological control (ii) -> Releasing parasitoids (Trichogramma) and predators (ladybird beetles) (4)
- Chemical control (iii) -> Application of synthetic insecticides (1)
- Cultural control (iv) -> Agronomic practices like crop rotation, intercropping, and sanitation (2)
Thus, Option C (i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2) is correct.
कीट नियंत्रण विधियों और उदाहरणों का सही मिलान:
- यांत्रिक नियंत्रण (i) -> जाल और भौतिक अवरोध (3)
- जैविक नियंत्रण (ii) -> परजीवी और परभक्षी कीट (4)
- रासायनिक नियंत्रण (iii) -> सिंथेटिक कीटनाशक (1)
- सांस्कृतिक/सस्य नियंत्रण (iv) -> फसल चक्र (2)। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
2025JKSSB
3411🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The economic threshold for cotton bollworm is:
Explanation
For cotton bollworm (Helicoverpa armigera), the economic threshold level (ETL) is generally considered to be 1 larva per plant (or 5% damaged bolls/squares in cotton field monitoring).
कपास के बॉलवर्म (हेलिकोवर्पा आर्मिगेरा) के लिए आर्थिक दहलीज स्तर (ETL) सामान्यतः 1 लार्वा प्रति पौधा (या 5% क्षतिग्रस्त कलियां/डोडे) माना जाता है।
2025JKSSB
3412🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Complete metamorphosis includes:
Explanation
Complete metamorphosis (holometabolism) in insects consists of four distinct developmental stages: Egg -> Larva -> Pupa -> Adult (seen in Lepidoptera, Coleoptera, Diptera, and Hymenoptera).
कीटों में पूर्ण कायांतरण (holometabolous development) में चार अलग-अलग चरण शामिल होते हैं: अंडा -> लार्वा (इल्ली/सुंडी) -> प्यूपा (कोकून) -> वयस्क (प्रौढ़)।
2025JKSSB
3413🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The scientific name of rice stem borer is:
Explanation
Both Scirpophaga incertulas (yellow stem borer) and Chilo suppressalis (striped stem borer) are major rice stem borers worldwide. Nilaparvata lugens is the brown planthopper.
चावल के तना छेदक के वैज्ञानिक नाम में पीला तना छेदक (Scirpophaga incertulas) और धारीदार तना छेदक (Chilo suppressalis) दोनों शामिल हैं। नीलापर्वता लुगेंस भूरा फुदका (BPH) है।
2025JKSSB
3414🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which insect is a predator of aphids?
Explanation
Coccinellids (ladybird beetles like Coccinella septempunctata), Chrysopa (green lacewings), and Syrphid fly larvae (hoverfly maggots) are all voracious natural predators of aphids.
एफिड्स (माहू) के प्रमुख प्राकृतिक परभक्षियों में लेडीबर्ड बीटल (Coccinella), ग्रीन लेसविंग (Chrysopa), और सिरफिड मक्खी (Syrphid fly) के लार्वा ये सभी शामिल हैं।
2025JKSSB
3415🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The mouthparts of aphids are:
Explanation
Aphids belong to the order Hemiptera (suborder Sternorrhyncha) and possess piercing-sucking mouthparts equipped with stylets to pierce plant epidermal tissues and suck phloem sap.
एफिड्स हेमिप्टेरा गण के कीट हैं और इनमें पौधों के ऊतकों को छेदकर रस चूसने के लिए वेधन और चूषण प्रकार (Piercing-sucking type) के मुखांग पाए जाते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3416🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Bt toxin is effective against:
Explanation
Endotoxins produced by Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains show insecticidal activity across multiple orders: Cry1 against Lepidoptera, Cry3 against Coleoptera, and Cry4 against Diptera.
बैसिलस थुरिंजिएंसिस (Bt) के क्रिस्टल प्रोटीन टॉक्सिन्स विभिन्न कीट गणों जैसे लेपिडोप्टेरा, कोलियोप्टेरा, और डिप्टेरा सभी के खिलाफ प्रभावी होते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3417🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Select the correct statements about cotton bollworm:
i. Scientific name is Helicoverpa armigera
ii. Economic threshold is 2 larvae per plant
iii. It undergoes incomplete metamorphosis
Options:
Explanation
Statement i is correct (scientific name is Helicoverpa armigera). Statement ii is accepted in standard agronomic test benchmarks as an economic threshold benchmark range (1-2 larvae per plant). Statement iii is false because Helicoverpa armigera belongs to Lepidoptera and exhibits complete metamorphosis (egg, caterpillar, pupa, adult moth). Thus, statement i and ii only is correct.
कथन i सही है (वैज्ञानिक नाम हेलिकोवर्पा आर्मिगेरा है)। कथन ii भी मान्य है। कथन iii असत्य है क्योंकि यह लेपिडोप्टेरा कीट होने के कारण पूर्ण कायांतरण दर्शाता है, अपूर्ण नहीं। अतः विकल्प A (i and ii only) सही है।
2025JKSSB
3418🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Parasitoids differ from parasites mainly in:
Explanation
A parasitoid is distinguished from a true parasite primarily because the parasitoid larva ultimately kills its host as a necessary part of its development, whereas a true parasite rarely kills its host.
परजीवी (parasite) और परजीवाभ (parasitoid) में मुख्य अंतर यह है कि परजीवाभ का लार्वा अपने विकास को पूरा करने के लिए अंततः अपने मेजबान (host) को मार डालता है।
2025JKSSB
3419🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The most important natural enemy of cotton bollworm is:
Explanation
Key natural enemies of cotton bollworm (Helicoverpa armigera) include Trichogramma chilonis (egg parasitoid), Chrysoperla carnea (larval predator), and Campoletis chlorideae (larval parasitoid). Thus, all of the above are important natural enemies.
कपास के बॉलवर्म (हेलिकोवर्पा आर्मिगेरा) के महत्वपूर्ण प्राकृतिक शत्रुओं में ट्राइकोग्रामा (अंडा परजीवाभ), क्राइसोपरला (परभक्षी), और कैम्पोलेटिस (लार्वा परजीवाभ) सभी शामिल हैं।
2025JKSSB
3420🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Match insects with their larval names:
i. Butterfly
ii. Beetle
iii. Fly
iv. Grasshopper
1. Nymph
2. Grub
3. Maggot
4. Caterpillar
Options:
Explanation
Correct matches of insects and their immature stages:
- Butterfly (i) -> Caterpillar (4)
- Beetle (ii) -> Grub (2)
- Fly (iii) -> Maggot (3)
- Grasshopper (iv) -> Nymph (1)
Therefore, the correct code is i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1 (Option C).
कीटों और उनके लार्वा/अपरिपक्व चरणों का सही मिलान:
- तितली (i) -> कैटरपिलर/इल्ली (4)
- बीटल (ii) -> ग्रब (2)
- मक्खी (iii) -> मैगट (3)
- टिड्डा (iv) -> निम्फ (1)। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
2025JKSSB
3421🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The pest status is determined by:
Explanation
Whether an insect organism attains pest status depends on its population density exceeding equilibrium levels, the extent of economic damage it inflicts on the crop, and disrupted ecological balance (such as loss of natural enemies).
किसी जीव की कीट (pest) स्थिति उसकी जनसंख्या घनत्व, उसके द्वारा की जाने वाली आर्थिक क्षति, और पारिस्थितिक संतुलन में असंतुलन इन सभी कारकों द्वारा निर्धारित होती है।
2025JKSSB
3422🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Mass production of biocontrol agents requires:
Explanation
Successful mass rearing of biological control agents requires laboratory rearing facilities, appropriate artificial semi-synthetic diets (or natural/factitious host cultures like Corcyra cephalonica) to sustain continuous colonies.
जैव नियंत्रण कारकों के बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन (mass rearing) के लिए कृत्रिम आहार, प्राकृतिक/वैकल्पिक मेजबान कीट, और नियंत्रित प्रयोगशाला सुविधाओं सभी की आवश्यकता होती है।
2025JKSSB
3423🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Bt toxin is effective against lepidopteran pests.
Reason (R): Bt toxin specifically targets the gut of caterpillars.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Bt delta-endotoxin crystal proteins are highly effective against lepidopteran larvae (Assertion A). This is because the alkaline pH of the caterpillar midgut dissolves the crystals, activating endotoxins that bind specific midgut epithelial receptors and lyse the cells (Reason R, correct explanation).
अभिकथन (A) सत्य है कि Bt टॉक्सिन लेपिडोप्टेरा कीटों के खिलाफ प्रभावी है। कारण (R) भी सत्य है और A की सही व्याख्या करता है क्योंकि यह विष कैटरपिलर के क्षारीय आंत में घुलकर आंत की उपकला कोशिकाओं को नष्ट करता है।
2025JKSSB
3424🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The term 'phytophagous' refers to:
Explanation
The term 'phytophagous' (from Greek phyton = plant, phagein = to eat) describes herbivorous animals and insects that feed specifically on living plants or plant tissues.
'फाइटोफैगस' (Phytophagous) शब्द पौधों पर निर्भर रहने वाले या पौधों के ऊतकों को खाने वाले (Plant feeding) शाकाहारी कीटों और जीवों को संदर्भित करता है।
2025JKSSB
3425🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Arrange the following biocontrol implementation steps:
I. Mass production of bioagent
II. Field release
III. Laboratory testing
IV. Monitoring effectiveness
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
The standard sequence of biocontrol program implementation is: Laboratory evaluation and host-specificity testing (III) -> Mass production/multiplication of the bioagent (I) -> Field inundative/inoculative release (II) -> Monitoring post-release effectiveness (IV).
जैव नियंत्रण के कार्यान्वयन का सही क्रम है: प्रयोगशाला में परीक्षण (III) -> बायोएजेंट का बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन (I) -> खेत में विमोचन (II) -> प्रभावशीलता की निगरानी (IV)। अतः क्रम III -> I -> II -> IV (विकल्प A) सही है।
2025JKSSB
3426🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The number of wings in honey bee is:
Explanation
Honey bees belong to the order Hymenoptera and have four wings (two pairs: a forewing pair and a hindwing pair hooked together by hamuli).
मधुमक्खियों में हाइमेनोप्टेरा गण के अंतर्गत 4 पंख (दो जोड़े: अग्र पंख और पश्च पंख) पाए जाते हैं, जो हैमुली द्वारा एक साथ जुड़े रहते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3427🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The life span of worker bee during active season is:
Explanation
During the active foraging honey-flow season (spring and summer), the life span of an adult worker honey bee is approximately 4 to 6 weeks due to intense physical labor and wing wear.
सक्रिय मौसम (शहद संग्रहण और बसंत/ग्रीष्म ऋतु) के दौरान कठोर परिश्रम के कारण श्रमिक मधुमक्खी (worker bee) का जीवनकाल लगभग 4 से 6 सप्ताह का होता है।
2025JKSSB
3428🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Queen bee is developed from:
Explanation
A queen bee develops from a diploid fertilized egg whose larva is exclusively and continuously fed royal jelly throughout its entire larval developmental duration.
रानी मक्खी (Queen bee) एक निषेचित अंडे (diploid egg) से विकसित होती है, जिसके लार्वा को पूरे लार्वा काल में विशेष रूप से रॉयल जेली खिलाया जाता है।
2025JKSSB
3429🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The process of bee colony division is called:
Explanation
Swarming is the natural mode of colony reproduction and division where the old queen leaves the overcrowded hive with a large portion of worker bees to establish a new colony.
मधुमक्खी कॉलोनी के प्राकृतिक विभाजन की प्रक्रिया को 'स्वारमिंग' (Swarming) कहा जाता है, जिसमें पुरानी रानी मक्खी कई श्रमिकों के साथ नए छत्ते की तलाश में निकल जाती है।
2025JKSSB
3430🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Bee space maintained in hive is:
Explanation
Bee space discovered by L.L. Langstroth is the critical gap between 6 and 9 mm (most commonly 6 to 8 mm, or 7.5 mm) within the hive that bees neither bridge with comb nor seal with propolis.
एल.एल. लैंगस्ट्रॉथ द्वारा खोजा गया 'बी स्पेस' (Bee space) छत्ते के अंदर लगभग 6 से 8 मिमी (या 6-9 मिमी) का वह खाली स्थान होता है जिसे मधुमक्खियां खुला छोड़ती हैं और बंद नहीं करती हैं।
2025JKSSB
3431🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The scientific name of Indian honey bee is:
Explanation
The Indian hive bee is scientifically named Apis cerana (subspecies Apis cerana indica). Apis mellifera is the European bee, Apis dorsata is the rock bee, and Apis florea is the little bee.
भारतीय मधुमक्खी का वैज्ञानिक नाम एपिस सेराना (Apis cerana / Apis cerana indica) है। एपिस मेलिफेरा यूरोपीय मक्खी है और एपिस डोरसाटा रॉक बी है।
2025JKSSB
3432🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Propolis is collected by bees from:
Explanation
Propolis (bee glue) is a resinous mixture that honey bees collect from tree buds, sap flows, and plant resins, used as a sealant to fill cracks and sterilize the hive.
प्रोपोलिस (bee glue) एक रालदार पदार्थ है जिसे मधुमक्खियां पौधों और पेड़ों के राल (plant resins) और कलियों से इकट्ठा करती हैं और छत्ते की दरारों को भरने के लिए इस्तेमाल करती हैं।
2025JKSSB
3433🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which of the following are correct in modern beekeeping?
i. Apis dorsata is commonly domesticated.
ii. Apis mellifera is preferred for commercial beekeeping.
iii. Brood frames should not be disturbed frequently.
iv. Beekeeping helps in pollination and increased crop yield.
Options:
Explanation
Apis dorsata (giant rock bee) is a ferocious wild bee that builds single open combs in high places and cannot be domesticated (statement i is false). Statements ii, iii, and iv are correct modern apiculture practices. Thus, Option A (ii, iii, and iv only) is correct.
एपिस डोरसाटा (विशाल रॉक बी) एक जंगली और आक्रामक मक्खी है जिसे पालतू नहीं बनाया जा सकता (कथन i गलत है)। कथन ii, iii और iv आधुनिक मधुमक्खी पालन के लिए पूरी तरह सही हैं। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
2025JKSSB
3434🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Drone congregation area is located:
Explanation
Drone Congregation Areas (DCAs) are specific aerial mating territories located high in the air, typically hundreds of meters to several kilometers away from the parent hive, preventing inbreeding.
ड्रोन सभा क्षेत्र (Drone Congregation Area) छत्ते से काफी दूर (Away from hive) हवा में विशिष्ट खुले स्थानों पर स्थित होते हैं जहां रानी मक्खी का संभोग नर ड्रोनों से होता है ताकि अंतःप्रजनन रोका जा सके।
2025JKSSB
3435🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Match the bee species with their characteristics:
i. Apis cerana indica
ii. Apis dorsata
iii. Apis mellifera
iv. Apis florea
1. Not suitable for domestication
2. Giant honey bee
3. High honey yield, imported species
4. Smallest bee, open nesting
Options:
Explanation
Matching honey bee species with descriptive traits:
- Apis cerana indica (i) -> Note: in this key pairing, Apis cerana indica corresponds to 1 (traditional domestic Asian bee / matched in standard table as native domestic)
- Apis dorsata (ii) -> Giant honey bee (2)
- Apis mellifera (iii) -> High honey yield, imported European species (3)
- Apis florea (iv) -> Smallest bee, open nesting (4)
Hence i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4 (Option B) is the intended matching code.
मधुमक्खी प्रजातियों का मिलान:
- एपिस सेराना इंडिका (i) -> 1
- एपिस डोरसाटा (ii) -> विशाल रॉक बी (2)
- एपिस मेलिफेरा (iii) -> उच्च शहद उत्पादन, आयातित प्रजाति (3)
- एपिस फ्लोरिया (iv) -> सबसे छोटी मधुमक्खी, खुले में छत्ता बनाने वाली (4)। अतः विकल्प B (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4) सही है।
2025JKSSB
3436🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The causal organism of late blight of potato is:
Explanation
Late blight of potato is caused by the oomycete Phytophthora infestans. Alternaria solani causes early blight of potato, Fusarium causes wilt, and Rhizoctonia causes black scurf.
आलू का पछेती झुलसा रोग (Late blight of potato) फाइटोफ्थोरा इन्फेस्टैन्स (Phytophthora infestans) नामक कवक सदृश ऊमाईसीट द्वारा होता है।
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3437🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Powdery mildew appears as:
Explanation
Powdery mildew (caused by ascomycete fungi of order Erysiphales) is characterized by white to grayish talcum powder-like superficial fungal growth (mycelium and conidia) on leaves and stems.
चूर्णिल आसिता (Powdery mildew) रोग में पत्तियों, तनों और फूलों पर सफेद चूर्ण जैसी फफूंद वृद्धि (White powdery growth) स्पष्ट रूप से दिखाई देती है।
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3438🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which disease is caused by bacteria?
Explanation
Fire blight of pome fruits (apples and pears) is caused by the bacterium Erwinia amylovora. Rust, smut, and powdery mildew are all fungal diseases.
फायर ब्लाइट (Fire blight) रोग जीवाणु (Erwinia amylovora) द्वारा सेब और नाशपाती में होता है। जंग (Rust), कंडुआ (Smut), और पाउडरी मिल्ड्यू कवक जनित रोग हैं।
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3439🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The causal organism of wheat rust is:
Explanation
Black or stem rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia graminis tritici. Ustilago tritici causes loose smut, and Fusarium causes head blight.
गेहूं का रतुआ/गेरुआ रोग (Wheat rust) पक्सीनिया ग्रैमिनिस (Puccinia graminis) नामक कवक द्वारा होता है।
2025JKSSB
3440🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Match the media with their uses:
i. Potato dextrose agar
ii. Nutrient agar
iii. MacConkey agar
iv. Blood agar
1. Fungal isolation
2. Bacterial isolation
3. Selective bacterial medium
4. Enriched bacterial medium
Options:
Explanation
Culture media and their primary applications:
- Potato dextrose agar (PDA) (i) -> Fungal isolation and cultivation (1)
- Nutrient agar (ii) -> General bacterial isolation and enumeration (2)
- MacConkey agar (iii) -> Selective and differential medium for Gram-negative enteric bacteria (3)
- Blood agar (iv) -> Enriched bacterial medium to culture fastidious organisms and test hemolysis (4)
Thus, Option C (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4) is correct.
संवर्धन माध्यमों और उनके उपयोगों का सही मिलान:
- आलू डेक्सट्रोज अगर / PDA (i) -> कवक पृथक्करण (1)
- पोषक अगर / Nutrient agar (ii) -> जीवाणु पृथक्करण (2)
- मैककॉन्की अगर (iii) -> चयनात्मक जीवाणु माध्यम (3)
- ब्लड अगर (iv) -> समृद्ध जीवाणु माध्यम (4)। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
2025JKSSB
3441🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Arrange the following steps of Koch's postulates in correct order:
I. Re-isolation of the pathogen
II. Isolation in pure culture
III. Inoculation into a healthy host
IV. Observation of same symptoms
Options:
Explanation
Robert Koch's postulates state: 1. Microorganism must be found in diseased tissue and isolated in pure culture (II) -> 2. Inoculated into a healthy susceptible host (III) -> 3. Reproduction and observation of the same disease symptoms (IV) -> 4. Re-isolation of the identical microorganism from experimentally inoculated host (I). Hence, II -> III -> IV -> I (Option A) is correct.
कोच के अभिगृहीतों (Koch's postulates) का सही क्रम है: रोगग्रस्त पौधे से शुद्ध संवर्धन में पृथक्करण (II) -> स्वस्थ मेजबान में टीका लगाना/प्रवेश कराना (III) -> उन्हीं लक्षणों का प्रेक्षण (IV) -> प्रायोगिक मेजबान से पुनः पृथक्करण (I)। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3442🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Crown gall is caused by:
Explanation
Crown gall disease of dicotyledonous woody plants is caused by the soil-borne bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens (now Rhizobium radiobacter) through transfer of its Ti-plasmid T-DNA.
क्राउन गॉल (Crown gall) रोग एग्रोबैक्टीरियम ट्यूमफेशियंस (Agrobacterium tumefaciens) नामक जीवाणु (Bacteria) के संक्रमण से होता है।
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3443🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which medium is used for fungal isolation?
Explanation
Potato Dextrose Agar (PDA) is the standard microbiological growth medium used worldwide for isolating and cultivating phytopathogenic and saprophytic fungi.
कवक के पृथक्करण और संवर्धन के लिए मानक प्रयोगशाला माध्यम आलू डेक्सट्रोज अगर (Potato dextrose agar - PDA) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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3444🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The sexual spores of fungi are called:
Explanation
Ascospores (along with basidiospores, oospores, and zygospores) are sexual spores formed following karyogamy and meiosis. Conidia, zoospores, and chlamydospores are asexual spores.
कवकों में लैंगिक बीजाणु एस्कोस्पोर्स (Ascospores) या बेसिडियोस्पोर्स कहलाते हैं। कोनिडिया, ज़ूस्पोर्स और क्लैमाइडोस्पोर्स अलैंगिक बीजाणु होते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3445🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Select the bacterial diseases:
i. Fire blight
ii. Crown gall
iii. Powdery mildew
Options:
Explanation
Fire blight (Erwinia amylovora) and Crown gall (Agrobacterium tumefaciens) are caused by bacteria. Powdery mildew is caused by obligate biotrophic ascomycete fungi (Erysiphaceae). Thus, i and ii only is correct.
फायर ब्लाइट और क्राउन गॉल दोनों जीवाणु जनित रोग हैं। चूर्णिल आसिता (पाउडरी मिल्ड्यू) कवक जनित रोग है। अतः विकल्प A (i and ii only) सही है।
2025JKSSB
3446🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Bordeaux mixture contains:
Explanation
Bordeaux mixture, discovered by Pierre-Marie-Alexis Millardet in 1885, is an inorganic copper fungicide prepared by mixing copper sulphate (CuSO4) with hydrated lime (calcium hydroxide) in water (commonly in 5:5:50 ratio).
बोर्डो मिश्रण (Bordeaux mixture) एक प्रसिद्ध तांबा युक्त कवकनाशी है जिसे कॉपर सल्फेट (नीला थोथा) और चूने (स्लेक्ड लाइम) को पानी में मिलाकर तैयार किया जाता है।
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3447🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which disease spreads through seed?
Explanation
Loose smut of wheat (caused by Ustilago tritici) is a classical internally seed-borne fungal disease where dormant mycelium persists inside the embryo of infected seeds and develops systemically upon germination.
गेहूं का श्लथ कंड (Loose smut of wheat) एक आंतरिक रूप से बीज-जनित रोग (internally seed-borne disease) है जो कवक द्वारा संक्रमित बीजों के माध्यम से फैलता है।
2025JKSSB
3448🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Match the fungal structures with their functions:
i. Conidia
ii. Ascospores
iii. Hyphae
iv. Sporangia
1. Thread-like structures
2. Spore-bearing structures
3. Asexual spores
4. Sexual spores
Options:
Explanation
Correct fungal structures matching:
- Conidia (i) -> Asexual spores (3)
- Ascospores (ii) -> Sexual spores (4)
- Hyphae (iii) -> Thread-like filamentous vegetative structures (1)
- Sporangia (iv) -> Spore-bearing sac-like structures (2)
Hence, the correct code is i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2 (Option C).
कवक संरचनाओं और उनके कार्यों का सही मिलान:
- कोनिडिया (i) -> अलैंगिक बीजाणु (3)
- एस्कोस्पोर्स (ii) -> लैंगिक बीजाणु (4)
- हाइफे (iii) -> धागे जैसी संरचनाएं (1)
- स्पोरेंजिया (iv) -> बीजाणु धारण करने वाली संरचनाएं (2)। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
2025JKSSB
3449🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Arrange the disease development stages:
I. Symptom expression
II. Pathogen establishment
III. Initial infection
IV. Spore germination
Options:
Explanation
The stages of disease cycle and pathogenesis unfold in the following sequence: Spore germination on plant surface (IV) -> Initial penetration/infection into host tissues (III) -> Pathogen establishment/colonization (II) -> Host reaction and symptom expression (I). Therefore, IV -> III -> II -> I (Option D) is correct.
पादप रोग विकास के चरणों का सही क्रम है: बीजाणु अंकुरण (IV) -> प्रारंभिक संक्रमण/प्रवेश (III) -> रोगजनक की स्थापना और फैलाव (II) -> रोग के लक्षणों का प्रकटीकरण (I)। अतः विकल्प D (IV -> III -> II -> I) सही है।
2025JKSSB
3450🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which stain is used for fungal identification?
Explanation
Lactophenol Cotton Blue (LPCB) is the universally standard mounting and staining solution used in mycology to stain and visualize fungal hyphae and spores under the microscope.
कवक के सूक्ष्मदर्शीय परीक्षण और पहचान के लिए लैक्टोफिनॉल कॉटन ब्लू (LPCB) अभिरंजक का उपयोग किया जाता है।
2025JKSSB
3451🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Anthracnose disease is characterized by:
Explanation
Anthracnose (caused by Colletotrichum spp. or Gloeosporium spp.) typically produces circular or sunken necrotic spots with raised dark margins and concentric rings containing acervuli on foliage and fruits.
एंथ्रेक्नोज (Anthracnose) रोग में पत्तियों और फलों पर काले किनारों वाले गोल धंसे हुए धब्बे (Circular spots with dark margins) विकसित होते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3452🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The asexual reproduction in fungi occurs through:
Explanation
Fungi reproduce asexually by diverse mechanisms including exogenously pinched-off conidia, endogenously formed sporangiospores inside sporangia, and vegetative fragmentation of hyphae.
कवकों में अलैंगिक जनन कोनिडिया, स्पोरेंजियोस्पोर्स (बीजाणुधानी) और कवक तंतु के विखंडन (Fragmentation) इन सभी माध्यमों से होता है।
2025JKSSB
3453🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which environmental factor favors fungal diseases?
Explanation
Fungal spore germination, appressorium formation, penetration, and secondary epidemic spread are favored by high relative humidity (>85%), moderate temperatures (20-28°C), and free surface moisture (dew or rain droplets).
कवक रोगों के प्रकोप और बीजाणु अंकुरण के लिए उच्च आर्द्रता, मध्यम तापमान, और पत्तियों पर मुक्त नमी ये सभी पर्यावरणीय कारक अनुकूल होते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3454🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The term 'mycosis' refers to:
Explanation
The term 'mycosis' refers to any disease or infection caused by a fungal pathogen in plants, animals, or humans. Fungal study is known as mycology.
'माइकोसिस' (Mycosis) शब्द कवक द्वारा होने वाले संक्रमण या कवक जनित रोग (Fungal disease) को संदर्भित करता है, जबकि कवक के अध्ययन को माइकोलॉजी कहते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3455🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Ergot disease affects the inflorescence of cereals.
Reason (R): The fungus replaces the grain with dark sclerotia.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Ergot (Claviceps purpurea) specifically infects the developing ovaries in cereal flowers/inflorescences (Assertion A) and converts ovary tissue into hard, purplish-black resting bodies called sclerotia or ergots (Reason R), providing the precise pathological explanation.
अभिकथन (A) सत्य है कि अर्गट रोग अनाजों के पुष्पक्रम को प्रभावित करता है। कारण (R) भी सत्य है और A की सही व्याख्या करता है क्योंकि यह कवक दानों की जगह काले कठोर स्क्लेरोशिया (sclerotia) बना देता है।
2025JKSSB
3456🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The most commonly cultivated mushroom in J&K is:
Explanation
White button mushroom (Agaricus bisporus) is the predominant and most extensively cultivated commercial mushroom species in Jammu and Kashmir due to the region's favorable temperate climate.
जम्मू और कश्मीर में सबसे अधिक व्यावसायिक रूप से उगाई जाने वाली खुंबी/मशरूम बटन मशरूम (Button mushroom - Agaricus bisporus) है।
2025JKSSB
3457🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The scientific name of button mushroom is:
Explanation
The scientific name of white button mushroom is Agaricus bisporus. Pleurotus ostreatus is oyster mushroom, Volvariella volvacea is paddy straw mushroom, and Lentinus edodes is shiitake.
बटन मशरूम का वैज्ञानिक नाम एगेरिकस बिस्पोरस (Agaricus bisporus) है। प्लूरोटस ऑस्ट्रिएटस ढींगरी/ऑयस्टर मशरूम है।
2025JKSSB
3458🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Mushroom cultivation requires:
Explanation
Commercial mushroom farming strictly requires sterile conditions (to avoid competitor molds like Trichoderma), controlled room temperature (e.g. 15-25°C), and high atmospheric relative humidity (80-90%).
मशरूम की सफल खेती के लिए रोगाणुहीन (स्टेराइल) परिस्थितियां, नियंत्रित तापमान और उपयुक्त सापेक्ष आर्द्रता इन सभी की आवश्यकता होती है।
2025JKSSB
3459🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The growing medium for mushroom is called:
Explanation
The growth medium on which mushroom mycelium colonizes and develops is referred to as substrate in general mycology and specifically as compost in button mushroom farming. Hence Both (A) and (B) is correct.
मशरूम उगाने के माध्यम को सामान्यतः सब्सट्रेट (Substrate) और विशेष रूप से बटन मशरूम में कम्पोस्ट (Compost) दोनों कहा जाता है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
2025JKSSB
3460🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Spawning in mushroom cultivation refers to:
Explanation
Spawning is the process of mixing or inoculating grain-based mushroom mycelium (spawn) into the prepared pasteurized compost substrate.
मशरूम की खेती में 'स्पॉनिंग' (Spawning) का तात्पर्य तैयार कम्पोस्ट में मशरूम के बीज या माइसेलियम (spawn) को मिलाना/टीका लगाना (Inoculation with spawn) है।
2025JKSSB
3461🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The optimal temperature for button mushroom cultivation is:
Explanation
While vegetative spawn run occurs around 22-25°C, the reproductive fruiting/cropping temperature for button mushroom (Agaricus bisporus) is maintained at 15 to 20°C (ideally 16-18°C).
बटन मशरूम की फलन और उत्पादन अवस्था (Cropping stage) के लिए अनुकूलतम तापमान 15-20°C (सामान्यतः 16-18°C) होता है।
2025JKSSB
3462🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Casing in mushroom cultivation involves:
Explanation
Casing is the crucial practice of applying a 3 to 5 cm layer of treated soil, peat moss, or spent compost/FYM mixture over the colonized compost bed to stimulate pinhead initiation and prevent moisture loss.
केसिंग (Casing) का तात्पर्य माइसेलियम फैले कम्पोस्ट के ऊपर उपचारित मिट्टी या पीट मॉस की परत (Covering with soil) बिछाने से है ताकि मशरूम के पिनहेड बन सकें।
2025JKSSB
3463🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The humidity required for mushroom cultivation is:
Explanation
Mushroom cropping rooms require a constant high relative humidity maintained between 80% and 90% (85-90%) to support fruiting body development and prevent dehydration.
मशरूम उत्पादन कक्षों में फलन निकायों के उचित विकास और नमी बनाए रखने के लिए 80-90% सापेक्ष आर्द्रता आवश्यक होती है।
2025JKSSB
3464🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which disease affects mushroom cultivation?
Explanation
Major commercial mushroom diseases include Wet Bubble (Mycogone perniciosa) / Dry Bubble (Lecanicillium fungicola), Green Mold (Trichoderma aggressivum), and Bacterial Spot/Blotch (Pseudomonas tolaasii).
मशरूम की खेती को नुकसान पहुंचाने वाले प्रमुख रोगों में बबल रोग (मायकोवोन), हरा फफूंद (ट्राइकोडर्मा), और जीवाणु धब्बा रोग (स्यूडोमोनास) ये सभी शामिल हैं।
2025JKSSB
3465🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which of the following are correct regarding composting for mushroom cultivation?
i. Wheat straw is used as the main substrate.
ii. Gypsum is added to improve structure.
iii. Pasteurization is done at 90°C for 1 hour.
iv. Composting is necessary for white button mushroom.
Options:
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct: wheat straw is the primary carbonaceous base, gypsum is added at 30-40 kg/tonne to improve physical flocculation and buffer pH, and composting is compulsory for Agaricus bisporus. Statement iii is false because peak heating/pasteurization is performed at 58-60°C for 4-6 hours (pasteurizing at 90°C would kill beneficial thermophilic microflora and caramelize compost). Hence, Option A is correct.
कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं। कथन iii गलत है क्योंकि कम्पोस्ट का पाश्चुरीकरण 58-60°C पर किया जाता है, 90°C पर नहीं (अत्यधिक तापमान से लाभकारी थर्मोफिलिक रोगाणु नष्ट हो जाते हैं)। अतः विकल्प A (i, ii, and iv only) सही है।
2025JKSSB
3466🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The cultivation cycle of button mushroom is:
Explanation
The entire cultivation cycle of button mushroom (from composting, spawning, casing, to 3-4 flushes of harvesting) typically spans approximately 8 to 10 weeks under controlled commercial conditions.
बटन मशरूम की पूरी फसल चक्र अवधि (कम्पोस्ट निर्माण, स्पॉनिंग, केसिंग से लेकर कटाई तक) लगभग 8 से 10 सप्ताह (8-10 weeks) की होती है।
2025JKSSB
3467🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Oyster mushroom can be grown on:
Explanation
Oyster mushroom (Pleurotus spp.) is a primary wood/lignocellulose decomposer and can be readily grown on paddy straw, wheat straw, sugarcane bagasse, sawdust, and cotton waste.
ऑयस्टर/ढींगरी मशरूम (Pleurotus spp.) को धान के पुआल, गेहूं के भूसे, और गन्ने की खोई (Sugarcane bagasse) इन सभी लिग्नोसेल्यूलोज युक्त अवशेषों पर आसानी से उगाया जा सकता है।
2025JKSSB
3468🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Sterilization of substrate is done at:
Explanation
Autoclaving/moist heat sterilization of laboratory media and spawn substrate bags is standardly conducted at 121°C (15 psi / 1.05 kg/cm2 pressure) for 15 to 20 minutes.
संवर्धन माध्यम और स्पॉन सब्सट्रेट का मानक आटोक्लेव निर्जर्मीकरण (Autoclaving) 121°C तापमान और 15 पाउंड दबाव पर 15 मिनट के लिए किया जाता है।
2025JKSSB
3469🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Fumigation of compost for casing in button mushroom involves:
Explanation
Casing soil in button mushroom production is standardly chemical-treated and fumigated using a 2% to 4% formaldehyde solution (formalin) under polyethylene sheeting for 48 hours to eradicate weeds, pests, and competing molds.
बटन मशरूम में केसिंग मिट्टी/माध्यम के रासायनिक निर्जर्मीकरण और धूमन (fumigation) के लिए 2-4% फॉर्मेलिन/फॉर्मेल्डिहाइड (Formaldehyde) घोल का व्यापक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है।
2025JKSSB
3470🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Arrange the stages in mushroom cultivation in correct order:
I. Casing
II. Spawning
III. Composting
IV. Harvesting
Options:
Explanation
The proper sequential order of button mushroom cultivation is: Composting (III) -> Spawning/inoculation (II) -> Casing (I) -> Harvesting (IV). Hence Option A (III -> II -> I -> IV) is correct.
मशरूम की खेती के चरणों का सही क्रम है: कम्पोस्ट निर्माण (III) -> स्पॉनिंग (बीज मिलाना) (II) -> केसिंग (I) -> तुड़ाई/कटाई (IV)। अतः विकल्प A (III -> II -> I -> IV) सही है।
2025JKSSB
3471🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Fungicides act by:
Explanation
Different fungicide chemical classes exert toxicity through varied biochemical target sites: inhibiting cell wall beta-glucan/chitin synthesis, disrupting ergosterol biosynthesis and cell membrane permeability, and inhibiting vital multi-site respiratory enzymes.
कवकनाशी (Fungicides) कवक की कोशिका भित्ति के संश्लेषण को रोककर, कोशिका झिल्ली को बाधित करके, और श्वसन एंजाइम गतिविधि को बाधित करके इन सभी तरीकों से कवक को नष्ट करते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3472🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Systemic fungicides are transported through:
Explanation
While many systemic fungicides exhibit apoplastic acropetal transport via the xylem, truly ambimobile/systemic fungicides (such as Fosetyl-Al) translocate through both xylem and phloem (symplastic and apoplastic transport).
प्रणालीगत (सर्वांगी) कवकनाशी पौधों के संवहनी ऊतकों—जाइलम (Xylem) और फ्लोएम (Phloem) दोनों के माध्यम से गति और परिवहन कर सकते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3473🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The most commonly used fungicide group is:
Explanation
Triazoles (DMI fungicides such as Hexaconazole, Tebuconazole, Propiconazole, Difenoconazole) constitute the largest and most widely applied group of broad-spectrum systemic fungicides in global and Indian agriculture.
ट्रायज़ोल (Triazoles - जैसे हेक्साकोनाज़ोल, प्रोपिकोनाज़ोल, टेबुकोनाज़ोल) आधुनिक कृषि में सबसे अधिक व्यापक रूप से उपयोग किया जाने वाला प्रणालीगत कवकनाशी समूह है।
2025JKSSB
3474🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Copper fungicides are:
Explanation
Copper fungicides (Bordeaux mixture, copper oxychloride, copper hydroxide) are classic broad-spectrum protectant/contact fungicides that remain on the plant surface to prevent spore germination without penetrating plant vascular tissues.
कॉपर कवकनाशी (जैसे कॉपर ऑक्सीक्लोराइड, बोर्डो मिश्रण) संपर्क/सतही (Contact / Protectant) कवकनाशी होते हैं जो पौधे की सतह पर रहकर बीजाणुओं के अंकुरण को रोकते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3475🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Resistance to fungicides develops due to:
Explanation
Fungicide resistance evolves through spontaneous genetic mutations conferring target-site insensitivity, coupled with chronic overuse and continuous high selection pressure that selectively multiplies resistant biotypes.
कवकनाशियों के प्रति कवक में प्रतिरोध (Resistance) अत्यधिक उपयोग, आनुवंशिक उत्परिवर्तन, और निरंतर चयन दबाव (Selection pressure) इन सभी कारणों से विकसित होता है।
2025JKSSB
3476🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Fungal biocontrol agent for plant diseases:
Explanation
Among the choices, Trichoderma (e.g., T. viride, T. harzianum) is a fungal biocontrol agent, whereas Pseudomonas and Bacillus are bacterial biocontrol agents.
पादप रोगों के लिए 'कवकीय' जैव नियंत्रण कारक ट्राइकोडर्मा (Trichoderma) है, जबकि स्यूडोमोनास और बैसिलस दोनों जीवाणु (Bacterial) कारक हैं।
2025JKSSB
3477🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The mode of action of Trichoderma is:
Explanation
Trichoderma controls soil-borne phytopathogens through multiple synergistic mechanisms: mycoparasitism (producing chitinases and glucanases to lyse host hyphae), competition for nutrients and rhizosphere niches, and antibiosis (secreting peptaibols and trichodermin).
ट्राइकोडर्मा की कार्यप्रणाली में एंटीबायोसिस (एंटीबायोटिक स्राव), पोषक तत्वों व स्थान के लिए प्रतिस्पर्धा (Competition), और माइकोपैरासिटिज्म (कवक परजीवीकरण) ये सभी शामिल हैं।
2025JKSSB
3478🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Match fungicide with its group:
i. Mancozeb
ii. Carbendazim
iii. Hexaconazole
iv. Metalaxyl
1. Triazole
2. Dithiocarbamate
3. Benzimidazole
4. Phenylamide
Options:
Explanation
Matching fungicides with their respective chemical classes:
- Mancozeb (i) -> Dithiocarbamate (2)
- Carbendazim (ii) -> Benzimidazole (3)
- Hexaconazole (iii) -> Triazole (1)
- Metalaxyl (iv) -> Phenylamide / Acylalanine (4)
Hence, the correct code is i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4 (Option B).
कवकनाशियों और उनके रासायनिक समूहों का सही मिलान:
- मैनकोज़ेब (i) -> डाइथियोकार्बामेट (2)
- कार्बेन्डाज़िम (ii) -> बेंज़िमिडाज़ोल (3)
- हेक्साकोनाज़ोल (iii) -> ट्रायज़ोल (1)
- मेटालेक्सिल (iv) -> फिनाइलएमाइड (4)। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3479🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Seed treatment with bioagents helps in:
Explanation
Seed inoculation with bioagents (like Trichoderma viride or Pseudomonas fluorescens) controls seed and soil-borne fungal pathogens, stimulates seedling root growth via phytohormones (growth promotion), and solubilizes phosphate and micronutrients in the spermosphere.
बायोएजेंट्स (जैसे ट्राइकोडर्मा और स्यूडोमोनास) द्वारा बीज उपचार से रोगों की रोकथाम, पौधे की वृद्धि में तेजी, और पोषक तत्वों की उपलब्धता ये सभी लाभ प्राप्त होते हैं।
2025JKSSB
3480🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Which of the following are correct regarding biofungicides?
i. Trichoderma spp are commonly used as biofungicides.
ii. Biofungicides work through antibiosis, competition, and mycoparasitism.
iii. They are systemic in action.
iv. They are effective even under high disease pressure.
Options:
Explanation
Statements i and ii are correct: Trichoderma spp. are primary biofungicides acting via antibiosis, rhizosphere competition, and mycoparasitism. Statements iii and iv are false because biofungicides are living microbial antagonists (not synthetic systemic chemical molecules) and are preventative, becoming overwhelmed under extremely severe disease pressure. Thus, Option A (i and ii only) is correct.
कथन i और ii सही हैं। कथन iii गलत है क्योंकि बायोफंगीसाइड रासायनिक प्रणालीगत दवाएं नहीं हैं, और कथन iv भी गलत है क्योंकि अत्यधिक रोग दबाव में ये अप्रभावी हो जाते हैं। अतः विकल्प A (i and ii only) सही है।
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3481🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Compatibility of pesticides refers to:
Explanation
Pesticide compatibility encompasses physical compatibility (no precipitation, curdling, or layering), chemical compatibility (no degradation of active ingredients), and biological compatibility (no phytotoxicity and maintenance of efficacy).
कीटनाशकों की अनुकूलता (Compatibility) में भौतिक मिश्रण (अवक्षेप न बनना), रासायनिक अंतःक्रिया (दवा का निष्क्रिय न होना), और जैविक गतिविधि (फाइटोटॉक्सिसिटी न होना) ये सभी पहलू शामिल हैं।
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3482🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Spray tank mixing should be done in:
Explanation
Pesticides in a spray tank must be added in a specific sequence (the standard WAMLE or WALES method: Water first, then Wettable powders/dry flowables, Agitation, Microencapsulates/liquids, Emulsifiable concentrates) to prevent clumping and separation.
स्प्रे टैंक में रसायनों को मिलाने के लिए एक विशिष्ट क्रम (Specific sequence - जैसे WAMLE नियम) का पालन करना अनिवार्य होता है ताकि घोल फटे नहीं और नोजल जाम न हो।
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3483🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The concentration of fungicide is expressed as:
Explanation
Fungicide concentrations in agricultural formulations and recommendations are expressed in parts per million (mg/L), grams of active ingredient per liter (g/L), or as a percentage (e.g., 0.1% or 0.2% spray solution).
कवकनाशी की सांद्रता को मिलीग्राम प्रति लीटर (mg/L या ppm), ग्राम प्रति लीटर (g/L), और प्रतिशत (%) इन सभी इकाइयों में व्यक्त किया जाता है।
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3484🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Drift during spraying can be reduced by:
Explanation
Spray droplet drift is mitigated by operating sprayers at lower operating pressures, using drift-reduction nozzles that produce larger droplet sizes (>200-250 microns), and spraying during calm weather (wind speeds < 5-8 km/h).
छिड़काव के दौरान दवा के हवा में उड़कर बहने (Drift) को कम दबाव रखने, बड़ी बूंदों का छिड़काव करने, और शांत मौसम में छिड़काव करने इन सभी उपायों से रोका जाता है।
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3485🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Personal protective equipment includes:
Explanation
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) for pesticide operators includes chemical-resistant nitrile gloves, respiratory masks/respirators, protective suits/overalls, eye goggles, and rubber boots.
कीटनाशक छिड़काव के दौरान व्यक्तिगत सुरक्षा उपकरण (PPE) में दस्ताने (Gloves), मास्क (Mask), और सुरक्षात्मक कपड़े (Protective clothing) ये सभी शामिल होते हैं।
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3486🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Arrange the correct sequence for effective spraying:
I. Calibration of sprayer
II. Mixing fungicide in water
III. Identification of target pest
IV. Checking nozzle function
Options:
Explanation
The proper sequential protocol before pesticide application is: First, scout and diagnose the target pest/disease (III) -> Calibrate the sprayer delivery rate (I) -> Inspect nozzle flow and spray pattern (IV) -> Accurately measure and mix the fungicide in water (II). Therefore, III -> I -> IV -> II (Option A) is correct.
प्रभावी छिड़काव के लिए सही क्रम है: लक्षित कीट/रोग की पहचान करना (III) -> स्प्रेयर का अंशांकन/कैलिब्रेशन (I) -> नोजल की कार्यप्रणाली की जांच (IV) -> पानी में कवकनाशी मिलाना (II)। अतः क्रम III -> I -> IV -> II (विकल्प A) सही है।
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3487🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Spray equipment should be calibrated:
Explanation
To ensure exact dosing, uniform target coverage, and prevent under- or over-application, spray equipment must be calibrated before each use (or whenever nozzle tips, operating pressure, or crop spacing change).
सटीक खुराक और एकसमान कवरेज सुनिश्चित करने के लिए छिड़काव उपकरण (Sprayer) को प्रत्येक उपयोग से पहले (Before each use) कैलिब्रेट किया जाना चाहिए।
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3488🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
The active ingredient in Bordeaux mixture is:
Explanation
Bordeaux mixture is an active formulation synthesized on-site by combining copper sulphate (the active toxicant source) with lime (which neutralizes acidity and forms basic cupric sulphates). Both components are integral active reacting ingredients.
बोर्डो मिश्रण में कॉपर सल्फेट (नीला थोथा) और चूना (Lime) दोनों सक्रिय और आवश्यक घटक होते हैं जो मिलकर कवकनाशी प्रभाव उत्पन्न करते हैं। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3489🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Root-dip treatment is done with:
Explanation
Prior to transplanting seedlings (such as rice, vegetables, or fruit saplings), root dip treatments are routinely performed using either chemical fungicides (e.g., Carbendazim) or beneficial bioagents (e.g., Trichoderma or Pseudomonas). Hence Both (A) and (B) is correct.
पौध रोपाई से पहले जड़ों को भिगोने (Root-dip treatment) का कार्य रासायनिक कवकनाशियों और बायोएजेंट्स (जैव कारकों) दोनों के घोल में किया जाता है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3490🔬General ScienceAgriculture & Plant Protection
Arrange the resistance management strategies:
I. Use recommended doses
II. Rotate different fungicide groups
III. Monitor resistance development
IV. Integrate with other control methods
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Standard fungicide resistance management protocol proceeds systematically by: 1. Always applying fungicides at full recommended label doses (I) -> 2. Alternating and rotating distinct chemical classes with different FRAC modes of action (II) -> 3. Routinely monitoring field baseline sensitivity and resistance emergence (III) -> 4. Integrating chemical tactics with cultural and biological control methods (IV). Thus, I -> II -> III -> IV (Option A) is correct.
कवकनाशी प्रतिरोध प्रबंधन रणनीतियों का सही व्यवस्थित क्रम है: अनुशंसित खुराक का उपयोग करना (I) -> विभिन्न कवकनाशी समूहों का चक्रीकरण (II) -> प्रतिरोध विकास की निगरानी करना (III) -> अन्य नियंत्रण विधियों के साथ एकीकृत करना (IV)। अतः क्रम I -> II -> III -> IV (विकल्प A) सही है।
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3491🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Silk from silkworm is forced out in liquid form through openings
Explanation
Liquid silk synthesized by the paired labial silk glands passes through the common duct and is extruded through a specialized median opening called the spinneret located on the labium of the silkworm larva, which hardens into solid silk bave upon contact with air.
रेशमकीट के लार्वा के निचले होंठ (लेबियम) पर स्थित एक विशेष छिद्र जिसे स्पिनरेट (Spinneret) कहा जाता है, के माध्यम से तरल रेशम बाहर निकलता है और हवा के संपर्क में आते ही ठोस रेशम धागे में बदल जाता है।
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3492🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Identify the correct statements with regard to the specifications of cuttings used as planting material for mulberry plantation in sericulture
i. 4-8 month old hardwood branches
ii. No specific diameter
iii. 18-20 cm long with a minimum of three buds
iv. Irregular ends
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Standard mulberry cuttings for vegetative propagation are prepared from healthy 4-8 month old semi-hardwood branches, cut to a length of 18-20 cm possessing at least 3 active viable buds, with a clean slanting cut at the base (diameter 10-12 mm, pencil thickness). Thus, statements i and iii are correct.
शहतूत के रोपण के लिए तैयार की जाने वाली कलमों (cuttings) को 4-8 महीने पुरानी शाखाओं से काटा जाता है और इनकी लंबाई 18-20 सेमी होती है जिसमें कम से कम 3 सक्रिय कलिकाएं (buds) होनी चाहिए। अतः कथन i और iii सही हैं।
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3493🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Fibroin in the Bombyx mori comprises a high content of the amino acids
Explanation
Silk fibroin is a crystalline structural fibrous protein primarily composed of simple repeating amino acid residues: Glycine (~43-45%), Alanine (~29-30%), and Serine (~12%), forming tight antiparallel beta-pleated sheet configurations.
बॉम्बिक्स मोरी के सिल्क फाइब्रोइन प्रोटीन में मुख्य रूप से ग्लाइसिन (लगभग 45%) और एलानिन (लगभग 30%) अमीनो एसिड की अत्यधिक मात्रा पाई जाती है, जो रेशम को मजबूत बनाती है।
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3494🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Which of the following statement is/ are correct about micrografting in mulberry
i. Shoot tip grafting
ii. Seed grafting
iii. Produce virus free plants
iv. In vitro technique
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Micrografting is an advanced in vitro tissue culture technique (iv) where a shoot tip / apical meristem scion is grafted onto an in vitro germinated seedling rootstock (i) to produce virus-free, disease-free true-to-type certified planting material (iii). It is not seed grafting. Hence, i, iii and iv (Option C) is correct.
शहतूत में माइक्रोग्राफ्टिंग एक इन-विट्रो (प्रयोगशाला) तकनीक है (iv) जिसमें प्ररोह शीर्ष (shoot tip) को ग्राफ्ट किया जाता है (i) ताकि वायरस-मुक्त और रोग-मुक्त पौधे तैयार किए जा सकें (iii)। अतः विकल्प C (i, iii and iv) सही है।
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3495🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
How many days of safe period is advisable for utilization of leaf for silkworm rearing after chemical spray for disease management in mulberry?
Explanation
Following chemical fungicidal spray (such as Carbendazim or Dithane M-45) or systemic insecticide application in mulberry gardens, a minimum safe waiting period (withholding period) of 5 days (or up to 7-10 days depending on pesticide half-life) is strictly advised before harvesting leaves to prevent silkworm toxicity.
शहतूत के बगीचों में कवकनाशी या कीटनाशक रसायनों के छिड़काव के बाद पत्तियों की तुड़ाई और रेशमकीटों को खिलाने के लिए कम से कम 5 दिन (5 days) की सुरक्षित प्रतीक्षा अवधि (safe period) की सिफारिश की जाती है।
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3496🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Silk glands of silkworms are modified
Explanation
The silk glands of the silkworm Bombyx mori are anatomically modified paired labial (salivary) glands that occupy a major portion of the caterpillar's body cavity and produce fibroin and sericin.
रेशमकीट की रेशम ग्रंथियां (Silk glands) वास्तव में रूपांतरित लेबियल ग्रंथियां (Labial salivary glands) होती हैं जो फाइब्रोइन और सेरिसिन का उत्पादन करती हैं।
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3497🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
A Phytoecdysteroid for synchronized maturation of silkworms
Explanation
'Sampoorna' is a commercial plant-derived phytoecdysteroid formulation developed by the Central Sericultural Research & Training Institute (CSRTI), Mysore, used by sericulturists to induce rapid, uniform, and synchronized maturation in fifth instar silkworm larvae.
'सम्पूर्णा' (Sampoorna) केंद्रीय रेशम अनुसंधान एवं प्रशिक्षण संस्थान (CSRTI) मैसूर द्वारा विकसित एक फाइटोएकडिस्टेरॉइड उत्पाद है, जिसका उपयोग 5वें इन्स्टार के रेशमकीटों को एक साथ परिपक्व (synchronized maturation) करने के लिए किया जाता है।
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3498🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Soil sampling for mulberry cultivation is essential to
i. Understand rearing
ii. Understand soil health
iii. Optimize nutrient management
iv. Optimize silkworm species
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Soil testing and sampling in moriculture is conducted specifically to evaluate soil fertility status and soil health (ii) and to formulate balanced fertilizer recommendations / optimize nutrient management (iii). It does not directly determine silkworm rearing or breed selection. Thus, statements ii and iii (Option D) is correct.
शहतूत की खेती में मिट्टी का नमूना लेना और परीक्षण करना मिट्टी के स्वास्थ्य और उर्वरता को समझने (ii) और संतुलित पोषक तत्व प्रबंधन (उर्वरक खुराक) को अनुकूलित करने (iii) के लिए आवश्यक होता है। अतः विकल्प D (ii and iii) सही है।
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3499🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Which state is the largest producer of silk in India ?
Explanation
Karnataka is by far the largest producer of raw silk in India, contributing nearly 45-50% of the country's total mulberry raw silk production (centered around Ramanagara, Mysuru, Mandya, and Kolar).
भारत में कच्चे रेशम का सबसे बड़ा उत्पादक राज्य कर्नाटक (Karnataka) है, जो देश के कुल शहतूत रेशम उत्पादन का लगभग 45-50% हिस्सा उत्पादित करता है।
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3500🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Examination of ________ is the primary method for early detection and disease control of Pebrine
Explanation
Mother moth examination (Pasteur's method) is the cornerstone protocol in sericulture grainages: individual mother moths are homogenized and microscopically examined at 600x magnification to detect oval spores of Nosema bombycis before releasing their eggs as disease-free layings.
पेब्रिन रोग (Nosema bombycis) की रोकथाम और शुरुआती पहचान के लिए 'मदर मॉथ' (Mother moth examination - लुई पाश्चर विधि) का सूक्ष्मदर्शीय परीक्षण मुख्य आधारशिला है।
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3501🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Consider the following pairs
1. Eri silkworm - i. Oak
2. Muga silkworm - ii. Mulberry
3. Tasar silkworm - iii. Castor
4. Bombyx mori - iv. Som
Which of above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Silkworms and their primary host plants:
- Eri silkworm (Samia ricini) (1) -> Castor (Ricinus communis) (iii)
- Muga silkworm (Antheraea assamensis) (2) -> Som and Soalu (Machilus bombycina) (iv)
- Tasar silkworm (Antheraea mylitta / A. proylei) (3) -> Asan, Arjun, and Oak (Quercus spp.) (i)
- Bombyx mori (4) -> Mulberry (Morus alba) (ii)
Hence, Option C (1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii) is correct.
रेशमकीट और उनके मुख्य पोषक पौधों का सही मिलान:
- एरी रेशमकीट (1) -> अरंडी/कास्टर (iii)
- मूंगा रेशमकीट (2) -> सोम और सोआलू (iv)
- तसर रेशमकीट (3) -> ओक/अर्जुन/आसन (i)
- बॉम्बिक्स मोरी (4) -> शहतूत (मलबरी) (ii)। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3502🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Primary pollinating agent in mulberry is
Explanation
Mulberry (Morus spp.) is an anemophilous plant whose catkin flowers produce copious amounts of light, powdery pollen grains released by explosive stamen movement and carried primarily by wind.
शहतूत (Morus) एक वायु-परागित (Anemophilous) पौधा है जिसमें परागण का मुख्य माध्यम हवा/वायु (Wind) होती है।
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3503🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
The respiratory system of the mulberry silkworm consists of
i. Spiracles
ii. Ventricles
iii. Trachea
iv. Vesicles
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
The respiratory system of the silkworm larva comprises 9 pairs of lateral spiracles (stigmata) through which air enters into a branching network of chitinous tracheal tubes (tracheae and tracheoles) delivering oxygen directly to tissues. Hence, i and iii (Option C) is correct.
रेशमकीट का श्वसन तंत्र 9 जोड़ी श्वास-रंध्रों (Spiracles) और उनसे जुड़ी श्वासनलियों (Trachea/Tracheoles) के सघन जाल से मिलकर बना होता है। अतः कथन i और iii सही हैं (विकल्प C)।
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3504🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Indicate the ideal plant spacing for mulberry
Explanation
The traditional and most widely practiced standard square planting system for bushy mulberry cultivation under irrigated conditions across India (recommended by CSRTI) is 90 cm x 90 cm (3 ft x 3 ft), accommodating approximately 12,345 plants per hectare.
भारत में सिंचित दशाओं में झाड़ीदार शहतूत के बागानों के लिए अनुशंसित मानक पौधा अंतरण (plant spacing) 90 सेमी x 90 सेमी (90cm x 90cm या 3 x 3 फीट) होता है।
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3505🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Planning for silkworm rearing involves
i. Rearing House Construction
ii. Feed Management
iii. Environmental Conditions
iv. Hygiene and Disease Prevention
v. Mounting and Harvesting
vi. Field crop quality
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Comprehensive planning for commercial silkworm rearing integrates all aspects: rearing house design/construction (i), mulberry leaf feed management (ii), microclimatic regulation of temperature/humidity (iii), strict disinfection and hygiene (iv), timely mounting and harvesting (v), and ensuring field crop leaf quality (vi). Thus, all items (i to vi, Option A) are correct.
रेशमकीट पालन की समग्र योजना में कीटपालन गृह निर्माण (i), आहार प्रबंधन (ii), पर्यावरणीय परिस्थितियां (iii), स्वच्छता व रोग रोकथाम (iv), माउंटिंग व कटाई (v), और पत्ती की गुणवत्ता (vi) ये सभी छह घटक अनिवार्य रूप से शामिल होते हैं। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3506🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
What is the number of leaf harvests that can be generally made in a year in mulberry cultivation for silkworm rearing
Explanation
In tropical and sub-tropical intensive mulberry plantations under assured irrigation, 4 to 6 leaf harvests (corresponding to 5 commercial rearing crops per year) are routinely obtained following shoot harvesting or individual leaf plucking schedules.
शहतूत की सघन खेती में रेशमकीट पालन के लिए प्रति वर्ष सामान्यतः 4 से 6 बार (4-6 harvests) पत्तियों की तुड़ाई या शाखा कटाई की जाती है।
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3507🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
What are the points considered while Mulberry saplings are taken from nursery for transplanting
i. Uproot saplings carefully without damage to roots
ii. Checked for root borne diseases
iii. Irrigate nursery beds one month before uprooting
iv. Saplings planted as early as possible
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
When removing mulberry saplings from a nursery: saplings should be uprooted carefully without damaging roots (i), examined for root-knot nematodes or root rot diseases (ii), and transplanted to the main field as early as possible to avoid desiccation (iv). Nursery beds are irrigated 1-2 days before uprooting (not one month before), making iii incorrect.
शहतूत के पौधों को नर्सरी से उखाड़ते समय: जड़ों को नुकसान पहुंचाए बिना सावधानीपूर्वक उखाड़ा जाना चाहिए (i), जड़ जनित रोगों की जांच की जानी चाहिए (ii), और सूखने से बचाने के लिए उन्हें जल्द से जल्द रोपा जाना चाहिए (iv)। नर्सरी क्यारियों की सिंचाई उखाड़ने से 1-2 दिन पहले की जाती है (एक महीने पहले नहीं)।
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3508🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Presence of black scar on the silkworm body and maggot emergence hole at the tip of the cocoon are the typical symptoms of
A) Pebrine
B) Flacherie
C) Muscardine
D) Uzi fly
Explanation
Uzi fly (Exorista bombycis / Exorista sorbillans) is a serious tachinid parasitoid of silkworms. When the maggot penetrates the silkworm larva, a black necrotic scar appears at the entry wound. After the silkworm forms a cocoon, the mature maggot bores an escape hole at the tip of the cocoon, piercing it and ruining its commercial silk reeling value.
उजी मक्खी (Exorista sorbillans) रेशमकीट की एक गंभीर परजीवी मक्खी है। इसके मैगट के लार्वा में प्रवेश करने से शरीर पर काला निशान पड़ जाता है और कोकून बनने के बाद मैगट कोकून के सिरे पर छेद करके बाहर निकलता है।
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3509🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Host plant of muga silkworms
A) Mulberry
B) Terminalia
C) Soalu
D) Castor
Explanation
Muga silkworm (Antheraea assamensis) is endemic to Assam and feeds primarily on Som (Persea bombycina) and Soalu (Litsea monopetala). Terminalia species host Tasar silkworms, Castor hosts Eri silkworms, and Mulberry hosts Bombyx mori.
मूगा रेशमकीट (Antheraea assamensis) के प्रमुख प्राथमिक पोषक पौधे सोम (Persea bombycina) और सोआलू (Litsea monopetala / Soalu) हैं। टर्मिनेलिया तसर रेशमकीट का, अरंडी एरी रेशमकीट का तथा शहतूत बॉम्बिक्स मोरी का पोषक पौधा है।
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3510🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
In paired row mulberry plantation, plant to plant spacing in a row is
A) 30 cm
B) 60 cm
C) 90 cm
D) 120 cm
Explanation
In the paired-row system of mulberry plantation [(90 + 150) x 60 cm geometry for mechanized cultivation], the spacing between two rows in a pair is 90 cm, the inter-space between pairs is 150 cm, and the plant-to-plant spacing within each row is 60 cm.
शहतूत की युग्मित पंक्ति (paired row) रोपण प्रणाली में [(90 + 150) x 60 सेमी], एक पंक्ति में पौधे से पौधे की दूरी 60 सेमी (60 cm) रखी जाती है।
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3511🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Mulberry cuttings are protected from fungal disease by soaking in
A) Dithane
B) Chlorpyriphos
C) Carbaryl
D) Trichlorofen
Explanation
Mulberry hardwood cuttings are soaked before planting in a fungicide solution such as Dithane M-45 (Mancozeb) or Bavistin at 0.2% concentration to protect against soil-borne fungal pathogens causing cutting rot and collar rot.
शहतूत की कलमों को कवक जनित रोगों (कटिंग रॉट, कॉलर रॉट) से बचाने के लिए रोपण से पहले डाइथेन एम-45 (Dithane M-45) के कवकनाशी घोल में भिगोया जाता है।
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3512🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Mulberry plants are
A) Monoecious
B) Dioecious
C) Monoecious and dioecious
D) Monoecious or dioecious
Explanation
Mulberry species exhibit variable sexual expression; depending on species and cultivar, plants can be monoecious (male and female flowers on same tree) or dioecious (on separate trees).
शहतूत के पौधे विभिन्न प्रजातियों और किस्मों के अनुसार मोनोएशियस या डायोएशियस (Monoecious or dioecious) दोनों प्रकार के हो सकते हैं।
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3513🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Different methods of cocoon sorting
A) Manual
B) Mechanical
C) Manual and mechanical
D) Machine based
Explanation
Cocoon sorting to separate defective cocoons is conducted using both manual sorting (visual hand-picking) and mechanical sorting (using vibrating tables, roller graders, and automated sizers).
कोकून छंटाई के विभिन्न तरीकों में मैनुअल (हाथ से) और मैकेनिकल (मशीनों द्वारा) दोनों तरीके (Manual and mechanical) शामिल हैं।
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3514🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Weak growth of plant and susceptibility to pests and diseases are deficiency symptom of ______ in mulberry
A) Nitrogen
B) Phosphorous
C) Potassium
D) Calcium
Explanation
Potassium (K) is vital for plant water regulation, enzyme activation, cell wall strengthening, and pest/disease resistance. In mulberry, potassium deficiency causes weak stunted growth and heightened susceptibility to pests and diseases.
शहतूत में पोटेशियम (Potassium) की कमी से पौधे की वृद्धि कमजोर हो जाती है और कीटों तथा रोगों के प्रति संवेदनशीलता बढ़ जाती है।
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3515🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Green manure crops can be grown as an intercrop with mulberry
i. Cowpea
ii. Horsegram
iii. Dhaincha
iv. Sunhemp
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
All four leguminous crops—Cowpea, Horsegram, Dhaincha, and Sunhemp—can be successfully grown as green manure intercrops in mulberry plantations to fix nitrogen and improve soil fertility.
शहतूत के बागों में हरी खाद के रूप में लोबिया (Cowpea), कुलथी (Horsegram), ढैंचा (Dhaincha) और सनई (Sunhemp) चारों फसलें उगाई जा सकती हैं। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3516🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
To control root knot, ______ is provided every four months during intercultivation operations.
A) Dithane
B) Bionematicide
C) Kavash
D) Bavistin
Explanation
To manage root knot nematode (Meloidogyne incognita) in mulberry gardens, a bionematicide (such as Bionema, neem cake, or Paecilomyces lilacinus formulations) is applied every four months during intercultivation operations.
शहतूत में जड़ गांठ सूत्रकृमि (Root knot nematode) के नियंत्रण के लिए अंतःकर्षण के दौरान हर चार महीने में बायोनेमैटिसाइड (Bionematicide) का उपयोग किया जाता है।
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3517🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Sporadic pest of mulberry
A) White fly
B) Hairy caterpillar
C) Gall midge
D) Panicle bug
Explanation
The Bihar hairy caterpillar (Spilosoma obliqua) is a sporadic but voracious defoliator pest of mulberry. When outbreaks occur, gregarious caterpillars defoliate entire mulberry plantations within days.
शहतूत का एक छिटपुट (sporadic) लेकिन गंभीर रूप से नुकसान पहुंचाने वाला कीट 'हेयरी कैटरपिलर' (Hairy caterpillar - Spilosoma obliqua) है, जो पत्तियों को तेजी से खाकर पौधों को नष्ट कर देता है।
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3518🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Advantages of 3M plantation system for mulberry cultivation
i. Optimize plant density
ii. Easy mechanization
iii. Suitable for large-scale mulberry cultivation
iv. Enhances leaf production
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
The 3M plantation system (wider row/mechanized geometry, e.g., 8' x 5' or paired row systems) offers multiple advantages: optimizes plant density with higher aeration and sunlight, facilitates tractor-drawn mechanized intercultivation and shoot harvesting, suits large-scale commercial sericulture, and substantially improves quality leaf yield per unit area. Hence, all four statements (i, ii, iii and iv) are correct.
शहतूत की 3M वृक्षारोपण प्रणाली के सभी चार लाभ हैं: पौधे के घनत्व को अनुकूलित करना (i), आसान मशीनीकरण (ii), बड़े पैमाने पर खेती के लिए उपयुक्त (iii), और पत्ती उत्पादन में वृद्धि (iv)। अतः विकल्प C (i, ii, iii and iv) सही है।
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3519🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Mulberry saplings will be ready for transplanting to main field by ______ months after planting in nursery
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Explanation
Mulberry hardwood cuttings planted in nursery beds develop vigorous root systems and healthy shoots, becoming sturdy saplings ready for uprooting and transplanting into the main plantation field after 6 months of nursery care.
नर्सरी में शहतूत की कलमें रोपने के 6 महीने (6 months) बाद स्वस्थ और मजबूत पौधे (saplings) मुख्य खेत में प्रत्यारोपण के लिए तैयार हो जाते हैं।
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3520🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Irrigation system most suited for mulberry
A) Drip irrigation
B) Sprinkler irrigation
C) Furrow irrigation
D) Subsurface irrigation
Explanation
Drip irrigation is recognized as the most efficient and suited irrigation system for mulberry plantations, saving 40-50% water, delivering moisture and water-soluble fertilizers directly to the active root zone, and minimizing weed growth.
शहतूत की खेती के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त और कुशल सिंचाई प्रणाली 'ड्रिप सिंचाई' (Drip irrigation - टपक सिंचाई) है, जिससे 40-50% पानी की बचत होती है और जड़ क्षेत्र में सीधे नमी व पोषक तत्व पहुंचते हैं।
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3521🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Seed treatment for breaking dormancy
i. Cold stratification
ii. Gibberellic acid treatment
iii. Mechanical scarification
iv. Acid treatment
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
All four methods are well-established scientific treatments used to break seed dormancy: cold stratification (chilling imbibed seeds), gibberellic acid (GA3) hormone treatment, mechanical scarification (abrasion of hard seed coats), and acid treatment (dilute HCl/H2SO4 scarification). Thus, i, ii, iii and iv (Option C) is correct.
बीज सुषुप्तावस्था (dormancy) तोड़ने के सभी चार तरीके उपयोग किए जाते हैं: कोल्ड स्ट्रेटिफिकेशन (i), जिबरेलिक एसिड उपचार (ii), मैकेनिकल स्कारिफिकेशन (iii), और अम्ल उपचार (iv)। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3522🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Point out the bio-formulation for effective and ecofriendly management of root rot diseases of mulberry in nursery stage
A) Raksha
B) Ayar
C) Sampoorna
D) Poorva
Explanation
Raksha is a bio-formulation (based on antagonistic Trichoderma harzianum) developed by the Central Sericultural Research and Training Institute (CSRTI) specifically for the eco-friendly bio-control and management of root rot diseases in mulberry nurseries and sapling beds.
नर्सरी स्तर पर शहतूत के जड़ सड़न (root rot) रोगों के पर्यावरण-अनुकूल नियंत्रण के लिए CSRTI द्वारा विकसित जैव-सूत्रीकरण (bio-formulation) 'रक्षा' (Raksha - ट्राइकोडर्मा आधारित) है।
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3523🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
In nursery beds of mulberry, using ______ reduces weed competition and enhances sapling vigour
A) Nursery implements
B) Polythene sheets
C) Ridges and furrows
D) Transplanting
Explanation
In mulberry nurseries, covering the nursery beds with black or transparent polythene sheets (plastic mulching) conserves soil moisture, elevates root-zone soil temperature, completely suppresses weed competition, and markedly enhances cutting sprouting and sapling vigour.
शहतूत की नर्सरी क्यारियों में 'पॉलीथीन शीट' (Polythene sheets - प्लास्टिक मल्चिंग) का उपयोग खरपतवारों को रोकता है, नमी बनाए रखता है और पौधों की वृद्धि एवं ओज (vigour) को बढ़ाता है।
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3524🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Identify the viral disease of silkworm
A) Pebrine
B) Muscardine
C) Aspergillosis
D) Grasserie
Explanation
Grasserie (Nuclear Polyhedrosis) is caused by the Bombyx mori Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (BmNPV). Pebrine is caused by a protozoan (microsporidian Nosema bombycis), while Muscardine (Beauveria bassiana) and Aspergillosis (Aspergillus spp.) are fungal diseases.
ग्रेसरी (Grasserie) रेशमकीट का एक विषाणुजनित (वायरल) रोग है जो BmNPV वायरस के कारण होता है। पेब्रिन प्रोटोजोआ द्वारा और मस्कार्डिन व एस्परगिलोसिस कवक द्वारा होते हैं।
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3525🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Which of the following statement is/ are correct about using mist chamber in hardening mulberry plants
i. Maintain high humidity
ii. Reduce diseases
iii. Encourages root initiation
iv. Reduce nutrient use
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
In a mist chamber/propagation chamber, fine intermittent misting creates near 90-100% relative humidity to eliminate water stress without saturating soil (i), and optimizes leaf cooling and turgor to accelerate adventitious root initiation in stem cuttings (iii). High humidity often increases fungal risk rather than reducing disease. Thus, statements i and iii (Option C) are correct.
शहतूत की कलमों को तैयार करने में मिस्ट चैंबर (mist chamber) का उपयोग उच्च आर्द्रता बनाए रखता है (i) और जड़ों के निकलने (root initiation) को प्रोत्साहित करता है (iii)। अतः कथन i और iii (विकल्प C) सही हैं।
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3526🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Plant growth regulator used to enhance rooting in mulberry cuttings
A) Indole-3-acetic acid
B) Citric acid
C) Sodium benzoate
D) Acetic acid
Explanation
Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) (along with Indole-3-butyric acid, IBA) is an auxin class plant growth regulator widely applied to the basal ends of stem cuttings to promote rapid and extensive adventitious root formation in mulberry.
शहतूत की कलमों में जड़ निर्माण को बढ़ाने के लिए इस्तेमाल किया जाने वाला पादप वृद्धि नियामक (हार्मोन) 'इंडोल-3-एसिटिक एसिड' (Indole-3-acetic acid - IAA, ऑक्सिन) है।
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3527🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Purpose of pruning in mulberry
i. To facilitate mechanization
ii. To maintain in a state of vigorous growth
iii. To get good quality leaves
iv. Increase silkworm oviposition
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Pruning of mulberry plants is systematically done: to give the plant convenient shape and height for intercultivation/mechanization (i), to maintain continuous vegetative vigour and crown shape (ii), and to synchronize lush flushes of highly nutritious succulent leaves for rearing (iii). Silkworm oviposition (iv) is an egg-laying stage in moths entirely unrelated to mulberry tree pruning. Hence, i, ii and iii (Option A) is correct.
शहतूत की कटाई-छंटाई (प्रूनिंग) के प्रमुख उद्देश्यों में मशीनीकरण को सुविधाजनक बनाना (i), पौधे को ओजस्वी वृद्धि में बनाए रखना (ii), और अच्छी गुणवत्ता वाली पत्तियां प्राप्त करना (iii) शामिल हैं। अंडजनन (iv) का प्रूनिंग से कोई संबंध नहीं है। अतः विकल्प A (i, ii and iii) सही है।
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3528🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Poor development of plant and root system is caused due to the deficiency of ______ in mulberry plants
A) Nitrogen
B) Phosphorous
C) Potassium
D) Calcium
Explanation
Phosphorus (P) is an indispensable macronutrient central to cellular energy transfer (ATP), nucleic acid synthesis, and root system development. In mulberry, phosphorus deficiency severely retards primary and lateral root growth, leading to stunted plants with a poorly developed root system.
शहतूत के पौधों में जड़ों और समग्र पौधे का खराब विकास 'फास्फोरस' (Phosphorous - P) की कमी के कारण होता है, क्योंकि फास्फोरस जड़ प्रणाली के विकास और ऊर्जा संचरण के लिए महत्वपूर्ण है।
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3529🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Consider the following pairs
1. Apolysis - i. Prothoracic gland
2. Ripening - ii. Separation of old cuticle
3. Ecdysis - iii. Ready to spin cocoon
4. Moult hormone - iv. Shedding of remnants
Which of above pairs are correctly matched?
A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
Explanation
Correct matching: 1. Apolysis refers to the detachment and separation of the old cuticle from the underlying epidermis (ii); 2. Ripening refers to the mature 5th instar silkworm becoming translucent and ready to spin a cocoon (iii); 3. Ecdysis refers to the physical shedding of the old cuticular remnants/exuviae (iv); 4. Moult hormone (ecdysone) is secreted by the prothoracic gland (i). Thus, 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i (Option B) is correct.
सही मिलान: 1. अपोलिसिस - पुरानी क्यूटिकल का अलग होना (ii); 2. राइपनिंग (परिपक्वता) - कोकून कातने के लिए तैयार होना (iii); 3. एकडाइसिस - पुरानी त्वचा के अवशेषों का त्याग (iv); 4. मोल्ट हार्मोन (एकडायसोन) - प्रोथोरेसिक ग्रंथि (i)। अतः विकल्प B (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i) सही है।
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3530🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Which of the following statement is/ are correct about juvenile hormone analogues
i. Prolong larval stages
ii. Improve cocoon yield
iii. Carbozan
iv. Improve silk yield
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Juvenile hormone analogues (JHAs, such as Methoprene or R394) applied in micro-quantities to early 5th instar larvae: prolong the 5th larval instar duration by 24-36 hours (i), thereby increasing leaf ingestion to improve single cocoon weight and yield (ii), and significantly enhancing silk gland protein synthesis to improve overall raw silk yield (iv). Statement iii ('Carbozan') is unrelated. Thus, i, ii and iv (Option D) is correct.
रेशम उत्पादन में जुवेनाइल हार्मोन एनालॉग्स (JHAs) के अनुप्रयोग से 5वें इन्स्टार लार्वा की अवधि बढ़ती है (i), जिससे कोकून की उपज में वृद्धि होती है (ii), और रेशम ग्रंथियों की वृद्धि से कुल रेशम उत्पादन में सुधार होता है (iv)। अतः विकल्प D (i, ii and iv) सही है।
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3531🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
What is spacing followed for raising cuttings in nursery bed
A) 10 cm x 10 cm
B) 20 cm x 10 cm
C) 30 cm x 20 cm
D) 40 cm x 30 cm
Explanation
In standard mulberry nursery beds, hardwood cuttings are planted at a close spacing of 20 cm between rows and 10 cm between cuttings (20 cm x 10 cm), accommodating approximately 45-50 cuttings per square meter.
शहतूत की नर्सरी क्यारियों में कलमों (cuttings) को रोपने के लिए मानक दूरी 20 सेमी x 10 सेमी (20 cm x 10 cm) रखी जाती है।
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3532🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Which of the following is a system of planting in mulberry plantation for sericulture
i. Pit system
ii. Ridges and furrow system
iii. Paired row system
iv. No specific system
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Standard recommended systems of mulberry planting include: Pit system (individual pits, e.g. 90x90 cm), Ridges and Furrow system (row planting on ridges to assist furrow irrigation), and Paired Row system (e.g. [90+150]x60 cm for shoot harvesting and mechanization). Statement iv ('no specific system') is invalid. Hence, i, ii and iii (Option A) is correct.
शहतूत रोपण की प्रमुख प्रणालियों में पिट प्रणाली (Pit system - गड्ढा विधि), रिज और फरो प्रणाली (Ridges and furrow system - मेड़ एवं नाली विधि), और पेयर्ड रो प्रणाली (Paired row system - युग्मित पंक्ति विधि) शामिल हैं। अतः विकल्प A (i, ii and iii) सही है।
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3533🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Which of the following statement is/ are correct about IPM against uzi fly
i. Storing leaf/shoots in separate room
ii. Avoid automatic door closure
iii. Wire mesh on windows
iv. Placing trap tablet solutions
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Integrated Pest Management (IPM) against the silkworm uzi fly includes: storing freshly harvested mulberry leaves/shoots in an isolated anti-uzi fly proof room (i), fitting fine wire mesh (wire mesh of 14-16 mesh size) on windows and ventilators to physically exclude adult flies (iii), and placing uzi trap tablet solutions (uzi traps containing phenyl hydrazine/trap attractant) inside and outside rearing rooms (iv). Installing automatic door closures is recommended to prevent flies entering, so avoiding automatic closures (ii) is incorrect. Hence, i, iii and iv (Option C) is correct.
उजी मक्खी के विरुद्ध एकीकृत कीट प्रबंधन (IPM) में: पत्तियों को अलग कमरे में रखना (i), खिड़कियों पर जाली लगाना (iii), और उजी ट्रैप टैबलेट घोल रखना (iv) शामिल हैं। स्वचालित रूप से बंद होने वाले दरवाजे लगाना आवश्यक होता है, इसलिए कथन ii गलत है। अतः विकल्प C (i, iii and iv) सही है।
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3534🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Consider the following pairs
1. Flame gun - i. Pruning
2. Humidifier - ii. Disinfection
3. Secateur - iii. Chemical application
4. Sprayers - iv. Rearing house
Which of above pairs are correctly matched?
A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
C) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
Explanation
Correct matching: 1. Flame gun is used for thermal disinfection of rearing appliances and rooms (ii); 2. Humidifier is installed in the rearing house to regulate relative humidity (iv); 3. Secateur is a specialized garden tool used for branch cutting and pruning of mulberry plants (i); 4. Sprayers (knapsack/power sprayers) are used for chemical application and disinfectant spraying (iii). Thus, 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii (Option C) is correct.
सही मिलान: 1. फ्लेम गन - थर्मल कीटाणुशोधन (ii); 2. ह्यूमिडिफायर - कीटपालन कक्ष में आर्द्रता नियंत्रण (iv); 3. सिकेट्योर - शहतूत की प्रूनिंग/कटाई (i); 4. स्प्रेयर - रसायनों/कीटाणुनाशकों का छिड़काव (iii)। अतः सही उत्तर 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii (विकल्प C) है।
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3535🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Which of the following is not included in integrated pest management
A) Use of biological agents
B) Chemical control
C) Nutrient management
D) Physical control
Explanation
Integrated Pest Management (IPM) incorporates physical control (traps, screens, barriers), biological control (parasitoids, predators, pathogens), cultural practices, and targeted judicious chemical control. Nutrient management is an agronomic soil fertility practice and is not classified as a pest control component of IPM.
एकीकृत कीट प्रबंधन (IPM) में भौतिक नियंत्रण (Physical), जैविक नियंत्रण (Biological), और रासायनिक नियंत्रण (Chemical) शामिल होते हैं। 'पोषक तत्व प्रबंधन' (Nutrient management) मृदा उर्वरता प्रबंधन का हिस्सा है, यह IPM का घटक नहीं है।
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3536🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Failure of a grafted union between a scion and a rootstock to develop into a healthy, composite plant is called
A) Bud incompatibility
B) Graft incompatibility
C) Layer incompatibility
D) Seedling incompatibility
Explanation
Graft incompatibility is defined as the inability or failure of two distinct plant parts (the rootstock and the scion) when grafted together to successfully form a functional vascular union and develop into a healthy, viable composite plant.
कलम बांधने (grafting) के बाद सायन (scion) और रूटस्टॉक (rootstock) के बीच संवहनी संयोजन का न बनना और स्वस्थ पौधे के रूप में विकसित न हो पाना 'ग्राफ्ट असंगति' (Graft incompatibility) कहलाता है।
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3537🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
Silk fiber consist of protein ______ secreted from glands and a gum called ______ which cements the two filaments together
A) Fepone, saicine
B) Funine, septin
C) Fibroin, sericin
D) Faprin, setrine
Explanation
Silk bave spun by silkworms consists of two brins of the structural fibrous protein 'Fibroin' secreted by the posterior division of the labial silk glands, held and cemented together by a gelatinous water-soluble gum called 'Sericin' secreted by the middle division of the glands. Fibroin accounts for ~75-80% and sericin accounts for ~20-25% of raw silk.
रेशम का धागा मुख्य रूप से दो प्रोटीनों से बना होता है: मुख्य संरचनात्मक रेशा प्रोटीन 'फाइब्रोइन' (Fibroin) और दोनों फिलामेंट्स को आपस में चिपकाने वाला गोंद 'सेरिसिन' (Sericin) कहलाता है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3538📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsArt & Culture
Which of the following is NOT the classical language of India?
A) Odia
B) Maithili
C) Malayalam
D) Telugu
Explanation
The classical languages of India originally recognized by the Government of India are Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Telugu (2008), Kannada (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014) [later expanded to include Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali in Oct 2024]. Maithili is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, but it is NOT recognized as a classical language.
भारत की शास्त्रीय भाषाओं (Classical Languages) में तमिल, संस्कृत, तेलुगु, कन्नड़, मलयालम और ओडिया (तथा हाल ही में जोड़ी गई मराठी, पाली, प्राकृत, असमिया और बंगाली) शामिल हैं। मैथिली आठवीं अनुसूची में शामिल भाषा है, लेकिन शास्त्रीय भाषा नहीं है।
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3539📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
Match the following pairs:
Column - I (Organisation)
i) World Health Organization (WHO)
ii) World Trade Organization (WTO)
iii) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
iv) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Column - II (Director General/Headed by)
1) Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
2) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
3) Kristalina Georgieva
4) Audrey Azoulay

Choose the correct option:
A) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
B) i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2
C) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3
D) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
Explanation
Correct matching: i) WHO is headed by Director-General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus (2); ii) WTO is headed by Director-General Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala (1); iii) UNESCO is headed by Director-General Audrey Azoulay (4); iv) IMF is headed by Managing Director Kristalina Georgieva (3). Thus, i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 (Option A) is correct.
सही मिलान: WHO - टेड्रोस अदनोम घेब्येयियस (2); WTO - न्गोजी ओकोंजो-इवेला (1); UNESCO - ऑड्रे अज़ोले (4); IMF - क्रिस्टालिना जॉर्जीवा (3)। अतः विकल्प A (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3) सही है।
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3540📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
Which of the following statements about the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is/are correct?
i. ASEAN was founded on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
ii. Brunei joined in 1984, followed by Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia between 1995 and 1999.
iii. Today, ASEAN has 10 member states, working together for regional cooperation and development.
A) Only i
B) Only i and ii
C) Only ii and iii
D) All of the above
Explanation
All three statements about ASEAN are factually correct: (i) founded on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the five founding members; (ii) Brunei joined in 1984, Vietnam in 1995, Laos and Myanmar in 1997, and Cambodia in 1999; (iii) it comprises 10 member states fostering political, security, economic, and socio-cultural cooperation.
आसियान (ASEAN) के संबंध में तीनों कथन पूरी तरह सही हैं: इसकी स्थापना 8 अगस्त 1967 को बैंकॉक घोषणापत्र द्वारा 5 देशों ने की (i); बाद में ब्रुनेई (1984), वियतनाम, लाओस, म्यांमार और कंबोडिया (1995-1999) शामिल हुए (ii); और आज इसके 10 सदस्य देश हैं (iii)। अतः विकल्प D (All of the above) सही है।
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3541🔬General ScienceHuman Diseases & Health
Which of the following is NOT a common cause of ringworm infection?
A) Prolonged contact with highly infected soil
B) Close contact and sharing personal items like towels and bedding with an infected person
C) Close contact with infected animals
D) Consuming contaminated food and water
Explanation
Ringworm (dermatophytosis / tinea) is a fungal skin infection caused by dermatophytes (such as Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton). It spreads through direct skin-to-skin contact with infected people, contact with infected animals, sharing contaminated fomites (towels, bedding, combs), or contact with infested soil. It is NOT transmitted by consuming contaminated food or drinking water.
दाद (Ringworm) एक कवक जनित त्वचा संक्रमण (फंगल इन्फेक्शन) है जो संक्रमित व्यक्ति, जानवरों, मिट्टी या संक्रमित तौलिए/कपड़ों के सीधे संपर्क से फैलता है। यह दूषित भोजन और पानी के सेवन से नहीं फैलता है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3542📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsAwards & Honors
Match the following pairs:
Nobel Prize Award Winners 2024 - Category
i) Medicine
ii) Physics
iii) Chemistry
iv) Literature

Recipient(s)
1) David Baker, and Demis Hassabis and John Jumper
2) John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton
3) Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun
4) Han Kang

Choose the correct option:
A) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
B) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
C) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
D) i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4
Explanation
Nobel Prize Winners 2024: i) Medicine: Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun for the discovery of microRNA (3); ii) Physics: John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton for foundational discoveries in machine learning with artificial neural networks (2); iii) Chemistry: David Baker (computational protein design) and Demis Hassabis & John M. Jumper (protein structure prediction) (1); iv) Literature: South Korean author Han Kang (4). Hence, i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4 (Option D) is correct.
नोबेल पुरस्कार 2024 के विजेता: चिकित्सा - विक्टर एम्ब्रोस और गैरी रुवकुन (3); भौतिकी - जॉन जे. हॉपफील्ड और जेफ्री ई. हिंटन (2); रसायन विज्ञान - डेविड बेकर, डेमिस हसाबिस और जॉन जम्पर (1); साहित्य - हान कांग (4)। अतः विकल्प D (i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4) सही है।
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3543📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsAwards & Honors
Which of the following statements is correct about the winners of the 2025 Padma Bhushan award?
A) Shobana Chandrakumar in the field of Literature
B) Nalli Kuppuswami Chetti in the field of Trade and Industry
C) Jose Chacko Periappuram in the field of Public Affair
D) Pankaj Patel in the field of Literature and Education
Explanation
Nalli Kuppuswami Chetti, a renowned textile industrialist, philanthropist, and head of Nalli Silks, was honored with the Padma Bhushan in the field of Trade and Industry. Shobana Chandrakumar was conferred Padma Bhushan for Art, Jose Chacko Periappuram for Medicine, and Pankaj Patel for Trade and Industry.
पद्म भूषण 2025 के विजेताओं में नल्ली कुप्पुस्वामी चेट्टी (Nalli Kuppuswami Chetti - नल्ली सिल्क्स) को 'व्यापार और उद्योग' (Trade and Industry) के क्षेत्र में सम्मानित किया गया। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3544📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Geography - Lakes
Match the following pairs:
Important Facts about lakes in India
i) Largest freshwater lake
ii) Largest Saline water lake
iii) Longest Lake
iv) Largest Artificial Lake

Location
1) Chilka Lake, Orissa
2) Gobind Ballabh Pant Sagar Lake
3) Wular Lake, Jammu and Kashmir
4) Vembanad lake, Kerala

Choose the correct option:
A) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
B) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
C) i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4
D) i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1
Explanation
Correct matching: i) Largest freshwater lake in India is Wular Lake, Jammu & Kashmir (3); ii) Largest brackish/saline water lake is Chilika Lake, Odisha (1); iii) Longest lake is Vembanad Lake, Kerala (96.5 km) (4); iv) Largest man-made/artificial lake is Gobind Ballabh Pant Sagar Lake (Rihand Dam) (2). Hence, i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 (Option A) is correct.
सही मिलान: सबसे बड़ी मीठे पानी की झील - वुलर झील, जम्मू और कश्मीर (3); सबसे बड़ी खारे पानी की झील - चिल्का झील, ओडिशा (1); सबसे लंबी झील - वेम्बनाड झील, केरल (4); सबसे बड़ी कृत्रिम झील - गोविंद बल्लभ पंत सागर झील (2)। अतः विकल्प A (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2) सही है।
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3545📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography & World Heritage
Which of the following countries is NOT part of the UNESCO Global Geoparks Network?
A) Czechia
B) Morocco
C) Thailand
D) India
Explanation
India currently does not have any site designated as a UNESCO Global Geopark despite having numerous Geological Survey of India (GSI) National Geological Monuments. Czechia (Bohemian Paradise), Morocco (M'Goun), and Thailand (Satun) all possess recognized UNESCO Global Geoparks.
भारत में वर्तमान में यूनेस्को का कोई भी ग्लोबल जियोपार्क (UNESCO Global Geopark) नहीं है। चेकिया, मोरक्को और थाईलैंड तीनों के पास मान्यता प्राप्त यूनेस्को ग्लोबल जियोपार्क हैं। अतः भारत (India) सही उत्तर है।
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3546📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports & J&K Personalities
Who is the first Indian woman appointed as a jury member at the Olympic Games?
A) Afreen Hyder
B) Mehreen Tariq
C) Bilquis Mir
D) Sania Mirza
Explanation
Bilquis Mir, an accomplished water sports athlete and canoeist from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, created history by becoming the first Indian woman appointed as a jury member at the Olympic Games (Paris Olympics 2024).
जम्मू-कश्मीर के श्रीनगर की जल क्रीड़ा एथलीट और कयाकिंग-कैनोइंग कोच बिलकिस मीर (Bilquis Mir) पेरिस ओलंपिक 2024 में जूरी सदस्य के रूप में नियुक्त होने वाली पहली भारतीय महिला बनीं।
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3547📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsMountain Passes of J&K and Ladakh
Arrange the following Passes in J&K/Ladakh in decreasing order of their height.
I. Chang La
II. Baralacha La
III. Zoji La
IV. Lachulang La
Choose the correct option:
A) I, II, III, IV
B) II, I, III, IV
C) III, I, II, IV
D) I, IV, II, III
Explanation
Pass elevations: 1. Chang La ~ 5,360 m (17,590 ft) (I); 2. Lachulung La (Nakee La / Lungalacha La) ~ 5,059 m (16,600 ft) (IV); 3. Baralacha La ~ 4,890 m (16,040 ft) (II); 4. Zoji La ~ 3,528 m (11,575 ft) (III). In decreasing order of altitude: I (Chang La) > IV (Lachulang La) > II (Baralacha La) > III (Zoji La). Thus, Option D (I, IV, II, III) is correct.
दर्रों की ऊंचाई घटते क्रम में: चांग ला (~5360 मी) > लाचुलांग ला (~5059 मी) > बारालाचा ला (~4890 मी) > ज़ोजी ला (~3528 मी)। अतः सही क्रम I, IV, II, III (विकल्प D) है।
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3548📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsLakes of Jammu and Kashmir
Which lake near Jammu is known for its scenic beauty and is a popular picnic spot?
A) Surinsar Lake
B) Dal Lake
C) Wular Lake
D) Mansarovar Lake
Explanation
Surinsar Lake (located ~42 km from Jammu city, adjacent to Mansar Lake with which it shares Ramsar wetland status) is renowned for its picturesque setting amidst pine-covered hills and is a widely popular picnic destination in Jammu district.
जम्मू के निकट सुरिनसर झील (Surinsar Lake) अपनी प्राकृतिक सुंदरता, कमल के फूलों और देवदार के वनों से घिरे होने के कारण एक प्रसिद्ध पिकनिक स्थल है। यह मानसर झील के साथ जुड़वां झील के रूप में जानी जाती है।
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3549📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity & Municipalities
Which of the following statements regarding Article 243T of the Indian Constitution, inserted by the 74th Amendment Act, are correct?
A) It deals with the constitution and composition of ward committees consisting of elected members representing each ward in a Municipality.
B) It provides for the reservation of seats in every municipality for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
C) It mandates the reservation of one-third of the total number of seats for women, including women belonging to SCs and STs.
D) It allows the state legislature to provide for the reservation of seats for backward classes.
Explanation
Article 243T of the Indian Constitution (introduced by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992) explicitly provides for the reservation of seats in every Municipality for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population (Clause 1), as well as reservation for women (Clause 3). Primary subject-heading of Article 243T is 'Reservation of seats'.
74वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा जोड़ा गया अनुच्छेद 243T (Article 243T) नगर पालिकाओं में अनुसूचित जातियों (SC) और अनुसूचित जनजातियों (ST) के लिए जनसंख्या के अनुपात में सीटों के आरक्षण तथा महिलाओं के आरक्षण से संबंधित है।
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3550📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Why is 31 October 2019, the day the state of Jammu and Kashmir was reorganized into two Union Territories, considered significant in Indian history?
A) It marks the signing of the Shimla Agreement between India and Pakistan.
B) It commemorates the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
C) It marks the day India signed the Instrument of Accession with Jammu and Kashmir.
D) It is observed as National Integration Day in memory of India's independence.
Explanation
October 31 marks the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (celebrated across India as National Unity Day / Rashtriya Ekta Diwas). The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was deliberately brought into effect on 31 October 2019 to honor the 'Iron Man of India' who spearheaded the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.
31 अक्टूबर सरदार वल्लभभाई पटेल की जयंती (राष्ट्रीय एकता दिवस) है। रियासतों के एकीकरण में उनकी ऐतिहासिक भूमिका को श्रद्धांजलि देने के लिए जम्मू-कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम को जानबूझकर 31 अक्टूबर 2019 से प्रभावी किया गया था।
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3551📚Computer Science & ITProgramming Languages & Execution
Arrange the following programming languages in ascending order of execution speed.
A) Python, Java, C, Machine Code
B) Java, Python, C, Machine Code
C) Machine Code, C, Java, Python
D) Machine Code, Python, C, Java
Explanation
In ascending order of execution speed (slowest to fastest): Python (interpreted dynamic high-level language, slowest) < Java (bytecode compiled, runs on JVM with JIT) < C (compiled directly to native object code) < Machine Code (native binary instructions executed directly by the CPU hardware with zero abstraction overhead, fastest). Hence, Option A is correct.
निष्पादन गति के बढ़ते क्रम में (धीमी से सबसे तेज): पायथन (इंटरप्रिटेड, सबसे धीमी) < जावा (JVM बाइटकोड) < सी भाषा (कंपाइल की गई नेटिव भाषा) < मशीन कोड (हार्डवेयर द्वारा सीधे निष्पादित बाइनरी कोड, सबसे तेज)। अतः सही क्रम Python, Java, C, Machine Code (विकल्प A) है।
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3552📚Computer Science & ITComputer Architecture & Memory Hierarchy
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between storage registers and main memory?
A) Storage registers are faster and located within the CPU, while main memory is slower and external to the CPU.
B) Storage registers are used for permanent data storage, while main memory is used for temporary data storage.
C) Storage registers are larger in capacity, while main memory is smaller in capacity.
D) Storage registers are used for storing files, while main memory is used for executing programs.
Explanation
CPU registers are high-speed internal memory storage cells located directly inside the processor chip with sub-nanosecond access times. In contrast, main memory (RAM) is located outside the CPU on the motherboard and is significantly slower with higher access latency.
रजिस्टर (Registers) सीपीयू के आंतरिक भाग में स्थित अति-तीव्र मेमोरी स्टोरेज होते हैं, जबकि मुख्य मेमोरी (RAM) सीपीयू के बाहर मदरबोर्ड पर होती है और इसकी गति रजिस्टरों की तुलना में काफी धीमी होती है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3553📚Computer Science & ITAlgorithms & Graph Theory
Which algorithm is used by Google Maps to calculate the fastest route based on travel time?
A) Breadth-First Search (BFS)
B) Depth-First Search (DFS)
C) Dijkstra's Algorithm
D) Bellman-Ford Algorithm
Explanation
Google Maps and modern GPS navigation systems model road networks as weighted directed graphs (where edge weights represent distance or real-time travel time) and use Dijkstra's Algorithm (and its heuristic variant, the A* Search algorithm) to compute the single-source shortest/fastest path between origin and destination.
गूगल मैप्स और जीपीएस नेविगेशन सिस्टम सड़क नेटवर्क के ग्राफ में सबसे तेज मार्ग (न्यूनतम यात्रा समय) की गणना करने के लिए डिजक्स्ट्रा एल्गोरिदम (Dijkstra's Algorithm / A* सर्च) का उपयोग करते हैं।
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3554📚Computer Science & ITWord Processing (MS Word)
Sofi wrote a book with many chapters and wanted to create a Table of Contents in her document. She clicked References > Table of Contents, but a message appeared saying, 'No entry of data was found' What could be one of the reasons for this message?
A) She did not change the size of chapter titles.
B) She did not apply heading styles to the chapter titles.
C) She did not update the Table of Contents.
D) She used an unsupported file format.
Explanation
In Microsoft Word, the automatic Table of Contents generator scans the document for text formatted with built-in Heading Styles (such as Heading 1, Heading 2, Heading 3). If chapter titles are merely styled with larger font sizes or bolding without applying actual Heading styles, Word finds no tagged heading entries and displays the error message 'No table of contents entries found'.
माइक्रोसॉफ्ट वर्ड में स्वचालित विषय-सूची (Table of Contents) दस्तावेज़ में हेडिंग शैलियों (Heading 1, Heading 2 आदि) के आधार पर बनती है। यदि शीर्षकों पर हेडिंग स्टाइल लागू नहीं किया गया है, तो 'No entry of data was found' की त्रुटि दिखाई देती है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3555📚Computer Science & ITSpreadsheets (MS Excel Formulas)
In Excel, you have a dataset with dates in column A and sales amounts in column B. You want to calculate the total sales for the month of March 2025 using a single formula. Which of the following formulas will correctly calculate this?
(i) =SUMIFS(B:B, A:A, ">=03/01/2025", A:A, "<=03/31/2025")
(ii) =SUMPRODUCT((MONTH(A:A)=3)(YEAR(A:A)=2025)B:B)
(iii) =SUMIF(A:A, "March 2025", B:B)
(iv) =SUM(IF((TEXT(A:A,"mmmm yyyy")="March 2025"), B:B, 0)) (entered as an array formula)
Which formula(s) will correctly calculate the total sales for March 2025?
A) Only ii and iii
B) Only i, iii and iv
C) Only i, ii, and iv
D) All of the above
Explanation
Formulas (i), (ii), and (iv) are valid Excel formulas to sum by month and year: (i) uses standard SUMIFS with date boundary conditions; (ii) uses boolean multiplication inside SUMPRODUCT to isolate March 2025; and (iv) evaluates the formatted text array using SUM(IF(...)). Formula (iii) =SUMIF(A:A, "March 2025", B:B) fails because Excel dates are stored as numeric serial numbers, which do not match the literal text string 'March 2025'. Thus, Only i, ii, and iv (Option C) is correct.
एक्सेल में: फॉर्मूला (i) SUMIFS द्वारा तारीख की सीमा निर्धारित करता है; फॉर्मूला (ii) SUMPRODUCT में MONTH=3 और YEAR=2025 की जांच करता है; फॉर्मूला (iv) ऐरे फॉर्मूला के रूप में काम करता है। लेकिन फॉर्मूला (iii) काम नहीं करेगा क्योंकि एक्सेल में तारीखें सीरियल नंबर के रूप में संग्रहीत होती हैं, जो टेक्स्ट 'March 2025' से मेल नहीं खाएंगी। अतः विकल्प C (Only i, ii, and iv) सही है।
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3556📚Computer Science & ITDatabases & Productivity Software
Which of the following best describes the difference between Microsoft Excel and Microsoft Access in terms of their primary functionalities?
A) Microsoft Excel is optimized for relational database management, while Microsoft Access is designed for advanced data visualization and charting.
B) Microsoft Excel is primarily a spreadsheet tool for data analysis and calculations, while Microsoft Access is a database management system for handling structured data and relationships.
C) Microsoft Excel is used for creating and managing large-scale databases, while Microsoft Access is used for performing statistical analysis and creating pivot tables.
D) Microsoft Excel is a tool for managing unstructured data, while Microsoft Access is a tool for creating and editing documents.
Explanation
Microsoft Excel is primarily a spreadsheet application designed for numerical calculations, financial modeling, statistical analysis, and chart visualization. Microsoft Access is a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) designed to store, manage, query, and enforce integrity across relational tables of structured data.
माइक्रोसॉफ्ट एक्सेल मुख्य रूप से डेटा विश्लेषण, गणना और चार्टिंग के लिए एक स्प्रेडशीट टूल है, जबकि माइक्रोसॉफ्ट एक्सेस (MS Access) रिलेशनल संरचित डेटा और संबंधों (relationships) को प्रबंधित करने वाला एक रिलेशनल डेटाबेस मैनेजमेंट सिस्टम (RDBMS) है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3557📚Computer Science & ITComputer Networks & Protocols
What does IPv6 stand for, and what is its primary improvement over IPv4?
A) Internet Packet Version 6; it introduces encrypted headers and replaces TCP for end-to-end transmission.
B) Internet Protocol Version 6; it expands the address space from 32-bit to 128-bit, allowing for vastly more unique IP addresses.
C) Interconnect Protocol Virtual 6; it uses MAC addressing for global routing and replaces ARP with NAT.
D) Internet Pathway Version 6; it eliminates IP routing and uses direct DNS-based addressing for all traffic.
Explanation
IPv6 stands for Internet Protocol Version 6. Its main advancement over IPv4 is increasing the IP address length from 32 bits (~4.3 billion addresses) to 128 bits (~3.4 x 10^38 addresses), resolving the global address exhaustion crisis of IPv4.
IPv6 का पूर्ण रूप 'Internet Protocol Version 6' है। IPv4 की तुलना में इसका मुख्य सुधार एड्रेस स्पेस को 32-बिट से बढ़ाकर 128-बिट करना है, जिससे लगभग असीमित विशिष्ट आईपी पते उपलब्ध होते हैं। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3558📚Computer Science & ITCyber Security & Email Protocols
Which of the following best describes the purpose of DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) in email security?
A) It encrypts the entire email message to ensure only the recipient can read it.
B) It verifies that the sender's IP address is authorized to send email for the domain.
C) It adds a digital signature to the email header, enabling the receiver to verify the email's authenticity and integrity.
D) It blocks spam emails by checking the sender's IP reputation against a global blacklist.
Explanation
DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) is an email authentication method that uses public-key cryptography to append a digital signature to outgoing email headers. The receiving mail server uses the sender domain's public key published in DNS to verify that the email originated from the domain and has not been altered in transit.
DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) ईमेल हेडर में एक डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर जोड़ता है, जिससे प्राप्तकर्ता मेल सर्वर प्रेषक डोमेन के सार्वजनिक कुंजी द्वारा यह सत्यापित कर सकता है कि ईमेल वास्तविक है और मार्ग में इसके साथ कोई छेड़छाड़ नहीं की गई है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3559📚Computer Science & ITCyber Security & Malware Analysis
Which of the following techniques is commonly used by advanced computer viruses to avoid detection by antivirus software and maintain persistence on an infected system?
A) Using polymorphic code that changes its appearance each time it infects a new file, making signature-based detection difficult.
B) Utilizing public-key cryptography to encrypt payloads and trigger execution only upon receiving a remote key from a command-and-control server.
C) Altering system-level DNS resolver cache entries to redirect legitimate domain queries to attacker-controlled IP addresses.
D) Injecting kernel-mode rootkits that intercept system calls to hide files, processes, and network connections from security tools.
Explanation
Polymorphic code is a classic evasion technique employed by advanced viruses in which the virus encrypts its body with a different key and mutates its decryption routine upon each replication cycle, continuously altering its binary signature to defeat signature-based antivirus scanners.
पॉलीमॉर्फिक कोड (Polymorphic code) एक ऐसी तकनीक है जिसमें वायरस हर बार नई फाइल को संक्रमित करते समय अपनी बाइनरी बनावट/हस्ताक्षर को बदल देता है, जिससे सिग्नेचर-आधारित एंटीवायरस सॉफ्टवेयर द्वारा इसका पता लगाना अत्यंत कठिन हो जाता है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3560📚Computer Science & ITCyber Security & Antivirus Tech
How do most modern antivirus solutions detect suspicious files that may contain viruses or malware?
A) By matching file signatures and using heuristic analysis to detect abnormal behavior.
B) By encrypting the file system and checking hashes against a global ledger.
C) By monitoring network traffic and source IPs to block threats before download.
D) By analyzing code behavior and alerting if it resembles a virus.
Explanation
Modern antivirus software combines signature-based detection (matching known file hash patterns and code snippets against a database of identified malware) with heuristic and behavioral analysis (detecting unknown, zero-day malware based on suspicious instructions, anomalies, or malicious execution patterns).
आधुनिक एंटीवायरस समाधान ज्ञात मैलवेयर के फाइल सिग्नेचर (हस्ताक्षर मिलान) और नए व अज्ञात खतरों का पता लगाने के लिए ह्यूरिस्टिक विश्लेषण (Heuristic analysis) के संयोजन का उपयोग करते हैं। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3561📚Computer Science & ITComputer Networks & Hardware
Which device is primarily responsible for connecting different networks and making decisions based on IP addresses to forward data packets?
A) VLAN
B) Router
C) Repeater
D) Bridge
Explanation
A Router is a Layer 3 (Network Layer) networking device that interconnects distinct networks and inspects destination IP addresses in incoming packets, using routing tables to direct data along the optimal path across the internet.
राउटर (Router) ओएसआई मॉडल की नेटवर्क लेयर (Layer 3) पर काम करने वाला उपकरण है जो विभिन्न नेटवर्कों को आपस में जोड़ता है और आईपी पते के आधार पर डेटा पैकेटों को सही गंतव्य तक अग्रेषित (forward) करता है।
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3562📚Computer Science & ITOperating Systems
Which of the following best explains the function of the operating system (OS) in managing hardware and software resources on a computer?
A) The OS translates high-level programming languages into machine code so that applications can run directly on the hardware.
B) The OS manages hardware, provides a user interface, and allocates resources like CPU, memory, and storage between applications and hardware.
C) The OS take a program instruction by instruction and computes its output.
D) The OS primarily functions as a web browser that facilitates internet connectivity and online communications.
Explanation
An Operating System (OS) is system software that acts as an intermediary between user applications and computer hardware, managing device drivers, memory management, CPU scheduling, file storage, and providing user interfaces (CLI/GUI).
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम (OS) सिस्टम सॉफ्टवेयर है जो हार्डवेयर का प्रबंधन करता है, यूजर इंटरफेस प्रदान करता है, और एप्लिकेशन और हार्डवेयर के बीच सीपीयू, मेमोरी और स्टोरेज जैसे संसाधनों का आवंटन करता है।
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3563📚Computer Science & ITComputer Hardware & Peripherals
Which of the following is not a Peripheral?
A) Pen Drive
B) Mouse
C) TouchPad
D) Printer
Explanation
Peripheral devices are auxiliary hardware components connected externally to a computer system (such as mouse, keyboard, external pen drive, printer, scanner). A Touchpad is an integrated built-in input pointing component permanently built into a laptop chassis, not an external peripheral.
पेरिफेरल (Peripheral) उपकरण वे सहायक हार्डवेयर होते हैं जो कंप्यूटर से बाह्य रूप से जुड़े होते हैं (जैसे माउस, पेन ड्राइव, प्रिंटर)। टचपैड (Touchpad) लैपटॉप में आंतरिक रूप से अंतर्निहित (integrated) इनपुट घटक होता है, बाह्य पेरिफेरल नहीं।
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3564📚Computer Science & ITComputer Components & Architecture
What best describes the relationship between firmware, hardware, and humanware in a computer system?
A) Firmware provides the physical structure that users (humanware) interact with, making it the bridge between software and hardware.
B) Human-ware develops and operates software systems, while firmware acts as a specialized form of software that manages hardware functions.
C) Firmware is used exclusively by human-ware to create application-level interfaces for end users.
D) Human-ware includes only end-users, while firmware refers to software stored on the hard disk for temporary boot processes.
Explanation
In computing terminology, 'humanware' refers to the personnel who design, program, administer, and operate computer systems. 'Firmware' is low-level permanent software programmed into non-volatile hardware memory (ROM/Flash) that provides low-level control for the device's hardware.
ह्यूमनवेयर (Humanware) वे लोग होते हैं जो सॉफ्टवेयर सिस्टम विकसित और संचालित करते हैं, जबकि फर्मवेयर (Firmware) ROM में स्थायी रूप से संचित विशेष सॉफ्टवेयर होता है जो सीधे हार्डवेयर कार्यों को नियंत्रित करता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3565📚Computer Science & ITCryptography & Cyber Security
What role does the RSA algorithm play in computer communication systems?
A) It compresses data to reduce transmission time and improve network efficiency.
B) It encrypts and decrypts messages to ensure secure data exchange between parties.
C) It helps in routing decisions by verifying the authenticity of network nodes.
D) It detects errors in data transmission by using mathematical checksums.
Explanation
RSA (Rivest–Shamir–Adleman) is an asymmetric public-key cryptography algorithm widely used across computer communications (SSL/TLS, HTTPS, SSH, digital signatures) to encrypt sensitive data and authenticate electronic transmissions.
आरएसए (RSA) एल्गोरिदम एक सार्वजनिक-कुंजी असममित क्रिप्टोग्राफी (Public-key cryptography) एल्गोरिदम है जिसका उपयोग पक्षों के बीच सुरक्षित डेटा विनिमय सुनिश्चित करने के लिए संदेशों को एन्क्रिप्ट और डिक्रिप्ट करने में किया जाता है।
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3566📚Computer Science & ITProgramming Languages & Compilers
What is the main disadvantage of using assembly language in programming?
A) Assembly language programs run slower than high-level language programs because they require more CPU cycles.
B) Assembly language is hardware-dependent, making programs less portable across different computer systems.
C) Assembly language automatically manages memory, which can lead to unpredictable behavior.
D) Assembly language code is easier to write and understand compared to high-level languages, but harder to debug.
Explanation
Assembly language is a low-level programming language tied directly to the instruction set architecture (ISA) of a specific processor family (e.g., x86, ARM, MIPS). Consequently, code written in assembly language is machine-dependent and lacks portability across different architectures.
असेंबली भाषा की मुख्य कमी यह है कि यह हार्डवेयर-निर्भर (hardware-dependent / machine-dependent) होती है, जिसके कारण एक प्रोसेसर आर्किटेक्चर के लिए लिखा गया प्रोग्राम दूसरे सिस्टम पर पोर्टेबल नहीं होता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3567📚Computer Science & ITE-Governance & Digital India
Which of the following demonstrates the application of Information Technology in India to enhance public services?
A) Integration of blockchain technology in banking operations.
B) Implementation of the Aadhaar biometric identification system
C) Use of low-level programming languages in government applications
D) Deployment of Sewa Kendra at every district Headquarter.
Explanation
The Aadhaar biometric identification system (spearheaded by UIDAI) represents the world's largest digital identity program, leveraging cloud databases, multimodal biometrics (fingerprints and iris scans), and digital APIs to deliver transparent Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT) and public services across India.
भारत में सार्वजनिक सेवाओं के वितरण को सशक्त बनाने में सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी का सबसे प्रमुख और युगांतरकारी अनुप्रयोग 'आधार बायोमेट्रिक पहचान प्रणाली' (Aadhaar system) का कार्यान्वयन है, जिससे पारदर्शी डिजिटल पहचान और डीबीटी (DBT) संभव हुआ है।
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3568📚Computer Science & ITData Representation & Binary Logic
Which of the following best describes how information is represented inside a computer system?
A) Information is stored as analog signals because they provide more accurate data representation.
B) Information is stored in text format only, which computers interpret directly as commands.
C) Information is represented using decimal numbers for all processing and storage tasks.
D) Information is represented using binary code, where data is stored as combinations of 0s and 1s.
Explanation
Digital computers utilize two-state electronic switches (transistors being on or off, high or low voltage states) to store and process all instructions and data exclusively as binary digits (bits: 0s and 1s).
कंप्यूटर प्रणाली के भीतर सभी प्रकार की जानकारी और डेटा बाइनरी कोड (Binary code) के रूप में 0 और 1 के संयोजनों (bits) द्वारा दर्शाई और संग्रहीत की जाती है।
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3569🔬General ScienceOperational Amplifiers & Circuits
What is voltage at point X, assume opamp is ideal.
[Circuit: Non-inverting input (+) grounded (0V), inverting input (-) connected to +5V through 5 kΩ resistor, with feedback resistor 10 kΩ connected from output to (-), and output loaded with 1 kΩ to ground, node X is at the output]
A) 5V
B) 0V
C) 0.5V
D) 0.1 V
Explanation
Due to virtual ground at the ideal op-amp input terminals, V(-) = V(+) = 0 V. However, examining the circuit diagram, the non-inverting terminal is connected to virtual ground, and with standard balanced instrumentation or potential divider balancing, the output voltage V_X at balanced null state is 0V.
आदर्श ऑप-एम्प (Op-Amp) परिपथ में वर्चुअल ग्राउंड और इनपुट शून्य संतुलन के कारण आउटपुट बिंदु X पर विभव 0V होता है।
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3570📐MathematicsSet Theory & Applications
Out of 500 residents in a township, 320 subscribe to Newspaper A, 180 subscribe to Newspaper B, 150 subscribe to both A and B. Find how many residents subscribe only to Newspaper B.
A) 30
B) 130
C) 150
D) 180
Explanation
Number of residents who subscribe only to Newspaper B is given by n(B only) = n(B) - n(A ∩ B) = 180 - 150 = 30.
केवल समाचार पत्र B लेने वाले निवासियों की संख्या = n(B) - n(A ∩ B) = 180 - 150 = 30। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3571📊EconomicsElasticity of Demand & Revenue
Producers' total revenue will decrease if:
A) the price rises and demand is elastic
B) income increases and the good is a normal good
C) the price falls and demand is elastic
D) income falls and the good is an inferior good.
Explanation
When demand is price elastic (|Ed| > 1), the percentage decrease in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage increase in price. Therefore, if price rises, total revenue (TR = P * Q) will decrease.
जब मांग लोचदार (elastic, |Ed| > 1) होती है, तो कीमत में वृद्धि होने पर मांग की मात्रा में उससे अधिक अनुपात में गिरावट आती है, जिसके परिणामस्वरूप उत्पादकों का कुल आगम (Total Revenue) घट जाता है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3572📊EconomicsConsumer Theory & Elasticity
If the cross elasticity of demand between goods A and B is positive,
A) the demands for A and B are both price elastic.
B) A and B are complements.
C) A and B are substitutes.
D) the demands for A and B are both price inelastic.
Explanation
Cross price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded of good A to a change in the price of good B. A positive cross elasticity (Ec > 0) means that an increase in the price of good B leads to an increase in demand for good A, which defines substitute goods (e.g., tea and coffee).
यदि दो वस्तुओं A और B के बीच मांग की तिरछी लोच (Cross elasticity of demand) धनात्मक है, तो इसका अर्थ है कि एक वस्तु की कीमत बढ़ने पर दूसरी की मांग बढ़ती है। ऐसी वस्तुएं स्थानापन्न वस्तुएं (Substitutes) होती हैं।
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3573📊EconomicsMarket Structures
Under which market structure does the firm's demand curve coincide with the market demand curve?
A) Perfect Competition
B) Monopoly
C) Monopolistic Competition
D) Oligopoly
Explanation
In a pure Monopoly, the single firm comprises the entire industry. Since there are no rival producers or close substitutes, the individual firm's demand curve is identically the market demand curve (downward-sloping).
एकाधिकार (Monopoly) में केवल एक ही उत्पादक/फर्म पूरे उद्योग का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है। इसलिए एकाधिकारी फर्म का मांग वक्र ही पूरे बाजार का मांग वक्र होता है।
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3574📊EconomicsPerfect Competition
In the case of a perfectly competitive firm, the
A) firm's marginal revenue exceeds the price of the product.
B) change in the firm's total revenue equals the price of the product multiplied by the change in quantity sold.
C) firm's marginal revenue is less than average revenue.
D) price of the product falls sharply when the quantity the firm sells doubles.
Explanation
A perfectly competitive firm is a price taker facing a perfectly horizontal demand curve where P = AR = MR. Total revenue is TR = P Q. Since price P is constant, any change in total revenue is ΔTR = P ΔQ (the price multiplied by the change in quantity sold).
पूर्ण प्रतिस्पर्धा में फर्म कीमत स्वीकारक (price taker) होती है जहाँ कीमत P स्थिर रहती है। अतः कुल आगम में परिवर्तन (ΔTR) वस्तु की कीमत और बेची गई मात्रा में परिवर्तन के गुणनफल (P * ΔQ) के बराबर होता है।
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3575📊EconomicsDevelopment Economics & Income Distribution
Inequality of income is measured by:
A) Human development index
B) Gini coefficient
C) Per capita income
D) Physical quality of life index
Explanation
The Gini coefficient (derived from the Lorenz curve) is the primary statistical measure used internationally to gauge income or wealth inequality within a nation, ranging from 0 (perfect equality) to 1 (perfect inequality).
आय की असमानता को मापने का मानक सांख्यिकीय पैमाना 'गिनी गुणांक' (Gini coefficient / लॉरेंज वक्र) है, जिसका मान 0 (पूर्ण समानता) से 1 (पूर्ण असमानता) के बीच होता है।
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3576📊EconomicsNational Income Accounting
Suppose, GDP in India in FY 2023-24 is 6,00,000 and we also assume the following:
Mr. P, an Indian citizen, works in Tokyo and earns 50,000.
Mr. Q, an Australian citizen, works in Mumbai and earns 30,000.
Mrs. R, an Indian citizen, owns a restaurant in UK which she rents to a British family for 25,000.
Mrs. S, a German citizen, owns a factory in New Delhi which she rents to an Indian firm for 60,000.
Given above, GNP in India in FY 2023-24 will be:
A) 5,85,000
B) 6,45,000
C) 4,80,000
D) 5,30,000
Explanation
GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Factor income earned by Indian residents abroad: Mr. P (50,000) + Mrs. R (25,000) = 75,000. Factor income earned by non-residents in India: Mr. Q (30,000) + Mrs. S (60,000) = 90,000. NFIA = 75,000 - 90,000 = -15,000. Therefore, GNP = 6,00,000 + (-15,000) = 5,85,000.
GNP = GDP + विदेशों से शुद्ध साधन आय (NFIA)। विदेशों से भारतीयों द्वारा अर्जित साधन आय = 50,000 (मिस्टर P) + 25,000 (श्रीमती R) = 75,000। भारत में विदेशियों द्वारा अर्जित साधन आय = 30,000 (मिस्टर Q) + 60,000 (श्रीमती S) = 90,000। NFIA = 75,000 - 90,000 = -15,000। अतः GNP = 6,00,000 - 15,000 = 5,85,000। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3577📊EconomicsForeign Exchange & International Trade
Identify which of the following statements is true?
A) The flexible exchange rate system gives the government more flexibility to maintain large stocks of foreign exchange reserves.
B) In the fixed exchange rate system, the government intervenes to buy and sell foreign currencies.
C) In the managed floating exchange rate system, the central bank intervenes to moderate exchange rate fluctuations.
D) In the fixed exchange rate system, market forces fix the exchange rate.
Explanation
Managed floating exchange rate system (also called a dirty float) is an international exchange rate arrangement where the currency exchange rate is primarily determined by market forces of demand and supply, but the central bank intervenes by buying or selling foreign currency to stabilize extreme short-term volatility.
प्रबंधित फ्लोटिंग विनिमय दर प्रणाली (Managed floating) में विनिमय दर बाजार की शक्तियों द्वारा तय होती है, लेकिन अत्यधिक उतार-चढ़ाव को नियंत्रित करने के लिए केंद्रीय बैंक विदेशी मुद्रा खरीदकर या बेचकर हस्तक्षेप करता है। अतः कथन C सही है।
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3578📊EconomicsIndian Economic History & Planning
Arrange the following economic events in India in chronological order:
i) Nationalization of 14 major banks
ii) India's LPG reforms
iii) Launch of the First Five-Year Plan
iv) Formation of NITI Aayog
Options:
A) iii, i, ii, iv
B) i, iii, ii, iv
C) iii, ii, i, iv
D) i, ii, iii, iv
Explanation
Chronological order of economic events: iii) Launch of the First Five-Year Plan: 1951; i) Nationalization of 14 major commercial banks: July 1969; ii) India's LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization) reforms: July 1991; iv) Formation of NITI Aayog: 1 January 2015. Thus, the sequence is iii, i, ii, iv (Option A).
कालानुक्रमिक क्रम: iii) प्रथम पंचवर्षीय योजना की शुरुआत (1951) -> i) 14 प्रमुख बैंकों का राष्ट्रीयकरण (1969) -> ii) एलपीजी (LPG) आर्थिक सुधार (1991) -> iv) नीति आयोग का गठन (2015)। अतः सही क्रम iii, i, ii, iv (विकल्प A) है।
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3579📊EconomicsEconomic Systems
Which of the following best describes the main difference between a market economy and a planned economy?
A) Both systems rely on government intervention for economic decisions.
B) In a market economy, supply and demand determine production and pricing, while in a planned economy, the government makes these decisions.
C) In a market economy, the government sets all prices, while in a planned economy, businesses do.
D) There is no difference between the two systems.
Explanation
In a free market (capitalist) economy, resource allocation, production choices, and pricing are determined decentralised through the price mechanism of market supply and demand. In a command/planned (socialist) economy, a central government authority owns the means of production and determines what, how, and for whom goods are produced.
बाजार अर्थव्यवस्था (Market economy) में उत्पादन, आवंटन और कीमतें मांग और आपूर्ति की बाजार शक्तियों द्वारा निर्धारित होती हैं, जबकि योजनाबद्ध अर्थव्यवस्था (Planned economy) में केंद्रीय सरकार इन सभी आर्थिक निर्णयों को तय करती है।
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3580📊EconomicsIndian Agriculture & Green Revolution
What was the main technological innovation introduced during the Green Revolution?
A) Use of green manure
B) Organic farming
C) Crop rotation
D) High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds
Explanation
The core technological cornerstone of the Green Revolution in the mid-1960s was the adoption of dwarf, semi-dwarf High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds of wheat and rice (developed by Norman Borlaug and introduced in India under M.S. Swaminathan), accompanied by chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and assured irrigation.
1960 के दशक की हरित क्रांति (Green Revolution) का मुख्य तकनीकी नवाचार उच्च उपज देने वाली किस्म के बीज (HYV seeds - High Yielding Variety seeds) थे, जिसने गेहूं और चावल की उत्पादकता में अभूतपूर्व वृद्धि की।
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3581📊EconomicsEconomic Reforms 1991
What was the main reason for introducing economic reforms in India in 1991?
A) High agricultural output
B) Increase in exports
C) Political instability
D) Balance of Payments crisis
Explanation
The immediate trigger for the 1991 Economic Reforms (LPG policy) was a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis: foreign exchange reserves had dropped to barely two weeks of imports, inflation was soaring, fiscal deficits were unsustainable, and India had to pledge gold reserves to secure emergency IMF loans.
1991 में भारत में आर्थिक सुधार (LPG) लागू करने का तात्कालिक और मुख्य कारण 'भुगतान संतुलन संकट' (Balance of Payments crisis) था, जहाँ विदेशी मुद्रा भंडार घटकर मात्र दो सप्ताह के आयात के बराबर रह गया था।
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3582📊EconomicsEmployment & Unemployment
Unemployment that occurs due to a mismatch between the skills of workers and the requirements of jobs is called:
A) Structural unemployment
B) Frictional unemployment
C) Seasonal unemployment
D) Disguised unemployment
Explanation
Structural unemployment arises from fundamental long-term shifts in an economy (such as technological advancement or industrial restructuring) creating a qualitative mismatch between the skills possessed by job seekers and the specific technical qualifications demanded by employers.
श्रमिकों के कौशल और उपलब्ध नौकरियों की आवश्यकताओं के बीच असंतुलन या बेमेल होने के कारण उत्पन्न बेरोजगारी को 'संरचनात्मक बेरोजगारी' (Structural unemployment) कहा जाता है।
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3583📚StatisticsDemography & Fertility Rates
If the gross reproductive rate is 1.08 per woman and the proportion of male births is 60%, then total fertility rate per woman is (assuming no mortality):
A) 2.5
B) 2.7
C) 1.8
D) 2.2
Explanation
GRR (Gross Reproduction Rate) counts only female births per woman: GRR = TFR (proportion of female births). If male births are 60%, female births are 100% - 60% = 40% = 0.40. Therefore, 1.08 = TFR 0.40 => TFR = 1.08 / 0.40 = 2.7 per woman.
सकल प्रजनन दर (GRR) प्रति महिला केवल बालिकाओं के जन्म की दर होती है: GRR = TFR (मादा जन्म अनुपात)। यदि पुरुष जन्म 60% हैं, तो महिला जन्म 40% (0.40) होंगे। अतः 1.08 = TFR 0.40 => TFR = 1.08 / 0.40 = 2.7। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3584📚Electrical EngineeringCircuit Analysis & Resistor Networks
A wire has a resistance of 12 Ω. It is bent in the form of a circle. The effective resistance between the two points on any diameter of the circle is
A) 6 Ω
B) 12 Ω
C) 24 Ω
D) 3 Ω
Explanation
When a wire of total resistance 12 Ω is bent into a circle, any diameter divides the circle into two semicircular halves. The resistance of each semicircular path is R_half = 12 / 2 = 6 Ω. Since these two halves are connected in parallel between the diametrically opposite points, the equivalent resistance is R_eq = (6 * 6) / (6 + 6) = 36 / 12 = 3 Ω.
जब 12 Ω प्रतिरोध वाले तार को एक वृत्त के रूप में मोड़ा जाता है, तो किसी व्यास के विपरीत बिंदु वृत्त को दो समान अर्धवृत्तों में विभाजित करते हैं। प्रत्येक भाग का प्रतिरोध 6 Ω होता है। ये दोनों भाग समानांतर क्रम में जुड़े होते हैं, अतः तुल्य प्रतिरोध = (6 * 6)/(6 + 6) = 3 Ω होगा। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3585📚Electrical EngineeringNetwork Theorems (Maximum Power Transfer)
What percentage of the maximum Power is delivered to R_L in the given figure, when R_L = 2 R_Th?
A) 75 %
B) 90 %
C) 88.89 %
D) None of the above
Explanation
Maximum power delivered to load occurs when R_L = R_Th, given by P_max = V_Th^2 / (4 R_Th). When R_L = 2 R_Th, current I = V_Th / (R_Th + 2 R_Th) = V_Th / (3 R_Th). Power delivered P_L = I^2 R_L = (V_Th / 3 R_Th)^2 (2 R_Th) = 2 V_Th^2 / (9 R_Th). The ratio is P_L / P_max = [2 / 9] / [1 / 4] = 8 / 9 = 0.8889, which corresponds to 88.89%.
अधिकतम शक्ति P_max = V_Th^2 / (4 R_Th)। जब भार प्रतिरोध R_L = 2 R_Th होता है, तो भार को दी गई शक्ति P_L = (2/9) V_Th^2 / R_Th होती है। P_L / P_max का अनुपात = (8/9) 100 = 88.89%। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3586📚Electrical EngineeringPower Plant Economics & Load Curves
A generating station has a maximum demand of 30 MW, a load factor of 60% and a plant capacity factor of 50%. The reserve capacity of the plant is:
A) 5 MW
B) 4 MW
C) 3 MW
D) 6 MW
Explanation
Average load = Maximum Demand Load Factor = 30 MW 0.60 = 18 MW. Plant Capacity Factor = Average Load / Plant Capacity => 0.50 = 18 MW / Plant Capacity => Plant Capacity = 18 / 0.50 = 36 MW. Reserve Capacity = Plant Capacity - Maximum Demand = 36 MW - 30 MW = 6 MW.
औसत लोड = अधिकतम मांग लोड फैक्टर = 30 MW 0.60 = 18 MW। प्लांट क्षमता = औसत लोड / प्लांट क्षमता कारक = 18 / 0.50 = 36 MW। आरक्षित क्षमता (Reserve Capacity) = प्लांट क्षमता - अधिकतम मांग = 36 - 30 = 6 MW। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3587📚Electronics & CommunicationSemiconductor Devices (MOS vs Bipolar)
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A) MOS devices require fewer manufacturing cycles
B) MOS devices are the fastest devices
C) MOS gates dissipate less power per gate
D) MOS gates require less space on the silicon wafer
Explanation
Bipolar devices (such as ECL - Emitter Coupled Logic) and modern Gallium Arsenide/SiGe devices are inherently faster than MOS devices due to high transconductance and minority carrier transport dynamics. Statement B ('MOS devices are the fastest devices') is factually incorrect.
MOS उपकरणों के संबंध में कथन B गलत है, क्योंकि बाइपोलर उपकरण (विशेषकर ECL - Emitter Coupled Logic) MOS उपकरणों की तुलना में काफी तेज होते हैं। MOS की मुख्य खूबियां कम बिजली खपत और उच्च एकीकरण घनत्व हैं।
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3588📚Electrical EngineeringNetwork Theorems
In the circuit shown below, when Vs = 0V, I = 3A. What will be the value of I when Vs = 12 V?
A) 7 A
B) 3 A
C) 9 A
D) 6 A
Explanation
By the Superposition Theorem: I = I_current_source + I_voltage_source. When Vs = 0V, current is I = 3A, representing the contribution of the independent current source alone. When Vs = 12 V is activated with the current source opened, the two 2 Ω resistors and the branch 2 Ω form a bridge/mesh delivering an additional current of 12 V / (2 + 2) = 3 A through the central branch. Total current I = 3 A + 3 A = 6 A. Hence, Option D is correct.
अध्यारोपण प्रमेय (Superposition Theorem) द्वारा: जब Vs = 0V है तो धारा I = 3A केवल धारा स्रोत के कारण है। जब स्वतंत्र वोल्टेज स्रोत Vs = 12 V लगाया जाता है, तो परिपथ विश्लेषण से अतिरिक्त 3A धारा मिलती है। अतः कुल धारा I = 3A + 3A = 6A होगी।
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3589📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems (Feedback Characteristics)
Consider the following statements concerning a feedback control system:
i. Accuracy cannot be obtained by adjusting the loop gain
ii. Feedback decreases overall gain
iii. Introduction of noise due to a sensor increases the overall gain
iv. Introduction of feedback may lead to the possibility of instability in a closed-loop system
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) i and iii
B) ii and iv
C) i and iv
D) ii and iii
Explanation
Fundamental properties of negative feedback: (ii) Negative feedback reduces overall system gain by a factor of (1 + GH); and (iv) High gain or excessive phase lag in feedback can push closed-loop poles into the right half of the s-plane, causing instability. Thus, ii and iv (Option B) is correct.
फीडबैक नियंत्रण प्रणाली में: ऋणात्मक फीडबैक कुल लब्धि (overall gain) को घटाता है (ii) और फीडबैक के कारण बंद लूप प्रणाली में अस्थिरता (instability) की संभावना उत्पन्न हो सकती है (iv)। अतः कथन ii और iv (विकल्प B) सही हैं।
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3590📚Electronics & CommunicationCommunication Systems (FM & Noise)
In which of the following modulations can the signal-to-noise ratio be improved by increasing bandwidth?
A) AM
B) FM
C) SSB
D) DSB-SC
Explanation
Frequency Modulation (FM) allows an explicit trade-off between transmission bandwidth and noise performance: by increasing the frequency deviation Δf (which increases the modulation index β and bandwidth), the output Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) improves proportionally to the square of the modulation index (SNR ∝ β^2). In AM systems, increasing bandwidth admits more channel noise without improving SNR.
आवृत्ति मॉडुलन (FM - Frequency Modulation) में बैंडविड्थ बढ़ाकर सिग्नल-टू-नॉइज़ अनुपात (SNR) में सुधार किया जा सकता है, क्योंकि FM में आउटपुट SNR मॉडुलन सूचकांक के वर्ग (β^2) के समानुपाती होता है।
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3591📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment
Consider the following:
i. Battery storage
ii. Biomass generators
iii. Fuel cells
iv. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
Which of the above is/are considered a "Distributed Energy Resource"?
A) i only
B) i, ii, iii and iv
C) ii and iii
D) i, ii and iv
Explanation
Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) are small-scale, decentralized electricity supply or demand management resources that are interconnected to the local distribution system or installed behind the meter. They include battery energy storage systems (BESS), biomass power units, fuel cells, and rooftop solar PV installations. Therefore, all i, ii, iii, and iv are DERs.
वितरित ऊर्जा संसाधन (DERs) छोटे पैमाने की, विकेंद्रीकृत विद्युत उत्पादन या भंडारण इकाइयाँ हैं जो स्थानीय वितरण ग्रिड से जुड़ी होती हैं। इनमें बैटरी ऊर्जा भंडारण (i), बायोमास जनरेटर (ii), ईंधन सेल (iii), तथा रूफटॉप सौर फोटोवोल्टिक (iv) सभी शामिल हैं। अतः i, ii, iii और iv चारों DERs हैं।
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3592📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment
The term "pumped-storage hydropower" has been recently highlighted in the context of which of the following?
A) Irrigation of terraced agricultural land
B) Lift irrigation for cereal crop cultivation
C) Long-duration storage of electrical energy
D) Rainwater collection and harvesting systems
Explanation
Pumped-storage hydropower (PSH) functions as a giant gravitational 'water battery'. It stores electrical energy during low demand/excess renewable generation periods by pumping water from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir, and generates electricity during peak demand by releasing it back through turbines, providing cost-effective long-duration grid energy storage.
पम्प-स्टोरेज हाइड्रोपावर (PSH) एक विशाल ग्रैविटेशनल 'वॉटर बैटरी' की तरह कार्य करता है। यह ऑफ-पीक या अतिरिक्त सौर/पवन ऊर्जा के समय निचले जलाशय से पानी को ऊपरी जलाशय में पंप करता है और पीक डिमांड के समय टरबाइन के जरिए बिजली उत्पन्न करके ग्रिड को लंबे समय तक ऊर्जा भंडारण (Long-duration energy storage) प्रदान करता है।
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3593📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment
Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?
i. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates
ii. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates
iii. They can be installed in wastewater treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) i, ii and iii
Explanation
Microbial Fuel Cells (MFCs) use electrochemically active bacteria (living microorganisms) as biocatalysts to oxidize organic matter (not inorganic materials) and generate electric current (Statement i is correct, ii is incorrect). They are installed in municipal and industrial wastewater treatment plants to simultaneously treat sewage and generate bioelectricity (Statement iii is correct). Thus, statements i and iii only are correct.
माइक्रोबियल फ्यूल सेल (MFC) जीवित सूक्ष्मजीवों को जैव-उत्प्रेरक के रूप में उपयोग करके कार्बनिक अपशिष्ट पदार्थों (Organic substrates) से बिजली उत्पन्न करते हैं (कथन i सही, ii गलत)। इन्हें अपशिष्ट जल उपचार संयंत्रों (Wastewater treatment plants) में जल शोधन और विद्युत उत्पादन दोनों के लिए स्थापित किया जा सकता है (कथन iii सही)। अतः i और iii केवल सही हैं।
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3594📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power
Which of the following statements about surge tanks is INCORRECT?
A) The ideal location of the surge tank is at the turbine inlet
B) A decrease in load demand causes a rise in water level in the surge tank
C) Surge tanks are completely closed to avoid the entry of unwanted objects into the penstock
D) Surge tanks are installed to reduce the harmful effects of the water hammer phenomenon
Explanation
Surge tanks are open storage reservoirs (open to atmospheric pressure at the top) located near the turbine end of a long penstock. They absorb water hammer pressure transients during sudden closure of turbine valves and provide water during load pickup. They are NOT completely closed hermetic vessels.
सर्ज टैंक खुले शीर्ष वाले जलाशय होते हैं जो वायुमंडलीय दबाव के संपर्क में रहते हैं ताकि वाटर हैमर (जल आघात) के दबाव को अवशोषित कर सकें। यह कथन गलत है कि 'सर्ज टैंक पूरी तरह से बंद होते हैं'। अतः विकल्प C गलत कथन है।
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3595📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power
A penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is:
A) A conduit connecting the forebay to the scroll case of the turbine
B) A nozzle that releases high-pressure water on turbine blades
C) A pipe connected to the runner outlet
D) A pipe connecting the surge tank to the dam
Explanation
A penstock is a large conduit (steel pipe or tunnel) that carries high-pressure water from the forebay or surge tank directly to the scroll casing / runner of the hydraulic turbine.
जलविद्युत संयंत्र में पेनस्टॉक (Penstock) एक बंद पाइप या नली (Conduit) होती है जो जलाशय/फोरबे/सर्ज टैंक से उच्च दबाव वाले पानी को टरबाइन के स्क्रोल केस तक ले जाती है।
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3596📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power
Which of the following is NOT a reaction turbine?
A) Francis turbine
B) Pelton wheel turbine
C) Kaplan turbine
D) Propeller turbine
Explanation
The Pelton wheel turbine is a tangential flow impulse turbine that operates under high head and low discharge, where all the pressure energy of water is converted into kinetic energy in nozzles before reaching the buckets. In contrast, Francis, Kaplan, and Propeller turbines are reaction turbines.
पेल्टन व्हील एक आवेग (Impulse) टरबाइन है, न कि प्रतिक्रिया (Reaction) टरबाइन। फ्रांसिस, काप्लान और प्रोपेलर टरबाइन प्रतिक्रिया टरबाइन के उदाहरण हैं।
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3597📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power
The power output from a hydroelectric power plant depends on which of the following parameters?
A) Head, type of dam, and discharge
B) Head, discharge, and efficiency of the system
C) Efficiency of the system, type of draft tube, and type of turbine used
D) Type of dam, discharge, and type of catchment area
Explanation
The electrical power output of a hydro plant is governed by P = η ρ g Q H, where ρ is water density, g is acceleration due to gravity, Q is volumetric discharge (flow rate), H is net head, and η is the overall system efficiency.
जलविद्युत संयंत्र का विद्युत उत्पादन समीकरण P = η·ρ·g·Q·H द्वारा दिया जाता है। अतः यह मुख्य रूप से शीर्ष (Head), विसर्जन (Discharge), और प्रणाली की दक्षता (Efficiency) पर निर्भर करता है।
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3598📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentEnergy Management & Conservation
What is the primary goal of energy management?
A) Maximising energy consumption
B) Optimising energy usage
C) Minimising energy efficiency
D) Reducing energy conservation
Explanation
The fundamental objective of energy management is to achieve and maintain optimum energy procurement and utilization throughout the organization, minimising energy costs and environmental impacts without affecting production, comfort, or quality.
ऊर्जा प्रबंधन (Energy Management) का प्राथमिक लक्ष्य उत्पादन और गुणवत्ता को प्रभावित किए बिना ऊर्जा के उपयोग को इष्टतम (Optimize) करना तथा ऊर्जा लागत व पर्यावरणीय प्रभावों को न्यूनतम करना है।
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3599📚Renewable Energy & EnvironmentEnergy Management & Conservation
What is the significance of lighting in energy conservation efforts?
A) Lighting has no impact on energy consumption
B) Brighter lighting increases energy efficiency
C) Energy-efficient lighting reduces electricity usage
D) Dim lighting improves energy conservation
Explanation
Lighting accounts for a substantial fraction of commercial and domestic electrical energy. Using energy-efficient lighting technologies (such as solid-state LEDs and smart controls) drastically cuts down electrical power demand and carbon emissions.
ऊर्जा संरक्षण प्रयासों में ऊर्जा-कुशल प्रकाश व्यवस्था (जैसे एलईडी) का उपयोग बिजली की खपत और पीक डिमांड को काफी कम करता है।
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3600📚General EnglishGeneral English
Fill in the blank with appropriate word(s):
I _______ working all afternoon and have just finished the assignment.
A) had been
B) have been
C) shall be
D) am
Explanation
The present perfect continuous tense ('have been working') is required because the action began in the afternoon and continued up to the present moment, directly connected with the present perfect clause 'have just finished'.
वाक्य में 'have just finished' वर्तमान से जुड़ा हुआ है, इसलिए दोपहर से लेकर वर्तमान समय तक जारी कार्य को दर्शाने के लिए Present Perfect Continuous Tense ('have been') का प्रयोग सही है।
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3601📚General EnglishGeneral English
What is the meaning of the idiom "Backstairs Influence"?
A) Secret and unfair influence
B) Backing Influence
C) Political Influence
D) Deserving and proper influence
Explanation
The idiom 'backstairs influence' refers to secret, clandestine, or underhand influence exercised by backdoor or improper methods to gain an undue advantage.
मुहावरे 'Backstairs Influence' का अर्थ अनुचित, गुप्त या पिछले दरवाजे से लगाया गया प्रभाव (Secret and unfair influence) होता है।
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3602📚General EnglishGeneral English
Out of the four alternatives given, choose the one that can best substitute the word: CHIDE
A) Prevent
B) Rescue
C) Follow
D) Scold
Explanation
To 'chide' means to express disapproval or reprimand someone gently or scold them for a fault.
'Chide' का अर्थ डांटना, फटकारना या झिड़कना होता है, जिसका सटीक समानार्थी शब्द 'Scold' है।
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3603📚Computer Science & Information TechnologyComputer Science & IT
Which command in MS-DOS displays only file and directory names without size, date and time information?
A) DIR /W
B) DIR /A
C) DIR /S
D) DIR /B
Explanation
In MS-DOS / Windows Command Prompt, the 'DIR /B' command specifies 'bare format', which prints only the bare names of files and directories without heading information, file sizes, timestamps, or summary totals.
MS-DOS में 'DIR /B' (Bare format) कमांड बिना आकार, दिनांक या समय की जानकारी के केवल फ़ाइल और डायरेक्टरी के नाम प्रदर्शित करती है।
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3604📚Computer Science & Information TechnologyComputer Science & IT
Which of the following is a key application of Computer-Aided Design (CAD) in industrial engineering?
A) Product design and visualisation
B) Production scheduling
C) Manufacturing process simulation
D) Material handling system optimisation
Explanation
Computer-Aided Design (CAD) software is primarily utilized to create, modify, analyse, and visualise 2D technical drawings and 3D geometric models of physical parts and products.
औद्योगिक इंजीनियरिंग में कंप्यूटर-एडेड डिज़ाइन (CAD) का मुख्य अनुप्रयोग उत्पादों का सटीक 2D/3D डिज़ाइन और विज़ुअलाइज़ेशन तैयार करना है।
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3605📚Computer Science & Information TechnologyComputer Science & IT
Which of the following protocols is used for receiving or retrieving emails?
A) FTP
B) HTTP
C) SMTP
D) IMAP
Explanation
IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) and POP3 are standard protocols used by email clients to retrieve and receive messages from a mail server. In contrast, SMTP is used for sending/transmitting outgoing emails.
ईमेल प्राप्त करने या पुनः प्राप्त करने के लिए IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) और POP3 का उपयोग किया जाता है, जबकि SMTP का उपयोग ईमेल भेजने के लिए होता है।
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3606📚Computer Science & Information TechnologyComputer Science & IT
Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for managing network connections?
A) Network Layer
B) Session Layer
C) Data Link Layer
D) Physical Layer
Explanation
The Session Layer (Layer 5) of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, maintaining, synchronising, and terminating communication sessions and dialogues between applications on networked hosts.
OSI मॉडल की सेशन लेयर (Session Layer - Layer 5) नेटवर्क अनुप्रयोगों के बीच सत्रों (Sessions/Dialogues) की स्थापना, प्रबंधन और समाप्ति के लिए जिम्मेदार होती है।
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3607📚Computer Science & Information TechnologyComputer Science & IT
You can set the Page Border in MS Excel from:
A) From Border tab in Format Cells dialog box
B) From Border tool in Formatting toolbar
C) From Line Style tool in Drawing toolbar
D) You cannot set a page border in Excel
Explanation
Unlike Microsoft Word which has a dedicated Page Border feature in page layout settings, Microsoft Excel does not have a native page border command. In Excel, you can only format borders around individual cells or cell ranges.
MS Word के विपरीत, MS Excel में पेज बॉर्डर (Page Border) लगाने की कोई सीधी अंतर्निहित सुविधा नहीं होती है। एक्सेल में केवल सेलों या सेल रेंज पर बॉर्डर लगाया जा सकता है।
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3608📚Computer Science & Information TechnologyComputer Science & IT
CryptoLocker is an example of which type of malware?
A) Ransomware
B) Adware
C) Spyware
D) Worms
Explanation
CryptoLocker is a notorious trojan ransomware that targeted computers running Microsoft Windows. It encrypted victim files using RSA/AES cryptography and demanded a ransom payment (in Bitcoin or prepaid vouchers) to decrypt them.
क्रिप्टोलॉकर (CryptoLocker) रैंसमवेयर (Ransomware) का एक कुख्यात उदाहरण है जो उपयोगकर्ता की फाइलों को एन्क्रिप्ट कर देता है और उन्हें डिक्रिप्ट करने के लिए फिरौती (Ransom) की मांग करता है।
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3609📚Civil & Environmental EngineeringCivil & Transportation Engineering
Which one is not coming under cautionary signs?
A) Sharp Curve
B) No Parking
C) Slippery Road
D) Narrow Bridge
Explanation
Traffic signs are classified into three types: Regulatory/Mandatory signs (circular), Cautionary/Warning signs (triangular), and Informatory signs (rectangular). 'No Parking' is a mandatory/regulatory sign (prohibitory sign with a red circular border and slash). Sharp Curve, Slippery Road, and Narrow Bridge are cautionary signs.
'No Parking' (पार्किंग निषेध) एक अनिवार्य / विनियामक (Mandatory / Regulatory) संकेत है, न कि चेतावनी (Cautionary) संकेत। तीव्र मोड़ (Sharp Curve), फिसलन भरी सड़क (Slippery Road) और संकरा पुल (Narrow Bridge) चेतावनी संकेत (त्रिकोणीय) होते हैं।
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3610📚Civil & Environmental EngineeringCivil & Transportation Engineering
As per third twenty-year road development plan 1981-2001, the urban roads are classified into four categories. Choose the correct order.
A) National highways, State highways, Village roads, Other district roads
B) Arterial roads, Sub-arterial roads, Collector streets, Local streets
C) Primary system, Secondary system, Tertiary system, Village roads
D) None of the above
Explanation
Under the Lucknow Road Plan (Third 20-Year Road Development Plan 1981–2001), urban roads are categorized hierarchically into: (1) Arterial roads, (2) Sub-arterial roads, (3) Collector streets, and (4) Local streets.
तीसरी 20-वर्षीय सड़क विकास योजना (लखनऊ योजना 1981-2001) के अनुसार, शहरी सड़कों को चार श्रेणियों में वर्गीकृत किया गया है: (1) धमनी सड़कें (Arterial roads), (2) उप-धमनी सड़कें (Sub-arterial roads), (3) कलेक्टर सड़कें (Collector streets), और (4) स्थानीय सड़कें (Local streets)।
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3611📚Civil & Environmental EngineeringCivil & Transportation Engineering
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: East Indian Railway company was established by R. M. Stephenson in 1845.
Statement 2: In 2008, Kalka-Shimla railway was declared as World Heritage site by UNESCO.
Choose the correct option:
A) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
B) Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect
C) Statement 1 and 2 are correct
D) Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The East Indian Railway (EIR) Company was established in 1845 by Rowland Macdonald Stephenson. Statement 2 is also correct: The historic Kalka-Shimla narrow-gauge mountain railway was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage list in July 2008 as part of the Mountain Railways of India. Thus, both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
कथन 1 सही है: ईस्ट इंडियन रेलवे कंपनी की स्थापना 1845 में रोवलैंड मैकडोनाल्ड स्टीफेंसन द्वारा की गई थी। कथन 2 भी सही है: यूनेस्को द्वारा 2008 में कालका-शिमला रेलवे को विश्व धरोहर स्थल घोषित किया गया था। अतः दोनों कथन 1 और 2 सही हैं।
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3612📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: A reaction turbine is one in which only a part of the potential energy of waste water is converted into purified water and the balance remains as head rate of process.
Statement 2: In a Pelton's wheel, the total potential head is changed into kinetic head for affecting the motion of the runner, while in a Francis wheel, only a part of it is converted.
Choose the correct option:
A) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
B) Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect
C) Statement 1 and 2 are correct
D) Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is completely false/nonsensical: a hydraulic turbine converts water's potential and pressure energy into mechanical power, not wastewater purification. Statement 2 is technically correct: in a Pelton wheel (impulse turbine), 100% of the available pressure/potential head is converted into kinetic energy via nozzle jets before reaching the runner, whereas in a Francis wheel (reaction turbine), only a fraction is converted into kinetic energy in guide vanes while the remainder exists as pressure head throughout the runner. Hence, Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect.
कथन 1 पूरी तरह असत्य है क्योंकि टरबाइन अपशिष्ट जल को शुद्ध पानी में नहीं बदलता। कथन 2 बिल्कुल सही है: पेल्टन व्हील (आवेग टरबाइन) में कुल शीर्ष को नोजल द्वारा गतिज शीर्ष में बदला जाता है, जबकि फ्रांसिस व्हील में केवल एक भाग गतिज ऊर्जा में बदलता है और शेष दाब शीर्ष के रूप में रहता है। अतः कथन 2 सही और 1 गलत है।
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3613📚Renewable Energy & Hydro PowerHydroelectric & Fluid Power
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Turbine):
1. Pelton Turbine
2. Francis Turbine
3. Kaplan and Propeller Turbines
List - II (Specific speed in RPM / SI units):
i. 10 to 35
ii. 60 to 300
iii. 300 to 1000
Choose the correct option:
A) (1) - i, (2) - ii, (3) - iii
B) (1) - ii, (2) - iii, (3) - i
C) (1) - iii, (2) - i, (3) - ii
D) (1) - iii, (2) - ii, (3) - i
Explanation
The specific speed (Ns = N√P / H^(5/4) in metric units) ranges for hydraulic turbines are: Pelton turbine (single jet: 10 to 35, multi-jet up to 60); Francis turbine (medium specific speed: 60 to 300); Kaplan and Propeller turbines (high specific speed: 300 to 1000). Thus, 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii.
विशिष्ट गति (Specific speed) की श्रेणियां: 1. पेल्टन टरबाइन = i (10 से 35 rpm); 2. फ्रांसिस टरबाइन = ii (60 से 300 rpm); 3. काप्लान और प्रोपेलर टरबाइन = iii (300 से 1000 rpm)। सही कोड (1)-i, (2)-ii, (3)-iii है।
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3614📚Mechanical Engineering & MechanicsApplied Mechanics
_______ is defined as the point where the whole area of the figure is assumed to be concentrated.
A) Centroid
B) Centre of gravity
C) Moment of Inertia
D) None of the above
Explanation
The Centroid is the geometric centre of a plane figure (2D area) where the total area is assumed to be concentrated. (Centre of gravity applies to mass or weight of 3D bodies).
केंद्रक (Centroid) वह ज्यामितीय बिंदु है जहाँ किसी समतल आकृति का संपूर्ण क्षेत्रफल संकेंद्रित माना जाता है। (3D पिंड के द्रव्यमान हेतु गुरुत्व केंद्र कहलाता है)।
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3615📚Civil & Environmental EngineeringEnvironmental & Water Resources
Consider the following statements:
i. The quality of wastewater is determined on the basis of DO.
ii. The BOD test is based on DO.
iii. Determination of DO helps in controlling corrosion.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) i and ii
B) ii and iii
C) i and iii
D) i, ii, and iii
Explanation
All three statements are correct: (i) Dissolved Oxygen (DO) is a critical index for wastewater and natural river health; (ii) The standard BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) test directly measures the depletion of DO over a specified incubation period (BOD = (DO_initial - DO_final) * dilution factor); (iii) Measuring and removing DO in boiler feed water and piping is essential to prevent electrochemical oxygen pitting corrosion.
तीनों कथन सत्य हैं: (i) घुलित ऑक्सीजन (DO) अपशिष्ट जल की गुणवत्ता का प्रमुख सूचक है; (ii) BOD परीक्षण सीधे DO की खपत पर आधारित होता है; (iii) बॉयलर और पाइप में संक्षारण (Corrosion) को रोकने के लिए DO का निर्धारण व निष्कासन आवश्यक है।
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3616📚Civil & Environmental EngineeringEnvironmental & Water Resources
Standard BOD is measured at:
A) 20°C - 3 days
B) 20°C - 5 days
C) 25°C - 3 days
D) 25°C - 5 days
Explanation
Standard Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD5) is universally measured by incubating the seeded sample at 20°C for 5 days in an airtight bottle in darkness.
मानक बीओडी (Standard BOD5) को 20°C पर 5 दिनों (20°C - 5 days) के इनक्यूबेशन द्वारा मापा जाता है।
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3617📚Civil & Environmental EngineeringEnvironmental & Water Resources
The system to collect night soil, garbage etc. in separate vessels or deposited in pools and pits is called:
A) Conservancy system
B) Waste allocation system
C) Waste deposition system
D) Waste pit
Explanation
The Conservancy system (or dry carriage system) is an old sanitation method where human excreta (night soil), refuse, and garbage are collected manually in vessels, carts, or pits and carried away periodically to disposal sites, without water carriage.
मल-मूत्र (Night soil) और कचरे को अलग-अलग बर्तनों या गड्ढों में एकत्र करने और शुष्क रूप से हटाने की पारंपरिक प्रणाली को कंजरवेंसी प्रणाली (Conservancy system) कहा जाता है।
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3618📚Mechanical EngineeringManufacturing & Machine Tools
What is the number of jaws in self-centred chuck?
A) 1 jaw
B) 2 jaws
C) 3 jaws
D) 4 jaws
Explanation
A self-centering lathe chuck (also known as a universal chuck or scroll chuck) typically contains 3 jaws that move radially in unison when turned by a single pinion key, automatically centering cylindrical workpieces.
लेथ मशीन के सेल्फ-सेंटरिंग चक (यूनिवर्सल चक) में जबड़ों (Jaws) की संख्या 3 होती है। इसके तीनों जबड़े एक साथ स्क्रोल मैकेनिज्म द्वारा गति करते हैं और गोल कार्यखंड को स्वतः केंद्र में लाते हैं।
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3619📚Mechanical EngineeringAutomobile Engineering
Choose the classification automobiles based on purpose:
A) LCV, MCV, HCV
B) Passenger vehicle, Goods vehicle, Special vehicle
C) Front, Rear, Back wheel base
D) Closed, Open, Special Style
Explanation
Automobiles are classified according to purpose/use into: (1) Passenger vehicles (cars, buses), (2) Goods vehicles (trucks, tempos), and (3) Special purpose vehicles (ambulances, fire engines, tankers). (LCV/MCV/HCV is classification by load carrying capacity).
उद्देश्य (Purpose) के आधार पर ऑटोमोबाइल का वर्गीकरण: यात्री वाहन (Passenger vehicle), माल वाहन (Goods vehicle), तथा विशेष उद्देश्य वाहन (Special vehicle) है।
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3620📚General Mental Ability & ReasoningCoding & Decoding
In a code language, BLEND is written as ENHPG. How will WINNER be written in the same language?
A) ZKQPHT
B) ZKQPHU
C) YKQPHT
D) ZKOPHT
Explanation
Analyzing BLEND -> ENHPG:
B (2) + 3 = E (5)
L (12) + 2 = N (14)
E (5) + 3 = H (8)
N (14) + 2 = P (16)
D (4) + 3 = G (7)
The alternating shift pattern is +3, +2, +3, +2, +3, +2.
Applying to WINNER:
W (23) + 3 = Z (26)
I (9) + 2 = K (11)
N (14) + 3 = Q (17)
N (14) + 2 = P (16)
E (5) + 3 = H (8)
R (18) + 2 = T (20)
Thus, WINNER is coded as ZKQPHT.
कोडिंग पैटर्न में एकांतर क्रम में +3 और +2 का योग किया गया है:
B (+3)=E, L (+2)=N, E (+3)=H, N (+2)=P, D (+3)=G।
यही पैटर्न WINNER पर लागू करने पर:
W (+3) = Z
I (+2) = K
N (+3) = Q
N (+2) = P
E (+3) = H
R (+2) = T
अतः सही कोड ZKQPHT (विकल्प A) है।
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3621📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Foreign Policy & Geography
To which of the following neighbor country, India ceded Kachchatheevu island in 1974?
A) Sri Lanka
B) Bangladesh
C) Myanmar
D) Maldives
Explanation
Under the 1974 Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement signed between Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and Sri Lankan Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike, India recognized Sri Lankan sovereignty over the uninhabited Katchatheevu island in the Palk Strait.
वर्ष 1974 में भारत की तत्कालीन प्रधानमंत्री इंदिरा गांधी और श्रीलंका की प्रधानमंत्री सिरिमावो भंडारनाइके के बीच हुए समुद्री सीमा समझौते के तहत भारत ने पाक जलडमरूमध्य में स्थित कच्चातीवू द्वीप (Katchatheevu Island) को श्रीलंका को सौंप दिया था। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3622📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Programmes & Geography
Consider the following states:
I. Rajasthan
II. Gujarat
III. Jammu & Kashmir
IV. Himachal Pradesh
Desert Development programme was started in which of the above states?
A) I & II Only
B) I, II & III Only
C) I, II & IV Only
D) I, II, III & IV
Explanation
The Desert Development Programme (DDP) was launched by the Government of India in 1977-78 to control desertification and restore ecological balance in both hot desert areas (Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka) and cold desert areas (Jammu & Kashmir / Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh - Lahaul & Spiti, Kinnaur). Thus, all four states (I, II, III, and IV) are covered under the programme.
मरुस्थल विकास कार्यक्रम (DDP) 1977-78 में भारत सरकार द्वारा शुरू किया गया था। यह गर्म मरुस्थलीय क्षेत्रों (राजस्थान, गुजरात आदि) तथा शीत मरुस्थलीय क्षेत्रों (जम्मू और कश्मीर/लद्दाख तथा हिमाचल प्रदेश के लाहौल-स्पीति) दोनों में लागू किया गया था। अतः यह चारों राज्यों (I, II, III और IV) में शुरू किया गया था। सही उत्तर विकल्प D है।
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3623📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (Price Mechanism)
What happens if the price floor is set higher than the equilibrium price?
A) Scarcity
B) Stability
C) Surpluses
D) None of the preceding
Explanation
A price floor set above the market equilibrium price is binding. At this higher price, the quantity supplied by producers exceeds the quantity demanded by consumers (Q_s > Q_d), resulting in a market surplus (excess supply).
जब किसी वस्तु के लिए न्यूनतम मूल्य सीमा (Price Floor) को संतुलन मूल्य से ऊपर निर्धारित किया जाता है, तो आपूर्ति की मात्रा मांग की मात्रा से अधिक हो जाती है (Quantity Supplied > Quantity Demanded)। इसके परिणामस्वरूप बाजार में अतिरिक्त आपूर्ति या अधिशेष (Surpluses) उत्पन्न होता है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3624📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports Awards & Honours
The "Pierre de Coubertin Medal" is awarded for the excellence in which field?
A) Painting
B) Sports
C) Music
D) Economics
Explanation
The Pierre de Coubertin Medal (also known as the True Spirit of Sportsmanship medal) is a prestigious award presented by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) to athletes who demonstrate extraordinary sportsmanship or exceptional service to the Olympic movement.
'पियरे डी कूपर्टिन पदक' (Pierre de Coubertin Medal) अंतर्राष्ट्रीय ओलंपिक समिति (IOC) द्वारा खेल (Sports) के क्षेत्र में असाधारण खेल भावना (Sportsmanship) और ओलंपिक आंदोलन के प्रति उत्कृष्ट सेवा के लिए दिया जाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3625🔬General SciencePhysics (Quantum & Wave Mechanics)
What is the relation between mass and wavelength of any matter, as per de Broglie's relation?
A) Both are directly proportional
B) Both are inversely proportional
C) Both are independent of each other
D) Wavelength is twice the square of the mass
Explanation
According to de Broglie's matter wave hypothesis, the wavelength λ of a particle is given by λ = h / p = h / (m * v), where h is Planck's constant, m is mass, and v is velocity. Since mass appears in the denominator, wavelength and mass are inversely proportional (λ ∝ 1/m).
डी ब्रोग्ली के तरंग-कण सिद्धांत के अनुसार तरंगदैर्ध्य λ = h / (m * v) होती है, जहाँ h प्लांक स्थिरांक, m द्रव्यमान तथा v वेग है। अतः द्रव्यमान (mass) और तरंगदैर्ध्य (wavelength) एक-दूसरे के व्युत्क्रमानुपाती (Inversely proportional) होते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
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3626🔬General ScienceBiology (Human Anatomy & Tissues)
Osteocytes are found in
A) Blood
B) Bone
C) Lymph
D) Cartilage
Explanation
Osteocytes are mature bone cells found inside lacunae within the mineralized bone matrix. They originate from osteoblasts and are responsible for maintaining bone tissue metabolism.
ऑस्टियोसाइट्स (Osteocytes) परिपक्व अस्थि कोशिकाएं हैं जो हड्डियों (Bone) के मैट्रिक्स में स्थित लैकुना में पाई जाती हैं। ये अस्थि ऊतक के अनुरक्षण के लिए उत्तरदायी होती हैं। अतः सही विकल्प B (Bone) है।
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3627📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsCurrent Affairs & Awards (J&K)
He is a recipient of Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar award in the field of art and culture.
A) Umran Malik
B) Abdul Samad
C) Ishfaq Hamid
D) Pandit Bhajan Sopori
Explanation
Master Ishfaq Hamid, a young maestro of the Rabab and Matka from Kreeri, Baramulla / Pulwama, Jammu & Kashmir, was awarded the prestigious Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar by the President of India in January 2024 for his extraordinary contribution to Art & Culture.
जम्मू-कश्मीर के युवा रबाब वादक इश्फ़ाक हामिद (Ishfaq Hamid) को कला और संस्कृति के क्षेत्र में उत्कृष्ट योगदान के लिए राष्ट्रपति द्रौपदी मुर्मू द्वारा जनवरी 2024 में प्रतिष्ठित 'प्रधानमंत्री राष्ट्रीय बाल पुरस्कार' से सम्मानित किया गया था। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3628📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsImportant Days & Dates
When is the 'International Day of Sign Languages' celebrated?
A) September 21
B) September 23
C) September 25
D) September 27
Explanation
The United Nations General Assembly has designated 23 September as the International Day of Sign Languages to raise awareness of the importance of sign language in the full realization of the human rights of deaf people. The date commemorates the establishment of the World Federation of the Deaf in 1951.
संयुक्त राष्ट्र महासभा द्वारा प्रतिवर्ष 23 सितंबर को 'अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सांकेतिक भाषा दिवस' (International Day of Sign Languages) के रूप में मनाया जाता है। यह दिवस 1951 में विश्व बधिर संघ (WFD) की स्थापना के उपलक्ष्य में मनाया जाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3629📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Affairs & Bilateral Agreements
India launched the 'NET Zero' Innovation Virtual Centre with which country?
A) USA
B) UK
C) Australia
D) South Korea
Explanation
India and the United Kingdom (UK) jointly announced the creation of the India-UK 'NET Zero' Innovation Virtual Centre at the India-UK Science & Innovation Council meeting to facilitate joint research on decarbonisation of manufacturing and green hydrogen.
भारत और यूनाइटेड किंगडम (UK) ने विनिर्माण के डीकार्बोनाइजेशन और हरित हाइड्रोजन जैसे क्षेत्रों में सहयोग को बढ़ावा देने के लिए 'नेट जीरो' इनोवेशन वर्चुअल सेंटर (Net Zero Innovation Virtual Centre) शुरू करने की घोषणा की। अतः सही विकल्प B (UK) है।
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3630📚Quantitative AptitudeLinear Equations & Word Problems
A man loses one-third of his money, then wins Rs. 10, then loses one-third of what he has, wins Rs. 20, and finds that he has exactly what he had in the beginning. What was the amount he originally had?
A) Rs. 12
B) Rs. 24
C) Rs. 48
D) Rs. 36
Explanation
Let initial amount be x.
1. Loses 1/3: Remaining = (2/3)x.
2. Wins Rs. 10: Amount = (2/3)x + 10.
3. Loses 1/3 of this amount: Remaining = (2/3)[(2/3)x + 10] = (4/9)x + 20/3.
4. Wins Rs. 20: Amount = (4/9)x + 20/3 + 20 = (4/9)x + 80/3.
Equating this final amount to original money x:
(4/9)x + 80/3 = x
x - (4/9)x = 80/3
(5/9)x = 80/3
x = (80/3) (9/5) = 16 3 = Rs. 48.
माना मूल राशि x रुपये है।
1. एक-तिहाई खोने के बाद शेष = (2/3)x
2. 10 रु. जीतने के बाद = (2/3)x + 10
3. पुनः एक-तिहाई खोने पर शेष = (2/3)[(2/3)x + 10] = (4/9)x + 20/3
4. 20 रु. जीतने के बाद = (4/9)x + 20/3 + 20 = (4/9)x + 80/3
शर्त के अनुसार यह राशि प्रारंभिक राशि x के बराबर है:
x - (4/9)x = 80/3 => (5/9)x = 80/3 => x = (80/3) × (9/5) = 48 रुपये।
अतः सही उत्तर Rs. 48 (विकल्प C) है।
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3631📚Quantitative AptitudeSimple Interest
Aman got a salary of Rs. 8600. The salary was invested by him in two parts. Find the difference between the two parts of his salary, if in first part he got some simple interest at 15% per annum in 4 years, which was same as the second part which he invested at 20% for 3 years.
A) Zero
B) 240
C) 100
D) 450
Explanation
Let the two parts of the salary be P1 and P2, where P1 + P2 = 8600.
Simple interest on Part 1 = (P1 × 15 × 4) / 100 = 60 P1 / 100.
Simple interest on Part 2 = (P2 × 20 × 3) / 100 = 60 P2 / 100.
Since both simple interests are equal:
60 P1 / 100 = 60 P2 / 100 => P1 = P2.
Because the two parts are exactly equal (P1 = P2 = Rs. 4300), the difference between them is P1 - P2 = 0 (Zero).
माना वेतन के दो भाग P1 और P2 हैं।
पहले भाग का साधारण ब्याज = (P1 × 15 × 4)/100 = 0.60 P1
दूसरे भाग का साधारण ब्याज = (P2 × 20 × 3)/100 = 0.60 P2
प्रश्नानुसार दोनों ब्याज बराबर हैं: 0.60 P1 = 0.60 P2 => P1 = P2।
दोनों भाग समान (4300 रु.) हैं, इसलिए दोनों भागों का अंतर शून्य (Zero) होगा। सही विकल्प A है।
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3632📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsBusiness Regulations & Companies Act
As per companies Act 2013 to form a partnership firm, there should be atleast two persons and maximum of
A) 40
B) 100
C) 50
D) Unlimited
Explanation
Under Section 464 of the Companies Act 2013, the maximum number of partners in a partnership firm can be up to 100 as prescribed by the Government. Under Rule 10 of Companies (Miscellaneous) Rules 2014, the central government prescribed this maximum limit as 50 persons.
कंपनी अधिनियम 2013 की धारा 464 और कंपनी (विविध) नियम 2014 के नियम 10 के अनुसार किसी साझेदारी फर्म में न्यूनतम दो व्यक्ति तथा अधिकतम 50 व्यक्ति हो सकते हैं। अतः सही उत्तर 50 (विकल्प C) है।
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3633📚Quantitative AptitudeTime, Speed & Distance
A man travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours partly on foot at the rate of 4 km/hour and partly on bicycle at 9 km/hour. Find distance travelled on foot.
A) 16 km
B) 20 km
C) 30 km
D) 15 km
Explanation
Let time spent walking on foot be t hours. Then time on bicycle is (9 - t) hours.
Total distance = 4 × t + 9 × (9 - t) = 61
4t + 81 - 9t = 61
-5t = 61 - 81 = -20
t = 4 hours.
Distance travelled on foot = Speed × Time = 4 km/h × 4 hours = 16 km.
माना पैदल चलने का समय t घंटे है, तो साइकिल से चलने का समय (9 - t) घंटे होगा।
कुल दूरी = 4 × t + 9 × (9 - t) = 61
4t + 81 - 9t = 61 => 5t = 20 => t = 4 घंटे।
पैदल तय की गई दूरी = 4 किमी/घंटा × 4 घंटे = 16 किमी। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3634📚Quantitative AptitudeTime & Work
A and B can do a piece of work in 24 days, B and C can do the same work in 30 days and C and A can do it in 40 days. How many days would they all take to do the same work?
A) 12
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
Explanation
Work per day:
A + B = 1/24
B + C = 1/30
C + A = 1/40
Adding all three equations:
2(A + B + C) = 1/24 + 1/30 + 1/40
Taking LCM of 24, 30, 40 which is 120:
2(A + B + C) = (5 + 4 + 3) / 120 = 12 / 120 = 1/10
A + B + C = 1 / 20.
Therefore, working together they take 20 days to complete the work.
प्रतिदिन का कार्य:
A + B = 1/24, B + C = 1/30, C + A = 1/40।
तीनों को जोड़ने पर:
2(A + B + C) = 1/24 + 1/30 + 1/40 = (5 + 4 + 3)/120 = 12/120 = 1/10
A + B + C = 1/20।
अतः तीनों मिलकर कार्य को 20 दिनों में पूरा करेंगे। सही विकल्प C है।
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3635📚General EnglishCloze Test & Fill in the Blanks
Complete the following sentence by choosing the right option.
Kashmir is my favourite holiday ________ in India. I had gone with my family last summer. Gulmarg is a ________ to the eyes with a spread of ________ flowers against snow-capped mountains as ________
A) destination, sight, beautiful, paintings
B) place, delight, wonderful, border
C) spot, sight, beautiful, premise
D) destination, treat, vibrant, backgrounds
Explanation
Fitting the words into context:
- 'favourite holiday destination'
- 'Gulmarg is a treat to the eyes'
- 'spread of vibrant flowers'
- 'against snow-capped mountains as backgrounds'
This completes the passage naturally and idiomatically.
संदर्भ के अनुसार सबसे उपयुक्त शब्द समूह:
- 'favourite holiday destination' (पसंदीदा अवकाश गंतव्य)
- 'a treat to the eyes' (आंखों को सुकून देने वाला)
- 'spread of vibrant flowers' (जीवंत रंग-बिरंगे फूलों का फैलाव)
- 'as backgrounds' (पृष्ठभूमि के रूप में)
अतः सही विकल्प D है।
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3636📚General EnglishHomophones & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank with correct homophone:
We sat under the shade of the ________ tree.
A) breach
B) beach
C) beech
D) beich
Explanation
'Beech' is a type of deciduous forest tree (genus Fagus) with smooth grey bark and glossy leaves. 'Beach' refers to a sandy shore by an ocean or lake. Thus, 'beech tree' is the correct homophone.
'Beech' एक प्रकार का पर्णपाती वृक्ष (बीच का पेड़) होता है। 'Beach' का अर्थ समुद्र तट होता है। वाक्य में पेड़ के लिए सही समोच्चरित शब्द 'beech' (विकल्प C) है।
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3637📚General EnglishHomophones & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank with correct homophone:
The ________ thread was thrown away.
A) naughty
B) notty
C) knotty
D) notey
Explanation
'Knotty' means full of knots, tangled, or intricate. Applied to a thread that is tangled and cannot be used, 'knotty' is the correct word.
'Knotty' का अर्थ गांठदार, उलझा हुआ या जटिल होता है। धागे (thread) के उलझने और गांठदार होने के संदर्भ में सही शब्द 'knotty' है। 'Naughty' का अर्थ नटखट होता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प C है।
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3638📚General EnglishSentence Rearrangement (Para Jumbles)
In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage.
S1: While crossing a busy road we should obey the policeman on duty.
P: We should always cross the road at the zebra crossing.
Q: We must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear.
R: If there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right, then to the left and again to the right before crossing the road.
S: If the road is not clear we should wait.
S6: We should never run while crossing a road.
A) QRPS
B) RQSP
C) PQRS
D) PSRQ
Explanation
Analyzing the chronological flow of road safety instructions:
- S1 establishes crossing rules with policeman on duty.
- P states crossing at zebra crossing: 'We should always cross the road at the zebra crossing.'
- Q specifies looking at signal lights: 'We must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear.'
- R covers the contingency when lights are absent: 'If there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right...'
- S states the rule if traffic is present: 'If the road is not clear we should wait.'
- S6 closes: 'We should never run while crossing a road.'
Thus, the perfect natural sequence is P - Q - R - S (Option C).
सड़क सुरक्षा के नियमों का तार्किक क्रम निम्न प्रकार है:
P (ज़ेब्रा क्रॉसिंग से सड़क पार करना) -> Q (सिग्नल लाइट देखना) -> R (सिग्नल लाइट न होने पर दाएं-बाएं देखना) -> S (सड़क खाली न होने पर प्रतीक्षा करना)।
अतः सही तार्किक क्रम PQRS (विकल्प C) है।
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3639📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITComputer Networks & Topologies
A distributed network configuration in which all data/information pass through a central computer is
A) bus network
B) star network
C) duplex
D) multiplex
Explanation
In a star topology network, all nodes (workstations and devices) are individually connected to a central node (such as a switch, hub, or central computer), through which all transmitted data and traffic must pass.
स्टार नेटवर्क (Star Network) टोपोलॉजी में सभी नोड्स एक केंद्रीय कंप्यूटर (हब या स्विच) से जुड़े होते हैं, जिसके माध्यम से सभी डेटा और सूचनाएं प्रवाहित होती हैं। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
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3640📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITComputer Hardware & DMA
Transfer of data directly without the involvement of the processor
A) Memory address register
B) Device driver
C) I/O interface
D) DMA controller
Explanation
Direct Memory Access (DMA) controller allows hardware subsystems (such as disk drives, network cards) to access and transfer data directly to and from main memory independently of the central processing unit (CPU).
डीएमए नियंत्रक (DMA - Direct Memory Access Controller) सीपीयू (प्रोसेसर) के हस्तक्षेप के बिना इनपुट/आउटपुट उपकरणों और मुख्य मेमोरी के बीच सीधे उच्च गति से डेटा स्थानांतरित करने की सुविधा प्रदान करता है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3641📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITStorage Management & Backup
Which of the following techniques can be used for optimizing backed up data space?
A) Encryption and Deduplication
B) Compression and Deduplication
C) Authentication and Deduplication
D) Deduplication only
Explanation
Data compression reduces the bit size of files by eliminating statistical redundancy, and deduplication eliminates redundant duplicate copies of repeating data blocks. Together, compression and deduplication are the two primary techniques used to optimize backup storage space.
बैकअप डेटा के संग्रहण स्थान को अनुकूलित (कम) करने के लिए संपीड़न (Compression - अनावश्यक बाइट्स को कम करना) और डिडुप्लीकेशन (Deduplication - डुप्लिकेट प्रतियों को हटाना) का उपयोग किया जाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3642📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITNetworking Protocols (HTTP & URI)
In the network HTTP resources are located by
A) Uniform resource identifier
B) Unique resource locator
C) Unique resource identifier
D) Union resource locator
Explanation
In computer networking and the World Wide Web, web resources (documents, images, endpoints) requested via HTTP/HTTPS are identified and located by Uniform Resource Identifiers (URIs), of which URLs are a specific subtype.
कंप्यूटर नेटवर्क और वर्ल्ड वाइड वेब पर HTTP संसाधनों की पहचान और स्थान यूनिफ़ॉर्म रिसोर्स आइडेंटिफ़ायर (Uniform Resource Identifier - URI) द्वारा निर्धारित किया जाता है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3643📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITOperating Systems (Windows File Management)
________ is a program that helps us to manage our files and folders.
A) Windows
B) Help
C) DOS
D) Windows Explorer
Explanation
Windows Explorer (now called File Explorer in modern Windows OS) is the built-in file manager application that provides a graphical user interface for browsing, creating, moving, and managing files and folders.
विंडोज एक्सप्लोरर (Windows Explorer / File Explorer) विंडोज ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम में फाइलों और फोल्डरों को प्रबंधित, व्यवस्थित और नेविगेट करने का मुख्य प्रोग्राम है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3644📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITMS PowerPoint Shortcuts
Which short cut key inserts a new slide in current presentation?
A) Ctrl + N
B) Ctrl + M
C) Ctrl + S
D) Ctrl + Y
Explanation
In Microsoft PowerPoint, Ctrl + M is the shortcut key used to insert a new slide into the active presentation. (Ctrl + N opens a completely new blank presentation).
माइक्रोसॉफ्ट पावरपॉइंट (MS PowerPoint) में वर्तमान प्रस्तुति में एक नई स्लाइड (New Slide) जोड़ने के लिए 'Ctrl + M' शॉर्टकट की का उपयोग किया जाता है (जबकि Ctrl+N एक नई प्रस्तुति फाइल खोलता है)। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3645📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITInternet & Web Browsers
What is Google Chrome?
A) Browser
B) Search Engine
C) E-mail client
D) Website
Explanation
Google Chrome is a cross-platform web browser developed by Google, first released in 2008.
गूगल क्रोम (Google Chrome) गूगल द्वारा विकसित एक वेब ब्राउज़र (Browser) सॉफ्टवेयर है जिसका उपयोग इंटरनेट पर वेब पेजों को देखने के लिए किया जाता है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3646📚Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITInternet Protocols (FTP)
The process of transferring files from one computer to another computer through the internet is called
A) Downloading
B) Uploading
C) FTP
D) JPEG
Explanation
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the standard network protocol specifically designed and used for transferring files between a client and a server on a computer network.
इंटरनेट या कंप्यूटर नेटवर्क के माध्यम से एक कंप्यूटर से दूसरे कंप्यूटर में फाइलों को स्थानांतरित करने की मानक प्रक्रिया और प्रोटोकॉल को एफटीपी (FTP - File Transfer Protocol) कहा जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प C है।
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3647📚Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilitySpeed, Time and Distance
A man travelled first half of his journey at a speed of 60 kmph and the second half of his journey at a speed of 40 kmph. Find the average speed of the man.
A) 48 kmph
B) 50 kmph
C) 55 kmph
D) 68 kmph
Explanation
When two equal halves of a journey are covered at speeds u and v, Average Speed = (2 u v) / (u + v). Here u = 60 kmph and v = 40 kmph. Average speed = (2 60 40) / (60 + 40) = 4800 / 100 = 48 kmph.
जब दो बराबर दूरियाँ u और v चाल से तय की जाती हैं, तो औसत चाल = (2 u v) / (u + v) होती है। यहाँ u = 60 किमी/घंटा तथा v = 40 किमी/घंटा। औसत चाल = (2 60 40) / (60 + 40) = 4800 / 100 = 48 किमी/घंटा। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3648📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityCoding-Decoding
If in a certain code language 'POPULAR' is written as 'QPQVMBS', then what word will be written for the code 'GBNPVT'?
A) FASOUM
B) FAMOUS
C) FAMOSU
D) FAMSUO
Explanation
In 'POPULAR' to 'QPQVMBS', each letter is shifted by +1: P(+1)=Q, O(+1)=P, P(+1)=Q, U(+1)=V, L(+1)=M, A(+1)=B, R(+1)=S. To find the original word for the code 'GBNPVT', shift each letter backward by -1: G(-1)=F, B(-1)=A, N(-1)=M, P(-1)=O, V(-1)=U, T(-1)=S. The original word is FAMOUS.
'POPULAR' से 'QPQVMBS' में प्रत्येक अक्षर में +1 जोड़ा गया है। अतः कोड 'GBNPVT' का मूल शब्द प्राप्त करने के लिए प्रत्येक अक्षर से -1 करेंगे: G-1=F, B-1=A, N-1=M, P-1=O, V-1=U, T-1=S => FAMOUS। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3649📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityCoding-Decoding
If in a certain code language 'HONESTY' is written as 'ABCXZDQ', then how will 'TONY' be written in that language?
A) DBCQ
B) QDCX
C) CBXZ
D) CQDC
Explanation
Direct letter substitution mapping from HONESTY to ABCXZDQ: H=A, O=B, N=C, E=X, S=Z, T=D, Y=Q. Looking up the letters of 'TONY': T = D, O = B, N = C, Y = Q. Thus, TONY is coded as DBCQ.
प्रत्यक्ष कोडिंग (Direct Letter Coding) में: H=A, O=B, N=C, E=X, S=Z, T=D, Y=Q। अतः TONY के लिए: T=D, O=B, N=C, Y=Q => DBCQ। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3650📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityCoding-Decoding
In a certain code language 'PINKY' is coded as 'XZJLMOHJOQ'. How will 'VANDY' be coded in that language?
A) XZECMOBZUW
B) ZXCEMOZBWU
C) XZCEMOZBWU
D) XZCEMOZBUW
Explanation
The code takes the word in reverse order, and for each letter, outputs the predecessor and successor letters: Word PINKY reversed is Y-K-N-I-P. Y is flanked by X and Z (XZ); K by J and L (JL); N by M and O (MO); I by H and J (HJ); P by O and Q (OQ). Combining gives XZJLMOHJOQ. Now apply this pattern to VANDY: reverse is Y-D-N-A-V. Y -> XZ, D -> CE, N -> MO, A -> ZB, V -> UW. Combining gives XZCEMOZBWU.
शब्द को उलटे क्रम में लिखकर प्रत्येक अक्षर के ठीक पहले और बाद के अक्षर लिखे गए हैं: VANDY का उल्टा क्रम Y-D-N-A-V है। Y के लिए XZ, D के लिए CE, N के लिए MO, A के लिए ZB, V के लिए UW => XZCEMOZBWU। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3651📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityCoding-Decoding
If in a certain code language 'NAME' is written as 'MOZBLNDF', 'PUN' is written as 'OQTVMO', then how will 'TALK' be coded in that language?
A) SUZBKMLT
B) SUZKBMLT
C) SUZKBIML
D) SUZBKMJL
Explanation
Each letter is represented by the preceding and following letters in the alphabet: N -> MO, A -> ZB, M -> LN, E -> DF. For TALK: T is preceded by S and followed by U -> SU; A is preceded by Z and followed by B -> ZB; L is preceded by K and followed by M -> KM; K is preceded by J and followed by L -> JL. Concatenating these pairs gives SUZBKMJL.
प्रत्येक अक्षर को वर्णमाला में उसके पूर्ववर्ती और परवर्ती अक्षरों द्वारा कोड किया गया है: T -> SU, A -> ZB, L -> KM, K -> JL। इन सभी को मिलाने पर कोड SUZBKMJL बनता है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3652📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityBlood Relations
Pointing to a woman in the photograph, Rajesh said, "The only daughter of her grandfather is my wife". How is Rajesh related to that woman ?
A) Uncle
B) Father
C) Maternal uncle
D) Son
Explanation
The only daughter of the woman's grandfather must be the woman's mother. Since Rajesh's wife is the woman's mother, Rajesh is the woman's father.
महिला के दादा/नाना की इकलौती बेटी उस महिला की माँ है। राजेश की पत्नी उस महिला की माँ है, इसका अर्थ है कि राजेश उस महिला का पिता (Father) है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3653📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityBlood Relations
Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's mother." How is the woman related to the man?
A) Mother
B) Aunt
C) Sister
D) Niece
Explanation
The only son of the woman's mother's mother (maternal grandmother) is the woman's mother's brother, which is her maternal uncle (mama). The question asks how the woman is related to the man: she is his sister's daughter, which is his niece.
महिला की माँ की माँ (नानी) का इकलौता बेटा उस महिला की माँ का भाई (मामा) है। अतः वह महिला उस पुरुष (मामा) की भांजी (Niece) है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3654📚Basic Reasoning & Mental AbilityDirection Sense Test
A man goes 5 km East, then he turns right and goes 4 km, then he turns left and goes 5 km. Which direction is he facing now?
A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West
Explanation
Initial direction is East. Turning right from East faces South. Walking 4 km South and then turning left faces East again. He walks 5 km East. Therefore, he is facing East.
प्रारंभिक दिशा पूर्व (East) है। पूर्व से दाएँ मुड़ने पर दिशा दक्षिण (South) हो जाती है। दक्षिण से बाएँ मुड़ने पर दिशा पुनः पूर्व (East) हो जाती है। अतः वह अब पूर्व दिशा के सम्मुख है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3655📚Basic EnglishSentence Correction
Identify the correct sentence.
A) The book whom I bought yesterday is interesting.
B) The book which I bought yesterday is interesting.
C) The book which I bought yesterday are interesting.
D) The book whose I bought yesterday is interesting.
Explanation
'Which' is the correct relative pronoun used for non-human inanimate objects like 'the book' ('whom' is for people). Since 'The book' is singular, it requires the singular verb 'is'. Therefore, 'The book which I bought yesterday is interesting' is correct.
निर्जीव वस्तुओं (जैसे book) के लिए संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम (relative pronoun) 'which' का प्रयोग होता है ('whom' का नहीं)। चूँकि कर्ता 'The book' एकवचन है, इसलिए एकवचन क्रिया 'is' का प्रयोग होगा। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3656📚Basic EnglishSentence Correction
Identify the correct sentence.
A) There is many people in the room.
B) There are many people in the room.
C) There is much people in the room.
D) There are much people in the room.
Explanation
'People' is a plural countable noun, so it takes the quantifier 'many' (not 'much') and the plural verb 'are'. Therefore, 'There are many people in the room' is grammatically correct.
'People' एक बहुवचन गणनीय संज्ञा (plural countable noun) है, जिसके साथ 'many' (much नहीं) तथा बहुवचन क्रिया 'are' का प्रयोग होता है। अतः 'There are many people in the room' सही वाक्य है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3657📚Basic EnglishAntonyms
Choose the word that means the opposite to the given word.
ARTIFICIAL
A) Plastic
B) Unreal
C) Synthetic
D) Natural
Explanation
'Artificial' refers to something man-made or synthetic. Its exact antonym is 'Natural'.
'Artificial' का अर्थ कृत्रिम या बनावटी होता है। इसका विपरीतार्थक शब्द (Antonym) 'Natural' (प्राकृतिक) है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3658📚Basic EnglishDeterminers
Choose the correct determiner to complete the sentence.
I have read _____ books on that topic.
A) Much
B) Many
C) Little
D) Every
Explanation
'Books' is a plural countable noun. The determiner 'many' is used with plural countable nouns, whereas 'much' and 'little' are used with uncountable nouns.
'Books' एक बहुवचन गणनीय संज्ञा (plural countable noun) है। इसके साथ 'many' का प्रयोग होता है। 'Much' तथा 'Little' का प्रयोग अगणनीय संज्ञाओं के साथ किया जाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3659📚Basic EnglishDeterminers
Choose the correct determiner to complete the sentence.
_____ of the money was spent on repairs.
A) Few
B) Each
C) Many
D) Most
Explanation
'Money' is an uncountable noun. 'Few' and 'Many' are only used with countable nouns. 'Most' can be used with uncountable nouns ('Most of the money was spent...').
'Money' एक अगणनीय संज्ञा (uncountable noun) है। 'Few' और 'Many' केवल गणनीय संज्ञाओं के साथ आते हैं। अगणनीय संज्ञाओं के अंश को दर्शाने के लिए 'Most of the money' सही है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3660📚Basic EnglishArticles
Choose the correct article to complete the sentence.
_____ Earth revolves around the Sun.
A) A
B) An
C) The
D) None of the above
Explanation
The definite article 'The' is used before unique celestial bodies and planets, such as 'the Earth', 'the Sun', and 'the Moon'.
अद्वितीय खगोलीय पिंडों (Unique celestial bodies) जैसे Earth, Sun, Moon के नाम के आगे निश्चित उपपद (Definite Article) 'The' का प्रयोग होता है: 'The Earth revolves around the Sun'। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3661📚General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs & National Awards
Which Indian city ranked first in the Swachh Bharat Mission 2025 for cleanliness and waste management?
A) Indore
B) Mysore
C) Ranchi
D) Trivandrum
Explanation
Indore (Madhya Pradesh) has consistently retained the top rank as India's cleanest city under the annual Swachh Survekshan / Swachh Bharat rankings.
इंदौर (मध्य प्रदेश) स्वच्छ भारत मिशन/स्वच्छ सर्वेक्षण में भारत के सबसे स्वच्छ शहर के रूप में लगातार शीर्ष स्थान पर रहा है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3662📚General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs & National Bodies
Which organization conducted India's first nationwide civil defence mock drill since 1971?
A) Ministry of Defence
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) National Disaster Management Authority
D) Indian Army
Explanation
The Directorate General of Fire Services, Civil Defence & Home Guards under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India, conducted the nationwide civil defence exercise and mock drill.
गृह मंत्रालय (Ministry of Home Affairs - MHA) के अग्निशमन सेवा, नागरिक सुरक्षा और होमगार्ड महानिदेशालय द्वारा 1971 के बाद पहली बार देशव्यापी नागरिक सुरक्षा मॉक ड्रिल का आयोजन किया गया। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3663📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian National Movement
The Indian National Congress was founded in which year?
A) 1883
B) 1905
C) 1985
D) 1885
Explanation
The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded on 28 December 1885 at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay by retired British civil servant Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume). Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee served as its first president.
भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस (INC) की स्थापना 28 दिसंबर 1885 को बॉम्बे में ए.ओ. ह्यूम द्वारा की गई थी। इसके पहले अध्यक्ष व्योमेश चंद्र बनर्जी थे। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3664📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography
Which is the largest state in India by area?
A) Maharashtra
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Rajasthan
D) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by geographical area, covering approximately 342,239 sq km (about 10.4% of India's total land area), followed by Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
क्षेत्रफल की दृष्टि से भारत का सबसे बड़ा राज्य राजस्थान है (लगभग 3,42,239 वर्ग किमी), जिसके बाद क्रमशः मध्य प्रदेश और महाराष्ट्र आते हैं। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3665📚General Awareness & ScienceLakes of India
The largest freshwater lake in India, Wular, is located in which district?
A) Jammu
B) Shopian
C) Reasi
D) Bandipora
Explanation
Wular Lake, the largest freshwater lake in India and a designated Ramsar wetland site, is located in Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir. It is fed by the Jhelum River.
भारत की सबसे बड़ी मीठे पानी की झील वूलर (Wular Lake) जम्मू-कश्मीर के बांदीपोरा (Bandipora) जिले में स्थित है। यह झेलम नदी द्वारा पोषित एक रामसर आर्द्रभूमि स्थल है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3666📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian States & Capitals
What is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh?
A) Itanagar
B) Kohima
C) Imphal
D) Gangtok
Explanation
Itanagar is the capital city of Arunachal Pradesh. Kohima is the capital of Nagaland, Imphal of Manipur, and Gangtok of Sikkim.
अरुणाचल प्रदेश की राजधानी ईटानगर (Itanagar) है। कोहिमा नागालैंड की, इंफाल मणिपुर की और गंगटोक सिक्किम की राजधानी है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3667📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian States & Capitals
Which state has Imphal as its capital?
A) Mizoram
B) Nagaland
C) Manipur
D) Meghalaya
Explanation
Imphal is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Manipur. Aizawl is the capital of Mizoram, Kohima of Nagaland, and Shillong of Meghalaya.
इंफाल मणिपुर (Manipur) की राजधानी है। मिजोरम की राजधानी आइजोल, नागालैंड की कोहिमा और मेघालय की शिलांग है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3668📚General Awareness & ScienceVitamins & Nutrition
Which vitamin is produced when the skin is exposed to sunlight?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
Explanation
Vitamin D (specifically cholecalciferol or Vitamin D3) is synthesized in the human skin when 7-dehydrocholesterol absorbs ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation from sunlight.
जब त्वचा सूर्य के प्रकाश (UVB किरणों) के संपर्क में आती है, तो त्वचा में 7-डीहाइड्रोकोलेस्ट्रॉल से विटामिन डी (Vitamin D) का संश्लेषण होता है। अतः इसे 'सनशाइन विटामिन' भी कहा जाता है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3669📚General Awareness & ScienceHuman Physiology & Circulatory System
What is the main function of red blood cells?
A) Fighting infection
B) Carrying oxygen
C) Clotting blood
D) Producing hormones
Explanation
Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain the iron-rich protein hemoglobin, whose primary physiological function is to bind oxygen in the lungs and transport it to tissues throughout the body.
लाल रक्त कोशिकाओं (RBCs) का मुख्य कार्य हीमोग्लोबिन के माध्यम से फेफड़ों से शरीर के सभी ऊतकों तक ऑक्सीजन पहुँचाना (Carrying oxygen) है। संक्रमण से लड़ना WBCs और रक्त का थक्का बनाना प्लेटलेट्स का कार्य है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3670📚General Awareness & ScienceEndocrine System & Hormones
Which organ in the human body produces insulin?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Kidney
D) Heart
Explanation
Insulin is a peptide hormone synthesized and secreted by the beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans within the pancreas, responsible for regulating blood glucose levels.
इंसुलिन हार्मोन का उत्पादन अग्न्याशय (Pancreas) की लैंगरहैंस की द्वीपिकाओं की बीटा कोशिकाओं (Beta cells) द्वारा होता है। यह रक्त में शर्करा के स्तर को नियंत्रित करता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3671📚General Awareness & ScienceSolar System & Astronomy
Which planet is known as the "Red Planet"?
A) Venus
B) Mars
C) Mercury
D) Earth
Explanation
Mars is known as the 'Red Planet' due to the widespread presence of iron oxide (rust) on its surface, which gives it a reddish appearance.
मंगल ग्रह (Mars) की सतह पर प्रचुर मात्रा में आयरन ऑक्साइड (जंग) मौजूद होने के कारण यह लाल रंग का दिखाई देता है, इसलिए इसे 'लाल ग्रह' (Red Planet) कहा जाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3672📚General Awareness & ScienceHuman Anatomy & Physiology
The largest gland in the human body is
A) Pancreas
B) Thyroid
C) Liver
D) Adrenal
Explanation
The liver is the largest internal organ and the largest gland in the human body, weighing approximately 1.5 kg in an adult. It performs vital metabolic functions including bile production, detoxification, and protein synthesis.
यकृत (Liver) मानव शरीर की सबसे बड़ी ग्रंथि (Largest gland) तथा सबसे बड़ा आंतरिक अंग है। इसका औसत भार लगभग 1.5 किग्रा होता है और यह पित्त रस के निर्माण सहित अनेक चयापचय कार्यों को करता है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3673📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KCulture & Traditional Attire of J&K
Which of the following is the traditional attire worn by both men and women in Kashmir?
A) Pheran
B) Sari
C) Sherwani
D) Kurta
Explanation
The Pheran is the iconic loose, long traditional woollen cloak worn by both Kashmiri men and women over their clothing to keep warm during the severe winter months.
फेरन (Pheran) कश्मीर का पारंपरिक ढीला और लंबा ऊनी वस्त्र है जिसे कड़ाके की ठंड से बचने के लिए पुरुष और महिला दोनों पहनते हैं। इसके नीचे प्रायः कांगड़ी रखी जाती है। अतः विकल्प A सही है।
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3674📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KHistory of J&K - Mughal Period
The Mughal emperor who annexed Kashmir in 1586 was
A) Babur
B) Humayun
C) Akbar
D) Shah Jahan
Explanation
Mughal Emperor Akbar annexed Kashmir to the Mughal Empire in 1586 CE by dispatching an imperial army led by Qasim Khan and Raja Bhagwant Das, ending the rule of the Chak dynasty under Yaqub Shah Chak.
मुगल सम्राट अकबर ने 1586 ईस्वी में कासिम खान और राजा भगवंत दास के नेतृत्व में सेना भेजकर चक वंश के अंतिम शासक याकूब शाह चक को पराजित कर कश्मीर को मुगल साम्राज्य में मिला लिया था। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3675📚Civil EngineeringSurveying - Plane Table Surveying
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Statement)
i. Accurate centering in plane table surveying is necessary for
ii. Exact orientation is more important than accurate centering for
iii. The intersection method of plane table surveying is particularly employed for
iv. Plane table survey is useful for
List - II (Situation)
1. Inaccessible points
2. Open country with good intervisibility
3. Large scale maps
4. Small scale maps
Choose the correct option:
A) (i) - 3, (ii) - 4, (iii) - 1, (iv) - 2
B) (i) - 4, (ii) - 3, (iii) - 2, (iv) - 1
C) (i) - 1, (ii) - 2, (iii) - 4, (iv) - 3
D) (i) - 3, (ii) - 2, (iii) - 1, (iv) - 4
Explanation
Plane table surveying principles:
(i) Accurate centering is critical for large scale maps (3) because small centering discrepancies are plottable at large scales.
(ii) Exact orientation is more important than accurate centering for small scale maps (4) where centering errors become negligible on paper.
(iii) The intersection method is particularly employed for locating inaccessible points (1) like distant hills, river points, etc.
(iv) Plane table surveying is most useful for open country with good intervisibility (2).
Therefore, the correct code is (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2.
प्लेन टेबल सर्वेक्षण के सिद्धांत:
(i) बड़े पैमाने के मानचित्रों (Large scale maps) के लिए सटीक केंद्रण अत्यंत आवश्यक है -> 3
(ii) छोटे पैमाने के मानचित्रों (Small scale maps) के लिए सटीक दिकस्थापन (orientation), केंद्रण की तुलना में अधिक महत्वपूर्ण होता है -> 4
(iii) प्रतिच्छेदन विधि (Intersection method) विशेष रूप से अगम्य बिंदुओं (Inaccessible points) के लिए प्रयुक्त होती है -> 1
(iv) प्लेन टेबल सर्वेक्षण अच्छी दृश्यता वाले खुले भूभाग (Open country with good intervisibility) के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयोगी है -> 2
अतः सही मिलान (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2 है। विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।
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3676📚Civil EngineeringMechanics of Materials - Principal Stresses & Shear
A circular bar is subjected to an axial pull of 100 kN. If the maximum intensity of shear stress on any oblique plane is not to exceed 60 MN/m², determine the diameter of the bar:
A) 21.6 mm
B) 32.6 mm
C) 45.6 mm
D) 48.6 mm
Explanation
For a member under pure uniaxial tension P, the maximum shear stress on an oblique plane occurs at 45° and is given by: τ_max = σ / 2 = P / (2 A). Given P = 100 kN = 100 10³ N, and τ_max ≤ 60 MN/m² = 60 N/mm². Therefore, P / (2 A) ≤ 60 => A ≥ P / (2 60) = 100000 / 120 = 833.33 mm². Since A = (π/4) d², d = √((4 833.33) / π) = √(1061.03) = 32.57 mm ≈ 32.6 mm.
एकअक्षीय तनाव P के अंतर्गत अधिकतम कर्तन प्रतिबल τ_max = σ / 2 = P / (2 A) होता है। यहाँ P = 100 kN = 100000 N और τ_max = 60 N/mm²। अतः A ≥ 100000 / (2 60) = 833.33 mm²। क्षेत्रफल A = (π/4) d² से: d = √((4 833.33) / π) = 32.57 mm ≈ 32.6 mm। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3677📚Civil EngineeringMechanics of Materials - Principal Stresses
If principal stresses in a two-dimensional case are -10 MPa and 20 MPa respectively, then maximum shear stress at the point is
A) 10 MPa
B) 15 MPa
C) 20 MPa
D) 30 MPa
Explanation
In 2D plane stress, maximum in-plane shear stress is given by: τ_max = (σ₁ - σ₂) / 2. Here, σ₁ = 20 MPa and σ₂ = -10 MPa. Therefore, τ_max = [20 - (-10)] / 2 = 30 / 2 = 15 MPa.
द्वि-विमीय प्रतिबल अवस्था में अधिकतम कर्तन प्रतिबल τ_max = (σ₁ - σ₂) / 2 होता है। यहाँ σ₁ = 20 MPa और σ₂ = -10 MPa। अतः τ_max = [20 - (-10)] / 2 = (20 + 10) / 2 = 30 / 2 = 15 MPa। विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।
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3678📚Civil EngineeringStructural Analysis - Truss Member Forces
All the members of the planar truss (see figure), have the same properties in terms of area of cross-section (A) and modulus of elasticity (E). For the loads shown on the truss, the statements that correctly represents the nature of forces in the members of the truss is:
A) There are 3 members in tension, and 2 members in compression
B) There are 2 members in tension, and 2 members in compression, 1 zero-force member
C) There are 2 members in tension, 1 member in compression, and 2 zero-force members
D) There are 2 members in tension, and 3 zero-force members
Explanation
Analysis of the planar 5-member square truss: Under the equal and opposite external couple loads P acting horizontally at diagonal joints, joint equilibrium reveals that 2 members are in tension, 2 members are in compression, and 1 member has zero force. Thus, statement B correctly describes the force distribution.
समतलीय 5-सदस्यीय ट्रस के जोड़ संतुलन विश्लेषण से: विपरीत जोड़ों पर लगे बलों के प्रभाव में, दो सदस्य तनाव (tension) में होते हैं, दो सदस्य संपीड़न (compression) में होते हैं, तथा एक सदस्य शून्य-बल सदस्य (zero-force member) होता है। अतः सही कथन विकल्प B है।
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3679📚Civil EngineeringMechanics of Materials - Principal Planes & Stress Invariants
Consider the following statements:
I. On a principal plane, only normal stress acts
II. On a principal plane, both normal and shear stresses act
III. On a principal plane, only shear stress acts
IV. Isotropic state of stress is independent of frame of reference
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A) I and IV
B) II only
C) II and IV
D) II and III
Explanation
By definition, a principal plane is a plane on which shear stress is identically zero, meaning only normal stress acts (Statement I is TRUE, Statements II and III are FALSE). In an isotropic (hydrostatic) state of stress, normal stress is identical in all directions and shear stress is zero on all planes; hence, it is invariant and independent of the coordinate frame of reference (Statement IV is TRUE). Thus, statements I and IV are correct.
परिभाषा के अनुसार, मुख्य समतल (Principal Plane) वह समतल होता है जिस पर कर्तन प्रतिबल शून्य होता है, अर्थात केवल सामान्य प्रतिबल (Normal stress) कार्य करता है (कथन I सत्य है, कथन II व III असत्य हैं)। समदैशिक प्रतिबल स्थिति में प्रतिबल सभी दिशाओं में समान होता है और संदर्भ तंत्र (Frame of reference) पर निर्भर नहीं करता (कथन IV सत्य है)। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A (I and IV) है।
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3680📚Civil EngineeringMechanics of Materials - Pure Bending Theory
The "Plane section remains plane" assumption in bending theory implies
A) Stress profile is linear
B) Strain profile is linear
C) Both profiles are linear
D) Shear deformation is neglected
Explanation
The Bernoulli-Euler assumption that 'plane sections normal to the neutral axis before bending remain plane and normal to the neutral axis after bending' is purely a kinematic assumption. It directly implies that longitudinal strain varies linearly with distance from the neutral axis (linear strain profile). The stress profile is linear only if Hooke's law additionally holds.
बंकन सिद्धांत में 'समतल काट बंकन के बाद भी समतल रहता है' (Plane sections remain plane) बर्नौली की एक शुद्ध गतिज मान्यता है। इसका सीधा निष्कर्ष यह है कि अनुदैर्ध्य विकृति तटस्थ अक्ष से दूरी के साथ रैखिक रूप से बदलती है (Strain profile is linear)। प्रतिबल का रैखिक होना तभी संभव है जब हुक का नियम भी लागू हो। अतः विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।
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3681📚Civil EngineeringIrrigation Engineering - Land Drainage
A tile drainage system draining 12 hectares, flows at a design capacity for two days, following a storm. If the system is designed using a drainage coefficient of 1.25 cm, how many cubic meters of water will be removed during this period?
A) 1000 m³
B) 2000 m³
C) 3000 m³
D) 4000 m³
Explanation
Drainage coefficient is the depth of water removed from the drainage area in 24 hours (1 day). Drainage coefficient = 1.25 cm/day = 0.0125 m/day. Drainage area = 12 hectares = 12 10⁴ m² = 120,000 m². In 2 days, total depth removed = 2 0.0125 m = 0.025 m. Total volume of water removed = Area Depth = 120,000 m² 0.025 m = 3000 m³.
अपवाह गुणांक (Drainage coefficient) 24 घंटे (1 दिन) में हटाई जाने वाली जल की गहराई होती है = 1.25 cm/दिन = 0.0125 m/दिन।
क्षेत्रफल = 12 हेक्टेयर = 120,000 m²।
2 दिनों में हटाई गई कुल गहराई = 0.0125 2 = 0.025 मीटर। अतः हटाई गई जल की कुल मात्रा = 120,000 0.025 = 3000 m³। विकल्प C सही उत्तर है।
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3682📚Civil EngineeringIrrigation & Hydrology - Dams and Reservoirs
The lake of water which is formed upstream is often called a
A) creep
B) reservoir
C) side flanks
D) swift frinity
Explanation
A large artificial or natural body of water formed upstream of a dam, weir, or barrage constructed across a river or stream is called a reservoir (or storage reservoir).
किसी बांध, बैराज या वियर के अपस्ट्रीम (प्रवाह की उल्टी दिशा) में बनने वाले कृत्रिम या प्राकृतिक जल निकाय को जलाशय (Reservoir) कहा जाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3683📚Civil EngineeringHydrology - Hydrological Cycle
_______ evaporates water, and (ii) _______ by causing and controlling winds, (iii) _______ circulates the evaporated water vapour, and thus, helping in its precipitation at different places. Choose the correct option to fill out i, ii, iii in order.
A) Sun, hydro cycle, filtration
B) Sun, Coriolis force, filtration
C) Sun, cycle, precipitation
D) Sun, Coriolis force, reprecipitation
Explanation
In the hydrologic cycle: The (i) Sun radiates thermal energy that evaporates water from oceans and lakes; atmospheric circulation and wind patterns drive the (ii) cycle (or wind currents) that transport evaporated water vapour; leading to cloud condensation and (iii) precipitation over land and water bodies. Thus, the sequence 'Sun, cycle, precipitation' completes the sentence.
जल चक्र के संदर्भ में: (i) सूर्य (Sun) जल का वाष्पीकरण करता है, (ii) चक्रीय वायु प्रवाह (cycle) जलवाष्प को विभिन्न स्थानों पर ले जाता है, जिससे अंततः बादलों के संघनन द्वारा (iii) वर्षण (precipitation) होता है। अतः सही क्रम Sun, cycle, precipitation (विकल्प C) है।
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3684📚Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Wastewater Characteristics
In a domestic wastewater sample, COD and BOD were measured. Generally, which of the following statement is true for their relative magnitude?
A) COD = BOD
B) COD > BOD
C) COD < BOD
D) None of the above
Explanation
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures the oxygen required to oxidize both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic matter using a strong chemical oxidant (potassium dichromate). Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures only the biologically degradable organic matter. Hence, COD is always greater than BOD for wastewater (COD > BOD).
रासायनिक ऑक्सीजन मांग (COD) में जैव-अपघटनीय और गैर-जैव-अपघटनीय दोनों प्रकार के कार्बनिक पदार्थों को ऑक्सीकृत करने के लिए आवश्यक ऑक्सीजन शामिल होती है। जबकि जैव-रासायनिक ऑक्सीजन मांग (BOD) में केवल जैव-अपघटनीय कार्बनिक पदार्थ शामिल होते हैं। इसलिए किसी भी अपशिष्ट जल में COD का मान हमेशा BOD से अधिक होता है (COD > BOD)। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3685📚Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Water Treatment Sequence
The potable water is prepared from turbid surface water by adopting the following treatment sequence:
A) Turbid surface water - Coagulation - Flocculation - Sedimentation - Filtration - Disinfection - Storage and Supply
B) Turbid surface water - Sedimentation - Coagulation - Flocculation - Filtration - Disinfection - Storage and Supply
C) Turbid surface water - Flocculation - Coagulation - Filtration - Disinfection - Sedimentation - Storage and Supply
D) Turbid surface water - Coagulation - Flocculation - Filtration - Disinfection - Sedimentation - Storage and Supply
Explanation
The standard conventional water treatment plant flow sequence for turbid surface raw water is: Raw Water -> Coagulation (rapid mixing of coagulant) -> Flocculation (slow mixing to form flocs) -> Sedimentation (settling of flocs in clarifier) -> Filtration (sand/media filters) -> Disinfection (chlorination) -> Storage and Distribution.
गंदले सतही जल से पेयजल तैयार करने का मानक पारंपरिक उपचार क्रम:
कच्चा पानी -> स्कंदन (Coagulation) -> ऊर्णन (Flocculation) -> अवसादन (Sedimentation) -> निस्यंदन/छनन (Filtration) -> कीटाणुशोधन (Disinfection) -> भंडारण और वितरण (Storage and Supply)। अतः विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।
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3686📚Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Sewage Disposal
The following two statements are relevant to method of sewage disposal:
Statement - 1: The three principal processes of land treatment of wastewater are (i) Broad irrigation or sewage farming, (ii) Rapid infiltration, and (iii) Overland runoff.
Statement - 2: The ratio of quantity of receiving water to that of wastewater or effluent discharge is called the dilution factor.
Choose the correct option:
A) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
B) Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect
C) Statement 1 and 2 are correct
D) Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
Explanation
Methods of sewage disposal:
Statement 1: The three primary recognized methods of land application/treatment of wastewater are slow-rate infiltration (broad irrigation/sewage farming), rapid infiltration, and overland flow/runoff. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: When disposing sewage by dilution into a natural water body, the dilution factor is defined as the ratio of the discharge/volume of receiving clean water to that of the incoming wastewater or effluent. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
सीवेज निपटान के संदर्भ में:
कथन 1: भूमि पर अपशिष्ट जल उपचार की तीन मुख्य विधियां हैं - (i) विस्तृत सिंचाई या सीवेज खेती (Broad irrigation/sewage farming), (ii) तीव्र अंतःस्यंदन (Rapid infiltration), और (iii) ओवरलैंड प्रवाह (Overland runoff)। अतः कथन 1 सत्य है।
कथन 2: प्राप्तकर्ता प्राकृतिक जल के आयतन/विसर्जन और अपशिष्ट जल या बहिःस्राव के विसर्जन के अनुपात को तनुकरण कारक (Dilution factor) कहा जाता है। अतः कथन 2 भी सत्य है।
इसलिए दोनों कथन 1 और 2 सत्य हैं (विकल्प C)।
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3687📚Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Sedimentation Theory
Particles may settle out of a suspension in four ways, depending upon the concentration of the suspension and the flocculating properties of the particles. Arrange the four types in order with respect to decreasing of settling depth vs increasing of settling time. Choose the correct order.
A) Discrete settling, Flocculant settling, Zone settling, Compression settling
B) Compression settling, Flocculant settling, Discrete settling, Zone settling
C) Zone settling, Flocculant settling, Discrete settling, Compression settling
D) Discrete settling, Zone settling, Flocculant settling, Compression settling
Explanation
Settling phenomena are categorized into four types with increasing solid concentration and flocculation interaction:
Type 1: Discrete settling (individual unhindered particles, settles fastest, minimum time)
Type 2: Flocculant settling (dilute suspension with agglomerating particles)
Type 3: Zone / Hindered settling (intermediate concentration, particles settle as a blanket)
Type 4: Compression settling (highest solids concentration, lower blanket layers compressed under weight, longest settling time).
Arranged in this sequential order from dilute to concentrated: Discrete settling, Flocculant settling, Zone settling, Compression settling.
निलंबन में कणों के बैठने (Settling) के चार प्रकार, सांद्रता और समय के बढ़ते क्रम में निम्न हैं:
टाइप 1: विविक्त अवसादन (Discrete settling - कम सांद्रता, स्वतंत्र कण)
टाइप 2: ऊर्णन अवसादन (Flocculant settling - कण आपस में जुड़ते हैं)
टाइप 3: क्षेत्र/अवरुद्ध अवसादन (Zone/Hindered settling - एक परत के रूप में बैठना)
टाइप 4: संपीड़न अवसादन (Compression settling - अत्यधिक सांद्रता, अधिकतम समय)
अतः सही क्रम Discrete settling, Flocculant settling, Zone settling, Compression settling है। विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।
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3688📚Civil EngineeringStructural Analysis - Static Determinacy of Trusses
A frame having (M) number of member and joints (J) is said to be perfect frame if it follows the equation as given below
A) J = 2M - 3
B) M = 2J - 3
C) M = 3J - 2
D) J = M + 3
Explanation
A pin-jointed plane frame or truss having M members and J joints is statically determinate and stable (called a perfect frame) when it satisfies the condition M = 2J - 3. If M < 2J - 3 it is deficient, and if M > 2J - 3 it is redundant.
एक समतलीय पिन-जोड़ ट्रस या ढांचा जिसमें M सदस्य और J जोड़ हों, एक आदर्श ढांचा (Perfect Frame) तब कहलाता है जब वह संबंध M = 2J - 3 को संतुष्ट करता है। यदि M < 2J - 3 हो तो वह अपूर्ण (Deficient) और M > 2J - 3 हो तो अतिरेकी (Redundant) कहलाता है। अतः विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।
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3689📚Civil EngineeringConcrete Technology - Chemistry of Cement Hydration
The constituent compounds of cement in decreasing order of rate of hydration are
A) C₂S, C₃S and C₃A
B) C₃S, C₃A and C₂S
C) C₃A, C₂S and C₃S
D) C₃A, C₃S and C₂S
Explanation
The rate of hydration of Bogue's compounds in Portland cement follows the order: C₄AF > C₃A > C₃S > C₂S. Among the three given compounds (C₃A, C₃S, C₂S), the decreasing order of rate of hydration is C₃A > C₃S > C₂S.
सीमेंट के बोग यौगिकों (Bogue's compounds) के जलयोजन की दर (Rate of Hydration) का घटता क्रम: C₄AF > C₃A > C₃S > C₂S होता है। अतः दिए गए तीन मुख्य यौगिकों में घटता क्रम C₃A, C₃S और C₂S होगा। अतः विकल्प D सही उत्तर है।
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3690📚Civil EngineeringGeotechnical Engineering - Soil Stabilization
Lime stabilization is very effective in treating
A) Sandy soil
B) Silty soil
C) Non-plastic soil
D) Plastic clayey soil
Explanation
Lime stabilization relies on cation exchange and pozzolanic reactions between lime (calcium hydroxide) and the silica/alumina in clay minerals. It causes flocculation, sharply reduces the plasticity index, controls swell-shrink behavior, and increases bearing capacity. Thus, it is most effective in highly plastic clayey soils.
चूना स्थिरीकरण (Lime stabilization) अत्यधिक सुघट्य मृत्तिका (Plastic clayey soil) के उपचार में सर्वाधिक प्रभावी होता है। चूना मिट्टी के खनिजों के साथ पॉज़ोलैनिक अभिक्रिया करके उसकी सुघट्यता सूचकांक (Plasticity Index) को घटाता है और सामर्थ्य बढ़ाता है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3691📚Civil EngineeringFluid Mechanics - Measuring Instruments
Consider the following pairs:
i. Pitot tube - 1. Flow and viscous property of fluid
ii. Rheometer - 2. Flowing fluid velocity at any point
iii. Hydrometer - 3. Pressure of the pipeline
iv. Manometer - 4. Specific gravity or density of a liquid
Which of the pair given below is correctly matched?
A) (i) - (1), (ii) - (2), (iii) - (3), (iv) - (4)
B) (i) - (1), (ii) - (4), (iii) - (3), (iv) - (2)
C) (i) - (2), (ii) - (1), (iii) - (4), (iv) - (3)
D) (i) - (4), (ii) - (3), (iii) - (2), (iv) - (1)
Explanation
Matching measuring instruments with their functions:
(i) Pitot tube: Measures flowing fluid velocity at a point -> 2
(ii) Rheometer: Measures flow and rheological/viscous properties of fluids -> 1
(iii) Hydrometer: Measures specific gravity or density of a liquid -> 4
(iv) Manometer: Measures pressure of fluid in a pipeline -> 3
Therefore, the correct matched combination is (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(3).
मापन उपकरणों और उनके कार्यों का सही मिलान:
(i) पिटोट ट्यूब (Pitot tube): किसी बिंदु पर तरल का वेग मापना -> 2
(ii) रियोमीटर (Rheometer): तरल की श्यानता और प्रवाह गुण मापना -> 1
(iii) हाइड्रोमीटर (Hydrometer): द्रव का आपेक्षिक घनत्व मापना -> 4
(iv) मैनोमीटर (Manometer): पाइपलाइन में दाब मापना -> 3
अतः सही मिलान (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(3) है। विकल्प C सही उत्तर है।
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3692📚Civil EngineeringRailway Engineering - Permanent Way & Rail Types
Which of the following rails is most preferred by Indian railway
A) Flat footed rails
B) Bull head rails
C) Double headed rails
D) Thin headed rails
Explanation
Flat-footed rails (Vignoles rails) are universally adopted by Indian Railways (accounting for over 90% of tracks) because of their broad base, high lateral stiffness, easy fixing directly to sleepers with simple fastenings, and economy without requiring separate chairs.
भारतीय रेलवे में सबसे अधिक चपटे पाद वाली रेल (Flat footed rails / Vignoles rails) का उपयोग किया जाता है। इसके चौड़े आधार के कारण इसे बिना किसी अलग चेयर के सीधे स्लीपरों पर आसानी से बांधा जा सकता है और यह उत्कृष्ट पार्श्व स्थिरता प्रदान करती है। अतः विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।
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3693📚Civil EngineeringRailway Engineering - Rail Metallurgy & Steel Composition
Two major constituents in the composition of steel used in rail are
A) Carbon and Silicon
B) Carbon and Sulphur
C) Carbon and Manganese
D) Carbon and Lithium
Explanation
Standard rail steel (such as 880 grade or medium manganese rail steel used in Indian Railways) primarily consists of Carbon (approx. 0.60% to 0.80% for high strength and hardness) and Manganese (approx. 0.80% to 1.30% for toughness and wear resistance).
रेल निर्माण में प्रयुक्त उच्च तन्य इस्पात के दो मुख्य घटक कार्बन (0.60% से 0.80%) और मैंगनीज (0.80% से 1.30%) होते हैं। कार्बन कठोरता प्रदान करता है और मैंगनीज घिसाव प्रतिरोध व चिमड़पन बढ़ाता है। अतः विकल्प C सही उत्तर है।
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3694📚Civil EngineeringRailway Engineering - Rail Wear
The wear of the rail is maximum at
A) Tunnel
B) Sharp curve
C) Coastal area
D) Square crossing
Explanation
Rail wear is greatest on sharp curves due to heavy lateral wheel flange thrust against the inner side of the outer rail head (side wear), slipping of wheel treads during traversing curves, and severe centrifugal forces.
रेल पटरियों का घिसाव (Wear of rail) तीखे मोड़ों (Sharp curve) पर सबसे अधिक होता है, क्योंकि बाहरी रेल के भीतरी किनारे पर पहियों के फ्लैंज का भारी पार्श्व दबाव (Side wear) और घर्षण कार्य करता है। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3695📚Civil EngineeringEstimating and Costing - Contracts and Tenders
While submitting a tender the contractor is required to deposit some amount with the department, as guarantee of the tender, known as
A) Bank guarantee
B) Caution money
C) Security deposit
D) Earnest money
Explanation
Earnest Money Deposit (EMD, usually 1% to 2% of the estimated cost) is the monetary deposit required from contractors when submitting tenders to guarantee that the bidder is serious and will not back out of the bid if awarded. (Security deposit is deducted later from bills as performance security).
निविदा (टेंडर) जमा करते समय ठेकेदार द्वारा विभाग में गारंटी के रूप में जमा की जाने वाली अग्रिम राशि को बयाना राशि या अर्नेस्ट मनी (Earnest money deposit - EMD) कहा जाता है। (सुरक्षा जमा/सिक्योरिटी डिपॉजिट काम मिलने के बाद लिया जाता है)। अतः विकल्प D सही उत्तर है।
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3696📚Civil EngineeringEstimating, Costing & Valuation - Valuation Terms
Estimated value of a built up property at the end of its useful life without being dismantled is known as,
A) Scrap value
B) Salvage Value
C) Market value
D) Book value
Explanation
Salvage Value is the estimated value of a property/utility at the end of its useful life period without being dismantled into pieces. In contrast, Scrap Value (junk value) is the value realized when the structure is completely demolished/dismantled and sold as scrap materials.
किसी संपत्ति के उपयोगी जीवनकाल के अंत में बिना तोड़े या नष्ट किए (without being dismantled) उसकी अनुमानित कीमत को निस्तारण मूल्य (Salvage Value) कहा जाता है। यदि संरचना को तोड़कर कबाड़ के रूप में बेचा जाए तो उसे स्क्रैप वैल्यू (Scrap value) कहते हैं। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3697📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - CPM Network Elements
In a network diagram, an activity having a dotted arrow between two activity is referred as,
A) Important activity
B) Risky activity
C) Dummy activity
D) Delayed activity
Explanation
In CPM/PERT arrow network diagrams, a dummy activity is an artificial activity represented by a dashed or dotted arrow that consumes zero time and zero resources, used solely to establish logical precedence relationships and maintain unique node identification.
नेटवर्क आरेख में दो घटनाओं के बीच बिंदीदार या टूटे हुए तीर (dotted arrow) द्वारा दर्शाई गई गतिविधि को मूक गतिविधि या डमी गतिविधि (Dummy activity) कहा जाता है। यह शून्य समय और शून्य संसाधन लेती है और केवल तार्किक संबंध स्थापित करने के लिए प्रयुक्त होती है। अतः विकल्प C सही उत्तर है।
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3698📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - CPM Critical Path Analysis
In the following network, choose the Critical Path from given options, (the number on the arrow shows duration of activity)
Network nodes and durations:
A -> B = 2
B -> C = 3
B -> D = 3
C -> D = 2
C -> E = 4
D -> E = 3
E -> F = 2
The correct option is:
A) A-B-C-D-E-F
B) A-B-D-E-F
C) A-B-C-E-F
D) A-B-D-C-E-F
Explanation
Calculating the total duration for all paths through the network:
Path 1: A-B-C-D-E-F = 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 = 12
Path 2: A-B-D-E-F = 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 = 10
Path 3: A-B-C-E-F = 2 + 3 + 4 + 2 = 11
The critical path is the path with the longest total duration, which is A-B-C-D-E-F with duration 12.
नेटवर्क में सभी संभावित मार्गों की अवधि:
मार्ग 1: A-B-C-D-E-F = 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 = 12
मार्ग 2: A-B-D-E-F = 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 = 10
मार्ग 3: A-B-C-E-F = 2 + 3 + 4 + 2 = 11
क्रांतिक पथ (Critical Path) सबसे लंबी अवधि वाला मार्ग होता है, जो कि 12 दिनों के साथ A-B-C-D-E-F है। अतः विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।
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3699📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - PERT Expected Time & Variance
If the optimistic time (t_o), most likely or probable time (t_m), and pessimistic time (t_p), for activity (A) are 2, 5 and 14 days respectively, then expected duration and variance of the activity are
A) 2 and 5 days
B) 6 and 4 days
C) 14 and 7 days
D) 16 and 5 days
Explanation
In PERT analysis:
Expected duration t_e = (t_o + 4*t_m + t_p) / 6 = [2 + 4(5) + 14] / 6 = (2 + 20 + 14) / 6 = 36 / 6 = 6 days.
Standard deviation σ = (t_p - t_o) / 6 = (14 - 2) / 6 = 12 / 6 = 2 days.
Variance σ² = 2² = 4 days².
Thus, expected duration and variance are 6 and 4 days.
पर्ट (PERT) विश्लेषण के अनुसार:
प्रत्याशित समय t_e = (t_o + 4 t_m + t_p) / 6 = [2 + 4(5) + 14] / 6 = 36 / 6 = 6 दिन।
मानक विचलन σ = (t_p - t_o) / 6 = (14 - 2) / 6 = 12 / 6 = 2 दिन।
प्रसरण (Variance) = σ² = 2² = 4 दिन²।
अतः प्रत्याशित अवधि और प्रसरण क्रमशः 6 और 4 दिन हैं। विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।
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3700📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - CPM Float Calculations
As per Critical Path Methodology (CPM) the earliest start time for an event (I) is 10 weeks. Activity (I-J) takes 4 weeks for completion. Event (J) starts after 20 weeks. Then the total float for activity (I-J) is,
A) 2 weeks
B) 6 weeks
C) 12 weeks
D) 16 weeks
Explanation
Total float is given by TF = T_L^J - T_E^I - t_ij. Here, Earliest event time for I is T_E^I = 10 weeks, activity duration t_ij = 4 weeks, and completion/latest occurrence time for event J is T_L^J = 20 weeks. Total float = 20 - (10 + 4) = 20 - 14 = 6 weeks.
कुल फ्लोट (Total Float) = T_L^J - T_E^I - t_ij।
यहाँ प्रारंभिक घटना I का समय T_E^I = 10 सप्ताह,
गतिविधि की अवधि t_ij = 4 सप्ताह,
तथा घटना J का समय T_L^J = 20 सप्ताह।
कुल फ्लोट = 20 - (10 + 4) = 20 - 14 = 6 सप्ताह। अतः विकल्प B सही उत्तर है।
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3701📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - CPM Activity Float Definition
The difference between Late Start and Early Start Time of an activity is referred as,
A) Float
B) Progress of an activity
C) Task of a work
D) PERT task
Explanation
Total Float is defined as the maximum time by which an activity can be delayed without affecting the overall project completion time: Total Float = Late Start Time (LST) - Early Start Time (EST) = Late Finish Time (LFT) - Early Finish Time (EFT).
किसी गतिविधि के विलंबित प्रारंभ समय (Late Start) और प्रारंभिक प्रारंभ समय (Early Start) के अंतर को फ्लोट (Float) या कुल छूट कहा जाता है (Total Float = LST - EST)। अतः विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।
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3702📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - Precedence Relationships & Leads
A scheduled activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. Then it's referred as an example of,
A) Finish to start
B) Finish to finish
C) Start to finish
D) Start to start
Explanation
In project scheduling, the basic predecessor-successor logical relationship is Finish-to-Start (FS), where the successor normally starts after the predecessor finishes. When the successor is scheduled to begin 10 days prior to the predecessor's finish, it represents a Finish-to-Start relationship with a 10-day lead (FS - 10 days lead).
परियोजना शेड्यूलिंग में जब कोई अनुवर्ती गतिविधि अपनी पूर्ववर्ती गतिविधि के समाप्त होने से 10 दिन पहले शुरू हो सकती है, तो यह 10 दिन के लीड (अग्रता) के साथ फिनिश-टू-स्टार्ट (Finish to start with lead) संबंध का उदाहरण है। अतः विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।
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3703📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - Equipment Economics & Break-Even Analysis
Following is a Rate list for an earth excavation work:
Item 1: Manual excavation | Fixed Rate: Rs. 10 /cum | Variable rate: Nil
Item 2: Machine excavation | Fixed Rate: Rs. 4000 fixed | Variable rate: Rs. 2 /cum
As per above rate list, estimated quantity of earth, for which the cost of excavation by machine will be equal to the cost of manual excavation, considering variable rate is
A) 500 cum
B) 1000 cum
C) 2500 cum
D) 3000 cum
Explanation
Let Q be the quantity of earth in cubic meters (cum) at the break-even point where costs are equal:
Cost of manual excavation = 10 Q Cost of machine excavation = 4000 (fixed) + 2 Q
Equating both costs:
10 Q = 4000 + 2 Q
=> 8 * Q = 4000
=> Q = 4000 / 8 = 500 cum.
लागत समता (Break-even quantity) की गणना:
माना मिट्टी की मात्रा Q घन मीटर (cum) है।
मैन्युअल खुदाई लागत = 10 Q मशीन द्वारा खुदाई लागत = 4000 + 2 Q
दोनों को बराबर रखने पर: 10Q = 4000 + 2Q => 8Q = 4000 => Q = 500 cum।
अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A (500 cum) है।
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3704📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - CPM Network Crashing & Cost Slope
The cost slope is defined as
A) (Crash cost - Normal cost) / Normal time
B) (Crash cost - Normal cost) / Crash time
C) Crash cost / (Normal time - Crash time)
D) (Crash cost - Normal cost) / (Normal time - Crash time)
Explanation
In project crashing, cost slope is the direct cost increase per unit time saved by crashing an activity, defined mathematically as: Cost Slope = (Crash Cost - Normal Cost) / (Normal Time - Crash Time) = ΔC / Δt.
परियोजना क्रैशिंग में लागत ढाल (Cost slope) को क्रैश लागत और सामान्य लागत के अंतर तथा सामान्य समय और क्रैश समय के अंतर के अनुपात के रूप में परिभाषित किया जाता है:
Cost slope = (Crash cost - Normal cost) / (Normal time - Crash time)।
अतः विकल्प D सही उत्तर है।
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3705📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - Statistical Quality Control (IS 456)
Which among the following, means statistical quality control of RCC work at civil construction site?
A) Minimizing cost for removal of defective work
B) Applying theory of probability to sample testing or inspection
C) Minimizing in wastage of inspection cost
D) Calculating risk probably to minimize utilization
Explanation
Statistical Quality Control (SQC) in civil construction involves applying the mathematical principles of probability theory and sampling distributions (e.g., standard deviation, characteristic strength at 95% confidence limit) to sample inspection and destructive cube testing to assess and assure concrete mix quality for the entire batch.
सिविल निर्माण स्थल पर आरसीसी कार्य का सांख्यिकीय गुणवत्ता नियंत्रण (Statistical quality control - SQC) से तात्पर्य प्रतिदर्श परीक्षण या निरीक्षण में प्रायिकता सिद्धांत को लागू करना (Applying theory of probability to sample testing or inspection) है, ताकि नमूनों के आधार पर पूरे लॉट की गुणवत्ता और अभिलाक्षणिक सामर्थ्य की पुष्टि की जा सके। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
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3706📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - CPM Network Definitions
Consider the following pairs:
i. Networking - 1. actual performance of the task and consume time or resources, represented by an arrow
ii. Activity - 2. an arrow diagram obtained by connecting all the activities of a project in a logical sequence
iii. Event - 3. sequential relationship between other activities but does not consume resources, and represented by a circle
iv. Dummy activity - 4. start or completion of tasks and does not consume time or resources, and represent precedence relationship between real activities
Which of the pair given below is correctly matched?
A) (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(4)
B) (i)-(2), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(1)
C) (i)-(3), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(2)
D) (i)-(3), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(2)
Explanation
Matching CPM network concepts with their definitions:
(i) Networking: An arrow diagram obtained by connecting all the activities of a project in a logical sequence -> 2
(ii) Activity: Actual performance of a task that consumes time or resources, represented by an arrow -> 1
(iii) Event: Instant of start or completion of a task, consumes no time or resources, represented by a circle/node -> 3 (or 4 in standard text definitions, here paired logically as (i)-2, (ii)-1)
(iv) Dummy activity: Artificial activity establishing sequential/precedence relationships without consuming resources -> 4 (or 3)
Evaluating the provided multiple-choice option combinations, option A: (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(4) is the intended matching pair where Networking is 2 and Activity is 1.
सीपीएम/पर्ट नेटवर्क अवधारणाओं का सही मिलान:
(i) नेटवर्किंग (Networking): परियोजना की सभी गतिविधियों को तार्किक क्रम में जोड़कर बनाया गया तीर आरेख -> 2
(ii) गतिविधि (Activity): कार्य का वास्तविक निष्पादन जो समय और संसाधन की खपत करता है -> 1
(iii) घटना (Event): कार्य के प्रारंभ या पूर्ण होने का क्षण (सर्कल द्वारा निरूपित) -> 3
(iv) डमी गतिविधि (Dummy activity): पूर्ववर्ती संबंध दर्शाने वाली गतिविधि -> 4
अतः सही मिलान संयोजन (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(4) है। विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।
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3707📚Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering - Network Analysis & KCL
In the circuit shown below, if I1=1.5 AI_1 = 1.5\text{ A}, then I2I_2 will be:
[Circuit description: A DC circuit with a 6 V source connected in series with a 2 Ω resistor carrying current I1=1.5 AI_1 = 1.5\text{ A} towards a central node. At this node, a 2 Ω shunt branch carries downward current I2I_2 to the common reference, and a right branch has a 2 Ω resistor connected to a 3 V DC voltage source (with positive terminal upwards)].
A) 2.25 A
B) 1.7 A
C) 1.5 A
D) 3 A
Explanation
Let the central node voltage between the branches be VV. From the left branch, current I1=6−V2=1.5 A  ⟹  6−V=3  ⟹  V=3 VI_1 = \frac{6 - V}{2} = 1.5\text{ A} \implies 6 - V = 3 \implies V = 3\text{ V}. Current I2I_2 flowing down through the vertical 2 Ω resistor is I2=V2=32=1.5 AI_2 = \frac{V}{2} = \frac{3}{2} = 1.5\text{ A}. Furthermore, the current from the right 3 V source branch is 3−V2=3−32=0 A\frac{3 - V}{2} = \frac{3 - 3}{2} = 0\text{ A}, perfectly satisfying Kirchhoff's Current Law: I1=I2+0=1.5 AI_1 = I_2 + 0 = 1.5\text{ A}. Hence, I2=1.5 AI_2 = 1.5\text{ A}.
केंद्रीय नोड का विभव VV मान लेते हैं। बाईं शाखा के अनुसार, धारा I1=6−V2=1.5 A  ⟹  6−V=3  ⟹  V=3 VI_1 = \frac{6 - V}{2} = 1.5\text{ A} \implies 6 - V = 3 \implies V = 3\text{ V}। मध्य शाखा के 2 Ω प्रतिरोधक से नीचे बहने वाली धारा I2=V2=32=1.5 AI_2 = \frac{V}{2} = \frac{3}{2} = 1.5\text{ A} है। KCL के अनुसार 1.5 A=1.5 A+0 A1.5\text{ A} = 1.5\text{ A} + 0\text{ A} पूर्णतः संतुष्ट होता है। अतः सही विकल्प C (1.5 A) है।
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3708📚Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering - Network Analysis Methods
While analyzing the circuits using mesh and node analysis, which of Kirchhoff's laws is/are used?
A) KVL in mesh analysis and KCL in node analysis
B) KCL in mesh analysis and KVL in node analysis
C) KVL is used both in mesh analysis and node analysis
D) KCL is used both in mesh analysis and node analysis
Explanation
Mesh analysis is fundamentally based on Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) applied along closed loops to write loop equations in terms of mesh currents. Node analysis (or nodal analysis) is fundamentally based on Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) applied at non-reference nodes to write node equations in terms of node voltages. Hence, KVL is used in mesh analysis and KCL in node analysis.
परिपथ विश्लेषण में मेश (लूप) विश्लेषण किरचॉफ के वोल्टेज नियम (KVL) पर आधारित होता है जिसमें लूप समीकरण लिखे जाते हैं, जबकि नोड विश्लेषण किरचॉफ के धारा नियम (KCL) पर आधारित होता है जिसमें विभिन्न नोड्स पर धाराओं का बीजगणितीय योग शून्य किया जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प A है।
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3709📚Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering - Independent Sources
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I: An ideal voltage source has zero internal resistance
Statement II: An ideal voltage source maintains a constant voltage across its terminals regardless of the current drawn from it
Which of the following statement is/are true?
A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation for Statement I
C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Explanation
An ideal voltage source maintains a terminal voltage V=Vs−IRintV = V_s - I R_{int}. For the terminal voltage to remain strictly constant regardless of the magnitude or direction of current II drawn from it (V=VsV = V_s), the internal voltage drop IRintI R_{int} must be identically zero for all II, which mathematically and physically requires that internal resistance Rint=0R_{int} = 0. Thus, both statements are true, and Statement II correctly explains why an ideal voltage source has zero internal resistance.
एक आदर्श वोल्टेज स्रोत का टर्मिनल वोल्टेज V=Vs−IRintV = V_s - I R_{int} होता है। यदि स्रोत से ली जाने वाली किसी भी धारा के लिए टर्मिनल वोल्टेज स्थिर रहना है, तो आंतरिक वोल्टेज ड्रॉप शून्य होना चाहिए, जिसका अर्थ है कि आंतरिक प्रतिरोध शून्य (Rint=0R_{int} = 0) होना चाहिए। अतः दोनों कथन सत्य हैं और कथन II, कथन I की सही व्याख्या है (विकल्प A)।
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3710📚Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering - Network Duality
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
List - I
(w) Mesh
(x) Outside mesh
(y) Mesh current
(z) Number of meshes
List - II
(i) Number of nodes
(ii) Node voltage
(iii) Reference node
(iv) Node
Options:
A) (w)- (ii), (x)-(iii), (y)-(iv), (z)-(i)
B) (w)- (iii), (x)-(ii), (y)-(iv), (z)-(i)
C) (w)- (iv), (x)-(iii), (y)-(ii), (z)-(i)
D) (w)- (ii), (x)-(iv), (y)-(i), (z)-(iii)
Explanation
In circuit duality (Mesh-Nodal duality):
(w) Mesh corresponds dual-wise to Node -> (iv)
(x) Outside mesh (outer boundary/datum loop) corresponds to Reference node (datum node) -> (iii)
(y) Mesh current corresponds dual-wise to Node voltage -> (ii)
(z) Number of independent meshes corresponds to Number of independent nodes -> (i).
Hence, the correct matching code is (w)-(iv), (x)-(iii), (y)-(ii), (z)-(i), which is Option C.
परिपथ द्वैतता (Duality of Networks) के सिद्धांतों के अनुसार:
(w) मेश (Mesh) का द्वैत नोड (Node) होता है -> (iv)
(x) आउटसाइड मेश (Outside mesh) का द्वैत संदर्भ नोड (Reference node) होता है -> (iii)
(y) मेश धारा (Mesh current) का द्वैत नोड वोल्टेज (Node voltage) होता है -> (ii)
(z) मेश की संख्या (Number of meshes) का द्वैत नोड्स की संख्या होता है -> (i)।
अतः सही मिलान (w)-(iv), (x)-(iii), (y)-(ii), (z)-(i) है, जो विकल्प C है।
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3711📚Electrical EngineeringElectromagnetic Fields - Vector Field Polarization
What is the resulting vector when two sinusoidally time-varying vectors having different amplitudes and phases are added up?
A) Elliptically polarized
B) Circular polarized
C) Linearly polarized
D) Quadratic polarized
Explanation
When two orthogonal sinusoidally time-varying vector components having different amplitudes and arbitrary phase differences (other than 00, π\pi, or special circular polarization conditions where amplitudes are equal and phase difference is ±90∘\pm 90^\circ) are superposed, the locus of the tip of the resulting vector in the plane traces out an ellipse. Hence, the resulting wave/vector is elliptically polarized.
जब असमान आयाम और अलग-अलग कला (phase) वाले दो ज्यावक्रीय (sinusoidally) समय-परिवर्ती सदिशों को लंबवत रूप से जोड़ा जाता है, तो परिणामी सदिश का मार्ग एक दीर्घवृत्त (ellipse) बनाता है। अतः परिणामी सदिश 'दीर्घवृत्ताकार ध्रुवित' (Elliptically polarized) होता है। सही विकल्प A है।
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3712📚Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering - Nodal & Mesh Circuit Analysis
What will be the values of VsV_s and isi_s, respectively, in the circuit shown below?
[Circuit description: A circuit with three parallel vertical branches between a top common wire and a bottom common wire: Left branch contains an upward 2 A independent current source with voltage VsV_s across it (positive at top) in series with a 2 Ω top resistor. Middle branch contains a vertical capacitor/source labeled with voltage 10 V and downward branch current isi_s. Right section consists of a parallel branch with a 5 V DC source in series with a 5 Ω resistor, and another parallel 5 Ω resistor. Top wire voltage is 10 V and bottom is 0 V].
A) 14 V, 1 A
B) 14 V, -1 A
C) -14 V, -1 A
D) -14 V, 1 A
Explanation
Analyzing the circuit:
1. Top node voltage with respect to the bottom reference rail is held at 10 V10\text{ V} by the 10 V branch.
2. Left branch: A 2 A current source forces 2 A upward through the 2 Ω resistor into the top node. By KVL along the left branch: Vs−(2 A×2 Ω)=10 V  ⟹  Vs−4=10  ⟹  Vs=14 VV_s - (2\text{ A} \times 2\,\Omega) = 10\text{ V} \implies V_s - 4 = 10 \implies V_s = 14\text{ V}.
3. The current leaving the top node into the right sub-network: The right sub-network consists of a branch with a 5 V source in series with 5 Ω (I=10−55=1 AI = \frac{10 - 5}{5} = 1\text{ A}) and a parallel 5 Ω resistor (I=105=2 AI = \frac{10}{5} = 2\text{ A}), so total current entering the right branches is 1+2=3 A1 + 2 = 3\text{ A}.
4. By KCL at the top node: Currents entering = Currents leaving   ⟹  2 A=is+3 A  ⟹  is=2−3=−1 A\implies 2\text{ A} = i_s + 3\text{ A} \implies i_s = 2 - 3 = -1\text{ A}.
Thus, Vs=14 VV_s = 14\text{ V} and is=−1 Ai_s = -1\text{ A}.
परिपथ विश्लेषण:
1. शीर्ष (top) नोड का विभव निचली संदर्भ रेखा के सापेक्ष 10 V है।
2. बाईं शाखा में 2 A का धारा स्रोत ऊपर की ओर धारा प्रवाहित करता है। 2 Ω प्रतिरोधक पर ड्रॉप = 2×2=4 V2\times 2 = 4\text{ V}। KVL लगाने पर: Vs−4=10  ⟹  Vs=14 VV_s - 4 = 10 \implies V_s = 14\text{ V}।
3. दाईं ओर जाने वाली कुल धारा = 10−55+105=1+2=3 A\frac{10 - 5}{5} + \frac{10}{5} = 1 + 2 = 3\text{ A}।
4. शीर्ष नोड पर KCL लगाने पर: 2=is+3  ⟹  is=−1 A2 = i_s + 3 \implies i_s = -1\text{ A}।
अतः Vs=14 VV_s = 14\text{ V} तथा is=−1 Ai_s = -1\text{ A} (विकल्प B सही है)।
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3713📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems - Initial & Final Value Theorems
Given F(s)=s+2s(s+1)F(s) = \frac{s + 2}{s(s + 1)}. The initial and final values of f(t)f(t) are, respectively?
A) 2, 1
B) 1, 1
C) 2, 2
D) 1, 2
Explanation
Applying the Initial Value Theorem:
f(0+)=lim⁡s→∞sF(s)=lim⁡s→∞s[s+2s(s+1)]=lim⁡s→∞s+2s+1=1f(0^+) = \lim_{s \to \infty} s F(s) = \lim_{s \to \infty} s \left[\frac{s + 2}{s(s + 1)}\right] = \lim_{s \to \infty} \frac{s + 2}{s + 1} = 1.
Applying the Final Value Theorem (since the only poles are at s=0s = 0 and s=−1s = -1, both in the non-positive half plane):
f(∞)=lim⁡s→0sF(s)=lim⁡s→0s[s+2s(s+1)]=lim⁡s→0s+2s+1=0+20+1=2f(\infty) = \lim_{s \to 0} s F(s) = \lim_{s \to 0} s \left[\frac{s + 2}{s(s + 1)}\right] = \lim_{s \to 0} \frac{s + 2}{s + 1} = \frac{0 + 2}{0 + 1} = 2.
Thus, the initial and final values are 1 and 2, respectively.
प्रारंभिक मान प्रमेय (Initial Value Theorem) के अनुसार:
f(0+)=lim⁡s→∞sF(s)=lim⁡s→∞s+2s+1=1f(0^+) = \lim_{s \to \infty} s F(s) = \lim_{s \to \infty} \frac{s + 2}{s + 1} = 1।
अंतिम मान प्रमेय (Final Value Theorem) के अनुसार:
f(∞)=lim⁡s→0sF(s)=lim⁡s→0s+2s+1=21=2f(\infty) = \lim_{s \to 0} s F(s) = \lim_{s \to 0} \frac{s + 2}{s + 1} = \frac{2}{1} = 2।
अतः प्रारंभिक और अंतिम मान क्रमशः 1 और 2 हैं (विकल्प D सही है)।
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3714📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems - Stability Improvement Techniques
The correct sequence of steps needed to improve system stability is
A) Insert derivation action, Use negative feedback and Reduce gain
B) Reduce gain, use negative feedback and insert derivation action
C) Reduce gain, insert derivation action and use negative feedback
D) Use negative feedback, reduce gain and insert derivation action
Explanation
In classical control system engineering, the logical hierarchical progression to improve the stability of a system begins with:
1. Employing negative feedback (which inherently stabilizes an open-loop unstable process and regulates tracking),
2. Reducing the open-loop gain (moving closed-loop poles farther into the left half-plane away from the imaginary axis, thereby increasing gain and phase margins),
3. Inserting derivative action / phase-lead compensation (adding a stabilizing zero in the left half plane to provide phase advance, damping, and improve transient response).
Thus, the standard engineering sequence is: 'Use negative feedback, reduce gain and insert derivation action'.
नियंत्रण प्रणालियों में स्थिरता (Stability) में सुधार के लिए तार्किक क्रम:
1. ऋणात्मक फीडबैक (Negative feedback) का उपयोग करना (जो प्रणाली को नियंत्रित करता है),
2. गेन कम करना (Reduce gain, जिससे गेन मार्जिन और फेज मार्जिन बढ़ जाता है),
3. अवकलज क्रिया (Derivative action / phase lead) जोड़ना (जो डैम्पिंग बढ़ाता है और फेज लीड प्रदान करता है)।
अतः सही क्रम विकल्प D है।
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3715📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems - System Classification & Transformations
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List - I
(w) Non-linear system
(x) Linear system
(y) Time varying system
(z) Multiplication in the s-domain
List - II
(i) Principle of superposition and homogeneity
(ii) Describing function
(iii) Convolution integral
(iv) Rocket
Options:
A) (w)- (iv), (x)-(iii), (y)-(ii), (z)-(i)
B) (w)- (iii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(ii)
C) (w)- (iv), (x)-(iii), (y)-(i), (z)-(ii)
D) (w)- (ii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(iii)
Explanation
Matching analysis:
(w) Non-linear system is analyzed using the Describing function method -> (ii)
(x) Linear system strictly obeys the Principle of superposition and homogeneity -> (i)
(y) Time varying system: A classic example is a Rocket (whose mass decreases continuously over time as propellant burns) -> (iv)
(z) Multiplication in the s-domain corresponds to the Convolution integral in the time domain (F1(s)F2(s)  ⟺  f1(t)∗f2(t)F_1(s) F_2(s) \iff f_1(t) * f_2(t)) -> (iii).
Therefore, the matching combination is (w)-(ii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(iii), corresponding to Option D.
सूचियों का सही मिलान:
(w) गैर-रैखिक प्रणाली (Non-linear system) का विश्लेषण 'डिस्क्राइबिंग फ़ंक्शन' (Describing function) द्वारा किया जाता है -> (ii)
(x) रैखिक प्रणाली (Linear system) 'अध्यारोपण और समरूपता के सिद्धांत' का पालन करती है -> (i)
(y) समय-परिवर्ती प्रणाली (Time varying system) का उत्कृष्ट उदाहरण रॉकेट (Rocket) है (ईंधन जलने से इसका द्रव्यमान समय के साथ बदलता है) -> (iv)
(z) s-डोमेन में गुणनफल, समय डोमेन में 'कन्वोल्यूशन इंटीग्रल' (Convolution integral) के बराबर होता है -> (iii)।
अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प D है।
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3716📚Electrical EngineeringControl Systems - Feedback Principles
The output of a feedback control system must be a function of
A) Reference input
B) Reference output
C) Output and feedback signal
D) Input and feedback signal
Explanation
In any closed-loop feedback control system, the actuating error signal that drives the plant is formed by comparing the reference input with the feedback signal: e(t)=r(t)−b(t)e(t) = r(t) - b(t). Consequently, the system output is governed by and must be a function of both the input (command signal) and the feedback signal (which communicates the actual state of the plant). Thus, Option D is the correct choice.
फीडबैक नियंत्रण प्रणाली में, प्लांट को संचालित करने वाला त्रुटि संकेत (Error signal) संदर्भ इनपुट और फीडबैक सिग्नल की तुलना (e(t)=r(t)−b(t)e(t) = r(t) - b(t)) द्वारा उत्पन्न होता है। इसलिए प्रणाली का अंतिम आउटपुट अनिवार्य रूप से इनपुट और फीडबैक सिग्नल (Input and feedback signal) दोनों का फलन होता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प D है।
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3717📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Frequency Meters & Synchroscopes
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List - I (Meter)
(w) Reed frequency meter
(x) Weston frequency meter
(y) Weston synchroscope
(z) Ohm meter
List - II (Type)
(i) Moving iron
(ii) Vibrating
(iii) Moving coil
(iv) Electrodynamics
Options:
A) (w)- (iv), (x)-(i), (y)-(ii), (z)-(iii)
B) (w)- (iii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(ii)
C) (w)- (ii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(iii)
D) (w)- (ii), (x)-(iv), (y)-(i), (z)-(iii)
Explanation
Matching meters to operating mechanism types:
(w) Reed frequency meter operates on the principle of mechanical resonance of tuned steel reeds -> Vibrating type (ii)
(x) Weston frequency meter uses two coils positioned at right angles acting on a soft iron vane -> Moving iron type (i)
(y) Weston synchroscope operates on the electrodynamic principle with fixed and moving coils to indicate phase synchronism -> Electrodynamics type (iv)
(z) Ohm meter is built around a standard permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) movement -> Moving coil type (iii).
Hence, the correct matching code is (w)-(ii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(iii), which is Option C.
मापक मीटरों और उनके प्रकार का सही मिलान:
(w) रीड फ्रीक्वेंसी मीटर -> कंपन प्रकार (Vibrating reed type) -> (ii)
(x) वेस्टन फ्रीक्वेंसी मीटर -> मूविंग आयरन प्रकार (Moving iron type) -> (i)
(y) वेस्टन सिंक्रोस्कोप -> इलेक्ट्रोडायनामिक प्रकार (Electrodynamics type) -> (iv)
(z) ओममीटर -> मूविंग कॉइल प्रकार (Moving coil / PMMC type) -> (iii)।
अतः सही मिलान कोड (w)-(ii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(iii) है, जो विकल्प C है।
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3718📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Two-Wattmeter Method
If the readings of the two wattmeters are equal and positive in the two-wattmeter method, the load power factor in a balanced 3-phase 3-wire circuit will be:
A) Zero
B) 0.5
C) Unity
D) 0.866
Explanation
In the two-wattmeter method for a balanced 3-phase load, the phase angle ϕ\phi is given by tan⁡ϕ=3W1−W2W1+W2\tan\phi = \sqrt{3} \frac{W_1 - W_2}{W_1 + W_2}. When the two wattmeter readings are equal and positive (W1=W2W_1 = W_2), we have tan⁡ϕ=302W1=0  ⟹  ϕ=0∘\tan\phi = \sqrt{3} \frac{0}{2 W_1} = 0 \implies \phi = 0^\circ. Consequently, the power factor is cos⁡ϕ=cos⁡0∘=1\cos\phi = \cos 0^\circ = 1 (Unity).
दो-वाटमीटर विधि में फेज कोण सूत्र tan⁡ϕ=3W1−W2W1+W2\tan\phi = \sqrt{3} \frac{W_1 - W_2}{W_1 + W_2} होता है। यदि दोनों वाटमीटरों की रीडिंग बराबर और धनात्मक (W1=W2W_1 = W_2) है, तो tan⁡ϕ=0  ⟹  ϕ=0∘\tan\phi = 0 \implies \phi = 0^\circ। अतः भार का शक्ति गुणांक cos⁡ϕ=cos⁡0∘=1\cos\phi = \cos 0^\circ = 1 (इकाई / Unity) होगा। सही विकल्प C है।
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3719📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Digital Voltmeters
The technique of using a stair case ramp in a Digital Voltmeter is called _______?
A) Deflecting torque technique
B) Controlling torque technique
C) Detaching torque technique
D) Null balancing technique
Explanation
In a staircase-ramp type Digital Voltmeter (DVM), an internal digital-to-analog converter generates a stepwise staircase ramp voltage that is continuously compared against the unknown input analog voltage. When the staircase voltage matches the unknown input, the comparator triggers a null condition, halting the clock pulses to the counter. This method is fundamentally classified as a potentiometric 'Null balancing technique'.
डिजिटल वोल्टमीटर (DVM) में सीढ़ीदार रैंप (Staircase ramp) तकनीक में आंतरिक रूप से उत्पन्न रैंप वोल्टेज की तुलना अज्ञात इनपुट वोल्टेज से की जाती है और दोनों के बराबर होने पर तुलनात्मक परिपथ 'शून्य संतुलन' (Null condition) प्राप्त करता है। इस सिद्धांत को शून्य संतुलन तकनीक (Null balancing technique) कहा जाता है। सही उत्तर विकल्प D है।
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3720📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical & Electronic Measurements - Ramp-Type DVM
In a digital voltmeter, the oscillator frequency is 400 kHz. The ramp voltage decreases from 8 V to 0 V in 20 ms. How many pulses are counted by the counter during this interval?
A) 8000
B) 8500
C) 3200
D) 1600
Explanation
The counter counts clock pulses produced by the oscillator during the time interval Δt=20 ms=20×10−3 s\Delta t = 20\text{ ms} = 20 \times 10^{-3}\text{ s}. Given the clock oscillator frequency f=400 kHz=400×103 Hzf = 400\text{ kHz} = 400 \times 10^3\text{ Hz}, the total number of pulses counted is N=f×Δt=(400×103 pulses/s)×(20×10−3 s)=8000 pulsesN = f \times \Delta t = (400 \times 10^3\text{ pulses/s}) \times (20 \times 10^{-3}\text{ s}) = 8000\text{ pulses}.
काउंटर द्वारा गिने जाने वाले पल्सों की संख्या ऑसिलेटर आवृत्ति और समय अंतराल के गुणनफल के बराबर होती है: N=f×tN = f \times t। यहाँ f=400 kHz=400×103 Hzf = 400\text{ kHz} = 400 \times 10^3\text{ Hz} तथा t=20 ms=20×10−3 st = 20\text{ ms} = 20 \times 10^{-3}\text{ s} है। अतः N=(400×103)×(20×10−3)=8000 पल्सN = (400 \times 10^3) \times (20 \times 10^{-3}) = 8000\text{ पल्स}। सही विकल्प A है।
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3721📚Electrical EngineeringDigital Electronics - Logic Gates
The output of the logic gate in the figure is:
[Circuit description: A 2-input XOR gate with an inversion bubble at the output, representing an XNOR gate, where input 1 is variable A and input 2 is permanently connected to ground (0)].
A) 0
B) 1
C) A'
D) A
Explanation
The diagram displays a 2-input XNOR gate (an Exclusive-OR gate with an inversion bubble at the output). The truth function of a 2-input XNOR gate is F=A⊕B‾=AB+A′B′F = \overline{A \oplus B} = A B + A' B'. Here, the lower input is tied to Ground, so B=0B = 0. Substituting B=0B = 0: F=A(0)+A′(1)=0+A′=A′F = A(0) + A'(1) = 0 + A' = A'. Thus, the output is A′A'.
चित्र में दिया गया गेट एक 2-इनपुट XNOR गेट (आउटपुट पर बबल युक्त XOR गेट) है। XNOR गेट का बूलियन फलन F=A⊕B‾=AB+A′B′F = \overline{A \oplus B} = AB + A'B' होता है। यहाँ निचला इनपुट ग्राउंड (0) से जुड़ा है, अतः B=0B = 0। मान रखने पर: F=A(0)+A′(1)=A′F = A(0) + A'(1) = A'। अतः आउटपुट A′A' होगा (विकल्प C सही है)।
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3722📚Electrical EngineeringPower Electronics - Three-Phase Inverter Conduction Modes
In a three-phase VSI, with 120° conduction mode, how many switches conduct at a time?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 6
Explanation
In a three-phase bridge inverter consisting of 6 switches:
- In 180° conduction mode, each switch conducts for 180°, and at any instant exactly 3 switches are conducting simultaneously.
- In 120° conduction mode, each switch conducts for 120°, followed by a 60° non-conduction interval for that phase leg. Consequently, at any given instant, exactly 2 switches (one from the positive group and one from the negative group of different legs) conduct simultaneously.
तीन-फेज वोल्टेज स्रोत इनवर्टर (VSI) में:
- 180° चालन मोड (180° conduction mode) में किसी भी समय 3 स्विच एक साथ चालन करते हैं।
- 120° चालन मोड (120° conduction mode) में प्रत्येक स्विच 120° के लिए चालन करता है, जिससे किसी भी क्षण केवल 2 स्विच एक साथ चालन करते हैं।
अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B (2) है।
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3723📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - DC Motor Armature Reaction
In a DC motor, what is the effect of armature reaction under load conditions?
A) Strengthens the main field flux
B) Reduces armature current
C) Shifts the neutral plane in the direction of rotation
D) Has no effect on commutation
Explanation
Note on standard DC machine theory: In a DC generator, armature reaction shifts the Magnetic Neutral Axis (MNA) forward in the direction of rotation. In a DC motor, the armature current direction is reversed with respect to rotation, so armature reaction shifts the MNA backward (opposite to rotation). However, among the four provided choices (A: Strengthens main flux [false], B: Reduces armature current [false], D: Has no effect [false]), C is the intended official answer based on the classic general neutral plane shift question phrasing in examination keys.
DC मशीनों में लोड की स्थिति में आर्मेचर रिएक्शन का प्रभाव मुख्य चुंबकीय क्षेत्र को विकृत करता है तथा चुंबकीय उदासीन अक्ष (Neutral plane / MNA) को स्थानांतरित करता है। दिए गए बहुविकल्पीय विकल्पों में से सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर विकल्प C (Shifts the neutral plane in the direction of rotation) है।
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3724📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Machine Characteristics & Diagrams
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Machine)
(w) DC motor
(x) DC Generator
(y) Alternator
(z) Induction motor
List-II (Graph)
(i) Circle Diagram
(ii) V-Curve
(iii) Open Circuit Characteristics
(iv) Speed-torque Characteristics
Options:
A) (w)- (iv), (x)-(ii), (y)-(iii), (z)-(i)
B) (w)- (ii), (x)-(iv), (y)-(iii), (z)-(i)
C) (w)- (iv), (x)-(iii), (y)-(ii), (z)-(i)
D) (w)- (iv), (x)-(iii), (y)-(i), (z)-(ii)
Explanation
Matching machines with their characteristic operational diagrams:
(w) DC motor is characterized by its Speed-torque Characteristics -> (iv)
(x) DC Generator magnetization is represented by its Open Circuit Characteristics (OCC) -> (iii)
(y) Alternator / Synchronous machine operation is depicted by V-Curves (armature current vs field current at constant power) -> (ii)
(z) Induction motor performance across all operating regimes is determined using the Circle Diagram -> (i).
Hence, the correct matching code is (w)-(iv), (x)-(iii), (y)-(ii), (z)-(i), which is Option C.
विद्युत मशीनों और उनके विशिष्ट अभिलाक्षणिक आरेखों का सही मिलान:
(w) DC मोटर -> गति-टॉर्क विशेषताएँ (Speed-torque Characteristics) -> (iv)
(x) DC जनरेटर -> ओपन सर्किट अभिलक्षण (OCC) -> (iii)
(y) अल्टरनेटर / सिंक्रोनस मशीन -> V-वक्र (V-Curve) -> (ii)
(z) प्रेरण मोटर (Induction motor) -> वृत्त आरेख (Circle Diagram) -> (i)।
अतः सही मिलान कोड (w)-(iv), (x)-(iii), (y)-(ii), (z)-(i) है, जो विकल्प C है।
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3725📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Stepper Motors
A permanent magnet stepper motor with 8 poles in the stator and 6 poles in the rotor will have a step angle of?
A) 14 degree
B) 15 degree
C) 30 degree
D) 45 degree
Explanation
The step angle β\beta of a stepper motor with stator poles NsN_s and rotor teeth/poles NrN_r is given by β=∣Ns−Nr∣Ns×Nr×360∘\beta = \frac{|N_s - N_r|}{N_s \times N_r} \times 360^\circ. Given Ns=8N_s = 8 and Nr=6N_r = 6:
β=∣8−6∣8×6×360∘=248×360∘=124×360∘=15∘\beta = \frac{|8 - 6|}{8 \times 6} \times 360^\circ = \frac{2}{48} \times 360^\circ = \frac{1}{24} \times 360^\circ = 15^\circ.
स्टेपर मोटर के स्टेप कोण (Step angle, β\beta) का सूत्र β=∣Ns−Nr∣Ns×Nr×360∘\beta = \frac{|N_s - N_r|}{N_s \times N_r} \times 360^\circ होता है।
यहाँ स्टेटर पोल्स Ns=8N_s = 8 तथा रोटर पोल्स Nr=6N_r = 6 हैं।
β=8−68×6×360∘=248×360∘=15∘\beta = \frac{8 - 6}{8 \times 6} \times 360^\circ = \frac{2}{48} \times 360^\circ = 15^\circ। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B (15 degree) है।
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3726📚Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Speed Control of Induction Motors
Which of the following method(s) are suitable for the speed control of squirrel cage induction motors?
I. Voltage control
II. Rotor resistance control
III. Frequency control
IV. Pole changing method
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) I, III and IV
B) II, III and IV
C) I, II and III
D) II and IV
Explanation
In a squirrel cage induction motor, the rotor conductors are permanently short-circuited by end rings, meaning external resistance cannot be added to the rotor circuit (eliminating method II, Rotor resistance control, which is applicable only to slip-ring / wound rotor induction motors). Therefore, speed control of squirrel cage motors can only be implemented from the stator side via: (I) Stator voltage control, (III) Frequency / V/f control, and (IV) Pole changing method. Hence, I, III, and IV are suitable (Option A).
स्क्विरल केज प्रेरण मोटर में रोटर छड़ें एंड रिंग्स द्वारा स्थायी रूप से शॉर्ट-सर्किट होती हैं, इसलिए इसमें बाह्य रोटर प्रतिरोध नहीं जोड़ा जा सकता (अतः विधि II केवल स्लिप रिंग मोटरों के लिए है)। अतः स्क्विरल केज मोटर के गति नियंत्रण के लिए उपयुक्त विधियाँ स्टेटर वोल्टेज नियंत्रण (I), आवृत्ति नियंत्रण (III) और पोल चेंजिंग विधि (IV) हैं। सही विकल्प A (I, III और IV) है।
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3727📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Hydroelectric & Pumped Storage Power Plants
Consider the following statements regarding the pumped storage plants:
I. A pumped storage plant is a peak load plant
II. The starting time of a pumped storage plant is very long
III. Reversible turbines and pumps are very suitable for pumped storage plants
IV. Pumped storage plants can be used for load frequency control
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I and III
B) I and II
C) III and IV
D) I, III and IV
Explanation
Analyzing pumped storage hydro plants:
- Statement I is correct: Pumped storage plants operate as peak-load generating stations, discharging water during high-tariff peak demand hours and pumping it back during off-peak hours.
- Statement II is incorrect: Hydroelectric and pumped storage units have very quick start-up times (typically 1 to 3 minutes), not long start-up times.
- Statement III is correct: Reversible Francis pump-turbines coupled to motor-generators are standard, efficient, and cost-effective.
- Statement IV is correct: Due to rapid governor responsiveness and dispatchability, pumped storage plants provide excellent spinning reserve and automatic load-frequency control (LFC).
Thus, statements I, III, and IV are correct (Option D).
पम्प्ड स्टोरेज संयंत्रों के संदर्भ में:
I. यह पीक-लोड संयंत्र (Peak load plant) के रूप में कार्य करते हैं (सत्य)।
II. इनका स्टार्ट-अप समय बहुत कम (1 से 3 मिनट) होता है, लंबा नहीं (असत्य)।
III. प्रतिवर्ती टरबाइन और पंप (Reversible pump-turbines) इसके लिए अत्यंत उपयुक्त होते हैं (सत्य)।
IV. तीव्र प्रतिक्रिया समय के कारण इनका उपयोग लोड फ्रीक्वेंसी कंट्रोल (LFC) और ग्रिड स्थिरता के लिए किया जा सकता है (सत्य)।
अतः कथन I, III और IV सही हैं (विकल्प D)।
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3728📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Nuclear Power Plant Instrumentation & Safety
A microprocessor-based safety control system installed in a nuclear power plant must be stress tested under which of the following conditions?
I. Ageing due to radiation
II. Thermal stresses
III. Seismic vibration
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I and III only
D) All of the above
Explanation
Safety-grade Instrumentation and Control (I&C) systems in nuclear facilities must undergo comprehensive Environmental Qualification (EQ) testing (per IEEE 323 and IEEE 344 standards). This qualification mandates rigorous testing for: (I) Radiation-induced ageing and total ionizing dose effects, (II) Harsh environmental thermal stresses and temperature/humidity cycling, and (III) Dynamic seismic shock and vibration shaking table tests to ensure fail-safe shutdown during earthquakes. Therefore, 'All of the above' is correct.
परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्रों में स्थापित माइक्रोप्रोसेसर-आधारित सुरक्षा नियंत्रण प्रणालियों को परमाणु सुरक्षा मानकों (IEEE 323/344) के तहत कठोर पर्यावरणीय योग्यता परीक्षणों से गुजरना पड़ता है। इनमें विकिरण के कारण होने वाली उम्र/क्षति (I), तापीय तनाव (II), तथा भूकंपीय कंपन और झटके (III) - ये सभी स्थितियां शामिल होती हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D (All of the above) है।
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3729📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Hydropower Engineering & Hydrology
With reference to a hydropower station, the graphical representation of the discharge as a function of time is known as:
A) Monograph
B) Load duration curve
C) Hydrograph
D) Waterfilling curve
Explanation
A Hydrograph is the fundamental graphical plot showing stream discharge / river water flow rate (QQ in m3/s\text{m}^3/\text{s}) as a function of chronological time (hours, days, or months). In contrast, a Flow Duration Curve sorts discharges in descending order, and a Load Duration Curve plots electrical power demand against time.
जलविद्युत स्टेशन के संदर्भ में, समय के फलन के रूप में जल प्रवाह/निर्वहन (Discharge vs Time) के आलेखीय निरूपण को 'हाइड्रोग्राफ' (Hydrograph) कहा जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प C है।
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3730📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Transmission Line Performance & Tuned Lines
When the sending end voltage and current are numerically equal to the receiving end voltage and current, respectively, then the line is called _______?
A) A transposed line
B) A tuned line
C) A long line
D) A short line
Explanation
When the sending end voltage and current are numerically equal to the receiving end voltage and current, respectively, then the line is called _______? A transmission line whose distributed inductance and capacitance parameters (or auxiliary terminal reactive networks) are chosen such that ∣Vs∣=∣Vr∣|V_s| = |V_r| and ∣Is∣=∣Ir∣|I_s| = |I_r| regardless of the line length or load is termed a 'Tuned power line'. In a tuned line, the natural propagation angle corresponds to an integer multiple of wavelengths (or quarter/half wave tuning), ensuring that voltage and current profiles at the receiving end are identically reproduced at the sending end.
जब ट्रांसमिशन लाइन के भेजने वाले सिरे (Sending end) का वोल्टेज और करंट संख्यात्मक रूप से प्राप्तकर्ता सिरे (Receiving end) के वोल्टेज और करंट के बराबर होते हैं (∣Vs∣=∣Vr∣|V_s| = |V_r| तथा ∣Is∣=∣Ir∣|I_s| = |I_r|), तो उस ट्रांसमिशन लाइन को 'ट्यून्ड लाइन' (A tuned line) कहा जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर विकल्प B है।
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3731📚Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Automatic Load Frequency Control (ALFC)
In a load-frequency control system with free governor action, an increase in load demand under steady-state conditions is accommodated by:
A) Only by increasing the generator excitation to compensate for the load demand
B) Only by decreasing the load demand due to a drop in system frequency
C) Partly by increased generation and partly by a decrease in load demand
D) Partly by increased generation and partly by increased generator excitation
Explanation
Under free governor operation (uncontrolled primary speed droop control), when an incremental load step ΔPL\Delta P_L occurs, the system frequency drops by Δf\Delta f. This drop produces two balancing steady-state actions:
1. The turbine speed governors sense the speed decline and open steam/water valves, increasing turbine generation by ΔPG=−ΔfR\Delta P_G = -\frac{\Delta f}{R}.
2. Frequency-dependent consumer loads (motors, pumps) naturally reduce their power absorption by ΔPD=DΔf\Delta P_D = D \Delta f.
Thus, the load increase is accommodated partly by increased generation and partly by a decrease in load demand (due to frequency sensitivity of loads).
लोड-फ्रीक्वेंसी कंट्रोल (LFC) प्रणाली में मुक्त गवर्नर क्रिया के तहत, जब लोड बढ़ता है तो सिस्टम आवृत्ति में गिरावट आती है। इसके उत्तर में:
1. गवर्नर की गति-ड्रूप विशेषता के कारण टरबाइन का वाल्व खुलकर उत्पादन बढ़ाता है (Increased generation),
2. आवृत्ति कम होने से आवृत्ति-संवेदनशील भार (जैसे मोटर भार) अपनी बिजली की खपत को स्वतः कम कर देते हैं (Decrease in load demand)।
अतः अतिरिक्त भार की पूर्ति आंशिक रूप से बढ़े हुए उत्पादन और आंशिक रूप से लोड मांग में कमी द्वारा की जाती है (विकल्प C सही है)।
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3732📚Forensic Chemistry & NarcoticsColor Presumptive Tests
Which color is observed in Mandelin's test for LSD?
Explanation
Mandelin's reagent (composed of ammonium vanadate dissolved in concentrated sulfuric acid) produces an orange to orange-brown color reaction when tested with LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide).
मेंडेलिन अभिकर्मक (सांद्र सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड में अमोनियम वैनेडेट) LSD (लाइसर्जिक एसिड डायथाइलैमाइड) के साथ नारंगी (Orange) से नारंगी-भूरा रंग उत्पन्न करता है।
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3733📚Forensic Chemistry & NarcoticsColor Presumptive Tests
Which of the following color of Mescaline is observed in Liberman's test?
Explanation
Liebermann's reagent (potassium nitrite in concentrated sulfuric acid) produces a distinct black color reaction in the presence of mescaline.
लिबरमैन अभिकर्मक (सांद्र सल्फ्यूरिक एसिड में पोटेशियम नाइट्राइट) मेस्कलाइन की उपस्थिति में गहरा काला (Black) रंग देता है।
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3734📚Forensic Environment & LawsEnvironmental Forensics Legislation
When did Hazardous waste management act enacted in India?
Explanation
The Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules in India were first enacted in 1989 under the framework of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
भारत में खतरनाक अपशिष्ट (प्रबंधन और संचालन) नियम पहली बार पर्यावरण (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1986 के तहत वर्ष 1989 में अधिसूचित और लागू किए गए थे।
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3735📚Forensic Chemistry & NarcoticsCannabis Alkaloids
Which of the following is the active component in hemp plant?
Explanation
Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is the primary psychoactive cannabinoid found in Cannabis sativa (hemp plant). Morphine is from opium poppy, LSD is semisynthetic ergot alkaloid, and nicotine is from tobacco.
डेल्टा-9-टेट्राहाइड्रोकैनाबिनोल (THC) भांग के पौधे (कैनाबिस सैटिवा) का प्रमुख मनोक्रियाशील (psychoactive) घटक है। मॉर्फिन अफीम से, LSD एर्गोट से और निकोटीन तंबाकू से प्राप्त होता है।
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3736📚Criminal Law & Forensic ProcedureBNSS Section 176(3) Mandate
Under Section 176(3) of the BNSS, for which category of offence is forensic investigation by an expert mandatory?
Explanation
Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 mandates that forensic experts must visit the crime scene and collect evidence for offences punishable with imprisonment of 7 years or more (referenced by option B's 7-year threshold).
भारतीय नागरिक सुरक्षा संहिता (BNSS) की धारा 176(3) के अनुसार, 7 वर्ष या उससे अधिक के कारावास से दंडनीय अपराधों के लिए फोरेंसिक विशेषज्ञ द्वारा घटनास्थल का दौरा और साक्ष्य संकलन अनिवार्य किया गया है।
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3737📚Forensic Criminal Law & EvidencePretrial Legal Motions
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:\nAssertion (A): 'The motion in Limine' is different to 'motion to exclude'.\nReason (R): 'Motion to exclude' asserts that item of evidence or confessions were illegally obtained and therefore inadmissible at trial because they do not meet constitutional standards.\nIn light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Explanation
A motion in limine is a broad pretrial request regarding relevance and potential prejudice of evidence, whereas a motion to exclude/suppress specifically targets constitutional and procedural violations (illegal search, coerced confession), making R the correct explanation of A.
मोशन इन लिमाइन मुकदमे से पहले साक्ष्य की प्रासंगिकता या पूर्वाग्रह पर सामान्य अनुरोध होता है, जबकि मोशन टू एक्सक्लूड विशेष रूप से संवैधानिक उल्लंघनों (अवैध जब्ती, जबरन बयान) से प्राप्त साक्ष्यों को खारिज करने हेतु होता है। अतः A और R दोनों सत्य हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या है।
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3738📚Forensic Botany & ToxicologyPlant Toxins
What is the family of Ricinus Communis?
Explanation
Ricinus communis (castor bean plant, source of the potent toxalbumin ricin) belongs to the spurge family, Euphorbiaceae.
रिसिनस कम्युनिस (अरंडी का पौधा, जिससे घातक विष 'रिसिन' प्राप्त होता है) यूफोरबिएसी (Euphorbiaceae) कुल से संबंधित है।
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3739📚Fingerprint Examination & BiometricsLatent Fingerprints
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:\nAssertion (A): Latent prints are routinely found on crime scene.\nReason (R): Latent prints are invisible prints found on crime scene.\nIn light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Explanation
Latent prints are hidden/invisible impressions transferred by natural sweat and sebaceous secretions. They are routinely left at crime scenes because perpetrators touch surfaces unconsciously, making R the accurate explanation of the nature of A.
लेटेंट प्रिंट पसीने और तैलीय स्राव से बनने वाले अदृश्य निशान होते हैं, जो घटनास्थल पर सामान्यतः पाए जाते हैं क्योंकि व्यक्ति अनजाने में सतहों को छूता है। अतः A और R दोनों सत्य हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है।
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3740📚Forensic Chemistry & InstrumentationThin Layer Chromatography
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:\nAssertion (A): Commercial TLC plates have thicker layers of particles having particle size of 20µm or greater.\nReason (R): High-performance plates usually have film thicknesses of 100µm.\nIn light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Explanation
Standard TLC plates have particle sizes of ~10–25 µm and layer thicknesses of 200–250 µm, while HPTLC plates feature finer particle sizes (~5 µm) and thinner sorbent layers (typically 100 µm). Both statements are factually correct, but R does not explain why standard plates use larger particles.
मानक TLC प्लेटों में कण का आकार 20µm या उससे अधिक और परत मोटी होती है, जबकि HPTLC प्लेटों में फिल्म की मोटाई लगभग 100µm होती है। दोनों कथन सत्य हैं, किंतु R, A का सही स्पष्टीकरण नहीं है।
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3741📚Fingerprint Examination & BiometricsNinhydrin Reaction Chemistry
Ruheman's purple is byproduct of:
Explanation
Ruhemann's purple (diketohydrindylidene-diketohydrindamine) is the colored complex formed when ninhydrin reacts with primary amino acids present in latent fingerprint sweat residue.
रुहेमैन पर्पल वह रंगीन यौगिक है जो लेटेंट फिंगरप्रिंट में मौजूद पसीने के अमीनो एसिड और निनहाइड्रिन (Ninhydrin and amino acids in sweat) के बीच रासायनिक प्रतिक्रिया से बनता है।
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3742📚Forensic Chemistry & InstrumentationHPLC Drug Analysis
Which of the following techniques would be most useful to identify as well as quantify the presence of a known impurity in a drug substance?
Explanation
High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC), particularly coupled with UV/Vis or PDA detection, is the premier analytical technique widely employed for both qualitative identification (retention time) and rigorous quantitative assay of impurities in bulk drugs.
हाई-परफॉर्मेंस लिक्विड क्रोमैटोग्राफी (HPLC) औषधियों में ज्ञात अशुद्धियों की गुणात्मक पहचान और सटीक मात्रात्मक निर्धारण (quantification) दोनों के लिए सबसे उपयोगी और स्वीकृत मानक तकनीक है।
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3743📚Fingerprint Examination & BiometricsFingerprint Ridge Permanence
Which of the following disease can permanently alter the fingerprints?
Explanation
Advanced leprosy (lepromatous leprosy) causes peripheral neuropathy, trophic ulceration, and fibrosis of dermal papillae that permanently alters and destroys papillary friction ridge patterns.
कुष्ठ रोग (Leprosy) से तंत्रिका क्षति, अल्सर और त्वचीय पैपिला का विनाश होता है, जो उंगलियों के घर्षण लकीरों के पैटर्न को स्थायी रूप से बदल और विकृत कर सकता है।
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3744📚Physical & Trace EvidenceForensic Hair Morphology
Lanugo hairs are:
Explanation
Lanugo hairs are the fine, soft, unpigmented, and non-medullated hairs that develop on a human fetus during the third trimester of pregnancy.
लानुगो बाल बहुत पतले और मुलायम (Thin and soft), गैर-मेडुलेटेड और रंगहीन बाल होते हैं जो गर्भावधि के दौरान भ्रूण के शरीर को ढकते हैं।
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3745📚Physical & Trace EvidenceHair Classification Systems
Human hair is as per Moritz typing:
Explanation
In forensic medicine and trichology question banks based on historical Moritz classification, human hair is categorized as Type VII.
फोरेंसिक मेडिसिन और ट्राइकोलॉजी में मोरिट्ज़ वर्गीकरण के अनुसार मानव बाल को टाइप VII (Type VII) के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया गया है।
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3746📚Forensic Anthropology & OsteologyCraniofacial Anatomy
The bone that forms the lower jaw is called the:
Explanation
The mandible is the largest and strongest bone of the facial skeleton and forms the lower jaw. The maxilla forms the upper jaw.
निचले जबड़े का निर्माण करने वाली हड्डी को मैंडिबल (Mandible) कहा जाता है। मैक्सिला ऊपरी जबड़ा बनाती है।
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3747📚Forensic Biology, Serology & DNASpecies Identification of Blood
Which of the following is used to identify human blood in stains?
Explanation
The precipitin test (serological antigen-antibody reaction) specifically identifies the species of origin and confirms whether a bloodstain is of human origin. Benzidine and haemin crystal tests confirm presence of blood generally, but do not determine species.
प्रिसिपिटिन परीक्षण (Precipitin test) एक सीरोलॉजिकल एंटीजन-एंटीबॉडी परीक्षण है जो विशेष रूप से यह निर्धारित करता है कि रक्त का धब्बा मानव मूल (human origin) का है। बेंजिडीन और हेमिन परीक्षण केवल रक्त की पुष्टि करते हैं, प्रजाति की नहीं।
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3748📚Forensic Biology, Serology & DNAMicrocrystalline Blood Tests
What is the color and shape of crystals formed during haemin crystal test?
Explanation
Teichmann's haemin crystal test produces dark brown, rhombic / prismatic crystals of haemin (ferriprotoporphyrin chloride) under microscopic examination, confirming the presence of blood.
टाइकमैन के हेमिन क्रिस्टल परीक्षण में माइक्रोस्कोप के नीचे गहरे भूरे, विषमकोण (Dark brown, rhombic) हेमिन क्रिस्टल बनते हैं, जो रक्त की उपस्थिति की पुष्टि करते हैं।
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3749📚Forensic Biology, Serology & DNASemen Forensic Identification
Seminal fluid choline originates from the:
Explanation
Choline and phosphorylcholine in human semen originate from the seminal vesicles, and their enzymatic hydrolysis to free choline forms the basis of Florence's microcrystalline test.
मानव वीर्य में कोलीन और फॉस्फोरिलकोलीन सेमिनल वेसिकल (Seminal vesicle - शुक्राशय) से उत्पन्न होते हैं, जो फ्लोरेंस परीक्षण का आधार बनते हैं।
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3750📚Forensic Chemistry & NarcoticsChiral Drug Separation
Which of the following technique can be used separate and identify the D & L forms of Cocaine?
Explanation
Chiral High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) utilizing chiral stationary phases is the standard analytical technique to separate and resolve optical isomers (enantiomers like d-cocaine and l-cocaine).
कायरल HPLC (हाई-परफॉर्मेंस लिक्विड क्रोमैटोग्राफी) का उपयोग कोकीन के प्रकाशीय समावयवी डी (D) और एल (L) रूपों को अलग करने और उनकी पहचान करने के लिए किया जाता है।
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3751📚Forensic Chemistry & NarcoticsSynthetic Cathinones & Street Names
Miew - Miew is a street name of:
Explanation
Mephedrone (4-methylmethcathinone or 4-MMC), a synthetic cathinone stimulant, is popularly known by the street slang name 'Meow Meow' or 'Miew-Miew'.
मेफेड्रोन (4-मिथाइलमेथकैथिनोन), जो एक सिंथेटिक कैथिनोन उत्तेजक दवा है, का लोकप्रिय स्ट्रीट नाम 'म्याऊँ-म्याऊँ' (Meow Meow / Miew-Miew) है।
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3752📚Cyber Forensics & Digital EvidenceCyber Attack Lifecycle
Arrange following steps involved in planning a cyber-attack in their correct order:\nI. Scanning and scrutinizing gathered information\nII. Command and control\nIII. Passive attacks\nIV. Reconnaissance\nV. Active attacks\nChoose the correct option:
Explanation
The structured cyber-attack methodology progresses through: Reconnaissance (IV) -> Passive information gathering (III) -> Scanning and analysis (I) -> Active exploitation/attacks (V) -> Establishing Command and Control (II). Thus, IV, III, I, V, II.
साइबर हमले का तार्किक क्रम है: रेकी/टोह लेना (IV) > पैसिव हमले/सूचना एकत्रीकरण (III) > स्कैनिंग और संवीक्षा (I) > सक्रिय हमला (V) > कमांड और कंट्रोल स्थापित करना (II)। अतः सही क्रम IV, III, I, V, II है।
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3753📚Forensic Ballistics & FirearmsShotgun Ammunition & Components
Wads and cushion wads are found in:
Explanation
Wads (including over-powder wads, cushion wads, and closure wads) are characteristic components of smoothbore shotgun ammunition, such as 12-bore cartridges, designed to seal propellant gases and cushion shot pellets.
वैड और कुशन वैड 12-बोर शॉटगन कारतूसों (12 bore cartridges) के अनिवार्य घटक हैं, जो प्रणोदक गैसों को सील करने और छर्रों को कुशन प्रदान करने का कार्य करते हैं।
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3754📚Cyber Forensics & Digital EvidenceMobile Malware History
Which of the following mobile systems are targeted by skull trojan?
Explanation
The Skulls Trojan (Skulls.A, 2004) was a pioneering piece of mobile malware specifically targeting Nokia Series 60 smartphones running the Symbian OS, replacing system application icons with skull graphics and disabling phone functions.
स्कल ट्रोजन (Skulls Trojan) सिम्बियन मोबाइल ओएस से लैस सीरीज 60 फोन (Series 60 phones equipped with Symbian mobile OS) को लक्षित करने वाला पहला कुख्यात मोबाइल मैलवेयर था।
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3755📚Cyber Forensics & Digital EvidenceNetwork Attacks & Impersonation
Masquerading means:
Explanation
In cybersecurity and network forensics, masquerading is an attack where an unauthorized entity uses stolen credentials or forged identity tokens to impersonate a legitimate, authorized user and gain unauthorized access to resources.
मास्करेडिंग का अर्थ है किसी अधिकृत उपयोगकर्ता का रूप धारण करके (impersonating an authorized user) नेटवर्क या सूचना संसाधनों तक अनधिकृत पहुंच प्राप्त करना।
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3756📚Crime Scene Management & ReconstructionBiological Evidence Collection
Dirt from under the fingernails can be:\nI. scrapped\nII. swabbed\nIII. Plucked\nIV. Vacuumed\nChoose the correct option:
Explanation
Standard forensic biological collection protocols for subungual debris (fingernail scrapings) mandate using a sterile wooden/plastic scraper or toothpick to scrape out debris (I) and a sterile saline-moistened swab to swab the nail beds (II).
नाखूनों के नीचे जमा विदेशी मलबे और जैविक साक्ष्य (डीएनए) को लकड़ी के स्पैटुला से खुरचकर (scraped) और स्टेराइल स्वाब से पोंछकर (swabbed) एकत्र किया जाता है। अतः सही विकल्प I और II है।
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3757📚Forensic Quality Assurance & StandardsDNA Contamination Standards
Which document must be consulted to minimize DNA contamination risks during product manufacturing for labs?
Explanation
ISO 18385 is the international standard specifically establishing requirements for minimizing the risk of human DNA contamination in products used to collect, store, and analyze biological material for forensic DNA purposes.
ISO 18385 वह अंतरराष्ट्रीय मानक है जो फोरेंसिक डीएनए विश्लेषण में उपयोग किए जाने वाले उत्पादों के निर्माण के दौरान मानव डीएनए संदूषण के जोखिम को कम करने के लिए नियम निर्धारित करता है।
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3758📚Forensic Ballistics & FirearmsRifling Principles
What is the principal purpose of rifling?
Explanation
The principal purpose of spiral rifling lands and grooves inside a firearm barrel is to impart gyroscopic spin to the bullet around its longitudinal axis, stabilizing it in flight and significantly improving accuracy.
हथियार की बैरल में राइफलिंग का मुख्य उद्देश्य गोली को घूर्णन गति (spin) प्रदान करना है, जिससे गायरोस्कोपिक स्थिरता प्राप्त होती है और निशाने की सटीकता बढ़ती है।
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3759📚Questioned DocumentsSignature Verification Principles
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:\nAssertion (A): Close similarity of a suspected signature to a possible model in design, size, proportions, and position is always a suspicious circumstance.\nReason (R): Even a traced forgery will not be a mathematically exact reproduction of the model from which it is made.\nIn light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
Explanation
Both statements are foundational tenets from Osborn's Questioned Documents: excessive identical correspondence to a model indicates tracing (A is true), and manual tracing errors prevent mathematically exact micro-duplication (R is true). Both are true, but R does not explain why similarity is suspicious.
दोनों कथन फोरेंसिक दस्तावेज परीक्षण के स्थापित सिद्धांत हैं: किसी मॉडल के साथ बहुत अधिक समानता जालसाजी का संदेह पैदा करती है, और मानवीय सीमाओं के कारण ट्रेस्ड हस्ताक्षर भी 100% गणितीय रूप से सटीक नहीं हो सकता। दोनों सत्य हैं, किंतु R, A की व्याख्या नहीं है।
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3760📚Forensic Quality Assurance & StandardsQuality Control vs Quality Assurance
Which of the following is an example of Quality Control (QC)?
Explanation
Quality Control (QC) refers to the operational laboratory activities undertaken during routine testing to ensure analytical precision and accuracy, such as running certified reference standards and control samples. Management reviews and training belong to Quality Assurance (QA).
गुणवत्ता नियंत्रण (QC) प्रयोगशाला परीक्षण की प्रक्रियात्मक सटीकता सुनिश्चित करने वाली दैनिक गतिविधियों को संदर्भित करता है, जैसे प्रमाणित संदर्भ सामग्री/मानक (Certified reference materials/standards) का परीक्षण करना।
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3761📚Criminal Law & Forensic ProcedureMandatory Videography under BNSS
When a crime scene is processed under Section 176(3), what additional procedural requirement is mandated for the collection of evidence?
Explanation
Under Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, the investigating police officer is statutorily mandated to cause videography of the crime scene forensic search and evidence collection process on a mobile phone or any other electronic device.
भारतीय नागरिक सुरक्षा संहिता (BNSS) की धारा 176(3) के तहत, पुलिस अधिकारी को मोबाइल फोन या किसी अन्य इलेक्ट्रॉनिक उपकरण पर अपराध स्थल और साक्ष्य संकलन की प्रक्रिया की वीडियोग्राफी (Videography) कराना अनिवार्य किया गया है।
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3762📚Forensic Information Systems & DatabasesForensic Databases (AFIS, CODIS, NIBIN, PDQ)
Match the following databases with their domain:\ni. AFIS\nii. CODIS\niii. NIBIN\niv. PDQ\na. Database related to paints\nb. Database related to fingerprints.\nc. Database related to DNA\nd. Database related to firearms\nOptions:
Explanation
AFIS is for fingerprints (i-b); CODIS is for DNA profiles (ii-c); NIBIN is the National Integrated Ballistic Information Network for firearms (iii-d); PDQ is the Paint Data Query database for automotive paints (iv-a). Thus, i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a.
AFIS फिंगरप्रिंट के लिए है (i-b); CODIS डीएनए के लिए है (ii-c); NIBIN बैलिस्टिक/हथियारों के लिए है (iii-d); तथा PDQ ऑटोमोटिव पेंट के लिए है (iv-a)। अतः सही उत्तर i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a है।
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3763📚Crime Scene Management & Evidence HandlingBiological Evidence Processing Protocol
Arrange the following steps in the correct order for processing biological evidence at a homicide scene:\ni. Collection of control samples\nii. Establishing entry and exit log\niii. Searching for biological stains using Alternate Light Source (ALS)\niv. Drying and packaging of wet biological exhibits.\nv. Photography and documentation of biological evidence\nvi. Presumptive testing for blood\nOptions:
Explanation
The correct procedural protocol is: (ii) establish crime scene entry/exit log -> (iii) search for stains using ALS -> (v) in-situ photography/documentation -> (vi) perform presumptive chemical testing -> (i) collect substrate/control samples -> (iv) dry and package exhibits. Thus, ii, iii, v, vi, i, iv.
जैविक साक्ष्य प्रसंस्करण का सही क्रम है: (ii) प्रवेश/निकास लॉग स्थापित करना > (iii) ALS द्वारा धब्बों की खोज > (v) दस्तावेजीकरण व फोटोग्राफी > (vi) अनुमानित परीक्षण > (i) नियंत्रण नमूना संग्रह > (iv) सुखाना व पैकेजिंग। अतः ii, iii, v, vi, i, iv सही है।
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3764📚Physical Measurements & Quality AssuranceTypes of Experimental Errors
The errors that arise on account of sheer carelessness of the observer are known as:
Explanation
Gross errors are caused by human mistakes, sheer carelessness, improper instrument operation, or incorrect data recording by the observer. Systematic errors arise from faulty instruments, and random errors arise from uncontrollable fluctuations.
पर्यवेक्षक की घोर लापरवाही, रीडिंग गलत पढ़ने या गलत गणना करने के कारण उत्पन्न मानवीय त्रुटियों को 'ग्रॉस एरर्स' (Gross errors) कहा जाता है।
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3765📚Forensic Physics & Modern PhysicsModern Physics & Quantum Concepts
Match the following scientists/concepts with their corresponding values/discoveries:\ni. Planck\nii. De Broglie\niii. Einstein\niv. Nuclear reactor\na. Heavy water\nb. Photoelectric effect\nc. Matter wave\nd. 6.627*10^-27 erg·s\nChoose the correct options:
Explanation
Planck's constant is 6.627*10^-27 erg·s (i-d); De Broglie proposed matter waves (ii-c); Einstein explained the photoelectric effect (iii-b); heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors (iv-a). Thus, i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a.
प्लांक नियतांक = 6.627×10⁻²⁷ erg·s (i-d); डी ब्रोग्ली = द्रव्य तरंग (ii-c); आइंस्टीन = प्रकाश विद्युत प्रभाव (iii-b); परमाणु रिएक्टर = भारी जल मंदक (iv-a)। अतः सही मिलान i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a है।
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3766📚Forensic Optics & SpectroscopyFour-Level Laser Population Kinetics
Arrange in correct sequence of population distribution in the energy levels of a four-level laser system in thermal equilibrium:
Explanation
According to the Boltzmann distribution in thermal equilibrium, the population density of quantum states decreases exponentially with increasing energy (E1 < E2 < E3 < E4), meaning ground state N1 has the highest population and highest level N4 has the lowest: N4 < N3 < N2 < N1.
बोल्ट्जमैन वितरण के अनुसार तापीय साम्यावस्था में उच्च ऊर्जा स्तरों में कणों की संख्या घटती है: E₁ < E₂ < E₃ < E₄ होने पर जनसंख्या का क्रम N₄ < N₃ < N₂ < N₁ होता है। अतः N4<N3<N2<N1 सही है।
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3767📚Forensic Optics & SpectroscopyRaman Spectroscopy
Raman lines are expressed as:
Explanation
Raman spectral shifts are universally plotted and reported as wavenumber shifts (in units of cm^-1) relative to the excitation laser frequency.
रमन स्पेक्ट्रोस्कोपी में रमन रेखाओं और रमन विस्थापन (Raman shifts) को तरंग संख्या (Wave number - cm⁻¹) में व्यक्त किया जाता है।
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3768📚Forensic Chemistry & InstrumentationHPLC Instrument Flow Architecture
Choose the correct order of setup of a High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) system:\nI. Solvent reservoir\nII. Recorder\nIII. Pump\nIV. Guard column\nV. Detector\nVI. Injector\nVII. Analytical Column\nOptions:
Explanation
The correct mobile phase flow path through an HPLC instrument is: Solvent reservoir (I) -> High-pressure pump (III) -> Sample injector (VI) -> Guard column (IV) -> Analytical column (VII) -> Detector (V) -> Data station/Recorder (II). Thus, I, III, VI, IV, VII, V, II.
HPLC प्रणाली में प्रवाह का सही क्रम है: विलायक जलाशय (I) > पंप (III) > इंजेक्टर (VI) > गार्ड कॉलम (IV) > विश्लेषणात्मक कॉलम (VII) > डिटेक्टर (V) > रिकॉर्डर (II)। अतः I, III, VI, IV, VII, V, II सही है।
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3769📚Forensic Chemistry & InstrumentationSeparation Techniques Matching
Match the following techniques with their operational principles/components:\ni. HPLC\nii. Electrophoresis\niii. GC\niv. Chromatography\na. Movement of charged ions\nb. Refractive index monitor\nc. Pigment separation\nd. Electron capture\nOptions:
Explanation
HPLC uses refractive index monitors (i-b); Electrophoresis operates by movement of charged ions under an electric field (ii-a); GC uses electron capture detectors (iii-d); and classical chromatography was discovered for plant pigment separation (iv-c). Thus, i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
HPLC = अपवर्तनांक मॉनिटर (i-b); इलेक्ट्रोफोरेसिस = आवेशित आयनों की गति (ii-a); GC = इलेक्ट्रॉन कैप्चर डिटेक्टर (iii-d); क्रोमैटोग्राफी = वर्णक पृथक्करण (iv-c)। अतः i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c सही है।
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3770📚Questioned Documents & InksTLC Analysis of Inks Protocol
Select the correct sequence of ink analysis using Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC):\nI. Extraction of ink from paper\nII. Saturate TLC chamber\nIII. Spotting of TLC plate\nIV. Place the TLC plate in TLC chamber\nV. Remove the plate and analyze the ink\nChoose the correct option:
Explanation
The standard analytical TLC procedure for writing inks proceeds logically: (I) Micro-plug ink extraction with solvent -> (II) Chamber vapor pre-equilibration/saturation -> (III) Sample spotting on silica plate -> (IV) Plate development in chamber -> (V) Removal, drying, and spot analysis. Thus, I, II, III, IV, V.
TLC स्याही विश्लेषण का सही क्रम है: स्याही का निष्कर्षण (I) > कक्ष संतृप्ति (II) > प्लेट स्पॉटिंग (III) > कक्ष में प्लेट विकास (IV) > प्लेट निकालकर विश्लेषण (V)। अतः I, II, III, IV, V सही है।
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3771📚Questioned Documents & PaperPaper Manufacturing & Pulp Types
Match the following types of paper with their constituents:\ni. Writing paper\nii. Rice paper\niii. Tracing paper\niv. Tissue paper\na. Bisulphate pulp\nb. Chemical pulp with wet strength additive\nc. 25% rags\nd. Pith of Tetrapanax papyriferum\nOptions:
Explanation
High-grade writing paper often contains 25% rag fibers (i-c); traditional oriental rice paper is manufactured from the pith of the tree Tetrapanax papyriferum (ii-d); tracing paper is treated chemical pulp with wet strength resin (iii-b/a); and tissue paper is made of bisulphate chemical pulp (iv-a/b). Option A aligns i-c and ii-d.
लेखन कागज = 25% चीथड़े (i-c); राइस पेपर = टेट्रापैनेक्स पैपिरिफ़ेरम का गूदा (ii-d); ट्रेसिंग पेपर और टिशू पेपर रासायनिक लुगदी से बनते हैं। अतः सही विकल्प i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b है।
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3772📚Questioned Documents & PaperPaper Sizing & Ink Resistance
Consider the following statements regarding paper manufacturing:\nI. Sizing agents include starch, gelatin, Al(OH)3, and synthetic polymers.\nII. It is used to stop feathering of ink in the paper.\nChoose the correct option:
Explanation
Both statements are correct: Sizing materials (rosin, starch, gelatin, aluminum salts) are added during papermaking to seal porous fiber capillaries, preventing ink feathering and penetration.
दोनों कथन सत्य हैं: साइजिंग सामग्री में स्टार्च, जिलेटिन और एल्यूमीनियम यौगिक शामिल होते हैं और इनका मुख्य उद्देश्य कागज पर लिखते समय स्याही के रेशों में फैलने (feathering) को रोकना होता है।
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3773📚Questioned Documents & Machine PrintingInkjet Security Printing Applications
Inkjet printing technology is used to print:
Explanation
Continuous or drop-on-demand inkjet printing is standardly used for high-speed serial variable numbering and personalization on lottery tickets and security packaging. Stamp papers and currency notes rely on intaglio and offset printing.
परिवर्तनीय डेटा, बारकोड और सीरियल नंबरों की तीव्र गति से छपाई के लिए लॉटरी टिकटों (Lottery tickets) पर इंकजेट प्रिंटिंग तकनीक का व्यापक उपयोग किया जाता है।
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3774📚Questioned Documents & Machine PrintingFax Machine Protocols (RTI & TTI)
RTI stands for:
Explanation
In facsimile communications and document examination, RTI stands for Receive Terminal Identifier (the counterpart to the Transmitting Terminal Identifier / TTI).
फैक्स संचार और मशीन दस्तावेज परीक्षण में RTI का पूर्ण रूप 'Receive Terminal Identifier' (प्राप्तकर्ता टर्मिनल पहचानकर्ता) होता है।
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3775📚Questioned Documents & TypewritersTypewriting Forensic Examination
A thorough typewriter examination will include determining:\nI. The manufacturer of typewriter\nII. Class characteristics of typewriter\nIII. Typestyle and possible make and model by classification\nIV. Quality of typewritten paper\nOptions:
Explanation
Forensic examination of typewriting primarily involves identifying class characteristics (pitch, escapement, font style) (II) and matching the typestyle against classification reference collections to determine the probable make and model (III). Thus, II and III are correct.
टाइपराइटिंग के फोरेंसिक विश्लेषण में मुख्य रूप से वर्ग विशेषताओं (पिच, फ़ॉन्ट - II) का निर्धारण और टाइपस्टाइल वर्गीकरण द्वारा संभावित मेक और मॉडल की पहचान (III) की जाती है। अतः II and III are correct सही है।
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3776📚Questioned Documents & Machine PrintingElectrophotographic Copying Cycle
Rearrange the statements in chronological sequence for electrophotographic printing in a photocopier:\nI. Voltage is applied to aluminum core of the drum.\nII. The corona wire passes over a sheet of paper so that paper becomes electrically charged.\nIII. Once the entire original is created on toner, the paper proceeds on through the copier to the fuser.\nIV. The exposed area of the drum rotates past roller encrusted with beads of the toner.\nChoose the correct sequence:
Explanation
The electrophotographic copying cycle proceeds: (I) Charging the photoreceptor drum core -> (IV) Latent image development with toner -> (II) Transfer corona charging the paper to attract toner -> (III) Fusing the toner permanently onto paper with heat and pressure. Thus, I, IV, II, III.
इलेक्ट्रोफोटोग्राफिक फोटोकॉपी का सही क्रम है: ड्रम चार्जिंग (I) > टोनर द्वारा विकास (IV) > कागज पर ट्रांसफर चार्जिंग (II) > फ्यूज़र में टोनर पिघलाकर स्थायी करना (III)। अतः I, IV, II, III सही क्रम है।
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3777📚Crime Scene InvestigationScene Security and Evidence Protocol
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion (A): Securing the crime scene is the first step in investigation.
Reason (R): Evidence should always be collected before securing the scene.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
Explanation
Assertion (A) is True because securing and isolating the scene is the crucial initial step to preserve physical integrity. Reason (R) is completely False because collecting evidence before establishing perimeter security risks contamination, loss, or destruction of critical evidence.
अभिकथन (A) सत्य है क्योंकि अपराध स्थल को सुरक्षित और सील करना जांच का पहला अनिवार्य कदम है ताकि भौतिक साक्ष्य सुरक्षित रहें। कारण (R) असत्य है क्योंकि घटनास्थल को सुरक्षित किए बिना साक्ष्य एकत्र करने से साक्ष्यों का संदूषण (contamination), हेरफेर या नष्ट होने का गंभीर खतरा होता है।
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3778📚Crime Scene InvestigationFirst Responder Duties & Life Safety
What is the first priority of a police officer at the crime scene?
Explanation
The paramount initial priority of the first responder at any crime scene is the safety and medical assistance of all individuals present (preserving human life), followed by neutralizing active threats, and then securing the physical scene.
किसी भी अपराध स्थल पर पहले पहुंचने वाले पुलिस अधिकारी की सर्वोच्च प्राथमिकता घटनास्थल पर मौजूद सभी व्यक्तियों की सुरक्षा और चिकित्सा सहायता (मानव जीवन की रक्षा) सुनिश्चित करना है। इसके बाद खतरे को समाप्त करना और फिर घटनास्थल को सील करना होता है।
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3779📚Forensic Law & BNSSMandatory Forensic Investigation under Sec 176(3) BNSS
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, forensic examination is mandatory in all offences punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more.
Reason (R): The law recognises that scientific evidence strengthens the fact-finding process and requires expert forensic involvement.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
Explanation
Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 mandates that forensic experts must visit crime scenes and collect evidence for all offences punishable with 7 years or more of imprisonment. Reason (R) provides the exact legislative rationale for this statutory mandate.
भारतीय नागरिक सुरक्षा संहिता (BNSS) 2023 की धारा 176(3) के अनुसार 7 वर्ष या उससे अधिक कारावास वाले सभी गंभीर अपराधों में फोरेंसिक विशेषज्ञ द्वारा अपराध स्थल का दौरा और साक्ष्य संकलन अनिवार्य किया गया है। कारण (R) इस प्रावधान के पीछे के वैज्ञानिक और कानूनी उद्देश्य को स्पष्ट करता है। अतः A और R दोनों सत्य हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या है।
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3780📚Forensic PharmacologyDrug Classification and Mechanisms
Match the followings:
List - I
I. Barbiturates
II. MAO Inhibitors
III. LSD
IV. Cocaine
List - II
a. Stimulant
b. Depressant
c. Anti-Depressant
d. Hallucinogen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Barbiturates are CNS depressants (b). Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors are anti-depressants (c). LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide) is a potent hallucinogen (d). Cocaine is a central nervous system stimulant (a). Thus, I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a.
बारबिट्यूरेट्स केंद्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र अवसादक (Depressant - b) हैं। MAO इनहिबिटर्स अवसादरोधी (Anti-depressant - c) दवाएं हैं। एलएसडी एक शक्तिशाली मतिभ्रमकारी (Hallucinogen - d) है। कोकीन एक सीएनएस उत्तेजक (Stimulant - a) है। अतः सही मिलान I - b, II - c, III - d, IV - a है।
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3781📚Forensic Toxicology & NarcoticsNatural vs Synthetic/Semi-synthetic Opioids
Which of the followings are synthetic opioids?
I. Morphine
II. Methadone
III. OxyContin
IV. Heroin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Morphine is a purely natural opiate extracted directly from the opium poppy plant Papaver somniferum. Methadone is fully synthetic, while OxyContin (oxycodone) and Heroin (diacetylmorphine) are non-natural, laboratory-synthesized/semi-synthetic opioids. Therefore, the synthetic/chemically modified opioid group consists of II, III and IV.
मॉर्फिन अफीम के पौधे से सीधे प्राप्त होने वाला प्राकृतिक ओपिएट है। मेथाडोन पूर्णतः कृत्रिम (fully synthetic) है, जबकि ऑक्सीकॉन्टिन और हेरोइन प्रयोगशाला में रासायनिक रूप से संश्लेषित (semi-synthetic) ओपियोइड्स हैं। अतः गैर-प्राकृतिक/सिंथेटिक समूह में II, III और IV शामिल हैं।
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3782📚Forensic InstrumentationSWGDRUG Categorization of Analytical Techniques
According to SWGDRUG guidelines, which analytical technique is classified under Category A for the identification of controlled substances?
Explanation
Under Scientific Working Group for the Analysis of Seized Drugs (SWGDRUG) criteria, Category A techniques provide the highest structural discriminative power and include Infrared Spectroscopy (IR), Mass Spectrometry (MS), NMR, Raman Spectroscopy, and X-ray Diffractometry. GC and TLC are Category B; colour tests are Category C.
SWGDRUG दिशानिर्देशों के अनुसार श्रेणी A (Category A) में वे तकनीकें आती हैं जो अधिकतम संरचनात्मक विशिष्टता प्रदान करती हैं, जैसे IR-स्पेक्ट्रोस्कोपी, मास स्पेक्ट्रोमेट्री (MS), NMR और रमन स्पेक्ट्रोस्कोपी। GC और TLC श्रेणी B में तथा रंग परीक्षण श्रेणी C में आते हैं।
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3783📚Forensic ToxicologyPlant Poisons - Dhatura as Railroad Poison
Which of the following plant poisons is commonly known as railroad poison?
Explanation
In Indian forensic toxicology and legal medicine, Dhatura (Datura) is notoriously designated as the 'railroad poison' or 'highwayman's poison'. Thugs and criminals administer its crushed seeds in food, tea, or prasad to railway/bus passengers to induce stupor and coma for robbery.
भारतीय फोरेंसिक विष विज्ञान में धतूरा (Dhatura) को 'रेलरोड पॉइजन' या 'ठगों का जहर' कहा जाता है। अपराधी ट्रेन या बस यात्रियों के भोजन, चाय या प्रसाद में धतूरे के बीज मिलाकर उन्हें बेहोश कर लूटपाट करते हैं।
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3784📚Forensic Toxicology & BotanyCannabis Forms - Sinsemilla
Which of the following is associated with sinsemilla?
Explanation
Sinsemilla (Spanish for 'without seeds') refers to the unfertilized female flowering tops of the Cannabis sativa plant (Marijuana). Preventing pollination causes the plant to produce exceptionally high concentrations of THC-rich resin.
सिनसेमिला (Sinsemilla) का अर्थ स्पैनिश में 'बिना बीज के' होता है। यह मारिजुआना (भांग/कैनबिस) के मादा पौधे के बीज-रहित फूल वाले शीर्ष होते हैं, जिनमें टीएचसी (THC) की सांद्रता अत्यंत उच्च होती है।
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3785📚Forensic Toxicology & Plant DrugsKhat (Catha edulis) Consumption
Which of the following method adopted for the desirable effect of Khat?
Explanation
Khat (Catha edulis), which contains the amphetamine-like stimulant alkaloid cathinone, is traditionally consumed by chewing the fresh leaves and shoots and holding the bolus against the inside of the cheek to allow buccal mucosal absorption.
खाट (Catha edulis) में कैथिनोन नामक उत्तेजक एल्कलॉइड होता है। इसके वांछित उत्तेजक प्रभाव प्राप्त करने के लिए इसकी ताजी पत्तियों को मुंह में रखकर चबाया (Chewing) जाता है।
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3786📚Forensic ToxicologyDrug Manifestations & Clinical Signs
Match the followings:
Drug Name
I. Cannabis
II. Cocaine
III. Alcohol
IV. Brucine
Condition
a. Magnan's symptom
b. Opisthotonos
c. Run Amok
d. Delirium tremens
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Cannabis intoxication can precipitate a frenzied homicidal state known as 'Run Amok' (c). Chronic cocaine use causes tactile hallucinations (cocaine bugs / Magnan's sign, a). Chronic alcohol withdrawal leads to Delirium tremens (d). Brucine (nux vomica spinal alkaloid) produces tetanic spinal convulsions resulting in Opisthotonos (b). Thus, I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b.
कैनबिस के अत्यधिक सेवन से उन्मादी हिंसक अवस्था 'रन अमोक' (c) हो सकती है। कोकीन के दीर्घकालिक उपयोग से त्वचा पर कीड़े रेंगने जैसा अहसास (मैग्नन का लक्षण, a) होता है। शराब छोड़ने पर डिलीरियम ट्रेमेंस (d) होता है। ब्रूसिन से रीढ़ की ऐंठन के कारण शरीर धनुष जैसा मुड़ जाता है (ऑपिस्थोटोनस, b)। सही मिलान I - c, II - a, III - d, IV - b है।
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3787📚Forensic Chemistry & Color TestsSpot Tests for Controlled Substances
Match the followings:
Drug Name
I. Barbiturates
II. Benzodiazepine
III. LSD
IV. Cocaine
Identification Test
a. Ehrlich's test
b. Scott test
c. Dillie-Koppanyi test
d. Zimmermann test
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Barbiturates are identified by the Dillie-Koppanyi test (cobalt acetate + isopropylamine -> violet, c). Benzodiazepines give a reddish-purple color with the Zimmermann test (d). LSD (an indole derivative) reacts with Ehrlich's reagent (p-DMAB) to give a purple color (a). Cocaine is presumptively identified by the Scott test (cobalt thiocyanate -> blue, b). Thus, I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b.
बारबिट्यूरेट्स की पहचान डिली-कोपनी परीक्षण (c) से होती है। बेंजोडायजेपाइन ज़िमरमैन परीक्षण (d) देते हैं। एलएसडी एरलिच अभिकर्मक (a) के साथ बैंगनी रंग देता है। कोकीन की पहचान स्कॉट परीक्षण (b) से होती है। अतः सही मिलान I - c, II - d, III - a, IV - b है।
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3788📚Forensic PharmacologyClassification of Synthetic Drugs
Which of the following is a group of completely synthetic drugs?
Explanation
PCP (Phencyclidine) and Barbiturates are completely synthetic laboratory chemicals. LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide) is semi-synthetic (derived from ergot alkaloids), but in general toxicology test banks, synthetic hallucinogens (LSD and PCP) are grouped together as synthetic drugs compared to plant opioids like Heroin (semi-synthetic from opium) or Oxycodone.
पीसीपी (Phencyclidine) पूर्णतः कृत्रिम रूप से संश्लेषित रसायन है। हेरोइन और ऑक्सीकोडोन अफीम से व्युत्पन्न सेमी-सिंथेटिक ओपिओइड हैं। एलएसडी और पीसीपी को रासायनिक फोरेंसिक वर्गीकरण में सिंथेटिक मतिभ्रमकारी (synthetic hallucinogens) के रूप में एक साथ समूहीकृत किया जाता है।
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3789📚Forensic Toxicology & PharmacognosyNatural vs Synthetic Hallucinogens
Which of the following are naturally occurring drug?
I. Marijuana
II. Psilocybin
III. Peyote
IV. LSD
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Marijuana (from Cannabis sativa plant), Psilocybin (from Psilocybe genus magic mushrooms), and Peyote (from Lophophora williamsii cactus containing mescaline) are all naturally occurring plant/fungal drugs. LSD is a laboratory-synthesized compound. Therefore, I, II and III only.
मारिजुआना (कैनबिस पौधे से), साइलोसाइबिन (मैजिक मशरूम कवक से) और पियोट (कैक्टस से प्राप्त मेस्कलीन) प्राकृतिक रूप से पाए जाने वाले पदार्थ हैं। एलएसडी प्रयोगशाला में संश्लेषित किया जाता है। अतः केवल I, II और III सही हैं।
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3790📚Forensic ToxicologyPlant Alkaloids - Dhatura
Which of the following is an active principle of dhatura?
Explanation
The principal active toxic alkaloids of Dhatura (Datura fastuosa/stramonium) are tropane alkaloids: Scopolamine (hyoscine), hyoscyamine, and atropine. Thevetin and Cerberin are cardiac glycosides from Yellow Oleander and Cerbera odollam respectively.
धतूरा (Datura) के मुख्य सक्रिय विषैले ट्रोपेन एल्कलॉइड स्कोपोलामाइन (हायोसीन), हायोसायमीन और एट्रोपिन हैं। थेवेटिन पीले कनेर से और सर्बेरिन सर्बेरा ओडोलम से प्राप्त होते हैं।
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3791📚History of PharmacologyDiscovery of LSD by Albert Hofmann
The hallucinogenic effects of LSD were first described by
Explanation
Swiss chemist Albert Hofmann first synthesized LSD-25 in 1938 at Sandoz Laboratories and personally discovered and documented its profound hallucinogenic psychopharmacological effects on April 16 and 19, 1943 (the famous 'Bicycle Day').
स्विस रसायनज्ञ अल्बर्ट हॉफमैन (Albert Hofmann) ने 1938 में सैंडोज़ प्रयोगशाला में एलएसडी का संश्लेषण किया और अप्रैल 1943 में दुर्घटनावश और फिर स्व-प्रयोग द्वारा इसके शक्तिशाली मतिभ्रमकारी प्रभावों की खोज और प्रलेखन किया।
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3792📚BiochemistryEssential vs Non-essential Amino Acids
Essential amino acids include:
I. Valine
II. Leucine
III. Glycine
IV. Lysine
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
Essential amino acids are those that the human body cannot synthesize de novo and must obtain from diet. They include Valine (I), Leucine (II), and Lysine (IV). Glycine (III) is a non-essential amino acid synthesized endogenously.
आवश्यक अमीनो एसिड वे होते हैं जिन्हें मानव शरीर स्वयं संश्लेषित नहीं कर सकता और आहार से प्राप्त करना होता है। इनमें वेलिन (I), ल्यूसीन (II) और लाइसिन (IV) शामिल हैं। ग्लाइसिन (III) एक गैर-आवश्यक अमीनो एसिड है। अतः I, II और IV सही हैं।
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3793📚Forensic ToxicologySpinal Poisons - Strychnine Fatal Dose
What is the fatal dose of strychnine?
Explanation
In medical jurisprudence and toxicology (Modi and Reddy), the fatal dose of strychnine for an adult human is approximately 50 to 100 mg (about 1 grain), producing violent spinal convulsions and death from asphyxia.
न्यायिक चिकित्सा विज्ञान और विष विज्ञान के अनुसार एक वयस्क मनुष्य के लिए स्ट्रिकनाइन की घातक खुराक लगभग 50 से 100 मिलीग्राम (लगभग 1 ग्रेन) होती है।
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3794📚Forensic InstrumentationHPLC vs Gas Chromatography Selection
HPLC is preferred over GC when analytes are:
Explanation
Gas chromatography (GC) requires analytes to be thermally stable and volatile so they can be vaporized without decomposing. High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) operates at ambient or moderate temperatures in liquid mobile phase, making it the technique of choice for non-volatile, thermally labile, and polar compounds.
गैस क्रोमैटोग्राफी (GC) के लिए पदार्थों का वाष्पशील और ताप-स्थिर होना आवश्यक है। एचपीएलसी (HPLC) गैर-वाष्पशील, ध्रुवीय (polar) और ताप-संवेदनशील (thermally labile) पदार्थों के विश्लेषण के लिए सर्वोत्तम तकनीक है।
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3795📚Forensic Quality Assurance & ISO 17025Measurement Uncertainty & Method Validation
A forensic report states drug concentration without uncertainty or validation data. This is problematic because:
Explanation
Under international forensic accreditation standards (ISO/IEC 17025), any quantitative measurement is scientifically incomplete without an estimate of measurement uncertainty and proof of method validation (accuracy, precision, linearity), because the numerical value's reliability is strictly dependent on the method's performance.
अंतरराष्ट्रीय फोरेंसिक मानकों (ISO 17025) के तहत, किसी भी मात्रात्मक परिणाम की विश्वसनीयता और स्वीकार्यता विधि के प्रदर्शन (सटीकता, परिशुद्धता) और मापन अनिश्चितता पर निर्भर करती है। इसके बिना संख्यात्मक मान न्यायिक रूप से संदेहास्पद होता है।
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3796📚Forensic ToxicologyChelating Agents in Heavy Metal Poisoning
Which of the following chelating agents used for the management of heavy metal poisoning?
I. EDTA
II. BAL
III. Starch
IV. Vinegar
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Explanation
EDTA (Calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetate) and BAL (British Anti-Lewisite / Dimercaprol) are pharmacological chelating agents that form stable, water-soluble ring complexes with toxic heavy metals (lead, arsenic, mercury) enabling renal excretion. Starch is an antidote for iodine, and vinegar is diluted acetic acid.
EDTA और BAL (डाइमरकैप्रोल) मानक रासायनिक चेलेटिंग एजेंट हैं जिनका उपयोग सीसा, आर्सेनिक और पारा जैसी भारी धातुओं को बांधकर शरीर से बाहर निकालने के लिए किया जाता है। अतः I और II सही हैं।
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3797📚ChromatographyThin Layer Chromatography (TLC) Principles
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion (A): Increasing the polarity of the mobile phase in TLC increases the Rf value of polar compounds.
Reason (R): Polar mobile phases compete more effectively with polar analytes for adsorption sites on the stationary phase.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
Explanation
In normal-phase TLC (silica gel stationary phase), polar analytes are strongly retained by polar silanol groups. Increasing mobile phase polarity increases eluting strength by competing with the analyte for stationary phase adsorption sites, displacing the analyte and causing it to migrate further up the plate (increasing Rf). Both A and R are true and R correctly explains A.
सिलिका जेल टीएलसी में ध्रुवीय मोबाइल चरण स्थिर चरण के सक्रिय स्थलों के साथ प्रभावी प्रतिस्पर्धा करके ध्रुवीय यौगिकों को विस्थापित करता है, जिससे वे प्लेट पर अधिक दूरी तय करते हैं और उनका Rf मान बढ़ जाता है। अतः A और R दोनों सत्य हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या है।
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3798📚Forensic ExplosivesPlastic Explosives - SEMTEX
SEMTEX is a high explosive, which is a combination of:
Explanation
Semtex is a widely known military plastic explosive originally manufactured in the Czech Republic. Its active explosive base is a combination of PETN (pentaerythritol tetranitrate) and RDX (cyclotrimethylenetrinitramine), blended with plasticizers and binders.
सेमटेक्स (SEMTEX) एक प्रसिद्ध प्लास्टिक उच्च विस्फोटक है, जो पीईटीएन (PETN) और आरडीएक्स (RDX) के मिश्रण तथा प्लास्टिसाइज़र से निर्मित होता है।
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3799📚General EnglishReading Comprehension - Global Warming
What is the primary cause of global warming?
Explanation
According to the passage, global warming refers to the gradual increase in the Earth's average temperature, primarily due to human activities such as burning fossil fuels (coal, oil, natural gas), deforestation, and industrial processes.
गद्यांश के अनुसार, ग्लोबल वार्मिंग मुख्य रूप से मानव गतिविधियों जैसे जीवाश्म ईंधन (कोयला, तेल, प्राकृतिक गैस) को जलाने, वनों की कटाई और औद्योगिक प्रक्रियाओं के कारण होती है।
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3800📚General EnglishReading Comprehension - Global Warming
How does global warming impact biodiversity?
Explanation
The passage states that many species of plants and animals cannot adapt quickly to the rapidly changing climate, which leads to a decline in their populations.
गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि बदलते जलवायु के अनुकूल कई पौधे और जानवर तेजी से नहीं ढल पाते, जिसके परिणामस्वरूप उनकी आबादी में गिरावट आती है।
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3801📚General EnglishSentence Rearrangement (Para Jumbles)
Given below are four scattered segments of two sentences. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.
P. due to rapid urbanization
Q. environmental degradation has increased
R. and unplanned industrial growth
S. in many developing regions
The most appropriate sequence should be
Explanation
The coherent grammatical order is Q-P-R-S: 'Environmental degradation has increased (Q) due to rapid urbanization (P) and unplanned industrial growth (R) in many developing regions (S).'
सार्थक और व्याकरणिक क्रम Q-P-R-S है: 'Environmental degradation has increased (Q) due to rapid urbanization (P) and unplanned industrial growth (R) in many developing regions (S).'
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3802📚General EnglishArticles (Zero Article & Definite Article)
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options.
Karan speaks _____ Spanish. He believes, honesty is _____ best policy.
Explanation
No article is used before the names of languages (Spanish). The definite article 'the' is required before superlative adjectives ('the best policy'). Therefore, 'no article, the' is correct.
भाषाओं के नाम (Spanish) से पहले किसी आर्टिकल का प्रयोग नहीं होता है। सुपरलेटिव डिग्री (best) से पहले निश्चित आर्टिकल 'the' का प्रयोग अनिवार्य है। अतः 'no article, the' सही है।
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3803📚General EnglishModal Auxiliaries - Logical Deduction
Fill in the blank with the most suitable modal:
This is impossible, it _____ be a mistake.
Explanation
'Must' is used for strong logical deduction or certainty based on evidence. Since the speaker states 'This is impossible', they conclude with conviction that 'it must be a mistake'.
जब किसी निष्कर्ष या निश्चितता को दृढ़ता से व्यक्त किया जाता है, तो तार्किक कटौती के लिए 'must' का प्रयोग होता है: 'it must be a mistake' (यह निश्चित रूप से एक गलती होनी चाहिए)।
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3804📚General EnglishIdioms and Phrases
Which idiom fits the blank to mean "not enough to make a real difference" in the paragraph?
Explanation
The idiom 'a drop in the ocean' (or 'a drop in the bucket') means an extremely small amount compared to what is needed or in comparison to the total scale of the problem.
मुहावरे 'a drop in the ocean' (ऊंट के मुंह में जीरा / सागर में एक बूंद) का अर्थ होता है किसी बड़ी समस्या या आवश्यकता की तुलना में बहुत छोटी या नगण्य मात्रा।
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3805📚General EnglishPronouns - Subject Pronouns
Which pronoun correctly refers to "local stakeholders" in blank (2)?
Explanation
The plural third-person personal pronoun 'they' correctly serves as the subject pronoun referring back to the plural noun phrase 'local stakeholders' in the clause '...as they have firsthand insights...'.
बहुवचन संज्ञा 'local stakeholders' के संदर्भ में कर्ता कारक के रूप में उपयुक्त सर्वनाम 'they' है ('...as they have firsthand insights...').
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3806📚General EnglishIdioms and Phrases
Choose the option that correctly expresses the meaning of the idiom used in the sentence:
By submitting the reports early, the manager wanted to steal a march on its competitors.
Explanation
The idiom 'to steal a march on someone' means to gain an advantage over a competitor or rival, especially by acting secretly or before they do.
'To steal a march on' मुहावरे का अर्थ दूसरों से पहले कोई कदम उठाकर बढ़त या लाभ प्राप्त करना (To achieve an advantage by acting before others) होता है।
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3807📚General EnglishPrepositions - Collocations
Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.
The management decided to act _____ the recommendation of the expert panel and proceed _____ the proposed reforms.
Explanation
The correct idiomatic prepositional collocations are 'act on (or upon) advice/recommendation' (to take action according to it) and 'proceed with a plan/reform' (to carry on with it). Therefore, 'on, with' is the correct pair.
अंग्रेजी में सही प्रीपोजिशन का प्रयोग 'act on a recommendation' (सिफारिश पर अमल करना) और 'proceed with reforms' (सुधारों के साथ आगे बढ़ना) होता है। अतः 'on, with' सही युग्म है।
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3808📚General EnglishVoice - Imperative Sentences
Change the following sentence from Active voice to Passive voice.
Do the work at once.
Explanation
The standard passive voice rule for an imperative command sentence is: 'Let + Object + be + Past Participle (V3)'. Thus, 'Do the work at once' becomes 'Let the work be done at once.'
आदेशात्मक (Imperative) वाक्यों का पैसिव वॉइस बनाने का नियम 'Let + Object + be + V3' होता है। अतः 'Do the work at once' का पैसिव 'Let the work be done at once' होगा।
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3809📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Awards and Honors
Who has received the 2025 World Leader for Peace and Security award?
Explanation
Global humanitarian leader and Art of Living founder Gurudev Sri Sri Ravi Shankar was conferred the prestigious 2025 World Leader for Peace and Security Award by the Boston Global Forum (BGF) and the AI World Society for his tireless efforts toward global conflict resolution and non-violence.
आर्ट ऑफ लिविंग के संस्थापक और वैश्विक मानवतावादी नेता गुरुदेव श्री श्री रवि शंकर को वैश्विक संघर्ष समाधान, मानवीय सद्भाव और शांति के प्रयासों के लिए बोस्टन ग्लोबल फोरम (BGF) द्वारा '2025 वर्ल्ड लीडर फॉर पीस एंड सिक्योरिटी' पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया।
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3810💡General KnowledgeScientific Observatories in India
Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KSO) is located in which state?
Explanation
Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KSO) is located in the Palani Hills in Kodaikanal, Dindigul district, Tamil Nadu. It is operated by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) and has been recording solar observations continuously since 1901.
कोडाइकनाल सौर वेधशाला (KSO) तमिलनाडु के डिंडीगुल जिले में पलानी पहाड़ियों पर स्थित है। इसका संचालन भारतीय खगोल भौतिकी संस्थान (IIA) द्वारा किया जाता है।
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3811📚Geography of IndiaLatitudinal and Longitudinal Extent
Consider the following statements about India's location and choose the correct option.
Explanation
Geographically, the entire mainland of India lies completely in the Northern Hemisphere (latitudes 8°4'N to 37°6'N) and completely in the Eastern Hemisphere (longitudes 68°7'E to 97°25'E).
भारत पूरी तरह से उत्तरी गोलार्ध (8°4' उत्तर से 37°6' उत्तर अक्षांश) और पूर्वी गोलार्ध (68°7' पूर्व से 97°25' पूर्व देशांतर) में स्थित है। अतः भारत उत्तरी और पूर्वी गोलार्ध में स्थित है।
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3812📚Geography of IndiaTropic of Cancer across Indian States
The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through which Indian state?
Explanation
The Tropic of Cancer (23°30' N) passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. It does NOT pass through Manipur.
कर्क रेखा (23°30' N) भारत के 8 राज्यों से होकर गुजरती है: गुजरात, राजस्थान, मध्य प्रदेश, छत्तीसगढ़, झारखंड, पश्चिम बंगाल, त्रिपुरा और मिजोरम। यह मणिपुर से होकर नहीं गुजरती है।
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3813📚Geography of IndiaKaveri River Tributaries
Which of the following are the tributaries of the Kaveri River?
I. Arkavati
II. Painganga
III. Shimsha
IV. Lakshman Tirtha
V. Tungbhadra
Options:
Explanation
Arkavati (I), Shimsha (III), and Lakshman Tirtha (IV) are well-known tributaries of the Kaveri River. Painganga is a tributary of the Godavari River, while Tungabhadra is a major tributary of the Krishna River. Therefore, I, III, IV only.
अर्कवती (I), शिमशा (III) और लक्ष्मण तीर्थ (IV) कावेरी नदी की प्रमुख सहायक नदियाँ हैं। पेनगंगा गोदावरी की तथा तुंगभद्रा कृष्णा की सहायक नदी है। अतः विकल्प C (I, III, IV केवल) सही है।
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3814📚History & Heritage of Jammu & KashmirAkhnoor Fort on Chenab River
Consider the following statements about Akhnoor Fort, located about 28 km away from Jammu city:
I. The fort is on the right bank of the river Jhelum.
II. The fort was built around 1762 - 1802 at the behest of Raja Tegh Singh
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect because Akhnoor Fort is perched on the right bank of the Chenab River (not Jhelum). Statement II is correct as the fort's construction began under Raja Tegh Singh around 1762 and was completed by Raja Alam Singh in 1802. Therefore, II only is correct.
कथन I गलत है क्योंकि अखनूर किला चिनाब नदी (Chenab River) के दाहिने तट पर स्थित है, झेलम पर नहीं। कथन II सही है क्योंकि इसका निर्माण राजा तेघ सिंह द्वारा 1762 में शुरू कराया गया था और 1802 में पूरा हुआ। अतः केवल II सही है।
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3815📚Culture of Jammu & KashmirFairs and Festivals - Purmandal and Jhiri Mela
Consider the following statements about the fairs and festivals of Jammu & Kashmir.
I. Purmandal Mela is organized on Shivaratri (February-March).
II. Jhiri mela (October-November) is held around the legend of Baba Jitu.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Both statements are correct. Purmandal Mela (Chhoti Kashi) is celebrated during Maha Shivaratri (February-March) along the sacred Devika river. The Jhiri Mela is held annually during Kartik Purnima (October-November) in Jhiri village to honor the peasant martyr Baba Jitu (Baba Jitto).
दोनों कथन सत्य हैं। पुरमंडल मेला महाशिवरात्रि (फरवरी-मार्च) के अवसर पर देविका नदी के तट पर आयोजित होता है। झीरी मेला कार्तिक पूर्णिमा (अक्टूबर-नवंबर) पर किसान शहीद बाबा जीतो के बलिदान की स्मृति में आयोजित किया जाता है।
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3816📚Art and Culture of Jammu & KashmirKashmiri Hand-knotted Carpets & Persian Rug Styles
Kashmir has been creating Kashan and Kirman, Tabriz and Isfahan with superb artistry. These are subtypes of?
Explanation
Kashan, Kirman, Tabriz, and Isfahan are celebrated classical Persian carpet design patterns and styles that Kashmiri master weavers craft with intricate hand-knotted silk and wool artistry (Persian Rugs / Carpets).
काशान, किरमान, तबरीज़ और इस्फ़हान पारंपरिक फ़ारसी कालीनों (Persian Rugs/Carpets) के विश्व प्रसिद्ध डिज़ाइन और शैलियाँ हैं, जिन्हें कश्मीरी बुनकर हाथ से बुने हुए रेशम और ऊनी कालीनों में बेहतरीन कलात्मकता के साथ तैयार करते हैं।
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3817📚Geography of Jammu & KashmirPhysiography of Kashmir Valley
The Kashmir valley is surrounded by the range of Himalayas, bounded on the southwest by the _____ Range and on the northeast by the _____ Range.
Choose the correct option to fill the blanks:
Explanation
The Kashmir Valley is an intermontane basin bounded on the southwest by the Pir Panjal Range (Middle Himalayas) and on the northeast by the Great Himalayan (Zanskar/Greater Himalayas) Range.
कश्मीर घाटी एक अंतःपर्वतीय द्रोणी है जो दक्षिण-पश्चिम में पीर पंजाल श्रेणी और उत्तर-पूर्व में महान हिमालय (Great Himalayas) श्रेणी से घिरी हुई है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
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3818📚Mental Ability & ReasoningLetter Series
Select the combination of letters which, when sequentially placed in the blanks, will complete the series:
A, C, F, J, O, ___, ___, ___
Explanation
Letter positions increase by +2, +3, +4, +5, +6, +7, +8: A (1) + 2 = C (3); C + 3 = F (6); F + 4 = J (10); J + 5 = O (15); O + 6 = U (21); U + 7 = 28 -> B (2); B + 8 = J (10). Thus, the next three letters are U, B, J.
अक्षरों के स्थानीय मान में क्रमशः +2, +3, +4, +5, +6, +7, +8 की वृद्धि हो रही है: A(1)+2=C(3); C(3)+3=F(6); F(6)+4=J(10); J(10)+5=O(15); O(15)+6=U(21); U(21)+7=B(2); B(2)+8=J(10)। अतः सही उत्तर U, B, J है।
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3819📚Mental Ability & ReasoningCoding-Decoding - Reverse Alphabet Pairs
If in a certain language, DELHI is coded as WVOSR, then how will MUMBAI be coded in that language?
Explanation
The coding pattern uses opposite/reverse letters of the alphabet (sum of positions = 27): D<->W, E<->V, L<->O, H<->S, I<->R. Applying this to MUMBAI: M<->N, U<->F, M<->N, B<->Y, A<->Z, I<->R => NFNYZR.
कोडिंग का पैटर्न विपरीत अक्षरों (योग = 27) पर आधारित है: D<->W, E<->V, L<->O, H<->S, I<->R। अतः MUMBAI के लिए: M(N), U(F), M(N), B(Y), A(Z), I(R) => NFNYZR।
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3820📚Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense Test
A man is facing South. He turns 90° clockwise, then 180° anticlockwise, and then 90° clockwise again. Which direction is he facing now?
Explanation
Initial facing: South. Clockwise turns = +90° + 90° = +180°. Anticlockwise turns = -180°. Net angular rotation = +180° - 180° = 0°. Therefore, he is still facing his initial direction: South.
प्रारंभिक दिशा: दक्षिण। कुल दक्षिणावर्त (clockwise) मोड़ = 90° + 90° = 180°। कुल वामावर्त (anticlockwise) मोड़ = 180°। शुद्ध घूर्णन = 180° - 180° = 0°। अतः वह अभी भी दक्षिण (South) दिशा की ओर मुंह किए हुए है।
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3821📚Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense & Pythagoras Theorem
Manisha starts walking from her house and walks 150m south, then she turns right and walks 80m, and then she turns left and walks 60m. She finally turns left and walks 280m to reach a school. What is the shortest distance between her house and the school?
Explanation
Starting at origin (0, 0): (1) 150m South -> (0, -150); (2) Right turn (West) 80m -> (-80, -150); (3) Left turn (South) 60m -> (-80, -210); (4) Left turn (East) 280m -> (-80 + 280, -210) = (200, -210). Shortest distance = √(200² + (-210)²) = √(40000 + 44100) = √84100 = 290 meters.
शुरुआती बिंदु (0, 0) से: दक्षिण में 150m (0, -150); दाएं मुड़कर पश्चिम में 80m (-80, -150); बाएं मुड़कर दक्षिण में 60m (-80, -210); बाएं मुड़कर पूर्व में 280m (200, -210)। न्यूनतम दूरी = √(200² + 210²) = √(40000 + 44100) = √84100 = 290 मीटर।
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3822📚Mental Ability & ReasoningBlood Relations
Pointing to a woman, Ram said, "She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather."
How is the woman related to Ram?
Explanation
'The only son of my grandfather' refers to Ram's father. 'The daughter of Ram's father' is Ram's sister. Therefore, the woman is Ram's sister.
'मेरे दादाजी का इकलौता बेटा' = राम के पिता। 'राम के पिता की बेटी' = राम की बहन। अतः वह महिला राम की बहन (Sister) है।
2026JKSSBInformation Technology Department
3823📚Computer Science & ITOperating Systems Fundamentals
Operating System:
A) Links a program with subordinate interferences
B) Enables the programmer to draw a flowchart
C) Provides a layer, user friendly interface
D) All of these
Explanation
An Operating System (OS) is system software that acts as an intermediary layer between computer hardware and the user/applications, providing a user-friendly interface (GUI/CLI) and managing hardware resources.
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम (OS) सिस्टम सॉफ्टवेयर है जो कंप्यूटर हार्डवेयर और यूजर के बीच एक मध्यवर्ती परत (layer) के रूप में कार्य करता है तथा एक यूजर-फ्रेंडली इंटरफेस प्रदान करता है।
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3824📚Computer Science & ITCPU Architecture - Control Unit
Which component of the CPU is responsible for controlling the sequence of operations and managing the flow of data?
Explanation
The Control Unit (CU) is the component of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) that directs and coordinates all operations inside the processor, fetching, decoding, and executing instructions and managing the flow of data between the ALU, registers, and memory.
कंट्रोल यूनिट (Control Unit - CU) सीपीयू का वह मुख्य भाग है जो निर्देशों को डिकोड करता है, निष्पादन के क्रम को नियंत्रित करता है और सीपीयू तथा मेमोरी के बीच डेटा प्रवाह का प्रबंधन करता है।
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3825📚Internet and NetworkingNetworking Abbreviations - ISP
Full Form of ISP?
Explanation
ISP stands for Internet Service Provider, an organization or telecommunications company that provides services for accessing, using, or participating in the Internet.
ISP का पूर्ण रूप इंटरनेट सर्विस प्रोवाइडर (Internet Service Provider) है, जो उपभोक्ताओं और व्यवसायों को इंटरनेट कनेक्शन प्रदान करने वाली संस्था होती है।
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3826📚Internet and Cyber SecurityEmail Security Protocols - SSL/TLS
Which of these protocols ensures secure email transmission?
Explanation
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS (Transport Layer Security) provide cryptographic encryption for email protocols (SMTPS, IMAPS, POP3S, STARTTLS), protecting email contents and credentials against eavesdropping and tampering.
एसएसएल/टीएलएस (SSL/TLS - Transport Layer Security) ईमेल प्रोटोकॉल को एन्क्रिप्ट करके इंटरनेट पर सुरक्षित ईमेल प्रसारण और डेटा गोपनीयता सुनिश्चित करता है।
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3827📚Basic MathematicsVariation and Proportions
A high-end jeweller manufactures gold bars where the price of a bar is directly proportional to the square of its weight. During transit, a bar of weight 5 units and worth Rs. 25,000 accidentally breaks into two pieces with weights in the ratio 2:3. What is the total reduction in the value of the gold due to this breakage?
Explanation
Price P = k × W². For the original bar: 25000 = k × (5²) => 25000 = 25k => k = 1000. The two broken pieces weigh 2 units and 3 units. Value of 1st piece = 1000 × (2²) = Rs. 4,000. Value of 2nd piece = 1000 × (3²) = Rs. 9,000. Total value of broken pieces = 4000 + 9000 = Rs. 13,000. Reduction in value = 25000 - 13000 = Rs. 12,000.
मूल्य P = k × W²। मूल छड़ के लिए: 25000 = k × 5² => k = 1000। टूटे हुए टुकड़ों का वजन 2 और 3 इकाई है। पहले टुकड़े का मूल्य = 1000 × 2² = 4,000 रु। दूसरे टुकड़े का मूल्य = 1000 × 3² = 9,000 रु। कुल मूल्य = 13,000 रु। मूल्य में कुल कमी = 25,000 - 13,000 = 12,000 रु।
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3828📚Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages
Match the scenarios in List-I with the correct "Present Age of the Older Person" in List-II.
List-I
P. The sum of the ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages was four times the father's age at that time.
Q. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son.
R. The ratio of the ages of A and B is 3:4. The sum of their ages is 28.
S. 10 years ago, a father was 4 times as old as his son. 2 years hence, he will be twice as old as his son.
List-II
1) 16years
2) 36years
3) 46years
4) 34 years
Choose the correct match:
Explanation
P: F + S = 45. Five years ago: (F-5)(S-5) = 4(F-5) => S-5 = 4 => S = 9, so F = 36 (2). Q: M = S + 24. In 2 years: M + 2 = 2(S + 2) => S + 26 = 2S + 4 => S = 22, so M = 46 (3). R: Ratio 3:4, sum 28 => Older person B = 4/7 × 28 = 16 (1). S: F - 10 = 4(S - 10) and F + 2 = 2(S + 2) => S = 16, F = 34 (4). Thus, P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4.
P: (S-5)=4 => पुत्र=9, पिता=36 वर्ष (2)। Q: M=S+24, दो वर्ष बाद M+2=2(S+2) => पुत्र=22, पिता=46 वर्ष (3)। R: 3x+4x=28 => 7x=28 => x=4, बड़ा व्यक्ति=16 वर्ष (1)। S: हल करने पर पिता की वर्तमान आयु=34 वर्ष (4)। अतः सही मिलान P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 है।
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3829📚Basic MathematicsAverages and Linear Equations
An HR department is auditing the ages of its 5-member executive board A, B, C, D, and E, to comply with a "balanced experience" policy. The average age of the board members is 25 years. Member D (age 30) quits and is replaced by Member F. The new average age becomes 24 years. Additionally, Member B is 5 years younger than Member C. Member A is 2 years older than Member F. Member E and Member B have same age. What is the current age of Member E?
Explanation
Original sum = 5 × 25 = 125. New sum = 5 × 24 = 120 => F - D = 120 - 125 = -5 => F = 30 - 5 = 25 years. Member A = F + 2 = 25 + 2 = 27 years. Since A + B + C + D + E = 125, we have 27 + B + C + 30 + E = 125 => B + C + E = 68. Given E = B and C = B + 5: B + (B + 5) + B = 68 => 3B + 5 = 68 => 3B = 63 => B = 21. Since E = B, Member E is 21 years old.
प्रारंभिक योग = 125। नया योग = 120 => F = 30 - 5 = 25 वर्ष। A = 25 + 2 = 27 वर्ष। B + C + E = 125 - (27 + 30) = 68। E = B और C = B + 5 रखने पर: 3B + 5 = 68 => 3B = 63 => B = 21 वर्ष। अतः E की आयु = 21 वर्ष है।
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3830📚Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages - Quadratic Equations
The present age of a man is equal to the square of his son's age. One year ago, the man's age was exactly eight times the age of his son. Two years hence, the sum of their ages will be 6 more than six times the son's age at that time. If the son's present age is 'x', which of the following represents the man's present age?
Explanation
Let son's age = x, man's age = x². One year ago: x² - 1 = 8(x - 1) => x² - 1 = 8x - 8 => x² - 8x + 7 = 0 => (x - 7)(x - 1) = 0. Since x > 1, x = 7. Thus, the man's present age is x² = 7² = 49 years. (Verification: In 2 years, man = 51, son = 9; sum = 60, which equals 6(9) + 6 = 60).
पुत्र की आयु = x, पिता की आयु = x²। एक वर्ष पहले: x² - 1 = 8(x - 1) => x² - 8x + 7 = 0 => x = 7। अतः पिता की वर्तमान आयु = 7² = 49 वर्ष है।
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3831📚Basic MathematicsHCF and LCM Applications
A florist is preparing for a large event and has 200 roses and 180 orchids. She wants to create the maximum possible number of identical bouquets such that every bouquet has the same number of roses and orchids, and no flowers are left over. How many roses will be present in each bouquet?
Explanation
The maximum number of bouquets is HCF(200, 180) = 20. The number of roses in each bouquet = Total roses / Number of bouquets = 200 / 20 = 10 roses.
गुलदस्तों की अधिकतम संख्या = म.स.प. HCF(200, 180) = 20। प्रत्येक गुलदस्ते में गुलाबों की संख्या = 200 / 20 = 10 गुलाब।
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3832📚Basic MathematicsMensuration - Combination of Solids
A wooden toy is shaped like a rocket with a cone mounted on a cylinder. The total height of the rocket is 26 cm, while the height of the conical part is 8 cm. The base of the conical portion has a diameter of 12 cm, while the base diameter of the cylindrical portion is 6 cm. The conical portion is to be painted orange and the cylindrical portion yellow. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the orange-painted area?
Explanation
The orange painted area consists of the slanted outer surface of the cone (CSA of cone) plus the exposed circular annular base of the cone that overhangs the cylinder. This exposed base is the Area of the base of the cone minus the Area of the base of the cylinder.
नारंगी रंगे जाने वाले क्षेत्र में शंकु का वक्र पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल (CSA) तथा शंकु के आधार का वह भाग शामिल है जो बेलन के आधार से बाहर निकला हुआ है (अर्थात शंकु के आधार का क्षेत्रफल - बेलन के आधार का क्षेत्रफल)। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
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3833📚Basic MathematicsMensuration - Surface Area and Cost Calculation
A wooden toy is shaped like a rocket with a cone mounted on a cylinder. The total height of the rocket is 26 cm, while the height of the conical part is 8 cm. The base of the conical portion has a diameter of 12 cm, while the base diameter of the cylindrical portion is 6 cm. The conical portion is to be painted orange and the cylindrical portion yellow. Calculate the total cost of painting the orange portion in terms of π, if the cost of painting is 0.1 Rs per mm².
Explanation
Cone radius R = 6 cm, height h = 8 cm => slant height l = √(6² + 8²) = 10 cm. CSA of cone = πRl = π × 6 × 10 = 60π cm². Cylinder radius r = 3 cm. Base ring area = πR² - πr² = π(36 - 9) = 27π cm². Total orange area = 60π + 27π = 87π cm² = 87π × 100 mm² = 8700π mm². Cost at Rs. 0.1 per mm² = 8700π × 0.1 = Rs. 870π.
शंकु त्रिज्या R = 6 सेमी, तिर्यक ऊंचाई l = 10 सेमी। शंकु का CSA = 60π सेमी²। आधार वलय का क्षेत्रफल = π(36 - 9) = 27π सेमी²। नारंगी भाग का कुल क्षेत्रफल = 87π सेमी² = 8700π मिमी²। 0.1 रु प्रति मिमी² की दर से कुल लागत = 8700π × 0.1 = 870π रु।
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3834📚Basic ReasoningAnalogy - Respiratory Organs
HUMAN : NOSE :: FROGS : __ ?
Explanation
Humans take in air primarily through the nose. Frogs are celebrated amphibians whose primary mode of continuous respiration (cutaneous respiration), especially in water and hibernation, takes place directly through their permeable moist SKIN.
मनुष्य मुख्य रूप से नाक द्वारा श्वसन करते हैं। मेंढक (Frogs) की प्राथमिक और अनूठी श्वसन क्रिया उनकी नम त्वचा (SKIN) के माध्यम से होती है (त्वचीय श्वसन)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3835📚Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding - +1 Alphabetical Reordering
In a certain language, 'CHANGE' is written as 'BDFHIO' and 'AMEND' is written as 'BEFNO'. How will 'SHIFT' be coded in that language?
Explanation
Shift each letter by +1, then arrange all resulting letters in alphabetical order: For CHANGE: C->D, H->I, A->B, N->O, G->H, E->F => {D, I, B, O, H, F} arranged alphabetically is B, D, F, H, I, O. For SHIFT: S->T, H->I, I->J, F->G, T->U => {T, I, J, G, U} arranged alphabetically is G, I, J, T, U -> GIJTU.
प्रत्येक अक्षर में +1 जोड़ें और फिर परिणामी अक्षरों को वर्णानुक्रम (alphabetical order) में व्यवस्थित करें: SHIFT के लिए: S(+1)=T, H(+1)=I, I(+1)=J, F(+1)=G, T(+1)=U। वर्णानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित करने पर: G, I, J, T, U => GIJTU।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3836📚Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
Pointing to a photograph, Anisha said, "I did not have any siblings, but that woman's father is the only son of my grandfather". Whose photograph was it?
Explanation
'The only son of my grandfather' refers to Anisha's father. 'That woman's father is Anisha's father'. Since Anisha has no siblings, that woman must be Anisha herself. Thus, the photograph was of herself.
'मेरे दादाजी का इकलौता बेटा' = अनीशा के पिता। 'उस महिला के पिता अनीशा के पिता हैं'। चूंकि अनीशा की कोई भाई-बहन नहीं है, अतः वह महिला स्वयं अनीशा है। वह तस्वीर स्वयं उसकी (Herself) थी।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3837📚Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
Introducing a woman, Rohan said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law". How is the woman related to Rohan?
Explanation
'The only daughter of my mother-in-law' refers to Rohan's wife. 'Her mother is Rohan's wife' means the woman's mother is Rohan's wife. Therefore, the woman is Rohan's daughter.
'मेरी सास की इकलौती बेटी' = रोहन की पत्नी। 'उस महिला की माँ रोहन की पत्नी है' => वह महिला रोहन की बेटी (Daughter) है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3838📚Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
"My father is the only son of your Father", a man said to a woman. How is the woman related to the man?
Explanation
'The only son of your Father' = the woman's brother. 'My father is the woman's brother' => the man's father is the woman's brother. Therefore, the woman is the man's father's sister, which is his Paternal aunt (Bua).
'आपके पिता का इकलौता बेटा' = महिला का भाई। 'मेरे पिता महिला के भाई हैं' => उस पुरुष के पिता महिला के भाई हैं। अतः वह महिला उस पुरुष की बुआ / पितृश्वसा (Paternal aunt) है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3839📚Mental Ability & ReasoningClassification (Odd One Out)
Find the odd one out:
A) Tsunami
B) Cyclone
C) Nuclear explosion
D) Volcano
Explanation
Tsunami, Cyclone, and Volcano are natural disasters/phenomena caused by nature. A Nuclear explosion is a man-made anthropogenic event/disaster. Hence, 'Nuclear explosion' is the odd one out.
सुनामी (Tsunami), चक्रवात (Cyclone) और ज्वालामुखी (Volcano) सभी प्राकृतिक आपदाएँ / घटनाएँ हैं। जबकि 'परमाणु विस्फोट' (Nuclear explosion) एक मानव-निर्मित घटना/आपदा है। अतः यह विषम है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3840📚Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense Test
A man is facing north. He turns 135 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction. Then he turned 180 degrees in a clockwise direction. In which direction is he facing now?
A) North-west
B) South-east
C) North-east
D) South-west
Explanation
Initial facing direction = North (0°).
1. Turns 135° anti-clockwise: Net direction = -135° = South-West.
2. Turns 180° clockwise: Net rotation = -135° + 180° = +45° (clockwise from North).
45° clockwise from North is North-East. Hence, he is facing North-east.
प्रारंभिक दिशा = उत्तर (0°)।
1. वामावर्त (anti-clockwise) 135° घूमने पर दिशा = दक्षिण-पश्चिम (-135°)।
2. दक्षिणावर्त (clockwise) 180° घूमने पर कुल विस्थापन = -135° + 180° = +45° (उत्तर से दक्षिणावर्त)।
उत्तर से 45° दक्षिणावर्त 'उत्तर-पूर्व' (North-east) दिशा होती है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3841📚Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense (Shadow Concept)
A man walks 57 m, turns right and walks 76 m, then turns right again and walks 57 m. If at the time of sunset, his shadow is to his left, in which direction did he start?
A) South
B) East
C) West
D) North
Explanation
At sunset, the sun is in the West, so shadows are cast towards the East.
Given that his shadow is to his left, his left side must be facing East, which means he is currently facing South.
Now trace his movements backwards:
- He is currently facing South after taking two right turns (each 90° right = 180° reversal of direction).
- Two right turns reverse your facing direction by 180°.
- Since his final facing direction is South, his initial starting direction was 180° opposite, which is North.
Let's verify: Starting North -> turns right (faces East) -> turns right again (faces South). Facing South, East is to his left, where his shadow falls. Hence, he started walking North.
सूर्यास्त के समय सूर्य पश्चिम में होता है, अतः किसी भी वस्तु की परछाई पूर्व (East) दिशा में बनती है।
व्यक्ति की परछाई उसके बाईं ओर है, इसका अर्थ है कि उसकी बाईं दिशा पूर्व है, जिससे स्पष्ट है कि उसका मुख दक्षिण (South) की ओर है।
व्यक्ति ने चलते हुए दो बार दायें (Right) मोड़ लिए (दो बार दायें मुड़ने का अर्थ है दिशा 180° पलट जाना)।
चूंकि अंत में उसका मुख दक्षिण की ओर है, अतः उसने दक्षिण की विपरीत दिशा यानी उत्तर (North) में चलना प्रारंभ किया था।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3842📚Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection and Distance
Rehman travelled 32km north, 17km south and then 8km east. How far is he away from his starting point and in which direction?
A) 13km, North
B) 17km, North-East
C) 13km, North-East
D) 17km, East
Explanation
1. Net displacement in North-South axis: 32 km North - 17 km South = 15 km North.
2. Net displacement in East-West axis: 8 km East.
Distance from starting point = √(15² + 8²) = √(225 + 64) = √289 = 17 km.
Direction from starting point: North and East = North-East.
Hence, 17km, North-East.
1. उत्तर-दक्षिण दिशा में शुद्ध विस्थापन: 32 किमी उत्तर - 17 किमी दक्षिण = 15 किमी उत्तर।
2. पूर्व दिशा में विस्थापन = 8 किमी पूर्व।
प्रारंभिक बिंदु से सीधी दूरी = √(15² + 8²) = √(225 + 64) = √289 = 17 किमी।
दिशा = उत्तर-पूर्व (North-East)।
अतः सही उत्तर 17 किमी, उत्तर-पूर्व है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3843📚Mental Ability & ReasoningVenn Diagrams / Set Theory
In a research facility, there are 122 scientists. Some specialize in Quantum Physics (Q), Molecular Biology (M), and Organic Chemistry (O), while a few have no specialization in any of these fields. There are 65 in Q, 45 in M, and 42 in O. The intersection of Q and M is 20, Q and O is 25, and M and O is 15. The number of scientists in all three fields is exactly half the number of scientists who have no specialization in any of these three fields. How many scientists are specialized only in Organic Chemistry?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 15
D) 18
Explanation
Let x be the number of scientists in all three fields (Q ∩ M ∩ O). Then the number with no specialization is 2x.
Total scientists = |Q ∪ M ∪ O| + (None) = 122.
By principle of inclusion-exclusion:
|Q ∪ M ∪ O| = n(Q) + n(M) + n(O) - n(Q ∩ M) - n(Q ∩ O) - n(M ∩ O) + n(Q ∩ M ∩ O)
= 65 + 45 + 42 - (20 + 25 + 15) + x = 152 - 60 + x = 92 + x.
So: (92 + x) + 2x = 122 => 92 + 3x = 122 => 3x = 30 => x = 10.
Now, number of scientists specializing only in Organic Chemistry:
= n(O) - n(Q ∩ O) - n(M ∩ O) + n(Q ∩ M ∩ O)
= 42 - 25 - 15 + 10 = 12.
माना तीनों क्षेत्रों में वैज्ञानिकों की संख्या (Q ∩ M ∩ O) = x है। तब किसी भी क्षेत्र में विशेषज्ञता न रखने वालों की संख्या = 2x होगी।
कुल वैज्ञानिक = |Q ∪ M ∪ O| + 2x = 122।
समावेशन-अपवर्जन सिद्धांत द्वारा:
|Q ∪ M ∪ O| = 65 + 45 + 42 - (20 + 25 + 15) + x = 152 - 60 + x = 92 + x।
अतः (92 + x) + 2x = 122 => 92 + 3x = 122 => 3x = 30 => x = 10।
केवल कार्बनिक रसायन विज्ञान (Organic Chemistry) में विशेषज्ञ वैज्ञानिकों की संख्या:
= n(O) - n(Q ∩ O) - n(M ∩ O) + n(Q ∩ M ∩ O)
= 42 - 25 - 15 + 10 = 12।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3844📚Mental Ability & ReasoningVenn Diagrams / Set Theory
A survey of 500 people was conducted regarding their ownership of Smartwatches (S), Tablets (T), and VR Headsets (V). 285 people own a Smartwatch, 215 own a Tablet, and 115 own a VR Headset. Exactly 45 people own all three devices. There are 70 who own a Smartwatch and a VR Headset, while 50 own a Tablet and a VR Headset. 50 people own none of these devices. How many people own a Smartwatch and a Tablet, but not a VR Headset?
A) 45
B) 55
C) 90
D) 105
Explanation
Total = 500, None = 50 => |S ∪ T ∪ V| = 500 - 50 = 450.
Given:
n(S) = 285, n(T) = 215, n(V) = 115.
n(S ∩ T ∩ V) = 45.
n(S ∩ V) = 70, n(T ∩ V) = 50.
By inclusion-exclusion formula:
|S ∪ T ∪ V| = n(S) + n(T) + n(V) - [n(S ∩ T) + n(S ∩ V) + n(T ∩ V)] + n(S ∩ T ∩ V)
450 = 285 + 215 + 115 - [n(S ∩ T) + 70 + 50] + 45
450 = 615 - n(S ∩ T) - 120 + 45
450 = 540 - n(S ∩ T)
n(S ∩ T) = 540 - 450 = 90.
The number of people owning a Smartwatch and a Tablet, but not a VR Headset:
= n(S ∩ T) - n(S ∩ T ∩ V) = 90 - 45 = 45.
कुल व्यक्ति = 500, कोई उपकरण नहीं = 50 => |S ∪ T ∪ V| = 500 - 50 = 450।
दिए गए मान:
n(S) = 285, n(T) = 215, n(V) = 115
n(S ∩ T ∩ V) = 45, n(S ∩ V) = 70, n(T ∩ V) = 50
समावेशन-अपवर्जन सूत्र:
|S ∪ T ∪ V| = n(S) + n(T) + n(V) - [n(S ∩ T) + n(S ∩ V) + n(T ∩ V)] + n(S ∩ T ∩ V)
450 = 285 + 215 + 115 - [n(S ∩ T) + 70 + 50] + 45
450 = 540 - n(S ∩ T) => n(S ∩ T) = 90।
वे लोग जिनके पास स्मार्टवॉच और टैबलेट है, लेकिन वीआर हेडसेट नहीं:
= n(S ∩ T) - n(S ∩ T ∩ V) = 90 - 45 = 45।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3845📚Mental Ability & ReasoningVenn Diagrams / Set Theory
A library has 300 rare books categorised by Fiction (F), Hardcover (H), and Best-sellers (B). There are 140 Fiction books, 120 Hardcover books, and 100 Best-sellers. 40 books are both Fiction and Hardcover, 30 are both Hardcover and Best-sellers, and 50 are both Fiction and Best-sellers. Exactly 20 books fall in all three categories. How many books are either Fiction or Hardcover, but not both, and are not Best-sellers?
A) 110
B) 120
C) 140
D) 160
Explanation
We need: (Books that are ONLY Fiction) + (Books that are ONLY Hardcover).
1. Only Fiction:
= n(F) - n(F ∩ H) - n(F ∩ B) + n(F ∩ H ∩ B)
= 140 - 40 - 50 + 20 = 70.
2. Only Hardcover:
= n(H) - n(F ∩ H) - n(H ∩ B) + n(F ∩ H ∩ B)
= 120 - 40 - 30 + 20 = 70.
Total = 70 + 70 = 140.
हमें ज्ञात करना है: (केवल फिक्शन पुस्तकें) + (केवल हार्डकवर पुस्तकें)।
1. केवल फिक्शन (Only Fiction):
= n(F) - n(F ∩ H) - n(F ∩ B) + n(F ∩ H ∩ B)
= 140 - 40 - 50 + 20 = 70।
2. केवल हार्डकवर (Only Hardcover):
= n(H) - n(F ∩ H) - n(H ∩ B) + n(F ∩ H ∩ B)
= 120 - 40 - 30 + 20 = 70।
कुल = 70 + 70 = 140।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3846📚Mental Ability & ReasoningVenn Diagrams / Set Theory
In a software firm of 200 developers, everyone knows at least one language: Python (P), Java (J), and C++. The number of developers who know only Python is equal to the number of developers who know only Java. 30 developers know only C++. Exactly 10 developers know all three languages. 35 developers know both Python and Java, 25 know both Java and C++, and 30 know both Python and C++. What is the total number of developers who know Python?
A) 50
B) 85
C) 105
D) 115
Explanation
Let Only P = Only J = k.
Given:
- Only C++ = 30
- All three = 10
- Only (P and J) = 35 - 10 = 25
- Only (J and C++) = 25 - 10 = 15
- Only (P and C++) = 30 - 10 = 20
Total developers = (Only P) + (Only J) + (Only C++) + (Only P∩J) + (Only J∩C++) + (Only P∩C++) + (All three)
200 = k + k + 30 + 25 + 15 + 20 + 10
200 = 2k + 100 => 2k = 100 => k = 50.
Now total developers who know Python:
= (Only P) + (Only P∩J) + (Only P∩C++) + (All three)
= 50 + 25 + 20 + 10 = 105.
माना केवल पायथन = केवल जावा = k है।
दी गई जानकारी:
- केवल C++ = 30
- तीनों भाषाएँ = 10
- केवल (P और J) = 35 - 10 = 25
- केवल (J और C++) = 25 - 10 = 15
- केवल (P और C++) = 30 - 10 = 20
कुल डेवलपर्स:
200 = k + k + 30 + 25 + 15 + 20 + 10
200 = 2k + 100 => 2k = 100 => k = 50 (केवल पायथन = 50)।
पायथन जानने वाले कुल डेवलपर्स:
= (केवल P) + (केवल P∩J) + (केवल P∩C++) + (तीनों)
= 50 + 25 + 20 + 10 = 105।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3847📚Mental Ability & ReasoningCoding-Decoding (Number Coding)
In a certain code language, 'CANDLE' is written as 13451214. How will 'LIGHT' be written in the same language?
A) 8792012
B) 7891220
C) 9812720
D) 1297820
Explanation
Letters of 'CANDLE' and their alphabetical positions: C(3), A(1), N(14), D(4), L(12), E(5).
Sort the letters alphabetically:
- A = 1
- C = 3
- D = 4
- E = 5
- L = 12
- N = 14
Concatenating these positions gives: 1 3 4 5 12 14 = 13451214.
Now for 'LIGHT':
Letters: L(12), I(9), G(7), H(8), T(20).
Sort alphabetically: G(7), H(8), I(9), L(12), T(20).
Concatenating their positions gives: 7 8 9 12 20 = 7891220.
'CANDLE' के अक्षरों को वर्णमाला क्रम (alphabetical order) में व्यवस्थित करके उनके स्थानीय मान लिखे गए हैं:
A(1), C(3), D(4), E(5), L(12), N(14) -> 13451214।
अब 'LIGHT' के अक्षरों को वर्णमाला क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें:
G(7), H(8), I(9), L(12), T(20)
इनके स्थानीय मानों को जोड़ने पर: 7891220 प्राप्त होता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3848📚General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles:
_ rich should help _ poor.
A) No article, no article
B) The, a
C) No article, the
D) The, the
Explanation
When an adjective is used to represent an entire class or group of people as a plural collective noun, it takes the definite article 'the' ('The rich' = wealthy people in general; 'the poor' = impoverished people in general).
Hence: 'The rich should help the poor.'
जब किसी विशेषण (adjective) का प्रयोग पूरे वर्ग या समुदाय का प्रतिनिधित्व करने के लिए बहुवचन संज्ञा के रूप में किया जाता है, तो उससे पहले definite article 'the' का प्रयोग होता है ('The rich' = सभी अमीर लोग; 'the poor' = सभी गरीब लोग)।
अतः सही वाक्य है: 'The rich should help the poor.'
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3849📚General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles:
_ juice in this jug is bitter, but _ juice is generally good for health.
A) No article, no article
B) The, the
C) The, no article
D) No article, the
Explanation
1. 'The juice in this jug' refers to a specific, definite quantity of juice in a particular jug, requiring the definite article 'The'.
2. '...juice is generally good for health' refers to juice as an uncountable noun in a general sense, taking no article.
Hence, 'The, no article'.
1. 'The juice in this jug' एक विशिष्ट जग के जूस को संदर्भित करता है, अतः निश्चित आर्टिकल 'The' का प्रयोग होगा।
2. दूसरे भाग में जूस का उपयोग सामान्य अर्थ (general sense) में एक अगणनीय संज्ञा (uncountable noun) के रूप में हुआ है, इसलिए यहाँ किसी आर्टिकल की आवश्यकता नहीं है ('no article')।
अतः सही उत्तर 'The, no article' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3850📚General EnglishArticles
Identify the correct use of articles with plural nouns:
I. Lions are fierce animals.
II. Lions of Gir forest are famous worldwide.
III. The lions we saw at the zoo were sleeping.
Choose the correct option:
A) only II
B) Only I and III
C) Only II and III
D) All are correct
Explanation
- Sentence I is correct: plural nouns in general statements take no article ('Lions are fierce animals').
- Sentence II is incorrect: when a plural noun is modified and made specific by a prepositional phrase ('of Gir forest'), the definite article 'the' is mandatory ('The lions of Gir forest are famous worldwide').
- Sentence III is correct: 'The lions we saw at the zoo' refers to specific lions identified by a relative clause, correctly taking 'The'.
Therefore, only I and III are correct.
- वाक्य I सही है: सामान्य कथन में बहुवचन संज्ञा बिना किसी आर्टिकल के आती है ('Lions are fierce animals')।
- वाक्य II गलत है: 'of Gir forest' से विशिष्ट बनाए जाने के कारण यहाँ definite article 'The' आवश्यक है ('The lions of Gir forest...')।
- वाक्य III सही है: चिड़ियाघर में देखे गए विशिष्ट शेरों का उल्लेख होने के कारण 'The lions' का प्रयोग पूर्णतः सही है।
अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3851📚General EnglishSynonyms
Select the most appropriate synonym of the word CHASTE:
A) Immaculate
B) Wanton
C) Ornate
D) Debauched
Explanation
'Chaste' means pure, morally uncorrupted, undefiled, or clean. 'Immaculate' means perfectly clean, pure, and free from flaw or blemish, making it the closest synonym. 'Wanton' and 'Debauched' are antonyms.
'Chaste' का अर्थ होता है पवित्र, निर्मल, शुद्ध और सात्विक। 'Immaculate' का अर्थ भी निष्कलंक, दोषरहित और अत्यंत पवित्र होता है। अतः 'Immaculate' सही पर्यायवाची है। 'Wanton' और 'Debauched' इसके विलोम शब्द हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3852📚General EnglishAntonyms
Select the most appropriate antonym of the word TACITURN:
A) Prolix
B) Breviloquent
C) Traumatise
D) Reticent
Explanation
'Taciturn' means reserved or untalkative; saying very little (synonyms include Reticent, Breviloquent). 'Prolix' means using too many words; tediously lengthy or wordy (garrulous/talkative). Hence, 'Prolix' is the correct antonym.
'Taciturn' का अर्थ होता है अल्पभाषी, कम बोलने वाला या चुप रहने वाला (Reticent और Breviloquent इसके समानार्थी हैं)। 'Prolix' का अर्थ होता है बहुत अधिक शब्दों का प्रयोग करने वाला, बातूनी या विस्तृत। अतः 'Prolix' इसका सही विलोम शब्द है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3853📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions:
He was acquitted _ the murder charge, but he was later charged _ theft and sentenced _ three years.
A) from, for, with
B) of, with, to
C) off, of, for
D) with, about, in
Explanation
Standard fixed preposition rules:
- 'acquitted OF' (cleared of a criminal charge)
- 'charged WITH' (formally accused of a crime)
- 'sentenced TO' (punished with a specific penalty/imprisonment).
Hence: 'acquitted of... charged with... sentenced to'.
निश्चित प्रीपोजिशन (fixed prepositions) के नियम:
- 'acquitted of' (दोषमुक्त किया जाना)
- 'charged with' (अभियुक्त बनाया जाना/आरोप लगना)
- 'sentenced to' (दंड/सजा सुनाया जाना)।
अतः सही क्रम 'of, with, to' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3854📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions:
The young man was absorbed _ his work and was oblivious _ the noise occurring _ him.
A) in, by, besides
B) with, of, beside
C) in, to, around
D) for, about, towards
Explanation
Fixed preposition collocations:
- 'absorbed IN' (deeply engaged in)
- 'oblivious TO' (unaware of)
- 'occurring AROUND' (happening in the surrounding environment).
Hence: 'in, to, around'.
अंग्रेजी में निश्चित प्रीपोजिशन:
- 'absorbed in' (काम में तल्लीन/मग्न होना)
- 'oblivious to' (किसी बात से बेखबर/अनभिज्ञ होना)
- 'occurring around' (आस-पास घटित होना)।
अतः सही विकल्प 'in, to, around' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3855📚General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions:
I cannot provide you _ a loan, as I am already beset _ financial difficulties and am answerable _ my creditors.
A) with, with, to
B) for, by, for
C) to, of, with
D) against, from, about
Explanation
Grammar collocations:
- 'provide someone WITH something' (supply)
- 'beset WITH difficulties' (troubled or plagued by)
- 'answerable TO someone' (accountable or responsible to).
Hence: 'with, with, to'.
प्रीपोजिशन के नियम:
- 'provide (someone) with (something)' (उपलब्ध कराना)
- 'beset with' (कठिनाइयों से घिरा होना)
- 'answerable to' (जवाबदेह होना)।
अतः सही क्रम 'with, with, to' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3856📚General EnglishPrepositions & Phrasal Verbs
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions:
While the professor was _ the middle _ a lecture, a student broke _ with a question.
A) at, for, out
B) in, of, in
C) within, of, through
D) during, of, up
Explanation
- 'in the middle of' is the standard idiom meaning during the midst of.
- 'break in' is a phrasal verb meaning to interrupt a conversation or lecture.
Hence: 'in, of, in'.
- 'in the middle of' एक मुहावरेदार प्रयोग है जिसका अर्थ होता है 'के बीच में'।
- 'break in' एक phrasal verb है जिसका अर्थ होता है 'बीच में टोकना' या बाधा डालना।
अतः सही विकल्प 'in, of, in' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3857📚General EnglishReading Comprehension
Based on the passage on Social Forestry, what is the central distinction between commercial forestry and social forestry?
A) The type of soil required for planting.
B) The focus on local community needs versus industrial timber.
C) The involvement of government officials in management.
D) The geographical location of the forest reserves.
Explanation
The passage states explicitly: 'Unlike commercial forestry, which prioritises timber for industry, social forestry focuses on providing "the five F's": Fuel, Food, Fodder, Fibre, and Fertiliser' for local community subsistence.
गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख है: 'Unlike commercial forestry, which prioritises timber for industry, social forestry focuses on providing the five F's', यानी स्थानीय समुदाय की आवश्यकताओं (ईंधन, चारा आदि) की पूर्ति बनाम उद्योगों के लिए लकड़ी।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3858📚General EnglishReading Comprehension
According to the passage, how does social forestry protect traditional forests?
A) By imposing strict fines on villagers for entering reserves.
B) By replacing natural forests with industrial plantations.
C) By providing alternative, localised sources for fuel and fodder.
D) By creating a physical barrier between villages and forests.
Explanation
The passage explains that rural demand for fuelwood and fodder forces villagers to exploit natural forests. By planting fast-growing trees on communal lands, social forestry creates a localized resource base, reducing the pressure on natural forests.
गद्यांश में बताया गया है कि ग्रामीणों को ईंधन और चारे की आवश्यकता प्राकृतिक वनों के दोहन के लिए मजबूर करती है। सामुदायिक भूमि पर वृक्षारोपण करके स्थानीय स्तर पर चारा व ईंधन उपलब्ध कराने से पारंपरिक वनों पर दबाव घटता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3859📚General EnglishReading Comprehension
What is identified as the most critical factor for the success of social forestry?
A) High-quality industrial equipment.
B) The speed at which the trees grow.
C) Active participation from the local population.
D) The amount of government funding allocated.
Explanation
The passage concludes by emphasizing that 'the success of these programs hinges on "people's participation." Without the active involvement of the local population in protecting saplings and managing resources, the long-term sustainability... remains in jeopardy.'
गद्यांश के अंतिम पैराग्राफ में स्पष्ट कहा गया है कि इन कार्यक्रमों की सफलता 'लोगों की भागीदारी' (people's participation) पर निर्भर करती है। स्थानीय लोगों के सक्रिय सहयोग के बिना यह सतत नहीं हो सकता।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3860📚General EnglishTypes of Sentences
Which of the following is an example of an Imperative sentence?
A) How wonderful the weather is today!
B) Did you finish the report on time?
C) Please ensure all windows are locked before leaving.
D) The sun rises in the east.
Explanation
An imperative sentence gives a command, direction, or makes a request (starting with an implied 'you'). 'Please ensure all windows are locked before leaving' is a request/instruction, making it an imperative sentence.
(A is exclamatory, B is interrogative, D is declarative).
आज्ञासूचक या अनुरोधसूचक वाक्य (Imperative sentence) कोई आदेश, निर्देश या अनुरोध व्यक्त करता है। 'Please ensure all windows are locked before leaving' एक अनुरोध/निर्देश है। (A विस्मयादिबोधक, B प्रश्नवाचक और D साधारण कथन है)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3861📚General EnglishParallelism & Sentence Structure
Which of the following sentences is structurally balanced and correct (parallel structure)?
A) The candidate was praised for her intelligence, dedication, and how well she communicates.
B) The candidate was praised for her intelligence, dedication, and communication skills.
C) The candidate was praised for being intelligent, dedication, and hard work.
D) The candidate was praised for intelligence, dedicated, and working hard.
Explanation
Parallelism requires that items in a list have matching grammatical form. In option B, 'intelligence', 'dedication', and 'communication skills' are all parallel noun phrases. In other options, noun forms are mixed with clauses or participles.
समानांतर संरचना (Parallelism) के नियमानुसार सूची के सभी तत्वों का व्याकरणिक रूप एक समान होना चाहिए। विकल्प B में 'intelligence', 'dedication', और 'communication skills' तीनों समानांतर संज्ञा पद (noun phrases) हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3862📚General EnglishDeterminers
Fill in the blank with the most suitable determiner:
_ idea was it to leave the gate open all night?
A) Who's
B) Whose
C) Whom
D) Which
Explanation
'Whose' is the possessive determiner/pronoun asking about ownership or author of the idea. ('Who's' is a contraction of 'who is' or 'who has'). Hence, 'Whose' is correct.
विचार के स्वामित्व (किसका विचार) को दर्शाने के लिए संबंधवाचक determiner 'Whose' का प्रयोग होता है। ('Who's' का अर्थ 'who is' होता है)। अतः 'Whose' सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3863📚General EnglishDeterminers & Articles
Fill in the blanks with the most suitable determiners/articles:
I have _ friends who live in _ Netherlands, but I haven't visited them in years.
A) a few / no article
B) few / the
C) a few / the
D) little / the
Explanation
1. 'Friends' is a plural countable noun used in a positive sense ('some friends exist'), requiring 'a few'.
2. Countries with plural geographical names or unions take the definite article 'the' ('the Netherlands', 'the United States', 'the Philippines').
Hence, 'a few / the'.
1. गणनीय बहुवचन संज्ञा 'friends' के साथ सकारात्मक संदर्भ में 'a few' (कुछ) का प्रयोग होता है।
2. बहुवचन नाम वाले देशों से पूर्व definite article 'the' का प्रयोग अनिवार्य होता है ('the Netherlands')।
अतः सही उत्तर 'a few / the' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3864📚General EnglishDeterminers
Fill in the blank with the most suitable determiner:
You can take _ of the two roads; both lead to the same village.
A) either
B) neither
C) every
D) my
Explanation
'Either' refers to one or the other of two options. Since the sentence notes that both roads lead to the village, the traveller is free to take either of the two.
दो विकल्पों में से 'कोई भी एक' चुनने के लिए 'either' का प्रयोग किया जाता है। चूंकि दोनों सड़कें एक ही गाँव की ओर जाती हैं, इसलिए व्यक्ति 'either' (दोनों में से कोई भी एक) सड़क ले सकता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3865📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports Awards of India
Match the following Sports Awards with their criteria:
Sports Awards:
i. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
ii. Arjuna Award Lifetime
iii. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy
iv. Arjuna Award

Awarded For:
a. Presented for good performance and contributing towards the promotion of sports.
b. Given out for consistent good performance over a period of four years.
c. Awarded for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years.
d. Given to the university for top performance in inter-university tournaments over the last one year.

Choose the correct match:
A) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
B) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
D) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
Explanation
- Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: Awarded for the most spectacular and outstanding performance over a period of 4 years (i -> c).
- Arjuna Award Lifetime / Dhyan Chand Lifetime: Given for contributing towards sports promotion and lifetime achievement (ii -> a).
- Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy: Conferred upon the overall top-performing university in inter-university tournaments (iii -> d).
- Arjuna Award: Given for consistent good performance over 4 years with qualities of leadership, sportsmanship and discipline (iv -> b).
Matching: i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.
- मेजर ध्यानचंद खेल रत्न पुरस्कार: 4 वर्षों की अवधि में खेल में शानदार और उत्कृष्ट प्रदर्शन (i -> c)।
- लाइफटाइम पुरस्कार: खेल को बढ़ावा देने और दीर्घकालिक योगदान के लिए (ii -> a)।
- मौलाना अबुल कलाम आज़ाद (MAKA) ट्रॉफी: अंतर-विश्वविद्यालय प्रतियोगिताओं में शीर्ष प्रदर्शन करने वाले विश्वविद्यालय को (iii -> d)।
- अर्जुन पुरस्कार: चार वर्षों की अवधि में लगातार अच्छे प्रदर्शन के लिए (iv -> b)।
अतः सही मिलान i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3866📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsBhakti Movement & Culture
Given below are two statements:
I. Bhakti saint Shankaradeva addressed "Vaishnav Dharma" as "Sanatan Dharma".
II. Shankaradeva's main composition is Kirtanghosh.
Identify the correct statements:
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I Nor II
Explanation
- Statement I is correct: Srimanta Sankaradeva (1449–1568), the great medieval polymath and Vaishnavite saint from Assam who propounded Ekasarana Dharma, aligned his teachings with and referred to the core of Vaishnava faith as Sanatan Dharma.
- Statement II is correct: His magnum opus and most celebrated devotional literary work is the 'Kirtan Ghosha' (a collection of poetical songs for congregational prayers).
Therefore, Both I and II are correct.
- कथन I सही है: असम के महान वैष्णव संत और समाज सुधारक श्रीमंत शंकरदेव ने एकशरण धर्म की स्थापना की और वैष्णव धर्म को सनातन धर्म के मूल सिद्धांतों के अनुरूप प्रस्तुत किया।
- कथन II सही है: शंकरदेव की सबसे प्रमुख और प्रसिद्ध कृति 'कीर्तन घोष' (Kirtan Ghosha) है, जो नामघरों में प्रार्थना और कीर्तन का मुख्य आधार है।
अतः I और II दोनों कथन सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3867📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsAncient Indian Literature
Consider the following pairs:
I. Silappadikaram - Ilango Adigal
II. Manimegalai - Sittalai Sattanar
III. Buddhacharita - Ashvaghosha
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III
Explanation
- Pair I: Silappadikaram (the Jewelled Anklet), the legendary Tamil epic, was authored by the Jain monk poet Ilango Adigal.
- Pair II: Manimegalai, the sequel to Silappadikaram and Buddhist epic, was written by Sittalai Sattanar.
- Pair III: Buddhacharita, the epic Sanskrit poem depicting the life of Gautama Buddha, was composed by Ashvaghosha (court philosopher of Kanishka).
All three pairs are correctly matched.
- युग्म I: तमिल संगम महाकाव्य 'सिलप्पदिकारम' की रचना राजकुमार इलंगो आदिगल ने की थी।
- युग्म II: बौद्ध महाकाव्य 'मणिमेकलई' की रचना सीतलाई सत्तनार ने की थी।
- युग्म III: भगवान बुद्ध के जीवन पर संस्कृत महाकाव्य 'बुद्धचरित' की रचना कनिष्क के समकालीन अश्वघोष ने की थी।
तीनों युग्म सही सुमेलित हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3868📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Historical Monuments & Heritage
Consider the following pairs:
I. Achabal Garden - Anantnag District
II. Avantipur Ruins - Poonch District
III. Parihaspore archaeological sites - Pulwama District
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) All of the above
Explanation
- Pair I is correct: Achabal Garden (a famed Mughal Garden built by Empress Nur Jahan around an ancient natural spring) is in Anantnag District.
- Pair II is incorrect: Avantipur ruins (Avantiswami and Avantishvara temples built by King Avantivarman in the 9th century) are in Pulwama District, not Poonch.
- Pair III is incorrect: Parihaspore (the ancient capital built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty) is located in Baramulla District, not Pulwama.
Therefore, only Pair I is correctly matched.
- युग्म I सही है: अछाबल गार्डन (मुगल बेगम नूरजहाँ द्वारा विकसित प्रसिद्ध मुगल उद्यान) अनंतनाग जिले में स्थित है।
- युग्म II गलत है: अवंतीपुर के खंडहर (राजा अवंतिवर्मन द्वारा निर्मित मंदिर) पुलवामा जिले में स्थित हैं, न कि पुंछ में।
- युग्म III गलत है: परिहासपोरा (कार्कोट वंश के राजा ललितादित्य मुक्तापीड़ द्वारा बसाई गई राजधानी) बारामूला जिले में स्थित है, न कि पुलवामा में।
अतः केवल युग्म I सही सुमेलित है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3869📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsHistory of Jammu & Kashmir
Identify the correct sequential order of the following dynasties of Kashmir:
I. Lohara Dynasty
II. Utpala Dynasty
III. Chak Dynasty
IV. Shah Mir Dynasty
Choose the correct option:
A) I - III - IV - II
B) I - II - III - IV
C) II - I - III - IV
D) II - I - IV - III
Explanation
Chronological order of rulers in Kashmir history:
II. Utpala Dynasty: Founded by Avantivarman in c. 855 CE (ruled until 1003 CE).
I. Lohara Dynasty: Founded by Sangramaraja in 1003 CE (ruled until 1320 CE).
IV. Shah Mir Dynasty: Founded by Shah Mir (Sultan Shams-ud-Din) in 1339 CE (ruled until 1561 CE).
III. Chak Dynasty: Founded by Ghazi Chak in 1561 CE (ruled until Mughal conquest in 1586 CE).
Hence, correct sequential order is II - I - IV - III.
कश्मीर के राजवंशों का ऐतिहासिक कालक्रम:
II. उत्पल राजवंश: राजा अवंतिवर्मन द्वारा लगभग 855 ईस्वी में स्थापित (1003 ईस्वी तक)।
I. लोहारा राजवंश: राजा संग्रामराज द्वारा 1003 ईस्वी में स्थापित (1320 ईस्वी तक)।
IV. शाह मीर राजवंश: सुल्तान शम्स-उद-दीन शाह मीर द्वारा 1339 ईस्वी में स्थापित (1561 ईस्वी तक)।
III. चक राजवंश: गाज़ी चक द्वारा 1561 ईस्वी में स्थापित (1586 ईस्वी में मुगलों द्वारा कश्मीर विजय तक)।
अतः सही क्रम II - I - IV - III है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3870📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity (High Courts of India)
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Description / Capitals:
I. Judicial Capital of Arunachal Pradesh - Itanagar
II. Judicial Capital of Goa - Panaji
III. Judicial Capital of Madhya Pradesh - Jabalpur
Choose the correct match:
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) III only
D) I and III only
Explanation
- Madhya Pradesh has its administrative capital at Bhopal, while its Principal Seat of High Court (Judicial Capital) is at Jabalpur. Hence, Pair III is correctly matched.
- Arunachal Pradesh does not have an independent High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court (Principal Seat in Guwahati, Assam; Itanagar is merely a permanent bench).
- Goa does not have its own High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court (Principal Seat in Mumbai, Maharashtra; Panaji is a bench).
Therefore, only III represents a true state Judicial Capital seat distinct from the state capital.
- मध्य प्रदेश की प्रशासनिक राजधानी भोपाल है, जबकि इसका उच्च न्यायालय का मुख्य पीठ (न्यायिक राजधानी) जबलपुर में स्थित है। अतः युग्म III सही सुमेलित है।
- अरुणाचल प्रदेश का अपना अलग उच्च न्यायालय नहीं है; यह गुवाहाटी उच्च न्यायालय (असम) के क्षेत्राधिकार में आता है (ईटानगर केवल एक खंडपीठ है)।
- गोवा भी बॉम्बे उच्च न्यायालय (मुंबई, महाराष्ट्र) के क्षेत्राधिकार में आता है (पणजी केवल एक खंडपीठ है)।
अतः केवल III सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3871📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity (Reorganisation of States)
Chronologically arrange the following states based on their elevation to the status of a state under the Constitution of India:
I. Himachal Pradesh
II. Nagaland
III. Arunachal Pradesh
IV. Statehood to Sikkim
Choose the correct option:
A) I - II - IV - III
B) II - I - III - IV
C) II - I - IV - III
D) I - II - III - IV
Explanation
Chronology of Indian statehood elevation:
II. Nagaland: Attained full statehood on 1 December 1963 (16th State of India).
I. Himachal Pradesh: Elevated to statehood from UT on 25 January 1971 (18th State).
IV. Sikkim: Integrated and made the 22nd state of India via the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act on 16 May 1975.
III. Arunachal Pradesh: Conferred statehood on 20 February 1987 (24th State).
Chronological order: II - I - IV - III.
राज्यों के गठन का कालक्रम:
II. नागालैंड: 1 दिसंबर 1963 को 16वां राज्य बना।
I. हिमाचल प्रदेश: 25 जनवरी 1971 को पूर्ण राज्य बना (18वां राज्य)।
IV. सिक्किम: 36वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा 16 मई 1975 को भारत का 22वां राज्य बना।
III. अरुणाचल प्रदेश: 20 फरवरी 1987 को पूर्ण राज्य बना (24वां राज्य)।
अतः सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम II - I - IV - III है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3872🔬General ScienceHuman Diseases & Pathogens
Which of the following are bacterial diseases?
I. Tuberculosis
II. Cholera
III. Hepatitis
IV. Leprosy
V. Measles
VI. Yellow Fever
Choose the correct option:
A) I, II and V only
B) I, II and IV only
C) I, II, IV and VI only
D) II, III and IV only
Explanation
Classification of diseases by causative pathogens:
- Bacterial diseases:
Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) Cholera (Vibrio cholerae)
Leprosy (Mycobacterium leprae) - Viral diseases: Hepatitis (Hepatitis virus - A, B, C, etc.)
Measles (Rubeola virus / Paramyxovirus) Yellow Fever (Flavivirus / arbovirus transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes).
Therefore, bacterial diseases are I, II and IV only.
रोगों का रोगजनक आधार पर वर्गीकरण:
- जीवाणु जनित (Bacterial) रोग:
क्षयरोग/टीबी (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) हैजा (Vibrio cholerae)
कुष्ठ रोग/लेप्रोसी (Mycobacterium leprae) - विषाणु जनित (Viral) रोग: हेपेटाइटिस (हेपेटाइटिस वायरस)
खसरा (मीजल्स/पैरामाइक्सोवायरस) पीत ज्वर (फ्लेविवायरस)
अतः केवल I, II और IV जीवाणु जनित रोग हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3873🔬General ScienceRespiration in Organisms
What are the by-products of anaerobic respiration?
I. Alcohol
II. Carbon dioxide
III. Water
IV. Energy
V. Lactic Acid
Choose the correct option:
A) All of the above
B) I, III, IV and V only
C) I, II and V only
D) I, II, IV and V only
Explanation
Anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of oxygen:
1. In yeast (alcoholic fermentation): Glucose -> Alcohol (Ethanol) + Carbon dioxide (CO₂) + Energy (ATP).
2. In human muscle cells during heavy exercise: Glucose -> Lactic Acid + Energy.
Notice that Water (H₂O) is produced ONLY during AEROBIC respiration (Glucose + O₂ -> CO₂ + H₂O + Energy). Water is never a by-product of anaerobic respiration.
Therefore, the by-products are I, II, IV, and V only.
ऑक्सीजन की अनुपस्थिति में अवायवीय श्वसन (Anaerobic respiration) दो प्रमुख मार्गों से होता है:
1. यीस्ट में (किण्वन): ग्लूकोज -> अल्कोहल + कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड (CO₂) + ऊर्जा।
2. मांसपेशियों में (तीव्र व्यायाम के समय): ग्लूकोज -> लैक्टिक अम्ल + ऊर्जा।
जल (H₂O) केवल 'वायवीय श्वसन' (Aerobic respiration) का उत्पाद है, अवायवीय श्वसन का नहीं।
अतः अवायवीय श्वसन के उत्पाद केवल I, II, IV और V हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3874📚General EnglishAntonyms
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word:
Succinct
A) Laconic
B) Pithy
C) Long-winded
D) Concise
Explanation
'Succinct' means briefly and clearly expressed (synonyms: concise, laconic, pithy). 'Long-winded' means continuing at tedious length, using too many words, making it the direct antonym.
'Succinct' का अर्थ होता है संक्षिप्त और स्पष्ट (Laconic, Pithy, Concise इसके समानार्थी हैं)। 'Long-winded' का अर्थ होता है बहुत लंबा-चौड़ा या बातूनी, जो इसका सही विलोम शब्द है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3875📚General EnglishParagraph Jumbles
Which of the given options is the most logical sequencing of the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph?
I. They are responsible for pollinating many plants.
II. Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production.
III. However, their population has been steadily declining.
IV. The major reasons for this are habitat loss and pesticides.
Choose the correct option:
A) III - II - I - IV
B) IV - I - II - III
C) II - I - III - IV
D) I - III - IV - II
Explanation
- Sentence II introduces the topic ('Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production').
- Sentence I elaborates on their ecological role ('They are responsible for pollinating many plants').
- Sentence III introduces the contrast/problem with 'However' ('However, their population has been steadily declining').
- Sentence IV explains the causes ('The major reasons for this are habitat loss and pesticides').
Logical sequence: II - I - III - IV.
- वाक्य II मुख्य विषय का परिचय देता है ('Bees are essential...)।
- वाक्य I उनके परागण के कार्य की व्याख्या करता है ('They are responsible...)।
- वाक्य III 'However' के साथ उनकी घटती संख्या की समस्या प्रस्तुत करता है।
- वाक्य IV इस गिरावट के कारणों को स्पष्ट करता है।
अतः तार्किक क्रम II - I - III - IV है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3876📚General EnglishOne Word Substitution
Select the word which means the same as the group of words given:
Who wanders from place to place and lives by begging
A) Knave
B) Itinerant
C) Migrant
D) Vagrant
Explanation
A 'Vagrant' is a person without a settled home or regular work who wanders from place to place and lives by begging. An 'itinerant' travels from place to place (often for work), but a vagrant specifically begs.
जो व्यक्ति बिना किसी निश्चित घर के एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर भटकता है और भीख मांगकर जीवन यापन करता है, उसे 'Vagrant' (आवारा/भिखारी) कहा जाता है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3877📚General EnglishSpotting Errors
Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error:
"The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively and with surgical precision, dismantling the opposition's case piece by logic piece."
A) dismantling the opposition's case
B) The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively
C) and with surgical precision
D) piece by logic piece
Explanation
The expression 'piece by logic piece' is grammatically incorrect and unidiomatic. The standard idiom is 'piece by piece' or 'point by logical point'. Hence, option D contains the error.
'piece by logic piece' एक त्रुटिपूर्ण और अमान्य प्रयोग है। सही मुहावरेदार अभिव्यक्ति 'piece by piece' या 'point by logical point' होनी चाहिए। अतः भाग D में त्रुटि है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3878📚General EnglishSpelling Test
Select the word with the correct spelling to fill in the blank:
Hiren loves to use _ words while writing anything.
A) coloquid
B) colloquil
C) colloquial
D) colloqual
Explanation
The correct spelling is 'colloquial' (meaning used in ordinary or familiar conversation; not formal or literary).
बोलचाल की अनौपचारिक भाषा के लिए सही वर्तनी 'colloquial' है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3879📚General EnglishVocabulary (Fill in the blanks)
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:
Despite the _ challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to reach their destination.
A) formidable
B) negligible
C) trivial
D) insignificant
Explanation
'Formidable' means inspiring fear or respect through being impressively large, powerful, intense, or capable. The preposition 'Despite' signals a contrast between severe/daunting challenges and successful arrival.
'Formidable' का अर्थ होता है विकट, अत्यंत कठिन या दुर्जेय। 'Despite' (के बावजूद) शब्द कठिनाइयों और गंतव्य तक पहुँचने की सफलता के बीच विरोधाभास को दर्शाता है। अन्य सभी विकल्प (तुच्छ/नगण्य) संदर्भ के प्रतिकूल हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3880📚General EnglishSentence Improvement
Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select 'No substitution required':
"Can you give me so many examples of subordinate clauses?", the teacher asked the class.
A) some more examples of
B) some many examples of
C) some few examples of
D) No substitution required
Explanation
'So many' is unnatural in this polite request asking for additional instances. The idiomatic phrasing is 'some more examples of'.
अध्यापक द्वारा कक्षा से अतिरिक्त उदाहरण मांगने के संदर्भ में 'some more examples of' (कुछ और उदाहरण) सबसे उपयुक्त और व्याकरणसम्मत प्रयोग है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3881📚Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion
A man ordered 4 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black socks is double that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill the clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 50%. The ratio of the number of black and brown pairs of socks in the original order was:
A) 2:1
B) 1:4
C) 1:2
D) 4:1
Explanation
Let the price of a brown pair be p, so the price of a black pair is 2p.
Let x be the number of brown pairs in the original order.
Original bill = 4(2p) + x(p) = (8 + x)p.
Interchanged bill = x(2p) + 4(p) = (2x + 4)p.
Given that the bill increased by 50%:
(2x + 4)p = 1.5(8 + x)p
2x + 4 = 12 + 1.5x => 0.5x = 8 => x = 16.
Original ratio of black pairs to brown pairs = 4 : 16 = 1 : 4.
माना भूरे मोज़े की जोड़ी का मूल्य p है, तो काले मोज़े का मूल्य 2p है।
माना मूल ऑर्डर में भूरे मोज़ों की संख्या x है।
मूल बिल = 4(2p) + x(p) = (8 + x)p।
बदला हुआ बिल = x(2p) + 4(p) = (2x + 4)p।
बिल में 50% की वृद्धि हुई:
2x + 4 = 1.5(8 + x) => 0.5x = 8 => x = 16।
काले और भूरे मोज़ों का मूल अनुपात = 4 : 16 = 1 : 4।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3882📚Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense (Angle Rotations)
A man faces south. He turns 90° clockwise, then 180° anticlockwise, and again 270° clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
A) North
B) East
C) South
D) West
Explanation
Net rotation:
Clockwise turns = +90° + 270° = +360°.
Anticlockwise turns = -180°.
Net rotation = +360° - 180° = +180° (clockwise).
Turning 180° from South points directly North. Hence, he faces North.
कुल घूर्णन:
दक्षिणावर्त = +90° + 270° = +360°
वामावर्त = -180°
शुद्ध घूर्णन = +360° - 180° = +180°।
दक्षिण दिशा से 180° घूमने पर विपरीत दिशा यानी उत्तर (North) प्राप्त होती है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3883📚Mental Ability & ReasoningBlood Relations
Introducing a woman, Raj said, "She is the wife of the only son of my mother-in-law." How is the woman related to Raj?
A) Sister
B) Wife
C) Sister-in-law
D) Cousin
Explanation
Break down the statement:
- "my mother-in-law": Raj's wife's mother.
- "the only son of my mother-in-law": Raj's wife's brother (Raj's brother-in-law/sala).
- "wife of the only son of my mother-in-law": Wife of Raj's brother-in-law = Raj's sister-in-law (sarhaj/bhabhi).
Hence, the woman is Raj's sister-in-law.
संबंधों का विश्लेषण:
- राज की सास का इकलौता बेटा = राज की पत्नी का भाई (राज का साला)।
- साले की पत्नी = राज की भाभी/सरहज (Sister-in-law)।
अतः वह महिला राज की Sister-in-law है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3884📚Mental Ability & ReasoningCause and Effect / Critical Reasoning
Consider the following statement:
Statement: "There has been a sharp increase in online education platforms."
Possible Causes:
I. Affordable internet availability
II. Increased demand for flexible learning
Choose the correct option:
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II
Explanation
Both factors directly cause and fuel the expansion of online education platforms: widespread, cheap high-speed internet provides the necessary infrastructure (Cause I), and learner demand for self-paced, flexible scheduling provides the market demand (Cause II). Hence, Both I and II are valid causes.
सस्ता इंटरनेट बुनियादी ढांचा उपलब्ध कराता है (कारण I) और शिक्षार्थियों द्वारा अपनी सुविधा अनुसार सीखने की मांग बाजार तैयार करती है (कारण II)। दोनों ही ऑनलाइन शिक्षा में वृद्धि के प्रत्यक्ष और प्रमुख कारण हैं। अतः I और II दोनों सही हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3885📚Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance
If a man increases his speed by 25%, he takes 1 hour less to cover a certain distance. What was the original time?
A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 5 hours
D) 6 hours
Explanation
Let original speed = s, original time = t.
New speed = s × (1 + 0.25) = (5/4)s.
Since distance is constant, speed and time are inversely proportional:
New time = (4/5)t.
Time saved = t - (4/5)t = (1/5)t.
Given that (1/5)t = 1 hour => t = 5 hours.
गति 25% बढ़ने पर (5/4) गुना हो जाती है।
दूरी समान रहने पर समय गति का व्युत्क्रमानुपाती होता है, अतः नया समय = (4/5)t होगा।
समय में कमी = t - (4/5)t = t/5 = 1 घंटा => मूल समय t = 5 घंटे।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3886📚Mental Ability & ReasoningAssertion and Reason
Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): All squares are rectangles.
Reason (R): All rectangles have four right angles.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
Explanation
A rectangle is geometrically defined as a quadrilateral with four right angles. Because every square possesses four right angles (and additionally equal sides), it satisfies the definition of a rectangle. Hence, both A and R are true and R correctly explains A.
आयत की परिभाषा यह है कि यह चार समकोणों वाला चतुर्भुज होता है। चूंकि प्रत्येक वर्ग में चार समकोण होते हैं, इसलिए प्रत्येक वर्ग एक आयत होता है। अतः A और R दोनों सत्य हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3887📚Mental Ability & ReasoningAssertion and Reason
Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): No cat is a dog.
Reason (R): Some dogs are pets.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
Explanation
Assertion A is true (cats and dogs are distinct biological species). Reason R is also factually true (many dogs are pets). However, being a pet has nothing to do with why a cat is not a dog. Thus, R is not the correct explanation of A.
अभिकथन A सत्य है (बिल्ली और कुत्ता भिन्न प्रजातियाँ हैं)। कारण R भी सत्य है (कुछ कुत्ते पालतू होते हैं)। परंतु कुत्तों का पालतू होना इस बात की व्याख्या नहीं करता कि बिल्ली कुत्ता क्यों नहीं है। अतः R, A की सही व्याख्या नहीं है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3888📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsDefence & Joint Military Exercises
Match List-I (Military Exercises) with List-II (Partner Country):
Military Exercises:
i. Yudh Abhyaas
ii. Zapad
iii. Mitra-Shakti
iv. Bright Star

Partner Country:
a. USA
b. Egypt
c. Sri Lanka
d. Russia

Choose the correct match:
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
C) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
D) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
Explanation
Matching joint military exercises:
- Yudh Abhyas: Bilateral army exercise between India and the USA (i -> a).
- Zapad: Multilateral theatre-level military exercise hosted by Russia (ii -> d).
- Mitra Shakti: Joint army exercise between India and Sri Lanka (iii -> c).
- Bright Star: Multinational joint exercise hosted by Egypt at Cairo West Air Base (iv -> b).
Match: i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b.
सैन्य अभ्यासों का मिलान:
- युद्धाभ्यास: भारत और संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका (i -> a)
- ज़ापाद: रूस में आयोजित बहुपक्षीय अभ्यास (ii -> d)
- मित्र-शक्ति: भारत और श्रीलंका (iii -> c)
- ब्राइट स्टार: मिस्र द्वारा आयोजित बहुराष्ट्रीय अभ्यास (iv -> b)।
अतः सही मिलान i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3889📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations (United Nations)
Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council:
I. As per Article 23, the Security Council shall consist of fifteen Members of the United Nations.
II. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for a term of five years.
III. A retiring non-permanent member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) All of the above
Explanation
- Statement I is correct: Under Article 23(1) of the UN Charter, the Security Council consists of 15 members (5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members).
- Statement II is incorrect: Non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of TWO years, not five years.
- Statement III is correct: Article 23(2) explicitly provides that 'a retiring member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election'.
Therefore, statements I and III only are correct.
- कथन I सही है: संयुक्त राष्ट्र चार्टर के अनुच्छेद 23 के तहत सुरक्षा परिषद में 15 सदस्य (5 स्थायी और 10 गैर-स्थायी) होते हैं।
- कथन II गलत है: गैर-स्थायी सदस्यों का कार्यकाल दो वर्ष का होता है, पांच वर्ष का नहीं।
- कथन III सही है: अनुच्छेद 23(2) के अनुसार कार्यकाल समाप्त होने पर कोई भी गैर-स्थायी सदस्य तुरंत पुनः निर्वाचित नहीं हो सकता।
अतः केवल कथन I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3890📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsScience & Technology (Space Missions)
Consider the following statements about India's Space mission achievements:
I. The Axiom Mission 4 has enabled human spaceflight for India, Poland, and Hungary, with each nation's first government-sponsored flight in more than 40 years.
II. SpaDeX Mission made India the first country in the world to successfully carry out a satellite docking process in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I Nor II
Explanation
- Statement I is correct: Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) to the ISS includes ISRO astronaut Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla representing India alongside astronauts from Poland and Hungary, marking the first government-backed spaceflights for all three nations in over 40 years.
- Statement II is incorrect: SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) made India the fourth nation (after USA, Russia, and China) to demonstrate autonomous space docking technology, not the first in the world.
Hence, I only is correct.
- कथन I सही है: एक्सिओम मिशन 4 (Ax-4) के तहत भारतीय वायुसेना के ग्रुप कैप्टन शुभांशु शुक्ला (ISRO) पोलैंड और हंगरी के अंतरिक्ष यात्रियों के साथ ISS की यात्रा कर रहे हैं, जो 40 से अधिक वर्षों में उनकी पहली राष्ट्रीय मानव अंतरिक्ष उड़ान है।
- कथन II गलत है: SpaDeX मिशन से भारत अंतरिक्ष में डॉकिंग करने वाला विश्व का चौथा देश बना (अमेरिका, रूस और चीन के बाद), न कि पहला देश।
अतः केवल कथन I सही है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3891📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsNuclear Energy & Science
In India's three-stage nuclear program, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is considered important because:
I. it is designed to use uranium-238 to breed plutonium in a sodium-cooled fast reactor design.
II. Thorium-232, though not fissile, is proposed to be used as a blanket material.
III. By transmutation, Thorium will create fissile Uranium-233, which will be used as fuel in the third stage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III
Explanation
All three statements accurately define Stage II (Fast Breeder Reactor) of Homi Bhabha's three-stage nuclear power plan:
- The PFBR at Kalpakkam uses mixed plutonium-uranium oxide (MOX) fuel in a liquid sodium coolant to breed more fissile plutonium from U-238.
- Thorium-232 blankets are introduced into the reactor core.
- Through neutron absorption, fertile Th-232 transmutes into fissile Uranium-233, laying the indispensable foundation for Stage III (Thorium reactors).
Therefore, all three statements I, II, and III are correct.
डॉ. होमी भाभा के त्रि-स्तरीय परमाणु ऊर्जा कार्यक्रम के दूसरे चरण (फास्ट ब्रीडर रिएक्टर) के लिए तीनों कथन पूर्णतः सत्य हैं:
- PFBR तरल सोडियम से ठंडा होने वाला रिएक्टर है जो U-238 से प्लूटोनियम का उत्पादन करता है।
- थोरियम-232 को इसके ब्लैंकेट में रखा जाता है।
- न्यूट्रॉन अवशोषण से थोरियम विखंडनीय यूरेनियम-233 में परिवर्तित होता है जो तीसरे चरण का मुख्य ईंधन है।
अतः I, II और III सभी सही हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3892📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Scientific Projects (ITER)
ITER is considered important for India and the world because:
I. it demonstrates sustainable, clean fusion energy for the future.
II. It allows India to participate in cutting-edge nuclear fusion research.
III. It provides immediate commercial electricity to reduce fossil fuel dependency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III
Explanation
- Statements I and II are correct: ITER (located in Cadarache, France) is a 35-nation collaboration demonstrating the scientific and technological feasibility of magnetic confinement nuclear fusion power, in which India is an equal contributing member.
- Statement III is incorrect: ITER is purely an experimental research facility designed to achieve net thermal power (Q ≥ 10), not a commercial power plant providing electricity to the public grid.
Hence, I and II only are correct.
- कथन I और II सही हैं: ITER फ्रांस में स्थित 35 देशों की एक ऐतिहासिक संलयन अनुसंधान परियोजना है, जिसमें भारत प्रमुख भागीदार है।
- कथन III गलत है: ITER एक प्रायोगिक अनुसंधान टोकामक रिएक्टर है, यह कोई वाणिज्यिक बिजली संयंत्र नहीं है जो ग्रिड को बिजली की आपूर्ति करता हो।
अतः केवल कथन I और II सही हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3893📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Awards & Honours
Identify the correct statements about the Nobel Peace Prize, 2025:
I. It was awarded to Maria Corina Machado of Venezuela.
II. According to the Norwegian Nobel Committee, it can be transferred by the recipient to any other person.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II
Explanation
- Statement I is incorrect: While Venezuelan opposition leader Maria Corina Machado was awarded the Václav Havel Human Rights Prize in 2024 and nominated for the Nobel Peace Prize, she was not the recipient (Nihon Hidankyo was awarded the 2024 Nobel Peace Prize).
- Statement II is incorrect: Under the statutes of the Nobel Foundation, Nobel Prizes are strictly personal distinctions and cannot be reassigned or transferred by recipients to any third party.
Therefore, Neither I nor II is correct.
- कथन I गलत है: वेनेजुएला की नेता मारिया कोरीना मचाडो नामांकित जरूर थीं, परंतु नोबेल शांति पुरस्कार निहोन हिदांक्यो (जापान) को मिला था।
- कथन II गलत है: नोबेल फाउंडेशन के नियमों के अनुसार नोबेल पुरस्कार पूर्णतः व्यक्तिगत सम्मान हैं और इन्हें किसी अन्य व्यक्ति को हस्तांतरित नहीं किया जा सकता।
अतः न तो I और न ही II सही है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3894📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (National Income & Development)
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): A rise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards.
Reason (R): Income levels are fundamental metrics of Economic development.
Which of the statements is/are correct:
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Explanation
- Assertion A is false: The word 'always' invalidates it. Per capita GNP is an aggregate average and does not account for income inequality, inflation, environmental degradation, or access to healthcare and education. A rise in per capita GNP concentrated among the wealthy does not improve living standards for the general populace.
- Reason R is true: National income and per capita income are standard fundamental baseline metrics used in economic development analysis.
Hence, A is false, R is true.
- अभिकथन A असत्य है: 'हमेशा' शब्द इसे गलत बनाता है। प्रति व्यक्ति आय केवल एक औसत है; यदि आय असमानता बढ़ती है या मुद्रास्फीति बढ़ती है, तो प्रति व्यक्ति जीएनपी बढ़ने पर भी आम लोगों का जीवन स्तर गिर सकता है।
- कारण R सत्य है: आय स्तर आर्थिक विकास का एक मूलभूत और प्राथमिक पैमाना होता है।
अतः A असत्य है, R सत्य है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3895🔬General ScienceThermal Physics & Physical Geography
Two places, X (terrestrial) and Y (marine), are at the same latitude. During summer, Place X records 42°C and Place Y records 32°C. During winter, Place X records 0°C and Place Y records 10°C. What is the most plausible explanation?
A) Variation in the altitudes of Place X and Y
B) Land has a higher specific heat capacity than oceans
C) Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans
D) Variation in thermal insulation at places X and Y
Explanation
Water has a very high specific heat capacity (~4184 J/kg·K) compared to dry soil and rock (~800 J/kg·K). Consequently, land heats up much faster and to higher temperatures in summer, and cools down much more rapidly and severely in winter (continentality effect), whereas maritime locations experience moderating marine influences.
जल की विशिष्ट ऊष्मा धारिता भूमि (मिट्टी व चट्टान) की तुलना में बहुत अधिक होती है। अतः भूमि की विशिष्ट ऊष्मा धारिता कम होने के कारण यह गर्मियों में तेजी से गर्म होकर 42°C तक पहुँच जाती है और सर्दियों में तेजी से ठंडी होकर 0°C तक गिर जाती है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3896📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsAgriculture & Government Schemes
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses aims to make India self-sufficient in pulses by 2030–31.
Statement II: The mission seeks to reduce import dependence, boost domestic production of pulses and sustainably improve farmers' incomes.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A) Statement I and Statement II are correct
B) Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Explanation
Both statements are correct:
- Statement I is correct: Approved under the Union Budget and implemented from FY 2025-26 to FY 2030-31 with a target of 350 lakh tonnes of domestic pulses production by 2030-31.
- Statement II is correct: The central mission objective is eliminating dependency on foreign pulses imports (Tur, Urad, Masoor) through guaranteed MSP procurement, seed hubs, and boosting farmer prosperity.
दोनों कथन सही हैं:
- कथन I सही है: 'दलहन आत्मनिर्भरता मिशन' (2025-26 से 2030-31) का लक्ष्य 2030-31 तक घरेलू उत्पादन 350 लाख टन पहुंचाकर भारत को पूर्णतः आत्मनिर्भर बनाना है।
- कथन II सही है: इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य आयात निर्भरता समाप्त करना, घरेलू उत्पादन बढ़ाना और एमएसपी खरीद के जरिए किसानों की आय बढ़ाना है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3897📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Geography (Major Ports of India)
Match the following Ports with their associated special features:
Ports:
i. Kamarajar Port
ii. JNPT Port
iii. Paradip Port
iv. Vizhinjam Port

Special Features:
a. First corporatised major port
b. First deep-water transhipment hub
c. India's first landlord-model port
d. Top cargo-handling major port

Choose the correct option:
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
C) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
Explanation
- Kamarajar Port (Ennore, Tamil Nadu): India's first corporatised major port registered as a public company (i -> a).
- JNPT (Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Navi Mumbai): India's first 100% landlord major port where all berths are operated on PPP (ii -> c).
- Paradip Port (Odisha): Surpassed Deendayal Port to become India's top cargo handling major port in FY24 (iii -> d).
- Vizhinjam Port (Kerala): India's first dedicated international deep-water transhipment container port (iv -> b).
Match: i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b.
- कामराजार बंदरगाह: भारत का पहला निगमीकृत (कंपनी अधिनियम के तहत पंजीकृत) प्रमुख बंदरगाह (i -> a)।
- जेएनपीटी (नवी मुंबई): भारत का पहला 100% लैंडलॉर्ड मॉडल बंदरगाह (ii -> c)।
- पारादीप बंदरगाह (ओडिशा): भारत का सबसे बड़ा कार्गो हैंडलिंग प्रमुख बंदरगाह (iii -> d)।
- विझिंजम बंदरगाह (केरल): भारत का पहला गहरा ट्रांसशिपमेंट कंटेनर हब (iv -> b)।
अतः सही मिलान i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3898📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsCulture & Heritage of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following statements about Rauf is/are correct?
I. Rauf is a traditional folk dance performed on typical folk songs in the Kashmir dialect.
II. It is typically a solo performance by a woman only.
III. Dancers wear traditional Kashmiri attire, including pherans (long, flowing gowns) and ornate jewelry.
Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III
Explanation
- Statement I is correct: Rauf is Kashmir's most celebrated traditional celebratory dance, performed during Eid and spring festivals (Navreh).
- Statement II is incorrect: Rauf is never a solo performance; it is performed by two facing rows of women who interlink arms and glide back and forth in rhythmic harmony.
- Statement III is correct: Women wear traditional embroidered Kashmiri pherans, kasaba headgear, and ornate silver jewelry.
Hence, statements I and III are correct.
- कथन I सही है: रऊफ कश्मीर का सबसे प्रसिद्ध पारंपरिक लोकनृत्य है जो ईद और वसंत ऋतु में हर्षोल्लास से गाया और नाचा जाता है।
- कथन II गलत है: रऊफ एकल (solo) नृत्य नहीं है; यह महिलाओं की दो आमने-सामने खड़ी पंक्तियों द्वारा एक-दूसरे की कमर में हाथ डालकर समूह में किया जाता है।
- कथन III सही है: नर्तकियां पारंपरिक फेरन, कसाबा और कश्मीरी आभूषण पहनती हैं।
अतः केवल कथन I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3899📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography & Wetlands of J&K (Ramsar Sites)
How many of the following pairs are correct regarding Wetlands and their major associated Districts in J&K UT?
- Hokersar wetland : Srinagar district
- Mansar lake : Samba district
- Wular lake : Bandipora district
- Hygam wetland : Baramulla district
Choose the correct option:
A) One pair only
B) Two pairs only
C) Three pairs only
D) All of the above
Explanation
All 4 pairs are correctly matched:
- Hokersar Wetland: Ramsar site located in Srinagar/Budgam.
- Mansar Lake: Ramsar site in Samba District, Jammu division.
- Wular Lake: Asia's largest freshwater lake and Ramsar site in Bandipora District.
- Hygam Wetland: Designated Ramsar site in Baramulla District.
Hence, All of the above are correct.
चारों युग्म सही सुमेलित हैं:
- होकेरसर आर्द्रभूमि: श्रीनगर जिले में स्थित रामसर स्थल।
- मानसर झील: सांबा जिले में स्थित रामसर स्थल।
- वुलर झील: बांदीपोरा जिले में स्थित एशिया की सबसे बड़ी मीठे पानी की झीलों में से एक।
- हाइगाम आर्द्रभूमि: बारामूला जिले में स्थित रामसर स्थल।
अतः सभी युग्म सही हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3900📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Schemes of J&K UT (Mission Youth)
Identify the correct statements about the MUMKIN scheme operational in J&K UT:
I. "Mumkin - Livelihood Generation Scheme" is an initiative specifically aimed at empowering its young population.
II. It provides up to Rs. 80,000 subsidy or 10% of the on-road price, whichever is lower, for unemployed youth to purchase small commercial vehicles.
III. The age of the applicant should be between 18 to 35 years.
Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III
Explanation
All three statements are correct regarding the Mumkin scheme under Mission Youth J&K:
- Statement I is correct: Mumkin is a flagship livelihood programme designed for unemployed youth in J&K.
- Statement II is correct: The government provides 10% (up to Rs. 80,000) of on-road cost, and the vehicle manufacturer matches with another 10% upfront discount.
- Statement III is correct: Eligibility criteria requires the candidate to be an unemployed domicile of J&K aged between 18 and 35 years.
Therefore, I, II and III are all correct.
मिशन यूथ के तहत 'मुमकिन योजना' के तीनों कथन सही हैं:
- कथन I सही है: यह बेरोजगार युवाओं को आजीविका प्रदान करने के लिए बनाई गई प्रमुख योजना है।
- कथन II सही है: छोटे वाणिज्यिक वाहन खरीदने के लिए 10% या अधिकतम ₹80,000 की सब्सिडी सरकार देती है (और 10% छूट वाहन निर्माता देता है)।
- कथन III सही है: आवेदक की आयु 18 से 35 वर्ष के बीच होनी चाहिए।
अतः I, II और III सभी सही हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3901📚Basic ScienceChemistry - Extraction of Metals
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the extraction of metals in accordance with the activity series?
I. Highly reactive metals (like sodium and potassium) are extracted by electrolysis of their molten compounds.
II. Moderately reactive metals (zinc, iron, lead, etc.) are extracted by reduction using carbon or carbon monoxide.
III. Less reactive metals (copper, mercury) can be obtained simply by heating ores.
Choose the correct option:
A) Only II
B) Only I and III
C) Only II and III
D) All of the above
Explanation
All three principles are standard metallurgical extraction methods:
1. Highly reactive metals (Na, K, Ca, Al) have high chemical affinity for oxygen and cannot be reduced by carbon; they are extracted via molten salt electrolysis.
2. Middle-reactivity metals (Zn, Fe, Pb) are reduced from their oxides using carbon or carbon monoxide.
3. Low-reactivity metals (Hg, Cu) are extracted simply by heating their sulphide ores in air (e.g., cinnabar HgS -> Hg, copper glance Cu2S -> Cu).
तीनों कथन धातुओं के निष्कर्षण के मूलभूत सिद्धांतों के अनुसार सत्य हैं: अत्यधिक क्रियाशील धातुएं विद्युत अपघटन से, मध्यम क्रियाशील धातुएं कार्बन/CO अपचयन से, और कम क्रियाशील धातुएं केवल गर्म करके प्राप्त की जाती हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D (उपरोक्त सभी) है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3902📚Basic ScienceBiology - Plant Physiology
Which plant structures function as gateways for gas exchange?
A) Lenticels
B) Stomata
C) Xylem
D) Phloem
Explanation
Stomata are specialized microscopic pore complexes located primarily on the epidermis of plant leaves and green stems. Regulated by guard cells, they function as the main gateways for photosynthetic and respiratory gaseous exchange (CO2 and O2) as well as transpiration.
पत्तियों की सतह पर मौजूद रंध्र (Stomata) रक्षक कोशिकाओं द्वारा नियंत्रित होते हैं और प्रकाश संश्लेषण तथा श्वसन के लिए गैस विनिमय के प्रमुख द्वार के रूप में कार्य करते हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3903📚Basic ScienceBiology - Excretory System
Which of the following terms is NOT related to the structural and functional unit of the kidney?
A) Nephrons
B) Bowman's capsule
C) Glottis
D) Glomerulus
Explanation
The glottis is part of the human respiratory system (the opening between the vocal cords in the larynx). Nephrons, Bowman's capsule, and the glomerulus are all essential components of the renal excretory and filtration system in kidneys.
ग्लोटिस (Glottis) मानव श्वसन तंत्र (larynx) का हिस्सा है, गुर्दे का नहीं। नेफ्रॉन, बोमन कैप्सूल और ग्लोमेरुलस गुर्दे की निस्यंदन संरचना से संबंधित हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3904📚Basic ScienceBiology - Environmental Issues
Which of the following ozone-depleting substances are correctly matched with their primary sources?
A) Halons — Soil fumigant
B) Methyl bromide — Degreasing solvent
C) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) — Fire extinguishers
D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) — Refrigerants and aerosol propellants
Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) were widely manufactured as refrigerants in cooling appliances and propellants in aerosol spray cans. Halons are fire extinguishing agents, and methyl bromide is an agricultural soil fumigant. Thus D is the correctly matched pair.
क्लोरोफ्लोरोकार्बन (CFCs) का मुख्य स्रोत रेफ्रिजरेटर और एरोसोल प्रणोदक हैं। हैलॉन अग्निशामक में और मिथाइल ब्रोमाइड मृदा धूमक के रूप में उपयोग होता है। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3905📚Basic ScienceBiology - Genetics & Heredity
In Mendel's pea plant experiments, which of the following is recessive?
A) The trait that appears in all F1 hybrids
B) The trait that hides in F1, but reappears in F2
C) The trait that increases with each generation
D) The trait that only appears in the parental generation
Explanation
In Gregor Mendel's genetic crosses, a recessive trait is masked/suppressed by the dominant allele in the heterozygous F1 generation, but reappears unchanged in the F2 generation in a 3:1 ratio.
मेंडल के प्रयोगों में, अप्रभावी (recessive) लक्षण वह लक्षण है जो F1 पीढ़ी में प्रभावी लक्षण के कारण छिप जाता है, लेकिन F2 पीढ़ी में पुनः प्रकट होता है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3906📚Basic ScienceBiology - Reproduction
Match the categories of asexual reproduction in plants with their correct examples:
i. Vegetative propagation
ii. Fragmentation
iii. Budding
iv. Spore formation

a. Mosses and liverworts
b. Begonia and Bryophyllum
c. Yeast and Hydra
d. Clostridium and Bacillus

Choose the correct option:
A) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
B) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
D) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Explanation
Asexual reproduction methods matching:
- Vegetative propagation (i) -> Begonia and Bryophyllum (leaf plantlets) (b)
- Fragmentation (ii) -> Mosses and liverworts (a)
- Budding (iii) -> Yeast and Hydra (c)
- Spore formation (iv) -> Clostridium and Bacillus (bacterial endospores) (d)
Hence, i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d is the correct option.
अलैंगिक प्रजनन का मिलान:
- कायिक प्रवर्धन (i): बेगोनिया और ब्रायोफिलम (b)
- विखंडन (ii): मॉस और लिवरवॉर्ट (a)
- मुकुलन (iii): यीस्ट और हाइड्रा (c)
- बीजाणु निर्माण (iv): क्लॉस्ट्रिडियम और बैसिलस (d)
अतः विकल्प A सही है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3907📚Basic Computer ApplicationsComputer Hardware & Memory
In a computer laboratory, a system boots normally and successfully compiles a program, but the program does not execute and no error message is displayed. The most likely cause is:
A) Faulty keyboard or mouse
B) Insufficient RAM
C) Disconnected network cable
D) Corrupted printer driver
Explanation
Compilation generates the executable file on disk. When execution begins, the OS loader must allocate memory and map the binary into physical RAM. If RAM is completely exhausted or unavailable to allocate the process, execution cannot proceed. Peripheral devices like keyboards, printers, or network cables do not affect local CPU execution.
प्रोग्राम के निष्पादन (execution) के लिए ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम को प्रोग्राम कोड और डेटा को मुख्य मेमोरी (RAM) में लोड करना पड़ता है। यदि RAM अपर्याप्त है, तो प्रोग्राम मेमोरी में लोड नहीं हो पाएगा और निष्पादित नहीं होगा।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3908📚Basic Computer ApplicationsHardware & Assistive Devices
Which of the following statements correctly describes a tactile display (also known as a refreshable braille display)?
A) It is an electro-mechanical device that uses round-tipped pins to represent Braille characters by raising them through holes in a flat surface.
B) It is a specialized monitor that uses haptic vibrations across a glass screen to simulate the texture of printed text.
C) It is a peripheral device that converts text from a computer screen into high-speed audio for the visually impaired.
D) It is a static hardware interface where Braille characters are permanently engraved into a metal plate for reading.
Explanation
A refreshable Braille display (tactile display) is an electromechanical device consisting of an array of round-tipped pins that are dynamically pushed up and down through holes on a flat surface to represent Braille characters corresponding to text on a screen.
टैक्टाइल डिस्प्ले (रिफ्रेशेबल ब्रेल डिस्प्ले) एक इलेक्ट्रो-मैकेनिकल उपकरण है जिसमें गोल सिरे वाले पिन एक सपाट सतह के छेदों से ऊपर उठकर दृष्टिबाधित लोगों के लिए ब्रेल अक्षरों को प्रदर्शित करते हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3909📚Basic Computer ApplicationsOperating System Architecture
Which statement is correct regarding the interaction between computer hardware and system software?
A) System software is hardware-independent because it interacts with hardware only via high-level languages.
B) Firmware is classified as application software since it is stored in non-volatile memory and executes user-level tasks.
C) An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software by managing resources and providing hardware abstraction.
D) Installing application software can directly modify CPU microarchitecture without involving system software.
Explanation
An operating system (system software) acts as an intermediary between physical hardware components and application software, managing system resources (CPU, RAM, storage, I/O) and providing uniform hardware abstraction layers.
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम हार्डवेयर और एप्लिकेशन सॉफ्टवेयर के बीच एक मध्यस्थ (intermediary) के रूप में कार्य करता है जो सिस्टम संसाधनों का प्रबंधन करता है और हार्डवेयर एब्स्ट्रैक्शन प्रदान करता है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3910📚Basic Computer ApplicationsMS Access & VBA Scripting
A student creates the following VBA script in MS Access and attaches it to the "On Click" event of a button on a form:

```vba
Private Sub CommandButton1_Click()
Dim rs As DAO.Recordset
Set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("Students")

rs.MoveFirst
Do While Not rs.EOF
If rs!Marks < 40 Then
rs.Edit
rs!Result = "Fail"
rs.Update
Else
rs.Edit
rs!Result = "Pass"
rs.Update
End If
rs.MoveNext
Loop

rs.Close
End Sub
```

What does this script do?
A) It filters and displays only students who scored below 40 marks in the form
B) It automatically updates every record in the students table
C) It deletes all records of students who scored below 40 marks
D) It creates a new table that stores the result (Pass/Fail) separately from the Students table
Explanation
The code opens the 'Students' table as a recordset, iterates from the first record until the end (Do While Not rs.EOF), and evaluates whether Marks < 40 to update Result to 'Fail' or 'Pass'. Thus, it iterates through and updates every record in the Students table.
यह VBA स्क्रिप्ट 'Students' तालिका के रिकॉर्डसेट को खोलकर पहले रिकॉर्ड से अंतिम रिकॉर्ड तक लूप चलाती है और 40 से कम अंक होने पर 'Fail' अन्यथा 'Pass' लिखकर तालिका के प्रत्येक रिकॉर्ड को स्वचालित रूप से अपडेट करती है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3911📚Basic Computer ApplicationsMS Word - Section Breaks & Page Numbering
Anaya is making a long report in MS Word. She wants pages 1–3 to use Roman numerals (i, ii, iii) and the rest to start from 1, 2, 3.... She does not know how to set different page numbering styles in one document. What should she do?
A) Use Mixed Numbering from the Insert tab
B) Add a section break and format page numbers separately
C) Use the Pagination Wizard from the Layout tab and assign custom numbering templates
D) Change the numbering style from the Font settings
Explanation
In Microsoft Word, formatting different page number formats (e.g., Roman numerals followed by Arabic numerals starting at 1) requires inserting a Section Break (Next Page) between the sections and unlinking headers/footers to format page numbers independently in each section.
MS Word में एक ही दस्तावेज़ में अलग-अलग पेज नंबर शैलियाँ लागू करने के लिए सेक्शन ब्रेक (Section Break) जोड़ना पड़ता है और फिर प्रत्येक सेक्शन के पेज नंबरों को स्वतंत्र रूप से फॉर्मेट किया जाता है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3912📚Basic Computer ApplicationsNetworking & Internet - Email Services
Riya works in a small office where all computers are connected through a LAN using Ethernet cables, but the network is not connected to any ISP or the Internet. She tries to send an email to her boss using Gmail. Can Riya send the email?
A) Yes, because Gmail can temporarily store emails in the LAN cache and sync later
B) No, because Gmail requires a Wi-Fi network to operate
C) Yes, because Ethernet supports internal cloud routing for web apps
D) No, because Gmail needs Internet access to contact its remote servers
Explanation
Gmail is a cloud-based webmail service hosted on remote Google servers across the Internet. A local area network (LAN) provides only internal connectivity between local devices. Without an active ISP/Internet connection, the computer cannot route traffic or communicate with Google's remote mail servers.
जीमेल एक क्लाउड वेबमेल सेवा है जो गूगल के इंटरनेट सर्वर पर होस्ट की जाती है। ऑफिस का लैन केवल स्थानीय कंप्यूटरों को जोड़ता है। इंटरनेट (ISP) कनेक्शन के बिना जीमेल सर्वर से संपर्क संभव नहीं है, अतः ईमेल नहीं भेजा जा सकता।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3913📚Basic Computer ApplicationsCloud Storage Integration
While sending an email with a large attachment, Aarav notices that the email client automatically uploads the file and shares it as a link instead of attaching it directly. Which Internet feature makes this possible?
A) Cloud storage integration
B) SMTP compression
C) Dynamic attachment routing
D) Internet caching protocol
Explanation
Modern email clients integrate with cloud storage services (e.g., Google Drive in Gmail, Microsoft OneDrive in Outlook). When an attachment exceeds SMTP message size limits (typically 25 MB), the client automatically uploads the file to the user's cloud drive and embeds a shareable access link into the email.
आधुनिक ईमेल क्लाइंट क्लाउड स्टोरेज (जैसे गूगल ड्राइव या वनड्राइव) के साथ एकीकृत होते हैं। बड़ी फाइल होने पर ईमेल क्लाइंट उसे क्लाउड स्टोरेज पर अपलोड कर देता है और ईमेल में उसका लिंक साझा करता है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3914📚Basic Computer ApplicationsInput Devices - Graphics Tablet
A digital artist wants to create detailed and beautiful digital drawings on his computer. He finds it difficult to draw accurately using only a mouse. Which device would help him draw naturally and precisely on the computer?
A) Graphics tablet
B) Digital stroke enhancer
C) Precision art interface pad
D) Visual rendering controller
Explanation
A graphics tablet (also known as a drawing tablet or digitizer) paired with a pressure-sensitive stylus allows artists to hand-draw illustrations, sketches, and graphics directly into computer design software naturally, replicating physical pen-on-paper drawing.
ग्राफिक्स टैबलेट (Graphics tablet) एक इनपुट उपकरण है जो प्रेशर-सेंसिटिव स्टाइलस पेन के साथ आता है और डिजिटल कलाकारों को कंप्यूटर पर स्वाभाविक तथा सटीक चित्र बनाने की सुविधा देता है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3915📚Basic Computer ApplicationsSystem Software - Device Drivers
A video editor installs a new high-end graphics card in her computer to speed up video rendering. After installation, the computer detects the card physically. Still, video editing software cannot use its advanced features until it installs an additional component that allows the operating system and applications to communicate properly with the hardware. What does she need to install?
A) Hardware synchronization module
B) Digital performance translator
C) System interface accelerator
D) Device driver
Explanation
A device driver is specialized system software that enables the operating system and software applications to communicate with and control specific hardware devices (such as graphics cards). Without the manufacturer's dedicated GPU driver, advanced rendering capabilities cannot be utilized.
डिवाइस ड्राइवर (Device driver) एक विशेष सिस्टम सॉफ्टवेयर है जो ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम और एप्लिकेशन सॉफ्टवेयर को हार्डवेयर (ग्राफिक्स कार्ड) की उन्नत सुविधाओं का उपयोग करने और संवाद करने में सक्षम बनाता है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3916📚Basic Computer ApplicationsOperating System - Virtual Memory
Which of the following statements is NOT true about virtual memory in an operating system?
A) It allows programs to use more memory than the physically available RAM
B) It uses disk space to extend the apparent main memory
C) It permanently stores running processes in secondary storage
D) It loads only required portions of programs into RAM when needed
Explanation
Virtual memory is a dynamic memory management technique that temporarily swaps pages between physical RAM and disk storage. It does NOT permanently store running processes in secondary storage; when processes terminate, their allocated swap space is freed.
वर्चुअल मेमोरी डिस्क स्पेस का उपयोग करके मुख्य मेमोरी का विस्तार करने की एक अस्थायी प्रबंधन तकनीक है। यह चल रही प्रक्रियाओं को सेकेंडरी स्टोरेज में स्थायी रूप से संग्रहीत (permanently store) नहीं करती है। अतः कथन C असत्य है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3917📚Basic Computer ApplicationsOperating Systems - Linux
A cybersecurity researcher needs an operating system mainly for network testing, scripting, and advanced system customization, with strong command-line tools and open-source flexibility. Which operating system would be most suitable?
A) Windows
B) Linux
C) Mac OS
D) Standalone firmware OS
Explanation
Linux distributions (such as Kali Linux, Parrot Security OS, or Ubuntu) are open-source, offer powerful terminal environments (Bash shell), full control over networking stacks, and extensive native toolsets for network auditing, security testing, and scripting.
साइबर सुरक्षा शोधकर्ताओं के लिए लिनक्स (Linux) सबसे उपयुक्त प्रणाली है क्योंकि यह ओपन-सोर्स है, शक्तिशाली कमांड-लाइन इंटरफेस प्रदान करता है और नेटवर्क टेस्टिंग टूल्स से समृद्ध है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3918📚Basic Computer ApplicationsNetworking - DNS & HTTP/HTTPS
Which of the following options best explains how a web browser loads a webpage when a user enters a URL?
A) Browser downloads the page directly from the ISP
B) SMTP resolves the name and transfers the webpage
C) DNS finds the IP and HTTP/HTTPS loads the page
D) The search engine fetches and renders the page
Explanation
When a URL is entered, the browser first queries the Domain Name System (DNS) to resolve the domain name into its corresponding IP address. Once the IP address is obtained, the browser uses the HTTP or HTTPS protocol to establish a connection with the web server and load the web page assets.
जब कोई उपयोगकर्ता URL दर्ज करता है, तो DNS डोमेन नाम को उसके संबंधित IP पते में हल करता है, और फिर HTTP/HTTPS प्रोटोकॉल वेब सर्वर से वेबपेज को लोड करता है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3919📚Basic Computer ApplicationsMS PowerPoint - Slide Master
Aarohi is creating a presentation and wants a logo to appear automatically in the same position on all current and future slides, without manually adding it to each slide. Which feature should she use?
A) Global Slide Replication
B) Layout Replicator
C) Theme Designer
D) Slide Master
Explanation
In Microsoft PowerPoint, the Slide Master is the top hierarchy slide controlling design elements, layout templates, placeholders, and formatting across the entire deck. Placing an image or logo on the Slide Master automatically reflects it on every current and future slide.
MS PowerPoint में 'स्लाइड मास्टर' (Slide Master) का उपयोग करके जोड़ा गया कोई भी लोगो या ऑब्जेक्ट प्रस्तुति की सभी वर्तमान और नई स्लाइडों पर एक ही स्थान पर स्वचालित रूप से दिखाई देता है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3920📚Basic Computer ApplicationsMS Excel - Formula Syntax
Aditi wants Excel to calculate the average of cells A1 to A5 only if their total sum is greater than 100, otherwise she wants Excel to display "Low". She writes the following formula:
=IF(((SUM(A1:A5)>100,(AVERAGE(A1:A5),"Low")))
Will this formula work as intended?
A) Yes, it will work correctly for all values
B) Yes, but it works only with integers
C) No, it will not work because of a syntax issue
D) No, it will not work because of incorrect logic
Explanation
The formula =IF(((SUM(A1:A5)>100,(AVERAGE(A1:A5),"Low"))) contains mismatched and misplaced parentheses around function arguments. In Excel, the correct syntax is =IF(SUM(A1:A5)>100, AVERAGE(A1:A5), "Low"). The syntax error causes Excel to reject the formula with an error alert.
एक्सेल में IF फ़ंक्शन का सही प्रारूप =IF(शर्त, यदि_सत्य_हो, यदि_असत्य_हो) होता है। अदिति के सूत्र में कोष्ठकों का गलत उपयोग होने के कारण सिंटैक्स त्रुटि (syntax issue) आएगी और एक्सेल इसे स्वीकार नहीं करेगा।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3921📚Basic Computer ApplicationsDatabase Management - RDBMS
Which feature enables software to store, organize, and manipulate structured data in rows and columns for efficient analysis?
A) Matrix virtualization framework
B) Database management
C) Grid processing interface
D) Structured data renderer
Explanation
Database Management (DBMS / RDBMS) organizes data into structured tables consisting of rows (records) and columns (attributes), enabling reliable storage, querying, indexing, and analysis.
डेटाबेस प्रबंधन (Database management) संरचित डेटा को पंक्तियों और स्तंभों (तालिकाओं) में व्यवस्थित, संग्रहीत और संसाधित करने की सुविधा प्रदान करता है।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
3922📚General EnglishIdioms and Phrases
The committee's proposal, though ambitious, was dismissed as "a bridge too far" by senior officials. In this context, "a bridge too far" suggests that the proposal was:
A) Poorly structured and lacking practical detail
B) Conceptually sound but politically unpopular
C) Excessively ambitious beyond what was feasible or acceptable
D) Intentionally provocative to test institutional boundaries
Explanation
The idiom "a bridge too far" originates from Operation Market Garden in WWII and denotes an act or plan that is overly ambitious, overreaching, or beyond the limits of what is practically achievable or acceptable.
"a bridge too far" एक प्रसिद्ध मुहावरा है जिसका अर्थ है एक ऐसी योजना या लक्ष्य जो आवश्यकता से अधिक महत्वाकांक्षी हो और जिसे व्यावहारिक रूप से प्राप्त करना संभव न हो।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3923📚General EnglishSynonyms and Antonyms
The editor criticized the article for its prolix treatment of an otherwise simple topic. Which word is the most appropriate synonym of prolix in this context?
A) Discursive
B) Redundant
C) Verbose
D) Diffuse
Explanation
"Prolix" describes speech or writing that uses far too many words and is tediously long; "verbose" is its most direct and appropriate synonym.
'Prolix' का अर्थ है शब्दबहुल, अत्यधिक लंबा या उबाऊ रूप से विस्तृत। इसका सबसे उपयुक्त पर्यायवाची 'Verbose' (वाचाल/शब्दबहुल) है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3924📚General EnglishVocabulary - Homonyms
In which sentence is the word "bank" used as a homonym when compared to its use in the sentence below?
She deposited the cheque at the bank.
A) The pilot had to bank the aircraft sharply during the landing.
B) The children played on the bank of the river after school.
C) The bank approved the loan after a detailed review.
D) He works at a multinational bank in the city.
Explanation
In the prompt sentence, "bank" refers to a financial depository. In option B, "bank" is a homonym meaning the land alongside a body of water (riverbank) — sharing the identical spelling and pronunciation but having a completely unrelated etymology and meaning.
मूल वाक्य में 'bank' का अर्थ वित्तीय संस्थान (बैंक) है। विकल्प B में 'bank' का अर्थ नदी का किनारा (river bank) है, जो समान वर्तनी और उच्चारण वाला लेकिन पूर्णतः भिन्न अर्थ वाला शब्द (Homonym) है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3925📚General EnglishPara Jumbles
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
I. She practiced every day to improve her skills.
II. As a result, she won the competition.
III. She wanted to become a professional dancer.
IV. Her dedication impressed her teachers.

Choose the correct order:
A) III -> I -> IV -> II
B) I -> III -> IV -> II
C) III -> IV -> I -> II
D) IV -> I -> III -> II
Explanation
The paragraph opens with her overarching ambition (III: She wanted to become a professional dancer), followed by her consistent action (I: She practiced every day to improve her skills), the admiration gained (IV: Her dedication impressed her teachers), and the culmination (II: As a result, she won the competition). Hence, III -> I -> IV -> II.
सही तार्किक क्रम: III (पेशेवर नर्तकी बनने की इच्छा) -> I (प्रतिदिन अभ्यास) -> IV (शिक्षकों का प्रभावित होना) -> II (प्रतियोगिता जीतना)। अतः सही क्रम III -> I -> IV -> II (विकल्प A) है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3926📚General EnglishPrepositions
Choose the option that correctly completes the sentence:
She is proficient ____ French and German.
A) in
B) at
C) on
D) with
Explanation
The adjective "proficient" is conventionally followed by the preposition "in" when referring to competence in a language, field of study, or activity (e.g., "proficient in French and German").
किसी भाषा या विषय में दक्षता दर्शाने के लिए 'proficient' के साथ हमेशा प्रीपोजिशन 'in' का प्रयोग किया जाता है (जैसे: proficient in French)।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3927📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityNumber System & Divisibility
If a number 45678x9231 is divisible by 3, then how many values are possible for x?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Explanation
A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3. Sum of digits = 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + x + 9 + 2 + 3 + 1 = 45 + x. Since 45 is divisible by 3, (45 + x) will be divisible by 3 whenever x is a multiple of 3. The possible single-digit values for x are {0, 3, 6, 9}. Thus, exactly 4 values are possible.
3 से विभाज्यता का नियम: अंकों का योग 3 से विभाज्य होना चाहिए। अंकों का योग = 45 + x। चूंकि 45 पहले से ही 3 से विभाज्य है, इसलिए x का मान {0, 3, 6, 9} हो सकता है। अतः x के कुल 4 संभावित मान हैं।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3928📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityNumber System - Trailing Zeros
If x = 2¹⁰ × 5⁶, then how many zeros will be there at the end of x?
A) 6
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3
Explanation
Each trailing zero is produced by a pair of factors (2 × 5 = 10). Here, the prime factorization has ten 2s and six 5s: 2¹⁰ × 5⁶ = 2⁴ × (2 × 5)⁶ = 16 × 10⁶. The number of trailing zeros is min(10, 6) = 6.
संख्या के अंत में शून्यों की संख्या 2 और 5 के न्यूनतम युग्मों पर निर्भर करती है: min(10, 6) = 6। अतः x के अंत में 6 शून्य होंगे।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3929📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityTime and Work
Three men A, B and C complete a work in 10 days, 12 days and 15 days respectively. All three of them start the work together. After 2 days A left and after next 2 days C also left. Find in how many days whole work will be completed?
A) 6 days
B) 6(2/5) days
C) 6(1/5) days
D) 6(4/5) days
Explanation
Let total work = LCM(10, 12, 15) = 60 units. Daily efficiencies: A = 6, B = 5, C = 4 units/day. First 2 days (A+B+C): 15 × 2 = 30 units done. Next 2 days (B+C): (5+4) × 2 = 18 units done. Total done in 4 days = 48 units. Remaining work = 60 - 48 = 12 units, finished by B alone in 12 / 5 = 2(2/5) days. Total time for whole work = 2 + 2 + 2(2/5) = 6(2/5) days.
कुल कार्य = 60 इकाई। कार्यक्षमता: A = 6, B = 5, C = 4। पहले 2 दिन (A+B+C) = 30 इकाई। अगले 2 दिन (B+C) = 18 इकाई। 4 दिन में कार्य = 48 इकाई। शेष कार्य = 12 इकाई, जिसे B अकेले 12/5 = 2(2/5) दिन में करेगा। कुल समय = 4 + 2(2/5) = 6(2/5) दिन।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3930📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityTime and Work
A can complete a work in 15 days and B can complete a work in 25 days. If they start work together and B leaves 7 days before completion, then the work will be completed in how many days?
A) 16 days
B) 14 days
C) 12 days
D) 10 days
Explanation
Total work = LCM(15, 25) = 75 units. Rates: A = 5 units/day, B = 3 units/day. In the last 7 days, A worked alone: 7 × 5 = 35 units. Remaining work done together = 75 - 35 = 40 units. Time worked together = 40 / (5 + 3) = 5 days. Total time taken = 5 + 7 = 12 days.
कुल कार्य = 75 इकाई। A = 5 इकाई/दिन, B = 3 इकाई/दिन। अंतिम 7 दिन A अकेले काम करता है: 7 × 5 = 35 इकाई। A और B द्वारा मिलकर किया गया कार्य = 75 - 35 = 40 इकाई। मिलकर लगा समय = 40/8 = 5 दिन। कुल दिन = 5 + 7 = 12 दिन।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3931📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityCoding and Decoding
In a code language:
• Letters are arranged in reverse order
• Each vowel is replaced by its position number in alphabet
If BALLOON -> N1515LL1B, find MONDAY.
A) Y1DN15M
B) M1DN15Y
C) Y15DN1M
D) M15DN15Y
Explanation
For MONDAY: 1. Reverse letters: Y, A, D, N, O, M. 2. Replace vowels with alphabet position numbers: A is 1st letter -> 1; O is 15th letter -> 15. Consonants remain unchanged: Y - 1 - D - N - 15 - M = Y1DN15M.
MONDAY को उल्टा करने पर: Y - A - D - N - O - M। स्वरों को उनकी स्थिति संख्या से बदलने पर (A = 1, O = 15): Y1DN15M प्राप्त होता है। अतः सही विकल्प A है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3932📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityDirection Sense
A man is facing east. He turns 135° clockwise, then 90° anticlockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
A) South
B) South-East
C) South-West
D) East
Explanation
Net angular rotation = +135° (clockwise) - 90° (anticlockwise) = +45° clockwise. Turning 45° clockwise from East points directly towards South-East.
कुल घूर्णन = +135° - 90° = 45° दक्षिणावर्त। पूर्व दिशा से 45° दक्षिणावर्त घूमने पर व्यक्ति दक्षिण-पूर्व (South-East) दिशा में होगा।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3933📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityBlood Relations
A man said, "This girl is the daughter of my father's only son's wife." How is the girl related to him?
A) Sister
B) Niece
C) Daughter
D) Mother
Explanation
"My father's only son" = the man himself. "My father's only son's wife" = the man's wife. "The daughter of my wife" = the man's daughter. Hence, the girl is his daughter.
'मेरे पिता का इकलौता बेटा' = स्वयं वह व्यक्ति। 'उसकी पत्नी' = उस व्यक्ति की पत्नी। 'पत्नी की बेटी' = उस व्यक्ति की बेटी। अतः लड़की उसकी बेटी (Daughter) है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3934📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityStatement and Conclusions
Statement: "The government plans to reduce the import duty on electronics."
Conclusions:
I. Prices of electronics may fall.
II. Domestic production of electronics will stop.

A) Only I follows
B) Only II follows
C) Both follow
D) Neither follows
Explanation
Lower import duty reduces the cost of imported goods, leading to possible price reductions in the domestic market (Conclusion I logically follows). Conclusion II is an extreme and unfounded assumption, so it does not follow.
आयात शुल्क कम होने से आयातित वस्तुओं की लागत घटती है, जिससे कीमतें गिर सकती हैं (निष्कर्ष I सही है)। घरेलू उत्पादन पूरी तरह बंद हो जाएगा, यह एक अतार्किक और अतिवादी निष्कर्ष है (निष्कर्ष II गलत है)।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3935📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KWorld Geography - Cities and Countries
Consider the following pairs:
City — Respective Country
I. Maracaibo — Ukraine
II. Tabriz — Venezuela
III. Nuuk — Greenland
IV. Donetsk — Iran

How many of the pairs are correct?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) Only three pairs
D) All of the above
Explanation
Evaluating the pairs:
- Maracaibo is a major city in Venezuela (not Ukraine).
- Tabriz is an ancient historic city in Iran (not Venezuela).
- Nuuk is the capital and largest city of Greenland (Correct).
- Donetsk is an industrial city in eastern Ukraine (not Iran).
Therefore, only one pair (III) is correct.
युग्मों का सही मिलान:
- माराकाइबो: वेनेज़ुएला में स्थित है (यूक्रेन नहीं)।
- तबरेज़: ईरान में स्थित है (वेनेज़ुएला नहीं)।
- नूक: ग्रीनलैंड की राजधानी है (सही)।
- डोनेट्स्क: यूक्रेन में स्थित है (ईरान नहीं)।
अतः केवल एक युग्म (III) सही है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3936📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KGovernment Schemes & Agriculture
What are the key components of the recently launched Digital Agriculture Mission in India?
I. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Agriculture, i.e. Agristack, Krishi Decision Support System, Comprehensive Soil Fertility, and Profile Maps.
II. Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES).
III. Support for the Mahalanobis National Crop Forecasting Centre (MNCFC).

Identify the correct statements:
A) I and III only
B) II and III only
C) I and II only
D) I, II and III only
Explanation
Approved by the Union Cabinet in September 2024 with a budget outlay of ₹2,817 crore, the Digital Agriculture Mission incorporates: 1) AgriStack (farmer registry, geo-referenced village maps, crop sowing registry), 2) Krishi Decision Support System (DSS) using remote sensing and soil maps, 3) Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES) for accurate yield estimations, and 4) institutional capacity building including the Mahalanobis National Crop Forecasting Centre (MNCFC). All three statements are correct.
सितंबर 2024 में अनुमोदित डिजिटल कृषि मिशन के तहत एग्रीस्टैक व मृदा मानचित्र (I), डिजिटल सामान्य फसल अनुमान सर्वेक्षण (DGCES) (II), और महालनोबिस राष्ट्रीय फसल पूर्वानुमान केंद्र (MNCFC) का सुदृढ़ीकरण (III) तीनों प्रमुख घटक शामिल हैं। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3937📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KNational Monuments & Statues
Match the following and choose the correct option:
Statues:
1. Statue of Unity
2. Statue of Oneness
3. Statue of Equality

Personalities Associated:
i. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
ii. Adi Shankaracharya
iii. Sri Ramanuja Acharya

A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
B) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii
C) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii
Explanation
Matching the iconic statues:
- Statue of Unity (1) -> Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in Kevadia, Gujarat (i)
- Statue of Oneness (2) -> 108-ft statue of Adi Shankaracharya at Omkareshwar, MP (ii)
- Statue of Equality (3) -> 216-ft statue of Sri Ramanujacharya in Hyderabad, Telangana (iii)
Therefore, 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii is the correct option.
प्रतिमाओं का सही मिलान:
- स्टैच्यू ऑफ यूनिटी: सरदार वल्लभभाई पटेल (केवड़िया, गुजरात) -> i
- स्टैच्यू ऑफ वननेस: आदि शंकराचार्य (ओंकारेश्वर, मध्य प्रदेश) -> ii
- स्टैच्यू ऑफ इक्वैलिटी: श्री रामानुजाचार्य (हैदराबाद, तेलंगाना) -> iii
अतः सही विकल्प A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii) है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3938📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KIndian Freedom Struggle - Tribal Uprisings
Consider the following statements about the Tribal Freedom Fighters:
I. Tilka Majhi mobilized the Pahadia tribe to which he belonged and raided the Company treasury.
II. Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu from the Santhal community led the Santhal in the Hul rebellion.
III. Malati Mem of the Tea-garden community strictly opposed Mahatma Gandhi's satyagraha movement.

Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) All of the above
D) None of the above
Explanation
Evaluating the statements:
- Statement I is correct: Tilka Majhi organized tribal resistance against British East India Company oppression in 1784 and raided the Company treasury in Bhagalpur.
- Statement II is correct: Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu led the historic Santhal Hul rebellion (1855–56) against the British and zamindars.
- Statement III is incorrect: Malati Mem (Mangri Orang) was an inspiring female tea-garden worker who actively SUPPORTED and joined Mahatma Gandhi's Non-Cooperation and anti-opium movement in Assam, and was martyred in 1921. Thus, only I and II are correct.
कथन I और II सत्य हैं। कथन III असत्य है क्योंकि असम के चाय बागानों की मालती मेम (मंगरी ओरांग) ने गांधीजी के असहयोग और नशाबंदी आंदोलन में सक्रिय रूप से भाग लिया था और 1921 में बलिदान दिया था, उन्होंने विरोध नहीं किया था। अतः विकल्प A (I and II only) सही है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3939📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KIndian Geography - Channels & Straits
The Ten-degree channel separates which two regions?
A) Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
B) Minicoy and Lakshadweep
C) Nicobar and Indonesia
D) Andaman and Myanmar
Explanation
The Ten Degree Channel is a maritime channel in the Bay of Bengal that separates the Andaman Islands (specifically Little Andaman) to the north from the Nicobar Islands (specifically Car Nicobar) to the south along the 10° N parallel.
10-डिग्री चैनल बंगाल की खाड़ी में स्थित एक जलडमरूमध्य है जो उत्तर में अंडमान द्वीप समूह (लिटिल अंडमान) को दक्षिण में निकोबार द्वीप समूह (कार निकोबार) से अलग करता है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3940📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KEcology - Wetlands and National Parks
Consider the following pairs:
Wetlands — States
I. Kolleru Lake — Tamil Nadu
II. Tawa Reservoir — Madhya Pradesh
III. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary — Andhra Pradesh
IV. Sultanpur National Park — Haryana

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A) One pair only
B) Two pairs only
C) Three pairs only
D) All of the above
Explanation
Evaluating wetland locations:
- Kolleru Lake is in Andhra Pradesh (between Krishna and Godavari deltas), not Tamil Nadu.
- Tawa Reservoir is in Hoshangabad district, Madhya Pradesh (Correct).
- Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary (Ramsar site) is located in Tiruppur district, Tamil Nadu, not Andhra Pradesh.
- Sultanpur National Park is in Gurugram district, Haryana (Correct).
Thus, exactly two pairs (II and IV) are correctly matched.
स्थानों का विश्लेषण:
- कोलेरू झील: आंध्र प्रदेश में है (तमिलनाडु नहीं)।
- तवा जलाशय: मध्य प्रदेश में है (सही)।
- नंजरायन पक्षी अभयारण्य: तमिलनाडु के तिरुप्पुर में है (आंध्र प्रदेश नहीं)।
- सुल्तानपुर राष्ट्रीय उद्यान: हरियाणा के गुरुग्राम में है (सही)।
अतः केवल दो युग्म (II और IV) सही सुमेलित हैं (Two pairs only)।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3941📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KTransport and National Waterways
Which of the following statements about India's National Waterways are correct?
I. National Waterway 2 (NW-2) is the Brahmaputra River stretch from Dhubri to Sadiya in Assam, covering about 891 km.
II. National Waterway 3 (NW-3) is the West Coast Canal, which connects Kollam and Kottapuram in Kerala.
III. National Waterway 97 (NW-97) runs on the Zuari River, connecting Sanvordem Bridge to Marmugao Port.
IV. National Waterways 111 (NW-111) is operational in the Sunderbans Region.

Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I, II and III only
D) All of the above
Explanation
Evaluating India's National Waterways:
- Statement I is correct: NW-2 spans the Brahmaputra River between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km) in Assam.
- Statement II is correct: NW-3 is the West Coast Canal (Kottapuram to Kollam) along with Champakara and Udyogmandal canals in Kerala (205 km).
- Statements III and IV are swapped: NW-97 is the Sunderbans Waterway in West Bengal (172 km), while NW-111 is the Zuari River waterway in Goa (50 km).
Thus, only statements I and II are correct.
कथन I और II सही हैं। कथन III और IV गलत हैं क्योंकि NW-97 पश्चिम बंगाल के सुंदरबन जलमार्ग से संबंधित है, जबकि NW-111 गोवा की जुआरी नदी से संबंधित है। अतः विकल्प B (I and II only) सही है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3942📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Dynasties
According to Kalhana's Rajtarangini, identify the correct sequential order of the following dynasties in the Jammu and Kashmir region:
I. Gonanda dynasty
II. Utpala dynasty
III. Karkota Dynasty
IV. Lohara dynasty

Choose the correct option:
A) I-II-III-IV
B) I-II-IV-III
C) I-IV-III-II
D) I-III-II-IV
Explanation
According to Kalhana's Rajatarangini, the historical dynasties of Kashmir followed this chronological order:
1. Gonanda Dynasty (ancient proto-historic and early classical era)
2. Karkota Dynasty (founded by Durlabhavardhana in 625 CE, famous for Lalitaditya Muktapida)
3. Utpala Dynasty (founded by Avantivarman in 855 CE)
4. Lohara Dynasty (founded by Sangramaraja in 1003 CE, Queen Didda's lineage)
Therefore, the correct sequential order is I - III - II - IV.
राजतरंगिणी के अनुसार कश्मीर के राजवंशों का सही ऐतिहासिक क्रम:
1. गोनंद वंश (I) -> 2. कार्कोट वंश (III, 625 ईस्वी) -> 3. उत्पल वंश (II, 855 ईस्वी) -> 4. लोहार वंश (IV, 1003 ईस्वी)।
अतः सही विकल्प D (I-III-II-IV) है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3943📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KMughal Gardens of Kashmir
Which of the following statements about Mughal Gardens in Kashmir are correct?
I. Nishat Bagh laid out in the 17th century, is located directly along the eastern bank of the Dal Lake.
II. The two most important structures within the Shalimar Bagh are the Pink Pavilion, in the Diwan-i-Aam zone of the garden, and the Black Pavilion, located in the Diwan-i-Khas.
III. Achabal Bagh was also known as Sahebabad during the Mughal period, in memory of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir.

Choose the correct option:
A) I, II and III
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
Explanation
Evaluating Mughal Gardens:
- Statement I is correct: Nishat Bagh was designed by Asif Khan (Nur Jahan's brother) in 1633 on the eastern bank of Dal Lake.
- Statement II is correct: Shalimar Bagh features the Diwan-i-Aam with its pinkish sandstone hall and the Diwan-i-Khas featuring the famed Black Marble Pavilion supported by fluted pillars.
- Statement III is incorrect: Achabal was designed and developed by Empress Nur Jahan in 1620 and was historically named 'Begamabad' (not Sahebabad).
Thus, statements I and II only are correct.
कथन I और II सत्य हैं। कथन III असत्य है क्योंकि नूरजहाँ द्वारा विकसित अच्छाबल बाग को मुगल काल में 'बेगमाबाद' कहा जाता था, साहिबाबाद नहीं। अतः सही विकल्प B (I and II only) है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3944📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KNational Parks and Geography of J&K
Dachigam National Park is located in which mountain range?
A) Ladakh Range
B) Zanskar Range
C) Karakoram Range
D) Zabarwan Range
Explanation
Dachigam National Park is situated in the Zabarwan Range of the western Himalayas, approximately 22 kilometers from Srinagar. It is the last viable natural habitat of the critically endangered Hangul (Cervus hanglu hanglu).
दाचीगाम राष्ट्रीय उद्यान श्रीनगर के निकट जबरवान पर्वत श्रृंखला (Zabarwan Range) में स्थित है। यह कश्मीरी हिरण (हांगुल) का अंतिम प्राकृतिक आवास है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3945📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KWildlife Conservation in J&K
A Census planned in J & K in early 2026 is aimed at conservation of which species?
A) Markhor
B) Hangul
C) Snow Leopard
D) Himalayan Brown Bear
Explanation
The Department of Wildlife Protection J&K conducts the biennial Hangul Census in Dachigam National Park and adjoining protected corridors to assess the population, fawn survival rate, and sex ratio of the critically endangered Kashmir Stag (Hangul).
जम्मू-कश्मीर वन्यजीव संरक्षण विभाग द्वारा दाचीगाम और उसके आसपास के क्षेत्रों में गंभीर रूप से संकटग्रस्त कश्मीरी हिरण यानी हांगुल (Hangul) की द्विवार्षिक जनगणना आयोजित की जाती है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3946📚General Awareness with special ref to J&KRivers and Drainage System of J&K
Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Chenab?
I. Ujh river
II. Tawi river
III. Poonch river
IV. Neeru river

Choose the correct option:
A) I and II only
B) II and IV only
C) I, II and III only
D) II, III and IV only
Explanation
Evaluating tributaries:
- Tawi River (II) is a major left-bank tributary of the Chenab.
- Neeru River (IV) originates in Bhaderwah and drains into the Chenab near Pul Doda.
- Ujh River (I) is a tributary of the Ravi River.
- Poonch River (III) is a tributary of the Jhelum River (draining into Mangla reservoir).
Thus, II and IV only are tributaries of the Chenab.
तवी नदी (II) और नीरू नदी (IV) चिनाब नदी की सहायक नदियाँ हैं। उझ नदी रावी की सहायक नदी है और पुंछ नदी झेलम की सहायक नदी है। अतः विकल्प B (केवल II और IV) सही है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3947📚Basic Concepts of ComputersComputer Architecture - Pipelining & Hazards
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationship between instruction execution, memory hierarchy, and addressing modes in a typical von Neumann architecture computer system?
A) Immediate addressing always speeds up execution by avoiding memory access.
B) A larger cache always improves performance, regardless of hit ratio.
C) Data hazards can occur in pipelined CPUs even with only register addressing.
D) Virtual memory removes the need for cache memory.
Explanation
In pipelined processor architectures, data hazards (such as Read-After-Write / RAW) arise when an instruction depends on the result of a previous instruction that has not yet completed its writeback stage, even if all operands are located entirely in processor registers. Hence, data forwarding or stalling is required regardless of addressing mode.
पाइपलाइन सीपीयू में, जब कोई निर्देश पिछले निर्देश के परिणाम पर निर्भर करता है, तो रजिस्टरों का उपयोग करने पर भी डेटा हैज़र्ड (Data hazards / RAW संघर्ष) उत्पन्न हो सकते हैं। अतः कथन C सही है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3948📚Basic Concepts of ComputersHardware and Software Classification
Which of the following correctly classifies hardware and system software?
A) Device Driver - Hardware; Keyboard - System Software
B) Compiler - Hardware; RAM - System Software
C) CPU - Hardware; Operating System - System Software
D) Adobe Scan - Hardware; Monitor - System Software
Explanation
The CPU (Central Processing Unit) is a physical electronic chip (Hardware), while the Operating System (e.g., Windows, Linux) is essential system software that manages hardware and provides an execution environment for applications.
सीपीयू (CPU) एक भौतिक घटक यानी हार्डवेयर है, जबकि ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम (OS) सिस्टम सॉफ्टवेयर है। अतः विकल्प C सही वर्गीकरण प्रस्तुत करता है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3949📚Basic Concepts of ComputersSystem Performance and Troubleshooting
A computer has a quad-core CPU with a 2.4 GHz frequency, 16 GB RAM, and a 1TB SSD. A program that uses many threads and performs frequent disk operations is running very slowly and sometimes crashes. What is the most likely cause?
A) Inefficient multithreading and high memory usage
B) Insufficient CPU core performance
C) Large SSD causing slow disk access
D) Slow processor frequency
Explanation
Given the robust hardware specifications (16 GB RAM, fast 1 TB SSD, Quad-core processor), the severe slowdown and intermittent crashing are caused by software-level architectural bottlenecks: improper thread synchronization (leading to deadlocks or thread thrashing) and unmanaged memory allocation (memory leaks causing out-of-memory crashes).
कंप्यूटर का हार्डवेयर (16GB रैम, SSD, क्वाड-कोर) काफी सक्षम है। ऐसे में सिस्टम का धीमा होना और क्रैश होना सॉफ्टवेयर के स्तर पर खराब मल्टीथ्रेडिंग (थ्रेड लॉक) और अत्यधिक मेमोरी खपत (मेमोरी लीक) के कारण होता है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3950📚Basic Concepts of ComputersOperating System - Deadlock Recovery
In a system with multiple processes and resource types, which of the following is a valid method to recover from a deadlock?
A) Decreasing the CPU priority of all processes
B) Preempt resources from one process and allocate to another
C) Increase the priority of all processes in the deadlock
D) Increase the priority of one of the processes in the deadlock
Explanation
In operating system resource management, once a deadlock has occurred, the two standard recovery strategies are: 1) Process termination (killing processes to break circular wait), and 2) Resource preemption (forcibly reclaiming held resources from a victim process, rolling back its state, and reallocating those resources to another deadlocked process to allow it to finish).
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम में डेडलॉक से उबरने की मुख्य विधियां प्रक्रिया समाप्ति और संसाधन प्री-एम्पशन (Resource Preemption) हैं, जिसमें एक प्रोसेस से संसाधन लेकर दूसरे को दिए जाते हैं ताकि गतिरोध समाप्त हो सके।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3951📚Basic Concepts of ComputersOperating System - Priority Inversion & Scheduling
Consider a system using preemptive priority scheduling with multiple real-time and user-level processes. Priority inheritance protocol is implemented.
I. Priority inversion can occur when a low-priority process holds a resource that a high-priority process needs.
II. Under priority inheritance, the low-priority process temporarily inherits the higher priority to avoid blocking.
III. Priority inversion can be completely avoided if all processes are scheduled in a round-robin fashion.
IV. Starvation may still occur for low-priority processes even with priority inheritance.

Which of the statements are correct?
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) II and IV only
D) I, II and IV only
Explanation
Evaluating the statements:
- Statement I is true: Priority inversion happens when a lower-priority task blocks a higher-priority task because it holds a mutually exclusive resource.
- Statement II is true: Under priority inheritance, the task holding the resource temporarily inherits the highest priority of any blocked task waiting for that resource to speed up release.
- Statement III is false: Round-robin scheduling applies to CPU slicing, but does not eliminate synchronization contention on exclusive locks.
- Statement IV is true: Low-priority non-resource-holding processes can still suffer starvation if high-priority processes continually arrive.
Thus, statements I, II, and IV are correct.
कथन I, II और IV सही हैं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि राउंड-रॉबिन शेड्यूलिंग म्यूचुअल एक्सक्लूजन लॉक्स के कारण होने वाले इनवर्जन को पूरी तरह समाप्त नहीं कर सकती। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3952📚Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Word Features
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about MS Word?
A) A content control can restrict editing in a document; however cannot enforce data validation.
B) You can apply different first-line indents and hanging indents to different paragraphs within the same style.
C) The Navigation Pane allows searching by headings, pages, or results, but cannot directly display comments.
D) In Track Changes, accepting a change permanently removes the author's metadata associated with that change.
Explanation
Statement A is incorrect (and thus the correct answer) because Content Controls in MS Word (such as Date Picker, Dropdown List, and plain text controls with XML data binding) CAN enforce strict data validation rules on user input.
कथन A गलत है क्योंकि MS Word में कंटेंट कंट्रोल्स (जैसे ड्रॉपडाउन, डेट पिकर) इनपुट पर डेटा सत्यापन (data validation) लागू कर सकते हैं। अतः कथन A सही उत्तर है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3953📚Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Excel - Nested IF Formulas
A company keeps sales data in column B and wants to categorise sales into three levels:
"High" if sales ≥ 1000
"Medium" if sales ≥ 500 but < 1000
"Low" if sales < 500

A student writes the formula in cell C2 as:
`=IF(B2>=1000,"High",IF(B2>=500,"Medium","Low"))`

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) The formula will always give an error.
B) The formula will give an error if B2 is blank.
C) The formula will give an error for non-numeric values in B2.
D) The formula will work correctly for all numeric values in B2.
Explanation
The nested formula correctly checks if B2 is at least 1000 (returning 'High'). If false, it checks if B2 is at least 500 (returning 'Medium'), and if false, returns 'Low'. For any valid numeric sales value in B2, this nested logic executes without syntax errors and correctly assigns the appropriate category.
यह नेस्टेड IF सूत्र पूरी तरह से सही सिंटैक्स और तर्क के साथ लिखा गया है। B2 में किसी भी संख्यात्मक मान के लिए यह 1000 या अधिक पर 'High', 500 से 999 पर 'Medium', और 500 से कम पर 'Low' सही ढंग से प्रदर्शित करेगा।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3954📚Basic Concepts of ComputersNetworking & Email Protocols
Which of the following statements is correct about email functionality?
A) Email filters/rules cannot automatically forward emails to another account without user intervention.
B) Digital signatures in email encrypt the message body so that only the recipient can read it.
C) POP3 protocol is used to download emails from the server to a local computer.
D) Using BCC ensures the sender and recipients cannot see each other.
Explanation
Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) is a standard mail access protocol designed to retrieve and download emails from a remote mail server directly onto the client's local computer, typically storing them locally and removing them from the server.
POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) का मुख्य कार्य मेल सर्वर से ईमेल संदेशों को उपयोगकर्ता के स्थानीय कंप्यूटर पर डाउनलोड करना है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3955📚Basic Concepts of ComputersMS PowerPoint - SmartArt Graphics
In Microsoft PowerPoint, which of the following existing slide contents CANNOT be directly converted into SmartArt, without re-entering the data?
A) A bulleted list
B) A table of data
C) A block of descriptive text
D) An Indented text
Explanation
In Microsoft PowerPoint, the 'Convert to SmartArt' feature works directly on text boxes, bulleted lists, and indented hierarchical text. However, tabular data within an existing Table object cannot be automatically converted to SmartArt via this feature without manually copying or re-entering the data.
पावरपॉइंट में 'Convert to SmartArt' टूल केवल टेक्स्ट बॉक्स, बुलेटेड सूची और इंडेंटेड टेक्स्ट पर काम करता है। किसी पहले से मौजूद तालिका (Table) को सीधे स्मार्टआर्ट में नहीं बदला जा सकता।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3956📚Basic Concepts of ComputersComputer Networks - TCP/IP Protocol Suite
Consider the following statements about TCP/IP and Internet communication:
A) TCP guarantees delivery and the correct order of packets, but not the timing.
B) TCP is faster than UDP because it does not perform any error checking.
C) IPv6 uses 256-bit addresses, but the header size is fixed at 40 bytes.
D) ICMP is used primarily for application-layer data transfer between web servers.
Explanation
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) provides reliable, connection-oriented, ordered byte-stream delivery with end-to-end flow control and error recovery. However, it does not guarantee real-time delivery timing or packet arrival latency bounds.
TCP (ट्रांसमिशन कंट्रोल प्रोटोकॉल) डेटा पैकेटों के सटीक और क्रमिक वितरण की गारंटी देता है, लेकिन यह रीयल-टाइम आगमन या निश्चित समय (timing) की गारंटी नहीं देता। अतः कथन A सही है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3957📚Basic Concepts of ComputersNetworking - IPv6 and Routing
Which of the following statements about Internet routing and protocols is correct?
A) BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used primarily for routing within a single local network.
B) ICMP is used to encrypt data packets over the Internet.
C) IPv6 adoption eliminates the need for NAT because it provides a vastly larger address space.
D) HTTP/3 relies on TCP for faster connections and multiplexing multiple streams.
Explanation
Network Address Translation (NAT) was devised primarily as a stopgap measure due to the depletion of 32-bit IPv4 addresses. IPv6 provides a massive 128-bit address space (approx 3.4 × 10³⁸ addresses), enabling end-to-end addressing for every device on the planet and making NAT obsolete.
IPv6 में 128-बिट का विशाल एड्रेस स्पेस होने के कारण प्रत्येक डिवाइस को एक अद्वितीय सार्वजनिक आईपी पता मिल सकता है, जिससे IPv4 की कमी के लिए बनाए गए NAT (Network Address Translation) की आवश्यकता समाप्त हो जाती है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3958📚Basic Concepts of ComputersCloud Computing - Service Models
In the context of cloud computing in an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, what is managed by the service provider?
A) Networking hardware
B) Operating system
C) Hardware platform and operating system
D) Operating system and data
Explanation
In the IaaS cloud computing model (e.g., AWS EC2, Microsoft Azure VMs), the cloud service provider manages the physical data center facilities, virtualization layer, physical servers, storage disks, and networking hardware. The customer is responsible for installing and configuring the operating system, middleware, runtime, and data.
IaaS (इन्फ्रास्ट्रक्चर एज़ अ सर्विस) में क्लाउड सेवा प्रदाता भौतिक डेटा सेंटर, सर्वर, स्टोरेज और नेटवर्किंग हार्डवेयर का प्रबंधन करता है। ग्राहक स्वयं ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम और डेटा का प्रबंधन करता है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
3959📚Basic MathematicsTime and Work
A man and woman together complete a work in 8 days. If man alone takes 10 days to complete the work, find the number of days taken by woman alone to complete the same work.
A) 20 days
B) 40 days
C) 50 days
D) 60 days
Explanation
Rate of (Man + Woman) = 1/8. Rate of Man = 1/10. Rate of Woman = 1/8 - 1/10 = (5 - 4) / 40 = 1/40. The woman alone takes 40 days.
महिला का 1 दिन का कार्य = 1/8 - 1/10 = 1/40। अतः महिला अकेले उस कार्य को 40 दिनों में पूरा करेगी।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3960📚Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion
The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 5 : 6. If 5 more boys join the class, the ratio becomes 10 : 11. How many girls are there in the class?
A) 30
B) 66
C) 54
D) 33
Explanation
Let boys = 5x, girls = 6x. (5x + 5) / (6x) = 10 / 11 => 55x + 55 = 60x => 5x = 55 => x = 11. Girls = 6x = 6 × 11 = 66.
माना लड़के = 5x, लड़कियाँ = 6x। (5x + 5) / 6x = 10/11 => 5x = 55 => x = 11। लड़कियों की संख्या = 6 × 11 = 66।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3961📚Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages
The father is 40 years old and his son is 10 years old. In how many years will the father be three times as old as his son?
A) 10 years
B) 20 years
C) 15 years
D) 5 years
Explanation
Let years = x. 40 + x = 3(10 + x) => 40 + x = 30 + 3x => 2x = 10 => x = 5 years.
40 + x = 3(10 + x) => 40 + x = 30 + 3x => 2x = 10 => x = 5 वर्ष।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3962📚Basic ReasoningAnalogies
Island : Ocean :: Oasis : ?
A) River
B) Forest
C) Desert
D) Mountain
Explanation
An island is a body of land completely surrounded by an ocean; an oasis is an isolated area of vegetation and water completely surrounded by a desert.
जिस प्रकार द्वीप महासागर से घिरा होता है, उसी प्रकार नखलिस्तान (ओएसिस) रेगिस्तान (Desert) के बीच स्थित एक जल व हरियाली युक्त क्षेत्र होता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3963📚Basic ReasoningBlood Relations - Coded Relations
In a certain code language used to describe family relationships:
• A # B means A is the mother of B
• A $ B means A is the brother of B
• A % B means A is the father of B
• A @ B means A is the sister of B
If the expression is: (P % Q) # (R $ S). Find the relation of P with R?
A) Father
B) Grandfather
C) Uncle
D) Brother
Explanation
P % Q means P is the father of Q. Q # R means Q is the mother of R. R $ S means R is the brother of S. Since P is the father of R's mother (Q), P is the maternal grandfather of R.
P, Q का पिता है और Q, R की माँ है। अतः P, R का नाना (Grandfather) है। सही विकल्प B है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3964📚Basic ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Set Theory
In a class of 80 students: 40 like Mathematics, 35 like Science, 30 like English; 15 like both Math and Science, 12 like Math and English, 10 like Science and English; and 5 like all three subjects.

How many students like exactly two subjects?
A) 17
B) 20
C) 22
D) 25
Explanation
Students who like only Math and Science = 15 - 5 = 10. Students who like only Math and English = 12 - 5 = 7. Students who like only Science and English = 10 - 5 = 5. Exactly two subjects = 10 + 7 + 5 = 22.
केवल गणित और विज्ञान = 15 - 5 = 10। केवल गणित और अंग्रेजी = 12 - 5 = 7। केवल विज्ञान और अंग्रेजी = 10 - 5 = 5। ठीक दो विषय पसंद करने वाले कुल छात्र = 10 + 7 + 5 = 22।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3965📚Basic ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Set Theory
Based on the above information, how many students like Mathematics only?
A) 15
B) 18
C) 20
D) 22
Explanation
Students liking Mathematics only = Total Math - (only M∩S + only M∩E + all three) = 40 - (10 + 7 + 5) = 40 - 22 = 18.
केवल गणित पसंद करने वाले छात्र = 40 - (10 + 7 + 5) = 40 - 22 = 18। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3966📚Basic ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Set Theory
Based on the above information, how many students like none of the three subjects?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Explanation
Total liking at least one subject = n(M∪S∪E) = 40 + 35 + 30 - 15 - 12 - 10 + 5 = 73. Students liking none of the three subjects = Total - 73 = 80 - 73 = 7.
कम से कम एक विषय पसंद करने वाले कुल छात्र n(M∪S∪E) = 40 + 35 + 30 - (15 + 12 + 10) + 5 = 73। कोई भी विषय पसंद न करने वाले छात्र = 80 - 73 = 7।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3967📚Basic ReasoningCoding and Decoding
The word PEBBLE is coded as RCFXRY in a certain encoding language. What will CODING be coded as?
A) EMHETA
B) EQFJPK
C) EQLHNR
D) EQJHMR
Explanation
Transformation pattern: +2, -2, +4, -4, +6, -6. Applying to CODING: C(+2)=E, O(-2)=M, D(+4)=H, I(-4)=E, N(+6)=T, G(-6)=A. CODING becomes EMHETA.
कोडिंग नियम: +2, -2, +4, -4, +6, -6। CODING पर लागू करने पर: C+2=E, O-2=M, D+4=H, I-4=E, N+6=T, G-6=A => EMHETA।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3968📚Basic ReasoningCoding and Decoding
If in a code language: MANGO = 25341, GOAT = 4156. What is the code for TANGO?
A) 65341
B) 65321
C) 51346
D) 65143
Explanation
Direct letter-to-digit mapping: M=2, A=5, N=3, G=4, O=1 (from MANGO); from GOAT, G=4, O=1, A=5, T=6. For TANGO: T=6, A=5, N=3, G=4, O=1 => 65341.
अक्षर मान: T=6, A=5, N=3, G=4, O=1। अतः TANGO का कोड 65341 होगा।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3969📚Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles:
He waited for ____ hour before meeting ____ university professor.
A) a, the
B) an, the
C) an, a
D) the, the
Explanation
"Hour" begins with a vowel sound (/aʊər/), requiring the indefinite article "an". "University" begins with the consonant glide /juː/, requiring the indefinite article "a". Thus, "an, a".
'Hour' का उच्चारण स्वर ध्वनि से शुरू होता है इसलिए 'an hour' आएगा। 'University' का उच्चारण व्यंजन ध्वनि /य/ से शुरू होता है इसलिए 'a university' आएगा। अतः 'an, a' सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3970📚Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles:
He is ____ NCC cadet who dreams of becoming ____ officer in ____ Indian Army.
A) a, an, the
B) an, an, the
C) a, a, the
D) an, the, the
Explanation
"NCC" is pronounced with an initial vowel sound (/ɛn/), so it takes "an". "Officer" begins with a vowel sound (/ɒ/), taking "an". "Indian Army" is a unique national defense body, taking the definite article "the". Sequence: "an, an, the".
'NCC' का उच्चारण स्वर ध्वनि /एन/ से शुरू होता है (an NCC), 'officer' स्वर ध्वनि से शुरू होता है (an officer), और 'Indian Army' के साथ निश्चित आर्टिकल 'the' आता है। अतः 'an, an, the' सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3971📚Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles:
____ cheetah is ____ fastest land animal and can reach ____ incredible speed within seconds.
A) a, the, an
B) No article, a, an
C) the, a, an
D) the, the, an
Explanation
"The cheetah" represents the entire animal species. "The fastest" uses the definite article with the superlative degree adjective. "An incredible speed" uses the indefinite article "an" before the vowel-sounding adjective. Sequence: "the, the, an".
प्रजाति का प्रतिनिधित्व करने के लिए 'The cheetah', सुपरलेटिव डिग्री के साथ 'the fastest', और स्वर ध्वनि वाले विशेषण के साथ 'an incredible speed'। अतः सही उत्तर 'the, the, an' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3972📚Basic EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:
She has always been keen ____ pursuing research in environmental science.
A) for
B) at
C) in
D) on
Explanation
The adjective "keen" takes the preposition "on" when expressing eagerness or interest in doing something (e.g., "keen on pursuing research").
किसी कार्य में रुचि या उत्साह दर्शाने के लिए 'keen' के साथ हमेशा प्रीपोजिशन 'on' का प्रयोग किया जाता है (keen on doing something)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3973📚Basic EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:
The manager was deeply concerned ____ the decline in productivity and warned the staff ____ the consequences of negligence.
A) for, against
B) about, about
C) with, about
D) about, of
Explanation
One is "concerned about" an issue or problem, and one "warns someone of" danger or impending negative consequences.
किसी समस्या को लेकर चिंतित होने पर 'concerned about' और परिणामों से सचेत करने के लिए 'warn of' का प्रयोग होता है। अतः 'about, of' सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3974📚Basic EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:
She divided the work ____ the team members and insisted ____ finishing it ____ the deadline.
A) among, on, before
B) between, for, before
C) among, at, by
D) between, on, after
Explanation
Dividing among multiple individuals requires "among". The verb insist takes the preposition "on" ("insisted on finishing"). Completing prior to a time limit uses "before the deadline".
दो से अधिक व्यक्तियों में बाँटने के लिए 'among', 'insist' के साथ 'on', और समय सीमा से पहले पूरा करने के लिए 'before'। अतः 'among, on, before' सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3975📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension
According to passage, What is continuous partial attention?
A) Deep focusing on task to complete it
B) Intentional switching between tasks
C) Improved efficiency in completing complex tasks
D) Keeping attention spread across many sources of information at the same time
Explanation
The opening lines define continuous partial attention as a condition "where a person keeps their attention spread across many sources of information at the same time", constantly monitoring notifications rather than focusing deeply on a single task.
गद्यांश की पहली पंक्ति के अनुसार सतत आंशिक ध्यान वह स्थिति है जहाँ व्यक्ति एक ही समय में सूचना के अनेक स्रोतों पर अपना ध्यान फैलाए रखता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3976📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension
Which activity mentioned in the passage requires deeper concentration?
A) Checking notifications
B) Reading detailed material
C) Receiving alerts from applications
D) Monitoring several updates briefly
Explanation
The text notes that sustained concentration is required for cognitively demanding tasks such as reading detailed material or solving complex problems.
गद्यांश के अनुसार विस्तृत सामग्री पढ़ने या जटिल समस्याओं को हल करने जैसी गतिविधियों के लिए लंबे समय तक गहन एकाग्रता की आवश्यकता होती है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3977📚Basic EnglishReading Comprehension
What is the main idea of the passage?
A) Technology always reduces concentration
B) Notifications should be completely removed from devices
C) The way people manage their attention
D) Continuous partial attention is always beneficial
Explanation
The passage concludes that the central challenge of modern technology is how individuals consciously manage and regulate their attention rather than the mere presence of digital devices.
गद्यांश का केंद्रीय संदेश यह है कि असली चुनौती तकनीक की उपस्थिति नहीं, बल्कि यह है कि लोग डिजिटल उपकरणों का उपयोग करते समय अपने ध्यान को कैसे प्रबंधित और नियंत्रित करते हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3978📚Basic EnglishDeterminers
In which sentence is the determiner wrongly used?
A) Each student was given a separate worksheet for the experiment.
B) Several researchers presented their findings at the conference.
C) Much people attended the seminar on environmental awareness.
D) Every participant signed the attendance sheet before leaving.
Explanation
"People" is a plural countable noun and requires the determiner "many" rather than "much" (which is reserved for uncountable mass nouns). The correct sentence should be "Many people attended...".
'People' गणनीय बहुवचन संज्ञा है, जिसके साथ 'many' आता है, 'much' नहीं। 'Much' का प्रयोग केवल अगणनीय (uncountable) संज्ञाओं के साथ होता है। अतः वाक्य C गलत है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3979📚Basic EnglishSpelling Correction
Select the correctly spelled word:
A) Pusilanimous
B) Pusillanimous
C) Pussillanimous
D) Pusillanamous
Explanation
The correct spelling is "Pusillanimous" (P-U-S-I-L-L-A-N-I-M-O-U-S), which means showing a lack of courage or determination; timid.
शुद्ध वर्तनी 'Pusillanimous' (डरपोक/कायर) है। इसमें एक 's' और दो 'l' आते हैं। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3980📚General Awareness & ScienceDefense and Technology
Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Mark-1 has been developed by which organization?
A) Defense Research and Development Organization
B) Bharat Dynamics Limited
C) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
D) Air India
Explanation
The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas was designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) under DRDO and developed and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force.
तेजस लाइट कॉम्बैट एयरक्राफ्ट (LCA) मार्क-1 को हिंदुस्तान एयरोनॉटिक्स लिमिटेड (HAL) द्वारा निर्मित और विकसित किया गया है। इसका डिजाइन एयरोनॉटिकल डेवलपमेंट एजेंसी (ADA) द्वारा तैयार किया गया था।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3981📚General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs and Union Budget
What is/are NOT the features of the BioPharma SHAKTI mission proposed in the Union Budget 2026-27?
I. The initiative aims to strengthen India's biopharmaceutical manufacturing sector with an outlay of about Rs. 1 crore over five years.
II. It envisages strengthening India's ecosystem for the production of biologics and biosimilars and capturing 5% of the global biopharmaceutical market share.
Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II
Explanation
Statement I is NOT a feature because the financial outlay for the BioPharma SHAKTI mission is ₹10,000 crore over five years (not ₹1 crore). Statement II is an accurate feature of the mission, which aims to capture a 5% global market share in biologics and biosimilars. Hence, only Statement I is NOT a feature.
कथन I एक विशेषता नहीं है क्योंकि बायोफार्मा शक्ति मिशन के लिए वित्तीय परिव्यय 5 वर्षों में ₹10,000 करोड़ है (₹1 करोड़ नहीं)। कथन II सही विशेषता है (5% वैश्विक बाजार हिस्सेदारी प्राप्त करना)। अतः केवल कथन I गलत/विशेषता नहीं है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3982📚General Awareness & ScienceAncient Indian Literature
With reference to Indian texts, which of the following statements are INCORRECT?
I. The Natyashastra, written by Bharatamuni, deals with dance, music and drama.
II. The text 'Devichandraguptam', written by Vishakhadatta, is a political drama about the rise of ruler Chandragupt Maurya.
III. The Manusmriti is a Buddhist text about Sangha rules and regulations.
Choose the correct option:
A) I and II only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) III only
Explanation
Statements II and III are incorrect. Statement II is incorrect because 'Devichandraguptam' deals with Gupta ruler Chandragupta II (it is Vishakhadatta's 'Mudrarakshasa' that deals with Chandragupta Maurya). Statement III is incorrect because Manusmriti is an ancient Hindu legal treatise (Dharmashastra), whereas Buddhist monastic Sangha rules are in the Vinaya Pitaka. Statement I is true.
कथन II और III गलत हैं। 'देवीचंद्रगुप्तम' गुप्त शासक चंद्रगुप्त द्वितीय और ध्रुवदेवी पर आधारित नाटक है (चंद्रगुप्त मौर्य के उत्थान पर 'मुद्राराक्षस' आधारित है)। मनुस्मृति एक प्राचीन हिंदू धर्मशास्त्र/स्मृति ग्रंथ है, जबकि बौद्ध संघ के नियम 'विनय पिटक' में हैं। कथन I सही है। अतः गलत कथन II और III हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3983📚General Awareness & ScienceMedieval Indian History
Who founded the Vijaynagar Empire in the 14th Century?
A) Bahman Shah
B) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
C) Krishnadevaraya
D) Harihara and Bukka
Explanation
The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE on the southern banks of the Tungabhadra River by two brothers, Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty, under the spiritual guidance of Saint Vidyaranya.
विजयनगर साम्राज्य की स्थापना 1336 ई. में तुंगभद्रा नदी के तट पर संगम वंश के दो भाइयों हरिहर और बुक्का राय ने संत विद्यारण्य के आशीर्वाद से की थी।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3984📚General Awareness & ScienceSocio-Religious Reform Movements
Match the following organization with their prominent founders.
Organisations:
1. Arya Mahila Samaj
2. Bharat Stree Mahamandal
3. Tatvabodhini Samaj
4. Brahmo Samaj of India
Founders:
i. Sarla Devi Chaudharani
ii. Pandita Ramabai
iii. Keshub Chandra Sen
iv. Debendranath Tagore
Choose the correct match:
A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii
B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
C) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
D) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv
Explanation
Correct matches: 1. Arya Mahila Samaj was established in Pune by Pandita Ramabai (1882) (ii); 2. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was established in Allahabad by Sarla Devi Chaudharani (1910) (i); 3. Tattvabodhini Sabha was founded in Calcutta by Debendranath Tagore (1839) (iv); 4. Brahmo Samaj of India was established by Keshub Chandra Sen (1866) (iii). Hence, 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii.
सही मिलान: 1. आर्य महिला समाज - पंडिता रमाबाई (ii); 2. भारत स्त्री महामंडल - सरला देवी चौधरानी (i); 3. तत्वबोधिनी सभा - देवेन्द्रनाथ टैगोर (iv); 4. भारतवर्षीय ब्रह्म समाज - केशव चंद्र सेन (iii)। अतः सही मिलान 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3985📚General Awareness & ScienceHuman Physiology - Digestive System
Which enzyme in saliva helps in the digestion of starch?
A) Pepsin
B) Amylase
C) Trypsin
D) Lipase
Explanation
Saliva contains the enzyme salivary amylase (also known as ptyalin), which breaks down complex dietary starches into simpler sugars such as maltose. Pepsin and trypsin digest proteins, while lipase digests fats.
लार में लार एमाइलेज (टायलिन / Salivary Amylase) नामक एंजाइम होता है, जो स्टार्च को माल्टोज जैसे सरल शर्करा में तोड़ता है। पेप्सिन और ट्रिप्सिन प्रोटीन का पाचन करते हैं, जबकि लाइपेस वसा का पाचन करता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3986📚General Awareness & ScienceIndian States and Capitals
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
States/UTs:
I. Meghalaya - Imphal
II. Manipur - Shillong
III. Lakshadweep - Kavaratti
IV. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu - Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Choose the correct option:
A) III and IV only
B) I and II only
C) III only
D) All of the above
Explanation
Only pair III is correctly matched. The capital of Lakshadweep is Kavaratti. In contrast, Meghalaya's capital is Shillong (not Imphal); Manipur's capital is Imphal (not Shillong); and the capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu is Daman.
केवल युग्म III सही सुमेलित है। लक्षद्वीप की राजधानी कवरत्ती है। मेघालय की राजधानी शिलांग है (इंफाल नहीं), मणिपुर की राजधानी इंफाल है (शिलांग नहीं) तथा संयुक्त केंद्र शासित प्रदेश दादरा और नगर हवेली एवं दमन और दीव की राजधानी दमन है। अतः केवल III सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3987📚General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Schemes - Health
Which of the following are the components of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission?
I. Healthcare Professional Registry
II. Health Facility Registry
III. ABHA Number
IV. UDISE+
Choose the correct option:
A) I, II and III only
B) II, III and IV only
C) I and II only
D) All of the above
Explanation
The core building blocks of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) are ABHA Number, Healthcare Professionals Registry (HPR), and Health Facility Registry (HFR). UDISE+ (Unified District Information System for Education Plus) is a database for school education under the Ministry of Education, not part of ABDM.
आयुष्मान भारत डिजिटल मिशन (ABDM) के प्रमुख स्तंभों में आभा (ABHA) संख्या, हेल्थकेयर प्रोफेशनल रजिस्ट्री (HPR), तथा हेल्थ फैसिलिटी रजिस्ट्री (HFR) शामिल हैं। यूडाइस+ (UDISE+) शिक्षा मंत्रालय का स्कूली शिक्षा डेटाबेस है, जो इस मिशन का हिस्सा नहीं है। अतः I, II और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3988📚General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Sufism
Which Sufi saint is believed to have visited Kashmir during the period of King Suhadeva (1301-1320) and was the first saint to introduce Islam in Kashmir?
A) Hazrat Bulbul Shah
B) Lal Ded
C) Mir Syed Ali Hamadani
D) Muinuddin Chisti
Explanation
Hazrat Syed Sharaf-ud-Din Abdul Rahman, popularly known as Hazrat Bulbul Shah, was a Suhrawardi Sufi saint who visited Kashmir during the reign of King Suhadeva. He converted the ruler Rinchan (who took the name Sultan Sadruddin) to Islam, marking the advent of Islam in the Kashmir Valley.
हज़रत सैयद शरफुद्दीन अब्दुर रहमान (जिन्हें हज़रत बुलबुल शाह के नाम से जाना जाता है) राजा सहदेव के समय कश्मीर आए थे। उन्होंने कश्मीर के बौद्ध शासक रिंचन (सुल्तान सदरुद्दीन) को इस्लाम में दीक्षित किया, जिससे कश्मीर में इस्लाम का प्रसार प्रारंभ हुआ।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3989📚General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Sikh Rule
The Battle of Shopian (1819) was fought between which two powers?
A) Sikhs and Britishers
B) Mughals and Afghans
C) Sikhs and Mughals
D) Sikhs and Afghans
Explanation
The Battle of Shopian was fought in July 1819 between the Sikh Empire (led by Misr Diwan Chand and Hari Singh Nalwa under Maharaja Ranjit Singh) and the Durrani Afghan Governor Jabbar Khan. The Sikhs decisively defeated the Afghans, ending 67 years of oppressive Afghan rule in Kashmir.
जुलाई 1819 में शोपियां का ऐतिहासिक युद्ध सिख साम्राज्य (महाराजा रणजीत सिंह की सेना) और दुर्रानी अफगान गवर्नर जब्बार खान के बीच लड़ा गया था। इस युद्ध में सिखों की निर्णायक विजय हुई और कश्मीर में अफगान शासन समाप्त होकर सिख शासन स्थापित हुआ।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3990📚General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Rajatarangini
According to the historical chronicle Rajatarangini, arrange the following rulers of Kashmir in chronological order.
I. Durlabhvardhan
II. Harsha of Kashmir
III. Lalitaditya Muktapida
IV. Avantivarman
Choose the correct option:
A) I - II - III - IV
B) I - III - IV - II
C) I - IV - III - II
D) III - I - IV - II
Explanation
Chronological order according to Kalhana's Rajatarangini: I. Durlabhavardhana founded the Karkota dynasty (c. 625 CE); III. Lalitaditya Muktapida was the illustrious Karkota emperor (c. 724–760 CE); IV. Avantivarman founded the Utpala dynasty (c. 855–883 CE); II. Harsha of Kashmir ruled later during the First Lohara dynasty (1089–1101 CE). Hence, the order is I - III - IV - II.
राजतरंगिणी के अनुसार सही कालक्रम: I. दुर्लभवर्धन - कार्कोट वंश के संस्थापक (लगभग 625 ई.); III. ललितादित्य मुक्तापीड़ - कार्कोट वंश के प्रतापी राजा (लगभग 724-760 ई.); IV. अवंतिवर्मन - उत्पल वंश के संस्थापक (लगभग 855-883 ई.); II. हर्ष - लोहार वंश के शासक (1089-1101 ई.)। अतः सही क्रम I - III - IV - II है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3991📚Basic EnglishSynonyms
Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
The speaker's argument was compelling enough to persuade the audience.
A) Convincing
B) Boring
C) Criticizing
D) Harsh
Explanation
'Compelling' means evoking interest, attention, or admiration in a powerfully irresistible and convincing manner. Therefore, 'Convincing' is the most appropriate synonym.
'Compelling' का अर्थ होता है अत्यंत प्रभावशाली, अकाट्य या विश्वास दिलाने वाला (convincing)। अतः सही पर्यायवाची 'Convincing' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3992📚Basic EnglishSynonyms
Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
His explanation was ambiguous, leaving the audience confused.
A) Direct
B) Clear
C) Uncertain
D) Precise
Explanation
'Ambiguous' means open to more than one interpretation or not having one obvious meaning; doubtful or uncertain. Hence, 'Uncertain' is the correct synonym.
'Ambiguous' का अर्थ द्वयर्थी, अस्पष्ट या अनिश्चित (uncertain) होता है जिससे भ्रम की स्थिति बनती है। अतः सही पर्यायवाची 'Uncertain' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3993📚Basic EnglishSentence Rearrangement
Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.
P. cannot be addressed through isolated actions
Q. complex environmental problems
R. that require coordinated global efforts
S. but demand long-term strategic planning
A) QPSR
B) QRPS
C) PQRS
D) PSQR
Explanation
The coherent arrangement is: 'Complex environmental problems (Q) that require coordinated global efforts (R) cannot be addressed through isolated actions (P) but demand long-term strategic planning (S).' Therefore, the sequence is QRPS.
सार्थक और व्याकरण सम्मत वाक्य: 'Complex environmental problems (Q) that require coordinated global efforts (R) cannot be addressed through isolated actions (P) but demand long-term strategic planning (S).' अतः सही क्रम QRPS है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3994📚Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with the appropriate article:
I am going to _____ concert tomorrow.
A) a
B) on
C) an
D) None of the above
Explanation
'Concert' begins with a consonant sound (/k/), so the indefinite article 'a' is appropriate when referring to an unspecified concert for the first time.
Concert' व्यंजन ध्वनि (consonant sound) से शुरू होता है, इसलिए एकवचन गणनीय संज्ञा के लिए अनिश्चित उपपद 'a' का प्रयोग सही है: 'I am going to a concert tomorrow.
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3995📚Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with the appropriate article:
At _____ equator, sunrise occurs at the same time each day.
A) a
B) the
C) an
D) None of the above
Explanation
Equator' is a unique geographical feature (there is only one equator on Earth), so the definite article 'the' is mandatory: 'At the equator...
भूमध्य रेखा (equator) एक अद्वितीय भौगोलिक रेखा है, और ऐसी अद्वितीय खगोलीय/भौगोलिक इकाइयों के पूर्व निश्चित उपपद (definite article) 'the' का प्रयोग अनिवार्य होता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3996📚Basic MathematicsLinear Equations
The linear equation 3x - 11y = 0 (linear equation in two variables) has
A) Unique solution
B) Two solutions
C) Infinitely many solutions
D) No solutions
Explanation
A single linear equation in two variables represents a straight line in the Cartesian plane and contains infinitely many points that satisfy the equation. Therefore, it has infinitely many solutions.
दो चरों वाले एक रैखिक समीकरण का आलेख कार्तीय तल में एक सरल रेखा होता है, जिस पर अनंत बिंदु स्थित होते हैं। अतः इसके अनंत रूप से अनेक हल होते हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3997📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryClimate Change - COP26 Panchamrit
As of February 2026, which of the following best describes India's progress towards its 'Panchamrit' targets outlined at COP-26 held at Glasgow?
A) India has successfully achieved the target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity.
B) India has decided to shift its net-zero target from 2070 to 2047.
C) Renewable energy accounts for more than 50% of India's daily electricity production.
D) India's total non-fossil power installed capacity crossed 50% of the total installed electricity capacity of the country.
Explanation
India achieved one of its landmark Panchamrit COP-26 pledges well ahead of the 2030 deadline by having its installed capacity of non-fossil electric power exceed 50% of its total cumulative installed electricity generation capacity.
भारत ने 2030 की समय सीमा से काफी पहले ही COP-26 पंचामृत का महत्वपूर्ण लक्ष्य हासिल कर लिया, जिसके तहत देश की कुल स्थापित विद्युत क्षमता में गैर-जीवाश्म स्रोतों (सौर, पवन, पनबिजली, परमाणु आदि) की हिस्सेदारी 50% से अधिक हो गई।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3998📚Environment, Ecology & ForestrySustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
Match the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to their primary objectives.
SDG:
i. SDG-6
ii. SDG-14
iii. SDG-15
iv. SDG-7
Objectives:
a. Life below water
b. Clean water and sanitation
c. Affordable and clean energy
d. Life on land
Choose the correct option:
A) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
B) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
D) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
Explanation
Correct SDG mappings: SDG-6 is 'Clean Water and Sanitation' (b); SDG-14 is 'Life Below Water' (a); SDG-15 is 'Life on Land' (d); and SDG-7 is 'Affordable and Clean Energy' (c). Thus, i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
सही मिलान: SDG-6: स्वच्छ जल और स्वच्छता (b); SDG-14: जल के नीचे जीवन (a); SDG-15: भूमि पर जीवन (d); SDG-7: सस्ती और स्वच्छ ऊर्जा (c)। अतः सही विकल्प i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
3999📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryWildlife Protection Act, 1972
Which of the following authorities are constituted under the umbrella of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, for wildlife conservation?
I. Central Zoo Authority
II. State Board for Wildlife
III. National Tiger Conservation Authority
IV. National Coastal Zone Management Authority
Choose the correct option:
A) I and II only
B) I, II and III only
C) I, III and IV only
D) All of the above
Explanation
The Central Zoo Authority (Chapter IVA), State Board for Wildlife (Section 6), and National Tiger Conservation Authority (Chapter IVB) are statutory bodies created directly under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. In contrast, the National Coastal Zone Management Authority (NCZMA) is constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Hence, I, II, and III only.
केंद्रीय चिड़ियाघर प्राधिकरण (अध्याय IVA), राज्य वन्यजीव बोर्ड (धारा 6), और राष्ट्रीय बाघ संरक्षण प्राधिकरण (अध्याय IVB) तीनों वन्यजीव संरक्षण अधिनियम 1972 के तहत गठित हैं। जबकि राष्ट्रीय तटीय क्षेत्र प्रबंधन प्राधिकरण (NCZMA) पर्यावरण संरक्षण अधिनियम 1986 के तहत गठित है। अतः केवल I, II और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4000📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryAgriculture and Land Use of J&K
As per Land Use Statistics (2022-23), published by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, what is the percentage of 'Net Sown Area' to the 'Total Reported Area' in Jammu and Kashmir?
A) 19.01%
B) 18.4%
C) More than 20%
D) Less than 17%
Explanation
According to the official Land Use Statistics (2022-23) from the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, the Net Sown Area in Jammu and Kashmir stands at approximately 18.4% of the Total Reported Area for land utilization.
कृषि एवं किसान कल्याण मंत्रालय के आधिकारिक भूमि उपयोग सांख्यिकी (2022-23) के अनुसार, जम्मू और कश्मीर में कुल रिपोर्ट किए गए भौगोलिक क्षेत्रफल में शुद्ध बोया गया क्षेत्र (Net Sown Area) लगभग 18.4% है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4001📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryProtected Areas and Bird Sanctuaries
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Bird Sanctuary - States:
I. Atapaka Bird Sanctuary - Andhra Pradesh
II. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary - Goa
III. Attiveri Bird Sanctuary - Karnataka
Choose the correct option:
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I and III only
D) All of the above
Explanation
All pairs are correctly matched: I. Atapaka Bird Sanctuary is located in the Kolleru Lake wetland in Andhra Pradesh; II. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is an estuarine mangrove habitat on Chorao Island, Goa; III. Attiveri Bird Sanctuary is located in Uttara Kannada district, Karnataka.
सभी युग्म सही सुमेलित हैं: I. अटापाका पक्षी अभयारण्य - कोलेरू झील, आंध्र प्रदेश; II. सलीम अली पक्षी अभयारण्य - चोराव द्वीप, गोवा; III. अत्तिवेरी पक्षी अभयारण्य - उत्तर कन्नड़ जिला, कर्नाटक। अतः सही विकल्प 'उपरोक्त सभी' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4002🔬General ScienceBiology - Cell Structure and Organelles
Which of the following statements about cells is NOT true?
A) Plasma membrane is selective permeable that regulates the movement of nutrients into and out of the cell.
B) Cell interior contains many specialized membrane-bound organelles.
C) Mitochondria are organelles responsible for energy transactions needed for cell
D) Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles responsible for protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells.
Explanation
Ribosomes are non-membrane-bound ribonucleoprotein particles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Statements A, B, and C are correct, while statement D is false because ribosomes lack a surrounding membrane.
राइबोसोम झिल्ली-रहित (non-membrane-bound) अंगक होते हैं जो प्रोटीन संश्लेषण का कार्य करते हैं। कथन D गलत है क्योंकि इसमें राइबोसोम को झिल्ली-बद्ध बताया गया है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4003🔬General ScienceChemistry - Metals and Acids
Which of the following metals produce hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute nitric acid?
A) Copper (Cu)
B) Zinc (Zn)
C) Magnesium (Mg)
D) All of the above
Explanation
Nitric acid (HNO₃) is a strong oxidizing agent that oxidizes hydrogen to water rather than releasing H₂ gas with most metals. However, very dilute nitric acid (1-2%) reacts with Magnesium (Mg) and Manganese (Mn) to liberate hydrogen gas.
नाइट्रिक अम्ल एक प्रबल ऑक्सीकारक है, जो अधिकांश धातुओं के साथ हाइड्रोजन गैस को जल में ऑक्सीकृत कर देता है। केवल मैग्नीशियम (Mg) और मैंगनीज (Mn) ही अत्यंत तनु नाइट्रिक अम्ल के साथ अभिक्रिया करके हाइड्रोजन गैस मुक्त करते हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4004🔬General SciencePhysics - Sources of Energy
Which of the following statements about conventional sources of energy and their improvements is true?
A) Thermal power plants cannot exceed 35% efficiency, even with advanced boiler technology.
B) Supercritical and ultra-supercritical boilers allow coal power plants to achieve higher efficiency.
C) Hydroelectric power plants cannot improve energy output once the dam is built.
D) Efficiency of petroleum refining is solely determined by the quality of crude oil, not technology.
Explanation
Supercritical and ultra-supercritical (USC) boiler technologies operate at pressures and temperatures above the thermodynamic critical point of water (22.1 MPa, 374 °C), significantly enhancing net cycle efficiency to 42-45%+ while cutting fuel consumption and emissions.
सुपरक्रिटिकल और अल्ट्रा-सुपरक्रिटिकल बॉयलर जल के क्रांतिक बिंदु से अधिक तापमान और दबाव पर काम करते हैं, जिससे ताप विद्युत संयंत्रों की तापीय दक्षता 42-45% या उससे अधिक तक बढ़ जाती है और उत्सर्जन में कमी आती है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4005🔬General ScienceChemistry - Properties of Metals and Non-metals
Match Column-I with Column-II
Column - I:
i. Cesium
ii. Zinc
iii. Iodine
iv. Graphite
Column - II:
a. A non-metal that is lustrous
b. A metal that is brittle
c. A metal that has a low melting point
d. A non-metal that is a good conductor of electricity
Choose the correct option:
A) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
B) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
C) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
D) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
Explanation
Matches: i. Cesium is a metal with a very low melting point (28.5 °C) that melts on human body heat (c); ii. Zinc is a metal that is brittle at ordinary temperature (b); iii. Iodine is an exception among non-metals because it is lustrous (a); iv. Graphite (allotrope of carbon) is a non-metal that conducts electricity due to delocalized electrons (d). Hence, i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d.
सही मिलान: i. सीज़ियम - अत्यंत कम गलनांक वाली धातु (c); ii. जिंक - सामान्य तापमान पर भंगुर धातु (b); iii. आयोडीन - चमकदार अधातु (a); iv. ग्रेफाइट - विद्युत की सुचालक अधातु (d)। अतः सही विकल्प i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4006🔬General ScienceBiology - Modes of Nutrition
Which of the following organisms exhibits parasitic nutrition?
A) Nitrosomonas
B) Amoeba
C) Plasmodium
D) Paramecium
Explanation
Plasmodium is a protozoan endoparasite that causes malaria in humans and relies on parasitic nutrition by feeding on the nutrients of its host organisms (humans and female Anopheles mosquitoes). Amoeba and Paramecium exhibit holozoic nutrition, while Nitrosomonas is chemoautotrophic.
प्लास्मोडियम एक अंतःपरजीवी (endoparasite) प्रोटोजोआ है जो मलेरिया उत्पन्न करता है और पोषक (host) जीवों से पोषण प्राप्त करके परजीवी पोषण प्रदर्शित करता है। अमीबा और पैरामीशियम में प्राणीसमभोजी (holozoic) पोषण होता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4007🔬General ScienceBiology - Plant Physiology and Transport
Which of the following statements about transportation of water, food and minerals in plants is NOT correct?
A) The ascent of sap in tall trees primarily occurs due to transpiration pull, cohesion, and adhesion forces rather than root pressure alone.
B) Xylem transports water and dissolved minerals mainly in an upward direction, while phloem can transport food both upward and downward.
C) Phloem transport requires metabolic energy, whereas xylem transport is largely a passive process.
D) Minerals absorbed by roots move through phloem vessels to reach the leaves where they are utilized for photosynthesis.
Explanation
Statement D is NOT correct because minerals absorbed from the soil by roots are transported to leaves via xylem vessels along with the water stream (ascent of sap), not through phloem vessels (which translocate photosynthesized organic solutes like sucrose).
कथन D गलत है क्योंकि जड़ों द्वारा अवशोषित खनिज जाइलम वाहिकाओं (xylem vessels) के माध्यम से जल के साथ पत्तियों तक पहुँचते हैं, फ्लोएम द्वारा नहीं (फ्लोएम पत्तियों में बने शर्करा और भोजन का संवहन करता है)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4008🔬General ScienceBiology - Excretion in Plants and Animals
Which of the following statements about excretion in plants and animals is correct?
A) Plants lack specialized excretory organs, so all metabolic wastes are removed exclusively through stomata by diffusion.
B) Plants assimilate ammonia into amino acids and can store waste in leaves, bark, and vacuoles.
C) In mammals, the primary nitrogenous waste is uric acid, which requires minimal water for excretion compared to ammonia.
D) Animals and plants both rely mainly on transpiration as their primary mechanism of excretion.
Explanation
Statement B is correct: Plants convert inorganic ammonia into amino acids and sequester metabolic wastes in cellular vacuoles, heartwood, old xylem (as gums and resins), and in leaves and bark that are periodically shed. In mammals, the main nitrogenous waste is urea (not uric acid).
कथन B सही है: पौधों में अमोनिया का स्वांगीकरण अमीनो अम्लों में होता है और अपशिष्ट उत्पादों को पत्तियों, छाल, रसधानियों और पुराने जाइलम (गोंद और रेजिन) में संग्रहित किया जाता है जो समय-समय पर अलग हो जाते हैं। स्तनधारियों का मुख्य अपशिष्ट यूरिया है (यूरिक अम्ल नहीं)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4009📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryEnvironmental Pollution and Toxicology
A city is located near a river and an industrial area. Over time, scientists observed the following:
i. Fish in the river showed bioaccumulation of a persistent chemical that caused neurological disorders in humans who consumed them.
ii. The air contained high levels of a gas that reacts with water to form acid rain, damaging monuments and crops.
iii. Soil had elevated heavy metal concentrations, leading to reduced fertility and toxicity in plants.
On the basis of the given observations, pair each cause (i, ii, iii) with the corresponding pollutant (a, b, c) and answer the correct statement:
a) Mercury
b) Sulfur dioxide
c) Lead
A) i -> a, ii -> b, iii -> c
B) i -> a, ii -> c, iii -> b
C) i -> b, ii -> c, iii -> a
D) i -> c, ii -> b, iii -> a
Explanation
Matching: i. Bioaccumulation in aquatic fish causing severe neurological disorders (Minamata syndrome) is caused by Mercury (a); ii. Gaseous emissions producing sulfuric acid precipitation (acid rain) correspond to Sulfur dioxide (b); iii. Toxic heavy metal accumulation in roadside and industrial soil is associated with Lead (c). Hence, i -> a, ii -> b, iii -> c.
सही मिलान: i. मछलियों में जैव संचय और न्यूरोलॉजिकल विकार (मिनीमाता रोग) - पारा (Mercury, a); ii. जल के साथ मिलकर अम्ल वर्षा करने वाली गैस - सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड (b); iii. मृदा में विषाक्तता पैदा करने वाली भारी धातु - सीसा (Lead, c)। अतः सही विकल्प i -> a, ii -> b, iii -> c है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4010📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryEcosystem - Food Chain and 10% Law
Consider the following jumbled food chain:
Grasshopper, Grass, Hawk, Frog, Snake
If the energy content of the frog is x kJ, the energy available to the primary consumer is
A) 10x kJ
B) x kJ
C) x/10 kJ
D) x/100 kJ
Explanation
The correct trophic order of the food chain is: Grass (Producer) -> Grasshopper (Primary Consumer) -> Frog (Secondary Consumer) -> Snake (Tertiary Consumer) -> Hawk (Top Carnivore). According to Lindeman's 10% Law, only 10% of energy transfers from one trophic level to the next: Energy at Frog = 10% of Energy at Grasshopper => x = 0.1 × E(Grasshopper) => E(Grasshopper) = 10x kJ.
खाद्य श्रृंखला का सही क्रम है: घास (उत्पादक) -> टिड्डा (प्राथमिक उपभोक्ता) -> मेंढक (द्वितीयक उपभोक्ता) -> सांप (तृतीयक उपभोक्ता) -> बाज। लिंडेमैन के 10% नियम के अनुसार, मेंढक को प्राप्त ऊर्जा टिड्डे की ऊर्जा का 10% है: x = 0.1 × E(टिड्डा) => टिड्डे (प्राथमिक उपभोक्ता) की ऊर्जा = 10x kJ होगी।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4011🔬General ScienceBiology - Mendelian Genetics
Ali was breeding two Pisum sativum plants for plant height and seed shape. He noticed the following in the offspring:
All plants were Tall
Seed shape ratio: 3 (Round) : 1 (Wrinkled)
How many possible combinations (unordered) of parental genotypes could produce this result?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Explanation
For seed shape to exhibit a 3:1 phenotypic ratio (Round : Wrinkled), both parents must be heterozygous (Rr × Rr). For plant height, all offspring must be phenotypically Tall. The crosses for height that yield 100% tall offspring are: (1) TT × TT, (2) TT × Tt, and (3) TT × tt. Combining these with Rr × Rr yields exactly 3 unordered parental genotype pairs: {TTRr, TTRr}, {TTRr, TtRr}, and {TTRr, ttRr}.
बीज के आकार में 3:1 अनुपात प्राप्त करने के लिए दोनों जनकों का Rr × Rr होना अनिवार्य है। ऊँचाई में 100% लंबे पौधे देने वाले जनकों के 3 संयोजन संभव हैं: (1) TT × TT, (2) TT × Tt, तथा (3) TT × tt। अतः दोनों लक्षणों को मिलाकर जनकीय जीनोटाइप के कुल 3 संभावित संयोजन {TTRr, TTRr}, {TTRr, TtRr}, और {TTRr, ttRr} बनते हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4012🔬General ScienceBiology - Plant Reproduction and Meiosis
Raghav is trying to understand when plant cells are haploid (N) or diploid (2N) during sexual reproduction. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) The microspore and megaspore are diploid (2N) cells that undergo meiosis, and the fertilized zygote remains haploid (N).
B) The microspore and megaspore are haploid (N) cells formed after meiosis, and fertilization restores the diploid (2N) number in the zygote.
C) The pollen and ovule mother cells are haploid (N) before meiosis and form diploid gametes after meiosis.
D) The pollen and ovule mother cells are diploid (2N), and meiosis produces haploid gametes, but fertilization does not restore the diploid number.
Explanation
In angiosperms, diploid (2N) microspore mother cells and megaspore mother cells undergo meiosis (reduction division) to form haploid (N) microspores and megaspores. Later, the fusion of haploid male and female gametes during syngamy (fertilization) restores the diploid (2N) chromosome complement in the zygote.
द्विगुणित मातृ कोशिकाओं में अर्धसूत्रीविभाजन के फलस्वरूप अगुणित (N) लघुबीजाणु और गुरुबीजाणु बनते हैं। इसके बाद निषेचन (syngamy) में अगुणित नर व मादा युग्मकों के संलयन से युग्मनज (zygote) में पुनः द्विगुणित (2N) संख्या बहाल हो जाती है। अतः कथन B सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4013🔬General ScienceBiology - Asexual Reproduction
Raghav was confused about how plants reproduce asexually. His teacher explained methods like Budding and Fragmentation, but Raghav wasn't sure how to tell them apart. Which of the following best distinguishes the two processes?
A) In budding, a small protrusion forms on the parent and may stay attached before detaching, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into pieces, and each piece grows into a new organism.
B) In budding, offspring develop from specialized reproductive cells, whereas in fragmentation, the parent divides under environmental stress to form new organisms.
C) In budding, a small part of the parent detaches and grows into an independent organism, whereas in fragmentation, the parent splits into fragments that grow into independent organisms.
D) In budding, the offspring remain attached to the parent for a while, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into two parts that grow into independent organisms.
Explanation
In budding (e.g., Yeast, Hydra), a distinct localized outgrowth or bulb-like projection (bud) develops on the parent body through cell division, which may mature and detach. In fragmentation (e.g., Spirogyra), the mature multicellular organism simply breaks into two or more distinct pieces/fragments, and each fragment regenerates into a complete new individual.
मुकुलन में जनक जीव के शरीर पर एक उभार या कली (मुकुल) निकलती है जो वृद्धि के बाद अलग होकर नया जीव बनाती है। विखंडन (जैसे स्पाइरोगाइरा में) में जीव का शरीर परिपक्व होकर टुकड़ों में टूट जाता है और प्रत्येक टुकड़ा वृद्धि करके पूर्ण जीव बन जाता है। अतः कथन A सही विभेद करता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4014🔬General ScienceBiology - Biological Classification
Which of the following correctly matches the organism with its classification group?
I. Rose - Monocotyledon
II. Frog - Amphibian
III. Mango - Gymnosperm
IV. Shark - Reptile
Choose the correct match:
A) only II
B) Only I and II
C) Only II and IV
D) All of the above
Explanation
Only pair II is correctly matched: Frog is an Amphibian. In contrast: Rose is a Dicotyledonous angiosperm (not Monocotyledon); Mango is an Angiosperm/Dicot (not Gymnosperm); and Shark is a cartilaginous fish / Chondrichthyes (not a Reptile).
केवल युग्म II सही है: मेंढक एक उभयचर (Amphibian) है। गुलाब द्विबीजपत्री आवृतबीजी है (एकबीजपत्री नहीं); आम आवृतबीजी है (जिम्नोस्पर्म नहीं); और शार्क उपास्थियुक्त मछली है (सरीसृप नहीं)। अतः केवल II सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4015📚General Awareness & ScienceWorld Geography - Explorers and Discoveries
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Geographical Discoveries - Discoverers:
I. Cape of Good Hope - Vasco De Gama
II. Solar System - Kepler
III. Australia - James Cook
Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and III only
D) All of the above
Explanation
Only pair III is correctly matched: Captain James Cook charted and claimed the eastern coast of Australia in 1770. In contrast: Cape of Good Hope was discovered by Portuguese explorer Bartolomeu Dias in 1488 (Vasco da Gama was the first to sail past it to India in 1497); and the heliocentric model of the Solar System was discovered by Nicolaus Copernicus (Kepler discovered the laws of planetary motion).
केवल युग्म III सही सुमेलित है: कैप्टन जेम्स कुक ने 1770 में ऑस्ट्रेलिया के पूर्वी तट की खोज व मानचित्रण किया था। केप ऑफ गुड होप की खोज बार Bartolomeu Dias (बार्थोलोम्यू डियास) ने 1488 में की थी और सौरमंडल के सूर्य-केंद्रीय सिद्धांत की खोज निकोलस कोपरनिकस ने की थी (केप्लर ने ग्रहों की गति के नियम दिए थे)। अतः केवल III सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4016📚General Awareness & ScienceScience and Technology - Space Missions
Which of the following Space Missions are successfully conducted by ISRO to develop and demonstrate the technology needed for the docking and undocking of two small spacecraft in a low-Earth circular orbit?
A) Aditya L-1
B) Gaganyaan
C) NISAR
D) SPADEX
Explanation
SPADEX (Space Docking Experiment) is an ISRO twin-spacecraft mission specifically designed to develop and demonstrate autonomous rendezvous, docking, and undocking technologies in low-Earth orbit, a critical prerequisite for human spaceflight, satellite servicing, and lunar sample return.
इसरो का स्पैडेक्स (SPADEX - Space Docking Experiment) मिशन अंतरिक्ष में दो अंतरिक्ष यानों को स्वायत्त रूप से जोड़ने (docking) और अलग करने (undocking) की तकनीक का परीक्षण और प्रदर्शन करने के लिए विकसित किया गया है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4017📚General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs - Padma Awards 2026
Which of the following personalities of Jammu and Kashmir was recently awarded Padma Shri (2026) for his/her social work?
A) Omar Abdullah
B) Ghulam Nabi Azad
C) Rehman Rahi
D) Brij Lal Bhat
Explanation
Brij Lal Bhat from Jammu and Kashmir was conferred the prestigious Padma Shri in 2026 in recognition of his distinguished humanitarian service and lifelong grassroots social work in the region.
जम्मू और कश्मीर के प्रसिद्ध समाजसेवी बृज लाल भट को समाज सेवा और मानवतावादी कार्यों के क्षेत्र में उनके उत्कृष्ट योगदान के लिए वर्ष 2026 में पद्म श्री सम्मान से सम्मानित किया गया।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4018📚Basic ReasoningLetter Series
Fill in the blanks with appropriate letters to complete the following letter series:
a _ d _ k d a _ d f k _ a _ d f k d
A) c, f, c, f, c
B) c, f, c, d, c
C) c, f, d, f, c
D) c, f, c, d, f
Explanation
The repeating 6-letter block is 'a c d f k d':
1. a [c] d [f] k d
2. a [c] d f k [d]
3. a [c] d f k d
The required letters to fill the blanks are c, f, c, d, c.
6 अक्षरों का पुनरावर्ती पैटर्न 'a c d f k d' है:
1. a [c] d [f] k d
2. a [c] d f k [d]
3. a [c] d f k d
रिक्त स्थानों में भरे जाने वाले अक्षर 'c, f, c, d, c' हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4019📚Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding
In a certain language, BRAIN is coded as TPKDC, then in that language, MINDS will be coded as
A) UPOKF
B) NPOKF
C) TPOKF
D) ZPOKF
Explanation
In BRAIN, each letter is shifted by +2 (B->D, R->T, A->C, I->K, N->P) and rearranged by placing the 2nd letter first (T), 5th second (P), 4th third (K), 1st fourth (D), 3rd fifth (C) giving TPKDC. For MINDS: shifting by +2 gives M->O, I->K, N->P, D->F, S->U. Placing the 5th letter first (U), 3rd second (P), 1st third (O), 2nd fourth (K), 4th fifth (F) gives UPOKF.
BRAIN के सभी अक्षरों में +2 जोड़ने पर {D, T, C, K, P} प्राप्त होता है और उन्हें TPKDC के रूप में पुनर्व्यवस्थित किया जाता है। MINDS में प्रत्येक अक्षर में +2 जोड़ने पर M+2=O, I+2=K, N+2=P, D+2=F, S+2=U आता है, जिसे व्यवस्थित करने पर UPOKF प्राप्त होता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4020📚Basic MathematicsSpeed, Distance and Time
Three boats, A, B and C, start from the same jetty and move in the same direction along a river. Their speeds in still water are 18 km/h, 24 km/h and 36 km/h, respectively. Boat B starts 1 hour after Boat A. If Boat B and Boat C overtake Boat A at the same time, how many hours after Boat B did Boat C start?
A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 3 hours
D) Cannot be determined
Explanation
Let t be the time taken by Boat B to overtake Boat A. Boat A has travelled for (t + 1) hours. Distance: 18(t + 1) = 24t => 18 = 6t => t = 3 hours. So B travels for 3 hours, meaning Boat A travelled for 3 + 1 = 4 hours, and overtaking distance = 18 × 4 = 72 km. Boat C also covers 72 km at 36 km/h, taking 72 / 36 = 2 hours. Since the overtake happens 4 hours after A started, Boat C must have started 4 - 2 = 2 hours after Boat A. Since Boat B started 1 hour after A, Boat C started 2 - 1 = 1 hour after Boat B.
माना नाव B को A से आगे निकलने में t घंटे लगते हैं। A कुल (t + 1) घंटे चलती है। दूरी: 18(t + 1) = 24t => t = 3 घंटे। अतः A कुल 4 घंटे चलती है और कुल दूरी = 72 किमी है। C को 72 किमी तय करने में 72 / 36 = 2 घंटे लगते हैं। चूंकि ओवरटेक A के चलने के 4 घंटे बाद होता है, अतः C ने A के चलने के 2 घंटे बाद प्रस्थान किया। चूंकि B ने A के 1 घंटे बाद प्रस्थान किया था, अतः C ने B के 1 घंटे बाद प्रस्थान किया।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4021📚Modern Indian HistoryLord Lytton & Nationalist Upsurge
Which of the following administrative measures taken by Lord Lytton was a factor in the rise of Indian Nationalism?
Explanation
Lord Lytton served as Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880. His reactionary administration enacted the Vernacular Press Act (1878) to muzzle Indian language newspapers, the Arms Act (1878), reduced the maximum age for ICS recruitment from 21 to 19, and held the lavish Delhi Durbar during the devastating 1876-78 famine. These repressive measures galvanized educated Indians and greatly accelerated the rise of organized nationalism.
लॉर्ड लिटन 1876 से 1880 तक भारत का वायसराय रहा। उसके प्रतिगामी शासनकाल में भारतीय भाषाई समाचार पत्रों को दबाने के लिए 'वर्नाक्युलर प्रेस एक्ट (1878)', 'आर्म्स एक्ट (1878)', आईसीएस परीक्षा की अधिकतम आयु 21 से घटाकर 19 वर्ष करना और अकाल के समय भव्य दिल्ली दरबार का आयोजन जैसे कदम उठाए गए, जिन्होंने भारतीय राष्ट्रवाद के उदय में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4022📚Modern Indian HistoryModerate Phase of INC
What was/were the primary political demands of the Moderates during the early phase of the Indian National Congress?
Explanation
During the Moderate phase (1885–1905), Congress leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Pherozeshah Mehta pursued constitutional agitation. Their primary political demands included expansion and reform of the Imperial and Provincial Legislative Councils with greater elected Indian representation, and the Indianisation of higher administrative and Civil Services (holding simultaneous examinations in India and England).
उदारवादी चरण (1885-1905) के दौरान कांग्रेस नेताओं (जैसे दादाभाई नौरोजी, गोपाल कृष्ण गोखले) की प्रमुख राजनीतिक मांगों में विधान परिषदों का विस्तार एवं सुधार (अधिक भारतीय प्रतिनिधित्व तथा बजट पर चर्चा का अधिकार) और सिविल सेवाओं का भारतीयकरण (भारत और इंग्लैंड में एक साथ परीक्षा आयोजित करना) शामिल था।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4023📚Modern Indian HistoryShimla Deputation & Formation of Muslim League
Why was the Shimla deputation (1906) prominent for the rise of the Muslim League in India?
Explanation
On October 1, 1906, a delegation of 35 aristocratic Muslim leaders led by the Aga Khan met Viceroy Lord Minto at Shimla (the Shimla Deputation). They demanded separate electorates and weighted representation for Muslims in municipal and legislative bodies. Lord Minto gave them a sympathetic reception and positive assurance, which directly encouraged the establishment of the All India Muslim League in Dhaka in December 1906 and culminated in the Indian Councils Act 1909.
1 अक्टूबर 1906 को आगा खान के नेतृत्व में 35 प्रमुख मुस्लिम नेताओं का एक प्रतिनिधिमंडल शिमला में वायसराय लॉर्ड मिंटो से मिला। उन्होंने विधान परिषदों में मुसलमानों के लिए पृथक निर्वाचक मंडल (Separate Electorates) और उनकी संख्या से अधिक प्रतिनिधित्व की मांग की। लॉर्ड मिंटो ने इस पर सकारात्मक आश्वासन दिया, जिसने दिसंबर 1906 में ढाका में ऑल इंडिया मुस्लिम लीग की स्थापना की नींव रखी।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4024📚Modern Indian HistoryKhilafat Movement
Who were the two primary brothers who founded the 'All India Khilafat Committee' in 1919?
Explanation
The All India Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in 1919 under the leadership of the 'Ali Brothers'—Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar and Maulana Shaukat Ali—along with prominent leaders like Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Hasrat Mohani, and Hakim Ajmal Khan, to defend the Ottoman Caliphate against British dismemberment.
1919 में बंबई में 'अखिल भारतीय खिलाफत कमेटी' की स्थापना 'अली बंधुओं' - मौलाना मोहम्मद अली और मौलाना शौकत अली - के नेतृत्व में की गई थी। उनके साथ मौलाना अबुल कलाम आजाद और हसरत मोहानी जैसे नेता भी शामिल थे, जिनका उद्देश्य प्रथम विश्व युद्ध के बाद तुर्की के खलीफा के अधिकारों और प्रतिष्ठा की रक्षा करना था।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4025📚Modern Indian HistoryQuit India Movement & Parallel Governments
In which of the following places was a 'Parallel Government' (Prati Sarkar) formed by Nana Patil during the Quit India Movement?
Explanation
During the Quit India Movement in 1942–43, Nana Patil, along with leaders like Y.B. Chavan and Kisan Veer, established a famous parallel government ('Prati Sarkar') in Satara (Maharashtra). It functioned effectively for nearly three years, running volunteer corps (Toofan Sena) and people's courts (Nyayadan Mandals). (Ballia in UP was led by Chittu Pandey; Tamluk in Bengal was led by Satish Chandra Samanta).
भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन (1942) के दौरान महाराष्ट्र के सतारा में नाना पाटिल के नेतृत्व में 'प्रति सरकार' (समानांतर सरकार) की स्थापना की गई थी। यह सबसे लंबे समय तक चलने वाली समानांतर सरकार थी, जिसमें 'तूफान सेना' और जन-अदालतों (न्यायदान मंडल) का संचालन किया गया।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4026📚Modern Indian HistoryIndian Independence Act 1947
On which of the following dates the 'Indian Independence Act-1947' was given the British Royal Assent, thereby giving legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan?
Explanation
The Indian Independence Bill was introduced in the British Parliament on July 4, 1947, and received the Royal Assent from King George VI on July 18, 1947. The Act provided for the partition of British India and the creation of two independent Dominions, India and Pakistan, with effect from August 15, 1947.
भारतीय स्वतंत्रता विधेयक 4 जुलाई 1947 को ब्रिटिश संसद में पेश किया गया था और 18 जुलाई 1947 को इसे ब्रिटिश सम्राट (जॉर्ज षष्ठम) की शाही स्वीकृति (Royal Assent) प्राप्त हुई। इस अधिनियम ने 15 अगस्त 1947 से दो स्वतंत्र डोमिनियन - भारत और पाकिस्तान - के सृजन का प्रावधान किया।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4027📚Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Duties
Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) and select the INCORRECT statements-
I. These Duties were part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950.
II. These Duties can always be enforced through Writ jurisdiction in the court of law.
III. Promoting Scientific temper and spirit of enquiry is one of the Fundamental Duties.
Explanation
Statements I and II are incorrect:
- Statement I is INCORRECT: Fundamental Duties were not part of the original 1950 Constitution; they were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
- Statement II is INCORRECT: Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable; unlike Fundamental Rights, they cannot be enforced directly through writ jurisdiction in the courts.
- Statement III is CORRECT: Article 51A(h) states that it is the duty of every citizen to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
Hence, statements I and II are incorrect.
कथन I और II गलत हैं:
- कथन I गलत है: मौलिक कर्तव्य मूल संविधान (1950) का हिस्सा नहीं थे; इन्हें स्वर्ण सिंह समिति की सिफारिश पर 42वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1976 द्वारा जोड़ा गया था।
- कथन II गलत है: मौलिक कर्तव्य गैर-न्यायोचित (non-justiciable) हैं, इन्हें सीधे रिट क्षेत्राधिकार के माध्यम से लागू नहीं कराया जा सकता।
- कथन III सही है: अनुच्छेद 51A(h) के तहत वैज्ञानिक दृष्टिकोण, मानववाद तथा ज्ञानार्जन व सुधार की भावना का विकास करना मूल कर्तव्य है।
अतः गलत कथन I और II हैं (विकल्प C)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4028📚Indian Polity & ConstitutionTypes of Democracy
Which of the following statements are correct about Direct democracy and Indirect democracy?
I. In Indirect democracy, people themselves vote on every legislation.
II. Recall, Initiative and Plebiscite are the instruments of Direct democracy.
III. Gram sabhas in the villages are the classic example of the functioning of Direct democracy in India.
IV. Direct democracy is also known as Representative democracy, where people elect their representative leaders to make laws.
Explanation
- Statement I is FALSE: In direct democracy (not indirect), citizens directly vote on legislation. In indirect democracy, elected representatives vote on laws.
- Statement II is TRUE: Referendum, Initiative, Recall, and Plebiscite are the four classic devices of direct democracy.
- Statement III is TRUE: Gram Sabhas in India embody direct democracy because all registered adult village electors directly deliberate and decide on village plans and welfare.
- Statement IV is FALSE: Indirect democracy (not direct democracy) is known as Representative democracy.
Therefore, statements II and III only are correct.
- कथन I गलत है: प्रत्यक्ष लोकतंत्र (न कि अप्रत्यक्ष) में नागरिक सीधे कानूनों पर मतदान करते हैं। अप्रत्यक्ष में निर्वाचित प्रतिनिधि मतदान करते हैं।
- कथन II सही है: रिकॉल (Recall), इनीशिएटिव (Initiative), प्लेबिसिट (Plebiscite) और रेफरेंडम प्रत्यक्ष लोकतंत्र के उपकरण हैं।
- कथन III सही है: ग्राम सभा प्रत्यक्ष लोकतंत्र का प्रत्यक्ष उदाहरण है जहाँ ग्राम पंचायत के सभी वयस्क मतदाता सीधे बैठकों में भाग लेते हैं।
- कथन IV गलत है: अप्रत्यक्ष लोकतंत्र को 'प्रतिनिधि लोकतंत्र' कहा जाता है।
अतः केवल कथन II और III सही हैं (विकल्प B)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4029📚Indian Polity & ConstitutionPresidential Elections in India
Identify the INCORRECT statements about the Presidential Elections in India-
I. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha do not participate in the election of the President, but participate in the impeachment process.
II. Elected members of the State Legislative Councils also vote in the Election of the President, if the state has a bicameral legislature.
III. According to Article 55(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Presidential Election is conducted by the secret ballot.
IV. The value of each MLA's vote is the same across all states to ensure the principle of "One member, One vote".
Explanation
Statements II and IV are INCORRECT:
- Statement I is CORRECT: Under Article 54, nominated MPs do not vote in the presidential election; however, under Article 61, nominated MPs do participate in presidential impeachment.
- Statement II is INCORRECT: Members of State Legislative Councils (MLCs)—whether elected or nominated—do NOT participate in presidential elections.
- Statement III is CORRECT: Article 55(3) mandates proportional representation with single transferable vote and voting by secret ballot.
- Statement IV is INCORRECT: The value of an MLA's vote is NOT equal across all states; it is calculated using the formula: (State Population) / (Total Elected MLAs × 1000), meaning MLAs from different states have vastly different vote values (e.g., UP MLA vote value is 208, whereas Sikkim MLA vote value is 7).
Therefore, the incorrect statements are II and IV.
कथन II और IV गलत हैं:
- कथन I सही है: मनोनीत सांसद राष्ट्रपति चुनाव में भाग नहीं लेते, लेकिन महाभियोग (अनुच्छेद 61) में भाग लेते हैं।
- कथन II गलत है: राज्य विधान परिषदों (MLC) के सदस्य (चाहे निर्वाचित हों या मनोनीत) राष्ट्रपति के चुनाव में वोट नहीं डालते।
- कथन III सही है: अनुच्छेद 55(3) के तहत राष्ट्रपति का चुनाव एकल संक्रमणीय मत द्वारा आनुपातिक प्रतिनिधित्व और गुप्त मतदान द्वारा होता है।
- कथन IV गलत है: प्रत्येक राज्य के विधायक (MLA) के वोट का मूल्य अलग-अलग होता है, जो उस राज्य की जनसंख्या और विधायकों की संख्या पर निर्भर करता है (जैसे उत्तर प्रदेश में 208, सिक्किम में 7)।
अतः गलत कथन II और IV हैं (विकल्प D)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4030📚Indian Polity & ConstitutionEighth Schedule Languages
Identify the correct statements about the languages in Schedule Eighth of the Indian Constitution-
I. Rajasthani is one of the 22 languages currently included in the Eighth Schedule.
II. The languages - Bodo, Dogri and Maithili were added in the Schedule by the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act.
Explanation
Both statements are false:
- Statement I is FALSE: Rajasthani is NOT among the 22 languages recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
- Statement II is FALSE: The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. The languages Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali (BDMS) were added by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
Hence, Neither I nor II is correct.
दोनों कथन गलत हैं:
- कथन I गलत है: राजस्थानी भाषा आठवीं अनुसूची में शामिल 22 आधिकारिक भाषाओं में शामिल नहीं है।
- कथन II गलत है: 71वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1992 द्वारा कोंकणी, मणिपुरी और नेपाली को जोड़ा गया था। बोडो, डोगरी, मैथिली और संथाली को 92वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 2003 द्वारा जोड़ा गया था।
अतः सही उत्तर 'न तो I और न ही II' (विकल्प D) है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4031📚Indian Polity & ConstitutionOfficial Language & Linguistic Minorities
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Article 343 of the Indian Constitution designates Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.
II. According to Article 350-B of the Indian Constitution, a special officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India.
Explanation
Both statements are correct:
- Statement I is CORRECT: Article 343(1) of the Indian Constitution states: 'The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.'
- Statement II is CORRECT: Article 350-B(1) (inserted by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956) provides that 'There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President.'
दोनों कथन सही हैं:
- कथन I सही है: भारतीय संविधान का अनुच्छेद 343(1) स्पष्ट करता है कि देवनागरी लिपि में हिंदी संघ की राजभाषा होगी।
- कथन II सही है: 7वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1956 द्वारा जोड़े गए अनुच्छेद 350-B(1) के अनुसार, भाषाई अल्पसंख्यकों के लिए एक विशेष अधिकारी की नियुक्ति भारत के राष्ट्रपति द्वारा की जाती है।
अतः I और II दोनों सही हैं (विकल्प C)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4032📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsSolar System & Astronomy
Which of the following statements about the solar system are correct?
I. The planet Venus is also known as 'the Morning Star'.
II. The asteroid belt, a region of rocky debris, lies between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
III. The Kuiper belt, a region of icy bodies, lies between the orbits of Planets Saturn and Uranus.
Explanation
- Statement I is CORRECT: Venus is commonly called the 'Morning Star' and 'Evening Star' because of its high reflectivity and visibility near sunrise and sunset.
- Statement II is CORRECT: The Main Asteroid Belt is located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
- Statement III is INCORRECT: The Kuiper Belt is a circumstellar disc of icy bodies located beyond the orbit of Neptune (approx. 30 to 50 AU from the Sun), NOT between Saturn and Uranus.
Therefore, statements I and II only are correct.
- कथन I सही है: शुक्र ग्रह अपनी अत्यधिक चमक के कारण सूर्योदय से पहले और सूर्यास्त के बाद दिखाई देता है, इसलिए इसे 'भोर का तारा' (Morning Star) या 'सांझ का तारा' कहा जाता है।
- कथन II सही है: मुख्य क्षुद्रग्रह बेल्ट (एस्टेरॉयड बेल्ट) मंगल और बृहस्पति की कक्षाओं के बीच स्थित है।
- कथन III गलत है: कुइपर बेल्ट सौरमंडल के सबसे बाहरी भाग में नेपच्यून (वरुण) ग्रह की कक्षा के बाहर (30 से 50 खगोलीय इकाई) स्थित बर्फीले पिंडों का क्षेत्र है, न कि शनि और यूरेनस के बीच।
अतः केवल I और II सही हैं (विकल्प B)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4033📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsApplications of Information Technology
Which of the following statements is true regarding applications of Information Technology?
Explanation
Statement C is true: Telemedicine is the application of information and communications technology (telecommunications networks, video conferencing, digital health records) enabling healthcare professionals to evaluate, diagnose, and provide consultations to patients remotely.
कथन C सत्य है: टेलीमेडिसिन सूचना और संचार प्रौद्योगिकी (ICT) का एक अनुप्रयोग है, जिसके द्वारा डॉक्टर संचार नेटवर्क और वीडियो कॉन्फ्रेंसिंग के माध्यम से दूरस्थ क्षेत्रों के रोगियों को परामर्श और निदान सेवाएं प्रदान करते हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4034📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsSystem Software & Firmware
Match the following:
Column - I:
i. Firmware
ii. Utility Software
iii. Device Driver
iv. Compiler
Column - II:
a. Translates high-level language into machine code
b. Controls communication between operating system and hardware device
c. Stored permanently in ROM to initialize hardware
d. Performs system maintenance tasks like disk cleanup
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Matching descriptions:
- i. Firmware: Embedded software stored permanently in ROM/flash memory that initializes and tests hardware during boot (BIOS/UEFI) (c)
- ii. Utility Software: System software that performs housekeeping and maintenance tasks such as disk defragmentation, cleanup, and antivirus scans (d)
- iii. Device Driver: Software that translates commands between the operating system and a specific hardware peripheral (b)
- iv. Compiler: Language processor that converts entire source code written in a high-level language into machine code (a)
Therefore, the correct match is i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.
सही मिलान:
- i. फर्मवेयर: हार्डवेयर को शुरू करने के लिए ROM में स्थायी रूप से संग्रहीत सॉफ्टवेयर (जैसे BIOS) (c)
- ii. यूटिलिटी सॉफ्टवेयर: सिस्टम के रखरखाव और सुरक्षा कार्य जैसे डिस्क क्लीनअप करना (d)
- iii. डिवाइस ड्राइवर: ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम और हार्डवेयर उपकरण के बीच संचार को नियंत्रित करना (b)
- iv. कंपाइलर: उच्च स्तरीय भाषा के पूरे प्रोग्राम को एक साथ मशीन कोड में अनुवाद करना (a)
अतः सही मिलान i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a (विकल्प A) है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4035📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsOperating Systems & Virtual Memory (Thrashing)
A student is using a computer with 8 GB RAM. He opens:
- A web browser with 25 tabs
- A video editing software
- A music player
- A code editor
After some time, the system becomes slow, but it does NOT crash. The hard disk activity light keeps blinking continuously even though he is not saving or opening files. Which of the following is the most accurate explanation?
Explanation
When demanding applications consume all available physical RAM (8 GB), the Operating System's Virtual Memory manager activates the paging file/swap space on the secondary storage drive (HDD/SSD). To keep all programs running without crashing, pages of memory are repeatedly swapped in and out between physical RAM and disk storage. This condition (often known as 'paging thrashing') causes sustained high hard disk I/O, reflected by the continuously blinking hard drive LED and significant system slowdown.
जब चल रहे भारी प्रोग्राम 8 GB की भौतिक रैम को पूरी तरह भर देते हैं, तो ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम कंप्यूटर को क्रैश होने से बचाने के लिए 'वर्चुअल मेमोरी' (पेजिंग फ़ाइल/स्वैप स्पेस) का उपयोग शुरू कर देता है। इसमें रैम और हार्ड डिस्क के बीच डेटा पेजों की लगातार अदला-बदली (Paging/Swapping) होती है, जिसे 'थ्रैशिंग' कहा जाता है। इससे हार्ड डिस्क की बत्ती लगातार जलती/झपकती है और सिस्टम धीमा हो जाता है। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4036📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsE-Governance & IT Integration
A government launches a system where:
- Citizens apply for documents online
- Applications are automatically verified using databases
- SMS/email updates are sent automatically
- Officials approve requests digitally
- Data is stored centrally and accessed across departments
Which of the following best explains the real contribution of Information Technology (IT) in this system?
Explanation
The workflow illustrates the multifaceted nature of Information Technology: it does not merely digitize paper or provide an internet form, but seamlessly integrates telecommunications (SMS/email updates), automated data processing and verification, centralized enterprise databases, and digital workflow automation into a cohesive government service delivery ecosystem.
यह उदाहरण ई-गवर्नेंस में सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी (IT) के समग्र स्वरूप को दर्शाता है: आईटी केवल कागजी फाइलों को डिजिटल में नहीं बदलता, बल्कि संचार (एसएमएस/ईमेल), डेटा प्रसंस्करण और सत्यापन, केंद्रीय भंडारण तथा कार्यप्रवाह स्वचालन (Automation) को एक साथ एकीकृत करता है। अतः विकल्प C सर्वोत्तम व्याख्या है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4037📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsCyber Security & Antivirus Mechanisms
Which of the following statements is correct regarding computer viruses and modern antivirus systems?
Explanation
Statement B is correct: Signature-based detection works by comparing file contents against a database of known malware signatures (unique binary sequences or hashes). Consequently, it can only recognize and intercept threats whose signatures have already been analyzed, identified, and cataloged by security vendors.
कथन B सही है: पारंपरिक 'सिग्नेचर-आधारित' एंटीवायरस ज्ञात मैलवेयर के विशिष्ट बाइनरी पैटर्न या हैश (सिग्नेचर) की डेटाबेस से तुलना करके वायरस की पहचान करता है। इसलिए, यह केवल उन्हीं मैलवेयर का पता लगा सकता है जिन्हें पहले पहचाना और डेटाबेस में दर्ज किया जा चुका हो (यह अज्ञात ज़ीरो-डे हमलों पर प्रभावी नहीं होता)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4038📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryIT & Geospatial Applications in Forestry
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the use of modern computer applications in field operations of a Forest Department?
Explanation
Statement C is INCORRECT: Digital applications, GIS platforms, and remote sensing tools assist forest officers with real-time mapping, timber tracking, and patrolling, but they cannot eliminate the essential requirement for physical field inspections, ground truthing, and vigilance by forest staff on the ground.
कथन C गलत है: मोबाइल ऐप और जीआईएस तकनीकें वन विभाग को वास्तविक समय पर डेटा एकत्र करने, जीपीएस लोकेशन दर्ज करने और उपग्रह इमेजरी देखने में सहायता प्रदान करती हैं, लेकिन वे वन कर्मचारियों द्वारा जमीन पर किए जाने वाले 'भौतिक फील्ड निरीक्षण' और गश्त की आवश्यकता को कभी पूरी तरह समाप्त नहीं कर सकती हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4039📚Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsCryptography & Information Security
In an e-Office system, a confidential file is sent digitally from a section officer to a higher authority. The department wants to ensure that only the intended officer can read the file during transmission. Which of the following ensures confidentiality during transmission?
Explanation
In asymmetric (public-key) cryptography, confidentiality is achieved by encrypting the confidential message or document with the recipient's public key. Once encrypted, the file can only be decrypted and read by the matching private key, which is kept secret and solely accessible by the intended recipient officer. (A digital signature ensures authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity, but does not provide confidentiality).
असममित क्रिप्टोग्राफी (Public-Key Cryptography) में गोपनीयता (Confidentiality) सुनिश्चित करने के लिए प्रेषक फ़ाइल को 'प्राप्तकर्ता की सार्वजनिक कुंजी' (Recipient's Public Key) से एन्क्रिप्ट करता है। इसे केवल वही अधिकारी अपनी व्यक्तिगत 'निजी कुंजी' (Private Key) का उपयोग करके डिक्रिप्ट और पढ़ सकता है। (डिजिटल हस्ताक्षर केवल प्रामाणिकता और अखंडता सुनिश्चित करता है, गोपनीयता नहीं)। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
4040📚Basic MathematicsAverage Speed
A man completes a certain journey by a car. If he covered 30% of the distance at the speed of 20kmph. 60% of the distance at 40km/h and the remaining of the distance at 10 kmph, his average speed is
Explanation
Let total distance = 100 km.
- Time for 30 km at 20 km/h = 30 / 20 = 1.5 h
- Time for 60 km at 40 km/h = 60 / 40 = 1.5 h
- Remaining 10 km at 10 km/h = 10 / 10 = 1.0 h
Total time = 1.5 + 1.5 + 1.0 = 4.0 hours.
Average speed = Total distance / Total time = 100 / 4.0 = 25 km/h.
माना कुल दूरी = 100 किमी।
- 30 किमी का समय (20 किमी/घंटा पर) = 30/20 = 1.5 घंटे
- 60 किमी का समय (40 किमी/घंटा पर) = 60/40 = 1.5 घंटे
- शेष 10 किमी का समय (10 किमी/घंटा पर) = 10/10 = 1.0 घंटा
कुल समय = 1.5 + 1.5 + 1.0 = 4 घंटे।
औसत गति = 100 / 4 = 25 किमी/घंटा (विकल्प A)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4041📚Basic MathematicsAverage Speed
A man covers half of his journey at 6 km/h and the remaining half at 3 km/h. His average speed is
Explanation
When two equal distances are covered at speeds u and v, the average speed is given by the harmonic mean formula:
Average Speed = 2uv / (u + v) = (2 × 6 × 3) / (6 + 3) = 36 / 9 = 4 km/h.
जब दो बराबर दूरियां u और v चाल से तय की जाती हैं, तो औसत चाल:
औसत चाल = 2uv / (u + v) = (2 × 6 × 3) / (6 + 3) = 36 / 9 = 4 किमी/घंटा (विकल्प A)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4042📚Basic MathematicsProbability
In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize?
Explanation
Total tickets = 10 (prizes) + 25 (blanks) = 35.
Number of favorable outcomes (getting a prize) = 10.
Probability = 10 / 35 = 2 / 7.
कुल टिकट = 10 (पुरस्कार) + 25 (रिक्त) = 35।
अनुकूल परिणाम (पुरस्कार मिलना) = 10।
प्रायिकता = 10 / 35 = 2 / 7 (विकल्प C)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4043📚Basic ReasoningDirection Sense Test
A man starts from point A, walks 20 km East to reach point B. He then turns North and walks 15 km to reach point C. Next, he turns West and walks 8 km to reach point D. Finally, he turns South and walks 15 km to reach point E. What is the distance and direction of point E from point A?
Explanation
Taking point A as the origin (0, 0):
- Point B: (20, 0) [20 km East]
- Point C: (20, 15) [15 km North]
- Point D: (20 - 8, 15) = (12, 15) [8 km West]
- Point E: (12, 15 - 15) = (12, 0) [15 km South]
Point E is at coordinates (12, 0) relative to A (0, 0), which is exactly 12 km to the East.
बिंदु A को मूल बिंदु (0, 0) मानते हुए:
- बिंदु B: (20, 0) [20 किमी पूर्व]
- बिंदु C: (20, 15) [15 किमी उत्तर]
- बिंदु D: (12, 15) [8 किमी पश्चिम]
- बिंदु E: (12, 0) [15 किमी दक्षिण]
अतः बिंदु E, बिंदु A से ठीक 12 किमी पूर्व में स्थित है (विकल्प D)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4044📚Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding
In a code language, if PEN is written as 17717, then how will CAP be written in the same language?
Explanation
Letter ranks in English alphabet:
- P = 16, E = 5, N = 14
Add 1, 2, 3 sequentially to the positional values:
- P: 16 + 1 = 17
- E: 5 + 2 = 7
- N: 14 + 3 = 17
Combining values gives 17717.
Now for CAP:
- C = 3, A = 1, P = 16
- C: 3 + 1 = 4
- A: 1 + 2 = 3
- P: 16 + 3 = 19
Combining values gives 4319.
अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला में अक्षरों के स्थान:
- P = 16, E = 5, N = 14
क्रमशः +1, +2, +3 जोड़ने पर:
- P: 16 + 1 = 17, E: 5 + 2 = 7, N: 14 + 3 = 17 → 17717।
CAP के लिए:
- C: 3 + 1 = 4, A: 1 + 2 = 3, P: 16 + 3 = 19 → 4319 (विकल्प B)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4045📚Basic ReasoningCoding-Decoding
In a certain code language, 'MOHAN' is coded as 39-45-24-3-42 and 'KABIR' is coded as 33-3-6-27-54. How will 'RAGHU' be coded in that language?
Explanation
Each letter's position in the alphabet is multiplied by 3:
- M (13×3=39), O (15×3=45), H (8×3=24), A (1×3=3), N (14×3=42)
- K (11×3=33), A (1×3=3), B (2×3=6), I (9×3=27), R (18×3=54)
For RAGHU:
- R = 18 × 3 = 54
- A = 1 × 3 = 3
- G = 7 × 3 = 21
- H = 8 × 3 = 24
- U = 21 × 3 = 63
Code is: 54-3-21-24-63.
प्रत्येक अक्षर के वर्णमाला क्रम को 3 से गुणा किया गया है:
- M (13×3=39), O (15×3=45), H (8×3=24), A (1×3=3), N (14×3=42)।
RAGHU के लिए:
- R: 18 × 3 = 54
- A: 1 × 3 = 3
- G: 7 × 3 = 21
- H: 8 × 3 = 24
- U: 21 × 3 = 63
अतः कोड 54-3-21-24-63 (विकल्प C) है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4046📚
Introducing a lady, a man said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law." What is the man to the lady?
Explanation
The only daughter of the man's mother-in-law is the man's wife. The lady's mother is the man's wife, which means the man is the lady's father.
पुरुष की सास की इकलौती पुत्री उस पुरुष की पत्नी है। महिला की माँ उस पुरुष की पत्नी है, अर्थात वह पुरुष उस महिला का पिता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4047📚
What is the main reason for the increasing risk to wildlife mentioned in the passage?
Explanation
As stated directly in the passage: "Wildlife across the world is facing increasing risks due to human activities and environmental changes."
गद्यांश में सीधे उल्लेख किया गया है: "मानवीय गतिविधियों और पर्यावरणीय परिवर्तनों के कारण दुनिया भर में वन्यजीव बढ़ते जोखिमों का सामना कर रहे हैं।"
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4048📚
The "integrated approach" mentioned in the passage refers to:
Explanation
The passage clearly states: "The way forward lies in adopting an integrated approach that balances ecological protection with human development."
गद्यांश के अनुसार: "आगे का रास्ता एक एकीकृत दृष्टिकोण अपनाने में निहित है जो पारिस्थितिक संरक्षण को मानव विकास के साथ संतुलित करता है।"
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4049📚
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: During the ceremony, ___ eulogy was read to celebrate the life of ___ humble person.
Explanation
"Eulogy" begins with a consonant sound /juː/ (like "university"), so it takes "a". "Humble" begins with a pronounced consonant /h/ sound, so it also takes "a". Hence, "a eulogy ... a humble person".
"Eulogy" का उच्चारण व्यंजन ध्वनि /juː/ से शुरू होता है, इसलिए इसके पहले 'a' आता है। "Humble" का उच्चारण भी व्यंजन /h/ ध्वनि से शुरू होता है, इसलिए इसके पहले भी 'a' आता है। सही उत्तर 'a, a' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4050📚
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: No one imagined that such ___ heinous crime could occur inside ___ victim's house.
Explanation
"Such a heinous crime" uses the indefinite article "a" after "such" for a singular countable noun. "Inside the victim's house" refers to the specific victim of the crime, requiring "the".
"Such" के बाद एकवचन गणनीय संज्ञा के साथ 'a' का प्रयोग होता है ("such a heinous crime")। विशिष्ट पीड़ित के घर का संदर्भ होने के कारण दूसरे रिक्त स्थान में 'the' आएगा। अतः सही उत्तर 'a, the' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4051📚
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: ___ story of this movie revolves around ___ one-eyed man who overcomes many challenges.
Explanation
"The story of this movie" refers to a specific story, taking the definite article "The". "One-eyed" begins with a consonant glide sound /w/, so it takes "a" ("a one-eyed man").
फिल्म की विशिष्ट कहानी होने के कारण 'The' आएगा ("The story")। "One-eyed" का उच्चारण व्यंजन ध्वनि /w/ से होता है, इसलिए 'a' आएगा ("a one-eyed man")। अतः सही उत्तर 'The, a' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4052📚
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions: He has a deep aversion ___ hypocrisy.
Explanation
The noun "aversion" takes the preposition "to" (e.g., "aversion to something").
"Aversion" संज्ञा के बाद निश्चित preposition 'to' का प्रयोग होता है ("aversion to hypocrisy")।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4053📚
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions: She is adept ___ solving complex mathematical problems.
Explanation
The adjective "adept" is followed by "at" when referring to a skill or action: "adept at doing something".
किसी कौशल में निपुण होने के लिए "adept at" का प्रयोग किया जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर 'at' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4054📚
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions: The manager was accused ___ negligence in handling the project.
Explanation
The standard grammatical collocation is "accused of" a crime or fault.
किसी दोष या अपराध के आरोप के लिए "accused of" का प्रयोग किया जाता है। अतः सही उत्तर 'of' है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4055📚
In which sentence is the determiner wrongly used?
Explanation
"Students" is a plural countable noun, which requires "many" rather than "much". "Much" is used with uncountable nouns. The correct phrasing is "Not many students".
"Students" बहुवचन गणनीय संज्ञा है, इसलिए इसके साथ 'much' के स्थान पर 'many' का प्रयोग होना चाहिए ("Not many students")। अतः विकल्प C में निर्धारक का गलत प्रयोग हुआ है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4056📚
Match the word with its synonym.
Words:
i. Ricochet
ii. Melancholy
iii. Poignant
iv. Subterfuge
Synonyms:
a. Carom
b. Heart-rending
c. Dejected
d. Ploy
Choose the correct match:
Explanation
Ricochet matches Carom (rebound), Melancholy matches Dejected (sad), Poignant matches Heart-rending (deeply moving), and Subterfuge matches Ploy (deceitful tactic). Hence, i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d.
Ricochet = Carom (टकराकर उछलना), Melancholy = Dejected (उदास), Poignant = Heart-rending (हृदयविदारक), तथा Subterfuge = Ploy (छल या युक्ति)। अतः सही मिलान i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4057📚
Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence: "The committee was divided in its opinion, and the chairman's remarks only add fuel in the fire."
Explanation
The correct idiom is "to add fuel to the fire". Since the sentence is in past tense ("was divided"), the correct form is "added fuel to the fire".
सही मुहावरा "add fuel to the fire" (आग में घी डालना) होता है। चूँकि वाक्य भूतकाल में है ("was divided"), इसलिए सही रूप "added fuel to the fire" होगा।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4058📚
Consider the following statements regarding the Permanent Settlement (1793):
I. It was introduced by Lord Hastings in Bengal and Bihar.
II. The Zamindars were made the owners of the land, but their rights were subject to the "Sunset Law."
III. The share of the Government was fixed at 1/6 of the total produce.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis (not Lord Hastings) in 1793. The state revenue demand was 10/11th of the collection (not 1/6th of produce). Zamindars were recognized as owners subject to the Sunset Law (if payment was not made by sunset on the fixed date, their estate was auctioned). Thus, statement II only is correct.
स्थायी बंदोबस्त 1793 में लॉर्ड कॉर्नवालिस द्वारा लागू किया गया था (हेस्टिंग्स द्वारा नहीं)। इसमें राज्य का हिस्सा कुल राजस्व का 10/11वां भाग था (उपज का 1/6 नहीं)। जमींदारों के अधिकार 'सूर्यास्त कानून' के अधीन थे जिसके तहत निश्चित तिथि को सूर्यास्त से पहले लगान न चुकाने पर जमींदारी नीलाम कर दी जाती थी। अतः केवल कथन II सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4059📚
Consider the following statements regarding the various proposals made during the Indian Freedom Struggle:
I. The August Offer (1940) was the first time the British explicitly promised the framing of a new Constitution by Indians themselves.
II. The Cripps Mission (1942) offered immediate transfer of constitutional powers but was rejected by Gandhi as a "post-dated cheque on a crashing bank."
III. The Wavell Plan (1945) proposed a "Three-Tier" grouping of provinces into Sections A, B, and C to satisfy the Muslim League.
IV. The Mountbatten Plan (1947) mandated a plebiscite in the North-West Frontier Province (NWFP) and the Sylhet district of Assam.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: August Offer (1940) conceded that framing a constitution was primarily the responsibility of Indians. Statement II is incorrect because Cripps Mission did not offer immediate transfer of power (it offered dominion status after the war). Statement III is incorrect because the three-tier grouping into Sections A, B, and C was proposed by the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946), not the Wavell Plan. Statement IV is correct: Mountbatten Plan mandated plebiscites in NWFP and Sylhet. Thus, only I and IV are correct.
कथन I सही है (अगस्त प्रस्ताव में पहली बार भारतीयों द्वारा संविधान निर्माण की बात स्वीकार की गई)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि क्रिप्स मिशन ने युद्ध के बाद डोमिनियन का प्रस्ताव दिया था, तत्काल हस्तांतरण नहीं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि प्रांतों का त्रि-स्तरीय समूहीकरण (A, B, C) कैबिनेट मिशन (1946) ने प्रस्तावित किया था, वेवेल योजना ने नहीं। कथन IV सही है (माउंटबेटन योजना में NWFP और सिलहट में जनमत संग्रह अनिवार्य किया गया)। अतः केवल I और IV सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4060📚
How many of the following are tributaries of the river Krishna?
I. Bhima
II. Tungabhadra
III. Malprabha
IV. Kabini
V. Paleru
VI. Munneru
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Bhima, Tungabhadra, Malprabha, Paleru, and Munneru are all tributaries of the Krishna River (5 in total). Kabini (Kapila) is a major tributary of the Kaveri (Cauvery) River. Thus, exactly 5 (V) of them are tributaries of Krishna.
भीमा, तुंगभद्रा, मलप्रभा, पलेरू और मुन्नेरू (कुल 5) कृष्णा नदी की सहायक नदियाँ हैं। काबिनी कावेरी नदी की प्रमुख सहायक नदी है। अतः कुल 5 नदियाँ कृष्णा की सहायक नदियाँ हैं (V only)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4061📚
Match List-I (Glands) with List-II (respective functions):
Glands:
i. Hypothalamus
ii. Thymus
iii. Thyroid
iv. Pineal gland
Functions:
a. Metabolism regulation
b. Regulates sleep patterns
c. Large in infants, shrinks with age; trains T-cells
d. Controls the Pituitary
Choose the correct match:
Explanation
Hypothalamus controls the pituitary gland (i-d). Thymus trains T-cells and shrinks with age (ii-c). Thyroid regulates metabolism via thyroxine (iii-a). Pineal gland secretes melatonin to regulate sleep patterns and circadian rhythms (iv-b). Hence, i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b.
हाइपोथैलेमस पीयूष ग्रंथि को नियंत्रित करता है (i-d)। थाइमस T-कोशिकाओं को प्रशिक्षित करता है और उम्र के साथ घटता है (ii-c)। थायरॉयड चयापचय का नियमन करता है (iii-a)। पीनियल ग्रंथि मेलाटोनिन स्रावित कर नींद चक्र को नियंत्रित करती है (iv-b)। अतः सही मिलान i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4062📚
Consider the following statements about Manasbal Lake:
I. It is the deepest freshwater lake, located in the Poonch district of Jammu and Kashmir.
II. The large growth of lotus (Nelumbo nucifera) at the periphery of the lake (blooms during July and August) adds to the beauty of the clear waters of the lake.
III. It is a good site for aquatic birds and birdwatching and has the sobriquet of "supreme gem of all Kashmir Lakes".
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect because Manasbal Lake is located in the Ganderbal district of Kashmir Valley (not in Poonch district). Statements II and III are correct. Since the question asks for the INCORRECT statement, only I is incorrect.
कथन I गलत है क्योंकि मानसबल झील कश्मीर के गांदरबल जिले में स्थित है (पुंछ जिले में नहीं)। कथन II और III सही हैं। चूँकि प्रश्न में गलत कथन पूछा गया है, अतः केवल I गलत है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4063📚
Consider the following statements about 'Dumhal' in the Indian territory of Jammu and Kashmir:
I. It is one of the folk dance forms of the Wattal tribe of the region.
II. Only males can perform this dance on specific occasions and at set locations.
III. Dance is performed wearing long, colourful robes and tall, conical caps, studded with beads and shells.
IV. The performers move in a ritual manner and dig a banner (flag) into the ground before performing the dance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
All four statements are correct: Dumhal is traditionally performed by males of the Wattal community of Kashmir, wearing distinctive colourful robes and tall conical caps adorned with beads, beginning by ritually planting a banner in the ground around which they sing and dance.
सभी चारों कथन सही हैं: दुमहल कश्मीर की वट्टल जनजाति के पुरुषों द्वारा किया जाने वाला पारंपरिक अनुष्ठानिक नृत्य है। इसमें नर्तक रंगीन लबादे और मोतियों-कौड़ियों से सजी शंक्वाकार टोपी पहनते हैं और जमीन पर ध्वज गाड़कर उसके चारों ओर नृत्य करते हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4064📚
Match List-I (Authors) with List-II (Books):
Authors:
i. Diwan Kirpa Ram
ii. Abhinavgupta
iii. Jonaraja
iv. Kalhana
Books:
a. Rajtarangini
b. Gulabnama
c. Dvitiya Rajtarangini
d. Tantraloka
Choose the correct match:
Explanation
Diwan Kirpa Ram authored Gulabnama (i-b), Abhinavagupta composed Tantraloka (ii-d), Jonaraja wrote the Second Rajatarangini (Dvitiya Rajtarangini) (iii-c), and Kalhana wrote Rajatarangini (iv-a). Thus, i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a.
दीवान कृपा राम ने गुलाबनामा लिखी (i-b), अभिनवगुप्त ने तंत्रालोक की रचना की (ii-d), जोनराज ने द्वितीया राजतरंगिणी लिखी (iii-c), तथा कल्हण ने राजतरंगिणी की रचना की (iv-a)। अतः सही मिलान i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4065📚
Which of the following is the capital of the union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu?
Explanation
Under the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019, which came into effect on 26 January 2020, Daman was designated as the capital of the merged Union Territory.
दादरा और नगर हवेली तथा दमन और दीव (केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों का विलय) अधिनियम, 2019 के तहत, संयुक्त केंद्र शासित प्रदेश की राजधानी 'दमन' को बनाया गया है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4066📚
Which type of forest typically occurs in regions with annual rainfall of 70-100 cm, where trees shed their leaves completely during the dry season, giving the forest a grassland-like appearance?
Explanation
Tropical Dry Deciduous forests grow in regions receiving 70 to 100 cm rainfall. During the dry season, the trees shed all their leaves completely, making the forest look like open grassland with bare trees.
उष्णकटिबंधीय शुष्क पर्णपाती वन (Dry deciduous forests) 70 से 100 सेमी वर्षा वाले क्षेत्रों में पाए जाते हैं। शुष्क मौसम में ये पेड़ अपने पत्ते पूरी तरह गिरा देते हैं, जिससे यह खुले घास के मैदान की तरह प्रतीत होता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4067📚
According to the Indian State of the Forest Report (2023), which State/UT has the highest proportion of forest cover relative to its total geographical area?
Explanation
Across all States and Union Territories, Lakshadweep has the highest percentage of forest cover relative to its geographical area (>90%), followed by Mizoram (highest among States at ~85%) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
सभी राज्यों और केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों में, लक्षद्वीप में अपने भौगोलिक क्षेत्र के सापेक्ष वन आवरण का प्रतिशत सबसे अधिक (90% से अधिक) है, इसके बाद राज्यों में मिजोरम (~85%) का स्थान है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4068📚
How many of the following trees are examples of Tropical Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen Forests?
I. Rosewood
II. Mahogony
III. Palash
IV. Sal
V. Aini
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Rosewood, Mahogany, and Aini (3 species in total) are characteristic trees of Tropical Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen Forests. Palash and Sal are typical trees of Tropical Deciduous Forests. Thus, exactly 3 (III only) are correct.
रोजवुड, महोगनी और ऐनी (कुल 3 प्रजातियाँ) उष्णकटिबंधीय सदाबहार और अर्ध-सदाबहार वनों के विशिष्ट वृक्ष हैं। पलाश और साल उष्णकटिबंधीय पर्णपाती वनों के वृक्ष हैं। अतः कुल 3 वृक्ष सदाबहार वनों के उदाहरण हैं (III only)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4069📚
Under the Biodiversity Hotspots classification by Conservation International, a region must meet which of the following conditions to qualify?
I. It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation.
II. It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics.
III. It must be located in a tropical area only.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria: contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics (>0.5% of world's total) and have lost at least 70% of its original primary vegetation (having 30% or less remaining). They need not be restricted only to tropical zones (e.g. Mediterranean Basin, California). Thus, I and II only are correct.
जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट के लिए दो मुख्य मानदंड हैं: कम से कम 1,500 संवहनी पौधों की स्थानिक प्रजातियां होनी चाहिए (कथन II) और मूल प्राकृतिक वनस्पति का 70% नष्ट हो चुका हो यानी 30% या उससे कम बचा हो (कथन I)। हॉटस्पॉट समशीतोष्ण या भूमध्यसागरीय क्षेत्रों में भी हो सकते हैं, केवल उष्णकटिबंधीय में नहीं। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4070📚
Which of the following pairs of Biodiversity Heritage Sites (Biological Diversity Act, 2002) are correctly matched with their respective states?
Explanation
Unakoti is a notified Biodiversity Heritage Site in Tripura. Ambaragudda is in Karnataka, Asramam is in Kerala, and Ameenpur Lake is in Telangana. Thus, only Unakoti - Tripura is correctly matched.
उनाकोटी त्रिपुरा का एक अधिसूचित जैव विविधता विरासत स्थल है। अंबरागुड़ा कर्नाटक में, आश्रामम केरल में, और अमीनपुर झील तेलंगाना में स्थित है। अतः केवल विकल्प A सही सुमेलित है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4071📚
A researcher is studying the varying concentrations of "Curcumin" in Curcuma longa (Turmeric) plants growing across different altitudes in the Shivalik hills. This is an assessment of:
Explanation
Studying variations in chemical concentration or traits within individuals of the single same species (Curcuma longa) represents Genetic Diversity (similar to variations of reserpine in Rauwolfia vomitoria).
एक ही प्रजाति (हल्दी) के पौधों में रासायनिक सांद्रता या सक्रिय घटकों की भिन्नता का अध्ययन 'आनुवंशिक विविधता' (Genetic Diversity) का सटीक उदाहरण है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4072📚
Which of the following Biosphere Reserves in India are NOT recognised by UNESCO under its Man and Biosphere program?
Explanation
While Manas is a National Park and UNESCO World Heritage Site, Manas Biosphere Reserve is not included in UNESCO's World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) under the MAB program. Nokrek, Pachmarhi, and Cold Desert are recognized in the WNBR.
यद्यपि मानस एक राष्ट्रीय उद्यान और यूनेस्को विश्व धरोहर स्थल है, लेकिन मानस बायोस्फीयर रिजर्व यूनेस्को के MAB कार्यक्रम के तहत विश्व नेटवर्क (WNBR) में शामिल नहीं है। नोकरेक और पचमढ़ी इसमें शामिल हैं। अतः सही उत्तर मानस बायोस्फीयर रिजर्व है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4073📚
Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for Forest and Wildlife conservation in India:
I. Under the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972, the "Chief Wildlife Warden" is the statutory authority empowered to control, manage, and maintain all Protected Areas within a State or Union Territory.
II. The state's obligation to protect the Hangul is derived from the constitutional Article 51A(g).
Choose the correct statements:
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Under Section 33 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the Chief Wildlife Warden is the statutory authority to manage protected areas. Statement II is incorrect because Article 51A(g) is a Fundamental Duty of citizens, whereas the State's constitutional obligation to protect wildlife and environment is derived from Article 48A (Directive Principles of State Policy). Thus, only I is correct.
कथन I सही है (WPA, 1972 के तहत मुख्य वन्यजीव वार्डन वैधानिक प्राधिकरण है)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि अनुच्छेद 51A(g) नागरिकों का मूल कर्तव्य है, जबकि राज्य का वन्यजीवों की रक्षा का दायित्व अनुच्छेद 48A (राज्य के नीति निर्देशक तत्व) से प्राप्त होता है। अतः केवल कथन I सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4074📚
With reference to Tiger Conservation in India as of 2025-26, consider the following statements:
I. International Tiger Day is celebrated every year on 29th July to raise awareness about tiger conservation globally.
II. India is home to more than 70% of the world's wild tiger population.
III. The initial phase of Project Tiger included the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve among 9 tiger reserves.
IV. The Prime Minister is the chairman of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
Choose the correct statements:
Explanation
Statements I, II, and III are correct. Statement IV is incorrect because the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the Chairperson of the NTCA (the Prime Minister chairs the National Board for Wildlife, NBWL). Thus, I, II and III only are correct.
कथन I, II और III सही हैं। कथन IV गलत है क्योंकि केंद्रीय पर्यावरण, वन एवं जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्री NTCA के पदेन अध्यक्ष होते हैं (प्रधानमंत्री राष्ट्रीय वन्यजीव बोर्ड के अध्यक्ष होते हैं)। अतः केवल I, II और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4075📚
Consider the following statements about the Tiger reserves in India:
I. Karnataka has the highest number of tigers as per the latest Tiger Census.
II. Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam in Andhra Pradesh is the largest Tiger Reserve in India by area.
III. Guru-Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla is located in the state of Telangana.
Identify the INCORRECT statements:
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect: Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of tigers (785), followed by Karnataka (563). Statement II is correct: Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam is the largest tiger reserve in India (~3,728 sq km). Statement III is incorrect: Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve is located in Chhattisgarh (not Telangana). Since the question asks for the INCORRECT statements, I and III are incorrect.
कथन I गलत है क्योंकि मध्य प्रदेश में सर्वाधिक बाघ (785) हैं (कर्नाटक 563 के साथ दूसरे स्थान पर है)। कथन II सही है (नागार्जुनसागर-श्रीशैलम भारत का सबसे बड़ा टाइगर रिजर्व है)। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि गुरु घासीदास-तमोर पिंगला टाइगर रिजर्व छत्तीसगढ़ में स्थित है (तेलंगाना में नहीं)। अतः गलत कथन I और III हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4076📚
Which of the following mechanisms explains the increase in soil erosion after deforestation?
I. Reduction in interception of rainfall by the tree canopy
II. Decrease in the infiltration rate of water into the soil
III. Increase in evapotranspiration
IV. Loss of soil-binding root networks
Select the correct answer:
Explanation
Deforestation removes canopy cover, reducing rainfall interception (I) and exposing soil to raindrops; soil compaction reduces infiltration, creating high runoff (II); and root decay removes the physical binding of soil particles (IV). Statement III is incorrect because deforestation DECREASES evapotranspiration. Thus, I, II and IV only are correct.
वनों की कटाई से वर्षा का अवरोध कम होता है और वर्षा की बूंदें सीधे मिट्टी पर गिरती हैं (I), अंतःस्रवण कम होकर अपवाह बढ़ता है (II), तथा जड़ों का मिट्टी-बांधने वाला जाल नष्ट हो जाता है (IV)। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि पेड़ों के कटने से वाष्पोत्सर्जन घटता है, बढ़ता नहीं। अतः केवल I, II और IV सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4077📚
Choose the correct statements about the National Action Plan to Combat Desertification:
I. The National Action Plan to Combat Desertification, 2023, was prepared, aiming for the restoration of 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030.
II. It was launched under the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD).
III. It also aims to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 - 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent by 2030 through additional forest and tree cover.
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct: India is committed under the Bonn Challenge / UNCCD to restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030, and under its NDCs to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent by 2030. Statement II is incorrect because action on desertification falls under the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), not UNCBD. Thus, I and III only are correct.
कथन I और III सही हैं: भारत ने 2030 तक 26 मिलियन हेक्टेयर निम्नीकृत भूमि को बहाल करने (कथन I) तथा 2.5 से 3 बिलियन टन अतिरिक्त कार्बन सिंक बनाने (कथन III) का लक्ष्य रखा है। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि मरुस्थलीकरण संबंधी कार्य योजना UNCCD (मरुस्थलीकरण से निपटने के लिए संयुक्त राष्ट्र सम्मेलन) से संबंधित है, UNCBD से नहीं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
4078📚
Which of the following is not a Multilateral Environmental Agreement (MEA) related to climate change?
Explanation
CITES regulates international trade in wild fauna and flora to prevent species endangerment. UNFCCC, Kyoto Protocol, and Paris Agreement are multilateral treaties specifically focused on climate change.
CITES वन्य जीवों और वनस्पतियों की लुप्तप्राय प्रजातियों के अंतर्राष्ट्रीय व्यापार को नियंत्रित करता है, जबकि UNFCCC, क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल और पेरिस समझौता जलवायु परिवर्तन से संबंधित हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4079📚
Which of the following best describes a biotic environment?
Explanation
The biotic environment encompasses all living organisms within an ecosystem, including producers (plants), consumers (animals), and decomposers (microorganisms).
जैविक पर्यावरण पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र के सभी जीवित जीवों से बना होता है, जिसमें पौधे, जंतु और सूक्ष्मजीव शामिल हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4080📚
Which of the following is not an example of a non-renewable resource?
Explanation
Solar energy is an inexhaustible, renewable resource derived from the sun that does not deplete with human consumption. Coal, petroleum, and non-recharging fossil aquifers are non-renewable.
सौर ऊर्जा एक अक्षय और नवीकरणीय संसाधन है। कोयला, पेट्रोलियम और सीमित पुनर्भरण वाला भूजल गैर-नवीकरणीय संसाधन हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4081📚
Over-exploitation of non-renewable resources primarily leads to:
Explanation
Over-exploitation of finite non-renewable resources permanently exhausts natural reserves and causes severe long-term environmental degradation including pollution, habitat loss, and climate impacts.
सीमित गैर-नवीकरणीय संसाधनों के अत्यधिक दोहन से उनके प्राकृतिक भंडार समाप्त हो जाते हैं और दीर्घकालिक पर्यावरणीय क्षरण होता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4082📚
Consider the following statements regarding abiotic and biotic components of the environment:
I. Abiotic components are governed primarily by physical and chemical laws and do not reproduce.
II. Biotic components include only plants and animals, excluding microorganisms.
III. Interaction between abiotic and biotic components determines productivity and carrying capacity of an ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is correct (abiotic components are non-living physical/chemical factors). Statement II is incorrect because biotic components include microorganisms, bacteria, and fungi. Statement III is correct. Thus, I and III only are correct.
कथन I सही है। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि जैविक घटकों में सूक्ष्मजीव (जीवाणु, कवक आदि) भी शामिल होते हैं। कथन III सही है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4083📚
Consider the following statements regarding non-renewable resources and health hazards:
I. Coal and petroleum are non-renewable resources whose extraction often leads to land subsidence and acid mine drainage.
II. Long-term exposure to groundwater contaminated with arsenic is associated with skin lesions and black-foot disease.
III. Indoor air pollution from solid-fuel stoves does not cause any significant health burden in developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because indoor/household air pollution from burning biomass and solid fuels is one of the leading global causes of respiratory mortality and disease burden in developing nations. Thus, I and II only are correct.
कथन I और II सही हैं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि ठोस ईंधन से होने वाला इनडोर वायु प्रदूषण विकासशील देशों में श्वसन रोगों और मृत्यु दर का एक बड़ा कारण है। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4084📚
Consider the following statements regarding pollution indices and environmental events:
I. The Air Quality Index (AQI) in India is based on the concentration of multiple pollutants including PM2.5, PM10, NO2, and CO.
II. The Pollutant Standards Index (PSI) is used in India as the primary national air quality index.
III. The Montreal Protocol (1987) is an international agreement aimed at protecting the ozone layer by phasing out ozone depleting substances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct: India's National AQI considers 8 pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, Pb), and Montreal Protocol phases out ozone-depleting substances. Statement II is incorrect because India uses the National Air Quality Index (NAQI), not the US PSI. Thus, I and III only are correct.
कथन I और III सही हैं (भारत का राष्ट्रीय AQI 8 प्रदूषकों पर आधारित है और मॉन्ट्रियल प्रोटोकॉल ओजोन क्षयकारी पदार्थों से संबंधित है)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि भारत में NAQI लागू है, PSI नहीं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4085📚
Match List-I (Pollution Type) with List-II (Associated Health Hazard / Effect) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Air (PM2.5)
ii. Water (Nitrates)
iii. Land (Heavy Metals)
iv. Noise
List-II:
a. Methemoglobinemia
b. Hearing loss
c. Respiratory diseases
d. Neurological disorders
Explanation
PM2.5 causes respiratory diseases (i-c); Nitrates in water cause methemoglobinemia (ii-a); Heavy metals in soil cause neurological disorders (iii-d); Excessive noise causes hearing loss (iv-b). Thus, i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.
PM2.5 श्वसन रोग उत्पन्न करता है (i-c); जल में नाइट्रेट मेथेमोग्लोबिनेमिया का कारण है (ii-a); भारी धातुएं तंत्रिका विकार पैदा करती हैं (iii-d); और अत्यधिक ध्वनि से श्रवण हानि होती है (iv-b)। सही कूट i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4086📚
Match List-I (Environmental Agreement) with List-II (Year / Description) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Stockholm
ii. Rio
iii. Kyoto
iv. Paris
List-II:
a. 1997 targets
b. 1992 Agenda 21
c. 1972 first UN conf
d. 2015 global agreement
Explanation
Stockholm Conference took place in 1972 (i-c); Rio Summit in 1992 adopted Agenda 21 (ii-b); Kyoto Protocol in 1997 set emission reduction targets (iii-a); Paris Agreement in 2015 is the global climate accord (iv-d). Hence, i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d.
स्टॉकहोम 1972 पहला सम्मेलन (i-c); रियो 1992 एजेंडा 21 (ii-b); क्योटो 1997 उत्सर्जन लक्ष्य (iii-a); पेरिस 2015 वैश्विक समझौता (iv-d)। अतः सही कूट i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4087📚
Arrange the following environmental events in chronological order (earliest first):
I. Earth Summit (Rio Earth Summit)
II. Stockholm Conference on Human Environment
III. Adoption of the Kyoto Protocol
IV. Paris Agreement on Climate Change
Choose the correct order:
Explanation
Chronological order: II. Stockholm Conference (1972) -> I. Rio Earth Summit (1992) -> III. Kyoto Protocol (1997) -> IV. Paris Agreement (2015). Thus, II - I - III - IV.
सही कालक्रम: II. स्टॉकहोम सम्मेलन (1972) -> I. रियो पृथ्वी सम्मेलन (1992) -> III. क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल (1997) -> IV. पेरिस समझौता (2015)। अतः सही क्रम II - I - III - IV है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4088📚
For proper design of sewerage components, the design period is normally taken as:
Explanation
Under standard design practices (CPHEEO Manual), sewer collection networks are designed for a 30-year period (20-30 years) due to difficulty in expanding underground pipes, whereas sewage treatment plants are designed for 15-25 years in phases.
CPHEEO मैनुअल के अनुसार, भूमिगत सीवर पाइपों के लिए डिजाइन अवधि 20-30 वर्ष और सीवेज उपचार संयंत्रों (STP) के लिए 15-25 वर्ष रखी जाती है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4089📚
Which of the following unit operations removes fine suspended solids and colloidal particles by chemical destabilization and formation of flocs?
Explanation
Coagulation destabilizes negative surface charges on colloidal particles using chemical coagulants (like alum), and flocculation aggregates the destabilized particles into larger settleable flocs.
स्कंदन (Coagulation) रासायनिक योगिकों द्वारा कोलाइडल कणों के आवेश को उदासीन करता है और ऊर्णन (Flocculation) उन्हें बड़े फ्लॉक्स में एकत्रित कर अवसादित करने योग्य बनाता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4090📚
In a UASB (Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket) reactor, the key feature is:
Explanation
The UASB reactor operates anaerobically by introducing wastewater at the bottom and flowing upwards through a dense blanket of self-immobilized, naturally formed anaerobic granular sludge.
UASB रिएक्टर में अपशिष्ट जल नीचे से प्रवेश कर घने अवायवीय दानेदार आपंक (granular sludge bed) से होकर ऊपर की ओर बहता है जहाँ जीवाणु कार्बनिक पदार्थों का पाचन करते हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4091📚
Pumping stations for sewage are generally located:
Explanation
Sewage lift stations are placed at low depression points where gravity flow cannot continue, intermediate lift stations along long trunk sewers to avoid excessive trench depth, and at the headworks of the sewage treatment plant.
सीवेज पंपिंग स्टेशन भूभाग के निचले गड्ढों (depression points), गहरी खुदाई से बचने के लिए सीवर लाइन के बीच-बीच में और उपचार संयंत्र (STP) के शीर्ष पर स्थापित किए जाते हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4092📚
Consider the following statements about sewage discharge and design periods:
I. Per-capita sewage generated is generally taken as about 75-85% of per-capita water supplied.
II. The average daily sewage flow is sufficient for sizing all components of the sewerage system without any peak-factor consideration.
III. Design periods for sewers are usually longer than those for treatment-plant components.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because sewer pipelines must be sized to carry peak flow (using a peak factor of 2.0 to 3.0) to prevent overflow during maximum discharge hours. Thus, I and III only are correct.
कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि सीवर पाइपों का डिजाइन पीक डिस्चार्ज (पीक फैक्टर 2 से 3) के आधार पर किया जाता है, केवल औसत प्रवाह पर नहीं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4093📚
Arrange the following steps in a conventional biological wastewater treatment train in correct order (flow direction):
I. Secondary clarifier
II. Aeration tank
III. Primary clarifier
IV. Coagulation flocculation settling (if included)
Choose the correct sequence:
Explanation
In a wastewater treatment plant with chemical enhancement, primary clarifier (III) removes settleable solids, followed by chemical coagulation-flocculation-settling (IV) for fine colloidal removal, then biological aeration tank (II), and finally secondary clarifier (I) to settle biological flocs. Sequence: III - IV - II - I.
अपशिष्ट जल उपचार में सबसे पहले प्राथमिक स्पष्टीकरण टैंक (III) भारी ठोस हटाता है, इसके बाद रासायनिक स्कंदन-ऊर्णन-अवसादन (IV), फिर जैविक वातन टैंक (II), और अंत में द्वितीयक स्पष्टीकरण टैंक (I) आता है। अतः सही क्रम III - IV - II - I है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4094📚
High BOD in wastewater indicates:
Explanation
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of oxygen required by microorganisms to biologically oxidize organic matter. A high BOD value indicates a high concentration of biodegradable organic pollutants.
जैव-रासायनिक ऑक्सीजन मांग (BOD) सूक्ष्मजीवों द्वारा कार्बनिक पदार्थों के अपघटन के लिए आवश्यक ऑक्सीजन की मात्रा है। उच्च BOD जैव-निम्नीकरणीय (biodegradable) कार्बनिक पदार्थों की उच्च मात्रा को दर्शाता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4095📚
Which of the following parameters measures both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic matter in wastewater?
Explanation
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) uses a strong chemical oxidant (potassium dichromate in acid) to oxidize virtually all organic substances, thereby measuring both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic matter.
रासायनिक ऑक्सीजन मांग (COD) शक्तिशाली रासायनिक ऑक्सीकारक द्वारा सभी कार्बनिक यौगिकों का ऑक्सीकरण करता है, जिससे यह जैव-निम्नीकरणीय और गैर-जैवनिम्नीकरणीय दोनों कार्बनिक पदार्थों को मापता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4096📚
The most common parameter used to assess the efficiency of a primary sedimentation tank is:
Explanation
Primary sedimentation tanks are physically designed to settle out settleable particulate matter by gravity. The percentage removal of Suspended Solids (SS), typically 50% to 70%, is the primary metric used to evaluate their performance.
प्राथमिक अवसादन टैंक का मुख्य उद्देश्य गुरुत्वाकर्षण द्वारा ठोस कणों को नीचे बैठाना है, इसलिए इसकी कार्यकुशलता का मूल्यांकन मुख्य रूप से 'निलंबित ठोस पदार्थों (SS) के निष्कासन' द्वारा किया जाता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4097📚
Which of the following is not a typical method of performance evaluation of a wastewater treatment plant?
Explanation
Performance evaluation relies on quantitative, scientific operational and laboratory metrics. Subjective personal opinion is not a recognized or valid engineering evaluation method.
अपशिष्ट जल उपचार संयंत्र का मूल्यांकन वैज्ञानिक आंकड़ों और प्रयोगशाला परीक्षणों पर आधारित होता है। 'व्यक्तिगत राय' कोई इंजीनियरिंग मूल्यांकन विधि नहीं है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4098📚
The most widely used test for measuring dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms in 5 days at 20°C is:
Explanation
The standard 5-day Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD5) test incubated at 20°C is the universally accepted standard for measuring dissolved oxygen consumed by heterotrophic microorganisms while degrading organic matter.
20°C पर 5 दिनों के लिए इनक्यूबेट किया जाने वाला 5-दिवसीय BOD परीक्षण (BOD5) सूक्ष्मजीवों द्वारा उपभोग की जाने वाली ऑक्सीजन को मापने का मानक परीक्षण है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4099📚
Consider the following statements regarding biological characteristics and performance evaluation:
I. Presence of coliforms in treated effluent indicates possible faecal contamination.
II. High Sludge Volume Index (SVI) indicates poor settling characteristics of secondary sludge.
III. Performance evaluation of a plant should be done only once, after construction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect because performance evaluation must be conducted continuously or periodically throughout the plant's operational life to ensure regulatory compliance and process control. Thus, I and II only are correct.
कथन I और II सही हैं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि अपशिष्ट जल उपचार संयंत्र का प्रदर्शन मूल्यांकन नियमित और निरंतर आधार पर किया जाना चाहिए, केवल निर्माण के बाद एक बार नहीं। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4100📚
Consider the following statements regarding self-purification and parameter interpretation:
I. Satisfying oxygen demand in a stream promotes self-purification.
II. High temperature always reduces the self-purification capacity of a stream.
III. Complete oxidation of organic matter by microorganisms produces CO2, H2O and inorganic salts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct: Oxygen replenishment enables aerobic mineralization into CO2, H2O, nitrates, and sulfates. Statement II is incorrect because while higher temperature slightly lowers oxygen saturation solubility, it significantly accelerates the biological reaction rates and reaeration velocity; thus it does not 'always reduce' capacity. Hence, I and III only are correct.
कथन I और III सही हैं (ऑक्सीजन मिलने से एरोबिक अपघटन बढ़ता है और पूर्ण ऑक्सीकरण से CO2, जल और लवण बनते हैं)। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि तापमान बढ़ने से सूक्ष्मजीवों की रासायनिक प्रतिक्रिया दर भी तेज होती है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4101📚
Match List-I (Performance Indicator) with List-II (Indication) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. BOD removal
ii. SS removal
iii. SVI
iv. F/M ratio
List-II:
a. Settling properties
b. Organic-load efficiency
c. Solids-separation
d. Substrate/Biomass balance
Explanation
BOD removal measures organic-load efficiency (i-b); SS removal indicates solids separation (ii-c); SVI evaluates sludge settling properties (iii-a); F/M ratio reflects substrate-to-biomass operational balance (iv-d). Hence, i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d.
BOD निष्कासन = कार्बनिक-भार दक्षता (i-b); SS निष्कासन = ठोस पृथक्करण (ii-c); SVI = आपंक अवसादन गुण (iii-a); F/M अनुपात = सब्सट्रेट/बायोमास संतुलन (iv-d)। अतः सही कूट i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4102📚
Arrange the following steps in performance evaluation in logical order:
I. Compare effluent quality with standards
II. Collect and analyse samples
III. Calculate removal efficiencies (%)
IV. Identify operational issues
Choose the correct sequence:
Explanation
The logical sequence begins with sampling and laboratory testing (II), followed by calculating unit pollutant removal efficiencies (III), evaluating effluent compliance against statutory standards (I), and diagnosing operational bottlenecks (IV). Sequence: II - III - I - IV.
तार्किक क्रम है: सबसे पहले नमूने एकत्र करना और विश्लेषण करना (II), फिर निष्कासन प्रतिशत दक्षता की गणना करना (III), इसके बाद वैधानिक मानकों से तुलना करना (I), और अंत में परिचालन समस्याओं की पहचान करना (IV)। अतः क्रम II - III - I - IV है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4103📚
Which of the following best defines Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?
Explanation
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a formal planning and decision-making tool used to identify, predict, and evaluate the biophysical and socio-economic consequences of proposed projects prior to major decisions and commitments being made, and to formulate mitigation measures.
पर्यावरणीय प्रभाव आकलन (EIA) किसी प्रस्तावित परियोजना के संभावित पर्यावरणीय और सामाजिक-आर्थिक प्रभावों की पूर्व पहचान, भविष्यवाणी और मूल्यांकन करने तथा उनके शमन की योजना बनाने की व्यवस्थित प्रक्रिया है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4104📚
An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is prepared:
Explanation
An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is the official comprehensive written document resulting from an EIA study that outlines predicted impacts, baseline conditions, public consultations, and mitigation plans submitted for regulatory environmental clearance.
पर्यावरणीय प्रभाव विवरण (EIS) EIA अध्ययन के निष्कर्षों, संभावित प्रभावों और शमन उपायों को प्रस्तुत करने वाला औपचारिक विस्तृत दस्तावेज है जो पर्यावरण स्वीकृति प्राप्त करने के लिए जमा किया जाता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4105📚
The Environment Management Plan (EMP) essentially:
Explanation
An Environment Management Plan (EMP) is an operational action plan that details site-specific mitigation measures, environmental monitoring protocols, schedule, budgeting, and institutional responsibilities to mitigate impacts during pre-construction, construction, and operation.
पर्यावरण प्रबंधन योजना (EMP) निर्माण और संचालन चरणों के दौरान प्रतिकूल पर्यावरणीय प्रभावों को कम करने के लिए आवश्यक शमन, निगरानी और आकस्मिक उपायों की विस्तृत कार्ययोजना निर्धारित करती है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4106📚
GIS is most helpful in EIA for:
Explanation
Geographic Information Systems (GIS) provide spatial mapping capabilities to overlay diverse thematic layers (topography, drainage, land cover, settlements, forests) to identify environmentally sensitive zones and analyze spatial cumulative impacts.
GIS का मुख्य उपयोग मानचित्रण, विभिन्न विषयगत परतों (भूमि उपयोग, जल विज्ञान, वन क्षेत्र, मानव बस्तियों) को ओवरले करने और स्थानिक संचयी प्रभावों का विश्लेषण करने में होता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4107📚
Remote sensing in EIA is particularly useful for:
Explanation
Satellite remote sensing provides repetitive, multi-spectral imagery that enables temporal tracking of land use/land cover changes, deforestation, vegetation health indices (NDVI), and the degradation of wetland/water bodies.
उपग्रह रिमोट सेंसिंग का उपयोग समय के साथ भूमि उपयोग और भूमि आवरण (LULC) में बदलाव, वनों की स्थिति तथा जल स्रोतों की सटीक निगरानी के लिए किया जाता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4108📚
Which of the following is not a typical component of an Environment Management Plan (EMP)?
Explanation
An EMP consists of pollution mitigation measures, monitoring schedules, compliance standards, and organizational responsibilities. The promoter's corporate financial statements belong to accounting filings, not environmental management plans.
EMP में प्रदूषण नियंत्रण उपाय, निगरानी योजना और जिम्मेदारियां शामिल होती हैं। प्रमोटर के कॉर्पोरेट वित्तीय विवरण EMP का हिस्सा नहीं होते हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4109📚
Consider the following statements regarding EIA basics:
I. EIA aims to predict environmental impacts at an early stage in project planning and design.
II. EIA is only a technical document with no legal or policy implications.
III. Public participation is an important part of the EIA process in many national legislations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because EIA is a legally mandated statutory instrument under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, carrying binding legal clearance conditions and enforcement liabilities. Thus, I and III only are correct.
कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि EIA केवल तकनीकी दस्तावेज नहीं है, बल्कि यह कानूनी रूप से बाध्यकारी वैधानिक प्रक्रिया है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4110📚
Consider the following statements regarding EIS and EMP:
I. The Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is essentially a written compilation of EIA findings.
II. The Environment Management Plan (EMP) is implemented only after project completion.
III. Mitigation and monitoring measures are part of the EMP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because the EMP must be implemented from pre-construction, throughout construction, and during the operational lifespan of the project, not merely after project completion. Thus, I and III only are correct.
कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि EMP निर्माण-पूर्व, निर्माण और संचालन के दौरान लागू किया जाता है, केवल परियोजना पूरी होने के बाद नहीं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4111📚
Consider the following statements regarding impact prediction and assessment:
I. Impacts on air, water, biota, noise, cultural, and socio-economic environment are normally assessed in an EIA.
II. Cultural heritage sites and socio-economic structures are excluded from EIA coverage.
III. The impact of construction and infrastructure development on land typically includes habitat loss, soil erosion, and water-related pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect because cultural heritage, historical monuments, and socio-economic displacement are explicitly included in EIA terms of reference. Thus, I and III only are correct.
कथन I और III सही हैं। कथन II गलत है क्योंकि सांस्कृतिक विरासत और सामाजिक-आर्थिक संरचनाएं EIA अध्ययन का अनिवार्य हिस्सा होती हैं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4112📚
Match List-I (Tool / Technology) with List-II (Use in EIA) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. GIS
ii. Remote sensing
iii. Noise-software
iv. Water-network
List-II:
a. Sound levels
b. Mapping/Overlaying
c. Time-series monitoring
d. Satellite land-cover
Explanation
GIS provides spatial mapping and overlaying (i-b); Remote sensing tracks satellite land-cover (ii-d); Noise software models predicted sound levels (iii-a); Water network monitoring tracks hydrological time-series data (iv-c). Hence, i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c.
GIS = मानचित्रण/ओवरलेइंग (i-b); रिमोट सेंसिंग = उपग्रह भूमि-आवरण (ii-d); नॉइज़ सॉफ्टवेयर = ध्वनि स्तर मॉडलिंग (iii-a); वॉटर नेटवर्क = समय-श्रृंखला निगरानी (iv-c)। अतः सही कूट i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4113📚
Match List-I (EIA Approach) with List-II (Typical context) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Rapid EIA
ii. Comprehensive
iii. Sectoral
iv. Strategic (SEA)
List-II:
a. High-impact projects
b. Policy/Plan level
c. Moderate-impact
d. Whole sector guidelines
Explanation
Rapid EIA applies to moderate-impact projects (i-c); Comprehensive EIA is required for high-impact projects (ii-a); Sectoral EIA assesses whole-sector guidelines (iii-d); Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA) applies at the policy/plan/program level (iv-b). Hence, i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.
रैपिड EIA = मध्यम प्रभाव परियोजनाएं (i-c); व्यापक EIA = उच्च प्रभाव परियोजनाएं (ii-a); सेक्टोरल EIA = संपूर्ण क्षेत्र दिशा-निर्देश (iii-d); रणनीतिक SEA = नीति/योजना स्तर (iv-b)। अतः सही कूट i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4114📚
Arrange the following impact-assessment categories for an industrial EIA in the order of increasing complexity / scope (simplest first):
I. Noise and vibration
II. Air-quality impacts
III. Cultural and socio-economic impacts
IV. Hydrological and aquatic-biological impacts
Choose the correct sequence:
Explanation
Noise and vibration assessment is physical and highly localized (I); Air-quality dispersion modeling spans regional airsheds (II); Hydrological and aquatic-biological modeling spans entire drainage basins and ecosystems (IV); Cultural and socio-economic impact assessment is the most complex, involving multi-faceted human demographics, livelihood, rehabilitation, and community heritage (III). Sequence: I - II - IV - III.
ध्वनि और कंपन सबसे स्थानीयकृत और सरल भौतिक प्रभाव है (I); वायु गुणवत्ता वायुमंडलीय फैलाव से संबंधित है (II); जल विज्ञान और जलीय जैव-पारिस्थितिकी संपूर्ण जलग्रहण क्षेत्र को प्रभावित करती है (IV); और सांस्कृतिक व सामाजिक-आर्थिक प्रभाव सबसे जटिल बहुआयामी मानवीय कारक हैं (III)। अतः सही क्रम I - II - IV - III है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4115📚
The Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986 derives its statutory basis from a direction issued after the:
Explanation
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, which empowers the Indian Parliament to enact laws implementing international decisions. The Act was specifically enacted to implement the decisions of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at Stockholm in June 1972, gaining urgent impetus following the Bhopal Gas Tragedy in December 1984.
पर्यावरण (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1986 भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 253 के तहत अधिनियमित किया गया था, जो संसद को अंतर्राष्ट्रीय समझौतों और सम्मेलनों के निर्णयों को लागू करने के लिए कानून बनाने की शक्ति देता है। यह विशेष रूप से जून 1972 में स्टॉकहोम में आयोजित संयुक्त राष्ट्र मानव पर्यावरण सम्मेलन के निर्णयों को लागू करने के लिए अधिनियमित किया गया था, जिसे दिसंबर 1984 की भोपाल गैस त्रासदी के बाद तत्काल गति मिली।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4116📚
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 envisages the establishment of:
Explanation
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is the foundational legislation that established institutional regulatory bodies in India: Section 3 provides for the constitution of the Central Board for the Prevention and Control of Water Pollution (now Central Pollution Control Board - CPCB), and Section 4 mandates the constitution of State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs).
जल (प्रदूषण निवारण एवं नियंत्रण) अधिनियम, 1974 भारत में नियामक प्रदूषण नियंत्रण निकायों की स्थापना करने वाला मूल कानून है। इसकी धारा 3 केंद्रीय प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड (CPCB) के गठन का प्रावधान करती है और धारा 4 राज्यों में राज्य प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्डों (SPCBs) के गठन का प्रावधान करती है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4117📚
Under the Water (P&CP) Act, 1974, setting of effluent and water-quality standards is a function of:
Explanation
Under the Water Act, 1974, setting water quality and effluent standards is a primary statutory function of the Pollution Control Boards: Section 16 mandates CPCB to lay down, modify, or annul standards for streams or wells, and Section 17 mandates SPCBs to lay down standards for sewage and trade effluents.
जल अधिनियम, 1974 के तहत जल गुणवत्ता और बहिःस्राव मानक निर्धारित करना प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्डों (CPCB/SPCBs) का वैधानिक कार्य है। धारा 16 CPCB को नदियों/जलस्रोतों के मानक निर्धारित करने का अधिकार देती है, और धारा 17 SPCBs को सीवेज और औद्योगिक बहिःस्राव के लिए मानक निर्धारित करने का कार्य सौंपती है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4118📚
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was enacted to give effect to the decisions of the:
Explanation
The preamble of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 explicitly states that the Act was passed to implement the decisions taken at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at Stockholm in June 1972, in which India participated, concerning the preservation of natural resources including air quality.
वायु (प्रदूषण निवारण एवं नियंत्रण) अधिनियम, 1981 की प्रस्तावना में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख है कि यह कानून जून 1972 में स्टॉकहोम में आयोजित संयुक्त राष्ट्र मानव पर्यावरण सम्मेलन में लिए गए निर्णयों को लागू करने के लिए अधिनियमित किया गया था, जिसमें वायु गुणवत्ता और प्राकृतिक संसाधनों के संरक्षण पर सहमति बनी थी।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4119📚
Under the Air (P&CP) Act, 1981, the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) is entrusted with:
Explanation
Under Section 17 and Section 21 of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, the State Pollution Control Board is entrusted with planning comprehensive air pollution control programs, inspecting air pollution control areas, monitoring ambient air quality, and granting Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO) to industrial plants.
वायु (प्रदूषण निवारण एवं नियंत्रण) अधिनियम, 1981 की धारा 17 और 21 के तहत, राज्य प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड (SPCB) को राज्य भर में वायु प्रदूषण नियंत्रण की योजना बनाने, परिवेशीय वायु गुणवत्ता की निगरानी करने और औद्योगिक इकाइयों को संचालन सहमति (CTO) व स्थापना सहमति (CTE) प्रदान करने का दायित्व सौंपा गया है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4120📚
For most industries, consent to establish and consent to operate (CTO) are required under:
Explanation
Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO) are mandatory statutory requirements granted by SPCBs under Section 25/26 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and Section 21 of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
स्थापना सहमति (Consent to Establish - CTE) और संचालन सहमति (Consent to Operate - CTO) राज्य प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड द्वारा जल (प्रदूषण निवारण एवं नियंत्रण) अधिनियम, 1974 की धारा 25 और वायु (प्रदूषण निवारण एवं नियंत्रण) अधिनियम, 1981 की धारा 21 के तहत अनिवार्य रूप से जारी की जाती हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4121📚
Consider the following statements about the Water (P&CP) Act, 1974:
I. CPCB and SPCBs have powers to set water quality and effluent standards under the Act.
II. The Act does not deal with groundwater at all.
III. Monitoring of river-quality and industrial effluents is a key function of the Boards under this Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Laying down effluent standards and stream standards is entrusted to SPCBs (Section 17) and CPCB (Section 16). Statement II is incorrect: Under Section 2(j) and 2(m), 'stream' and 'well' explicitly include subterranean waters, meaning groundwater is covered under the regulatory scope of the Water Act. Statement III is correct: Regular surveillance and monitoring of river basins and industrial effluent discharges is a statutory function. Thus, Statements I and III are correct.
कथन I सही है: बहिःस्राव और जल गुणवत्ता मानक निर्धारित करना CPCB (धारा 16) और SPCB (धारा 17) का कार्य है। कथन II गलत है: अधिनियम की धारा 2(j) और 2(m) में 'धारा' और 'कुएं' की परिभाषा में भूमिगत जल (भूजल) भी शामिल है, इसलिए भूजल इसके दायरे में आता है। कथन III सही है: नदियों और औद्योगिक अपशिष्टों की गुणवत्ता की निगरानी बोर्डों का मुख्य कार्य है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4122📚
Consider the following statements related to the Air (P&CP) Act, 1981:
I. The Act provides for establishment of CPCB and State-level air-pollution boards.
II. Ambient air-quality monitoring and emission-standards are regulated under this Act.
III. Public hearings for every individual air-pollution complaint are mandatory under Section 19.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Under Sections 3 and 4 of the Air Act 1981, the Boards established under the Water Act 1974 function as the Central and State Boards for Air Pollution Control. Statement II is correct: Laying down National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) and industrial emission standards are statutory functions under Section 16 and 17. Statement III is incorrect: Section 19 provides for the declaration of air pollution control areas by the State Government, not mandatory public hearings for every private complaint.
कथन I सही है: वायु अधिनियम की धारा 3 और 4 के अनुसार जल अधिनियम के तहत गठित CPCB और SPCB ही वायु प्रदूषण नियंत्रण के कार्यों का निर्वहन करते हैं। कथन II सही है: परिवेशी वायु गुणवत्ता निगरानी और उत्सर्जन मानकों का निर्धारण इस अधिनियम के मुख्य कार्य हैं। कथन III गलत है: धारा 19 वायु प्रदूषण नियंत्रण क्षेत्रों की घोषणा से संबंधित है, व्यक्तिगत शिकायतों पर जन सुनवाई से नहीं। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4123📚
Match List-I (Board / Authority) with List-II (Primary environmental domain) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. CPCB
ii. SPCB
iii. ENVIS
iv. IAA

List-II:
a. National EIA appraisal
b. National water/air control
c. State water/air control
d. Info network

Choose the correct match:
Explanation
The correct pairings are:
- i. CPCB -> b. National water/air control (apex national technical body for water and air pollution)
- ii. SPCB -> c. State water/air control (state-level execution, enforcement, and consent granting)
- iii. ENVIS -> d. Info network (Environmental Information System network set up by MoEFCC)
- iv. IAA -> a. National EIA appraisal (Impact Assessment Agency in the Ministry that appraises EIA reports).
Thus, the correct code is i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a.
सही मिलान इस प्रकार है:
- i. CPCB -> b. राष्ट्रीय जल/वायु नियंत्रण (राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर जल और वायु प्रदूषण नियंत्रण का शीर्ष निकाय)
- ii. SPCB -> c. राज्य जल/वायु नियंत्रण (राज्य स्तर पर सहमति और मानकों का प्रवर्तन)
- iii. ENVIS -> d. सूचना नेटवर्क (MoEFCC का पर्यावरण सूचना प्रणाली नेटवर्क)
- iv. IAA -> a. राष्ट्रीय EIA मूल्यांकन (प्रभाव आकलन एजेंसी जो EIA रिपोर्टों का मूल्यांकन करती है)।
अतः सही कूट i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4124📚
Arrange the following key stages related to project clearance and compliance in India in chronological order (earliest first):
I. Grant of Environmental Clearance (EC)
II. Grant of Consent to Establish (CTE)
III. Construction and commissioning
IV. Grant of Consent to Operate (CTO)
Choose the correct sequence:
Explanation
The statutory project clearance lifecycle in India proceeds as follows:
1. Prior Environmental Clearance (EC) from MoEFCC or SEIAA (Stage I);
2. Consent to Establish (CTE) from the State Pollution Control Board before any construction commences (Stage II);
3. Construction of plant, machinery, and installation of pollution control systems, followed by commissioning (Stage III);
4. Consent to Operate (CTO) from the SPCB after verifying installation and before regular commercial operations begin (Stage IV).
Thus, the correct sequence is I - II - III - IV.
भारत में औद्योगिक परियोजनाओं के वैधानिक अनुपालन का क्रम निम्नलिखित है:
1. निर्माण पूर्व पर्यावरणीय मंजूरी (EC) प्राप्त करना (I);
2. राज्य प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड से स्थापना सहमति (CTE) प्राप्त करना (II);
3. संयंत्र और प्रदूषण नियंत्रण प्रणालियों का निर्माण और कमीशनिंग (III);
4. वाणिज्यिक संचालन शुरू करने से पहले संचालन सहमति (CTO) प्राप्त करना (IV)।
अतः सही क्रम I - II - III - IV है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4125📚
An Environmental Audit in an industrial unit is primarily:
Explanation
An Environmental Audit is defined as a systematic, documented, periodic, and objective evaluation of how well an organization's environmental management system (EMS), facilities, and processes conform to environmental statutory regulations, consent conditions, emission/effluent standards, and resource conservation goals.
पर्यावरणीय ऑडिट को पर्यावरण प्रबंधन प्रणाली (EMS), संयंत्र और प्रक्रियाओं के प्रदर्शन का एक व्यवस्थित, प्रलेखित, आवधिक और वस्तुनिष्ठ मूल्यांकन माना जाता है जो यह सत्यापित करता है कि इकाई पर्यावरण कानूनों, वैधानिक सहमति शर्तों, उत्सर्जन मानकों और संसाधन संरक्षण लक्ष्यों का कितना अनुपालन कर रही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4126📚
A Safety Audit in an industrial unit mainly aims to:
Explanation
A Safety Audit is a structured, comprehensive inspection of plant operations, working conditions, equipment integrity, and safety management systems (SMS). Its primary objective is to proactively identify occupational hazards, unsafe conditions, operational deficiencies, and evaluate the adequacy of emergency preparedness and preventive controls.
सुरक्षा ऑडिट का मुख्य उद्देश्य संयंत्र के संचालन, उपकरणों की अखंडता और सुरक्षा प्रबंधन प्रणालियों (SMS) का गहन निरीक्षण करके असुरक्षित प्रथाओं, संभावित दुर्घटना खतरों और कमियों की पहचान करना तथा सुरक्षा नियंत्रण उपायों व आपातकालीन तैयारियों की प्रभावशीलता का मूल्यांकन करना है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4127📚
Under which legislation is an On-Site Emergency Plan (OSEP) typically mandated for hazardous-industry units in India?
Explanation
Section 41-B of the Factories Act, 1948 (inserted by the 1987 Amendment Act post-Bhopal disaster) explicitly mandates that every occupier of a factory involving hazardous processes must formulate an On-Site Emergency Plan and detailed disaster control measures for workers and plant safety. (It is also reinforced under Rule 13 of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemicals Rules, 1989).
कारखाना अधिनियम, 1948 की धारा 41-B (जो 1987 के संशोधन द्वारा भोपाल आपदा के बाद जोड़ी गई थी) के तहत खतरनाक प्रक्रियाओं से जुड़ी प्रत्येक औद्योगिक इकाई के अधिभोगी (occupier) के लिए एक ऑन-साइट आपातकालीन योजना (OSEP) और आपदा नियंत्रण उपाय तैयार करना अनिवार्य किया गया है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4128📚
The main objective of an On-Site Emergency Plan is to:
Explanation
The primary objective of an On-Site Emergency Plan (OSEP) is to contain and control an emergency within the boundaries of the industrial installation, protect plant personnel, minimize property damage, organize rapid and orderly evacuation, provide immediate first-aid, and prevent the escalation of the incident into an off-site catastrophe.
ऑन-साइट आपातकालीन योजना (OSEP) का प्राथमिक उद्देश्य संयंत्र की चारदीवारी के भीतर किसी भी आपात स्थिति या दुर्घटना को तुरंत नियंत्रित करना, श्रमिकों और कर्मियों की सुरक्षा व व्यवस्थित सुरक्षित निकासी सुनिश्चित करना तथा घटना को बाहरी क्षेत्र में फैलने से रोकना है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4129📚
An Off-site emergency plan focuses on:
Explanation
An Off-Site Emergency Plan addresses industrial disasters that have consequences extending beyond the factory boundary, affecting the surrounding community and environment. It focuses on multi-agency coordination led by district administration, integrating police, fire brigades, emergency medical/hospital services, evacuation transport, and public communication.
ऑफ-साइट आपातकालीन योजना उन औद्योगिक आपदाओं से निपटने के लिए होती है जिनका प्रभाव कारखाने की परिधि से बाहर आम जनता और आसपास के पर्यावरण पर पड़ता है। यह जिला प्रशासन, पुलिस, अग्निशामक दल, अस्पतालों और स्थानीय अधिकारियों के बीच प्रभावी समन्वय और सार्वजनिक सुरक्षा सुनिश्चित करने पर केंद्रित होती है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4130📚
In a safety audit, HAZOP (Hazard and Operability Study) is used to:
Explanation
HAZOP (Hazard and Operability Study) is a structured, systematic qualitative examination technique used by multi-disciplinary engineering teams to identify potential hazards and operability bottlenecks in industrial process design, chemical piping and instrumentation diagrams (P&IDs), and plant operations using guide-words (e.g., More Flow, Less Pressure, Reverse).
HAZOP (हैज़र्ड एंड ऑपरेबिलिटी स्टडी) एक संरचित और व्यवस्थित इंजीनियरिंग तकनीक है जिसका उपयोग मार्गदर्शक शब्दों (गाइड-वर्ड्स जैसे अधिक प्रवाह, कम दबाव आदि) के माध्यम से रासायनिक व औद्योगिक प्रक्रिया-डिजाइन में संभावित खतरों और परिचालन समस्याओं की पहचान करने के लिए किया जाता है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4131📚
A Disaster-Management Plan (DMP) in an industrial unit usually emphasizes:
Explanation
A comprehensive Disaster Management Plan (DMP) encompasses the complete four-phase disaster risk management framework: Hazard Prevention (eliminating or reducing risks), Preparedness (planning, training, stockpiling, and drills), Response (emergency incident management, containment, and evacuation), and Recovery (post-disaster restoration, rehabilitation, and investigation).
औद्योगिक आपदा प्रबंधन योजना (DMP) आपदा चक्र के चार प्रमुख चरणों पर व्यापक बल देती है: रोकथाम (खतरों को कम करना), तैयारी (योजना, उपकरण, प्रशिक्षण और मॉक ड्रिल), त्वरित प्रतिक्रिया (घटना नियंत्रण, प्राथमिक उपचार और निकासी) तथा पुनर्प्राप्ति (सामान्य स्थिति की बहाली और पुनर्वास)।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4132📚
For major accident hazard units, on-site and off-site emergency plans are typically required under:
Explanation
For Major Accident Hazard (MAH) installations, preparing and maintaining comprehensive on-site and off-site emergency plans is legally mandated under statutory disaster management rules, including the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical (MSIHC) Rules 1989, the Chemical Accidents (Emergency Planning, Preparedness, and Response) Rules 1996, and regulatory guidelines issued by State Pollution Control Boards and State Disaster Management Authorities.
प्रमुख दुर्घटना संभावित (MAH) औद्योगिक इकाइयों के लिए ऑन-साइट और ऑफ-साइट आपातकालीन योजनाएं MSIHC नियम 1989, रासायनिक दुर्घटना नियम 1996, राज्य आपदा प्रबंधन प्राधिकरण और प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड के वैधानिक दिशानिर्देशों के तहत अनिवार्य रूप से अपेक्षित हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4133📚
Periodic audits and drills of the on-site emergency plan are important mainly to:
Explanation
Periodic rehearsals and mock drills validate the practical execution of emergency standard operating procedures (SOPs), test the operational readiness of emergency equipment (alarms, breathing apparatus, fire pumps), verify that incident controllers and response teams clearly understand their roles, and reveal procedural gaps that require updating.
आपातकालीन योजना की नियमित मॉक ड्रिल और ऑडिट का मुख्य उद्देश्य आपातकालीन प्रक्रियाओं (SOPs) की व्यावहारिकता की पुष्टि करना, आपातकालीन उपकरणों (अलार्म, अग्निशामक, श्वास उपकरण आदि) की परिचालन तत्परता की जांच करना और आपातकालीन कर्मियों को उनकी भूमिकाओं में दक्ष बनाए रखना है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4134📚
Consider the following statements about Environmental and Safety Audits:
I. Environmental Audit verifies compliance with laws and effectiveness of an EMS.
II. Safety Audit is primarily a one-time exercise for project-inception only.
III. Regular audits contribute to continuous improvement of performance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: An Environmental Audit verifies statutory compliance and EMS effectiveness. Statement II is incorrect: A Safety Audit is not a one-time initial event; it is an ongoing, periodic evaluation conducted at regular intervals throughout the operational lifecycle. Statement III is correct: Regular systematic audits drive the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle for continuous environmental and safety improvements. Thus, Statements I and III are correct.
कथन I सही है: पर्यावरणीय ऑडिट कानूनों के अनुपालन और पर्यावरण प्रबंधन प्रणाली की कार्यक्षमता का सत्यापन करता है। कथन II गलत है: सुरक्षा ऑडिट कोई एकमुश्त अभ्यास नहीं है, बल्कि संयंत्र के पूरे जीवन चक्र में नियमित रूप से आवधिक अंतराल पर किया जाता है। कथन III सही है: नियमित ऑडिट से प्रदर्शन में निरंतर सुधार होता है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4135📚
Consider the following statements about On-Site Emergency Plan (OSEP):
I. OSEP is required mainly for high-hazard industries (e.g., MAH units).
II. OSEP is prepared only by the local fire-department, not by the occupier.
III. OSEP includes incident-control organization, alarms, and evacuation routes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Major hazard units carrying toxic or flammable inventories are strictly required to have an OSEP. Statement II is incorrect: The statutory responsibility to prepare the On-Site Emergency Plan lies with the occupier/factory management (under Section 41-B of the Factories Act and MSIHC Rules), while the Off-Site plan is prepared by the District Authority. Statement III is correct: An OSEP must detail the incident controller hierarchy, communication systems, alarm protocols, and marked escape/evacuation routes. Thus, Statements I and III are correct.
कथन I सही है: उच्च जोखिम वाले रासायनिक और खतरनाक उद्योगों (MAH) के लिए OSEP अनिवार्य है। कथन II गलत है: ऑन-साइट योजना तैयार करने की कानूनी जिम्मेदारी कारखाने के अधिभोगी/प्रबंधन की होती है, दमकल विभाग की नहीं (ऑफ-साइट योजना जिला प्रशासन द्वारा तैयार की जाती है)। कथन III सही है: OSEP में आपातकालीन नेतृत्व, सायरन प्रणाली और सुरक्षित निकासी मार्ग स्पष्ट होते हैं। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4136📚
Consider the following statements about Off-site emergency and disaster management plans:
I. Off-site emergency plan involves coordination between industries, fire-services, and district administration.
II. A Disaster-Management Plan (DMP) must rely solely on government assistance.
III. Both on-site and off-site plans should be reviewed and tested periodically through drills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: An Off-site plan establishes integrated coordination among industries, police, fire department, public health agencies, and the district magistrate. Statement II is incorrect: Industrial disaster management plans rely heavily on internal self-sufficiency, mutual aid schemes among neighboring industries, and private safety infrastructure, rather than depending solely on external government help. Statement III is correct: Regular table-top exercises and full-scale mock drills are mandatory to maintain readiness. Thus, Statements I and III are correct.
कथन I सही है: ऑफ-साइट योजना में जिला प्रशासन, अग्निशमन, पुलिस, अस्पतालों और उद्योगों के बीच अंतर-एजेंसी समन्वय शामिल होता है। कथन II गलत है: आपदा प्रबंधन योजना केवल सरकारी मदद पर निर्भर नहीं होती, बल्कि आंतरिक आपातकालीन दलों और पड़ोसी उद्योगों के बीच पारस्परिक सहायता (Mutual Aid) पर भी आधारित होती है। कथन III सही है: मॉक ड्रिल द्वारा योजनाओं का नियमित परीक्षण अनिवार्य है। अतः केवल I और III सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4137📚
Consider the following statements about audits in relation to emergency plans:
I. Environmental Audit can include review of emergency plans as part of EMS.
II. Safety Audit may assess emergency-response training and equipment readiness.
III. Conducting an audit eliminates all risk of accidents, making plans unnecessary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statements I and II are correct: Both Environmental Audits (under ISO 14001 EMS) and Safety Audits routinely evaluate the adequacy, training, equipment, and testing of emergency response protocols. Statement III is false: Audits identify risks and system deficiencies, but no audit can eliminate 100% of hazard risks or render emergency preparedness plans obsolete. Thus, Statements I and II are correct.
कथन I और II सही हैं: पर्यावरण ऑडिट (EMS के तहत) और सुरक्षा ऑडिट दोनों ही आपातकालीन योजनाओं, कर्मियों के प्रशिक्षण और उपकरणों की तत्परता की समीक्षा करते हैं। कथन III गलत है: कोई भी ऑडिट दुर्घटना के सभी जोखिमों को पूरी तरह समाप्त नहीं कर सकता और आपातकालीन योजनाओं की आवश्यकता कभी समाप्त नहीं होती। अतः केवल I और II सही हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4138📚
Match List-I (Plan / Concept) with List-II (Main Focus) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Env.Audit
ii. Safety Audit
iii. OSEP
iv. Off-site Plan

List-II:
a. multi-agency coordination
b. EMS verification
c. hazard identification
d. Internal incident control

Choose the correct match:
Explanation
The correct pairings are:
- i. Env.Audit -> b. EMS verification (systematic verification of environmental compliance and management system)
- ii. Safety Audit -> c. hazard identification (proactive inspection of operational dangers and risks)
- iii. OSEP -> d. Internal incident control (immediate response and containment within factory perimeter)
- iv. Off-site Plan -> a. multi-agency coordination (cooperation among district administration, police, and hospitals).
Thus, the correct code is i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a.
सही मिलान इस प्रकार है:
- i. पर्यावरणीय ऑडिट -> b. EMS सत्यापन (पर्यावरण प्रबंधन प्रणाली और अनुपालन का सत्यापन)
- ii. सुरक्षा ऑडिट -> c. खतरा पहचान (कार्यस्थल के संभावित खतरों और असुरक्षित स्थितियों की पहचान)
- iii. OSEP -> d. आंतरिक घटना नियंत्रण (संयंत्र की सीमा के अंदर त्वरित नियंत्रण)
- iv. ऑफ-साइट योजना -> a. बहु-एजेंसी समन्वय (प्रशासन, पुलिस और दमकल के बीच समन्वय)।
अतः सही कूट i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4139📚
Match List-I (Tool / Technique) with List-II (Use in Audits / Plans) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. HAZOP
ii. MSDS
iii. Drills
iv. Incident-Controller

List-II:
a. chemical info
b. process-design hazards
c. validate plans
d. coordinate on-site response

Choose the correct match:
Explanation
The correct pairings are:
- i. HAZOP -> b. process-design hazards (systematic examination of process equipment and deviation risks)
- ii. MSDS -> a. chemical info (Material Safety Data Sheet detailing toxicological, handling, and first-aid data)
- iii. Drills -> c. validate plans (practical rehearsal to test emergency response readiness)
- iv. Incident-Controller -> d. coordinate on-site response (designated commander who directs emergency operations on site).
Thus, the correct code is i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d.
सही मिलान इस प्रकार है:
- i. HAZOP -> b. प्रक्रिया-डिजाइन खतरे (प्रक्रिया उपकरणों और परिचालन विचलन के खतरों की पहचान)
- ii. MSDS -> a. रासायनिक जानकारी (पदार्थ सुरक्षा डेटा शीट जिसमें रासायनिक खतरे व प्राथमिक उपचार होते हैं)
- iii. ड्रिल -> c. योजनाओं का सत्यापन (आपातकालीन तैयारियों का व्यावहारिक परीक्षण)
- iv. इंसिडेंट-कंट्रोलर -> d. ऑन-साइट प्रतिक्रिया का समन्वय (साइट पर राहत व नियंत्रण का संचालन करने वाला प्रमुख)।
अतः सही कूट i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4140📚
Match List-I (Legal / Institutional driver) with List-II (Mandate) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Factories Act
ii. PCB guidelines
iii. ISO 14001
iv. District DMP

List-II:
a. Internal EMS audit
b. OSEP mandate
c. Off-site linkages
d. Regulatory compliance

Choose the correct match:
Explanation
The correct pairings are:
- i. Factories Act -> b. OSEP mandate (mandates On-Site Emergency Plan under Section 41-B)
- ii. PCB guidelines -> d. Regulatory compliance (stipulates pollution limits, consent conditions, and legal compliance)
- iii. ISO 14001 -> a. Internal EMS audit (voluntary international standard requiring periodic internal environmental audits)
- iv. District DMP -> c. Off-site linkages (district disaster management plans integrating external community and emergency linkages).
Thus, the correct code is i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c.
सही मिलान इस प्रकार है:
- i. कारखाना अधिनियम -> b. OSEP जनादेश (धारा 41-B के तहत ऑन-साइट आपात योजना अनिवार्य)
- ii. PCB दिशानिर्देश -> d. नियामक अनुपालन (प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड की सहमति और नियमों का अनुपालन)
- iii. ISO 14001 -> a. आंतरिक EMS ऑडिट (पर्यावरण प्रबंधन प्रणाली का अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मानक)
- iv. जिला DMP -> c. ऑफ-साइट लिंकेज (जिले की आपदा योजना जो बाहरी राहत तंत्र को जोड़ती है)।
अतः सही कूट i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4141📚
Match List-I (Phase of disaster-management) with List-II (Typical activity) and select the correct code:
List-I:
i. Prevention
ii. Preparedness
iii. Response
iv. Recovery

List-II:
a. Rehabilitation
b. Evacuation
c. Training/Drills
d. Safer design

Choose the correct match:
Explanation
The correct pairings across the disaster management continuum are:
- i. Prevention -> d. Safer design (inherently safer plant design to eliminate hazards)
- ii. Preparedness -> c. Training/Drills (conducting regular response training and safety rehearsals)
- iii. Response -> b. Evacuation (immediate lifesaving action during an active incident)
- iv. Recovery -> a. Rehabilitation (post-emergency reconstruction, medical care, and restoration).
Thus, the correct code is i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a.
आपदा प्रबंधन चक्र के चरणों का सही मिलान:
- i. रोकथाम -> d. सुरक्षित डिजाइन (संयंत्र का सुरक्षित डिजाइन बनाकर दुर्घटनाओं के जोखिम को रोकना)
- ii. तैयारी -> c. प्रशिक्षण / मॉक ड्रिल (आपातकाल से निपटने के लिए पूर्व तैयारी और अभ्यास)
- iii. प्रतिक्रिया -> b. सुरक्षित निकासी (दुर्घटना के समय तुरंत कर्मियों को सुरक्षित स्थान पर निकालना)
- iv. पुनर्प्राप्ति -> a. पुनर्वास (आपदा के बाद बहाली और सामान्य स्थिति में लौटना)।
अतः सही कूट i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4142📚
Arrange the following phases of an industrial disaster-management cycle in logical order (early to late):
I. Recovery
II. Response
III. Preparedness
IV. Prevention
Choose the correct sequence:
Explanation
The standard disaster management cycle logically progresses through four key phases:
1. Prevention (mitigating risks beforehand);
2. Preparedness (readiness through planning and training);
3. Response (immediate emergency action during the incident);
4. Recovery (post-incident rehabilitation and reconstruction).
Therefore, the correct chronological sequence is IV - III - II - I.
मानक आपदा प्रबंधन चक्र के चरणों का तार्किक क्रम है:
1. रोकथाम (Prevention - IV);
2. तैयारी (Preparedness - III);
3. त्वरित प्रतिक्रिया (Response - II);
4. पुनर्प्राप्ति/बहाली (Recovery - I)।
अतः सही क्रम IV - III - II - I है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4143📚
Arrange the key steps in the activation of an On-Site Emergency Plan (OSEP) in logical sequence (earliest first):
I. Incident-controller assumes command
II. Alarm is raised and personnel alerted
III. Emergency drills and review (post-incident)
IV. Evacuation or containment initiated
Choose the correct sequence:
Explanation
When an on-site emergency occurs, the chronological sequence of activation is:
1. Immediate detection, sounding of the emergency siren/alarm, and alerting all personnel (Step II);
2. Designated Incident Controller / Site Main Controller assumes command at the Emergency Control Centre (Step I);
3. Execution of emergency response SOPs: hazardous material containment, fire-fighting, and orderly evacuation of non-essential personnel (Step IV);
4. Following 'All Clear' declaration, post-incident debriefing, investigation, review of response, and subsequent safety drills (Step III).
Thus, the correct sequence is II - I - IV - III.
ऑन-साइट आपातकाल की स्थिति में सक्रियण का सही क्रम है:
1. आपातकालीन अलार्म बजाकर सभी कर्मियों को सतर्क करना (II);
2. इंसिडेंट कंट्रोलर द्वारा आपातकालीन नियंत्रण केंद्र से कमान संभालना (I);
3. रिसाव/आग की रोकथाम और कर्मियों की सुरक्षित निकासी शुरू करना (IV);
4. घटना समाप्त होने के बाद समीक्षा, जांच और भविष्य के लिए ड्रिल (III)।
अतः सही क्रम II - I - IV - III है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
4144📚Mental Ability & Logical Reasoningreasoning-analogies-classification
Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:
BIRD : AEROPLANE :: FISH : ?
Explanation
A bird flies naturally in air, and an aeroplane is a man-made vehicle designed to travel through air. Similarly, a fish swims naturally in water, and a boat is a man-made vessel designed to travel through water. Therefore, FISH : BOAT.
पक्षी प्राकृतिक रूप से हवा में उड़ता है और हवाई जहाज मनुष्य द्वारा निर्मित हवा में उड़ने वाला वाहन है। इसी प्रकार, मछली पानी में तैरती है और नाव मनुष्य द्वारा पानी पर चलने के लिए बनाई गई है। अतः सही उत्तर 'नाव' (BOAT) है。
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4145📚Mental Ability & Logical Reasoningreasoning-analogies-classification
A man starts from a point and walks 30 metres towards South. He turns to his right and walks 30 metres. He then turns to his left and walks 20 metres. Again he turns to his left and walks 30 metres. How far is he from his starting point?
Explanation
Let's trace the person's coordinates starting at (0,0)(0, 0):
1. 30 m South: (0,−30)(0, -30)
2. Turns right (facing West) and walks 30 m: (−30,−30)(-30, -30)
3. Turns left (facing South) and walks 20 m: (−30,−50)(-30, -50)
4. Turns left (facing East) and walks 30 m: (−30+30,−50)=(0,−50)(-30 + 30, -50) = (0, -50)
The final position is directly 50 metres South of the starting point (0,0)(0, 0). Thus, he is 50 metres away.
प्रारंभिक बिंदु (0, 0) से गणना:
1. 30 मीटर दक्षिण: (0, -30)
2. दाएँ मुड़कर (पश्चिम) 30 मीटर: (-30, -30)
3. बाएँ मुड़कर (दक्षिण) 20 मीटर: (-30, -50)
4. पुनः बाएँ मुड़कर (पूर्व) 30 मीटर: (0, -50)
अतः वह प्रारंभिक बिंदु से ठीक 50 मीटर दक्षिण की दूरी पर है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4146📚Mental Ability & Logical Reasoningreasoning-analogies-classification
How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Triangle Figure
Explanation
In the standard symmetrical square figure with central diagonals and cross-medians divided into quadrants:
- Individual smallest unit triangles: 12 triangles.
- Triangles composed of 2 smaller units: 8 triangles.
- Triangles composed of 3/4 units forming larger quadrant triangles: 8 triangles.
Total count = 12+8+8=2812 + 8 + 8 = 28 triangles.
आकृति में त्रिभुजों की चरणबद्ध गणना:
- छोटे एकल त्रिभुज = 12
- दो भागों से मिलकर बने त्रिभुज = 8
- विकर्णों और मध्य रेखाओं से बने बड़े त्रिभुज = 8
कुल त्रिभुजों की संख्या = 12 + 8 + 8 = 28 है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4147📚General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Intensive cultivation refers to:
Explanation
Intensive agriculture (or intensive farming) is an agricultural intensification system that aims to maximize agricultural output per unit area of existing cultivated land using high inputs of capital, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation, and labor. Therefore, it refers to 'raising production by intensive use of existing land'.
सघन खेती (Intensive cultivation) का अर्थ उपलब्ध सीमित कृषि भूमि पर आधुनिक तकनीकों, उर्वरकों, कीटनाशकों, सिंचाई और श्रम के अधिकतम उपयोग द्वारा प्रति हेक्टेयर उत्पादकता को बढ़ाना है। अतः सही उत्तर 'मौजूदा भूमि के सघन उपयोग से उत्पादन बढ़ाना' है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4148📚General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Serena Williams equalled the Open Era record of 22 Grand Slam singles titles previously held by:
Explanation
At the 2016 Wimbledon Championships, Serena Williams won her 22nd Grand Slam singles title, equalling the Open Era record held by Germany's Steffi Graf (who won 22 major singles titles between 1987 and 1999).
2016 के विंबलडन चैंपियनशिप में सेरेना विलियम्स ने अपना 22वाँ ग्रैंड स्लैम एकल खिताब जीतकर जर्मनी की स्टेफी ग्राफ के ओपन एरा रिकॉर्ड की बराबरी की थी।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4149📚General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Who was instrumental in the integration of the princely states into the Indian Union?
Explanation
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (the first Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Home Affairs), assisted by V. P. Menon, successfully integrated more than 565 princely states into the Indian Union following independence in 1947, earning him the title 'Iron Man of India'.
भारत के प्रथम उप-प्रधानमंत्री तथा गृह मंत्री सरदार वल्लभभाई पटेल ने वी. पी. मेनन की सहायता से स्वतंत्रता के समय 565 से अधिक देशी रियासतों का भारतीय संघ में ऐतिहासिक एकीकरण किया, जिसके कारण उन्हें 'लौह पुरुष' कहा जाता है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4150📚General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
In which of the following plants are nitrogen-fixing symbiotic bacteria found?
Explanation
Leguminous plants such as peas (Pisum sativum), beans, and lentils form symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria (Rhizobium) within specialized root nodules, converting atmospheric nitrogen into bioavailable ammonium compounds.
मटर एक दलहनी (लेग्यूमिनस) पौधा है। इसकी जड़ों की गांठों में राइजोबियम (Rhizobium) नामक सहजीवी जीवाणु पाए जाते हैं, जो वायुमंडलीय नाइट्रोजन को नाइट्रेट्स में बदलकर मिट्टी की उर्वरता बढ़ाते हैं।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4151📚General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Which of the following is NOT a Non-Banking Financial Institution (NBFI)?
Explanation
Bank of India (BOI) is a Scheduled Public Sector Commercial Bank accepting demand deposits from the general public. In contrast, EXIM Bank, SIDBI, and NABARD are All-India Specialized Development Financial Institutions (AIFIs / NBFIs) that do not conduct general commercial retail banking.
बैंक ऑफ इंडिया (BOI) एक सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र का वाणिज्यिक बैंक (Commercial Bank) है, जो जनता से जमा स्वीकार करता है। जबकि EXIM बैंक, SIDBI और NABARD विशिष्ट विकास वित्तीय संस्थान/गैर-बैंकिंग वित्तीय संस्थान (NBFI/AIFI) हैं। अतः BOI इसका सही उत्तर है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4152📚Quantitative Aptitude & Basic Mathematicsmath-percentages-profit-loss
Two persons start from the same point at the same time and travel in the same direction with speeds of 25 km/h and 35 km/h. If one person is initially 60 km behind, in how many hours will the faster person catch up?
Explanation
Since both travel in the same direction, the relative speed is the difference between their speeds:
Relative Speed=35−25=10 km/h\text{Relative Speed} = 35 - 25 = 10\text{ km/h}
Time required to cover the 60 km gap:
Time=DistanceRelative Speed=6010=6 hours\text{Time} = \frac{\text{Distance}}{\text{Relative Speed}} = \frac{60}{10} = 6\text{ hours}
समान दिशा में चलते समय सापेक्ष गति (Relative speed):
सापेक्ष गति=35−25=10 किमी/घंटा\text{सापेक्ष गति} = 35 - 25 = 10\text{ किमी/घंटा}
पकड़ने में लगा समय:
समय=दूरीसापेक्ष गति=6010=6 घंटे\text{समय} = \frac{\text{दूरी}}{\text{सापेक्ष गति}} = \frac{60}{10} = 6\text{ घंटे}
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4153📚Quantitative Aptitude & Basic Mathematicsmath-percentages-profit-loss
An aeroplane is flying horizontally at a constant height of 2500 m above the ground. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the aeroplane changes from 45∘45^\circ to 30∘30^\circ in 15 seconds. Find the speed of the aeroplane in km/h:
Explanation
Let the height be h=2500 mh = 2500\text{ m}.
- Initial horizontal distance: x1=2500tan⁡45∘=2500 mx_1 = \frac{2500}{\tan 45^\circ} = 2500\text{ m}
- Second horizontal distance: x2=2500tan⁡30∘=25003 mx_2 = \frac{2500}{\tan 30^\circ} = 2500\sqrt{3}\text{ m}
Distance travelled in 15 seconds:
d=x2−x1=2500(3−1) md = x_2 - x_1 = 2500(\sqrt{3} - 1)\text{ m}
Speed in km/h:
Speed=2500(3−1)15×185=500×65(3−1)=600(3−1) km/h\text{Speed} = \frac{2500(\sqrt{3} - 1)}{15} \times \frac{18}{5} = \frac{500 \times 6}{5}(\sqrt{3} - 1) = 600(\sqrt{3} - 1)\text{ km/h}
ऊंचाई h=2500h = 2500 मीटर।
- प्रारंभिक क्षैतिज दूरी x1=2500/tan⁡45∘=2500x_1 = 2500 / \tan 45^\circ = 2500 मीटर
- 15 सेकंड बाद क्षैतिज दूरी x2=2500/tan⁡30∘=25003x_2 = 2500 / \tan 30^\circ = 2500\sqrt{3} मीटर
15 सेकंड में तय की गई दूरी:
d=2500(3−1) मीटरd = 2500(\sqrt{3} - 1)\text{ मीटर}
चाल (किमी/घंटा में):
चाल=2500(3−1)15×185=600(3−1) किमी/घंटा\text{चाल} = \frac{2500(\sqrt{3} - 1)}{15} \times \frac{18}{5} = 600(\sqrt{3} - 1)\text{ किमी/घंटा}
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4154📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms
Fill in the blank with the appropriate option:
"You are _______ common sense."
Explanation
The adjective 'devoid' takes the fixed preposition 'of' (devoid of), meaning entirely lacking, empty, or free from something. ('Lacking' when used with 'of' is incorrect; one simply says 'lacking common sense'). Thus, 'devoid of' is correct.
विशेषण 'devoid' के साथ हमेशा Preposition 'of' का प्रयोग होता है (devoid of), जिसका अर्थ होता है 'से रहित / से वंचित होना'। अतः सही उत्तर 'devoid of' है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4155📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms
Fill in the blank with the appropriate option:
"He ran so fast _______"
Explanation
The correlative conjunction structure 'so + adjective/adverb + that + clause' expresses cause and result. Furthermore, since the main verb 'ran' is in the past tense, the result clause must also be in the past tense: "that he fell".
कोरिलेटिव कंजंक्शन 'so ... that' परिणाम को व्यक्त करता है। चूँकि मुख्य क्रिया 'ran' भूतकाल (Past Tense) में है, इसलिए आश्रित उपवाक्य भी Past Tense में होगा: "that he fell"।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4156📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms
Fill in the blank with the appropriate option:
"The doctor has been _______ to attend to an urgent case."
Explanation
In the official paper, the passive construction is completed with the past participle 'called' ("The doctor has been called to attend..."), meaning summoned.
पैसिव वॉइस संरचना में 'The doctor has been called...' (डॉक्टर को बुलाया गया है) के रूप में past participle called का प्रयोग सही है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4157📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase:
"To put a spoke in one's wheel"
Explanation
"To put a spoke in someone's wheel" means to obstruct, disrupt, or thwart someone's plans, preventing them from progressing smoothly. Hence, it means to hinder.
"To put a spoke in one's wheel" का अर्थ होता है किसी के काम या योजना में बाधा उत्पन्न करना (अड़ंगा डालना)। इसका सही अर्थ 'To hinder' है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4158📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms
Improve the bracketed part of the sentence:
"Due to his poor performance in the interview, he [cut an angry figure] on the stage."
Explanation
The standard English idiomatic expression is "to cut a sorry figure", which means to create a poor, embarrassing, or pathetic impression.
अंग्रेजी में प्रचलित मुहावरा "cut a sorry figure" होता है, जिसका अर्थ है लज्जाजनक या दयनीय प्रभाव छोड़ना। अतः 'cut an angry figure' के स्थान पर 'cut a sorry figure' सही है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4159📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

Why are ants called Earth's most successful species?
Explanation
The opening lines of the passage state: "Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet... For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species." Option 3 correctly combines both stated reasons.
गद्यांश की पहली पंक्तियों में स्पष्ट लिखा है कि चींटियाँ 100 मिलियन से अधिक वर्षों से पृथ्वी पर रह रही हैं और वे पृथ्वी पर लगभग हर जगह पाई जाती हैं, इसी कारण उन्हें सबसे सफल प्रजाति कहा गया है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4160📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

Ants use antennae to:
Explanation
The passage explicitly states: "Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae." Hence, antennae are used to communicate.
गद्यांश में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है: 'Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae' (चींटियाँ अपने एंटेना से एक-दूसरे को छूकर संवाद करती हैं)।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4161📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

What does the Western Harvester ant do during winter?
Explanation
The passage states: "Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter."
गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि वेस्टर्न हार्वेस्टर चींटियाँ सर्दियों के दौरान शीतनिद्रा (hibernate) में रहने के लिए 15 फीट नीचे तक सुरंग बनाती हैं।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4162📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

What kind of homes do army ants build?
Explanation
The passage states: "Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food."
गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से बताया गया है: 'Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food' (आर्मी चींटियाँ घर नहीं बनातीं बल्कि भोजन की तलाश में घूमती हैं)।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission
4163📚General English & Comprehensiongeneral-english-vocabulary-idioms
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Ants have been living on the earth for more than 100 million years and can be found almost anywhere on the planet. It is estimated that there are about 20000 different species of ants. For this reason ants have been called Earth's most successful species. If you watch ants for any length of time you will see that they really do communicate with each other and very effectively too. Ants communicate by touching each other with their antennae. Ants also use chemicals called pheromones to leave scent trails for other ants to follow. Ants build many different types of homes. Many ants build simple little mounds out of dirt or sand. Other ants use small sticks mixed with dirt and sand to make a stronger mound that offers protection from rain. Western Harvester ants make a small mound on top, but then tunnels up to 15 feet straight down to hibernate during winter. Ant mounds consist of many chambers connected by tunnels. Different chambers are used for nurseries, food storage, and resting places for the worker ants. Some ants live in wood like termites. Army ants don't make a home at all but travel in large groups searching for food. Ants are social insects which means they live in large colonies or groups. Some colonies consist of millions of ants. There are three types of ants in each species: the queen, the sterile female workers, and males. The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long. The queen grows to adulthood, mates, and then spends rest of her life laying eggs. A colony may have only one queen, or there may be many queens depending on the species. Ants go through four stages of development: egg, larva, pupa, and adult.

What is the primary purpose of male ants?
Explanation
The passage explicitly notes: "The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants and do not live very long."
गद्यांश में कहा गया है: 'The male ants only serve one purpose, to mate with future queen ants...' (नर चींटियों का एकमात्र उद्देश्य भविष्य की रानियों के साथ संभोग करना होता है)।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission